CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Standard Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
  • This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between Ex-ante investment and Ex-post investment.
OR
Distinguish between Full Employment Equilibrium and Under-employment Equilibrium.
Answer:

Ex-ante Investment Ex-post Investment
It refers to the planned or intended investment during a particular period of time. It refers to the actual level of investment during a particular period of time.
It is imaginary (intended), in which a firm assumes the level of investment on its own. It is factual or original that signifies the existing investment of a particular time.
It is planned on the basis of future expectations. It is the actual result of variables.

OR

Basis Full Employment Equilibrium Underemployment Equilibrium
Meaning It refers to a situation when AD=AS and all those who are willing and able to work at the existing wage rate, get work without any undue difficulty. It refers to a situation when AD=AS, but all those who are willing and able to work at the existing wage rate, do not get work.
Impact on Real Output At this equilibrium level, real output reaches its maximum point. At this equilibrium level, real output does not reach its maximum point.
Inflationary Gap Any excess of AD over AS corresponding to full employment equilibrium leads to inflationary gap Any excess of AD over AS beyond underemployment equilibrium does not lead to inflationary gap.

Question 2.
In an economy, every time income rises, 75% of the rise in income is spent on consumption. Now, suppose in the same economy, investment rises by ₹7,500 crores. Calculate the following:
(a) Change in income.
(b) MPS.
OR
Suppose Marginal Propensity to Consume is 0.8. How much increase in investment is required to increase National Income by ₹2,000 crores? Calculate.
Answer:
(a) Spending 75% income on consumption means MPC = 75%
MPC = \(\frac{75}{100}\) =.75
Now, K = \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\)
∴ K = \(\frac{1}{1-0.75}=\frac{1}{0.25}\) = 4
Again K = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
or
4 = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}{7,500}\)
ΔY = 7,500 × 4
AY = 30,000 crores

(b) MPS = 1 – MPC = 1 – 0.75 = 0.25
OR
Given, Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.8
Change in National income (ΔY) = ₹2,000 crores
We know that,
Investment Multiplier (K) = \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{1-0.8}\) = 5
Also, Investment Multiplier (K) = \(\frac{\text { Change in Income }(\Delta Y)}{\text { Change in Investment }(\Delta I)}\)
So 5 = \(\frac{2,000}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
or ΔI = 400
i.e., investment should be increase by ₹400 crores, in order to increase income by ₹2,000 crores.

Question 3.
“Gross Domestic Product (GDP) does not give us a clear indication of economic welfare of a country.” Justify the given statement.
Answer:
The given statement is completely true that GDP does not give us a clear indication of economic welfare of a country. GDP is a measure of economy’s production or it can be considered a component of welfare. A higher GDP means more production of goods and services in an economy during a given year. Therefore, a higher GDP also means that more goods and services were available to the people of the country during the year. But it does not indicate that the people were better off during the year. In other words, a higher GDP may not necessarily mean higher welfare of the people.

Question 4.
How will you know whether a worker is working in the informal sector?
OR
Analyse the change in occupational structure of the country on the basis of the following table:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 1
Answer:
From the following points, we can know whether a worker is working in the informal sector:
(a) The number of workers employed is less than 10.
(b) The workers are not entitled to social security schemes.
(c) The workers are not allowed to form trade unions and are not protected by labour laws.
OR
From the above table, it is clear that percentage of workforce engaged in primary sector has reduced from 72.72% to 43.8%. In secondary sector, it has increased from 10.02% to 24.7%. Likewise, workforce has increased from 17.26% to 31.5% in tertiary sector. However, the shift from primary to secondary and tertiary sector is noticeable but not significant. The Indian economy is still known as agricultural economy.

Question 5.
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country. Justify the statement with a valid reason.
Answer:
Infrastructure and economic development go hand-in-hand. Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country in the following ways:
(a) Impact on productivity: Infrastructure plays a major role in the raising productivity of all the three sectors, viz, primary, secondary and the tertiary sector.

(b) Induces investment: Infrastructure induces investment. A well-developed infrastructure attracts foreign investors which opens new investment avenues and give birth to profitable ventures.

(c) Generates linkages in production: Better means of transport and communication and a robust system of banking and finance generates better inter-industrial linkages. It is a situation when expansion of one industry facilitates the expansion of the other.

(d) Enhances size of the market: Infrastructure enhances the size of the market by providing better transportation and warehousing facilities. These facilities enable large scale production of goods and services which further help a business to capture more market.

(e) Enhance ability to work : Social infrastructure improves the quality of life of workers, thereby increasing their efficiency. Healthcare centres, educational institutions and other such facilities develop the skills of the worker, which increases their ability and efficiency to work.

Question 6.
Giving the valid reason explain which of the following will not be included in estimation of National Income of India.
(a) School examination fee paid by a student.
(b) Free medicine provided by the government.
(c) Subsidised lunch provided to workers by their employers.
OR
Assuming real income to be ₹200 crores and price index to be 135, calculate nominal income.
Answer:
(a) It is included in estimation of National Income of India as it is a part of private final consumption expenditure.
(b) It is included in estimation of National Income of India as it is a part of government final consumption expenditure.
(c) It is included in estimation of National Income of India as it is the compensation to the employee.
OR
Real income = ₹200 crores
Price index = 135 crores
Let the base year’s price index be 100
Nominal Income = ?
Real income = (Nominal income + Price index of current year) x Price index of base year.
200 = (Nominal income = 135) × 100
Nominal Income = (200 x 135) ÷ 100
= 27,000 ÷ 100
= ₹270 crores.

Question 7.
In the table given below, the population and worker population ratio is shown. Find the workforce for India from the given data.

Region Estimate of Population (in crore) Workers Population Ratio
Rural 71.88 41.9
Urban 28.52 33.7
Total 100.40 75.6

Source: Key indicators for Asia and Pacific 2016, Asia Development Bank, Philippines; World Development.
Read the text carefully and answer the question number 8 and 9 given below:

China’s Soft Power

Soft power is getting others to do what you want by persuasion. Soft-power theorists suggest that the
ability to persuade rests on the power of attraction. We in India may think we are more attractive than China.

Joseph Nye, the political scientist who gave us the notion of soft power, suggests that it consists of foreign policy, cultural and political influence. Foreign policy influence comes from the legitimacy and morality of one’s dealings with other countries. Cultural influence is based on others’ respect for one’s culture. Political influence is how much others are inspired by one’s political values. Soft power is difficult to measure. Fortunately, the Lowy Institute in Australia has produced various measures which correspond roughly to foreign policy influence, cultural influence and political influence.

In diplomatic influence, overall, India ranks sixth and China ranks first among 25 Asian powers, which include the US (given the US’s huge diplomatic, military, and economic presence in Asia). Lowy further distinguishes between diplomatic networks, multilateral power, and perceived foreign policy leadership, ambition and effectiveness. On networks, India nearly matches China in the number of regional embassies it has but is considerably behind in the number of embassies worldwide (176 to 126). Multilaterally, India matches China in terms of regional memberships, but, crucially, its contributions to the UN capital budget are completely dwarfed by Chinese contributions (11.7 per cent to 0.8 per cent of the total). In surveys of foreign policy leadership, ambition, and effectiveness, China ranks first or fourth on four measures while India ranks between fourth and sixth in Asia.

Lowy’s overall measure of cultural influence ranks India in fourth place and China in second place in Asia. Lowy then divides cultural influence into three elements, of which “cultural projection” and “information flows” are the most important.

In cultural projection, India scores better on Google searches abroad of its newspapers and its television/ radio broadcasts. It also exports more of its “cultural services” (defined as “services aimed at satisfying cultural interests or needs”). China does better on several other indicators. For instance, India has only nine brands in the list of the top 500 global brands whereas China lists 73. On the number of UNESCO World Heritage sites, India has 37 while China has 53. If very tall skyscrapers are a measure of prestige, then China has 156 in its main financial centre, India has only 44. Respect for the Indian passport also lags. Chinese citizens can travel visa-free to 74 countries while Indians can only do so to 60.

In terms of information flows, in 2016-17, India hosted a mere 24,000 Asian students in tertiary education institutions whereas China hosted 2,25,000. As for tourist arrivals, in 2017 India clocked 5 million arrivals from Asia whereas China clocked 41 million and ranked first among 25 Asian countries. On total tourist arrivals from all over the world, India received 17 million, while China received 63 million.

Finally, in 2017 the two were not ranked that far apart in political influence. The governance effectiveness index shows India scoring in the top 43 per cent countries worldwide and ranked 12th and China scoring in the top 32 per cent and ranked 10th. If influence rests on “political stability and absence of violence/ terrorism”, India ranked 21st, with 79 per cent of countries worldwide doing better, and China ranked 15th with 63 per cent doing better. (Sources-Economic times)
Answer:
The number of workers estimated in Rura’ area will be area will be = (Estimate of population in rural area)/100 x worker population ratio of rural area
\(\frac{71.88}{100}\) × 41.9 = 30.12 crores
area will be = (Estimate of population in urban area)/100 × worker population ratio of urban area
\(\frac{28.52}{100}\) × 33.7 = 9.611 crores
The total workforce of India will be = Estimate of total/100 × worker population ratio of total population
\(\frac{100.40}{100}\) x× 75.6 = 75.90 crores 100

Question 8.
What led to make China more soft power, even India and China together adopted the strategy of economic reform?
Answer:
China has became soft power globally in various ways:
(a) Beijing’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) has emerged as the most crucial instrument in China’s soft power diplomacy.

(b) Influx of FDI (through SEZs (special economic zones)) and hundred percent equity of the foreign investment and free flow of FDI in the retail sector has played the most vital role in accelerating the growth in China. In fact, it is due to this factor that China has emerged a global hub of manufacturing activity which increases its image as a soft power globally.

Question 9.
What are the development strategies India needs to follow to have soft power among the world?
Answer:
India will emerge as a Soft power through various ways:
(a) Economic cooperation with other countries
(b) People-to-people relation
(c) Students exchange and scholarship programme
(d) Initiative of ‘International Solar Alliance

Question 10.
What is marginal propensity to consume? How is it related to marginal propensity to save?
Answer:
MPC or Marginal Propensity to Consume is a vital component of the Keynesian theory of macroeconomics and it is defined as the increase in consumer spending due to increase in income. It is expressed as AC/AY which shows change in consumption with change in income.
Where ΔC = Change in consumption
ΔY = Change in income
MPC and MPS (Marginal propensity to save) are related as follows:
MPC + MPS = 1
or MPS = 1 – MPC
or MPC = 1 – MPS
For example, If a person gets ₹1000 extra as bonus, and if he spends around ₹700 and saves 300, then his MPC will be 0.7 and MPS will be 300 or (1 – 0.7) = 0.3.

Question 11.
Effective demand can be restored, if ex-ante aggregate demand (AD) is more than ex-ante aggregate supply (AS). State and discuss the reason to justify the given statement.
Answer:
Effective demand is a representation of the actual amount of goods or services that buyer are purchasing in a given market.
When aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply in an economy, it will lead to inflationary pressure in the economy when price level and wage rate tend to rise. The inflationary gap encourages producers to increase their output to meet the excess demand. It will lead to gradual increase in income and output and ultimately aggregate supply will also increase to the point to be equal to aggregate demand.

Question 12.
(a) Calculate Net National Product at Factor Cost.

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Net current transfers to rest of the world 10
(ii) Savings of non- departmental enterprises 60
(iii) Net indirect tax 90
(iv) Income from property and entrepreneurship accruing to the government administrative departments 80
(v) Consumption of fixed capital 70
(vi) Personal tax 100
(vii) Corporation tax 40
(viii) National debt interest 30
(ix) Current transfer payments by government 50
(x) Retained earnings of private corporate sector 10
(xi) Personal disposable income 1100

(b) Distinguish between Depreciation and Depreciation reserve fund.
OR
(a) Find the Net Value added at Market Price.

Items (₹ in lakh)
(i) Fixed capital good with a life span of 5 years 15
(ii) Raw materials 6
(iii) Sales 25
(iv) Net change in stock (-)2
(v) Taxes on production 1

(b) Explain why subsidies are added to and indirect taxes deducted from domestic product at market price to arrive at domestic product at factor cost?
Answer:
(a) Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFC)
= Personal Disposable Income + Personal Tax + Corporation Tax + Retained Earnings of Private Corporate Sector – Current Transfers Payments by Government – National Debt Interest + Net Current Transfers to the Rest of the World + Savings of Non departmental Enterprises + Income from Property and Entrepreneurship Accruing to the Government Administrative Departments = 1100 + 100 + 40 + 10-50-30 + 10 + 60 + 80
= ₹1320 crore

Basis Depreciation Depreciation Reserve Fund
Concept It is the loss of value of fixed assets in use on account of normal wear and tear. It is a provision of funds created by producer to cope up with depreciation loss.
Effect It leads to correct computation of profit. These funds are used for the replacement of fixed assets when these are worn out.
Reason Expected or foreseen obsolescence, normal wear and tear. Obsolete/ outdated assets need to be replaced.

OR
(a) Value of Output = Sales + Change in Stock
Value of Output = (iii) + (iv) = 25 + (- 2) = 23
Gross Value Added at MP = Value of Output – Intermediate Consumption
GVA at MP = ₹23 – ₹6 = ₹17
Net Value Added at MP = GVA at MP – Consumption of fixed capital
Consumption of Fixed Capital = Total value of fixed capital/life span = 15/5 = ₹3 lakh
NVA at MP = ₹17 – ₹3 = ₹14

(b) Subsidies by government are grants that decrease the price of a commodity, whereas indirect taxes are paid by a firm and households that increase the final price of a commodity. Hence, to derive Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost from Gross Domestic Product at Market Price, we deduct indirect taxes and add subsidies. Also subsidies are the income received while indirect taxes are paid.

Question 13.
(a) India has abundant natural resources. Substantiate the statement.
(b) Some infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on production of goods and services while others
give indirect support by building the social sector of the economy. Using the above information,
differentiate between social and economic infrastructure.
Answer:
(a) India has abundant natural resources in the terms of rich quality of soil, hundreds of rivers and tributaries, lush green forests, plenty of mineral deposits, vast stretch of Indian Ocean, ranges of mountains, etc. The black soil of the Deccan Plateau is suitable for cultivation of cotton. The Indo- gangetic plains are the most fertile regions in the world. India’s forests provide green cover for its population and wild life. Large deposits of iron-ore, coal and natural gas are found in the country.

Social Infrastructure Economic Infrastructure
Social Infrastructure helps the economic system from outside. (i.e, indirectly) Economic infrastructure helps the economic system from inside, (i.e., directly)
Social infrastructure improves the quality of human resources. Economic infrastructure improves the quality of economic resources.
Expenditure on it will raise the stock of human capital over time. Social infrastructure leads to

economic infrastructure.

Expenditure on it will raise the stock of physical capital over time. Economic infrastructure

leads to social infrastructure.

For example: health, education and housing. For example: energy, transport and communication.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • There are three sections in the Question paper namely Section A, Section B and Section C.
  • Section A consists of 9 questions amongst which 7 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 2 marks and should have 30-50 words.
  • Section B consists of 5 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 3 marks and should have 80-100 words.
  • Section C consists of 4 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 4 marks and should have 100-150 words.

Time : 2 Hrs.
Max. Marks : 35

Section A

Question 1.
Explain Fartlek.
Answer:
Fartlek, which means “speed play” in Swedish, is a training method that blends continuous training with interval training. The variable intensity and continuous nature of the exercise place stress on both the aerobic and anaerobic systems. It differs from traditional interval training as it is unstructured; intensity and/or speed varies, as the athlete wishes.

Question 2.
Why does involvement in regular exercise delay the onset of fatigue?
Answer:
If we do regular exercise, our fitness level will be increased and it also develops endurance because of the fatigue level delays.

Question 3.
What is goal setting?
Answer:
Goal setting involves establishing specific, measurable, achievable, realistic and time-targeted S.M.A.R.T) goals. The goal-setting theory suggests that an effective tool for making progress is to ensure that participants in a group with a common goal are clearly aware of what is expected from them.

Question 4.
Mention any two disability etiquettes.
Answer:
Two Disability Etiquette are:

  • When you meet a person with visual impairment, always identify yourself and others who may be with you.
  • In case of introduction to a person with a disability, it is appropriate to shake hands.
  • Always avoid asking personal questions to an individual who is differently-abled.
  • Always have conversation at a normal tone of voice. Do not talk in high pitch to such individuals.

Question 5.
What type of fracture is known as Greenstick Fracture?
Answer:
Greenstick fracture is a fracture in a young, soft bone. In greenstick, the bone bends and breaks. This fracture is very difficult to detect and is usually found in children.

Question 6.
Explain the term ‘Sports Training’.
Answer:
Sports training is a specialised process of all round physical conditioning aimed at the preparation of sports person for improving its performance in games and sports.

Question 7.
What do you mean by ODD?
Answer:
Oppositional Defiant DisorderODD) is a childhood disorder that is defined by a pattern of hostile, disobedient, and defiant behaviors directed at adults or other authority figures.

Question 8.
What is incision?
Answer:
An incision wound is a cut in the skin caused by sharp objects, such as knife, broken glass, scissors or surgeon’s scalpel. Incision wounds are neat and the edges of the skin are usually smooth.

Question 9.
What is Intellectual Disability?
Answer:
Intellectual disability is a disability characterised by significant limitations in both intellectual functioning such as learning, problem-solving, and judgment) and in adaptive behavior activities of daily life such as communication). This disability originates before the age of 18.

Section B

Question 10.
Discuss in detail any three techniques of motivation.
Answer:
In games and sports performance does not depend upon a single factor. The performance of an athlete directly depends upon his/her coach, the environment in which he or she took training, his personal and social dimension, and the most important factor is motivation. Following are the techniques used in games and sports by an athlete and his/her coach.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 4 Set 1 with Solutions 1

Techniques of motivation for higher achievement in sports are:

  • Knowing Your Athlete: Each athlete comes from a different background with varied experiences and having different degrees of maturity.
  • Level of Aspiration or Goal Setting: As we know that achieving performance goals is a sign of competence that affects motivation positively, it is necessary to set realistic goals based on one’s own abilities.
  • Identifying Incentive Factors: If an athlete perceives that any particular kind of experiences are available to him in a given sport and he feels that these will be pleasant, enjoyable or satisfying, then he will choose to participate in that game or sport and not any other.

Question 11.
Discuss in detail any one type of disorder.
Answer:
Disorder is usually used for mental disabilities. Disorder is any element that disturbs the health of an individual. Disorder creates hindrance in an individual’s performance and reduces his efficiency. In the beginning disorder seems to be ordinary but they usually grow or spread in a harmful manner in an individual. Most probably, a disorder cannot be detected on time, as a result of which, a simple disorder is changed into a disability. A disorder disrupts the normal functioning of an individual.

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity DisorderADHD) is a group of behavioral symptoms that include inattentiveness, hyperactivity and impulsiveness. It is a state having medical conditions that affect how well can someone sit still, focus and pay attention. The individual with ADHD have some problems focusing in some activities. This type of disorder is found more common in boys than in girls.

Question 12.
A famous cricket star Phillip Hughes was struck behind the ear by a ball while batting and died two days after the injury. He was wearing a helmet but the possible reason mentioned was that even when using a helmet, possibly a significant part of the neck remained exposed and the ball hit him there and now most of the top cricketers across the world would use deeper protection.
(i) Do you feel protective gears are important? Lay stress on your views.
(ii) What first aid should be provided during injury at the superficial layer of the skin?
Answer:
In a sport like Cricket, protective gears or sport gears are very vital. In recent past, it is observed that when a forceful ball hit the batsman or fielder, it might cause injuries or even death.

(i) In the game of Cricket one should protect head, arms, chest, thighs, private parts, knees, legs and feet. There are various protective gears such as helmet, batting gloves, chest guard, thigh guards, arm pads, shoulder pads, abdominal guards, leg protectors, shoes, wicket-keeping gloves etc. These sport gears must be of good quality. The proper protective equipment play significant role in preventing the sports injury.

(ii)

  • Clean the affected part with fresh water.
  • Use clean sterilised gauze to wipe the affected part.
  • Antiseptic ointment should be used.
  • Refer to the doctor in case of serious injury.

Question 13.
Briefly explain different types of co-ordinative abilities.
Answer:
Different types of coordinative abilities are:

  1. Adaptive Ability: According to predictable changes in circumstances, it is the capability of a sports person to result in an effectual alteration in the movement.
  2. Balance Ability: It is the capability of a sports person to sustain balance of the body together in static and dynamic conditions.
  3. Reaction Ability: It is the ability to react quickly and effectively to a signal. To a great extent it depends on sense organs, coordinative processes of CNS, decision making, concentration and anticipation.

Question 14.
“Asanas can be used as a preventive measure.” Comment.
Answer:
Asanas play an important role to prevent the lifestyle-related diseases. The advantages are as follows:

(i) Maintain Weight: Nowadays, obesity has become a challenging problem for the society. By doing asanas daily, we exercise entire organs of our body. By practising asanas regularly, it bums the excess fat of the body, and hence maintains healthy weight.

(ii) Normalize Endocrine Function: Diabetes is one of the most common lifestyle-related diseases. Diabetes occurs due to either the pancreas not producing enough insulin or the cells of the body not responding properly to the insulin produced. The asanas like Bhujangasana, Paschimotanasana, Pavanmuktasana, Ardh-Matsyendrasana etc., help to stimulate and regulate pancreas to produce insulin which helps to maintain glucose level in the body.

(iii) Respiratory Efficiency Increases: Asthma is a common lifestyle-related disease. It occurs due to narrowing of trachea, due to which oxygen supply to lungs and body is compromised. Asanas help in maintaining the trachea wide open, increase the lungs capacity and blood flow to lungs. Thus, oxygen supply is maintained and asthmatic episodes are reduced and respiratory efficiency is increased.

(iv) Regulate Blood Flow: Yoga or Asanas regulate blood flow in the body and help to maintain a constant blood pressure. They help the body to relax and thus reduce the high blood pressure.

Yoga calms down the body and the mind and thus blood pressure is normalised.

Section C

Question 15.
Write in detail about strength improving method-isometric, Isotonic and Isokinetic.
Answer:
(i) Isometric Exercises: They are the exercises in which muscular tension is built without any visible movement of muscle being used. Contraction during such an exercise is called isometric contraction.

Work done during isometric exercise is zero. Isometric exercises are practiced by pushing or pulling an immovable object like a wall or bar anchored to the floor. Isometric exercise increases muscle tension significantly but fails to change the length of the muscles. Today, it is primarily used for rehabilitation purposes.

Examples:

  • Balancing on one foot.
  • Pressing against the wall.
  • Standing with heavy load on head.
  • Maintaining a sitting posture without a chair.
  • Holding a weight at arm’s length.
  • Attempting to lift an immovable object.

Characteristics of Isometric Exercise

  • The amount of heat generated and tension developed is higher than that of isotonic.
  • Increased muscular tension leads to tremor in muscles.

(ii) Isotonic Exercises: Exercises, where we can see movement of an object on application of force are called Isotonic exercises and contraction of the muscle during such an exercise, is called isotonic contraction. Isotonic exercises are carried out against a fixed resistance.

As each muscle moves through its complete range, isotonic contraction creates tension with maximum effort at the beginning and end of each exercise. Two types of muscular contraction take place while performing isotonic exercise-they are concentric contraction in which length of the muscle decreases from normal size and eccentric contraction in which length of the muscle increases from normal size.

Examples:

  • Light rhythmic exercises
  • Running downhill
  • Sit-ups and push up
  • Lifting free weights, like dumb bells and barbells
  • Hammer throw
  • Triple jump
  • Landing on the ground after jump

(iii) Isokinetic Exercises: These are the exercises in which speed remains same throughout the range of movement. It can be also called as a combination of isometric and isotonic contraction. Isokinetic exercise uses a machine that controls the speed of contraction within the range of motion.

Cybex and Biodex machines provide this kind of workout, but these machines are generally used by physiotherapists and not readily available to most of the people. Exercises which are similar to isokinetic exercise in sports activity are:

  • Ice skating
  • Chin ups
  • Rope climbing
  • Rowing
  • Swimming

Question 16.
What is endurance? Explain the various methods for its development.
Answer:
Endurance refers to the body’s ability to continue using muscular strength and endure repeated contractions for an extended period of time. It is essential in exercise and when doing heavy tasks as – it allows the muscles to perform for long periods of time without becoming tired. There are various methods of its development. Some are as follows:

(i) Continuous Training: Continuous training is a type of sports training that involves activity of moderate-intensity with a duration of more than 15 minutes with resting intervals. It is the most common type of training and is for maintaining general health and well-being.

Generally, this type of training is used to prepare the body for sustained workouts such as marathons and triathlons, but can also be effective for more casual athletes. It allows the body to work from its aerobic energy stored to improve overall fitness and endurance. Chief benefits of continuous training include fat burning, muscle building, and increasing maximum aerobic potential.

(ii) Interval Training: Interval training involves periods of hard work followed by a timed period of rest, repeated several times in one training session. The periods of hard work are called high-intensity activity. Rest can be active walking, logging etc). An example of interval training is 10 fast runs over 40 metres, with two minutes rest between each run.

Variables to consider during interval training are distance/duration of activity, intensity of activity, duration of rest, activity during rest, number of sets, and frequency of training. By varying any of these variables athletes can be progressively overloaded. This form of training also increases fitness levels for people involved in exercises.

(iii) Fartlek Training: Fartlek, which means “speed play” in Swedish, is a training method that blends continuous training with interval training. The variable intensity and continuous nature of the exercise places stress on both the aerobic and anaerobic systems.

It differs from traditional interval training as it is unstructured; intensity and/or speed vary, as the athlete wishes. Fartlek training can be used to improve both the aerobic and anaerobic systems by mixing moderate activity with bursts of speed.

Question 17.
Explain Sheldon’s classification of personality and explain its importance in physical education and sports.
Answer:
(i) Endomorphic: An endomorphic somatotype is also known as a viscerotonic. The characteristic traits of this somatotype usually include being relaxed, tolerant, comfortable, and sociable. Psychologically, they are also fun-loving, good-humored, even-tempered, and they love food and affection. The Endomorph is physically “round”. They have wide hips and narrow shoulders that give a pear shape.

They tend to have a lot of extra fat on their body and on their arms and thighs. They have skinny ankles and wrists that make the rest of their body look even bigger.

(ii) Ectomorphic: An ectomorph is the complete opposite of the endomorph. Physically, they have narrow shoulders, thin legs and arms, little fat on the body, a narrow face and a narrow chest. They may eatust as much as the endomorph but never seem to gain any weight. They always stay skinny. Personality-wise, they tend to be self-conscious, socially anxious, artistic, thoughtful, quiet, and private. They always keep to themselves and are afraid to branch out.

(iii) Mesomorphic: The mesomorph is in between the endomorph and thin ectomorph. They have an attractive and desirable body. Physically, they tend to have a large head and broad shoulders with a narrow waist. They have a strong muscular body and strong arms and legs and little fat on their body. They work for the body they have so that they could have an attractive body. Psychologically, the mesomorph is adventurous and courageous. They are not afraid to break out and do new things with new people. They are assertive.

Question 18.
What are the steps and benefits of Vajrasana?
Answer:
The steps and benefits of Vajrasana are:

Steps of Vajrasana:

  • Kneel down on the ground and stretch the lower legs back while you keep them together. Make sure that your big toes perfectly cross each other.
  • Lower your body gently in such a manner that your buttocks rest on the heels with your thighs placed on the calf muscles.
  • Now place both hands on the knees and focus your gaze forward while keeping your head perfectly straight.
  • Direct your attention to the rhythm of your breathing. Enhancing the awareness of your breathing process and observing carefully the way you breathe in and breathe out.
  • Close your eyes for calming your mind and concentrating on your breathing process.
  • Stay in this final position for at least 5-10 minutes.

Benefits of Vajrasana:

  • Vajrasana can ease out the labor pains during pregnancy and minimize menstrual cramps.
  • It strengthens the sexual organs, cures joint pains, tones body muscles in the thighs, hips, and calves and removes urinary problems.
  • It can help in minimizing belly fat and also assist in losing weight.
  • Vajrasana can also help the practitioner to attain a calm and relaxed state of mind. It can help in improving the functioning of the nerves.
  • This asana can also help in improving the functions of the liver.
  • It removes gas and flatulence.
  • The asana can make the ankle and knee joints flexible, thus preventing some forms of rheumatic diseases.
  • It can also remove the pain associated with arthritis.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Standard Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Max. Marks: 40
Time: 2 Hours

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
  • This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each, and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
What is the difference between consumer goods and capital goods?
OR
What is the difference between planned and unplanned inventory accumulation? Write down the relation between change in inventories and value-added of a firm.
Answer:

Basis Consumption Goods Capital Goods
Definition Consumption goods are those goods that are used by the consumers and have no use in the future. Capital goods are those goods that have a future use and are used for the production of consumption goods.
Purpose Consumer goods are purchased to fulfil personal consumption needs. Capital goods are purchased for the manufacturing of consumer goods.
Target Market Consumer Manufacturers
Demand Consumption goods have high demand. Demand for capital goods is comparatively less.
Pricing Comparatively cheap Costlier in comparison to consumption goods.

OR
Planned Inventory: It refers to changes in the stock of inventories that have occurred in a planned way.
In a situation of planned inventory accumulation, firm makes plan to raise its inventories.

Unplanned Inventory: It refers to changes in the stock of inventories that have occurred in an unexpected
way. In a situation of unplanned inventory accumulation, due to unexpected fall in sales, the firm will
have unsold stock of goods.
Value-added of a firm (GVA) = Gross value of output produced by the firm – Value of intermediate goods
used by the firm.

Question 2.
If MPC = 0.4 and change in income is ₹1,000, what will be change in savings?
OR
Estimate the change in final income if Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.75 and change in initial investment is ₹ 2,000 crores.
Answer:
MPC + MPS = I
0.4 + MPS = 1
MPS = 1 -0.4
MPS = 0.6
MPS = \(\frac{\Delta S}{\Delta Y}\)
0.6= \(\frac{\Delta S}{1,000}\)
ΔS = 600
OR
MPC = 0.75
Change in investment (ΔI) = ₹2,000 crores
K= \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\)
K = \(\frac{1}{1-0.75}\) = 4
K = \(\frac{\text { Change in income } \Delta \mathrm{Y}}{\text { Change in investment } \Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
⇒ 4 = \(\frac{\text { Change in income } \Delta Y}{2,000}\)
Change in income (ΔY) = ₹ 8,000 crore

Question 3.
Value of Average Propensity to Save can never be greater than one. Justify the given statement.
Answer:
The value of Average Propensity to save can never be greater than one because
APS+APC=1
APS=1-APC
The saving of a consumer can never exceed his income as consumption is always positive.

Question 4.
State and discuss any two environmental concerns faced by India in the present times.
OR
Study the graph and analyze the reason for more self-employed workers are there in rural areas as compared to urban areas.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 1
Answer:
There are many environmental issues faced by India in the present times. Some of them are:
Air pollution, growing water scarcity, water pollution, biodiversity loss, etc.

The two environmental concerns are as follow:
(a) Air pollution: Air pollution is one of the worst pollution affecting India. Average life expectation is likely to go down for more than one year due to air pollution. India has most polluted cities in the whole world. India ranks 141 out of 180 countries in terms of air pollution.

(b) Groundwater depletion: It is one of the biggest threat because as groundwater is declining it is affecting food security and livelihood in the country. It is also responsible for most of the country’s agriculture production and food crisis.
OR
More self-employment are found in rural areas because in rural areas people work on their own farms to earn their livelihood. There are lots of opportunities available in rural areas for self-employment such as poultry farms, sericulture and other farmed base product. In urban areas people are skilled and they work in factories and offices. This is the reason that 56% of the workers are engaged in self-employment in rural areas as compared to 43% in urban areas.

Question 5.
Why are less woman found in regular salaried employment? Give reasons.
Answer:
Less woman are found in regular salaried employment due to the following reasons:
(a) Lack of education facilities: Female education is not given due importance in India and hence, majority of the woman in India do not have the educational qualification and professional skills required for regular salaried employment.

(b) Discouragement from family in India: Many families still do not want the female members to step out from the house for work, especially it is for long hours, as in regular salaried employment.

(c) Family responsibilities: Household work and responsibility of children and other family members do not allow the women to devote time and energy in regular employment.

(d) Wage discrimination: Gender-based wage discrimination is prevalent in India which demotivates the women in regular salaried employment and they prefer being at home or opt for self-employment opportunities.

(e) Security issues: Rise in crime against women has also been a reason of women withdrawing from regular employment due to security concerns. Late working hours in private sector firms and MNCs are not found suitable by most of the women.

Question 6.
Which among the following are final goods and intermediate goods? Given reasons.
(a) Milk purchased by a tea stall.
(b) Bus purchased by a school.
(c) Juice purchased by a student from the school canteen.
OR
Calculate gross value added at factor cost from the following: (₹ in crores)
(a) Gross value of output at.MP = ₹ 10,500
(b) Depreciation = ₹ 1,000
(c) Indirect taxes = ₹ 750
(d) Economic subsidies = ₹ 200
(e) Intermediate consumption = ₹ 4,000
(f) Compensation of employees = ₹ 2,000
Answer:
(a) It is an intermediate good because it is used by the tea seller during production process i.e., making tea and not for final consumption.
(b) It is a final good as, it is purchased by school for final consumption.
(c) It is a final good as, it is purchased by a student for final consumption.
OR
Gross value added at Factor cost will be calculated as under:
Gross value of output at MP + Economic Subsidies – Intermediate Consumption – Indirect taxes
=10,500+200-4,000-750
= 10,700-4750
= ₹ 5950 crores

Question 7.
The trend in Employment pattern

Status 1972-73 2011-12
Self-employed 61.4 52
Regular Salaried Employees 15.4 18
Casual Wage Labour 23.2 30

Study the following information and analyze the status of casualization of the workforce.

Read the following text carefully and answer the question number 8 and 9 given below. India has imposed anti-dumping duty on five Chinese products for five years in order to protect local manufacturers from cheap imports from the neighboring country. The duty has been imposed on some aluminum products and chemicals. Anti-dumping duty is the imposition of levy by importing country in order to counter the dumping of products and save the domestic market.

These measures are taken to ensure fair trade and provide equal opportunities to the domestic country. The duty has been imposed on the recommendations of Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), the investigation arm of the Ministry of Commerce. Both India and China are the members of WTO and India has initiated maximum anti-dumping cases against imports from China.
Answer:
The movement of the labour from regular salaried workers to casual wage workers is known as casualization of workforce. This distribution of workforce indicates that the people have moved from self-employment to regular salaried employment and casual wage work implying that casualization is picking up. Yet self-employment continues to be the major employment provider.

Question 8.
Explain the causes that led India to impose anti-dumping duty on Chinese products.
Answer:
Anti-dumping duty has been imposed By India on Chinese products because of the following reasons:
(a) China provides heavy subsidies on its exports. Therefore, Chinese products in India become quite cheaper than domestic products. This strategy by neighbouring country badly affects the domestic manufacturers of India.
(b) Domestic manufacturers are not in a position of competing with Chinese products because of high prices of factors of production.

Question 9.
Discuss how these measures will impact Indian economy.
Answer:
Anti-dumping measures will impact Indian economy in the following ways:
(a) India’s import bill will certainly go down because india is one of the biggest importer of Chinese products.
(b) India’s trade balance will improve due to less imports.
(c) Domestic manufacturers will benefit as Chinese products will become quite expensive as compared to domestic products. Increased production in India will lead to increase in employment opportunities.

Question 10.
Explain the effects of excess demand on output, employment and prices.
Answer:
Excess demand has following effects:
(a) Effect on Output: Due to excess demand in an economy, the resources are over utilised. Production is maximum and cannot be increased further.
(b) Effect on Employment: The economy has already achieved full employment level and hence, there is no involuntary unemployment in the economy. The employment level will not change during the situation of excess demand.
(c) Effects on Prices: Since excess demand generates pressure on existing flow of goods and services in the economy, the prices will rise.

Question 11.
Taxation plays an important role in reducing excess demand. State the reason to justify the given statement.
Answer:
Excess demand refers to the situation when aggregate demand (AD) is in excess of aggregate supply (AS) corresponding to full employment in the economy. In a situation of excess demand, government raises
the rates of all taxes. This reduces the purchasing power of the people and reduces both consumption and investment expenditures. A fall in consumption and investment expenditures reduces the level of
aggregate demand and helps to check the problem of excess demand.

Question 12.
(a) Calculate National Income from the following data: (₹ in crores)

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Consumption of fixed capital 50
(ii) Employer’s contribution to social security 75
(iii) Interest 160
(iv) Net indirect taxes 55
(v) Rent 130
(vi) Dividends 45
(vii) Corporate tax 15
(viii) Undistributed profit 10
(ix) Net factor income from abroad -10
(x) Wages and salaries 450

(b) Distinguish between Real and Nominal Gross Domestic Product.
OR
(a) Calculate:
(i) Net National Product at Factor Cost and
(ii) Gross National Disposable Income from the following data

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Net current transfers to rest of the world 10
(ii) Savings of non-departmental enterprises 60
(iii) Net indirect tax 90
(iv) Income from property and entrepreneurship accruing to the government administrative departments 80
(v) Consumption of fixed capital 70
(vi) Personal tax 100
(vii) Corporation tax 40
(viii) National debt interest 30
(ix) Current transfer payments by government 50
(x) Retained earning of private corporate sector 10
(xi) Personal disposable income 1100

(b) How can externalities be a limitation of using Gross Domestic Product as an index of welfare?
Answer:
(a) NDPFC = (x) + (ii) + (iii) + (y) + (vi) + (vii) + (viii)
450+75*+ 160+ 130+45+15+10 = ₹885Crores.
NNPFC = NDPFC + (ix)
= 885 + (-10) = ₹ 875 Crores

Notes of solution:
Since wages and salaries and employer contribution to social security are given separately, these must be added to obtain compensation to employees. Dividend, undistributed profit, and corporate taxes are to be added to get Total profit/Retained Earnings. Net indirect taxes is not required in this question. Similarly, consumption of fixed capital is also not required in this question.

(b)
(i) Nominal GDP is the market value of all final goods and services produced in a geographical region usually a country. On the other hand, Real GDP is a macroeconomic measure of the value of output, economically adjusted for price changes. The adjustment transforms the Nominal GDP into an index for quantity of total output.

(ii) Nominal values of GDP from different time periods can differ due to changes in quantities of goods and services and/or changes in general price levels. Values for Real GDP are adjusted for differences in price levels while figures for Nominal GDI’ are not adjusted. Real GDP is a better index of welfare of the people, when Real GDP rises, flow of goods and services tends to rise, other things remaining constant. This means greater availability of goods per person, implying higher level of welfare.
OR
(a)
(i) Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFC)
Personal Disposable Income + Personal Tax + Corporation Tax + Retained Earnings of Private Corporate Sector – Current Transfers Payments by Government – National Debt Interest + Net Current Transfers to Rest of the World + Saving of Non-departmental enterprises + Income from Property and Entrepreneurship Accruing to the Government Administrative Departments
= 1100+100+40+10-50-30+10+60+80 = ₹ 1320 crore

(ii) Gross National Disposable Income NNPFC + Net Indirect Tax – Net Current Transfers to Rest of the World + Consumption of Fixed Capital
= 1320+90-10+70
=₹ 1470crore

(b) Increase in Gross Domestic Product is due to increased economic activities like industrialization and urbanization. With the increase in industrialization, certain problems for society also increase like pollution of air, water and soil and deforestation. Urbanization also results in housing problems, increases in road accidents, etc. On the whole, welfare decreases, and this decrease in welfare is ignored while calculation of GDP. So, we can say that externalities can be a limitation of using GDP as an index of welfare.

Question 13.
(a) Compared to women, more men are found working in India. It has been observed that for every 100 urban females, only about 15 works. In rural areas, for every 100 rural women only about 25 works. Why are women not working? What values are affected by it?
(b) Infrastructure provides supporting services in the main areas of industrial and agricultural production. In the context of above statement, explain how infrastructural facilities boost up the production.
Answer:
(a) The participation rate of women in the employment market, for both, rural and urban areas, is quite low. Some of the reasons for such a low rate are given below:
(i) India is typically a male-dominated country’s Because of this, females are accorded secondary status and parents do not take steps to educate them.
(ii) Even if they are educated, the social beliefs and setup discourage them to work. The value of
‘gender-equity’ is affected.

(b) The prosperity of a country depends directly upon the development of agricultural and industrial production. Agricultural production requires power, credit, transport facilities, etc.; the deficiency of which leads to fall in productivity. Industrial production requires machinery and equipment, energy, banking, and insurance facilities, marketing facilities, transport services which include railways, roads and shipping, and communication facilities, etc. All these facilities help in raising agricultural and industrial productivity.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Standard Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
  • This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between capital goods and consumer goods.
OR
Distinguish between gross investment and net investment.
Answer:
Consumer goods are products made for consumption by the average consumer. It is the end result of production and manufacturing. Consumer goods are purchased to fulfil personal consumption needs. Examples are clothing, food, furniture, jewellery etc whereas Capital goods are the goods that can be used to increase production. These goods are fixed, durable or tangible assets that are purchased by a business in order to produce finished products or consumer goods. Examples are equipment, machinery, buildings, computers, vehicles, and more.
OR
Gross Investment: Total addition made to physical stock of capital during a period of time. It includes depreciation.
Gross Investment = Net Investment + Depreciation
Net Investment: Net addition made to the real stock of capital during a period of time. It excludes depreciation.
Net Investment = Gross investment – Depreciation.

Question 2.
If MPC is 0.9, what is the value of multiplier? Calculate how much investment is needed to increase National Income by ₹5,000 crores.
OR
In an economy 75 percent of the increase in income is spent on consumption. Investment is increased by ₹1,000 crore. Calculate:
(a) Total increase in income.
(b) Total increase in consumption expenditure.
Answer:
Here ΔY = 5,000 crore, MPC = 0.9, K = ?, ΔI = ?
By formula K = \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\)
K = \(\frac{1}{1-0.9}=\frac{1}{0.1}\)
K = 10
But K = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
10 = \(\frac{5,000}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
ΔI = \(\frac{5,000}{10}\) = 500 crore
So, K = 10 and ΔI = 500 crore
OR
(a) 75 per cent of the increase in income is spent on consumption.
∴ MPC = \(\frac{\Delta C}{\Delta Y}\) = \(\frac{75}{100}\) 0.75
Multiplier (K) = \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\) = \(\frac{1}{1-0.75}=\frac{1}{0.25}\) = 4
We know,
M = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
⇒ ΔY = K × ΔI
ΔY = 4 × 1,000 = 4,000

(b) Increase in consumption expenditure (ΔC) = MPC × ΔY
= 0.75 × 4,000 (∵ MPC \(\frac{\Delta C}{\Delta Y}\)), so that ΔC = MPC × ΔY
= \(\frac{75}{100}\) × 4,000 = 3,000
(i) Total increase in income = ₹4,000 crore.
(ii) Total increase in consumption expenditure = ₹3,000 crore.

Question 3.
The value of average propensity to save can be negative. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Yes, the value of average propensity to save can be negative. Income can be consumed or saved, thus the sum of average propensity to consume and average propensity to save is always equal to one.
APC + APS = 1 or APC = 1 – APS
APS = 1 – APC
Hence, APS can be negative when APC is more than one i.e., when consumption expenditure is more than the income.

Question 4.
State and discuss any two points regarding the condition of health infrastructure in India.
OR
Study the following information and analyse the ‘Distribution of Workforce by Industry’.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 1
Answer:
State of health infrastructure in India:
(a) There has been significant expansion in physical provision of health services and improvements in health indicators since independence, but it is insufficient for rapidly increasing population in India.
(b) Public health system and facilities are not sufficient for this large population.
(c) There is a wide gap between rural urban areas and between poor and rich in utilising health care facilities.
(d) Woman’s health across the country has become a matter of great concern with reports of increasing cases of female foeticide and mortality.
OR
The above table shows the distribution of workforce in different industries during the year 2017-18. Primary sector is the main source of employment for majority of workers in India. Secondary sector provides employment to only about 24 per cent of workforce. About 31 per cent of workers are in the service sector. It also shows that about 60 per cent of the workforce in rural India depends on agriculture, forestry and fishing. About 20 per cent of rural workers are working in manufacturing industries, construction and other industrial activities.

Service sector provides employment to about 20 per cent of rural workers. Agriculture is not a major source of employment in urban areas where people are mainly engaged in the service sector. About 60 per cent of urban workers are in the service sector. The secondary sector gives employment to about one-third of urban workforce. Though both men and women workers are concentrated in the primary sector, women workers’ concentration is very high there. About 57 per cent of the female workforce is employed in the primary sector whereas less than half of males work in that sector. Men get more opportunities in both secondary and service sectors.

Question 5.
Sustainable development is an approach to economic growth and development, without causing a lot of environmental damage. Justify the given statement with a valid argument.
Answer:
Yes, sustainable development is an approach to economic growth and development without compromising with the quality of the environment for future generations. For economic development, lots of environmental damage has happened in the form of land degradation, soil erosion, air and water pollution, deforestation, etc. This damage may surpass the advantages of having more quality output of goods.

Question 6.
In a single day Raju, the barber, collects ₹500 from haircuts; over this day, his equipment depreciates in value by ₹50. Of the remaining ₹450. Raju pays sales tax worth ₹30. takes home ₹200 and retains ₹220 for improvement and buying of new equipment. He further pays ₹20 as income tax from his income. Based on this information, complete Raju’s contribution to the following measures of income:
(a) Gross domestic product
(b) NNP at market price
(c) NNP at factor cost
OR
Giving reason stating how the following are treated in estimation of National Income:
(a) Payment of interest by banks to its depositors.
(b) Expenditure on engine oil by car service station.
(c) Expenditure on old age pensions by the government.
Answer:
(a) GDP = ₹500 (Raju’s collects from haircut)
(b) NNPMP = GDP – Depreciation = 500 – 50
= 450 (Raju’s contribution to NNPMP)
(c) NNPFC = NNPmp-Sales tax = 450 – 30
= 420 (Raju’s contribution to NNPFC)
OR
(a) Payment of interest by the bank to its depositors should be included in the estimation of National Income as it will be treated as factor income.
(b) Expenditure on engine oil by car service stations is not a part of National Income as it is an intermediate cost.
(c) Expenditure on old age pensions by the government is not a part of the National Income as it is a transfer payment.

Question 7.
Compare and analyse the ‘Distribution of Workforce by Industry’ based on following information:
Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product (%), 1980-2017

Country 1980-90 2015-17
India 5.7 7.3
China 10.3 6.8
Pakistan 6.3 5.3

Source: Key Indicators for Asia and Pacific 2016. Asian Development Bank. Philippines: World Development Indicators 2018.

Read the following text carefully and answer the question number 8 and 9 given below:

India-Pakistan Trade

Despite continuing tensions, trade between the two countries grew marginally in subsequent years; Indian exports rose nearly 6 per cent to $1.92 billion in 2017-18, and then by around 7 per cent to $2.07 billion in 2018-19. Imports from Pakistan, though much less in volume, also increased by 7.5 per cent to $488.56 million in 2017-18 from $454.49 million in 2016-17.

Growth of imports from Pakistan slowed to around $494.87 million in 2018-19 – an increase of around 1 per cent – before political relations entered a deep freeze in 2019.

Over the years, India has had a trade surplus with Pakistan, with much less imports than exports. Pakistan was among India’s top 50 trade partners in 2018-19, but was pushed out of the list in 2019-20. It had been anticipated that a trade ban between the countries would affect Pakistan more, since it relied heavily on India for key raw materials for its textiles and pharmaceuticals industries.

In 2018-19, cotton ($550.33 million) and organic chemicals ($457.75 million) accounted for around half of Pakistan’s imports from India. Other major Pakistani imports from India that year included plastic ($131.19 million), tanning/dyeing extracts ($114.48 million), and nuclear reactors, boilers, machinery, and mechanical appliances ($94.88 million).

After the ban, imports of these five products fell drastically to $1 million from $2 million between April 2020 and January 2021, while cotton imports stopped altogether. The only increase has been in pharmaceutical products – Pakistan has so far imported around $67.26 million worth of drug products, and over $115 million worth of organic chemicals to ensure sufficient supplies of medicines during the Covid-19 pandemic.

India’s major imports from Pakistan in 2018-19 were mineral fuels and oils ($131.29 million), edible fruits and nuts ($103.27 million), salt, sulphur, stone and plastering materials ($92.84 million), ores, slag and ash ($17.18 million) and raw hides and leather ($16.27 million).

The country imported these products in substantially higher volumes from other countries – $25.51 billion worth of mineral fuels and oils from Saudi Arabia; $840.80 million in edible fruits and nuts from the US; $566.52 million in salt, sulphur and plastering materials from the UAE; $862.00 million in ores, slag and ash from Chile; and $83.36 million in raw hides, skin and leather from Italy.

Pakistan’s decision to suspend bilateral trade with India in August 2019 was a fallout of the constitutional changes in Jammu and Kashmir, which Pakistan said were “illegal”. However, an underlying reason for suspending trade was the 200 per cent tariff imposed by New Delhi on Pakistani imports earlier that year after India revoked Pakistan’s Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status in the aftermath of the Pulwama terrorist attack.

Trade between the two countries suffered greatly – India’s exports to Pakistan dropped nearly 60.5 per cent to $816.62 million, and its imports plummeting 97 per cent to $13.97 million in 2019-20.
The Pakistani decision to lift the ban on cotton imports comes in the backdrop of a shortage in raw material for Pakistan’s textile sector, which has reportedly suffered due to low domestic yields of cotton. Also, imports from countries like the US and Brazil are costlier and take longer to arrive.

The decision on sugar was dictated by high domestic prices. Pakistani sugar imports in the period July 2020-February 2021 zoomed to 278,733 metric tomies from 4,358 metric tonnes in the same period in 2019-20. The increase in imports of the commodity was a measure “to stabilise the market prices”, Dawood said in a tweet on March 2.

Following the meeting of the country’s Economic Coordination Committee (ECC) on Wednesday, Pakistan’s Finance Minister Hammad Azhar said sugar imports would be allowed from India, as the price of the commodity was lower in India than in Pakistan.

“There has been sugar dependence between the two countries forever. Typically, what happens is, (because) they (Pakistan) produce sugar and we (India) also produce sugar, whenever they have a shortage, we have supplied their requirement and vice versa,” said Prof Nisha Taneja of the Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER), an expert on India’s regional trade. “Even when we had a very small positive list (of goods for trade with Pakistan), agricultural commodities were always there in the list,” she said.

Several experts expect Wednesday’s decisions to re-open the door for trade between India and Pakistan. This might be a good time for India to explore a reduction in its 200 per cent import duties on products that its industries can benefit from, Prof Taneja said.

“We have not reduced duties on anything.. .at 200 per cent duty, everything becomes unviable,” she said.
Answer:
When many developed countries were finding it difficult to maintain a growth rate of even 5 per cent, China was able to maintain near double-digit growth during 1980s as shown in table. Also, notice that in the 1980s, Pakistan was ahead of India; China was having double-digit growth and India was at the bottom. In 2015-17, there has been a decline in Pakistan and China’s growth rates, whereas, India met with moderate increase in growth rates.

Question 8.
Explain three observations point to find out the fields where India has an edge over Pakistan.
Answer:
India has edged over Pakistan in several fields which are:
(a) Skilled manpower and research and development institution in India are far superior to those in Pakistan.
(b) India has shown a remarkable breakthrough in the export of software after the economic reforms of 1991.
(c) Indian Scientists excel in the area of defence technology, space research and electronic.
(d) Issue of health facilities in general and infant mortality in particular are better addressed in India.

Question 9.
How both countries develop their development strategies for improving trade and to overcome terrorism?
Answer:
Both countries develop their strategies in various ways:
(a) Government-to-Government diplomatic talks to build confidence.
(b) Political stability in both the countries with stable government.
(c) Maintaing sporting ties between both countries.
(d) Proper sharing of intelligences to counter terrorism.

Question 10.
‘The situation of deficient demand builds deflationary pressures leading to a fall in the general price level in the economy’. Do you agree with this statement? State any two causes of deficient demand in the light of above statement.
Answer:
Yes, when aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply (at full employment condition), the demand is known as deficient demand. The producers are forced to reduce their output as prices and profits are hit adversely. This may result in unemployment of resources and reduced income in the economy which further reduces the demand for goods and services. This situation leads to deflationary gap.
Causes of deficient demand are:
(a) Fall in Consumption: Any decrease in the consumption demand of the households may lead to a fall in AD.
(b) Fall in Investments: Any decrease in the investment expenditure incurred by the households and firms may lead to a fall in AD and result in deficient demand-like situation.
(c) Fall in Government Expenditure: Government decreases its consumption or investment expenditure; it may result in a fall in money supply in the economy.
(d) Decrease in Net Exports: When the export of goods and services from an economy is less and import is more, this may result in lesser money at the disposal of the people in the economy leading to deficient demand.
(e) Budget Surplus: If an economy is facing budgetary surplus, it may result in deflationary gap.
(f) Higher Taxes: When the tax structure in the economy is stringent and doesn’t leave money at the disposal of the general public in the economy, this could prove to be deflationary in nature.

Question 11.
‘Monetary measures offer a valid solution to the problem of deflationary gap in an economy’. State and discuss any two non-monetary measures to justify the given statement.
Answer:
Non-monetary measures are:
(a) Marginal requirement: Commercial banks extend loans to businesses and dealers in exchange for the security of their commodities. The bank will never grant credit equivalent to the entire amount of the security. It is never worth for the banks to give credit more than the security. In situations of deficient demand, the margin requirements are reduced so as to encourage the borrowers to take more loans, as low margin requirement means more amount of loan provided to them.

(b) Credit rationing: The Central Bank can use this approach to direct commercial banks to lend more for specific objectives or priority sectors.

(c) Moral suasion: Moral suasion refers to the Central Bank’s persuasion, request, informal suggestion, advice, and appeal to commercial banks to cooperate with the Central Bank’s overall monetary policy. In cases of deficient demand, the Central Bank requests for extension of credit.

Question 12.
(a) Calculate gross value added at market price (GVAMP) from the following data:

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Depreciation 20
(ii) Domestic sales 200
(hi) Change in stock -10
(iv) Export 10
(v) Single use producer goods 120
(vi) Net indirect taxes 20

OR
(a) Calculate net value added at factor cost from the following data.

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Value of output 800
(ii) Intermediate consumption 200
(hi) Indirect taxes 30
(iv) Depreciation 20
(v) Subsidies 50
(vi) Purchase of machinery 50

(b) State three methods of calculating National Income.
Answer:
(a) Gross value added at market price (GVAMP) = Value of Output – Intermediate Consumption.
Value of Output = Total Sales (Sales + Export) + Change in Stock
Value of Output = (200 + 10) + (-)10
= 210 – 10 = 200
GVAMP = Sales + Change in Stock – Single use produces goods
= (200 + 10) + (-10) -120
GVAMP = 200 – 120
GVAMP = 80 crore

(b)

Basis Nominal GDP Real GDP
Meaning Value of all the goods and services produced by an economy at current market price. Value of goods and services produced by an economy, its investments, government spendings and exports.
Reliability Less reliable in comparison to Real GDP. More reliable in comparison to Nominal GDP.

OR
(a) GVAMP = Value of Output – Intermediate Consumption
= 800 – 200 = 600 crores
NVAFC = GVAMP – Depreciation – Indirect Tax + Subsidies
NVAFC = 600 – 20 – 30 + 50 = ₹600 crores

(b) The three methods of calculating National Income are:
(i) Value Added Method: The value added method is also known as the product method. Its main objective is to calculate National Income by taking the value added to a product during the various stages of production into account.
National Income (NI) = (NDPFC) + Net factor income from abroad

(ii) Expenditure Method: The expenditure method of National Income calculation is based on the expenditures taking place in the economy. This expenditure is done by individuals, households, business enterprises, and the government.
National Income (NI) = C + G + I + (X – M) Or, National Income (NI) = C + G + I + NX

(iii) Income Method: This method is based on the income generated by the individuals by providing services to the other people in the country either individually or by using the assets at disposal. The income generated from land, capital in the form of rent, interest, wages and profit is taken into consideration.
NNPFC = (NDPFC) + Net factor income from abroad

Question 13.
(a) Very few doctors are willing to live in rural areas. In the light of above statement, suggests any three measures for developing health infrastructure in the rural areas.

(b) Flealth care in India is suffering from urban-rural and rich-poor divide. Do you agree with the given statement? Give the reason by stating some statistical facts in the light of above statement.
Answer:

(a) It is very true that very few doctors are willing to live in rural areas. For this, we can take following measures:
(i) It must be a compulsory clause at the time of admission in MBBS that the person will have to work at least for 2 years in a rural area after completing his course.

(ii) Power should be made available for doctors at rural areas and road connectivity to rural areas should be ensured.

(iii) Another alternative can be Indian System of Medicine-AYUSH. It stands for Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Sidhdha, Naturopathy and Homeopathy.

(iv) There are 3004 ISM hospitals, 23,028 dispensaries and 6,111,431 registered practitioners in India. ‘We need to increase the number of hospitals, dispensaries and practitioners but precaution is that those practicing ISM must have proper degree.

(b) It is rightly said that health care in India suffers from urban-rural and rich-poor divide. 70% population is living in rural areas while 20% of the hospitals are located in rural areas. It means 80% hospitals are serving 30% population and out of 7 lakh beds only 11 % are in rural areas. There are only 0.36 hospitals for one lakh people in rural areas whereas it is 3.6 hospital per one lakh population in urban areas, i.e., number of hospitals in urban areas is 10 times the number of hospitals in rural areas. In villages, specialised medical care is completely missing like paediatrics, gynaecology, anaesthesia and obstetrics. PHCs located in rural areas do not have even X-ray or blood test facility. 20% of doctors passing leave the country for better prospects. Many others are interested in urban areas, rare are the ones interested in rural areas. The poorest one fifth spends 12% of their income on health while rich spend only 2% of their income on health.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • There are three sections in the Question paper namely Section A, Section B and Section C.
  • Section A consists of 9 questions amongst which 7 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 2 marks and should have 30-50 words.
  • Section B consists of 5 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 3 marks and should have 80-100 words.
  • Section C consists of 4 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 4 marks and should have 100-150 words.

Time : 2 Hrs.
Max. Marks : 35

Section A

Question 1.
Which type of sports injury is known as “Strain”?
Answer:
Strain is an injury to muscle or tendon. Tendons are fibrous cords of tissue that attach muscles to the bone. Strains often occur in foot, leg typically the hamstring) or back. It is a type of soft tissue injury.

Question 2.
Define active flexibility.
Answer:
Active flexibility focuses on improving soft tissue extensibility and increasing neuromuscular control. It includes foam rolling self-myofascial release) as well as active – isolated stretching.

Question 3.
Suggest any two isometric exercises for the shoulder region.
Answer:
Two isometric exercises for shoulder region are:

  • Pushing against the wall.
  • Holding push up position.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the term ‘Aggression’ in sports?
Answer:
In sports, aggression means an intention to harm or injure a player outside the rules of game so as to gain a competitive advantage or late tackling to stop an opponent from scoring.

Question 5.
What is first aid?
Answer:
It is an immediate care given to an injured or ill person. It does not take the place of proper medical treatment. It is a temporary assistance before actual medical care is obtained.

Question 6.
What type of sports injury can be termed as ‘Laceration’ in sports?
Answer:
Laceration is an irregular cut on the skin with a sharp object or sharp edged sports equipment.

Question 7.
What is ADHD?
Answer:
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity DisorderADHD) is a group of behavioral symptoms that include inattentiveness, hyperactivity and impulsiveness. It is medical condition that affects how well can someone sit still, focus and pay attention. The individual with ADHD has some problems focusing in ^ some activities. This type of disorder is found more common in boys than in girls.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Intellectual Disability?
Answer:
It is a disability characterised by significant limitations both in intellectual functioning reasoning, learning, problem solving) and in adaptive behaviour, which covers a range of everyday social and practical skills. Usually it occurs before the age of 18. It involves problems with general mental abilities

that affect functioning in two areas:

  • Intellectual functioning such as learning, problem-solving, judgment).
  • Adaptive functioning activities of daily life such as communication and independent living).

Question 9.
What is Hypertension?
Answer:
Hypertension means the increased blood pressure. It may eventually cause health problems such as s heart diseases.

Section B

Question 10.
What is meant by ‘motivation’? Explain the different techniques of motivation to achieve high goals in sports.
Answer:
Motivation means to be inspired to do something. Indeed, motivation is the inner condition of an individual that directs his behaviour towards a goal. The force of motivation incites individuals to perform some activities. It also determines individual’s direction of action and his intensity of action.

There are two types of motivation:
(i) Intrinsic Motivation: Intrinsic motivation is internal. It occurs when people are compelled to do something out of pleasure, importance or desire. Motivation is always intrinsic when the force comes from within oneself. For example, when a person indulges in any sport to have mastery, to display superiority or to gain social approval, it is an intrinsic motivation.

(ii) Extrinsic Motivation: Extrinsic motivation is external. It occurs when external factors compel the person to do something. Motivation is always extrinsic, when external forces, positive or negative, produce a behavioural change. Reward, punishment, praise, blame or cash prize are example of extrinsic motivation.

It has been found that such devices motivate some persons more strongly than others. Infact extrinsic motivation includes factors that motivate individual in achieving the goal.

Question 11.
What are the types of disability? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Types of disability are:
(i) Cognitive Disability: Cognitive disability generally refers to anyone with lower than average intellectual functioning. A person who has a cognitive disability has trouble in performing mental tasks that the average person would be able to do.

(ii) Intellectual Disability: Intellectual disability is a disability characterised by significant limitations in both intellectual functioning such as learning, problem-solving, and judgement) and in adaptive behaviour activities of daily life such as communication). This disability originates before the age of 18.

(iii) Physical Disability: A physical disability is a long term loss or impairment of part of body’s physical function. It can involve difficulties in walking and mobility, sitting and standing, use of hands and arms, sight, hearing, speech, muscle control etc.

Question 12.
Maintaining physical activities for a longer period, brings desirous changes in circulatory system. Justify your answer by highlighting three benefits of exercise.
Answer:
Benefits of exercises are:
(i) Heart size increases: The size of heart and strength of the cardiac muscles increase due to regular exercises as to the maximum extent the left ventricle adapts. The walls of the heart develop into stronger and thicker as shown in recent studies and the thickness of myocardial wall increases as well.

(ii) Resting heart rate decreases: The resting heart rate decreases due to regular exercises. After duration of 10 week training programme, the resting heart rate may reduce up to 30 beats per minute from the normal of 72 beats per minute. The heart becomes more efficient due to regular exercises. In highly conditioned athletes the resting heart rate decreases to 30 beats/minute.

(iii) Stroke volume increases at resting conditions: The stroke volume increases at resting conditions due to regular exercises. The stroke volume at rest remains up to 50-70 ml/beat in untrained individuals; in trained individuals it ranges from 70-90 ml/beat and in the elite endurance athletes it ranges from 90-110 ml/beat.

Question 13.
What do you understand by ‘First-Aid’? How will you manage joint injuries? Explain.
Answer:
It is the immediate care given to an injured or ill person. It does not take the place of proper medical treatment. It is a temporary assistance before actual medical care is obtained.

Management of point injuries:

  • Cold compression should be used immediately. The application of ice or cold water should not be used for more than 40 minutes persistently.
  • The cold compression should be performed 5 to 6 times daily.
  • If there is more swelling at the sight of contusion, the anti-inflammatory medicine should be given.
  • If the swelling persists, consult the doctor immediately.
  • For the purpose of rehabilitation, the flexibility exercises should be performed carefully.

Question 14.
Dynamic strength is divided into three parts. Write in brief about each.
Answer:
Dynamic strength is of following types:
(i) Maximum Strength: In a single muscular contraction it is the ability of muscle to contract over resistance of utmost intensity of stimulus. The most excellent examples are weight lifting and throwing events in track and field.

(ii) Explosive Strength: It can be stated as the ability to prevail over resistance by means of high speed. It combines strength and speed abilities and based on the nature of the blend of strength and speed, the explosive strength can be sub-divided further into start strength, power and speed strength.

(iii) Strength Endurance: Similar to explosive strength, it is a result of two motor abilities as well. Under conditions of fatigue, it is the ability to work against resistance. Depending on the actuality whether the movement is static or dynamic, strength endurance can be in form of static or dynamic strength. The strength endurance can be divided further into proper strength endurance and strength endurance depending on the kind of the blend of strength and endurance.

Section C

Question 15.
What are the benefits and contraindications of Vajrasana?
Answer:
As this pose is easy and can be practiced at any time of the day and by anyone, it has many benefits to the extent of healing ailments. This pose is used out of habit by yogis for meditative purposes.

Benefits of Vajrasana are:

(i) Heals body: The end of the spinal column menu danda) is so beautifully placed on the heels giving the body a great looking posture and helps in transporting the prana smoothly to the entire body. This flow of prana is the first stage to heal the body from within.

(ii) Increases flexibility in ankles: The ankles are bent so well giving room for greater flexibility right up to the tips of the toes.

(iii) Improves blood circulation: The folding of the knees and the thighs stretches these muscles and improves blood circulation and improves flexibility.

(iv) Strengthens pelvic muscles: In this pose as the spine is elevated away from the floor, the flow of blood is altered along with the nervous impulses in the pelvic region and pelvic muscles are strengthened.

(v) Improves digestion: As this is one of the few yoga poses which can be practiced even after a meal, it is considered as a good way to help in digestion and increases the efficiency of the digestive system.

Contraindications of Vajrasana are:

(i) Injured ankles or knees ligaments: This pose can be hard on the knees and the ankles if one is not flexible with these muscles andoints. This pose should not be practiced if one is suffering from injured ligaments at the ankles or at the knees.

(ii) Hernia or Ulcers: Those suffering from hernia or intestinal ulcers should take medical advice and guidance before practicing this and should perform this pose with a trained yoga teacher. The pressure on the anus in this pose may bring unwanted pressure to the intestine.

(iii) Runners with hamstring or calf injury: Runners should avoid this if they have injury in their hamstrings or the calves.

(iv) Arthritis in knees: Not to be practiced by people who have severe arthritis of the knees.

Question 16.
Explain in detail Goal setting and Reinforcement as technique of motivation.
Answer:
Goal setting and Reinforcement as technique of motivation are:

(i) Goal Setting: Achieving performance goals is a symbol of competency that affects motivation positively, hence it is essential to set realistic goals based on individual’s own abilities. The level of the motivation gets adversely affected when goals are set up too high or too low.

The goal should be realistic, precise and within reach but should at the same time be a difficult one. Goal settings have been acknowledged as an influential motivational technique as it mobilises an athlete’s hard work and extends his determination.

(ii) Reinforcement: Reinforcement is a vital motivational means. It refers to some kind of occurrence that increases or decreases the possibility of a similar reaction taking place in future. Positive reinforcements enlighten the athlete at what time he is doing something accurate and support the continuance of the activity in the precise direction.

Negative reinforcement is in general, of slight importance since it simply indicates that the actions are inaccurate devoid of providing information with respect to the accurate reaction or behaviour. It has been established that positive reinforcement to a large extent, has more motivational value than negative reinforcement.

Question 17.
Differentiate between 1 :1 and 1: 2 ratio interval training, with suitable examples.
Answer:
1:1 means load and the rest are equal, e.g., 1 minute exercise followed by 1 minute of rest. Similarly 1:2 means that the period of rest is double that of the load, e.g., 1 minute exercise followed by 2 minutes of rest.

The slow and extensive interval training methods can be given by using 1 :1 and 1 : 2. Fast or intensive interval training methods are also given by using 1 :1 and 1: 2.

Example: Most of the games and sports are based on the principle of load and rest, again load and rest. The rest period during training work load should not exceed five minutes.

Another example can be of a sprinter:
100 m sprint 100 m walk 1:1
100 m sprint 200 m walk 1: 2

Question 18.
What do you understand by coordinative ability? Discuss about different types of coordinative abilities.
Answer:
Coordination is the ability to integrate separate motor systems with varying sensory modalities into efficient movements. These are those abilities which enable an individual to do various related activities accurately and efficiently. Coordinative abilities mainly depend on the Central Nervous System.

The harmonious working together of the synchrony, rhythm, and sequencing aspect of one’s movements is crucial to coordinate movement. Various parts of the body may be involved, such as eye-foot coordination, as in kicking a ball or walking upstairs.

Eye-hand coordination is evident in fine motor activities such as bead stringing, tracing and clay modelling or in gross motor activities such as catching, striking or volleying a ball.

Following are different types of coordinative abilities:

(i) Coupling Ability: Coupling ability is to synchronize movements and direction efficiently and to let different parts to cooperate in order to achieve a desired and smooth movement. Coupling ability of the body is considered as capacity of an individual to perform better coordination of different parts of the body. For example, while dribbling a basketball, the coordination of both the limbs is required.

(ii) Reaction Ability: Reaction ability is a skill to react quickly to a stimulus. For example, chaser in Kho-Kho runs quickly after Kho is given.

(iii) Balance Ability: Balance ability is known as capability of an individual to maintain balance while the body is in motion. Even during distributed balance regaining the lost balance is known as balance ability.

(iv) Orientation Ability: The orientation ability is a skill to determine and change the position in complex situations. For example, defending an opponent in football, the position is changed according to the movement of opponent.

(v) Adaptation Ability: Adaptation ability is the capability of a person to change the movement on the basis of predicted changes. This ability is achieved after mastering the skills.

(vi) Rhythm Ability: Rhythm ability is to make out motor actions on a well-defined rhythm. Rhythm ability enables to grasp and express rhythm which is externally determined or contained in the motor activity itself.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Standard Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Max. Marks: 40
Time: 2 Hours

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
  • This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each, and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between final goods and intermediate goods. Give an example of each.
OR
Distinguish between Microeconomics and Macroeconomics. Give an example of each.
Answer:

Final Goods Intermediate Goods
(a) These are those goods which are either used for consumption or for investment purposes. These goods are those goods which are used either for resale or for further production in the same year.
(b) They are included in both national and domestic income. They are neither included in national income nor in domestic income.
(c) For e.g., milk purchased by households. For e.g., milk used in dairy for resale.

OR

Micro-economics Macro-economics
1. It is the study of individual economic units of an economy. It is the study of the economy as a whole and its aggregates.
2. It deals with individual income, individual prices, and individual outputs, etc. It deals with aggregates like National Income, general price level, and national output, etc.
3. Its central problem is price determination and allocation of resources. Its central problem is determination of level of income and employment.
4. Its main tools are demand and supply of particular commodity/factor. Its main tools are aggregate demand and aggregate supply of the economy as a whole.
5. It helps to solve the central problem of ‘what, how, and for whom to produce’ in the economy, It helps to solve the central problem of ‘full’ employment of resources in the economy.

Question 2.
As a result of increase in investment, National Income rises by ₹600 crores. If the Marginal Propensity to Consume is 0.75, Calculate the increase in investment.
OR
If Personal Disposable Income is ₹1,000 crores and consumption expenditure is ₹750 crores, find out Average Propensity to Save.
Answer:
Here, ΔY = ₹ 600 crores, MPC = 0.75
Now, K = \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\)
⇒ K = \(\frac{1}{1-0.75}\)
or K = \(\frac{1}{0.25}\) = 4

Again, we know that K = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Y}}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
⇒ K = \(\frac{600}{\Delta \mathrm{I}}\)
∴ ΔI = \(\frac{600}{4}\) = ₹ 150 crores
OR
Y = ₹ 1,000 , C = ₹ 75O
S = Y – C =₹ 1,000 – 750 = ₹250
APS = \(\frac{\mathrm{S}}{\mathrm{Y}}=\frac{250}{1,000}\) = 0.25

Question 3.
The value of the investment multiplier varies between one and infinity. Justify the given statement.
Answer:
Since,K = \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}\)
Hence, even if the MPC will have its minimum value, i.e. zero, the investment multiplier will be 1. Similarly, when MPC = 1, the value of investment multiplier is infinity. So, we can say that the value of investment multiplier varies between 1 and infinity.

Question 4.
What is the state of rural infrastructure in India?
OR
Determine the distribution of employment from the graph given below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1
Answer:
State of infrastructure in rural India can be understood from the following points:
(a) In spite of the technological progress, woman of rural India are still using biofuels to meet their daily energy requirements. About 90% of the rural households use bio-fuels for cooking.
(b) The Census of 2001 shows that in rural India, only 56% of households have an electricity connection and 43% still use kerosene.
(c) Tap water availability is limited to only 24% rural households. About 76% of the population drinks water from open resources such as well, ponds, etc. Women go long distances to fetch water for their basic needs.
(d) Access to improved sanitation in rural areas was only 20%.
OR
According to the given graph:
(a) The self-employed accounts for 40% of the workforce in urban areas, the self-employment contributes towards the major source of livelihood in the urban areas.
(b) The casual workers account for 37% of the workforce in rural area and 18% of workforce in urban area.
(c) The regular salaried employees accounts for 40% of the workforce in urban area and only 7% for rural area. This indicates that more employment opportunities are available in urban areas.

Question 5.
Infrastructure is a major component that contributes in the economic development of the country. Justify the given statement with the valid argument.
Answer:
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country and it is an important determinant of its growth and development. It raises productivity induces investment in different areas of economic activity, raises size of the market, facilitates outsourcing and employment. Thus, it is an essential support system for the economic development of the country.

Question 6.
Giving valid reasons explain which of the following will not be included in the estimation of National Income:
(a) Payment of interest by a firm to a bank
(b) Payment of interest by a bank to an individual
(c) Payment of interest by an individual to a bank
OR
If nominal income is ₹ 500 and price index is 125, calculate real income.
Answer:
(a) Payment of interest by a firm to bank will be included in the National Income. This is because the firm would have taken loan for productive purposes.
(b) Payment of interest by a bank to an individual will be included in the National Income. This is because the bank would have used the savings of the individuals (on which the loan is paid) for productive purposes.
(c) Payment of interest by an individual to a bank vi11 not be included in the National Income. This is because the individual is expected to have taken a loan for consumption purposes rather than for productive purposes.
OR
Real Income = (Nominal Income ÷ Price Index of current year) x Price Index of base year.
Let the base year’s price index he loo.
Real Income (500 ÷ 125) x 100
= 4 x 100
= ₹ 400

Question 7.
The following table shows distribution of workforce in India for the year 1972-73. Analyse the data and give reasons for the nature of. workforce distribution.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 2
Read the following text carefully and answer the question number 8 and 9 given below:
The top economic body of Pakistan, Economic Coordination Council (ECC) lifted the ban on Import of Cotton and Sugar from India after 2 years when India took the decision to scrap Article 370 in 2019. India is the world’s largest producer of cotton and the second-largest producer of sugar. Pakistan was one of the leading buyers of Indian cotton and sugar until 2019.

Trade relations between the two nations have always been linked to their political relationship. Terrorist attacks in Uri in 2016, surgical strikes by India and Article 370 were some of the issues that led Pakistan to suspend bilateral trade with India in August 2019. India also imposed 200% tariff on imports from Pakistan and revoked its status as Most Favoured Nation after attack on CRPF in Pulwama. Pakistan also revoked India’s status as MFN and hike duties on its goods.

Trade between the two countries suffered greatly in 2019-20 with India’s Exports to Pakistan dropped nearly 60.5% and imports dropped around 97%.
Answer:
From the given table, following points can be noticed about the nature of workforce distribution:
(a) Majority of the workforce was residing in the rural areas in India in the year 1972-73. The total workforce was 233 million out of which 194 million workers were from rural areas and 39 million from the urban areas. Thus, 83% of the total workforce was rural as compared to 17% of the urban workforce. The reason for this was that a majority of population was living in rural areas during that period.

(b) The rural workforce comprises of 64% of the male workf orce and 36% of female workforce. On the other hand, the urban workforce comprises of about 82% of male workforce and 18% of female workforce. This shows that participation of males in both rural as well as urban areas is higher than that of the females because of lack of opportunities available to women for acquiring education and also the social structure and family norms which did not encourage women to work.

(c) Another feature of workforce distribution is the difference between urban female workforce and rural female workforce. Females in the rural areas formed 36% of the workforce, whereas, the females in the urban areas formed only 18% of the workforce.

This may be attributed to the fact that where men are able to earn high incomes, families discourage female members from taking up jobs. Earnings of urban male workers are generally higher than rural males and so the urban families do not want females to work. Thus, it can be concluded by analyzing the above table that majority of the workforce was from the rural areas and there was low female participation rate in the workforce during that period.

Question 8.
Discuss the implications of lifting of ban on import of sugar and cotton by Pakistan on its economy.
Answer:
(a) Import of cotton from India will certainly help the textile industry of Pakistan to flourish because imports from other countries like the US and Brazil have been more expensive for Pakistan and take longer time to arrive as compared to India. Pakistan use cotton to produce quality fabrics for export. It helps to stabilize the market price of sugar. It is one of the essential commodities.

(b) Import of sugar is also cheaper from India as compared to other countries. These steps will help the domestic manufacturers of Pakistan to reduce their cost of production with quality.

Question 9.
State any two ways in which Indian economy will benefit from this step.
Answer:
(a) Export of cotton and sugar will increase because of huge demand of Indian cotton and sugar in Pakistan. It will lead to surplus in trade balance of India.

(b) For agricultural commodities, both countries are interdependent, especially at the time of crisis shortfall. So, trade relations between both the nations will improve.

Question 10.
What is meant by aggregate demand? State its components.
Answer:
Aggregate Demand (AD) refers to the total expenditure on consumption and investment by different sectors of the economy.

Aggregate Demand comprises of the following components:
(a) Private Consumption Expenditure (C): Household expenditure on goods and services during an accounting year is called consumption expenditure. It depends upon the level of income of the households.

(b) Investment Expenditure (I): Investment expenditure is the expenditure on goods by private investors, which add to their capital stock. These goods include producers’ durable, equipment, new construction and change in inventories.

(c) Government Expenditure (G): Government expenditure, both consumption and investment, on public goods such as opening of schools, construction of roads, maintaining law and order, providing justice, etc.

(d) Net Exports (X – M): Net exports is the difference between total imports and total exports.

Question 11.
What is monetary policy? Explain the role of
(i) Bank rate and
(ii) Margin requirements in influencing the availability of credit in an economy.
Answer:
Monetary policy is the policy relating to the regulation of supply of money, rate of interest, and availability of money, with a view to combat the situation of inflationary or deflationary gap in the economy. This policy is generally adopted by the Central Bank of the country.

(a) Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Central Bank offers loan to the commercial banks as ‘lender of last resort. During inflation, bank rate is increased to reduce the money supply in the economy because commercial banks will also increase the interest accordingly. It will keep a check on the borrowing from commercial banks. Thus, overall supply of money/credit is reduced in the economy. During deflation, bank rate is lowered leading to increase in supply of money/credit.

(b) Margin requirements: A margin is the difference between market value of the security offered for loan and the amount of loan offered by the commercial bank. During inflation, supply of money/ credit is reduced by raisins the requirement of margin and vice-versa.

Question 12.
(a) Calculate National Income.

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Personal tax 80
(ii) Private final consumption expenditure 600
(iii) Undistributed profits 30
(iv) Private income 650
(v) Government final consumption expenditure 100
(vi) Corporate tax 50
(vii) Net domestic fixed capital formation 70
(viii) Net indirect tax 60
(ix) Depreciation 14
(x) Change in stocks (-)10
(xi) Net imports 20
(xii) Net factor income to abroad 10

(b) Distinguish between stocks and flows. Give an example of each.
OR
(a) Calculate National Income and GDPMp by the income method using the following information:

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Private final consumption expenditure 1,300
(ii) Net factor income earned from abroad (NIFA) 50
(iii) Mixed income of self-employed 500
(iv) Subsidies 100
(v) Indirect tax 200
(vi) Consumption of fixed capital 1,000
(vii) Operating surplus 5,000
(viii) Compensation of employees 1,500

(b) Explain Circular Flow of Income in a two-sector economy.
Answer:
(a) National Income Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + (Net domestic fixed capital formation + Depreciation + Change in stock) – Net imports – Depreciation – Net indirect taxes – Net factor income to abroad National Income
= 600+100+(70+14-10)-20-14-60-10
National Income = ₹ 670 crore
(b)

Stock Flow
1. Stock refers to the value of a variable at a
point of time.
Flow refers to the value of a variable during a period of time.
2. It is measured at a specific point of time. It is measured per hour, per month or per year.
3. Stock impacts the flow. Greater the stock of capital greater is flow of goods and services. Flow impacts the stock, greater the flow of income, greater is the stock of wealth with the people.
4. Example: Capital and quantity of money. Example: Export and imports.

OR
(a) By income method:
National Income (NNPFC) = Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus + Mixed Income +NFIA
= 1500 + 5000 + 500 + 50 = ₹ 7050 crores
GDPMP = NNPFC + Consumption of fixed capital (Depreciation) – NFIA + NIT (Net indirect tax)
=7050+1000-50+100
= ₹ 8100 crores
NNPFC = ₹ 7050 Cr.
GDPMP = ₹ 8100 Cr.

(b) Circular flow of income in a two-sector economy: In a two-sector economy, households are the owners of factors of production. They provide factor services (in the form of labour, capital, land, and entrepreneurship) to the firms. Firms produce goods and services and make factor payments (in the form of wages and salaries, interest, rent, and profit) to the households. So, factor payments flow from firms to households.

The factor income earned by the households will be used to buy the goods and services produced by the firms, for which they make payments to the firms. So, consumption expenditure (i.e., spending on goods and services) flows from households to the firms. Thus, aggregate final consumption expenditure by the households in the economy is equal to the aggregate factor income received by the households.

Question 13.
(a) It has been realized that labour force participation rate is very low in India. As an economist, suggest the measure to raise labour force participation rate.
(b) A study estimates that medical costs alone push down 2.2% of the population below the poverty line each year. In the light of the above statement discuss how.
Answer:
(a) I would suggest the following measures to raise the labour force participation rate:

  • There should be drastic reduction in birth and death rates to improve the age structure of the population.
  • There should be more and more opportunities for women to participate in economic activities.
  • The general standard of health of the population must be raised.
  • Employment opportunities should be increased.

(b) Public health facilities are highly inadequate in our country. These facilities are also lacking in quality. So even poor and middle-class people do not prefer to use these facilities. So, in case of a medical emergency, they are forced to avail expensive services of private hospitals and health centers. These expenses prove to be a heavy burden on these families and they are forced to sell whatever valuables they have, to fund the treatment. This pushes the families below the poverty line.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Standard Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
  • This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between ex-ante investment and ex-post investment.
OR
Distinguish between induced and autonomous investment.
Answer:

Basics Ex-ante Investment Ex-post Investment
Meaning It refers to the planned or intended investment during a particular period of time. It refers to the actual level of investment during a particular period of time.
Importance It is imaginary (intended), in which a firm assumes the level of investment on its own. It is factual or original that signifies the existing investment of a particular time.
Time It is planned on the basis of future expectations. It is the actual result of variables.

or

Basis Autonomous investment Induced investment
Relation with income Autonomous investment is unaffected by the level of income. Induced investment is positively influenced by the level of income.
Motive Economic stability Profit earning
Elasticity Income inelastic Income elastic
Determined by Consideration of economic welfare Consideration of profit
Investment curve Horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis Positively sloped

Question 2.
Calculate the equilibrium level of income in the economy.
C = 500 + (0.9)Y; Investment expenditure = 3,000
OR
Calculate investment expenditure from the following data about an economy which is in equilibrium where National Income = ₹1,000, Marginal Propensity to Save = 0.20 and Autonomous consumption expenditure = ₹100.
Answer:
Given C = 500 + (0.9)Y, Investment expenditure, (I) = ₹3,000;
At equilibrium level, Y = C + I
⇒ Y = 500 + (0.9) Y + 3,000
⇒ Y – (0.9) Y = 3,500
⇒ (0.1)Y = 3,500
Y = \(\frac{3,500}{0.1}\) = 35,000
Therefore, equilibrium level of income = ₹35,000.
OR
Given, National Income(Y) = 1,000, Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.20,
Autonomous consumption expenditure (\(\bar{C}\)) = 100
MPC = 1 – MPS
= 1 – 0.20
= = 0.8
We know that Y = C + I
Since, C = \(\bar{C}\) + cY
We have, Y = \(\bar{C}\) + cY + I
1,000 = 100 + 0.8 (1,000) + I
1,000 = 900 + I
I = 100
Therefore, investment expenditure is ₹100.

Question 3.
“Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is not the best indicator of the economic welfare of a country. Justify the given statement with valid reasons.
Answer:
Yes, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is not the best indicator of the economic welfare of a country.”
(a) Distribution of GDP: If the GDP of the country is rising, it is not necessary that the welfare will also rise. This is because with every increase in the level of GDP, it is not necessary that distribution of
income is also equitable. Increase in GDP may be a result of increase in income of a few individuals.
K On the other hand, the majority of people remain deprived of the benefits of the rise in GDP.

(b) Non-monetary exchanges: In the rural economy, the barter system of exchange still prevails to some extent. Payments for farm labour are often made in kind rather than in cash. All such transactions remain unrecorded which causes underestimation of GDP.

Question 4.
How can we increase the effectiveness of healthcare programmes?
OR
Analyse the recent trends in sectoral distribution of workforce in India.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 1
Answer:
We can increase the effectiveness of healthcare programmes in the following manner:
(a) The wide gap between rural and urban areas, poor and rich in utilising health care facilities must be addressed through more investment in health facilities in rural and backward areas by the government as private investment is not forthcoming in these areas.

(b) Women’s health across the country should be taken into greater focus as a healthy mother gives birth to a healthy off spring and health status of population can be improved.

(c) Regulated private sector health services, NGOs and community participation can improve the effectiveness of health care facilities and play an important role in spreading health awareness.

(d) Indian system of medicine including ayurveda and naturopathy should be explored and used to support public health as they are based on natural healing” and are of preventive nature.
OR
The given data indicates that over the given period, the proportion of workforce in primary sector has gone down significantly. Whereas, the employment share of both secondary sector and the service sector has increased gradually.

While the share of secondary sector has gone up by approximately 9% recently, the corresponding figure for service sector has gone up by approximately 7.1%. This also shows that dependency on agriculture remained high as secondary and service sector wasn’t created enough employment.

Question 5.
Children below 15 years of age and the old people beyond 60 years are not considered while counting the number of unemployed. Do you agree? Justify the given statement.
Answer:
Yes, I agree that children below 15 years of age and the old people beyond 60 years are not considered while counting the number of unemployed because these persons cannot become part of labour force even when they are able and willing to work.

Question 6.
Suppose the GDP at market price of a country in a particular year was ₹1,100 crores. Net factor income from abroad was ₹100 crores. The value of Indirect taxes – Subsidies was Cl 50 crore and National Income was ₹850 crores. Calculate the aggregate value of depreciation.
OR
Giving reason stating how the following are treated in estimation of National Income.
(a) Payment of interest by a firm to a bank.
(b) Payment of interest by a bank to an individual.
(c) Payment of interest by an individual to a bank.
Answer:
National Income (NNPFC) = ₹850 crore
GDPMP = ₹1100 crore
NIFA = ₹100 crore
Net indirect taxes = ₹150 crore
NNPFC = GDPMP + NIFA – Depreciation – Net indirect tax
By putting value
850 = 1100 + 100 – Depreciation – 150
Depreciation = ₹200 crore
OR
(a) Payment of interest by a firm to a bank: It will be ‘included’ in the estimation of National Income, as it is a factor income. Also, firms take loans for investment purposes.

(b) Payment of interest by a bank to an individual: It will be ‘included’ in the estimation of National Income as it is a factor income.

(c) Payment of interest by an individual to a bank: It will ‘not be included’ in the estimation of National Income as consumer takes a loan for consumption purposes.

Question 7.
Study the following information and analyse the ‘Distribution of Employment on the basis of Gender’.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 2
Read the following text carefully and answer the question number 8 and 9 given below:
Indo-Sino relation
Border disputes between India and China are not a new thing. However, unlike the 1960s, when the two economies were practically irrelevant in the global order, today, things are completely different. China and India not only account for 2.7 billion people – roughly 40% of the 7.5 billion people on the planet – but are also two of the biggest economies in the world.

It is another matter that at a per capita GDP level, both countries are relatively “poor” when compared to some of the most developed economies. For instance, as of 2018, the per capita GDP of the United States was $54,659 while that of Sweden was even higher at $57,966. In comparison, China (at $7,752) and India (at $2,100) lag far behind. India, in particular, is the worst of the lot. China’s per capita GDP is roughly 4 times India’s; the US and Sweden’s are a whopping 26 and 27 times. This shows how far an average Indian is from an average Chinese or American. That is why economists repeat it ad nauseam that India has to grow rapidly for several decades at a stretch if it wants the average level of lifestyle to reach anywhere close to the developed world.

In this context, the spilling over of the latest border dispute between these two Asian giants into the economic sphere is particularly ill-timed. Hurt by China’s aggression, several Indians, including many in the government, have argued in favour of boycotting the use of Chinese products. However, for a variety of reasons, this strategy, while targetting China, is likely to hurt India far more.

For one, contrary to perception, India imports a lot of intermediate goods from China, and stopping that trade will affect our ability to produce finished goods. The Indian Express found companies across import- dependent sectors such as automobile, pharmaceuticals, electronics, telecommunications, etc. claiming that any move in this direction could be counter-productive, impacting the overall competitiveness of the Indian manufacturing sector and undermining our competitiveness to export.
Many readers have asked if that means India should resign to becoming a “slave” to Chinese imports. Thankfully, the answer is “No”. But, the path to overcoming our dependence on Chinese goods – or for that matter, imports of any other country – requires Indian policymakers and businesses to put in real hard work and not resort to lazy solutions such as banning trade or raising tariff barriers.

The first thing to understand is that India’s poor share in global trade, especially on goods, is a reflection of our acute lack of competitiveness. This is the harsh truth but far too often, instead of accepting this reality, policymakers have blamed India’s stagnant exports performance on weak global demand.

An analysis by HSBC in late 2016 showed that weak global demand explained only 33% of the slowdown in Indian exports. The biggest culprits were “domestic bottlenecks” – explaining 50% of the slowdown. The remaining 17% was blamed on an overvalued rupee.

The impact of domestic bottlenecks (such as poor infrastructure, lack of reliable electricity, logistical delays, regulatory hurdles, problems in enforcing contracts etc.) was higher still – 60% – when one looked at only the trade in goods (that is, by leaving aside the trade in services).

There’s little any individual country can do about global growth or demand – that’s a factor which is the same for all nations. What matters then are domestic bottlenecks and rupee exchange rate.

On the exchange rate, the jury is still out. Some argue that a cheaper rupee would make our exports more competitive – and that seems fairly straightforward. Others argue that a stronger rupee will help us import intermediary goods at a cheaper price thus helping our export competitiveness.
Answer:
The above chart shows the distribution of employment by gender, i.e., male and female. The chart shows that self-employment is a major source of livelihood for both men and women as this category accounts for more than 50 per cent of the workforce, i.e., 52 per cent for males and 52 per cent for females. Casual wage work is the second major source for both men and women, which is 24 and 27 per cent respectively. When it comes to regular salaried employment, both women and men on share of 24 per cent and 21 per cent. The gap between men and women is very less.

Question 8.
Outline and discuss any two consequence which China has edge over India?
Answer:
China has edge over India as:
(a) Inward looking policy of self-sufficiency and protection of domestic industry from foreign competition has gradually been replaced by the new policy.

(b) It allowed the foreign investor the freedom to ‘hire and fire’ the workers. It also offered them a lucrative infrastructure.

(c) By establishing SEZ (special economic zone), it offered lucrative infrastructure to the foreign investor.

Question 9.
Is ‘Make in India campaign’ make India to become a global trading partner? Comment.
Answer:
Yes. ‘Make in India Campaign’ make India globally partner as:
(a) The make in India campaign will lead to an increase in exports and manufacturing. An increase in exports will improve the economy and India will be transformed into a global hub of manufacturing through global investment using the current technology. Manufacturing will also boost India’s economic growth and GDP.

(b) Make in India is an open invitation to manufacturers present in every corner of the world. For inviting as many manufacturers as possible, the government has removed many restrictions.

(c) It will welcome more FDI. Since the government had promised to improve the ease of running businesses in India, it is going to attract FDI.

Question 10.
‘When in an economy, aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, the demand is said to be a deficient demand.’ Do you agree with this statement? State the effect of demand on price, output and employment in the light of above statement.
Answer:
No, when in an economy, aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, the demand is said to be an excess demand. Effects of excess demand are:
(a) Increase in general price level: Excess demand rise general price level, it arises when aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply at a full employment level.

(b) Output: Excess demand has no effect on the level of output because the economy is at full employment level and there is no idle capacity in the economy.
(c) Employment: There will be no change in the level of employment also. The economy is already operating at full employment equilibrium, and hence, there is no unemployment.

Question 11.
‘Open market operations’ offer a valid solutions to the problem of deflationary gap in an economy. Justify the statement by defining deflationary gap.
Answer:
Deflationay gap is the shortfall in aggregate demand from the level required to maintain full employment equilibrium in the economy. It causes deficient demand in the economy. Owing to deficient demand, planned level of output is reduced. Along with reduction in the level of output, level of income and employment also tend to reduce. The economy is driven into a state of low level equilibrium trap.

Open market operations is the policy that focuses on increasing and decreasing the stock of liquidity (or cash balances) with the people as well as with the commercial banks, through sale and purchase of securities by the Central Bank. During the situation of deflationary gap, when cash balances need to be increased (to stimulate the level of aggregate demand), the Central Banks starts buying securities. Purchase of securities injects purchasing power into the money market.

Question 12.
(a) Calculate Net National Product at Market Price from the following data:

Items (₹ in crores)
(i) Mixed income of self-employed 8,000
(ii) Depreciation 200
(iii) Profit 1,000
(iv) Rent 600
(v) Interest 700
(vi) Compensation of employees 3,000
(vii) Net indirect taxes 500
(viii) Net factor income to abroad 60
(ix) Net exports (-)50
(x) Net current transfers to abroad 20

(b) Differentiate between ‘Real GDP’ and ‘Nominal GDP’.
OR
(a) From the following data, calculate “Net Value Added at Factor Cost”:

Items (₹ in lakhs)
Sales 400
Change in Stock (-) 20
Intermediate consumption 200
Net indirect taxes 40
Exports 50
Depreciation 30

(b) State any precautions that are taken while calculating National Income by expenc iture method.
Answer:
(a) Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC) = Compensation of Employees + Rent + Interest + Profit + Mixed Income of Self Employed
= 3,000 + 600 + 700 + 1,000 + 8,000 = ₹13,300 crores.

Net National Product at Market Price (NNPMP)
= NDPFC – Net Factor Income to Abroad + Net Indirect Taxes
= 13,300 – 60 + 500
= ₹13,740 crores

Basis for Comparison Nominal GDP Real GDP
Meaning The aggregate market value of the economic output produced in a year within the boundaries of the country is known as Nominal GDP. Real GDP refers to the value of economic output produced in a given period, adjusted according to the changes in the general price level.
What is it? GDP without the effect of inflation. Inflation adjusted GDP
Expressed in Current year prices Base year prices or constant prices.
Value Higher Generally, lower.
Uses Comparison of various quarters of the given year can be made. Comparison of two or more financial year can be done easily.
Economic Growth Cannot be analysed easily. Good indicator of economic growth.

OR
(a) Value of output = Sales value + Change in stock
= ₹400 – ₹20 = ₹380 lakhs.
GVAMP = Value of Output – Intermediate Consumption
= ₹380 – ₹200 = ₹180 lakhs.
NVAFC = GVAMP – Depreciation – Net indirect taxes
= ₹80 – ₹30 – ₹40 = ₹110 lakhs.

(b) While using the expenditure method, the following precautions are required to be taken, related to
the calculation of National Income:
(i) Only final expenditure is to be taken into account to avoid the error of double counting of expenditures.

(ii) Expenditure on second-hand goods is not to be included, because such expenditure has already been included when they are originally purchased. However, any commission or brokerage on such goods is included as it is a payment made for productive service.

(iii) Expenditure on the purchase of financial assets such as shares and bonds is not to be included in total expenditure, as these are mere paper claims and are not related to the production of final goods and services.

(iv) Expenditure on transfer payments by the government is not to be included as such payments are not connected with any productive activity and there is no value addition.

(v) Imputed value/estimated value of expenditure on goods produced for self-consumption should
be taken into account, as these goods are reflected in the estimation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Question 13.
(a) Some infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on production of goods and services while others give indirect support by building the social sector of the economy. In the light of above statement, state three difference between social and economic infrastructure.

(b) Compared to urban women more rural women are found working. Do you agree with the given statement? State any two reason in the light of above statement.
Answer:
(a)

Basics Social Infrastructure Economic Infrastructure
Meaning Social infrastructure helps the economic system from outside, (i.e., indirectly) Economic infrastructure helps the economic system from inside, (i.e., directly)
Purpose Social infrastructure improves the quality of human resources. Economic infrastructure improves the quality of economic resources.
Example For example: health, education and housing. For example: energy, transport and communication.

Basics Social Infrastructure Economic Infrastructure
Meaning Social infrastructure helps the economic system from outside, (i.e., indirectly) Economic infrastructure helps the economic system from inside, (i.e., directly)
Purpose Social infrastructure improves the quality of human resources. Economic infrastructure improves the quality of economic resources.
Example For example: health, education and housing. For example: energy, transport and communication.

(b) Yes, the difference in participation rates is very high between urban and rural women.
(i) In urban areas, for every 100 urban females, only about 14 are engaged in some economic activities. In rural areas, for every 100 rural women, about 26 participate in the employment market. It is because of poverty that women in rural areas are forced to seek employment.

(ii) On the other hand, women belonging to affluent families in urban areas generally do not work. In agriculture and allied activities, high skill and expertise are not required, hence women work to support their families. Also in the rural area, the size of the families is large, so the women work to feed their large families.

(iii) It is common to find that where men are able to earn high incomes, families discourage female members from taking up jobs. Earnings of urban male workers are generally higher than rural males and so urban families do not want females to work.

(iv) Apart from this, many activities of the household in which urban women are engaged, are not recognised as productive work, while women working on farms in the rural areas are considered a part of the workforce if they are being paid wages in cash or in the form of food grains.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40

Section-A
Reading

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

1. Few would know about Voltaire, the eminent French philosopher, writer, historian and fierce critic of The Roman Catholic Church. His real name was Francois-Marie Arouet. He decided to cross the English Channel and fell in love with England. He was extremely happy to find that there was a breath of fresh air. The works of Newton amazed him. His works represented the opposite of the arcane and ancient country that France was. A nation held to ransom by the aristocratic system. Newton’s prediction of the trajectory impressed him, how the planets moved exactly the way his laws predicted.

2. When he returned to Paris, he pushed Newton’s new vision. To be on the safe side, he had adopted a new pen name: Voltaire. To promote his views he needed a place, a patron who was not locked into the old guard’s thinking. He founded it in a girl, a tomboy of sorts, Emilie du Chatelet. A patron quite apart from other girls of her age. A real investigator of the physical world. She almost came very close to come up with the law of conservation of mass, much before Lavoisier was bom. Only it was her laboratory equipment that were not accurate.

3. Emilie was different. She came alongside the German mathematician, Gottfried Leibniz’ analysis to believe that energy cannot be lost. The final conclusion of energy being proportional with mv was due to her tireless efforts. Of course it was the decisive evidence that came from the recent experiments of a Dutch researcher, Willem Jacob’s Gravesande. Willem wasn’t a kind of theoretician like Leibniz to put it all together. Emilie’s work on this topic bridged the gap. It was a huge discovery that went unnoticed. Even Lavoisier who shared fame for discovering the law of conservation of mass couldn’t come to grasp this important concept.

4. Although Voltaire thought that she was wasting her time but she was unfazed. When it came to her own work, she took time and was very methodical. Along with her colleagues she published her finding without any delay. Emilie died whilst in labour in early September 1749 and Lavoisier was bom on August 26, 1743. A century later even Michael Faraday and others used mv2. The commanding role of this wonderful lady was nearly forgotten.

5. “Judge a man by his questions rather than by his answers.” This was a famous quote made by Voltaire that hinted at a break with old tradition and his attack on the Catholic Church and perhaps a close association with Emilie might have been a motivation to contribute towards the progress of science and scientific temper, although indirectly.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below.

i. State any one trait of Voltaire that is evident from paragraph 1 and provide a reason for your choice.
Answer:
Voltaire was a visionary who was very much willing to step into an advanced tomorrow, by shunning the archaic feudalism of French Aristocracy.

ii. When looking for a patron, Voltaire founded it in a girl, a tomboy of sorts. Why did he think of her as a ‘tomboy’?
Answer:
Emilie was a great mathematician, a real investigator of the physical world which was very unlikely for an 18th Century woman. Such traits were generally associated with men at that time. Thus, Voltaire thought of her as a tomboy.

iii. Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that Voltaire was in awe of Newton’s work.
Answer:
Newton’s prediction of the trajectory impressed Voltaire, how the planets moved exactly the way his laws predicted. When he returned to Paris, he pushed Newton’s new vision into his philosophy as well.

iv. Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from paragraph 1. Our school decided to host a themed farewell party which was a pleasantly different chanye.
Answer:
Our school decided to host a themed farewell party which was a breath of fresh air.

v. Why do you think Emilie’s works were left largely overlooked regarding the law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
Emilie had the potential of being the greatest scientist of her time but was confined because of her gender. Her approach to law of conservation of mass was correct, only it was her laboratory equipment that were not accurate.

vi. Which other scientists reap the benefits from Emilie’s works?
Answer:
Willem Jacob’s Gravesande, Lavoisier and Michael Faraday all applied Emilie’s discoveries in their works.

vii. Analyse why Voltaire thought that Emilie was wasting her time?
Answer:
Emilie took time and was very methodical in substantiating her calculations. A huge portion of her works was left unnoticed which made Voltaire feel like she was wasting her time.

viii. Select a suitable phrase from paragraph 3 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

We successfully achieved communal harmony by finding an endearing common ground that between the groups.
Answer:
We successfully achieved communal harmony by finding an endearing common ground that bridged the gap between the groups.

ix. What does the use of the quote ‘Judge a man by his questions rather than by his answers’ suggest in the context of the Voltaire’s viewpoint?
Answer:
Voltaire’s quote hinted at a break with old tradition and his attack on the Catholic Church by promoting the progress of science and scientific temper.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.

1. 1 in every 10 workers in India is a child; a child who is guaranteed protections under the Indian Law, and guaranteed an education and mid-day meals, till the age of 14. The sight of a chotu running to fetch you a chai on the train platform or at your local tea stall, isn’t much of a sight in India. In fact, one could almost say that the chotu has become so ubiquitous, that him not being there would be a bit confusing for some of the regulars. It has been normalised and has become an internalised personality trait of the larger Indian society, which tacitly continues to support the chotu culture at the tea stall and within the home.

Chart 1 : Services overtakes manufacturing as the largest non-farm child employer
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 6 Set 3 with Solutions 1
(% of children under the age of 14 employed in various sectors)

2. In fact it’s become so natural that, when engaging with some of our more conscientious Friend, both chotu and we, know the routine to pull off. You casually ask chotu how old he is as he cleans your table, and he, with a pail the size of his torso, responds saving he’s 18. Ills gangly limbs and prepubescent face are a dead giveaway, but now that he said he is 18, there’s not much you can do… is there?

3. According to the UNICEF, there are about 10.1 million children employed in child labour in India today.

That amounts Lo approximately 13% of our workforce. India has been trying to combat this blight since pre-republic times with the passing of the Employment of Children Act, 1938. While primitive, it was evident that even under an extractive colonial regime, it was understood that the use of children in the production process was anathema. Post-independence, the Factories Act, 1948 and the Mines Act, 1952,banned the practice of using children below the age of 14 and 18. in their respective production processes.

4. This set the tone for the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act of 1986 which prevents the employment of children below the age of 14 years in life-threatening occupations identified in a list by the law and Finally the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) of children Act of 2000 made the employment of children a punishable offence.

5. The JJ Act came into force shortly after India ratified the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC), in 1992 and made the offence punishable with imprisonment from three months to one year or with fine no less than INR 10,000-20,000 rupees or with both. The Right to Education Act, passed in 2009, was supposed to go beyond punishing people for child labour to creating a conducive environment for building the capabilities of all Indian children, so that they could have a complete education and enter the workforce out of choice and not compulsion. However, even after all this, child labour continues to be the norm in a lot of industries.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions out of the seven given below.

i. What is the data of UNICEF regarding child labour?
Answer:
According to the UNICEF, there are about 10.1 million children employed in child labour in India today.
That amounts to approximately 13% of Indian workforce.

ii. What does the writer mean by ‘chotu culture’?
Answer:
The term ‘chotu’ has become so ubiquitous while referring to all forms of child labour, that it has been normalised and has become an internalised personality trait of the larger Indian society.

iii. As per the chart given in the passage, which sector is the lowest child employer?
Answer:
The construction sector is the lowest child employer as of 2011.

iv. When did India ratify the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC)?
Answer:
India ratified the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC), in 1992 and made the offence punishable with imprisonment from three months to one year or with fine no less than 10,000-20,000 rupees or with both.

v. What can be concluded by the data of children employed within service sector from 2001-2011, with reference to the chart given?
Answer:
The percentage of children under 14 employed within service sector from 2001-2011 went from 11.4% to 29.9% which has only accelerated because of the exploitative practices and demand of cheap labour.

vi. What is the purpose of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act?
Answer:
The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act of 1986 prevents the employment of children below the age of 14 years in life-threatening occupations.

vii. Identify a word from paragraph 2 which describes a child that hasn’t gone through the biological phase of maturity.
Answer:
The word prepubescent describes a child who hasn’t gone through the biological phase of maturity.

Section-B
Writing

Question 3.
You are the secretary of Punjab Medical Doctors’ Association, 12-A, Sodhi Colony, Chandigarh. You have planned a seminar on CANCER for the members of the association and invited a special guest speaker. Draft an invitation in not more than 50 words to be published in the local newspaper.
Answer:

MEDICAL SEMINAR
We take immense pleasure in inviting all the members of
PUNJAB MEDICAL DOCTOR’S ASSOCIATION
to a talk on
CANCER
on 30th November, 20XX at 10:00 a.m.
at
Flex Convention Centre, Chandigarh
Guest Speaker: Dr. Shekhar Chawla
(HOD Medicine, PGI Chandigarh)
Secretary
12-A, Sodhi Colony, Chandigarh
Ph: XXXXXXXXXX

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

A. You are Rajan/Rajni, resident of 33, Pratap Enclave, Udaipur. You read an advertisement in the newspaper for the job of an accountant in Freshers Pvt. Ltd. Chennai. Draft an application in about 120-150 words for the post of the same in response to the advertisement giving your bio-data separately.

Freshers Pvt. Ltd.
Needed Accountants

Looking for young, dynamic, experienced accountants. The candidates should have a graduate degree in commerce and worked on various accounts-related computer software. Apply within ten working days of this advertisement. Fresh graduates may also apply.

OR

B. TPS School, Kanpur, recently hosted its annual computer festival titled Ordin @ trixl3.0. You are Sanjay/ Sanjana, editor of the school magazine. Write a report in 120-150 words on the event for your school magazine. You may use the cues given along with your own ideas.

  • Computer Festival
  • Theme, events
  • Participants in the fest
  • Different activities and competitions judged by eminent personalities in the field
  • Sponsors of the event
  • Vote of thanks by the Principal

Answer:

A. 33, Pratap Enclave
Udaipur
10th March, 20XX
The Manager
Freshers Pvt. Ltd.
Chennai

Subject: Application for the post of an accountant

Sir,
In response to your advertisement in The Times of India, dated February 28, 20XX for the post of an accountant, I wish to offer my candidature for the same.

I would like to bring to notice that I possess all the aforementioned qualities required for the job. I am enclosing a copy of my resume for your kind consideration.

I am available for the interview on any day of your convenience. If I am given a chance to serve you, I assure you that I shall work with utmost sincerity and dedication up to your satisfaction.

Thanking you,

Yours faithfully,
Rajan/Rajni

Enel.:

  • Bio-data
  • Testimonials

Bio-Data

Name Rajan/Rajni
Father’s Name Mr. Ramesh Kumar
Date of Birth 21st April, 1991
Address 33, Pratap Enclave, Udaipur – XXXXXX Phone : 98XXXXXXXX
E-Mail Address [email protected]
Marital Status Unmarried
Age 28 years
Nationality Indian
Educational Qualifications (i) B. Com. Rajasthan University
(ii) M. Com. Rajasthan University
(iii) C.A. Institute of Chartered Accountants, Delhi
Experience 4 years as Senior Account Officer in Nayan, Udaipur
Strengths Good communication skills, computer literate & English.
Languages Good command over spoken and written Hindi
Hobbies Reading and Sketching
References 1. Mr. Sumit Sahni, AGM, Aerospace, Hyderabad Ph : XXXXXXXXXX
2. Mr. Satish Singh Head of Department, Commerce, Jodhpur University Ph : XXXXXXXXXX

OR
B.

TPS School Showcases Skills at Computer Fest
By Sanjay/Sanjana

TPS School, Kanpur, hosted its 10th annual computer festival titled Ordin @ trixl3.0. The computer department and the Pyrotech club of the school organised seven events on the theme ‘Diversity’ ranging from animation in scratch to video editing and movie making to website designing.

About 35 schools from Kanpur and nearby places took part in the festival. The young techies were provided a platform to express, collaborate, showcase, learn and create in the field of movie making, photography, programming and quizzing. CADx Tools and Technologies Pvt. Ltd. collaborated for the event Innovative @ Trix-Ideation.

The event Adobe Spark was cloud-based and required collaboration. The Photography Club partnered with Ordin@trix to host a photography event. The judges were Mohit Malik and Shivendra. The judges for events in the different categories were Komal and Mrinal Roy, founders, CHINH India, Priyansh and Aryan from CADx Tools and Technologies Pvt. Ltd. and Innovation Hub respectively.

The co-sponsors were CADx Tools and Technologies. Somayya School bagged the Overall Winner’s trophy. It was a fantastic event which showcased the talents of future tech-savvy generation and everyone’s zeal was to be remembered. In the end, the Principal, Mrs. Kavita Krishna, congratulated the winner school and wished all the best to rest of the children.

Section-C
Literature

Question 5.
Attempt ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each.

i. List the things of beauty mentioned in the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’.
Answer:
The things of beauty mentioned in Keats’ poem are the sun, the moon, the trees, the innocence of the sheep, the blossoming of the daffodils in the meadows, the musk roses blooming, the mass of ferns and clear mountains.

ii. In the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’, what is the contrast between the reality of Aunt’s life and her imagination?
Answer:
The tigers that Aunt Jennifer creates are her ways of expressing pain through art and the way she wanted her life to be. The tigers represent fearlessness and power. They walk with elegance, grace and confidence. But in reality, she leads her life on her husband’s terms without opposing to any restrictions laid on her.

iii. Why was Edla happy to see the gift left by the peddler?
Answer:
Edla was happy to see the gift left by the peddler as he had valued her faith in him. Edla had retained him in her house even after knowing his actual identity and he, in turn displayed his hidden goodness of heart that had been stirred and he had been able to overcome the bait of the rattrap.

iv. What were the terms of the indigo contract between the Indian peasants and the British landlords?
Answer:
The chief commercial crop in the Champaran district was indigo. The arable land was divided into estates which were owned by Englishmen and their Indian tenants worked on them as farmers. The landlords compelled all tenants to plant 15 per cent of their holdings with indigo and surrender the entire indigo harvest as rent.

v. How was the Skunk’s story different from the other stories narrated by Jack?
Answer:
The other stories narrated by Jack would end with the protagonist, who was some animal named Roger taking the help of the Wizard to solve his problem. However, the Skunk’s story ended on a different note, where Roger’s mother took him back to the Wizard and got his smell changed again. Thus, in this regard the Skunk’s story was different from the other stories narrated by Jack.

vi. What was the intention behind the call from the Examinations Board?
Answer:
It was one of Evans’ friends who made the call from the Examination Board. This call was primarily meant for confirming the time of the commencement of examination in order to calculate the end of the examination. The equally important reason behind this call was to misguide the Governor into Hotel Golden Lion to arrest Evans from there and thereby to make the escape safer altogether.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120-150 words each.

i. Give an account of the peddler7s meeting with the old crofter. How does the peddler conduct himself?

What light does this episode throw on human nature?
Answer:
One dark evening the peddler reached a little gray cottage by the roadside. He knocked on the door to ask shelter for the night. The owner, an old man without wife or child, welcomed him. He was happy to get someone to talk to in his loneliness. He served him hot porridge for supper and gave him tobacco for his pipe. Then he played cards with him till bed time.

The host told the peddler that in his days of prosperity, he worked on land at Ramsjo Ironworks. Now his cow supported him. He sold her milk at the creamery every day. He showed the peddler the thirty kronor notes he got as payment that month. Then he hung the leather pouch on a nail in the window frame.

Next morning the crofter went to milk the cow, and the peddler went away. However, he returned after half an hour, broke the window pane, took the money out of the leather pouch and hang it back on the nail. This episode shows that in loneliness, human beings crave for company, for social bonding. Secondly, temptations can overpower the greatest philosopher. The peddler who calls the world a rattrap is himself tempted by thirty kronor,

ii. Who was Reverend Stuart Me Leery and what was he carrying with him when he was heading towards the prison? Was he the actual person appointed by the prison authorities?
Answer:
Reverend Stuart McLeery was a person appointed by the prison authorities to invigilate the examination conducted for Evans. McLeery left his bachelor flat in Broad Street at 8:45 in the morning and stepped out briskly towards Carfax.

As the weatherman reported temperatures below the normal for early June, he carried a long black overcoat and a shallow crowned clerical hat. In his right hand, he was carrying a small brown suitcase, which contained all that he would need for his morning duties including a sealed question paper envelope, a yellow invigilation form, a special authentication card from the Examinations Board, a paper-knife, a Bible which he was to speak to the Women’s Guild that afternoon on the Book of Ruth and a current copy of ‘The Church Times’. He also carried a ring on which he was going to sit on the chair as he was suffering from piles.

No, the person who reached the prison was not real McLeery who was to invigilate. He was bound and gagged in his flat and a friend of Evans replaced him as the invigilator,

iii. How did Derry’s sneaking into Mr. Lamb’s garden become a turning point in his life?
Answer:
Derry, a distraught lad of fourteen, was a victim of inferiority complex which was borne out of misconception of himself and the world. He suffered from a severe sense of self-hatred and dismissal due to his burnt face and this led him to total isolation. Mr. Lamb too had a disability. He had a tin leg but he never permitted his handicap to hinder his peace and pleasures of his life.

Mr. Lamb’s meeting with Derry brought a turning point in the latter’s life. He gave Derry confidence and influenced him to develop a positive attitude towards life. His message to Derry was very clear that alienation and withdrawal was not the solution. Derry believed in running away from people but Mr. Lamb lived among people.

Derry’s brief association with Mr. Lamb proved to be quite gratifying. Mr. Lamb taught him a new outlook of looking at life, people and things. Derry decided never to get back to his old habit of seclusion.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Max. Marks: 40
Time: 2 Hours

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and S. There are 12 questions in the question paper All
    questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part- S has two options i.e (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting.
    Students must attempt only one of the given options.
  • Question nos. I to 3 and 10 are short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • Question nos. 4 to 6 and 11 are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each
  • Question nos. 7 to 9 and 12 are long answer-type questions carrying 5 marks each. :;
  • There is Rio’s overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

 Part A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms, and Companies)

Question 1.
Show how you deal with following information in final accounts of a ‘Not-for-Profit’ organization:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Match Expenses 8,00,000
Match Fund 4,00,000
Donation for Match Fund 2,40,000
Sale of Match Tickets 3,60,000

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 1

Question 2.
Distinguish between ‘Sacrificing Ratio’ and ‘Gaining Ratio’ based on:
(i) Objective
(ii) Effect on Capital
Answer:

Basis Dissolution of Partnership Dissolution of Partnership Firm
Objective To ascertain the amount of goodwill payable to partners, when a enters the firm. To ascertain the share of goodwill be paid to the retiring partner, the starting partners.
Effect on Capital The capital accounts of the old partners will be increased with the amount received as a goodwill, brought to the firm by the new partner. The partner who is retired is paid for the goodwill and the capital accounts of the partners who stays in the business will be reduced with the amount paid as goodwill.

Question 3.
At the time of dissolution of a partnership firm, the book value of sundry assets transferred to the Realisation Account was ₹2,00,000. 50% of these sundry assets were taken by partner A at a 20% discount, 40% of remaining assets were sold at a profit of 30% on cost. 5% of the balance was found obsolete and realized nothing. The remaining assets were taken over by a creditor in full settlement of his claim. Pass necessary journal entries for the above.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 2
Working Notes:
Calculation of Assets realised and assets taken over by Partner Mr. A:
Total (Sundry) Assets: ₹ 2,00,000
50% of 2,00,000 taken over by Mr. A at a 20% discount
∴ 2,00,000 x 50% 1,00,000 (-) 20% of 1,00,00 = ₹ 80,000
40% of remaining assets of ₹ 1,00,000
i.e. ₹ 1,00,000 x 40% = ₹ 40,000 were sold at a profit of 30% on cost
∴ 40,000+30% = ₹ 52,000

Question 4.
Raj, Kumar, and Rao were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2:2 :1. Kumar died on 30th June 2019. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Sales for the year ended 31st March 2019 amounted to ₹18,00,000. Sales of ₹ 6,00,000 amounted between the period from 1st April 2019 to 30th June 2019. The profits for the year ended 31st March 2019 amounted to ₹1,80,000. Calculate deceased partner’s share in the profits of the firm.
OR
Mitali, Indu, and Geeta are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3: 2 respectively. On March 31, 2020, their Balance Sheet was as under:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 3
Geeta retires on the above date. It was agreed that Machinery be valued at ₹1,40,000; Patents at ₹40,000; and Buildings at ₹1,25,000. Record the necessary journal entries and prepare the Revaluation Account.
Answer:
Percentage of profits to sales for the year ended 31 March, 2019 =  \( \frac{1,80,000}{18,00,000} \times 100\) = 10%.
Profits upto Kumar’s death = 10% of ₹ 6,00,000 = ₹ 60,000
Kumar’s share of profit = ₹ 60,000 x \(\frac{2}{5}\) = ₹ 24,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 4
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 5
Question 5.
Blue Prints Ltd., purchased building worth ₹ 1,50,000, Plant and Machinery worth ₹ 1,40,000, and furniture worth ₹ 10,000 from XYZ Co., and took over its liabilities of ₹20,000 for a purchase consideration of ₹3,15,000. Blue Prints Ltd., paid the purchase consideration by issuing 12% debentures of ₹100 each at a premium of 5%. Record necessary journal entries.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 6
Working Notes:
1. Since the purchase consideration is more than net assets taken over, the difference has been debited to the goodwill account.
2. No. of debentures issued = \(\frac{\text { Purchase Consideration }}{\text { Issue Price of a Debentures }} \)
= \(\frac{3,15,000}{105}\) = ₹ 3,000

Question 6.
Subscriptions received by the Health Club during the year 2018 were as under:
2017……………………. 27,000
2018 …………………… 8,64,000
2019 …………………… 18,000
Subscriptions outstanding as on 31st December 2017 ₹45,000
Subscriptions outstanding as on 31st December 2018 ₹1,08,000
Subscriptions received in advance in 2017 for 2018 ₹45,000
Calculate the amount of subscriptions to be shown on the income side of Income and Expenditure A/c.
OR
From the following information of Vinod Club, prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st March 2018.
Receipts and Payments Account of Vinod Club
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 7
Additional Information:
Subscriptions received included ₹15,000 for 2018-19. The amount of subscriptions outstanding on 31st March 2018 were ₹ 20,000. Salaries unpaid on 31st March 2018 were ₹8,000 and Rent receivable was ₹2,000.
Opening stock of printing and stationery was ₹12,000, whereas Closing stock was ₹15,000.
Answer:
Subscription amount = ₹8,64,000
Add: Outstanding Subscription at the end = ₹ 90,000
Add: Subscription received in advance = ₹5,000
Income from subscription = ₹ 9,99,000

Working Notes:
Subscription outstanding for the current year = 45,000- 27,000
=₹ 18,000
Now, = 1,08,000 – 18,000
= ₹ 90,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 8
Working Note:
Interest on Investment (from 01.08.2017 to 31.03.2018) = 1,00,O00 x \(\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{8}{12}\)
Interest Accrued ₹ 4,000 – ₹ 2,400 = ₹ 1,600

Question 7.
A, B, and C were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1. On 31st March 2020. Their Balance Sheet was as follows:
Balance Sheet
(as on 31st March 2010)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 9
The firm was dissolved on 31st March 2020, and the assets were realized as follows:
(i) Joint Life Policy was taken over by Mr. A at ₹ 5,000.
(ii) Stock realized ₹ 18,000; Debtors realized ₹ 14,500, Plant and Machinery was sold for ₹ 36,000.
(iii) Liabilities were paid in full. In addition, one bill for ₹ 700 under discount was dishonored and had to be taken up by the firm.
(iv) There were no realization expenses.
Give the Journal entries and necessary Ledger Accounts to close the books of the firm.
OR
Record necessary journal entries to record the following unrecorded assets and liabilities in the books of Paras and Priya:
(i) There was old furniture in the firm which had been written off completely in the books. This was sold for ₹ 3,000,
(ii) Ashish, an old customer whose account for ₹ 1,000 was written-off as bad in the previous year, paid 60% of the amount.
(iii) Paras agreed to take over the firm’s goodwill (not recorded in the books of the firm) at a valuation of ₹ 30,000,
(iv) There was an old typewriter that had been written off completely from the books. It was estimated to realize ₹400. It was taken away by Priya at an estimated price less 25%.
(v) There were 100 shares of ₹10 each in Star Limited acquired at the cost of ₹2,000, which had been written off completely from the books. These shares are valued @ ₹6 each and divided among the partners in their profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 11

Question 8.
Saurashtra Limited had an authorized capital of ₹20,00,000 divided into 2,00,000 equity shares of ₹10 each. The company issued 1,00,000 shares and the dividend paid per share was ₹2 for the year ended 31st March 2020. The management of the company decided to export its products to the neighboring countries Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh. To meet the requirement of additional funds, the financial manager of the company put up the following three alternatives before its Board of Directors :
(i) Issue 54,000 equity shares.
(ii) Obtain a loan from Import and Export Bank of India. The loan was available at 12% per annum interest.
(iii) To issue 9% Debentures at a discount of 10%.
After comparing the available alternatives, the company decided on 1st April 2020 to issue 60,000, 9% Debentures of ₹100 each at a discount of 10%.
The Balance Sheet of the company on 1st April 2020 shows a balance of ₹ 2,80,000 in Capital Reserve which the company decided to use for writing off the discount on issue of debentures.

You are required to answer the following questions:
(1) Pass journal entry for receipt of application money of debentures.
(2) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures.
(3) Pass journal entry to write off discount on issue of debentures.
(4) Prepare Discount on Issue of Debentures Account.
(5) Calculate the amount of annual fixed obligation associated with debentures.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 15
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 16

Question 9.
Following is the Receipts and Payments Account of Ana Literary Club for the year ended 31st March 2019.
Receipts and Payments Account
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 17
Additional Information:
(i) On April 1, 2018 Buildings stood in the Books at ₹ 5,00,000 & Investment in Shares ₹ 50,000; Capital Fund ₹ 6,87,500.
(ii) There were 200 members paying Subscription at ₹2,500 p.a. Some members have paid their annual subscription in advance during the year.
(iii) As on 1st April 2018 no Subscription had been received in advance but subscriptions were outstanding to the extent of ₹ 10,000 as on March 31, 2018.
Subscription accrued as on 31st March 2019 was ₹ 15,000.
(iv) Postage Stamps worth ₹ 2,500 were in stock with Secretary as on April 1, 2018 and as on 31sl March 2019, these were valued at ₹ 1,500.
You are required to prepare the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st March 2019 and Balance Sheet as at that date.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 19
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 20

Part B
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
State whether the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow, or no flow of cash while preparing Cash Flow Statement:
(i) A Machine costing ₹ 25,000 with Accumulated Depreciation of ₹ 15,000 was sold for ₹ 13,000.
(ii) Non-current Investments purchased ₹ 87,500.
Answer:
(i) A Machine costing ₹ 25,000 with Accumulated Depreciation of ₹ 15000 was sold for ₹ 13,000 will result in inflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.
(ii) Non-current Investments purchased ₹ 87,500 will result in outflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.

Question 11.
From the following information, prepare a Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss of R Ltd.

Particulars 31-3-2017 (₹) 31-3-2018 (₹)
Revenue from Operations 25,00,000 32,00,000
Cost of Material Consumed 15,00,000 20,00,000
Other expenses 10% of material consumed 12% of material consumed
Income tax 50% 50%

OR
Prepare the Common Size Income Statement from the following information:

Particulars 31-3-2017 (₹) 31-3-2018 (₹)
Net Revenue from Operations (Net Sales) 1,00,000 1,00,000
Cost of Revenue from Operations (Cost of Goods sold) 70% of sales 74.8% of sale
Indirect Expenses 8,000 9,800
Income Tax 50% 50%

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 22

Question 12.
Following are the Balance Sheets of Vinod Limited for the year ended 31st March 2019 and 2020:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 24
Prepare a Cash Flow Statement after taking into account the following adjustment:
(i) The company paid interest ₹36,000 on its long-term borrowings.
(ii) Depreciation charged on tangible fixed assets was ₹ 20,000.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 26

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40

Section-A
Reading

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

1. No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word sequences ‘ and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in v meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this ‘ complexity inherent to the English language.

2. All languages, even those of so-called ‘primitive’ tribes have clever grammatical components! The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between ‘you and I’, ‘several other people and I’ and ‘you, another person and I’. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun ‘We’. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So, the question which has baffled many linguists is who created grammar?

3. At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language’s creation, documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modem complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.

4. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonial rule. Since, they had no opportunity to learn each other’s languages, they developed a make-shift language called Pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases, it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders; they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles and they are invented by children.

5. Some linguists believe that many of the world’s most established languages were creoles at first. The English past tense -ed ending may have evolved from the verb ‘do’. ‘It ended’ may once have been ‘It end did’. Therefore, it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below.

i. Why does the writer say that complex grammar systems are partly invented by children?
Answer:
Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.

ii. What does the use of the term ‘circumlocution’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint about the evolution of grammatical systems?
Answer:
Languages in their early stages, like Pidgin, have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases, it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood.

iii. The writer mentions looking at Atlantic slave trade for a better understanding of languages. Why do you think that is so?
Answer:
The writer mentions looking at Atlantic slave trade for a better understanding of languages because it is the most recent and well documented form of linguistic study in how grammar is created.

iv. Select a suitable phrase from paragraph 3 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

He had lost everything he earned in his business, however, he bounced back and ______________________ to build his business again.
Answer:
He had lost everything he earned in his business, however, he bounced back and started from scratch to build his business again.

v. State any one trait of the Cherokee grammar system that is evident from paragraph 2 and provide a reason for your choice.
Answer:
The Cherokee pronoun system can distinguish between ‘you and T, ‘several other people and T and ‘ ‘you, another person and I’. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun ‘We’.

vi. How do linguists understand the birth of modern language rules?
Answer:
Many historical linguists are able to trace modem complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages started from scratch.

vii. Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from paragraph 4. They were moving in their new apartment so all their sleeping arrangements were temporary by the time their furniture arrived.
Answer:
They were moving in their new apartment so all their sleeping arrangements were make-shift by the ” time their furniture arrived.

viii. Analyse why grammatical complexity is not inherent to the English language.
Answer:
All languages have clever grammatical components. By changing word sequences and by adding a ^ range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning.

ix. Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the language we speak is constantly changing with generations.
Answer:
We use different terms to express ourselves today compared to how our grandparents spoke. Pidgin s became a complex language when a group of children were exposed to it at the time when they were learning their mother tongue. Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders; they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. This suggests that the language I we speak is constantly changing with generations.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.

1. At least a third of the huge ice fields in Asia’s towering mountain chain are doomed to melt due to climate change, according to a landmark report, with serious consequences for almost 2 billion people. Even if carbon emissions are dramatically and rapidly cut and succeed in limiting global warming to 1.5°C, 36% of the glaciers along in the Hindu Kush and Himalaya range will have gone by 2100. If emissions are not cut, the loss soars to two-thirds, the report found.

2. The glaciers are a critical water store for the 250 million people who live in the Hindu Kush-Himalaya (HKH) region, and 1.65 billion people rely on the great rivers that flow from the peaks into India, Pakistan, China and other nations. “This is the climate crisis you haven’t heard of,” said Philippus Wester of the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), who led the report. “In the best of possible worlds, if we get really ambitious [in tackling climate change], even then we will lose one- third of the glaciers and be in trouble. That for us was the shocking finding.”

3. Wester said that, despite being far more populous, the HKH region had received less attention than other places, such as low-lying island states and the Arctic, that are also highly vulnerable to global warming. Prof. Jemma Wadham, at the University of Bristol, said, “This is a landmark piece of work focused on a region that is a hotspot for climate change impacts.”

4. The new report, requested by the eight nations the mountains span, is intended” to change that. More than 200 scientists worked on the report over five years, with another 125 experts peer-reviewing their work. Until recently the impact of climate change on the ice in the HKH region was uncertain, said Wester. “But we really do know enough now to take action, and action is urgently needed,” he added. The HKH region runs from Afghanistan to Myanmar and is the planet’s “third pole”, harboring more ice than anywhere outside Arctic and Antarctica. Limiting the global temperature rise to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels require cutting emissions to zero by 2050. This is felt to be extremely optimistic by many but still sees a third of the ice lost, according to the report. If the global rise is 2°C, half of the glaciers are projected to melt away by 2100.

Even strong action on climate change leaves significant melting of glaciers in the Hindu Kush Himalaya range.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 5 Set 3 with Solutions 2
Guardian graphic Source : The Hindu Kush Himalaya assessment. 2019

5. The melting glaciers will increase river flows through to 2050 to 2060, he said, pushing up the risk of high-altitude lakes bursting their banks and engulfing communities. But from the 2060s, river flows will go into decline. The Indus and central Asian rivers will be most affected. “Those areas will be hard hit,” said Wester. Lower flows will cut the power from the hydro dams that generate much of the region’s electricity.

6. But the most serious impact will be on farmers in the foothills and downstream. They rely on predictable water supplies to grow the crops that feed the nations in the mountains’ shadows. But the changes to spring melting already appear to be causing the pre-monsoon river flow to fall just when farmers are planting their crops. Worse, said Wester, the monsoon is also becoming more erratic and prone to extreme downpours. “One-in-100-year floods are starting to happen every 50 years,” he said.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the seven given below.

i. What does Philippus Wester mean by “This is the climate crisis you haven’t heard of”?
Answer:
Wester meant that, despite being far more populous, the HKH region had received less attention than other places, such as low-lying island states and the Arctic, that are also highly vulnerable to global warming.

ii. With reference to the figure given in the passage, write one conclusion about what may happen to HKH region if Carbon emissions aren’t cut.
Answer:
If the Carbon emissions aren’t cut globally, then by 2100, the global average surface warming might rise to 4.5°C and in HKH region it might be up to 5.6°C, resulting in the loss of two-thirds of its ice coverage.

iii. Why is “third pole” remarked as a significant feature of Hindu Kush-Himalaya region?
Answer:
The HKH region runs from Afghanistan to Myanmar and harbours more ice than anywhere outside Arctic and Antarctica, thus aptly being named as the ‘third pole’ of the planet.

iv. For how many people who live in the Hindu Kush-Himalaya (HKH) region, the glaciers are a critical water store?
Answer:
The glaciers are a critical water store for the 250 million people who live in the Hindu Kush-Himalaya region.

v. What can be concluded by the data on ice coverage loss in HKH region, with reference to the figure provided in the passage?
Answer:
The impact of climate change is so severe that if all the carbon emissions are cut globally, we will lose one-third of the glaciers by 2100 and be in trouble due to rising global temperatures.

vi. How are the farmers downhill going to be affected by the changing climate and depleting ice in HKH region?
Answer:
The farmers rely on predictable water supplies to grow the crops that feed the nations in the mountains’ shadows. But the changes to spring melting already appear to be causing the pre-monsoon river flow to fall just when farmers are planting their crops. One-in-100-year floods are starting to happen every 50 years.

vii. Identify a term from paragraph 4 indicating that the report, that more than 200 scientists worked on for over five years, was validated by the experts.
Answer:
Peer reviewing indicates that the report, that more than 200 scientists worked on for over five years, was validated by a panel of 125 experts.

Section – B
Writing

Question 3.
The principal of your school is retiring this month. The students and the teachers want to give him a farewell party. Draft a formal invitation for the same in not more than 50 words.
Answer:

YOU ARE INVITED
The students and staff of APS school, Nagpur feel proud in giving a farewell party to our honorable principal after 38 years of service
Mr, Ajeet Kumar Singh
On
Wednesday
Venue: School auditorium
Time: 4:00 p.m.

With Best Compliment from:
The students and staff.

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

A. You are Deepak/Deepika, of 12-A, Ramanujam Road, Chennai. You have come across an advertisement in The Times of India for recruitment of computer engineer trainees by Compro Software. Apply in response to this advertisement in 120-150 words, giving your detailed bio-data. Invent all necessary details.

COMPRO SOFTWARE
REQUIRES
Computer Engineer Trainees
Applicant must possess a degree in computer applications and should be
B.Tech. in Computer Engineering.
WALK-IN-INTERVIEW on:
30th May, 20XX (Saturday)
10:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
For further details, experience, remuneration, etc. please visit the website
https://www.com.ac.in/facultyrecruitment

OR

B. You are Krishna/Kavita, a resident of Sunshine Helios. Recently the festival of Janmashtmi has been celebrated enthusiastically in your society. Write a report on the same in 120-150 words. You may use the cues given below along with your own ideas.

  • Devotion and enthusiasm seen everywhere
  • Nicely decorated Balgopal was kept inside the temple
  • Devotees offered prayers
  • Cultural programs conducted
  • The program ended with singing of bhajans

Answer:
A. 12-A, Ramanujan Road
Chennai
13th May, 20XX
The HR Manager
Compro Software
Bangalore

Subject: Application for the post of computer engineer trainees

Dear Sir,
In response to your advertisement in The Times of India dated 11th May 20XX, I wish to be considered for the position mentioned above. I feel my qualifications and experience are good enough to enable me to discharge my duties. I attach herewith attested copies of my certificates and my bio-data. If given a chance, I assure you that I would contribute my best to the work for your company. For reference, I am enclosing my resume as under.

Thanking you,

Yours sincerely,
Deepak/Deepika

Resume

Name Deepak/Deepika
Father’s Name K.M. Mathur
Date of Birth 31st August, 1998
Address 12- A, Ramanujam Road, Chennai – XXXXXX Phone : 98XXXXXXXX
E- Mail Address [email protected]
Marital Status Unmarried
Nationality Indian
Educational Qualifications (i) B. Tech. Computer Engineering, Chennai
(ii) Bachelor of Computer Application, Chennai
Experience Fresher
Strengths Proficiency in Mathematics, analytical and critical thinking
Languages Good command over spoken and written Hindi & English.
Hobbies Reading and Writing Poems
References 1. Rohan Kamath, Sales Head, Phoenix Ltd. Pune, Ph. XXXXXXXXXX
2. Aniket Sharma, Professor, Delhi. Ph. XXXXXXXXXX

OR
B.

Janmashtami Celebration
By Krishna/Kavita

27th August, 20XX, Delhi: The great Hindu festival of Janmashtami celebrates the birth (Janm) of Lord Krishna on the eighth day of the dark fortnight of the month of Bhadrapada. The number eight has another significance in the Krishna legend in that he is the eighth child of his mother Devaki.

Like last year, Janmashtami was celebrated with great devotion and enthusiasm at Sunshine Helios on 24th August this year. On this occasion, the society temple was decorated with flowers and lights.

The idol of Balgopal was kept in a cradle inside the temple and nicely decorated. Devotees, young and old, visited the temple and offered prayers. Needless to say, all of them did the ritual of swinging beloved Balgopal and sought his blessings. A stage was set up in front of the temple for cultural programs. The dance programs by children as well as adults were really outstanding with dancers dancing to the tune of songs depicting stories of Radha and Krishna. The program ended with the singing of bhajans by senior citizens.

Section-C
Literature

Question 5.
Attempt ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each.

i. Should criminals in the prison be given the opportunity of learning and education.
Answer:
No one should be denied the right to education. If the criminals in prison are provided with education and work-skills, their life can turn towards a bright and crime-free future. Education can help them become responsible citizens; therefore, efforts should be put in to provide opportunity of learning and education even to the criminals in prisons.

ii. What was the reaction of the peasants of Champaran when they came to know that a Mahatma had come to help them?
Answer:
When the peasants of Champaran came to know that a Mahatma had come to help them, they gathered in Motihari in large numbers. Thousands of peasants held a demonstration around the courthouse where Gandhiji was supposed to appear. The crowd was so uncontrollable that the officials felt powerless to regulate the crowd.

iii. ‘It’s all relative, beauty and beast.’ Justify the statement given by Mr. Lamb
Answer:
Mr. Lamb told Derry that there are plenty of things to stare at and the people should not mind their disability because they will be soon tired of it. He further told Derry that beauty or ugliness depends upon an individual’s perception. One might see beauty in a thing but to another it might be a beast.

iv. What does the reference ‘simple sheep’ in the poem, A Thing of Beauty, symbolise?
Answer:
Lambs and sheep are envisioned as the embodiments of innocent and serene beauty. Jesus Christ, as an apostle of peace, was a shepherd and was seen surrounded by his flock of sheep, his followers. The poet has made specific reference to the sheep as symbols of ‘divine beauty’.

v. Explain: ‘massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band’.
Answer:
The expression is symbolic of male authority and power. Matrimony bounds the woman physically as well as mentally. Likewise, Aunt Jennifer was trapped in gender oppression and felt herself burdened by the authority of her husband.

vi. How does the metaphor of rattrap serve to highlight the human predicament?
Answer:
The world is like a rattrap because we get attracted by the luxuries of the worst pleasures and once it happens, we are entrapped by them and forget the acts of kindness. We ought to help each other but we don’t. We ignore the plight of the ones in need. The peddler makes a much deeper comment on the life and he himself realises it only when he appreciates the kindness shown to him by Edla.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120-150 words each.

i. Jo was not satisfied with the ending of the story. How did she want it to end and why?
Answer:
Jo was not convinced with the ending of the story and wanted another end. She coaxed her father to retell the story the next day giving the story a predetermined path that she had set. Jo refused to accept the end where Roger Skunk’s mother hits the wizard and that too without being hit back. On the other hand, Jack, her father, defended mother’s decision on how their children should be like. Jo wanted the story to end on a note where the old Wizard takes revenge on the mother and hit Mommy Skunk hard on her head and refuse to get Roger back to his original smell. She wanted this to happen because she could not see Roger Skunk being left alone by his friends. According to her, Roger was perfect in smelling like roses and that his friends won’t run away from him anymore. She didn’t understand the purpose behind Mommy Skunk’s eagerness to get her little roger back to smelling foul.

ii. Write in brief the central idea of the poem, Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers.
Answer:
In the poem “Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers”, the poet Adrienne Rich, narrates the tale of an old woman, Aunt Jennifer. She is a typical housewife who feels weighed down by her marriage. She is embroidering tigers on a frame. Aunt Jennifer has suffered all her life because of male-dominance. The tigers she is embroidering are in fact symbol of her husband. They can also be seen as a symbol of a woman’s creative energy. The women give birth to men and the same men tyrannise women when they grow up. The poet says that Aunt is crushed due to male chauvinism and it appears she won’t be free from the bondage of her household chores, remaining subservient to her husband, even after her death.

iii. What change did Mr. Lamb bring in Derry’s attitude towards life?
Answer:
Mr. Lamb gave confidence and courage to Derry. He made Derry understand that the world is full of good and bad things and he should learn to accept both. He suggested Derry to get over his physical impairment instead of brooding over his burnt face. He told him that he still had two hands, two legs, eyes, a tongue and a brain. Thus, Mr. Lamb helped Derry to transform. Derry would change even after Mr. Lamb’s death because by that time his attitude towards life had already changed. Before meeting Mr. Lamb, Derry used to remain dejected and had negative thoughts. He was always worried about his face and how people commented on the scar on his face. But after meeting Mr. Lamb, he developed positive thoughts and not cared about what people thought about him and his face. This is evident when he ran back to Mr. Lamb and didn’t listen to the negative thoughts of his mother. He wanted to grab the opportunities that the world had to offer him and wanted to be in the company of Mr. Lamb. This is contradicting from the act that earlier, he used to seclude himself and never come close to a stranger.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. All
    questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part-B has two options L e. (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting.
    Students must attempt only one of the given options.
  • Question nos. 1 to 3 and 10 are short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • Question nos. 4 to 6 and 11 are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • Question nos. 7 to 9 and 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
Show how you would deal with the following items in the final accounts of a club:

Particulars Debit (₹) Credit (₹)
Prize Fund 1,20,000
Prize Fund Investments 1,20,000
Income from Prize Fund Investments 12,000
Prizes Awarded 9,000

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 1

Question 2.
Distinguish between ‘Dissolution of Partnership’ and ‘Dissolution of Partnership Firm’ based on: (i) Meaning (ii) Books of Accounts
Answer:

Basis Dissolution of Partnership Dissolution of Partnership Firm
Meaning It refers to a change in the existing agreement between the partners. It refers to the dissolution of partnership between all the partners of the firm.
Books of Accounts In the case of dissolution of partnership, books of accounts mas’ not be closed. In the case of dissolution of firm, books of accounts have to be closed.

Question 3.
Kavi, Ravi, Kumar and Guru were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 2 : 1. On 1st February,2017, Guru retired and the new profit sharing ratio decided between Kavi, Ravi and Kumar was 3 : 1 : 1. On Guru’s retirement the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 3,60,000.
Showing your working notes clearly, pass necessary journal entry in the books of the firm for the treatment of goodwill on Guru’s retirement.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 2
Working Notes:
1. Gaining Ratio = New Ratio – Old Ratio
Kavi = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{3}{8}\) = \(\frac{24-15}{40}\) = \(\frac{9}{40}\) (Gain)
Ravi = \(\frac{1}{5}-\frac{2}{8}\) = \(\frac{8-10}{40}\) = \(\frac{-2}{40}\) (Sacrifice)
Kumar = \(\frac{1}{5}-\frac{2}{8}\) = \(\frac{8-10}{40}\) = \(\frac{-2}{40}\) (Sacrifice)

2. Goodwill of Firm = ₹ 3,60,000
Ravi’s Share = ₹ 3,60,000 × \(\frac{2}{40}\) = ₹ 18,000
Kumar’s Share = 3, 60,000 × \(\frac{2}{40}\) ₹ 18000
Guru’s Share = 3, 60, 000 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) ₹ 45,000

Question 4.
Following is the extract of Receipts and Payments Account with some adjustments, you are required to find out the amount of income from subscriptions and show as how they would appear in the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ending March 31, 2018 and the Balance Sheet.
Subscriptions:
2016-17 …………………. ₹ 49,000
2017-18 ………………… ₹ 2,10,000
2018-19 …………………. ₹ 35,000

Additional Information:
(i) Subscriptions outstanding March 31, 2017 ₹ 59,500.
(ii) Total Subscriptions outstanding March 31, 2018 ₹ 1,29,500.
(iii) Subscriptions received in advance ₹ 28,000 as on March 31, 2017.
OR
From the following receipts and payments account of a cricket club and the additional information, prepare an Income and expenditure account for the year ended on 31st December, 2020 and a Balance Sheet as on that date:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 3
Additional information:
(i) Arrear of membership subscriptions:
On 31st December, 2019 – ₹ 660
On 31st December, 2020, (for 2020) – ₹ 800
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 4
Note:
Subscription 2016-17 = 59,500 – 49,000 = ₹ 10,500 is included in current year.
So, it is deducted from current year = 1,29,500 – 10,500 = 1,19,000 current year’s outstanding.
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 5

Question 5.
DK, AK and PK are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Their books are closed on March 31st every financial year.
DK died on 30th September 2020. The executors of DK are entitled to:
(i) His share of Capital i.e., ₹ 5,00,000 along with his share of goodwill. The total goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 60,000.
(ii) His share of profit upto his death on the basis of sales till date of death. Sales for the year ended March 31, 2020 was ₹ 2,00,000 and profit for the same year was 10% on sales, sales shows a growth trend of 20% and percentage of profit earning is reduced by 1%.
Give entries for the above and show your working clearly.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 6
Working Note:
Calculation of DK’s Share of Profit =
Expected sales for 2020-21 = 2,00,000 + 40,000 ( 2,00,000 × \(\frac{20}{100}\)) = 2,40,000
Expected profit % for 2020-21 = 10% – 1% = 9%
DK’s Share of profit = 2,40,000 × \(\frac{9}{100} \times \frac{5}{10} \times \frac{6}{12}\) = 5,400

Question 6.
Vinod Limited invited applications for issuing 7,500, 12% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of T35 per debenture. The full amount was payable on application.
Application were received for 10,000 Debentures. Applications for 2,500 Debentures were rejected and the application money was refunded. Debentures were allotted to the remaining applications.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of Vinod Limited.
OR
A Limited issued 5,000, 10% debentures of ?100 each at a premium of ?10 per debenture payable as follows:
On application – ₹ 25
On allotment – ₹ 45 (including premium)
On first and final call – ₹ 40

The debentures were fully subscribed and all money was duly received. Record the necessary entries in the books of the company.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 7
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 8

Question 7.
RK and MK were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. They dissolved their firm on 31st
March, 2018.
On this date, the Balance Sheet of the firm, apart from realisable assets and outside liabilities showed the following:
RK’s Capital – 40,000 (Cr.)
MK’s Capital – 20,000 (Dr.)
Profit & Loss A/c – 10,000 (Dr.)
RK’s Loan to the firm – 15,000
Contingency Reserve – 7,000

On the date of dissolution of the firm:
(i) RK’s Loan was repaid by the firm along with interest of ₹ 500.
(ii) The dissolution expenses of ₹ 1,000 were paid by the firm on behalf of RK who had to bear these expenses.
(iii) An unrecorded asset of ₹ 2,000 was taken over by MK while RK discharged an unrecorded liability
of ₹ 3,000.
(iv) The dissolution resulted in a loss of ₹ 60,000 from the realisation of assets and settlement of liabilities. You are required to prepare Partners’ Capital Account.
OR
Rahul, Rohit and Ramesh were partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1, respectively. The Balance Sheet as on 31st March 2012 was as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 9
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 10
The firm was dissolved on the above date:
(i) The assets realised as follows:
Debtors ₹ 9,000, Plant and Machinery ₹ 26,000, Stock ₹ 14,000 and Furniture ₹ 3,000.
(ii) The creditors were paid ₹ 18,000 in full settlement, and the bills payable were paid in full.
(iii) The realisation expenses amounted to ₹ 3,000.
(iv) Ramesh became insolvent and was able to bring in only ?1,800 from his private estate.

Prepare:
(1) Realisation A/c
(2) Bank A/c, and
(3) Partner’s Capital A/c
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 11
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 12
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 13
Working Notes:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 14
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 15
Capital Deficiency of ₹ 4,000 to be distributed between Rahul and Rohit (Solvent Partners) in the ratio 2 : 2.

Quetsion 8.
Vinod Metal Industries engaged in production of Steel rods was incorporated on 1st April, 2015 with registered office in Bhopal. To expand their business, company purchased a Plant from Nitya Metal Limited to increase the production of steel rods. Vinod Metal Industries paid the amount of Plant to Nitya Metal Limited as follows :
(i) By issuing 8,000, 6% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 10%.
(ii) By issuing 40,000, Equity Shares of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 10%.
(iii) Balance by accepting a bill of exchange of ₹ 2,00,000 payable after two months.

You are required to answer the following questions:
(1) Calculate the amount Vinod Metal Industries paid to Nitya Metal Limited by issuing 6% Debentures.
(2) Calculate the purchase price of Plant.
(3) Calculate the amount of annual fixed obligation associated with debentures.
(4) Pass journal entry which will be passed at the time of purchase of Plant’ in the books of Vinod Metal Industries.
(5) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures.
Answer:
(i) Amount Paid to Nitya Metal Limited by Issue of 6% Debentures
= 8,000 × [₹ 100 – (10% of ₹ 100)]
= 8,000 × ₹ 90 = ₹ 7,20,000

(ii) Purchase Price of Plant = Amount Paid by Issue of Debentures + Amount Paid by Issue of Equity Shares + Amount Paid by Bill of Exchange
= {8,000 × [₹ 100 – (10% of ₹ 100)]} + {40,000 × [₹ 100 + (10% of ₹ 100)]} + ₹ 2,00,000
= (8,000 × ₹ 90) + (40,000 × ₹ 110) + ₹ 2,00,000
= ₹ 7,20,000 + ₹ 44,00,000 + ₹ 2,00,000 = ₹ 53,20,000

(iii) Interest on 6% Debentures = ₹ 8,00,000 \(\frac{6}{100}\) = ₹ 48,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 16

Quetsion 9.
Following Receipts and Payments Account and information is provided by Vinod Education Society for the year ended 31st March 2017:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 17
Additional Information:
(i) Subscription due on 31st March, 2016 and 31st March, 2017 ₹ 2,500 and ₹ 6,000 respectively.
(ii) Subscription paid in advance as on March 31st, 2016 were ₹ 1,200 and on March 31st, 2017 ₹ 1,900.
(iii) The book value of Computers on April 1, 2016 was V 40,000 of which half the computers were sold during the year.
(iv) The book value of investments on April 1, 2016 was ₹ 75,000 and the rate of interest was 10% p.a. Prepare Income and Expenditure Account.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 18

Parts
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Quetsion 10.
State whether the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash while preparing Cash Flow Statement:
(i) Machinery costing ₹ 2,50,000 (Book Value ₹ 1,75,000) was sold at a loss of 10%.
(ii) Non-current Investment costing ₹ 1,50,000 was sold at a profit of 20%.
Answer:
(i) Machinery costing 72,50,000 (Book Value 71,75,000) sold at a loss of 10% will result in inflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.
(ii) Non-current Investment costing 71,50,000 sold at a Profit of 20% will result in inflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.

Quetsion 11.
From the following data, prepare a common size statement of profit & loss of Vinod Ltd.

Particulars 31st March, 2018 31st March, 2017
Revenue from Operations 6,00,000 4,00,000
Cost of material consumed 60% of Revenue 50% of Revenue
Finance Cost ₹ 10,000 ₹ 8,000
Tax Rate 40% of profit before tax 40% of profit before tax

OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 19
Show your working clearly.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 20
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 21

Question 12.
Following was the Balance Sheet of Himanshu Limited at on 31.3.2019:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 22
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 23
Additional Information:
(i) A part of the machine, costing ₹ 50,000, accumulated depreciation thereon being ₹ 20,000, was sold for ₹ 18,000.
(ii) Tax paid ₹ 20,000
(iii) Interest of ₹ 50,000 paid on debentures.
Prepare Cash Flow Statement.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 24
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 25
Working Note:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 26