Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Market, as defined by Stonier and Hague, means ‘ any organization whereby buyers and sellers of a good are kept in close touch with each other’ Market involves buyers, sellers, price, and contact. So for a perfect market firstly there should be some buyers for that product and sellers who are selling that product. Further, the price of the product should be such that is acceptable to buyers and lastly, buyers and sellers should be in contact with each other. Thus market can be defined as a process by which the prices of goods and services are established.

Firm and Industry are the two parts of the market. A firm is an individual unit. The decisions taken in a firm may be of a single person or of many persons whereas Industry is a set of firms. Thus firms either of the same business or of different businesses collectively form an industry.

When economists analyze the production decisions of a firm, they take into account the structure of the market in which the firm is operating. The structure of the market is determined by four different market characteristics: the number and size of the firms in the market, the ease with which firms may enter and exit the market, the degree to which firms’ products are differentiated, and the amount of information available to both buyers and sellers regarding prices, etc. The market can be in various forms

  • Perfect Competition
  • Monopoly
  • Monopolistic competition

Perfect Competition – It is a market structure where there is maximum competition. It is a condition when all the firms are selling their goods at a predefined price.
Characteristic features are

  • It is a hypothetical market where every seller takes the market price as its own price.
  • There must be many firms in the market, none of which is large in terms of its sales.
  • Firms can only make normal profits in the long run, but they can make abnormal profits in the short run.
  • There are many buyers and sellers, so each buyer or seller is a price taker, all sellers supply the same, identical product.
  • Firms should be able to enter and exit the market easily.
  • Each firm in the market produces and sells a nondifferentiated or homogeneous product
  • Each unit of input, such as units of labor, is also homogeneous.
  • There is no need for government regulation, except to make markets more competitive.
  • It is impossible for a single firm to affect market price.
  • All firms and consumers in the market have complete information about prices, product quality, and production techniques.
  • As there are large sellers so there are large buyers

In perfect competition market prices can not be changed only output can be changed. On this basis, four equilibrium stages are defined.

  • Short-run equilibrium in a competitive firm
  • Short-run equilibrium in a competitive industry
  • Long-run equilibrium in a competitive firm
  • Long-run equilibrium in a competitive industry

1. Short-run equilibrium in a competitive firm
Under perfect competition, firms can make super-normal profits or losses depending on the given market price.

  • if the firm’s losses get too big in the short-run (i.e. AR < AVC) then it will have to shut down
  • In the short run when the market price exceeds the average total cost at the best level of output a firm earns a supernormal profit.
  • In a competitive firm, equilibrium is reached when TR is less than TC or where MR=MC
  • Taking TR, the TC concept equilibrium point on the graph is that point where the distance between TR and TC curve is maximum.
  • Since perfect competition is price taker so demand curve is straight and begins from zero and is a positive curve
  • The distance between TR and TC at the equilibrium point on the graph is the maximum profit a firm can get.
  • In the short run, a firm has to incur fixed costs even if the production is zero so thus total cost curve starts from Y-axis and is a positive curve.
  • The short-run average cost curve is U-shaped.
  • In the short-run MC -MR approach is used to reach equilibrium,
  • In this supply, the curve lies below the MC curve but is upward sloping.
  • Actual equilibrium is the point formed by the intersection of supply and demand curves
  • Super-normal profits attract new entrants, which shifts the demand curve for existing firms to the left

2. Short-run equilibrium in a competitive industry

  • The equilibrium market price is determined by the interaction between market demand and market supply.
  • In the case of the firm the total sale of the firm can be increased but in industry total sales can not be increased which shows that the Demand curve is not negatively sloped
  • Total sales can only be changed when the prices of an industry as a whole are changed
  • In the short run, the demand curve will show change only when the price of the product falls down which will depict that the demand curve is negatively sloped. Thus whenever the demand curve is negatively sloped it shows that there has been a fall in price
  • The place of the interaction of the demand curve and supply curve is the equilibrium point.
  • There is never a non-equilibrium position
  • Whenever there is a non-equilibrium position it automatically corrects it to the equilibrium position

3. Long-run equilibrium in a competitive firm

  • Here the firm can change all its inputs thus there is no fixed cost and the average fixed cost curve disappears.
  • Average total cost curve is the average cost curve
  • In the long run, every competitive firm will earn a normal profit
  • In the long-run firms are attracted into the industry if the incumbent firms are making supernormal profits.
  • There are no barriers to entry and exit
  • There is perfect knowledge.
  • The effect of this entry into the industry is to shift the industry supply curve to the right, which drives down the price until the point where all super-normal profits are exhausted.
  • If firms are making losses, they will leave the market as there are no exit barriers, and this will shift the industry supply to the left, which raises the price and enables those left in the market to derive normal profits.
  • For a firm to reach equilibrium MC curve should intersect the MR curve from below and average revenue should be greater than the average cost.
  • But when AR>AC then the equilibrium is not reached as the firm is making an abnormal profit.
  • Thus to reach equilibrium AC=AR=MC=MR

4. Long-run equilibrium in a competitive industry

  • In the long run, industry is in equilibrium when all competitive firms are earning normal profit.
  • In the long-run demand curve is negative
  • One of the features of the long run is that when the industry is in equilibrium then firms are also in equilibrium
  • The change in the average cost of all firms leads to three situations

5. Constant returns
Here average cost of the industry remains constant. The demand curve is downward sloping and the supply curve is parallel to X-axis. When the demand changes there is a shifting of the demand curve but prices do not change and only output changes.

6. Diminishing return
When an existing industry increases its output then the average cost of production also increases. This shows that when there is an increase in production it leads to diseconomies thus a new firm that enters the market faces higher average product cost. The demand curve of the industry is upward sloping. When there is an increase in demand the price as well as quantity of output required increases. Equilibrium is reached at the intersection of demand and supply curves

7. Increasing returns
This theory says that as the industry expands, the average cost of production declines. Thus in this case demand curve and supply curve are both negatively sloped. When the production increases there is a fall in cost price

8. Monopoly
A monopoly is simply a market with only one seller and no close substitutes for that seller’s product. Technically, the term “monopoly” is supposed to refer to the market itself, but it’s become common for the single seller in the market to also be referred to as a monopoly. Characteristic features

  • Monopolies arise because of barriers to entry that inhibit other companies from entering the market and exerting competitive pressure on the monopolist.
  • Products manufactured by the firm are such that they have no substitute which could be because of some technology or inputs etc. Which is confined to that particular firm.
  • Monopoly firm decides the price at which it wants to sell the product but it can not compel the buyers to purchase its products beyond utility.
  • Sometimes markets become monopolies simply because it is more cost-effective to have one firm serving an entire market than it is to have a number of smaller firms competing with one another
  • In a monopoly market, the marginal revenue curve and the demand curve are distinct and downward-sloping.
  • Production occurs where marginal cost and marginal revenue intersect.
  • They are price makers,
  • Produce unique products
  • The profit-maximizing point is the intersection between their downward sloping MR curve and their MC curve. Short-run equilibrium of a monopolist – here in the short-run all the variables leading to production can not be changed.

Thus there is a fixed cost as well as a variable cost. To reach equilibrium MC should cut MR curve from below as well as AR>= AC
Long-run equilibrium of a monopolist – Here in contrast to short-run all the inputs can be varied thus equilibrium is determined by marginal cost (MC) and average cost (AC). For equilibrium two conditions should be satisfied firstly MC should cut MR from below and AR should be equal to AC.

9. Discriminating monopoly
A single entity that charges different prices, which are not associated with the cost to provide the product or service, for its products or services for different consumers. A discriminating monopoly, by using its monopolistic position, can do this as long as there are differences in price elasticity of demand between consumers or markets, and barriers to prevent consumers from making an arbitrage profit by selling among themselves. By catering to each type of customer the monopoly makes more profit.

10. Monopolistic competition
The model of monopolistic competition describes a common market structure in which firms have many competitors, but each one sells a slightly different product. In reality, neither monopoly nor competitive market exists. The real market that is seen is monopolist competition.
Characteristic features are

• This market is monopolistic as each firm is producing a particular kind of product that is different from other products in context to shape, color, etc. And has its own individual price.
• This market can be said competitive as there are a large number of sellers as well as products supplied by sellers have close substitutes which give choice to the consumer making the market competitive.
• Each firm makes independent decisions about price and output, based on its product, its market, and its costs of production.
• Knowledge is widely spread between participants, but it is unlikely to be perfect.
• There are a large number of buyers and sellers in the monopolistic market
• The entrepreneur has a more significant role than in firms that are perfectly competitive because of the increased risks associated with decision-making.
• In a monopolistic competition firms spend a lot of money on advertisement to attract the consumers
• As the product of each firm is different from each other in regard to quality, price, etc. Thus a buyer can make a difference and decide which product it wants to purchase.
• There is the freedom to enter or leave the market, as there are no major barriers to entry or exit.
• In monopolistic competition, the new firm can easily enter into the market because the size of the firms is small in the market.
• In-efficient firms also live in the market side by side.
• Sometimes advertising expenses are done not just to increase the demand for their own product but to neutralize the bad publicity.
• Average selling cost curve is U-shaped but after assigning sales budget its shape changes to a rectangular hyperbola.
• The demand curve of the firm is negatively slopped when there are many firms that are producing a similar commodity, the demand for the product of each firm is elastic:
• A central feature of monopolistic competition is that products are differentiated. There are four main types of differentiation:

  • Physical product differentiation
  • Marketing differentiation
  • Human capital differentiation
  • Differentiation through distribution

• Firms are price makers and are faced with a downward-sloping demand curve.
• monopolistically competitive firms are assumed to be profit maximizers because firms tend to be small with entrepreneurs actively involved in managing the business.
• There are two conditions in monopolistic competition regarding reaching equilibrium.
• When the change of price of the firm is associated with the rivalry firm. In this case demand curve is downward sloping and much steeper.
• When the change of price of the firm is not associated with the rivalry firm. In this case, the demand curve is downward sloping but less steep. Monopolistic competition in the short run At profit maximization, MC intersects MR from below. AR and MR are having negative slopes.

11. Monopolistic competition in the long run

  • There are no fixed costs and all the variables can be changed. When deciding on price firm has to check that it also has to keep in mind about rivals.
  • Firms are not allowed to have supernormal profits however new firms can enter and exit any time. In this kind of market firms always run below their optimum capacity.
  • In equilibrium, the demand curve will be tangent to the firm’s long-run average cost.

12. The advantages of monopolistic competition can bring the following advantages:

  • Companies functioning in monopolistic competition market have to differentiate their products from those of their competitors which creates choice for consumers
  • Most local companies under monopolistic competitive market enjoy some level of liberty for the price of their product
  • Monopolistic competition is characterized by few barriers to market entry; it is easy for new firms to enter and leave such markets without facing the many barriers This allows creativity and an active business environment with ample competitors.

13. The disadvantages of monopolistic competition

  • It fails to recognize that the consumer is dependent on the retailer for deciding about which product is more beneficial as he himself is not aware of the technical qualities of the product.
  • Some differentiation does not create utility but generates unnecessary waste, such as excess packaging.
  • Advertising may also be considered wasteful, though most are informative rather than persuasive.
  • Theory fails to account for the determination of equilibrium quantities and prices of goods like raw materials and other inputs.

Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium MCQ Questions

Question 1.
A market is dependent on basic component
a. Firm
b. Industry
c. Price
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Price

Question 2.
Perfect competition market is
a. Most prominent market
b. Hypothetical market
c. Resourceful Market
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Hypothetical market

Question 3.
In perfect market Competition the price is Not dependent on
a. Transportation cost
b. Products of individual firms
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 4.
In a long run equilibrium of a competitive firm
a. fixed cost vanishes
b. Average fixed cost curve vanishes
c. Average total cost are present
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 5.
In a long run equilibrium of a competitive firm
a. AR<AC
b. AR>AC
c. AR__>AC
d. AR = LRAC
Answer:
c. AR__>AC

Question 6.
In a perfect competitive firm
a. it can sell as much as it wants at unchanged prices
b. It has no market power
c. It is a price taker
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 7.
Monopolistic competition is
a. Real form of market
b. Hypothetical market
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a & b
Answer:
a. Real form of market

Question 8.
Monopolistic competition market form is
a. A differential product is produced
b. seller has individual rights over his products
c. Heterogeneous
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 9.
There are a large number of demand curve is not elastic in nature. It is _________ type of market
a. Perfect competition
b. Monopoly
c. Monopolistic competition
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Monopolistic competition

Question 10.
Which of the following is Not the feature of monopoly form of market?
a. Not elastic in nature
b. Legal barriers
c. Size of the market is too small
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Not elastic in nature

Question 11.
To induce new buyers in the market in a monopolistic form of market
a. Reduce the price of the product
b. Increase the price of the product
c. reduces the production of the product
d. Increase the production of the product
Answer:
a. Reduce the price of the product

Question 12.
Price discrimination of second degree is
a. monopolist selling his output in batches and charging a separate price for each batch
b. monopolist charging price for each unit
c. monopolist selling his output as per the different categories of buyers
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. monopolist selling his output in batches and charging a separate prices for each batch

Question 13.
In a free-market economy, the optimal quality of goods and services is determined by
a. customers.
b. Workers.
c. Firms.
d. Government
Answer:
a. customers.

Question 14.
The elements which decide the market structure are
a. Number and size distribution of firms
b. Entry conditions
c. Production priorities
d. Both a& b
Answer:
d. Both a& b

Question 15.
When a price floor is above the equilibrium price
a. quantity demanded will exceed quantity supplied.
b. Quantity supplied will exceed quantity demanded
c. The market will be in equilibrium.
d. This is a trick question because price floors generally exist below the equilibrium price
Answer:
b. Quantity supplied will exceed quantity demanded

Question 16.
A firm operating under conditions of perfect conditions will find that its
a. marginal costs are more than its average costs
b. average revenues are the same as its margins revenues
c. marginal costs are below its average revenue
d. marginal revenues will be higher than its available revenues
Answer:
b. average revenues are the same as its margins revenues

Question 17.
The monopolistic competition differs from perfect competition primarily because
a. in monopolistic competition, firms can differentiate their products
b. in perfect competition, firms can differentiate their products.
c. In monopolistic competition, the industry produces all of the market supply of goods.
d. In Perfect competition, the exits are too less
Answer:
a. in monopolistic competition, firms can differentiate their products

Question 18.
In monopolistic competition, firms achieve some degree of market power
a. By virtue of size alone
b. By producing differentiated products.
c. Many interdependent industries produce a homogenous product
d. Because of barriers to exit from the industry
Answer:
b. By producing differentiated products.

Question 19.
A monopolistically competitive firm will produce as long as the price that the firm charges is sufficient to cover
a. Product costs
b. Marginal costs
c. Average costs
d. Variable costs
Answer:
d. Variable costs

Question 20.
A firm in a monopolistically competitive industry
a. Can sell an infinite amount of output at the market-determined price
b. Must lower price to sell more output
c. Must raise to sell more output
d. Is dependent on the oligopolistic firm
Answer:
b. Must lower price to sell more output

Question 21.
Short-run curves of monopolistic Firms are
a. similar to the short-run curves of perfect competition
b. Different to the short-run curves of perfect competition
c. similar to the long, run curves of perfect competition
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. similar to the short-run curves of perfect competition

Question 22.
In short-run equilibrium of a monopolistic, a plant will be shut down only if
a. Loss is equal to its fixed cost
b. Loss is more than its fixed cost
c. Profit is more than its fixed cost
d. all of the above
Answer:
b. Loss is more than its fixed cost

Question 23.
The demand curve in the long run Equilibrium should be
a. Tangent to AC curve
b. Must lie to the right of the AC curve and intersect it
c. Must lie to the right of the AC curve and intersect it twice
d. Both a & c
Answer:
c. Must lie to the right of the AC curve and intersect it twice

Question 24.
In long run, monopolistic competitive firms earn profits only when
a. The efficient output level will be produced in the long run.
b. They earn zero economic profit
c. Firms will only earn a normal profit==
d. Firms realize all economies of scale
Answer:
c. Firms will only earn a normal profit==

Question 25.
which of the following statements best describes the outcome under monopolistic competition?
a. In monopolistic competition, there are too few firms and each firm gets a price leadership in the market.
b. In monopolistic competition, there are too many firms and each firm produces a slightly different product at a scale that is less than optimal.
c. In monopolistic competition, there is the correct number of firms and each firm produces a slightly different product at an optimal scale.
d. In monopolistic competitions, there are too many firms and each firm produces a slightly different product at the optimal scale.
Answer:
b. In monopolistic competition, there are too many firms and each firm produces a slightly different product at a scale that is less than optimal.

Question 26.
The situation in which buyers are able to affect the price of a good is referred to as _________ power.
a. Monopoly
b. Purchasing
c. Monophony
d. Countervailing
Answer:
c. Monophony

Question 27.
If a monopolist sets her output such that marginal revenue, marginal cost, and average total cost are equal, economic profit must be:
a. negative.
b. Positive
c. Zero
d. Indeterminate from the given information
Answer:
b. Positive

Question 28.
The efficient level of output can be achieved under perfect competition as
a. government regulates the output level that must be produced
b. firms earn only normal profit in the long run
c. firms can earn an economic profit in the long run
d. price equals marginal cost
Answer:
d. price equals marginal cost

Question 29.
The characteristic feature of perfect competition is
a. large number of firms; heterogeneous product; easy entry and exit
b. a large number of firms homogeneous product; incomplete information
c. a large number of firms; homogeneous product; easy entry and exist
d. few firms; homogenous product; difficult entry and exit
Answer:
c. large number of firms; homogeneous product; easy entry and exist

Question 30.
In perfectly competitive industries firms are termed as
a. price takers
b. Price creators
c. Price makers
d. Price setters
Answer:
a. price takers

Question 31.
Select that is not a valid option for a perfectly competitive firm
a. Zero long-run profit
b. decreasing its output
c. increasing its price ==
d. increasing its resources
Answer:
c. increasing its price ==

Question 32.
Select the most appropriate option for price discrimination in the monopoly form of market
a. Ignorance regarding the cost of product
b. legal barrier leading to monopoly form of market
c. The size of the market of the monopolistic items is too small
d. Hurdles in the entry to this market
Answer:
a. Ignorance regarding the cost of the product

Question 33.
Which of the market structures will have only normal profits in long term?
a. Monopolistic competition
b. Perfect competition
c. Monopoly
d. productive efficiency
Answer:
a. Monopolistic competition

Question 34.
In a firm if the price a firm receives for its product is equal to the marginal cost of producing that product, we can say the firm is
a. always earning an long term profit
b. always productive and economically efficient
c. always allocatively efficient
d. always experiencing an economic loss
Answer:
c. always allocatively efficient

Question 35.
The characteristic feature of a perfectly competitive firm should be
a. Earn an economic profit
b. Earn a zero economic profit in short run
c. Produce the quantity where its marginal cost equals its marginal revenue
d. produce at the productively efficient level of output
Answer:
c. Produce the quantity where its marginal cost equals its marginal revenue

Question 36.
Non technical product differentiation is
a. Performance
b. Packing
c. size
d. Both b& c
Answer:
d. Both b& c

Question 37.
Demand curve of each firm in monopolistic competition is
a. Downward sloping
b. Parallel to X axis
c. Corresponds to industry as a whole
d. both a & c
Answer:
d. both a & c

Question 38.
Selling expenses in monopolistic include
a. Advertisement
b. discounts
c. Both a & b
d. Input Cost
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 39.
A firm operating under monopolistic competition is able to make a choice between
a. Product differentiation
b. selling costs
c. Product quality
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 40.
If a consumer is paying higher price for a given product and for a given price they are getting inferior product. It describes ____________ form of market
a. Long run equilibrium under monopolistic competition
b. Short run equilibrium under monopolistic competition
c. long run equilibrium under monopolistic
d. short run equilibrium under monopolistic
Answer:
a. Long run equilibrium under monopolistic competition

Question 41.
The long run equilibrium under monopolistic competition has
a. free exit and entry of forms
b. Competition among firms
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 42.
Invariably if a typical firm in a perfectly competitive market is experiencing an average revenue that is greater than its average cost.
a. price will increase.
b. Other firms will enter the market
c. Other firms will leave the market
d. Demand will decrease
Answer:
b. Other firms will enter the market

Question 43.
When the demand of the product increase and product price increases
a. the marginal revenue product curve will shift to the right.
b. The marginal revenue product curve will shift to the left
c. The firm will move up the marginal revenue product curve and hire fewer units of the input.
d. The firm will move down the marginal revenue product curve and hire more units of the input
Answer:
a. the marginal revenue product curve will shift to the right.

Question 44.
Short-run market supply curve is
a. the horizontal summation of ach firms’ short- run supply curve.
b. The vertical summation of each firms short- run supply curve
c. The horizontal summation of each firm’s short-run average cost curve.
d. The vertical summation of each firms short- run average cost curve
Answer:
a. the horizontal summation of ach firms’ short- run supply curve.

Question 45.
Recently India has experienced a large growth in population. As a result, the demand curve for telephone service in India
a. has shifted to the right.
b. Has shifted to the left
c. Has shifted down
d. None of the given options
Answer:
a. has shifted to the right.

Question 46.
Which of the following is true for ? The law of diminishing returns applies to:
a. the short run only
b. the long run only
c. both the short and the long run
d. neither the short nor the long run
Answer:
c. both the short and the long run

Question 47.
The feature of a monopolistic firm is
a. cannot determine the price, which is determined by consumer demand.
b. Will never sell a product whose demand is inelastic at the quantity sold
c. Cannot sell additional quantity unless it raises the prices on each unit
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Will never sell a product whose demand is inelastic at the quantity sold

Question 48.
A Monopolistic competition is
a. cut-throat price competition
b. product differentiation
c explicit consideration at firm level of the feedback effects of other firms pricing decisions.
d. High profit margins.
Answer:
b. product differentiation

Question 49.
In monopolistic competition a firm
a. earns positive monopoly profits because each sells differentiated product
b. earns positive oligopoly profits because each firm sells a differentiated product.
c. Earns zero economic profits because it is in perfectly or pure competition.
d. Earns Zero economic profits because of free entry.
Answer:
d. Earns Zero economic profits because of free entry.

Question 50.
In long run with increasing returns in a firm it still earns normal profit. This feature is present in _______ form of market
a. Perfect Competition
b. Monopoly
c. Monopolistic competition
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Monopolistic competition

Question 51.
In monopolistic Completion
a. Close substitution can be defined
b. Close substitute can not be defined
c. Both a& b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Close substitute can not be defined

Question 52.
The estimation of consumer demand by questioning a sample of consumer is referred to as the
a. consumer survey approach
b. Product research approach
c. selling approach
d. marketing approach
Answer:
a. consumer survey approach

Question 53.
After doing the thorough calculation of consumer demand by setting up simulated stores, providing a sample of consumers with money, and then allowing them to purchase and keep the commodities they select in the stores is called the
a. consumer survey approach
b. observational approach
c. consumer clinic approach
d. Product research approach
Answer:
c. consumer clinic approach

Question 54.
If the long-run average cost curve is a downward sloping curve for a. firm, it implies that the unit is subject to the law of …………………………. always.
a. Diminishing returns to factor
b. Diminishing return to scale
c. Increasing return to scale
d. Constant returns
Answer:
c. Increasing return to scale
Hint
Increasing returns
This theory says that as the industry expands ,the average cost of production declines. Thus in this case demand curve and supply curve are both negatively sloped . When the production increases there is a fall in cost price. In the long-run average cost curve is a downward sloping curve for a. firm, It implies that the unit is subject to the law of increasing returns to scale .

Question 55.
A firm would be in equilibrium at the level of
output where its-
a. MR = Me
b. AR = AC
c. MR > MC
d. MR< AR
Answer:
a. MR = Me
Hint
In a competitive firm equilibrium is reached when TR is less than TC or where MR=MC

Question 56.
Which of the following commodities best represents a monopolistic competitive market?
a. Market for motorbikes
b. Market for parlours and saloons
c. Metro rail
d. Market for vegetables.
Answer:
c. Metro rail
Hint
Monopolistic competition
The model of monopolistic competition describes a common market structure in which firms have many competitors, but each one sells a slightly different product. In reality neither monopoly nor competitive market exists. The real market that is seen is monopolist competition

Question 57.
In which of the following market structures, a firm is not a price maker-
a. Perfect competition
b. Monopoly
c. Duopoly
d. Oligopoly
Answer:
a. Perfect competition
Hint
Perfect Competition – It is a market structure where there is maximum competition. It is a condition when all the firms are selling their goods at predefined price. Firm is not a price maker in such market.

Question 58.
In which of the following market structures, a firm in long-run equilibrium earns abnormal profit
a. Perfect competition
b. Monopoly
c. Monopolistic competition
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Monopolistic competition
Hint
A monopoly is simply a market with only one seller and no close substitutes for that seller’s product. Technically, the term “monopoly” is supposed to refer to the market itself, but it’s become common for the single seller in the market to also be referred to as a monopoly. They are price makers. A monopolist can earn abnormal profits in both the short run and the long’run unlike perfectly competitive market where abnormal profits are competed away In monopolist firm earns abnormal profits.

Question 59.
In the figure below, a perfectly competitive market is represented by figure:-

Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 img 1

a.Figure (i)
b. Figure (ii)
c. Figure (iii)
d. Figure (iv)
Answer:
d. Figure (iv)
Hint
In perfectly competitive market AR = MC =MR.

Question 60.
For a firm in short-run equilibrium its AR <AC, i.e. it is incurring losses, it will-
a. Immediately stop production
b. Increase its level of output so that its AR becomes more than MR
c. Continue to produce the equilibrium level of output if its AR is either equal to or more than its AVC
d. Pray to God and flood the market with its own product and begin to charge very high prices.
Answer:
c. Continue to produce the equilibrium level of output if its AR is either equal to or more than its AVC
Hint
Under perfect competition, firms can make super-normal profits or losses depending on the given market price. If the firm’s losses get too big in the short run (i.e. AR < AVC) then it will have to shut down but for a firm in short-run equilibrium its AR <AC, i.e. it is incurring losses then it will Continue to produce the equilibrium level of output if its AR is either equal to or more than its AVC

Question 61.

Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 img 2

Excess capacity for a monopolistic competition firm equals-
a. OS
b. OZ
c. SZ
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. SZ
Hint
OS is the quantity produced when AR intersects LAC curve at E. But in long run LAC cuts LMC curve to produce OZ quantity. The excess capacity produced = OZ-OS = SZ.

Question 62.
A firm has to take decision about the nature and extent of product differentiation and hence the level ot ‘ selling expenses in …………………………. market structure.
a. Monopoly
b. Monopolistic competitive
c. Perfectly competitive
d. Any of the above
Answer:
b. Monopolistic competitive
Hint
Monopolistic competition -The model of monopolistic competition describes a common market structure in which firms have many competitors, but each one sells a slightly different product. In reality neither monopoly nor competitive market exists. The real market that is seen is monopolist competition.
Some of the features are
• This market is monopolistic as each firm is producing a particular kind of product which is different from other products in context to shape , colour etc. And has its own individual price.
• This market can be said competitive as there are large number of sellers as well as products supplied by sellers have close substitutes which gives choice to the consumer making the market competitive.
• Each firm makes independent decisions about price and output, based on its product, its market, and its costs of production.
Thus in such market a firm has to take decision about the nature and extent of product differentiation.
• A central feature of monopolistic competition is that products are differentiated. There are four main types of differentiation:

  • Physical product differentiation
  • Marketing differentiation
  • Human capital differentiation
  • Differentiation through distribution

Question 63.
Under monopolistic competition, loss making firms leave the group
a. To cover production costs
b. To recover selling costs
c. To maintain profits
d. To increase market share
Answer:
a. To cover production costs
Hint
One of the advantage of the Monopolistic competition is characterized by few barriers to market entry; it is easy for new firms to enter and leave such markets without facing the many barriers. Thus loss making firm can leave the market to cover production cost.

Question 64.
‘Government should increase expenditure on social services to benefit the poor1. Which one of the following represent the correct reason that establishes that the above given statement is a normative statement?
a. It states the facts as they are
b. It passes a value judgment
c. It states that there is a direct relationship between public expenditure and poverty alleviation
d. It states that poverty cannot be removed by market forces.
Answer:
b. It passes a value judgment
Hint
It is a normative statement. Normative economics deals heavily in value judgments and theoretical scenarios.

Question 65.
Marginal Revenue (MR) curve is a straight horizontal line in:
a. Perfectly competitive market
b. Monopolistic competitive market
c. Oligopoly market
d. Monopoly market.
Answer:
a. Perfectly competitive market
Hint
MR curve is a straight horizontal line in perfectly competitive market.

Question 66.
Which of the following figures correctly represents the revenue curves of a monopolistic competitive firm?

Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 img 3

The correct option is:
a. Figure 1
b. Figure 2
c. Figure 3
d. Figure 4.
Answer:
a. Figure 1
Hint
In monopolistic competitive firm AR falls But MR falls faster and becomes negative as shown in figure.

Question 67.
Which of the following monopolistic competitive firm perfectly competitive firm?
a. Differentiated products
b. Number of sellers .
c. Number of buyers
d. Free entry and exit of the firm
Answer:
a. Differentiated products
Hint
A central feature of monopolistic competition is that products are differentiated. There are four main types of differentiation:

  • Physical product differentiation
  • Marketing differentiation
  • Human capital differentiation
  • Differentiation through distribution
    Companies functioning in monopolistic competition market have to differentiate their products from those of their competitors which creates choice for consumers

Question 68.
A perfectly competitive firm attains equilibrium at a point where:
a. Marginal revenue (MR) is equal to marginal cost (MC) and MC curve intersects MR curve from below
b. MC is equal to MR
c. MC is falling but is equal to average cost (AC)
d. MC is constant.
Answer:
a. Marginal revenue (MR) is equal to marginal cost (MC) and MC curve intersects MR curve from below
Hint
A perfectly competitive firm attains equilibrium at a point where marginal revenue (MR) is equal to marginal cost (MC) and MC curve intersects MR curve from below

Question 69.
A kinked revenue curve best represents:
a. Monopoly
b. Duopoly
c. Oligopoly
d. Monopolistic competition.
Answer:
c. Oligopoly
Hint
The Kinked-Demand curve theory is an economic theory regarding oligopoly . The kinked demand curve model assumes that a business might face a dual demand curve for its product based on the likely reactions of other firms to a change in its price or another variable.

Question 70.
In the given figure below, a firm:

Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 img 4

(a) is making an abnormal profit in a monopolistic competitive situation
(b) is undergoing losses in a monopoly
(c) is at break-even in a perfectly competitive market
(d) does not know if it is making a profit or is undergoing a loss.
Answer:
(a) is making an abnormal profit in a monopolistic competitive situation
Hint
At profit maximization, MC intersects MR from below. AR and MR are having negative slopes.

Question 71.
Which of the following type of commodities, normally, do not operate in an oligopoly market structure?
a. High-brand luxury goods
b. Air-line services
c. High end beauty parlours
d. Metro rails.
Answer:
c. High end beauty parlours
Hint
Oligopoly is a market structure in which the number of sellers is small. Oligopoly requires strategic thinking, unlike perfect competition,monopoly, and monopolistic competition. An oligopoly is a market structure in which a few firms dominate. Not many firms dominate airline service, metro rails , high brand luxury goods but there are too many high end beauty parlour. Even if a few firms may dominate, many small firms may also operate in the beauty parlour market .Thus high end beauty parlour do not operate in oligopoly market structure.

Question 72.
Market for mobile phone-sets in India demonstrates the characteristics of a-
a. Perfectly competitive market
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopsony
d. Monopoly.
Answer:
a. Perfectly competitive market
Hint
Perfect Competition – It is a market structure where there is maximum competition. The mobile company in India demonstrates a perfectly competitive market. There are many firms in the market, none of which is large in terms of its sales.

Question 73.
Given below is the short-run cost-sheet of a perfectly competitive firm, at equilibrium level of output:
Average variable cost = Rs. 9 per unit Average fixed cost = Rs. 2 per unit The firm would be well advised to continue to produce if the per unit market price of the commodity is –
a. Rs.6
b. Rs. 7
c. Rs. 8
d. Rs.10.
Answer:
d. Rs.10.
Hint
In case of short run production is to be continued till the variable cost is being recovered. So production can be done till the market price is equal to AVC or above . AVC is Rs 9 so production can be continued till market price is Rs 9 or above i.e Rs 10.

Question 74.
Which of the following figures best represents the profit being earned by a perfectly competitive firm?

Forms Of Market And Its Equilibrium – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 img 5

Correct option is –
a. Figure 1
b. Figure 2
c. Figure 3
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Figure 1
Hint
In order to maximize profits in a perfectly competitive market, firms set marginal revenue equal to marginal cost i.e. i r
MR=MC
Since perfect competition is price taker so demand curve is straight and is a positive curve. Figure 1 best represents the profit being earned by a perfectly competitive firm.

Question 75.
Under which market system, seller can influence the price to the maximum?
a. Perfect competition
b. Monopoly
c. Monopolistic
d. Oligopoly
Answer:
b. Monopoly
Hint
Characteristic features of monoploy
• Monopolies arise because of barriers to entry that inhibit other companies from entering the market and exerting competitive pressure on the monopolist.
• Products manufactured by the firm are such that they have no substitute which could because of some technology or inputs etc. Which is confined with that particular firm.
• Monopoly firm decides the price at which it wants to sell the product but it can not compel the buyers to purchase its products beyond utility.
• Sometimes markets become monopolies simply because it is more cost effective to have one firm serving an entire market than it is to have a number of smaller firms competing with one another
• In a monopoly market, the marginal revenue curve and the demand curve are distinct and downward- sloping.
• Production occurs where marginal cost and marginal revenue intersect.
• They are price makers
• Produce unique products
• Profit-maximizing point is the intersection between their downward sloping MR curve and their MC curve.

Question 76.
Under which market, price discrimination is not possible?
a. Perfect competition
b. Monopoly
c. Monopolistic
d. Oligopoly
Answer:
a. Perfect competition
Hint
Perfect Competition – It is a market structure where there is maximum competition. It is a condition when all the firms are selling their goods at predefined price. It is impossible for a single firm to affect market price.

Question 77.
Which statement is correct under perfect competition market?
a. Large number of sellers and buyers
b. Large number of sellers and small number of buyers
c. Large number of sellers only
d. Large number of buyers only.
Answer:
a. Large number of sellers and buyers
Hint
Characteristic features of perfect competition are
– It is a hypothetical market where every seller takes the market price as its own price.
– There must be many firms in the market, none of which is large in terms of its sales.
– Firms can only make normal profits in the long run, but they can make abnormal profits in the short run.
– There are many buyers and sellers, so each buyer or seller is a price taker, all sellers supply the same, identical product.
– Firms should be able to enter and exit the market easily.
– Each firm in the market produces and sells a non differentiated or homogeneous product
– Each unit of input, such as units of labour, are also homogeneous.
– There is no need for government regulation, except to make markets more competitive.
– It is impossible for a single firm to affect market price.
– All firms and consumers in the market have complete information about prices, product quality, and production techniques.
– As there are large sellers so there are large buyers

Question 78.
When does the firm gets equilibrium points? OR When the firm is said to be in equilibrium?
a. MR = MC
b. AR = MR
c. AR = MC
d. Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
d. Both (a) & (b)
Hint
To reach equilibrium AC=AR=MC=MR

Question 79.
“Differentiated product” is the feature of-
a. Perfect competitive market
b. Monopoly market
c. Monopolistic market
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Monopolistic market
Hint
A central feature of monopolistic competition is that products are differentiated. There are four main types of differentiation:
– Physical product differentiation
– Marketing differentiation
– Human capital differentiation
– Differentiation through distribution

Question 80.
In which type of market, the firm is the “price taker”.
a. Perfect competitive market
b. Monopoly Market
c. Monopolistic market
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Perfect competitive market
Hint
Perfect Competition – It is a market structure where there is maximum competition. It is a condition when all the firms are selling their goods at predefined price. The firm is a price taker in such market.

Question 81.
In monopolistic competition the price policy is-
a. Relatively high
b. Low
c. Moderate
d. Very low
Answer:
b. Low
Hint
One of the characteristic feature of monopolistic competitive market is that each firm is producing a particular kind of product which is different from other product in context to shape , colour etc. and has its own individual price.

Question 82.
An Oligopoly is a market in which:
a. Firms are price takers
b. The actions of one seller in the market have no impact on the other seller’s profits
c. There are only a few sellers, each offering- a product similar/dissimilar to the others
d. Firms are price giver
Answer:
c. There are only a few sellers, each offering- a product similar/dissimilar to the others
Hint
Oligopoly is a market structure in which the number of sellers is small. Oligopoly requires strategic thinking, unlike perfect competition,monopoly, and monopolistic competition. An oligopoly is a market structure in which a few firms dominate.

Question 83.
Which of the following is the difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?
a. In monopolistic competition, firms produce identical goods, while in perfect competition, firms produce slightly different goods.
b. Perfect competition has no barriers to entry, while monopolistic competition does
c. In perfect competition firms produce identical goods, while in monopolistic competition, firms produce slightly different goods
d. Perfect competition has a large number of small firms, while in monopolistic competition does not.
Answer:
c. In perfect competition firms produce identical goods, while in monopolistic competition, firms produce slightly different goods
Hint
Perfect Competition – Each firm in the market produces and sells a non differentiated or homogeneous product Monopolistic completion – A central feature of monopolistic competition is that products are differentiated.

Question 84.
A perfectly competitive firms short run shutdown point is the level of output at which:
a. Price equals average fixed costs.
b. Price is above the minimum average total cost but below the minimum average fixed cost
c. Price equals average total cost
d. Price equals the minimum average variable cost
Answer:
a. Price equals average fixed costs.
Hint
A firm will produce at the level of output where MR = MC (or P = MC). that is, the marginal cost curve for a firm tells us how many units of a product the firm is willing to sell at any given price. Thus, a perfectly competitive firm’s marginal cost curve also is its supply curve. But a firm will shut down if its total revenue is less than its variable cost P x Q < VC P < AVC.

So, the firm’s marginal cost curve is its supply curve only for prices at or above average variable cost. Another way to state the rule is that a firm should compare the profits from operating to those realized if it shutdown and select the option that produces the greater profit. A firm that is shutdown is generating zero revenue and incurring no variable costs. However, the firm still has to pay fixed cost. So the firm’s profit is all used up in fixed costs . Thus if firm’s profit is equal to fixed cost then it should shut down .

Question 85.
In a free market, which of the following will be caused by excess supply for a commodity?
a. A fall in the price of commodity
b. A rise in the price of commodity
c. Either a or b
d. Can’t say
Answer:
a. A fall in the price of commodity
Hint
Price is derived by the interaction of supply and demand. The resultant market price is dependant upon both of these fundamental components of a market. Thus Producers would have to lower their prices in order to clear the market of excess supplies.V\/e already know price and demand are inversely proportional. When price falls demand increases.

Question 86.
Which of the following is a characteristic of Monopoly?
a. Large number of sellers and buyers
b. A single seller and large number of buyers
c. Large number of sellers and small number of buyers
d. Small number of sellers and small number of buyers
Answer:
b. A single seller and large number of buyers
Hint
Characteristic features of monopoly

  • Monopolies arise because of barriers to entry that inhibit other companies from entering the market and exerting competitive pressure on the monopolist.
  • Products manufactured by the firm are such that they have no substitute which could be because of some technology or inputs etc. Which is confined to that particular firm.
  • Monopoly firm decides the price at which it wants to sell the product but it can not compel the buyers to purchase its products beyond utility.
  • Sometimes markets become monopolies simply because it is more cost-effective to have one firm serving an entire market than it is to have a number of smaller firms competing with one another
  • In a monopoly market, the marginal revenue curve and the demand curve are distinct and downward-sloping.
  • Production occurs where marginal cost and marginal revenue intersect.
  • They are price makers
  • Produce unique products
  • The profit-maximizing point is the intersection between their downward sloping MR curve and their MC curve.
    Thus a monopoly is simply a market with only one seller and no close substitutes for that seller’s product.

Question 87.
In case of monopolistic competition, the size of the market for each firm would be ………………………
a. large
b. small
c. Infinite
d. very large
Answer:
b. small
Hint
In case of monopolistic competition, the size of the market for each firm would be small. Each firm makes independent decisions about price and output, based on its product, its market, and its costs of production.

Question 88.
In case of monopoly, capacity utilization of the firm would be ……………………
a. Minimum
b. Sub-optimum
c. Optimum
d. Not optimum
Answer:
b. Sub-optimum
Hint
Capacity utilisation is the extent to which an enterprise or a nation actually uses its installed productive capacity. It is the relationship between output that is actually produced with the installed equipment, and the potential output which could be produced with it, if capacity was fully used. The economic approach, on the other hand, defines the potential output as being the optimum level of output from the economic point of view. In case of monopoly, capacity utilization of the firm would be suboptimum

Question 89.
In case of Perfect Competition, number of selling firms would be:
a. Large
b. Only two
c. Varied but not too many
d. Single
Answer:
a. Large
Hint
Perfect Competition – It is a market structure where there is maximum competition. It is a condition when all the firms are selling their goods at predefined price. There are many firms in the market, none of which is large in terms of its sales.

Question 90.
In a market that is characterised by imperfect competition:
a. Firms are price takers
b. The actions of one firm in the market never have any impact on the other firms profits
c. There is always a large number of firms
d. There are at least a few firms that compete with one another.
Answer:
d. There are at least a few firms that compete with one another.
Hint
Imperfect competition is a type of market structure showing some but not all features of competitive markets. Imperfect competition is a competitive market situation where there are many sellers, but they are selling heterogeneous (dissimilar) goods unlike perfect competitive market. In such market, there are at least a few firms that compete with one another unlike the perfect competition.

Question 91.
In case of Perfect Competition a firm is a ………………………..
a. Price Controller
b. Price taker
c. Price maker
d. Price creator
Answer:
b. Price taker
Hint
Perfect Competition – It is a market structure where there is maximum competition. It is a condition when all the firms are selling their goods at a predefined prices. Each firm in the market produces and sells a nondifferentiated or homogeneous product. A firm is a price taker in this kind of market.

CS Foundation Business Economics Notes

Money and Banking – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Money and Banking – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Money is a good that acts as a medium of exchange in transactions. Classically it is said that money acts as a unit of account, a store of value, and a medium of exchange. Money has been ever-changing its form in the past. Its major role was to come over with the difficulties that were faced by the barter system. Economists have adopted 2 approaches to define money

  • Functional approach
  • Liquidity approach

Functional approach – the basis of this approach was the functional aspect of money. The functional approach has further been classified under three heads

  • Primary functions
  • Secondary functions
  • Contingent functions

1. Primary function
The primary function of money is that it acts as a medium of exchange Features of money

  • Money gave more freedom to people in comparison to the barter system.
  • As in the barter system, the evaluation of commodities was difficult as every commodity has its different importance. Thus the introduction of money helped to overcome this difficulty.
  • Moreover, it was easy to manage accounts with the help of money.

2. Secondary function
There are some other functions of money such as

  • it can easily be stored unlike goods used in barter systems which were difficult and cumbersome to be stored, especially in the case of perishable goods.
  • It is the best means in the case of deferred payment. Thus in the case of loans repayment interest can easily be calculated with the help of money.
  • Money can easily be transferred from one place to another unlike goods whose transferability is difficult,

3. Contingent functions
Prof. Kinley has mentioned that money is the basis of credit.

  • Some examples of credit money are cheque, draft, bill of exchange, etc.
  • Money helps in the proper distribution of national income.
  • It is the general form of keeping all the wealth.
  • It gives people maximum pleasure as they can decide about the utility of the product and can distribute their income accordingly.

Liquidity approach – As per the liquidity approach any assets for which no nominal capital gain or loss is possible are perfectly liquid. As per this approach, money has a generalized purchasing power. It can be used for purchasing goods and services.

Some of the features of this approach are:

  • The liquidity approach emphasizes the function of money as a store of money. :
  • It implies that money is not qualitatively different from other assets.
  • Liquidity is the property of all assets; only the degree of liquidity varies.
  • The liquidity of an asset is inversely related to the average time taken to convert it into cash.
  • The higher the cost of the asset less liquid it is.
  • The prevalence of near-money assets greatly increases the overall level of liquidity and hence the level of economic activity.

Certain problems delating to the concept of liquidity creates difficulties in adopting the liquidity approach:

  • It is not easy to quantify the liquidity content of an asset
  • The liquidity contents of an asset may not be constant.

4. Credit
Credit is the trust which allows one party to provide resources (money) to another party where that second party does not reimburse the first party immediately (thereby generating a debt) but instead repay or return those resources at a later date.

It is the amount of money given by the lender to a borrower looking at its worth, his ability to pay back. The money to be paid back by the borrower is more than the money taken by the borrower as he has to pay the interest along with the principal amount. Banks have a major role in providing loans. People are depositing their money in banks and they get paid interest on this amount deposited by them as the bank becomes a borrower in such case.

The commercial banks create multiple expansions of their bank deposits and due to this, these are called the factories of credit. The banks advance a major portion of their, deposits to the borrowers and keep a smaller part with them. The customers have full confidence in the bank. The rate of interest charged by banks is more than the rate of interest paid by the banks. This difference in the rate of interest is the profit of the bank. The banks expand loans by much more than the amount of cash possessed by them. This tendency on the part of the banks to lend more than the amount of cash possessed by them is called the Creation of credit in economics.

Interest charged by the bank is based on the creditworthiness of the borrower. A creditworthy borrower may get loans at a lower rate of interest in comparison to a borrower with less creditworthiness. The whole credit creation process starts with an initial deposit with the bank. Out of these initial deposits, the bank keeps a certain ratio of money as a reserve, and the rest is given in the market as a loan.

The whole process of credit creation is divided into
Case 1 No leakage one bank
Case 2 No cash leakage but multiple banks
Case 3 Some cash leakage one bank
Case 4 Cash leakage multiple banks

Case 1 No leakage
In this case, it is presumed that there is no cash leakage. Let us understand by the below-mentioned example Suppose the Cash Reserve Ratio is 20% and a person deposits Rs. 10,000/- with Bank X. This is the primary deposit. The bank keeps Rs. 2000 as CRR and balance of Rs. 8000 is used for granting credit.

Now suppose Bank X lends Rs. 8000 to Mr. A and Mr. A pays a cheque of Rs. 8000 to Mr. B, who has an account in Bank X. Then Bank X receives Rs. 8000 as a primary deposit. It keeps Rs. 1,600 (20%) as CRR and an excess amount of Rs. 6,400 is used for giving credit. Now if, Mr. C is granted this loan and Mr. C gives a cheque of Rs. 6,400 to another person who may deposit it in Bank X. Bank will again keep Rs. 1,280 as CRR and issue a loan of Rs. 5,120. This process continues until the original excess reserves of Rs. 8000 with the first Bank of India, have been parceled out among various banks and have been required resources. As a result, the aggregate of derivative deposits in the entire banking system approximates 5 times the initial derivative deposit over a period of time.

Let us explain with the help of the table:—

PROCESS OF MULTIPLE EXPANSION OF CREDIT

BANK PRIMARY DEPOSIT CRR 20% Credit Creation or Creation of Derivative Deposits
Bank X 10,000 2000 8000
Bank X 8,000 1,600 6,400
Bank X 6,400 1,280 5,120
Total 50,000 10,000 40,000

In the above Eg., the credit expansion is five times the initial excess reserve of Rs. 8,000 when CRR is 20%.

Case 2 No cash leakage but multiple banks
In this case, although there is no cash leakage multiple banks are involved in credit creation.

Let us under with the help of the below-mentioned example Suppose the Cash Reserve Ratio is 20% and a person deposits Rs. 10,000/- with Bank X. This is the primary deposit. The bank keeps Rs. 2000 as CRR and balance of Rs. 8000 is used for granting credit.

Now suppose Bank X lends Rs. 8000 to Mr. A and Mr. A pays a cheque of Rs. 8000 to Mr. B, who has an account in Bank Y. Then Bank Y receives Rs. 8000 as a primary deposit. It keeps Rs. 1,600 (20%) as CRR and an excess amount of Rs. 6,400 is used for giving credit. Now if, Mr. C is granted this loan and Mr. C gives a cheque of Rs. 6,400 to another person who may deposit it in Bank Z. Bank Z will keep Rs. 1,280 as CRR and issue a loan of Rs. 5,120. This process continues until the original excess reserves of Rs. 8000 with the first Bank X, have been parceled out among various banks and have been required resources. As a result, the aggregate of derivative deposits in the entire banking system approximates 5 times the initial derivative deposit over a period of time.
Let us explain with the help of the table:—

BANK PRIMARY DEPOSIT CRR 20% Credit Creation or Creation of Derivative Deposits
Bank X 10,000 2000 8000
Bank Y 8,000 1,600 6,400
Bank Z 6,400 1,280 5,120
Total 50,000 10,000 40,000

in the above Eg., the credit expansion is five times the initial excess reserve of Rs. 8,000 when CRR is 20%.

Case 3 Some cash leakage one bank Here there is some cash leakage.

Let us understand with the help of an example

As explained in case I the deposit pattern is the same, thus the deposits are being made in the same bank but over here there is some cash leakage thus out of 8000 received by B from A, he only deposits 6000 and keeps 2000 with himself so now bank can create a credit of only 4800 instead of 6400 as done in case I so the process of deposits keeps going on in the fashion shown in the above table. Thus it can be seen that credit expansion is less than 3times in comparison to case 1 where there was no cash leakage.

BANK PRIMARY DEPOSIT CRR 20% Credit Creation or Creation of Derivative Deposits
Bank X 10,000 2000 8000
Bank X 8,000 1,200 4800
Bank X 4600 920 3680
Total 20600 4120 16480

Case 4 Cash leakage multiple banks
In this case, we are presuming cash leakage and multiple banks are involved. Let us understand the procedure of taking all the banks together.
Here also the case is similar to case 2 but the only difference is cash leakage amongst different banks. Keeping the initial deposit as Rs 10,000 and CRR as 20% and the pattern of deposit as shown in case 3 we get credit expansion less than 3X. The only difference is that instead of 1 bank there are 3 banks as in case 2

5. Limitations of credit creation

  • The total amount of cash in the country limits the credit creation
  • The amount of cash that the public wishes to hold affects the total amount of credit creation
  • Banks when creating credit they take into account the cash available with them
  • The minimum percentage of cash to deposits which the banks consider safe.
  • Every bank is required to keep margin reserve money
  • The creditworthiness of borrower so that loan doesn’t turn out to be bad debt.

6. Quantity theory of money
The quantity theory of money states that there is a direct relationship between the quantity of money in an economy and the level of prices of goods and services sold. According to QTM, if the amount of money in an economy doubles, price levels also double, causing inflation.

(a) Fisher’s Transactions Approach
This approach first emerged in Fisher’s book The Purchasing Power of Money (1911). For most economists of that period, money was viewed solely as a means of exchange. As per him the essential function of money is to be used as a medium of exchange. The purchasing power of money depends on the quantity of money relative to the number of goods to be purchased MV= PT where M = Money Supply
V= Transactions Velocity of Circulation of money (the number of times the money stock changes hands per period).
P = Price level.
T = The number of Transactions undertaken per period
Supply of money (MV) -It is the total volume of money that is in supply in the market at a particular time. Thus it is the total expenditure that is being done in the market at a particular time period.
Total expenditure per period or total demand of money (PT) – Money is needed by people for making transactions. Thus equation MV=PT suggests that the price level is determined by the money supply.
This equation implies that the quantity of money determines the price if V and T remain constant.
Here only primary money is taken.
Earlier Fisher took into consideration money that is currency money (notes etc.) but later the definition of money changed. Along with currency money bank money that is credit money also formed a part of the money. As per this money meaning which included currency as well as credit Fisher equation becomes MV+M’V’=PT Where
M’ =Money deposited in the bank (credit money)
V’ = velocity of circulation of credit money
This equation shows that price level is directly related to M, M’, V,V’ but inversely related to T.

(b) Cash Balance Approach.
This theory assumed that money was only held to expedite transactions and had no further purpose. Thus, if the money supply increased, agents holding the increased money stock would seek to get rid of it. However, the emphasis in this approach concentrated on establishing the quantity of money that agents would voluntarily desire to hold, p = kR/M
where p = the purchasing power of money
k = the proportion of income that people like to hold in the form of money;
R = the volume of real income; and
M = the stock of supply of money in the country at a given time.
This equation shows that the purchasing power of money or the value of money (p) varies directly with k or R, and inversely with M.
Since p is the reciprocal of the general price level; that is p = 1/P, the equation, p = kR/M can be expressed alternatively as:
1/P = kR/M or M = Krp (1)
If we multiply the volume of real income (R) by the general price level (P), we have the money national income(Y). Therefore,
M = kY
Where Y is the country’s total money income. We can also write equation (1) in terms of the general price level thus:
P = M/kR
This equation implies that the price level (P) varies inversely with k or R and directly with M.
In the Cash Balance approach, k was more significant than M for explaining changes in the purchasing power (or value) of money. This means that the value of money depends upon the demand of the people to hold money.

7. Central Banks
The central bank is the apex institution that regulates, guides, and helps the financial system. This entity is responsible for overseeing the monetary system for a nation (or group of nations). Central banks have a wide range of responsibilities, from overseeing monetary policy to implementing specific goals such as currency stability, low inflation, and full employment. Central banks also generally issue currency, function as the bank of the government, regulate the credit system, oversee commercial banks, manage exchange reserves and act as a lender of last resort. Central banks came into existence in the 20th century. Central banks perform various functions which are (/) Leading functions

– Issue of notes – Note issue primarily is the main function of a central bank in every country. These days, in all the countries where there is a central bank generally it has got the monopoly of the sole right of note issue. There are many advantages with the monopoly of issue of notes by central banks. These are

• There will be uniformity in the currency system in the country.
• By controlling the amount of currency in circulation, the volume of credit can be controlled to quite a large extent.
• People have more confidence in the currency issued by the control bank
• Central bank earns profit from the issue of paper notes ^
• As central banks operate independently thus there is no political influence on the central bank.

– As bankers to the government, the central bank provides all those services and facilities to the government which the public gets from ordinary banks. It operates the account of the public enterprise. It mangers government departmental undertaking and government funds and where there is a need gives loans to the government. It is collecting all the taxes of the government.

– Central bank is the bank of banks. This signifies that it has the same relationship with the commercial banks in the country that they gave with their customers. It provides security to their cash reserves, gives them loans at the time of need, gives. their advice on the financial and economic matter and work as clearinghouse among various members bank.

– Central bank is the custodian of the foreign currency obtained from various countries. This has become an important function of the central bank.
– Another major work of the central bank is to manage and regulate the exchange rate. It assesses the financial trends and the type of corrective measures that will be required to manage the exchange rate of the currency.

– Central bank works as lender of the last resort for commercial banks because in the time of need it provides them financial assistance and accommodation. Whenever a commercial bank faces a financial crisis, the central bank as lender of the last resort comes to its rescue by advancing loans, and the bank is saved from being failed.

– All commercial bank have their accounts with the central bank. Therefore, the central bank settles the mutual transactions of banks and thus saves all banks

– the most important function of a central bank is to control the volume of credit for bringing about stability in the general price level and accomplishing various other socio-economic objectives

(2) Other Functions

  • It collects statistical data regularly relating to economic aspects of money, credit, foreign exchange, banking, etc.
  • It can play an important role by mobilizing people to make investments and to promote saving.

8. Reserve Bank of India
The Reserve Bank of India is India’s central banking institution, which controls the monetary policy of the Indian rupee. It was nationalized on Jan 1, 1949. Governor is the executive head of the bank.

9. Commercial banks
Commercial Banks are a financial institution that provides services, such as accepting deposits, giving business loans and auto loans, mortgage lending, and basic investment products like savings accounts and certificates of deposit. Commercial banks play an important role in the financial system and the economy. As a key component of the financial system, banks allocate funds from savers to borrowers in an efficient manner.

Major functions of commercial banks are
• Banks operate by borrowing funds-usually by accepting deposits from the public in the form of saving deposits, fixed deposit and current deposits. Saving accounts are such accounts in which bank gives interest on the money deposited by the public while in current deposit you do not get any interest but mostly gets an overdraft facility. Fixed deposits are deposits made by the public for fixed period of time and they get interest on this deposit. The rate of interest for fixed deposits is higher than that of a saving accounts.

• Giving loans to public in the form of loans and advances, overdraft, cash credit, discounting of bill etc. Bank use deposits and borrowed funds (liabilities of the bank) to give loans. Banks make these loans to businesses, other financial institutions, individuals, and governments (that need the funds for investments or other purposes). This is the earning source for banks.

Overdraft is an arrangement where current account holders are allowed to draw in excess of their deposit and pay interest on the amount overdrawn Banks lend without any collateral security is bill of exchange. Cash credit is an arrangement where customers are allowed to borrow money from the bank up to a certain limit against some tangible securities.

• Besides these banks also provide some of the utility services like lockers, traveller’s cheque, transfer of fund from one bank to another, collect dividend and interest on securities, collection and payment of cheques, bills and promissory notes, provides various trade information and statistics, issues personal and commercial letters of credit, maintain customers demat account etc.

10. Monetary policy of India
Monetary policy of any country is made by its central bank. Monetary policy involves influencing the availability and cost of money and credit to promote a healthy economy. Central bank of country drafts many policies so that to cash and credit availability is regulated. In India these policies are being drawn by government with the help of RBI. It helps in the stabilization of money supply, interest etc. In the market, some of the general credit control measures taken are:

Bank rate -This is traditional way of regulation put by central bank. Central bank decides at which rate of interest the bank will give loans to commercial banks. It is also the rate at which central bank discounts the bills and other instruments of commercial banks.

When the rate of interest charged by central bank from commercial bank is high, than commercial bank’s lending rate of interest also rises which ultimately decreases the number of borrowers. This leads to recession in market. On contrary when central bank decreases the rate of interest for commercial banks i.e. the loan can be taken by commercial banks from central bank at lower rate of interest than commercial banks also give loans at lower rate of interest which ultimately increases the borrowers.

Repo rate and Reverse repo rate – Repo rate is the interest rate at which commercial bank borrow money from central bank. Repo rate is also called repurchase rate. When Repo rate falls than commercial banks are more tempted to borrow more money from central bank. This is called repurchase rate because when they borrow money from the RBI, they keep government securities with the central bank as collateral. When they pay the money back to RBI, they take the collateral back.

While Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which when they keep their surplus money with the RBI. Repo rate is always higher than the reverse repo rate. By controlling these rates, the RBI controls the rate of interest in the economy Open market operations – Open market operations are the market operations conducted by the Reserve Bank of India by way of sale/purchase of Government securities to/from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis. When the RBI feels there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, the RBI will buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.

CRR and SLR – CRR or cash reserve ratio is the minimum proportion/percentage of a bank’s deposits to be held in the form of cash. Banks actually don’t hold these as cash with themselves, but deposit the same with RBI/currency chests, which is considered equivalent to holding cash with themselves. This ratio keeps changing and acts as a controlling measure in the hands of central bank. A lower CRR means banks have more money to lend.

SLR or statutory liquidity ratio is the minimum percentage of deposits that a bank has to maintain in form of gold, cash or other approved securities. It is the ratio of liquid assets (cash and approved securities) to the demand and term liabilities/deposits. An increase in SLR restricts the bank’s leverage position to pump more money into the economy, thereby regulating credit growth.

Regulation, Supervision and Development of Financial Stability Regulation of non banking financial institution. Besides these there are other control measures adopted by Central bank which can be called selective control measures such as rationing of credit, issuing directives to commercial banks, issuing consumer credit regulation etc.

Money and Banking MCQ Questions

Question 1.
Factors responsible for the change in the form of money are
a Political
b. Economic
c. Government
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 2.
The reason for giving monopoly to Central Bank is
a. It can have a control on the credit of commercial banks
b. Brings uniformity to the monetary system
c. Management of the paper money becomes easier
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 3.
The assets that RBI acquire against the currency printed by it are
a. Non income yielding assets
b. Income yielding assets
c. Bonds
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Non income yielding assets

Question 4.
For Banks, Central Bank acts as
a. Clearing agent
b. Borrower
c. Lender
d. Both a &c
Answer:
d. Both a &c

Question 5.
Central Bank acts as a custodian of the cash preserves of commercial banks which means
a. Acts as a lender of last resort
b. As clearing agent
c. Maintains the cash reserves of the commercial banks
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Maintains the cash reserves of the commercial banks

Question 6.
With the help of cash reserve deposited by commercial banks with Central bank commercial banks can
a. Increase their credit in the market
b. A cash reserve ratio can be formed
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 7.
Following are considered as money
a. Metallic money
b. Financial investment
c. Both a &b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a &b

Question 8.
All these characteristics are required for any item to qualify as money except.
a. be countable
b. be made of metal
c. be portable
d. be divisible
Answer:
b. be made of metal

Question 9.
As a measure of value money provides
a. Its holder with perfect liquidity
b. Its fixed return in future
c. A common denominator for determining value of goods
d. A mechanism for allocating resources and distributing output
Answer:
c. A common denominator for determining value of goods

Question 10.
Near money assets are
a. assets for which no nominal capital gain is possible
b. assets for which slight capital gain is possible
c. assets for which high capital gain is possible
d. none of the above
Answer:
b. assets for which slight capital gain is possible

Question 11.
A government bond is being matured after five years in comparison to Rs. 50000 that is lying with Ram. Which is more liquid?
a. Government bond
b. Rs. 50000
c. Both are equally liquid
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Rs. 50000

Question 12.
The interest rate are different for financial institutions in comparison to general borrower because
a. Financial institutions are more credit worthy
b. Financial institutions are in the market of borrowing and lending
c. Average of term for which loan has been taken by financial institutions is shorter
d. Both a &c
Answer:
d. Both a &c

Question 13.
Out of the following which assets is most liquid?
a. shares of stock
b. government securities
c. land
d. currency
Answer:
c. land

Question 14.
When the liquidity trap occurs the demand for money
a. becomes perfectly interest elastic
b. becomes perfectly interest inelastic
c. means that an increase in money supply leads fall in the interest rate
d. means that an increase in the money supply to an increase in the interest rate
Answer:
a. becomes perfectly interest elastic

Question 15.
The quantity theory of money says an increase in the money supply is most likely to lead to inflation if;
a. the velocity of circulate in decreases
b. the number of transactions decreases
c. there is deflation
d. the velocity of circulation and the number of transaction is constant
Answer:
d. the velocity of circulation and the number of transaction is constant

Question 16.
For reducing the supply of money the government –
a. reduce interest rates
b. buy back government bonds
c. sell government bonds
d. encourage banks to lend
Answer:
c. sell government bonds

Question 17.
The open market operations occur when the government:
a. reduces spending
b. buys and sells bonds and securities
c. increases taxation
d. increases the exchange rate
Answer:
b. buys and sells bonds and securities

Question 18.
Some of the functions that are Not done by Central Bank are
a. banker to Government
b. banker to customer
c. collection of taxes
d. foreign exchange resources
Answer:
b. banker to customer

Question 19.
Central Bank is collecting data related to economic aspects of
a. money
b. credit
c. foreign exchange
d. all of the above
Answer:
d. all of the above

Question 20.
Name of the central Bank of USA is
a. American Central Bank
b. Federal Reserve
c. Federal Reserve Bank
d. Federation Reserve
Answer:
b. Federal Reserve

Question 21.
Executive head of the RBI is called
a. Chairman
b. Governor
c. President
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Governor

Question 22.
In current account the banks
a. Pay against the deposits of the customer
b. Pay above the deposits of the customer in certain condition
c. Both a &b
d. Pay only up to a certain limit as described by bank
Answer:
c. Both a &b

Question 23.
Collection of dividend for their customers is the _____________ type of function of the commercial banks
a. Primary function
b. Agency service
c. General utility service
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Agency service

Question 24.
Deposits with the bank are considered ________ of that bank.
a. an assets
b. Credit
c. Share worth
d. a liability
Answer:
d. a liability

Question 25.
The difference between a bank’s actual reserves and its required reserves is its.
a. Capital
b. Share value
c. net worth
d. excess reserves
Answer:
d. excess reserves

Question 26.
Banks decrease the rate of interest for borrowing because the banks are holding excess reserves as business firms and consumers are not willing to borrow money A decrease in the discount rate is likely to
a. not change the money supply because banks already have excess reserves which they cannot lend
b. As borrowing money from banks will become difficult people will start depositing more money with the banks
c. There will be a sharp increase in the deposits made by the business firms as the rates of loans given by banks have fallen sharply.
d. None of the Above
Answer:
a. not change the money supply because banks already have excess reserves which they cannot lend

Question 27.
Because money serves as a medium of exchange, it eliminates
a. the need to write checks.
b. The need for specialization.
c. The use of commodities as money
d. The need for a double coincidence of wants
Answer:
d. The need for a double coincidence of wants

Question 28.
Money’s function as a medium of exchange means that
a. money is a common denominators for expressing the value of goods and services
b. money can be sued to store wealth.
c. money serves as an acceptable means of payment
d. money is a standard f deferred payment on exchange contracts extending into the future
Answer:
c. money serves as an acceptable means of payment

Question 29.
Which of the following is correct? Money is
a. medium of exchange.
b. A store of value
c. A unit of account
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 30.
Suppose an increase in the supply of money occurs, while the demand for money is constant, according to the quantity theory of money, the price level will .
a. stay the same because of an offsetting decrease in the demand for money
b. rise because as people try to spend excess money balances, prices are driven up.
c. Fall because real GDP will rise as interest rates fall
d. Raise because of a decrease in the demand for money
Answer:
b. rise because as people try to spend excess money balances, prices are driven up.

Question 31.
The main source of profits to commercial banks is
a. the service charges on bank accounts
b. the interest earned on their loans.
c. The proceeds from home and card foreclosures.
d. The interest re earned on the securities
Answer:
b. the interest earned on their loans.

Question 32.
The Lorenz curve shows the relationship between
a. asset creation and income generation
b. population groups and their respective income shares
c. unemployment and inflation
d. wages, labour hours and leisure
Answer:
b. population groups and their respective income shares

Question 33.
In India Central Bank is
a. Federation Bank of India
b. State bank of India
c. Reserve Bank of India
d. Central Bank Of India
Answer:
c. Reserve Bank of India

Question 34.
The primary function of Central Bank is
a. Issue of notes
b. Collection of data
c. Central banking in developing countries
d. Both a &c
Answer:
a. Issue of notes

Question 35.
Marshall – Lerner condition states that the foreign exchange market would be stable if the sum of the price elasticity of the demand for imports and the demand for exports is:
a. greater than one
b. less than one
c. equal to one
d. equal to zero
Answer:
c. equal to one

Question 36.
You deposit money into your bank account, which of the following entry Bank will pass in its books of account.
a. debit cash account
b. debt your account
c. reverse the entry
d. debit assets account
Answer:
a. debit cash account

Question 37.
Which of the following represents the fisher’s equation?
a. nominal interest rate = real interest rate + inflation
b. nominal interest rate + inflation – real interest rate
c. nominal interest rate – real interest rate – inflation
d. nominal interest rate – real interest rate/inflation
Answer:
d. nominal interest rate – real interest rate/inflation

Question 38.
Credit creation is
a. Process where money is given by banks through loan
b. Process where the money is taken by lenders
c. Process by which the money is taken by depositors
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Process where money is given by banks through loan

Question 39.
Derived deposits are
a. Deposits created by depositors
b. Deposits created due to the loans extended by banks to borrowers
c. Deposits with the financial institutions
d. Deposits created with the cash of the customers
Answer:
b. Deposits created due to the loans extended by banks to borrowers

Question 40.
In the accounts of banks “loans and advances” are
a. High interest income
b. Loans given to customer
c. Liabilities of bank
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 41.
Credit creation is done only
a. After primary deposits are made by bank
b. Reserves have been created with RBI
c. Banks have started giving loans
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 42.
For deciding the credit of a bank
a. It has to be checked what is the total amounts of deposits bank has
b. Loans granted must earn more interest than its deposits
c. Banks should be able to pay its commitment to deposits
d. Both b & c
Answer:
d. Both b & c

Question 43.
Cash deposit ratio is
a. Total deposits which are kept for encashment by depositors
b. A fraction of cash reserve that a bank is required to keep for encashment
c. Both a &b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. A fraction of cash reserve that a bank is required to keep for encashment

Question 44.
Which among the following is the full form of FDI in Indian Economics?
a. Foreign Depository investors
b. Foreign departmental investors
c. Foreign direct investment
d. Foreign development investment
Answer:
c. Foreign direct investment

Question 45.
One of the following is not the function of Reserve Bank Of India
a. Issuing currency notes
b. Formulating monetary policies
c. Exercising control over all banks of India
d. Lending money to exporters
Answer:
d. Lending money to exporters

Question 46.
All of the following is function of money except
a. to provide durability
b. to be portable
c. to be divisible
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. to provide durability

Question 47.
The approach used by economics to describe money are
a. Functional approach
b. Purchasing power approach selling
c. Both a & b
d. Purchasing power approach
Answer:
d. Purchasing power approach

Question 48.
Functions of money as per functional approach are
a. Medicine
b. Measure
c. Saving
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 49.
Unit of account is
a. Monetary unit used in selling
b. Monetary unit used is purchasing
c. Monetary unit used in calculation
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Monetary unit used in calculation

Question 50.
Difficulty with barter system was
a. Exchange was difficulty due to Lacks of double concordance of wants
b. Persons of credit was difficulty as nature of commodity kept changing
c. Evaluation of the commodity was difficulty as the commodities exchanged were different
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 51.
Derived function are
a. Primary function
b. Secondary function
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b
Answer:
b. Secondary function

Question 52.
Limitations for the demand of credit are
a. Demand should exist in the market
b. Amount of loan granted should increase the paying capacity of borrower
c. Bad debts should be avoided
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 53.
Which of the following is not included in money?
a. Note
b. Demand deposit of banks
c. Diamond
d. Gold
Answer:
c. Diamond

Question 54.
The contingent function of money are
a. Distribution of national income
b. Distribution from of capital
c. Basis of credit
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 55.
Liquidity means
a. A highly acceptable item in the market
b. A credit money
c. A debit money
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. A highly acceptable item in the market

Question 56.
It is uncommon for an item to be liquid if
a. It is not acceptable in the market
b. Can not be sold in the market
c. Not accepted by creditors
d. Both a &b
Answer:
d. Both a &b

Question 57.
Liquidity of an asset is __________ related with the average time taken to convert it into cash in the market
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. Equally
d. Proportionately
Answer:
b. Inversely

Question 58.
Liquidity is related _________ to price fluctuation
a. Inversely
b. Directly
c. Equally
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Inversely

Question 59.
As per Fisher transaction approach for inflation
a. If Quantity of money is doubled the price level will also double
b. If quantity of money is doubled price will double and the value of money will half
c. If Quantity of money is doubled price level will double and the value of money will double
d. If quantity of money is doubled price level will be half
Answer:
b. If quantity of money is doubled price will double and the value of money will half

Question 60.
Value of money is dependent on holding power of money. It is
a. Transaction approach
b. Cash balance approach
c. Debit balance approach
d. Asset approach
Answer:
b. Cash balance approach

Question 61.
Central bank came into existence in
a. Early 18th century
b. Early 20th century
c. Late 20th century
d. Late 18th century
Answer:
b. Early 20th century

Question 62.
The role played by Central Bank is
a. Organizing financial system
b. Earning profits
c. Supervising financial system
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 63.
Some of the policy of Central Bank are
a. High rate of growth in GDP
b. Price stability
c. Reduction in income inequalities
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 65.
Primary function of money is that-
a. It serves as a medium of exchange
b. It serves as a standard of deferred payment
c. It serves as a store of value
d. It serves as a general form of capital
Answer:
a. It serves as a medium of exchange
Hint
The primary function of money is that it acts as a medium of exchange

Question 66.
Match the following:

Functions of Money Classification of Money
1. Medium of Exchange (i) Contingent Function
2. Distribution of National Income (ii) Secondary Function
3. Transfer of value (iii) Primary Function

The correct option is
a. 1. (i), 2. (ii), 3. (iii)
b. 1. (ii), 2. (iii), 3. (i)
c. 1. (iii), 2. (i), 3. (ii)
d. 1. (iii), 2. (ii), 3. (i)
Answer:
c. 1. (iii), 2. (i), 3. (ii)
Hint
Primary function
The primary function of money is that it acts as a medium of exchange Secondary function
There are some other functions of money such as
– it can easily be stored unlike goods used in barter system which were difficult and cumbersome to be stored .specially in case of perishable goods.
– It is best means in case of deffered payment. Thus in case of loans repayment interest can easily be calculated with the help of money.
– Money can easily be transferred from one place to another unlike goods whose transferability is difficult.

Contingent functions
Prof. Kinley has mentioned that money is the basis of credit.

  • Some examples of credit money are cheque, draft, bill of exchange etc.
  • Money helps in the proper distribution of national income.
  • It is the general form of keeping all the wealth. ,

It gives people maximum pleasure as they can decide about the utility of the product and can distribute their income accordingly

Question 67.
In a POW Camp during the Second World War, biddies came to perform the function of money although-
a. It did not work as a medium of exchange
b. It did not work as a store of value
c. It did not serve as a standard of deferred payments
d. It was not declared a legal tender.
Answer:
d. It was not declared a legal tender.

Question 68.
____________ is the rate at which the central bank discounts the bill of commercial banks.
a. Bank Rate
b. Interest Rate
c. Growth Rate
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Bank Rate
Hint
Bank rate -This is traditional way of regulation put by central bank. Central bank decides at which rate of interest the bank will give loans to commercial banks. It is also the rate at which central bank discounts the bills and other instruments of commercial banks.

Question 69.
A Commercial bank cannot—
a. Advance you cash loans
b. Advance you home loans
c. Purchase a house for you
d. Advance educational loan
Answer:
c. Purchase a house for you
Hint
Commercial banks
Commercial Banks are financial institution that provides services, such as accepting deposits, giving business loans and auto loans, mortgage lending, and basic investment products like savings accounts and certificates of deposit. Commercial banks play an important role in the financial system and the economy. Major functions of commercial banks are
• Banks operate by borrowing funds
• Giving loans to public in the form of loans and advances, overdraft, cash credit, discounting of bill etc.

Question 70.
The Central Bank of a country is not empowered to:
a. Change the cash reserve ratio for commercial banks
b. Lend call loans to corporates
c. Extend financial assistance to commercial banks
d. Supervise the functioning of commercial banks.
Answer:
b. Lend call loans to corporates
Hint
Central Banks
Central bank is the apex institution that regulate , guide and help financial system.
Leading functions

  • Issue of notes
    As banker to the government, central bank provides all those service and facilities to the government which public gets from the ordinary banks.
  • Central bank is the bank of banks. It provides security to their cash reserves, give them loan at the time of need, gives them advice on financial and economic matter and work as clearinghouse among various members bank.
  • Central bank is the custodian of the foreign currency obtained from various countries.
  • Another major work of the central bank is to manage and regulate the exchange rate.
  • The central bank works as lender of the last resort for commercial banks
  • All commercial bank have their accounts with the central bank. Therefore, the central bank settles the mutual transactions of banks and thus saves all banks
  • the most important function of a central bank is to control the volume of credit for bringing about stability in the general price level and accomplishing various other socio-economic objectives

Other Functions

  • It collects statistical data regularly relating to economic aspects of money, credit, foreign exchange, banking, etc.
  • It can play an important role by mobilizing people to make investments and to promote saving.

Question 71.
A commercial bank normally, does not pay interest on
a. A fixed deposit with the bank
b. A current deposit with the bank
c. A saving deposit with the bank
d. Long-term deposit with the bank
Answer:
b. A current deposit with the bank
Hint
Banks operate by borrowing funds-usually by accepting deposits from public in the form of saving deposit, fixed deposits and current deposit. Saving accounts are such account in which the bank gives interest on the money deposited by the public while in the current deposit you do not get any interest but mostly gets an overdraft facility.

Question 72.
If a bank has an initial deposit of Rs. 100 crores and cash deposit reserve. maintained by the bank is 10%, then the total amount of credit creation will be?
a. Rs. 1,000 Crares
b. Rs. 500 Crores
c. Rs. 1,250 Crares
d. Rs. 1,500 Crores
Answer;
a. Rs. 1,000 Crares
Hint
Credit creation by the bank = initial deposit/cash deposit reserve = 100/10% = 1000 crores.

Question 73.
In the fisher’s equation of exchange- P = r\(\frac{r V T V+M^{1} V^{\prime}}{T}\)
P indicates-
a. The amount of money in circulation
b. The total amount of transaction in the economy
c. The value of money
d. The velocity of money.
Answer:
c. The value of money

Question 74.
Match the following:

Name of the Bank Country
1. Reserve Bank of India (i) Europe
2. Federal Reserve Bank (ii) USA
3. European CentralBank (iii) China
4 People’s Bank of China (iv) India

The given options are:
a. 1. (iv), 2. (ii), 3. (i), 4. (iii)
b. 1. (iii), 2. (iv), 3. (ii), 4. (i)
c. 1. (ii), 2. (iii), 3. (iv), 4. (i)
d. 1. (i), 2. (ii), 3. (iii), 4. (iv)
Answer:
a. 1. (iv), 2. (ii), 3. (i), 4. (iii)
Hint
Reserve Bank of India – India Federal Reserve Bank – USA European Central Bank – Europe People’s Bank of China -China

Question 75.
A primary function of money is to:
a. Serve as a medium of exchange
b. Serve as a standard of deferred payments
c. Serve as a general form of capital
d. Serve as a store of value.
Answer:
a. Serve as a medium of exchange
Hint
The primary function of money is that it acts as a medium of exchange.

Question 76.
Among the following assets the most liquid asset is:
a. Gold
b. Stocks of commodities
c. Equity shares of blue-chip companies
d. Currency notes.
Answer:
d. Currency notes.

Question 77.
An increase in bank rate results in:
a. Banks’ ability to create credit falls
b. Banks can give new loans more easily
c. Demand for bank loans rises
d. Demand for bank loans falls.
Answer:
d. Demand for bank loans falls.
Hint
When the rate of interest charged by central bank from commercial bank is high than commercial banks lending rate of interest also rises which ultimately decreases the number of borrowers. This leads to recession in market.

Question 78.
Depreciation of rupee would normally result in:
a. Increase in India’s imports of luxury goods
b. Increase in India’s exports
c. Fall in India’s external debt burden
d. Domestic deflation.
Answer:
b. Increase in India’s exports
Hint
Currency depreciation is the loss of value of a country’s currency with respect to one or more foreign reference currencies. Thus if the Indian currency will fall then goods of India will become much cheaper in comparison to other countries thus will lead to increase in exports.

Question 79.
An important monetary-policy tool among the following is
a. Better access to Public Distribution System (PDS)
b. Higher expenditure on social services
c. Rationing of credit
d. Increased subsidies on petroleum, food, exports and fertilizers.
Answer:
c. Rationing of credit
Hint
Credit rationing refers to the situation where lenders limit the supply of additional credit to borrowers who demand funds, even if the latter are willing to pay higher interest rates. These are the control measures adopted by Central bank which can be called selective control measures such as rationing of credit, issuing directives to commercial banks, issuing consumer credit regulation etc.

Question 80.
If the target of the Central Bank is to reduce the rate of inflation in the economy, it should not –
a. Reduce the bank rate
b. Raise the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
c. Raise the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
d. Raise the Repo rate.
Answer:
a. Reduce the bank rate
Hint
Bank rate -This is traditional way of regulation put by central bank. Central bank decides at which rate of interest the bank will give loans to commercial banks. It is also the rate at which central bank discounts the bills and other instruments of commercial banks.

Question 81.
Central Bank in India is known as-
a. Federal Bank
b. People’s Bank
c. RBI
d. None
Answer:
c. RBI
Hint
RBI – Reserve Bank of India

Question 82.
In which city are the head quarters of R.B.1. situated?
a. New Delhi
b. Bangalore
c. Mumbai
d. Hyderabad
Answer:
c. Mumbai

Question 83.
In which bank interest rate is not changed-
a. RBI
b. SBI
c. Swiss Bank
d. Federal Bank
Answer:
a. RBI

Question 84.
In which city head office of Andhra bank is situated?
a. Hyderabad
b. Kolkata
c. Chennai
d. Coimbatore
Answer:
a. Hyderabad

Question 85.
Who controls CRR & SLR?
a. Central Government
b. RBI
c. Commercial Bank
d. None
Answer:
b. RBI

Question 86.
Which of the following are the functions of money-
a. Medium of exchange
b. Store of value
c. The measure of value
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above
Hint
Features of money

  • Money gave more freedom to people in comparison to the barter system.
  • As in the barter system, the evaluation of commodities was difficult as every commodity has its different importance. Thus the introduction of money helped to overcome this difficulty.
  • Moreover it was easy to manage accounts with the help of money
  • Acts as a medium of exchange .

Question 87.
People’s bank is an open bank of which country?
a. India
b. China
c. USA
d. UK.
Answer:
b. China

Question 88.
Transaction Approach is given by-
a. Alfred Marshall
b. Irving fisher
c. Adam smith
d. Hicks
Answer:
b. Irving fisher
Hint
The transactions Approach was given by Irving Fisher. This approach first emerged in Fisher’s book The Purchasing Power of Money

Question 89.
Which of the following is not a Quantitative credit control measure
a. Bank Rate
b. Open market operation
c. Variable cash reserve requirement
d. Rationing of credit
Answer:
d. Rationing of credit
Hint
Some of the general credit control measures taken are

  • Bank rate
  • Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate
  • Open Market operations
  • CRR and SLR (variable cash reserve requirement)

Question 90.
The rate at which Central Bank borrows money from Commercial Banks is known as-
a. Repo Rate
b. Rate of interest
c. Reverse Repo Rate
d. Loan Rate
Answer:
b. Rate of interest
Hint
Reverse repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in case of India) borrows money from commercial banks within the country.

Question 91.
Commercial banks provide the facility of-
a. Providing loans.
b. Accepting deposit
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both (a) & (b)
Hint
Major functions of commercial banks are

  • Banks operate by borrowing funds
  • Giving loans to the public in the form of loans and advances, overdraft, cash credit, discounting of bills etc.
  • These banks also provide some of the utility services like lockers, traveller’s cheque, transfer of funds from one bank to another, collect dividend and interest on securities, collection and payment of cheques, bills and promissory notes, provides various trade information and statistics, issues personal and commercial letters of credit, maintain customers Demat account etc.

Question 92.
Which of the following measure is taken by Bank for credit creation?
a. Printing
b. Accepting cheques
c. Lending out a proportion of their deposits
d. Issuing debit cards
Answer:
c. Lending out a proportion of their deposits
Hint
Commercial banks
Commercial Banks are financial institution that provides services, such as accepting deposits, giving business loans and auto loans, mortgage lending, and basic investment products like savings accounts and certificates of deposit. Commercial banks play an important role in the financial system and the economy. As a key component of the financial system, banks allocate funds from savers to borrowers in an efficient manner. Credit creation is one of the important function of commercial banks. It starts with banks lending money out of primary deposits.

Question 93.
Which of the following lists primary function of money?
a. Medium of Exchanqe, inflation hedge, store
b. Medium of Exchange, standard of deferred
c. Standard of deferred payments, inflation hedge, store of value
d. Medium of exchange, measure of value
Answer:
d. Medium of exchange, measure of value
Hint
The primary function of money is

  • It acts as a medium of exchange
  • It is measure of value

Question 94.
Largest Commercial bank in India, in terms of deposits is:
a. Bank of Baroda
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. State Bank of India
d. Canera Bank
Answer:
c. State Bank of India

Question 95.
Head Office of Reserve Bank of India is situated at:
a. Mumbai
b. Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Ahmedabad
Answer:
a. Mumbai

Question 96.
Reduction in statutory liquidity ratio result into:
a. Increased borrowing powers of the banks,
b. Reduced borrowing powers of the banks
c. Increased lending power of banks
d. Reduced lending power of banks
Answer:
c. Increased lending power of banks
Hint
SLR or statutory liquidity ratio is the minimum percentage of deposits that a bank has to maintain in form of gold, cash or other approved securities. It is the ratio of liquid assets (cash and approved securities) to the demand and term liabilities/deposits. An increase in SLR restricts the bank’s leverage position to pump more money into the economy, thereby regulating credit growth. A decrease in SLR gives more liquidity to the banks.

Question 97.
Which of the following things have been used as money in past times?
a. Shells
b. Goats and Cows
c. Gold, Silver and Rice
d. All are applicable.
Answer:
d. All are applicable.

Question 98.
The executive head of Reserve Bank of India is called
a. Executive Director
b. Chairman
c. President
d. Governor
Answer:
d. Governor

Question 99.
Commercial Banks provide:
a. Free Credit
b. Agency services
c. Both loans and agency services
d. Loans.
Answer:
c. Both loans and agency services
Hint
Commercial Banks are financial institution that provides services, such as accepting deposits, giving business loans and auto loans, mortgage lending, and basic investment products like savings accounts and certificates of deposit.

Question 100.
Which of the following measures is taken by Banks for Credit Creation?
a. Printing
b. Issue debit cards
c. Accepting cheques
d. Lending out a proportion of their deposits.
Answer:
d. Lending out a proportion of their deposits.
Hint
The power of commercial banks to expand deposits through loans, advances and investments is known as “credit creation.”

Question 101.
Which of the following is a measure used by Reserve Bank of India to decrease credit in the economy?
a. Decrease ¡n Bank Rate and decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
b. Decrease In Bank Rate and increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
c. Increase in Bank Rate and decrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
d. Increase in Bank Rate and ¡ncrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Answer:
d. Increase in Bank Rate and ¡ncrease in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Hint
CRR or cash reserve ratio is the minimum proportion/percentage of a bank’s deposits to be held in the form of cash. Banks actually don’t hold these as cash with themselves, but deposit the same with RBI/currency chests, which is considered equivalent to holding cash with themselves. This ratio keeps changing and acts as a controlling measure in the hands of central bank. A lower CRR means banks have more money to lend. Increased CRR means banks have less money to lend.

CS Foundation Business Economics Notes

Basic Characteristics Of Indian Economy – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Basic Characteristics Of Indian Economy – CS Foundation Economics Notes

When India became independent it had a highly backward economy. Planning was needed to increase gross domestic savings as well as to increase industrialization and take the deficit balance problem. We were suffering from low per capita income, poor health facilities, very few industries, widespread unemployment, etc. To overcome the problems that were existing India made a planning commission in March 1950 by a regulation of the Government of India.

The functions of the planning commission are
1. To make an assessment of the material, capital, and human resources of the country, including technical personnel, and investigate the possibilities of augmenting those are related resources that are found to be deficient in relation to the nation’s requirement.

2. To formulate a plan for the most effective and balanced utilization of the country’s resources.

3. To define the stages, on the basis of priority, in which the plan should be carried out and propose the allocation of resources for the due completion of each stage.

4. To indicate the factors that tend to retard economic development.

5. To determine the conditions which need to be established for the successful execution of the plan within the incumbent socio-political situation of the country.

6. To determine the nature of the machinery required for securing the successful implementation of each stage of the plan in all its aspects.

7. To appraise from time to time the progress achieved in the execution of each stage of the plan and also recommend the adjustments of policy and measures, which are deemed important vis-a-vis a successful implementation of the plan.

8. To make necessary recommendations from time to time regarding those things which are deemed necessary for facilitating the execution of these functions.

9. Such recommendations can be related to the prevailing economic conditions, current policies, measures, or development programs.

10. They can even be given out in response to some specific problems referred to the commission by the central or the state governments.
After India gained independence, a formal model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the Planning \ Commission, reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India. Planning Commission does not derive its creation from either the Constitution or statute but is an arm of the Central/Union Government.

From a highly centralized planning system, the Indian economy is gradually moving towards indicative planning where the Planning Commission concerns itself with the building of a long-term strategic vision of the future and decides on priorities of the nation. It works out sectoral targets and provides promotional stimulus to the economy to grow in the desired direction.

1. First five year Plan
In July 1951 the Planning Commission presented a draft outline of a plan of development for the period of five years from April 1951 to March 1956.
The first five-year plan had been made by the planning commission whose objective was to improve the standard of living of the people by effective use of the country’s resources. In India, the first five-year plan’s total outlay was estimated to been worth ₹ 2,069 crores. It was based on Harrod-Domar Model. In the first five-year plan, this amount was allocated to various areas. They are

  • Agriculture development
  • Energy and irrigation
  • Community development
  • Communications and transport
  • Industry
  • Power

The target of GDP growth in the first five-year plan of India was 2.1% per year and the actual growth of GDP that was achieved had been 3.6% per year. It was a successful plan because of the good harvest in the last two years of the plan.

2. Second five year Plan
The second five-year plan India (1956-1961) intends to increase and carry forward the development that had been started by the first five-year plan in India. It is also called Mahalanobis Plan named after the well-known economist The Second Five year Plan focused mainly on heavy industry as against the First Plan which was essentially an agricultural plan. This was done to boost domestic production and manufacturing of goods. The plan is aimed primarily at developing the public sector. The Second Plan started with an emphasis on the expansion of the public sector and aimed at the establishment of a socialistic pattern of society.

In the second year plan, the funds were allocated to various areas such as

  • Power and irrigation
  • Communication and transport
  • Mining and industry
  • Community and agriculture development
  • Social services
  • Miscellaneous

The second five-year plan India has, to a large extent, improved the living standards of the people. The Growth target was 4.5 percent but a growth rate of 4.0 percent was achieved. Third five year Plan It was from 1961-1966 The features of the third five-year plan were

  • To increase the national income by 5% per year
  • To increase the production of agriculture so that the nation is self-sufficient in food grains
  • To provide employment opportunities for every citizen of the country
  • To establish equality among all the people of this country
  • Complete failure in reaching the targets due to unforeseen events – Chinese aggression (1962), Indo-Pak war (1965), severe drought 1965-66

3. Annual Plans
The characteristic features of these three annual plans were

  • Prevailing crisis in agriculture and serious food shortage necessitated the emphasis on agriculture during the Annual Plans
  • During these plans, a whole new agricultural strategy was implemented.
  • Use of HYV’s seeds and extensive use of fertilizers
  • To absorb the shock of the third five-year plan.
  • It paved the path for the planned growth ahead.

4. Fourth five-year Plan It started from 1969-1974. The characteristic features of the fourth five-year plan were

  • Nationalization of 14 major Indian banks
  • The main emphasis was on the growth rate of agriculture to enable other sectors to move forward
  •  Growth with stability
  • Funds kept for industrialization were diverted to war expense
  • Performing smiling Buddha underground test in 1974
  • Target growth expected was 5.7% but actual growth was 3.30%

5. Fifth Five-year Plan It started from 1974-1979. The characteristic features of the plan were

  • Self-reliance in agriculture and defense
  • The emphasis laid on employment
  • Electricity Supply Act was enacted in 1975.
  • Promotion of high rate of growth, better distribution of income, and significant growth in the domestic rate of savings was seen as key instruments
  • Target growth expected was 4.4% and actual growth was 5%

6. Sixth Five-year Plan This was from 1980 – 1985. The characteristic feature of the plan was

  • Family planning program was extended
  • To erode out poverty
  • Emphasized on Increase in national income, modernization of technology
  • Target growth expected was 5.2% and actual growth was 5.4%

7. Seventh Five-year Plan This was from 1985-1990. The characteristic features of the plan were

  • Focus on Socialism and energy production
  • Focus on Production of food grains
  • Use of modem technology
  • Generating employment opportunities.
  • The growth target was 5% and actual growth was 6.01%

8. Eight Five year Plan This was from 1992 – 1997. From the year 1989-1991* there was instability in the Indian economy. India was facing a large foreign reserve deficit so at that time Dr. Manmohan Singh launched free-market reforms which brought the bankrupt nation back from the edge. The features of this plan were.

  • Privatization and liberalization in India
  • Modernization of industries
  • India became a member of the World Trade organization on Jan 1, 1995.
  • Controlling population, poverty
  • Employment generation
  • Can be termed as Rao and Manmohan economic development model.

9. Ninth Five year Plan
It was from 1997-2002. Features of this plan were

  • Create liberal market
  • Improve the quality of life
  • Generation of employment
  • To stabilize the prices in order to increase the growth rate
  • To stress upon the rural development
  • Expected growth was 6.5% but actual growth was 5.35%

10. Tenth five-year plan
It was from 2002-2007. Features of this plan were

  • To attain 8% GDP growth per year.
  • Stress on the education of the child
  • To reduce poverty
  • To reduce gender gaps in literacy and wage.
  • Increase in literacy rate to 72% within the plan period and to 80% by 2012.
  • Reduction of Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
  • Increase in forest and tree cover
  • All villages to have sustained access to potable drinking water by 2012
  • Cleaning of all major polluted rivers

11. Eleventh five-year plan

  • GDP growth rate to be increased to 10% by the end of the plan.
  • Farm sector growth to be increased to 4%
  • Creation of seven crore job opportunities
  • Reduce educated unemployed youth to below 5 percent
  • Infant mortality rates to be reduced to 28 per 1000 births
  • Maternal death rates to be reduced to 1 per 1000 births
  • Clean drinking water to all by 2009
  • Improve sex ratio to 935 by 2011-12 and to 950 by 2016-17
  • Ensure electricity connection to all villages and broadband over power lines (BPL) households by 2009
  • Roads to all villages that have a population of 1000 and above by 2009
  • Increase forest and tree cover by 5%
  • Achieve the World Health Organization standard air quality in major cities by 2011-12
  • Treat all urban wastewater by 2011-12 to clean river waters
  • Increase energy efficiency by 20 percent by 2016-17

12. Agriculture
Indian Agriculture is one of the most significant contributors to the Indian economy. A brief scenario of Indian agriculture can be depicted as:

• Agriculture is the only means of living for almost 60% of the employed class in India
• Agriculture in India has a significant history. In the earlier times, India was largely dependent upon food imports, but the successive story of the agriculture sector of the Indian economy has made it self-sufficing in grain production.
• India has put a lot of effort to be self-sufficient in food production and this endeavor of India has led to the Green Revolution
• The services enhanced by the Green Revolution in the agriculture sector of the Indian economy are as follows:
– Acquiring more area for cultivation purposes;;
– Expanding irrigation facilities
– Use of an improved and advanced high-yielding variety of seeds
– Implementing better techniques that emerged from agriculture research
– Water management
– Plan protection activities through prudent use of fertilizers, pesticides. The government’s role in agriculture has mainly been providing infrastructure including research.

• The first-ever National Agriculture Policy was announced on 28th July 2000. Over the next two decades, it aims to attain:

  • A growth rate in excess of 4 percent per annum in the agriculture sector
  • Growth that is based on efficient use of resources and conserves our soil, water, and biodiversity
  • Growth with equity, i.e., growth which is widespread across regions and farmers
  • Growth that is demand-driven and caters to domestic markets and maximizes benefits from exports of agricultural products in the face of the challenges arising from economic liberalization and globalization
  • Growth that is sustainable technologically, environmentally, and economically

• Today, India ranks second worldwide in farm output. Agriculture and allied sectors like forestry and fisheries accounted for 16.6% of the GDP in 2009, about 50 % of the total workforce.
• Agriculture, with its allied sectors, is unquestionably the largest livelihood provider in India, more so in the vast rural areas.
• It also contributes a significant figure to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• Sustainable agriculture, in terms of food security, rural employment, and environmentally sustainable technologies such as soil conservation, sustainable natural resource management, and biodiversity protection, are essential for holistic rural development, I
• Indian agriculture and allied activities have witnessed a green revolution.
• Despite record foodgrain production during the course of the past few years, the share of agriculture and allied sectors to India’s gross domestic product (GDP) has declined by more than 4.5% between 2004-05 and 2010-11; while the share of services in the gross domestic product has increased by more than 4.6% during the same period.
• Minimum support price scheme was announced by the government so that farmers get remunerative prices for their produce.
• A centrally sponsored scheme named ‘ Micro Irrigation’ was approved for water management
• Agriculture diversification was recognized as another important sector and thus National Horticulture Mission was approved as a step towards the agriculture diversification
Low productivity – there were several causes of low productivity in India which can be grouped as

1. General factors such as inadequate infrastructure facilities, area of land cultivation per cultivator have declined from .43 hectare in 1901 to .23 hectare in 1981 because of population increase which had a direct impact on productivity. Moreover, dependency on monsoon and traditional system of cultivation further declined the production

2. Industrial factors – Due to small holding of land by farmers and prevailing of zamindari system.

3. Technological factors – Irrigation facilities available were inadequate. Farmers were using poor quality seeds, an old techniques for farming, etc.

13. Measures to improve productivity
Some of the measures to improve agricultural productivity are

  • Farmers should be provided with stable agricultural prices for their agricultural products
  • Adequate marketing facilities
  • Increase educational opportunities
  • Good land use
  • government subsidies
  • Support measures to increase agricultural productivity
  • The land tenure system should be changed in favor of the cultivator.
  • The modem inputs like fertilizers. Pesticides and improved seeds should be made available to the farmers at reasonable prices
  • Conserving and Enhancing Soil and Water

Land reforms – At the time of independence ownership of land was concentrated in the hands of a few. This led to the exploitation of the farmers and was a major hindrance to the socio-economic development of the rural population. Land reforms, therefore, became one of the vital aspects of the agricultural development policy especially after the concept of the Five-Year Plan came to stay. Land reform legislation in India consisted of these main categories:

1. Abolition of intermediaries- The Zamindars acted as the intermediaries. The land was owned by zamindars and, the tenants were burdened with high rents, unproductive cultivation, and other forms of exploitation. By 1972, laws had been passed in all the States to abolish intermediaries. By conferring the ownership of land to the tiller, the Government provided an incentive to improve cultivation.

2. Tenancy reforms to regulate fair rent and provide security to tenure- Towards this end, the Government has taken three measures: (1) declaring tenants as owners and requiring them to pay compensation to owners in suitable installments (2) acquisition of the right of ownership by the State on payment of compensation and transfer of ownership to tenants and (3) the states’ acquisition of the landlords’ rights bring the tenants into direct relationship with the States.

3. Ceilings on holdings and distribution of surplus land among the landlords- With the help of legislation a ceiling for the holding of the agricultural land was announced on zamindars. There were only a few cases where exemptions were provided from the ceiling.

4. Consolidation of holdings and prevention of their further fragmentation – through this land was consolidated in order to give economic holding to farmers. With the help of this method, farmers got one land instead of scattered land.

5. Development of cooperative farming- The Planning Commission in the first three Five Year Plans, chalked out detailed plans for the development of cooperative farming.

14. Green revolution
It was started as a major development in 1967-68. It included the use of high yield seeds, chemicals, fertilizers, improved technology, multiple cropping, etc. This revolution made the country self-sufficient in food grains. The green revolution is still going on with a stress being made on the self-sufficiency in pulses and oilseeds.

15. Globalization and agriculture
Globalization of agriculture means that every country of the world has free access to the markets of other countries for its agricultural products. Globalization of agriculture paved a way to get finance from all over the world for agriculture, to make use of cheap labor that was available in our country, and stand in the global market as a competitor with the use of advanced technology.

Globalization can greatly enhance the role of agriculture as an engine of growth by making it possible for agriculture to grow considerably faster than domestic consumption. It also increases the potential for agriculture to increase food security through enlarged multipliers to the massive, employment-intensive, non-tradable rural non-farm sector.

16. Role of industry
Industrialization is the sharp development of industries in comparison to agriculture. The need and importance of industries can not be denied in any country. The industry supports sustainable growth, maximizes opportunity, and minimizes barriers to growth. Industry development is a key contributing tool to economic development. That is why an emphasis on industrial development was made in various five-year plans.

The planning commission favors industrialization because it is observed that the productivity of labor in industry is much higher than that in agriculture. Industries play a significant and important role for a country like India where there are good natural resources, cheap labor, vast population, etc. which are good enough for industries growth. Thus for a steady and firm development of industries Industrial policy was formed. The 1965 Industrial policy was regarded as the ‘economic constitution of India’
Objectives of the Industrial policy of 1956 were

  • To develop heavy and machine industry
  • To develop a transport system
  • To expand public sector
  • To accelerate the growth and speed of industrialization
  • Industries were divided into Schedule A industries, Schedule B industries, Schedule C industries so that it can be specified that which industries will come under private and which will come under public.
  • 17 industries were put in Schedule A which were in control of the Government
  • 12 industries were put in Schedule B which were to be owned by State
  • Rest industries were in Schedule C which was to be primarily owned by the private sector but was subject to IDRA 1951.
  • To build a cooperative sector
  • – To expand cottage, village, and small-scale industries.

17. Impact of Industries in India
The economic development of any nation totally depends on industries. Growth in the industrial sector is one of the vital figures that affect the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India, industrial sector is crucial to greater economic development and takes in a number of areas as a country develops. India has many favorable factors for the development of industries. The various favorable factors present in the country for the development such as country is rich in natural resources, rich in human resources, rich in commercial crops, such as sugar-cane, raw cotton, raw jute, tobacco, oilseeds, etc.
110 Business Economics Paper 3

18. Industrial policy 1948
In 1948, immediately after Independence, the Government of India introduced the Industrial Policy Resolution 1948.
Industries were grouped into three categories as follows:
(a) Exclusive State Monopoly-This includes the manufacture of arms and ammunition, production and control of atomic energy, and the ownership and management of railway transport. These industries were the exclusive monopoly of the Central Government.

(b) State Monopoly for New Units-This category included coal, iron, and steel, aircraft manufacture, shipbuilding, manufacture of telephone, telegraphs, and wireless (apparatus (excluding radio receiving sets), and mineral oils. Cement

(c) Unregulated private enterprise-the industries in this category were left open to the private sector, individual as well as cooperative such as small, medium, and cottage industries

19. Industrial policy 1977
The small scale sector was classified into three categories:

  • Cottage and small industries providing self-employment on a wide scale;
  • Tiny sectors with investment in machinery and equipment up to Rs. 1 lakh in town areas and Rs.50, 0007- in rural areas; and
  • Small scale sectors with an investment of Rs.10 lakhs and in case of ancillary units with an investment in fixed capital up to us 18 lakhs.
  • district industries center was to be established in each district
  • The Policy also proposed to revitalize the Khadi and village industries by drawing special programs in the Khadi and handloom sectors.

20. Industrial policy 1980
The basic objectives of the 1980 Policy were as follows:

  1. Optimum utilisation of the installed capacity,
  2. Maximizing production and achieving higher productivity,
  3. More employment generation,
  4. Promotion of export-oriented and import-substitution units
  5. Strengthening agricultural base by according preferential treatment to agro-based industries and promoting an inter-sectoral relationship, and
  6. Re-orientation of the public sector undertakings and assistance for the growth of private sectors and promotion of small-scale units.
  7. For setting up a unit or expansion of existing unit license from the Government was required.

21. Industrial policy 1984

  • This policy laid emphasis on liberalization from licensing policy for large enterprises.
  • In January 1986 Government de-licensed 23 industries.
  • Many of the Industries were freed from the provisions of the MRTP Act and FERA.

22. Industrial policy 1990
The features of this policy were

  • to take measures for the promotion of small-scale and agro-based industries and to change procedures for grant of industrial approvals.
  • A new scheme of Central Investment Subsidy exclusively for the small-scale sector in rural and backward areas capable of generating a higher level of employment at lower capital cost would be implemented.
  • A New bank SIDBI was established so that it can provide financial assistance to small scale and agro-based industries

23. Industrial policy 1991
The objective of the Industrial Policy Statement – 1991 was

  • to maintain sustained growth in productivity, enhance gainful employment and achieve
  • optimal utilization of human resources
  • to attain international competitiveness
  • to transform India into a major partner and player in the global arena. The characteristic features of policy were

1. industrial licensing will henceforth be abolished for all industries.

2. Compulsory licensing was required only in respect of 18 industries. These included coal and lignite, distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks, cig; ars and cigarettes, drugs and pharmaceuticals, etc.

3. While freeing Indian industry from official controls, opportunities for promoting foreign investment in India was accorded a significant role.

4. In high-priority industries, requiring large investments and advanced technology, approval for direct foreign investment up to 51% foreign equity in such industries were given.

5. With a view to injecting technological dynamism in the Indian industry, the Government provided automatic approval for technological agreements related to high priority industries and eased procedures for the hiring of foreign technical expertise.

6. A specially empowered Foreign Investment Promotion Board has been constituted to negotiate with international forums to approve direct foreign investment in selected sectors. Restructuring of public sector units (PSUs) was initiated. In order to raise resources and ensure wider public participation in PSUs, it was decided to offer its shareholding stake to mutual funds, financial institutions, the general public, and workers.

Similarly, in order to revive and rehabilitate chronically sick PSUs, it was decided to refer them to the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR).
The MRTP Act will be amended to remove the threshold’ Hits of assets in respect of MRTP companies and dominant undertakings.

Basic Characteristics Of Indian Economy MCQ Questions

Question 1.
The number of products reserved for small scale 6. industry till October 2008 is
a. 35
b. 21
c. 81
d. 106
Answer:
b. 21

Question 2.
For 2010-11 the CSO has predicted India’s GDP growth as
a. below 7%
b. 8.6%
c. 805%
d. 9.5%
Answer:
b. 8.6%

Question 3.
Which of the following occupied the highest place in growth rate during the 10th Plan period 2002-2007?
a. Agricultural Sector
b. Service Sector
c. industrial sector
d. mining
Answer:
b. Service Sector

Question 4.
The agriculture sector registered 1.6% growth in 008-09 and it is estimated for the year 2010-11 at
a. 4.00%
b. 4.30%
c. 5.4%
d. 3.61%
Answer:
c. 5.4%

Question 5.
According to Smal and medium enterprise development Act, the maximum limit for medium enterprise is
a. Rs. 25 Lakhs
b. Rs. 1 Crore
c. Rs. 5 Crore
d. Rs. 10 crore
Answer:
d. Rs. 10 crore

Question 6.
India has
a. Socialistic economy
b. Gandhi an economy
c. Mixed economy
d. free economy
Answer:
c. Mixed economy

Question 7.
In India, the public sector is most dominant in
a. transport
b. Steel production
c. commercial banking
d. organized term lending financial institutions.
Answer:
c. commercial banking

Question 8.
One of the reasons for India’s occupation structure remaining more or less the years has been that
a. a. productivity in agriculture has beer’ high enough to induce people to stay with agriculture.
b. people are largely unaware of the significance of the transition from agriculture tA industry for economic development.
c. investment pattern has been directed towards capital intensive industries.
d ceilings on land holdings have enabled more people to own land and hence their preference to stay with agriculture
Answer:
b. people are largely unaware of the significance of the transition from agriculture tA industry for economic development.

Question 9.
Which of the following is correct regarding the gross domestic savings in India?
a. contribution of Household sector is the largest
b. contribution of the government sector is the largest
c. contribution of the corporate sector is the largest
d. none of these
Answer:
a. contribution of Household sector is the largest

Question 10.
With the development of the economy, the contribution of the primary sector in national income is
a. increasing
b. constant
c. decreasing
d. none of the above
Answer:
c. decreasing

Question 11.
Which are the correct statements?
a. Agriculture and industry are interdependent
b. Agriculture is Basic Components for industrial Development
c. Agriculture if affected by monsoon
d. all of these
Answer:
b. Agriculture is Basic Components for industrial Development

Question 12.
What are the problems of rural industrialization in India?
a. lack of Capital
b. lock of Basic infrastructure
c. The traditional technique of production
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 13.
The main features of the Indian economy is
a. Rural Poverty
b. Lack of Capital
c. Traditional Technique of production
d. None of these
Answer:
d. None of these

Question 14.
Which of the following type of employment is found in India?
a. Structural unemployment
b. quasi unemployment
c. disguised unemployment
d. All of these
Answer:
d. All of these

Question 15.
The objective of land reforms in India is
a. increase in Agriculture Production
b. Social justice with farmer
c. both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Social justice with farmer

Question 16.
For purchasing the seeds, fertilizers, etc the loan distributed is called:
a. Short Term loan
b. long term loan
c. medium-term loan
d. none of these
Answer:
c. medium-term loan

Question 17.
Which of the following are the reasons for the food problem in India?
a. Population expulsion
b. Development of Commercial crops
c. The backwardness of Agriculture
d. All of above
Answer:
c. Backwardness of Agriculture

Question 18.
Main Source of Irrigation in India ls
a. Canals
b. Tanks
c Wells and Tube wells
d. none of these
Answer:
c Wells and Tube wells

Question 19.
The main element of the new Agriculture strategy in India is
a. Agricultural machinery and Tools
b. Finance and marketing
c. Seeds and fertilizer
d. Tenancy and hand reforms
Answer:
c. Seeds and fertilizer

Question 20.
The main Hurdle in steady industrial development in India is
a. Lack of capital
b. insufficient basic infrastructure
c. Limited market
d. technical backwardness
Answer:
c. Limited market

Question 21.
Which of the following were the long-term objectives of economic planning in India up to the 7th plan?
a. economic growth
b. self-reliance
c. Removal of unemployment
d. reduction of income inequalities and elimination of poverty
Answer:
d. reduction of income inequalities and elimination of poverty

Question 22.
In the 5th Plan, though removal of poverty was mentioned as a major objective, only a passing reference was made to the problem.
a. economic inequalities
b. population growth
c. industrial stagnation
d. None of these
Answer:
a. economic inequalities

Question 23.
Until the late 1970s decision-makers in the government and the planning commission were of the view that?
a. Trickle-down effect of growth could alleviate poverty
b. Only special programs can reduce the incidence of poverty in India
c. Land reforms and agricultural development can make a serious dent in the incidence of poverty, as most of the poor reside in rural areas.
Answer:
a. Trickle-down effect of growth could alleviate poverty

Question 24.

Modernization in agriculture implies
a. increased use of fertilizers and HYV seeds
b. extension of irrigation facilities
c. greater mechanization
d. land reforms of these statements
Answer:
c. greater mechanization

Question 25.
The 7th plan development strategy contained some substantive elements of change; these were
1. it gave priority to increasing agricultural production through greater reliance on new technology
2. It undermined the role of the public sector and induced increasing privatization of industries
3. the liberalization of imports it aimed at rearing efficiency in the manufacturing sector
4. planning and administrative procedure and institution were accordingly changed and emphasis was switched from regulate-y to facilitator procedures of this statement:
a. only 1 is correct
b. only 1 and 2
c. only 1, 2 and 3
d. all is correct
Answer:
c. only 1, 2 and 3

Question 26.
Deficit financing contributed to
a. 8.6% of public sector outlay in 8th plan
b. 6.6% of public sector outlay in 8th Plan
c. 4.6% of public sector outlay in 8th Plai
d. none of these
Answer:
a. 8.6% of public sector outlay in 8th plan

Question 27.
The highest allocation of resources in the 8th plan (26.6%) went to?
a. Energy sector
b. Transport and communication
c. S & T and Environment
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Energy sector

Question 28.
Characteristics, which do not describe a nation as underdeveloped are
a. Poor health facilities
b. Good saving
c. Mass poverty
d. Low per capita income
Answer:
b. Good saving

Question 29.
For developing mixed economy of India __________ was done
a. Active role of State was made
b. The role of public and private was established
c. Both a & b
d. Removal of poverty
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 30.
In India to avoid multiplicity of objectives after independence, it determined
a. Priorities in terms of economic worth
b. Socialism pattern of society
c. Adequate means of civilization
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 31.
Which is the most appropriate planning that was required to be done by India after independence?
a. Increase gross domestic saving
b. Increase gross domestic investment
c. Tackling the deficit payment problems
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Increase gross domestic investment

Question 32.
India has ________ polity
a. Federal
b. Democratic
c. Both a&b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a&b

Question 33.
National plan in India comprises
a. Plans of state government
b. Plans for the private sector
c. Plans for public sector undertakings
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 34.
It was not the objective of plans made by the Planning Commission to
a. Increase the income of the rich
b. Increase the income of the poor
c. Decrease the income of the rich
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 35.
In a mixed economy, the common features that led to the failure of Government were
a. Decisions were guided for s,elf interest
b. They were unable to implement their plans quickly
c. There was lack of strong mechanism of economic incentives
d. Both b & c
Answer:
d. Both b & c

Question 36.
Planning commission was set up in
a. March, 1947
b. March, 1950
c. March 1948
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. March, 1950

Question 37.
Formulating five year plan is the work of
a. Government of India
b. State Government
c. Planning commission
d. Central committees
Answer:
c. Planning commission

Question 38.
As per critics the self reliance plan should have been
a. Able to pay for our imports by increasing exports
b. Able to get freedom from imports
c. Able to have a policy for import substitution
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Able to pay for our imports by increasing exports

Question 39.
Growth rate achieve in the first five year plan was _____________ of GDP
a. 2.1%
b. 3.1%
c. 2%
d. 3.6%
Answer:
d. 3.6%

Question 40.
Five MT’s were established in
a. First five year plan
b. Second five year plan
c. Third five year plan
d. Fourth five year plan
Answer:
a. First five year plan

Question 41.
__________ was based on Mahalanobis model
a. Power & Irrigation
b. Communication & transport
c. Agriculture
d. Social service
Answer:
c. Agriculture

Question 42.
First five year plan was based on ________ model
a. Mahalanobis model
b. Harrod damodar model
c. Haron domar model
d. Damodaran model
Answer:
b. Harrod damodar model

Question 43.
Eleventh five year plan emphasized that at least __________ of women &girl children should get the benefit of Government schemes
a. 30%
b. 32%
c. 33%
d. 34%
Answer:
c. 33%

Question 44.
Agricultural based states are
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Haryana
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 45.
Amongst below mentioned which 5 year plan achieved actual growth more than target growth
a. 3rd 5 year plan
b. 2nd 5 year plan
c. 4th 5 year plan
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Questions 46.
The reasons of plan holiday were
a. Lack of power and irrigation
b. Less social services
c. Decrease in savings rate
d. Less land rehabilitation
Answer:
c. Decrease in savings rate

Question 47.
Amongst the five year plans 3 annual plans were adopted and termed as plan holiday. They were
a. 1966-69
b. 1967-70
c. 1965-68
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. 1966-69

Question 48.
Distribution of HYVs of seeds were done in
a. Second five year plan
b. First five tear plan
c. Plan holiday
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Plan holiday

Question 49.
The characteristic features of fourth five year plan were
a. Growth with stability
b. Nationalization of 14 banks
c. Bangladesh liberation war took place
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 50.
For the first time national highway was introduced as a focal work in
a. First five year plan
b. Fifth five year plan
c. Both a &b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Fifth five year plan

Question 51.
Rao and Manmohan economic development plan made
a. Liberalization in India
b. Privatization in India
c. Increasing productivity of small & large farmers
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 52.
On 1st Jan1995
a. India became self reliant for foreign exchange
b. Became member of world trade organization
c. Ninth five year plan was launched
d. Became a member of WHO
Answer:
b. Became member of world trade organization

Question 53.
The declining share of agriculture in Indian economy is an indication of
a. Scarcity of food
b. Economic progress
c. Structural changes
d. Both b & c
Answer:
d. Both b & c

Question 54.
In the current years, it has been observed that there has been a rapid increase in the manufacturing sector. Which of the statement is true?
a. Maximum employment lies with the agriculture
b. Maximum employment lies with the manufacturing sector
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Maximum employment lies with the agriculture

Question 55.
The linkages that can be linked between agriculture and production are
a. Savings and investment linkages
b. Production linkages
c. Commodity
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 56.
A policy was formed by _______ for development in agriculture in such a way that it becomes demand driven and satisfies the demand of the domestic market
a. PDS
b. NAP2000
c. ACRP
d. CACP
Answer:
b. NAP2000

Question 57.
The shortage of finance available to farmers leads to ____________ factors responsible for low productivity of agriculture in India
a. Institutional
b. General
c. Technological
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. General

Question 58.
In the years 2010-11 the contribution of agriculture towards the GDP of the counts was
a. 18.5%
b. 14.2%
c. 20%
d. 14.5%
Answer:
b. 14.2%

Question 59.
Why agriculture is considered as a means of capital formation for the economy
a. It is major source of saving
b. It is a major source of earning
c. It is a large sector of economic activities
d. It has led to the economic progress
Answer:
a. It is major source of saving

Question 60.
Fast economic development of any country can generally happen only
a. When it becomes self sufficient for food
b. When agricultural land has been used to full
c. When there is rapid industrialization
d. When planning commission are set up
Answer:
c. When there is rapid industrialization

Question 61.
Industrialization involves
a. Economic analysis
b. Accountancy
c. Management technique
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 62.
Green revolution started in the year
a. 1967-69 with the production of rice and wheat
b. 1967-69 with the production of wheat and barley
c. 1967-68 with the production of rice and wheat
d. 1967-68 with the production of wheat and barley
Answer:
c. 1967-68 with the production of rice and wheat

Question 63.
Period of 1989-1995 was v
a. Idle as there was political unrest
b. Not idle but there was political unrest
c. There were many changes and there was no political unrest
d. There was political unrest so nothing happened in this period
Answer:
b. Not idle but there was political unrest

Question 64.
Some of the economic policies of Government are
a. Industrial policy
b. Fiscal policy
c. Tariff policy
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 65.
Match the following:

Name of Revolution Name of Related Commodity
1. Green Revolution (i) Sunflower
2. White Revolution (ii) Marine Products
3. Blue Revolution (iii) Agricultural Crops
4. Yellow Revolution (iv) Milk

a. 1. (iv); 2. (iii); 3. (ii); 4. (i)
b. 1. (iii); 2. (iv); 3. (ii); 4. (i)
C. 1. (ii); 2 (iii); 3. (iv); 4. (i)
d. 1. (i); 2. (ii); 3. (iii); 4. (iv)
Answer:
b. 1. (iii); 2. (iv); 3. (ii); 4. (i)
Hint
Green Revolution -The services enhanced by the Green Revolution is in the agriculture sector of Indian economy.
White Revolution – White Revolution in India made our country self-sufficient in milk and this was achieved entirely through the cooperative society.
Blue Revolution – Blue Revolution means the adoption of a programme to increase the production of fish and marine products.
Yellow revolution – This Revolution in India made our country self-sufficient in oil seeds and also net exporter.

Question 66.
The first industrial policy revolution in independent India was announced in the year-
a. 1948
b. 1949
c. 1950
d. 1951
Answer:
a. 1948
Hint
In 1948, immediately after Independence, Government of India introduced the Industrial PolicyResolution 1948.

Question 67.
The growth strategy adopted in Indias Second Five Year Plan put more emphasis on the growth of-
a. Consumer goods industries
b. Industries producing luxuries and comforts
c. Light capital goods industries
d. Heavy and basic industries
Answer:
d. Heavy and basic industries
Hint
The Second Five year Plan focused mainly on heavy industry as against the First Plan which was essentially an agricultural plan.

Question 68.
Heavy inflows of foreign direct investment to India took place during the period:
a. 1950to 1970
b. 1960to 1975
c. 1980to1995
d. 1995to2010
Answer:
c. 1980to1995
Hint
Heavy inflows of foreign direct investment to India took place during the period 1980-1995

Question 69.
Purchase of equity shares in an Indian joint stock company by a foreigner constitute:-
a. Foreign direct investment
b. Portfolio investments
c. Green investments
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Foreign direct investment
Hint
A foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment made by a company or entity based in one country, into a company or entity based in another country.

Question 70.
The time period which is called a “Plan Holiday” is
a. 1961 -1966
b. 1966-1969
c. 1969-1974
d. 1974-1979
Answer:
b. 1966-1969
Hint
Looking at the failures of the third five year plan the planners suspended the impending Fourth Plan, which was due in 1966, until 1969 for a revision of objectives and targets. This came to be called as the ‘Plan Holiday’ extending from 1 April 1966 to 31 March 1969.

Question 71.
The contribution of the agricultural sector to India’s national income in recent years has been about—
a. 50%
b. 30%
c. 25%
d. 15%
Answer:
a. 50%
Hint
Recently the contribution of agricultural sector in national income has been 50%.

Question 72.
Integration of domestic economy with the world economy is called as-
a. Disinvestment
b. Privatization
c. Liberalization
d. Globalization
Answer:
d. Globalization
Hint
Globalisation is the process of international integration arising from the interchange of world views, products, ideas and mutual sharing, and other aspects of culture.

Question 73.
Which one of the following is not true about the Indian economy?
a. Indian population has been rising
b. Output of cereals has been rising
c. Rate of growth of India’s population has been rising
d. The share of work force engaged in agriculture has been falling.
Answer:
b. Output of cereals has been rising
Hint
Agriculture contributes to about 50 % in national income and in year 2009-10 it has come down to 17%.

Question 74.
If the rate of inflation falls down from the current 8% to 6%, the price of your favourite ice-cream may-
a. Fall
b. Rise
c. Remain unchanged
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Rise
Hint
Inflation is defined as a sustained increase in the general level of prices for goods and services.

Question 75.
The current economic crises in the Euro-zone and the USA have led to-
a. Serious inflation in India
b. Significant fall in the volume of exports from India
c. Heavy fall in agricultural output
d. Sharp rise in the cost of production in the Indian industry.
Answer:
b. Significant fall in the volume of exports from India
Hint
Economic crisis in Europe arise as many of the European member countries were not able to repay or refinance government debt.

Question 76.
Fiscal deficit in India, currently, is financed by
a. Selling the equity in PSUs
b. Raising the interest rates
c. Raising the rate of different taxes
d. Printing of new currency
Answer:
c. Raising the rate of different taxes
Hint
The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed as fiscal deficit.

Question 77.
Which of the following is classified as a development bank in India?
a. IOBI Bank
b. ICICI Bank
c. Axis Bank
d. IFCI
Answer:
a. IOBI Bank
Hint
IDBI is known as Industrial Development Bank of India.

Question 78.
Which of the following does not have a fixed tenure?
a. Planning Commission
b. Finance Commission
c. Five year Plan
d. Foreign Trade Policy
Answer:
d. Foreign Trade Policy

Question 79.
NPP was started in which year?
a. 2000
b. 1994
C. 1990
d. 1895
Answer:
a. 2000

Question 80.
Who formulated the first 5 year plan?
a. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Abdul Jamal Naseer
c. Broz Tilto
d. None of these
Answer:
d. None of these
Hint
The first five year plan had been made by the planning commission whose objective was to improve the standard of living of the people by effective use of the country’s resources.

Question 81.
Green Revolution was started in :-.
a. First five years plan
b. Second five years plan
c. Third five years plan
d. Seventh five years plan
Answer:
c. Third five years plan
Hint
Green revolution was started as a major development in 1967-68.

Question 82.
Who was the founder of Green Revolution?
a. Norman & Borlang
b. M.S. Swaminathan
c. Joseph Stalin
d. Indira Gandhi
Answer:
b. M.S. Swaminathan
Hint
M.S. Swaminathan is known as “Indian Father of Green Revolution”

Question 83.
When was planning commission started?
a. March, 1950
b. January, 1951
c. February, 1952
d. December, 1951
Answer:
a. March, 1950
Hint
India made a planning commission in March 1950 by a regulation of Government of India.

Question 84.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Privatization up to 100 percent has been carried out in all PSU’s in India.
b. Disinvestment never happens in India
c. The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
d. Under strategic sale market of disinvestment the government sells a major share to strategic buyer.
Answer:
d. Under strategic sale market of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to strategic buyer.
Hint
Disinvestment is an action of an organization or Government in which it liquidates its assets.

Question 85.
The area under irrigation has __________ over the years in India.
a. Remained Constant
b. Decreased
c. Increased
d. First Increased and then Decreased
Answer:
c. Increased
Hint
In 2003 agricultural irrigated land was 29.88% of total agricultural land and in 2010 it was 35.19% which shows that irrigation has increased over the years.

Question 86.
Which of the following Defines Subsistence?
a. Absence of the minimum physical quantities of food required for an individual daily.
b. Absence of good home facilities for an individual
c. Absence of basic cloth availability for an individual
d. All of these
Answer:
d. All of these
Hint
Subsistence agriculture is self-sufficiency farming in which the farmers focus on growing enough food to feed themselves and their families.

Question 87.
In India, which of the following is a reason of failure to achieve industrial production target?
a. Poor planning
b. Power, finance and labour problems
c. Technical complication
d. All are applicable
Answer:
d. All are applicable
Hint
Causes of failure to achieve industrial production targets are

  • lack of finance
  • lack of labour
  • poor planning
  • inadequate infrastructure
  • lack of technology

Question 88.
On which date the first five years plan of India was presented to the parliament?
a. 8 – Aug – 51
b. 8 -Dec-47
c. 8 – Dec – 51
d. 8 – Aug – 47
Answer:
c. 8 – Dec – 51
The first five year plan were presented by Jawahar lal Nehru on 8th December 1951 to the Parliament.

Question 89.
Which of the following was not a part of green revolution?
a. Food grain export
b. Pesticides
c. High yielding variety seeds
d. Fertilizers
Answer:
a. Food grain export
Hint
Green revolution -It was started as a major, development in 1967-68. It included use of high yield seeds, chemicals, fertilizers , improved technology, multiple cropping, etc.. This revolution made the country self-sufficient in food grains.

Question 90.
Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Disinvestment never happens in India
b. Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to strategic buyer.
c. Privatisation upto 100 percent has been carried out in allthe PSUs in India
d. The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India.
Answer:
b. Under strategic sale method of disinvestment the government sells a major share to strategic buyer.
Hint
Disinvestment is an action of an organization or Government in which it liquidates its assets .

Question 91.
Which of the following is a basic objective of five year plans in India?
a. Social Justice
b. Rapid Economic growth
c. Full employment
d. All are applicable.
Answer:
d. All are applicable.
Hint
Planning Commission concerns itself with the building of a long term strategic vision of the future and decide on priorities of nation. It works out sectoral targets and provides promotional stimulus to the economy to grow in the desired direction.

Question 92.
Which of the following is a reason for the industrial sector to depend on the agriculture sector?
a. The agriculture sector provides food and other products for the consumption purposes of industrial sector
b. The agriculture sector provides raw materials for the development of agro based industries of the economy.
c. The agriculture sector provides market for the industrial products
d. All are applicable.
Answer:
d. All are applicable.
Hint
India has many favourable factors for the development of industries. The various favourable factors present in the country for the development such as country is rich in natural resources, rich in human resources. Rich in commercial crops, such as sugar-cane, raw cotton, raw jute, tobacco, oil seeds, etc. All these agricultural products are used by Industries.

CS Foundation Business Economics Notes

Theory of Production, Costs and Revenue – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Theory of Production, Costs and Revenue – CS Foundation Economics Notes

1. Production
An economic term is to describe the inputs that are used in the production of goods or services in an attempt to make an economic profit. Things that are brought by producers for production are called input and the final goods or services are called production. The demand for a factor of production is a derived demand, meaning that the firm’s demand for a factor of production is derived from its decision to supply goods in another market. Factors of production – The term factors of production relates to the key factors that go into making goods. The resources that are required for production can be divided into four major groups.

  • Land
  • Capital
  • Labour
  • Entrepreneurship

Land – It is a natural resource that can not be created. It includes the resources that are above ground (climate, rain, etc.), resources that are below the ground (mineral resources, etc.), and resources on the ground (agricultural land, etc.). It is a primary but passive factor in production. It is primary in nature because production can not begin unless this resource is present but passive because it is dependent on other factors of production.
The characteristic feature of land are that

  • it has no social cost as we did not create it we got it free
  • the land is perfectly inelastic and is immobile

Capital-It is like a backbone for production. It includes machines, tools, etc. It is income, assets, money, everything that helps in the creation of input. It is a manufacturing resource. Land and labor are combined with manufactured resources in order to produce the things that we desire. These manufactured resources are called capital.
Certain features of capital are that

  • it is perfectly elastic
  • mobile and unlike labor, it can be increased as well as stored.

Labour – In order to produce the things we desire, a human resource must be used. That human resource consists of the productive contributions of labor made by individuals who work—for example, steelworkers, ballet dancers, etc. It is only human activity that is included thus the work performed by machines or animals is not included. Certain features of labor are that

  • it is inelastic, cannot be increased beyond its availability.
  • It is a mobile and active factor and can not be stored.

Entrepreneurship – There is, in effect, the fourth type of input used in production. It is a special type of human resource; it consists of entrepreneurial ability or entrepreneurship. Entrepreneurship is associated with the founding of new businesses or the introduction of new products and new techniques. The entrepreneur also takes on all of the risks and rewards of the business. He is the person who uses all the other uses to make the production of goods are reality.

2. Theory of production
In economics, an effort to explain the principles by which a business firm decides how much of each commodity that it sells (its “outputs” or “products”) it will produce, and how much of each kind of labor, raw material, fixed capital good, etc., that it employs (its “inputs” or “factors of production”) it will use. The theory involves some of the most fundamental principles of economics. These include the relationship between the prices of commodities and the prices of the productive factors used to produce them. It determines how the producer Production function – The production function relates the output of a firm to the number of inputs, typically capital and labor. It is important to keep in mind that the production function describes the technology, not economic behavior. It states how the desired output can be produced with the minimum input. There are two types of the production function
Y = F (K, L)
Y is the maximal amount of output that is possible to produce given the quantities of the inputs, capital, K, and labor, L. There are two types of the production function
(1) Short-run production function
(2) Long-run production function
1. Short run production function – in this capital input is fixed thus we are required to consider the change of labor.
Thus Y= F (K,L) only L will change
2. Long run production function – in this quantity of all the variables can be changed
Thus Y= F (K,L) K, L both can be changed.
There are two alternative theories for these production functions.

  • – Law of Diminishing Returns
  • – Law of Returns to scale Law of diminishing return
    The law of diminishing returns is a classic economic concept that states that as more investment in an area is made, overall return on that investment increases at a declining rate, assuming that all variables remain fixed. Features of law are
  • – When one variable is increased keeping all other variables constant than the output of production increases till some particular point and diminishes after that.
  • – To continue to make an investment after a certain point (which varies from context to context) is to receive a decreasing return on that input.
  • – It is also known as Law of variable proportions because as the input of one variable i§ increased its proportion with other fixed variable changes.
  • – This law is applied to short-run production.
  • – Alfred Marshall agreed to the law of diminishing return Assumptions of law

The assumptions of the law of diminishing returns are as follows:

  • Units of capital and labor are used as variable factors.
  • The prices of the factors do not change.
  • All units of variable factors are equally efficient.
  • There is no change in the technique of production.
  • The best combination of factors of production has crossed the level of optimum point.
  • There is no change in the fixed factor of production.
  • Law operates in short-run

Consider a factory that employs laborers to produce its product. If all other factors of production remain constant, at some point each additional laborer will provide less output than the previous laborer. At this point, each additional employee provides less and less return. If new employees are constantly added, the plant will eventually become so crowded that additional workers actually decrease the efficiency of the other workers, decreasing the production of the factory.
There are three stages in the law of variable proportion

(1) Stage of increasing returns – in this stage total product is increasing and continues to increase till the end of this stage along with this marginal product as well as average products are also increasing

(2) Stage of diminishing returns – at the end of this stage marginal product becomes zero. Total product and average product are also declining. It is called the stage of diminishing returns because all three total products (TP), marginal product (MP), and average product (AP) are declining.

(3) Stage of negative returns – Here marginal product becomes negative while total product and average product are still declining.
In the stage of diminishing returns there comes a point where total production is maximum and marginal production is zero. This stage is the most fruitful stage for the production.

3. Law of returns to scale
The law of returns to scale is concerned with the scale of production. The scale of production of a firm is determined by the amount of factors units.

Changes in production occur when all resources are proportionately changed in the long run. Returns to scale come in three forms—increasing, decreasing, or constant based on whether the changes in production are proportionally more than, less than, or equal to the proportional changes in inputs. Returns to scale are the guiding principle for long-run production, playing a similar role that the law of diminishing marginal returns plays for short-run production.

Increasing returns to scale – here when the inputs are increased in a given proportion the output increases in a greater proportion. Thus if the increase in output is 20 % output increases more than 20 %. The constant return to scale -Here with the increase in input-output also increases in the same proportion. Thus if the input is increased by 20% then output also increase by 20%

Decreasing returns to scale – Here with the increase in input there is a decrease in output thus returns to scale are diminishing.
Suppose, for example, that The Willy Company employs 1,000 workers in a 5,000 square foot factory to produce 1 million Stuffed potatoes each month. Returns to scale indicate what happens to production if the scale of operation expands to 2,000 workers in a 10,000 square foot factory-a doubling of the inputs.

If production increases to exactly 2 million Stuffed potatoes, twice the original quantity, then The Wacky Willy Company has constant returns to scale. If production increases by more than 2 million Stuffed potatoes, then The Willy Company has increasing returns to scale. And if production increases by less than 2 million Stuffed potatoes, then The Willy Company has decreasing returns to scale.

4. Theory of costs
In economics, the cost of production theory of value is the theory that the price of an object or condition is determined by the sum of the cost of the resources that went into making it. Cost is the value at which the product can be sold in the market. The cost can be determined by checking the cost of the production of good or services which includes the cost of all the inputs like land, labor etc., cost may be analyzed in two ways.

  • Short run costs
  • Long run costs Short run costs

In the short run, because at least one factor of production is fixed, output can be increased only by adding more variable factors. Hence we consider both fixed and variable costs. We use short run costs primarily to compute how much to produce while maximizing profits. New firms do not enter the industry, and existing firms do not exit.
(i) Fixed costs- Fixed costs are business expenses that do not vary directly with the level of output i.e. they are treated as independent of the level of production. Examples of fixed costs include the rental costs of buildings
(ii) Total cost curve – it comprises of total cost as well as total variable cost.
(iii) TFC – If output is taken on x axis and cost on y axis than total fixed cost curve is parallel to x axis.
(iv) TVC – the variable cost curve is positively related and moves up as variable cost increases. It’s origin is from zero.
(v) Total cost = TFC+TVC
Thus total cost curve is also positive in nature. .
(vi) Average cost curve – It has two categories average fixed cost and average variable cost.
(vii) AFC- it declines with the increase in output. It is rectangular hyperbola (viii) AVC – it first falls and then increases . the curve shape is like U.
Average cost curve lies above average variable cost curve
(ix) Marginal cost curve – since total fixed cost does not change in short run so marginal cost curve is dependent only on average variable cost. Thus marginal cost curve (MC) is also U shaped. MC curve lies below AVC.
Long run costs
In long run the firm can change all the inputs quantity so the cost of all input is variable. To make their long-run decisions firms look at the costs of various inputs and the technologies available for combining these inputs and then decide which combination offers the lowest cost. Characteristic features of long run costs are
As per classical approach TC increases with an increase in output, thus TC curve is straight line. Also AC and MC remains constant throughout.
As per modem economic theory firm experiences varying returns of scale. The shape of the long-run cost curve is due to the existence of economies and diseconomies of scale. The law of diminishing marginal productivity does not hold in the long run. The shape of the long-run cost curve is due to the existence of economies and diseconomies of scale. There is an envelope relationship between long-run and short-run average total costs.

  • Each short-run cost curve touches the long-run cost curve at only one point.
  • Thus If producing each unit of output becomes less costly there are economies of scale.
  • And if producing each unit of output becomes more costly there are diseconomies of scale.
  • If unit costs remain constant as output rises then there are constant returns to scale.

5. Theory of revenue
The income received by firm on selling the goods or services over a certain period of time is revenue Revenue may be measured in three ways:
Total Revenue (TR)
Average Revenue (AR)
Marginal Revenue (MR)
Total revenue – it is the total amount generated by the firm by selling all the quantity of output.
TR = quantity sold x price per unit
Average revenue – it is calculated by dividing total revenue by quantity to get price per unit
Marginal revenue – MR is the extra revenue that a firm gains when it sells one more unit of a product in a given time period. It is the ratio of change in total revenue to change in total units sold.
Different relationship between MR, AR and TR graphically For first unit
MR = AR = TR After that
When MR is positive TR slopes upwards When MR below X axis TR slopes downwards.
AR if parallel to X axis than MR also parallel to X axis
If AR is straight line than MR curve will bisect each perpendicular distance of it from Y axis.
Kinked demand curve – According to the kinked demand theory, each firm will face two market demand curves for its product. At high prices, the firm faces the relatively elastic market demand At low prices, the firm faces the relatively inelastic market demand curve The two market curve intersect and form kinked demand curve. In such cases AR falls in straight line with 2 unequal slopes and 2 segments. Since the slopes of AR are unequal so they cause a jink and as a result kinked demand curve is formed.

6. Producers equilibrium
Producer’s equilibrium refers to the level of output of a commodity that gives the maximum profit to the producer of that commodity. Therefore, the output level at which ‘total revenue less total cost’ is maximum is called the equilibrium output level. According to this approach there are two conditions of producer’s equilibrium

  • TR-TC Approach.
  • MR-MC Approach

TR-TC Approach – A point where the difference between total revenue and total cost is maximum is the equilibrium point. The total revenue (TR) minus total cost (TC) method (TR – TC) relies on the fact that profit is equal to the difference between revenue and costs MR-MC Approach – As per this approach a firm will adjust the quantity of output it supplies until finding a point where the marginal revenue associated with selling that quantity is equal to the marginal cost of producing that quantity. That is, the firm will produce where MR = MC.

(1) MR-MC
When one more unit of output is produced, MR is the gain and MC is the cost to the producer. Clearly, so long as benefit is greater than the cost, or MR is greater than MC, it is profitable to produce more. Therefore, so long as MR is greater than MC, the maximum profit level, or the equilibrium level is not reached. The equilibrium is not achieved because it is possible to add to profits by producing more. The producer is also not in equilibrium when MR is less than MC because benefit is less than the cost. By producing less the producer can add to his profits. When MC is equal to MR, the benefit is equal to cost, the producer is in equilibrium subject to that MC becomes greater than MR beyond this level of output.

(2) MC is greater than MR after MC = MR output level
‘MC = MR’ is a necessary condition but not sufficient enough to ensure equilibrium. It is because the producer may face more than one MC =MR outputs. But out of these only that output beyond which MC becomes greater than MR is the equilibrium output. It is because if MC is greater than MR, producing beyond MC = MR output will reduce profits. And when it is no longer possible to add to profits the maximum profit level is reached. On the other hand, if MC is less than MR beyond the MC = MR output, it is possible to add to profits by producing more. Therefore this MC = MR level is not the equilibrium level. For a producer to be in equilibrium it is necessary that MC equals MR as well MC becomes greater than MR if more output is produced.

7. Economies and diseconomies of scale
There are benefits and drawbacks in increasing the size of operation of a business. Economies of scale are the cost advantage from business expansion. As some firms grow in size their unit costs begin to fall. A business can become so large that its unit costs begin to rise. Expanding firms can experience diseconomies of scale

8. Economies of scale
It is reduction in cost of production with increase in firm size which may be due to several reasons like administrative economies or bulk purchasing making the cost more efficient and many more.

Example: Assume you are a small business owner and are considering printing a marketing brochure. The printer quotes a price of Rs. 5,000 for 500 brochures, and Rs. 10,000 for 2,500 copies. While 500 brochures will cost you RslO per brochure, 2,500 will only cost you Rs. 4 per brochure. In this case, the printer is passing on part of the cost advantage of printing a larger number of brochures to you. This cost advantage arises because the printer has the same initial set-up cost regardless of whether the number of brochures printed is 500 or 2,500. Once these costs are covered, there is only a marginal extra cost for printing each additional brochure. _
It is divided into two categories

Internal economies of scale – They occur due to indigenous causes. Internal economies of scale arise when firms increase their scale of production. Hence, they incur lower average costs of production, either through specialization or other factors like increase in borrowing power of larger organisation, better utilization of inputs due to technical up gradation, advertising, marketing etc. When average costs fall, giving the price of the good to be constant, profit margins of these firms will be increased. Thus, the individual firm benefits from internal economies of scale. Internal economies of scale affect the firm’s average cost curve by shifting the initial position to the right along the curve.

External economies of scale – The lowering of a firm’s costs due to external factors. There are some external factors that affect the firm such as some research and development in industry. This research and development is going to help whole industry and a single firm of that industry gets the benefit which may help to reduce its cost. External economies of scale will increase the productivity of an entire industry, geographical area or economy. The external factors are outside the control of a particular company and encompass positive externalities that reduce the firm’s costs. Another factor which can*be discussed is getting the information which is a requirement for the whole industry, if this information is collectively collected than it is cheaper than a firm individually trying to get it. Thus getting the information cheaply affects the firm’s production.

9. Diseconomies of scale
After reaching a certain size, it becomes increasingly expensive to manage a gigantic organization for a number of reasons, including its complexity, bureaucratic nature and operating inefficiencies. This undesirable phenomenon is referred to as “diseconomies of scale” Internal Diseconomies of scale -When a firm expands its production scale beyond a certain level, it suffers certain disadvantages. These disadvantages are called internal diseconomies of scale. The result of this diseconomy of scale is a fall in output and an increase in the long-run average cost. There are a number of factors that might give rise to inefficiencies as the size of the firm grows,

As the size of the firm grows beyond a certain level, organization, control, and planning is needed. This makes the administrative duties more difficult. Delegation of much of the management functions to lower personnel becomes very common. Since this personnel lacks the requisite experience to undertake the task, it may result in low output at a higher cost. Again it is often difficult to arrive at quick decisions since large firm often has many entrepreneurs and directors through whom suggestions must pass before they are implemented. All these lead to an increase in the long-run average cost.

External Diseconomies of Sca/e-External factors beyond the control of a company increase its total costs, as output in the rest of the industry increases. The increase in costs can be associated with market prices increasing for some or all of the factors of production. External diseconomies are costs that are outside the control of a single firm and result of the growth of a specific industry. For example, negative externalities, such as road congestion, can result from the growth of an industry in a specific region. Resources may become exhausted and the price of resources may rise as demand outstrips supply.

Theory of Production, Costs and Revenue MCQ Questions

Question 1.
Production is
a. Creation of something
b. Creation of value
c. Creation of Utility
d. Both b& c
Answer:
d. Both b& c

Question 2.
Characteristic feature Uncommon with the primary production of function are
a. It costs money
b. It is inelastic
c. It is immobile
d. It needs Labour
Answer:
a. It costs money

Question 3.
______________ is Not present in the feature of labour
a. Active factor
b. Mobile factor
c. Elastic factor
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Mobile factor

Question 4.
If 1 orchard, 7 workers, and 3 tons of fertilizer yield 1,000 bushels of peaches, while 1 orchard, 7 workers, and 4 tons of fertilizer yield 1,300 bushels,
a. The average product of labor equal 1,150 bushels.
b. The marginal product of labor cannot be calculated.
c. The average product of fertilizer equals 1,150 bushels.
d. The marginal product of fertilizer cannot be calculated
Answer:
b. The marginal product of labor cannot be calculated.

Question 5.
Which of the following statement best describes the general form of a production function?
(i) It is a purely technological relationship between quantities of input and quantities of output.
(ii) It represents the technology of an organization, sector of an economy
(iii) Prices of inputs or of the output do not enter into the production function
(iv) It is flow concept describing the transformation of inputs into output per unit of time.
a. (i), (ii) and (iv)
b. (i) and (ii)
c. (i) and (iv)
d. all of the above
Answer:
d. all of the above

Question 6.
Marginal cost is:
a. the change in cost following a managerial decision
b. the change in output following a one dollar change in cost.
c. The change in cost following a unit change in output
d. The change in average cost following a one- unit change in output
Answer:
c. The change in cost following a unit change in output

Question 7.
The breakeven level of output occurs when
a. marginal cost equals marginal revenue
b. marginal cost equals marginal revenue.
c. Marginal profit equals zero.
d. Total profit equals zero.
Answer:
d. Total profit equals zero.

Question 8.
If there is an increase in the costs of production it will lead to
a. shift demand curve outwards
b. shift demand curve inwards
c. shift supply outwards and other things unchanged
d. shift supply inwards.
Answer:
d. shift supply inwards.

Question 9.
There is an increase in price but all other things
are unchanged. This will lead to:
a. A shift in supply outwards
b. A shift in supply inwards
c. There is no change in supply
d. An extension of supply
Answer:
d. An extension of supply

Question 10.
A country enjoys a comparative advantage over
another country in producing oil when
a. it has more oil than the other country.
b. It can produce oil at a lower opportunity cost than the other country
c. It does not need to import oil.
d. It wants to export oil as much as it has
Answer:
b. It can produce oil at a lower opportunity cost than the other country

Question 11.
For a given short-run production, function
a. technology is assumed to change as capital stock changes.
b. Technology is assumed to change as the labor input changes.
c. Technology is considered to be constant for a given production function relationship
d. Technology is assumed to change positively until diminishing return set in and then it changes in the other direction.
Answer:
c. Technology is considered to be constant for a given production function relationship

Question 12.
Suppose a firm is using two inputs, labor and capital. What will happen if the price of labor falls?
a. The firm’s average cost curve will shift downward.
b. The firm’s marginal cost curve will shift downward.
c. To produce an unchanged output, the firm would use more labor
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a reason for the existence of economies of large scale production?
a. bulk buying;
b. small markets;
c. specialized workers;
d. costs not increasing in proportion to volume or output;
Answer:
b. small markets;

Question 14.
Average fixed cost
a. is U-shaped.
b. Declines over the entire output range.
c. Is a long-run concept only.
d. Is influenced by diminishing returns to production.
Answer:
b. Declines over the entire output range.

Question 15.
if average total cost is 100 for a given output and marginal cost is 70, we then know that average fixed cost is
a. 30.
b. 170.
c. 70.
d. Not possible to determine with the information given.
Answer:
d. Not possible to determine with the information given.

Question 16.
Which of the following statements about the relationship between marginal cost and average cost is correct?
a. when MC is falling, AC is falling.
b. AC equals MC and MC’s lowest point.
c. When MC exceeds AC, MC must be rising.
d. When AC exceeds MC, MC must be rising.
Answer:
c. When MC exceeds AC, MC must be rising.

Question 17.
The slope of the total variable cost curve equals
a. average variable cost.
b. Marginal cost.
c. Average cost.
d. Marginal physical product.
Answer:
b. Marginal cost.

Question 18.
X believed that if people were free to pursue their own interests, then
a. greed and cheating would prevail in the market.
b. Less would be produced than if altruism were our guiding principle
c. They would generally be encouraged to produce goods and services that other valued highly (relative to their costs).
d. The public interest would be best served, but the interests of employees would be hurt.
Answer:
c. They would generally be encouraged to produce goods and services that other valued highly (relative to their costs).

Question 19.
An increase in wages will lead the aggregate supply curve to
a. Remains unchanged.
b. Shift outward.
c. Shift inward
d. Becomes flat
Answer:
c. Shift inward

Question 20.
An increase or decrease in consumption of a goods or services is termed as.
a. Marginal utility
b. Revenue curves.
c. Producer’s equilibrium.
d. Total utility
Answer:
a. Marginal utility

Question 21.
The total cost (TC) of producing sports shoes (Q) is given as TC – 200 + 5 Q. What is the variable cost?
a. 5Q
b. 5
c. 5+ (200/Q)
d. 200
Answer:
a. 5Q

Question 22.
The typical production possibilities curve is:
a. an upsloping line that is concave to the origin.
b. A downsloping line that is convex to the origin
c. A downsloping line that is concave to the origin
d. A straight upsloping line
Answer:
c. A downsloping line that is concave to the origin

Question 23.
When per unit price goes up as output is increased it is
a. Diseconomies of scale
b. Economies of scale
c. Production cost
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Diseconomies of scale

Question 24.
In the presence of a diminishing marginal rate of technical substitution between labour and capital, output can be kept unchanged only if
a. equal successive sacrifices of capital go hand in hand with even small increases of labor
b. equal successive sacrifices of capital go hand in hand with ever small increases of labor
c. equal successive increases in labor go hand in hand with ever small increases in capital
d. equal successive increases in labor go hand in hand in hand with ever small sacrifices of capital
Answer:
d. equal successive increases in labor go hand in hand in hand with ever small sacrifices of capital

Question 25.
A movement along the demand curve drawn in quantity-price space to the left may because by
a. an increase in supply
b. a rise in income.
c. A rise in the price of complementary good
d. A fall in the number of substitute goods
Answer:
a. an increase in supply

Question 26.
The output where diminishing returns to production begin is also the output where
a. marginal cost is at a minimum
b. average total cost is at a minimum
c. average variable costs is at a minimum
d. marginal and average cost intersects.
Answer:
a. marginal cost is at a minimum

Question 27.
Which of the following statements about marginal cost is incorrect?
a. A U-shaped marginal cost curve implies the existence of diminishing returns over all ranges of output.
b. When marginal cost equals averages cost, average cost is at tits minimum
c. In the short run, the shape of the marginal cost curve is due to the law of diminishing marginal returns.
d. When marginal cost is falling, total cost is rising
Answer:
a. A U-shaped marginal cost curve implies the existence of diminishing returns over all ranges of output.

Question 28.
Which of the following statements about the relationship between marginal cost and average cost is correct?
a. when MC is falling, AC is falling
b. AC equals MC and MC’s lowest point.
c. When MC exceeds AC, must be rising
d. When AC exceeds MC, MC must be rising
Answer:
c. When MC exceeds AC, must be rising

Question 29.
In the short run, diminishing marginal returns are implied by
a. rising marginal cost
b. Rising average cost
c. Rising average variable cost
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. rising marginal cost

Question 30.
Because of fixed cost
a. Marginal cost almost always begins below average total cost
b. Marginal cost is always equal to Total average cost
c. Marginal cost is always above total cost
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Marginal cost almost always begins below average total cost

Question 31.
If an economy is operating at a point inside the production possibilities curve,
a. its resources are being wasted.
b. The curve will begin to shift inward.
c. The curve will begin to shift outward.
d. This is a trick question because an economy cannot produce at a point inside the curve
Answer:
a. its resources are being wasted.

Question 32.
In any production process the marginal product of labour equals
a. total output divided by total labour inputs.
b. Total output minus the total capital stock.
c. The change in total output resulting from a small change on the labour input
d. Total output produced by labour inputs
Answer:
c. The change in total output resulting from a small change on the labour input

Question 33.
If a new motorway is built near to a company, thus reducing its costs, this is an example of:
a. commercial economies of scale
b. Financial economies of scale
c. Managerial economies of scale
d. External economies of scale
Answer:
d. External economies of scale

Question 34.
Which one of the following is correct in a situation of diminishing marginal returns to labour?
a. Productions remains unchanged
b. Production is increasing
c. Production is decreasing
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Production is increasing

Question 35.
Supply of labour includes
a. Duration for which they work
b. Intensity with which they work
c. Their efficiency
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 36.
Capital includes
a. assets
b. money
c. entrepreneurship
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 37.
It is Not uncommon for the characteristic feature found in Capital
a. elasticity
b. gift of nature
c. mobile factor
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 38.
In the production equation Qx = f(L,K,T ———–n), L is
a. Labour
b. Level of technology
c. Loyalty
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Labour

Question 39.
When output increases in greater proportion to input it is
a. Constant returns to scale
b. Increasing return to scale
c. Diminishing return to scale
d. all of the above
Answer:
a. Constant returns to scale

Question 40.
As per MR MC approach two conditions are required for a firm to be in equilibrium
a. Marginal revenue should be equal to marginal cost
b. Marginal cost curve should cut marginal revenue curve from below
c. Both a& b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a& b

Question 41.
Which of the following best describes the law of diminishing marginal returns when an employee is increased?
a. Marginal product of the new employee will be more then that of the previous employee.
b. Marginal product of the new employee will be less then the previous employee.
c. It will remain unchanged
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Marginal product of the new employee will be less then the previous employee.

Question 42.
Price exceeds Average variable cost but is smaller than average Total cost at the optimum level of output, the firm is
a. making a profit and should continue to produce
b. incurring a loss but should continue to produce
c. incurring a loss and should stop producing immediately
d. break even and maintain current output
Answer:
b. incurring a loss but should continue to produce

Question 43.
The wages paid out to casual workers can be considered
a. at fixed cost
b. at variable cost
c. partly at variable and partly at fixed cost
d. at opportunity cost
Answer:
b. at variable cost

Question 44.
Which of the following industries most closely approximates perfectly competitive market in India?
a. automobile
b. newspapers
c. beverages
d. sachet pure water
Answer:
d. sachet pure water

Question 45.
The following are some of the economic factors influencing the location of an enterprise in India except
a. nearest to state capital
b. availability of raw materials
c. nearest to power supply
d. availability of transportation system
Answer:
a. nearest to state capital

Question 46.
Average cost is defined as
a. Average cost divided by marginal cost.
b. total cost divided by total output
c. total output divided by average cost
d. total output times marginal cost
Answer:
b. total cost divided by total output

Question 47.
The marginal cost when output = 10 is equal to
a. the slope of a line drawn tangent to the total cost curve where output = 10.
b. The total cost of 10 units of output divided by its average cost.
c. The average cost of 10 units
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. The average cost of 10 units

Question 48.
How will a decrease in the equilibrium price in the market of a perfectly competitive industry affect the total revenue of a typical firm
a. Both total revenue and economic profit will increase at all rates of output
b. Both total revenue and economic profit will remain same
c. Both total revenue and economic profit will decrease at all rates of output
d. None of the above are true
Answer:
c. Both total revenue and economic profit will decrease at all rates of output

Question 49.
The perfectly competitive firm’s short run supply curve is same as the
a. total revenue
b. Supply of other firms in the industry
c. Upward sloping portion of its marginal cost curve at or above minimum AVC curve
d. Upward sloping portion of its MR curve
Answer:
c. Upward sloping portion of its marginal cost curve at or above minimum AVC curve

Question 50.
If average cost is at a minimum, then
a. it is equal to marginal cost.
b. Total cost is also at a minimum
c. Profit is at a maximum
d. All of the above are true
Answer:
d. All of the above are true

Question 51.
The marginal principle asserts that, in general, the net benefit is maximized when
a. total benefit will be equal to total cost.
b. Average benefit will be equal to average cost.
c. Marginal benefit will be equal to average cost.
d. Average cost will be above total cost but below average benefit.
Answer:
c. Marginal benefit will be equal to average cost.

Question 52.
Supply curve reflects
a. Total cost curves.
b. Average cost curves.
c. Marginal cost curves.
d. Average production curves.
Answer:
c. Marginal cost curves.

Question 53.
A constant cost industry is distinguished by the fact that
a. The long run industry supply curve is perfectly inelastic
b. The long run industry supply curve is perfectly elastic
c. average revenue is equal to zero
d. none of the above is correct
Answer:
b. The long run industry supply curve is perfectly elastic

Question 54.
If both average cost (AC) and marginal cost (MC) are U shaped, then
a. AC will reach a minimum at a level of output that is less than that at which MC reaches a minimum
b. AC> MC
c. AC will reach a minimum at a level of output that is greater than that at which MC reaches a minimum
d. AC =MC.
Answer:
c. AC will reach a minimum at a level of output that is greater than that at which MC reaches a minimum

Question 55.
If a firm’s marginal revenue is greater than its marginal cost, then the firm should
a. increase output to increase profit
b. decrease output to increase profit
c. Increase input to decrease profit
d. Marginal revenue should be changed
Answer:
a. increase output to increase profit

Question 56.
In a firm’s average revenue is equal to its average cost, then
a. profit is at a maximum
b. profit is at a minimum
c. profit is equal to zero
d. the firm is in equilibrium
Answer:
c. profit is equal to zero

Question 57.
From the given option-

Theory of Production, Costs and Revenue – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 3 img 1

Figure Time period for supply
Figure (i) (A) Very long run.
Figure (ii) (B) Short run
Figure (iii) (C) Long run
Figure (iv) (D)Yery long run.

a. (a): (i) (B), (ii) (0), (iii) (A), (iv) (C)
b. (i) (A), (ii) (B), (iii) (C), (iv) (0).
c. (i) (B), (ii) (C), (iii) (0), (Iv) (A)
d. (i) (C), (ii) (0), (iii) (B), (iv) (A)
Answer:
a. (a): (i) (B), (ii) (0), (iii) (A), (iv) (C)
Hint
Short run – in this not frequent changes in quantity but frequent changes in prices. Long run – in this frequent changes in quantities but price change is not frequent. Very long run – no change in price in respect to quantity supplied.
Very short run – quantity supplied does not change but price changes.

Question 58.
Marginal product is-
a. Addition to total product by increase in additional units of all inputs
b. Change in total product caused by a fall in additional units of all inputs
c. ≅QO/≅N where II stands for change, TQ stands for total products and N stands for units of a single variable input.
d. ≅N/≅TQ
Answer:
c. ≅QO/≅N where II stands for change, TQ stands for total products and N stands for units of a single variable input.
Hint
≺≺≺≺Q/≺N where △Stands for change, TQ stands for total products and N stands for units of a single variable input.
Marginal product is the output that results from one additional unit of a factor of production (such as a labor hour or machine hour), all other factors remain constant.

Question 59.
Average product is rising then marginal product would
a. Keep rising
b. Be more than average product
c. Would be less than the average product
d. Be indeterminate because the units of
Answer:
b. Be more than average product
Hint
Average product is rising then marginal product would be more than average product The relation between average product and the marginal product is

  • If the marginal is less than the average, then the average declines.
  • If the marginal is greater than the average, then the average rises.
  • If the marginal is equal to the average, then the average does not change,

Question 60.

Table A Table B Table C Table D
X Input Y Output X Input Y Output X Input Y Output X Input Y Output
1 5 2 4 1 8 4 40
2 10 4 8 3 24 4 60
3 15 6. 12 10 80 4 80

Which of these does not represent fixed proportion of inputs and outputs of X and Y respectively-
a. Table A
b. Table B
c. Table C
d. Table D
Answer:
d. Table D
Hint
In table D inputs are not changing in corresponding to output which is changing while in all other tables input is changing in fixed proportion in relation to output as in Table A with 1 unit increase in input, output is increasing 5 units. In table B with 1 unit increase in input, output increases 2 units. In table C with 1 unit increase in input, output increases 8 units.

Question 61.
Which one of the following short run cost curves always falls with an increase in the level of output?
a. Average fixed cost curve
b. Total fixed cost curve
c. Average variable cost curve
d. Total cost curve.
Answer:
a. Average fixed cost curve
Hint
AFC- it declines with the increase in output. It is rectangular hyperbola Average fixed cost curve always falls with an increase in the level of output.

Question 62.
Which of the following figures given below represents correct relationship between AC and MC:-

Theory of Production, Costs and Revenue – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 3 img 2

a. Figure (i)
b. Figure (ii)
c. Figure (iii)
d. Figure (iv)
Answer:
c. Figure (iii)
Hint
The relationship between the marginal cost and average cost is the same as that between any other marginal-average quantities. When marginal cost is less than average cost, average cost falls and when marginal cost is greater than average cost, average cost rises.

Question 63.
From the following output schedule, the value of Marginal Product against Y will be

Unit of Variable Input Total Product Marginal Product
4 60 15
7 90 Y

a. 30
b. 90
c. 40
d. 10
Answer:
d. 10
Hint
Marginal product is the output that results from one additional unit of a factor of production (such as a labor hour or machine hour), all other factors remain constant.
Marginal Product = □ □□Q/DN whereA stands for change, TQ stands for total products and N stands for units of a single variable input. MP = 90-60/7-4 = 30/3 = 10

Question 64.
in a graph, when we plot AC and AFC curves, the difference between AC and AFC curves measures
a. TFC
b. WC
c. AVC
d.MC
Answer:
c. AVC
Hint
Average cost curve – it has two categories average fixed cost and average variable cost. AFC- it declines with the increase in output. It is rectanguiar hyperbola AVC – it first falls and then increases . the curve shape is like U. Average cost curve lies above average variable cost curve AC = AFC+AVC AC- AFC = AVC

Question 65.
Marginal cost at any level of output is affected
a. Only by fixed costs
b. Only by variable costs
c. Both by fixed costs and variable costs
d. More by fixed costs and less by variable costs.
Answer:
b. Only by variable costs
Hint
Marginal cost curve – since total fixed cost doesnot change in short run so marginal cost curve is dependent only on average variable cost. Thus marginal cost curve (MC) is also U shaped. MC curve lies below AVC.

Question 66.
if on a given straight line demand curve, elasticity of demand is equal to unity, the value of marginal revenue will be
a. Indeterminate
b. Zero
c. Infinite
d. Maximum
Answer:
b. Zero
Hint
In a straight-line demand curve we know that the elasticity at the middle point is equal to one. It follows that marginal revenue corresponding to the middle point of the demand curve (or AR curve) will be equal to zero.

Question 67.
Long-run average cost curve falls due to the application of:
a. The law of increasing returns to a factor
b. The law of increasing returns to scale
c. The law of variable proportions
d. The law of demand.
Answer:
b. The law of increasing returns to scale
Hint
In long run the firm can change all the inputs quantity so the cost of ail input is variable .To make their long-run decisions firms look at the costs of various inputs and the technologies available for combining these inputs and then decide which combination offers the lowest cost. As per modern economic theory firm experiences varying returns of scale .The shape of the long-run cost curve is due to the existence of economies and diseconomies of scale. Long-run average cost curve falls due to the application of the law of increasing returns to scale.

Question 68.
Which of the following statements is not true?
a. As average product rises, marginal product will be more than the average product
b. As average product rises, marginal product will keep on rising
c. Marginal product will be equal to average product when average product is maximum
d. If marginal product becomes negative, total product will begin to fall.
Answer:
c. Marginal product will be equal to average product when average product is maximum
Hint
The relation between average product and marginal product is

  • If the marginal is less than the average, then the average declines.
  • If the marginal is greater than the average, then the average rises.
  • If the marginal is equal to the average, then the average does not change
  • If marginal product becomes negative, total product will begin to fall

Question 69.
Which one of the following graphs is the correct presentation of the relationship between average product and marginal product? (Q is quantity of output and N is unit of variable factor).

Theory of Production, Costs and Revenue – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 3 img 3

The correct option is:
a. Figure 1
b. Figure 2
c. Figure 3
d. Figure 4
Answer:
d. Figure 4
Hint
There are three stages in law of variable proportion
(1) Stage of increasing returns – in this stage total product is increasing and continues to increase till the end of this stage . along with this marginal products as well as average products are also increasing
(2) Stage of diminishing returns – at the end of this stage marginal product becomes zero. Total product and average product are also declining . It is called stage of diminishing returns because all three total product (TP), marginal product (MP) and average product (AP) all are declining.
(3) Stage of negative returns – Here marginal product becomes negative while total product and average product are still declining but never zero.
In figure 2 and 3 AP is being shown negative which is wrong.

Question 70.

Unit of variable factors Total Product units
1 30
2 70
3 120

In the product schedule as given above, the marginal proddct of the 4th unit of input would be:
a. 30 units
b. 60 units
c. 70 units
d. 25 units.
Answer:
b. &0 units
Hint
Marginal product is the output that results from one additional unit of a factor of production (such as a labor hour or machine hour), all other factors remain constant.
Marginal Product = >
pnnQ/DN where Astands for change, TQ stands for total products and N stands fpr units of a single variable input.
MP for 1st unit =30-0/1 =30
MP for 2nd unit = 70-30/1 =40
MP for 3rd unit = 120-70/1 = 50
MP for 4th unit = 60 (by looking at the sequence)

Question 71.
Which of the following tables represents diminishing returns to scale? (In the tables – K stands for Capital, L for Labour and TP for Total Production)

Table 1
K L TP K L TP K L TP K L TP
1 2 10 1 2 10 1 2 10 1 2 10
2 4 30 2 4 20 2 4 18 2 4 50
4 8 100 4 8 40 4 8 35 4 8 200

The correct option is: _
a. Table 1
b. Table 2
c. Table 3
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Table 3
Hint
Decreasing returns to scale – Here with the increase in input there is decrease in output thus returns to scale are diminishing. Suppose, for example, that The Willy Company employs 1,000 workers in a 5,000 square foot factory to produce 1 million Stuffed potatoes each month. Returns to scale indicate what happens to production if the scale of operation expands to 2,000 workers in a 10,000 square foot factory–a doubling of the inputs. If production increases to exactly 2 million Stuffed potatoes, twice the original quantity, then The Wacky Willy Company has constant returns to scale. If production increases by more than 2 million Stuffed potatoes, then The Willy Company has increasing returns to scale. And if production increases by less than 2 million Stuffed potatoes, then The Willy Company has decreasing returns to scale.
AP= TP/Q
So for table 1 AP = 5,7.5,12.5 respectively for 1st, 2nd and 3rd unit
Similarly for table 2 AP = 5,5,5 respectively
For table 3 AP = 5,4.5,4.38 respectively
For table 4 AP = 5,12.5,25 respectively

Question 72.
Laws of returns to scale are based on the assumption of:
a. Variable proportions of factor-inputs
b. Fixed proportions of factor-inputs
c. Excess demand for fixed inputs
d. Deficient demand for fixed inputs.
Answer:
a. Variable proportions of factor-inputs
Hint
The law of returns to scale is concerned with the scale of production. The scale of production of a firm is determined by the amount of factors units.
Changes in production occur when all resources are proportionately changed in the long run. Returns to scale come in three forms-increasing, decreasing, or constant based on whether the changes in production are proportionally more than, less than, or equal to the proportional changes in inputs.

Question 73.
Which of the following expressions is not correct?
a. MC — TC<sub>N</sub> – TCN<sub>N_1</sub>
b. MC = TC/<sub>≺</sub>N
c. MC = <sub>≺</sub>TVC/<sub>≺</sub>N
d. MC=<sub>≺</sub>TFC/<sub>≺</sub>N.
Answer:
d. MC=<sub>≺</sub>TFC/<sub>≺</sub>N.
Hint
Marginal cost curve – since total fixed cost doesnot change in short run so marginal cost curve is dependent only on average variable cost.

Question 74.
Match the following:

X. U-shaped curve (i) AC = MC
Y. Rectangular Hyperbola (ii)TC
Z. Continuously rising curve (iii) AFC
W. Optimum output (iv) AC

“The correct option is
a. X (iv); Y (iii); Z (ii); W (i)
b. X (iii); Y (ii); Z (i); W (iv)
c. X (ii); Y (i); Z (iii); W (iv)
d. X (i); Y (iv); Z (ii); W (iii).
Answer:
a. X (iv); Y (iii); Z (ii); W (i)
Hint
AFC- it declines with the increase in output. It is rectangular hyperbola TC(Total cost) = TFC+TVC
Total cost curve is also positive in nature thus continuously rising curve
AC -Average cost curve lies above average variable cost curve and is U shaped.
AC=MC – gives optimum output.

Question 75.
Under Production Theory, the expression ax = f(L.K) represents:
a. Demand function
b. Revenue function
c. Cost function
d. Production function.
Answer:
d. Production function.
Hint
Production Function – The production function relates the output of a firm to the amount of inputs, typically capital and labor.
Y = F (K, L)
Y is the maximal amount of output that is possible to produce given the quantities of the inputs, capital, K, and labor, L.

Question 76.
Study the three tables given below –

Table-1 Table-2 Table-3
Input -X Input -Y Input -X Input -Y Input -X Input -Y
1 20 1 10 1 20
2 10 2 10 2 16
3 4 3 10 3 8

Which of the above tables is showing fixed factor proportions –
a. Table -1
b. Table-2
c. Table – 3
d. None of the above.
Answer:
d. None of the above.
Hint
Fixed factor proportions means the capital labour ratio will be same at all levels of production.

Question 77.
Which of the following figures is showing correct relationship between average product and marginal product under production theory?

Theory of Production, Costs and Revenue – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 3 img 4

Figure 3
Correct option is
a. Figure 1
b. Figure 2
c. Figure 3
d. Figure 4
Answer:
c. Figure 3
Hint
There are three stages in law of variable proportion
1 Stage of increasing returns – in this stage total product is increasing and continues to increase till the end of this stage, along with this marginal products as well as average products are also increasing
2 Stage of diminishing returns – at the end of this stage marginal product becomes zero. Total product and average product are also declining. It is called stage of diminishing returns because all three total product (TP), marginal product (MP) and average product (AP) all are declining.
3 Stage of negative returns – Here marginal product becomes negative while total product and average product are still declining but never zero

Question 78.
With an increase in the units of a variable input, total product keeps rising at a constant rate, marginal product curve will be best represented as a-
a. Rising straight line
b. Falling straight line
c. Vertical straight line
d. Horizontal straight line.
Answer:
a. Rising straight line
Hint
With an increase in input TP keeps rising at constant rate MP will also rise and represent a straight line.

Question 79.
In the production theory, the optimum level of output is represented at a point where
a. Marginal product curve begins to fall
b. Average product curve begins to fall
c. Marginal product becomes zero
d. Average product becomes zero.
Answer:
c. Marginal product becomes zero
Hint
In the stage of diminishing returns there comes a point where total production is maximum and marginal production is zero. This stage is the most fruitful stage for production.

Question 80.
Increasing returns to scale are obtained when –
a. Fixed factors begin to yield increasing marginal returns
b. Proportionate increase in output is more than the proportionat increase in inputs .
c. The total output reflects an erratic behaviour
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. Proportionate increase in output is more than the proportionat increase in inputs .
Hint
Increasing returns to scale – here when the inputs are increased in a given proportion the output increases in a greater proportion. Thus if increase in output is 20 % output increases more than 20 %.

Question 81.
Subsistence production means –
a. Self consumption
b. Self utilization
c. Self-reliance
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Self consumption
Hint
Subsistence agriculture is self-sufficiency farming in which the farmers focus on growing enough food to feed themselves and their families.

Question 82.
When TP is maximum, then MP will-
a. Start declining
b. Be negative
c. Be declining above AP
d. Be Zero
Answer:
d. Be Zero
Hint
In the stage of diminishing returns there comes a point where total production is maximum and marginal production is zero. This stage is the most fruitful stage for the production.

Question 83.
Which of these is not a variable factor for the agriculture sector?
a. Land
b. Labour
c. Fertilizers
d. Machinery and Equipment
Answer:
a. Land
Hint
The term factors of production relate to the key factors that go into making goods. The resources that are required for production can be divided into four major groups.

  • Land
  • Capital
  • Labour
  • Entrepreneurship

In case of agriculture land is not a variable factor. A characteristic feature of land are that

  • it has no social cost as we did not create it we got it free
  • land is perfectly inelastic and is immobile

Question 84.
Which of these is a passive factor of production?
a. Land
b. Labour
c. Capital
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Land
Hint
Land – It is a natural resource which can not be created. It includes the resources that are above ground (climate , rain etc.), resources that are below the ground (mineral resources etc.) and resources on the ground (agricultural land etc.). It is primary but passive factor in production . it is primary in nature because production can not begin unless this resource is present but passive because it is dependent on other factors of production.

Question 85.
Which one of the following factors of production gets profit as reward?
a. Land
b. Labour
c. Capital
d. Entrepreneur
Answer:
d. Entrepreneur
Hint
Entrepreneurship – There is, in effect, a fourth type of input used in production. It is a special type of human resource; it consists of entrepreneurial ability, or entrepreneurship. Entrepreneurship is associated with the founding of new businesses or the introduction of new products and new techniques. The entrepreneur also takes on all of the risks and rewards of the business. He is the person who uses all the other uses to make production of goods are reality.

Question 86.
Land is a good or not?
a. Yes, it is a good
b. No, it is not a good
c. It may be a good
d. None
Answer:
b. No, it is not a good
Hint
The land is a natural resource that can not be created. It is not a good but a fixed factor of production.

Question 87.
When the input is increased by 80%, output increases by 100%. This is known as¬
a. Increasing return to scale
b. Decreasing return to scale
c. Constant return to scale
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Increasing return to scale
Hint
Increasing returns to scale – here when the inputs are increased in a given proportion the output increases in a greater proportion. Thus if increase in output is 20 % output increases more than 20 %.

Question 88.
Law of return to scale works in:-
a. Long run
b. Short run
c. Very short run
d. Very Long run
Answer:
a. Long run
Hint
Returns to scale are the guiding principle for long-run production, playing a similar role that the law of diminishing marginal returns plays for short-run production.

Question 89.
When the production is increasing, then AFC will be-
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Constant
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Decreasing
Hint
AFC- it declines with the increase in output. It is rectangular hyperbola.

Question 90.
What will we get from fixed factor “Land”?
a. Profit
b. Wages
c. Interest
d. Rent
Answer:
d. Rent
Hint
Land generates rent while.

Question 91.
Which of the following is correct about long run production function?
a. In Long run production function, quantity of all outputs varies
b. In Long run production function, quantity of one input varies while quantities of all other inputs remain constant.
c. In Long run production function, quantity of all inputs varies
d. In Long run production function, the quantity of all inputs remain constant
Answer:
c. In Long run production function, quantity of all inputs varies
Hint
Returns to scale are the guiding principle for long-run production, playing a similar role that the law of diminishing marginal returns plays for short-run production.

Question 92.
For which factor of production, the supply price for society is zero?
a. Capital.
b. Labour
c. Land
d. Material
Answer:
c. Land
Hint
A characteristic feature of land are that

  • it has no social cost as we did not create it we got it free
  • land is perfectly inelastic and is immobile

Question 93.
As per theory of cost, Average Fixed Cost (AFC) curve is
a. Convex and upward sloping
b. Concave and upward sloping
c. Concave and downward sloping
d. Convex and downward sloping
Answer:
d. Convex and downward sloping
Hint
AFC- it declines with the increase in output. It is a rectangular hyperbola. It is convex and downward sloping

Question 94.
As per the theory of revenue, If price is denoted by (P) and quantity is denoted by (0), then the total revenue (TR) will be:
a.\(\frac { P }{ Q }\)
b. \(\frac { Q }{ P }\)
c. P × Q
d. P × \(\frac { P }{ Q }\)
Answer:
c. P × Q
Hint
The income received by a firm on selling the goods or services over a certain period of time is revenue.
Total revenue – it is the total amount generated by the firm by selling all the quantity of output.
TR = quantity sold x price per unit

Question 95.
Which of the following explains the functional relationship between ‘input and output?
a. Production Function
b. Demand Curve
c. Input Function
d. Consumer Surplus
Answer:
a. Production Function
Hint
Production function – The production function relates the output of a firm to the number of inputs, typically capital and labor: It is important to keep in mind that the production function describes the technology, not economic behavior. It states how the desired output can be produced with the minimum input.

Question 96.
When a total product is maximum, then the marginal product will be:
a. Each one is possible
b. Positive
c. Zero
d. Negative
Answer:
c. Zero
Hint
In the stage of diminishing returns there comes a point where total production is maximum and marginal production is zero. This stage is the most fruitful stage for the production.

Question 97.
Which of the following is known as an increase in total output that results from a one-unit increase in the input keeping all other inputs constant:
a. Average product
b. Total product
c. Marginal product
d. All are correct
Answer:
c. Marginal product
Hint
An increase in total output that results from a one-unit increase in the input keeping all other inputs constant is a Marginal product.

Question 98.
According to the Law of Constant Returns to Scale, what is the rate of increase in output?
a. Output increases with a lesser speed than the increase in inputs
b. Output increases with a greater speed than the increase in inputs
c. Output Increases with the same speed as inputs
d. Output increases with a constant speed irrespective of the increase in inputs.
Answer:
c. Output Increases with the same speed as inputs
Hint
The constant return to scale —Here with the increase in input-output also increases in the same proportion. Thus if the input is increased by 20% than an output also increase by 20%

Question 99.
If a firm’s wage cost increases, this will cause:
a. Average fixed cost will rise as output will increase
b. The marginal cost to increase as output falls
c. Marginal revenue to increase as output to fall
d. Opportunity cost to increase, the firm will dose.
Answer:
b. The marginal cost to increase as output falls
Hint
If wage cost increases MC will increase.

Question 101.
For using which factor of production, profit is the economic reward?
a. Labour
b. Entrepreneur
c. Land
d. Capital.
Answer:
b. Entrepreneur
Hint
Entrepreneurship is associated with the founding of new businesses or the introduction of new products and new techniques. The entrepreneur also takes on all of the risks and rewards of the business, He is the person who uses all the other uses to make the production of goods are reality.

Question 101.
Which of the following is not an assumption of production function?
a. The firm uses its output at the maximum level of efficiency
b. The level of technology remains constant
c. The firm uses its maximum level of efficiency to increase the output
d. The firm uses its inputs at the maximum level of efficiency
Answer:
c. The firm uses its maximum level of efficiency to increase the output
Hint
Assumptions of production function are

  • The firm uses its input at the maximum level of efficiency
  • Technology level remains constant

CS Foundation Business Economics Notes

Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Sole proprietorship is by the most common form of business organization in our society. Sole proprietorships are simple business organization and do not usually require extensive amounts of paperwork to start. A proprietorship is no more than a collection of business activities carried on by an individual person. Accounting is also easier for sole proprietorship organizations.

Examples of sole proprietorship:
→ Trade and Business: owns a manufacturing, construction, wholesale, service, or retail business.

→ Profession: a doctor, lawyer, accountant, or architect and you have your own business practice.

→ Vocation any one of the following:
commission agent (for example, you are in the financial services, insurance, or property industry)
freelancer (for example, you get fees for providing services as a deejay, singer, dancer, designer, fitness instructor, consultant etc.)
owner of a hawker business or a food stall
owner of a home-based business

Part of Sole Proprietorship’s Financial Statement:
→ Drawings: When an owner of a proprietorship takes cash or other assets from the company, the distribution is called withdrawals and reduces their capital.

→ Salary: Salaries paid to the owner of the business is recorded as withdrawals of profits and not expenses, even if he is the owner. However salaries paid to managers or employees besides the owner should be reported as expenses.

→ Accounts Receivable: A current asset resulting from selling goods or services on credit (on account). Invoice terms such as (a) net 30 days or (b) 2/10, n/30 signify that a sale was made on account and was not a cash sale.

→ Accounts Payable: This current liability account will show the amount a company owes for items or services purchased on credit and for which there was not a promissory note. This account is often referred to as trade payables (as opposed to notes payable, interest payable, etc.)

There are basically two (2) sets of financial statements prepared for a Sole Proprietor:

  1. Trading and Profit & Loss Account
  2. Balance Sheet

→ Trading and Profit and Loss Account
Trading Account: The purpose of the trading account is to show the gross profit on the sale of goods. Gross profit is the difference between the sale proceeds of goods and what those goods cost the seller to buy, or cost of sales. The cost of sales for this purpose includes the amount which has been debited for them to the purchases account plus the cost of getting them to the place of sale, which is usually the seller’s premises, i.e. The carriage inwards of those goods.

→ Features of Trading account are

  • Its main purpose is for the owners to be able to see how profitably the business is being run.
  • It can also be used for other purposes such as:
    • Income Taxes Calculation.
    • Comparing results obtained with the results expected

→ Sample Trading Account:
Name of the Company
TRADING ACCOUNT for the year ended
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1

→ Profit and Loss Account: The profit and loss (income) statement presents a summary of the revenues and costs for an organization over a specific period of time. The profit and loss statement enables a marketer to examine overall and specific revenues and costs over similar time periods and analyses the organization’s profitability. When preparing Profit and Loss Account operating expenses such as selling administration, research and development expenses are deducted Balance of the trading account is the starting point of profit and loss account. After deducting all the expenses and adding all the revenue we get Net Profit.
Thus
Net Profit/Net Loss = Total Revenue – Total expenses
To Summarize

→ Where the cost of goods sold is greater than the sales the result would be a Gross Loss, but this is a relatively rare occurrence. Where the expenses incurred exceed the gross profit plus other revenue then the result is said to be a Net Loss. By taking the figure of sales less the cost of goods sold, it can be seen that the accounting custom is to calculate a trader’s profits only when the goods have been disposed of and not before. Gross Profit is defined as the excess of sales over costs of goods sold in the Trading Account) period. While, Net Profit is what remains after all other overhead expenses incurred in the period have been deducted. While the Trading Account is used for the determination of Gross Profit (or Gross Loss), the Profit and Loss Account section is used for determination of Net Profit (or Net Loss). While net profit increases the capital of the proprietor, net loss, on the other hand decreases his capital.

→ Balance Sheet: After the trading, profit and loss accounts have been completed a statement is drawn up in which the remaining balances in the books are arranged according to whether they are asset balances or liability or capital balances. This statement is called a balance sheet. The assets are shown on the right-hand side and the capital and liabilities on the left-hand side. It is very important to know that the balance sheet is not part of the double-entry system, and therefore it is not an account. This contrasts with the Trading and Profit and Loss Account which is part of double-entry. The use of the word ‘account’ indicates that it is part of double-entry. It may also be defined as the statement that describes the sources of funds (liabilities) and the uses of these funds (assets) so in other words the balance sheet gives the financial picture as:
Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Total Capital

→ Assets: are the possessions of the company or a business these can be of various types such as fixed-assets which include land and machinery, the current assets are those which are easily converted into cash and include- cash, stocks, receivables etc.

→ Liabilities: is the debt of the company. These are also of different types such as current liabilities which includes accounts payable, short-term debt etc. Similarly liabilities can be of intermediate term and long term. Capital/Equity – represents the ownership of the business in terms of shares or stocks

→ Features of Balance Sheet:

  • A balance sheet shows the financial position of the accounting entity on a specific date.
  • It is the last stage of Final Accounts.
  • It is not an account under the Double Entry System, it is only a statement
  • It has two sides-left-hand side known as asset side and right-hand side known as liabilities side.
  • The totals of both sides are always equal.
  • If there is a difference in the total of both sides then the deficit is placed in Suspense Account to make both sides total equal.
  • No expense accounts and revenue accounts are shown here.
  • It is prepared after the preparation of Trading and Loss A/C because the net profit or net loss of a concern is included in it through Capital A/C.

→ Marshalling of Balance Sheet
The arrangement of assets and liabilities in a particular order is known as Marshalling of Balance Sheet. It is generally done in two ways
1. Liquidity order/according to time: In this order, assets are arranged in a period in which they can be easily converted into cash and liabilities are arranged in a period in which they have to be paid off

2. Permanence Order/according to purpose: In this assets which are to be used permanently by organization are shown first and assets that are liquid are shown last in order. Similarly Liabilities are also shown in permanence order.

Classification of Assets:
→ Current assets: Assets which can be converted into cash easily within a short time say one year are called as current assets. Eg. Debtors, Inventories, short term investments, bank and cash balances etc.

→ Fixed assets: Assets which cannot be converted into cash easily within a short period of time or assets which are being used by business entity for long time are called fixed assets. Eg. Furniture, buildings, machinery, goodwill, patents etc. Fixed assets again can be classified into tangible and intangible assets. Tangible assets means those assets which can be touched or seen for eg. Building, machinery etc. Intangible assets are those which can not be touched eg. Goodwill, copyrights etc.

→ Fictitious Assets: These assets are not represented by possession of any property and, therefore, have no market value. Preliminary expenses, discount on issue of shares and debentures, etc are examples of fictitious assets. These are to be written off against Profit and Loss Account.

→ Wasting Asset: a wasting asset is one whose useful life is limited so that over a period of time it gradually becomes either valueless or worth only scrap value. A fixed asset, such as a mine or an oil well, that diminishes in value over time is a wasting asset.

→ Classification of Liabilities
Liabilities may be classified as follows.
→ Fixed Liabilities: These liabilities are repayable after a long period of time. These are not repayable within a short period or during the operating cycle of business. Long term loans, loans or mortgage, and debentures are examples of fixed liabilities.

→ Current Liabilities: These liabilities are repayable within a year or in the near future. These include trade creditors, bills payable, outstanding expenses, bank overdraft, etc.

→ Contingent Liabilities: These are anticipated liabilities. These are uncertain and may or may not arise in future on the happening of a certain event. If the contemplated event occurs, a contingent liability becomes a real liability. Liability on bills discounted, disputed claims or liability under a damage suit, guarantee for a loan is examples of contingent liabilities.

→ Difference between Trial Balance and Balance Sheet

1. A Trial Balance is prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy of the books of accounts. A Balance Sheet is prepared to know the financial position of the business enterprise on a given date.
2. A Trial Balance can be prepared frequently. It may be prepared at the end of a month or a quarter. A Balance Sheet is generally prepared at the end of the accounting period.
3. The heading of the two columns are “Debit Balances” and “Credit Balances”. In balance sheet The headings of the two sides are “Liabilities” and “Assets”.
4. All types of accounts find their place in the Trial Balance. In a Balance Sheet, accounts of assets, liabilities, capital and those accounts which are remained open after the preparation of Trading and Profit and Loss account.
5. Generally, the opening stock appears in the Trial Balance, whereas the closing stock does not. In a Balance Sheet, only the closing stock appears on the assets side.
6. In a Trial Balance, it is not possible to have information about net profit or net loss. In the Balance Sheet, information about net profit earned or net loss incurred is provided.
7. A Trial Balance can be prepared without making adjustments regarding prepaid expenses, income received in advance, accrued income, etc. A Balance Sheet can not be prepared without making adjustments regarding prepaid expenses, outstanding expenses, income received in advance or accrued income, making provisions for possible losses, etc.

→ Difference between Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account

Balance sheet Profit and Loss
Balance sheet is a statement of assets and liabilities. Profit and loss is an account.
Balance sheet discloses the financial position of the business on a particular date. Profit and loss account discloses profits earned or losses suffered during an accounting period.
Profit and loss account is prepared for the accounting period ending. Balance sheet is prepared as at the last day of accounting period.
Accounts which are transferred to Balance sheet do not lose their identity and become the opening balances for next period. Those accounts which are transferred to the profit loss account are closed and cease to exist.

→ Adjustment Entries: Before financial statements are prepared, additional journal entries, called adjusting entries, are made to ensure that the company’s financial records adhere to the revenue recognition and matching principles. Adjusting entries are necessary because a single transaction may affect revenues or expenses in more than one accounting period and also because all transactions have not necessarily been documented during the period.

→ Adjusting entries are journal entries recorded at the end of an accounting period to adjust income and expenses accounts so that they comply with the accrual concept of accounting. Their main purpose is to match income and expenses to appropriate accounting periods. An adjusting entry always involves either income or expense account.

(1) closing stock: closing stock is the unsold stock at the end of accounting period. There can be two entries for closing stock.

(A) when closing stock appears in the trading account and on the asset side of the Balance sheet Than following accounting entry will be passed
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 2
In this case closing stock becomes the opening stock of next year

(B) When closing stock appears in the Trial Balance then it is understood that double entry has already been completed. Thus it will appear only on the asset side of Balance sheet. Following accounting entry will be passed.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 3

(2) Accrued or Outstanding Income: Outstanding income is an income which have not been received even though the event been incurred. Thus it is income for the current financial year but payment has not been received while accrual income is the income that is for this financial year but whose payment will not be received in this financial year. Thus if firm makes a profit earning of Rs 1000 but the payment is not received in this financial year it is outstanding income while if the payment date of this Rs 1000 was next financial year then it is accrued income. Accounting entries in both the cases are same.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 4
Profit and loss account – shown at the credit side
Balance sheet – shown at the credit side

(3) Accrued or Outstanding Expenses – Accrued expense is expense which has been incurred but not yet paid. Expense must be recorded in the accounting period in which it is incurred. Therefore, accrued expense must be recognized in the accounting period in which it occurs rather than in the following period in which it will be paid. Accounting Entry will be
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 5
To Outstanding/accrued expense Account
Trading account/profit and loss account – shown at the debit side
Balance sheet – shown at the liabilities side

(4) Unexpired or Prepaid Expenses – Prepaid expenses represent payments made for expenses which are not yet incurred. In other words, these are “advance payments” by a company for supplies, rent, utilities and others that are still to be consumed. Accounting Entry will be
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 6
Profit and loss account – shown by deducting from the concerned expenses
Balance sheet – shown at the asset side

(5) Unearned Income or Income Received in Advance – Unearned revenue also known as income received in advance is the exact opposite of accrued income. It represents revenue already collected but not yet earned. Hence, they are also called “advances from customers”. Because they have not yet been earned, unearned revenues are not recorded as income. Remember that under the accrual concept, income is recognized when earned regardless of when collected,
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 7
To Income Received in Advance Account
Profit and loss account – shown by deducting from the income on credit side
Balance sheet – shown at the liabilities side as ‘Income received in advance’

(6) Depreciation – Depreciation is systematic allocation the cost of a fixed asset over its useful life. It is a way of matching the cost of a fixed asset with the revenue (or other economic benefits) it generates over its useful life. During each accounting period (year, quarter, month, etc.) a portion of the cost of these assets is being used up. The portio being used up is reported as Depreciation Expense. Accounting entries will
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 8
Balance sheet – shown at the asset side after deducting from the concerned asset
In case depreciation is shown in Trial Balance then transfer the depreciation account to Profit and Loss account as } adjustment entry already passed in trial balance

(7) Bad Debts – An entity may not be able to recover its balances outstanding in respect of certain receivables. In accountancy we refer to such receivables as Irrecoverable Debts or Bad Debts. Bad debts could arise for a number of reasons such as customer going bankrupt, trade dispute or fraud. Every time an entity realizes that it unlikely to recover its debt from a receivable, it must ’write off the bad debt from its books. This ensures that the entity’s assets (i. e.receivables) are not stated above the amount it can reasonably expect to recover which is in line with the concept of
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 9
To Sundry Debtors Account
Profit and Loss account – Debit
Balance sheet – debtors balance is reduced by the same amount in the balance sheet
In case it is given in Trial Balance then it is directly transferred to Profit and Loss account and no adjustment entry is required.

(8) Provision for Bad Debts – Recoverability of some receivables may be doubtful. Such receivables are known as doubtful debts. A firm may make provision for such debts in the accounting year. Accounting Entries will be
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 10
Profit and Loss account – Debit
Balance sheet – debtors balance is reduced by the same amount in the balance sheet

(9) Provision for Discount on Debtors – A provision for discounts to debtors who pay early is created in the current year itself. Accounting Entries will be
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 11
Profit and Loss account – Debit
Balance sheet – debtors balance is reduced by the same amount in the balance sheet
Provision for discount on debtors will be deducted after ‘Further bad debts’ and ‘Provision for doubtful debts’ are deducted from the Debtors

(10) Reserve for Discount on Creditors – When the business makes prompt payments of its debts, it is bound to receive Discounts from its creditors.

Although the discounts will be earned in the next year, the discounts so earned are an income of the current year. A Provision for such discount is made in the current year itself so that that the discounts thus earned may be credited to the Profit and Loss Account of the current year.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 12
To Profit and Loss Account/Profit and Loss account – Credit
Balance sheet – Creditors balance is reduced by the same amount in the balance sheet

(11) Interest on Capital – Usually the owner gets an Interest on his investment the business. According to the principle of separate entity, Capital is considered as Liability for the business and the owner is paid a certain amount of interest on the capital employed.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 13
Profit and Loss account – Debit
Balance sheet – shown at the Liabilities side

(12) Interest on Drawings – Many times during the operation of business, the owner may take out some cash from the business for his personal use. These withdrawals from the business are considered as Drawings. As interest is paid on capital the same way interest is charged on Drawings.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 14
Profit and Loss account – Credit
Balance sheet – shown at the Liabilities side by deducting from Capital

(13) Accidental Loss of an Asset – Losses in the value of fixed assets arising through, accidents or theft or earthquake are known as accidental loss of an asset. Such losses are written off immediately against income. Accounting Entries will be
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 15

(14) Manager’s Commission on Net Profits – Sometimes, the manager of a concern is given a percentage of the net profit as commission. Since it is an expense like salaries, it is to be accounted for.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 16
To Commission Payable Account
Profit and Loss account – Debit
Balance sheet – shown at the Liabilities side

Manager’s commission is calculated in two ways:-
(1) On Profits before charging such commission:-
Manager’s commission=Net Profits X (Percentage of commission/100)

(2) On Profits after charging such commission:-
Manager’s commission=Net Profits X (Percentage of commission/100+% of commission)

(15) Goods distributed as free Samples – Some goods are given as charity or distributed as free sample for advertisement. In such case, charity and advertisement are treated as expenses and therefore, their accounts are debited according to the rule of nominal account and purchase or goods account is credited by the amount of goods given according to the rule of real account.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 17
To Purchase Account
Profit and Loss account – Debit

(16) Drawings of goods bv Proprietor for personal use – If some goods have been taken by the proprietor for personal use and no accounting entry has been made.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 18
Trading Account – Debit
Balance sheet – shown at the Liabilities side, deducted from the capital

(17) Deferred Revenue Expenditure – It is an expenditure which are basically in the nature of revenue expenditure whose benefit cover a number of years called deferred revenue expenditure. Part of such expenditure is written off in each year.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 19
Profit and Loss account – Debit
Balance sheet – shown at the Liabilities side

(18) Goods on sale on Approval Basis – Sometimes goods are sold on approval basis. In such scenario it cannot be termed as sale.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 20
Trading Account – shown on Credit side by deducting from the sales at sale price and added to closing stock at cost price

(19) Goods received but not recorded in books – Sometimes Goods have been not received but invoice has not been received or omitted. In such case Goods are to be shown in the inventory. Accounting entries will be
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 21
Balance Sheet – Added to sundry creditors on liabilities side

(20) Salary to Proprietor – In case Proprietor charges salary then accounting entries will be
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 22

(21) Reserve Fund – A reserve is created out of profits for a particular purpose. Reserves are sometimes set up to purchase fixed assets, pay an expected legal settlement, pay bonuses, pay off debt, pay for repairs and maintenance, and so forth. This is done to keep funds from being used for other purposes, such as paying dividend.
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 23

(22) Cash Discount – Cash discounts are incentives offered by sellers that reduce the amount that the buyer owes by either a percentage of the total bill or a fixed amount. For example, if an invoice is due in 30 days, a seller could offer the buyer a typical cash discount of 2% if they were to pay the invoice within the first 10 days of receipt. Cash discount is given with the aim to get payment fastly and before payment date. Discount allowed is debited to discount allowed account.

(23) Trade Discount – A trade discount is the amount by which a manufacturer reduces the retail price of a product when it sells to a reseller, rather than to the end customer. The reseller then charges the full retail price to its customers in order to earn a profit on the difference between the amount by which the manufacturer sold the product to it and the price at which it then sells the product to the final customer. The reseller does not necessarily resell at the suggested retail price; selling at a discount is a common practice, if the reseller wishes to gain market share or clear out excess inventory. Trade discount is issued by deduction in list price. From accounting point of view no entries are made.

→ Closing Entries – Closing entries are journal entries made at the end of an accounting period which transfer the balances of nominal accounts to permanent accounts. Closing entries are based on the account balances in an adjusted trial balance.

→ Manufacturing account – Manufacturing account is prepared by the manufacturing concern to ascertain the cost of goods. Manufacturing account debits all the expenses incurred in the factory including the depreciation of machines. Total of all such expenses and cost of raw material gives the cost of goods manufactured.

→ Limitations of financial Statements

  • Financial statements do not tell you about changes in senior management.
  • Financial statements do not tell you about the loss of major customers.
  • Financial statements do not tell you about the competitive environment in which the company operates.
  • The profit exposed by the Profit and Loss Account and the financial position released by the Balance Sheet
    cannot be precise. They are fundamentally short-term reports
  • Audited statements do not guarantee accuracy.
  • Even audited financial statements are subject to a degree of manipulation.
  • Because Balance Sheet is prepared on ongoing concern thus financial statements are not absolutely final and accurate.
  • Financial statements are interim reports and cannot show true gain or loss which can only be depicted at the termination of business.
  • The use of professional judgment of the preparers of financial statements is important cause greater the use of judgment involved, the more subjective financial statements would tend to be.

Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
For a proprietor following are not included in final accounts.
a. Trading account
b. Profit and loss account
c. Balance sheet
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 2.
Which one of the following is true for proprietor?
a. Fixed assets are is his household property
b. Fixed assets are bought with the intention of resale
c. Fixed assets are liable to be destroyed very soon
d. Fixed assets are normally used in the business on a long-term basis
Answer:
d. Fixed assets are normally used in the business on a long-term basis

Question 3.
Position statement of the firm includes
a. Assets
b. Liabilities
c. Good will
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 4.
For finding out all the expenses and losses of a proprietor _______________ is prepared
a. Position statement
b. Balance sheet
c. Income statement
d. Both a & b
Answer:
c. Income statement

Question 5.
Liabilities and provisions made by sole proprietor are transferred to
a. Left hand side of the balance sheet
b. Left hand side of profit and loss statement
c. Left hand side of trading account
d. none of the above
Answer:
a. Left hand side of the balance sheet

Question 6.
First account to be prepared for determining the profit or loss a proprietor is
a. profit & loss account
b. trading account
c. Balance sheet
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. trading account

Question 7.
When taking final stock for preparation of trading account then _______________ should not be included
a. Purchases of goods made but not received.
b. Goods sold but not yet delivered
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 8.
Which statement is true?
a. Gross profit – gross loss = Net profit
b. Gross profit – net loss = net profit
c. Net profit – net loss = net profit
d. Total revenue – total expenses = net profit
Answer:
d. Total revenue – total expenses = net profit

Question 9.
There is a net profit of Rs. 5000 as shown in profit & loss account. It will be transferred to
a. Saving account of proprietor
b. Current account of proprietor
c. Capital account of proprietor
d. Business account of proprietor
Answer:
c. Capital account of proprietor

Question 10.
Basic principle to be followed while preparing trading and profit & loss account is
a. Expenses for the full trading period should be included
b. Revenue received for the whole period be included
c. Expenditure which is for other period be included
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 11.
What is transferred to capital account?
a. Gross profit
b. Net profit
c. Gross sales revenue
d. Net sales revenue
Answer:
b. Net profit

Question 12.
Dividend received from shares entry is made in
a. Trading account
b. Profit and loss account
c. Balance sheet
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Profit and loss account

Question 13.
In income statement, gross profit is always equal to
a. Sales-expenses
b. Incomes-expenses
c. sales-cost of goods sold
d. Sales-selling costs
Answer:
c. sales-cost of goods sold

Question 14.
_______________ is not the integral part of profit & loss account
a. Bank interest received
b. Discount received
c. Sales
d. Rent of property received
Answer:
c. Sales

Question 15.
A statement which shows balance of assets liabilities is
a. Profit & loss account
b. Balance sheet
c. Trading account
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Balance sheet

Question 16.
Balance sheet is prepared from
a. Real account
b. Saving account
c. Personal account
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 17.
It is not a feature of balance sheet
a. Shows the position of capital
b. Prepared for a particular period
c. It Is a statement
d. Both b & c
Answer:
b. Prepared for a particular period

Question 18.
The items in the balance sheet are marshaled in a way that assets that are to be used permanently are put on top order; this type of arrangement is called.
a. Liquidity order
b. According to time
c. Permanence order
d. Both a & b
Answer:
c. Permanence order

Question 19.
Trade mark is a _______________ asset
a. Intangible asset
b. Wasting asset
c. Fiction asset
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Fiction asset

Question 20.
Shares of some limited company are
a. floating assets
b. liquid assets
c. fixed assets
d. intangible assets
Answer:
b. liquid assets

Question 21.
capital of the proprietor is a
a. fixed asset
b. fixed liability
c. long term liability
d. none of the above
Answer:
b. fixed liability

Question 22.
Contingent liability is
a. Liability to appear within a year
b. Liability to appear at the occurrence of an event
c. Liability to appear after a period of time
d. Liability to the proprietor
Answer:
b. Liability to appear at the occurrence of an event

Question 23.
What is UNCOMMON in trial balance?
a. Balances of personal, real and nominal account are shown
b. Closing stock appears in trial balance
c. Statement of assets and liabilities
d. Both b & c
Answer:
d. Both b & c

Question 24.
Which is the characteristic feature of profit & loss account?
a. Accounts transferred to profit & loss account do not exist after being transferred to profit & loses account
b. It is prepared at the last date of the accounting period.
c. It is a statement
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Accounts transferred to profit & loss account do not exist after being transferred to profit & loses account

Question 25.
In case of unexpired entry following entry should be made
a. It should be shown as an asset in the balance sheet
b. It is shown as a expense in profit and loss account
c. Both a & b
d. None the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 26.
Which is an unearned income?
a. Insurance premium received by insurance company
b. Rent received
c. Depreciation
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 27.
Pick the odd one
a. Reserve for discount on creditors is credited to profit & loss account
b. Provision for discount on creditors is always made
c. Discount on creditors should be deducted from Sunday creditors in balance sheet
d. Both a & c
Answer:
b. Provision for discount on creditors is always made

Question 28.
If salary is given to proprietor
a. Proprietors salary account is debited
b. Capital account is credited
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 29.
When the final accounts are being prepared for a firm in respect of adjustments
a. Double entry should be made
b. Double entry not required
c. Should appear only in balance sheet
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Double entry should be made

Question 30.
Closing of nominal accounts is known as
a. Closing entries
b. Trail entries
c. Final entries
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Closing entries

Question 31.
In trial balance closing stock is given, it will affect
a. Trading account & balance sheet
b. Profit & loss account
c. Balance sheet only
d. Trading account only
Answer:
a. Trading account & balance sheet

Question 32.
When cash is withdrawn in sole proprietor business
a. It will affect shareholder account
b. It will affect capital account
c. It will affect liability account
d. It will affect expense account
Answer:
c. It will affect liability account

Question 33.
Everyday office expenses are charged to
a. Selling expenses
b. Administrative expenses
c. Marketing expenses
d. Financial expenses
Answer:
b. Administrative expenses

Question 34.
_______________ shows the success or failure of a business .select the most Appropriate
a. Cash flow statement appropriate answer
b. Retained earning statement
c. Income statement
d. Balance sheet
Answer:
a. Cash flow statement appropriate answer

Question 35.
Financial statements are prepared mainly for
a. Internal users of financial information
b. External users of financial information
c. Creditors of the business
d. Managers of the business
Answer:
b. External users of financial information

Question 36.
Net profit is computed in which of the following?
a. Balance sheet
b. Income statement
c. Cash flow statement
d. Statement of changes in equity
Answer:
c. Cash flow statement

Question 37.
Which of the following should be the misappropriate order of current asset in a balance sheet
a. cash, debar, bank, stock
b. Bank, cash, stock, debtor
c. Stock, bank, cash, debtor
d. cash bank, debtor, stock
Answer:
d. cash bank, debtor, stock

Question 38.
Office equipment is a _______________ asset for a computer manufacturer company and _______________ asset for a company that deals in these equipments
a. Current, Fixed
b. Fixed, intangible
c. Tangible, intangible
d. fixed, current
Answer:
d. fixed, current

Question 39.
Identify the external user of financial information or financial statements
a. Management of the business
b. CFO of the business
c. employees of the business
d. Investors of the business
Answer:
d. Investors of the business

Question 40.
A statement or report that records the fluctuation in business’s capital is referred as
a. Balance sheet
b. Income statement
c. Cash flow statement
d. Statement of changes in equity
Answer:
d. Statement of changes in equity

Question 41.
Financial statements mainly help in
a. Assumption of economic events
b. Anticipation of economic events
c. Recording of economic events
d. communication of economic events
Answer:
d. communication of economic events

Question 42.
Purchases + opening stock-closing stock=?
a. Amount of sales
b. Gross profit .
c. cost of goods sold
d. Net income
Answer:
c. cost of goods sold

Question 43.
Which of the following financial statements shows the financial position of a business?
a. Balance sheet
b. Income statement
c. Cash flow statement
d. Statement of changes in equity.
Answer:
b. Income statement

Question 44.
Which one of the following is NOT a feature of sole proprietorship business?
a. Easy Formation
b. Easy Dissolution
c. Unlimited Liability
d. Separate Legal Entity
Answer:
d. Separate Legal Entity

Question 45.
Assuming no returns outwards or carnage inwards, the cost of goods sold will be equal to _______________ in proprietor
a. Sales less gross profit
b. Purchases plus opening inventory closing inventory less
c. Closing inventory opening inventory less purchases plus
d. Opening inventory closing inventory plus purchases plus
Answer:
a. Sales less gross profit

Question 46.
The characteristics of a current asset would not include in proprietor
a. Liquidity
b. Not bought for resale
c. Likely to change before the next accounting period is over
d. Use as part of the firm’s trading operations
Answer:
b. Not bought for resale

Question 47.
Outstanding business rent of Rs. 15,000 was paid by the proprietor from his purse. The effect on the balance sheet is that
a. both liabilities and assets are increased.
b. both liabilities and assets are decreased.
c. liabilities are increased, while the assets are decreased.
d. liabilities are decreased, while the assets are increased.
e. both liabilities and assets remain unchanged.
Answer:
c. liabilities are increased, while the assets are decreased.

Question 48.
In a proprietorship business machinery that will be used in the business on continues basis that would usually be stated in the balance sheet at:
a. Its historical cost
b. Its current replacement cost
c. Its historical cost less depreciation
d. its second- hand value
Answer:
c. Its historical cost less depreciation

Question 49.
Drawing by a sole trader are:
a. An appropriation of profit
b. Liability
c. Expenses
d. Revenue
Answer:
a. An appropriation of profit

Question 50.
The net assets of a firm at the beginning of 2007 were Rs. 107,700. What were the net assets in the year 2007, if the profit earned by the business in 2007 was Rs. 72,500 and owner withdrew goods for his own private use that had cost Rs. 2,500.
a. Rs. 177,200
b. Rs. 107,700
c. Rs. 177,700
d. Rs. 176,700
Answer:
c. Rs. 177,700

Question 51.
Which of the following is NOT a required characteristic of an asset?
a. The benefit must arise from some past transaction or event
b. It must have physical substance and be capable of being touched
c. Both a&b
d. A benefit exists in future.
Answer:
b. It must have physical substance and be capable of being touched

Question 52.
In a sole trader’s profit and loss account firm , taxation accounts are not present because:
a. The proprietor of such a business pays income tax in his private capacity
b. The Income tax department has not made laws regarding the taxation of firms
c. As sole trader has a simple business so tax paying is not required
d. The business is separate undertaking for the purposes of tax
Answer:
a. The proprietor of such a business pays income tax in his private capacity

Question 53.
Which of the following asset is not an example of Intangible Fixed Assets?
a. Vehicles
b. Good Will
c. Copyrights
d. Trade Marks and Designs
Answer:
a. Vehicles

Question 54.
Insurance paid in advance would be treated in the Balance sheet as:
a. Non current asset
b. Current asset
c. Intangible asset
d. Deferred expense
Answer:
a. Non current asset

Question 55.
Which of the following consist of money owing for goods supplied to the firm and for expenses & loans?
a. Assets
b. Capital
c. Liability
d. Income
Answer:
b. Capital

Question 56.
Random sampling in auditing means:
a. Selection through convenience sampling
b. Selection through scientific sampling approach
c. None of these
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Selection through scientific sampling approach

Question 57.
Process Cost is very much applicable in:
a. Construction Industry
b. Pharmaceutical Industry
c. Air line company
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Construction Industry

Question 58.
Current maturity of long term loan is:
a. Current Liability
b. Long Term Liability
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Long Term Liability

Question 59.
Audit of a bank is generally conducted through:
a. Routine checking
b. Vouching
c. Balance sheet audit
d. None of these
Answer:
c. Balance sheet audit

Question 60.
Balance sheet is always prepared:
a. For the year ended
b. As on a specific date
c. For a current year
d. None of these
Answer:
b. As on a specific date

Question 61.
Quick assets include which of the following?
a. Cash
b. Accounts Receivable
c. Inventories
d. Only (a) and (b)
Answer:
d. Only (a) and (b)

Question 62.
A cash purchase of supplies would:
a. Decrease owner’s equity
b. Increase liabilities
c. Have no effect on total assets
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Decrease owner’s equity

Question 63.
Users of accounting information include:
a. ‘The tax authorities
b. Investors
c. Creditors
d. All of these
Answer:
d. All of these

Question 64.
Under the diminishing balance method, depreciation amount is:
a. Payment
b. Receipt
c. Expenditure
d. None of these
Answer:
c. Expenditure

Question 65.
The accounting profession can be divided into three major categories; Specifically, the practice of public accounting, private accounting, and governmental accounting. A somewhat unique and important service of public accountants is:
a. Financial accounting.
b. Managerial accounting.
c. Auditing.
d. Cost accounting.
Answer:
c. Auditing.

Question 66.
Retained earnings will change over time because of several factors. Which of the following factors would explain an increase in retained earnings?
a. Net loss.
b. Net income.
c. Dividends.
d. Investments by stockholders
Answer:
b. Net income.

Question 67.
Debit balance in a personal account shows.
a. Asset of the firm
b. Liability of the firm
c. Both a & b
d. Contingent liability of the firm
Answer:
a. Asset of the firm

Question 68.
Which of these items would be accounted for as an expense?
a. Repayment of a bank loan.
b. Dividends to stockholders.
c. The purchase of land.
d. Payment of the current period’s rent
Answer:
d. Payment of the current period’s rent

Question 69.
Which of the following account(s) will be affected, while rectifying the error of a purchase return of Rs. 200 to Mr. “A” entered in sales book instead of purchase return book?
a. A’s account only
b. Sales account only
c. Purchase returns account and sales account
d. Purchases account only
Answer:
c. Purchase returns account and sales account

Question 70.
Which of the following account(s) will be affected, while rectifying the error of an amount Rs. 200 received from Mr. “P” wrongly credited to Mr. “Q’s” account?
a. Only Cash Account
b. Only P’s account
c. Only Q’s account
d. Both of Mr. P’s & Mr. Q’s Account
Answer:
d. Both of Mr. P’s & Mr. Q’s Account

Question 71.
When closing stock is given in trial balance, then it will effect:
a. Trading account only
b. Balance sheet only
c. Owner’s equity only
d. Both Trading account and Balance sheet
Answer:
d. Both Trading account and Balance sheet

Question 72.
Which of the following is an item of a debtors control account?
a. Cash sale
b. Credit sales
c. Credit purchase
d. Cash purchases
Answer:
c. Credit purchase

Question 73.
Which of the following is an item of a creditors control account?
a. Cash purchases
b. Cash sales
c. Credit sales
d. Credit purchase
Answer:
a. Cash purchases

Question 74.
Which of the following is (are) benefit/s of subsidiary ledger accounts to business?
a. It tells about customer attitude of payments
b. It can be checked against the control account to pick up recording errors
c. t tells about the complete history of transactions of business client
d. All of the given options
Answer:
d. All of the given options

Question 75.
Which of the following item must be recorded in the adjusted Cash Book in order to bring it in line with the entries in the Bank Statement?
a. Bank charges
b. An error on the Bank Statement
c. An uncredited deposit
d. An unpresented cheque
Answer:
c. An uncredited deposit

Question 76.
Which of the following is/are NOT shown in balance sheet of sole proprietor?
a. Fixed assets
b. Current liabilities
c. Profit sharing ratio
d. Long term assets
Answer:
c. Profit sharing ratio

Question 77.
The Working Capital (or Net Current Assets) of a business is:
a. Current assets less current liabilities
b. Capital plus liabilities which are not expected to be paid within a year of the balance sheet date
c. The capital commencement of business
d. Non current assets plus current assets less current liabilities
Answer:
a. Current assets less current liabilities

Question 78.
Which of the following statement is true?
a. Return Inwards and Return Outwards both appear in trading account
b. Carriage Inwards and Carriage Outwards both appear in profit and loss account.
c. Carriage Inwards and Carriage Outwards both appear in trading account.
d. Neither Carriage Inwards nor Carriage Outwards appear in the trading account.
Answer:
a. Return Inwards and Return Outwards both appear in trading account

Hint:
Return Inwards and Return Outwards both appear in trading account. Return inwards appear in the trading account on the credit side and Return outwards appear on debit side of Trading A/c.

Question 79.
Prakash sells goods at 20% on sales. His sales were Rs. 10,00,000. The zamount of gross profit is:
a. Rs. 1,70,000
b. Rs. 2,50,000
c. Rs. 2,40,000
d. Rs. 2.00,000
Answer:
d. Rs. 2.00,000
Hint:
Sales = Rs. 10,00,000
Gross Profit = 20% of sales
Thus, Gross Profit = 10,00,000×20%
= Rs.2,00,000

Question 80.
Given the following data:
Gross profit Rs. 6,700; Carriage Inwards t 250; Rent received Rs. 575 and other expenses Rs. 3.600. The net profit of the firm would be:
a. Rs. 3.275
b. Rs. 3,025
c. Rs. 3,425
d. Rs. 3,675
Answer:
d. Rs. 3,675

Hint:
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 26

Question 81.
Ram has been running business from the year 2002. He has paid Rs. 1,650 as rent upto February, 2012 (for financial year 2011-12). Total rent to be debited to profit and loss A/c of financial year 2011-12 will be:
a. Rs. 1,650
b. Rs. 1,800
c. Rs. 2,000
d. Rs. 1,400
Answer:

Question 82.
Income tax paid by the sole- proprietor from the business bank account is debited to:
a. Income tax account
b. Bank account
c. Capital account
d. Provision for taxation account
Answer:
b. Bank account

Hint:
Rent paid of 11 months (April to February 2012) = Rs.1,650
So, one month rent wHI be = \(\frac{1,650}{11}\) = Rs. 150
Thus rent for 12 months i.e. one year will be 1650 + 150 = Rs 1800
Thus total amount of rent debited to P/L A/c will be Rs.1,800.

Question 83.
Debtors as appearing in Trial Balance are f 25,000. Provision for doubtful debts is to be provided @ 5% and 2% of amount is to be provided for discount. What is the amount of debtors to be shown in balance sheet?
a. f 23,750
b. f 23,250
c. f 23,275
d. f 1,750
Answer:
a. f 23,750

Hint:
The entries to be passed after payment of income tax are
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 27
Therefore, income tax paid, is debited to income Tax Account

Question 84.
The net profit of a sole proprietorship firm is f 1,320 (before commission). The manager of the firm gets 10% commission on the net profit after charging such commission. Manager’s commission would be:
a. f 120
b. f 132
c. f 1,188
d. f 1,200.
Answer:
c. f 1,188

Hint:
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 28
Thus, the amount of debtors to be shown in balance sheet is Rs. 23,275

Question 85.
Which of the following is correct about trade discount?
a. It is synonymous with discount?
b. It is shown by way of deduction in invoice itself
c. It is calculated on account paid or received
d. It is allowed to engage the prompt payment
Answer:
a. It is synonymous with discount?

Hint:
Manager’s commission ¡s calculated ¡n two ways:
(1) On Profits before charging such commission:
Manager’s commission=Net Profits × (Percentage of commission/100)
(2) On Profits after charging such commission:
Manager’s commission=Net Profits × (Percentage of commission/100+% of commission)
Commission on net profit after charging such commission
= Net profit × \(\frac{\text { Rate of commission }}{100+\text { rate of commission }}\)
= 1,320 × \(\frac{10}{100+10}\)
= 1320 × \(\frac{10}{110}\) = 120

Question 86.
Which of the following items would fall under the category of a-liability?
a. Cash
b. Debtors
c. Capital
d. Land
Answer:
b. Debtors

Hint:
A trade discount is the amount by which a manufacturer reduces the retail price of a product when it sells to a reseller, rather than to the end customer. The reseller then charges the full retail price to its customers in order to earn a profit on the difference between the amount by which the manufacturer sold the product to it and the price at which it then sells the product to the final customer. The reseller does not necessarily resell at the suggested retail price; selling at a discount is a common practice, if the reseller wishes to gain market share or clear out excess inventory. Trade discount is issued by deduction in list price. From accounting point of view no entries are made. It is shown by way of deduction in invoice itself.

Question 87.
If a piece of furniture’s list price is f 28,000 and it is sold at 10% trade discount and 2% cash discount. The cash safe price of furniture would be:
a. Rs. 25,200
b. Rs. 24,640
c. Rs. 24,696
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Rs. 24,696

Hint:
According to the principle of seperate entity, capital is considered as liability for the business and the owner is paid a certain amount of interest on the capital employed.

Question 88.
What is shown in a balance sheet?
a. Only those assets which are expressed in monetary terms
b. Only those liabilities which are expressed in monetary terms
c. Assets and liabilities expressed in non-monetary terms
d. Assets and liabilities expressed in monetary terms
Answer:
c. Assets and liabilities expressed in non-monetary terms

Hint:
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 29

Question 89.
The correct sequence of the following in the preparation of periodical final statements would be:
1. Preparation of Balance Sheet
2. Preparation of Cash Flow Statement
3. Preparation of Trial Balance
4. Preparation of Profit/Loss Statement The correct option is:
a. 4, 2, 1,3
b. 3, 4, 1,2
c. 2, 4, 3,1
d. 1, 3, 2, 4.
Answer:
d. 1, 3, 2, 4.

Hint:
Balance sheet is a statement of assets and liabilities and according to money measurement concept those items which can be interpreted in terms of money are recorded and shown in financial books.
Thus, it can be said that those assets and liabilities which expressed in monetary terms is shown in a Balance Sheet.

Question 90.
Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List I  List II
X. Discount on Debentures  1. Current Liability
Y. Forfeited Capital  2. Non-Current Assets
Z. Income tax payable  3. Current Assets
W. Debtors acceptance  4. Non Current Liability

The correct option is:
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 32
Answer:
b

Hint:
The correct sequence of preparation of periodical financial statements is as follows:

  • Trial Balance,
  • Profit/Loss statement,
  • Balance Sheet and
  • Cash Flow Statement.

Question 91.
A company sends cars to dealers on ‘sales or return’ basis. All such transactions are however treated like actual sales and are passed through the sales day book. Just before the end of the financial year, two cars which had casted Rs. 55,000 each have been sent on ‘sales or return’ basis and have been debited to customers at Rs. 75,000 each. Cost of goods lying with the customers would be:
a. Rs. 1,10,000
b. Rs. 1,50,000
c. Rs. 75,000
d. Rs. 55,000
Answer:
a. Rs. 1,10,000

Hint:
Current assets: Assets which can be converted into cash easily within a short time say one year are called as current assets. Eg. Debtors acceptance
Non current assets: A noncurrent asset is an asset that is not expected to be consumed within one year Eg. Discount on debentures
Current liability: These liabilities are repayable within a year or in the near future . eg. Income tax payable.
Non current liability: A business’s long-term financial obligations that are not due within the present accounting year eg. Forfeited capital

Question 90.
The total cost of goods available for sales with a company during the current year is Rs. 12,00, 000 and the total sales during the period are Rs. 13,00,000. Gross profit margin of the company is 331/3% on cost. The closing inventory for the current year would be:
a. Rs. 4,00,000
b. Rs. 3,00,000
c. Rs. 2,25,000
d. Rs. 2,60,000.
Answer:
a. Rs. 4,00,000

Hint:
Cost of goods lying with customer = 55,000 + 55,000 = 110,000

Question 93.
How does an overcastting of purchases day book affect the cost of sales and profit?
a. Cost of sales is decreased while profit is increased
b. Cost of sales is increased while profit is decreased
c. Both cost of sales and profit are increased
d. Cost of sales is increased; gross profit is decreased but net profit remains unaffected.
Answer:
c. Both cost of sales and profit are increased

Hint:
Sales = Rs. 13,00,000
G.P. Margin cost is 1/3 and on sales it will be 1/4
Cost of goods sold = 13,00,000 × 3/4 = 9,75,000
Closing Stock = Total goods available for sale – Cost of goods sold
= 12,00,000 – 9,75,000
= Rs. 2,25,000

Question 94.
If outstanding wages appear in the trial balance, while preparing the final accounts: it will be shown in:
a. Asset side of the balance sheet
b. Liability side of the balance sheet
c. Profit and Loss A/c and asset side of the balance sheet
d. Profit and Loss A/c and Liability side of balance sheet.
Answer:
b. Liability side of the balance sheet

Hint:
Cost of Sales = Opening stock + Purchases – Closing stock
Sales – Cost of sales = profit
Looking at the above two statements it may be observed that if purchases is overcast the cost of sates will increase. And If cost of sates will increase the profit will decrease.
Therefore, cost of sates is increased white profit is decreased

Question 95.
E Ltd., a dealer in second-hand machinery has the following five machines of different models and makes in their stock at the end of the financial year 2012-13:
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 25
The value of stock included in the Balance Sheet of the company as on 31 SI March, 2013 was:
a. Rs. 7,62,500
b. Rs. 7,70,000
c. Rs. 7,90,000
d. Rs. 8,70,000.
Answer:
b. Rs. 7,70,000

Hint:
Outstanding wages appearing in the trial balance will be shown on liability side of balance sheet.

Question 96.
Fire Insurance premium paid on 1st October, 2011 for the year ended on 30th September, 2012 was Rs. 2,400 and Fire Insurance premium paid on 1st October, 2012 for the year ending on 30th September, 2013 was Rs. 3,200. Fire Insurance premium paid as shown in the profit and loss account for the accounting year ended 31st December, 2012 would be:
a. Rs. 2,600
b. Rs. 3,200
c. Rs. 2,800
d. Rs. 3,000
Answer:
b. Rs. 3,200

Hint:
Closing stock is the unsold stock at the end of accounting period. Stock is valued at lower of cost or market price.
Total value of closing stock = 9 + 1.15 + 2.65 + 1.00 + 2 = 7.7 lakh

Question 97.
Income earned which is yet to be collected results in:
a. Increase in capital and increase in liability
b. Decrease in liability and increase in capital
c. Increase in asset and increase in liability
d. Increase in capital and increase in asset.
Answer:
a. Increase in capital and increase in liability

Hint
Premium Expense for accounting year Ended 31 st December 2012 would be:-
1.1.2012 – 30.9.12: 2,400 × \(\frac{9}{12}\) = 1,800
1.10.2012 – 31.12.12: 3,200 × \(\frac{3}{12}\) = 800
Fire insurance premium paid = 1800 + 800 = 2,600

Question 98.
X Limited is in the business of trading. It is to receive Rs. 7,000 from Vinod and to pay Rs. 8,000 to Vinod. Similarly, it is to pay Rs. 8,000 to Sudhir and to receive Rs. 9,000 from Sudhir. Except above but after all the adjustment, the books of X Limited show the debtors balance at Rs. 72,000 (Dr.) and creditors balance at Rs. 39,000 (Cr.). The correct value of debtors and creditors to be shown in balance sheet would be
a. Debtors (Rs. 72,000), Creditors (Rs. 39,000)
b. Debtors (Rs. 88,000), Creditors (Rs. 55,000)
c. Debtors (Rs. 80,000), Creditors (Rs. 47,000)
d. Debtors (Rs. 79,000), Creditors (Rs. 46.000).
Answer:
d. Debtors (Rs. 79,000), Creditors (Rs. 46.000).

Hint:
Income earned which is yet to be collected is accrued or outstanding income.
It is shown as
Profit and Loss account – credit side
Balance sheet – credit side
This results in increase in income and thereby an increase in capital and also an increase in corresponding asset.

Question 99.
If the insurance Rs. premium paid is Rs. 1,000 and prepaid insurance is Rs. 300, the amount of Insurance premium shown in profit and loss account will be
a. Rs. 1,300
b. Rs. 700
c. Rs. 1,000
d. Rs. 300.
Answer:
b. Rs. 700

Hint:

Debtors (Rs.) Creditors (Rs.)
Balance shown by X Limited 72,000 39,000
Add: To receive from Vinod 7,000
To receive from Sudhir 9,000
To pay vinod 8,000
To pay Sudhir 8,000
Correct value to be shown in Balance sheet 88,000 55,000

Question 100.
The expired cost of a deferred revenue expense is known as
a. Asset
b. Expense
c. Liability
d. Provision
Answer:
a. Asset

Hint:
Prepaid insurance premium is not an expenses of this year, so it will not be shown in P/L A/c.
Insurance premium shown in profit and loss A/c will be (1,000 -300) = Rs. 700 only,

Question 101.
If prepaid rent appears in the trial balance, while preparing the final accounts it will be shown in –
a. Assets side of the balance sheet
b. Liabilities side of the balance sheet
c. Profit and Loss A/c and asset side of the balance sheet
d. Profit and Loss A/c and liabilities side of balance sheet.
Answer:
b. Liabilities side of the balance sheet

Hint:
The term “deferred expense” is used to describe a payment that has been made, but it won’t be reported as an expense until a future accounting period. It is shown as an expense in Profit and Loss Account.

Question 102.
Gauri paid Rs. 1,000 towards debt of Rs. 1,050, which was written-off as bad debt in the previous year. Which of the following account will be credited for this amount
a. Gauri’s personal account
b. Bad debts account
c. Bad debts recovered account
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Gauri’s personal account

Hint:
If prepaid rent appears in the trail balance, on preparation of final accounts it will be shown on assets side of balance sheet only.

Question 103.
While finalising the current year’s profit, the company realised that there was an error in the valuation of closing stock of the previous year. In the previous year; closing stock was valued more by Rs.50,000. As a result
a. Previous year’s profit was overstated and current year’s profit is also overstated
b. Previous year’s profit was understated and current year’s profit is overstated
c. Previous year’s profit was understated and current year’s profit is also understated
d. Previous year’s profit was overstated and current year’s profit is understated.
Answer:
c. Previous year’s profit was understated and current year’s profit is also understated

Hint:
When a bad debt is recovered which was written off in the previous year, Bad Debts Recovered A/c will be credited.

Question 104.
If Capital = 70,000; Liability = 40,000. Find Assets –
a. 30,000
b. 1,10,000
c. 40,000
d. 70,000
Answer:
d. 70,000

Hint:
The gross profit and net income are overstated as a result of overstating closing stock. Since the overstated amount of closing stock at the end of one accounting period becomes the opening stock for the next year, the following periods cost of goods sold is high and thereby the current year’s profit is low.

Question 105.
If opening stock is 10,000, Purchases 20,000, Direct expenses 10,000, Indirect expenses 30,000. Find value of cost of goods sold:
a. 10,000
b. 20,000
c. 30,000
d. 40,000.
Answer:
b. 20,000

Hint:
Assets = Capital + Liability
= 70,000 + 4,000 = 1,10,000

Question 106.
P/L A/c balance (before commission) is Rs. 1,320; manager’s commission is 10%. Find the amount of manager’s commission.
a. 120
b. 0
c. 132
d. 110.
Answer:
d. 110.

Hint:
Cost of goods sold = Opening Stock + Direct Material + Direct Expenses
= 10,000 + 10,000 + 20,000 = 40,000

Question 107.
Adjusted closing entry affects:
a. Trading A/c
b. P/L A/c
c. Balance Sheet
d. All of the above.
Answer:
c. Balance Sheet

Hint:
On Profits before charging such commission:
Manager’s commission = Net Profits × (Percentage of commission/100)
Amount of manager’s commission = \(\frac{1,320 \times 10}{100}\) = 132

Question 108.
The purpose of making trading account:
a. To know the financial position of business
b. To ascertain the gross profit/loss
c. To ascertain the net profit/loss
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. To ascertain the net profit/loss

Hint:
Adjusting entries are journal entries recorded at the end of an accounting period to adjust income and expenses accounts so that they comply with the accrual concept of accounting. Their main purpose is to match income and expenses to appropriate accounting periods . Adjusting closing entry affects Balance Sheet.

Question 109.
Prepaid Rent is shown as:
a. Current Asset
b. Current Liability
c. Intangible Asset
d. Fictitious Asset
Answer:
b. Current Liability

Hint:
The purpose of the profit and loss account is to show whether a business has made a PROFIT or LOSS over a financial year.

Question 110.
Trial balance of a trader shows the following balances:
Opening Stock Rs. 9,600, Purchases Rs. 11,850, Wages and Salaries Rs. 3,200, Carriage on Purchases Rs. 200, Carriage Outwards Rs. 300, SA/cs Rs. 24,900, Closing Stock Rs. 3,500 Gross Profit will be:
a. Rs. 3,550
b. Rs. 6,750
c. Rs. 6,500
d. Rs. 6,550
Answer:
a. Rs. 3,550

Hint:
Current assets : Assets which can be converted into cash easily within a short time say one year are called as current assets .

Question 111.
Assets that a company expects to convert to cash to use up within one year are called:
a. Property plant and equipment
b. Intangible assets
c. Long term investments
d. Current assets
Answer:
d. Current assets

Hint:
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 30

Question 112.
Closing Stock of a Company, if given is adjustment, appears in:
a. Balance Sheet only
b. Trading Account only
c. Profit and loss account only
d. Trading account and balance sheet
Answer:
d. Trading account and balance sheet

Hint:
Current assets: Assets which can be converted into cash easily within a short time say one year are called as current assets . Eg. Debtors , Inventories , short term investments , bank and cash balances etc.

Question 113.
Financial data of an entity is given below:
Gross Profit Rs. 6,700, Carriage outwards Rs. 250, Rent received Rs. 575 and Other expenses Rs. 3,600. The net profit would be:
a. Rs. 3,025
b. Rs. 2,850
c. Rs. 3,425
d. Rs. 3,275
Answer:
d. Rs. 3,275

Hint:
Closing stock of a company, if given in adjustment, appears at two places Credit side of the Trading A/c and on the asset side of the balance sheet.

Question 114.
Liability in respect of a pending suit is an example of:
a. Current liability
b. Long term liability
c. Contingent liability
d. Current asset.
Answer:
c. Contingent liability

Hint:
Preparation of Final Accounts for Sole Proprietorship – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 31

Question 115.
Which of the following item appears in trading account of a business?
a. Wages and Salaries
b. Depreciation on buildings
c. Freight outward
d. Salaries.
Answer:
c. Freight outward

Hint:
Contingent Liabilities: These are anticipated liabilities. These are uncertain and may or may not arise in future on the happening of a certain event. If the contemplated event occurs, a contingent liability becomes a real liability. Liability on bills discounted, disputed claims or liability under a damage suit, guarantee for a loan is examples of contingent liabilities.

Question 116.
Which of the following statements is correct about trial balance?
a. A Trial balance is a list of all entries made in the books of account
b. A Trial balance is a list of balances in all assets accounts
c. A Trial balance is another ledger account
d. A Trial balance is a list of balances in the cash account and all ledger accounts.
Answer:
a. A Trial balance is a list of all entries made in the books of account

Hint:
Wages and salaries appeat in trading A/c whereas Depreciation, Freight outward and Salaries appear in Profit & Loss A/c.

Question 117.
Generally, in a balance sheet, fixed assets are shown at:
a. Realisable value
b. Market value
c. Written down value
d. Cost price.
Answer:
d. Cost price.

Hint:
The heading of the two columns in Trial balance are “Debit Balances” and “Credit Balances”., thus it can be said it is list of balances.

Question 118.
In order to prepare the final accounts all ……………………….. accounts are transferred to Trading and Profit and Loss Account:
a. Personal
b. Nominal and Real
c. Nominal
d. Real
Answer:
c. Nominal

Hint:
In order to prepare the final accounts all the nominal accounts are transferred to trading and profit and loss account.

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Theory Of Demand And Supply – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Theory Of Demand And Supply – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Supply and demand are perhaps one of the most fundamental concepts of economics and it is the backbone of a market economy. Demand refers to how much (quantity) of a product or service is desired by buyers. The quantity demanded is the amount of a product people are willing to buy at a certain price; the relationship between price and quantity demanded is known as the demand relationship. Supply represents how much the market can offer. The quantity supplied refers to the amount of certain goods producers are willing to supply when receiving a certain price. The correlation between price and how much of a good or service is supplied to the market is known as the supply relationship. Price, therefore, is a reflection of supply and demand.

1. The Law of Demand
The most famous law in economics and the one economists are most sure of, is the law of demand. On this law is built almost the whole edifice of economics. Demand means the quantity a consumer wants to purchase Features of Law of demand are

  • As per this law fall in the price of a product is inversely proportional to the demand of that product. Thus when the price falls demand increases
  • The Law of demand is ceteris Paribus which means the quantity purchased depends upon all other things being equal at that time. Thus if all the other things incidental to the product remain the same then purchase quantity is dependent on price.
  • If the price falls then purchase quantity increases at that time. Thus if the price of potatoes falls in a week and the desire for potatoes remains the same for that week then purchase quantity increases.
  • This law summarizes the effect price changes have on consumer behavior A demand for a good can be expressed in 3 ways
  • Demand function – The demand function relates to price and quantity. It tells how many units of goodwill be purchased at different prices.

In general, at higher prices, less will be purchased. Thus, the graphical representation of the demand function (often referred to as the demand curve) has a negative slope. The market demand function is calculated by adding up all of the individual consumers’ demand functions.
It is an algebraic way of showing the demand of an individual. A generalized expression for a commodity X can be
Dx = Px, Y, T
Where Dx = quantity demanded for X product
Px = price of X product
Y = income level of consumer
T= his tastes
Thus quantity demanded by an individual is dependent on Px, Y, T

• Demand schedule
In economics, a market demand schedule is a table that lists the quantity of a good all consumers in a market will buy at every different price. A market demand schedule for a product indicates that there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded. The graphical representation of a demanding schedule is called a demand curve. A demand schedule is a simple means of summarizing information about demand price and quantity demanded of a particular good. It is used to highlight the law of demand. It can also be used to derive a demand curve. It can be an individual demand schedule or a market demand schedule which is a summation of the individual demand schedule.

• Demand Curve
In economics, a graphic representation of the relationship between product price and the quantity of the product demanded is the demand curve. It is drawn with a price on the vertical axis of the graph and quantity demanded on the horizontal axis. With few exceptions, the demand curve is delineated as sloping downward from left to right because price and quantity demanded are inversely related (i.e., the lower the price of a product, the higher the demand or number of sales). This relationship is contingent on certain ceteris paribus (other things equal) conditions remaining constant.

Utility approach – Utility is a term used by economists to describe the measurement of “useful-ness” that a consumer obtains from any good. A consumer’s utility is hard to measure. However, we can determine it indirectly with consumer behavior theories, which assume that consumers will strive to maximize their utility.

2. Measurement of utility
The utility may measure how much one enjoys a movie, or the sense of security one gets from buying a deadbolt. Utility measurement provides a basis for discussing the satisfaction of wants and needs derived from consumption, which then enables an understanding of the role utility plays in market demand. The utility approach for determining demand is very much based on individual taste and desire. The desire may not always be for the welfare of consumers. But over here determining the demand is not concerned with the normative approach. There are two approaches that are used for measuring the utility.

  • Cardinal Approach
  • Ordinal Approach

Cardinal Approach

Cardinal approach suggests that utility can be measured in imaginary cardinal numbers 1,3,10 etc. It argues that a consumer has the capacity to measure the level of satisfaction that person derives from the consumption of a given quantity of a commodity.

As we know the resources are scarce and wants are unlimited so choices are to be made in regard to maximum utilization. Let us understand by an example. A man has is hungry he has the choice either to purchase it from the market or cook at home. Now it is on the consumer to decide which choice satisfies him the most and gives the maximum utility. As per this approach this utility can be measured.

The concept of Cardinal Utility was used by Marshal to define Consumer’s Equilibrium. Cardinal Utility means consumers could measure the satisfaction derived by the consumption of any goods or services in terms of number and . unit of that measurement is Utils. Cardinal utility was popular with utilitarian economists in the 18th century. Their belief was that utility could be measured.

As we know resources are scarce and want unlimited so the choices are to be made by consumers. For making choices you need a comparison parameter. As per this approach, a consumer can measure the utility of a good with other goods in cardinal numbers, and accordingly, it can make a choice which good gives him maximum utilization 1 Cardinal utility theory has two drawbacks First, the very first assumption of the cardinal utility approach is that utility is cardinally (or objectively) measurable is untenable. The utility is a subjective concept that cannot be measured objectively or quantifiably.

Secondly, the cardinal utility approach assumes that the MU of cardinal numbers remains constant and serves as a measure I of utility. This assumption is unrealistic because the MU of cardinal numbers, like that of all other goods, is subject to change. And, therefore, it cannot serve as a measure of utility derived from goods and services.

Ordinal approach
The concept was first introduced by Pareto. He said that utility can not be measured in numbers instead it can be depicted in a comparable manner. As per this approach, the utility can not be measured in units but it can be determined by preferences so whenever demand for a product is being accessed then it can be determined on the basis of preferences made by consumers. This is more realistic and better than the cardinal utility. This is totally based on Introspection.

This theory states that while the utility of a particular good or service cannot be measured using a numerical scale bearing economic meaning in and of itself, pairs of alternative bundles (combinations) of goods can be ordered such that one is considered by an individual to be worse than, equal to, or better than the other. This contrasts with cardinal utility theory, which generally treats utility as something whose numerical value is meaningful in its own right. The ordinal utility is also commonly known as indifference curve theory because its analysis is based on the indifference curve.
Concept of utility – a good after being purchased gets its utility divided into
Total utility (TU)
Average utility(AU)
Marginal utility (MU)
Total utility – is the summation of utilities derived from all of the n units
Average utility – when we divide total utility by the number of units we get average utility
Marginal utility – additional satisfaction a consumer gets when he consumes one more unit of a good is marginal utility.
Marginal utility is an important economic concept because economists use it to determine how much of an item a
consumer will buy. Positive marginal utility is when the consumption of an additional item increases the total utility. Negative marginal utility is when the consumption of an additional item decreases the total utility.
The time when marginal utility becomes zero total utility is maximum.

3. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
A law of economics stating that as a person increases consumption of a product – while keeping consumption of other products constant – there is a decline in the marginal utility that person derives from consuming each additional unit of that product. The concept looks psychological but can be calculated in rational numbers like 2,3, etc. Law has a direct bearing on the market demand, the demand price, and the law of demand. If satisfaction is obtained from a good decline, then buyers are willing to pay a lower price, hence demand price is inversely related to quantity demanded, which is the law of demand.

This law can not be used for all the utility items cause there are certain things whose utility increases as they are added like reading. In such cases the more you get more you want thus here utility demand is not diminishing but instead increasing. The law of diminishing marginal utility is directly linked to determining the price of the commodity. Not only this it is very useful for social welfare programs where you can find out whether the goods and services wants are the same for all people or it is different. Then on basis of finding goods and services can be distributed among society members.

4. Observations for the law of DMU

  • When TU rises, MU diminishes
  • When TU is maximum, MU is zero
  • When TU decreases, MU becomes negative

5. Assumptions of the law of DMU

  • The marginal decision rule states that a good or service should be consumed at a quantity at which the marginal utility is equal to the marginal cost.
  • Constant marginal utility of money
  • Consumption to be continuous
  • Utility is cardinally measurable
  • Hypothesis of independent utilities
  • Taste and income of the consumer does not change
  • The units of the commodity are identical
  • There is no time gap between the consumptions
  • Standard unit of consumption Exceptions to the law of DMU is
  • Hobbies of consumers like Reading of more books give more satisfaction
  • For a miser, a person’s greed increases with the acquisition of one additional unit and he wants more.
  • Drunkards enjoy every additional drink so the rule does not apply to them

6. Uses of the law of DMU

  • This law of DMU forms the basis of the law of demand, the law of Equi-marginal utility, the elasticity of demand, etc.
  • A producer can increase the sale of his product by fixing a lower price. Since consumers tend to buy more to equate MU with price, a producer can expect a rise in sales.
  • The Govt can impose and justify progressive income tax on the ground of this law, as the income increases, the MU of income diminishes.

7. Law of Equi Marginal Utility
The law of equity-marginal utility is an extension of the law of diminishing marginal utility. This law states a consumer spends money on the basis of marginal utility it derives from the purchase of that good. Thus when a consumer has to choose from different goods which have fixed price and which obeys the law of diminishing utility than a consumer will purchase that product whose marginal utility is not less than the price paid for it.
Symbolically MUa/Pa = 1
Here MUa is the marginal utility of product ‘a’
Pa is price of product ‘a’
If MUa/Pa > MUb/Pb then we can see that marginal utility of product ‘a’ is more than product ‘b’ thus consumer will shift its purchase from ‘b’ to ‘a’.
Assumptions of the Law of Equi -Marginal Utility

  • There is no change in the prices of the goods.
  • The income of consumers is fixed.
  • The marginal utility of money is constant.
  • The consumer has perfect knowledge of utility obtained from goods.
  • The consumer is a normal person so he tries to seek maximum satisfaction.
  • The utility is cardinally measurable.

8. Limitations to the law of Equi -marginal utility

  • The law of equity-marginal utility may become inoperative if people forced by fashions and customs
  • If the unit of expenditure is not divisible, then again the law may become inoperative.
  • If there is no perfect freedom between various alternatives, the operation of law may be impeded.
  • It assumes that customers are able to calculate the correct marginal utility of all goods
  • Sometimes people are ignorant of the price so they are not able to get maximum benefit by equating the marginal utility.
  • Sometimes the goods are substitutes or complement to each other. In such a case utility of a product is dependent on the quantity of its own product and other product.
  • All goods can not be divided into units like a car can not be purchased in units but bread can be purchased in units.

9. Importance of law of Equi -marginal utility

  • The law of equity-marginal utility is of great practical importance
  • Every consumer consciously trying to get the maximum satisfaction from his limited resources acts upon this principle of substitution
  • It applies equally to the theory of production and the theory of distribution.
  • Government can also use this analysis for evaluation of its different economic prices.

10. Law of demand and its analysis
In economics, the law states that all else being equal, as the price of a product increases, a lower quantity will be demanded; likewise, as the price of a product decreases, a higher quantity will be demanded. Characteristic features of the law of demand

  • When the price of a commodity rises, people buy less of that commodity, and when the price falls, people buy more of it ceteris paribus (other things remaining the same).
  • The Law of demand has a negative slope which means as the price falls the demand for the product increases and as the price rises the demand decreases, thus quantity demanded is inversely proportional to the price of a good.
  • When the price of a product increases the quantity purchased by a buyer decreases. This is called contraction of demand
  • If the price falls consumer moves downward on the demand curve and purchases more which is called expansion
  • If there is no change in the price of the good but still the quantity being purchased by the consumer changes then we draw another demand curve.
  • The demand curve slopes downward from left to right. It has a negative slope showing that the two variables price and quantity work in the opposite directions.

11. Assumptions of the Law of demand

  • There should not be any change in the tastes of the consumers for goods.
  • The purchasing power of the typical consumer must remain constant (M).
  • The price of all other commodities should not vary

12. Exceptions to the law of demand

  • Prestige goods or conspicuous goods There are certain commodities like diamonds, sports cars, etc., which are purchased as a mark of distinction in society. If the price of these goods rises, the demand for them may increase instead of falling.
  • Inferior goods – in such a case when the income of the consumer increases the shift his purchase from inferior goods to superior goods even if inferior goods price falls.
  • Price expectations: If people expect a further rise in the price particular commodity, they may buy more in spite of rising in price. The violation of the law, in this case, is only temporary.
  • Ignorance of the consumer: If the consumer is ignorant about the rise in the price of goods, he may buy more at a higher price.
  • Giffen goods: these are the goods which people keep on buying in spite of the increase in price because they have no other substitute for them eg. basic goods, (potatoes, sugar, etc). This is known as the Giffen paradox. There is a positive price effect in the case of Giffen goods.
  • Some goods are so complementary to each other that they can not be segregated thus even if there is a fall in the price of one product the increase in the price of other is immaterial
  • Fashion dependent goods

13. Importance of law of Demand

  • The study of the law of demand is helpful for a trader to fix the price of a commodity.
  • The study of this law is of great advantage to the Government for deciding about taxation.

14. Supply
Supply refers to the quantities of a product that producers are willing and able to offer at a given price during some period of time. In other words, it is the total quantity of a particular good that can be given in the market at a certain price. Stock and supply are two different words. Stock means the total quantity of good ‘A’ available that is physically present in the market at a particular time while supply is the total quantity of ‘A’ offered to the market for sale. The law of supply states that the quantity of a good supplied (i.e., the amount owners or producers offer for sale) rises as the market price rises, and falls as the price falls. The Law of supply is opposite to the law of demand

15. Features of the law of Supply

  • A shift in supply refers to an increase (rightward change) or a decrease (leftward change) in the quantity supplied at each possible price. These shifts are influenced by non-price determinants
  • As the price increase producers are ready to supply more Thus Ceteris Paribus (when all conditions remain the same) price rise shows supply rise
  • Supply curve is upward sloping
  • Conditions that affect production are the number of firms, prices of input, technology, cost of production, etc.
  • If the quantity supplied changes without change in price then a new supply curve is made towards the outer side and is called the increase in supply and if the supply curve moves inside it is called reduction
  • The supply curve is positively sloped upward and to right
  • A reduction in quantity supply on account of an increase in price is called ‘contraction’
  • If the price of goods falls the supply of goods increases this is called ‘expansion’

16. Various ways of expressing Supply

  • Supply Curve – It is a graphic representation of the relationship between product price and quantity of product that a seller is willing and able to supply. Product price is measured on the vertical axis of the graph and quantity of product supplied on the horizontal axis.
  • Supply Function – It is the mathematical function that relates the price and quantity supplied for goods or services.
    The supply function tells how many units of a good that producers are willing to produce and sell at a given price.
  • Supply Schedule – A table that contains values for the price of a good and the quantity that would be supplied at that price.

17. Reasons supply curve to be positively sloped are

  • a change in price will push the quantity supplied in the same direction, supply curves will have a positive slope.
  • as the selling price of the product increases, the willingness of producers to create that product increases as well.
  • With the greater incentive (profit) to make that product, production will rise in direct proportion to how much price increases.

18. Exceptions to law of supply

  • Competition may compel the supplier to supply goods even at lower prices
  • Sometimes a seller may know that there will be an increase in price in the future so he may stop supplying and may wait for the price to rise
  • Certain goods production can not be increased even if prices are high like agricultural products – On the contrary when agricultural products are on the verge of being spoilt then the supplier may be forced to sell at a low price
  • Sometimes government puts restrictions like subsidies etc. Where whatever may be the demand of the good the seller has to supply at the subsidized price only.
  • Artistic or auction goods supply can not be increased even if their price increases.
  • If the seller’s number is small then even if the price increases supply can not be increased

19. Equilibrium
An equilibrium price (also known as a “market-clearing” price) is one at which each producer can sell all he wants to produce and each consumer can buy all he demands.
When the supply and demand curves intersect, the market is in equilibrium. This is where the quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal. The corresponding price is the equilibrium price or market-clearing price, the quantity is the equilibrium quantity. Thus a seller has to supply goods at a price that is acceptable to consumers. When there is an increase in the income of consumers then there is an increase in demand which in turn pressurizes the supplier to increase supply and that leads to an increase in price to reach equilibrium.

20. Characteristic features of the law of demand and law of supply

  • On a supply and demand curve, the equilibrium price is represented by the point where the demand and supply
    curves intersect.
  • It is the single price at which the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied is the same.
  • if the market for a good is already in equilibrium and producers raise prices, consumers will buy fewer units.
    then they did in equilibrium, and fewer units than producers have available for sale. In that case, producers have two choices. They can reduce the price until supply and demand return to the old equilibrium, or they can cut production until the quantity supplied falls to the lower number of units demanded at the higher price.
  • If the market price is above the equilibrium price, the quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded, creating a surplus. The market price will fall.
  • Policymakers set ceiling prices below the market equilibrium price which they believed is too high.
  • An increase in demand will create a shortage, which increases the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity.
  • An increase in supply will create a surplus, which lowers the equilibrium price and increase the equilibrium quantity.
  • An increase in supply moves the supply curve to the right
  • An increase in demand moves the demand curve to left

21. Elasticity of demand
Price elasticity of demand (PED) shows the relationship between price and quantity demanded and provides a precise calculation of the effect of a change in price on quantity demanded. The following equation enables PED to be calculated.

PED= change in quantity demanded/change in price
Elasticity describes the responsiveness (in percentage terms) of the quantity demanded to changes in price. Knowing how sensitive a product is to a change in price is important in pricing goods and services. Elasticity is a tool that an owner of a business can use to understand how consumers will change their behavior when you, as a business owner, change the price of a product. There are five categories of price elasticity. The categories of perfectly elastic and perfectly inelastic lean towards being more theoretical. There are few real-world examples for those two categories. Different types of elasticity of demand are

1. Perfectly elastic demand would occur when the quantity demanded skyrockets to infinity when the price dropped any amount. It means that a significant change in price leads to an infinite change in quantity demanded. This, of course, could not happen in real life.

  • However, it illustrates the concept that elastic demand has a ratio of anything more than one.
  • The demand curve is parallel to X-axis

2. Perfectly inelastic demand is when there is no change in the demand of the product with the change in price.

  • thus elasticity is zero.
  • The demand curve is parallel to Y-axis.

3. Unitary elastic demand is when the increase in price is proportionate to the increase in demand.

  • Thus a given % change in price results in an equal % change in quantity demanded. Thus 10% reduction in price leads to a 10% increase in demand.
  • The demand curve is a rectangular hyperbola.
  • The elasticity coefficient always equals 1.

4. Relatively elastic demand is a concept where a change in the price results in more than proportionate change in the quantity demanded.

  • For eg., a Fall in the price of 3% leads to an increase in demand of 10%.
  • elasticity coefficient is always greater than 1.
  • The demand curve is flatter in shape.

5. Relatively inelastic demand is a concept where a great change in price leads to a small change in quantity.

  • The elasticity coefficient is less than 1.
  • The demand curve is relatively steeper.

22. Methods of measuring price elasticity of demand
The price elasticity of demand measures the sensitivity of the quantity demanded to changes in the price. Demand is inelastic if it does not respond much to price changes, and elastic if demand changes a lot when the price changes. Price elasticity of demand can be measured in three ways

  1. Arithmetic method or percentage method
  2. Total expenditure method
  3. Graphic method or point method

Arithmetic method – According to this method price elasticity is calculated by arithmetic calculation formula instead of the slope because the slope is sensitive to the units of measurement of price and quantity.

Price elasticity of demand = Percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price Total expenditure Method – Some of the factors on which elasticity is dependent is the total expenditure made by the consumer on that particular product. If the expenditure is more than elasticity of demand is higher. Moreover, the demand is inelastic when the goods that are being purchased are too expensive or too moderate whose demand will not be affected as demand is very low.

Graphic Method – demand is measured on different points on a straight-line demand curve and then elasticity is calculated as per the formula written below Point Elasticity = Lower segment of the demand curve below the given point/Upper segment of the demand curve above the given point

23. Determinants of Price elasticity of Demand

  • A number of substitutes: the larger the number of close substitutes for the good then the easier the household can shift to alternative goods if the price increases.
  • Degree of necessity: If the good is a necessity item then the demand is unlikely to change for a given change in price.
  • Price of the good as a proportion of income: elasticity depends on the proportion of consumer’s budget spent on it
  • Habit: some products may be a habit of consumers and in such cases, prices do not matter like for smokers
  • Time lag: The longer the time after the price change, the more elastic will be the demand

24. Cross price elasticity of demand
The measure of the responsiveness of the demand for a good towards the change in the price of a related good is called cross-price elasticity of demand. It is always measured in percentage terms. Thus when there is a change in the price of a product ‘A’ demand of quantity of product ‘b’ changes if they are related to each other. The cross-price elasticity of demand is useful for economists because it tells you whether two goods (A and B) are substitutes, complements, or even unrelated.

Cross price elasticity is positive – when a change in the price of good ‘b’ causes the change in demand of good ‘a’ in the same direction, eg. tea and coffee is a substitute to each other Cross price elasticity is negative – when a change in the price of good ’b’ causes the change in demand of good in the opposite direction, e.g. pen and ink which are complementary to each other. Cross price elasticity is zero – change in the price of good ‘b’ does not affect the quantity demanded of good ‘a’, such goods are unrelated Cross price elasticity is infinite – the slightest change in the price of good ‘b’ causes a great change in the demand of good ‘a’

25. Income elasticity of demand
The income elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand for a good or service to changes in income. E= percentage change in the quantity of good ‘A ’/percentage change in real income of consumer Above formulae shows how the demand for good changes as the income of consumer changes. This theory was given by Stonier and Hague. Three situations explain the relation of demand of goods with the real income.

In case of inferior goods – as income increases consumer moves towards better goods instead of increasing the number of inferior goods.
In the case of normal goods – as income increases demand also increases but it rises less in the proportion of rising in income. In the case of luxuries – as income increase, it shows a great increase in demand. Demand and income increase are not in proportion.

26. Price elasticity of supply
The elasticity of supply tells us how sensitive the quantity supplied is to the good’s own price at a given point on a supply curve. Price elasticity of supply (PES) measures the responsiveness of quantity supplied to a change in price. It is necessary for a firm to know how quickly, and effectively, it can respond to changing market conditions, especially to price changes.

The elasticity of supply = Percentage change in quantity supplied/percentage change in price.
Unlike elasticity of demand elasticity of supply has a positive sign. The positive sign reflects the fact that higher prices will act as an incentive to supply more. Because the coefficient is greater than one, PES is elastic and the firm is responsive to changes in price. This will give it a competitive advantage over its rivals. The elasticity of supply responds in five ways

• Perfect elastic supply – Supply is perfectly priced elastic if for any percentage increase in price, no matter how small, the percentage change in quantity supplied is also infinitely large. In such conditions, suppliers supply all that they can. Here elasticity’ is equal to infinity, the producer accepts only one price

• Perfect inelastic supply – The other extreme case occurs when the percentage change in quantity supplied is always equal to 0, regardless of the percentage change in price. In this case, supply is said to perfectly price inelastic, or completely nonresponsive to change in prices. Here elasticity is equal to zero, the amount supplied does not depend at all on price

• Relative elastic supply – For a given rise in price, the rise in supply will be proportionately larger. Here elasticity is greater than 1.

• Relative inelastic supply -The quantity supplied increases only a small amount with a rise in price. Here elasticity is less than 1.

• Unitary elastic supply – here elasticity coefficient is equal to 1. Here the percentage of fall and percentage of quantity supply fall are the same. Thus if the price falls by 10% supply also falls by 10%. the supply curve is a straight line through the origin.

27. Determinants of price elasticity of supply

  • If the availability of time is enough so that a seller can organize and adjusts the supply to demand, then supply is more elastic.
  • Supply is more elastic when a product can be sold in another market. This is because when the price of goods falls in one market, it does not fall in other markets, and will make good.
  • If there is excess capacity, and producers can increase output easily with the increase in price then elasticity will be high.
  • If production is more complex then the elasticity of supply is low.
  • If the factors of production can be easily moved and transportation cost is not much then the elasticity of supply is more.

28. Theory of consumer behavior
Besides the theory of demand and supply, it is consumer behavior towards the product which decides the demand of that particular product. The Theory of Consumer Behaviour studies how a consumer spends his income so as to attain the highest satisfaction or utility. Consumer behavior theories are used by businesses in order to optimize their selling and marketing strategies. These theories tend to concentrate on how consumers spend money, what causes them to spend more money, and how the spending of consumer money should impact the planning and strategies practiced by businesses. Different types of consumer behavior theories may focus on the choices consumers make based on their budgets, how consumers make decisions to reach the highest level of satisfaction, how consumers consider the utilities and features of different products, or what and how much consumers know about particular products. There are two theories on how the consumer will behave.

29. Marshallian approach
This approach was given by Alfred Marshall. As per this approach, a consumer tries to derive maximum utilization from the product on which he spends money. Thus consumer’s net utility = units of utility from consumption – utility of money given.

30. Assumptions of this theory

  • Assumes that utility is measurable and additive.
  • The Marshallian assumption of the constant utility of money is also unrealistic
  • Marshallian demand theory is based on a single commodity model.
  • According to Marshall theory, MU of money remains constant
  • The Law of diminishing marginal utility stands true.

31. Limitations of Marshallian Approach

  • It has been asserted that Marshallian utility analysis assumes ‘too much while it explains ‘too little’.
  • Utility of money can not be constant all the time
  • It is not acceptable that there is no substitute for the product
  • The Law of diminishing marginal utility also does not stand true all the time.
  • Also cardinal measurement is not realistic
  • Marshall theory does not break up the ‘price effect’ into ‘income effect’ and ‘substitution effect’ and thereby it does not show the negative price effect in the case of Giffen goods.
  • Marshallian demand theory is based on a single commodity model. Marshall avoids the discussion of substitutes and complementary goods
  • Marshall’s theory does not measure how real income can be measured

32. Indifference curve approach
This approach was developed to remove the drawbacks of Marshallian approach. This approach can be called the ordinal concept. The indifference curve theory of ordinal utility theory is an important concept in Economics, as it suggests a more realistic way to analyze consumer behavior. An indifference curve shows all the various combinations of two goods that, give an equal amount of satisfaction to a consumer.

33. Assumptions of this theory

  • Consumer is rational and he is interested to maximize his total utility.
  • Utility can not be measured
  • Consumer can rank his various combination of goods according to the satisfaction or utility
  • The principle of diminishing marginal rate of substitution is assumed.
  • The consumer, it is assumed, is consistent in his behavior during a period of time.
  • The goods consumed by the consumer are substitutable.
  • There are many combinations of the, two commodities that are equally preferred by a consumer and he is indifferent as to which of the two he receives.
  • Consumers have full information about the relevant aspects of the economic environment
  • A combination of having more commodities is more satisfying than a combination of having fewer commodities

Features of approach

  • The indifference curves must slope down from left to right.
  • A higher indifference curve that lies above and to the right of another indifference curve represents a higher level of satisfaction and a combination on a lower indifference curve yields a lower satisfaction.
  • The curve is moving from up to down between two commodities
  • Between X and Y axis which represents two commodities, it shows various combinations which can be purchased by a consumer.
  • When budget line and indifference curves are drawn together then the budget line will be tangent to only one curve.
  • When the amount of one good is increased the number of other goods decreases so the curves are downward to the right
  • the relative nature of various goods is explained e.g. Inferior and superior.

Theory Of Demand And Supply MCQ Questions

Question 1.
The more elastic the demand curve for a product is
a. The greater the proportion of income spent on the commodity
b. The longer the period of time considered
c. The greater the number of close substituted available
d. a, b and c
Answer:
d. a, b and c

Question 2.
Substitution effect for a fall in the price of a commodity is given by
a. an upward shift in indifference curve
b. a movement up of a given indifference curve
c. a downward shift in indifference curve
d. a movement down a given indifference curve.
Answer:
d. a movement down a given indifference curve.

Question 3.
The marginal utility (MU) of the last unit of x consumed is twice the MU of the last unit of Y consumed, the consumer is in equilibrium only if
a. the income of the consumer id doubled
b. the price of x is equal to the price of Y
c. the expenditure of X is equal to twice on Y
d. the Price of X is one half of the price of Y
Answer:
d. the Price of X is one half of the price of Y

Question 4.
The demand curve for a human resource will be more elastic under the following conditions
a. More difficult to substitute other resources for it.
b. More and better substitutes are available for it.
c. Shorter the time period under consideration.
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Question 5.
If skilled labour is three times the cost of unskilled labour, a profit-maximizing firm will vary the quantity of each type of labor until the
a. marginal product of each is the same.
b. amount of unskilled labour used is three times the quantity of skilled labour used.
c. amount of unskilled labor used is one-third the quantity of skilled labour.
d. marginal product of unskilled labour is one-third that of skilled labour.
Answer:
d. marginal product of unskilled labour is one-third that of skilled labour.

Question 6.
The demand for inputs depends on the demand for outputs it is termed
a. inverse demand.
b. derived demand.
c. proportional demand.
d. notational demand.
Answer:
b. derived demand.

Question 7.
What concept implies that a firm’s marginal revenue product curve for labour will slope downward in the short run?
a. diminishing marginal returns
b. the law of supply
c. the law of decreasing cost.
d. The price equalization principle
Answer:
a. diminishing marginal returns

Question 8.
Which one of the following labour resources will likely have the most inelastic supply schedule in the short run?
a. filling station attendants
b. sales clerks
c. construction labourers
d. dentist
Answer:
d. dentist

Question 9.
Suppose the United Auto Worker Union succeeded in obtaining a 10 percent increase in the wages of its workers and that the wage increase caused automobile prices to rise. Employment in the auto industry would most likely fall if
a. the demand for Indian-made automobiles was highly elastic.
b. the supply of foreign-produced automobiles was highly inelastic.
c. Indian consumers considered foreign automobiles a poor substitute for Indian automobiles.
d. the demand for Indian automobiles was relatively constant and highly inelastic.
Answer:
a. the demand for Indian-made automobiles was highly elastic.

Question 10.
If the demand for a consumer good increases, the demand for resources required to make the goodwill
a. increase.
b. remains the same, but the quantity demanded will increase.
c. decrease due to economies of scale.
d. increase or decrease depending on whether the firm is intensive or capital intensive.
Answer:
a. increase.

Question 11.
The marginal productivity theory most closely relates to the
a. demand for resources.
b. supply of resources.
c. concept of scarcity.
d. noncompetitively aspects of the resource market
Answer:
a. demand for resources.

Question 12.
A decrease in demand for a product will cause the output of the product to
a. decline and the demand for and prices of productive resources used.to produce the product to fall.
b. decrease and both the demand for and prices of productive resources used to produce the product to increase.
c. decrease but the demand for resources used to produce the product will remain constant.
d. increase and the resource price to rise
Answer:
a. decline and the demand for and prices of productive resources used.to produce the product to fall.

Question 13.
If the demand for workers with Ph. Ds. in economics increases, we would expect
a. the wages of economists to increase in the short run and the number of economics employed to expend in the long run.
b. the supply of economists to increase in the short run and their wages to fall in the long run.
c. a rapid increase in the supply of economists, causing wages to remain constant.
d. the wages of economists to decline in the short run the number of economists employed to increase in the long run.
Answer:
a. the wages of economists to increase in the short run and the number of economics employed to expend in the long run.

Question 14.
According to __________ when prices decreases, demand rises, and when price increases, demand falls.
a. the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
b. Adam Smith
c. the law of demand
d. the elasticity of demand
Answer:
b. Adam Smith

Question 15.
The law of demand states that:
a. as the quantity demand rises, the price rises
b. as the price rises, the quantity demand rises
c. as supply rises, the demand rises
d. none of the above
Answer:
b. as the price rises, the quantity demand rises

Question 16.
The price elasticity of demand is the:
a. percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity
b. percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded
c. dollar change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in quantity supplied.
d. A percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price
Answer:
d. A percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price

Question 17.
The demand for a product would be more inelastic
a. the greater is the time under consideration
b. the greater is the number of substitutes available to buyers
c. the less expensive is the product in relation to income
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. the greater is the number of substitutes available to buyers

Question 18.
If there is a price ceiling, which of the following is not likely to occur?
a. rationing by first-come-first-served basis
b. black markets
c. Grey markets
d. all sellers providing goods for free that were formerly not free
Answer:
d. all sellers providing goods for free that were formerly not free

Question 19.
The quantity demanded of a soft drink brand A has decreased. This could be because:
a. A’s consumers have has an increase in income
b. the price of A has increased.
c. A’s advertising is not as effective as in past.
d. The price of rival brand B has increased.
Answer:
b. the price of A has increased.

Question 20.
Suppose the demand for goods Z goes up when the price of goods Y goes down We can say that goods Z and Y are
a. perfect substitutes.
b. unrelated goods
c. complements
d. substitutes
Answer:
c. complements

Question 21.
Which of the following will NOT cause a shift in the demand curve for compact discs?
a. a change in the price of pre-recorded cassette tapes.
b. a change in wealth.
c. a change in income.
d. a change in the price of compact discs.
Answer:
d. a change in the price of compact discs.

Question 22.
Modern-day economy is based on the study of
a. Capital formation
b. Study of production
c. Employment
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 23.
“Determination of wage rate, distribution of national income “was the theory given by
a. Adam Smith
b. A. Marshall
c. Ricardo
d. Pigon
Answer:
b. A. Marshall

Question 24.
One s friends and relatives could be considered as ________ in regard to consumer behavior
a. impersonal influence
b. reference group influence
c. perceptual influence
d. institutional influences
Answer:
b. reference group influence

Question 25.
An imbalance between a consumer’s actual and desired state in which recognize that a gap or problem needs resolving is called
a. motive development
b. an attitude.
c. a self-concept
d. Product Evaluation
Answer:
a. motive development

Question 26.
As per Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs theory, the need for fulfillment, for realizing one’s own potential, and for fully one’s talents capabilities are examples of ______ needs.
a. self-actualization.
b. psychological
c. social
d. environmental
Answer:
a. self-actualization.

Question 27.
The buying behaviors of consumers, which require the least effort is
a. Low involvement in buying.
b. New buying situation.
c. Routine buying
d. Impulsive buying
Answer:
c. Routine buying

Question 28.
When there is a production process the marginal product of labor equals:
a. total output divided by total labour inputs.
b. total output minus the total labour inputs.
c. total output multiplied by total labour input.
d. total change produced by labour inputs.
Answer:
a. total output divided by total labor inputs.

Question 29.
The change to a new indifference curve following a rise in aggregate consumption caused by a price cut is:
a. a consumption effect.
b. a price effect.
c. an income effect.
d. a substitution effect.
Answer:
c. an income effect.

Question 30.
A combination study of economics, which dealt with wealth creation, as well as the study of man was an economics theory given by
a. Adam Smith
b. Ricardo
c. A. Marshall
d. Pigon
Answer:
c. A. Marshall

Question 31.
A utility function is a descriptive statement that relates total utility to
a. price
b. income
c. the production of goods and services.
d. the consumption of goods and services
Answer:
d. the consumption of goods and services

Question 32.
Marginal utility
a. is the extra output a firm obtains when it adds another unit of labor.
b. explains why product supply curves slope upward.
c. typically rises as successive units of a good are consumed.
d. is the extra satisfaction from the consumption of 1 more unit of some good or service.
Answer:
d. is the extra satisfaction from the consumption of 1 more unit of some good or service.

Question 33.
If profit is to rise as output expands, then marginal profit must be:
a. rising
b. falling
c. constant.
d. positive
Answer:
d. positive

Question 34.
According to the law of diminishing marginal utility:
a. as the price of a given product rises, the added benefit eventually diminishes
b. as the consumption of a given product rises, the added benefit eventually diminishes.
c. as the production cost for a given product rises, the added benefit eventually diminishes.
d. the demand curve for some product is upward-sloping
Answer:
b. as the consumption of a given product rises, the added benefit eventually diminishes.

Question 35.
Which of the following is consistent to the law of supply?
a. As the price of the product rises, centers paribus, suppliers will offer more for sale
b. As the price of a product falls, centers parbibus, suppliers will offer less for sale
c. As the price of a product rises, centers paribus the supply will remain steady
d. As the price of a product falls, centers paribus, the supply will remain steady
Answer
a. As the price of the product rises, centers paribus, suppliers will offer more for sale

Question 36.
A shift in the demand curve drawn in the traditional Price-Quantity space be caused by
a. a decrease in supply.
b. a fall in income.
c. a fall in price of a complementary good.
d. a fall in the number of substitute goods.
Answer:
b. a fall in income.

Question 37.
Price elasticity at a given price is not affected by
a. the price of complements.
b. the price of substitutes.
c. the consumer’s income
d. a change in tastes.
Answer:
c. the consumer’s income

Question 38.
The price elasticity of demand is the same thing as the negative of the
a. slope
b. reciprocal of slope.
c. the first derivative of the demand function.
d. reciprocal of slope times the ratio of price to quantity.
Answer:
c. the first derivative of the demand function.

Question 39.
The movement along an indifference curve reflecting the substitution of cheaper products for more expensive ones is:
a. supply effect
b. utility effect.
c. a substitution effect.
d. an income
Answer:
c. a substitution effect.

Question 40.
Supply is directly dependent on
a. Future market scenario
b. Technology changes
c. Goals of the firm .
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 41.
The demand curve of TV sales showed a movement towards left
a. It should decrease in demand
b. Prices will fall
c. Decrease the quantity of TV bought and sold
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 42.
When a consumer buys a good which of the following is the concept that is Not generated when taking care of utility
a. Average utility
b. Sum utility
c. Marginal utility
d. Total utility
Answer:
a. Average utility

Question 43.
Change in the quantity supplied is caused by a change in
a. price
b. income.
c. Weather.
d. energy costs.
Answer:
a. price

Question 44.
The shortage is a condition of:
a. Excess demand.
b. excess supply
c. a deficiency in demand.
d. market equilibrium.
Answer:
a. Excess demand.

Question 45.
The utility is measured by:
a. income.
b. wealth.
c. price.
d. value or worth.
Answer:
d. value or worth.

Question 46.
Net Benefit is maximized when:
a. marginal benefit equal marginal costs.
b. the slopes of the total benefits curve and total cost curve are equal.
c. All the above.
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. All the above.

Question 47.
Marginal Analysis:
a. Is the optimal managerial decision involving comparing the marginal benefit with the marginal costs of a decision.
b. Refers to the change in total benefit arising from the managerial control variable.
c. Refers to the change in total costs arising from a change in the managerial control variable.
d. The additional revenues that stem from a yes-or-no decision.
Answer:
a. Is the optimal managerial decision involving comparing the marginal benefit with the marginal costs of a decision.

Question 48.
Marginal analysis can be used to
a. Determine how long to study for a test.
b. Determine how to get to your spring break destination^.e. plane = faster but more expensive, car= slower but less expensive).
c. Determine how much more to write on a workspaces page.
d. All the above.
Answer:
d. All the above.

Question 49.
A Marginal curve shows
a. the integral of the corresponding Total curve up to the quantity at which the marginal is being calculated.
b. The inverse of the corresponding of the Total curve to which it corresponds
c. the slope of the corresponding Total curve, computed at the same consumption quantity.
d. amount of utility derived from the consumption of each number of units
Answer:
c. the slope of the corresponding Total curve computed at the same consumption quantity.

Question 50.
Welfare definition of economics was given by
a. Adam smith
b. Ricardo
c. A. Marshall
d. Both b & c
Answer:
d. Both b & c

Question 51.
As per Robbins economics is the study
a. Which takes care of the wants of man
b. Ways to satisfy the wants of man
c. Collection of wealth to take care of wants of man
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 52.
When a relationship between DMU of a product and its prices is decided than it helps in determining
a. Total marginal value of a product
b. Average utility of product
c. Price of product in market
d. Total utility value of product
Answer:
c. Price of product in market

Question 53.
The laws of DMU are not helpful for
a. Social welfare program
b. Rationing of products
c. Determining the pricing of product
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 54.
As per the law of equal Marginal utility, consumer considers
a. Prices
b. Marginal utility
c. Availability of goods
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 55.
________ law is unrealistic in nature
a. Law of DMU
b. Law of Equi marginal utility
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Law of equimarginal utility

Question 56.
If the price elasticity of demand is unit then a fall in price will
a. Reduce revenue
b. Leaves revenue unchanged
c. Increase revenue
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Leaves revenue unchanged

Question 57.
If the cross elasticity of demand is -2:
a. The products are substitutes and demand is cross-price elastic
b. The products are substitutes and demand is cross-price inelastic.
c. The products are complements and demand is cross-price elastic
d. The products are complements and demand is cross-price inelastic
Answer:
c. The products are complements and demand is cross-price elastic

Question 58.
If the price elasticity of demand is negative number this means:
a. Demand is price elastic
b. Demand is price inelastic
c. The demand curve is downward sloping
d. An increase income will reduce the quantity demanded
Answer:
c. The demand curve is downward sloping

Question 59.
Demand is price inelastic, which means
a. An increase in price must raise profits
b. An increase in price decrease revenue
c An increase in price increase revenue
d. A decrease in price reduces sales
Answer:
c An increase in price increase revenue

Question 60.
Which best describe a supply curve?
a. The quantity consumers would like to buy in a market
b. The quantity producers are willing and able to sell at each and every price all other things unchanged
c. The quantity producers are willing and able to sell at each and every income all other things unchanged
d. The quantity producers are willing and able to sell at every point of time and all other things unchanged
Answer:
b. The quantity producers are willing and able to sell at each and every price all other things unchanged

Question 61.
Supply is likely to be more price elastic
a. In the short run rather than the long run
b. If factors of production are relatively immobile between industries
c. If there are very few producers
d. If it is easy to expand output
Answer:
d. If it is easy to expand output

Question 62.
The supply curve which is beginning at the origin has
a. A price elasticity of supply less than one
b. Price elasticity of supply equal to one
c. Price elasticity of supply less than one
d. Positive price elasticity of supply
Answer:
b. A price elasticity of supply equal to one

Question 63.
In the contraction of demand
a. The consumer moves upwards
b. The consumer moves downwards
c. Increase in price
d. Both a& c
Answer:
d. Both a& c

Question 64.
Giffin goods are
a. Goods that are not dependent on price increase
b. Have to be purchased cause there is no substitute for them
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 65.
Goods that represent social prestige are
a. Complimentary goods
b. Conspicuous consumption
c. Ignorance
d. Inferior goods
Answer:
b. Conspicuous consumption

Question 66.
The supply curve is
a. Positively stopped
b. Negatively stopped
c. Can stop either positive or negative
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Positively stopped

Question 67.
What will the supplier do if cashew nuts production is good at this point in time?
Select the most appropriate
a. Decrease the supply and wait for the season when there is no production of cashew nut so that the prices can be increased
b. Offer to sell more quantities at a lower price
c. Can make no changes in the selling price of produce
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Decrease the supply and wait for the season when there is no production of cashew nut so that the prices can be increased

Question 68.
A politician proposes reducing business taxes, a move she says will encourage risk-taking entrepreneurship. This proposed cut in business taxes is intended to stimulate the economy mainly through
a. an increase in aggregate supply
b. a decrease in aggregate demand
c. a decrease in aggregate demand
d. an increase in aggregate demand
Answer:
a. an increase in aggregate supply

Question 69.
On the basis of the use of utility dependent on the consumption of its quantity, the utility can be divided into ________ concepts
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. 3

Question 70.
MU1/P1<Mu2/P2 means that
a. For consumer MU2/P2buying is more beneficial
b. It is the theory given by law of Equi-Marginal utility
c. It is law of demand curve
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 71.
When marginal utility falls than average utility
a. Marginally increases
b. Marginally falls
c. Increases
d. Decreases
Answer:
b. Marginally falls

Question 72.
DMU is
a. Diminishing marginal utility
b. Distributive marginal utility
c. Direct marginal utility
d. Display marginal utility
Answer:
a. Diminishing marginal utility

Question 73.
As more labor is added to a fixed amount of input, the rate at which output goes up begins to decrease. This is called
a. diminishing marginal utility
b. diminishing marginal productivity.
c. diminishing marginal costs.
d. diminishing marginal profit.
Answer:
b. diminishing marginal productivity.

Question 74.
If the cost of sugar rises and sugar is a major ingredient in jelly beans, then the jelly bean
a. demand curve shifts to the left.
b. supply curve shifts to the left.
c. supply curve shifts to the right.
d. demand and supply curves both shift to the right.
Answer:
c. supply curve shifts to the right.

Question 75.
A movement along the demand curve (drawn in Quantity-Price space) to the left may because by
a. an increase in supply.
b. a rise in income
c. a rise in the price of a complementary good.
d. a fall in the number of substitute goods.
Answer:
a. an increase in supply.

Question 76.
The output where diminishing returns to production begin is also the output where
a. marginal cost is at a minimum.
b. average total cost is a minimum.
c. average variable cots is at a minimum.
d. marginal and average cost interest.
Answer:
a. marginal cost is at a minimum.

Question 77.
Which of the following statements about marginal cost is incorrect?
a. A U-shappd marginal cost curve implies the existence of diminishing returns over all ranges of output.
b. When marginal cost equal average cost, average cost is at minimum.
c. In the short run, the shape of the marginal cost curve is due to the law of diminishing marginal returns.
d. When marginal1 cost is faffing fotaf cost fs rising
Answer:
a. A U-shappd marginal cost curve implies the existence of diminishing returns over all ranges of output.

Question 78.
In the short run, diminishing marginal returns are implied by
a. rising marginal cost.
b. rising average cost
c. rising average variable cost.
d. all of the above
Answer:
a. rising marginal cost.

Question 79.
In Dx=f(Px,T,Y) Y is
a. Income level of consumer
b. Tastes of consumer
c. Quantity of demand of goods
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Income level of consumer

Question 80.
Individual demand schedule collectively make
a. Market demand schedule
b. Economic demand schedule
c. Production demand schedule
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Market demand schedule

Question 81.
A graphical representation of demand is
a. Demand function
b. Demand schedule
c. Demand curve
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Demand curve

Question 82.
In cardinal utility approach
a. The utility is measured in its absolute value
b. The utility can not be measured in its absolute value
c. Utility is calculated with the concept of evaluation with other utility
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. The utility is measured in its absolute value

Question 83.
What is true in a situation of Diminishing marginal returns to Labour?
a. Diminishing product of labour must be falling
b. Marginal product of labour must be rising
c. Marginal product of labour must be falling
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Marginal product of labour must be rising

Question 84.
As more labour is added to a fixed amount of input, the rate at which output goes up, decreases. This is called
a. diminishing marginal utility.
b. diminishing marginal productivity.
c. diminishing marginal costs.
d. diminishing marginal profit.
Answer:
b. diminishing marginal productivity.

Question 85.
The main factors that influence supply is/are
a. Input prices
b. Technology.
c. Expectations.
d. All of the above.
Answer:
c. Expectations.

Question 86.
When the liquidity trap occurs the demand for money:
a. Is perfectly interest elastic
b. Is perfectly interest inelastic
c. Means that an increase in money supply leads to a fall in the interest rate
d. Means that an increase in the money supply leads to an increase in the interest rate
Answer:
a. Is perfectly interest elastic

Question 87.
When economists say the demand for a product has increased, they mean that the
a. demand curve for the product has shifted to the left.
b. price of the product has fallen, and consequently consumers are buying more of the product.
c. cost of producing the product has consequently consumers are buying more of the product.
d. amount of the product that consumers are willing to purchase at various prices has increased.
Answer:
d. amount of the product that consumers are willing to purchase at various prices has increased.

Question 88.
The law of supply:
a. reflects the amount, which want to offer at each price in a series of prices.
b. is reflected in an up sloping supply curve.
c. show that the relationship between price and quantity supplied is positive.
d. Is reflected in all of the above
Answer:
d. Is reflected in all of the above

Question 89.
Prices rate is determined on the basis of demand and supply, such kind of an economy is
a. Market driven economy
b. Production driven economy
c. Seller driven economy
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Market driven economy

Question 90.
To make sports car a demand, a company should check
a. If people will be able to pay for it
b. If it can be produced in large scale
c. If people have a desire for sports car
d. Both a & c
Answer:
d. Both a & c

Question 91.
The law of “leteris paribus “says that
a. Purchase is directly dependent on price
b. Demand of quantity is dependent on time
c. Demand of quality is dependent on time
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 1.
With a fall in the price of a commodity –
a. Demand for the commodity increases
b. Demand for the commodity decreases
c. Quantity demanded for the commodity contracts
d. Quantity demanded of the commodity expands.
Answer:
a. Demand for the commodity increases
Hint
As per the Law of Demand fall in price of a product is inversely proportion to the demand of that product. Thus when the price falls demand increases.

Question 2.
A consumer changes, his purchase of a
commodity from point T on AB curve to point R on the A, B, curve. This represents –

Theory Of Demand And Supply – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 2 img 1

a. A contraction in demand
b. An expansion in demand
c. An increase in demand
d. A decrease in demand.
Answer:
c. An increase in demand
Hint
The characteristic feature of Law of Demand is when the price of a commodity rises, people buy less of that commodity and when the price falls, people buy more of it ceteris paribus (provided other things remaining the same). If there is a change in influencing factor other then price then the demand curve may shift either to right or left. When demand curve shifts to right it shows that the quantity demanded has increased for a particular price. The factors responsible for such change could be taste of the consumer has changed, purchasing power of the consumer has changed etc.

Question 3.
A consumer would be in equilibrium if he does not has to pay any price for the commodity consumed at the level of consumption where –
a. Total utility in maxim
b. Marginal utility is zero
c. He has reached at the point of full satisfaction
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above
Hint
As per the ordinal approach of Utility
The consumer gets full satisfaction = The time when marginal utility becomes zero total utility is maximum.

Question 4.
In figure below, new price line AB, reflects-

Theory Of Demand And Supply – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 2 img 2

a. A fall in income of the consumer
b. A fall in the price of commodity-Y
c. A fall in the price of commodity-X
d. A rise in income of consumers and a simultaneous rise in the prices of both commodities X and Y.
Answer:
c. A fall in the price of commodity-X
Hint
The Law of demand has a negative slope which means as the price falls the demand for the product increases and as the price rises the demand decreases, thus quantity demanded is inversely proportional to the price of a good.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
a. With the increase in the level of income, demand for all types of com moderates increases
b. With the increase in the level of income, demand for luxuries and comforts increases
c. With the increase in the level of income demand for inferior goods falls
d. With the increase in the level of income, demand for necessities almost remains unchanged.
Answer:
a. With the increase in the level of income, demand for all types of com moderates increases
Hint
Exceptions to the law of demand eg.
Inferior goods – in such case when the income of the consumer increases he shifts his purchase from inferior goods to superior goods even if inferior goods price falls.

Question 6.
On a straight-line demand curve intercepting both horizontal and vertical axes, the elasticity of demand would be equal to the unit at the-
a. Middle point on the curve
b. Point where the curve forms an intercept with the x-axis
c. Point where the curve forms an intercept with y-axis
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Middle point on the curve
Hint
Price elasticity of demand can be measured in three ways

  • Arithmetic method or percentage method
  • Total expenditure method
  • Graphic method or point method

Graphic Method – demand is measured on different points on a straight-line demand curve and then elasticity is calculated as per the formula written below
Point Elasticity = Lower segment of the demand curve below the given point/Upper segment of the demand curve above the given point

Theory Of Demand And Supply – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 2 img 5

Let us take B as the midpoint of the straight-line demand curve
Thus at middle point (suppose B) point elasticity = lower segment of the demand curve at midpoint (BC)/Upper segment of the demand curve above the given point(AB)
Point elasticity = BC/AC = 1

Question 7.
With an increase in the supply of the commodity, equilibrium price will not fall if
a. Demand also decreases
b. Demand also increases
c. Demand increases in the same proportion in which supply has increased.
d. Demand falls in the same proportion in which supply has increased.
Answer:
c. Demand increases in the same proportion in which supply has increased.
Hint
An increase in supply will create a surplus, which lowers the equilibrium price and increase the equilibrium quantity. But if an equilibrium is to be managed then demand has to increase in the same proportion. Thus equilibrium price will not fall if demand increases in the same proportion in which supply has increased.

Question 8.
Any change in demand will leave the equilibrium quantity unaffected if:
a. Supply increases
b. Supply decreases
c. The supply curve is perfectly elastic
d. The supply curve is perfectly inelastic
Answer:
d. Supply curve is perfectly inelastic
Hint
Perfectly inelastic means that quantity demanded or supplied is unaffected by any change in price. In such a case supply is completely nonresponsive to change in prices Here elasticity is equal to zero. Any change in demand will leave the equilibrium unaffected in the case of a perfectly inelastic supply curve.

Question 9.
If with an increase in the price of a commodity, quantity demanded of the commodity rises, it must be a-
a. Normal good
b. Abnormal good
c. Giffen good
d. Necessity
Answer:
c. Giffen good
Hint
Giffen goods: these are the goods which people keep on buying in spite of an increase in price because they have no other substitute for them eg. basic goods, (potatoes, sugar, etc). this is known as the Giffen paradox. There is a positive price .effect in the case of Giffen goods.

Question 10.
An indifference curve slopes downward because more of one commodity and less of another results in in-
a. Same satisfaction
b. Greater satisfaction
c. Maximum satisfaction
d. Decreasing expenditure
Answer:
a. Same satisfaction
Hint
An indifference curve slopes downward because more of one commodity and less of another results in the same satisfaction. An indifference curve shows all the various combinations of two goods that, give an equal amount of satisfaction to a consumer.

Question 11.

Theory Of Demand And Supply – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 2 img 3

New advances in technology result in more output of commodity Y from given outputs. Which one of the above figures is best describing the situation? The correct option is
a. Figure 1
b. Figure 2
c. Figure 3
d. Figure 4
Answer:
11. c
Figure 3

Question 12.
The concept of the indifference curve to explain consumer’s equilibrium was propounded among others by
a. Alfred Marshall
b. John R Hicks
c. Paul A Samuelson
d. Amartya Sen
Answer:
b. John R Hicks
Hint
An indifference curve was given by John R Hicks. This approach was developed to remove the drawbacks of Marshallian approach. This approach can be called the ordinal concept.

Question 13.
Total utility derived from the consumption of a commodity will begin to fall —
a. with every additional unit consumed
b. when total utility curve becomes flat
c. when marginal utility starts falling
d. when marginal utility becomes negative
Answer:
d. when marginal utility becomes negative
Hint
The law of diminishing marginal utility is directly linked for determining the price of the commodity. Observations for law df DMU

  • When TU rises at decreasing rate, MU diminishes
  • When TU is maximum, MU is zero
  • When TU decreases, MU becomes negative
  • TU increases so long as MU is positive

Question 14.
Match the following

Table

The correct option is —
a. X(iv); Y(iii); Z(ii); W(i)
b. X(iii); Y(ii); Z(i); W(iv)
c. X(ii); Y(i); Z(iii); W(iv)
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. X(iv); Y(iii); Z(ii); W(i)
Hint
Expansion – If the price falls consumer moves downward on the demand curve and purchases more which is called expansion Inferior goods – in such a case when the income of the consumer increases he shifted his purchase from inferior goods to superior goods even if inferior goods price falls. Complimentary goods – Some goods are so complementary to each other that they can not be segregated thus even if there is a fall in the price of one product the increase in the price of the other is immaterial Decrease in demand – when there is a fall in the quantity demanded due to falling in the price of substitute goods.

Question 15.
With a fall in the price of a commodity-X demand for commodity-Y also falls. This best represents—
a. An exception to the law of demand
b. Universal application of the law of supply
c. Relationship between two goods that are substitutes for each other
d. A market economy where pricing decisions are difficult to make.
Answer:
c. Relationship between two goods that are substitutes for each other
Hint
When a change in the price of good ‘b’ causes the change in demand of good ‘a’ in the same direction.eg. tea and coffee is a substitute to each other. In the present case With a fall in the price of a commodity-X demand for commodity-Y also falls shows 1 that changes are in the same direction thus they are substitutes for each other.

Question 16.
A functional relationship is given as follows:
QN = f(PN)
Where QN stands for quantity demanded-of commodity-N and PN stands for the price of commodity-No The law of demand states that other variables remain constant, there is an inverse relationship between the price of a commodity and its quantity demanded. It means that if –
a. The price of a commodity goes up, quantity demanded of its substitute will fall.
b. The demand for a commodity1 goes up, its price will also go up
c. The price of a commodity falls, the quantity demanded will rise
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. The price of a commodity falls, its quantity demanded will rise
Hint
The given statement is related to the Law of Demand. The law states that all else being equal, as the price of a product increases, a lower quantity will be demanded; likewise, as the price of a product decreases, a higher quantity will be demanded.

Question 17.
If consumption of each additional unit of a commodity is expected to give an increasing marginal utility, the total utility derived by the consumer will
a. Initially rise, but eventually, fall
b. Rise at an increasing rate as long as marginal utility keeps rising
c. Rise at an increasing rate as long as marginal utility is more than zero
d. Not reflect an increasing trend.
Answer:
b. Rise at an increasing rate as long as marginal utility keeps rising
hint
The law of diminishing marginal utility is directly linked to determining the price of the commodity. Observations for the law of DMU

  • When TU rises at a decreasing rate, MU diminishes
  • When TU is maximum, MU is zero
  • When TU decreases, MU becomes negative
  • TU increases so long as MU is positive

Question 18.
In the case of a commodity for which no price is to be paid, a consumer will reach equilibrium –
a. At any point on the vertical axis
b. At the point where the falling marginal utility curve cuts the horizontal axis
c. Only when the consumer is taken away from the table
d. Only when the marginal utility begins to fall.
Answer:
b. At the point where the falling marginal utility curve cuts the horizontal axis
Hint
In case of a commodity for which no price is to be paid, a consumer will reach equilibrium at the point where the falling marginal utility curve cuts the horizontal axis.

Question 19.
Which of the following is not correct? Normally, an indifference curve
a. Slopes downwards from left to right
b. Does not have a concave shape
c. Can touch any other indifference curve
d. Can cut through a budget line.
Answer:
c. Can touch any other indifference curve
Hint
No two indifference curve intersects each other.
Features of indifference curve

  • The indifference curves must slope down from left to right.
  • A higher indifference curve that lies above and to the right of another indifference curve represents a higher level of satisfaction and a combination on a lower indifference curve yields a lower satisfaction.
  • Curve is moving from up to down between two commodities
  • Between X and Y axis which represents two commodities, it shows various combinations which can be purchased by a consumer.
  • When budget line and indifference curves are drawn together then the budget line will be tangent to only one curve.
  • When the amount of one good is increased the quantity of other good decreases so the curves are downward to the right

Question 20.

Theory Of Demand And Supply – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 2 img 4

In the figure above, the highest desired level of satisfaction is being represented by –
a. Point A
b. Point B
c. Point C
d. Point D.
Answer:
c. Point C
Hint
This figure is related to the indifference curve. A higher indifference curve that lies above and to the right of another indifference curve represents a higher level of satisfaction and a combination on a lower indifference curve yields a lower satisfaction.

Question 21.
If the income elasticity coefficient for the demand of a Commodity-X is +0.5; with an increase in the consumer’s income; the share of income spent on this commodity will-
a. Rise
b. Remain the same
c. Fall
d. Not be determined.
Answer:
a. Rise
Hint
The income elasticity cl demand measures the responsiveness of demand for a good or service to changes in income. Thus If Income increases the spending on goods increases Thus In the case of positive elasticity with an increase in income spending on commodities will rise.

Question 22.
Cross elasticity of demand for Commodity-X and Commodity-Y is (-) 0.5.lt means that –
a. Commodity-X and Commodity-Yare, not related
b. An increase in the price of Commodity-Y results in a fall in the price of Commodity-X
c. Commodity-X and Commodity-Yare substitute goods
d. None of the above.
Answer:
d. None of the above.
Hint
Cross price elasticity is negative — when a change in the price of good ‘b ‘ causes the change in demand of good opposite direction e.g pen and Ink which are complementary to each other.

Question 23.
Which of these is not a property of the Indifference Curve (IC):
a. I.C. slopes downward to right.
b. I.C. is never convex to the origin
c. I.C. never intersects each other
d. I.C. represents a higher level of satisfaction.
Answer:
b. I.C. is never convex to the origin
Hint
Properties of the Indifference curve are

  • The indifference curves must slope down from left to right
  • A higher indifference curve that is above and to the right of another indifference curve represents e higher level of satisfaction and a combination on a lower indifference curve yields a lower satisfaction.
  • The cove is moving from up to down between two commodities
  • Between X and Y axis which represents two commodities, it shows various combinations which can be purchased by a consumer.
    When budget line and indifference curves are drawn together then the budget line will be tangent to only one curve.
  • When the amount of one good is increased the number of other goods decreases so the curves are downward to the right
  • IC never intersects each other
  • The relative nature of various goods is explained e.g. Inferior and superior

Question 24.
When ed > 1, it means: –
a. Perfectly inelastic demand
b. Perfectly elastic demand
c. Relatively elastic demand
d. Relatively inelastic demand
Answer:
c. Relatively elastic demand
Hint
Relatively elastic demand is a concept where a change in the price results in more than proportionate change in the quantity demanded

  • For CG Fall n the price of 3% leads to an increase in demand of 10%,
  • elasticity coefficient is always eater than 1.
  • Demand curve s flatter in shape

Question 25.
When ed < 1, it means: –
a. Perfectly inelastic demand
b. Perfectly elastic demand
c. Relatively elastic demand
d. Relatively inelastic demand
Answer:
d. Relatively inelastic demand
Hint
Relatively inelastic demand is a concept where a great change in price leads to a small change in quantity

  • Elasticity coefficient is less than 1
  • The demand curve is relatively steeper

Question 26.
If the price falls by 5%, the quantity supplied falls by the same 5%. Which type of elasticity is this?
a. Unitary Elasticity of Supply
b. Unitary Elasticity of Demand
c. Relatively Elasticity of Supply
d. Relatively Inelasticity of Supply
Answer:
a. Unitary Elasticity of Supply
Hint
Unitary elastic supply — here elasticity coefficient is equal to 1. Here the percentage of fall arid percentage of quantity supply fall are same. thus if the price falls by 10% supply also falls by 10%. A supply curve is a straight line through the origin.

Question 27.
In which type of approach, the utility is immeasurable?
a. Cardinal utility
b. Ordinal utility
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Ordinal utility
Hint
Ordinal approach The concept was first introduced by Hicks He said that utility can not be measured in numbers instead it can be depicted in a comparable manner. As per this approach, the utility can not be measured in units but it can be determined by preferences so whenever demand for a product Is being accessed then it can be determined on the basis of preferences macle by consumers. This is more realistic and better than cardinal utility

Question 28.
Which type of goods are related to the exceptions to the law of demand?
a. Giffen Goods
b. Substitute Goods
c. Complimentary Goods
d. Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
d. Both (a) and (c)
Hint
Exceptions to the law of demand

  • Prestige goods or conspicuous goods
  • Inferior goods.
  • Price expectations:
  • Ignorance of the consumer:
  • Giffen goods
  • Complimentary goods
  • Fashion dependent goods

Question 29.
When a consumer’s real income increases, the price of which type of good falls down?
a. Luxurious Goods
b. Giffen Goods
c. Normal Goods
d. Inferior Goods
Answer:
d. Inferior Goods
Hint
Inferior goods – in such a case when the income of the consumer increases he shifted his purchase from inferior goods to superior goods even if inferior goods price falls.

Question 30.
Inelasticity of demand, what does elasticity means?
a. Eagerness
b. Willingness
c. Responsiveness
d. Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
c. Responsiveness
Hint
Elasticity describes the responsiveness (in percentage terms) of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

Question 31.
The raw of diminishing marginal utility applies in:
a. Long Run
b. Short Run
c. Very Long Run
d. Very short Run
Answer:
b. Short Run
Hint
The Law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a person increases consumption of a product – while keeping consumption of other products constant – there is a decline in the marginal utility that person derives from consuming each additional unit of that product. This is possible only in the short run.

Question 32.
“Indifference curve never cuts each other”- This statement is
a. True
b. False
c. Partly True
d. Partly false
Answer:
a. True
Hint
The indifference curve never intersects each other because a higher curve will never show the same satisfaction level as the lower curve at any point.

Question 33.
What is the relationship between Demand and supply
a. Direct Relation
b. Inverse Relation
c. No relation
d. None of these
Answer:
c. No relation
Hint
Law of Demand and Law of supply are two different laws. There is no relation between the two.

Question 34.
The consumer is at equilibrium when the indifference curve is to the Budget line
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Tangent.
d. None
Answer:
c. Tangent.
Hint
When budget line and indifference curves are drawn together then the budget line will be tangent to curve at equilibrium.

Question 35.
When elasticity of demand is Zero, i.e. ed=0, it is ____________?
a. Perfectly Inelastic Demand
b. Unitary elastic Demand
c. Perfectly elastic Demand
d. Inelastic Demand
Answer:
a. Perfectly Inelastic Demand
Hint
Perfectly inelastic demand is when there is no change in the demand of the product with the change in price.

  • thus elasticity is zero.
  • Demand curve is parallel to Y-axis

Question 36.
If there is a utility of many combinations of A & B, then it is the case of-
a. Indifference curve
b. PPC
c. Budget line
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Indifference curve
Hint
The indifference curve theory of ordinal utility theory is an important concept in Economics, as it suggests a more realistic way to analyze consumer behavior. An indifference curve shows all the various combinations of two goods that, give an equal amount of satisfaction to a consumer. There is a utility of many combinations of A & B on the indifference curve.

Question 37.
If the demand for blankets increases from 4600 to 5700 and the price decreases ‘from 220 to 190. Find elasticity of demand
a. 2.25
b. 1.50
c. 1.75
d. 1.85
Answer:
c. 1.75
Hint
The income elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand for a good or service to changes in income.
E= percentage change in the quantity of good ‘A’/percentage change in price
The above formulae show how the demand for goods changes as the income of consumers changes
Percentage change in the quantity of good = 5700-4600/4600 × 100
= 23.91%
Percentage change in price = 220-190/220 × 100
=13.64%
E = 23.91/13.64 = 1.75

Question 38.
The curve which neither touches X-axis nor is parallel to X-axis?
a. Indifference Curve
b. PPC
c. Both (a) & (c)
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Indifference Curve
Hint
The indifference curve is convex to origin so it neither touches X-axis nor is parallel to Y-axis.

Question 39.
If the real income of the person rises, then demand of which type of goods increases-
a. Normal
b. Inferior
c. Conspicuous
d. none of the above
Answer:
a. Normal
Hint
As the price falls the demand for the product increases and as the price rises the demand decreases, x thus quantity demanded is inversely proportional to the price of a good. This happens in the case of normal goods.

Question 40.
On subsequent consumption of a product the utility increase at _________ rate.
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Variable
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Decreasing
Hint
The Law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a person increases consumption of a product – while keeping consumption of other products constant – there is a decline in the marginal utility that person derives from consuming each additional unit of that product. Thus on subsequent consumption of a product, the utility increases at decreasing rate.

Question 41.
In the case of MNC. which goods are not beneficial
a. Demerit goods
b. Poor Goods
c. Normal Goods
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Poor Goods
Hint
MNC will produce only normal goods.

Question 42.
____________ goods are the products which the people continue to buy even at high prices due to lack of substitute products-
a. Inferior goods
b. Normal goods
c. Giffen goods
d. Luxury goods
Answer:
c. Giffen goods
Hint
Giffen goods: these are the goods which people keep on buying in spite of an increase in price because they have no other substitute for them eg. basic goods, (potatoes, sugar, etc). this is known as the Giffen paradox. There is a positive price effect in the case of Giffen goods.

Question 43.
Which amongst the following is incorrect in relation to the assumption of DMU.
a. All the units are homogeneous
b. The units are of reasonable size
c. More than one commodity is used at a time
d. Consumption is continuous.
Answer:
c. More than one commodity is used at a time
Hint
Assumptions of Law of DMU

  • The marginal decision rule states that a good or service should be consumed at a quantity at which the marginal utility is equal to the marginal cost.
  • Constant marginal utility of money
  • Consumption to be continuous
  • The utility is cardinally measurable
  • The hypothesis of independent utilities
  • The taste and income of the consumer does not change
  • The units of the commodity are identical
  • There is no time gap between the consumptions
  • The standard unit of consumption

Question 44.
When the price of coffee falls, the demand for Tea will?
a. Rise
b. Fall
c. Remains unchanged
d. Any of the above
Answer:
b. Fall
Hint
In the case of substitution, the change in the price of good ‘b’ causes the change in demand of good ‘a’ in the same direction.eg. tea and coffee is a substitute to each other.
In the present case With a fall in the price of a commodity coffee demand for commodity tea also falls shows that changes are in the same direction

Question 45.
Inferior goods have ……………………… and luxury goods have ………………………..
a. Negative income elasticity, Income elasticity greater than 1
b. Income elasticity greater than income elasticity
c. Positive income elasticity, negative income elasticity
d. Can’t say.
Answer:
a. Negative income elasticity, Income elasticity greater than 1
Hint
Inferior goods have negative elasticity of demand. Luxury goods have income elasticity greater than 1.

Question 46.
Which of the following pair of goods is an example of substitutes?
a. Pen and Ink
b. Gas and Kerosene
c. Shirt and Trousers
d. Tea and Sugar
Answer:
b. Gas and Kerosene
Hint
Substitute or substitute good is a product or service that a consumer sees as the same or similar to another product.

Question 47.
Total utility is maximum when:
a. Marginal utility is equal to average utility
b. Marginal utility is zero
c. Marginal utility is at its highest point
d. The average utility is maximum
Answer:
b. Marginal utility is zero
Hint
Observations for the law of DMU

  • When TU rises at a decreasing rate, MU diminishes
  • When TU is maximum, MU is zero
  • When TU decreases, MU becomes negative
  • TU increases so long as MU is positive

Question 48.
On which of the following Law, Law of Demand is based?
a. Total utility
b. Diminishing marginal utility
c. Equi-marginal utility
d. Cardinal utility
Answer:
b. Diminishing marginal utility
Hint
This law of DMU forms the basis of the law of demand, the law of Equi-marginal utility, the elasticity of demand, etc.

Question 49.
The indifference curve approach does not assume:
a. Ordinal measurement of satisfaction
b. Consistent consumption pattern behavior of consumers
c. Rationality on the parts of consumers
d. Cardinal measurement of utility
Answer:
d. Cardinal measurement of utility
Hint
Assumptions of indifference curve approach

  • The consumer is rational and he is interested to maximize his total utility.
  • The utility can not be measured
  • The consumer can rank his various combination of goods according to the satisfaction or utility
  • The principle of diminishing marginal rate of substitution is assumed.
  • The consumer, it is assumed, is consistent in his behavior during a period of time.
  • The goods consumed by the consumer are substitutable.
  • There are many combinations of the, two commodities that are equally preferred by a consumer and he is indifferent as to which of the two he receives.
  • Consumers have full information about the relevant aspects of the economic environment
  • A combination of having more commodities is more satisfying than a combination of having fewer commodities

Question 50.
In which type of price elasticity of supply, a very insignificant change in price leads to an infinite change in quantity.
a. Relatively elastic
b. Perfectly inelastic
c. Relatively inelastic
d. Perfectly elastic
Answer:
a. Relatively elastic
Hint
Relative elastic supply – For a given rise in price, the rise in supply will be proportionately larger. Here elasticity is greater than 1.

Question 51.
How does the demand curve move in case of exception to Law of demand?
a. Upward
b. Downward
c. Positive
d. Negative
Answer:
c. Positive
Hint
The demand curve slopes downward from left to right. It has a negative slope showing that the two variables price and quantity work in opposite directions. In case of exception, the two variables don’t work in the opposite directions so the demand curve moves in a positive direction. For example, certain commodities like diamonds, sports cars, etc., are purchased as a mark of distinction in society, If the price of these goods rises, the demand for them may increase instead of falling.

Question 52.
In the Case, Good X and Good Yare substitute, what will be the impact on Good X for an increase in the price of Good Y?
a. Demand for good X will decrease
b. Demand for good X will increase
c. The market price of good X will decrease
b. Quantity demanded of goods X will increase.
Answer:
b. Demand for good X will increase
Hint
In the case of substitution, the change in the price of good ‘b’ causes the change in the demand of good ‘a’ in the same direction. eg. tea and coffee is a substitute to each other. In the present case With an increase, in the price of a commodity Y demand for commodity X also increases shows that changes are in the same direction

Question 53.
According to Marshall, the utility can be measured by which of the following approaches?
a. Both Cardinal and Ordinal Approach
b. Ordinal Approach
c. Cardinal Approach
d. Nominal Approach
Answer:
c. Cardinal Approach
Hint
Cardinal approach suggests that utility can be measured in imaginary cardinal numbers 1„3,10, etc. It argues that a consumer has the capacity to measure the level of satisfaction that person derives from the consumption of a given quantity of a commodity.

Question 54.
Which of the following is not an assumption of the difference curve approach of determining consumers?
a. Satisfaction is measured ordinarily
b. Consumer consumption behaviors is consistent
c. The utility is measured cardinally
d. Consumers are rational.
Answer:
c. Utility is measured cardinally
Hint
Assumptions of indifference curve approach

  • The consumer is rational and he is interested to maximize his total utility.
  • The utility can not be measured
  • The consumer can rank his various combination of goods according to the satisfaction or utility
  • The principle of diminishing marginal rate of substitution is assumed.
  • The consumer, it is assumed, is consistent in his behavior during a period of time.
  • The goods consumed by the consumer are substitutable.
  • There are many combinations of the, two commodities that are equally preferred by a consumer and he is indifferent as to which of the two he receives.
  • Consumers have full information about the relevant aspects of the economic environment
  • A combination of having more commodities is more satisfying than a combination of having fewer commodities

Question 55.
In the case of two complementary goods a rise in the price of one commodity will induce:
a. An upward shift in demand for the other commodity
b. A rise in the price of the other commodity
c. No shift in the demand for the other commodity
d. A downward shift in demand for the other commodity.
Answer:
d. A downward shift in demand for the other commodity.
Hint
Some goods are so complementary to each other that they can not be segregated thus even if there is a fall in the price of one product the increase in the price of another is immaterial. If goods A and B are complements, an increase in the price of A will result in a leftward movement along the demand curve of A and cause the demand curve for B to shift in; less of each goodwill be demanded. When two goods are complements, they experience joint demand. For example, the demand for razor blades may depend upon the number of razors in use

Question 56.
A manufacturer supplies goods in such a way that if the price rises by 10%, he is prepared to supply 10% more. This supply is best described as:
a. Inelastic
b. Unit-inelastic
c. Unit-elastic
d. Relatively elastic.
Answer:
c. Unit-elastic
Hint
Unitary elastic supply – here elasticity coefficient is equal to 1. A percentage in price will produce the exact same percentage change in quantity. Thus if the price rise by 10% supply also rises by 10%. The supply curve is a straight line through the origin.

Question 57.
If a 20% change in the price of a commodity does not result in any change in the quantity demanded, which type of price elasticity of demand will be in this case?
a. Unitary elastic
b. Relatively elastic
c. Perfectly elastic
d. Perfectly inelastic.
Answer:
d. Perfectly inelastic.
Hint
Perfectly inelastic demand is when there is no change in the demand of the product with the change in price.

  • thus elasticity is zero.
  • The demand curve is parallel to Y-axis.

Question 58.
Which of the following does not lead to an increase in an equilibrium price for a consumer?
a. An ‘increase in supply accompanied by a decrease in demand
b. A decrease in supply accompanied by an increase in demand
c. A decrease in supply without a change in demand
d. An increase in demand without a change in supply.
Answer:
d. An increase in demand without a change in supply.
Hint
An equilibrium price (also known as a “market-clearing” price) is one at which each producer can sell all he wants to produce and each consumer can buy all he demands. When the supply and demand curves intersect, the market is in equilibrium. This is where the quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal. The corresponding price is the equilibrium price or market clearing price, the quantity is the equilibrium quantity. Thus a seller has to supply goods at a price that is acceptable to consumers. When there is an increase in the income of consumers then there is an increase in demand which in turn pressurizes the supplier to increase supply and that leads to an increase in price to reach equilibrium. An increase in demand without a change in supply does not lead to an increase in equilibrium price.

CS Foundation Business Economics Notes

Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Introduction:

  • Businessmen have a common practice of making use of certain ddcuments for making payments.
    Such documents are known as negotiable instruments.
  • The law relating to negotiable instruments is contained in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
  • Accepting payments through them is risky as it involves deferred payments.
  • It is the law of commercial world.
  • It was enacted to facilitate the activities in trade and commerce.
  • Its main purpose was to present an orderly and authoritative statement of the leading rules of law relating to negotiable instrument.
  • It refers to an act to define and amend the law relating to promissory notes, bills of exchange and cheques.
  • Act applies to whole of India and all persons resident in India.
  • Its provisions are not applicable to Hundis and other native instruments.

The Act recognizes only three types of instruments:

  • Promissory notes
  • Bills of exchange
  • Cheques

Negotiable Instruments:

  • It is an “instrument which is transferable, by delivery, like cash, and is also capable of being sued upon by the person holding for time being.
  • As per the Section 13(1) of the Act,
  • “A negotiable instrument means a promissory note, bills of exchange, or cheque payable either to order or to bearer.”

Conditions of Negotiability:

  • It should be freely transferable.
  • Defective title of transferor does affects the title of person taking it for value and in good faith.
    Transferee can sue-upon the instrument in his own name.

Negotiability Involves two Elements:

  • Transferability free from equities.
  • Transferability by delivery or endorsement.

Effects of Negotiability:

  • General principal of law says: “Nemo Dat Quad Non-Habet” i.e. no one can pass a better title than he himself has.
  • Negotiable instrument is an exception to above rule.
  • Thus, a bonafide transferee of negotiable instrument without notice of any defect of title acquires a better title than that of transfer.

Characteristics:

  • Holder is presumed to be the owner of the property contained therein.
  • It is a written document.
  • It should be signed.
  • Payable to bearer or order.
  • It is unconditional.
  • It may be transferred by endorsement and delivery.
  • Transferee obtains a good title.

These are freely transferable but can be transferred only till maturity and in case of cheque till it becomes stale‘(i.e. six months from the date of issue)

Classification:

  • Bearer
  • Order
  • Inland
  • Foreign
  • Demand
  • Time
  • Ambiguous
  • Inchoate/Incomplete.

Bearer Instruments

  • An instrument is payable to bearer which is expressed to be so payable.
  • Wards “Pay to bearer are expressed on it.”
  • It is also payable to bearer when the last endorsement on it is “an endorsement in blank.”

Order Instruments
An instrument is payable to order –

  1. When it is payable to the order of a specified person,
  2. When it is payable to specified person or his order,
  3. When it is payable to a specified person without the addition of words “or his order,”

And does not contain words prohibiting transfer or indicating an intention that it should not be transferable.

Inland Instruments (Sec. 11)

  • An instrument which is drawn or made in India and made payable in or drawn upon any person resident in India.
  • Its protest for dishonour is optional.

Foreign Instruments

  • Instruments which are not inland.
  • It must be protested for dishonour if the place where these are drawn prescribes for such protest.

Demand Instruments (Sec. 19)

  • It means “immediately payable.”
  • It may be presented for payment at any time at the holder’s option but it must be presented within a reasonable time.
  • These instruments do not specify any time for payment.

Time Instruments
it means, a promissory note after presentment for sight and a bill of exchange, after acceptance, noting for non-acceptance or protest for non-acceptance.

Ambiguous Instrument (Sec. 17)

  • Instrument which can be construed either as a promissory note or as a bill of exchange.
  • Such instrument’s language is not clear.
  • It may give rise to multiple interpretations.
  • Once an instrument is treated as a bill or note, it cannot be treated differently thereafter.

Inchoate / Incomplete Instrument (Sec.20)
1. Such instrument is signed but is incomplete in other aspects.

2. Holder thus, gets a prima facie authority to make it complete for any amount specified therein, not exceeding the amount covered by stamp.

3. Person signing and delivering it is liable to both holder and HDC.
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes 1

Promissory Note
1. As per Sec.4 of the Act,
Promissory note is, – “an instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking, signed by the maker to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of, a certain person, or to the bearer of the instrument”.

2. Parties:

  • Maker – person making or executing it.
  • Payee – person to whom note is payable.
  • Holder – person to whom it is endorsed or the payee.
  • Endorser.
  • Endorsee.

3. Essentials:

  • It must be in writing.
  • The promise to pay must be unconditional.
  • The amount promised must be certain and a definite sum of money.
  • The instrument must be signed by the maker.
  • The person to whom promise is made must be a definite person.
  • It must contain an express promise or a clear undertaking to pay.
  • Payment must be in the legal money of the country.
  • It must be properly stamped as per the provisions of Indian Stamp Act.
  • Name of place, number and date on which it is made must be contained in it.
  • Should contain the sum payable which is certain and must not be capable of contingent additions or deletions.

Note:
It cannot be made payable to bearer whether payable on demand or after certain time period.

Bill of Exchange –
1. As per Sec. 5 of the Act,
Bill of exchange is, – “an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by a maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to
dr to the order of, certain person or to the bearer of the instrument.”

2. Parties:

  • Drawer: The party who draws a bill.
  • Drawee: The party on whom such bill is drawn.
  • Acceptor: The drawee of the bill who has signified his assent to the drawer’s order.
  • Payee: The party to whom or to whose order, the amount of bill is payable.
  • Endorser: The party who endorses the bill.
  • Endorsee: The party to whom it is endorsed.
  • Holder: Person entitled in his own name to the possession of bill and to receive or recover the amount due thereon from the parties.
  • Drawee in Case of need: When in the bill, the.person whose name is entered, in addition to the drawee, to be resorted to in case of need.
  • Acceptor for Honour: Person who offers better security for safeguarding the honour of drawer or any endorser, accepts the bill.

Essentials:

  • It must be in writing.
  • There must be an order to pay.
  • The order must be unconditional.
  • The drawee must sign the instrument.
  • The drawer, drawee and payee must be specified in the instrument.
  • The sum must be certain.
  • The medium of payment must be money and money only.

Differences between Promissory Note and Bill of Exchange :

Promissory Note Bill of Exchange
1. It contains a promise to pay. It contains an order to pay.
2. Makers liability is primary and absolute. Drawers liability is secondary and conditional.
3. It consists of 2 parties. It consists of 3 parties.
4. It cannot be made payable to bearer. It can be made payable to bearer.
5. Position of issuer is like a debtor. Position of issuer is like a creditor.
6. Cannot be made payable to maken himself. Drawer and payee or drawee and payee may be the same person.
7. No formalities of acceptance required. It must be formally accepted to be a valid instrument.
8. No notice of dishonour is required to be given. Drawer must get notice of dishonour.

Types of bills:

  • Inland bills: Bills drawn in India for any person in India.
  • Foreign bills: Bills which are not inland bills. Foreign Bill is drawn in sets of three copies.
  • Trade bills: Bills issued for trade settlements.
  • Accommodation bills: Also known as kite bills, these are used for mutual help. An accommodation bill is a bill which is drawn, accepted or endorsed without any consideration.

Cheque:
1. As per Sec. 6 of Act, – “Cheque is a special type of bills of exchange which is always –

  • Drawn upon a specified bank and
  • Payable on demand.

It also includes electronic image of truncated cheque or cheque in an electronic form.”

2. “A Cheque in the Electronic form” means a cheque which contains the exact mirror image of a paper cheque, and is generated, written and signed in a secure system ensuring the minimum safety standards with the use of digital signatures and asymmetric crypto system.

3. “A Truncated Cheque” means a cheque which is truncated during the course of clearing cycle, either by clearing house or by bank, preventing the further physical movement of cheque.

4. “Clearing House” refers to the clearing house managed or recognised by RBI.

5. It is a kind of bill of exchange, thus must satisfy all requirements of a bill.

Note: No bill of exchange or hundi except cheque can be made payable to bearer on demand.

Parties :
All are same as that of B/E, except drawee who is a banker.

Essentials:

  • It is always paid on demand.
  • It is drawn on a specified banker.
  • It does not requires acceptance.
  • It may be payable to drawer himself or to bearer on demand.
  • It is usually valid for 6 months.
  • It can be drawn on a bank where drawer has an account.
  • No stamp is required.
  • Banker is only liable to drawer.

Differences between Cheque and Bill of Exchange:

Bill of Exchange Cheque
1. Any person can become a drawee. Only bank can be a drawee.
2. Three days of grace are allowed. No days of grace are allowed.
3. Notice of dishonour is usually required. No notice of dishonour is required.
4. It can never be made payable to bearer on demand. It can be drawn to bearer and made payable on demand.
5. It sometimes require presentment for acceptance. It is not necessary to present it for acceptance.
6. It must be adequately stamped. It is never required to be stamped.
7. It cannot be crossed. It can be crossed.
8. It cannot be countermanded. It can be countermanded anytime.

Banker:

  • Person doing the banking work.
  • As per Sec.5(b) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Banking refers to, – “Accepting for the purpose of lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand or otherwise and withdrawable by cheque, draft or otherwise.”

Customer – Person who has an account with the bank or who utilises the bank services.

Rights and Obligations of Banker:

  • Honour customer’s cheques.
  • Collect cheques and drafts on customer’s behalf.
  • Keep proper record of transactions with customers.
  • Not to disclose customer’s account status with anyone, etc.
  • Give reasonable notice to the customer before closing his account.
  • Right to claim incidental charges as per the rules of bank.
  • Obligation to comply with the express standing instructions of the customer.
  • Right of set off and right of appropriation.

Liabilities of Banker:

  • Liable to the customer to the extent of amount of the account opened.
  • Liable to honour customer’s cheques to the extent of amount in his account.
  • Liable to compensate the drawer for any loss or damage suffered if he fails to honour cheques without justification.
  • Liable to maintain proper and accurate accounts of credits and debits.
  • Liable to honour cheque presented in due course.

Cases when Banker must refuse Payment:

  • Banker receives notice of customer’s insolvency or lunacy.
  • When customer countermands payment.
  • If legal order from the court attaching or otherwise dealing with money in banker’s hand is served on banker.
  • Banker receives notice of customer’s death.
  • Customer gives notice to the banker to close the account.
  • Customer gives notice of assignment of his credit balance.
  • When the holder’s title is defective and the banker comes to know of it.

Cases when the Banker may refuse Payment:

  • Cheque is post-dated.
  • It is stale i.e. not presented for payment within a reasonable period.
  • It is inchoate or not free from reasonable doubt.
  • It is post dated and presented before its ostensible period.
  • If customer’s fund in banker’s hand are not properly applicable to the payment of cheque drawn by former.
  • Where the cheque is presented at a branch other than the one where the customer has the account.
  • It is not duly presented.
  • It is mutilated.
  • It is irregular or materially altered.
  • Customer’s signature does not agree with his specimen signatures.

Marking of Cheque:
1. The cheque need not be presented for acceptance, thus the drawee of cheque i.e. banker is liable to his customer (drawer), if he wrongly refuses to honour the cheque. In such cases, action can be taken by the customer against the banker for the loss of his reputation.

2. However if the cheque is marked or certified, “Good for Payment” by banker, it protects the person to whom it is issued against the cheque being refused for payment.
This concept is not prevalent in India.

3. Crossing of Cheque – Cheque is either open or crossed:

  • Open Cheque – Can be presented by payee to the paying banker and is paid over the counter.
  • Crossed Cheque – It is not paid over the counter but has to be collected through a banker.

4. When two parallel lines are drawn on the upper left corner of cheque, it is known as crossing of cheque.

5. It is a direction to the paying banker that the cheque should be paid only to a banker or a specified banker.

6. It is done as a measure of safety.

Modes of Crossing:

  • General Crossing
  • Restrictive Crossing
  • Special Crossing
  • Not – negotiable Crossing.

General Crossing:

  • When two parallel lines are drawn and nothing is specified in between them.
  • Amount will be directly credited to account of payee.
  • Payee cannot get money over the counter.
  • It prevents the money from going in wrong hands.

Restrictive Crossing:

  • When the words ‘A/c Payee’ are specified within the crossing.
  • Cheque canhot be further negotiated.
  • Collecting banker will be guilty of negligence if he credits the proceeds to account other that of A/c payee.
  • It does not affects the paying banker.

Special Crossing:

  • When the name of a particular bank is specified between the crossed lines.
  • Amount can be collected only by the bank whose name is specified.

Not – Negotiable Crossing

  • When the words ‘not – negotiable’ is specified between the crossed lines.
  • It enhances the safety as it ensures protection from any misappropriation.
  • As per Sec.130,
  • “A person taking a cheque crossed generally or specially bearing in either case, with the words ‘not – negotiable’ shall not have and shall not be capable of giving, a better title to the cheque than that which the person from whom he took it had.”
  • It does not mean non – transferable.
  • It provides protection to the drawer or holder of a cheque who wants to transfer it against dishonesty or actual miscarriage in the course of transit.

Protection of Paying Banker (Sec.85):

  • When a cheque payable to order, purports to be endorsed by or on behalf of the payee, the banker is discharged by payment in due course.
  • Banker is authorised to debit his customer’s account with the amount so paid, even though the endorsement of payee turns out to be forged subsequently, or even if the endorsement may have been made by payee’s agent without his authority.
  • Reason: Banker is only bound to know the signature of his own customers.
  • If the drawer’s signature is forged, a banker remains liable to the drawer even if payment is made in due course and cannot debit the drawer’s account.
  • In case of crossed cheques, banker can debit the drawer’s account so paid, even though the amount of cheque does not reaches the true owner.

Note: In case of both the crossed and uncrossed cheques, protection can be availed of if protection is made in due course.

Payment in due Course
1. It means that payment is made:

  • In accordance with the apparent tenor of the instrument.
  • In good faith.
  • Without negligence.
  • To any person in possession thereof.
  • In money and money only.

2. Banker making payment in due course is presumed to have made payment to the true owner of the cheque, though the amount may have ’ not reached the true owner.

Opening of Crossing – A cheque once crossed need not remain forever. The drawer has a right to cancel the crossing by writing the words ‘Pay Cash’ and putting his full signature.

Collecting Banker:

  • He is the one collecting the proceeds of a cheque for a customer.
  • If banker collects the proceeds of a cheque for a customer, to which he ; has no title, true owner may sue the collecting banker for conversion.
  • However, as per Sec.131 of the Act,
  • “A banker who has in good faith and without negligence received payment for a customer of a crossed cheque generally or specially to himself shall not, in case the title to the cheque proves defective, incur any liability to the true owner of the cheque by reason of only having received such payment.”
  • The banker’s protection is lost if he becomes the holder for value.

Overdue/Stale/Out-of date cheques:

  • Cheques becomes barred by statute after 3 years from its due date.
  • It means that the holder cannot sue on that cheque after 3 years.
  • It has to be presented within a reasonable time.
  • In India, it is 6 months.

Endorser’s Liability:
It arises only if cheque is presented within a reasonable time of its delivery by that endorser.

Rights of Hosier Against the Banker – Holder can enforce payment only in 2 cases :

  • If holder does not presents the cheque within reasonable time after issue, thus the drawer suffers damage.
  • If banker makes payment of crossed cheque over the counter.

Holder (Sec.8):

  • Person must be named in the instrument.
  • It implies ‘de jure’ i.e. holder in. law and not ‘de facto’ i.e. holder in fact.

Holder in Due Course (HDC) (Sec. 9):
1. It means any person who obtains the instrument –

  • Before maturity.
  • For some consideration.
  • In good faith.

Privileges of HDC:

  • An inchoate instrument, if properly stamped, is valid, if it subsequently comes in hands of HDC.
  • In case of inchoate instrument, HDC has a right to recover that much amount which is sufficiently covered by stamp.
  • The acceptor of a bill of exchange cannot plead against a HDC that the bill is drawn in fictitious name.
  • The person liable on an instrument cannot plead against HDC that the instrument has been lost or was obtained by means of fraud or unlawful means.
  • No one can deny the original validity of the instrument.
  • No one can deny against a HDC, the capacity of the payee to endorse.
  • HDC can recover from all prior parties.
  • No effect of conditional delivery.
  • Once an instrument passes through hands of HDC, all its defects are removed.

Differences between Holder and HDC :

Holder Holder in Due Course
1. Acquires instrument without consideration. Acquires instrument for consideration.
2. Does not acquire a goods title. Acquires a goods title.
3. May acquire the instrument even after it has become due for payment. Must acquires the instrument before the amount thereon becomes payable.
4. He can enforce it against the person who has signed it and the transferor from whom he has obtained it. He can sue all the prior parties until the instrument is duly satisfied.

Bank Draft:
1. It is an order drawn by an office of a bank upon another office of same bank.

2. It is different from cheque in following 3 ways:

  • It cannot be easily counter mended.
  • It cannot be made p
  • It can be drawn only by one branch of bank upon another branch.

Material Alteration (Sec. 87):

  • Any alteration made in the instrument which causes it to speak a different language from what it originally intended or which changes the legal identity of the instrument in its terms or in relation or parties there to is a material alteration.
  • It alters the parties liabilities.
  • It renders the instrument void.
  • Persons taking the altered instrument after its alteration have no right to complain.
  • However, as per Sec.88, an acceptor or endorser remains bound by his acceptance or endorsement.
  • Example : Sum payable, interest rate, date of payment etc.

Following cases do not result in material alteration:

  • Alteration made with consent of parties before issue.
  • Crossing of cheque.
  • Adding words “on demand”.
  • Correction of any mistake.
  • Carrying out common intention of parties.

Conditions for Protection to a Person Paying an Altered instrument:

  • No apparent alteration.
  • Payment must be made in due course.
  • Payment must be made by a person or banker liable to pay.

Bouncing of Cheques: It means dishonour of cheques due to insufficiency of funds.

Capacities of Parties:

  • It is co-extensive with capacity to contract.
  • As per Sec.26,
  • “Every person capable of contracting according to law to which he is subject, may bind himself and be bound by making, drawing, acceptance, endorsement, delivery and negotiation of a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque.”
  • Minors, lunatics, drunken person, idiots and other persons do not incur any liability as a party to negotiable instrument.
  • However, liability of other competent parties continue.

Liability of Drawer (Sec. 30):

  • Drawer’s liability is conditional i.e. it arises only in the event of a dishonour by the drawee or acceptor.
  • Pre-condition of the drawer’s liability is that the notice of dishonour should have been received by him.
  • On dishonour by non – acceptance, followed by the notice, the drawer becomes liable immediately for the full amount of the bill. He cannot ask the holder to wait till the maturity.
  • If holder chooses to wait till maturity before he sues the drawer, he does not require a fresh cause of action by reason of its non – payment on the due date.

Liability of Drawee (Sec. 31):

  • Drawee in case of cheque is always a banker.
  • It is his duty to pay the cheque, provided (i) he has in his hands sufficient funds of the drawer, and (ii) funds are properly applicable to such payment.
  • If he refuses payment without showing sufficient cause, he has to compensate the drawer for any loss caused by such refusal.
  • Amount of compensation is measured by the loss of credit suffered by the drawer.

Principle is : “Lesser the value of cheque dishonoured, greater the damage to the credit of the drawer.”

Liability of Maker of Note and Acceptor of Bill (Sec. 32):

  • His liability arises only when he accepts the bill.
  • In absence of contract to contrary, he is bound to pay the amount at maturity as per the apparent tenor of this bill.
  • If the bill is accepted after maturity, he is bound for the amount to the holder on demand.
  • In default of such payment, he is bound to compensate any party to the bill for any loss or damage caused to him by such default.

Liability of Endorser (Sec. 35):

  • By accepting and delivering it before maturity, he undertakes the responsibility that on the presentment it shall be accepted and paid.
  • If it is dishonour by drawee, acceptor or maker, he will identify the holder or subsequent endorser who is compelled to pay, provided due notice of dishonour is received by him.
  • However, he may make his liability conditional.

Liability of Prior Parties (Sec. 36):

  • Every prior party is liable to HDC until the instrument is satisfied.
  • This liability is joint and several.

Liability of Acceptor of Forged Endorsement (Sec. 41) : Such acceptor is not relieved from his liability if he had the knowledge of such forged endorsement.

Liability inter se : Various parties to a negotiable instrument who are liable thereon stand on a different footing with the respect to the nature of liability of each of them.

Acceptor’s Liability on a Bill Drawn in a Fictitious Name : He remains liable to HDC.

Negotiation (Sec.14):
When a negotiable instrument is transferred to a person, so as to make the person the holder of the instrument, the instrument is said to be negotiated. It may be by –

  • Mere Delivery.
  • Endorsement and Delivery.

Assignment:
It is a mode of transferring the instrument which requires a written document. Under this, the instrument is transferred like goods, by deed that is under a contract.

Differences between Negotiation and Assignment :

Negotiation Assignment
Transferee acquires all the rights of a HDC. Assignee does not acquires the rights of a HDC.
Notice of transfer is not needed. Notice of assignment must be served by assignee on his debtor.
Consideration is presumed. Consideration must be proved.
Requires payment of stamp duty. Does not requires payment of stamp duty.
Requires delivery only in case of bearer instrument or endorsement & delivery in case of order instrument. Requires a document to be reduced into writing and signed by the transferor.

Mere Delivery:

  • As per Sec.46,
  • “Making acceptance or endorsement of instrument is not complete until delivery, actual or constructive, of the instrument.”
  • It must be made voluntarily with the intention of passing property in the instrument to the person.
  • Bill or cheque payable to bearer is negotiated by mere delivery.
  • These do not require transferor’s signature.
  • Bearer is not liable to any party if the instrument is dishonoured.
  • He is only liable to his immediate transferee.
  • Bearer cheque always remain bearer.

Endorsement and Delivery:

  • It is required in instruments payable to a specified person or to the order of a specified person.
  • Transferee does not become the holder, unless the holder signs it, thus transferee does not get any right against HDC.

Endorsement (Sec. 15):

  • It refers to “signing ones name on the negotiable instrument for the purpose of transferring it to another person.”
  • If there is no space on the instrument, it may be made on a slip of paper attached to it known as “Allonge.”
  • Endorsee is the person to whom the instrument is endorsed.
  • Endorsement therefore means writing of something on the back of an instrument for the purpose of transferring the rights, title and interest to some other person.

Kinds of Endorsement:

  • Blank/General
  • Special/Full
  • Restrictive
  • Partial
  • Conditional/Qualified.

Blank/General Endorsement:

  • An endorsement without specifying the name of endorsee.
  • It becomes payable to bearer.
  • Its holders may convert it into an endorsement in full by writing above endorsers signature, a direction to pay it to another person or his order.

Speciai/Full Endorsement:
An endorsement which specifies the name of the endorsee along with the endorser’s signature.

Restrictive:
It has the effect of restricting further negotiation and transfer.

Partial:
Only a part of the amount payable on the instrument is transferable to the endorsee.

Conditional/Qualified:

  • It combines an order to pay with condition.
  • It limits or negatives the liability of the endorser.
  • An endorser may limit his liability in any of the following ways:

1. Sans Recourse:

  • It means “without liability.”
  • Endorser declines to accept the liability on the endorsement of any subsequent party.

2. Sans Frais:

  • It means “without expense.”
  • It implies that-the holder of the instrument is not liable to pay any legal cost incurred by him.

3. Facultative:

  • These words are added when it is desired to waive certain rights.
  • Example : right to receive notice of dishonour.

Negotiation Back:

  • An instrument is said to have, negotiated back to him and he is said to have taken up or taken back the negotiable instrument when a person who has been a party to negotiable instrument takes it again.
  • In such case, holder cannot recover the amount from intermediate parties i.e. parties between endorsee and holder but can recover only from immediate prior parties i.e. all parties prior to endorsee.
  • This leads to circuity of action negotiation of lost instrument or that detained by unlawful means.
    Possessor or endorsee is not entitled to receive any amount due thereon from maker, acceptor or holder unless he is a HDC.

Forged instrument – In case of endorsement in full:

  • Forgery conveys no title.
  • Endorsee acquires no title even though he is a purchaser for value arid in good faith.
  • Endorsement is a nullity.

In case of bearer instrument : Holder can claim the amount from any of the parties to the instrument.

Acceptance of Bill of Exchange:

  • It may be defined as the indication by the drawee of his assent to the drawer that he will pay the amount of bill on due date.
  • Drawee has to write the words “accepted” on the face of the bill and sign his name underneath.
  • Drawee becomes acceptor.
  • Acceptor is primary liable on the bill.

Essentials of a Valid Acceptance:

  • It must be written.
  • It must be signed by the drawee.
  • It must be on the bill (either face or back of the bill).
  • It must be completed by delivery or by notice of acceptance to holder or any person on his behalf.
  • It must be presented for acceptance within reasonable time, if no time is specified.
  • It must be presented for acceptance at the drawee’s place of business if nothing is specified or at place mentioned.
  • If a bill is drawn in sets, acceptance should be put on one part only.
  • It may be absolute or conditional.

Kinds of Acceptance:

  • General/Absolute.
  • Conditional/Qualified.

General/Absolute Acceptance:
It is given without any condition regarding payment.

Conditional/Qualified Acceptance:

  • When the drawee does not accept it according to the apparent tenor of the bill but attaches some condition which have the effect of either reducing his liability or acceptance of liability subject to certain conditions.
  • If holder refuses to take it, he can treat the bill as dishonoured by non-acceptance.
  • Holder may also sue the drawer.

Acceptance for Honour:

  • When any instrument gets dishonoured due to non – acceptance the holder normally sues the drawer for the dishonour of the instrument by non – acceptance.
  • If these legal proceedings are to be avoided, then a third party would accept the instrument which had been dishonoured by non – acceptance and keep the instrument valid.
  • The person who makes such acceptance is known as acceptor for honour and process is known as acceptance for honour.
  • Supra protest means that the bill is protested for non payment after it is duly accepted.
  • In above case, any person can intervene and pay for honour of any party liable to pay.
  • Thus, bill ceases to be negotiable thereafter.
  • Person paying for honour get all the rights of holder for whom he pays.

Conditions for Valid Acceptance for Honour:

  • Bill has been noted or protested for non – acceptance or better security.
  • Such an acceptance has been made with the consent of holder.
  • Acceptor for honour is not already liable on the bill.
  • Acceptance is for the honour of any party already liable on the bill.
  • Acceptance is by writing on the bill.

Presentment for Acceptance:
1. Only following bills of exchange require presentment:

  • Bill payable after sight
  • Bill in which there is express stipulation that it has to be presented for acceptance before it is presented for payment.

2. AsperSec.15,
“Presentment has to be made to drawee or his authorised agent.”

3. It can be presented to following persons:

  • Drawee or his authorised agent.
  • In case of more than one drawee – to all of them.
  • If drawee is dead – to his legal representatives.
  • If drawee is declared insolvent-to his official receiver or assignee.
  • If drawee refuses to accept – to drawee in case of need.
  • Acceptor for honour.

4. It must be made:

  • before maturity
  • within a reasonable time
  • on a business day
  • during the business hours
  • at the business place or drawee’s residence.

5. If it is not presented in case of compulsory presentment, drawer and endorser are discharged from their liability.

Cases where Presentment for Acceptance is Excused:

  • Drawee could not be found after reasonable search.
  • Drawee is a fictitious person.
  • Drawee is a person incapable of contracting.
  • On some other ground.

Presentment for Payment (Sec. 64):

  • it means an exhibition to drawee or acceptor by holder with a request for payment in accordance with its apparent tenor.
  • It must be made during normal banking hours.
  • It must be made immediately on due date.
  • If payments are to made in installments, three days of grace are to be added in each date of installment.
  • Instruments can be presented at any of following places –
    (a) If place is specified, it must be made at such place.
    (b) If place is not specified, it can be made on business place.
    (c) If there is no business place, it can made at residence.
    (d) If residence is unknown, it can be made at any other reasonable place.
  • In case of cheque, it must be presented, at any time before relation between bank and drawer alters.
  • If instrument is payable on demand, it must be made within a reasonable time.
  • If any agent is appointed for making payments, it can be made to such agent.

Cases Where Presentment for Payment is Excused:

  • If drawee is intentionally prevented from presentment.
  • If the respective place is closed.
  • If person liable to pay cannot be found after reasonable search.
  • If it is a fictitious instrument.
  • If instrument is dishonoured by non – acceptance.
  • If there is an express waiver regarding presentment for payment.
  • If there is a promise to pay not withstanding non – presentment for payment.
  • Presentment for payment becomes impossible.
  • No person is present to make the payment at the place specified.
  • Drawer is a fictitious person or incompetent to contract.
  • Drawer could not have suffered any damage by non – presentment.
  • Drawer and drawee are same person.
  • On some other ground.

Dishonour of Negotiable Instrument:
1. When a party to an instrument, liable to accept or pay, refuses to accept or pay the instrument when duly presented, the instrument is said to be dishonoured.

2. Dishonour may be by –

  • Non – acceptance,
  • Non – payment.

3. Dishonour by Non – Acceptance (Sec. 91):

  • Drawee or one of the several drawees makes default in payment.
  • Presentment is excused.
  • Acceptance is qualified.
  • Drawee is incompetent to contract.
  • Drawee could not be found after a reasonable search.

Dishonour by Non – Payment (Sec. 92):

  • When maker acceptor or drawee makes default in payment.
  • When presentment is excused and it is left unpaid, after maturity.

Effect of Dishonour:
It renders the drawee and endorsers liable to the holder. This liability can be invoked only if the holder gives them notice of such dishpnour.

Notice of Dishonour (Sec. 91 – 98 & Sec.105 -107):

  • It is a notice which informs the party liable to pay or accept about their liability which accrues as a result of dishonour of the instrument.
  • Its objective is just to notify the party of its liability. ,
  • Its omission discharges all the parties other than maker or acceptor, even in respectof original consideration.

Rules of Notice of Dishonour:

  • It is to be given by the holder.
  • It is given to the drawer and all other parties to whom the holder seeks to make liable.
  • If a notice is not send to any prior party who is entitled to such notice within a reasonable time, he is discharged from liability.
  • Notice may be in any form but it should expressly inform the other party about the dishonour.
  • It is to be given within a reasonable time:
  • If both giver and receiver of the notice reside at the same place, notice should reach on the day of dishonour.
  • If they reside at a different place, notice should be dispatched by next post or on the next day of dishonour.
  • Party receiving the notice should communicate it to prior parties to whom he intends to hold liable within a reasonable time.

Cases where Notice of Dishonour is Not Required:

  • When it is dispensed with by party entitled thereto.
  • In order to charge the drawer.
  • When party charged could not suffer damage for want of notice.
  • Where the party entitled to notice could not be found after due search.
  • To charge the drawer, when acceptor is also a drawer.
  • In case of promissory note, which is not negotiable.
  • Drawer has countermanded payment.
  • Omission to give notice is caused by unavoidable circumstances.
  • Party entitled to notice promises to pay unconditionally.

Noting (Sec. 99)
1. It is a process in which Notary Public enters all the information regarding dishonour in his records.

2. It specifies the following:

  • Fact of dishonour
  • Date of dishonour
  • Reason of dishonour
  • Charges of Notary public

Protest:

  • It is the formal certificate of dishonour issued by the Notary Public to the holder of promissory note or B/E.
  • It is issued after noting the fact of dishonour.
  • It provides an authentic evidence of dishonour to drawer and endorsee.
  • Foreign promissory notes need not be protested.
  • Foreign bills must be protested if required by the law of place.
  • If credit or an acceptor of bill is shaken by insolvency or otherwise before the date of maturity of bill, holder may cause such a fact to be noted and certified. It is called protest for better security.

Note : Neither noting or protest is compulsory in case of inland bills.

Notice of Protest:
When a promissory note or a bill of exchange is required by law to be protested, notice of such protest in lieu of notice of dishonour must be given in the same manner as the notice of dishonour.

Discharge of Instrument:
1. It is said to be discharged when it becomes completely useless and cannot be negotiated further.
2. An instrument can be discharged by

  • Discharge of the instrument
  • Discharge of parties to the instrument from liability

3. Consequence:

  • Right of all parties comes to an end.
  • No party can claim the amount payable from any party.

4. It is Discharged:

  • On payment
  • On cancellation of the instrument
  • On insolvency of party liable
  • In case of bill, on negotiation to the acceptor
  • When principal debtor becomes the holder
  • By renunciation.
  • By an act that would discharge simple contract.

Discharge of Party:
1. A party is said to be discharged from its liabilities when their liability on the instrument comes to an end.

2. Party is Discharged:

  • By cancellation
  • By release
  • By payment
  • By allowing the drawee more than 48 hours to accept
  • By not giving notice of dishonour
  • By taking qualified acceptance
  • By non presentment for acceptance of a bill
  • By delay in presenting cheque
  • Discharge of secondary parties
  • By operation of law
  • By material alteration.

Retirement of Bill Under Rebate :

  • When acceptor makes the payment before maturity.
  • It must be cancelled only by the acceptor when it comes into his hands.
  • Acceptor makes allowance of interest for the remainder time which the bill has to run. The interest allowance is known as rebate.

Material Alteration [Section 87]:

  • An alteration is material if it alters the
  • operation of the instrument, or
  • liabilities of parties.
  • It makes the instrument void.

Material alteration means altering the –

  • date of instrument
  • sum payable
  • time of payment
  • place of payment
  • tearing the instrument
  • adding new parties
  • rate of interest

However there will be no material alteration in the following cases

  • If the alteration is corrected
  • Common intention of parties
  • Crossing a cheque
  • If alteration is made before issue with the consent of the parties.
  • Addition of the words “on demand” in an instrument where no time of payment is stated.

Protection of person who pays an altered bill or cheque:
A person who pays an altered bill will be protected only if he satisfies the following conditions: .

  • The alteration should not be apparent.
  • The payment must be made in due course.
  • The payment is made by a person/banker liable to pay.

Hundis:

  • It is an instrument drawn in an oriental language i.e. local language.
  • Known as native bill of exchange.
  • They were also called ‘Teep’

Types of Hundis:

  • Shah Jog Hundi
  • Jokhmi Hundi
  • Jawabee Hundi
  • Nam Jog Hundi
  • Darshani Hundi
  • Miadi Hundi
  • Dhani Jog Hundi
  • Firman Jog Hundi

Shah Jog Hundi:

  • Shah means ‘a financial of repute’.
  • It is only payable to Shah.
  • He presents the hundi when it comes to him for payment to the drawee on behalf of the holder.

Jokhmi Hundi:

  • It refers to a documentary bill drawn by consignor or consignee in respect of goods shipped by the consignor.
  • Consignee is not required to pay unless the goods reach their destination.
  • Consignor has to suffer the loss, if the ship is sunk.

Jawabee Hundi:

  • It is an instrument for remitting money.
  • It is in form of an ordinary letter advising the party to collect money from the banker.
    Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes 2

Nam Jog Hundi:

  • It is payable to the party named therein or to his order.
  • It can be negotiated like bill of exchange.
  • Altering it into Shah Jog hundi is a material alteration, thus making it void.

Darshani Hundi:

  • It is payable at sight.
  • Freely negotiable.
  • Payable on demand.
  • Must be presented for payment within a reasonable time.

Miadi Hundi:

  • Also known as Muddati Hundi.
  • Payable after specified time period.
  • Shroffs advance money against them after deducting some amount.

Dhani Jog Hundi:

  • Dhani means owner.
  • Payable to owner i.e. person who purchased it.

Firman Jog Hundi:

  • Payable to order.
  • Can be negotiated by endorsement and delivery.

Presumption of Law (Sec.118 & 119):

  • Every instrument is made for some consideration.
  • Every instrument is made on the date mentioned in it.
  • Every instrument was accepted before maturity within a reasonable time.
  • Instruments are endorsed in the order in which they appear.
  • Every instrument was transferred before its maturity.
  • Holder of the instrument is a holder in due course.
  • Lost or destroyed instrument was duly signed and stamped.
  • In case of dishonoured instrument, court presumes the fact of dishonour or proof of protest.

Payment of Interest In Case of Dishonour:
1. It is 18% p.a. on the instrument in which no interest rate is specified, ft is generally between 6% to 18% p.a.

2. Penalties in Case of Dishonour of Cheques – Drawer will be punishable with:

  • Imprisonment for a term upto 2 years, or
  • Fine upto twice the amount of cheque, or
  • With both (i) and (ii) above, without prejudice to other, provisions of the Act.

3. Liability of government nominated directors is excluded.

4. Every offence punishable is compoundable.

National Electronics Funds Transfer System (NEFT) and Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS):
1. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to-one funds transfer. Under this Scheme, individuals, firms and corporates can electronically transfer funds from any bank branch to any individual, firm or corporate having an account with any other bank branch in the country participating in the Scheme.

2. NEFT is an electronic fund transfer system that operates on a Deferred Net Settlement (DNS) basis which settles transactions in batches.

3. In DNS, the settlement takes place with all transactions received till the particular cut-off time.

4. These transactions are netted (payable and receivables) in NEFT whereas in RTGS the transactions are settled individually.

5. The acronym ‘RTGS’ stands for Real Time Gross Settlement, which can be defined as the continuous (real-time) settlement of funds transfers individually on an order by order basis (without netting).

6. Real Time means the processing of instructions at the time they are received rather than at some later time, ‘Gross Settlement’ means the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually (on an instruction by instruction basis).

7. Considering that the funds settlement takes place in the books of the Reserve Bank of India, the payments are final and irrevocable.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The Negotiable Instruments Act makes specific mention of three instruments, namely cheque, bill of exchange and ________.
(a) Promissory note
(b) Hundi
(c) Bank draft
(d) Customary Note.
Answer:
(a) Promissory note

Question 2.
In legal terms, a person who receives a negotiable instrument in good faith and for valuable consideration is known as ________.
(a) Holder
(b) Holder for value
(c) Holder in due course
(d) Holder in rights.
Answer:
(c) Holder in due course

Question 3.
A negotiable instrument in which no time for payment is specified is payable.
(a) After acceptance
(b) After sight
(c) After one month
(d) On demand.
Answer:
(d) On demand.

Question 4.
A bill of exchange payable to bearer on demand is ________.
(a) Valid
(b) Voidable
(c) Invalid
(d) Conditional.
Answer:
(c) Invalid

Question 5.
A person who is directed to pay the amount of bill of exchange is known as ________.
(a) Drawer
(b) Drawee
(c) Payee
(d) Creditor.
Answer:
(b) Drawee

Question 6.
A person can become an acceptor for. honour of a bill of exchange only if his name is mentioned in the bill.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False.
Answer:
(b) False

Question 7.
A negotiable instrument drawn in favour of a minor is ________.
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Valid
(d) Invalid.
Answer:
(c) Valid

Question 8.
All cheques are bills of exchange, but all bills of exchange are not cheques.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False.
Answer:
(a) True

Question 9.
A person becomes a ‘holder in due course’ of a negotiable instrument if he receives it:
(a) In good faith
(b) For value
(c) Before maturity
(d) All of’the above.
Answer:
(d) All of’the above.

Question 10.
A negotiable instrument payable to order can be transferred by:
(a) Simple delivery
(b) Endorsement
(c) Endorsement and delivery
(d) Registered post.
Answer:
(c) Endorsement and delivery

Question 11.
An endorsement made by an endorser by signing his name and also by writing the name of the endorsee, is known as.
(a) General endorsement
(b) Special endorsement
(c) Restrictive endorsement
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Special endorsement

Question 12.
When during the course of negotiation, the negotiable instrument comes back to the original endorser it is known as ________.
(a) Negotiation back
(b) Reserve endorsement
(c) Facultative endorsement
(d) Back recourse endorsement
Answer:
(a) Negotiation back

Question 13.
On the acceptance of the bill of exchange by the drawee, the liability of the drawer becomes:
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Extinct
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Secondary

Question 14.
On the dishonour of a cheque due to insufficient funds, the criminal liability of the drawer is the fine only which may extend to double the amount of cheque, and there is no imprisonment.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 15.
The presentment for acceptance is required’in case of a ________.
(a) Bill of exchange
(b) Promissory note
(c) Cheque
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Bill of exchange

Question 16.
A failure to present a negotiable instrument for payment as per the rules, discharges ________.
(a) All parties to the instrument
(b) All parties except those secondarily liable
(c) All parties except those primary liable
(d) None of the parties to the instrument.
Answer:
(c) All parties except those primary liable

Question 17.
A bill of’exchange is treated as dishonoured due to non – acceptance, where the drawee.
(a) Does not accept within 48 hours of presentment
(b) Is incompetent to contract
(c) Gives a conditional acceptance
(d) In all the above cases
Answer:
(d) In all the above cases

Question 18.
In case of dishonour of a cheque, the holder’s remedy is against the ________
(a) Drawee of cheque
(b) Drawer of cheque
(c) Endorsee of cheque
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Drawer of cheque

Question 19.
In case of dishonour of a bill of exchange or a cheque, the ‘noting’ is compulsory to recover the amount from the liable parties.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 20.
In which of the following cases of forgery a banker is discharged from liability by making a payment in due course.
(a) Payee’s endorsement
(b) Drawer’s signatures
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Payee’s endorsement

Question 21.
Material alteration of a negotiable instrument without the consent of the parties, discharge the parties who have become liable ________.
(a) After such alteration
(b) Prior to such alteration
(c) Because of alteration
(d) Without such alteration
Answer:
(b) Prior to such alteration

Question 22.
Which of the following is not a material alteration?
(a) Alteration of date
(b) Alteration of amount
(c) Alteration of time of payment
(d) Alteration correcting clerical mistake
Answer:
(d) Alteration correcting clerical mistake

Question 23.
A cheque is said to contain a general crossing when two parallel Hnes are drawn across the face of the cheque.
(a) Without any words
(b) With words‘& Co.’
(c) With words ‘not negotiable’
(d) In all the above cases
Answer:
(d) In all the above cases

Question 24.
The payment of a crossed cheque can be obtained ________
(a) At the counter
(b) By depositing in account
(c) By the payee only
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(b) By depositing in account

Question 25.
In case of dishonour of a cheque due to insufficient funds in drawer’s account, the drawer is liable to imprisonment which may extend upto ________.
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Two year
Answer:
(d) Two year

Question 26.
A hundi which is payable to the holder or bearer is known as ________.
(a) Nam Jog Hundi
(b) Firman Hundi
(c) Jawabi Hundi ,
(d) Dhani Jog Hundi
Answer:
(d) Dhani Jog Hundi

Question 27.
Which of the following is NOT a condition of negotiability?
(a) It should be freely transferable
(b) Transferee can sue upon the instrument
(c) It should be made for a valid consideration
(d) The person taking it in good faith is not effected by the defect in title of the transferor
Answer:
(c) It should be made for a valid consideration

Question 28.
A promissory note or bill of exchange in which no time for repayment is specified is called as ________.
(a) Nominal instrument
(b) Time instrument
(c) Demand instrument
(d) Accommodation bill
Answer:
(c) Demand instrument

Question 29.
An instrument which can either be treated as bill or a note by the holder is called as ________.
(a) Ambiguous instrument
(b) Demand instrument
(c) Optional instrument
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ambiguous instrument

Question 30.
A duly stamped instrument which is left blank or partially incomplete giving an authority to the holder to complete it, is called ________.
(a) Inchoate instrument
(b) Blank instrument
(c) Ambiguous instrument
(d) Demand instrument
Answer:
(a) Inchoate instrument

Question 31.
A bill which is drawn, accepted or endorsed without consideration is called ________.
(a) Accommodation Bill
(b) Gratious Bill
(c) Inchoate Bill
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Accommodation Bill

Question 32.
The new definition of a cheque is provided by ________
(a) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
(b) Negotiable Instruments (Amendment and Miscellaneous provisions) Act, 2002
(c) Negotiable Instruments (updation)
(d) None of the above Act, 2002
Answer:
(b) Negotiable Instruments (Amendment and Miscellaneous provisions) Act, 2002

Question 33.
As per the RBI Act, which of the following negotiable instruments can be payable to the bearer on demand?
(a) Cheque
(b) Hundi
(c) Bank Draft
(d) Promissory Note
Answer:
(a) Cheque

Question 34.
In case, a banker without any justification fails to honour a cheque then, who has the right to take an action against it?
(a) The drawer for any loss or damage suffered by him
(b) The drawee for the inconvenience caused to him
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) The drawer for any loss or damage suffered by him

Question 35.
As per the Negotiable Instruments Act, a cheque becomes time barred after ________.
(a) Five years from the date of issue :
(b) Three years from the date of issue
(c) One year from the date of issue
(d) Nine months from the date of issue
Answer:
(b) Three years from the date of issue

Question 36.
Which of the following is NOT a mode of crossing a cheque?
(a) General crossing
(b) Restrictive crossing
(c) Special crossing
(d) Conditional crossing
Answer:
(d) Conditional crossing

Question 37.
The day on which a cheque falls due for payment is called ________.
(a) Payment date
(b) Expiry date
(c) Maturity date
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Maturity date

Question 38.
The normal grace period allowed for a negotiable instrument is of ________.
(a) One week
(b) One month
(c) One day
(d) Three days
Answer:
(d) Three days

Question 39.
A negotiable instrument dated 31st August is made payable three months after date, then the date of maturity will be ________.
(a) 3rd December
(b) 30th November
(c) 1st December
(d) 2nd December
Answer:
(a) 3rd December

Question 40.
Which of the following statement is NOT true in respect of the holder in due course?
(a) A holder in due course is mostly in a privileged position’
(b) Any person holding the instrument can recover the amount from all the previous parties
(c) The negotiable instrument can be obtained even after the maturity
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) The negotiable instrument can be obtained even after the maturity

Question 41.
Which of the following statement is NOT true?
(a) The liability of the drawer is secondary
(b) The prior parties to the negotiable instrument are not liable to the holder in due course
(c) Various parties to a negotiable instrument who are liable stand on a different footing
(d) None of the above 1
Answer:
(b) The prior parties to the negotiable instrument are not liable to the holder in due course

Question 42.
An endorsement where the endorser merely writes his signature on the book of the instrument and the instrument becomes payable to the bearer is called —
(a) General endorsement
(b) Full endorsement
(c) Qualified endorsement
(d) Partial endorsement
Answer:
(a) General endorsement

Question 43.
An endorsement in which the endorser limits his liability is called ________.
(a) Conditional Endorsement
(b) Justified Endorsement
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) Justified Endorsement

Question 44.
An Endorsement in which the endorser gives a direction to pay is called ________.
(a) Special Endorsement
(b) Directive Endorsement
(c) Conditional Endorsement
(d) Justified Endorsement
Answer:
(a) Special Endorsement

Question 45.
In case of a bearer instrument or an instrument endorsed in blank, the holder can claim the amount from the parties even if it is a forged endorsement. ‘
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially True
(d) Partially False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 46.
Which one of the following is NOT true in respect of notice of dishonour?
(a) Notice must be in writing
(b) Notice can be oral or in writing
(c) Notice must be formal
(d) Notice must be given within a reasonable time period
Answer:
(a) Notice must be in writing

Question 47.
In which of the following cases a notice of dishonour is not required?
(a) When the drawer has countermanded payment
(b) When the party to whom the notice is to be given cannot be searched
(c) When the party promises to pay unconditionally
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 48.
Discharge in relation to a negotiable instrument can be done by ________.
(a) Discharge of the instrument
(b) Discharge of parties liability
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 49.
The liability of the maker of a promissory note is ________.
(a) Primary and absolute
(b) Secondary and conditional
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Primary and absolute

Question 50.
The liability of the drawer of a bill is ________.
(a) Primary and absolute
(b) Secondary and conditional
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Secondary and conditional

Question 51.
The essential condition of an Inland bill is ________.
(a) The instrument is drawn or made in India
(b) The instrument must be payable in India or the drawee must be in India
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 52.
The person on whom the bill is drawn is known as ________
(a) Drawer
(b) Drawee
(c) Payee
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Drawer

Question 53.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Notice of the dishonour of a bill is necessary
(b) Notice of dishonour of cheque is NOT necessary
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 54.
The mode of crossing by which the holder of the cheque cannot get the payment over the counter but through any of the bank only is called ________.
(a) General crossing
(b) Special crossing
(c) Account payee crossing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) General crossing

Question 55.
The mode of crossing by which the holder of the cheque can get the payment only through a specified bank is called ________.
(a) General crossing
(b) Special crossing
(c) Account payee crossing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Special crossing

Question 56.
The mode of crossing in which the proceeds are to be credited only to the account of the payee or the party named or his agent is called ________.
(a) General crossing
(b) Special crossing
(c) Account payee crossing
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Account payee crossing

Question 57.
RTGS stands for ________.
(a) Real Time Gross Settlement
(b) Real Type General scheme
(c) Real Type gross settlement system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Real Time Gross Settlement

Question 58.
Real time gross settlement system means a payment system in which ________.
(a) Both processing and final settlement of funds transfer instructions can take place continuously
(b) Final transaction takes place at the end of the day
(c) Final payment is physically effected within 24 hrs.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Both processing and final settlement of funds transfer instructions can take place continuously

Question 59.
Reserve Bank of India, in regard to RTGS, has decided that ________.
(a) There would be accessible to all retail customers.
(b) There would be no floor ceiling for routing transactions through
(c) Settlement of transactions of the clearing corporations of India and the stock market would be conducted through RTGS.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 60.
NEFT Stands for ________.
(a) National Electronic funds transfer
(b) Nation Electro Foreign transmission .
(c) National Elect funding transaction
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) National Electronic funds transfer

Question 61.
According to Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument does not include ________.
(a) Promissory note
(b) Bill of exchange
(c) Cheque
(d) Share certificate
Answer:
(d) The term”negotiable instrument” means a document transferable from one person to another. However the Act has not defined the term. It merely says that “A negotiable instrument” means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer.

A share certificate is not ‘negotiable instrument’ because a share certificate is a document showing title but not a document of title. It merely shows that the person named in the share certificate is entitled to the share represented by it, but it does not allow that person to transfer the share mentioned therein.

Question 62.
Crossing of a Negotiable Instrument is permissible in case of:
(a) Promissory Note
(b) Bill of Exchange
(c) Cheque
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Crossing of a negotiable instrument is permissible in case of Cheque. The object of crossing is to secure payment TO a banker so that it could be traced to the person receiving the amount of the cheque.

Question 63.
Which one of the following is not a feature of a bill of exchange?
(a) It must be in writing
(b) Its parties must be certain
(c) It must be crossed
(d) The sum payable must be certain.
Answer:
(c) Features of a Bill of Exchange is as follows:

  • It must be in writing.
  • It must contain an unconditional order to pay money only and not merely a request.
  • It must be signed by the drawer.
  • The parties must be certain.
  • The sum payable must also be certain.
  • It must comply with other formalities example : stamps, date etc.

Thus, bill of exchange need not be crossed.

Question 64.
A bearer negotiable instrument is payable to:
(a) Banker
(b) Receiver
(c) Holder
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) A bearer negotiable instrument is payable to holder because in case of bearer negotiable instrument the banker may ignore any endorsement on the instrument.

Question 65.
A crossed cheque is payable to:
(a) Holder
(b) Holder in due course
(c) Banker of the customer
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) In case of crossed cheque the holder or payee cannot get the payment over the counter of the bank but through a bank only. Other words, a crossed cheque is payable to Banker of the customer.

Question 66.
Which one of the following is not a party to the promissory note?
(a) Maker
(b) Holder
(c) Acceptor
(d) Endorser
Answer:
(c) Parties of a Promissory Note are as follows:

  • The Maker
  • The Payee
  • The Holder
  • The Endorser
  • The Endorsee

Thus, Acceptor is not a party of promissory note.

Question 67.
A bill of exchange contains a/an:
(a) Unconditional undertaking
(b) Unconditional order
(c) Conditional undertaking
(d) Conditional order.
Answer:
(b) According to Section 5, a “bill of exchange” is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to or to the order of, a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument.

Question 68.
Which one.of the following is not an example of material alteration as per section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 ?
(a) Alteration of the date of instrument
(b) Alteration of the sum payable
(c) Alteration in the time of payment
(d) Crossing of instrument.
Answer:
(d) According to Section 87 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, an alteration is material which in any way alters the operation of the instrument and the liabilities of the parties thereto. A material alteration renders the instrument void.

Examples of material alteration are:

  • alteration of date of instrument
  • alteration of sum payable
  • alteration in time of payment

There is no material alteration in following cases:

  • Crossing of instrument
  • Correction of a mistake

Question 69.
A cheque is a:
(a) Promissory note
(b) Bill of exchange
(c) Hundi
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Section 6 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 provides that “cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand and it includes the electronic image of truncated cheque and a cheque in the electronic form.”

Question 70.
Who among the following is not a party to a cheque?
(a) The drawer
(b) The acceptor
(c) The drawee
(d) The payee.
Answer:
(b) The following are the parties to a cheque:

  • The drawer: The pefeon who draws the cheque.
  • The drawee: The banker of the drawer, on whom the cheque is drawn.
  • The payee, holder, endorser and endorsee.

A cheque being a species of bill of exchange, must satisfy, all requirements of a bill, it does not however, requires acceptance. So there is no acceptor.

Question 71.
Which of the following is a valid promissory note
(a) I owe A ₹ 500
(b) I promise to pay ₹ 1,000 ten days after the death of B .
(c) I promise to pay the bearer ₹ 1,000
(d) I promise to pay ₹ 1,000 after the marriage of B.
Answer:
A Promissory note to be- valid must possess the following essentials-

  • It must be in writing.
  • Promise to pay must be unconditional.
  • Amount promised must be certain and definite sum of money.
  • Must be signed by maker.
  • Person to whom promise is made must be a definite person.
  • Must contain an express promise.
  • Should contain the sum payable which is certain.

“I promise to pay the bearer ₹ 1,000″ contains all the above essential elements.

Question 72.
Which of the following is an example of immaterial alteration in a negotiable instrument ?
(a) Changing the date
(b) Changing the sum payable
(c) Crossing the instrument
(d) Changing the place of payment.
Answer:
(c) Material alteration of a negotiable instrument means altering the –

  • date of instrument
  • sum payable
  • time of payment
  • place of payment
  • tearing the instrument
  • adding new parties
  • other methods.

However, there will be no material alterations in the following cases –

  • Correcting the alteration
  • Common intention of parties
  • Crossing a cheque

Thus, crossing the instrument is an immaterial alteration.

Question 73.
Which of the following negotiable instrument is drawn, accepted or endorsed without consideration?
(a) Inland bill of exchange
(b) Foreign bill of exchange
(c) Accommodation bill
(d) Promissory note.
Answer:
(c) Accommodation bills also known as bite bills are used for mutual help. It is a bill which is drawn, accepted or endorsed without any consideration.

Question 74.
When a cheque is dishonoured in India it is called ________.
(a) Stale cheque
(b) Overdue cheque
(c) Dishonoured cheque
(d) Expired cheque
Answer:
(c) When a cheque is dishonoured in India, It is called dishonoured Cheque.

Question 75.
A bill is dishonoured if it is not accepted within ________.
(a) 12 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 3 hours
(d) 1 hour
Answer:
(b) A bill is dishonoured if it is not accepted within 48 hours.

Question 76.
An instrument is transferred from Gita to Rita and then further to Meena so as to make the last named person the holder for value. Such a process is called:
(a) Transferability
(b) Endorsing
(c) Transacting
(d) Negotiation.
Answer:
(b) An instrument is transferred from Gita to Rita and then further to Meena so as to make the iast named person the holder for value. Such a process is called Endorsing. In Endorsement there are two parties, when the holder endorses the bill to anyone else he becomes the endorser and the person to whom the bill is endorsed, (is called as endorsee) for the purpose of transferring the right, title and interest therein to some other person.

Question 77.
In case of dishonour of a bill, the drawee’s liability is activated:
(a) Always
(b) In case of non-payment only
(c) In case of non-acceptance
(d) Never
Answer:
(b) If the bill is dishonoured either by non-acceptance or by non payment, the drawer and all the endorsers of the bill are liable to the holder, provided he gives notice of such dishonour. The drawee is liable only when there is dishonour by non-payment.

Question 78.
Drawer’s liability for discharging the amount written on the face of the cheque arises when:
(a) Cheque is presented for payment after date of maturity
(b) Cheque is not presented for payment
(c) Cheque is lost
(d) Cheque is dishonoured by drawee or acceptor
Answer:
(d) The liability of a drawer of a bill of exchange is secondary and arises only on default of the drawee, who is primarily liable to make payment of the negotiable instrument. The drawer of a bill of exchange or cheque is bound, in case of dishonour by the drawee or acceptor thereof, to compensate the holder, provided due notice of dishonour has been given to or received byjhe drawer.

Question 79.
In case of dishonour of a cheque, the Court will take action when ________.
(a) a complaint has been made in writing
(b) complaint is made within one month or the date on which the cause of action arises
(c) Court should not be inferior to that of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first class.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) When a negotiable instrument is dishonoured either by non acceptance or by non-payment, the holder or some party liable thereon must give notice of dishonour within a reasonable time.

Question 80.
Material alteration of an instrument means:
(a) Alteration causing crossing of a cheque
(b) Alteration which changes legal character of an instrument
(c) Alteration which corrects a mistake
(d) All changes made in the instrument are material.
Answer:
(b) An alteration is material which in any way alters the operation of the instrument and the liabilities of the parties thereto. Therefore, any change in an instrument which causes it to speak a different language in legal effect from that which it originally spoke, or which changes legal character of the instrument is material alteration.

Question 81.
Bill gates is considered which of the type of entrepreneur:
(a) Visionary
(b) Superstar
(c) Sustainer
(d) Idealist
Answer:
(a) Starting and growing one’s own business requires many skills to be successful, one could be a visionarydike Bill Gates or a superstar like Peter Sematimba.

Question 82.
If there is material alteration in a Cheque, it will be considered as:
(a) Voidable
(b) Void
(c) Valid
(d) None
Answer:
(b) A material alteration renders the instrument void, but it affects only those persons who have already become parties at the date of the alteration.

Question 83.
Which of the negotiable instrument can be payable to the bearer on demand?
(a) Promissory note
(b) Hundi
(c) Cheque
(d) Bank draft
Answer:
(c) By virtue of Section 31 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, no bill of exchange or hundi can be made payable to bearer on demand and no promissory note or a bank draft can be made payable to bearer at all, whether on demand or after a specified time. Only a cheque can be payable to bearer on demand.

Question 84.
________ is not used as negotiable instrument.
(a) Bill of exchange
(b) Draft
(c) Cheque
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) The term negotiable instrument means a document transferable from one person to another. However, the Act has not defined the term. It merely says that ‘A Negotiable instrument’ means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer. Thus, option(d) is the answer.

Question 85.
What is the Cheque known as?
(a) Bill of exchange
(b) Promissory note
(c) None of the above
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(a) A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and always payable on demand. A cheque is always drawn on a particular banker and is always payable on demand. Consequently, all cheque are bills of exchange but all bills are not cheques.

Question 86.
Which one is not the discharge of Negotiable Instrument?
(a) Cancellation
(b) Death of partner
(c) Renunciation
(d) Payment in due-course
Answer:
(b) A negotiable instrument is discharged:

  • By payment in due course
  • When the principal debtor becomes the holder
  • By renunciation
  • By an act, that would discharge simple contract
  • By cancellation

Thus, death of a partner is not discharge of contract.

Question 87.
Accommodation bill is:
(a) Trade bill
(b) Foreign bill
(c) Inland bill
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) There are various types of bills, like inland bill, foreign bill, Trade bill, Accommodation bill.

  • Inland bill : A bill of exchange is an inland bill if it is drawn and made payable in India.
  • Foreign bill : A bill which are not inland are deemed to be foreign bill.
  • Trade bill : A bill drawn and accepted for a genuine trade transaction is termed as trade bill.
  • Accommodation bill : A accommodation bill is a bill in which a person lends or gives his name to oblige a friend or some person whom he knows or otherwise.

Thus, Accommodation bill is not trade bill, foreign bill or Inland bill. Thus, The answer is none of the above.

Question 88.
Mr. A promise to pay on behalf of B to payment. What is that?
(a) Accommodation Bills
(b) Trade Bills
(c) Foreign Bills
(d) Inland Bills
Answer:
(a) An accommodation bill is a bill in which a person lends or gives his name to oblige a friend or some person whom he knows or otherwise. So, in this case Mr. A promise to pay on behalf of B, this is the case of Accommodation bill.

Question 89.
A bank can refuse payment against a cheque in ali -of the following conditions except:
(a) Post dated cheques
(b) Presentation of cheque in a branch other than one where the customer has an account
(c) insufficiency of funds in customers account
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) As per Negotiable Instruments Act, a bank can refuse payment against a cheque in all the above mentioned conditions i.e., insufficiency of funds, post dated cheques and presentation of cheque at a different branch. Hence, answer is None of the above.

Question 90.
A draws a promissory note in Chennai which is payable to ‘B’ in Bombay. The promissory note is called:
(a) Ambiguous instrument
(b) Place instrument
(c) Inland instrument
(d) Order-instrument.
Answer:
(c) A promissory note is called inland instrument which is drawn or made in India and made payable; or -drawn upon any person, resident in India shall be deemed to be an inland instrument.

Question 91.
A bank instrument forged by “B” was endorsed to “D”. “D” can ________.
(a) Claim of payment depends on court order
(b) Claim half paymentonly
(c) Claim payment
(d) Not claim payment.
Answer:
(c) A bank instrument forged by ‘B’ was endorsed to ‘D’. D can claim payment from the parties to the instrument inspite of the intervening forged endorsement.

Question 92.
The instrument always drawn on bankers and payable on demand is called:
(a) Promissory note, Hundi, Bill of Exchange
(b) Bill of Exchange
(c) Cheque
(d) Both Cheque and Bill of Exchange
Answer:
(c) According to Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, “A cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand and it includes the electronic, image of truncated cheque or a cheque in electronic form.

Question 93.
A negotiable instrument can be negotiated after maturity, if:
(a) Courts permit such negotiation
(b) Drawer so wishes
(c) It has not been paid or satisfied
(d) Endorsee so accepts
Answer:
(c) A Negotiable instrument may be negotiated after maturity if the payment has not been made.

Question 94.
Forgery of a negotiable instrument conveys ________ title.
(a) Adequate
(b) No
(c) Full
(d) Good
Answer:
(b) If an instrument be negotiated by means of forged endorsement. The endorsee acquire no title even though he acquires it in good faith and in consideration. In simple words, forgery conveys no title.

Question 95.
Negotiable instruments are defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 to include:
(a) Promissory note, Hundi, Bill of Exchange
(b) Promissory note, Bill of Exchange, Cheque
(c) Promissory note, Bill of Exchange
(d) Bill of Exchange, Cheque, Hundi
Answer:
(b) As per Section 13(1) of the Negotiable Instruments Act,1881, a negotiable instrument Includes promissory note, bills of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer. It is an instrument which is transferable by delivery like cash and also capable of being sued upon by the person holding for time being.

Question 96.
A negotiable instrument can be negotiated after maturity, if:
(a) Endorsee so accepts
(b) it has not been paid or satisfied
(c) Drawer so wishes
(d) Courts permit such negotiations
Answer:
(c) When the negotiable instrument is transferred to a person so as to make the person the holder of the instrument, the instrument is said to be negotiated. And if the drawer so wishes it can even be negotiated after maturity.

Question 97.
A bill is said to be dishonoured by:
(a) Non payment only
(b) Non acceptance and non payment
(c) Non acceptance or non payment
(d) Non acceptance only
Answer:
(c) When the party to an instrument liable to accept or pay, refuses to accept or pay the instrument when duly presented, the instrument is said to be dishonoured. It may be by non acceptance or non payment. Thus, option (c) is correct.

Question 98.
A bill is said to be dishonoured by:
(a) Non acceptance or nor payment
(b) Non payment only
(c) Non acceptance and non payment
(d) Non acceptance only
Answer:
(a) A Bill can be dishonoured by both either by Non Acceptance or Nor Payment:

  • Sec. 91 explains dishonour by Non Acceptance
  • Sec. 92 explains dishonour by Non Payment.

Question 99.
In case of non negotiable cheque, Payment can be made:
(a) To the presenter of cheque across the counter
(b) Either through bank or across counter
(c) To bank onfy
(d) To account payee only
Answer:
(c) Non Negotiable Instrument, payment can be made to bank only.

Question 100.
‘A’ draws a promissory note in Chennai which is payable to ‘B’ Bombay. The promissory note is called:
(a) Inland instrument
(b) Order instrument
(c) Place instrument
(d) Ambiguous instrument
Answer:
(a) A promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque drawn or made in India, and made payable or drawn upon any person resident in India shall be deemed to be an inland instrument.

Question 101.
A bill of exchange contains a/an:
(a) Unconditional undertaking
(b) Unconditional order
(c) Conditional undertaking
(d) Conditional order.
Answer:
(b) A Promissory note contains an unconditional undertaking while Bills of Exchange contains an unconditional order and it is drawn by drawer (seller) or drawee (buyer).

Question 102.
Which of the following is not an example of material Alteration as per Section 98 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?
(a) Alteration of the date of Instrument
(b) Alteration of the sam payable
(c) Alteration in the time of payment
(d) Crossing of Instrument
Answer:
(d) Crossing of Instrument is not an example of material alteration as per Section 98 of Negotiable Instrument Act. 1881.

Question 103.
A Cheque is a:
(a) Promissory note
(b) Bill of exchange
(c) Hundi
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Under Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881, A cheque is a Bill of Exchange and it can be crossed also Cheque is a printed slip in which one person orders his specified banker to pay a certain sum of money to pay a specified person or a particular date at a particular time.

Question 104.
Who among the following is not a party to a Cheque?
(a) The drawer
(b) The Acceptor
(c) The drawee
(d) The Payee
Answer:
(b) Acceptor is not a party to a cheque.

Question 105.
Which of the following is an example of immaterial alteration in a negotiable instrument?
(a) Changing the date
(b) Changing the sum payable
(c) Crossing the instrument
(d) Changing the place of payment
Answer:
(c) Material alteration of a negotiable instrument means altering the –

  • Date of instrument
  • Sum payable
  • Time of payment
  • Place of payment
  • Tearing the instrument
  • Adding new parties

However, there will be no material alterations in the following cases:

  • Correcting the alteration
  • Common intention of parties
  • Crossing a cheque.

Thus, Crossing the instrument is an immaterial alteration.

Question 106.
Which of the following negotiable instrument is drawn, accepted or endorsed without consideration?
(a) Inland bill of exchange
(b) Foreign bill of exchange
(c) Accommodation bill
(d) Promissory note
Answer:
(c) Accomodation bills also known as bite bills are used for mutual help. It is a bill which is drawn, accepted or endorsed, without any consideration.

Question 107.
Inland Instrument ________.
(a) Instrument must have been drawn/made in India
(b) Instrument must have been payable in India
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Inland bills are the bill drawn in India for any person in India. Thus It can be concluded that Instrument must be drawn/made in India and must be payable in India. Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

Question 108.
Holder in due course:
(a) Acquires good title
(b) Must acquire Instrument before the dale of payment
(c) Acquire instrument for consideration
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Holder in due course must comply following conditions

  • He must be the holder of instrument
  • He Should have obtained the instrument for value or consideration
  • He must have obtained negotiable instrument before maturity
  • The instrument should be complete and regular on the face of
  • The holder should take the instrument in good faith.

Thus option (d) is the correct answer.

Question 109.
Negotiable Instrument is provided as discharged by?
(a) Cancellation
(b) Renunciation
(c) Death of drawer
(d) All of Above.
Answer:
(d) The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 provides the following methods or ways to discharge the contract:

  • by payment in due course.
  • when the pincipal debtor becomes holders
  • by an act that would discharge simple contract.
  • by renunciation
  • by cancellation

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes

CS Foundation Business Economics Notes MCQ Study Material | CS Foundation Statistics Notes

CS Foundation Business Economics Statistics Notes MCQ Study Material

CS Foundation Economics Notes

CS Foundation Statistics Notes: Elementary Statistics

Growth and Challenges of Entrepreneurial Venture – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Growth and Challenges of Entrepreneurial Venture – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Supply of entrepreneurship and economic development:

  • British economists like Adam Smith, David Ricardo and John Stuart Miii explained entrepreneurship under the head of business management.
  • According to John Mili, entrepreneurship does not require any ordinary skill”.
  • The necessity of entrepreneurship was first formally recognized by Alfred Marshall in 1890.
  • According to Marshall, there are four factors of production – land, labour, capital and organisation. Here organisation is driven by entrepreneurs.
  • Marshall stated that the abilities of entrepreneurs are so great and so numerous that very few people can exhibit them in all and in a very high degree.
  • Modern school of thought claims that the rote of entrepreneur is that of an innovator.
  • According to Kirzner, process of innovation is actually a spontaneous process of “undeliberate learning’.
  • He also stated that necessary characteristics of the entrepreneur is alertness and no intrinsic skill other than that of recognizing opportunities are necessary.

Concept of creative imitation:

  • Entrepreneurs of mostly less developed countries do not invent a new product rather they copy it from already existing ones.
  • These entrepreneurs formulate the product according to their market using their own creativity.
  • This is known as “creative imitation’.
  • It is common in developing or least developed countries.
  • It takes place when imitators better understand how an innovation can be applied, used, or sold in their original innovation.

Qualities of an Entrepreneur:

  1. Risk Bearers
  2. Co-ordinators
  3. Organizers
  4. Gap fillers
  5. Leaders
  6. Innovators
  7. Creative imitators.

Creation of Entrepreneurs:

  • As per the recent Mckinsey & Company- Nasscom report, India needs at least 8,000 new businesses to achieve its target.
  • It is also estimated that in the next 10 years, 110-130 mull n Indian citizens will be searching for jobs.
  • For creating more jobs, we need to create entrepreneurs.

While creating more entrepreneurs the country should focus on:

  • Creating right environment for source.
  • Ensuring that entrepreneurs have access to the right skill.
  • Ensuring that entrepreneurs have access to smart capital.
  • Enabling networking and exchanging between entrepreneurs.

A distinction is to be made between an employee and entrepreneur.
(a) Employee – Time is money.
Entrepreneur – Leverage is money.
(b) Employee – They work hard and their effort and reward are linear.
Entrepreneurs – They work smart and their efforts and rewards are exponential.
(c) An attitude of ‘first getting b may suit an employee but not an entrepreneur.
(d) Employees think short term whereas entrepreneurs think long term.

Challenges before an Entrepreneur:

Challenges before an Entrepreneurs Qualities needed to overcome Challenges
1.  No protection to employers 1. Innovative
2.  Global competition 2.  Risk oriented
3. Adjusting with the changing environment 3. Achievement-oriented
4. Maintaining a proper balance between project and personnel. 4. Managerial skills and leadership
5. Delayed payments 5. Mental ability
6. Uncertainty in returns 6. Ability to practice entrepreneurship
7. Other factors like ship 7. An economic activity.
  • Financial struggle during startup.
  • Non-supporting family/friends
  • Lack of qualities of entrepreneur.

→ Innovation is an essential quality of an entrepreneur.
→ Paul H Wilkeh lists out the following innovations brought out by entrepreneurs:

Change Innovation
1. Factor innovation Increase in supply or productivity of factors 1. Procuring new source of finance
2. Procuring labour from new source
3. Using new material
2. Product Innovation Changes in production process 1. Use of new production techniques
2. Change the form and structure of organisation.
3. Market Innovation Change in size or composition of the market 1. Production of new good
2. Exploring new markets.
  • The term achievement orientation means quest to success in relation to preset standards of excellence.
  • It is the prime factor that explains economic behaviour of entrepreneurs.
  • According to Peter Drucker, entrepreneurship is neither a science nor an art. It is a practice”.

Areas to be focused for developing Entrepreneurship In India
1. Creating the Right Environment for success
2. Ensure that Entrepreneurs have access to the right skills
3. Ensuring that Entrepreneurs have access to Smart Capital
4. Enabling network and Exchange

Strategic Planning for Emerging Venture:
Strategic planning is the formulation of long-range plans for the effective management of environmental opportunities and threats in the light of venture’s strengths and weaknesses.

These are five basic steps involved in Strategic Planning:

  • Examine the internal and external environments of the venture (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats).
  • Formulate the venture long-range ad short-range strategies (mission, objectives, strategies and policies).
  • implement the strategic plan (programs, budgets and procedures).
  • Evaluate the performance of the strategy.
  • Take follow-up action through continuous feedback.

Financing of the Entrepreneurial Business
For procuring finance an entrepreneur has to do the following:
(i) Resource Assessment:
It refers to the activity of allocating resources to the business (whether it will be self-financed or through loan).

(ii) Capital Requirement:
It refers to the activity of ascertaining how much fixed and working capital Is needed. This depends upon the type of business.

(iii) Funds Flow:
It refers to the activity of analysing the available cash and funds.

(iv) Source of Finance:
It refers to the activity of deciding whether the source of finance will be internal or external.

(v) Means of Finance:
Borrowing is the primary means of financing.
In order to bring about a change, the following are needed by an entrepreneur:

  • Modernisation
  • Expansion
  • Diversification

(i) Modernisation:
Steps for modernisation include:

  • Conducting a research of existing situations.
  • Acquiring resources required for modernisation.
  • Following an efficient modernizing approach and carrying out modernisation.

(II) Expansion:

  • The period of expansion is the period of maturing and unfolding of the firm.
  • There is a little difference between growth and expansion.
  • Development in the internal sense is growth whereas external growth is termed as expansion.

(III) Diversification:

  • It means introduction of a new product in order to meet 1h requirements of old market.
  • Diversification is the expansion of the range of products.
  • Expansión of sale is a key goal infirm is growth phase.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. Elements of business planning includes:
(a) Strategic Planning
(b) Operational Planning
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

2. Environmental scanning is the first step of …………………… .
(a) Strategic Planning
(b) Operational Planning
(c) Entrepreneurship
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Strategic Planning

3. ‘What to achieve and till when is explained by” …………………. .
(a) Objectives
(b) Mission
(c) Goal
(d) Vision
Answer:
(a) Objectives

4. Strategy implementation involves
(a) Programs
(b) Budgets
(c) Procedures
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

5. Conversion of strategic goals into managed execution is termed as ………………….. .
(a) Innovation
(b) Strategy implementation
(c) Operational planning
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Operational planning

6. British economists explained entrepreneurship under head of …………………. .
(a) Business Economics
(b) Business Management
(c) Business Organisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Business Management

7. The necessity of entrepreneurship was first recognized by:
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) John Mill
(d) Kizner
Answer:
(b) Alfred Marshall

8. The role of entrepreneur is that of a innovator this was claimed by-
(a) Ancient school of thought
(b) Neoclassical school of thought
(c) Modern school of thought
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Modern school of thought

9. The concept of creative imitation is mostly used in:
(a) Developed countries
(b) Least developed countries
(c) All the countries
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Least developed countries

10. Which of these is not a type of entrepreneurship?
(a) Opportunity based
(b) Need-based
(c) Situation based
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Situation based

11. For ………………….. time is money.
(a) Entrepreneurs
(b) Employees
(c) Competitors
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Employees

12. An entrepreneur has to face which of these challenges-
(a) Changing Environment
(b) Global Competition
(c) Non-Supporting Family/Friends
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

13. Changes in production process is also referred as-
(a) Product Innovation
(b) Process Innovation
(c) Factor Innovation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Product Innovation

14. Who explained the view that “Entrepreneurship is neither a science nor an art, it is a practice”?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Kizner
(d) Alfred Marshal.
Answer:
(b) Peter Drucker

15. Growth is ………………………. while expansion is ……………………..
(a) External, Internal
(b) Internal, External
(c) Static, Dynamic
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Internal, External

16. ……………………….. is an increase in supply or productivity of factor.
(a) Factor innovation.
(b) Production innovation
(c) Market innovation
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Factor innovation.

17. …………………….. is the process of conversion of strategic goals into managed execution.
(a) Operation Planning
(b) Strategic Planning
(c) Organising
(d) Staffing
Answer:
(a) Operation Planning

18. Which of the following is a basic type of Entrepreneurship.
(a) Opportunity based Entrepreneurship
(b) Leadership based Entrepreneurship
(c) Motivation based Entrepreneurship
(d) Skill-based Entrepreneurship
Answer:
(a) Opportunity based Entrepreneurship

19. According to Peter Drucker entrepreneurship is
(a) Science
(b) Practice
(c) Art
(d) Commerce
Answer:
(b) Practice

20. The factor which determines the mental attitude towards work and the desire to acquire money is called
(a) Cultural & Religious Factor
(b) Risk factor
(c) Capacity Factor
(d) Psychological factor
Answer:
(a) Cultural & Religious Factor

21. Borrowing money from the public is a
(a) Primary means of finance
(b) Secondary means of finance.
(c) Tertiary means of finance
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Primary means of finance

22. In case of deficit budget, the cumulative amount borrowed from the public will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Have no effect
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Increase

23. Which of the following is not included in the seven trends to be faced by an organization.
(a) Speed and uncertainty will prevail
(b) Loyalty will erode
(c) Work will be done at a specified time and place
(d) Technology will continue to disrupt and enable
Answer:
(c) Work will be done at a specified time and place

24. The first step to modernization is
(a) Research
(b) Finance
(c) Development
(d) Efficient modernizing approach
Answer:
(a) Research

25. The last step to Modernization is
(a) Development
(b) Resource Procurement
(c) Efficient modernization approach
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Efficient modernization approach

26. The introduction of a new product or service to meet the needs of an old market is called
(a) Diversification
(b) Expansion
(c) Growth
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Diversification

27. The basic area of focus for India to utilize its talented pools to generate good entrepreneurs is
(a) Ensuring access to the right skill
(b) Creating the right environment for success
(c) Enabling access to smart capital
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

28. The formulation of effective management concentration on opportunities and threats in long-range plans is called as-
(a) Operational Planning
(b) Administration
(c) Expansion
(d) Strategic Planning
Answer:
(d) Strategic Planning

29. The first stage in the development of Entrepreneurial firm is
(a) Start up stage
(b) Seed- stage
(c) Early growth stage
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Seed- stage

30. The main objective of business planning is to
(a) Prude and implement the formal and systematic business plan
(b) To expand the business
(c) To maximize profit
(d) To make the best possible use of resources
Answer:
(a) Prude and implement the formal and systematic business plan

31. As per the necessity-based entrepreneurship
(a) Entrepreneurship is necessary for the growth of the economy
(b) Choosing the entrepreneurship career is a compulsion and not a choice
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) Choosing the entrepreneurship career is a compulsion and not a choice

32. What is the result of modernisation?
(a) Additional burden on employees
(b) Increase in wasteful expenses
(c) Expansion of business
(d) Expansion of profit
Answer:
(c) Expansion of business:
The result of modernization is that the company would expand and will have an improved and modern material base that would both motivate employees additionally and will strengthen the production process and product quality. Thus, modernisation leads to expansion of business.

33. Introduction of new product and services and adding it to the product line is known as:
(a) Expansion
(b) Diversification
(c) Modernisation
(d) Innovation
Answer:
(b) Diversification:
The term ‘diversification’ means the introduction of a new product or service to meet the needs of an old market. It is an expansion of the range of products.

34. The necessity of entrepreneurship in production was first recognised by:
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) David Ricardo
(d) John Stuart Mill
Answer:
(b) Alfred Marshall:
The necessity of entrepreneurship for production was first formally recognised by Alfred Marshall in 1890. He asserts that there are four factors of production: land; labour, capital and organization. He believed that entrepreneurship is driving element behind organization.

35. What is innovation?
(a) Bringing a change
(b) Starting a new process
(c) Introducing new idea to maximise the interests of business
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Introducing new idea to maximise the interests of business:
Innovation refers to introducing something new to maximize the interests of business. According to Peter F Drucker, innovation is a means by which entrepreneurs exploit change as an opportunity for a different business or a different service.

36. Which of the following is not an example of means of finance?
(a) Issue of equity
(b) Goods on credit
(c) Loan against shares
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Loan against shares:
Means of finance refers to means by which a budget deficit is financed, or a surplus is used. Means of financing are not included in the budget totals. The primary means of financing is borrowing from public which includes issue of equity, goods on credit etc. Thus, loan against shares is not a means of finance.

37. ‘Expansion’ is external and horizontal.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) It is in all direction
(d) Partly True
Answer:
(a) True:
Growth is internal or vertical surge, whereas Expansion refers to external or horizontal growth, such as that exhibited by the firm that successfully engages in mergers and acquisitions. Expansion of venture is its period of unfolding and maturation. Hence, the given statement is true.

38. Which of these four factors, Paul H. Wilken had not listed in his book?
(a) Subsequent Expansion
(b) Initial Expansion
(c) Factor Innovation
(d) Source Innovation
Answer:
(d) Source Innovation:
Paul H. Wilken in his work, Entrepreneurship: a comparative and historical study listed the following innovations by changes brought out by entrepreneurs:
– Initial expansion
– Subsequent expansion
– Factor innovation
– Production innovation
– Market innovation
Thus, source innovation is not listed in his book.

39. Leadership & managerial skill are:
(a) Interwoven to entrepreneurship
(b) Complimentary to entrepreneurship
(c) Substitute to entrepreneurship
(d) Opposite to entrepreneurship
Answer:
(a) Interwoven to entrepreneurship:
Mere building entrepreneurship process is not enough, entrepreneurs need to manage the business efficiently and effectively as well. Leadership and managerial skills are interwoven in entrepreneurship right from infant stage of an enterprise. An entrepreneur devoid of these qualities is bound to fail.

40. “What to achieve and till when” is explained by of an organization.
(a) Objectives
(b) Mission
(c) Goal
(d) Vision.
Answer:
(b) Mission:
While vision tells your ultimate goal, the mission tells how to get these. Mission explains why your business exists. It answers the following questions:
(i) What does your business do?
(ii) Who do you do it for?
(iii) Where do you exist?
(iv) How does ¡t do it?
(v) Why does your company do it? ‘
Thus, What to achieve and till when” ¡s explained by mission of an organisation.

41. A company engaged in alcohol manufacturing merged with a cigarette manufacturing firm. What type of merger is this?
(a) Horizontal merger
(b) Product extension merger
(c) Market extension merger
(d) Vertical merger.
Answer:
(b) Product extension merger:
The term diversification Is usually used to mean the introduction of a new product or service to meet the needs ot an old market. Diversification is an expansion of the range of products. It includes offering of existing product in new market, new product In old market, and new product in new market. Thus, the company is extending its product by merging to products, i.e. alcohol and cigarette. It is a product extension merger.

42. In general, Vision and Mission statements of an organisation are a result of –
(a) Operational Planning
(b) Strategic Planning
(c) Middle level Planning
(d) Performance Planning.
Answer:
(b) Strategic Planning:
Strategic planning is the key step of strategic management. Strategic plan draws the clear layout of business’s venture; vision, mission, objectives, competencies, managerial abilities, technical proficiencies and sources of funds.

43. Who among the following, first recognised the necessity of entrepreneurship for production?
(a) David Ricardo
(b) Peter F. Drucker
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) John Stuart Mill.
Answer:
(c) Alfred Marshall:
The necessity of entrepreneurship for production was first recognised by Alfred Marshall in 1890. Marshall asserted that there are four factors of production (land, labour, capital and organisation), organisation factor is the coordinating factor that brings other factors together and entrepreneurship is driving element behind it.

44. ……………………………. claims that the role of entrepreneurs is that of innovator.
(a) Old school of thought
(b) Modern school of thought
(c) U.S. school of entrepreneurial innovation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Modern school of thought:
Modern School of thought claims that the sole of entrepreneurs is that of innovator.

45. Expansion is external and horizontal-
(a) True
(b) False
(c) It is in all direction
(d) Partly true
Answer:
(a) True
Growth is internal or vertical surge, whereas, expansion refers to external or horizontal growth, such as exhibited by the firm that successfully engages in mergers and acquisitions. Expansion of venture is its period of unfolding and maturation. Hence, the given statement is true.

46. Environmental Scanning is the first step of –
(a) Strategic Planning
(b) Operational Planning
(c) Entrepreneurship
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Strategic Planning:
Strategic Planning is the key step of strategic management. It includes following steps:
(i) Environmental Scanning
(ii) Strategy Formulation
(iii) Strategy Implementation
(iv) Evaluation and Control.
Thus, environmental scanning is the first step of strategic planning.

47. Appointing a manager under some strategic decision is covered under:
(a) Strategy formulation
(b) Environment scanning
(c) Strategy implementation
(d) Strategic planning.
Answer:
(c) Strategy implementation:
Strategy implementation is the process of conducting program & (activities needed to accomplish a plan), budgets (cost of the programs), and procedures (sequence of steps needed to do the job) and it is required to be done by an officer or a manager. So, appointing a manager under some strategic decisions is covered under strategy implementation.

48. Nodu, a chocolate manufacturer based in Singapore, produces candy containing exotic ingredients from rain forests of Brazil. The ingredients are provided by a single supplier who has an exclusive control with Nodu. The chocolate manufacturer thus has a great deal of power over the market. This is an example of:
(a) Strategic vision
(b) Distinctive competence
(c) Competitive advantage
(d) Strategic management.
Answer:
(b) Distinctive competence:
Distinctive competence of a firm refers to a set of activities or capabilities that a company is able to perform better than its competitors and which gives it an advantage over them. Thus, the chocolate manufacturer has a great deal of power over the market and this comes under the example of distinctive competence.

49. In business parlance, growth is and expansion refers to
(a) External and horizontal growth internal and vertical growth
(b) External: external growth as well
(c) Internal: Internal growth as well
(d) Internal and vertical: external and horizontal growth.
Answer:
(d) Internal and vertical: external and horizontal growth:
Growth is internal or vertical surge, whereas Expansion refers to external or horizontal growth, such as that exhibited by the firm that successfully engages in mergers and acquisitions. Expansion of venture is its period of unfolding and maturation. Hence, option D is correct statement.

50. Constraints on time, money and resources are managed in:
(a) Operational Planning
(b) Strategic Planning
(c) Capital Budgeting
(d) Market Research.
Answer:
(a) Operational Planning:
Operational planning requires proactive thinking to enact strategy within the operational layer of the business. Operational planning must produce the plan outcomes while managing constraints on time, money and resources.

51. The primary motivating force behind entrepreneurs is:
(a) Fame
(b) Money
(c) Recognition
(d) Achievement.
Answer:
(d) Achievement:
McClelland emphasizes that achievement orientation is the prime factor that explains economic behaviour of entrepreneurs. It means the quest for success in relation to preset standards of excellence. He measures interest of entrepreneurs in terms of profit or achievement motive which remains constant regardless of change in events.

52. Key goal in the firms growth phase is:
(a) Expansion of capital
(b) Cutting costs
(c) Expansion of profit
(d) Expansion of sales.
Answer:
(d) Expansion of sales.
In order to bring effecting change in the business growth, the following are needed by an entrepreneur:

  • Modernisation
  • Expansion
  • Diversification

All these moves have a common thing that is an attempt to increase sale by expanding selling possibilities and the expansion of sales is a key goal in the firm’s growth phase.

53. If a business is very complex, it will only grow successfully if the entrepreneur:
(a) Is comfortable giving up control to professional management
(b) Keeps everything under his control
(c) Uses the classic entrepreneurial management style
(d) Is a Craftsman
Answer:
(a) Is comfortable giving up control to professional management:
If a business is very complex it will only grow successfully if the entrepreneur is comfortable giving up control to professional management.

54. The process of determining whether an entrepreneur’s idea is a viable foundation for creating a successful business is known as a:
(a) Strategic analysis
(b) Business plan
(c) Feasibility analysis
(d) Industry analysis
Answer:
(c) Feasibility analysis:
Feasibility analysis is the process of determining whether an entrepreneur’s idea is a viable foundation for creating a successful business.

55. SMART Capital indicates what?
(a) Resource assessment
(b) Venture capitalist
(c) Networking & exchanging
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Resource assessment:
If a business is very complex It will only grow successfully if the entrepreneur is comfortable giving up control to professional management.

56. Assessment of competitive rivalry does not include an understanding of:
(a) The extent to which competitors are in balance
(b) Market growth rate
(c) Fixed costs, exit barriers and operational efficiency
(d) The management structure of an organization
Answer:
(c) Fixed costs, exit barriers and operational efficiency:
Feasibility analysis Is the process of determining whether an entrepreneur’s idea is a viable foundation for creating a successful business.

57. SMART Capital indicates what?
(a) Resource assessment
(b) Venture capitalist
(c) Networking & exchanging
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Venture capitalist:
Entrepreneurs must have access to ‘Smart’ Capital. In the last few years, several venture funds have entered the Indian Market. Venture capital’ are providing capital as well as critical knowledge and access to potential partners, suppliers and clients across the globe. So, Smart capital indicates venture capital.

58. Assessment of competitive rivalry does not include an understanding of:
(a) The extent to which competitors are in balance
(b) Market growth rate
(c) Fixed costs, exit barriers and operational efficiency
(d) The management structure of an organization
Answer:
(d) The management structure of an organization:
Assessment of competitive rivalry includes:

  • Market growth
  • The extent to which competitors are in balance.
  • Fixed costs, exit barriers and operational efficiency
  • Alternative choice of goods.

It does not include, the management structure of an organization. So, option (d) is not included.

59. The Evaluation Criteria for the new product should include all of the following except ………………. .
(a) Product should be profitable
(b) Pricing and marketing policies of other firms
(c) Determination of market demand
(d) Determination of the suppliers.
Answer:
(d) Determination of the suppliers:
Evaluation criteria for a new product include its profitability, pricing and marketing policies market demand which thereby strongly influence the goal to achieve.

60. A(n) ………………………. industry is an industry that is experiencing slow or no increase in demand.
(a) Mature
(b) Emerging
(c) Global
(d) Declining
Answer:
(b) Emerging:
After becoming mature, the industry experience slow or no growth in demand.

61. Which of the following is not a Characteristic of Strategic Management?
(a) It is concerned with only the analysis of past happenings in the organization
(b) It has an external focus
(c) It has an internal focus
(d) It is interdisciplinary.
Answer:
(a) It is concerned with only the analysis of past happenings in the organization:
Characteristic of Strategic Management:

  • It is future oriented and uncertain
  • It deals with internal as well as external environment
  • It has the organisation-wide approach
  • It is fundamental for improving long term performance
  • It deals with vision, mission and objectives
  • It is interdisciplinary.

62. If a business is very complex, it will only grow successfully if the entrepreneur:
(a) is comfortable giving up control to professional management
(b) is a craftsman
(c) keeps everything under his control
(d) uses the classic entrepreneurial management style.
Answer:
(a) is comfortable giving up control to professional management:
If a business is very complex, it will only grow successfully if the entrepreneur is comfortable in giving up control to professional management.

63. The ………………………………. entrepreneur goes into business as a result of financial hardship or other negative conditions.
(a) Educated
(b) Necessity based
(c) Refugee
(d) Corporate supported
Answer:
(b) Necessity based:
An Entrepreneur is left with no other viable option to earn a living. A necessity-based entrepreneur operates not by choice but out of compulsion may be due to financial hardship or other negative condition.

64. Making the comparison of actual performance with set standard is covered in:
(a) Strategic planning
(b) Strategy implementation
(c) Evaluation and Control
(d) Environment scanning
Answer:
(c) Evaluation and Control:
The main objective of the business planning is to provide and implement the systematic business plan. The one such action under the business planning is evaluation and control where the performance is measured by comparing the actual results with the set standards.

65. Which of the following is not a stage of development in entrepreneurial firm?
(a) Start rolling
(b) Startup
(c) Early growth
(d) Seed Stage
Answer:
(a) Start rolling:
The stages of development in entrepreneurial firm are seed stage, start-up, early growth, established and corporate. Hence, start rolling is not a stage in the development in the entrepreneurial firm.

66. When advising John of what to include in the production plan of his business plan for his entrepreneurial venture, what would you not include in your recommendation?
(a) Product price
(b) Physical plant location
(c) Names of suppliers of raw materials
(d) Manufacturing process
Answer:
(c) Names of suppliers of raw materials:
On advising John, the names of the suppliers of the raw material should be excluded from the recommendations as the other factors such as product price, manufacturing process and the plant location should be given priority in making the venture successful.

67. Entrepreneur’s rate of a disturbance handler, Allocator of resources and negotiator’s role are ………………………… roles that the manager has to perform.
(a) Interpersonal
(b) Decisional
(c) International
(d) None of the Above.
Answer:
(a) Interpersonal:
Entrepreneur’s role of a disturbance handler, Allocator of resources and negotiator role are the interpersonal roles that Manager has to performs.

68. Which one of the following is Correct About business plan?
(a) Business plan is necessary only for big companies
(b) Business plan is substitute for strategic planning
(c) Business plan is substitute for strategic planning
(d) Business plan should emphasize on ideas and concepts only.
Answer:
(b) Business plan is substitute for strategic planning:
It is true that business plan is substitute for strategic planning. If strategic planning is not working, then success can be got by working on business plans.

60. The necessity of entrepreneurship for production was first formally recognised by Alfred Marshall in the year:
(a) 1890
(b) 1892
(c) 1891
(d) 1893
Answer:
(a) 1890:
The necessity of entrepreneurship for production was first formally recognized by Alfred Marshall in 1890. In his famous treatise principles of Economics, Marshall asserts that there are fours factors of production; land, labour, capital and organization.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Depreciation is a non-cash expense that reduces the value of an asset over time. Assets depreciate for below mentioned reasons:

  • Wear and tear: For example, an auto will decrease in value because of the mileage, wear on tires, and other factors related to the use of the vehicle.
  • Obsolescence: Assets also decrease in value as they are replaced by newer models. Last year’s car model is less valuable because there is a newer model in the marketplace.
  • Keeping idle for prolonged period: when a machine is not used for a long time then it becomes potentially useless
  • Depletion: Various assets like mines etc. gets depleted because with the extraction mine is getting exhausted.

→ Characteristics of Depreciation
Depreciation has the following characteristics:

  • Depreciation is charged in case of fixed assets only, e.g., Building, Plant and Machinery, Furniture etc. There is no question of depreciation in case of current assets-such as Stock, Debtors, Bills Receivable etc.
  • Depreciation causes perpetual, gradual and continuous fall in the value of asset
  • Depreciation occurs till the last day of the estimated working life of asset
  • Depreciation occurs on account of use of asset In determined cases, however, depreciation may occur even if the assets are not used, e.g., Leasehold Property, Patent right, Copyright etc.
  • Depreciation is a payment against profits of an accounting period.
  • Depreciation does not depend on fluctuations in shop value of asset
  • Depreciation is caused due to functional and physical factors
  • Total depreciation of an asset cannot exceed its depreciable value (cost less scrap value).

Objectives of providing Depreciation:
→ To ascertain correct cost of production: The object of providing depreciation is to find out the correct cost of production. The asset loses its value due to its use in the business. Decrease in value is likely any other expense which must be debited to Profit and Loss account before profits are arrived at. It is like a factory expense which must be added to the cost of production. If it is not provided, the cost of production will not be correct.

→ To present true and fair view: If the depreciation is not provided, the assets will be shown at the higher value in the Balance Sheet than their real value. They will thus be overvalued. This will not show a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the business concern.

→To keep the Capital intact: The purpose of providing depreciation is to set aside a certain sum of money every year to replace that asset later on when it is discarded and thus to keep the capital intact.

→ Depreciation is a kind of expenditure, it should, therefore, be debited to the Profit & Loss Account to determine correct amount of profit or loss.

→ To Comply legal provisions: Legally it is also necessary to make provision for depreciation

→ Replacement of asset: When depreciation is provided it reduces the profit. The amount so saved, if set aside every year, is able to produce at the end of the life of the asset the amount required to replace it.

→ Saving in Taxes: Though depreciation is not a cash cost, it is permitted to be deducted from profits for tax purposes.

→ Evaluation of an asset: At the end of each year all the fixed assets should be properly valued. Their value decreases every year due to constant use. Hence to ascertain the correct value of asset providing of depreciation is necessary.

→ Factors which affect measurement of depreciation
Factors are:

  • Original cost of asset
  • estimated amount of expenditure on repairs during the beneficial life
  • estimated beneficial life of asset
  • estimated residual or scrap value
  • obsolescence
  • skill of operator who operated on the asset
  • legal provision related to depreciation

Journal entries for Depreciation:
(1) When depreciation is directly charged to asset account
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1

(2) When Provision for Depreciation Account is opened
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 2

→ In this method asset account is not affected by depreciation. Depreciation charged every year is accumulated in Provision for Depreciation Account. In Balance sheet asset account is shown assets original cost less the accumulated provision for depreciation account. Alternatively the asset account can be shown at its original cost on the assets side and provision for depreciation can be shown on the liabilities side.

→ Various methods of providing depreciation
Depreciation is a systematic and rational process of distributing the cost of tangible assets over the life of assets. There are several methods for providing depreciation. These are
I. Uniform Charge Methods
II. Declining Charge Methods
III. Other Methods

I. Uniform Charge Methods – Depreciation is charged uniformly every year
A. Fixed Installment Method
B. Annuity Method
C. Insurance Policy Method
D. Depreciation fund Method

(A) Fixed Installment Method
In straight line depreciation method, depreciation is charged uniformly over the life of an asset. We first subtract residual value of the asset from its cost to obtain the depreciable amount. The depreciable amount is then divided by the useful life of the asset in number of accounting years to obtain depreciation expense per accounting year.

Formula: The formula to calculate the straight-line depreciation of an asset for a full accounting period is: Depreciation = (Cost – Residual value)/Useful life

Journal Entries
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 3

→ Merits

  • Straight line method or fixed installment method is very easy to employ because of its simplicity.
  • The asset can be written off to zero value under this method.
  • This method is useful for providing depreciation on lease hold property, patent right, trade mark, copyright etc.

→ Demerits
There are two major objections to the straight line method. These are:

  • This method assumes the same economic usefulness of the asset each year.
  • The repair and maintenance expenses are essentially same each period.

(B) Annuity Method
Under annuity method of depreciation the cost of asset is regarded as investment and interest at fixed rate is calculated thereon. Had the proprietor invested outside the business, an amount equal to the cost of asset, he would have earned some interest. So as a result of buying the asset the proprietor loses not only cost of asset by using it, but also the above mentioned interest. Hence depreciation is calculated in such a way as will cover both the above mentioned losses. The amount of annual depreciation is determined from annuity table.

Annuity method is particularly applicable to those assets whose cost is heavy and life is long and fixed, e.g. Leasehold property, land and building etc.

Journal Entries:
Under annuity method, journal entries have to be made in respect of interest and depreciation. As regards interest, it has to be calculated on the debit balance of the asset account at the commencement of the period, at the given rate. The entry that is passed:

1. Asset account
        To Interest account
(Being interest on capital sunk in asset)

With regard to depreciation the amount found out from the depreciation annuity table, the following entry is passed:

2. Depreciation account
        To Asset account
(Being the depreciation of asset)

It should be remembered that the interest is charged on the diminishing balance of the asset account, the amount of interest goes on declining year after year. But the amount of depreciation remains the same during the life time of the asset.

→ Merits

  • Useful method to use in respect to long-term lease which generally involve considerable capital outlay
  • Interest on capital investment is taken into account. This method is perceived to the most exact, precise and scientific form from the point of view of calculations.

→ Demerits

  • Though interest is taken into consideration that the rate is still arbitrary and not based on law
  • Computation using this method becomes more complicated where there are frequent additions, dismantling, etc taking place. Not so suitable for assets like Plant & Machinery.

C. Insurance policy Method
Under this method the amount represented by the depreciation fund, instead of being used to buy securities, is paid to an insurance company as premium. The insurance company issues a policy promising to pay a lump sum at the end of the working life of the asset for its replacement.

Journal Entries:
Every years two entries will be made:
1. In the beginning:
Depreciation insurance policy account
To Cash account
(Being the payment of premium on depreciation policy)

2. At the end of the year:
Profit and loss account
To Depreciation fund account
(Being the amount of depreciation charged to profit and loss account)
When the policy will mature i. e., to say the amount of the policy will be received. The entry is:

3. Cash account
To Depreciation insurance policy account (Being the policy amount realized)
The depreciation insurance policy account will show some profit. This will be transferred to depreciation fund account, the entry being.

4. Depreciation insurance policy account
To Depreciation fund account (Being the policy amount realized)
The asset account will have been shown throughout at its original cost. It now be written off by transfer to

→ Merit: The advantage of insurance policy method is that risk of loss on the sale of investment and the trouble and expense of buying investment are avoided.

→ Demerit – The disadvantage lies that the interest received on the premiums paid is comparatively very low.

D. Depreciation Fund Method
Under depreciation fund method or sinking fund method, a fund is created with the amount of annual depreciation. An amount equal to annual depreciation is invested each year in government papers or in some other gilt-edged 1 securities outside the business. The income earned from investment is deposited into the fund and immediately reinvested. This process is carried out throughout the life of the asset and at the end of its life a sum equal to the cost of i the asset is accumulated in the fund. Then the whole investment is sold and a new asset is acquired with the sale  proceeds.

The special feature of this method is that the sum required to buy the new asset is available from depreciation or sinking fund. As. a result, the working capital of business is preserved. Sinking fund method is specially applicable to ‘ costly machines in large scale industries.

Journal Entries

First Year
(1) When the asset is purchased:
Asset Account Dr.* * *
To Bank Account * * *

(2) For Providing depreciation at the end of first year:
Depreciation Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Account * * *

(3) For investing the amount:
Sinking Fund Investment Account Dr.* * *
To Bank Account * * *

Subsequent Years
(1) For Receipt of Interest on Investment:
Bank Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Account * * *

(2) For Transferring Interest to Sinking Fund:
Interest on Sinking Fund Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Account * * *

(3) For Providing Depreciation:
Depreciation Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Account * * *

(4) For Investing the Amount:
Sinking Fund Investment Account Dr.* * *
To Bank Account * * *

Last Years
(1) For Receipt of Interest on Investment:
Bank Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Account * * *

(2) For Transferring Interest to Sinking Fund Account:
Interest on Sinking Fund Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Account * * *

(3) For Providing Depreciation:
Depreciation Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Investment Account * * *

(4) For Sale of Investment:
Bank Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Investment Account * * *

(5) For Transferring Profit and Sale of Investment:
Sinking Fund Investment Account Dr.* * *
To Sinking Fund Account * * *

(6) For Transferring Loss on Sale of Investment:
Sinking Fund Account Dr.
To Sinking Fund Investment Account

(7) For Closing the Asset Account by Transferring Balance of Sinking Fund Account to Asset Account:
Sinking Fund Account Dr.
To Asset Account

→ Merit: A separate sum is provided for replacing the asset

→ Demerit: Depreciation fund method assumes a constant rate of return on investments in identical securities. This is hardly true, because rates of interest do vary every now and then. Moreover the burden on profit and loss account goes on increasing as years pass by since the amount of depreciation every year remains same but the amount spent on repairs goes on increasing as the asset becomes old.

II. Declining Charge Methods
(a) Diminishing Balance Method
(b) Sum of years Digits Methods
(c) Double Declining Method

(a) Diminishing Balance Method – Diminishing balance method is also known as written down value method or reducing installment method. Under this method the asset is depreciated at fixed percentage calculated on the debit balance of the asset which is diminished year after year on account of depreciation.

→ Rate of depreciation
r = 1 – (S/C)1/n where:
r = Rate of depreciation
n = Estimated useful life of asset
S = Residual value after the expiry of useful life
C = Original cost of asset

Journal Entries:
→ The entries in this case will be identical to those discussed in the case of the fixed installment method. Only the amount will be differently calculated.

→ Merits

  • This method is accepted by Income Tax Authorities.
  • Impact of obsolescence will be reduced at minimum level.
  • Fresh calculation is not required when additions are made.
  • Under this method the depreciation amount is gradually decreasing and it will affect the smoothing out of periodic profit.

→ Demerits

  • Residual Value of the asset cannot be correctly estimated.
  • It ignores interest on investment on opportunity cost which will lead to difficulty while determining the rate of depreciation.
  • It is difficult to ascertain the true profit because revenue contribution of the asset are not constant.
  • The original cost of the asset cannot be brought down to zero.

(b) Sum of years Digits Method – Sum of the years’ digits method of depreciation is one of the accelerated depreciation techniques which are based on the assumption that assets are generally more productive when they are new and their productivity decreases as they become old. The formula to calculate depreciation under SYD method is
S = n (n + 1)/2 where:
S = Sum of years
n = number of years of useful life of assets.
Applying it when n = 8 years.
S = 8 (8 + 1)/2 = 72/2 or 36

(c) Double Declining Balance Method – Double declining balance method is another type of accelerated depreciation method. It is a depreciation method in which the depreciation rate is applied double to that in straight line method. The depreciation in this method is charged on the complete purchase price of asset rather than the net of salvage value price in straight line method. In other words we can say that double declining depreciation method uses double the rate of straight line method.

III. Other Methods
(a) Depletion Method – Depletion method of depreciation is especially suited to mines, quarries, sand pits, etc.
According to it the cost of the asset is divided by the total workable deposits. In this way, rate of depreciation per unit of output is ascertained. Depreciation in any particular year is charged on the basis of the output during that year.
Rate of depreciation = total cost of mine/total units
Depreciation = rate of depreciation x quantity extracted during the year

(b) Group Depreciation Method – In this method assets having similar age life are grouped together for charging depreciation. Depreciation is not charged for individual asset.

(c) Machine Hour Rate Method -The machine hour method of depreciation estimates the useful life of an asset in machine hours, so, it is commonly applied on a machine. The useful life is based on the numbers of hours of a machine that can be utilized

Formula:
Rate of Depreciation = Original cost of asset – Scrap value/Life of the asset in Hours Depreciation = actual Number of hours × Rate of depreciation

(d) Inventory System of Depreciation: The inventory method (often called the appraisal system) is used to value small tangible assets such as hand tools or utensils. A tool inventory, for example, might be taken at the beginning and the end of the year. Then, the amount of depreciation expense could be calculated by using the value of the beginning inventory plus the cost of tools acquired for the year less the value of the ending inventory.

→ Change of method of Depreciation: The method of depreciation is applied consistently to provide comparability of the results of the operations of the enterprise from period to period. A change from one method of providing depreciation to another is made only if the adoption of the new method is required by statute or for compliance with an accounting standard or if it is considered that the change would result in a more appropriate preparation or presentation of the financial statements of the enterprise.

When such a change in the method of depreciation is made, depreciation is recalculated in accordance with the new method from the date of the asset coming into use. The deficiency or surplus arising from retrospective recomputation of depreciation in accordance with the new method is adjusted in the accounts in the year in which the method of depreciation is changed . In respect of past years, the deficiency is charged in the statement of profit and loss. In case the change in the method results in surplus, the surplus is credited to the statement of profit and loss.

Depreciation Accounting MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of depreciation?
a. Permanent
b. Continuous
c. Gradual
d. Temporary
Answer:
d. Temporary

Question 2.
In the trial balance the balance on the Provision for Depreciation Account is:
a. Shown as a credit item
b. Shown as a debit item
c. Sometimes shown as a credit, sometimes as a debit
d. Not shown, as it is part of depreciation
Answer:
a. Shown as a credit item

Question 3.
A boiler was purchased by a company for Rs 20 lakh after 2 years its cost came down to Rs10 lakh at present its cost is Rs15 lakh. How will we calculated the depreciation for this asset?
a. It will be calculated on the basis of its original cost 20 lakh rupees.
b. It will be calculated on the basis of 15 lakh rupees worth cost
c. It will be calculated on the basis of Rs. 10 lakh cost.
d. It will be calculated by taking the average of all three costs.
Answer:
a. It will be calculated on the basis of its original cost 20 lakh rupees.

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out.
a. Depreciation happens
b. By atmosphere
c. By company policies
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 5.
As per law enterprise is required to make provisions for depreciation
a. Joint stock company
b. Sole proprietor
c. Partnership
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Joint stock company

Question 6.
For an asset NOT to be depreciable it
a. Must have limited useful size
b. Be of some technical importance
c. Must be used for production
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Be of some technical importance

Question 7.
Depreciation amount is to be debited against
a. Revenues earned through it
b. Revenues earned
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 8.
Sum of years digits method is ______________ type of depreciation providing method.
a. Uniform change method
b. Declining change method
c. Depletion method
d. Group depreciation method
Answer:
b. Declining change method

Question 9.
Process of becoming out of date or obsolete is termed as:
a. Physical deterioration
b. Depletion
c. Obsolescence
d. Amortization
Answer:
c. Obsolescence

Question 10.
Some of the benefits you receive with depreciation are
a. Income tax saving
b. Customs tax saving
c. Sales tax saving
d. Excise duty saving
Answer:
a. Income tax saving

Question 11.
Providing depreciation is compulsory as it reflects
a. true financial position
b. makes provision so that in future the replacement asset could be purchased
c. both a & b
d. none of the above
Answer:
c. both a & b

Question 12.
An additional purchase of Rs. 2000 was made for a machine. Under straight line method of depreciation
a. Depreciation will be done for half of the year
b. Depreciation will be done from the beginning of the year.
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Depreciation will be done for half of the year

Question 13.
An additional purchase was made for machine on 15.06.2009, under straight line method.
a. Depreciation will be changed from the date of purchase
b. Depreciation will be charged from the beginning of the year
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Depreciation will be changed from the date of purchase

Question 14.
This is not the disadvantage of straight the method of depreciation
a. Cost of repairs keep increasing over the passage of time
b. The effective utilization of the asset is not taken in account
c. Value of the asset can be completely written off
d. It is difficult to make any asset useful in a systematic pattern
Answer:
c. Value of the asset can be completely written off

Question 15.
When depreciation fund account closes it transfers its balance to
a. Sinking fund
b. New asset account
c. Old
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Old

Question 16.
Which is not the salient feature of sinking fund method?
a. Interest is an integral part
b. Amount released is affected by fractionations in interest rate
c. Investment in securities
d. Premium is paid in advance at the beginning of year
Answer:
d. Premium is paid in advance at the beginning of year

Question 17.
It is common in sinking fund method
a. The amount received at the end of the life of an asset is fixed
b. The amount received at the end of the life of an asset is not fixed
c. The amount received at the beginning of the life of an asset is fixed.
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. The amount received at the end of the life of an asset is not fixed

Question 18.
If an accumulated provision for depreciation account is in use then the entries for the year’s depreciation would be:
a. Debit Asset Account, credit Profit and Loss Account
b. Credit Profit and Loss Account, debit Provision for Depreciation Account
c. Credit Asset Account, debit Provision for Depreciation Account
d. Credit Provision for Depreciation Account, debit Profit and Loss Account
Answer:
d. Credit Provision for Depreciation Account, debit Profit and Loss Account

Question 19.
In annuity method interest is calculated
a. On the value of the asset at the time of purchase
b. On the value of the asset at the beginning of each year.
c. On the value of asset as expected at the end value of asset
d. Both a & b
Answer:
b. On the value of the asset at the beginning of each year.

Question 20.
Interest is credited to profit and loss account in
a. Annuity method
b. Sinking fund method
c. Insurance policy method
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Sinking fund method

Question 21.
Select the depreciation method identified by income tax department
a. Diminishing balance method
b. Annuity
c. Sinking fund
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Diminishing balance method

Question 22.
In diminishing balance method
a. Amount of depreciation value keeps on decreasing over the passage of time
b. Amount of depreciation value remains same over the passage of time
c. Calculation of rate of depreciation is early
d. Depreciation is charged on the original cost of asset
Answer:
a. Amount of depreciation value keeps on decreasing over the passage of time

Question 23.
For a machine that needs no maintenance or very little maintenance that also in the end year of asset the depreciation method that suits best is
a. Straight line method
b. Diminishing balance method
c. Annuity method
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Straight line method

Question 24.
Invariably in diminishing balance method
a. Book value becomes zero
b. Book value never becomes zero
c. Book value is negative
d. Book value is infinite
Answer:
b. Book value never becomes zero

Question 25.
From a coal mine, 200 tons of coal was extracted dining the year and rate of depreciation is 10%. Depreciation charged as per depletion method will be
a. 2000
b. 20
c. 200
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. 2000

Question 26.
The depreciation method that is best suited for a machine that is being used on an hourly basis will be
a. Depletion method
b. Double declining method
c. Declining method
d. Service house method
Answer:
d. Service house method

Question 27.
In an enterprises some tools were purchased worth Rs. 2000 and later after 5 months additional tools worth 4000 were purchased it was presumed that the value of the total tools at the end of the year will be 2000 what will be the depreciation value?
a. 4000
b. Nil
c. 2000
d. 6000
Answer:
a. 4000

Question 28.
The standard given by ICAI for calculation of
a. Accounting standard – 5 depreciation accounting
b. Accounting standard – 6 depreciating accounting
c. Accounting standard – 7 depreciating accounting
d. Accounting standard – 4 depreciating accounting
Answer:
b. Accounting standard – 6 depreciating accounting

Question 29.
For changing the method of calculation of depreciation an enterprise should not
a. Calculate the value of asset by old method on the date of change
b. Calculate the depreciation of the past period of asset by new method
c. Calculate the depreciation of past
d. Find out the cost value of asset
Answer:
a. Calculate the value of asset by old method on the date of change

Question 30.
Which is the method that is not being recognized by the income tax department as a depreciation method to be used by an enterprise?
a. Fixed installment method
b. Straight line method
c. Written down value method
d. Depreciation and replacement of assets
Answer:
d. Depreciation and replacement of assets

Question 31.
To meet the additional fund that will be required for purchasing when a new asset is purchased in replacement to an old one some amount
a. May be transferred to profit and loss appropriation account
b. Must be transferred to profit and loss appropriation account
c. May to be transferred to depreciation account
d. Must to be transferred to depreciation account
Answer:
a. May be transferred to profit and loss appropriation account

Question 32.
Change in depreciation method requires
a. Change in consistency
b. An explanatory paragraph
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 33.
Change in the estimated life of our asset require
a. Consistency modification
b. Explanatory paragraph
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 34.
Eva has purchased a machine for Rs300, 000. She will depreciate it either at 20% on the straight-line basis or at 30% on the reducing- balance basis. Which method will lead to the highest combined profits in the first two years that the machine is owned?
a. The straight-line basis will lead to the highest combined profits.
b. The reducing-balance basis will lead to the highest combined profits.
c. The choice of depreciation method will not affect the combined profit figures.
d. Both the straight line basis at 20% per annum are the reducing balance basis at 30% per annum will lead to the same combined profit figure for the first two years.
Answer:
a. The straight-line basis will lead to the highest combined profits.

Question 35.
When Provision for Depreciation Account is maintained, the annual charge for depreciation shall be ____________ .
a. debited to Provision for Depreciation Account and credited to Profit and loss Account
b. debited to Asset Account and credited to Profit and loss Appropriation Account
c. debited to Asset Account and credited to Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
d. debited to Profit and loss Account and credited to provision for Depreciation Account
Answer:
d. debited to Profit and loss Account and credited to provision for Depreciation Account

Question 36.
For an asset owned for more than one year, the depreciation charge for the year calculated using the reducing-balance basis at the rate of 35% would be arrived at as follows:
a. 35% × cost of the asset.
b. 35% × (cost of the asset- accumulated depreciation)
c. 35% × accumulated depreciation.
d. 35% × (cost of the asset + accumulated depreciation)
Answer:
b. 35% × (cost of the asset- accumulated depreciation)

Question 37.
Depreciation arises because of:
a. Fall in the market value of an asst.
b. Physical wear and tear.
c. Fall in the value of asset
d. None of them.
Answer:
b. Physical wear and tear.

Question 38.
The straight line method of providing depreciation it:
a. Increase every year
b. Remain constant every year.
c. Decreases every year
d. None of them.
Answer:
b. Remain constant every year.

Question 39.
Under the diminishing balance method depreciation:
a. Increases every year.
b. Decreases every year.
c. Remain constant every year.
d. None of them.
Answer:
c. Remain constant every year.

Question 40.
Under the fixed installment method of providing depreciation it is calculated on
a. Original cost
b. On balance amount
c. On scrap value
d. None of them
Answer:
a. Original cost

Question 41.
Sinking fund is created in
a. Depreciation fund method
b. Defletion method
c. Fixed installment method
d. Annuity method
Answer:
a. Depreciation fund method

Question 42.
The amount of depreciation charged on a machinery will be debited to:
a. Machinery account
b. Depreciation account
c. Cash account
d. Repair account
Answer:
b. Depreciation account

Question 43.
Loss on sale of plant and machinery should be written off against:
a. Share premium
b. Depreciation fund account
c. Sale account
d. Profit & loss account
Answer:
b. Depreciation account

Question 44.
Loss on sale of machinery will be:
a. Debited on machinery A/c
b. Credited to machinery A/c
c. Credited to profit and loss A/c
d. None of them
Answer:
b. Credited to machinery A/c

Question 45.
Asset that has a limited useful life are termed as:
a. Limited assets
b. Depreciation assets
c. Unlimited asset ,
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Depreciation assets

Question 46.
Under the diminishing balance method, depreciation is calculated on:
a. Scrap value
b. On original value
c. On book value
d. None of them
Answer:
c. On book value

Question 47.
Which of the term is used to write off in reference to tangible fixed assets?
a. Depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Amortization
d. Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
a. Depreciation

Question 48.
The economic factors causing depreciation is/are
a. Time facto,
b. Obsolescence and inadequacy
c. Wear and tear
d. Money valuation
Answer:
b. Obsolescence and inadequacy

Question 49.
Total depreciation cannot exceed its:
a. Scrap value
b. Cost value
c. Market value
d. Depreciable value
Answer:
d. Depreciable value

Question 50.
Depreciation value of an asset is equal to:
a. Cost + Scrap value
b. Cost + Market price
c. Cost – Scrap value
d. None of these
Answer:
c. Cost – Scrap value

Question 51.
Depreciation does not depend on fluctuations as:
a. Market value of asset
b. Cost of price of asset
c. Scrap value of asset
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Market value of asset

Question 52.
Depreciation is:
a. An income
b. An asset
c. A loss
d. A liability
Answer:
c. A loss

Question 53.
The book value of an asset is obtained by deducting depreciation from its
a. Market value
b. Scrap value
c. Market + Cost price
d. Cost
Answer:
d. Cost

Question 54.
Depreciation fund method is also known as:
a. Sinking fund method
b. Annuity method
c. Sum of years digits method
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Sinking fund method

Question 55.
The method is specially suited to natural resources (mines, quarries, sand, pits etc.) is said to be:
a. Annuity method
b. Depletion method
c. Revaluation method
d. Sum of digits method
Answer:
b. Depletion method

Question 56.
Double – declining method is often used in the:
a. Singapore
b. South Africa
c. Japan
d. India
Answer:
d. India

Question 57.
In the provision method of depreciation the asset always appears at:
a. Cost price
b. Market Price
c. Scrap Value
d. None
Answer:
a. Cost price

Question 58.
Depreciable value of an asset is equal to:
a. Cost + scrap value
b. Cost + market price
c. Cost – scrap value
d. None of the given options
Answer:
c. Cost – scrap value

Question 59.
Which of the following depreciated?
a. Factory Buildings
b. Office Equipment
c. Plant & Machinery
d. Land
Answer:
d. Land

Question 60.
The allocation of the cost of a tangible plant asset to expense in the periods, in which services are received from the asset, is termed as:
a. Appreciation
b. Depreciation
c. Fluctuation
d. None of the given options
Answer:
b. Depreciation

Question 61.
The primary objective of providing depreciation is:
a. To calculate true profit
b. To show the asset on market value
c. To reduce tax Burden
d. To provide funds for replacement
Answer:
d. To provide funds for replacement

Question 62.
Under the diminishing balance method, depreciation amount is:
a. Payment
b. Receipt
c. Expenditure
d. None of these
Answer:
c. Expenditure

Question 63.
In considering a special order situation that will enable a company to make use of currently idle capacity, which of the following cost will be irrelevant:
a. Materials
b. Depreciation
c. Direct labour
d. Variable factory overhead
Answer:
a. Materials

Question 64.
Depreciation is based on:
a. Economic life of asset
b. Declared life of asset by supplier
c. Normal life of asset
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Economic life of asset

Question 65.
The Amount changed to deprecation goes on declining in:
a. Depreciation fixed method
b. Annuity method
c. Written-down value method
d. Straight line depreciation method
Answer:
c. Written-down value method

Question 66.
Which of the following is the main cause of depreciation?
a. Fall in the market value of money
b. Fall in the market value of an asset
c. Physical wear and tear
Answer:
b. Fall in the market value of an asset

Question 67.
Depreciation is _____________ of an asset
a. Valuation
b. Allocation
c. Sale value
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Allocation

Question 68.
The estimated value of an asset after the expiry of its useful life is called as:
a. Written Down value
b. Residual Value (Right Answer)
c. Accumulated depreciation
d. Sales value
Answer:
c. Accumulated depreciation

Question 69.
On a worksheet, the adjusting entry to account for depreciation of equipment consists of
a. debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Equipment.
b. debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Accumulated Depreciation.
c. debit to Equipment and a credit to Accumulated Depreciation.
d. debit to Accumulated Depreciation and a credit to Equipment.
Answer:
b. debit to Depreciation Expense and a credit to Accumulated Depreciation.

Question 70.
In which depreciation method Depreciation remains constant?
a. Reducing balance method
b. Reducing balance method
c. Reducing balance method
d. Reducing balance method
Answer:
a. Reducing balance method

Question 71.
What impact does depreciation have on the cash account?
a. Depreciation only impacts the cash account if inflation has occurred.
b. Depreciation has no impact on the cash account.
c. Depreciation results in an increase to cash.
d. Depreciation results in a decrease to cash.
Answer:
b. Depreciation has no impact on the cash account.

Question 72.
At the balance sheet date the balance on the , Accumulated Provision for Depreciation Account
is:
a. Transferred to Depreciation Account
b. Transferred to the Asset Account
c. Transferred to Profit and Loss Account
d. Simply deducted from the asset in the Balance Sheet
Answer:
d. Simply deducted from the asset in the Balance Sheet

Question 73.
Which of the following is not a typical cash flow related to equipment purchase and replacement decisions?
a. Increased operating costs
b. Overhaul of equipment
c. Salvage value of equipment when project is complete
d. Depreciation expense
Answer:
d. Depreciation expense

Question 74.
The value of an asset is Rs. 50,000. Its working life is 10 years. Firm uses sum of years digits method for providing depreciation. What wilt be the amount of depreciation for second year?
a. Rs. 5,000
b. Rs. “9,091
c. Rs. 4,500
d. Rs. 8,181
Answer:
Rs. 8,181

Hint:
S = n (n + 1)/2 where:
S = Sum of years
n = number of years of useful life of assets
S = 10(10 + 1)/2
= 110/2
= 55
Depreciation for second year = 9/55 x50000= Rs 8,181.

Question 75.
Decrease in value of a fixed asset due to normal wear and tear is known as¬
a. Depreciation
b. Obsolescence
c. Appropriation
d. Spoilage.
Answer:
Depreciation

Hint:
Depreciation is a non-cash expense that reduces the value of an asset over time.

Question 76.
Dinesh Garments purchased a machine for Rs.50,000 and spent Rs. 6,000 on its erection. On the date of purchase, it was estimated that effective life of the machine will be ten years and after ten years its scrap value will be Rs. 60,000. The amount of depreciation for second year on straight line basis is:-
a. Rs. 5,000
b. Rs. 6,000
c. Rs. 5,600
d. Rs. 6,200
Answer:
a. Rs. 5,000

Hint:
Depreciation as per straight line = \(\frac{\text { Cost – Residual value }}{\text { Useful life }}\)
Useful life
= 56000 – 6000/10 = 5000

Question 77.
A firm charges depreciation on straight line method. The rate of depreciation is reduced from 25% to 10%. What will be the impact of this change on profits?
a. Decrease in profits
b. Increase in profits
c. Decrease in assets
d. Increase in expenses.
Answer:
b. Increase in profits

Hint:
Depreciation is transferred to debit side of profit & loss A/c. If depreciation rate is reduced from 25% to 10%, depreciation charged will be less than previous years.
Thus the amount of depreciation transferred to profit and loss A/c will be less
The less amount of depreciation will be transferred to profit & loss A/c which will result in increase in profits.

Question 78.
Under straight line method, depreciation is calculated on:
a. Written Down Value
b. Salvage Value
c. Original Cost
d. Market Value
Answer:
c. Original Cost

Hint:
Depreciation is calculated on Original Cost in case of straight line method.
In straight line depreciation method, depreciation is charged uniformly over the life of an asset. We first subtract residual value of the asset from its cost to obtain the depreciable amount. The depreciable amount is then divided by the useful life of the asset in number of accounting years to obtain depreciation expense per accounting year.

Question 79.
Which of the following assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet?
a. Current Assets
b. Floating Assets
c. Floating Assets
d. Fixed Assets Questions of June 2013
Answer:
d. Fixed Assets Questions of June 2013

Hint:
Diminishing balance method is also known as written down value method or reducing installment method. Under this method the asset is depreciated at fixed percentage calculated on the debit balance of the asset which is diminished year after year on account of depreciation.

Question 80.
On 1st April, 2012 in Sethi’s Ledger, furniture account showed a balance of Rs. 2,00,000. On 1st October, 2012 Sethi purchased new furniture by paying Rs. 5,000 and giving old furniture whose book value on 1st April, 2012 was Rs. 12,000 to the seller. Sethi provides depreciation on furniture @ 10% per annum on diminishing balance method. The net value of furniture in Sethi’s books as on 31st March, 2013 would be:
a. Rs. 1,85,080
b. Rs. 1,83,960
c. Rs. 1,84,780
d. Rs. 2,04,400.
Answer:
c. Rs. 1,84,780

Hint:
Cost of new asset purchased
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 4

Depreciation
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 5
Balance as per furniture A/c – 2,00,000
Cost of new asset purchased – 5000
Less: depreciation – 19620
Less: depreciation – 600
(12000 × 10% × 6/12)
Net value of furniture – 184780

Question 81.
The written down value of machine on 31 st March, 2013 is Rs. 72,900. The machine was purchased on 1st April, 2010. Depreciation is being charged @ 10% p.a. by diminishing balance method. The cost price of the machine would be:
a. Rs. 1,00,000
b. Rs. 81 ,000
c. Rs. 90,000
d. Rs. 72,900.
Answer:
a. Rs. 1,00,000

Hint:
Cost price of machine = \(\frac{72,900}{(1-10)^{3}}\) = 72900/93
= Rs. 1,00,000

Question 82.
A company purchased plant for 50,000. The useful life of the plant is 10 years and the residual value is 5,000. The management wants to depreciate it by straight line method. Rate of depreciation will be:
a. 8%
b. 9%
c. 10%
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. 9%

Hint:
Depreciation = \(\frac{50,000-5,000}{10}\) = 4 500/-
Rate of depreciation = \(\frac{4,500_{000}}{50,000}\) × 100 = 9% p.a.

Question 83.
Madhur and Company purchases a machine for a certain sum. The company has a policy of charging 8% depreciation on written down value. The depreciated value of the machine after three years in the books of Madhur and Company is Rs. 3,89,344. What was the purchase value of machine.
a. Rs. 5,00,000
b. Rs. 4,60,000
c. Rs. 4,23,000
d. Rs. 5,52,000.
Answer:
a. Rs. 5,00,000

Hint:
W.D.V. at machine at the end of 3rd year = Rs. 3,89,344
W.D.V. of machine at the beginning of 3rd year will be = 389344/100 – 8% = 389344/92% = 423200
W.D.V. of machine at the beginning of 2nd year will be = 423200/92% = 4,60,000
W.D.V. of machine at the beginning of 1st year will be (or purchase value) = 4,60,00/92%
= 5,00,000

Question 84.
The value of a fixed asset after deducting depreciation is known as its-
a. Book value
b. Market Value
c. Face Value
d. Realisable value.
Answer:
a. Book value

Hint:
For assets, the book value is based on the original cost of the asset less any depreciation.

Question 85.
Dinesh Garments purchased a machine for Rs. 50,0oo and spent Rs. 6,000 on its creation. On the date of purchase it was estimated that the effective life of the machine will be ten years and after ten years its scrap value will be Rs. 6,000. The amount of depreciation for each year on straight line basis is –
a. Rs. 5,000
b. Rs. 5,600
c. Rs. 6,000
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Rs. 5,000

Hint:
Depreciation = (Cost – Residual value)/Useful life
Depreciation = 56000 – 6000/10 = 5000
Cost = 50,000 + 6000

Question 86.
An equipment was purchased on 1st January, 2012 for Rs. 25,000 and is to be depreciated at 30% based on reducing balance method. If the company closes its books of account on 31st March every year, what would be the net book value-of the equipment as at 31st December, 2013-
a. Rs. 12,250
b. Rs. 17,750
c. Rs. 10,000
d. Rs. 12,545.
Answer:
a. Rs. 12,250

Hint:
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 6

Question 87.
Coalmine is which type of asset
a. Fixed Asset
b. Current Asset
c. Wasting Asset
d. Fictitious Asset.
Answer:
c. Wasting Asset

Hint:
An asset that has a limited life and thus decreases in value (depreciates) over time is wasting asset. Also applies to consumed assets, such as oil or gas.

Question 88.
If the original and current price of machinery is given, it will be recorded at which value?
a. Historical value
b. Realisable value
c. Market value
d. Original cost.
Answer:
d. Original cost.

Hint:
Due to the cost concept, we record the fixed assets at cost price & not at market price.

Question 89.
An equipment was purchased on 1st January, 2012 for Rs. 25,000 & is to be depreciated at 30% based on WDV method. If the company closes its books of account on 31 st March every year. What would be the net book value of the equipment as at 3-1 st December 2013:
a. 12,250
b. 10,000
c. 17,750
d. 12,545
Answer:
a. 12,250

Hint:
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 7

Question 90.
Which of the following are amortised:
a. Patent
b. Copyright
c. Goodwill
d. All of these.
Answer:
d. All of these.

Hint:
Amortization means depreciation but it is used for write off of intangible assets such as goodwill, patents, copyright etc.

Question 91.
The WDV of machine is Rs. 72,900, rate of depreciation @ 10%, period 3 years. Calculate the original cost of machinery.
a. 72,900
b. 80,000
c. 1,20,000
d. 1,00,000.
Answer:
d. 1,00,000.

Hint:
cost of machinery = 72900/(1 – 10)3
= 1,00,000

Question 92.
Valueless assets are treated as:
a. Tangible Asset
b. Intangible Asset
c. Fictitious Asset
d. Current Asset.
Answer:
c. Fictitious Asset

Hint:
Assets, which have no market value, are called fictitious assets. Examples of fictitious assets are preliminary expenses etc.

Question 93.
A company purchased a mine of Rs. 50,000. Its scrap value is Rs. 5,000 and expected working life is 9 years. 1,00,000 units were expected to be produced during its working life . Units produced in first 3 years are 7,000, 15,000 and 19,000 respectively, Calculate the amount of depreciation for the third year by using depletion method .
a. Rs. 3,150
b. Rs. 8,550
c. Rs. 3,000
d. Rs. 6,750
Answer:
b. Rs. 8,550

Hint:
Rate of depreciation = total cost of mine/total units
= 50,000 – 5000/1,00,000 = 45 = 45%
Depreciation = rate of depreciation × quantity extracted during the year = 45 ×19000 = 8,550

Question 94.
The value of a fixed asset after deducting depreciation is known as its …………………….
a. Face Value
b. Market Value
c. Realisable Value
d. Book Value
Answer:
d. Book Value

Hint:
For assets, the book value is based on the original cost of the asset less any depreciation.

Question 95.
Samar purchased a machinery worth Rs. 1,00,000 and spent Rs. 20,000 on its repairs and Rs. 15,000 on its carriage. He decided to sell the machinery at 25% margin on selling price. What will be the expected sale value of machinery?
a. Rs. 1,25,000
b. ‘Rs. 1,53,090
c. Rs. 1,80,000
d. Rs. 1,33.000
Answer:
c. Rs. 1,80,000

Hint:
Cost of machinery = Rs. 1,00,000 + 20,000 + 15,000 = Rs. 1,35,000
25% on selling price = \(\frac{25}{100-25}\) on cost of machinery
= 25 × 135000/75 = 45,000
Rs. 1,35,000 + Rs. 45,000 = Rs. 1,80,000

Question 96.
A decrease in value of fixed asset due to age, wear and tear:
a. Appreciation
b. Written down value
c. Depreciation
d. Accumulated depreciation.
Answer:
c. Depreciation

Hint:
Depreciation is a non-cash expense that reduces the value of an asset over time. Assets depreciate for below mentioned reasons:

  • Wear and tear
  • Obsolescence
  • Keeping idle for prolonged
  • Depletion

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Forms of Business Organization – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Forms of Business Organization – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Introduction :
1. Business organisations are also known as Business undertaking, enterprises, firms or concerns.

2. Business is an organisation in which organised production and exchange of goods and services are undertaken with a view to earn profits.

3. All business activities fall under 3 categories :

  • Industry
  • Trade
  • Commerce.

4. Business organisation also referred as process of organizing all the steps that are required to be undertaken for establishment of relationship between men, material and machinery in order to carry on business efficiently.

5. Selection of right form of business organisation is responsible for the success of any enterprise.

6. Every organization possess the following characteristics :

  • Distinct Ownership: Business firm can be owned by an individual or group of individuals jointly.
  • Separate Status and Management: Every firm is a separate and an independent entity. So, any other firm cannot be accounted for it’s functioning.
  • Continuity in operations: Operations of every firm are carried on a continuous basis.
  • Lawful business: Business firms must carry on lawful business activities.
  • Dealing in goods and services: Every firm is engaged either in production or distribution (or both) of goods and services.
  • Risk involvement: Every business involves risk and uncertainty due to uncertain future decisions.

Characteristics of Ideal Business Organisation – Before selecting any form of business organisation, one must consider the following factors:

  • Easy Formation: Its formation must not involve much legal formalities. It must consume less time.
  • Liability of Owner: It can be limited or unlimited. Limited liability is more preferred from risk view point.
  • Continuity and Stability: This is essential as it enables the businessman to make long terms plans for his business.
  • Capital Adequacy: Business form must ensure raising of adequate amount of capital at most reasonable cost.
  • Flexibility of operations: Business must be flexible enough to adjust itself to the changes taking place in its environment.
  • Relationship between ownership, control and management: For efficient management, the control and management of the firm must be in the hands of the owners.
  • Lawful Business: Every business enterprise must undertake such business which is lawful, that is, the business must not involve activities which are illegal.
  • Dealing in Good and Services: Every business undertaking is engaged in the production and for distribution of goods or services in exchange of money.
    Forms of Business Organization – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes 1

Sole Proprietorship:
1. Sole Proprietorship is a type of business unit where one person is solely responsible for providing the capital, for bearing the risk of enterprise and for the management of the business.”

2. It refers to a form of business that is owned, managed and controlled by an individual with all authority, responsibility and risk.

3. It is also known as single ownership or single proprietorship.

4. The individual who owns and runs the business is known as sole proprietor or sole trader.

5. It is the oldest and most common business form.

6. It possess the following characteristics:

  • Single Ownership: It is run by single individual who owns and controls all assets and properties of the business and bears all risks.
  • individual Capital Contribution: Capital is arranged by sole proprietor himself either from personal resources or through borrowing.
  • individual Management and Control: All business decisions are taken by sole proprietor himself.
  • No sharing of Profit and Loss: Entire Profit arising out of business is enjoyed by sole proprietor himself. Similarly, he himself has to bear all the business losses.
  • Unlimited liability: In case of any loss, sole proprietor’s personal property can be used to pay off all the liabilities.
  • Less legal formalities: No legal formalities are required for its formation or even in its day to day operations.

It has the following advantages:
(i) Easy formation and winding up: No legal formalities are required for its formation. It can be started with small amount of capital. Similarly, its winding up also is completely dependent upon sole proprietor.

(ii) Prompt Decisions: Sole proprietor is free to take any decision on his own, thereby enabling quick decision making.

(iii) Flexibility in operations: Sole proprietor can take decision to change the nature, scope or scale of his business all by himself.

(iv) Maintenance of Business Secrecy: It is an important part of any business. Sole Proprietor is in better position to maintain business secrets as he has the complete ownership and control.

(v) Personal Contacts with Customers: Sole proprietor is able to maintain close and personal contacts with his customer’s, thus enabling him to know their likes and dislikes.

(vi) Direct Motivation: All profits earned are of proprietor. By working hard, he can earn more profits. This ensures direct link between reward and effort.

(vii) Encourages self employment: Unemployed people can start their business by being self employed. It also provides job opportunities to others by employing them. Apart from various advantages, sole proprietorship form of business also has certain disadvantages:

  • Unlimited liability and Risks: In case of loss, the proprietor’s personal property can be attached to meet the obligations. This increases the risks.
  • Limited Capital: Proprietor’s individual capital is insufficient to meet certain business requirements.
  • Limited managerial capability: It lacks professional management as the proprietor himself may not be an expert in every field.
  • Limited Size: It has a limited scope for expansion. Expanding beyond a certain limit makes it unmanageable for proprietor.
  • Lack of Continuity: Business continuity is uncertain as it depends – upon the life of the proprietor.

It is suitable for following:

  • Small size business
  • Small amount of capital is required
  • Small and local markets
  • Personal attention towards customers is required
  • Relatively small risks is involved
  • Simple nature of business
  • Manual skill is required
  • Production of goods of artistic nature

Hindu Undivided Family:

  • It is found only in India.
  • It is a most peculiar form of business organisation in which the family possesses some inherited property and the head of the family, known as Karta manages its affairs.
  • It is created by the operation of Hindu law and does not arises out of contract between co-parceners.
  • Its membership is limited upto 3 successive generations.
  • Members are known as Co-parceners.
  • Only coparcener can become a Karta.
  • Karta is the eldest male member of the family.
  • Karta’s position is sui generis (peculiar to himself).
  • The person becomes a member by taking birth in the HUF and not by a contract.
  • No stranger can be a karta.
  • Co-parceners can demand partition.

HUF possess the following characteristics :

  • Legal status: HUF is governed by Hindu law, thus can enter into partnership agreements.
  • Membership: Only male members who are coparceners by birth can be its member.
  • Management: All the affairs of HUF are managed by Karta.
  • Liability: Liability of all coparcener is limited except Karta.
  • Fluctuating share: Share of each member keeps on fluctuating by birth and death of male members.
  • Continuity: Death of any coparcener or even Karta does not effects its continuity.
  • Profit Sharing: All coparcener have equal share in the profits.

Advantages of HUF:

  • Assurance of share in profits : Interest of every member is safeguarded as he is assured of his share in profits
  • Freedom of action : Karta manages the affairs of HUF with full freedom, thus ensuring quick decisions. thus, enabling more efficient management.
  • Sharing of knowledge and experience : Young members get the benefit of elder people’s knowledge arid experience and inclusion of finer values of life.
  • Continued existence : Death of any coparcener or even Karta does not effect its continuity.

Disadvantages of HUF :

  • Lack of Motivation : Members lack of motivation to work hard as profit is shared by all equally.
  • Scope for misuse of power : Kara has full freedom to manage the affairs of HUF, which leaves scope for him to misuse his powers for personal gain.
  • Limited Resources : Risk cannot be undertaken due to limited financial and managerial resources.
  • Family Conflicts : Conflicts and quarrels may arise among three generations involved.
  • Instability : It can be dissolved any time through mutual agreement among members.

Partnership:

  • Haney, “Partnership is the relation between persons competing to make contract who agree to carry on a lawful business in common with a view of private gain.”
  • It refers to the voluntary association of two or more persons who agree to carry on some business jointly and share its profits and losses. They combine their funds and skills to carry on business together. (Not more than 20 members in non- banking business and not more than 10 members in case of banking business)
  • The Partnership Act does not lay down any maximum number of partners. But according to Section 464, Rule 10 of companies miscellaneous Rules, 2014, maximum number of partner is 100.
  • It is governed by Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
  • Every member is known as partner and collectively members are known as partnership firm.
  • It is suitable for small business of retail and wholesale, small manufacturing units, professional firms, etc.

It possess the following essential characteristics:
(i) Profit motive and sharing of profits and loss: It is formed with an objective of earning profit. Profit is distributed as per the agreed ratio. In absence of any agreement, it is equal.

(ii) Contractual Relationship: Relationship between partners arises out of contract in writing called ‘Partnership Deed’ and not out of status. Agreement may be verbal, written or implied.

(iii) Principal – agent relationship: Every partner is a principal when acting on his own behalf and is an agent of the firm when acting on behalf of others. His activities bind the firm.

(iv) Unlimited liability: Liability of all partners is unlimited. They are jointly and severally liable for all the debts and obligations of firm.

(v) Competence of partners: Only competent people are allowed to enter into partnership. Minors can only be admitted to benefits of partnership.

(vi) Legal Status: Law doesn’t recognize the firm as a separate entity distinct from the partners. The firm means the partners and the partners means the firm.

(vii) Voluntary Registration: Registration of a partnership firm is not compulsory but since it is considered desirable.

(viii) Transfer of interest: No partner can sell or transfer his interest in the firm to anyone without the consent of other partners (unless or otherwise agreed).

(ix) Dissolution: Dissolution refers to not only a complete closure but to change in existing agreement among the partners due to a change in the numbers of partners too.

Advantages of Partnership firm:

  • Easy Formation: It can be formed without much expense and legal formalities. Only an agreement among partners is required
  • Combination of business ability and skill: It enables the firm’s activities to be expanded by enabling several persons to pool their resources, capital, skill etc.
  • Collection of greater capital: Under partnership, all partners contribute their capital which places it in a better position than sole proprietor.
  • Advantage of Secrecy: It is not required to publish its financial accounts to public due to which secrets can be maintained.
  • No hasty and reckless decisions: Due to unlimited liability of partners, they tend to adopt sound business practices.
  • Protection to minor partner: Minor has limited liability and is admitted only to the benefits of the firm.
  • Favorable Credit Standing
  • Profit Incentive
  • Retention of a Skilled Worker
  • Increase in Spirit of Co-operation.
  • Tax Advantage
  • Easy Dissolution.

Disadvantages of Partnership Firm:

  • Disagreement Among Partners : Mutual conflicts and lack of team spirit among partners may cause loss of reputation and even firm’s dissolution.
  • Uncertain Life : It has uncertain continuity as death, insolvency etc of any of the partner may cause firm’s dissolution.
  • Unlimited Liability : Any one or all the partners can be held liable by creditors and their dues can be recovered from private property of such partners.
  • Reduced Public Confidence : Its accounts are kept secret, publicity is absent and moreover, doesn’t have any legal control due to which it lacks public confidence.
  • Loss of Business Opportunity : Due to differences in opinions among partners, delay in decision making occurs which causes loss of opportunity.
  • Risk of Implied Authority : Every partner acts on behalf of firm and all other partners. Thus, partner may have to pay for the dishonest partner even.
  • Frozen Investment
  • Possibility of Misuse of Resources.
  • Divided Control

Suitability:

  • For small business (i.e. retail and wholesale trade)
  • For Professional services
  • For Medium sized mercantile houses
  • For small manufacturing units

Company

  • “A company is an artificial person created by law, having a perpetual succession and common seal.” L.H. Haney.
  • “A company is an artificial entity which is formed and registered under this Act or an existing company.” Indian Companies Act, 2013
  • It refers to a voluntary association of persons who contribute money for some common purpose.
  • Money contributed is called capital or share capital.
  • People contributing capital are known as members or shareholders.
  • Share is the proportion of capital to which each member is entitled.
  • A company form of business organisation is a voluntary association of person to carry on business.
  • It is an association of person who generally contribute money for some common purpose.
  • The companies are governed by the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
  • As per Companies Act, 2013 “a company is formed and registered under the Companies Act or an existing company registered under any other Act”. Share Capital refers to the capital raised by the company by the issue of shares.
  • Share is the smallest unit into which the share capital of the company is divided.

Characteristics of company are as follows –

  • Incorporated Association: It comes into existence only after registration under the Companies Act. A company in India is Governed by the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
  • Artificial Legal Person: It is a legal personality created by law. It can acquire and dispose of the property, can enter into contracts, can sue and be sued in its own name.
  • Perpetual Succession: It is a legal entity separate from its members. Death or insolvency of any member does not effects its continuity.
  • Transferability of Shares: Shares in company are freely transferable which ensures safety of investment.
  • Limited Liability: Liability of all members is limited to the extent of face value of shares held by them.
  • The capital of the company is divided into shares of small part.
  • Representative Management: The shareholders elect the directors to manage the affairs of the company.

Advantages of Company:
(i) Accumulation of huge financial resources: It facilitates mobilisation of large amount of capital for investment. It can raise huge capital required for large scale operations.

(ii) Continuity of existence: Its enjoys perpetual succession, thus is more stable as compared to partnership.

(iii) Transferability of shares: Ownership in a company can be easily transferred by simply transferring the shares. This ensures liquidity and safety of investment.

(iv) Diffusion of risk: Due to large membership, risk is spread which encourages small investors.

(v) Economies of large scale production: Large size of business enables the company to enjoy all economies of large scale production which ensures increased production and enhanced efficiency.

(vi) Democratic Organisation: Company is managed by Board of Directors elected by the shareholders thus, directors are accountable and responsible to them.

(vii) Management Functions: The company employees professionals and experts which help in better management of the company.

(viii) Recognised Legal Entity: A company is incorporated under the law and hence enjoys a legal status. Hence, it can borrow money, deal in property, sue others etc.

(ix) Higher Profits: A company has economies of large scale production and thus, earns higher profits.

(x) Bold Management: As the companies have huge funds, they, can take big risks which the other forms of business cannot take.

(xi) Full Legal Cover: A company is recognised by law and enjoys full legal cover and thus people have more confidence in them

(xii) Social Benefits: A company also has many social benefits and helps in the growth of people of low income groups.

Disadvantages of Company:
(i) Fraudulent management: The directors and investors may present a rosy picture of the company in its annual report due to which innocent investors are duped.

(ii) Complicated formation: Its formation requires adherence to too many legal formalities and is also expensive.

(iii) Lack of secrecy: It has to disclose all its strong and weak points in its annual reports due to which nothing remains secret.

(iv) High nepotism: Due to involvement of top heavy management, employees are selected on basis of personal interest rather than ability.

(v) Social abuses: It brings out the evils of factory system like pollution, insanitation etc. It is also a source of encouraging monopolies.

(vi) Undue speculation: Directors may indulge in speculation by misusing the inner information of the company for speculative purpose. This is harmful for shareholder’s interest.

(vii) Double taxation: Tax is to be paid on the earnings as well as on the distribution of dividends.

(viii) Separation of ownership from management: The company is managed by the directors who are not the real owners of the company and can thus exploit the shareholders.

(ix) Exploitation of shareholders: The concentration of powers in a few hands leads to the exploitation of shareholders.

(x) Impersonal relationship: Due to the wide gap between the employer and the employee, there is lack of personal relationship.

(xi) Grouping of powers: There is tussle of grouping for power between groups.

It is suitable where:

  • Volume of business is large
  • widespread area of operation
  • heavy risk is involved
  • need for huge financial resources and manpower
  • need for professional management
  • flexibility in operations is required

Forms of Company: A company, as an organisation may be a public company or private company. An One Person Company is a special form of private company.

Private Company: A private company has –

  • limit on maximum to two hundred members other than present and past employees;
  • restrict the right to transfer its shares; and
  • prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.
  • Private company (or a private limited company) may have two members normally or single member in case such private company is a One Person Company (OPC).

Public Company:
A public company is a company which is not a private company.
A public company do not have restriction like private company, but it needs minimum seven members. A private company (or a private limited company) may have two members normally or single member in case such private company is a One Person Company (OPC).

One Person Company:
One Person Company is a company with only one person as its member. All restrictions applicable to a private company shall apply to one person company as it is essentially a private company.

As these three form of companies has different organisational setup and scale of operations, government usually give some relaxation to private companies in respect of various compliances. There are some additional relaxation for one person company in respect to general meetings and board meetings.

Statutory Bodies and Corporations:

  • It refers to an autonomous corporate body created under an Act of Parliament or an Act of State legislature.
  • It is set up by Statute
  • It is a combination of public ownership, public accountability and business management.
  • It is an organisation that is clothed with the power of the government, but is possessed with the flexibility and initiative of private enterprise.
  • Example : RBI, SBI, LIC, ID8I etc.

It possess the following characteristics:

  • Legal Entity : It has a separate legal entity. It can enter into contracts, can sue and be sued in its own name. It has a perpetual succession and common seal.
  • Financial independence : Government provides it with initial capital and borrowings. Thereafter, it has all freedom to use its financial resources.
  • Corporate Body : It is an incorporated body established under a Special Act of Parliament.
  • Government Ownership : It is wholly owned by CG, SG or both.
  • Management and Personnel : It is managed by Board of Directors appointed by Government.
  • Accounting System : Budgetary, accounting and audit regulations applicable to Government departments are not applicable to them.
  • Service Motive : Its objective is public welfare and service rather than private profits.

It offers the following advantages:

  • Flexible Operations : Unlike other government departments, it is free from bureaucratic control. Thus, decisions can be taken without any delay.
  • Operational Autonomy : It does not involve interference of the Government.
  • Special Privilege : It is often granted special Privilege
  • Continuity : Due to a separate legal entity it has stable continuity.
  • Availability of Managerial Talent : More talented people can be employed by offering them better terms and conditions.

It suffers from following disadvantages:

  • Difficult Formation : A special law needs to be passed by Parliament for its formation.
  • Excessive Accountability : Ministerial and political interference effects its operational autonomy.
  • Inflexibility : Special law passed by Parliament has to be amended for changing the objects or powers.
  • Clash of Divergent Interests : Conflicts arises when Board of Directors is constituted to give representation to divergent interests.

It is suitable:

  • For undertakings that require Monopoly powers.
  • Undertakings exercising powers conferred by legislature and enterprises.
  • For undertakings that need to be financed by the state.

Co-operative, Societies and Trusts:

  • Co-operation is derived from Latin word ‘Co-operari’ ‘Co’ means ‘with’ and ‘operari’ means ‘to work’.
  • It is a voluntary association of persons who join together to safeguard their own interests. It is a business activity without having any profit.
  • “Co-operative society is a voluntary association of individuals which has its objectives in the promotion of economic interests of its members in accordance with co-operative principles.”
  • It works on principles of self help as well as mutual help.

Co-operative Societies Act, 1912

  • Any ten members can form co-operative society.
  • It is governed by Co-operative Societies Act, 1912.

Its objectives are:

  • Rendering service rather than earning profit.
  • Mutual help rather than competition.
  • Self-help rather than dependence.

Types of Co-operative Societies –
(i) Consumer’s Co-operative Societies: They provide goods to consumers at a reasonable price by eliminating the middlemen. They work for protection of consumer’s interest.
Example → Kendriya Bhandar, Apna Bazar and Sahkari Bhandar etc.

(ii) Producer’s Co-operative Society: These are formed for the protection of small producer’s interests by removing difficulty in collection of various factors of production and facing market problems.
Example → Handloom societies like APPCO, Bayanika Haryana Handlooms etc.

(iii) Marketing Co-operative Society: These are formed to enable the producers to sell their products at reasonable prices by eliminating middlemen.
Example → Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation etc.

(iv) Credit Co-operative Society: These are formed to provide credit to its members for productive purposes at a very low rate of interests.
Example → Village Service Co-operative Society and Urban Co-operative Banks etc.

(v) Housing Co-operative Society: These undertake the function of purchasing land, constructing houses or flats and making them available to its members on ownership basis or at fair rents. They also provide loan at lower interest rates to its members for constructing houses.
Example → Employees Housing Society, Metropolitan Housing Co¬operative Society etc.

(vi) Farming Co-operative Society: These are formed by small farmers to enjoy the benefit of large scale farming.
Example → Lift – irrigation Co-operative society, Pari – panchayats etc.

Definitions of Co-operative Organisation:
“Cooperative is an association of person usually of limited means, who have voluntarily jointed together to achieve a common economic and through the formation of a democratically controlled business organisation, make equitable contribution to the capital required and accepting a fair share of risks and benefits of the undertaking.”

“Cooperative is a form of organisation wherein persons voluntary associates together as human beings on the basis of equality for the promotion of the economic interests of themselves.”

“As a society which has its objectives the promotion of economic interest, its members in accordance with cooperative principles. Cooperative society is that society which has been registered under the, Cooperative Societies, Act, 1912, or under any other law for the time being in force in any state registration of cooperative society.”

“Cooperative society is an association of the weak who gather together for a common economic need and try to lift themselves from weakness into strength through business enterprise.”

Characteristics of Co-operative Society:
(1) Voluntary association :Any association of persons having a common interest is free to join and can also leave by a mere notice to society. There should be minimum 10 members to form a cooperative society.

(2) Separate Legal entity : After registration cooperative society is recognized as separate entity by law. The income of cooperative societies is legally taxable under Income Tax Act, 1961.

(3) Democratic Management : Equality is the assence of cooperative enterprises. No member detects the terms and conditions of the functioning because “One man One vote” is thumb rule.

(4) Service Motive : Sole purpose of cooperative society is mutual benefit through self help and collective effort.

(5) Utilization of Surplus : According to the Indian Cooperative Societies Act, 1912 each society must transfer atleast one-forth (1/4) of its profits to general reserve. It may distribute the profit for dividend and welfare in the ratio of 90:10.

(6) Cash Trading: Except the members of the society it sells the goods on the basis of cash only. Rule of “Cash & Carry” is fallowed.

(7) Fixed Rate of Return: In the return to the capital invested, the members are assured of a fixed rate of return maximum to the extent of 9% per annum on the sum deployed by tnem.

(8) Government Control: All the cooperative societies are regulated by the government through its different rules and regulation.

(9) Capital: The capital of the society is raised by the way of share capital, major part is financed through taking loan from the Government or from the apex cooperative institutions.

It possess the following advantages:

  • Voluntary Association: Members come together on their own accord and even leave as per their own desires.
  • Easy Formation: It does not need to follow long and complicated legal formalities for its for on.
  • Limited Liability: Liability of members is limited to the extent of capital contributed by them.
  • Open Membership: Any person can become its member.
  • Democratic Management: Every member have equal voting rights, thus have equal voice in the management. (One man one vote is the thumb rule)
  • Perpetual Succession: Its life is not effected in any way by the way of death, insolvency or conviction of any of its members.
  • Low Prices: It make the goods and services available to its members at reasonable prices by eliminating the middlemen.
  • Mutual Help
  • Social Advantages
  • Remove defects of capitalism
  • Government support
  • Mobilisation of saving.

It suffers from following disadvantages:

  • Limited Resources: They have limited financial resources as it is limited to the member’s contribution.
  • Inefficient Management: It is managed by its members who lack managerial and professional skills.
  • Lack of Secrecy: It becomes difficult to maintain secrecy as all its affairs are exposed to its members.
  • Excessive Government Interference: Excessive State regulations effects its functioning thereby adversely effecting its operations.
  • Cash Trading: All its transactions are done in cash. Thus, non¬availability of credit facilities sometimes disables the members to buy.
  • Lack of unity among members.
  • Lack of motivation.
  • Political interference

It is suitable:

  • Where service is to be provided
  • Where economic interests in promoted
  • For small and medium size firms.

The large sized IFFCO (Indian farmers & fertilizers co- operative) and the Kaira Co-operating processing milk under the brand name ‘AMUL’ are illustrious examples.

Limited Liability Partnership (LLP):

  • It combines the advantages of company and partnership.
  • Under it, all partners have a form of limited liability for each individual’s protection within the partnership.
  • Partners also have a right to manage the business affairs.
  • It is managed as per LLP Agreement.
  • It is governed by Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
  • Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 came into effect by way of notification dated 31st March, 2009.

It possess the following characteristics :

  • Body corporate
  • Separate legal entity
  • Perpetual succession
  • Mutual rights and duties of partners are governed by an LLP agreement subject to provisions of LLP Act, 2008
  • In absence of any agreement, it would be governed by the framework provided in Schedule 1 of LLP Act, 2008
  • Liability of partners is limited to the extent of capital contributed by them
  • No partner is liable for the independent or unauthorized actions of other partners or their misconduct
  • Every partner is a equal member
  • Every partner have a equal share in profit and loss
  • Each partner is protected against the other partner’s action
  • The contribution of the partners can be tangible, intangible or both
  • There is no limit for the maximum number of members in LLP

LLP Process:

  • Acquire DPIN and DSC
  • Register DPIN, DSC with LLP
  • Check name availability
  • Download UP forms
  • File Electronically
  • Track Status
  • Receive Certificate

DPIN – Designated Partners Identification Number

DSC – Digital Signature Certificate

It offers the following advantages:

  • Separate legal entity
  • Easy formation
  • Flexible operations
  • Perpetual existence
  • No minimum capital contribution
  • Easy dissolution
  • Low cost of formation
  • No partner liable for other partner’s act
  • No restriction on maximum number of partners
  • No need to maintain statutory records except Books of Accounts

It suffers from following disadvantages:

  • Funds from public cannot be raised
  • Owners are the managers
  • Act of every partner binds LLP
  • Under certain cases, partner’s liability may be extended to their personal property

Associates of Persons : AOP is an informal form of business. According to CIT v Indira Balkrishna (39 ITR 546) “where two or more persons join in a common purpose or common action, with object to produce, income profits or gains, it is called an “associates of persons”.

Characteristics of AOP :

  • Two or more persons join
  • Voluntarily
  • Common purpose or common action
  • Object to produce profit or gains
  • Creates some kind of scheme for common management

“AOP is not created but formed” Body of Individuals” : BOI is a formation of individuals who carry some activity with object to earn income, having common purpose is not essential for BOI.

BOI is Sub- domain of AOI – AOI and BOI, whether incorporated or not treated as a ‘person’ under Income Tax 1961.

Self Help Groups : Self help groups are essentialy BOI, which are form to promote entrepreneurship and financial helps in rural areas usually “Ten or more” persons shares different skills and indulge in mainly production activities.
Example : pickles production, Spices, handicraft+etc.

Advantages of AOP / BOI :

  • Suitable for Short term business plan
  • No formality required for formation
  • Object to can profit is enough to form such organisation
  • Easy to wind – up
  • Suitable for Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) and international commercial buildings

Disadvantages of AOP / BOI:

  • Non formal Set-up
  • Income is more important than business
  • Not a purpose of wealth creation

Joint Venture : It is also an informal form organisation “when two or more business organisation center into a commercial enterprise undertaken jointly it is called a Joint Venture.”

Elements of a Joint Venture, are :

  • Number of parties
  • The geographic, Product, technology & value chain
  • Contributions of parties
  • Split ownership
  • Economic arrangements
  • Governance & control
  • Contractual agreements with parent companies

Selection of an Appropriate form of Business: This depends upon following factors:
(i) Nature of business activity: Businesses providing direct services should be set up as sole proprietor, business requiring pooling of skills and funds should be set up as partnership, while manufacturing concerns of large size should set up as companies.

(ii) Business control: Sole proprietorship is preferred if direct control over business is required else company should be formed.

(iii) Liability of owner: A company who can bear the burden of unlimited liability can go for sole proprietorship business.

(iv) Finance: Business requiring huge capital should opt for company form.

(v) Business volume: Large scale enterprises should be set up as company form.

(vi) Independence: Person requiring freedom from government interference, should select partnership or sole proprietorship.

(vii) Area of operation: In case of wide spread area of operation i.e. national or international, company form is suitable. .

Other Types of Corporations:

  • Domestic corporation is a company that conducts its affairs in its home country. It is able to conduct business in other states or other parts of the country where it has filed its articles.
  • Foreign corporation/alien corporation/out-of-state corporation is incorporated under the laws of foreign country. It does its business in a state other than the one is which it is incorporated.
  • Public corporation is formed by government to meet some governmental or political purposes.
  • Private corporations are formed for benefits of public purposes. They are not privately owned.
  • Non-profit corporation/not for profit organisation exists for educational or charitable reasons, and from it the shareholders or trustees do not benefit financially.
  • Money earned is retained by the corporation and used for its own expenses, operations and programs.
    Professional corporations includes the professional practitioners by profession. It provides certain tax benefits.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is a form of business organisation?
(a) Temple
(b) Church
(c) Partnership
(d) Mosque
Answer:
(c) Partnership

Question 2.
Following is not a characteristic of business organisation:
(a) Discontinuity of operations
(b) Distinct ownership
(c) Lawful business
(d) Risk involvement
Answer:
(a) Discontinuity of operations

Question 3.
________ is a form of business that is owned, managed and controlled by an individual.
(a) Partnership
(b) Company
(c) HUF
(d) Sole Proprietorship
Answer:
(d) Sole Proprietorship

Question 4.
Individual owing and running the business is known as ________.
(a) Single owner
(b) Sole Trader
(c) Single Trader
(d) Businessman
Answer:
(b) Sole Trader

Question 5.
Which is the oldest business form?
(a) Partnership
(b) HUE
(c) Sole Proprietorship
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(c) Sole Proprietorship

Question 6.
Which of the following would have unlimited liability?
(a) Co-operative Society
(b) Company
(c) Sole Proprietorship
(d) Shareholders
Answer:
(c) Sole Proprietorship

Question 7.
Which of the following is an advantage of sole proprietorship?
(a) Easy formation
(b) Maintenance of business secrecy
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
Which of the following has most stable existence?
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) HUF
Answer:
(c) Company

Question 9.
Which form of organisation is only found in India?
(a) HUF
(b) Co-Operative Society
(c) Joint Stock Company
(d) Governmental Undertaking
Answer:
(a) HUF

Question 10.
What is the maximum strength of HUF ________.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 100
(d) No limit
Answer:
(d) No limit

Question 11.
The business affairs are managed by the head of the family, known as ________.
(a) Co-parcener
(b) Owner
(c) Shareholder
(d) Karta
Answer:
(d) Karta

Question 12.
Only coparcener can become a Karta, This statement is ________.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
Answer:
(a) True

Question 13.
Karta’s liability is ________.
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited by guarantee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Unlimited

Question 14.
Mutual agency is an important feature of ________.
(a) HUF
(b) Joint Stock Company
(c) Partnership
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(c) Partnership

Question 15.
Company have a perpetual succession and work under a common seal. This statement is ________.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 16.
Company is managed by shareholders.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t say
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) False

Question 17.
Statutory body is a body that is created under an Act enacted by ________.
(a) Association of people
(b) Association of ministers
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) Association of ministers

Question 18.
RBI is an example of ________.
(a) Departmental undertaking
(b) Statutory corporation
(c) Governmental undertaking
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Statutory corporation

Question 19.
In which of the following, the ownership of venture is reflected by ownership of shares or stock?
(a) HUF
(b) Partnership
(c) Corporations
(d) Trusts
Answer:
(c) Corporations

Question 20.
Statutory Body is a combination of ________.
(a) Public ownership and accountability
(b) Public ownership and business management
(c) Public and private ownership
(d) Public ownership, public accountability and business management
Answer:
(d) Public ownership, public accountability and business management

Question 21.
Following is not a type of co-operative society ________.
(a) Producer’s cooperative society
(b) Wholesaler’s cooperative society
(c) Marketing co-operative society
(d) Consumer’s co-operative society
Answer:
(b) Wholesaler’s cooperative society

Question 22.
LLP Act, 2008 came into effect on ________.
(a) 31/4/2009
(b) 31/3/2008
(c) 31/3/2009
(d) 31/4/2008
Answer:
(c) 31/3/2009

Question 23.
For having direct control over the business activities, which form is preferred ________.
(a) Partnership
(b) Sole proprietorship
(c) HUF
(d) Company
Answer:
(b) Sole proprietorship

Question 24.
Which is not a characteristic of sole proprietorship?
(a) No sharing of profit and loss
(b) One-man’s capital
(c) Less legal formalities
(d) Association of persons
Answer:
(d) Association of persons

Question 25.
What are the characteristics of HUF?
(a) Governed by Hindu Law
(b) Continuity
(c) Fluctuating share of each member
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 26.
Which is not an advantage of Joint Hindu Family business.
(a) Limited resources
(b) Continued existence
(c) Freedom in managing
(d) Assured share in profit
Answer:
(a) Limited resources

Question 27.
The companies are governed by which Act?
(a) Indian Contract Act, 1872
(b) Partnership Act, 1932
(c) Companies Act, 2013
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Companies Act, 2013

Question 28.
What are the advantages of company?
(a) Great stability
(b) Limited liability
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 29.
Cooperative society is that society which has been registered under the Cooperative Society Act _____.
(a) 1920
(b) 1932
(c) 1912
(d) 1872
Answer:
(c) 1912

Question 30.
LLP, this forms of organisation has been introduced in India by way of?
(a) LLP Act, 2009
(b) LLP Act,2008
(c) LLP Act, 1932
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) LLP Act,2008

Question 31.
Which is the first step to start LLP?
(a) Acquire DPIN. Acquire DSC
(b) Register OPIN
(c) Download LLP forms
(d) Track status
Answer:
(b) Register OPIN

Question 32.
Which ¡s the last step to end LLP?
(a) Receive certificate
(b) Signature
(c) File electronically
(d) Track status
Answer:
(a) Receive certificate

Question 33.
“Co-operative” is derived from which word?
(a) Greek word, co-operan
(b) French word, co-operan
(c) Latin word, co-operan
(d) Indian word, co-operan
Answer:
(c) Latin word, co-operan

Question 34.
Find the odd one out?
(a) RBI
(b) SBI
(c) PNB (Punjab National Bank)
(d) HDFC
Answer:
(a) RBI

Question 35.
Direct motivation, maintenance of business secrets, close personal relations etc are the advantages of ________.
(a) Partnership
(b) Limited liability partnership
(c) HUF
(d) Sole Proprietorship
Answer:
(d) Sole Proprietorship

Question 36.
The profit share of Co-parceners in a HUF ________.
(a) Depends on the Capital Contributed
(b) Depends on the decision of Karta
(c) Is equal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Is equal

Question 37.
In case of death of a Co-parceners ________.
(a) The wife of the deceased Co-parcener can demand partition
(b) Wife can become the Co-parcener
(c) The wife can claim share of profit
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) The wife can claim share of profit

Question 38.
Which of the following statement is true in respect of a HUF?
(a) The liability of Co-parceners is limited
(b) The liability of Karta is unlimited
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 39.
Which of the following statements is true ________.
(a) The creditors can claim the entire debt from any of the partner
(b) The partners can share profits in any ratio as agreed
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 40.
Registration of Partnership is not compulsory but beneficiary.
(a) True
(b) Partly True
(c) False
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 41.
In case of death of a partner ________.
(a) The partnership dissolves
(b) The partnership firm dissolves
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) The partnership dissolves

Question 42.
Greater Permanency, limited liability, case of transfer of ownership are the advantages of ________.
(a) HUF
(b) LLP
(c) Sole Proprietorship
(d) Company
Answer:
(d) Company

Question 43.
Lack cf secrecy, promotion of frauds, separation of ownership from management are the disadvantages ________.
(a) Partnership
(b) LLP.
(c) Company
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Company

Question 44.
The minimum number of members to form a Co-operative Society is ________.
(a) Ten
(b) Fifty
(c) Hundred
(d) Twenty
Answer:
(a) Ten

Question 45.
The main objectives of a Co-operative Society are ________.
(a) Rendering service rather than earning profits
(b) Self help in place of dependence ‘
(c) Mutual help instead of competition ‘
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 46.
AMUL milk products is an example of ________.
(a) Co-operative Farming Society
(b) Consumer Co-operative Society
(c) Co-operative Credit Society
(d) Co-operative Market Society
Answer:
(d) Co-operative Market Society

Question 47.
APPCO, Bayanika, Haryana Handloom are examples of ________.
(a) Co-operative Marketing Society
(b) Co-operative Farming Society
(c) Producers Co-operative Society
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Producers Co-operative Society

Question 48.
The.societies formed to provide financial support to the members are called ________.
(a) Co-operative Credit Society
(b) Housing Co-operative Society
(c) Co-operative Finance Society
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Co-operative Credit Society

Question 49.
Voluntary association, utilization of surplus, cash trading etc. are the characteristics of ________.
(a) Co-operative society
(b) Company
(c) Statutory body
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Co-operative society

Question 50.
Registration of co-operative society is compulsory.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 51.
The maximum rate of return that a co-operative society can give to its members is ________.
(a) 9%
(b) 10%
(c) 5%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(a) 9%

Question 52.
The maximum rate of dividend that a Co-operative Society can distribute is _________
(a) 90% of Surplus
(b) 50% of Surplus
(c) 100% of surplus
(d) 10% of Surplus
Answer:
(a) 90% of Surplus

Question 53.
The minimum amount to be transferred to the general reserve is ________.
(a) One-fourth of profits
(b) One-half of profit
(c) One-fifth of profit
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) One-fourth of profits

Question 54.
Which of the following statement is True?
(a) Co-operative Societies sell the goods on cash basis only
(b) Members can purchase goods on credit
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 55.
Which of the following statement is true in respect of the voting rights of a member in a Co-operative Society?
(a) Each member has one vote
(b) Voting rights are proportionate to the capital contributed
(c) Voting rights is not exercised by the members
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Each member has one vote

Question 56.
The Co-operative Society is registered under the ________.
(a) Co-operative Societies Act,1932
(b) Indian Co-operative Societies Act, 1944
(c) Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Co-operative Societies Act, 1912

Question 57.
The maximum number of partners in a LLP are ________.
(a) No limit
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) No limit

Question 58.
In case of sole proprietorship there is a direct link between:
(a) Profit and Loss
(b) Asset and liabilities
(c) Goods and Services
(d) Effort and reward
Answer:
(d) Effort and reward

Question 59.
In Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) form of business all the members of Hindu Undivided Family own the business ________.
(a) Individually
(b) Separately
(c) Jointly
(d) With Society
Answer:
(d) With Society

Question 60.
If the partnership agreement is in ________ it is known as ‘Partnership Deed.’
(a) Verbal
(b) Written
(c) Implied
(d) Verbal, written or implied
Answer:
(b) Written

Question 61.
A minor can be admitted to the Benefits of partnership which means:
(a) He can have a share in the loss only
(b) He can have a share in the profits only.
(c) He cannot have any share in profit or loss.
(d) He can have a share in the profits only if other partner by majority agrees to give it.
Answer:
(b) He can have a share in the profits only.

Question 62.
Statutory body is a body that is created under an:
(a) Act of parliament
(b) An act of legislatures
(c) Neither (a) or (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Question 63.
_______ is a feature of partnership form of business.
(a) Separate legal entity from the firm
(b) Limited scope for raising finance
(c) The liability of a partner is limited to his contribution to capital
(d) Registration of partnership s compulsory
Answer:
(b) Following are the essential features of a partnership form of business:

  • Can be started by minimum 2 persons.
  • Scope for raising finance is limited.
  • Formed for earning profit
  • Liability of all partners is unlimited.
  • Registration is voluntary.
  • There exist a principal-agent relationship.

Thus, among the given options “limited scope for raising finance” is a feature’of partnership form of business.

Question 64.
_______ form of business is/are appropriate for retail business.
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Business providing direct services like retail business should be set up as sole proprietor; businesses requiring pooling of skills and funds should be set up as partnership, while manufacturing concerns of large size should be set up as companies. Thus, both sole proprietorship and partnership form of business are appropriate for retail business.

Question 65.
Which one of the following does not have perpetual succession?
(a) Company
(b) Statutory Corporation
(c) Sole Proprietorship
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(c) Perpetual succession means that the death / insolvency of any member of a concern does not affects its continuity. Thus, its legal entity is separate from its members. All except sole proprietorship are formed like a corporate form of organisation and thus, have perpetual succession.

Question 66.
In a Hindu Undivided Family, liability of is unlimited.
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parceners
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a and b
Answer:
(a) In HUF, liability of all the co-partners is limited except Karta, thus, enabling more efficient management. Thus, the liability of Karta is unlimited.

Question 67.
In relation to business organisation structure, which one of the following is easy to form and wind up?
(a) A company
(b) A sole proprietorship
(c) Statutory corporation
(d) Public enterprises.
Answer:
(b) One of the advantages of sole proprietorship form of business is that no legal formalities are required for its formation. It can be started with a small amount of capital. Similarly, its winding up also is completely dependent upon sole proprietor. Thus, sole proprietorship form of business have easy formation and winding up.

Question 68.
Which is not a feature of LLP?
(a) Separate legal entity
(b) All LLP have existence for fixed period.
(c) Partners in an LLP are required to turn into an agreement
(d) In an LLP, partners are not liable for the act of other partners.
Answer:
(b) Following are the features of a limited liability partnership:

  • Body corporate.
  • Separate Legal Entity.
  • Perpetual Succession.
  • Easy formation.
  • Flexible operations.
  • No minimum capital contribution.
  • Easy dissolution.
  • Low cost of formation.
  • No partner liable for other partner’s act.
  • No restriction on maximum number of partners.
  • Mutual rights and duties of partners are governed by an LLP agreement.

Thus, among the given options, option B i.e. “All LLP have existence for fixed period” is not a feature of LLP.

Question 69.
Voting right that vests with each member of co-operative society is:
(a) One member one vote
(b) Right to vote in proportion of capital contributed
(c) Right to vote as mentioned in memorandum
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Co-operative societies have a democratic management i.e. every member have equal voting rights or one member have one vote, thus having equal voice in the management.

Question 70.
Gas Authority of India Limited is an example of:
(a) Limited liability partnership
(b) Private limited company
(c) Public enterprise
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Public enterprises refers to business organisation owned, managed and controlled by local, central or State Government. Whole or most of the investment is made by government itself.
Example: Gas Authority of India Limited, Hindustan Machine Tools, etc.

Question 71.
Which one of the following is treated as a separate legal entity different from its members?
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Hindu undivided family
(c) Partnership
(d) Limited liability partnership
Answer:
(d) Limited Liability Partnership has a separate legal entity, liable to the full extent of its assets. The liability of the partner would be limited to their agreed contribution in the LLP. Thus, Limited Liability Partnership is treated as separate legal entity, different from its members. In all other cases the entity and its members are same persons.

Question 72.
Why co-operative marketing society is formed?
(a) To protect the interest of general consumers
(b) To sell the product of small farmers and producers
(c) To protect the interest of small producers
(d) To provide financial support to the members
Answer:
(b) Co-operative marketing societies are formed by small producers and manufactures who find it difficult to sell their products individually. The society collects the products from the individual members and takes the responsibility of selling the products in market. Thus, co-operative marketing societies are formed to sell products of small farmers and producers.

Question 73.
The choice of an appropriate form of business organisation largely depends upon:
I. Ease of formation
II. Continuity and stability
III. Liability aspects
Correct option is –
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
Answer:
(d) Before selecting any form of business organisation, one must consider, the following factors:

  • Easy formation
  • Liability of owner
  • Continuity and stability
  • Capital Adequacy
  • Flexibility of operations
  • Relationship between ownership, control & management.

Thus I, II and III i.e. Ease of formation, continuity and stability and liability aspects, all are considered while making choice of an appropriate form of business organisation.

Question 74.
The minimum number of members required to get a co-operative society registered is _______
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
Co-operative society is a voluntary association of persons who join together to safeguard their own interest. It is a business activity without having any profit. Any 10 members can form co-operative society.

Question 75.
Which of the following entity is created under an Act of the Parliament or an Act of the State legislature?
(a) Statutory corporation
(b) Government companies
(c) Co-operative society
(d) Limited Liability Partnership
Answer:
(a) Statutory corporation refers to an autonomous corporate body created under an Act of Parliament or as Act of state legislature. It is set up by statute.

Question 76.
Which form of business organisation has a separate legal entity?
(a) Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)
(b) Co-operative society
(c) Partnership firm
(d) Sole proprietorship
Answer:
(b) Co-operative society possess the following characteristics-

  • Voluntary Association
  • Separate legal entity
  • Democratic management
  • Service motive
  • Utilisation of surplus
  • Cash Trading
  • Fixed Rate of Return
  • Government control
  • Share Capital.

Question 77.
What is the liability of each partner under LLP?
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Partially Limited
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Under Limited Liability Partnership, as the name represents all the partners have a form of limited liability for each individual’s protection within the partnership.

Question 78.
Which of the following is not a form of organisation?
(a) Partnership
(b) Company
(c) Partners
(d) Sole Proprietorship
Answer:
(c) Partnership, Company, Sole proprietorship are forms of organisation while partners are the members of a partnership firm and not a form of business organisation.

Question 79.
Who can be the head of Joint Hindu Family business?
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parcener
(c) Manager
(d) Director
Answer:
(a) According to the Hindu Law of Society, only Karta i.e. the eldest male member of the Hindu family can be the head of Joint Hindu Family Business. Hence option (a) is correct.

Question 80.
Members of HUF are known as _______.
(a) Partners
(b) Shareholders
(c) Members
(d) Co-parceners
Answer:
(d) HUF is a most peculiar form of business organisation in which the family possesses some inherited property. Its members are known as Co-parceners.

Question 81.
Which amongst the following is a feature of LLP?
(a) Separate legal entity
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) No perpetual succession
(d) Not a body corporate
Answer:
(a) Following are the features of a LLP :

  • Body corporate
  • Separate legal entity
  • Perpetual succession
  • Easy formation
  • Flexible operations
  • No minimum capital contributions
  • Easy dissolution
  • Low cost of formation
  • No partner liable for other partner’s act
  • No restriction on maximum number of partners.
  • Mutual rights and duties of partners are governed by an LLP agreement.

Thus, among the given options, option (a) i.e. Separate legal entity is a feature of LLP.

Question 82.
Head of HUF is known as _______.
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parceners
(c) Manager
(d) Head
Answer:
(a) HUF is the most peculiar form of business organisation in which the family possesses some inherited property and the head of the family, known as Karta, who manages its affairs.

Question 83.
In case of HUF what are liabilities of Co-parcener and Karta _______.
(a) Both have unlimited liability.
(b) Co-parcener’s liability is limited while Karta’s liability is unlimited.
(c) Karta’s liability is limited while Co-parcener’s liability is unlimited.
(d) Both have limited liability.
Answer:
(b) In HUF, liability of all the co-parceners is limited except Karta, thus enabling more efficient management. Thus, liability of Karta is unlimited and co-parceners is unlimited.

Question 84.
To form a partnership, the minimum capital contribution should be:
(a) ₹ 1 Lakh
(b) There is no minimum limit
(c) ₹ 1 Crore
(d) ₹ 5 Lakh
Answer:
(b) In a partnership, there are no complicated legal formalities involved in the establishment of partnership business. The partners entered ‘ into a partnership agreement can start their business, there is no such any minimum capital contribution limit. However, in case of sole proprietorship, the capital is limited to the savings of one owner or his borrowing capacity. Hence, option B is correct.

Question 85.
The Karta in Joint Hindu Family business has:
(a) Unlimited liability
(b) Joint liability
(c) Limited liability
(d) No liability for debts
Answer:
(a) The liability of the Co-parceners is limited, except for that of the Karta. This makes the Karta to manage the business in the most efficient manner. Thus, the Karta in Joint Hindu Family business has unlimited liability.

Question 86.
The objects and powers of a statutory corporation:
(a) May not change
(b) May not be changed easily
(c) May change easily
(d) None applicable
Answer:
(b) The objects and powers of a statutory corporation may not change easily. For this, special law passed by Parliament has to be amended for changing the objects or powers.

Question 87.
Which corporation has both characteristics i.e. of a partnership and of a separate legal entity?
(a) Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)
(b) Company
(c) Partnership
(d) Statutory Body
Answer:
(a) A Limited Liability Partnership, popularly known as LLP combines the advantages of both the company i.e. separate legal entity and partnership into a single form of organization.

Question 88.
Kendriya Bhandar is a:
(a) Co-operative Credit Society
(b) Consumers Co-operative Society
(c) Producers Co-operative Society
(d) Co-operative Marketing Society
Answer:
(b) Kendriya Bhandar, Apna Bazar and Sahakari Bhandar are examples of consumer’s Co-operative society.

Question 89.
What is Karta’s liability in HUF?
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited by guarantee
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) The liability of the co-parceners is limited, except for that of the Karta. This make the Karta to manage the business in the most efficient manner. Thus, the Karta in Joint Hindu family business has unlimited liability.

Question 90.
Which of these is not a statutory corporation?
(a) RBI
(b) SBI
(c) LIC
(d) Bank of Baroda
Answer:
(d) Statutory body is a body that is created under an Act of Parliament or an Act of state legislatures.
Examples : RBI, SBI, LIC. Bank of Baroda is a private institution. Hence, option(d) is correct.

Question 91.
Liability of other Co-parceners are:
(a) Limited upto the extent of share except Karta
(b) Unlimited upto the extent of share except Karta
(c) Unlimited
(d) Limited
Answer:
(a) The liability of each member of the hindu undivided family business is limited to the extent of his share in the business while karta has unlimited liability.

Question 92.
Business undertaking are generally exposed to:
(a) Risk and uncertainty both
(b) Uncertainty only
(c) Risk only
(d) Neither risk nor uncertainty
Answer:
(a) Business undertakings are always exposed to risk and uncertainty. Business is influenced by future conditions which are unpredictable and uncertain. This makes business decisions risky, thereby increasing the chances of loss arising out of business.

Question 93.
A Public Corporation has:
(a) Public ownership
(b) Public accountability
(c) Business management tor public
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(d) A public corporation is formed by the government- to meet some governmental and political purpose. The very common examples are for the cities and town benefits.

Question 94.
The liability of each member of the Hindu Undivided Family business is:
(a) Limited to a sum as declared by him in general public
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited to the extent of his share in the business except karta
(d) Limited to the extent of his share in the business including that of karta
Answer:
(c) The liability of each member of the Hindu Undivided Family business is limited to the extent of his share in the business except karta. This makes the Karta to manage the business in the most efficient manner.

Question 95.
The affairs of a company is overseen by:
(a) Shareholders
(b) Employees
(c) Board of Directors
(d) Dividend Holders
Answer:
(c) A company is a voluntary association of people carrying on business, it is a Artificial Legal person whose management is separated from ownership. Ownership lies with shareholders who contribute share capital and management lies with the Board of Directors who oversee the affairs of company.

Question 96.
In case of Hindu Undivided Family, the individual share of each co-parcener:
(a) depends upon his efficiency
(b) keeps changing on the death or birth of co-parcener
(c) is fixed
(d) keeps changing annually
Answer:
(b) The individual share of each co-parcener keeps on fluctuating. This is because, every birth of a male child in the family adds to the number of co-parceners and every death of a co-parcener reduce the number. So, we can say that individual shate of each co-parcener keeps changing on the death or birth of co-parcener.

Question 97.
The size and structure of business depend on many factors which (are):
(a) In the control of enterprises
(b) Arbitrary and random
(c) Range from internal to external factors which are beyond the control of enterprises
(d) Beyond the control of enterprises.
Answer:
(a) The Size and Structure cf Business depend upon factor such as:

  • District Ownership
  • Lawful Business
  • Separate Status
  • Deals in Goods and Services
  • Risk involvement

Question 98.
Limited Liability Partnership is constituted under _______.
(a) The Companies Act, 2013
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
(c) Partnership Act, 1932
(d) None is applicable
Answer:
(b) Limited Liability Partnership, the world wide recognized form of business organisation has been introduced in India by the way of Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.

Question 99.
In case of Cooperative Societies minimum number of members are:
(a) 7
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 10
Answer:
(d) In case of Co-operative society the minimum number of members required are 10 under the Co-operative Society Act, 1912 but the Act does not specify the maximum number of members for any co-operative society.

Question 100.
Sole proprietary business is suitable when market is:
(a) Non Existent
(b) National
(c) Local
(d) Global
Answer:
(c) The sole proprietorship business is most suitable where the market for the product is small and local, where the capital requirement is small and the risk involvement is not too heavy. Thus, Option C is correct.

Question 101.
Limited liability partnership is constituted under _______.
(a) Companies Act, 2013
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
(c) Partnership Act, 1932
(d) None is applicable
Answer:
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 came into effect by way of notification dated 31st March, 2009. Thus it is governed by Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.

Question 102.
In case of Co-operative Societies, liability of members is:
(a) Unlimited
(b) Limited but unlimited in few cases
(c) Limited to the extent of capital contribution
(d) None is applicable
Answer:
(c) The liability of member is limited to the extent of capital contributed by them. He is not personally liable of co-operative society for any liabilities.

Question 103.
Which of the following is treated as a separate legal entity different from its members?
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Hindu undivided family
(c) Partnership
(d) Limited liability partnership
Answer:
(d) There are so many types of organisation like:

  • Sole proprietorship
  • Hindu undivided family
  • Company
  • Partnership and (a Limited Liability Partnership).

Limited liability partnership is a forms of organisation which is treated as a separate legal entity from its members separate legal entity means members have only limited liability, they do not need to keep their private property at stake. In case of dissolution of partnership firm, only firm’s asset used to pay outsiders or other liability, not need to use private property of members.

Question 104.
Why Co-operative Marketing Society is formed?
(a) To protect the interest of general consumers
(b) To sell the product of small formers and producers
(c) To protect the interest of small producers
(d) To provide financial support to the members.
Answer:
(b) Co-operative Marketing Society: Societies are formed by small producers and manufacturers who find it difficult to sell their products individually. The society collects the products from the individual members and take the responsibility to selling those products in the market.

Example : Gujrat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation that sells AMUL Milk Products. Thus, To sell the product of small producers and manufacturers.

Question 105.
Last process of formation of a LLP:
(a) Download LLP Form
(b) Check name availability
(c) Acquire DPIN
(d) Register DPIN
Answer:
(a) Formation of LLP:

  • Obtain DSN/DPIN
  • Register DPIN
  • Check name availability
  • Download LLP form

hence, option (a) is correct answer

Question 106.
Public Corporation is also called ________.
(a) Departmental undertaking
(b) Statutory corporation
(c) Co-operative Society
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Public Corporations are also called Statutory Corporations.

Question 107.
Registration of partnership is:
(a) Voluntary
(b) Mandatory
(c) Compulsory
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Registration of a partnership firm is voluntary not mandatory.

Question 108.
Minimum requirement of capital to form an LLP is?
(a) ₹ 50,000
(b) ₹ 1 lakh
(c) No such capital required/prescribed
(d) ₹ 25,000
Answer:
(c) Minimum formation capital is not required to form a LLP.

Question 109.
A Multinational Company operates in:
(a) More than one country
(b) less than one country
(c) More than 100 countries
(d) More than 20 countries.
Answer:
(a) A company that operates more the one country is termed as Multinational Company.

Question 110.
OPC must have minimum ________ number of Directors.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) None
Answer:
(a) One person company must have minimum One Director.

Question 111.
Legacy promotes ________ to business
(a) Start a business
(b) Growth & Development
(c) Maturity
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Legacy means Growth and Development to business.

Question 112.
Oldest form of Organisation:
(a) Partnership
(b) HUF
(c) Sole proprietorship
(d) Company
Answer:
(c) Sole proprietorship is the oldest form of organisation.

Question 113.
The choice of an appropriate from of business organisation largely ________ depends upon:
I. Ease of formation
II. Continuity and Stability
III. Liability aspects
Correct option is:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Answer:
(d) Before selecting any form of business organisation, one must consider the following factors:

  • Easy formation
  • Liability of owner
  • Continuity and stability
  • Capital Adequacy
  • Flexibility of operations
  • Relationship between ownership, control and management.

Thus (i), (ii) & (iii) i.e. case of formation, continuity & stability and liability aspects, all are considered while making choice of an appropriate form of business organisation.

Question 114.
The minimum number of members required to get a Co-operative Society registered is:
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) Co-operative Society is a voluntary association of persons who join together to safeguard their own interest. It is a business activity without having any profit. Any 10 members can form Co-operative Society.

Question 115.
Which of the following entity is created under an Act of the parliament or an Act of the State Legislature?
(a) Statutory Corporation
(b) Government Companies
(c) Co-operative Society
(d) Limited Liability Partnership
Answer:
(a) Statutory Corporation refers to an autonomous corporate body created under an Act of Parliament or as act of State legislature. It is set up by statute.

Question 116.
Which form of business organization has a separate legal entity?
(a) Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)
(b) Co-operative Society
(c) Partnership firm
(d) Sole proprietorship
Answer:
(b) Co-operative Society possess the following characteristics

  • Voluntary Association
  • Separate Legal Entity
  • Democratic management
  • Service motive
  • Utilisation of surplus
  • Cash trading
  • Fixed Rate of Return
  • Government control.

Thus, Co-operative Society has separate legal entity.

Question 117.
What is Karta liability in HUF?
(a) Limited by gaurentee
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited
(d) (b) and (c) both
Answer:
(b) The liability of co – parceners is limited, except for that of Karta. This makes the Karta to manage the business in the most efficient manner. Thus the Karta in HUF has unlimited liability

Question 118.
Liability of ‘KARTA’ is:
(a) Unlimited
(b) Limited to his share
(c) Can’t say
(d) Limited
Answer:
(a) The liability of each member of the Hindu Undivided Family business is limited to the extent of his share in the business. But the liability of ‘Karta’is unlimited as, it extends to his personal property.

Question 119.
Liability of ‘KARTA’ is:
(a) Unlimited
(b) Limited to his share
(c) Can’t say
(d) Limited
Answer:
(d) There is no minimum required capital to start a limited liability partnership, according to Companies Amendment Act, 2015. A LLP hpn even be started with Re. 1/- capital. There is no minimum capital for LLP.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes