CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • This question paper contains 37 questions.
  • Questions 1-20 in Section A are objective type-very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
  • Questions 21 – 27 in Section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • Questions 28 – 34 in Section C are long-answer I type questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • Questions 35-37 in Section D are long-answer II type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in six questions of one mark, two questions of two marks, two questions of three marks and two questions of five marks. You must attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
  • Use log tables, if necessary. Use of calculator is not allowed.

Section – A

Question 1.
The probability density plots of Is and 2s orbitals are given in figure : [1]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 1
The density of dots in a region represents the probability density of finding electrons in the region.
On the basis of above diagram which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) Is and 2s orbitals are spherical in shape.
(B) The probability of finding the electron is maximum near the nucleus.
(C) The probability of finding the electron at a given distance is equal in all directions.
(D) The probability density of electrons for 2s orbital decreases uniformly as distance from the nucleus increases.
Answer:
(D) The probability density of electrons for 2s orbital decreases uniformly as distance from the nucleus increases.

Explanation:
The probability density of electrons in 2s orbital first increases and then decreases. It increases again as distance from nucleus increases.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an actinoid ? [1]
(A) Curium (Z = 96)
(B) Californium (Z= 98)
(C) Uranium (Z = 92)
(D) Terbium (Z = 65)
OR
The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its outer shell electrons is:
(A) s > p > d > f
(B) f > d > p > s
(C) p < d < s < f (D) f > p > s > f
Answer:
(D) Terbium (Z = 65)

Explanation:
Terbium belongs to lanthanide series. It is the ninth member in the lanthanide series.

OR

(C) p < d < s < f

Question 3.
Which of the following pair is expected to have the same bond order ? [1]
(A) O2, N2
(B) O2+, N2
(C) O2N2+
(D) O2,N2
Answer:
(B) O2+, N2

Explanation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 2

Question 4.
What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HC1 gas in 500 g of water? [1]
(A) 0.1m
(B) 1M
(C) 0.5 m
(D) 1 mA
Answer:
(D) 1 mA

Explanation:
Mass of HCl = 18.25 g Mass of solvent (water) = 500 g = 0.5 kg Molecular mass of HCl = 1 + 35.5 = 36.5
Number of moles of HCl = 18.25 36.5 = 0.5
Molality m = 0.5 ÷ 0.5 = 1 m

Question 5.
The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic configuration. [1]
(A) 7s2 7p6
(B) 5f14 6d107s27p0
(C) 4f14 5d106s26p6
(D) 4f14 5d106s26p4
OR
The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all.
(A) noble gases
(B) halogens
(C) heavy metals
(D) light metals
Answer:
(C) 4f14 5d106s26p6

OR

(B) halogens

Explanation:
The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53, 85 are all halogens as they have 7 electrons in their outermost shells.
Z = 35 Bromine-electronic configuration is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p5
Z = 53 Iodine-electronic configuration is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p5
Z = 85 Astantine (-) electronic configuration is
[Xe] 4f10 5d10 6s2 6p5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 6.
What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide? [1]
(A) 0.034%
(B) 27.27%
(C) 3.4%
(D) 28.7%
Answer:
(B) 27.27%

Explanation:
Molecular mass of CO2 = 12 + 2(16) = 12 + 32 = 44 g 44 g of CO2 contains 12 g atoms of carbon. Mass percent of carbon = Mass of carbon in CO Molar mass of CO2 2 × 100 = 12 44 100 × = 27.27%

Read the passage given below and answer the questions given below it:
The existing large number of organic compounds and their ever-increasing numbers has made it necessary to classify them on the basis of their structures. Organic compounds are broadly classified as open-chain compounds which are also called aliphatic compounds. Aliphatic compounds further classified as homocyclic and heterocyclic compounds. Aromatic compounds are special types of compounds. Alicyclic compounds, aromatic compounds may also have heteroatom in the ring. Such compounds are called heterocyclic aromatic compounds. Organic compounds can also be classified on the basis of functional groups, into families or homologous series. The members of a homologous series can be represented by general molecular formula and the successive members differ from each other in molecular formula by a -CH2 unit.

Answer the questions from (7) to (10):

Question 7.
Which of the following is example of homocyclic compound? [1]
(A) Furan
(B) Thiophene
(C) Cyclohexane
(D) Pyrrole
Answer:
(C) Cyclohexane

Question 8.
Where do heterocyclic compounds find application? [1]
(A) Pharmaceuticals
(B) Agrochemicals
(C) Dye stuff
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 9.
What is the next member of homologous series for Ethanol? [1]
(A) Propanol
(B) Butanol
(C) Pentanol
(D) Hexanol
Answer:
(A) Propanol

Explanation:
The members of a homologous series can be represented by general molecular formula and the successive members differ from each other in molecular formula by a -CH2 unit. So adding -CH2 group in ethanol, next member is propanol.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 10.
Give the IUPAC name of: [1]
(A) Puran
(B) hexylcyclohexane
(C) Thiocyclohexane
(D) none of these
Answer:
(C) Thiocyclohexane

Question 11.
How many molecules of SO2 are present in 11.2 L at STP ? [1]
OR
Calculate the number of atoms in 32.0 u of He.
Answer:
∵ Number of molecules of SO2 present in 22.4 L at STP = 6.022 × 1023
∴ Number of molecules of SO2 present in 11.2 L at
STP = \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23} \times 11.2}{22.4}\)
= 3.011 × 1023

OR

1 atom of He = 4 u of He
∵ 4 u of He = 1 atom of He 1
∴ 32.0 u of He = \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 32 = 8 atoms

Question 12.
Can a moving cricket ball have a wave character ? Justify your answer. [1]
Answer:
Yes, a moving cricket ball has a wave character. It possesses wave length which is called de Broglie wave length and is given by the equation:
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{p}\)

Question 13.
Write the IUPAC name and symbol of the element with atomic number 119. [1]
OR
Predict the position of the element in the periodic table satisfying the electronic configuration (n – 1)d1ns2 for n = 4.
Answer:
The roots for 1, 1 and 9 are un, un and enn respectively. Hence, the symbol and the IUPAC name are Uue and Ununennium respectively.

OR

(n – 1)d1ns2 for n = 4 becomes 3d14s2. It lies in the 4th period and in the 3rd group.

Commonly Made Error:
Students usually go wrong as they get confused with period and the group

Answering Tips:

  • Students must remember the criteria on how to decide the group and period of an element based on electronic configuration.
  • Learn the atomic number, element name, symbol, electron configurations, their group and period from the periodic table clearly.

Question 14.
What is enthalpy change at constant volume? Explain. [1]
Answer:
When reaction is carried out in a closed vessel so that volume remains constant, i.e., ΔV = 0, then qp = qv = ΔV or ΔH = ΔU. This is known as enthalpy change at constant volume.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 15.
Give IUPAC name of: [1]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 3
Answer:
4-Ethyldeca-1, 5, 8-triene

Question 16.
Predict if the solutions of the following salts are neutral, acidic or basic : NaCl, NaCN ? [1]
Answer:
NaCl: Its solution is neutral as it is the salt of a strong acid HCl and a strong base NaOH.
KBr: Its solution is neutral as it is the salt of strong acid HBr and a strong base KOH.

Question 17.
Calculate the oxidation number of the underlined elements in the following compounds : [1]
(a) K2CrO4
(b) MnO4
Answer:
(a) Let x be the oxidation no. of chromium in
K2CrO4
Oxidation no. of K = + 1
Oxidation no. of O = – 2
∴ 2 × (+1) + x + 4 × (- 2) = 0
or x – 6 = 0 or x = + 6
Hence, oxidation no. of Cr in K2CrO4 = +6.

(b) Let x be the oxidation no. of Mn in MnO4
Oxidation of O = -2
∴ x + 4 × (- 2) = – 1
x – 8 = – 1
x = – 1 + 8 = +7.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron simultaneously. [1]
Reason (R): The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 19.
Assertion: The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529A. [1]
Reason: Radius of each circular orbit (rn) – 0.529 Å (n2/Z), where n = 1,2, 3 and Z = atomic number.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 20.
Why 3° carbocation are more stable than 1° carbocation ? [1]
Answer:
Tertiary carbocation has three electron repelling alkyl groups. This increases +I effect on carbon and reduces the positive charge making it more stable.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 4

Section B

Question 21.
(a) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their e/m values : electron, proton and neutron. [2]
(b) Calculate the number of molecules present in 22.0 g of CO2.
Answer:
(a) The increasing order of their e/m values of electron, proton and neutron is:
Neutron < proton < electron.

(b) Number of molecules
= \(=\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{CO}_2}{\begin{array}{c}
\text { Molecular mass of } \\
\mathrm{CO}_2
\end{array}}\) × 6.022 × 1023
= \(\frac{22}{44}\) × 6.022 × 1023
= 3.011 × 1023 molecules

Question 22.
Account for the fact that the fourth period has 18 and not 8 elements. [2]
Answer:
The first element of fourth period is potassium (Z = 19) having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1. Thus it starts with the filling of 4s orbital. After the filling of 4s orbital, instead of 4p orbitals, there starts the filling 3d orbitals. This is in keeping with the fact that 3d orbitals have less energies than 4p orbitals. Thus, 10 elements are built up by the filling of 3d orbitals. After the filling of 3d orbitals, 4p orbitals are filled and that process is completed at krypton [Kr, Z = 36]. Hence the fourth period consists of 18 and not 8 elements.

Question 23.
Explain why the following systems are not aromatic?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 5
Answer:
(i) For the given compound, the number of
p-electrons is 6.
By Huckel’s rule,
4n + 2 = 6
4n = 4
n = 1
For a compound to be aromatic, the value of n must be an integer (n = 0, 1, 2…). Since, the value of n is an integer, it should be aromatic but for aromatic p electron cloud is equally distributed on all the ring, that’s why it is non aromatic in nature.

(ii) For the given compound, the number of π-electrons is 4.
By Huckel’s rule,
4n + 2 = 4
4n = 2
n =1/2
For a compound to be aromatic, the value of n must be an integer (n = 0, 1, 2…), which is not true for the given compound. Hence, it is not aromatic in nature.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 24.
(i) Give one example of symmetric alkane.
(ii) How does dilution of water affect the pH of buffer solution?
OR
(i) How will you separate propene from propyne?
(ii) Define reaction quotient.
Answer:
(i) Butene is a symmetric alkane.
(ii) Rate of dilution shows no effect on pH of buffer solution as pH depends on ratio of salt, acid or salt, base and dilution don’t affect this ratio.

OR

(i) By passing mixture through ammoniacal silver nitrate solution when propyne reacts while propene pass over.
(ii) It is used to measure relative amount of product and reactant present in reaction at any time.

Question 25.
In an electrophilic substitution reaction of nitrobenzene, how the presence of nitro group affect the reaction ? [2]
Answer:
Nitro group by virtue of strong I-effect withdraws electrons from the ring and increases the charge and destabilises carbocation. In ortho, para-attack of electrophile on nitrobenzene, we get two structures in which positive charge appears on the carbon atom directly attached to the nitro group. As nitro group is electron withdrawing by nature, it decreases the stability of such product and hence meta attack is more feasible when electron withdrawing substituents are attached.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 6

Commonly Made Error:
Students do mistake in placing +ve charge and drawing double bonds, when they write the resonating structure.

Answering Tip:
Understand drawing resonating structures and practice well.

Question 26.
Draw the cis- and fra ns- structures of but-2-ene. Which isomer will have a dipole moment ? [2]
Answer:
The cis-and-frans structures of but-2-ene are as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 7
Although both cis-but-2-ene and trans-but-2-ene has non- polar compounds but cis-but-2-ene has a small dipole moment. In trans-but-2-ene, the vectors of any small bond dipoles must cancel each other because of its shape. So, the dipole moment of trans-but-2-ene is zero.

Question 27.
Draw the resonating structure of : [2]
(a) Ozone molecule
(b) Nitrate ion
OR
Predict the shapes of the following molecules on the basis of hybridisation.
BCl3, CH4
Answer:
(a) The resonating structures of ozone molecule are
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 8

(b) The resonating structures of nitrate ion are
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 9

OR

BCl3 has sp2 hybridisation and CH4 has sp3 hybridisation.
BCl3 : 5B = 2, 3 = 1s2, 2s22p1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 10
Since, BCl3 possesses sp2 hybridization. So, its shape is trigonal planar with bond angle of 120°.
The structure of BCl3 is shown as below :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 11
Since, CH4 possesses sp3 hybridization with four bond pairs and zero lone pairs. So, its shape is tetrahedral with bond angle of 109.5°.

The structure of CH4 is shown as below :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 12

Commonly Made Error:
Some students wrongly allocate electrons in ground and excited sate and thus write wrong hybridization.

Answering Tip:

  • Understand the concept of predicting the shape of molecule by the state of hybridization of the central atom.
  • Also practice drawing the structures of molecules.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Section – C

Question 28.
Complete the following blanks based on their respective equations :
(i) C4H10(g) + \(\frac{13}{2}\)O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 5H2O ΔH = – 2878 kj
ΔH is the heat of butane gas.
(ii) HCl (aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O(l); ΔH = – 57.1 kJ
In real terms
H+ (aq) + Cl (aq) + Na+ (aq) + OH (aq) → Na+ (aq) + Cl (aq) + H2O(I)
ΔH is the heat of of hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solutions.
(iii) C(s) → C(g); ΔH = 716.7 kj
(graphite)
ΔH is the heat of …………….. of graphite. [3]
Answer:
(i) combustion
(ii) neutralisation
(iii) sublimation

Question 29.
Calculate the mass percent of different elements present in sodium sulphate (Na2SO4). [3]
Answer:
Molar mass of Na2SO4 = 2 (23.0) + 32.066 + 4(16.0) = 142.006 g
Mass % of an element
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 13

Question 30.
How much energy is required to ionise a H-atom if the electron occupies n = 5 orbit? Compare your answer with the ionization enthalpy of H-atom (energy required to remove the electron from n = 1 orbit). [3]
Answer:
Energy for a hydrogen electron present in a particular energy shell
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 14
Ionization energy for hydrogen electron present in 5th orbit n = 5
IE5 = E – E5
= 0 – \(\left(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18}}{25}\right)\) J atom-1
= 8.72 × 10-20 J atom-1
Ionization energy for hydrogen electron present in 1st orbit n = 1
IE5 = E – E5
= 0 – \(\left(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18}}{1}\right)\)
= 2.18 × 10-18 J atom-1
∴ \(\frac{I E_5}{I E_1}\) = \(\frac{8.72 \times 10^{-20} \text { Jatom }^{-1}}{2.18 \times 10^{-18} \text { Jatom }^{-1}}\)
= 0.04
∴ IE1 is 25 times as compared to IE5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 31.
(a) B2 has ten electrons but paramagnetic. Why ?
(b) Why KHF2 exist but KHCl2 does not ? [3]
OR
(a) Why do noble gas Ne2 does not exist but Ne2+ exists ?
(b) Give reason:
Water molecule has bent structure whereas BeCl2 has a linear structure.
Answer:
(a) B2 has ten electrons but it is paramagnetic in nature. It can be explained by its molecular orbital diagram.
5B = 2, 3 = 1s2, 2s22p1
5B = 2, 3 = 1s2, 2s22p1
Molecular Orbital Configuration
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 15
Since, it contains two unpaired electrons in π-bonding, molecular orbitals have equal energy. So, it is paramagnetic in nature.

Commonly Made Errors:
(a) Some students make mistake while writing MO electronic configuration and sometimes with MO diagram .
(b) They sometimes are not able to find Bonding and anti-bonding electrons correctly.

Answering Tips:

  • Understand the basic concept of MO diagrams and learn how to write MO diagram, electronic configuration and finding bond order.
  • Practice many examples.

(b) KF forms H-bonds with HF whereas KCl cannot form H-bond with HCl.
Hence, KHF2 can dissociate to give HF2 ion and therefore, KHF2 exists. However, KHCl2 cannot dissociate to HCl2 ion and therefore, KHCl2 does not exist.

OR

(a) Ne2 does not exist but Ne2+ exists. It can be explained by means of molecular orbital diagrams.
10Ne = 2, 8 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6
10Ne = 2, 8 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6
Molecular orbital configuration:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 16
Since the bond order of Ne2 is zero, it does not exist as a molecule.
However, in case of Ne2+
Bond order = \(\frac{n_b-n_a}{2}=\frac{6-5}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5
(Due to positive charge, one electron is lost from σ*2pz antibonding orbital.)
Thus, it is clear that noble gas Ne2 does not exist but Ne2+ exists.

(b) Be (Atomic number 4) has a total of 4 electrons. Its electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2. It has two valence electrons and no lone pair of electrons. Each of the two electrons can form bonds with chlorine atoms. Chemical bonds involve electrons and because all electrons have a negative charge, the two bonds between the Be and Cl will arrange themselves around the central atom (Be) so that the electrons in the bonds are as far apart as possible. Thus, the molecule is linear with the chlorines on opposite sides of the Be.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 17
In case of water, oxygen has a total of 8 electrons, with electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p4. Oxygen has two electron pairs in the outermost shell, as well as two valence electrons available for bonding. The two electrons can form bonds with two single electrons of hydrogen atoms and would like to again form a linear shape. However, the two electrons pairs exert a strong repulsive force on the O—H bonds, distorting them into the bent shape of the water molecule. This shape maximises the distance between all the electrons surrounding the central oxygen atom. That s why water molecule is bent in shape.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 32.
(i) Dihydrogen gas is obtained from natural gas by partial oxidation with steam as per endothermic reaction :
CH4(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3H2(g)
(a) Write an expression for Kp for the above reaction.
(b) How will the values of Kp and composition of the equilibrium mixture be affected by :
(a) increasing the pressure
(b) increasing the temperature
(c) using a catalyst ?
(ii) Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc for each of the following reactions :
2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
OR
(i) Describe the effect of following conditions on the equilibrium
2H2(g) + CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
(a) addition of H2
(b) addition of CH3OH
(c) removal of CO
(d) removal of CH3OH
(ii) Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, BQ for each of the following reactions :
2CU(NO3)2(S) ⇌ 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Answer:
(i)
(a) kp = \(\frac{\left(p_{\mathrm{CO}}\right)\left(p_{\mathrm{H}_2}\right)^3}{\left(p_{\mathrm{CH}_4}\right)\left(p_{\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}\right)}\)
(b) (A) By Le Chatelier’s principle, equilibrium will shift in the backward direction (as nr < np) on increasing pressure.

(B) As the given reaction is endothermic, by Le Chatelier’s principle, equilibrium will shift in the forward direction, on increasing the temperature.

(C) Equilibrium composition will not be disturbed but equilibrium will be attained quickly, by using a catalyst.
(ii) 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
kc = \(\frac{[\mathrm{NO}(g)]^2\left[\mathrm{Cl}_2(g)\right]}{[N O C l(g)]^2}\)

OR

(i) (a) On addition of H2, equilibrium will shift in the forward direction. (H)
(b) On addition of CH3OH, equilibrium will shift in backward direction.
(c) On removal of CO, equilibrium will shift in the backward direction.
(d) On removal of CH3OH, equilibrium will shift in the forward direction.

(ii) 2CU(NO3)2(S) ⇌ 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Kc = [NO2(g)]4 [O2(g)] ∵ [Cu(NO3)2(s)] = 1 & [CuO(s)] = 1

Question 33.
Complete the following reactions :
(a) CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) →
(b)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 19
(c)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 20
Answer:
(a) CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O(I)

(b)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 21

(c)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 22

Question 34.
Define:
(i) Salt bridge
(ii) electrode potential
(iii) Electrochemical series [3]
Answer:
(i) Salt Bridge: It is an inverted U-tube that contains an electrolyte and connects the two half cells in a galvanic cell.

(ii) Electrode Potential: The potential associated with each electrode is called electrode potential.

(iii) Electrochemical Series: The series in which different electrodes are arranged in decreasing order of their standard reduction potentials (EQ) is called electrochemical series.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Section – D

Question 35.
Define:
(i) Bond enthalpy
(ii) Calorific value
(iii) Explain the Born Haber Cycle to determine the lattice enthalpy of NaCl.
Answer:
(i) The average amount of energy required to break one mole of the bond of a particular type in gaseous molecules
(ii) It is the amount of heat produced on complete combustion of one gram of a fuel. Its unit is cal/g.
(iii) The lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound is the enthalpy change which occurs when one mole of an ionic compound dissociates into its ions in gaseous state.
Na+Cl(s) → Na+(g) + Cl(g), ∆lattice
=+788 kJ mol-1
The lattice enthalpy of NaCl can be determined by Born-Haber Cycle in following steps:

Step-I: Na(s) → Na(g), sublimation of sodium
metal (∆subH° = 108.4 kJ mol-1)

Step-II: Na(g) → Na+(g) + e(g), Ionization of
sodium atom (ionization enthalpy ∆iH° = 496 kJ mol-1)

Step-III: Cl2(g) → Cl(g), dissociation of
chlorine, the reaction enthalpy is half the bond dissociation enthalpy.
(\(\frac{1}{2}\) ∆bondH° = 121 kJ mol-1)

Step-IV: Cl(g) + e(g) → Cl(g), electron gained by chlorine atoms
(Electron gain enthalpy ∆egH° = – 348.6 kJ mol-1)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 23
Fig. Enthalpy diagram for lattice enthalpy of NaCl

Step-V: Na+(g) + Cl(g) → Na+Cl(s)
Applying Hess’s law,
lattice H° = 411.2 + 108.4 + 121 + 496 – 348.6 = + 788 kJ mol-1

Question 36.
An alkyl halide C5H11Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene ‘B’, which reacts with Br2 to give a
compound ‘C, which on dehydrobromination gives an alkyne ‘D’. On treatment with sodium metal in liquid ammonia one mole of ‘D’ gives one mole of the sodium salt of ‘D’ and half a mole of hydrogen gas. Complete hydrogenation of ‘D’ yields a straight chain alkane. Identify A,B, C and D. Give the reactions involved. [5]
OR
An unsaturated hydrocarbon A’ adds two molecules of H2 and on reductive ozonolysis gives butane-1,4-dial, ethanal and propanone. Give the structure of A’, write its IUPAC name and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 24
The reactions suggest that (D) is a terminal alkyne. This means triple bond is at the end of the chain. It could be either (I) or (II).
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 25
Since alkyne ‘D’ on hydrogenation yields straight chain alkane, therefore structure (I) is the structure of alkyne (D).
Hence, the structures of A, B and C are as follows:
(A) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2Br
(B) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH = CH2
(C) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH(Br)—CH2Br

Commonly Made Error:
Students get confuse, and many times miss reactions.

Answering Tips:

  • Draw the structures of compounds for better understanding.
  • Learn all the important conversion reactions in the chapter. Understand the problem given and then write the reactions in steps.

OR

Two molecules of hydrogen add on ‘A’ this shows that ‘A’ is either an alkadiene or an alkyne.
On reductive ozonolysis ‘A’ gives three fragments, one of which is dialdehyde. Hence, the molecule has broken down at two sites. Therefore, ‘A’ has two double bonds. It gives the following three fragments:
OHC—CH2—CH2—CHO, CH3CHO and CH3— CO—CH3
Hence, its structure as deduced from the three fragments must be
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 26

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 37.
For the reaction :
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + Heat; the equilibrium constant K = 0.50 at 673K
(a) Write the expression for Kc and Kp.
(b) What will be the equilibrium constant value for the reverse reaction at 673 K ?
(c) What is the effect of increasing temperature on the yield of NH3 ?
(d) What is the effect of adding N2(g) and H2(g) on the yield of NH3 ?
(e) What is the effect of increasing pressure on the yield of NH3? [5]
OR
(i) (a) The solubility of silver chloride (AgCl) in water at 25°C is 1.08 × 10-5 mol L-1. Calculate the solubility
product of AgCl at this temperature.
(b) The molar solubility of lead iodide is 4.0 × 10-5 mol/L at 25°C. Calculate the solubility product of lead iodate at this temperature.
(ii) In one litre saturated solution of AgCl [Ksp = 1.6 × 10-10], 0.1 mol of CuCl [Ksp = 1.0 × 10-6] is added. Find out the resultant concentration of Ag+ in the solution.
Answer:
(a) kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_3\right]^2}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_2\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_2\right]^3}\)
and kp = \(\frac{\left[p_{\mathrm{NH}_3}\right]^2}{p_{\mathrm{N}_2} \times\left(p_{\mathrm{H}_2}\right)^3}\)

(b) Keq (for reverse reaction) = \(\frac{1}{K}\)
= \(\frac{1}{0.50}\)

(c) As this is an exothermic reaction, on increasing the temperature, the reaction will proceed in reverse direction. This results in decrease in concentration of NH3.

(d) On increasing the concentration of N2(g) and H2(g), the yield of NH3 will increase.

(e) On increasing the pressure, the reaction will proceed in forward reaction or pressure decreases.

OR

(i) (a) S = 1.08 × 10-5 mol L-1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 27

Solubility product
Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl]
= S × S
= (1.08 × 10-5) (1.08 × 10-5)
= 1.1664 ≈ 1.17 × 10-10

(b) S = 4.0 × 10-5 mol L-1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 28
Solubility product
Ksp = [Pb2+] [IO3]2
= (S) (2S)2
= S × 4S2 = 4S3
= 4(4 × 10-5)3
= 2.56 × 10-13

(ii) Let the concentration of AgCl is x mol/L
and concentration of CuCl is y mol/L

CuCl ⇌ Cu+ + Cl
y = 0.1 y =0.1
Ksp of AgCl = [Ag+] [Cl]
= x (x + y)
Ksp of CuCl = [Cu+] [Cl]
= y(x + y)
On solving equations (i) and (ii), we get

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

  • इस प्रश्नपत्र में दो खंड हैं-खंड ‘क’ और ‘ख’। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/ वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न दिए गए हैं।
  • प्रश्नपत्र के दोनों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
  • यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमानुसार लिखिए।
  • खंड ‘क’ में कुल 10 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
  • खंड ‘ख’ में कुल 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार विकल्प का ध्यान रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘क’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
मनुष्य जीवन की सबसे बड़ी सिद्धि अपने अहं के सम्पूर्ण त्याग में है। जहाँ वह शुद्ध समर्पण के उदात्त भाव से प्रेरित होकर अपने ‘स्व’ का त्याग करने को प्रस्तुत होता है वहीं उसके व्यक्तित्व की महानता परिलक्षित होती है। साहित्यानुरागी जब उच्च साहित्य का रसास्वादन करते समय स्वयं की सत्ता को भुलाकर पात्रों के मनोभावों के साथ एकत्व स्थापित कर लेता है तभी उसे साहित्यानन्द की दुर्लभ मुक्तामणि प्राप्त होती है। भक्त जब अपने आराध्य देव के चरणों में अपने ‘आप’ को अर्पित कर देता है और पूर्णतः प्रभु की इच्छा में अपनी इच्छा को लय कर देता है तभी उसे प्रभु-भक्ति की अलभ्य पूँजी मिलती है। यह विचित्र विरोधाभास है कि कुछ और प्राप्त करने के लिए स्वयं को भूल जाना ही एकमात्र सरल और सुनिश्चित उपाय है। यह अत्यन्त सरल दिखने वाला उपाय अत्यन्त कठिन भी है। भौतिक जगत में अपनी क्षुद्रता को समझते हुए भी मानव-हृदय अपने अस्तित्व के झूठे अहंकार में डूबा रहता है उसका त्याग कर पाना उसकी सबसे कठिन परीक्षा है। किन्तु यही उसके व्यक्तित्व की चरम उपलब्धि भी है। दूसरे का निःस्वार्थ प्रेम प्राप्त करने के लिए अपनी इच्छा-आकांक्षाओं और लाभ-हानि को भूलकर उसके प्रति सर्वस्व समर्पण ही एकमात्र माध्यम है। इस प्राप्ति का अनिर्वचनीय सुख वही चख सकता है जिसने स्वयं को देना-लुटाना जाना हो। इस सर्वस्व समर्पण से उपजी नैतिक और चारित्रिक दृढ़ता, अपूर्व समृद्धि और परमानन्द का सुख वह अनुरागी चित्त ही समझ सकता है जो-‘ज्यों-ज्यों बड़े श्याम रंग, त्यों-त्यों उज्ज्वल होय।’
(क) मनुष्य जीवन की सबसे बड़ी सिद्धि किसमें है?
(i) अपने अहं के सम्पूर्ण त्याग में
(ii) अपनी संतुष्टि में
(iii) अपने अहं को अपनाने में
(iv) समृद्धि में
उत्तर:
(i) अपने अहं के सम्पूर्ण त्याग में।

(ख) व्यक्ति के व्यक्तित्व की महानता कब परिलक्षित होती
(i) जब वह महान बनता है।
(ii) जब वह अपने ‘स्व’ का त्याग करता है।
(iii) जब वह दूसरे के ‘स्व’ का त्याग करता है।
(iv) जब वह संतुष्टि को त्याग देता है।
उत्तर:
(ii) जब वह अपने ‘स्व’ का त्याग करता है।

(ग) भक्त जब अपने आराध्य देव के चरणों में स्वयं को अर्पित कर देता है तो उसे क्या प्राप्त होता है?
(i) सर्वस्व की प्राप्ति
(ii) अपनों की प्राप्ति
(iii) प्रभु भक्ति की अलभ्य पूँजी
(iv) लाभ
उत्तर:
(iii) प्रभु भक्ति की अलभ्य पूँजी।

(घ) दूसरे का नि:स्वार्थ प्रेम प्राप्त करने के लिए क्या करना होता है?
(i) उससे प्रेम करना
(ii) उससे नज़रें चुराना
(iii) उसके साथ रहना
(iv) उसके प्रति सर्वस्व समर्पण।
उत्तर:
(iv) उसके प्रति सर्वस्व समर्पण।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए ?
कथन (A) : स्व का त्याग ही व्यक्ति की महानता को परिलक्षित करता है ।
कारण (R) : कुछ प्राप्त करने के लिए स्वयं को भूलना उचित नहीं है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तर:
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5=5)
यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-I पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं। कभी जाति-सम्प्रदाय, कभी मज़हब, कभी धर्म तो कभी आरक्षण, कुछ भी मुद्दा मिल जाए, हमें तो बस लड़ना है। शांति हमें नहीं भाती, देश की तरक्की रास नहीं आती, इसलिए लड़ना है। हम देश के युवा हैं, देश हमें कितने अधिकार दिलाता है हमारे ही कारण यह देश युवा व शक्तिशाली कहलाता है हमारे विकास के लिए सोचता व कितनी योजनाएं बनाता पर हमें तो एक-एक ईंट जोड़कर खड़ी की गई, विकास की इमारतों को, बस पल भर में ध्वस्त करना बखूबी आता है। हम उस देश के युवा हैं, जहाँ करुणा, दया शांति के विचार हुए हैं, जहाँ से नानक, बुद्ध, विवेकानन्द ने मानवता के प्रचार किए हैं। हम कब तक देशभक्ति का गान किन्तु देश का अपमान करते जायेंगे। युवा से ही देश का आत्म-सम्मान व विश्वास होता है युवा ही देश का भविष्य व पहचान होता है ये हम कब और कैसे समझ पायेंगे?
(क) पद्यांश में युवाओं पर क्या कटाक्ष किया गया है?
(i) युवाओं को बस लड़ाई-झगड़े की भाषा ही समझ आती है।
(ii) युवा देश के भावी कर्णधार हैं।
(iii) देश का भविष्य युवाओं पर निर्भर है।
(iv) युवा लक्ष्य के प्रति सचेत है।
उत्तर:
(i) युवाओं को बस लड़ाई-झगड़े की भाषा ही समझ आती है।

(ख) पद्यांश के माध्यम से युवाओं को क्या संदेश दिया गया है?
(i) लड़ाई-झगड़ा करने का
(ii) मारकाट करने का
(iii) सन्मार्ग पर चलने का
(iv) असत्य बोलने का
उत्तर:
(ii) सन्मार्ग पर चलने का।

(ग) विश्व को भारत ने किसका पाठ सिखाया है?
(i) शिक्षा का
(ii) हिंसा और करुणा का
(iii) झगड़े और न्याय का
(iv) दया, करुणा और शांति का
उत्तर:
(iv) दया, करुणा और शांति का।

(घ) देश का भविष्य और पहचान किससे है?
(i) वृद्धों से
(ii) युवाओं से
(iii) स्त्रियों से
(iv) पुरुषों से
उत्तर:
(iii) स्त्रियों से

(ङ) पद्यांश में युवा शक्ति की क्या पहचान बताई गई
(I) युवा शक्ति से ही देश शक्तिशाली बनता है
(II) युवा से ही देश का आत्मसम्मान व विश्वास होता है
(III) युवा ही देश का भविष्य व पहचान होता है
(IV) युवा देश को नहीं समझ सकता
विकल्प:
(i) कथन
(ii) सही है
(ii) कथन (i), (ii) व (iii) सही हैं
(iii) कथन (i), (ii) व (iv) सही हैं
(iv) कथन (i), (ii), (iii) व (iv) सही हैं
उत्तर:
(ii) कथन (i), (ii) व (iii) सही हैं

अथवा

यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-II पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।
माँ, ये लहरें भी गाती हैं
कल-कल, छल-छल के मधुर स्वर में
अपना गीत सुनाती हैं।
मैं कब से बुला रही इनको
पर मेरे पास नहीं आती हैं।
कुछ खेल खेलती इसलिए
तट तक आकर फिर भाग जाती
मैं चलूँ, साथ खेलूँ इनके
देखो ये मुझे बुलाती हैं।
माँ, ये लहरें भी गाती हैं।
(क) लहरें क्या और किस प्रकार सुनाती हैं?
(i) कल-कल मधुर गीत
(ii) कटुवचन
(iii) मधुभाषा
(iv) कर्कश ध्वनि
उत्तर:
(i) कल-कल मधुर गीत।

(ख) कौन, किसे बुला रहा है?
(i) माँ बच्चे को
(ii) कवि लहरों को
(iii) गीत हमें
(iv) कवि बच्चे को
उत्तर:
(ii) कवि लहरों को।

(ग) ‘तट’ शब्द का पर्यायवाची लिखिए
(i) किनारा
(ii) अंबर
(iii) नदी
(iv) माँ
उत्तर:
(i) किनारा

(घ) ‘मधुर’ शब्द का विलोम लिखिए।
(i) कटु
(ii) कड़वा
(iii) मधु
(iv) खट्टा
उत्तर:
(i) कटु

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए
कथन (A) – छोटी बच्ची लहरों के साथ खेलना चाहती है।
कारण (R) – कल-कल करती लहरें छोटी बच्ची को अपनी ओर आकर्षित कर रही है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है।
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तर:
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) छात्र परिश्रम करके जीवन में सफल होते हैं-वाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) छात्र परिश्रम करते हैं और जीवन में सफल होते हैं।
(ii) जो छात्र परिश्रम करते हैं वही जीवन में सफल होते हैं।
(iii) जो जीवन में सफल होते हैं वही परिश्रम करते हैं।
(iv) परिश्रम करने वाले छात्र ही जीवन में सफल होते हैं।
उत्तर:
(i) छात्र परिश्रम करते हैं और जीवन में सफल होते हैं। व्याख्यात्मक हल-संयुक्त वाक्य में दो सरल वाक्य होते हैं जो अपनेआप में पूर्ण अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

(ख) पीली कमीज़ वाले छात्र को यह पुस्तक दे दो-वाक्य का मिश्र वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) जिस छात्र ने पीली कमीज़ पहनी है उसे यह पुस्तक दे दो।
(ii) पीली कमीज़ जिस छात्र ने पहनी है उसे यह पुस्तक दे दो।
(iii) उस छात्र को यह पुस्तक दे दो जिसने पीली कमीज़ पहनी है।
(iv) यह पुस्तक दो उसे पीली कमीज पहनी है जिसने
उत्तर:
(i) जिस छात्र ने पीली कमीज़ पहनी है उसे यह पुस्तक दे दो।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मिश्र वाक्य में एक वाक्य दूसरे पर आश्रित होता है प्रधान उपवाक्य और आश्रित उपवाक्य समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय द्वारा जुड़े हुए होते हैं।

(ग) रवि ने खाना खाया और चला गया-वाक्य का सरल वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) रवि को घर जाना था इसलिए खाना खा लिया।
(ii) घर जाने के लिए रवि ने खाना खाया।
(iii) रवि खाना खाकर चला गया।
(iv) खाना खाकर रवि चला गया।
उत्तर:
(iii) रवि खाना खाकर चला गया।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य और एक क्रिया होते हैं। अतः यही सही उत्तर है।

(घ) जब उसने बस्ता उठाया , वह स्कूल चला गया-रेखांकित उपवाक्य का भेद होगा
(i) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
(ii) विशेषण उपवाक्य
(iii) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
(iv) आश्रित उपवाक्य
उत्तर:
(ii) विशेषण उपवाक्य।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम (1)  कॉलम (2)
1. यह तुम्हें भ्रम है कि वह अमीर है। (I) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
2. जब तुम जाओगे तभी मैं जाऊँगा। (II) विशेषण उपवाक्य
3. मैं उन सभी को जानता हूँ, जिन्हें शक के दायरे में रखा गया (III) संज्ञा उपवाक्य

विकल्प:
(i) 1 (III), 2 (I), 3 (II)
(ii) 1 (II), 2 (III), 3 (I)
(iii) 1 (1), 2 (II), 3 (III)
(iv) 1 (III), 2 (II), 3 (I)
उत्तर:
(i) 1 (III), 2 (1), 3 (II)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) वह चुपचाप नहीं रह सकता-वाक्य का भाववाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) उससे चुप नहीं रहा जा सकता।
(ii) वह चुप नहीं रहता।।
(iii) चुप नहीं रह सकता वह।
(iv) चुप नहीं रहा जा सकता उससे।
उत्तर:
(i) उससे चुप नहीं रहा जा सकता।

(ख) तुम्हारे द्वारा देश के विकास के लिए क्या किया जा रहा है- वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) क्या किया जा रहा है तुम्हारे द्वारा देश के विकास के लिए।
(ii) देश के विकास के लिए तुम्हारे द्वारा क्या किया जा रहा है?
(iii) तुम देश के विकास के लिए क्या कर रहे हो?
(iv) देश के लिए विकास के लिए तुमसे क्या किया जा रहा है?
उत्तर:
(iii) तुम देश के विकास के लिए क्या कर रहे हो?

(ग) छात्रों ने देशप्रेम का एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया-वाक्य का कर्मवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) छात्रों ने एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया देशप्रेम का।
(ii) छात्रों के द्वारा देशप्रेम का एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया गया।
(iii) छात्रों ने गीत सुनाया एक मार्मिक देशप्रेम का।
(iv) मार्मिक गीत गाया छात्रों ने।
उत्तर:
(ii) छात्रों के द्वारा देशप्रेम का एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया गया।

(घ) उसकी कलम मेज़ से चुरा ली गई है वाच्य का भेद बताइए।
(i) कर्तृवाच्य
(ii) कर्मवाच्य
(iii) भाववाच्य
(iv) वाच्य
उत्तर:
(ii) कर्मवाच्य।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ समेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम (1) कॉलम (2)
1. हमारे द्वारा इतने कष्ट सहन नहीं किए जाएंगे। (I) कर्तृवाच्य
2. मजदूर पत्थर नहीं तोड़ पा रहे हैं। (II) भाववाच्य
3. चोट के कारण उससे बैठा नहीं जाता। (III) कर्मवाच्य

विकल्प :
(i) 1 (III), 2 (I), 3 (II)
(ii) 1 (II), 2 (III), 3 (1)
(iii) 1 (1), 2 (II), 3 (III)
(iv) 1 (III), 2 (II), 3 (1)
उत्तर:
(i) 1 (III), 2 (1), 3 (II)

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1×4 = 4)
(क) सैनिक देश की सीमाओं की रक्षा करते हैं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
(ii) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
(iii) भाववाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
(iv) समूहवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
उत्तर:
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।

(ख) वह व्यक्ति कठोर परिश्रम कर रहा है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) सम्बन्धवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
(ii) गुणवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
(iii) निजवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग, विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
(iv) प्रश्नवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग, विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
उत्तर:
(ii) गुणवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग, विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।

(ग) आप चुप रहिए। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) प्रथम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
(ii) उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
(iii) मध्यम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
(iv) अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
उत्तर:
(ii) मध्यम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिंग , कर्ता कारक।

(घ) पाप से घृणा करो , पापी से नहीं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
(ii) समूहवाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
(iii) द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
(iv) भाववाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
उत्तर:
(iv) भाववाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।

(ङ) राम और श्याम दौड़ रहे हैं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) अकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिग , बहुवचन।
(ii) सकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिंग , बहुवचन।
(iii) द्विकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिंग , बहुवचन।
(iv) प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिग, बहुवचन।
उत्तर:
(i) अकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिंग , बहुवचन।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) ‘चिरजीवो जोरी जुरे, क्यों न सनेह गंभीर । को घटि ये वृषभानुजा, वे हलधर के बीर ॥ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(i) श्लेष

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ ‘वृषभानुजा’ के दो अर्थ है- पहला वृषभानु की पुत्री राधा और दूसरा वृषभ की अनुजा गाय। इसी प्रकार हलधर के अर्थ हैं-बलराम और हल को धारण करने वाला।

(ख) खुले बाल, खिले बाल चन्दन को टीको लाल’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(i) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(i) श्लेष

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ बाल शब्द के दो अर्थ हैं । केश और बालक। अतः यहाँ श्लेष अलंकार है।

(ग) ‘मानो कठिन आँगन चली, ताते राते पाएँ। पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ पर स्त्री के पैर लाल हो गए हैं, कवि संभावना जता रहे हैं कि वह कठोर आँगन में पैदल चली है। इसी कारण उसकी ये दशा हुई है परंतु यह सिर्फ संभावना है और स्पष्ट कारण नहीं मिल रहा अतः यहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार है।

(घ) धनुष उठाया ज्यों ही उसने, और चढ़ाया उस पर बाण। धरा सिन्धु नभ काँपे सहसा, विकल हुए जीवों के प्राण’॥ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
जैसे ही अर्जुन ने धनुष उठाया और उस पर बाण चढ़ाया तभी धरती, आसमान एवं नदियाँ कांपने लगी और सभी जीवों के प्राण निकलने को हो गए। यह बात बिलकुल असंभव है, क्योंकि बिना बाण चलाये ऐसा हो ही नहीं सकता है अत: यहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार है।

(ङ) ‘लोने-लोने वे घने चने क्या बने-बने इठलाते हैं, हौले-हौले होली गा-गा धुंघरू पर ताल बजाते हैं’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(iii) मानवीकरण

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ चने पर होली गाने, सज-धजकर इतराने और ताल बजाने में मानवीय क्रियाओं का आरोप है। अतः यहाँ मानवीकरण अलंकार है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
जीप क़स्बा छोड़कर आगे बढ़ गई तब हालदार साहब इस मूर्ति के बारे में ही सोचते रहे और अंत में इस निष्कर्ष पर पहुँचे कि कुल मिलाकर कस्बे के नागरिकों का यह प्रयास सराहनीय ही कहा जाना चाहिए। महत्व मूर्ति के रंग-रूप का या कद का नहीं, उस भावना का है। वर्ना तो देशभक्ति भी आजकल मजाक की चीज़ होती जा रही है। दूसरी बार जब हालदार साहब उधर से गुज़रे तो उन्हें मूर्ति में कुछ अंतर दिखाई दिया। ध्यान से देखा तो पाया कि चश्मा दूसरा है।
(क) आगे बढ़ने पर हालदार साहब किस बारे में सोच रहे थे?
(i) मूर्ति के बारे में
(ii) कस्बे के बारे में
(iii) देशभक्ति के बारे में
(iv) पानवाले के बारे में
उत्तर:
(i) मूर्ति के बारे में।

(ख) हालदार साहब को कौन-सा प्रयास सराहनीय लगा?
(i) मूर्ति के बारे में सोचना
(ii) चौराहे पर मूर्ति का लगना
(iii) पानवाले का पान खिलाना
(iv) चश्मा बदलना
उत्तर:
(i) चौराहे पर मूर्ति का लगना।

(ग) कस्बे या चौराहे पर मूर्ति लगाने का क्या उद्देश्य हो सकता है?
(i) उनके आदर्शों को स्मरण करना।
(ii) देशभक्ति की भावना को जाग्रत करना।
(iii) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं।
(iv) अपना यश कमाना
उत्तर:
(ii) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं।

(घ) हालदार साहब के अनुसार देशभक्ति आजकल क्या होती जा रही है?
(i) प्रेम की भावना
(ii) लगाव की भावना
(iii) मजाक की भावना
(iv) पूजा की भावना
उत्तर:
(iii) मजाक की भावना।

(ङ) गद्यांश के पाठ का नाम है
(i) बालगोबिन भगत
(ii) लखनवी अंदाज़
(iii) नेताजी का चश्मा
(iv) संगतकार
उत्तर:
(iii) नेताजी का चश्मा।

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) नेताजी का ओरिजिनल चश्मा कहाँ था?
(i) उनकी नाक पर
(ii) उनके कान पर
(iii) मूर्तिकार के पास
(iv) बना नहीं था
उत्तर:
(iv) बना नहीं था।

(ख) श्राद्ध की अवधि पूर्ण होने पर भगत ने क्या किया?
(i) क्रियाकर्म का कार्य पूर्ण किया
(ii) बेटे की मृत्यु का उत्सव मनाया
(iii) पुत्रवधू को उसके भाई के साथ भेज दिया
(iv) स्वयं घर से चले गए
उत्तर:
(iii) पुत्रवधू को उसके भाई के साथ भेज दिया।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
कौसिक सुनहु मंद येहू बालक। कुटिल काल बस निज कुलघालक।
भानुबंस राकेस कलंकू। निपट निरंकुसु अबुधु असंकू। कालकवलु होइहि छन माहीं। कहों पुकारि खोरि मोहि नाहीं।
तुम्ह हटकहु जो चहहु उबारा। कहि प्रतापु बलु रोषु हमारा।
लखन कहेहु मुनि सुजस तुम्हारा। तुम्हहि अछत को बरने पारा।
अपने मुह तुम्ह आपनि करनी। बार अनेक भांति बहु बरनी।
नहिं संतोषु त पुनि कछु कहहु। जनि रिस रोकि दुसह दुःख सहहू।
बीरब्रती तुम्ह धीर अछोभा। गारी देत न पावहु सोभा।
(क) परशुराम ने लक्ष्मण को कैसा बालक बताया है?
(i) मंदबुद्धि
(ii) सफल
(iii) होशियार
(iv) कुटिल
उत्तर:
(i) मंदबुद्धि।

(ख) भानुबंस राकेस कलंकू’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है?
(i) अनुप्रास
(ii) उपमा
(iii) रूपक
(iv) उत्प्रेक्षा
उत्तर:
(iii) रूपक।

(ग) काव्यांश में वीर की क्या पहचान बताई है?
(i) अपनी वीरता का बखान करते हैं।
(ii) युद्ध भूमि में डटे नहीं रहते।
(iii) अपनी वीरता युद्धक्षेत्र में ही दिखाते हैं।
(iv) वह असभ्य बोलता है।
उत्तर:
(iii) अपनी वीरता युद्धक्षेत्र में ही दिखाते हैं।

(घ) परशुराम के यश के विषय में लक्ष्मण ने क्या कहा?
(i) तुम यश की वीरता का बखान करते हो।
(ii) तुम अपने मुँह से कई बार अपने यश का बखान करते हो।
(iii) दोनों सही हैं।
(iv) आप महाबलशाली हैं।
उत्तर:
(ii) तुम अपने मुँह से कई बार अपने यश का बखान करते हो।

(ङ) ‘कुटिल कालबस निज कुलघालक’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है?
(i) अनुप्रास
(ii) रूपक
(iii) उपमा
(iv) उत्प्रेक्षा
उत्तर:
(i) अनुप्रास।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) गोपियों के अनुसार किसने अपने पैरों को नहीं डुबोया?
(i) सूरदास ने
(ii) श्रीकृष्ण ने
(iii) गोपियों ने
(iv) उद्धव ने
उत्तर:
(iv) उद्धव ने।

(ख) ‘उत्साह’ कविता में बादल किसका प्रतीक है?
(i) नवसृजन का
(ii) विनाश का
(iii) वर्षा का
(iv) बच्चों का
उत्तर:
(i) नवसृजन का।

खंड ‘ब’
वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) ‘संस्कृति’ पाठ में लेखक ने मनीषी किन्हें कहा है ? उनसे मिलने वाला ज्ञान किसका परिचायक है ?
उत्तर:
मनीषी ऐसे संस्कृत आविष्कारकों को कहा गया है जो भौतिक आवश्यकताओं के लिए नहीं, अपितु मन की जिज्ञासा को तृप्त करने के लिए प्रकृति के रहस्यों को जानना चाहते हैं। सूक्ष्म और अज्ञात रहस्यों को जानना जिनका स्वभावगत गुण रहा है। मनीषियों से मिलने वाला ज्ञान उनकी सहज संस्कृति के कारण ही हमें प्राप्त होता है। मनीषी सदैव ज्ञान की खोज में लगे रहते हैं। वे कभी भी संतुष्ट होकर नहीं बैठते।

(ख) मन्नू भंडारी के पिता की कौन-कौन सी विशेषताएँ अनुकरणीय हैं ?
उत्तर:
मन्नू भंडारी के पिता एक विरोधाभासी व्यक्तित्व के व्यक्ति थे। उनकी अनेक विशेषताएँ अनुकरणीय हो सकती है। वे बेहद कोमल और संवेदनशील व्यक्ति थे तथा अपने बच्चों की भावनाओं को समझते थे। वे शिक्षा के प्रति अत्यंत जागरूक थे और इसके प्रसार के लिए घर में आठ-दस बच्चों को शिक्षित करने का दायित्व खुशी से उठाते थे। उनकी देशप्रेम की भावना अनुकरणीय है। मन्नू भंडारी में देशप्रेम की भावना के बीज उन्हीं से अंकुरित हुए । यश पाने के इच्छुक थे, वे विशिष्ट बनकर जीना चाहते थे और उसके लिए प्रयासरत रहते थे।

(ग) ‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ पाठ से क्या संदेश मिलता है?
उत्तर:
लेखक स्वयं प्रकाश जी ने ‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ पाठ के माध्यम से देशभक्ति का सम्बन्ध मन से दिखाया है। इस पाठ के माध्यम से लेखक जनता में देश व समाज के प्रति जागृति लाना चाहते हैं। उनके अनुसार देशभक्ति प्रकट करने के लिए जरूरी नहीं कि फौजी बनें, न ही शक्तिशाली होना जरूरी है। ऐसे लोग जो देश और समाज के प्रति अपने कर्तव्य निभाते हैं, वे कोई भी हों, गरीब-अमीर, बच्चा-बूढ़ा, वे सच्चे देश-प्रेमी हैं। इस कहानी में ‘कैप्टन’ पात्र के माध्यम से यही दर्शाया गया है। उसने नेताजी की बिना चश्मे की मूर्ति पर अपनी ओर से रोज नया-नया फ्रेम लगा. कर अपनी देशभक्ति का प्रमाण दिया। वह निर्धन और अपंग होने के बावजूद देश के प्रति अपनी भक्ति को, नेताजी की मर्ति पर चश्मा लगाकर प्रदर्शित करता रहा।

(घ) खीरे पर जीरा और नमक बुरकते हुए नवाब साहब को कैसा लग रहा था?
उत्तर:
खीरे की फांकों पर जब नवाब साहब जीरा और नमक बुरक रहे थे तो उनके चेहरे की भाव-भंगिमा और जबड़े के स्फुरण से स्पष्ट हो रहा था कि वे मन-ही-मन खीरे का रसास्वादन कर रहे हैं। उन्होंने तो खीरे का पूरा स्वाद कल्पना में ही ले लिया था। इस पूरी प्रक्रिया में उनके मुँह में पानी भर आया था और वे खीरे खाने को बड़े ही उतावले से लग रहे थे।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) कवि बादल से फुहार, रिमझिम या बरसने के स्थान पर ‘गरजने’ के लिए कहता है, क्यों?
उत्तर:
कवि ने बादलों से उनका पौरुष बल दिखाने को कहा है। वह चाहता है कि बादल जोर से गर्जना करें और बरसे ताकि भीषण गर्मी से तप्त धरती शीतल हो और उदास व अनमने लोगों का दुःख दूर हो। लोगों के मन में उत्साह का संचार हो जिससे वे पुरानी रुढ़ियों और विषमता से समाज को मुक्त करने में सहायक हो।

(ख) ‘आत्मकथ्य’ कविता में कवि जयशंकर प्रसाद ने जीवन के यथार्थ एवं अभाव पक्ष की जो मार्मिक अभिव्यक्ति की है, उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
कवि जयशंकर प्रसाद ने बताया कि कोई भी व्यक्ति अपने जीवन के यथार्थ को प्रकट नहीं करना चा. हता है, अपनी भूलों और प्रवंचनाओं को व्यक्त करने में हीनता की अनुभूति होती है। उज्ज्वल गाथा तो सभी कह लेते हैं, परन्तु मेरे जीवन सुख के क्षण मुझसे सदा दूर ही रहे, मेरी प्रिया भी मुझसे शीघ्र बिछुड़ गयी थीं, अब तो केवल स्मृतियाँ शेष हैं और मेरी व्यथा-कथा भी मन्द पड़ गयी है।

(ग) ‘राम-लक्ष्मण-परशुराम संवाद’ के आधार पर परशुराम के स्वभाव की कोई दो विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर:
पाठ के आधार पर परशुराम के स्वभाव की दो विशेषताएँ निम्नलिखित हैं परशुराम अतिक्रोधी हैं। उन्हें बात-बात पर क्रोध आ जाता है। जनक सभा में भी वह बार-बार अपना फरसा दिखाकर अपना क्रोध प्रकट कर रहे थे। परशुराम अत्यंत अहंकारी हैं। उन्हें अपनी वीरता पर बड़ा ही घमंड है। उनके द्वारा बार-बार अपनी वीरता का बखान करना ही इस बात का प्रमाण है।

(घ) सांसारिक जीवन में संगतकार जैसे व्यक्ति की सार्थकता पर अपने विचार स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
सांसारिक जीवन में संगतकार जैसे व्यक्तियों की बहुत ही महत्त्वपूर्ण एवं सार्थक भूमिका होती है। ऐसे व्यक्ति समाज के हर छोटे-बड़े कार्य में सहायक की भूमिका का निर्वाह करते हैं और ऐसा करके वे दूसरों को ऊँचाइयों तक पहुँचा देते हैं। उनके मन में मानवता की भावना कूट-कूटकर भरी होती है। ये कभी किसी को पीछे धकेलकर आगे बढ़ना पसंद नहीं करते, बल्कि सदैव अपने त्याग से दूसरों को आगे बढ़ाने में सहायक बनते हैं। खेल-जगत, सिनेमा, राजनीति आदि जीवन के लगभग सभी क्षेत्रों में मानवता के उत्थान के लिए समर्पित ऐसे लोग देखे जा सकते हैं।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में लिखिए। (4 × 2 = 8)
(क) किसी रचनाकार के प्रेरणास्रोत किसी दूसरे को कुछ भी रचने के लिए किस तरह उत्साहित कर सकते
उत्तर:
यह बात काफी हद तक सही है कि किसी को कुछ भी रचने के लिए दूसरों के प्रेरणास्रोत काफी उत्साहित करते हैं। जापान के हिरोशिमा नामक स्थान पर अणुबम गिराने वाले ने भी अपना दुष्कर्म करके लेखक को लिखने के लिए प्रेरित किया। कभी-कभी व्यक्ति संपादकों, प्रकाशकों और आर्थिक लाभ से उत्साहित होकर भी लेखन का कार्य करता है किंतु यह कारण जरूरी नहीं है। वास्तविकता एवं सच्चा कारण तो यही है कि लेखक के भीतर उत्पन्न आकुलता या विवशता ही होती है जो उसे लिखने के लिए प्रेरित करती है।

(ख) ‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ के आधार पर यह कहा जा सकता है कि बच्चे का अपने पिता से अधिक लगाव था, फिर भी विपदा के समय वह पिता के पास न जाकर माँ की शरण लेता है। आपके विचार से इसका क्या कारण हो सकता है?
उत्तर:
बच्चे का अपने पिता से अधिक लगाव था। वह पिता के साथ ही बाहर की बैठक में सोया करता था। पिता अपने साथ ही उसे उठाते और साथ ही नहला-धुलाकर पूजा पर बिठा लेते थे। वे उसे भभूत का तिलक भी लगा देते थे। पिताजी उसे प्रेमपूर्वक भोलानाथ कहकर पुकारते थे। माता के साथ तो केवल दूध पीने तक का नाता था। इसके बावजूद भी जब कहानी के अंत में बच्चे पर विपदा आयी और साँप निकल आने के कारण बच्चा बेतहाशा भागता चला गया व सारी देह लहूलुहान हो गई थी तब वह पिता की पुकार को अनसुनी करके माँ की शरण में चला गया। माँ ने ही घावों पर हल्दी पीसकर लगायी। वह ‘मइयाँ’ (माँ) के आँचल में छिपता चला गया। वह पिता की गोद में नहीं गया। इसका कारण यही है कि बच्चे की आत्मा माँ से ही बँधी होती है, उसे कष्ट के समय अनायास ही माँ याद आती है और उसी की गोद में वह सुकून पाता है।

(ग) जितेन नार्गे ने खेदुम के बारे में लेखिका को क्या बताया?
उत्तर:
जितेन नार्गे ने लेखिका को खेदुम दिखाते हुए बताया कि यह पूरा लगभग एक किलोमीटर का क्षेत्र है। ऐसा माना जाता है कि यहाँ देवी-देवता का निवास है। अतः यहाँ कोई भी गंदगी नहीं फैलाता क्योंकि यहाँ के लोगों का मानना है कि जो भी यहाँ गंदगी फैलाएगा वह मर जाएगा।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत बिन्दुओं के आधार पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।
(क) समय अमूल्य धन

  • समय का चक्र रुकता नहीं
  • समय बर्बाद न करें
  • आलस्य त्यागें
  • अवसरवादी न बनें।

अथवा

(ख) इण्टरनेट-एक संचार क्रान्ति

  • इण्टरनेट का परिचय
  • लाभ-हानियाँ
  • सदुपयोग के उपाय।

अथवा

(ग) दिव्यांगों की समस्याएँ

  • दिव्यांग कौन हैं?
  • उनकी समस्याएँ क्या हैं?
  • उनके लिए सरकार के प्रयास
  • समाज का दायित्व
  • उपसंहार।

उत्तर:
(क) समय अमूल्य धन समय कभी किसी की प्रतीक्षा नहीं करता। वह तो बस नदी की भाँति बहता जाता है। आप चाहें तो समय को व्यर्थ की बातों में नष्ट कर सकते हैं और चाहें तो उसका सदुपयोग कर सकते हैं, जिससे वह आपकी उन्नति में चार चाँद लगा सकता है। समय के सदुपयोग में ही जीवन की सफलता का रहस्य निहित है अन्यथा समय को बर्बाद करने वाला स्वयं बर्बाद हो जाता है। समय का सदुपयोग करने का अधिकार सभी को समान रूप से मिला है। समय का सदुपयोग न करने वाला मुनष्य जीवन में प्रगति के मार्ग पर अग्रसर नहीं हो सकता। उसे आलसी और निठल्ले बैठे रहने की आदत पड़ जाती है। खाली बैठे वह कुछ का कुछ सोचता रहता है। वैसे भी खाली दिमाग शैतान का घर होता है। वह आलस्य के कारण अन्य अनेक दुर्गुणों का शिकार हो जाता है। आलस्य मनुष्य का सबसे बड़ा शत्रु है। कहा भी गया हैसमय का हमेशा सदुपयोग करना चाहिए। समय का सदुपयोग करने व अवसरवादी होने में फर्क है। यह नहीं कि हमें अवसर की ताक में रहना चाहिए और अवसर मिलते ही उचित-अनुचित ढंग से लाभ कमाना चाहिए। समय के सदुपयोग का ऐसा अर्थ लगाना अनर्थ है। अनैतिक कार्यों में लगे व्यक्ति ही ऐसी व्याख्या कर सकते हैं। अवस रवादिता देश, जाति, राष्ट्र, सभ्यता और संस्कृति के साथ-साथ मानवता के साथ विश्वासघात है। समय का पाबन्द होना, उसका बेहतरीन उपयोग करना भावी जीवन को सफल बनाने की एक सुखद तथा महत्त्वपूर्ण योजना है। याद रहे ‘समय व लहरें किसी की प्रतीक्षा नहीं करती।

अथवा

(ख) इण्टरनेट-एक संचार क्रांति कम्प्यूटर और इण्टरनेट के सहयोग से आज का मानव विश्व के किसी भी भाग से किसी भी प्रकार की सूचना प्राप्त कर सकता है। आज की सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी कम्प्यूटर और इण्टरनेट पर आधारित है। अब दफ्तरों में फाइलों का ढेर रखने की आवश्यकता नहीं रह गई है, इसके लिए एक छोटी-सी फ्लॉपी ही पर्याप्त है। अब संदर्भ ग्रन्थों से भरी आलमारियों की आवश्यकता नहीं है। कहीं की टिकट बुक करानी हो, कोई बिल जमा करवाना हो, बैंक से लेन-देन करना हो अथवा मनचाही सूचना पानी हो तो इण्टरनेट का सहारा लेना ही काफी होता है। यह मात्र तकनीक होते हुए भी जीवन्त शक्ति, मित्र व सहयोगी प्रतीत होती है। हम इसके माध्यम से सूचना, मनोरंजन, ज्ञान और व्यक्तिगत तथा सामाजिक विचारों का आदान-प्रदान कर सकते हैं। अब इण्टरनेट पत्रकारिता का युग है। इण्टरनेट का प्रयोग खबरों के सम्प्रेषण के लिए किया जा रहा है। इण्टरनेट ने शोध का काम बहुत आसान कर दिया है। इण्टरनेट का ‘ब्राउजर’ वह औजार है जिसके जरिए हम विश्वव्यापी जाल (www) में गोते लगा सकते हैं। इण्टरनेट के जहाँ अनेक लाभ हैं, वहीं इसके कुछ दुष्प्रभाव भी देखने में आ रहे हैं। इण्टरनेट अश्लीलता, दुष्प्रचार और गन्दगी फैलाने का माध्यम बनता जा रहा है, किन्तु यह कमी उस तकनीक की नहीं, अपितु मानव मस्तिष्क की है जो उसका दुरुपयोग कर रहा है। इण्टरनेट जनसंचार का सबसे नया तथा लोक. प्रिय माध्यम है। यह एक ऐसा माध्यम है जिसमें प्रिण्ट मीडिया, टेलीविजन, पुस्तक, सिनेमा तथा पुस्तकालय के सभी गुण विद्यमान हैं। इसकी पहुँच दुनिया के कोने-कोने तक है। यह अनेक माध्यमों का संगम है। इण्टरनेट पर बैठकर आप देश-विदेश में वार्तालाप कर सकते हैं, मन के मुताबिक ब्लॉग बना सकते हैं। इसकी सहायता से किसी भी वार्ता में भाग लिया जा सकता है। व्हाट्सएप, फेसबुक, ट्विटर आदि ने परस्पर सम्पर्कों को नया आयाम दिया है। यह एक अंतर क्रियात्मक माध्यम है। हम मूक दर्शक बनकर नहीं बैठते, अपितु बहस के सूत्रधार हो सकते हैं।

अथवा

(ग) दिव्यांगों की समस्याएँ
दिव्यांग अर्थात ‘दिव्य अंग’। यह शब्द उन लोगों के लिए प्रयुक्त किया जाता है जिनके शरीर के किसी अंग में कोई कमी है, किन्तु कोई अन्य, दिव्य अंग प्राप्त हुआ है अर्थात् उनके किसी एक अंग में अवश्य दिव्यता समायी होती है। अब तक उन्हें विकलांग या अपंग कहा जाता था। इनकी विकृतियाँ या तो जन्मजात होती हैं या बाद में बीमारी या दुर्घटना के कारण हो जाती हैं। इनके पालन-पोषण के साथ-साथ शिक्षा एवं रोजगार में भी समस्या आती है। सरकार इनकी शिक्षा को समावेशी शिक्षा के अन्तर्गत ले रही है। ऐसे बच्चों को विशेष आवश्यकता वाले बालक कहा जाता है। इस तरह के बच्चों में कुछ को सुनने और बोलने में समस्या हो सकती है, कुछ के हाथ-पैरों में विकृति हो सकती है या कुछ आँखों से देख नहीं पाते। इन विशेष आवश्यकता वाले बच्चों के लिए ही निःशक्त, विकलांग, दिव्यांग जैसे शब्द प्रचलित हैं। पहले इनकी तादाद देश की कुल आबादी में 2.43 फीसदी थी, जो अब बढ़कर 2.51 फीसदी हो गई है। इन निःशक्त जनों का 75 प्रतिशत भाग ग्रामीण इलाकों में रहता है। शिक्षा का अधिकार कानून 2009 में 6 से 14 वर्ष की आयु वाले इन दिव्यांग बच्चों को पड़ोस के स्कूलों में नि:शुल्क और अनिवार्य शिक्षा की व्यवस्था की गयी है। इसको समावेशी शिक्षा का नाम दिया गया है। इसके अन्तर्गत दृष्टिबाधित बालक, श्रवण ह्रास वाले बालक, चलने से निःशक्त, मानसिक मंदता, मानसिक रुग्णता, पक्षाघात, बहुविकलांगता वाले बालक आते हैं। वर्ष 2016 में हुए संविधान संशोधन में ऐसी 21 श्रेणियों को शामिल किया गया है। अब नौकरियों में इनके लिए आरक्षण 3 प्रतिशत से बढ़ाकर 4 प्रतिशत कर दिया गया है। आज अनेक सरकारी व गैर-सरकारी संस्थाएँ इनके उत्थान के लिए कार्य कर रही हैं। इन्हें सामान्य जनता के साथ लाकर खड़ा करने में यदि हम सफल हो गए तो देश की ताकत और भी बढ़ जाएगी।

प्रश्न 15.
आपके विद्यालय में पीने का पानी पर्याप्त मात्रा में
उपलब्ध नहीं होता। इसकी शिकायत व सुधार के लिए प्रार्थना करते हुए प्रधानाचार्या को पत्र लिखिए।. (5)
अथवा
आपका छोटा भाई कुसंगति में पड़ गया है। उसे एक पत्र लिखिए जिसमें कुसंगति से बचने की शिक्षा दी गई हो।
उत्तर:
प्रधानाचार्या महोदया,
अ ब स विद्यालय,
विकासपुरी, नई दिल्ली।

विषय-अपर्याप्त पेयजल की सूचना।
आदरणीय महोदया,
सविनय निवेदन यह है कि मैं आपके विद्यालय की कक्षा दसवीं का छात्र, आपको विद्यालय में अपर्याप्त पेयजल की समस्या से अवगत कराना चाहता हूँ। हमारे विद्यालय में पीने के पानी का उचित प्रबन्ध न होने के कारण सभी छात्रों को बहुत परेशानी होती है। घर से लाया हुआ एक बोतल पानी तो प्रथम कालांश में ही खत्म हो जाता है, उसके बाद तो पानी के लिए पूरा दिन तरसते रहते हैं। आप तो जानती ही हैं कि पानी पीना स्वास्थ्य के लिए कितना आवश्यक है और हम छात्रों का लगभग आधा दिन विद्यालय में बिना पानी के ही गुजरता है, जो कि बहुत बुरी बात है।
मेरा आपसे नम्र निवेदन है कि जल्द ही पेयजल की कमी की समस्या को सुलझाने के लिए उचित कदम उठायें। मुझे आशा है आप मेरी प्रार्थना पर अवश्य ध्यान देंगी।
धन्यवाद।

आपका आज्ञाकारी छात्र,
क ख ग
दिनांक…………………………

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन,
नई दिल्ली।
दिनांक………………….
प्रिय अनुज,
शुभाशीर्वाद।
कल माताजी का पत्र प्राप्त हुआ। यह पढ़कर अत्यन्त दुःख हुआ कि इस वर्ष अर्द्धवार्षिक परीक्षा में तुम्हें केवल 30: अंक प्राप्त हुए हैं। इसका क्या कारण है, यह तुम्हीं बता सकते हो, किन्तु मुझे लगता है कि यह सब कुसंगति का परिणाम है। तुम गलत मित्रों की संगति में पड़ गए हो। अतः पढ़ाई निरन्तर गिरावट की ओर जा रही है।
तुमने यह तो पढ़ा ही होगा
काजल की कोठरी में कैसो ही सयानो जाये,
एक लीक काजल की लागे है ही लागे है।
बुरी संगति अनेक दुर्गुणों को जन्म देती है। इससे समय तो नष्ट होता ही है, साथ ही स्वास्थ्य भी चौपट हो जाता है। कबीरदास ने कहा भी है
कबीरा संगत साधु की, ज्यों गंधी का वास।
ज्यों गंधी कुछ नाहिं दे, तो भी बास सुबास॥
यह उम्र बहुत कुछ सीखने की है, इस वक्त जो आदतें पड़ जाएँगी, वे जीवन भर साथ रहेंगी। अतः पढ़ाई के साथ-साथ अपने आचरण को बिगड़ने से बचाओ। आशा है, तुम सत्संगति के महत्त्व को समझकर बुरे लोगों से दूर रहने का प्रयास करोगे व कोई ऐसा काम नहीं करोगे जिससे तुम्हारा व परिवार का नाम खराब हो। कोई भी बात हो तो मुझसे अवश्य कहना।
तुम्हारा अग्रज,
क ख ग

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 16.
आप चन्दन कुमार हैं। कुरुक्षेत्र विश्वविद्यालय, कुरुक्षेत्र के हिंदी विभाग में प्राध्यापक के पद पर नियुक्ति के लिए लगभग 80 शब्दों में स्ववृत्त तैयार कीजिए। (5)
अथवा
आपने कविता प्रकाशन से कुछ पुस्तकें मंगवाई थीं। 15 दिन के पश्चात् भी उन पुस्तकों का पार्सल आपको नहीं मिला। प्रकाशन को पार्सल रद्द करने के लिए ई मेल लिखिए।
उत्तर:
सेवा में
प्रधानाचार्य महोदय
कुरुक्षेत्र विश्वविद्यालय,
कुरुक्षेत्र, हरियाणा
विषय- प्राध्यापक पद के लिए आवेदन-पत्र।
महोदय
दिनांक 3 जनवरी, 20XX के नवभारत टाइम्स में प्रकाशित विज्ञापन के माध्यम से ज्ञात हुआ कि आपके विश्वविद्यालय में हिंदी विभाग में प्राध्यापक का पद रिक्त है। इस पद हेतु मैं अपना आवेदन प्रस्तुत कर रहा हूँ।
कॉलेज में इस पद हेतु सभी योग्यताओं को मैं पूरा करता हूँ। मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण इस प्रकार हैअतः श्रीमान से निवेदन है कि मुझे प्राध्यापक के पद पर नियुक्त करने की कृपा करें।
धन्यवाद
निवेदक
चन्दन कुमार
बड़ा बाजार
कुरुक्षेत्र
5 जनवरी, 20XX
मेरा स्ववृत्त आवेदन-पत्र के साथ संलग्न है।

स्ववृत्त

नाम : चन्दन कुमार
पिता का नाम : ओंकार कुमार
माता का नाम : सुनयना
जन्मतिथि : 06 अगस्त, 1994
वर्तमान पता : 3, कुरुक्षेत्र, हरियाणा
मोबाइल : 23X0000546
ईमेल : [email protected]

शैक्षणिक योग्यता
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions 1

अन्य योग्यताएँ

  • कंप्यूटर में 1 वर्ष का डिप्लोमा
  • हिंदी, अंग्रेजी भाषा की जानकारी।

उपलब्धियाँ

  • विद्यालय स्तर पर लेखन प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार।
  • राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर निबंध प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार।
  • अखिल भारतीय हिंदी प्रश्नोत्तरी में प्रथम पुरस्कार।

कार्येत्तर गतिविधियाँ और अभिरुचियाँ
हिंदी लेखन में विशेष रुचि।
हस्ताक्षर
चन्दन कुमार
दिनांक : X/XX/XXXX

अथवा

From : [email protected]
To : [email protected]
Cc : ……..
Bcc : …….
विषय : पार्सल रद्द करने हेतु
महोदय
निवेदन है कि मैंने आपके प्रकाशन से कक्षा 11 हिंदी आधार की 25, कक्षा 12 हिंदी आधार की 20, कक्षा 10 हिंदी क्षितिज भाग-2 की 25 पुस्तकें मँगवाई थीं। इस बात को पंद्रह दिन हो चुके हैं और अभी तक आपकी ओर से कोई इस सन्दर्भ में कोई सूचना नहीं आई। अब मैंने कहीं और से उन पुस्तकों का प्रबंध कर लिया है। अतः आपसे अनुरोध है कि आप मेरे पार्सल को रद्द कर मुझे सूचित करें।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय
सूर्यम गुप्ता

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 17.
स्कूल के हलके व मजबूत बस्तों की कंपनी के लिए लगभग 60 शब्दों में एक आकर्षक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (4)
अथवा
प्रवासी भारतीय दिवस की शुभकामना देते हुए लगभग 80 शब्दों में सन्देश लिखिए।
उत्तर:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

समय :3 घण्टे
पूर्णाक: 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

  1. प्रश्न-पत्र दो खण्डों में विभाजित किया गया है- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
  2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे जाएँगें, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के ही उत्तर देने होंगे।
  3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए जाएँगें। प्रश्नों में उचित आन्तरिक विकल्प दिए जाएंगे।
  4. उत्तर लिखते समय प्रश्न का क्रमांक अवश्य लिखें।
  5. एक प्रश्न के सभी भाग एक साथ हल करें।
  6. उत्तर स्पष्ट एवं तर्कसंगत हों।

रखण्ड’अ’ : अपठित बोध

I. अपठित बोध- (15 अंक)

(अ) अपठित गद्यांश

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

हमें अंग्रेज़ी से कोई गिला शिकवा नहीं है, अंग्रेज़ी की प्रभुता से है । प्रभुता हम हिन्दी को भी नहीं देना चाहते। उसे एक विशेष प्रयोजन के लिए सम्पर्क – भाषा के रूप में स्वीकार करते हैं, पर किसी दूसरी भारतीय भाषा को कुचलकर, दबाकर, या उसके हितों की अनदेखी कर के नहीं। राज्य – विशेष में उसके दैनिक व्यवहार के लिए उसी की भाषा उत्तम है । वहाँ हिन्दी को दखल नहीं देना। देश के स्वभाव और आवश्यकता के लिए हिन्दी अपरिहार्य है; आज से नहीं, लगभग एक हज़ार वर्षों से। दो भिन्न-भिन्न भाषा-भाषी परस्पर संवाद के लिए हिन्दी का ही सहारा लेते हैं। कुछ अंग्रेजी पढ़े लोग अब अंग्रेज़ी का प्रयोग करने लगे हैं, पर आम जन से बात करने में उनकी अंग्रेज़ी व्यर्थ हो जाती है और वे पुनः हिन्दी का सहारा लेते हैं। भारत के स्वभाव में द्विभाषिकता है । आज यातायात और दूरसंचार के माध्यमों के विकास से सम्पर्क – भाषा हिंदी की भूमिका बढ़ रही है, पर ऐसा नहीं है कि राज्य – विशेष में उस राज्य की भाषा उपेक्षित हो रही है । सभी भारतीय भाषाओं की उपेक्षा का कारण अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना है।

1. अंग्रेज़ी की प्रभुता से क्या आशय है? (1)
(क) अंग्रेज़ी भाषा का महत्त्व
(ख) मातृभाषा
(ग) संवाद की भाषा
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) अंग्रेज़ी भाषा का महत्त्व

2. लेखक ने गद्यांश में हिंदी को किस के रूप में प्रयोग करने पर ज़ोर दिया है? (1)
(क) सम्पर्क भाषा के
(ख) मातृभाषा के
(ग) राजभाषा के
(घ) विदेशी भाषा के
उत्तर:
(क) सम्पर्क भाषा के

3. राज्य के दैनिक व्यवहार में किस भाषा को उचित माना जाता है ? (1)
(क) हिंदी
(ख) राज्य की भाषा
(ग) विदेशी भाषा
(घ) लोकभाषा
उत्तर:
(ख) राज्य की भाषा

व्याख्या – राज्य के दैनिक व्यवहार में राज्य की भाषा को उचित माना जाता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

4. दो भिन्न भाषा-भाषी हिंदी का सहारा क्यों लेते हैं? (1)
(क) संवाद के लिए
(ख) गाने के लिए
(ग) जाने के लिए
(घ) पहचान के लिए
उत्तर:
(क) संवाद के लिए

5. अंग्रेज़ी किस से बात करने में व्यर्थ हो जाती है?
(क) आपस में
(ख) दफ़्तर में
(ग) घर में
(घ) आम जन से
उत्तर:
(घ) आम जन से

6. किस ने हिंदी के विकास में सहयोग किया है?
(क) प्रिंट मीडिया ने
(ख) दूरदर्शन ने
(ग) लोगों ने
(घ) यातायात ने
उत्तर:
(घ) यातायात ने

7. भारतीय भाषाओं की उपेक्षा का कारण क्या है?
(क) हिन्दी को अधिक महत्त्व देना
(ख) अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ख) अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना

8. भारतीय भाषाओं की उपेक्षा का क्या कारण रहा? (1)
(क) अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना
(ख) अपनी संस्कृति को हीन मानना
(ग) भारतीय भाषाओं के साहित्य की कमी
(घ) भारतीय भाषाओं की जानकारी का अभाव
उत्तर:
(ग) भारतीय भाषाओं के साहित्य की कमी

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

9. इस अवतरण को उचित शीर्षक दीजिए । 1
(क) अंग्रेज़ी की महत्ता
(ख) हिन्दी की महत्ता
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) अंग्रेज़ी की महत्ता

10. अनावश्यक शब्द में उपसर्ग है- (1)
(क) अ
(ख) अन
(ग) अना
(घ) वश्यक
उत्तर:
(ख) अन

व्याख्या – अनावश्यक शब्द में उपसर्ग है, अन। अन + आवश्यक इसका सन्धि विच्छेद होगा।

(ब) दिए गए काव्यांशों में से किसी एक काव्यांश से सम्बन्धित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

मनमोहनी प्रकृति की जो गोद में बसा है।
सुख स्वर्ग-सा जहाँ है, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
जिसके चरण निरंतर रत्नेश धो रहा है।
जिसका मुकुट हिमालय, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
नदियाँ जहाँ सुधा की धारा बहा रही हैं।
सींचा हुआ सलोना, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
जिसके बड़े रसीले फल कंद, नाज, मेवे ।
सब अंग में सजे हैं, वह देश कौन- -सा है ?
जिसके सुगंध वाले, सुंदर प्रसून प्यारे ।
दिन-रात हँस रहे हैं, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
मैदान, गिरि, वनों में, हरियालियाँ महकतीं ।
आनंदमय जहाँ है, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
जिसकी अनंत वन से धरती भरी पड़ी है।
संसार का शिरोमणि, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
सबसे प्रथम जगत में, जो सभ्य था यशस्वी ।
जगदीश का दुलारा, वह देश कौन-सा है ?

1. ‘जिसके चरण निरन्तर रत्नेश धो रहा है’ इस पंक्ति का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए । 1
उत्तर:
इस पंक्ति का भाव है कि भारत के दक्षिण में सागर है जो कि भारत माता के चरणों को धोता है।

2. कवि ने इस देश की नदियों के जल की क्या विशेषता बताई है? (1)
उत्तर:
कवि ने इस देश की नदियों के जल को अमृत के समान बताया है। इस देश की नदियाँ सुधा की धारा के समान बहती है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. ‘सुख स्वर्ग – सा’ में अलंकार है- (1)
(क) यमक
(ख) उपमा
(ग) रूपक
(घ) उत्प्रेक्षा
उत्तर:
(ख) उपमा

4. ‘संसार के शिरोमणि’ की संज्ञा किस देश को दी गई है ? (1)
(क) भारत
(ख) जापान
(ग) इंग्लैण्ड
(घ) श्रीलंका
उत्तर:
(क) भारत

व्याख्या – ‘संसार के शिरोमणि’ की संज्ञा भारत देश को दी गई है।

5. पद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक दीजिए । 1
उत्तर:
इस पद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक ‘भारत की महिमा’ है।

अथवा

जब-जब बाहें झुकी मेघ की, धरती का तन-मन ललका है,
जब-जब मैं गुज़रा पनघट से, पनिहारिन का घट छलका है।
सुन बाँसुरिया सदा-सदा से हर बेसुध राधा बहकी है,
मेघदूत को देख यक्ष की सुधियों में केसर महकी है ।
क्या अपराध किसी का है फिर क्या कमज़ोरी कहूँ किसी की,
जब-जब रंग जमा महफिल में जोश रुका कब पायल का है।
जब-जब मन में भाव उमड़ते, प्रणय श्लोक अवतीर्ण हुए हैं,
जब-जब प्यास जगी पत्थर में, निर्झर स्रोत विकीर्ण हुए हैं।
जब-जब गूँजी लोकगीत की धुन अथवा आल्हा की कड़ियाँ,
खेतों पर यौवन लहराया, रूप गुजरिया का दमका है।

1. प्रस्तुत पद्यांश में किसका तन-मन ललकता कहा गया है?
(क) पनिहारिन का
(ख) राधा का
(ग) धरती का
(घ) गुजरिया का
उत्तर:
(ग) धरती का

2. मेघों के झुकने पर धरती कैसी हो जाती है ? (1)
उत्तर:
मेघों के झुकने पर धरती पानी से सराबोर हो उठती है तथा हरी-भरी हो जाती है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. मन के भावों और प्रेम गीतों का परस्पर क्या सम्बन्ध है ? (1)
उत्तर:
मन के भावों और गीतों का आपस में गहरा सम्बन्ध बताया गया है। जब मन में भाव उमड़ते हैं उन्हीं के अनुरूप प्रणय-गीत उमड़ पड़ते हैं।

4. आल्हा किस राज्य का लोकगीत है? (1)
(क) पंजाब
(ख) महाराष्ट्र
(ग) बुंदेलखंड
(घ) गुजरात
उत्तर:
(ग) बुंदेलखण्ड

5. ‘खेतों पर यौवन लहराया, रूप गुजरिया का दमका’ का आशय क्या है? (1)
उत्तर:
वर्षा ऋतु में खेत उसी प्रकार हरे-भरे हो जाते हैं जिस प्रकार ग्रामीण स्त्रियाँ अपने प्रेमी के निकट रहने पर सौंदर्य से युक्त हो जाती है।

II. पाठ्यपुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम की इकाई एक से पाठ संख्या 1 तथा 2 पर आधारित बहुविकल्पात्मक प्रश्न । (1 × 5 = 5)

निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए ।

1. समाचार माध्यमों के लिए पत्रकारों द्वारा किया गया लेखन कहलाता है- (1)
(क) साहित्य लेखन
(ख) पत्रकारीय लेखन
(ग) विज्ञापन लेखन
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) साहित्य लेखन

2. पीत पत्रकारिता का दूसरा नाम है- (1)
(क) अंशकालिक लेखन
(ख) पेज थ्री
(ग) खोजी
(घ) एडवोकेसी
उत्तर:
(क) अंशकालिक लेखन

3. मुद्रित माध्यम की भाषा की विशेषता है- (1)
(क) बोलचाल की भाषा का प्रयोग
(ख) लोकोक्तियों और मुहावरों का प्रयोग
(ग) लिखित भाषा का विस्तार
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

व्याख्या – मुद्रित माध्यम को प्रिंट माध्यम भी कहते हैं। इसके अन्तर्गत समाचार -पत्र, पत्रिकाएँ तथा पुस्तकें आदि आती हैं।

4. इंटरनेट की बढ़ती लोकप्रियता की क्या वजह है ? (1)
(क) पत्रकारिता का तीव्रगामी माध्यम
(ख) तत्काल अपडेशन की सुविधा
(ग) तकनीक के साथ सामंजस्य
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

व्याख्या – इंटरनेट पर समाचार पढ़ने, सुनने और देखने की सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध होती हैं। इंटरनेट पत्रकारिता को ऑनलाइन पत्रकारिका, साइबर पत्रकारिता तथा वेब पत्रकारिता आदि नामों से भी जाना जाता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

5. छिपे कैमरे द्वारा रिकॉर्ड कर भ्रष्टाचार को उजागर करना क्या कहलाता है ? (1)
(क) ब्रेकिंग न्यूज़
(ख) वॉयस ओवर
(ग) स्टिंग ऑपरेशन
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) स्टिंग ऑपरेशन

III. पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-1 (10 अंक)

(अ) निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

चंपा काले काले अच्छर नहीं चीन्हती
मैं जब पढ़ने लगता हूँ वह आ जाती है
खड़ी खड़ी चुपचाप सुना करती है
उसे बड़ा अचरज होता है
इन काले चीन्हों से कैसे ये सब स्वर
निकला करते हैं।

1. प्रगतिवादी कवि कौन है? (1)
(क) जयशंकर प्रसाद
(ख) सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी ‘निराला’
(ग) त्रिलोचन
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) त्रिलोचन

2. कौन अक्षरों का महत्त्व नहीं जानता? (1)
(क) त्रिलोचन
(ख) चंपा
(ग) मुकेश
(घ) सीता
उत्तर:
(ख) चंपा

व्याख्या – चंपा नामक ग्वालिन-बाला अक्षरों का महत्त्व नहीं जानती।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. चंपा के लिए अक्षर किसके समान है ? (1)
(क) काले धब्बे
(ख) लाल धब्बे
(ग) पीले धब्बे
(घ) हरे धब्बे
उत्तर:
(क) काले धब्बे

4. अचरज़ का अर्थ है- (1)
(क) आश्चर्य
(ख) अनोखा
(ग) विस्मय
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) ये सभी

व्याख्या – अचरज का अर्थ है-आश्चर्य, अनोखा, विस्मय आदि।

5. ‘काले – काले’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है? (1)
(क) उपमा
(ख) रूपक
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश
(घ) अतिश्योक्ति
उत्तर:
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश

व्याख्या – जब कोई शब्द एक से अधिक बार आए तो वहां पुररुक्ति प्रकाश अलंकार होता है। अतः ‘काले-काले’ में पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश अलंकार होगा।

(ब) निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

आगे भी इस देश में जो प्रधान शासक आये, अन्त में उनको जाना पड़ा। इससे आपका जाना भी परम्परा की चाल में कुछ अलग नहीं है, तथापि आपके शासन-काल का नाटक घोर दुःखान्त है, और अधिक आश्चर्य की बात यह है कि दर्शक तो क्या, स्वयं सूत्रधार भी नहीं जानता था कि उसने जो खेल सुखांत समझकर खेलना आरम्भ किया था, वह दुखांत हो जाएगा जिसके आदि में सुख था, मध्य में सीमा से बाहर का सुख था। उसका अंत ऐसे घोर दुःख के साथ कैसे हुआ ? आह ! घमण्डी खिलाड़ी समझता है कि दूसरों को अपनी लीला दिखाता हूँ । किन्तु पर्दे के पीछे एक और ही लीलामय की लीला हो रही है, यह उसे खबर नहीं !

1. लॉर्ड कर्ज़न का शासन काल कैसा था ? (1)
(क) सुखान्त
(ख) दुःखान्त
(ग) आश्चर्यजनक
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ख) दुःखान्त

व्याख्या – लार्ड कर्जन का शासन काल दु:खान्त था।

2. किसके कारण उसे प्रजा का विरोध झेलना पड़ा ? (1)
(क) बंगाल विभाजन
(ख) गाँधी जी
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) बंगाल विभाजन

व्याख्या – बंगाल-विभाजन के कारण उसे प्रजा का विरोध झेलना पड़ा।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. किसको सूत्रधार कहा गया है ? (1)
(क) कर्जन
(ख) एडवर्ड
(ग) बालमुकुंद गुप्त
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ख) एडवर्ड

4. इस गद्यांश के लेखक का नाम क्या है? (1)
(क) प्रेमचन्द
(ख) बालमुकुन्द गुप्त
(ग) शेखर जोशी
(घ) जयशंकर प्रसाद
उत्तर:
(ख) बालमुकुन्द गुप्त

5. घमण्डी खिलाड़ी की संज्ञा किसे दी गई है ? (1)
(क) प्रेमचन्द
(ख) बालमुकुंद
(ग) शेखर जोशी
(घ) कर्जन
उत्तर:
(घ) कर्जन

IV. पूरक पाठ्य पुस्तक वितान भाग – 1 (10 अंक)

निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

1. भारतीय गायिकाओं में बेजोड़ लता मंगेशकर नामक पाठ के लेखक हैं- (1)
(क) अनुपम मिश्र
(ख) प्रेमचंद
(ग) कुमार गंधर्व
(घ) हजारी प्रसाद
उत्तर:
(ग) कुमार गंधर्व

2. लता मंगेशकर के पिता का नाम था- (1)
(क) दीनानाथ
(ख) भोलानाथ
(ग) रमानाथ
(घ) गंगानाथ
उत्तर:
(क) दीनानाथ

3. लता से पूर्व किस प्रसिद्ध गायिका का ज़माना था ? (1)
(क) आशा भोंसले
(ख) उषा
(ग) नूरजहाँ
(घ) अनुराधा
उत्तर:
(ग) नूरजहाँ

4. इनमें से लता के गाने की प्रमुख विशेषता है- (1)
(क) नादय उच्चारण
(ख) आचरण
(ग) उच्चारण
(घ) ताल
उत्तर:
(क) नादय उच्चारण

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

5. सामान्यतः लता ने कौन-सी पट्टी में गीत गाए हैं ? (1)
(क) सामान्य
(ख) निम्न
(ग) ऊँची
(घ) मध्यम
उत्तर:
(ग) ऊँची

6. बेबी हालदार को काम दिलवाने में किस युवक ने मदद दी थी ?
(क) सुनील
(ख) भोलादा
(ग) उसके भाई
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) सुनील

व्याख्या-बेबी हालदार को सुनील ने काम दिलवाने

7. बेबी हालदार से पहले तातुश के घर में काम करने वाली की उम्र कितनी थी ? (1)
(क) 30 से 40
(ख) 35 से 40
(ग) 40 से 45
(घ) 45 से 50
उत्तर:
(ख) 35 से 40

8. बेबी हालदार कितनी पढ़ी लिखी थी ? (1)
(क) चौथी
(ख) पाँचवी
(ग) छठी
(घ) सातवीं
उत्तर:
(घ) सातवीं

व्याख्या – बेबी हालदार सातवीं क्लास तक पढ़ी लिखी थीं।

9. ताश के बच्चे तातुश को क्या कहकर बुलाते थे ? (1)
(क) पिता
(ख) बाबा
(ग) तातुश
(घ) पापा
उत्तर:
(ग) तातुश

10. बेबी हालदार के किराए के घर में कुल कितने सदस्य रहते थे? (1)
(क) तीन
(ख) दो
(ग) चार
(घ) एक
उत्तर:
(क) तीन

व्याख्या-बेबी हालदार के किराए के घर में कुल तीन सदस्य रहते थे।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

खण्ड ‘ब’ : वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

V. पाठ्य-पुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम से सृजनात्मक लेखन और व्यावहारिक लेखन । (20 अंक)

1. निम्नलिखित चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर रचनात्मक लेखन कीजिए – ( लगभग 120 शब्दों में) (5 × 1 = 5)

(क) ‘हिन्दी भाषा की उपयोगिता’ विषय पर अपने विचार प्रकट कीजिए । 5
उत्तर:
‘हिन्दी भाषा की उपयोगिता’ – हिन्दी भाषा को भारतवर्ष की राष्ट्रभाषा कहा जा सकता है। यह भाषा सिर्फ स्कूल, कॉलेज और विश्वविद्यालयों में पाठ्यक्रम का ही माध्यम नहीं है अपितु यह भारत के अधिकतर जन-जन की भाषा है। यह देश के लोगों के व्यवहार की भाषा है। आज हमारे देश में ही नहीं बल्कि दूसरे देशों में भी हिन्दी भाषा की बहुत उपयोगिता है । हिन्दी की उपयोगिता दिन-प्रतिदिन बढ़ रही है। यह हमारे देश की राजकाज की भाषा है। इसमें ही बैंकों, आयोगों विभिन्न मन्त्रालयों तथा संस्थाओं द्वारा प्रतियोगी परीक्षाएँ आयोजित की जाती हैं।

यह जनसंचार का प्रमुख माध्यम है। यह मीडिया, दूरदर्शन, सिनेमा, शिक्षा जनसंचार आदि क्षेत्रों की प्रमुख भाषा है। आज इस भाषा में अनूठा साहित्य उपलब्ध है। इसमें, कहानी, कविता, उपन्यास, निबन्ध, यात्रावृत्त, संस्मरण, रेखाचित्र आदि अनेक विधाओं में श्रेष्ठ साहित्य लिखा गया है और लिखा जा रहा है। इसमें विदेशों में भी साहित्य लिखा जा रहा है। क्लर्क से लेकर IAS तक की अधिकतर परीक्षाएँ हिन्दी माध्यम में ली जा रही हैं। वैश्वीकरण के युग में हिन्दी की उपयोगिता भारत में ही नहीं बल्कि संपूर्ण संसार में है। हम सबको हिन्दी का प्रचार-प्रसार करना चाहिए ताकि एक दिन यह विश्व की नम्बर एक भाषा बन सके।

(ख) नदी किनारे एक शाम आप अपने दोस्तों के साथ व्यतीत करते हैं, वहां के दृश्य का वर्णन कीजिए । 5
उत्तर:
गर्मियों की छुट्टियों के दिन थे। स्कूल जाने की चिन्ता नहीं थी और न ही होमवर्क की एक मेरे दोस्तों ने तय किया कि आज शाम नदी किनारे सैर करने चलेंगे। शायद गर्मी से कुछ राहत मिलेगी, कुछ प्रकृति के सौन्दर्य दर्शन करके मन खुश होगा हम सब शाम को 6 बजे के करीब नदी की तरफ पैदल ही चल दिए। ढलते सूर्य की लाल-लाल किरणें पश्चिम क्षितिज पर ऐसी लग रही थीं कि मानो प्रकृति रूपी युवती लाल-लाल वस्त्र पहने मचल रही हो। पक्षी अपने-अपने घौंसलों की तरफ लौटने लगे थे। हरियाली चारों तरफ छायी हुई थी। ज्यों ही हम नदी किनारे पहुँचे सूर्य की सुनहरी किरणें नदी के पानी पर पड़ती हुई बहुत ही खूबसूरत लग रही थीं ऐसे लगता था कि मानों नदी के जल में हज़ारों लाल कमल एक साथ खिल उठे हों। नदी किनारे लगे पेड़ों की पंक्ति देखकर ‘तरनि तनुजा तट तमाल, तरुवर बहु छाए’ कविता पंक्ति याद आ गई।

नदी तट के पास वाले जंगल से ग्वाले पशु चराकर अपने-अपने घरों की लौट रहे थे हम सभी मित्र बात कम, प्रकृति के रूप रस का गान अधिक कर रहे थे। थोड़े ही देर में सूर्यास्ताचल की ओर जाता प्रतीत हुआ। तभी नदी का जो जल लाल लगता था वह अब नीला दिखने लगा। बगुलों की सफेद-सफेद पंक्तियाँ उड़ते हुए उस धूमिल वातावरण में और भी अधिक सफेद लग रही थीं। प्रकृति की सुन्दरता निहारते – निहारते ऐसे खोए कि वक्त का ख़्याल ही न रहा। नदी किनारे सैर करते हुए बिताई यह शाम हमें ताउम्र याद रहेगी।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

(ग) मोबाइल फोन और विद्यार्थी के अन्तःसम्बन्ध का वर्णन कीजिए । 5
उत्तर:
‘मोबाइल फोन और विद्यार्थी’ वर्तमान का युग संचार-क्रान्ति का युग है। इस युग में मोबाइल हम सबकी ज़िन्दगी का मुख्य हिस्सा बन गया है। आज मोबाइल ने हर क्षेत्र में क्रान्ति ला दी है। समाज में हर व्यक्ति अपनी-अपनी ज़रूरत के मुताबिक इसका फायदा ले रहा है। आज स्कूल, कॉलेज, विश्वविद्यालय, किसी भी स्तर का ही क्यों न हो। आज मोबाइल का प्रयोग सिर्फ बातचीत के लिए ही नहीं किया जाता बल्कि विद्यार्थी इसका प्रयोग इन्टरनेट, ई-मेल, चैटिंग, रिसर्च आदि के लिए भी करते हैं। इससे घर बैठे इन्टरनेट के ज़रिए दुनियाँ के किसी भी कोने की जानकारी प्राप्त कर सकते हैं।

विद्यार्थी अपनी मनचाही सामग्री को डाउनलोड कर सकते हैं; प्रिन्ट निकाल सकते हैं। आज मोबाइल जीवन के लिए जितना उपयोगी है, उतना हानिकारक भी। जो विद्यार्थी मोबाइल का दुरुपयोग कर समय नष्ट करते हैं, वह कभी सफल नहीं होते हैं और उनको हानिकारक परिणाम भुगतना पड़ता है। सभी विद्यार्थियों को मोबाइल की अहमियत समझनी चाहिए और हमेशा मोबाइल का सदुपयोग करते रहना चाहिए।, दुरूपयोग नहीं ।

(घ) अपनी किसी ऐसी रेल यात्रा का वर्णन कीजिए, जिसे आप आज भी याद करते हैं। 5
उत्तर:
‘मेरी रेल यात्रा’ – हमारे देश में रेलवे ही एक विभाग है जो यात्रियों को टिकट देकर भी सीट की गारंटी नहीं देता। गाड़ी में घुस पाने की समस्या भी सामने आती है। कभी-कभी तो ऐसा भी होता है कि टिकट पास होकर भी आप गाड़ी में सवार नहीं हो पाते हैं फैमिली साथ हो तो यह समस्या और भी कष्ट दायक होती है। मैं एक बार दिल्ली जाने के लिए स्टेशन पर रेलागाड़ी का इन्तज़ार कर रहा था। गाड़ी 2 घण्टे लेट थी। यात्री बैचेन थे।

गाड़ी आई तो गाड़ी में सवार होने हेतु बहुत मशक्कत करनी पड़ी किस्मत अच्छी थी मैं आखिकार सवार हो गया। गाड़ी कुछ ही दूर चली ही थी कि कुछ यात्रियों के मुँह से सुना कि यह डिब्बा (जिसमें मैं बैठा था) आगरा में कट जाएगा। यह सुनकर मैं परेशानी में पड़ गया। गाड़ी रात 2 बजे आगरा स्टेशन पहुँची (जहाँ हमारा डिब्बा कटना था) और हमें दूसरे डिब्बे में सवार होना था तभी अचानक बारिश शुरू हो गई। स्टेशन पर अपना-अपना सामान उठाए लोग बारिश में भीगते हुए दूसरे डिब्बे की तरफ भागने लगे। मैं भी अपनी अटैची लेकर उतरने लगा कि एकदम से वह डिब्बा चलने लगा। मैं गिरते-गिरते बचा और अटैची लेकर जल्दी-जल्दी दूसरे डिब्बे की तरफ बढ़ने लगा। गर्मी का मौसम था और उस डिब्बे के पंखे बन्द थे । गाड़ी चली, तब हवा लगी और कुछ राहत मिली। आखिरकार मैं दिल्ली पहुँच ही गया।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

2. दैनिक जागरण समाचार-पत्र के संपादक को एक पत्र लिखिए जिसमें ” अपराधी तत्वों के राजनीति में जाने से लोकतंत्र के लिए संभा वित खतरों के प्रति चिंता प्रकट की गयी हो।” 5
अथवा
अपने क्षेत्र की बिजली की समस्या की ओर बिजली विभाग के अधिकारियों का ध्यान आकर्षित कराते हुए किसी दैनिक समाचार पत्र के संपादक को पत्र लिखिए । 5
उत्तर:
20 ए, रोहिणी सेक्टर-4
हाइवे सिटी,
दिल्ली।
16 अप्रैल, 20………

सेवा में,
संपादक महोदय,
दैनिक जागरण,
बहादुरशाह जफर मार्ग
नई दिल्ली-110001

विषय: अपराधी तत्वों के राजनीति में जाने से लोकतंत्र के लिए सम्भावित खतरों के संबंध में।

मान्यवर,
देश का एक ज़िम्मेदार और जागरूक नागरिक होने के नाते, मैं आपके प्रतिष्ठित तथा लोकप्रिय दैनिक अखबार के माध्यम से, अपराधी तत्वों के राजनीति में प्रवेश से लोकतंत्र के लिए संभावित खतरों के प्रति अपनी चिंता व्यक्त करना चाहता हूँ।

आज देश में सभी ओर कालाबाजारी, रिश्वतखोरी, भ्रष्टाचार भाई-भतीजावाद, जातिवाद व सांप्रदायिकता का जहर फैल रहा है। एक सामान्य कर्मचारी से लेकर शीर्षस्थ नेताओं पर भ्रष्टाचार, संबंधी आरोप समय-समय पर लगते रहे हैं। इस प्रकार भ्रष्टाचार के कारण देश की राजनीति में आपराधिक तत्व बढ़ते जा रहे हैं। हमारी भारतीय राजनीति में धन व शक्ति का ही बोलबाला है। कई नेता अत्यधिक धनाढ्य हैं तो कईयों के नामचीन अपराधियों से संबंध हैं। हमारे चुनाव भी गुणवत्ता के आधार पर नहीं होते। इसलिए योग्य व्यक्ति आगे नहीं आ पाते और स्वार्थी तथा अपराधी तत्व अपने धन व शक्ति के बल पर राजनीति में आ जाते हैं जिनमें देश के प्रति प्रेम की भावना न के बराबर होती है। इस प्रकार के लोग जब शीर्षस्थ अधिकारी हों तो प्रशासन प्रणाली को स्वच्छ रखना दुष्कर हो जाता है।

हमें अपनी राजनीति को स्वच्छ करने के लिए इन अपराधी तत्वों को हटाना ही होगा। उसके लिए आवश्यक होगा कि हम अपनी कानून-व्यवस्था और चुनाव प्रक्रिया में सकारात्मक परिवर्तन लाएँ। यह भी अत्यन्त आवश्यक है कि सभी धर्म, जाति, संप्रदाय, क्षेत्र व भाषा के लोग अपने मतभेदों को भूलकर एकजुट होकर इस पर अंकुश लगाएँ और देशहित को सर्वोपरि रखकर, मतदान द्वारा स्वच्छ छवि के लोगों को राजनीति में लाएँ।

मान्यवर, आप भी मेरी तरह इस विषय में चिंतित अवश्य होंगे। अतः आपसे अनुरोध है कि मेरे इस पत्र को अपने समाचार-पत्र में प्रकाशित कर मुझे अनुग्रहीत करें।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय
मानव गुप्ता

अथवा

सेवा में,
संपादक महोदय,
नवभारत टाइम्स,
7, बहादुर ज़फर मार्ग,
नई दिल्ली।

विषय: बिजली की समस्या के सम्बन्ध में।

महोदय,
मैं आपके लोकप्रिय समाचार-पत्र के माध्यम से अधिकारी वर्ग का ध्यान अपने क्षेत्र की बिजली की समस्या की ओर आकर्षित कराना चाहता हूँ।

पिछले कुछ दिनों से हमारे क्षेत्र में बिजली आँख मिचौली करती रहती है। आजकल हमारी परीक्षाएँ चल रही हैं अतः परीक्षा की तैयारी करने में अत्यधिक परेशानी हो रही है। गर्मी के कारण हमारा शरीर पसीने से तर-बतर हो जाता जिसके कारण पढ़ने को मन नहीं करता। हमारे क्षेत्र में कुछ धनी लोग रहते हैं, जिनके पास जनरेटर तथा इनवर्टर की सुविधा है, परन्तु हम जैसे निम्न मध्यम वर्ग के लोगों की दशा बिजली चली जाने पर अत्यन्त दयनीय हो जाती है।

आजकल रात्रि के समय भी पढ़ना आवश्यक होता है, परन्तु पढ़ते समय जब बिजली चली जाती है तो बिना बिजली के घर भी भूत का डेरा लगने लगता है। एक तो परीक्षा का भूत साँस नहीं लेने देता, इसके साथ अंधेरे का भूत रही-सही कसर पूरी कर देता है अतः आपसे विनम्र निवेदन है कि इन दिनों आप बिजली की आपूर्ति निरन्तर बनाये रखें। आपकी अति कृपा होगी।
भवदीय
छात्रगण
23 ए, खानपुर रोड
दिल्ली – (1)10011
दिनांक ……….

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 60 शब्दों में) दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) “परीक्षा में आप अनुत्तीर्ण हो गए हैं।” इस अवसर पर डायरी लेखन कीजिए । 3
उत्तर:
27 मार्च, 20XXX – आज मेरा परीक्षा परिणाम आया है, अनुत्तीर्ण होने का परिणाम सुनकर मेरे पैरों तले जमीन खिसक गई। मेरे मित्रों ने मुझे ढास दिलाया, बाद में मुझे अपनी गलती का अहसास हुआ। मैं खेलों में ज़्यादा ध्यान देता रहा अतः अनुत्तीर्ण हो गया। अपनी गलती को सुधारने के प्रति सचेष्ट रहूंगा। मुझे अध्यापक जी का कथन याद आया कि “गिरते हैं शहसवार ही मैदान-ए-जंग में” और मैंने निश्चय किया कि अब मैं ठीक से पढ़ाई करूँगा और अगले वर्ष अच्छे अंकों से उत्तीर्ण होकर दिखाऊँगा ।

(ख) आज आपको क्रिसमस पार्टी में आमन्त्रित किया गया था। पार्टी के बारे में लगभग 100-120 शब्दों में डायरी प्रविष्टि लिखें। 3
उत्तर:
मंगलवार
25 दिसम्बर, 20xx
शाम के बाद
प्रिय डायरी
मेरे दोस्त द्वारा आज क्रिसमस पार्टी का आयोजन किया गया था। इसके लिए मैं बहुत उत्साहित था कि उसने मुझे क्रिसमस कार्निवल में भाग लेने के लिए आमंत्रित किया। पार्टी का समय शाम 6.30 9.30 बजे था। मैं शाम 6.30 बजे पार्टी में सम्मिलित हुआ। उसने अपने घर को गुब्बारे और रिवन से बहुत ही भव्य रूप में सजाया हुआ था। एक क्रिसमस ट्री था जिसे रोशनी और छोटे-छोटे खिलौनों से सजाया गया था 7.30 बजे हमने केक काटा और केक का आनन्द लिया। क्रिसमस शब्द शीतकालीन ठंड, सितारों, माल्यार्पण, सांता क्लॉज एवं प्लम का पर्याय है।

क्रिसमस समारोह को चिन्हित करने के लिए हममें से कई लोगों ने लाल रंग के कपड़े पहने थे। कार्निवल में लाइव बैंड द्वारा कई प्रस्तुतियाँ वातावरण को मनोरंजक बनाने वाले हल्के मधुर संगीत ने दर्शकों को मंत्रमुग्ध कर दिया । कार्निवल में एक फोटो स्टूडियो, मजेदार और यादगार क्लिकों, जादूगरों एवं अनेक प्रकार के खेलों के साथ-साथ खाने-पीने के स्टॉलों की भी बहुत शानदार पेशकश रही। इस प्रकार के उत्सव समारोह परिवार और दोस्तों के साथ खोई हुई ऊर्जा जोड़ते हैं और मस्ती का आनन्द लेते हैं। ये उत्सव लोगों की सांसारिक जीवन शैली को तोड़ने का मौका देते हैं। बहुत से उपहारों के साथ यह अवसर जीते जा सकते हैं बहुत जोश और उत्साह से भरा हुआ यह कार्निवल एक यादगार बन गया है जिसे भूलकर भी नहीं भुलाया जा सकता।
शुभ रात्रि डायरी
दीप्ति

(ग) पटकथा का निर्माण कैसे किया जाता है ? स्पष्ट कीजिए । 3
उत्तर:
फिल्म या टीवी की पटकथा का चरित्र नाटक विधा के साथ बहुत मिलता है। नाटक की भाँति पटकथा में पात्र चरित्र-चित्रण, नायक प्रतिनायक, घटनास्थल दृश्य, कहानी का क्रमिक विकास आदि सब कुछ होता है। द्वन्द्व, टकराहट और फिर समाधान यह सब पटकथा के आवश्यक तत्व या अंग होते हैं। पटकथा लेखक इन्हीं तत्त्वों को आधार बनाकर पटकथा की रचना करते हैं। आज अनेक फिल्मों व टीवी सीरियलों की पटकथाओं का निर्माण बहुत ज़्यादा मात्रा में हो रहा है। आज के वैज्ञानिक युग में कम्प्यूटर पर ऐसे सॉफ्टवेयर आ गए हैं, जिनमें कथा-पटकथा का प्रारूप बना बनाया होता है। छोटी-सी गलती भी तुरन्त पकड़ ली जा सकती है तथा उसको सुधारने के सुझाव भी दिए जाते हैं।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

4. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 40 शब्दों में) दीजिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) शब्द द्वारा अक्षर परिचय से क्या तात्पर्य है ?
उत्तर:
सामान्यतः अक्षर सीखने में बालक की रुचि नहीं होती, वह उसे निरर्थक चिन्ह जान पड़ते हैं, अतः कुछ शिक्षाशास्त्रियों का मत है कि शब्द द्वारा बालक को अक्षर ज्ञान कराया जाना चाहिए। शब्दों को वस्तु के साथ या चित्र के साथ प्रस्तुत करना उपयुक्त बताया गया है; जैसे बालक चित्रों के साथ लिखे हुए शब्दों तथा विशेष अक्षरों को देखता है;
जैसे-
त = तरबूज
त = ततराजू
त = तलवार
त = तकली

क = कलम
क = कमल
क = कटारो
क = कबूतर

(ख) शब्दकोष और सन्दर्भ ग्रन्थ में क्या अन्तर है ?
उत्तर:
एक शब्दकोष और एक सन्दर्भ ग्रन्थ के बीच कई अन्तर हैं। शब्दकोष एक बड़ी सूची या ऐसा पाठ है जिसमें शब्दों की वर्तनी, उनकी व्युत्पत्ति, व्याकरण, निर्देश, अर्थ, परिभाषा, उपयोग और पदार्थ आदि का एक साथ बैठना है। वहीं सन्दर्भ वस्तुओं के बीच एक सम्बन्ध है जिसमें एक वस्तु निर्दिष्ट करती है।

(ग) कल्पना कीजिए कि आपने पत्रकारिता के क्षेत्र में अपना अध्ययन पूरा कर लिया है और किसी प्रसिद्ध अखबार में पत्रकार पद के लिए आवेदन भेजना है। इसके लिए एक आवेदन-पत्र लिखिए। (3)
उत्तर:
सेवा में,
सम्पादक,
अमर उजाला,
हरिद्वार।
विषय- “पत्रकार पद के लिए आवेदन हेतु ”
महोदय,
आज दिनाङ्क 10 जुलाई, 20xx को समाचार पत्र अमर उजाला से प्रकाशित विज्ञापन के माध्यम से ज्ञात हुआ है कि आपके कार्यालय को पत्रकार की आवश्यकता है। मैं इस पद के लिए अपना आवेदन पत्र प्रस्तुत कर रहा हूँ। मेरा स्ववृत्त इस आवेदन पत्र के साथ संलग्न है। इसका अवलोकन करने पर आप मुझे इस पद के लिए उचित उम्मीदवार समझेंगे। मैं आपके विज्ञापन में वर्णित सभी योग्यताओं को पूरा करता हूँ।

मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण निम्नलिखित प्रकार से है-
नाम- शेखर
पिता का नाम – चेतराम
जन्मतिथि – 9/10/1996
वर्तमान पता – 40, विकास नगर, हरिद्वार
स्थायी पता – 40, विकास नगर, हरिद्वार
दूरभाष- 0642-5451
चलध्वनि – 94788954xx

शैक्षणिक योग्यताएँ
Img 1
इस योग्यता के साथ-साथ में कई वर्षों से स्वतन्त्र लेखन
से भी जुड़ा हुआ हूँ। मुझे पत्रकारिता में बेहद रुचि है। मैं आपको पूर्ण विश्वास दिलाता हूँ, यदि आपने मुझे कार्य करने का अवसर प्रदान किया तो मैं अपना कार्य पूरी निष्ठा से करूँगा।
आपसे अनुरोध है कि उपर्युक्त तथ्यों को ध्यान में रखते हुए मेरे आवेदन-पत्र पर सकारात्मक विचार करते हुए मुझे पद पर अवश्य नियुक्त करेंगे।
सधन्यवाद
भवदीय
मुहम्मद अनीस

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

VI. पाठ्य-पुस्तक आरोह भाग-1 (20 अंक)

1. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 60 शब्दों में) दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) आदिवासियों की किस विशेषता ने कवयित्री को आकर्षित किया ? (3)
उत्तर:
कवयित्री आदिवासी समाज के रीति-रिवाज़ों, मौलिक प्रवृतियों व नैसर्गिक जीवन से आकर्षित हुई क्योंकि इन्हीं विशेषताओं के कारण ही उनका समाज अपनी पहचान बनाए हुए है। उनका प्रकृति के निकट रहते हुए शहरी भागदौड़ से दूर शांतिपूर्ण ढंग से अपनी मस्ती में जीने के ढंग से कवयित्री प्रभावित है और ऐसे जीवन के प्रति एक खिंचाव महसूस करती है।

(ख) कवि दुष्यंत के अनुसार स्वतंत्रता मिलने के बाद समाज की स्थिति कैसी है ? कवि ने किस पर व्यंग्य किया है ? और क्यों ? (3)
उत्तर:
कवि के अनुसार स्वतंत्रता प्राप्ति के बाद भी समाज की स्थिति में कोई सुधार नहीं हुआ है। आशा तो यही थी कि शहरों में सभी सुख-सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध होंगी, लेकिन हुआ इसके विपरीत ही कहीं भी सुख-समृद्धि की झलक नहीं मिलती। कवि ने शासन-व्यवस्था पर व्यंग्य किया है। कवि कहते हैं कि राजनेता, सरकारी तंत्र, शासन व्यवस्था आदि भ्रष्ट कार्यप्रणाली के साथ कार्य करते हैं। स्वतंत्रता प्राप्ति के बाद नेताओं ने जनता को आश्वासन दिए थे कि हर घर में सुख-सुविधाएँ प्राप्त होंगी, लेकिन पूरे शहर में कहीं भी ये जन सुविधाएँ प्राप्त नहीं हैं। लोगों का निर्वाह मुश्किल होता है तो वे निराश हो जाते हैं कटु सत्य तो यह है कि नेताओं के झूठे आश्वासन व जनकल्याणकारी संस्थाओं द्वारा आम आदमी के शोषण के उदाहरण देखने को मिलते रहते हैं। चारों तरफ भ्रष्टाचार का बोलबाला है। लोगों का कल्याण नहीं हो पा रहा। जो संस्थाएँ लोगों के कल्याण व सुख-समृद्धि के लिए बनाई गई थीं, वही संस्थाएँ उनके जीवन के लिए दुःखदायी बन गई हैं।

(ग) ‘मुट्ठियाँ भींचकर बस वक्त निकाल लेना’ से कवि का क्या तात्पर्य है ? (3)
उत्तर:
मुट्ठियाँ भींचना का अर्थ है क्रोध दिखाना। जब लोग अपने आस-पास कुछ अन्याय या गलत होता देखते हैं तो उन्हें क्रोध आता है लेकिन वे केवल मुट्ठियाँ भींचकर रह जाते हैं उस अन्याय का, बुराई का खुलकर विरोध नहीं करते केवल विरोध का दिखावा करते हैं।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

2. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में दीजिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) मीरा जगत को देखकर रोती क्यों है ? (2)
उत्तर:
मीरा जगत को देखकर इसलिए रोती है क्योंकि वह सोचती है कि इस जगत् के लोगों में विवेक नहीं है, वे नहीं जानते कि संसार मिथ्या है, नश्वर है, यहाँ की प्रत्येक वस्तु क्षणिक है, सारहीन है जगत् के लोग भ्रमित होकर सांसारिक विषय वासनाओं में भटक रहे हैं। उन्हें समझ नहीं है कि भगवद् प्रेम ही शाश्वत है, उसे ही प्राप्त करने के लिए प्रयत्न करना चाहिए न कि सांसारिक विषय वासनाओं को।

(ख) ‘साये में धूप’ गज़ल के कवि किस बदलाव के पक्ष में है ? (2)
उत्तर:
‘साये में धूप’ गजल में कवि शोषित लोगों के मन में क्रान्ति की ज्वाला सुलगाना चाहता है। कवि को पक्का विश्वास है कि उसे अधिकारों के लिए, सच्ची स्वतन्त्रता के लिए संघर्ष करना होगा। इसीलिए वह इस बदलाव के पक्ष में है।

(ग) आप अपने शहर या बस्ती की किन चीजों को बचाना चाहेंगे ? (2)
उत्तर:
हम अपने शहर और बस्ती को पर्यावरण प्रदूषण तथा प्राकृतिक संपदा के विनाश से बचाना चाहेंगे। उसके नष्ट होते नैसर्गिक सौन्दर्य को बचाना चाहेगें। हम अपने शहर को पाश्चात्य की अंधानुकरण की प्रवृति व अमर्यादित सभ्यता से बचाना चाहेंगे। हम लोगों को जीवन की जड़ता व ठहराव से बचाना चाहेंगे उन्हें निराशावादी व अविश्वास की प्रवृति से बचाना चाहेंगे।

3. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) आठ करोड़ प्रजा के गिड़गिड़ाकर विच्छेद न करने की प्रार्थना पर आपने जरा भी ध्यान नहीं दिया- यहाँ किस ऐतिहासिक घटना की ओर संकेत किया गया है ? (3)
उत्तर:
भारत में बंग-भंग अर्थात् बंगाल विभाजन की घटना ऐतिहासिक महत्व की है। लॉर्ड कर्जन ने भारत में नित्य प्रति होने वाली क्रांतिकारी घटनाओं का समाधान करने के लिए एक कूटनीतिक योजना बनाई। इसके अंतर्गत उसने बंगाल का विभाजन करने की योजना बनाई। भारत की जनता कर्जुन के कलुषित इरादों को समझ गई । अतः बंगाल की आठ करोड़ जनता ने बंग-भंग का पुरजोर विरोध किया ही, पूरा भारत इसके विरुद्ध खड़ा हो गया। इस घटना ने स्वतंत्रता आन्दोलन की चिंगारी को और अधिक भड़का दिया।

(ख) आज़ादी से पहले भारत निर्माण को लेकर नेहरू जी के क्या सपने थे ? क्या आज़ादी के बाद वे साकार हुए ? चर्चा कीजिए । (3)
उत्तर:
आज़ादी के पहले भारत निर्माण के संबंध में नेहरू जी के सपने एक ऐसे देश का निर्माण करने के थे जहाँ किसान की समस्याएँ दूर हो जाएँगी। उन्हें जमींदार व महाजनों से मुक्ति मिलेगी। सबको वर्ग-भेद सहित उन्नति के समान अवसर प्राप्त होंगे देश में औद्योगिक क्रांति आएगी। पुलिस के अत्याचार से मुक्ति होगी तथा विज्ञान व तकनीकी शिक्षा का विकास होगा।

आजादी के बाद नेहरू के सपने अभी आंशिक रूप में ही साकार हो पाए हैं। किसानों के जमींदारों व महाजनों के चंगुल से तो काफी हद तक मुक्ति मिली है। देश में विज्ञान व तकनीकी शिक्षा का विकास हुआ है लेकिन पुलिस के अत्याचारों से मुक्ति अभी दूर की कौड़ी है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

(ग) ‘जामुन का पेड़ ‘ कहानी का उद्देश्य स्पष्ट कीजिए । (3)
उत्तर:
कहानी ‘जामुन का पेड़ एक व्यंग्य प्रधान कहानी है। इस कहानी में लेखक कृश्न चन्दर ने सरकारी विभागों की कार्यप्रणाली पर व्यंग्य किया है। सरकारी विभाग में हर काम एक लम्बी प्रक्रिया से गुजरता है कोई विभाग या व्यक्ति स्वयं ज़िम्मेदारी न लेकर दूसरे पर डालता रहता है आम आदमी दफ्तरों के चक्कर लगाता रहता है और सरकार संवेदनहीन बनी कागज़ी कार्यवाही में लगी रहती है।

4. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में दीजिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) बादशाह के नाम का प्रसंग आते ही लेखिका की बातों में मियाँ नसीरुद्दीन की दिलचस्पी क्यों खत्म होने लगी ? (2)
उत्तर:
बादशाह के नाम का प्रसंग आते ही मियाँ नसीरुद्दीन की रुचि लेखिका की बातों में इसलिए कम होने लगी क्योंकि मियाँ की ये सब बातें पुरखों से सुनी-सुनाई थीं। ठीक से सब बातों और तथ्यों का महत्व न जाना था, न उन्हें इनकी जरूरत पड़ी थी इसलिए लेखिका के प्रश्न को सुनकर वह मुश्किल में पड़ गये और यह न बता सके कि किस बादशाह के यहाँ उनके पुरखे नानवाई का काम करते थे।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

(ख) फ़िल्म की शूटिंग के समय फ़िल्मकार को किन-किन समस्याओं का सामना करना पड़ा ? (2)
उत्तर:
शूटिंग के दौरान निम्नलिखित समस्याओं का सामना करना पड़ा-

  • पैसों की समस्या
  • पात्रों के चयन की समस्या
  • प्राकृतिक समस्या (बारिश, धूप, ओलावृष्टि आदि )
  • पात्रों की मृत्यु या अनुपस्थिति ।

(ग) विचारिए तो, क्या शान आपकी इस देश में थी और अब क्या हो गई ? कितने ऊँचे होकर आप कितने नीचे गिरे । आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए । (2)
उत्तर:
लार्ड कर्ज़न को भारत में जैसा मान-सम्मान और जैसी शान-शौकत भोगने को मिली, वैसी किसी भी अन्य वायसराय को नहीं मिली होगी। दिल्ली दरबार में उसकी कुर्सी सोने की थी । उसके एक इशारे पर देश के धनी माने जाने वाले लोग और महाराजा हाथ बाँधे खड़े रहते थे। उसने अपने संकेत भर से बड़े-बड़े राजाओं को मिट्टी में मिला दिया और नाचीज़ों को आसमान तक ऊँचा उठा दिया। कहाँ तो उसकी ऐसी ऊँची आन-बान थी और कहाँ ऐसी हालत हो गई कि एक अदना सा फौजी अफसर भी उसकी सिफारिश पर नहीं रखा गया, उल्टे उसी का इस्तीफा स्वीकार कर लिया गया। किस्मत ने क्या खेल दिखाया है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions 2022-2023

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 Political Science 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 Political Science board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 12 Political Science Sample Papers 2023.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 12 Political Science
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 Political Science 2022-2023 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 12 Political Science Sample Paper 2023 Solved.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Sample Papers 2023 with Solutions

Political Science Sample Paper Class 12 Question Paper Design 2022-23

Divisions Typologies of Questions No. of Questions Marks Total
Section A Multiple Choice Questions Q1 – Q12 1 12
Section B Short Answer Type Questions-I Q13 – Q18 2 12
Section C Short Answer Type Questions-II Q19 – Q23 4 20
Section D Passage/Cartoon/Map-based Questions Q24 – Q26 4 12
Section E Long Answer Type Questions Q27 – Q30 6 24
Total 30 Questions 80 Marks

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions 2022-2023 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of Political Science Class 12 2023 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 80

Time Allowed : 3 hours

General Instructions :

  1. All the questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper consists of 38 questions divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D and E.
  3. Section A comprises of 16 questions of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 10 questions of 2 marks each. Section C comprises of 7 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 3 questions of 5 marks each. Section E comprises of 2 questions of 4 marks each.
  4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in five questions of 1 mark each, three questions of 2 marks each, two questions of 3 marks each, and two question of 5 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section – A

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 1.
Find the sum of binary numbers 111 + 100. [1]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 7

Question 2.
Simplify : ya-b × yb-c × yc-a × ya-b. [1]
OR
Find the value of log\(\log _{\sqrt{2}} 64\)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 8

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 3.
Suppose an investor wants to have 1 lakh to retire 5 years from now. How much would he have to invest today with an annual rate of return equal to 15 %? [1]
Answer:
We know that,
Present Value, PV = \(\frac{A_n}{(1+i)^n}\)
Here, An = 1 lakh = ₹ 100000
i = 15%, \(\frac{15}{100}\) = 0.15 n = 5 years
∴ PV = \(\frac{100000}{(1+0.15)^5}\) = \(\frac{100000}{(1.15)^5}\)
= \(\frac{100000}{2.0113}\)
= ₹ 49,719.08
Thus, he would invest ₹ 49,719.08 today.

Question 4.
A dealer in Bhopal (M.P.). He supplies products and services worth ₹ 5,000 to another dealer in Kanpur (UP). If the rate of GST is 28%, find the tax levied under CGST. [1]
Answer:
Since, the given case in of inter-state transaction as the products/services is supplied from one state to another.
∴ CGST = 0.

Question 5.
If in an A.P., 7th term is 9 and 9th term is 7, then find 16th term.
OR
If a, b and c are in G.P., then the value of \(\frac{a-b}{b-c}\) is equal to……….. [1]
Answer:
Let first term and common difference of A.P is a and d, respectively.
Given, T7 = 9 = a + (7 – 1) d
⇒ 9 = a + 6d
and T9 = 7 = a + (9 – 1)d
⇒ 7 = a + 8d …..(ii)
On solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
a = 15 and d = -1
Now T16 = a + (16 – 1)d
15 + 15(-1) = 0

OR

Since, a, b and c are in G.P
∴ \(\frac{b}{a}\) = \(\frac{c}{b}\) = r (common ratio)
⇒ b = ar and c = br
⇒ c = ar.r = ar2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 33
= \(\frac{1}{r}\) = \(\frac{a}{b}\) = \(\frac{b}{c}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 6.
Evaluate \(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1+2+3+\ldots+n}{n^2}\) [1]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 9
Commonly Made Error
Some students do not apply correct expression of sum of natural numbers.

Answering Tip
Obtaining the result in the required form needs simplification, multiplication, substitution etc.

Question 7.
Write the set of all positive integers whose cube is odd in the builder form. [1]
Answer:
{x : x is an odd positive integer } as we are aware cube of an even positive integer is an even positive integer and cube 0f an odd integer is always an odd positive integer, therefore, the members of the required set are all positive odd integers. Also, it can be written as
{x : x = 2p + 1 and p ∈ W}.

Question 8.
Showing a lady in the park, Vineet said, “She is the daughter of my grand father’s only son.” How is Vineet related to that lady ? [1]
Answer:
The only son of Vineet’s grand father is the father of Vineet and Daughter of Vineet’s father is the sister of Vineet. Hence, Vineet is the brother of the lady.

Question 9.
Let f be the subset of Z × Z defined by
f = {(ab, a + b): a, b ∈ Z}. Is f a function from Z to Z ? Justify your answer. [1]
Answer:
Given, f = {(ab, a + b): a, b ∈ Z}
Taking a = b = 1, we have (ab, a + b) = (1, 2) ∈ f
Taking a = b = -1, we have (ab, a + b)
= (1, -2) ∈ f
⇒ f-image of 1 is not unique
Hence, f is not a function.

Question 10.
How many different words (with or without meaning) can be made using all the vowels at a time ?
OR
15C8 + 15C915C615C7 = ______  [1]
Answer:
There are 5 vowels in 26 alphabets.
Hence, using all 5 vowels at a time, number of different words (with or without meaning) can be made are = 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120.

OR

15C8 + 15C915C615C7
= 15C15-8 + 15C15-915C615C7 [∵ nCr = nCr-1]
= 15C7 + 15C615C615C7
= 0.

Question 11.
One number is chosen at random from the number 1 to 21. What is the probability that it is prime. [1]
Answer:
Sample space n(S) = 21
Prime numbers from 1 to 21 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.
If ’E’ be the event of getting a prime number, then n(E) = 8
∴ P(E) = \(\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}\) = \(\frac{8}{21}\)
∴ The probability that the number is prime
= \(\frac{8}{21}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 12.
Show that for any numbers a and b (S.D.) is given by \(\frac{|a-b|}{2}\). [1]
Answer:
For two numbers a and b, given by \(\bar{x}\) = \(\frac{(a+b)}{2}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 10
∴ Standard deviation = \(\frac{|a-b|}{2}\)

Question 13.
A can do a certain job in 12 days, B is 60% more efficient than A. How many days does B alone take to do the same job ?
OR
2.2 cubic dm of lead is to be drawn into a cylindrical wire 0.50 cm in diameter. Find the length of the wire in metres. [1]
Answer:
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 160 : 100 = 8 : 5. Suppose B alone take x days to do the same job. Then, 8 : 5 :: 12 : x
⇒ \(\frac{8}{5}\) = \(\frac{12}{x}\)
⇒ x = \(\frac{12 \times 5}{8}\) = \(\frac{60}{8}\) = 7\(\frac{1}{2}\) days
Hence, B can alone to the job in 7\(\frac{1}{2}\) days.

OR

Let the length of the wire be h meters. Then, πr2h = 2.2 cubic dm
i.e., π\(\left(\frac{0.50}{2 \times 100}\right)^2\) × h = \(\frac{2.2}{1000}\)
and 1 cubic dm = metre]
[d = 0.5 cm ⇒ r = \(\frac{0.5}{2}\) cm or \(\frac{0.5}{2 \times 100}\)m and 1 cubic dm = \(\frac{1}{1000}\) meter}
or, h = \(\left(\frac{2.2}{1000} \times \frac{100 \times 100}{0.25 \times 0.25} \times \frac{7}{22}\right)\)
= 112 m
Hence, length of the wire is 112 metres.

Question 14.
Show that the points (a, 0), (0, b) and (3a, – 2b) are collinear. [1]
Answer:
Let the given points be P(x1, y1) = (a, 0), Q(x2, y2) = (0, b) and R(x3, y3) = (3a, -2b).
∴ Area of ΔPQR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 11
Thus, points (a, 0), (0, b) and (3a, – 2b) are collinear.

Question 15.
Find the centre and the radius of the circle 2x2 + 2y2 + 10x – 6y – 1 = 0. [1]
Answer:
Given equation of circle is 2x2 + 2y2 + 10x – 6y – 1 = 0
One dividing by 2, the equation of circle can be written as
x2 + y2 + 5x – 3y – \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0
On comparing above equation with
x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0, we get
g = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(coefficient of x) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(5) = \(\frac{5}{2}\)
f = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(coefficient of y) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(-3) = –\(\frac{3}{2}\)
and c = constant term = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Hence, the centre of the circle is (-g, -f) i.e., \(\left(-\frac{5}{2}, \frac{3}{2}\right)\) and radius of the circle = \(\sqrt{g^2+f^2-c}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 34

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 16.
If set A = {-2, 2} and B = {x : x OR
Let n{A) = m, and n(B) = n. Then find the total number of possible relations that can be defined from A to B. [1]
Answer:
Given
A = {- 2, 2}
and B = {x : x ∈ I, x2 – 4 = 0},
∴ x2 – 4 = 0
⇒ (x – 2) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ x = -2, 2
or, B = {- 2, 2}
Hence, A = B

Commonly Made Error
Some students commit errors in applying correct sign convention while square root of 4. So, it leads to prove the result unequal.

Answering Tip
Solve set B properly, so it results equal to set A.
OR
Given, n(A) = m, and n(B) = n
∴ n(A × B) = n(A). n(B) = mn
So, the total number of non-empty relations from A to B = 2mn

Section – B

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 17.
Divide (1001011)2 by (11)2. [2]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 13
Hence, quotient is (11001)2

Question 18.
Simplify : \(\frac{2 a^{\frac{1}{2}} \times a^{\frac{2}{3}} \times 6 a^{-\frac{7}{3}}}{9 a^{-\frac{5}{3}} \times a^{\frac{3}{2}}}\), if a = 4  [2]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 14

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 19.
The calendar for the year 2007 will be same for which year ?
OR
Four men A, B, C and D and four women W, X, Y and Z are sitting round a table facing each other,
(A) No two men or women are sitting together
(B) W is the right to B
(C) Y is facing X and is to the left of A
(D) C is to the right of Z.
Find, who are the two persons sitting adjacent to D ? [2]
Answer:
Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 15
Sum = 14 odd days= 0 odd day
∴ Calender for the year 2018 will be same as for the year 2007.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 16
The above figure shows the sitting arrangement of the 8 persons.
OR
It is clear from the figure. W and Y are adjacent to D.

Question 20.
What is represented by the shaded regions in each of the following Venn-diagrams.
(A)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 1
(B)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 2 [2]
Answer:
(i)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 17
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 18
∴ (A – B) ∪ (B – A)

(ii)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 19
∴ (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C)
or A ∩ (B ∪ C)

Question 21.
In how many ways can the letter of the word “PENCIL” be arranged so that I is always next to L. [2]
Answer:
There are 6 letters in the word “PENCIL”. Consider LI as one letter. Now, 5 letters (P, E, N, C, .,. LI) can be arranged in = 5! = 120 ways.
Hence, the total number of ways in which I is always next to L is 120.

Commonly Made Error
Sometimes students take permutation of 5 letters arrangement as 6P5 instead of 5P5 which leads to incorrect result.

Answering Tip
Deeply understand the fundamental principles of counting.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 22.
Find the 20th term and the nth term of the sequence \(\frac{5}{2}\), \(\frac{5}{4}\), \(\frac{5}{8}\), …….
OR
The straight lines l1, l2, l3 are parallel and lie in the same plane. A total number of m points are taken on l1; n points on l2; k points on l3. Find the maximum number of triangles formed with vertices at these points. [2]
Answer:
The given sequence \(\frac{5}{2}\), \(\frac{5}{4}\), \(\frac{5}{8}\), ….. is a G.P. with first
term, a = \(\frac{5}{2}\) and common ratio r = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 20

OR

Here, total number of points are (m + n + k) which must give m + n + kC3 number of triangles but m points on line l1 taking 3 points at a time gives mC3 combinations which produce no triangle. Similarly, nC3 and kC3 number of triangles cannot be formed. Therefore, the required number of triangle is
m + n + kC3mC3nC3kC3

Question 23.
In each of the following question, a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV are given. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it dose not confirm to the well known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived.
(a) Statements:
(A) Some toys are pens.
(B) Some pens are papers.
(C) Some papers are black.

Conclusions:
I. Some toys are black.
II. No pen is black.
III. No toy is black.
IV. Some pens are black.

I. (b) Statements:
(A) Some books are copies.
(B) All copies are green.
(C) Some green are yellow.

Conclusions:
I. All copies are yellow.
II. Some yellow are green.
III. Some copies are yellow.
IV. All green are copies. [2]
Answer:
(a) All the conclusions given are mediate inferences. Since, middle term is not distributed in any one pair of the above statements. But conclusion II and IV form a complementary pair from statements 2 and 3 and conclusion I and II form a complementary pair from statements (i), (ii) and (iii). Hence, either I or III and either II or IV follow.

(b) Conclusions I and II are mediate inferences drawn from statements (ii) and (iii) Since, middle term ‘green’ is not distributed, hence both conclusions do not follow from statements.
Conclusion II is immediate inference drawn from statement (iii). Also, conclusions III and IV do not follow. Hence, only conclusion II follows.

Question 24.
If f(x) = y = \(\frac{a x-b}{c x-a}\) then prove that f(y) = x. [2]
Answer:
Given,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 21
∴ f(y) = x
Hence proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 25.
Show that \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 4} \frac{|x-4|}{x-4}\) does not exist.
OR
Differentiate ex sin x + xn cos x with respect to x. [2]
Answer:
Let x – 4 = n ⇒ As x → 4, n → 0
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 22

OR

Let, f(x) = ex sin x + xn cos x
∴ f'(x) = \(\frac{d}{d x}\){ex sin x + xn cos x}
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 23
= Sin x ex + ex cos x + cos x. nxn-1 + xn.(-sin x)
= ex(sin x + cos x) + xn-1 [n cos x – x sin x]

Question 26.
The monthly income ₹ 1000 of 8 persons working in a factory. Find P30 income value 17, 21, 14, 36, 10, 25, 15, 29. [2]
Answer:
Arrange the data in the increasing order:
10, 14, 15, 17, 21, 25, 29, 36
Here, n = 8
P30 = \(\left[\frac{30(n+1)}{100}\right] \text { th }\) item
= \(\frac{30 \times 9}{100} \text { th }\) item = 2.7th item
= \(\frac{30 \times 9}{100}\)th item = 2.7th item
= 2nd item + 0.7(3rd item – 2nd item)
= 14 + 0.7(15 – 14)
= 14 + 0.7
= 14.7

Section – C

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 27.
Coefficient of variation of two distributions are 50 and 60 and their arithmetic means are 30 and 25 respectively. Find the difference of their standard deviation.
OR
Find the first four moments about zero for the set of the number 1, 3, 5, 7. [3]
Answer:
Given, C.V.1 = 50, C.V.2 = 60
\(\bar{x}_1\) = 30, \(\bar{x}_2\) = 25
We know:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 24
⇒ σ1 = 15
and \(\bar{x}_2\) = \(\frac{\sigma_2}{C_{.} V_{\cdot 2}} \times 100\)
⇒ 25 = \(\frac{\sigma_2}{60} \times 100\)
⇒ σ2 = \(25 \times \frac{3}{5}\)
σ2 = 15
⇒ Required difference = σ1 – σ2
= 15 – 15
= 0

OR

The first four moment about zero means, first four raw moments about origin

X X X2 X3 X4
1 1 1 1 1
3 3 9 27 81
5 5 25 125 625
7 7 49 343 2401
ΣX = 16 ΣX2 = 84 Σx3 = 496 Σx4 = 3108

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 25

Question 28.
‘A’ earns the following income during the financial year 2018-19 :

Particulars Amount (₹)
(a) Interest paid by an Indian company but received in London 2,00,000
(b) Pension from former employer in India, received in USA 8,000
(c) Profits earned from business in Paris which is controlled in India, half of the profits being received in India 40,000
(d) Income from agriculture in Bhutan and remitted to India 10,000
(e) Income from property in England and received there 8,000
(f) Past foreign untaxed income brought to India 20,000

Determine the total income of ‘A’ for the assessment year 2019-20 if he is
(A) Resident and ordinarily resident,
(B) Not ordinarily resident, and
(C) Non-resident in India. [3]
Answer:

Resident and ordinarily resident Not ordinarily resident Non-resident
(₹) (₹) (₹)
(a) 2,00,000 2,00,000 2,00,000
(b) 8,000 8,000 8,000
(c) 40,000 40,000 20,000
(d) 10,000
(d) 8,000 Nil Nil
(e) 8,000 Nil Nil
(f) 2,66,000 2,48,000 2,28,000

Question 29.
In what ratio the line joining (-1, 1) and (5, 7) is divided by the line x + y = 4 ?
OR
Find the image of the point (3, 8) with respect to the line x + 3y = 7 assuming the line to be a plane mirror. [3]
Answer:
Let the given points be A(x1, y1) = (-1, 1) and B(x2, y2) = (5, 7) and P(x3, y3) be the point which divides AB in the ratio m : n.
∴ Co-ordinates of P are \(\left(\frac{m x_2+n x_1}{m+n}, \frac{m y_2+n y_1}{m+n}\right)\)
= \(\left(\frac{5 m-n}{m+n}, \frac{7 m+n}{m+n}\right)\)
Since, the point P lies on line x + y = 4.
∴ \(\frac{5 m-n}{m+n}\) + \(\frac{7 m+n}{m+n}\) = 4
⇒ \(\frac{12 m}{m+n}\) = 4
⇒ 8m = 4n
⇒ m : n = 1 : 2

Commonly Made Error
Students get confused between internal and external division formulae specially in between signs (+ or -).

Answering Tip
If a point P divides the line segments joining the points A(x1, y1) and Q(x2, y2) internally in the ratio m: n, then its coordinates are
\(\left(\frac{m x_2+n x_1}{m+n}, \frac{m y_2+n y_1}{m+n}\right)\)

OR

Let the image of point P(3, 8) be Q(a, b) with respect to line AB which is given by
x + 3y – 7 = 0
The mid-point of P and Q is \(\left(\frac{3+a}{2}, \frac{8+b}{2}\right)\) which lies on line (i).
From (i), \(\frac{3+a}{2}\) + 3.\(\frac{8+b}{2}\) – 7 = 0
⇒ 3 + a + 24 + 3b – 14 = 0
⇒ a + 3b + 13 = 0
Now, slope of AB = \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
∴ \(-\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{b-8}{a-3}\) = -1
⇒ 3a – b – 1 = 0 ….(iii)
Solving (ii) and (iii), we arrive at a = -1, b = -4
∴ Image of (3, 8) is (-1, -4).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 30.
Find the equation of the circle drawn on a diagonal of the rectangle as its diameter whose sides are the lines x = 4, x = – 5, y = 5 and y = – 1. [3]
Answer:
Let ABCD be the rectangle formed by the lines
x = 4
x = -5 ……(ii)
y = 5 …..(iii)
y = -1 …..(iv)
The coordinates of the points A, B, C and D are (-5, -1), (4, -1), (4, 5) and (-5, 5), respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 26
The equation of the circle having the diagonal AC as its diameter is
[(x – (-5)](x – 4) + [y – (-1)(y – 5) = 0
[∵ Equation of circle having ends of diameter
(x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is (x – x1) + (y – y1)(y – y2) = 0]
or, (x + 5)(x – 4) + (y + 1)(y – 5) = 0
or, x2 + y2 + x – 4y – 25 = 0.

Commonly Made Errors
Some students do not plot the figure correctly. Some are confused between diagonals are diameters.

Answering Tap
Since, ∠ABC = 90° = ∠ADC, the above circle passes through both points B and D. Hence, it is also the circle with diagonal BD as a diameter. In fact, the circle circumscribes the rectangle ABCD.

Question 31.
Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 4} and C = {4, 5, 6}. Find
(A) A × (B ∩ C) and
(B) (A × B) ∩ (A × C) [3]
Answer:
Given, A = {1, 2, 3}, B{3, 4}, C = {4, 5, 6},
∴ B ∩ C = {4}

(i) A × (B ∩ C) = {1, 2, 3) × {4} = {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

(ii) (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
({1, 2, 3) × {3, 4}) ∩ ({1, 2, 3) × {4, 5, 6}
= ((1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3,4) ∩ {(1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
= {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

Commonly Made Error
Many candidates do not know how to do cartesian product in case of three sets.

Answering Tip
Learn the properties of cartesian product of sets and adequate practice should be done on various types of problems.

Question 32.
A polygon has 35 diagonals. Find the number of its sides. [3]
Answer:
Let n be the number of sides of a polygon and D be the number of diagonals of that polygon.
We know that, D = nC2 – n = \(\frac{n(n-3)}{2}\)
∴ 35 = \(\frac{n^2-3 n}{2}\)
⇒ n2 – 3n – 70 = 0
⇒ (n – 10)(n + 7) = 0
⇒ n = 10, -7

Since, sides cannot be negative, therefore n = 10.
Hence, polygon is a decagon.

Commonly Made Error
Students are not able to identify that the given problem is from which topic.

Answering Tip
Remember are relation for number of diagonals of polygon, D = nC2 – n or \(\frac{n(n-3)}{2}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 33.
In the following table some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them their coding have been given. Now in questions a particular word has been coded in a particular manner using codes as given below the capital letter. You have to understand the pattern of coding and answer the following questions. CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 4
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 3
(A) If DASF1 is coded as 2 a 8 4, then what is the code for SMASH ?
(B) If FASHION is coded as aat4cx, then what is the code for POSITION ?
(C) If DEER is coded as vw8 and TOSS is coded as e6e, then what is the code for DOTT ? [3]
Answer:
(i) In the word DASH, letters at the odd places have been moved one place back and letters at the even places have been moved one place ahead regarding the position of codes given in the table. Therefore, SMASH can be coded as 8zqe3.

(ii) The codes for the respective letters of the FASHION as per table have been reversed in the coding. So, POSITION can be coded as z64e47c.

(iii) In both the words DEER and TOSS, codes for each letters have been used just below the letters in the table except for the letter that has been written twice i.e., E and S. For these letters, codes have been used just one position ahead in the table that too only one. Therefore, DOU can be codded as V6r.

Section – D

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 34.
If the A.M. between pth and qth terms of an A.P. be equal to A.M. between rth and sth terms of the A.P., then show that p + q = r + s. [5]
Answer:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the given A.P Then
ap = pth term = a + (p – 1)d;
aq = qth term a + (q – 1)d;
ar = rth term a + (r – 1)d;
and as = 5th term = a + (s – 1)d;
It is given that
A.M. between ap and ap = A.M. between ar and as
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\)(ap + aq) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(ar + as)
ap + aq = ar + as
⇒ a + (p – 1)d + a + (q – 1)d
⇒ a + (r – 1)d + a + (s – 1)d
⇒ (p + q – 2)d = (r + s – 2)d
⇒ p + q = r + s

Question 35.
In a college, 70% students pass in Physics, 75% pass in Mathematics and 10% students fail in both. One student is chosen at random. What is the probability that:
(A) He passes in Physics given that he passes in Mathematics.
(B) He passes in Mathematics given that he passes in Physics.
OR
Bag A contains 2 white, 1 black and 3 red balls. Bag B contains 3 white, 2 black and 4 red balls and Bag C contains 4 white, 3 black and 2 red balls.
In continuation with precious line random and 2 balls are drawn at random from that bag. If the randomly drawn balls happen to be red and black, what is the probability that both come from Bag B ? [5]
Answer:
Let x% students passes in both Mathematics and Physics
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 27
Students who pass in Physics = 70%
∴ P(R) = \(\frac{70}{100}\)
Students who pass in Mathematics = 75%
∴ P(M) = \(\frac{75}{100}\)
Students who fail in both = 10%
Now, 70% – x + x + 75% – x = 90%
⇒ x = 55%
∴ P(M ∩ P) = \(\frac{55}{100}\)

(i) Probability that student passes in Physics given that he passes in Mathematics is =
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 28

(ii) Probability that student passes in Mathematics given that he passes in Physics is
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 29
Let E1, E2 and E3 be the events of choosing bag A, bag B and bag C, respectively.
∴P(E1) = P(E2) = P(E3) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Let E be the event of drawing 1 red and t black ball from the bag, then
\(P\left(\frac{E}{E_1}\right)\) = Probability
(1 red and 1 black balls are drawn from Bag A)
= \(\frac{{ }^3 C_1 \times{ }^1 C_1}{{ }^6 C_2}=\frac{3}{15}=\frac{1}{5}\)
Similarly,
\(P\left(\frac{E}{E_2}\right)\) = Probability
(1 red and 1 black balls are drawn from Bag B)
= \(\frac{{ }^4 C_1 \times{ }^2 C_1}{{ }^9 C_2}=\frac{4 \times 2}{36}=\frac{2}{9}\)
and P\(\left(\frac{E}{E_3}\right)\) = Probability
(1 red and 1 black balls are drawn from Bag C)
= \(\frac{{ }^2 C_1 \times{ }^3 C_1}{{ }^9 C_2}=\frac{2 \times 3}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)

Required Probability = Probability [2 balls (1 red and 1 black) are drawn from hag B ] is given by P\(\left(\frac{E_2}{E}\right)\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 30

Question 36.
Leela is an athlete who believes that her playing career will last 3 years.
(a) To prepared for future, she deposits ₹ 24,000 at the end of each year for 3 years in an account paying 6% compounded annually. How much will she have on deposit after 3 years ? Also, find the value of interest earned.
(b) Instead of investing ₹ 24,000 at the end of each year, suppose Leela deposits ₹ 80,000 at the end of each year for 3 years in an account paying 5%. compounded monthly. How much will she have on deposit after 3 years? Also, find the value of interest earned.
OR
Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of 31 days if the following devices are used as specified :
3 bulbs of 40 watts for 6 hours
4 tube lights of 50 watts for 8 hours
Given rate of electricity is rupees 2.50 per unit.  [5]
Answer:
(a) Her yearly payments form an annuity regular with C.F. = ₹ 24,000, Since, the interest is compounded annually, no. of conversion periods, n = 3 and the interest rate per period i = 6% = \(\frac{6}{100}\)
= 0.06.
Using the formula for the future value of an annuity
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 31
The interest earned = FV. – 3 × C.F.
= 76406.40 – 3 × 24,000
= 76406.40 – 72,000
= 4,406.40

(b) Interest is compounded semi-annually, so no. of conversion periods n = 3 × 1 = 3 and i = 5%
= \(\frac{5}{100}\) = 0.05, C.F. = ₹ 80,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 32
= 80,000 × 3.1525
= ₹ 252,200
The interest earned = F.V. – 3 × C.F.
= 252,200 – 3 × 80,000
= 252,200 – 240,000
= ₹ 12,200

OR

Electric energy consumed per day by 3 bulbs
= 40 × 3 = 120 watts
= 0.12kW
Electrical units (or one day by 3 bulbs
= 0.12 × 6 = 0.72 units
Electrical units for 31 days by 3 bulbs
0.72 × 31 = 22.32 units
Electric energy consumed per day by 4 tube lights
= 50 × 4 = 200 watts
= 0.2 kW
Electrical units for one day by tube lights
= 0.2 × 8 = 1.6 units
Electrical units for 31 days by 4 tube lights
= 1.6 × 31 = 49.6 units
Total units= 49.6 + 22.32 = 71.92 units
Electricity bill = 71,92 × 2.50 = ₹ 179.8

Section – E

Both the Case study based questions are compulsory. Each Sub parts carries 1 mark.

Question 37.
Jaspal belongs to a middle class family. He works in a company. His children wanted that their father purchase a car for the family. Jaspal takes a loan from a bank for his car.
Jaspal singh repays his total loan of ₹ 118000 by paying every month starting with the first installment of ₹ 1000. If he increase the installment by ₹ 100 every month. [4]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 5

According to the above information, answer the following questions:

(a) If the given problem is based on AP; then the first term and common difference?
(A) 1000, 100
(B) 100, 1000
(C) 100, 100
(D) 1000, 1000
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
The number involved in this case form an AP in which a = 1000, d = 100

(b) In how many months the loan will be cleared?
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 44
(D) 50
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Sn = 118000
⇒ Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2 × 1000 + (n – 1) × 100]
⇒ 118000 = n[1000 + 50n – 50]
⇒ 118000 = n[950 + 50n]
⇒ 11800 = 5n + 95n
⇒ n2 + 19n – 2360 = 0
⇒ (n + 59)(n – 40) = 0
⇒ n = 40
Thus, the loan will be cleared in 40 months.

(c) The amount paid by him in 30” installment is:
(A) ₹3900
(B) ₹3500
(C) ₹3000
(D) ₹3600
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
The amount paid by him in 3oth installment is
t30 = a + 29d
= 1000 + 29 × 100
= ₹ 3900

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

(d) The amount paid by him in 30 installments is:
(A) ₹37000
(B) ₹73500
(C) ₹ 75300
(D) ₹ 53700
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
The amount paid by him in 30 installments is
⇒ S30 = \(\frac{30}{2}\) [2 × 1000 + (30 – 1) × 100]
= 15[2000 + 2900]
= 15 × 4900
= ₹ 73500

Question 38.
Reenas mother huy a game for her. Reena wanted to play it with her friend Neena. She called Neena and told her to about the new game. Neena came to Reena house to play the game. The game consisted of 8 triangles Out of which 3 were blue and rest were red, and 10 squares out of which 6 were blue and rest were red. While both friends were playing one piece was lost at random. [4]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 6

According to the above information, answer the following questions:

(a) How many triangles and squares are of red colour?
(A) 5, 4
(B) 4, 5
(C) 5, 5
(D) 8, 6
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Since, Total no. of triangles = 8
Triangles with blue colour = 3
Triangle with red colour = 8 – 3 = 5
Total no. of squares = 10
Squares with blue colour = 6
Square with red colour = 10 – 6 = 4

(b) Find the probability that last piece is triangle.
(A) 49
(B) 5/9
(C) 1/3
(D) 5/18
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Number of favourable outcomes for the event that lost figure is triangle, F(E) = 8
Total figures (square and triangle) = 8 + 10
= 18
i.e., T(E) = 18
∴ Probability (getting a last piece of a triangle) P(E)
= \(\frac{F(E)}{T(E)}\)
= \(\frac{8}{18}\) = \(\frac{4}{9}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

(c) Find the probability that last piece is square.
(A) 4/9
(B) 5/9
(C) 1/3
(D) 5/18
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Number of favourable outcomes for the events that squares is lost i.e,
F(E) = 10
T(E) = 8 + 10 = 18
∴ P(getting a last piece of a square) = P(E1) = \(\frac{10}{18}\)
= \(\frac{5}{9}\)

(d) Find the probability that last piece is square of blue colour.
(A) 4/9
(B) 5/9
(C) 1/3
(D) 5/18
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Number of favourable outcomes for the events that lost figure is square of blue colour, i.e.,
F(E) = 6 and T(E) = 18
∴ P(getting a last piece of a blue square)
= P(E2) = \(\frac{F(E)}{T(E)}\)
= \(\frac{6}{18}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • This question paper contains 37 questions.
  • Questions 1-20 in Section A are objective type-very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
  • Questions 21 – 27 in Section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • Questions 28 – 34 in Section C are long-answer 1 type questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • Questions 35 – 37 in Section D are long-answer 11 type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in six questions of one mark, two questions of two marks, two questions of three marks and two questions of five marks. You must attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
  • Use log tables, if necessary. Use of calculator is not allowed.

Section – A

Question 1.
The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro number. Which of the following element contains the greatest number of atoms ? [1]
(A) 4 g He
(B) 46 g Na
(C) 0.40 gCa
(D) 12 g He
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation :
Greater the number of moles, greater will be the number of atoms in an element.
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Given Mass }}{\text { Molecular Mass }}\)
Number of moles of 4 g He = \(\frac{4}{4}\) = 1 mol
Number of moles of46gNa = \(\frac{46}{23}\) = 2 mol
Number of moles of 0.40 g Ca = \(\frac{0.40}{40}\) = 0.01 mol
Number of moles of 12 g He = \(\frac{12}{4}\) = 3 mol
As, number of moles is highest in 12 g He. So it contains greatest number of atoms which is equal to no. of moles × avogadros number.

Commonly Made Error
Students usually do wrong calculations and : do mistake in writing the atomic mass of the elements in the calculation.

Answering Tips
Learn the atomic mass of elements and do not get confused with atomic number values of elements. Take care while doing calculations.

Question 2.
Number of n bonds and a bonds in the following structure is [1]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 1
(A) 6,19
(B) 4,20
(C) 5,19
(D) 5,20
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation :
The given compound is naphthalene. Each double bond in a molecule consists of a sigma bond and a pl bond, therefore in naphthalene there are total 19 sigma bonds (6 c-c single bonds, 8 C-H single bonds and 5 from C=C bonds) and 5 pi bonds.

Commonly Mad. Error
Students make mistake in counting sigma bonds. They miss the sigma bond included in the pi bonds, which involve in the double bonds.

Answering Tip
Remember each double bond in a molecule consists of a sigma bond and a pi bond and all single bonds are sigma bonds.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Question 3.
The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is [1]
(A) [Xe] 4/3 5d5 6s2
(B) [Xe] 4/7 5d2 6s1
(C) [Xe] 4/7 5d1 6s2
(D) [Xe] 4/8 5d6 6s2
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation :
Gadolinium (Gd, Z = 64), belongs to 6th period, / block. The expected electronic configuration of Gadolinium [Xe]4/86s, but the observed electronic configuration is [Xe]4f 5dl6s2. This is because half filled orbital is more stable than the partially filled orbital. As 5d and 6/ orbitals are close with less energy difference, 1 electron from 4/ orbital (expected to have 8e) jumps to 5d orbital making it 5d1 making 4/ orbital half filled with high stability (as per Hund’s rule exactly of maximum multiplicity).

Commonly Made Error
Students usually select wrong choice having in mind Gadolinium’s expected configuration.

Answering Tips
Some elements deviate from their expected electronic configuration to attain stable configuration as per Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. Please make a list of such elements and study them to avoid such mistakes.

Question 4.
Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect ? [1]
(A) It is a negatively charged particle.
(B) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
(C) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
(D) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
OR
Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or trajectories of electrons?
(A) Pauli’s exclusion Principle.
(B) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
(C) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
(D) Aufbau principle.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation :
The mass of electron is very small in comparison to the mass of neutron.

OR

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, the position and velocity of an electron cannot be determined simultaneously with accuracy which rules out the existence of fixed paths.

Question 5.
The oxidation state of elements Cl2, O3, P4, S8, Na, Mg, Al is [1]
(A) +2
(B) +3
(C) 0
(D) -1
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Elements in free or uncombine state has oxidation state “0”.

Question 6.
In the reaction, when H2 combines with O2 to form water, there is an electron transfer from: [1]
(A) Oz to H2O
(B) H to O
(C) O to H
(D) No electron transfer
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
The H atom goes from a neutral (zero) state in H2 to a positive state in H2O.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Read the passage given below and answer the questions given below it: (1 × 4 = 4)
The branch of science dealing with the relations between energy, heat, work and accompanying changes in the nature and behaviour of various substances around us is called thermodynamics. The main aim of the study of chemical thermodynamics is to learn (i) transformation of energy from one form into another form, (ii) utilization of various forms of energy and (iii) changes in the properties of systems produced by chemical or physical effects. Laws of thermodynamics apply only when a system is in equilibrium or moves from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state. Macroscopic properties like pressure and temperature do not change with time for a system in equilibrium state.
Answer the questions from (7) to (10):

Question 7.
A system which can neither exchange matter nor energy with the surroundings is called : [1]
(A) Open system
(B) Isolated system
(C) Closed system
(D) Ideal system
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
In an isolated system, there is no exchange of energy or matter between the system and the surroundings.

Question 8.
Which of the following is intensive property? [1]
(A) Molarity
(B) Temperature
(C) Density
(D) All of these
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation :
An intensive property, is a physical property of a system that does not depend on the system size or the amount of material in the system.

Question 9.
Temperature and heat are: [1]
(A) Extensive properties
(B) Intensive properties
(C) Intensive and extensive properties respectively
(D) Extensive and intensive properties respectively
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
An extensive property is a property that depends on the amount of matter in a sample, e.g., Mass, volume and heat are examples of extensive properties. An intensive property is a property of matter that depends only on the type of matter in a sample and not on the amount, e.g., Pressure and temperature.

Question 10.
In adiabatic process: [1]
(A) q > 0
(B) q = 1
(C) q = 0
(D) q < 0
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Adiabatic process is the change occurring within a system as a result of transfer of energy to or from the system in the form of work only, i.e., no heat is transferred.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate maintains a constant value of pH on addition of small amounts of acid or alkali.
Reason (R): A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate acts as a buffer solution around pH 4.75. [1]
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group.
Reason (R): Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the added electron would be farther from the nucleus. [1]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we move down a group except that of O and F. This is because when an electron is added to O or F1 the added electron goes to the smaller n = 2 quantum level and suffers significant repulsion from the other electrons present in this level.

Question 13.
Arrange the following in increasing order of stability; [1]
(CH3)3C+, CH3CH2CH2C+H , CH3CH2C+HCH3, CH3C+H2, CH3CH2C+H2
Answer:
CH3C+H2 < CH3CH2C+H2 < CH3CH2H2C+H2 < CH3CH2C+HCH3 < (CH3)3C+

Question 14.
Electronegativity of F > Cl > Br > I, why? [1]
Answer:
F, Cl, Br and I exist in a group. As we know that electronegativity decreases from top to bottom in a group because the force of attraction between the outermost electron and the nucleus decreases. So, relative order of electronegativity is Cl > F > Br > I.

Commonly Made Error
Students generally confuse with the order of electronegativity and do mistakes.

Answering Tip
Learn and understand thoroughly the periodic properties and trends to avoid mistakes.

Question 15.
Arrange the following in increasing order of -1 effect.
—NO2, —COOH, —F, —CN, —I.
Answer:
—I < —F < —COOH < —CN < —NO2.

Question 16.
Give different isomers of C4H10 with their IUPAC names. [1]
Answer:
The isomers of C4H10 with their IUPAC names are written below.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 2

Question 17.
Write IUPAC names of the products obtained the ozonolysis of 3,4-dimethyl hept-3-ene. [1]
OR
Complete the following equation:
CaC2 + 2H2O → ________ + ________
Answer:
The products obtained by the ozonolysis of 3,4-dimethyl hept-3-ene are butanone and pentan- 2-one.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 3
OR
CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2

Question 18.
SO32- is Bronsted base or acid and why ?
Answer:
SO32- is a Bronsted base because it can accept proton (H+).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Question 19.
Why is cyclopropane more reactive than propane ? [1]
Answer:
In cyclopropane, the three carbon ring forms an equilateral triangle, with bond angle 60° which is much less compared to the normal tetrahedral bond angle of 109.5° for sp3 hybridised carbon. Therefore, the cyclopropane molecule is very much strained and compressed and hence more reactive.

Question 20.
Write balanced equations for : 1
(i) BF3 + LiH →
OR
Write balanced equations for :
(ii) B2H6 + H2O →
Answer:
(i) 2BF3 + 6LiH → B2H6 + 6LiF
OR
(ii) B2H6 + 6H2O → 2B(OH)3(aq) + 6H2(g)

Commonly Made Error
Usually students forget to balance the equation or make errors while balancing.

Answering Tip
Make a list of important reactions, learn and practice balancing these reactions. Remember to always balance a chemical reaction.

Section – B

Question 21.
How did Bohr’s model of an atom explains:
(i) the stability of the atom
(ii) origin of the spectral lines in H-atom? [2]
Answer:
(i) The electron in the atom can move around the nucleus in a circular path of fixed radius and energy. These paths are called orbits, stationary states or allowed energy states. These orbits are arranged concentrically around the nucleus. Radiation can occur only when the electron jump from one orbit to another. The atom will be completely stable in the state with the smallest orbit, since there is no orbit of lower energy into which the electron can jump.
(ii) According to Bohr’s model, radiation (energy) is absorbed if the electron moves from the orbit of smaller Principal quantum number to the orbit of higher Principal quantum number, whereas the radiation (energy) is emitted if the electron moves from higher orbit to lower orbit. It explains the origin of spectral lines in H-atom.

Question 22.
Arrange benzene, n-hexane and ethyne in decreasing order of acidic behaviour. Also give reason for this behaviour. [2]
Answer:
Acidic character of a species is defined on the basis of ease with which it can lose its H- atoms. The hybridisation state of carbon in the given compound is :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 4
As the s-character increases, the electronegativity of carbon increases and the electrons of C-H bond pair lie closer to the carbon atom. As a result, partial positive charge of H- atom increases and H+ ions ^are set free. The s-character increases in the order :
sp3 < sp2 < sp Hence, the decreasing order of acidic behaviour is Ethyne > Benzene > n-Hexane.

Commonly Made Error
Students confuses themselves and write the decreasing order of acidic behaviour wrongly.

Answering Tip
Understand the concept of s-character in the compound with the help of hybridization carbon atom, which contains acidic hydrogen and then correlate with acidic behaviour.

Question 23.
Give the IUPAC name of :
(a) (CH3)2(C2H5)C-(CH2)3-C(CH3)3
(b) ortho-chloro anisole
OR
Write structural formulae for compounds named as: [2]
(a) 1-Bromoheptane
(b) 5-Bromoheptanoic acid
Answer:
(a) 2,2,6, 6 – tetramethyl octane (C2H5)C—(CH2)3—C(CH3)3
Or
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 5

Question 24.
Write any two chemical similarities between lithium and magnesium.
OR
What is diagonal relationship? What are its main causes? [2]
Answer:
(i) Both lithium and magnesium react slowly with water. Their oxides and hydroxides are less soluble in water.
(ii) Both are harder and lighter than other elements in the group.
OR
In addition to horizontal and vertical trends in a periodic table; there is a diagonal relationship between certain sets of elements (Li and Mg, Be and Al, B and Si) that have upper left/lower right relative location in the periodic table. These pairs of elements share similar size and electronegativity, resulting in similar properties.
Diagonal relationship is due to the increase in the charge in the ion and decrease in the size of ion as we move along the period.

Question 25.
How many significant figures are present in the answer of the following calculations: [2]
(i) 0.0125 + 0.8250 + 0.025
(ii) \(\frac{0.025 \times 298.15 \times 0.1155}{0.5785}\)
Answer:
(i) 0.0125 + 0.8250 + 0.025 = 0.8625 = 0.863
∵ 0.025 has three digits including zero after the decimal point so, the result should be reported only upto three digits after the decimal point. Therefore, there are three significant figures in the answer.

(ii) \(\frac{0.025 \times 298.15 \times 0.1155}{0.5785}\)
= \(\frac{0.860908125}{0.5785}\)
= 1.48817
= 1.49
∵298.15 has two digits after the decimal point so, the result should be reported only upto two digits after the decimal point.
So, there are three significant figures.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Question 26.
The species H2O, HCO3, HSO4 and NH3 can act both as Bronsted acid and bases. For each case give the corresponding conjugate acid and base. [2]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 6
Commonly Made Error
Students confuse and make mistake in writing the corresponding conjugate base and conjugate acid for the species.

Answering Tip
Be clear that addition of H+ ion from the species gives conjugate acids and subtraction of H+ ion from the species gives conjugate bases.

Question 27.
Illustrate by taking examples of transition elements and non-transition elements that oxidation states of elements are largely based on electronic configuration. [2]
Answer:
Oxidation state of an element depends upon the number of electrons present in the outermost shell of (8 – no. of valence shell electrons).

Examples:
Alkali metals (Group-1):
General electronic configuration = ns1
Oxidation state = +1

Alkaline Earth metals (Group-2):
General electronic configuration = ns2
Oxidation state = + 2

Group 13 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns2np3
Oxidation state = + 3 and + 1

Group 14 elements :
General electronic configuration = ns2np2
Oxidation state = + 4, + 2

Group 15 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns2np3
Oxidation states = -3, + 3 and + 5
Nitrogen (N) also shows +1, +2 and +4 oxidation states.

Group 16 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns2np4
Oxidation states = -2, +2, + 4 and + 6

Group 17 Elements:
General electronic configuration = ns2np5 Oxidation state = -1
Cl, Br and I also show +1, +3, +5 and + 7 oxidation states.

Group 18 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns2np6 Oxidation state = 0
Transition elements (d-block elements)
General electronic configuration = (n- 1 )d1-10 ns1-2
The elements show variable oxidation states.
Most common oxidation states are +2 and +3.

Commonly Made Error
Students get confuse and do mistake in writing the oxidation states.

Answering Tip
Learn thoroughly the electronic configuration of each group and from which it is easy to find the oxidation states. Make a list of some elements which show exceptional oxidation states.

Section – C

Question 28.
Give one example which has the following geometry on the basis of VSEPR theory :
(a) Linear
(b) Trigonal planar
(c) Tetrahedral
(d) Pyramidal
(e) T-shape
(f) Square planar
OR
(a) Discuss the shapes of PH, and AsFs using VSEPR theory.
(b) Define antibonding molecular orbital.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 7

Commonly Made Error:
Students give wrong examples for the shape and make mistakes.

Answering Tip
Make a list of types of molecules with their hybridization, shape and their examples in this chapter and learn them.

OR

(a) PH3 : sp3 hybridisation,
Pyramidal shape.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 8

AsF5: sp3d Hybridisation
Trigonal bipyramidal shape.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 9

(b) The molecular orbital formed by the subtractive effect of the electron waves of the combining atomic orbitals is called antibonding molecular orbital.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Question 29.
How were cathode rays discovered ? With the help of suitable experiments show that:
(i) Cathode rays travel in straight lines,
(ii) Cathode rays consists of material particles,
(iii) Cathode rays consists of negatively charged particles.
Answer:
Faraday began to study electrical discharge in partially evacuated tubes, known as cathode ray discharge tubes. A cathode ray tube is made of glass containing two thin pieces of metal, called electrodes, sealed in it. The electrical discharge through the gases could be observed only at very low pressures and at very high voltages. When sufficiently high voltage is applied across the electrodes, current starts flowing through a stream of particles moving in the tube from the negative electrode (cathode) to the positive electrode (anode). These were called cathode rays or cathode ray particles.

The results of these experiments are summarised below:
(i) In the absence of electrical or magnetic field, cathode rays travel in straight lines.
(ii) The characteristics of cathode rays (electrons) do not depend upon the material of electrodes and the nature of the gas present in the cathode ray tube.
(iii) In the presence of electrical or magnetic field, the behaviour of cathode rays are similar to that expected from negatively charged particles, suggesting that the cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles, called electrons.

Question 30.
The combustion of one mole of benzene takes place at 298 K and 1 atm. After combustion, C02(g) and H2O(1) are produced and 3267.0 kj of heat is liberated. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation, ΔfH° of benzene. Standard enthalpies of formation of C02(g) and H2O(1) are – 393.5 kJ mol-1 and – 285.83 kj mol-1 respectively.
(a) Name the hybridisation involved in –
(b) Why dipole moment of CO2 is zero while H20 is a polar though both have similar formula?
(c) Calculate the bond order for N2 molecule.
Answer:
Reaction for the formation of benzene,
6C(graphites) + 3H2(g) > C6H6(1), ΔfH° = ? …………(i)

The enthalpy of combustion of 1 mol of benzene is :
C6H6(l) + \(\frac{15}{2}\)02(g) → 6C02(g) + 3H2O(l); ΔCH° = -3267 kj mol-1 … (ii)

The enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of C02(g)
C(graphite,s) + 02(g) → CO2(g);
ΔfH° = – 393.5 kj mol-1 …(iii)

The enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of H20(1) is :
H2(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O2(g) → H2O(l);
ΔfH° = – 285.83 kj mol-1 …(iv)

Multiplying eq. (iii) by 6 and eq. (iv) by 3, we get
6C(graphite,s) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g), ΔfH° = -2361 kj mol-1
3H2(g) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O2(g) → 3H2O(l); ΔfH° = – 857.49 kj mol-1

On adding above equations,
6C(graphite,s) + 3H2(g) + \(\frac{15}{2}\)O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(l); ΔfH° = – 3218.49 kj mol-1 ……(v)

On reversing eq. (ii)
6C02(g) + 3H2O(l) → C6H6(1) + \(\frac{15}{2}\) O2(g); ΔfH° = 3267kj mol-1 …(vi)

On adding equation (v) and (vi), we get
6C(graphite,s) + 3H2(g) → C6H6(1); ΔfH° = 48.51 kj mol-1

Standard enthalpy of formation of benzene
fH°) = 48.51 kj mol-1

Commonly Made Error
Students make mistake in writing the equations for formation of benzene, enthalpy of combustion of benzene, carbon dioxide and water.

Answering Tip
Understand the problem and practice writing the necessary equations required for the problem with enthalpy values. It is very important. Then practice further steps for the calculation.

Question 31.
(a) Name the hybdisation involved in –
(i) C2H2
(ii) SF6
(b) Why dipole moment of CO2 is zero while H2O is a polar though both have similar formula?
(c) Calculate the bond order for N molecule.
Answer:
(a) (i) C2H2 – sp hybridisation
(ii) SF6 – sp3d2 hybridisation

(b) Due to sp hybridisation, geometry of CO2 molecule is linear. So, the resultant dipole moment becomes zero.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 10
But H2O has sp3 hybridisation and possesses bent structure due to which the dipole moment adds up. Hence, H2O is polar molecule.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 11

(c) Bond order on N2+:
NN2+: No. of electrons = 14 – 1 = 13
Molecular orbital configuration:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Question 32.
If two elements can combine to form more than one compound, the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element, are in whole number ratio.
(a) Is this statement true?
(b) If yes, according to which law?
(c) Given one example related to this law.
Answer:
(a) Yes, this statement is true.
(b) This statement is according to the law of multiple proportions.
(c) Hydrogen combines with oxygen to form two compounds, namely, water and hydrogen peroxide.

Hydrogen + Oxygen → Water
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 13

Hydrogen + Oxygen → Hydrogen peroxide
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 14
Here, the masses of oxygen (i.e., 16 g and 32 g) which combine with a fixed mass of hydrogen (2g) bear a simple ratio, i.e. 16 : 32 or 1: 2.

Commonly Made Error:
Students many times do mistake in giving correct examples.

Answering Tip
Understand the basic concept of law of multiple proportions with examples. This will help them to write better.

Question 33.
(i) What is the main difference between electromagnetic wave theory and Planck’s quantum theory ?
(ii) Which mle is violated in the following orbital diagram :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 15
OR
(a) Which has more energy of electron:
(i) Last electron of Cl or last electron of O2-.
(ii) n = 4, l = 3 or n = 5, l = 2.
(b) Write the electronic configuration for:
(i) Mn2+
(ii) S2-
Answer:
(i) Electromagnetic wave theory : Energy is radiated or absorbed continuously.
Planck’s quantum theory: Energy is radiated or absorbed not continuously but discontinuously in the form of small packets called quanta or photons.

(ii) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity is being violated.

OR

(a) (i) Electronic Configuration :
Cl = 2,8, 8 = 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p6
O2- = 2,8 = 1s2, 2s2sp6
The last electron of Cl occurs in 3p sub-shell and last electron of O2- occurs in 2p sub-shell. As we know that, according to Aufbau principle, 3p sub-shell has more energy than 2p sub-shell. Therefore, last electron of Cl has more energy of electron.

(ii) n = 4, l = 3 represent 4f
n = 5, l = 2 represent 5 p
According to Aufbau principle, the energy of 4/ is more than 5p. So, n = 4, l = 3 has more energy

(b) (i) Mn2+ = 1s2,2s22p6,3s23p63d5
(ii) S2- = 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23I6

Question 34.
Calculate the pH of a solution which is 0.1 M in HA and 0.5 M in NaA. Kfl for HA is 1.8 × 10-6 ?
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 16

Question 35.
Define the following:
(a) Standard enthalpy of formation (ΔfH°).
(b) Standard enthalpy of combustion (ΔcH°).
The reaction 2C + O2 → 2CO is carried out by taking 24.0 g of carbon and 96.0 of 02.
Find out
(a) Which reactant is left in excess?
(b) How much of it is left?
(c) How many grams of the other reactant should be taken so that nothing is left at the end of the reaction?
OR
Define the following:
(a) Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
(b) First law of thermodynamics.
Find out whether it is possible to reduce MgO using carbon at 298 K. If not, at what temperature it becomes spontaneous. For reaction
MgO(s) + C(s) > Mg(s) + CO(g)
ΔrH° = 91-18 kj/mol,
ΔrS° = 197.67 JK-1 mol-1.
Answer:
(i) (a) Enthalpy change accompanying the formation of 1 mole of a compound from its constituent elements, all substances being in their standard states (1 bar pressure and 298 K).
(b) It is the enthalpy change accompanying the complete combustion of one mole of a substance in excess of oxygen or air.

(ii) (a)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 17
24 g of carbon will react with 32 g of 02 to from 56 g of CO.
So, oxygen is left in excess. (1)
(b) Amount of oxygen left = 96 – 32 = 64 g
(c) Mass of other reactant = 96 – 24 = 72 g
OR
(i) (a) Hess’s law of constant heat summation :
According to Hess’s law, If a reaction takes place in several steps then its standard reaction enthalpy is the . sum of the standard enthalpies of the intermediate reactions into which the overall reaction may be divided at the same temperature.
(b) According to first law of thermodynamics, energy can neither be created nor be destroyed although it may be changed from one form to another.

(ii) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
= 91.18 × 103 – 298 × 197.67
= 91180 – 58905.66
= 32274.34 J/mol
For reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG should be negative. Temperature should be greater than 298 K for reaction to be spontaneous.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Question 36.
(i) Why 3° carbocation are more stable than 1° carbocation ?
(ii) Compare inductive and electromeric effects.
(iii) Why CCl3COOH is a stronger acid than (CH3)3CCOOH ?
(iv) Define the term nucleophile.
(v) Draw the resonance structure of aniline, using curved arrow for electronic movements. [5]
Answer:
(i) Tertiary carbocation has three electron repelling alkyl groups. This increases +1 effect on carbon and reduces the positive charge making it more stable.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 18
(ii) Inductive effect describes the transmission of electrical charges between atoms in a molecule whereas electromeric effect describes the transmission of electron pairs between atoms in a molecule. Inductive effect is affected by electronegativity values of atoms whereas electromeric effect is caused by the number of double bonds and their arrangement.

(iii) CCl3COOH is a stronger acid than (CH3)3CCOOH due to presence of three -I effect causing group (-Cl) which increases the acidic strength. Whereas (CH3)3COOH contains three +1 effect causing group (-CH3) which decreases the acidic strength.

(iv) Nucleophile: A reagent that brings an electron pair to the reactive site is called a nucleophile (Nu:), i.e., nucleus seeking.
Negatively charged nucleophile- hydroxide (OH”), cyanide (CN”), etc. Neutral nucleophile-
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 19

Section – D

Question 37.
(a) Propanal and pentan-3-one are the ozonolysis products of an alkene? What is the structural formula of the alkene ?
(b) Draw the cis and trans structures of hex-2-ene. Which isomer will have higher b.p. and why ? [5]
OR
(a) Write down the products of ozonolysis of 1, 2-dimethylbenzene (o-xylene). How does the result support Kekule structure for benzene ?
(b) Which of the following compounds will show cis-trans isomerism ?
(i) (CH3)2C = CH-C2H5
(ii) H2C = CBr2
(iii) C6H5CH = CHCH3
(iv) H3C – CH = (CClCH3)
Answer:
(a) As per the given information, propanal and pentan-3-one are the ozonolysis products of an alkene. Let the given alkene be ‘A’. Writing the reverse of the ozonolysis reaction, we get:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 20
The products are obtained on the cleavage of ozonide ‘X’. Hence, ‘X’ contains both products in the cyclic form. The possible structure of ozonide can be represented as:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 21
Now, ‘X’ is an addition product of alkene ‘A’ with ozone. Therefore, the possible structure of alkene ‘A’ is:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions 22

Commonly Made Error
Some students do not understand the concept and write wrong structure for ozonide.

Answering Tip
Students must understand the concept of Ozonolysis and reverse of Ozonolysis.

(b) Geometrical isomers of hex-2-ene are :
im-23
The dipole moment of ds-compound is a sum of the dipole moments of C-CH3 and C- CH2 CH2CH2 bonds acting in the same direction. The dipole moment of frans-compound is the resultant of the dipole moments of C-CH3 and C-CH2CH2CH3 bonds acting in opposite directions. Hence, cis- isomer is more polar than trans-isomer. The higher the polarity, the greater is the intermolecular dipole-dipole interaction and the higher will be the boiling point. Hence, ds-isomer will have a higher boiling point than fraws-isomer.

Commonly Made Error
Some students draw incorrect isomer structures.

Answering Tip
Understand how the dipole moment is affected when the substituents are on the same side and on the different sides.

OR
(a) o-xylene has two resonance structures :
im-24
All three products, i.e., methyl glyoxal, 1, 2-dimethylglyoxal and glyoxal are obtained from two Kekule structures. Since, all three products cannot be obtained from any one of the two structures, this proves that o-xylene is a resonance hybrid of two Kekule structures.

(b) The compounds which show cis-trans isomerism are (iii) and (iv).
im-25
Alkenes (i) and (ii) have identical atoms or groups on one of the carbon atoms of the double bond and hence do not show geometrical isomerism. In contrast, alkenes (iii) and (iv) have different atoms or groups on each carbon atom of the double bond and hence, exhibit geometrical isomerism.

Commonly Made Error
Students get confused and select incorrect choice.

Answering Tip
In cis -trans isomerism different groups are ! attached on carbon atom.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.

  1. Section A consists of Questions 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section B consists of Questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
  3. Section C consists of Questions 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
  4. Section D consists of Questions 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is an internal choice available.
  5. Section E consists of Questions 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

Section – A (18 marks)

Question 1.
Identify the asana: [1]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

(a) Paschimottanasana
(b) Halasana
(c) Vajrasana
(d) Dhanurasana
Answer:
(d) Dhanurasana

Explanation: It is a back-bending asana in hatha yoga.

Question 2.
A person who likes to learn new things, new concepts, and new experiences is categorized as [1]
(a) Agreeableness
(b) Extroversion
(c) Conscientiousness
(d) Openness
Answer:
(d) Openness

Explanation: People who tend to be high in the trait of openness are open-minded and approach new things with curiosity and tend to seek out novelty.

Question 3.
Cartwheel in gymnastics is an example of_______. [1]
(a) Static Equilibrium
(b) Dynamic Equilibrium
(c) Active Equilibrium
(d) Passive Equilibrium
Answer:
(b) Dynamic Equilibrium

Explanation: Cartwheels are commonly performed in gymnastics in the floor exercise and on the balance beam.

Question 4.
Slowtwitch fibers are_______in color. [1]
(a) White
(b) Red
(c) Transparent
(d) Brown
Answer:
(b) Red

Explanation: Slow twitch fibers are also called red fibers because they contain more blood carrying myoglobin.

Question 5.
Jumping on the spot is an example of_______. [1]
(a) Iso-metric
(b) Iso-tonic
(c) Iso-kinetic
(d) Iso-kinesthetic
Answer:
(b) Iso-tonic

Explanation: It is a type of muscle contraction in exercise physiology.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Question 6.
Take-off in a Long jump is an example of_______strength. [1]
(a) Explosive strength
(b) Maximum strength
(c) Strength endurance
(d) Static strength
Answer:
(a) Explosive strength

Explanation: Explosive strength is the speed at which you can use your strength.

Question 7.
The amount of oxygen that can be absorbed and consumed by the working muscles from the blood is called_______. [1]
(a) Oxygen Uptake
(b) Oxygen Intake
(c) Oxygen Transport
(d) Vital capacity
Answer:
(a) Oxygen Uptake

Explanation: It is a measure of a person’s ability to take in oxygen through the respiratory system and deliver it to the working tissues via the cardiovascular system and the ability to work tissues to use oxygen.

Question 8.
In the Law of Acceleration, the acceleration of an object is inversely proportionate to its_______. [1]
(a) Force
(b) Mass
(c) Speed
(d) Size
Answer:
(b) Mass

Explanation: According to the law of force and acceleration, a force upon an object causes it to accelerate according to the formula i.e., net force = mass x acceleration.

Question 9.
Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Intrinsic motivation has long-term benefits.
Reason (R): As factors behind it are naturally pursuing actions that provide fun, pleasure, fulfillment, or challenge In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? [1]
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Intrinsic motivation gives a positive emotional return, because it’s fun or because it’s something you take pride in.

Question 10.
Carbohydrates are soluble in water and crystalline in structure. [1]
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(d) Complicated
Answer:
(a) Simple

Explanation: Simple carbohydrates are broken down quickly by the body to be used as energy.

Question 11.
Which among these is not a micromineral? [1]
(a) Iodine
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) Magnesium

Explanation: Magnesium is a macro mineral Macro minerals are present at larger levels in the animal body.

Question 12.
Which asana is helpful in increasing height? [1]
(a) Sukhasana
(b) Tadasana
(c) Bhujangasana
(d) Vajrasana
Answer:
(b) Tadasana

Explanation: Tadasana is one of the simplest yoga poses that can help you increase your height.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Question 13.
How many byes will be given if there are 17 teams? [1]
(a) 1
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 12
Answer:
(c) 15

Explanation: No. of teams = 17 = N
No. of matches = N -1 = 16
Total no. of Byes = 2N- 17 = 32- 17 = 15.

Question 14.
How many matches will be played in the knockout tournament’s first round if there are 15 teams? [1]
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 7

Explanation: The number of knockout matches is always one less than a number of participating teams.

Question 15.
Watching others play and enjoy which in turn motivates the child with special needs to participate is a part of which kind of strategy? [1]
(a) Menta
(b) Physical
(c) Psychological
(d) Social
Answer:
(d) Social

Explanation: Watching others play and enjoy is one of the most effective ways to motivate a child to participate.

Question 16.
Match the following: [1]

Column (A) Column (B)
(I) Garudasana (1) Round shoulder
(II) Gomukhasana (2) Lordosis
(III) Chakrasana (3) Bow legs
(IV) Naukasana (4) Knock knees

(a) (l)-(3), (ll)-(4), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(2)
(b) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(2)
(c) (l)-(4), (ll)-(2), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(3)
(d) (l)-(2), (II)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(1)
Answer:
(a) (l)-(3), (ll)-(4), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(2)

Question 17.
Match the following: [1]

Column (A) Column (B)
(I) Chair stand test (1) Lower Body Strength
(II) Arm curl test (2) Aerobic Endurance
(III) Back scratch test (3) Upper body strength
(IV) Six-minute walk test (4) Upper body flexibility

(a) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(2)
(b) (l)-(2), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(4)
(c) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(2), (IV)-(4)
(d) (l)-(2), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(1)
Answer:
(a) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(2)

Question 18.
Weakening of bones due to loss of bone density and improper bone formation is known as_______. [1]
(a) Amenorrhea
(b) Anorexia Nervosa
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Lordosis
Answer:
(c) Osteoporosis

Explanation: Osteoporosis is a condition in which bones become weak and brittle. New bone creation doesn’t keep up with old bone removal.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Section – B (10 marks)

Question 19.
List down any four effects of exercise on the muscular system. [2]
Answer:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 1

Explanation: Four effects of exercise on the muscular system are:
(1) Exercise builds and strengthens muscles, which protect the bones from injury.
(2) It improves blood supply to the muscles and increases their capacity to use oxygen.
(3) Exercise lubricates joint D and reduces stiffness.
(4) It increases muscular endurance and cardiovascular health.

Question 20.
List down any four benefits of self-talk by athletes in sports. [2]
Answer:
The benefits of self-talk by athletes in sports are as follows:
(1) Building and developing self-efficacy
(2) Skill acquisition
(3) Creating and changing mood
(4) Controlling efforts
(5) Focusing attention

Question 21.
List down any four advantages of the fartlek training method. [2]
Answer:
The following are the advantages of the Fartlek training method:
(1) Develops strength and endurance.
(2) Appropriate form of training for most sports.
(3) Can be adjusted to suit age, fitness and health of the athlete.
(4) Exercises are simple enough to make each athlete feel a sense of achievement in completing them.
(5) A wide range of exercises to select from which will maintain the athlete’s enthusiasm.
(6) Can be done in a group.

The following are the Disadvantages fartlek training method:
(1) Many exercises require specialized equipment e.g., gym equipment.
(2) Ample space required to set up the circuit exercises and equipment.
(3) In general can only be conducted where appropriate facilities/equipment are available.
(4) Use of additional equipment requires appropriate health and safety monitoring.

Question 22.
Explain any two types of soft tissue injuries with the help of examples. [2]
Answer:
A soft tissue injury is the damage of muscles, ligaments, and tendons throughout the body.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 2

Explanation:
(1) Abrasion: Abrasions are superficial injuries of the skin and visceral linings in the body, resulting in a break in the continuity of tissue. These are the simplest of injuries in terms of heating, with most injuries being confined to the epidermis and resulting in minial bleeding at the most. Examples include scrapednee, road rash, and injuries that a cheese grater or sandpaper could create.
(2) Contrusion: Also called bruise, in caused by a direct blow to the body that can cause damage to the surface of the skin and to deeper tissues as well depending on the severity of the blow. Examples include blunt trauma, injury, recent IV use or drawing blood.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Question 23.
Write down the objectives and administration of the flamingo test. [2]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 3

Question 24.
What should be the basic nutrient in a weightlifter’s diet and why? [2]

Proteins Proteins build and repair body cells Proteins form part of various  enzymes, hormones, and antibodies  Also provide energy (4 Kcal/g) Milk and milk product fish, eggs, poultry, meat, legumes and grains

Explanation: Protein is an important nutrient that helps in rebuilding muscle strength and accelerates recovery. This is the reason why weight lifters need it to heal their muscles so that they don’t suffer micro tears. Protein is found in animal products, such as beef, chicken, eggs, dairy, fish and seafood, and some plant sources, like beans, lentils, whole grains, and soya. The main role of protein is to build and repair muscle. Proteins give a constant supply of nutrients to the muscles and also keeps energy level on an even keel.

Section – C (15 marks)

Question 25.
Create a mind map including any six advantages of physical activities for children with special needs. [3]
Answer:
Six advantages of physical activities for children with special needs

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 4

Explanation: Six advantages of physical activities for children with special needs are:
(1) It strengthens the heart muscle thereby improving cardiovascular efficiency.
(2) Physical activity develops social relationships with other children, teammates, and teachers.
(3) It improves the stamina of children.
(4) It increases stability.
(5) It improves bone health.
(6) It also improves strength.

Question 26.
What are carbohydrates? Differentiate between its types. [3]
Answer:
Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen. Carbohydrates are a major source of energy.
Type of Carbohydrates:
(1) Monosaccharide,
(2) Disaccharides
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) Simple sugars
(Mono and disaccharides) are found in fruits (sucrose, glucose and fructose), milk (lactose) and sweets that are produced commercially and added to foods to sweeten, prevent spoilage or improve structure and texture. Polysaccharides are more than two units of monosaccharide joined together. These are starches and fibre (cellulose). These are also called complex sugars and are found in whole grain cereals, rice, oats, potatoes, bread, legumes, corn and flour.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Question 27.
Define bye. Explain the rules of giving bye with help of an example. [3]
Answer:
Bye is the position of a participant in a tournament who is not paired with an opponent, usually in the first round, and advanced to the next round without playing The right to proceed to the next round of a competition without contesting the present round, often through non-appearance of an opponent. Allotment of byes in the fixture should be given in following order:

  • First byes will be given to last team of Lower Half,
  • Second byes will be given to first team of Upper Half,
  • Third byes will be given to first team of lower Half,
  • Fourth byes will be given to last team of Upper Half

Same pattern will be followed after fourth bye till the remaining byes have been given.

Question 28.
Make a table explaining any three personalities from Big five theory and their characteristics. [3]
Answer:

Trait Description
Openness Being curious, original, intellectual, creative and
open to new ideas.
Conscientiousness Being organized, systematic, punctual achievement oriented, and dependable
Extraversion Being outgoing, talkative, sociable and enjoying social situations.
Agreeableness Fleeing affable, tolerant, sensitive, trusting, kind
Neuroticism Being anxious, irritable, temperamental and moody.

Question 29.
Explain any three physiological factors determining strength. [3]
Answer:
Strength: Strength component has varied subtypes like maximum strength, Explosive strength, Strength, Endurance etc. Each has different types of exercise, intensity and duration so physiological factors vary. In games like weightlifting, jumps, sprint or power, agility and strength-dominating sports where force production is high, fatigue is quick, and fast twitch fibre percentage must be high in muscles. ATP-CP system or anaerobic system works to produce energy for strength training. Stroke volume (the volume of blood pumped out of the Left ventricle of the heart during each systolic cardiac contraction) is a vital parameter as far as cardiovascular system is concerned.

Explanation: Three physiological factors for determining strength are:

(1) Muscle composition: There are two types of fibres in muscles i.e., fast-twitch fibres and slow-twitch fibres.
(2) Size of the muscle: The strength of an individual depends on the size of muscle.
(3) Body weight: There is a positive relation between body weight and strength.

Question 30.
What is the meaning of female athletes Triad? Explain any two in brief. [3]
Answer:
Female Athlete Triad

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 30

(A) disordered eating
(B) amenorrhea and
(C) osteoporosis

Explanation: The female athlete triad is an interrelationship of menstrual dysfunction low energy availability and decreased bone mineral density. It is common among young women participating in sports.

(1) Disordered Eating: It includes a range of irregular eating behaviours that do not necessarily meet criterion for severe disorders, such as anorexia nervasa and bulimin nervosa is also fairly common in the athletic community.

(2) Menstrual Dysfuction: Menstrual dysfunction in the female athlete includes a wide spectrum of disorders. The most common menstrual at normality is amenorrhea.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Section – D (12 marks)

Question 31.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 31

On the basis of above given fixture answer the following questions: [4]
(A) Total number of matches in 2nd round are _____.
(B) What is the formula for calculating the total number of matches?
(C) The fourth round in this case can also be called as _____.
(D) What is the formula for calculating the number of byes?
OR
The formula for calculating number of round is _____.
Answer:
(A) 8
(B) N-1
(C) Semi final
(D) 2n-N

OR

\(\frac{N(N-1)}{2}\)

Question 32.
The teachers as well as coaches always make their best efforts to improve the performance of their students in various competitive games and sports. They can help to improve the performance of students if they have adequate knowledge of biomechanics. [4]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 32

(A) The more force one exerts on the downward bounce, the higher the ball bounces into the air. Which law is this statement being referred to?
(B) Among the above given pictures, Newton’s 3rd law is depicted in _____.
(C) Newton’s second law is also known as _____.
(D) The study of human body and various forces acting on it is _____.
Answer:
(A) Third law of motion-Action reaction
(B) 1st picture
(C) Law of Acceleration
(D) Kinesiology

OR

A high jumper can jump higher off a solid surface because it opposes his or her body with as much force as he or she is able to generate. This example refers to which law of motion?

Third law of motion-Action reaction

Question 33.
In relation to the pictures, answer the following questions. [4]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 33

(A) What is the mission of the first organization?
(B) What is the Motto of the first organization?
(C) Until 1965 the games in the second picture were known as _____.
(D) Second picture games are conducted after every _____ years.
Answer:
(A) The mission of Special Olympics is to provide year-round sports training and athletic competition in a variety of Olympic-type sports for children and adults with intellectual disabilities, giving them continuing opportunities to develop physical fitness, demonstrate courage, experience joy and participate in events.
(B) The motto of special Olympics is “Let me win. But if I cannot win, let me be brave in the attempt.”
(C) International Games for the Deaf International Silent Games”.
(D) 4yrs

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Section – E (15 marks)

Question 34.
List down any four asanas used for prevention of asthma. Explain the procedure for administration of any one of them with help of a stick diagram. [5]
Answer:
Asthma: Sukhasana, Chakrasana, Gomukhasana, Parvatasana, Bhujangasana, Paschimottanasana, Matsyasana, Anulom Vilom

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 34.1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 34.2

Explanation: Four asanas used for prevention of asthma are:

(1) Sukhasana
Procedure:

  1. It is done in sitting position.
  2. Sit cross Legged on the floor or any other fiat surface.
  3. Bend your knees and cross your right shin in front of your left shin.
  4. Move the knees closer until your feet is directly underneath them.
  5. Place both the palms on your knees an close your eyes.
  6. Breathe slowly and concentrate on the breathing pattern.
  7. Continue breathing in the same way for five minutes.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 34.3
(2) Bhujangasana

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 34.4

(3) Chakasana

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 34.5
(4) Gomukhasana

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 34.6

Question 35.
Make a table of test items listed under fitness test by SAI (Age group 9-18 yrs) along with the objectives of conducting them. Explain the administration of any one of them. [5]
Answer:
Age group 9-18yrs/ class 4-12: BMI, 50mt Speed test, 600mt Run/Walk, Sit & Reach flexibility test, Strength Test (Abdominal Partial Curl Up, Push-Ups for boys, Modified Push-Ups for girls).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 35.1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 35.2
Explanation: Test items listed under fitness test by SAI (Age group 9-18 years) are:
(1) Body Mass Index (BMI)
(2) Plate Tapping Test
(3) Flamingo Balance Test
(4) Partial Curl up (30 sec.)
(5) Sit and reach flexibility test
(6) 600 meter Run/walk
(7) Computing Basal Metabolic Rate
(8) Motor fitness test and measurement
(9) Measurement of cardiovascular fitness
(10) 50 mt. speech test

Test and measurement is the instrument for getting essential details regarding the needs, capacities, abilities and attitudes of students. Evaluation is based upon tests and measurements, which is very important to check the progress of an individual. A test helps to collect data which can be evaluated for further improvement.

Plate Tapping Test: This tests speed and coordination of limb movement.

How to Perform: If possible, the table height should be adjusted so that the subject is standing comfortably in front of the discs.
(1) The two yellow discs are placed with their centers 60 cm apart on the table.
(2) The rectangle is placed equidistant between both discs.
(3) The non-preferred hand is placed on the rectangle.
(4) The subject moves the preferred hand back and forth between the discs over the hand in the middle as quickly as possible.
(5) This action is repeated for 25 full cycles (50 tops).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Question 36.
Define flexibility along with its types. Explain any two methods used to develop flexibility. [5]
Answer:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 36.1

Explanation: Flexibility is the ability of a joint or series of joints to move through an unrestricted, pain-free range of motion.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 36.2

(1) Active flexibility: The ability of an individual to do the joint movement for a longer range without any external help. E.g., doing any stretching exercise without external help. It is of two kinds:

Static Flexibility: It is usually required by a sports person when he remains in static position e.g., diving setting lying.
Dynamic flexibility: It is needed for walking and running.

(2) Passive flexibility: The ability to do joint movement with a greater range with an external help of partner. This flexibility is mainly determined by joint structure, stretchability of muscle and legoment. It helps in the development of active flexibility.

Method to improve flexibility:

(1) Ballistic Stretching: The individual performs these stretching exercises while in motion. This dynamic method uses the momentum generated from repeated bouncing movements to stretch the muscles. This method includes various exercises like swinging the trunk sidewards forwards, backward, swinging the legs etc.

(2) Static Stretching: It is an extremely popular and effective technique. Which involves gently and slowly moving into the stretch position and holding it for a certain period of time. Movement should take place through the full range of motion until a little tension or tightness is felt in the muscles or group of muscles. As the muscle releases, the stretch should be extended and held again. Stretching should be held from 10 to 30 seconds and a maximum of give repetitions for each exercise.

Question 37.
Define Projectile and explain any two factors affecting projectile with the help of examples from sports. [5]
Answer:
Factors Affecting Projectile Trajectory:
• Initial velocity
• Angle of projection
• Projection height relevant to the landing surface
• Air resistance
• Surface area of the projectile
• Surface-to-volume ratio
• Mass
• Velocity
• Gravity
• Spin

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions 37

Explanation: An object thrown into space either horizontally or an acute angle under the action under gravity is called a projectile. There are forces which act on a projectile gravitational force and air resistance. The factors affecting projectile trajectory are:

(1) The angle of projection: An object which is projected at different angles covers different distances. When it is projected or released at an angle of 30, making it a parabolic path and covers lesser distance. When it is projected at 60, it covers a distance of less than 30. When it is released at an angle of 45, makes a parabolic path and covers maximum distance. So, the distance covered by an object (shot, put, hammer, javelin, discuss etc. depends on the angle of release of projectile.)

(2) Gravity: Gravity acts on a body or object to give it mass. The greater the weight of an object, the greater the influence of gravity upon it. Gravity will effect a projectile as well as it will decrease the height, the projectile can obtain. For example, a cricket ball can be thrown at a greater distance in comparison to shot put.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Time : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

  1. The Question paper is divided into three sections: Section A: Reading 26 marks, Section B: Writing Skills and Grammar 23 marks, Section C: Literature 31 marks.
  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. You may attempt any section at a time.
  4. Allquestions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section-A
Reading (26 marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (10 marks)
1. There are times when everyone has to face grief. When someone dear to oneself dies, one is left in a state in which shock and grief overcome the ordinary life. One is left in a situation when one feels there is nothing one can do. Grief and mourning are not always associated with only death. It also happens with other types of losses. It could be the loss of one’s job, loss of one’s house or the loss of a close friend or a partner.

2. The best people who are able to cope with these are those, who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning rituals. In India, we have diverse rituals which nowadays are being discarded. But these help in the crisis. The near and dear ones come to share the grief and apply balm with their words of solace.

In mourning, it is an essential part of coming to terms with loss. There comes a time when one has to give up one’s grief and rejoin the mainstream of life. Mourning in itself passes through these phases. Firstly, it is in the nature of shock and disbelief. A feeling of numbness overtakes. The brain is not in a position to accept, it so happens that one expects the arrival of a loss thinking that nothing will change and he will be with the lost one. In second phase, one realises the truth that the loss has actually happened, and was not a dream. It is now that one feels the pain. Now one recollects the old moments and the memory of guilt creeps in.

3. Here, the affected person displays odd behaviour and has difficulty in eating and is unable to sleep. One may remain in this stage for weeks, months and sometimes for years. In the next phase, reflection from pain and negative feelings creep in. This leads to the positive side. Now one feels one must make alternative arrangements or replacements. Here, one is ready to cope with the situation. One knows that one cannot recover what he or she has lost but is conscious of the future accepting the loss and is ready for the alternative.

4. On passing through all the stages of grief, it seems that time has passed like a river under the bridge. This shows that mourning has been successful. One cannot forget the loss but comes to terms with reality.

5. Grieve with the person who is bereaved. This shows that you too value the mourning person. This gives a helping support and the bereaved person starts believing you. Your support to the bereaved should not stop after a few days. It may be needed for months. Assure the affected person that the feelings of grief will diminish and will not be the same always.

6. You will see, there comes a time when he or she has to be distracted from grief. Take him or her out for an outing especially away from the current situation. If he or she agrees, take the opportunity and let him or her join the leisurely ventures.

7. It is therefore, the duty of close relatives and friends to take the bereaved out of the depressing climate and give a fresh air of life and happy thoughts. [KVS 2017 Silchar Region]

On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
Question 1.
In the last phase of grief:
(A) there is a relief from pain and negative feelings.
(B) there is still pain and grief.
(C) the person is ready to cope with the situations, ready to face reality.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Question 2.
One must grieve with the person who is bereaved to show:
(A) that you too value the mourned person.
(B) that you can distract him/her.
(C) you understand what your duty is.
(D) you are his/her well wisher.
Answer:
(A) that you too value the mourned person.

Question 3.
The person in grief displays:
(A) sleeplessness.
(B) enjoys eating.
(C) difficulty in eating.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Question 4.
What can be done to distract him/her from grief?
(A) eat good food
(B) sleep for long hours
(C) go for an outing
(D) talk loudly
Answer:
(C) go for an outing

Question 5.
The duty of close relatives and friends is to:
(A) help the bereaved financially.
(B) create difficulty for the bereaved
(C) take the bereaved out of difficulty.
(D) mourn with the bereaved.
Answer:
(C) take the bereaved out of difficulty.

Question 6.
The best people who are able to cope with loss and grief are:
(A) Those who are helped by their doctors
(B) Those who have a lot of relatives
(C) Those who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning rituals
(D) Those who come from the Indian background
Answer:
(C) Those who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning rituals
Explanation: After the closing date, a team of judges carefully select 10 finalists, who gather in Dubai for an exciting event where the award is presented.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Question 7.
Which words in the passage mean the same as the following?
(i) overcome (Para 2)
(ii) shows (Para 3)
Answer:
(i) overtakes
(ii) displays

Question 8.
According to the passage, all of these are reasons for grief, except:
(A) loss of a job
(B) loss of one’s house
(C) loss of a close friend or a partner
(D) loss of confidence
Answer:
(D) loss of confidence

Question 9.
When does mourning become successful?
(A) When you go for an outing
(B) When you have come to terms with reality
(C) When you have negative thoughts
(D) When someone supports you
Answer:
(B) When you have come to terms with reality

Question 10.
What does the phrase ‘apply balm’ mean in context of the passage?
(A) apply ointment on the injury
(B) apply liquid to the burn
(C) show anger or disrespect
(D) speak softly and consolingly
Answer:
(D) speak softly and consolingly

Question 2.
Look at the graph showing the changes in the population of some wild animals and answer the questions that follow. (8 x 1 = 8 marks)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions 1
It is surprising that the population of bears is increasing in spite of the dangerous changes in the global climate. Many attribute it to the captive breeding programmes conducted in many countries. On the other hand, it is sad to notice that dolphins have almost become extinct.

Much of it is due to the extensive water pollution especially in areas that are their natural habitats. Unlike whales, who are able to change their habitat and venture into deeper parts of the oceans, dolphins are unable to adapt to changing habitats at short notices. No wonder, the whale population has seen many ups and downs over the last few years.
Question 1.
The given diagram can be described as:
(A) A simple line graph
(B) A vertical line graph
(C) A straight line graph
(D) A multiple line graph
Answer:
(D) A multiple line graph
Explanation: It is clear from the given figure.

Question 2.
How many years are covered in the graph?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
Answer:
(B) Five
Explanation: 2017 to 2022.

Question 3.
What can you say about the population of bears?
(A) It was the lowest in 2017 and highest in 2019.
(B) It has been increasing at the rate of 40 points per year.
(C) It will rise more in the year 2020-2021 than in the year 2021-2022.
(D) It was almost equal to the population of whales in the year 2019.
Answer:
(D) It was almost equal to the population of whales in the year 2019.
Explanation: Bear and Dolphin population is approx, the same, 90-100.

Question 4.
Based on the graph, which of these statements is definitely false about dolphins?
(A) Their population has been steadily declining in the last few years.
(B) They have sadly become extinct now.
(C) They have a lower rate of survival than whales.
(D) They are dying out very fast.
Answer:
(B) They have sadly become extinct now.
Explanation: It is sad to notice that dolphins have almost become extinct.

Question 5.
The whales are:
(A) More in population than the bears.
(B) Less in population than the dolphins.
(C) Equal in population compared to both bears and dolphins.
(D) Almost equal in population in 2017 and 2022.
Answer:
(D) Almost equal in population in 2017 and 2022.
Explanation: The population is almost equal to 80.

Question 6.
Why are whales not extinct yet?
(A) Because they are too big to be harmed
(B) Because they move to deeper oceans in times of danger
(C) Because their population keeps fluctuating as per the climatic changes
(D) Because they are able to fight for themselves unlike dolphins
Answer:
(B) Because they move to deeper oceans in times of danger
Explanation: Whales are able to change their habitat and venture in deeper parts of the oceans.

Question 7.
What is common between the three animals?
(A) They are all land animals.
(B) They are all water animals.
(C) They are all mammals.
(D) They are all about to become extinct.
Answer:
(C) They are all mammals.

Question 8.
Which animal population has fluctuated over the last few years?
(A) Bears
(B) Dolphins
(C) Whales
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(C) Whales
Explanation: It is clear from the graph.

Commonly Made Errors:

  • While answering questions related to Unseen Passages/Comprehensions, most students do not read the passages properly. Reading the passages properly is very essential.
  • Students need to keep in mind that the answers should be brief, relevant and be in their own words, while following the words in the passages carefully.
  • While answering, the students should verify the spellings of the difficult words from the passages themselves, if they are not sure of them in the first place.
  • Before answering multiple-choice questions, students should read the questions thoroughly and then the given options. Some options can be tricky and need careful attention.
  • Lastly, before moving on to the next question and just before the final submission of the answer-script, revise the answers carefully. This will help you to find out and eliminate any errors that you have overlooked earlier.

Answering Tips:

  • The passages should be read silently and with full concentration.
  • Grasping the context of the passages is important.
  • New or difficult words should be deciphered in the context of their use in the passages.
  • Answers should be in complete sentences.
  • All answers should be written sequentially.
  • If a student cannot answer a question, or a part of a question, then it is unwise to continue spending time on it. It is advisable to leave the question for the time being, answer the rest of the questions and then go back to the unanswered question.
  • While answering an unseen passage or comprehension, you might be aware of the source as you might have read it earlier. In that case, please do not get carried away in writing things beyond the scope of the passage. That will not fetch you extra marks. Please stick to the passage!
  • All spellings and answers related to seen/unseen passages or comprehensions are found within the scope of the passages; so, it is important to concentrate in them.
  • Lastly, there is no need to panic. Answering questions correctly is more important than answering all questions. So, adequate time should be given to answer each question properly.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Question 3.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. When Lai Bahadur Shastri took over charge as the Prime Minister of the most populous democracy in the world in June, 1964, he started with many initial disadvantages. The most obvious one was that he had stepped into the shoes of a colossus like Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, who, in spite of the fact that his policies were not always popular, commanded the spontaneous affection of the masses of India and was also a front-ranking world statesman.

Another handicap from which Mr. Shastri suffered was that even though he had been active in the political life of the country for nearly four decades, he had never visited any foreign country and was, therefore, not a well-known figure in important world capitals. In addition, he succeeded to the Prime Minister ship of the country at a time when it was plagued by many serious problems, the foremost among which were rising prices and food shortage. Fissiparous tendencies were in evidence not only in the ranks of the ruling party (accentuated after the passing away of Pt. Nehru) but also in several parts of the country like Nagaland, Punjab and Kashmir.

Memories of the humiliation suffered by India at the hands of Chinese were still fresh in the popular mind and the nation was passing through a crisis of confidence. It appeared that the people’s faith in the country’s future had been badly shaken. Because of the military and political reverses it had suffered, India’s international prestige had gone very low and its relations with its neighbours were not of the best. This was the India which Mr. Shastri inherited from his illustrious predecessor and he was in many aspects the exact opposite of the latter.

A simple Indian rustic had been asked to step into the shoes of a world citizen. A modest, self-effacing man who had hitherto been content to operate from the wings had been pushed on to the centre of the stage to replace a glamorous popular hero who had the aura of long-established leadership about him. The problems he was expected to grapple with were enough to break the back of the most tenacious and determined man but Mr. Shastri weathered the storm with his abundant rugged commonsense and almost impartible calmness.
(a) On the basis of your reading the passage, make notes using recognisable abbreviations wherever necessary. Use a format you consider suitable, supply a suitable title. (5 marks)
(b) Make a short summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 marks)
Answer:
(a) LAL BAHADUR SHASTRI
1. As Prime Minister

  • Took charge after Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru.
  • In June 1964.

2. Faced many disadvantages :

  • Stepped into the shoes of colossus like Pt. Nehru.
  • Had never visited any forgn, country.
  • Not a well-known fig. in world capitals.

3. Indian situation:

  • Facing food shortage
  • Rising prices
  • Fissiparous tendencies in various states
  • Nation passing crisis of confidence
  • Int’nal prestige low

4. Expectation from Lai Bahadur Shastri:

    • To replace a glamorous pplr hero
    • To grapple with the problems
Key to Abbreviations
S. No. Abbreviation Word
1 forgn foreign
2 fig. figure
3 Int’nal International
4 pplr popular

(b) Summary
Lai Bahadur Shastri took charge as the Prime Minister of India after Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru in 1964. It was not a very easy situation. He had stepped into the shoes of a colossus and popular leader like Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru. He was not a well known figure in world capitals nor he had visited any foreign countries.

The Indian situation was also not good. It was plagued with many serious problems like food shortage, rising prices, low prestige in international arena, etc. The nation was passing through a crisis of confidence. People’s faith in the country’s future had been broken.

It was a difficult situation to be faced by Lai Bahadur Shastri but people expected that he would be able to grapple with all the problems. Lai Bahadur Shastri weathered the storm with his commonsense and calmness and came out successfully to overcome these problems.

Commonly Made Errors:

  • The most commonly made mistakes include ‘ not reading the passage thoroughly and not paying attention to details. This leads to unclear understanding of the context.
  • The next big mistake is not noting the ‘key-words’ in the passage. Identification of key-words is important to decide the main thrust of the passage and bring out the summary.
  • While substituting words for phrases and clauses, the appropriate form of the word should be used. For example, if the substitution requires the adjectival form of a word, then using the noun or the verb form can be fatal.
  • Punctuations are very important in summarisation or precis writing. They should be used prudently.
    Spellings and grammar should be checked for during the note-making stage so that no corrections need be implemented during the summary or precis writing.
  • While providing a Title for the summary/precis, students should relate it to the context of the passage. Too much emphasis on making it catchy might lead to making the blunder of it being not related to the context.

Answering Tips:

  • While answering questions related to Note-making and Summary (Precis Writing), it is important to read the passages properly and grasp their meanings. If need be, the passage should be read and re-read a number of times to ensure that every part of it is clear to the student.
  • Next, it is important to underline the important points in the passage. With practice1 this can be done at the same time as the passage is being read.
  • The underlined portions should be summed up as separate bufleted points.
  • Thereafter, the students should read the bulleted points so that they are sure that those points are adequate in providing the gist of the passage. There should not be any ambiguity or lack of clarity in meaning anywhere.
  • While summarizing the bullets, one should be mindful to shorten the sentences as much as possible by substituting clauses and phrases with words conveying similar meanings.
  • Beginners are also advised to calculate the average number of words written by them in each line and then to calculate the number of lines required to write the precis or summary based on the average words per line.
  • The average word-limit per sentence should be between five to ten words.
  • Students are advised to draw columns with pencil such that the total number of cells in the table so formed exactly match the maximum permissible words in the sununary. Then they should write one per cell to achieve the maximum word limit.
  • Lastly, students should ensure correctness of spellings, contextual use of substituting words and grammatical correctness.

Section – B
Writing Skills and Grammar (23 marks)

Question 4.
You are the General manager of a leading company. You need a Chartered Accountant for your office. Draft an advertisement in not more than 50 words to be published in the Times of India, New Delhi, under the classified columns. (3 marks)
OR
You are Saran Gupta. You wish to let out your flat that is situated in the hub of Bangalore. Draft an advertisement for a well circulated daily giving necessary details. (Word limit, 50). [KVS Silchar, 2017]
Answer:
Situation Vacant:
Required an experienced chartered Accountant, male/female, minimum qualification Master’s degree in commerce, computer savvy, salary no bar for the deserving candidate. Interested candidates may contact the General Manager at 9453xxxxxx

Commonly Made:

  • Spellings and grammar errors lead to communication of incorrect messages.
  • While trying to make the title catchy, students end up stitching together words used in the wrong context and thereby making up a meaningless title.
  • Also, spellings are tweaked sometimes to emphasise upon an idea or to attract the attention of the reader However, often students fail to achieve the desired effect and end up simply making a spelling mistake!

Answering Tips:

  • While preparing an advertisement, it is important to keep in mind the requirement: whether the advertisement should be a Classified or a Display Advertisement. The message should be prepared accordingly.
  • The word-limit of 50 should be strictly adhered to.
  • Next, it is important to design the advertisement properly. So, one needs to experiment with the font size, style and colour, as well as the layout.
  • The language and approach should be direct yet attract the attention of the targeted readers.
  • Listly, students should ensure correctness of spellings, contextual use of substituting words and grammatical correctness. The Contact address as well as the email ids and phone numbers should be accurate.

OR
TO-LET:
Available in the hub of Bangalore, a 3 BHK flat on rent, fully furnished, modular kitchen, East facing, 24 x 7 electricity and water facility, round the clock security, lift facility. Rent negotiable. Interested persons may contact: Saran Gupta at 7346xxxxx

Commonly Made Errors:

  • Missing out one or more of the value points.
  • Spellings and grammar errors lead to communication of incorrect messages.
  • While trying to make the title catchy, students end up stitching together words used in the wrong context and thereby making up a meaningless title.
  • Also, spellings are tweaked sometimes to emphasise upon an idea or to attract the attention of the reader. However, often students fail to achieve the desired effect and end up simply making a spelling mistake!

Answering Tips:

  • While making a poster, it is important to keep in mind what it is all about and whether the created poster gets across the idea clearly or not.
  • Next, it is important to design the poster properly. So, one needs to experiment with the font size style and colour, as well as the layout.
  • Venue, date and time should be mentioned in such a manner that they do not escape peoples’ attention.
  • Lastly, students should ensure correctness of spellings, contextual use of substituting words and grammatical correctness.

Question 5.
Your school is going to organise a Diwali Mela. Design a poster to inform the students about it. (50 words) (3 marks)
OR
Imagine that a career counselling session is being organised by Mr. P K. Puri in Hotel Ashoka, New Delhi. Draft a poster in 50 words for the same.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions 2

Question 6.
The Government has banned the Use of Animals in the Laboratories for the purpose of dissection. Write a debate in about 120-150 words either for or against this decision. (5 marks)
OR
The policy of ‘No detention till class VIII’ is not in the interest of students. Write a debate in 120-150 words either in favour or against the motion.
Answer:
The Government has banned the dissection of animals in laboratories
Good morning everyone, I am Navtej and I am going to speak in favour of the motion ‘Animal testing should be banned’.

In our laboratories, animals are dissected, despite the fact that their dissection is cruel and unpleasant. It is absolutely unethical. At the same time, it teaches children to abuse animals. On one hand, Organisations like PETA are fighting for the protection from cruelty on these speechless beings, and on the other hand, they are being killed mercilessly in the name of experiments. It is not only cruel but also unwise to use them for this purpose.

Before reaching the laboratories, the animals are stockpiled on the top of one another. Then they are shipped in crowded containers without any regulation of temperature. No food or water is provided to them. Then they die in such condition due to starvation.

In such a situation, it is not difficult to imagine that these piled animals create negative impact on biodiversity. They’ll definitely spread disease. Can you think the drugs that pass tests, alone, will be safe?
Definitely not: Moreover, killing them disturbs ecological balance.
Therefore, it is wise to replace animal dissection by the use of virtual labs and models.
Thank you.
OR
The Policy of ‘No detention till class VIII is not in the interest of Students
Honourable Chairperson, respected judges and my dear friends. Today, I am standing before you to express my arguments against the viewpoint that the policy of no detention till class VIII is not in the interest of students. Perhaps, the main culprits behind all this propaganda are the ones who want to cash in on this idea by making the students to go for more and more tuition classes.

The fact is that education is not a thing that should be bound up in the trap of examination, where students are made to sit for exams all the time in order to get the tag of ‘Pass’ or ‘Fail’. As one of my friends presented his point that such a policy of no detention is making students careless, I’d like to tell my dear friend that it is better to be careless rather than to adopt unfair means to pass the exams – as we read about such incidents in the newspapers every day.

The tension of exams is making students mentally sick. I am afraid that the period/time that should be used in gaining pure knowledge without any pressure of detention may be lost in the tension about failing exams. There is also another advantage of this ‘no detention policy’ that more and more students without any such fear of failure will attend the school with full enthusiasm and will make themselves ready automatically for the period of maturity. There they will benefit from their feelings of confidence and eagerness to go ahead, without any tension of passing or failing that will lead them towards a healthy and bright future.
Thank you.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Question 7.
The progress of a nation depends on empowering the women. Obsessed with this idea, write a speech for the Touth Conclave on the topic, ‘Empowering the women’. (5 marks)
Answer:
Empowering the Women
Respected Chairperson, participants and my dear audience, good morning to all. Today, I, Anita Verma, am here in this Youth Conclave to present my views on the topic, Empowering the Women.

Women are the foundation of a society. They are the ones on whom the progress of a nation depends. But the women are not given their rightful place in the society. Many of them still suffer under family violence and face inferior status in the society. They are denied the basic rights—Right to education and freedom of speech. The growth and development of a nation depends on the status of equality given to the citizens. Women are not treated as equal to men.

Many efforts are being made to empower the Indian women. Still much is left to be achieved. We must realise that women too have the right to education, right to gender equality and the freedom of speech. Education will make the women self-reliant and will boost their confidence. They will become financially independent, thus leading them to the path of development.

It is the need of the hour that we stop exploiting women and give them their rights. People must show supportive attitude towards women so that they get equal opportunities to move ahead towards a better society. ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ is one scheme started by the government to educate the girl child. People must change their attitude towards women and give them their due place in the society.
Thank you.

Question 8.
Fill in blanks with the appropriate option given below. (Do any 4) (1 x 4 = 4)
Yesterday, as I (a) ………. along the mall, a taxi (b) ………. near me. A man (c) ………. me by my first name.
I (d) ………. as I failed to recognize the man, who (e) ………. and repeating my name. [1 mark each]
(a) (i) walks (ii) is walking (iii) was walking (iv) had been walking
(b) (i) stopped (ii) stops (iii) to stop (iv) will stop
(c) (i) addressing (ii) addressed (iii) to address (iv) has addressed
(d) (i) is surprised (ii) was surprised (iii) surprising (iv) to surprise
(e) (i) smiles (ii) to smile (iii) was smiling (iv) has been smiling
Answer:
(a) (iii) was walking
(b) (i) stopped
(c) (ii) addressed
(d) (ii) was surprised
(e) (iii) was smiling

Question 9.
Rearrange the following words or phrases to make meaningful sentences:
(a) the / on / forests / the / industry / oil / depends
Answer:
The oil industry depends on the forests.

(b) do / get / the / forests / from / what / we / products /?
Answer:
What products do we get from the forests?

(c) had / winning a medal / he / my /1 told him / until / about / known / not [1 x 3 = 3]
Answer:
He had not known about my winning a medal until I told him.

Section – C 
Literature (31 marks)

Question 10.
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: (1 x 3 = 3)
And forever, by day and night, I give back life to my own
origin, and make pure and beautify it;
(a) Who ‘give back life’ in the poem? (1)
(i) Earth
(ii) Living Organisms
(iii) Poet
(iv) Rain
Answer:
(iv) Rain

(b) What is the origin of ‘I’ in the poem? (1)
(i) Pond
(ii) Rivers
(iii) Oceans
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

(c) Who is ‘it’ in the above lines? (1)
Answer:
It is referred to the earth.
OR
When did my childhood go?
Was it the time I realised that adults were not
All they seemed to be,
(a) How do adults behave according to the poet? (1)
(i) Adults around him practice what they preached.
(ii) Adults around him did not practice what they preached
(iii) Adults around him were totally indifferent
(iv) Adults around him are not understandable
Answer:
(iii) Adults around him were totally indifferent

(b) The poet found adults
(i) Unpredictable
(ii) Vulnerable
(iii) Hypocrite
(iv) All of the above (1)
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

(c) Name the poet. (1)
Answer:
Markus Natten

Question 11.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. (1 x 3 = 3)
A. “The mummy is in very bad condition because of what Carter did in the 1920s,” said Zahi Hawass, Secretary General of Egypt7 s Supreme Council of Antiquities, as he leaned over the body for a long first look.
Question 1.
Who was Carter?
(A) American scientist
(B) British archaeologist
(C) Egyptian historian
(D) Former Secretary General of Supreme Council of Antiquities
Answer:
(B) British archaeologist

Question 2.
What did Carter do in 1920s?
(A) Revived King Tut
(B) Discovered King Tut’s tomb
(C) Wrote a book on King Tut
(D) Stole antiquities from King Tut’s tomb
Answer:
(B) Discovered King Tut’s tomb

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Question 3.
Which of these was found in King Tut’s tomb?
(A) Razor
(B) Smartphone
(C) Audio player
(D) Temple
Answer:
(A) Razor
OR
B. He thanked the girl politely and came out. It was characteristic of him not to worry about where he would stay. His main concern was to make his way to the library of the Asiatic Society to solve the riddle of history. Grabbing a quick lunch at a restaurant, he made his way to the Town Hall. Yes, to his relief, the Town Hall was there and it did house the library. He entered the reading room and asked for a list of history books including his own.
Question 1.
Who is ‘he’ here and who is the ‘girl’ he thanked?
(A) ‘He’ here is Rajendra Deshpande. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the Indian receptionist at Forbes Building.
(B) ‘He’ here is Professor Gangadharpant Gaitonde. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the Indian receptionist at Times Square Building.
(C) ‘He’ here is Rajendra Deshpande. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the English receptionist at Times Square Building.
(D) ‘He’ here is Professor Gangadharpant Gaitonde. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the English receptionist at Forbes Building.
Answer:
(D) ‘He’ here is Professor Gangadharpant Gaitonde. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the English receptionist at Forbes Building.

Question 2.
What was his main concern?
(A) His main concern was to make his way to the library of European Society to solve the riddle of history
(B) His main concern was to make his way to the library of Asiatic Society to solve the riddle of history.
(C) His main concern was to make his way to the library of Indian Society to solve the riddle of history.
(D) His main concern was to make his way to the library of African Society to solve the riddle of history.
Answer:
(B) His main concern was to make his way to the library of Asiatic Society to solve the riddle of history.

Question 3.
What does it show about the subject through his characteristic trait mentioned here?
(A) That instead of his personal worth, he cared more about his physical comforts.
(B) That he cared more about his physical comforts only.
(C) That instead of his personal physical comforts, he cared more about his worth.
(D) That instead of his personal physical comforts, he cared more about others’ thoughts.
Answer:
(C) That instead of his personal physical comforts, he cared more about his worth.

Question 12.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. (1 x 4 = 4)
A. No doubt about it at all. Who’s the better for being spoilt-grown man, lad or girl ? Nobody. You think it does ’em good when you run after them all the time, take their orders as if you were the servant in the house, stay at home every night while they go out enjoying themselves? Never in all your life.

It’s the ruin of them as well as you. Husbands, sons, daughters should be taking notice of wives an’ mothers, not giving’em orders an’ treating ’em like dirt. An’ don’t tell me you don’t know what I mean, for I know more than you’ve told me.
Question 1.
Who spoke these words?
(A) Mrs. Pearson
(B) Mrs. Fitzgerald
(C) Doris
(D) Cyril
Answer:
(B) Mrs. Fitzgerald

Question 2.
What was other person’s complaint against her family members?
(A) They did not let her overeat.
(B) They were too emotional.
(C) They were thoughtless and selfish.
(D) They were thoughtless and selfish.
Answer:
(D) They were thoughtless and selfish.

Question 3.
What did the speaker want the other person to do?
(A) To tell the family to respect her
(B) To tell the family to take her for a vacation
(C) To tell the family to take her to a museum
(D) To tell the family to pay her dues on time
Answer:
(A) To tell the family to respect her

Question 4.
What did the other person reply to this?
(A) Pride
(B) Honesty
(A) She had given an advertisement for this.
(B) She had dropped a hint about this.
(C) She had already started looking for another job.
(D) She had openly confronted everyone.
Answer:
(B) She had dropped a hint about this.
OR
B. His face, heated with his own exertions, chilled suddenly. He hesitated, torn between his desire to attempt to resuscitate the child, and his obligation towards the mother, who was herself in a desperate state. The dilemma was so urgent he did not solve it consciously.

Question 1.
Why was the situation so tense?
(A) The mother had died.
(B) The child was born lifeless.
(C) The doctor was too confused.
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) The child was born lifeless.

Question 2.
How many lives did the doctor save that night ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer:
(D) Four

Question 3.
Whom did the doctor first attend to?
(A) Mother
(B) Child
(C) Midwife
(D) Father
Answer:
(A) Mother

Question 4.
What was the name of the mother?
(A) Joe
(B) Susan
(C) Christine
(D) Edward Page
Answer:
(B) Susan

Commonly Made Errors:

  • The most commonly made errors pertain to grammar and spellings
  • The second most commonly made errors pertain to the wrong perception and expression of the poetic devices. One must first explain what a poetic device is, such as simile, metaphor, allusion and so on, and then explain their usage in the context of the poem.

Answering Tips:

  • Read the poem thoroughly-more than once, if necessary-to grasp the gist of each stanza
  • Do not rely on paraphrases
  • Note the use of words and expressions
  • Find out the context of the poem
  • Try to understand meanings of words in context. Remember, poetic meaning of a word may be different from the actual meaning. Also, sometimes certain words may undergo such poetic modifications for the sake of rhythm, which is not generally seen in prose.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in 40 to 50 words each.
(a) Describe the conversation between Professor Gaitonde and Khan Sahib about the place they had to go.
OR
Why did the author take the short cut in spite of high mountain passes?
(b) How does the laburnum tree appear in September?
OR
What do you learn about the poetess’ mother from ‘A Photograph’? fapl
(c) What, according to Doris could be the reason for mother’s strange behaviour? Does Cyril agree with her?
OR
What was Andrew’s view of marriage? Why was he resentful and confused?
Answer:
(a) It was at Sarhad that Khan Sahib told Gaitonde that the British Raj began from that place. He asked the professor where he was going. As for himself, he was going to Peshawar. For this purpose, Khan Sahib will go from Bombay to Delhi, then to Lahore and then Peshawar.
OR
(b) The short cut would take them south west, almost directly towards Mount Kailash. Crossing high mountains passes posed breathing problems. Absence of snow meant a fairly good ride.

(c) In the afternoon of September sunlight, the laburnum top appears silent and quite still. A few leaves of the tree are turning yellow. All the seeds of the tree have fallen.
OR
(d) The poetess’s mother was a big girl at the age of twelve. She had a sweet face and enjoyed swimming as well as wading in sea water with her cousins. Years later she would have laughed at the clothes they had put on for the sea holiday.

(e) According to Doris, mother has hit her head or something that could have been the cause of her strange behaviour. Cyril agrees that his mother’s behaviour was rather odd but Doris’ idea seems too farfetched to him.
OR
(f) As Andrew sat dozing by the kitchen fire his thoughts wandered over the subject of marriage. He thought of Bramwell who was foolishly devoted to a woman who deceived him meanly. Then he thought of Edward Page who was married to the ill-natured Blodwen and was now living unhappily, apart from his wife. This led him to the conclusion that all marriages are dismal failures. Then he thought of his girlfriend, Christine and wished to consider marriage as a pleasant state.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Question 14.
Answer any one of the following questions in about 120-150 words: (6 marks)
What damage did ‘Wavewalker’ suffer as a result of bad weather?
OR
Draw a character sketch of Khushwant Singh’s grandmother as portrayed by him in the lesson ‘The Portrait of a Lady’.
Answer:
Mighty waves struck ‘Wavewalker’. The decks were smashed. Water was gushing in through holes and openings. The whole starboard side had bulged inwards. Clothes, crockery, charts, tins and toys moved round noisily in deep water. Their hand pumps got blocked up with the debris floating around the cabins. The electric pump, short circuited. Water level rose high.

The two spare hand pumps had been wrenched overboard. Waves had also swept off the forestry soil, jib, dinghies and main anchor. There was tremendous leak somewhere below the water line. The boat’s main rib frames were smashed down to the kneel. A whole section of the starboard bull was being held up by a few cupboard partitions only. The hull of the ship had been damaged so badly that the pressure of rigging could simply pull the damaged section of the hull apart. ‘Wavewalker’ was so damaged that it could not hold together long enough to reach Australia.
OR
The narrator’s grandmother was a true picture of love, affection and care. She had all those virtues which grandmother’s generally have for their grandsons. She was highly religious but a conservative lady.

The grandmother presented a picture of peace and contentment. Her spotless white dress and her silver white hair gave her spiritual beauty. The grandmother was not physically very attractive. She had deep love and affection for her grandson. She got him ready for school. She accompanied him to his school and came back home with him.

She was a very religious lady. She was always telling the beads of her rosary. She had compassion even for animals and birds. She fed the village dogs. She took to feeding the sparrows in the city. But the grandmother was a conservative lady. She didn’t like the English language and Science. She hated music. She associated music with prostitutes and beggars.

Question 15.
Answer the question in about 120-150 words: (6 marks)
Compare and contrast uncle Khosrove and cousin Mourad.
OR
Describe the narrator’s second visit to Mrs. Dorling’s house.
Answer:
Uncle Khosrove and cousin Mourad have one very important point in common-their craziness. Mourad was considered the natural descendant of uncle Khosrove in this respect. They both are dominating in nature. Both use pet words and phrases and roar aloud to quieten the hearer. While unde Khosrove says, “It is no harm, pay no attention to it.”

Mourad boasts, “I have a way with birds/dogs/farmers.” Khosrove shouts at his son Aram, the barber and farmer John Byro. The narrator is a patient listener to Mourad’s assertions. They are different in their age and physical build up. Unde Khosrove, a middle-aged person, is an enormous man with a powerful head of black hair and very large moustache. Mourad is an athletic young chap of thirteen. Khosrove is irritable impatient and furious in temper. Mourad is reasonable in conversation.
OR
The narrator’s first visit to Mrs. Dorling’s house was in vain. She dedded to try for a second time. This time a girl of about fifteen opened the door to her. Her mother was not at home. The narrator said that she would wait for her. Following the girl along the passage, the narrator saw their old fashioned iron candle-holder hanging next to a mirror.

The girl made her sit in the living room and went inside. The narrator was horrified to find herself in a room she knew and did not know. She found herself in the midst of familiar things which she longed to see again but which oppressed her in the strange atmosphere. She dared not look around her.

The woollen table cloth, the cups, the white tea-pot, the spoons, the pewter plate, everything was full of memories of her former life. Suddenly the objects linked with her former life lost their value in strange surroundings. They too appeared strange to her. She no longer had desire to possess them. She got up, walked to the door and came out of the house.

Commonly Made Errors:

  • The most commonly made errors pertain to grammar and spellings
  • The second most commonly made errors pertain to the wrong interpretation of the plot-structure and the character sketches.
  • Mixing up the names of the different places, i.e., mentioning the wrong place in the context of the wrong event.

Answering Tips:

  • Read the story thoroughly-more than once, if necessary-to grasp the gist
  • Do not rely on paraphrases
  • Note the character traits of both the major and the minor characters
  • Find out the context of the story. This will help to understand the sub-themes
  • Focus on the narrative style of the story.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

  • This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
  • Alt questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
  • Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
  • Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
  • Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
  • Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
  • Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION – A (20 Marks)
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20)

Question 1.
How does the metallic character vary across the period?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) First decreases then increases (1)
Answer:
(b) Decreases

Explanation: Metallic character decreases as we move across a period in the periodic table from left to right. This occurs because as we move across a period, the nuclear charge increase and the tendency of the element to lose electrons decreases.

Questin 2.
A yellow powder X gives a pungent smell if left open in air. It is prepared by the reaction of dry compound Y with chlorine gas. It is used for disinfecting drinking water. Identify X and Y.
(a) X – Ca (OH)2, Y – CaO
(b) X – CaOCl2, Y – Ca(OH)2
(c) X – Ca(OH)2, Y – CaOCl2
(d) X – Ca(OH)2, Y – Ca(OCl)2 (1)
Answer:
(b) X – CaOCl2, Y – Ca(OH)2

Explanation: The yellow powder X is bleaching powder which is prepared by the reaction of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2]. Y is dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-11

Question 3.
The ray diagram below for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-1
Which of the following represents the complete ray diagram?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-2
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-12
Explanation: A ray of light going parallel to the principal axis towards the mirror after reflection from the mirror will pass through the focus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-13

Question 4.
A man stands in front of a large plane mirror as shown in the figure. How far must he walk before he is 5 m away from his image?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-3
(a) 7.5 m
(b) 8.5 m
(c) 7.5 cm
(d) 7 m
Answer:
(a) 7.5 m
Explanation: As the distance between the man and the mirror is 10 m, the distance between man and his image is 10 + 10 or 20 m, as image distance and object distance are equal. Distance between the man and his image is 5 m when the man is 2.5 m away from the mirror. Therefore, the man has to walk 10 m – 2.5 m = 7.5 m towards the mirror.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 5.
A light ray striking a glass prism is depicted in the figure.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-4
The image has labels indicating the different angles. Which angle, in turn, displays the angles of incidence and refraction?
(a) A and D
(b) B and E
(c) C and F
(d) D and F (1)
Answer:
(a) A and D

Explanation: ‘A’ represents angle of incidence and ‘D’ represents angle of refraction.

Question 6.
Identify the method in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various organisms.
(a) Anaerobic respiration
(b) Fermentation
(c) Aerobic respiration
(d) All of these (1)
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: The two ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various organisms are aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration. Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration.

Question 7.
Observe the figure given below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-5
Why does the lime water turn milky?
(a) CO2 is released
(b) CO2 is consumed
(c) H2 is released
(d) H2 is consumed (1)
Answer:
(a) CO2 is released

Explanation: Since the exhaled air is carbon dioxide rich, when air is blown from mouth into test tube, the lime water turns milky as carbon dioxide gas turns lime water milky.

Question 8.
How is the opening and closing of stomatal pore regulated in plants?
(a) It is a function of guard cells.
(b) It is a function of cytoplasm.
(c) It is a function of chloroplast.
(d) it depends on sunlight. (1)
Answer:
(a) It is a function of guard cells.

Explanation: The opening and closing of stomatal pores is a function of guard cells. When water flows into guard cells, they swell up causing the stomatal pore to open. When the guard cells shrink, the pore closes.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 9.
Electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor having:

Cross sectional area Length
(a) m2 1cm
(b) 1m2 1m
(c) 1cm2 1m
(d) 100m2 1m

Answer:
(b) 1 m2, 1m

Explanation: Electrical resistivity is defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor having cross- sectional area 1 m2 and length 1 m.

Related Theory
Resistivity is the characteristic of the material of a conductor and its SI unit is Ohm-m.

Question 10.
Identify A and B:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-6
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-14

Explanation: When ethanol reacts with chromic anhydride(CrO3), only partial oxidation occurs and ethanal is formed.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-15
On the other hand, when ethanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate (KMnO4), it produces ethanoic acid due to complete oxidation.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-16

Caution
Students usually make mistakes as they confused whether partial or complete oxidation occurs. In the presence of CrO3, CH3COOH partial oxidation of ethanol occurs. While complete oxidation of ethanol occurs in the presence ofalk. KMnO4.

Question 11.
Many people in a village had growing swollen necks, which was a problem for the hilly area’s inhabitants.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-7
A doctor came to the village, carefully listened to the residents’ problems, and gave them the advice to substitute iodized salt for regular salt in their food. The issue was largely resolved within a few months. What was the cause of the swollen neck of people in the village?
(a) Efficiency of p arathyroid h ormone.
(b) Deficiency of thyroxine hormone.
(c) Increased concentration of thyroxine hormone.
(d) Deficiency of parathyroid hormone. (1)
Answer:
(b) Deficiency of thyroxine hormone.

Explanation: Goitre is a condition that causes the swollen neck. Thyroxine hormone deficiency is the cause of goitre. Because iodine aids in the production of the hormone thyroxine, which helps to prevent goitre, using iodized salt was advised.

Question 12.
What kind of substances are introduced in the food chain by biological magnification?
(a) Harmful
(b) Non-toxic
(c) Harmless
(d) Harmful and toxic (1)
Answer:
(d) Harmful and toxic

Explanation: Biological Magnification is the process by which the harmful and toxic substances enter the food chain and get concentrated in the body of living organisms at each successive level in food chain.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 13.
Study the VI graph of two resistors Ri and R2 given below and answer the questions below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-8
After studying the graph, a student writes the following statements:
(I) Resistance of a conductor is the slope of VI graph.
(II) Resistance of a conductor does not depend on slope of VI graph.
(III) R1 > R2, as slope of VI graph is greater for R1.
(IV) R2 > R1 as slope of VI graph is greater for R2.
Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct statements),
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV) (1)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (III)
Explanation: The slope of the VI graph gives the resistance of the conductor as Ohm’s law can be mathematically expressed as V = IR, or R = V/l = slope of VI graph. As slope of graph for R1 is steeper than that of R2, resistance R1 > R2.

Question 14.
An old person complained of acute pain in stomach. Doctor gave a medicine as shown in the following image and he got immediate relief.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-9
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Antacid is basic in nature.
(b) Antacid neutralities acid in stomach.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Antacid is acidic in nature. (1)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: As the old person was suffering from acidity, the antacid tablet, which is basic in nature, neutralize the excess acid in his stomach due to which he got immediate relief.
Ca(OH)2(s) + Cl2(g) -> CaxOCl2(s) + H2O(l)

Question 15.
An unknown resistor has 5 mA current flowing through it when 10 volts are applied to it. For the same resistor, the application of 20 volts will result in the current flow of:
(a) 2 mA
(b) 5 mA
(c) 10 mA
(d) 50 mA (1)
Answer:
(c) 10 mA
Explanation: From Ohm’s law,
V = IR.
Therefore, R. = V /l
I = 5m A or 5 x 10-3A
Here R = 10 volts / 5 mA = 2 kΩ.
When V = 20 volts,
I = 20 volts/ 2 kΩ = 10 mA

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 16.
A student connected a simple circuit for verifying Ohm’s law.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-10
(I) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes half when resistance is doubled.
(II) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes double when resistance is halved.
(III) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes half when voltage is doubled.
(IV) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes half when voltage is halved.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III) (1)
Answer:
(c) Only (III)
Explanation: As per Ohm’s law, V = IR. Or, I = V/R
Therefore, when R is halved, I becomes double and I becomes half when R is doubled. As V is proportional to I, current becomes half when voltage is halved. Therefore, statement III is the only incorrect statement.

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 17.
Assertion (A) : Adrenaline hormone secreted by adrenal gland is called an emergency hormone.
Reason (R) : Adrenaline hormone is secreted in response to fear, anger joy, cold and emotional stress. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Emergency hormone – designated adrenaline hormone, also known as triple F hormone (FFF-Fight, Fright, Flight). Some of the neurons in the central nervous system and the medulla of the adrenal glands both produce it. It is quickly released into the blood during a stressful situation, sending signals to the organs to trigger a particular response, within a few minutes.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): New combination of traits are observed in F2 offspring when tall plants with round seeds are crossed with short plants with wrinkled seeds.
Reason (R): Tallness and round seed are both dominant traits. (1)
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.

Explanation: All offsprings of F1 generation were tall with round seeds which shows that both tallness and round seed are dominant traits. However, new combinations were seen in F2 generation which showed that the tall/ short trait and the round/wrinkled seed trait are independently inherited.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): Food chain is a part of food web.
Reason (R): Food chain helps in stabilising the populations of endangered species (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: Food chain is a sequence of eating and being eaten among the living organisms to transfer food energy so it stabilises the population of endangered species

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 20.
Assertion (A): If the length of the conductor is doubled, the area of cross-section becomes half.
Reason (R): The resistance will be doubled (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false Explanation: The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor (l) and inversely proportional to the area of cross section (A).

SECTION – B (12 MARKS)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 21.
Answer the following:
(A) Show the formation of Na20 and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(B) What are the ions present in these compounds? (2)
Answer:
(A) Formation of Sodium oxide Na2O:
Atomic number of sodium (Na) = 11
Its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 1
Atomic number of oxygen (O) = 8
Its electronic configuration = 2, 6
Each sodium atom can lose only one electron and attain stable configuration like that of Neon (2, 8)
Na —> Na+ + e
Sodium ion
But each oxygen atom requires two electrons to attain stable configuration of neon (2, 8).
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-19
So two sodium atoms will lose two electrons (i.e. one each)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-20
Formation of Magnesium oxide:
Atomic number of magnesium (Mg) = 12
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
It Loses two electronsfrom its valence shell and acquires electronic configuration of neon (2, 8) and form Mg2+ ion.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-21
Atomic number of oxygen = 8
Its electronic configuration = 2, 6
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-22
It gains two electrons to acquire the stable configuration of neon (2, 8) and becomes oxide ion (O2-)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-23

(B) The ions present in sodium oxide compound (Na20) are sodium ions (2Na+) and oxide ions (O2-).
Ions present in Magnesium oxide compound (MgO) are magnesium ions Mg2+ and oxide ions (O2-).

Question 22.
What are covalent bonds? Write the type of bond present in N2 molecule.
Answer:
A covalent bond, also called a molecular bond is a chemical bond that involves the sharing of electrons between atoms. The shared electrons belong to the outermost shells of both the atoms and both the atoms need electrons to attain the noble gas configuration.

Type of bond present in N2 molecule:
The electronic configuration of nitrogen atoms is 2, 5. Hence, nitrogen atom has 5 electrons in ‘L’. Shell and it requires three more electrons to fill the ‘L’ shell so two nitrogen atoms share their electrons to form a molecule of N2. It will form triple covalent bond.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-24

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 23.
What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
OR
Major amount of water is selectively reabsorbed by the tubular part of nephron in humans. What are the factors on which the amount of water reabsorbed depends? (2)
Answer:
The various methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products are:
(1) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are the waste products generated in plants during photosynthesis, and respiration
respectively. The plants get rid of these gaseous waste products through stomata in leaves and lenticels in stems.

(2) Many plant waste products are stored in cellular vacuoles. Plants get rid of stored solid and liquid wastes by shedding of leaves, peeling of bark and felling of fruits

OR

The amount of water re-absorbed depends on:
(1) How much excess water there is in the body.
(2) How much of dissolved waste there is to be excreted

Question 24.
Compare the following structures marked as ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown in figure with respect to their structure.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-17
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-18
Answer:
Comparison of the structure of alveoli in the lungs (A) and nephrons in the kidneys (B) is given below:

s.No. Alveoli Nephron
(1) These are thin walled balloon-like structure found in the lungs. This is a cluster of very thin-walled blood capillaries present in the kidney.
(2)

L

These are supplied with extensive network of thin- walled blood vessels i.e., capillaries for gaseous exchange. Bowman’s capsule is supplied with a cluster of capillaries called glomerulus for filtration. A network of blood vessels are present around the tubular part of nephron for reabsorption of useful substances and water

Question 25.
A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located? (2)
Answer:
Distance of the object from the concave mirror u = – 10 cm. and magnification of the real image, m = – 3.
To find position of image, we use the formula for magnification of mirrors,
m = – \(\frac { v }{ u }\)
=> v = – mu = – (-3) x (-10) = – 30 cm
Thus the image is situated infront of the mirror at a distance of 30 cm from it.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 26.
Two resistors with resistance 5 Ohm and 10 Ohm respectively are to be connected to a battery of 6 V so as to obtain:
(A) Minimum current flowing
(B) Maximum current flowing
(i) How will you connect the resistors in each case?
(ii) Calculate the strength of total current in the circuit in the two cases.
OR
A piece of wire of resistance 20 Ohms is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice of its original length. Calculate the resistance of the wire in the new situation. (2)
Answer:
(A) If we want minimum current, we will connect the resistors in series.If we want maximum current we will connect them in parallel.

(B) R1 = 5 Ohms: R2 = 10 Ohms
When connected in series
R= 10 + 5=15 Ohms
V=6V
Therefore, 1 = \(\frac { V }{ R }\) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 15 }\) = 0.4 A
When the resistors are connected in parallel.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-25
OR
Given R = 20 Ohm
Let length of wire is l and when it is drawn out its new length will become 2l. The volume of wire in both the situations remains constant. The area of cross section of wire becomes half.
So, the new resistance of the wire,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-26

SECTION – C (21 MARKS)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 27.
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and balance them (if needed): (3)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-27
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-29

Question 28.
(A) Rahul used to eat lot of sweets. As a result his teeth started damaging so early. How is tooth decay related to pH? 3
(B) What is the change in colour of pH paper dipped in a solution having a pH = 13?
OR
How can tooth decay be prevented ? (3)
Answer:
(A) When we eat food containing sugar, then the bacteria present in our mouth break down the sugar to form acids such as lactic acid, This acid lowers the pH in the mouth making it acidicTooth decay starts when the pH of acid formed in the mouth falls below 5.5. This is because then the acid becomes strong enough to attack the enamel of our teeth and corrode it. This sets in tooth decay.

(B) The solution with highest pH (13) will have minimum hydrogen ion concentration i.e. alkaline solution and so will change colour of pH paper to light violet colour.

OR

The best way to prevent tooth decay is to clean the mouth thoroughly after eating food by rinsing it with lots of clean water. Many tooth pastes contain bases to neutralise the mouth acid. The pH of tooth paste is about 8.0. Therefore, using the tooth paste, which is generally basic, for cleaning the tooth can neutralise the excess acid in mouth and prevent tooth decay

Question 29.
An alkali metal A gives a compound B (molecular mass = 40) on reacting with water. The compound B gives a soluble compound C on treatment with aluminium oxide, identify A, B and C and give the reactions involved. (3)
Answer:
A is Na, B is NaOH and C is NaAlO2 Reactions involved are:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-30
Let the atomic mass of alkali metal ‘A’ be a. When it reacts with water, it forms a compound
‘B’ having molecular mass 40.
Therefore, a + 16 + 1 = 40
a = 40 – 17 = 23
We know that the atomic mass of Na (sodium) is 23.

Therefore, the alkali metal (A) is Na. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide. So,
compound B is sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

Sodium hydroxide reacts with aluminium oxide (Al2O3) to give sodium aluminate (NaAlO2).
Thus, ‘C’ is sodium aluminate (NaAlO2).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 30.
Answer the following:
(A) Mention the adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis.
(B) Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in small intestine? (3)
Answer:
(A) The adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis are as follows:
(1) Leaves have chlorophyll i.e. the main site for photosynthesis.

(2) The shape of the leaves enables to absorb maximum sunlight for photosynthesis.

(3) Leaves have stomata which help in gas exchange and transpiration. Stomata help the leaves in taking in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

(B) Maximum absorption of digested food occurs in small intestine due to following reasons
(1) Digestion process gets completed in small intestine.

(2) Inner lining of small intestine is provided with millions of tiny, finger like projections called villi. Each villus has a network of fine blood capillaries close to the surface. The presence of villi gives the inner walls of small intestine greater surface area which helps in rapid absorption of food.

(3) Wall of intestine are richly supplied with blood vessels through which the absorbed food istaken to each and every cell of the body.

Question 31.
Explain how DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction? What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
OR
Answer the following:
(A) How will you differentiate between pollination and fertilization?
(B) Neha’s doctor suggested her to use copper-T as she do not want to have a child. If she is using a copper T, will it help her in protecting from sexually transmitted diseases.
Answer:
DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction because it makes possible the transmission of genetic information from parents to offspring in the next generation. DNA contains information for the inheritance of characteristics from the parents to the next generation. Advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction:
(1) In sexual reproduction, more variations are produced. Thus, it ensures survival of species in a population.
(2) Variations favour evolution and play an important role in origin of new species.
(3) It maintains chromosome number in future generation.
(4) The new formed individual has characteristics of both the parents.

OR

(A)

S.No. Process (i) (Pollination) Process (ii) (Fertilization)
(1) It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel of a flower. It is the fusion of male gamete with female gamete.
(2) It is a physical process  brought by the pollinating agents like water, air, insects. It is a physio- chemical process.
(3) It precedes fertilization. It follows fertilization

(B) No, the copper T will not protect her from sexually transmitted diseases Copper T is used to keep a gap between the children. It is used by females only. Condom on the other hand prevents the deposition of sperm into the vagina and also protect both males and females from sexually transmitted diseases.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 32.
(A) What is the focal length of the given lens ?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-28
(B) An object is kept at a distance of 100 cm from the above lens. Calculate the image distance and the magnification.(3)
Answer:
(A) Focal length is the reciprocal of the power in metres.
P= \(\frac { 1 }{ f }\)
f = \(\frac { 1 }{ P }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ -4 }\)
= – 0.25 m
= – 25 cm
A negative power gives negative focal length and is a property of a diverging lens (concave lens).

(B) f = – 25 cm, u = – 100 cm Using lens formula,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-31
Since v is (-) ve, therefore image is virtual, and erect
Magnification,
m = \(\frac { v }{ u }\) = \(\frac { -20 }{ -100 }\)
m = 0.2

Question 33.
Ozone therapy is a controversial alternative medical practice that uses ozone gas to fight disease. Aditya asked his mother whether this ozone therapy is legal to be used. His mother explained that in 2019, the Food and Drug Administation (FDA) warned against using this therapy because there is not enough evidence to conclude that it is safe for medical use. They say that it has no known useful application in supportive or preventive medicine. It is a toxic and harmful air pollution on ground level. Why is damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
Answer:
Damage to the ozone layer is a cause of concern for the following reason:
(1) Ozone layer depletion causes increased UV radiation levels at the Earth’s surface, which is damaging to human health as it causes certain types of skin cancers, eye cataracts and immune deficiency disorders.

Synthetic chemicals such as Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) are mainly responsible for drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere.

Steps being taken to minimize its damage are:

  • Freezing CFC production at 1986 levels as per the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) agreement.
  • Replacing CFCs with environment friendly apliances.
  • Minimizing the leakage of CFCs from refrigerators and air conditioners.

SECTION – D (15 Marks)
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are tong answer questions.)

Question 34.
A given organic solid’s melting point was to be ascertained by Ritesh. He did this by putting H2S04 in a bath. He lost focus and started to act a little carelessly as he glanced at the thermometer. He was covered in sulfuric acid after the boiling beaker fell. He had hand and clothing burns that were very bad.
(A) What caused Ritesh to have an accident?
(B) Why did he suffer from severe burns to his hands?
(C) What precautions must be followed while working in a lab? (5)
Answer:
(A) The tripod stand, the bath or beaker containing the concentrated H2S04 was not properly positioned. The acid spilled over him when it lost its balance.
(B) A very effective dehydrating agent is sulfuric acid. It eliminated the water content of the skin, which became burned and charred.
(C) A student must take the following safety precautions while working in the.
chemistry Lab:
(i) In the laboratory, you must always wear an apron.
(ii) Always maintain a safe distance from the table where the experiment is being conducted.
(iii) Must maintain alertness at alL times in the lab and maintain focus. Keep a safe distance at all times from the table where the experiment is being conducted.
(iv) Must maintain constant alertness and concentration in the Lab.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 35.
Answer the following:
(A) Draw a diagram of its longitudinal section showing the process of germination of pollen on stigma and label the following on it:
(i) Male germ cell
(ii) Female germ cell
(iii) Ovary
(iv) Pollen tube

(B) Observe the given figures :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-32
Process (i) may occur without process (ii) but process (ii) will not take place without Process (i). Give reasons.

OR

(A) Give an example of bisexual flower. What is its female reproductive part known as?
(B) Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower. (5)
Answer:
(A) Diagram of longitudinal section of flower showing the process of germination of pollen on stigma:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-33
(B) Pollination (i) is just the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of stamen to the stigma of pistil. It is carried out by agents like wind, insect etc. For pollination to happen there is no need of fertilization of gametes i.e. their union. Fertilization (ii) is fusion of male and female gamete and this process is facilitated by pollination. By pollination pollens are brought to eggs so that they can fuse and fertilisation can take place. Therefore, pollination may occur without fertilisation but fertilisation will not take place without pollination.

OR

(A) A flower that contains both the male and female reproductive structures (stamen and pistil) is called a bisexual flower. Example: rose, hibiscus. Its female reproductive part is known as carpel or pistil.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-34

Question 36.
What is a solenoid? How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Cars you determine the north and south poles of a currentcarrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.

OR

(A) When is the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
(B) Name two devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic fields.
(C) State the rule to determine the direction of a:
(i) magnetic field produced around a straight conductor carrying current.
(ii) Force experienced by a current carrying straight conductor placed in a field, which is perpendicular to it. (5)
Answer:
A solenoid is a coil of many circular turns of wire wrapped in the shape of a cylinder. When current passes through the solenoid it creates a magnetic field around it. The magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid. Thus, the solenoid behaves like a magnet. One end of the solenoid behaves as a magnetic north pole, while the other behaves as the south pole. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. This indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform inside the solenoid.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-35
The north and south poles of the solenoid can be determined by bringing one pole of a bar magnet next to the solenoid and checking whether it is attracted to or repelled by the solenoid. If it is repelled, they are like poles and unlike poles in the vice versa case.

OR

(A) The force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic fields is largest, when direction of current is at right angles to the direction of magnetic field.

(B) The devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic field are: Loudspeakers, microphones, measuring instruments, etc

(C) (i) Right Hand Thumb Rule: Imagine holding a current carrying straight conductor in your right hand such that the thumb of right hand points along the direction of current. Then, the fingers of the hand will wrap around the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-36

(ii) Fleming’s Left Hand Rule: Stretch the thumb, forefinger and the central finger of your left hand so that they are mutually perpendicular to one another. If the fore finger points in the direction of a magnetic field B and the central finger points in the direction of current T. through the conductor, then the thumb will point in the direction of force F (direction of motion of conductor) acting on the conductor

SECTION – E (12 MARKS)
(Q.no. 37 to 39 are case – based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub – parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)

Question 37.
The following chart explains the dihybrid cross in detail between one pea plant with yellow and round seeds and the other pea plant having green and wrinkled seeds. Analyse it and answer the following. (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-37
(A) After studying the above cross, a student noted down the following observations regarding progeny of F2 generation. What is the ratio obtained in F2 generation ?

(B) in the F2 generation of a cross, it was observed that the phenotypic ratio of progeny having different traits is 485 : 165 out of 650 observations. What type of cross is this? Explain.

OR

(B) A cross between the purple flowers of pea plant. (PP) and white flowers (pp) resulted in all F1 progeny that had purple flowers. Why ?
Answer:
(A) When yellow, round seeds were crossed with green, wrinkled seeds, the phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny was:
Yellow, round : Yellow wrinkled (new combination) : Green, round (new combination) : Green, wrinkled = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(B) It is a monohybrid cross: The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of the given cross is 485 : 165 or approximately 3 : 1, which shows that it is a monohybrid cross. The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross is 9 : 3 : 3 :1.

OR

(B) Purple colour is the dominant trait. As all progeny of Fi generation had purple flowers, this is an example of monohybrid cross as Mendel used a pair of pea plants with two contrasting traits (purple flower/ white flower).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 38.
Whenever a chemical reaction takes place, the bonds present in the reactions break and new bonds are formed in the products. Energy is needed to break the bonds in the reactants. While it is released when new bonds are formed resulting in the formation of products. The two values of energies are normally not equal. Hence, an energy change takes place in a chemical reaction. The graph below shows the energy changes taking place in exothermic and endothermic reactions: (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-38
(A) What is the name given to chemical reactions where more energy is needed to break the bonds as compared to energy released during bond formation?
(B) When an exothermic reaction takes place, the reaction mixture gives out heat. Why?
(C) Which of the following are exothermic processes?
Explain.
(I) Reaction of water with quick lime
(II) Dilution of an acid
(III) Evaporation of water
(IV) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
OR
(C) A student analyzed the observations given in the table below and wrote the following statements

Set Mixture Initial temperature (°c) Highest/lowest ternperature (°c)
(I) Solid sodi­um hydrogen carbonate + hydrochloric acid 29.0 27.5
(II) Solid sodium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid 29.0 35.0
(III) Solid sodium hydroxide + water 29.0 33.0
(IV) Solid ammoni­um chloride + water 29.0 26.0

What type of reaction (exothermic/ endothermic) is each set ?
Answer:
(A) The name given to a chemical reaction where energy is needed to break the bonds is endothermic reaction.

(B) More energy is released when new bonds are formed than is taken in when existing bonds in the reactants are broken.

(C) Both (I) and (II) When water is added to quicklime, a lot of heat is produced:
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat
Similarly, the dilution of acids is a highly , exothermic process. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out, cause burns and may break the glass container.

OR

(C) Reaction at set I and IV are endothermic reactions as final temperatures are lower than initial temperatures showing that heat is absorbed during the reaction.Reaction at set il and III are exothermic reactions as final temperatures are higher than initial temperatures showing that heat is evolved during the reaction.

39. Ankit remarked that he has seen wavering of objects when seen through a stream of hot air rising above a tandoor or a fire. He said that the air just above the fire becomes hotter than the air further higher up. He further said that this wavering can also be seen in the earth’s atmosphere as the earth’s atmosphere is not evenly distributed and several observations can be explained on the basis of this phenomenon. To explain his point further, he plotted the variation of refractive index of the atmosphere with altitude
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions img-39
(A) Name the phenomenon about which Ankit remarked.
(B) Write any two observations which can be explained by the above phenomenon.
(C) What is the total time difference on duration of day on Earth? Explain.
OR
(C) What do you analyse from the graph given above ? After analysing the graph a student writes the following statements. (4)
Answer:
(A) The phenomenon is “Atmospheric refraction” which is the refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to the decrease of refractive index with decreasing density or increasing temperature of air.

Related Theory
Dispersion of light is the separation of visible light into its different colors. Scattering of light is the phenomenon in which light rags get deviated from its straight path on striking an obstacle like dust or gas molecules, water vapours etc. Diffusion occurs when a ray of light strikes a surface and the light is scattered.

(B) The two observations which can be explained by atmospheric refraction are: Twinkling of stars and advance sunrise.

Related Theory
Formation of rainbow is due to refraction of light, dispersion, total internal reflection and again refraction.

(C) The total time difference on the duration of day on earth = 4 minutes = 2 minutes (due to advanced sunrise) + 2 minutes (due to delayed sunset).

OR

(C) The refractive index of the atmosphere decreases with altitude, that is, the air in the upper atmosphere is rarer as compared to the air below. As the starlight travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it will be bent towards the normal.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

समय : 3 घंटे
पूर्णांक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

  1. इस प्रश्न पत्र में दो खंड हैं- खंड ‘अ’ और ‘ब’। कुल प्रश्न 13 हैं।
  2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
  3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों के उचित आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं।
  4. प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए दीजिए।
  5. दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
  6. यथासंभव दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमशः लिखिए।

रखण्ड’अ’ : वस्तुपरक-प्रश्न
अपठित गद्यांश

1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनकर लिखिए- (1x 10 = 10)

उपवास और संयम ये आत्महत्या के साधन नहीं हैं। भोजन का असली स्वाद उसी को मिलता है जो कुछ दिन बिना खाए भी रह सकता है। ‘त्यक्तेन भुंजीथाः’ जीवन का भोग त्याग के साथ करो, यह केवल परमार्थ का ही उपदेश नहीं है, क्योंकि संयम से भोग करने पर जीवन में जो आनंद प्राप्त होता है, वह निरा भोगी बनकर भोगने से नहीं मिल पाता जिंदगी की दो सूरतें हैं। एक तो यह कि आदमी बड़े-से-बड़े मकसद के लिए कोशिश करे, जगमगाती हुई जीत पर पंजा डालने के लिए हाथ बढ़ाए, और अगर असफलताएँ कदम-कदम पर जोश की रोशनी के साथ अंधियाली का जाल बुन रही हों, तब भी वह पीछे को पाँव न हटाए। दूसरी सूरत यह है कि उन गरीब आत्माओं का हमजोली बन जाए जो न तो बहुत अधिक सुख पाती हैं और न जिन्हें बहुत अधिक दुःख पाने का ही संयोग है, क्योंकि वे आत्माएँ ऐसी गोधूलि में बसती हैं जहाँ न तो जीत हँसती है और न कभी हार के रोने की आवाज़ सुनाई पड़ती है। इस गोधूलि वाली दुनिया के लोग बंधे हुए घाट का पानी पीते हैं, वे ज़िंदगी के साथ जुआ नहीं खेल सकते और कौन कहता है कि पूरी जिंदगी को दाँव पर लगा देने में कोई आनंद नहीं है?

जनमत की उपेक्षा करके जीने वाला आदमी दुनिया की असली ताक़त होता है और मनुष्यता को प्रकाश भी उसी आदमी से मिलता है। जिंदगी से, अंत में, हम उतना ही पाते हैं जितनी कि उसमें पूँजी लगाते हैं। यह पूँजी लगाना जिंदगी के संकटों का सामना करना है, उसके उस पन्ने को उलट कर पढ़ना है जिसके सभी अक्षर फूलों से ही नहीं, कुछ अंगारों से भी लिखे गए हैं। जिंदगी का भेद कुछ उसे ही मालूम है जो यह जानकर चलता है कि जिंदगी कभी भी खत्म न होने वाली चीज़ है। अरे ! ओ जीवन के साधकों ! अगर किनारे की मरी सीपियों से ही तुम्हें संतोष हो जाए तो समुद्र के अंतराल में छिपे हुए मौक्तिक-कोष को कौन बाहर लाएगा?

दनिया में जितने भी मजे बिखेरे गए हैं उनमें तुम्हारा भी हिस्सा है। वह चीज भी तुम्हारी हो सकती है जिसे तुम अपनी पहँच के परे मान कर लौटे जा रहे हो। कामना का अंचल छोटा मत करो, जिंदगी के फल को दोनों हाथों से दबाकर निचोड़ो, रस की निर्झरी तुम्हारे बहाए भी बह सकती है।

(i) ‘त्यक्तेन भुंजीथाः’ कथन से लेखक के व्यक्तित्व की किस विशेषता का बोध होता है?
(क) परिवर्जन
(ख) परिवर्तन
(ग) परावर्तन
(घ) प्रत्यावर्तन
उत्तर:
(क) परिवर्जन

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
लेखक के अनुसार व्यक्ति को निरा भोगी बनकर नहीं बल्कि त्याग व संयम के साथ जीवन का भोग करना चाहिए, तभी आनंद प्राप्त हो सकता है।

(ii) मंज़िल पर पहुँचने का सच्चा आनंद उसे मिलता है, जिसने उसे
(क) आन की आन में प्राप्त कर लिया हो
(ख) पाने के लिए भरसक प्रयास किया हो
(ग) हाथ बढ़ा कर मुट्ठी में कर लिया हो
(घ) सच्चाई से अपने सपनों में बसा लिया हो
उत्तर:
(ख) पाने के लिए भरसक प्रयास किया हो

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जीवन में अपनी मंज़िल अर्थात् उद्देश्य प्राप्ति के लिए, असफलताओं और मुसीबतों का धैर्यपूर्वक सामना करते हुए अपने भरसक प्रयास करने चाहिए, तभी सच्चा आनंद प्राप्त हो सकता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

(iii) ‘गोधूलि’ शब्द का तात्पर्य है-
(क) गोधेनु
(ख) संध्यावेला
(ग) गगन धूलि
(घ) गोद ली कन्या
उत्तर:
(ख) संध्यावेला

व्याख्यात्मक हल: सूर्यास्त से ठीक पहले के समय को, जब आसमान में सूर्य की किरणें पीले रंग की दिखाई पड़ती हैं और सभी पशु-पक्षी अपने घरों व घोंसलों में लौटने लगते हैं, गोधूलि कहते हैं।

(iv) ‘गोधूलि’ वाली दुनिया के लोगों से अभिप्राय है
(क) विवशता और अभाव में जीने वाले
(ख) जीवन को दाँव पर लगाने वाले
(ग) गायों के खुरों से धूलि उड़ाने वाले
(घ) क्षितिज में लालिमा फैलाने वाले
उत्तर:
(क) विवशता और अभाव में जीने वाले

व्याख्यात्मक हल: ऐसे गरीब लोग जो विवशता और अभाव में जीते हैं, जिनके जीवन का सूर्य हमेशा अस्त ही रहता है क्योंकि उन्हें सुखों का आभास नहीं हो पाता और दुःख उनके जीवन का ही हिस्सा होते हैं।

(v) जीवन में असफलताएँ मिलने पर भी साहसी मनुष्य क्या करता है?
(क) बिना डरे आगे बढ़ता है क्योंकि डर के आगे जीत है
(ख) पराजय से निबटने के लिए फूंक-फूंककर कदम आगे रखता है
(ग) अपने मित्र बँधुओं से सलाह और मदद के विषय में विचार करता है।
(घ) असफ़लता का कारण ढूँढकर पुनः आगे बढ़ने का प्रयास करता है।
उत्तर:
(घ) असफ़लता का कारण ढूँढकर पुनः आगे बढ़ने का प्रयास करता है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: साहसी मनुष्य जीवन के संघर्ष में मिलने वाली असफलताओं, समस्याओं से घबराता नहीं है बल्कि उनका कारण ढूँढकर, फिर से संघर्ष करने को तत्पर हो जाता है।

(vi) आप कैसे पहचानेंगे कि कोई व्यक्ति साहस की जिंदगी जी रहा है?
(क) जनमत की परवाह करने वाला
(ख) निडर और निशंक जीने वाला
(ग) शत्रु के छक्के छुड़ाने वाला
(घ) भागीरथी प्रयत्न करने वाला
उत्तर:
(ख) निडर और निशंक जीने वाला

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जब कोई व्यक्ति जनमत की परवाह न करते हुए, जिंदगी के संकटों का सामना करते हुए भी निडरता से, बेधड़क होकर अपना जीवन जीता है तो वह निश्चित ही साहसी होता है।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) प्रत्येक परिस्थिति का सामना करने के लिए सदैव तैयार रहना चाहिए।
(II) मनुष्य अपने दृढ़ मंतव्य व कठिन परिश्रम से सर्वोच्च प्राप्ति की ओर अग्रसर रहता है।
(III) विपत्ति सदैव समर्थ के समक्ष ही आती है, जिससे वह पार उतर सके।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल II
(ग) I और II
(घ) II और III
उत्तर:
(ग) I और II

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

(viii) ‘जिंदगी को दाँव पर लगा देने में कोई आनंद नहीं है? लेखक इससे सिद्ध करना चाहते हैं कि जिंदगी
(क) रंगमंच के कलाकारों के समान व्यतीत करनी चाहिए।
(ख) में सकारात्मक परिस्थितियाँ ही आनंद प्रदान करती हैं।
(ग) में प्रतिकूलता का अनुभव जीवनोपयोगी होता है।
(घ) केवल दुःखद स्थितियों का सामना करवाती है।
उत्तर:
(ग) में प्रतिकूलता का अनुभव जीवनोपयोगी होता है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जीवन में प्रतिकूलता को बुरा समय समझकर निराश नहीं होना चाहिए बल्कि इसका अनुभव करने से हमें जीवन का वास्तविक रूप पता चलता है। यह जीवन में सफलता प्राप्त करने हेतु एक प्रेरक शक्ति के रूप में मनुष्य को प्रेरणा देती है।

(ix) किन व्यक्तियों को सुख का स्वाद अधिक मिलता है?
(क) जो अत्यधिक सुख प्राप्त करते हैं
(ख) जो सुख-दुःख से दूर होते हैं
(ग) जो पहले दुःख झेलते हैं
(घ) जो सुख को अन्य लोगों से साझा करते हैं।
उत्तर:
(ग) जो पहले दुःख झेलते हैं

व्याख्यात्मक हल: दुःख के बिना सुख का अनुभव नहीं हो सकता। दुःख को साहस से झेलने के बाद ही कोई व्यक्ति सबल बनकर सुख प्राप्त करता है क्योंकि दुःख ही विपरीत परिस्थितियों से व्यक्ति की संघर्ष करने की क्षमता का विकास कर; उसे ऊर्जावान बनाकर सुख का स्वाद चखने योग्य बनाता है।

(x) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): ‘जिंदगी के फल को दोनों हाथों से दबाकर निचोड़ो, रस की निर्झरी तुम्हारे बहाए भी बह सकती है’।
कारण (R): जिंदगी रूपी फल का रसास्वादन करने के लिए दोनों हाथों से श्रम करना होगा।
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) गलत है लेकिन कारण (R) सही है।
(ग) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
(घ) कथन (A) सही है लेकिन कारण (R) उसकी गलत व्याख्या करता है।
उत्तर:
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

2. निम्नलिखित पद्यांशों में से किसी एक पद्यांश से संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प-चयन द्वारा दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

चिड़िया को लाख समझाओ
कि पिंजड़े के बाहर
धरती बड़ी है, निर्मम है,
वहाँ हवा में उसे
बाहर जाने का टोटा है
यहाँ चुग्गा मोटा है।
बाहर बहेलिये का डर है
यहाँ निर्भय कंठ स्वर है।
फिर भी चिड़िया मुक्ति का गाना गाएगी,
अपने जिस्म की गंध तक नहीं मिलेगी।
यूँ तो बाहर समुद्र है, नदी है,
झरना है, पर पानी के लिए भटकना है,
यहाँ कटोरी में भरा जल गटकना है।
मारे जाने की आशंका से भरे होने पर भी
पिंजड़े से जितना अंग निकल सकेगा निकालेगी,
हर सू ज़ोर लगाएगी
और पिंजरा टूट जाने या खुल जाने पर उड़ जाएगी।

(i) पिंजड़े के भीतर चिड़िया को क्या-क्या सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध हैं?
(क) खाने की स्वतंत्रता, सम्मान और स्नेह
(ख) नीर, कनक, आवास और सुरक्षा
(ग) प्यार, पुरस्कार, भोजन और हवा
(घ) निश्चितता, निर्भयता, नियम और नीरसता
उत्तर:
(ख) नीर, कनक, आवास और सुरक्षा

व्याख्यात्मक हल: पिंजड़े के भीतर चिड़िया को जल, भोजन, आवास व सुरक्षा की सभी सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध हैं। उसे इन आधारभूत वस्तुओं के लिए कोई परिश्रम नहीं करना पड़ता।

(ii) बाहर सुखों का अभाव और प्राणों का संकट होने पर भी चिड़िया मुक्ति ही क्यों चाहती है?
(क) वह अपने परिवार से मिलना चाहती है।
(ख) वह आज़ाद जीवन जीना पसंद करती है।
(ग) वह जीवन से मुक्ति चाहती है।
(घ) वह लंबी उड़ान भरना चाहती है।
उत्तर:
(ख) वह आज़ाद जीवन जीना पसंद करती है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: चिड़िया पराधीन होकर पिंजड़े के अन्दर का सुख नहीं चाहती क्योंकि पराधीनता से बड़ा कोई अभिशाप नहीं। पिंजड़े से बाहर बेशक उसे सुखों का अभाव व प्राणों का संकट महसूस हो, किन्तु वह आज़ाद जीवन जीना ही पसंद करती है जहाँ वह केवल अपने ही आधीन रहती है।

(iii) चिड़िया के समक्ष धरती को निर्मम बताने का मंतव्य है
(क) भयावह स्थिति उत्पन्न करना
(ख) छोटे जीव के प्रति दया भाव
(ग) बहेलिये से बचाव की प्रेरणा
(घ) जीवनोपयोगी वस्तुएँ जुटाने का संघर्ष दर्शाना
उत्तर:
(क) भयावह स्थिति उत्पन्न करना

व्याख्यात्मक हल: धरती पर चिड़िया के लिए अनेक कठिनाईयाँ हैं। उसे दूसरे जानवरों द्वारा मारे जाने का भय है, उसे भोजन-पानी के लिए अत्यधिक श्रम करना पड़ेगा, उसे जीवन में सुखों का अभाव झेलना पड़ेगा।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

(iv) पद्यांश का मूल प्रतिपाद्य क्या है?
(क) पिंजरे में पक्षी रखने वालों को सही राह दिखाना
(ख) पिंजरे के भीतर और बाहर की दुनिया दिखाना
(ग) पिंजरे के पक्षी की उड़ान और दर्द से परिचित कराना
(घ) पिंजरे के पक्षी के माध्यम से स्वतंत्रता का महत्त्व बताना
उत्तर:
(घ) पिंजरे के पक्षी के माध्यम से स्वतंत्रता का महत्त्व बताना

व्याख्यात्मक हल: स्वतंत्र व्यक्ति अपनी इच्छा से कहीं आ-जा सकता है, अपने विचारों की अभिव्यक्ति कर सकता है, अपने दायित्वों की पूर्ति कर सकता है जबकि पराधीनता या परतंत्रता में केवल कष्टमय जीवन ही प्राप्त होता है। हमें गुलाम बनकर रहना पड़ता है।

(v) कवि के संबंध में इनमें से सही है कि वह
(क) प्रकृति के प्रति सचेत हैं
(ख) चिड़िया की सुरक्षा चाहते हैं
(ग) आज़ादी के समर्थक हैं
(घ) अन्न-जल की उपयोगिता बताते हैं
उत्तर:
(ग) आज़ादी के समर्थक हैं

व्याख्यात्मक हल: कवि को मालूम है कि परतंत्रता कितनी दु:खद स्थिति होती है। भारत जब अंग्रेज़ों के आधीन था तब स्वयं को स्वतंत्र कराने के लिए भारत की जनता ने अनेकों बलिदान दिए, तब जाकर वह स्वतंत्र हो सका, आज़ाद हो सका। वह जानता है कि स्वतंत्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।

अथवा

हैं जन्म लेते जगह में एक ही,
एक ही पौधा उन्हें है पालता
रात में उन पर चमकता चाँद भी,
एक ही-सी चाँदनी है डालता।
मेह उन पर है बरसता एक-सा,
एक सी उन पर हवाएँ है बही
पर सदा ही यह दिखाता है हमें
ढंग उनके एक से होते नहीं।

छेदकर काँटा किसी की अँगुलियाँ,
फाड़ देता है किसी का वर वसन
प्यार-डूबी तितलियों का पर कतर,
भँवर का है भेद देता श्यान तन।

फूल लेकर तितलियों को गोद में
भँवर को अपना अनूठा रस पिला,
निज सुगंधों और निराले ढंग से
है सदा देता कली का जी खिला।

है खटकता एक सबकी आँख में
दूसरा है सोहता सुर शीश पर,
किस तरह कुल की बड़ाई काम दे
जो किसी में हो बड़प्पन की कसर ।

(i) प्रस्तुत काव्यांश किससे संबंधित है?
(क) फूल और तितलियों से
(ख) फूल और पौधे से
(ग) पौधे और चाँदनी से
(घ) बड़प्पन की पहचान से
उत्तर:
(घ) बड़प्पन की पहचान से

व्याख्यात्मक हल: प्रस्तुत काव्यांश प्रकृति-प्रदत्त वस्तुओं द्वारा बिना किसी भेदभाव के अपना कार्य कर, बड़प्पन प्रस्तुत करने से संबंधित है।

(ii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) सद्गुणों के कारण ही मानुस प्रेम का पात्र बनता है।
(II) परिवेशगत समानता सदैव अव्यवस्था को जन्म देती है।
(III) भौगोलिक परिस्थितियाँ प्राकृतिक भिन्नता का कारण हैं।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल II
(ग) I और II
(घ) II और III
उत्तर:
(क) केवल I

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

(iii) इस काव्यांश से हमें क्या सीख मिलती है?
(क) मनुष्य के कर्म उसे प्रसिद्धि दिलाते हैं।
(ख) समान परिवेश में रहते हुए मनुष्य समान आदर पाते हैं।
(ग) किसी भी कुल में जन्म लेने से ही मनुष्य बड़ा हो सकता है।
(घ) समान पालन-पोषण होने पर अलग व्यक्तियों के स्वभाव समान होते हैं।
उत्तर:
(क) मनुष्य के कर्म उसे प्रसिद्धि दिलाते हैं।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जिस प्रकार चंद्रमा, बादल, हवाएँ अपने कर्म से प्रसिद्धि पाते हैं, फूल, तितली, भँवरा भी अपना कार्य करते हैं, उसी प्रकार मनुष्य भी अपने अच्छे कर्मों से ही प्रसिद्धि पा सकता है।

(iv) ‘फाड़ देता है किसी का पर वसन’ में ‘वसन’ शब्द का अर्थ है
(क) व्यसन
(ख) वस्त्र
(ग) वास
(घ) वासना
उत्तर:
(ख) वस्त्र

(v) कवितानुसार फूल निम्न में से कौन-सा कार्य नहीं करता?
(क) भँवरों को अपना रस पिलाता है।
(ख) तितलियों को अपनी गोद में खिलाता है।
(ग) फल बनकर पशु-पक्षियों और मनुष्यों का पेट भरता है।
(घ) सुरों के शीश पर सोहता है।
उत्तर:
(ग) फल बनकर पशु-पक्षियों और मनुष्यों का पेट भरता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

3. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) मुद्रित माध्यमों के लेखन में सहज प्रवाह के लिए ज़रूरी है
(क) तारतम्यता
(ख) उपलब्धता
(ग) एकरेखीयता
(घ) साध्यता
उत्तर:
(क) तारतम्यता

व्याख्यात्मक हल-मुद्रित माध्यमों में सहज प्रवाह में लेखन के लिए आवश्यक तत्त्व है तारतम्यता अर्थात् एक निरंतरता जिससे कि पाठक की लेख में रूचि बनी रहे।

(ii) संबंधित घटना के दृश्य बाइट व ग्राफिक द्वारा खबर को संपूर्णता से पेश करना कहलाता है
(क) एंकर विजुअल
(ख) एंकर बाइट
(ग) एंकर पैकेज
(घ) ड्राई एंकर
उत्तर:
(ग) एंकर पैकेज

(iii) छह ककार के लिए उचित क्रम का चयन कीजिए
(क) क्या, कौन, कहाँ, कब, क्यों, कैसे
(ख) किसने, कब, क्यों, कैसे, कहाँ, किधर
(ग) कैसे, किससे, कब, क्यों, कितना, कौन
(घ) क्यों, कैसे, कब, कहाँ, किससे, किसने
उत्तर:
(क) क्या, कौन, कहाँ, कब, क्यों, कैसे

(iv) कॉलम ‘क’ का कॉलम ‘ख’ से उचित मिलान कीजिए-

कॉलम ‘क’ कॉलम ‘ख’
(i) बीट रिपोर्टर (i) निवेशक
(ii) फीचर (ii) संवाददाता
(iii) कारोबार (iii) घुटने टेकना
(iv) खेल (iv) कथात्मक

(क) (i)-(iii), (ii)-(iv), (iii)-(i), (iv)-(ii)
(ख) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(iv), (iii)-(i), (iv)-(iii)
(ग) (i)-(iv), (ii)-(iii), (iii)-(ii), (iv)-(i)
(घ) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(i), (iii)-(iv), (iv)-(iii)
उत्तर:
(ख) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(iv), (iii)-(i), (iv)-(iii)

(v) विशेष लेखन के लिए सबसे ज़रूरी बात है
(क) चील-उड़ान और शब्द-विवेक
(ख) गिद्ध-दृष्टि और पक्का इरादा
(ग) शब्दावली और उपलब्धियाँ
(घ) प्रभावशीलता और बुद्धिमत्ता
उत्तर:
(ख) गिद्ध-दृष्टि और पक्का इरादा

व्याख्यात्मक हल: विशेष लेखन करते समय समाचार पर गिद्ध की तरह की तीखी दृष्टि रखनी चाहिए और साथ ही लेखन पूर्ण करने का पक्का इरादा।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

4. निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रात नभ था बहुत नीला शंख जैसे
भोर का नभ
राख से लीपा हुआ चौका
(अभी गीला पड़ा है)
बहुत काली सिल ज़रा से लाल केसर से
कि जैसे धुल गई हो
स्लेट पर या लाल खड़िया चाक़
मल दी हो किसी ने
नील जल में या किसी की
गौर झिलमिल देह
जैसे हिल रही हो
और…….
जादू टूटता है इस उषा का अब
सूर्योदय हो रहा है।

(i) नील जल में किसी की गौर, झिलमिल देह जैसे हिल रही हो’ में कौन-सा भाव है?
(क) तरलता का
(ख) निर्मलता का
(ग) उज्जवलता का
(घ) सहजता का
उत्तर:
(ख) निर्मलता का

(ii) नीले नभ में उदय होता हुआ सूर्य किसके जैसा प्रतीत हो रहा है?
(क) शंख जैसा
(ख) गौरवर्णीय सुंदरी जैसा
(ग) सिंदूर जैसा
(घ) नीले जल जैसा
उत्तर:
(ख) गौरवर्णीय सुंदरी जैसा

(iii) इस काव्यांश में कवि ने उषा का कौन-सा चित्र उपस्थित किया है?
(क) छायाचित्र
(ख) रेखाचित्र
(ग) शब्दचित्र
(घ) भित्तिचित्र
उत्तर:
(ग) शब्दचित्र

(iv) अलंकार की दृष्टि से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है?
(क) बहुत नीला शंख जैसे – उपमा अलंकार
(ख) जादू टूटता है इस उषा का अब – उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार
(ग) सूर्योदय हो रहा है – रूपक अलंकार
(घ) गौर झिलमिल देह जैसे हिल रही हो – अन्योक्ति अलंकार
उत्तर:
(क) बहुत नीला शंख जैसे – उपमा अलंकार

(v) कवि द्वारा भोर को राख का लीपा हुआ चौंका कहना प्रतिपादित करता है कि भोर का नभ-
(क) अपनी आभा से चमत्कृत कर रहा है।
(ख) रात के समान गर्म हवा फैला रहा है।
(ग) सफ़ेद व नीले वर्णों का अद्भुत मिश्रण है।
(घ) नए परिवर्तन व आयामों का प्रतीक है।
उत्तर:
(ग) सफ़ेद व नीले वर्णों का अद्भुत मिश्रण है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

5. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

कालिदास सौंदर्य के बाह्य आवरण को भेदकर उसके भीतर तक पहुँच सकते थे, दुःख हो कि सुख, वे अपना भाव-रस उस अनासक्त कृषिवल की भाँति खींच लेते थे, जो निर्दलित ईक्षुदंड से रस निकाल लेता है। कालिदास महान् थे, क्योंकि वे अनासक्त रह सकते थे। कुछ इसी श्रेणी की अनासक्ति आधुनिक हिंदी कवि सुमित्रानंदन पंत में है। कविवर रवींद्रनाथ में यह अनासक्ति थी। एक जगह उन्होंने लिखा-‘राजोद्यान का सिंहद्वार कितना ही अभ्रभेदी क्यों न हो’ उसकी शिल्पकला कितनी ही सुंदर क्यों न हो, वह यह नहीं कहता कि हम में आकर ही सारा रास्ता समाप्त हो गया। असल गंतव्य स्थान उसे अतिक्रम करने के बाद ही है, यही बताना उसका कर्तव्य है।’ फूल हो या पेड़, वह अपने-आप में समाप्त नहीं है। वह किसी अन्य वस्तु को दिखाने के लिए उठी हुई अँगुली है। वह इशारा है।

(i) कालिदास की सौंदर्य-दृष्टि कैसी थी?
(क) स्थूल और बाहरी
(ख) सूक्ष्म और संपूर्ण
(ग) आसक्ति और आडंबरों
(घ) अतिक्रम और अभ्रभेदी
उत्तर:
(ख) सूक्ष्म और संपूर्ण

(ii) कौन-से गुण के कारण कालिदास, सुमित्रानंदन पंत और रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर कविताओं के साथ न्याय कर पाए ?
(क) गंतव्यता
(ख) निर्दलीयता
(ग) कृषिबलता
(घ) तटस्थता
उत्तर:
(घ) तटस्थता

(iii) फूलों और पेड़ों से हमें जीवन की …………. की प्रेरणा मिलती है
(क) निरंतरता
(ख) भावपूर्णता
(ग) समापनता
(घ) अतिक्रमणता
उत्तर:
(क) निरंतरता

(iv) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): पुष्प या पेड़ अपने सौंदर्य से यह बताते हैं कि यह सौंदर्य अंतिम नहीं है।
कारण (R): भारतीय शिल्पकला विशेष रूप से प्रसिद्ध है। विभिन्न कवियों ने इस बात की पुष्टि की है।
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) गलत है लेकिन कारण (R) सही है।
(ग) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
(घ) कथन (A) सही है लेकिन कारण (R) उसकी गलत व्याख्या करता है।
उत्तर:
(घ) कथन (A) सही है लेकिन कारण (R) उसकी गलत व्याख्या करता है।

(v) गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए-
(I) कला की कोई सीमा नहीं होती।
(II) शिरीष के वृक्ष को कालजयी अवधूत के समान कहा गया है।
(III) कालिदास की समानता आधुनिक काल के कवियों के साथ दिखाई गई है।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल III
(ग) I और II
(घ) I और III
उत्तर:
(घ) I और III

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

6. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर हेतु निर्देशानुसार सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

(i) ‘सिल्वर वेडिंग’ कहानी की मूल संवेदना आप किसे मानेंगे?
(क) पाश्चात्य संस्कृति का प्रभाव
(ख) हाशिए पर धकेले जाते मानवीय मूल्य
(ग) पीढ़ी अंतराल
(घ) सिल्वर वेडिंग के परिणाम
उत्तर:
(ग) पीढ़ी अंतराल

(ii) ‘सिल्वर वेडिंग’ पाठ में ‘जो हुआ होगा’ वाक्य का अर्थ है
(क) पाश्चात्य विचारधारा के संदर्भ में
(ख) परिवार की संरचना के संदर्भ में
(ग) किशन दा की मृत्यु के संदर्भ में
(घ) यशोधर बाबू की नियुक्ति के संदर्भ में
उत्तर:
(ग) किशन दा की मृत्यु के संदर्भ में

(iii) दादा कोल्हू जल्दी क्यों लगाना चाहते थे?
(क) काम जल्दी समाप्त करने के लिए
(ख) दूसरी फ़सल के लिए
(ग) गुड़ की ज़्यादा कीमत के लिए
(घ) खेत में पानी देने के लिए
उत्तर:
(ग) गुड़ की ज़्यादा कीमत के लिए

(iv) ‘जूझ’ उपन्यास मूलतः किस भाषा में लिखा गया है?
(क) हिंदी
(ख) अंग्रेजी
(ग) मराठी
(घ) गुजराती
उत्तर:
(ग) मराठी

(v) लेखक आनंद यादव की माँ के अनुसार पढ़ाई की बात करने पर लेखक का पिता कैसे गुर्राता है?
(क) कुत्ते के समान
(ख) शेर के समान
(ग) जंगली सूअर के समान
(घ) चीते के समान
उत्तर:
(ग) जंगली सूअर के समान

(vi) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता के संबंध में कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(क) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता प्राचीनतम् सभ्यता थी।
(ख) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता आडंबरहीन सभ्यता थी।
(ग) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता छोटी होते हुए भी महान थी।
(घ) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता में राजतंत्र स्थापित नहीं था।
उत्तर:
(घ) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता में राजतंत्र स्थापित नहीं था।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) महाकुंड स्तूप में उत्तर और दक्षिण से सीढ़ियाँ उतरती हैं।
(II) मोहनजोदड़ो सभ्यता में सूत की कताई, बुनाई और रंगाई भी होती थी।
(III) सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता में जल निकासी की व्यवस्था अत्यंत बुरी थी।
(IV) मोहनजोदड़ो से मिला नरेश के सिर का मुकुट बहुत छोटा था।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल III
(ग) I, II और III
(घ) I, II और IV
उत्तर:
(घ) I, II और IV

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

(viii) राखालदास बनर्जी कौन थे?
(क) शिक्षक
(ख) भिक्षुक
(ग) पुरातत्त्ववेत्ता
(घ) व्यापारी
उत्तर:
(ग) पुरातत्त्ववेत्ता

(ix) ‘जूझ’ कहानी लेखक की किस प्रवृत्ति को उद्घाटित करती है?
(क) कविता करने की प्रवृत्ति
(ख) पढ़ने की प्रवृत्ति
(ग) लेखन की प्रवृत्ति
(घ) संघर्षमयी प्रवृत्ति
उत्तर:
(घ) संघर्षमयी प्रवृत्ति

(x) किशोर दा के रिटायर होने पर यशोधर बाबू उनकी सहायता क्यों नहीं कर पाए थे?
(क) यशोधर बाबू की पत्नी किशन दा से नाराज़ थी।
(ख) यशोधर बाबू का अपना परिवार था, जिससे वह नाराज़ नहीं करना चाहते थे।
(ग) यशोधर बाबू के घर में किशन दा के लिए स्थान का अभाव था।
(घ) किशन दा को यशोधर बाबू ने अपने घर में स्थान देना चाहा था, जिसे किशन दा ने स्वीकार नहीं किया।
उत्तर:
(ख) यशोधर बाबू का अपना परिवार था, जिससे वह नाराज़ नहीं करना चाहते थे।

रखण्ड ‘ब’: वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

7. दिए गए चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए- (6 × 1 = 6)

(क) लोकतंत्र में मीडिया की भूमिका
(ख) दिया और तूफ़ान : मानव जीवन का सत्य
(ग) झरोखे से बाहर
(घ) आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सवःस्वर्णिम 75 साल
उत्तर:
(क) लोकतंत्र में मीडिया की भूमिका

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मीडिया लोकतंत्र का चौथा स्तंभ है। लोकतांत्रिक व्यवस्था में इसकी भूमिका और महत्त्वपूर्ण हो जाती है। मीडिया की विश्वसनीयता जनता के सरोकारों और जन विश्वास पर ही टिकी होती है। मीडिया राष्ट्रीय संसाधन है जिसे पत्रकार बंधु जन विश्वास या ट्रस्ट में प्रयोग करते हैं। मीडिया की आवश्यकता इसलिए भी होती है कि वे जनसरोकारों के प्रति सत्यनिष्ठ रहें। महात्मा गांधी ने कहा था कि “पत्रकार का कर्तव्य है कि वह देश के जनमानस को पढ़े और निर्भीक हो कर उसे मुखर अभिव्यक्ति दे। पत्रकारिता का मुख्य उद्देश्य मात्र समाज सेवा ही होनी चाहिए। संसद और मीडिया एक-दूसरे के सहयोगी हैं। दोनों ही संस्थान जनभावनाओं को अभिव्यक्ति देते हैं। आज जब हम बढ़ती और बदलती जन अपेक्षाओं के युग में रह रहे हैं तब आवश्यक है कि हम अपने स्थापित पूर्वाग्रहों को त्यागें और जन अपेक्षाओं की स्वर दें। मीडिया को भी विकासवादी सकारात्मक राजनीति का वाहक बनना होगा।

(ख) दिया और तूफान : मानव जीवन का सत्य

व्याख्यात्मक हल-मानव जीवन का सत्य है कि उसके जीवन में सुख और दुःख का चक्र निरन्तर चलता रहता है। दिया से तात्पर्य रोशनी देने से है अर्थात् दिया रोशनी और नई आशा का प्रतीक है जो मानव जीवन के अन्धकार को नष्ट करता है। इसके विपरीत ही तूफ़ान है। यह मानव जीवन में विपत्तियों का सूचक है। जब भी मानव जीवन में तूफ़ान आता है तब दिया ही मानव का पथ प्रदर्शन करता है। तूफ़ान सब कुछ नष्ट कर देता है अर्थात् इसके कारण मानव जीवन नष्ट होने की कगार पर आ जाता है, इसलिए मनुष्य को अपने भीतर के आलोक को कभी नष्ट नहीं होने देना चाहिए। धैर्य और समझदारी से काम लेना चाहिए। सुख-दुःख जीवन का चक्र है जो निरन्तर चलता रहेगा, अतः कहा जा सकता है कि दिया और तूफान मानव जीवन का सत्य है।

(ग) झरोखे से बाहर

व्याख्यात्मक हल-झरोखा है- भीतर से बाहर की ओर झाँकने का माध्यम और बाहर से भीतर देखने का रास्ता। हमारी आँखें भी तो झरोखा ही हैं-मन-मस्तिष्क को संसार से और संसार को मन-मस्तिष्क से जोड़ने का। मन रूपी झरोखे से किसी भक्त को संसार के कण-कण में बसने वाले ईश्वर के दर्शन होते हैं तो मन रूपी झरोखे से ही किसी डाकू-लुटेरे को किसी धनी-सेठ की धन-संपत्ति दिखाई देती है जिसे लूटने के प्रयत्न में वह हत्या जैसा जघन्य कोई कार्य करने में तनिक नहीं झिझकता। झरोखा स्वयं कितना छोटा-सा होता है पर उसके पार बसने वाला संसार कितना व्यापक है जिसे देख तन-मन की भूख जाग जाती है और कभी-कभी शांत भी हो जाती है। किसी पर्वतीय स्थल पर किसी घर के झरोखे से गगन चुंबी पर्वतमालाएँ, ऊँचे-ऊँचे पेड़, डरावनी खाइयाँ यदि पर्यटकों को अपनी ओर खींचती हैं तो दूर-दूर तक घास चरती भेड़ -बकरियाँ भी मन मोह लेती हैं। झरोखे तो छोटे-बड़े कई होते हैं पर उनके बाहर के दृश्य तो बहुत बड़े होते हैं जो कभी-कभी आत्मा तक को झकझोर देते हैं।

(घ) आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव : स्वर्णिम 75 साल

व्याख्यात्मक हल-आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव एक बड़ा ही लम्बा त्योहार है जिसे 12 मार्च 2021 में प्रधानमंत्री ने ऐलान किया था जिसके बाद 12 मार्च से ही आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव भारत के कुछ क्षेत्रों में मनाया जा रहा है जिसे 15 अगस्त को अति उत्साह के साथ आने वाले 15 अगस्त 2023 तक मनाया जाएगा। आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव मनाने से सभी भारतवासियों के दिल में देश के प्रति सम्मान और गौरव को प्रचलित करना है। इस योजना से भारत की सैन्य शक्ति की भी प्रदर्शनी करवायी जाएगी। आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव विभिन्न जगहों पर अलग-अलग तरह के कार्यक्रम और बड़े पैमाने पर भारतीय हथियार के प्रदर्शनी के साथ मनाया जा रहा है। साथ ही भारत के सभी नागरिकों के मन में भारत के लिए एक अलग ही सम्मान प्रकट हो पाएगा। इस अमृत महोत्सव में उन वीर सुपूतों को याद करना है जिन्होंने अपना परिवार और अपना समस्त जीवन केवल देश को समर्पित कर दिया। कवि प्रदीप ने कहा है
“ऐ मेरे वतन के लोगो जरा आँख में भर लो पानी।
जो शहीद हुए हैं उनकी ज़रा याद करो कुर्बानी।।”

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

8. किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘कहानीकार द्वारा कहानी के प्रसंगों या पात्रों के मानसिक द्वंद्वों के विवरण के दृश्यों की नाटकीय प्रस्तुति में काफ़ी समस्या आती है।’ इस कथन के संदर्भ में नाटय रूपांतरण की किन्हीं तीन चुनौतियों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
नाट्य रूपांतरण की चुनौतियाँ

  • पात्रों के मनोभावों की
  • मानसिक द्वंद्व के दृश्यों की
  • पात्रों की सोच के प्रस्तुतीकरण की उदाहरण के लिए ईदगाह कहानी का वह हिस्सा जहाँ हामिद इस द्वंद्व में है कि क्या खरीदे, क्या ना खरीदे।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
कहानियों में भाव बोध को अपनी भाव भंगिमा के साथ प्रस्तुत करना उसका नाट्य रूपांतरण है। विभिन्न प्रकार से घटना, कथा अथवा कहानी कहने की शैली रूपांतरण की जननी है। कहानी और नाटक का फ़िल्मों में रूपांतरण तेजी से हो रहा है। अभिव्यक्ति और कथानक को नए रूप में परिवर्तित कर के मंच पर लाया जा रहा है।

(ख) रेडियो श्रव्य माध्यम है। यह ध्वनि के माध्यम से ही संप्रेषण करता है इसलिए नाटक में ध्वनि संकेतों का विशिष्ट महत्त्व है। रेडियो नाटक में ध्वनि संकेतों की महत्ता स्पष्ट करते हुए कोई तीन बिंदु अवश्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
रेडियो नाटक में ध्वनि संकेतों की महत्ता-

  1. मंच नाटक लेखन, फ़िल्म की पटकथा और रेडियो नाटक लेखन में काफी समानता
  2. रेडियो में ध्वनि प्रभावों व संवादों के ज़रिये ही दृश्य का माहौल पैदा किया जाना।
  3. इसलिए संवाद व ध्वनि सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण होना
  4. दृश्य की जगह कट/हिस्सा लिखा जाना
  5. दृश्यों को ध्वनि-संकेतों से दिखाया जाना।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: रेडियो नाटक में केवल आवाज़ का ही महत्त्व है, अतः अधिक पात्र एक साथ उपस्थित न किए जाएँ तो अच्छा ही होता है। साथ ही पात्रों के व्यक्तित्व को शब्दों द्वारा उखाड़ना चाहिए क्योंकि इसमें ध्वनि का अधिक महत्त्व है।

(ग) रटंत या कुटेव को बुरी लत क्यों कहा गया है? नए और अप्रत्याशित विषयों पर लेखन द्वारा इस लत से कैसे बचा जा सकता है?
उत्तर:
रटंत का अर्थ है-दूसरों के द्वारा तैयार सामग्री को याद करके ज्यों-का त्यों प्रस्तुत कर देने की आदत।
लत कहे जाने के कारण-

  1. असली अभ्यास का मौका ना मिलना
  2. भावों की मौलिकता समाप्त हो जाना
  3. चिंतन-शक्ति क्षीण होना
  4. सोचने की क्षमता में कमी होना
  5. दूसरों के लिखे पर आश्रित होना

अप्रत्याशित विषयों पर लेखन द्वारा इस लत से बचा जा सकता है क्योंकि इससे अभिव्यक्ति की क्षमता विकसित होती है। नए विषयों पर विचार अभिव्यक्ति से मानसिक और आत्मिक विकास होता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

9. निम्नलिखित तीन में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 80 शब्दों में लिखिए- (4 × 2 = 8)

(क) समाचार लेखन की एक विशेष शैली होती है। इस शैली का नाम बताते हुए समाचार लेखन की इस शैली को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
(क) समाचार लेखन की एक विशेष शैली का नाम ‘उलटा पिरामिड शैली’ है, जिसमें क्लाइमैक्स बिल्कुल आखिर में आता है। इसे उल्टा पिरामिड इसलिए कहा जाता है क्योंकि इसमें सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण तथ्य या सूचना सबसे पहले दी जाती है और तत्पश्चात् उससे कम महत्त्वपूर्ण और फिर सबसे कम महत्त्वपूर्ण समाचार लिए जाते हैं। इसमें इंट्रो, बॉडी और समापन समाचार प्रस्तुति के तीन चरण होते हैं।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: उल्टा पिरामिड शैली से हमारा तात्पर्य समाचार लेखन से है। समाचार को पढ़ते समय समाचार के आरम्भ में ही उसकी पूरी जानकारी दे दी जाती है। यह समाचार का मुख्य भाग है।

(ख) बीट रिपोर्टिंग और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग के अंतर को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:

  1. बीट रिपोर्टर को संवाददाता और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टर को विशेष संवाददाता कहते हैं।
  2. बीट रिपोर्टर को अपने क्षेत्र की जानकारी और उसमें दिलचस्पी होना ही पर्याप्त है। उसे केवल सामान्य खबरें ही लिखनी पड़ती हैं जबकि विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टर को अपने विषय-क्षेत्र की घटनाओं, मुद्दों व समस्याओं का बारीक विश्लेषण करके उसका अर्थ भी स्पष्ट करना होता है।
  3. बीट की रिपोर्टिंग के लिए संवाददाता में उस क्षेत्र के बारे में जानकारी और दिलचस्पी का होना पर्याप्त है लेकिन विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग में सामान्य खबरों से आगे बढ़कर उस विशेष क्षेत्र या विषय से जुड़ी घटनाओं, मुद्दों व समस्याओं का बारीकी विश्लेषण करना आवश्यक है।
  4. बीट रिपोर्टिंग और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग से संबंधित उदाहरण भी दिए जा सकते हैं।

(ग) फीचर क्या है? फीचर को परिभाषित करते हुए अच्छे फीचर की किन्हीं तीन विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
फीचर एक सुव्यवस्थित सृजनात्मक और आत्मिक लेखन है जिसका उद्देश्य पाठकों को सूचना देने, शिक्षित करने के साथ-साथ मुख्य रूप से उनका मनोरंजन करना होता है। फीचर समाचार की तरह पाठकों को तात्कालिक घटनाक्रम से अवगत नहीं कराता। समाचारों से विपरीत फीचर में लेखक के पास अपनी राय या दृष्टिकोण और भावनाएँ जाहिर करने का अवसर होता है। फीचर लेखन कथात्मक शैली में किया जाता है।

10. काव्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘आत्मपरिचय’ कविता में कवि ने अपने जीवन में किन परस्पर विरोधी बातों का सामंजस्य बिठाने की बात कही है?
उत्तर:

  • कवि का सांसारिक कठिनाइयों से जूझने पर भी इस जीवन से प्यार करना।
  • संसार और विपरीत परिस्थितियों की परवाह ना करना।
  • उसे संसार का अपूर्ण लगना।
  • अपने सपनों का अलग ही संसार लिए फिरना।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: इस कविता में, कवि ने अपने जीवन की अनेक विरोधी बातों का सामंजस्य बिठाने की बात की है। कवि सांसारिक कठिनाइयों से जूझ रहा है, फिर भी वह इस जीवन से प्यार करता है। वह संसार की परवाह नहीं करता। उसे यह संसार अपूर्ण लगता है।

(ख) ‘रस का अक्षयपात्र’ से कवि ने रचनाकर्म की किन विशेषताओं की ओर इंगित किया है?
उत्तर:

  • रचना कर्म का अक्षयपात्र कभी खाली नहीं होता।
  • रचना कर्म अविनाशी और कालजयी।
  • कवि की रचनाएँ हमेशा अमर रहती हैं। पाठकों को अच्छा संदेश और जीवन में सही मार्ग दिखाती हैं।
  • बार-बार पढ़े जाने पर भी कविता का रस समाप्त ना होना।
  • इन्हीं विशेषताओं के कारण रचना कर्म को रस का अक्षयपात्र कहना।

(ग) ‘विप्लव-रव से छोटे ही हैं शोभा पाते’ पंक्ति में ‘विप्लव’ से क्या तात्पर्य है? ‘छोटे ही हैं शोभा पाते’ ऐसा क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर:

  • ‘विप्लव-रव’ से कवि का तात्पर्य क्रांति से है।
  • क्रांति गरीब लोगों या आम जनता में जोश भर देती है।
  • गरीब और आम जनता ही शोषण का शिकार होती है।
  • समाज में क्रांति इन्हीं से आरंभ होती है, इसीलिए यही क्रांति के जनक होते हैं।
  • क्रांति का आगाज़ होते ही ये नए और सुनहरे भविष्य के सपने संजोने लगते हैं, जिसकी चमक इनके चेहरे पर स्पष्ट दृष्टिगोचर होती है।
  • इसीलिए छोटे ही क्रांति (विप्लव-रव) के समय शोभा पाते हैं।

11. काव्य खंड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) ‘पतंगों के साथ-साथ वे भी उड़ रहे हैं’- बच्चों का उड़ान से कैसा संबंध है?
उत्तर:

  1. बच्चों को पतंग का बहुत प्रिय होना।
  2. आकाश में उड़ती पतंग देखकर बच्चों के मन का उड़ान भरना।
  3. पतंग की भाँति बालमन का ऊँचाइयों को छूने की चाह।
  4. आसमान से पार जाने की चाह।
  5. पतंग की उड़ान का बच्चों के रंग-बिरंगे सपने के समान होना ।
  6. बालकों का मन चंचल होना।

(ख) बात और भाषा परस्पर जुड़े होते हैं किंतु कभी-कभी भाषा के चक्कर में सीधी बात भी टेढ़ी हो जाती है कैसे?
उत्तर:

  1. बात भाव है और भाषा उसे प्रकट करने का माध्यम।
  2. बात और भाषा में चोली-दामन का साथ होता है।
  3. कभी-कभी भाषा के चक्कर में सीधी बात भी टेढ़ी हो जाती है।
  4. मनुष्य का शब्दों के चमत्कार में उलझकर इस गलतफहमी का शिकार होना कि कठिन और नए शब्दों के प्रयोग से अधिक प्रभावशाली ढंग से बात कही जाती है।
  5. भाव को भाषा का साधन बना लेना
  6. भाव की अपेक्षा भाषा पर अधिक ध्यान दिए जाने के कारण भाव की गहराई समाप्त होना।

(ग) कवितावली के छंदों के आधार पर स्पष्ट करें कि तुलसीदास को अपने युग की आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ है।
उत्तर:
तुलसीदास को अपने युग की आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ थी क्योंकि ‘कवितावली’ में उनके द्वारा-

  1. समकालीन समाज का यथार्थ चित्रण
  2. समाज के विभिन्न वर्गों का चित्रण
  3. गरीबी के कारण लोगों द्वारा अपनी संतान तक बेच देने का वर्णन
  4. दरिद्रता रूपी रावण का हाहाकार दिखाना
  5. किसानों की हीन दशा का मार्मिक वर्णन

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

12. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) बाज़ार किसी का लिंग, जाति, धर्म, क्षेत्र नहीं देखता, बस देखता है सिर्फ़ उसकी क्रय शक्ति को, और इस रूप में वह एक प्रकार से सामाजिक समता की भी रचना कर रहा है। आप इस कथन से कहाँ तक सहमत हैं? स्पष्ट करके लिखिए।
उत्तर:
हम इस कथन से पूर्णतः सहमत हैं क्योंकि

  • बाज़ार किसी का लिंग, जाति, धर्म और क्षेत्र नहीं देखता। सिर्फ ग्राहक की क्रय-शक्ति देखता है।
  • उसे इस बात से कोई मतलब नहीं कि खरीदार औरत है या मर्द, हिंदू है या मुसलमान, उसकी जाति क्या है या वह किस क्षेत्र-विशेष से है।
  • यहाँ हर व्यक्ति ग्राहक है।
  • आज जबकि जीवन के हर क्षेत्र में भेदभाव है ऐसे में बाज़ार हर एक को समान मानता है।
  • बाज़ार का काम है वस्तुओं का विक्रय, उसे तो ग्राहक चाहिए फिर चाहे वह कोई भी हो। इस प्रकार यह सामाजिक समता की भी रचना कर रहा है।

(ख) कहानी के किस-किस मोड़ पर लुट्टन के जीवन में क्या-क्या परिवर्तन आए?
उत्तर:
कहानी के आरंभ में लुट्टन के माता-पिता का चल बसना और सास द्वारा पालन-पोषण किया जाना।
कहानी के मध्य में दंगल जीतकर उसका मशहूर पहलवान बन जाना, सुख-सुविधा के सब सामान पास होना, दो जवान बेटों का पिता बन जाना पर पत्नी का स्वर्ग सिधारना। कहानी के अंत में हैजे से दोनों बेटों की मृत्यु और स्वयं भी हैजे का शिकार होकर संसार से चले जाना।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: लुट्टन जब नौ वर्ष का था तभी उसके पिता चल बसे थे। सौभाग्यवश उसकी शादी हो चुकी थी। गाँव के लोग उसकी सास को तकलीफ़ दिया करते थे। उन लोगों से बदला लेने के लिए वह कसरत की ओर मुड़ा ताकि शरीर को मज़बूत बना सके। गाँव में उसे पहलवान समझा जाने लगा।

(ग) जाति-प्रथा भारतीय समाज में बेरोज़गारी और भुखमरी का भी एक कारण कैसे बनती जा रही है? क्या यह स्थिति आज भी है? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:

  • जाति-प्रथा के बंधन के कारण मनुष्य को अपना पेशा बदलने की स्वतंत्रता नहीं होती।
  • इसी कारण उसे भूखों मरने तक की नौबत आ जाती है।
  • जाति-प्रथा पैतृक पेशा अपनाने पर जोर देती है, भले ही वह इस पेशे से पारंगत ना हो।
  • जाति-प्रथा व्यक्ति को पेशे विशेष से बाँधकर रखती है, जो समाज में बेरोज़गारी और भुखमरी का कारण बनता है।
    आज समाज की स्थिति में परिवर्तन आ रहा है। आज व्यक्ति को अपना पेशा चुनने और बदलने का अधिकार है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

13. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) लेखक ने शिरीष को कालजयी अवधूत (संन्यासी) की तरह क्यों माना है?
उत्तर:

  • संन्यासी की तरह ही सुख-दुःख की परवाह ना करना।
  • जीवन की अजेयता के मंत्र की घोषणा करना।
  • बाहर गर्मी, धूप, बारिश से प्रभावित ना होना।
  • धैर्य के साथ प्रतिकूल परिस्थितियों में अजेय जीवन व्यतीत करना।
  • भावनाओं की भीषण गर्मी में भी अजेय रहना।

(ख) लोगों ने लड़कों की टोली को मेंढक-मंडली नाम किस आधार पर दिया? यह टोली अपने आप को इंद्रसेना कहकर क्यों बुलाती थी?
उत्तर:

  • गाँव के लोगों का किशोर लड़कों की उछल-कूद से चिढ़ना
  • उनकी वजह से होने वाले सड़क के कीचड़ से चिढ़ना
  • इंद्रसेना कहे जाने के कारण
  • भगवान इंद्र से वर्षा की विनती करना
  • स्वयं को इंद्र की सेना के सैनिक मानना

व्याख्यात्मक हल: लड़कों की टोली घर-घर जाकर पानी की माँग किया करती थी। लोग अपने घरों से पानी निकालकर इनके ऊपर डाला करते थे। इनके कारण बादलों के राजा इंद्र प्रसन्न होते थे। लोगों से जा-जाकर यह इंद्र से प्रार्थना करने के लिए उन्हें विवश करते थे।

(ग) भक्तिन अच्छी है, यह कहना कठिन होगा, क्योंकि उसमें दुर्गुणों का अभाव नहीं। लेखिका ने ऐसा क्यों कहा होगा?
उत्तर:
भक्तिन भोली-भाली, बुद्धिमान, सेवाभाव वाली थी किंतु उसकी भक्ति में कुछ दुर्गुण भी थे, जैसे-

  • पैसों को भंडार घर की मटकी में छुपाकर रखना।
  • लेखिका से बेवज़ह तर्क-वितर्क करना।
  • लेखिका से झूठ बोलना।
  • शास्त्रों में लिखी बातों की व्याख्या अपने अनुसार करना।
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. 15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
  2. The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
  3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) The choices we make on a daily basis-wearing a seatbelt, lifting heavy objects correctly or purposely staying out of any dangerous situation-can either ensure our safety or bring about potentially harmful circumstances.

(2) You and I need to make a decision that we are going to get our lives in order. Exercising self-control, self-discipline and establishing boundaries and borders in our lives are some of the most important things we can do. A life without discipline is one that’s filled with carelessness.

(3) We can think it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge. We like the image of “Yeah! That’s me! Living on the edge! Woo-hoo!” It’s become a popular way to look at life. But if you see, even highways have lines, which provide margins for our safety while we’re driving. If we go over one side, we’ll go into the ditch. If we cross over the line in the middle, we could get killed. And we like those lines because they help to keep us safe. Sometimes we don’t even realise how lines help to keep us safe.

(4) I’m not proud of this, but for the first 20 years of my life at work, I ignored my limits. I felt horrible, physically, most of the time.
I used to tell myself. “I know I have Limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it.” I ran to doctors, trying to make myself feel better through pills, vitamins, natural stuff and anything I could get my hands on. Some of the doctors would tell me, “It’s just stress.” That just made me mad. I thought stress meant you don’t like what you do or can’t handle life, and I love what I do. But I kept pushing myself, traveling, speaking engagements and so on- simply exhausting myself.

(5) Finally, I understood I was living an unsustainable life and needed to make some changes in my outlook and lifestyle.

(6) You and I don’t have to be like everyone else or keep up with anyone else. Each of us needs to be exactly the way we are, and we don’t have to apologize for it We’re not all alike and we need to find a comfort zone in which we can enjoy our lives instead of making ourselves sick with an overload of stress and pressure.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) According to the author, list 1 reason that ‘living on the edge’ has become popular.
(1) ………………… [1]
Answer:
According to the author, the person “thinks it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge”, so he constantly wants to find excitement in life.

(B) What qualities can be identified from the context: “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it”
(1) negligent
(2) indecisive
(3) spontaneous
(4) reckless
(5) patient
(a) 2 and 5
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 [1]
Answer:
(c) 1 and 4
Explanation: The context shows (1) negligence as the person will ’ignore’ the limits and (4) recklessness as the person knows that ‘he has reached his limit but still chooses to see how long can he get by with it”. It doesn’t show any of (2), (3) or (5) options. Hence, option (c) is the right answer.

(C) The phrase “potentially harmful circumstances” refers to circumstances that can be ………………. [1]
Answer:
possibly dangerous

(D) Fill in the blank with the correct option.
The author attempts to ……………… the readers through this passage.
(a) advice
(b) warn
(c) stop
(d) prove [1]
Answer:
(a) advice

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

(E) The author uses colloquial words such as “yeah” and “Woo-hooi”. Which of the following is NOT a colloquial word?
(a) hooked
(b) guy
(c) stuff
(d) stress [1]
Answer:
(d) stress
Explanation: The term ‘stress’ is not a colloquial word or any slang. It is a proper English term. Options (a), (b) and (c) are all slangs that are informal Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(F) Select the option that makes the correct use of “unsustainable”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space.
(a) In the long run, the ………………. government will do nothing for the people.
(b) The cabinet is filled with ………………. officials.
(c) The conservationists reported an ………………. set of event.
(d) Plastic will turn the world …………….. in future. [1]
Answer:
(d) Plastic will turn the world in future.
Explanation: The term ‘unsustainable’ means a thing that cannot be sustained or lived. Here, (a), (b) and (c) are not the correct statement for the term to fit in while (d) is the correct choice. Hence, (d) is the right answer

(G) The author said, “to get our lives in order”. What does this mean?
This means to ……………… [1]
Answer:
organise our lives
Explanation: To get something ‘in order’ means to ‘organise’ it.

(H) State the most appropriate title for the passage. [1]
Answer:
The most appropriate title for the passage can be The need to limit ourselves’.

(I) The author was living a disciplined life. True/false. [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: According to the author, he needed to organise his life in a proper way as he was living an unsustainable life.

(J) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passage.
Overburden : overload :: tiring : ………………… [1]
Answer:
Exhausting

Question 2.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(I) Research from the Publishers Association has shown that films based on books take 44% more at the box office revenue in the UK and 53% more worldwide than original screenplays. The report explores what impact a book has when adapted for film and TV.

(2) The report reads: “Published material is the basis of 52% of top UK films in the last 10 years, and accounts for an even higher share of revenue from these leading performers, at 61% of UK box office gross and 65% of worldwide gross.” The Hollywood adaptation of ‘My Cousin Rachel” was shown to have a significant impact on the sales of the Daphne Du Maurier thriller. The sales of the book in 2017 alone accounted for 23% of all sales since 1992.

(3) The research suggests that adapted films tend to perform better, because films can “leverage the popularity” of well-known books through an existing audience. Films adapted from books also tend to have a richer, more fully-developed story to draw on.

In terms of TV adaptation, it was revealed that a quarter of dramas were based on literary sources and attracted a 56% larger share of the audience than those based on original scripts. Fourteen of the 35 high end series produced in the UK in the period between January and September 2017 were based on books, compared to seven based on true stories or historical events and five based on pre-existing films or TV stories.

(4) In the case of the 2016 BBC broadcast of “The Night Manager” research revealed that while the novel was in circulation for over 25 years, 82% of the copies it sold were in 2016 and 2017. Sales of the paperback edition remained strong in 2017 even after the series went off the air.

(5) In conclusion, the report states that “there is a strong two-way relationship between publishing and the wider creative economy, wherein a successful adaptation often has spill-over effects and gives a substantial boost to the sales of the original book.” (338 words)
(Source: https://www.thebookseller com/ news /films-based-books-take-more-91m- more-globally-originalscripts-825036)
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) According to the research, the films based on books have greater success because
(a) people like to see the characters from the books on screen
(b) the films get the advantage of the fame of the books
(c) it takes less effort for people to watch films than read books
(d) the films get a ready-made script from the books [1]
Answer:
(b) the films get advantage of the fame of books.
Explanation: The passage tells that the research suggests that adapted films tend to perform better, because films can “leverage the popularity” of well-known books through an existing audience. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(B) The purpose of the researchers by Publishers Association was to study the ……………….. [1]
Answer:
connection between books and films

(C) Why, according to the research, the films based on books have greater success? [1]
Answer:
According to the research, the films based on books have greater success because they get the advantage of the fame of the books.

(D) Select the correct option to complete the given sentence.
In the year 2017, the maximum serials in
UK were based on ………………..
(a) books
(b) film stars
(c) writers
(d) public [1]
Answer:
(a) books

(E) Select the option listing what the given sentence refers to:
‘Rims adapted from books also tend to have a richer, more fully-developed story to draw on.’
(1) The plot and the storyline of such films are better.
(2) The characters are likely to be more vivid.
(3) The production of such films is meant for the rich and famous.
(4) The settings and costumes are adapted from the book.
(5) The making of such films require the author to write a sequel.
(a) (1), (3) and (4)
(b) (2), (3) and (5)
(c) (1), (2) and (5)
(d) (1), (2) and (4) [1]
Answer:
(d) (1). (2) and (4)
Explanation: Explanation: It is clear that the production of such films is not (3) meant for the rich and famous. It also not (5) require the author to write a sequel. However, (1) The plot and the storyline of such films are better (2) The characters are likely to be more vivid and (4) The settings and costumes are adapted from the book. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(F) There is a strong two-way relationship between films and the wider creative economy. (True/false). [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: It is given in the passage that there is a two-way connection between wider creative economy and publishing, not films.

(G) Films adapted from books have a ……………….. content. [1]
Answer:
rich

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

(H) This passage lists an example proving that TV dramas based on literary works have ………………
Select the correct option.
(a) increased the immediate sales of the book
(b) increased the sales of the book during the first screening
(c) had no immediate impact on the sales of the book
(d) had very little impact on the sales of the book [1]
Answer:
(a) increased the immediate sales of the book
Explanation: It is stated in the passage that in terms of TV adaptation, it was revealed that a quarter of dramas were based on literary sources and attracted a 56% larger share of the audience than those based on original scripts. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(I) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passage:
Suggests : recommends :: ………………. : important [1]
Answer:
Significant

(J) Films can leverage the popularity of well-known books. State the meaning of the underlined word. [1]
Answer:
Increase

Section – B
Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Attempt ANY TEN of the given questions.
(A) Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
Kashmir valley (i) be heaven on Earth. It has 00 as a valley of violence today with consant terror and other unlawful activities.
(i) (a) is called
(b) was considered to
(c) was termed to
(d) was defined to [1]
Answer:
(b) was considered to

(ii) (a) come to be known
(b) been
(c) always been
(d) never been [1]
Answer:
(a) come to be known

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct options.
The swimming pool ………………. at 9o’ clock and …………………. at 18:30 everyday.
(a) is opening / is closing
(b) opens / closes
(c) has opened / has closed
(d) opened / closed [1]
Answer:
(b) opens / closes

(C) Complete the given sentence with correct option.
The Olympic games ………………. place every four years.
(a) are taking
(b) take
(c) have taken
(d) took [1]
Answer:
(b) take

(D) Fill in the blank with the correct tense.
Look! The man ……………….. to open the door of your car.
(a) has been trying
(b) tried
(c) tries
(d) is trying [1]
Answer:
(d) is trying

(E) Complete the sentence correctly.
We usually …………….. vegetables in our garden but this year we any.
(a) grow / aren’t growing
(b) grow / aren’t growing
(c) grew / had not grown
(d) grow / don’t grow [1]
Answer:
(a) grow / aren’t growing

(F) The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write its correction against the correct blank number. The first one has been done for you. [1]

Error shall Correction would
My father shall insist on taking greens everyday Example
Children may consume it regularly (i) ……………………. …………………….
otherwise they should suffer from (ii) ……………………. …………………….
iron deficiency. Elders will also take it every day (iii) ……………………. …………………….
but there are some individuals who do not like it.

Answer:

Error Correction
(i) may must
(ii) should will
(iii) will should

(i) Explanation: ‘may’ represents choice while here, the father suggests that children should definitely take the greens. So, ‘must’ is the right answer.

(ii) Explanation: As the statement is a future expectation, ‘will’ will be used. Hence, this is the right answer.

(iii) Explanation: As for elders, it is only a recommendation; ‘should’ is the right answer.

(G) He took ………………. side in the argument two of his best friends between the two brothers.
(a) neither
(b) every
(c) either
(d) none [1]
Answer:
(a) neither
Explanation: There were too sides to be chosen to support but ‘he’ didn’t take any. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(H) I would like to purchase …………….. salt, please.
(a) many
(b) some
(c) more
(d) many [1]
Answer:
(b) some

(I) The police ………………. the matter.
(a) is investigating
(b) were investigating
(c) had investigating
(d) will investigated [1]
Answer:
(a) is investigating
Explanation: As the ‘crime bureau’ is one identity. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(J) I don’t know why he hasn’t called me back. He ………………..
(a) might have forgetting my number
(b) might forget my number
(c) must have forgot my number
(d) might have forgotten my number [1]
Answer:
(d) might have forgotten my number

(K) Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
Rahul asked me, “Did you see the football match on television last night?”
(a) Rahul asked me whether I had seen the football match on television the last night.
(b) Rahul asked me did I see the football match on television the last night.
(c) Rahul asked me whether I had seen the football match on television the earlier night.
(d) Rahul asked me whether I saw the football match on television the earlier night. [1]
Answer:
(c) Rahul asked me whether I had seen the football match on television the earlier night.

(L) Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
He said to her, “What a warm day”
(a) He told her that it was a warm day.
(b) He exclaimed that it was a warm day.
(c) He said sorrowfully that it was a warm day.
(d) He exclaimed that it was a very warm day. [1]
Answer:
(a) He told her that it was a warm day.

Creative Writing Skills
(2 x 5 = 10 Marks)

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
Recently, you have come across many articles on the topic, ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’. In spite of these articles, girls are not given due respect and female foeticide in the society is rampant. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the editor of The Times of India, expressing your concern over the problem. Give some suggestions on the role of the people and the government in curbing it. You are Vaibhavi/ Vaibhav, 12 Vasant Kunj, New Delhi.
OR
John had employed the services of Decent Packers, 1424, Ramanujam Street Chennai to pack and transport household goods and a car to Borivali, Mumbai. He is dissatisfied with the services and decides to lodge a complaint with the manager of the company. Write a letter in 100-120 words as John voicing your displeasure. [5]
Answer:
12, Vasant Kunj
New Delhi
20th March, 20XX
The Editor
The Times of India New Delhi
Subject: Role of the government and people in curbing female foeticide
Respected sir/madam
Through the columns of your prestigious newspaper, I want to highlight the role of the government and people in curbing female foeticide. At the core of it is the notion that girls are ‘paraya dhan’, which means that the financial expenditure incurred on a girl child, including her education, health, clothing, and food will not bring any returns. In fact, these would need to be topped up with a substantial one-time dowry.

The other aspect is the notion that the male child is the bread earner. Although it is difficult to get exact data of how many sons and daughters support their parents, it is true that with changing lifestyles, families are becoming more and more nuclear.

In this context, government intervention at the central and state levels would help. Annual tax benefits could be given to the parents of a girl child, and we should abolish dowry once and for all. The government can also bring in legislation so that a part of a girl’s income gets transferred to her parents’ account, with the government as the mediator. In case the girl is not working, the onus can shift onto her husband.

Governments at the centre and state levels have been running campaigns to stop female foeticide and they are indeed commendable. However, we have a long way to go before we are able to change the way our society operates.
Yours faithfully
Vaibhavi/Vaibhav
OR
1657, Borivali Mumbai
26th April 20XX
The Manager
Decent Packers
Chennai
Subject: Complaint against poor service Respected sir/madam
This is with reference to the pack and transport services provided by your company. I had booked the package to pack and transfer my household goods and car to Mumbai, but I am dissatisfied with the service provided by your company.

I had listed out the delicate objects that needed to be handled with care, but all my fine crockery and decorative items were so horribly packed that most of them were received broken. The furniture and car had scratch marks. The contract clearly stated that your workers would unpack and set the house. However, all the packets were simply dumped in the flat.

I am very disheartened by the services and would like to be compensated for the damage. I would be compelled to take matters to the consumer court if the issue is not resolved at the earliest. I hope you look into the matter as this kind of service is not expected from a reputed company like yours.
Yours truly
John

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
The given data shows the sales of various electronic gadgets by different brands. These are purchased for use by middle class people. The survey was conducted in Ghaziabad.

Write a paragraph interpreting the data as to why people prefer a certain brand and why these gadgets are used.

SONY

  • hold the most hare in the market.
  • Gets most customers
LG

  • offers quality products
  • issue products at affordable rates.
SAMSUNG

  • good reach electronics
  • Stands below Sony & LG in market share
WHIRLPOOL

  • least market shares
  • proves that people are getting aware of brands & purchases.

OR
The BDO of the Kanpur region conducted a survey in the government and private schools and Kendriya Vidyalayas to see the preferred language. Students of classes X -XII were a part of the survey.

The following excerpt was taken from the analysis report that appeared in a local daily newspaper:
“It is quite clear from the data collected that in government schools English language is not spoken by them at alL Only a few students are speaking English in government schools which is below average but Hindi is spoken by maximum of the students. In private schools English is spoken by maximum number of the students. Only few students speak Hindi as compared to government schools. In the KV’s (Kendriya Vidyalayas) there are approximately equal speakers of English and Hindi.”

Write a paragraph to analyse the given argument.

You could think about what alternative explanations might weaken the given conclusion and include rationale/evidence that would strengthen / counter the given argument making comparison wherever necessary in 100-120 words. [5]
Answer:
Gadgets – Friends for Life
With more and more choices and the desire to lead comfortable lives, people spend heavily on electronic gadgets. A survey conducted in Ghaziabad shows the spending behaviour and preferred brands (Sony, LG, Samsung and Whirlpool) of consumers.

To lead a comfortable life, people are increasingly buying televisions, refrigerators and washing machines. With a growing number of nuclear families and everyone working, microwaves come as their saviours, saving precious cooking time. In a time where the world is connected, possessing a computer, laptop or a mobile phone is unavoidable.

People, of course, have their preferences, with most people purchasing Sony products, which seem to have the lion’s share of the market LG has also maintained its hold by offering quality products at affordable prices. This also shows that products that seemed out of reach of the middle class are now within their reach, thus indicating their improved economic condition.
OR
Language Not a Barrier
Language not only enhances personality but also makes us confident. The BDO of Kanpur conducted a survey in the government and private schools and Kendriya Vidyalayas to understand the preferred language of classes X-XII.

The survey also highlighted the need to pay more attention to developing English-speaking skills in government schools as most students preferred Hindi to English. Though choice of language is personal but the world demands a better grasp of English. Students of Kendriya Vidyalayas showed inclination towards English but here the gap between the two languages was remarkably less. Private school students preferred English to Hindi.

Efforts must be made to ensure that students of government schools also have the same access to quality education as private schools and Kendriya Vidyalayas. Efforts must be made to ensure that all schools give equal importance to both languages to build confidence in students.

Section – C
Literature (40 Marks)

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE of the extracts given. (5 x 1 = 5)
The house – the only one in the entire valley – sat on the crest of a low hill. From this height one could see the river and the field of ripe corn dotted with the flowers that always promised a good harvest. The only thing the earth needed was a downpour or at least a shower. Throughout the morning Lencho – who knew his fields intimately – had done nothing else but see the sky towards the north-east.

“Now we’re really going to get some water, woman.”
(A) How did Lencho feel while looking at the sky?
Lencho felt ……………… [1]
Answer:
optimistic
Explanation: As the corn in the fields were ripened and to ensure a good harvest a downpour was needed. He was hoping for a good harvest.

(B) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to given extract.
(1) Lencho knew his fields intimately.
(2) Lencho was a lazy farmer.
(3) Lencho grew corns in the fields.
(4) Lencho was optimistic for the rainfalL
(5) Lencho lived with his wife and four daughters.
(6) Lencho grew lomalies in his field.
(7) Lench was a dedicated farmer.
Options:
(a) (1), (2), (4) (b) (1), (4), (7)
(c) (2), (3), (5) (d) (2), (5), (6) [1]
Answer:
(d) (2), (5), (6)
Explanation: As given in the passage Lencho knew his fields intimately (1). This implies that he was hard working and a dedicated farmer (4). He had fields of corns (3) and he lived with his wife and sons. Hence (d) is not true.

(C) Pick the option that correctly classifies facts / (F) and opinion / (O) of the students below:
(1) I think Lencho is desperate about the rainfalL
(2) Lencho was a hard working farmer.
(3) Lencho should have grow another crop for better harvest.
(4) Lencho had firm belief in God.
Options:
(a) F – (1), (2) and O-(4), (3)
(b) F – (4), (3) and O – (2), (1)
(c) F – (3), (2) and O – (4), (1)
(d) F – (2), (4) and O – (3), (1) [1]
Answer:
(d) F – (2), (4), and O – (3), (1)
Explanation: We know from the reading of the passage that Lencho was hoping for a good harvest that means he was a hard working man and had firm belief in God. (2) and (4) are hence the facts. (1) can be somebody’s opinion on reading that he sat all day watching the sky. As the crops failed due to hailstorm he could have grown another crop. So (1) and (3) are the opinions. Hence the answer here is (d).

(D) Which word does “intimately” NOT correspond to?
(a) friendly
(b) antisocial
(c) closely
(d) familiar [1]
Answer:
(b) antisocial
Explanation: Intimately refers to knowing someone very closely. So here(a),(c) & (d) can not be the answers. The answer here is (b) anti social

(E) Where was Lencho’s house situated? [1]
OR
Kisa Gotami became weary and hopeless and sat down at the wayside watching the lights of the city, as they flickered up and were extinguished again. At last the darkness of the night reigned everywhere. And she considered the fate of men, that their lives flicker up and are extinguished again. And she thought to herself, “How selfish am I in my grief! Death is common to all, yet in this valley of desolation there is a path that leads him to immortality who has surrendered all selfishness.” The Buddha said, “The life of mortals in this world is troubled and brief and combined with pain.
Answer:
At the top of a hill
Explanation: It is written in the passage that the house was situated on top of a hill from where fields and river were visible.

(A) Choose the option that doesn’t align with the philosophy of Gautam Buddha?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions 1
(a) option (1) (b) option (2) (c) option (3) (d) option (4)
Answer:
(c) option (3)
Explanation: Gautam Buddha was moved by the miseries of the world he wanted to get over all these, so (1), (2) & (4) are not the answers as all these depict the miseries of the world. Materialistic he wanted to rise above the worldly pleasures and did not agree with the worldly pleasures, hence (3) is the answer as the image shows a guy thinking about pleasures of life.

(B) What lesson did she receive from the lights?
(a) The lights keep on altering.
(b) The life has its pros and cons.
(c) The lights are more or less similar to the life of men.
(d) The light is essential. [1]
Answer:
(c) The lights are more or less similar to the life of men.
Explanation: Gotami saw lights of the village flickering up and then extinguishing, giving way to the darkness of night. She is remorsing the death of her beloved one, then she realises that life also-goes on like this, like flickering lights. The lines have a deep spiritual meaning where the life of men is compared to the lights. Hence here the answer is (c).

(C) The statement that is TRUE about Kisa’s tiredness according to passage is :
(a) She haa searched a lot for mustard seeds to sow them in her backyard.
(b) She had been walking throughout day and night.
(c) She had insulted many people.
(d) She had a long and tiring day. [1]
Answer:
(d) She had a long and tiring day.
Explanation: Kisa Gotami had searched whole day for the mustard seeds to get back the life of her beloved son, so (a) is not the answer, (b) & (c) are not correct answers as she sat down weary watching the lights in the village flickering up. So, she had been walking during the day only. She did not insult people for the mustard seeds. As she had been going door to door to get back her beloved son’s life, (d) is the right answer.

(D) What according to the passage leads to immortality? [1]
Answer:
leaving behind the greed and becoming selfless
Explanation: In the last lines of the given paragraph, Kisa realises that remorsing and repenting cannot bring her son back. Everyone had denied her any medicine to revive her dead son. Even the mustard seeds were of no use. She realised that what can lead anyone to the path of immortality is giving up selfishness.

(E) The extract uses the phrase, “considered the fate of men”. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘fate’?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions 2
(a) option (1)
(b) option (2)
(c) option (3)
(d) option (4) [1]
Answer:
(b) option (2)
Explanation: It is our fate what we get in love, friendship or relationship (1, 4, 3). Luck (2) means fate itself Hence (b) is the correct option.

Question 7.
Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. (5 x 1 = 5)
“heard an oLd religious man
But yesternight declare
That he had found a text to prove
That only God, my dear,
Could love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair”
(A) Identify the option that suits the best to the phrase “love you for yourself alone”
(a) to love someone and not anyone else
(b) to show love in solitude
(c) to love someone for the sake of that person only and not because of his appearance
(d) to love that person only [1]
Answer:
(c) to love someone for the sake of that person only and not because of his appearance.
Explanation: Here the poet is talking about God’s love and he loves everyone so (a), (b) and (c) are not the answers. God’s love is pure. He loves everyone irrespective of their caste, creed, colour or physical appearance. Hence (c) is the correct answer.

(B) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanza? [1]
Answer:
abcdeb
Explanation: Only the 2nd and last line of the poem rhymes with each other.

(C) This stanza brings out the contrast between:
(a) love and hate
(b) man and woman
(c) A man’s love and God’s love
(d) yellow hair and black hair [1]
Answer:
(c) A man’s love and God’s love
Explanation: The poet here is talking about love. So (b) and (d) are not the answers. He had heard a religious man telling that only God loves you for yourself and not for who you are. There is no mention of hate. Hence (a) is also not the answer. As the poet talks about God’s love she is intending to tell the difference between love of a human and that of God.

(D) What is the poet NOT likely saying to the readers?
(a) Religious man has text in support of what he says.
(b) Yellow hair is good.
(c) God loves everyone for themselves.
(d) Appearance of a person doesn’t matter to the God. [1]
Answer:
(b) Yellow hair is good
Explanation: This stanza tells the reader that a religious man has told after reading text that the color of hair doesn’t matter to God. He loves everyone equally and as they are. Hence (a), (c) & (d) are opted out and (b) is the correct answer.

(E) What evidence does the old man has in favour of his declaration?
He has ………………… [1]
Answer:
some written material
Explanation: The poet tells that the old religious man has found text to prove what he says.

OR
Not one is dissatisfied, not one is demented
with the mania of owning things,
Not one kneels to another, nor to his kind that
lived thousands of years ago,
Not one is respectable or unhappy over the whole earth.
(A) What mania is the poet talking about? [1]
Answer:
Mania of having materialistic things.

(B) What idea can be drawn from the given passage?
(a) An ideal being is contended and satisfied with what he has.
(b) An ideal being asks for more.
(c) An ideal being is curious about life pattern.
(d) An ideal being is always dissatisfied. [1]
Answer:
(a) An ideal being is contended and satisfied with.
Explanation: The poet likes animals because they are satisfied and contented beings whereas human beings are not. According to the poet, a person who is simple and satisfied like animals who has overcome the mania of owning things is an ideal being. Hence (b, c and d) cannot be the answer. The answer is (a).

(C) The word “kneels” DOES NOT have a meaning similar to:
(a) To bow
(b) To sit
(c) To bend
(d) To lie down [1]
Answer:
(d) To lie down
Explanation: The word kneels down means to sit on knees. We generally sit on knees to bend or to bow before someone. Hence (a), (b) & (c) are not the answers. The answer here is (d).

(D) Why are the animals not dissatisfied?
Because ………………. [1]
Answer:
Animals don’t have desire to own anything.
Explanation: Animals do not have human desires. They only need food and a safe shelter, which they get enough in mother nature’s lap. Desire is the main cause of dissatisfaction.

(E) The word that does not indicate the habit of owning things by humans:
(a) mania
(b) desire
(c) demand
(d) success [1]
Answer:
(d) success
Explanation: Human beings have a habit of owning things. They desire for these things and demand God to provide these. This desire sometimes takes the form of madness. Hence (a, b and c) are not the answers. The answer here is (d).

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR questions in 40-50 words each. (4 x 3 = 12)
(A) What legends are associated with the origin of tea? [3]
(B) Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter as God? [3]
(C) How has Robert Frost cautioned the common man in the poem ‘Fire and lce’? [3]
(D) What promise does Mandela make in the opening of his oath-taking speech? [3]
(E) What does the seagull’s reaction to food tell us and what was the result of his response? [3]
Answer:
(A) According to a Chinese legend, there was a Chinese emperor who always boiled water before drinking it. One day, a few leaves of the twigs burning under the pot fell into the water, giving it a delicious flavour. It is said they were tea leaves. According to an Indian legend, Bodhidharma cut off his eyelids because he felt sleepy during meditation. Ten tea plants grew out of the eyelids. The leaves of these plants when put in hot water and drunk, banished sleep.

(B) The postmaster is impressed by Lencho’s faith in God. He decides to give a part of his salary to Lencho. He also collects money by asking for donations from his colleagues. He feels contended by doing this. He signs the letter as ‘God’ because he wants Lencho to retain his utmost faith in God.

(C) Man is selfish, greedy, Lustful, indifferent and hateful. Robert Frost cautions the common man and says that he should not forget the bitter reality that everything in this world is transitory and death is undeniable. He says that all these will lead to the end of humanity and the world.

(D) Mandela thanks all the international leaders and guests and calls it an occasion of joy and victory for justice. He promises that the country shall not experience oppression of one by another again and that they will do everything in their power to help their brothers who are facing similar oppression. He further promised that they will do every effort to let the humanity and freedom reign their beautiful land forever.

(E) The seagull had not eaten for twenty-four hours and the sight of food maddened him. He was famished and his mother knew that he would do anything for food. She taunted and enticed him with food, and the seagull leapt to catch the morsel fish from his mother’s beak, he felt and soon his wings opened, and he began flying.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO questions in 40-50 words each. (2 x 3 = 6)
(A) Why did Mrs. Pumphrey start giving Tricki extras? [3]
(B) Why was it difficult for Hari to rob Anil? [3]
(C) Why were the two boys in London surprised and fascinated? [3]
Answer:
(A) Mrs. Pumphrey thought that Tricki was suffering from malnutrition, as he was weak and restless. He had no energy. So, she started giving him extra snacks, like cod-liver oil and malt, between meals and Horlicks after dinner to make him stronger. She also continued his cream cakes and chocolates

(B) It was difficult for Hari to rob Anil because Anil was the most trusting person Hari had ever met. He was really simple and kind. Hari knew that the loss of money would not affect Anil but the loss of trust would make him sad.

(C) The two boys in London were surprised and fascinated when they saw fresh muddy footprints of a human being on the steps of a house, when they had seen no one making them! As they looked, a fresh footprint appeared from nowhere. It was Griffin who took them by surprise!

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE the following in 100-120 words.
Natalya was called a lovesick cat by her father, Chubukov. Critically examine the reason behind Natalya’s father’s statement even after Natalya being quite quarrelsome in nature.
OR
Read the extracts given below and comment on the similarity of the character traits of the two protagonists.
(A) “Yes, I simply have to go to town,” said Valli, still standing outside the bus, “and here’s my money.”
She showed him some coins.
“Okay, okay, but first you must get on the bus,” said the conductor, and he stretched out a hand to help her up.
“Never mind,” she said, “I can get on by myself. You don’t have to help me.”

(B) Mr Keesing was trying to play a joke on me with this ridiculous subject, but I’d make sure the joke was on him. [6]
Answer:
Natalaya was a twenty-five-year-old young unmarried girl Her father Chubukov, had a huge responsibility on his shoulders to get her daughter married. When Lomov came to Chubukov with a proposal of marriage for Natalya, Chubukov agreed at once. He wanted to get rid of his responsibility as soon as possible. He didn’t want to take any chance. So, to reflect Natalya as a loving girl, he called her a ‘lovesick cat’.

However, Natalya was very c arrelsome and abusive by nature. She argument with Lomov over a piece of land that had little value and even on the superiority of her dog breed over his.
OR
(A) Valli was insightful and meticulous while making the plan for the bus ride. Two characteristics which made Valli to plan her bus ride was her courage and her ability to plan. These are the traits which need to be consciously developed so that a person can undertake what he/she wants to do. As observed in the excerpt, Valli is daunting and courageous.

(B) Even Anne is relentless with her pursuits and continues ahead with humour. Anne is neither disappointed nor rebellious with Mr. Keesing’s behaviour. Rather she tries to avert the situation with her humour and dauntingly faces the punishment that Mr. Keesing gives to her. Thus both Valli and Anne are courageous and fearless in the face of adversities and problems.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
Ausable was very different from other secret agents. Critically examine the given statement with reference to ‘The Midnight Visitor’.
OR
“No legacy is so rich as honesty.” (William Shakespeare)
Matilda lost her friend’s necklace and ruined her life in the process. Justify the given quote in the context of the lesson, The Necklace. How do you think the lesson reflects the importance of honesty? [6]
Answer:
Ausable was indeed very different from other secret agents in many ways. Instead of being a muscular man, he was extremely fat and sloppy. In spite of living in Paris for over twenty years, he could only spoke French and German moderately and still had an American accent.

In place of a suspense-filled mysterious hotel room, Ausable had a small room in the musty corridor of a gloomy French hotel. Instead of getting messages slipped into his hands by dark-eyed beauties, he got only a telephone call making an appointment. Hence, he was different from the conventional notion of a spy.
OR
Honesty is an important trait to possess. The story, The Necklace also exemplifies the idea. I think Matilda could have led a peaceful and uncomplicated life had she controlled her social ambition, which prompted her to borrow the necklace that she could ill-afford. The author Maupassant warns us against the dangers of greed and criticizes those who ascribe undue value to material possessions.

Matilda’s happiness was dependent on objects she could not afford. She distressed herself with unfulfilled desires and wanted to be accepted among the higher class. She was filled with wild joy at the party where she could show off her diamond necklace, borrowed from her rich friend, Mrs. Forestier.

After losing the necklace, she is once again unhappy, suggesting that material possessions cannot guarantee long-lasting happiness, and that greed can lead to ruin. The purchase of the dress for the ball was also somewhat frivolous which showed Matilda’s vanity and social ambition.

Matilda’s inability to separate price from value led to her ruin, as she could not assess that the necklace was an artificial one. Had Matilda not been greedy and ambitious, she could have worked hard for making her own standard of living better which she always desired for. She became greedy and had to be dishonest to Mrs. Forestier about the necklace, which eventually ruined her entire life.