CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
  2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
  3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
  4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
  5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
  6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
  7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
  8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section – A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)

Question 1.
The median class of the following distribution is: (1)

Class 40-45 45-50 50-55 55-60 60-65 65-70 70-75
Frequency 2 3 8 6 6 3 2

(a) 45 – 50
(b) 65 – 70
(c) 40 – 45
(d) 55-60
Answer:
(d) 55-60

Explanation:

Class Frequency Cumulative Frequency
40-45 2 2
45-50 3 8
50-55 8 13
55-60 6 19
60-65 6 25
65-70 3 28
70-75 2 30

So, N = 30 and \(\frac{N}{2}\) = 15
The cumulative frequency, just greater than 15, is 19 which belongs to class interval 55-60.
Hence, the median class is 55-60.

Question 2.
An integer is chosen at random between 1 and 100. The probabilitg that the chosen number is divisible bg 10 is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{9}{98}\)
(b) \(\frac{8}{95}\)
(c) \(\frac{7}{97}\)
(d) \(\frac{5}{97}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{9}{98}\)

Explanation: Numbers divisible by 10 between 1 and 100 are:
10, 20, 30, 40 90
So, required probability = \(\frac{9}{98}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 3.
Two different dice are rolled together. The probability of getting a sum of 10 of the numbers on the two dice is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{2}{13}\)
(b) \(\frac{5}{14}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{13}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Explanation:
The pairs having sum of 10 are (4, 6), (5, 5) and (6, 4), out of (6 × 6), i.e. 36 pairs.
So, the required probability is \(\frac{3}{36}\) or \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 4.
The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r units is: (1)
(a) 2r2
(b) r2
(c) \(\frac{r^2}{2}\)
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) r2

Explanation:
Area of triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2r × r = r2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 1

Question 5.
The total surface area of a quadrant of a wooden sphere of radius 3.5 cm is: (1)
(a) 56 cm2
(b) 35 cm2
(c) 77 cm2
(d) 22
cm2
Answer:
(c) 77 cm2

Explanation: Radius of sphere, r = 3.5 cm
∴ T.S.A = \(\frac{4 \pi r^2}{4}+\frac{\pi r^2}{2}+\frac{\pi r^2}{2}\)
= πr2 + πr2
= 2πr2 = 2π(3.5)2
= 77 cm2

Question 6.
If sin θ – cos θ = 0, then the value of sin4 θ + cos4 θ is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Explanation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 2
Given, sin θ – cos θ
⇒ \(\frac{sin θ}{cos θ}\) = 1
or tan θ = 1
∴ θ = 45°
Now, sin4 θ + cos4 θ
= sin4 45° + cos4 45°
= \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)^4+\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)^4\)
= \(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 7.
The ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow on the ground is \(\sqrt{3}\) : 1 What is the angle of elevation? (1)
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Answer:
(c) 60°

Explanation: Let OA be the tower, OB be its shadow and 0 be the angle of elevation of the sun at that instant
Then, in triangle OAB, we have
tan θ = \(\frac{AO}{OB}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{1}\)
⇒ θ = 60°
Hence, angle of elevation of the sun is 60°.

Question 8.
The zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x3 – 4x is: (1)
(a) 1, 4, 2
(b) 2, 0, 3
(c) 0, -2, 2
(d) 0, 2, 2
Answer:
(c) 0, -2, 2

Explanation:
p(x) = x3 – 4x = x(x2 – 4)
= x(x + 2)(x – 2)
Thus, the zeros of p(x) are 0,-2 and 2.

Question 9.
The first negative term of the AP: 20, 19\(\frac{1}{4}\), 18\(\frac{1}{2}\), 17\(\frac{3}{4}\), is: (1)
(a) 27
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 28
Answer:
(d) 28

Explanation:
Here, a = 20 and d = –\(\frac{3}{4}\)
If the nth term be the first negative term, then
a + (n – 1) d < 0
i.e, 20 + (n – 1) (-\(\frac{3}{4}\)) < 0 ⇒ n > \(\frac{83}{3}\) or 27\(\frac{2}{3}\)
which is true for n = 28.
Hence, 28th is the first negative term of the given A.P.

Question 10.
The value of k for which the equation x2 + 4x + k = 0 has real roots is: (1)
(a) k = 4
(b) k < 4 (c) k > 4
(d) k ≤ 4
Answer:
(b) k ≤ 4

Explanation: Equation will have real roots
when (4)2 – 4k ≥ 0, i.e. k ≤ 4

Question 11.
Write the solution of the following pair of equations: x – 3y = 2; 3x – y = 14 is: (1)
(a) x = 5, y = 1
(b) x = 3, y = 5
(c) x = 2, y = 1
(d) x = 3, y = 2
Answer:
(a) x = 5, y = 1

Explanation:
Given, equations are
x – 3y =2 …(i)
and 3x – y =14 …(ii)
Then, x = 2 + 3y [From equation (i)]
Put the value of x’ in equation (ii)
3(2 + 3y) – y = 14
⇒ 6 + 9y – y = 14
⇒ 6 + 8y = 14
⇒ 8y = 8
⇒ y = 1
Then, x = 2 + 3 × 1 = 5
Then values of x and y are 5 and 1 respectively.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 12.
Write a quadratic polynomial for which sum and product of the zeros are 3 and -10 respectively. (1)
(a) 2x2 + 3x+5
(b) x2 – 3x – 10
(c) x2 + 3x + 10
(d) x2 – 5x + 4 1
Answer:
(b) x2 – 3x – 10

Explanation:
Sum of zeroes = 3
i.e., a + b = 3
and product of zeroes = – 10
i.e., ab = – 10
Then, quadratic polynomial is
x2 – (a + b) x + ab
i.e., x2 – 3x – 10

Question 13.
The pairs of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and 5x + 10y + 25 = 0 have: (1)
(a) unique solution
(b) exactly two solutions
(c) Infinitely many solutions
(d) No solution
Answer:
(c) Infinitely many solutions

Explanation:
\(\frac{a_1}{a_2}=\frac{1}{5}\)
\(\frac{b_1}{b_2}=\frac{2}{10}=\frac{1}{5}\)
\(\frac{c_1}{c_2}=\frac{2}{25}=-\frac{1}{5}\)
This shows:
\(\frac{a_1}{a_2}=\frac{b_1}{b_2}=\frac{c_1}{c_2}\)
Therefore, the pair of equations has infinitely many solutions.

Question 14.
The perimeter of a circle having radius 7cm is equal to: (1)
(a) 30 cm
(b) 3.14 cm
(c) 31.4 cm
(d) 44 cm
Answer:
(d) 44 cm

Explanation:
The perimeter of the circle is equal to the circumference of the circle.
Circumference = 2πr
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7
= 44 cm

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 15.
The chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at its centre. The length of the chord is: (1)
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 10\(\sqrt{2}\)cm
(d) 10\(\sqrt{3}\) cm
answer:
(c) 10\(\sqrt{2}\)cm

Explanation:
Here, AB is a chord, subtending a right angle at the centre O.
Given, radius of the circle, r = 10 cm.
In AAOB, by Pythagoras theorem
AB2 = OA2 + OB2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 3
= 102 + 102
= 100 + 100 = 200
AB = \(\sqrt{200}\) = 10\(\sqrt{2}\) cm

Question 16.
If 6 times the 6th terms of on A.P. is equal to 9 times the 9h term, then find its 15th terms: (1)
(a) 10
(b) 31
(c) 22
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) 0

Explanation:
Let, the first term of an A.P. be ‘a’ and its common difference be ‘d’.
Then, 6 (a6) = 9(a9) (given)
6(a + 5 d) = 9(a + 8d)
6 a + 30 d = 9a + 72 d
-3 a = 42 d
a = – 14d …(i)
15th term, = a + 14d
= – 14d + 14d [using (i)]
= 0
Hence, the 15th term of A.P. is 0.

Question 17.
The mid-point of the line segment joining the points (-2, 4) and (6,10) is: (1)
(a) (2, 7)
(b) (5, 2)
(c) (3, 5)
(d) (4, 5)
Answer:
(a) 2, 7

Explanation:
The mid-point of the line -2 + 6 4 + 10
segment is \(\left(\frac{-2+6}{2}, \frac{4+10}{2}\right)\) i.e., (2,7)

Question 18.
The value of ‘a’, if HCF (a, 18) = 2 and LCM (a, 18) = 36, is: (1)
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Explanation:
Given, HCF (a, 18) = 2 and
LCM (a, 18) = 36
HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b) = a × b
2 × 36 = a × 18
a = 4
Hence, value of ‘a’ is 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Choose the correct option as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Statement A (Assertion): The graph of the linear equations 5x + 3y = 12 and 7x – 5y = 4 gives a pair of intersecting lines.
Statement R (Reason): The graph of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 gives a pair of intersecting lines if \(\frac{a_1}{a_2}\) ↑\(\frac{b_1}{b_2}\) (1)
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
The graph of linear equations 5x + 3y = 12, and 7x – 5y = 4 gives a pair of intersecting lines.
5x + 3y = 12
7x – 5y = 4
\(\frac{5}{7}\) ≠ \(\frac{3}{-5}\)
Hence lines intersects each others.

The graph of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 gives a pair of
Intersecting lines if \(\frac{a_1}{a_2}\) ↑\(\frac{b_1}{b_2}\)

Question 20.
Statement A (Assertion): If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm, then its radius is 22 cm.
Statement R (Reason): Circumference = 2π × radius. (1)
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.

Explanation:
Circumference (c) = 176 cm
∴ 2 nr= 176
∴ 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 176
∴ \(\frac{44}{7}\) × r = 176
∴ r = 176 × \(\frac{7}{44}\) = 28 cm
∴ The radius of the circle is 28 cm.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Section – B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 21.
If n is a positive odd integer, then show that n2 – 1 is divisible by 8.
OR
Check whether 15n can end with digit zero for any natural number n. (2)
Answer:
We know that every positive odd integer is of the form 2q + 1, where q is a whole number. Put n = 2q + 1 and get
n2 – 1 = (2g + 1)2 -1
= (2q + 1 – 1) (2q + 1 + 1)
= 2q(2q + 2)
= 4 q(q + 1)
Clearly, for q = 0, 1, 2 4q{q + 1) is divisible by 8.
OR
No; because 15n = (3 × 5)n = 3n × 5n.
So, the only primes in the factorisation of 15n are 3 and 5, and not 2 and 5.
Hence, 15n cannot end with the digit 0.

Question 22.
If P(5, 7), Q(x, – 2) and R(- 3, y) are collinear points such that PR = 2PQ, calculate the values of x and y.
OR
Show that the roots of the quadratic equation: (b – c)x2 + (c – a) x + (a – b) = 0 are equal if c + a = 2b. (2)
Answer:
Since P, Q, R are collinear and PQ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) PR,
So, Q is the mid-point of PR.
(x, -2) =\(\left(\frac{5-3}{2}, \frac{7+y}{2}\right)\)
⇒ (x, -2) = (1, \(\frac{7+y}{2}\))
⇒ x = 1 and \(\frac{7+y}{2}\) = -2
⇒ x = 1 and y = -11
OR
The roots of the given equation will be equal, if
(c – a)2 = 4(b – c) (a – b)
For c + a = 2b, we have:
c-a = 2b-a-a ⇒ c-a=2(b-a)
⇒ (c – a)2 = 4(a – b)2 …(i)
Also, c + a = 2b
gives b – c = a – b
So, 4(b – c)(a – b) = 4(a – b)2 …(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
(c – a)2 = 4(b – c)(a – b) = 4(a – b)2

Question 23.
Determine the value of “k” so that the ratio of the zeros in the quadratic polynomial 3x2 – kx + 14 is 7:6. (2)
Answer:
Let the zeros are 7p and 6p.
3x2 – k + 14
7p + 6p = \(\frac{-(-k)}{3}\) = \(\frac{k}{3}\)
and 7p × 6p = \(\frac{14}{3}\)
⇒ 42 p2=\(\frac{14}{3}\)
p = 3
⇒ 39 p = k
∴ k = 39 × 3
∴ k = 117

Question 24.
The sum of circumferences of two circles is 132 cm. If the radius of one circle is 14 cm, find the radius of the other circle. (2)
Answer:
Let r = 14 cm and R cm be the radii of two circles.
Then,
2π(14) + 2πR = 132
⇒ 2πR = 132 – 88
R = \(\frac{44 × 7}{2 × 22}\) = 7
Thus, the radius of the other circle is 7 cm.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 25.
In a car park, there are 125 cars, 3p motorbikes, 2q lorries and 20 buses. One of the vehicles leaves the car park at random. Given that the probability that the 3 vehicle is a motorbike is \(\frac{3}{40}\) and probability that the vehicle is a bus is \(\frac{1}{10}\), form a pair of linear equations in p and q. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 4

Section – C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
Find the HCF and the LCM of 72 and 120, using prime factorisation method. (3)
Answer:
72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3. or 23 × 32
120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5, or
23 × 31 × 51
So, HCF(72,120) = 23 × 31, i.e. 24.

Question 27.
The diagram given below shows a sequence of square wire frames. The lengths of a side of these frames are ‘x* cm, (x + 3) cm, (x + 6)
cm, respectively. The sum of the areas of the first three squares is 525 cm².
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 5
(A) Express the length of a side of the nth frame in terms of x and n.
(B) Find the value of x.
(C) A piece of wire is 99 cm long. It is cut and bent into a frame in the sequence. Find the length of a side of the largest frame than can be formed.
OR
If the roots of the equation x2 +2cx + ab = 0 are real and unequal, prove that the equation x2 – 2(a + b)x + a2 + b2 + 2c2 = 0 has no real roots. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 6
The length of the sides of the sequence of squares are: x, x + 3, x + 6
It is an A.P. with a = x, d = 3
(A) So, side of the nth square = a + (n – 1 )d
= x + (n – 1)(3)
= x + 3n – 3

(B) It is given that
x2 + (x + 3)2 + (x + 6)2 = 525
⇒ 3x2 + 18x + 45 = 525
⇒ x2 + 6x- 160 = 0
⇒ x2 + 16x – 10x – 160 = 0
⇒ x (x + 16) – 10 (x + 16) = 0
⇒ (x + 16)(x – 10) = 0
⇒ x = 10 (∴ x ≠ -16)

(C) Side of the square formed with a wire of length 99 cm at the most can be \(\frac{99}{4}\) cm.
Thus, the side of the square with largest frame = 24 cm.

OR

The two equations are
x2 + 2cx + ab = 0 …(i)
and x2 – 2(a + b) x + a2 + b2 + 2c2 = 0 …(ii)
Let D1 and D2 be the discriminants of equations (i) and (ii), respectively.
Then,
D1 = (2c)2 – 4 × 1 × ab = 4 (c2 – ab)
D2 = (-2 (a + b))2 – 4 × 1 × (a2 + b2 + 2c2)
= 4 (a + b)2 – 4 (a22 + b2 + 2c2)
= 4 (a2 + b2 + 2ab) – 4a2 – 4b2 – 8c2
= 8ab – 8c2
= – 8 (c2 – ab)
Since, the roots of equation (i) are real and unequal Therefore,
D1 > 0
⇒ 4 (c2 – ab) > 0
⇒ c2 – ab > 0
⇒ – 8 (c2 – ab) < 0
⇒ D2 < 0
∴ Roots of equation (ii) are not real

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 28.
Let A(4,2), B(6,5) and C(1, 4) be the vertices of ∆ABC. The median AD from A meets BG in D. Find the coordinates of the point P on AD such that, AP: PD = 2 : 1. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 6

Question 29.
If tan θ = \(\frac{12}{13}\), evaluate \(\frac{2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}{\cos ^2 \theta-\sin ^2 \theta}\)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 7

Question 30.
There are 4 green marbles, 8 white marbles, and 5 red marbles in a box. Randomly, one marble is taken out of the box. What is the probability that the marble will be one of the following:
(A) Red
(B) White
(C) Not green
OR
A sphere of diameter 6 cm is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The diameter of the cylindrical vessel is 12 cm. If the sphere is completely submerged in water, by how much will the level of water rise in the cylindrical vessel? (3)
Answer:
Total number of marbles in the box = 5 + 8 + 4 = 17
Total number of elementary events = 17
(A) There are 5 red marbles in the box. Favourable number of elementary events = 5
P(getting a red marble) = \(\frac{5}{17}\)

(B) There are 8 white marbles in the box. Favourable number of elementary events = 8
P(getting a white marble) = \(\frac{8}{17}\)

(C) There are 5 + 8 = 13 marbles in the box, which are not green.
Favourable number of elementary events = 13
P(not getting a green marble) = \(\frac{13}{17}\)

OR

We have, Radius of the sphere = 3 cm
Volume of the sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\)π(3)3 cm3

Radius of the cylindrical vessel = 6 cm
Suppose water level rises by ‘h’ cm in the cylindrical vessel. Then,
Volume of the cylinder of height ‘h’ cm and radius 6 cm
= π(6)2 h cm3, i.e. 36π h cm3
Clearly, volume of water displaced by the sphere is equal to the volume of the sphere.
⇒ 36π h = 36π
⇒ h = 1 cm
Hence, water level rises by 1 cm.

Question 31.
If sec θ + tan θ = m, prove that \(\frac{m^2 – 1}{m^2 + 1}\) =sin θ.
Answer:
Proof:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 8

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Section – D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)

Question 32.
From the first floor of Qutab Minor, which 25 m from the level ground, a man observes the top of a building at an angle of elevation of 30° and the angle of depression of the base of the building to be 60°. Calculate the height, of the building. (5)
Answer:
Let the first floor of Qutab Minor AB be at the point x.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 9

Question 33.
In the figure, ABC and DBC are two triangles is at a height of on the same base BC. If AD intersects BC at Q,
show that \(\frac{\operatorname{ar}(\triangle \mathrm{ABC})}{\operatorname{ar}(\triangle D B C)}=\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{DO}}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 10
OR
Prove that the line segments joining the mid – points of the sides of a triangle form four triangles, each of which is similar to the original triangle. (5)
Answer:
Draw AM ⊥ BC and DN ⊥ BC
In As AOM and DON, we have:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 11
∠M = ∠N [Each = 90°]
∠AOM = ∠DON
[Vertically opposite angles]
So, by AA similarity criterion,
∆AOM ~ ADON .
\(\frac{\mathrm{AM}}{\mathrm{DN}}=\frac{\mathrm{AO}}{\mathrm{DO}}\) …(i)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 12
OR
Consider a triangle ABC with D, E, F as the mid-points of sides BC, CA, AB respectively.
Since, F and E are mid-points of AB and AC respectively,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 13
So, by mid-point theorem,
FE || BC ⇒ ∠AFE = ∠B
Thus, in ∆AFE and ∆ABC, we have:
∠AFE = ∠B and ∠A is common in both.
So, ∆AFE ~ ∆ABC
Similarly, AFBD ~ ∆ABC and AEDC ~ ∆ABC
Now, we shall show that ADEF ~ ∆ABC
Clearly, ED || AF and DF || EA
∴ AFDE is a parallelogram.
⇒ ∠EDF = ∠A
Similarly, BDEF is a parallelogram.
∴ ∠DEF = ∠B
Thus, in As DEF and ABC, we have:
∠EDF = ∠A, ∠DEF = ∠B
So, by AA similarity criterion, ADEF ~ ∆ABC
Thus, each one of the triangles AFE, FBD, EDC and DEF is similar to triangle ABC.

Question 34.
A piece of cloth costs f 35. If the piece were 4 m longer and each metre costs ? 1 less, the cost would remain unchanged. How long is the piece? (5)
Answer:
Let ‘l’ metres be the length of the piece, with a total cost of ₹ 35.
So, cost of 1 metre long piece = ₹ (\(\frac{35}{l}\))
Also, “l + 4” metres long piece costs ₹ 35.
So, cost of 1 metre long piece = ₹ \(\frac{35}{l+4}\)

As per the question;
\(\frac{35}{l+4}\) + 1 = \(\frac{35}{l}\)
\(\frac{35+l+4}{l+4}\) = \(\frac{35}{l}\)
⇒ 39l + l2 = 35l + 140
⇒ l2+4l-140 = 0
⇒ l2 + 14l – 10l – 140 = 0
⇒ l(l + 14) – 10(l+ 14) = 0
⇒ (l + 14) (l – 10) = 0
⇒ l – 10 = 0
[(l+14)≠0]
Thus, 10 metres is the length of the piece.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 35.
PQ is a 16 cm long chord of a circle with a 10 cm radius in given figure. At a point T, the tangents at P and Q come together. Determine TP’s length.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 14
OR
Find the mean and mode of the following frequency distribution:

Marks 0-9 10-19 20 -29 30 -39 40 -49 50-59
Number of students 4 6 12 6 7 5

Answer:
Given PQ = 16 cm
PO= 10 cm
To Find: TP
PR = RQ = \(\frac{16}{2}\) = 8 cm
[Perpendicular from the centre bisects the chord]
In ∆OPR
OR= \(\sqrt{OP^2-PR^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{10^2-8^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{100-64}\)
= \(\sqrt{36}\) = 6 cm
Let ∠POR be θ
In ∆POR, tan θ = \(\frac{PR}{RO}\) = \(\frac{8}{6}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{4}{3}\)
We know, OP ⊥ TP (Point of contact of a tangent is perpendicular to the line from the centre)
In ∆OTP, tan θ = \(\frac{OP}{TP}\)
\(\frac{4}{3}\) = \(\frac{10}{TP}\)
TP = \(\frac{10 × 3}{4}\) = \(\frac{15}{2}\) = 7.5 cm

OR

The given frequency distribution in “exclusive” form is:

Marks Frequency
0.5-9.5 4
9.5-19.5 6
19.5-29.5 12
29.5-39.5 6
39.5-49.5 7
49.5-59.5 5

Calculation of Mode:
Here, class with highest frequency is 19.5 – 29.5.
So, modal class = 19.5 – 29.5
Here modal class is 19.5 – 29.5
So, l = 19.5, f1 = 12, cf = 6, f0 = 6, f2 = 6 and h = 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 15

Calculation of Mean:
Let the assumed mean(A) be 34.5.

Class interval Mid-value (xi) fi di = fi– A A = 34.5 fidi
0.5-9.5 4.5 4 -30 -120
9.5-19.5 14.5 6 -20 -120
19.5-29.5 24.5 12 -10 -120
29.5-39.5 34.5 6 0 0
39.5-49.5 44.5 7 10 70
49.5-59.5 54.5 5 20 100
fi = 40 fidi = -190

Then, Mean = A + \(\frac{\Sigma f_i d_i}{\Sigma f_i}\)
Thus, Mean = 34.5 + \(\frac{(-190)}{40}\)
= 34.5 + \(\frac{(-19)}{4}\)
= 34.5 – 4.75
= 29.75

Section – E
(Case Study Based Questions)
(Section E consists of 3 questions. Ail are compulsory.)

Question 36.
Formula one Portugese Grand Prix technical team at the Algarve International Circuit are analysing last year data of drivers’ performance to provide valuable inferences to commentators on how the drivers can improve this year.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 16
The length of time taken by 80 drivers to complete a journey is given in the table below:

Times (in minutes) 70-80 80-90 90-100 100-110 110-120 120-130
Number of drivers 4 10 14 20 24 8

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) In which interval does the median of the distribution lie?
OR
Find the estimate of the mean time (in minutes) taken to complete the journey. (2)
(B) One driver is chosen at random. Find the probability that he took 90 minutes or less for the journey. (1)
(C) Two drivers are chosen at random. Find the probability that one took 80 minutes or less and other took more than 120 minutes for the journey. (1)
Answer:
(A)

Time f c.f.
70-80 4 4
80-90 10 14
90-100 14 28
100-110 20 48
110-120 24 72
120-130 8 80
Total 80

Then, \(\frac{N}{2}\) = 40
Cumulative frequency just greater than 40 is 48, which lies in the class interval 100¬110.
So, median class is 100-110.
OR

Time f xi fixi
70-80 4 75 300
80-90 10 85 850
90-100 14 95 1330
100-110 20 105 2100
110-120 24 115 2760
120-130 8 125 1000
Total 80 8340

Then, Mean = A + \(\frac{\Sigma f_i d_i}{\Sigma f_i}\)
Mean = 34.5 + \(\frac{8340}{80}\)
= 104.25

(B) P(takes less than 90 minutes),
= \(\frac{4+10}{80}\)
= \(\frac{14}{80}\)
= \(\frac{7}{40}\)

(C) Required probability,
= \(\frac{4}{80}\) × \(\frac{8}{80}\)
= \(\frac{1}{20}\) × \(\frac{1}{10}\)
= \(\frac{1}{200}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 37.
Google maps cartography team is working on improving the scalability quality of maps when you use the app on your phones to zoom in using 4 fingers. They are using a proprietary tool called ‘MapMaker’ to figure out scalability factors. A mathematical model is created for a type of object (below cross¬section) to test its scalability on maps app.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 17
In the diagram, AC = 8 cm, CE = 4 cm and the area of the triangle BECis 4.2 sq cm.
Another enlargement with centre E, maps AEBC onto AEFA. BC = 3.6 cm.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 18
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) An enlargement, with centre A, maps ∆ABC onto ∆ADE, then find the scale factor of the enlargement. (1)
(B) Find the length of AF. (1)
(C) Calculate the area of ∆ABC.
OR
Find the area of ∆EFA. (2)
Answer:
(A) Scale factor = \(\frac{AC}{AE}\)
= \(\frac{AC}{AC+CE}\) = \(\frac{8}{8+4}\)
= \(\frac{8}{12}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

(B) Since, ∆EBC ~ ∆EAF
\(\frac{EC}{EA}\) = \(\frac{BC}{AF}\)
\(\frac{4}{12}\) = \(\frac{3.6}{AF}\)
⇒ AF = 3.6 × 3
= 10.8 cm

(C) In ∆ABC, using Pythagoras theorem,
we have
AB2 = BC2 + AB2
AB2 = 64 – 12.96
= 51.04
⇒ AB = 7.15

∴ Area of ∆ABC = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × BC × AB
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3.6 × 17.5
= 12.87

OR
Since, with centre E enlargement as done to ∆EBC and ∆EFA.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 19

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions

Question 38.
Amrita makes biscuits. The amount of mixture required to make one biscuit is 18 cu cm. Before it is cooked, the mixture is rolled into a sphere. After the biscuit is cooked, the biscuit becomes a cylinder of radius 3 cm and height 0.7 cm ( The increase in volume is due to air being trapped in the biscuit)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 2 with Solutions - 20
The cross – section of the box is a regular hexagon, containing 7 biscuits , arranged in Diagram I.
Three of the biscuits are shown in Diagram II. O is the centre of the hexagon and of the middle biscuits. B is the point where two biscuits touch. A and C are the centres of these biscuits. E is the mid – point of the side DF of the box.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the length of OB. (1)
(B) Find the length of OE. (1)
(C) Find the volume of the biscuits after it is cooked and also find the air trapped, while cooling the biscuit.
OR
Using the concept of similarity of triangles, find the length of a side of the box. (2)
Answer:
(A) Length of OB = \(\sqrt{OA^2 – AB^2}\)
(using Pythagoras theorem in ΔOBA)
= \(\sqrt{36 – 9}\)
= \(\sqrt{27}\)
= 5.19 5.2 cm

(B) Length of BE = 3 cm
Length of OE = OB + BE = 5.2 + 3
= 8.2 cm
(C) Volume of a biscuit, after cooking = Volume of cylinder = πr2h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3 × 3 × 0.7 7
= 22 × 0.9
= 19.8 cu cm

Air trapped = Volume of a biscuit after cooking – Volume of a biscuit before cooking
= 19.8 – 18
= 1.8 cu. cm

OR

Since, ∆OAB = ∆ODE
\(\frac{OB}{OE}\) = \(\frac{AB}{DE}\)
⇒ \(\frac{5.2}{8.2}\) = \(\frac{3}{DE}\)
∴ DE = 4.73
∴ DF = 2 × DE = 9.4 cm

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

  • This question paper contains 34 questions.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.
  • Answers should be brief and to the point.
  • Answers to the questions carrying 3 marks may be from 50 to 75 words.
  • Answers to the questions carrying 4 marks may be about 150 words.
  • Answers to the questions carrying 6 marks may be about 200 words.
  • Attempt all parts of the questions together.

Question 1.
Rythym Ltd. is an electronics manufacturing company. It started its business with LCD televisions and slowly launched the complete range of electronics products. It offered various services like after sales service, availability of spare parts, exchange facilities etc. Identify the element of marketing mix referred here.
(a) Product
(b) Price
(c) Place
(d) Promotion (1)
Answer:
(a) Product

Explanation: Product means goods or services or any thing of value which is offered to the market for exchange. The concept of product relates not only to physical product but also the benefits offered by it such as after sales service, handling complaints, availability of spare parts etc. Here, in this case, Rythym Ltd. is not only offering the physical product but also the after sales service, availability of spare parts.

Related Theory
Price is the amount of money customers have to pay to obtain the product. Place include activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers.Promotion of products and services include activities that communicate availability feature etc.

Question 2.
“He keeps machines, materials, tools etc. ready for operations by concerned workers.” Whose work is described by this sentence under functional foremanship?
(a) Instruction card clerk
(b) Repair boss
(c) Gang boss
(d) Route clerk (1)
Answer:
(c) Gang boss

Explanation: Under functional foremanship, gang boss is responsible for keeping machines and tools etc. ready for operations by workers. He works under the production incharge.

Related Theory
Instruction card clerk is responsible for drafting instructions for the workers and works under the planning incharge.Repair boss is responsible for ensuring proper working condition of machines. He works under the production incharge.Route clerk is responsible for specifying the route of the production. He works under the planning incharge.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 3.
Which of the following does not characterise the business environment?
(a) Uncertainty
(b) Employees
(c) Relativity
(d) Complexity (1)
Answer:
(b) Employees

Explanation: Business environment is the sum total of all individuals, institutions and other forces that are outside the control of a business enterprise but that may effect its performance. They exist outside its boundaries. Employees are the internal factors of business and as such does not characterise the business environment.

Related Theory
The characteristics of business environment are:

  • Totality of external forces
  • Specific and general forces
  • Inter relatedness
  • Dynamic nature
  • Uncertainty
  • Complexity
  • Relativity.

Question 4.
Jwala Ltd. is engaged in manufacturing washing machines. The target of the organisation is to manufacture 800 washing machines a day. There is an occupational specialisation in the organisation which promotes eff iciency of employees. There is no duplication of efforts in such type of organisation structure. Identify the type of organisation structure described here:
(a) Functional structure
(b) Divisional structure
(c) Decentralisation
(d) None of the above (1)
Answer:
(a) Functional structure

Explanation: Functional structure involves grouping of employee positions into departments as per the organisation’s
functions. Each department have specialised and similar skills, expertise, work activities and resource use. This structure emphasises functional specialisation and active information sharing within each function.

Related Theory
Pervasive feature of planning means that scope of planning differs at different levels and among different departments. Futuristic feature of planning means planning involves looking ahead and preparing for the future.

The purpose of planning is to meet future events effectively to the best advantage of an organisation. Continuous feature of planning means a plan is framed, implemented and is followed by another plan. It is a continuous cycle.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 5.
Match the concepts of marketing in column I and their related definition in column II:

Column I Column I
(A) Public Relations (i) Paid form of non personal communication undertaken by the marketer
(B) Personal selling (ii) Short term incentives offered by the marketers to promote the sale of their products
(C) Advertis­ing (iii) Personal form of communication between the seller and prospective buyer
(D) Sales Promotion (iv) Practice of managing communication between an organistion and public

(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) (1)
Answer:
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)

Explanation: Public relations covers a broad series of activities where a business manages its relationship with different parts of the public to achieve favourable publicity.

Personal selling involves oral presentation of message in the form of conversation with one or more prospective customers for the purpose of making sales.

Advertising is an impersonal form of communication which is paid for by the marketers to promote some goods or services. Sales Promotion refers to short term incentives designed to encourage the buyers to make immediate purchase of a product or service.

Question 6.
To see whether plans are being implemented and activities are being performed according to the schedule, is one of the steps of planning process. Identify the step.
(a) Setting objectives
(b) Developing premises
(c) Selecting an alternative
(d) Follow up action (1)
Answer:
(d) Follow up action

Explanation: Monitoring the plans is important to ensure that objectives are achieved. Follow up of the plan is done to see whether plans are being implemented and activities are performed according to schedule.

Related Theory
Planning is deciding in advance what to do and how to do. It is a process of decision making. The logical steps of

planning process are:

  • Setting objectives
  • Developing premises
  • Identifying alternative courses of action
  • Evaluating alternative courses
  • Selecting an alternative
  • Implement the plan
  • Follow up action

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 7.
Protex Ltd. is a company dealing in sports equipments. The company is earning huge profits but the liquidity position of the company is not too good. So it decided to declare less dividends in the current financial
year. Identify the factor related to dividend decision being described in above lines.
(a) Preference of shareholders
(b) Earnings
(c) Cash flow position
(d) Contractual constraints (1)
Answer:
(c) Cash flow position

Explanation: Dividends involve an outflow of cash. A company may be profitable but short on cash. Here, in this case, the company is earning huge profits but due to low liquidity, it declares less dividend in the current financial year.

Related Theory
Preference of shareholders: While declaring dividends, managements usually keep in mind the preference of shareholders. If the shareholders, in general, desire that a certain amount be paid as dividend, the company are likely to declare the same. Earnings is a major determinant of dividend decision as dividends are paid out of current and past earnings.

Contractual constraints: While granting loans to a company sometimes a lender may impose certain restrictions on the payment of dividends in future.

Question 8.
Agrotech Ltd., a reputed agricultural machinery manufacturer needs ₹ 25 crores to expand its business. The CEO of the company wanted to raise the funds through public issue of equity shares.

On the other hand, the Finance Manager suggested that the public issue may be expensive on account of various mandatory and non mandatory expenses. Therefore, the company decided to allot the securities to institutional investors. Name the method through which company decided to raise additional capital.
(a) Rights issue
(b) Private placement
(c) Offer for sale
(d) Offer through prospectus (1)
Answer:
(b) Private placement

Explanation: Private placement is the allotment of securities by a company to institutional investors or some selected individuals. It helps to raise capital more quickly than public issue.

Related Theory
Rights issue is a privilege given to existing shareholders to subscribe to a new issue of shares according to the terms and conditions of the company. In offer for sale method, securities are not issued directly to the public but are offered for sale through intermediaries like issuing houses or stock brokers.

Offer through prospectus is the most popular method of raising funds by public companies in the primary market. This involves inviting subscription from public through issue of prospectus.

Question 9.
“These agencies are run by government and help to match personnel demand and supply by serving as link between job-seekers and employers.” Name the source of recruitment.
(a) Promotion
(b) Direct recruitment
(c) Referenece from the existing employees
(d) Employment exchange (1)
Answer:
(d) employment exchance

Explanation : Employment exchanges run by the Government are regarded as a good source of recruitment for unskilled and skilled operative jobs.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 10.
Identify the process: It is a systematic learning, always better than hit and trial methods which lead to wastage of efforts and money.
(a) Deveopment
(b) Training
(c) Education
(d) All of the above (1)
Answer:
(b) Training

Explanation : Training is any process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities of employees to perform specific jobs are increased. It is a process of learning new skills and application of knowledge

Question 11.
State the element of directing which helps in fulfilling the needs of the employees in an organisation.
(a) Motivation
(b) Leadership
(c) Supervision
(d) Communication (1)
Answer:
(c) Supervision

Explanation : It means overseeing what is being done by subordinates and giving instructions to ensure optimum utilisation of resources and achievement of work targets.

Question 12.
Cool Air Ltd. is a reputed brand in air coolers. To earn more profits, the company started using sub standard electric wiring in its coolers. Which consumer right is violated by the company here?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to seek redressal (1)
Answer:
(a) Right to safety

Explanation : The right to safety is referred to as “the right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property” (NCDRC, 2002). This right is associated with consumers’ right to obtain appropriate information about goods and services through marketing to make intelligent and informed choices.

Related Theory
The other rights of the consumers as per the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 are:

  • Right to be informed
  • Right to choose
  • Right to be heard
  • Right to seek redressal
  • Right to consumer education

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 13.
Shaista Khan is the financial manager in Prem and sons. She identifies different available sources and compares these sources in terms of costs and associated risks for the optimal procurement of funds. Identify the concept highlighted here.
(a) Financial planning
(b) Management audit
(c) Financial management
(d) None of the above (1)
Answer:
(c) Financial management

Question 14.
Rajkumar and sons is a leading firm in clothings. Two years back the company had decided to increase the profit share among the shareholders. Identify the type of decision:
(a) Investment decision
(b) Financing decision
(c) Dividend decision
(d) None of the above (1)
Answer:
(b) Financing decision

Question 15.
The Myntra is the leading online plateform for fassion attires. It is proposing to issue new shares through online system of stock exchange and has entered into an agreement with stock exchange. What would this type of stock exchange instrument be?
(a) Right issue
(b) ESOP
(c) e-IPO
(d) None of these (1)
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 16.
For the following two statements choose the correct option:
Statement I: Any registered organisation can file a complaint.
Statement II: A legal hire or representative of a deceased consumer can file a complaint.
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong
(b) Statement II is correct and I is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect (1)
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 17.
Vikas was the Chief Operating Officer of ‘Yalet Ltd., a company providing advanced software solutions to Indian Defence Services. They had been carrying on business successfully for the last twelve years and earning enough profits.

But from the last one year, they realised that though the business is getting big orders which are being fulfilled in time, even then the revenues kept on decreasing. Vikas was not able to find out where the problem was. He started keeping a close check on the progress of activities as he could sense that something was wrong. He wanted to take some action before any major damage could

be done to the business. Vikas appointed a cyber security expert who monitored the company’s processes and found out that the computer operator was deleting the entries from the computers and pocketing the revenues. He was caught and handed over to the police.

This created an atmosphere of order and discipline in the organization and helped in minimizing dishonest behaviour on the part of the employees. Identify the function of management highlighted in the above paragraph.
(a) Directing
(b) Controlling
(c) Staffin
(d) Organising (1)
Answer:
(b) Controlling

Explanation : Controlling means ensuring that activities in an organisation are performed as per the plans.

Question 18.
Harsh asked for a bottle of mineral water from a shopkeeper. The maximum retail price printed on the bottle was Rs.12, whereas the shopkeeper was charging Rs.35. Inspite of many arguments the shopkeeper was not ready to sell the bottle for less than Rs.35. Harsh was in need of it and had no option except to buy. As an aware consumer name the ‘Right’ which Horsh can exercise.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education (1)
Answer:
(b) Right to be heard

Explanation : The consumer has a right to file a complaint and to be heard in case of dissatisfaction with a good or a service.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 19.
Which one of the following is not a steps to be followed in an organising process:
(a) Departmentalization,
(b) Establishing reporting relationships,
(c) Comparing actual performance with the standard performance
(d) Assignment of duties (1)
Answer:
(c) comparing actual performance with the standard performance

Explanation : Identification and division of work, departmentalization, assignment of duties for establishing reporting relationships.

Question 20.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions img-1
Consumer should only purchase standardised products. On which type of products the above logo is printed?
(a) Jewellery
(b) Edibles
(c) Agriculture product
(d) Electronics (1)
Answer:
(b) Edibles

Question 21.
It is deciding in advance what to do and how to do. It is one of the basic managerial functions. It requires that before doing something, the manager must formulate an idea of how to work on a particular task. This function is closely connected with creativity and innovation. It seeks to bridge the gap between where we are and where we want to go and is performed at all levels of management.
(a) Identify the function of management discussed here.
(b) Inspite of this, the function of management referred above has a number of limitations. Explain any two such limitations.

OR

Comfort shoes Ltd. is a leading shoe manufacturer. It plans a substantial increase in production and sales this year and to achieve this it has given targets to all its departments and employees in advance.

The employees are happy as they won’t have to do unconcerned activities and focus more on their targets resulting in saving of resources. The company also plans to start two new plants in south India.

The main core team of the company has decided to weigh all the options and choose the best one In the above case, identify the importance of planning highlighted. (3)
Answer:
(a) The function of management discussed here is planning. Planning involves setting objectives and developing appropriate courses of actions to achieve these objectives.

(b) The two limitations of planning are:
(i) Planning leads to rigidity: In an organisation, a well defined plan is drawn up with specific goals to be achieved with in a specified time period. These plans then decide the future course of action and the organisation may not be in a position to change it. This kind of rigidity in plans may create difficulty.

(ii) Planning reduces creativity: Planning is an activity which is done by the top management. Middle management and other decision makers are neither allowed to deviate from plans nor they are permitted to act on their own. Thus, much of the initiative or creativity inherent in them also gets lost or reduced.

OR

The importance of planning highlighted in the case are:
(i) Planning provides direction: “It has given targets to all its departments and employees in advance.” By stating in advance for action planning ensures that the goals or objective are clearly stated so that they act as a guide for deciding what action should be taken and in which direction.

(ii) Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities: “They won’t have to do unconcerned activities and focus more on their targets resulting in saving of resources.” Planning serves as the basis of coordinating the activities and efforts of different divisions, departments and
individuals.

(iii) Planning facilitates decision making: “The main core team has decided to weigh all the options and choose the best one.” Planning helps to look into the future and make a choice from amongst various alternative courses of action.

Caution
Do not write all the points of importance of planning. Only these points should be written which are mentioned in the given case.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 22.
“Explain any three different networks of grapevine communication”.

OR

Subodh started a confectionery business. His business was doing well. He ensured the quality and taste of his items was good and the standards were regularly maintained. He focused on home delivery of his products packed in very attractive packaging.

The products were always delivered on time and he had a satisfied customers following. Unfortunately, he met with an accident and was not able to look after his business for three months.

In his absence, his business was looked after by his cousin, Rajat. When he resumed his work after three months, he noticed that his sale has dropped and there were lot of complaints from the customers.

All this happened because most of his previous staff has left as Rajat was very strict and rude to the staff. In context of the above case:
(a) List any two aspect about his business that Subodh was controlling in order to make it successful.
(b) Explain briefly any two points to highlight the importance of controlling function. (3)
Answer:
The three different networks of grapevine communication are:
(i) Single strand: In a single strand, a person conveys a message to a trustworthy person who in turn passes that information to another trustworthy person forming a single chain.

(ii) Gossip chain: In a gossip chain, a person conveys an interesting message to more than one person or to a group of people.

(iii) Probability: In this form of communication, a person is indifferent about some known/ made-up information and he/she expresses this information randomly to a group of people.

OR

(a) The two aspects about his business that Subodh was controlling in order to make it successful are:

  • The quality and taste of his items was good and standards were regularly maintained.
  • The products were always delivered on time.

(b) The two points that highlight the importance of the controlling function are as follows:
(i) Judging accuracy of standards: The controlling function helps the business managers to judge the objectivity and accuracy of the current standards. It also assists in reviewing and revising the standards keeping in view of the forthcoming changes in both the internal and external environment of the business.

(ii) Improving employee motivation: The controlling function seeks to motivate the employees and helps them to give better performance. This is because it makes them aware well in advance about what they are expected to do and what the standards of performance are, on the basics of which they will be judged.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 23.
Ashish, the marketing head, Raman, the assistant manager and Jyoti, the human resource manager of Senar Enterprises Ltd. decided to leave the company. The Chief Executive Officer of the company called Jyoti, the human resource manager and requested her to fill up the vacancies before leaving the organisation.

Informing that her subordinate Miss Alka Pandit was very competent and trustworthy, Jyoti suggested that if she could be moved up in the heirarchy, she would do the needfuL The chief executive officer agreed the same. Miss Alka Pandit contacted Keith Recruiters who advertised for the past of marketing head for Senar Enterprises Ltd. They were able to recruit a suitable candidate for the company.

Raman’s vacancy was filled up by screening the database of unsolicited database lying in the office.
(a) Identify the internal/external sources of recruitment used by Senar Enterprises Ltd. to fill up the above stated vacancies.
(b) Also state any one merit of each of above identified source of recruitment. (3)
Answer:
(a) The sources of recruitment used to fill up the vacancies are:
(i) The post of human resource managere is filled by promotion which is an internal source of recruitment.

(ii) The post of Ashish, the marketing head was filled through placement agencies, which is external source of recruitment.

(iii) The post of Raman, the assistant manager is filled through casual callers.

(b) The merits of the identified sources of recruitment are as follows:
(i) Promotions: It helps to improve the motivation, loyalty and satisfaction level of employees. It has a great psychological impact over the employees because a promotion at the higher level may lead to a chain of promotions at lower levels in the organisation.

(ii) Placement agencies and management consultants: These help in recruiting right type of personnel. They can entice the needed top executives from other companies by making the right offers.

(iii) Casual callers: This source of recruitment reduces the cost of recruiting workforce in comparison to other sources.

Caution
In this question, only merits are asked. Do not give excessive explanation of the meaning.

Question 24.
Explain the advantages of branding to marketers of goods and services. (3)
Answer:
The advantages of branding to marketers of goods and services are:
(i) Helps in advertising: A marketer can easily make aware the consumers about the product and can communicate the characteristics and distinctiveness of the product through a brand name.

(ii) Establishes identity: Branding creates a unique identity that can be differentiated with similar products. This in turn also ensures customer loyalty for a brand.

(iii) Differential pricing: An established brand name can allow a business to change the prices of the product and remain competitive in comparison to their competitors.

Question 25.
“A successful enterprise has to achieve its goals effictively and effectively.” Explain. (4)
Answer:
It is important for a management to be both effective and efficient. Management has to see that task are completed and goals are achieved with the minimum resources. Management is, thus, getting things done with aim of achieving goals effectively and efficiently.

Being effective basically means finishing the given task in time. It is concerned with end result. Eff iciency means doing the work correctly and with minimum cost. It is, thus, essential for any organisation to focus on eff iciency as well as effectiveness. It is not only important to complete the work correctly but equally important to complete it with minimum cost.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 26.
Explain, why is it said that principles of management are ‘mainly behaviourial’ and ‘contingent’ in nature. Also explain how principles of management ‘provides managers with useful insights into reality’ and ‘helps in thoughtful decision making.

OR

Which that technique of scientific management does work as is the strongest motivator for a worker to reach standard performance. (4)
Answer:
Principles of management are mainly behavioural and contingent in nature. This can be summarised as below:
(i) Mainly behavioural: Management principles aim at influencing behaviour of human beings. Therefore, principles of management are mainly behavioural in nature. Moreover, principles enable a better understanding of the relationship between human and material resources in accomplishing organisational goals.

(ii) Contingent: The application of principles of management is contingent or dependent upon the prevailing situation at a particular point of time. The application of principles has to be changed as per requirements. The principles of management provides managers with useful insights into reality and it helps in thoughtful decision making.

These can be explained by the following points:
(i) Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and collective wisdom of managers as well as experimentation. Thus, these principles guide the managers, when they face the real world problems. Managers, can use them in different situations to solve the problems, which are of recurring nature.

(ii) Cause and effect relationship: The principles of management are intended to establish relationship between cause and effect so that they can be used in similar situations in a large number of cases. Decisions regarding management should be taken carefully. They should be based on reasons and facts.

As principles of management were developed from real life problems, so they stand the test of logic and reasoning. Thus, principles of management help the managers in taking logical decisions that are free from personal bias.

OR

‘Standardisation and simplification of work is the strongest motivator for a worker to reach standard performance. Standardisation of work means that the processes of work are well-integrated, specified or programmed. It attempts to eliminate spoilage and wastage of resources.

Accordingly, standardisation of work during production involves consistent form, size, composition, methods and quality maintained for all products/services. Alternatively, simplification of work means processes involved are consistent in terms of effort, costs and time.

Simplification of work complements standardisation by creating consistency in products/processes in terms of sizes, weights, types, qualities, etc. Simplification of work aims at restricting production of products to limited qualities or types that facilitate efficiency in resources utilised in the business. It attempts to eliminate useless and disadvantageous diversity and variety.

Question 27.
Sunrise Ltd. follows a strict policy of adhering to plans laid to achieve organisational goals. All the managers are expected to work according to the plans and no flexibility is provided in the per-decided plans.

Mr. Mohit, the Sales Manager in the company, had to loose a very big order from the buyer as the buger had demanded an extra discount of 1% but Mr. Mohit could not allow any further discount from the maximum discount already allowed by the company.

The company had to loose the order and hence suffer losses.
(a) Which two limitations of planning are reflected here?
(b) How can this limitation be overcome? (4)
Answer:
(a) The two limitations of planning reflected in this case are:
(i) Planning leads to rigidity: The limitation of planning may lead to rigidity as Mr. Mohit could not offer 1% extra discount and had to loose a big order and hence suffer losses. In an organisation, a well defined plan is drawn up with specific goals to be achieved. These plans then decide the future course of action and managers may not be is a position to change it. This kind of rigidity in plans create diff iculty.

(ii) Planning reduces creativity: Planning is an activity which is done by the top management Usually, the rest of the members of the organisation just implement these plans. The managers are neither allowed to deviate from these plans nor are they permitted to act on their own. Here, Mr. Mohit is not allowed any flexibility and he is restricted to use his creativity inherited in him.

(b) These limitations of planning could be overcome if:
(i) The policy could have been made flexible during its preparation process. During the preparation time, the management should have used foresight and made an exception for some customers subject to following some conditions.

(ii) Accordingly, Mr. Mohit could have been empowered wherein he could be able to negotiate the terms and provided an extra discount to bag the order and thus avoiding potential losses.

Caution
Only those limitation should be emphasised, which are mentioned in the given case.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 28.
Explain the stepwise process of planning. (4)
Answer:
The steps in the process of planning are detailed below:
(i) Setting objectives: The first step under planning process is to establish objectives for the entire business and then for each of the subordinate work unit (production, administration, finance, legal, IT, etc.). These objectives have to be set for the long-term as well as for the short term.

(ii) Considering planning premises: A premise is a statement or a proposition based on certain assumptions about the business environment in which the plan has to be carried out. The assumptions considered to develop a premise are further based on information gathered from the previous two steps.

Accordingly, forecasting methods are considered while formulating planning premises for determining the market conditions, possible volume (or value) of sales, potential prices of products/ services, existing or possible technical developments, possible costs, wage rates, tax rates, competition, social or political environment, etc.

(iii) Identifying alternatives: The next step involves identifying alternative course of actions or a sequence of activities that will be required to attain the required objective. A preliminary examination of all these activities could be fruitful to discover prior to implementing the plans.

Alternative course of actions can include options depicting comparative costs and benefits, possible opportunities or risks associated with the activities planned for achieving organisational goals and objectives.

(iv) Comparing alternatives: The alternatives identified from the previous step needs to be examined for their strengths and weaknesses by weighing them in light of premises and goals. Some factors that can be considered during the planning process to identify their strengths and weaknesses are costs, possible profits, productivity, quality, competitors’ practices that are legitimate in the market or for customers, etc.

(v) Choosing an alternative: This step involves carefully choosing the right plan to achieve the stated goals and objectives of a business. The selection of a plan will be based on thorough analysis conducted by the managers of the business and can also go through iterative meetings and discussions.

(vi) Implement the plan: After selecting a suitable plan, suitable human and physical resources are allocated for effective implementation of the plan. The sequential order of the work and relevant people required or responsible for undertaking prescribed activities in the plan are decided.

(vii) Follow-up action: Planning process continues with following up on the implemented plan to review its progress.
This step is undertaken to ensure that all actions mentioned in the plans successfully cater to the organisational goals and objectives.

Question 29.
“Leadership indicates the ability of an individual to motivate its followers to contribute for achieving organisational objectives.” Discuss.

OR

“Motivation means incitement or inducement to act or move”. Explain the features of motivation.(4)
Answer:
Leadership is the process of influencing the behaviour of people by making them strive voluntarily towards achievement of organisational goals. The important features of leadership are as follows:

  1. Leadership indicaties ability of an individual to influence others;
  2. Leadership tries to bring change in the behaviour of others;
  3. Leadership indicates interpersonal relations between Leaders and followers;
  4. Leadership is exercised to achieve common goals of the organisation;

OR

Motivation is the act or process of giving someone a reason to act towards a desired goal. It is a psychological factor that stimulates people to act in a desired manner. The features of motivation are as follows:
(i) Internal feeling: Motivation is a an inner psychological force which compels employees to behave in a particular manner originating from personal needs, recognition, power, sense of recognition, etc.

(ii) Goal directed behaviour: Motivation is a process of stimulating and channelising individuals’ energies towards achieving certain goals.

(iii) Positive or negative motivation: Motivation, however, can be positive or negative wherein positive includes incentives rewards or bonuses and negative includes punishment, fear, use of force, etc.

(iv) Complex process: The process of motivation requires analysing and understanding of human behaviour that can determine factors which lead to desirable working behaviour which can be complex and challenging.

Question 30.
Name and define the activity which essentially involves preparation of financial blue print of an enterprise’s future operations. Also state any two reasons why this activity is important? (6)
Answer:
Financial planning is the blue print of an enterprise’s future operations. It can be defined as the process and function of estimating capital requirements of a business, determining the forms and proportion of sources or capital for use and formulating policies for administration of funds. Financial planning is important because of following reason.
(i) Adequate funds: Financial planning aims to plan adequate and sufficient funds to carry out daily business operations that cater to short-term, medium-term and long-term goals.

(ii) Minimum cost of capital: Financial planning involves determining an appropriate mix of equity and debt, which makes capital available at minimum cost.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 31.
“Riling vacancies from within the organisation has some advantages as well as limitations”. (6)
Answer:
Filling up vacancies within the organisation are internal sources of recruitment. When need of human resources arises in the organisation, it is said that, ‘Best employees can be found within the organisation.” The advantages of internal sources of recruitment are as follows:
(i) Sense of security: It creates a sense of security among employees where they are motivated to work and perform effectively.

(ii) Motivates efficiency: It facilitates better utilisation of skills, experience and qualifications of existing employees.

(iii) No induction training: People within the organisation are familiar with the job, people and the workplace and do not need induction training. The limitations of internal sources of recruitment are:

(iv) Limited choices: This method limits the choice of selection to few candidates within the enterprise instead of a more diverse workforce thereby keeping a large pool of potential employees in the market untapped.

(v) Encourages favouritism and nepotism: There may be biasness or partiality in promoting or transferring employees from within an organisation which in turn could reduce the morale of employees to work hard.

(vi) Leads to lethargy: It creates lethargy among employees who get a feeling of promotion and recognition and affects their performance that restricts new and innovative ideas.

Question 32.
Marketing is not merely exchange of goods and services from producers to consumers but involves many other activities. From the view point of management function, explain any five activities involved in marketing.

OR

“Though advertising is one of the most frequently used media of promotion of goods and services, yet it attracts lot of objections.” Explain any five such objections. (6)
Answer:
Marketing is concerned with exchange of goods and services from producers to consumers is such a way that maximises the satisfaction of customer’s needs.

The activities involved in marketing are:
(i) Gathering and analysing market information: One of the important functions of a marketer is to gather and analyse market information. This is necessary to identify the needs of the customers and take various decisions for the successful marketing of the products and services.

(ii) Marketing planning: Another important activity or area of work of a marketer is to develop appropriate marketing plans so that the marketing objectives of the organisation can be achieved.

(iii) Product designing and development: Another important marketing activity relates to product designing and development. The design of the product contributes to making the product attractive to the target customers. A good design can improve performance of a product and also give it a competitive advantage in the market.

(iv) Standardisation and grading: Standardisation refers to producing goods of pre determined specifications, which helps in achieving uniformity and consistency in the output.

(v) Packaging and labelling: Packaging refers to designing the package for the products. Labelling refers to designing the label to be put an the package. Label may vary from a simple tag to complex graphics.

OR

The objections of advertising are as follows:
(i) Undermines social values: One of the important criticism of advertising is that it undermines social values and promotes materialism. It breeds discontent among people as they come to know new products and feel dissatisfied with their present state affairs.

(ii) Adds to cost: The opponents of advertising argue that advertising unnecessarily adds to the cost of the product, in the form of high prices.

(iii) Confuses the buyers: Another criticism against advertisement is that so many products are being advertised which makes similar claims by which the buyer gets confused as to which are is true and which are should be relied upon.

(iv) Encourages sale of inferior products: Advertising does not distinguish between superior and inferior products and persuade people to purchase even the inferior products.

(v) Some advertisements are in bad taste: Another criticism against advertising is that some advertisements are in bad taste. These show something which is not approved by some people.

Question 33.
Why is the understanding of business environment important for managers? State any five points. (6)
Answer:
The understanding of business environment is important for managers because of the following reasons:
(i) Determining strategies and policies: The study of the business environment helps a business to develop broad strategies and long-term policies, which aims at devising specific methods, plans, rules and guidelines leading to desired future goals of the organisation.

(ii) Ensuring optimum utilisation ofresources: A thorough understanding of internal and external environment will enable a business to optimally utilise its human as well as other resources.

(iii) Analysing competitors’ strategies: The business environment continuously keeps collecting and displaying strategies adopted by competitors, so that, businesses can formulate effective counter- plans to face them.

(iv) Maintaining business dynamism and innovation: A business can become alert and dynamic by being aware of changes in their surroundings and can accordingly, either expand their businesses when market is favourable and/or prepare them if there are any possible unfavourable conditions.

(v) Determining strengths and weaknesses: Awareness on business environment can assist in identifying the strengths or weaknesses or positive or negative aspects which are generally in direct control of the business or the decision-maker. These aspects can be weighed and compared to determine their performance vis-a-vis to their competitive standing in the market.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Set 10 with Solutions

Question 34.
Explain briefly the factors affecting the fixed capital requirements of an organisation.
OR
“Rnancial planning is an important part of overall planning of any business enterprise.” Explain.(6)
Answer:
The factors affecting the fixed capital requirement of an organisation are: (any four)
(i) Nature of business: The type of business has a bearing upon the fixed capital requirements. For example, a trading concern needs lower investment in fixed assets as compared with a manufacturing organisation

(ii) Scale of operation: A larger organisation operating at a higher scale needs bigger plants, more space etc. and therefore, requires higher investment in fixed assets when compared with small organisations.

(iii) Choice of technique: Some organisations are capital intensive whereas other are labour intensive. A capital intensive organisation requires higher investment in plant and machinery as it relies less on manual labour.

(iv) Technology upgradation: In certain industries, assets become obsolete sooner. Consequently, their replacements become due faster. Higher investments in fixed assets may, therefore, be required in such cases.

(v) Growth prospects: Higher growth of an organisation generally requires higher investment in fixed assets.

(vi) Diversification: A firm may choose to diversify its operations for various reasons. With diversification, fixed capital requirement increase.

(vii) Financing alternatives: A developed financial market may provide leasing facilities as an alternative to outright purchase. When an asset is taken on lease, the firm pays lease rentals and uses it. By doing so, it avoids huge sums required to purchase it.

(viii) Level of collaboration: At times, certain business organisations share each other’s facilities. Such collaborations reduces the level of investment in fixed assets.

OR

Financial planning aims at enabling the company to tackle the uncertainty in respect of the availability and timing of the funds and helps in smooth functioning of an organisation. The importance of financial planning can be explained as follows:
(i) It tries to forecast what may happen in future under different business situations. By doing so, it helps the firms to face the eventual situation in a better way. In other words, it makes the firm better prepared to face the future.

(ii) It helps in avoiding business shocks and surprises and helps the company in preparing for the future.

(iii) It helps in coordinating various business functions e.g. sales and production functions, by providing clear policies and procedures.

(iv) Detailed plans of action prepared under financial planning reduce waste, duplication of efforts, and gaps in planning.

(v) It tries to link the gap between present and future.

(vi) It provides a link between investment and financing decisions on a continuous process.

(vii) By spelling out detailed objectives for various segments, it makes the evaluation of actual performance easier.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper is divided into four sections.
  2. There are 38 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Section A includes questions No. 1-20. These are MCQ-type questions. As per the question, there can be one answer.
  4. Section B includes questions No. 21-29. These are very short answer-type questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each the question should not exceed 30 words.
  5. Section C includes questions No. 30-35. They are short answer type questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
  6. Section D includes questions No. 36-38. They are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 200 words. Question no 38 is to be answered with the help of the passage given.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Famines were also a major and recurring source of increased mortality”. Which of the following is not a cause of famines? [1]
(A) Continuing poverty and malnutrition in an agro-climatic environment
(B) Inadequate means of transportation and communication
(C) Failure of entitlements
(D) Increasing birth rate
Answer:
(D) Increasing birth rate

Explanation: Famine is a result of a shortage of food
and not an increase in births.

Question 2.
Right to Information campaign is an example of: [1]
(A) Reformist Movement
(B) Redemptive Movement
(C) Revolutionary Movement
(D) Counter Movement
Answer:
(A) Reformist Movement

Directions: In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of the reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Matriarchy, unlike patriarchy, has been a theoretical rather than an empirical concept.
Reason (R): There is no historical or anthropological evidence of matriarchy- i.e., societies where women exercise dominance. [1]
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: There do exist matrilineal societies, i.e., societies where women inherit property from their mothers but do not exercise control over it, nor are they the decision-makers in public affairs. But matriarchy only exists as conceptual opposition to patriarchy

Question 4.
invented a new system in the 1890s, which he called Scientific Management. [1]
(A) Henry Ford
(B) Frederick Winslow Taylor
(C) Karl Marx 1
(D) Harry Braverman
Answer:
(B) Frederick Winslow Taylor

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Social exclusion is voluntary.
Reason (R): Exclusion is practiced regardless of the wishes of those who are excluded. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

Explanation: Since it is practiced regardless of the wishes of those who are excluded, social exclusion is involuntary.

Question 6.
is famous for cotton production.[1]
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Punjab
(C) Haryana
(D) Bengal
Answer:
(A) Maharashtra

Question 7.
_______, particularly from the British Presidency regions of Bengal and Madras, moved as government employees and professionals like doctors and lawyers moved to different parts of the country. [1]
(A) Lower class
(B) Middle class
(C) Upper class
(D) Nobility
Answer:
(B) Middle class

Question 8.
“Respecting regional sentiments is not just a matter of creating States: this has to be backed up with an institutional structure that ensures their viability as relatively autonomous units within a larger federal structure. In India, this is done by Constitutional provisions defining the powers of the States and the Centre. There are lists of ‘subjects’ or areas of governance that are the exclusive responsibility of either State or Centre, along with a ‘Concurrent List’ of areas where both are allowed to operate. The State legislatures determine the composition of the upper house of Parliament, the Rajya Sabha. In addition, there are periodic committees and commissions that decide on Centre-State relations. An example is the Finance Commission which is set up every 10 years to decide on sharing of tax revenues between centers and States. Up to 2017, each Five Year Plan also involved detailed State Plans prepared by the State Planning Commissions of each state. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council includes State members.”
What fortifies the institutional structure of the Indian states?
I. Provisions of powers to legislate on state subject
II. Constitutional provisions for the powers of the Centre
III. Constitutional provisions defining the powers of the states
IV. Provisions of sharing of tax revenues between Centre and States. [1]
(A) II, III
(B) I, II
(C) III, IV
(D) I, IV
Answer:
(A) II, III

Question 9.
Colonial impact is seen in the field of art, literature, music, and architecture in Indian society. [1]
(A) Westernisation
(B) Secularisation
(C) Modernisation
(D) Sanskritisation
Answer:
(D) Sanskritisation

Question 10.
The sociologist and social anthropologist were known for his works on the caste system and terms such as ‘Sanskritisation’ and ‘dominant caste’. [1]
(A) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
(B) Mysore Narasimhachar Srinivas
(C) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(D) Sri Narayana Guru
Answer:
(B) Mysore Narasimhachar Srinivas

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Policies promoting integration are different in style but not in overall objective.
Reason (R): They insist that the public culture be restricted to a common national pattern, while all ‘non-national’ cultures are to be relegated to the private sphere. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion(A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: Assimilationist policies also require non-dominant or subordinated groups in society to give up their own cultural values and adopt the prescribed ones.

Question 12.
“The old social movements functioned within the frame of political parties. The Indian National Congress led the Indian National Movement. The Communist Party of China led the Chinese Revolution. Today some believe that ‘old’ class-based political action led by trade unions and workers’ parties is on the decline. Others argued that in the affluent West with its welfare state, issues of class-based exploitation and inequality were no longer central concerns. So, the ‘new’ social movements were not about changing the distribution of power in society but about quality-of-life issues such as having a clean environment.” [1]
Which of the following statements is correct about E.P. Thompson?
(A) He held that the ‘crowd’ and the ‘mob’ were not made up of anarchic hooligans out to destroy society.
(B) Poor people in urban areas had good reasons for protesting.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D Neither (B) or (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation: E.E Thompson said that the crowd and the ‘mob’ were not made up of anarchic hooligans out to destroy society. Their research showed that poor people in urban areas had good reasons for protesting. They often resorted to public protest because they had no other way of expressing their anger and resentment against deprivation.

Question 13.
Which of the following is NOT true about cultural diversity? [1]
(A) It can arouse intense passion in people.
(B) It is sometimes accompanied by social and economic inequality.
(C) It becomes a problem when resources are scarce.
(D) Cultural diversity is only found in India.
Answer:
(D) Cultural diversity is only found in India.

Explanation: Cultural diversity is found in other parts of the world as well.

Question 14.
The_______movement strengthened loyalty to the national economy. [1]
(A) Quit India
(B) Swadeshi
(D) None of these
(C) Non-Cooperation
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Swadeshi

Question 15.
Choose the correct statement about social stratification. [1]
(A) Social stratification is not simply a function of individual differences.
(B) It is closely linked to the family and to the inheritance of social resources from one generation to the next.
(C) Social stratification is not likely to persist over generations unless it is widely viewed as being either fair or inevitable.
(D) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer:
(D) All of the above statements are correct.

Explanation: Social stratification is a characteristic of society. It persists over generations. It is also supported by patterns of belief or ideology.

Question 16.
The land reforms took away rights from the erstwhile claimants, the upper castes who were in the sense that they played no part in the agricultural economy other than claiming their rent.[ 1]
(A) Tenants
(B) Absentee landlords
(C) Dominant caste
(D) Political leaders 1
Answer:
(B) Absentee landlords

Explanation: Absentee landlords were not themselves the cultivators, but were the erstwhile upper caste claimants of lands

Question 17.
Even though the fertility and population growth rates are declining, India’s population is projected to increase from 1.2 billion today to an estimated 1.6 billion by 2050 due to_______ [1]
(A) population explosion
(B) post-transitional phase
(C) population momentum
(D) rate of natural increase
Answer:
(C) population momentum

Explanation: Population momentum refers to a situation, where a large cohort of women of reproductive age will fuel population growth over the next generation, even if each woman has fewer children than previous generations did.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): There is tension between the Indian state’s simultaneous commitment to secularism as well as the protection of minorities.
Reason (R): Providing protection to them immediately invites the accusation of favoritism or ‘appeasement’ of minorities. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: Opponents argue that secularism of this sort is only an excuse to favor minorities in return for their votes or other kinds of support.

Question 19.
The campaign against indigo plantations in 1917: [1]
(A) Champaran Satyagraha
(B) Bardoli Satyagraha
(C) Non-cooperation Movement
(D) Tebhaga Movement
Answer:
(A) Champaran Satyagraha

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Question 20.
Population growth always outstrips growth in the production of subsistence resources; hence the only way to increase prosperity is by controlling the growth of the population. Unfortunately, humanity has only a limited ability to voluntarily reduce the growth of its population. Malthus believed therefore that ‘positive checks’ to population growth- in the form of famines and diseases-were inevitable because they were nature’s way of dealing with the imbalance between food supply and increasing population. Malthus was also criticized by liberal and Marxist scholars for asserting that poverty was caused by population growth. Critics argued that problems like poverty and starvation were caused by the unequal distribution of economic resources rather than by population growth. Agricultural production grows in progression.[1]
(A) Geometric
(B) Linear
(C) Harmonic
(D) Arithmetic
Answer:
(D) Arithmetic

Explanation: Arithmetic progression is a series or sequence of numbers that may start with any number, but where each succeeding number is obtained by adding a fixed amount (number) to the preceding number. Agricultural production can only grow in arithmetic progression (i.e., 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, etc.)

Section – B (18 Marks)

Question 21.
Identify the reasons why cultural diversity presents tough challenges. [2]
Answer:

  • Cultural identities are very powerful and arouse intense passion.
  • Cultural identities enable one to mobilize a large number of people.
  • Sometimes cultural differences are accompanied by economic and social inequalities which provoke opposition from other communities.
  • The situation becomes worse when resources like rivers, water, and government jobs have to be shared.

Question 22.
Give examples of the Peasant Movements in India during the 20th century ‘Deccan Riots’ of1857 against moneylenders: [2]
Answer:

  • 1859-62 Bengal Revolt against the indigo plantation system.
  • Champaran Satyagraha (1917-18) directed against indigo plantations.
  • Bardoli Satyagraha (1928, Surat District), a ‘non-tax’ campaign as part of the nationwide non-cooperation movement, a campaign of refusal to pay land revenue.
  • Tebhaga movement (1946-47): Struggle of sharecroppers in Bengal in North Bihar for a two-thirds share of their products instead of the customary half.
  • Telangana movement (1946-51): Fight against the feudal conditions in the princely state of Hyderabad and was led by the CPI.
  • The Naxalite struggle started in the region of Naxalbari (1967) in Bengal. The central problem for peasants was land.

Question 23.
Agricultural productivity increased sharply because of the new technology. India was able to become self-sufficient in food grain production for the first time in decades. It was primarily the medium and large farmers who were able to benefit from the new technology. [2]

(a)What is subsistence agriculture?
(b) Who was able to reap the most benefits from the Green Revolution and commercialization of agriculture?
OR
In what way formal demography is different from social demography?
Answer:
Agricultural productivity increased sharply because of the new technology. India was able to become self-sufficient in food grain production for the first time in decades. It was primarily the medium and large farmers who were able to benefit from the new technology.

  • When agriculturists produce primarily for themselves and are unable to produce for the market, it is known as subsistence agriculture.
  • It was the farmers who were able to produce a surplus for the market who were able to reap the most benefits from the Green Revolution and from the commercialization of agriculture that followed.

OR

Formal demography:

  • Quantitative field
  • Analysis
  • Measurement
  • Statistics
  • Mathematical
  • Counting and enumeration

Social demography:

  • Focus on social, economic, and political aspects
  • Enquires into causes and consequences of population structures and change.
  • Social processes and structures regulate demographic processes.
  • Trace the social reasons for population trends.

Answer 24.
How did colonial laws favor the owners and managers of tea plantations?
OR
Identify the reasons for different replacement levels found in the different States of India. [2]
Answer:

  • The laws of a colonized country did not stick to democratic norms.
  • The colonial government often used unfair means to hire and forcibly keep laborers and acted on behalf of the British planters.
  • The colonial administrators used harsh measures against the laborers to make sure that they benefitted the planters.

OR

Reasons for different replacement levels found in different states of India:

  • Increased levels of prosperity exert a strong downward pull on the birth rate;
  • Increased literacy rate;
  • Growing awareness;
  • Increase in the level of education;
  • Acceptance of small family size.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Question 25.
Show the relationship between stereotypes, prejudice, and discrimination. [2]
Answer:

  • Prejudices are often grounded in stereotypes and fixed and inflexible characterization of a group of people.
  • Prejudice and stereotype thinking lead to discrimination, i.e., actual behavior towards another group or individual.

Question 26.
How did early sociologists perceive industrialization? [2]
Answer:
Thinkers like Karl Marx, Max Weber, and Emile Durkheim associated several social features with industry, such as urbanization, and the loss of face-to-face relationships. In rural areas, however, people had face-to-face relationships and worked on their farms or for a landlord they knew. This was substituted by anonymous professional relationships in modern factories and workplaces.

Industrialization involves a detailed division of labor. People often do not see the result of their work because they are producing only one small part of a product. The work is often repetitive and exhausting. Marx called this situation alienation, where people do not enjoy work and see it as something they have to do only to survive and even that survival depends on whether the technology has room for any human labor.

Question 27.
What factors lead to the feminization of agricultural labor force? [2]
Answer:

  • In villages, men migrate from their native village for work.
  • The women stay in the village and take care of the household as well as agricultural activities.
  • Eventually, agriculture has become a female-oriented task.

Question 28.
Caste began to take on a new life after being recorded in the 1901 census. How? [2]
Answer:
The 1901 census sought to collect information on the social hierarchy of caste.

  • The census had an impact on the social perception of caste and the Census Commissioner received hundreds of petitions from the representatives of different castes claiming a higher position on the social scale.
  • Official counting and recording of caste made the institution more rigid

Question 29.
Give the meaning of the term Secularisation.
OR
Name some organizations that were formed to address the issues of the Backward Caste during the twentieth century. [2]
Answer:

  • Secularisation is meant to be a process of d dine in the influence of religion.
  • It indicates a reduced level of involvement with religious organizations, the sodal and material influence of religious organizations, and the degree to which people hold religious beliefs. (To be assessed as a whole)

OR

  • United Provinces Hindu Backward Classes League
  • All-India Backward Classes Federation
  • All India Backward Classes League
  • In 1954, nearly 88 organizations were working for the Backward Classes

Section – C (24 Marks)

Question 30.
What are the reasons that can be attributed to the caste system becoming invisible for the upper classes, in the contemporary period?
OR
State how the declaration of the Karachi Session of INC committed itself to women’s equality. [4]
Answer:

  • Upper-caste elites were able to benefit from subsidized public education, especially professional education.
  • Took advantage of the expansion of state sector jobs in the early decades after Independence.
  • This led to the rest of society (in terms of education) ensuring that they did not face any serious competition.
  • As their privileged status got consolidated in the second and third generations, these groups believed that caste played no role in their advancement.
  • For the third generation from these groups, their economic and educational capital is sufficient to ensure that they will get the best in terms of life chances.

OR

In 1931, the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress declared the Fundamental Rights of Citizenship in India whereby it committed itself to women’s equality. The declaration reads as follows:

  • All citizens are equal before the law, irrespective of religion, caste, creed, or sex.
  • No disability attaches to any citizen, because of his or her religion, caste, creed, or sex, concerning public employment, office of power or honor, and in the exercise of any trade or calling.
  • The franchise shall be based on universal adult suffrage.
  • The woman shall have the right to vote, represent, and the right to hold public offices.

Question 31.
Nation-states became the dominant political form during the colonial period. Explain. [4]
Answer:
Nation-state became the dominant political form:

  • Initially, the use of passports was not common for international travel.
  • Pertains to a particular state, characteristic of the modern world.
  • Associated closely with the rise of nationalism; the rise of democratic ideas; Sovereign.
  • A community of communities sharing a desire to be a part of the same political collectivity.

Question 32.
The Family Planning Programme suffered a setback during the years of national emergency. Justify the statement. [4]
Answer:
During the time of emergency, the government tried to intensify the efforts to bring down the growth rate by introducing a coercive program of mass sterilization, i.e., vasectomy and tubectomy.

  • Vast numbers of mostly poor and powerless people were forcibly sterilized.
  • There was massive pressure on lower-level government officials (like school teachers or office workers) to bring people for sterilization in the camps.
  • There was widespread popular opposition to this program leading to the new government being elected after the Emergency to abandon it.

Question 33.
Elaborate on the discussion on women’s education during the nineteenth and twentieth century. [4]
Answer:

  • The idea of female education was debated Social reformer Jyotiba Phule opened the first school for women in Pune.
  • Reformers argued that women’s education is important for society to progress leading to the justifications of the thoughts based on modern and traditional ideas.
  • Some of them believed that in pre-modern India, women were educated. Others contested this because this was so only for a privileged few.
  • Thus, attempts to justify female education were made by recourse to both modern and traditional ideas, (to be assessed as a whole)

Question 34.
A green revolution led to regional inequalities. Give example.
OR
How did the advent of colonialism in India produce a major upheaval in the economy? [4]
Answer:

  • Green Revolution involved the deployment of technological advancement in cultivation.
  • Only a few states like Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh were able to adopt the technologies in agriculture.
  • As a result, they had enormous socio-economic development.
  • On the other hand, dry regions such as Telangana, Bihar, and Eastern U.E were relatively underdeveloped.

OR

The advent of colonialism in India produced major upheavals in the economy:

  • British industrialization led to de-industrialization in India.
  • After colonization, India became a source of raw materials and agricultural products and a consumer of manufactured goods. Earlier it was a major supplier of manufactured goods to the world market.
  • New groups emerged to take advantage of the economic opportunities provided by colonialism.
  • Disruptions in production, trade, and agriculture. e.g., handloom, village crafts, etc.
  • The emergence of new business communities transformed trade, banking, industry, etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 4 with Solutions

Question 35.
Explain the theories on Social Movement. [4]
Answer:
There are three theories on social movement.

According to the Theory of Relative Deprivation, social movement results from social conflict. Groups of people feel resentment and rage as they feel deprived of access to resources. However, it is criticized that a sense of deprivation alone cannot lead to a social movement.

In the Theory of Collective Action, Mancur Olson opines that a social movement is an aggregation of rational individual actors pursuing their self-interest. His theory is based on the notion of rational, utility-maximizing individuals. That is, a person participates in a social movement only if one gains something and if the risks are less than the gains.

Resource Mobilisation Theory was proposed by McCarthy and Zald, who said that a social movement’s success depends on its ability to mobilize resources or means of different sorts. Resources such as leadership, organizational capacity, and communication facilities, when used within the available political opportunity structure, it is more likely to be effective.

Question 36.
What is cultural diversity? Why are states often suspicious of cultural diversity? [4]
Answer:
By cultural diversity, we mean that:

The presence within the larger, regional, or another context of many different kinds of cultural communities such as those defined by language, religion, region, ethnicity, and so on. It is the multiplicity of the plurality of identities.

There are many types of social groups and communities living in India. These communities are defined by cultural identity markers such as language, religion, race, sect, or caste.
States are often suspicious of cultural diversity because:

Sometimes cultural diversities are accompanied by economic and social inequalities which lead to rivalries.Situation becomes worse when scarce resources like river water, jobs, or government funds have to be shared.

Divisive forces like communal riots, demands for regional autonomy, or caste wars are hard at work, tearing the country apart.Cultural diversity leads to social fragmentation and prevents the creation of a harmonious society. Such ‘identity politics’ was considered a threat to state unity.

Accommodating differences is politically challenging. Many states have resorted to either suppressing these diverse identities or ignoring them in the political domain.States generally tend to favor a single, homogenous national identity, in the hope of being able to control and manage it.

Section – D (18 Marks)

Question 37.
Explain the three key principles of social stratification with examples. [6]
Answer:
Three key principles help to explain social stratification:

Social stratification is a characteristic of society, not simply a function of individual differences: Social stratification is a society-wide system that unequally distributes social resources among categories of people. For example, in primitive societies, social stratification is rudimentary but in technologically advanced societies where surplus is produced, social resources are unequally distributed to various social categories regardless of people’s innate individual abilities.

Social stratification persists over generations: It is closely linked to the family and the inheritance of social resources from one generation to the next. A person’s social position is ascribed. A Dalit is likely to be confined to traditional occupations such as agricultural labor, scavenging, or leather work, with little chance of being able to get high-paying white-collar or professional work.

Social stratification is supported by patterns of belief, or ideology: For example, the caste system is justified in terms of the opposition of purity and pollution, with the Brahmins designated as the most superior and the most inferior under their birth and occupation.

Question 38.
The Khasi matrilineal generates intense role conflict for men. Elaborate.
OR
“For much of the twentieth-century social movements were class-based such as working-class movements and peasant movements or anti-colonial movements. While anti-colonial movements united entire people into national liberation struggles, class-based movements united classes to fight for their rights.” Explain. [6]
Answer:

  • Khasi matrilineal generates intense role conflict for men. This is because men take control of the property inherited by their sisters.
  • Khasi men are torn between their responsibilities to their natal house on the one hand and their wives and children on the other.
  • A woman can never be fully assured that her husband does not find his sister’s house a more congenial place than her own.
  • A sister will be apprehensive about her brother’s commitment to her welfare because the wife can always pull him away from his responsibilities to his natal house.
  • Women possess only token authority in Khasi society as it is men who are the de-facto power holders.
  • The system is indeed weighted in favor of male matri-kin rather than male Patrik in.

OR

Anti-colonial movements: The formation of communist and socialist states across the world. For example, the Soviet Union, China, and Cuba, these movements also led to the reform of capitalism. The creation of welfare states that protected workers’ rights and offered universal education, health care, and social security in the capitalist nations of Western Europe was partly due to political pressure created by the communist and socialist movements.

The movement against colonialism influenced the movement against capitalism as they are interlinked through forms of imperialism, social movements have simultaneously targeted both these forms of exploitation. That is, .nationalist movements have mobilized against rule by a foreign power as well as against the dominance of foreign capital.

The decades after the Second World War witnessed the end of the empire and the formation of new nation¬ states as a result of nationalist movements in India, Egypt, Indonesia, and many other countries.Class-based movements: Another wave of social movements occurred in the 1960s and early 1970s. This was the time of the war in Vietnam where forces led by the United States of America were involved in a bloody conflict in the former French colony against Communist Guerrillas.

In Europe, Paris was the nucleus of a vibrant students’ movement that joined workers’ parties in a series of strikes protesting against the war. Across the Atlantic, the United States of America was experiencing a surge of social protest.The civil rights movement led by Martin Luther King had been followed by the Black Power movement led by Malcolm X.

The anti-war movement was joined by tens of thousands of students who were compulsorily drafted by the government to go and fight in Vietnam. The women’s movement and the environmental movement also gained strength during this time of social ferment.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

अवधि: : होरात्रयम्
पूर्णाङ्काः : 80

सामान्य निर्देशः
सैंपल पेपर 1 में दिये गये निर्देशानुसार।

रवण्ड: ‘क’ अपठित-अवबोधनम्
(अंक : 10)

1. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (10)
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

रामायणं लौकिकसंस्कृतस्य प्रथमः ग्रन्थः मन्यते। अस्मिन् ग्रन्थे मर्यादा पुरुषोत्तमस्य रामचन्द्रस्य जीवनस्य वृत्तान्तं वर्तते। अस्य लेखक : महर्षि वाल्मीकिः आसीत्। सः आदिकविः अपि कथ्यते। तस्य रचना ‘आदिकाव्यम्’ इति विद्वांसः मन्यन्ते। इदं काव्यम् अनुष्टुप् छन्दसि निबद्धम् अस्ति। अस्मिन् (ग्रंथे) महाकाव्ये चतुर्विशतिसहस्र-श्लोकाः सन्ति। अनेन रामायणं चतुर्विंशति-साहस्री संहिता’ इति नाम्ना अपि प्रसिद्धम् अस्ति। अस्य भाषा अति सरला मधुरा च अस्ति। रामायणे कविना यद् वर्णनं कृतम् तत् सर्वत्रं अलौकिकम् अस्ति । महर्षि वाल्मीकिः श्री रामस्य वर्णनम् अवताररूपे न कृत्वा केवलं मर्यादा पुरुषोत्तम रूपे कृतवान् अस्ति।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) लौकिकसाहित्यस्य प्रथमः ग्रन्थः किम् अस्ति ?
(ii) आदिकविः कः आसीत् ?
(i) रामायणे कति श्लोकाः सन्ति?
उत्तर:
(i) रामायणम्
(ii) वाल्मीकि:
(iii) चतुर्विशति-सहस्रं

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्न-द्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) रामायणे कस्य जीवनस्य -वृत्तान्तं वर्तते?
(ii) रामायणं केन नाम्ना प्रसिद्धम् अस्ति?
(iii) अयं ग्रन्थः कस्मिन् छन्दसि निबद्धः अस्ति?
उत्तर:
(i) रामायणे मर्यादा पुरुषोत्तमस्य श्रीरामस्य जीवनस्य वृतान्तं वर्तते।
(ii) रामायणं चतुर्विशति साहस्री साहिता नाम्ना प्रसिद्धम् अस्ति।
(iii) अयं ग्रन्थ: अनुष्टुप् छन्दसि निबद्धः अस्ति।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत। (द्वि-त्रिशब्दात्मकं)1
(इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।) (दो-तीन शब्द का वाक्य)
उत्तर:
शीर्षाकं आदिकाव्यं-रामायणम्। मर्यादापुरुषोत्तम रामस्य जीवनी।

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) मर्यादा पुरुषोत्तमस्य रामचन्द्रस्य जीवनस्य वृत्तान्तं कुत्र वर्तते?
(क) महाभारते
(ख) गीतायां
(ग) रामायणे
(घ) नीतिशतके
उत्तर:
(ग) रामायणे

(ii) आदिकविः कः कथ्यते?
(क) कालिंदासः
(ख) वाल्मीकिः
(ग) भवभूतिः
(घ) भारविः
उत्तर:
(ख) वाल्मीकिः

(iii) ‘आदिकाव्यम्’ इति विद्वान्सः मन्यन्ते इत्यत्र मन्यन्ते इति क्रियापदस्य किं कर्तृपदम्?
(क) इति
(ख) विद्वान्सः
(ग) तस्य
(घ) आदिकाव्यम्
उत्तर:
(ख) विद्वान्सः

(iv) ‘पुरुषोत्तमस्य’ इति पदस्य विशेष्यं गद्यांशात् चित्वा लिखत।
(क) रामचन्द्रस्य
(ख) रामायण:
(ग) वाल्मीके:
(घ) मर्यादा
उत्तर:
(क) रामचन्द्रस्य

रवण्ड: ‘ रव’ रचनात्मक-कार्यम्
(अंक : 15)

2. भवतः नाम मोहनः। भवतः विद्यालये वार्षिकोत्सवे ‘अभिज्ञान शाकुन्तलम्’ संस्कृत-नाटकस्य मञ्चनं भविष्यति। तदर्थं स्वमित्रं सोहनं प्रतिलिखितं निमन्त्रणपत्रं मञ्जूषा पद सहायतया पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत (1/2 × 10 = 5)
(आपका नाम मोहन है। आपके विद्यालय में वार्षिकोत्सव पर अभिज्ञानशाकुन्तलम् संस्कृत नाटक का मञ्चन होगा। उसके लिए अपने मित्र सोहन को लिखे गये निमन्त्रण-पत्र को मञ्जूषा पदों की सहायता से पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।) नवोदय विद्यालयः
(i)………..
दिनाङ्कः
(ii)………..
नमोनमः।
अत्र कुशलं (iii)………… अस्माकं विद्यालये आगामी सप्ताहे विद्यालयस्य वार्षिकोत्सवस्य आयोजनं भविष्यति। तत्र ‘अभिज्ञानशाकुन्तलम्’ इति नाटकस्य (iv)…….. भविष्यति। अहं तस्मिन् नाटके (v)……करिष्यामि। अस्य कार्यक्रमस्य मुख्यातिथि: (vi)…… भविष्यति। भवान् अवश्यमेव तत् (Vii)……………आगच्छतु। मम (viii)……….भविष्यति। सर्वेभ्यः अग्रजेभ्य मम (ix)….. निवेद्यताम् इति ।
भवदीय: वयस्यः
(x).
उत्तर:
(i) मुम्बईतः
(ii) सोहन
(iii) तत्रास्तु
(iv) मञ्चनम्
(v) अभिनयं
(vi) शिक्षानिदेशक:
(vii) द्रष्टुम्
(viii) उत्साहवर्धनम्
(ix) प्रणामाञ्जलि:
(x) मोहन:।

मञ्जूषा-प्रणामाञ्जलिः, मोहनः, उत्साहवर्धनम्, तत्रास्तु, शिक्षानिदेशकः, सोहन, मुम्बईतः, मञ्चनम्, अभिनयं, द्रष्टुम्।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

3. अधः प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत (1 × 5 = 5)
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मंजूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions Img 1
उत्तर:
(i) अस्मिन् चित्रे विद्यालयस्य प्रार्थना सभा अस्ति।
(ii) प्रार्थनासभायां प्रधानाचार्य: अपि प्रार्थनां करोति।
(iii) अस्मिन् चित्रे दश बालका: बालिका: च तिष्ठन्ति।
(iv) ते सर्वे छात्राः प्रातःकाले ईश्वरस्य प्रार्थनां कुर्वन्ति।
(v) विद्यालयस्य भवनं अति सुन्दरम् अस्ति।

मञ्जूषा-विद्यालयः, प्रधानाचार्यः, छात्राः, प्रार्थनासभा, प्रात:काले, कुर्वन्ति, सुन्दर भवनम्।

अथवा
मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य पञ्चभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत। (मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।)
“मम मातृभूमिः”
उत्तर:
(i) अस्माकं मातृभूमि: नाम “भारत” अस्ति।
(ii) अस्माकं मातृभूमिः जनानां भरणं-पोषणं कुर्वन्ति।
(iii) “स्वर्गादपि गरीयसी” मातृभूमि: भवति।
(iv) वयं सर्वदा येन-केन प्रकारेण मातृभूमिं रक्षिष्यामः।
(v) “अर्हनिशं” सत्यं अस्माभिः इयं माता वन्दनीया।

मञ्जूषा-पोषणम्, स्वर्गादपि, येन-केन प्रकारेण, सत्यम्, मातृभूमिः, वन्दनीया।

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य, लिखत-(केवलं पञ्चवाक्यम्, रचनात्मक) (1 × 5 = 5)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का संस्कृत भाषा में अनुवाद लिखिए) (केवल पाँच वाक्य)

(i) मैं पिताजी के साथ घर जाता हूँ।
I go home with my father.
(ii) मित्र पत्र लिखते हैं।
Friends write a letter
(iii) विद्यालय के चारों ओर फूल हैं।
There are flowers around the school
(iv) सीता गीत गाती है।
Seeta sings a song.
(v) कल तुम कहाँ जाओगे?
Where will you go tomorrow?
(vi) बच्चे गेंद से खेलते हैं।
Children play with ball.
(vii) मेरी माँ एक परिश्रमी महिला है।
My mother is a hard-working woman
उत्तर:
(i) अहं जनकेन सह गृहं गच्छामि।
(ii) मित्राणि पत्राणि लिखन्ति।
(iii) विद्यालयम् परितः पुष्पाणि सन्ति।
(iv) सीता गीतं गायति।
(v) श्व: त्वम् कुत्र गमिष्यसि ?
(vi) बालका: कन्दुकेन क्रीडन्ति।
(vii) मम जननी एका उद्यमिनी महिला अस्ति।

रवण्ड: – ‘ग’ (अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरणम्)
(अंक : 25)

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के संधि अथवा संधि-विच्छेद कौजिए। (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) षण्णाम् मासानां समूहः एव अयनम् ।
(ii) सं + गच्छ एव जीवनस्य आदर्शम्।
(iii) तपस्ते गीतम् अगायन्।
(iv) कुशः + वादने भविष्यति ।
(v) सर्वथा जागरुकः + अहम् छात्राणां कृते आदर्श: एव।
(क) जागरुकोम्
(ख) जागरूकोऽम्
(ग) जागरुकोऽम्
उत्तर:
(i) षट् + नाम्
(ii) सक्जच्छ
(iii) तप: $+$ ते
(iv) कुशो वादने
(v) जागरूकोsहम्

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

6. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां समासं विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्य म्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों का समास अथवा विग्रह दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) यथासमयम् कार्य कुरु।
(क) समयम् अनतिक्रम्य
(ख) समयम् अतिक्रम्य
(ग) समयस्य अतिक्रम्य
(घ) समयेन अतिक्रम्य
उत्तर:
(क) समयम् अनतिक्रम्य

(ii) अहम् जले स्थितप्रज्ञः इव तिष्ठामि।
(क) स्थितः प्रज्ञः यस्य सः
(ख) स्थिता प्रज्ञा यस्य सः
(ग) स्थिता प्रज्ञा यस्याः सा
(घ) स्थितप्रज्ञा भूत्वा
उत्तर:
(ख) स्थिता प्रज्ञा यस्य सः

(iii) स; मातरं पितरं च वन्दते।
(क) मातपितरौं
(ख) माता पितरौ
(ग) माता पितरम्
(घ) माता पितां च
उत्तर:
(क) मातपितरौं

(iv) छात्राः अहर्निशं कार्यं कुर्वन्ति ।
(क) अहः च निश: च
(ख) अहम च निशा च
(ग) अहःच निशा च
(घ) अह: निशा च
उत्तर:
(ग) अहःच निशा च

(v) नास्ति विद्यासमं चक्षुः।
(क) विद्यया समम्
(ख) विद्यया समः
(ग) विद्यायाः समम्
(घ) विद्या समः
उत्तर:
(क) विद्यया समम्

7. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रकृति-प्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के प्रकृति-प्रत्ययों को जोड़कर अथवा अलग करके उचित उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) सर्वेषाम् एव महत्त्वं भवति।
(क) महत् + त्व
(ख) महान् + त्वम्
(ग) महत् + तु
(घ) महत् + तल्
उत्तर:
(क) महत् + त्व

(ii) अलोक + इक् उन्नतिः विद्यया एव भवति।
(क) अलौकिकी
(ख) अलौकिका
(ग) आलोकिकी
(घ) अलौकिक:
उत्तर:
(क) अलौकिकी

(iii) प्रकृतेः रमणीय + तल् दर्शनीया अस्ति।
(क) रमणीयता
(ख) रमणीयताम्
(ग) रमणीया
(घ) रमणीयम्
उत्तर:
(क) रमणीयता

(iv) अस्याः अनुज + टाप् दीपिका अस्ति।
(क) अनुजा
(ख) अनुज्ञता
(ग) अनुजः
(घ) अनुजे
उत्तर:
(क) अनुजा

(v) अद्य अस्माकं वर्ष + इक् + ङीप् परीक्षा आरभते।
(क) वार्षिकी
(ख) वर्षकी
(ग) वर्षिकी
(घ) वार्षिक
उत्तर:
(क) वार्षिकी

8. वाच्यानुसारम् उचितपदैः रिक्तस्थानानि पयित्वा अधोलिखितं पूरयित्वा अधोलिखितं संवादं पुनः लिखत (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(वाक्य के अनुसार उचित पदों से रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके नीचे लिखे हुए संवाद) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) सीता गीतां कथयति-किं त्वया इंद गीतं………..?
(क) गायति
(ख) गेयते
(ग) गीयते
(ख) पठ्यते
उत्तर:
(ग) गीयते

(ii) गीता-अहं गीतं न………………..।
(क) गायामि
(ख) गायति
(ग) गायसि
(घ) गीयते
उत्तर:
(क) गायामि

(iii) सीता पुनः पृच्छति – सरलतया कि…………..?
(क) करोति
(ख) क्रियते
(ग) गच्छति
(ग) गीयते
उत्तर:
(ख) क्रियते

(iv) गीता-सा पुस्तकं………………….।
(क) पठ्यते
(ख) लिखति
(ग) गच्छति
(घ) पठति
उत्तर:
(घ) पठति

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

9. अधोलिखितं दिनचर्चायां रिक्तस्थानानि कालबोधकशब्दैः पूरयत लिखत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(कालबोधक शब्दों से निम्नलिखित दिनचर्या को पूरा कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) प्रात: 7:00-वादने प्रार्थना सभा भवति ।
(ii) प्रातः 10.00-वादने अविकाशः भवति।
(iii) मध्यान्हे 1.15-वादने विविधाः क्रीडाः भवन्ति ।
(iv) अहं 2:30-वादने गृहं गच्छामि।
(v) त्वं 5.00-वादने विद्यालयं गच्छंसि।
उत्तर:
(i) सप्त
(ii) दश
(iii) सपाद एक
(iv) सार्ध द्वि
(v) पर्च।

10. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तैः उचितैः अव्ययपदैः अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत- (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(मञ्जूषा में दिये गये उचित अव्ययपदों से वाक्यों में रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) जनाः ………………. धावन्ति।
(ii) नेता स्वभाषणे …………….. वदति।
(iii) वर्षायाः अनन्तरं ……………….. अन्धकारम् अभवत्।
(iv) सर्वे जनाः धावन्ति अत: त्वम् ………………. धाव।
उत्तर:
(i) (ख) इतस्तत:
(ii) (ख) उच्चै:
(iii) (क) सहसा
(iv) (ग) अपि।

11. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कित-अशुद्धपदाय उचितं पदं चित्वा वाक्यानि पुनः लिखत- (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखाङ्कित अशुद्ध पद के लिए उचितं पद चुनकर वाक्यों को पुनः लिखिये) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) जनाः फलं खादतः
(क) खादसि
(ख) खादन्ति
(ग) खादतु
(घ) खादति
उत्तर:
(ख) खादन्ति

(ii) बालकाः पुस्तकं अपठत्।
(क) त्वम्
(ख) स:
(ग) अहम्
(घ) वयम्
उत्तर:
(ख) स:

(iii) अहं सत्यं वदसि।
(क) स:
(ख) त्वं
(ग) त्वम्
(घ) ते
उत्तर:
(ग) त्वम्

(iv) छात्राः कन्दुकेन क्रीडिस्यथ
(क) क्रीडिष्यन्ति
(ख) क्रीडथ
(ग) क्रीडामि
(घ) क्रिडन्ति
उत्तर:
(क) क्रीडिष्यन्ति

रवण्ड: – ‘घ’ पठित-अवबोधनम्
(अंक : 30)

12. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

“बहून्यपत्यानि मे सन्तीति सत्यम्। तथाप्यहमेस्मिन् पुत्रे विशिष्य आत्मवेदनामनुभवामि। यतोहि अयमन्येभ्यो दुर्बलः। सर्वेष्वपत्येषु जननी तुल्यवत्सला एव। तथापि दुर्बले सुते मातुः अत्यधिका कृपा सहजैव इति। सुरभिवचनं श्रुत्वा भृशं विस्मितस्याखण्डलस्यापि हृदयमद्रवत्। सः च तामेवमसान्त्वयत्-“गच्छ वत्से। सर्व भद्रं जायेत।” अचिरादेव चण्डवातेन मेघरवैश्च सह प्रवर्षः समजायत्। पश्यतः एव सर्वत्र जलोपप्लवः सञ्जातः। कृषक: हर्षातिरेकेण कर्षणाविमुखः सन् वृषभौ नीत्वा गृहमगात्

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) सर्वत्र कः सञ्जातः?
(ख) बहूनि अपत्यानि कस्याः सन्ति ?
(ग) को नीत्वा गृहम् आगतः?
उत्तर:
(क) जलोपप्लव:
(ख) मे (सुरभेः),
(ग) वृषभौ।

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
पूर्ण वाक्य के उत्तर लिखिए (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) सुरभिः आखण्डलं किमुवाच?
(ख) कस्मिन् एव सुरभेः वात्सल्यम् अधिकम् आसीत्?
(ग) कृषक: को नीत्वा गृहं आगतः?
उत्तर:
(क) सुरभिः उवाच-बहून्यपत्यानि आखण्डलं सहजैव इति।
(ख) दुर्बले सुते एव सुरभे: वात्सल्यम् अधिकम् आसीत् ?
(ग) कृषक: वृषभौः नीत्वा सायं गृहं आगतः।

(इ) निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) “बहून्यपत्यानि मे सन्ति इति सत्यम्” असत्यम् इति पदस्य किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम? किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम?
(ख) पश्यतः एव सर्वत्र जलोपप्लवः सञ्जात् इत्यत्र किं क्रियापद प्रयुक्तम्?
(ग) ‘सर्वेषु अपत्येषु जननी तुल्यवत्सला एवं इत्यत्र किं विशेष्यपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) सत्यम्
(ख) सञ्जात:
(ग) अपत्येषु

13. अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

वायुमण्डलं भृशं दूषितं न हि निर्मलं जलम्।
कुत्सितवस्तुमिश्रितं भक्ष्यं समलं धरातलम्॥
करणीयं बहिरन्तर्जगति तु बहु शुद्धीकरणम्।
शुचि…….. ||

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कीदृशं भक्ष्यम् अस्ति?
(ख) कीदृशं जलं नास्ति?
(ग) समलं किमस्ति?
उत्तर:
(क) कुत्सितवस्तुमिश्रितं
(ख) निर्मलं जलं
(ग) धरातलम्

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए। (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कीदृशं वायुमण्डलम्?
(ख) बहु शुद्धीकरणं कुत्र करणीयम्?
(ग) वायुमण्डलं सर्वदा किं करोति?
उत्तर:
(क) भृशं दूषितं वायुमण्डलम् अस्ति।
(ख) बहि: अन्तः जगति या (बहिरन्तर्जगति) बहु शुद्धिकरणं करणीयम्।
(ग) वायुमण्डलं सर्वदा भृशं दुषितं न हि निर्मलं जलम् करोति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) ‘अत्यधिकम’ इत्यर्थे अत्र किं पदं प्रयुक्तम्।
(ख) धरातलं समलम् अस्ति’ इत्यत्र किं कर्तृपदम् अस्ति ?
(ग) ‘अभक्ष्यम्’ इति पदस्य किं विलोमपदं अत्र प्रयुक्तम?
उत्तर:
(क) भृशम्
(ख) धरातलं
(ग) भक्ष्यम:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 9 with Solutions

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

निद्राभङ्गदुःखेन वनराजः सन्नपि तुच्छजीवैः आत्मनः एतादृश्या दुरवस्थया श्रान्तः सर्वजन्तून् दृष्ट्वा पृच्छति

सिंहः – (क्रोधेन गर्जन्) भोः! अहं वनराजः किं भयं न जायते? किमर्थ मामेवं तुदन्ति सर्वे मिलित्वा?
एक: वानरः – यतः त्वं वनराजः भवितुं तु सर्वथाऽयोग्यः। राजा तु रक्षक: भवति परं भवान् तु भक्षकः। अपि च स्वरक्षायामपि समर्थः नासि तर्हि कथमस्मान् रक्षिष्यसि?
अन्यः वानरः – किं न श्रुतां त्वया पञ्चतन्त्रोक्तिः यो न रक्षति वित्रस्तान् पीड्यमानान्परैः सदा। जन्तून् पार्थिवरूपेण स कृतान्तो न संशयः॥
काकः – आम् सत्यं कथितं त्वया-वस्तुतः वनराजः भवितुं तु अहमेव योग्यः ।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द के उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) सर्वजन्तून् दृष्ट्वा कः पृच्छति?
(ख) क्रोधेन क; गर्जति?
(ग) राजा क: भवति?
उत्तर:
(क) वनराजः
(ख) सिंह:
(ग) रक्षक:

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए) केवल दो प्रश्न

(क) सर्वे, मिलित्वा कम् एव तुदान्ति?
(ख) एक: वानर: वनराजं किं कथयति?
(ग) सिंह: क: भवति?
उत्तर:
(क) सर्वे मिलित्वा सिंह तुदन्ति।
(ख) एकः वानरः वनराजं कथयति यत् त्वं वनराजः भवितुं तु सर्वथाऽयोग्यः।
(ग) सिंह: भक्षक: भवति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) राजा तु रक्षकः भवति इत्यस्मिन् वाक्ये किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम्
(ख) ‘एतादृश्या दुरवस्थया’ इत्यत्र किं विशेषणपदं प्रयुक्तम?
(ग) ‘अवासाद’ इत्यर्थे अत्र किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) राजा
(ख) दुरवस्थया
(ग) तुदन्ति

15.रेखाडितपदानि आधृत्य प्रश्न निर्माण करुत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(क) मयूरस्य नृत्यं प्रकृतेः आराधना।
(ख) ग्रामस्य आरक्षी एव चौरः आसीत्।
(ग) राजा तु रक्षकः भवति।
(घ) पिककाकयोः भेद: वसन्तसमये प्राप्ते?
(ङ) उद्याने खगानाम् कलरवं चेतः प्रसादयति।
उत्तर:
(क) कस्या:
(ख) कस्य
(ग) क:
(घ) कदा
(ङ) केषाम्

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचित-पदानि चित्वा अधोलिखितश्लोकस्यः अन्वयं पूरयत (1 × 4 = 4)
(मञ्जूषा से उचित पदों को चुनकर निम्नलिखित श्लोकों के अन्वय को पूरा कीजिए।)

यः इच्छत्यात्मनः श्रेयः प्रभूतानि सुखानि च।
न कुर्यादहितं कर्म स; परेभ्यः कदापि च ॥

अन्वयः (i)….. आत्मनः श्रेयः प्रभूतानि सुखानि (ii)………. सः च परेभ्यः (iii)………….. कर्म कदापि न (iv)……
उत्तर:
(i) य:
(ii) इच्छति
(iii) अहितं
(iv) कुर्यात्

मञ्जूषा-अहितं, कुर्यात्, यः, इच्छति
अथवा
मञ्जूषायाः साहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुन: लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक के भावार्थ से रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।)

गुणी गुणं वेत्ति न वेत्ति निर्गुणो, बली बलं वेत्ति न वेत्ति निर्बलः।
पिको वसन्तस्य गुणं न वायसः, करी च सिंहस्य बलं न मूषकः॥

भावार्थ:-गुणवान् जनः एव (i)…… महत्त्वं जानाति। गुणहीनं गुणानां महत्त्वं न अवगच्छति। तथैव (ii)……. जनः बलस्य महत्वं जानाति, परन्तु दुर्बलः महत्त्व न अवगच्छति। वसन्त-ऋतोः महत्त्वं कोकिलः एव सम्यक् (iii)………… शक्नोति न तु काकः। एवमेव गजः सिंहस्य (iv) ……. महत्त्वं जानाति । मूषक: तस्य शौर्यम अवगन्तुं न शक्नोति।
उत्तर:
(i) गुणानाम्
(iii) अवगन्तुम्
(ii) बलवान्
(iv) पराक्रमस्य

मञ्जूषा-अवगन्तुम्, बलवान्, पराक्रमस्य, गुणानाम्

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचित-क्रमेण लिखत (1/2 × 8 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित कथांश को समुचित क्रम में लिखिए।)

(i) ग्रामवासिनःवराकमतिथिमेव च चौरं मत्वाऽभर्ल्सयम्।
(ii) सर्व वृत्तांतम् अवगत्य न्यायाधीशः तं निर्दोषम् अमन्यत् आरक्षिणं च दोषी।
(iii) शवः प्रावारकमपसार्य सर्व वृतान्तं निवेदितवान्।
(iv) पावस्थिते ग्रामे करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(v) विचित्र युक्त्या न्यायाधीशः निर्णयं कृत्वा तं जनं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान्।
(vi) कश्चन चौरः रात्रौ तस्मिन् गृहे प्रविष्य मञ्जूषामेकां आदाय पलायितः।
(vi) निर्धनः जनः सायं समयेऽप्यसौ गन्तव्याद् दूरे आसीत्।
(vi) निशान्धकारे प्रसृते विजने प्रदेशे पदयात्रा न शुभावहा।
उत्तर:
(vii) निर्धनः जनः सायं समयेsप्यसौ गन्तव्याद् दूरे आसीत्।
(viii) निशान्धकारे प्रसूते विजने प्रदेशे पदयात्रा न शुभावहा।
(iv) पार्श्वस्थिते ग्रामे करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत् ।
(vi) कश्चन चौर: रात्रौ तस्मिन् गृहे प्रविष्य मञ्जूषामेकां आदाय पलायितः।
(i) ग्राम वासिनः वराकमतिथिमेव च चौरं मत्वाऽभर्स्सयन् ।
(iii) शव: प्रावारकमपसार्य सर्वं वृतान्तं निवेदितवान्।
(ii) सर्वं वृत्तांतं अवगत्य न्यायाधीशः तं निर्दोषम् अमन्यत् आरक्षिणं च दोषी।
(v) विचित्र युक्त्या न्यायाधीशः निर्णयं कृत्वा तं जनं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान्।

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थं चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के प्रसंगानुकूल उचित अर्थ चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न) 1(1 × 3 = 3)

(i) लवकुशयो: एकमेव उतरम् आसीत् ।
(क) उपवेष्टुम्
(ख) प्रतिवचनम्
(ग) अध्यासयितुम्
(घ) वचनम्
उत्तर:
(ख) प्रतिवचनम्

(ii) एकान्ते कान्तारे क्षणमपि सञ्चरणं स्यात् ।
(क) वने
(ख) जने
(ग) गहने
(घ) राजमार्गे
उत्तर:
(क) वने

(iii) उदिते सविता रक्तः।
(क) कषिता
(ख) चन्द्रमा
(ग) सूर्यः
(घ) पृथ्वी
उत्तर:
(ग) सूर्यः

(iv) ‘दिवसः‘ पर्यायवाची चित्वा लिखत्।
(क) भानुः
(ख) दिनः
(ग) निशाकरः
(घ) निशा
उत्तर:
(ख) दिनः

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1.  This question paper contains 4 sections- A, B, C, and D
    (a) Section A- Multiple choice questions
    (b) Section B- 2 marks
    (c) Section C- 3 marks
    (d) Section D- 5 marks
  2.  Internal choice is given in the paper, there is no overall choice.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Amy, a legal student, consists of a four-year undergraduate degree completed following completion of secondary school and passage of the university entrance exam. She will then take the first examination, a comprehensive set of exams that emphasizes academic knowledge of the law. She belongs to the legal system of which country?[1] .
(a) UK
(b) Europe
(c) Russia
(d) Germany
Answer:
(d) Germany

Question 2.
Michael Browne has an undergraduate degree in Anthropology and aspires to become a lawyer in the UK. Which of the following will enable her to do so? [1] .
(a) Pupillage
(b) Common Professional Examination
(c) Bar Vocational Course
(d) Legal Practice Course
Answer:
(d) Legal Practice Course.

Question 3.
In this system, the parties in a legal proceeding develop their own theory of the case and gather evidence to support their claims.[1].
(a) Adversarial system
(b) Inquisitorial system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Legal system
Answer:
(a) Adversarial system

Question 4.
In this case, the Supreme Court held that India had ratified conventions regarding the protection of children and thus placed an obligation on the State Government to implement these principles. Identify the case highlighted here. [1].
(a) Sheela Barse v. Secretary Children’s Aid Society
(b) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India
(c) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case
Answer:
(a) Sheela Barse v. Secretary Children’s Aid Society

Question 5.
A suburban homeowner wants the right way to deal with his neighbor’s overly bright driveway lights that shine in his bedroom window. Which of the following modes of dispute resolution is best suited in this case? [1].
(a) Arbitration
(b) Mediation
(c) Conciliation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Mediation

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 6.
Assertion (A) The judiciary in India derives its powers and functions from the Constitution. Reason (R) The Constitution, to date, remains the fundamental legal text for the functioning of Indian democracy. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Question 7.
The situation I A intentionally causes Z’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give Z food, and partly by beating Z. A has committed murder.
Situation II A intentionally beats B with a stick. Which of the following statements best describes the two situations? [1].
(a) In both situations there is actus reus though men’s rea is missing
(b) There is actus reus and men’s rea in both situations.
(c) Situation I shows moral omission, whereas Situation II shows illegal omission.
(d) The act of not doing anything does not accrue any criminal liability as actus rea is not there.
Answer:
(b) There is actus reus and men’s rea in both situations.

Question 8.
The Bar Council of India has suspended Shikha, an advocate, due to a breach of its rules. Which of the following situations may have led to her suspension? [1].
(a) She has charged a contingency fee from her client in a land dispute.
(b) She had negotiated with the opposite party through the opposing advocate.
(c) She refused to represent the client who insisted on adopting unfair means.
(d) She refused to appear in a matter where she was the witness.
Answer:
(a) The Bar Council of India imposes certain restrictions on advocates wherein they are barred from charging a contingency fee.

Question 9.
Match the following using the codes given below.

Column I Column II
A. National Commission for Minorities Act (i) 1990
B. National Commission for Women Act (ii) 1961
C. Dowry Prohibition Act (iii) 1860
D. Indian Penal Code (iv) 1992

Codes

A  B  C  D
 (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Answer:
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 10.
It was set up post the First World War as a part of the Treaty of Versailles, in 1919 to achieve social justice. It was aimed at improving the conditions of labor in various countries in the world to help achieve humane conditions for such laborers by providing for various regulations and agreements on the conditions of laborers. Which organization is being referred to? [1] .
(a) UNESCO
(b) UNICEF
(c) ILO
(d) ICJ
Answer:
(c) ILO

Question 11.
Statement The intentional tort of false imprisonment is satisfied whenever there is intent to unlawfully confine or restrain the claimant in a bounded area. Statement The tort of trespass to land occurs when the defendant has the intent to physically invade the real property of the claimant. [1] .
Alternatives
(a) Both Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement II is false
(c) statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
Answer:
(a) Both .statements are true.

Question 12.
An explicit provision for legal services is incorporated into the. [1] .
(a) UNHRC
(b) ILO
(c) ICCPR
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) ICCPR

Question 13.
A sells his house for ₹ 8 lakh to B. This is called. [1] .
(a) Mortgage
(b) Sale
(c) Hypothecation
(d) Pledge
Answer:
(b) Sale

Question 14.
Assertion (A) Tort law ensures that the defendant compensates the victim for a wrongful act.
Reason (R) This deters one from injuring others as it encourages defendants to be mindful and careful. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason -(R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 15.
Arrange the following in chronological order on the basis of their enactment year. [1] .
(i) National Commission for Minorities Act
(ii) National Commission for Women Act
(iii) Protection of Civil Rights Act
(iv) Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer:
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Direction Read the excerpt from the decided case of Durga Prasad v. Baldeo and answer questions 16 to 20 The plaintiff constructed some shops at the request of the District Collector in a town. The constructed shops were given for rent for doing business with the defendant.

The defendant, apart from the rent, promised to give a 5% commission to the plaintiff on all articles sold through the shop in consideration of the huge amount spent by the plaintiff in the construction of the building. The defendant failed to pay the commission and the plaintiff initiated action to recover the commission.

Question 16.
On what ground was the action of the plaintiff rejected by the Court? [1] .
(a) Construction of the shop was done at the desire of the District Collector and not at the desire of the defendant.
(b) Construction was done at the desire of the defendant and not the District Collector.
(c) Court did not have the jurisdiction to try the case.
(d) Defendant had reasonable grounds to not pay commission.
Answer:
(a) Construction of the shop was done at the desire of the District Collector and not at the desire of the defendant.

Question 17.
Consideration can be for. [1] .
(a) Present only
(b) Past only
(c) Future only
(d) Any of these
Answer:
(d) Any of these

Question 18.
A contract without consideration is. [1] .
(a) valid
(b) not valid
(c) void ab initio
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) not valid

Question 19.
Which of the following is the first step in the formation of a contract? [1] .
(a) Doctrine of Restitution
(b) Doctrine of Retribution
(c) Doctrine of Election
(d) Doctrine of Lis Pendens
Answer:
(a) Doctrine of Restitution

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 20.
In a similar case, A offers to sell his car to B for ₹ 50,000. B accepts the offer. In this case, what is the consideration for B? [1].
(a) Car
(b) ₹ 50,000
(c) Both car and money
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Car

Section-B (16 Marks)

Question 21.
An industrial workman wants to file a suit against his employer for nonpayment of his daily wages. However, due to a lack of money, he wants to avail free legal aid. Can he be allowed to do so? [2].
Answer:
As per the Legal Services Authorities Act, of 1987, an industrial workman is allowed to avail of free legal aid services. In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by the Parliament to establish a nationwide uniform network for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society.

Question 22.
State the hierarchy followed in the Indian Judiciary.
Or
Discuss the role of judicial review. [2].
Answer:
Indian judiciary comprises of
(i) the Supreme Court,
(ii) High Court,
(iii) Subordinate Courts and
(iv) other Tribunals.

Or

Judicial review is a principle or a legal doctrine or a practice whereby a court can examine or review an executive or a legislative act, such as a law or some other governmental or administrative decision, and determine if the act is incompatible with the constitution.

Question 23.
There was a violent clash between the security forces of Assam and Bengal over a border dispute, which claimed the lives of ten Assam police personnel and injured dozens of others. The government informed the Parliament that there were a total of seven inter-state border disputes at present in the country. [2].
(i) Which institution has the authority to resolve such disputes?
(ii)Mention the constitutional provision under which it can intervene.
Answer:
(i) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to resolve such disputes.
(ii) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction under Article 1 31 of the Constitution to intervene in inter-state disputes since it falls under its original jurisdiction.

Question 24.
A sells his jeep to B for a consideration of ₹ 7,000 whereas the price of the jeep is ₹ 10,000. [2].
(i) Is there a valid consideration in this case?
(ii) Is an agreement without consideration valid?
Or
Write a short note on exchange.
Answer:
(i) In the given case, the consideration given is valid because the law does not require the consideration to be adequate.
(ii) Generally, an agreement without consideration is void and not enforceable by law because in such cases, one party is getting something from the other without giving anything to the other.

Or

Section 11 8 of the Transfer of Property Act defines exchange. When there is a transfer of ownership of one thing for the ownership of another between two persons, it is called an exchange. Transfer of property by exchange can be made only” by way of sale. The rights and liabilities of the parties to exchange are similar to that of the rights and liabilities of the buyer to the extent of receiving and that of the seller to the extent of giving.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 25.
Sunil was arrested on the suspicion of having murdered his friend. He was produced before the Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest. No concrete evidence could be presented by the police against Sunil. After being brought back from the court he was taken into custody to make him confess his crime. Are the police justified in its action? Which provision of Article 22 of the Constitution of India is being violated by the police? [2].
Answer:
In the given situation, the police have violated Article 22(2) of the Constitution which provides that no person can be detained in custody beyond the period of 24 hours without the authority of the Magistrate. Thus, the police are not justified in its action.

Question 26.
This doctrine is based on principles of equity. Under any instrument, if two rights are conferred on a person in such a manner that one right is in lieu of the other, he is bound to elect only one of them. Explain this doctrine. [2].
Answer:
According to the principle of the Doctrine of Election (Section 35 of the TPA), a party to the transfer cannot accept as well as reject a single
transaction. In other words, while claiming advantage of an instrument, the burden of the instrument should also be accepted.

Question 27.
Dubbed the ‘Bretton Woods Twins’, these two organizations were formed to aid the economies of various countries. [2].
(i) Identify the two organizations mentioned above.
(ii) State their main functions
Answer:
(i) The two organizations mentioned above are IMF and World Bank.
(ii) The World Bank aids member states by. providing loans to member states for the purpose of development and raising its funds by way of the world’s financial markets. The IMF helps in creating a stable climate for international trade by harmonizing its member’s monetary financial assistance to countries that encounter difficulties with their balance of payments.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 28.
Critically assess the situations given below in the light of ‘Cultural and Educational Rights’ [2].
(i) A government-aided school in West Bengal denied admission to Rachitbecause his mother tongue was Punjabi and he does not understand Bengali.
(ii) In the annual budget for education, the state government allocated ₹ 36.5 crores for government and state-funded schools and ₹ 16.5 crores for schools run by religious minorities.
Answer:
(i) Article 29 provides minority sections of citizens who have distinct languages, scripts, or cultures the right to conserve the same. It also prohibits educational institutions, maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds, from denying admission to any citizen on grounds of religion, race, Caste, or language. Thus, this constitutes a violation.
(ii) Article 30 provides all minorities, whether based on religion or language, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. It also prohibits the State from discriminating against educational institutions, while granting them aid, on grounds of religion or language.

Section -C (24 Marks)

Question 29.
In the 1987 case ofMC Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries, Justice PN Bhagwati, developed the principle of absolute liability. [3].
(i) Which principle helped the evolution of absolute liability?
(ii) Explain the principle of absolute liability.
(iii) What are the essentials of absolute liability?
Answer:
(i) Absolute liability evolved from the principle of strict liability.
(ii) It is a kind of liability under which a person is legally responsible for the consequences flowing from an activity even in the absence of fault or criminal intent on the part of the defendant. It is basically a legal doctrine that holds a party (defendant) responsible for its actions, without the plaintiff having to prove negligence or fault. part of the defendant.

When any person is involved in ultra-hazardous activities such as keeping wild animals, using explosives, or making defective products, then he/she may be held liable if any other person is injured because of that activity, even if the defendant took necessary precautions and followed safety requirements.
(iii) The following are the essentials of absolute liability.
(a) Dangerous thing
(b) Escape
(c) Non-natural use of land

Question 30.
How can foreign lawyers take the bar exam without earning a degree locally? State the procedure. [3].
Answer:
Some states may allow some foreign-educated lawyers to take the bar examination without earning their degree locally. In such a case, however, foreign-educated lawyers must begin the process by getting their law degree reviewed and analyzed by the American Bar Association (ABA). Once reviewed, the application is either accepted or deferred. If accepted, foreign lawyers are allowed to sit for that state’s bar exam in much the same way a domestic applicant would.

In New York, one of the jurisdictions most open to foreign lawyers, this would allow foreign lawyers to sit for the bar without being required to complete any further law school study, in the US. Even if deferred, applicants may be asked to complete coursework at an ABA-approved college before sitting for the bar exam. This coursework usually takes the form of a one-year LL.M program at an ABA-accredited school.

Question 31.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations. [3].
(i) A dispute arose between Steelcon Construction Company and A-T Architectural Design Company with respect to some technical issues relating to engineering design. They want to resolve their dispute but also want to keep matters confidential and their business secrets protected.
(ii) Sudha buys an air conditioner and realizes it isn’t cooling as it is defective. She tries to return it or have the company fix it, but doesn’t succeed. She talks with the salesperson, speaks with the manager, and writes emails to the company, and still, she is not satisfied with the company’s response. The disputing parties agree to refer the dispute to a neutral third party, Mr.Ranganathan, who evaluates their case and directs them toward settlement.
Answer:
(i) The method suggested here is Arbitration. Arbitration is a term derived from the nomenclature of Roman law. Arbitration is a private arrangement of taking disputes to a less adversarial, less formal, and more flexible forum and abiding by the judgment of a selected person, instead of carrying it to the established courts of justice.

(ii) The ADR method suitable here is mediation. Mediation is a method of ADR in which parties appoint a neutral third party. This neutral third party facilitates the mediation process in order to assist the parties in achieving an acceptable, voluntary agreement. Mediation is premised (based) on the voluntary will of the parties and is a flexible and informal technique of dispute resolution.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 32.
With regard to the provisions of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, consider the following situations and answer the questions that follow. [3].
(i) State Government gave reservations to Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes in public employment, who have not been adequately represented in the services under the State.
(ii) Dipender is a rickshaw puller and was not allowed to enter a public restaurant because he belonged to a backward class.
Answer:
(i) Article 16 is also based on the equality principle of Article 14. It provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public or State employment and bars any discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence. However, this article allows the State to provide reservation or affirmative (positive) action programs for government jobs to backward classes like Schedule Castes and Scheduled Tribes who because of historical and continued disadvantages based on caste status and otherwise, have not been adequately represented in the services under the State.

(ii) The given situation is a violation of Article 1 5 of the Constitution. Article 15 is based on the equality principle. It prohibits the State from discriminating against anyone based on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Also, it prohibits anyone and the State from using these grounds to restrict (restrain) any citizen from entering shops, public restaurants, hotels, and places of public entertainment; or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort.

Question 33.
Evaluate the role of any two international bodies which have been working towards harmonizing private laws of different countries. [3].
Answer:
(i) World Health Organisation WHO has been a core agency for setting up norms and standards to be followed with regard to human health and research regarding the containment of diseases as well as assessing worldwide health trends. It coordinates with various agencies in different countries to facilitate greater knowledge and awareness of health issues in various countries.

(ii) UNESCO Formed in 1945, UNESCO was set up to promote coordination between members keeping in mind the fact that mere economic and political arrangements are not enough to ensure growth and stability in member states. By promoting culture, preserving the heritage, and sharing knowledge and understanding that are beneficial for the whole of mankind, UNESCO aims to aid sustainable development and foster greater cooperation between nations.

Question 34.
A convention is organized by the WHO to bolster the coordination of international health workers to combat the ‘Monkeypox’ virus. Participating countries agree to strengthen health services and take emergency measures through the signing of a treaty. In this context
(i) Define treaty.
(ii) State any two features of a treaty. [3].
Answer:
(i) A Treaty/International Convention/Charter refers to a legally binding, written agreement in which states agree to act in a particular manner as specified in the agreement.
(ii) Two features of a treaty are
(a) It must be ratified before it can take effect.
(b) It must be approved by all parties to a treaty.

Question 35.
Neither is it possible nor is it proper to isolate the right to legal aid from the range of human rights. Comment.
Or
What are the primary functions of the State Authority? [3].
Answer:
There are millions of people who are denied human rights only because they cannot afford the cost required for the enforcement of their rights. Merely talking about human rights from an elitist platform is not sufficient. In order to do social justice for them and to make human rights meaningful, legal aid becomes essential. Human Rights which cannot be enforced due to poverty are meaningless and worthless.

A right to access to justice is sine-qua-non for social justice. Access to justice itself is one of the most basic human rights, and without it, the realization of many other human rights may become difficult. Indeed, the right to access justice or Legal Aid is evolved by judicial creativity for the benevolence (benefit) of poor persons. Thus, neither is it possible nor is it proper to isolate the right to legal aid from the range of human rights.

Or

The State Authority shall perform all or any of the following functions, namely.
(i) Give legal service to persons who satisfy the criteria laid down under this Act,
(ii) Conduct Lok Adalats, including Lok Adalats for High Court cases,
(iii) Undertake preventive and strategic legal aid programs; and
(iv) Perform such other functions as the State Authority may in consultation with the Central Authority, fix by regulations.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 36.
Mr. Naidu is a qualified Lawyer practicing since 1990 in the High Court of Delhi and in the Supreme Court of India. He has special knowledge and expertise in the field of Civil and Criminal Laws. While appearing in a courtroom, he usually dresses in black and white, wears a white band around his neck, and a black gown j’s having flaps on the shoulders.

On 1 8th November 2015, Mr. Mehta directly approached and appointed Mr. Naidu as his advocate, to file an appeal in the Delhi High Court against the decision of the District Court. Mr. Naidu accepted ₹ 1 lakh in cash as his consultation charges. On 19th November 2015 i.e. on the very next day, without wasting any time, Mr. Naidu started drafting pleadings as 29th November 2015 was the last day to file the appeal.
(i) Mr. Naidu comes under which category of a legal practitioner as recognized by the Advocates Act, 1961?
(ii) Giving reason, state whether the conduct of Mr. Naidu is justified as per the provisions of the Advocates Act, 1961 ? Naidu 1961?[3].
Answer:
(i) Mr. Naidu comes under the category of Senior Advocate.
(ii) The conduct of Mr. Naidu is not justified as per the provisions of the Advocates’ Act, 1961 because a Senior Advocate cannot file a vakalatnama, appear in the Court without another advocate or advocate-on record, cannot directly accept an engagement to appear in a case or draft pleadings.

Section-D (20 Marks)

Question 37.
‘Ambulance chasing’ is commonplace in the USA but it is not representative of professional practice in India. Justify the statement and explain the norms of advertising by advocates in India.
Or
Discuss any five opportunities available to law graduates in India. [5].
Answer:
Personal injury ads are commonplace in the USA. Often known as ‘ambulance chasers’, these personal injury lawyers are robust in their advertising on billboards, newspapers, flyers, and even distasteful ads on television However, ambulance chasing is not representative of professional practice in India since these classes of lawyers are the sort who solicit business by lurking around hospitals or by ads in newspapers and in Yellow Pages with toll-free numbers and “free” consultations.

The issue of allowing advertising and solicitation by lawyers requires balancing the interest of the public which includes getting information on legal rights and services through advertisements and enhancement of access to justice and the legal profession on one hand and the possible misuse of advertising techniques. lawyers which may lead to a loss of credibility in the profession as a whole.

Accordingly, only five pieces of information can be put up on the internet as per the Bar Council of India (BCI), i.e.
(i) the name of the advocate or the firm,
(ii) the contact details,
(iii) details of enrolment with the Bar,
(iv) his professional and academic qualifications, and
(v) the areas of practice.

Or

Some of the opportunities available to law graduates are
(i) Litigation Graduates may practice as an advocate in a court of law. This can be achieved by working under experienced advocates or being attached to litigation departments of law firms or companies in order to practice in the Courts of India.

(ii) Law Firm Practice Law firms vary in size and practice areas. Law firms may range from boutique law firms specializing in specific areas of law, to mid-sized law firms as-well as large law firms which are full-service law firms with different practice groups.

(iii) Corporate Sector Large corporations often have an in-house legal practice. In House, counsels are responsible for ensuring that the business of the company is being run in compliance with applicable laws and when required will bring in external lawyers.

(iv) Public Policy Lawyers have an important role in formulating and advising on public policy. Several organizations employ law graduates for policymaking and have institutionalized fellowships where law graduates can be Research Assistants.

(v) Legal Research and Academia Graduates may attach themselves to research centers and think tanks. Law graduates may take up teaching and research as a profession. At least a postgraduate degree in law or related disciplines is expected to build a career in academics. Universities employ postgraduates in law as Lecturers/Assistant Professors at the beginning of their careers. Short-term positions and opportunities as Visiting Professors/Adjuncts. Professors are also available in academia. . ‘

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 38.
‘‘The decision in the landmark 1973 Supreme Court case of Kesavananda Bharati v. The State of Kerala was an answer to the 24th Amendment Act to the Constitution affecting Article 1 3 and Article 368.” Explain.
Or
What features of fundamental rights give them a high pedestal in the Constitutional framework? [5].
Answer:
The Supreme Court has extended the practice of judicial review to matters concerning constitutional amendments by developing the doctrine of the basic structure of the Constitution. Article 368 confers power to the Parliament to amend the Constitution. This Article in its wording does not provide any limitation on the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.

Further, Article 13(2) states that “the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part (Part III – Fundamental Rights).” Article 13(2) limits Parliament’s amending authority in matters of fundamental rights. In order to overcome this restriction, in 1971, the Parliament adopted the 24th Amendment to the Constitution altering Articles 13 and 368 in a way that allowed itself unlimited powers of amendments including the authority to amend the fundamental rights provisions.

The landmark 1973 Supreme Court case of Keshavanda Bharati v. State of Kerela discussed the question about the unlimited constitutional amendment powers of the Parliament and established the doctrine of the basic structure or feature of the constitution. This doctrine invalidates any constitutional amendments that destroy or harm a basic or essential feature of the Constitution, like secularism, democracy, and federalism.

The Supreme Court has also held judicial review to be the basic structure or feature of the Constitution; as a result, it can nullify any constitutional amendment that abolishes or disregards judicial review in issues concerning the fundamental rights of citizens.

Or

Fundamental Rights are those basic rights that are essential for the development of individuals in a country. To ensure that any wrongdoing in this regard is punished, Fundamental Rights have been made enforceable in the High Courts and the Supreme Courts. It is for the same reason that the power of Judicial review has been applied for the protection and enforcement of fundamental rights provided in the Constitution.

To a lesser extent, judicial review has also been used in matters concerning legislative competence with regard to Centre-State relations. With respect to judicial review on matters of executive or administrative actions, courts have employed doctrines such as ‘proportionality’, ‘legitimate expectation’, ‘reasonableness’, and the ‘principles of natural justice.

Essentially, the scope of judicial review in courts in India has developed with respect to three issues
(i) Protection of fundamental rights as guaranteed in the Constitution;
(ii) Matters concerning the legislative competence between the center and states; and
(iii) fairness in executive acts.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 39.
Sanjay Shukla and Raghav Asawa are neighbors in an apartment complex. Large flowering pots kept on the balcony of Sanjay’s flat have caused seepage and weakened the ceiling above Raghav’s balcony. The latter demands that Sanjay Shukla removes the plants and a dispute ensues. [5].
(i) Identify and explain the alternative dispute resolution mechanism that is best suited to the given situation.
(ii) Also explain its process
Answer:
(i) Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) system refers to the use of non-adversarial techniques for adjudication of legal disputes. The method best suited in this situation is Mediation. Mediation is a method of ADR in which parties appoint a neutral third party.

This neutral third party facilitates the mediation process in order to assist the parties in achieving an acceptable, voluntary agreement. Mediation is premised (based) on the voluntary will of the parties and is a flexible and informal technique of dispute resolution.

(ii) Process of Mediation The neutral third party facilitating the process of mediation is known as a mediator. Mediation does not follow a uniform set of rules, though mediators typically set forth rules that the mediation will observe at the outset of the process.

Successful mediation often reflects not only the parties’ willingness to participate but also the mediator’s skill. There is no uniform set of rules for mediators to become licensed, and rules vary by state regarding requirements for mediator certification.

Broadly speaking, mediation may be triggered in three ways
(a) Parties may agree to resolve their claims through a pre-agreed mediation agreement without initiating formal judicial proceedings (pre-litigation mediation).
(b) Parties may agree to mediate, at the beginning of formal court proceedings (popularly known as court referrals).
(c) Mediation may be taken recourse of after formal court proceedings have started, or even post-trial, i.e. at the appellate stage.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 3 with Solutions

Question 40.
(i) What Constitutes Tort of Negligence?
(ii) Explain with reasons whether the following act constitutes ‘negligence’. The employees of Care Cell Telecom opened a manhole in the street and in the evening left that manhole open. They covered it with canvas shelter but left it unattended. Prince, the the 8 years old boy, who was playing there, stumbled over it and fell into the manhole, and sustained injuries.
(iii) Give one example of negligence. [5].
Or
How does tort help in protecting against any bodily harm? Discuss with specific reference to assault and battery.
Answer:
(i) The basic understanding of negligence is that the wrong-doer or the defendant has been careless in a way that harms the interest of the victim or the claimant. For example, when the defendant carries out an act of constructing something on her premises, she owes a duty of care towards the claimant and the standard of duty of care depends on whether the claimant was on the site or in the neighborhood as well as whether the claimant was a lawful visitor or a trespasser.

(ii) To constitute the tort of negligence, three important essentials must be fulfilled
(a) the defendant owes a duty of care to the victim;
(b) there has been a breach of duty of care on part of the defendant; and
(c) The breach of the duty to care resulted in the harm suffered by the claimant. Since Care Cell Telecom did owe a duty of care to Prince and there was a breach of that duty which caused harm to him, they will be held liable for the tort of negligence.

(iii) Example of negligence is A, a surgeon, negligently leaves scissors in the ‘ intestine of the patient.

Or

Tort law protects the claimant against any harm to his/her interests of bodily integrity. The tort of battery and assault applies to any intentional harm caused to the body. Assault refers to any intentional act which causes another person to be fearful of immediate harm.

In other words, it should cause the plaintiff to. fear that the plaintiff is about to be physically attacked and can make him the victim of the assault. Battery refers to the intentional use of force against another without any lawful justification. In other words, if the physical contact apprehended in an assault actually takes place, it amounts to the tort of battery.

It is intentional or offensive physical contact with a person who had not given his consent to be touched. Further, Harm may also be caused by negligence as well as any breach of statutory duty like traffic laws, health laws, and so on. Mental distress is an element in bodily injury that raises any compensation to the victim.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
  2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
  3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
  4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
  5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
  6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
  7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
  8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section – A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)

Questions 1.
If one root of the equation 2x2 – 5x +(k – 6) = 0 be the reciprocal of the other, then: (1)
(a) k = -8
(b) k=8
(c) k = 4
(d) k = -4
Answer:
(b) k = 8

Explanation:
Given, equation is 2x2 – 5x + (k – 6) = 0
Let, the roots be α and \(\frac{1}{α}\)
Product of roots = \(\frac{k-6}{2}\)
⇒ α × \(\frac{1}{α}\) = \(\frac{k-6}{2}\)
\(\frac{k-6}{2}\) = 1
⇒ k – 6 = 2
⇒ k =8

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Questions 2.
A circle on the coordinate axes, such that the origin is the centre of the circle and it passes though (\(\frac{13}{2}\),0). The point which does not lie in the interior of the circle is:
(a) (\(-\frac{13}{2}\),1)
(b) (2, \(\frac{7}{3}\))
(c) (5, \(-\frac{1}{2}\))
(d) (-6, \(\frac{5}{2}\))
Answer:
(d) (-6, \(\frac{5}{2}\))

Explanation:
Since, the centre of the circle is at the origin (0, 0) and it passes through the point (\(\frac{13}{2}\),0)
This, radius of the circle = \(\sqrt{\left(\frac{13}{2}-0\right)^2+(0-0)^2}\)
= \(\frac{13}{2}\) units = 6.5 units
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 1
Distance between (0, 0) and (\(\frac{-3}{4}\),1)
= \(\sqrt{\left(\frac{-3}{4}-0\right)^2+(1-0)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{\left(\frac{9}{16}-0\right)+1}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{25}{10}}\)
= \(\frac{5}{4}\) units = 1.25 units

So, the point (\(\frac{-3}{4}\),1) lies in the interior of the circle.
Distance between (0, 0) and (2, \(\frac{7}{3}\))
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 2.1
So, the point (2, \(\frac{7}{3}\)) lies in the interior of the circle.
Distance between (0, 0) and (5, –\(\frac{1}{2}\))
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 2.2
So, the point lies in the interior of the circle.
Distance between (0, 0) and (-6, \(\frac{5}{2}\))
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 2.3
So this point lies on the circle not in the interior.

Question 3.
In the following distribution:

Marks obtained Number of students
More than or equal to 0 63
More than or equal to 10 58
More than or equal to 20 55
More than or equal to 30 51
More than or equal to 40 48
More than or equal to 50 42

The frequency of the class 30 – 40 is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 48
(d) 51
Answer:
(a) 3

Explanation:
Given distribution is:

Marks obtained Number of students frequency
0-10 63 – 58 = 5 5
10-20 58 – 55 = 3 3
20-30 55 – 51 = 4 4
30-40 51 – 48 = 3 3
40-50 48 – 42 = 6 6
50-60 42 42

Hence frequency of class 30-40 is 3.

Question 4.
The greatest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving remainders 5 and 8, respectively is:
(a) 13
(b) 65
(c) 875
(d) 1750
Answer:
(a) 13

Explanation:
Number when divides 70 and 125 leaves 5 and 8 as remainder.
Then,
70 – 5 = 65
125 – 8 = 117
HCF of 65 and 117
65 = 5 × 13
117 = 3 × 3 × 13
HCF is 13
Hence, the required number is 13.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 5.
If the first term of an AP is -5 and the common difference is 2, then the sum of the first 6 terms is:
(a) 0
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 0

Explanation:
Given, first term of AP, a = -5 common difference, d = 2
Sum of first 6 terms
n
Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2° + (n – 1)d]
S6 = \(\frac{6}{2}\)[2 × (-5) + (6 -1) × 2]
= 3(-10 + 10)
= 0

Question 6.
If 2 cos 3A = 1, then the value of A is:
(a) 20°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 45°
Answer:
(a) 20°

Explanation:
2 cos 3A = 1
cos 3A = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ cos 3A = cos 60° [cos 60° = \(\frac{1}{2}\)]
⇒ 3A = 60°
⇒ A = 20°

Question 7.
AABC is not similar to ADEF but ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF, then which of the following is incorrect?
(a) BC. EF = AC. FD
(b) AB. EF = AC. DE
(c) BC. DE = AB. EF
(d) BC. DE = AB. FD
Answer:
(c) BC. DE = AB. EF

Explanation:
∆ABC ~ ∆EDF
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 3
Since, corresponding sides of similar ∆S are proportional
\(\frac{A B}{E D}=\frac{B C}{D F}=\frac{C A}{F E}\)
Then only (c) option is not correct.

Question 8.
The value of k, for which the pair of linear equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky + 16 = 0 have infintely many solution is:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) -2
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Explanation: Here, equations are :
3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky + 16 = 0
On compairing the given equations with
a1x + b1y + c1 = 0
and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 we get,
a1 = 3, b1 = -1, ci1 = 8
and a2 = 6, b2 = -k, c2 = 16
\(\frac{a_1}{a_2}=\frac{b_1}{b_2}=\frac{c_1}{c_2}\)
\(\frac{3}{6}=\frac{-1}{-k}=\frac{8}{16}\)
k = 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 9.
If Σfi = 11, Σfixi = 2p + 52 and the mean of distribution is 6, then the value of p is:
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 18
Answer:
(a) 7

Explanation:
Σfi = 11
Σfixi = 2p + 52
\(\bar{x} = 6\)
\(\bar{x}=\frac{\sum f_i x_i}{\sum f_i}\)
6 = \(\frac{2p+52}{11}\)
2p + 52 = 66
2p = 66 – 52
2p = 14
p = 7

Question 10.
If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (p + 1)x + q are 2 and -3, then:
(a) p = -7,q = -1
(b) p = 5, q = -1
(c) p = 2, q = -6
(d) p = 0, q = -6
Answer:
(d) p = 0, q = -6

Explanation:
Here, polynomial is : x2 + (p + 1)x + q
Zeroes of polynomial are 2 and – 3
sum of zeroes = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) = \(\frac{-(p+1)}{1}\)= 2 – 3
p + 1 = 1
p = 0
Product of zeroes = \(\frac{c}{a}\) = \(\frac{q}{1}\)
q = 2 × (-3) = -6

Question 11.
The sum of the three sides of a triangle whose vertices are (0,0), (0,4) and (3,0) is:
(a) 12 units
(b) 5 units
(c) 11 units
(d) (7 + \(\sqrt{5}\))units
Answer:
(a) 12 units

Explanation:
Sum of 3 sides = OA + AB + OB
By distance formula
= \(\begin{aligned}
\sqrt{(4-0)^2+(0-0)^2}+\sqrt{(4-0)^2+(0-3)^2} \\
&+\sqrt{(0-0)^2+(3-0)^2}
\end{aligned}\)
= 4 + 5 + 3
= 12 units
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 12.
A mason constructs a wall of dimensions 270 cm × 300 cm × 350 cm with the bricks each of size 22.5 cm × 11.25 cm × 8.75 cm
and it is assumed that \(\frac{1}{8}\) space is covered 8 with mortar. How many bricks are used to construct the wall ?
(a) 11,000
(b) 11,100
(c) 11,200
(d) 11,300
Answer:
c) 11,200

Explanation:
Volume of the wall = 270 × 300 × 350 = 28350000 cm3
Volume of a brick = 22.5 × 11.25 × 8.75 = 2214.84375cm3

Volume of wall covered by mortar 1
= -× 270 × 300 × 350
=135 × 75 × 350
= 3543750 cm3

Volume of wall covered by bricks
=2,83,50,000 – 35,43,750
= 2,48,06,250 cm3

Let number of bricks used be n
A.T.Q.
n × 22.5 × 11.25 × 8.75 = 2,48,06,250
n = 11,200

Question 13.
Seema purchased a lottery ticket. She was very curious to know her winning chances. The probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought?
(a) 40
(b) 240
(c) 480
(d) 750
Answer:
(c) 480

Explanation:
Total tickets sold = 6000 Probability that Seema will win = 0.08
P(of seema winning) = \(\frac{Tickets she bought }{Total tickes sold}\)
Tickets she bought = 6000 × 0.08 = 480

Question 14.
A pair of tangents is drawn on a circle from an external point. If these tangents are perpendicular to each other and each is of length 5 cm, then the radius of the circle is:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 7.5 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
Answer:
(c) 5 cm

Explanation:
Here,
∠OAB = 90° (Tangent is ⊥r to radius at point of contact)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 5
∠OBA = 45° (Tangents are inclined equally on OB)
In ∆OAB
tan 45° = \(\frac{OA}{BA}\) = \(\frac{OA}{5}\)
OA = 5 cm
Radius of circle = 5cm.

Question 15.
The 4th term from the end of the AP: -10, -8, -6,…………… 48 is:
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 58
Answer:
(b) 42

Explanation:
Given, AP is -10, -8, -6, ………… 48
Now, series, : 48 -6, -8, -10
common difference, d = -8 – (-6)
= -2
Then, a4 = a + 3d
= 48 + 3 × (-2)
= 48 – 6
= 42

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 16.
If triangles ∆ABC and ∆DEF, \(\frac{A B}{E F}=\frac{B C}{E D}=\frac{C A}{D F}\) then:
(a) ∆DEF ~ ∆CAB
(b) ∆DEF ~ ∆ABC
(c) ∆CBA ~ ∆DEF
(d) ∆BCA ~ ∆DEF
Answer:
(a) ∆DEF ~ ∆CAB

Explanation:
In ∆s ABC and DEF
\(\frac{A B}{E F}=\frac{B C}{P D}=\frac{C A}{D F}\)
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆EFD
or ∆CAB ~ ∆DEF

Question 17.
A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are -2 and 4 is:
(a) x2 – 2x – 8
(b) x2 – 2x + 4
(c) 2x2 – x – 4
(d) x2 + 2x – 8
Answer:
(a) x2 – 2x – 8

Explanation:
Given, zeros are – 2 and 4
Sum of zeroes = 2
Product of zeroes = – 8
∴ Quadratic polynomial = x2 – (sum of zeroes)x + Product of zeroes
= x2 – 2x – 8

Question 18.
A school divides its sutdents into 5 houses A, B, C, D and E. Class XA has 23 students, 4 from house A, 8 from house B, 5 from house C, 2 from house D and rest from house E. A single student is chosen at random to become the monitor of the class. The probability that the chosen student is not from houses A, B and C is:
(a) \(\frac{4}{23}\)
(b) \(\frac{6}{23}\)
(c) \(\frac{8}{23}\)
(d) \(\frac{17}{23}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{6}{23}\)

Explanation:
Total students in class XA = 23
students from house A = 4
students from house B = 8
students from house C = 5
students from house D = 2
students from house E = 4

Total students in house D and E = 2 + 4 = 6
Required probability = \(\frac{6}{23}\)

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and,, 20, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Choose the correct option as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Statement A (Assertion): If k = \(\frac{1}{2}\), then the points (k, 2 – 2k), (-k + 1, 2k) and (-4 – k, 6 – 2k) are collinear
Statement R (Reason): Three points P, Q and k are collinear in the same straight line if PQ + QR = PR.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation:
Where more than three points are collinear slope of the line are same.
So,
Slope : [(k,2 – 2k), [(-k + 1, 2k)] = [(-k + 1, 2k),(-4 -k, 6 – 2k)]
\(\frac{2-2k-2k}{k+k-1}=\frac{2k-6+2k}{-k+1+4+k}\)
\(\frac{2-4k}{2k-1}=\frac{4x-6}{5}\)
(1 – 2k) 5 = (2k – 3) (2k – 1)
5 – 10k = 4k2 – 2k – 6k + 3
4k2 + 2k – 2 = 0
2k2 + k – 1 = 0
2k2 + 2k – k – 1= 0
2k(k + 1) – 1 (k + 1) = 0
(2k – 1)(k + 1) = 0
k = -1 or \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 20.
Statement A (Assertion): The external dimensions of a wooden box are 18 cm, 10 cm and 6 cm respectively and thickness of the wood is 5 mm, then the internal volume is 765 cm3.
Statement R (Reason): If external dimensions of a rectangular box t, b and ft and the thickness of the sides be x, then its internal volume is (l – 2x)(b -2x) (h – 2x).
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).

Explanation:
Length of box = 18 cm
width of box = 10 cm
height of box = 18 cm
thickness of box = 5 mm = \(\frac{1}{2}\) cm

Internal lenth, width and height of the box is
\(\left(18-\frac{2 \times 1}{2}\right),\left(10-\frac{2 \times 1}{2}\right),\left(6-\frac{2 \times 1}{2}\right)\)
Internal volume of box = 17 × 9 × 5 = 765 cm2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Section – B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 mark each.)

Question 21.
A light house is used to used to warn mariners of dangerous shallows rocky coasts. Light house in a sea can throw the light up to a distance of 70 m. If the angle it makes while spreading light is 60°, find the area covered by it.
Answer:
When a light house spreads light, it forms a sector of angle 60° and radius 70 cm.
Area of sector = \(\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^2\)
= \(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{22}{7} \times 70 \times 70\)
= \(\frac{1}{6} \times 700\)
= \(\frac{7700}{3}\) m2
Hence, light will be spread in the area of \(\frac{7700}{3}\) m2

Question 22.
Find the 10th, 23rd and 30th terms of the AP: 9, 13, 17, 21, ………..
OR
An envelope contains 40 shopping vouchers, of which 25 vouchers each has a value of ₹ 100 and 15 vouchers each has a value of ₹ 500. Anjana picks up a voucher it random from the envelope. Find the probability that the voucher has a value of
(A) ₹ 500
(B) ₹ 50
Answer:
Given, AP is 9, 13, 17, 21, ………..
Here, first term, a = 9
common difference, d = 13 – 9 = 4

Then, a10 = a + (n – 1)d
= 9 + (10 – 1) × 4
= 9 + 36
= 45

a23 = 9 + (23 – 1) × 4
= 9 + 22 × 4
= 9 + 88
= 97

a30 = 9 + (30 – 1) × 4
= 9 + 29 × 4
= 9 + 116
= 125

OR

Total number of shopping vouchers = 40
No. of vouchers of value of ₹ 100 = 25
No. of vouchers of value of ₹ 500 = 15

(A) P(getting a voucher of ₹ 500) = \(\frac{15}{40}\)
= \(\frac{3}{8}\)
(B) P(getting a voucher of ₹ 50) = \(\frac{0}{40}\)
= 0

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 23.
Draw the graph of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = 3 – 2x – x2.
Answer:
Let p(x) = 3 – 2x – x2.

x -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4
y -12 -5 0 3 4 3 0 -5 -12 -21

There are few values of y corresponding to x.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 6

Question 24.
If 5 cos 0 = 3, find the value of \(\sqrt{\frac{1-\sin \theta}{1+\sin \theta}}\)
Answer:
Given:
5 cos θ = 3
cos θ = \(\frac{3}{5}\) = \(\frac{B}{H}\)

Now, P2 + B2 = H2
(by Pythagoras theorem)
p2 = H2 – B2
= 52 – 32 = 25 – 9 = 16
P = 4 units
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 7

Question 25.
Show graphically that the following pair of linear equations has infinitely many solutions:
3x – y = 2; 9x – 3y = 6.
OR
Find the roots of the following equation by using quadratic formula: 2x2 + 6\(\sqrt{3}\)x – 60 = 0
Answer:
Given, pair of Linear equations are,
3x – y – 2 = 0 …(i)
and 9x – 3y – 6 = 0 …(ii)
For equation (i),
y = 3x – 2

x 0 1 2
y -2 1 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 8
for equation (ii)
y = \(\frac{9x=6}{3}\)

x 0 1 2
y -2 1 4

Both the equations are represented by the same Line So they overlap. Hence there are infinitely many solutions.
OR
The given equation is 2x2 + 6\(\sqrt{3}\)x – 60 = 0 comparing it with standard form of equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, we get
a = 2, b = 6\(\sqrt{3}\), c = -60
D = b2 – 4ac = (6\(\sqrt{3}\))2 – 4 × 2 × (-60)
= 108 + 480 = 588
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 9
Hence, roots are 2\(\sqrt{3}\) and -5\(\sqrt{3}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Section – C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 mark each.)

Question 26.
For the first three days of a lending library, there is a fixed charge, and then there is an additional charge for each consecutive day. For a book that she kept for seven days, Saritha paid ₹ 27, while Susy paid ₹ 21 for a book she kept for five days. Find the fixed charge and the charge for each extra day.
Answer:
Let fixed charge for 3 days = ₹ x
Let additional charge for each day thereafter = ₹ y
According to given condition, we have
x + 4y = 27 …(i)
x + 2y = 21 …(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
2y = 6
⇒ y = 3
Putting value of y in (i), we get
x + 4(3) = 27
⇒ x = 27 – 12 = 15
Therefore, fixed charge for 3 days = ₹ 15 and
additional charge for each day after 3 days = ₹ 3

Question 27.
A rectangular cardboard of dimensions 14 cm × 7 cm is taken. Two circular pieces of equal radii and maximum area, touching each other are cut out from it. Find the area of the remaining cardboard.
Answer:
Here, ABCD is a cardboard of dimensions 14 cm and 7 cm.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 10
Two circles of centre O and O’ are cut from the cardboard.
Diameter of each circle = 7 cm
Radius (r) of each circle = 3.5 cm
∴ Area of remaining cardboard = Area of cardboard – Area of 2 circles
= 14 × 7 – 2 x π (r2)
= 98 – 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\)
= 98 – 77
= 21 sq. cm

Question 28.
Find the value of k, if-(a, b) is the mid¬point of the line segment joining the points A(10, -6) and B(k, 4) and a – 2b = 18. Also, find the distance AB.
OR
In the given figure, CD and GH are respectively the medians of ∆ABC and ∆EFG. If ∆ABC ~ ∆FEG, then prove that ∆ADC ~ ∆FHG
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 11
Answer:
(a, b) is the mid-point of Line segment joining the points A(10, -6) and B(k, 4)
So, a =\(\frac{10+k}{2}\) and b = \(\frac{-6+4}{2}\) = -1
It is given that,
a – 2b = 18
Putting values of a and b
\(\frac{10+k}{2}\) – 2(-1) = 18
\(\frac{10+k}{2}\) = 16
k = 22

∴ Distance between the points A(10, -6) and B(22, 4) is:
AB = \(\sqrt{(22 -10)^2 + (4 + 6)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{244}\)
= \(2 \sqrt{61}\) units

OR

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 11.1
And ∆ABC ~ ∆EFG
To Prove: ∆ADC ~ ∆FHG
Proof: Since, ∆ABC ~ ∆EFG and CD and GH are medians of ∆s.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 12

Question 29.
A ∆ABC is such that, the points are on the side AC and BC and DE || AB and EF || BD. Prove that DC2 = CF × AC.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 13
Answer:
Given: In AABC,
DE || AB and EF || BD
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 14
To Prove: DC2 = CF × AC
Proof: In AABC, as DE || AB
∴ \(\frac{C D}{A D}=\frac{C E}{E B}\) ……(i)
and in ACDB, as EF || BD
∴ \(\frac{C F}{F D}=\frac{C E}{B E}\)
From (i) and (ii)
\(\frac{C D}{A D}=\frac{C F}{F D}\)
or \(\frac{A D}{C D}=\frac{F D}{C F}\)
\(\frac{A D}{C D}+1=\frac{F D}{C F}+1\)
\(\frac{A D+C D}{C D}=\frac{F D+ C F}{C F}\)
\(\frac{AC}{DC}=\frac{CD}{C F}\)
DC2 = CF × AC
Hence, Proved

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 30.
Inscribed in a right circular cone are two spheres with radii of 6 cm and 1 cm. The larger sphere touches both the smaller sphere and the cone’s base. Find the cone’s height.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 15
The number of days 30 workers of a factory were absent in a year was found to be as below:
2, 14, 50, 72, 9, 48, 61, 60, 75, 39, 4, 8,
26, 62, 70, 58, 29, 77, 64, 43, 56, 67,
45, 58, 69, 76, 6, 50, 17, 66.
Prepare the frequency table with overlapping intervals of size 10, and calculate the mean of the number of days the workers were absent. (3)
Answer:
Here As ABC and ADE are similar
∴ \(\frac{6}{1}\) = \(\frac{x+1+6}{x}\)
⇒ 6x = x + 7
⇒ 5x = 7
x = \(\frac{7}{5}\)
∴ Height of the cone = x + 1 + 12
= x + 13
= \(\frac{7}{5}\) + 13
= \(\frac{72}{5}\) cm

OR

Here smallest value is 2.
Greatest value is 77.
Range = 77 – 2 = 75.
No.of classes = \(\frac{75}{10}\) = 7.5 = 8
∴ Frequency distribution is:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 16
Mean \(\bar { x } \) = \(\frac{\sum f_i x_i}{\sum f_i}\)
= \(\frac{1380}{30}\) = 46
Hence the required mean is 46.

Question 31.
A class of 38 students went to a trip to Singapore. Out of the 18 boys , 6 of them checked in their language at the airport. 8 of the girls did not check in their language. If a student is chosen at random, find the probability that the student:
(A) is a girl who did not check in her language
(B) checked in his/her language. (3)
Answer:
Total number of students went on the trip = 38
No. of boys = 18
No. of girls = 38 – 18 = 20
Boys checked in their Language = 6
Boys did not checked in their Language
18 – 6 = 12
GirLs did not cheked in their Language = 8
Girls checked in their language = 20 – 8 = 12
(A) No. of girls checked in their Language = 12
Required probability = \(\frac{12}{38}\) = \(\frac{6}{19}\)

(B) No. of girls and boys checked in their language = 6 + 12
= 18
Required probability = \(\frac{18}{38}\) = \(\frac{9}{19}\)

Section – D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 mark each.)

Question 32.
In a flight of 60 km, an aeroplane was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/h and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. Find the original duration of the flight. (5)
Answer:
Let, the original speed of the aeroplane be x km/hr.
Then, new speed = (x – 200) km/hr.

Duration of flight at original speed = \(\frac{600}{x}\)
Duration of flight at reduced speed = (\(\frac{600}{x-200}\))hr
∴ \(\frac{600}{x-200}\) – \(\frac{600}{x}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ \(\frac{600-600(x-200)}{x(x-200)}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ \(\frac{120000}{(x^2-200x)}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ x2 – 200x – 240000 = 0
⇒ x2 – 600x + 400x – 240000 = 0
⇒ x (x – 600) + 400 (x – 600) = 0
⇒ (x – 600) (x + 400) = 0
⇒ x = 600 or x = -400 (not possible)
So, original speed of aeroplane was 600
∴ Duration of flight = \(\frac{600}{600}\) = 1hr.
600
Hence, originial duration of flight is 1 hr.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 33.
If cosec θ – sin θ = p and sec θ – cos θ = q, then prove that
(A) p2 q2(p2 + q2 + 3) = 1
(B) (p2 q)2/3 + (pq2)2/3 = 1.
OR
Two stations are located at a distance of “a” and “b” from the foot of a leaning tower that leans in the direction of the north. If a and b be the elevations of the top of the tower from these stations, show that the inclination q to the horizontal is given by \(\cot \theta=\frac{b \cot \alpha-a \cot \beta}{b-a}\)
Answer:
Given:
cosec θ – sin θ = p
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 17
(A) L.H.S. = p2 q2(p2 + q2 + 3)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 18
Hence, Proved.

(B) L.H.S. = (p2 q)2/3 + (pq2)2/3
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 19
Hence, Proved.

OR

Let, the height of the tower DE = h
Distance between first station to foot of tower AD = a + x
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 21
Distance between second station to foot of tower BD = b + x
Distance between C and D = x
Given, a and b are angles of elevation of two station to the top of the tower.
i.e. ∠DAE = α, ∠DBE = ß, ∠DCE = θ
In ∆CDE,
cot θ = \(\frac{x}{h}\) …(i)

In ∆BDE,
cot ß = \(\frac{b + x}{h}\)
b + x = h cot ß …….(ii)
Multiply ‘a’ on both sides
ab + ax = ha cot ß …(ii)

In ∆ADE,
cot α = \(\frac{a + x}{h}\)
a + x = h cot α
Multipity ‘b’ on both sides
ba + bx = bh cot α …(iii)
Subtract (iii) from (ii)
(b – a)x = h (b cot α – a cot ß)
\(\frac{x}{h}\) = \(\frac{b cot α – a cot ß}{b-a}\)
cot θ = \(\frac{b cot α – a cot ß}{b-a}\) [from (i)]
Hence, proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 34.
Three sets of Science, S.St and Computer books have to put in such a way that all the books are stored subject – wise and the height of each stack is the same. The number of science books are 96, the number of S.St books are 240 and the number of Computer books are 336. If we assume that the books are of the same thickness, determine the number of stacks of Science, S.St and Computer books. (5)
Answer:

No. of stacks of Science books = 96
No. of stacks of S. St books = 240
No. of stacks of Computer books = 336
For finding the number of books the each stock, we find the HCF of 96, 240 and 336
Prime factor of 96, 240 and 336 are:
96 = 25 x 3
240 = 24 × 3 × 5
336 = 24 × 3 × 7
HCF = 24 × 3 = 48

No. of stacks of Science books = \(\frac{96}{48}\) = 2
No. of stacks of S. St books = \(\frac{240}{48}\) = 5
No. of stacks of Computer books = \(\frac{336}{48}\) = 7
∴ Total no. of stacks = 2 + 5 + 7 = 14

Question 35.
A circle with the centre O has been inscribed with the quadrilateral ABCD. CD is produced to E in a way that ∠AED = 95° and ∠OBA=30°. Find ∠OAC.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 21
OR
The following frequency distribution gives the monthly consumption of electricity of 68 consumers of a locality. Find the median, mean and mode of the data and compare them.

Monthly consumption No. of consumers
65 – 85 4
85 – 105 5
105 – 125 13
125 – 145 20
145 – 165 14
165 – 185 8
185 – 205 4

Answer:
In the figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral CD is produced to E such that ∠ADE = 95°. O is the centre of the circle.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 22
∴ ∠ADC + ∠ADE = 180°
⇒ ∠ADC + 95° = 180°
⇒ ∠ADC = 180° – 95° = 85°
Now arc ABC subtends ∠AOC at the centre and ∠ADC at the remaining part of the circle.
∴ ∠AOC = 2∠ADC = 2 × 85° = 170°
Now in DOAC,
∴ ∠OAC + ∠OCA + ∠AOC = 180°
(Sum of angles of a triangle)
∠OAC = ∠OCA
(∵ OA = OC radii of circle)
∴ ∠OAC + ∠OAC + 170° = 180°
2∠OAC = 180° – 170° = 10°
∴ ∠OAC = \(\frac{10°}{2}\) = 5°

OR

Monthly consumption No. of consumers (fi) x fixi c.f
65 – 85 4 75 300 4
85 – 105 5 95 475 9
105 – 125 13 115 1495 22
125 – 145 20 135 2700 42
145 – 165 14 155 2170 56
165 – 185 8 175 1400 64
185 – 205 4 195 780 68
Σfi=68 Σfixi=9320

For mean: Mean = \(\frac{\Sigma f_i x_i}{\Sigma f_i}=\frac{9320}{68}=137.05\)

For median: n = 68 and \(\frac{n}{2}\) = 34
Median class = 125 -145
we have, l = 125, cf = 22, f = 20 and h = 20
Median = \(l+\left(\frac{\frac{n}{2}-c f}{f}\right) \times h\)
= \(125+\left(\frac{34-22}{20}\right) \times 20\)
= 125 + 12
= 137

For mode:
Modal class = 125 – 145
Then, we have l = 125, f0 = 13, f1 = 20, f2 = 14
and h = 20
Mode = \(l+\frac{f_1-f_0}{2 f_1-f_0-f_2} \times h\)
= \(125+\left(\frac{20-13}{2 \times 20-13-14}\right) \times 20\)
= 125 + 10.77
= 135.77

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Section – E
(Case Study Based Questions)
(Section E consists of 3 questions. All are compulsory.)

Question 36.
On a field trip, a group of Class X students went to India Gate. History piqued the interest of both the students and the teacher. The teacher described India Gate, a huge sandstone arch in New Delhi dedicated to the British Indian soldiers who lost their lives in conflicts fought between 1914 and 1919 and known officially as Delhi Memorial. India Gate, which is situated at the eastern end of the Rajpath (formerly known as the Kingsway), is around 138 feet (42 m) tall, according to the teacher.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 23
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) What is the angle of elevation of the top of the monument if they are standing at a distance of 42 m away from the monument?
OR
If they want to see the top of the monument with an angle of elevation of 60°, at what distance from the monument they should stand? (2)
(B) If the altitude of the Sun is 60° ,then what is the height of the vertical tower that will cast a shadow of length 20 m ?
(C) If the ratio of the height of a pole to the length of its shadow is 1: 1, when what is the angle of elevation of the Sun ?
Answer:
Case Study-1
(A) Let, AB be the monument and 0 be the angle of elevation.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 24
Then, in ∆ABC,
tan θ = \(\frac{AB}{BC}\) = \(\frac{42}{42}\) = 1
tan θ = tan 45°
⇒ θ = 45°

OR
Let C be the point of observation
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 25
tan 60° = \(\frac{AB}{BC}\)
\(\sqrt{3}\) = \(\frac{42}{BC}\)
BC = \(\frac{42}{\sqrt{3}}\) × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}\) = 14\(\sqrt{3}\) m

(B) Let PQ be a tower and RQ be its shadow of length 20 m.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 26
In ∆PQR,
tan 60° = \(\frac{PQ}{QR}\)
\(\sqrt{3}\) = \(\frac{PQ}{20}\)
PQ = 20\(\sqrt{3}\) m

(C) If ratio of height of pole and length of shadow is 1 : 1, then they are equal in length.
tan θ = \(\frac{1}{1}\) = 1
θ = 45°

Question 37.
Ashok is trying to find the height of a tower near his house. He is using the properties of similar triangles. The height of Ashok’s house is 20 m and casts a shadow of length 10 m at the ground. At the same time, the tower casts 50 m long shadow on the ground and the house of Prem casts 20 m shadow on the ground.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 27
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) What is the height of the tower? And find, the height of Prem’s house.
OR
When the tower casts a shadow of 40 m, same time what will be the length of the shadow of Prem’s house?
(B) What will be the length of the shadow of the tower when Ashok’s house casts a shadow 12 m long?
(C) When the tower casts a shadow of 40 m, same time what will be the length of the shadow of Ashok’s house?
Answer:
(A) Since, the sun’s elevation is same
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
as ∠ABC = ∠PQR = 90°
and ∠ACB = ∠PRQ
\(\frac{AB}{PQ}\) = \(\frac{BC}{RQ}\)
(Corresponding sides of similar As)
∴ \(\frac{20}{PQ}\) = \(\frac{10}{50}\)
∴ PQ =100 m
∆ABC ~ ∆MNO
∴ \(\frac{AB}{MN}\) = \(\frac{BC}{ON}\)
∴ \(\frac{20}{MN}\) = \(\frac{10}{20}\)
MN = 40
OR
Height of tower = 100 m
Shadow of tower = 40 m
Height of Prem’s house = 40 m
Shadow of Prem’s house = x
By property of similar triangle
∴ \(\frac{100}{40}\) = \(\frac{40}{x}\)
x = \(\frac{1600}{100}\) = 16 m

(B) If the Length of shadow of Ashok’s house is 12 m, then by property of similar triangles
\(\frac{20}{12}\) = \(\frac{100}{x}\)
where x is the the length of the shadow of the tower
x = 60 m

(C) (d) 8 m
Explanation: If tower is making a shadow of 40 m, and its height is 100 m (as calculated)
Height of Ashok’s house is: 20 m
∴ Let, length of its shadow be y.
∴ By property of similar triangles
\(\frac{100}{40}\) = \(\frac{20}{y}\)
y = 8 m

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 9 with Solutions

Question 38.
An agency has decided to install customized playground equipments at various colony parks. For that they decided to study the age – group of children playing in a park of the particular colony. The classification of children according to their ages, playing in the park is shown in the following table:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 10 with Solutions - 28

Age group of children (in years) Number of children
6-8 43
8-10 58
10-12 70
12-14 42
14-16 27

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Which age – group has the maximum number of children?
(B) What is the lower limit of the modal class?
(C) What is the modal age (in years) of children?
OR
If the mean of numbers 2, a, 6 and 7 is 15 and the mean of numbers 6, 18, 1, a, b, is 20, then find the value of b.
Answer:
(A) There are 70 children in age group 10-12.
(B) As modal class is 10-12.
(C) Here, Modal class 10-12
l = 10, f0 = 58, f1 = 70, f2 = 42, h = 2
∴ Mode = \(l+\left(\frac{f_1-f_0}{2 f_1-f_0-f_2}\right) \times h\)
= \(10+\left(\frac{70-58}{140-58-42}\right) \times 2\)
= 10 + \(\frac{24}{40}\)
= 10 + 0.6
= 10.6

OR

Given: Mean of 2, a, 6 and 7 is 15.
∴ \(\frac{2+a+6+7}{4}\) = 15
15 + a = 60
a = 45
Also, mean of 6, 18, 1, a and b is 20.
\(\frac{6+18+1+a+b}{5}\) = 20
25 + a + b = 100
25 + 45 + b = 100
b = 100 – 70
b = 30
Hence, the value of b is 30.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

अवधिः: होरात्रयम्
पूर्णाड्का: : 80

सामान्य निर्देशः
सैंपल पेपर 1 में दिये गये निर्देशानुसार।

रवण्ड: – ‘क’ (अपठित-अवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 10)

अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।) जीवने सफलतायाः आधारः पुरुषार्थः एव! अस्य अभावेन नरः सुख-समृद्धिम् आप्तुम् असमर्थः भवति यशः च न प्राप्नोति । यथा-यथा नरः पुरुषार्थम् अचिनोत् तथा-तथा तेन सफलता प्राप्ता। पुरुषार्थिनः एव संसारे विलक्षण-प्रतिभाम् अर्जितवन्तः। अनेन एवम् एवरेष्टशिखरम् अजयत् अन्तरिक्ष च अगच्छत्। देशसेवया समाजसेवया च पुरुषार्थिभिः उल्लेखनीयानि कार्याणि कृतानि। अस्माकम् इतिहासे तेषां गौरवगानं विद्यते। आपातकाले येषां मनांसि विचलितानि न भवन्ति, ते एव जीवने सफलतां प्राप्नुवन्ति। पुरुषार्थिनाम् कृते तु पुरुषार्थ एव उपासना अस्ति। यः जनः स्वजीवने सफलता प्राप्तुम् इच्छति सः पुरुषार्थम् अवश्यमेव कुर्यात् । पुरुषार्थस्य अभावे जनः सफलताप्राप्तं न कर्तुं शक्यते।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) पुरुषार्थस्य अभावेन किम् आप्तुम् असमर्थः?
(ii) अनेन जनेन किम् अजयत्?
(iii) पुरुषार्थेन जनः कुत्र अगच्छत् ?
उत्तर:
(i) सुखसमृद्धिम्
(ii) एवरेष्टशिखरम्
(iii) अंतरिक्षम्

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) पुरुषार्थिभिः केन उल्लेखनीयानि कार्याणि कृतानि?
(ii) पुरुषार्थिनां कृते कुत्र गौरवगानं विद्यते?
(iii) जीवने के सफलता प्राप्नुवन्ति?
उत्तर:
(i) पुरुषार्थिभि: देशसेवया, समाजसेवया, शिक्षाप्रसारेण कार्याणि कृतानि।
(ii) पुरुषार्थिनां अस्माकम् इतिहासे गौरवगानं विद्यते।
(iii) अपातकाले येषां मनांसि विचलितानि न भवन्ति, ते एव जीवने सफलतां प्राप्नुवन्ति।

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत। (द्वित्रिशब्दात्मक-वाक्यम्)
(इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।) (दो-तीन शब्द का वाक्य)
उत्तर:
पुरुषार्थ:/सफलतायाः आधारपरुषार्थ।……………..

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) ‘भवति’ इति क्रियापदस्य किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) नरः
(ख) असमर्थ:
(ग) यशः
(घ) आधारः
उत्तर:
(क) नरः

(ii) ‘विफलता’ इति पदस्य गद्यांशे किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) यथा
(ख) तथा
(ग) सफलता
(घ) कठिनता
उत्तर:
(ग) सफलता

(iii) ‘मानवः’ इति पदस्य किं पर्यायपदं गद्यांशे प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) नरः
(ख) पुरुषार्थी
(ग) देशसेवा
(घ) जनः
उत्तर:
(क) नरः

(iv) ‘उल्लेखनीयानि कार्याणि’ इत्यत्र किं विशेषणपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) उल्लेखनीयानि
(ख) कार्याणि
(ग) कृतानि
(घ) विभिन्नानि
उत्तर:
(क) उल्लेखनीयानि

रवण्ड: – ‘रव’ (रचनात्मक-कार्यम्)
(अंक : 15)

2. विदेश भ्रमणं प्रति पितरं लिखितम् अध: पत्रं मञ्जूषापद सहायतया पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत। (1/2 × 10 = 5)
(विदेश भ्रमण हेतु पिताजी को लिखे गये पत्र को मञ्जूषा में दिये गये पद की सहायता से पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए)

वाशिंगटन, अमेरिकातः
दिनांक…………..
आदरणीय पितृपादाः।
(i)……..नमोनमः।
वयमत्र सर्वे (ii)….. भवान् अपि (iii) कुशली भविष्यसि इति आशा। जूनमासस्य ……….. तिथौ अहम् (iv)…… सह विमानेन (v)….. अगच्छम्। आवाम् अमेरिका देशे ‘लेवीपीयर’ मिलेनियम पार्ड, न्याग्रा फाल्स, न्यू जर्सी, वाशिंगटन इत्यादीनि स्थानानि (vi)……. च अपश्याव। आवाम् (vii)…… बसयानेन च यात्राम् कुर्वः। जनाः अत्र स्वच्छतां प्रति अतीव (viii)….. सन्ति। राजमार्गे ताम्बूलस्य अन्या मलिनता वा कुत्रापि न दृश्यते। जनाः अवकरम् (ix)…… प्रति निष्ठाभावानाम् उत्पादयितुं प्रयतिस्ये-इति मम निश्चयः। गृहे सर्वेभ्यः मम नमस्काराः। (x)……….. मञ्जूषा-अवकरपात्रे, कुशलिनः, सादरं, सुपुत्रः, जागरूकाः, स्वमित्रेण, रेलयानेन, अमेरिका-देशम्, दर्शनीय स्थलानि, एकादश्यां।
उत्तर:
(i) सादरं
(ii) कुशलिन:
(iii) एकादश्यां
(iv) स्वमित्रेण
(v) अमेरिका-देशम्
(vi) दर्शनीय स्थलानि
(vii) रेलयानेन
(viii) जागरूका:
(ix) अवकरपात्रे
(x) सुपुत्र:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

3. अधः प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत 1 x5=5
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions Img 1
(i) अत्र अति रमणीयम् देवालयस्य दृश्यम् अस्ति।
(ii) अस्मिन् चित्रे अनेका: भक्ता: ईश्वरस्य प्रार्थनां कुर्वन्ति।
(iii) अत्र नार्य: पुरुषाः च वाद्ययन्त्रं वादयन्ति।
(iv) एक: भक्तः अग्रे-अग्रे वदति अन्ये भक्ताः च अनुसरणं कुर्वन्ति।
(v) देवालये भक्तिमय वातावरणम् अस्ति। अथवा
मञ्जूषा-देवालयस्य, भक्ताः, नार्यः, पुरुषाः, कीर्तनं अनुसरति, वादयति, वातावरणं, भक्तिमयम्।
अथवा
मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य पञ्चाभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।)

“मम मातृभूमिः”
(i) अहं मातृभूमि वन्दयामि
(ii) मातृभूमि: मम प्रिया अस्ति।
(iii) सा स्वर्गादपि गरीयसि अस्ति।
(iv) सा अस्मान् पोषयति।
(v) सा तु सर्वेभ्य: वन्दनीया: अस्ति।
मञ्जूषा-स्वर्गादपि, मातृभूमिः, अहम्, माता, वन्दनीयाः, यच्छति, पोषणम्, अस्मान्

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य लिखत-(केवलं पञ्चवाक्यम्) (1 × 5 = 5)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का संस्कृत भाषा में अनुवाद लिखिए) (केवल पाँच वाक्य)

(i) जो परिश्रम करता है वह सफल होता है।
One who works is successful
(ii) विद्यालय में पच्चीस अध्यापक हैं।
The school has twenty five teachers.
(iii) छात्र पढ़ने के लिए विद्यालय जाएँगे।
Students will go to school to study.
(iv) बालक गेंद से खेलें।
Boys play with the ball.
(v) हम झूठ नहीं कहेंगे।
We will not lie
(vi) व्यास ने महाभारत लिखी।
Vyas wrote Mahabharata.
(vii) वे दोनों शाम को खेलें।
They both play in the evening.
उत्तर:
(i) यः परिश्रमं करोति सः सफलः भवति।
(ii) विद्यालये पञ्च विंशतिः अध्यापकाः सन्ति।
(iii) छात्रा: अध्ययनाय विद्यालयं गमिष्यन्ति।
(iv) बालकाः कन्दुकेन क्रीडन्तु।
(v) वयम् मिथ्या न कथयिष्यामः।
(vi) व्यास: महाभारतम् अलिखत्।
(vii) तौ संध्याकाले क्रीडताम्।

रवण्ड: – ‘ग’ (अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरणम्)
(अंक : 25)

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के संधि अथवा संधि-विच्छेद कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) पुस्तकेऽस्मिन् कति पाठाः सन्ति?
(ii) एतत् + न उचितम्।
(iii) वाङ्मूला हि सरस्वती कथ्यते।
(iv) सर्वः + तरतु दुर्गाणि, सर्वः भद्राणि पश्यन्तु।
(v) तच्छलोकं श्रुत्वा सः प्रसन्नः भविष्यति।
उत्तर:
(i) पुस्तके + अस्मिन्
(ii) एतन्न
(iii) वाक् + मूला
(iv) सर्वस्तरतु
(v) तत् + श्लोकं

6. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां समासं विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों का समास अथवा विग्रह दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) शुष्कः कण्ठः यस्य सः बाल: जलं पिबत्ति।
(क) शुष्ककण्ठस्य
(ख) शुष्ककण्ठः
(ग) शुष्काकण्ठः
(घ) शुष्कं कण्ठम्
उत्तर:
(ख) शुष्ककण्ठः

(ii) कार्यम् निर्विघ्नम् सम्पन्नं जातः।
(क) विघ्नानाम् अभावः
(ख) विघ्नात् अभाव
(ग) विघ्नस्य अभाव
(घ) विघ्नेनरहितम्
उत्तर:
(क) विघ्नानाम् अभावः

(iii) नारदव्यासौ द्रौणिं प्रतिवहतः।
(क) नारद: च व्यास: च
(ख) नारदौच व्यासौच
(ग) नारद व्यासः
(घ) नारदे च व्यासः च
उत्तर:
(क) नारद: च व्यास: च

(iv) ज्ञानवृद्धः पूज्य: भवति ।
(क) ज्ञाने वृद्धः
(ख) ज्ञानात् वृद्ध
(ग) ज्ञानस्य वृद्धः
(घ) ज्ञानेन वृद्धः
उत्तर:
(ग) ज्ञानस्य वृद्धः

(v) मदोद्धताः कपय: यूथपतिं प्रहस्य अवदन्।
(क) मदस्य उद्धताः
(ख) मदेन उद्धताः
(ग) मठात् उद्धता:
(घ) मदाय उद्धताः
उत्तर:
(ख) मदेन उद्धताः

7. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रकृतिप्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित. वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के प्रकृति-प्रत्ययों को जोड़कर अथवा अलग करके उचित उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) संस्कृत विषये प्रभातस्य दक्ष + तल् प्रशंसनीया वर्तते।
(क) दक्षिता
(ख) दक्षीयता
(ग) दक्षता
(घ) दाक्षत्वम्
उत्तर:
(ग) दक्षता

(ii) अस्य पुस्तकस्य घनत्वम् कियत् अस्ति?
(क) घन + त्वं
(ख) घन + त्वम्
(ग) घन + तवतु
(घ) घन + तत्त्
उत्तर:
(क) घन + त्वं

(iii) पवित्र + टाप् यमुना प्रदूषिता न कर्तव्या।
(क) पवित्री
(ख) पवित्राः
(ग) पवित्रा
(घ) पवित्रतम्
उत्तर:
(ग) पवित्रा

(iv) अस्माकम् देश: शक्ति + मतुप् भवेत्।
(क) शक्तिमान्
(ख) शक्तिमतः
(ग) शक्तिमत्
(घ) शक्तिसम्पन्न:
उत्तर:
(क) शक्तिमान्

(v) सा नर्तकी शोभनं नृत्यति।
(क) नर्तक + ङीप्
(ख) नृत् + ङीप्
(ग) नर्तक + डीप्
(घ) नर्तक + ङीष्
उत्तर:
(ग) नर्तक + डीप्

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

8. अधोलिखितानां वाक्यानां वाच्यपरिवर्तनं कृत्वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का वाच्य परिवर्तन करके विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) विद्या विनयं ददाति।
(क) विद्यया विनयः दीयते।
(ख) विद्या विनयं दीयते।
(ग) विद्येषु विनयं दीयते।
(घ) विद्यया विनयं ददाति।
उत्तर:
(क) विद्यया विनयः दीयते।

(ii) शिशुना पुस्तकं पठ्यते।
(क) शिशु पुस्तके पठति।
(ख) शिशुः पुस्तकं पठति।।
(ग) शिशु पुस्तक पठति।
(घ) शिशु: पुस्तकं पठन्ति।
उत्तर:
(ख) शिशुः पुस्तकं पठति।।

(iii) सीतया गीतं गीयते।
(क) सीता गीत: गायति।
(ख) सीता गीता गायति।
(ग) सीता गीतं गायति।
(घ) सीतागीतानि गांयति।
उत्तर:
(ग) सीता गीतं गायति।

(iv) वृक्षेण वय॑ते।
(क) वृक्ष वर्धते।
(ख) वृक्षा वर्धते।
(ग) वृक्ष: वर्धते।
(घ) वृक्षण वर्धति।
उत्तर:
(ग) वृक्ष: वर्धते।

9. अधोलिखितदिनचर्चायां : रिक्तस्थानानि कालबोधकशब्दैः पूरयत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(कालबोधक शब्दों से निम्नलिखित दिनचर्या को पूरा कीजिये) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) रामः प्रात: 5.30 ………. वादने उतिष्ठति ।
(ii) सः उत्थाय 5.45 ……….. वादने दन्तधावनम् करोति।
(iii) तत्पश्चात् 6.00 ……….. वादने व्यायामं करोति।
(iv) पुनः प्रात: 7:15 ……….. वादने स्नानं करोति।
(v) तत्पश्चात् 8:00 ………… वादने विद्यालयम् प्रीति गच्छति।
उत्तर:
(i) सार्ध पञ्च
(ii) पादोन षट्
(iii) षट्
(iv) सपाद सप्त
(v) अष्ट

10. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तैः उचितैः अव्ययपदैः अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रिक्त स्थानानि पूरयत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(मञ्जूषा में दिये गये उचित अव्ययपदों में वाक्यों में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) उपवने जनाः ……….. भ्रमन्ति।
(ii) ………… अवकरं मा क्षिपय।
(iii) परिश्रमेण ………… कार्याणि न सिद्धयन्ति।
(iv) ……….. अकबर: नाम नृपः आसीत्।
उत्तर:
(i) इतस्ततः
(ii) यत्र-तत्र
(iii) विना
(iv) पुरा

मञ्जूषा- यत्र-तत्र, इतस्ततः पुश, विना

11. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदम् अशुद्धम् अस्ति, शुद्धं पदं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पद अशुद्ध हैं, शुद्ध पद को विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) अहं पत्रवाहकः अस्ति
(क) अस्मि
(ख) अस्तु
(ग) अस्वः
(घ) असि
उत्तर:
(क) अस्मि

(ii) वृक्षात् पत्राणि पततः
(क) पतन्ति
(ख) पतसि
(ग) पततु
(घ) पतति
उत्तर:
(क) पतन्ति

(iii) मृगः तत्र चरतः।
(क) मृगौ
(ख) मृगाः
(ग) मृगे
(घ) मृगम्
उत्तर:
(क) मृगौ

(iv) सीता रामः सह वनं गता।
(क) रामस्य
(ख) रामेण
(ग) रामे
(घ) रामम्
उत्तर:
(ख) रामेण

रवण्ड: ‘घ’ (पठित-अवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 30)

12. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

विचित्रा दैवगतिः। तस्यामेव रात्रौ तस्मिन् गृहे कश्चन चौर: गृहाभ्यन्तर प्रविष्टः। तत्र निहितामेकां मञ्जूषाम् आदाय पलायितः। आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ प्राचलताम्। तत्रोपैत्य काष्ठपटले निहितं पटाच्छादितं देहं स्कन्धे वहन्तौ न्यायाधिकरणं प्रति प्रस्थितौ । न्यायाधीशेन पुनस्तौ घटनायाः विषये वस्तुमादिष्टौ।” आरक्षी सुपुष्टदेह आसीत्, अभियुक्तश्च अतीव कृशकायः। भारवतः शवस्य स्कन्धेन वहनं तत्कृते दुष्करम् आसीत्। स भारवेदनया क्रन्दति स्म। तस्य क्रन्दनं निशम्य मुदित आरक्षी वमुवाच-‘रे दुष्ट! तस्मिन् दिने त्वयाऽहं चोरिताया मञ्जूषाया ग्रहणाद् वारितः।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(क) दैवगतिः कीदृशी अस्ति?
(ख) कृशकायः कः आसीत्?
(ग) आरक्षी कीदृशः आसीत्?
उत्तर:
(अ) एकपदेन
(क) विचित्रा
(ख) अभियुक्त
(ग) सुपुष्टदेह

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(क) अभियुक्तस्य क्रन्दनं श्रुत्वा प्रसन्नः आरक्षी तम् किम् उवाच?
(ख) आदेशं प्राप्य उभी कुत्र प्रस्थितौ?
(ग) न्यायाधीशेनः किम् विषये वस्तुमादिष्टौ?
उत्तर:
(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन
(क) अभियुक्तस्य क्रन्दनं श्रुत्वा प्रसन्नः आरक्षी तम् उवाच-‘रे दृष्ट! तस्मिन् दिने त्वायडहं चोरिताया मञ्जूषाया ग्रहणाद् वारितः।
(ख) आदेशं प्राप्य उभौ तत्रोपेत्य काष्ठपटले निहितं पटाच्छादितं देहं स्कन्धे वहन्तौ न्यायाधिकरणं प्रति प्रतिस्थतौ।
(ग) न्यायाधीशेनः पुनस्तौ घटनाया: विषये वक्तुमादिष्टौ।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कश्चन चौर: गृहाभ्यनतरं प्रविष्टः इत्यत्र किं’ क्रियापदं प्रयुक्तम?
(ख) ‘तस्य क्रन्दनं श्रुत्वा आरक्षीतम् उवाच’ इत्यास्मिन् वाक्ये किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ग) ‘रोदनम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य स्थाने किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) प्रविष्ट:
(ख) आरक्षी
(ग) क्रन्दनम्

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

13. अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

गुणी गुणं वेत्ति न वेत्ति निर्गुणे,
बली बलं वेत्ति न वेत्ति निर्बलः।
पिको वसन्तस्य गुणं निर्बलः,
करी च सिंहस्य बलं न मूषकः॥

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कीदृशः जनः बलं वेत्ति?
(ख) कीदृशः जनः बलं न वेत्ति?
(ग) कीदृशः जनः गुणं जानाति?
उत्तर:
(क) बली
(ख) निर्बल:
(ग) गुणी

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) पिकः किम् जानाति वायसः च किम् न?
(ख) करी किम् जानाति मूषकः च किम् न जानाति?
(ग) गुणी जनः सर्वदा किम् वेत्ति?
उत्तर:
(क) पिकः वसन्त्रस्य गुणं जानाति वायस च न जानाति।
(ख) करी सिंहस्य बलं जानाति, मूषक सिंहस्य बलं न जानाति।
(ग) गुणीजनः सर्वदा गुणं वेत्ति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) ‘गुणी गणं वेत्ति’ इत्यत्र किं कर्तृपदम्?
(ख) ‘गजः’ इत्यर्थे किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ग) ‘वायसः’ इति पदस्य किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम् अत्र?
उत्तर:
(क) गुणी
(ख) करी
(ग) पिक:

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्त प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

(सिंहासनस्थःरामः । ततः प्रविशत: विदूषकेनोपदिश्यमान मार्गों तापसौ कुशलवी)
विदूषकः – इत इत आर्यो! ।
कुशलवी – (रामम् उपसृत्य प्रणम्य च) अपि कुशलं महाराजस्य ?
रामः – युष्मदर्शनात् कुशलमिव। भवतो: कि वयमत्र कुशल प्रश्नस्य भाजनम् एव, न पुनरतिथिजन-समुचितस्य कण्ठाश्लेषस्य। (परिष्वज्य) अहो हृदयग्राही स्पर्शः। (आसनाधर्मुपवेशयति)
उभौ – राजासनं खल्वेतत्,नयुक्तमध्यासितुम्।
रामः – सव्यवधानं न चारित्रलोपाय । तस्मादङ्क व्यवहितमध्यास्यतां सिंहासनम्। (अङ्कमुपवेशयति)
उभौ – (अनिच्छां नाटयतः) राजन् । अलमतिदाक्षिण्येन।
रामः – अलमतिशालीनतया।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) रामः कुत्रास्थः?
(ख) रामस्य समीपं को अगच्छताम् ?
(ग) तापसौ कौ आस्ताम्?
उत्तर:
(क) सिंहासने
(ख) कुशलवौ
(ग) कुशलवौ

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कस्य स्पर्शः रामाय हृदयग्राही आसीत् ?
(ख) कौ अनिच्छ नाटयतः?
(ग) नाटयांशे अहो हृदयग्राही स्पर्शः कः अकथयत् ?
उत्तर:
(क) कुशलवयोः स्पर्शः रामाय हृदयग्राही आसीत्।
(ख) कुशलवौ अनिच्छां नाट्यतः।
(ग) “नाट्यांशे अहो हदययग्राही र्प्पशः” राम: अकथयत्।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए। (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) अपि कुशलं महाराजस्य’ इति कुशलवौपृच्छत इत्यत्र किं कर्तृपदम्?
(ख) ‘आलिंगनं कृत्वा इत्यर्थे कि’ पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम?
(ग) ‘आशालीनतया’ इति पदस्य स्थाने किं विलोमपदम् प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) कुशलवौ
(ख) परिष्वज्य
(ग) शालीनतया

15. रेखाङ्कितपदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(क) मयूरस्य नृत्यं प्रकृते आराधना।
(ख) पिता पुत्राय तपः तपति।
(ग) चक्रम् सदा वक्रम् भ्रमति।
(घ) अमुना दुर्दान्तैः अशनै: जननसनम् न स्यात्।
(ङ) कविः मानवस्य जीवनस्य कामनां करोति।
उत्तर:
(क) कस्या:
(ख)क:
(ग) कीदृशम्
(घ) केन
(ङ) कस्य

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचित पदानि चित्वा – अधोलिखितश्लोकस्यः अन्वयं पूरयत (1 × 4 = 4)
(मञ्जूषा से उचित पदों को चुनकर निम्नलिखित श्लोक के अन्वय को पूरा कीजिए।)

यत् प्रोक्तं येन केनापि तस्य तत्त्वार्थनिर्णयः।
कर्तुं शक्यो भवेद्येन सः विवेकः इतीरितः॥

अन्वयः-येन (i)…… अपि यत् (ii)…… तस्य (iii)……….. येन कर्तुं शक्यः भवेत् सः (iv)….. इति ईतिरितः।
उत्तर:
(i) केन
(ii) प्रोक्तं
(iii) तत्त्वार्थनिर्णय:
(iv) विवेक:

मञ्जूषा-प्रोक्तं, केन, विवेकः तत्त्वार्थनिर्णयः ।

अथवा
मञ्जूषायाः साहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक के भावार्थ से रिक्तस्थानों को पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।)

दुष्कराण्यपि कर्माणि मतिवैभवशालिनः।
नीति युक्तिं समालम्ब्य लीलयैव प्रकुर्वते॥

भावार्थ:- (i)………… युक्ताः जनाः उत्तम् (ii)……….. युक्तेः च आधारं नीत्वा (iii)….. अपि कार्याणि लीलया एव (iv)…….. तेषु ते कदापि कठिनतामपि न अनुभवन्ति।
उत्तर:
(i) धनेन
(ii) नीते:
(iii) दुष्कराणि
(iv) प्रकुर्वन्ति

मञ्जूषा-प्रकुर्वन्ति, धनेन, नीतेः, दुष्कराणि

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचितक्रमेण लिखत (1/2 × 8 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित कथांश को समुचित क्रम में लिखिए।)

(i) सर्वे प्राणिनः परस्परं विवादं कुर्वन्ति च कथयन्ति।
(ii) मिलित्वा एव मोदध्वं जीवनं रसमयं कुरुध्यम्।
(iii) ततः प्रकृतिमाता प्रविशति ।
(iv) पशुराजा न भवितव्यम् अपितु कोऽपि पक्षी एव राजेति निश्चेतव्यम्।
(v) सर्वे प्राणिनः स्व-स्वगुणस्य चर्चा कुर्वन्ति ।
(vi) सर्वेषाम् प्राणिनामेव यथासमयम् महत्त्वं विद्यते।
(vii) वानराः तम् तुदन्ति स्म।
(viii) एक: सिंहः सुप्यति स्म।
उत्तर:
(viii) एक: सिंह: सुप्यति स्म।
(vii) वानराः तम् तुदन्ति स्म।
(v) सर्वे प्राणिन: स्व-स्वगुणस्य चर्चां कुर्वन्ति।
(i) सर्वे प्राणिनः परस्परं विवादं कुर्वन्ति योग्यं च कथयन्ति।
(iv) पशुराजा न भवितव्यम् अपितु कोडपि पक्षी एव राजेति निश्चेतव्यम्।
(iii) ततः प्रकृतिमाता प्रविशति।
(vi) सर्वेषां प्राणिनामेव यथा समयं महत्त्वं विद्यते।
(ii) मिलित्वा एव मोदध्वं जीवनं रसमयं कुरुध्यम्।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 11 with Solutions

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के प्रसंगानुकूल उचित अर्थ चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न) (1 × 3 = 3)

(i) अस्य पिता किं तपः तेपे इति।।
(क) कथ्यतः
(ख) तपस्या कृता
(ग) कल्याणम्
(घ) तपः
उत्तर:
(ख) तपस्या कृता

(ii) सः विवेकः इति ईरितः
(क) वदेत्
(ख) निर्माक:
(ग) कथितः
(घ) कथनीयः
उत्तर:
(ग) कथितः

(iii) धैर्यवान् मन्त्री सनायाम् अवकातरः
(क) वीरः
(ख) कल्याणम्
(ग) नत्रेवन्तः
(घ) विद्वान्
उत्तर:
(क) वीरः

(iv) गजः पर्यायवाची चित्वा लिखत-
(क) अश्वः
(ख) तुरङ्गः
(ग) कुञ्जरः
(घ) मृगः
उत्तर:
(ग) कुञ्जरः

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
  2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
  3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
  4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
  5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
  6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
  7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
  8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section – A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)

Question 1.
If the sum of the zeros of the polynomial 2x2 + 3kx + 3 is 6, then the value of k is: (1)
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) – 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) -4

Explanation:
Here, p(x) = 2x2 + 3kx + 3
On comparing it with ax2 + fax + c = 0, we get
a = 2, b = 3k and c = 3 .
sum of zeros = \(\frac{-b}{a}\)
= \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
And, sum of zeros = 6
∴ \(\frac{-3k}{2}\) = 6
⇒ k = – 4

Question 2.
The roots of the quadratic equation (3x – 5) (x + 3) = 0 is: (1)
(a) -3 , \(\frac{5}{3}\)
(b) 3 , \(\frac{-5}{3}\)
(c) -2 , \(\frac{5}{3}\)
(d) 1 ,\(\frac{3}{5}\)
Answer:
(a) -3 , \(\frac{5}{3}\)

Explanation:
The two roots of the given equation (3x – 5) (x + 3) = 0 are – 3 and -3 , \(\frac{5}{3}\).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 3.
The sum of natural numbers from 51 to 100 is: (1)
(a) 3005
(b) 2895
(c) 375
(d) 3775
Answer:
(d) 3775

Explanation:
Sum of numbers from 51 to 100
= \(\frac{50}{2}\) [2 × 51 + 49(1)]
= 25 [102 + 49]
= 25 × 151 = 3775

Question 4.
If A(6,2), B(4,2) and C(6,4) are the vertices of ∆ABC, then the length of the median through C is: (1)
(a) \(\sqrt{2}\) units
(b) \(\sqrt{3}\) units
(c) 5 units
(d) \(\sqrt{5}\) units
Answer:
(d) \(\sqrt{5}\) units

Explanation:
The coordinates of Z (the mid-point of AB) are (\(\frac{6+4}{2}\) , \(\frac{2+2}{2}\)) (5, 2)
So, length of CZ = \(\sqrt{(5-6)^{2}+(2-4)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{1+4}\) = \(\sqrt{5}\) units

Question 5.
The base PQ of two equilateral triangles PQR and PQR’ with side ‘2a’ lies along g – axis such that the mid – point of PQ is at the origin. The coordinates of the vertices R and R’ of the triangles is: (1)
(a) (\(\sqrt{3}\)a, 0)(\(\sqrt{3}\)a, 0)
(b) (1, 0)(- 1, 0)
(c) (2, 0) (- 2, 0)
(d) (\(\sqrt{3}\)a, 0)(-\(\sqrt{3}\)a, 0)
Answer:
(d) (\(\sqrt{3}\)a, 0)(-\(\sqrt{3}\)a, 0)

Explanation:
Since, the mid-point of PQ is the origin and PQ = 2a.
∴ OP = OQ = a
Hence, the coordinates of P and Q are (0, a) and (0, – a) respecively.
Since, ∆PQRand PQR’ are equilateral triangle
∴ Their third vertices R and R’ lie on the ⊥r bisector of base PQ.
X’ OX is the perpendicular bisector of base PQ.
Thus, R and R’ lies on X-axis.
∴ Their Y – coordinates are 0.
In ∆ROP, OR2 + OP2 = PR2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 1
⇒ OR2 + a2 = (2a)2
⇒ OR2 = 3a2
⇒ OR = \(\sqrt{3}\)a
Similarly, OR’ = \(\sqrt{3}\)a
Thus, the coordinates of vertices R and R’ are (\(\sqrt{3}\)a , 0) an (- \(\sqrt{3}\)a , 0) respectively.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 6.
In a ∆ABC, if DE is parallel to BC, \(\frac{AD}{DB}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\) and AC = 15 cm, then the length AE is: (1)
(a) 45
(b) \(\frac{23}{7}\)
(c) 1
(d) \(\frac{45}{7}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{45}{7}\)

Explanation:
Since, DE || BC,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 2
By thales theorem
\(\frac{AD}{DB}\) = \(\frac{AE}{EC}\)
\(\frac{AE}{EC}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
⇒ \(\frac{AE}{AC – AE}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
⇒ \(\frac{AE}{15 – AE}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
⇒ 7AE = 45
AE = \(\frac{45}{7}\) cm

Question 7.
If a right circular cylinder with a height of 7 cm has a volume of 448π cm3, then the radius is: (1)
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 11 cm
(d) 15 cm
Answer:
(a) 8 cm

Explanation:
Let the radius be r cm.
We know that,
Volume of cylinder = πr2h
448π = πr2h
\(\frac{448π}{π}\) = r2 × 7
448 = r2 × 7
\(\frac{448}{7}\) = r2
64 = r2
\(\sqrt{64}\)= r2
8 = r

Question 8.
If the bisector of an angle of a triangle bisects the opposite side, the triangles is: (1)
(a) isosceles
(b) scalene
(c) equilateral
(d) right angled triangle
Answer:
(a) isosceles

Explanation:
Given, ∆ABC, AD bisects ∠A and BC.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 3
In ∆ABD and ∆ACD.
∠DAB = ∠DAC (AD bisects ∠A)
AD = AD (common)
BD = CD (AD bisects BC)
Thus, ∆ABD ~ ∆ACD (by SAS rule)
Thus, AB = AC (by cpct)
Hence, ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 9.
Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. The length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle is: (1)
(a) 5 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 4 cm
Answer:
(c) 8 cm

Explanation:
Here, radius of circles are 3 cm and 5 cm i.e., OA = 3 cm and OB = 5 cm
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 4
Now, OA is ⊥r on BC and bisects BC
As, tangent is ⊥r to the radius and ⊥r from the centre bisects the chord.
∴ In ∆OAB, by pythagoras theorem
OB2 = AB2 + OA2
⇒ 52 = AB2 + 32
⇒ AB2 = 25 – 9 = 16
⇒ AB = 4 cm
and BC = 2AB
= 2 × 4
= 8 cm

Question 10.
The area of a sector of angle θ (in degrees) of a circle with radius ‘r’ is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^2\)
(b) πr2
(c) 2πr2
(d) \(\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times 2 \pi r\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^2\)

Explanation:
Area of sector of angle (θ) with radius (r) is = \(\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^2\)

Question 11.
The perimeter of a semi – circular protractor is 36 cm. Find its diameter.
(a) \(\frac{72}{2+π}\)
(b) \(\frac{72}{π}\)
(c) \(\frac{36}{2+π}\)
(d) 0
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{72}{2+π}\)

Explanation:
Let the radius of protactor be V Then, its perimeter is = 2r + nr
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 5
and 36 = 2r + πr
⇒ r = \(\frac{36}{2+π}\)
∴ Diameter = 2r = \(\frac{2×36}{2+π}\)
= \(\frac{72}{2+π}\)

Question 12.
The modal class for the frequency distribution given below is: (1)

Class interval 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
Number of workers 15 18 21 29 17

(a) 20 – 40
(b) 0 – 20
(c) 60 – 80
(d) 80 – 100
Answer:
(c) 60-80

Explanation:
Since, the frequency of class 60-80 is maximum as 29.
Then, 60 – 80 is the modal class.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 13.
If P(E) = 0.005, then the probability of “not E” is: (1)
(a) 0.002
(b) 0.95
(c) 0.995
(d) 0.095
Answer:
(c) 0.995

Explanation:
P (not E) = 1 – P (E)
P (not E) = 1 – 0.005 = 0.995

Question 14.
The upper limit of the median class of the following frequency distribution is: (1)

Class 0-5 6-11 12-17 18-23 24-29
Frequency 13 10 15 8 11

(a) 17.5
(b) 18.5
(c) 19
(d) 19.5
Answer:
(a) 17.5

Explanation:
The classes in exclusive form are:
(-0.5)-5.5; 5.5-11.5 11.5-17.5; 17.5-23.5; 23.5 – 24.5 with cumulative frequencies of 13, 23, 38, 46 and 57.
Here, N = 57. So, \(\frac{N}{2}\) = 28.5
Cumulative frequency just greater than 28.5 is 38, which belongs to class 11.5 – 17.5.
Thus, median class is 11.5 – 17.5 whose upper limit is 17.5.

Question 15.
An unbiased die is rolled once. The probability of getting an even prime number is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Explanation:
Possible outcomes on rolling a die are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
Out of these six numbers, only 2 is the even prime number.
So, the required probability is \(\frac{1}{6}\).

Question 16.
If sin B = 0.5, the value of 3 cos B – 4 cos3 B is: (1)
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) -3
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) 0

Explanation: Here, sin B = 0.5 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 6

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 17.
When two hemispheres with the same radius are connected at their bases, then we get a: (1)
(a) cone
(b) cylinder
(c) sphere
(d) cuboid
Answer:
(c) Sphere

Explanation:
If we join two hemispheres of same radius along their bases, then we get a sphere.

Question 18.
The value 60° is: of cosec2 30° sin2 45° – sec2 60° is: (1)
(a) -2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) -2

Explanation:
Here, cosec² 30° sin² 45° – sec² 60°
= (2)2 × (\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\))2 – 22
= 4 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) – 4 = 2 – 4 = – 2

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Choose the correct option as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Statement A (Assertion): In the figure, if BC = 20 m, then height AB is 11.56 m.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 7
Statement R (Reason): tan θ = \(\frac{AB}{BC}\) = \(\frac{Perpendicular}{base}\) where θ is angie ∠ACB. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
tan30° = \(\frac{AB}{BC}\) = \(\frac{AB}{20}\)
AB = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) × 20
= \(\frac{20}{1.732}\) = 11.56 m

Question 20.
Statement A (Assertion): Total surface area of the cylinder having radius of the base 14 cm and height 30 cm is 3872 cm2.
Statement R (Reason): If r be the radius and h be the height of the cylinder, then total surface area = (2πrh + 2πr2). (1)
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
Total surface area = 2πrh + 2πr2
= 2πr(h + r)
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 14(30 + 1 4)
= 88(44)
= 3872 cm2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Section – B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 21.
Using prime factorisation, find the HCF and LCM of 150 and 240.
OR
Show that 3 + \(\sqrt{5}\) is an irrational number, assuming that \(\sqrt{5}\) is an irrational number. (2)
Answer:
Prime factorisation of 150 and 240.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 8
Then, 150 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5
240 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
HCF = 2 × 3 × 5 = 30
LCM = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 2 × 2 × 2
= 1200

OR

If possible, let us assume that 3 + \(\sqrt{5}\) be a rational number. So, there exist positive integers a and b such that, 3 + \(\sqrt{5}\) = y where a and b are integers having no common factor other than 1.
⇒ \(\sqrt{5}\) = \(\frac{a}{b}\) – 3
⇒ \(\sqrt{5}\) = \(\frac{a – 3b}{b}\)
Since, \(\frac{a – 3b}{b}\) is a rational number, so \(\sqrt{5}\) must a rational number (LH.S. = R.H.S.) which is a contradiction to the fact that \(\sqrt{5}\) is irrational”.
Hence, 3 + \(\sqrt{5}\) is an irrational number.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 22.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, -8) is divided by (-1, 6).
OR
Using distance formula, show that the points A(1, -1), B(5, 2) and C( 9, 5) are collinear. (2)
Answer:
Let P(-1, 6) divide the join of A(-3, 10) and B(6, -8) in the ratio K : 1.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 9
Then
P(-1, 6) = \(\left(\frac{6 K-3}{K+1}, \frac{-8 K+10}{K+1}\right)\)
⇒ \(\frac{6 K-3}{K+1}\) = -1 ; \(\frac{-8 K+10}{K+1}\) = 6
⇒ 6K – 3 = -K – 1 ; -8K + 10 = 6K + 6
⇒ 7K = 2 ; 14K = 4
⇒ K = \(\frac{2}{7}\)
Thus, the required ratio is 2 : 7.

OR

Given, points are A(l, – 1), B(5, 2) and C(9, 5)
Distance between AB = \(\sqrt{(5 – 1)^2+(2 + 1)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{4^2+3^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{25}\)
= 5 units

Distance between BC = \(\sqrt{(9 – 5)^2+(5 – 1)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{4^2+3^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{25}\)
= 5 units

Distance between AC = \(\sqrt{(9 – 1)^2 + (5 + 1)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{8^2+6^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{64+36}\)
= \(\sqrt{100}\)
= 10 units
Then, AC = AB + BC = 10 units
Hence, the point A, B and C are collinear.

Question 23.
If \(\frac{\cos \theta-\sin \theta}{\cos \theta+\sin \theta}=\frac{1-\sqrt{3}}{1+\sqrt{3}}\) , then find the value of θ. (2)
Answer:
We have,
\(\frac{\cos \theta-\sin \theta}{\cos \theta+\sin \theta}=\frac{1-\sqrt{3}}{1+\sqrt{3}}\)
Dividing numerator and denominator of LH.S. by cos θ,
⇒ \(\frac{1-\tan \theta}{1+\tan \theta}=\frac{1-\sqrt{3}}{1+\sqrt{3}}\)
On comparing, we get tan θ = \(\sqrt{3}\)
⇒ θ = 60°

Question 24.
Raju got a playing lattu as his birthday present but it has surprisingly no colour on it. He wants to colour it with his crayons in a smart way . It is shaped like a cone surmounted by a hemi-sphere as shown. The entire lotto is 5 cm in height and the diameter of the hemi-sphere base is 3.5 cm.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 10
Find:
(A) the surface area of the hemi-sphere.
(B) the area that he has to colour. (2)
Answer:
(A) Hemisphere is of radius 1.75 cm (i.e., 3.5/2)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 11
So, its curved surface area = 2πr2
= (2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 1.75 × 1.75) cm2
= 19.25 cm2.

(B) For Cone r = 1.75 cm
h = 5 – 1.75 = 3.25 cm
and l = \(\sqrt{r^2+h^2}\)
Area of the whole lattu = curved surface area of cone + curved surface area of hemisphere
= [π(1.75)\(\sqrt{(1.75)^2 + (3.25)^2}\) + 19.25] cm2
= [\(\frac{22}{7}\) × 1.75 × 3.691 + 19.25] cm2
= (20.30 + 19.25) cm2
= 39.55 cm2

Question 25.
For the following frequency distribution, determine the mean: (2)

Class 100-120 120-140 140-160 160-180 180-200
Frequency 12 14 8 6 10

Answer:

Class Frequency

(fi)

Mid Point (xi) xifi
100-120 12 110 1320
120-140 14 130 1820
140-160 8 150 1200
160-180 6 170 1020
180-200 10 190 1900
Total 50 7260

Then, Mean, \(\bar{x}=\frac{\Sigma f_i x_i}{\Sigma f_i}=\frac{7260}{50}=145.2\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

SECTION – C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
In an A.P., the last term is 28 and the sum of all the 9 terms of the A.P. is 144. Find the first term. (3)
Answer:
Let ‘a’ be the first term of AP and ‘d be the common difference. Here, total number of terms of AP is 9, i.e. n = 9
nth term = last term = an = a + 8d = 28 …(i)
Also,
Sn = S9= \(\frac{9}{2}\) [2a+(9-l)d] = 144
⇒ 9(a + 4d) = 144
⇒ 9a + 36d = 144 or a + 4d = 16 …..(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
(a + 8d) – (a + 4d) = 28 – 16
⇒ 4d =12
⇒ d = 3
Putting value of d in (i).
a + 8 × 3 = 28
⇒ a = 28 – 24 = 4
So, a = 4 and d = 3
Thus, the required first term is 4.

Question 27.
In what ratio does the x-axis is divide the line segment showing the points (-4, -6) and (-1, 7)? Find the coordinates of the point of division.
OR
Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus. (3)
Answer:
Let the join of (-4, -6) and (-1, 7) be divided by a point P on x-axis in the ratio K : 1.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 12
Then,
p(x,0) = p\(\left(\frac{-K-3}{K+1}, \frac{7 K-6}{K+1}\right)\)

⇒ \(\frac{7 K-6}{K+1}\) = 0
⇒ K = \(\frac{6}{7}\)
Hence, the required ratio is 6 : 7.

With K = \(\frac{6}{7}\), the point P is P(\(\frac{-\frac{6}{7}-4}{\frac{6}{7}+1}\),0) or P(\(\frac{-34}{13}\),0)
OR
Let ABCD be a parallelogram circumscribing a circle.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 13
Let P, Q, R, S be the points where the circle touches the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
Now,
AB = DC and AB || DC
Also,
AD = BC and AD || BC (∴ ABCD is a parallelogram) …(i)
From the figure, we have:
AP = AS; BP = BQ; CR = CQ and DR = DS.
∵ AP + PB + CR + RD = AS + DS + CQ + BQ
⇒ AB + DC = AD + CB
⇒ 2 AB = 2 AD
⇒ AB = AD
Using (i), we have:
AB = BC = CD = DA
Thus, ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 28.
In ∆ABC right angles at B, if tan A = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), find value of: sin A cos C + cos A sin C (3)
Answer:
Consider a triangle ABC in which ∠B = 90°.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 14

Question 29.
In the centre of a circle with a radius of 10 cm, a chord subtends a right angle. Find The area of the corresponding minor and major segment.
OR
A hollow cone is cut by a plane parallel to the base and upper portion is removed. If the curved surface area of the remainder is 0 \(\frac{8}{9}\) of the curved surface area of the whole cone, find the ratio of the line segments into which the cone’s altitude is divided by the plane. (3)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 15
Answer:
In the mentioned circle,
O is the centre and AO = BO = Radius = 10 cm
AB is a chord which subtents 90° at centre 0, i.e., ∠AOB = 90°
Area of minor segment APB (Shaded region) = Area of sector ∆AOB – Area of ∆AOB
\(\left(\frac{\pi \times 10 \times 10}{4}\right)-(0.5 \times 10 \times 10)\)
= 78.5 – 50
= 28.5 cm2

Area of major sector = Area of circle – Area of sector AOB
= (π × 10 × 10) + \(\left(\frac{\pi \times 10 \times 10}{4}\right)\)
= 314 – 78.5
= 235.5 cm2

OR

In the figure, the smaller cone APQ has been cut off through the plane PQ || BC. Let r and R be the radii of the smaller and bigger cones and l and L be their slant heights respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 16
Here,
OQ = r, MC = R, AQ = l and AC = L
Now, ∆AOQ ~ ∆AMC
⇒ \(\frac{OQ}{MC}\) = \(\frac{AQ}{AC}\)
⇒ \(\frac{r}{R}\) = \(\frac{l}{L}\)
⇒ r = \(\frac{Rl}{L}\) ……..(i)
Since, curved surface area of the remainder = \(\frac{8}{9}\) of the curved surface area of the whole cone therefore, we get
CSA of smaller cone = \(\frac{1}{9}\) of the CSA of the whole cone
πrl = \(\frac{1}{9}\) πRL
⇒ π(\(\frac{Rl}{L}\))l = \(\frac{1}{9}\) (πRL)
⇒ l2 = \(\frac{L^2}{9}\)
⇒ \(\frac{l}{L}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Now, again in similar triangles, AOQ and AMC, we have
\(\frac{AO}{AM}\) = \(\frac{AQ}{AC}\)
\(\frac{AO}{AM}\) = \(\frac{1}{L}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
AO = \(\frac{AM}{3}\)
OM = AM – OA = AM – \(\frac{AM}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\) AM
\(\frac{AO}{OM}\) = \(\frac{\frac{AM}{3}}{\frac{2AM}{3}}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Hence, the required ratio of the heights =1 : 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 30.
A number ‘x’ is selected from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and then second number ‘y’ is selected from the numbers 1, 4, 9. Rnd the probability that the product ‘xy’ of the two numbers is less than 9. (3)
Answer:
Number Y can be selected in 3 ways and corresponding to each, such way there are 3 ways of selecting ‘y.
Therefore, 2 numbers can be selected in 9 ways as listed below:
(1, 1) (1, 4) (1, 9) (2, 1) (2, 4) (2, 9) (3, 1) (3, 4) (3, 9)
Total numbers of outcomes = 9
The product xy will be less than 9, if x and y are chosen in one of the following ways.
(1, 1) (1, 4) (2, 1) (2, 4) (3, 1)
Number of favourable outcomes = 5
P(product less than 9) = \(\frac{5}{9}\)

Question 31.
If the median of the following data is 32.5, find the missing frequencies. (3)i

Class interval 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Total
Frequency fi 5 9 12 fi 3 2 40

Answer:
Median of data = 32-5
sum of frequency = 40
i.e., f1 + 31 + f2 = 40
∴ f1 + f2 = 9
Then, median class is 30-40

Class Interval fi c.f.
0-10 f1
10-20 5 5 + f1
20-30 9 14 + f1
30-40 12 26 + f1
40-50 f2 26 + f1 + f2
50-60 3 29 + f1 + f2
60-70 2 31 + f1+ f2
Total 40

Then,
\(\mathrm{M}_e=\frac{1+\left(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}-c f\right) \times h}{f}\)
⇒ \(32.5=30+\frac{\left(20-14-f_1\right)}{12} \times 10\)
⇒ 2.5 × 6 = (6 – f1) × 5
⇒ 15.0 = 30 – 5f1
⇒ 5f1 = 15
⇒ f1 = 3
and f2 = 6
Hence, the values of f1 and f2 are 3 and 6 respectively.

Section – D (20 Marks)
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)

Question 32.
Two pipes together can start to fill a tank in \(9 \frac{3}{8}\) hours. The larger diameter pipe fills the tank separately in 10 hours less time than the smaller one. Determine the time at which each pipe can fill the tank on its own.
OR
A 2- digit number is four times the sum and three times the product of its digits. Find the number. (5)
Answer:
Let time taken by pipe of smaller diameter to fill the tan k = x hours
Let time taken by pipe of larger diameter to fill the tank = (x – 10) hours
In 1 hour, the pipe with a smaller diameter can fill \(\frac{1}{x}\) part of the tank.
In 1 hour, the pipe with larger diameter can fill \(\frac{1}{(x-10)}\) part of the tank.
The tank is filled up in \(\frac{75}{8}\) hours.

Thus, in 1 hour the pipe fill \(\frac{8}{75}\) part of the tank.
\(\frac{1}{x}\) + \(\frac{1}{(x-10)}\) = \(\frac{8}{75}\)
\(\frac{(x-10)+x}{x(x+10)}\) = \(\frac{8}{75}\)
\(\frac{2x-10}{x^2-10x}\) = \(\frac{8}{75}\)
75(2x – 10) = 8(x2 – 10x) by cross multiplication
150x – 750 = 8x2 – 80x
8x2 – 230x + 750 = 0
4x2 – 115x+ 375 = 0
4×2 – 100x -15x + 375 = 0
4x(x – 25) – 15(x – 25) = 0
(4x – 15)(x – 25) = 0
4x – 15 = 0 or x – 25 = 0
x = \(\frac{15}{4}\) or x = 25

Case 1:
When
x = \(\frac{15}{4}\)
Then x – 10 = \(\frac{15}{4}\) – 10
x = \(\frac{15-40}{4}\)
x = –\(\frac{25}{4}\)
Time can never be negative so x = 15/4 is not possible.

Case 2:
When x = 25 then
x – 10 = 25 – 10 = 15
∴ The pipe of smaller diameter can separately fill the tank in 25 hours, and the time taken by the larger pipe to fill the tank = (25 – 10) = 15 hours.

OR

Let, the number be 10x + y i.e., digit at units’s place is ‘y’ and digit at ten’s place is ’x’.
According to the question,
10x + y = 4(x + y)
⇒ 10x + y = 4x + 4y
⇒ 6x – 3y = 0
⇒ 2 x = y …(i)
and 10x + y = 3xy
From (i)
10x + 2x = 3 xy
⇒ 12x = 3 xy
⇒ y = 4
and x = 2
then, the numbers is 24.

Question 33.
In the given figure, ∆FEC is congruent to ∆GDB and ∠1 = ∠2. Prove that ∆ADE ~ ∆ABC. (5)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 17
Answer:
Given : ∆FEC ≅ ∆GDB
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 17.1
and ∠1 = ∠2
To prove: ∆ADE – ∆ABC
Proof Since, ∆FEC = ∆GDB
Then, EC = BD (by cpct) …(i)
and ∠1 = ∠2
AE = AD
Then, AE _ AD EC ” BD (from equation (i) & (ii)]
∴ DE || BC (by converse of thales theorem)
∴ ∠1 = ∠ABC and ∠2 = ∠ACB
(corresponding pair of angles)

In ∆ADE and ∆ABC,
∠A = ∠A (common)
∠1 = ∠ABC (proved above)
∠2 = ∠ACB (proved above)
∴ ∆ADE ~ ∆ABC [by AA similarity]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 34.
If an isosceles triangle ABC in which AB = AC = 6 cm is inscribed in a circle of radius 9 cm, find the area of the triangle. (5)
Answer:
Let O be the centre of the circle and P be the mid-point of BC. Then, OP ⊥ BC.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 18
Since, AABC is isosceles and P is the mid-point of BC.
Therefore, AP ⊥ BC as median from the vertex in an isosceles triangle is perpendicular to the base.
Let, AP = x and PB = CP = y
Applying pythagoras theorem in As APB and OPB, we have
AB2 = BP2 + AP2 and OB2 = OP2 + BP2
⇒ 36 = y2 + x2 …(i)
and 81 = (9 – x)2 + y2 …(ii)
⇒ 81 – 36 = (9 – x)2 + y2 – y2 + x2
(subtracting (i) from (ii))
⇒ 45 = 81 – 18x
⇒ x = 2 cm
Put x = 2 in equation (i), we get
36 = y2 + 4
⇒ y2 = 32
⇒ y = 4\(\sqrt{2}\) cm
BC = 2BP = 2y = 8\(\sqrt{3}\) cm
Hence, area of AABC = \(\frac{1}{2}\) BC × AP
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8\(\sqrt{3}\) × 2 cm2
= 8\(\sqrt{3}\) cm2

Question 35.
Prove that \(\sqrt{a}\) is not a rational number, if ‘a’ is not perfect square.
OR
From an aeroplane vertically above a horizontal plane, the angles of depression of two consecutive kilometre stones on the opposite sides of the aeroplane are found to be α and β. Show that the height of the aeroplane is \(\frac{\tan \alpha \cdot \tan \beta}{\tan \alpha+\tan \beta}\).(5)
Answer:
Let \(\sqrt{a}\) be a rational number
\(\sqrt{a}\) = \(\frac{p}{q}\) where P and q are co-prime integers.
On squaring both side, we get q ≠ 0.
a = \(\frac{p^2}{q^2}\)
⇒ P2 = aq2 …(i)
⇒ a divides p2
⇒ a divides p
Let p be a prime number. If p divides n2, then p divides n, where n is a positive integer.
Let p = am, where m is any integer.
p2 = a2m2
⇒ aq2 = a2m2 [Using (i)]
⇒ q2 = am2
⇒ a divides g2
⇒ a divides q …(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), a is a common factor of both p and q which contradicts the assumption that p and q are co-prime integers.
So, our supposition is wrong.
Hence, \(\sqrt{a}\) is an irrational number.

OR

Let P be the position of plane, A and B be the positions of two stones one kilometre apart. Angles of depression of stones A and B are a and p respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 19
Let PC = h
In right-angled ∆ACP, we have
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 20

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Section – E (12 marks)
(Case Study Based Questions)
(Section E consists of 3 questions. All are compulsory.)

Question 36.
Mr. Naik is a paramilitary Intelligence Corps officer who is tasked with planning a coup on the enemy at a certain date. Currently he is inspecting the area standing on top of the cliff. Agent Vinod is on a hot air balloon in the sky. When Mr. Naik looks down below the cliff towards the sea, he has Ajay and Maran in boats positioned to get a good vantage point.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 21
The main goal is to scope out the range and angles at which they should train their soldiers.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Write one pair of ‘angle of elevation’ and one pair of’angle of depression’. (1)
(B) If the vertical height of the balloon
from the top of the cliff is 12 m and ∠b = 30°, then find the distance between the Naik and vinod. (1)
(C) Ajay’s boat is 25 m away from the base of the cliff. If ∠d = 30° . What is the height of the cliff? (use \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.73)
OR
If the height of the cliff is 30 m , ∠c = 45° and ∠d = 30°, then find the horizontal distance between the two boats (use \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.73) (2)
Answer:
(A) One pair of angle of elevation is ∠b° and ∠e° and one pair of angle of depression is and ∠c° and ∠d°

(B) Then, sin 30° = \(\frac{Vertical height}{Distance between Naik and Vinod}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{12}{D_NandV}\)
⇒ Distance = 24 m

(C) Here, ∠d° = ∠f° = 30°
Then, \(\frac{Height of cliff.}{Distance of Ajay’s boat from the base of cliff}\) = tan 30°
⇒ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac{h}{25}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac{25}{\sqrt{3}}\) × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
= \(\frac{25}{\sqrt{3}}\) × \({\sqrt{3}}\)
= 14.45 m

OR

Here, height of cliff = 30 m
Then, ∠c = ∠e = 45°
∴ tan 450 = \(\frac{height of cliff}{Distance of Maran’s boat}\)
⇒ 1 = \(\frac{30}{Distance of Maran’s boat}\)
⇒ Distance of maran’s boat = 30 m
And ∠d = ∠f= 30°
∴ tan 3o° = \(\frac{height of cliff}{Distance of Ajay’s boat}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac{30}{D_A}\)
⇒ DA = 30\(\sqrt{3}\)

∴ Distance between boats = 30\(\sqrt{3}\) – 30
= 30 (1.73 – 1)
= 21.9 m

Question 37.
Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was established to help the families of earthquake affected village. The allotment officer is trying to come up with a method to calculate fair division of funds across various affected families so that the fund amount and amount received per family can be easily adjusted based on daily revised numbers.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 22
The total fund allotted is formulated by the officer as: x3 -5x2 -2x- 6
The officer has also divided the fund equally among families of the village and each family receives an amount of x2 + 2x + 1. After distribution, an amount of 11x + 1 should be left to have some buffer for future disbursements.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) If an amount of ₹ 540 is left after distribution, what is value of x? ?(1)
(B) How much amount (In rupees) does each family receive? (1)
(C) What is the amount of fund (In rupees) allocated ?
OR
If the sum of squares of zeroes of the polynomial x2 – 8x + k is 40, then find the value of k. ? (2)
Answer:
(A) Amount lift = 11x + 1
∴ 11x + 1 = 540
x = \(\frac{539}{11}\) = 49

(B) Since, x = 49
Amount received by each family is
x2 + 2x + 1 = (49)2 + 2(49) + 1
= 2401 + 98 + 1
= 2500

(C) Since, x = 49
∴ Fund alloted is-
x3 – 5x2 – 2x – 6
= (49)3 – 5(49)2 – 2(49) – 6
= 117649 – 12005 – 98 – 6
= 1,05,540

OR

If α and β are the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c,
a ≠ 0, then α + β = \(\frac{-b}{a}\) and αβ = \(\frac{c}{a}\)

Here,α + β = 8; αβ = k
It is given that
α2 + β2 = 40
α2 + β2 = (α + β)2 – 2αβ
40 = (8)2 – 2k
40 = 64 – 2k
2k = 24
k= 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Question 38.
To celebrate Diwali festival among senior citizens of an old age home, four friends of a society, Rohan, Amar, Saran and Madhukar decided to pool some money to gift packs to every old man/woman staying in the neighbouring old-age home. They pooled money in the ratio 2:3:4:5. With the pooled money of ? 3500, they start preparing gift packs. In the preparation of one gift pack, Rohan, Amar, Saran and Madhukar spend 7, 6, 8 and 9 minutes respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions - 23
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) How much time (in minutes) was spent on one gift? (1)
(B) If each gift costs to them ₹ 70, how many senior citizens were given the cards? (1)
(C) How much amount was pooled by Rohan and Madhukar together for giving the gifts and how much time (in hours) was spent in preparing all the gift packs?
OR
How much amount was pooled by Saran? (2)
(A) Total time spent = 7 + 6 + 8 + 9
= 30 minutes

(B) Total money pooled = ₹ 3500
Cost of 1 gift = ₹ 70
N. of gifts = \(\frac{3500}{70}\) = 50

(C) Total money pooled = ₹ 3500
Money given by Rohan and Madhukar = \(\frac{2x + 5x}{14x}\) ×3500
= \(\frac{7}{14}\) × 3500
= ₹ 1750
No. of gifts are 50
Time taken for one gift = 30 minutes
.’. Total time taken = 50 × 30
= 1500 minutes
= \(\frac{1500}{60}\) = 25 h

OR

Total money polled = ₹ 3500
Let, the money contributed be 2x, 3x, 4x, 5x
2x + 3x + 4x + 5x = 3500
14x = 3500
x = \(\frac{500}{2}\) = 250
Then, contribution of saran = 4 × 250 = 1000

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions 2024-2025

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 History 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions Answers 2024-2025 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 History board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 12 History Sample Papers 2024.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 12 History
Year of Examination – 2024-2025

CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 History 2024-2025 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 12 History Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 12 History Sample Paper 2024 Solved.

CBSE Class 12 History Sample Papers 2024 with Solutions

History Sample Paper Class 12 Question Paper Design 2024-25

Divisions Typologies of Questions No. of Questions Marks Total
Section A Multiple Choice Questions Q1 – Q21 1 1 × 21 = 21
Section B Short Answer Type Questions Q22 – Q27 3 6 × 3 = 18
Section C Long Answer Type Questions Q28 – Q30 8 3 × 8 = 24
Section D Source-based Questions Q31 – Q33 4 4 × 4 = 16
Section E Map based Questions Q34 5 1 × 5 = 5
Total 34 Questions 80 Marks

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions 2024-2025 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of History Class 12 2024 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
  2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
  3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
  4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
  5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
  6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
  7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
  8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section – A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)

Question 1.
The prime factorisation of 96 is: (1)
(a) 25 × 3
(b) 26
(c) 24 × 3
(d) 24 × 32
Answer:
(a) 22 × 3

Explanation: The prime factorisation of 96 is:
96 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 25 × 3

Question 2.
The zeroes of the poLynomial p(x) = 4x2 – 12x +9 is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\), 0
(b) 0,\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{5}{6}\),\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{3}{2}\),\(\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{3}{2}\),\(\frac{3}{2}\)

Explanation: p(x) = 4x2 – 12x + 9 = (2x – 3)2 = 0
Thus, x= \(\frac{3}{2}\) and \(\frac{3}{2}\) are the two zeroes of p(x).

Question 3.
If x = a, y = b is the solution of the pair of equations x – y = 2 and x + y = 4. then the values of a and b is: (1)
(a) a = 3, b = 1
(b) a = 5, b = 2
(c) a = 1, b = 3
(d) a =4, b = 2
Answer:
(a) a = 3, b = 1

Explanation: As x = o, y = b is the solution of: x – y = 2 and x + y = 4
we have,
a – b = 2 and a + b = 4
⇒ a = 3 and b = 1

Question 4.
Discriminant of the quadratic equation 2x2 + 4x -7=0 is: (1)
(a) 28
(b) 72
(c) 36
(d) 48
Answer:
(b) 72

Explanation:
The discriminant of 2x2 + 4x- 7 = 0 is [(4)2 – 4(2)(-7)] = 16 + 56 = 72

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 5.
The roots of quadratic equation x2 – 4x + 2 = 0 (1)
(a) 2 ± \(\sqrt{2}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{2}\),2
(c) 3,2
(d) 3 ± \(2 \sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
(a) 2 ± \(\sqrt{2}\)

Explanation:
Here, quadratic equation is: p(x) = x2 – 4x + 2 On comparing it with ax2 + fax + c = 0
Then, a = 1, b = – 4, c = 2
D = b2 – 4ac = (- 4)2 – 4 × 1 × 2
= 16 – 8 = 8
Then, roots, x = \(\frac{-b+\sqrt{D}}{2 a}\)
= \(\frac{-(-4)±\sqrt{8}}{2}\)
= \(\frac{4±2\sqrt{2}}{2}\)
= 2 ± \(\sqrt{2}\)
Hence, roots of the equation are 2 + \(\sqrt{2}\) and 2 – \(\sqrt{2}\).

Question 6.
If Sn = 5n2 + 3n, then its nth term is: (1)
(a) 5n – 1
(b) 10n2
(c) 10n – 2
(d) 8n – 3
Answer:
(c) 10n – 2

Explanation:
an = Sn – Sn-1
= 5n2 + 3n – [ 5 (n – 1)2 + 3(n – 1)]
= 5n2 + 3n – [ 5n2 + 5 – 10n + 3n – 3]
= 10n – 2

Question 7.
If the common difference of an A.P. is 5, then find a18 – a13. (1)
(a) 38
(b) 40
(c) 18
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Explanation:
a18 – a13 = a + 17d – a – 12d
= 5d = 5 × 5
= 25

Question 8.
In an A.P., a = -6 and d = 2. The sum of its first 20 terms is: (1)
(a) 270
(b) 200
(c) 195
(d) 260
Answer:
(d) 260

Explanation: Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
So, S20 = \(\frac{20}{2}\) [2(-6)+(20 – l)(2)]
= 10[-12 + 38]
= 10 × 26 = 260

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 9.
Write the relationship between the coefficients, if the following pair of equations is inconsistent. ax + by + c = 0, a’x+b’y + d = 0. (1)
(a) \(\frac{a}{a^{\prime}} \neq \frac{b}{b^{\prime}}=\frac{c}{c^{\prime}}\)
(b) \(\frac{a}{a^{\prime}}=\frac{b}{b^{\prime}} \neq \frac{c}{c^{\prime}}\)
(c) \(\frac{a}{a^{\prime}}=\frac{b}{b^{\prime}}=\frac{c}{c^{\prime}}\)
(d) 0
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{a}{a^{\prime}}=\frac{b}{b^{\prime}} \neq \frac{c}{c^{\prime}}\)

Explanation:
the required relationship is:
\(\frac{a}{a^{\prime}}=\frac{b}{b^{\prime}} \neq \frac{c}{c^{\prime}}\)

Question 10.
In a ∆ABC, right-angled at B, if AB : AC = 1 : 2, then the value of \(\frac{2 tan A}{1+tan^{2} A}\) is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

Explanation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 1

Question 11.
If a tower 6 metres high casts a shadow on the ground that is 2-^3 metres long, then the elevation of the sun is: (1)
(a) 60°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) 90°
Answer:
(a) 60°

Explanation:
As per the given question:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 2

Question 12.
The area of a circle, whose circumference is 22 cm, is: (1)
(a) 38 cm
(b) 36 cm2
(c) 38.5 cm2
(d) 40 cm2
Answer:
(c) 38.5 cm2

Explanation:
Let r be the radius of the circle.
Then,
2πr = 22 cm
⇒ r = \(\frac{22}{2 \times \frac{22}{7}}\)
⇒ r = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm or 3.5 cm
Thus,
Area = πr2 = \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 3.5 × 3.5 cm2 = 38.5 cm2

Question 13.
If the ratio between the volumes of two spheres is 8 : 27, then the ratio between their surface areas is: (1)
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 25 : 16
(d) 4 : 9
Answer:
(d) 4 : 9

Explanation:
Let, the radius of 2 sphere be r and R
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 14.
The class-mark of the class interval 10-25 is: (1)
(a) 17.5
(b) 16
(c) 14
(d) 18
Answer:
(a) 17.5

Explanation: The class mark of 10 – 25 is \(\frac{10 + 25}{2}\) = 17.5

Question 15.
One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. Find the probability that the card drawn is either red or a queen. (1)
(a) \(\frac{5}{14}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{14}\)
(c) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
(d) \(\frac{7}{13}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{7}{13}\)

Explanation:
In a pack of 52 cards, there are 26 red cards and 2 black queens.
So, total possible outcomes = 26 + 2 = 28
P(a red or a queen) = \(\frac{28}{52}\) = \(\frac{7}{13}\)

Question 16.
How many face cards are there in a pack of 52 cards? (1)
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer:
(a) 12

Explanation: Face cards are jacks, queen and kings
∴ Total face cards = 4 + 4 + 4=12

Question 17.
Determine the upper limit of the modal class of the following frequency distribution:

Class 0-5 6-11 12-17 18-23 24-29
Frequency 13 10 15 8 11

(a) 16
(b) 19.5
(c) 18
(d) 17.5
Answer:
(d) 17.5

Explanation:
The given frequency distribution in the exclusive form is:

Class 0.5 – 5.5 5.5-11.5 11.5- 17.5 17.5 – 23.5 23.5 – 29.5
Frequency 13 10 15 8 11

Here, the modal class is 11.5 – 17.5
So, the upper limit of the modal class is 17.5.

Question 18.
The empirical relationship among the three measures of central tendency mean, mode and median. (1)
(a) 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean
(b) Mode = 2 Median – Mean
(c) Mean = 3 Mode + 2 Median
(d) Median = Mode – Mean
Answer:
(a) 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean

Explanation: The required relationship is: 3Median = Mode + 2Mean

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Choose the correct option as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (IQ are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Statement A (Assertion): If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm, then its radius is 28 cm.
Statement R (Reason): Circumference = 2π × radius. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
Circumference (C) = 176 cm
2πr= 176
⇒ 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 176
⇒ \(\frac{44}{7}\) × r = 176
⇒ r = 176 × \(\frac{7}{44}\) = 28 cm
∴ The radius of the circle is 28 cm.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 20.
Statement A (Assertion): If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value of median is 64.
Statement R (Reason): Median = mode + 2 mean (1)
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.

Explanation: Median = -(Mode + 2 mean) = (60 + 2 × 66) = 64

Section – B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each)

Question 21.
A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q respectively. If (2, -5) is the mid-point of PQ, find the coordinates of P and Q.
OR
Find the third vertex of a triangle, if two of its vertices are at (-3,1) and (0, -2) and the centroid is at the origin. (2)
Answer:
Letthe coordinates of P and Q be (0, y) and (x,0) respectively.
∴ Mid-point of PQ : (\(\frac{0+x}{2}\), \(\frac{y+0}{2}\))
i.e (\(\frac{x}{2}\),\(\frac{y}{2}\))
Equating it with (2, -5), we have,
\(\frac{x}{2}\) = 2; \(\frac{y}{2}\) = -5
⇒ x = 4, y = -10
Thus, the coordinates of P and Q are (0, -10) and (4, 0) respectively.
OR
Given that two points are (- 3, 1) and (0, -2) and its centroid is (0, 0).
Let the third vertex be (x, y). Then,
(\(\frac{x-3+0}{3}\),\(\frac{y+1-2}{3}\)) = (0,0)
⇒ \(\frac{x-3}{3}\) = 0 and \(\frac{y-1}{3}\) = 0
⇒ x = 3 and y = 1
Thus, the third vertex is (3,1).

Question 22.
Explain why 3 × 5 × 7 × 9 × 11 + 11 is a composite number.
OR
If n = 23 × 34 × 54 × 7, where n is a natural number, then find the number of consecutive zeros in n. (2)
Answer:
11(3 × 5 × 7 × 9 + 1) = 11 (945 + 1)
= 11 × 946 = 11 × 2 × 11 × 43
Since, it has more than 2 factors.
Therefore, it is a composite number.
OR
According to questions,
n = 23 × 34 × 54 × 7
= 23 × 34 × 53 × 5 × 7
= (2 × 5)3 × 34 × 5 × 7
= (10)3 × 34 × 5 × 7
= 34 × 5 × 7 × 1000
Thus, in the given natural number ‘ri there are 3 zeros.

Question 23.
A tangent from point A, which is placed 5 cm away from the circle’s centre, has a length of 4 cm. Find the circle’s radius. (2)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 4
Answer:
We know that the tangent at any point of a circle is ⊥ to the radius through the point of contact.
∴ ∠OPA = 90°
∴ OA2 = OP2 = AP2
(By Pythagoras theorem)
⇒ (5)2 = (OP)2 + (4)2
⇒ 25 = (OP)2 + 16
⇒ OP2 = 9
⇒ OP = 3 cm
(OP = – 3 cm is moved)

Question 24.
Find the missing frequency for the given data if mean of distribution is 52. (2)

Wages in Rs 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
No. of Workers 5 3 4 f 2 6 13

Answer:
Given data is
Find the missing frequency for the given data is mean of distribution is 52.

Wages in Rs 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
No. of Workers 5 3 4 f 2 6 13

Given data is

Wages fi xi fixi
10-20 5 15 75
20-30 3 25 75
30-40 4 35 140
40-50 f 45 45 f
50-60 2 55 110
60-70 6 65 390
70-80 13 75 975
Total 33 + f 1765 + 45f

Then, Mean = \(\frac{\Sigma f_i x_i}{\Sigma f_i}\)
\(52=\frac{1765+45 f}{33+f}\)
⇒ 7f = 1765 – 1716 = 49
⇒ f = 7
Hence, missing frequency is 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 25.
If a number x is chosen at random from the numbers -2, -1, 0,1, 2, then what is the probability that x2 < 2 ? (2)
Answer:
Total outcomes = 5
Favourable outcomes (i.e., x2 < 2) are 4, 1, 0, 1, 4 i.e. 3
∴ P(x2 < 2) = \(\frac{3}{5}\)
Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Section – C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
If p is a prime number, then prove that \(\sqrt{p}\) is irrational. (3)
Answer:
Let us assume, to the contrary that \(\sqrt{p}\) is rationaL
So, we canfind co-prime integers a’ and ‘b’ (b* 0),
such that \(\sqrt{p}\) = \(\frac{a}{b}\)
⇒ \(\sqrt{p}\) b = a
⇒ pb2 = a2 …(i)
⇒ a2 is divisible by p
⇒ a is divisible by p.
So, we can write a = pc for some integer c.
Therefore, a2 = p2c2 (squaring both side)
⇒ pb2 = p2c2 (from (i))
⇒ b2 = pc2
⇒ b2 is divisible by p
⇒ b is divisible by p
⇒ p divides both a and b.
⇒ ‘a’ and ‘b’ have at least p’ as a common factor
But this contradicts the fact that ‘a and ‘b’ are coprime.
This contradiction arises because we have assumed that \(\sqrt{p}\) is rational.
Therefore, \(\sqrt{p}\) is irrational.

Question 27.
Find the zeros of the polynomial 2x2 – (1 + 2\(\sqrt{2}\))x + \(\sqrt{2}\). (3)
Answer:
p(x) = 2x2 – (1 + 2\(\sqrt{2}\))x + \(\sqrt{2}\) = 0
= 2x2 – x + 2\(\sqrt{2}\)x + \(\sqrt{2}\) = 0
= x(2x – 1) – \(\sqrt{2}\) (2x – 1) = 0
= (2x – 1) (x – \(\sqrt{2}\)) = 0
Either, 2x – 1 = 0 or x – \(\sqrt{2}\) = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) or x = \(\sqrt{2}\)
Thus, zeros of the given polynomial are \(\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\sqrt{2}\).

Question 28.
Solve for x:\(\frac{1}{x-2}+\frac{2}{x-1}=\frac{6}{x} \cdot x \neq 0,1,2\) (3)
Answer:
Here,
\(\frac{1}{x-2}+\frac{2}{x-1}=\frac{6}{x} \cdot x \neq 0,1,2\)
\(\frac{(x-1)+2(x-2)}{(x-2)(x-1)}\) = \(\frac{6}{x}\)
\(\frac{x-1+2x-4}{(x^{2}-2x-x+2)}\) = \(\frac{6}{x}\)
⇒ (3x – 5)x = 6(x2 – 3x + 2)
⇒ 3x2 – 5x = 6x2 – 18x + 12
⇒ 3x2 – 13x + 12 = 0
⇒ 3x2 – 9x – 4x + 12 = 0
⇒ 3x(x – 3) – 4(x – 3) = 0
⇒ (3x – 4) (x – 3) = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{4}{3}\),3
Hence, the values of x are \(\frac{4}{3}\) and 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 29.
In the figure, if O is the centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and the tangent PR at P makes an angle of 50° with the chord PQ, then determine ∠POQ.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 5
OR
O is point inside a triangle ABC The bisectors of ∠AOB, ∠BOC and ∠COA meet the sides AB, BC and CA at point D, E and F respectively, show that AD x BE x CF = DB x EC x FA. (3)
Answer:
Here, ∠QPR = 50°
and ∠OPR = 90°
[∵ Radius is perpendicular to tangent]
∴ ∠OPQ + ∠QPR = 90°
⇒ ∠OPQ + 50° = 90°
⇒ ∠OPQ = 90° – 50° = 40°
Now, OP = OQ [Radii of same circle]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 6
∴ ∠OPQ = ∠OQP = 40°
In ∆OPQ,
∠POQ + ∠OPQ + ∠OQP = 180°
⇒ ∠POQ + 40° + 40° = 180°
⇒ ∠POQ = 180° – 80° = 100°
OR
Given : A AABC, in which O is a point inside it. The bisector of ∠AOB, ∠BOC and ∠COA meet the sides AB, BC and CD at points D, E and F respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 7
=> DB × EC × FA = AD × BF × CF
or AD × BE × CF = DB × EC × FA
Hence, proved.

Question 30.
The diagram shows a round about at the junction of four roads (of equal width).
The central park is in the form of a circle with centre O and radius 14 m.
The curbs BC, DE, FG and HA are in the form of arcs that lie on a circle with centre O and radius 21 m. The angles subtended by these curbs at O are 60°, 45°, 45°, 90°.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 8
(A) Find the total lengths of the curbs; 1 1/2
(B) Find the area of the circular road surrounded the central park. 1 1/2
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 9
(B) Area of the circular road surrounding the central park
= [π(21)2 – π(14)2] m2
= \(\frac{22}{7}\)× (21 + 14) (21 – 14) m2
= 770 m\(\frac{22}{7}\).

Question 31.
Rnd the median of the following data:

Marks (out of 90) No. of Students
0-10 2
10-20 2
20-30 4
30-40 6
40-50 6
50-60 5
60-70 2
70-80 4
80-90 4
Total 35

OR
Two customers are visiting a particular shop in the same week (Monday to Saturday). Each is equally likely to visit the shop on any one day as on another. Find the probability that both will visit the shop:
(A) the same day
(B) different days
(C) consecutive days. (3 )
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 10
Then, \(\frac{N}{2}\) = \(\frac{35}{2}\) = 17.5
Then, median class is 40 – 50
l = 40 f = 6, c.f. = 14, h = 10

Then Me = l + \(\frac{N/2 – cf}{f}\) × h
= 40 + \(\frac{17.5 – 14}{6}\) × 10
= 40 + \(\frac{3.5}{6}\) × 10 = 40 + 5.83
= 45.83
Thus, median of the given data is 45.83
OR
Two customer can visit the shop in 6 × 6 ways = 36 ways.
Total no. of events = 36

(A) Two customer can visit the shop on the same day in one of the following ways, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday
∴ P(of visiting on same day) = \(\frac{6}{36}\) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)

(B) ∴ P(of visiting on different day) = 1 – \(\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{5}{6}\)

(C) Two customers can visit the shop on 2 consecutive days in the following ways : (Mon, Tue), (Tue, Wed), (Wed, Thurs), (Thurs, Fri), (Fri, Sat) = 5 ways ,
∴ P (of visiting on consecutive days) = \(\frac{5}{36}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Section D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)

Question 32.
State and prove basic proportionality theorem.
OR
D and E are points on the sides CA and CB respectively of a AABC, right-angled at C. Prove that: AE2 + BD2 = AB2 + DE2 (5)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 11
Answer:
Statement “If a side is parallel to one side of a triangle and it intersects the other two sides in 2 distinct points, then it divides the other 2 sides in same proportion.”
Proof:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 12
Given: A ∆ABC, a line DE parallel to BC intersect AB and D and AC at E.
To prove: \(\frac{AD}{DB}\) = \(\frac{AE}{EC}\)
Construction : Draw EF ⊥ AB and DG ⊥ AC Join BE and CE
Proof: Since, EF ⊥ AB
EF is the height of triangle ADE and DBE.
Area of ∆ADE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × b × h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × AD × EF
Area of ∆DBE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × DB × EF
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 13
But ∆DBE and ∆DCE are on the same base DE and between the same parallel straight lines BC and DE.
Area of ∆DBE = Area of ∆DCE …(iii)
From, (i), (ii) and (iii), we have
\(\frac{AD}{DB}\) = \(\frac{AE}{EC}\)
Hence proved.
OR
In the figure, ACB is a right angled triangle, right-angled at C. D and E are points on sides CA and BC respectively.
We Join DE, BD and AE.
In right triangle ACE, we have:
AE2 = AC2 + EC2 …(i)
In right triangle BCD, we have:
BD2 = BC2 + DC2 …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get:
AE2 + BD2 = (AC2 + EC2) + (BC2 + DC2)
= (BC2 + CA2) + (CE2 + CD2)
= AB2 + DE2.
Hence proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 33.
Vijay had some bananas, and he divided them into two lots A and B. He sold the first lot A at the rate of 2 for 3 bananas and the second lot B at the rate of ₹ 1 per banana, and got a total collection of f 400. If he had sold the first lot A at the rate of f 1 per banana, and the second lot B at the rate of 4 for 5 bananas, his total collection would have been ₹ 460.
Determine the total number of bananas he had. (5)
Answer:
Let lot A contains ‘x’ bananas; and lot B contains ‘y’ bananas. Then, according to the question,
\(\frac{2}{3}\)x + y = 400 ; x + \(\frac{4}{5}\) y = 460
⇒ 2x + 3y = 1200 ; 5x + 4y = 2300
⇒ 10x + 15y = 6000 …(i)
and 10x + 8y = 4600 …(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
⇒ 7 y = 1400
⇒ y = 200.
From (i), we get
10x + 15 × 300 = 6000
⇒ 10x = 1500
⇒ x = 300
Thus, lot A contains 300 bananas and lot B contains 200 bananas.
Vijay had 500 bananas in all.

Question 34.
Two tangents are drawn from a point P to a circle with a centre of O. Prove that ∆APB is equilateral, if OP = diameter of the circle. (5)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 14
Answer:
Join OP.
Suppose OP meets the circle at Q. Join AQ.
We have
i.e., OP = diameter
∴ OQ + PQ = diameter
∴ OQ + PQ = diameter
PQ = Diameter – radius [••• OQ = r]
∴ PQ = radius
Thus, OQ = PQ = radius
Thus, OP is the hypotenuse of right triangle
OAP and Q is the mid-point of OP
∴ OA = AQ = OQ
[v mid-point of hypotenuse of a right triangle is equidistant from the vertices]
⇒ AOAQ is equilateral
⇒ ∠AOQ = 60°
So, ∠APO = 30°
∴ ∠APB = 2∠APO = 60°
Also PA = PB
⇒ ∠PAB = ∠PBA
But ∠APB = 60°
∴ ∠PAB = ∠PBA = 60°
Hence, ∆APB is equilateral triangle.

Question 35.
Trigonometric ratios sin A, sec A, and tan A should be expressed in the form of cotA.
OR
The angles of depression of the top and bottom of building 50 metres high as observed from the top of a tower are 30° and 60°, respectively. Find the height of the tower and also the horizontal distances between the building and the tower. (5)
Answer:
For sin A,
Bu using identity, cosec2 A – cot2 A = 1 .
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 15
OR
Let PQ be the tower of height h m and AB be the building of height 50 m.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 16
From right triangle BDQ,
\(\frac{DQ}{BD}\) = tan 30° = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
⇒ BD = \(\sqrt{3}\) DQ …..(i)
Also, from right triangle APQ,
\(\frac{PQ}{AP}\) = tan 60° = \(\sqrt{3}\)
or \(\frac{PQ}{BD}\) = \(\sqrt{3}\)
or BD = \(\sqrt{3}\) …..(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
DQ = \(\frac{PQ}{3}\)
Further,
PQ = PD + DQ

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

SECTION – E
(Case Study Based Questions)
(Section E consists of 3 questions. All are compulsory.)

Question 36.
Selvi is setting up a water purifier system in her house which includes setting up an overhead tank in the shape of a right circular cylinder. This is filled by pumping water from a sump (underground tank) which is in the shape of a cuboid.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 17
The underground water tank (sump) is a sturdy single moulded piece built to with stand underground pressure and is available in the storage capacity of 2000 L
These, along with hassle-free installation and minimum maintenance needs make it the ideal water storage solution.
Dimensions (sump):
1.57 m × 1.44 m × 95 cm.
Dimensions (overhead tank):
Radius is 60 cm and Height is 95 cm
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 18
Water flow conditions at the required overload capacity should be checked for critical pressure drop to ensure that valves are adequately sized.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the ratio of the capacity of the sump to the capacity of the overhead tank. (1)
(B) If overhead tank need to be painted to save it from corrosion, how much area need to be painted? (1)
(C) If water is filled in the overhead tank at the rate of 20 litre per minute, the tank will be completely filled in how much time?
OR
If the amount of water in the sump, at an instant, is 1500 litres , then find the water level in the sump at that instant? (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 18
(A)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 19
(B) CSA. of cylindrical tank = 2πrH
= 2 × 3.14 × 60 × 95
= 35,796 cm2
= 3.5796 m2
= 3.6 m2

(C) Volume of water in cylindrical tank = πr2h
= 3.14 × 60 × 60 × 95
= 1073880 cm3
Now, 1l = 1000 cm3
∴ Volume of tank = 1073.88l
20l tank is filled in 1 minute
∴ 1073.88l tank is filled in \(\frac{1073.88 l}{20}\)
= 53.69
= 54 minutes

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions

Question 37.
Rishu ¡s riding in a hot air bafloon. After reaching a point P, he spots a car parked at B on the ground at an angle of depression of 30°. The balloon rises further by 50 metres and now he spots the same car at an angle of depression of 45° and a lorry parked at B’ at an angle of depression of 30°. (Use \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.73)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 20
The measurement of Rishu facing vertically is the height. Distance is defined as the measurement of car/lorry from a point in a horizontal direction. If an imaginary line is drawn from the observation point to the top edge of the car/lorry, a triangle is formed by the vertical, horizontal and imaginary line.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) If the height of the balloon at point P is ‘h’m and distance AB is ‘x’ m, then find the relation between ‘x’ and ‘h’. (1)
(B) Find the relation between the height of the balloon at point P’ and distance AB. (1)
(C) Find the height of the balloon at point P, and the distance AB on the ground.
OR
Find the distance B’B on the ground. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 21
(C) On solving equation obtained in (A) and (B), we get
\(\sqrt{3}\)h = h + 50
⇒ h(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1) = 50
⇒ h = \(\frac{50}{0.732}\) = 68.25

In ∆APB.
tan 30° = \(\frac{AP}{AB}\)
⇒ AB = \(\frac{AP}{tan 30°}\) = \(\frac{68.25}{1/\sqrt{3}}\)
= 68.25 × 1.732
= 118 m

OR

In ∆AP’B’
tan 30° = \(\frac{AP’}{AB’}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac{68.25+50}{AB’}\)
⇒ AB’ = 118.25 × 1.732 = 204.809
BB’ = AB’ – AB
= 204.809 – 118
= 86.80 = 87 m

Question 38.
To conduct sport day activities in the rectangular school ground ABCD, lines have been drawn with chalk powder at a distance of 1 m each along DB.
100 flower pots have been placed at a distance of 1 m from each other along DA as shown in the figure below.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 22
Radha runs \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of the distance DA on 2nd line and post a green flag at X . Preeti runs \(\frac{1}{5}\)th of the distance DA on other line post a red flag at Y.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Treating DB as x-axis and DA as y-axis, then find the position of green flag. (1)
(B) Treating DB as x-axis and DA as y-axis, the find the position of red flag. (1)
(C) Find the distance (in complete metres) between the two flags.
OR
Find the perimeter (in complete metres) of the triangular region OXY. (2)
Answer:
(A) Radha’s distance on x-axis is 2 and on y-axis, she is at \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 100 = 25°
Green flag coordinates are (2,25)

(B) X-coordinate = 8
Y-coordinate = \(\frac{1}{5}\) × 100 = 20
Coordinates of red flag (8,20).

(C) coordinates of green flag is (2,25)
∴ coordinates of red flag is (8,20)
∴ By distance formula
Distance = \(\sqrt{\left(x_2-x_1\right)^2+\left(y_2-y_1\right)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{\left(8-2\right)^2+\left(20-25\right)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{36 + 25}\)
= \(\sqrt{61}\)
= 7.8 cm
= 8 cm (approx)
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 7 with Solutions - 23
Perimeter = OX + OY + YY
= 25.07 + 21.54 + 7.81
= 54.42
= 55 m

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

समय : 3 घंटे
पूर्णांक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

  1. इस प्रश्न पत्र में दो खंड हैं- खंड ‘अ’ और ‘ब’। कुल प्रश्न 13 हैं।
  2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
  3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों के उचित आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं।
  4. प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए दीजिए।
  5. दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
  6. यथासंभव दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमशः लिखिए।

रखण्ड ‘अ’: वस्तुपरक-प्रश्न
अपठित गद्यांश

1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनकर लिखिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

जिस समय लोकमान्य तिलक ने राजनीतिक क्षेत्र में कदम रखा उस समय पूरा देश ‘चैतन्यहीन’ और ‘स्वत्वहीन’ हो चुका था। देश के करोड़ों निवासी जंगल के सूखे पत्तों की तरह अस्त-व्यस्त थे। उनमें जीवन नहीं था, एकता नहीं थी, उनका आत्मविश्वास मर चुका था। उनके मन में यह भरा जा चुका था कि अंग्रेज़ी साम्राज्य इस देश पर सदा शासन करने वाला है। इस परिस्थिति को बदलने की आवश्यकता तिलक ने महसूस की। उन्होंने उन्हीं असंगठित पत्तों जैसे लोगों को इकट्ठा किया और उनमें राष्ट्रीय स्वातंत्र्य के लिए संकल्प जगाया। देश का बहुसंख्यक समाज परलोक को अधिक महत्त्व देता था और इस लोक के प्रति उदासीन था। इस दृष्टि को बदलकर उन्हें जीवनोन्मुख बनाया। इस कार्य के लिए उन्होंने भगवद्गीता को नया अर्थ दिया और कर्मयोग के सिद्धान्त को लोगों के सामने रखा जो राष्ट्रीय पुनर्जागरण के कार्य में बड़ा ही महत्त्वपूर्ण और प्रेरणादायक सिद्ध हुआ। तब हालत कुछ ऐसी थी कि अपने समाज के दोष दिखाने और पाश्चात्य समाज, जीवन, विचार और कृतित्व का गुणगान करने में ही हमारे पढ़े-लिखे विचारक गौरव महसूस करते थे। भारत के बहुसंख्यक समाज की धर्म-प्रणाली, रीति-रिवाज, समाज-व्यवस्था सभी उनकी दृष्टि में हेय थी। तिलक ने इस बात को समझा और अपने समाज, धर्म और इतिहास के प्रति लोगों का अभिमान जगाया। इसी के साथ उन्होंने समाज के विभिन्न गुटों के मध्य उत्पन्न हुए विरोधों को दूर कर राष्ट्रीयता की भावना को पैदा किया और राष्ट्रीयता की भावना से ही पूर्ण स्वराज्य की माँग का उदय हुआ जिसका प्रेरक वाक्य था-“स्वतंत्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार

(i) गद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक होगा
(क) तिलक का जीवन परिचय
(ख) स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन में तिलक का योगदान
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(ख) स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन में तिलक का योगदान

(ii) तिलक की राष्ट्रीयता की भावना किस रूप में प्रतिफलित हुई?
(क) स्वराज्य की माँग के
(ख) पाकिस्तान की माँग के
(ग) इंग्लैण्ड की माँग के
(घ) सभी
उत्तर:
(क) स्वराज्य की माँग के

व्याख्या : तिलक द्वारा समाज में जगाई गई राष्ट्रीयता की भावना ही पूर्ण स्वराज्य की माँग के रूप में प्रतिफलित हुई।

(iii) ‘चैतन्यहीन’ से क्या तात्पर्य है?
(क) चेतना विहीन
(ख) आत्मविश्वास परिपूर्ण
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) चेतना विहीन

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

(iv) भारतीयों की तुलना किससे की है?
(क) गीले पत्ते
(ख) सूखे पत्ते
(ग) मिट्टी
(घ) पेड़
उत्तर:
(ख) सूखे पत्ते

व्याख्या : भारतीयों की तुलना सूखे पत्ते से इसलिए की गई है क्योंकि उसमें जीवन का रस नहीं था।

(v) भारतीय पढ़े-लिखे विचारकों की दृष्टि में हेय क्या था?
(क) रीति-रिवाज़
(ख) समाज-व्यवस्था
(ग) धर्म-प्रणाली
(घ) सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) सभी

(vi) तिलक ने लोगों में कैसा स्वाभिमान जाग्रत किया?
(क) राष्ट्रीय
(ख) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) राष्ट्रीय

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) देशवासियों के मन में यह बस चुका था कि अंग्रेज़ सदा के लिए शासन करने वाले हैं।
(II) देशवासियों के मन में यह बस चुका था कि अंग्रेज़ सदा के लिए शासन नहीं करने वाले हैं।
(III) अंग्रेज़ सदा से भारतीयों की मदद करते आए हैं।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है। हैं?
(क) केवल II
(ख) केवल III
(ग) केवल I
(घ) I और IIII
उत्तर:
(ग) केवल I

(viii) किसके द्वारा राष्ट्रीय पुनर्जागरण का कार्य किया गया?
(क) जीवनोन्मुख दृष्टि
(ख) कर्मयोग के सिद्धान्त
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) जीवनोन्मुख दृष्टि

व्याख्या : स्वतन्त्रता पाने में प्रेरक वाक्य बना “स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्म सिद्ध अधिकार है।”

(ix) प्रेरक वाक्य क्या था?
(क) स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।
(ख) स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार नहीं है।
(ग) स्वराज की माँग हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार नहीं है।
(घ) बेड़ियों में रहना हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।
उत्तर:
(क) स्वतन्त्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।

(x) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): सामाजिक सौहार्द्र के लिए विभन्न गुटों में बँटे भारतीय समाज के अन्तर्विरोधों को दूर किया।
कारण (R): जिससे पूर्ण स्वराज की माँग का उदय हुआ।
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
(ग) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) गलत है।
(घ) कथन (A) गलत है तथा कारण (R) सही है।
उत्तर:
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

2. निम्नलिखित पद्यांशों में से किसी एक पद्यांश से संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प-चयन द्वारा दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

मन-दीपक निष्कंप जलो रे !
सागर की उत्ताल तरंगें,
आसमान को छू-छू जाएँ
डोल उठे डगमग भूमंडल

अग्निमुखी ज्वाला बरसाए
धूमकेतु बिजली की द्युति से,
धरती का अंतर हिल जाए

फिर भी तुम जहरीले फन को
कालजयी बन उसे दलो रे !

कदम-कदम पर पत्थर, काँटे
पैरों को छलनी कर जाएँ।
श्रांत-क्लांत करने को आतुर
क्षण-क्षण में जग की बाधाएँ
मरण गीत आकर गा जाएँ
दिवस-रात, आपद-विपदाएँ

फिर भी तुम हिमपात तपन में
बिना आह चुपचाप जलो रे !

(i) कवि ने बाधाओं को दूर करने हेतु क्या बनने को कहा है ?
(क) देवता
(ख) कालजयी
(ग) दीपक
(घ) जहरीला नाग
उत्तर:
(ख) कालजयी

व्याख्या : कवि बाधाओं को दूर करने हेतु कालजयी बनने को कहता है। जो बाधाओं से डरे नहीं, मरे नहीं बल्कि मृत्यु को भी जीत ले।

(ii) बाधाओं को किसकी उपमा दी है ?
(क) पत्थर और काँटे की।
(ख) फूल और कलियों की।
(ग) दीपक और बाती की।
(घ) जीवन और मृत्यु की।
उत्तर:
(क) पत्थर और काँटे की।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

(iii) कवि मानव मन को क्या करने को कहता है ?
(क) प्रतिशोध लेने को।
(ख) यादों के भंवर में न भटकने को।
(ग) निडर रहने को।
(घ) धर्मयुद्ध करने को।
उत्तर:
(ग) निडर रहने को।

(iv) कवि ने कविता में किसे संबोधित किया है ?
(क) दीपरूपी मन।
(ख) कमलरूपी मन।
(ग) सूर्यरूपी मन।
(घ) फनरूपी मन।
उत्तर:
(क) दीपरूपी मन।

(v) ‘क्षण-क्षणं, छू-छू, कदम-कदम’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है?
(क) उपमा।
(ख) मानवीकरण।
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश।
(घ) अन्योक्ति।
उत्तर:
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश।

अथवा

मैंने गढ़े
ताकत और उत्साह से
भरे-भरे
कुछ शब्द
जिन्हें छीन लिया मठाधीशों ने
दे दिया उन्हें धर्म का झंडा
उन्मादी हो गए
मेरे शब्द
तलवार लेकर
मिटाने लगे
अपना ही वजूद
फिर रचे मैंने
इंसानियत से लबरेज
ढेर सारे शब्द
अबकी उन्हें अगवा कर लिया
सफेदपोश लुटेरों ने
और दबा दिया उन्हें
कुर्सी के पाये तले
असहनीय दर्द से चीख रहे हैं
मेरे शब्द और वे
कर रहे हैं अट्टहास
अब मैं गढूँगी
बोऊँगी उन्हें
निराई गुड़ाई और
खाद-पानी से
लहलहा उठेगी फ़सल
तब कोई मठाधीश
कोई लुटेरा
नहीं छीन पाएगा उन्हें
छीनने की कोशिश में भी
गिर ही जाएँगे कुछ दाने
और समय आने पर
फिर उगेंगे वे
एक बार
दो बार
बार-बार
लगातार उगेंगे
मेरे शब्द

(i) मठाधीशों ने उत्साह भरे शब्दों को क्यों छीना ?
(क) धार्मिक उन्माद जगाने के लिए
(ख) धर्म से दूर करने के लिए
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) धार्मिक उन्माद जगाने के लिए

व्याख्या : धार्मिक उन्याद लोगों में जगाने के लिए मठाधीशों ने उत्साह भरे शब्दों को छीन लिया।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

(ii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) तलवार शब्द आत्मघात की ओर संकेत करता है।
(II) तलवार शब्द सुरक्षा की ओर संकेत करता है।
(III) तलवार शब्द निष्क्रिय की ओर संकेत करता है।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल II
(ख) केवल I
(ग) केवल III
(घ) I और III
उत्तर:
(ख) केवल I

(iii) कवयित्री किस उम्मीद से शब्दों को बो रही है?
(क) सही अर्थ प्राप्त करने की
(ख) अलग अर्थ प्राप्त करने की
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) सही अर्थ प्राप्त करने की

(iv) पंक्तियों में ‘वे’ शब्द किसके लिए प्रयुक्त हुआ है?
(क) राष्ट्रपति
(ख) जनता
(ग) नेताओं
(घ) किसान
उत्तर:
(ग) नेताओं

(v) कवि बाधाओं को दूर करने हेतु क्या बनने के लिए कहता है?
(क) सक्रिय
(ख) कालजयी
(ग) साधारण मनुष्य
(घ) राष्ट्रपति
उत्तर:
(ख) कालजयी

3. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) भुगतान के आधार पर काम करने वाले पत्रकार कहलाते हैं ?
(क) फ्रीलांसर
(ख) वॉचडॉग
(ग) बीट
(घ) संपादक
उत्तर:
(क) फ्रीलांसर

व्याख्या : फ्रीलांसर पत्रकार भुगतान के आधार पर अलग-अलग अख़बारों के लिए लिखते हैं।

(ii) समाचार के प्रारम्भिक अंश को क्या कहते हैं ?
(क) इन्ट्रो
(ख) बॉडी
(ग) ककार
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) इन्ट्रो

व्याख्या : समाचार के विस्तृत तत्त्वों को घटते क्रम में लिखना बॉडी कहलाता है तथा समाचार का प्रारंभ-भाग इन्ट्रो/मुखड़ा कहलाता है। इसे उल्टा पिरामिड शैली कहते हैं।

(iii) निम्न में से प्रिंट मीडिया का माध्यम है-
(क) टेलीविज़न
(ख) रेडियो
(ग) सिनेमा
(घ) समाचार-पत्र
उत्तर:
(घ) समाचार-पत्र

व्याख्या : प्रिंट मीडिया/मुद्रित माध्यम जनसंचार के आधुनिक माध्यमों में से सबसे पुराना माध्यम है। वास्तव में आधुनिक युग की शुरुआत ही मुद्रण के आविष्कार से हुई।

(iv) कॉलम ‘क’ का कॉलम ‘ख’ से उचित मिलान कीजिए-

कॉलम ‘क’ कॉलम ‘ख’
(i) सिनेमा (i) दृश्य माध्यम
(ii) समाचार पत्र (ii) प्रिंट माध्यम
(iii) ऑल इंडिया रेडियो की स्थापना (iii) मार्थोनी
(iv) रेडियो का आविष्कार (iv) 1936

(क) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(ख) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(ग) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(घ) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
उत्तर:
(ग) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(v) ऑल इंडिया रेडियो वर्तमान में किस संस्था के अंतर्गत है ?
(क) प्रसार भारती
(ख) भारतीय टेलीकॉम
(ग) डी. डी. नेशनल
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) प्रसार भारती

व्याख्या : सन् 1997 में आकाशवाणी को केन्द्र सरकार के सीधे नियंत्रण से निकालकर प्रसार भारती नाम के स्वायत्तशासी निकाय को सौंप दिया गया।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

4. निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

जन्म से ही वे अपने साथ लाते हैं कपास
पृथ्वी घूमती हुई आती है उनके बेचैन पैरों के पास
जब वे दौड़ते हैं बेसुध
छतों को भी नरम बनाते हुए
दिशाओं को मृदंग की तरह बजाते हुए
जब वे पेंग भरते हुए चले जाते हैं
डाल की तरह लचीले वेग से अकसर
छतों के खतरनाक किनारों तक
उस समय गिरने से बचाता है उन्हें
सिर्फ उनके ही रोमांचित शरीर का संगीत
पतंगों की धड़कती ऊँचाइयाँ उन्हें थाम लेती हैं महज़ एक धागे के सहारे
पतंगों के साथ-साथ वे भी उड़ रहे हैं
अपने रंध्रों के सहारे
अगर वे कभी गिरते हैं छतों के खतरनाक किनारों से
और भी निडर होकर सुनहले सूरज के सामने आते हैं
पृथ्वी और भी तेज़ घूमती हुई आती है
उनके बेचैन पैरों के पास।

(i) पद्यांश में ‘वे’ और ‘उनके’ सर्वनाम शब्द किनके लिए प्रयुक्त हुए हैं?
(क) स्त्रियों के लिए
(ख) बच्चों के लिए
(ग) पुरुषों के लिए
(घ) बूढ़ों के लिए।
उत्तर:
(ख) बच्चों के लिए

व्याख्या : पद्यांश में ‘वे’ और ‘उनके’ सर्वनाम शब्द पतंग उड़ाने वाले बच्चों के लिए प्रयुक्त हुए हैं।

(ii) ‘जन्म से ही वे अपने साथ लाते हैं कपास’ पंक्ति का आशय है-
(क) बच्चे के जन्म पर कपास का उपहार दिया जाता है
(ख) बच्चे कपास की तरह सफ़ेद होते हैं
(ग) जन्म से ही बच्चे कपास जैसी कोमल भावनाएँ और लचीला शरीर लेकर आते हैं
(घ) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(ग) जन्म से ही बच्चे कपास जैसी कोमल भावनाएँ और लचीला शरीर लेकर आते हैं

व्याख्या : बच्चे जब जन्म लेते हैं तब वे बहुत ही सुकोमल होते हैं। उनमें कोमल भावनाएँ होती हैं व लचीला शरीर होता है जैसे- कि कपास कोमल, मुलायम व लचीली होती है।

(iii) ‘दौड़ते हैं बेसुध’ पंक्ति के अनुसार बच्चों की बेसुधी के उदाहरण हैं
(क) वे दौड़ते-दौड़ते सो जाते हैं
(ख) वे सो नहीं पाते, अतः नींद में ही दौड़ते रहते हैं
(ग) वे जैसे ही बेसुध होते हैं, दौड़ना शुरू कर देते हैं
(घ) कटी पतंग को लूटने के लिए वे छतों पर बेसुध होकर दौड़ते हैं। वे छतों के खतरनाक किनारों पर भी बेसुध होकर दौड़ने लगते हैं।
उत्तर:
(घ) कटी पतंग को लूटने के लिए वे छतों पर बेसुध होकर दौड़ते हैं। वे छतों के खतरनाक किनारों पर भी बेसुध होकर दौड़ने लगते हैं।

व्याख्या : बच्चे जब पतंग उड़ा रहे होते हैं तब वे अपनी चिंता ही छोड़ देते हैं। वे बेसुध होकर कटी पतंग को लूटने के लिए दौड़ पड़ते हैं चाहे वह छत हो या छत का किनारा, जहाँ से गिरने का भय भी रहता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

(iv) अलंकार की दृष्टि से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है?
(क) धागे के सहारे – उपमा अलंकार
(ख) पैरों के पास – अनुप्रास अलंकार
(ग) और भी निडर होकर – पुनरुक्ति अलंकार
(घ) उस समय गिरने से – छेकांनुप्रास अलंकार
उत्तर:
(ख) पैरों के पास – अनुप्रास अलंकार

(v) छतों के किनारों से उन्हें गिरने से कौन बचाता है?
(क) बच्चों की मदमस्त गतिविधियाँ
(ख) उनकी रोमांचकारी अनुभूतियाँ
(ग) उनकी बेखौफ़ एवं रोमांचक निश्चिन्तता
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।

व्याख्या :बच्चों की गतिविधियाँ बहुत मदमस्त होती हैं। उनके लिए कटी पतंग पकड़ने के लिए दौड़ना रोमांचकारी अनुभूति होती है। वे गिरने के डर से बेखौफ़ रहते हैं। उन्हें केवल रोमांचक निश्चिन्तता रहती है। उनकी ये सभी गतिविधियाँ और उनकी निडरता उन्हें छतों के किनारे से गिरने से बचाती हैं।

5. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

फिर जीजी बोली, “देख, तू तो अभी से पढ़-लिख गया है। मैंने तो गाँव के मदरसे का भी मुँह नहीं देखा। पर एक बात देखी है कि अगर तीस-चालीस मन गेहूँ उगाना है तो किसान पाँच-छह सेर अच्छा गेहूँ अपने पास से लेकर ज़मीन में क्यारियाँ बना कर फेंक देता है। उसे बुवाई कहते हैं। यह जो सूखे में हम अपने घर का पानी इन पर फेंकते हैं; वह भी बुवाई है। यह पानी गली में बोएँगे तो सारे शहर, कस्बा, गाँव पर पानी वाले बादलों की फ़सल आ जाएगी। हम बीज बनाकर पानी देते हैं, फिर काले मेघों से पानी माँगते हैं। सब ऋषि-मुनि कह गए हैं कि पहले खुद दो तब देवता तुम्हें चौगुना-अठगुना करके लौटाएँगे। भइया, यह तो हर आदमी का आचरण है, जिससे सबका आचरण बनता है। यथा राजा तथा प्रजा सिर्फ यही सच नहीं है। सच यह भी है कि यथा प्रजा तथा राजा। यही तो गांधी जी महाराज कहते हैं।”

(i) बुवाई के लिए किसान किस प्रकार से श्रम करता है ?
(क) ज़मीन की निराई, गुड़ाई करना
(ख) हल चलाना व क्यारियाँ बनाना
(ग) बीज बोना
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।

व्याख्या : किसान ज़मीन की निराई, गुड़ाई करता है, बीज़ बोता है और हल चलाकर क्यारियाँ बनाकर परिश्रम द्वारा बुवाई करता है।

(ii) त्याग की महत्ता को किसने बताया था ?
(क) ऋषि-मुनियों ने
(ख) इंदर सेना ने
(ग) लेखक ने
उत्तर:
(क) ऋषि-मुनियों ने

व्याख्या : ऋषि-मुनियों का कहना है कि मनुष्य को पहले स्वयं त्यागपूर्वक दान करना चाहिए तभी उसे उसका गुना मिलता है।

(iii) इंदर सेना पर पानी फेंकना जीजी के अनुसार क्या है ?
(क) पानी की बर्बादी
(ख) पानी की बुवाई
(ग) अंधविश्वास
(घ) पानी का विसर्जन।
उत्तर:
(ख) पानी की बुवाई

व्याख्या : जीजी के अनुसार काले मेघों से वर्षा पाने के लिए इंदर सेना पर पानी फेंकना मानो पानी की बुवाई है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

(iv) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): जीजी ने अपने आचरण संबंधी बात के समर्थन में गांधी जी का नाम लिया।
कारण (R): क्योंकि गाँधी-जी सत्य का समर्थन करते थे।
(क) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) गलत है।
(ख) कथन (A) गलत है तथा कारण (R) सही है।
(ग) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(घ) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
उत्तर:
(ग) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।

व्याख्या : जीजी आचरण को बहुत महत्त्व देती थी। राजा और प्रजा दोनों का आचरण मानवीय मूल्यों के अनुसार होना चाहिए। गांधीजी भी यही कहते थे कि उनका स्वयं का आचरण सत्य व त्याग पर आधारित था। वे सादगी भरा जीवन व्यतीत करते थे और अहिंसा के रास्ते पर चलते थे।

(v) गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) जीजी किसान के उदाहरण द्वारा यह सिद्ध करना चाहती है कि इंदर सेना पर जल समर्पित करना होगा।
(II) जीजी किसान के उदाहरण द्वारा यह सिद्ध करना चाहती है कि खेती के लिए हल आवश्यक है।
(III) खेती का कार्य वर्षा पर पूरी तरह निर्भर होता है।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल II
(ग) केवल III
(घ) I और III
उत्तर:
(क) केवल I

व्याख्या : जीजी किसान के उदाहरण द्वारा यह बताना चाहती है कि जिस प्रकार किसान बुआई करके फ़सल उगाता है उसी प्रकार इंदर सेना पर जल डालना भी वर्षा के लिए बुवाई होती है।

6. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर हेतु निर्देशानुसार सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

(i) लेखक ने अपनी पढ़ाई के सम्बन्ध में किसकी सहायता लेने का सुझाव दिया ?
(क) दादा की
(ख) सौंदलगेकर की
(ग) ताऊ की
(घ) दत्ता जी राव की
उत्तर:
(घ) दत्ता जी राव की

व्याख्या : पूरे गाँव में दत्ता जी राव का अत्यधिक मान- सम्मान था। लेखक के पिता भी उनकी बात को ठुकरा नहीं सकते थे अतः लेखक ने अपनी पढ़ाई के सम्बन्ध में दत्ताजी राव की सहायता लेना उचित समझा।

(ii) लेखक का पिता अपना पूरा दिन कहाँ व्यतीत करता था ?
(क) खेतों में
(ख) घर पर
(ग) रखमाबाई के पास
(घ) पाठशाला में
उत्तर:
(ग) रखमाबाई के पास

व्याख्या : लेखक का पिता ऐशो-आराम और मस्ती से रहने वाला व्यक्ति था। वह खेतों में काम नहीं करना चाहता था और आज़ादी से घूमना चाहता था। इसी ऐशो-आराम और मस्ती के लिए वह अपना पूरा दिन रखमाबाई के पास व्यतीत करता था।

(iii) लेखक के पिता के लिए किसका बुलावा सम्मानीय बात थी?
(क) देसाई का
(ख) गणपा का
(ग) सौंदलगेकर का
(घ) बोरकर का
उत्तर:
(क) देसाई का

व्याख्या : लेखक के पिता दत्ता जी राव देसाई को बहुत मानते थे। वे उनकी प्रत्येक बात भी मानते थे। उसके लिए देसाई का बुलावा आना सम्मान की बात थी।

(iv) यशोधर बाबू का चड्ढा के संबंध में क्या विचार था?
(क) अद्भुत
(ख) बदतमीज़
(ग) कामचोर
(घ) समहाउ इंप्रापर चड्ढा
उत्तर:
(घ) समहाउ इंप्रापर चड्ढा

व्याख्या : चड्ढ़ा ने यशोधर बाबू के साथ बद्तमीज़ी की थी और उसकी चौड़ी मोहरी वाली पतलून और ऊँची एड़ी वाले जूते देखकर भी चड्ढ़ा उन्हें समहाउ इंप्रापर लग रहा था।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

(v) यशोधर बाबू की कलाई घड़ी का क्या कहकर मज़ाक उड़ाता था ?
(क) चूनेदानी
(ख) चूहेदानी
(ग) माचिस की डिबिया
(घ) खटारा
उत्तर:
(ख) चूहेदानी

व्याख्या : यशोधर बाबू ने जब ऑफिस के लोगों को ऑफिस की घड़ी की तरह सुस्त बताया, तो चड्ढ़ा ने भी यशोधर बाबू की घड़ी को चूनेदानी’ कहकर उनकी घड़ी का मज़ाक उड़ाया।

(vi) किशन दा ने यशोधर बाबू को कितने रुपए उधार देकर मदद की थी ?
(क) ₹ 20
(ख) ₹ 50
(ग) ₹ 100
(घ) ₹ 150
उत्तर:
(ख) ₹ 50

व्याख्या : किशन दा ने यशोधर बाबू को, ₹ 50 उधार देकर मदद की थी।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 6 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
(II) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 8 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
(III) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 9 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
(IV) यशोधर बाबू की शादी 10 फरवरी 1947 में हुई थी।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) I और IV
(ख) केवल I
(ग) केवल II
(घ) केवल IV
उत्तर:
(ख) केवल I

व्याख्या : यशोधर बाबू की शादी 6 फरवरी, 1947 में हुई थी।

(viii) कुंड की सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण विशेषता है-
(क) इसका विशाल आकार
(ख) कुंड के नीचे उतरती सीढ़ियाँ
(ग) पक्की ईंटों का जमाव
(घ) तीन तरफ़ बने साधुओं के कक्ष
उत्तर:
(ग) पक्की ईंटों का जमाव

व्याख्या : महाकुंड को चूने और गारे का इस्तेमाल कर ईंटों से पक्का बनाया गया है जिससे अंदर का पानी बाहर और बाहर का अशुद्ध पानी अंदर नहीं आ सकता। इसका पानी बाहर निकालने के लिए भी ईंटों से ढकी पक्की नालियाँ बनी हैं।

(ix) विशाल कोठार किस प्रयोग में लाया जाता था ?
(क) सेना के अस्त्र-शस्त्र रखने के
(ख) कर के रूप में प्राप्त अनाज रखने के
(ग) तीर्थयात्रियों व साधुओं के ठहरने के
(घ) लगान के हिसाब-किताब के बहीखाते रखने के
उत्तर:
(ख) कर के रूप में प्राप्त अनाज रखने के

व्याख्या : महाकुंड के दूसरी तरफ़ बना नौ-नौ की तीन कतारें, हवादारी और चौकियों को देख प्रबंधकों ने इस विशाल कोठार का उपयोग कर के रूप में मिले अनाज का संग्रहण करना माना है।

(x) फसलों की ढुलाई किसके द्वारा की जाती थी ?
(क) बैलगाड़ी के
(ख) हथठेला के
(ग) सिर पर रखकर
(घ) ऊँटों के
उत्तर:
(क) बैलगाड़ी के

व्याख्या : फसलों की ढुलाई बैलगाड़ी द्वारा की जाती थी।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

रखण्ड ‘ब’ : वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

7. दिए गए चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए- (6 × 1 = 6)

(क) कम्प्यूटर : मेरे जीवन में
(ख) भारत की सामाजिक समस्याएँ
(ग) स्वाभिमान चाहिए, अभिमान नहीं
(घ) विकास के लिए शिक्षा आवश्यक
उत्तर:
(क) कम्प्यूटर : मेरे जीवन में

कम्प्यूटर आधुनिक विज्ञान का अद्भुत करिश्मा है जिसने सारे विश्व को अपने आकर्षण में जकड़ लिया है। कोई वैज्ञानिक प्रतिष्ठान हो या औद्योगिक प्रतिष्ठान, बैंक हो या बीमा निगम, रेलवे स्टेशन हो या बस डिपों हर जगह इसका बोलबाला है। यही स्कूल-कॉलेजों में विद्यार्थियों की रुचि का केन्द्र है। सबकी तरह मैं भी कम्प्यूटर के प्रभाव से अछूता नहीं हूँ। कम्प्यूटर ने मेरे जीवन को जहाँ रफ्तार दी है वहीं इसे आरामदायक भी बना दिया है। शिक्षा से सम्बन्धित कैसी भी जानकारी प्राप्त करना बहुत सरल हो गया है।

परिवार, रिश्तेदारों, मित्रों आदि से सम्पर्क बनाए रखना हो या बिजली, टेलीफोन आदि के बिल जमा करने हों, तो कम्प्यूटर के द्वारा घर बैठे जमा कर सकते हैं। कम्प्यूटर के कारण भारी-भरकम पुस्तकों को रखने, सँभालने और उन्हें उलटने-पुलटने की आवश्यकता खत्म होती जा रही है। इंटरनेट ने सारे विश्व को एक पाठशाला में बदल देने की शक्ति दिखा दी है। कम्प्यूटर के कारण मैं किसी भी प्रकार की लम्बी से लम्बी गणना बिना किसी त्रुटि के कुछ ही पलों में कर लेता हूँ। जब कभी थक जाता हूँ या बोरियत महसूस करता हूँ तो कम्प्यूटर पर चलचित्र देख लेता हूँ या मनपसंद गाने सुन लेता हूँ। इससे अकेलेपन का एहसास भी नहीं होता। घर से दूर परदेस में यह एक सच्चे मित्र की भाँति मेरा साथ देता है।

परिवार को पैसे भेजने का कार्य भी कम्प्यूटर सुगमता से कर देता है। घर जाने के लिए रेल का टिकट कराना हो या हवाई जहाज का, कम्प्यूटर के द्वारा सुविधापूर्वक किया जा सकता है। वस्तुतः आज के समय में कम्प्यूटर हमारे घर के एक सदस्य की तरह हमारा साथ निभा रहा है।

(ख) भारत की सामाजिक समस्याएँ

मेरा भारत एक विशाल देश है जहाँ विभिन्न धर्मों, जातियों व वेश-भूषाओं को धारण करने वाले लोग निवास करते हैं। दूसरे शब्दों में अनेकता में एकता हमारी पहचान और हमारा गौरव है परन्तु अनेकता अनेक समस्याओं की जननी भी है। प्रायः जाति, भाषा, रहन-सहन व धार्मिक विभिन्नताओं के बीच सामंजस्य रखना दुष्कर हो जाता है। विभिन्न धर्मों व सम्प्रदायों के लोगों की विचारधाराएँ भी भिन्न-भिन्न होती हैं।

देश में व्याप्त प्रांतीयता, भाषावाद, सम्प्रदायवाद या जातिवाद इन्हीं विभिन्नताओं का दुष्परिणाम है। इसके चलते आज देश के लगभग सभी राज्यों से दंगे-फसाद, मारकाट, लूट-खसोट आदि के समाचार प्रायः सुनने व पढ़ने को मिलते हैं। नारी के प्रति अत्याचार, दुराचार तथा बलात्कार का प्रयास हमारे समाज की एक शर्मनाक समस्या है। केवल अशिक्षित ही नहीं अपितु हमारे कथित सभ्य-शिक्षित समाज में भी दहेज का ज़हर व्याप्त है। अंधविश्वास व रूढ़िवादिता हमारे देश के नवयुवकों को भाग्यवादिता की ओर ले जाती है फलस्वरूप वे कर्महीन हो जाते हैं। भ्रष्टाचार भी हमारे देश में एक जटिल समस्या का रूप ले चुका है।

भ्रष्टाचार के परिणामस्वरूप देश में महँगाई और कालाबाजारी के ज़हर का स्वच्छंद रूप से विस्तार हो रहा है। जातिवाद की जड़ें समाज में बहुत गहरी हो चुकी हैं। ये समस्याएँ आज की नहीं हैं अपितु सदियों से पनप रही हैं। इसके परिणामस्वरूप पनपी सामाजिक विषमता देश के विकास में बाधक हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त देश में फैली अशिक्षा और निर्धनता जैसी सामाजिक समस्याओं के रहते कोई भी देश वास्तविक रूप में विकास नही कर सकता।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

(ग) स्वाभिमान चाहिए, अभिमान नहीं

स्वाभिमान और अभिमान ये दोनों मनुष्य के चरित्र को परिभाषित करते हैं। जहाँ स्वाभिमान उसके उच्च व्यक्तित्व का उदात्त अंग कहलाता है वहीं अभिमान उसके पतन का कारण बनता है। स्वाभिमान मनुष्य का गुण बन जाता है और अभिमान उसका अवगुण कहलाता है। स्वाभिमान ही प्रत्येक मनुष्य का आभूषण है। यह हर व्यक्ति के अंतस में विद्यमान उसका प्रिय मित्र होता है।

स्वाभिमान रूपी पूँजी जिसके पास नहीं होती वह मृतप्राय होता है। उसे हर कोई रौंदता हुआ आगे बढ़ जाता है। इसी प्रकार जिस देश के लोगों में स्वाभिमान का भाव नहीं होता, उस राष्ट्र को कोई भी शत्रु-देश आक्रमण करके सरलता से अपने अधीन कर लेता है। इसके विपरीत अभिमान मनुष्य का वह अवगुण है जो व्यक्ति के सिर चढ़कर बोलता है। यह मनुष्य का सबसे बड़ा शत्रु है। मनीषियों का कथन है कि अहंकारी कितने भी ऊँचे बोल क्यों न बोल ले उसका अंत हमेशा बुरा ही होता है।

स्वाभिमानी मनुष्य मृत्यु तुल्य कष्टों का भी हँसकर सामना कर लेते हैं। वे अपने स्वाभिमान का सौदा कभी भी किसी भी मूल्य पर नहीं करते। ऐसे स्वाभिमानियों से तो बड़े-बड़े साम्राज्य भी थर-थर काँपते हैं। वे जानते हैं कि ऐसे लोग अपने लिए कभी समझौता नहीं करते। वहीं अभिमानी लोग खुद तो डूबते ही हैं अपने साथियों को भी डुबाने का अपराध करते हैं। वे इस तथ्य को भूल जाते हैं “घमंडी का सिर नीचा।” अभिमानी का अन्त सदैव बुरा होता है जैसे रावण और हिरण्यकश्यप जैसे अभिमानियों का हुआ अतः हमें स्वाभिमानी बनना चाहिए, अभिमानी नहीं। मैं भी ऐसा ही स्वाभिमानी बनूँगा।

(घ) विकास के लिए शिक्षा आवश्यक

शिक्षा अपने चारों ओर की चीज़ों को सीखने की प्रक्रिया है मैं यह जानता हूँ कि यह हमें किसी भी वस्तु या परिस्थिति को आसानी से समझने, किसी भी समस्या से निपटने और जीवन भर विभिन्न आयामों में संतुलन बनाए रखने में मदद करती है। शिक्षा के बिना हम अधूरे हैं और हमारा जीवन बेकार है, शिक्षा के बिना मनुष्य अपना विकास नहीं कर सकता है।

शिक्षा से मनुष्य का बौद्धिक विकास होता है जिसके बल पर वह आत्मनिर्भर बन अपना आर्थिक विकास कर सकता है। किसी भी देश या जाति के विकास के लिए भी शिक्षा उतनी ही आवश्यक है जितनी मानव के व्यक्तिगत विकास के लिए इसीलिए हमारे देश में ‘पढ़े इंडिया, बढ़े इंडिया’ जैसे-शिक्षा कार्यक्रमों को आगे बढ़ाया जा रहा है। यह सामाजिक विकास, आर्थिक समृद्धि और तकनीकी उन्नति का सही रास्ता है। शिक्षा वैज्ञानिकों की, शोधकार्यों में; यांत्रिक मशीनों आधुनिक जीवन के आवश्यक अन्य तकनीकियों के आविष्कार में सहायता करती है। यह समाज में सामान्य संस्कृति और मूल्यों को विकसित करती है। इस तरह देश शिक्षा के द्वारा अपने चहुँमुखी विकास की ओर अग्रसर होता है।

8. किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) कहानी-कला की ऐतिहासिक पृष्ठभूमि पर प्रकाश डालिए।
उत्तर:
कहानी का इतिहास मानव इतिहास जितना ही पुराना माना जाना चाहिए क्योंकि कहानी मानवीय प्रकृति जन्य है। पहले युद्ध, प्रेम, प्रतिशोध के किस्से, फिर कल्पनात्मक कहानियाँ और फिर जो उसे प्रिय लगा, उसके किस्से सुनाए जाते थे। धीरे-धीरे वीरता के बलिदानों और त्याग, तपस्या के किस्से भी सुनाए गए जिससे व्यक्तियों में साहस के साथ-साथ मानवीय मूल्य बने रहें। परियों की कहानियाँ, भूत-प्रेतों की डरावनी कहानियाँ, राजा-रानी की कहानियाँ, साधारण जीवन से जुड़ी आम आदमी की कहानियाँ आदि रोचक कहानियों से शुरू हुईं और वर्तमान में सामाजिक विसंगतियों पर प्रहार करती कहानियाँ रची जाने लगीं। शिक्षा देने के लिए कहानी विधा का प्रयोग किया गया और ‘पंचतंत्र’ की कहानियाँ लिखी गईं। धीरे-धीरे कहानी के साथ उद्देश्य का सम्मिश्रण हो गया जो कि उत्तरोत्तर विकसित होता गया।

(ख) रेडियो नाटक किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
रेडियो संचार का एक साधन है जिसके माध्यम से किसी भी संदेश को एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर पहुँचा सकते हैं लेकिन केवल आवाज़ के माध्यम से इसीलिए इसे दूरभाष यंत्र भी कहते हैं। रेडियो-नाटक एक श्रव्य-माध्यम है। इसका रंगमंच एक तरह का अंधकार ही है क्योंकि ये हमें दिखाई नहीं देता, केवल सुनाई देता है। दर्शक सुने जा रहे संवादों से अपनी कल्पना में दृश्यों की रचना कर लेता है। रेडियो-नाटक शब्दों व माइक के सहारे प्रस्तुत किया जाता है। इसका समय निर्धारित होता है। इस पर देश, काल व स्थान का बँधन नहीं होता।

(ग) नाटक की विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
नाटक की विशेषताएँ निम्नलिखित हैं-
(i) नाटक एक ऐसी गद्य विधा है, जिसका मंच पर अभिनय किया जाता है।
(ii) नाटक का सम्बन्ध लेखक, निर्देशक, दर्शक तथा श्रोताओं से होता है।
(iii) नाटक का मंच पर अभिनय किया जाता है।
(iv) ‘नाटक’ को दृश्यों के आधार पर विभाजित किया जाता है।
(v) नाटक में मंच सज्जा संगीत तथा प्रकाश व्यवस्था का विशेष महत्त्व होता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

9. निम्नलिखित तीन में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 80 शब्दों में लिखिए- (4 × 2 = 8)

(क) साइबर पत्रकारिता क्या है?
उत्तर:
साइबर पत्रकारिता का अभिप्राय उस पत्रकारिता से है जो मोबाइल, कंप्यूटर, इंटरनेट पर खबरें देती है। आज तमाम वेबसाइटें इस प्रकार की हैं जो प्रमुख समाचार भी उपलब्ध कराती हैं। फिल्म, खेल, व्यापार जगत के साथ-साथ अंतर्राष्ट्रीय घटनाचक्र की ताजा-तरीन जानकारी इन वेबसाइटों पर उपलब्ध होती हैं। साइबर मीडिया में ग्राफिक्स, ऑडियो-विडियो, चित्र आदि सभी का प्रयोग होता है। साइबर मीडिया अर्थात् मल्टी मीडिया कई संचार माध्यमों से युक्त होता है। यह दर्शकों या पाठकों की रूचि को कम नहीं करता बल्कि बढ़ाता है जिसके कारण वे इससे दूर नहीं जा पाते।

(ख) बीट रिपोर्टिंग और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
बीट रिपोर्टिंग का आशय किसी विशेष क्षेत्र से संबंधित नए तथ्यों की आरम्भिक जानकारी देना है। इसमें कहाँ, कब, क्या, किसने किया? इसकी पर्याप्त सूचना होती है। इसकी सूचना देने वाले को बीट रिपोर्टर कहा जाता है। विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग से आशय सामान्य समाचारों के बाद विशेष क्षेत्र या विषय से जुड़ी समस्याओं का, घटनाओं का या अन्य किसी मुददे का गहराई से विवेचन करना है। विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग में घटना और घटना के महत्त्व का स्पष्टीकरण होता है तथा रक्षा, विदेश-नीति, राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा आदि को प्राथमिकता दी जाती है।

(ग) हर सूचना समाचार नहीं होती। ऐसा क्यों?
उत्तर:
हर सूचना समाचार इसलिए नहीं होती, क्योंकि समाचार किसी भी ऐसी ताज़ा घटना, विचार या समस्या की रिपोर्ट होती है, जिसमें अधिक-से-अधिक लोगों की रुचि होती है और इसका प्रभाव भी अधिक-से-अधिक लोगों पर पड़ता है। समाचारों में तथ्यों की शुद्धता पर विशेष ध्यान दिया जाता है। इन तथ्यों को बिना तोड़े-मरोड़े प्रस्तुत किया जाता है। हमें समाचार माध्यमों से महत्त्वपूर्ण सूचनाएँ प्राप्त होती रहती हैं। ये सार्वजनिक महत्त्व की सूचनाएँ होती हैं। ये व्यक्तिगत नहीं होतीं। ये समसामयिक घटनाओं पर आधारित होती हैं। हमारी निजी जिंदगी पर आधारित सूचनाएँ या व्यक्तिगत महत्त्व की सूचनाएँ समाचार नहीं होती।

10. काव्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) कवि ने कविता की उड़ान और खिलने को चिड़िया और फूलों से किस तरह भिन्न बताया है?
उत्तर:
कविता कल्पना के पंखों पर चिड़िया की तरह मुक्त गगन में विचरण करती है और फूलों की भाँति खिलकर अपनी शोभा सर्वत्र फैला देती है। किन्तु कविता चिड़िया से भिन्न इसलिए है क्योंकि चिड़िया के पंखों की सामर्थ्य सीमित है, जबकि कविता की सामर्थ्य असीमित है। इसी प्रकार फूल खिलकर मुरझा जाते हैं, किन्तु कविता कभी मुरझाती नहीं उसकी शोभा सुगंध रूपी समय बीतने के साथ और भी बढ़ती जाती है।।

(ख) “कैमरे में बंद अपाहिज” करुणा के मुखौटे में छिपी क्रूरता की कविता है, इस कथन पर अपने विचार व्यक्त कीजिए।
उत्तर:
चैनलों/दूरदर्शन द्वारा अपाहिज व्यक्तियों की बेबसी को दर्शाकर करुणा पैदा करने के पीछे क्रूरतापूर्वक व्यावसायिक उद्देश्यों का संचालन (परीक्षार्थी के अन्य तर्कसंगत विचार भी स्वीकार्य)

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
कैमरे में बंद अपाहिज’ कविता करुणा के मुखौटे में छिपी क्रूरता की कविता है, क्योंकि एक शारीरिक रूप से अपाहिज, विकलांग व्यक्ति जो कि शारीरिक रूप से चुनौती को सहन कर रहा है, दूरदर्शन वाले अपने कार्यक्रम को रोचक बनाने के लिए उससे तरह-तरह के प्रश्न पूछकर, विभिन्न भाव-भंगिमाओं (संकेतों) द्वारा एक साक्षात्कार कार्यक्रम के बहाने उसका मानसिक शोषण करते हैं।

कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य समाज के ऐसे व्यक्तियों के प्रति करुणा जाग्रत करना है। यह कविता दूरदर्शन स्टूडियो के भीतर की दुनिया को उभारती जरूर है, लेकिन ऐसे व्यक्ति की ओर संकेत करती है, जो दुःख-दर्द, यातना-वेदना को बेचना चाहता है। यह कविता शारीरिक चुनौती को सहन करते लोगों के प्रति संवेदनशील नज़रिया अपनाने के रूप में भी देखी जा सकती है। कवि ने संवेदनहीनता को रेखांकित करने का प्रयास किया है। वह दिखलाता है कि किस तरह करुणा के मकसद से शुरू हुआ कार्यक्रम क्रूर बन जाता है।

(ग) ‘उषा’ कविता के आधार पर गाँव की सुबह का वर्णन अपने शब्दों में कीजिए।
उत्तर:
(i) प्रात:काल की रंगत बहुत नीले शंख जैसी
(ii) ओस से भरा भोर का नभ राख से लीपे हुए चौके जैसा
(iii) उषाकालीन आकाश लाल केसर से धुली काली सिल जैसा निर्मल और स्वच्छ
(iv) खुले तालाब में स्नान करती युवतियाँ

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
उषा कविता में कवि ने गतिशील बिंब योजना का प्रयोग करते हुए गाँव की सुबह का सुंदर शब्द-चित्र प्रस्तुत किया है। बहुत सुबह पूर्व दिशा में सूर्य दिखाई देने से पहले आकाश नीले शंख के समान प्रतीत हो रहा था। उसका रंग ऐसा लग रहा था जैसे किसी गाँव की महिला ने चूल्हा जलाने से पहले राख से चौका पोत दिया हो। उसका रंग गहरा था। कुछ देर बाद हल्की-सी लाली ऐसे दिखाई दी जैसे काले सिल पर जरा-सा लाल केसर मल दिया हो और फिर उसे धो दिया हो या किसी स्लेट पर लाल खड़िया या चाक मल दिया गया हो। आकाश के नीलेपन में सूर्य ऐसे प्रकट हुआ जैसे नीले जल में किसी युवती का गोरा सुंदर शरीर झिलमिलाता हुआ प्रकट हो रहा हो। लेकिन सूर्य के दिखाई देते ही यह सारा प्राकृतिक सौन्दर्य मिट गया।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

11. काव्य खंड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) पंथी क्या सोच रहा है और क्यों ?
उत्तर:
पंथी यह सोच रहा है कि कहीं जीवन रूपी पथ में मृत्यु रूपी अंधकार छा गया तो मैं लक्ष्य की प्राप्ति नहीं कर पाऊँगा अतः मुझे अपनी गति बढ़ानी चाहिए। मंज़िल अब ज़्यादा दूर नहीं है।

(ख) दूरदर्शन वाले कैमरे के सामने कमज़ोर को ही क्यों लाते हैं ?
उत्तर:
दूरदर्शन वालों को पता है कि कमज़ोर व अशक्त लोगों के प्रति समाज में करुणा व दया का भाव होता है। लोग दूसरे के दुःख के बारे में जानना चाहते हैं और दूरदर्शन वाले उनकी इसी भावना का फायदा उठाते हुए ऐसे कार्यक्रम बनाते हैं।

(ग) तुलसीदास के समय तत्कालीन समाज कैसा था ?
उत्तर:
तुलसीदास के समय में सामाजिक मान्यताएँ व परम्पराएँ नष्ट हो रही थीं। समाज में धार्मिक अंधविश्वास फैल रहा था जिनमें पूरा समाज फँसता जा रहा था। समाज में नारी की स्थिति शोचनीय थी।

12. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) भक्तिन के स्वभाव की ऐसी दो विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए जिनके कारण उसने लेखिका को अपने अनुसार ढाल लिया।
उत्तर:
(i) भक्तिन देहाती खाना-पीना (मकई, दलिया, मट्ठा, ज्वार के भुने सफ़ेद दानों की खिचड़ी आदि) बनाना जानती थी।
(ii) देहाती खाने की रुचि न होते हुए भी लेखिका को खाना पड़ता था।
(iii) लेखिका को अपने बोलचाल, खान-पान के अनुरूप ढाल लिया लेकिन खुद को लेखिका के अनुसार नहीं ढाल पाई।

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
भक्तिन देहाती खाना-पीना (मकई, दलिया, मट्ठा, ज्वार के भुने सफ़ेद दानों की खिचड़ी आदि) बनाना जानती थी। खाने की रुचि न होते हुए भी लेखिका को भक्तिन के बनाए खाने को खाना पड़ता था। भक्तिन ने कुछ ही दिनों में लेखिका को अपनी बोल-चाल, खान-पान के अनुरूप ढाल लिया लेकिन स्वयं को लेखिका के अनुसार नहीं बना पाई।

(ख) ‘बाज़ारूपन’ से आप क्या समझते हैं? कैसे लोग बाज़ार को सार्थकता प्रदान करते हैं?
उत्तर:
बाज़ारूपन से बाज़ार में कपट भाव बढ़ता है और अपनेपन के अभाव में आपस में उचित व्यवहार में कमी आ जाती है। ग्राहक और विक्रेता के संबंध केवल व्यावसायिक ही रह जाते हैं। एक की हानि में दूसरा अपना लाभ देखने लगता है। वे व्यक्ति ही बाज़ार को सार्थकता दे सकते हैं जो अपनी आवश्यकताओं को ठीक-ठीक समझकर बाज़ार का उपयोग करते हैं। यदि हम बाज़ार की चमक-दमक में फँसकर रह गए तो वह हमें असंतोष, तृष्णा, घृणा एवं ईर्ष्या से घायल कर बेकार बना डालता है।

(ग) जीजी इंदरसेना पर पानी फेंकना पानी की बर्बादी क्यों नहीं मानतीं ? उनके तर्कों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
‘इंदर सेना’ गाँव के बालकों और किशोरों की एक मंडली थी जो लोगों से घर-घर जाकर पानी की माँग करती थी। जीजी ने कहा कि यदि हम इंदर सेना पर पानी नहीं फेंकेंगे तो इन्द्र भगवान हमें पानी कैसे देंगे? यह पानी की बर्बादी नहीं है बल्कि यह तो पानी का अर्घ्य है जिसे हम कुछ पानी की चाह लेकर इंद्र को चढ़ाते हैं। मनुष्य जिस वस्तु को दान में नहीं देगा तो फिर कैसे पाएगा? ऋषि-मुनियों ने दान को सर्वोत्तम बताया है। त्याग-भावना से जो दान दिया जाता है उसी से फल की प्राप्ति होती है। जिस प्रकार किसान तीस-चालीस मन गेहूँ की पैदावार प्राप्त करने के लिए पहले अपने खेत में पाँच-छ: सेर अच्छे गेहूँ की बुवाई करता है। इसी प्रकार हमारे इस कार्य से प्रसन्न होकर इन्द्र देवता काले मेघा लेकर वर्षा करेंगे जिससे गाँव, शहर, खेत-खलिहान खिल उठेंगे।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 4 with Solutions

13. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) लेखक किस कार्य को व्यर्थ मानता है और क्यों ?
उत्तर:
लेखक सूखे के समय मेढक मंडली पर पानी फेंकना व्यर्थ मानता है। वर्षा न होने के कारण पानी की इतनी कमी अधिक कमी है। उसके अनुसार दिन-दिन गहराते पानी के संकट के समय मेढक मंडली पर पानी फेंकना पानी की बर्बादी है। ऐसे अंधविश्वासों से देश का ही नुकसान होता है।

(ख) ‘बाज़ार दर्शन’ में लेखक किसकी महिमा का कायल है?
उत्तर:
‘बाज़ार दर्शन’ में लेखक पत्नी की महिमा का कायल है क्योंकि आदिकाल से फ़िजूलखर्ची में पत्नी की प्रमुखता पति से अधिक प्रमाणित है। पत्नी जब पति के साथ बाज़ार जाती है तो वह अपने पति को कुछ अधिक सामान खरीदने को मजबूर कर देती है।

(ग) जेठ-जिठौतों के मन किस कारण ललचा जाते थे ?
उत्तर:
भक्तिन के हरे-भरे खेत, मोटी-ताज़ी गाय-भैंस और फलों से लदे पेड़ देखकर जेठ-जिठौतों के मन ललचा जाते थे और किसी भी प्रकार उन्हें हड़प लेने को बेचैन रहते थे। वे भक्तिन की सारी संपत्ति पर अपना कब्जा कर लेना चाहते थे।