Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper is divided into four sections.
2. There are 38 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A includes questions No. 1-20. These are MCQ-type questions. As per the question, there can be one answer.
4. Section B includes questions No. 21-29. These are very short answer-type questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each the question should not exceed 30 words.
5. Section C includes questions No. 30-35. They are short answer type questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
6. Section D includes questions No. 36-38. They are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 200 words. Question no 38 is to be answered with the help of the passage given.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Famines were also a major and recurring source of increased mortality”. Which of the following is not a cause of famines? [1]
(A) Continuing poverty and malnutrition in an agro-climatic environment
(B) Inadequate means of transportation and communication
(C) Failure of entitlements
(D) Increasing birth rate
Answer:
(D) Increasing birth rate

Explanation: Famine is a result of a shortage of food
and not an increase in births.

Question 2.
Right to Information campaign is an example of: [1]
(A) Reformist Movement
(B) Redemptive Movement
(C) Revolutionary Movement
(D) Counter Movement
Answer:
(A) Reformist Movement

Directions: In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of the reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Matriarchy, unlike patriarchy, has been a theoretical rather than an empirical concept.
Reason (R): There is no historical or anthropological evidence of matriarchy- i.e., societies where women exercise dominance. [1]
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: There do exist matrilineal societies, i.e., societies where women inherit property from their mothers but do not exercise control over it, nor are they the decision-makers in public affairs. But matriarchy only exists as conceptual opposition to patriarchy

Question 4.
invented a new system in the 1890s, which he called Scientific Management. [1]
(A) Henry Ford
(B) Frederick Winslow Taylor
(C) Karl Marx 1
(D) Harry Braverman
Answer:
(B) Frederick Winslow Taylor

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Social exclusion is voluntary.
Reason (R): Exclusion is practiced regardless of the wishes of those who are excluded. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

Explanation: Since it is practiced regardless of the wishes of those who are excluded, social exclusion is involuntary.

Question 6.
is famous for cotton production.[1]
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) Haryana
(D) Bengal
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 7.
_______, particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras, moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. [1]
(A) Lower class
(B) Middle class
(C) Upper class
(D) Nobility
Answer:
(B) Middle class

Question 8.
“Respecting regional sentiments is not just a matter of creating States: this has to be backed up with an institutional structure that ensures their viability as relatively autonomous units within a larger federal structure. In India, this is done by Constitutional provisions defining the powers of the States and the Centre. There are lists of ‘subjects’ or areas of governance that are the exclusive responsibility of either State or Centre, along with a ‘Concurrent List’ of areas where both are allowed to operate. The State legislatures determine the composition of the upper house of Parliament, the Rajya Sabha. In addition, there are periodic committees and commissions that decide on Centre-State relations. An example is the Finance Commission which is set up every 10 years to decide on sharing of tax revenues between centers and States. Up to 2017, each Five Year Plan also involved detailed State Plans prepared by the State Planning Commissions of each state. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council includes State members.”
What fortifies the institutional structure of the Indian states?
I. Provisions of powers to legislate on state subject
II. Constitutional provisions for the powers of the Centre
III. Constitutional provisions defining the powers of the states
IV. Provisions of sharing of tax revenues between Centre and States. [1]
(A) II, III
(B) I, II
(C) III, IV
(D) I, IV
Answer:
(A) II, III

Question 9.
Colonial impact is seen in the field of art, literature, music, and architecture in Indian society. [1]
(A) Westernisation
(B) Secularisation
(C) Modernisation
(D) Sanskritisation
Answer:
(D) Sanskritisation

Question 10.
The sociologist and social anthropologist were known for his works on the caste system and terms such as ‘Sanskritisation’ and ‘dominant caste’. [1]
(A) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
(B) Mysore Narasimhachar Srinivas
(C) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(D) Sri Narayana Guru
Answer:
(B) Mysore Narasimhachar Srinivas

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Policies promoting integration are different in style but not in overall objective.
Reason (R): They insist that the public culture be restricted to a common national pattern, while all ‘non-national’ cultures are to be relegated to the private sphere. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion(A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: Assimilationist policies also require non-dominant or subordinated groups in society to give up their own cultural values and adopt the prescribed ones.

Question 12.
“The old social movements functioned within the frame of political parties. The Indian National Congress led the Indian National Movement. The Communist Party of China led the Chinese Revolution. Today some believe that ‘old’ class-based political action led by trade unions and workers’ parties is on the decline. Others argued that in the affluent West with its welfare state, issues of class-based exploitation and inequality were no longer central concerns. So, the ‘new’ social movements were not about changing the distribution of power in society but about quality-of-life issues such as having a clean environment.” [1]
Which of the following statements is correct about E.P. Thompson?
(A) He held that the ‘crowd’ and the ‘mob’ were not made up of anarchic hooligans out to destroy society.
(B) Poor people in urban areas had good reasons for protesting.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D Neither (B) or (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation: E.E Thompson said that the crowd and the ‘mob’ were not made up of anarchic hooligans out to destroy society. Their research showed that poor people in urban areas had good reasons for protesting. They often resorted to public protest because they had no other way of expressing their anger and resentment against deprivation.

Question 13.
Which of the following is NOT true about cultural diversity? [1]
(A) It can arouse intense passion in people.
(B) It is sometimes accompanied by social and economic inequality.
(C) It becomes a problem when resources are scarce.
(D) Cultural diversity is only found in India.
Answer:
(D) Cultural diversity is only found in India.

Explanation: Cultural diversity is found in other parts of the world as well.

Question 14.
The_______movement strengthened loyalty to the national economy. [1]
(A) Quit India
(B) Swadeshi
(D) None of these
(C) Non-Cooperation
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Swadeshi

Question 15.
Choose the correct statement about social stratification. [1]
(A) Social stratification is not simply a function of individual differences.
(B) It is closely linked to the family and to the inheritance of social resources from one generation to the next.
(C) Social stratification is not likely to persist over generations unless it is widely viewed as being either fair or inevitable.
(D) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer:
(D) All of the above statements are correct.

Explanation: Social stratification is a characteristic of society. It persists over generations. It is also supported by patterns of belief or ideology.

Question 16.
The land reforms took away rights from the erstwhile claimants, the upper castes who were in the sense that they played no part in the agricultural economy other than claiming their rent.[ 1]
(A) Tenants
(B) Absentee landlords
(C) Dominant caste
(D) Political leaders 1
Answer:
(B) Absentee landlords

Explanation: Absentee landlords were not themselves the cultivators, but were the erstwhile upper caste claimants of lands

Question 17.
Even though the fertility and population growth rates are declining, India’s population is projected to increase from 1.2 billion today to an estimated 1.6 billion by 2050 due to_______ [1]
(A) population explosion
(B) post-transitional phase
(C) population momentum
(D) rate of natural increase
Answer:
(C) population momentum

Explanation: Population momentum refers to a situation, where a large cohort of women of reproductive age will fuel population growth over the next generation, even if each woman has fewer children than previous generations did.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): There is tension between the Indian state’s simultaneous commitment to secularism as well as the protection of minorities.
Reason (R): Providing protection to them immediately invites the accusation of favoritism or ‘appeasement’ of minorities. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: Opponents argue that secularism of this sort is only an excuse to favor minorities in return for their votes or other kinds of support.

Question 19.
The campaign against indigo plantations in 1917: [1]
(A) Champaran Satyagraha
(B) Bardoli Satyagraha
(C) Non-cooperation Movement
(D) Tebhaga Movement
Answer:
(A) Champaran Satyagraha

Question 20.
Population growth always outstrips growth in the production of subsistence resources; hence the only way to increase prosperity is by controlling the growth of the population. Unfortunately, humanity has only a limited ability to voluntarily reduce the growth of its population. Malthus believed therefore that ‘positive checks’ to population growth- in the form of famines and diseases-were inevitable because they were nature’s way of dealing with the imbalance between food supply and increasing population. Malthus was also criticized by liberal and Marxist scholars for asserting that poverty was caused by population growth. Critics argued that problems like poverty and starvation were caused by the unequal distribution of economic resources rather than by population growth. Agricultural production grows in progression.[1]
(A) Geometric
(B) Linear
(C) Harmonic
(D) Arithmetic
Answer:
(D) Arithmetic

Explanation: Arithmetic progression is a series or sequence of numbers that may start with any number, but where each succeeding number is obtained by adding a fixed amount (number) to the preceding number. Agricultural production can only grow in arithmetic progression (i.e., 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, etc.)

Section – B (18 Marks)

Question 21.
Identify the reasons why cultural diversity presents tough challenges. [2]
Answer:

• Cultural identities are very powerful and arouse intense passion.
• Cultural identities enable one to mobilize a large number of people.
• Sometimes cultural differences are accompanied by economic and social inequalities which provoke opposition from other communities.
• The situation becomes worse when resources like rivers, water, and government jobs have to be shared.

Question 22.
Give examples of the Peasant Movements in India during the 20th century ‘Deccan Riots’ of1857 against moneylenders: [2]
Answer:

• 1859-62 Bengal Revolt against the indigo plantation system.
• Champaran Satyagraha (1917-18) directed against indigo plantations.
• Bardoli Satyagraha (1928, Surat District), a ‘non-tax’ campaign as part of the nationwide non-cooperation movement, a campaign of refusal to pay land revenue.
• Tebhaga movement (1946-47): Struggle of sharecroppers in Bengal in North Bihar for a two-thirds share of their products instead of the customary half.
• Telangana movement (1946-51): Fight against the feudal conditions in the princely state of Hyderabad and was led by the CPI.
• The Naxalite struggle started in the region of Naxalbari (1967) in Bengal. The central problem for peasants was land.

Question 23.
Agricultural productivity increased sharply because of the new technology. India was able to become self-sufficient in food grain production for the first time in decades. It was primarily the medium and large farmers who were able to benefit from the new technology. [2]

(a)What is subsistence agriculture?
(b) Who was able to reap the most benefits from the Green Revolution and commercialization of agriculture?
OR
In what way formal demography is different from social demography?
Answer:
Agricultural productivity increased sharply because of the new technology. India was able to become self-sufficient in food grain production for the first time in decades. It was primarily the medium and large farmers who were able to benefit from the new technology.

• When agriculturists produce primarily for themselves and are unable to produce for the market, it is known as subsistence agriculture.
• It was the farmers who were able to produce a surplus for the market who were able to reap the most benefits from the Green Revolution and from the commercialization of agriculture that followed.

OR

Formal demography:

• Quantitative field
• Analysis
• Measurement
• Statistics
• Mathematical
• Counting and enumeration

Social demography:

• Focus on social, economic, and political aspects
• Enquires into causes and consequences of population structures and change.
• Social processes and structures regulate demographic processes.
• Trace the social reasons for population trends.

Answer 24.
How did colonial laws favor the owners and managers of tea plantations?
OR
Identify the reasons for different replacement levels found in the different States of India. [2]
Answer:

• The laws of a colonized country did not stick to democratic norms.
• The colonial government often used unfair means to hire and forcibly keep laborers and acted on behalf of the British planters.
• The colonial administrators used harsh measures against the laborers to make sure that they benefitted the planters.

OR

Reasons for different replacement levels found in different states of India:

• Increased levels of prosperity exert a strong downward pull on the birth rate;
• Increased literacy rate;
• Growing awareness;
• Increase in the level of education;
• Acceptance of small family size.

Question 25.
Show the relationship between stereotypes, prejudice, and discrimination. [2]
Answer:

• Prejudices are often grounded in stereotypes and fixed and inflexible characterization of a group of people.
• Prejudice and stereotype thinking lead to discrimination, i.e., actual behavior towards another group or individual.

Question 26.
How did early sociologists perceive industrialization? [2]
Answer:
Thinkers like Karl Marx, Max Weber, and Emile Durkheim associated several social features with industry, such as urbanization, and the loss of face-to-face relationships. In rural areas, however, people had face-to-face relationships and worked on their farms or for a landlord they knew. This was substituted by anonymous professional relationships in modern factories and workplaces.

Industrialization involves a detailed division of labor. People often do not see the result of their work because they are producing only one small part of a product. The work is often repetitive and exhausting. Marx called this situation alienation, where people do not enjoy work and see it as something they have to do only to survive and even that survival depends on whether the technology has room for any human labor.

Question 27.
What factors lead to the feminization of agricultural labor force? [2]
Answer:

• In villages, men migrate from their native village for work.
• The women stay in the village and take care of the household as well as agricultural activities.
• Eventually, agriculture has become a female-oriented task.

Question 28.
Caste began to take on a new life after being recorded in the 1901 census. How? [2]
Answer:
The 1901 census sought to collect information on the social hierarchy of caste.

• The census had an impact on the social perception of caste and the Census Commissioner received hundreds of petitions from the representatives of different castes claiming a higher position on the social scale.
• Official counting and recording of caste made the institution more rigid

Question 29.
Give the meaning of the term Secularisation.
OR
Name some organizations that were formed to address the issues of the Backward Caste during the twentieth century. [2]
Answer:

• Secularisation is meant to be a process of d dine in the influence of religion.
• It indicates a reduced level of involvement with religious organizations, the sodal and material influence of religious organizations, and the degree to which people hold religious beliefs. (To be assessed as a whole)

OR

• United Provinces Hindu Backward Classes League
• All-India Backward Classes Federation
• All India Backward Classes League
• In 1954, nearly 88 organizations were working for the Backward Classes

Section – C (24 Marks)

Question 30.
What are the reasons that can be attributed to the caste system becoming invisible for the upper classes, in the contemporary period?
OR
State how the declaration of the Karachi Session of INC committed itself to women’s equality. [4]
Answer:

• Upper-caste elites were able to benefit from subsidized public education, especially professional education.
• Took advantage of the expansion of state sector jobs in the early decades after Independence.
• This led to the rest of society (in terms of education) ensuring that they did not face any serious competition.
• As their privileged status got consolidated in the second and third generations, these groups believed that caste played no role in their advancement.
• For the third generation from these groups, their economic and educational capital is sufficient to ensure that they will get the best in terms of life chances.

OR

In 1931, the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress declared the Fundamental Rights of Citizenship in India whereby it committed itself to women’s equality. The declaration reads as follows:

• All citizens are equal before the law, irrespective of religion, caste, creed, or sex.
• No disability attaches to any citizen, because of his or her religion, caste, creed, or sex, concerning public employment, office of power or honor, and in the exercise of any trade or calling.
• The franchise shall be based on universal adult suffrage.
• The woman shall have the right to vote, represent, and the right to hold public offices.

Question 31.
Nation-states became the dominant political form during the colonial period. Explain. [4]
Answer:
Nation-state became the dominant political form:

• Initially, the use of passports was not common for international travel.
• Pertains to a particular state, characteristic of the modern world.
• Associated closely with the rise of nationalism; the rise of democratic ideas; Sovereign.
• A community of communities sharing a desire to be a part of the same political collectivity.

Question 32.
The Family Planning Programme suffered a setback during the years of national emergency. Justify the statement. [4]
Answer:
During the time of emergency, the government tried to intensify the efforts to bring down the growth rate by introducing a coercive program of mass sterilization, i.e., vasectomy and tubectomy.

• Vast numbers of mostly poor and powerless people were forcibly sterilized.
• There was massive pressure on lower-level government officials (like school teachers or office workers) to bring people for sterilization in the camps.
• There was widespread popular opposition to this program leading to the new government being elected after the Emergency to abandon it.

Question 33.
Elaborate on the discussion on women’s education during the nineteenth and twentieth century. [4]
Answer:

• The idea of female education was debated Social reformer Jyotiba Phule opened the first school for women in Pune.
• Reformers argued that women’s education is important for society to progress leading to the justifications of the thoughts based on modern and traditional ideas.
• Some of them believed that in pre-modern India, women were educated. Others contested this because this was so only for a privileged few.
• Thus, attempts to justify female education were made by recourse to both modern and traditional ideas, (to be assessed as a whole)

Question 34.
A green revolution led to regional inequalities. Give example.
OR
How did the advent of colonialism in India produce a major upheaval in the economy? [4]
Answer:

• Green Revolution involved the deployment of technological advancement in cultivation.
• Only a few states like Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh were able to adopt the technologies in agriculture.
• As a result, they had enormous socio-economic development.
• On the other hand, dry regions such as Telangana, Bihar, and Eastern U.E were relatively underdeveloped.

OR

The advent of colonialism in India produced major upheavals in the economy:

• British industrialization led to de-industrialization in India.
• After colonization, India became a source of raw materials and agricultural products and a consumer of manufactured goods. Earlier it was a major supplier of manufactured goods to the world market.
• New groups emerged to take advantage of the economic opportunities provided by colonialism.
• Disruptions in production, trade, and agriculture. e.g., handloom, village crafts, etc.
• The emergence of new business communities transformed trade, banking, industry, etc.

Question 35.
Explain the theories on Social Movement. [4]
Answer:
There are three theories on social movement.

According to the Theory of Relative Deprivation, social movement results from social conflict. Groups of people feel resentment and rage as they feel deprived of access to resources. However, it is criticized that a sense of deprivation alone cannot lead to a social movement.

In the Theory of Collective Action, Mancur Olson opines that a social movement is an aggregation of rational individual actors pursuing their self-interest. His theory is based on the notion of rational, utility-maximizing individuals. That is, a person participates in a social movement only if one gains something and if the risks are less than the gains.

Resource Mobilisation Theory was proposed by McCarthy and Zald, who said that a social movement’s success depends on its ability to mobilize resources or means of different sorts. Resources such as leadership, organizational capacity, and communication facilities, when used within the available political opportunity structure, it is more likely to be effective.

Question 36.
What is cultural diversity? Why are states often suspicious of cultural diversity? [4]
Answer:
By cultural diversity, we mean that:

The presence within the larger, regional, or another context of many different kinds of cultural communities such as those defined by language, religion, region, ethnicity, and so on. It is the multiplicity of the plurality of identities.

There are many types of social groups and communities living in India. These communities are defined by cultural identity markers such as language, religion, race, sect, or caste.
States are often suspicious of cultural diversity because:

Sometimes cultural diversities are accompanied by economic and social inequalities which lead to rivalries.Situation becomes worse when scarce resources like river water, jobs, or government funds have to be shared.

Divisive forces like communal riots, demands for regional autonomy, or caste wars are hard at work, tearing the country apart.Cultural diversity leads to social fragmentation and prevents the creation of a harmonious society. Such ‘identity politics’ was considered a threat to state unity.

Accommodating differences is politically challenging. Many states have resorted to either suppressing these diverse identities or ignoring them in the political domain.States generally tend to favor a single, homogenous national identity, in the hope of being able to control and manage it.

Section – D (18 Marks)

Question 37.
Explain the three key principles of social stratification with examples. [6]
Answer:
Three key principles help to explain social stratification:

Social stratification is a characteristic of society, not simply a function of individual differences: Social stratification is a society-wide system that unequally distributes social resources among categories of people. For example, in primitive societies, social stratification is rudimentary but in technologically advanced societies where surplus is produced, social resources are unequally distributed to various social categories regardless of people’s innate individual abilities.

Social stratification persists over generations: It is closely linked to the family and the inheritance of social resources from one generation to the next. A person’s social position is ascribed. A Dalit is likely to be confined to traditional occupations such as agricultural labor, scavenging, or leather work, with little chance of being able to get high-paying white-collar or professional work.

Social stratification is supported by patterns of belief, or ideology: For example, the caste system is justified in terms of the opposition of purity and pollution, with the Brahmins designated as the most superior and the most inferior under their birth and occupation.

Question 38.
The Khasi matrilineal generates intense role conflict for men. Elaborate.
OR
“For much of the twentieth-century social movements were class-based such as working-class movements and peasant movements or anti-colonial movements. While anti-colonial movements united entire people into national liberation struggles, class-based movements united classes to fight for their rights.” Explain. [6]
Answer:

• Khasi matrilineal generates intense role conflict for men. This is because men take control of the property inherited by their sisters.
• Khasi men are torn between their responsibilities to their natal house on the one hand and their wives and children on the other.
• A woman can never be fully assured that her husband does not find his sister’s house a more congenial place than her own.
• A sister will be apprehensive about her brother’s commitment to her welfare because the wife can always pull him away from his responsibilities to his natal house.
• Women possess only token authority in Khasi society as it is men who are the de-facto power holders.
• The system is indeed weighted in favor of male matri-kin rather than male Patrik in.

OR

Anti-colonial movements: The formation of communist and socialist states across the world. For example, the Soviet Union, China, and Cuba, these movements also led to the reform of capitalism. The creation of welfare states that protected workers’ rights and offered universal education, health care, and social security in the capitalist nations of Western Europe was partly due to political pressure created by the communist and socialist movements.

The movement against colonialism influenced the movement against capitalism as they are interlinked through forms of imperialism, social movements have simultaneously targeted both these forms of exploitation. That is, .nationalist movements have mobilized against rule by a foreign power as well as against the dominance of foreign capital.

The decades after the Second World War witnessed the end of the empire and the formation of new nation¬ states as a result of nationalist movements in India, Egypt, Indonesia, and many other countries.Class-based movements: Another wave of social movements occurred in the 1960s and early 1970s. This was the time of the war in Vietnam where forces led by the United States of America were involved in a bloody conflict in the former French colony against Communist Guerrillas.

In Europe, Paris was the nucleus of a vibrant students’ movement that joined workers’ parties in a series of strikes protesting against the war. Across the Atlantic, the United States of America was experiencing a surge of social protest.The civil rights movement led by Martin Luther King had been followed by the Black Power movement led by Malcolm X.

The anti-war movement was joined by tens of thousands of students who were compulsorily drafted by the government to go and fight in Vietnam. The women’s movement and the environmental movement also gained strength during this time of social ferment.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1.  This question paper contains 4 sections- A, B, C, and D
   (a) Section A- Multiple choice questions
   (b) Section B- 2 marks
   (c) Section C- 3 marks
   (d) Section D- 5 marks
2.  Internal choice is given in the paper, there is no overall choice.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Amy, a legal student, consists of a four-year undergraduate degree completed following completion of secondary school and passage of the university entrance exam. She will then take the first examination, a comprehensive set of exams that emphasizes academic knowledge of the law. She belongs to the legal system of which country?[1] .
(a) UK
(b) Europe
(c) Russia
(d) Germany
Answer:
(d) Germany

Question 2.
Michael Browne has an undergraduate degree in Anthropology and aspires to become a lawyer in the UK. Which of the following will enable her to do so? [1] .
(a) Pupillage
(b) Common Professional Examination
(c) Bar Vocational Course
(d) Legal Practice Course
Answer:
(d) Legal Practice Course.

Question 3.
In this system, the parties in a legal proceeding develop their own theory of the case and gather evidence to support their claims.[1].
(a) Adversarial system
(b) Inquisitorial system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Legal system
Answer:
(a) Adversarial system

Question 4.
In this case, the Supreme Court held that India had ratified conventions regarding the protection of children and thus placed an obligation on the State Government to implement these principles. Identify the case highlighted here. [1].
(a) Sheela Barse v. Secretary Children’s Aid Society
(b) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India
(c) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case
Answer:
(a) Sheela Barse v. Secretary Children’s Aid Society

Question 5.
A suburban homeowner wants the right way to deal with his neighbor’s overly bright driveway lights that shine in his bedroom window. Which of the following modes of dispute resolution is best suited in this case? [1].
(a) Arbitration
(b) Mediation
(c) Conciliation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Mediation

Question 6.
Assertion (A) The judiciary in India derives its powers and functions from the Constitution. Reason (R) The Constitution, to date, remains the fundamental legal text for the functioning of Indian democracy. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Question 7.
The situation I A intentionally causes Z’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give Z food, and partly by beating Z. A has committed murder.
Situation II A intentionally beats B with a stick. Which of the following statements best describes the two situations? [1].
(a) In both situations there is actus reus though men’s rea is missing
(b) There is actus reus and men’s rea in both situations.
(c) Situation I shows moral omission, whereas Situation II shows illegal omission.
(d) The act of not doing anything does not accrue any criminal liability as actus rea is not there.
Answer:
(b) There is actus reus and men’s rea in both situations.

Question 8.
The Bar Council of India has suspended Shikha, an advocate, due to a breach of its rules. Which of the following situations may have led to her suspension? [1].
(a) She has charged a contingency fee from her client in a land dispute.
(b) She had negotiated with the opposite party through the opposing advocate.
(c) She refused to represent the client who insisted on adopting unfair means.
(d) She refused to appear in a matter where she was the witness.
Answer:
(a) The Bar Council of India imposes certain restrictions on advocates wherein they are barred from charging a contingency fee.

Question 9.
Match the following using the codes given below.

Column I	Column II
A. National Commission for Minorities Act	(i) 1990
B. National Commission for Women Act	(ii) 1961
C. Dowry Prohibition Act	(iii) 1860
D. Indian Penal Code	(iv) 1992

Codes

	A	B	C	D
(a)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
(b)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(c)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)
(d)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)

Answer:
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Question 10.
It was set up post the First World War as a part of the Treaty of Versailles, in 1919 to achieve social justice. It was aimed at improving the conditions of labor in various countries in the world to help achieve humane conditions for such laborers by providing for various regulations and agreements on the conditions of laborers. Which organization is being referred to? [1] .
(a) UNESCO
(b) UNICEF
(c) ILO
(d) ICJ
Answer:
(c) ILO

Question 11.
Statement The intentional tort of false imprisonment is satisfied whenever there is intent to unlawfully confine or restrain the claimant in a bounded area. Statement The tort of trespass to land occurs when the defendant has the intent to physically invade the real property of the claimant. [1] .
Alternatives
(a) Both Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement II is false
(c) statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
Answer:
(a) Both .statements are true.

Question 12.
An explicit provision for legal services is incorporated into the. [1] .
(a) UNHRC
(b) ILO
(c) ICCPR
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) ICCPR

Question 13.
A sells his house for ₹ 8 lakh to B. This is called. [1] .
(a) Mortgage
(b) Sale
(c) Hypothecation
(d) Pledge
Answer:
(b) Sale

Question 14.
Assertion (A) Tort law ensures that the defendant compensates the victim for a wrongful act.
Reason (R) This deters one from injuring others as it encourages defendants to be mindful and careful. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason -(R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Question 15.
Arrange the following in chronological order on the basis of their enactment year. [1] .
(i) National Commission for Minorities Act
(ii) National Commission for Women Act
(iii) Protection of Civil Rights Act
(iv) Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer:
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Direction Read the excerpt from the decided case of Durga Prasad v. Baldeo and answer questions 16 to 20 The plaintiff constructed some shops at the request of the District Collector in a town. The constructed shops were given for rent for doing business with the defendant.

The defendant, apart from the rent, promised to give a 5% commission to the plaintiff on all articles sold through the shop in consideration of the huge amount spent by the plaintiff in the construction of the building. The defendant failed to pay the commission and the plaintiff initiated action to recover the commission.

Question 16.
On what ground was the action of the plaintiff rejected by the Court? [1] .
(a) Construction of the shop was done at the desire of the District Collector and not at the desire of the defendant.
(b) Construction was done at the desire of the defendant and not the District Collector.
(c) Court did not have the jurisdiction to try the case.
(d) Defendant had reasonable grounds to not pay commission.
Answer:
(a) Construction of the shop was done at the desire of the District Collector and not at the desire of the defendant.

Question 17.
Consideration can be for. [1] .
(a) Present only
(b) Past only
(c) Future only
(d) Any of these
Answer:
(d) Any of these

Question 18.
A contract without consideration is. [1] .
(a) valid
(b) not valid
(c) void ab initio
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) not valid

Question 19.
Which of the following is the first step in the formation of a contract? [1] .
(a) Doctrine of Restitution
(b) Doctrine of Retribution
(c) Doctrine of Election
(d) Doctrine of Lis Pendens
Answer:
(a) Doctrine of Restitution

Question 20.
In a similar case, A offers to sell his car to B for ₹ 50,000. B accepts the offer. In this case, what is the consideration for B? [1].
(a) Car
(b) ₹ 50,000
(c) Both car and money
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Car

Section-B (16 Marks)

Question 21.
An industrial workman wants to file a suit against his employer for nonpayment of his daily wages. However, due to a lack of money, he wants to avail free legal aid. Can he be allowed to do so? [2].
Answer:
As per the Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987, an industrial workman is allowed to avail of free legal aid services. In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the Parliament to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society.

Question 22.
State the hierarchy followed in the Indian Judiciary.
Or
Discuss the role of judicial review. [2].
Answer:
Indian judiciary comprises of
(i) the Supreme Court,
(ii) High Court,
(iii) Subordinate Courts and
(iv) other Tribunals.

Or

Judicial review is a principle or a legal doctrine or a practice whereby a court can examine or review an executive or a legislative act, such as a law or some other governmental or administrative decision, and determine if the act is incompatible with the constitution.

Question 23.
There was a violent clash between the security forces of Assam and Bengal over a border dispute, which claimed the lives of ten Assam police personnel and injured dozens of others. The government informed the Parliament that there were a total of seven inter-state border disputes at present in the country. [2].
(i) Which institution has the authority to resolve such disputes?
(ii)Mention the constitutional provision under which it can intervene.
Answer:
(i) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to resolve such disputes.
(ii) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction under Article 1 31 of the Constitution to intervene in inter-state disputes since it falls under its original jurisdiction.

Question 24.
A sells his jeep to B for a consideration of ₹ 7,000 whereas the price of the jeep is ₹ 10,000. [2].
(i) Is there a valid consideration in this case?
(ii) Is an agreement without consideration valid?
Or
Write a short note on exchange.
Answer:
(i) In the given case, the consideration given is valid because the law does not require the consideration to be adequate.
(ii) Generally, an agreement without consideration is void and not enforceable by law because in such cases, one party is getting something from the other without giving anything to the other.

Or

Section 11 8 of the Transfer of Property Act defines exchange. When there is a transfer of ownership of one thing for the ownership of another between two persons, it is called an exchange. Transfer of property by exchange can be made only” by way of sale. The rights and liabilities of the parties to exchange are similar to that of the rights and liabilities of the buyer to the extent of receiving and that of the seller to the extent of giving.

Question 25.
Sunil was arrested on the suspicion of having murdered his friend. He was produced before the Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest. No concrete evidence could be presented by the police against Sunil. After being brought back from the court he was taken into custody to make him confess his crime. Are the police justified in its action? Which provision of Article 22 of the Constitution of India is being violated by the police? [2].
Answer:
In the given situation, the police have violated Article 22(2) of the Constitution which provides that no person can be detained in custody beyond the period of 24 hours without the authority of the Magistrate. Thus, the police are not justified in its action.

Question 26.
This doctrine is based on principles of equity. Under any instrument, if two rights are conferred on a person in such a manner that one right is in lieu of the other, he is bound to elect only one of them. Explain this doctrine. [2].
Answer:
According to the principle of the Doctrine of Election (Section 35 of the TPA), a party to the transfer cannot accept as well as reject a single
transaction. In other words, while claiming advantage of an instrument, the burden of the instrument should also be accepted.

Question 27.
Dubbed the ‘Bretton Woods Twins’, these two organizations were formed to aid the economies of various countries. [2].
(i) Identify the two organizations mentioned above.
(ii) State their main functions
Answer:
(i) The two organizations mentioned above are IMF and World Bank.
(ii) The World Bank aids member states by. providing loans to member states for the purpose of development and raising its funds by way of the world’s financial markets. The IMF helps in creating a stable climate for international trade by harmonizing its member’s monetary financial assistance to countries that encounter difficulties with their balance of payments.

Question 28.
Critically assess the situations given below in the light of ‘Cultural and Educational Rights’ [2].
(i) A government-aided school in West Bengal denied admission to Rachitbecause his mother tongue was Punjabi and he does not understand Bengali.
(ii) In the annual budget for education, the state government allocated ₹ 36.5 crores for government and state-funded schools and ₹ 16.5 crores for schools run by religious minorities.
Answer:
(i) Article 29 provides minority sections of citizens who have distinct languages, scripts, or cultures the right to conserve the same. It also prohibits educational institutions, maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds, from denying admission to any citizen on grounds of religion, race, Caste, or language. Thus, this constitutes a violation.
(ii) Article 30 provides all minorities, whether based on religion or language, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. It also prohibits the State from discriminating against educational institutions, while granting them aid, on grounds of religion or language.

Section -C (24 Marks)

Question 29.
In the 1987 case ofMC Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries, Justice PN Bhagwati, developed the principle of absolute liability. [3].
(i) Which principle helped the evolution of absolute liability?
(ii) Explain the principle of absolute liability.
(iii) What are the essentials of absolute liability?
Answer:
(i) Absolute liability evolved from the principle of strict liability.
(ii) It is a kind of liability under which a person is legally responsible for the consequences flowing from an activity even in the absence of fault or criminal intent on the part of the defendant. It is basically a legal doctrine that holds a party (defendant) responsible for its actions, without the plaintiff having to prove negligence or fault. part of the defendant.

When any person is involved in ultra-hazardous activities such as keeping wild animals, using explosives, or making defective products, then he/she may be held liable if any other person is injured because of that activity, even if the defendant took necessary precautions and followed safety requirements.
(iii) The following are the essentials of absolute liability.
(a) Dangerous thing
(b) Escape
(c) Non-natural use of land

Question 30.
How can foreign lawyers take the bar exam without earning a degree locally? State the procedure. [3].
Answer:
Some states may allow some foreign-educated lawyers to take the bar examination without earning their degree locally. In such a case, however, foreign-educated lawyers must begin the process by getting their law degree reviewed and analyzed by the American Bar Association (ABA). Once reviewed, the application is either accepted or deferred. If accepted, foreign lawyers are allowed to sit for that state’s bar exam in much the same way a domestic applicant would.

In New York, one of the jurisdictions most open to foreign lawyers, this would allow foreign lawyers to sit for the bar without being required to complete any further law school study, in the US. Even if deferred, applicants may be asked to complete coursework at an ABA-approved college before sitting for the bar exam. This coursework usually takes the form of a one-year LL.M program at an ABA-accredited school.

Question 31.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations. [3].
(i) A dispute arose between Steelcon Construction Company and A-T Architectural Design Company with respect to some technical issues relating to engineering design. They want to resolve their dispute but also want to keep matters confidential and their business secrets protected.
(ii) Sudha buys an air conditioner and realizes it isn’t cooling as it is defective. She tries to return it or have the company fix it, but doesn’t succeed. She talks with the salesperson, speaks with the manager, and writes emails to the company, and still, she is not satisfied with the company’s response. The disputing parties agree to refer the dispute to a neutral third party, Mr.Ranganathan, who evaluates their case and directs them toward settlement.
Answer:
(i) The method suggested here is Arbitration. Arbitration is a term derived from the nomenclature of Roman law. Arbitration is a private arrangement of taking disputes to a less adversarial, less formal, and more flexible forum and abiding by the judgment of a selected person, instead of carrying it to the established courts of justice.

(ii) The ADR method suitable here is mediation. Mediation is a method of ADR in which parties appoint a neutral third party. This neutral third party facilitates the mediation process in order to assist the parties in achieving an acceptable, voluntary agreement. Mediation is premised (based) on the voluntary will of the parties and is a flexible and informal technique of dispute resolution.

Question 32.
With regard to the provisions of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, consider the following situations and answer the questions that follow. [3].
(i) State Government gave reservations to Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes in public employment, who have not been adequately represented in the services under the State.
(ii) Dipender is a rickshaw puller and was not allowed to enter a public restaurant because he belonged to a backward class.
Answer:
(i) Article 16 is also based on the equality principle of Article 14. It provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public or State employment and bars any discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence. However, this article allows the State to provide reservation or affirmative (positive) action programs for government jobs to backward classes like Schedule Castes and Scheduled Tribes who because of historical and continued disadvantages based on caste status and otherwise, have not been adequately represented in the services under the State.

(ii) The given situation is a violation of Article 1 5 of the Constitution. Article 15 is based on the equality principle. It prohibits the State from discriminating against anyone based on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Also, it prohibits anyone and the State from using these grounds to restrict (restrain) any citizen from entering shops, public restaurants, hotels, and places of public entertainment; or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort.

Question 33.
Evaluate the role of any two international bodies which have been working towards harmonizing private laws of different countries. [3].
Answer:
(i) World Health Organisation WHO has been a core agency for setting up norms and standards to be followed with regard to human health and research regarding the containment of diseases as well as assessing worldwide health trends. It coordinates with various agencies in different countries to facilitate greater knowledge and awareness of health issues in various countries.

(ii) UNESCO Formed in 1945, UNESCO was set up to promote coordination between members keeping in mind the fact that mere economic and political arrangements are not enough to ensure growth and stability in member states. By promoting culture, preserving the heritage, and sharing knowledge and understanding that are beneficial for the whole of mankind, UNESCO aims to aid sustainable development and foster greater cooperation between nations.

Question 34.
A convention is organized by the WHO to bolster the coordination of international health workers to combat the ‘Monkeypox’ virus. Participating countries agree to strengthen health services and take emergency measures through the signing of a treaty. In this context
(i) Define treaty.
(ii) State any two features of a treaty. [3].
Answer:
(i) A Treaty/International Convention/Charter refers to a legally binding, written agreement in which states agree to act in a particular manner as specified in the agreement.
(ii) Two features of a treaty are
(a) It must be ratified before it can take effect.
(b) It must be approved by all parties to a treaty.

Question 35.
Neither is it possible nor is it proper to isolate the right to legal aid from the range of human rights. Comment.
Or
What are the primary functions of the State Authority? [3].
Answer:
There are millions of people who are denied human rights only because they cannot afford the cost required for the enforcement of their rights. Merely talking about human rights from an elitist platform is not sufficient. In order to do social justice for them and to make human rights meaningful, legal aid becomes essential. Human Rights which cannot be enforced due to poverty are meaningless and worthless.

A right to access to justice is sine-qua-non for social justice. Access to justice itself is one of the most basic human rights, and without it, the realization of many other human rights may become difficult. Indeed, the right to access justice or Legal Aid is evolved by judicial creativity for the benevolence (benefit) of poor persons. Thus, neither is it possible nor is it proper to isolate the right to legal aid from the range of human rights.

Or

The State Authority shall perform all or any of the following functions, namely.
(i) Give legal service to persons who satisfy the criteria laid down under this Act,
(ii) Conduct Lok Adalats, including Lok Adalats for High Court cases,
(iii) Undertake preventive and strategic legal aid programs; and
(iv) Perform such other functions as the State Authority may in consultation with the Central Authority, fix by regulations.

Question 36.
Mr. Naidu is a qualified Lawyer practicing since 1990 in the High Court of Delhi and in the Supreme Court of India. He has special knowledge and expertise in the field of Civil and Criminal Laws. While appearing in a courtroom, he usually dresses in black and white, wears a white band around his neck, and a black gown j’s having flaps on the shoulders.

On 1 8th November 2015, Mr. Mehta directly approached and appointed Mr. Naidu as his advocate, to file an appeal in the Delhi High Court against the decision of the District Court. Mr. Naidu accepted ₹ 1 lakh in cash as his consultation charges. On 19th November 2015 i.e. on the very next day, without wasting any time, Mr. Naidu started drafting pleadings as 29th November 2015 was the last day to file the appeal.
(i) Mr. Naidu comes under which category of a legal practitioner as recognized by the Advocates Act, 1961?
(ii) Giving reason, state whether the conduct of Mr. Naidu is justified as per the provisions of the Advocates Act, 1961 ? Naidu 1961?[3].
Answer:
(i) Mr. Naidu comes under the category of Senior Advocate.
(ii) The conduct of Mr. Naidu is not justified as per the provisions of the Advocates’ Act, 1961 because a Senior Advocate cannot file a vakalatnama, appear in the Court without another advocate or advocate-on record, cannot directly accept an engagement to appear in a case or draft pleadings.

Section-D (20 Marks)

Question 37.
‘Ambulance chasing’ is commonplace in the USA but it is not representative of professional practice in India. Justify the statement and explain the norms of advertising by advocates in India.
Or
Discuss any five opportunities available to law graduates in India. [5].
Answer:
Personal injury ads are commonplace in the USA. Often known as ‘ambulance chasers’, these personal injury lawyers are robust in their advertising on billboards, newspapers, flyers, and even distasteful ads on television However, ambulance chasing is not representative of professional practice in India since these classes of lawyers are the sort who solicit business by lurking around hospitals or by ads in newspapers and in Yellow Pages with toll-free numbers and “free” consultations.

The issue of allowing advertising and solicitation by lawyers requires balancing the interest of the public which includes getting information on legal rights and services through advertisements and enhancement of access to justice and the legal profession on one hand and the possible misuse of advertising techniques. lawyers which may lead to a loss of credibility in the profession as a whole.

Accordingly, only five pieces of information can be put up on the internet as per the Bar Council of India (BCI), i.e.
(i) the name of the advocate or the firm,
(ii) the contact details,
(iii) details of enrolment with the Bar,
(iv) his professional and academic qualifications, and
(v) the areas of practice.

Or

Some of the opportunities available to law graduates are
(i) Litigation Graduates may practice as an advocate in a court of law. This can be achieved by working under experienced advocates or being attached to litigation departments of law firms or companies in order to practice in the Courts of India.

(ii) Law Firm Practice Law firms vary in size and practice areas. Law firms may range from boutique law firms specializing in specific areas of law, to mid-sized law firms as-well as large law firms which are full-service law firms with different practice groups.

(iii) Corporate Sector Large corporations often have an in-house legal practice. In House, counsels are responsible for ensuring that the business of the company is being run in compliance with applicable laws and when required will bring in external lawyers.

(iv) Public Policy Lawyers have an important role in formulating and advising on public policy. Several organizations employ law graduates for policymaking and have institutionalized fellowships where law graduates can be Research Assistants.

(v) Legal Research and Academia Graduates may attach themselves to research centers and think tanks. Law graduates may take up teaching and research as a profession. At least a postgraduate degree in law or related disciplines is expected to build a career in academics. Universities employ postgraduates in law as Lecturers/Assistant Professors at the beginning of their careers. Short-term positions and opportunities as Visiting Professors/Adjuncts. Professors are also available in academia. . ‘

Question 38.
‘‘The decision in the landmark 1973 Supreme Court case of Kesavananda Bharati v. The State of Kerala was an answer to the 24th Amendment Act to the Constitution affecting Article 1 3 and Article 368.” Explain.
Or
What features of fundamental rights give them a high pedestal in the Constitutional framework? [5].
Answer:
The Supreme Court has extended the practice of judicial review to matters concerning constitutional amendments by developing the doctrine of the basic structure of the Constitution. Article 368 confers power to the Parliament to amend the Constitution. This Article in its wording does not provide any limitation on the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.

Further, Article 13(2) states that “the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part (Part III – Fundamental Rights).” Article 13(2) limits Parliament’s amending authority in matters of fundamental rights. In order to overcome this restriction, in 1971, the Parliament adopted the 24th Amendment to the Constitution altering Articles 13 and 368 in a way that allowed itself unlimited powers of amendments including the authority to amend the fundamental rights provisions.

The landmark 1973 Supreme Court case of Keshavanda Bharati v. State of Kerela discussed the question about the unlimited constitutional amendment powers of the Parliament and established the doctrine of the basic structure or feature of the constitution. This doctrine invalidates any constitutional amendments that destroy or harm a basic or essential feature of the Constitution, like secularism, democracy, and federalism.

The Supreme Court has also held judicial review to be the basic structure or feature of the Constitution; as a result, it can nullify any constitutional amendment that abolishes or disregards judicial review in issues concerning the fundamental rights of citizens.

Or

Fundamental Rights are those basic rights that are essential for the development of individuals in a country. To ensure that any wrongdoing in this regard is punished, Fundamental Rights have been made enforceable in the High Courts and the Supreme Courts. It is for the same reason that the power of Judicial review has been applied for the protection and enforcement of fundamental rights provided in the Constitution.

To a lesser extent, judicial review has also been used in matters concerning legislative competence with regard to Centre-State relations. With respect to judicial review on matters of executive or administrative actions, courts have employed doctrines such as ‘proportionality’, ‘legitimate expectation’, ‘reasonableness’, and the ‘principles of natural justice.

Essentially, the scope of judicial review in courts in India has developed with respect to three issues
(i) Protection of fundamental rights as guaranteed in the Constitution;
(ii) Matters concerning the legislative competence between the center and states; and
(iii) fairness in executive acts.

Question 39.
Sanjay Shukla and Raghav Asawa are neighbors in an apartment complex. Large flowering pots kept on the balcony of Sanjay’s flat have caused seepage and weakened the ceiling above Raghav’s balcony. The latter demands that Sanjay Shukla removes the plants and a dispute ensues. [5].
(i) Identify and explain the alternative dispute resolution mechanism that is best suited to the given situation.
(ii) Also explain its process
Answer:
(i) Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) system refers to the use of non-adversarial techniques for adjudication of legal disputes. The method best suited in this situation is Mediation. Mediation is a method of ADR in which parties appoint a neutral third party.

This neutral third party facilitates the mediation process in order to assist the parties in achieving an acceptable, voluntary agreement. Mediation is premised (based) on the voluntary will of the parties and is a flexible and informal technique of dispute resolution.

(ii) Process of Mediation The neutral third party facilitating the process of mediation is known as a mediator. Mediation does not follow a uniform set of rules, though mediators typically set forth rules that the mediation will observe at the outset of the process.

Successful mediation often reflects not only the parties’ willingness to participate but also the mediator’s skill. There is no uniform set of rules for mediators to become licensed, and rules vary by state regarding requirements for mediator certification.

Broadly speaking, mediation may be triggered in three ways
(a) Parties may agree to resolve their claims through a pre-agreed mediation agreement without initiating formal judicial proceedings (pre-litigation mediation).
(b) Parties may agree to mediate, at the beginning of formal court proceedings (popularly known as court referrals).
(c) Mediation may be taken recourse of after formal court proceedings have started, or even post-trial, i.e. at the appellate stage.

Question 40.
(i) What Constitutes Tort of Negligence?
(ii) Explain with reasons whether the following act constitutes ‘negligence’. The employees of Care Cell Telecom opened a manhole in the street and in the evening left that manhole open. They covered it with canvas shelter but left it unattended. Prince, the the 8 years old boy, who was playing there, stumbled over it and fell into the manhole, and sustained injuries.
(iii) Give one example of negligence. [5].
Or
How does tort help in protecting against any bodily harm? Discuss with specific reference to assault and battery.
Answer:
(i) The basic understanding of negligence is that the wrong-doer or the defendant has been careless in a way that harms the interest of the victim or the claimant. For example, when the defendant carries out an act of constructing something on her premises, she owes a duty of care towards the claimant and the standard of duty of care depends on whether the claimant was on the site or in the neighborhood as well as whether the claimant was a lawful visitor or a trespasser.

(ii) To constitute the tort of negligence, three important essentials must be fulfilled
(a) the defendant owes a duty of care to the victim;
(b) there has been a breach of duty of care on part of the defendant; and
(c) The breach of the duty to care resulted in the harm suffered by the claimant. Since Care Cell Telecom did owe a duty of care to Prince and there was a breach of that duty which caused harm to him, they will be held liable for the tort of negligence.

(iii) Example of negligence is A, a surgeon, negligently leaves scissors in the ‘ intestine of the patient.

Or

Tort law protects the claimant against any harm to his/her interests of bodily integrity. The tort of battery and assault applies to any intentional harm caused to the body. Assault refers to any intentional act which causes another person to be fearful of immediate harm.

In other words, it should cause the plaintiff to. fear that the plaintiff is about to be physically attacked and can make him the victim of the assault. Battery refers to the intentional use of force against another without any lawful justification. In other words, if the physical contact apprehended in an assault actually takes place, it amounts to the tort of battery.

It is intentional or offensive physical contact with a person who had not given his consent to be touched. Further, Harm may also be caused by negligence as well as any breach of statutory duty like traffic laws, health laws, and so on. Mental distress is an element in bodily injury that raises any compensation to the victim.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

अवधिः: होरात्रयम्
पूर्णाड्का: : 80

सामान्य निर्देशः
सैंपल पेपर 1 में दिये गये निर्देशानुसार।

रवण्ड: – ‘क’ (अपठित-अवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 10)

अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।) जीवने सफलतायाः आधारः पुरुषार्थः एव! अस्य अभावेन नरः सुख-समृद्धिम् आप्तुम् असमर्थः भवति यशः च न प्राप्नोति । यथा-यथा नरः पुरुषार्थम् अचिनोत् तथा-तथा तेन सफलता प्राप्ता। पुरुषार्थिनः एव संसारे विलक्षण-प्रतिभाम् अर्जितवन्तः। अनेन एवम् एवरेष्टशिखरम् अजयत् अन्तरिक्ष च अगच्छत्। देशसेवया समाजसेवया च पुरुषार्थिभिः उल्लेखनीयानि कार्याणि कृतानि। अस्माकम् इतिहासे तेषां गौरवगानं विद्यते। आपातकाले येषां मनांसि विचलितानि न भवन्ति, ते एव जीवने सफलतां प्राप्नुवन्ति। पुरुषार्थिनाम् कृते तु पुरुषार्थ एव उपासना अस्ति। यः जनः स्वजीवने सफलता प्राप्तुम् इच्छति सः पुरुषार्थम् अवश्यमेव कुर्यात् । पुरुषार्थस्य अभावे जनः सफलताप्राप्तं न कर्तुं शक्यते।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) पुरुषार्थस्य अभावेन किम् आप्तुम् असमर्थः?
(ii) अनेन जनेन किम् अजयत्?
(iii) पुरुषार्थेन जनः कुत्र अगच्छत् ?
उत्तर:
(i) सुखसमृद्धिम्
(ii) एवरेष्टशिखरम्
(iii) अंतरिक्षम्

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) पुरुषार्थिभिः केन उल्लेखनीयानि कार्याणि कृतानि?
(ii) पुरुषार्थिनां कृते कुत्र गौरवगानं विद्यते?
(iii) जीवने के सफलता प्राप्नुवन्ति?
उत्तर:
(i) पुरुषार्थिभि: देशसेवया, समाजसेवया, शिक्षाप्रसारेण कार्याणि कृतानि।
(ii) पुरुषार्थिनां अस्माकम् इतिहासे गौरवगानं विद्यते।
(iii) अपातकाले येषां मनांसि विचलितानि न भवन्ति, ते एव जीवने सफलतां प्राप्नुवन्ति।

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत। (द्वित्रिशब्दात्मक-वाक्यम्)
(इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।) (दो-तीन शब्द का वाक्य)
उत्तर:
पुरुषार्थ:/सफलतायाः आधारपरुषार्थ।……………..

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) ‘भवति’ इति क्रियापदस्य किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) नरः
(ख) असमर्थ:
(ग) यशः
(घ) आधारः
उत्तर:
(क) नरः

(ii) ‘विफलता’ इति पदस्य गद्यांशे किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) यथा
(ख) तथा
(ग) सफलता
(घ) कठिनता
उत्तर:
(ग) सफलता

(iii) ‘मानवः’ इति पदस्य किं पर्यायपदं गद्यांशे प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) नरः
(ख) पुरुषार्थी
(ग) देशसेवा
(घ) जनः
उत्तर:
(क) नरः

(iv) ‘उल्लेखनीयानि कार्याणि’ इत्यत्र किं विशेषणपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) उल्लेखनीयानि
(ख) कार्याणि
(ग) कृतानि
(घ) विभिन्नानि
उत्तर:
(क) उल्लेखनीयानि

रवण्ड: – ‘रव’ (रचनात्मक-कार्यम्)
(अंक : 15)

2. विदेश भ्रमणं प्रति पितरं लिखितम् अध: पत्रं मञ्जूषापद सहायतया पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत। (1/2 × 10 = 5)
(विदेश भ्रमण हेतु पिताजी को लिखे गये पत्र को मञ्जूषा में दिये गये पद की सहायता से पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए)

वाशिंगटन, अमेरिकातः
दिनांक…………..
आदरणीय पितृपादाः।
(i)……..नमोनमः।
वयमत्र सर्वे (ii)….. भवान् अपि (iii) कुशली भविष्यसि इति आशा। जूनमासस्य ……….. तिथौ अहम् (iv)…… सह विमानेन (v)….. अगच्छम्। आवाम् अमेरिका देशे ‘लेवीपीयर’ मिलेनियम पार्ड, न्याग्रा फाल्स, न्यू जर्सी, वाशिंगटन इत्यादीनि स्थानानि (vi)……. च अपश्याव। आवाम् (vii)…… बसयानेन च यात्राम् कुर्वः। जनाः अत्र स्वच्छतां प्रति अतीव (viii)….. सन्ति। राजमार्गे ताम्बूलस्य अन्या मलिनता वा कुत्रापि न दृश्यते। जनाः अवकरम् (ix)…… प्रति निष्ठाभावानाम् उत्पादयितुं प्रयतिस्ये-इति मम निश्चयः। गृहे सर्वेभ्यः मम नमस्काराः। (x)……….. मञ्जूषा-अवकरपात्रे, कुशलिनः, सादरं, सुपुत्रः, जागरूकाः, स्वमित्रेण, रेलयानेन, अमेरिका-देशम्, दर्शनीय स्थलानि, एकादश्यां।
उत्तर:
(i) सादरं
(ii) कुशलिन:
(iii) एकादश्यां
(iv) स्वमित्रेण
(v) अमेरिका-देशम्
(vi) दर्शनीय स्थलानि
(vii) रेलयानेन
(viii) जागरूका:
(ix) अवकरपात्रे
(x) सुपुत्र:

3. अधः प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत 1 x5=5
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

(i) अत्र अति रमणीयम् देवालयस्य दृश्यम् अस्ति।
(ii) अस्मिन् चित्रे अनेका: भक्ता: ईश्वरस्य प्रार्थनां कुर्वन्ति।
(iii) अत्र नार्य: पुरुषाः च वाद्ययन्त्रं वादयन्ति।
(iv) एक: भक्तः अग्रे-अग्रे वदति अन्ये भक्ताः च अनुसरणं कुर्वन्ति।
(v) देवालये भक्तिमय वातावरणम् अस्ति। अथवा
मञ्जूषा-देवालयस्य, भक्ताः, नार्यः, पुरुषाः, कीर्तनं अनुसरति, वादयति, वातावरणं, भक्तिमयम्।
अथवा
मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य पञ्चाभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।)

“मम मातृभूमिः”
(i) अहं मातृभूमि वन्दयामि
(ii) मातृभूमि: मम प्रिया अस्ति।
(iii) सा स्वर्गादपि गरीयसि अस्ति।
(iv) सा अस्मान् पोषयति।
(v) सा तु सर्वेभ्य: वन्दनीया: अस्ति।
मञ्जूषा-स्वर्गादपि, मातृभूमिः, अहम्, माता, वन्दनीयाः, यच्छति, पोषणम्, अस्मान्

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य लिखत-(केवलं पञ्चवाक्यम्) (1 × 5 = 5)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का संस्कृत भाषा में अनुवाद लिखिए) (केवल पाँच वाक्य)

(i) जो परिश्रम करता है वह सफल होता है।
One who works is successful
(ii) विद्यालय में पच्चीस अध्यापक हैं।
The school has twenty five teachers.
(iii) छात्र पढ़ने के लिए विद्यालय जाएँगे।
Students will go to school to study.
(iv) बालक गेंद से खेलें।
Boys play with the ball.
(v) हम झूठ नहीं कहेंगे।
We will not lie
(vi) व्यास ने महाभारत लिखी।
Vyas wrote Mahabharata.
(vii) वे दोनों शाम को खेलें।
They both play in the evening.
उत्तर:
(i) यः परिश्रमं करोति सः सफलः भवति।
(ii) विद्यालये पञ्च विंशतिः अध्यापकाः सन्ति।
(iii) छात्रा: अध्ययनाय विद्यालयं गमिष्यन्ति।
(iv) बालकाः कन्दुकेन क्रीडन्तु।
(v) वयम् मिथ्या न कथयिष्यामः।
(vi) व्यास: महाभारतम् अलिखत्।
(vii) तौ संध्याकाले क्रीडताम्।

रवण्ड: – ‘ग’ (अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरणम्)
(अंक : 25)

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के संधि अथवा संधि-विच्छेद कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) पुस्तकेऽस्मिन् कति पाठाः सन्ति?
(ii) एतत् + न उचितम्।
(iii) वाङ्मूला हि सरस्वती कथ्यते।
(iv) सर्वः + तरतु दुर्गाणि, सर्वः भद्राणि पश्यन्तु।
(v) तच्छलोकं श्रुत्वा सः प्रसन्नः भविष्यति।
उत्तर:
(i) पुस्तके + अस्मिन्
(ii) एतन्न
(iii) वाक् + मूला
(iv) सर्वस्तरतु
(v) तत् + श्लोकं

6. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां समासं विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों का समास अथवा विग्रह दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) शुष्कः कण्ठः यस्य सः बाल: जलं पिबत्ति।
(क) शुष्ककण्ठस्य
(ख) शुष्ककण्ठः
(ग) शुष्काकण्ठः
(घ) शुष्कं कण्ठम्
उत्तर:
(ख) शुष्ककण्ठः

(ii) कार्यम् निर्विघ्नम् सम्पन्नं जातः।
(क) विघ्नानाम् अभावः
(ख) विघ्नात् अभाव
(ग) विघ्नस्य अभाव
(घ) विघ्नेनरहितम्
उत्तर:
(क) विघ्नानाम् अभावः

(iii) नारदव्यासौ द्रौणिं प्रतिवहतः।
(क) नारद: च व्यास: च
(ख) नारदौच व्यासौच
(ग) नारद व्यासः
(घ) नारदे च व्यासः च
उत्तर:
(क) नारद: च व्यास: च

(iv) ज्ञानवृद्धः पूज्य: भवति ।
(क) ज्ञाने वृद्धः
(ख) ज्ञानात् वृद्ध
(ग) ज्ञानस्य वृद्धः
(घ) ज्ञानेन वृद्धः
उत्तर:
(ग) ज्ञानस्य वृद्धः

(v) मदोद्धताः कपय: यूथपतिं प्रहस्य अवदन्।
(क) मदस्य उद्धताः
(ख) मदेन उद्धताः
(ग) मठात् उद्धता:
(घ) मदाय उद्धताः
उत्तर:
(ख) मदेन उद्धताः

7. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रकृतिप्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित. वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के प्रकृति-प्रत्ययों को जोड़कर अथवा अलग करके उचित उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) संस्कृत विषये प्रभातस्य दक्ष + तल् प्रशंसनीया वर्तते।
(क) दक्षिता
(ख) दक्षीयता
(ग) दक्षता
(घ) दाक्षत्वम्
उत्तर:
(ग) दक्षता

(ii) अस्य पुस्तकस्य घनत्वम् कियत् अस्ति?
(क) घन + त्वं
(ख) घन + त्वम्
(ग) घन + तवतु
(घ) घन + तत्त्
उत्तर:
(क) घन + त्वं

(iii) पवित्र + टाप् यमुना प्रदूषिता न कर्तव्या।
(क) पवित्री
(ख) पवित्राः
(ग) पवित्रा
(घ) पवित्रतम्
उत्तर:
(ग) पवित्रा

(iv) अस्माकम् देश: शक्ति + मतुप् भवेत्।
(क) शक्तिमान्
(ख) शक्तिमतः
(ग) शक्तिमत्
(घ) शक्तिसम्पन्न:
उत्तर:
(क) शक्तिमान्

(v) सा नर्तकी शोभनं नृत्यति।
(क) नर्तक + ङीप्
(ख) नृत् + ङीप्
(ग) नर्तक + डीप्
(घ) नर्तक + ङीष्
उत्तर:
(ग) नर्तक + डीप्

8. अधोलिखितानां वाक्यानां वाच्यपरिवर्तनं कृत्वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का वाच्य परिवर्तन करके विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) विद्या विनयं ददाति।
(क) विद्यया विनयः दीयते।
(ख) विद्या विनयं दीयते।
(ग) विद्येषु विनयं दीयते।
(घ) विद्यया विनयं ददाति।
उत्तर:
(क) विद्यया विनयः दीयते।

(ii) शिशुना पुस्तकं पठ्यते।
(क) शिशु पुस्तके पठति।
(ख) शिशुः पुस्तकं पठति।।
(ग) शिशु पुस्तक पठति।
(घ) शिशु: पुस्तकं पठन्ति।
उत्तर:
(ख) शिशुः पुस्तकं पठति।।

(iii) सीतया गीतं गीयते।
(क) सीता गीत: गायति।
(ख) सीता गीता गायति।
(ग) सीता गीतं गायति।
(घ) सीतागीतानि गांयति।
उत्तर:
(ग) सीता गीतं गायति।

(iv) वृक्षेण वय॑ते।
(क) वृक्ष वर्धते।
(ख) वृक्षा वर्धते।
(ग) वृक्ष: वर्धते।
(घ) वृक्षण वर्धति।
उत्तर:
(ग) वृक्ष: वर्धते।

9. अधोलिखितदिनचर्चायां : रिक्तस्थानानि कालबोधकशब्दैः पूरयत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(कालबोधक शब्दों से निम्नलिखित दिनचर्या को पूरा कीजिये) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) रामः प्रात: 5.30 ………. वादने उतिष्ठति ।
(ii) सः उत्थाय 5.45 ……….. वादने दन्तधावनम् करोति।
(iii) तत्पश्चात् 6.00 ……….. वादने व्यायामं करोति।
(iv) पुनः प्रात: 7:15 ……….. वादने स्नानं करोति।
(v) तत्पश्चात् 8:00 ………… वादने विद्यालयम् प्रीति गच्छति।
उत्तर:
(i) सार्ध पञ्च
(ii) पादोन षट्
(iii) षट्
(iv) सपाद सप्त
(v) अष्ट

10. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तैः उचितैः अव्ययपदैः अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रिक्त स्थानानि पूरयत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(मञ्जूषा में दिये गये उचित अव्ययपदों में वाक्यों में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) उपवने जनाः ……….. भ्रमन्ति।
(ii) ………… अवकरं मा क्षिपय।
(iii) परिश्रमेण ………… कार्याणि न सिद्धयन्ति।
(iv) ……….. अकबर: नाम नृपः आसीत्।
उत्तर:
(i) इतस्ततः
(ii) यत्र-तत्र
(iii) विना
(iv) पुरा

मञ्जूषा- यत्र-तत्र, इतस्ततः पुश, विना

11. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदम् अशुद्धम् अस्ति, शुद्धं पदं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पद अशुद्ध हैं, शुद्ध पद को विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) अहं पत्रवाहकः अस्ति।
(क) अस्मि
(ख) अस्तु
(ग) अस्वः
(घ) असि
उत्तर:
(क) अस्मि

(ii) वृक्षात् पत्राणि पततः।
(क) पतन्ति
(ख) पतसि
(ग) पततु
(घ) पतति
उत्तर:
(क) पतन्ति

(iii) मृगः तत्र चरतः।
(क) मृगौ
(ख) मृगाः
(ग) मृगे
(घ) मृगम्
उत्तर:
(क) मृगौ

(iv) सीता रामः सह वनं गता।
(क) रामस्य
(ख) रामेण
(ग) रामे
(घ) रामम्
उत्तर:
(ख) रामेण

रवण्ड: ‘घ’ (पठित-अवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 30)

12. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

विचित्रा दैवगतिः। तस्यामेव रात्रौ तस्मिन् गृहे कश्चन चौर: गृहाभ्यन्तर प्रविष्टः। तत्र निहितामेकां मञ्जूषाम् आदाय पलायितः। आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ प्राचलताम्। तत्रोपैत्य काष्ठपटले निहितं पटाच्छादितं देहं स्कन्धे वहन्तौ न्यायाधिकरणं प्रति प्रस्थितौ । न्यायाधीशेन पुनस्तौ घटनायाः विषये वस्तुमादिष्टौ।” आरक्षी सुपुष्टदेह आसीत्, अभियुक्तश्च अतीव कृशकायः। भारवतः शवस्य स्कन्धेन वहनं तत्कृते दुष्करम् आसीत्। स भारवेदनया क्रन्दति स्म। तस्य क्रन्दनं निशम्य मुदित आरक्षी वमुवाच-‘रे दुष्ट! तस्मिन् दिने त्वयाऽहं चोरिताया मञ्जूषाया ग्रहणाद् वारितः।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(क) दैवगतिः कीदृशी अस्ति?
(ख) कृशकायः कः आसीत्?
(ग) आरक्षी कीदृशः आसीत्?
उत्तर:
(अ) एकपदेन
(क) विचित्रा
(ख) अभियुक्त
(ग) सुपुष्टदेह

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(क) अभियुक्तस्य क्रन्दनं श्रुत्वा प्रसन्नः आरक्षी तम् किम् उवाच?
(ख) आदेशं प्राप्य उभी कुत्र प्रस्थितौ?
(ग) न्यायाधीशेनः किम् विषये वस्तुमादिष्टौ?
उत्तर:
(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन
(क) अभियुक्तस्य क्रन्दनं श्रुत्वा प्रसन्नः आरक्षी तम् उवाच-‘रे दृष्ट! तस्मिन् दिने त्वायडहं चोरिताया मञ्जूषाया ग्रहणाद् वारितः।
(ख) आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ तत्रोपेत्य काष्ठपटले निहितं पटाच्छादितं देहं स्कन्धे वहन्तौ न्यायाधिकरणं प्रति प्रतिस्थतौ।
(ग) न्यायाधीशेनः पुनस्तौ घटनाया: विषये वक्तुमादिष्टौ।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कश्चन चौर: गृहाभ्यनतरं प्रविष्टः इत्यत्र किं’ क्रियापदं प्रयुक्तम?
(ख) ‘तस्य क्रन्दनं श्रुत्वा आरक्षीतम् उवाच’ इत्यास्मिन् वाक्ये किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ग) ‘रोदनम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य स्थाने किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) प्रविष्ट:
(ख) आरक्षी
(ग) क्रन्दनम्

13. अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

गुणी गुणं वेत्ति न वेत्ति निर्गुणे,
बली बलं वेत्ति न वेत्ति निर्बलः।
पिको वसन्तस्य गुणं निर्बलः,
करी च सिंहस्य बलं न मूषकः॥

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कीदृशः जनः बलं वेत्ति?
(ख) कीदृशः जनः बलं न वेत्ति?
(ग) कीदृशः जनः गुणं जानाति?
उत्तर:
(क) बली
(ख) निर्बल:
(ग) गुणी

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) पिकः किम् जानाति वायसः च किम् न?
(ख) करी किम् जानाति मूषकः च किम् न जानाति?
(ग) गुणी जनः सर्वदा किम् वेत्ति?
उत्तर:
(क) पिकः वसन्त्रस्य गुणं जानाति वायस च न जानाति।
(ख) करी सिंहस्य बलं जानाति, मूषक सिंहस्य बलं न जानाति।
(ग) गुणीजनः सर्वदा गुणं वेत्ति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) ‘गुणी गणं वेत्ति’ इत्यत्र किं कर्तृपदम्?
(ख) ‘गजः’ इत्यर्थे किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ग) ‘वायसः’ इति पदस्य किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम् अत्र?
उत्तर:
(क) गुणी
(ख) करी
(ग) पिक:

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्त प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

(सिंहासनस्थःरामः । ततः प्रविशत: विदूषकेनोपदिश्यमान मार्गों तापसौ कुशलवी)
विदूषकः – इत इत आर्यो! ।
कुशलवी – (रामम् उपसृत्य प्रणम्य च) अपि कुशलं महाराजस्य ?
रामः – युष्मदर्शनात् कुशलमिव। भवतो: कि वयमत्र कुशल प्रश्नस्य भाजनम् एव, न पुनरतिथिजन-समुचितस्य कण्ठाश्लेषस्य। (परिष्वज्य) अहो हृदयग्राही स्पर्शः। (आसनाधर्मुपवेशयति)
उभौ – राजासनं खल्वेतत्,नयुक्तमध्यासितुम्।
रामः – सव्यवधानं न चारित्रलोपाय । तस्मादङ्क व्यवहितमध्यास्यतां सिंहासनम्। (अङ्कमुपवेशयति)
उभौ – (अनिच्छां नाटयतः) राजन् । अलमतिदाक्षिण्येन।
रामः – अलमतिशालीनतया।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) रामः कुत्रास्थः?
(ख) रामस्य समीपं को अगच्छताम् ?
(ग) तापसौ कौ आस्ताम्?
उत्तर:
(क) सिंहासने
(ख) कुशलवौ
(ग) कुशलवौ

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कस्य स्पर्शः रामाय हृदयग्राही आसीत् ?
(ख) कौ अनिच्छ नाटयतः?
(ग) नाटयांशे अहो हृदयग्राही स्पर्शः कः अकथयत् ?
उत्तर:
(क) कुशलवयोः स्पर्शः रामाय हृदयग्राही आसीत्।
(ख) कुशलवौ अनिच्छां नाट्यतः।
(ग) “नाट्यांशे अहो हदययग्राही र्प्पशः” राम: अकथयत्।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए। (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) अपि कुशलं महाराजस्य’ इति कुशलवौपृच्छत इत्यत्र किं कर्तृपदम्?
(ख) ‘आलिंगनं कृत्वा इत्यर्थे कि’ पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम?
(ग) ‘आशालीनतया’ इति पदस्य स्थाने किं विलोमपदम् प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) कुशलवौ
(ख) परिष्वज्य
(ग) शालीनतया

15. रेखाङ्कितपदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(क) मयूरस्य नृत्यं प्रकृते आराधना।
(ख) पिता पुत्राय तपः तपति।
(ग) चक्रम् सदा वक्रम् भ्रमति।
(घ) अमुना दुर्दान्तैः अशनै: जननसनम् न स्यात्।
(ङ) कविः मानवस्य जीवनस्य कामनां करोति।
उत्तर:
(क) कस्या:
(ख)क:
(ग) कीदृशम्
(घ) केन
(ङ) कस्य

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचित पदानि चित्वा – अधोलिखितश्लोकस्यः अन्वयं पूरयत (1 × 4 = 4)
(मञ्जूषा से उचित पदों को चुनकर निम्नलिखित श्लोक के अन्वय को पूरा कीजिए।)

यत् प्रोक्तं येन केनापि तस्य तत्त्वार्थनिर्णयः।
कर्तुं शक्यो भवेद्येन सः विवेकः इतीरितः॥

अन्वयः-येन (i)…… अपि यत् (ii)…… तस्य (iii)……….. येन कर्तुं शक्यः भवेत् सः (iv)….. इति ईतिरितः।
उत्तर:
(i) केन
(ii) प्रोक्तं
(iii) तत्त्वार्थनिर्णय:
(iv) विवेक:

मञ्जूषा-प्रोक्तं, केन, विवेकः तत्त्वार्थनिर्णयः ।

अथवा
मञ्जूषायाः साहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक के भावार्थ से रिक्तस्थानों को पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।)

दुष्कराण्यपि कर्माणि मतिवैभवशालिनः।
नीति युक्तिं समालम्ब्य लीलयैव प्रकुर्वते॥

भावार्थ:- (i)………… युक्ताः जनाः उत्तम् (ii)……….. युक्तेः च आधारं नीत्वा (iii)….. अपि कार्याणि लीलया एव (iv)…….. तेषु ते कदापि कठिनतामपि न अनुभवन्ति।
उत्तर:
(i) धनेन
(ii) नीते:
(iii) दुष्कराणि
(iv) प्रकुर्वन्ति

मञ्जूषा-प्रकुर्वन्ति, धनेन, नीतेः, दुष्कराणि

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचितक्रमेण लिखत (1/2 × 8 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित कथांश को समुचित क्रम में लिखिए।)

(i) सर्वे प्राणिनः परस्परं विवादं कुर्वन्ति च कथयन्ति।
(ii) मिलित्वा एव मोदध्वं जीवनं रसमयं कुरुध्यम्।
(iii) ततः प्रकृतिमाता प्रविशति ।
(iv) पशुराजा न भवितव्यम् अपितु कोऽपि पक्षी एव राजेति निश्चेतव्यम्।
(v) सर्वे प्राणिनः स्व-स्वगुणस्य चर्चा कुर्वन्ति ।
(vi) सर्वेषाम् प्राणिनामेव यथासमयम् महत्त्वं विद्यते।
(vii) वानराः तम् तुदन्ति स्म।
(viii) एक: सिंहः सुप्यति स्म।
उत्तर:
(viii) एक: सिंह: सुप्यति स्म।
(vii) वानराः तम् तुदन्ति स्म।
(v) सर्वे प्राणिन: स्व-स्वगुणस्य चर्चां कुर्वन्ति।
(i) सर्वे प्राणिनः परस्परं विवादं कुर्वन्ति योग्यं च कथयन्ति।
(iv) पशुराजा न भवितव्यम् अपितु कोडपि पक्षी एव राजेति निश्चेतव्यम्।
(iii) ततः प्रकृतिमाता प्रविशति।
(vi) सर्वेषां प्राणिनामेव यथा समयं महत्त्वं विद्यते।
(ii) मिलित्वा एव मोदध्वं जीवनं रसमयं कुरुध्यम्।

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के प्रसंगानुकूल उचित अर्थ चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न) (1 × 3 = 3)

(i) अस्य पिता किं तपः तेपे इति।।
(क) कथ्यतः
(ख) तपस्या कृता
(ग) कल्याणम्
(घ) तपः
उत्तर:
(ख) तपस्या कृता

(ii) सः विवेकः इति ईरितः।
(क) वदेत्
(ख) निर्माक:
(ग) कथितः
(घ) कथनीयः
उत्तर:
(ग) कथितः

(iii) धैर्यवान् मन्त्री सनायाम् अवकातरः।
(क) वीरः
(ख) कल्याणम्
(ग) नत्रेवन्तः
(घ) विद्वान्
उत्तर:
(क) वीरः

(iv) गजः पर्यायवाची चित्वा लिखत-
(क) अश्वः
(ख) तुरङ्गः
(ग) कुञ्जरः
(घ) मृगः
उत्तर:
(ग) कुञ्जरः

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 History 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions Answers 2024-2025 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 History board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 12 History Sample Papers 2024.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 12 History
Year of Examination – 2024-2025

CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 History 2024-2025 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 12 History Sample Paper 2024 Solved.

CBSE Class 12 History Sample Papers 2024 with Solutions

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 1 (CBSE Sample Paper released on 16th Sep 2022)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 4
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 5
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 6
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 7
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 8
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 9
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 10

History Sample Paper Class 12 Question Paper Design 2024-25

Divisions	Typologies of Questions	No. of Questions	Marks	Total
Section A	Multiple Choice Questions	Q1 – Q21	1	1 × 21 = 21
Section B	Short Answer Type Questions	Q22 – Q27	3	6 × 3 = 18
Section C	Long Answer Type Questions	Q28 – Q30	8	3 × 8 = 24
Section D	Source-based Questions	Q31 – Q33	4	4 × 4 = 16
Section E	Map based Questions	Q34	5	1 × 5 = 5
Total		34 Questions		80 Marks

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions 2024-2025 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of History Class 12 2024 for their exam preparation.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

समय : 3 घंटे
पूर्णांक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

1. इस प्रश्न पत्र में दो खंड हैं- खंड ‘अ’ और ‘ब’। कुल प्रश्न 13 हैं।
2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों के उचित आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं।
4. प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए दीजिए।
5. दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
6. यथासंभव दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमशः लिखिए।

रखण्ड ‘अ’: वस्तुपरक-प्रश्न
अपठित गद्यांश

1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनकर लिखिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

जिस समय लोकमान्य तिलक ने राजनीतिक क्षेत्र में कदम रखा उस समय पूरा देश ‘चैतन्यहीन’ और ‘स्वत्वहीन’ हो चुका था। देश के करोड़ों निवासी जंगल के सूखे पत्तों की तरह अस्त-व्यस्त थे। उनमें जीवन नहीं था, एकता नहीं थी, उनका आत्मविश्वास मर चुका था। उनके मन में यह भरा जा चुका था कि अंग्रेज़ी साम्राज्य इस देश पर सदा शासन करने वाला है। इस परिस्थिति को बदलने की आवश्यकता तिलक ने महसूस की। उन्होंने उन्हीं असंगठित पत्तों जैसे लोगों को इकट्ठा किया और उनमें राष्ट्रीय स्वातंत्र्य के लिए संकल्प जगाया। देश का बहुसंख्यक समाज परलोक को अधिक महत्त्व देता था और इस लोक के प्रति उदासीन था। इस दृष्टि को बदलकर उन्हें जीवनोन्मुख बनाया। इस कार्य के लिए उन्होंने भगवद्गीता को नया अर्थ दिया और कर्मयोग के सिद्धान्त को लोगों के सामने रखा जो राष्ट्रीय पुनर्जागरण के कार्य में बड़ा ही महत्त्वपूर्ण और प्रेरणादायक सिद्ध हुआ। तब हालत कुछ ऐसी थी कि अपने समाज के दोष दिखाने और पाश्चात्य समाज, जीवन, विचार और कृतित्व का गुणगान करने में ही हमारे पढ़े-लिखे विचारक गौरव महसूस करते थे। भारत के बहुसंख्यक समाज की धर्म-प्रणाली, रीति-रिवाज, समाज-व्यवस्था सभी उनकी दृष्टि में हेय थी। तिलक ने इस बात को समझा और अपने समाज, धर्म और इतिहास के प्रति लोगों का अभिमान जगाया। इसी के साथ उन्होंने समाज के विभिन्न गुटों के मध्य उत्पन्न हुए विरोधों को दूर कर राष्ट्रीयता की भावना को पैदा किया और राष्ट्रीयता की भावना से ही पूर्ण स्वराज्य की माँग का उदय हुआ जिसका प्रेरक वाक्य था-“स्वतंत्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार

(i) गद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक होगा
(क) तिलक का जीवन परिचय
(ख) स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन में तिलक का योगदान
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(ख) स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन में तिलक का योगदान

(ii) तिलक की राष्ट्रीयता की भावना किस रूप में प्रतिफलित हुई?
(क) स्वराज्य की माँग के
(ख) पाकिस्तान की माँग के
(ग) इंग्लैण्ड की माँग के
(घ) सभी
उत्तर:
(क) स्वराज्य की माँग के

व्याख्या : तिलक द्वारा समाज में जगाई गई राष्ट्रीयता की भावना ही पूर्ण स्वराज्य की माँग के रूप में प्रतिफलित हुई।

(iii) ‘चैतन्यहीन’ से क्या तात्पर्य है?
(क) चेतना विहीन
(ख) आत्मविश्वास परिपूर्ण
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) चेतना विहीन

(iv) भारतीयों की तुलना किससे की है?
(क) गीले पत्ते
(ख) सूखे पत्ते
(ग) मिट्टी
(घ) पेड़
उत्तर:
(ख) सूखे पत्ते

व्याख्या : भारतीयों की तुलना सूखे पत्ते से इसलिए की गई है क्योंकि उसमें जीवन का रस नहीं था।

(v) भारतीय पढ़े-लिखे विचारकों की दृष्टि में हेय क्या था?
(क) रीति-रिवाज़
(ख) समाज-व्यवस्था
(ग) धर्म-प्रणाली
(घ) सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) सभी

(vi) तिलक ने लोगों में कैसा स्वाभिमान जाग्रत किया?
(क) राष्ट्रीय
(ख) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) राष्ट्रीय

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) देशवासियों के मन में यह बस चुका था कि अंग्रेज़ सदा के लिए शासन करने वाले हैं।
(II) देशवासियों के मन में यह बस चुका था कि अंग्रेज़ सदा के लिए शासन नहीं करने वाले हैं।
(III) अंग्रेज़ सदा से भारतीयों की मदद करते आए हैं।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है। हैं?
(क) केवल II
(ख) केवल III
(ग) केवल I
(घ) I और IIII
उत्तर:
(ग) केवल I

(viii) किसके द्वारा राष्ट्रीय पुनर्जागरण का कार्य किया गया?
(क) जीवनोन्मुख दृष्टि
(ख) कर्मयोग के सिद्धान्त
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) जीवनोन्मुख दृष्टि

व्याख्या : स्वतन्त्रता पाने में प्रेरक वाक्य बना “स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्म सिद्ध अधिकार है।”

(ix) प्रेरक वाक्य क्या था?
(क) स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।
(ख) स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार नहीं है।
(ग) स्वराज की माँग हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार नहीं है।
(घ) बेड़ियों में रहना हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।
उत्तर:
(क) स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।

(x) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): सामाजिक सौहार्द्र के लिए विभन्न गुटों में बँटे भारतीय समाज के अन्तर्विरोधों को दूर किया।
कारण (R): जिससे पूर्ण स्वराज की माँग का उदय हुआ।
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
(ग) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) गलत है।
(घ) कथन (A) गलत है तथा कारण (R) सही है।
उत्तर:
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।

2. निम्नलिखित पद्यांशों में से किसी एक पद्यांश से संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प-चयन द्वारा दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

मन-दीपक निष्कंप जलो रे !
सागर की उत्ताल तरंगें,
आसमान को छू-छू जाएँ
डोल उठे डगमग भूमंडल

अग्निमुखी ज्वाला बरसाए
धूमकेतु बिजली की द्युति से,
धरती का अंतर हिल जाए

फिर भी तुम जहरीले फन को
कालजयी बन उसे दलो रे !

कदम-कदम पर पत्थर, काँटे
पैरों को छलनी कर जाएँ।
श्रांत-क्लांत करने को आतुर
क्षण-क्षण में जग की बाधाएँ
मरण गीत आकर गा जाएँ
दिवस-रात, आपद-विपदाएँ

फिर भी तुम हिमपात तपन में
बिना आह चुपचाप जलो रे !

(i) कवि ने बाधाओं को दूर करने हेतु क्या बनने को कहा है ?
(क) देवता
(ख) कालजयी
(ग) दीपक
(घ) जहरीला नाग
उत्तर:
(ख) कालजयी

व्याख्या : कवि बाधाओं को दूर करने हेतु कालजयी बनने को कहता है। जो बाधाओं से डरे नहीं, मरे नहीं बल्कि मृत्यु को भी जीत ले।

(ii) बाधाओं को किसकी उपमा दी है ?
(क) पत्थर और काँटे की।
(ख) फूल और कलियों की।
(ग) दीपक और बाती की।
(घ) जीवन और मृत्यु की।
उत्तर:
(क) पत्थर और काँटे की।

(iii) कवि मानव मन को क्या करने को कहता है ?
(क) प्रतिशोध लेने को।
(ख) यादों के भंवर में न भटकने को।
(ग) निडर रहने को।
(घ) धर्मयुद्ध करने को।
उत्तर:
(ग) निडर रहने को।

(iv) कवि ने कविता में किसे संबोधित किया है ?
(क) दीपरूपी मन।
(ख) कमलरूपी मन।
(ग) सूर्यरूपी मन।
(घ) फनरूपी मन।
उत्तर:
(क) दीपरूपी मन।

(v) ‘क्षण-क्षणं, छू-छू, कदम-कदम’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है?
(क) उपमा।
(ख) मानवीकरण।
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश।
(घ) अन्योक्ति।
उत्तर:
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश।

अथवा

मैंने गढ़े
ताकत और उत्साह से
भरे-भरे
कुछ शब्द
जिन्हें छीन लिया मठाधीशों ने
दे दिया उन्हें धर्म का झंडा
उन्मादी हो गए
मेरे शब्द
तलवार लेकर
मिटाने लगे
अपना ही वजूद
फिर रचे मैंने
इंसानियत से लबरेज
ढेर सारे शब्द
अबकी उन्हें अगवा कर लिया
सफेदपोश लुटेरों ने
और दबा दिया उन्हें
कुर्सी के पाये तले
असहनीय दर्द से चीख रहे हैं
मेरे शब्द और वे
कर रहे हैं अट्टहास
अब मैं गढूँगी
बोऊँगी उन्हें
निराई गुड़ाई और
खाद-पानी से
लहलहा उठेगी फ़सल
तब कोई मठाधीश
कोई लुटेरा
नहीं छीन पाएगा उन्हें
छीनने की कोशिश में भी
गिर ही जाएँगे कुछ दाने
और समय आने पर
फिर उगेंगे वे
एक बार
दो बार
बार-बार
लगातार उगेंगे
मेरे शब्द

(i) मठाधीशों ने उत्साह भरे शब्दों को क्यों छीना ?
(क) धार्मिक उन्माद जगाने के लिए
(ख) धर्म से दूर करने के लिए
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) धार्मिक उन्माद जगाने के लिए

व्याख्या : धार्मिक उन्याद लोगों में जगाने के लिए मठाधीशों ने उत्साह भरे शब्दों को छीन लिया।

(ii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) तलवार शब्द आत्मघात की ओर संकेत करता है।
(II) तलवार शब्द सुरक्षा की ओर संकेत करता है।
(III) तलवार शब्द निष्क्रिय की ओर संकेत करता है।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल II
(ख) केवल I
(ग) केवल III
(घ) I और III
उत्तर:
(ख) केवल I

(iii) कवयित्री किस उम्मीद से शब्दों को बो रही है?
(क) सही अर्थ प्राप्त करने की
(ख) अलग अर्थ प्राप्त करने की
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) सही अर्थ प्राप्त करने की

(iv) पंक्तियों में ‘वे’ शब्द किसके लिए प्रयुक्त हुआ है?
(क) राष्ट्रपति
(ख) जनता
(ग) नेताओं
(घ) किसान
उत्तर:
(ग) नेताओं

(v) कवि बाधाओं को दूर करने हेतु क्या बनने के लिए कहता है?
(क) सक्रिय
(ख) कालजयी
(ग) साधारण मनुष्य
(घ) राष्ट्रपति
उत्तर:
(ख) कालजयी

3. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) भुगतान के आधार पर काम करने वाले पत्रकार कहलाते हैं ?
(क) फ्रीलांसर
(ख) वॉचडॉग
(ग) बीट
(घ) संपादक
उत्तर:
(क) फ्रीलांसर

व्याख्या : फ्रीलांसर पत्रकार भुगतान के आधार पर अलग-अलग अख़बारों के लिए लिखते हैं।

(ii) समाचार के प्रारम्भिक अंश को क्या कहते हैं ?
(क) इन्ट्रो
(ख) बॉडी
(ग) ककार
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) इन्ट्रो

व्याख्या : समाचार के विस्तृत तत्त्वों को घटते क्रम में लिखना बॉडी कहलाता है तथा समाचार का प्रारंभ-भाग इन्ट्रो/मुखड़ा कहलाता है। इसे उल्टा पिरामिड शैली कहते हैं।

(iii) निम्न में से प्रिंट मीडिया का माध्यम है-
(क) टेलीविज़न
(ख) रेडियो
(ग) सिनेमा
(घ) समाचार-पत्र
उत्तर:
(घ) समाचार-पत्र

व्याख्या : प्रिंट मीडिया/मुद्रित माध्यम जनसंचार के आधुनिक माध्यमों में से सबसे पुराना माध्यम है। वास्तव में आधुनिक युग की शुरुआत ही मुद्रण के आविष्कार से हुई।

(iv) कॉलम ‘क’ का कॉलम ‘ख’ से उचित मिलान कीजिए-

कॉलम ‘क’	कॉलम ‘ख’
(i) सिनेमा	(i) दृश्य माध्यम
(ii) समाचार पत्र	(ii) प्रिंट माध्यम
(iii) ऑल इंडिया रेडियो की स्थापना	(iii) मार्थोनी
(iv) रेडियो का आविष्कार	(iv) 1936

(क) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(ख) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(ग) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(घ) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
उत्तर:
(ग) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(v) ऑल इंडिया रेडियो वर्तमान में किस संस्था के अंतर्गत है ?
(क) प्रसार भारती
(ख) भारतीय टेलीकॉम
(ग) डी. डी. नेशनल
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) प्रसार भारती

व्याख्या : सन् 1997 में आकाशवाणी को केन्द्र सरकार के सीधे नियंत्रण से निकालकर प्रसार भारती नाम के स्वायत्तशासी निकाय को सौंप दिया गया।

4. निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

जन्म से ही वे अपने साथ लाते हैं कपास
पृथ्वी घूमती हुई आती है उनके बेचैन पैरों के पास
जब वे दौड़ते हैं बेसुध
छतों को भी नरम बनाते हुए
दिशाओं को मृदंग की तरह बजाते हुए
जब वे पेंग भरते हुए चले जाते हैं
डाल की तरह लचीले वेग से अकसर
छतों के खतरनाक किनारों तक
उस समय गिरने से बचाता है उन्हें
सिर्फ उनके ही रोमांचित शरीर का संगीत
पतंगों की धड़कती ऊँचाइयाँ उन्हें थाम लेती हैं महज़ एक धागे के सहारे
पतंगों के साथ-साथ वे भी उड़ रहे हैं
अपने रंध्रों के सहारे
अगर वे कभी गिरते हैं छतों के खतरनाक किनारों से
और भी निडर होकर सुनहले सूरज के सामने आते हैं
पृथ्वी और भी तेज़ घूमती हुई आती है
उनके बेचैन पैरों के पास।

(i) पद्यांश में ‘वे’ और ‘उनके’ सर्वनाम शब्द किनके लिए प्रयुक्त हुए हैं?
(क) स्त्रियों के लिए
(ख) बच्चों के लिए
(ग) पुरुषों के लिए
(घ) बूढ़ों के लिए।
उत्तर:
(ख) बच्चों के लिए

व्याख्या : पद्यांश में ‘वे’ और ‘उनके’ सर्वनाम शब्द पतंग उड़ाने वाले बच्चों के लिए प्रयुक्त हुए हैं।

(ii) ‘जन्म से ही वे अपने साथ लाते हैं कपास’ पंक्ति का आशय है-
(क) बच्चे के जन्म पर कपास का उपहार दिया जाता है
(ख) बच्चे कपास की तरह सफ़ेद होते हैं
(ग) जन्म से ही बच्चे कपास जैसी कोमल भावनाएँ और लचीला शरीर लेकर आते हैं
(घ) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(ग) जन्म से ही बच्चे कपास जैसी कोमल भावनाएँ और लचीला शरीर लेकर आते हैं

व्याख्या : बच्चे जब जन्म लेते हैं तब वे बहुत ही सुकोमल होते हैं। उनमें कोमल भावनाएँ होती हैं व लचीला शरीर होता है जैसे- कि कपास कोमल, मुलायम व लचीली होती है।

(iii) ‘दौड़ते हैं बेसुध’ पंक्ति के अनुसार बच्चों की बेसुधी के उदाहरण हैं
(क) वे दौड़ते-दौड़ते सो जाते हैं
(ख) वे सो नहीं पाते, अतः नींद में ही दौड़ते रहते हैं
(ग) वे जैसे ही बेसुध होते हैं, दौड़ना शुरू कर देते हैं
(घ) कटी पतंग को लूटने के लिए वे छतों पर बेसुध होकर दौड़ते हैं। वे छतों के खतरनाक किनारों पर भी बेसुध होकर दौड़ने लगते हैं।
उत्तर:
(घ) कटी पतंग को लूटने के लिए वे छतों पर बेसुध होकर दौड़ते हैं। वे छतों के खतरनाक किनारों पर भी बेसुध होकर दौड़ने लगते हैं।

व्याख्या : बच्चे जब पतंग उड़ा रहे होते हैं तब वे अपनी चिंता ही छोड़ देते हैं। वे बेसुध होकर कटी पतंग को लूटने के लिए दौड़ पड़ते हैं चाहे वह छत हो या छत का किनारा, जहाँ से गिरने का भय भी रहता है।

(iv) अलंकार की दृष्टि से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है?
(क) धागे के सहारे – उपमा अलंकार
(ख) पैरों के पास – अनुप्रास अलंकार
(ग) और भी निडर होकर – पुनरुक्ति अलंकार
(घ) उस समय गिरने से – छेकांनुप्रास अलंकार
उत्तर:
(ख) पैरों के पास – अनुप्रास अलंकार

(v) छतों के किनारों से उन्हें गिरने से कौन बचाता है?
(क) बच्चों की मदमस्त गतिविधियाँ
(ख) उनकी रोमांचकारी अनुभूतियाँ
(ग) उनकी बेखौफ़ एवं रोमांचक निश्चिन्तता
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।

व्याख्या :बच्चों की गतिविधियाँ बहुत मदमस्त होती हैं। उनके लिए कटी पतंग पकड़ने के लिए दौड़ना रोमांचकारी अनुभूति होती है। वे गिरने के डर से बेखौफ़ रहते हैं। उन्हें केवल रोमांचक निश्चिन्तता रहती है। उनकी ये सभी गतिविधियाँ और उनकी निडरता उन्हें छतों के किनारे से गिरने से बचाती हैं।

5. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

फिर जीजी बोली, “देख, तू तो अभी से पढ़-लिख गया है। मैंने तो गाँव के मदरसे का भी मुँह नहीं देखा। पर एक बात देखी है कि अगर तीस-चालीस मन गेहूँ उगाना है तो किसान पाँच-छह सेर अच्छा गेहूँ अपने पास से लेकर ज़मीन में क्यारियाँ बना कर फेंक देता है। उसे बुवाई कहते हैं। यह जो सूखे में हम अपने घर का पानी इन पर फेंकते हैं; वह भी बुवाई है। यह पानी गली में बोएँगे तो सारे शहर, कस्बा, गाँव पर पानी वाले बादलों की फ़सल आ जाएगी। हम बीज बनाकर पानी देते हैं, फिर काले मेघों से पानी माँगते हैं। सब ऋषि-मुनि कह गए हैं कि पहले खुद दो तब देवता तुम्हें चौगुना-अठगुना करके लौटाएँगे। भइया, यह तो हर आदमी का आचरण है, जिससे सबका आचरण बनता है। यथा राजा तथा प्रजा सिर्फ यही सच नहीं है। सच यह भी है कि यथा प्रजा तथा राजा। यही तो गांधी जी महाराज कहते हैं।”

(i) बुवाई के लिए किसान किस प्रकार से श्रम करता है ?
(क) ज़मीन की निराई, गुड़ाई करना
(ख) हल चलाना व क्यारियाँ बनाना
(ग) बीज बोना
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।

व्याख्या : किसान ज़मीन की निराई, गुड़ाई करता है, बीज़ बोता है और हल चलाकर क्यारियाँ बनाकर परिश्रम द्वारा बुवाई करता है।

(ii) त्याग की महत्ता को किसने बताया था ?
(क) ऋषि-मुनियों ने
(ख) इंदर सेना ने
(ग) लेखक ने
उत्तर:
(क) ऋषि-मुनियों ने

व्याख्या : ऋषि-मुनियों का कहना है कि मनुष्य को पहले स्वयं त्यागपूर्वक दान करना चाहिए तभी उसे उसका गुना मिलता है।

(iii) इंदर सेना पर पानी फेंकना जीजी के अनुसार क्या है ?
(क) पानी की बर्बादी
(ख) पानी की बुवाई
(ग) अंधविश्वास
(घ) पानी का विसर्जन।
उत्तर:
(ख) पानी की बुवाई

व्याख्या : जीजी के अनुसार काले मेघों से वर्षा पाने के लिए इंदर सेना पर पानी फेंकना मानो पानी की बुवाई है।

(iv) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): जीजी ने अपने आचरण संबंधी बात के समर्थन में गांधी जी का नाम लिया।
कारण (R): क्योंकि गाँधी-जी सत्य का समर्थन करते थे।
(क) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) गलत है।
(ख) कथन (A) गलत है तथा कारण (R) सही है।
(ग) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(घ) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
उत्तर:
(ग) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।

व्याख्या : जीजी आचरण को बहुत महत्त्व देती थी। राजा और प्रजा दोनों का आचरण मानवीय मूल्यों के अनुसार होना चाहिए। गांधीजी भी यही कहते थे कि उनका स्वयं का आचरण सत्य व त्याग पर आधारित था। वे सादगी भरा जीवन व्यतीत करते थे और अहिंसा के रास्ते पर चलते थे।

(v) गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) जीजी किसान के उदाहरण द्वारा यह सिद्ध करना चाहती है कि इंदर सेना पर जल समर्पित करना होगा।
(II) जीजी किसान के उदाहरण द्वारा यह सिद्ध करना चाहती है कि खेती के लिए हल आवश्यक है।
(III) खेती का कार्य वर्षा पर पूरी तरह निर्भर होता है।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल II
(ग) केवल III
(घ) I और III
उत्तर:
(क) केवल I

व्याख्या : जीजी किसान के उदाहरण द्वारा यह बताना चाहती है कि जिस प्रकार किसान बुआई करके फ़सल उगाता है उसी प्रकार इंदर सेना पर जल डालना भी वर्षा के लिए बुवाई होती है।

6. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर हेतु निर्देशानुसार सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

(i) लेखक ने अपनी पढ़ाई के सम्बन्ध में किसकी सहायता लेने का सुझाव दिया ?
(क) दादा की
(ख) सौंदलगेकर की
(ग) ताऊ की
(घ) दत्ता जी राव की
उत्तर:
(घ) दत्ता जी राव की

व्याख्या : पूरे गाँव में दत्ता जी राव का अत्यधिक मान- सम्मान था। लेखक के पिता भी उनकी बात को ठुकरा नहीं सकते थे अतः लेखक ने अपनी पढ़ाई के सम्बन्ध में दत्ताजी राव की सहायता लेना उचित समझा।

(ii) लेखक का पिता अपना पूरा दिन कहाँ व्यतीत करता था ?
(क) खेतों में
(ख) घर पर
(ग) रखमाबाई के पास
(घ) पाठशाला में
उत्तर:
(ग) रखमाबाई के पास

व्याख्या : लेखक का पिता ऐशो-आराम और मस्ती से रहने वाला व्यक्ति था। वह खेतों में काम नहीं करना चाहता था और आज़ादी से घूमना चाहता था। इसी ऐशो-आराम और मस्ती के लिए वह अपना पूरा दिन रखमाबाई के पास व्यतीत करता था।

(iii) लेखक के पिता के लिए किसका बुलावा सम्मानीय बात थी?
(क) देसाई का
(ख) गणपा का
(ग) सौंदलगेकर का
(घ) बोरकर का
उत्तर:
(क) देसाई का

व्याख्या : लेखक के पिता दत्ता जी राव देसाई को बहुत मानते थे। वे उनकी प्रत्येक बात भी मानते थे। उसके लिए देसाई का बुलावा आना सम्मान की बात थी।

(iv) यशोधर बाबू का चड्ढा के संबंध में क्या विचार था?
(क) अद्भुत
(ख) बदतमीज़
(ग) कामचोर
(घ) समहाउ इंप्रापर चड्ढा
उत्तर:
(घ) समहाउ इंप्रापर चड्ढा

व्याख्या : चड्ढ़ा ने यशोधर बाबू के साथ बद्तमीज़ी की थी और उसकी चौड़ी मोहरी वाली पतलून और ऊँची एड़ी वाले जूते देखकर भी चड्ढ़ा उन्हें समहाउ इंप्रापर लग रहा था।

(v) यशोधर बाबू की कलाई घड़ी का क्या कहकर मज़ाक उड़ाता था ?
(क) चूनेदानी
(ख) चूहेदानी
(ग) माचिस की डिबिया
(घ) खटारा
उत्तर:
(ख) चूहेदानी

व्याख्या : यशोधर बाबू ने जब ऑफिस के लोगों को ऑफिस की घड़ी की तरह सुस्त बताया, तो चड्ढ़ा ने भी यशोधर बाबू की घड़ी को चूनेदानी’ कहकर उनकी घड़ी का मज़ाक उड़ाया।

(vi) किशन दा ने यशोधर बाबू को कितने रुपए उधार देकर मदद की थी ?
(क) ₹ 20
(ख) ₹ 50
(ग) ₹ 100
(घ) ₹ 150
उत्तर:
(ख) ₹ 50

व्याख्या : किशन दा ने यशोधर बाबू को, ₹ 50 उधार देकर मदद की थी।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 6 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
(II) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 8 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
(III) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 9 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
(IV) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 10 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) I और IV
(ख) केवल I
(ग) केवल II
(घ) केवल IV
उत्तर:
(ख) केवल I

व्याख्या : यशोधर बाबू की शादी 6 फरवरी, 1947 में हुई थी।

(viii) कुंड की सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण विशेषता है-
(क) इसका विशाल आकार
(ख) कुंड के नीचे उतरती सीढ़ियाँ
(ग) पक्की ईंटों का जमाव
(घ) तीन तरफ़ बने साधुओं के कक्ष
उत्तर:
(ग) पक्की ईंटों का जमाव

व्याख्या : महाकुंड को चूने और गारे का इस्तेमाल कर ईंटों से पक्का बनाया गया है जिससे अंदर का पानी बाहर और बाहर का अशुद्ध पानी अंदर नहीं आ सकता। इसका पानी बाहर निकालने के लिए भी ईंटों से ढकी पक्की नालियाँ बनी हैं।

(ix) विशाल कोठार किस प्रयोग में लाया जाता था ?
(क) सेना के अस्त्र-शस्त्र रखने के
(ख) कर के रूप में प्राप्त अनाज रखने के
(ग) तीर्थयात्रियों व साधुओं के ठहरने के
(घ) लगान के हिसाब-किताब के बहीखाते रखने के
उत्तर:
(ख) कर के रूप में प्राप्त अनाज रखने के

व्याख्या : महाकुंड के दूसरी तरफ़ बना नौ-नौ की तीन कतारें, हवादारी और चौकियों को देख प्रबंधकों ने इस विशाल कोठार का उपयोग कर के रूप में मिले अनाज का संग्रहण करना माना है।

(x) फसलों की ढुलाई किसके द्वारा की जाती थी ?
(क) बैलगाड़ी के
(ख) हथठेला के
(ग) सिर पर रखकर
(घ) ऊँटों के
उत्तर:
(क) बैलगाड़ी के

व्याख्या : फसलों की ढुलाई बैलगाड़ी द्वारा की जाती थी।

रखण्ड ‘ब’ : वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

7. दिए गए चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए- (6 × 1 = 6)

(क) कम्प्यूटर : मेरे जीवन में
(ख) भारत की सामाजिक समस्याएँ
(ग) स्वाभिमान चाहिए, अभिमान नहीं
(घ) विकास के लिए शिक्षा आवश्यक
उत्तर:
(क) कम्प्यूटर : मेरे जीवन में

कम्प्यूटर आधुनिक विज्ञान का अद्भुत करिश्मा है जिसने सारे विश्व को अपने आकर्षण में जकड़ लिया है। कोई वैज्ञानिक प्रतिष्ठान हो या औद्योगिक प्रतिष्ठान, बैंक हो या बीमा निगम, रेलवे स्टेशन हो या बस डिपों हर जगह इसका बोलबाला है। यही स्कूल-कॉलेजों में विद्यार्थियों की रुचि का केन्द्र है। सबकी तरह मैं भी कम्प्यूटर के प्रभाव से अछूता नहीं हूँ। कम्प्यूटर ने मेरे जीवन को जहाँ रफ्तार दी है वहीं इसे आरामदायक भी बना दिया है। शिक्षा से सम्बन्धित कैसी भी जानकारी प्राप्त करना बहुत सरल हो गया है।

परिवार, रिश्तेदारों, मित्रों आदि से सम्पर्क बनाए रखना हो या बिजली, टेलीफोन आदि के बिल जमा करने हों, तो कम्प्यूटर के द्वारा घर बैठे जमा कर सकते हैं। कम्प्यूटर के कारण भारी-भरकम पुस्तकों को रखने, सँभालने और उन्हें उलटने-पुलटने की आवश्यकता खत्म होती जा रही है। इंटरनेट ने सारे विश्व को एक पाठशाला में बदल देने की शक्ति दिखा दी है। कम्प्यूटर के कारण मैं किसी भी प्रकार की लम्बी से लम्बी गणना बिना किसी त्रुटि के कुछ ही पलों में कर लेता हूँ। जब कभी थक जाता हूँ या बोरियत महसूस करता हूँ तो कम्प्यूटर पर चलचित्र देख लेता हूँ या मनपसंद गाने सुन लेता हूँ। इससे अकेलेपन का एहसास भी नहीं होता। घर से दूर परदेस में यह एक सच्चे मित्र की भाँति मेरा साथ देता है।

परिवार को पैसे भेजने का कार्य भी कम्प्यूटर सुगमता से कर देता है। घर जाने के लिए रेल का टिकट कराना हो या हवाई जहाज का, कम्प्यूटर के द्वारा सुविधापूर्वक किया जा सकता है। वस्तुतः आज के समय में कम्प्यूटर हमारे घर के एक सदस्य की तरह हमारा साथ निभा रहा है।

(ख) भारत की सामाजिक समस्याएँ

मेरा भारत एक विशाल देश है जहाँ विभिन्न धर्मों, जातियों व वेश-भूषाओं को धारण करने वाले लोग निवास करते हैं। दूसरे शब्दों में अनेकता में एकता हमारी पहचान और हमारा गौरव है परन्तु अनेकता अनेक समस्याओं की जननी भी है। प्रायः जाति, भाषा, रहन-सहन व धार्मिक विभिन्नताओं के बीच सामंजस्य रखना दुष्कर हो जाता है। विभिन्न धर्मों व सम्प्रदायों के लोगों की विचारधाराएँ भी भिन्न-भिन्न होती हैं।

देश में व्याप्त प्रांतीयता, भाषावाद, सम्प्रदायवाद या जातिवाद इन्हीं विभिन्नताओं का दुष्परिणाम है। इसके चलते आज देश के लगभग सभी राज्यों से दंगे-फसाद, मारकाट, लूट-खसोट आदि के समाचार प्रायः सुनने व पढ़ने को मिलते हैं। नारी के प्रति अत्याचार, दुराचार तथा बलात्कार का प्रयास हमारे समाज की एक शर्मनाक समस्या है। केवल अशिक्षित ही नहीं अपितु हमारे कथित सभ्य-शिक्षित समाज में भी दहेज का ज़हर व्याप्त है। अंधविश्वास व रूढ़िवादिता हमारे देश के नवयुवकों को भाग्यवादिता की ओर ले जाती है फलस्वरूप वे कर्महीन हो जाते हैं। भ्रष्टाचार भी हमारे देश में एक जटिल समस्या का रूप ले चुका है।

भ्रष्टाचार के परिणामस्वरूप देश में महँगाई और कालाबाजारी के ज़हर का स्वच्छंद रूप से विस्तार हो रहा है। जातिवाद की जड़ें समाज में बहुत गहरी हो चुकी हैं। ये समस्याएँ आज की नहीं हैं अपितु सदियों से पनप रही हैं। इसके परिणामस्वरूप पनपी सामाजिक विषमता देश के विकास में बाधक हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त देश में फैली अशिक्षा और निर्धनता जैसी सामाजिक समस्याओं के रहते कोई भी देश वास्तविक रूप में विकास नही कर सकता।

(ग) स्वाभिमान चाहिए, अभिमान नहीं

स्वाभिमान और अभिमान ये दोनों मनुष्य के चरित्र को परिभाषित करते हैं। जहाँ स्वाभिमान उसके उच्च व्यक्तित्व का उदात्त अंग कहलाता है वहीं अभिमान उसके पतन का कारण बनता है। स्वाभिमान मनुष्य का गुण बन जाता है और अभिमान उसका अवगुण कहलाता है। स्वाभिमान ही प्रत्येक मनुष्य का आभूषण है। यह हर व्यक्ति के अंतस में विद्यमान उसका प्रिय मित्र होता है।

स्वाभिमान रूपी पूँजी जिसके पास नहीं होती वह मृतप्राय होता है। उसे हर कोई रौंदता हुआ आगे बढ़ जाता है। इसी प्रकार जिस देश के लोगों में स्वाभिमान का भाव नहीं होता, उस राष्ट्र को कोई भी शत्रु-देश आक्रमण करके सरलता से अपने अधीन कर लेता है। इसके विपरीत अभिमान मनुष्य का वह अवगुण है जो व्यक्ति के सिर चढ़कर बोलता है। यह मनुष्य का सबसे बड़ा शत्रु है। मनीषियों का कथन है कि अहंकारी कितने भी ऊँचे बोल क्यों न बोल ले उसका अंत हमेशा बुरा ही होता है।

स्वाभिमानी मनुष्य मृत्यु तुल्य कष्टों का भी हँसकर सामना कर लेते हैं। वे अपने स्वाभिमान का सौदा कभी भी किसी भी मूल्य पर नहीं करते। ऐसे स्वाभिमानियों से तो बड़े-बड़े साम्राज्य भी थर-थर काँपते हैं। वे जानते हैं कि ऐसे लोग अपने लिए कभी समझौता नहीं करते। वहीं अभिमानी लोग खुद तो डूबते ही हैं अपने साथियों को भी डुबाने का अपराध करते हैं। वे इस तथ्य को भूल जाते हैं “घमंडी का सिर नीचा।” अभिमानी का अन्त सदैव बुरा होता है जैसे रावण और हिरण्यकश्यप जैसे अभिमानियों का हुआ अतः हमें स्वाभिमानी बनना चाहिए, अभिमानी नहीं। मैं भी ऐसा ही स्वाभिमानी बनूँगा।

(घ) विकास के लिए शिक्षा आवश्यक

शिक्षा अपने चारों ओर की चीज़ों को सीखने की प्रक्रिया है मैं यह जानता हूँ कि यह हमें किसी भी वस्तु या परिस्थिति को आसानी से समझने, किसी भी समस्या से निपटने और जीवन भर विभिन्न आयामों में संतुलन बनाए रखने में मदद करती है। शिक्षा के बिना हम अधूरे हैं और हमारा जीवन बेकार है, शिक्षा के बिना मनुष्य अपना विकास नहीं कर सकता है।

शिक्षा से मनुष्य का बौद्धिक विकास होता है जिसके बल पर वह आत्मनिर्भर बन अपना आर्थिक विकास कर सकता है। किसी भी देश या जाति के विकास के लिए भी शिक्षा उतनी ही आवश्यक है जितनी मानव के व्यक्तिगत विकास के लिए इसीलिए हमारे देश में ‘पढ़े इंडिया, बढ़े इंडिया’ जैसे-शिक्षा कार्यक्रमों को आगे बढ़ाया जा रहा है। यह सामाजिक विकास, आर्थिक समृद्धि और तकनीकी उन्नति का सही रास्ता है। शिक्षा वैज्ञानिकों की, शोधकार्यों में; यांत्रिक मशीनों आधुनिक जीवन के आवश्यक अन्य तकनीकियों के आविष्कार में सहायता करती है। यह समाज में सामान्य संस्कृति और मूल्यों को विकसित करती है। इस तरह देश शिक्षा के द्वारा अपने चहुँमुखी विकास की ओर अग्रसर होता है।

8. किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) कहानी-कला की ऐतिहासिक पृष्ठभूमि पर प्रकाश डालिए।
उत्तर:
कहानी का इतिहास मानव इतिहास जितना ही पुराना माना जाना चाहिए क्योंकि कहानी मानवीय प्रकृति जन्य है। पहले युद्ध, प्रेम, प्रतिशोध के किस्से, फिर कल्पनात्मक कहानियाँ और फिर जो उसे प्रिय लगा, उसके किस्से सुनाए जाते थे। धीरे-धीरे वीरता के बलिदानों और त्याग, तपस्या के किस्से भी सुनाए गए जिससे व्यक्तियों में साहस के साथ-साथ मानवीय मूल्य बने रहें। परियों की कहानियाँ, भूत-प्रेतों की डरावनी कहानियाँ, राजा-रानी की कहानियाँ, साधारण जीवन से जुड़ी आम आदमी की कहानियाँ आदि रोचक कहानियों से शुरू हुईं और वर्तमान में सामाजिक विसंगतियों पर प्रहार करती कहानियाँ रची जाने लगीं। शिक्षा देने के लिए कहानी विधा का प्रयोग किया गया और ‘पंचतंत्र’ की कहानियाँ लिखी गईं। धीरे-धीरे कहानी के साथ उद्देश्य का सम्मिश्रण हो गया जो कि उत्तरोत्तर विकसित होता गया।

(ख) रेडियो नाटक किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
रेडियो संचार का एक साधन है जिसके माध्यम से किसी भी संदेश को एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर पहुँचा सकते हैं लेकिन केवल आवाज़ के माध्यम से इसीलिए इसे दूरभाष यंत्र भी कहते हैं। रेडियो-नाटक एक श्रव्य-माध्यम है। इसका रंगमंच एक तरह का अंधकार ही है क्योंकि ये हमें दिखाई नहीं देता, केवल सुनाई देता है। दर्शक सुने जा रहे संवादों से अपनी कल्पना में दृश्यों की रचना कर लेता है। रेडियो-नाटक शब्दों व माइक के सहारे प्रस्तुत किया जाता है। इसका समय निर्धारित होता है। इस पर देश, काल व स्थान का बँधन नहीं होता।

(ग) नाटक की विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
नाटक की विशेषताएँ निम्नलिखित हैं-
(i) नाटक एक ऐसी गद्य विधा है, जिसका मंच पर अभिनय किया जाता है।
(ii) नाटक का सम्बन्ध लेखक, निर्देशक, दर्शक तथा श्रोताओं से होता है।
(iii) नाटक का मंच पर अभिनय किया जाता है।
(iv) ‘नाटक’ को दृश्यों के आधार पर विभाजित किया जाता है।
(v) नाटक में मंच सज्जा संगीत तथा प्रकाश व्यवस्था का विशेष महत्त्व होता है।

9. निम्नलिखित तीन में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 80 शब्दों में लिखिए- (4 × 2 = 8)

(क) साइबर पत्रकारिता क्या है?
उत्तर:
साइबर पत्रकारिता का अभिप्राय उस पत्रकारिता से है जो मोबाइल, कंप्यूटर, इंटरनेट पर खबरें देती है। आज तमाम वेबसाइटें इस प्रकार की हैं जो प्रमुख समाचार भी उपलब्ध कराती हैं। फिल्म, खेल, व्यापार जगत के साथ-साथ अंतर्राष्ट्रीय घटनाचक्र की ताजा-तरीन जानकारी इन वेबसाइटों पर उपलब्ध होती हैं। साइबर मीडिया में ग्राफिक्स, ऑडियो-विडियो, चित्र आदि सभी का प्रयोग होता है। साइबर मीडिया अर्थात् मल्टी मीडिया कई संचार माध्यमों से युक्त होता है। यह दर्शकों या पाठकों की रूचि को कम नहीं करता बल्कि बढ़ाता है जिसके कारण वे इससे दूर नहीं जा पाते।

(ख) बीट रिपोर्टिंग और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
बीट रिपोर्टिंग का आशय किसी विशेष क्षेत्र से संबंधित नए तथ्यों की आरम्भिक जानकारी देना है। इसमें कहाँ, कब, क्या, किसने किया? इसकी पर्याप्त सूचना होती है। इसकी सूचना देने वाले को बीट रिपोर्टर कहा जाता है। विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग से आशय सामान्य समाचारों के बाद विशेष क्षेत्र या विषय से जुड़ी समस्याओं का, घटनाओं का या अन्य किसी मुददे का गहराई से विवेचन करना है। विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग में घटना और घटना के महत्त्व का स्पष्टीकरण होता है तथा रक्षा, विदेश-नीति, राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा आदि को प्राथमिकता दी जाती है।

(ग) हर सूचना समाचार नहीं होती। ऐसा क्यों?
उत्तर:
हर सूचना समाचार इसलिए नहीं होती, क्योंकि समाचार किसी भी ऐसी ताज़ा घटना, विचार या समस्या की रिपोर्ट होती है, जिसमें अधिक-से-अधिक लोगों की रुचि होती है और इसका प्रभाव भी अधिक-से-अधिक लोगों पर पड़ता है। समाचारों में तथ्यों की शुद्धता पर विशेष ध्यान दिया जाता है। इन तथ्यों को बिना तोड़े-मरोड़े प्रस्तुत किया जाता है। हमें समाचार माध्यमों से महत्त्वपूर्ण सूचनाएँ प्राप्त होती रहती हैं। ये सार्वजनिक महत्त्व की सूचनाएँ होती हैं। ये व्यक्तिगत नहीं होतीं। ये समसामयिक घटनाओं पर आधारित होती हैं। हमारी निजी जिंदगी पर आधारित सूचनाएँ या व्यक्तिगत महत्त्व की सूचनाएँ समाचार नहीं होती।

10. काव्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) कवि ने कविता की उड़ान और खिलने को चिड़िया और फूलों से किस तरह भिन्न बताया है?
उत्तर:
कविता कल्पना के पंखों पर चिड़िया की तरह मुक्त गगन में विचरण करती है और फूलों की भाँति खिलकर अपनी शोभा सर्वत्र फैला देती है। किन्तु कविता चिड़िया से भिन्न इसलिए है क्योंकि चिड़िया के पंखों की सामर्थ्य सीमित है, जबकि कविता की सामर्थ्य असीमित है। इसी प्रकार फूल खिलकर मुरझा जाते हैं, किन्तु कविता कभी मुरझाती नहीं उसकी शोभा सुगंध रूपी समय बीतने के साथ और भी बढ़ती जाती है।।

(ख) “कैमरे में बंद अपाहिज” करुणा के मुखौटे में छिपी क्रूरता की कविता है, इस कथन पर अपने विचार व्यक्त कीजिए।
उत्तर:
चैनलों/दूरदर्शन द्वारा अपाहिज व्यक्तियों की बेबसी को दर्शाकर करुणा पैदा करने के पीछे क्रूरतापूर्वक व्यावसायिक उद्देश्यों का संचालन (परीक्षार्थी के अन्य तर्कसंगत विचार भी स्वीकार्य)

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
कैमरे में बंद अपाहिज’ कविता करुणा के मुखौटे में छिपी क्रूरता की कविता है, क्योंकि एक शारीरिक रूप से अपाहिज, विकलांग व्यक्ति जो कि शारीरिक रूप से चुनौती को सहन कर रहा है, दूरदर्शन वाले अपने कार्यक्रम को रोचक बनाने के लिए उससे तरह-तरह के प्रश्न पूछकर, विभिन्न भाव-भंगिमाओं (संकेतों) द्वारा एक साक्षात्कार कार्यक्रम के बहाने उसका मानसिक शोषण करते हैं।

कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य समाज के ऐसे व्यक्तियों के प्रति करुणा जाग्रत करना है। यह कविता दूरदर्शन स्टूडियो के भीतर की दुनिया को उभारती जरूर है, लेकिन ऐसे व्यक्ति की ओर संकेत करती है, जो दुःख-दर्द, यातना-वेदना को बेचना चाहता है। यह कविता शारीरिक चुनौती को सहन करते लोगों के प्रति संवेदनशील नज़रिया अपनाने के रूप में भी देखी जा सकती है। कवि ने संवेदनहीनता को रेखांकित करने का प्रयास किया है। वह दिखलाता है कि किस तरह करुणा के मकसद से शुरू हुआ कार्यक्रम क्रूर बन जाता है।

(ग) ‘उषा’ कविता के आधार पर गाँव की सुबह का वर्णन अपने शब्दों में कीजिए।
उत्तर:
(i) प्रात:काल की रंगत बहुत नीले शंख जैसी
(ii) ओस से भरा भोर का नभ राख से लीपे हुए चौके जैसा
(iii) उषाकालीन आकाश लाल केसर से धुली काली सिल जैसा निर्मल और स्वच्छ
(iv) खुले तालाब में स्नान करती युवतियाँ

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
उषा कविता में कवि ने गतिशील बिंब योजना का प्रयोग करते हुए गाँव की सुबह का सुंदर शब्द-चित्र प्रस्तुत किया है। बहुत सुबह पूर्व दिशा में सूर्य दिखाई देने से पहले आकाश नीले शंख के समान प्रतीत हो रहा था। उसका रंग ऐसा लग रहा था जैसे किसी गाँव की महिला ने चूल्हा जलाने से पहले राख से चौका पोत दिया हो। उसका रंग गहरा था। कुछ देर बाद हल्की-सी लाली ऐसे दिखाई दी जैसे काले सिल पर जरा-सा लाल केसर मल दिया हो और फिर उसे धो दिया हो या किसी स्लेट पर लाल खड़िया या चाक मल दिया गया हो। आकाश के नीलेपन में सूर्य ऐसे प्रकट हुआ जैसे नीले जल में किसी युवती का गोरा सुंदर शरीर झिलमिलाता हुआ प्रकट हो रहा हो। लेकिन सूर्य के दिखाई देते ही यह सारा प्राकृतिक सौन्दर्य मिट गया।

11. काव्य खंड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) पंथी क्या सोच रहा है और क्यों ?
उत्तर:
पंथी यह सोच रहा है कि कहीं जीवन रूपी पथ में मृत्यु रूपी अंधकार छा गया तो मैं लक्ष्य की प्राप्ति नहीं कर पाऊँगा अतः मुझे अपनी गति बढ़ानी चाहिए। मंज़िल अब ज़्यादा दूर नहीं है।

(ख) दूरदर्शन वाले कैमरे के सामने कमज़ोर को ही क्यों लाते हैं ?
उत्तर:
दूरदर्शन वालों को पता है कि कमज़ोर व अशक्त लोगों के प्रति समाज में करुणा व दया का भाव होता है। लोग दूसरे के दुःख के बारे में जानना चाहते हैं और दूरदर्शन वाले उनकी इसी भावना का फायदा उठाते हुए ऐसे कार्यक्रम बनाते हैं।

(ग) तुलसीदास के समय तत्कालीन समाज कैसा था ?
उत्तर:
तुलसीदास के समय में सामाजिक मान्यताएँ व परम्पराएँ नष्ट हो रही थीं। समाज में धार्मिक अंधविश्वास फैल रहा था जिनमें पूरा समाज फँसता जा रहा था। समाज में नारी की स्थिति शोचनीय थी।

12. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) भक्तिन के स्वभाव की ऐसी दो विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए जिनके कारण उसने लेखिका को अपने अनुसार ढाल लिया।
उत्तर:
(i) भक्तिन देहाती खाना-पीना (मकई, दलिया, मट्ठा, ज्वार के भुने सफ़ेद दानों की खिचड़ी आदि) बनाना जानती थी।
(ii) देहाती खाने की रुचि न होते हुए भी लेखिका को खाना पड़ता था।
(iii) लेखिका को अपने बोलचाल, खान-पान के अनुरूप ढाल लिया लेकिन खुद को लेखिका के अनुसार नहीं ढाल पाई।

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
भक्तिन देहाती खाना-पीना (मकई, दलिया, मट्ठा, ज्वार के भुने सफ़ेद दानों की खिचड़ी आदि) बनाना जानती थी। खाने की रुचि न होते हुए भी लेखिका को भक्तिन के बनाए खाने को खाना पड़ता था। भक्तिन ने कुछ ही दिनों में लेखिका को अपनी बोल-चाल, खान-पान के अनुरूप ढाल लिया लेकिन स्वयं को लेखिका के अनुसार नहीं बना पाई।

(ख) ‘बाज़ारूपन’ से आप क्या समझते हैं? कैसे लोग बाज़ार को सार्थकता प्रदान करते हैं?
उत्तर:
बाज़ारूपन से बाज़ार में कपट भाव बढ़ता है और अपनेपन के अभाव में आपस में उचित व्यवहार में कमी आ जाती है। ग्राहक और विक्रेता के संबंध केवल व्यावसायिक ही रह जाते हैं। एक की हानि में दूसरा अपना लाभ देखने लगता है। वे व्यक्ति ही बाज़ार को सार्थकता दे सकते हैं जो अपनी आवश्यकताओं को ठीक-ठीक समझकर बाज़ार का उपयोग करते हैं। यदि हम बाज़ार की चमक-दमक में फँसकर रह गए तो वह हमें असंतोष, तृष्णा, घृणा एवं ईर्ष्या से घायल कर बेकार बना डालता है।

(ग) जीजी इंदरसेना पर पानी फेंकना पानी की बर्बादी क्यों नहीं मानतीं ? उनके तर्कों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
‘इंदर सेना’ गाँव के बालकों और किशोरों की एक मंडली थी जो लोगों से घर-घर जाकर पानी की माँग करती थी। जीजी ने कहा कि यदि हम इंदर सेना पर पानी नहीं फेंकेंगे तो इन्द्र भगवान हमें पानी कैसे देंगे? यह पानी की बर्बादी नहीं है बल्कि यह तो पानी का अर्घ्य है जिसे हम कुछ पानी की चाह लेकर इंद्र को चढ़ाते हैं। मनुष्य जिस वस्तु को दान में नहीं देगा तो फिर कैसे पाएगा? ऋषि-मुनियों ने दान को सर्वोत्तम बताया है। त्याग-भावना से जो दान दिया जाता है उसी से फल की प्राप्ति होती है। जिस प्रकार किसान तीस-चालीस मन गेहूँ की पैदावार प्राप्त करने के लिए पहले अपने खेत में पाँच-छ: सेर अच्छे गेहूँ की बुवाई करता है। इसी प्रकार हमारे इस कार्य से प्रसन्न होकर इन्द्र देवता काले मेघा लेकर वर्षा करेंगे जिससे गाँव, शहर, खेत-खलिहान खिल उठेंगे।

13. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) लेखक किस कार्य को व्यर्थ मानता है और क्यों ?
उत्तर:
लेखक सूखे के समय मेढक मंडली पर पानी फेंकना व्यर्थ मानता है। वर्षा न होने के कारण पानी की इतनी कमी अधिक कमी है। उसके अनुसार दिन-दिन गहराते पानी के संकट के समय मेढक मंडली पर पानी फेंकना पानी की बर्बादी है। ऐसे अंधविश्वासों से देश का ही नुकसान होता है।

(ख) ‘बाज़ार दर्शन’ में लेखक किसकी महिमा का कायल है?
उत्तर:
‘बाज़ार दर्शन’ में लेखक पत्नी की महिमा का कायल है क्योंकि आदिकाल से फ़िजूलखर्ची में पत्नी की प्रमुखता पति से अधिक प्रमाणित है। पत्नी जब पति के साथ बाज़ार जाती है तो वह अपने पति को कुछ अधिक सामान खरीदने को मजबूर कर देती है।

(ग) जेठ-जिठौतों के मन किस कारण ललचा जाते थे ?
उत्तर:
भक्तिन के हरे-भरे खेत, मोटी-ताज़ी गाय-भैंस और फलों से लदे पेड़ देखकर जेठ-जिठौतों के मन ललचा जाते थे और किसी भी प्रकार उन्हें हड़प लेने को बेचैन रहते थे। वे भक्तिन की सारी संपत्ति पर अपना कब्जा कर लेना चाहते थे।

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 4 with Solutions

Time : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

1. The Question paper is divided into three sections: Section A: Reading 26 marks, Section B: Writing Skills and Grammar 23 marks, Section C: Literature 31 marks.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. Allquestions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section-A
Reading (26 marks)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: (10 marks)
1. The Food Bill is still in the works but has provoked a furious debate on the lack of grain storage facilities, rotting of grains and whether they should be distributed free to the hungry masses. Waking up to the fact that no food security programme can be effective without proper storage, the government is now planning to upgrade existing warehousing facilities and also add new ones. However, between food security and large scale storage, there is a missing link that needs to be taken note of: storage at the farm level. No one can deny the importance of decentralised storage; at least 25-30 percent grains in the country are stored at the farm level.

2. However, it’s not as if there hasn’t been enough thrust on this issue: there are State Institutes to look into the storage problems.

3. Yet, policy-wise we did have a sound start: the Save Grain Campaign, which was initiated 43 years ago, was supposed to do what we are floundering on now. Through this campaign, the centre was to initiate and train states in warehousing and storage of grains. The centre wanted the states to take it up on a large scale but the latter did not want any “added responsibility.” Finding no takers, the campaign was withdrawn in 2008.

4. “Around 15-20 percent food grain loss occurs in large storage godowns. Along with investment in large storage capacities, we must encourage farm-level storage. This can be in the form of refining and improving the local/indigenous storage technologies and providing technical and financial support at that level,” says M.B.Chetti, Dean, College of Agriculture, University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad, Karnataka.

5. He and many experts like him suggest that if we want to leapfrog in storage capacity at the farm-level (since setting up large storages is time-consuming and expensive), new technologies like vacuum packaging could be the answer. They assure quality as well as a chance to store grains almost anywhere and that it can be done in villages by trained persons.

6. “Alternatively, we have to go for cold storage facilities for food grains, which is very costly since it involves electricity supply”, says Chetti. “Instead, vacuum packing,” say experts,” helps preserve grains and seeds for long periods without any deterioration in quality. In fact, an experiment was carried out in the university on the usefulness of the packaging system (using chilli) and the results were satisfactory. The available technology offers a seven-layer packing to preserve quality for long periods of time and once sealed, climatic changes have no effect on it. Elimination of oxygen from the pack helps in extending shelf life.”

7. “At present only three-layer plastic films are manufactured in India. The seven-layered film needs to be imported. But the import duty is high,” says Mohan Bajikar,” of course, such technologies are expensive, but then delivering to the hungry isn’t enough-quality must be ensured.”

8. Food policy analyst Devinder Sharma, however, says “Expensive solutions like Silos and ware housing are not the answer to procurement and storage problems.” Instead, he says, “Local production, local procurement and local distribution” is the answer, something like what Chattisgarh has been doing.

It procures paddy directly from farmers, buying it through cooperative societies and procurement centres at the village level.” To store,” he adds, “the government can add a small godown next to each panchayat ghar.”

9. Whichever way we look at it, decentralised storage cannot be left out of the loop if we want to ensure food security and reduce stock losses.
A. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
Question 1.
The necessity of proper storage has been realized because:
(A) there is lack of grain storage facilities.
(B) grain is lying in the open and rotting.
(C) no food security is possible without it.
(D) masses are hungry and without grain.
Answer:
(C) no food security is possible without it.

Question 2.
Decentralised storage stresses upon:
(A) storage at farm level.
(B) storage at block level.
(C) storage at district level.
(D) storage at state level.
Answer:
(A) storage at farm level.

Question 3.
The ‘Save Grain Campaign’ was withdrawn after 43 years because:
(A) the centre did not spare funds.
(B) proper training in warehousing was lacking.
(C) the states did not show any interest.
(D) the states did not want any added responsibility.
Answer:
(C) the states did not show any interest.

Question 4.
The most cost-effective solution for storage of grain is:
(A) cold storage facilities.
(B) decentralised storage.
(C) setting up large warehouses.
(D) vacuum packaging.
Answer:
(C) setting up large warehouses.

Question 5.
Experts reject silos and warehousing because:
(A) these are very costly solutions.
(B) local storage and distribution is more effective.
(C) these are inadequate for storage.
(D) these fail to reduce stock losses.
Answer:
(A) these are very costly solutions.

Question 6.
The word ‘facilities’ in para 6 means:
(A) aptitude
(B) dexterity
(C) conveniences
(D) buildings for a particular purpose.
Answer:
(C) conveniences

Question 7.
What should we do if we want to leapfrog in storage capacity at farm-level?
(A) Set up large storages with state funds
(B) Use new technologies like vaccum packaging
(C) Involve state governments in the storage systems
(D) Use cold storage facility
Answer:
(B) Use new technologies like vaccum packaging

Question 8.
Find the words from the passage which are similar in meaning:
(i) improve (Para 1)
(ii) native (Para 4)
Answer:
(i) upgrade
(ii) indigenous

Question 9.
What is the alternate to large storage godowns?
(A) Small storage godowns
(B) Cold storage facilities
(C) Farm-level storage
(D) Seven-layer packing
Answer:
(C) Farm-level storage

Question 10.
What are the advantages of vacuum packing?
(A) It helps preserve grains and seeds for long periods.
(B) It can be done in villages by trained persons.
(C) It can be done without any technical and financial support.
(D) It eliminates oxygen and bacteria.
Answer:
(A) It helps preserve grains and seeds for long periods.

Question 2.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. (1 x 8 = 8)
1. Life on our planet earth began with the sea; it is the birth place of life on the earth. The earth is the only planet of the solar system so far known which contains plenty of water and this water has made our earth colourful, pulsating with life of a vast variety.

2. At present sea occupies about 70 percent of the earth’s surface. In the southern hemisphere it occupies more area than that in the northern. About 97 per cent of the total water on the surface of the earth is found in the seas and the remaining three per cent, which is generally fresh, in lakes, rivers, ponds, etc.

3. Sea has given food and shelter to countless creatures. It is a potential source of protein. In 1900 the world population was only 150 crore (1500 million), now it is more than 560 crore and it is increasing at a very fast rate. As a result there is a terrible hunger in many parts of the world. In Africa, Asia and South America, millions of people do not get enough to eat. Many die of malnutrition. Sea, if used scientifically and judiciously, can meet most of our demands.

4. Plankton or algae mostly constitutes the plant life. Some are tiny microbes which cannot be seen by the naked eye but they are found in abundance in the sea.

5. These marine plankton form the basis of entire sea life. Like plant plankton there are also animal plankton, the smallest living creatures of the sea. These animal plankton feed on plant plankton and small fish. Thus, there is an unbroken chain of life in the sea. Arctic and Antarctic seas abound in plankton and algae and so in fish also. Blue whales, the largest living creatures of the world, are also found here in great number.

6. Some countries have developed sea farming to a great extent. The Japanese and Hawaiians relish eating sea plants but it is not in other countries though some use them to feed their cattle or as manure in their fields. The fact is that sea plants contain rich nutrients not found in other vegetarian food. It is good that even in our country some scientists have developed some recipes for curries, jams etc. to be made from algae.

7. But we must remember one thing that sea, is not to be exploited indiscriminately. For example, man in his greed has hunted whales and some other sea creatures so recklessly that some of their species have either become extinct or are on the verge of extinction. Now nations or the world have realized their folly and have taken some joint decisions.

For example, one such decisions is that the size of the holes in fishing nets should be big enough to let baby fish escape through. Otherwise, killing of large quantities of very young fish would have an adverse effect on the fish population. In the same way, another decision is for the protection of blue whales.

Answer the following questions choosing the appropriate option.
Question 1.
Freshwater refers to the water of _______.
(A) Sea
(B) Lakes, rivers, ponds etc.
(C) Rainwater
(D) Processed water
Answer:
(B) Lakes, rivers, ponds etc.
Explanation: About 97 per cent of the total water on the surface of the earth is found in the seas and the remaining three per cent, which is generally fresh, in lakes, rivers, ponds, etc.

Question 2.
There is a terrible hunger in many parts of the world due to:
(A) Overpopulation
(B) High pollution level
(C) Global warming
(D) Industrialisation
Answer:
(A) Overpopulation
Explanation: In 1900 the world population was only 150 crore (1500 million), now it is more than 560 crore and it is increasing at a very fast rate. As a result there is a terrible hunger in many parts of the world.

Question 3.
Blue whale, the largest living creatures of the world, are found in great number in:
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Mediterranean Sea
(D) Arctic and Antarctic Sea
Answer:
(D) Arctic and Antarctic Sea
Explanation: Arctic and Antarctic seas abound in plankton and algae and so in fish also. Blue whales, the largest Iiving creatures of the world, are also found here in great number.

Question 4.
The countries which have developed sea farming to a great extent are:
(A) Japan and Hawaii
(B) China and India
(C) Malaysia and Singapore
(D) Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
Answer:
(A) Japan and Hawaii
Explanation: Some countries have developed sea farming to a great extent. The Japanese and Hawaiians relish eating sea plants but it is not in other countries though some use them to feed their cattle or as manure in their fields.

Question 5.
The size of the holes in fishing nets should be big enough to let
(A) Big fish stay in
(B) Water flow out
(C) Baby fish escape through
(D) More fish enter
Answer:
(C) Baby fish escape through
Explanation: The size of the holes in fishing nets should be big enough to let baby fish escape through.

Question 6.
Sea plants contain rich nutrients not found in _______.
(A) Other plants
(B) Other vegetarian food
(C) Non vegetarian food
(D) Milk and milk products
Answer:
(B) Other vegetarian food
Explanation: The fact is that sea plants contain rich nutrients not found in other vegetarian food.

Question 7.
Find a word from the passage which means the same as ‘wisely’. (Para 3)
(A) judiciously
(B) scientifically
(C) countless
(D) terrible
Answer:
(A) judiciously

Question 8.
Find a word from the passage which means the same as ‘unfavourable’. (Para 7)
(A) indiscriminately
(B) adverse
(C) exploited
(D) recklessly
Answer:
(B) adverse

Commonly Made Errors:

• While answering questions related to Unseen Passages/Comprehensions, most students do not read the passages properly. Reading the passages properly is very essential.
• Students need to keep in mind that the answers should be brief, relevant and be in their own words, while following the words in the passages carefully.
• While answering, the students should verify the spellings of the difficult words from the passages themselves, if they are not sure of them in the first place.
• Before answering multiple-choice questions, students should read the questions thoroughly and then the given options. Some options can be tricky and need careful attention.
• Lastly, before moving on to the next question and just before the final submission of the answer-script, revise the answers carefully. This will help you to find out and eliminate any errors that you have overlooked earlier.

Answering Tips:

• The passages should be read silently and with full concentration.
• Grasping the context of the passages is important.
• New or difficult words should be deciphered in the context of their use in the passages.
• Answers should be in complete sentences.
• All answers should be written sequentially.
• If a student cannot answer a question, or a part of a question, then it is unwise to continue spending time on it. It is advisable to leave the question for the time being, answer the rest of the questions and then go back to the unanswered question.
• While answering an unseen passage or comprehension, you might be aware of the source as you might have read it earlier. In that case, please do not get carried away in writing things beyond the scope of the passage. That will not fetch you extra marks. Please stick to the passage!

Question 3.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (8)
1. The mynah perhaps needs to make some apology for his yellow stockings, since such mustard-coloured understandings are not usual among small birds, pertaining rather to the rapacious tribe, and being thus a badge of anything but respectability. But the mynah at ones for his yellow legs, feet and face, by the exceedingly decorous plumage which covers the rest of him; no objection can be to his black hood, or the sober chocolate of his body colour, or to the plain black, diversified with white, of his quills and tail.

2. Nevertheless as a starling our present subject is a rather big and showy bird, being certainly equal in looks to any of his relatives in Calcutta, none of which bear the shot silk sheen of green and purple which adorns the home starling, also a visitor to India, for this starling or mynahs are in great force in the East, which is their true home, and the common mynahs is a good type of the clan.

3. Bold, vigorous and pushing, he secures to himself a large share of all the good things in the way of insects and fruit that may be going, and is a bird of remarkably all round abilities, though not particularly graceful in his movements. On the ground he runs and walks well, hopping when he wants to put an extra spurt, albeit there is a swing in his gait which is not particularly elegant. No doubt, however, he is proud of this, as it is a family character; geese, which do not suffer from excessive modesty, have a similar style of going, are known to bare doubtable pedestrians in their quiet way.

4. Mynah, unlike other ground birds, is nimble and active in a tree as well; and his flight, though not remarkably fast, is tolerant enough for ease and he feels sufficient confidence in it to occasionally attempt a little insect- catching on the wing, when his quarry has got away from him on foot. When he flies, he tucks up his long yellow shanks to his breast, showing conclusively that birds which stow their legs this way when on the wing do so by custom, not for convenience, for from their size one would think that he would do better to stow them astern like the paddy bird and other waders.
(a) On the basis of your reading the passage, make notes using recognisable abbreviations wherever necessary. Use a format you consider suitable, supply a suitable title. (5 marks)
Answer:
1. Description of mynah :

• sober choc. body colour
• yellow legs, feet & face
• black hood
• black & white quills & tail
• bold and vigrus.

2. Feeds on :

• insects
• fruit

3. Movements :

• not graceful
• runs & walks well on ground.
• hops to put extra spurt
• swing in gait

4. Flight of mynah :

• remrkbly fast
• confident
• tucks yellow shanks to breast
• a custom
• not for convenience

Key to Abbreviations
S. No.	Abbreviation	Word
1	choc	choc
2	vigrus	vigrus
3	remrkbly	remrkbly
4	&	And

(b) Make a short summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 marks)
Answer:
Summary
The mynah is a bold and vigorous bird. The body colour of quills mynah is sober chocolate with yellow legs, feet and face. He has a black hood and black, diversified with white, quails and tails. A mynah feeds on insects and fruits. His movements are not graceful. He can run and walk well on ground. He has a swing in his gait and sometimes hops to put an extra spurt. The flight of a mynah is not remarkably faster though he seems full of confidence. He tucks his yellow shanks to breast when flying. It is done by custom and not for convenience.

Commonly Made Errors:

• The most commonly made mistakes include not reading the passage thoroughly and not paying attention to details. This leads to unclear understanding of the context.
• The next big mistake is not noting the ‘key-words’ in the passage. Identification of key-words is important to decide the main thrust of the passage and bring out the summary.
• While substituting words for phrases and clauses, the appropriate form of the word should be used. For example, if the substitution requires the adjectival form of a word, then using the noun or the verb form can be fatal.
• Punctuations are very important in summarisation or precis writing. They should be used prudently. w Spellings and grammar should be checked for during the note-making stage so that no corrections need be implemented during the summary or precis writing.
• While providing a Title for the summary/precis, students should relate it to the context of the passage. Too much emphasis on making it catchy might lead to making the blunder of it being not related to the context.

Answering Tips:

• While answering questions related to Note-making and Summary (Precis Writing), it is important to read the passages properly and grasp their meanings. If need be, the passage should be read and re-read a number of times to ensure that every part of it is clear to the student.
• Next, it is important to underline the important points in the passage. With practice, this can be done at the same time as the passage is being read.
• The underlined portions should be summed up as separate bulleted points.
• Thereafter, the students should read the bulleted points so that they are sure that those points are adequate in providing the gist of the passage. There should not be any ambiguity or lack of clarity in meaning anywhere.
• While summarizing the bullets, one should be mindful to shorten the sentences as much as possible by substituting clauses and phrases with words conveying similar meanings.
• Beginners are also advised to calculate the average number of words written by them in each line and then to calculate the number of lines required to write the precis or summary based on the average words per line.
• The average word-limit per sentence should be between five to ten words.
• Students are advised to draw columns with pencil such that the total number of cells in the table so formed exactly match the maximum permissible words in the summary. Then they should write one per cell to achieve the maximum word limit.
• Lastly, students should ensure correctness of spellings, contextual use of substituting words and grammatical correctness.

Section – B
Writing Skills (23 marks)

Question 4.
Indian Institute of Foreign Language is going to start a course in various foreign languages. Draft an advertisement for the classified columns of a newspaper giving details of the same (word limit 50 words) (3 marks)
OR
You want to launch a tuition centre for classes from class X to XU. Draft a classified advertisement with all relevant details.
Answer:
INDIAN INSTITUTE OF FOREIGN LANGUAGE
IIFL announces the commencement of its courses in Japanese, French and German. Duration – 3 months. Eligibility – Senior Secondary. Excellent faculty. Computerised training. Incentives for early birds. Send in your applications by 1st June, 20xx or contact Secretary #9350556655

Answering Tips:

• Spellings and grammar errors lead to communication of incorrect messages.
• While trying to make the title catchy, students end up stitching together words used in the wrong context and thereby making up a meaningless title.
• Also, spellings are tweaked sometimes to emphasise upon an idea or to attract the attention of the reader. However, often students fail to achieve the desired effect and end up simply making a spelling mistake!

OR
TUITION CENTRE
Excellent coaching available for English, Science and Maths for students of class X to XII, digital class facility, experienced faculty, problem-solving sessions, regular tests, affordable fees. For more details contact SD classes 969xxxxxx

Question 5.
Draft a poster for the abolition of Child Labour. Invent necessary details in 50 words. (3 marks)
OR
Design a poster on ‘SAVE THE EARTH’ on behalf of the Pollution Control Board, Rajasthan State.
Answer:

Question 6.
Private cars should be banned in the congested commercial areas of the cities.” Write a debate in 150-200 words either for or against the motion. (5 marks)
OR
‘The policy of reservation of seats for admission to the professional courses is good for the deprived sections of society.’ Write a debate in 150-200 words either for or against the motion.
Answer:
Private cars should be banned in the congested commercial areas of the cities:
Respected judges and teachers, Today, I stand before you to present my views for the motion on the topic ‘Private cars should be banned in the congested commercial areas of the cities’.

There is no end to the number of vehicles being driven around the city each day. Traffic jams have become a rather common problem and have only increased in the last ten years. In my opinion, allowing private cars in congested commercial areas only adds to the problem.

Long traffic jams do not only mean consumption of extra fuel but also more number of people suffering from respiratory diseases due to pollution. I strongly feel if people take public transport to work or hire a cab or car-pool and drive vehicles which run on CNG, the problem of constantly rising pollution and heavy traffic jams can be reduced drastically.

The Earth belongs to all of us and it is our duty to safeguard it and keep it clean for our future generations. Thus, the first step towards protecting our environment would be to stop abusing the available amount of petroleum and avoid creating pollution.
Thank you for listening to my views patiently.
OR
Policy of Reservation in Professional Courses:
Respected Chairperson, honourable judges and all present, I stand before you to express my views against the motion that the policy of reservation of seats for admission to the professional courses is good for the deprived sections of society.

India is a country with dimensions and diversities. Accordingly, the Indian Constitution has adopted an egalitarian, secular and casteless society where injustice done to any class shall not be tolerated. But the report of the Mandal Commission reveals that millions of actual weaker sections of the society are still suffering from atrocities and caste-based inequalities. So, it is evident that some special privileges of reservation have proved to be a boon for some and bane for others. Even then the ‘reserved’ sections grumble that they have been made to suffer.

Here, I want to ask whether reservation is fair to those of the general categories. In fact, it is a bane for those meritorious students. On the contrary, the so-called downtrodden or deprived sections enjoy the privilege. The non- deserving candidates are admitted into technical and professional colleges, but the deserving candidates are unable to get admission because they belong to the ‘higher classes’ of society.

In my opinion, it would be more suitable to provide opportunities for all the needy or deserving candidates without any discrimination and without the reservation of seats based on caste, creed, clan or colour. In fact, this reservation system creates division and fragmentation among the castes. It is nothing but a consolidation of vote banks by the politicians at the expense of deserving candidates. Hope that you have all been convinced by my arguments.
Thank you

Question 7.
Human activities are leading to serious environmental changes globally. It is going to cause much trouble for the future generation, write a speech to be delivered in the morning assembly. Do not exceed the word limit of 120-150 words. (5 marks)
Answer:
Influence of Human Activity on the Environment
Respected Principal, teachers and my fellow students, good morning to all. Today, I, ABC of class XI, am going to present my views on the topic, Influence of Human Activity on the Environment.

Improvements in agriculture, health and medicine have produced a dramatic rise in the human population. This increase in population size leads to an increase in pollution and higher demand for the world’s resources. Humans are using up the earth’s resources, including fossil fuels. Burning fossil fuels in cars and power stations produces carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and other greenhouse gases. Carbon dioxide traps heat in the atmosphere and causes the temperature of the earth to rise.

This leads to disruption of the weather patterns and natural calamities such as drought and floods occur. Some weeds may thrive on the extra carbon dioxide while other plants are killed. Sulphur dioxide dissolves in rain producing Acid Rain. Acid rain damages trees and pollutes rivers and lakes. In many countries people are chopping down forests to provide timber to create space for agriculture for the growing population. This deforestation causes several problems such as the greenhouse effect, soil erosion and extinction of species.

To grow more crops, too much fertiliser is added and when it then rains, the fertiliser finds its way into rivers and lakes. This causes the water plants to grow and as there is competition for light, some will die. Use of pesticides also causes pollution. Pesticides kill insects that will damage crops.

They also kill harmless insects or can get washed into rivers and pollute the water. They may even end up in the food chain. Thus, human activities have caused a lot of damage to our environment and it is high time to adopt organic farming, grow trees and use alternative energy sources.
Thank you

Question 8.
Fill in the blanks with the correct options given below. (1 x 4 = 4)
Growth gets retarded if the environment in which we live (i) ……………. polluted The pollution (ii) ……………. us today. We (iii) ……………. the environment that (iv) ……………. us. Slowly we are gliding towards an unhealthy environment.
(i) (a) is (b) being (c) was (d) was being
(ii) (a) threatens (b) threatened (c) is threatening (d) was threatened
(iii) (a) pollute (b) polluted (c) is polluting (d) was polluted
(iv) (a) sustain (b) sustains (c) sustained (d) is sustaining
Answer:
(i) (a) is
(ii) (c) is threatening
(iii) (a) pollute
(iv) (b) sustains

Question 9.
Rearrange the following words or phrases to make Meaningful sentences: (1 x 3 = 3)
(a) a/lover/is/animal/passionate/he
Answer:
He is a passionate animal lover.

(b) campaigned / birds / he / caged / free / to
Answer:
He campaigned to free caged birds.

(c) the class / at once / ordered / you / are / to leave
Answer:
You are ordered to leave the class at once.

Section – C
Literature (31 marks)

Question 10.
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: (1 x 3 = 3)
Then with the eerie delicate whistle-chirrup whisperings
She launches away, towards the infinite
(a) Identify the sound words in die poem.
(i) Whistle
(ii) Chirrup
(iii) Whisperings
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

(b) What does ‘infinite’ refer to?
(i) Space
(ii) Sky
(iii) Tree leaves
(iv) Water
Answer:
(ii) Sky

(c) Who launches away?
Answer:
She is a goldfinch.
OR
I would have Him prodigal,
returning to His father’s house, the home he knew,
Rather than see him make and move
(a) Why does father see his son as prodigal?
(i) Because the son is arrogant
(ii) Because the son lives somewhere else
(iii) Because the son does not consult his father
(iv) Because the son is extravagant
Answer:
(iv) Because the son is extravagant

(b) What would poet like in the end?
(i) To see his son doing what he likes
(ii) To see his son reconciling with him
(iii) To see his son coming back to his house
(iv) To get all his money back from his son
Answer:
(iii) To see his son coming back to his house

(c) Identify the poem and the poet.
Answer:
Father to Son by Elizbeth Jennings

Commonly Made Errors:

• The most commonly made errors pertain to grammar and spellings
• The second most commonly made errors pertain to the wrong perception and expression of the poetic devices. One must first explain what a poetic device is, such as simile, metaphor, allusion and so on, and then explain their usage in the context of the poem.

Answering Tips:

• Read the poem thoroughly-more than once, if necessary-to grasp the gist of each stanza
• Do not rely on paraphrases
• Note the use of words and expressions
• Find out the context of the poem
• Try to understand meanings of words in context. Remember, poetic meaning of a word may be different from the actual meaning. Also, sometimes certain words may undergo such poetic modifications for the sake of rhythm, which is not generally seen in prose.

Question 11.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. (1 x 3 = 3)
A. We protested. But she ignored our protests. She lay peacefully in bed praying and telling her beads. Even before we could suspect, her lips stopped moving and the rosary fell from her lifeless fingers.
Question 1.
Who is ‘we’ here?
(A) Author and his wife
(B) Author and his family
(C) Author and his friends
(D) The village people
Answer:
(B) Author and his family

Question 2.
What had happened to her?
(A) Lost consciousness
(B) Went into delirium
(C) Died
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Died

Question 3.
What does ‘telling her beads’ mean?
(A) Chanting hymns
(B) Talking to beads
(C) Distributing beads
(D) Arranging beads as in a necklace
Answer:
(A) Chanting hymns
OR
B. By late afternoon we had reached the small town of Hor, back on the main east-west highway that followed the old trade route from Lhasa to Kashmir. Daniel, who was returning to Lhasa, found a ride in a truck so Tsetan and I bade him farewell outside a tyre-repair shop.
Question 1.
How many tyre punctures had they suffered?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Five
Answer:
(B) Two

Question 2.
Where was Daniel headed to/towards?
(A) Lhasa
(B) Kashmir
(C) Lake Mansarovar
(D) Salt Lake
Answer:
(A) Lhasa

Question 3.
What type of place was Hor?
(A) Happy and decorated
(B) Rich and plentiful
(C) Grim and miserable
(D) Not mentioned in the story
Answer:
(C) Grim and miserable

Question 12.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. (1 x 4 = 4)
A. That afternoon my uncle Khosrove came to our house for coffee and cigarettes. He sat in the parlour, sipping and smoking and remembering the old country. Then another visitor arrived.
Question 1.
What was the name of the other visitor?
(A) Mourad
(B) Aram
(C) JohnByro
(D) Zorab
Answer:
(C) JohnByro

Question 2.
What was the mood of the other visitor?
(A) Happy
(B) Halt
(C) Unpleasant
(D) Passed
Answer:
(B) Halt

Question 3.
What was the other visitor thinking about?
(A) His surrey
(B) To postpone everything
(C) His legs
(D) To build the arch again
Answer:
(D) To build the arch again

Question 4.
What was the visitor’s profession?
(A) Horseman
(B) Elizabeth Jennings
(C) Sailor
(D) Shirley Toulson
Answer:
(D) Shirley Toulson

OR
B. The chief of builders was led out
He passed the King.
He gave a shout.
‘O King, it was the workmen’s fault’
‘Oh!’ said the King and called halt.
Question 1.
The chief of builders was summoned because
(A) he was to be punished
(B) he was responsible for the king losing his crown under the arch
(C) he had broken the crown
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) & (B)

Question 2.
Which word in these lines has the same meaning as ‘stop’?
(A) Fault
(B) Halt
(C) Led out
(D) Passed
Answer:
(B) Halt

Question 3.
Later, what suggestion did the wisest man give to the king?
(A) Not to punish anyone
(B) To postpone everything
(C) To hang the arch
(D) To build the arch again
Answer:
(C) To hang the arch

Question 4.
These lines have been written by _______.
(A) Markus Natten
(B) Elizabeth Jennings
(C) VikramSeth
(D) Shirley Toulson
Answer:
(C) VikramSeth

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in 40-50 words each.
(a) Explain ‘Terribly transient feet’.
OR
Why is rain compared to music?
(b) What do you think made Rajendra realize that facts can be stranger than fantasies?
OR
Why is January 5,2005 significant in Tutankhamun’s Saga?
(c) How was the narrator convinced that she had made no mistake and had reached the right address?
OR
How did the workmen escape being hanged?
Answer:
(a) The sea has not changed much with the passage of time. It is in sharp contrast to short, transient and temporary life and existence of human beings.
OR
The poet compares the rain with music. The poet watches the falling showers of the rain. The showers are falling very lightly producing a soft music. Like music, rain too is life giving and inspirational. It spreads love and joy.

(b) Professor Gaitonde presented two totally different written accounts of the Battle of Panipat as contained in Bhau-Sahebanchi Bakhar. The one he had come across in the other world described how Vishwas Rao narrowly missed the bullet. The account which he had in the familiar world described that Vishwas Rao was hit by the bullet.
OR
On this date for the first time, Tutankhamun was removed from his tomb and taken to CT scanner brought there to probe the lingering mysteries surrounding the young ruler.

(c) When the woman who opened the door gave no sign of recognition, the narrator thought she was perhaps mistaken and had rung the wrong bell. When she saw the woman wearing her mother’s green knitted cardigan, she was convinced that she had made no mistake and reached the right address.
OR
When the chief of builders blamed the workmen for the incident, the King stopped the proceedings of hanging for a while. Then he decided to have all the workmen hanged. The workmen argued that the size of the bricks was wrong. The King decided to hang the masons instead. Thus, the workmen escaped being hanged.

Question 14.
Answer any one of the following questions in about 120-150 words : (6 marks)
Describe how the common bond of friendship was broken when the narrator’s parents called them in the city.
OR
What impression do you form of the author, Nick Middleton, on the basis of reading ‘Silk Road?’
Answer:
The narrator and his grandmother had developed a unique relationship in the village. He was completely dependent on her. But soon, a turning point came in their relationship. His parents called them to the city. He went to an English school by bus. The grandmother’s role was now marginalized. She couldn’t accompany him to school as she did in the village.

Nor could she help him in his studies. She had no knowledge of English and Science. She hated music. She was very sad that they gave lessons in music at the school. She rarely talked to him after that. The narrator went to university. It separated them. They now saw less of each other. In the end, she accepted her loneliness quietly. She didn’t show any emotion when he left for abroad. So, she accepted this separation without any complaints or regrets.
OR
The author is bald headed gentleman who knows English. He was keen on performing Kailash Kora. He undertook the hazardous journey to Mount Kailash for this purpose, he hired Tsetan’s car and took Daniel as companion for escorting him upto Darchen. He seems to be a lover of adventure one who is not at all afraid of taking risks. This is evident from his assent to take a short-cut through high mountain passes involving the risk of slipping on snowy roads.

He is a keen observer of men and manners. He has a sharp eye for details. He describes the hilly people quite sensitively. He gives a graphic account of difficulties faced during ascent. His headache and loss of sleep was caused by cold and high altitude. His observations about lake Manasarovar and Hor reveal the difference between legend and reality. He dislikes dirt and shabbiness.

He faces communication problem after Tsetan leaves and before he meets Norbu. However, he waits and takes correct decisions. He approves of Norbu’s practical suggestion to hire yaks to carry luggage. In short, he is a sensitive and likeable fellow.

Question 15.
Answer the question in about 120-150 words: (6 marks)
What impression do you form of cousin Mourad in the story “The Summer of the Beautiful white Horse”?
OR
What did the narrator learn about Mrs. Dorling from her mother?

Answer:
Mourad was a young boy of thirteen. He belonged to the Garoghlanian family of Armenia. Their whole tribe was poverty-stricken. In spite of abject poverty, their family was famous for honesty. Mourad was quite adventurous and had a crazy streak in him. He enjoyed being alive more than anybody else. Mourad loved horse riding. He had a way with a horse.

He had tamed the horse by his affectionate behaviour and the horse was no longer wild. It obeyed Mourad faithfully. His love for the horse was evident in the last scene. While parting, he put his arms around the horse and patted it. He also had a way with dogs. The dogs of John Byro followed him around without making a sound. He was kind too. He treated a young robin which had hurt its wing. He was proud of his family for honesty.
OR
The war was going on. The narrator visited home for a few days. She immediately noticed that something about the rooms had changed. Various things were missing. She looked at her mother questioningly. Then her mother told her about Mrs. Dorling. The narrator had never heard of that woman. Obviously, she was an old acquaintance of her mother, whom she had not seen for years. Since then, she had been coming to their house regularly.

Every time she left the place she took something with her. She took all the table silver cutlery set, then the antique plates and several other precious things. She herself explained that she wanted to save all their nice things because they would lose everything in case they had to leave the house. The narrator’s mother never doubted her intention. She rather felt obliged to Mrs. Dorling for taking all the trouble while carrying their things.

Commonly Made Errors:

• The most commonly made errors pertain to grammar and spellings
• The second most commonly made errors pertain to the wrong interpretation of the plot-structure and the character sketches.
• Mixing up the names of the different places, i.e., mentioning the wrong place in the context of the wrong event.

Answering Tips:

• Read the story thoroughly-more than once, if necessary-to grasp the gist
• Do not rely on paraphrases
• Note the character traits of both the major and the minor characters
• Find out the context of the story. This will help to understand the sub-themes
• Focus on the narrative style of the story.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

All questions are compulsory except where internal choice has been given.

1. Question Nos 1 -18 in Section A carry 1 mark each.
2. Question Nos 19-23 in Section B are Very Short Answer Type – I questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
3. Question Nos 24-27 in Section C are Short Answer Questions Type – II carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
4. Question Nos 28 – 31 in Section D are Long Answer Type – I questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
5. Question No. 32 in Section E is a Long Answer Type – II question carrying 6 marks. Answer to this question should not exceed 200 words
6. Question Nos 33- 36 in Section F is based on two cases given. Each case has two questions carrying two marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.

Section – A(18 Marks)

Question 1.
In what range does IQ score lie? [1]
(a) 70-130
(b) 90-110
(c) 90-130
(d) 70-100
Answer:
(b) 90-110

Explanation: The Majority of IQ scores lie between 90-110 and only a small percentage lie below 70 or above 130.

Question 2.
Who developed the Cognitive Assessment Battery? [1]
(a) Das and Naglieri
(b) Alfred Binet
(c) Kirby and Das
(d) Kirby and Naglieri
Answer:
(a) Das and Naglieri

Explanation: They both developed the CAS and also the PASS model with Kirby. 31

Question 3.
Who gave the concept of intelligent Quotient? [1]
(a) Theodore Simon
(b) Alfred Binet
(c) William Stem
(d) Charles Spearman
Answer:
(c) William Stern

Explanation: In 1912, William Stem, a German psychologist, devised the concept of the Intelligence Quotient (IQ). IQ refers to mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100.

Question 4.
What techniques did Sigmund Freud use in his therapy? [1]
(a) free association
(b) dream analysis
(c) hypnosis
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Explanation: Freud used all of these techniques in his therapy.

Question 5.
Rahul enjoys studying physics and is good at playing the guitar. Identify the psychological attributes being highlighted in the statement. [1]
(a) Intelligence, Aptitude
(b) Aptitude, Interest
(c) interest, Aptitude
(d) Values, Aptitude
Answer:
(c) Interest, Aptitude

Explanation: Enjoyment in a task reflects one’s preference or interest, whereas, being good at a task reflects inherent potential or aptitude.

Question 6.
Which psychologist stated that it is not necessary for people with high IQ to be creative? [1]
(a) Savoy
(b) C.H Rice
(c) Hermann
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Hermann

Explanation: Hermann stated that it is not necessary that high-IQ people are intelligent and vice versa.

Question 7.
Which of the following disorders is characterized by severe and widespread impairments in social interactions and communications skills and stereo-typed pattern behaviors, interests, and activities: [1]
(a) ODD
(b) Conduct disorder
(c) ADHD
(d) Pervasive Developmental disorders
Answer:
(d) Pervasive Developmental Disorders

Explanation: All of them are neurodevelopmental disorders identified during the developmental years. However, ODD is characterized by defiant behavior, Conduct disorder by maladaptive conduct, and ADHD by hyperactivity and deficits in attention.

Question 8.
According to Charles Spearman, excellent singers like Michael Jackson or Lata Mangeshkar are blessed with the: [1]
(a) S factor
(b) G factor
(c) Musical intelligence
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) ‘S’ factor

Explanation: Spearman proposed 2 factors of intelligence- ‘g’ referred to as a general factor and ‘s’ as a specific factor. People who are high on a specific ability like musical intelligence are high on ‘s’ or specific factors in that particular domain according to Charles Spearman.

Question 9.
Mothers often convince their children to drink milk by telling them that miLk enhances overall growth and makes them strong. By telling this mothers are trying to activate served by the message to bring about an attitude change. [1]
(a) motives
(c) persuasion
(b) behavior
(d) intention
Answer:
(a) Motives

Explanation: In the process of attitude change, the characteristics of the message
that determine change are emotional appeal, rational appeal, and motives. Since an individual’s behavior is goal or need-driven, it is activated by inherent needs or motives.

Question 10.
The person who forms the impression is called the_______ The individual about whom the impression is formed is called the_______ [1]
(a) target, perceiver
(b) impression, perceiver
(c) perceiver, target
(d) perceiver, attribution
Answer:
(c) perceiver, target

Explanation: The perceiver gathers information, or responds to the given information, about the qualities of the target organizes this information, and draws inferences about the target

Question 11.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice.
Assertion (A): Groupthink is a result of cohesiveness. Members of highly cohesive groups have a greater desire to remain in the group in
comparison to those who belong to low cohesive groups. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Explanation: High degree of closeness, binding, and mutual attraction among the group members leads to feeling more confident about
an extreme position about an issue hence leading to Groupthink.

Question 12.
The three C’s of Hardiness are: [1]
(a) Commitment, creativity, and challenge
(b) Commitment, challenge, and control
(c) Control, challenge, and creativity
(d) Control, commitment, and creativity
Answer:
(b) Commitment, challenge, and control

Explanation: Kobasa defined the 3 C’s of hardiness are commitment control and challenge.

Question 13.
Due to_______of people performance_______ . [1]
(a) absence, increase
(b) presence, decreases
(c) presence, increases
(d) absence, decreases
Answer:
(c) presence, increases

Explanation: This phenomenon is known as Social Facilitation.

Question 14.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice.
Assertion (A): A person develops maladaptive behavior due to a discrepancy between the ideal and real self.
Reason (R): According to the humanistic approach, people want to have a sense of ideal and real self and they should be congruent. When they are not, it results in abnormal behavior. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Explanation: According to Behavioristapproach, behavior is best understood in context with the environment as people change their behavior according to the needs of the environment.

Question 15.
What are the 3 trigonous mentioned? [1]
(a) Vata, kapha, pittah
(b) Vata, kapha, sattva
(c) Sattva, rajas, kapha
(d) Sattva, Rajas , tamas
Answer:
(d) Sattva. Rajas and tamas

Explanation: Trigunas (Sattva, Rajas, Tamas): 3 Gunas to Know Your Personality. Ayurvedic philosophy provides an idea of the creation of the universe, from which the concept of Trigun’s (Tri-3 and Gunas-Qualities) of Nature is evolved.

Question 16.
Which kind of personality is cooperative, or unassertive? [1]
(a) Type A
(b) Type B
(c) Type C
(d) Type D
Answer:
(c) Type C

Explanation: Morris has suggested a Type-C personality, which is prone to cancer. Individuals characterized by this personality are the cooperative, unassertive, and patient They suppress their negative emotions (e.g., anger), and show compliance to authority.

Question 17.
What does the collective unconscious consist of? [1]
(a) Memories of the past
(b) Archetypes
(c) Dreams
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Archetypes

Question 18.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice.
Assertion (A): Stress inoculation is a cognitive behavioral technique Reason (R): It helps replace negative thoughts with rational ones and focuses on both cognition and behavior. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Section – B (10 Marks)

Question 19.
Explain how stress affects the immune system. [2]
Answer:
Stress can cause illness by impairing the workings of the immune system. The immune system guards the body against attackers, both from within and outside. Psychoneuroimmunology focuses on the links between the mind, the brain and the immune system. It studies the effects of Reduced levels of natural killer cell cytotoxicity have been found in people who are highly stressed. stress on the immune system. The white blood cells (leucocytes) within the immune (antigens) such as viruses. It also leads to the production of antibodies. Stress can affect natural killer cell cytotoxicity, which is of major importance in the defense against various infections and cancer.

Question 20.
With the help of examples, explain the impact of social support on an individual’s ability to handle stress.
OR
Explain how stress affects our behavior. [1]
Answer:
Stress can be reduced with the help of social support in the following ways:
Tangible support or assistance involving material aid, such as money, goods, services, etc. For example, a sick patient has access to good medical and healthcare facilities. Informational support: Family and friends also provide informational support about stressful events. For example, a student faces a stressful event such as a difficult examination, may benefit from easy notes to study from. Emotional support Supportive friends and family provide emotional support by reassuring the individual that she/he is loved, valued, and cared for.

OR

Stress affects our behavior in the form of eating less nutritional food, increasing intake of stimulants such as caffeine, excessive consumption of cigarettes, alcohol and other drugs such as tranquilizers etc. Tranquillizers can be addictive and have side effects such
as loss of concentration, poor coordination, and dizziness. Some of the typical behavioral effects of stress seen are disrupted sleep patterns, increased absenteeism, and reduced work performance.

Question 21.
Differentiate between delusions and hallucinations. [2]
Answer:
Delusions refer to a false belief that is firmly held on inadequate grounds. They are 4 types- delusions of persecution (belief of being plotted against or spied on), delusions of reference (attaching personal meaning to the actions), delusions of grandeur (belief of being specially empowered), and delusions of control (belief of thoughts, feelings, and actions as controlled by others). Hallucinations refer to perceptions that occur in absence of external stimuli. They are of several types-auditory (voices that speak directly to them), tactile (tingling, burning sensations), somatic (crawling feeling inside the stomach), visual (seeing people/things not actually there), gustatory (strange tastes) and olfactory (smell of poison or smoke).

Related Theory:
Delusions and Hallucinations are known as the Positive symptoms of Schizophrenia. There are two more categories of symptoms of Schizophrenia i.e. Negative symptoms and Psychomotor Symptoms.

Question 22.
With the help of an example state the sources of prejudice. [2]
Answer:
Prejudices are examples of attitudes towards a particular group. They are usually negative, and in many cases, may be based on stereotypes (the cognitive component) about the specific group. The cognitive component of prejudice is frequently accompanied by the affective component i.e. dislike and hatred. Prejudice may also get translated into discrimination. For example, the genocide committed by the Nazis in Germany against Jewish people lead to hatred and discrimination. The following are the sources of prejudice:

Learning: Like other attitudes, prejudices can also be Learned through association, reward and punishment, observing others, group or cultural norms and exposure to information that encourages prejudice. For example, learning prejudices against people of colour, race, and religion.

Scapegoating: This is a phenomenon by which the majority group places the blame on a minority outgroup for its own social, economic or political problems.

Kernel of truth concept: Sometimes people may continue to hold stereotypes because they think that, after all, there must be some truth, or ‘kernel of truth’ in what everyone says about the other group. Even a few examples are sufficient to support the ‘kernel of truth’ idea.

Related Theory:
A self-fulfilling prophecy is another source of prejudice i.e. the group that is the target of prejudice is itself responsible for continuing the prejudice.

Question 23.
With the help of any 2 Neo Freudians, explain how they modified Freud’s ideas of personality. [2]
Answer:
Freud was the father of the Psychodynamic approach who focused upon Personality development as resulting from unresolved conflicts of the past Even though many people followed the Freudian approach, some of them modified his theory:

Carl Jung: Unlike Freud who said that human behavior is guided by unresolved conflicts and unconscious processes. Jung believed that human beings are driven by their aims and aspirations. While, Freud postulated the notion of 3 levels of consciousness i.e. conscious, preconscious, and unconscious, Jung gave the term collective unconscious to refer to the archetypes which are not individually acquired but are inherited

Karen Homey: She was another disciple of Freud who derived her theory further from Freudian principles. She adopted a more optimistic view of human life. As per her, human beings are driven by growth and self-actualization, unlike Freud’s theory which is viewed as libido being driven by sexual impulses.

She also contributed by challenging Freud’s treatment of women as inferior. She said each gender has attributes to be admired by the other, neither being superior or inferior. Women are more affected by social and cultural factors. According to Horney, psychological disorders Like anxiety are caused by disturbed interpersonal relationships during childhood due to frustration of needs.

Related Theory
Erik Erikson was another Neo Freudian who introduced the concept of identity crisis and adapted the stages of Personality development into Psychosocial stages unlike Freud who postulated the Psychosexual stages of personality development while Erich Fromm adapted Freudian theory to view human nature from a positive perspective.

Section – C (12 Marks)

Question 24.
How is intelligence perceived differently across cultures? [3]
Answer:
Culture refers to a collective system of customs, beliefs, attitudes and achievements in art and literature. It is rightly said that an individual’s intelligence is likely to be tuned by cultural parameters. The cultural differences in the conceptualization of intelligence are as follows:

Technological intelligence	Integral intelligence
Present in technologically advanced societies.	Present in less developed societies.
Focus is on per­sonal achievement and goal-directed behavior and de­velopment of skills of generalization, abstraction, speed, minimal moves, and mental manipulation.	Focus is on social and emotional skills.
Emphasis is upon the development of Cognitive tasks that require (1) Attention, (2) Observation, (3) Analysis, (4) Performance and (5) Speed.	Emphasis is upon holistic development i.e. combination of cognitive and non-cognitive abilities. (1) Cognitive capacity (context, understand­ing discrimination, problem-solving), (2)     Social compe­tence (respect for elders, social or­der, commitment to those around), (3)   Emotional com­petence (self-regula­tion of emotions), (4) Entrepreneurial competence (commitment, persis­tence, patience, goal-directed).

Question 25.
Enumerate the symptoms of Autism Spectrum disorders. [3]
Answer:
Autism is a neurological developmental disability that hampers normal brain development affecting communication, social interaction, and behavior. 70% of autistic children have a chance of being mentally retarded. Autism is known as a spectrum disorder because its symptoms and characteristics appear in a variety of combinations that affect children in different ways. The following are the symptoms:

(1) Impaired Communication: They show severe and widespread impairments in communication skills they may repeat words and phrases, cannot form meaningful sentences, and may use sign language while communicating.
(2) Social interaction: They show profound difficulty in relating with people as they cannot understand the feelings and emotions of others, avoid making friends and avoid eye contact.
(3) Sensory difficulties: The y exhibited difficulty in hearing and may be oversensitive to light, touch, and certain sounds.
(4) Behaviour: Such children may reflect repetitive behaviors such as lining up objects or stereotyped body movements such as rocking. These movements are self-stimulatory.

Question 26.
Sneha was publicly ridiculed by her teacher when she was in Class 5. Today as an adult pursuing master she is unable to connect with people socially and those in authority as she believes she is unwanted. Identify what needs to be corrected in Sneha’s life as well as describe the therapeutic approach most suitable to achieve this goal.
OR
After experiencing failure in his start-up business as well as relationships in his personal life, Sam has lost the ability to see purpose and meaning in his life. Describe the therapeutic approach – that would be most suitable to treat him. [3]
Answer:
Sneha has developed a dysfunctional core schema about herself because of her childhood experience i.e. ’I am unwanted’ which is determining her inability to form new social connections. Hence, Cognitive Therapy by Aaron Beck could be used to help her.

Purpose of Therapy: Cognitive restructuring is the chief aim of this therapy. This reduces anxiety and distress experienced by the client. This therapy would help her replace the dysfunctional schema with rational and functional beliefs about herself.

Identifying Core schemas: Beck’s theory states that childhood experiences provided by the family and society develop core schemas. Thus, Sneha, who was ridiculed by her teacher as a child, develops the core schema of ‘I am not wanted’, leading to the development of negative automatic thoughts.

Effects on the perception of reality: Cognitive distortions are ways of thinking which are general in nature but which distort reality in a negative manner. Repeated occurrences of these thoughts in Sneha’s mind have led to the development of feelings of anxiety and depression.

Method of Questioning: The therapist would use questioning, which is a gentle, non-threatening disputation of the client’s beliefs and thoughts. Examples of such questions would be, ‘Why should everyone want you around?’, ‘What does it mean to you to be wanted in your life?’ etc. The questions make the client think in a direction opposite to that of the negative automatic thoughts whereby she gains insight into the nature of her dysfunctional schemas and is able to alter her cognitive structures.

OR

Sam, has developed a sense of meaninglessness in life and has lost purpose due to facing failures in his personal and professional life, hence Logotherapy developed by Victor Frankl would be the most effective therapy for him.

Logotherapy: The term logotherapy (the Greek word) is derived from a combination of two Greek words i.e. Logos which means soul and therapy mean treatment. Thus, Logotherapy means treatment for the soul. Frankl calls this process of finding meaning even in life-threatening circumstances as the process of meaning-making.

Meaning of Existence: The basis of meaning-making is a person’s quest for finding the spiritual truth of one’s existence. According to Frankl, there is a spiritual unconscious, which is the storehouse of love, aesthetic awareness, and values of life. Neurotic anxieties arise when the problems of life are attached to the physical, psychological or spiritual aspects of one’s existence.

Existential Anxiety: Frankl emphasized the role of spiritual anxieties in leading to meaninglessness and hence it may be called existential anxiety, i.e. neurotic anxiety of spiritual origin.

Goal of logotherapy: It is to help the patients to find meaning and responsibility in their life irrespective of their life circumstances. The therapist encourages the client to find meaning in his life. The therapist is open and shares his feelings, values and his own existence with the client. The emphasis is on here and now. The therapist would remind Sam about the immediacy of the present.

Question 27.
‘The humanistic approach of Personality emphasizes the significance of positive aspects of life.’ Justify the statement. [3]
Answer:
The Humanistic approach to Personality development emphasizes a positive view of the human being. This can be justified by the following points:

(1) Carl Rogers: proposed the idea of a fully functional person. According to him, fulfillment is the motivational force for personality development. People try to express their capabilities, talents, and potential to the fullest extent. He observed that each person has a concept of the True self and an Ideal self about them.

(2) Concept of Self: An ideal self is a self that a person would like to be while the real self is what he really is. Correspondence between the two leads to a happier and contented person in congruence with himself. However, a discrepancy between the two can lead to unhappiness and dissatisfaction.

(3) He made two assumptions about human behavior:

• Human behavior is goal-directed and worthwhile.
• People will almost always choose self-actualizing and adaptive behavior.

(4) Abraham Maslow gave an account of psychologically healthy people in terms of their attainment of self-actualization. Maslow has a positive view of people who had the potential for love, joy and to do creative work. According to him the real journey of human life begins with the pursuit of self-esteem and self-actualization needs.

Related Theory:
According to this approach, an individual who is healthy has the following characteristic awareness of self, one’s feelings and limits and accept responsibility for their lives; they experience the ‘Here’ and ‘Now’ and they do not live in the past but dwelt in the future through anxious expectations or defenses.

Section – D (16 Marks)

Question 28.
Differentiate between a group and a team. Elaborate the factors that facilitate the formation of a group.
OR
What is a group structure? What are the events of a group structure? [4]
Answer:
The chief differences between groups and teams are:

Groups	Teams
A group may be de­fined as an organ­ised system of two or more individuals, who are interacting and interdependent.	Teams are special kinds of groups. Members of teams often have comple­mentary skills.
Group members have common mo­tives and a set of role relationships among its members.	Team members are committed to a com­mon goal or purpose. Members are mutu­ally accountable for their activities.
Groups have norms that regulate the be­haviour of its mem­bers.	In teams there is a positive synergy at­tained through the coordinated efforts of the members.
Performance is de­pendent upon indi­vidual member con­tributions.	Both individual con­tributions and teamwork matter.
The leader or who­ever is heading the group holds respon­sibility for the work.	Although there is a leader, members hold themselves re­sponsible.

The factors facilitating group formation are as follows:

Proximity: Repeated interactions with the same set of individuals give us a chance to know them, and their interests and attitudes better. This is possible only with people who are physically close in proximity i.e. those in the class or living in the same society or neighborhood.

Similarity: When two people are similar, there is consistency between them and they start liking each other. For example, if someone likes playing football then he’s more likely to make friends with people who also love playing football. The similarity between people reinforces and validates our opinions and values, we feel we are right and thus we start liking them

Common motives and goals: When people goals, they get together and form a group that may facilitate their goal attainment. For example, you want to teach children in a slum area who are unable to go to school. You cannot do this alone because you have your own studies and homework. You, therefore, form a group of like-minded friends and start teaching these children.

OR

During the process of group formation, groups also develop a structure, group structure develops as members interact. Over time this the interaction shows regularities in the distribution of tasks to be performed, responsibilities assigned to members, and the prestige or relative status of members. Four important elements of group structure are :

Roles are socially defined expectations that individuals in a given situation are expected to fulfill. Roles refer to the typical behavior that depicts a person in a given social context. Norms are expected standards of behavior and beliefs established, agreed upon, and enforced by group members. They may be considered as a group’s ‘unspoken rules. Status refers to the relative social position given to group members by others.

This relative position or status may be either ascribed (given may be because of one’s seniority) or achieved (the person has achieved status because of expertise or hard work). Cohesiveness refers to togetherness, binding, or mutual attraction among group members. As the group becomes more cohesive, group members start to think, feel and act as a social unit, and less like isolated individuals. Members of a highly cohesive group have a greater desire to remain in the group in comparison to those who belong to low cohesive groups.

Question 29.
How can we determine if one’s attitude is consistent with behavior? [4]
Answer:
Whether one’s actual behavior will be consistent or contrary to one’s attitude towards a particular topic is dependent upon a number of conditions according to Psychologists. Some of these are as follows:

Features of attitude: If the attitude is strong and occupies a central place in the attitude system then attitude will guide behavior. Awareness: If the person is aware of his attitude then there will be a strong relationship between attitude and behavior External pressure: When there is very little or no external pressure for the person to behave in a particular way. For example, when there is no group pressure to follow a particular norm, then the individual may behave as per his attitude.

Evaluation apprehension: When the person’s behavior is not being watched or evaluated by others there will be high consistency between attitude and behavior Presumed consequences: When the person thinks that the behavior would have a positive consequence, he intends to engage in that behavior. Richard LaPierre, an American social psychologist, conducted a study to examine the strength of consistency between attitude and behavior (it was believed that Chinese were discriminated against by the Americans).

He asked a Chinese couple to travel across the United States, and stay in different hotels. Only once during this occasion, they were refused service by one of the hotels. Sometime later, LaPierre sent out questionnaires to managers of hotels and tourist homes in the same areas where the Chinese couple had traveled, asking them if they would give accommodation to Chinese guests.

A very large percentage said that they would not do so. This response showed a negative attitude towards the Chinese, which was inconsistent with the positive behavior that was actually shown towards the traveling Chinese couple. Thus, attitudes may not always predict an actual pattern of one’s behavior.

Question 30.
‘Any intellectual activity involves the independent functioning of three neurological systems.’ Describe the theory of intelligence that supports this view. [4]
Answer:
Planning, Attention-arousal, and Simultaneous successive (PASS) Model of Intelligence- This model has been developed by J.P. Das, Jack Naglieri, and Kirby (1994). According to this model, intellectual activity involves the interdependent functioning of three neurological systems, called the functional units of the brain.

Arousal/Attention: An optimal level of arousal allows an individual to focus on relevant aspects of a problem. Too much or too little arousal would interfere with attention. For example, when a student feels optimum arousal about the upcoming exam, he can pay attention to reading, learning, and revising the contents of the chapters.

Simultaneous and Successive Processing: Simultaneous processing takes place when one perceives the relations among various concepts and integrates them into a meaningful pattern for comprehension. For example, in Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) Test, the subject is required to choose one of the six options that best completes the given incomplete pattern. Simultaneous processing helps in grasping the meaning and relationship between the given abstract figures. Successive processing takes place when the information is to be remembered serially so that the recall of one leads to the recall of another. For example, learning digits, alphabets, multiplication tables, etc

Planning: This is an essential feature of intelligence. After the information is attended to and processed, planning is activated. It allows us to think of the possible courses of action, and implement them to reach them. The organism makes efforts to cope with the threat through confrontation.

Question 31.
Describe the major types of anxiety disorders.
OR
What is dissociation? Describe the disorders related to it. [4]
Answer:
Anxiety is usually defined as a diffuse, vague, very unpleasant feeling of fear and apprehension. The anxious individual also shows combinations of the following symptoms: rapid heart rate, shortness of breath, diarrhea, loss of appetite, fainting, dizziness, sweating, sleeplessness, frequent urination and tremors. There are many types of anxiety disorders. These are :

Generalized anxiety disorder, consists of prolonged, vague, unexplained, and intense fears that are not attached to any particular object. The symptoms include worry and apprehensive feelings about the future; hypervigilance, which involves constantly scanning the environment for dangers. It is marked by motor tension, as a result of which the person is unable to relax, is restless, and visibly shaky and tense.

Another type of anxiety disorder is panic disorder, which consists of recurrent anxiety attacks in which the person experiences
intense terror. A panic attack denotes an abrupt surge of intense anxiety rising to a peak when thoughts of a particular stimuli are present. Such thoughts occur in an unpredictable manner. The clinical features include shortness of breath, dizziness, trembling, palpitations, choking, nausea, chest pain or discomfort, fear of going crazy, losing control or dying. People who have phobias have irrational fears related to specific objects, people, or situations.

Phobias often develop gradually or begin with a generalized anxiety disorder. Phobias can be grouped into three main types, i.e. specific phobias, social phobias, and agoraphobia.

(1) Specific phobias are the most commonly occurring type of phobia. This group includes irrational fears such as intense fear of a certain type of animal, or of being in an enclosed space. Intense and incapacitating fear and embarrassment when dealing with others characterizes social anxiety disorder (social phobia)

(2) Agoraphobia is the term used when people develop a fear of entering unfamiliar situations. Many people with agoraphobia are afraid of leaving their homes. So their ability to carry out normal life activities is severely limited.

(3) Separation anxiety disorder (SAD) is another type of anxiety disorder. Individuals with separation anxiety disorder are fearful and anxious about separation from attachment figures to an extent that is developmentalÿ not appropriate. Children with SAD may have difficulty being in a room by themselves.

OR

Dissociation can be viewed as a severance of the connections between ideas and emotions. Dissociation involves feelings of unreality, estrangement, depersonalization, and sometimes a loss or shift of identity. Sudden temporary alterations of consciousness that blot out painful experiences are the defining characteristic of dissociative disorders. The following are the dissociation disorder;

Dissociative amnesia is characterized by extensive but selective memory loss that has no known organic cause (e.g., head injury). Some people cannot remember anything about their past. A part of dissociative amnesia is dissociative fugue. An essential feature of this could be an unexpected travel away from home and the workplace, the assumption of a new identity, and the inability to recall the previous identity.

The fugue usually ends when the person suddenly ‘wakes up’ with no memory of the events that occurred during the fugue. This disorder is often associated with overwhelming stress Dissociative identity disorder, often referred to as multiple personalities, is the most dramatic of the dissociative disorders. It is often associated with traumatic experiences in childhood.

In this disorder, the person assumes alternate personalities that may or may not be aware of each other. Depersonalization/Derealisation disorder involves a dreamlike state in which the person has a sense of being separated both from self and from reality. In depersonalization, there is a change of self-perception, and the person’s sense of reality is temporarily lost or changed.

Section – E (6 Marks)

Question 32.
John, is a 30-year-old man who has been going to therapy for the past 8 months. continuous sessions, observed that John when he was a child, did not have a good relationship with his mother in his childhood because his mother was absent and cold throughout his childhood and he never experienced motherly love.

Due to this, he has trouble talking with other females and always thinks that they would abandon him. In further sessions, he started becoming hostile with the therapist, who was also a female and started talking to her like she was his mother. He has been facing anxiety issues and was constantly restless. The therapist on the basis of the above case, explains which therapy was the therapist using and why did John become hostile towards the female therapist.
OR
What is Psychotherapy? What are the major contributors that influence healing in therapy? As a therapist, what ethics have to be followed by them? [6]
Answer:
Since John started acting like his therapist was his mother, it clearly indicates that the therapist was using the Psychodynamic approach. Transference and Interpretation are the means of treating the patient, the client starts identifying the therapist with the authority figures of the past, usually childhood. The therapist was seen as a negligent mother. The therapist maintains a non-judgmental yet permissive attitude and allows the client to continue with this process of emotional identification.

This is the process of transference. The therapist encourages this process because it helps her/him in understanding the unconscious conflicts of the client. The client acts out her/ his frustrations, anger, fear, and depression that she/he harbored towards that person in the past, but could not express at that time. The therapist becomes a substitute for that person in the present. This stage is called transference neurosis. A full-blown transference neurosis is helpful in making the therapist aware of the nature of intrapsychic conflicts suffered by the client.

There is the positive transference in which the client idolizes, or falls in love with the therapist, and seeks the therapist’s approval. Negative transference is present when the client has feelings of hostility, anger, and resentment towards the therapist. The process of transference is met with resistance. Since the process of transference exposes the unconscious wishes and conflicts, thereby increasing the distress levels, the client resists transference. Due to resistance, the client opposes the progress of therapy in order to protect herself/himself from the recall of painful unconscious memories.

Resistance can be conscious or unconscious. Conscious resistance is present when the client deliberately hides some information. Unconscious resistance is assumed to be present when the client becomes silent during the therapy session, recalls trivial details without recalling the emotional ones, misses appointments, and comes late for therapy sessions. The therapist overcomes the resistance by repeatedly confronting the patient about it and by uncovering emotions such as anxiety, fear, or shame, which are causing the resistance. Interpretation is the fundamental mechanism by which change is effected.

Confrontation and clarification are the two analytical techniques of interpretation. In a confrontation, the therapist points out to the client an aspect of her/his psyche that must be faced by the client. Clarification is the process by which the therapist brings a vague or confusing event into sharp focus. Interpretation is a more subtle process. It is considered to be the pinnacle of psychoanalysis. The therapist uses the unconscious material that has been uncovered in the process of free association, dream interpretation, transference, and resistance to make the client aware of the psychic contents and conflicts which have led to the occurrence of certain events, symptoms, and conflicts.

Interpretation can focus on intrapsychic conflicts or on deprivations suffered in childhood. The repeated process of using confrontation, clarification, and interpretation is known as working through. Working through helps the patient to understand herself/himself and the source of the problem and to integrate the uncovered material into her/his ego. The outcome of working through is insight. Insight is not a sudden event but a gradual process wherein the unconscious memories are repeatedly integrated into conscious awareness; these unconscious events and memories are re-experienced in transference and are worked through. As this process continues, the client starts to understand herself/himself better at an intellectual and emotional level, and gains insight into her/his conflicts and problems.

OR

Psychotherapy is a voluntary relationship between the one seeking treatment or the client and the one who treats the therapist. The purpose of the relationship is to help the client to solve the psychological problems faces by her or him. Psychotherapies aim at changing maladaptive behaviors, decreasing the sense of personal distress, and helping the client to adapt better to her/ his environment, etc. All psychotherapeutic approaches have the following characteristics :

(1) there is a systematic application of principles underlying the different theories of therapy,
(2) persons who have received practical training under expert supervision can practice psychotherapy.
(3) the therapeutic situation involves a therapist and a client who seeks and receives help for her/his emotional problems (this person is the focus of attention in the therapeutic process), and
(4) the interaction of these two persons the therapist and the client results in the consolidation/formation of the therapeutic relationship. This is a confidential, interpersonal, and dynamic relationship. All psychotherapies aim at a few or all of the following goals :

• Reinforcing the client’s resolve for betterment.
• Lessening emotional pressure.
• Unfolding the potential for positive growth.
• Modifying habits.
• Changing thinking patterns.
• Increasing self-awareness.
• Improving interpersonal relations and communication

The factors which are responsible for healing in therapy are as follows :

A major factor in healing is the techniques adopted by the therapist and the implementation of the same with the patient/client. If the behavioral system and the CBT school are adopted to heal an anxious client, the relaxation procedures and the cognitive restructuring largely contribute to the healing. The therapeutic alliance, which is formed between the therapist and the patient/ client, has healing properties, because of the regular availability of the therapist, and the warmth and empathy provided by the therapist.

At the outset of therapy, while the patient/ client is being interviewed in the initial sessions to understand the nature of the problem, she/he unburdens the emotional problems being faced. This process of emotional unburdening is known as catharsis, and it has healing properties. There are several non-specific factors associated with psychotherapy. Some of these factors are attributed to the patient/ client and some to the therapist. These factors are called non-specific because they occur across different systems of psychotherapy and across different clients/patients and different therapists.

Non-specific factors attributable to the client/patient are a motivation for change, an expectation of improvement due to the treatment, etc. These are called patient variables. Non-specific factors attributable to the therapist are positive nature, absence of unresolved emotional conflicts, presence of good mental health, etc. These are called therapist variables. As a psychologist, one has to follow some ethics. These ethics in Psychotherapy are :

• Informed consent needs to be taken.
• The confidentiality of the client should be maintained.
• Alleviating personal distress and suffering should be the goal of all attempts by the therapist.
• The integrity of the practitioner-client relationship is important.
• Respect for human rights and dignity.
• Professional competence and skills are essential.

Section – F (8 Marks)

Case study 1

Jung worked with Freud in the early stages of their career, but later on, he broke away from Freud. Jung saw human beings guided as much by aims and aspirations as by sex and aggression. He developed his own theory of personality, called analytical psychology. The basic assumption of his theory is that personality consists of competing forces and structures within the individual (that must be balanced) rather than between the individual and the demands of society, or between the individual and reality.

Question 33.
What did Jung mean by Collective unconsciousness? [2]
Answer:
Jung claimed that there was a collective unconsciousness consisting of archetypes or primordial images. These are not individually acquired but are inherited. God or Mother Earth is a good example of an archetype. It is an archetype that is expressed in many ways. He devoted much of his efforts to the study of such expressions in various traditions.

Question 34.
To achieve wholeness, why should one be aware of their collective unconsciousness? [2]
Answer:
The basic assumption of his theory is that personality consists of competing forces and structures within the individual (that must be balanced) rather than between the individual and the demands of society, or between the individual and reality. According to him, for achieving unity and wholeness, a person must become increasingly aware of the wisdom available in one’s personal and collective unconscious and must learn to live in harmony with it.

Case study 2

Stress includes all those environmental and personal events, which challenge or threaten the well-being of a person. These stressors can be external, such as environmental (noise, air pollution), social (break-up with a friend, loneliness) or psychological (conflict, frustration) within the individual. Very often, these stressors result in a variety of stress reactions, which may be physiological, behavioral, emotional, and cognitive. At the physiological level, arousal plays a key role in stress-related behaviors.

Question 35.
Explain the two pathways which are activated by stress. [2]
Answer:
At the physiological level, arousal plays a key role in stress-related behaviors. The hypothalamus initiates action along two pathways. The first pathway involves the autonomic nervous system. The adrenal gland releases large amounts of catecholamines (epinephrine and epinephrine) into the bloodstream. This leads to physiological changes seen in the fight-or-flight response. The second pathway involves the pituitary gland, which secretes the corticosteroid (cortisol) which provides energy.

Question 36.
What are the emotional and behavioral responses to stress? [2]
Answer:
The emotional reactions to the experience of stress include negative emotions such as fear, anxiety, embarrassment, anger, depression, or even denial. The behavioral responses are virtually limitless, depending on the nature of the stressful event. Confrontative action against the stressor (fight) or withdrawal from the threatening event (flight) are two general categories of behavioral responses.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 6 with Solutions

अवधिः : होरात्रयम्
पूर्णाङ्का: : 80

प्रश्नपत्रस्वरूपम्सैं:
पल पेपर 1 में दिये गये निर्देशानुसार।

रवण्ड: क (अपठित अवबोधनम्)
अपठित-अवबोधनम् (अंक : 10)

1. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

सूर्यवंशे सर्वप्रथमं मनुर्नाम नृपः अभवत्। तस्य कुले एव दिलीपः इति ख्यातनामा राजा समुत्पन्नः। राजा दिलीपः सर्वेषां विषयाणां ज्ञाता आसीत् तथापि सः सर्वदा अभिमानरहितः, पराक्रमी, परिश्रमी, क्षमाशीलः आसीत्। दिलीप: न्यायपूर्वकं पितृवत् च प्रजापालनं करोति स्म। सः प्रजायाः रक्षणे सर्वदा उद्यतः भवति स्म। अतः सः एव प्रजायाः पिता आसीत्। राजा दिलीप: यदा चिरं सन्ततिं न अलभत तदा तं गुरुवशिष्ठः सन्ततिं प्राप्तुं कामधेनोः पुत्र्याः नन्दिन्याः सेवार्थम् आदिशत्। दिलीपः स्वभार्यया सह एकविंशतिः दिवसपर्यन्तं गोसेवाम् अकरोत्। द्वाविंशतितमे दिने एकः सिंहः नन्दिनीम् आक्राम्यत्। दिलीप: गोरक्षायै स्वशरीरं समर्पयितुम् उद्यतः अभवत्। प्रसन्ना नन्दिनी तस्मै सन्तते: वरम् अयच्छत्।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द का उत्तर लिखिए) केवल दो प्रश्न

(i) दिलीपः कया सह गोसेवाम् अकरोत् ?
(i) दिलीपः किमर्थं स्वशरीरं समर्पयितुम् उद्यतः अभवत्?
(iii) सूर्यवंशे सर्वप्रथमं कः नृपः अभवत्?
उत्तर:
(i) भार्यया
(ii) गोरक्षायै
(iii) मनु:! मनुर्नाम

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) गुरुवशिष्ठः किमर्थं नन्दिन्याः सेवार्थम् आदिशत्?
(i) दिलीपः कथं प्रजापालनं करोति स्म?
(iii) दिलीपः कति दिवसपर्यन्तं गोसेवाम् अकरोत् ?
उत्तर:
(i) गुरु: वशिष्ठः सन्ततिं प्राप्तुं राजानं दिलीपं नन्दिन्या: सेवार्थम् आदिशत्।
(ii) दिलीपः न्यायेन धर्मेण च पितृवत् प्रजापालनं करोति स्म।
(iii) दिलीपः एकविंशति-दिवसपर्यन्तं गोसेवाम् अकरोत्।

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत।
(इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।)
उत्तर:
शीर्षकम् दिलीप:/राजादिलीपः/अथवा अन्य: कोऽपि समुचितः शीर्षक:

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) ‘आक्राम्यत्’ इत्यस्याः क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम् ?
(क) दिलीप:
(ख) वशिष्ठ:
(ग) सिंह:
(घ) नन्दिनी
उत्तर:
(ग) सिंह:

(ii) ‘क्षमाशीलः’ इति पदस्य विशेष्यं गद्यांशात् चित्वा लिखत।
(क) वशिष्ठ:
(ख) दिलीप:
(ग) पराक्रमी
(घ) सिंह:
उत्तर:
(ख) दिलीप:

(iii) ‘वंशे’ इत्यस्य पदस्य क: पर्याय: अत्र आगत: ?
(क) कुले
(ख) सन्तते :
(ग) चिरम्
(घ) राज्ये
उत्तर:
(क) कुले

(iv) अनुच्छेदे ‘अलस:’ पदस्य क: विपर्यय: आगतः ?
(क) क्षमाशील:
(ख) परिश्रमी
(ग) पराक्रमी
(घ) तीव्रगामी
उत्तर:
(ख) परिश्रमी

रवण्ड: – रव (रचनात्मक-कार्यम्)
(अंक : 15)

2. भवान् अभिनवः। भवान् पितुः स्थानान्तरण विशात् असमप्रदेशम् आगतः। स्थानान्तरणप्रमाणपत्रं प्राप्तुं प्रधानाचार्यां प्रति लिखिते प्रार्थनापत्रे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पत्रं च पुनः उत्तरपुस्तिकायां लिखतु (1/2 × 10 = 5)
(आप अभिनव है। आप पिताजी के स्थानान्तरण के कारण असम प्रदेश आ गये हैं। स्थानान्तरण प्रमाण-पत्र प्राप्त करने के लिए प्रधानाचार्य के प्रति लिखे गये प्रार्थना-पत्र में रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके पत्र को उत्तर पुस्तिका पर लिखिए।)
सेवायाम्
माननीया (i) : ………
डी. ए. वी. विद्यालयः,
नवदेहली।
विषयः-स्थानान्तरण-प्रमाणपत्रं प्राप्तुं प्रार्थनापत्रम्।
महोदये!
(ii)…….. निवेदनम् अस्ति यद् अहं भवत्याः विद्यालये नवमकक्षायां (iii)………। मम पितुः (iv)… असमप्रदेशस्य गौहाटीनगरे सञ्जातम्। मम सम्पूर्णः परिवार: तत्रैव गत्वा निवासं (……..। अहम् अपि (vi) ……… सह गत्वा तत्रैव (vi)……| अत: अहं प्रार्थये यत् कृपया मह्यं स्थानान्तरणपत्रं (vi)…….. अनुगृह्णातु। भवत्याः (ix)……. कृपा भविष्यति। धन्यवादः। भवत्याः (x)…..शिष्यः
अभिनवः
नवमकक्षास्थः
अनुक्रमाङ्कः-3
दिनाङ्कः
उत्तर:
(i) प्रधानाचार्या
(ii) सविनयम्
(iii) पठामि
(iv) स्थानान्तरणम्
(v) करिष्यति
(vi) परिवारेण
(vii) पठिष्यामि
(viii) प्रदाय
(ix) महती
(x) आज्ञाकारी

मञ्जूषा-सविनयम्, पठामि, प्रधानाचार्या, परिवारेण, करिष्यति, प्रदाय, स्थानान्तरणम्, पठिष्यामि, महती, आज्ञाकारी।

3. अधः प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां सहायतया पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत (1 × 5 = 5)
(नीचे दिये गये चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिये गये शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

उत्तर:
(i) इदम् चित्रम् एकस्य परिवारस्य अस्ति।
(ii) रक्षाबन्धन-पर्वणि सर्वे प्रसन्नाः सन्ति।
(iii) एका भगिनी अनुजस्य मणिबन्धे रक्षासूत्रं बध्नाति।
(iv) पितरौ इदं कृत्यं प्रसन्नतया पश्यतः ।
(v) अग्रजः अपि प्रसन्नो भूत्वा तिष्ठति।
अनुच्छेदलेखनम्

मञ्जूषा-अग्रजस्य, अनुजस्य, भगिनी, रक्षाबन्धनम्, रक्षासूत्रम्, मणिबन्धे, मिष्टान्नम्, प्रसन्नौ, पर्वणः, बहनाति।
अथवा
मञ्जूषाप्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य पञ्चभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत
(मञ्जूषा में दिये गये शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पांच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।)
“दीपावलिः”
(i) ‘दीपावलि:’ इति पर्व प्रतिवर्षम् कार्तिकमासस्य अमावस्यायाम् तिथौ मान्यते।
(ii) सर्वत्र जनाः उत्साहेन रात्रौ पूजयन्ति।
(iii) बालकः मिलित्वा स्थाने-स्थाने स्फोटयन्ति।
(iv) दीपमालिकोत्सवः सर्वै: जनै: उल्लासमय वातावरणे आयोज्यते।
(v) अस्मिन् पर्वाणि जना: मिष्टान्नम् वितरन्ति।

मञ्जूषा-दीपानां पङ्किः, जनाः, रात्रौ, पूजयन्ति, प्रतीकम्, मिष्टान्नम्, वितरन्ति, स्फोटयन्ति, दीपमालिकोत्सवः, उल्लासमयम्, अमावस्यायाम, उत्साहेन, बालकाः अपि।

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य लिखत-(केवलं वाक्यपञ्चकम्) (1 × 5 = 5)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का संस्कृत भाषा में अनुवाद लिखिए। (केवल पाँच वाक्य) (1) उद्यान में फूल खिल रहे हैं।
Flowers are blooming in the garden

(i) मेरे पास पाँच फल हैं।
Thave five fruits
(ii) मेरे पास पाँच फल हैं।
I have five fruits.
(iii) दिल्ली भारत की राजधानी है।
Delhi is the capital of India.
(iv) कल हम दोनों गोवा गए थे।
Both of us went to Goa yesterday
(v) कृपया तुम मेरे लिए पानी लाओ।
Please bring water for me.
(vi) शनिवार को मैं उत्सव में जाऊँगा।
I will go to festival on Saturday.
उत्तर:
(i) उद्याने पुष्पाणि विकसन्ति।
(ii) मम समीपे पञ्च्व फलानि सन्ति।
(iii) दिल्ली/देहली भारतस्य राजधानी अस्ति।
(iv) ह्य: आवां गोवानगरम् अगच्छाव/गतवन्तौ।
(v) कृपया त्वं मह्यं/मदर्थ जलम् आनय।
(vi) शनिवासरे अहम् उत्सवं गमिष्यामि।
(vii) अधुना त्वं पठे: अथवा अधुना त्वया पठनीयम्/ पठितव्यम्।

रवण्ड: – ग (अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरणम्)
(अंक : 25)

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदक सन्धिपदं सन्धिच्छेदपदं वा कुरुत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों में सन्धि अथवा सन्धि विच्छेद करके लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) अचिरादेव चण्डवातेन मेघरवैश्च सह प्रवर्षः समजायत।
(ii) आलस्यं हि मनुष्याणां शरीरस्थः + महान् रिपुः।
(iii) कश्चित् कृषक: बलीवर्दाभ्यां क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन् आसीत्।
(iv) किञ्चित् कालं नय माम् अस्मात् + नगराद् बहुदूरम् ।
(v) अयोग्यः पुरुषः नास्ति योजकः + तत्र दुर्लभः।
उत्तर:
(i) अचिरात् + एव
(ii) शरीरस्थो महान्
(iii) कः + चित्
(iv) अस्मान्नगरात्
(v) योजकस्तत्र

6. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां समासं विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चिनुत लिखत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों का समास अथवा विग्रह दिये गये विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न) (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) वानरः सिंहस्य कर्णमाकृष्य पुनः वृक्षोपरि आरोहति ।
(क) वृक्ष उपरि
(ख) वृक्षस्य उपरि
(ग) वृक्षे उपरि
(घ) वृक्षम् उपरि
उत्तर:
(ख) वृक्षस्य उपरि

(ii) प्रकृतिमाता (सस्नेहम्)-भोः भोः प्राणिनः! यूयं सर्वे एव मे सन्ततिः ।
(क) स्नेहस्य सहितम्
(ख) स्नेहेन सहितम्
(ग) स्नेहस्य अभावः
(घ) सोस्नेहः
उत्तर:
(ख) स्नेहेन सहितम्

(iii) सर्वेषामेव मत्कृते महत्त्वं विद्यते समयम् अनतिक्रम्य।
(क) यथासमयम्
(ख) यथासमयः
(ग) उपसमयम्
(घ) समयानुसारम्
उत्तर:
(क) यथासमयम्

(iv) वाक्पटुः केनापि प्रकारेण परैर्न परिभूयते।
(क) वाचः पटुः
(ख) वाक् पटुः
(ग) वाचि पटुः
(घ) वाचोपटुः
उत्तर:
(ग) वाचि पटुः

(v) हयाः च नागा: च वहन्ति बोधिताः।
(क) हयनागाः
(ख) हयानागौ
(ग) हयानागाश्च
(घ) हयानागौ
उत्तर:
(क) हयनागाः

7. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रकृति-प्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत्- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के प्रकृति प्रत्ययों को जोड़कर अथवा अलग करके उचित उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) विद्वांसः एव लोकेऽस्मिन् चक्षुष्मन्तः प्रकीर्तिताः।
(क) चक्षुस् + मतुप्
(ख) चक्षुष् + मतुप्
(ग) चक्षुः + मतुप्
(घ) चक्षुः + तमप्
उत्तर:
(ख) चक्षुष् + मतुप्

(ii) विचित्रा दैवगतिः।
(क) विचित्र + टाप्
(ख) विचित्र + ङीप्
(ग) विचित्र + त्व
(घ) विचित्र + तत्
उत्तर:
(क) विचित्र + टाप्

(iii) जम्बुक:-स्वामिन् ! यत्रास्ते सा धूर्ता तत्र गम्यताम्।
(क) धूर्त + तल्
(ख) धूर्त + टाप्
(ग) धूर्त + त्व
(घ) धूर्त + क्त्वा
उत्तर:
(ख) धूर्त + टाप्

(iv) तस्य भार्या बुद्धि + मतुप पुत्रद्वयोपेता पितुर्गृहं प्रति चलिता।
(क) बुद्धिमान्
(ख) बुद्धिमती
(ग) बुद्धिमत्
(घ) बुद्धिमन्तः
उत्तर:
(ख) बुद्धिमती

(v) सर्वेषामेव मत्कृते महत् + त्व विद्यते।
(क) महत्ता
(ख) महत्वम्
(ग) महत्त्वम्
(घ) महानता
उत्तर:
(ग) महत्त्वम्

8. वाच्यानुसारम् उचितपदैः रिक्त स्थानानि पूरयित्वा अधोलिखतं संवादं पुनः लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्न त्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(वाच्य के अनुसार उचित पदों से रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके नीचे लिखे हुए संवाद को पुनः लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) आदित्य:-अभिनव! किं …………………. क्रीडितुं गच्छसि?
(क) त्वया
(ख) त्वम्
(ग) अहम्
(घ) सः
उत्तर:
(ख) त्वम्

(ii) अभिनवः-न, मया तु स्वपाठः ………………….|
(क) पठ्यते
(ख) पयामि
(ग) पठ्यसे
(घ) पठति
उत्तर:
(क) पठ्यते

(iii) आदित्यः -शोभनम् ! त्वं ……………… अपि लिखसि किम्?
(क) निबन्धः
(ख) निबन्धम्
(ग) निबन्धेन
(घ) निबन्धाय
उत्तर:
(ख) निबन्धम्

(iv) अभिनवः-न, …… तु गणितस्य अभ्यास: क्रियते।
(क) त्वया
(ख) अहम्
(ग) मया
(घ) त्वम्
उत्तर:
(ग) मया

9. कालबोधकशब्दैः अधोलिखित-दिनचर्या पू.रयत-(केवलं प्रश्न चतुष्ट्य म्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(कालबोधक शब्दों से निम्नलिखित दिनचर्या को पूरा कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)।

(i) अहं सायं 5:30 ………… वादने भ्रमणं करोमि।
(ii) केशवः प्रात: 6:00 ……….. वादने जागर्ति।
(iii) कपिलः प्रातः 7:30 ……….. वादने विद्यालय गच्छति।
(iv) सायं 4:30 ……….. वादने निनादः अतिरिक्तकक्षायै गच्छति।
(v) प्रणवः रात्रौ 8:45 …… वादने दूरदर्शनं पश्यति।
उत्तर:
(i) सार्ध पञ्च
(ii) षड्
(iii) सार्ध सप्त
(iv) सार्ध चतुर
(v) पादोन-नव

10. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तैः उचितैः अव्ययपदैः अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रिक्त स्थानानि पूरयत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(मञ्जूषा में दिये गये उचित अव्यय पदों से वाक्यों में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए। (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) …………. छात्राः पादपान् सिञ्चन्ति । (ii) दुर्वहम् ………… जीवितं जातम्। (i) निर्जनस्थाने रोदनं ………… भवति। (iv) ………… गणितस्य परीक्षा अभवत्।
उत्तर:
(i) इदानीम्
(ii) अत्र
(iii) वृथा
(iv) ह्य:

मञ्जूषा- अत्र, इदानीम्, वृथा, ह्यः

11. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कित अशुद्ध पदाय उचितं पदं चित्वा वाक्यानि पुनः लिखत्-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित अशुद्ध पद के लिए उचित पद चुनकर वाक्यों को पुनः लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) भवान् फलं खाद।
(क) खादसि
(ख) खादन्तु
(ग) खादतु
(घ) खाद्यताम्
उत्तर:
(ग) खादतु

(ii) वृक्षाणि हरिताः सन्ति।
(क) वृक्षान्
(ख) वृक्षा:
(ग) वृक्षौ
(घ) वृक्षः
उत्तर:
(घ) वृक्षः

(iii) स: ग्रामं गच्छन्ति।
(क) गच्छसि
(ख) गच्छतः
(ग) गच्छति
(घ) गच्छ
उत्तर:
(ग) गच्छति

(iv) आनन्दः ह्य: न आगमिष्यति।
(क) आगच्छत्
(ख) आगच्छति
(ग) आगच्छन्
(घ) अगच्छत्
उत्तर:
(क) आगच्छत्

रवण्ड: – घ (पठिताअवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 30)

12. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिये गये प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

अस्ति देउलाख्यो ग्रामः। तत्र राजसिंहः नाम राजपुत्रः वसति स्म। एकदा केनापि आवश्यककार्येण तस्य भार्या बुद्धिमती पुत्रद्वयोपेता पितुहं प्रति चलिता। मार्गे गहनकानने सा बुद्धिमती एकं व्याघ्रं ददर्श। सा व्याघ्रमागच्छन्तं दृष्ट्वा धाष्ात् पुत्रौ चपेटया प्रहत्य जगाद- “कथमेकैकशो व्याघ्रभक्षणाय कलहं कुरुथः? अयमेकस्तावद्विभज्य भुज्यताम्। पश्चाद् अन्यो द्वितीयः कश्चिल्लक्ष्यते” । इति श्रुत्वा व्याघ्रमारी कांचिदियमिति मत्वा व्याघ्रो भयाकुलचित्तो नष्टः ।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए। केवल दो प्रश्न।)

(i) कः भयाकुलचित्तो नष्टः?
(ii) सा बुद्धिमती कुत्र एक व्याघ्रं ददर्श?
(iii) राजसिंहः कः आसीत्?
उत्तर:
(i) व्याघ्र:
(ii) मार्गे/गहनकानने
(iii) राजपुत्र:

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए। (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) सा पुत्रौ चपेटया प्रहत्य किं जगाद?
(ii) बुद्धिमती सा किमर्थं पितुहं प्रति चलिता?
(iii) मार्गे सा बुद्धिमती कि ददर्श?
उत्तर:
(i) सा पुत्रौ चपेटय प्रहत्य जगाद-“कथमेकैकशो व्याघ्रभक्षणाय कलहं कुरुथः ? अयमेकस्तावद्विभज्य भुज्यताम्। पश्चाद् अन्यो द्वितीय: कश्चिल्लक्ष्यते”।
(ii) बुद्धिमती सा आवश्यककार्येण पुत्रद्वयोपेता पितुर्गुहं प्रति चलिता।
(iii) मार्गे सा बुद्धिमती एकं व्याघ्रं ददर्श ?

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देश के अनुसार उत्तर लिखिए)-(केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) गहनकानने सा बुद्धिमती एक व्यानंददर्श इत्यस्मिन् वाक्ये कर्तृपदं किम्?
(ii) तस्य भार्या बुद्धिमती पुत्रद्वयोपेता…..इत्यत्र किं विशेषणपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ii) ‘गतां’ इत्यस्य किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्
उत्तर:
(i) बुद्धिमती
(ii) भार्या
(iii) चलिता

13. अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिये गये प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

दुर्वहमत्र जीवितं जातं प्रकृतिरेव शरणम्।
शचि पर्यावरणम्।।

महानगरमध्ये चलदनिशं कालायसचक्रम्।
मनः शोषयत् तनु: पेषयद् भ्रमति सदा वक्रम् ॥
दुर्दान्तैर्दशनैरमुना स्यान्नैव जननसनम् ।
शुचि पर्यावरणम्॥

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए।) केवल दो प्रश्न

(i) अत्र किं दुर्वहं जातम्?
(ii) कदा महानगरे कालायसचक्रं चलति?
(iii) पर्यावरणं कीदृशं भवितव्यम्?
उत्तर:
(i) जीवितम्
(ii) अनिशम्
(iii) शुचि

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्ण वाक्य के उत्तर लिखिए।) केवल दो प्रश्न

(i) कालायसचक्रं किं कुर्वत् वक्रं भ्रमति?
(ii) कै: नजनग्रसनं न स्यात्?
(iii) का अस्माकं शरणम् अस्ति?
उत्तर:
(i) कालायसचक्रम् अनिशं चलद् वक्रं भ्रमति।
(ii) दुर्दान्तैः दशनैः जनग्रसनं न स्यात्।
(iii) प्रकृतिः एव अस्माकं शरणम् अस्ति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देश के अनुसार उत्तर लिखिए)-(केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) कविः कुत्र सञ्चरणं कर्तुम् इच्छति के इत्यत्र कि क्रियापदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(i) ‘महानगरम्’ इत्यत्र किं विशेष्यपदम् अस्ति?
(iii) ‘अशुचिः’ इत्यस्य किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम्।
उत्तर:
(i) इच्छति
(ii) नगरम्
(iii) शुचि:

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिये गये प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

मयूरः – (वृक्षोपरितः-साट्टहासपूर्वकम्) विरम, विरम, आत्मश्लाघायाः। किं न जानासि यत्यदि न स्यान्तरपतिः सम्यङ्नेता ततः प्रजा। अकर्णधारा जलधौ विप्लवेतेह नौरिव ॥ को न जानाति तव ध्यानावस्थाम्। ‘स्थितप्रज्ञ’ इति व्याजेन वराकान् मीनान् छलेन अधिगृह्य क्रूरतया भक्षयसि। धिक् त्वाम्। तव कारणात् तु सर्व पक्षिकुलमेवावमानितं जातम्।
वानरः – (सगर्वम्) अतएव कथयामि यत् अहमेव योग्यः वनराजपदाय। शीघ्रमेव मम राज्याभिषेकाय तत्पराः भवन्तु सर्वे वन्यजीवाः।
मयूरः – अरे वानर ! तूष्णी भव। कथं त्वं योग्यः वनराजपदाय? पश्यतु पश्यतु मम शिरसि राजमुकुटमिव शिखां स्थापयता विधात्रा एवाहं पक्षिराजः कृतः अत: वने निवसन्तं मां वनराजरूपेणापि द्रष्टुं सज्जा: भवन्तु अधुना। यतः कोऽप्यन्य: विधातु: निर्णयम् अन्यथा कर्तुं क्षमः?
काकः – (सव्यङ्ग्यम्) अरे अहिभुक् । नृत्यातिरिक्त का तव विशेषता यत् त्वां वनराजपदाय योग्यं मन्यामहे वयम्।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) क: सगर्वं वदति ?
(ii) नाट्यांशे कः श्लोकं वदति?
(iii) ‘अरे वानर ! तूष्णीं भव।’ इति कः कथयति?
उत्तर:
(i) वानर:
(ii) मयूर:
(iii) मयूर:

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) विधात्रा मयूरः कथं पक्षिराजः कृतः?
(ii) काकः किं वदति?
(iii) वानरः (सगर्व) किं वदति?
उत्तर:
(i) शिरसि राजमुकुटमिव शिखां स्थापयता विधात्रा एव मयूरः पक्षिराजः कृतः।
(ii) काकः (सव्यड्ग्यम्)-“अरे अहिभुक्! नृत्यातिरिक्तं का तव विशेषता यत् त्वां वनराजपदाय योग्यं मन्यामहे वयम्।” इति वदति
(iii) वानरः (सगर्व) “अहमेव योग्य: वनराजपदाय। शीघ्रमेव मम राज्याभिषेकाय तत्परा: भवन्तु सर्वे वन्यजीवा:” इति कथयति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत् (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) अहमेव योग्यः वनराजपदाय इत्यत्र क; कथयति?
(ii) स्थापयता विधात्रा’ इत्यन्त्र किं विशेष्यपदम् प्रयुक्तम्?
(iii) ‘मस्तके’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कृते किं अन्न पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(i) वानर
(ii) विधात्रा
(iii) शिरसि

15. रेखाङ्कित-पदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(क) महानगरेषु वाहनानाम् अनन्ताः पङ्क्तयः धावन्ति ।
(ख) बुद्धिमती चपेटया पुत्रौ प्रहृतवती।
(ग) मयूरस्य नृत्यं प्रकृते: आराधना अस्ति।
(घ) सुराधिपः ताम् अपृच्छत् ।
(ङ) करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
उत्तर:
(क) कुत्र
(ख) कया
(ग) कस्या:

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचितपदानि चित्वा अधोलि. खित-श्लोकस्य अन्वयं पूरयत- (1 × 4 = 4)
(मञ्जूषा से उचित पदों को चुनकर निम्नलिखित श्लोक के अन्वय को पूरा कीजिए।

त्यक्त्वा धर्मप्रदां वाचं परुषां योऽभ्युदीरयेत्। परित्यज्य फलं पक्कं भुङ्क्तेऽपक्वं विमूढधीः॥ अन्वयः-यः (i)…… वाचम् त्यक्त्वा परुषाम् वाचम् (ii) …… (सः) विमूढधीः पक्वम् (फलम्) (iii)………. अपक्वम् फलम् (iv)………|
उत्तर:
(i) धर्मपद्राय्
(ii) अभ्युदीरयेत्
(iii) परित्यज्य
(iv) भुड्क्ते।

मञ्जूषा-अभ्युदीरयेत्, भुङ्क्ते, धर्मप्रदाम्, परित्यज्य

अथवा
मञ्जूषायाः साहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुनःलिखत
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक के भावार्थ रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।)

काकः कृष्णः पिकः कृष्ण: को भेद: पिककाकयोः। वसन्तसमये प्राप्ते काक; काक: पिक: पिकः॥

भावार्थ:-अस्य भावोऽस्ति यत् ….. वर्ण: कृष्ण: वर्तते पिकस्य अपि वर्णः…..एव अस्ति। अतः पिके काके चक: भेदः अस्ति अर्थात् वर्णदृष्ट्या तयोः कश्चिद् भेदो न दृश्यते। परन्तु यदा………समयः आगच्छति तदा तयोः स्वरैः ज्ञायते यत् कः …….अस्ति कश्च पिको वर्तते।
उत्तर:
अस्य भावोऽस्ति यत् काकस्य वर्णः कृष्णः वर्तते पिकस्य अपि वर्णः कृष्णः एव अस्ति। अतः तयो: पिके काके च कः भेदः अस्ति अर्थात् वर्णदृष्ट्या तयोः कश्चिद् भेदो न दृश्यते। परन्तु यदा वसन्तस्य समयः आगच्छति तदा तयोः स्वरै: ज्ञायते यत् कः काकः अस्ति कश्च पिको वर्तते।

मञ्जूषा-वसन्तस्य, काकस्य, काकः, कृष्णः ।

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचितक्रमेण लिखत  (1/2 × 8 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश को समुचित क्रम से लिखिए।)

(i) एकः कृषक: आसीत्।
(ii) पुत्रस्य दैन्यावस्थां दृष्ट्वा सुरभिः दुःखिता अभवत् ।
(iii) सुरभेः इमाम् अवस्थां दृष्ट्वा सुराधिपः ताम् अपृच्छत्-‘अयि शुभे! किमेवं रोदिषि’ इति।
(iv) कृषक: तं दुर्बलं वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत।
(v) तस्य समीपे द्वौ बलीवदर्दी आस्ताम्।
(vi) क्रुद्धः कृषक: तमुत्थापयितुं बहुवारं यत्नमकरोत्।
(vii) स: वृषभ: हलम् ऊढ्वा गन्तुम् अशक्तः क्षेत्रे पपात ।
(viii) तयोः बलीवर्दयोः एकः शरीरेण दुर्बलः आसीत्।
उत्तर:
(i) एकः कृषक: आसीत्।
(v) तस्य समीपे द्वौ बलीवदर्दी आस्ताम्।
(viii) तयोः बलीवर्दयोः एकः शरीरेण दुर्बलः आसीत्।
(iv) कृषक: तं दुर्बलं वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत।
(vii) स: वृषभ: हलम् ऊढ्वा गन्तुम् अशक्तः क्षेत्रे पपात ।
(vi) क्रुद्धः कृषक: तमुत्थापयितुं बहुवारं यत्नमकरोत्।
(ii) पुत्रस्य दैन्यावस्थां दृष्ट्वा सुरभिः दुःखिता अभवत् ।
(iii) सुरभेः इमाम् अवस्थां दृष्ट्वा सुराधिपः ताम् अपृच्छत्-‘अयि शुभे! किमेवं रोदिषि’ इति।

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्न त्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के प्रसंगानुकूल उचित अर्थ चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) नवमालिका रसालं मिलिता।
(क) वनम्
(ख) आम्रम्
(ग) वृक्षम्
(घ) पत्रम्
उत्तर:
(ख) आम्रम्

(ii) राजपुत्रस्य भार्या पुत्रद्वयोपेता पितृगृहं प्रति चलिता।
(क) माता
(ख) सखी
(ग) पत्नी
(घ) स्त्री
उत्तर:
(ग) पत्नी

(iii) वृषः जवेन गन्तुम् अशक्तः आसीत्।
(क) तीव्रगत्या
(ख) ‘जव’इति अन्नेन
(ग) मन्दं मन्दम्
(घ) तीव्रण
उत्तर:
(क) तीव्रगत्या

(iv) करी च सिंहस्य बलं जानाति।
(क) करः
(ख) सिंहः
(ग) गजः
(घ) शशक:
उत्तर:
(ग) गजः

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 Hr.
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper is divided into four sections.
2. There are 38 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A includes question No. 1-20. These are MCQ type questions. As per the question, there can be one answer.
4. Section B includes question No.21-29. These are very short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
5. Section C includes question No. 30-35. They are short answer type questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
6. Section D includes question No. 36-38. They are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words each. Question no 38 is to be answered with the help of the passage given.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
“Famines were also a major and recurring source of increased mortality.” Which of the following is not a cause of famines? [1]
(A) Continuing poverty and malnutrition in an agro-climatic environment.
(B) Inadequate means of transport and communication.
(C) Failure of entitlements
(D) Increasing birth rates
Answer:
(D) Increasing birth rates

Explanation: Famine is a result of shortage of food and not increase in births.

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The Population Pyramid shows a bulge in the middle age groups, due to opportunity provided by the demographic structure.
Reason(R): This is due to high birth rate in the middle age groups. [1]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: The bulge in the middle age group indicates that majority of Indians belong to the working population providing the opportunity called demographic dividend,

• The average age is also less than that of most other countries, thus the changing age structure could offer a demographic dividend for India.
• Thus, the dependency ratio is low and provides the opportunity for economic growth.
• This dividend arises from the fact that the current generation of working age people is relatively large and it has only a relatively small preceding generation of old people to support.
• This potential can be converted into actual growth with the increased level of education and employment, (v) Thus, these benefits have to be utilised through planned development.

Question 3.
The interaction of the tribal communities with the mainstream has generally been on terms unfavourable for the tribals. Many tribal identities today are centred on ideas of _____ to the overwhelming force of the non-tribal word. [1]
(A) Resistance and cooperation
(B) Cooperation and opposition
(C) Resistance and opposition
(D) Movement and opposition
Answer:
(C) Resistance and opposition

Explanation: Many tribal identities are based on thoughts of resistance and opposition to the overpowering force of the non-tribal world because this interactional process has not favoured the tribes.

Question 4.
Assertion(A): Tribes are pristine societies uncontaminated by civilisation:
Reason(R): Tribes should really be seen as “secondary” phenomena arising out of the exploitative and colonialist contact between pre-existing states and non-state groups like the tribals. [1]
(A)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
Answer:
(D) A is false and R is true.

Explanation: 1970s – All major definitions of tribes were found to be faulty.

• Absorption of tribes into the Hindu Society: Sanskritisation, acculturation 1 Cultural aspect and political & exploitative aspect It has also been argued that there is no coherent basis for treating tribes as ‘pristine’.
• Tribes are “secondary” phenomena arising as a result of colonialist contact between state and non-state societies.

Question 5.
Which of the following make the Dominant Castes dominant? [1]
I. small population
II. land rights
III. intermediate caste
IV. decisive role in regional politics
(A) I. and II.
(B) I. and III.
(C) II., III., IV.
(D) I. and IV.
Answer:
(C) II., III., IV.

Explanation: Dominant Castes are the upper-middle ranking castes with a large population and newly acquired land ownership rights leading to their political, economic and social dominance in a region.

Question 6.
The _____ family is often seen as symptomatic of India. [1]
(A) Nuclear
(B) Patriarchal
(C) Patrilineal
(D) Extended
Answer:
(D) Extended

Explanation: Extended Family: It consisted of more than one couple and, often, more than two generations live together. The extended family is symptomatic of India.

Question 7.
The person who is refused a job because of his/her caste may be told that he/she was less qualified than others and the selection was done purely on merit. This is an example of [1]
(A) Discrimination
(B) Social stratification
(C) Egalitarianism
(D) Stereotype
Answer:
(A) Discrimination

Explanation: Discrimination refers to the practices, behaviour or attitude towards another group or individual that disqualify members of the group or the individual from opportunities open to others.

Question 8.
Person from a well-off family can afford expensive higher education. Someone with influential relatives and friends may – through access to good advice, recommendations or information – manage to get a well-paid job. Which of the following is true in the given context? [1]
I. There are multiple forms of capital.
II. Different forms of capital cannot be converted into the other.
III. The forms of capital overlap.
(A) I- is false
(B) I. and II. are true
(C) I. and III. are true
(D) I., II. and III. are true
Answer:
(C) I. and III. are true

Explanation: These social resources can be divided into three forms of capital – economic capital in the form of material assets and income; cultural capital such as educational qualifications and status; and social capital in the form of networks of contacts and social associations (Bourdieu 1986). Often, these three forms of capital overlap and one can be converted into the other

For example, a person from a well-off family (economic capital) can afford expensive higher education, and so can acquire cultural or educational capital. Someone with influential relatives and friends (social capital) may – through access to good advice, recommendations or information manage to get a well-paid job.

Question 9.
Historically, states have tried to establish and enhance their political legitimacy through nation-building strategies. They sought to secure the loyalty and obedience of their citizens through policies of assimilation or integration. Attaining these objectives was not easy, especially in a context of cultural diversity where citizens, in addition to their identifications with their country, might also feel a strong sense of identity with their community – ethnic, religious, linguistic and so on. [1]
Two nation building strategies used were
(A) Assimilation and integration
(B) Assimilation and sanskritisation
(C) Integration and sanskritisation
(D) Westernisation and sanskritisation
Answer:
(A) Assimilation and integration

Explanation: They sought to secure the loyalty and obedience of their citizens through policies of assimilation or integration.

Question 10.
The challenge is in reinvigorating India’s commitruent to practices [1]
(A) Pluralism
(B) Institutional accommodation
(C) Conflict resolution through democratic means
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Explanation: The challenge is in reinvigorating India’s commitment to practices of pluralism, institutional accommodation and conflict resolution through democratic means. Critical for building a multicultural democracy is a recognition of the shortcomings of historical nation-building exercises and of the benefits of multiple and complementary identities.

Question 11.
While a few villages are totally absorbed in the process of expansion, only the land of many others, excluding the inhabited area, is used for urban development. [1]
The growth of _____ cities accounts for the third type of urban impact on the surrounding villages.
(A) Metropolitan
(B) Small
(C) Ghetto
(D) Heritage
Answer:
(A) Metropolitan

Explanation: The growth of metropolitan cities accounts for the third type of urban impact on the surrounding villages. While a few villages are totally absorbed in the process of expansion, only the land of many others, excluding the inhabited area, is used for urban development.

Question 12.
With the growth of movement in the 20th century, there was an attempt in several Indian languages to drop Sanskriti words and phrases. [1]
(A) Brahmanical
(B) Anti-Brahmanical
(C) Women’s
(D) Tribal
Answer:
(B) Anti-Brahmanical

Explanation: With the growth of the anti- Brahmanical movement and the development of regional self-consciousness in the twentieth century there was an attempt in several Indian languages to drop Sanskrit words and phrases.

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a result of contract farming? [1]
(A) It disengages many people from the production process.
(B) Makes their own indigenous knowledge of agriculture irrelevant.
(C) It is ecologically sustainable
(D) Caters primarily to the production of elite items
Answer:
(C) It is ecologically sustainable

Question 14.
Assertion(A): Members of low ranked caste groups had to provide labour for a fixed number of days per year to the village zamindar.
Reason(R): Lack of resources and dependence on the landed caste for economic and social support meant that many working poor were tied to landowners in hereditary labour relationships. [1]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: Members of low ranked caste groups had to provide labour for a fixed number of days per year to the village zamindar or landlord. Similarly, lack of resources, and dependence on the landed class for economic, social, and political support, meant that many of the working poor were tied to landowners in ‘hereditary’ labour relationships (bonded labour), such as the halpati system in Gujarat (Breman, 1974) and the jeeta system in Karnataka.

Question 15.
Women are also emerging as the main source of agricultural labour leading to labour force. [1]
(A) Feminisation of agriculture
(B) Womanisation of agriculture
(C) Reformation of agriculture
(D) Restoration of agriculture
Answer:
(A) Feminisation of agriculture

Explanation: Women are also emerging as the main source of agricultural labour, leading to the ‘feminisation of agricultural labour force.

Question 16.
‘The spate of fanners’ suicides that has been occurring in different parts of the country since 1997-98 can be linked to the ‘agrarian distress’ caused by structural changes in agriculture and changes in economic and agricultural policies.
Which of the following is not a reason for agrarian distress? [1]
(A) Changed cropping pattern
(B) Changing patterns of landholdings
(C) Heavy migration to cities
(D) Shift to cash crops
Answer:
(C) Heavy migration to cities

Explanation: The spate of farmers’ suicides that has been occurring in different parts of the country, since 1997-98 can be linked to the ‘agrarian distress’ caused by structural changes in agriculture and, changes in economic and agricultural policies. These include the changed pattern of landholdings; changing cropping patterns, especially due to shift to cash crops; liberalisation policies that have exposed Indian agriculture to the forces of globalisation.

Heavy dependence on high-cost inputs; withdrawal of the State from agricultural extension activities to be replaced by multinational seed and fertiliser companies; decline in state support for agriculture; and individualisation of agricultural operations.

Question 17.
In outsourcing, work is allocated by _____ countries to _____ countries. [1]
(A) Developed, developing
(B) Underdeveloped, developed
(C) Developing, underdeveloped
(D) Developing, developed
Answer:
(A) Developed, developing

Question 18.
Assertion(A): Earlier architects and engineers had to be skilled draughtsmen, now the computer does a lot of the work for them.
Reason(R): The use of machinery de-skills workers. [1]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: The famous sociologist Harry Braverman argues that the use of machinery actually de-skills workers. For example, whereas earlier architects and engineers had to be skilled draughtsmen, now the computer does a lot of the work for them.

Question 19.
‘Stand Up India Scheme’ and ’Make in India’ are programmes that will help realise the [1]
(A) Benefits of high dependency ratio
(B) Demographic dividend
(C) Benefit of high death rate
(D) Benefit of high fertility rate
Answer:
(B) Demographic dividend

Question 20.
Assertion(A): In Modern Foods, 60% of the workers were forced to retire in the first five years.
Reason(R): This was due to complacency in work. [1]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: The government is trying to sell its share in several public sector companies, a process which is known as disinvestment. Many government: workers are scared that after disinvestment, they will lose their jobs. In Modern Foods, which was set up by the government to make healthy bread available at cheap prices, and which was the first company to be privatised, 60% of the workers were forced to retire in the first five years.

Section – B (18 Marks)

Question 21.
The growth rate of India in the decade 1911-21, exhibited a diverse pattern. State two reasons. [2]
Answer:
The reason for the diverse pattern were:

• There was a negative rate of growth of – 0.03%.
• the influenza epidemic during 1918-19 which killed about 12.5 million persons

Question 22.
Not all of the changes in Social Institutions brought about by the British were intended or deliberate. Give an
example to justify the statement. [2]
Answer:
All changes in social institutions brought about British were not intended or deliberate because the British Administrative officials were amateur ethnologists and they took great interest in pursuing such surveys and studies, e.g. The 1901 Census under the direction of Herbert Risley about the social hierarchy of caste had a huge impact on the social perception of caste.

Question 23.
“In both English and Indian fictional writings, we often encounter an entire group of people classified as ‘lazy’ or ‘cunning’.” What are the problems with such a classification?
OR
” In all regions of the world persons with disabilities face attitudinal barriers, including prejudice, low expectations and even fear. Negative attitudes about disability impact on all aspects of the lives of persons with disabilities, including the ability to access education, to participate in non-exploitative work, to live where and with whom one chooses, to marry and start a family, and to move about freely within the community.”
Suggest any two ways by which an attitudinal change can be brought about to remedy the conditions of people with disabilities. [2]
Answer:
These general statements are given by stereotypes that fix whole groups into single, homogenous categories: they refuse to recognise the variation across individuals and across contexts or across time, also known as prejudice.

OR

A change can be brought in the ways listed below:
• By educating people/society about disabilities.
• By the government initiatives to socially include people with disability.

Question 24.
“Every human being needs a sense of stable identity to operate in this world. Questions like — Who am I? How am I different from others? How do others understand and comprehend me? What goals and aspirations should I have? – constantly crop up in our life right from childhood.” How are these questions answered?
OR
State is indeed a very crucial institution when it comes to the management of cultural diversity in a nation. How? [2]
Answer:
We are able to answer many of these questions because of the way in which we are socialised. It should be based on birth and ‘belonging’ rather than on some form of acquired qualifications or ‘accomplishment’. It is what we ‘are’ rather than what we have ‘become’.

OR

• A State is crucial to the management of cultural diversity in a nation. For example, India is socially and culturally one of the most diverse countries in the world.
• States are also often suspicious of cultural diversity because sometimes cultural diversities are accompanied by economic and social inequalities which lead to rivalries.

Question 25.
What is the difference between assimilationist and integrationist policies? [2]
Answer:
Assimilationist policies require non-dominant or subordinated groups in society to give up their own cultural values and adopt the prescribed ones whereas Policies of integration insist that the public culture be restricted to a common national pattern, while all ‘non-national’ cultures are to be relegated to the private sphere.

Question 26.
Using the example of Kumud Pawade, show how the process of sanskritisation is gendered. [2]
Answer:
Kumud Pawde felt that the study of Sanskrit can help her break into a field that was not possible for her to enter on grounds of gender and caste. As she proceeds with her studies, she meets with varied reactions ranging from surprise to hostility, from guarded acceptance to brutal rejection.

Question 27.
What was unique about the social reform movements of the 19^th century? [2]
Answer:
New ideas of liberalism and freedom, new ideas of homemaking and marriage, new roles for mothers and daughters, new ideas of self-conscious pride in culture and tradition emerged. The value of education became very important. It was seen as very crucial for a nation to become modern but also retain its ancient heritage.

Question 28.
Differentiate between Zamindari system and Ryotwari system with regard to the consequence on agricultural prosperity. [2]
Answer:
In Zamindari System British controlled most of local administration through Zamindars. British imposed heavy taxes on agricultural land. As a result of oppression, peasants faced series of famine and wars. This eventually affected the population whereas in Ryotwari System British had direct control over the local farmers, in this system, the ‘actual cultivators’ (who were themselves often landlords and not cultivators) rather than the zamindars were responsible for paying the tax, as a result, these areas became relatively more productive and prosperous.

Question 29.
“In places like Bengaluru, Hyderabad and Gurugram, where many IT firms or call centres are located, shops and restaurants have also changed their opening hours, and are open late.” Give reasons.
OR
The Industrial Sodety is characterised by alienation. How? [2]
Answer:
Overwork is built into the structure of out-sourced projects in the IT sector: project costs and time-lines are usually underestimated in terms of man-days, and because man-days are based on an eight-hour day, engineers have to put in extra hours and days in order to meet the deadlines.

OR

‘Alienation’ was coined by Karl Marx; it is a concept wherein people are unable to enjoy their work as the work is often repetitive and exhaustive. People are unable to enjoy work and see it as something they have to do only in order to survive.

Section – C (24 Marks)

Question 30.
In the context of identities, why did tribal sodeties get more and more differentiated?
OR
One of the most significant yet paradoxical changes in the caste system in the contemporary period is that it has tended to become ‘invisible’ for the upper caste, urban middle and upper classes. Elaborate. [4]
Answer:
The term tribe is used for the oldest inhabitants of the sub-continent. About 85 percent of the tribal population lives in ‘middle India’, over 11 percent live in the North-Eastern states and 3 percent live in the rest of India. Tribal identities are formed by an interactional process. They are centred on ideas of resistance and opposition to the non-tribal world.

The issues related to control over vital economic resources like land and especially forests, and issues relating to matters of ethnic-cultural identity. The two can often go together, but with the differentiation of tribal society, they may also diverge. The reasons why the middle classes within tribal societies may assert their tribal identity may be different from the reasons why poor and uneducated tribals join tribal movements. As with any other community, it is the relationship between these kinds of internal dynamics and external forces that will shape the future.

OR

Caste is a type of social stratification found in the Indian subcontinent. It is a hereditary organization of social grouping restricting occupational mobility.

• Upper caste elite were able to benefit from subsidized public education, especially professional education.
• Took advantage of the expansion of state sector jobs in the early decades after Independence.
• This led over the rest of society (in terms of education) and ensured that they did not face any serious competition.
• As their privileged status got consolidated in the second and third generations, these groups believed that caste played no role in their advancement.
• For the third generations of these groups their economic and educational capital is sufficient to ensure that they will get the best in terms of life chances.

Question 31.
Why is it hard to define a nation? [4]
Answer:
Nations are found on the basis of common cultural, historical and political institutions like a shared religion, language, ethnicity, history, or regional culture. But it is hard to come up with any defining features, any characteristics that a nation must possess. There are many nations that do not share a single common language, religion, and ethnicity. There are many languages, religions, or ethnicities that are shared across nations. A state is the closest criterion that distinguishes a nation. However, this one-on-one relationship is a new development.

Question 32.
How are capitalism and colonialism linked? [4]
Answer:
An economic system in which the means of production are privately owned and organized to accumulate profits within a market system. It is dynamic and global in nature; its potential is to grow, expand, innovate and use technology and labour in a way that ensures the greatest profit. Western colonialism was inextricably connected to the growth of western capitalism.

If capitalism became the dominant economic system, the nation-states became the dominant political form. Western colonialism was inextricably connected to the growth of western capitalism. This had a lasting impact on the way capitalism developed in a colonised country like India.

Question 33.
How did the Land Ceiling Act prove to be toothless in most of the states? [4]
Answer:
The Land Ceiling Act was enacted and land-owning limit was fixed and excessive lands were seized.
(i) Land Ceiling Act was implemented to fix the upper limit for individual land-owning.
(ii) Accordingly, an individual has to give away the excess land to the government.
(iii) Concerned landowner was allowed to give a share to the son or daughter before surrendering it to the government.
(iv) The loopholes included dividing land among relatives and servants. This was called a Benami transfer. Divorcing the wife but living with her which will allow a share for unmarried women for the accumulation of land by a family.

Question 34.
“The more mechanised an industry gets, the fewer people are employed.” Explain with a suitable example.
OR
Mahatma Gandhi saw mechanisation as a danger to employment. Explain. [4]
Answer:
It is a fact that machinery creates a problem for workers. We can take the example of a cottage industry of earlier times in which a number of family members were required to make a piece of cloth. Even then it required a lot of time to make a small piece of cloth. But when machines were invented then machines started to make cloth with great speed, in less time and with less cost. In this way work of the cottage industry went over to machines of a textile mill and thousands of workers had to change their occupations.

Human labour cannot be matched with the pace at which a machine can work. Hence, machines have been constantly replacing humans. This has led to increased unemployment. The speed of human labour and mechanical technology is unmatched and hence even if humans try, they give up at some point and leave the job.

OR

Mahatma Gandhi objected the heavy usage of machines. He was of the view that labour-oriented modern industries should be set up in India. It can also be said, Gandhiji was not against machinery but, against the craze for machinery. Machinery saves time and labour. However, it deprives people of their jobs and leads to starvation. Therefore, Gandhiji opined that machinery should save time and labour for all and accumulate wealth for all and not in the hands of a few.

He suggested the use of the spinning wheel to end exploitation and unemployment. Both Marx and Mahatma Gandhi saw mechanisation as a danger to employment.

Question 35.
Differentiate between old and new sodal movements. [4]
Answer:

OLD SOCIAL MOVEMENTS	NEW SOCIAL MOVEMENTS
Central goal: Reorganisation of power relations.	Central goal: About addressing issues on quality of life.
Functions within the frame of political parties. INC led the Indian National Movement.	It is led by civil society, political parties, NGOs, pressure groups, etc.
Class related: Peasant movements, workers movements, anti-colonial movements.	Environmental movements, women’s and tribals movements.
Major fight against economic inequality.	Fights economic, social, cultural and political inequality.

 Section – D (18 Marks)

Question 36.
The contractors’ men who were travelling to Reni from Joshimath stopped the bus shortly before Reni. Skirting the village, they made for the forest. A small girl who spied the workers with their implements rushed to Gaura Devi, the head of the village Mahila Mandal (Women’s Club). Gaura Devi quickly mobilised the other housewives and went to the forest. Pleading with the labourers not to start felling operations, the women initially met with abuse and threats. When the women refused to budge, the men were eventually forced to retire.”
How are environmental movements also about economics and identity issues? Elaborate. [6]
Answer:
All of the villagers relied on the forest to get firewood, fodder and other daily necessities. This conflict placed the livelihood needs of poor villagers against the government’s desire to generate revenues from selling timber. The economy of subsistence was pitted against the economy of profit.

Along with this issue of social inequality (villagers versus a government that represented commercial, capitalist interests), the Chipko Movement also raised the issue of ecological sustainability. Cutting down natural forests was a form of environmental destruction that had resulted in devastating floods and landslides in the region. For the villagers, these ‘red’ and ‘green’ issues were interlinked.

While their survival depended on the survival of the forest, they also valued the forest for its own sake as a form of ecological wealth that benefits all. In addition, the Chipko Movement also expressed the resentment of hill villagers against a distant government headquartered in the plains that seemed indifferent and hostile to their concerns. So, concerns about economy, ecology and political representation underlay the Chipko Movement.

Question 37.
Table 3: The Declining Sex Ratio in India, 1901-2011

Year	Sex ratio (all age groups)	Variation over pre­vious decade	Child Sex ratio (0-6 years)	Variation over previous decade
1901	972	–	–	–
1911	964	-8	–	–
1921	955	-9	–	–
1931	950	– 5	–	–
1941	945	-5	–	–
1951	946	+ 1	–	–
1961	941	-5	976	–
1971	930	-11	964	-12
1981	934	+ 4	962	-2
1991	927	-7	945	-17
2001	933	+ 6	927	-18
2011	943	+ 10	919	-8
Note: The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males: Data on age-specific sex ratios is not available before 1961. Source: Cerasus of India 2011, Government of India.

(a) Give reasons for declining sex-ratio.
(b) In your opinion, what steps should be taken to deal with this bias against the girl-child? [6]
Answer:
(a) The reasons for the declining sex ratio are given as follows:

• Maternal mortality is the main health factor that affects women differently from men as there is an increased risk of childbearing.
• However, it is not the main cause of the decline in the sex ratio in India.
• Child-sex ratio shows a steeper decline due to differential treatment of female babies.
• Sex-specific abortion or female foeticide has increased due to misuse of pre-natal diagnostic techniques.
• Decline in sex ratio is also due to female infanticide, a practice that is a product of cultural and religious beliefs.
• Economically prosperous families wanting fewer children often prefer male children over female children.
• Girl children are also severely neglected due to socio¬cultural norms that prefer sons over daughters.

(b) Several measures were taken by the government to decrease bias against girl child:

• Right to Education Act, 2005
• The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
• Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Yojana, 2015

Question 38.
Elaborate on state and non-state initiatives addressing caste and tribal discrimination.
OR
What are the major concerns for the Adivasis today? [6]
Answer:
The Indian state has had special programmes for the Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes since even before Independence. Reservations involves the setting aside of some places or ‘seats’ for members of the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in different spheres of public life. Caste Disabilities Removal Act of 1850, which disallowed the curtailment of rights of citizens due solely to change of religion or caste.

93rd Amendment is for introducing reservation for the Other Backward Classes in institutions of higher education. The Constitution abolished untouchability (Article 17) and introduced the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act of 1989. From the pre-Independence struggles and movements launched by people like Jyotiba-Phule, Iyotheedas, Periyar, Ambedkar and others to contemporary political organisations like the Bahujan Samaj Party in Uttar Pradesh or the Dalit Sangharsh Samiti of Karnataka.

Dalit political assertion has come a long way. Dalits have also made significant contributions to literature in several Indian languages, specially Marathi, Kannada, Tamil, Telugu and Hindi.

OR

The Independence of India in 1947 should have made life easier for adivasis but this was not the case. Firstly, the government monopoly over forests continued. If anything, the exploitation of forests accelerated. Secondly, the policy of capital-intensive industrialisation adopted by the Indian government required mineral resources and power-generation capacities which were concentrated in Adivasi areas. Adivasi lands were rapidly acquired for new mining and dam projects.

In the process, millions of adivasis were displaced without any appropriate compensation or rehabilitation. Justified in the name of ‘national development’ and ‘economic growth’, these policies were also a form of internal colonialism, subjugating adivasis and alienating the resources upon which they depended. Projects such as the Sardar Sarovar dam on the river Narmada in western India and the Polavaram dam on the river Godavari in Andhra Pradesh displace hundreds of thousands of adivasis, driving them to greater destitution.

These processes continue to prevail and have become even more powerful since the 1990s when economic liberalisation policies were officially adopted by the Indian government. It is now easier for corporate firms to acquire large areas of land by displacing adivasis. In spite of the heavy odds against them and in the face of their marginalisation many tribal groups have been waging struggles against outsiders (called ‘dikus’) and the state.

In post-Independence India, the most significant achievements of Adivasi movements include the attainment of statehood for Jharkhand and Chattisgarh, which were originally part of Bihar and Madhya Pradesh respectively.