CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40

Section-A
Reading

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

1. Christiaan Neethling Barnard (8 November 1922 – 2 September 2001) was a South African cardiac surgeon who performed world’s first human-to-human heart transplant operation with his team, on 3 December 1967. It was a major historical event and a significant breakthrough for medical science.

2. Media coverage around the world of this event and subsequent transplants was front page and appeared daily for weeks and months on end, describing all aspects in detail and giving progress reports on the postoperative course of the patients. This degree of public acclaim had not been previously experienced by any other physician or surgeon and nor would it be experienced subsequently. This was in part because the dramatic nature of the operation had captured the public’s imagination, but was equally a response to Chris Barnard’s youthful good looks and charismatic personality. Barnard’s name and that of the University of Cape Town and Groote Schuur Hospital are inextricably associated with the first heart transplant.

3. Today, when heart transplantation has become a relatively routine and commonplace procedure, one may be inclined to underestimate Christiaan Neethling Barnard. It was Barnard’s immense courage in undertaking this first operation. Washkansky, a 53-year-old man with severe coronary insufficiency, by far from an ideal recipient, being a diabetic and a smoker with peripheral vascular disease unfortunately succumbed from severe pneumonia and septicemia on the 18th day post-operation.

4. Not daunted by this failure, Barnard immediately selected his second patient, a 59-year-old local dental surgeon named Philip Bleiberg. The operation was performed on 2 January 1968. On this occasion, the surgical technique was slightly modified from the approach developed in dogs by Shumway and the Stanford group. Bleiberg did well and was the first heart transplant patient to leave hospital. Media attention was enormous and his return to a relatively normal life was followed intensely over many months.

5. It was Blaiberg’s success, perhaps more than any other single factor, that led to guarded optimism that heart transplantation would eventually prove a valuable treatment option. Blaiberg was the shining beacon, whereas the majority of other attempts at heart transplantation worldwide in the late 1960s and early 1970s seemed doomed to early failure. He eventually died 19 months after his transplant. His autopsy demonstrated severe and widespread coronary artery disease. This was the first example of transplant coronary artery disease that now dominates as the major cause of graft failure after the first post-transplant year.

6. Barnard was also a champion of the disadvantaged and the poor, and an opponent of racism and apartheid, who welcomed its demise. He did his best to not allow racial segregation of patients within his department, in defiance of Government policy to segregate patients in hospitals according to race, as elsewhere in South Africa.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below.

i. State any one trait of Dr. Barnard that is evident from paragraph 4 and provide a reason for your choice.
Answer:
Dr. Barnard was a strong headed and courageous man who went on to perform another heart transplant surgery with an improved technique despite his first failed attempt.

ii. Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from paragraph 5.

I have finally cleared my entrance exams and interviews, now 1 have a secure hope for a better future ahead.
Answer:
I have finally cleared my entrance exams and interviews, now I have a guarded optimism for a better future ahead.

iii. Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that Dr. Barnard thought way ahead of his time in terms of values.
Answer:
Barnard was a champion of the disadvantaged and the poor, and an opponent of racism and apartheid. He did his best to not allow racial segregation of patients within his department, in defiance of Government policy prevalent in South Africa.

iv. Can you guess at what age might have Dr. Christiaan Barnard conducted his first heart transplant?
Answer:
Dr. Christiaan Barnard conducted his first heart transplant when he was 45 years.

v. What does the use of the phrase ‘shining beacon’ suggest in the context of Blaiberg’s heart transplant surgery?
Answer:
The word ‘Shining beacon’ suggests that the majority of other attempts at heart transplantation worldwide in the late 1960s and early 1970s seemed doomed to early failure, but it was Blaiberg’s success, perhaps more than any other single factor, that led to guarded optimism that heart transplantation would eventually prove a valuable treatment option.

vi. The media couldn’t stop raving about Dr Barnard’s unique surgery. Why did some people think that it was revolutionary?
Answer:
The human-to-human heart transplant surgery was something that was unheard of at that time. Therefore, the dramatic nature of the operation had captured the public’s imagination.

vii. Why does the writer say that people may be inclined to underestimate Christiaan Neethling Barnard today?
Answer:
Today heart transplantation has become a relatively routine and commonplace procedure, but it was Barnard’s immense courage in undertaking this first operation. It was a major historical event and a significant breakthrough for medical science.

viii. Select a suitable phrase from paragraph 2 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

Most of the beauty pageant winners may be average in looks but they all have a that makes them stand out.
Answer:
Most of the beauty pageant winners may be average in looks but they all have a charismatic personality that makes them stand out.,

ix. Analyse why Washkansky couldn’t make it past his heart transplant surgery?
Answer:
Washkansky was a 53-year-old man with severe coronary insufficiency, by far from an ideal recipient, being a diabetic and a smoker with peripheral vascular disease. He unfortunately succumbed from severe pneumonia and septicaemia on the 18th day post-operatively.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.

1. The idea that coffee is bad for heart pops up periodically. It was found that regularly drinking very strong coffee could sharply increase cholesterol levels. Researchers even isolated fatlike chemicals, cafestol and kahweol, responsible for the rise.

2. It turned out that the European brewing method—boiling water sits on the coffee grounds for several minutes before straining – produces high concentrations of cafestol and kahweol. By contrast, the filter and percolation methods remove all but a trace of.these chemicals. Moreover, the studies involved large amounts of coffee, five to six cups a day.

3. Research has also shown that regular, moderate coffee drinking does not dangerously raise blood pressure. And studies have failed to substantiate fears that coffee might trigger abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias) in healthy people. “For heart disease, I think the issue is closed,” says Meir Stampfer, an epidemiologist at Harvard who has studied many aspects of coffee and health. “Coffee drinking at reasonable levels is unrelated to heart risk.”

4. The studies on coffee and cancer have focused on three organs and are reassuring. You may remember a brief coffee scare in the early 1980s when a single study linked coffee with pancreatic cancer. A false alarm: many studies since then have shown that the association is either extremely weak or non-existent. If there’s a connection between coffee and bladder cancer, it possibly applies just to coffee junkies. A reanalysis of ten European studies found an increased risk only among people who drank ten or more cups a day. And studies show that coffee seems to have no adverse influence on the risk of colon cancer.

5. The question now arises: how much to drink? Those with heat bum and anxiety may want to see if cutting back coffee improves their condition. For most people, however, there’s virtually no risk in consuming up to three normal cups a day. Harvard’s Stampfer tries to keep his coffee drinking irregular enough to avoid habituation: “That way, I can get a buzz when I feel like it.”

6. The FDA recommends that healthy adults limit their caffeine intake to a maximum of 400 milligrams (mg) a day, about 4 or 5 cups of coffee. This amount is not associated with negative effects. There is no set limit for children, but the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) discourages the consumption of caffeine and other stimulants by children and adolescents. The amount of caffeine included in some common foods and beverages are:

  • One 8-ounce cup of coffee: 95 to 200 mg
  • One 12-ounce can of cola: 35 to 45 mg
  • One 8-ounce energy drink: 70 to 150 mg
  • One 8-ounce cup of tea: 14 to 60 mg

7. Decaffeinated cola and soft drinks contain no caffeine, but decaffeinated coffee is not caffeine-free. “Energy drinks” contain varying amounts of caffeine. Additional products are now appearing on the market, from “psyched up” oatmeal to “wired” waffles. These have raised concerns, especially regarding the potential impact on children and adolescents. The FDA has questioned the safety of this practice.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the seven given below,

i. What does researcher Meir Stampfer mean by “For heart disease, I think the issue is closed”?
Answer:
Research has shown that regular, moderate coffee drinking does not dangerously raise blood pressure. And studies have failed to substantiate fears that coffee might trigger abnormal heart rhythms in healthy people.

ii. How much caffeine does 12 ounces of cola contain according to the table provided in the passage?
Answer:
12 ounces of cola contain 35 to 45 mg of caffeine.

iii. With reference to the table provided in the passage, write one conclusion about consumption of energy drinks.
Answer:
Energy drinks contain varying amounts of caffeine, one 8-ounce energy drink can have about 70 to 150 mg of caffeine in it.

iv. Why has FDA recommended against the consumption of products with unregulated amounts of caffeine?
Answer:
Additional products are now appearing on the market, from “psyched up” oatmeal to “wired” waffles. These have raised concerns, especially regarding the potential impact on children and adolescents. The FDA has questioned the safety of this practice.

v. Which method removes the chemicals cafestol and kahweol from coffee?
Answer:
The filter and percolation methods remove all but a trace of the chemicals cafestol and kahweol.

vi. How much caffeine intake should the healthy adults must limit according to FDA recommendation?
Answer:
The FDA recommends that healthy adults limit their caffeine intake to a maximum of 400 mg a day, about 4 or 5 cups of coffee.

vii. Identify a word from paragraph 5 that states dependency on coffee for caffeine boost can make someone accustomed to it.
Answer:
Habituation states the dependency on coffee for caffeine boost can make someone accustomed to it.

Section-B
Writing

Question 3.
You are Mr. Nilesh. Write a formal reply in about 50 words accepting the invitation of Mr. & Mrs. Verma’s daughter’s wedding.
Answer:
44/1 Gulmarg Street
New Delhi
1st November, 20XX
The Manager
Xentrix Studios
Mumbai

Subject: Acceptance of the invitation of wedding

Dear Mr. and Mrs. Verma,

I have received your invitation of the marriage of your daughter, Karuna on 25th November, 20XX at 8:00 p.m. Thank you for inviting me. I confirm my presence at the venue at the scheduled time.

Yours truly,
Nilesh

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

A. You came across an advertisement in ‘The Times of India’ regarding the post of an animator in Mumbai. Draft an application in about 120-150 words for the post of the same in response to the advertisement giving your resume. You are Garvita/ Garvit of B-121, Street Park Lane, Kolkata.

Sitaara Edutech
Animator Required
Needed a young and dynamic animator to create engaging and on-brand graphics and animations for various e-Learning courses and short films.
Experienced candidates with specialisation in animations software and a creative
flair preferred. Fluency in Adobe Creative Suite and English is a must.
Apply within five days of the advertisement to the HR Manager.

OR
B. You are Manoj/Manju, an active member of the Animal Lovers Society which works for the welfare of animals by preventing cruelty to them. Recently you visited Animal Care Home. You were pleasantly surprised to see the good treatment given to the animals. Write a report in 120-150 words on your visit. You may use the cues along with your own ideas.

  • Campaign to raise awareness on the Animal Lovers Society
  • Services and facilities at the home
  • Medical treatment of animals
  • Care of animals at the home and strays
  • Your thoughts about what you witnessed at the home

Answer:
A. B-121, Street Park Lane
Kolkata
17th April, 20XX
The Manager
Xentrix Studios
Mumbai

Subject: Application for the post of animator

Dear Sir,
In response to the advertisement published in the newspaper, ‘The Times of India’ for the post of animator, I would like to apply for the same. After clearing All India Common Entrance Examination for Design (CEED), I did six months certificate program in domains like visual effects (VFX) specialisation, digital compositing, and video editing.

I possess the foremost skills required in animation careers i.e. genuine interest in art and design which helps in bringing out the creative and artistic expression that will allow static images to develop visual graphics and movements. I believe that all these qualities will fulfill your requirement you need in a proficient animator.

If selected, I assure you that I would contribute my best to the work for your company. For reference, I am enclosing my resume as under.

Enel.: Resume

Resume

Name Garvit/Garvita
Father’s Name D.K. Gandhi
Date of Birth 21st October, 1993
Address 121, Street Park Lane, Kolkata XXXXXX Phone : 98XXXXXXXX
E-Mail Address gar 123@gmail. com
Marital Status Unmarried
Nationality Indian
Educational Qualifications (i) Senior Secondary from Tagore Public School, Kolkata
(ii) Graduation in designing & Arts from Govt, run the institute
(iii) Diploma in Character Animation from Adam College
Experience 2 years at HOBNOB Enterprises, Mumbai
Strengths Sound IT skills and the ability to concentrate
Languages Good command over spoken and written Hindi & English.
Hobbies Drawing and Sketching
References 1. Ashok Singh, Manager, Accenture. Pune, Ph : XXXXXXXXXX
2. Minal Sathe, Crox, Delhi. Ph : XXXXXXXXXX

Hoping for a favourable response.

Yours sincerely,
Garvit/Garvita

OR
B.

Visit to The Animal Care Home
By Manoj/Manju

Recently, Animal Lovers Society was invited by the city Animal Care Home for a visit where an opportunity to have a look upon the working of the organisation was given.

It is a home to abandoned pets, rescued animals and the ones injured on the streets. There were many old animals as well. It was astonishing to see the wonderful care being taken of the helpless animals. They have a family-like environment for them. This helps them to heal faster and stay happy.

The animal home has all the facilities ranging from well-equipped medical room to a veterinary surgeon. They provide 24 hours veterinary care, ambulance services, inpatient facilities and adoption of dogs and cats. They are now building a medical centre which will consist of an OPD, operation theatre, X-ray and scanning facilities for street animals.

Regular check-ups of those unwell by a team of veterinary specialists are carried out. The surroundings are animal-friendly as well. They are not being ruthlessly kept in cages. They have green surroundings with enough space for them to play and nurture.

Animal Care Home is doing an amazing job by understanding and fulfilling the needs of those who can’t speak for themselves. The experience was an overwhelming one.

Section-C
Literature

Question 5.
Attempt ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each.

i. What is the underlying idea behind the wizard’s taking the beating and tamely changing the rose smell?
Answer:
The author wishes to highlight the idea that mothers are always right and that we should accept what is natural. The wizard also sees the point and tamely changes the Skunk’s rose smell into his natural Skunk smell.

ii. What was the conflict of Gandhiji?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s conflict was of discharging his duties. On one hand, he did not want to set a bad example by breaking the law, on the other hand, he was to listen to the voice of his conscience and serve the human beings.

iii. Why was the peddler surprised when he knocked on the door of the cottage?
Answer:
It was the night time and the peddler couldn’t imagine that he would be welcomed anywhere. But when he was provided food and shelter and treated like a guest at the crofter’s house, he was surprised. The crofter was a lonely man and he needed company.

iv. Why are the tigers of aunt Jennifer described as denizens of a world of green?
Answer:
Aunt Jennifer’s tigers are brave, fearless and chivalric. They live in the green forests freely and gracefully and are known for their strength, boldness and power.

v. How did Mr. Lamb pass his leisure time?
Answer:
Mr. Lamb had a garden in which there were trees and plants of apples, pears, weeds and flowers. He used to sit in his garden and talk to those who came into his garden. He used to make toffees with honey.

vi. In the poem, A Thing of Beauty, Keats associated grandeur with the mighty dead. Comment.
Answer:
People celebrate the grand deeds and achievements of the mighty dead. Grandeur is associated with them because their achievements make their lives extraordinary. It becomes a source of an inspiration for the living to leave a legacy to be venerated after they are long gone.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120-150 words each.

i. What do you understand by “unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways” as stated by Keats in his poem- A Thing of Beauty?
Answer:
In the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’, beautiful and pleasant things have been referred to as flowery bands. It is only those things which have beauty of some or the other kind that bind us to this Earth, or in a way, keep us going. The memory of our beautiful experiences helps us strengthen our bond with the Earth. The message that these lines convey is that the world is full of sorrow, sadness and depression. People have become selfish, and there is a scarcity of noble people.

Despite this, life is possible because there are some beautiful things around, which help us to look towards the positive side of life. It is the beauty of these things which brings a smile on our face and gives us happiness in our lives. Today, there are few people who can rise above petty differences and be generous towards others.

These days people are mostly selfish and do not think about others. The unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways refer to the trials and tribulations in our life, and the dishonest and unfair means people adopt to achieve their goals.

ii. The share cropping system was prevalent in Champaran on a wide scale. Comment.
Answer:
Most of the arable land in Champaran district was divided into large estates owned by Englishmen and worked by Indian tenants. The chief commercial crop was indigo. The landlords compelled all tenants to plant 15 percent of their holdings with indigo and surrender the entire indigo harvest as rent. This was done by long term contract.

Meanwhile the landlords learned that Germany had developed synthetic indigo. Therefore, they obtained agreements from the share croppers to pay them compensation for being released from the 15 percent arrangement.

This system irked the peasants. When the information of synthetic indigo reached the fears of illiterate peasants who had signed the share cropping arrangement, they wanted their money back.

A long battle under the leadership of Gandhiji was ensued and landlords agreed to return 25 percent of the compensation to the peasants. This way share cropping system came to an end.

iii. What clues did the Governor get from the answer sheet of Evans?
Answer:
The answer-sheet had been cleverly attached to the last page of the question paper by Evans to outwit his adversaries and mislead the police. It was from his answer-sheet that the police got the clue that Evans had hit McLeery whom Evans was himself impersonating.

McCleery showed a photocopied sheet to the Governor which had been cleverly superimposed on the last page of the German question paper. The six-figure reference landed him in the middle of Chipping Norton.

The Governor decoded it for Newbury and by putting together the six-figure reference, the index and centre number 313/271 and with the help of the ‘Ordnance Survey Map of Oxfordshire’ he was able to locate Evans in the middle of Chipping Norton. The correction slip provided him with the name of the hotel.

‘The Golden Lion’ where Evans was staying. So, Evans was trampled in his own game as he left evidence which helped in his arrest. He made things easier as he left the question paper behind in the cell. The clues the Governor got from it were sufficient to help him trace Evans.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. All
    questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part-B has two options L e. (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting.
    Students must attempt only one of the given options.
  • Question nos. 1 to 3 and 10 are short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • Question nos. 4 to 6 and 11 are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • Question nos. 7 to 9 and 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
From the following information, calculate the amount to be charged to Income and Expenditure Account for ‘Sports material consumed’ for the year 2019-20.

Particulars Amount (₹)
Stock of Sports Material (01-04-2019) 60,000
Amount paid to creditors (during 2019-20) 3,00,000
Creditors for Sports Materials (01-04-2019) 1,00,000
Creditors for Sports Materials (31-03-2020) 80,000
Sports Material sold During the year (Book Value ₹ 35,000) 15,000
Cash Purchases of Sports Material (During the Year 2019-20) 1,30,000

There was zero stock at the end of financial year 2019-20.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 1
Calculation of sports material consumed:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 2

Question 2.
Distinction between ‘Retirement of a Partner’ and ‘Death of a Partner’ based on:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Treatment of due amount
Answer:

Basis Retirement of a Partner Death of a Partner
Meaning A partner who cuts his connection with the firm is called retirement of partner or outgoing partner. Retirement of a partner leads to reconstitution of a partnership firm as the original agreement between

the partners comes to an end.

Deceased partner is one who has discontinued the partnership due to his death. A contract between the partners of the enterprise is not dissolved by the death of a partner, the estate of a dead partner is not responsible for any act of the enterprises done after his death.
Treatment of due amount On retirement, the amount due to the retiring partner is transferred to his Loan Account. In death, the total amount due to the deceased partner is transferred to his Executor’s loan Account.

Question 3.
The book value of assets (other than cash and bank) transferred to the Realisation Account is ₹ 1,00,000. 50% of the assets are taken over by a partner Atul, at a discount of 20%; 40% of the remaining assets are sold at a profit of 30% on cost; 5% of the balance being obsolete, realised nothing and remaining assets are handed over to a Creditor, in full settlement of his claim.
You are required to record the journal entries for the Realisation of assets.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 4

Question 4.
Rita, Nina and Mita are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Mita dies on 1st April, 2017. On the date of her death, it was decided to value goodwill on the basis of two year’s purchase of weighted average profits of the firm for the last three years.
The profits of the last three years and weights assigned were:

Year Profit Weights
2014-15 30,000 (including gain from speculation ₹ 10,000) 1
2015-16 80,000 2
2016-17 1,00,000 3

(1) Calculate the firm’s goodwill on the date of Mita’s death.
(2) Pass the necessary journal entry regarding goodwill.
OR
Gita, Radha and Garv were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 2. On 31st March, 2019, their balance sheet was as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 5
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 6
Radha retired on the above date and it was agreed that:
(i) Goodwill of the firm be valued at ₹ 3,00,000 and Radha’s share be adjusted through the capital accounts of Gita and Garv.
(ii) Stock was to be appreciated by 20%.
(iii) Buildings were found undervalued by ₹ 1,00,000.
(iv) Investments were sold for ₹ 34,000.
(v) Capital of the new firm was fixed at ₹ 5,00,000 which will be in the new profit sharing ratio of the partners; the necessary adjustments for this purpose were to be made by opening current accounts of the partners.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Accounts of the reconstituted firm on Radha’s retirement.
Answer:
Old Share of partners = 3 : 2 : 1
Gain Share = 3 : 2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 7
Goodwill = \(\frac{4,80,000}{6}\) = 80,000 × 2 = ₹ 1,60,000
Mita’s share of goodwill = 1,60,000 × \(\frac{1}{6}\) = ₹ 26,667
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 8
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 9
Working Note: 1.
Old Ratio of Gita, Radha and Garv = 3 : 5 : 2
New Ratio of Gita and Garv = 3 : 2
Total Capital of New Firm = ₹ 5,00,000
Gita’s New Capital = 5,00,000 × \(\frac{3}{5}\)
= ₹ 3,00,000
Gary’s New Capital = 5,00,000 × \(\frac{2}{5}\)
= ₹ 2,00,000.

Working Note: 2
Goodwill of the firm = 30,000
Radha’s share = \(\frac{5}{10}\) × 3,00,000 = 1,50,000
Share of Gita’s = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Garv’s Share = \(\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 5.
Mayank Ltd. took over assets of ₹ 6,00,000 and liabilities of ₹ 40,000 of Polymer Ltd. at an agreed value of ₹ 6,30,000. Mayank Ltd. issued 10% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 10% to Polymer Ltd. in full satisfaction of the price. Mayank Ltd. writes off any capital losses incurred during a year, at end of that financial year.
You are required to pass the journal entries in the books of Mayank Ltd.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 10

Number of Debentures issued = \(\frac{6,30,000}{100-10(\text { Discount })}\)
= \(\frac{6,30,000}{90}\)
= 7,000 debentures.

Question 6.
Extracts of Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended March 31, 2018 are given below: Subscriptions
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 11
Additional Information:
Total number of members: 230.
Annual membership fee: ₹ 875.
Subscriptions outstanding on April 1, 2017: ₹ 19,250.
Find out Income from Subscription during the year.
OR
Extracts of Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended March 31, 2018 are given below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 12
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 13
Calculate the amount of subscriptions to be shown on the income side of Income and Expenditure A/c and show the relevant data in the balance sheet as at 31st March, 2017 and 2018.
Answer:
Subscription amount for the year = 230 × 875 = ₹ 2,01,250
Working Note:
Subscription for 2017-18 = 1,87,250
Subscription due for 2017-18 = 2,01,250
Outstanding amount for the current year = 2,01,250 – 1,87,250
= 14,000
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 14
Note: Total subscriptions outstanding on 31st March, 2018 are ₹ 12,000. This include ₹ 2,000 (i.e., ₹ 5,000 – ₹ 3,000) for subscription still outstanding for 2016-2017. Hence, the subscription outstanding for 2017 – 2018 are ₹ 10,000 (i.e., 12,000 – ₹ 2,000).

Question 7.
AK and HK were partners in a firm. They decided to dissolve their firm. Pass necessary journal entries to the following after various assets (other than cash and bank) third party liabilities have been transferred to Realisation Account:
(i) There was furniture worth ₹ 50,000. AK took over 50% of the Furniture at 10% discount and the remaining Furniture was sold at 30% profit on book value.
(ii) Profit and Loss Account was showing a credit balance of ₹ 15,000 which was distributed between the partners.
(iii) HK’s Loan of ₹ 6,000 was discharged at ₹ 6,200.
(iv) There was a bill for ₹ 1,200 under discount. The bill was received from SK who proved insolvent and a first and final dividend of 25% was received from his estate.
OR
Kumar, Shyam, and Ratan were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2, respectively. They decided to dissolve the firm with effect from 1st April, 2013. On that date, the Balance Sheet of the firm was as follows Balance Sheet as on 1st A aril, 2013
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 15
The dissolution resulted in the following:
(i) Kumar took over plant of ₹ 40,000 at an agreed value of ₹ 45,000 and remaining plant realised ₹ 50,000.
(ii) Furniture realised ₹ 40,000.
(iii) Shyam took over the motor van for ₹ 30,000.
(iv) Debtors realised ₹ 1,000 less.
(v) Creditors for ₹ 20,000 were untraceable, and the remaining creditors were paid in full.
Realisation expenses amounted to ₹ 5,000.
Prepare the Realisation Account, Capital Accounts of Partners and Bank Account of the firm.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 16
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 17
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 18
Working Notes:
Loss on Realisation = 1,000
Loss on Realisation transferred to Kumar’s Capital Account = 1,000 × \(\frac{5}{10}\) = ₹ 500
Loss on Realisation transferred to Shyam’s Capital Account = 1,000 × \(\frac{3}{10}\) = ₹ 300
Loss on Realisation transferred to Ratan’s Capital Account = 1,000 × \(\frac{2}{10}\) = ₹ 200

2. Creditors = ₹ 1,20,000
Out of which ₹ 20,000 were untraceable
So, the creditors were paid in full settlement amounting 1,20,000 – 20,000 = ₹ 1,00,000

Question 8.
O.P. Limited engaged in infrastructure business with registered office in Mumbai was incorporated on 1st April, 2015. With an aim to penetrate their roots in other cities, O.P Limited purchased the running business of Karishma Builders Limited having business in Pune, Bhiwandi and Shirwal for a sum of ₹ 60,00,000.
The assets and liabilities of Karishma Builders consisted of the following:
Land – ₹ 28,00,000
Buildings – ₹ 24,00,000
Stock-in-Trade – ₹ 8,00,000
Sundry Debtors – ₹ 12,00,000
Sundry Creditors – ₹ 8,00,000
O. P. Limited issued a cheque of ₹ 12,00,000 and for the balance amount issued 9% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at par, redeemable after 6 years at par for the sum due to Karishma Builders Limited.
You are required to answer the following questions:
(1) Calculate the amount to be transferred to Capital Reserve Account.
(2) Pass journal entry to be passed at the time of purchase of business of Karishma Builders Limited.
(3) Calculate the number of debentures issued to Karishma Builders Limited.
(4) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures.
(5) Calculate the amount of annual fixed obligation associated with debentures issued to Karishma Builders Limited.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 19
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 20
(iii) Amount paid through Cheque = ₹ ?12,00,000
Amount paid through Debentures = ₹ 60,00,000 – ₹ 12,00,000
= ₹ 48,00,000
Number of Debentures Issued to Karishma Builders Limited = \(\frac{\text { Amount Due }}{\text { Issue Price }}\)
= \(\frac{₹ 48,00,000}{₹ 100}\)
= ₹ 48,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 21
(v) Interest on 9% Debentures = ₹ 48,00,000 x \(\frac{9}{100}\) = ₹ 4,32,000

Question 9.
Following is the Receipts and Payments Account of Club for the year ended 31.03.2020:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 22
Other additional information is provided:
(a) On 31st March, 2020 Subscription outstanding was ₹ 680 and on 31sf March, 2019 Subscription outstanding was ₹ 1,020. Salary outstanding on 31st March, 2020 was ₹ 5,100.
(b) On 1st April, 2020 the club had Building ₹ 25,500, Furniture ₹ 6,120, 12% Investments ₹ 10,200 and Sports Equipment ₹ 10,200. Depreciation charged on these items including purchases was 10%.
(c) Prepare the Income and Expenditure Account of the Club for the year ended 31st March, 2020 and ascertain the Capital Fund on 31st March, 2019.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 23

Part B
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
State whether the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash while preparing cash flow statement:
(i) Income Tax ₹ 15,640 was paid during the year.
(ii) Fixed Assets with a book value of ₹ 1,08,000 were sold at ₹ 67,500.
Answer:
(i) Income Tax ₹ 15,640 was paid during the year will result in outflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.
(ii) Fixed Assets with a book value of ₹ 1, 08,000 were sold at ₹ 67,500 will result in inflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.

Question 11.
Prepare Comparative Statement of Profit & Loss from the following Information:

Particulars 31st March, 2016 (₹) 31st March, 2015 (₹)
Revenue from operation 16,00,000 10,00,000
Cost of material consumed 70% of revenue from operations 70% of revenue from operations
Other expenses 5% of revenue from operations 5% of revenue from operations
Rate of tax 50% 50%

OR
From the following data, prepare a Common Size Balance Sheet of Vinod Limited:

Particulars 31st March, 2018 (₹) 31st March, 2017 (₹)
Share Capital 3,00,000 2,40,000
Reserves and Surplus 80,000 70,000
Trade Payables 1,00,000 1,10,000
Trade Receivables 1,90,000 1,80,000
Short-term Provision 40,000 15,000
Fixed Assets 2,90,000 2,30,000
Long-term Provision 80,000 65,000
Current Investments 10,000 8,000
Inventory 1,01,000 72,000
Cash and Cash Equivalents 9,000 10,000

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 24
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 25

Question 12.
Following is the Balance Sheet of Vinod Ltd. as on 31st March, 2018.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 26
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 27
Prepare a Cash Flow Statement after taking into account the following adjustment:
(i) During the year, a piece of machinery costing ?80,000 on which depreciation was ₹ 60,000, was sold for ₹ 18,000.
(ii) Tax paid during the year ₹ 60,000.
(iii) Debentures were issued on 1st July, 2017.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 28
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 29
Working Notes:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 30

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40

Section-A
Reading

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

1. Apollo, the Greek God, apart from being a God having the power to give the boon of knowing the future, is also vulnerable to the physical attraction towards beauty. According to Herodotus’ History, there is a mention of a lady, a princess named Cassandra who was a daughter of Priam the king and the queen Hecuba of Troy. She was the smartest and the most beautiful of the daughters of King Priam.

2. Apollo was constantly on prowl for attractive humans. He falls in love with Cassandra. Strangely, this never happens in Greek myths, Cassandra resists his advances. So, he tries to bribe her. But she was already a princess. What could he give her? She was rich and beautiful. She was happy. Still Apollo had something to offer. He promised her the gift of prophecy. This was irresistible. She agreed. Quid pro quo. Apollo did whatever Gods can do to create seers, oracles and prophets out of mere mortals.

3. Scandalously, after receiving the boon, Cassandra reneged. She refused the overtures of a god. Apollo was incensed. As it is, Gods keep their promises, so he could not withdraw the gift of prophecy. Instead, he cursed her to a cruel and ingenious fate that no one would believe her prophecies.

4. This story is taken largely from Aeschylus’s play Agamemnon. Cassandra also appears in texts written by Homer, Virgil, Aeschylus and Euripides. Each author depicts her prophetic powers differently. In Homer’s work too, Cassandra has mentioned a total of four times as ‘a virgin daughter of Priam’, as bewailing Hector’s death, as chosen by Agamemnon to be his slave mistress after the sack of Troy, and as killed by Clytemnestra over Agamemnon’s corpse after Clytemnestra murders him on his return home.

5. Cassandra prophesies to her own people the fall of Troy. Nobody pays attention. She predicts the death of the leading Greek invader, Agamemnon. Nobody pays attention. She even foresees her own early death, and still, no one pays attention. They didn’t want to hear. She was made fun of. Both Greeks and Trojans called her “the lady of many sorrows”. There is a nice moment when she cannot understand why these prophecies of impending catastrophe — some of which if believed, could be prevented – were being ignored.

6. Later, after the fall of Troy, even with the Greeks, also, her forebodings did not have any effect. She told the Greeks, “How is it that you don’t understand me? Your tongue I know only too well”. But her pronunciation wasn’t the problem. This was the answer she got. “You see, it’s like this. Even the Delphic Oracle sometimes makes mistakes. Sometimes its own prophecies are ambiguous. We can’t be sure. And if we can’t be sure of Delphi, we can’t be sure of you!”

7. The story was same with the Trojans. Cassandra says “I prophesied to my countrymen,” telling further, “all their disasters.” Tragically, her clairvoyance was ignored and the Trojans were destroyed. Soon she was also killed.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below.

i. Who was Cassandra?
Answer:
Cassandra was a princess and the daughter of Priam the king and the queen Hecuba of Troy. She was the smartest and the most beautiful of the daughters of King Priam.

ii. Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the mistrust of the Greeks over Cassandra’s prophecies was justified.
Answer:
The Greeks told Cassandra after the fall of Troy that even the Delphic Oracle sometimes makes mistakes.

Sometimes its own prophecies are ambiguous. And if they couldn’t be sure of them, they certainly couldn’t be sure of her as well.

iii. State any one trait of Cassandra that is evident from paragraphs 2-3 and provide a reason for your choice.
Answer:
Cassandra was a strong-willed and an unbending woman who did not accept Apollo’s perverse advancements so easily. She couldn’t resist the gift of prophecy but eventually refuses to be with Apollo.

iv. Cassandra strangely refuses Apollo’s advances and ‘this never happens in Greek myths.’ Why did the writer think that this was ‘strange’?
Answer:
Usually, when Gods in Greek myths convey their love to the mortals, they happily comply. But Cassandra straight up refused Apollo, the Greek God having the power to give the boon of knowing the future, and this comes off as strange.

v. Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from paragraph 2.

His freedom was a barter for the valuable insider information he revealed about the cartel.
Answer:
His freedom was a quid pro quo for the valuable insider information he revealed about the cartel.

vi. What does the use of the phrase ‘the lady of many sorrows’ suggest in the context of Trojans mocking Cassandra?
Answer:
Cassandra prophesies to her own people the fall of Troy, the death of the leading Greek invader Agamemnon. She even foresees her own early death, and still, no one pays attention. She’s made fun of by both Greeks and Trojans alike for always foretelling doom and destruction.

vii. Select a suitable phrase from paragraph 2 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

I was more than willing to interact with my colleagues but they did not seem interested and ______________________.
Answer:
I was more than willing to interact with my colleagues but they did not seem interested and refused the overtures.

viii. The story of Cassandra is narrated by many Greek authors. Which authors narrate the story?
Answer:
Cassandra appears in texts written by Homer, Virgil, Aeschylus and Euripides. Each author depicts her prophetic powers differently.

ix. Analyse why Cassandra’s boon was nothing more than a curse for her?
Answer:
Cassandra’s gift of prophecy was wasted by the curse of people not believing in them. She spent her whole life in misery remaining unheard and overlooked. She was eventually taken by Agamemnon to be his slave mistress after the sack of Troy, and was later killed.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.

1. The widespread disappearance of snakes will be one impact of climate change that some people may find it hard to regret. But as vital predators in sensitive habitats such as rice fields, their decline will have wider ecological consequences, say, scientists.

2. Species assessed as Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN), or Vulnerable (VU) are referred to as “threatened” species. Reporting the proportion of threatened species on The IUCN Red List is complicated because not all species groups have been fully evaluated, and some species have so little information available that they can only be assessed as Data Deficient (DD).

3. Scientists in five countries across three continents report they found “alarming” declines in snake numbers after monitoring 17 populations in a variety of habitats – something they believe could be part of a global phenomenon.

The Number of Endangered Species is Rising
Number of animal species of the IUCN Red List, by class
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 1
other invertebrates (spineless) animals, such as crustaceans, corals and arachnids (spiders, scorpions)

Source: IUCN Red List
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 2

4. “All the declines occurred during the same relatively short period of time and over a wide geographical area that included temperate, Mediterranean and tropical climates,” write the authors. “We suggest that, for these reasons alone, there is likely to be a common cause at the root of the declines and that this indicates a more widespread phenomenon.”

5. “The main importance of these findings is that snakes are top predators within the habitats they are found in and as such play a potentially important role in the functioning of many ecosystems,” said Chris Reading of the UK’s Centre for Ecology and Hydrology, who led the research. “For example, they play an important role in pest control – small rodents [like] rats and mice – in areas such as paddies and sugar cane plantations.”

6. The IUCN said it had not done an analysis of snakes, but based on assessments of nearly one in five reptile species it estimates that 28% are threatened. This figure could reduce in future as vulnerable species are often assessed as a priority.

7. Researchers tracked the snake populations between 1987 and 2009 by carrying out regular surveys, a method not designed to measure absolute population sizes but relative abundance. The surveys varied in method between sites – from daily reports over several months of the year to monitoring roadkill – but were always the same in each location.

8. The authors note that six of the eight species which “crashed” had small home ranges, sedentary habits and relied on ambushing prey rather than actively seeking it out. “These patterns fit the prediction that ‘sit-and-wait foragers may be vulnerable because they rely on sites with specific types of ground cover, and anthropogenic activities disrupt these habitat features, and ambush foraging is associated with a suite of life-history traits that involve low rates of feeding, growth and reproduction’,” they add.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the seven given below.

i. What do the authors mean by ‘sit-and-wait foragers’?
Answer:
‘Sit-and-wait foragers’ refers to snakes that naturally ambush hunters. They have small home ranges, sedentary habits and rely on ambushing prey rather than actively seeking it out.

ii. Why was this survey on the declining snake population undertaken?
Answer:
Snakes are the top chain predators of their ecosystem, meaning that they keep the population of the pests like rats and mice under control. Their decline is going to push the food chain into an imbalance which makes it important to save the snake species. Therefore, a survey on the declining snake population was undertaken.

iii. Based on the information that can be gathered from the figure given in the passage, can we say that birds are more vulnerable than reptiles?
Answer:
The number of endangered bird species listed by IUCN has remain almost constant so far over the years but there is a visible increase in the number of endangered reptile species. Hence, it would be better to say that the rate with which reptiles are becoming endangered is more alarming.

iv. What can be concluded by the data of IUCN red list, with reference to the figure given in the passage?
Answer:
The number of vulnerable and endangered species have been increasingly on the rise and the direct culprit for this can be labelled as climate change and human interference,

v. What are threatened species?
Answer:
Species assessed as Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN), or Vulnerable (VU) are referred to as “threatened” species.

vi. Why is it complicated to report threatened species to IUCN?
Answer:
Reporting the proportion of threatened species on The IUCN Red List is complicated because not all species groups have been fully evaluated, and some species have so little information available that they can only be assessed as Data Deficient (DD).

vii. Identify a phrase from paragraph 8 suggesting that the sharp decline in snake population is a direct manifestation of human interference.
Answer:
Anthropogenic activities suggests that the sharp decline in snake population is a direct manifestation of human interference.

Section-B
Writing

Question 3.
Draft a formal invitation on behalf of Mrs. and Mr. Bhardwato be sent to all the relatives and friends on the occasion of their daughter’s marriage. Prepare the invitation giving necessary details in not more than 50 words.
Answer:

Mrs and Mr BHARDWAJ
request the pleasure of your benign presence
on the occasion
of the Marriage of their daughter
SAKSHI
with
AKAASH
(S/o. Mrs and Mr Ravikant Sharma)
On 15th February, 20XX at 8:00 a.m.
HOTEL LAKE PALACE
Vinoba Vihar, Udaipur

R.S.V.P
Mrs. and Mr. Bhardwaj
12, Anita Colony, Udaipur Ph: XXXXXXXXXX

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

(A) You are Nitin/Nitima living in Mysore. You have just completed Hotel Management Course and looking for a job. While browsing through The Times of India, you came across an advertisement for the requirement of an executive chef in Hotel Marriott. Write an application in about 120-150 words for the same giving your resume.

Hotel Marriott
Vacancy for the post of Executive Chef
Hotel Marriott, Bangalore, is looking for an executive chef for immediate placement.
She/he should have in-depth knowledge of F&B Kitchen Management and controls, good communication skills, and specialise in culinary art.
Apply within seven working days of publication of this advertisement to the
HR Manager – Hotel Marriott, Bangalore.

OR
(B) You are Vijay/Vijaya, Assembly Secretary of Army Police Public School, Vasant Kunj. Write a report in 120-150 words on the felicitation ceremony held in your school. You may use the cues given below along with your own ideas.

  • Felicitation ceremony for academic and co-curricular achievers
  • Chief Guest of the programme
  • Introductory dance
  • Address by principal and chief guest
  • Cash tokens to the toppers and all-round topper

Answer:

A. 8/12, Sri Nagar,
Mysore-XXXXXX
10th June, 20XX
The Manager
Marriott Hotel
Delhi

Subject: Application for the post of executive chef

Sir,
This is with reference to your job advertisement in ‘The Times of India’ regarding the post of an executive chef in your hotel. I would like to apply for the same. I am an efficient chef who excels in creating the menu and can very well oversee the kitchen staff competently. I am capable enough to prepare unique dishes that will make your business stand out from others. For further details, I am enclosing my bio-data herewith.

Enel.: Bio-data

Bio – Data

Name Nitin/Nitima
Father’s Name B.N. Kumar
Date of Birth 21st August, 1994
Address 8/12, Sri Nagar, Mysore XXX XXX Phone : 98XXXXXXXX
E-Mail Address [email protected]
Marital Status Unmarried
Nationality Indian
Educational Qualifications (i) Bachelor in Hotel Management, XYZ Institute, Pune
(ii) Certified Executive Chef (CEC)
(iii) Associate degree in culinary art
Experience 2 years experience as a cook in a Three Star Hotel
Strengths Ability to communicate in fast-moving environment, organization skill, time management skill
Languages Good command over spoken and written English.
Hobbies Reading and Sketching
References 1. Rohin Khurana, Manager, Blue Lagoon Hotel, Pune Ph. XXXXXXXXXX
2. Anil Sharma, Manager, Hyatt, Delhi. Ph : XXXXXXXXXX

Hoping for a favorable response.

Thanking you,

Yours sincerely,
Nitin/ Nitima

OR
B.

Felicitation Event at Army Police Public School
By Vijaya/Vijay

Army Police Public School, Vasant Kunj organised a ceremony to felicitate achievers in academics and co-curricular fields. The occasion was graced by Mr. Rohit Mallik, special CP, Deepa Mallik, Mahesh Vaidya, joint CP, Western range and Visit Verma, additional DCP, South West district. A Bihu dance performed by the students was a feast for the eyes.

In her address, Principal Shiny Datta stressed on recognising excellence not only in academics but also in co-curricular activities. She also focused on the need to develop basic life skills in children. The CBSE class 10th toppers bagging the first, second and third positions were awarded a cash prize of ₹3,000; ₹2,000 and ₹1,000 respectively.

The stream toppers of class 12th received cash price of ₹5,000 each. Meritorious students from classes 6 to 9 and 11 were awarded. Student of the year, Gaurav Khandelwal was felicitated with a cash price of ₹1O,000. The principal and the guests felicitated young achievers and other students were motivated to follow the footsteps of the merit holders.

Section-C
Literature

Question 5.
Attempt ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each.

i. How do ‘denizens’ and ‘chivalric’ add to our understanding of the tiger’s attitudes?
Answer:
The word ‘denizens’ here means that the tigers are proud of their home, they feel safe and fearless there and have a feeling of belonging attached to it. The word ‘chivalric’ shows that they have a majestic and worthy position like knights. They are the masters of their area.

ii. ‘The next day both men got up in good, season.’ Who are the men who are mentioned in the line and what did they both do when they got up?
Answer:
The two men who are mentioned in the line are the old crofter and the peddler. After getting up, the crofter was in a hurry to milk his cow. Peddler also did not want to stay in bed when the host had gotten up. They left the cottage at the same time. The crofter locked the door and put the key in his pocket. The peddler thanked him, bade him goodbye and then both went their own way.

iii. Why did Gandhiji agree to the settlement of 25% refund to the peasants?
Answer:
Gandhiji had demanded 50 percent refund from the landlords. The landlords offered only 25 percent. Gandhiji agreed to the settlement of 25 percent because according to Gandhiji, money was not important. He had made the Britishers bow down before the Indian peasants, which was the primary aim of this struggle.

iv. According to the poet John Keats, what are the things that cause pain?
Answer:
According to Keats, the things that cause pain and suffering are despondency, dearth of noble nature, gloomy days and unhealthy and darkened ways of human beings.

v. What did you feel about Evan’s having the last laugh?
Answer:
The phrase ‘Evans having the last laugh’ refers to the clever plan devised by Evans to escape from the prison by fooling everyone till the end. He left some clues so that the officials would be misled in chasing him. Evans adopted the wrong way. He forged the van used by the governor of the prison. He finally managed to escape which is referred to here as Evans having the last laugh.

vi. What was the basic plot of each story told by Jack?
Answer:
The basic plot of each story told by Jack was about a small creature, usually named Roger who had some problem and went with it to the wise old owl. The owl would tell him to go to the wizard and the wizard performed a magic spell that solved the problem and then demanded payment in pennies.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120-150 words each.

i. ‘The blacksmiths glanced only casually and indifferently at the intruder’ but ‘The ironmaster did not follow the example of the blacksmiths who had hardly deigned to look at the stranger’. How was the attitude of both the persons different?
Answer:
The attitude of both, the blacksmiths and the ironmaster was completely different. On one side where blacksmiths exhibited the typical attitude of physical labors for whom, work was the first priority and didn’t bother about the onlookers, the ironmaster was a conscious man. The master blacksmith signaled an arrogant permission without honoring the intruder with a single word. It was clear from his gesture that the peddler didn’t matter for him.

His presence was insignificant for him. But the ironmaster, who was on one of his nightly rounds of inspection, saw the tall ragamuffin who had quietly made his way to the furnace for warmth. He walked closely up to him and looked him over carefully. Then he removed his slouch hat to get a better view of his face.

In the uncertain light of the furnace, he mistook the stranger for his old regimental comrade and requested him to go home with him. When the stranger declined the invitation, the ironmaster sent his daughter to persuade him to spend Christmas Eve with them. This highlights the different shades of human nature. It shows that even the person with best judgment may commit an error of judgment.

ii. How do things of beauty enrich us?
Answer:
Our desire to live on this earth is to a great extent due to the presence of beautiful things that are a constant source of joy for us. Without beauty, the earth is full of gloom and sadness. There is cruelty, selfishness and mean behaviour all around with lack of good-natured people. It is this beauty, a creation of God, which removes the sadness and darkness from our minds and souls.

As we get wrapped up in the beautiful flowery band or this strong connection with nature, we get a reason to live further. The sun, the moon, trees old and young are all sources of happiness for us. The trees sprout and spread their branches to provide shelter within their shade for the simple sheep.

The Daffodils bloom within the green surroundings in which they grow. The clear and small streams of water make a cooling shelter for themselves against the hot season. The thick mass of ferns looks grand with their beautiful musk roses. All these things enrich our lives to an extent that it is not possible to live without them and in this way beauty enriches us.

iii. What is the moral issue that the story ‘Should Wizard Hit Mommy’ raises?
Answer:
The moral issue that the story raises is whether parents have the absolute right of judging what is good or bad for their child. There is a sharp contrast in the story about the child’s viewpoint and an adult’s perspective of life.

In the story, Jo felt that the happiness of being able to make friends is more than anything else and so she wanted the story to end with Roger Skunk smelling like roses. On the other hand, her father Jack ended the story by saying that his mother was right in getting Roger’s smell back to its original form, implying to his daughter that parents knew what is best for their children.

He also advocates that children should respect their parent’s opinions and obey them unquestioningly. Jack also narrated that all the other animals finally accepted Roger, as he was emphasising the importance of a person’s originality and individuality.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. [8]

I saw ‘Jaws’, the popular shark movie, the summer it came out, in 1975 and became paranoid about sharks. Though I kept swimming after Jaws, it was always with the vague fear that a shark’s teeth could tug on my leg at any moment. Never mind that there’d been only two shark bites since 1900 on the Connecticut coast, where I lived. (5)

So, when I got this assignment for the National Geographic magazine, I decided to accept and do what I’d never wanted to do: swim with the sharks. I had to go to a place in the Bahamas known as Tiger Beach and dive with tiger sharks, the species responsible for more recorded attacks on humans than any shark except the great white. It was to be my first dive 10 after getting certified-which meant it would be my first dive anywhere other than a swimming pool or a quarry-and without a diver’s cage. Most people who got wind of this plan thought I was either very brave or very stupid. (10)

But I just wanted to puncture an illusion. The people who know sharks 15 intimately tend to be the least afraid of them, and no one gets closer to sharks than divers. The divers who run operations at Tiger Beach speak lovingly of the tiger sharks, the way people talk about their children or their pets. In their eyes, these sharks aren’t man-eaters any more than dogs are. (15)

The business of puncturing illusions is never just black and white. My 20 fellow divers had hundreds of dives under their belt and on the two-hour boat ride to the site in the morning of our first dive, they kept saying things like, “Seriously, I really can’t believe this is your first dive.” All this was okay with me until I reached the bottom and immediately had to fend off the first tiger shark, I had ever laid eyes on. However, when I watched the 25 other divers feeding them fish and steering them gently, it became easy to see the sharks in a very benign light. (20)

I think it would be unfair not to mention that though tiger sharks are apex predators, they act as a crucial balancing force in ocean ecosystems, constraining the numbers of animals like sea turtles and 30 limiting their behavior by preventing them from overgrazing the sea grass beds. Furthermore, tiger sharks love warm water, they eat almost anything, have a huge litter and are the hardiest shark species. If the planet and its oceans continue to warm, some species will be winners and others will be losers, and tiger sharks are likely to be winners. (30)

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. [1 x 8]

i. Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s post-jams fear was not justified. (1)
Answer:
The writer’s fear of sharks, after watching the movie, was irrational. It has been stated in the passage that there were only 2 shark attacks reported in 75 years i.e, from 1900-1975, so it was highly unlikely that he had anything to fear.

ii. State any one trait of the writer that is evident from lines 5-10 and provide a reason for your choice. (1)
Answer:
The writer was adventurous, courageous, bold and experimental because he feared the tiger sharks and was well aware of the fact that they were dangerous, yet he accepted his first assignment that required him to face them.

iii. People thought the writer was ‘either brave or very stupid’. Why did some people think that he was ‘very stupid’? (1)
Answer:
Some people thought the writer ‘to be stupid ‘because he side lined the popular notion that tiger sharks were dangerous and did not pay any attention to the fact. He was walking into obvious danger without the required expertise.

iv. Why does the writer say that people who know sharks intimately tend to be least afraid of them? (1)
Answer:
The writer said that people who know sharks intimately tend to be least afraid of them because they find sharks harmless. These sharks feed on the food offered by them and seem as docile as pets,

v. Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 10-20. (1)

Some academicians think that reward, as a form of discipline, is a simple right or wrong issue.
Answer:
Some academicians think that reward, as a form of discipline, is a simple black and white issue,

vi. What does the use of the phrase ‘benign light’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint about the tiger sharks? (1)
Answer:
The phrase, ‘Benign light’ is viewed as benevolent/gentle/friendly. Tiger sharks did not seem to be that harmful or dangerous. They seemed fairly docile and less dangerous than the other sharks,

vii. Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately. (1)

I agree the team will find this experience tough, but competing will be easier next time after they get this tournament ______________________.
Answer:
I agree the team will find this experience tough, but competing will be easier next time after they get this tournament under their belt.

viii. Apex predators serve to keep prey numbers in check. How can we say that tiger sharks are apex predators? (1)
Answer:
Tiger sharks are apex predators because they restrict the number of sea turtles by feeding on them, and act as a balancing force in the ocean ecosystem. If the numbers weren’t constrained, it would result in the depletion of sea-grass which supports other marine life forms,

ix. Analyse why having a large litter is one of the features that empower tiger sharks to emerge, winners, if global warming persists. (1)
Answer:
A large litter is one of the features that empowers tiger sharks to emerge winners if global warming persists. It reduces possibility of extinction or destruction due to harsh conditions, as large numbers would ensure that some definitely survive.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.

Changing food preferences have brought about rapid changes in the structure of the Indian diet. The rapid proliferation of multinational fast-food companies and the influence of Western culture have replaced traditional home-cooked meals with ready-to-eat, processed foods thus increasing the risk of chronic diseases in urban Indians. Therefore, 5 nurturing healthy eating habits among Indians from an early age would help to reduce health risks.

To date, little is known about the quality and quantity of foods and beverages consumed by urban Indian adolescents. This lack of evidence is a significant barrier to the development of effective nutrition promotion 10 and disease prevention measures.

Therefore, a self-administered, semi-quantitative, 59-item meal-based, food frequency questionnaire (FFQ) was developed to assess the dietary intake of adolescents. A total of 1026 students (aged 14-16 years) attending private, English-speaking schools in Kolkata completed the survey. 15

A sample percentage of the food consumption pattern is displayed (Fig. 1)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1
The survey results report poor food consumption patterns and highlight the need to design healthy eating initiatives. Interestingly, while there were no gender differences in the consumption of legumes and fried snacks, the survey found more females consumed cereals, vegetables and fruits than their male counterparts. 20

In conclusion, the report suggested that schools ought to incorporate food literacy concepts into their curriculum as they have the potential of increasing the fruit and vegetable intake in teenagers. Additionally, healthy school canteen policies with improved availability, accessibility, variety and affordability of healthy food choices would support the 25 consumption of nutritious food in students.

Adapted from: https://nutritionj.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/sl2937-017-0272-3

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. [1 x 6]

i. What does the researcher mean by ‘changing food preferences? (1)
Answer:
‘Changing food preferences ‘means the transition of the urban population from healthy home-cooked meals to ready-to-eat-processed foods.

ii. Why was this survey on the food consumption of adolescents undertaken? (1)
Answer:
This survey on the food consumption of adolescents is undertaken to understand the food consumption pattern of urban adolescents and to make recommendations based on the data.

iii. With reference to fig.l, write one conclusion about students’ consumption of energy-dense drinks. (1)
Answer:
It shows that close to 47% students drink three or more servings of energy-dense beverages while a mere 5% students said ‘no’ to more than one serving of the beverage. It highlights the fact that energy-dense beverages are greatly consumed by the adolescents.

iv. What can be concluded by the ‘no intake’ data of fruit consumption versus energy dense snacks, with reference to fig.l? (1)
Answer:
The conclusion drawn by the ‘no intake’ data of fruit consumption versus energy dense snacks is that half the respondents (45%) did not consume any servings of fruit in contrast to 95% that had some form of energy dense snack.

v. There were no gender differences observed in the consumption of healthy foods, according to the survey. Substantiate. (1)
Answer:
According to the survey, there were gender differences observed in the consumption of healthy foods wherein females had more nutritious dietary intake as they consumed more cereals, vegetables and fruits compared to their male counterparts.

vi. Why is ‘affordability’ recommended as a significant feature of a school canteen policy? (1)
Answer:
‘Affordability’ is recommended as a significant feature of a school canteen policy because the consumers are school children and therefore food should be affordable,

vii. Identify a word from lines 9-18 indicating that the questionnaire was specifically designed to be completed by a respondent without the intervention of the researcher collecting the data. (1)
Answer:
Self-administered

Section-B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
You are Natasha, residing in Pune. Your cousin, from the same city is hosting your grandmother’s eightieth birth anniversary and has extended an invite to you. He has also requested your assistance for arrangements needed. Draft a reply of acceptance, in not more than 50 words. [3]
Answer:
217 MIG Flats
Surya Vihar, Pune,
15 March, 20XX

Dear Aman,
I acknowledge with thanks your kind invitation to grandma’s eightieth birth anniversary on 25th March at 5pm at your place. I am extremely delighted to join this occasion and would like to confirm my participation. I would love to assist you for the arrangements, just let me know how I can help you. I assure you best of my services.

Looking forward to the momentous occasion.

Yours lovingly,
Natasha

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. [5]
(A) You are Shantanu, residing at Ghar B-94, Balimela Road, Malkangiri. You come across the following classified advertisement in a local daily. Write a letter, in about 120-150 words, applying for the position of a volunteer for the Each One Teach One campaign.

Situation Vacant

WANTED committed volunteers, aged 18 years and above, to teach underprivileged children, for one hour a week, in the district of Malkangiri. The ability to speak, read and write Odiya fluently, is important. Experience not necessary. All volunteers to receive training. Contact Nethra N, Coordinator (Each One Teach One), 4 Literacy, Ambaguda, Malkangiri, Odisha -764045

Answer:
Ghar B-94, Balimela Road,
Malkangiri
19th September, 20XX
Nethra N, Coordinator (Each One Teach One),
4 Literacy, Ambaguda,
Malkangiri, Odisha -764045

Subject: Application for volunteer for Each One Teach One campaign Madam,

In response to your advertisement in The Hindustan Times, dated 17 September 20XX, requiring young and committed volunteers for Each One Teach One campaign, I want to render my services for this noble cause.

I am quite enthusiastic about bringing a change in our society through education and teaching under¬privileged children can be a good start. I have reasonably good command over Odiya as it is my mother tongue.

Although I am just 18 and have finished my schooling this year, I have participated in such projects under SUPW. I have heard a lot about your prestigious campaign. I think it will be an honour for me to get associated with your esteemed organisation and contribute my bit for this noble cause. I do assure you of my dedicated service and wholehearted cooperation.

I am enclosing herewith my detailed resume for your kind reference.

Yours faithfully,
Shantanu

Resume

Name Shantanu Kaira
Father’s Name Amit Kaira
Date of Birth 4th October, 2003
Address Ghar B-94, Balimela Road, Malkangiri
Marital Status Unmarried
Educational Qualifications (i) High School, CBSE, Year-2018, 75%
(ii) Senior Secondary, CBSE, Year-2020, 70%
Work Experience No experience
Languages Known English, Hindi, Odiy
Strengths Good time management, hard-working
References 1. Dr. S Purohit, Principal, Summer Fields Public School.,
2. Mr. P.S. Dalmia, Director, Summer Fields Public School

OR

(B) The efforts of 400 volunteers working with the NGO, 4 Literacy, in the district of Malkangiri, Odisha, was lauded by the District Collector, Shri V. Singh (IAS). As a staff reporter of ‘The Odisha Bhaskar’, write a report about this in 120-150 words covering all the details, such as training, teaching and infrastructure involved in the ‘Each One Teach One’ campaign, initiated by the district administration in association with the NGO.
Answer:

IAS PRAISE EACH ONE TEACH ONE CAMPAIGN
(Staff correspondent ‘The Odisha Bhaskar’)

2nd December, 20XX

The efforts of 400 volunteers in the Each One Teach One campaign was lauded by the District Collector, Shri V. Singh (IAS) in a felicitation ceremony organised by the district administration on 1st December, 20XX at the Community Hall.

The district administration of Malkangiri, Odisha initiated a literacy campaign Each One Teach One in association with an NGO, 4 literacy with the aim of teaching under privileged children. These children had come from the nearby localities. For educating these children, 400 volunteers were trained for one month.

The campaign started with the evening classes which were held in a local government school. Classrooms were used for conducting classes. These classes were taken by the volunteers to teach children reading and writing, numbers 1 to 100, addition and subtraction, and environmental studies related to health and hygiene. The method adopted to teach the above-mentioned syllabus was through skits, T.V shows, lectures and storytelling in their mother tongue, Odiya.

These volunteers worked hard to make these poor children learn basic numeric and reading competencies. Their efforts were greatly recognized and appreciated by the district collector who honored these volunteers with medals and certificates of appreciation.

Section-C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Attempt ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each. [2 x 5 = 10]

i. A mistaken identity led to a discovery of a new one for the rattrap peddler. How did this impact him? (2)
Answer:
A mistaken identity led to a discovery of a new one for the rattrap peddler because it gave him the power to clear his conscience. Having raised to the status of a Captain brought out his latent goodness which lent him conviction to become a better human being. He got a chance of elevating himself from being a thief and to behave in a dignified manner befitting that of a Captain,

ii. As the host of a talk show, introduce Rajkumar Shukla to the audience by stating any two of his defining qualities. (2)
You may begin your answer like this:
Meet Rajkumar Shukla, the man who played a pivotal in the Champaran Movement. He
Answer:
Meet Rajkumar Shukla, the man who played a pivotal role in the Champaran Movement. He was determined and resolute to meet Gandhiji and to complain about the injustice of the landlord system in Bihar. His perseverance convinced Gandhiji to look into the matter and resolve the issue of sharecroppers.

iii. Adrienne Rich chose to express her silent revolt through her poem, Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers, just as Aunt Jennifer did with her embroidery. Explain. (2)
Answer:
Adrienne Rich, through her poem, criticizes the traditional institution of marriage, in her times, suggesting that it oppresses women. Similarly, Aunt Jennifer, a victim of an unhappy marriage, under a domineering husband, chooses embroidery to vent her angst. Both use their creative outlet as a form of protest against societal expectations.

iv. Rationalise why Keats uses the metaphor ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink’ in his poem, A Thing of Beauty? (2)
Answer:
Keats uses the metaphor ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink’ because things of beauty are just like the immortal drink of the gods that flow continuously and never die. Just as the endless fountain of immortality is an elixir of life, similarly things of beauty are constant/perennial in providing everlasting joy/motivation/bliss to the humans.

v. How do you think Derry’s mother contributes to his sense of alienation and isolation? (On the Face of It) (2)
Answer:
Derry’s mother is overprotective and doesn’t understand her son’s longing for companionship. She does not allow him to meet Mr. Lamb. She treats Derry with a sense of pity and robs him of his dignity by perpetually treating him like a helpless victim.

vi. Validate John Updike’s open-ended title, Should Wizard Hit Mommy? (2)
Answer:
The story’s title ‘Should Wizard hit Mommy?’ is a question that agrees either with Jo, who believes in justice for the skunk, or the father, who believes that mothers cannot err. Both seem right. The author leaves it open-ended for the reader to allow flexibility and creative insight. So that the reader can accept any view point.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120-150 words each. [4 x 2]

i. How does Keats’ poem, A Thing of Beauty appeal richly to the senses, stimulating the reader’s inner sight as well as the sense of touch and smell? Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
Keats’ descriptions allow for a deeper perception of the imaginary, converting it into a life-like experience. They stimulate the reader’s inner sight as well as the sense of touch and smell. Keats establishes this with powerful imagery and word play. The poem,’

A thing of Beauty’ talks about the cooling comfort of the bower, dancing daffodils in its green environs, the babbling stream and the mid-forest brake with the musk rose blooms. These descriptions evoke in our imagination, a sense of hearing, touch and smell. The stories of mighty and the doom that befalls them appeals to our intellect.

The endless fountain may be an allusion of .the fountain of youth, however, it has a sublimating effect on the reader. Therefore, Keats, poetic descriptions presents beauty that appeals to our senses and gives delight.

ii. Colin Dexter, the author of Evans Tries an O-level employs the red herring technique of intentionally misleading readers by placing false clues to keep the plot enigmatic. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
Yes, it is true that Colin Dexter, the author of Evans Tries an O-level employs the red herring technique of intentionally misleading readers by placing false clues to keep the plot enigmatic. There are several loop holes in the story that create doubts in the mind of the readers.

Firstly, the story begins with a strange setting where the prison was shown to be equipped with maximum security and a kleptomaniac with a record of breaking out of prison. Then, this skeptical prisoner, Evans’ grubby appearance, jovial manner and friendly banter distracts us from his sharp intelligence and extraordinary talent for deception.

Apart from his appearance, his silly but filthy looking bobble hat (a knit beanie with a pom-pom on top) also distracts, giving readers the appearance of a comical character.

At one place the author wrote ‘Number Two Handkerchief’ neatly placed on the bed, there is no mention of the number one handkerchief.

Next, Reverend Stuart Me Leery was first seen exiting his bachelor flat in Broad Street and later was found gagged in the same flat. Then there is mention of the nail file in his suitcase and then reference to Me Leery’s meticulously manicured fingers, so there is no purpose of carrying the nail file.

It has been shown that Me Leery had grown thinner and then ‘Me Leery’ was found slumped in a chair. This is a complete confusion. Finally, with the help of clues in the question paper, a chase started all over the town which seems entirely meaningless.

These sudden jerks make us conclude that Colin Dexter’s Evan’s Tries an O-level is a creative and highly . complicated prison-break interspersed with twists in the plot.

iii. Biographies include features of non-fiction texts – factual information and different text structures such as description, sequence, comparison, cause and effect, or problem and solution. Examine Indigo in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
The story is based on the interview taken by Louis Fischer of Mahatma Gandhi. In order to write on him he had visited him in 1942 at his ashram- Sevagram where he was told about the Indigo Movement started by Gandhiji. The story revolves around the struggle of Gandhi and other prominent leaders in order to safeguard sharecroppers from the atrocities of landlords.

Indigo, being an excerpt of a biography, has features of fiction as well as non-fiction texts. The chapter describes the facts and factual information. It also has text structure that is suitable for non-fiction.

The facts are taken from history- Pre Independence era. The incident of Champaran was an important part of freedom struggle. This factual information is beautifully described keeping in mind the sequence of the events.

The problem of sharecroppers is truthfully depicted. Gandhi took up the case of the Champaran farmers after ascertaining that their cause was just. He then employed the principle of civil disobedience to politely defy British orders to restrain him. This episode moved in Gandhi and he decided that the British must quit India.

The triumph of the Champaran case gave fillip to the Civil Disobedience Movement. So all that has been described in the chapter is non-fictional.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. All
    questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part-B has two options L e. (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting.
    Students must attempt only one of the given options.
  • Question nos. 1 to 3 and 10 are short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • Question nos. 4 to 6 and 11 are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • Question nos. 7 to 9 and 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
Following information has been provided by M/s Achyut Health Care. You are required to calculate the amount of medicines consumed during the year 2020-21:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Stock of medicines as on April 1, 2020 15,00,000
Creditors for medicines as on April 1, 2020 3,50,000
Stock of medicines as on March 31, 2021 10,00,000
Creditors for medicines as on March 31, 2021 4,20,000
Cash purchases of medicines during the year 2020-21 2,00,000
Credit purchases of medicines during the year 2020-21 6,00,000

Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 1

Question 2.
Distinguish between ‘Dissolution of Partnership’ and ‘Dissolution of Partnership Firm’ based on:
(i) Settlement of assets and liabilities
(ii) Economic relationship [2]
Solution:

Basis of Distinction Dissolution of Partnership Dissolution of Partnership Firm
(i) Settlement of Assets and Liabilities Assets are revalued and liabilities are reassessed. Assets are sold and liabilities are paid off.
(ii) Economic relationship Economic relationship between the partners continue, though in a changed form. Economic relationship between the partners comes to an end.

Question 3.
Suresh, Ramesh and Tushar were partners of a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 6 : 5 : 4. Ramesh retired and his capital after making adjustments on account of reserves, revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities stood at ₹ 2,50,400. Suresh and Tushar agreed to pay him ₹ 2,90,000 in full settlement of his claim.
Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill. Show workings clearly. [2]
Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 2
Working Notes:
Ramesh’s share of Goodwill = ₹ 2,90,000 – ₹ 2,50,400 = ₹ 39,600

Question 4.
From the following information given by Modern Dance Academy, calculate the amount of Subscription
received during the year 2020-21.
(i) Subscription credited to Income & Expenditure A/c for the year ending 31st March, 2021 amounted to ₹ 3,00,000 and each member is required to pay an annual subscription of ₹ 3,000.
(ii) Subscription in arrears as on lsl April 2020 amounted to ₹ 16,000.
(iii) During the year 2020-21, 10 members made partial payment of ₹ 26,000 towards subscription, 8 members failed to pay the subscription amount and 5 members paid the subscription amount for the year 2021-22.
(iv) During the year 2019-20,12 members paid the subscription amount for the year 2020-21.
OR
Following information is given by Alchemy Medical College, Library department for the year 2020-21:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Books and Journals Fund as on 1.4.2020 4,50,000
7% Books and Journals Fund Investments as on 1.4.2020 4,00,000
Interest on Books and Journals Fund Investments 13,000
Donations for Books and Journals 20,000
Books Purchased 70,000
General Fund as on 1.4.2020 10,00,000

Show the accounting treatment of the above-mentioned items in the Balance Sheet of the Alchemy
Medical College as at 31st March,2021. [3]
Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 3
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 4
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 5
Working Notes:
Interest on Books and Journals Investments = 4,00,000 × \(\frac{7}{100}\) = ₹ 28,000
Accrued Interest = 88,000 – 13,000 = 15,000

Question 5.
Harihar, Hemang and Harit were partners with fixed capitals of ₹ 3,00,000, ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹ 1,00,000 respectively. They shared profits in the ratio of their fixed capitals. Harit died on 31st May, 2020, whereas the firm closes its books of accounts on 31st March every year. According to their partnership deed, Harit’s representatives would be entitled to get share in the interim profits of the firm on the basis of sales. Sales and profit for the year 2019-20 amounted to ₹ 8,00,000 and ₹ 2,40,000 respectively and sales from 1st April, 2020 to 31st May, 2020 amounted to ₹ 1,50,000. The rate of profit to sales remained constant during these two years. You are required to:
(i) Calculate Harit’s share in profit.
(ii) Pass journal entry to record Harit’s share in profit. [3]
Solution:
(i) Ratio of Profit to Sales = \(\frac{2,40,000}{3,00,000}\) × 100 = 30%
Profit upto the date of death = 1,50,000 × 30% = ₹ 45,000
Profit-sharing ratio = 3 : 2 : 1
Harit’s share of profit = 45,000 × \(\frac{1}{6}\) = 7,500
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 6

Question 6.
Vedesh Ltd. purchased a running business of Vibhu Enterprises for a sum of ₹ 12,00,000. Vedesh Ltd. paid ₹ 60,000 by drawing a promissory note in favour of Vibhu Enterprises., ₹ 1,90,000 through bank draft and balance by issue of 8% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5%. The assets and liabilities of Vibhu Enterprises consisted of Fixed Assets valued at ₹ 17,30,000 and Trade Payables at ₹ 3,20,000.
You are required to pass necessary journal entries in the books of Vedesh Ltd.
OR
Youth Ltd. took a loan of ₹ 15,00,000 from State Bank of India against the security of tangible assets. In addition to principal security, it issued 10,000 11% debentures of ₹ 100 each as collateral security.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions, if the company decided to record the issue of 11% debentures as collateral security and show the presentation in the Balance Sheet of Youth Ltd. [3]
Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 7
Working Notes:
Number of debentures issued = \(\frac{9,50,000}{95}\) = 10,000
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 8
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 9

Question 7.
Madhav, Madhusudan and Mukund were partners in Jaganath Associates. They decided to dissolve the
firm on 31st March, 2021. Pass necessary journal entries for the following transactions after various assets
(other than cash) and third-party liabilities have been transferred to realisation account:
(i) Old machine fully written off was sold for ₹ 42,000 while a payment of ₹ 6,000 is made to bank for a bill discounted being dishonoured.
(ii) Madhusudan accepted an unrecorded asset of ₹ 80,000 at ₹ 75,000 and the balance through cheque. Against the payment of his loan to the firm of ?1,00,000.
(iii) Stock of book value of ₹ 30,000 was taken by Madhav, Madhusudan and Mukund in their profit sharing ratio.
(iv) The firm had paid realisation expenses amounting to ₹ 5,000 on behalf of Mukund.
(v) There was a vehicle loan of ₹ 2,00,000 which was paid by surrender of asset to the bank at an agreed value of ₹ 1,40,000 and the shortfall was met from firm’s bank account.
OR
Gini, Bini and Mini were in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 2. Their Balance
Sheet as at 31st March, 2021 was as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 10
On 31st March, 2021, Gini retired from the firm. All the partners agreed to revalue the assets and liabilities
on the following basis:
(i) Bad debts amounted to ₹ 5,000. A provision for doubtful debts was to be maintained at 10% on debtors.
(ii) Partners have decided to write off existing goodwill.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 54,000 and be adjusted into the Capital Accounts of Bini and Mini, who will share profits in future in the ratio of 5 : 4.
(iv) The assets and liabilities valued as: Inventories ₹ 30,000; Machinery ₹ 82,000; Furniture ₹ 1,95,000 and Building ?6,00,000.
(v) Liability of ₹ 23,000 is to be created on account of Claim for Workmen Compensation.
(vi) There was an unrecorded investment in shares of ₹ 25,000. It was decided to pay off Gini by giving her unrecorded investment in full settlement of her part payment of ₹ 28,000 and remaining amount after two months.
Prepare Revaluation Account and Partners’ Capital Accounts as on 31st March, 2021.
Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 11
Working Notes:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 12
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 13
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 14
Working Notes:
Total goodwill of the firm valued at ₹ 54,000.
The retiring partner Ginni’s share = 54,000 × \(\frac{5}{9}\) = ₹ 30,000
∴ ₹ 30,000 to be distributed or shared by remaining partner’s Binni & Mini in gain ratio, which is calculated as follows :
Gain ratio = New Ratio – Old Ratio
Bini’s share = \(\frac{5}{9}-\frac{2}{9}=\frac{3}{9}\)
Mini’s share = \(\frac{4}{9}-\frac{2}{9}=\frac{2}{9}\)
∴ Gain ratio between Bini & Mini is 3 : 2
As as a result,goodwill of ₹ 30,000 is to be distributed among Bini and Mini in 3 : 2 .
Bini = 30,000 × 3/5 = ₹ 18,000
Mini = 30,000 × 2/5 = ₹ 12,000

Question 8.
Yogadatra Ltd. (pharmaceutical company) appointed marketing expert, Mr. Kartikay as the CEO of the company, with a target to penetrate their roots in the rural regions. Mr. Kartikay discussed the ways and means to achieve target of the company with financial, production and marketing departmental heads and asked the finance manager to prepare the budget. After reviewing the suggestions given by all the departmental heads, the finance manager proposed requirement of an additional fund of ₹ 52,50,000. Yogadatra Ltd. is a zero-debt company. To avail the benefits of financial leverage, the finance manager proposed to include debt in the capital structure. After deliberations, on Aprill,2020, the board of directors had decided to issue 6% Debentures of ?100 each to the public at a premium of 5%, redeemable after 5 years at ₹ 110 per share.
You are required to answer the following questions:
(i) Calculate the number of debentures to be issued to raise additional funds.
(ii) Pass Journal entry for the allotment of debentures.
(iii) Pass Journal entry to write off loss on issue of debentures.
(iv) Calculate the amount of annual fixed obligation associated with debentures.
(v) Prepare Loss on Issue of Debentures Account. [5]
Solution:
(i) Number of debentures to be issued = \(\frac{52,50,000}{105}\) = 50,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 15
(iv) Interest on 6% Debentures = 50,00,000 x \(\frac{6}{100}\) = ₹ 3,00,000
(v) Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 16

Question 9.
From the following Receipts and Payments Account and additional information provided by Ramanath Club, Prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ending on 31st March, 2021.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 17
Additional Information:
(i) Subscription received during the year includes ₹ 25,000 as donation for Building.
(ii) Telephone bill unpaid as on March 31, 2020 was ₹ 4,000 and on March 31, 2021 ₹ 2,600.
(iii) Value of 8% Government Securities on March 31, 2020 was ₹ 80,000.
(iv) Additional Government Securities worth ₹ 30,000 were purchased on March 31, 2021. [5]
Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 18

Part B
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
State whether the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash while preparing cash flow statement:
(i) Decrease in outstanding employees benefits by ₹ 3,000
(ii) Increase in Current Investment by ₹ 6,000. [2]
Answer:
(i) Out flow
(ii) Increase in Current Investments may result in decrease in cash flow or you can say, it results in outflow of cash or negative cash flow. When an asset increases during the year, it may mean that cash must have been used to purchase the new assets.
∴ It will result in outflow of cash.

Question 11.
From the following details provided by Kumud Ltd., prepare Comparative Statement of Profit & Loss
for the year ended 31st March, 2021:

Particulars 31.03.20 (₹) 31.03.21 (₹)
Revenue from operations 30,00,000 35,00,000
Other Income 3,00,000 4,50,000
Cost of materials Consumed 20,00,000 23,00,000
Other Expenses 1,00,000 1,20,000
Tax rate 40% 40%

OR
From the following Balance Sheets of Vinayak Ltd. as at 31st March, 2021, Prepare a Common-size Balance Sheet.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 19
[3]
Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 20
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 21
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 22

Question 12.
On the basis of information given by Aradhana Ltd., prepare Cash Flow Statement for the year ending 31st March, 2021:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 23
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 24
Note to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 25
Additional Information:
1. Debentures were redeemed on 1st April,2020.
2. Tax paid during the year ₹ 2,80,000. [5]
Solution:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 26
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 27
Working Notes:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 28
3. Calculation of Interest on Debentures:
₹ 2,00,000 × 10% = ₹ 20,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 29

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

General Instructions :

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40

Section-A
Reading

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

1. The world may look to South Korea as a model for education – its students rank among the best on international education tests – but the system’s dark side casts a long shadow. South Korean education produces ranks of overachieving students who pay a stiff price in health and happiness.

2. Cram schools known as ‘hagwons’ in Korean – are a mainstay of the South Korean education system and a symbol of parental yearning to see their children succeed at all costs. Hagwons are soulless facilities, with room after room divided by thin walls, lit by long fluorescent bulbs, and stuffed with students memorising English vocabulary, Korean grammar rules and math formulas.

3. This “investment” in education is what has been used to explain South Koreans’ spectacular scores on the Program for International Student Assessment, increasingly the standard by which students from all over the world are compared to one another.

4. Granted, the South Korean system has its strengths. The idea that success is most important, no matter the cost, is a great motivator. But a system driven by overzealous parents and a leviathan private industry is unsustainable over the long run, especially given the physical and psychological costs that students are forced to bear.

5. Many young South Koreans suffer physical symptoms of academic stress. Students are also inclined to see academic performance as their only source of validation and self-worth. Not surprisingly, South Korea’s position in the international education hierarchy is flipped when it comes to youth happiness, with only 60 per cent of the country’s students confessing to being content in school, compared with an average of 80 per cent, in 2012, among the world’s wealthy nations.

6. Korean culture’s special focus on the family unit is also a major factor. Many parents believe that their right to decide their children’s future is sacrosanct. To be a South Korean child ultimately is not about freedom, personal choice or happiness; it is about production, performance and obedience.

7. Despite decades of outright abuse and the entrenchment of this disturbing system, signs are emerging that some people are beginning to take reform seriously. In the course of coming to terms with the legacy of dictatorial rule, South Koreans have embraced the notion of “healing,” with the understanding that past political repression and continuing social pressure have psychological ills that require redress. That trend has led to discussion of the detrimental effects the education system has on students and what should be done.

8. But to effect any meaningful change in education, a culture that treats its children as a commodity to be used in the service of the family or the national economy, must be radically altered. The government must cease viewing children as mere cogs in the country’s economy with no right to personal happiness.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below.

i. Why is South Korea considered a model for education?
Answer:
South Korea is considered a model for education because its students rank among the best on international education tests.

ii. Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the South Korean obsession with grades is not justified.
Answer:
Many young South Koreans suffer physical symptoms of academic stress. Students are also inclined to see academic performance as their only source of validation and self-worth.

iii. What is South Korea’s position in the international education hierarchy with respect to its youth happiness?
Answer:
South Korea’s position in the international education hierarchy with respect to the youth happiness is that only 60 per cent of the country’s students are content in school.

iv. State any one trait of the Korean society that is evident from paragraphs 6-8 and provide a reason for your choice.
Answer:
Korean society is heavily image driven, where parents curate the choices of their children’s career. The Korean government also views children as mere cogs in the country’s economy with no right to personal happiness.

v. Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from paragraphs 3-4. The scientists had to find the vaccine to cure the pandemic, no matter what difficulty was involved.
Answer:
The scientists had to find the vaccine to cure the pandemic, no matter the cost.

vi. What is the Program for International Student Assessment?
Answer:
The Program for International Student Assessment is the benchmark to measure the standard of students’ education in a country.

vii. What are hagwons?
Answer:
Cram schools are known as hagwons in Korean. They are soulless facilities, with room after room divided by thin walls, lit by long fluorescent bulbs, and stuffed with students memorising English vocabulary, Korean grammar rules and math formulas.

viii. Select a suitable phrase from paragraphs 1-2 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

Celebrities have to be extra careful in the world of social media because often their maligned past over their good deeds.
Answer:
Celebrities have to be extra careful in the world of social media because often their maligned past casts a long shadow over their good deeds.

ix. What does the use of the phrase ‘sacrosanct’ suggest in the context of the Korean parent’s viewpoint about their children’s career?
Answer:
Korean culture’s special focus is on the family status. Thus, parents deem it too important and special a decision to be left on their child to decide their future.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.

1. One can define economic growth as the increase in the inflation-adjusted market value of the goods and services produced by an economy over time. Statisticians conventionally measure such growth as the percent rate of increase in real gross domestic product or real GDP.

2. Growth is usually calculated in real terms – i.e., inflation-adjusted terms – to eliminate the distorting effect of inflation on the prices of goods produced. Measurement of economic growth uses national income accounting. Since economic growth is measured as the annual percent change of gross domestic product (GDP), it has all the advantages and drawbacks of that measure. The economic growth rates of countries are commonly compared using the ratio of the GDP to population (per-capita income).

3. The, rate of economic growth, refers to the geometric annual rate of growth in GDP between the first and the last year over a period of time. This growth rate represents the trend in the average level of GDP over the period and ignores any fluctuations in the GDP around this trend.

4. Economists refer to an increase in economic growth caused by more efficient use of inputs (increased productivity of labour, of physical capital, of energy or of materials) as intensive growth. In contrast, GDP growth caused only by increases in the number of inputs available for use (increased population, for example, or new territory) counts as extensive growth.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 1

5. Development of new goods and services also generates economic growth. As it so happens, in the U.S. about 60% of consumer spending in 2013 went on goods and services that did not exist in 1869. The economic growth rate is calculated from data on GDP estimated by countries’ statistical agencies. The rate of growth of GDP per capita is calculated from data on GDP and people for the initial and final periods included in the analysis of the analyst.

6. Living standards vary widely from country to country and furthermore the change in living standards over time varies widely from country to country. The table above shows GDP per person and annualised per person GDP growth for a selection of countries over a period of about 100 years. The GDP per person data are adjusted for inflation, hence they are real. GDP per person (more commonly called per capita GDP) is the GDP of the entire country divided by the number of people in the country; GDP per person is conceptually analogous to average income.

7. Seemingly small differences in yearly GDP growth led to large changes in GDP when compounded over time. For instance, in the above table, GDP per person in the United Kingdom in the year 1870 was $4,808. At the same time in the United States, GDP per person was $4,007, lower than the UK by about 20%. However, in 2008 the positions were reversed: GDP per person was $36,130 in the United Kingdom and $46,970 in the United States, i.e., GDP per person in the US was 30% more than it was in the UK. As the above table shows, this means that GDP per person grew, on average, by 1.80% per year in the US and by 1.47% in the UK. Thus, a difference in GDP growth by only a few tenths of a percent per year results in large differences in outcomes when the growth is persistent over a generation.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions out of the seven given below.

i. How do Statisticians measure economic growth?
Answer:
Statisticians conventionally measure economic growth as the percent rate of increase in real gross domestic product or real GDP.

ii. What can be concluded by an increased ‘Real GDP per person at end of period’, with reference to the given table?
Answer:
An increased ‘Real GDP per person at end of period’ indicated an elevated annualised growth rate and the increased economic growth of that country.

iii. How is the rate of growth of GDP per capita is calculated?
Answer:
The rate of growth of GDP per capita is calculated from data on GDP and people for the initial and final periods included in the analysis of the analyst.

iv. The given table shows the GDP per person and annualised per person GDP growth for a selection of countries over a period of how many years?
Answer:
The given table covers the data about the GDP per person and annualised per person GDP growth for over 100 years.

v. What does the researcher mean by ‘real’ GDP per person data in paragraph 6?
Answer:
The GDP per person is conceptually analogous to average income, so GDP per person data is adjusted for inflation, hence they are real.

vi. Which country’s annualised growth rate is 2.05% according to the table given in the passage?
Answer:
Germany’s annualised growth rate is 2.05% according to the table given in the passage,

vii. Identify a term from paragraph 4 which explains the growth in the quantity of output produced based on the expansion of the quantity of inputs used.
Answer:
Extensive growth explains the growth caused only by increases in the number of inputs available for use.

Section-B
Writing

Question 3.
You are Gaurav/Garvita. You have been invited to attend the wedding function of your friend’s sister Amisha. Send a reply confirming your acceptance in about 50 words.
Answer:
1/27 Tank Road,
Pune
21st October, 20XX

Dear Anshuk,
I am so happy to hear the wonderful news of Amisha’s wedding. Thank you for the cordial invitation on the occasion of your sister’s wedding function. I will be delighted to attend the function as per the schedule.

Yours lovingly,
Gaurav/Garvita

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

A. You are Kushagra/Kushi, resident of 124, Rana Sanga Marg, New Delhi. You read an advertisement given by Milan University in ‘THE NEWS’ which requires a lecturer in Botany for their new campus at Chandigarh. Apply for the same in 120-150 words giving your bio-data separately.

Milan University
Wanted Lecturer in Botany

Application from eligible, qualified and experienced candidates are invited for the post of Botany Lecturer for Chandigarh Campus.

The application must be submitted in the prescribed format through e-mail at the recruit, mil.ac.in or before 20th January, 20XX. Hard copy must reach by 25th January, 20XX.

OR

B. A massive fire due to short circuit gutted 50 odd shops in the congested area of Sadar Bazar in Delhi leading to loss of life and property. As a reporter with The Tribune write the report for the newspaper in 120-150 words.

  • The fire erupted on the first floor at 5:00 a.m.
  • Fire engines able to control the blaze by 7.30 a.m.
  • Huge loss of property worth 2 crores.
  • No one hurt.
  • Government announced a compensation of 1,00,000 rupees.

Answer:
A. 124, Rana Sanga Marg
New Delhi-000 001
10th January, 20XX
The Principal
Milan University
New Delhi – 000 001

Subject – Application for the post of lecturer in botany

Sir/Madam,
In response to your advertisement in ‘The NEWS’ dated 4th January, 20XX for the post of Botany Lecturer in your new campus based in Chandigarh, I wish to offer my candidature.

I would like to bring to notice that I possess all the aforementioned qualities required for the post. I am enclosing a copy of my bio-data for your perusal and kind consideration. I am available for the interview on any day of your convenience. If given a chance to serve you, I assure you that I shall work with utmost sincerity and dedication up to your satisfaction.

Thank you

Yours faithfully,
Kushagra/ Kushi
Enel:
(i) Bio-data
(ii) Testimonials

Bio Data

Name Kushagra/Kushi
Father’s Name Om Agrawal
Date of Birth 17th May, 1987
Address 124, Rana Sanga Marg, New Delhi 000 001 Phone : 98XXXXXXXX
E-Mail Address [email protected]
Marital Status Married
Nationality Indian
Educational Qualifications (i) B.Sc. (Hons) Delhi University with 88% marks
(ii) M.Sc. (Botany) Delhi University with 86% marks
Experience 5 years as Botany Lecturer in Hansraj College
Languages Good command over spoken and written English.
Hobbies  Reading and Travelling
References 1. Sanjay Singh, Principal, Apeejay School, Delhi. Ph : XXXXXXXXXX
2. Rachna Sareen, HOD,Physics, Delhi University.Ph XXXXXXXXXX

Looking forward to a favorable response.

Yours faithfully,
Kushagra/Kushi

OR

B. Massive Fire Broke Out in Sadar Bazaar
By XYZ, (The Tribune)

New Delhi, 20th May, 20XX: A huge fire broke out at a market place in old Delhi’s Sadar Bazar area on Wednesday evening. The fire erupted on the first floor of a building at 5:00 a.m., according to the sources of Delhi Fire Service.

Twenty fire engines immediately rushed to the site and after a brave fight and struggle they were able to control the blaze by 7.30 a.m. A fireman also sustained some severe bums and got his leg injured. Police sources say that the fire was caused due to short circuit and spread quickly surrounding the huts.

The furniture market is spread over 2,000 square yards and the fire had spread rapidly as a large amount of wood and plastic material was stored in the area. Nearly 50 shops were gutted in the fire in the congested area of Sadar Bazar in Delhi leading to huge loss of property.

Although the people were not hurt as the fire broke out early morning and the shops were closed. A call was received around 5:15 a.m. regarding the fire and immediately the Fire Department was informed.

However, Vinod Goyal, Director of the Delhi Fire Service, said: “We received the information at 5.25 a.m. and immediately, the fire tenders were rushed to the spot to douse the blaze”. Total estimated loss is around 2 crores.

The government has announced a compensation of 1,00,000 rupees for damages of business and 50,000 for those who have lost their homes.

Section – C
Literature

Question 5.
Attempt ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each.

i. Do you think Evan’s statement, ‘I may surprise everybody’, has some special significance?
Answer:
Evans seemed to be telling his teacher that he might surprise everybody by doing well in the examination but in reality, it was a warning that he was going to jolt everybody by escaping from the prison which he had planned.

ii. According to the poem, Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers, she chose to embroider tigers on the panel. Why do you think so?
Answer:
Aunt Jennifer chose to embroider tigers on the panel because of the nature of these ‘bright topaz denizens’. Aunt Jennifer is an artist who makes what she yearns the most. Her marriage has made her meek and subservient over the years, but her tigers symbolise strength and freedom which she does not have.

iii. What was the content of the letter written by the peddler to Edla?
Answer:
The peddler wrote to Edla that since she had treated him like a captain, he also wanted to be nice to her in return. He did not want her to be embarrassed at Christmas by a thief. He also requested her to return back the crofter’s money that he had stolen.

iv. What makes human beings love life in spite of troubles and suffering? Answer with reference to the poem, A Thing of Beauty.
Answer:
The poet says that the beautiful things on earth lift the pall off our spirits and make life worth living. Each beautiful thing is like a link that form a chain or wreath that bind us to the earth. The beautiful things in nature like the moon, the sun, the trees, the ferns and the daffodils bring happiness and reduce human’s sufferings.

v. “I’m not fond of curtains shutting things out” says Mr. Lamb. What does this reveal about his personality?
Answer:
Mr. Lamb did not allow his physical disability to crush his openness and large-heartedness. He kept his house and heart open for people, he kept the gate of his garden open and anybody could enter it. He did not believe in shutting things out or disconnecting himself from the people. This reveals that Mr. Lamb was a man with positive attitude.

vi. Why did Gandhiji say-: “The battle of Champaran is won”?
Answer:
The lawyers had decided to go home, if Gandhiji went to prison. But Gandhiji asked them what would become of the injustice to the sharecroppers. The lawyers thought over it and decided that they too would follow Gandhiji. This was the time that when Gandhiji said that the battle of Champaran was won.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120-150 words each.

i. The lesson Indigo highlights the qualities of leadership shown by Mahatma Gandhi to secure justice for the oppressed people through argumentation and negotiation. Getting a clue from the way Mahatma Gandhi dealt with the Champaran episode, write an article on ‘What makes a Good Leader?’
Answer:
Leadership is the process by which a leader directs, guides and influences the work of others in choosing and attaining specified goals by mediating between the individuals and the conflicting organisation in such a manner as will satisfy both. A leader may not be physically strong but he needs to be mentally strong and firm in decisions.

For example, Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest of our leaders, had the power of organising, uniting and attracting people towards him with the power of his intelligence and alertness. A leader has to use his / her brain every time and has to remain alert with eyes and ears open, to avoid being carried away by any fraud or an enemy.

Apart from being impartial, a leader needs to be action-oriented. A leader should be effective enough towards himself and encourage everyone through his word to do constructive work while walking on the right path so that everyone can become aware of his / her rights and duties. A leader has to be dedicated. He does whatever it takes to be a role model in every sense of the word.

ii. What kind of person was Jack as a father?
Answer:
Jack had a four-year-old daughter named Jo whom he loved very much. He was a considerate and affectionate father who made sincere efforts to gratify his daughter’s creative intellect. He used to narrate a story to her each day. He had been doing this as a customary for the past two years when she was only two years old.

He himself had a very creative mind and nearly all the stories he told were creations of his own mind, each new story being a slight variation of a basic tale. Jack had mastered the art of story-telling and could create new stories to suit the mood and occasion.

He was able to create the preferred outcome to keep his daughter Jo’s interest unharmed as he understood her very pulse, Jack was always full of creative zeal; many times, he even mimicked the voices of the characters in his stories too. Jack was a very loving and caring father.

iii. In the poem- Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers, there is a contrast made between Aunt’s creation and herself. Summarise this according to the poet’s perspective.
Answer:
In the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’, a woman expresses her suppressed feelings through her art. Aunt Jennifer is the victim of the male-dominated society. She has no one to talk about her mental and physical pain. She does an embroidery of graceful and powerful tigers to convey her deep feelings.

They are set in motion and they are shown moving quickly in a chivalrous manner. In the green jungle, they look free, bright, brave, fearless and magnificent. There are men sitting under the tree, but the tigers do not care for them. They move on to their goal boldly and smoothly. Jennifer finds it difficult to make pictures by using the ivory needle.

She is tired of doing the household work after she got married. She can’t get i herself involved in her artistic work. She has to do it in her leisure time. Even then, she has to be sure whether her husband is watching her or not. So, her hands are terrified. She will not be free from fear until she dies. She will be dominated by her husband.

She will die, but her art will express her desire to move proudly and fearlessly like the tigers she has made. Unlike her fearless creation, Aunt Jennifer is a victim of fear and dominance.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • This question paper contains 37 questions.
  • Questions 1-20 in Section A are objective type-very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
  • Questions 21 – 27 in Section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • Questions 28 – 34 in Section C are long-answer I type questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • Questions 35-37 in Section D are long-answer II type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in six questions of one mark, two questions of two marks, two questions of three marks and two questions of five marks. You must attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
  • Use log tables, if necessary. Use of calculator is not allowed.

Section – A

Question 1.
The probability density plots of Is and 2s orbitals are given in figure : [1]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 1
The density of dots in a region represents the probability density of finding electrons in the region.
On the basis of above diagram which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) Is and 2s orbitals are spherical in shape.
(B) The probability of finding the electron is maximum near the nucleus.
(C) The probability of finding the electron at a given distance is equal in all directions.
(D) The probability density of electrons for 2s orbital decreases uniformly as distance from the nucleus increases.
Answer:
(D) The probability density of electrons for 2s orbital decreases uniformly as distance from the nucleus increases.

Explanation:
The probability density of electrons in 2s orbital first increases and then decreases. It increases again as distance from nucleus increases.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an actinoid ? [1]
(A) Curium (Z = 96)
(B) Californium (Z= 98)
(C) Uranium (Z = 92)
(D) Terbium (Z = 65)
OR
The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its outer shell electrons is:
(A) s > p > d > f
(B) f > d > p > s
(C) p < d < s < f (D) f > p > s > f
Answer:
(D) Terbium (Z = 65)

Explanation:
Terbium belongs to lanthanide series. It is the ninth member in the lanthanide series.

OR

(C) p < d < s < f

Question 3.
Which of the following pair is expected to have the same bond order ? [1]
(A) O2, N2
(B) O2+, N2
(C) O2N2+
(D) O2,N2
Answer:
(B) O2+, N2

Explanation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 2

Question 4.
What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HC1 gas in 500 g of water? [1]
(A) 0.1m
(B) 1M
(C) 0.5 m
(D) 1 mA
Answer:
(D) 1 mA

Explanation:
Mass of HCl = 18.25 g Mass of solvent (water) = 500 g = 0.5 kg Molecular mass of HCl = 1 + 35.5 = 36.5
Number of moles of HCl = 18.25 36.5 = 0.5
Molality m = 0.5 ÷ 0.5 = 1 m

Question 5.
The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic configuration. [1]
(A) 7s2 7p6
(B) 5f14 6d107s27p0
(C) 4f14 5d106s26p6
(D) 4f14 5d106s26p4
OR
The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all.
(A) noble gases
(B) halogens
(C) heavy metals
(D) light metals
Answer:
(C) 4f14 5d106s26p6

OR

(B) halogens

Explanation:
The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53, 85 are all halogens as they have 7 electrons in their outermost shells.
Z = 35 Bromine-electronic configuration is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p5
Z = 53 Iodine-electronic configuration is
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p5
Z = 85 Astantine (-) electronic configuration is
[Xe] 4f10 5d10 6s2 6p5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 6.
What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide? [1]
(A) 0.034%
(B) 27.27%
(C) 3.4%
(D) 28.7%
Answer:
(B) 27.27%

Explanation:
Molecular mass of CO2 = 12 + 2(16) = 12 + 32 = 44 g 44 g of CO2 contains 12 g atoms of carbon. Mass percent of carbon = Mass of carbon in CO Molar mass of CO2 2 × 100 = 12 44 100 × = 27.27%

Read the passage given below and answer the questions given below it:
The existing large number of organic compounds and their ever-increasing numbers has made it necessary to classify them on the basis of their structures. Organic compounds are broadly classified as open-chain compounds which are also called aliphatic compounds. Aliphatic compounds further classified as homocyclic and heterocyclic compounds. Aromatic compounds are special types of compounds. Alicyclic compounds, aromatic compounds may also have heteroatom in the ring. Such compounds are called heterocyclic aromatic compounds. Organic compounds can also be classified on the basis of functional groups, into families or homologous series. The members of a homologous series can be represented by general molecular formula and the successive members differ from each other in molecular formula by a -CH2 unit.

Answer the questions from (7) to (10):

Question 7.
Which of the following is example of homocyclic compound? [1]
(A) Furan
(B) Thiophene
(C) Cyclohexane
(D) Pyrrole
Answer:
(C) Cyclohexane

Question 8.
Where do heterocyclic compounds find application? [1]
(A) Pharmaceuticals
(B) Agrochemicals
(C) Dye stuff
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 9.
What is the next member of homologous series for Ethanol? [1]
(A) Propanol
(B) Butanol
(C) Pentanol
(D) Hexanol
Answer:
(A) Propanol

Explanation:
The members of a homologous series can be represented by general molecular formula and the successive members differ from each other in molecular formula by a -CH2 unit. So adding -CH2 group in ethanol, next member is propanol.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 10.
Give the IUPAC name of: [1]
(A) Puran
(B) hexylcyclohexane
(C) Thiocyclohexane
(D) none of these
Answer:
(C) Thiocyclohexane

Question 11.
How many molecules of SO2 are present in 11.2 L at STP ? [1]
OR
Calculate the number of atoms in 32.0 u of He.
Answer:
∵ Number of molecules of SO2 present in 22.4 L at STP = 6.022 × 1023
∴ Number of molecules of SO2 present in 11.2 L at
STP = \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23} \times 11.2}{22.4}\)
= 3.011 × 1023

OR

1 atom of He = 4 u of He
∵ 4 u of He = 1 atom of He 1
∴ 32.0 u of He = \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 32 = 8 atoms

Question 12.
Can a moving cricket ball have a wave character ? Justify your answer. [1]
Answer:
Yes, a moving cricket ball has a wave character. It possesses wave length which is called de Broglie wave length and is given by the equation:
λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{p}\)

Question 13.
Write the IUPAC name and symbol of the element with atomic number 119. [1]
OR
Predict the position of the element in the periodic table satisfying the electronic configuration (n – 1)d1ns2 for n = 4.
Answer:
The roots for 1, 1 and 9 are un, un and enn respectively. Hence, the symbol and the IUPAC name are Uue and Ununennium respectively.

OR

(n – 1)d1ns2 for n = 4 becomes 3d14s2. It lies in the 4th period and in the 3rd group.

Commonly Made Error:
Students usually go wrong as they get confused with period and the group

Answering Tips:

  • Students must remember the criteria on how to decide the group and period of an element based on electronic configuration.
  • Learn the atomic number, element name, symbol, electron configurations, their group and period from the periodic table clearly.

Question 14.
What is enthalpy change at constant volume? Explain. [1]
Answer:
When reaction is carried out in a closed vessel so that volume remains constant, i.e., ΔV = 0, then qp = qv = ΔV or ΔH = ΔU. This is known as enthalpy change at constant volume.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 15.
Give IUPAC name of: [1]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 3
Answer:
4-Ethyldeca-1, 5, 8-triene

Question 16.
Predict if the solutions of the following salts are neutral, acidic or basic : NaCl, NaCN ? [1]
Answer:
NaCl: Its solution is neutral as it is the salt of a strong acid HCl and a strong base NaOH.
KBr: Its solution is neutral as it is the salt of strong acid HBr and a strong base KOH.

Question 17.
Calculate the oxidation number of the underlined elements in the following compounds : [1]
(a) K2CrO4
(b) MnO4
Answer:
(a) Let x be the oxidation no. of chromium in
K2CrO4
Oxidation no. of K = + 1
Oxidation no. of O = – 2
∴ 2 × (+1) + x + 4 × (- 2) = 0
or x – 6 = 0 or x = + 6
Hence, oxidation no. of Cr in K2CrO4 = +6.

(b) Let x be the oxidation no. of Mn in MnO4
Oxidation of O = -2
∴ x + 4 × (- 2) = – 1
x – 8 = – 1
x = – 1 + 8 = +7.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron simultaneously. [1]
Reason (R): The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(C) A is true but R is false.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 19.
Assertion: The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529A. [1]
Reason: Radius of each circular orbit (rn) – 0.529 Å (n2/Z), where n = 1,2, 3 and Z = atomic number.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) Both A and R are false.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 20.
Why 3° carbocation are more stable than 1° carbocation ? [1]
Answer:
Tertiary carbocation has three electron repelling alkyl groups. This increases +I effect on carbon and reduces the positive charge making it more stable.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 4

Section B

Question 21.
(a) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their e/m values : electron, proton and neutron. [2]
(b) Calculate the number of molecules present in 22.0 g of CO2.
Answer:
(a) The increasing order of their e/m values of electron, proton and neutron is:
Neutron < proton < electron.

(b) Number of molecules
= \(=\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{CO}_2}{\begin{array}{c}
\text { Molecular mass of } \\
\mathrm{CO}_2
\end{array}}\) × 6.022 × 1023
= \(\frac{22}{44}\) × 6.022 × 1023
= 3.011 × 1023 molecules

Question 22.
Account for the fact that the fourth period has 18 and not 8 elements. [2]
Answer:
The first element of fourth period is potassium (Z = 19) having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1. Thus it starts with the filling of 4s orbital. After the filling of 4s orbital, instead of 4p orbitals, there starts the filling 3d orbitals. This is in keeping with the fact that 3d orbitals have less energies than 4p orbitals. Thus, 10 elements are built up by the filling of 3d orbitals. After the filling of 3d orbitals, 4p orbitals are filled and that process is completed at krypton [Kr, Z = 36]. Hence the fourth period consists of 18 and not 8 elements.

Question 23.
Explain why the following systems are not aromatic?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 5
Answer:
(i) For the given compound, the number of
p-electrons is 6.
By Huckel’s rule,
4n + 2 = 6
4n = 4
n = 1
For a compound to be aromatic, the value of n must be an integer (n = 0, 1, 2…). Since, the value of n is an integer, it should be aromatic but for aromatic p electron cloud is equally distributed on all the ring, that’s why it is non aromatic in nature.

(ii) For the given compound, the number of π-electrons is 4.
By Huckel’s rule,
4n + 2 = 4
4n = 2
n =1/2
For a compound to be aromatic, the value of n must be an integer (n = 0, 1, 2…), which is not true for the given compound. Hence, it is not aromatic in nature.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 24.
(i) Give one example of symmetric alkane.
(ii) How does dilution of water affect the pH of buffer solution?
OR
(i) How will you separate propene from propyne?
(ii) Define reaction quotient.
Answer:
(i) Butene is a symmetric alkane.
(ii) Rate of dilution shows no effect on pH of buffer solution as pH depends on ratio of salt, acid or salt, base and dilution don’t affect this ratio.

OR

(i) By passing mixture through ammoniacal silver nitrate solution when propyne reacts while propene pass over.
(ii) It is used to measure relative amount of product and reactant present in reaction at any time.

Question 25.
In an electrophilic substitution reaction of nitrobenzene, how the presence of nitro group affect the reaction ? [2]
Answer:
Nitro group by virtue of strong I-effect withdraws electrons from the ring and increases the charge and destabilises carbocation. In ortho, para-attack of electrophile on nitrobenzene, we get two structures in which positive charge appears on the carbon atom directly attached to the nitro group. As nitro group is electron withdrawing by nature, it decreases the stability of such product and hence meta attack is more feasible when electron withdrawing substituents are attached.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 6

Commonly Made Error:
Students do mistake in placing +ve charge and drawing double bonds, when they write the resonating structure.

Answering Tip:
Understand drawing resonating structures and practice well.

Question 26.
Draw the cis- and fra ns- structures of but-2-ene. Which isomer will have a dipole moment ? [2]
Answer:
The cis-and-frans structures of but-2-ene are as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 7
Although both cis-but-2-ene and trans-but-2-ene has non- polar compounds but cis-but-2-ene has a small dipole moment. In trans-but-2-ene, the vectors of any small bond dipoles must cancel each other because of its shape. So, the dipole moment of trans-but-2-ene is zero.

Question 27.
Draw the resonating structure of : [2]
(a) Ozone molecule
(b) Nitrate ion
OR
Predict the shapes of the following molecules on the basis of hybridisation.
BCl3, CH4
Answer:
(a) The resonating structures of ozone molecule are
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 8

(b) The resonating structures of nitrate ion are
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 9

OR

BCl3 has sp2 hybridisation and CH4 has sp3 hybridisation.
BCl3 : 5B = 2, 3 = 1s2, 2s22p1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 10
Since, BCl3 possesses sp2 hybridization. So, its shape is trigonal planar with bond angle of 120°.
The structure of BCl3 is shown as below :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 11
Since, CH4 possesses sp3 hybridization with four bond pairs and zero lone pairs. So, its shape is tetrahedral with bond angle of 109.5°.

The structure of CH4 is shown as below :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 12

Commonly Made Error:
Some students wrongly allocate electrons in ground and excited sate and thus write wrong hybridization.

Answering Tip:

  • Understand the concept of predicting the shape of molecule by the state of hybridization of the central atom.
  • Also practice drawing the structures of molecules.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Section – C

Question 28.
Complete the following blanks based on their respective equations :
(i) C4H10(g) + \(\frac{13}{2}\)O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 5H2O ΔH = – 2878 kj
ΔH is the heat of butane gas.
(ii) HCl (aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O(l); ΔH = – 57.1 kJ
In real terms
H+ (aq) + Cl (aq) + Na+ (aq) + OH (aq) → Na+ (aq) + Cl (aq) + H2O(I)
ΔH is the heat of of hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solutions.
(iii) C(s) → C(g); ΔH = 716.7 kj
(graphite)
ΔH is the heat of …………….. of graphite. [3]
Answer:
(i) combustion
(ii) neutralisation
(iii) sublimation

Question 29.
Calculate the mass percent of different elements present in sodium sulphate (Na2SO4). [3]
Answer:
Molar mass of Na2SO4 = 2 (23.0) + 32.066 + 4(16.0) = 142.006 g
Mass % of an element
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 13

Question 30.
How much energy is required to ionise a H-atom if the electron occupies n = 5 orbit? Compare your answer with the ionization enthalpy of H-atom (energy required to remove the electron from n = 1 orbit). [3]
Answer:
Energy for a hydrogen electron present in a particular energy shell
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 14
Ionization energy for hydrogen electron present in 5th orbit n = 5
IE5 = E – E5
= 0 – \(\left(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18}}{25}\right)\) J atom-1
= 8.72 × 10-20 J atom-1
Ionization energy for hydrogen electron present in 1st orbit n = 1
IE5 = E – E5
= 0 – \(\left(\frac{-2.18 \times 10^{-18}}{1}\right)\)
= 2.18 × 10-18 J atom-1
∴ \(\frac{I E_5}{I E_1}\) = \(\frac{8.72 \times 10^{-20} \text { Jatom }^{-1}}{2.18 \times 10^{-18} \text { Jatom }^{-1}}\)
= 0.04
∴ IE1 is 25 times as compared to IE5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 31.
(a) B2 has ten electrons but paramagnetic. Why ?
(b) Why KHF2 exist but KHCl2 does not ? [3]
OR
(a) Why do noble gas Ne2 does not exist but Ne2+ exists ?
(b) Give reason:
Water molecule has bent structure whereas BeCl2 has a linear structure.
Answer:
(a) B2 has ten electrons but it is paramagnetic in nature. It can be explained by its molecular orbital diagram.
5B = 2, 3 = 1s2, 2s22p1
5B = 2, 3 = 1s2, 2s22p1
Molecular Orbital Configuration
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 15
Since, it contains two unpaired electrons in π-bonding, molecular orbitals have equal energy. So, it is paramagnetic in nature.

Commonly Made Errors:
(a) Some students make mistake while writing MO electronic configuration and sometimes with MO diagram .
(b) They sometimes are not able to find Bonding and anti-bonding electrons correctly.

Answering Tips:

  • Understand the basic concept of MO diagrams and learn how to write MO diagram, electronic configuration and finding bond order.
  • Practice many examples.

(b) KF forms H-bonds with HF whereas KCl cannot form H-bond with HCl.
Hence, KHF2 can dissociate to give HF2 ion and therefore, KHF2 exists. However, KHCl2 cannot dissociate to HCl2 ion and therefore, KHCl2 does not exist.

OR

(a) Ne2 does not exist but Ne2+ exists. It can be explained by means of molecular orbital diagrams.
10Ne = 2, 8 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6
10Ne = 2, 8 = 1s2, 2s2 2p6
Molecular orbital configuration:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 16
Since the bond order of Ne2 is zero, it does not exist as a molecule.
However, in case of Ne2+
Bond order = \(\frac{n_b-n_a}{2}=\frac{6-5}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5
(Due to positive charge, one electron is lost from σ*2pz antibonding orbital.)
Thus, it is clear that noble gas Ne2 does not exist but Ne2+ exists.

(b) Be (Atomic number 4) has a total of 4 electrons. Its electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2. It has two valence electrons and no lone pair of electrons. Each of the two electrons can form bonds with chlorine atoms. Chemical bonds involve electrons and because all electrons have a negative charge, the two bonds between the Be and Cl will arrange themselves around the central atom (Be) so that the electrons in the bonds are as far apart as possible. Thus, the molecule is linear with the chlorines on opposite sides of the Be.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 17
In case of water, oxygen has a total of 8 electrons, with electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p4. Oxygen has two electron pairs in the outermost shell, as well as two valence electrons available for bonding. The two electrons can form bonds with two single electrons of hydrogen atoms and would like to again form a linear shape. However, the two electrons pairs exert a strong repulsive force on the O—H bonds, distorting them into the bent shape of the water molecule. This shape maximises the distance between all the electrons surrounding the central oxygen atom. That s why water molecule is bent in shape.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 32.
(i) Dihydrogen gas is obtained from natural gas by partial oxidation with steam as per endothermic reaction :
CH4(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3H2(g)
(a) Write an expression for Kp for the above reaction.
(b) How will the values of Kp and composition of the equilibrium mixture be affected by :
(a) increasing the pressure
(b) increasing the temperature
(c) using a catalyst ?
(ii) Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc for each of the following reactions :
2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
OR
(i) Describe the effect of following conditions on the equilibrium
2H2(g) + CO(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)
(a) addition of H2
(b) addition of CH3OH
(c) removal of CO
(d) removal of CH3OH
(ii) Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, BQ for each of the following reactions :
2CU(NO3)2(S) ⇌ 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Answer:
(i)
(a) kp = \(\frac{\left(p_{\mathrm{CO}}\right)\left(p_{\mathrm{H}_2}\right)^3}{\left(p_{\mathrm{CH}_4}\right)\left(p_{\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}\right)}\)
(b) (A) By Le Chatelier’s principle, equilibrium will shift in the backward direction (as nr < np) on increasing pressure.

(B) As the given reaction is endothermic, by Le Chatelier’s principle, equilibrium will shift in the forward direction, on increasing the temperature.

(C) Equilibrium composition will not be disturbed but equilibrium will be attained quickly, by using a catalyst.
(ii) 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
kc = \(\frac{[\mathrm{NO}(g)]^2\left[\mathrm{Cl}_2(g)\right]}{[N O C l(g)]^2}\)

OR

(i) (a) On addition of H2, equilibrium will shift in the forward direction. (H)
(b) On addition of CH3OH, equilibrium will shift in backward direction.
(c) On removal of CO, equilibrium will shift in the backward direction.
(d) On removal of CH3OH, equilibrium will shift in the forward direction.

(ii) 2CU(NO3)2(S) ⇌ 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Kc = [NO2(g)]4 [O2(g)] ∵ [Cu(NO3)2(s)] = 1 & [CuO(s)] = 1

Question 33.
Complete the following reactions :
(a) CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) →
(b)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 19
(c)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 20
Answer:
(a) CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O(I)

(b)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 21

(c)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 22

Question 34.
Define:
(i) Salt bridge
(ii) electrode potential
(iii) Electrochemical series [3]
Answer:
(i) Salt Bridge: It is an inverted U-tube that contains an electrolyte and connects the two half cells in a galvanic cell.

(ii) Electrode Potential: The potential associated with each electrode is called electrode potential.

(iii) Electrochemical Series: The series in which different electrodes are arranged in decreasing order of their standard reduction potentials (EQ) is called electrochemical series.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Section – D

Question 35.
Define:
(i) Bond enthalpy
(ii) Calorific value
(iii) Explain the Born Haber Cycle to determine the lattice enthalpy of NaCl.
Answer:
(i) The average amount of energy required to break one mole of the bond of a particular type in gaseous molecules
(ii) It is the amount of heat produced on complete combustion of one gram of a fuel. Its unit is cal/g.
(iii) The lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound is the enthalpy change which occurs when one mole of an ionic compound dissociates into its ions in gaseous state.
Na+Cl(s) → Na+(g) + Cl(g), ∆lattice
=+788 kJ mol-1
The lattice enthalpy of NaCl can be determined by Born-Haber Cycle in following steps:

Step-I: Na(s) → Na(g), sublimation of sodium
metal (∆subH° = 108.4 kJ mol-1)

Step-II: Na(g) → Na+(g) + e(g), Ionization of
sodium atom (ionization enthalpy ∆iH° = 496 kJ mol-1)

Step-III: Cl2(g) → Cl(g), dissociation of
chlorine, the reaction enthalpy is half the bond dissociation enthalpy.
(\(\frac{1}{2}\) ∆bondH° = 121 kJ mol-1)

Step-IV: Cl(g) + e(g) → Cl(g), electron gained by chlorine atoms
(Electron gain enthalpy ∆egH° = – 348.6 kJ mol-1)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 23
Fig. Enthalpy diagram for lattice enthalpy of NaCl

Step-V: Na+(g) + Cl(g) → Na+Cl(s)
Applying Hess’s law,
lattice H° = 411.2 + 108.4 + 121 + 496 – 348.6 = + 788 kJ mol-1

Question 36.
An alkyl halide C5H11Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene ‘B’, which reacts with Br2 to give a
compound ‘C, which on dehydrobromination gives an alkyne ‘D’. On treatment with sodium metal in liquid ammonia one mole of ‘D’ gives one mole of the sodium salt of ‘D’ and half a mole of hydrogen gas. Complete hydrogenation of ‘D’ yields a straight chain alkane. Identify A,B, C and D. Give the reactions involved. [5]
OR
An unsaturated hydrocarbon A’ adds two molecules of H2 and on reductive ozonolysis gives butane-1,4-dial, ethanal and propanone. Give the structure of A’, write its IUPAC name and explain the reactions involved.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 24
The reactions suggest that (D) is a terminal alkyne. This means triple bond is at the end of the chain. It could be either (I) or (II).
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 25
Since alkyne ‘D’ on hydrogenation yields straight chain alkane, therefore structure (I) is the structure of alkyne (D).
Hence, the structures of A, B and C are as follows:
(A) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2Br
(B) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH = CH2
(C) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH(Br)—CH2Br

Commonly Made Error:
Students get confuse, and many times miss reactions.

Answering Tips:

  • Draw the structures of compounds for better understanding.
  • Learn all the important conversion reactions in the chapter. Understand the problem given and then write the reactions in steps.

OR

Two molecules of hydrogen add on ‘A’ this shows that ‘A’ is either an alkadiene or an alkyne.
On reductive ozonolysis ‘A’ gives three fragments, one of which is dialdehyde. Hence, the molecule has broken down at two sites. Therefore, ‘A’ has two double bonds. It gives the following three fragments:
OHC—CH2—CH2—CHO, CH3CHO and CH3— CO—CH3
Hence, its structure as deduced from the three fragments must be
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 26

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions

Question 37.
For the reaction :
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + Heat; the equilibrium constant K = 0.50 at 673K
(a) Write the expression for Kc and Kp.
(b) What will be the equilibrium constant value for the reverse reaction at 673 K ?
(c) What is the effect of increasing temperature on the yield of NH3 ?
(d) What is the effect of adding N2(g) and H2(g) on the yield of NH3 ?
(e) What is the effect of increasing pressure on the yield of NH3? [5]
OR
(i) (a) The solubility of silver chloride (AgCl) in water at 25°C is 1.08 × 10-5 mol L-1. Calculate the solubility
product of AgCl at this temperature.
(b) The molar solubility of lead iodide is 4.0 × 10-5 mol/L at 25°C. Calculate the solubility product of lead iodate at this temperature.
(ii) In one litre saturated solution of AgCl [Ksp = 1.6 × 10-10], 0.1 mol of CuCl [Ksp = 1.0 × 10-6] is added. Find out the resultant concentration of Ag+ in the solution.
Answer:
(a) kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_3\right]^2}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_2\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_2\right]^3}\)
and kp = \(\frac{\left[p_{\mathrm{NH}_3}\right]^2}{p_{\mathrm{N}_2} \times\left(p_{\mathrm{H}_2}\right)^3}\)

(b) Keq (for reverse reaction) = \(\frac{1}{K}\)
= \(\frac{1}{0.50}\)

(c) As this is an exothermic reaction, on increasing the temperature, the reaction will proceed in reverse direction. This results in decrease in concentration of NH3.

(d) On increasing the concentration of N2(g) and H2(g), the yield of NH3 will increase.

(e) On increasing the pressure, the reaction will proceed in forward reaction or pressure decreases.

OR

(i) (a) S = 1.08 × 10-5 mol L-1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 27

Solubility product
Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl]
= S × S
= (1.08 × 10-5) (1.08 × 10-5)
= 1.1664 ≈ 1.17 × 10-10

(b) S = 4.0 × 10-5 mol L-1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 10 with Solutions 28
Solubility product
Ksp = [Pb2+] [IO3]2
= (S) (2S)2
= S × 4S2 = 4S3
= 4(4 × 10-5)3
= 2.56 × 10-13

(ii) Let the concentration of AgCl is x mol/L
and concentration of CuCl is y mol/L

CuCl ⇌ Cu+ + Cl
y = 0.1 y =0.1
Ksp of AgCl = [Ag+] [Cl]
= x (x + y)
Ksp of CuCl = [Cu+] [Cl]
= y(x + y)
On solving equations (i) and (ii), we get

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

  • इस प्रश्नपत्र में दो खंड हैं-खंड ‘क’ और ‘ख’। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/ वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न दिए गए हैं।
  • प्रश्नपत्र के दोनों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
  • यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमानुसार लिखिए।
  • खंड ‘क’ में कुल 10 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
  • खंड ‘ख’ में कुल 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार विकल्प का ध्यान रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘क’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
मनुष्य जीवन की सबसे बड़ी सिद्धि अपने अहं के सम्पूर्ण त्याग में है। जहाँ वह शुद्ध समर्पण के उदात्त भाव से प्रेरित होकर अपने ‘स्व’ का त्याग करने को प्रस्तुत होता है वहीं उसके व्यक्तित्व की महानता परिलक्षित होती है। साहित्यानुरागी जब उच्च साहित्य का रसास्वादन करते समय स्वयं की सत्ता को भुलाकर पात्रों के मनोभावों के साथ एकत्व स्थापित कर लेता है तभी उसे साहित्यानन्द की दुर्लभ मुक्तामणि प्राप्त होती है। भक्त जब अपने आराध्य देव के चरणों में अपने ‘आप’ को अर्पित कर देता है और पूर्णतः प्रभु की इच्छा में अपनी इच्छा को लय कर देता है तभी उसे प्रभु-भक्ति की अलभ्य पूँजी मिलती है। यह विचित्र विरोधाभास है कि कुछ और प्राप्त करने के लिए स्वयं को भूल जाना ही एकमात्र सरल और सुनिश्चित उपाय है। यह अत्यन्त सरल दिखने वाला उपाय अत्यन्त कठिन भी है। भौतिक जगत में अपनी क्षुद्रता को समझते हुए भी मानव-हृदय अपने अस्तित्व के झूठे अहंकार में डूबा रहता है उसका त्याग कर पाना उसकी सबसे कठिन परीक्षा है। किन्तु यही उसके व्यक्तित्व की चरम उपलब्धि भी है। दूसरे का निःस्वार्थ प्रेम प्राप्त करने के लिए अपनी इच्छा-आकांक्षाओं और लाभ-हानि को भूलकर उसके प्रति सर्वस्व समर्पण ही एकमात्र माध्यम है। इस प्राप्ति का अनिर्वचनीय सुख वही चख सकता है जिसने स्वयं को देना-लुटाना जाना हो। इस सर्वस्व समर्पण से उपजी नैतिक और चारित्रिक दृढ़ता, अपूर्व समृद्धि और परमानन्द का सुख वह अनुरागी चित्त ही समझ सकता है जो-‘ज्यों-ज्यों बड़े श्याम रंग, त्यों-त्यों उज्ज्वल होय।’
(क) मनुष्य जीवन की सबसे बड़ी सिद्धि किसमें है?
(i) अपने अहं के सम्पूर्ण त्याग में
(ii) अपनी संतुष्टि में
(iii) अपने अहं को अपनाने में
(iv) समृद्धि में
उत्तर:
(i) अपने अहं के सम्पूर्ण त्याग में।

(ख) व्यक्ति के व्यक्तित्व की महानता कब परिलक्षित होती
(i) जब वह महान बनता है।
(ii) जब वह अपने ‘स्व’ का त्याग करता है।
(iii) जब वह दूसरे के ‘स्व’ का त्याग करता है।
(iv) जब वह संतुष्टि को त्याग देता है।
उत्तर:
(ii) जब वह अपने ‘स्व’ का त्याग करता है।

(ग) भक्त जब अपने आराध्य देव के चरणों में स्वयं को अर्पित कर देता है तो उसे क्या प्राप्त होता है?
(i) सर्वस्व की प्राप्ति
(ii) अपनों की प्राप्ति
(iii) प्रभु भक्ति की अलभ्य पूँजी
(iv) लाभ
उत्तर:
(iii) प्रभु भक्ति की अलभ्य पूँजी।

(घ) दूसरे का नि:स्वार्थ प्रेम प्राप्त करने के लिए क्या करना होता है?
(i) उससे प्रेम करना
(ii) उससे नज़रें चुराना
(iii) उसके साथ रहना
(iv) उसके प्रति सर्वस्व समर्पण।
उत्तर:
(iv) उसके प्रति सर्वस्व समर्पण।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए ?
कथन (A) : स्व का त्याग ही व्यक्ति की महानता को परिलक्षित करता है ।
कारण (R) : कुछ प्राप्त करने के लिए स्वयं को भूलना उचित नहीं है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तर:
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5=5)
यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-I पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं। कभी जाति-सम्प्रदाय, कभी मज़हब, कभी धर्म तो कभी आरक्षण, कुछ भी मुद्दा मिल जाए, हमें तो बस लड़ना है। शांति हमें नहीं भाती, देश की तरक्की रास नहीं आती, इसलिए लड़ना है। हम देश के युवा हैं, देश हमें कितने अधिकार दिलाता है हमारे ही कारण यह देश युवा व शक्तिशाली कहलाता है हमारे विकास के लिए सोचता व कितनी योजनाएं बनाता पर हमें तो एक-एक ईंट जोड़कर खड़ी की गई, विकास की इमारतों को, बस पल भर में ध्वस्त करना बखूबी आता है। हम उस देश के युवा हैं, जहाँ करुणा, दया शांति के विचार हुए हैं, जहाँ से नानक, बुद्ध, विवेकानन्द ने मानवता के प्रचार किए हैं। हम कब तक देशभक्ति का गान किन्तु देश का अपमान करते जायेंगे। युवा से ही देश का आत्म-सम्मान व विश्वास होता है युवा ही देश का भविष्य व पहचान होता है ये हम कब और कैसे समझ पायेंगे?
(क) पद्यांश में युवाओं पर क्या कटाक्ष किया गया है?
(i) युवाओं को बस लड़ाई-झगड़े की भाषा ही समझ आती है।
(ii) युवा देश के भावी कर्णधार हैं।
(iii) देश का भविष्य युवाओं पर निर्भर है।
(iv) युवा लक्ष्य के प्रति सचेत है।
उत्तर:
(i) युवाओं को बस लड़ाई-झगड़े की भाषा ही समझ आती है।

(ख) पद्यांश के माध्यम से युवाओं को क्या संदेश दिया गया है?
(i) लड़ाई-झगड़ा करने का
(ii) मारकाट करने का
(iii) सन्मार्ग पर चलने का
(iv) असत्य बोलने का
उत्तर:
(ii) सन्मार्ग पर चलने का।

(ग) विश्व को भारत ने किसका पाठ सिखाया है?
(i) शिक्षा का
(ii) हिंसा और करुणा का
(iii) झगड़े और न्याय का
(iv) दया, करुणा और शांति का
उत्तर:
(iv) दया, करुणा और शांति का।

(घ) देश का भविष्य और पहचान किससे है?
(i) वृद्धों से
(ii) युवाओं से
(iii) स्त्रियों से
(iv) पुरुषों से
उत्तर:
(iii) स्त्रियों से

(ङ) पद्यांश में युवा शक्ति की क्या पहचान बताई गई
(I) युवा शक्ति से ही देश शक्तिशाली बनता है
(II) युवा से ही देश का आत्मसम्मान व विश्वास होता है
(III) युवा ही देश का भविष्य व पहचान होता है
(IV) युवा देश को नहीं समझ सकता
विकल्प:
(i) कथन
(ii) सही है
(ii) कथन (i), (ii) व (iii) सही हैं
(iii) कथन (i), (ii) व (iv) सही हैं
(iv) कथन (i), (ii), (iii) व (iv) सही हैं
उत्तर:
(ii) कथन (i), (ii) व (iii) सही हैं

अथवा

यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-II पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।
माँ, ये लहरें भी गाती हैं
कल-कल, छल-छल के मधुर स्वर में
अपना गीत सुनाती हैं।
मैं कब से बुला रही इनको
पर मेरे पास नहीं आती हैं।
कुछ खेल खेलती इसलिए
तट तक आकर फिर भाग जाती
मैं चलूँ, साथ खेलूँ इनके
देखो ये मुझे बुलाती हैं।
माँ, ये लहरें भी गाती हैं।
(क) लहरें क्या और किस प्रकार सुनाती हैं?
(i) कल-कल मधुर गीत
(ii) कटुवचन
(iii) मधुभाषा
(iv) कर्कश ध्वनि
उत्तर:
(i) कल-कल मधुर गीत।

(ख) कौन, किसे बुला रहा है?
(i) माँ बच्चे को
(ii) कवि लहरों को
(iii) गीत हमें
(iv) कवि बच्चे को
उत्तर:
(ii) कवि लहरों को।

(ग) ‘तट’ शब्द का पर्यायवाची लिखिए
(i) किनारा
(ii) अंबर
(iii) नदी
(iv) माँ
उत्तर:
(i) किनारा

(घ) ‘मधुर’ शब्द का विलोम लिखिए।
(i) कटु
(ii) कड़वा
(iii) मधु
(iv) खट्टा
उत्तर:
(i) कटु

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए
कथन (A) – छोटी बच्ची लहरों के साथ खेलना चाहती है।
कारण (R) – कल-कल करती लहरें छोटी बच्ची को अपनी ओर आकर्षित कर रही है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है।
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तर:
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) छात्र परिश्रम करके जीवन में सफल होते हैं-वाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) छात्र परिश्रम करते हैं और जीवन में सफल होते हैं।
(ii) जो छात्र परिश्रम करते हैं वही जीवन में सफल होते हैं।
(iii) जो जीवन में सफल होते हैं वही परिश्रम करते हैं।
(iv) परिश्रम करने वाले छात्र ही जीवन में सफल होते हैं।
उत्तर:
(i) छात्र परिश्रम करते हैं और जीवन में सफल होते हैं। व्याख्यात्मक हल-संयुक्त वाक्य में दो सरल वाक्य होते हैं जो अपनेआप में पूर्ण अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

(ख) पीली कमीज़ वाले छात्र को यह पुस्तक दे दो-वाक्य का मिश्र वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) जिस छात्र ने पीली कमीज़ पहनी है उसे यह पुस्तक दे दो।
(ii) पीली कमीज़ जिस छात्र ने पहनी है उसे यह पुस्तक दे दो।
(iii) उस छात्र को यह पुस्तक दे दो जिसने पीली कमीज़ पहनी है।
(iv) यह पुस्तक दो उसे पीली कमीज पहनी है जिसने
उत्तर:
(i) जिस छात्र ने पीली कमीज़ पहनी है उसे यह पुस्तक दे दो।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मिश्र वाक्य में एक वाक्य दूसरे पर आश्रित होता है प्रधान उपवाक्य और आश्रित उपवाक्य समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय द्वारा जुड़े हुए होते हैं।

(ग) रवि ने खाना खाया और चला गया-वाक्य का सरल वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) रवि को घर जाना था इसलिए खाना खा लिया।
(ii) घर जाने के लिए रवि ने खाना खाया।
(iii) रवि खाना खाकर चला गया।
(iv) खाना खाकर रवि चला गया।
उत्तर:
(iii) रवि खाना खाकर चला गया।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य और एक क्रिया होते हैं। अतः यही सही उत्तर है।

(घ) जब उसने बस्ता उठाया , वह स्कूल चला गया-रेखांकित उपवाक्य का भेद होगा
(i) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
(ii) विशेषण उपवाक्य
(iii) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
(iv) आश्रित उपवाक्य
उत्तर:
(ii) विशेषण उपवाक्य।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम (1)  कॉलम (2)
1. यह तुम्हें भ्रम है कि वह अमीर है। (I) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
2. जब तुम जाओगे तभी मैं जाऊँगा। (II) विशेषण उपवाक्य
3. मैं उन सभी को जानता हूँ, जिन्हें शक के दायरे में रखा गया (III) संज्ञा उपवाक्य

विकल्प:
(i) 1 (III), 2 (I), 3 (II)
(ii) 1 (II), 2 (III), 3 (I)
(iii) 1 (1), 2 (II), 3 (III)
(iv) 1 (III), 2 (II), 3 (I)
उत्तर:
(i) 1 (III), 2 (1), 3 (II)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) वह चुपचाप नहीं रह सकता-वाक्य का भाववाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) उससे चुप नहीं रहा जा सकता।
(ii) वह चुप नहीं रहता।।
(iii) चुप नहीं रह सकता वह।
(iv) चुप नहीं रहा जा सकता उससे।
उत्तर:
(i) उससे चुप नहीं रहा जा सकता।

(ख) तुम्हारे द्वारा देश के विकास के लिए क्या किया जा रहा है- वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) क्या किया जा रहा है तुम्हारे द्वारा देश के विकास के लिए।
(ii) देश के विकास के लिए तुम्हारे द्वारा क्या किया जा रहा है?
(iii) तुम देश के विकास के लिए क्या कर रहे हो?
(iv) देश के लिए विकास के लिए तुमसे क्या किया जा रहा है?
उत्तर:
(iii) तुम देश के विकास के लिए क्या कर रहे हो?

(ग) छात्रों ने देशप्रेम का एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया-वाक्य का कर्मवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) छात्रों ने एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया देशप्रेम का।
(ii) छात्रों के द्वारा देशप्रेम का एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया गया।
(iii) छात्रों ने गीत सुनाया एक मार्मिक देशप्रेम का।
(iv) मार्मिक गीत गाया छात्रों ने।
उत्तर:
(ii) छात्रों के द्वारा देशप्रेम का एक मार्मिक गीत सुनाया गया।

(घ) उसकी कलम मेज़ से चुरा ली गई है वाच्य का भेद बताइए।
(i) कर्तृवाच्य
(ii) कर्मवाच्य
(iii) भाववाच्य
(iv) वाच्य
उत्तर:
(ii) कर्मवाच्य।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ समेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम (1) कॉलम (2)
1. हमारे द्वारा इतने कष्ट सहन नहीं किए जाएंगे। (I) कर्तृवाच्य
2. मजदूर पत्थर नहीं तोड़ पा रहे हैं। (II) भाववाच्य
3. चोट के कारण उससे बैठा नहीं जाता। (III) कर्मवाच्य

विकल्प :
(i) 1 (III), 2 (I), 3 (II)
(ii) 1 (II), 2 (III), 3 (1)
(iii) 1 (1), 2 (II), 3 (III)
(iv) 1 (III), 2 (II), 3 (1)
उत्तर:
(i) 1 (III), 2 (1), 3 (II)

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1×4 = 4)
(क) सैनिक देश की सीमाओं की रक्षा करते हैं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
(ii) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
(iii) भाववाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
(iv) समूहवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।
उत्तर:
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा , बहुवचन , स्त्रीलिंग , सम्बन्ध कारक।

(ख) वह व्यक्ति कठोर परिश्रम कर रहा है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) सम्बन्धवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
(ii) गुणवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
(iii) निजवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग, विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
(iv) प्रश्नवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग, विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।
उत्तर:
(ii) गुणवाचक विशेषण , एकवचन , पुल्लिग, विशेष्य-‘परिश्रम’।

(ग) आप चुप रहिए। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) प्रथम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
(ii) उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
(iii) मध्यम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
(iv) अन्य पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिग , कर्ता कारक।
उत्तर:
(ii) मध्यम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम , एकवचन , पुल्लिंग , कर्ता कारक।

(घ) पाप से घृणा करो , पापी से नहीं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
(ii) समूहवाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
(iii) द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
(iv) भाववाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।
उत्तर:
(iv) भाववाचक संज्ञा , एकवचन , पुल्लिग अपादान कारक।

(ङ) राम और श्याम दौड़ रहे हैं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) अकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिग , बहुवचन।
(ii) सकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिंग , बहुवचन।
(iii) द्विकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिंग , बहुवचन।
(iv) प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिग, बहुवचन।
उत्तर:
(i) अकर्मक क्रिया , वर्तमान काल , पुल्लिंग , बहुवचन।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) ‘चिरजीवो जोरी जुरे, क्यों न सनेह गंभीर । को घटि ये वृषभानुजा, वे हलधर के बीर ॥ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(i) श्लेष

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ ‘वृषभानुजा’ के दो अर्थ है- पहला वृषभानु की पुत्री राधा और दूसरा वृषभ की अनुजा गाय। इसी प्रकार हलधर के अर्थ हैं-बलराम और हल को धारण करने वाला।

(ख) खुले बाल, खिले बाल चन्दन को टीको लाल’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(i) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(i) श्लेष

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ बाल शब्द के दो अर्थ हैं । केश और बालक। अतः यहाँ श्लेष अलंकार है।

(ग) ‘मानो कठिन आँगन चली, ताते राते पाएँ। पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ पर स्त्री के पैर लाल हो गए हैं, कवि संभावना जता रहे हैं कि वह कठोर आँगन में पैदल चली है। इसी कारण उसकी ये दशा हुई है परंतु यह सिर्फ संभावना है और स्पष्ट कारण नहीं मिल रहा अतः यहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार है।

(घ) धनुष उठाया ज्यों ही उसने, और चढ़ाया उस पर बाण। धरा सिन्धु नभ काँपे सहसा, विकल हुए जीवों के प्राण’॥ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
जैसे ही अर्जुन ने धनुष उठाया और उस पर बाण चढ़ाया तभी धरती, आसमान एवं नदियाँ कांपने लगी और सभी जीवों के प्राण निकलने को हो गए। यह बात बिलकुल असंभव है, क्योंकि बिना बाण चलाये ऐसा हो ही नहीं सकता है अत: यहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार है।

(ङ) ‘लोने-लोने वे घने चने क्या बने-बने इठलाते हैं, हौले-हौले होली गा-गा धुंघरू पर ताल बजाते हैं’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(iii) मानवीकरण

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ चने पर होली गाने, सज-धजकर इतराने और ताल बजाने में मानवीय क्रियाओं का आरोप है। अतः यहाँ मानवीकरण अलंकार है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
जीप क़स्बा छोड़कर आगे बढ़ गई तब हालदार साहब इस मूर्ति के बारे में ही सोचते रहे और अंत में इस निष्कर्ष पर पहुँचे कि कुल मिलाकर कस्बे के नागरिकों का यह प्रयास सराहनीय ही कहा जाना चाहिए। महत्व मूर्ति के रंग-रूप का या कद का नहीं, उस भावना का है। वर्ना तो देशभक्ति भी आजकल मजाक की चीज़ होती जा रही है। दूसरी बार जब हालदार साहब उधर से गुज़रे तो उन्हें मूर्ति में कुछ अंतर दिखाई दिया। ध्यान से देखा तो पाया कि चश्मा दूसरा है।
(क) आगे बढ़ने पर हालदार साहब किस बारे में सोच रहे थे?
(i) मूर्ति के बारे में
(ii) कस्बे के बारे में
(iii) देशभक्ति के बारे में
(iv) पानवाले के बारे में
उत्तर:
(i) मूर्ति के बारे में।

(ख) हालदार साहब को कौन-सा प्रयास सराहनीय लगा?
(i) मूर्ति के बारे में सोचना
(ii) चौराहे पर मूर्ति का लगना
(iii) पानवाले का पान खिलाना
(iv) चश्मा बदलना
उत्तर:
(i) चौराहे पर मूर्ति का लगना।

(ग) कस्बे या चौराहे पर मूर्ति लगाने का क्या उद्देश्य हो सकता है?
(i) उनके आदर्शों को स्मरण करना।
(ii) देशभक्ति की भावना को जाग्रत करना।
(iii) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं।
(iv) अपना यश कमाना
उत्तर:
(ii) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं।

(घ) हालदार साहब के अनुसार देशभक्ति आजकल क्या होती जा रही है?
(i) प्रेम की भावना
(ii) लगाव की भावना
(iii) मजाक की भावना
(iv) पूजा की भावना
उत्तर:
(iii) मजाक की भावना।

(ङ) गद्यांश के पाठ का नाम है
(i) बालगोबिन भगत
(ii) लखनवी अंदाज़
(iii) नेताजी का चश्मा
(iv) संगतकार
उत्तर:
(iii) नेताजी का चश्मा।

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) नेताजी का ओरिजिनल चश्मा कहाँ था?
(i) उनकी नाक पर
(ii) उनके कान पर
(iii) मूर्तिकार के पास
(iv) बना नहीं था
उत्तर:
(iv) बना नहीं था।

(ख) श्राद्ध की अवधि पूर्ण होने पर भगत ने क्या किया?
(i) क्रियाकर्म का कार्य पूर्ण किया
(ii) बेटे की मृत्यु का उत्सव मनाया
(iii) पुत्रवधू को उसके भाई के साथ भेज दिया
(iv) स्वयं घर से चले गए
उत्तर:
(iii) पुत्रवधू को उसके भाई के साथ भेज दिया।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
कौसिक सुनहु मंद येहू बालक। कुटिल काल बस निज कुलघालक।
भानुबंस राकेस कलंकू। निपट निरंकुसु अबुधु असंकू। कालकवलु होइहि छन माहीं। कहों पुकारि खोरि मोहि नाहीं।
तुम्ह हटकहु जो चहहु उबारा। कहि प्रतापु बलु रोषु हमारा।
लखन कहेहु मुनि सुजस तुम्हारा। तुम्हहि अछत को बरने पारा।
अपने मुह तुम्ह आपनि करनी। बार अनेक भांति बहु बरनी।
नहिं संतोषु त पुनि कछु कहहु। जनि रिस रोकि दुसह दुःख सहहू।
बीरब्रती तुम्ह धीर अछोभा। गारी देत न पावहु सोभा।
(क) परशुराम ने लक्ष्मण को कैसा बालक बताया है?
(i) मंदबुद्धि
(ii) सफल
(iii) होशियार
(iv) कुटिल
उत्तर:
(i) मंदबुद्धि।

(ख) भानुबंस राकेस कलंकू’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है?
(i) अनुप्रास
(ii) उपमा
(iii) रूपक
(iv) उत्प्रेक्षा
उत्तर:
(iii) रूपक।

(ग) काव्यांश में वीर की क्या पहचान बताई है?
(i) अपनी वीरता का बखान करते हैं।
(ii) युद्ध भूमि में डटे नहीं रहते।
(iii) अपनी वीरता युद्धक्षेत्र में ही दिखाते हैं।
(iv) वह असभ्य बोलता है।
उत्तर:
(iii) अपनी वीरता युद्धक्षेत्र में ही दिखाते हैं।

(घ) परशुराम के यश के विषय में लक्ष्मण ने क्या कहा?
(i) तुम यश की वीरता का बखान करते हो।
(ii) तुम अपने मुँह से कई बार अपने यश का बखान करते हो।
(iii) दोनों सही हैं।
(iv) आप महाबलशाली हैं।
उत्तर:
(ii) तुम अपने मुँह से कई बार अपने यश का बखान करते हो।

(ङ) ‘कुटिल कालबस निज कुलघालक’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है?
(i) अनुप्रास
(ii) रूपक
(iii) उपमा
(iv) उत्प्रेक्षा
उत्तर:
(i) अनुप्रास।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) गोपियों के अनुसार किसने अपने पैरों को नहीं डुबोया?
(i) सूरदास ने
(ii) श्रीकृष्ण ने
(iii) गोपियों ने
(iv) उद्धव ने
उत्तर:
(iv) उद्धव ने।

(ख) ‘उत्साह’ कविता में बादल किसका प्रतीक है?
(i) नवसृजन का
(ii) विनाश का
(iii) वर्षा का
(iv) बच्चों का
उत्तर:
(i) नवसृजन का।

खंड ‘ब’
वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) ‘संस्कृति’ पाठ में लेखक ने मनीषी किन्हें कहा है ? उनसे मिलने वाला ज्ञान किसका परिचायक है ?
उत्तर:
मनीषी ऐसे संस्कृत आविष्कारकों को कहा गया है जो भौतिक आवश्यकताओं के लिए नहीं, अपितु मन की जिज्ञासा को तृप्त करने के लिए प्रकृति के रहस्यों को जानना चाहते हैं। सूक्ष्म और अज्ञात रहस्यों को जानना जिनका स्वभावगत गुण रहा है। मनीषियों से मिलने वाला ज्ञान उनकी सहज संस्कृति के कारण ही हमें प्राप्त होता है। मनीषी सदैव ज्ञान की खोज में लगे रहते हैं। वे कभी भी संतुष्ट होकर नहीं बैठते।

(ख) मन्नू भंडारी के पिता की कौन-कौन सी विशेषताएँ अनुकरणीय हैं ?
उत्तर:
मन्नू भंडारी के पिता एक विरोधाभासी व्यक्तित्व के व्यक्ति थे। उनकी अनेक विशेषताएँ अनुकरणीय हो सकती है। वे बेहद कोमल और संवेदनशील व्यक्ति थे तथा अपने बच्चों की भावनाओं को समझते थे। वे शिक्षा के प्रति अत्यंत जागरूक थे और इसके प्रसार के लिए घर में आठ-दस बच्चों को शिक्षित करने का दायित्व खुशी से उठाते थे। उनकी देशप्रेम की भावना अनुकरणीय है। मन्नू भंडारी में देशप्रेम की भावना के बीज उन्हीं से अंकुरित हुए । यश पाने के इच्छुक थे, वे विशिष्ट बनकर जीना चाहते थे और उसके लिए प्रयासरत रहते थे।

(ग) ‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ पाठ से क्या संदेश मिलता है?
उत्तर:
लेखक स्वयं प्रकाश जी ने ‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ पाठ के माध्यम से देशभक्ति का सम्बन्ध मन से दिखाया है। इस पाठ के माध्यम से लेखक जनता में देश व समाज के प्रति जागृति लाना चाहते हैं। उनके अनुसार देशभक्ति प्रकट करने के लिए जरूरी नहीं कि फौजी बनें, न ही शक्तिशाली होना जरूरी है। ऐसे लोग जो देश और समाज के प्रति अपने कर्तव्य निभाते हैं, वे कोई भी हों, गरीब-अमीर, बच्चा-बूढ़ा, वे सच्चे देश-प्रेमी हैं। इस कहानी में ‘कैप्टन’ पात्र के माध्यम से यही दर्शाया गया है। उसने नेताजी की बिना चश्मे की मूर्ति पर अपनी ओर से रोज नया-नया फ्रेम लगा. कर अपनी देशभक्ति का प्रमाण दिया। वह निर्धन और अपंग होने के बावजूद देश के प्रति अपनी भक्ति को, नेताजी की मर्ति पर चश्मा लगाकर प्रदर्शित करता रहा।

(घ) खीरे पर जीरा और नमक बुरकते हुए नवाब साहब को कैसा लग रहा था?
उत्तर:
खीरे की फांकों पर जब नवाब साहब जीरा और नमक बुरक रहे थे तो उनके चेहरे की भाव-भंगिमा और जबड़े के स्फुरण से स्पष्ट हो रहा था कि वे मन-ही-मन खीरे का रसास्वादन कर रहे हैं। उन्होंने तो खीरे का पूरा स्वाद कल्पना में ही ले लिया था। इस पूरी प्रक्रिया में उनके मुँह में पानी भर आया था और वे खीरे खाने को बड़े ही उतावले से लग रहे थे।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) कवि बादल से फुहार, रिमझिम या बरसने के स्थान पर ‘गरजने’ के लिए कहता है, क्यों?
उत्तर:
कवि ने बादलों से उनका पौरुष बल दिखाने को कहा है। वह चाहता है कि बादल जोर से गर्जना करें और बरसे ताकि भीषण गर्मी से तप्त धरती शीतल हो और उदास व अनमने लोगों का दुःख दूर हो। लोगों के मन में उत्साह का संचार हो जिससे वे पुरानी रुढ़ियों और विषमता से समाज को मुक्त करने में सहायक हो।

(ख) ‘आत्मकथ्य’ कविता में कवि जयशंकर प्रसाद ने जीवन के यथार्थ एवं अभाव पक्ष की जो मार्मिक अभिव्यक्ति की है, उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
कवि जयशंकर प्रसाद ने बताया कि कोई भी व्यक्ति अपने जीवन के यथार्थ को प्रकट नहीं करना चा. हता है, अपनी भूलों और प्रवंचनाओं को व्यक्त करने में हीनता की अनुभूति होती है। उज्ज्वल गाथा तो सभी कह लेते हैं, परन्तु मेरे जीवन सुख के क्षण मुझसे सदा दूर ही रहे, मेरी प्रिया भी मुझसे शीघ्र बिछुड़ गयी थीं, अब तो केवल स्मृतियाँ शेष हैं और मेरी व्यथा-कथा भी मन्द पड़ गयी है।

(ग) ‘राम-लक्ष्मण-परशुराम संवाद’ के आधार पर परशुराम के स्वभाव की कोई दो विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर:
पाठ के आधार पर परशुराम के स्वभाव की दो विशेषताएँ निम्नलिखित हैं परशुराम अतिक्रोधी हैं। उन्हें बात-बात पर क्रोध आ जाता है। जनक सभा में भी वह बार-बार अपना फरसा दिखाकर अपना क्रोध प्रकट कर रहे थे। परशुराम अत्यंत अहंकारी हैं। उन्हें अपनी वीरता पर बड़ा ही घमंड है। उनके द्वारा बार-बार अपनी वीरता का बखान करना ही इस बात का प्रमाण है।

(घ) सांसारिक जीवन में संगतकार जैसे व्यक्ति की सार्थकता पर अपने विचार स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
सांसारिक जीवन में संगतकार जैसे व्यक्तियों की बहुत ही महत्त्वपूर्ण एवं सार्थक भूमिका होती है। ऐसे व्यक्ति समाज के हर छोटे-बड़े कार्य में सहायक की भूमिका का निर्वाह करते हैं और ऐसा करके वे दूसरों को ऊँचाइयों तक पहुँचा देते हैं। उनके मन में मानवता की भावना कूट-कूटकर भरी होती है। ये कभी किसी को पीछे धकेलकर आगे बढ़ना पसंद नहीं करते, बल्कि सदैव अपने त्याग से दूसरों को आगे बढ़ाने में सहायक बनते हैं। खेल-जगत, सिनेमा, राजनीति आदि जीवन के लगभग सभी क्षेत्रों में मानवता के उत्थान के लिए समर्पित ऐसे लोग देखे जा सकते हैं।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में लिखिए। (4 × 2 = 8)
(क) किसी रचनाकार के प्रेरणास्रोत किसी दूसरे को कुछ भी रचने के लिए किस तरह उत्साहित कर सकते
उत्तर:
यह बात काफी हद तक सही है कि किसी को कुछ भी रचने के लिए दूसरों के प्रेरणास्रोत काफी उत्साहित करते हैं। जापान के हिरोशिमा नामक स्थान पर अणुबम गिराने वाले ने भी अपना दुष्कर्म करके लेखक को लिखने के लिए प्रेरित किया। कभी-कभी व्यक्ति संपादकों, प्रकाशकों और आर्थिक लाभ से उत्साहित होकर भी लेखन का कार्य करता है किंतु यह कारण जरूरी नहीं है। वास्तविकता एवं सच्चा कारण तो यही है कि लेखक के भीतर उत्पन्न आकुलता या विवशता ही होती है जो उसे लिखने के लिए प्रेरित करती है।

(ख) ‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ के आधार पर यह कहा जा सकता है कि बच्चे का अपने पिता से अधिक लगाव था, फिर भी विपदा के समय वह पिता के पास न जाकर माँ की शरण लेता है। आपके विचार से इसका क्या कारण हो सकता है?
उत्तर:
बच्चे का अपने पिता से अधिक लगाव था। वह पिता के साथ ही बाहर की बैठक में सोया करता था। पिता अपने साथ ही उसे उठाते और साथ ही नहला-धुलाकर पूजा पर बिठा लेते थे। वे उसे भभूत का तिलक भी लगा देते थे। पिताजी उसे प्रेमपूर्वक भोलानाथ कहकर पुकारते थे। माता के साथ तो केवल दूध पीने तक का नाता था। इसके बावजूद भी जब कहानी के अंत में बच्चे पर विपदा आयी और साँप निकल आने के कारण बच्चा बेतहाशा भागता चला गया व सारी देह लहूलुहान हो गई थी तब वह पिता की पुकार को अनसुनी करके माँ की शरण में चला गया। माँ ने ही घावों पर हल्दी पीसकर लगायी। वह ‘मइयाँ’ (माँ) के आँचल में छिपता चला गया। वह पिता की गोद में नहीं गया। इसका कारण यही है कि बच्चे की आत्मा माँ से ही बँधी होती है, उसे कष्ट के समय अनायास ही माँ याद आती है और उसी की गोद में वह सुकून पाता है।

(ग) जितेन नार्गे ने खेदुम के बारे में लेखिका को क्या बताया?
उत्तर:
जितेन नार्गे ने लेखिका को खेदुम दिखाते हुए बताया कि यह पूरा लगभग एक किलोमीटर का क्षेत्र है। ऐसा माना जाता है कि यहाँ देवी-देवता का निवास है। अतः यहाँ कोई भी गंदगी नहीं फैलाता क्योंकि यहाँ के लोगों का मानना है कि जो भी यहाँ गंदगी फैलाएगा वह मर जाएगा।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत बिन्दुओं के आधार पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।
(क) समय अमूल्य धन

  • समय का चक्र रुकता नहीं
  • समय बर्बाद न करें
  • आलस्य त्यागें
  • अवसरवादी न बनें।

अथवा

(ख) इण्टरनेट-एक संचार क्रान्ति

  • इण्टरनेट का परिचय
  • लाभ-हानियाँ
  • सदुपयोग के उपाय।

अथवा

(ग) दिव्यांगों की समस्याएँ

  • दिव्यांग कौन हैं?
  • उनकी समस्याएँ क्या हैं?
  • उनके लिए सरकार के प्रयास
  • समाज का दायित्व
  • उपसंहार।

उत्तर:
(क) समय अमूल्य धन समय कभी किसी की प्रतीक्षा नहीं करता। वह तो बस नदी की भाँति बहता जाता है। आप चाहें तो समय को व्यर्थ की बातों में नष्ट कर सकते हैं और चाहें तो उसका सदुपयोग कर सकते हैं, जिससे वह आपकी उन्नति में चार चाँद लगा सकता है। समय के सदुपयोग में ही जीवन की सफलता का रहस्य निहित है अन्यथा समय को बर्बाद करने वाला स्वयं बर्बाद हो जाता है। समय का सदुपयोग करने का अधिकार सभी को समान रूप से मिला है। समय का सदुपयोग न करने वाला मुनष्य जीवन में प्रगति के मार्ग पर अग्रसर नहीं हो सकता। उसे आलसी और निठल्ले बैठे रहने की आदत पड़ जाती है। खाली बैठे वह कुछ का कुछ सोचता रहता है। वैसे भी खाली दिमाग शैतान का घर होता है। वह आलस्य के कारण अन्य अनेक दुर्गुणों का शिकार हो जाता है। आलस्य मनुष्य का सबसे बड़ा शत्रु है। कहा भी गया हैसमय का हमेशा सदुपयोग करना चाहिए। समय का सदुपयोग करने व अवसरवादी होने में फर्क है। यह नहीं कि हमें अवसर की ताक में रहना चाहिए और अवसर मिलते ही उचित-अनुचित ढंग से लाभ कमाना चाहिए। समय के सदुपयोग का ऐसा अर्थ लगाना अनर्थ है। अनैतिक कार्यों में लगे व्यक्ति ही ऐसी व्याख्या कर सकते हैं। अवस रवादिता देश, जाति, राष्ट्र, सभ्यता और संस्कृति के साथ-साथ मानवता के साथ विश्वासघात है। समय का पाबन्द होना, उसका बेहतरीन उपयोग करना भावी जीवन को सफल बनाने की एक सुखद तथा महत्त्वपूर्ण योजना है। याद रहे ‘समय व लहरें किसी की प्रतीक्षा नहीं करती।

अथवा

(ख) इण्टरनेट-एक संचार क्रांति कम्प्यूटर और इण्टरनेट के सहयोग से आज का मानव विश्व के किसी भी भाग से किसी भी प्रकार की सूचना प्राप्त कर सकता है। आज की सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी कम्प्यूटर और इण्टरनेट पर आधारित है। अब दफ्तरों में फाइलों का ढेर रखने की आवश्यकता नहीं रह गई है, इसके लिए एक छोटी-सी फ्लॉपी ही पर्याप्त है। अब संदर्भ ग्रन्थों से भरी आलमारियों की आवश्यकता नहीं है। कहीं की टिकट बुक करानी हो, कोई बिल जमा करवाना हो, बैंक से लेन-देन करना हो अथवा मनचाही सूचना पानी हो तो इण्टरनेट का सहारा लेना ही काफी होता है। यह मात्र तकनीक होते हुए भी जीवन्त शक्ति, मित्र व सहयोगी प्रतीत होती है। हम इसके माध्यम से सूचना, मनोरंजन, ज्ञान और व्यक्तिगत तथा सामाजिक विचारों का आदान-प्रदान कर सकते हैं। अब इण्टरनेट पत्रकारिता का युग है। इण्टरनेट का प्रयोग खबरों के सम्प्रेषण के लिए किया जा रहा है। इण्टरनेट ने शोध का काम बहुत आसान कर दिया है। इण्टरनेट का ‘ब्राउजर’ वह औजार है जिसके जरिए हम विश्वव्यापी जाल (www) में गोते लगा सकते हैं। इण्टरनेट के जहाँ अनेक लाभ हैं, वहीं इसके कुछ दुष्प्रभाव भी देखने में आ रहे हैं। इण्टरनेट अश्लीलता, दुष्प्रचार और गन्दगी फैलाने का माध्यम बनता जा रहा है, किन्तु यह कमी उस तकनीक की नहीं, अपितु मानव मस्तिष्क की है जो उसका दुरुपयोग कर रहा है। इण्टरनेट जनसंचार का सबसे नया तथा लोक. प्रिय माध्यम है। यह एक ऐसा माध्यम है जिसमें प्रिण्ट मीडिया, टेलीविजन, पुस्तक, सिनेमा तथा पुस्तकालय के सभी गुण विद्यमान हैं। इसकी पहुँच दुनिया के कोने-कोने तक है। यह अनेक माध्यमों का संगम है। इण्टरनेट पर बैठकर आप देश-विदेश में वार्तालाप कर सकते हैं, मन के मुताबिक ब्लॉग बना सकते हैं। इसकी सहायता से किसी भी वार्ता में भाग लिया जा सकता है। व्हाट्सएप, फेसबुक, ट्विटर आदि ने परस्पर सम्पर्कों को नया आयाम दिया है। यह एक अंतर क्रियात्मक माध्यम है। हम मूक दर्शक बनकर नहीं बैठते, अपितु बहस के सूत्रधार हो सकते हैं।

अथवा

(ग) दिव्यांगों की समस्याएँ
दिव्यांग अर्थात ‘दिव्य अंग’। यह शब्द उन लोगों के लिए प्रयुक्त किया जाता है जिनके शरीर के किसी अंग में कोई कमी है, किन्तु कोई अन्य, दिव्य अंग प्राप्त हुआ है अर्थात् उनके किसी एक अंग में अवश्य दिव्यता समायी होती है। अब तक उन्हें विकलांग या अपंग कहा जाता था। इनकी विकृतियाँ या तो जन्मजात होती हैं या बाद में बीमारी या दुर्घटना के कारण हो जाती हैं। इनके पालन-पोषण के साथ-साथ शिक्षा एवं रोजगार में भी समस्या आती है। सरकार इनकी शिक्षा को समावेशी शिक्षा के अन्तर्गत ले रही है। ऐसे बच्चों को विशेष आवश्यकता वाले बालक कहा जाता है। इस तरह के बच्चों में कुछ को सुनने और बोलने में समस्या हो सकती है, कुछ के हाथ-पैरों में विकृति हो सकती है या कुछ आँखों से देख नहीं पाते। इन विशेष आवश्यकता वाले बच्चों के लिए ही निःशक्त, विकलांग, दिव्यांग जैसे शब्द प्रचलित हैं। पहले इनकी तादाद देश की कुल आबादी में 2.43 फीसदी थी, जो अब बढ़कर 2.51 फीसदी हो गई है। इन निःशक्त जनों का 75 प्रतिशत भाग ग्रामीण इलाकों में रहता है। शिक्षा का अधिकार कानून 2009 में 6 से 14 वर्ष की आयु वाले इन दिव्यांग बच्चों को पड़ोस के स्कूलों में नि:शुल्क और अनिवार्य शिक्षा की व्यवस्था की गयी है। इसको समावेशी शिक्षा का नाम दिया गया है। इसके अन्तर्गत दृष्टिबाधित बालक, श्रवण ह्रास वाले बालक, चलने से निःशक्त, मानसिक मंदता, मानसिक रुग्णता, पक्षाघात, बहुविकलांगता वाले बालक आते हैं। वर्ष 2016 में हुए संविधान संशोधन में ऐसी 21 श्रेणियों को शामिल किया गया है। अब नौकरियों में इनके लिए आरक्षण 3 प्रतिशत से बढ़ाकर 4 प्रतिशत कर दिया गया है। आज अनेक सरकारी व गैर-सरकारी संस्थाएँ इनके उत्थान के लिए कार्य कर रही हैं। इन्हें सामान्य जनता के साथ लाकर खड़ा करने में यदि हम सफल हो गए तो देश की ताकत और भी बढ़ जाएगी।

प्रश्न 15.
आपके विद्यालय में पीने का पानी पर्याप्त मात्रा में
उपलब्ध नहीं होता। इसकी शिकायत व सुधार के लिए प्रार्थना करते हुए प्रधानाचार्या को पत्र लिखिए।. (5)
अथवा
आपका छोटा भाई कुसंगति में पड़ गया है। उसे एक पत्र लिखिए जिसमें कुसंगति से बचने की शिक्षा दी गई हो।
उत्तर:
प्रधानाचार्या महोदया,
अ ब स विद्यालय,
विकासपुरी, नई दिल्ली।

विषय-अपर्याप्त पेयजल की सूचना।
आदरणीय महोदया,
सविनय निवेदन यह है कि मैं आपके विद्यालय की कक्षा दसवीं का छात्र, आपको विद्यालय में अपर्याप्त पेयजल की समस्या से अवगत कराना चाहता हूँ। हमारे विद्यालय में पीने के पानी का उचित प्रबन्ध न होने के कारण सभी छात्रों को बहुत परेशानी होती है। घर से लाया हुआ एक बोतल पानी तो प्रथम कालांश में ही खत्म हो जाता है, उसके बाद तो पानी के लिए पूरा दिन तरसते रहते हैं। आप तो जानती ही हैं कि पानी पीना स्वास्थ्य के लिए कितना आवश्यक है और हम छात्रों का लगभग आधा दिन विद्यालय में बिना पानी के ही गुजरता है, जो कि बहुत बुरी बात है।
मेरा आपसे नम्र निवेदन है कि जल्द ही पेयजल की कमी की समस्या को सुलझाने के लिए उचित कदम उठायें। मुझे आशा है आप मेरी प्रार्थना पर अवश्य ध्यान देंगी।
धन्यवाद।

आपका आज्ञाकारी छात्र,
क ख ग
दिनांक…………………………

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन,
नई दिल्ली।
दिनांक………………….
प्रिय अनुज,
शुभाशीर्वाद।
कल माताजी का पत्र प्राप्त हुआ। यह पढ़कर अत्यन्त दुःख हुआ कि इस वर्ष अर्द्धवार्षिक परीक्षा में तुम्हें केवल 30: अंक प्राप्त हुए हैं। इसका क्या कारण है, यह तुम्हीं बता सकते हो, किन्तु मुझे लगता है कि यह सब कुसंगति का परिणाम है। तुम गलत मित्रों की संगति में पड़ गए हो। अतः पढ़ाई निरन्तर गिरावट की ओर जा रही है।
तुमने यह तो पढ़ा ही होगा
काजल की कोठरी में कैसो ही सयानो जाये,
एक लीक काजल की लागे है ही लागे है।
बुरी संगति अनेक दुर्गुणों को जन्म देती है। इससे समय तो नष्ट होता ही है, साथ ही स्वास्थ्य भी चौपट हो जाता है। कबीरदास ने कहा भी है
कबीरा संगत साधु की, ज्यों गंधी का वास।
ज्यों गंधी कुछ नाहिं दे, तो भी बास सुबास॥
यह उम्र बहुत कुछ सीखने की है, इस वक्त जो आदतें पड़ जाएँगी, वे जीवन भर साथ रहेंगी। अतः पढ़ाई के साथ-साथ अपने आचरण को बिगड़ने से बचाओ। आशा है, तुम सत्संगति के महत्त्व को समझकर बुरे लोगों से दूर रहने का प्रयास करोगे व कोई ऐसा काम नहीं करोगे जिससे तुम्हारा व परिवार का नाम खराब हो। कोई भी बात हो तो मुझसे अवश्य कहना।
तुम्हारा अग्रज,
क ख ग

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 16.
आप चन्दन कुमार हैं। कुरुक्षेत्र विश्वविद्यालय, कुरुक्षेत्र के हिंदी विभाग में प्राध्यापक के पद पर नियुक्ति के लिए लगभग 80 शब्दों में स्ववृत्त तैयार कीजिए। (5)
अथवा
आपने कविता प्रकाशन से कुछ पुस्तकें मंगवाई थीं। 15 दिन के पश्चात् भी उन पुस्तकों का पार्सल आपको नहीं मिला। प्रकाशन को पार्सल रद्द करने के लिए ई मेल लिखिए।
उत्तर:
सेवा में
प्रधानाचार्य महोदय
कुरुक्षेत्र विश्वविद्यालय,
कुरुक्षेत्र, हरियाणा
विषय- प्राध्यापक पद के लिए आवेदन-पत्र।
महोदय
दिनांक 3 जनवरी, 20XX के नवभारत टाइम्स में प्रकाशित विज्ञापन के माध्यम से ज्ञात हुआ कि आपके विश्वविद्यालय में हिंदी विभाग में प्राध्यापक का पद रिक्त है। इस पद हेतु मैं अपना आवेदन प्रस्तुत कर रहा हूँ।
कॉलेज में इस पद हेतु सभी योग्यताओं को मैं पूरा करता हूँ। मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण इस प्रकार हैअतः श्रीमान से निवेदन है कि मुझे प्राध्यापक के पद पर नियुक्त करने की कृपा करें।
धन्यवाद
निवेदक
चन्दन कुमार
बड़ा बाजार
कुरुक्षेत्र
5 जनवरी, 20XX
मेरा स्ववृत्त आवेदन-पत्र के साथ संलग्न है।

स्ववृत्त

नाम : चन्दन कुमार
पिता का नाम : ओंकार कुमार
माता का नाम : सुनयना
जन्मतिथि : 06 अगस्त, 1994
वर्तमान पता : 3, कुरुक्षेत्र, हरियाणा
मोबाइल : 23X0000546
ईमेल : [email protected]

शैक्षणिक योग्यता
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions 1

अन्य योग्यताएँ

  • कंप्यूटर में 1 वर्ष का डिप्लोमा
  • हिंदी, अंग्रेजी भाषा की जानकारी।

उपलब्धियाँ

  • विद्यालय स्तर पर लेखन प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार।
  • राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर निबंध प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार।
  • अखिल भारतीय हिंदी प्रश्नोत्तरी में प्रथम पुरस्कार।

कार्येत्तर गतिविधियाँ और अभिरुचियाँ
हिंदी लेखन में विशेष रुचि।
हस्ताक्षर
चन्दन कुमार
दिनांक : X/XX/XXXX

अथवा

From : [email protected]
To : [email protected]
Cc : ……..
Bcc : …….
विषय : पार्सल रद्द करने हेतु
महोदय
निवेदन है कि मैंने आपके प्रकाशन से कक्षा 11 हिंदी आधार की 25, कक्षा 12 हिंदी आधार की 20, कक्षा 10 हिंदी क्षितिज भाग-2 की 25 पुस्तकें मँगवाई थीं। इस बात को पंद्रह दिन हो चुके हैं और अभी तक आपकी ओर से कोई इस सन्दर्भ में कोई सूचना नहीं आई। अब मैंने कहीं और से उन पुस्तकों का प्रबंध कर लिया है। अतः आपसे अनुरोध है कि आप मेरे पार्सल को रद्द कर मुझे सूचित करें।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय
सूर्यम गुप्ता

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions

प्रश्न 17.
स्कूल के हलके व मजबूत बस्तों की कंपनी के लिए लगभग 60 शब्दों में एक आकर्षक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (4)
अथवा
प्रवासी भारतीय दिवस की शुभकामना देते हुए लगभग 80 शब्दों में सन्देश लिखिए।
उत्तर:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 9 with Solutions 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 2 with Solutions

समय :3 घण्टे
पूर्णाक: 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

  1. प्रश्न-पत्र दो खण्डों में विभाजित किया गया है- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
  2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे जाएँगें, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के ही उत्तर देने होंगे।
  3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए जाएँगें। प्रश्नों में उचित आन्तरिक विकल्प दिए जाएंगे।
  4. उत्तर लिखते समय प्रश्न का क्रमांक अवश्य लिखें।
  5. एक प्रश्न के सभी भाग एक साथ हल करें।
  6. उत्तर स्पष्ट एवं तर्कसंगत हों।

रखण्ड’अ’ : अपठित बोध

I. अपठित बोध- (15 अंक)

(अ) अपठित गद्यांश

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

हमें अंग्रेज़ी से कोई गिला शिकवा नहीं है, अंग्रेज़ी की प्रभुता से है । प्रभुता हम हिन्दी को भी नहीं देना चाहते। उसे एक विशेष प्रयोजन के लिए सम्पर्क – भाषा के रूप में स्वीकार करते हैं, पर किसी दूसरी भारतीय भाषा को कुचलकर, दबाकर, या उसके हितों की अनदेखी कर के नहीं। राज्य – विशेष में उसके दैनिक व्यवहार के लिए उसी की भाषा उत्तम है । वहाँ हिन्दी को दखल नहीं देना। देश के स्वभाव और आवश्यकता के लिए हिन्दी अपरिहार्य है; आज से नहीं, लगभग एक हज़ार वर्षों से। दो भिन्न-भिन्न भाषा-भाषी परस्पर संवाद के लिए हिन्दी का ही सहारा लेते हैं। कुछ अंग्रेजी पढ़े लोग अब अंग्रेज़ी का प्रयोग करने लगे हैं, पर आम जन से बात करने में उनकी अंग्रेज़ी व्यर्थ हो जाती है और वे पुनः हिन्दी का सहारा लेते हैं। भारत के स्वभाव में द्विभाषिकता है । आज यातायात और दूरसंचार के माध्यमों के विकास से सम्पर्क – भाषा हिंदी की भूमिका बढ़ रही है, पर ऐसा नहीं है कि राज्य – विशेष में उस राज्य की भाषा उपेक्षित हो रही है । सभी भारतीय भाषाओं की उपेक्षा का कारण अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना है।

1. अंग्रेज़ी की प्रभुता से क्या आशय है? (1)
(क) अंग्रेज़ी भाषा का महत्त्व
(ख) मातृभाषा
(ग) संवाद की भाषा
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) अंग्रेज़ी भाषा का महत्त्व

2. लेखक ने गद्यांश में हिंदी को किस के रूप में प्रयोग करने पर ज़ोर दिया है? (1)
(क) सम्पर्क भाषा के
(ख) मातृभाषा के
(ग) राजभाषा के
(घ) विदेशी भाषा के
उत्तर:
(क) सम्पर्क भाषा के

3. राज्य के दैनिक व्यवहार में किस भाषा को उचित माना जाता है ? (1)
(क) हिंदी
(ख) राज्य की भाषा
(ग) विदेशी भाषा
(घ) लोकभाषा
उत्तर:
(ख) राज्य की भाषा

व्याख्या – राज्य के दैनिक व्यवहार में राज्य की भाषा को उचित माना जाता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

4. दो भिन्न भाषा-भाषी हिंदी का सहारा क्यों लेते हैं? (1)
(क) संवाद के लिए
(ख) गाने के लिए
(ग) जाने के लिए
(घ) पहचान के लिए
उत्तर:
(क) संवाद के लिए

5. अंग्रेज़ी किस से बात करने में व्यर्थ हो जाती है?
(क) आपस में
(ख) दफ़्तर में
(ग) घर में
(घ) आम जन से
उत्तर:
(घ) आम जन से

6. किस ने हिंदी के विकास में सहयोग किया है?
(क) प्रिंट मीडिया ने
(ख) दूरदर्शन ने
(ग) लोगों ने
(घ) यातायात ने
उत्तर:
(घ) यातायात ने

7. भारतीय भाषाओं की उपेक्षा का कारण क्या है?
(क) हिन्दी को अधिक महत्त्व देना
(ख) अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ख) अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना

8. भारतीय भाषाओं की उपेक्षा का क्या कारण रहा? (1)
(क) अंग्रेज़ी को अनावश्यक महत्त्व देना
(ख) अपनी संस्कृति को हीन मानना
(ग) भारतीय भाषाओं के साहित्य की कमी
(घ) भारतीय भाषाओं की जानकारी का अभाव
उत्तर:
(ग) भारतीय भाषाओं के साहित्य की कमी

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

9. इस अवतरण को उचित शीर्षक दीजिए । 1
(क) अंग्रेज़ी की महत्ता
(ख) हिन्दी की महत्ता
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) अंग्रेज़ी की महत्ता

10. अनावश्यक शब्द में उपसर्ग है- (1)
(क) अ
(ख) अन
(ग) अना
(घ) वश्यक
उत्तर:
(ख) अन

व्याख्या – अनावश्यक शब्द में उपसर्ग है, अन। अन + आवश्यक इसका सन्धि विच्छेद होगा।

(ब) दिए गए काव्यांशों में से किसी एक काव्यांश से सम्बन्धित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

मनमोहनी प्रकृति की जो गोद में बसा है।
सुख स्वर्ग-सा जहाँ है, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
जिसके चरण निरंतर रत्नेश धो रहा है।
जिसका मुकुट हिमालय, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
नदियाँ जहाँ सुधा की धारा बहा रही हैं।
सींचा हुआ सलोना, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
जिसके बड़े रसीले फल कंद, नाज, मेवे ।
सब अंग में सजे हैं, वह देश कौन- -सा है ?
जिसके सुगंध वाले, सुंदर प्रसून प्यारे ।
दिन-रात हँस रहे हैं, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
मैदान, गिरि, वनों में, हरियालियाँ महकतीं ।
आनंदमय जहाँ है, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
जिसकी अनंत वन से धरती भरी पड़ी है।
संसार का शिरोमणि, वह देश कौन-सा है ?
सबसे प्रथम जगत में, जो सभ्य था यशस्वी ।
जगदीश का दुलारा, वह देश कौन-सा है ?

1. ‘जिसके चरण निरन्तर रत्नेश धो रहा है’ इस पंक्ति का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए । 1
उत्तर:
इस पंक्ति का भाव है कि भारत के दक्षिण में सागर है जो कि भारत माता के चरणों को धोता है।

2. कवि ने इस देश की नदियों के जल की क्या विशेषता बताई है? (1)
उत्तर:
कवि ने इस देश की नदियों के जल को अमृत के समान बताया है। इस देश की नदियाँ सुधा की धारा के समान बहती है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. ‘सुख स्वर्ग – सा’ में अलंकार है- (1)
(क) यमक
(ख) उपमा
(ग) रूपक
(घ) उत्प्रेक्षा
उत्तर:
(ख) उपमा

4. ‘संसार के शिरोमणि’ की संज्ञा किस देश को दी गई है ? (1)
(क) भारत
(ख) जापान
(ग) इंग्लैण्ड
(घ) श्रीलंका
उत्तर:
(क) भारत

व्याख्या – ‘संसार के शिरोमणि’ की संज्ञा भारत देश को दी गई है।

5. पद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक दीजिए । 1
उत्तर:
इस पद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक ‘भारत की महिमा’ है।

अथवा

जब-जब बाहें झुकी मेघ की, धरती का तन-मन ललका है,
जब-जब मैं गुज़रा पनघट से, पनिहारिन का घट छलका है।
सुन बाँसुरिया सदा-सदा से हर बेसुध राधा बहकी है,
मेघदूत को देख यक्ष की सुधियों में केसर महकी है ।
क्या अपराध किसी का है फिर क्या कमज़ोरी कहूँ किसी की,
जब-जब रंग जमा महफिल में जोश रुका कब पायल का है।
जब-जब मन में भाव उमड़ते, प्रणय श्लोक अवतीर्ण हुए हैं,
जब-जब प्यास जगी पत्थर में, निर्झर स्रोत विकीर्ण हुए हैं।
जब-जब गूँजी लोकगीत की धुन अथवा आल्हा की कड़ियाँ,
खेतों पर यौवन लहराया, रूप गुजरिया का दमका है।

1. प्रस्तुत पद्यांश में किसका तन-मन ललकता कहा गया है?
(क) पनिहारिन का
(ख) राधा का
(ग) धरती का
(घ) गुजरिया का
उत्तर:
(ग) धरती का

2. मेघों के झुकने पर धरती कैसी हो जाती है ? (1)
उत्तर:
मेघों के झुकने पर धरती पानी से सराबोर हो उठती है तथा हरी-भरी हो जाती है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. मन के भावों और प्रेम गीतों का परस्पर क्या सम्बन्ध है ? (1)
उत्तर:
मन के भावों और गीतों का आपस में गहरा सम्बन्ध बताया गया है। जब मन में भाव उमड़ते हैं उन्हीं के अनुरूप प्रणय-गीत उमड़ पड़ते हैं।

4. आल्हा किस राज्य का लोकगीत है? (1)
(क) पंजाब
(ख) महाराष्ट्र
(ग) बुंदेलखंड
(घ) गुजरात
उत्तर:
(ग) बुंदेलखण्ड

5. ‘खेतों पर यौवन लहराया, रूप गुजरिया का दमका’ का आशय क्या है? (1)
उत्तर:
वर्षा ऋतु में खेत उसी प्रकार हरे-भरे हो जाते हैं जिस प्रकार ग्रामीण स्त्रियाँ अपने प्रेमी के निकट रहने पर सौंदर्य से युक्त हो जाती है।

II. पाठ्यपुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम की इकाई एक से पाठ संख्या 1 तथा 2 पर आधारित बहुविकल्पात्मक प्रश्न । (1 × 5 = 5)

निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए ।

1. समाचार माध्यमों के लिए पत्रकारों द्वारा किया गया लेखन कहलाता है- (1)
(क) साहित्य लेखन
(ख) पत्रकारीय लेखन
(ग) विज्ञापन लेखन
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) साहित्य लेखन

2. पीत पत्रकारिता का दूसरा नाम है- (1)
(क) अंशकालिक लेखन
(ख) पेज थ्री
(ग) खोजी
(घ) एडवोकेसी
उत्तर:
(क) अंशकालिक लेखन

3. मुद्रित माध्यम की भाषा की विशेषता है- (1)
(क) बोलचाल की भाषा का प्रयोग
(ख) लोकोक्तियों और मुहावरों का प्रयोग
(ग) लिखित भाषा का विस्तार
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

व्याख्या – मुद्रित माध्यम को प्रिंट माध्यम भी कहते हैं। इसके अन्तर्गत समाचार -पत्र, पत्रिकाएँ तथा पुस्तकें आदि आती हैं।

4. इंटरनेट की बढ़ती लोकप्रियता की क्या वजह है ? (1)
(क) पत्रकारिता का तीव्रगामी माध्यम
(ख) तत्काल अपडेशन की सुविधा
(ग) तकनीक के साथ सामंजस्य
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

व्याख्या – इंटरनेट पर समाचार पढ़ने, सुनने और देखने की सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध होती हैं। इंटरनेट पत्रकारिता को ऑनलाइन पत्रकारिका, साइबर पत्रकारिता तथा वेब पत्रकारिता आदि नामों से भी जाना जाता है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

5. छिपे कैमरे द्वारा रिकॉर्ड कर भ्रष्टाचार को उजागर करना क्या कहलाता है ? (1)
(क) ब्रेकिंग न्यूज़
(ख) वॉयस ओवर
(ग) स्टिंग ऑपरेशन
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) स्टिंग ऑपरेशन

III. पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-1 (10 अंक)

(अ) निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

चंपा काले काले अच्छर नहीं चीन्हती
मैं जब पढ़ने लगता हूँ वह आ जाती है
खड़ी खड़ी चुपचाप सुना करती है
उसे बड़ा अचरज होता है
इन काले चीन्हों से कैसे ये सब स्वर
निकला करते हैं।

1. प्रगतिवादी कवि कौन है? (1)
(क) जयशंकर प्रसाद
(ख) सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी ‘निराला’
(ग) त्रिलोचन
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) त्रिलोचन

2. कौन अक्षरों का महत्त्व नहीं जानता? (1)
(क) त्रिलोचन
(ख) चंपा
(ग) मुकेश
(घ) सीता
उत्तर:
(ख) चंपा

व्याख्या – चंपा नामक ग्वालिन-बाला अक्षरों का महत्त्व नहीं जानती।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. चंपा के लिए अक्षर किसके समान है ? (1)
(क) काले धब्बे
(ख) लाल धब्बे
(ग) पीले धब्बे
(घ) हरे धब्बे
उत्तर:
(क) काले धब्बे

4. अचरज़ का अर्थ है- (1)
(क) आश्चर्य
(ख) अनोखा
(ग) विस्मय
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) ये सभी

व्याख्या – अचरज का अर्थ है-आश्चर्य, अनोखा, विस्मय आदि।

5. ‘काले – काले’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है? (1)
(क) उपमा
(ख) रूपक
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश
(घ) अतिश्योक्ति
उत्तर:
(ग) पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश

व्याख्या – जब कोई शब्द एक से अधिक बार आए तो वहां पुररुक्ति प्रकाश अलंकार होता है। अतः ‘काले-काले’ में पुनरुक्ति प्रकाश अलंकार होगा।

(ब) निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

आगे भी इस देश में जो प्रधान शासक आये, अन्त में उनको जाना पड़ा। इससे आपका जाना भी परम्परा की चाल में कुछ अलग नहीं है, तथापि आपके शासन-काल का नाटक घोर दुःखान्त है, और अधिक आश्चर्य की बात यह है कि दर्शक तो क्या, स्वयं सूत्रधार भी नहीं जानता था कि उसने जो खेल सुखांत समझकर खेलना आरम्भ किया था, वह दुखांत हो जाएगा जिसके आदि में सुख था, मध्य में सीमा से बाहर का सुख था। उसका अंत ऐसे घोर दुःख के साथ कैसे हुआ ? आह ! घमण्डी खिलाड़ी समझता है कि दूसरों को अपनी लीला दिखाता हूँ । किन्तु पर्दे के पीछे एक और ही लीलामय की लीला हो रही है, यह उसे खबर नहीं !

1. लॉर्ड कर्ज़न का शासन काल कैसा था ? (1)
(क) सुखान्त
(ख) दुःखान्त
(ग) आश्चर्यजनक
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ख) दुःखान्त

व्याख्या – लार्ड कर्जन का शासन काल दु:खान्त था।

2. किसके कारण उसे प्रजा का विरोध झेलना पड़ा ? (1)
(क) बंगाल विभाजन
(ख) गाँधी जी
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) बंगाल विभाजन

व्याख्या – बंगाल-विभाजन के कारण उसे प्रजा का विरोध झेलना पड़ा।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. किसको सूत्रधार कहा गया है ? (1)
(क) कर्जन
(ख) एडवर्ड
(ग) बालमुकुंद गुप्त
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ख) एडवर्ड

4. इस गद्यांश के लेखक का नाम क्या है? (1)
(क) प्रेमचन्द
(ख) बालमुकुन्द गुप्त
(ग) शेखर जोशी
(घ) जयशंकर प्रसाद
उत्तर:
(ख) बालमुकुन्द गुप्त

5. घमण्डी खिलाड़ी की संज्ञा किसे दी गई है ? (1)
(क) प्रेमचन्द
(ख) बालमुकुंद
(ग) शेखर जोशी
(घ) कर्जन
उत्तर:
(घ) कर्जन

IV. पूरक पाठ्य पुस्तक वितान भाग – 1 (10 अंक)

निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

1. भारतीय गायिकाओं में बेजोड़ लता मंगेशकर नामक पाठ के लेखक हैं- (1)
(क) अनुपम मिश्र
(ख) प्रेमचंद
(ग) कुमार गंधर्व
(घ) हजारी प्रसाद
उत्तर:
(ग) कुमार गंधर्व

2. लता मंगेशकर के पिता का नाम था- (1)
(क) दीनानाथ
(ख) भोलानाथ
(ग) रमानाथ
(घ) गंगानाथ
उत्तर:
(क) दीनानाथ

3. लता से पूर्व किस प्रसिद्ध गायिका का ज़माना था ? (1)
(क) आशा भोंसले
(ख) उषा
(ग) नूरजहाँ
(घ) अनुराधा
उत्तर:
(ग) नूरजहाँ

4. इनमें से लता के गाने की प्रमुख विशेषता है- (1)
(क) नादय उच्चारण
(ख) आचरण
(ग) उच्चारण
(घ) ताल
उत्तर:
(क) नादय उच्चारण

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

5. सामान्यतः लता ने कौन-सी पट्टी में गीत गाए हैं ? (1)
(क) सामान्य
(ख) निम्न
(ग) ऊँची
(घ) मध्यम
उत्तर:
(ग) ऊँची

6. बेबी हालदार को काम दिलवाने में किस युवक ने मदद दी थी ?
(क) सुनील
(ख) भोलादा
(ग) उसके भाई
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) सुनील

व्याख्या-बेबी हालदार को सुनील ने काम दिलवाने

7. बेबी हालदार से पहले तातुश के घर में काम करने वाली की उम्र कितनी थी ? (1)
(क) 30 से 40
(ख) 35 से 40
(ग) 40 से 45
(घ) 45 से 50
उत्तर:
(ख) 35 से 40

8. बेबी हालदार कितनी पढ़ी लिखी थी ? (1)
(क) चौथी
(ख) पाँचवी
(ग) छठी
(घ) सातवीं
उत्तर:
(घ) सातवीं

व्याख्या – बेबी हालदार सातवीं क्लास तक पढ़ी लिखी थीं।

9. ताश के बच्चे तातुश को क्या कहकर बुलाते थे ? (1)
(क) पिता
(ख) बाबा
(ग) तातुश
(घ) पापा
उत्तर:
(ग) तातुश

10. बेबी हालदार के किराए के घर में कुल कितने सदस्य रहते थे? (1)
(क) तीन
(ख) दो
(ग) चार
(घ) एक
उत्तर:
(क) तीन

व्याख्या-बेबी हालदार के किराए के घर में कुल तीन सदस्य रहते थे।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

खण्ड ‘ब’ : वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

V. पाठ्य-पुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम से सृजनात्मक लेखन और व्यावहारिक लेखन । (20 अंक)

1. निम्नलिखित चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर रचनात्मक लेखन कीजिए – ( लगभग 120 शब्दों में) (5 × 1 = 5)

(क) ‘हिन्दी भाषा की उपयोगिता’ विषय पर अपने विचार प्रकट कीजिए । 5
उत्तर:
‘हिन्दी भाषा की उपयोगिता’ – हिन्दी भाषा को भारतवर्ष की राष्ट्रभाषा कहा जा सकता है। यह भाषा सिर्फ स्कूल, कॉलेज और विश्वविद्यालयों में पाठ्यक्रम का ही माध्यम नहीं है अपितु यह भारत के अधिकतर जन-जन की भाषा है। यह देश के लोगों के व्यवहार की भाषा है। आज हमारे देश में ही नहीं बल्कि दूसरे देशों में भी हिन्दी भाषा की बहुत उपयोगिता है । हिन्दी की उपयोगिता दिन-प्रतिदिन बढ़ रही है। यह हमारे देश की राजकाज की भाषा है। इसमें ही बैंकों, आयोगों विभिन्न मन्त्रालयों तथा संस्थाओं द्वारा प्रतियोगी परीक्षाएँ आयोजित की जाती हैं।

यह जनसंचार का प्रमुख माध्यम है। यह मीडिया, दूरदर्शन, सिनेमा, शिक्षा जनसंचार आदि क्षेत्रों की प्रमुख भाषा है। आज इस भाषा में अनूठा साहित्य उपलब्ध है। इसमें, कहानी, कविता, उपन्यास, निबन्ध, यात्रावृत्त, संस्मरण, रेखाचित्र आदि अनेक विधाओं में श्रेष्ठ साहित्य लिखा गया है और लिखा जा रहा है। इसमें विदेशों में भी साहित्य लिखा जा रहा है। क्लर्क से लेकर IAS तक की अधिकतर परीक्षाएँ हिन्दी माध्यम में ली जा रही हैं। वैश्वीकरण के युग में हिन्दी की उपयोगिता भारत में ही नहीं बल्कि संपूर्ण संसार में है। हम सबको हिन्दी का प्रचार-प्रसार करना चाहिए ताकि एक दिन यह विश्व की नम्बर एक भाषा बन सके।

(ख) नदी किनारे एक शाम आप अपने दोस्तों के साथ व्यतीत करते हैं, वहां के दृश्य का वर्णन कीजिए । 5
उत्तर:
गर्मियों की छुट्टियों के दिन थे। स्कूल जाने की चिन्ता नहीं थी और न ही होमवर्क की एक मेरे दोस्तों ने तय किया कि आज शाम नदी किनारे सैर करने चलेंगे। शायद गर्मी से कुछ राहत मिलेगी, कुछ प्रकृति के सौन्दर्य दर्शन करके मन खुश होगा हम सब शाम को 6 बजे के करीब नदी की तरफ पैदल ही चल दिए। ढलते सूर्य की लाल-लाल किरणें पश्चिम क्षितिज पर ऐसी लग रही थीं कि मानो प्रकृति रूपी युवती लाल-लाल वस्त्र पहने मचल रही हो। पक्षी अपने-अपने घौंसलों की तरफ लौटने लगे थे। हरियाली चारों तरफ छायी हुई थी। ज्यों ही हम नदी किनारे पहुँचे सूर्य की सुनहरी किरणें नदी के पानी पर पड़ती हुई बहुत ही खूबसूरत लग रही थीं ऐसे लगता था कि मानों नदी के जल में हज़ारों लाल कमल एक साथ खिल उठे हों। नदी किनारे लगे पेड़ों की पंक्ति देखकर ‘तरनि तनुजा तट तमाल, तरुवर बहु छाए’ कविता पंक्ति याद आ गई।

नदी तट के पास वाले जंगल से ग्वाले पशु चराकर अपने-अपने घरों की लौट रहे थे हम सभी मित्र बात कम, प्रकृति के रूप रस का गान अधिक कर रहे थे। थोड़े ही देर में सूर्यास्ताचल की ओर जाता प्रतीत हुआ। तभी नदी का जो जल लाल लगता था वह अब नीला दिखने लगा। बगुलों की सफेद-सफेद पंक्तियाँ उड़ते हुए उस धूमिल वातावरण में और भी अधिक सफेद लग रही थीं। प्रकृति की सुन्दरता निहारते – निहारते ऐसे खोए कि वक्त का ख़्याल ही न रहा। नदी किनारे सैर करते हुए बिताई यह शाम हमें ताउम्र याद रहेगी।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

(ग) मोबाइल फोन और विद्यार्थी के अन्तःसम्बन्ध का वर्णन कीजिए । 5
उत्तर:
‘मोबाइल फोन और विद्यार्थी’ वर्तमान का युग संचार-क्रान्ति का युग है। इस युग में मोबाइल हम सबकी ज़िन्दगी का मुख्य हिस्सा बन गया है। आज मोबाइल ने हर क्षेत्र में क्रान्ति ला दी है। समाज में हर व्यक्ति अपनी-अपनी ज़रूरत के मुताबिक इसका फायदा ले रहा है। आज स्कूल, कॉलेज, विश्वविद्यालय, किसी भी स्तर का ही क्यों न हो। आज मोबाइल का प्रयोग सिर्फ बातचीत के लिए ही नहीं किया जाता बल्कि विद्यार्थी इसका प्रयोग इन्टरनेट, ई-मेल, चैटिंग, रिसर्च आदि के लिए भी करते हैं। इससे घर बैठे इन्टरनेट के ज़रिए दुनियाँ के किसी भी कोने की जानकारी प्राप्त कर सकते हैं।

विद्यार्थी अपनी मनचाही सामग्री को डाउनलोड कर सकते हैं; प्रिन्ट निकाल सकते हैं। आज मोबाइल जीवन के लिए जितना उपयोगी है, उतना हानिकारक भी। जो विद्यार्थी मोबाइल का दुरुपयोग कर समय नष्ट करते हैं, वह कभी सफल नहीं होते हैं और उनको हानिकारक परिणाम भुगतना पड़ता है। सभी विद्यार्थियों को मोबाइल की अहमियत समझनी चाहिए और हमेशा मोबाइल का सदुपयोग करते रहना चाहिए।, दुरूपयोग नहीं ।

(घ) अपनी किसी ऐसी रेल यात्रा का वर्णन कीजिए, जिसे आप आज भी याद करते हैं। 5
उत्तर:
‘मेरी रेल यात्रा’ – हमारे देश में रेलवे ही एक विभाग है जो यात्रियों को टिकट देकर भी सीट की गारंटी नहीं देता। गाड़ी में घुस पाने की समस्या भी सामने आती है। कभी-कभी तो ऐसा भी होता है कि टिकट पास होकर भी आप गाड़ी में सवार नहीं हो पाते हैं फैमिली साथ हो तो यह समस्या और भी कष्ट दायक होती है। मैं एक बार दिल्ली जाने के लिए स्टेशन पर रेलागाड़ी का इन्तज़ार कर रहा था। गाड़ी 2 घण्टे लेट थी। यात्री बैचेन थे।

गाड़ी आई तो गाड़ी में सवार होने हेतु बहुत मशक्कत करनी पड़ी किस्मत अच्छी थी मैं आखिकार सवार हो गया। गाड़ी कुछ ही दूर चली ही थी कि कुछ यात्रियों के मुँह से सुना कि यह डिब्बा (जिसमें मैं बैठा था) आगरा में कट जाएगा। यह सुनकर मैं परेशानी में पड़ गया। गाड़ी रात 2 बजे आगरा स्टेशन पहुँची (जहाँ हमारा डिब्बा कटना था) और हमें दूसरे डिब्बे में सवार होना था तभी अचानक बारिश शुरू हो गई। स्टेशन पर अपना-अपना सामान उठाए लोग बारिश में भीगते हुए दूसरे डिब्बे की तरफ भागने लगे। मैं भी अपनी अटैची लेकर उतरने लगा कि एकदम से वह डिब्बा चलने लगा। मैं गिरते-गिरते बचा और अटैची लेकर जल्दी-जल्दी दूसरे डिब्बे की तरफ बढ़ने लगा। गर्मी का मौसम था और उस डिब्बे के पंखे बन्द थे । गाड़ी चली, तब हवा लगी और कुछ राहत मिली। आखिरकार मैं दिल्ली पहुँच ही गया।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

2. दैनिक जागरण समाचार-पत्र के संपादक को एक पत्र लिखिए जिसमें ” अपराधी तत्वों के राजनीति में जाने से लोकतंत्र के लिए संभा वित खतरों के प्रति चिंता प्रकट की गयी हो।” 5
अथवा
अपने क्षेत्र की बिजली की समस्या की ओर बिजली विभाग के अधिकारियों का ध्यान आकर्षित कराते हुए किसी दैनिक समाचार पत्र के संपादक को पत्र लिखिए । 5
उत्तर:
20 ए, रोहिणी सेक्टर-4
हाइवे सिटी,
दिल्ली।
16 अप्रैल, 20………

सेवा में,
संपादक महोदय,
दैनिक जागरण,
बहादुरशाह जफर मार्ग
नई दिल्ली-110001

विषय: अपराधी तत्वों के राजनीति में जाने से लोकतंत्र के लिए सम्भावित खतरों के संबंध में।

मान्यवर,
देश का एक ज़िम्मेदार और जागरूक नागरिक होने के नाते, मैं आपके प्रतिष्ठित तथा लोकप्रिय दैनिक अखबार के माध्यम से, अपराधी तत्वों के राजनीति में प्रवेश से लोकतंत्र के लिए संभावित खतरों के प्रति अपनी चिंता व्यक्त करना चाहता हूँ।

आज देश में सभी ओर कालाबाजारी, रिश्वतखोरी, भ्रष्टाचार भाई-भतीजावाद, जातिवाद व सांप्रदायिकता का जहर फैल रहा है। एक सामान्य कर्मचारी से लेकर शीर्षस्थ नेताओं पर भ्रष्टाचार, संबंधी आरोप समय-समय पर लगते रहे हैं। इस प्रकार भ्रष्टाचार के कारण देश की राजनीति में आपराधिक तत्व बढ़ते जा रहे हैं। हमारी भारतीय राजनीति में धन व शक्ति का ही बोलबाला है। कई नेता अत्यधिक धनाढ्य हैं तो कईयों के नामचीन अपराधियों से संबंध हैं। हमारे चुनाव भी गुणवत्ता के आधार पर नहीं होते। इसलिए योग्य व्यक्ति आगे नहीं आ पाते और स्वार्थी तथा अपराधी तत्व अपने धन व शक्ति के बल पर राजनीति में आ जाते हैं जिनमें देश के प्रति प्रेम की भावना न के बराबर होती है। इस प्रकार के लोग जब शीर्षस्थ अधिकारी हों तो प्रशासन प्रणाली को स्वच्छ रखना दुष्कर हो जाता है।

हमें अपनी राजनीति को स्वच्छ करने के लिए इन अपराधी तत्वों को हटाना ही होगा। उसके लिए आवश्यक होगा कि हम अपनी कानून-व्यवस्था और चुनाव प्रक्रिया में सकारात्मक परिवर्तन लाएँ। यह भी अत्यन्त आवश्यक है कि सभी धर्म, जाति, संप्रदाय, क्षेत्र व भाषा के लोग अपने मतभेदों को भूलकर एकजुट होकर इस पर अंकुश लगाएँ और देशहित को सर्वोपरि रखकर, मतदान द्वारा स्वच्छ छवि के लोगों को राजनीति में लाएँ।

मान्यवर, आप भी मेरी तरह इस विषय में चिंतित अवश्य होंगे। अतः आपसे अनुरोध है कि मेरे इस पत्र को अपने समाचार-पत्र में प्रकाशित कर मुझे अनुग्रहीत करें।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय
मानव गुप्ता

अथवा

सेवा में,
संपादक महोदय,
नवभारत टाइम्स,
7, बहादुर ज़फर मार्ग,
नई दिल्ली।

विषय: बिजली की समस्या के सम्बन्ध में।

महोदय,
मैं आपके लोकप्रिय समाचार-पत्र के माध्यम से अधिकारी वर्ग का ध्यान अपने क्षेत्र की बिजली की समस्या की ओर आकर्षित कराना चाहता हूँ।

पिछले कुछ दिनों से हमारे क्षेत्र में बिजली आँख मिचौली करती रहती है। आजकल हमारी परीक्षाएँ चल रही हैं अतः परीक्षा की तैयारी करने में अत्यधिक परेशानी हो रही है। गर्मी के कारण हमारा शरीर पसीने से तर-बतर हो जाता जिसके कारण पढ़ने को मन नहीं करता। हमारे क्षेत्र में कुछ धनी लोग रहते हैं, जिनके पास जनरेटर तथा इनवर्टर की सुविधा है, परन्तु हम जैसे निम्न मध्यम वर्ग के लोगों की दशा बिजली चली जाने पर अत्यन्त दयनीय हो जाती है।

आजकल रात्रि के समय भी पढ़ना आवश्यक होता है, परन्तु पढ़ते समय जब बिजली चली जाती है तो बिना बिजली के घर भी भूत का डेरा लगने लगता है। एक तो परीक्षा का भूत साँस नहीं लेने देता, इसके साथ अंधेरे का भूत रही-सही कसर पूरी कर देता है अतः आपसे विनम्र निवेदन है कि इन दिनों आप बिजली की आपूर्ति निरन्तर बनाये रखें। आपकी अति कृपा होगी।
भवदीय
छात्रगण
23 ए, खानपुर रोड
दिल्ली – (1)10011
दिनांक ……….

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

3. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 60 शब्दों में) दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) “परीक्षा में आप अनुत्तीर्ण हो गए हैं।” इस अवसर पर डायरी लेखन कीजिए । 3
उत्तर:
27 मार्च, 20XXX – आज मेरा परीक्षा परिणाम आया है, अनुत्तीर्ण होने का परिणाम सुनकर मेरे पैरों तले जमीन खिसक गई। मेरे मित्रों ने मुझे ढास दिलाया, बाद में मुझे अपनी गलती का अहसास हुआ। मैं खेलों में ज़्यादा ध्यान देता रहा अतः अनुत्तीर्ण हो गया। अपनी गलती को सुधारने के प्रति सचेष्ट रहूंगा। मुझे अध्यापक जी का कथन याद आया कि “गिरते हैं शहसवार ही मैदान-ए-जंग में” और मैंने निश्चय किया कि अब मैं ठीक से पढ़ाई करूँगा और अगले वर्ष अच्छे अंकों से उत्तीर्ण होकर दिखाऊँगा ।

(ख) आज आपको क्रिसमस पार्टी में आमन्त्रित किया गया था। पार्टी के बारे में लगभग 100-120 शब्दों में डायरी प्रविष्टि लिखें। 3
उत्तर:
मंगलवार
25 दिसम्बर, 20xx
शाम के बाद
प्रिय डायरी
मेरे दोस्त द्वारा आज क्रिसमस पार्टी का आयोजन किया गया था। इसके लिए मैं बहुत उत्साहित था कि उसने मुझे क्रिसमस कार्निवल में भाग लेने के लिए आमंत्रित किया। पार्टी का समय शाम 6.30 9.30 बजे था। मैं शाम 6.30 बजे पार्टी में सम्मिलित हुआ। उसने अपने घर को गुब्बारे और रिवन से बहुत ही भव्य रूप में सजाया हुआ था। एक क्रिसमस ट्री था जिसे रोशनी और छोटे-छोटे खिलौनों से सजाया गया था 7.30 बजे हमने केक काटा और केक का आनन्द लिया। क्रिसमस शब्द शीतकालीन ठंड, सितारों, माल्यार्पण, सांता क्लॉज एवं प्लम का पर्याय है।

क्रिसमस समारोह को चिन्हित करने के लिए हममें से कई लोगों ने लाल रंग के कपड़े पहने थे। कार्निवल में लाइव बैंड द्वारा कई प्रस्तुतियाँ वातावरण को मनोरंजक बनाने वाले हल्के मधुर संगीत ने दर्शकों को मंत्रमुग्ध कर दिया । कार्निवल में एक फोटो स्टूडियो, मजेदार और यादगार क्लिकों, जादूगरों एवं अनेक प्रकार के खेलों के साथ-साथ खाने-पीने के स्टॉलों की भी बहुत शानदार पेशकश रही। इस प्रकार के उत्सव समारोह परिवार और दोस्तों के साथ खोई हुई ऊर्जा जोड़ते हैं और मस्ती का आनन्द लेते हैं। ये उत्सव लोगों की सांसारिक जीवन शैली को तोड़ने का मौका देते हैं। बहुत से उपहारों के साथ यह अवसर जीते जा सकते हैं बहुत जोश और उत्साह से भरा हुआ यह कार्निवल एक यादगार बन गया है जिसे भूलकर भी नहीं भुलाया जा सकता।
शुभ रात्रि डायरी
दीप्ति

(ग) पटकथा का निर्माण कैसे किया जाता है ? स्पष्ट कीजिए । 3
उत्तर:
फिल्म या टीवी की पटकथा का चरित्र नाटक विधा के साथ बहुत मिलता है। नाटक की भाँति पटकथा में पात्र चरित्र-चित्रण, नायक प्रतिनायक, घटनास्थल दृश्य, कहानी का क्रमिक विकास आदि सब कुछ होता है। द्वन्द्व, टकराहट और फिर समाधान यह सब पटकथा के आवश्यक तत्व या अंग होते हैं। पटकथा लेखक इन्हीं तत्त्वों को आधार बनाकर पटकथा की रचना करते हैं। आज अनेक फिल्मों व टीवी सीरियलों की पटकथाओं का निर्माण बहुत ज़्यादा मात्रा में हो रहा है। आज के वैज्ञानिक युग में कम्प्यूटर पर ऐसे सॉफ्टवेयर आ गए हैं, जिनमें कथा-पटकथा का प्रारूप बना बनाया होता है। छोटी-सी गलती भी तुरन्त पकड़ ली जा सकती है तथा उसको सुधारने के सुझाव भी दिए जाते हैं।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

4. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 40 शब्दों में) दीजिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) शब्द द्वारा अक्षर परिचय से क्या तात्पर्य है ?
उत्तर:
सामान्यतः अक्षर सीखने में बालक की रुचि नहीं होती, वह उसे निरर्थक चिन्ह जान पड़ते हैं, अतः कुछ शिक्षाशास्त्रियों का मत है कि शब्द द्वारा बालक को अक्षर ज्ञान कराया जाना चाहिए। शब्दों को वस्तु के साथ या चित्र के साथ प्रस्तुत करना उपयुक्त बताया गया है; जैसे बालक चित्रों के साथ लिखे हुए शब्दों तथा विशेष अक्षरों को देखता है;
जैसे-
त = तरबूज
त = ततराजू
त = तलवार
त = तकली

क = कलम
क = कमल
क = कटारो
क = कबूतर

(ख) शब्दकोष और सन्दर्भ ग्रन्थ में क्या अन्तर है ?
उत्तर:
एक शब्दकोष और एक सन्दर्भ ग्रन्थ के बीच कई अन्तर हैं। शब्दकोष एक बड़ी सूची या ऐसा पाठ है जिसमें शब्दों की वर्तनी, उनकी व्युत्पत्ति, व्याकरण, निर्देश, अर्थ, परिभाषा, उपयोग और पदार्थ आदि का एक साथ बैठना है। वहीं सन्दर्भ वस्तुओं के बीच एक सम्बन्ध है जिसमें एक वस्तु निर्दिष्ट करती है।

(ग) कल्पना कीजिए कि आपने पत्रकारिता के क्षेत्र में अपना अध्ययन पूरा कर लिया है और किसी प्रसिद्ध अखबार में पत्रकार पद के लिए आवेदन भेजना है। इसके लिए एक आवेदन-पत्र लिखिए। (3)
उत्तर:
सेवा में,
सम्पादक,
अमर उजाला,
हरिद्वार।
विषय- “पत्रकार पद के लिए आवेदन हेतु ”
महोदय,
आज दिनाङ्क 10 जुलाई, 20xx को समाचार पत्र अमर उजाला से प्रकाशित विज्ञापन के माध्यम से ज्ञात हुआ है कि आपके कार्यालय को पत्रकार की आवश्यकता है। मैं इस पद के लिए अपना आवेदन पत्र प्रस्तुत कर रहा हूँ। मेरा स्ववृत्त इस आवेदन पत्र के साथ संलग्न है। इसका अवलोकन करने पर आप मुझे इस पद के लिए उचित उम्मीदवार समझेंगे। मैं आपके विज्ञापन में वर्णित सभी योग्यताओं को पूरा करता हूँ।

मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण निम्नलिखित प्रकार से है-
नाम- शेखर
पिता का नाम – चेतराम
जन्मतिथि – 9/10/1996
वर्तमान पता – 40, विकास नगर, हरिद्वार
स्थायी पता – 40, विकास नगर, हरिद्वार
दूरभाष- 0642-5451
चलध्वनि – 94788954xx

शैक्षणिक योग्यताएँ
Img 1
इस योग्यता के साथ-साथ में कई वर्षों से स्वतन्त्र लेखन
से भी जुड़ा हुआ हूँ। मुझे पत्रकारिता में बेहद रुचि है। मैं आपको पूर्ण विश्वास दिलाता हूँ, यदि आपने मुझे कार्य करने का अवसर प्रदान किया तो मैं अपना कार्य पूरी निष्ठा से करूँगा।
आपसे अनुरोध है कि उपर्युक्त तथ्यों को ध्यान में रखते हुए मेरे आवेदन-पत्र पर सकारात्मक विचार करते हुए मुझे पद पर अवश्य नियुक्त करेंगे।
सधन्यवाद
भवदीय
मुहम्मद अनीस

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

VI. पाठ्य-पुस्तक आरोह भाग-1 (20 अंक)

1. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 60 शब्दों में) दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) आदिवासियों की किस विशेषता ने कवयित्री को आकर्षित किया ? (3)
उत्तर:
कवयित्री आदिवासी समाज के रीति-रिवाज़ों, मौलिक प्रवृतियों व नैसर्गिक जीवन से आकर्षित हुई क्योंकि इन्हीं विशेषताओं के कारण ही उनका समाज अपनी पहचान बनाए हुए है। उनका प्रकृति के निकट रहते हुए शहरी भागदौड़ से दूर शांतिपूर्ण ढंग से अपनी मस्ती में जीने के ढंग से कवयित्री प्रभावित है और ऐसे जीवन के प्रति एक खिंचाव महसूस करती है।

(ख) कवि दुष्यंत के अनुसार स्वतंत्रता मिलने के बाद समाज की स्थिति कैसी है ? कवि ने किस पर व्यंग्य किया है ? और क्यों ? (3)
उत्तर:
कवि के अनुसार स्वतंत्रता प्राप्ति के बाद भी समाज की स्थिति में कोई सुधार नहीं हुआ है। आशा तो यही थी कि शहरों में सभी सुख-सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध होंगी, लेकिन हुआ इसके विपरीत ही कहीं भी सुख-समृद्धि की झलक नहीं मिलती। कवि ने शासन-व्यवस्था पर व्यंग्य किया है। कवि कहते हैं कि राजनेता, सरकारी तंत्र, शासन व्यवस्था आदि भ्रष्ट कार्यप्रणाली के साथ कार्य करते हैं। स्वतंत्रता प्राप्ति के बाद नेताओं ने जनता को आश्वासन दिए थे कि हर घर में सुख-सुविधाएँ प्राप्त होंगी, लेकिन पूरे शहर में कहीं भी ये जन सुविधाएँ प्राप्त नहीं हैं। लोगों का निर्वाह मुश्किल होता है तो वे निराश हो जाते हैं कटु सत्य तो यह है कि नेताओं के झूठे आश्वासन व जनकल्याणकारी संस्थाओं द्वारा आम आदमी के शोषण के उदाहरण देखने को मिलते रहते हैं। चारों तरफ भ्रष्टाचार का बोलबाला है। लोगों का कल्याण नहीं हो पा रहा। जो संस्थाएँ लोगों के कल्याण व सुख-समृद्धि के लिए बनाई गई थीं, वही संस्थाएँ उनके जीवन के लिए दुःखदायी बन गई हैं।

(ग) ‘मुट्ठियाँ भींचकर बस वक्त निकाल लेना’ से कवि का क्या तात्पर्य है ? (3)
उत्तर:
मुट्ठियाँ भींचना का अर्थ है क्रोध दिखाना। जब लोग अपने आस-पास कुछ अन्याय या गलत होता देखते हैं तो उन्हें क्रोध आता है लेकिन वे केवल मुट्ठियाँ भींचकर रह जाते हैं उस अन्याय का, बुराई का खुलकर विरोध नहीं करते केवल विरोध का दिखावा करते हैं।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

2. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में दीजिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) मीरा जगत को देखकर रोती क्यों है ? (2)
उत्तर:
मीरा जगत को देखकर इसलिए रोती है क्योंकि वह सोचती है कि इस जगत् के लोगों में विवेक नहीं है, वे नहीं जानते कि संसार मिथ्या है, नश्वर है, यहाँ की प्रत्येक वस्तु क्षणिक है, सारहीन है जगत् के लोग भ्रमित होकर सांसारिक विषय वासनाओं में भटक रहे हैं। उन्हें समझ नहीं है कि भगवद् प्रेम ही शाश्वत है, उसे ही प्राप्त करने के लिए प्रयत्न करना चाहिए न कि सांसारिक विषय वासनाओं को।

(ख) ‘साये में धूप’ गज़ल के कवि किस बदलाव के पक्ष में है ? (2)
उत्तर:
‘साये में धूप’ गजल में कवि शोषित लोगों के मन में क्रान्ति की ज्वाला सुलगाना चाहता है। कवि को पक्का विश्वास है कि उसे अधिकारों के लिए, सच्ची स्वतन्त्रता के लिए संघर्ष करना होगा। इसीलिए वह इस बदलाव के पक्ष में है।

(ग) आप अपने शहर या बस्ती की किन चीजों को बचाना चाहेंगे ? (2)
उत्तर:
हम अपने शहर और बस्ती को पर्यावरण प्रदूषण तथा प्राकृतिक संपदा के विनाश से बचाना चाहेंगे। उसके नष्ट होते नैसर्गिक सौन्दर्य को बचाना चाहेगें। हम अपने शहर को पाश्चात्य की अंधानुकरण की प्रवृति व अमर्यादित सभ्यता से बचाना चाहेंगे। हम लोगों को जीवन की जड़ता व ठहराव से बचाना चाहेंगे उन्हें निराशावादी व अविश्वास की प्रवृति से बचाना चाहेंगे।

3. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) आठ करोड़ प्रजा के गिड़गिड़ाकर विच्छेद न करने की प्रार्थना पर आपने जरा भी ध्यान नहीं दिया- यहाँ किस ऐतिहासिक घटना की ओर संकेत किया गया है ? (3)
उत्तर:
भारत में बंग-भंग अर्थात् बंगाल विभाजन की घटना ऐतिहासिक महत्व की है। लॉर्ड कर्जन ने भारत में नित्य प्रति होने वाली क्रांतिकारी घटनाओं का समाधान करने के लिए एक कूटनीतिक योजना बनाई। इसके अंतर्गत उसने बंगाल का विभाजन करने की योजना बनाई। भारत की जनता कर्जुन के कलुषित इरादों को समझ गई । अतः बंगाल की आठ करोड़ जनता ने बंग-भंग का पुरजोर विरोध किया ही, पूरा भारत इसके विरुद्ध खड़ा हो गया। इस घटना ने स्वतंत्रता आन्दोलन की चिंगारी को और अधिक भड़का दिया।

(ख) आज़ादी से पहले भारत निर्माण को लेकर नेहरू जी के क्या सपने थे ? क्या आज़ादी के बाद वे साकार हुए ? चर्चा कीजिए । (3)
उत्तर:
आज़ादी के पहले भारत निर्माण के संबंध में नेहरू जी के सपने एक ऐसे देश का निर्माण करने के थे जहाँ किसान की समस्याएँ दूर हो जाएँगी। उन्हें जमींदार व महाजनों से मुक्ति मिलेगी। सबको वर्ग-भेद सहित उन्नति के समान अवसर प्राप्त होंगे देश में औद्योगिक क्रांति आएगी। पुलिस के अत्याचार से मुक्ति होगी तथा विज्ञान व तकनीकी शिक्षा का विकास होगा।

आजादी के बाद नेहरू के सपने अभी आंशिक रूप में ही साकार हो पाए हैं। किसानों के जमींदारों व महाजनों के चंगुल से तो काफी हद तक मुक्ति मिली है। देश में विज्ञान व तकनीकी शिक्षा का विकास हुआ है लेकिन पुलिस के अत्याचारों से मुक्ति अभी दूर की कौड़ी है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

(ग) ‘जामुन का पेड़ ‘ कहानी का उद्देश्य स्पष्ट कीजिए । (3)
उत्तर:
कहानी ‘जामुन का पेड़ एक व्यंग्य प्रधान कहानी है। इस कहानी में लेखक कृश्न चन्दर ने सरकारी विभागों की कार्यप्रणाली पर व्यंग्य किया है। सरकारी विभाग में हर काम एक लम्बी प्रक्रिया से गुजरता है कोई विभाग या व्यक्ति स्वयं ज़िम्मेदारी न लेकर दूसरे पर डालता रहता है आम आदमी दफ्तरों के चक्कर लगाता रहता है और सरकार संवेदनहीन बनी कागज़ी कार्यवाही में लगी रहती है।

4. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में दीजिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) बादशाह के नाम का प्रसंग आते ही लेखिका की बातों में मियाँ नसीरुद्दीन की दिलचस्पी क्यों खत्म होने लगी ? (2)
उत्तर:
बादशाह के नाम का प्रसंग आते ही मियाँ नसीरुद्दीन की रुचि लेखिका की बातों में इसलिए कम होने लगी क्योंकि मियाँ की ये सब बातें पुरखों से सुनी-सुनाई थीं। ठीक से सब बातों और तथ्यों का महत्व न जाना था, न उन्हें इनकी जरूरत पड़ी थी इसलिए लेखिका के प्रश्न को सुनकर वह मुश्किल में पड़ गये और यह न बता सके कि किस बादशाह के यहाँ उनके पुरखे नानवाई का काम करते थे।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

(ख) फ़िल्म की शूटिंग के समय फ़िल्मकार को किन-किन समस्याओं का सामना करना पड़ा ? (2)
उत्तर:
शूटिंग के दौरान निम्नलिखित समस्याओं का सामना करना पड़ा-

  • पैसों की समस्या
  • पात्रों के चयन की समस्या
  • प्राकृतिक समस्या (बारिश, धूप, ओलावृष्टि आदि )
  • पात्रों की मृत्यु या अनुपस्थिति ।

(ग) विचारिए तो, क्या शान आपकी इस देश में थी और अब क्या हो गई ? कितने ऊँचे होकर आप कितने नीचे गिरे । आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए । (2)
उत्तर:
लार्ड कर्ज़न को भारत में जैसा मान-सम्मान और जैसी शान-शौकत भोगने को मिली, वैसी किसी भी अन्य वायसराय को नहीं मिली होगी। दिल्ली दरबार में उसकी कुर्सी सोने की थी । उसके एक इशारे पर देश के धनी माने जाने वाले लोग और महाराजा हाथ बाँधे खड़े रहते थे। उसने अपने संकेत भर से बड़े-बड़े राजाओं को मिट्टी में मिला दिया और नाचीज़ों को आसमान तक ऊँचा उठा दिया। कहाँ तो उसकी ऐसी ऊँची आन-बान थी और कहाँ ऐसी हालत हो गई कि एक अदना सा फौजी अफसर भी उसकी सिफारिश पर नहीं रखा गया, उल्टे उसी का इस्तीफा स्वीकार कर लिया गया। किस्मत ने क्या खेल दिखाया है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions 2022-2023

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 Political Science 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 Political Science board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 12 Political Science Sample Papers 2023.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 12 Political Science
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 Political Science 2022-2023 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 12 Political Science Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 12 Political Science Sample Paper 2023 Solved.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Sample Papers 2023 with Solutions

Political Science Sample Paper Class 12 Question Paper Design 2022-23

Divisions Typologies of Questions No. of Questions Marks Total
Section A Multiple Choice Questions Questions 1 – 12 1 12
Section B Short Answer Type Questions-I Questions 13 – 18 2 12
Section C Short Answer Type Questions-II Questions 19 – 23 4 20
Section D Passage/Cartoon/Map-based Questions Questions 24 – 26 4 12
Section E Long Answer Type Questions Questions 27 – 30 6 24
Total 30 Questions 80 Marks

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions 2022-2023 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of Political Science Class 12 2023 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 80

Time Allowed : 3 hours

General Instructions :

  1. All the questions are compulsory.
  2. The question paper consists of 38 questions divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D and E.
  3. Section A comprises of 16 questions of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 10 questions of 2 marks each. Section C comprises of 7 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 3 questions of 5 marks each. Section E comprises of 2 questions of 4 marks each.
  4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in five questions of 1 mark each, three questions of 2 marks each, two questions of 3 marks each, and two question of 5 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
  5. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section – A

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 1.
Find the sum of binary numbers 111 + 100. [1]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 7

Question 2.
Simplify : ya-b × yb-c × yc-a × ya-b. [1]
OR
Find the value of log\(\log _{\sqrt{2}} 64\)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 8

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 3.
Suppose an investor wants to have 1 lakh to retire 5 years from now. How much would he have to invest today with an annual rate of return equal to 15 %? [1]
Answer:
We know that,
Present Value, PV = \(\frac{A_n}{(1+i)^n}\)
Here, An = 1 lakh = ₹ 100000
i = 15%, \(\frac{15}{100}\) = 0.15 n = 5 years
∴ PV = \(\frac{100000}{(1+0.15)^5}\) = \(\frac{100000}{(1.15)^5}\)
= \(\frac{100000}{2.0113}\)
= ₹ 49,719.08
Thus, he would invest ₹ 49,719.08 today.

Question 4.
A dealer in Bhopal (M.P.). He supplies products and services worth ₹ 5,000 to another dealer in Kanpur (UP). If the rate of GST is 28%, find the tax levied under CGST. [1]
Answer:
Since, the given case in of inter-state transaction as the products/services is supplied from one state to another.
∴ CGST = 0.

Question 5.
If in an A.P., 7th term is 9 and 9th term is 7, then find 16th term.
OR
If a, b and c are in G.P., then the value of \(\frac{a-b}{b-c}\) is equal to……….. [1]
Answer:
Let first term and common difference of A.P is a and d, respectively.
Given, T7 = 9 = a + (7 – 1) d
⇒ 9 = a + 6d
and T9 = 7 = a + (9 – 1)d
⇒ 7 = a + 8d …..(ii)
On solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
a = 15 and d = -1
Now T16 = a + (16 – 1)d
15 + 15(-1) = 0

OR

Since, a, b and c are in G.P
∴ \(\frac{b}{a}\) = \(\frac{c}{b}\) = r (common ratio)
⇒ b = ar and c = br
⇒ c = ar.r = ar2
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 33
= \(\frac{1}{r}\) = \(\frac{a}{b}\) = \(\frac{b}{c}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 6.
Evaluate \(\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1+2+3+\ldots+n}{n^2}\) [1]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 9
Commonly Made Error
Some students do not apply correct expression of sum of natural numbers.

Answering Tip
Obtaining the result in the required form needs simplification, multiplication, substitution etc.

Question 7.
Write the set of all positive integers whose cube is odd in the builder form. [1]
Answer:
{x : x is an odd positive integer } as we are aware cube of an even positive integer is an even positive integer and cube 0f an odd integer is always an odd positive integer, therefore, the members of the required set are all positive odd integers. Also, it can be written as
{x : x = 2p + 1 and p ∈ W}.

Question 8.
Showing a lady in the park, Vineet said, “She is the daughter of my grand father’s only son.” How is Vineet related to that lady ? [1]
Answer:
The only son of Vineet’s grand father is the father of Vineet and Daughter of Vineet’s father is the sister of Vineet. Hence, Vineet is the brother of the lady.

Question 9.
Let f be the subset of Z × Z defined by
f = {(ab, a + b): a, b ∈ Z}. Is f a function from Z to Z ? Justify your answer. [1]
Answer:
Given, f = {(ab, a + b): a, b ∈ Z}
Taking a = b = 1, we have (ab, a + b) = (1, 2) ∈ f
Taking a = b = -1, we have (ab, a + b)
= (1, -2) ∈ f
⇒ f-image of 1 is not unique
Hence, f is not a function.

Question 10.
How many different words (with or without meaning) can be made using all the vowels at a time ?
OR
15C8 + 15C915C615C7 = ______  [1]
Answer:
There are 5 vowels in 26 alphabets.
Hence, using all 5 vowels at a time, number of different words (with or without meaning) can be made are = 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120.

OR

15C8 + 15C915C615C7
= 15C15-8 + 15C15-915C615C7 [∵ nCr = nCr-1]
= 15C7 + 15C615C615C7
= 0.

Question 11.
One number is chosen at random from the number 1 to 21. What is the probability that it is prime. [1]
Answer:
Sample space n(S) = 21
Prime numbers from 1 to 21 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.
If ’E’ be the event of getting a prime number, then n(E) = 8
∴ P(E) = \(\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}\) = \(\frac{8}{21}\)
∴ The probability that the number is prime
= \(\frac{8}{21}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 12.
Show that for any numbers a and b (S.D.) is given by \(\frac{|a-b|}{2}\). [1]
Answer:
For two numbers a and b, given by \(\bar{x}\) = \(\frac{(a+b)}{2}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 10
∴ Standard deviation = \(\frac{|a-b|}{2}\)

Question 13.
A can do a certain job in 12 days, B is 60% more efficient than A. How many days does B alone take to do the same job ?
OR
2.2 cubic dm of lead is to be drawn into a cylindrical wire 0.50 cm in diameter. Find the length of the wire in metres. [1]
Answer:
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 160 : 100 = 8 : 5. Suppose B alone take x days to do the same job. Then, 8 : 5 :: 12 : x
⇒ \(\frac{8}{5}\) = \(\frac{12}{x}\)
⇒ x = \(\frac{12 \times 5}{8}\) = \(\frac{60}{8}\) = 7\(\frac{1}{2}\) days
Hence, B can alone to the job in 7\(\frac{1}{2}\) days.

OR

Let the length of the wire be h meters. Then, πr2h = 2.2 cubic dm
i.e., π\(\left(\frac{0.50}{2 \times 100}\right)^2\) × h = \(\frac{2.2}{1000}\)
and 1 cubic dm = metre]
[d = 0.5 cm ⇒ r = \(\frac{0.5}{2}\) cm or \(\frac{0.5}{2 \times 100}\)m and 1 cubic dm = \(\frac{1}{1000}\) meter}
or, h = \(\left(\frac{2.2}{1000} \times \frac{100 \times 100}{0.25 \times 0.25} \times \frac{7}{22}\right)\)
= 112 m
Hence, length of the wire is 112 metres.

Question 14.
Show that the points (a, 0), (0, b) and (3a, – 2b) are collinear. [1]
Answer:
Let the given points be P(x1, y1) = (a, 0), Q(x2, y2) = (0, b) and R(x3, y3) = (3a, -2b).
∴ Area of ΔPQR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 11
Thus, points (a, 0), (0, b) and (3a, – 2b) are collinear.

Question 15.
Find the centre and the radius of the circle 2x2 + 2y2 + 10x – 6y – 1 = 0. [1]
Answer:
Given equation of circle is 2x2 + 2y2 + 10x – 6y – 1 = 0
One dividing by 2, the equation of circle can be written as
x2 + y2 + 5x – 3y – \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0
On comparing above equation with
x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0, we get
g = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(coefficient of x) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(5) = \(\frac{5}{2}\)
f = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(coefficient of y) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(-3) = –\(\frac{3}{2}\)
and c = constant term = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
Hence, the centre of the circle is (-g, -f) i.e., \(\left(-\frac{5}{2}, \frac{3}{2}\right)\) and radius of the circle = \(\sqrt{g^2+f^2-c}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 34

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 16.
If set A = {-2, 2} and B = {x : x OR
Let n{A) = m, and n(B) = n. Then find the total number of possible relations that can be defined from A to B. [1]
Answer:
Given
A = {- 2, 2}
and B = {x : x ∈ I, x2 – 4 = 0},
∴ x2 – 4 = 0
⇒ (x – 2) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ x = -2, 2
or, B = {- 2, 2}
Hence, A = B

Commonly Made Error
Some students commit errors in applying correct sign convention while square root of 4. So, it leads to prove the result unequal.

Answering Tip
Solve set B properly, so it results equal to set A.
OR
Given, n(A) = m, and n(B) = n
∴ n(A × B) = n(A). n(B) = mn
So, the total number of non-empty relations from A to B = 2mn

Section – B

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 17.
Divide (1001011)2 by (11)2. [2]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 13
Hence, quotient is (11001)2

Question 18.
Simplify : \(\frac{2 a^{\frac{1}{2}} \times a^{\frac{2}{3}} \times 6 a^{-\frac{7}{3}}}{9 a^{-\frac{5}{3}} \times a^{\frac{3}{2}}}\), if a = 4  [2]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 14

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 19.
The calendar for the year 2007 will be same for which year ?
OR
Four men A, B, C and D and four women W, X, Y and Z are sitting round a table facing each other,
(A) No two men or women are sitting together
(B) W is the right to B
(C) Y is facing X and is to the left of A
(D) C is to the right of Z.
Find, who are the two persons sitting adjacent to D ? [2]
Answer:
Count the number of odd days from the year 2007 onwards to get the sum equal to 0 odd day.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 15
Sum = 14 odd days= 0 odd day
∴ Calender for the year 2018 will be same as for the year 2007.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 16
The above figure shows the sitting arrangement of the 8 persons.
OR
It is clear from the figure. W and Y are adjacent to D.

Question 20.
What is represented by the shaded regions in each of the following Venn-diagrams.
(A)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 1
(B)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 2 [2]
Answer:
(i)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 17
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 18
∴ (A – B) ∪ (B – A)

(ii)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 19
∴ (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C)
or A ∩ (B ∪ C)

Question 21.
In how many ways can the letter of the word “PENCIL” be arranged so that I is always next to L. [2]
Answer:
There are 6 letters in the word “PENCIL”. Consider LI as one letter. Now, 5 letters (P, E, N, C, .,. LI) can be arranged in = 5! = 120 ways.
Hence, the total number of ways in which I is always next to L is 120.

Commonly Made Error
Sometimes students take permutation of 5 letters arrangement as 6P5 instead of 5P5 which leads to incorrect result.

Answering Tip
Deeply understand the fundamental principles of counting.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 22.
Find the 20th term and the nth term of the sequence \(\frac{5}{2}\), \(\frac{5}{4}\), \(\frac{5}{8}\), …….
OR
The straight lines l1, l2, l3 are parallel and lie in the same plane. A total number of m points are taken on l1; n points on l2; k points on l3. Find the maximum number of triangles formed with vertices at these points. [2]
Answer:
The given sequence \(\frac{5}{2}\), \(\frac{5}{4}\), \(\frac{5}{8}\), ….. is a G.P. with first
term, a = \(\frac{5}{2}\) and common ratio r = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 20

OR

Here, total number of points are (m + n + k) which must give m + n + kC3 number of triangles but m points on line l1 taking 3 points at a time gives mC3 combinations which produce no triangle. Similarly, nC3 and kC3 number of triangles cannot be formed. Therefore, the required number of triangle is
m + n + kC3mC3nC3kC3

Question 23.
In each of the following question, a few statements, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV are given. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it dose not confirm to the well known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived.
(a) Statements:
(A) Some toys are pens.
(B) Some pens are papers.
(C) Some papers are black.

Conclusions:
I. Some toys are black.
II. No pen is black.
III. No toy is black.
IV. Some pens are black.

I. (b) Statements:
(A) Some books are copies.
(B) All copies are green.
(C) Some green are yellow.

Conclusions:
I. All copies are yellow.
II. Some yellow are green.
III. Some copies are yellow.
IV. All green are copies. [2]
Answer:
(a) All the conclusions given are mediate inferences. Since, middle term is not distributed in any one pair of the above statements. But conclusion II and IV form a complementary pair from statements 2 and 3 and conclusion I and II form a complementary pair from statements (i), (ii) and (iii). Hence, either I or III and either II or IV follow.

(b) Conclusions I and II are mediate inferences drawn from statements (ii) and (iii) Since, middle term ‘green’ is not distributed, hence both conclusions do not follow from statements.
Conclusion II is immediate inference drawn from statement (iii). Also, conclusions III and IV do not follow. Hence, only conclusion II follows.

Question 24.
If f(x) = y = \(\frac{a x-b}{c x-a}\) then prove that f(y) = x. [2]
Answer:
Given,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 21
∴ f(y) = x
Hence proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 25.
Show that \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 4} \frac{|x-4|}{x-4}\) does not exist.
OR
Differentiate ex sin x + xn cos x with respect to x. [2]
Answer:
Let x – 4 = n ⇒ As x → 4, n → 0
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 22

OR

Let, f(x) = ex sin x + xn cos x
∴ f'(x) = \(\frac{d}{d x}\){ex sin x + xn cos x}
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 23
= Sin x ex + ex cos x + cos x. nxn-1 + xn.(-sin x)
= ex(sin x + cos x) + xn-1 [n cos x – x sin x]

Question 26.
The monthly income ₹ 1000 of 8 persons working in a factory. Find P30 income value 17, 21, 14, 36, 10, 25, 15, 29. [2]
Answer:
Arrange the data in the increasing order:
10, 14, 15, 17, 21, 25, 29, 36
Here, n = 8
P30 = \(\left[\frac{30(n+1)}{100}\right] \text { th }\) item
= \(\frac{30 \times 9}{100} \text { th }\) item = 2.7th item
= \(\frac{30 \times 9}{100}\)th item = 2.7th item
= 2nd item + 0.7(3rd item – 2nd item)
= 14 + 0.7(15 – 14)
= 14 + 0.7
= 14.7

Section – C

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 27.
Coefficient of variation of two distributions are 50 and 60 and their arithmetic means are 30 and 25 respectively. Find the difference of their standard deviation.
OR
Find the first four moments about zero for the set of the number 1, 3, 5, 7. [3]
Answer:
Given, C.V.1 = 50, C.V.2 = 60
\(\bar{x}_1\) = 30, \(\bar{x}_2\) = 25
We know:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 24
⇒ σ1 = 15
and \(\bar{x}_2\) = \(\frac{\sigma_2}{C_{.} V_{\cdot 2}} \times 100\)
⇒ 25 = \(\frac{\sigma_2}{60} \times 100\)
⇒ σ2 = \(25 \times \frac{3}{5}\)
σ2 = 15
⇒ Required difference = σ1 – σ2
= 15 – 15
= 0

OR

The first four moment about zero means, first four raw moments about origin

X X X2 X3 X4
1 1 1 1 1
3 3 9 27 81
5 5 25 125 625
7 7 49 343 2401
ΣX = 16 ΣX2 = 84 Σx3 = 496 Σx4 = 3108

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 25

Question 28.
‘A’ earns the following income during the financial year 2018-19 :

Particulars Amount (₹)
(a) Interest paid by an Indian company but received in London 2,00,000
(b) Pension from former employer in India, received in USA 8,000
(c) Profits earned from business in Paris which is controlled in India, half of the profits being received in India 40,000
(d) Income from agriculture in Bhutan and remitted to India 10,000
(e) Income from property in England and received there 8,000
(f) Past foreign untaxed income brought to India 20,000

Determine the total income of ‘A’ for the assessment year 2019-20 if he is
(A) Resident and ordinarily resident,
(B) Not ordinarily resident, and
(C) Non-resident in India. [3]
Answer:

Resident and ordinarily resident Not ordinarily resident Non-resident
(₹) (₹) (₹)
(a) 2,00,000 2,00,000 2,00,000
(b) 8,000 8,000 8,000
(c) 40,000 40,000 20,000
(d) 10,000
(d) 8,000 Nil Nil
(e) 8,000 Nil Nil
(f) 2,66,000 2,48,000 2,28,000

Question 29.
In what ratio the line joining (-1, 1) and (5, 7) is divided by the line x + y = 4 ?
OR
Find the image of the point (3, 8) with respect to the line x + 3y = 7 assuming the line to be a plane mirror. [3]
Answer:
Let the given points be A(x1, y1) = (-1, 1) and B(x2, y2) = (5, 7) and P(x3, y3) be the point which divides AB in the ratio m : n.
∴ Co-ordinates of P are \(\left(\frac{m x_2+n x_1}{m+n}, \frac{m y_2+n y_1}{m+n}\right)\)
= \(\left(\frac{5 m-n}{m+n}, \frac{7 m+n}{m+n}\right)\)
Since, the point P lies on line x + y = 4.
∴ \(\frac{5 m-n}{m+n}\) + \(\frac{7 m+n}{m+n}\) = 4
⇒ \(\frac{12 m}{m+n}\) = 4
⇒ 8m = 4n
⇒ m : n = 1 : 2

Commonly Made Error
Students get confused between internal and external division formulae specially in between signs (+ or -).

Answering Tip
If a point P divides the line segments joining the points A(x1, y1) and Q(x2, y2) internally in the ratio m: n, then its coordinates are
\(\left(\frac{m x_2+n x_1}{m+n}, \frac{m y_2+n y_1}{m+n}\right)\)

OR

Let the image of point P(3, 8) be Q(a, b) with respect to line AB which is given by
x + 3y – 7 = 0
The mid-point of P and Q is \(\left(\frac{3+a}{2}, \frac{8+b}{2}\right)\) which lies on line (i).
From (i), \(\frac{3+a}{2}\) + 3.\(\frac{8+b}{2}\) – 7 = 0
⇒ 3 + a + 24 + 3b – 14 = 0
⇒ a + 3b + 13 = 0
Now, slope of AB = \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
∴ \(-\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{b-8}{a-3}\) = -1
⇒ 3a – b – 1 = 0 ….(iii)
Solving (ii) and (iii), we arrive at a = -1, b = -4
∴ Image of (3, 8) is (-1, -4).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 30.
Find the equation of the circle drawn on a diagonal of the rectangle as its diameter whose sides are the lines x = 4, x = – 5, y = 5 and y = – 1. [3]
Answer:
Let ABCD be the rectangle formed by the lines
x = 4
x = -5 ……(ii)
y = 5 …..(iii)
y = -1 …..(iv)
The coordinates of the points A, B, C and D are (-5, -1), (4, -1), (4, 5) and (-5, 5), respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 26
The equation of the circle having the diagonal AC as its diameter is
[(x – (-5)](x – 4) + [y – (-1)(y – 5) = 0
[∵ Equation of circle having ends of diameter
(x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is (x – x1) + (y – y1)(y – y2) = 0]
or, (x + 5)(x – 4) + (y + 1)(y – 5) = 0
or, x2 + y2 + x – 4y – 25 = 0.

Commonly Made Errors
Some students do not plot the figure correctly. Some are confused between diagonals are diameters.

Answering Tap
Since, ∠ABC = 90° = ∠ADC, the above circle passes through both points B and D. Hence, it is also the circle with diagonal BD as a diameter. In fact, the circle circumscribes the rectangle ABCD.

Question 31.
Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 4} and C = {4, 5, 6}. Find
(A) A × (B ∩ C) and
(B) (A × B) ∩ (A × C) [3]
Answer:
Given, A = {1, 2, 3}, B{3, 4}, C = {4, 5, 6},
∴ B ∩ C = {4}

(i) A × (B ∩ C) = {1, 2, 3) × {4} = {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

(ii) (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
({1, 2, 3) × {3, 4}) ∩ ({1, 2, 3) × {4, 5, 6}
= ((1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3,4) ∩ {(1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
= {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

Commonly Made Error
Many candidates do not know how to do cartesian product in case of three sets.

Answering Tip
Learn the properties of cartesian product of sets and adequate practice should be done on various types of problems.

Question 32.
A polygon has 35 diagonals. Find the number of its sides. [3]
Answer:
Let n be the number of sides of a polygon and D be the number of diagonals of that polygon.
We know that, D = nC2 – n = \(\frac{n(n-3)}{2}\)
∴ 35 = \(\frac{n^2-3 n}{2}\)
⇒ n2 – 3n – 70 = 0
⇒ (n – 10)(n + 7) = 0
⇒ n = 10, -7

Since, sides cannot be negative, therefore n = 10.
Hence, polygon is a decagon.

Commonly Made Error
Students are not able to identify that the given problem is from which topic.

Answering Tip
Remember are relation for number of diagonals of polygon, D = nC2 – n or \(\frac{n(n-3)}{2}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

Question 33.
In the following table some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them their coding have been given. Now in questions a particular word has been coded in a particular manner using codes as given below the capital letter. You have to understand the pattern of coding and answer the following questions. CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 4
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 3
(A) If DASF1 is coded as 2 a 8 4, then what is the code for SMASH ?
(B) If FASHION is coded as aat4cx, then what is the code for POSITION ?
(C) If DEER is coded as vw8 and TOSS is coded as e6e, then what is the code for DOTT ? [3]
Answer:
(i) In the word DASH, letters at the odd places have been moved one place back and letters at the even places have been moved one place ahead regarding the position of codes given in the table. Therefore, SMASH can be coded as 8zqe3.

(ii) The codes for the respective letters of the FASHION as per table have been reversed in the coding. So, POSITION can be coded as z64e47c.

(iii) In both the words DEER and TOSS, codes for each letters have been used just below the letters in the table except for the letter that has been written twice i.e., E and S. For these letters, codes have been used just one position ahead in the table that too only one. Therefore, DOU can be codded as V6r.

Section – D

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt any one.

Question 34.
If the A.M. between pth and qth terms of an A.P. be equal to A.M. between rth and sth terms of the A.P., then show that p + q = r + s. [5]
Answer:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the given A.P Then
ap = pth term = a + (p – 1)d;
aq = qth term a + (q – 1)d;
ar = rth term a + (r – 1)d;
and as = 5th term = a + (s – 1)d;
It is given that
A.M. between ap and ap = A.M. between ar and as
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\)(ap + aq) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(ar + as)
ap + aq = ar + as
⇒ a + (p – 1)d + a + (q – 1)d
⇒ a + (r – 1)d + a + (s – 1)d
⇒ (p + q – 2)d = (r + s – 2)d
⇒ p + q = r + s

Question 35.
In a college, 70% students pass in Physics, 75% pass in Mathematics and 10% students fail in both. One student is chosen at random. What is the probability that:
(A) He passes in Physics given that he passes in Mathematics.
(B) He passes in Mathematics given that he passes in Physics.
OR
Bag A contains 2 white, 1 black and 3 red balls. Bag B contains 3 white, 2 black and 4 red balls and Bag C contains 4 white, 3 black and 2 red balls.
In continuation with precious line random and 2 balls are drawn at random from that bag. If the randomly drawn balls happen to be red and black, what is the probability that both come from Bag B ? [5]
Answer:
Let x% students passes in both Mathematics and Physics
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 27
Students who pass in Physics = 70%
∴ P(R) = \(\frac{70}{100}\)
Students who pass in Mathematics = 75%
∴ P(M) = \(\frac{75}{100}\)
Students who fail in both = 10%
Now, 70% – x + x + 75% – x = 90%
⇒ x = 55%
∴ P(M ∩ P) = \(\frac{55}{100}\)

(i) Probability that student passes in Physics given that he passes in Mathematics is =
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 28

(ii) Probability that student passes in Mathematics given that he passes in Physics is
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 29
Let E1, E2 and E3 be the events of choosing bag A, bag B and bag C, respectively.
∴P(E1) = P(E2) = P(E3) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Let E be the event of drawing 1 red and t black ball from the bag, then
\(P\left(\frac{E}{E_1}\right)\) = Probability
(1 red and 1 black balls are drawn from Bag A)
= \(\frac{{ }^3 C_1 \times{ }^1 C_1}{{ }^6 C_2}=\frac{3}{15}=\frac{1}{5}\)
Similarly,
\(P\left(\frac{E}{E_2}\right)\) = Probability
(1 red and 1 black balls are drawn from Bag B)
= \(\frac{{ }^4 C_1 \times{ }^2 C_1}{{ }^9 C_2}=\frac{4 \times 2}{36}=\frac{2}{9}\)
and P\(\left(\frac{E}{E_3}\right)\) = Probability
(1 red and 1 black balls are drawn from Bag C)
= \(\frac{{ }^2 C_1 \times{ }^3 C_1}{{ }^9 C_2}=\frac{2 \times 3}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)

Required Probability = Probability [2 balls (1 red and 1 black) are drawn from hag B ] is given by P\(\left(\frac{E_2}{E}\right)\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 30

Question 36.
Leela is an athlete who believes that her playing career will last 3 years.
(a) To prepared for future, she deposits ₹ 24,000 at the end of each year for 3 years in an account paying 6% compounded annually. How much will she have on deposit after 3 years ? Also, find the value of interest earned.
(b) Instead of investing ₹ 24,000 at the end of each year, suppose Leela deposits ₹ 80,000 at the end of each year for 3 years in an account paying 5%. compounded monthly. How much will she have on deposit after 3 years? Also, find the value of interest earned.
OR
Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of 31 days if the following devices are used as specified :
3 bulbs of 40 watts for 6 hours
4 tube lights of 50 watts for 8 hours
Given rate of electricity is rupees 2.50 per unit.  [5]
Answer:
(a) Her yearly payments form an annuity regular with C.F. = ₹ 24,000, Since, the interest is compounded annually, no. of conversion periods, n = 3 and the interest rate per period i = 6% = \(\frac{6}{100}\)
= 0.06.
Using the formula for the future value of an annuity
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 31
The interest earned = FV. – 3 × C.F.
= 76406.40 – 3 × 24,000
= 76406.40 – 72,000
= 4,406.40

(b) Interest is compounded semi-annually, so no. of conversion periods n = 3 × 1 = 3 and i = 5%
= \(\frac{5}{100}\) = 0.05, C.F. = ₹ 80,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 32
= 80,000 × 3.1525
= ₹ 252,200
The interest earned = F.V. – 3 × C.F.
= 252,200 – 3 × 80,000
= 252,200 – 240,000
= ₹ 12,200

OR

Electric energy consumed per day by 3 bulbs
= 40 × 3 = 120 watts
= 0.12kW
Electrical units (or one day by 3 bulbs
= 0.12 × 6 = 0.72 units
Electrical units for 31 days by 3 bulbs
0.72 × 31 = 22.32 units
Electric energy consumed per day by 4 tube lights
= 50 × 4 = 200 watts
= 0.2 kW
Electrical units for one day by tube lights
= 0.2 × 8 = 1.6 units
Electrical units for 31 days by 4 tube lights
= 1.6 × 31 = 49.6 units
Total units= 49.6 + 22.32 = 71.92 units
Electricity bill = 71,92 × 2.50 = ₹ 179.8

Section – E

Both the Case study based questions are compulsory. Each Sub parts carries 1 mark.

Question 37.
Jaspal belongs to a middle class family. He works in a company. His children wanted that their father purchase a car for the family. Jaspal takes a loan from a bank for his car.
Jaspal singh repays his total loan of ₹ 118000 by paying every month starting with the first installment of ₹ 1000. If he increase the installment by ₹ 100 every month. [4]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 5

According to the above information, answer the following questions:

(a) If the given problem is based on AP; then the first term and common difference?
(A) 1000, 100
(B) 100, 1000
(C) 100, 100
(D) 1000, 1000
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
The number involved in this case form an AP in which a = 1000, d = 100

(b) In how many months the loan will be cleared?
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 44
(D) 50
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Sn = 118000
⇒ Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2 × 1000 + (n – 1) × 100]
⇒ 118000 = n[1000 + 50n – 50]
⇒ 118000 = n[950 + 50n]
⇒ 11800 = 5n + 95n
⇒ n2 + 19n – 2360 = 0
⇒ (n + 59)(n – 40) = 0
⇒ n = 40
Thus, the loan will be cleared in 40 months.

(c) The amount paid by him in 30” installment is:
(A) ₹3900
(B) ₹3500
(C) ₹3000
(D) ₹3600
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
The amount paid by him in 3oth installment is
t30 = a + 29d
= 1000 + 29 × 100
= ₹ 3900

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

(d) The amount paid by him in 30 installments is:
(A) ₹37000
(B) ₹73500
(C) ₹ 75300
(D) ₹ 53700
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
The amount paid by him in 30 installments is
⇒ S30 = \(\frac{30}{2}\) [2 × 1000 + (30 – 1) × 100]
= 15[2000 + 2900]
= 15 × 4900
= ₹ 73500

Question 38.
Reenas mother huy a game for her. Reena wanted to play it with her friend Neena. She called Neena and told her to about the new game. Neena came to Reena house to play the game. The game consisted of 8 triangles Out of which 3 were blue and rest were red, and 10 squares out of which 6 were blue and rest were red. While both friends were playing one piece was lost at random. [4]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions 6

According to the above information, answer the following questions:

(a) How many triangles and squares are of red colour?
(A) 5, 4
(B) 4, 5
(C) 5, 5
(D) 8, 6
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Since, Total no. of triangles = 8
Triangles with blue colour = 3
Triangle with red colour = 8 – 3 = 5
Total no. of squares = 10
Squares with blue colour = 6
Square with red colour = 10 – 6 = 4

(b) Find the probability that last piece is triangle.
(A) 49
(B) 5/9
(C) 1/3
(D) 5/18
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Number of favourable outcomes for the event that lost figure is triangle, F(E) = 8
Total figures (square and triangle) = 8 + 10
= 18
i.e., T(E) = 18
∴ Probability (getting a last piece of a triangle) P(E)
= \(\frac{F(E)}{T(E)}\)
= \(\frac{8}{18}\) = \(\frac{4}{9}\)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Set 8 with Solutions

(c) Find the probability that last piece is square.
(A) 4/9
(B) 5/9
(C) 1/3
(D) 5/18
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Number of favourable outcomes for the events that squares is lost i.e,
F(E) = 10
T(E) = 8 + 10 = 18
∴ P(getting a last piece of a square) = P(E1) = \(\frac{10}{18}\)
= \(\frac{5}{9}\)

(d) Find the probability that last piece is square of blue colour.
(A) 4/9
(B) 5/9
(C) 1/3
(D) 5/18
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Number of favourable outcomes for the events that lost figure is square of blue colour, i.e.,
F(E) = 6 and T(E) = 18
∴ P(getting a last piece of a blue square)
= P(E2) = \(\frac{F(E)}{T(E)}\)
= \(\frac{6}{18}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)