CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
The traces of which of the following religions can be found in the art and architecture of India? [1].
I. Jainism
II. Sikhism
III. Islam
IV. Zoroastrianism
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(b) I, II, and III

Question 2.
Which of the following does not come under International Standards? [1].
(b) CAC
(d) ISO
(a) FSSAI
(c) WTO
Answer:
(a) FSSAI

Question 3.
Which of the following are included in the traditional occupations of India? [1].
I. Tile and brick making
II. Hunting and trapping birds and animals
III. Tapping Neera juice
IV. Garland making
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I and III
Answer:
(a) I, II, III, and IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 4.
Which of the following food standards are managed by FSSAI Act 2000? [1].
II. Storage
IV Sale and import
I. Manufacture
III. Distribution
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) I and IV
(b) II and III
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III, and IV

Question 5.
The condition in the above picture is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following? [1].
(a) Deficiency of food and energy
(b) Micronutrient deficiency
(c) Vitamin A deficiency
(d) Iodine deficiency
Answer:
(a) Deficiency of food and energy

Question 6.
Community radio is being operated in which of the following locations? [1].
(a) Delhi University North.
(b) Vanasthali Vidyapeeth.
(c) SEWA Gujarat.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 7.
Knowledge in which of the following are required in order to have a career in food quality and food safety? [1].
(a) Food chemistry.
(b) Food analysis.
(c) Quality control.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. Hue 1. Common name for the color
B. Chroma 2, Brightness or purity of color
C. Texture 3. A mark that connects two points
D, Line 4. Sensory impression of sight and touch

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3

Answer:
(a) 1 2 4 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 9.
Which of the following is not included in Back Office Department? [1].
(a) Engineering Department.
(b) Finance and Accounts Department.
(c) Human Resources Department.
(d) Food and Beverages Department.
Answer:
(d) Food and Beverages.

Question 10.
Poshan Abhiyaan is being implemented by which of the following Ministry? [1].
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
(b) Ministry of Women and Child Development.
(c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
(d) Home Ministry.
Answer:
(b) Ministry, of Women and Child Development.

Question 11.
Montessori schools are based on the principles of early childhood education outlined by________. [1].
(a) Maria Montessori
(b) Jean Piaget
(c) Lev Vygotsky
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Maria Montessori

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 12.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. YSL 1, Denim
B. Levis Strauss 2. The first French Haute couturier to present a full pret-a-porter line
C. Couturier 3. Foot Treadle
D, Issac Singer 4. Male Dress Designer in France

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer:
(a) 2 1 4 3

Question 13.
Sarita is an NGO social worker associated with SOS children’s village in Bawana. In this context, the SOS children’s village was set up in_________. [1].
(a) 1960
(b) 1964
(c) 1980
(d) 1971
Answer:
(b) 1964

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18.
If a person is interested in improving the way in which food is used to control, prevent and treat disease conditions then he/she can pursue a career in Clinical Nutrition and Dietetics. There is an expanding scope of research on physiological and psychosocial changes that are emerged from the disease conditions. The relevance of nutritional considerations in preventing, treating, and curing different types of disease conditions is accepted at a larger scale.

Research in this field has led to the development of drugs and nutritional supplements, rehabilitation of patients in community settings, development of dietary guidelines, and nutrition education. A clinical nutritionist can also play an important role in public policy-making by designing and implementing preventive and promotive nutrition programs to handle nutritional deficiency disorders among people.

He/She may possess a position as a dietitian in hospitals or clinics, a researcher in medical research establishments or nutrition supplements, a food service manager or provider in hospitals, etc.

Question 14.
Which developments are the result of research in Clinical Nutrition? [1].
I. Development of drugs and nutritional supplements.
II. Rehabilitation of patients in community settings.
III. Development of dietary guidelines.
IV Nutritional education.
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) I, III, and IV
(b) I, II, and IV
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III, and IV

Question 15.
How can a dietician play an important role in public policy to tackle nutritional problems? [1].
I. Designing nutritional programs.
II. Implementing nutritional programs.
III. Analysing the impact of programs.
IV. Discussions with Government authorities.
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) I, III, and IV
(b) I, II, and III
(d) II and III
Answer:
(a) I and II.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 16.
A dietitian can work in which of the following establishments? [1].
(a) Hospitals or Clinics.
(b) Medical Research Institutions.
(c) Food Service Manager.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 17.
______are not required in order to pursue a career as a nutritionist. [1].
(a) B.Sc degree in Home Science.
(b) B.Sc with a specialization in nutrition/food technology.
(c) Postgraduate Diploma in Dietetics.
(d) Degree in Botanies.
Answer:
(d) Degree in Botanies.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 18.
Which of the following skills are required in order to pursue a career as a nutritionist? [1].
(a) Knowledge of physiological changes in disease conditions.
(b) Changes in RDA’s or nutrient requirements in illness.
(c) Types of dietary modifications required by the patient, traditional and ethnic cuisines.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Ragini is a dietitian. She wants to feed glucose to a patient who |s very weak. Which is the best feeding foute to supply glucose to the patient? [2].
Answer:
Ragini should feed glucose to a patient through intravenous feeding. In this, the patient is nourished with special solutions which are given through a drip in a vein. It includes fluids containing water, glucose, amino acids, minerals, and vitamins given through the peripheral and central veins

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 20.
Name some of the commonly available services in the field of ECCE.
Or
What kind of administrative skills are required for a career in Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE)? [2].
Answer:
Some of the commonly available services in the field of ECCE are as follows
(i) Creches.
(ii) Daycare centers.
(iii) Nursery schools.
(iv) NGOs.
(v) ICDS.
(vi) Training institutes.

Or

Administrative and management skills such as record-keeping, accounting, and report-writing are required by a teacher in ECCE so that the institutions can maintain proper records. It ensures that contact and interaction with the parent community are effective and productive.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 21.
(a) Discuss the factors which determine the texture of textile materials.
(b) Write a note on Operational Division in Fashion Retail Organisations. [2].
Answer:
(a) Factors that determine the texture in textile materials include fiber content, yarn processing, and yarn type, fabric construction technique, fabric finishes, and surface ornamentation.

(b) Operational Division in Fashion Retail Organisations deals with maintenance of facilities, stores and merchandise protection, personnel, customer service, and receiving and marking of merchandise.

Question 22.
Sujata is facing many problems with her newly purchased refrigerator. The company is not paying attention to her complaints and hence she decides to approach a consumer forum. Which consumer right has she exercised in this case?
Or
Vidya purchased a new electric kettle. She received an electric shock due to its manufacturing defect. Which consumer right of Vidya has been infringed in this case? [2].
Answer:
In the given case Sujata has exercised her Right to be Heard. This right means that consumers’ interests will receive due consideration at appropriate consumer forums. It also includes the right to be represented in various forums which help to ensure consumer welfare. To enable consumers to exercise this right, both the state and voluntary agencies are expected to set up such forums.

Or

In the given case, Vidya’s Right to safety has been infringed. This is the right that refers to the right to be protected against hazardous effects that may be caused to the health or life of consumers. This right specifies that the consumer has the right to be protected against products, production processes, and services that are hazardous to health or life

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 23.
Write a note on the semi-automatic washing machine. [2]
Answer:
A semi-automatic washing machine contains two tubs-one for washing and the other. for drying. Water can be manually poured to the desired level based on the clothes to be washed. This type of machine consumes less water as compared to a fully automatic model. It also requires less time for a washing cycle.

Question 24.
Discuss how SEWA can make use of Information and Communication Technology in its program.
Or
Explain how Print media is still an important tool for information in rural areas. [2]
Answer:
SEWA can include Information and Communication Technology in its work to make the initiative more effective. SEWA’s aim is to make ICT a tool for empowering its grassroots members. Nowadays, it works on programs that develop women’s abilities in the use of computers, radio, television, video, mobile phones, etc. For this, Community Learning Centers (CLCs) have been set up in rural areas and they emphasize IT training to build the capacity of members including areas like electrical, mechanical, and IT engineering.

Or

Print media is still an important medium for passing information in rural areas. Newspapers in regional languages help in imparting knowledge to people. News on topics such as agriculture, and dairy is of immense use to people especially those who are undertaking this occupation in rural areas. There are few newspapers and periodicals which cover the facts related to local themes and operate in rural areas

Question 25.
Netra is a Development Journalism student. How can she make the best use of the internet in her course? [2].
Answer:
Netra can make the use of internet in her career in many ways. The internet has enabled journalists to reach out to their audience 24 hours a day. Journalists use the internet to update information constantly. Journalists have also broadened their reach due to their adoption of the internet. Information that journalists relay via the television or radio is thereafter redistributed.

Question 26.
(a) Discuss the concepts of Career and Livelihood. [2+1=3].
(b) Write a note on the perspective of work as a career.
Answer:
(a) Career is a life management concept that is unique to each person and is dynamic, unfolding throughout life. It is a lifelong process that involves managing roles, maintaining a balance between paid and unpaid work, learning personal life roles, and making transitions whenever or wherever needed to move towards personally determined goals. Livelihood is defined as a means and occupation by which a person supports oneself to meet basic needs and sustain one’s lifestyle. It also involves the choice of occupation, career path, and the design of the work lifestyle.

(b) Work as a career is a very positive and career-oriented perspective. Linder this perspective, the person views his work as a path to escalate professionally in terms of higher posts or positions, status, pay, and responsibility. It basically refers to the progression of someone’s professional life. A considerable amount of time and energy is dedicated to the work by a career-oriented person. Such a person is satisfied due to the continuous advancements and achievements attained by him.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 27.
(a) Write a note on chemical hazards in food. [1+2=3].
(b) How does the dietitian restore good nutrition in an individual through therapeutic diets?
Answer:
(a) Chemical hazards are chemical or deleterious substances that can be added either intentionally or unintentionally. For example, pesticides, chemical residues, toxic metals, polychlorinated biphenyls, preservatives, food colors, and other additives.

(b) Dietitian can maintain or restore good nutrition in the individual through normal and therapeutic diets. This is done by the medical nutrition therapist/dietitian taking into account the food pattern and frequency of intake of different types of food, diagnosis of disease and prescription given by the doctor, the health status and physical condition including the ability to eat, chew, swallow, digest and absorb the food eaten, feeling of hunger, physical activity, and lifestyle, dietary and other supplements consumed, cultural/ethnic practices and religious beliefs.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 28.
Write a note on the functions of the automatic washing machine.
Or Discuss the drying equipment process in the driers [3].
Answer:
A fully-automatic washing machine has a single-time setting of controls for each use. There should be permanent electricity and a constant water supply. Flere, the clothes are dried up before the end of the wash cycle.

The following functions are performed by an automatic washing machine
(i) Filling of water.
(ii) Controlling water level either automatically or manually in the washing machine.
(iii) Regulation of temperature of the water.
(iv) Washing to keep the fabric in the movement to get rid of all the dirt.

Or
Drying in the open is the most common method of drying clothes. Driers, however, are used at the commercial and institutional levels. There are mainly two types of circulation systems in driers, which are as follows

(i) Air of relatively low temperature is circulated at high velocity. Room air enters the drier from under the front panel. It passes over the source of heat and then passes through the clothes and leaves through an exhaust. In this way, the humidity and the temperature of the room stay normal.

(ii) Air of high temperature is circulated slowly. After the air enters the drier and passes over the heat source, it is drawn by a small fan through perforations at the top of the drier. Then it goes down through the clothes and out through the exhaust. Since the movement of the air in this drier is slow, the relative humidity of the exhausted air is high.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 29.
Write a note on the following [3].
(a) Consumer’s Right to Choose
(b) Consumer’s Right to be Informed
(c) Consumer’s Right to Seek Redressal
Answer:
(a) Consumer’s Right to Choose implies that every consumer has the right to have access to products of varying quality and quantities, prices, sizes,s and designs, at competitive prices and to choose according to their needs and wants. It also includes the right to basic goods and sen/ice. This is because the unrestricted right of the minority to choose can mean a denial for the majority of its fair share. This right can be better exercised in a competitive market where a variety of goods are available at competitive prices.

(b) Right to be Informed means the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard, and price of goods and services. This right protects consumers against unfair trade practices. They should know their rights and must exercise them. Only then real consumer protection can be achieved with success.

(c) Right to Seek Redressal is provided by Consumer Protection Act, against unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of every consumer. It includes the right to fair settlement of genuine grievances. It also involves the right to receive compensation for faulty goods and services. For this, Consumer disputes redressal agencies (popularly known as Consumer Forums or Consumer Courts) are set up under the Act at District, State, and National levels to provide simple and inexpensive quick redressal against consumer complaints.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
Swati is a food quality and food safety student. She is studying various aspects of food quality and food safety. In this context
(a) Write a note on Food standards.
(b) What is the aim of establishing FSSAI?
(c) Role of BIS in food quality and food safety.[2+1+1=4]
Or
Trisha is learning about the development of Food processing and technology. She ponders over the following question [1+1+2=4].
(a) What was the use of Food technology during the earlier periods?
(b) How did seasonal food gain popularity through Food processing and technology?
(c) Importance of Food technology in day-to-day life.
Answer:
a) Food standards are a set of criteria that a food must meet if it is to be suitable for human consumption such as source, composition, appearance, freshness, permissible additives, etc. Fleece, effective food standards, and control systems are essential to integrate quality into every aspect of food production and service, to ensure the supply of hygienic, wholesome food as well as to facilitate trade within and between nations. Food standards protect consumers from being cheated and also provide information about making food choices.

(b) The main aim of establishing FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) is to consolidate the laws relating to food. The FSSAI was established for laying down science-based standards for food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import, to ensure the availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.

(c) The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) deals with the standardization of various consumed goods including food products and runs a voluntary certification scheme known as the ISI mark for processed foods. BIS is the National Standard Body of India for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking, and quality certification of goods.

Or

(a) Food technology in the initial years was used to serve military needs. But later in the 20th century, due to World Wars, exploration of space and the rising demand for different varieties of products from consumers led to the growth of food technology. For example, products like instant soups and ready-to-cook meals were developed to fulfill the needs of working women.

(b) Demand for seasonal foods increased due to Food processing and technology. Further developments in this industry focused on nutritional concerns. Due to changes in food preferences and choices, people started incorporating food items into diets from different regions and countries.

(c) Food technology is important in day-to-day life because it provides a vast variety of safe and convenient food items to consumers. This field is expanding and developing in developing countries. This field has been helpful in improving food security and it has opened up access to employment at all levels.

It helps in making the shelf life of food products last longer, Food technology also makes it possible for a food product to keep its nutrition well even though it has been processed in a such way. Another benefit of the application of Food technology is making bacteria or other diseases that probably exist in food materials destroyed.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 31.
Write a note on recognizing color in Fabric and apparel. [4].
Answer:
Recognizing color is a day-to-day phenomenon in our life. Everything in our surroundings possesses a particular color. A person with normal eyesight is able to distinguish between values and intensities of different hues and give them names, for example, brick red; blood red, tomato red, ruby red, carrot red, etc. Colour names are derived from natural sources such as flowers, trees, woods, food, fruits, vegetables, spices, birds, animals, furs, stones and metals, minerals Earth, pigments, and paints among many others.

In each group, we can see reds and pinks, yellows and oranges, purples and violet, blues, greens, browns, and greys. At present in the international trade of textile products, a unique system of numbers along with names has been devised. For example, the Pantone Shade Card shows all possible hues, tints, and shades in varying intensities. Each has been given a code number, which is recognized internationally. This helps in fashion forecasting and when orders for products are given in foreign lands.

Question 32.
Surekha has opened a creche in her home. Her role as a caregiver is important for small children. Explain the reasons why children at the age of three years need special care as well as the role of preschool in enhancing children’s growth and development. [4].
Answer:
A child from the age of three years needs special care. A child’s activities and experiences begin to increase when he/she reaches around three years of age. So, giving the child proper stimulus at that time is of utmost importance. These early years are essential for a child to learn new things, explore the environment and discover the world around him or her. At this age, a child becomes capable of actively engaging himself/herself with the environment.

Through their interaction with the people and materials around them, children of this age gather all the information. Under ECCE, such a supportive and congenial atmosphere is created where a child feels free to express his/her capabilities. Proper emotional nourishment is provided which leads to their emotional stability and they develop the ability to adapt themselves to different situations and circumstances hence the element of instability is reduced to the least possible level.

Role of a preschool in the development of the child are as follows

  • It helps to enhance a child’s exposure to new environments and other adults
  • It prepares them for proper schooling.
  •  It aims to create a good learning environment and assist in a child’s growth outside of their home.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 33.
Raman is doing a Hospitality course at a reputed institute. He learned about various establishments that offer hospitality services. Discuss few such
establishments.
Or
Romil is specializing in the consumer education field. Discuss the importance of consumer education for consumers. [4].
Answer:
There are various establishments that offer hospitality services, for example, hotels, motels, lodges, resorts, furnished apartments, etc. Some of them are discussed below

  • A hotel is an establishment providing accommodation, meals, and other services for travelers and tourists.
  •  A motel is an establishment that provides services like hotel and parking and in which the rooms are usually accessible from an outdoor parking area.
  •  A lodge offers rented accommodation, especially for sleeping, and may not offer food and other services.
  •  A resort is known for its leisure attraction. It offers a broad range of amenities, sports facilities, and leisure activities for ensuring a total vacation experience.
  • Furnished apartments provide all essential amenities needed by the guests.
  •  Furnished camps provide hospitality to people who go hiking, undertake adventure sports, etc.

Or

The importance of consumer education for consumers are as follows

  • The number of products being manufactured and sold is steadily increasing in both urban and rural markets. Consumers are now aware that manufacturers are responsible for supplying good quality products and if there is a problem, consumers have the right to redressal.
  •  Manufacturers can no longer take consumers or customers for granted.
  •  an increasing number of consumers and volume of consumption of goods and services have made the manufacturers, suppliers, or service providers realize that it is important to respect and satisfy the ‘consumer’ because consumer opinion determines the reputation of the company and its profits.
  •  In order to ensure their welfare, consumers have to emerge as a progressive force. They have to understand the economic system and interrelationships of individuals with each other, with business, and with the government.

It is necessary for today’s consumer to be careful, alert, and well-informed. Thus, consumer education and protection have become important.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 34.
Explain in detail nutrient-based or medicinal approaches and mention programs run in our country to tackle nutritional problems. [5]
Or
Explain in detail HACCR
Answer:
Nutrient-based or medicinal approach nutrient supplements are given to vulnerable groups i.e., those who are at risk of deficiency and those who have a deficiency. It is a short-term strategy particularly used for Vitamin A, iron, and folic acid in India. Supplementation programs are often expensive and there may be problems with coverage. Key target groups are different for various nutrients.

There are many programs in our country to tackle nutritional problems. Some of these are as follows

  • ICDS is an outreach program for early childhood care and development, covering pregnant and nursing mothers and infants and young children up to 6 years.
  •  Nutrient Deficiency Control Programmes include the National Prophylaxis Programme for Prevention of Blindness due to Vitamin A deficiency, the National Nutritional Anemia Prophylaxis program, National Iodine Deficiency Disorder Control Programme.
  •  Food Supplementation Programmes include Mid-Day Meal Programme.
  •  Food Security Programmes include Public Distribution System, Antodaya Anna Yojana, Annapurna Scheme, and National Food for Work Programme.
  •  Self-employment and wage employment schemes.

Or

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) is a management system in which food safety is addressed through the analysis and control of biological, chemical, and physical hazards from raw material production, procurement, and handling, to manufacturing, distribution, and consumption of the finished product. It is just a means of providing assurance about food safety. It is an approach to food manufacture and storage in which raw materials and each individual step in a specific process are considered in a detailed way and evaluated for their potential to contribute to the development of pathogenic microorganisms or other food hazards. Reasons to implement HACCP are

  •  It is a preventive approach to ensure food safety.
  •  It enables to detection of hazards at any stage of processing or manufacturing in order to maintain good quality end products by taking up appropriate action at the stage where the problem arises.
  • It enables producers, processors, distributors, and exporters to utilize resources efficiently and in a cost-effective manner to assuring food safety.
  •  FSSA, 2006 also gave primary responsibility for safe food to producers and suppliers through HACCP, GMP, and GHP. This is essential for consumer protection and the international food trade.
  • It assures consistently good quality products.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 9 With Solutions

Question 35.
Jignesh is doing a course in Fashion designing and merchandising. [2+2+1=5].
(a) Mention any three abilities required in this field.
(b) Importance of Fashion designing and Fashion merchandising.
(c) Role of Fashion Merchandising in the Fashion industry.
Answer:
(a) Abilities required in doing a course in Fashion designing and merchandising are

  •  Forecasting Ability The ability to forecast fashion trends is an essential part of this career. This requires a thorough knowledge of past future trends, current future trends, and an awareness of how the marketing of an item contributes to these fashion trends.
  •  Analytical Ability Fashion merchandisers and marketers must analyze the economy as a whole, that of their companies, and how a particular style will fit into and affect a consumer’s budget.
  •  Communication Ability An individual must possess excellent communication skills. Through strong communication skills, fashion designers or merchandisers will be able to negotiate prices with manufacturers and they can also sell their fashion to the people.

(b) Fashion design and merchandising industry are important for thriving in the business world. It will help an individual to understand how the fashion business works. It consists of all the processes involved with producing the raw material, apparel, and accessories and the retail stores that sell fashion merchandise to the public. This industry is a part of the fashion business, where one can learn about textiles and the fibers used to make them.

(c) Fashion merchandising equips an individual to first respond to what, why, and when a style becomes a fashion. Then, it helps to determine its suitability for the particular retail operation and the time it will take. Thus, in simple words, it incorporates, planning, buying, and selling.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
Does meaningful work include which of the following?
I. Increased levels of Commitment
II. Satisfaction
III. Fulfillment
IV. Empowerment
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) II and III
(d) II, III and IV
Answer:
(b) I, II, III and IV

Question 2.
Nisha owns a Food processing centre where she makes products such as bread, biscuits, ice cream, cakes, kulfi. These foods are a type of _________.
(a) Processed foods.
(b) Formulated foods.
(c) Food derivatives.
(d) Minimally processed foods.
Answer:
(b) Formulated foods.

Question 3.
Human Development Index was developed by which of the following organisations? [1].
(a) UNESCO.
(c) UNICEF.
(b) United Nations.
(d) WTO.
Answer:
(b) United Nations.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 4.
Which among the following are the skills required by a professional during food production? [1].
(a) Expertise in cooking.
(b) Knowing the nature and properties of foodstuff.
(c) Nutritional content and its analysis.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 5.
Match the following.

List I List II
A. Red RibbonExpress 1. Tamil Nadu
B. SARI 2. Kanyakumari
C. SEWA 3. Gujarat
D. Community Radio 4. Delhi University in North Delhi

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer:
(b) 2 1 3 4

Question 6.
Which of the following are the basic methods to prevent food spoilage?
I. Application of heat
II. Removal of water moisture
III. Lowering of temperature during the storage
IV. Reduction in pH level
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) III and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV
(d) I and III
Answer:
(b) I, II, III, and IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 7.
In which of the following category, components of foods may be obtained from the raw product through the purification process? [1].
(a) Food derivatives
(b) Processed foods
(c) Functional foods
(d) Minimally processed foods
Answer:
(a) Food derivatives

Question 8.
Anganwadi is the component of which of the following? [1].
(a) ICDS
(b) Montessori Schools
(c) Nehru Yuva Kendra
(d) NSS
Answer:
(a) ICDS

Question 9.
Match the following

List I List II
A. Preserved foods 1. Frozen peas
B. Minimally processed foods 2. Probiotics
C. Functional foods 3. Trimming
D. Medicinal foods 4. Low sodium salts

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3

Answer:
(a) 1 3 2 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 10.
Which of the following skills are not required for an Early Childhood Professional? [1].
(a) Interest in children and their development.
(b) Knowledge about the needs and capabilities of young children.
(c) Capacity and motivation for interacting with children.
(d) Having the same approach towards every child.
Answer:
(d) Having the same approach towards every child.

Question 11.
Which among the following stores are operated and run usually by families and a single owner? [1].
(a) Small single-unit store
(b) Retail store
(c) Chain store
(d) Merchandising agency
Answer:
(a) Small single-unit store

Question 12.
In order to pursue a career in Laundry Management, an individual must have knowledge in which of the following? [1].
I. The fibre content of the material.
II. Yarn and fabric production technique.
III. The colours and finishes of the material
in terms of the effect of care required.
IV. Knowledge of the whole process involved.
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(b) II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 13.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions Q.13
The above logo is of which of the following standardised marks? [1].
(a) Ecomark
(b) Agmark
(c) Silk Mark
(d) ISO
Answer:
(a) Ecomark

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18.
Public Health Nutrition is the field of study that is concerned with the promotion of good health through the prevention of nutrition-related illnesses/ problems in the population, and the government policies and programmes that are aimed at solving these problems. Public health nutritionists/professionals use large-scale, organised and multidisciplinary approaches to solve the problems that affect the population i.e., a large number of people for whom group action is necessary.

Therefore, this field is multidisciplinary in nature and is built on the foundations of biological and social sciences. It differs from other fields of nutrition e.g. clinical nutrition and dietetics because the professionals are required to address problems of the community/public, especially the vulnerable groups.

Question 14.
Public Health Nutrition covers which of the following aspects? [1].
I. Prevention of nutrition-related illness
II. Government policies and programmes
III. Problems in the population
IV. Promotion of good health
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 15.
Which of the following parameters must be considered by a professional while solving the nutritional problem? [1].
I. Identifying the problem and its magnitude.
II. Understanding the causes of the problem.
III. Plan strategies to tackle the problems and implement them.
IV. Evaluate the impact.
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 16.
Which one of the following factors is not related to nutritional problems? [1].
(a) Availability of financial resources
(b) Price of foodstuffs
(c) Healthcare
(d) Social hierarchy
Answer:
(d) Social hierarchy

Question 17.
A ________ is a specific group of people who share common characteristics. [1].
(a) population.
(b) demography.
(c) community.
(d) society.
Answer:
(c) community

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 18.
Public Nutrition can be described as an art and science of which of the following through organised efforts of the society?[1].
(a) Promoting health.
(b) Preventing diseases.
(c) Prolonging life.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Roshan has established his own ready-to-eat food processing centre. Which are some of the foods he can keep in his centre? Also what are some ways in which he can prepare those foods? [2].
Answer:
Roshan can keep pre-packed and ready-to-eat meals in his centre such as bread, biscuits, ready-to-eat curries, jams, etc. Ready-to-eat foods are manufactured using a variety of processes and technologies. For some, simple traditional methods are still used while newer processes and technologies are employed to produce processed foods in bulk

Question 20.
(a) What are juvenile delinquents?
(b) How does Juvenile Justice (Child Care and Protection) Act, 2000 help juvenile delinquents?
Answer:
(a) Children who are ‘in conflict with the law’ are called juvenile delinquents. They are basically those who have been caught by the police for violating the Indian Penal Code. In other words, they are arrested by the police because they have committed and are accused of a crime.

(b) Juvenile Justice Act help juvenile delinquents in the following ways

  • The Act provides for a special approach towards the prevention and treatment of juvenile delinquency. It also provides a framework for the protection, treatment and rehabilitation of children.
  •  The Juvenile Justice (Child Care and Protection) Act 2000 relates to ‘juveniles in conflict with law’ and ‘children in need of care and protection’ by providing proper care, protection and treatment, by catering to their developmental needs.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 21.
What is Analogous Harmony?
Or
In fabric, what is the meaning of shape? [2].
Answer:
Analogous Harmony refers to a colour combination using two or three hues that lie side by side on the colour wheel. The use of four or more hues may create a jumble unless each one is in a very small quantity.

Or

In fabric, shape or form refers to the fall or drape of the material, to the shape of ornamentation, patterns and motifs and to the type of placement or repeat, that is, the final pattern formation. It represents the silhouette, cut and final detailing in apparel.

Question 22.
Raghu has checked in at the Horizon Hotel. He has now been allocated a room and is been taken care of. This phase of accommodation of Raghu falls in which stage of Guest Cycle in hospitality management? [2]
Or
Trisha wants to purchase a pure silk fabric. But she is unsure of its quality. What should she do in order to ensure its authenticity and quality?
Answer:
Raghu comes under the occupancy stage of the Guest Cycle of hospitality management. At this stage various services are provided as per the guest’s requirements, ensuring the security of the guest and coordination of various guest services. Obtaining and retaining customer loyalty is the priority of any service provider in the hospitality industry.

Or

In order to ensure the authenticity of the silk, Trisha should buy silk with Silk Mark. This is a quality assurance label which gives a guarantee of pure silk. Additionally, it also serves as a brand for the generic promotion of pure silk. This mark ensures 100% natural silk.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 23.
What is meant by ironing? Which are the most inexpensive and basic irons used in day-to-day life? [2].
Answer:
Ironing is the process of smoothening out wrinkles in the clothes created during use or washing. Dry Irons are the most basic ones and are typically quite inexpensive. They are lightweight and have basic controls. When ironing clothes with a dry iron, we need to sprinkle a little amount of water on clothes to get the best press.

Question 24.
Write a note on SARI.
Or
Discuss the importance of communication in day-to-day life.[2].
Answer:
Sustainable Access in Rural India (SARI) was initiated in the state of Tamil Nadu. Under this project, around 80 telecentres were established that offer a range of services including basic computer education, e-mail, web browsing and various e-government services including the provisions of certificates.

Or

The importance of communication in our day-to-day life is as follows

  •  Communication helps to create awareness about the newly available technologies and it further mobilises people to use them for the improvement of society.
  • It also links government agencies, NGOs and people.
  •  Development Communication and Development Journalism are significant fields of study that help to sensitise students towards development and train them to write and speak about issues related to an equitable and impartial society.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 25.
Reema lives in a small village. How can she take the help of SEWA in her personal development? [2].
Answer:
Reema can take guidance from SEWA and start her small business to earn money. It will ensure her freedom and independence. The Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) is a union of several thousand poor women working in the informal sector in India. This association aims to achieve full employment and self-dependence for women workers by focusing on work and support in areas like income, food and social security.

Question 26.
(a) Discuss some factors responsible for the extinction of traditional occupations in India. [2+1=3].
(b) Discuss some areas that require the revival and sustaining of indigenous knowledge, know-how and skills.
Answer:
(a) Some of the factors responsible for the extinction of traditional occupations in India are

  •  Despite having the richest tradition of arts and crafts, these traditional works are dying out due to mass-produced goods. This leads to meagre income sources for artisans and the extinction of aesthetic appreciation of fine arts.
  •  The major constraints causing this include illiteracy, general socio-economic backwardness, slow progress in implementing land reforms and inadequate or inefficient finance and marketing services.
  •  Shrinkage of forests, depletion of the resource base and general environmental degradation are responsible for various problems faced in this context.

(b) The areas that require revival and sustaining of the indigenous knowledge, know-how and skills are

  • Design innovations
  •  Preservation and refinement strategies
  •  Use of eco-friendly raw materials
  •  Establishment of training facilities.

Question 27.
(a) Write a note on Food technology. [2+1=3]
(b) What is Food fortification?
Answer:
(a) Food technology is the application of food science to the selection, storage, preservation, processing, packaging, and distribution of safe, nutritious, wholesome, desirable as well as affordable, and convenient foods. Food technology uses the knowledge of food science and food engineering to produce varied foods. It also has another important aspect of promoting sustainability, avoiding waste, saving and utilising all the food produced.

(b) Food fortification is the process of deliberately adding the required nutrient to the commonly consumed food item. Examples of food fortification include the iodisation of salt to prevent iodine deficiency disorder, iron in rice, Vitamin A and D in milk and oil or fats, etc. FSSAI has laid down standards for the fortification of staple food like salt, wheat flour, milk and oats.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 28.
Write a note on hospital laundry. [3].
Or
Discuss the main methods of washing in a machine.
Answer:
The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection. Many hospitals have started using disposable linen, due to the threat of infection, which is destroyed by burning. Most of the articles in hospitals are made of cotton and are dyed (in colours specific to the hospital and department) with excellent wash-fast dyes.

The daily laundry emphasises mainly the cleanliness of cotton materials. Stubborn stains may be neglected and starching and whitening are also not done. Even the ironing and pressing may not be done to perfection. Sometimes repair and mending and condemnation of unusable material are not done in hospital laundry.

Or

The main methods of washing in a machine are

  •  Agitation It is used in top-loading machines. The agitators have blades which may rotate or oscillate. Depending on the size of the machine and the type of fabrics to be washed, the agitators may be made of plastic, metal, bakelite, etc which are not affected by any detergents, bleaches, softeners, etc.
  •  Pulsation It is used in top-loading machines. The movement is caused by a vertical pulsator which has very rapid movements vertically.
  • Tumbling This is only used in front-loading machines. Washing takes place in a horizontally perforated cylinder. It revolves in a partially filled tub

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 29.
Write a note on the following [3].
(a) Hospitality.
(b) Room Attendant.
(c) Back Office Department.
Answer:
(a) Hospitality is the relationship between a guest and a host, wherein the host receives the guest with some amount of goodwill, including the friendly reception or welcoming and entertainment of guests, visitors, or strangers. The basic concept of hospitality is providing a place to stay, food, entertainment and other facilities to make the stay comfortable.

(b) Room Attendant does the actual cleaning of guest rooms and bathrooms. Housemen perform heavy cleaning activities such as vacuuming, mopping, sweeping, shifting furniture, etc.

(c) Back Office Departments are other departments in a hotel which provide support and are involved in the overall management and efficient functioning of the hotel.
Some Back Office Departments are

  •  Finance and Accounts Department.
  •  Engineering Department.
  •  Human Resources Department.
  • Sales and Marketing Departments.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
Dr Smita is conducting a seminar in school regarding Public Nutrition wherein she is trying to explain to students various aspects of health and nutrition.
(a) What are the causes of the increase in diseases worldwide? [2+2=4].
(b) What is the importance of nutrition for us?
(c) Effects of lack of nutrition on the health of human beings.
Or
Vihaan owns a food processing factory. Some of his food has spoiled in the rainy season.
(a) Mention some factors responsible for the spoilage of food.
(b) Mention some preservation methods used in olden times in order to preserve food. [2+1+1=4].
Answer:
(a) Causes of the increase in illness and diseases worldwide are as follows

  • Sedentary lifestyle, relying on faster means of transportation, walking less and doing less amount of physical activity. In urban areas, even children do not play enough outdoor games.
  •  Unhealthy food choices include increased consumption of fast foods, oily and fried foods, carbonated and sweetened beverages, sweets and desserts, etc.
  • Reduction in intake of whole grains, pulses, vegetables and fruits. All these lead to undesirable or inappropriate weight gain, overweight and obesity and ultimately lead to diseases such as hypertension, heart disease, diabetes, cancer, etc.

(b) Nutrition is important for each living being for maintaining health and well-being. Nutrition plays a central role in individual life and in life quality. When the nutrients provided in the diet are either inadequate or not utilised properly, it results in a state of imbalance in the body. This condition is known as malnutrition.

(c) Degenerative effects of lack of nutrition on children and adults includes short body stature in adulthood, low height for age, slow or no mental and cognitive development, etc. This ultimately affects the economy of a country by decreasing the proportion of the productive population.

Or

(a) Factors responsible for the spoilage of food are

  • Infestation by insects or pests.
  • Inappropriate temperatures are used for processing or storage.
  •  Excessive exposure to light and other radiations, oxygen and moisture.
  •  Microorganisms like fungi and bacteria or chemical pesticides are responsible for food contamination.
  •  Naturally, present enzymes can degrade the quality of food.
  •  Physical and chemical changes in certain constituents of food from plant or animal sources can alter the food quality.

(b) Preservation methods used in olden times in order to preserve food are as follows

  •  Sun drying
  • Controlled fermentation
  •  Salting or pickling
  • Candying
  •  Roasting
  • Smoking
  • Baking and using spices as preservatives for a longer duration

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 31.
Write a note on ironing and hot pressing. Also mention different types of irons available in the market. [4].
Answer:
Ironing is the process of smoothening out wrinkles in the clothes created during use or washing. Pressing helps to put creases in sleeves, trouser legs and pleated skirts. The first known use of heated metal to ‘iron’ clothes was started in China. The electric iron was invented in 1 882 by Henry W Seely. Irons have smooth metal surfaces which can be heated. Most electric irons have an inbuilt thermostat which can adjust the temperature according to the texture of the fabric.

Different types of irons available in the market are as follows

  • Steam Iron Steam iron creates a smoother press and helps remove wrinkles on cotton and linen fabrics. Steam irons have a small water tub on the side which produces steam to moisten clothes while pressing. These are more expensive than dry ones.
  • Dry Irons, These are the most basic ones and are typically quite inexpensive. They are lightweight and have basic controls. When ironing clothes with a dry iron, we need to sprinkle a little amount of water on clothes to get the best press. The weight of the iron varies from 1.5-3.5 kgs.
  • Charcoal Iron It is like a metal box with a lid, in which live coal pieces are put to heat the iron. Heavier articles like curtains and bed covers can be pressed easily with this type of iron.
  • Gas Iron In a gas iron a gas line carries fuel to the appliance which contains a burner to provide the heat. Other than charcoal iron, some dhobis also use gas iron which is cheaper to operate as compared to coal iron

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 32.
(a) Write a note on adoption.
(b) Write the objectives of Nehru Yuva Kendras.
(c) Write activities included in National Service Volunteer Scheme. [1+1+2=4].
Or
Write a note on some available avenues in the functioning and management of institutions and programmes for children, youth and the elderly.[4]
Answer:
(a) Adoption refers to means the process through which the adopted child becomes the lawful child of his/her adoptive parents with all the rights, privileges and responsibilities that are attached to a biological child for a long time. Nowadays, adoption beyond the family has been institutionalised and legalised.

(b) Activities included in National Service Volunteer Scheme are

  • Non-formal education
  •  Social service camps
  •  Development of sports activities for young people
  •  Cultural and recreational programmes
  •  Vocational training
  •  Youth leadership training programmes
  • Promotion and establishment of youth clubs

(c) Objectives of Nehru Yuva Kendras are

  • Secularism
  • Democracy
  •  Self-reliance
  •  Socialism
  •  National integration
  •  Development of scientific temper

Or

The avenues in functioning and management of institutions and programmes for children, youth and elderly depend upon the type of programme chosen by an individual as this field offers various possibilities. Some of the career avenues in the functioning and management of institutions and programmes for children, youth and the elderly are

  • One can set up one’s own institution for services to any target group.
  •  One can be a manager in an established institution or a programme.
  • One can be a functionary at any level or cadre.
  •  One can be a researcher consulting with or assessing or evaluating the existing programmes and institutions.

Question 33.
Treatwell Hotel is hiring staff for its management. The hiring manager is insisting on hiring young people for the jobs. Give a few reasons why young people are hired for such roles. [4].
Answer:
The reasons why hotels usually prefer young people for their staff are as follows

  • They have high energy to work for long hours, as compared to middle-aged people.
  •  They can also do overtime at the time of occasion and heavy workload.
  •  They are better informed and have better competencies through advancement in education. They are open to new ideas and the latest technologies.
  •  They have the ambition for success and earn high monetary returns.
  •  The hospitality industry is fast growing, thus, there are ample opportunities for individuals to opt for this field as a career. It is important to note that the fundamentals of hospitality management are applicable to hostels and large hospitals also.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 34.
Write a note on foods for special dietary uses.
Or
Discuss the career avenues for dietitians.[5].
Answer:
Foods for special dietary uses or functional foods or nutraceuticals or health supplements means foods which are specially processed or formulated to satisfy particular dietary requirements. These foods exist because of a particular physical or physiological condition or specific diseases and disorders.

These are presented as such, wherein the composition of these foodstuffs must differ significantly from the composition of ordinary foods of comparable nature and may contain one or more of the following ingredients, namely
(i) Plants or botanicals or their parts in the form of powder, concentrate or extract in water, ethyl alcohol or hydroalcoholic extract, single or in combination.
(ii) Minerals or vitamins or proteins or metals or their compounds or amino acids (in amounts not exceeding the recommended daily allowance for Indians) or enzymes (within permissible limits).
(iii) Substances from animal origin.
(iv) A dietary substance for use by human beings to supplement the diet by increasing the total dietary intake.

Or

A dietitian or medical nutrition therapy is a person who is trained in managing nutrition during diseases. There is a vast scope and a satisfying career as a dietitian, diet counsellor, researcher or corporate consultant can be achieved in clinical nutrition and dietetics.
Career avenues for dietitians are as follows

  • Dietitians with consultants/physicians, in health clubs or gymnasiums.
  • Dietitians in hospitals including speciality departments are key members providing nutrition support to the healthcare team.
  • Freelance dietitian.
  •  Dietitians in catering services for hospitals, schools, industrial canteens, etc.
  • Entrepreneurs who develop and supply speciality foods for specific health purposes.
  •  Teaching and academics.
  • Research including clinical research.
  •  Nutrition marketing.
  •  Technical writing.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 8 With Solutions

Question 35.
Raman works in a laundry that takes special care of various fabrics. [2+2+1=5].
(a) Mention two aspects regarding the care and maintenance of the fabric.
(b) Types of washing machines available in the market.
(c) Which iron is used for cotton and linen fabrics?
Answer:
(a) Proper care of fabrics enhances the period of their serviceability. It implies that the more care given to the clothes, the longer they last. Care and maintenance of fabrics include two important aspects, which are as follows

  • Keeping the material free of physical damage and rectifying any damage that may have occurred during its use.
  • Retaining or refreshing the appearance of the fabric by removing stains and dirt helps retain the textural and visual characteristics.

(b) A washing machine is a home appliance used to wash laundry. Nowadays, due to busy life schedules, washing fabrics manually is regarded as time-consuming work. Types of washing machines available in the market are Top loading washing machines where the garments are put into the machine from the top.

  • Front loading washing machine where the garments are put in the machine from the front side.

(c) Steam iron is used to remove wrinkles on cotton and linen fabrics. Steam iron creates a smoother press and helps in reducing wrinkles. Steam irons have a small water tub on the side which produces steam to moisten clothes while pressing. A steam iron is an electric iron that produces steam from water that is put into it. The steam makes it easier to get the creases out of your clothes.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.

Which of the following includes the need for Ergonomics?
I. To improve the safety and health of the worker
II. Reducing the possibility of accidents due to human error
III. Improving the job effectiveness
IV Improving job satisfaction
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(b)II andIII
(c) III and IV
(d)I, II,III, and IV
Answer:
(d) l, II, III, and IV

Question 2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions Q.2
The above image is of Channapatna dolls. The art of making such dolls is popular in ________. [1].
(a) Maharashtra.
(b) Karnataka.
(c) Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(b) Karnataka.

Question 3
_________ is concerned with improving the nutritional problems of the population in both developing and developed countries.[1].
(a) Public Health.
(b) Public Nutrition.
(c) Diet Therapy.
(d) Clinical Nutrition.
Answer:
(b) Public Nutrition.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 4.
Which of the following country is suffering from the problem of double malnutrition? [1].
(a) France.
(b) India.
(c) China.
(d) USA.
Answer:
(b) India.

Question 5.
Which of the following factors is responsible for the increase in various illnesses? [1].
(a) Sedentary lifestyle.
(b) Lowered intake of grains.
(c) No exercise.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 6.
Which among the following are the major nutrition-related problems in India? [1].
I. Low birth weight
II. Retarded growth
III. HIV/Aids
IV Hidden hunger
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II, III, and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) I, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III, and IV

Question 7.
Nutritional science is derived from which of the following sciences? [1].
(a) Behavioural Science.
(b) Social Science.
(c) Biological Science.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 8.
Juvenile Justice Act 2000 deals with which categories of children? [1].
I. In conflict with the law
II. In the need of care and protection
III. School dropouts
IV Illegally employed children
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(b)I andIII
(c)II and IV
(d) I, II, and IV
Answer:
(a) I and II

Question 9.
14-year-old Sonu is a juvenile delinquent. He is a child who is [1].
(a) in the need of institutional care.
(b) a school dropout.
(c) in conflict with the law.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) in conflict with the law.

Question 10.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. Couture 1. Ready-to-wear clothing
B. Pret-a-Porter 2. Art of making a dress
C. Sewing Machine 3. Female dress designer
D. Couturier 4. Issac Singer

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 3 2

Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 11.
Which of the following issues are given low priority in Print media? [1].
(a) Agriculture.
(b) Rural issues.
(c) Developmental issues.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 12.
In which of the following elements of the design rule of the Golden Mean is used? [1].
(a) Balance.
(c) Rhythm.
(b) Proportion.
(d) Lines.
Answer:
(b) Proportion.

Question 13.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. Engineering Department 1. Housekeeping Department
B. Linen Room 2. Back Office Department
C. Banquet 3. Food and Beverages Department
D. Guest Cycle 4. Front Office Department

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer:
(a) 21 3 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18.
With respect to lifestyle, people have become more sedentary, relying on faster means of transportation, walking less, and doing less amount of physical activity. In urban areas, even children do not play enough outdoor games. Dietary patterns people in India are also shifting more towards unhealthy food choices.

These include increased consumption of fast foods, oily and fried foods, carbonated and sweetened beverages, sweets and desserts, etc this is coupled with a sedentary lifestyle and less or no physical activity. At the same time, the intake of whole grains, pulses, vegetables, and fruits has reduced. Protein Energy Malnutrition is one of the major nutritional problems in our country.

It is also prevalent in developing and industrialized countries. It is caused by inadequate food intake as per the requirements i.e. insufficient intake of the micronutrients (energy and protein). Children are at the greatest risk although PEM can also occur in adults elderly or who are suffering from infectious diseases such as TB, HIV/ AIDS, etc. PEM is assessed by evaluating anthropometric measurements like head and chest circumferences, height, weight, etc.

Question 14.
Which of the following conditions are present in Protein Energy Malnutrition?[1].
I. Stunting
II. Wasting
III. Underweight
IV. Hidden hunger
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(c) I, III, and IV
(b) I, II, and III
(d) I, II, and IV
Answer:
(b) I, II, and III

Question 15.
Marasmus and Kwashiorkor are caused due to ________. [1].
(a) Protein Energy Malnutrition.
(b) Vitamin A deficiency.
(c) Anemia.
(d) Iodine deficiency.
Answer:
(a) Protein Energy Malnutrition.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 16.
Micronutrient-deficient diet does not contain which of the following?[1].
I. Energy
II. Protein content
III. Minerals
IV. Vitamins
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV (d) II and III
Answer:
(a) I, II, III, and IV

Question 17.
The consumption of which of the following food does not lead to various illnesses? [1].
(a) Carbonated beverages.
(b) Fried foods.
(c) Legumes.
(d) Fast food.
Answer:
(c) Legumes.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 18.
Which of the following measurements are not evaluated under Protein Energy Malnutrition? [1].
(a) Weight.
(b) Height.
(c) BMI.
(d) Head and chest circumference.
Answer:
(c) BMI

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Manpreet has opened a Food processing center. Name any three semi-perishable and three non-perishable items he can process in his center. [2]
Answer:
Since Manpreet has opened a food processing center, he can process semi-perishable products such as fruits, and vegetables. These foods can last for 1-2 weeks. Root crops like onions and potatoes last for 2-4 weeks. Manpreet can process non-perishable foods such as grains like rice, wheat, pulses oilseeds. These are the foods that generally last for one year.

Question 20.
Discuss the four special features of the elderly population in India. [2].
Or
What do you mean by Early Childhood Care and Education?
Answer:
Four special features of the elderly population in India are
(i) Majority (80%) of the elderly population are living in rural areas. Thus, it becomes difficult for the authorities to deliver services at regular intervals.
(ii) Feminisation of the elderly population.
(iii) There is an increase in the number of the older-old persons above the age of 80 years.
(iv) A large percentage (30 %) of senior citizens are living below the poverty line

Or

The concept of ‘Early Childhood Care and Education’ (ECCE) refers to a range of processes and mechanisms that sustain and support development during the early years of life. It encompasses education, physical, social and emotional care, intellectual stimulation, health care, and nutrition. It also includes the support of a family and a community’s need to promote children’s healthy development.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 21.
(a) Write about the contribution of Levis Strauss to the Fashion of France in the late 18th century. [2].
(b) Write a note on ready-to-wear clothes in the 18th century in France.
Answer:
(a) In the Fashion of France in the late 18th century, Levis Strauss used fabric from which tents and wagon covers were made to make long-wearing pants with pockets. These pants became popular later and to known as denim. Denim is the only apparel that has remained the same for the past last 150 years.

(b) In the 18th century in France, the manufacturing of ready-to-wear clothes for women started when women started wearing separate skirts and blouses. In ready-to-wear clothes, lengths and waistlines could be easily adjusted and this helped the working class add variety to their wardrobe by mixing separate clothes.

Question 22.
Chirag wishes to work in the hospitality industry. Mention any two essential skills required to work in the hospitality sector. [2].
Or
Ronit wants to work with a Food and Beverage Department at a Hotel. What are some basic skills he must possess while working in this department?
Answer:
If Chirag wants to work in the hospitality sector, he needs to have the following skills
(i) He needs to be well groomed and has good hygiene, orderliness, good manners, and etiquette besides a personality smiling face.
(ii) He must have a clean and neatly ironed uniform, minimum accessories, and well-groomed hair. His nails should be clean and properly manicured.

Or

If Ronit wants to work with Food and Beverage Department, he must have the following skills

  •  He must always be smiling, courteous to the guests, and possess good manners and etiquette.
  •  He should have a thorough knowledge of the ways of serving the food and know the ways of handling guests at the restaurant.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 23.
(a) Discuss the concept of the peak of popularity and decline of popularity in the Fashion cycle. [2].
(b) Write any two features of laundry in hotels.
Answer:
(a) Peak of popularity in the Fashion cycle refers to a situation where any kind of fashion is in high demand due to its popularity. In order to meet such demands many manufacturers try to produce a replica of that product and sell it at different price levels. The decline in popularity in the Fashion cycle takes place when mass production of a certain fashion in the market leads to its decline. This leads fashion-conscious people to look for something new.

(b) Two features of laundry in hotels are
(i) Here, the final finishing of laundered goods i.e. starching, ironing, pressing and correct and perfect folding is required.
(ii) Hotel laundry also provides the guests’ personal laundry service when required.

Question 24.
(a) Write a note on SEWA. [2].
(b) What is Print media?
Answer:
(a) The Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) is a union of several thousand poor women working in the informal sector in India. This association aims to achieve full employment and self-dependence for women workers by focusing on work and support in areas like income, food, and social security.

(b) Print media is a traditional form of media for development communication and such forms of media are participatory and effective in nature. Basically, reports which are concerned with issues like agriculture, problems of rural areas, and other developmental concerns are given low priority in Print media.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 25.
Vaishali lives in a rural area and wants to learn computers. How can she learn computers from her village?
Or
Naina loves to listen to radio programs. Which types of radio programs are broadcasted on the radio? [2].
Answer:
If Vaishali wants to learn computers she can approach Community Learning Centers (CLCs) in her village. CLCs have been set up in rural areas and they emphasize IT training to build the capacity of members including areas like electrical, mechanical, and IT engineering.

Or

Naina can listen to various programs on the radio. Radio programs are generally presented in the form of news, interviews, discussions, documentaries, etc. In a short period of time, the news is covered” with many different topics. At regular intervals, interesting facts and stories of current human interest are broadcast.

Question 26.
(a) Discuss the importance of work in our day-to-day life by mentioning any three points.
(b) Describe the difference between a job and a career. [1+2=3].
Answer:
(a) Importance of work in our day-to-day life can be understood with the help of the following three points Work is performed by an individual to acquire or earn money, to fulfill the requirements of their families, to earn leisure, for recreation purposes, etc. Work also helps in developing one’s personal identity and in boosting their self-esteem. Work has an impact on the quality of life in the world around us.

(b) The difference between a job and a career can be understood with the help of the following points A job is work performed to earn money to support basic needs. It can be full-time or part-time and may be short-term. It is just a role that can be fulfilled without any satisfaction. While a career is something related to pursuing a passion. It is made up of the combination of roles, experiences, education, and pathways one takes to achieve one’s goals. It gives a sense of satisfaction and fulfillment.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 27.
(a) Write a short note on pasteurization.
(b) Describe the experiment of spoilage done by Pasteurin in 1864. [2+1=3].
Answer:
(a) Pasteurisation is defined as the process of treating milk to destroy disease-producing organisms. It was developed by Louis Pasteur. This method was a significant advancement in ensuring the microbiological safety of food. It is a process in which packaged and non-packaged foods such as milk and fruit juices are treated with mild heat, usually to less than 100 °C (212 °F), to eliminate pathogens and extend shelf life.

(b) Louis Pasteur’s experiment in 1864 was based on the spoilage of wine and his description of how to avoid spoilage was an early attempt to put food technology on a scientific basis. He also conducted his research on the production of alcohol, vinegar, wines, beer, and souring of milk.

Question 28.
Discuss the effects of applying the principle of balance in apparel design. [3].
Or
Discuss the concept of natural shapes and abstract shapes in fabric or apparel.
Answer:
Balance is the proper equalling of the distribution of weight from the central point of a dress. It is important for a good garment that it should be balanced both vertically (from the center line) and horizontally (from top to bottom).

This can be done in three ways that are formal, informal, and radial. The elements of design like line, form, color, and texture are considered while creating a balance in a dress. The effects of applying the principle of balance in apparel design are as follows

  • The application of formal balance gives a feeling of stability, dignity, and formality to the garment wearer but tends to get monotonous. For a customer, formal vertical balance is the least expensive and most expected type of design which is found on less expensive garments.
  • Application of horizontal balance is done to correct figure problems by using various elements of design, for example, dark hue for big sizes.

Or

Natural shapes are the shapes that copy nature or common shapes of man-made objects. Organic or natural shapes in design, are associated with nature. In other words, they often look similar to things found in nature like plants, animals, and rocks. They tend to be characterized by curving lines and a lack of symmetry. Abstract shapes are free-form.

They do not resemble any specific object but may represent different things to different people because of personal association. Abstract shapes are created by abstracting the most basic and recognizable aspects of a real-life shape and creating a simplified representation of it. They are stylized or simplified versions of organic shapes.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 29.
Write a short note on the following [3].
(a) Linen and Uniform Room Supervisor.
(b) Public Area Supervisor.
(c) Flower arrangement in a Hotel.
Answer:
(a) Linen Room and Uniform Room Supervisor is responsible for the supply, acquisition, storage, issue, and cleanliness of the linen and uniforms required in various areas of the hotel. The linen room stores and maintains a large stock of bed linen, bath linen, linen for restaurant(s), etc, and uniforms of all the staff members of the hotel.

(b) Public Area Supervisor is responsible for maintaining the cleanliness of the public areas like the Main entrance, corridor, offices, banquet, halls, restaurants, etc. They get these works done through Housemen.

(c) Flower arrangement helps to enhance the aesthetic appeal of various interior spaces in a hotel. The hotel or other institution may give a contract to florists to supply flower arrangements on a regular basis. Alternatively, the flower arrangements in various areas of the premises may be made by the housekeeping department.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
A leading international gas stove production chain wishes to establish its business in India. For this, the government has asked the Chain to acquire an ISO 9000 certification. [2+1+1=4].
(a) What is ISO?
(b) Describe the functions of ISO.
(c) What is ISO 9000?
Or
A high-level Indian Diplomat is India’s representative to CAC. [2+2=4].
(a) Describe the composition of CAC.
(b) What is the Food Code of CAC?
Answer:
(a) International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) is an independent non-governmental federation of national standards bodies. Through its members, it brings together experts to share knowledge and develop voluntary, consensus-based, market-relevant international standards that support innovation and provide solutions to global challenges. The work performed by ISO led to international agreements which are published as International Standards.

(b) Functions of ISO are

  • Promoting the development of standardization and related activities in the world with a view to facilitating the international exchange of goods and services.
  •  Developing cooperation in the spheres of intellectual, scientific, technological, and economic activity.

Or

(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is an inter-governmental body formed with the objective of establishing international standards to protect the health of consumers and facilitate food and agricultural trade. It was composed of 187 member countries and one member organization i.e. European Community. CAC has become the single most important international reference point for developments associated with food standards.

(b) Food Code, is a collection of internationally adopted food standards by CAC. The published document comprises Standards, Codes of Practice, Guidelines, and other recommendations to protect consumers as well as to ensure fair practices in the food trade. Codex standards are adopted to develop national standards among different countries of the world

(c) ISO 9000 is an international reference for quality requirements. It deals with the Quality Management of an organization. However, the adoption of these standards is voluntary for an organization.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 31.
Discuss essential qualifications for a career in Fashion design and merchandising. [4].
Answer:
Essential qualifications required to pursue a career in Fashion designing and merchandising are

  • Certificate or diploma degree programs in Fashion Merchandising over a period of six months to one year. These programs are of short duration as The coursework focuses on the actual job of Fashion merchandising.
  • The Master’s Programme in Fashion merchandising is of a two-year duration that consists of a certain amount of liberal arts requirements with fashion and business courses.
  •  Bachelor’s degree in Fashion design or merchandising is a four-year program that consists of a substantial amount of liberal arts requirements with fashion and business courses. A bachelor’s degree is beneficial for those individuals who possess the patience for long-term schooling as well as the desire for a broad education and promotional opportunities.

Question 32.
Two friends Chhaya and Deepa want to open an NGO that shall benefit the elderly. They need to consider various aspects in order to make their initiative beneficial for the elderly. Discuss the important factors that they must keep in mind before setting up an organization [4].
Answer:
Important factors that Chhaya and Deepa must keep in mind before setting up an organization in order to make it beneficial for the elderly are

  • An appropriate location for the organization, who should it cater to suit the target beneficiaries.
  •  Services or a combination of services to be provided that will be beneficial for the elderly.
  • Finances are required to run the organization.
  •  Recruitment of staff with different skills which will enable them to take care of the elderly in an efficient manner.
  •  Knowledge base to handle various aspects of the program including handling formalities of registering the organization, implementing the program, and improving the activities based on periodic evaluation and feedback.
  • To have a strong vision about what they want to achieve and how the organization will contribute to meeting the needs of the target group. Thus, strong passion is also a major requirement for work in this area.

Question 33.
Parag has purchased a Television. He is now being termed as a consumer. What is a consumer and what is an importance of a consumer? [4].
Or
Chitra purchased 10 kgs of rice from a supermarket. But she received only 8 kgs of rice from the attendant while she paid the price of the 10 kgs of rice. How does such type of problems affect the consumers like Chitra?
Answer:
After purchasing a Television, Parag is now a consumer. A consumer is a person who is the final buyer of goods and services, for the satisfaction of their personal needs and wants, ranging from natural products to products and/or services from natural the market. Consumers are the basic economic entities of an economy.

All consumers consume goods and services directly and indirectly to maximize satisfaction and utility. Generally, consumers will consist of a particular individual, a group of individuals, institutions, etc. Consumers are the main source of demand for all goods.

The producers of industrial goods or the producers of agricultural products are all producing various items according to the demand in the market. Consumers are considered the primary component of a socioeconomic system. It is so because every human being who is consumer to a smaller to larger extent wants to have a good standard of living.

Or

Consumers like Chitra face the problem of incorrect weights and measures. Consumers may end up getting less quantity than what they paid for like in the case of Chitra. This may happen when either incorrect weights or measures are used or correct weights are used incorrectly. Measures are often deceptive and exploit consumers of their money. Weights and measures without a seal or verification stamp are not genuine.

There are various tricks employed to fool consumers. From street hawkers to agents who buy from farmers, weights are manipulated to gain more profit. Spurious, weights or stones, bricks, etc are used in place of standard weights in vegetable and grocery shops, This is often common in local and weekly markets. Boxes or bottles that are used in packed goods are generally of a shape that would give lesser quantity to the consumer.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 34.
Write a short note on Public Health Nutrition. [5].
Or
Discuss any four short-term interventions and four structural changes to tackle the nutritional problems in India.
Answer:
Public Health Nutrition is the field of study that is concerned with the promotion of good health through nutrition and the primary prevention of nutrition-related illness in the population and the government policies and programs that are aimed at solving these problems. It also aims at understanding the causes of nutrition-related diseases and uses multidisciplinary approaches to solve the problems that affect the population.

Therefore, Public Health Nutrition is a multidisciplinary field and is built on the foundations of biological and social sciences. This field differs from other fields of nutrition (clinical nutrition and dietetics) because here the professional is concerned with the well-being of a community and not specific individuals.

Public Nutrition is a special body of knowledge derived from the nutritional, biological, behavioral, social, and managerial sciences. It can also be described as the art and science of promoting health and preventing diseases, prolonging life, through the organized efforts/action of society.

Any professional in the field of Public Nutrition has to promote good nutrition and /or prevent nutritional problems, for which it is important to identify the problem and its magnitude, understand how and why these problems occur, and then plan strategies and actions to implement them and evaluate their impact.

Or

Four short-term interventions to tackle nutritional problems are

  • Integrated Child Development Sen/ice (ICDS) covers all vulnerable groups.
  •  Fortification of essential foods (salt fortified with iodine).
  • Production and popularisation of low-cost nutritious foods from indigenous and locally available raw materials by involving women in this activity.
  •  Control of various micronutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups. Such as iron, Vitamin A, folic acid, and iodine among children and women.

Four structural changes to tackle nutritional problems are Ensuring food security i.e. improving the availability of food.

  • Improvement in dietary patterns by ensuring the availability of nutritionally rich foods.
  •  Poverty alleviation for rural and urban poor through employment generation schemes and public distribution systems, implementing land reforms.
  • Improving health and family welfare, prevention of food adulteration, involvement of media, basic nutrition and knowledge, monitoring of nutrition programs, improvement of the status of women, education, and literacy, and community participation

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 7 With Solutions

Question 35.
Fashion Forward is a leading Fashion Retail Organisation. It is looking to establish its business in the city, for which its team needs to study the market. [2+2+1=5]
(a) Write about the Demographic segmentation of the market.
(b) Which aspects are covered under the Physiographic segmentation of the market?
(c) Discuss the Behavioural market segmentation.
Answer:
(a) Demographic segmentation is done on the basis of population, age, sex, occupation, education, and income. It helps organizations understand who their customers are so that their needs can be addressed more effectively. Demographic segmentation helps identify which people are most likely to make a purchase, which helps define the target market. Once the target market is known, Fashion Forward can plan marketing strategies that best appeal to this segment, increasing the efficacy of their strategies.

(b) Psychographic segmentation is done based on lifestyles like social activities, interests, leisure pursuits, needs, and wants. People who have similar lifestyles that can make up for a target market group. It is a market segmentation technique where groups are formed according to psychological traits that influence consumption habits drawn from people’s lifestyles and preferences. It is mainly conducted on the basis of “how” people think and “what” they aspire their life to be.

(c) Behavioural market segmentation is done based on specific products or services. Many times rating of usage or reviews of products and services is done. This helps in improving the service/product and makes it different from others.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
Which amongst the following are the sets of life skills required to survive? [1].
I. Self-awareness
II. Communication
III. Decision making
IV Empathy
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II and III
(b) II andIII
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 2.
Which of the following country is popularly termed the diabetic capital of the world? [1].
(a) India.
(b) USA.
(c) Britain.
(d) Italy.
Answer:
(a) India.

Question 3.
The science of ergonomics is set on which of the following pillars? [1].
(a) Anthropometry.
(b) Biomechanics.
(c) Physiology.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 4.
Which of the following foods comes under the category of special dietary foods? [1].
I. Powder of plants or their parts
II. Substances of animal origin
III. Minerals
IV. Metals or their compounds
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(b)II andIII
(c)III and IV
(d)I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 5.
In order to consider the effects of illness on food acceptance and absorption capacity of the patient which of the following factors are considered by a dietitian? [1].
I. Nutritional stress
II. Psychological stress
III. Acceptability of modified therapeutic diets
IV External environment
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(b)II andIII
(c) I, II and III
(d)I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(c) I, II and III

Question 6.
Rohan’s grandmother is suffering from issues of liver and chewing problems. Which type of diet should be prescribed by the dietitian to Rohan’s grandmother? [1].
(a) Low protein diet and mechanical soft diet.
(b) High protein diet and mechanical soft diet.
(c) Low fibre diet and liquid diet.
(d) High fibre diet and regular diet.
Answer:
(a) Low protein diet and mechanical soft diet.

Question 7.
Public Health Nutrition is not based on the foundations of [1].
(a) Dietetics.
(b) Chemical Science.
(c) Biological and Social Science.
(d) Botanical Science.
Answer:
(d) Botanical Science.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 8.
Who amongst the following tried to comprehend and explain that young children have different ways of understanding things around them? [1].
(a) Jean Piaget
(c) Lev Vygotsky
(b) Maria Montessori
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Jean Piaget

Question 9.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. Proportion 1. Created in a garment when all the elements of design come together to give a good harmonious effect.
B. Balance 2. Relationship of the parts of the garments to one another.
C. Forma! balance 3. Proper equalling of the distribution of weight from the central point of a dress.
D. Harmony 4. The least expensive and most expected type of design which is found on less expensive garments.

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 3 2 4

Answer:
(b) 2 3 4 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 10.
Rhythm in a design can be developed in which of the following ways? [1].
(a) Coordination
(b) Repetition
(c) Radiation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 11
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions Q.11
The above symbol is of which of the following standardised mark? [1].
(a) Wool-Mark.
(b) BSI Mark.
(c) Silk Mark.
(d) Agmark.
Answer:
(a) Woolmark.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 12.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. ICDS 1. Children stay temporarily till the completion of an investigation to track down their parents.
B. Juvenile Homes 2. World’s largest early childhood programme which aims to meet health, nutrition and other parameters.
C. Special Homes 3. Homes where juveniles that are children less than 18 years of age are found.
D. Observation Homes 4. Homes where children whose families are not traceable or are unfit or dead.

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 2 4 1

Answer:
(b) 2 4 3 1

Question 13.
Sustainable Access in Rural India (SARI) was initiated in which state? [1].
(a) Tamil Nadu.
(b) Maharashtra.
(c) Rajasthan.
(d) Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu.

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18.
In the field of food processing, India is experiencing growth as it accounts for about 26 % of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the food sector. International trade has been boosted which has further increased the responsibility to achieve the appropriate level of safety in terms of sanitary and phytosanitary protection.

Due to the Indian Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006, a major shift has been evident in food laws that seek to provide greater consumer protection by ensuring the safety and wholesomeness of food at all stages of the food chain. The changing scenario has widened the scope and increased career options in this field of area.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 14.
In which of the following fields, a person must possess skills in order to take up a career in Food safety and quality? [1].
I. Food processing
II. Food microbiology
III. Sensory evaluation
IV. Food preservation
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, IV and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 15
In which of the following fields people with knowledge of Food safety and quality can work? [1].
I. Food Auditors
II. Quality Certification such as ISO
Teaching and Academics
III. Research
IV Scientific Writers
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 16.
Food processing comprises of________ of GDP in the food sector. [1].
(a) 20%
(b) 26%
(c) 30%
(d) 10%
Answer:
(b) 26%

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 17.
Which of the following parameters is covered under HACCP to address concerns regarding Food quality? [1].
(a) Analysis and control of biological, chemical and physical hazards from raw material production.
(b) Procurement and handling, manufacturing, and distribution.
(c) Consumption of the finished product.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 18.
FSSAI was launched in which year?[1].
(a) 2000
(b) 2006
(c) 2005
(d) 2010
Answer:
(b) 2006

 

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Renu has undergone surgery. Her dietitian will prescribe which diet for her. Also, name a few options for this type of diet. [2].
Answer:
Since Renu has undergone surgery, her dietitian will prescribe a clear liquid diet for her. Examples of a clear liquid diet are water, strained fruit juices, coconut water, and lime juice. The limitation of such diets is that it is not easy to meet the nutritional requirement of the person.

Question 20.
(a) Mention some skills required by Early Childhood Care and Education Professionals.
(b) Mention the work of Lev Vygotsky in the field of childhood education [2].
Answer:
(a) Skills required by Early Childhood Care and Education Professional includes commitment towards the children, their well-being and learning.

(b) Lev Vygotsky, a psychologist and educator, held that there is a great need for children to have a concerned, caring and knowledgeable adult. The preschool educator must have knowledge about the child’s capabilities rather than information about the world.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 21.
(a) What is the use of horizontal balance in Fashion design?
(b) What is a pattern in a design? [2].
Answer:
(a) Horizontal balance is basically used to correct figure problems by using various elements of design, for example, dark hue for big sizes.
(b) A pattern in a design can be formed by grouping together one shape or a combination of two or more types of shapes.

Question 22.
Nandan wants to buy gold jewellery for his wife. What should he do in order to ensure the authenticity of his jewellery?
Or
Nisha has gone to buy packets of cereals in a supermarket. Which are the things that will assure the safety and quality of the product? [2].
Answer:
In order to ensure the authenticity of the jewellery, Nandan should buy ornaments having Hallmark certification. This mark indicates that the metal used meets the national/international standard of fineness/purity.

Or

Nisha should buy the cereals which have an ISI Mark. Under the ISI Mark scheme, licenses are issued to manufacturers whose goods are appropriate and meet the relevant standards. This will assure her that she is buying genuine and pure products.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 23.
Who is credited with the invention of the sewing machine? The male designer in France was known as. [2].
Answer:
The sewing machine was invented by Issac Singer. Isaac Singer was an American inventor and businessman. He made important improvements in the design of the sewing machine and was the founder of the Singer Sewing Machine Company. A male designer in France was known as a couturier.

Question 24.
Write a note on Project Village Chhatera. [2].
Or
Write a note on Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan.
Answer:
Project Village Chhatera was initiated in 1969 and focused on a small village Chhatera in North-West Delhi. The initiative was launched by Hindustan Times in the form of a regular fortnightly column which describes the lives of the people living in the area.

Their report highlighted the Village Chaupal, aspirations of people, livelihood issues and festivities. Problems related to water, electricity and deficit rainfall, etc, were also reported with photographs.

Or

The Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 2nd October 2014. It aimed at eliminating open defecation in rural areas during the
period 2014 to 2019 through mass-scale behaviour change, construction of household-owned and community-owned toilets and establishment of mechanisms for monitoring toilet construction and usage

Question 25.
Rajan lives in a small village. How can he make the best use of Community radio in order to develop his village?
Or
Sonia is a Development Journalism student. Why must she possess computer skills for her profession? [2].
Answer:
Rajan can make use of Community radio for the development of his village as the radio will provide people of the village with the opportunity to participate and express their views as well as display their talents. In this way, radio becomes the voice of the people and a catalyst in people’s development.

Or

Sonia needs to have basic computer skills for research, maintaining records and data, etc. Basic computer skills in using Microsoft Office applications, including Word, Excel and PowerPoint are desirable in a candidate like Sonia who is a Development Journalism student

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 26.
(a) Discuss any four skills or attributes required by an Entrepreneur. [2+1=3].
(b) Describe any two benefits of Ergonomics.
Answer:
(a) Six skills or attributes required by an Entrepreneur are

  • The willingness to work hard towards goals.
  • Knowledge and skills for planning and implementation of goals in an effective manner.
  •  The management skills related to finances, materials, personnel and time.
  •  The courage to take up calculated risks for the smooth functioning of.the business.

(b) Two benefits of Ergonomics are as follows
(i) Ergonomics reduces the risk of injury and accidents and creates a safer work environment at the workplace.
(ii) Ergonomics increases productivity and combines different ideas to make workstations feel more comfortable.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 27.
(a) Discuss types of feeding routes in case oral feeding is not possible.
(b) Write a note on a soft diet. [2+1=3].
Answer:
(a) Types of feeding routes in the absence of oral feeding include

  • Tube Feeding In tube feeding, a nutritionally complete diet is given to the patients through a tube. Diet is delivered through the nose into the stomach as long as the gastrointestinal tract is functional and the person is able to digest and absorb food.
  • Intravenous Feeding In intravenous feeding, the patient is nourished with special solutions which are given through a drip in a vein.

(b) Soft diet provides soft whole food that is lightly seasoned and is similar to the regular diet. The foods included in this type of diet are soft in consistency, easy to chew and made of simple, easily digestible foods

Question 28.
Describe some inventions that helped France to become the Fashion capital of the world in the 18th century.
Or
Describe the role of Fashion merchandisers in the promotion of the products [3].
Answer:
France became the Fashion capital of the world in the 18th century. There were many inventions and events that helped it to be a main player in the fashion industry. The Industrial Revolution led to the emergence of technological advancements in textile and apparel production. Due to these developments, more fabrics were produced in less time.

Spinning jenny and power looms were invented during this period. This further gave rise to the development of the American textile industry. The foot treadle for the sewing machine was developed in 1859 by Issac Singer. This helped in making the hands free to guide the fabric.

Or

A Fashion merchandiser, who works for the designer, promoting the designer’s product to stores that may want to buy large quantities is the most essential priority. Fashion merchandising promotes a designer’s items through fashion shows where creations and visual effects are exaggerated to seek the attention of potential buyers.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Fashion merchandisers also seek out the target market for designer clothing such as children’s clothing stores, department stores or discount retailers. A Fashion merchandiser must possess a creative mind and strong visual merchandising skills and also sharp production skills.

Question 29.
Write a note on the following [3].
(a) Front Office Supervisor.
(b) Floor Supervisor.
(c) Kitchen Stewarding.
Answer:
(a) Front Office Supervisor is responsible for a shift. Meets and greets all arrivals, ensuring accurate and speedy rooming procedure. She/File also checks occupancy.
(b) Floor Supervisor is responsible for the cleanliness and maintenance of guest rooms, corridors and staircase and floor pantries.
(c) Kitchen Stewarding is responsible for the storage, maintenance, cleanliness and issue of cutlery, crockery and glassware to the restaurant and kitchen.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
Mr Gupta has opened his own food processing unit. [1+1+2=4].
(a) What are some of the formulated foods he can make in his unit?
(b) Mention some skills required by Mr Gupta while making a recipe.
(c) Which methods can be used by Mr Gupta in order to produce the maximum quantity of fresh foods in his unit?
Or
Mrs Mehta is a clinical nutritionist. As a clinical nutritionist
(a) Discuss her major roles.
(b) Paresh is undergoing diet therapy under the guidance of Mrs Mehta. What is diet therapy?
(c) Neeta is pregnant. How can Mrs Mehta help Neeta through diet?
Answer:
(a) Mr Gupta can make formulated food products such as bread, biscuits, ice-creams, cakes, sweet rolls, etc. These food products are prepared by mixing and processing individual ingredients that result in relatively shelf-stable food.

(b) Mr Gupta can acquire some skills while making a recipe such as expertise in cooking, knowledge of nature and properties of food, uses of ingredients, as well as designing, analysing and adapting a basic recipe, food products and production following hygiene and safety norms.

(c) In order to produce the maximum quantity of fresh food and retain the quality of fresh foods, food is processed as little as possible. Some of the processes that can be implied by Mr Gupta in this include cleaning, trimming, shelling, cutting, slicing and storage at low temperatures, i.e., refrigeration temperatures

Or

(a) Major roles of Mrs Mehta as a clinical nutritionist include

  • Providing advice and translating technical information into dietary guidelines.
  • Providing advice to patients, giving prescriptions to healthy individuals at different stages of the life cycle i.e. pregnancy, infancy and childhood up to old age (womb to the tomb) in order to help them maintain good nutritional status and to remain healthy.

(b) Diet therapy is the branch of dietetics concerned with the use of foods for therapeutic purposes. It may involve the alteration or adoption of a diet to prevent or treat a disease or to simply promote optimum health. Various health conditions such as diarrhoea, vomiting, pancreatic disorders, metabolic syndrome, liver disorders, etc require diet therapy through a well-qualified dietitian such as Mrs Mehta.

(c) Mrs Mehta as a well-qualified nutritionist can prescribe a diet full of nutrients such as iron, folic acid, and vitamins which will be helpful during Neeta’s pregnancy. She may remove some foods which will be harmful to her and the baby as well as add some foods which help in the healthy development of the fetus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 31.
What is a colour scheme? Discuss the Relative colour scheme.[4]
Answer:
Colour schemes are used as guides for combining colours. Colour schemes are best studied with reference to the colour wheel. Related colour schemes have at least one hue in common. They are as follows

  • Monochromatic Harmony It means harmony based on one hue. This single hue may be varied in value or intensity.
  • Achromatic Harmony It uses only neutrals such as a combination of black and white.
  • Accented Neutral Harmony It uses one hue and a neutral or achromatic colour.
  • Analogous Harmony It refers to a colour combination using two or three hues that lie side by side on the colour wheel. The use of four or more hues may create a jumble unless each one is in a very small quantity.

Question 32.
(a) Write a note on ECCE. [1+1+2=4].
(b) Discuss the concept of Infancy in ECCE.
(c) Which approach is beneficial for the development of children’s ECCE?
Or
Discuss the importance of Institutional Care for children. [4].
Answer:
(a) ‘Early Childhood Care and Education’ (ECCE) refers to a range of processes and mechanisms that sustain and support development during the early years of life. Recently, there has been an increasing need for institutional childcare facilities. Under ECCE, such a supportive and congenial atmosphere is created where a child feels free to express his/her capabilities.

(b) Infancy in ECCE is the period between birth and one or two years. In this period, a child is totally dependent on adults for everyday needs, that may be a mother, a father or any other primary caregiver.

(c) Child-centred approach is beneficial for the development of children in ECCE. The child-centred approach looks at the child’s holistic development. It will enable the child to make decisions and solve problems. It allows the child to develop confidently and independently. The child’s ideas, preferences, and curiosities are all taken into account.

Or

Institutional Care is a type of residential care for large groups of children. It is characterised by a one-size-fits-all approach according to which the same service is provided to all children irrespective of their age, gender, abilities, and needs. The importance of Institutional Care for children is as follows

  • Due to fewer resources, several communities especially those living in remote areas, are unable to send their older children to schools. This is basically due to the responsibility given to them for the care of their younger siblings as their parents are indulged in work outside.
  • This inevitably hinders their education Thus, institutional care of young children is important for the old child as well because he/she will be released from the task of child care and can continue his/her studies.
  •  The institutional services also provide for their nutrition and health besides their learning as per requirements. These services help to support society in the task of developing and building the next generation for the future.
  • Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) not only benefits a childhood but also a child’s family and eventually the community in performing the task of raising a child right.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 33.
Gaurav is the Senior Restaurant Supervisor at Meridian Hotel. What is his role as a Senior Restaurant Supervisor? [4].
Or
Aman is an Assistant Housekeeper at Sunrise Hotel. What are his roles as an Assistant Housekeeper?
Answer:
Gaurav as the Senior Restaurant Supervisor at Meridian Hotel leads a team of Waiters/Stewards who actually serve the food and the Assistant Waiter who clears the table. They keep a close watch that the standard of cleanliness, hygiene and service are maintained. He is also responsible for supervising all aspects of the restaurant for its smooth operation on a daily basis, delegating tasks to all the restaurant personnel and ensuring that the responsibilities are completed in a timely manner.

Or

As an Assistant Housekeeper at Sunrise Hotel, Aman is responsible for preparing duty schedules and checking the cleanliness and functioning of the workers. He is responsible for ensuring that hotel rooms are clean and tidy for guests. He must be conversant in all duties of the Housekeeping Department and is responsible to hire, train and plan department work schedules.

He is also responsible to report immediately any maintenance issues such as furniture, fittings and equipment to the Head of the Department to ensure operational excellence in the department. He also participates in and enforces quality assurance for Housekeeping Department and department cost control measures

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 34.
Write a note on microbial food-borne pathogens.
Or
Discuss various functions of the FSSAI Act 2006. [5].
Answer:
Microbial food-borne pathogens (e.g. viruses, bacteria, parasites) are biological agents that can cause a food-borne illness event. Among various hazards, biological hazards are an important cause which leads to food-borne illnesses. Despite so many efforts in the area of food safety, microbial food-borne pathogens are still a serious concern and new pathogens continue to emerge and evolve.

Factors that are significant in the emergence of pathogens include human hosts, animal hosts, pathogens’ interaction with humans, the pathogen itself and the environment in which food is produced, processed, handled and stored. There are genetic exchanges or mutations in the organisms which can create new strains with the potential to cause disease.

New pathogens can emerge through changes in eating habits, climate, mass production, food processing and increased globalisation of the food supply which further allows pathogens to emerge in new populations or new geographic areas. Other than there changes in host susceptibility due to malnutrition, age and conditions can allow for the emergence of new infections in vulnerable populations.

Or

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been mandated by the Food Safety Standards (FSS) Act, 2006 for performing the following functions

  •  Framing of regulations to lay down the standards and guidelines for articles of food and system of enforcing various standards.
  • Laying down mechanisms and guidelines for accreditation of certification bodies for certification of food safety management systems for food businesses and accreditation of laboratories and notification of the accredited laboratories.
  • To provide scientific advice and technical support to Central Government and State Governments for framing the policy and rules related to food safety and nutrition.
  •  Provide training programmes for persons who are involved or intend to get involved in food businesses.
  •  Contribute to the development of international technical standards for food, sanitary and phytosanitary standards.
  •  Promote general awareness about food safety and food standards.
  • Collect and collate data regarding food consumption, incidence and prevalence of biological risk, contaminants in food, residues of various contaminants in foods products, identification of emerging risks and introduction of the rapid alert system.
  •  Creating an information network across the country so that the public, consumers, panchayats, etc receive rapid, reliable and objective information about food safety and issues of concern.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 6 With Solutions

Question 35.
Minal is a Fashion designer. She wishes to create a skirt with a lined design. [3+1+1=5].
(a) Which type of lines can she add to her skirt?
(b) Which lines can she add in order to make her skirt graceful?
(c) Which lines should Minal avoid in order to exaggerate size?
Answer:
(a) Minal can add the following types of lines to her skirt

  •  Vertical lines stress up and down movement. They emphasise height and give a severe, dignified and reserved effect.
  • Horizontal lines stress side-to-side movement and create an illusion of width. As these lines repeat the ground line, they give a stable and placid effect.
  • Oblique or Diagonal lines increase or decrease in width and height depending on the degree and direction of the angle. They can create an active, startling or dramatic effect.
  •  A curved line is a line which has any degree of roundness. It can be in a shape of a simple arc or a complicated free-hand curve.

(b) Minal can add long and flowing curved lines because these lines appear most graceful and rhythmic which will make her skirt more graceful.
(c) Minal should avoid using large rounded curved lines in her skirt. These lines lend a dramatic touch and tend to exaggerate size.

 

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
Which of the following constitutes various views of work? [1].
(a) Job
(b) Dharma
(c) Source of joy and fulfillment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) All of the above.

Question 2.
Iron deficiency results in low levels of __________. [1].
(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Plasma
(c) Enzymes
(d) Red blood cells
Answer:
(a) Hemoglobin.

Question 3.
Standard of living refers to which of the following factors? [1].
I. Income
II. Quality and availability of employment
III. National Income growth
IV Political and religious freedom
Choose the correct option
(a) I and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I, II, and IV
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III, and IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 4.
Deficiency of which of the following vitamins is the most common cause of child blindness? [1].
(a) Vitamin B12
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin A
Answer:
(d) Vitamin A

Question 5.
Modified diets involve which of the following? [1].
I. Change in consistency and texture
II. An increase or decrease in energy intake
III. the Greater or lesser amount of one or more nutrients
IV. Modification in the number of meals
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, III, and IV
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II, III, and IV
(d) I and II
Answer:
(a) I, II, III, and IV

Question 6.
Match the following [1].

List 1 List II
A. Infant 1. Age between birth and one year
B. Toddler 2. Children between two and three years
C. Pre-school child 3. A child with the extra-familial environment
D. ICDS 4. Anganwadis

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer:
(b) 1 3 2 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18.

Depending on the condition, patients may be advised to a liquid, soft or regular diet. Liquid diets are primarily fluid in consistency at room temperature. Also known as full-fluid diets, these include foods that are free from fiber and are nutritionally adequate. The advantage is that the nutrients are easily absorbed if the gastrointestinal tract is functioning normally. Such a diet is advised for persons who are unable to chew or swallow normally.

For example, coconut water, fruit juice, soup, milk, buttermilk, milkshakes, etc. A variation of this is also a clear liquid diet, which is even thinner in consistency, e.g., clear soups or juices (without pulp), very light tea, etc. A clear liquid diet is prescribed just after surgery. However, the limitation is that it is not easy to meet the nutritional requirements of the person completely. Soft diets provide semi-solid foods that are lightly seasoned and do not contain much fibrous or gas-forming foods. Such diets are easy to chew and digest.

Question 14.
Which of the following dietary changes are responsible for chronic diseases? [1].
I. Fat consumption
II. Increase in non-vegetarian consumption
III. Decrease in fiber consumption
IV. Decrease in physical activity
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, II, and III
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III, and IV

Question 15.
Which of the following foods are included in soft diets? [1].
I. Khichdi
II. Sago
III. Kheer
IV Oats
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(c) I, II, III, and IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 16.
Which of the following diet is prescribed just after surgery? [1].
(a) Clear liquid diet.
(c) Regular diet.
(b) Soft diet.
(d) Modified diet.
Answer:
(a) Clear liquid diet.

Question 17.
______ is advisable for persons who are unable to chew or normally.[1].
(a) Soft diet.
(b) Liquid diet.
(c) Regular diet.
(d) Modified diet.
Answer:
(b) Liquid diet.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 18.
Which of the following diet do not meet the nutritional requirements of a person? [1].
(a) Liquid diet.
(c) Modified diet.
(b) Soft diet.
(d) Clear liquid diet.
Answer:
(d) Clear liquid diet.

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Pranav is suffering from food intoxication, while gathering information about his condition on the internet, he came across information about an organism known as Staphylococcus Aureus. Where are these organisms present?[2].
Answer:
Staphylococcus Aureus exists in air, dust, and water. They are also present in the nasal passage, throat, and on the skin, and hair of 50 percent of healthy individuals. People who carry this organism, contaminate food if they touch these places on the body while food handling. Diarrhea is also one of the symptoms of this contamination.

Question 20.
(a) Explain the difference between a daycare and a creche. [2].
(b) Write a note on Juvenile Homes.
Answer:
(a) Daycare is the care of children in the pre-school years and may include infants and pre-schoolers, who are cared for, again in the absence of a primary caregiver at home. While cache refers to an institution designed for the care of infants and young children in the absence of home care.

(b) Homes where children whose families are not traceable or are unfit/dead or simply unwilling to take the child backstay are called Juvenile/Children’s Homes

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 21.
(a) Write a note on the nature of laundry in the hospitals. [2].
(b) What is texture? How can it be described?
Answer:
(a) The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness, and disinfection. The daily laundry thus emphasizes mainly the cleanliness of cotton materials.
(b) Texture is the sensory impression of sight and touch and refers to the tactile and visual qualities of the material. Each material has a distinctive texture. Texture can be described in terms of how it looks, how it behaves, and how it feels.

Question 22.
Prachi is a hospitality student. She is very jolly, communicative, and welcoming. Which department should she join while working in a hotel? [2].
Or
Rishabh loves to maintain cleanliness and hygiene. He also loves maintaining the aesthetics and decorating. Which department should he join in a hotel?
Answer:
Taking into consideration the nature of Prachi, she should work in the Front Office Department of a hotel. The services offered by the front office staff include welcoming guests, meeting and greeting them, organizing reservation status of room availability, and so on. For this, the staff needs to be communicative, jolly, and lively.

Or

If Rishabh loves maintaining cleanliness and hygiene as well as maintaining aesthetics, he should join the Housekeeping department in a hotel. The prime role of this department is to maintain cleanliness and space hygiene and is also responsible for the cleaning of public areas and guestrooms.

Question 23.
Write a note on composition in Fashion design. [2].
Answer:
A composition in Fashion design is defined as an artwork or concept developed by the arrangement or placement of elements of design and applying principles of design in the best possible way in a given space. It can be two-dimensional as well as three-dimensional.

Question 24.
Briefly discuss Community Radio Station.
Or
Why is radio a popular form of media in villages? [2].
Answer:
Community Radio Station is run and managed by local people and the contents are for local use in their local dialect. It generally supports local programs of development. It gives the opportunity to people to participate and express their views and display their talents.

Or

Radio is a popular form of media in villages as it has an advantage over television. This is because it is available at a comparatively lower cost. Radio is the most accessible mass medium. It is a mobile medium i.e. it can move with the listener at work (farms) or at rest

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 25.
Raghav is a Print Journalist. As a Print Journalist what might be his nature of work?
Or
Isha is interested in watching and gathering information about wildlife. How can make the best possible use of television for this purpose? [2].
Answer:
Since Raghav is a Print Journalist he can cover different stories and send them to the editors of different dailies. His working day may involve interviewing people, attending press conferences or making phone calls, and sending emails to create story leads.

Or

Since Isha loves watching and gathering information about the wildlife she can watch these on television. She can opt for channels such as Discovery or National Geographic which telecast various wildlife-related programs. Television today offers a variety of programs through several channels, of immense educational value.

Question 26.
(a) Write a note on the quality of Life. [1+2=3].
(b) Mention any four factors that can be used to measure the quality of life.
Answer:
(a) Quality of Life takes into account not only the material standard of living but also other intangible aspects of human life such as leisure, safety, cultural resources, social life, physical health, environmental quality, etc.

(b) Four factors that can be used to measure the quality of life are as follows

  • Freedom from slavery and torture
  •  Equal protection of the law
  • Freedom from discrimination Freedom of movement

Question 27.
(a) Discuss any four classifications of processing foods.
(b) What are the physical hazards of food? Explain with some examples [2+1=3].
Answer:
(a) Four classifications of processing foods are as follows
(i) Minimally Processed Foods These are processed as little as possible in order to retain the quality of fresh foods.
(ii) Preserved Foods The methods of preservation used do not change the character of the product substantially.

(iii) Manufactured Foods In such products, the original characteristics of the raw products are lost and some basic methods of preservation are used, often using various ingredients such as salt, sugar, oil, or even chemical preservatives.

(iv) Formulated Foods These are products prepared by mixing and processing individual ingredients to result in relatively shelf-stable food products.

(b) Physical hazard is any physical material not normally found in food, which causes illness or injury. Wood, stones, parts of pests, hair, etc are some examples of physical hazards.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 28.
Discuss the concepts of style, fads, and classics in Fashion design.
Or
Discuss the concepts of Fashion Merchandising and Fashion merchandiser. [3].
Answer:
Style It is any particular look or characteristic in apparel or accessories. A style may come and go in fashion but the specific style always remains. Fads or short-lived fashions come and go in a single season. They lack the design strength to hold consumer attention for a long.

For example, hot pants, baggy pants, and unmatched buttons. Classic styles never become completely obsolete, but instead, remain more or less accepted for an extended period. Classic is characterized by simplicity of design, which keeps it from being easily dated. Examples of classics include shrugs, polo shirts, jeans, and jackets.

Or

Fashion merchandising refers to the planning required to have the right merchandise, at the right time, at the right place, at the right price, and with the right sales promotion. A fashion merchandiser is a person who facilitates the conversion of inspiration into the design and uses technology to conceptualize and address the planning, production, promotion, and distribution of products in the fashion industry, to meet the needs and demands of a consumer.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 29.
Describe the functions of the following personnel [3].
(a) Front Office Manager
(b) Executive Housekeeper
(c) Executive Chef
Answer:
(a) Front Office Manager is responsible for managing the front office, lobby, transport activities, schedules shifts/staff rotations, and duties of the staff in shifts since all hotels work for 24 hours.

(b) Executive Housekeeper is responsible for managing the functioning of the department through judicious use of manpower, materials, money, time, and other available resources. He/She checks schedules, cleanliness, and all functioning of the housekeeping department.

(c) The Executive Chef is the head of the kitchen responsible for planning, organizing, and controlling the kitchen operations.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
The milkman adds equal parts of water to an equal amount of milk. This was observed by Suresh. [2+2=4].
(a) The substance added to milk is known as
(b) This process of the addition of a substance in milk is known as
Or
Mr. Joshi wants to ensure the quality of food in his restaurant. [1+1+2=4]
(a) Which factors should he consider in order to maintain the quality of food?
(b) Which is the primary factor Mr. Joshi must ensure regarding his food?
(c) Name some practices Mr. Joshi can adopt to maintain food safety.
Answer:
(a) Substance added to milk is known as an adulterant. Adulterants are those substances that are used for making food products unsafe for human consumption.

(b) The process of the addition of a substance in milk is known as adulteration. Food adulteration is the process in which the quality of food is lowered either by the addition of inferior quality material or by extraction of valuable ingredients. It not only includes the intentional addition or substitution of the substances but biological and chemical contamination during the period of growth, storage, processing, transport, and distribution of the food products. It is also responsible for lowering or degradation of the quality of food products.

Or

(a) Mr. Joshi should consider some factors while maintaining the quality of food such as nutritional traits, and sensorial properties like color, texture, shape, appearance, taste, flavor, odor, social considerations, and safety.

(b) Mr. Joshi should consider safety as a primary factor regarding food. If the food at his restaurant is unsafe to consume, his restaurant shall not provide business. Safety is a preliminary attribute and precursor of quality.

(c) Some practices Mr. Joshi can adopt to maintain food safety include

  • Quality of raw materials and water
  • Cleanliness of the premises, personnel, equipment, food preparation and storage, and serving areas storage of food at the appropriate temperature
  •  Food hygiene
  •  Good service practices

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 31.
What is the difference between an individual laundry and a commercial laundry? [4].
Answer:
The difference between individual laundry and commercial laundry is that in individual laundry the customer takes the articles for cleaning and comes back a few days later to collect the finished articles. The customer may be an individual or an institution.

It takes care of clothing and small articles of daily use. The commercial laundries are organized in different sections. Each section deals with a specific job, such as washing, water extraction, drying, pressing, and ironing.

Some laundries may have a separate section for hospital and institutional work, and another for individual and personal work. They also may have separate sections for dry-cleaning, for fiber-specific articles like woolens, silks, and synthetics, and for special articles like blankets and carpets. Some laundries also have arrangements for dyeing and special finishes like zari polishing. These laundries have bigger equipment and in larger numbers,

Question 32.
(a) Explain the importance of creche as a caregiver for infants.
(b) Write a short note on how National Integration can reduce the vulnerability of youth. [1+1+2=4].
(c) Write a note on various programs for the care of the elderly.
Or
Discuss any three programs to reduce the vulnerability of youth. [4].
Answer:
(a) Creche is the name given to an institutional setting that is particularly designed for the care of infants and young children in the absence of home care. Creche is a very important institution as Infancy is a period of intense dependence on adults, usually the mother or father or any other primary caregiver. The creche serves as a caregiving institution for infants and intensely takes care of their needs.

(b) Promotion of National Integration reduced the vulnerability of youth in order to promote a greater understanding of the historical and cultural heritage of the country, of the problems being faced by the people of different regions and environments, social customs, etc in other parts of the country, Camps, seminars, etc are also organized with the objective of promoting National Integration.

(c) Various programs for the care of the elderly are as follows

  •  Programs catering to the basic needs of older persons particularly food, shelter, and health care for the destitute elderly.
  •  Programs to build and strengthen intergenerational relationships, particularly between children/youth and older persons.
  • Programs for encouraging active and productive aging.

Or

Three programs to reduce the vulnerability of youth are as follows
(i) Promotion of Adventure Many youth clubs and voluntary organizations organize activities like mountaineering, trekking, hiking, etc. These activities are aimed at encouraging the spirit of adventure, risk-taking, cooperative teamwork, the capacity of ready and vital response to challenging situations, and endurance among the youth.

(ii) Scouts and Guides The Government provides financial support for training scouts and guides, organizing rallies, jamborees, etc. This aims at developing the character of boys and girls to make them good citizens by inculcating in them a spirit of loyalty, patriotism, and thoughtfulness for others. It also promotes balanced physical and mental development and inculcates a desire for social service.

(iii) Commonwealth Youth Programme Commonwealth Youth Programme is aimed at making the youth participate in the development processes of their respective countries and to provide a forum for increasing cooperation and understanding among the Commonwealth countries.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 33.
Mr. Sharma owns a soap-making factory. He wants to make sure his products are genuine by getting them an Ecomark certification. In this regard discuss the Ecomark scheme. [4]
Answer:
Mr. Sharma must obtain Ecomark certification for his soaps. It will ensure the genuinity of the product. Eco mark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for products such as soaps, detergents, paper, etc which are ecologically safe and adheres to the standards prescribed by the BIS. It was first issued in 1991 by a resolution.

It is issued by the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Products that meet the prescribed environmental criteria, as well as quality standards set by BIS, will be issued the Ecomark label. An earthen pot has been chosen as the logo for the Ecomark scheme in India. The familiar earthen pot uses a renewable resource like Earth and does not produce hazardous waste.

Question 34.
How is the study of clinical nutrition and dietetics enables the professional? [5].
Or
Discuss some of the consequences of dietary changes in day-to-day life
Answer:
A study of clinical nutrition and dietetics enables the professional to

  • Plan diets appropriately to meet the nutritional requirements at various stages of the life cycle.
  •  Modify diets for various disease conditions, keeping in mind the physical state, occupation, cultural, ethnic, and socio-economic background, the treatment regimen, and the individual’s likes and dislikes.
  •  Plan diets for athletes/sports persons, for individuals in special situations such as nutrition in space, persons working in submarines, defense personnel, industrial workers, etc.
  • Promote the health and well-being of patients admitted to hospitals or in outpatient clinics as well as in institutional settings.
  •  Manage food services in a variety of institutional settings such as old age homes, schools, orphanages, etc.
  • Help patients with chronic diseases such as diabetes and heart disease in management, to prevent complications and improve quality of life.
  • Promote better health in the community and better efficacy of services in health care institutions/ establishments in terms of better patient care management, and holistic care, and contribute to better survival and recovery.

Or

Dietary changes have been associated with increased incidences of chronic diseases such as obesity, cancer of the colon, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and hypertension. It has also been observed that fat consumption has increased, and refined sugar consumption has increased. There is a reduced intake of fiber as well as several vitamins and minerals. In non-vegetarian populations, the consumption of animal protein has also increased.

For example, the increase in sugar and fat consumption, along with the decrease in fiber consumption and less physical activity, play a role in causing obesity and diabetes. It has also been found that high consumption of highly salted convenience foods, processed foods with high sodium content, decreased intake of potassium-rich fruits, vegetables, grains, and legumes, possibly low calcium intakes, less physical activity, as well as stress, are associated with increased risk of hypertension (high blood pressure).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 5 With Solutions

Question 35.
Simran is a Fashion designer who wishes to design a dress. [2+2+1=5].
(a) What kind of shapes can she add to enhance its look?
(b) How can she add proportion to her dress considering it as a skirt and a blouse?
(c) How can Simran ensure the proportion of texture in her dress?
Answer:
(a) If Simran wishes to add shapes to the outfit, she may add the following kinds of shapes

  •  Natural shapes are those that copy nature or common shapes of man-made objects.
  • Stylized shapes are simplified or modified natural shapes. They may have some parts distorted or exaggerated.
  •  Geometric shapes are those that can be mathematically formed or gives a similar impression. They can be formed by using rulers, compasses, or other measuring instruments.
  • Abstract shapes are free-form. They do not resemble any specific object but may represent different things. to different people because of personal association.

(b) Simran can add proportion to her dress by the general rule of the proportion of golden mean which is represented by ratios like 3:5:8 to 5:8:13. In a skirt and blouse dress, the blouse represents 3, the skirt should represent 5, and combined effect represents 8.

(c) Simran can achieve a proportion of texture when various textures of material used for making a dress increase or decrease the size of the person wearing the garment. For example, if she uses heavy and bulky textures on a thin and petite person then they might appear overpowering.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.

The concept of 8 hours a day or 40 hours a week originated in__________. [1].
(a) Britain
(b) America
(c) China
(d) Japan
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 2.
Kerala is famous for which of the following crafts?[1].
(a) Warli painting
(b) Bamboo craft
(c) Coconut craft
(d) Madhubani painting
Answer:
(c) Coconut craft

Question 3.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions Q.3
The above image is a type of which hazard in food. [1].
(a) Physical Hazard.
(b) Chemical Hazard.
(c) Biological Hazard.
(d) Invisible Microbiological Hazard.
Answer:
(d) Invisible Microbiological Hazard.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 4.
_________is the presence of harmful substances in the food. [1].
(a) Contamination
(b) Adulteration
(c) Food intoxication
(d) Food poisoning
Answer:
(a) Contamination.

Question 5.
Which of the following factor determines the food quality? [1].
I. Nutritional traits
II. Safety
III. Odour
IV. Taste
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) II, III, and IV
Answer:
(c) I, II, III, and IV

Question 6.
FSSAI comes under which level of standard for food quality? [1].
(a) National Standard.
(b) Company Standard.
(c) Regional Standard.
(d) International Standard.
Answer:
(a) National Standard.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 7.
Food Code is a document published by which International Organisation? [1].
(a) WTO.
(c) CAC.
(b) ISO.
(d) EU.
Answer:
(c) CAC

Question 8.
A child between two and three years is known as ______ [1].
(a) Infant.
(b) Pre-school child.
(c) Toddler.
(d) Kid.
Answer:
(c) Toddler.

Question 9.
The Juvenile Justice Act was launched for the first time in which year in India? [1].
(b) 2002
(d) 2000
(a) 2001
(c) 2006
Answer:
(d) 2000

Question 10.
Match the following.

List 1 List II
A. Primary colour 1. Purple
B. Secondary colour 2. Yellow
C. Tertiary colour 3. Metallic
D. Neutral colour 4. Red-Orange

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer:
(c) 2 1 4 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 11.
Principles of design include which of the following elements? [1].
I. Texture
III. Proportion
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) I, II and III
II. Balance
IV. Emphasis
(b) I and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 12.
Which of the following rights are included in Consumer Rights in India? [1].
I. Right to be Heard
II. Right to Seek Redressal
III. Right to Appeal
IV. Right to be Informed
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(c) I, II and IV
(b) II and III
(d) I, II and III
Answer:
(c) I, II and IV

Question 13.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. Campaign 1. Swacch Bharat Abhiyaan
B. Television 2. Jingles
C. Print media 3. Mobile Banking
D. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) 4. Project Village Chhetra

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer:
(a) 1 2 4 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18.
As our former Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh stated in one of his speeches “The problem of malnutrition is a matter of national shame. I appeal to the nation to resolve and work hard to eradicate malnutrition in 5 years”. There is a need to adopt a multi-disciplinary approach to solving nutritional problems. The government is making considerable efforts to solve the problems.

Poshan Abhiyaan or the PM’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition was launched in Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan in Marc 2018. It targets stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and low birth rate. It is meant to monitor and review the implementation of all such schemes. Its large component involves the gradual scaling-up of interventions to all districts in the country by 2022.

Question 14.
Poshan Abhiyaan was launched in which year?[1].
(a) 2019.
(b) 2018.
(c) 2017.
(d) 2019.
Answer:
(b) 2018

Question 15.
Poshan Abhiyaan was first launched in which state?[1].
(a) Maharashtra.
(b) Rajasthan.
(c) Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Gujarat.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 16.
Which of the following conditions are treated under Poshan Abhiyaan? [1].
I. Stunting
II. Undernutrition
III. Anaemia
IV Low birth rate
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 17.
Anaemia is caused by the deficiency of _____. [1].
(a) Iron.
(b) Vitamin C.
(c) Vitamin A.
(d) Calcium.
Answer:
(a) Iron

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 18.
In which of the following states the deficiency of iodine is common? [1].
I. Jammu and Kashmir
II. Andhra Pradesh
III. Maharashtra
IV Madhya Pradesh
Choose the correct option
(a) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(b) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Ashish’s eyesight is getting weaker day by day and he is no more able to see around normally, especially at night. Which deficiency is present in Ashish? [2].
Answer:
Ashish is suffering from a deficiency of Vitamin A which causes Night blindness. Vitamin A is necessary for the maintenance of healthy epithelium, normal vision, growth and immunity. Vitamin A deficiency is also the most common cause of childhood blindness

Question 20.
(a) Why are youth, a vulnerable section in society? Give any two reasons. [2].
(b) Give reasons as to why children are a vulnerable section of society.
Answer:
(a) Two reasons responsible for the vulnerability of youth are
(i) Due to peer pressure and pressure to excel in an increasingly competitive world which causes a lot of stress and, turmoil.
(ii) A disturbed family environment is unable to provide positive support to the adolescent, some adolescents may consume alcohol and drugs.

(b) Children are a vulnerable section of society because childhood is a period of rapid development in all domains (JD development in one area influences development in all other areas. A child can grow when his/her need for food, shelter, health care, etc are met in a holistic manner.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 21.
Preeti is learning about the concept of colour at her Fashion Designing Institute. She has come across the word chroma. What is chroma? [2]
Answer:
Chroma or intensity in Fashion design is the brightness or purity of colour. Dullness results when the colour is blended with another colour specifically with a colour opposite to it on the colour wheel.

Question 22.
Renu is facing many problems with the new radio she has purchased. The radio company is not attending to her repeated calls and complaints. Her friends suggested she approach a consumer forum. What is a consumer forum? [2].
Or
Rupesh’s business of jams and pickles is facing some issues. Although his jams are being sold at good numbers, his pickles do not have a demand. He has been asked to
check for consumer footfalls so that he can resolve the issue. In this context, what is consumer footfalls?
Answer:
A consumer forum is a place or an organisation where consumers can seek protection and help them address their problems faced regarding products and services.

Or

Consumer footfall means the number of customers/consumers who visit any given space such as a store or a mall. Thus, with increasing consumption in a country, consumer footfall increases

Question 23.
What is a split complementary contrast scheme in Fashion design? [2].
Answer:
Split-complementary contrast scheme in Fashion design is a three-colour scheme using one hue and its complement and neighbour. Instead of using a complementary colour, two colours placed symmetrically around it on the colour wheel are used.

Question 24.
Write a note on Development Journalism. [2].
Or
Write a note on Development Communication.
Answer:
Development Journalism is a relatively newer concept. It has come into existence after the colonial era ended. Development Journalism focuses on success stories of people who have adopted new technologies, tried new methods and helped society. It seeks to describe the people at work in new projects and processes.

Or

Development Communication is utilising the power of communication as a catalyst for social development. It is the practice of systematically applying the processes, strategies and principles of communication to bring about positive social change. The term Development Communication was first coined in 1972 by Quebral

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 25.
Raghav and his college friends wish to spread awareness regarding sanitation and hygiene in their city. Which is the best possible way to spread awareness in their city?[2].
Or
Mr Narendra wants to expand his business. His friend suggested he make the best use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT). How can he make its best use?
Answer:
Raghav and his friends can spread awareness regarding sanitation and hygiene by organising a campaign. A campaign will create public awareness and shall provide a specific message. It lasts in the memory of the people and stimulates action. It creates a conducive environment for the adoption of practices.

Or

Mr Narendra can make the best use of ICT in expanding his business by making use of mobile phones. He can use his phone in banking to maintain records of his account. He also uses the phone for marketing his products. He can also look after the distribution of his products and services and keep a track of his employment status.

Question 26.
(a) Discuss the importance of rest and relaxation from the fatigue of work. [2+1=3].
(b) What is Human Development Index?
Answer:
(a) Rest and relaxation are important parts of life. All living beings need to relax and recoup to ensure better output and productivity, from fatigue from work and refresh themselves. In order to ensure good quality of life and well-being, it is important to avail of opportunities to rest, involve in recreational and leisure activities.

(b) Human Development Index (HDI) is a development parameter which considers life expectancy at birth, adult literacy rates and per capita Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to measure a country’s level of development.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 27.
(a) Write a note on Protein Energy Malnutrition and Iron-Deficiency Anemia.[2+1=3]
(b) How is diet or food-based strategy useful in Public Nutrition?
Answer:
(a) Protein Energy Malnutrition(PEM) is caused by inadequate food intake vis-a-vis the requirements i.e. insufficient intake of the macronutrients (energy and protein). Children are at the greatest risk although PEM can occur in adults especially the elderly, as well as in some diseases.

Iron-Deficiency Anemia (IDA) occurs when haemoglobin production is considerably reduced and it results in low levels of haemoglobin in the blood. Since haemoglobin is required for carrying oxygen in the body, any physical exertion leads to shortness of breath, fatigue and lethargy.

(b) Diet or food-based strategies play an important role in preventing micronutrient deficiencies by increasing the availability and consumption of micronutrient-rich foods. One of the important advantages of this strategy is that it is sustainable and will have long-term benefits.

Question 28.
Discuss the organisational structure of Fashion Retail Organisations. [3].
Or
Discuss major divisions in Fashion Retail Organisations.
Answer:
The organisational structure of Fashion Retail
Organisations are as follows

  • A small single-unit store is a neighbourhood store. These are the owner and family-operated single stores.
  • Department stores consist of separate sections, known as departments, such as clothing, sporting goods, automotive supplies, health and beauty products and electronics equipment. Some department stores may also sell food products.
  •  Chain stores are retail outlets that share a brand and central management and usually have standardised business methods and practices.

Or

Major divisions in Fashion Retail Organisations are as follows

  • Merchandising Division It includes buying, merchandise planning and control, selling and fashion coordination.
  •  Sales and Promotion Division It includes advertising, visual merchandising, special events, publicity and public relations.
  • Finance and Control Division It includes credit, accounts payable and inventory control.
  •  Operational Division, It includes maintenance of facilities, stores and merchandise protection, personnel, customer service and receiving and marking of merchandise.
  • Personnel and Branch Store Division It may function separately if the store operations are very large.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 29.
Discuss the following problems faced by consumers worldwide. [3].
(a) Adulteration.
(b) High prices.
(c) Lack of consumer information.
Answer:
(a) Adulteration A substance is said to be adulterated when some substances are either added to or removed from a product. Adulteration is a serious problem not only because it is exploitative but because it can cause harm to the health and safety of the consumer.

(b) High Prices Prices are influenced by government policy, availability, quality, method of distribution, costs of promotion, method of purchase and consumer’s desire for convenience. Some suppliers may overcharge when they find that the customer is not well-informed and lacks knowledge.

(c) Lack of Consumer Information Most consumers are unaware of their rights and responsibilities and do not know the various legislative provisions that have been made to protect them.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
Raj is suffering from Goitre. The doctor has diagnosed that it is due to a deficiency of [2+2=4].
(a) Goitre is related to which gland in the human body?
(b) How does Iodine deficiency affect the pregnancy? iodine.
Or
Neha is undergoing training to be a public nutritionist and is looking for various opportunities in this field.
(a) What are some key areas that Neha needs to have a thorough knowledge of in order to complete this course?
(b) Name some developmental programmes where Neha can work after the completion of her course.
(c) How can she help young children and pregnant women through her training? [1+1+2=4].
Answer:
a) Goitre is related to the thyroid gland in the human body. An enlarged thyroid is known as ‘goitre’ which is the most common manifestation of Iodine deficiency in adults.
b) Iodine deficiency in adults during pregnancy has several adverse effects, especially resulting in mental retardation and congenital abnormalities of the fetus.

Or

(a) The key areas in which Neha needs to have a thorough knowledge to complete her course includes nutritional science, nutritional needs throughout the life cycle, nutritional assessment, nutritional care, food science, educational methods, etc.

(b) After the completion of her course Neha can work in all developmental programmes of the government, voluntary organisations, NGOs and international organisations like UNICEF, USAID, GAIN, Nutrition International, TATA Trust, IFPRI, etc.

(c) Neha can help young children and pregnant women by involving with organisations, that undertake large-scale feeding programmes for various target groups such as young children, school children, adolescents, pregnant and lactating mothers, elderly, challenged individuals

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 31.
Ritika is undergoing a course in Fashion design. Discuss some career opportunities available for her in Fashion design [4].
Answer:
Some career opportunities in the field of Fashion design for Ritika are

Visual Merchandise Designers are mainly responsible for designing window displays,
arranging store merchandise, creating props and accents, organising clothing placement, styling mannequins, and spearheading marketing campaigns.

Fashion Designers, Those working as fashion designer professionals are typically tasked to create designs for clothing and apparel. She works with popular fashion designers while others manage their own fashion labels.

Set Designer Set designers are primarily assigned to conceptualise designs needed for movies, television and theatre productions. Their styles and designs must always be in line with what the script or the director requires. Some set designers produce unique set designs for trade shows and museums.

Question 32.
(a) Write a note on the role of the teacher during the preschool years. [1+1+2=4].
(b) Describe some opportunities and scope of careers in Early Childhood Education.
(c) Discuss some skills required while giving education and care to young children.
Or
Discuss how encouraging adventures can help in the overall development of youth. [4].
Answer:
(a) A preschool teacher plays a role in providing interesting and stimulating opportunities for children to learn new things, and experience natural phenomena, providing ample opportunities for a variety of experiences like physical, language, social-emotional and other learning experiences.

(b) There are numerous opportunities and scope available for a person who is trained as an educator or caregiver. He/She can work as a teacher in a nursery school, a caregiver in a creche or as a member of a team of people working for programmes with young children. Additionally, several governmental and non-governmental organisations hire professionals for planning and promote campaigns or services for young children.

(c) The skills of story-telling, dance, music, voice modulation, of organising playful outdoor and indoor activities are mandatory while giving education and care to children. The person should also be aware of the community and culture so that the preschool activities are in the context of the culture and regional environment in which the child is growing up

Or

The promotion of adventure helps in the overall development of personality among youths. Many youth clubs and voluntary organisations organise activities like mountaineering, trekking, hiking, exploration for collection of data, the study of flora and fauna in the mountains, forests, deserts and sea, canoeing, coastal sailing, raft exhibitions, swimming, cycling, etc.

These programmes are conducted by using the financial assistance provided by the government for the promotion of adventure. These activities are aimed at encouraging the spirit of adventure, risk-taking, cooperative teamwork, the capacity of ready and vital response to challenging situations and endurance among the youth. The government also provides assistance for the establishment and development of institutions to facilitate such activities.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 33.
(a) Mention any four consumer responsibilities.
(b) Discuss some skills required for a study in the consumer rights field. [2+2=4].
Answer:
(a) Four consumer responsibilities are as follows
(i) Consumers should have a responsibility towards regularly update their knowledge of various laws and legislative provisions made by the government.
(ii) Consumers should be honest in all their dealings and must pay for all their purchases.
(iii) Consumers should feel free to choose from the variety available as per their needs and requirements.
(iv) Consumers should keep receipts and other relevant documents of purchase. These may be needed as proof of purchase for filing complaints in case of problems/defective/ malfunctioning products.

(b) Some skills required in the field of consumer rights are

  • Knowledge about consumer protection mechanisms and redressal agencies.
  •  Writing skills for developing educational material for consumer education, reporting consumer tests of consumer products.
  •  A willingness to help fellow consumers and the public at large.
  •  In case of purchase of services like insurance, credit cards, bank deposits etc, he/she should read and understand all terms and conditions, liabilities, service charges, etc and make an effort to get the representative to clarify points that are not clearly written.
  •  He/she must have increased awareness about various national and international consumer organisations in terms of their activities, and work and understand the benefits of becoming a member of such organisations.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 34.
Discuss the factors that have led to increasing issues related to food quality and food safety. [5].
Or
Discuss the scope and career in the field of food quality and safety.
Answer:
Some factors that have led to increasing in issues related to food quality and food safety are

  • In commercial settings, foods are prepared in bulk and handled by many persons, thus there are more chances of food getting contaminated. Further, food items are prepared many hours in advance and may spoil if not stored appropriately.
  • There are many processed and packaged foods. The safety of these foods is important.
  •  Spices and condiments and oilseeds were processed at home in former times and the purity of these was not a concern.
  • In today’s world, pre-packaged individual spices, condiments, spice powders and mixes are in demand, especially in cities and metros. The quality of even raw food stuff besides processed foods is of public health concern and must be addressed.
  •  Logistics governing the transport of bulk food is complex and there is a long gap between processing and consumption. Thus, risk assessment and safety management during mass production and mass distribution are critical.
  •  Microbial adaptations, antibiotic resistance, altered human susceptibility and international travelling have all contributed to the increasing incidence of food-borne microbial diseases.

Or

The scope and career in the field of food safety and quality are as follows

  • Professionals who take up careers in this field need to have adequate knowledge and expertise in Food Chemistry, Food Processing and Preservation, Food Analysis and Quality Control.
  •  A person must also be well-versed in Food Microbiology, Food Laws and Sensory Evaluation. Professionals in the food industry may be employed with regulatory and public health agencies as food legislators, food safety officers, and food analysts.
  •  Professionals can also be a part of voluntary agencies such as Agmark, BIS and Quality Control Laboratories.
  • The food Auditor position can also be attained after undergoing training. Trained professionals are also required in quality-control units of large food industries.
  • Self-employment and entrepreneurship are other available options for a professional. An individual can initiate entrepreneurship
  • activities through an analytical food laboratory, food safety consultancy, and food safety and sanitation education.
  •  There are different placement options at various levels in both regulatory and health agencies.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 4 With Solutions

Question 35.
Nishant is doing a Fashion design course wherein he has to study various colour schemes and other concepts related to colours. [2+2+1=5].
(a) What is colour theory?
(b) Why can’t Nishant undertake dyeing in the fibre stage?
(c) How can Nishant add colours at the fabric stage?
Answer:
(a) Colour theory is the collection of rules and guidelines which designers use to communicate with users through appealing colour schemes in visual interfaces. It explains how humans perceive colour and the visual effects of how colours to mix, match or contrast with each other. In colour theory, colours are organised on a colour wheel and grouped into 3 categories i.e. primary colours, secondary colours and tertiary colours.

(b) Nishant cannot undertake dyeing in the fibre stage because it proves to be the most expensive process. However, it is resorted to for some manufactured fibres which are not easily dyed or if the design requirement is for a yarn with multicoloured fibres.

(c) Nishant can add colour at the fabric stage by painting, printing, embroidery and patching or appliqu6 work. Here, the colour application can be in any shape.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
In general terms, work can be viewed in which of the following ways?[1].
II. A part of spiritual practice
IV. Dharma or Duty
I. Means to make a living
III. A symbol of status power or control
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, and III
(c) I, II, III, and IV
(b) I, III, and IV
(d) II and III
Answer:
(c) I, II, III, and IV

Question 2.
Megha is a Fashion Merchandiser. In the context of her role, she cannot contribute [1].
(a) buying
(b) selling
(c) promoting
(d) discounting
Answer:
(d) discounting

Question3.
Shola craft is popular in which Indian state? [1].
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Odisha
(d) Assam
Answer:
(c) Odisha

Question 4.
Which of the following are not included in nutritional care during illness? [1].
(a) Assessing nutritional status
(b) Diagnosis of nutritional problems
(c) Prescribing over-the-counter medicines
(d) Planning and prioritizing nutrition
Answer:
(c) Prescribing over-the-counter medicines.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 5.
Under ICDS, children under which age group are eligible to avail of its benefits such as health, nutrition, etc. [1].
(a) below 5 years.
(b) below 6 years.
(c) below 7 years.
(d) below 10 years.
Answer:
(b) below 6 years.

Question 6.
Which of the following sciences are not involved in the study of Food Science? [1].
(a) Chemistry.
(b) Culinary Arts.
(c) Biotechnology.
(d) Microbiology.
Answer:
(c) Biotechnology.

Question 7.
The guiding principles of ECCE are [1].
I. play as the basis of learning.,
II. art as the basis of education.
III. mix of formal and informal interactions.
IV blend of textual and cultural sources.
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, and III.
(b) II, III, and IV.
(c) I, III, and IV.
(d) I, II, III, and IV.
Answer:
(d) I, II, III, and IV

Question 8.
Which process initiated by Nicolas Appert in 1810 had a major impact on food preservation techniques? [1].
(a) Canning.
(b) Processing.
(c) Pasturing.
(d) Freezing.
Answer:
(a) Canning.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 9.
Match the following [1].

List 1 List II
A. Monochromatic Hue 1. Harmony based on one hue
B. Achromatic Hue 2. Use of neutrals only
C. Accented Neutral 3. Use of one hue and one neutral
D. Analogous Harmony 4. Combination of two or three hues

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 1 2 4

Answer:
(a) 12 3 4

Question 10.
Which of the following process can be used to prevent the spoilage of food? [1].
I. Application of heat
II. Removal of water moisture
III. Reduction of pH
IV. Preserving in deep freezers
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II, and III
Answer:
(d) I, II, and III

Question 11.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions Q.11

The above image is of which of the following mark? [1].
(a) Agmark.
(b) Wool-Mark.
(c) FPO.
(d) BSI Hallmark.
Answer:
(d) BSI Hallmark

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 12.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. Protein Energy Malnutrition 1. Enlarged thyroid
B. Micronutrient deficiencies 2. Deficiency of iron
C. Anemia 3. Deficiency of minerals
D. Goiter 4. Deficiency of energy and protein

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 1 3 4

Answer:
(b) 4 3 2 1

Question 13.
EDUSAT, India’s Satellite was launched for which of the following sector? [1].
(a) Education.
(b) Information and Communication Technology.
(c) Defence.
(d) Transport.
Answer:
(a) Education.

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18. Food infection /Food poisoning results from the ingestion of live pathogenic organisms which multiply in the body and cause disease. Salmonella is a classic example. This organism exists in the intestinal tract of animals. Raw milk and eggs are also sources. Heat destroys Salmonella, however, inadequate cooking allows some organisms to survive. Often Salmonella is spread through cross-contamination.

This could happen when a cook cuts raw meat/poultry on a chopping board and without cleaning uses it for another food that does not involve any cooking, such as salad. Food may become infected by Salmonella if an infected food handler does not wash their hands with soap after using the bathroom and before touching food.

Question 14.
Salmonella can cause which disease in the body? [1].
(a) Food poisoning.
(b) Diarrhea.
(c) Jaundice.
(d) Typhoid.
Answer:
(a) Food poisoning.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 15.
Which of the following can cause the spread of Salmonella in the body? [1].
I. Eating stale raw eggs
II. Inadequate cooking of food
III. Not maintaining the hygiene of the cook
IV. All of the above
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II, III, and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III, and IV

Question 16.
Staphylococcus Aureus organism is present in which part of the human body? [1].
(a) Stomach.
(c) Nasal Passage.
(b) Liver.
(d) Tongue.
Answer:
(c) Nasal Passage.

Question 17.
Which among the following are included in invisible biological hazards? [1].
I. Pesticides residues
II. Cleaning chemicals
III. Veterinary residues
IV. Adulterants
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I and II
(c) III and IV
(d) II and III
Answer:
(a) I, II, III and IV.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 18.
ISO and CAC can be classified under which type of standards? [1].
(a) International Standards.
(b) Regional Standards.
(c) Company Standards.
(d) National Standards.
Answer:
(a) International Standards.

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Rashi has a serious stomach infection. The Doctor said it might be due to microbial food-borne pathogens. In this context mention any three factors that are responsible for the emergence of these pathogens. Also, name any two famous pathogens. [2].
Answer:
The three factors responsible for the emergenceÿ of microbial food-borne pathogens are
(i) Human host,
(ii) Animal hosts and their interactions with humans,
(iii) The pathogen itself and the environment in which food is produced.
Rotavirus and Hepatitis E are two famous pathogens.

Question 20.
Write a short note on the National Service Volunteer Scheme. [2].
Answer:
The National Service Volunteer Scheme provides opportunities to students (who have completed their first degree) to involve themselves in programs of national development mainly through Nehru Yuva Kendras. They are. involved in programs of adult education, the establishment of youth clubs, vocational training, promotion of rural sports and games, etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 21.
What is the Fashion cycle? Mention the stages of the Fashion cycle. [2].
Or
What is Fashion merchandising?
Answer:
The way in which fashion changes is known as the Fashion cycle.
The stages of the Fashion cycle are
(a) Introduction of style.
(b) Increase in popularity.
(c) Peak of popularity.
(d) Decline in popularity.
(d) Rejection of style.

Or

Fashion merchandising is the presentation of a clothing item or accessory to the right audience at the right time, right place, and at the right price with the right sales promotion. It equips to first respond to what, why, and when a style becomes a fashion and then helps to determine its suitability for the particular retail operation. Simply, it encompasses planning, buying, and selling

Question 22.
Girija is continuously receiving high electricity bills for her empty apartment. She launched many complaints with the electricity department but her queries were not resolved. In this regard explain the problem of service faced by consumers worldwide. [2].
Answer:
Consumers face many problems with regard to service. This includes services provided by public utilities such as banks, electricity, water, insurance, etc. Even Multinational do not provide effective after-sale service in the case of office equipment and consumer durables. Customers have to give constant reminders for after-sale service.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 23.
Rajesh wants to work with a leading English Television Channel. The recruiter was dissatisfied with his lack of fluency and computer knowledge. This regard highlight the importance of language and computers in media.
Or
Rohan is a Development communication student. What are some of the careers he can opt for after the completion of his course? [2].
Answer:
If Rajesh wants to work with a leading English Television Channel, he must have a good command of the English language. For him, command over English is important for writing, reading, and speaking as well as he must have the computer knowledge to write technical reports and documents in the respective language.

Or

Rohan after the completion of his course can take up a job in media houses as well as government and non-government organizations. He can also work as a research scholar in research organizations. He can also provide training at grassroots levels. Rohan may also choose freelancing and consultancy as his profession.

Question 24.
Write a note on Dhobis and Dhobighats. [2].
Answer:
Dhobis are professionals who collect household articles for washing, ironing, and finishing. They serve institutions like student hostels, small hotels, and restaurants. For washing, they make use of specially marked places in towns and cities known as Dhobighats.

Question 25.
What is a campaign in media? [2].
Or
Write a note on Information and Communication Technology (ICT),
Answer:
Campaign in media is the combination of the usage of different communication methods and materials such as meetings, tours, newspaper articles, leaflets, and exhibitions about a theme for a predefined period of time. It lasts in the memory of people and stimulates action and creates a conducive environment for the adoption of practices.

Or

ICT is an umbrella term that includes computer hardware and software, digital broadcast, and telecommunication technologies. This is mostly used for informing people. The mobile phone has proved to be a landmark invention that has helped in expanding businesses, markets, and public services.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 26.
(a) Write a short note on the standard of living.
(b) State the importance of the standard of living.[2+1=3].
Answer:
(a) Standard of living generally refers to the wealth and level of comfort, material goods, and necessities available. It is the ease by which people living in a time or place are able to satisfy their wants. Characteristics that make up a good quality of life for one person may not necessarily be the same for someone else. Some factors that can be included in the standard of living are things such as access to medical care, education, infrastructure, etc.

(b) Standard of living is an important tool for measuring the development of a country. It is often used to assess the progress of a country by comparing the standard of living at different points in time.

Question 27.
What is a hazard? Briefly discuss three types of hazards. [3].
Or
Discuss the problem of Iron-Deficiency Anemia.
Answer:
Hazard is the relative probability that harm or injury will result when a substance is not used in a prescribed manner and quantity.
Three main types of hazards are as follows
(i) Physical hazard is a physical material that is not normally found in food, causes illness or injury, and includes wood, stones, parts of pests, hair, etc.
(ii) Chemical hazards are chemicals or deleterious substances which may be intentionally or unintentionally added to foods such as pesticides, and chemical residues.
(iii) Biological hazards are living organisms and include microbiological organisms

Or

Iron-Deficiency Anemia (IDA) is the most common. nutritional disorder in the world and is prevalent in both developed and developing countries. The vulnerable groups are women of childbearing age, adolescent girls, pregnant women, and school-age children. IDA occurs when hemoglobin production is considerably reduced and it results in low levels of hemoglobin in the blood. Since hemoglobin is required for carrying oxygen in the body, any physical exertion leads to shortness of breath as well as fatigue and lethargy.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 28.
(a) Briefly discuss how France became the center of Fashion in the 18th century. [3].
(b) Briefly discuss three basic types of colors in Fashion design.
(c) What is a value in color?
Answer:
(a) France dominated Fashion in the 18th century. The court members of King Louis XIV became the trendsetters in France. As France became the center of the global textile trade in the late 17th century, new materials like silk, lace, and brocade were readily available.

lt became a center of Fashion due to support from the Royal Court and the Development of the Silk Industry. Industrial Revolution marked the beginning of technological advances in textile and apparel production.

(b) The three types of colors in Fashion design are as follows
(i) Primary Colours They cannot be created by mixing other colors. These colors are of three types i.e. yellow, blue, and red.
(ii) Secondary Colours They can be obtained by mixing two primary colors. The secondary colors are mainly purple, green, and orange.
(iii) Tertiary Colours They can be made by mixing one primary and one secondary color. Red-Orange, Yellow-orange are some tertiary colors.

(c) Value in color describes the lightness or the darkness of the hue which is referred to as tint or shade. White has the maximum value while black has the least value.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 29.
Write a short note on the following
(a) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
(b) Consumer Rights [2+1=3].
Answer:
(a) Consumer Protection Act, 2019 has tightened previous rules to safeguard consumer rights. It has introduced a central regulator, strict penalties for misleading advertisements, and guidelines for e-commerce and electronic service providers.
(b) Consumer Rights are rights that are designed to ensure that all consumers obtain goods and services of reasonable quality at fair prices.
These are legal rights and can be challenged in court.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
Nikita wants to open a food truck in her locality. She wishes to provide the best quality food to her customers. In this regard, answer the following questions [1+3=4]
(a) What is food quality?
(b) Which of the following things should
Nikita keeps in mind to provide the most hygienic and quality service.
Or
Anita is a food and nutrition student. She wishes to study various international organizations which play an important role in ensuring food safety standards.[2+1+1=4]
In this light, discuss the following organizations.
(a) CAC
(b) ISO
(c) WTO
Answer:
(a) Food quality refers to attributes that influence a product’s value to consumers and integrates concepts such as nutritional value, safety, taste,
appearance, flavor, odor, etc. Safety is a preliminary attribute and precursor of quality.

(b) Nikita should keep in mind the following thing to provide the most hygienic and quality services are

  • Quality of raw materials and water.
  • Cleanliness of the premises, personnel, equipment, food preparation, and storage and serving areas.
  • Storage of.food at the appropriate temperature.
  • Food hygiene.
  • Good service practices.

Or

(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) is an inter-governmental body formed with the objective of establishing international standards
to protect the health of consumers and facilitate food and agricultural trade. The document published by the DAC is Codex Alimentarius which means ‘Food Code’ and is a collection of internationally adopted Food Standards.

(b) International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) It is a worldwide, non-governmental federation of national standards bodies (ISO member bodies). The mission of ISO is to promote the development of standardization and related activities in the world with a view to facilitating the international exchange of goods and services, etc

(c) World Trade Organisation (WTO) The main objective of WTO is to help trade flow smoothly, freely, fairly, and predictably, by administering
trade agreements, settling trade disputes, and assisting countries in trade policy issues. The WTO Agreement covers goods, services, and intellectual property.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 31.
Discuss the concepts of Rhythm and Harmony in Fashion design. [4].
Or
Discuss the knowledge and skills required in the field of care and maintenance of fabrics. Also mention job opportunities for laundry management students.
Answer:
Rhythm is the repeating of lines, colors, and other elements of design or details to create a pattern by which the eye can flow through the garment. It can be created by

  •  Repeating a color, shape, texture line, or space when designing.
  • Repetition of laces, buttons, etc at necklines or sleeves.
  • Varying the size of objects, motifs, lines, colors, textures, shapes, or lines.
  • Using a progression of colors from tints to shades. Use of parallelism where elements lie parallel to each other. Harmony in fashion design is created when all elements of the design come together to have a pleasing harmonious effect.

It is an important factor in producing popular and publicly, acceptable designs. Harmony by shape is created when all areas of the garment reflect the same shape. Harmony by texture can be created by using the right kind of texture for a dress when the dress is in several pieces.

Or

The field of care and maintenance of fabrics is a technical field. Knowledge and skills required in the field of care and maintenance of fabrics are Knowledge of the material, i.e. its fiber content, yarn and fabric production technique, and the color and finishes applied, in terms of the effect of care required.

  • Knowledge of the processes involved.
  • Knowledge of the chemicals and other reagents used in the process and their effect on the fabric.
  • Working knowledge of the machinery requirements and its functioning. Laundry management courses offer job opportunities in
  • airways, ships, railways, hotels, and hi-tech hospitals.

Question 32.
(a) Write a short note on Daycare and creches as all-day programs.
(b) What is the importance of a good preschool in the development of a child?
(c) Mention the basic objectives of ECCE. [2+l+l=4]
Or
Explain the initiative of Scouts and Guides and the Commonwealth Youth Programme. [4].
Answer:
(a) Daycare and creches are usually all-day programs. Teachers and helpers in these programs need to be specially trained for the care of very young children, their safety, their feeding, toilet habits, language development, social and emotional needs, and learning.
(b) The learning and other experiences provided by a good preschool are extremely beneficial for young children, Children enjoy the company of
other children and learn very quickly to do things and also develop creativity.
(c) The basic objectives of ECCE are

  • Holistic development of the child to enable him/her to realize their potential.
  • Preparation for school.
  • Providing support services for women and children.

Or
Scouts and Guides aim at developing the character of boys and girls to make them good citizens by inculcating in them a spirit of loyalty, patriotism, and thoughtfulness for others. It also promotes balanced physical and mental development and inculcates a desire for social service.

Commonwealth Youth Programme is aimed at making the youth participate in the development processes of their respective countries and provide a forum for increasing cooperation and understanding among the Commonwealth countries. Under this program, three regional centers for advanced studies in youth work have been set up in India, Zambia, and Guyana.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 33.
(a) Discuss any two consumer rights that ensure the safety of consumers.
(b) Briefly discuss the Silk mark.
(c) Write a note on FSSAI. [2+1+1=4].
Answer:
(a) The two Consumer Rights that ensure the safety of consumers are
(i) Right to Safety The consumer has a right to be protected against goods and services which are hazardous to life and health. They have the right to be protected against products, production processes, and processes that are hazardous to life.
(ii) Right to Seek Redressal The consumer has a right to get relief in case the product or service falls short of his expectations or against exploitation or unfair trade practices.

(b) Silk mark is the quality assurance label for the assurance of pure silk and in addition serves as a brand for generic promotion of pure silk. It assures 100% pure silk.

(c) The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been established under Food Safety and Standards, 2006. FSSAI has been
created for laying down science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import to ensure the availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 34.
Discuss some required skills and opportunities in the field of food processing. [5].
Or
Discuss some ways to ensure food quality and safety.
Answer:
Professionals who take up careers in food processing need to have adequate knowledge and expertise in Food Chemistry, Food Processing and Preservation, Food Analysis, and Quality Control. It is also desirable to be well-versed in Food Microbiology, Food Laws, and Sensory Evaluation.

Professionals may be employed with regulatory and public health agencies as food legislators, food safety officers (inspectors), and food analysts/public analysts.Professionals can also work in voluntary agencies such as Agmark, and BIS, as well as in Quality Control Laboratories.

One can work as a food auditor after undergoing the required training. Further, large food industries, flight kitchens, etc have in-house quality control units which require trained professionals.

Or

Food safety and quality can be ensured through Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) It enables to minimization of or elimination of contamination and false labeling, thereby protecting the consumer from being misled and helping in purchasing products that are not harmful. GMP is a good business tool that helps to refine compliance and performance by the manufacturers/producers.

Good Handling Practices These indicate a comprehensive approach from the farm to the store or consumer, in order to identify potential sources of risk and indicate what steps and procedures are taken to minimize the risk of contamination. It ensures that all persons who handle food have good hygiene practices.

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) HACCP is a means of providing assurance about the safety of food. HACCP is an approach to food manufacture and storage in which raw materials and each individual step in a specific process are considered in detail and evaluated for their potential to contribute to the development of pathogenic microorganisms or other food hazards.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 3 With Solutions

Question 35.
Geeta is a Fashion designer. She wants to create a beautiful outfit by accommodating various principles of design [2+2+1=5].
(a) How can she accommodate the curved lines in her design?
(b) What kind of shapes can Geeta add to her design?
(c) How can Geeta ensure balance in her outfit?
Answer:
(a) Geeta can use long and flowing curved lines in her design. Such lines look more graceful and rhythmic. She can also use large rounded curves in order to add a more dramatic touch. In case the outfit is more youthful she may add tiny puffy curves.

(b) In order to be more stylish, Geeta can add stylized shapes which are modified natural shapes. She can also add geometrical shapes in order to give a mathematical impression. In order to make a more lively and bright outfit she can also add abstract shapes which are in free form.

(c) Geeta needs to balance her outfit both vertically from the center line and horizontally from top to bottom. She can balance her design in three ways i.e. formal, informal, and radial.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B, and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
Use of ergonomics in any workplace is not important for which of the following? [1].
(a) Optimum work capacity.
(b) Increase in errors.
(c) Increase in productivity.
(d) Comfortable working conditions.
Answer:
(b) Increase in errors.

Question 2.
Rita has designed a frock for her six-years-old daughter using light and dark pink colors, which indicates_________ aspects of color.[1].
(a) chroma.
(b) value.
(c) hue.
(d) intensity.
Answer:
(b) value.

Question 3.
_________is a brief 10-60 second message between programs, generally in the form of jingles played on the radio. [1].
(a) Public Service Announcement.
(b) Public System Announcement.
(c) Programme Service Announcement.
(d) Personal Service Announcement.
Answer:
(a) Public Service Announcement.

Question 4.
A good preschool will provide which of the following experience likely to be beneficial for young children? [1].
(a) Rote learning.
(b) Teacher-centered approach.
(c) Formal teaching.
(d) Child-centered approach.
Answer:
(d) Child-centered approach.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 5.
The objective of the equal remuneration act is. [1].
(a) Equal wages for the same work.
(b) Different working hours.
(c) Equality among men and women in every field.
(d) Special facilities for women.
Answer:
(a) Equal wages for the same work.

Question 6.
Identify the craft involved in the manufacture of the object in the illustrations. [1].
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions Q.6

(a) Coconut
(c) Bamboo
(b) Puppetry
(d) Shola
Answer:

Question 7.
Which stage of the Fashion cycle involves manufacturers copying fashion and preparing adaptations of it at many price levels?
(a) Decline in popularity
(b) Increase in popularity
(c) Introduction of a style
(d) Peak of popularity
Answer:
(d) Peak of popularity.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a feature of development communication?
(a) Aims at giving information and educating society.
(b) Based on the audience characteristics and their environment.
(c) Oriented to socio-economic development and happiness of people.
(d) Seeks to describe the people at work in new projects
Answer:
(d) Seeks to describe the people at work on new projects.

Question 9.
Match the following

List I List II
A. National Service Scheme 1, Juveniles
B. Integrated Child Development Scheme 2. Old man
C, Mobile Medicare Units 3, Youth
D. Special Homes 4. Children

Choose the correct option A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 3 1 4

Question 10.
Match the following

List I List II
A. RRE i. Television
B. SEWA 2, Print media
C. Project-Village Chhatera 3. Campaign
D. EDUSAT 4. ICT

Choose the correct option.

A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 3 1 4

Answer:
(c) 3 4 2 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 11.
Care and maintenance of the fabric depend on
I. Fibre content
II. Fabric construction
III. Tie and Dye technique
IV Brand of the fabric
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(c)I andIII
(b) II and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(a) I and II

Question 12.
Which elements of design will you select while designing clothes for your tall sister?
I. Vertical lines II. Horizontal lines
III. Related colors IV. Contrasting colors
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(c)I and III
(b)II and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(b) II and IV

Question 13.
As per the NCF (2005), the basic objectives of ECCE are
I. Holistic development of the child to enable him/her to realize the potential
II. Preparation for school
III. Preparation of essential skills in ECCE professional
IV Providing support services for women and children
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, III
(b) I, II, IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d)II, III, IV
Answer:
(b) I, II, IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no. 14 to 18
Nutrition is the science of food, nutrients, and other substances as well as their digestion, absorption, and utilization by the body. Optimum nutrition is important for providing immunity and protection from infection and promoting recovery from a variety of illnesses as well as managing chronic diseases. Nutrition and health are intimately interlinked.

Health problems, illness/disease, and their treatment can affect nutritional status in a variety of ways such as
i) by impairing a person’s ability to eat and/or swallow
ii) by interfering with digestion, absorption, and metabolism. The specialized area of nutrition that deals with nutritional management during illness is clinical nutrition, more recently called medical nutrition therapy. The professional who delivers this service is referred to as a dietitian/medical nutrition therapist/clinical nutritionist

Question 14
__________are non-nutrient constituents present in foods that have physiological or biological activity and influence health,
(a) Nutraceuticals
(b) Medical foods
(c) Phytochemicals
(d) Functional foods
Answer:
(c) Phytochemicals

Question 15.
Which of the following are features of optimum nutrition?
I. Providing protection from disease
II. Ensuring an abundance of food
III. Promoting recovery from illness
IV. Promoting socio-economic health
V. Managing chronic disease
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, III
(b)I, III, V
(c) II, III, IV
(d)III, IV, V
Answer:
(b) I, III, V

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 16.
Which of the following parameters are not considered while taking anthropometric measurements?
(a) Waist circumference
(b) Height
(c) Hemoglobin level
(d) Weight
Answer:
(c) Hemoglobin level

Question 17.
illness can influence the nutritional status of an individual by
I. providing alternate therapy
II. impairment in a person’s ability to eat and swallow
III. promoting holistic recovery
IV problem with digestion, absorption
V interference with proper metabolism
Choose the correct option
(a) I, II, III
(b) I, III, V
(c) II, IV, V
(d) III, IV, V
Answer:
(c) II, IV, V

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 18.
Which of the following is not an objective of diet therapy?
(a) Formulation of the diet to meet the needs of the patient.
(b) Modification of the existing diets to ameliorate(rectify) the disease condition.
(c) Prevention of short-term and long-term complications in case of chronic diseases.
(d) Educating and prescribing medicines to the patients.
Answer:
(d) Educating and prescribing medicines to the patients.

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Your mother is admitted to the hospital for surgery. Her gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly, but she isn’t able to take food by mouth. Which feeding route should be adopted in this situation? Write any one advantage of the method. [2].
Answer:
If my mother is not able to take the food by mouth, tube feeding is the best method to feed her. In tube feeding, a nutritionally complete diet is given to the patients through a tube. One advantage of this method is that it is nutritionally adequate i.e, it is able to meet the nutritional requirements of the patient.

Question 20.
(a) Why did France become the center of fashion in the 18th century? [2].
(b) State the term used for male and female designers
Answer:
(a) France became the center of Fashion in 1 8th century due to the following reasons

  • The invention of spinning jenny and power looms.
  •  The invention of foot treadles for sewing machines by Isaac Singer.
  •  Due to the support from the royal court.
  • Due to the development of the silk industry.

(b) Male designer in France was known as couturier and female designer was known as couturiere.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 21.
What do you understand by the term food-based strategy? Enlist any two food-based strategies you may adopt to tackle public nutrition problems. [2].
Or
What do you understand by the term Hidden Hunger? Name any two conditions classified under Hidden Hunger.
Answer:
Food-based strategies are preventive and comprehensive strategies that use food as a tool to overcome nutritional deficiencies.
Two food-based strategies to tackle public nutritional problems are
(i)Fortification of essential foods (salt fortified with iodine).
(ii)Production and popularisation of low-cost nutritious foods from indigenous and locally available raw materials by involving women in this activity.

Or

Hidden Hunger refers to micronutrient deficiencies of varying severity that can be seen in a large proportion of children and adults.
Two conditions classified under Hidden Hunger are
(a)Deficiency of Vitamin
(b)Anemia

Question 22.
Your younger brother is very confused regarding which career to choose. Mention four factors he should consider while taking career-related decisions. [2]
Or
Renu has recently joined a new company but she is finding it difficult to adjust to her colleagues. Suggest to her any four essential soft skills she must adopt at her workplace.
Answer:
Four factors that my younger brother can consider while making a career-related decision are

  • His own personal interests and passion.
  • The career which would give him satisfaction.
  • His own aptitude.
  • Sense of use other than financial stability.

Or

Four essential soft skills adopted by Renu at her workplace are as follows

  • Working productively and with effective work habits.
  • Thinking critically and creatively.
  • Communicating clearly.
  • Working cooperatively

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 23.
During COVID, Seema has done an online diploma in Food Product Development. If she wants to start Food Processing Unit, what four skills she may require to do so? [2].
Answer:
In order to start a Food Processing Unit, Seema
needs to have the following four skills

  • Knowledge of nature and properties of food.
  • Food handling skills.
  • Labeling and packaging of marketable products.
  • Food production follows hygiene and safety norms.

Question 24.
List any four job opportunities for a print journalist.
Or
Why language and computer skills are necessary for DCJ professionals? Give four reasons. [2].
Answer:
Four job opportunities for a print journalist are as follows
(i) Interviewing people from various backgrounds
(ii) Attending press conferences and covering events.
(iii) Making phone calls.
(iv) Sending emails to create story leads

Or

Four reasons for the need for language and computer skills for a DCJ professional are
(i) To write technical reports and documents.
(ii) To interact with people.
(iii) To send emails to create a story.
(iv) Share information with people.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 25.
Enlist any four sections of the Housekeeping Department. [2].
Answer:
Four sections of the Housekeeping Department are
(i) Housekeeping Control Desk It passes on the information to the housekeeping staff who are working in various parts of the hotel.
(ii) Linen and Uniform Room The linen and uniform room is an integral part of the housekeeping department. If facilities are available, the laundry may be done in the department.
(iii) Public Area Brigade maintains the cleanliness of the foyer, lobby, front office, and other common areas.
(iv) Horticulture and Flower Arrangement Team maintains the landscape of the hotel and arranges flowers in rooms and at various places.

Question 26.
Illustrate any three ways each of creating rhythm in your school uniform.
Or
illustrate any three ways each of creating emphasis in a Kurta/Kurti [3].
Answer:
Rhythm can be defined as the repetition of lines, colors, and other elements of design or details to create a pattern by which the eye can flow through the material or garment.
Rhythm in the school uniform can be developed in the following three ways

  •  Repetition of embroidery laces, buttons piping, color, etc at necklines, sleeves, and hemlines,
  •  Coordination by gradual increase or decrease in the size of motifs, lines, buttons, colors, and textures.
  •  Radiation where eyes move in an organized way from a central point, for example, gathering in the waist, yolk, or cuffs, etc, and by parallelism where elements lie parallel to each other, for example, tucks in a yoke or knife pleats in a skirt. Bands of color also create a rhythm effect in a dress.

Or

The emphasis or focal point of the garment is the area that first attracts the customers. It makes the garment attractive through the use of color, design lines, detailing, or accessories. Emphasis creates interest by focusing the customer’s attention or choice on a specific area of the garment. Emphasis on a Kurta or a Kurti can be created by following three ways

  • Using contrasting colors such as black and white, blue and red.
  • Using different unusual shapes as on collars, sleeves, lines, and textures.
  • Placement of decorations on the neckline or waist.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 27.
(a) Distinguish between the viewpoint of Jean Piaget and Vygotsky in the context of ECCE. [2+1=3].
(b) State any two roles of ECCE professionals.
Answer:
(a) Differences between the viewpoint of Jean Piaget and Vygotsky in the context of ECCE are as follows.

Jean Piaget Lev Vygotsky
Jean Piaget, tried to comprehend and explain that young children have different ways of understanding things around them. This is the reason why they need a supportive environment so, that they can explore phenomena in their own ways. Lev Vygotsky, a psychologist, and educator held that there is a great need for children to have a concerned, caring, and knowledgeable adult.
Another significant aspect is that ECCE institutions must realize the importance of the
cultural context within which they work.
The preschool educator must have knowledge about the child’s capabilities rather than information about the world.

(b) Two roles of ECCE professionals are
(i) Being committed towards the children, their well-being, and learning and towards being knowledgeable about their needs and challenges for providing opportunities for their growth and development.
(ii)Providing interesting and stimulating opportunities for children to learn new things and experience new phenomena.

Question 28.
(a) Differentiate between Food Infection and Food Intoxication.
(b) Write any two ways by which Salmonella bacteria spreads [2+1=3].
Answer:

Food Infection Food Intoxication
It is caused by eating contaminated food. Infectious organisms including bacteria, viruses, and parasites or their toxins are the most common causes of food infections which multiply in the body and cause disease It occurs when food-poisoning microorganisms produce a toxin that triggers sickness when ingested.
For example, Salmonella exists in the intestinal tract of animals and raw milk and eggs are also sources. For example, Staphylococcus Aureus and microorganisms exist in air, dust, and water.

(b) Two ways by which Salmonella bacteria spreads are as follows
(ii)Cross-contamination could happen when raw meat/ poultry is cut on a chopping board and without cleaning, it is used for another food that does not involve any cooking such as salad.
(i)Inadequate cooking.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 29.
Give one role of each of the following. [3].
(a) Assistant Manager of Front Office.
(b) Chef-de-parties.
(c) Floor Supervisor of the Housekeeping Department.
Answer:
(a) Assistant Manager of the Front Office organizes and supervises the front office in the absence of the Front Office Manager and ensures the smooth functioning of the front office. He also handles guests while checking in and checking out, maintaining the roster.
(b) Chef-de-parties act as supervisors for some sections of the kitchen.
(c) Floor Supervisor of the Housekeeping Department is responsible for maintaining a particular floor or a wing. He is also responsible for the cleanliness and maintenance of guest rooms, corridors and staircase, and floor pantries

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
Mr. Dharampal has started his own Food Processing Unit for exporting the products. His friend has suggested he implement HACCE [1+3=4].
(a) What is HACCP?
(b) Highlight any three importance of
HACCP to convince him to adopt it.
Or
Mrs. Ramvati has started her own bread manufacturing unit. She wants to get her manufacturing unit certified by the Government of India.
(a) Name the new Food Safety Act implemented in India. [1+1+2=4].
(b) Which year was implemented?
(c) Enlist any four functions of the new Food Safety Act.
Answer:
(a) HACCP (Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point) is a management system in which food safety is addressed through the analysis and control of
biological, chemical, and physical hazards from raw material production, procurement, and handling, to manufacturing, distribution, and consumption of the finished product. It is just a means of providing assurance about food safety.

(b) Three important of HACCP that will convince him to buy HACCP are
(i) It is a preventive approach to ensure food safety.
(ii) It enables to detection of hazards at any stage of processing or manufacturing in order to maintain good quality and product by taking up appropriate action at the stage where the problem arises.
(iii) It enables producers, processors, distributors, and exporters to utilize resources efficiently and in a cost-effective manner for assuring food safety and assures consistently good quality products

or

(a) The new Food Safety Act implemented in India is Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA). The main objective of this act was to consolidate the laws relating to food. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India was established for laying down science-based standards for food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import, to ensure the availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption
(b) Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA) was implemented in the year 2006.

(c) Four functions of the new Food Safety Act i.e. FSSA are
(i) Framing of regulations to lay down the standards and guidelines for articles of food and system of enforcing various standards
(ii) Laying down mechanisms and guidelines for accreditation of certification bodies for certification of food safety management systems for food businesses and accreditation of laboratories and notification of the accredited laboratories.
(iii) To provide scientific advice and technical support to Central Government and State Governments for framing the policy and rules related to food safety and nutrition.
(iv) Provide training programs for persons who are involved or intend to get involved in food businesses.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 31.
(a) Why are youth vulnerable? Give two reasons. [1+1+2=4].
(b) What is National Service Scheme?
(c) Highlight any two activities taken up under National Service Scheme.
Or
(a) In which year was the first SOS Children’s Village was set up?
(b) Explain three features of SOS Children’s Village. [1+3=4].
Answer:
(a) Two reasons that make the youth vulnerable are as follows
(i)Peer pressure as well as the pressure to excel in an increasingly competitive world can also lead to stress and turmoil. During youth, an individual goes through many biological changes in her/his body which impacts the person’s sense of well-being and identity.

(ii) A disturbed family environment fails to provide support to an individual; consequently, some adolescents may indulge in substance abuse (consumption of alcohol and drugs). Such behavior for combating stress is on a rise. Health is also an aspect of critical importance. Youth faces significant risks related to sexual and reproductive health as many of them lack the knowledge to make informed choices.

(b) National Service Scheme aims at involving college students in social service and national development programs.

(c) Two types of activities undertaken under the National Service Scheme are
(i) Activities related to environmental and ecological improvement like tree plantation, removal of weeds from lakes, and digging page.
(ii) Activities related to hygiene and sanitation, family welfare, child care, mass immunization, vocational training in the craft, tailoring, knitting, and organizing co-operatives.

Or

(a) The first SOS Children’s Village was set up in 1964. SOS is an independent non-governmental social organization that works on a family approach to the long-term care of orphaned and abandoned children.

(b) Three features of SOS Children’s Village are
(i)The SOS Children’s Village provides humanitarian and developmental assistance to children in need and protects their interests and rights around the world
(ii)SOS helps children to experience relationships again and also helps them recover from traumatic experiences in a better way. In each SOS home, there is a mother who looks after 10-15 children.
(iii)The SOS families live together forming a supportive village environment. They are integrated with the local community and contribute towards social life.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 32.
(a) What is the difference between Consumer Forum and Footfalls? [2+2=4].
(b) “Inadequate information given by the manufacturer is a common problem amongst the consumer”. Support this statement with two examples.
Answer:
(a) Differences between Consumer forums and footfalls are as follows

Consumer Forum Consumer FootFalls
Consumer Forum is a place or organization where consumers can
discuss consumer products or services and their advantages and disadvantages. Some
forums work as advocacy groups that seek to protect consumers and help them address problems faced vis-a-vis consumer products.
Consumer Footfall means the number of customers who visit any given space such as a store or a mall. Thus, with increasing
consumption in a country, consumer footfalls are higher

(b) Inadequate information given by manufacturers is a common problem among consumers. This problem can be well understood with two examples as follows

  •  Labels of most products are not factually correct, some are deceptive and misleading. Labels, with incomplete information and with terminologies unable to be understood by a common consumer.
  • Advertisements lack the ability to answer many essential questions about the qualities or uses of the product advertised. They focus rarely on features, care, maintenance, after-sales service, etc.

Question 33.
Sonu is planning to set up a commercial laundry in his neighborhood. Elaborate on how commercial laundry will differ from home laundry (Write any four features). [4].
Answer:
The differences between commercial laundry and home laundry area

Commercial Laundry Home Laundry
Commercial laundries commonly have various centers or shops in different parts of a city. Most big clothes and articles are washed here In the household laundry, most household articles are washed at home. It has a less quantum of 5-10 kg
There are large sizes of washing machines used to wash clothes. Clothes are often washed by hand or by washing machines.
Same laundries often provide services of transport of material to and from the customer. There is no need for transportation as clothes
are washed domestically
They have hydro extraction, driers, flatbed ironing and pressing equipment, roller ironing, and calendaring machines, folding and packaging tables, and trolleys to carry material from one place to another There are no differences and bigger equipment available in such laundries

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 34.
Describe three basic causes and two underlying causes at the household level contributing to nutrition in our country.
Or
Explain five ways of diet modification to meet the needs of an individual. Give an example of each [5].
Answer:
Three basic causes at the household level
contributing to undernutrition in our country are

  • Economic factors i.e. availability of financial resources to the people as well as agricultural policies that includes production and price of foodstuff.
  • Availability of healthcare facilities and access among the people. Nutritional problems are not only due to problems related to food, but
    they involve several interrelated factors which have a role to play.
  • Government policies, political will, and socio-cultural factors affect nutritional requirements. It includes the status of women and the allocation of funds for programs to solve the problems of environmental degradation and biodiversity.
  • Two underlying causes at the household or family level contributing to undernutrition in our country are
  • Inadequate access to toilets and sanitized conditions and unavailability of safe drinking water. Although poverty is the major and underlying cause of nutritional problems, other issues such as lack of access to basic amenities and stress conditions are also equally contributing.
  •  Low quality of child and maternal health practices and lack of awareness and education among the population of the country.

Or

The five ways of diet modification to meet the needs of an individual are as follows
(i) Change in consistency and/or texture e.g., fluid and soft diets.
(ii) An increase or decrease in energy intake.
(iii) Inclusion of greater or lesser amounts of one or more nutrients e.g., increase in protein intake in case of surgery, lower protein intake in case of kidney failure, high or low in fiber, lower fat intake, restriction in sodium intake, restriction in fluid intake, restricted intake of certain foods as these may be rich in a non-nutritive dietary constituent e.g., spinach because spinach is rich in oxalates.
(iv) Change in the number of meals or modification in intervals of feeding or special plan for patients when the route of feeding is altered.
(v) Changes in the mode of feeding via mouth or tube feeding.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 1 With Solutions

Question 35.
Anu is a Fashion merchandiser who is working in a fashion house. She is involved with various activities including the conversion of inspiration into design, and the use of technology to conceptualize and address the planning and distribution of products in the fashion industry. (2+1+2=5)
(a) Elaborate on any four roles and responsibilities she will have in different phases of Fashion merchandising.
(b) How is a Small Single Unit store different from a Chain store?
(c) Enumerate any two courses that Anu might have done to have a career in Fashion merchandising.
Answer:
(a) Four roles and responsibilities Anu will have in different phases of Fashion merchandising are
(i) Manufacturing In the process of manufacturing, a Fashion merchandiser plays an important role by suggesting inputs on the types of fabrics used to make a piece of clothing.
(ii) Buying The process of buying becomes part of Fashion merchandising when a merchandiser purchases fashion items so that he/she can present them in a store.

(iii) Promoting Fashion merchandising promotes a designer’s items through fashion shows where creations and visual effects are exaggerated to seek the attention of potential buyers.
(iv) Selling A Fashion merchandiser has the responsibility of selling fashion items to stores, which are then sold to the customers.

(b) Small Single-Unit store is different from a Chain store in the respect that it is also known as a neighborhood store. These are generally owner and family-oriented single stores whereas Chain stores are retail outlets that share a brand and central management. They usually have standardized business methods and practices.

(c) Anu might have completed the following two programs for a career in Fashion Merchandising

  •  Completing a certificate or diploma degree program in Fashion Merchandising in a period of six months to one year.
  • Master’s program in Fashion merchandising is of a two-year duration that consists of a certain amount of liberal arts requirements with fashion and business courses.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions

  1. All questions are compulsory.
  2. There are a total of 35 questions.
  3. The question paper is divided into three sections-A, B and C.
  4. Section A has questions no. 1 to 18 (multiple choice questions) and is of 1 mark each.
  5. Section B has question no. 19 to 25 of 2 marks each and questions no. 26 to 29 of 3 marks each.
  6. Section C has questions no. 30 to 33 of 4 marks each and question no. 34 and 35 are of 5 marks each.
  7.  Internal choices are given in some questions.
  8. Support your answers with suitable examples wherever required.

Section A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
Which of the following factors do not depend on the type of work undertaken by people? [1].
(a) Globalisation
(c) Family background
(b) Geographic location
(d) Number of members in the family
Answer:
(d) Number of members in the family

Question 2.
Which of the following process is not involved in a fashion cycle? [1].
(a) Introduction of style
(c) Sustenance of popularity
(b) Increase in popularity
(d) Peak of popularity
Answer:
(c) Sustenance of popularity

Question 3.
The following painting belongs to which state of India? [1].
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions Q.3
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Maharashtra

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 4.
Which of the following schemes or initiatives is being implemented for nutrition in India? [1].
I. Poshan Abhiyaan
II. Mid-Day Meal Scheme
III. Annapurna Scheme
IV AYUSH
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(b)I andIII
(c)II andIII
(d) I, II and III
Answer:
(d) I, II, and III

Question 5.
Radha has designed a shirt for her brother in black colour. Black is a type of__________. [1].
(a) primary colour.
(b) secondary colour.
(c) tertiary colour.
(d) neutral colour.
Answer:
(d) Neutral colour.

Question 6.
Which of the following nutrients are normally inadequate in a person who is suffering from micronutrient deficiency? [1].
I. Vitamin A
II. Iodine
III. Zinc
IV Calcium
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(c) I, II and III
(b)II andIII
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(c) I, II and III

Question 7.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. Anganwadis 1. All day programmes
B. Daycare and creches 2. ICDS
C. Montessori Schools 3. ECCE
D. Preparation for schooling 4. Maria Montessori

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 8.
Match the following [1].

List I List II
A. ICDS 1. Children
B. Scouts and Guides 2. Elderly
C. Respite Care Homes 3. Youth
D. National Service Volunteer Scheme 4, Nehru Yuva Kendra

Choose the correct option

A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 4 3 3

Answer:
(a) 1 3 2 4

Question 9.
____________ is the set of methods and techniques used to transform raw materials into finished and semi-finished goods. [1].
(a) Food Science
(b) Food processing
(c) Food technology
(d) Food manufacturing
Answer:
(b) Food processing

Question 10.
Which of the following activities are involved in the process of laundry functioning hospitals? [1].
I. Collection from Emergency, OT, OPD and various wards.
II. Drying
II. Pressing, ironing and stacking
IV. Mending and segregation of condemned articles
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(c) I, II and IV
(b)II andIII
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Question 11.
Which among the following do not constitute invisible chemical hazards in food? [1].
(a) Pesticides
(b) Non Permissible Food Additives
(c) Adulterants
(d) Matchsticks
Answer:
(d) Matchsticks

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 12.
Red Ribbon Express (RRE) was a campaign launched for generating awareness about. which of the following disease? [1].
(a) HIV/Aids
(b) Polio
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cancer
Answer:
(a) HIV/Aids

Question 13.
The capacity of the substance to produce any harm or injury of any kind under any conditions is called_________. [1].
(a) hazard
(b) toxicity
(c) biological hazard
(d) adulteration
Answer:
(a) hazard

Read the passage carefully and answer questions no 14 to 18
Nutritional care has gained importance worldwide; more so in recent times. Health problems/ illness and disease and their treatment can affect nutritional status in a variety of ways by impairing a person’s ability to eat and or/ swallow, by interfering with digestion, absorption and metabolism as well as excretion.

Even if one function is initially affected in some individuals, if the health problem intensifies; other body functions may be affected. Clinical nutrition focuses on the nutritional management of patients with established diseases.

Question 14.
Health problems or illnesses do not affect a person’s nutritional status in which of the following process? [1].
(a) By interfering in the absorption
(b) By interfering with circulation
(c) By interfering in the metabolism
(d) By interfering with digestion
Answer:
(b) By interfering with circulation

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 15.
____________ focuses on the nutritional management of patients with established diseases. [1].
(a) Clinical Nutrition
(b) Domestic nutrition
(c) Vegan nutrition
(d) Autotrophic nutrition
Answer:
(a) Clinical Nutrition

Question 16.
Who among the following is the focus of the nutritional care process? [1].
(a) Patient
(b) Trained nutritionist
(c) Diet
(d) Alternative therapy
Answer:
(a) Patient

Question 17.
Clinical nutritionist plays an important role in the prevention of disease and the promotion of good health [1].
I. addressing the patient’s needs in an individual and holistic manner.
II. recommending therapeutic diets for
management of various diseases.
III. providing supporting medications to cure the patient.
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(c) I, II and III
(b) II andIII
(d)I andIII
Answer:
(a) I and II

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 18.
Does nutrition play a major role in which of the following? [1].
I. Disease states
II. Management and treatment of diseases
III. Recovery from diseases
IV. Prognosis of illness
Choose the correct option
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(d) I, II, III and IV

Section B (26 Marks)

Question 19.
Rama is unable to chew or swallow food normally. Which type of diet she should consume? Give one benefit of such a diet.[2].
Answer:
If Rama is unable to chew or swallow food properly, she should consume a liquid diet. The benefit of such a diet is that it can be absorbed easily even if the gastrointestinal tract is not functioning properly.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 20.
Mention any four guiding principles of ECCE.
Or
Mention any four skills required by an early childhood professional.[2].
Answer:
The four guiding principles of ECCE are
(i) Play as the basis for learning
(ii) Art as the basis of education
(iii) Recognition of the special features of children’s thinking
(iv) Blend of textual and cultural sources

Or

Four skills required by an early childhood professional are
(I) Knowledge about the needs and capabilities of young children
(ii) Capacity and motivation for interacting with children
(iii) Skills for creative and interesting activities with children in all areas of development
(iv) Enthusiasm for activities like story-telling exploration, nature and social interaction

Question 21.
(a) Which term was used for the art of dressmaking in France? [2].
(b) Invention of which technology turned handicraft into an industry in France?
Answer:
(a) Couture term was used for the art of dressmaking in France.
(b) The invention of the sewing machine turned handicraft into an industry in France.

Question 22.
Enlist four stages of the Guest Cycle in hospitality management. [2].
Answer:
The four stages of the Guest Cycle in hospitality management are
(i) Pre-arrival Stage It includes quoting rates for the guests and reserving the room as a part of the central reservation system
(ii) Arrival Stage In this stage guest actually arrives or checks in
(iii) Occupancy It involves providing various services to guests as per the guest’s requirements and ensuring their security.
(iv) Departure In this stage the guest is ready to move out or check out of the accommodation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 23.
Discuss any two skills required to make a career in media houses and advertising agencies. [2].
Or
How is questioning ability useful in the field of media and communication?

Answer:
Two skills required to make a career in media houses and advertising agencies are
(i) Cognitive Skills These skills are required to perceive an issue.
(ii) Creative Skills These skills are required to project the issues and concepts in a creative way to attract attention and make an impact in an effective manner.

Or

Questioning ability in media and communication helps to look into the finer details of any issue. It helps to develop a sense of curiosity among the professionals and hence encourages research activities among them. Passion for travel and adventure are also useful as travelling to remote areas helps them to gather interesting stories and ideas

Question 24.
Write a short note on commercial laundry. [2].
Answer:
Commercial laundries are bigger laundries that usually provide services for hospitals and hotels. These are organised into different sections which deal with various jobs such as washing, drying, ironing and pressing. Some of them have a separate section for dry-cleaning or for various fabrics such as wool or silk.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 25.
Raghav stays in a village near Pune. Since his grandfather is illiterate, he most of the time watches TV and radio. In this context briefly discuss the role of radio and television in modern media. [2].
Or
Raima is an active journalism student. She wishes to work with an NGO. In this light explain the importance of the ability to work with diverse groups for a development communication student.
Answer:
Radio and television are the most convenient and cheapest means of mass communication. Lakhs of people can be communicated at once with the help of radio and television. These are also more popular than print media and they can be used to communicate among people with poor literacy rates such as Raghav’s grandfather. Radio is the most common form of media used in rural areas as it is cheaper than television.

Or

The ability to work with diverse groups is a very important quality for an active journalism student like Raima. It is imperative for such a student to be people-centric so that he/she can understand other people’s views and opinions on various issues and find solutions.

Question 26.
(a) Elaborate and explain the following statement “Work is the oil that lubricates the machine of the society” [2+1=3].
(b) What is meaningful work?
Answer:
(a) The statement “Work is the oil that lubricates the machine of the society” is true as work is constantly taking place in society. All the creatures are engaged in some or the other types of work in order to sustain life. The collaboration of work done by humans and nature provides us with basic necessities that are essential to sustain life on this planet. Work is primarily done to earn a living, but can also be undertaken for pleasure, or for contribution to society

(b) Meaningful work is useful for society and others. It is done responsibly and is enjoyable for workers. It enables workers to test his/her capability, and use creativity, skills and judgement.

Question 27.
(a) Discuss the concepts of food safety and food adulteration in brief. [2+1=3].
(b) Explain the concept of food processing.
Answer:
(a) Food safety means an assurance that food is acceptable for human consumption according to its intended use. Food adulteration is the process in which the quality of food is lowered either by the addition of inferior quality material or by extraction of valuable ingredients.
(b) Food processing is a set of methods and techniques used to transform raw ingredients into finished and semi-finished products. It consists of the process of converting raw material from plants or animal sources to be converted into edible, consumable, durable and attractive products.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 28.
What is proportion? Briefly discuss the proportion of colour and the proportion of texture. [2].
Or
How can people with figure problems emphasise or camouflage their figure? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Proportion is concerned with the relation of one part of the object with another part. It requires a skilled blending so much that the beginning and end of parts are not apparently visible. The proportion of Colour Different colours can be worn to create a proportion of different colours by using golden mean. The proportion of Texture This can be achieved when various textures of material are used for making a dress if it increases or decreases the size of the person wearing the garment.

Or

People with figure problems can use the technique of camouflage to hide their issues. Emphasis can be created by using contrasting colours, various unique shapes and textures. For example, a woman with a small waist can use a bright and contrasting belt to highlight that part of the figure.

Question 29.
Describe one role of each of the following departments in the hospitality sector. [2].
(a) Front Office
(b) Housekeeping
(c) Food and Beverages
Answer:
(a) The front office is the first level of interaction between the hotel and a guest. It includes welcoming and greeting guests, making room reservations for them, allocating rooms, keeping a record of check-in and check-out, issuing room keys and other guest-related services.

(b) Housekeeping department is primarily responsible for maintaining cleanliness and hygiene, cleaning guest rooms and public areas, supplying and upkeeping laundry as well as maintaining the aesthetics of the organisation.

(c) Food and Beverages department is responsible for the sale of food and beverages. The relevant service departments involved are kitchens, banquets, restaurants, room service, bars, coffee shops, etc.

Section C (26 Marks)

Question 30.
Mr Sharma has established his own jam and pickle-making unit. He has been asked by Government agencies to implement HACCP
(a) Give the full form of HACCE
(b) Discuss various roles of HACCE  [1+3=4].
Or
Pradnya has opened a food processing unit. She wants to protect and certify her special chocolates to ensure their safety. She has come across ISI Mark, Agmark and FSSAI. In this context answer the following questions
(a) What is the full form of BIS and mention its main function?
(b) What is Agmark?
(c) Why was FSSA Act passed by the Government of India?
Answer:
(a) The full form of HACCP is Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point.
(b) Roles of HACCP include identification of hazards, assessment of chances of occurrence of hazards from raw material procurement, manufacturing, distribution, usage of food products and defining measures for hazard(s) control.

It is a preventive approach to ensure food safety and enables producers, processors, distributors and exporters to utilise resources efficiently and in a cost-effective manner for assuring food safety. It is also responsible for assuring consistently good quality products.

Or

(a) The full form of BIS is the Bureau of Indian Standards. It deals with the standardisation of various consumer goods including food products and runs a voluntary certification scheme known as ‘ISI’ mark for processed foods
(b) Agmark is a voluntary scheme of certification of agricultural products (raw and processed) for safeguarding the health of consumers.
(c) Indian Government passed Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA) in 2006, to bring the different pieces of legislation pertaining to food safety under one roof.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 31.
Modern Fashionable is a famous fashion designing and merchandising House. It performs merchandising tasks on multiple levels. In this context discuss the following [4].
(a) Retail Organisation Merchandising
(b) Buying Agency Merchandising
(c) Export House Merchandising
Answer:
(a) Retail Organisation Merchandising It includes activities in the fashion world from the designer’s showroom to the retail sales floor and
to the hands of consumers. It ensures that adequate products are produced and sold at such prices which are affordable to consumers as well as profitable to organisations. It is a specialised management function within the fashion industry.

(b) Buying Agency Merchandising It provides services for goods buying consultancy. Buying agency acts as a procurement office for the buyers.
(c) Export House Merchandising There are two types of merchandisers in an export house that are the buyer merchandiser (they act as a link between the buyer and the manufacturer) and the production merchandiser (they act as a link between production and buyer merchants).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 32.
(a) Discuss any two programmes and initiatives to cater to the needs of vulnerable children.
(b) Discuss in brief ICDS.
(c) Mention the different kinds of homes run for children. [2+1+1=4].
Or
(a) Discuss any two programmes for benefit of the elderly in our country.
(b) Explain any two initiatives taken for the betterment of youth in India. [2+2=4].
Answer:
(a) Two programmes and initiatives to cater to the needs of vulnerable children are
(i) Integrated Child Development Services
(ICDS) of the Government of India, It is the world’s largest early childhood programme which aims to meet the health, nutrition, stimulation and early learning /education needs of children below six years of age.

(ii) SOS Children’s Villages This is an independent non-governmental social organisation which has pioneered a family approach to the long-term care of orphaned and abandoned children.

(b) ICDS (Integrated Child DevelopmentScheme) offers health, nutrition and hygiene education to mothers, non-formal preschool education to children aged three to six and diet for pregnant and nursing mothers, growth monitoring and basic healthcare services such as immunisation and Vitamin A supplements.

(c) There are three kinds of homes run for children. These are as follows
(i) Observation Homes In these homes, children stay temporarily till the completion of an investigation to track down their parents and collect information on their family background.
(ii) Special Homes In these homes, juveniles (children under 18 years of age) found guilty terms of violation of law, are placed in custodial care.
(iii) Juvenile /Children’s Homes In these homes, children whose families are not traceable or are unfit/dead or simply unwilling to take the child backstay

Or

(a) Two programmes for the benefit of the elderly in our country are as follows
(i) Old Age Homes These homes provide food, care and shelter, for the basic needs of older persons particularly food, shelter and health care to the destitute elderly.
(ii) Respite Care Homes and Continuous Care Homes These are for older persons who live in old age homes but are seriously ill requiring continuous nursing care.

(b) Two initiatives taken for the betterment of youth in India are as follows
(i) The National Service Scheme (NSS) aims at involving college-level students in programmes of social service and national activities related to environmental and ecological improvement, hygiene and sanitation, etc
(ii) The National Service Volunteer Scheme (NSVS) provides opportunities for students to be involved in programmes of adult education, the establishment of youth clubs, the organisation of work camps, vocational training, the promotion of rural sports and games, etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 33.
(a) Discuss any two problems faced by consumers worldwide. [2+2=4].
(b) Discuss the following marks
(i) Agmark and FPO
(ii) Wool-Mark
Answer:
(a) Two problems faced by consumers worldwide are
(i) Adulteration Adulterated food is dangerous because it may be toxic and can affect health and it could deprive nutrients essential for the proper growth and development of a human being.
(ii) Lack of Consumer Information The main reason for the exploitation of consumers is a lack of knowledge. Several consumers do not have knowledge about the price, quality, and services related to commodities.

(b) (i) Agmark or Agriculture Mark, is the certification mark to assure the quality of agricultural products in India. The Fruit Product Order (FPO) lays down statutory minimum standards in respect of the quality of various fruits and vegetable products and processing facilities at manufacture, storage and sale.
(ii) Wool-Mark is a wool industry certification mark used on pure wool products that meet quality standards by the International Wool Secretariat (IWS). Its aim is to ensure that products bearing the Wool-Mark label were made from pure new wool and manufactured to the highest standards.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 34.
Explain the role of a dietician and mention the objectives of diet therapy. [5].
Or
What is a regular diet? Which parameters are included while designing a modified diet for a patient?
Answer:
The role of a dietician is to provide advice to patients and if necessary, give prescriptions to healthy individuals at different stages of the life cycle, from the womb to the tomb (i.e., pregnancy, infancy and childhood up to old age) in order to help them maintain good nutritional status and remain healthy.

Besides this, nutrition and diet therapy are used to improve the overall health of patients with a wide range of conditions. Clinical nutrition and dietetics are related to the nutritional requirements of patients suffering from different diseases and prescribing the right type of diet for them.

The objectives of diet therapy are
(i) Promotion of recovery formulation of the diet to meet the needs of the patient taking into consideration her or his food habits,
(ii) Modification of the existing diets to ameliorate the disease condition and to keep it under control,
(iii) Correction of nutritional deficiencies,
(iv) Prevention of short-term and long-term complications in case of chronic diseases,
(v) Education and counselling of the patient regarding the need to adhere to the prescribed diet.

Or

A regular diet is a diet that includes all groups of foods and meets the needs of healthy individuals. Modified diets are those that are adjusted to meet the medical needs of a patient. Parameters that are included while designing a modified diet for a patient are
(i) Change in consistency and/or texture, e.g., fluid and soft diets,
(ii) An increase or decrease in the energy intake,

(iii) Including greater or lesser amounts of one or more nutrients e.g., increase in protein intake in case of surgery, lower protein intake in case of kidney failure, high or low in fibre, lower fat intake, restriction in sodium intake, restriction in fluid intake, restricted intake of certain foods as these may be rich in a non-nutritive dietary constituent e.g., spinach, because spinach is rich in oxalates.
(iv) Change in the number of meals or modification in intervals of feeding or special plan for patients when the route of feeding is altered.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science Set 2 With Solutions

Question 35.
Sonali is a Fashion Merchandiser working at Raga Fashion House. She is involved in various activities in the house. On the basis of her involvement in activities of the house, answer the following questions [1+2+2=5].
(a) How can she contribute to buying?
(b) How can Sonali give her inputs in manufacturing?
(c) How is she responsible for selling the fashion items?
Answer:
(a) Sonali can contribute to buying by buying the merchandise to be presented in the store. For this, she needs to be aware of the target market and should be well acquainted with trend analysis and forecasting.

(b) In manufacturing, Sonali a Fashion Merchandiser can give her significant input on the types of fabrics used to make a piece of clothing, Having a depth of knowledge of fabrics and their varieties, she can change the design’s vision into reality. She may find the most affordable, stylish and trendy way to get the piece manufactured.

(c) Sonali is also responsible for selling the manufactured items to the stores which will in turn sell them to consumers. She may give creative inputs as to how to display an item in the store. She also needs to have strong research in market trend analysis as well as forecasting to give recommendations regarding the production of items.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 For Practice.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies with Solutions Set 12 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 For Practice.

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1.  This question paper contains 4 sections- A, B, C, and D
    (a) Section A- Multiple choice questions
    (b) Section B- 2 marks
    (c) Section C- 3 marks
    (d) Section D- 5 marks
  2.  Internal choice is given in the paper, there is no overall choice.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Manish graduated in a 5-year BA LLB program from NLU, Delhi. He applied for registration as an Advocate to the Bar Council of India, Delhi Office. His application was not considered. What can be the probable reason for the same?[1].
(a) 5-year law program is not recognized in Delhi.
(b) Application for enrollment is to be made to the State Bar Council.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

Question 2.
With regard to a senior advocate in India, pick the odd one out. [1].
(a) Argues cases in court upon instructions from another advocate.
(b) Officially designated as such by the Supreme Court or High Court.
(c) Wears gowns that have flaps on the shoulder.
(d) Can directly keep an engagement to appear in a case or draft pleadings.
Answer:
(d) Can directly keep an engagement to appear in a case or draft pleadings.

Question 3.
The first Indian lady vakil to be enrolled was. [1].
(a) Ms. Hazra.
(b) Anna Chandy.
(c) Cornelia Sorabjee .
(d) Fathima Beevi.
Answer:
(c) Cornelia Sorabjee .

Question 4.
This Article is a parallel provision for High Courts in states and allows one to institute similar writs in the High Courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights. [1].
(a) Article 225.
(b) Article 226.
(c) Article 227.
(d) Article 228.
Answer:
(b) Article 226.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 5.
Which of the following is/are included in the scope of judicial review in courts in India?[1].
(a) Protection of fundamental rights as guaranteed in the Constitution;
(b) Matters concerning the legislative competence between the center and states;
(c) Fairness in executive acts.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 6.
Sunil applied for the post of UG teacher in a government school and submitted his degrees along with his application. He was called for the interview on 15th June 2020. But the school authorities on 25th June 2020, found out that the copy of the degrees attached to Sunil’s application was forged and so the application was rejected. [1].

Has any offense been committed by Sunil?
(a) Sunil is guilty of cheating.
(b) Sunil is guilty of preparing to cheat.
(c) Sunil is guilty of attempting to cheat.
(d) Sunil is not guilty of any offense as he is not called for the interview.
Answer:
(c) Sunil is guilty of attempting to cheat.

Question 7.
Ms. Musarrat Khan is a mediator for a dispute between Sanjeev and Vivek. Her role is not to provide an evaluation of their case but to facilitate the conversation between Sanjeev and Vivek. Which of the following types of mediation is this? [1].
(a) Mediation with the arbitration.
(b) Facilitative mediation.
(c) Transformative mediation.
(d) Online mediation.
Answer:
(b) Facilitative mediation.

Question 8.
The situation I Ashwin and Brajesh are business partners and co-owners of a boutique. Ashwin feels that he carries the bulk of the workload and that job roles and responsibilities between them are not clearly demarcated. Situation II Mr. Saxena and his friend, Mr. Oberoi formed a company to carry on the business of creating a digital platform for online courses.

After a year of launching a successful company, creative differences and other issues arose between Mr. Lai and Mr. Kumar which created a rift between them. To help resolve their dispute, Mr. Savalkar, the Secretary of a Law firm, whom they had mentioned in the agreement to resolve their disputes and give an award, is hearing them out before giving his award. [1].
(a) Both disputes can be resolved through litigation.
(b) Both disputes can be resolved through mediation.
(c) Both disputes can be resolved through arbitration.
(d) Both disputes can be resolved through conciliation.
Answer:
(c) Both disputes can be resolved through arbitration.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 9.
Coordinating the activities of legal services in the Taluk is the responsibility of [1].
(a) Taluk Legal Services Committee.
(b) District Legal Services Committee.
(c) State Legal Services Committee.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Taluk Legal Services Committee.

Question 10.
Match the following [1].

Column I Column II
A. Sections 11A and 11B of the Legal Services Authorities Act (i) criteria of eligibility for the legal services and its procedure.
B. Sections 12 and 13 of the Legal Services Authorities Act (ii) details of the High Court Legal Services Committee.
C. Section 8 A of the Legal Services Authorities Act (iii) Permanent Lok Adalat
D. Section 22 A of Legal Services Authorities (Amendment) Act (iv) Taluk Legal Services Committee.

Codes.

A B C D
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer:
(a)(iv)(i)(ii)(iii).

Question 11.
Statement I Conciliation is a process similar to mediation as parties out of their own free will appoint a neutral third party to resolve their disputes. Statement II A mediator merely performs a facilitative role and provides a platform for the parties to reach a mutually agreeable solution but the role of a conciliator goes beyond the mediator. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Both statements are false.
(c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
Answer:
(a) Both statements are true.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 12.
Ashok, a street food vendor, was arrested by the police for littering the pavement area near his cart. He was charged with not performing the fundamental duty of protecting the environment. Which of the following is true in this context? [1].
(a) Fundamental duties contain compulsory standards that must be followed to avoid penalties and arrest.
(b) Fundamental duties prevent citizens from being law-breakers.
(c) Fundamental duties cannot be enforced in a court of law and no one can be punished for the violation.
(d) Part III of the Constitution prescribes fundamental duties.
Answer:
(c) Fundamental duties cannot be enforced in a court of law and no one can be punished for the violation.

Question 13.
Assertion (A) The ICC has limited jurisdiction over the ICJ with regard to certain issues pertaining to criminal matters listed under the Rome Statute. Reason (R) The divide is similar to the divide between civil and criminal courts in the domestic context; however, the jurisdiction of the ICC is more restricted than that of ordinary criminal courts. [1].
Alternatives.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Question 14.
The state wanted to prohibit Ajit from making a speech because Ajit wanted to mobilize people to commit riots. Choose the appropriate option. [1].
(a) The state can prohibit someone from making inciting speeches that may provoke others to commit violence.
(b) The state cannot restrict anyone from making speeches.
(c) The state is sovereign and thus can restrict anyone from making any speeches.
(d)The state cannot restrict Ajit because he is an influential person.
Answer:
(a) The state can prohibit someone from making inciting speeches that may provoke others to commit violence.

Question 15.
In automobile insurance, all drivers are required to pay insurance premiums, which are then used by insurance companies to compensate victims. In the above case, which object or purpose of Tort law is being achieved? [1].
(a) Deterrence so that the victims can be compensated for a wrongful act.
(b) Fair and Just response to compensate the victims and to satisfy the end of justice.
(c) Loss-spreading to a wider community to compensate the victims.
(d) There is no object or purpose of tort law that is being achieved.
Answer:
(c) Loss-spreading to a wider community to compensate the victims.

Directions Read the passage given below and answer questions 16 to 20 Raj was in his car when he was approached by a police officer who told him to move the vehicle. Raj did so, reversed his car, and rolled it on the foot of the police officer.

The officer forcefully told him to move the car off his foot at which point Raj swore at him and refused to move his vehicle and turned the engine off. Raj was convicted of assaulting a police officer in the execution of his duty.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 16.
Is he liable for battery or assault? [1].
(a) He is not liable because there cannot be an assault in omitting to act and that driving on the foot of the officer was accidental, meaning that he had no intention to cause that harm.
(b) He is not liable as the act neither amounted to an attempt nor a threat to commit battery which amounts to an actionable tort of assault.
(c) Raj’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on the foot of the officer and decided not to cease the act, so he had committed the continual act of battery.
(d) He is neither liable for assault nor battery as he accidentally drove his car on the police officer’s foot.
Answer:
(c) Raj’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on the foot of the officer and decided not to cease the act, so he had committed the continual act of battery.

Question 17.
What is the most important element to constitute the tort of battery? [1].
(a) Intention.
(b) Motive.
(c) Intention is irrelevant.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Intention.

Question 18.
If an attack is not possible, can there be a case of assault despite a person’s apprehension of physical contact? [1].
(a) Yes.
(b) No.
(c) Maybe.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) No.

Question 19.
If a person advances in a manner of threatening to use force, it will amount to [1].
(a) assault.
(d) it will neither be assault nor battery.
(c) either (a) or (b).
(b) battery.
Answer:
(a) assault.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 20.
In a similar context, consider the following case A very old clock tower situated right in the middle of a crowded area of Chandni Chowk suddenly collapsed thereby causing the death of many people. The clock tower was 80 years old although the normal lifespan of the clock tower should have been 40-45 years.

The clock tower was under the control of The Municipal Corporation of Delhi and they had a duty of care toward the citizens. By ignoring to repair of the clock tower, they had breached their duty of care toward the public and were thereby liable [1].
(a) trespass.
(b) strict Liability.
(c) negligence.
(d) nuisance.
Answer:
(c) negligence.

Section-B (16 Marks)

Question 21.
Mr. Pratinav is a senior advocate practicing in Delhi. He had to file a Special Leave Petition (SLP) against an order of the Rajasthan High Court. He cannot do the filing at his own behest directly before the Hon’ble Supreme Court. [2].
(i) Who is a Senior Advocate?
(ii) Why could Mr. Pratinav not file the SLP directly?

Question 22.
What was the stance of the Supreme Court on free legal aid under criminal law in Tara Singh v. State (1951 AIR 441)? How did Section 304(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 change the interpretation? [2].

Question 23.
India signs an international agreement restricting the right of weavers to trade in a rare kind of silk. The weavers protest against the enforcement of this treaty. How can the international agreement be implemented in India in this situation? State the relevant case law. [2].

Question 24.
(i) What do you understand by ‘intentional tort’? [2].
(ii) How is common law a source of tort law?

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 25.
Kanika was mercilessly beaten by her in-laws due to insufficient dowry. The police refused to file an FIR because her in-laws are very affluent merchants in the area. [2].
(i) Identify the body she can approach for relief.
(ii) State any two powers of this body similar to that of a civil court.

Question 26.
(i) What happened to the old categories of legal practitioners after the enactment of the Advocates Act, of 1961?
(ii) Write down any two functions of the Bar Council of India.[2].

Question 27.
A dispute arose between Mr. Shalu Kapahi, MD of a glass factory, and its workers’ union. The disputing parties appointed Mr. Manoj George (a retired High Court judge) as a neutral third party to intervene and resolve the matter. Mr. George suggested potential solutions to the parties. Identify and explain which ADR is followed in the given situation. [2].
Or
Why is mediation a better method of resolving disputes arising from strained resolutions?

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 28.
How do you understand that tribunals are not meant to replace Courts? [2].
Or
Point out any two points of similarities between arbitration and litigation.

Section -C (24 Marks)

Question 29.
The success of ADR techniques is attributed to the role played by instrumentalities in the process of dispute resolution. Explain briefly. [3].

Question 30.
Girish, a law graduate from Cambridge Law School, UK wants to practice law in India. [3].
(i) State the eligibility criterion for enrollment as an Advocate in India and obtain a license to practice law.
(ii) What is/are the additional requirement(s) to be fulfilled by Girish before he can be enrolled as an advocate in India?

Question 31.
Prem is a bonded laborer working for a construction baron. He is paying off a debt his father had incurred and had not been able to pay off before his death. His two sons-Bhim (aged 10) and Arjun (aged 11) have to drop out of school and work in a glass factory to make their ends meet.

A journalist highlights Prem’s plight in a newspaper article as it was common for most of the families in village Bandha from where he was reporting. He also wrote a letter to the Hon’ble Supreme Court requesting its intervention in this situation.
(i) Identify and explain the fundamental rights of Prem and his sons that have been violated.
(ii) How would the newspaper article and the letter written to the Supreme Court help the villagers? [3].

Question 32.
Pramod, an advocate in the Patna High Court specializes in commercial transactions. He is very hardworking and can go to any extent to bring justice to his clients. In one case, he is defending Mr. Raghav for breach of contract. Mr. Raghav offers him a contingency fee as an incentive to win.

He also urges Pramod to meet the judge in person for managing a favorable decision. Pramod refuses to carry on with the case. Mr. Raghav moves a complaint against the Court. [3].
(i) Is Pramod justified in refusing to carry on as a defense lawyer for Mr. Raghav? If yes, why if no, why not?
(ii) Who has the authority to take an action against Pramod?
(iii) State the consequences faced by an advocate for a breach of professional duties.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 33.
(i) Write a short note on negligence. [3].
(ii) How is common law a source of tort law?
(iii) Mention the three elements required to prove to constitute a tort of negligence.

Question 34.
Briefly discuss [3].
(i) summons cases.
(ii) Summary trials.

Question 35.
(i) What is an intentional tort?
(ii) Explain at least two different kinds of intentional tort? [3].

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 36.
Why were the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes created? Explain any one power or function of the National Commissions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. [3].
Or
What do you understand by the principle of reasonableness?

Section-D (20 Marks)

Question 37.
Give a few examples to show that judicial review ensures fairness in executive actions. [5].

Question 38.
Mention the criteria for giving free legal
services.
Or
Write a note on legal aid by the state [5].

Question 39.
(i) Discuss the view of the Supreme Court on the use of loudspeakers for religious purposes. [5].
(ii) What do you understand by freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions? Also state the exceptions, if any.
Or
What is meant by human trafficking, which is prohibited by the Indian Constitution?

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 12 With Solutions

Question 40.
The term ‘international law’ has been defined in a variety of ways by different jurists. Discuss. [5].
Or
Explain any two conventions for promoting and protecting Human Rights in the International Sphere.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 For Practice

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 For Practice

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1.  This question paper contains 4 sections- A, B, C, and D
    (a) Section A- Multiple choice questions
    (b) Section B- 2 marks
    (c) Section C- 3 marks
    (d) Section D- 5 marks
  2.  Internal choice is given in the paper, there is no overall choice.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Tushar is a Delhi Government employee working as a research analyst at Krishi Anusandhan Kendra (Institute), Delhi. He was given rent-free accommodation having five rooms. Tushar sublet two rooms to the students studying in the institute at a nominal rent. The matter was reported to the State Administrative Tribunal. He was suspended for a month and was asked to vacate the accommodation. Tushar wants to appeal against the decision of the State Administrative Tribunal. Where should he appeal? [1].
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal.
(b) Division Bench of Supreme Court of India.
(c) Division Bench of High Court of Delhi.
(d) No appeal is allowed in Alternate Dispute Resolution Mechanisms.
Answer:
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal.

Question 2.
There was a dispute between Ms. Shreya and Ms. Piyali regarding the title and possession of a plot of land. The parties to the dispute appointed a neutral third party Ms. Sharma who suggested potential solutions. Identify the role of Ms. Sharma in this situation. [1].
(a) Arbitrator.
(b) Negotiator.
(c) Mediator.
(d) Conciliator.
Answer:
(a) Arbitrator.

Question 3.
Sudhir, a college student, follows Kriti, his classmate. He sends her unwanted messages and ‘friend request’ on different social media portals. Although there is no violence or threat of violence, is Sudhir still guilty of any wrong? [1].
(a) Yes, because he is invading Kriti’s privacy.
(b) Yes, because he is unlawfully harassing Kriti.
(c) No, because he is not causing any physical harm or injury to Kriti.
(d)Yes, because he is being negligent towards his duties as a good student.
Answer:
(a) Corporate Law.

Question 4.
Raveena is working with a reputed law firm. Her areas of specialization typically involve practicing commercial and economic laws and advising on issues pertaining to commercial transactions between two parties. She also advises on the laws applicable to the transactions, drafts contracts and other documents, and helps clients with commercial negotiations. Raveena is specialized in [1].
(a) Corporate Law.
(b) Taxation Law.
(c) Transactional Law.
(d) Legal Process Outsourcing.
Answer:
(c) Transactional Law.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 5.
Michael Browne has an undergraduate degree in Anthropology and aspires to become a lawyer in the UK. Which of the following will enable him to do so? [1].
(a) Pupillage.
(b) Common Professional Examination.
(c) Bar Vocational Course.
(d) Legal Practice Course.
Answer:
(d) Legal Practice Course.

Question 6.
Situation I A man after the commission of a crime wrote a letter to his relative or friend expressing his grief over the matter. Situation II A dishonestly puts bait for dogs in his pocket, and thus induces Z’s dog to follow it. [1].
(a) It amounts to a confession in the situation I and theft in situation II.
(b) It amounts to theft in both situations.
(c) It amounts to a confession in both situations.
(d) There is no wrong in both case.
Answer:
(a) It amounts to a confession in the situation I and theft in situation II.

Question 7.
Match the following freedoms with appropriate restrictions.

Column 1 Column II
A. Freedom to practice any profession. (i) Protection of interest of scheduled tribes.
B. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India (ii) State-prescribed professional or technical qualification
C. Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms. (iii) Public order.
D. Freedom of speech and. expression. (iv) Defamation.

Codes

A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer:
(a)(ii)(i)(iii)(iv).

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the death penalty? [1].
(a) the Death penalty is awarded only in the rarest of rarest cases.
(b) There should not be a delay in executing the prisoner waiting on death row.
(c) Indian Penal Code allows for appeal where the waiting period is longer than five years.
(d) Death penalty is not allowed in India.
Answer:
(d) Death penalty is not allowed in India.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 9.
The Criminal Law in India does not take into account liability in determining criminal culpability. [1].
(a) intention (Mens Rea).
(b) commission of an act (Actus Reus).
(c) motive.
(d) attempt in affixing criminal.
Answer:
(d) attempt in affixing criminal.

Question 10.
Assertion (A) The Model Code of Professional Responsibility, 1969, and the newer Model Rules of Professional Conduct, 1983 have been adopted in 49 states, DC, and in the Virgin Islands. Reason (R) The only exception is the state of California. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is. false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Question 11.
Assertion (A) For qualified lawyers coming from outside England and Wales, it is still possible to practice. Reason (R) The Solicitors Regulation Authority (SRA) does not impose any formal experience requirements in order to re-qualify as solicitors in England and Wales. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Question 12.
The Chairman of the District Legal Services Authority is. [1].
(a) Judge of High Court.
(b) Chief Justice of concerned High Court.
(c) District Judge.
(d) Advocate General.
Answer:
(c) District Judge.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 13.
In which of the following cases was it held that in the matter of confiscation of passports, a hearing should have been given to the petitioner in the interest of the principles of natural justice? Consequently, a hearing was given and the passport was returned to her. [1].
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
(b) Kharak Singh case.
(c) Three judge’s cases.
(d) Kesavananda Bharati Case.
Answer:
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.

Question 14.
In which of the following cases has the court held that if a treaty or international agreement restricts the rights of the citizens or modifies the laws of the state, it would be required to have a legislative measure? [1].
(a) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India.
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
(c) Sheela Barse v. Union of India.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India.

Question 15.
Ankush was caught red-handed while traveling without a ticket in an outstation bus by the concerned officer. [1].
(a) Ankush has to pay a fine as the officer is compounding the offense.
(b) Ankush has to be imprisoned as this is a non-compoundable offense.
(c) Ankush can’t pay a fine at all but has to be imprisoned by the officer.
(d) The concerned officer can allow Ankush to travel without a ticket.
Answer:
(a) Ankush has to pay a fine as the officer is compounding the offense.

Direction Read the following principles carefully and answer questions 16 to 20.
Legal Principles
1 . An attempt is an act committed in part execution of a criminal design or intent, more than mere preparation, but falling
short of actual commission.

2. Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or. intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to cheat.

3. Preparation is the second stage in the commission of a crime. It means arranging the necessary measures for the commission of the intended criminal act.
4. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that his act is likely to cause death, commits the offense of murder.
5. Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act shall be guilty of negligence.
Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and choose the most appropriate answer.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 16.
In which of the following cases is X guilty of attempting to commit an offense? [1].
(a) X, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Y, sends his servant to buy a stamp paper in the name of Y. As the servant reaches the shop, he is arrested.
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.
(c) X pours half a pint of substance from a bottle marked ‘poison’ into the drink of Y. Y is not aware of it. Later, it turns out that the bottle did not contain any poison.
(d) X administers some noxious substance to Ria so that an abortion results. The woman was not pregnant.
Answer:
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.

Question 17.
Amar applied for the post of PG teacher in a government school and submitted his application along with his degrees. He was called for the interview on 10th June 2018. But the school authorities on 10th May 2018, discovered that the copy of the degrees attached to Amar’s application was forged and so the application was rejected. Has any offense been committed by Amar? [1].
(a) Yes, Amar is guilty of cheating.
(b) Yes, Amar is guilty of preparing to cheat.
(c) Yes, Amar is guilty of attempting to cheat.
(d) No, Amar is not guilty of any offense as he is not called for the interview.
Answer:
(c) Yes, Amar is guilty of attempting to cheat.

Question 18.
X tries to pickpocket Z. Z has a loaded pistol in his pocket. X’s hand touches the pistol and triggers it, resulting in the death of Z. Which of the following offenses has been committed by X? [1].
(a)X is guilty of causing Z’s murder.
(b) X is guilty of culpable homicide by negligence.
(c) X is guilty of causing grievous hurt.
(d)X is guilty of pickpocketing.
Answer:
(d)X is guilty of pickpocketing.

Question 19.
Which of the following is the first stage of any crime?[1].
(a) Intention.
(b) Preparation.
(c) Commission.
(d) Omission.
Answer:
(a) Intention.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 20.
A jumps into a swimming pool to save a boy from drowning. While pulling the boy from the water, A was hit by C. A left the boy in the water and attacked C. The boy died in the water. Choose the appropriate option.[1].
(a) A has not committed the offense of killing the boy.
(b) A has committed the offense of killing the boy.
(c) The boy has committed the offense of suicide.
(d) The boy has committed the offense of drowning.
Answer:
(a) A has not committed the offense of killing the boy.

Section-B (16 Marks)

Question 21.
What happened to the old categories of legal practitioners after the enactment of the Advocates’ Act, of 1961? [2].

Question 22.
(i) How has the Supreme Court diluted the provision of ‘locus standi’? [2].
(ii) Give an example of a situation where the principle of proportionality was used by the Court

Question 23.
(i) How can an immovable property of a value more than ₹100 be transferred?
(ii) What is the objective of Lis Pendens? [2].

Question 24.
“This source of Public International Law is described as evidence of general practice accepted as law.” Identify and explain this provision of the source of International Law. [2].

Question 25.
(i) State the composition of NLSA. [2].
(ii) State the composition of SCLC.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 26.
(i) What is conciliation?
(ii) In what ways does the role of a conciliator go beyond that of a mediator? [2].

Question 27.
Michael Kruger and James MacDonald are fighting a court case against each other. In the legal system of their country, the judge decides the manner in which evidence must be presented in court. Identify the legal system and state one of its advantages. [2].
Or
What is the difference between the role of a mediator and a conciliator-?

Question 28.
Ms. Celine D’Souza was working as a teller at Bharat Bank. She was charged with misappropriation of funds and without any grounds, she was suspended for 15 days. She applied for revocation of the suspension and the General Manager of the branch accepted her request as there was no proof against her. But she was transferred to a remote area branch and was paid a salary for 15 days only. She alleged that she has been discriminated against as she is a Christian. Identify the body she can approach for relief and give any two powers of this body. [2].
Or
Write any four powers of the National Commission for Women, which are similar to that of a civil court.

Section -C (24 Marks)

Question 29.
Article 21 states “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.” [3].
(i) What is meant by the term ‘right to life and personal liberty’?
(ii) How can one’s life and personal liberty be taken away?

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 30.
(i) Name the body responsible for regulating the minimum legal standards to be maintained by institutions that impart legal education in India.
(ii) State any two categories of legal practitioners that existed under British rule in India. [3].

Question 31.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations [3].
(i) Two disputing parties who are located in different cities want to engage a mediator who is located in yet another city. The parties to the dispute and the mediator are unable to meet each other due to geographic distance and the situation arising out of Covid 19. Which type of mediation should they resort to?
(ii) A labor dispute arose between the migrant labor’s union and the management of a construction company. The disputing parties agreed to engage the services of Mr. Kulkarni, a neutral third party in resolving the dispute. Mr. Kulkarni suggested possible solutions to resolve disputes and claims.
(iii) A dispute arose between Medico Care Pharmaceutical Company, India and Health will Incorporation, China over the supply of faulty PPE and testing kits. Both companies want to resolve the dispute as per the guidelines of UNCITRAL

Question 32.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations [3].
(i) A dispute arose between Euro Space Consulting Co. and XYZ Hero Ltd. with respect to some technical issues relating to their technical design. They wanted to resolve their dispute but also had to keep matters confidential and their business secrets protected.
(ii) Sudha buys a TV and realizes it isn’t cooling as it is defective. She tries to return it or have the company fix it, but doesn’t succeed. She
talks with the salesperson, speaks with the manager, and writes emails to the company, and still, she is not satisfied with the company’s response. The disputing parties agree to refer the dispute to a neutral third party, Mr.Ranganathan who evaluates their case and directs them toward settlement.
(iii) Ritika and Rohan face marital discord but owing to the well-being of their daughter, they refer the dispute to an Institution that gives a binding decision without being bound by any procedural formality. This institution uses a social worker in its panel.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 33.
(i) What are the three kinds of trial procedures under CrPC? [3].
(ii) A man after the commission of a crime wrote a letter to his relative or friend expressing his grief over the matter. Will this amount to a confession?

Question 34.
List down the advantages of the separation of powers. [3].
Or
Define the division of powers in the context of the Indian Constitution.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the concept of the lease. Can sub-lessee sue the original lessor for damages for violation of quiet enjoyment of the property? [3].

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 36.
International Human Rights have gained prominence in recent years. In this context, define international human rights. Also, a state is one of the most influential documents in this regard. [3].

Section-D (20 Marks)

Question 37.
Jerbo Mustafa was indicted on charges of committing ‘crimes of aggression’ in Aleppo. In this context. [5].
(i) Identify the international organization that can initiate action against him.
(ii) State the categories of crimes that can be dealt with by this organization.
(iii) Discuss the manner in which this organization takes up cases.

Question 38.
Explain the role of the following enactments in the history of the Legal Profession in India. [5].
(i) The Legal Practitioners Act of 1846.
(ii) Indian Bar Councils Act, 1926.
Or
Explain the categories of legal practitioners in India after the Advocates Act, of 1961.

Question 39.
What is the sale? What are the rights and liabilities of the seller and buyer? [5].
Or
Write a short note on the lease and determine the rights of the lessor.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 With Solutions

Question 40.
What are ‘fundamental duties’? State their salient features. How are fundamental duties different from fundamental rights?
Or
What was the status of the right to education before it became a fundamental right under Article 21 A? [5].