Inter-Departmental Communication – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Inter-Departmental Communication – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Interdepartmental Communication:

  • Mostly the Intra and Inter-Departmental Communication is formal
  • Inter-Departmental Communication are expected to be direct, brief and functional, wasting little time on niceties.

Memorandum:

  • The word memorandum means a note or record for future use
  • Memorandum is a form of informal communication
  • Plural form of Memorandum is “Memoranda”
  • Memorandum plays convenient and flexible role.
  • Most of the Informal communication is done over the phone but when one has to convey in writing memorandum is preferred.

ABC SOLUTIONS LTD.

Interoffice Memo

To: All EMPLOYEES
FROM: GENERAL MANAGER
DATE: DD/MM/YYYY
SUBJECT: TDS

CIRCULATE URGENT FILE

………………………………………………………… BODY………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………….XYZ

Memo Forms:

  • Most companies prefer using printed Memo forms.
  • Memo Forms are not signed but initiated for authenticity.
  • Information Technology help in the formation of tempLates or macros.

Memo Report:

  • Sometimes memo report is prepared in the form of memorandum.
  • A report in memorandum form should carry a heading.

Specimen Memorandum Report
ABC PVT. LTD.
Memorandum
To MD
FROM: QCM
Date: DD/MM/YYYY
NO: DA/2

Sub: Report on Supply of Lever Assembly

As directed I am submitting below the details about the supply of Lever Assembly during week ending 3rd Feb:
Number dispatched:2100
Number accepted:2000
Rejection if any: 100
Reasons for rejection: Shrinkage
The defect was caused by coil burnout- resulting in underheating of raw material prior to moulding. I am tightening in house quality checks to bring down the rejection rate.

Office Circulars:

  • Office circulars are used for circulating information to large number of employees within the organisation.
  • It is a type of Informal Communication.
  • It is an internal communication, thus brief.

Specimen of Office Circular

[Letter head]

………………………………………………………… BODY………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………….Sd /-

(Name)
(Post in Org)

To: All employees in sales Department

Office Orders:

  • Have Similar format to that of memorandum.
  • They deal with rights and privileges of employees.
  • Language used is formal and legally common.
  • Office order carry a bold, underlined heading to help us to identify them.
  • They carry a number for future reference.
  • Specimen of office order.

Order No.

Date.

Office Order

……………………………………………………………………. BODY ………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………Sd/-

Personnel Office

CC.
Chief Manager, Friends Colony Branch
Mr ABC (credits)

Office Notes:

  • These are exchanged between two different departments.
  • Notes may differ irom company to company.
  • Each company have different formats of notes.
  • It depends on style and individual preferences.

Specimen of Office Notes

[Letter Head]

Ref:
From (Department)

Date: DDIMM/YYYY
To: Department)

 

Subject …………………..

………………………………………………………………………….. BODY……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………….. BODY………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Sd/
(Name)
(Post)

Representation to Management:

  • It is a type of Inter-Departmental Communication
  • It arises in situations when member of staff of the company may want to represent their cause to the management.

Specimen of Representation to Management

[Letter Head]

Date: DD/MM/YYYY

Managing Director (ad Software India Ltd)
(Address)
Dear Sir,
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………….. Body ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Thanking You,
Yours faithfully,
Sd/-
(Name)
(Post).

Correspondence with Regional/ Branch Office:

  • It is not necessary to use letterheads
  • No instructions or rules are laid for these types of letter.

Specimen Letter from Branch to Head office.
B Ltd. have been our customer for over 10 years now. They are e\ present enjoying credit facility up to ₹ 6,00,000. B Ltd. are launching on an expansion programme and the detailed project report has been approved by the Industrial Finance Corporation of India for term loan facilities. In view of this, B Ltd. have approached us for increasing the credit facility for supplies to be affected to them to at least ₹ 10,00,000 further.

In the initial stages, they desire 30 days credit up to July 2011. Whereafter they are inclined to revert to 15 days credit. We strongly recommend the proposal and seek your confirmation on the matter.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. Plural form of memorandum
(a) Memoranda
(b) Memoranda
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
(b) Memoranda

2. Full form of ESOP
(a) Employee Sale Option Plan
(b) Employee Stock Option Proceder
(c) Employee Stock Option Plan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Employee Stock Option Plan.

3. Memos may relate to
(a) Show Cause Notice
(b) Charge – Sheet
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

4. ……………….. is a note or record for future use
(a) Office circulars
(b) Office Orders
(c) Memo
(d) Memorandum
Answer:
(d) Memorandum

5. What does Office Order do not include?
(a) Order No
(b) Subject
(c) Date
(d) Undersigned
Answer:
(b) Subject

6. What does a circular do not include?
(a) Circular No
(b) CC
(c) Date
(d) Under Signed
Answer:
(b) CC

7. …………………………………… is used for disseminating information to a large number of
(a) Office Circulars
(b) Office Order
(c) Office notice
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Office Circulars

8. ……………………… are preferred when one needs to convey information in writing.
(a) Office Order
(b) Office Circular
(c) Office Note
(d) Memorandum
Answer:
(d) Memorandum

9. …………………………… is devoid of solution.
(a) Office Order
(b) Office circular
(c) Office Note
(d) Memoranda
Answer:
(d) Memoranda

9. …………………………… is devoid of Solution.
(a) Office Order
(b) Memo Report
(c) Office Note
(d) Office Circular
Answer:
(d) Office Circular

10. …………………………….. carry a bold, underlined heading to help us identify them.
(a) Office Note
(b) Office Orders
(c) Office Circulars
(d) Memo Report
Answer:
(b) Office Orders.

11. Passive verb is preferred in which type of Inter – department communication?
(a) Office Order
(b) Memo Report
(c) Office Note
(d) Office Circular
Answer:
(a) Office Order

12. Format of differing from company to company
(a) Office Order
(b) Memo Report
(c) Office Note
(d) Office Circular
Answer:
(c) Office Note.

13. ………………………….. does not have salutation and complimentary close
(a) Memo
(b) Office Order
(c) Office Note
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Memo

14. ………………………………………………… is not a type of intra- organizational communication
(a) Advertisement
(b) Office Order
(c) Office Note
(d) Office Circular
Answer:
(a) Advertisement.

15. …………………………………………………… letters are necessary to be written on a letterhead.
(a) Office Notes
(b) Representation to Management
(c) Correspondence with Regional Office
(d) Office Orders
Answer:
(c) Correspondence with Regional Office.

16. ……………………… are used commonly for issuing instructions to the staff.
(a) Memos
(b) Office notes
(c) Office order
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Memos.

17. Office notes are exchanged between …………………………… different departments.
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Two
Answer:
(d) Two

18. Representation to management does not includes:
(a) Individual Preference
(b) Special holidays
(c) Suggestions for transfers
(d) Both (a) & ( b)
Answer:
(a) Individual Preference

19. …………………………. have a format similar to that of memorandums:
(a) Office notes
(b) Office circulars
(c) Office orders
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Office orders.

20. Replies to representation can be:
(a) Management could accept respect
(b) May give an oral replay
(c) Could issue an office order
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

21. Disseminate means:
(a) To cause faster or greater activity
(b) Respectful request
(c) Capable of being perceived
(d) To scatter or spread widely
Answer:
(d) To scatter or spread widely

22. The testing or a trial of a person’s conduct, character, qualifications or the like means:
(a) Bipartite
(b) Meritorious
(c) Probation
(d) Interoffice
Answer:
(c) Probation

23. Memo, report, office, circulars, staff newsletters, fax etc. are the form of
(a) Non-verbal communication
(b) Written communication
(c) Oral communication ‘
(d) Audio-visual communication
Answer:
(b) Written communication

24. Which type of inter-departmental communication is used when requesting for transfer?
(a) Office Circular
(b) Representation
(c) Memorandum
(d) Office Order.
Answer:
(d) Office orders have a format similar to that of memorandum. What makes them different is the purpose and tone employed. They generally deal with matters affecting rights and privileges of employees. The language used is formal and legally common. Passive verb are preferred. Therefore, office orders are used when requesting for transfer.

25. Which type of Inter-departmental communication is used for disseminating information to a large number of employees within an organisation?
(a) Memorandum
(b) Press release
(c) Office circular
(d) Office Order
Answer:
(c) Office Circulars: Office circulars are used for circulating information to large number of employees within the organisation. It is a type of Informal communication. It is an internal communication.

26. Which one of the following is correct about office notes?
(i) Office notes are a form of internal communication between two different departments
(ii) Office notes are put up by sections or departments to higher authorities
(iii) The actual layout of the office note is same for all the companies
The correct option is:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Oflice notes are exchanged between two different departments. Companies follow a particular format of flotes of this type. The actual layout of the note may differ from company to company. It is a matter of style and individual preference.
Thus, point (iii) is not correct.

27. ………………………………. are made in order to voice a grievance and to secure a relief.
(a) Business Communication
(b) Invoice
(c) Public Notices
(d) Representations.
Answer:
(d) Representations are made in order to voice a grievance and to secure a relief. When addressed to a public body, they may focus attention on a problem being faced by the signatories correctively.

28. A …………………………….. does not have a salutation and complimentary close.
(a) Purchase Order
(b) External Letter
(c) Call Letter
(d) Memo.
Answer:
(d) A memo is different from a letter, both in format and in its effect on the addressee. It is important to note that a memo doesn’t have salutation and complimentary close.

29. Memorandums are preferred when one needs to convey information –
(a) Urgently
(b) In writing
(c) Telephonically
(d) Verbally.
Answer:
(b) Memorandum means a record or written statement of something, that is why memorandums are always preferred when one needs to convey information in writing.

30. Which amongst the following is not included in memo?
(a) Issuing instructions
(b) Issuing suggestions
(c) Making requests
(d) Invitation of wedding.
Answer:
(d) Following are included in memo:

  • Issuing instructions
  • Issuing suggestions
  • Making requests

Thus, Invitation of wedding is not included in memo.

31. Full form of ESOP –
(a) Employee sale option plan
(b) Employee stock option plan
(c) Employee stock option procedure
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) The full form or ESOP is “Employee Stock Option Plan”. Thus option (b) is correct.

32. Format of ………………………….. differ from company to company.
(a) Office order
(b) Memo report
(c) Office note
(d) Office circular.
Answer:
(c) Office notes are exchanged between two different departments. Companies follow a particular format for ‘notes’ of this type. The actual layout of the ‘Note’ may differ from company to company.

33. Format of otf ice order’ is similar to that of
(a) Memorandum
(b) Office circular
(c) Office report
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Office order deals with rights and privileges of employees. They have format similar to that of memorandum.

34. Memos are not used for:
(a) For taking disciplinary action
(b) To pass orders
(c) Inviting staff for a wedding ceremony
(d) To disseminate information
Answer:
(c) Memos or Memorandums is commonly used as an office circular to give information, pass orders and for taking disciplinary actions. It is not used to invite for a wedding ceremony.

35. Memos are not used:
(a) To disseminate information
(b) To pass orders
(c) For inviting staff for a wedding ceremony
(d) For taking disciplinary action.
Answer:
(c) Memos or Memorandums is commonly used as an office circular to give information, pass orders and for taking disciplinary actions. It is not used to invite for a wedding ceremony.

35. Full form of ESOP –
(a) Employee sale option plan
(b) Employee stock option plan
(c) Employee stock option procedure
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Full form of ESOP – Employee Stock Option Plan

36. Format of differ from company to company.
(a) Office order
(b) Memo report
(c) Office note
(d) Office circular
Answer:
(d) Memos are used commonly for issuing to the staff, change in the policy inviting suggestions, giving information, making requests etc. Thus, memos are not used for inviting staff for wedding ceremony.

37. Which of the following Is not a form of intra-organisational
communication:
(a) Representations
(b) Press release
(c) Memorandum
(d) Office Notes.
Answer:
(b) Intra-organisational communication includes:
→Memorandum
→ Office Circulars
→ Office Notes
→ Office Orders
→ Representations
Press Release is not included in intra-organisational communication.

38. Office orders have a format similar to that of
(a) Press Release
(b) Representations
(c) Memorandums
(d) Advertisements.
Answer:
(c) Office Orders have a format similar to that of memorandums. What makes them different is the purpose and tone employed. They generally deal with matters affecting rights and privileges of employees. The language used is formal and legally common. Passive verbs are preferred. They carry a number since they remain in force till revoked and are tiled for future reference. In addition, they carry a bold, underlined heading to help us identify them.

39. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Representations can be based on convertible facts depending on the opportunity
(b) Representations never mention the relief expected
(c) Representations are drafted W an informal tone
(d) Representations are drafted using the format of a business letter
Answer:
(d) Representations are drafted using the format of business letter.

40. Which of the following is not the primary elements of a strong organisational compliance program
(a) A written code of conduct
(b) An ethics officer
(c) Significant financial expenditures
(d) A formal ethics training program
Answer:
(c) Significant financial expenditures is not a primary element of strong organisational compliance program but written Code of Conduct, formal ethics training program, ethics officer are primary elements.

41. When an organisation needs to share important information with members of general public such as a change of name or representative, it drafts:
(a) A press release
(b) An advertisement
(c) A public notice
(d) An e-mail message.
Answer:
(c) A public notice is a notice which is used when an organisation needs to share important information with members of general public such as change of name or representative.

42. A …………………………….. does not have a salutation and complimentary close.
(a) Purchase order.
(b) External letter
(c) Call letter
(d) Memo
Answer:
(d) A ‘Memo does not have a salutation or/and a complementary dose. In it informal tone and use of personal pronouns is allowed.

43. Memorandums are preferred when one needs to convey information –
(a) Urgently
(b) In writing
(c) Telephonically
(d) Verbally.
Answer:
(b) Memorandums are preferred when one needs to convey the InformatIon in writing.

44. Communication media is used in regional area?
(a) Interdepartmental
(b) Intra departmental
(c) Both of above.
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(b) Correspondence with Regional/Branch offices is also an important part of intra-organizational communication.

45. Great worth and earnest of feeling means:
(a) Tendered
(b) Fervour
(c) Courtesy
(d) Callous
Answer:
(b) The idiomatic expressions Great worth arid earnest of feeling means” – Fervour.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Government Initiatives for Business Development – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Government Initiatives for Business Development – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Start Up India Government Initiatives:
1. The Ministry of skill Development and entrepreneurship aim to skill on a large scale with speed and high standards in order to achieve its vision of a skilled India.

2. It is aided in these initiatives by its functional arms:

  • NSDA → National Skill Development Agency
  • NSDC → National Skill Development Corporation
  • NSDF → National Skill Development Fund
  • SSCS → 33 Sector Skill Councils

It also has 187 training partners registered with NSDC.

National Skill Development Agency (NSDA):

  1. It is an autonomous body which was created with the mandate to co-ordinate and harmonise the skill development activities in the country.
  2. It is a part of the Ministry of Skill Develdpment and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

The philosophy of NSDC is based on the following:

  1. Create: Proactively catalyse creation of large, quantity vocational training institutions.
  2. Funds: Reduce risk by proyiding patient capital including grants and equity.
  3. Enable: The creation and sustainability of support system required for shall development.

Objectives of NSDC:

  1. Upgrade skills to international standards.
  2. Enhance, support and co-ordinate private sector initiative.
  3. Play the role of “market-maker”
  4. Prioritize initiative that can have a multiplier or catalytic effect.

Partnerships:
NSDC operates through partnerships with multiple stakeholders in catalysing and evolving the skilling ecosystem.

  • Private Sector
  • International Engagement
  • Central Ministries
  • State Government
  • University/ School System
  • Non-profit organisations
  • Innovations

Achievements:

  • Over 5.2 million students trained.
  • 235 private sector partnerships for training and capacity building.
  • 38 sector skill councils CSSC approved in services, manufacturing, agriculture and allied services and informal sectors.
  • 1386 Qualification Packs with 6,744 unique National Occupational Standards (NOS)
  • Vocational training introduced in to states, covering 2400+ schools, 2 Boards, benefjtting over 2.5 lakhs students.
  • Designated implementation agency for largest voucher-based skill development program, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana.
  • Skill development Management System with 1400 partners, 28179 training centres, 16479 trainers, 20 job portals, 77 assessment agencies and 49863 empanelled assessors.
  • Hosting infrastructure certified by ISO 20,000/27,000 supported by dedicated personnel.

Start Up India –

Introduction:
A Start up is a company that is in the first stage of its operations.
These companies are often initially bank rolled by their entrepreneurial founder as they attempt to capitalize on developing a product or service

“Is searching for answers to the product it will sell, the customers it will serve and the way it will make money from delivering value to its customers”

Latest Policy Initiatives for Start-ups Ease of doing Business:

  • To simplify the regulatory framework, the government introduced the lease of doing business wherein an MSMF unit has to fill in a single one page self-declaration online form called – Udyog Aadhaar
  • The Apprentices Act, 1961 was amended to enable even the MSMF unit engage apprentices which will enable the units to get trained labours as well as in turn supply skilled labour.
  • To give boost to the make India programme, MSME Ministry has launched the ASPIRE Scheme in March 2015, a scheme for promotion of innovation, Rural industry and entrepreneurship.

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
This programme operated from NITI Aayog is about an Innovation Promotion Platform involving academics, entrepreneurship and research and draw upon national and international experience to foster a culture of innovation, R&D and scientific research in India.

SETU (Self Employment and Talent Utilization)
SETU meaning bridge in Hindi is a Techno Financial, Incubation and Facilitation Programme to support all aspects of start up businesses and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology driven areas operated from NITI Aayog.

The expert committee has identified five major drivers for creating a vibrant entrepreneurial eco-system.

  • Catalytic government policy and regulatory framework.
  • Easy access to equity capital and debt.
  • Businesses as entrepreneurial hubs.
  • Culture and institutions which encourage entrepreneurship over careerism.
  • Adequate and effective collaboration forums.

Start Up India:

  • The stand-up India Scheme provides loans to entrepreneurs of the , Scheduled Caste as well as women.
  • The loans range from ₹ 10 lakh to ₹ 1 crore.
  • The scheme helps them out by facilitating loans for non-farm sector entrepreneurship.

Eligibility:

  • SC/ST and /or women entrepreneur, above 18 years of age.
  • Loans under the scheme is available for only green field project.
  • In case of non-individual enterprise, 51% of the shareholding and controlling stake should be held by either SC/ST and or women Entrepreneur.
  • Borrower should not be in default to any bank/financial institution.
  • The product must be related to commercialisation.
  • The age of company must not exceed 5 years
  • Certification from DIPP.

Government Initiatives for Business Development MCQ Questions

1. Which ministry is responsible for co-ordination of all skill development efforts across the country?
(a) Ministry of finance
(b) Ministry of skill development and Entrepreneurship
(c) Ministry of Corporate
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Ministry of skill development and Entrepreneurship

2. The functional arms of Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship are:
(a) National Skill Development Agency (NSDA)
(b) National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
(c) National Skill Development Fund (NSDF)
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

3. NSDC is a unique model created with a well though underlying philosophy based on which pillars:
(a) Create
(b) Fund
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

4. National Skill Development Agency is based under which Act:
(a) Society’s Registration Act 1860
(b) Entrepreneurship Act, 1980
(c) Ministry Development Act, 1872
(d) Partnership Act, 1932
Answer:
(a) Society’s Registration Act 1860

5. NSDC operates through with multiple stakeholders in catalysing and evolving the skilling ecosystem.
(a) Partnership
(b) Good faith
(c) Mutual concern
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Partnership

6. The main objectives of the NSDC are to:
(a) Upgrade skills to international standards ‘
(b) Enhance, support and co-ordinate private sector initiatives
(c) Prioritize initiatives that can have a multiplier or catalytic effect
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

7. Which of these functional arms play a role of a “market-maker” __________.
(a) NSDC
(b) NSDA
(c) NSDC
(d) MSDE
Answer:
(a) NSDC

8. NSDC operates through partnerships with __________.
(a) Private Sector
(b) Central Ministries
(c) State Government
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) NSDC

9. For the ease of doing business the MSME unit has to fill in a single one page self-declaration online from called __________.
(a) Udyog Adhaar
(b) E-Adhaar
(c) Company Incorporation Form
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Udyog Adhaar

10. STAND UP INDIA scheme provides loans to entrepreneurs of:
(a) Schedule caste
(b) Schedule Tribe
(c) Women
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

11. What is the meaning of term SETU in Hindu?
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Bridge
(d) Pool
Answer:
(c) Bridge

12. A start up is a company that is in the stage of its operations __________.
(a) Early
(b) First
(c) Middle
(d) Slow
Answer:
(b) First

13. The key objectives of the AIM (Atal Innovation Mission) are __________.
(a) To create an umbrella structure
(b) To provide platform and collaboration
(c) To create awareness and provide knowledge
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

14. To get a loan from stand up India Scheme, the age of the company should not exceed __________.
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
Answer:
(d) 5 years

15. Under the __________ 50 percent of stipend payable to apprentices would be reimbursed by the government for the first two years is an incentive for MSME units to take in more apprentices.
(a) Apprentice Protsahan Yojana
(b) Apprenticeship Act 1961
(c) Workmens Compensation Act
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Apprentice Protsahan Yojana

16. The scheme launched by MSME Ministry in March 2015, for promotion of Innovation, Rural Industry and Entrepreneurship.
(a) Aspire scheme
(b) Mudra scheme
(c) Atal Innovation Mission
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Aspire scheme

17. Businesses as entrepreneurial hubs is one of the major drivers identified by The expert committee on Innovation and Entrepreneurship Innovative start ups Incubation Policy None of the a __________.
Answer:
(a) The expert committee on Innovation and Entrepreneurship
(b) Innovative start ups
(c) Incubation Policy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) The expert committee on Innovation and Entrepreneurship

18. In the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Ranking 2015 India is placed at __________.
(a) 154 place out of the total of 184 economies
(b) 142 place out of total of 189 economies
(c) 148 place out of total of 190 economies
(d) 146 place out of a total of 188 economies
Answer:
(b) 142 place out of total of 189 economies

19. Globally India Ranks in __________.
(a) 3rd position with 4200 startups
(b) 4th position with 4200 startups
(c) 2nd position with 4500 startups
(d) 5th position with 4800 startups
Answer:
(a) 3rd position with 4200 startups

20. The loans given to SC/ST and women Entrepreneurs under stand up India Scheme range from:
(a) ₹ 5 lakh to ₹ 1 crore
(b) ₹ 15 lakh to ₹ 1 crore
(c) ₹ 10 lakh to ₹ 1 crore
(d) ₹ 15 lakh to ₹ 2 crore
Answer:
(c) ₹ 10 lakh to ₹ 1 crore

21. Expansion of term SETU is __________.
(a) Self exchange and talent utilization
(b) Self exchange and trust utilization
(c) Self expert and team utilization
(d) Self Employment and talent utilization
Answer:
(d) Self Employment and talent utilization

22. To give boost to the make in India programme, the MSME Ministry launched __________.
(a) NDFC
(b) SBA
(c) SETU
(d) ASPIRE
Answer:
(d) ASPIRE

23. Which Ministry encourages skilled India?
(a) MSDC
(b) MSDE
(c) MDEI
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) MSDE
MSDE: Ministry of skill Development and Entrepreneurship encourages skilled India.

24. Over 5.2 million students trained under __________.
(a) Start up India
(b) Grown up India
(c) From developing to developed Scheme
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Start up India
Start Up India: Government Initiative achievements are –

  • Over 5.2 million students trained
  • Designated implementation agency for the largest voucher-based

Skill Development Program, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna (PMKVY) etc

25. SMILE scheme of ₹ ________ has also been launched to catalyze.
(a) 10,000 crore
(b) 10,000 LK
(c) 1,000 Million
(d) None
Answer:
(a) 10,000 crore
A SIDBI make in India loan for small enterprises (SMILE) scheme of ₹ 10,000 crore has also been launched to catalyze tens of thousands of crores equity investment in start-ups and MSMES.

26. ASPIRE scheme was launched in __________.
(a) March, 2018
(b) March, 2014
(c) March, 2015
(d) March, 2013
Answer:
(c) March, 2015
To give boost to the make in India programme, the MSME Ministry has launched the ASPIRE scheme in March 2015, a scheme for promotion of innovation, rural industry and entrepreneurship.

27. Full form SIDBI:
(a) Structure Industries Development Bank of India
(b) Social Industries Development Bank of India
(c) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Full form of SIDBI is Small Industrial Development Bank of India.

28. The loan given to SC/ST and women entrepreneur under standu scheme __________.
(a) 5 lack – 1 crore
(b) 10 lack – 1 crore
(c) 15 lack – 2 crores
(d) None
Answer:
(b) 10 lack – 1 crore
The stand up India scheme, provides loans to entrepreneurs of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes, as well as women. The loan range from ₹ 10 lakh to ₹ 1 crore.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Nature and Scope of Economics – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Nature and Scope of Economics – CS Foundation Economics Notes

Economics is the social science studying the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services. Economics is derived from the Greek word ‘oikonomikos’ which can be divided into two parts

Oikos – which means house
Nomos – which means management

At its most basic, however, economics considers how a society provides for its needs. Its most basic need is survival; which requires food, clothing, and shelter. For every society, it is required that its affairs are managed efficiently and for this, a person is required who can deal with these affairs. Here comes the requirement of an economist. Economists are the people who try to find out the way in which the wants of the people can be satisfied. The job of the economist is very difficult as he has to find out a way to satisfy the wants of people from the limited resources available to mankind.

Economics may appear to be the study of complicated tables and charts, statistics and numbers, but, more specifically, it is the study of what constitutes rational human behavior in the endeavor to fulfill needs and wants. Economics can also be defined as house management. The role of economists revolves around wants scarcity of resources and satisfaction of wants with the help of limited resources. Challenges for economists are

  • Study the ways to tackle unlimited wants of society
  • Resources in a society are always limited
  • Wants are always increasing and are more than resources
  • Alternate systems are required to allocate these resources between all the wants

As an individual, for example, you face the problem of having only limited resources with which to fulfill your wants and needs, as a result; you must make certain choices with your money. You’ll probably spend part of your money on rent, electricity, and food. Then you might use the rest to go to the movies and/or buy a new pair of jeans.

Economists are interested in the choices you make, and inquire into why, for instance, you might choose to spend your money on a new DVD player instead of replacing your old TV. They would want to know whether you would still buy a carton of cigarettes if prices increased by Rs. 2 per pack. The underlying essence of economics is trying to understand how both individuals and nations behave in response to certain material constraints.

Economics is pervasive in nature. It is used both for academics as well as for the formulation of policies by all sections of society. The reasons for use of economics for a business entity are multiple, some of them are

  • To earn profit
  • To grow in adverse conditions
  • Maximize control over the market
  • To increase their wealth
  • To survive when the market is not good
  • To become economically strong

Economics is scientific as it seeks to explain events that take place in the real world by way of observation, hypothesis, prediction, experimentation, and conclusion. The focus of economics is on human behavior makes it a social science

1. Study of Economics
Economics is a driving force of human interaction, thus studying economics helps us to understand why people and government are behaving in a particular way. People who study economics are called economists. These are the people who help in the rational use of resources. As we know wants are ever-changing and ever-increasing but resources but the resources to satisfy the wants of people, industry, and country are limited. Thus economists have to come out with plans ‘ so that these resources can be used in a way to get maximum benefit.

Economics is concerned with the production & consumption of resources in the most beneficial way In way economics can be said as a study of making choices. To understand it better we have to understand what are our resources. Resources can be anything raw material, any goods, and services, etc. Economics for an individual needs to decide between his needs like owning a car is more beneficial or owning a house out of his limited cash resources. Similarly, the company has to decide whether the production of product ‘A’ is more beneficial or product ‘B’. Similarly country has to decide whether giving tax benefits is more beneficial or giving infrastructure. A priority of the satisfaction of want is the most important work of economists.

Thus the economic system is made of two parts

Economic wants – Economic wants are ever-increasing wants. They include the consumption of goods and services.
Noneconomic wants – these are wants that are not related to the consumption of goods and services
eg. Economic want would be a home to live in while a non-economic want will be a happy living (peace of mind).

2. Definitions of Economics
Several definitions of Economics have been given. For the sake of convenience let us classify the various definitions into four groups:

  1. Science of wealth
  2. Science of material well-being
  3. Science of choice making
  4. Science of dynamic growth and development We shall examine each one of these briefly

3. Science of wealth (Adam Smith)
Adam Smith, considered to be the founding father of modem Economics, defined Economics as the study of the nature and causes of nations’ wealth or simply as the study of wealth. Features of his definition of economics are:

  • His definition considered economics as the science of wealth creation.
  • His view for the economy was to look for the ways in which the maximum wealth an individual or a country can get.
  • As per him a good economy needs to be production-based and has no place for non-tangible services like health, teaching, etc.
  • The economic policy of a country is to look out for ways in which wealth can be created
  • It highlighted an important problem faced by each and every nation of the world, namely the creation of wealth
  • The book in which his concepts of definition were given is ‘An inquiry into the nature & causes of the wealth of Nations’

Merits of Adam Smith definition

  • Since the problems of poverty, unemployment, etc. can be solved to a greater extent when wealth is produced and is distributed equitably which justifies the definition addresses the problems of economic growth and increase in the production of wealth.
  • can be considered as the first step towards the healthy economics

Demerits of Adam Smith’s definition

  • no emphasis on distribution of income amongst masses
  • ignoring the things which are incidental to the productive definition of economics such as health, education, etc.
  • Ricardo was another economist which did agree with the wealth definition but he emphasized the distribution of wealth

4. Science of material well-being (A. Marshall)
A. Marshall was the person who gave the theory emphasizing the material welfare of man. Characteristic features of his theory are

  • Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life
  • Basic principle was the creation of wealth and use of wealth
  • It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well-being
  • it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side a part of the study of the man
  • man gets precedence over wealth
  • He wrote the book “ Principles of Economy” which tells about his way of defining economics.

Merits of A. Marshall theory

  • His definition is better as compared to Adam Smith
  • In his definition importance is given to human life and society
  • He stresses individual and social welfare
  • Also discusses the unequal distribution of wealth

Demerits

  • It is not possible to define welfare
  • Nonmaterial services were ignored
  • Restricted the scope and subject matter of economics
  • There is no unanimity about the concept of welfare
  • Human welfare talked was related to material goods and services and not the political and social aspects of life.

“The range of our inquiry becomes restricted to that part of social welfare that can be brought directly or indirectly
into relation with the measuring rod of money” by A.C. Pigou. His definition involved only welfare in contrast to A. Marshall which involved welfare as well as wealth creation. The book written by A.C. Pigou is “ The economics of welfare” which tells about his way of defining economics.

5. Science of choice-making – L. Robbins
Economics is the definition of scarcity as per L. Robbins. According to Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behavior as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.
He wrote a book “ An essay on the nature and significance of economic science” which tells about his way of defining economics.

6. Characteristics of his definition

  • Emphasized points like scarcity of resources
  • Human wants are unlimited
  • Limited means to satisfy human wants
  • Alternative uses of scarce resources
  • Need for choice and optimization
  • Efficient use of scarce resources.
  • As per him, the role of economists is to investigate how the economy is trying to solve the problem of scarcity and report it.
  • Economist job is to study economics to see what is and not what it should be

Merits

  • Stressed on points like scarcity of resources, unlimited wants and different alternatives to be chosen for a resource
  • His theory gave away that for the satisfaction of wants there are various alternative ways to choose.
  • It is more realistic and practical.
  • the definition clearly identifies the existence of the economic problem in a most comprehensive manner.
  • Robbins brings into focus not only goods but also services required to satisfy human wants.

Demerits

  • Lacked the utilization of knowledge that an economist has. As per critics economists, knowledge is to be used for the betterment of the nation and not to sit and act just like an investigator
  • No importance has been given to services like education, law, etc. Which can not be provided by the market instead it is to be provided by authorities.
  • Made economics a pure science
  • Described economics only as a valuation theory
  • It ignores the macro aspect of economics

7. Science of dynamic growth and development (Paul Samuelson)
Economics is concerned with determining the pattern of employment of scarce resources to produce commodities over time. Thus, the dynamic problems of production have been brought within the purview of Economics. His definition was more inclusive definition.
Characteristic features

  • A large number of modem economists subscribe to this broad definition of Economics.
  • the modern definition of Economics is the most comprehensive of all the definitions
  • All the issues that were highlighted in the earlier definitions are included here
  • In addition, the issues of development of a backward economy, as well as those of growth in a mature capitalist economy, form part of this definition
  • Economics, as it stands today, is built on the basis of this comprehensive definition.

Merits

  • As per his definition economics is the study of the scarcity of resources and giving an efficient use to those resources.
  • This definition is practical in nature.
  • His definition is complete and advance.
  • Distribution of resources is to be done for economic development
  • Economics is a systematic use of resources
  • It recognizes the dynamic changes taking place, both in the means (resources) and ends (wants) with the passage of time.
  • His definition is growth-oriented
  • Economics analyses the costs and benefits of improving the pattern of resource allocation.

Economics -As science and as an art:
Often a question arises – whether Economics is a science or an art or both. Economics can be treated as science as it can be measured in monetary terms and has a separate way of studying it, it can forecast but still, it can not be truly considered as science because the results vary upon the economist who is analyzing it. Thus the study of economics is dependent on the thoughts of an economist who is studying it. For one subject of economics, the results vary as per each economist thus it can not be science because science gives the same result irrespective of the person who is studying it.

8. Economics is a science
Science is the systematized body of knowledge that creates a relationship between causes and their effects. In other words, every discipline has got certain theories, concepts,s, and laws showing the relationship between causes and their effects in science. Economics has got its own theories, concepts, and laws, so it is definitely a science though not an exact science, like Physics and Chemistry.
If we analyze Economics, we find that it has all the features of science.

  • studies the relationship between cause and effect.
  • It is capable of measurement.
  • It has its own methodological apparatus.
  • It should have the ability to forecast

9. Classification of science
A.Positive Science
B.Normative science
A.Positive science – It presents the real picture of facts without any comments and suggestions. Economics also deals with positive issues, so it is a positive science. By positive science, we mean that economics is concerned with the satisfaction of unlimited wants from limited resources. A community may use its limited resources for making guns rather than butter, but it is no concern of the economists to condemn or appreciate this policy. Professor Robbins emphasized the positive aspects of science but Marshall and Pigou have considered the ethical aspects of science which obviously are normative.

B.Normative Science – Normative science is concerned with human values. It is prescriptive in nature and described ‘what should be the things’. It promotes social and economic values. Economics is also normative science because it suggests ways and measures to be adopted for the economic betterment of the people. For example, the questions like what should be the level of national income, what should be the wage rate, – all fall within the scope of normative science.

10. Economics as an Art
Art is nothing but the practice of knowledge, economics is very complex, there are no easy overarching explanations like E=MC2. Science gives theories but linking theory to the real world is always going to be a very subjective experience. It depends on which sets of data you use, it depends on which assumptions to make, it depends on who makes the assumption. Unlike science which is theoretical, art is practical.

11. Major branches of economics
Economic analysis is concerned with how an economy works, the formulation of economic laws, the methods of economic inquiry, and the different approaches to economics. Economic theory, as it stands today, has several branches.

1. Microeconomics
“Micro” is derived from the Greek word “Mikros” meaning small. It is also described as price and value theory. This part of economics is concerned with individuals like one individual, one firm, etc. Micro-Economics is concerned with

  1. Product pricing;
  2. Consumer behavior
  3. Factor pricing;
  4. Economic conditions of a section of the people;
  5. Study of firms; and
  6. Location of an industry.

2. Macroeconomics
“Macro is derived from the Greek word “Makros” meaning large. Macroeconomics is that branch of economics that is concerned with the economic magnitudes relating to the economic system as a whole, rather than to the microeconomic units like individuals or firms. It is also called aggregate economics as it is the study of all the units together. It is more realistic.
Macroeconomics is concerned with

  1. National income and output;
  2. price level;
  3. Balance of trade and payments;
  4. The external value of money;
  5. Saving and investment;
  6. Government policy
  7. Employment and economic growth

3. International economics – International trade between countries has introduced one more branch of economics which deals with the trades between countries. International economics is the field of study that deals with trade between countries. Some of the topics considered in the field of international economics are differences in taxes, exchange rates, the role of regulations in different countries, etc.

4. Public Finance – It is also known as fiscal economics as it deals with the role of government in economics. It has ruled out the concept of laissez-faire (no role of Government in economy). It outcasts the earlier theories which overruled the role of government in economics.

5. Health economics- for human development it has been realized that health also plays an important role. Moreover, education economics is also emerging up.

6. Development economics – After Second World War many countries got freedom from colonial rule and a new field of economics emerged known as development economics.

7. Environmental Economics – Awareness regarding nature and its effect on mankind has emerged one major branch of economics called environmental economics. It is been found that environmental economics is required for sustainable development.

8. Urban and Rural economics – The role of location is very much important for economics. Urban economics is broadly the economic study of urban areas; as such, it involves using the tools of economics to analyze urban issues such as crime, education, etc. Rural economies is the study of rural economies such as farm and nonfarm industry, etc.

9. Managerial economics – It answers the five fundamental problems of decision-making. These problems are:

  • what should be the product mix
  • which is the least cost production technique and input mix
  • what should be the level of output and price of the product
  • how to take investment decisions.
  • how much should be the selling cost

12. Economic Problem
The main economic problems faced by every society are:

  1. Unlimited human wants,
  2. Limited availability of resources to satisfy those wants, and
  3. Fulfillment of unlimited wants with limited resources.

The first thing to be thought about is what to produce which means limited resources are to be given a route. It is to be decided out of these limited resources which unlimited want can be satisfied. The second thing is how to produce? Thus the product produced from this limited resource has to be cost-effective which means the cost of production is to be minimum but production has to be maximum. Now for this, we have to decide about the procedure which is most cost-effective.
The third thing is for whom we want to produce?
To answer these three things Samuelson used the production possibility curve. A production possibility curve tells what to produce in the most beneficial way.

13. Production Possibility Curve Features of PPC are

  • The production possibility curve is a hypothetical representation of the amount of two different goods that can be obtained by shifting resources from the production of one to the production of the other.
  • The curve is used to describe a society’s choice between two different goods.
  • A production possibilities curve (PPC) represents the boundary or frontier of the economy’s production capabilities, hence it is also frequently termed a production possibilities frontier (PPF).
  • Asa frontier, it is the maximum production possible given existing (fixed) resources and technology.
  • Producing on the curve means resources are fully employed while producing inside the curve means resources are unemployed.
  • The law of increasing opportunity cost is what gives the curve its distinctive convex shape.
    Important things to notice about the definition of the production possibility curve are:
  • It indicates all possible combinations of the production of two goods or services.
  • It is assumed that all the resources of a society are used fully and efficiently.

Nature and Scope of Economics – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 1 img 1

In the above picture, there is a PPC of two products butter and gun. Anything inside the curve that points to A indicates inefficient production while C which lies outside the graph shows that reaching this point is impossible.

Line on which point B lies in the production possibility curve so various combinations of production between butter and guns lie on this line.

Thus if we move little up from point B than more of guns will be produced and less butter from the available resources and if we move below point B than more butter and less guns will be produced Thus it is to be decided that which item is needed more because resources are limited. This is being described as opportunity cost. Opportunity cost is the value of what is foregone in order to have something else. This value is unique for each individual. You may, for instance, forgo guns in order to have extra butter. A higher production curve can be achieved with the improvement of technology from the same resources.

14. Different types of Economic System
The type of economic system present in the system is

  1. Capitalist Economy
  2. Socialist Economy
  3. Mixed Economy

1.Capitalist Economy – This economic system emphasizes the freedom of individuals as consumers and suppliers of resources, and allows market forces to determine the allocation of scarce resources through the mechanism called price. Features of such economy are

  • It is Based on market demand and supply, consumers are free to buy goods and services of their choice and
  • producers allocate their resources based on the demand.
  • Price plays an important role
  • Whole of the economy is in the hands of private enterprises
  • Role of Government is negligible
  • It is theoretical type of economic system cause there are certain fields where involvement of Government is must like defence, health etc.
  • Consumers choose the products they want and producers allocate their available resources to that product based on the demand for different products.
  • Even if the economy is capitalist some part of it is still in the hands of the Government
  • Unequal distribution of money
  • Monopolistic competitive
  • Policy of Laissez faire
  • More rewarding for right decisions and hard work
  • No place for human values
  • Because of competition, national resources are wasted as only profitable products are produced
  • Faster growth because of competitiveness
  • 2.Socialist Economy – In such kind of economy whole market is in the hands of Government and co-operatives. Socialism emphasizes equality rather than achievement, and values workers by the amount of time they put in rather than by the amount of value they produce. It also makes individuals dependent on the state for everything from food to health care. Characteristic features are
  • Removes the inequalities
  • socialism is based on bureaucratic central planning and collective ownership.
  • Socialism believes that it provides economic security
  • No competition as consumers have to choose from what has been produced
  • Not a consumer-driven economy.
  • Thus, all decisions, from the allocation of resources to the distribution of end products are taken care of by the government.
  • There is no place for private ownership
  • It is a classless society as no property is owned by private individuals
  • It eliminates the fluctuations of the economy
  • Slow growth as no competition
  • In this type of systems, efficient can be achieved only when demand are accurately estimated and resources allocated accordingly.
  • No incentives for hard work

3.Mixed economy – Mixed economy has features of both socialism as well as capitalism but there is no fixed proportion of capitalism and socialism. Mixed economies as an economic ideal are supported by people of various political persuasions. Characteristic features are

  • A mixed economy uses cost-benefit analysis to answer the fundamental questions discussed earlier – what, how, and for whom to produce.
  • The economic freedom side includes privately-owned industry for reasons including individual freedom, economic efficiency and the incentive to innovate provided by competition. The government regulation side addresses concerns that the private sector cannot be (or at least has never yet been) well equipped to address, such as environmental protection, maintenance of employment standards, etc.
  • here, government controls the price fluctuations to achieve certain objectives such as a high level of Employment and Low level of Inflation.
  • India practices mixed economy system.
  • In this system market mechanism is not totally abolished.
  • the success of the system depends on the knowledge, expectation, and application of government authorities.
  • A mixed economy is a mixture of freedom and control with no principle rules or theories to define it
  • In some areas of a mixed economy, the government may even have a monopoly.
  • Most of the developed countries of the world have a mixed economy.
  • The mixture of two different economic philosophies can imply a variety of consequences for a country, some of which are seen as beneficial, while others are neutral or detrimental.
  • Mixed economies are also known as dual economies.

15. Economic cycles
The natural fluctuation of the economy between periods of expansion (growth) and contraction (recession) is economic cycle Features of economic cycles are

  • Factors such as gross domestic product (GDP), interest rates, levels of employment and consumer spending can help to determine the current stage of the economic cycle.

16. Economic boom
In this demand for goods and services, both are increasing. Features of the Economic boom are

  • The period is marked by productivity increases, sales increases, wage increases and rising demand.
  • An economic boom may be accompanied by a period of inflation.
  • In the stock market, booms are associated with bull markets, Booms are generally followed by bust. The reason being the growth that takes place in a boom is rarely maintained and backed up by actual company profits

17. Economic slowdown
A situation in which GDP growth slows but does not decline. Features of an economic slowdown are

  • Output is still rising while demand has declined For example, if GDP goes from 5% growth to 3% growth, an economy is experiencing a slowdown. Most analysts do not consider a slowdown to be a recession, but unemployment may rise and productivity may. decline.

18. Economic recession
In economics, a recession is a business cycle contraction, a general slowdown in economic activity.
Feature is

  • There is a fall in output as well as demand
  • GDP, employment, investment spending, capacity utilization, household income, business profits, and inflation fall, while bankruptcies and the unemployment rate rise.

Nature and Scope of Economics MCQ Questions

Question 1.
a.To understand society economic description
b.To understand global affairs
c.To be an informed voter
d.All of the above
Answer:
d.All of the above

Question 2.
The word “oikes” means
a.Management
b.House
c.Economics
d.Demand
Answer:
b.House

Question 3.
The need for economics arises as
a.We all comprise a society
b.The resources are limited
c.It is the management of the house
d.None of the above
Answer:
b.The resources are limited

Question 4.
Capitalism, socialism is
a. Study of economics
b.Economic decisions
c.Alternate forms of an economy
d.Economic decisions
Answer:
a. Study of economics

Question 5.
A sharp fall in business profits is
a.Economic inflation
b.Economic slowdown
c.Economic recession
d.All of the above
Answer:
c.Economic recession

Question 6.
Study of economics does not include
a.Interrelationshipbetweendifferent economics
b.Alternate form of economy
c. Study of mixed economy
d.None of the above
Answer:
d.None of the above

Question 7.
It is not Uncommon in a socialist economy that
a.Private property is abolished
b.Economic activities are guided by market forces
c.There is the absence of state intervention
d.People acquire a motive for earning
Answer:
c.There is the absence of state intervention

Question 8.
A politician proposes reducing business taxes, a move she says will encourage risk-taking entrepreneurship. This proposed out in business taxes is intended to dilute the economy mainly through
a.an increase in aggregate supply
b.a decrease in aggregate supply.
c.a decrease in aggregate demand.
d.an increase in aggregate demand.
Answer:
a.an increase in aggregate supply

Question 9.
When you judge economic decisions as per your own values, which category of economics would you be applying?
a.Political economics
b.Normative economics
c.Economics theory
d.Positive economics
Answer:
b.Normative economics

Question 10.
This is not the benefit of Robbins style of economic description
a.Problem can be found at any place
b.It is the study of human behavior
c.More logical explanation of the economic problem
d.Concentrates more on the ordinary life of man
Answer:
d.Concentrates more on the ordinary life of man

Question 11.
If an the economy is operating at a point inside the production possibilities curve,
a.its resources are being wasted
b.the curve will begin to shift inward
c.the curve will begin to shift outward
d.this is a trick question because an economy cannot produce at a point inside the curve.
Answer:
a.its resources are being wasted

Question 12.
If a new motorway is built near to a company, thus reducing its costs, this is an example of:
a.financial economies of scale
b.managerial economies of scale
c.technical economies of scale
d.external economies of scale
Answer:
d.external economies of scale

Question 13.
It can be called technical economies of scale. Select out
a. Financial economies of scale.
b.Engineers rule.
c.Administrative economies of scale
d.External economies of scale
Answer:
b.Engineers rule.

Question 14.
Samuelson’s definition of economics takes care of _________
a.Scarcity
b.Efficiency
c.Economic science
d.Both a & b
Answer:
d.Both a & b

Question 15.
The principle that has to do with the growth of the firm is known as:
a.Returns of scale
b.internal economies and diseconomies of scale
c.external economies and diseconomies of scale
d Both A and B are correct
Answer:
b.internal economies and diseconomies of scale

Question 16.
The size of firms may be measured by:
a.The number of employees
b.the value of the capital owned by the firm
c.The value of the output of the firm
d.A, B, and C are all correct.
Answer:
c.The value of the output of the firm

Question 17.
It is Not Uncommon in a socialist economy
a.Private property is abolished
b.Economic activities are guided by market forces
c.No existence of classes
d.Both a & c
Answer:
d.Both a & c

Question 18.
The main sources of internal economies of scale are:
a.plant economies and industry economies
b.firm economies and industry economies
c.plant economies and firm economies
d.plant economies, firm economies, and industry economies
Answer:
b.firm economies and industry economies

Question 19.
Demerits in wealth definition of economics are
a.Wealth was taken as an end to human activities
b.Problem of income inequality was not the main concern when this theory was made
c.Economy at that time needed more production
d.None of the above
Answer:
a.Wealth was taken as an end to human activities

Question 20.
Production possibility curve is used for
a.Determining the production of the products in accordance with its resources
b.Determining the production, if technology is improved
c.Both a & b
d.None of the above
Answer:
c.Both a & b

Question 21.
A large firm is able to buy its material requirements in large quantities (bulk buying) and this enables it to obtain preferential terms in the form of bulk discounts. It is
a.marketing economies
b.financial economies
c.research and development economies
d.managerial economies
Answer:
a.marketing economies

Question 22.
It is common in a mixed economy
a.It fails to adjust itself with the changing circumstances
b.Its success depends on the experience of government
c.Market mechanism is not totally abolished
d.All of the above
Answer:
d.All of the above

Question 23.
The term Laissez – faire means
a.People acquire a motive for earning
b.Absence of state intervention
c.Economic activities are guided by market forces
d.People acquire a motive for earning
Answer:
b.Absence of state intervention

Question 24.
A firm has creditworthiness, which helps him to have funds at lower interest. This statement refers to
a.marketing economies
b.financial economies
c.research and development economies
d.managerial economies
Answer:
b.financial economies

Question 25.
What is true for economics?
a.Economics is based on noneconomic wants
b.Economic is based on human wants
c.Economics is the use of scarce resources
d.All of the above
Answer:
d.All of the above

Question 26.
a firm’s long-run average cost of production increases by 15 percent as a result of an 8 percent increase in production the firm is most likely experiencing
a.economies of scale
b.diseconomies of scale
c.constant returns to scale
d.none of the above
Answer:
b.diseconomies of scale

Question 27.
The major cause of internal diseconomies of scale is:
a.management problems
b.Diversification
c.specialization
d.any one of the above
Answer:
a.management problems

Question 28.
One country enjoys a comparative advantage over another in producing oil when
a.it has more oil than the other country
b.it can produce oil at a lower opportunity cost than the other country
c.it does not need to import oil
d.it wants to export as much oil as possible.
Answer:
b.it can produce oil at a lower opportunity cost than the other country

Question 29.
The types of economic systems are based upon
a.Per capita income
b.Scarcity of resources
c.Both a & b
d.None of the above
Answer:
c.Both a & b

Question 30.
It is Uncommon to find in a capitalist economy
a.Partial control of government
b.Economic decisions being government taken by the government
c.Inequality of wealth
d.All of the above
Answer:
b.Economic decisions being government taken by the government

Question 31.
Drought conditions create water shortages. Assuming that water consumption can be measured for each household, select the water policy below that is most likely to cause the greatest reduction in water use by urban households.
a.Give water to users with instructions to use it wisely
b.charge a flat constant fee of Rs. 50 per liter per household, irrespective of the amount of water used.
c.Raise the price of water from Rs. 2 to Rs. 50 per liter with the biggest water users (per capita) paying the highest price per liter
d.Charge Rs„ 20 per month and limit household consumption.
Answer:
c.Raise the price of water from Rs. 2 to Rs. 50 per litre with the biggest water users (per capita) paying the highest price per litre

Question 32.
The central problem for every economy is
a.Market
b.What to produce
c.Competition
d.None of the above
Answer:
b.What to produce

Question 33.
A system where private businesses make economic decisions regarding investment decisions, production decisions and distribution of output is
a.Socialistic Economy
b.Communism
c.Both a & b
d.Capitalistic economy
Answer:
b.Communism

Question 34.
Internal economies of scale occur when
a.the output increases for the industry
b.the output increase for the firm
c.the output decreases for the industry
d.none of the above
Answer:
b.the output increase for the firm

Question 35.
Diseconomies of scale are a sign that
a.the company is running at peak efficiency
b.the company can increase the level of production
c.the company should consider a reduction in production
d.the company should consider hiring more people
Answer:
c.the company should consider a reduction in production

Question 36.
A cooperative buying group is an example of
a.A factor leading to internal economies of scale
b.A factor leading to external economies of scale
c.both A and B
d.None of the above
Answer:
b.A factor leading to external economies of scale

Question 37.
Originally economics was originated as
a.Science
b.Arts
c.Political science
d.All of the above
Answer:
a.Science

Question 38.
_______ is considered as the father of modern economics
a.Bernard Shaw
b.Adam Smith
c.Marshall
d.None of the above
Answer:
b.Adam Smith

Question 39.
Adam Smith’s definition revolved around
a.Scarcity
b.Distribution of resources
c.Wealth creation
d.Both a & b
Answer:
c.Wealth creation

Question 40.
Characteristic features of a wealth-based economics definition given by Smith are
a.To look for the causes that can help in the creation of wealth
b.Accumulation of wealth is the economic development
c.Economic development should include the development of nontangible service
d.Both a & b
Answer:
d.Both a & b

Question 41.
Which of the following is an example of an external economy of scale?
a.bulk – buying;
b.administrative savings made by having only one office
c.courses relevant to your business at local colleges
d.costs fall for technical reasons as production rises
Answer:
c.courses relevant to your business at local colleges

Question 42.
If administration or communication becomes more difficult and costly in a large company, this is an example of:
a.internal economies of scale;
b.diseconomies of scale;
c.diseconomies of scale
d.increasing returns
Answer:
c.diseconomies of scale

Question 43.
If an industry is characterized by very large firms then it is likely to have
a.economies of scale and decreasing costs
b.diseconomies of scale and increasing costs
c.constant costs;
d.perfect competition;
Answer:
a.economies of scale and decreasing costs

Question 44.
Both households and societies face problems because
a.resources are scarce
b.populations may increase or decrease over time
c.wages for households and therefore society fluctuate with business cycles.
d.people by nature, tend to disagree
Answer:
a.resources are scarce

Question 45.
The branch of economics that deals with the sum total of economic activities dealing with the issues of growth, unemployment and inflation is
a.Microeconomics
b.Microeconomics study of aggregate economic behavior
c.Both a & b
d.Macroeconomics.
Answer:
c.Both a & b

Question 46.
Economics deals primarily with the concept of
a.scarcity
b.poverty
c.change
d.power
Answer:
a.scarcity

Question 47.
Households and economies have each of the following in common except both.
a.must allocate scarce resources.
b.face many decisions.
c.must allocate the goods and services they produce
d.must have a central decision-maker
Answer:
d.must have a central decision-maker

Question 48.
What do economists mean when they state that goods are scarce?
a.there is a shortage or insufficient supply of the good at the existing price.
b.it is impossible to expand the availability of the good.
c.people will want to buy more of the good regardless of price
d. the amount the good the people would like to have exceeds the supply that is freely available from nature
Answer:
d.the amount the good the people would like to have exceeds the supply that is freely available from nature

Question 49.
The basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics is that
a.macroeconomics looks at the aggregate markets, while microeconomics is concerned with the subcomponents.
b.macroeconomics is a concern with policy decisions, while microeconomics applies only to theory.
c.microeconomics is concerned with the aggregate markets, while macroeconomics is concerned with the components.
d.opportunity cost is applicable to macroeconomics, and the fallacy of composition relates to microeconomics.
Answer:
a.macroeconomics looks at the aggregate markets, while microeconomics is concerned with the subcomponents.

Question 50.
The economic analysis assumes that
a.for the most part, individuals act out of selfish motives, and it is realistic to assume this is always true.
b.although individuals are at times selfish and at times altruistic, only their selfish actions may be predicted.
c.people are basically humanitarian and their actions are therefore difficult to predict.
d.changes in the personal benefits and costs associated with an activity will exert a predictable influence on human behavior
Answer:
d.changes in the personal benefits and costs associated with an activity will exert a predictable influence on human behavior

Question 51.
The study of entire systems of economics is.
a.macroeconomics
b.microeconomics
c.Finance
d.All of the above
Answer:
a.macroeconomics

Question 52.
Economic theories:
a.are useless because they are not based upon laboratory experimentation.
b.that are true for individual economic units are never true for the economy as a whole
c.are generalizations based upon careful observation of facts.
d.are abstractions and therefore of no application to real situations.
Answer:
c.are generalizations based upon careful observation of facts.

Question 53.
The main field of social science of economics is
a.Microeconomics.
b.Macroeconomics.
c.Inflation.
d.None of the above.
Answer:
a.Microeconomics.

Question 54.
The production possibility frontier shows the _________ of production that can be obtained by an economy, given _________
a.minimum amounts; efficiency.
b.minimum amounts; technology and inputs to production.
c.maximum amounts; technology and inputs to production.
d.maximum amounts; efficiency
Answer:
c.maximum amounts; technology and inputs to production.

Question 55.
which of the following is most likely to benefit a debtor?
a.unanticipated deflation
b.anticipated deflation
c.unanticipated inflation
d.anticipated inflations
Answer:
b.anticipated deflation

Question 56.
which of the following is NOT included in the decisions that every society must make?
a.what goods will be produced
b.who will produce goods
c.what determines consumer preferences
d.who will consume the goods
Answer:
c.what determines consumer preferences

Question 57.
Only one statement is impeccable. Select
a.Theories involve models, and models involve variables.
b.models involve theories, and theories involve variables.
c.a theory is a model
d.none of the above
Answer:
a.Theories involve models, and models involve variables.

Question 58.
What will happen when the Reserve bank lowers the reserve requirement?
a.investors will purchase “ open market” bonds.
b.banks must hold fewer money
c.people will deposit more money
d.banks will create more money
Answer:
d.banks will create more money

Question 59.
With existing resources, the economy can be achieved to the fullest by
a.Productive efficiency
b.Allocative efficiency
c.Full employment
d.All of the above
Answer:
b.Allocative efficiency

Question 60.
GDP measures
a.expenditure on all final goods and services
b. total income of everyone in the economy
c.total value-added by all firms in the economy
d.all of the above
Answer:
d.all of the above

Question 61.
Economic choice and competitive behavior are the results of
a.basic human need.
b.poverty
c.private ownership of resources
d.scarcity
Answer:
d.scarcity

Question 62.
which one of the following states is a central element of the economic way of thinking?
a.scarce goods are priceless
b.Incentives matter if the personal cost of a choice increases, individuals will be less likely to choose it
c.the realism of the assumptions is the best test of an economic theory
d.when deciding how to allocate time, the concept of opportunity cost is meaningless.
Answer:
b.Incentives matter if the personal cost of a choice increases, individuals will be less likely to choose it

Question 63.
Adam Smith believed that if people were free to pursue their own interests, then
a. Greed and cheating would prevail in the market,
b.less would be produced than if altruism were our guiding principle.
c.they would generally be encouraged to produce goods and services that others valued highly (relative to their costs).
d.the public interest would best serve, but the interests of employers would be hurt.
Answer:
c.they would generally be encouraged to produce goods and services that others valued highly (relative to their costs).

Question 64.
“If economics was laid end to end, they would not reach a conclusion” This definition was given by
a.Adam smith
b.George Bernard Shaw
c.Marshall
d.None of the above
Answer:
b.George Bernard Shaw

Question 65.
Wants that are related to the consumption of goods and services is
a.Economic wants
b. Noneconomic wants
c.Economics
d.All of the above
Answer:
a.Economic wants

Question 66.
Economics is dynamic in nature so is its description because
a.Of the ever development of economics
b.Field of experience of the economist
c.The particular subject of economics that is being studied
d.All of the above
Answer:
d.All of the above

Question 67.
Three basic decisions must be made by all economies. What are they?
a.how much will be produced; when it will be produced; how much it will cost.
b.what the price of each goodwill be; who will produce each good; who will consume each good
c.what will be produced; who goods will be produced; for whom goods will be produced
d.how the opportunity cost principle will be applied; if and how the law of comparative advantage will be utilized; whether the production possibilities constraint will apply
Answer:
c.what will be produced; who goods will be produced; for whom goods will be produced

Question 68.
Economic profit is best defined as
a.a company’s net income as indicated by its accounting statement.
b.the difference between the price of a product and the monetary cost of the raw materials use to produce it.
c.the difference between the resources used to produce it.
d.income paid by a business to its owners.
Answer:
c.the difference between the resources used to produce it.

Question 69.
When a price floor is above the equilibrium price
a.quantity demanded will exceed quantity supplied.
b.quantity supplied will exceed quantity demanded
c.the market will be in equilibrium
d.this is a trick question because price floors generally exist below the equilibrium price.
Answer:
b.quantity supplied will exceed quantity demanded

Question 70.
A percent increase in the price of sugar reduces sugar consumption by about 5 percent. The increase causes households to
a.spend more on sugar.
b.spend less on sugar
c.spend the same amount on sugar
d.consume more goods like coffee and tea that are complements of sugar
Answer:
a.spend more on sugar.

Question 71.
When economists say the demand for a product has increased, they mean that the
a.demand curve for the product has shifted to the left.
b. price of the product has fallen, and consequently, consumers are buying more of the product.
c.cost of producing the product has increased
d.amount of the product that consumers are willing to purchase at various prices has increased.
Answer:
d.amount of the product that consumers are willing to purchase at various prices has increased.

Question 72.
There is no precise agreement regarding the set of rules for achieving goals. This was the concept given by
a.A. Marshall
b.Robbins
c.Ricardo
d.Smith
Answer:
b.Robbins

Question 73.
Which of the following are assumptions underlying the PPC?
a.Only two goods are produced
b. Technology, population, and capital are variable.
c.Prices determine the position on the PPC.
d.All the above.
Answer:
a.Only two goods are produced

Question 74.
Economics was originally developed as a science of ……………….
a.statecraft
b.business management
c.wealth management
d.resource management
Answer:
c.wealth management

Question 75.
An economy has a constant cost PPC. What do you know about the slope?
a.A straight line
b.Bowed in
c.Bowed out
d.Convex to the origin
Answer:
a.A straight line

Question 76.
The basic types of economics systems are
a.1
b.2
c.3
d.4
Answer:
c.3

Question 77.
The definition of Economics as a Science of development & growth with the twin objectives of scarcity and efficiency was given by:
a.Paul A Samuelson
b.AKSen
c.Lionel R. Robbins
d.Adam Smith
Answer:
a.Paul A Samuelson
Hint
The definition of Economics as a science of development and growth with the twin objective of scarcity and efficiency was given by Paul A Samuelson. Economics is concerned with determining the pattern of employment of scarce resources to produce commodities over time. Thus, the dynamic problems of production have been brought within the purview of Economics. His definition was more inclusive definition.

Question 78.
One of the following statements is not a positive statement
a. To check inflation, the RBI should raise the bank rate
b. Inflation has an impact on consumer price index
c. Unemployment is the major cause of widespread poverty
d. An increase in the income of the households results in a rightward shift in the demand curve.
Answer:
a.To check inflation, the RBI should raise the bank rate
Hint
To check inflation, the RBI should raise the bank rate” is not a positive science. The question is asking for a normative statement. Normative science is concerned with human values. It is prescriptive in nature and described ‘what should be the things’. It promotes social and economic values. Economics is also normative science because it suggests ways and measures to be adopted for the economic betterment of the people. For example, the questions like what should be the level of national income, what should be the wage rate, – all fair within the scope of normative science

Question 79.
Microeconomics does not study:-
a.The level of output that an individual firm produces during a period of time
b.The determination of wage rate by the automobile industry during a given period
c.The determination of causes that result in hyperinflation in an economy.
d.The determination of equilibrium output of an individual firm in a perfectly competitive market.
Answer:
c.The determination of causes that result in hyperinflation in an economy.
Hint
“Micro” is derived from the Greek word “Mikros” meaning small. lt is also described as price and value theory. This part of economics is concerned with individuals like one individual, one firm, etc. Micro-Economics is concerned with

  1. Product pricing;
  2. Consumer behavior
  3. Factor pricing
  4. Economic conditions of a section of the people;
  5. Study of firms; and
  6. Location of an industry

Thus microeconomics is not concerned with the economy in general. It is concerned only with the individual units.

Question 80.

Nature and Scope of Economics – CS Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 1 img 2

In the above figure, the point R represents-
a.The best level of output in the given situation
b. The equilibrium level of output in the given economy
c. The full utilization of resources in the economy
d. The under-utilization of resources in the economy.
Answer:
d. The under-utilization of resources in the economy.
Hint
A production possibility curve tells what to produce in the most beneficial way.
Important things to notice about the definition of the production possibility curve are:

  • It indicates all possible combinations of the production of two goods or services.
  • It is assumed that all the resources of a society are used fully and efficiently.
  • Anything inside the curve that is point R indicates inefficient production while anything which lies outside the graph shows that reaching this point is impossible.

Question 81.
Given the number of available resources in the economy as demonstrated in the figure above, if the technology to produce computer monitor improves, so that with the help of given resources more monitors can be produced, the production possibility curve ……………………
a.Will remain’ unchanged
b.Will shift to the left
c.Will shift to the right
d.Will form the intercept at point A, but the intercept at point B will shift to the right.
Answer:
d. Will form the intercept at point A, but the intercept at point B will shift to the right.
Hint
In the given picture there is a PPC of two products computer monitor and an LED.
The production possibility curve shows the various combinations of production between the computer monitor and LED lie on this line.
A higher production curve can be achieved with the improvement of technology from the same resources. Thus if the technology to produce computer monitor improves so that from the same given resources more monitors can be produced, the production possibility curve will form the intercept at point A, but the intercept at point B will shift to the right because more computers are being produced.

Question 82.
A capitalist economy is by and large
a.A closed economy
b.A free market economy
c.A centrally controlled economy
d.An economy in which a government neither collects any taxes nor incurs’ any expenditure.
Answer:
b.A free market economy
Hint
A capitalist economy is by and large a free market economy. This economic system emphasizes the freedom of individuals as consumers and suppliers of resources and allows market forces to determine the allocation of scarce resources through the mechanism called price.

Question 83.
Match the following:

Features Stage of Business Cycle
(i) Rising employment and real wages (A) Recession
(ii) Fall in the rate of growth (B) Boom
(iii) Fall in the level of real national output (C) Slowdown
(iv) Setting in of the rising trend of national outputs (D) Recovery

a.(i) (B), (ii) (C), (iii) (A), (iv) (0)
b.(i) (A), (ii) (B). (iii) (B), (iv) (0)
c.(i) (0), (ii) (C), (iii) (C). (iv) (A)
d.None of the above.
Answer:
a.(i) (B), (ii) (C), (iii) (A), (iv) (0)
Hint
Economic boom – In this demand for goods and services both are increasing.
Economic slowdown – A situation in which GDP growth slows but does not decline
Economic recession -In economics, a recession is a business cycle contraction, a general slowdown in
economic activity.
Economic recovery – It is the phase of the business cycle following a recession, during which an economy regains and exceeds peak employment and output levels achieved prior to the downturn.

Question 84.
After your Board Examination, you could have got a job that would pay you Rs. 10,000 per month. Instead, you go in for further studies spending Rs/8,000 per month on books, fees, etc. The opportunity cost of higher studies for you is
a.Rs. 8,000
b.Rs. 10,000
c.Rs. 2,000
d.Rs. 18,000
Answer:
d.Rs. 18,000
Hint
Opportunity cost is the value of what is foregone in order to have something else. The opportunity cost of higher studies for you is Rs 18,000.

Question 85.
A country discovered a huge stock of gold lying buried in the deep earth. It begins to mine out the gold and also finds a foreign buyer. Graphically, this position would be shown as
a.Downward shift of production possibility curve
b.Upward shift of production possibility curve
c.Downward movement on a given production possibility curve
d.Upward movement on a given production possibility curve.
Answer:
c.Downward movement on a given production possibility curve
Hint
A production possibility curve (PPC) shows the maximum possible output combinations of two goods or services an economy can achieve when all resources are fully and efficiently employed. A country discovered a huge stock of gold lying buried in the deep earth. It begins to mine out the gold and also finds a foreign buyer. Graphically this position would be shown as downward movement on a given possibility curve.

Question 86.
Macroeconomics came into the picture after the publication of the book The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and money’ which was written by
a.Alfred Marshall
b.Manmohan Singh
c.J.M. Keynes
d.Kaushik Basu
Answer:
c.J.M. Keynes
Hint
The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money was written by JM Keynes.

Question 87.
Match the following:

X. Growth oriented definition of Economics (i) Normative statement
Y. Government should reduce taxes to promote growth (ii) India
Z. Supply of a commodity is less than the quantity demanded at a zero price (iii) Paul Samuelson
W. Second largest populated country (iv) Scarcity

The correct option is:
a.X(iii);,Y(i); Z(iv); W(ii)
b.X(iv); Y(iii); Z(ii); W(i)
c.X(i); Y(ii); Z(iii); W(iv)
d.X(ii); Y(iii); Z(iv); W(i).
Answer:
a.X(iii);,Y(i); Z(iv); W(ii)
Hint
Normative science- It is concerned with human values. It is prescriptive in nature and described ‘what should be the things’. It promotes social and economic values. Economics is also normative science because it suggests ways and measures to be adopted for the economic betterment of the people.
India – India is a country with the second largest population in the world. China has the largest population.
Paul A Samuelson-The definition of Economics as a science of development and growth with the twin objective of scarcity and efficiency was given by Paul A Samuelson
Scarcity- Scarcity means that the supply of a commodity is less than the quantity demanded at zero price.

Question 88.
Laissez-faire refers to …………………… with no or little intervention by the government in economic activities. Which one of the following is the correct option to fill in the blank space?
a.Centrally planned economies
b.Controlled socialist economies
c.Free market economies
d.Mixed socialist economies.
Answer:
c.Free market economies
Hint
Features of the capitalist economy are

  • It is based on market demand and supply, consumers are free to buy goods and services of their choice and producers allocate their resources based on the demand.
  • Price plays an important role
  • The whole of the economy is in the hands of private enterprises
  • The role of Government is negligible
  • It is a theoretical type of economic system cause there are certain fields where the involvement of the Government is a must like defense, health, etc.
  • Consumers choose the products they want and producers allocate their available resources to that product based on the demand for different products.
  • Even if the economy is capitalist some part of it is still in the hands of the Government
  • Unequal distribution of money
  • Monopolistic competitive
  • Policy of Laissez faire
  • More rewarding for right decisions and hard work
  • No place for human values
  • Because of competition, national resources are wasted as only profitable products are produced
  • Faster growth because of competitiveness

Question 89.
Marshall’s views on the nature of economics were supported by:
a.Lionel Robbins
b.Adam Smith
c.A.C. Pigou
d.Paul Samuelson.
Answer:
c.A.C. Pigou
Hint
“The range of our inquiry becomes restricted to that part of social welfare that can be brought directly or indirectly into relation with the measuring rod of money” by A.C. Pigou. His definition involved only welfare in contrast to A. Marshall which involved welfare as well as wealth creation.
Thus, both Marshall’s and Pigou’s definitions of economics take into account the aspect of social welfare.

Question 90.
A mobile manufacturing company’s output increases due to improvements in technology. The PPC curve will
a.move inward
b.remains unchanged
c.move outward
d.none of the above
Answer:
c.move outward
Hint
A production possibility curve (PPC) shows the maximum possible output combinations of two goods or services an economy can achieve when all resources are fully and efficiently employed. If there was a change in technology while the other resources are the same, Output would increase, and the PPC would be pushed outwards.

Question 91.
Among the following, which of the statement is reflecting both positive and normative economics
a.If the general price level goes up, borrowers gain but lenders gain more.
b.Inflation hurts the poor more but they can find employment opportunities.
c.Inflation hurts the poor class more; therefore, the government should arrange to supply commodities at subsidized rates to this section of the society
d.If the government supplies luxurious, goods at cheaper rates, demand for such goods may fall.
Answer:
c.Inflation hurts the poor class more; therefore, the government should arrange to supply commodities at subsidized rates to this section of the society
Hint
Option a, b, d show positive economics – It presents the real picture of facts without any comments and suggestions. Economics also deals with positive issues, so it is a positive science. By positive science, we mean that economics is concerned with the satisfaction of unlimited wants from limited resources. A community may use its limited resources for making guns rather than butter, but it is no concern of the economists to condemn or appreciate this policy. Normative economics – Normative science is concerned with human values. It is prescriptive in nature and described ‘what should be the things’. It promotes social and economic values. Economics is also normative science because it suggests ways and measures to be adopted for the economic betterment of the people. Thus option c is both positive economics as well as normative economics as it tells both “what is?” Showing the real picture and “what should be?” showing the human values.

Question 92.
An economic problem arises primarily due to the scarcity of resources. Scarcity of resources is best reflected in the market supply of –
W. Wheat and rice
X. Sand at the seashore
Y.High-brand jewelry
Z.Free air.
Correct option is
a.WX
b.XZ
c.WY
d.YZ.
Answer:
c.WY
Hint
The problem of scarcity of resources arises when the resources are limited and the wants are unlimited.

Question 93.
Indian economy, at the present juncture, can be best represented as a
a.Mixed socialist economy
b.Mixed capitalist economy
c.Purely capitalist economy
d.Perfectly competitive market economy.
Answer:
a.Mixed socialist economy
Hint
A mixed economy has features of both socialism as well as capitalism but there is no fixed proportion of capitalism and socialism. India has a mixed socialist economy.

Question 94.
What is the effect of economic slowdown on the employment level?
a.Level of unemployment increases
b.Level of unemployment decreases
c.Employment opportunity is unaffected
d.None of the above
Answer:
c.Employment opportunity is unaffected
Hint
Economic slowdown A situation in which GDP growth slows but does not decline. Features of an economic slowdown are Output is still rising while demand has declined For example, if GDP goes from 5% growth to 3% growth, an economy is experiencing a slowdown. Most analysts do not consider a slowdown to be a recession, but unemployment may rise and productivity may decline.

Question 95.
Who is the writer of the book “The Economics of Welfare”?
a.Alfred Marshall
b.Lionell Robins
c.Paul A. Samuelson
d.Pigou
Answer:
d.Pigou
Hint
The book written by A.C. Pigou is “The economics of welfare” which tells about his way of defining economics.

Question 96.
In which direction PPC moves when technology improves:
a.Shift towards the right
b.Shift towards left
c.No movement
d.Shift upwards
Answer:
a.Shift towards the right
Hint
The most common reason a PPF would shift is because of a change in technology, or because of economic growth. With the change in technology, the graph will shift outwards towards the right. A higher production curve can be achieved with the improvement of technology from the same resources.

Question 97.
Consumer sovereignty is found in which type of economy?
a.Sociolistic Economy
b.Mixed Economy
c.Capitalistic Economy
d.None of these
Answer:
c.Capitalistic Economy
Hint
Capitalist Economy – This economic system emphasizes the freedom of individuals as consumers and suppliers of resources, and allows market forces to determine the allocation of scarce resources through the mechanism called price.

Question 98.
AC Pigou is related to the material welfare definition.
a.True
b.False
c.Partly True
d.Partly False
Answer:
a.True
Hint
A.C. Pigou definition involved only welfare.

Question 99.
Word ‘Oikonomikos’ is originated from which language?
a.Greek
b.Latin
c.German
d.French
Answer:
a.Greek
Hint
Economics is the social science studying the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services. Economics is derived from the Greek word ‘oikonomikos’ which can be divided into two parts Oikos – which means house Nomos – which means management

Question 100.
“Principles of Economics” was given in which year?
a.1776
b.1890
c.1932
d.1948.
Answer:
b.1890
Hint
A.Marshall wrote the book “ Principles of Economy” which tells about his way of defining economics.

Question 101.
When national output falls down, what does it mean?
a.Economic Boom
b.Economic Slowdown
c.Economic Recession
d.Economic Recovery
Answer:
c.Economic Recession
Hint
Economic recession -In economics, a recession is a business cycle contraction, a general slowdown in economic activity.

Question 102.
Wealth definition is given by
a.Alfred Marshall
b.Paul Samuelson
c.Lionnel Robbinson
d.Adam Smith
Answer:
d.Adam Smith
Hint
Adam Smith identified wealth as welfare. Adam Smith, considered to be the founding father of modern Economics, defined Economics as the study of the nature and causes of nations’ wealth or simply as the study of wealth.

Question 103.
When any point lies outside the PPC curve it means a situation of
a.Overutilization
b.Underutilization
c.Both (a) & (b)
d.None of the above
Answer:
d.None of the above
Hint
A production possibility curve tells what to produce in the most beneficial way.
Important things to notice about the definition of the production possibility curve are:

  • It indicates all possible combinations of the production of two goods or services.
  • It is assumed that all the resources of a society are used fully and efficiently.
  • Anything inside the curve indicates inefficient production while anything which lies outside the graph shows that reaching this point is impossible.

Question 104.
If income and demand both has increased then it is an
a.Economic boom
b.Economic slowdown
c.Economic recovery
d.Economic recession
Answer:
a.Economic boom
Hint
Economic boom – In this demand for goods and services both are increasing.

Question 105.
Inequalities and income & wealth is in which type of economy?
a.Capitalist
b.Socialist
c.Mixed
d.None
Answer:
a.Capitalist
Hint
Capitalist Economy – This economic system emphasizes the freedom of individuals as consumers and suppliers of resources, and allows market forces to determine the allocation of scarce resources through the mechanism called price. Unequal distribution of money is one of the features of this economy.

Question 106.
……………………………… is the value of alternative forgone in order to have something else.
a.Opportunity Cost
b.Incremental Cost
c.Indifference Curve
d.None of these
Answer:
a.Opportunity Cost
Hint
Opportunity cost is the value of what is foregone in order to have something else.

Question 107.
According to Marshall, “wealth acted as only means to attain ends & the wealth should not be treated as an end in itself,
Here Marshall used the word end for:
a.Economic welfare concept
b.Welfare concept
c.Human welfare concept
d.Material welfare concept
Answer:
c.Human welfare concept
Hint
A.Marshall was the person who gave the theory emphasizing on the material welfare of man.

Question 108.
What is the nature of the concept of opportunity cost?
a.Subjective
b.Objective
c.Both a & b
d.Can’t say
Answer:
a.Subjective
Hint
Opportunity cost is the value of what is foregone in order to have something else. The evaluation of choices and opportunity costs is subjective.

Question 109.
Economics is considered a science because it studies the relationship between …………………………….. of
economic phenomena.
a.Price and Value
b.Cause and Effect
c.Profit and Loss
d.Export and Import
Answer:
b.Cause and Effect
Hint
If we analyze Economics, we find that it has all the features of science.

  • studies the relationship between cause and effect.
  • It is capable of measurement.
  • It has its own methodological apparatus
  • It should have the ability to forecast

Question 110.
Which of the following graph shows all the combinations of goods and services that can be produced if all of society’s resources are used efficiently?
a.Demand Supply curve
b.Production Possibility curve
c.Lorenz Curve
d.None of the above
Answer:
b.Production Possibility curve
Hint
A production possibility curve tells what to produce in the most beneficial way. The production possibility curve is a hypothetical representation of the amount of two different goods that can be obtained by shifting resources from the production of one to the production of the other.

Question 111.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a capitalist economy?
a.Equality of wealth and income
b.Inequality of wealth and income
c.Equal opportunity of earning wealth & income
d.Can’t say
Answer:
b.Inequality of wealth and income
Hint
Features of the capitalist economy are

  • It is based on market demand and supply, consumers are free to buy goods and services of their choice and producers allocate their resources based on the demand.
  • Price plays an important role
  • The whole of the economy is in the hands of private enterprises
  • The role of the Government is negligible
  • It is a theoretical type of economic system cause there are certain fields where the involvement of the Government is a must like defense, health, etc.
  • Consumers choose the products they want and producers allocate their available resources to that product based on the demand for different products.
  • Even if the economy is capitalist some part of it is still in the hands of the Government
  • Unequal distribution of money
  • Monopolistic competitive
  • Policy of Laissez faire
  • More rewarding for right decisions and hard work
  • No place for human values
  • Because of competition, national resources are wasted as only profitable products are produced
  • Faster growth because of competitiveness

Question 112.
Who authored the famous book titled “The Economics of welfare” which was published in 1920?
a.David Ricardo
b.Alfred Marshall
c.J: B. Say
d.A.C. Pigou.
Answer:
d.A.C. Pigou.
Hint
The book written by A.C. Pigou is “ The economics of welfare” which tells about his way of defining economics.

Question 113.
In a Capitalist economy, who decides what to produce and for whom?
a.Government
b.Freely decided by Industry
c.Society
d.Can’t say
Answer:
b. Freely decided by Industry
Hint
Capitalist Economy – This economic system emphasizes the freedom of individuals as consumers and suppliers of resources, and allows market forces to determine the allocation of scarce resources through the mechanism called price.

Question 114.
Economics is considered a science because it studies the relationships between economic phenomena.
a.Cause and effect
b.Price and value
c.Profit and loss
d.Export and import
Answer:
a.Cause and effect
Hint
Economics has got its own theories, concepts, and laws, so it is definitely a science though not an exact science, like Physics and Chemistry. Economics is considered a science because it studies the relationship between cause and effect.

Question 115.
Which of the following graph shows all the combinations of goods and services that can be produced it all of the society’s resources are used efficiently:
a.Demand Supply Curve
b.Production Possibility Curve
c.Lorenz Curve
d.None of the above.
Answer:
b. Production Possibility Curve
Hint
A production possibility curve tells what to produce in the most beneficial way._The production possibility curve is a hypothetical representation of the amount of two different goods that can be obtained by shifting resources from the production of one to the production of the other.

Question 116.
In which of the following stage of the economic cycle both employment and output expand and the level of aggregate demand for goods and services is high?
a.Economic Recession
b.Economic Boom
c.Economic Recovery
d.Economic Slowdown.
Answer:
b.Economic Boom
Hint
Economic boom – In this demand for goods and services both are increasing.

CS Foundation Business Economics Notes

Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ According the partnership Act 1932 it is defined in the following words:
“Partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share profit of business carried on by all or any of them acting for all.”

→ A partnership is an unincorporated association of two or more individuals to carry on a business for profit. Many small businesses, including retail, service, and professional practitioners, are organized as partnerships. Individuals who join together are called Partners and collectively they are called Firm.

→ Main Characteristics or Features of Partnership:
1. Agreement: Without agreement partnership cannot be formed. The agreement may be written or oral. The persons who are making contract should be eligible to make contract.

2. Registration: It is not necessary that a partnership may be registered.

3. Number of Partners: In a partnership there should be at last two partners. In ordinary business the partners must not exceed the twenty. In case of banking not more ten.

4. Profit and Loss Distribution: The basic aim of partnership is to earn profit. This profit is distributed among the partners according their agreement. In case of loss also all the partners share in it.

5. Business: The object of the partnership it to carry on the business. It may be production or trading.

6. Unlimited Liability: The liability of the partner is not limited to his invested amount. In case of loss the private property of the partner also used to pay the business obligations.

7. Entity: Law has not granted it any legal entity, it is not independent from the partners. It has not separate entity from its members.

8. Share in Capital: According to the agreement every partner contributes his share. It is not necessary all the partners should contribute equally.

9. Management: All the partners can participate actively in the business management. Sometimes only few partners participate in business affairs.

10. Payment of Tax: Every partner pays the tax on his share of profit individually.

11. Co-Operation: For the successful partnership mutual co-operation and mutual confidence is an important factor.

12. No Audit: In the partnership there is no restriction for the audit of accounts. So this type of organization may operate freely.

13. Partners are Agent: Every partner stand as an agent and principal to one another. In the position of an agent one can do contract with other parties on behalf of the firm.

14. Transferability of Shares: No one partner can transfer his share to any other person without the consent of the existing partners.

15. Dissolution: It is a temporary form of business. It operates at the pleasure of the partners. It is dissolved if a partner leaves, dies or declared bankrupt or insane.

→ Partnership deed: A partnership deed can be defined as a document that is prepared to explain important points so that the chances of clash are minimized to a great extent. Such a document consists of all the significant clauses like name of the business, contribution of capital, , allocation of profit and the like. A partnership deed can be effected by word of mouth or can be in black and white A written accord should be favored so as to minimize the conflicts between partners.

→ Difference between Partnership and Joint Venture
A partnership is a business that is not registered as a corporation or a limited liability company, which is owned and carried on by two or more parties for the purpose of generating profit for the partners.

→ A joint venture is formed when two or more parties join together to take on a specific project. The parties share the costs and the risks, as well as any gains and benefits, and contribute money, property, effort and know-how to the venture.

→ While a joint venture is usually set up for a fixed time frame (i.e. the life of the project), a partnership is typically long-term and is intended to carry on as long as the partners want to continue doing business together.

→ Participants in a joint venture do not usually intend to conduct a common business with the other co-venturers, and they’re free to carry on their own businesses outside of the joint venture. Partners in a partnership, on the other hand, are typically already carrying on their business within the context of the partnership

→ Loan Accounts: If a partner gives loan to the firm above the amount of capital required to be given by him as per partnership agreement. This amount is transferred to a special account To loan account, at the time of dissolution of the firm partner who gave this loan is entitled to get the loan advanced by him back at priority but only after all the losses have been settled.

→ Capital Accounts: A separate capital account is required for each partner. This is to show the agreed amount of capital to be contributed by each of them. Amount contributed by each partner whether in cash or in some other form is kept in separate capital account of each partner.

→ Capital account are of two types

  • Fixed Capital Account
  • Fluctuating Capital Account

Following are the differences between Fixed capital method and Fluctuation capital method.

Fixed capital method Fluctuation capital method.
Each partner has two accounts, capital and current account. Each partner has only one account, capital account.
The capital account remains unchanged unless there is an addition to or withdrawal of capital. The balance of capital account keeps on changing from time to time.
The fixed capital account of a partner can never show a negative balance. The fluctuation capital account of a partner can show a negative balance.

→ Goodwill: Goodwill shows the value of a firm’s reputation. When a firm has a brand with a certain reputation and particular status within the market, this can be measured to have a lesser or greater value. If this is a positive value, then it is called goodwill. Goodwill is a fixed asset- something that has value in the company for an extended period. Since goodwill is not something that can be touched or felt, it can occasionally be difficult to calculate what it is worth. This is why goodwill is also an intangible asset in accounting.

→ Factors that contribute to the value of Goodwill
Various factors affecting the value of goodwill are as follows:
1. Nature of business. It means the prevailing competition, level of risk involved, etc. If the existing business units are earning more than normal profits and have secured monopolistic position, they will be enjoying more goodwill.

2. Favorable location. It is very well known that certain cities or places are most suitable for particular industries, business having units falling under same areas can enjoy the goodwill by selling more products.

3. Capital requirements. The business requiring less capital can realize higher amount of goodwill than another business earning less profits with a huge amount of capital.

4. Life of the business. Business running on profitable lines for the last many year enjoys more goodwill as compared to the recent started business.

5. Trade name. A firm which possesses the necessary patents and trademarks for selling its products will have built up good reputation and enjoys goodwill.

6. Reputation of the owners – If there is good reputation of owners then it increases the Goodwill.

7. Risk involved in the business. The value of goodwill is likely to be higher in the low risk business.

8. Profit trends. When the last year’s records of the business shows the constantly increasing profits, it will lead to attract higher value for its goodwill.

9. Money market conditions. When easy money market conditions prevail, there would be more buyers willing to buy an established business and pay a higher price for the goodwill or vice-versa.

→ Methods of valuation of Goodwill
There are three methods of valuation of goodwill of the firm

  1. Average Profits Method
  2. Super Profits Method
  3. Capitalization Method

1. Average Profits Method: Under this method goodwill is calculated on the basis of the average of some agreed number of past years. The average is then multiplied by the agreed number of years. This is the simplest and the most commonly used method of the valuation of goodwill.
Goodwill = Average Profits x Number of years of Purchase

2. Super Profits Method: Super Profits are the profits earned above the normal profits. Under this method Goodwill is calculated on the basis of Super Profits i.e. the excess of actual profits over the average profits. For example if the normal rate of return in a particular type of business is 20% and your investment in the business is $1,000,000 then your normal profits should be $ 200,000. But if you earned a net profit of $ 230,000 then this excess of profits earned over the normal profits i.e. $ 230,000 – $ 200,000= Rs.30,000 are your super profits. For calculating Goodwill, Super Profits are multiplied by the agreed number of years of purchase.

Steps for calculating Goodwill under this method are given below:

  • Normal Profits = Capital Invested x Normal rate of return/100
  • Super Profits = Actual Profits – Normal Profits
  • Goodwill = Super Profits × No. of years purchased

3. Capitalization Method – Capitalized Excess Earnings method determines the business value by summing the net tangible value of the business assets with the capitalized value of the “excess”eamings. The value of whole business is calculated by the below mentioned way
Average Annual Profit × 100/Normal Rate of Return

→ Partnership Final Accounts: These include:

  • The Trading Account;
  • The Profit and Loss Account;
  • The Profit and Loss Appropriation Account;
  • The Partners’ Current Account;
  • The Balance Sheet

→ Profit and Loss Appropriation Account: In partnership profits are to be shared in a particular ratio after making necessary adjustments stated in the partnership deed. For this purpose, ‘Profit and Loss Appropriation Account’ maybe prepared. This is merely an extension of the profit and loss account and is prepared to show how net profit is to be distributed among the partners. For preparing the profit and loss appropriation account, the following journal entries have to be recorded for various items:

→ Interest on capital: When the profit sharing ratio is different from the ratio of capital invested by partners then interest on capital is given. Interest on partners’ capital are not expenses of the partnership therefore, this item do not enter into the matching of expenses with revenues and the determination of net income or net loss. Accounting entries will be
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1

→ Salary or commission payable to partners – When one partner works full time in the firm and others are passive partners. Then since all partners have contributed varied amounts of time and energy towards the firm, it would not be appropriate to share the profits equally among them. In such case active partners are provided with salary. Profit equal to “Salary to Partners” is first paid away and then the remaining profit can be shared equally. Accounting entries will be
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 2

→ In case commission is provided to any partner for extra effort are made for partnership firm then that partner may be provided with commission. Profit equal to “Commission to Partners” is first paid away and then the remaining profit can be shared equally.

→ Past adjustment entry: Sometimes there has been an error in transferring the profits in the accounts of partners, these errors are to be rectified for which adjustment entry is to be passed. Amounts that have been debited or credited already to the accounts of the partners is tallied with the amount that should actually be debited or credited and an entry is passed accordingly to adjust the difference.

→ Guarantee of Profit to a partner: Sometimes to induce a person as a partner in the firm one or more partners may give a guarantee regarding the minimum profit the new entrant partner will get if joins the partnership. When such a guarantee is given then first the profit should be divided amongst all the partners and then if there is any shortfall of the amount that has been guaranteed then an equal amount is taken from rest of the partners to make the shortcoming. Thus, in such a case the following transactions are recorded in the books of accounts
1. Record all appropriations of profits (ignoring the fact that there is some guarantee). [Such appropriations include Salary to Partners, Commission to Partners, Interest on Capital, Interest on Drawings charged etc.]

2. Record sharing of distributable profit remaining after such appropriations in the profit sharing ratio between the partners

3. Record the entry for taking amounts from the guarantors and giving to the guaranteed for making good the shortfall, thus completing the adjustment for guarantee. For example if the guaranteed profit was Rs 20,000 and after distribution of profit after second step each partner gets Rs 15,000 then the balance Rs 5000 is charged equally from the other partners who gave the guarantee and is given to the guaranteed partner.

→ Reconstitution of Partnership: Whenever there is change in the partnership agreement the partnership firm is to be reconstituted. Some of the reasons responsible for changes in the constitution of the firm are

  • Change in Profit sharing Ratio
  • Admission of new partner
  • Retirement of partner
  • Death of partner

→ Change in profit sharing ratio: Whenever there is change in profit sharing ratio then valuation of the goodwill is required. A change in profit share ratio leads to gain to a partner and loss to another partner. For example, Three partners in business have profit sharing ratios of 5:3:2. they decide to share profit equally; so the bottom figure on the fractions will be (5 + 3 + 2) = 10.

Therefore, the first partners’ share will be 5 tenths of the profit, the second partners’ share will be 3 tenths of the profit and the third partners’ share will be 2 tenths of the profit.
Old profit sharing ratio is 5/10 : 3/10 :2/10
New profit sharing ratio is 1/3 : 1/3 : 1/3

Thus First partner loses 5/10 × 1/3 = 5/30 (loses as his percentage of profit sharing is reduced as per new profit sharing ratio on the basis of equal profit sharing)

Second partner gains 3/10 × 1/3 = 1/30 (gains as his percentage of profit sharing is increased as per new profit sharing ratio on the basis of equal profit sharing)

Third Partner gains 2/10 × 1/3 = 4/30 (gains as his percentage of profit sharing is increased as per new profit sharing ratio on the basis of equal profit sharing)

→ Admission of New Partner: New Partner may be added for getting more capital, managerial skill etc. At the time of admission of the new partner into the firm there is a need to calculate the new profit sharing ratio of the firm.

→ Some of the adjustments required to be made at the admission of new partner are
A. Calculation of new profit sharing ratio
B. Calculation of sacrificing ratio
C. Revaluation of assets
D. Treatment of Reserves and Accumulated Profits
E. Treatment of Goodwill
F. Adjustment regarding Capital of Partners

A. Calculation of new profit sharing ratio: whenever a new partner is admitted then the old profit sharing ratio will change so as to accommodate the profit sharing of new partner. Two scenarios for calculation of profit sharing ratio

(a) When old partners share remaining profit in the same ratio In this case it is assumed that the old partners will continue to share the remaining profits in the same ratio in which they were sharing before the admission of the new partner.

A and B are partners in the ratio 2:3. They admitted C into the partnership with l/4th share. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of the firm.
Solution:
Let total profits = 1 C’s Share = 1/4
Remaining share = 1 – 1/4 = 3/4
A’s share = 2/5 of 3/4 = 6/20
B’s share = 3/5 of 3/4 = 9/20
C’s share = 1/4 = 5/20
Thus the new ratio among A,B and C is 6/20 : 9/20 : 5/20 i.e. 6:9:5.

(b) When the new partner purchases his share from the old partners
In this case we deduct the share given to the new partner by the old partners to get their new share and calculate their new ratio.
X and Y are partners in the ratio 2:1. They admit Z into the firm with 3/7 th share which he gets 2/7 from X and 1/7 from Y. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio.
Solution:
X’s old share = 2/3
X’s sacrifice for Z = 2/7
X’s new share = 2/3 – 2/7 = 8/21
Y’s old share = 1/3
Y’s sacrifice for Z = 1/7
Y’s new share = 4/21
Z’s share = 3/7 = 3/7 × 3/3 = 9/21
New Profit sharing Ratio among X, Y and Z is 8:4:9

B. Calculation of sacrificing ratio: – In this case first calculate the share surrendered by old partners in favor of new partner. From the old share of old partners, subtract their surrendered share to get their new share. Now add share surrendered by old partners to get the share of new partner.
X and Y are Partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2:1. They admit Z into the firm. X surrenders l/4th of his share and Y surrenders 3/4th of his share in favor of Z. Calculate their new profit sharing ratio.
Solution:
X’s old share= 2/3
Share surrendered in favor of Z = 2/3 × 1/4 = 1/6
X’s new share = 2/3 – 1/6 = 3/6 X
Y’s old share= 1/3
Share surrendered in favor of Z = 1/3 × 3/4 = 1/4
Y’s new share = 1/3 – 1/4 = 1/12
Z’s share = 1/6 + 1/4 = 5/12
New Profit Sharing Ratio among X, Y and Z is
3/6:1/12:5/12 i.e. 6:1:5
Sacrificing ratio between X and Y is 1/4: 3/4 i.e. 1:3

C. Revaluation of assets: At the time of entry of new partner he is not entitled to profits and losses of the firm that are due before his admission as a partner thus a revaluation account is opened to record any increase or decrease in the value of assets. Revaluation account is a special profit & loss account representing the combined capital accounts of partners. Any gain on revaluation of asset or liabilities, which are to be credited to partners, will be credited in the revaluation account. Similarly any loss on revaluation will be debited in revaluation account instead of debiting the capital accounts. The final balance in revaluation account indicates the profit or loss on the entire revaluation process. The revaluation account is closed by transferring this profit or loss to partner’s capital accounts in the ratio before revision (old profit sharing ratio).
Accounting entries:
With increase in assets value
Dr. Assets
Cr. Revaluation
With decrease in assets value
Dr. Revaluation
Cr. Assets
With profit on revaluation shared in the agreed ratio
Dr. Revaluation
Cr. Partner’s capital accounts
Or
With loss on revaluation shared in the agreed ratio
Dr. Partner’s capital accounts
Cr. Revaluation

→ Memorandum Revaluation Account
It is a nominal account prepared at the time of admission, retirement, etc., when the partners decide that the revised figures of assets and liabilities are not to be shown in the new balance sheet. This account has two parts. First part is same like Revaluation Account the balance of (Profit/loss) is transferred to the existing partners’ capital accounts according to their old ratio. In the second part of this account, the entries given in revaluation account will be reversed and balance of the (Profit/loss) is transferred to capital accounts of all the partners according to their new profit sharing ratio.

D. Treatment of Reserves and Accumulated Profits: Treatment of Reserves and Accumulated Profits – Accumulated profits such as general reserve, credit balance in profit &loss account etc. will be transferred to the capital accounts of old partners in the old profit sharing ratio. Similarly accumulated losses shall be transferred to the debit side of old partner’s capital accounts. Therefore these items will not appear in the new balance sheet.

E. Treatment of Goodwill: When a new partner is admitted in such case the profit sharing ratio will change therefore ownership of the goodwill will change. Some partners will need to compensate others for this change. Compensation takes place before the new agreement takes effect by making entries in the partners’ capital accounts. This can be done with or without the use of a goodwill account. The decision lies with the partners.

The general rules are:
(a) If for required amount of goodwill cash is paid by new partner and this amount is not withdrawn by old partners
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 3

(b) In case the goodwill amount brought by new partner is withdrawn by old partners then all the above entries mentioned in ‘a’ will be passed and an additional entry to be passed is
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 4

(c) If the New partner pays the amount of goodwill secretly then no accounting entry is required.

(d) When goodwill is already appearing in the books then firstly the goodwill is to be written off from the books and debited to the Capital account of the old partners in profit sharing ratio and credited to Goodwill Account. New partners Capital Account is debited with his difference of Goodwill amount not brought in cash and this amount is credited to old partners Capital Account in the sacrificing ratio, accounting entries will be
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 5

(e) Hidden Goodwill – sometimes the value of goodwill is not mentioned, in such cases the value of goodwill can be calculated in following way
Step I: Calculate the total capital of the firm on the basis of the capital brought by the new partner. It is calculated as follow:
Total Capital of firm = Capital of new partner × 1/New partner share
Step II: Find out the combined capital of all the partners. It is calculated as follow:
Combined Capital of all Partners = Old Partners Capital + New Partner’s Capital
Step III: Determine the Hidden Goodwill as under:
Hidden Goodwill = Total Capital of firm – Combined Capital of all Partners

→ Adjustment regarding Capital of Partners: When the partners change their profit sharing ratio at admission, they also rearrange their capital accounts. Capital contribution is not essentially the basis of profit sharing. However in most partnerships capital contribution is considered as the major factor in determining profit sharing ratio. At the time of admission, capital contribution will be raised as an important condition. When a new partner is admitted for a certain share of profit for a certain amount of capital contribution he would naturally expect the other also maintain a capital balance matching with their profit share.

→ When capital is readjusted on the basis of new partner’s capital contribution, the first step is to determine the revised capital balances of each partner. Readjustment in capital account is usually done by bringing in or taking out cash. Sometimes, in place of cash transactions, old partners may adjust their capital balances by transferring the excess or deficit in the capital accounts to their current accounts as a temporary measure. Once the capital balances are adjusted current accounts can be settled in due course.

Example Assume that there is a partnership between A and B, partnership has total capital of Rsl20,000. Where A’s Capital investment is Rs 50000 and B’s Capital Investment is Rs 70000. C acquires a 1/4 ownership (capital) interest in the partnership. Partnership ratio between A and B is 3 : 1 The procedure for determining C ‘s capital credit and the bonus to the old partners is as follows.
1. Determine the total capital of the new partnership: Add the new partner’s investment to the total capital of the old partnership.
Total capital of existing partnership (A and B ) = Rs 120,000
C’s share = %
Remaining share = 1 – 1/4 = 3/4
Total Capital = 120000 × 4/3 = 160000
Total capital of new partnership 160000

2. Determine the new partner’s capital credit: Multiply the total capital of the new partnership by the new partner’s
ownership interest.
C’s capital = 160000 × 1/4 = 40000

3. Determine the amount of bonus:
A‘s Capital = 160000 × 3/4 = 80000
B’s Capital = 160000 × 1/4 = 40000
Thus A will give Rs 30000 and B will get Rs 30000

→ Retirement of Partner – As per Section 32 (1) A partner may retire
(a) With the consent of all the other partners,
(b) In accordance with an express agreement by the partners, or
(c) Where the partnership is at will, by giving notice in writing to all the other partners of his intention to retire. Just like adjustments are required to be made when a new partner enters into partnership the same way when a partner retires then adjustment entries are required to be made. Various adjustment entries to be made are

→ Calculation of new profit sharing ratio: As soon as a partner retires the profit sharing ratio of the continuing partners get changed. The share of the retiring partner is distributed amongst the continuing partners.

For example, A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ration of 2:2:1. B retires and his share is acquired by A and C equally. Calculate new profit sharing ratio of A and C.
Answer:
4 A’s gaining share = 2/5 × 1/2 = 1/5
A’s new share = 2/5 + 1/5 = 3/5
C’s gaining share = 2/5 × 1/2 = 1/5
C’s New share = 1/5 + 1/5 = 2/5
New ratio of A and C = 3:2

→ Calculation of Ratio of Gain: when a partner retires then the share of the profit of other partner increases.

→ For example, A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits equally. C retires from the firm. A and B decide to share the profits in future in the ratio 4:3. Calculate the Gaining Ratio.
Answer:
Gaining Ratio = New ratio – Old ratio
A’s Gain = 4/7 – 1/3 = 5/21
B’s Gain = 3/7 – 1/3 = 2/21
Gaining Ratio = 5:2

→ Treatment of Reserves and Undistributed Profits on Retirement: when a partner retires ten all the reserves and undistributed profit is transferred in the capital Accounts of all partners in their profit sharing ratio so that the retiring partner may get his share of accumulated profits. Accounting entries will be
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 6

→ Revaluation of Assets and Liabilities: on retirement of a partner, the assets and liabilities may be revalued to reflect the fair value of the business. Any profits or losses on revaluation are normally entered in the partners’ capital account according to the profit sharing ratio before there is a change in partnership due to retirement.
Accounting entries will be
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 7

→ Treatment of Goodwill: Each partner has a share of the profit-sharing ratio. At a change in the partnership, goodwill must be taken into account and shared among the existing partners, according to the existing profit-sharing ratio. When a partner wants to withdraw from a partnership, the partnership should revalue all the assets which belong to the leaving partner in order to compute the total amount of money that he can withdraw from the partnership. These adjustments are done to compensate the retiring partner. Thus Goodwill is calculated exactly the way it was calculated at the time of admission of new partner and distributed in the profit sharing ratio.

→ Adjustment of Capital Account: When a partner retires from the business, the existing partners have to rearrange their capital account according to the requirement. In that case, the excess capital of the existing partner will be paid or if there is deficiency, the partners should bring in.

→ Payment to Retiring Partner
Payment to the retiring partner can be made as specified in the partnership agreement otherwise as mutually agreed by the partners. Various options for making payment are
1. Lump sum Payment method
All the amount which is due to the retiring partner may be paid in lump sum. Capital Account of the retiring partner will be debited and Bank Account will be credited.

2. Instalment Payment Method
In such case some of the payment be made at the time of retirement and will be transferred to Bank Account of the retiring partner and the balance of the amount will be transferred to loan account. The instalments paid may be of two kinds
(i) Decreasing Payment Method
(ii) Equal Payment Method

→ Purchase of Retiring Partner’s Share
Sometimes remaining partners purchase the shares of the retiring partner. Example P, Q and R were partners in a firm sharing profits in 4:5:6 ratio. Q retired and his share of profits was taken over by P and R in 1:2 ratio. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of P and R.
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 8
Thus 17:28 is the new ratio of profit distribution and the capital of the firm remains undisturbed because leaving partner’s shares have been purchased by remaining partners.

→ Death of a Partner: death of a partner also results in same position as retirement of Partner. But the only difference is that share of profit is calculated up to date of death of partner. Calculation is done
1. On the basis of time
Decease Partner’s share of Profit = Previous year’s profit or Average Profits x Time till death/12 or 365 X Deceased partner’s proportion of Profit

2. On the basis of turnover
Deceased partner’s share of profit= Last year’s Profit/Last year’s Sale X Sales till death X Deceased partner’s Profit Share.

→ Joint Life Policy
A Joint Life Policy is an assurance policy taken on the joint lives of the partners. On the death of a partner, the firm becomes liable to pay the executors of deceased partner his capital, interest on capital, his share of profit from the closing of the previous year to the date of death and his share of reserves, goodwill etc. The total amount thus becoming due to the executors is usually significant and immediate payment of such heavy amount out of firm’s resources is likely to affect firm’s finances very adversely. The above problem can be tackled if the firm takes policy on the lives of all the partners jointly.

In the books of Account joint life policy can be taken as
1. When premium is treated as expenditure
Under the first method the premium paid for the policy is treated as a expense and is written off to the profit and loss account. The value of the policy represents a secret reserve which belongs to the partners in the profit sharing ratio. Accounting entries will be
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 9

→ When premium is treated as on asset
Under the second method, a joint life policy account is opened in the books and the premium as and when they are paid are debited to this account. The book value of the policy is adjusted to its surrender value by transfer of the excess to the profit and loss account. Thus, the joint life policy account appears in the books of the concern at realizable value and is shown as an asset in the balance sheet on the death of a partner the policy amount along with the bonus received from the insurance company will be credited to the joint life policy account. The account is now closed by transfer to the capital accounts of the partners including the deceased partner in their profit sharing ratio.

→ When premium is treated as asset and joint life policy account is maintained:
Under the third method, the premium paid is debited to the joint life policy account. At the end of each year, a sum equal to the amount of annual premium paid is debited to the profit and loss account and credited to the joint life policy reserve account. The book value of the policy is adjusted to Its surrender value by a transfer of the excess amount over the surrender value from the joint life policy account to the joint life policy reserve account. On the death of a partner, the sum received under the policy will be credited to the joint life policy account. The existing balance in the joint life policy reserve account will be closed by transfer to the joint life policy account. The latter account will now be closed by transfer to the capital accounts of the partners in their profits sharing ratio. This method has the advantages of disclosing the existence of the assets at its realizable value and also of avoiding the danger of depleting working capital of the firm.

→ Individual Life Policies
Firm may adopt a policy of getting separate insurance cover on the life of each of the partners. However, in this case also the premium on the life of each partner’s policy share be paid by the firm. On the death of any partner only one policy mature and full amount insured on that policy shall be recovered from the insurance company. But other policies’ surrender value shall be taken into account while calculating amount due to the executors of deceased partner

Dissolution of Partnership – The dissolution of a partnership is the process during which the affairs of the partnership are wound up (where the ongoing nature of the partnership relation terminates)

→ Difference between dissolution of firm and dissolution of partnership
The following are the main points of distinction between the dissolution of firm and dissolution of partnership.
1. The dissolution of a firm involves the complete break down of partnership relation, and not any change in the constitution of firm. In dissolution of partnership the partners may by an agreement among themselves provide for the continuance of the firm after its dissolution by death, insolvency or retirement of a partner. In such cases, the firm is re-constituted without any dissolution. Thus, we say that dissolution of partnership does not necessarily involve dissolution of firm, whereas dissolution of firm does involve dissolution of partnership.

2. There is termination of the relation between the partners in the case of dissolution of a firm, whereas in the case of dissolution of a partnership, ordinarily one partner servers his connection with the firm.

3. As regards the dissolution of the firm, the business of the firm is closed while in dissolution of partnership, the business of the firm continues for all practical purposes as before.

4. After the dissolution of the firm. What remains to be done is the realization and distribution of assets among the partners, while after the dissolution of partnership, what remain to be done is the ascertainment of the share of the outgoing partner, without winding up the entire business.

→ Settlement of Accounts
In settling the accounts of a firm after dissolution, the following rules shall, subject to agreement by the partners, be observed:
(a) Losses, including deficiencies of capital, shall be paid first out of profits, next out of capital, and lastly, if necessary, by the partners individually in the proportions in which they were entitled to share profits;

(b) The assets of the firm, including any sums contributed by the partners to make up deficiencies of capital, shall be applied in the following manner and order:
(i) in paying the debts of the firm to third parties;
(ii) in paying to each partner ratably what is due to him from the firm for advances as distinguished from capital.
(iii) in paying to each partner ratably what is due to him on account of capital; and
(iv) The residue, if any, shall be divided among the partners in the proportion in which they were entitled to share profits.

→ Accounting Treatment on Dissolution:
Following steps are to be carried on dissolution of Partnership

  • In the partnership dissolution, an account named as ‘Realization Account’ will be opened to compute the profit or loss from realization which should be shared among the partners according to the profit or loss sharing ratio
  • Actual amount received when assets are sold are credited to Realisation Account
  • Actual amount paid to creditors is debited to Realisation Account
  • Expenses occurred in the course of dissolution are debited to Realisation Account
  • Loans Advanced by Partners is repaid
  • Any accumulated profit or loss is transferred to Capital Accounts of partners in the profit sharing ratio If there is a debit in the capital account of any partner then he is required to bring cash to clear his account

Revaluation will usually be done upon a change in partnership such as:
(a) admission of a new partner,
(b) change in profit and loss sharing ratio, and
(c) withdrawal of the existing partner, etc.

→ Difference between Revaluation Account and Realization of Account
A revaluation account is opened to record any increase or decrease in the value of assets. Any profit and loss on the revaluation is shared among the partners in the agreed profit and loss sharing ratio.

A realization account is opened in order to ascertain whether a profit or a loss has been resulted upon the dissolution.
Return of premium on premature dissolution: Where a partner has paid a premium on entering into partnership for a fixed term, and the firm is dissolved before the expiration of that term otherwise than by the death of a partner, he shall be entitled to repayment of the premium.

Example A and B become partner for ten years. A paying B a premium of Rs 10000. A quarrel occurs at the end of the eight years, both parties being in wrong, and a dissolution is decreed. A is entitled to a return of Rs 2000 of the premium from B.

Insolvency of a Partner:
Garner vs Murray Rule
→ Under the rule, a partner is required to contribute cash to eliminate the debit balance in his capital account

→ In the court case of Gamer vs. Murray (1904), it was held that subject to any agreement to the contrary, such a debit balance deficiency was to be shared by the other partner not in their profit and loss sharing ratio but “ the ratio of their last agreed capitals”

→ If one partner is insolvent, his capital deficiency will be shared by other partners according to the ‘last agreed capital ratio’ (the ratio of the balances in the capital accounts before the dissolution, in the absence of any agreement to the contrary.

→ Thus on dissolution of partnership if one partner is insolvent then the other solvent partners will deficit of the amount due for insolvent partner because the whole liabilities of partnership firm is unlimited. Before the decision of Gamer V/s Murray case, this extra loss was termed as normal loss of the firm.

→ Insolvency of all Partners
If all the partners become insolvent in that case all the cash that is available together with all the cash collected from the private estate of the partners together is used to repay creditors. Amount realized from assets should be credited to Realization Account and all the expenses should be debited to Realization Account. Now the balance in the Realization Account should be transferred to Capital Account of all the partners in their profit sharing ratio. Now a Cash Account should be prepared. All the cash received from the estate of partners is transferred in this Account. This amount is distributed among the creditors ratably. Balances of the creditor’s account and the Capital accounts is transferred to Deficiency Account.

EXAMPLE: The following is a balance sheet for A and B as at 31st December, 2013.
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 10
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 11

Both A and B share profit and loss equally and they decided to dissolve the partnership on 1st January, 2006 and the
following events occurred:
(i) The premises were sold for Rs 260,000 and the equipment for Rs 54,000.
(ii) The debtors paid Rs 193,000 and the stock was sold for Rs 141,000.
(iii) The creditors were paid Rs 35,000 for a full settlement.
Required: Show the following ledger accounts to record the dissolution:
(i) Realization account
(ii) Bank account
(iii) Partners’ capital account
(iv) Partners’ current account
Answer:
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 12
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 13

Partnership Accounts MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
It is UNOMMON in a partnership firm.
a. Partnership deed
b. An agreement between partners
c. some partners are major and some are minor
d. Carried on for doing business.
Answer:
c. some partners are major and some are minor

Question 2.
Which of the following is NOT a rule for revaluation of fixed assets?
a. The change in the value should be permanent
b. Revaluation has to be carried out at regular intervals
c. Whole class of asset has to be revalued
d. The profit on revaluation should be credited to revaluation reserve account
Answer:
d. The profit on revaluation should be credited to revaluation reserve account

Question 3.
Invariably is included in partnership deed
a. Name of firm
b. Powers of the partners
c. Salary payable to partners
d. All of me above
Answer:
d. All of me above

Question 4.
A partner was supposed to contribute Rs.50,000 in a partnership firm. He gave Rs.80,000 to the firm. How much interest he will get on the extra money we contributed to the firm above his agreed share in the firm
a. Nil
b. 6% of 30,000
c. 6% of 80,000
d. 6% of 50,000
Answer:
a. Nil

Question 5.
One of the partner contributed Rs.30,000 in the firm-How much interest he will get on the capital contributed
a. Nil
b. 6% of 30,000
c. 5% of 30,000
d. Income of the above
Answer:
a. Nil

Question 6.
If there is no partnership deed Mr. A who inverted Rs.20,000 will share the profit
a. Equally
b. In the ratio of 1:2
c. Will share profit in the ratio of 1:2 and loss equally
d. More of the above
Answer:
a. Equally

Question 7.
As per companies Act there can be _____________ no of partners
a. 20
b. 10
c. Unlimited
d. 50
Answer:
a. 20

Question 8.
The characteristic that is always present with joint venture is
a. It has an end life
b. There no specific act for joint venture
c. Profit are ascertained only after the end of the specific venture
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 9.
At the time of dissolution which payment will be made in priority
a. Capital to partners
b. Loan provided by partner
c. Fluctuating capital account
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Loan provided by partner

Question 10.
A partner gave a loan of Rs.20,000 to the firm of dissolution of the firm the net losses of the firm were 30,000. How much money will the partner get on dissolution
a. Nil
b. 20,000
c. 20,000 +6% interest
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Nil

Question 11.
In a partnership firm one of the partner ‘x’ had no capital account. What could be the reason
a. He is not a partner
b. He is employee
c. He did not contribute any money
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. He did not contribute any money

Question 12.
In a partnership account it was observed regular changes in the account balance showing debit in the account this could be:
a. Capital account
b. Current account
c. Fluctuating capital account
d. Both b&c
Answer:
d. Both b&c

Question 13.
Goodwill valuation is not required to be done in the following condition
a. Partnership business is being changed
b. Business is sold
c. At the time profit is being distributed among the partners at the end of financial year
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. At the time profit is being distributed among the partners at the end of financial year

Question 14.
The correct equation for calculation of super profit method used for calculation of Goodwill is
a. Annual profit-fair return of capital employed
b. Average annual profit -fair return of capital employed
c. Average annual profit-current profit of the firm
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Average annual profit -fair return of capital employed

Question 15.
Interest on capital is given from profit and loss appropriation account to a partner
a. Only if allowed as per agreement
b. Only if there are any profits in P&L appropriation account
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 16.
A partnership contract was revised and due to this revision it was found that the distribution of profit amongst the partners is required to be changed after true closure of accounts. This will affect which account
a. Commission payable account
b. Past adjustment of profit
c. Interest on capital
d. Interest on drawings
Answer:
b. Past adjustment of profit

Question 17.
One of the partner of a partnership firm dies
a. Firm will dissolve
b. Partnership profits will change no effect on firm
c. Both a & b
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Firm will dissolve

Question 18.
A new agreement of a partnership firm in replace the old one is formed only in these conditions
a. Admission of new partner
b. Death of a partner
c. Change in profit sharing
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 19.
Sacrificing ratio in case of admission of a new partner in a firm is
a. Reduction in the profit sharing of the old partners
b. Profit ratio of the new partner
c. Capital invested by the new partner
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Reduction in the profit sharing of the old partners

Question 20.
Before the entry of a new partner
a. All assets and liabilities should be calculated so as to be appropriated in the capital account of old partner as per their profit sharing ratio
b. Reserves in the profit &Loss account should be transferred equally amongst the partners
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b
Answer:
a. All assets and liabilities should be calculated so as to be appropriated in the capital account of old partner as per their profit sharing ratio

Question 21.
It is not uncommon to find these in memorandum revaluation account
a. Effect of revaluation of assets & liabilities are recorded old figures in new balance sheet
b. Effect of revaluation of assets & liabilities are recorded at new prices in the new balance sheet
c. Profit or loss of the second part of revaluation account goes to new partner.
d. Both a &c
Answer:
d. Both a & c

Question 22.
At the time of entry of a new partner no money is paid toward goodwill by the new partner. It is
a. Inherent goodwill
b. Middle goodwill
c. Goodwill
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Inherent goodwill

Question 23.
When a partner dies the
a. Profit share of the decreased partner is divided amongst the remaining partner and the firm continues its business
b. Deceased partner’s share is given to his legal representative.
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Profit share of the decreased partner is divided amongst the remaining partner and the firm continues its business

Question 24.
A partner retires but the business is still being carried on
a. Profit sharing between the remaining partners will remain same
b. Share proportion remains same
c. Share proportion changes
d. Both a & c
Answer:
d. Both a & c

Question 25.
After the retirement of a partner payment to the retiring partner is being made as Rs.20,000 after every certain period of time. This type of payment is
a. Lump sum payment method
b. Equal payment method
c. Decreasing payment method
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Equal payment method

Question 26.
At the death of a partner following entries can be made
a. Transfer all balance from capital account of partner to loan account
b. Pay cash immediately from his capital account
c. Transfer all balance from capital account its partners executions account
d. Both b&c
Answer:
a. Transfer all balance from capital account of partner to loan account

Question 27.
Dissolution of partnership is
a. Dissolution of firm
b. Business of the firm is continued
c. Partnership amongst all the partners comes to an end
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Business of the firm is continued

Question 28.
In a partnership firm one partner is solvent and rest all partner becomes insolvent. What will be the effect on partnership firm
a. Dissolution of firm
b. Dissolution of partnership
c. Firm will continue to exist
d. Both a&c
Answer:
a. Dissolution of firm

Question 29.
Under ______________ there have been made rules regarding the dissolution of firm
a. Indian partnership
b. Indian partnership Act section 45
c. Companies Act section 48
d. Companies Act section 45
Answer:
a. Indian partnership

Question 30.
Correct sequence of payment after the dissolution of firm will be
a. Debt to partner, advances given by partners, of each partner account of capital residue to be divided amongst partners in profit sharing ratio
b. Debt to parties, account of capital of each partner, advances given by partners, residue to be divided amongst partners in profit sharing ratio
c. Debt to parties, balance from P&L account amongst partners in their profit sharing ratio
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Debt to partner, advances given by partners, of each partner account of capital residue to be divided amongst partners in profit sharing ratio

Question 31.
It is uncommon to find for realization account
a. Prepared at the time of dissolution of firm
b. Contains generally all assets and liabilities
c. Records the sale of various assets and payment of liabilities
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 32.
Garner vs. Murray gave accounting treatment regarding
a. Involvement of a partner
b. Death of partner
c. Admission of a new partner
d. Dissolution at will
Answer:
a. Involvement of a partner

Question 33.
Distribution of loss in case of insolvency is to be charged
a. From solvent partners first
b. From insolvent partner .
c. In insolvency debts cannot be cleaned as one partner is insolvent
d. No solvent partner is responsible for the debts due for insolvent partner
Answer:
a. From solvent partners first

Question 34.
If a worksheet is prepared, there is no need to separately prepare a(n)
a. trial balance.
b. balance sheet.
c. income statement.
d. Statement of owner’s equity.
Answer:
a. trial balance.

Question 35.
The adjusting process is based on two accounting principles. The two accounting principles are
a. realization and recognition
b. revenue recognition and matching
c. cost and business entity
d. continuing-concern and realization
Answer:
b. revenue recognition and matching

Question 36.
The notion that the life of a business is divisible into equal time periods of equal length is known as the
a. continuing concern principle
b. time-period principle
c. business entity principle
d. recognition principle
Answer:
b. time-period principle

Question 37.
The accounting profession can be divided into three major categories; specifically, the practice of public accounting, private accounting;- and governmental accounting. A somewhat unique and important service of public accountants is:
a. Financial accounting.
b. Managerial accounting.
c. Auditing.
d. Cost accounting.
Answer:
c. Auditing.

Question 38.
Amit and Varun are partners with capital balances of Rs. 60,000 and Rs. 20,000, respectively. Profits and losses are divided in the ratio of 60:40. Amit and Varun decided to form a new partnership with Amit, who invested land valued at Rs. 15,000 for a 20% capital interest in the new partnership. Amit’s cost of the land was Rs. 12,000. The partnership elected to use the bonus method to record the admission of Amit into the partnership. Amit’s capital account should be credited for _________________
a. 12,000
b. 15,000
c. 16,000
d. 19,000
Answer:
a. 12,000

Question 39.
Franchise rights, goodwill and patents are the examples of:
a. Liquid assets
b. Tangible assets
c. Intangible assets
d. Current assets
Answer:
c. Intangible assets

Question 40.
The business form(s) in which the owner(s) is (are) personally liable is (are) the:
a. Partnership only
b. Proprietorship
c. Corporation only
d. Partnership and proprietorship
Answer:
d. Partnership and proprietorship

Question 41.
Economic resources of a business that are expected to be of benefit in the future are referred to as:
a. Liabilities
b. Owner’s equity
c. Withdrawals
d. Assets
Answer:
d. Assets

Question 42.
Gross profit less expenses is known as:
a. Net profit
b. Net turnover
c. Cost of goods sold
d. Total drawings
Answer:
a. Net profit

Question 43.
Goodwill should be tested for value impairment at which of the following levels?
a. Each identifiable long-term asset.
b. Each reporting unit.
c. Each acquisition unit.
d. Entire business as a whole.
Answer:
b. Each reporting unit.

Question 44.
The trading account does not:
a. Show the effect of profit on capital
b. Include the cost of goods sold
c. Compare the sales with the cost of those sales
d. Calculate gross profit
Answer:
a. Show the effect of profit on capital

Question 45.
Which of the following would not appear on the balance sheet?
a. Drawings
b. Carriage inwards
c. Machinery
d. Money owed by the firm to suppliers
Answer:
b. Carriage inwards

Question 46.
Which of the following would not appear in the profit and loss account?
a. Rent received.
b. Cash expenses.
c. Carriage outwards.
d. Drawings.
Answer:
b. Carriage inwards

Question 47.
One advantage of operating as a partnership would include:
a. Being able to raise capital through share issues
b. Limited liability for all partners
c. Access to a larger amount of initial capital
d. Greater power than a sole trader for decision making
Answer:
c. Access to a larger amount of initial capital

Question 48.
In normal trading circumstances, which of the following would not be found in a partner’s current account?
a. Goodwill
b. Drawings
c. Interest on drawings
d. Salaries
Answer:
a. Goodwill

Question 49.
If a partner cannot clear his debts on dissolution, the other partners must clear these debts in the following manner:
a. Debts are shared equally
b. Debts should not be cleared by other partners
c. Partnership profit/loss sharing ratio
d. In the ratio of their last agreed capital balance
Answer:
d. In the ratio of their last agreed capital balance

Question 50.
The main account for dealing with partnership dissolution would be:
a. Realization.
b. Dissolution
c. Appropriation
d. Revaluation
Answer:
a. Realization.

Question 51.
Which of the following would not be found in a partnership appropriation account?
a. Interest on capital
b. Interest on loan by partner to partnership
c. Interest on drawings
d. Salaries
Answer:
b. Interest on loan by partner to partnership

Question 52.
If partners maintain both fixed capital and current accounts, which of the following would normally be credited to a partner’s capital account?
a. Profits on revaluation
b. Losses on revaluation
c. Interest on capital
d. Goodwill being written off
Answer:
a. Profits on revaluation

Question 53.
A debit balance on a partner’s current account must indicate that:
a. They have withdrawn more than they have earned in the partnership
b. They have a credit balance on their capital account
c. Drawings are higher than the profit share for that year
d. They are insolvent
Answer:
a. They have withdrawn more than they have earned in the partnership

Question 54.
Under following conditions the court may declare for the dissolution of firm.
a. A partner is guilty of misconduct
b. It is just and equitable to dissolve the firm
c. Business can only be carried on loss
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 55.
In normal trading circumstances, which of the following would not be found in a partner’s capital account?
a. Profits on revaluation.
b. Losses on dissolution.
c. Goodwill.
d. Drawings.
Answer:
d. Drawings.

Question 56.
Which of the following is TRUE about the sole trader form of business?
a. A sole trader is liable to pay income tax on his/her earnings
b. Sole traders must have to prepare books of accounts by law
c. Sole traders must register the name of their business with the Registrar of O^oanies
d. All of the given options
Answer:
d. All of the given options

Question 57.
Sole traders differ from other types of trading organizations. Which of the following statements correctly summarizes the key characteristics of a sole trader’s business?
a. Liability is limited to the providers of loan finance and only the trader takes an active part in managing the business.
b. The trader has unlimited liability and runs the business in conjunction with the providers of loan finance.
c. The trader has unlimited liability and must have the business accounts audited.
d. The trader has unlimited liability, takes sole responsibility for management of the business and no audit is needed.
Answer:
d. The trader has unlimited liability, takes sole responsibility for management of the business and no audit is needed.

Question 58.
In a partnership firm, a partner withdraws Rs. 5,000 per month in the beginning of month for personal use. The rate of interest on drawings is 6% p.a. What is the amount of interest on drawings for the year?
a. Rs. 1,950
b. Rs. 1,800
c. Rs. 300
d. Rs. 1,650
Answer:
a. Rs. 1,950

Hint:
Interest on drawings = \(\frac{\text { Total of products } \times \text { rate of interest }}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}\)
When the amount withdrawn is same every time and is drawn at regular intervals then
Take the period at the average of the periods applicable to the first and the last installments. In this
question, the period of first installment is 12 months and that of the last installments is one month.

Average is = \(\frac{\text { Period of first instalment + Period of lastinstalment }}{2}\)
= 12 + 1/2 = 6 1/2 months
Total of products = 5000 × 12 = 60000
Interest on drawings = 60000 × \(\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{6.5}{12}\)
= 1950

Question 59.
Interest” on capital will be paid to the partners if provided for in the partnership deed but only out of:
a. Profits
b. Reserves
c. Accumulated profits
d. Goodwill
Answer:
a. Profits

Hint:
Interest on capital is allowed only when there is profit if provided in the partnership deed, if partnership deed is silent about providing interest on capital then no interest will be provided

Question 60.
In case of partnership the act of any partner is:
a. Binding on all partners
b. Binding on that partner only
c. Binding on all partners except that particular partner
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Binding on all partners

Hint:
Every partner is an agent as well as principle of another partner. Therefore, the act of any partner is binding on all partners.

Question 61.
Capital employed by a partnership firm is Rs. 50,000. Its average profit is Rs. 60,000. The normal rate of return in similar type of business is 10%. What is the amount of super profits?
a. Rs. 50,000
b. Rs. 10,000
c. Rs. 6,000
d. Rs. 56,000
Answer:
b. Rs. 10,000

Hint:
Super Profit = Average Profit – Normal Profit
Normal Profit = Capital employed × normal rate of return
= 5,00,000 × 10%
= Rs. 50,000
Super Profit = 60,000 – 50,000
= Rs. 10,000

Question 62.
A and B are partners ‘in a firm having capital balances of Rs. 54,000 and Rs. 36,000 respectively. They admit C in partnership for 1/3’d share and C is to bring proportionate amount of capital. The capital amount of C would be:
a. Rs. 90,000
b. Rs. 45,000
c. Rs. 5,400
d. Rs. 36,000
Answer:
b. Rs. 45,000

Hint:
Total capital (before the admission of C)
= 54,000 + 36,000 = Rs. 90,000
Remaining share of A and B = 1 – \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\) shares
Total capital of the firm (after admission of C) will be
= 90 000 × \(\frac{3}{2}\)
= Rs. 1,35,000
So, Capital amount of C would be 13500 × \(\frac{1}{3}\) = 45,000

Question 63.
If the new partner brings any additional amount in cash other than his capital contribution then, it is termed as:
a. Capital
b. Reserves
c. Profits
d. Goodwill
Answer:
d. Goodwill

Hint:
If a new partner brings any additional amount in cash other than his capital contribution then, it is termed as Goodwill.

Question 64.
A firm earns profit of Rs. 1,10,000. The normal rate of return in a similar type of business is 10%. The total assets (excluding goodwill) and total outside liabilities are Rs. 11,00,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 respectively. The value of goodwill as per capitalisation method will be:
a. Rs. 1,00,000
b. Rs. 10,00,000
c. Rs. 10,000
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Rs. 1,00,000

Hint:
Goodwill Capitalized value of average profit – Net assets
Capitalized value of average profit = Average Annual Profit × 100/Normal Rate of Return
Net assets = total assets – outsiders liabilities
Net assets = 1100000 – 100,000 = Rs 1,000,000
Capitalised value of average profit = 110000 × 100/10 = 1,100,000
Goodwill = 1,100,000 – 1,000,000 = 100,000

Question 65.
A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. C is admitted in the firm for 1/3rd share in profits. The new profit sharing ratio amongst A, B and C will be.-
a. 12:08:05
b. 08: 12 : 05
c. 05:05:12
d. None of the above.
Answer:
d. None of the above.

Hint:
Old profit sharing ratio of A = \(\frac{3}{5}\)
Old profit sharing ratio of B = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
New partner C’s profit = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Let total profits = 1
Hence, remaining profit = 1 – \(\frac{1}{3}=\frac{2}{3}\)
New Profit sharing ratio of A = \(\)
New Profit sharing ratio of B = \(\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{2}{5}=\frac{4}{15}\)
New Profit sharing ratio of C = \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{5}{5}=\frac{5}{15}\)
So A : B : C = \(\frac{6}{15}: \frac{4}{15}: \frac{5}{15}\) = 6 : 4 : 5

Question 65.
A’s capital in a business is Rs. 20,000 and 8’s capital is Rs. 25 000. Their profit sharing ratio is 4 : 5. They admit C in the firm as a new partner and ask him to contribute Rs. 40,000 for 1 13f6 share of profit. Find the premium paid by C on account of goodwill:
a. Rs. 17,500
b. Rs. 20,000
c. Rs. 15,000
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Rs. 17,500

Hint:
Let total profits = 1
C’s Share = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Remaining share = 1 – \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Total capital (after admission of C) = (20,000 + 25,000) × \(\frac{3}{2}\) = 67,500
Capital of C = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 67500 =22,500
Total contribution of cash by C = 40,000
So, Premium paid by C = 40,000 – 22,500 = Rs. 17,500

Question 66.
A and B are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in. the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively. They admit C as a new partner A sacrificed 1lf share of his profit and B sacrificed 1/3’d of his share in favour of C. The new profit sharing ratio of A, B, and C will be:
a. 3: 1 : 1
b. 2: 1 : 1
c. 2: 2 : 1
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. 3: 1 : 1

Hint:
A : B = 7 : 3
A’s old share = \(\frac{7}{10}\)
A’s sacrifice for C = \(\frac{3}{10} \times \frac{1}{7}=\frac{1}{10}\)
A’s new share = \(\frac{7}{10}\) – \(\frac{1}{10}\) = \(\frac{6}{10}\)
B’s old share = \(\frac{3}{10}\)
B’s sacrifice for C = \(\)
B’s new share = \(\frac{3}{10}\) – \(\frac{1}{10}\) = \(\frac{2}{10}\)
C’s new share = \(\frac{1}{10}\) + \(\frac{1}{10}\) = \(\frac{2}{10}\)
New profit sharing ratio of A : B : C = \(\frac{6}{10}: \frac{2}{10}: \frac{2}{10}\) = 3 : 1 : 1

Question 67.
Ramesh and Suresh are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 1 respectively. (Ramesh Capital is Rs. 1,02,000 and Suresh Capital is Rs. 73,000). They admit Mahesh and agree to give him 1/Sth share in future profit. Mahesh brings Rs. 14,000 as his share of goodwill, He agrees to contribute capital in the new profit share ratio. How much capital will be brought by Mahesh?
a. Rs. 43,750
b. Rs. 45,000
c. Rs. 47,250
d. Rs. 48,000.
Answer:
c. Rs. 47,250

Hint:

Capital of Ramesh 1,02,00
Capital of Suresh 73,000
Goodwill 14,000
Total capital for 4/5th share 1,89,000

Let total profits = 1
Mahesh’s Share = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Remaining share = 1 – \(\frac{1}{5}\) = \(\frac{4}{5}\)
Overall capital of firm will be 1,89,000 × \(\frac{5}{4}\) = 2,36,250
Mahesh brings in 1/5th of Rs. 2,36,250 = 47,250

Question 68.
Total capital employed in the firm is Rs. 8,00, 000, reasonable rate of return is 15% and Profit for the year is Rs. 12,00,000. The value of goodwill of the firm as per capitalization method would be:
a. Rs. 82,00,000
b. Rs. 12,00,000
c. Rs. 72,00,000
d. Rs. 42,00,000.
Answer:
c. Rs. 72,00,000

Hint:
Goodwill Capitalized value of average profit – Net assets
Capitalized value of average profit = Average Annual Profit × 100/Normal Rate of Return Capitalised value of average profit = 12,00,000 × \(\frac{100}{15}\) = 8,000,000
Goodwill = 8,000,000 – 8,00,000 = 7,200,000

Question 69.
X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits and losses equally. Their capital balances on March, 31, 2012 are Rs. 80,000. Rs. 60.000 and Rs. 40,000 respectively. Their personal assets are worth as follows: X – Rs. 20,000, Y • Rs. 15,000 and Z – Rs. 10,000. The extent of their liability in the firm would be:
a. X- Rs. 80,000 : Y – Rs. 60,000 : and Z – Rs. 40,000
b. X- Rs. 20,000 : Y – Rs. 15,000 : and Z . Rs. 10,000
c. X – Rs. 1,00,000 : Y – Rs. 75,000 : and Z – Rs. 50,000
d. Equal.
Answer:
b. X- Rs. 20,000 : Y – Rs. 15,000 : and Z . Rs. 10,000

Hint:

  • The liability of partners in case of partnership is unlimited. The liability of the partner is not limited to his invested amount. In case of loss the private property of the partner also used to pay the business obligations.
  • In this case liability is limited to the value of personal assets of the partners as they cannot contribute anything more than that. Hence liability is X : 20,000; Y : 15,000; Z: 10,000

Question 70.
Retiring partner is compensated for parting with the firm’s future profits in favour of remaining partners. The remaining partner’s contribute to such compensation amount in:
a. Gaining Ratio
b. Capital. Ratio
c. Sacrificing Ratio
d. Profit sharing Ratio
Answer:
a. Gaining Ratio

Hint:
As a partner retires the profit sharing ratio of the continuing partners get changed. The share of the retiring partner is distributed amongst the continuing partners. This is gaining part for the continuing partners.
Gaining ratio = New profit sharing ratio – old profit sharing ratio

Question 71.
A, B and C share profits and losses of the firm equally. B retires from . business and his share is purchased by A and C in the ratio of 2 : 3. New profit sharing ratio between A and C respectively would be:
a. 01:01
b. 02:02
c. 07:08
d. 03:05
Answer:
c. 07:08

Hint:
Old ratio A : B : C = 1 : 1 : 1
Gaining ratio of A and C = 2 : 3
Gaining share of A = \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{2}{5}=\frac{2}{15}\)
Gaining share of C = \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{3}{5}=\frac{3}{15}\)
A’s new ratio = Old ratio + Gaining ratio = \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{2}{15}=\frac{7}{15}\)
C’s new ratio = Old ratio + Gaining ratio = \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{3}{5}=\frac{8}{15}\)
New ratio between A and C = 7 : 8

Question 72.
If a partner goes insolvent and is not able to bring his share of deficiency in cash, then his deficiency should be borne by the remaining solvent partners:
a. Equally
b. On the basis of their profit sharing ratio
c. On the basis of their adjusted capital ratio
d. On the basis of their original investments
Answer:
c. On the basis of their adjusted capital ratio

Hint:
In the court case of Garner vs. Murray (1904), it was held that subject to any agreement to the contrary, if a partner goes insolvent a debit balance deficiency was to be shared by the other partner not in their profit and loss sharing ratio but “ the ratio of their last agreed capitals”

Question 73.
Which Of the following is true about a partnership
a. All partners invest an equal amount of capital in the partnership’s business
b. All partners are personally liable for the debts of the Partnership business
c. Partnerships- get favourable tax treatment compared.to corporations
d. A partnership requires at least three persons
Answer:
b. All partners are personally liable for the debts of the Partnership business

Hint:
A partnership is an unincorporated association of two or more individuals to carry on a business for profit. The liability of the partner is not limited to his invested amount. In case of loss the private property of the partner also used to pay the business obligations.
All partners are personally liable for the debts of the Partnership business.

Question 74.
In a partnership firm, in the beginning of the year, capital of one partner is Rs. 80,000. During the year, he introduced Rs. 7,000 as additional capital. In addition to this, he withdraws Rs. 2,000 in the middle of every month. The firm does not pay any interest on capital but charges 6% interest on drawings. His share of profit after interest on drawings is Rs. 20,000. At the end of the year, his capital in the firm would be-
a. Rs. 83,000
b. Rs. 1,05,000
c. Rs. 82,280
d. Rs. 1,09,000
Answer:
c. Rs. 82,280

Hint:
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 14

Question 75.
A firm earns a profit of Rs. 1,10,000. The normal rate of return in a similar type of business is 10%. The value of total assets (excluding goodwill) and total outside liabilities are Rs. 11,00, 000 and Rs. 1,00,000 respectively.
The value of goodwill is
a. Rs. 1,00,000
b. Rs. 10,00,000
c. Rs. 10,000
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Rs. 1,00,000

Hint:
Goodwill = Capitalized value of average profit – Net assets
Capitalized value of average profit = Average Annual Profit × 100/Normal Rate of Return
= 1,10,000 × 100/10 = 1,100,000
Net assets = total assets – outsiders liabilities
= 11,00,000 – 1,00,000 = 10,00,000
Goodwill = 1,100,000 – 10,00,000 = 1,00,000

Question 76.
M R and N are partners sharing profit and loss in equal ratio. Their capital balances stood at Rs. 23,000 and Rs. 27,000 respectively. They wanted to grow their business and admitted P as a working partner for 1 f3’d share. P is to bring capital in the proportion of his share of profit and besides capital, he is to bring Rs. 9,000 as goodwill. What will be the amount of capital to be brought in by P
a. Rs. 27,000
b. Rs. 23,000
c. Rs. 36,000
d. Rs. 29,500
Answer:
d. Rs. 29,500

Hint:
M : N = 1 : 1
Let total profit = 1
P’s Share = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Remaining Share = 1 – \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Capital of M 23,000
Capital of N 27,000
Good will 9,000
Total capital for 2/3rd share 59,00

Total capital of the firm would be 59000 × \(\frac{3}{2}\) = Rs. 88,500
Capital will be bought by P = 88,500 × \(\frac{1}{3}\) = 29,500

Question 77.
A, B and C share profits and losses of a firm on 1:1:1 basis. B retired from business and his share is purchased by A and C in 40:60 ratio. New profit and loss sharing ratio between A and C would be –
a. 1:1
b. 2:3
c. 7:8
d. 3:5.
Answer:
c. 7:8

Hint:
Old ratio A : B : C = 1 : 1 : 1
After retirement of B new ratio between A and C
A : C = 40 : 60
New Ratio of A’s
= \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{4}{30}=\frac{14}{30}=\frac{7}{15}\)
New ratio of C
= \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{6}{30}=\frac{16}{30}=\frac{8}{15}\)
New share between A and C is 7 : 8

Question 78.
At the time of retirement of a partner from a partnership firm, the adjustment of goodwill is done in
a. Old profit sharing ratio
b. Gaining ratio
c. Sacrificing ratio
d. New profit sharing ratio
Answer:
b. Gaining ratio

Hint:
At the time of Retirement of a partner from a Partnership Firm, the continuing partners will gain in terms of profit sharing ratio. Therefore, the adjustment of goodwill is to be done in the gaining ratio to the retiring partners.

Question 79.
If partnership deed is not there, then profit is shared in :
a. Old Ratio.
b. Capital Ratio
c. Equally
d. New Ratio
Answer:
c. Equally

Hint:
The basic aim of partnership is to earn profit. This profit is distributed among the partners according their agreement. In case of loss also all the partners share in it. If there is no partnership deed then profit is shared equally.

Question 80.
What will be the interest on Partner’s loan when there is no partnership deed?
a. 6% p.a.
b. 6%
c. 6% simple interest p.a.
d. 6% compound interest p.a.
Answer:
c. 6% simple interest p.a.

Hint:
If there is no partnership deed, interest on loan is to be paid at the rate of 6%

Question 81.
In a firm of A & B having equal profit sharing ratio. Salary of A is 20,000, B is 10,000. Profit of the firm is 75,000. What is the total remuneration of A.
a. 20,000
b. 30,000
c. 42,500
d. 22,500.
Answer:
c. 42,500

Hint:
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 15
Profit to be distributed equally between A and B \(\frac{45000}{2}\) = 22500
Thus total remuneration of A = 22500 + 20000 = 42,500

Question 82.
Calculate interest on Drawings of A and B if accounts are closed on 31st March, 1973.
A – 10,000 – 1st April 1 972.
B – 20,000 – 17 August 1972.
Interest – 8.5%
a. 1,894.94
b. 1,890
c. 1,900
d. 1,902.6
Answer:
d. 1,902.6

Hint:
Interest on drawings = \(\frac{\text { Total of products } \times \text { rate of interest }}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}\)
Interest on drawings of A = 12 × 10000 × 8.5 × 1/100 × 12 = 850
Interest on drawings of B = 226 × 20000 × 8.5/100 × 365 = 1052.60
Total interest = 1052.60 + 850 = 1902.60

Question 83.
Under Fixed capital method, ………………………. A/c remains fixed and changes are made in current A/c.
a. Partner’s Capital A/c
b. Partner’s Current A/c
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Answer:
a. Partner’s Capital A/c

Hint:
Under fixed capital method, each partner has two accounts, capital and current account. Partner’s capital A/c remain fixed.

Question 84.
A firm of X, Y and Z has a total capital investment of 2,25,000. The firm earned net profit during the last four years 35,000, 40,000, 60,000, 50,000. The fair return on the net capital employed is 15% . Find the value of goodwill if it is based on 3 years purchase of average super profit of past 4 years.
a. 35,000
b. 36,500
c. 40,000
d. 37,500
Answer:
d. 37,500

Hint:
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
Normal profit = Capital employed × Rate
Average profit = \(\frac{35,00+40,00+50,000+60,000}{4}\) = 46250
Normal profit = Capital employed × Rate
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= 46,250 – 33,750 = 12,500
Goodwill of 3 years purchase = 12,500 × 3 = 37,500

Question 85.
Goodwill is which type 01 asset:
a. Tangible
b. Intangible
c. Depleting
d. Current,
Answer:
b. Intangible

Hint:
An intangible asset is an asset that lacks physical substance and usually is very hard to evaluate. It includes patents, copyrights, franchises, goodwill, trademarks, trade names.

Question 86.
Sona purchased Simmi’s business from 1st Jan, 1981. The profit disclosed by Simmi’s business for last 3 years:
1985 – Rs 40,000 [including abnormal gain of Rs. 5,000]
1986 – Rs 50,000 [after charging abnormal loss of Rs. 10,000]
1987 – Rs. 45,000 [excluding t 5,000 for insurance premium of firms property now to be insured]
Calculate the goodwill on the basis of 2 years purchase of average profit 01 last 3 years.
a. 80,000
b. 90,000
c. 1,20,000
d. 1,00,000
Answer:
b. 90,000

Hint:
Goodwill = Average Profits × Number of years of Purchase
Corrected Actual Profits:
Profits for 1985 = 40,000 – 5000( abnormal gain) = 35,000
Profits for 1986 = 50,000 + 10,000( abnormal loss) = 60,000
Profits for 1987 = 45,000 – 5000( insurance premium) = 40,000
Average profits = 35,000 + 60,000 + 40,000/3 = 45,000
Goodwill = 45,000 × 2 = 90,000

Question 87.
A & B are sharing profits and loss in ratio of 3:2. C was admitted for 1/51h share, which he takes equally from A & S, i.e. 1/10h from A and 1 /101h from B. New profit sharing ratio will be
a. 5:3:2
b. 29: 19: 10
c. 9:6:5
d. None of these.
Answer:
a. 5:3:2

Hint:
A’s old share = \(\frac{3}{5}\)
A’s sacrifice for C = \(\frac{1}{10}\)
A’s new share = \(\frac{3}{5}\) – \(\frac{1}{10}\) = \(\frac{5}{10}\)
B’s old share = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
B’s sacrifice for C = \(\frac{1}{10}\)
B’s new share = \(\frac{2}{5}\) – \(\frac{1}{10}\) = \(\frac{3}{10}\)
C’s share = \(\frac{1}{10}\) + \(\frac{1}{10}\) = \(\frac{2}{10}\)
Hence, new profit sharing ratio is 5 : 3 : 2.

Question 88.
A & B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:1 respectively (A’s capital is Rs. 1,02,000 & B’s capital is Rs. 73,000). They admit C & agreed to give him 1/51h share in future profit. C brings Rs. 14,000 and share of goodwill. He agreed to contribute capital in the new profit sharing ratio. How much capital will be brought by C.
a. 43,750
b. 45,000
c. 47,250
d. 48,000
Answer:
c. 47,250

Hint:
A : B = 2 : 1
Let total profits = 1
C’s Share = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Remaining share = 1 – \(\frac{1}{5}\) = \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Capital of A Rs. 1,02,000
Capital of B 73,000
Good will 14,000
Total capital for 4/5th share 1,89,000

Total capital of the firm would be 189000 × \(\frac{5}{4}\) = Rs. 236250
Capital will be bought by C = 236250 × \(\frac{1}{5}\) = 47250

Question 89.
At the time of admission of partner, amount of general reserve, revaluation A/c will be transferred to
a. Old Partners Capital A/c
b. New Partners Capital A/c
c. All Partners Capital A/c
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Old Partners Capital A/c

Hint:
At the time of admission of partners, all the reserves and profits of existing partners are transferred to existing partners i.e. to old partners capital a/c.

Question 90.
If A and B are sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 and on admission of C, the new profit sharing ratio becomes 7 : 5 ; 4. Calculate the sacrificing ratio.
a. 3: 1
b. 5:4
c. 1:3
d. 7:5.
Answer:
a. 3: 1

Hint:
Old Ratio of A & B = 5 : 3
New Profit Sharing Ratio for A, B, C = 7: 5: 4
A’s old share = \(\frac{5}{8}\)
A’s new share = \(\frac{7}{16}\)
A’s sacrifice for C = \(\frac{5}{8}\) – \(\frac{7}{16}\) = 10 – \(\frac{7}{16}\) = \(\frac{3}{16}\)
B’s old share = \(\frac{3}{8}\)
B’s new share = \(\frac{5}{16}\)
B’s sacrifice for C = \(\frac{3}{8}\) – \(\frac{5}{16}\) = 6 – \(\frac{5}{16}\) = \(\frac{1}{16}\)
Sacrificing ratio = 3 : 1

Question 91.
X, Y, Z capitals are 80,000, 75,000 and 50,000 respectively. Z retired and is paid Rs. 60,000 and no goodwill is valued. What is the new capital of Y after retirement of Z.
a. 71,000
b. 74,000
c. 75,000
d. 86,000
Answer:
c. 75,000

Hint:
Z’s Capital = Rs. 50,000
Amount Paid to him = Rs. 60,000
Amount Paid to Z in excess of his capital = Rs. (60.000 – 50,000) = Rs. 10,000
= Rs. 10,000 to be borne by X & Y in equal ratio.
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 16

Question 92.
If at the time of retirement, JLP is received, it will be distributed among which partners –
a. Retiring Partner
b. Remaining Partner
c. All Partners
d. None of these
Answer:
c. All Partners

Hint:
At the time of retirement of an partner the amount of JLP is distributed among existing partners along with the retiring partner.

Question 93.
X, Y, Z are Partners in a firm, sharing profit and losses in the ratio 3:2:1.Z retires from the firm what will be the new profit sharing ratio.
a. 3:1
b. 3:2
c. 2:3
d. 1:2
Answer:
b. 3:2

Hint:
If the new profit sharing ratio of remaining partners are not given, it will be assumed that the remaining partners continue to share profits and losses in old ratio. Thus, after retirement of Z, new profit sharing ratio will be 3:2 same as old ratio.

Question 94.
Which amongst the following is transferred to Partner’s Executor’s A/c at the time of death of the partner?
a. Interest on Capital
b. Share in Goodwill
c. Share in Profit
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Hint:
Following particulars are transferred to the Partners’s executor account at the time of death of a partner
(a) Partner’s Capital A/c
(b) Interest on Partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Share in Goodwill
(d) Share of Profit & Loss

Question 95.
Calculate Gaining Ratio from following information:
Current Profit Sharing Ratio of A, B & C = 5:4:3 C retires and his share was taken equally by A and B.
a. 1:1
b. 1:3
c. 13:11
d. None of these
Answer:
a. 1 : 1

Hint:
Old ratio of A : B : C = 5 : 4 : 3
C’s Share \(\frac{3}{12}=\frac{1}{4}\)
C’s share is to be divided equally between A and B
A’s Gain = \(\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{8}\)
B’s Gain =\(\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{8}\)
Gaining ratio =1 : 1

Question 96.
When firm dissolves, then Goodwill is transferred to which A/c?
a. Realisation A/c
b. Goodwill A/c
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Realisation A/c

Hint:
When the firm is dissolved all assets and liabilities are transferred to Realisation A/c which includes goodwill.

Question 97.
When is premium of dissolution is not allowed to partners?
a. If firm is dissolved due to death of partner
b. If dissolution takes place due to misconduct of partner me king claim
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both (a) and (b)

Hint:
Premium on dissolution cannot be allowed as per Partnership Act

  • When dissolution lakes place due to the misconduct of partner’s making claim
  • When Firm is dissolved due to death of partner.

Question 98.
If a partner goes insolvent & is not able to bring his share of deficiency in cash, then his deficiency shall be borne by the remaining solvent .partners:
a. Equally
b. On the basis of profit sharing ratio
c. On the basis of their adjusted capital ratio
d. On the basis of their original investment
Answer:
c. On the basis of their adjusted capital ratio

Hint:
In the court case of Garner vs. Murray (1904), it was held that subject to any agreement to the contrary, a debit balance deficiency was to be shared by the other partner not in their profit and loss sharing ratio but “the ratio of their last agreed capitals”
If one partner is insolvent, his capital deficiency will be shared by other partners according to the ‘last agreed capital ratio’ (the ratio of the balances in the capital accounts before the dissolution, in the absence of any agreement to the contrary.

Question 99.
When is the realisation A/c made in partnership?
a. At the time of admission of partner
b. At the time of death of partner
c. At the time of retirement
d. At the time of dissolution of firm.
Answer:
d. At the time of dissolution of firm.

Hint:
At the time, of dissolution of firm realisation account is prepared. A realization account is opened in order to ascertain whether a profit or a loss has been resulted upon the dissolution.

Question 100.
Loss on Realisation is:
a. Debited to Partner’s Capital A/c
b. Credited to Partner’s Capital A/c
c. Debited to Partner’s Current A/c
d. Credited to Partner’s Currant A/c Questions of December 2014
Answer:
a. Debited to Partner’s Capital A/c

Hint:
In the partnership dissolution, an account named as ‘Realization Account’ will be opened to compute the profit or loss from realization which should be shared among the partners according to the profit or loss sharing ratio. Any accumulated profit or loss is transferred to Capital Accounts of partners in the profit sharing ratio.

Question 101.
A partner that doesn’t take part in the management of business, but he/she has made investment is business and liable to creditors of the business is known as:
a. Dormant partner
b. Active partner
c. Minor partner
d. Junior partner
Answer:
a. Dormant partner

Hint:
A partner who takes no share in the active business of a company or partnership, but is entitled to a share of the profits and subject to a share in losses is called Dormant partner.

Question 102.
The goodwill of a business is to be valued at 3 years purchase of the average profits of the last three years. The profits of the last three years are Rs. 5,000, Rs. 6,000 and Rs. 7,000 respectively. Hence, the goodwill be valued at:
a. Rs. 12,000
b. Rs. 15,000
c. Rs. 18,000
d. Rs. 6,000
Answer:
c. Rs. 18,000

Hint:
Goodwill = Average Profits × Number of years of Purchase
Average Profit = \(\frac{5,000+6,000+7,000}{3}\) = 6000
Goodwill = 6000 × 3 = 18000

Question 103.
On 1S1 April, 2012 Raghu invested capital of Rs. 2,00, 000. He withdrew Rs. 50,000 during the year. Interest on drawings is charged @. 10% per annum. The amount of interest on drawings deducted from capital at the end of financial year is:
a. Rs. 15,000
b. Rs. 2,500
c. Rs. 7,500
d. Rs. 5,000
Answer:
b. Rs. 2,500

Hint:
Interest on drawings = \(\frac{\text { Total of products } \times \text { rate of interest }}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}\)
= 50000 × 10 × 6/100 × 12 = 2500
Whenever date of drawing is not given in the question then interest is calculated for average period of 6 months.

Question 104.
A started a business with Rs. 18,000 after 4 months 8 joins with Rs. 24,000. After 2 more months C joins with Rs. 30,000. At the end of 10 months from A started the business. C received V 1,850 as his share. They decided to share profit or losses in the ratio of capital. The total profit of the firm would be:
a. Rs. 7,955
b. Rs. 8,510
C. Rs. 7,030
d. Rs. 6,845
Answer:
d. Rs. 6,845

Hint:
Hint:
Total profit for 10 months = 1850
A’s capital = 18000, duration = 10 months
B’s capital = 24000, duration = 6 months
C’s capital = 30000, duration = 4 months
Total weighted capital ratio = (18000 × 10) : (24000 × 6) : (30000 × 4)
= 180000 : 144000 : 120000
Total profit of the firm = c’s share in profits × \(\frac{\text { Total capital }}{\text { C’s Capital }}\)
= 1 × \(\frac{4,44,000}{1,20,000}\) = 60845

Question 105.
The balance of Revaluation account created at the time of admission of a new partner is:
a. Transferred to old partners capital account
b. Transferred to all partners capital account
c. Transferred to profit and loss account
d. Transferred to new partners capital account
Answer:
a. Transferred to old partners capital account

Hint:
The balance of Revaluation account created at the time of admission of a new partner is transferred to old partners capital account.

Question 106.
In a partnership firm A, Band C are partners sharing profit and loss in ratio of 3:2:1. They have taken a joint life policy of Rs. 1,00,000 and the Joint Ufe Insurance premium is treated as an expense. On death of B, the claim amount was received. The amount received on Joint Life Policy will be:
a. Credited to all partners capital account
b. Credited to B’s capital account
c. Debited to B’s capital account
d. Credited to remaining partners capital account.
Answer:
a. Credited to all partners capital account

Hint:
When premium is treated as expenditure the premium paid for the policy is treated as a expense and is written off to the profit and loss account.. The value of the policy represents a secret reserve which belongs to the partners in the profit sharing ratio.
When the policy money is received the accounting entry will be
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 17
Thus on the death of B, the amount received of JLP will be credited to all partner’s capital account.

Question 107.
On the retirement of a partner any reserve lying in the books of account:
a. Should be transferred to retiring partner only
b. Should be transferred to all partner in the old profit sharing ratio
c. Should not be transferred
d. Should be transferred to remaining partners in the new profit sharing ratio
Answer:
b. Should be transferred to all partner in the old profit sharing ratio

Hint:
When a partner retires then all the reserves and undistributed profit is transferred in the capital Accounts of all partners in their profit sharing ratio so that the retiring partner may get his share of accumulated profits.

Question 108.
On dissolution at partnership firm, X one of the partners was to receive f 3,000 as remuneration for the dissolution work, the entry in the books of partnership will be:
a. Debit x’s Capital A/c Rs. 3,000 Credit Realisation A/c Rs. 3,000
b. Debit Realisation A/c Rs. 3,000 Credit x’s Capital A/c Rs. 3,000
c. Debit Revaluation A/c Rs. 3,000 Credit x’s Capital A/c Rs. 3,000
d. Debit x’s Capital A/c Rs. 3,000 Credit Revaluation A/c Rs. 3,000
Answer:
b. Debit Realisation A/c Rs. 3,000 Credit x’s Capital A/c Rs. 3,000

Hint:
The following entry will be passed.
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 18

Question 109.
Which of the following is not recorded in the partners current accounts?
a. Interest on Drawings
b. Administrative Expenses
c. Drawings
d. Partners Salaries.
Answer:
b. Administrative Expenses

Hint:
Administrative expenses are shown in Profit & Loss A/c.

Question 110.
Total capital employed by a partnership firm is Rs. 1,00,000 and its average profit is Rs. 25,000. Normal rate 01 return is 20% in similar firms working under similar conditions. The firm earns super profit of:
a. Rs. 5,000
b. Rs. 2,000
c. Rs. 4,000
d. Rs. 3,000.
Answer:
a. Rs. 5,000

Hint:
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
Normal profit = Capital × Rate
Normal profit = 1,00,000 × 20%
= Rs. 20,000
Super profit = Rs. 25,000 – 20,000 = Rs. 5,000

Question 111.
The investment of personal assets by the owner in the business will:
a. Increase total assets and increase owners equity
b. Increase assets and decrease liabilities
c. Increase total assets only
d. Has no effect on assets but increase owners equity.
Answer:
a. Increase total assets and increase owners equity

Hint:
Introducing of personal assets by the owner in the business will increase total assets of the business and will also have effect of increase in owner’s equity.

Question 112.
In a Partnership firm, the Joint Life Insurance premium is treated as an expense. Which of the following account is credited for amount received from Joint Life Insurance Policy on the death of a partner?
a. Bank Account
b. All Partners Capital Account
c. Deceased Partners Capital Account
d. Remaining Partners Capital Account.
Answer:
b. All Partners Capital Account

Hint:
When the policy money is recevied
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 19

Question 113.
In a partnership firm, Ram’s Capital is Rs. 80,000, Sita’s Capital is Rs. 75,000 and Mohan’s Capital is Rs.50,000. They share income in 3:2:1 ratio respectively. Mohan is retiring from the partnership. Mohan is paid Rs.60,000 and no goodwill is recorded. What will be the Ram’s Capital’ balance after the retirement of Mohan?
a. Rs.74,000
b. Rs.70,000
c. Rs.75,000
d. Rs.86,000.
Answer:
a. Rs.74,000

Hint:
Mohan’s Capital = Rs. 50,000
Amount Paid to him = Rs. 60,000
Amount Paid to Mohan in excess of his capital = Rs. (60.000 – 50,000) = Rs. 10,000
= Rs. 10,000 to be borne by Ram & Sita in gaining ratio i.e. 3:2
Partnership Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 20

Question 114.
A, 8 and C were In partnership sharing profits in the ratio of 4:2:1 respectively. A guaranteed that is no case C’s share in profit should be less than Rs.7,500. Profits ottne firm for the year 2013 amounted to Rs. 31,500. A’s share in profit will be:
a. Rs. 15,000
b. Rs. 18,000
c. Rs. 16,000
d. Rs. 3,000
Answer:
a. Rs. 15,000

Hint:
A’s share = 31,500 × 4/7 = 18.000
B’s share = 31,500 × 2/7 = 9,000
C’s share – 31,500 × 1/7 = 4,500
But C was guaranteed by A that his share will not be less than 7,500.
C s share = 4500 + 3000 (from A) = 7500
Therefore, A will compensate from his share i.e. 18,000 – 3,000 = 15,000

Question 60.
A Court may dissolve the partnership firm on the grounds of – (i) insanity of a partner (ii) permanent incapacity of partner (iii) misconduct by a partner. The options are:
a. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
b. (i) and (ii) only
c. (ii) and (iii) only
d. (i) and (ii) only
Answer:

Question 115.
A, B and C are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2 respectively. The balance of capital is Rs.50,000 for A & 8 each and Rs.40,000 for ‘C’ , ‘8’ decides to retire from firm. The goodwill of firm is valued at Rs.30,000 and profit on revaluation of assets at Rs.5,000. The firm also have a balance in the Reserve A/c for Rs. 15,000 on that date. What amount will be payable to ‘B’?
a. Rs.55,000
b. Rs.65,000
c. Rs.75,000
d. Rs.45,000.
Answer:
b. Rs.65,000

Hint:
Profit sharing ratio A : B : C = 5 : 3 : 2
B’s share in the profit & loss ratio = 3/10
Capital of B = 50,000
Add: share in goodwill 30,000 × \(\frac{3}{10}\) = 9,000
Add: share in profit on revaluation 5000 × \(\frac{3}{10}\) = 1,500
Add: share in reserve account 15000 × \(\frac{3}{10}\) = 4,500
Amount payable to B = 65,000

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Accounting Process – II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Accounting Process – II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Error:
An accounting error is a non-ffaudulent discrepancy in financial documentation. The term is used in financial reporting. A Trial Balance is said to be a statement of proof done arithmetically to prove that proper double was observed in making accounting entries. The assumption is that the Trial balance totals will not agree whenever there is an accounting error. There are several errors in fact which will not affect the agreement of the trial balance totals. This means that there are two basic types of accounting errors:

  1. Errors which do not affect the Trial balance totals
  2. Errors which do affect the trial balance totals

The correction of all accounting errors must be journalized by way of the General Journal. Accounting errors not detected by the trial balance are listed below.

→ Clerical Errors
Below mentioned three errors are also called clerical errors

  1. Errors of Omission
  2. Error of Commission
  3. Compensating Errors

1. Errors of Omission: The Errors of Omission will occur when a transaction is not recorded in the books of accounts or omitted by mistake. The Errors of Omission may happen as partial or complete. The partial errors may happen in relation to any subsidiary books. This is the result of when a transaction is entered in the subsidiary book but not posted to the ledger. For example, cash paid to the suppliers has been entered in the payment side of the cash book but it will not be entered in the debit side of the suppliers account. The complete omission may happen the transaction is completely omitted from the books of accounts. For example, an accountant fails to enter a specific invoice from the sales day book.

2. Error of Commission: This occurs where proper double entry is observed except an entry is made to the wrong amount. The Errors of Commission may happens because of ignorance or negligence of the accountant.

3. Compensating Errors: These occur where two or more accounting errors cancel out their effect on the trial balance.

→ Errors of Principles
This kind of errors are occurs when the entries are made against the principle of accounting. These Errors are made because of the following reasons:

  • Errors happens due to the inability to make a distinction between the revenue and capital items.
  • Errors happens due to the inability to make a difference between the business expenses and personal expenses.
  • Errors happens because of the inability to make a distinction between the productive expense and
    nonproductive expenses
  • When the accounting principle is disregarded e.g. A capital item is taken as revenue item and vice versa, i.e. purchase of furniture posted to Purchases Account.

→ Errors disclosed by the Trial Balance:
A Trial Balance will not agree on account of the following errors:

  • Wrong posting of entries e.g. A debit entry of Rs. 1,000 for purchase of furniture wrongly posted as Rs.100 in the account.
  • Omission of posting of debit or credit e.g. A debit entry of Rs. 1,000 for purchase of furniture is not posted at all.
  • Duplication of posting e.g. When debit entry of Rs. 1000 for purchase of furniture has been posted twice in the account.
  • Wrong side of posting e.g. When debit entry is posted on the credit side or credit entry is posted on the debit side, e.g. When a debit entry of Rs. 1000 is posted on the credit side, i. e. When debit entry of Rs.1000 is posted on the credit side and vice versa.
  • Errors in casting the totals of debit or credit side of the Trial Balance.
  • Wrong transfer of balances in the Trial Balance.
  • Omission of entering the balance of account in the Trial Balance.
  • Balance of cash book omitted to be recorded in the Trial Balance.
  • Wrong balancing of account.
  • Errors in the total or posting or entries of subsidiary book.
  • Wrong carry forward of balance in the various books, i. E. Day books, cash book, etc.

→ Errors not disclosed by Trial Balance
The following errors do not affect the agreement of the Trial Balance:

  • Errors or omission; omission to record any transaction
  • Posting of wrong amount both debit and credit side of the account
  • Error made in posting of debit or credit entry is compensated by an identical error of equal amount. These errors are known as compensating errors.
  • Errors made in posting a transaction on the correct side of wrong account.
  • Recording a transaction twice erroneously. These are known as errors of duplication.

→ Steps to locate errors

  • The first step in finding an error is to simply add the credit and debit columns again to check your math
  • Opening balances of all the accounts are properly brought down in the current year’s books of account.
  • Recheck the totals of the subsidiary books
  • Check that there is no mistake in balancing of various accounts
  • Ledger accounts have been properly balanced and the balances of ledger accounts have been correctly shown in the trial balance.
  • If the difference is large one, compare the figures with the trial balance of corresponding trial balance of previous year

→ Stages of correction of accounting errors
All types of errors in accounts can be rectified at two stages:

  1. before the preparation of the final accounts; and
  2. after the preparation of final accounts.

→ Errors rectified within the accounting period
The proper method of correction of an error is to pass journal entry in such a way that it corrects the mistake that has been committed and also gives effect to the entry that should have been passed Normally, the procedure of rectification, if being done, before the preparation of final accounts is as follows:
(a) Correction of errors affecting one side of one account: Such errors do not let the trial balance agree as they effect only one side of one account so these can’t be corrected with the help of journal entry, if correction is required before the preparation of final accounts. So required amount is put on debit or credit side of the concerned account, as the case may be. For example For example, Sales Book is overcast by Rs.1000. In this case only Sales Ale is wrongly credited by excess amount of Rs.1000 while the corresponding account of the various debtors have been correctly debited.

(b) Correction of errors affecting two sides of two or more accounts: As these errors affect two or more accounts, rectification of such errors, if being done before the preparation of final accounts can often be done with the help of a journal entry. While correcting these errors the amount is debited in one account/accounts whereas similar amount is credited to some other account/accounts. Example of such error is purchase of machinery for Rs.1000 has been entered in the Purchases Book. In this case, Purchases A/c is wrongly debited while Machinery A/c has been omitted to be debited. So two accounts i.e. Purchases A/c and the Machinery A/c are affected.

→ Rectification of error after the preparation of trial balance but before Final Accounts
Sometimes errors are detected after preparation of trial balance. The errors detected after the completion of accounting year may be one-sided and two-sided errors. Rectification of the errors seen after preparation of trial balance can be made by preparing rectifying journal entries in the subsequent year only.

→ Double entry system is followed to rectify the errors detected after preparation of trial balance. Two accounts are affected by the two-sided errors. Therefore, one account is debited and another affecting account is credited for such errors. But one-sided errors are rectified by opening ‘Suspense Account’. Suspense account is opened in two cases:

  • To balance the disagreed total of trial balance
  • To post some of the items whose proper and correct information is not available so in such case temporarily it is posted in suspense account.

If debit total exceeds the credit total then the difference will be put to credit totals as suspense account and vice versa.

→ Rectification of error in next accounting period: If errors are identified in the next accounting period then they are rectified the moment they are identified in usual manner but if the errors affect trading and profit and loss account then a Profit & Loss Adjustment account is opened. When making adjustments all the nominal accounts are replaced by Profit & Loss Adjustment Account. If Profit & Loss Account reveal profit then Profit & Loss account of the previous year is rectified and the additional profit is added to find the correct profit and vice versa.

Accounting Process – II MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
Which of the following errors will affect agreement of trial balance?
a. Repairs on building have been debited to building account.
b. The total of purchase book is short by Rs. 10
c. Freight paid on new machinery has been debited to freight account.
d. Sales of Rs. 500 to Ram has been debited to Shyam’s account.
Answer:
b. The total of purchase book is short by Rs. 10

Hint:
The total of purchase book is short by Rs. 10.
Due to this error the total of debit side of trial balance will be short by Rs. 10 than the total of credit side of Trial Balance.
The other 3 errors will not cause disagreement of trial balance because due to these errors the debit side and credit side of trial balance will remain unchanged.

Question 2.
After preparing the Trial Balance, the accountant finds that the total of the debit side of Trial Balance is short by Rs. 1,000. This difference will be:
a. Credited to suspense account
b. Debited to suspense account
c. Adjusted to any of account having debit balance
d. Adjusted to any of account having credit balance
Answer:
b. Debited to suspense account

Hint:
Suspense account is opened in two cases:

  • To balance the disagreed total of trial balance
  • To post some of the items whose proper and correct information is not available so in such case temporarily it is posted in suspense account.

If debit total exceeds the credit total then the difference will be put to credit totals as suspense account and vice versa.
If total of the debit side of Trial Balance is short by Rs. 1,000 the difference will be debited to suspense account.

Question 3.
Overcasting of sAlcs book by Rs. 1,000 is a type of.
a. One sided error
b. Two Sided error
c. Compensating error
d. Error of principle
Answer:
a. One sided error

Hint:
Overcasting of sales book by Rs 1,000 is a one sided error because due to this error only credit side of trial balance will be increased by Rs 1,000

Question 4.
Which one of the following is correct about errors?
a. Errors always have impact on profits
b. Errors do not have any impact on profits
c. Errors mayor may not have impact on profits
d. Errors always lead to decrease in profit.
Answer:
c. Errors mayor may not have impact on profits

Hint:
An accounting error is a non-fraudulent discrepancy in financial documentation. The assumption is that the Trial balance totals will not agree whenever there is an accounting error. There are several errors in fact which will not affect the agreement of the trial balance totals. This means that there are two basic types of accounting errors:

  • Errors which do not affect the Trial balance totals
  • Errors which do affect the trial balance totals Thus, errors mayor may, may not have impact an profits.

Question 5.
Whitewash charges of building Rs. 500 have been wrongly debited to building account. It is an example of:
a. Compensating error
b. Error of principle
c. Error of omission
d. Error of commission
Answer:
b. Error of principle

Hint:
Errors of Principles -This kind of errors are occurs when the entries are made against the principle of accounting

Question 6.
If the effect of an error is cancelled by the effect of some other errors, the errors are known as:-
a. Error of principle
b. Compensating Error
c. Error of omission
d. Error of commission Questions of June 2013
Answer:
b. Compensating Error

Hint:
Compensating Errors – These occur where two or more accounting errors cancel out their effect on the trial balance.

Question 7.
Which of the following errors will not cause the disagreement of Trial Balance?
a. Rs. 821 received from Ravi has been debited to Kavi.
b. A purchase of Rs. 281 Irorn Sanju has been debited to his account as Rs. 281
c. An invoice for Rs. 480 is entered in the SA/cs Book as Rs. 840.
d. All of the above.
Answer:
c. An invoice for Rs. 480 is entered in the SA/cs Book as Rs. 840.

Hint:
Errors not disclosed by Trial Balance
The following errors do not affect the agreement of the Trial Balance:

  • Errors or omission; omission to record any transaction
  • Posting of wrong amount both debit and credit side of the account
  • Error made in posting of debit or credit entry is compensated by an identical error of equal amount. These errors are known as compensating errors.
  • Errors made in posting a transaction on the correct side of wrong account.
  • Recording a transaction twice erroneously. These are known as errors of duplication

Hence An invoice of Rs. 480 is entered in the sales book as Rs.840 will not be disclosed by trial balance as due to this error the sales A/c will be credited by. Rs. 840 and debtor A/c will be debited by Rs. 840 and hence the trial balance will match.

Question 8.
Error of principle will not permit:
a. Correct total of the balance sheet
b. Correct total of the trial balance
c. The trial balance to agree
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Hint:
Errors of Principles:
This kind of errors are occurs when the entries are made against the principle of accounting. Error of principle has no impact on the agreement of trial balance

Question 9.
Which of the following errors is an error of omission
a. SA/c of Rs. 1,000 was recorded in the purchase journal
b. Salary paid to Mohan and Vikas have been debited to their personal – accounts
c. The total of sA/cs journal has not been posted to the sA/cs account
d. Repairs to building have been debited to building account,
Answer:
c. The total of sA/cs journal has not been posted to the sA/cs account

Hint:
Errors of Omission: The Errors of Omission will occur when a transaction is not recorded in the books of accounts or omitted by mistake. The Errors of Omission may happen as partial or complete.
Thus the total of sales journal has not been posted to the sales A/c’ is an error of omission.

Question 10.
Which of the following errors are reveA/cd by the trial balance
a. Errors of principle
b. Errors of omission
c. Errors of commission
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Errors of commission

Hint:
Error of Commission: This occurs where proper double entry is observed except an entry is made to the wrong account. The Errors of Commission may happens because of ignorance or negligence of the accountant.
The error will be revealed by the Trial Balance.

Question 11.
Which of the following errors will result into non-agreement of the trial balance?
a. Totaling the returns inwards journal as Rs. 11,400 instead of Rs. 12,600
b. Recording a sA/cs invoice for Rs. 5,600 as Rs. 6.500 in the SA/cs Journal
c. Failing to record a purchase invoice for Rs. 54,000 in the Purchases Journal
d. Recording in the Purchases Journal, an invoice, for acquiring a non current asset for Rs. 60,000.
Answer:
a. Totaling the returns inwards journal as Rs. 11,400 instead of Rs. 12,600

Hint:
A Trial Balance will not agree on account of wrong posting of entries . Totaling the return inwards journal as Rs. 11,400 instead of Rs. 12,600 is an error which means that the return inward account will be posted with wrong amount and this mistake will be reflected in the Trial Balance as the Trial Balance will not agree.

Question 12.
Rs.1,000 was paid as rent to the landlord Krishna. This amount was debited to Krishna’s personal account. This error will
a. Affect agreement of the trial balance.
b. Not affect agreement of the trial balance
c. Affect the suspense account
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. Not affect agreement of the trial balance

Hint:
Errors of Principles
This kind of errors are occurs when the entries are made against the principle of accounting. Error of principle has no impact on the agreement of trial balance

Question 13.
It SA/cs is done and by mistake A’s account is transferred to Purchase A/c in such a case which accounts are affected?
a. Purchase a/c
b. A’s a/c
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. Both (a) and (b)

Hint:
It affects both, Purchases’ A/c and A’s A/c.
The accounting entry for the transaction of sales to A should be ( Right entry)
Accounting Process - II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1

Question 14.
The credit side of trial balance show:
a. Bank
b. Cash
c. Equipment
d. None of the above.
Answer:
d. None of the above.

Hint:
Credit side of trial balance resembles the liabilities & income.

Question 15.
A sold goods of t 500/- to Z which is entered in purchase book as 5,000. What will be the entry after rectification?
Accounting Process - II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 6
Answer:
Accounting Process - II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 7

Hint:
The accounting entry for the transaction should be
Accounting Process - II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 2

Question 16.
‘Wrong Casting of subsidiary book” is which type of error?
a. Error of Omission
b. Error of Commission
c. Error of Principle
d. Compensating Errors.
Answer:
b. Error of Commission

Hint:
Error of Commission: This occurs where proper double entry is observed except an entry is made to the wrong account.

Question 17.
When two or more errors are committed in such a way that effect of one error is compensated by another error. Which type of error is this?
a. Error of Commission
b. Compensating Error
c. Error of Principle
d. None of these.
Answer:
b. Compensating Error

Hint:
Compensating Errors: These occur where two or more accounting errors cancel out their effect on the trial balance.

Question 18.
If there is any error in trial balance which is not effecting its total, will it affect any accounting procedure?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Don’t know
d. Partly Yes.
Answer:
b. No

Hint:
If there is any error in trial balance which is’ not affecting its total there will be no effect on accounting procedure.

Question 19.
A Sale of Rs. 100 to ‘A’ recorded in the Purchase Book would affect:
a. Purchases Account and A’s Personal Account Only
b. Sale Account and A’s Personal Account Only
c. A’s Personal Account Only
d. Sales Account, Purchases Account & A’s Personal Account
Answer:
d. Sales Account, Purchases Account & A’s Personal Account

Hint:
Correct entry
Accounting Process - II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 3

Question 20.
If a credit sale of Rs. 15,400 to Pram had been entered as Rs. 14,500. The Journal entry for rectifying the error would be:
a. Debit Cash Account and Credit Sale Account with Rs. 900
b. Debit Prem Account and Credit Sales Account with Rs. 900
c. Debit Sales Account and Credit Pram Account with Rs. 900
d. Debit Prem, Account and Credit Saless Account with Rs. 15,400
Answer:
b. Debit Prem Account and Credit Sales Account with Rs. 900

Hint:
Wrong entry passed
Accounting Process - II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 4

Question 21.
Legal expenses paid to Mohan is debited to his personal account. This is an example of error
a. Duplication
b. Omission
c. Commission
d. Principle
Answer:
c. Commission

Hint:
Error of Commission: This occurs where proper double entry is observed except an entry is made to the wrong account.

Question 22.
Commission received Rs. 2,500 correctly entered in the cash book but posted to the debit side of commission account. In the Trial Balance:
a. The credit total will be greater by Rs. 5,000 than the debit total
b. The debit, total will be greater by Rs. 2,500 than the credit total
c. The debit total will be greater by Rs. 5,000 than the credit total
d. The credit total will be greater by Rs. 2,500 than the debit total
Answer:
b. The debit, total will be greater by Rs. 2,500 than the credit total

Hint:
In trial balance the debit total will be greater by Rs 2500.
Correct entry
Accounting Process - II – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 5

Question 23.
Which of the following errors are reveA/cd by the trial balance?
a. Errors in balancing account
b. Errors of principle
c. Errors of complete omission
d. Compensatory Errors.
Answer:
a. Errors in balancing account

Hint:
A Trial Balance will not agree on account of the following errors:

  • Wrong posting of entries e.g. A debit entry of Rs. 1,000 for purchase of furniture wrongly posted as Rs. 100 in the account.
  • Omission of posting of debit or credit e.g. A debit entry of Rs. 1,000 for purchase of furniture is not posted at all.
  • Duplication of posting e.g. When debit entry of Rs.1000 for purchase of furniture has been posted twice in the account.
  • Wrong side of posting e.g. When debit entry is posted on the credit side or credit entry is posted on the debit side, e.g. When a debit entry of Rs.1000 is posted on the credit side, i. e. When debit entry of Rs.1000 is posted on the credit side and vice versa.
  • Errors in casting the totals of debit or credit side of the Trial Balance.
  • Wrong transfer of balances in the Trial Balance.
  • Omission of entering the balance of account in the Trial Balance.
  • Balance of cash book omitted to be recorded in the Trial Balance.
  • Wrong balancing of account.
  • Errors in the total or posting or entries of subsidiary book.
  • Wrong carry forward of balance in the various books, i. E. Day books, cash book, etc.

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Accounting Process-I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Accounting Process-I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Accounting cycle is the name given to the collective process of recording and processing the accounting events of a company.

→ Steps in Accounting Cycle
Following are the major steps involved in the accounting cycle,

  • Analyzing and recording transactions via journal entries
  • Posting journal entries to ledger accounts
  • Preparing unadjusted trial balance
  • Preparing adjusting entries at the end of the period
  • Preparing adjusted trial balance
  • Preparing financial statements

→ Journal
In accounting, a first recording of financial transactions as they occur in time, so that they can then be used for future reconciling and transfer to other official accounting records such as the general ledger is a jounal. A journal will state the date of the transaction, which accounts) were affected and the amounts related to transaction. A journal details all the financial transactions of a business and the type of accounts these transactions affect. All business transaction are initially recorded in a journal using the double entry method or single entry method of bookkeeping. Journalising is the root of accounting.

Items are entered in the general journal or the special journals via journal entries. Journal entries are prepared after examining the source document to see if a business transaction has taken place. If a business transaction has taken place, that is a transaction that causes a measurable change in the accounting equation then a journal entry is necessary. Journal entries include the date of the transaction, titles of the accounts debited and credited (credited account is indented several spaces), the amount of each debit and credit; and L.F. (ledger folio)

→ Steps for the process of journalizing
Following are the steps involved in the process of journalizing a transaction:

  • Determine the titles of the accounts involved.
  • Understand nature of the accounts. ‘
  • Apply the rule of Debit & Credit described above.
  • And make the necessary journal entry.

Mr. A invests Rs 5000 cash in business on 1st April ,2013. Let us analyze the transaction
I. Date of transaction: 2013 April 1
II. Title of relevant account: cash and capital
III. Nature of account assets and equity
IV. Apply the rule: Cash Dr. and Capital Cr.
V. Journal entry: Cash Dr. 5000 and Capital Cr.5000

Examples of journal entry:
1. Cash brought in by proprietor for starting the business Rs.30000
(a) What comes in business will be debited
Cash has come in business; cash account will be debited in journal entry.
(b) Who is giver, he will be credited
Proprietor is giver of cash to business but he has business motive and he gives the money to business as capital.
Journal Entry ⇒ Cash Account Debit 30, 000
Proprietor’s capital Account Credit 30,000

2. Goods purchased for cash Rs. 500
(a) Goods come in,
so goods or purchase account will be debited
(b) Cash goes out,
so cash account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Purchase account debit 500
Cash account credit 500

3. Goods sold for cash Rs.2000
(a) Cash comes in,
so cash account will be debited.
(b) Goods go out,
so goods or sale account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Cash account debit 2000
Sale account credit 2000

4. Rent paid for shop to landlord 2000
(a) Rent is an item of expenses so it will be debited.
(b) Cash is an item of asset and it goes out, so it will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Rent Account Debit 2000
Cash Account Credit 2000.

5. Goods sold on credit to Dev Raj Rs. 1600
(a) Dev Raj is receiver of goods,
so his personal account will be debited.
(b) Goods go out,
so, goods or sale account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Dev Raj Account Debit 1600
Sale Account Credit 1600

6. Commission received in cash 2000
(a) Cash comes in,
so cash account will be debited.
(b) Commission is an item of income,
so commission account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Cash Account Debit 2000
Commission Account Credit 2000

7. Cash deposited into bank 5000
(a) Bank is receiver of cash,
so bank account will be debited.
(b) Cash goes out,
so cash account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Bank Account Debit 5000
Cash Account Credit 5000

8. Cash withdrawn from bank for office use Rs.2000
(a) Cash comes in the business,
so cash account will be debited.
(b) Bank is the giver,
so bank account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Cash Account Debit 2000
Bank Account Credit 2000

9. Cash drawn by proprietor from business for personal use Rs.3000
(a) Proprietor is the receiver of cash, but business will give him as drawing which is decrease in his capital, so proprietor’s drawing account will be debited.
(b) Cash goes out, so cash account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Drawing Account Debit 3000
Cash Account Credit 3000

10. Goods given as charity Rs. 1000
(a) Charity is an expense of business, so it will be debited.
(b) Goods go out,
so goods or purchase account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Charity Account Debit 1000
Purchase Account Credit 1000

11. Bad Debts written off Rs. 50
(a) Bad debt is loss of business due to not paying the amount by our debtors, so it will be debited.
(b) There is decrease in debtor. We are applying what goes from business, debtor is also our asset, if he does not pay, and it means this asset has gone from business,
so its account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Bad Debt Account Debit 500
Debtor Account Credit 500

12. Bad debts recovered in cash Rs.300
(a) Cash comes in,
so cash account will be debited.
(b) Bad debts recovered are an income, so its account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Cash Account Debit 300
Bad Debts Recovered Account Credit 300

13. Carriage paid on machinery (expenses on purchase of asset) Rs. 1000
(a) Carriage on purchase of machinery is part of cost of machinery, so machinery account will be debited.
(b) Cash goes out,
so cash account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Machinery Account Debit 1000
Cash Account Credit 1000

14. Depreciation on fixed assets Rs. 500
(a) Depreciation on fixed assets is the loss of business, so loss will be debited.
(b) There is a decrease in asset and we will apply what goes from business on it. , so, asset account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Depreciation Account Debit 500
Fixed Asset Account Credit 500

15. Goods given as free samples Rs. 1500
(a) Goods are given for advertising, advertising is an expense of business, so advertising account will be debited.
(b) Goods go out at the cost price,
so goods or purchase account will be credited.
Journal Entry ⇒ Advertising Account Debit 1500
Purchase Account Credit 1500

→ Ledger account: Ledger is a principal book of account. It is a collection of entire group of similar accounts such as sales account, purchase account etc. Characteristic features of ledger are

  • It sorts out all the entries in journal under appropriate accounts for example all transactions related to cash are put in one account.
  • Ledger account is divided into debit and credit. Debit is left hand side of the ledger and is denoted by Dr. and credit is shown towards the right hand side of ledger and is denoted by Cr.
  • J.F. denotes the page number of the journal from where the entry is taken
  • It is customary to use To and By in ledger
  • To is used with the account shown on the debit side and By is used with accounts which appear on credit side
  • The concerned account which has been debited in journal should also be debited in ledger. Likewise the account which has been credited in journal should be credited in ledger
  • The date of the transaction is written in the date column
  • The debit and credit entries in the ledger are totaled if they are same account is closed
  • If debit side is more than the difference is put in credit side by writing the word “ By balance c/d”
  • If credit side is more than the difference is put on the debit side by writing “To balance c/d”

→ Difference between journal and ledger

  • Journal – Is the book of prime entry
    Ledger – Is the book of final entry.
  • Journal – Transactions are recorded in order of occurrence
    Ledger- Transactions are classified according to the nature and are grouped in the concerned accounts
  • Journal Final accounts can’t be prepared directly from journal.
    Ledger – Ledger is the basis of preparing final accounts
  • Journal – Journal is not balanced
    Ledger – ledger is balanced
  • Journal – Accuracy of the books can’t be tested
    Ledger – Accuracy of the books is tested with the help of list of balances

Let us understand by Example
Example: Enter the following transactions in journal and post them into ledger.

2005, jan. 1
1. Mr javed started business with cash Rs 100,00
2. He purchased furniture for Rs 20,000
3. He purchased goods for 60,000
4. He sold goods for cash Rs 80,000
5. He paid salaries Rs 10,000
Answer:
Accounting Process - I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1
Accounting Process - I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 2
Accounting Process - I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 3
Accounting Process - I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 4
It should be noted that nominal accounts are not balanced, the balance in them are transferred to Profit and Loss A/C. Only personal and real accounts ultimately show balances

→ Kinds of Subsidiary Books
There are different kinds of subsidiary books which includes

  • purchase day book,
  • Sales day book,
  • purchase returns book,
  • Sales returns book,
  • Bills receivable books,
  • Bills payable books,
  • Cash book.

→ Purchase book: Purchase day book is used for recording credit purchase of goods only. This will not record any cash purchase or credit purchase of any assets. The term goods means all the commodities and services in which the company deals in day to day activities. The preparation of purchase day book involves the Date column, Particulars column, Invoice number column, Ledger folio column, inner amount column and Amount column.

→ Sales book: Sales day book is mainly used for recording credit sales of goods and services in an organization. This will not record any cash sales or assets sales. The ruling for the preparation of this book is same as like Purchase day book. This involves the Date column, Particulars column, Invoice number column, Ledger folio column, inner amount column and Amount column.

→ Purchase returns book: This is maintained to record the transactions of goods returned to the supplier when purchase on credit. The ruling of the preparation of purchase return book or returns outward book involves Date, Particulars, Debit note number, Ledger folio and amount column.

→ Sales returns book: This book is used to record the goods returned by the customer the goods sold on credit. The ruling of the preparation of Sales return book or returns inward book involves Date, Particulars, credit note number, Ledger folio and amount column.

→ Bills receivable books: It is used to record the transactions when the bills received from the customer for credit sales. This provides a medium for posting bills receivable transaction. The preparation of this book involves Date when received, Drawer, Acceptor, Where payable, date of bill, term, due date ledger folio, Amount, remarks columns.

→ Bills payable books: This is used to record the acceptances given to the suppliers for credit purchase. The preparation of bills payable book involves Date of acceptance, giver, payee, Where payable, date of bill, term, due date, ledger folio, Amount, remarks columns.

→ Cash book: The cash book is used to record all the receipts and payments of cash. For the preparation of cash book there are different rules are available according to the nature of business. The different forms of cash book are as follows:

  • Simple Cash book – This is the simple form of cash book.
  • Two column cash book – This type of cash book have two columns like cash column and discount column.
  • Three column cash book – This involves three columns such as Bank column, cash column and discount column.

→ Petty cash book – This is used to record petty expenses like postage, cartage, printing and stationery etc in the day to day business activities.

Feature of Cash Book: All cash receipts and cash payments are entered chronologically in the cash book. It never shows a credit balance. It serves the functions of Journal also.

→ Journal proper or General Journal is book of original entry (simple journal) in which miscellaneous credit transactions which do not fit in any other books are recorded. It is also called miscellaneous journal. The form and procedure for maintaining this journal is the same that of simple journal.
The use of journal proper is confined to record the following transactions:

→ Opening entries
At the beginning of the financial year opening entries are passed to open the books by recording the assets, liabilities and capital appearing in the balance sheet of previous year

→ Closing entries
These are used for closing of accounts at the end of the year. These accounts are closed by transferring balances to trading and profit and loss account

→ Transfer entries
These are passed for an item entered in one account to another account

→ Purchase of fixed assets or stationary
When assets or stationary are purchased on credit then entry is made in general journal

→ Adjustment entries
At the end of year adjustment entries are passed for outstanding expenses , income received and advance etc.

→ Rectification entries
The errors which have been put in the book of account are recorded in general journal

  • Entries for which there is no special journal
  • Entries for rare transactions

→ Trial balance
Trial Balance may be defined as a statement which contains balances of all ledger accounts on a particular date. It is the aggregate of all debit and credit balances at the end of an accounting period that

  • shows if the general ledger is in balance (total debits equal total credits) before making closing entries
  • serves as a worksheet for making closing entries,
  • provides the basis for making draft financial statements.

Trial Balance has three columns : Name of the Ledger Account, Debit Amount and Credit Amount. Trial balance is the third step in preparation of financial accounts.

→ Objectives of Preparing a Trial Balance

  • To help in preparing Financial Statements
  • To check arithmetical accuracy
  • Helps in locating errors
  • Helps in making adjustments

→ Various methods of preparing trial balance
I. Totals Method – In this method the total of both sides of every account in the ledger is written against the name of the respective account without balancing them in the form of debit and credit balances respectively. For example if the total of debit item of cash account is Rs 1,25,000 and credit total is Rs 95,000 then both these totals will be shown to their respective side without taking out the difference. Thus in trial balance cash account will show
Dr. 1,25,000 and Cr.95,000

II. Balance Method – In this Balance method, the balance of each account (which may be debit balance or credit balance) is extracted and written against each account; we write debit balance in the debit column and credit balance in the credit column. The excess of debit total over credit total is put to the debit column and excess of credit total over the total of debit is put towards the credit column of trial balance. Taking the above example cash account in the trial balance will show Dr.30,000.

Trial Balance is not an account. It is only a list or schedule of balances of ledger accounts including cash and bank balances.

Accounting Process – I MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
The expired portion of capital expenditure shown in the financial statement is:
a. An income
b. An expense
c. An asset
d. A liability
Answer:
b. An expense

Hint:
Depreciation is treated as expenses, it is transferred to debit side of P/L a/c.

Question 2.
Maintaining petty cash book is:
a. Mandatory
b. Necessary
c. Dependant on nature of business
d. All of the above.
Answer:
c. Dependant on nature of business

Hint:
Petty cash book – This is used to record petty expenses like postage, cartage, printing and stationery etc in the day to day business activities.
In big organisation, it is not possible to maintain petty expenses for main cashier. In small organisation the number of petty Expenses is less so such a book can be maintained- by cashier. Maintaining such a book is not compulsory.
So, maintaining petty cash book is dependent on nature of business.

Question 3.
Purchase book records:
a. All purchases made by the firm
b. All purchases of fixed asset used by the firm
c. Credit purchases of goods dealt in by the firm
d. Cash purchases of goods dealt in by the firm.
Answer:
c. Credit purchases of goods dealt in by the firm

Hint:
Purchase day book is used for recording credit purchase of goods only. This will not record any cash purchase or credit purchase of any assets.

Question 4.
CA/CS Book is prepared:
a. On the basis of Cash Book
b. On the basis of copies of invoices.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. On the basis of sA/cs order
Answer:
b. On the basis of copies of invoices.

Hint:
Sales book is prepared on the basis of copies of invoice sent to customers. Sales book has the Date column, Particulars column, Invoice number column, Ledger folio column, inner amount column and Amount column.

Question 5.
Expenses paid in cash and recorded as assets before they are used are called-
a. Accrued Expenses
b. Interim Expenses
c. Prepaid Expenses
d. Unearned Expenses
Answer:
c. Prepaid Expenses

Hint:
Prepaid expenses are future expenses that have been paid in advance.

Question 6.
In which book does the cash SA/cs will be recorded-
a. Cash Book
b. Purchase Book
c. General Journal
d. SA/cs Book.
Answer:
a. Cash Book

Hint:
The cash book is used to record all the receipts and payments of cash.

Question 7.
Which of the following transactions would have no impact on owner’s’ capital?
a. Purchase of land from the proceeds of a bank loan
b. Withdrawal of profits
c. Net loss
d. Cash brought in by owner as additional capital
Answer:
a. Purchase of land from the proceeds of a bank loan

Hint:
Purchase of land from the proceeds of a bank loan would have no impact on owner’s capital.
The entries to be passed on purchase of land are
Accounting Process - I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 5
Thus no impact on owner’s capital

Question 8.
Which of the following accounts will be credited, when the goods are purchased for cash?
a. Stock Account
b. Cash Account
c. Supplier’s Account
d. Work in progress Account
Answer:
b. Cash Account

Hint:
So, cash A/c will be credited.

Question 9.
Which of the following would not be regarded as an asset?
a. A piece of equipment owned by a business
b. A sum of money owned by the business
c. An inventory of goods that is yet to be sold
d. A building that has been taken on rent by the business for its use.
Answer:
d. A building that has been taken on rent by the business for its use.

Hint:
An asset is an economic resource. Anything tangible or intangible that can be owned or controlled to produce value and that is held to have positive economic value is considered an asset.
A building that has been taken on rent by the business for Its use would not be regarded as an assets because company have no ownership of that building.

Question 10.
Withdrawal of cash from bank for official use will result into:
a. Increase of assets
b. Increase of expenses
c. No impact on assets
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. No impact on assets

Hint:
This entry will have nil impact on assets since, on one hand cash A/c will increases and on the other hand bank A/c will decrease.
The entry to be passed is
Accounting Process - I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 6

Question 11.
Franchise rights, goodwill and patents are the examples of:
a. Liquid Assets
b. Tangible Assets
c. Intangible Assets
d. Current Assets
Answer:
c. Intangible Assets

Hint:
An intangible asset is an asset that lacks physical substance and usually is very hard to evaluate. It includes patents, copyrights, franchises, goodwill, trademarks, trade names.

Question 12.
Which of the following is not an example of current asset?
a. Prepaid Expenses
b. Account Receivables
c. Short term securities
d. Unearned Income.
Answer:
c. Short term securities

Hint:
A current assets is cash and any other company asset that will be turning to cash within one year from the date shown in the company’s balance sheet.
Short term securities are regarded as Liquid Assets and not as current assets.

Question 13.
The three columns on each side of a three columnar cash book represent:
a. Real and personal accounts
b. Real and nominal accounts
c. Personal and nominal accounts
d. Real, personal and nominal accounts.
Answer:
d. Real, personal and nominal accounts.

Hint:
Three column cash book – This involves three columns such as Bank column, cash column and discount column.

Bank column Personal account
Discount column Nominal account
Cash column Real account

Question 14.
A chronological record of transaction may be found in:
a. Balance Sheet
b. Trial Balance
c. Ledger
d. Journal.
Answer:
d. Journal.

Hint:
In accounting, a first recording of financial transactions as they occur in time, so that they can then be used for future reconciling and transfer to other official accounting records such as the general ledger is a jounal.

Question 15.
A purchased an old computer costing Rs. 10,000 and incurred Rs. 1,000 on its repairs and Rs. 500 on its packing. He sold the computer at 20% margin on selling price. The sA/cs value will be:
a. Rs. 12,500
b. Rs.11,000
c. Rs.14,375
d. Rs. 13,800
Answer:
c. Rs.14,375

Hint:
Total cost of computer =10,000 + 1,000 + 500 = 11,500 Margin is 20% on selling price which means it is 25% on cost.
Sales value = 11,500 + 25%
= Rs. 14,375/-

Question 16.
The imprest system pertains to-
a. Purchase book
b. SA/cs book
c. Cash book
d. Petty cash book.
Answer:
d. Petty cash book.

Hint:
The imprest system is an accounting system for paying out and subsequently replenishing petty cash. A cashier maintaining petty cash is given a definite sum of money in the beginning of a period and is reimbursed for payments made at the end of the period. Thus, he will have again the fixed amount in the beginning of the new period. This system is known as the imprest system of petty cash book.

Question 17.
The statement showing balance of all the ledger accounts is known as-
a. Trial balance
b. Balance sheet
c. Bank reconciliation statement
d. Profit and loss account.
Answer:
a. Trial balance

Hint:
Trial Balance may be defined as a statement which contains balances of all ledger accounts on a particular date.

Question 18.
A General Cash book acts as a
a. Journal
b. Ledger
c. Both
d. None.
Answer:
c. Both

Hint:
A cashbook is a book of prime entry in which cash and bank transactions of business are recorded. It acts as a book of original entry and a ledger. Hence, it is both Journal and Ledger

Question 19.
Debit note is related with the
a. Sates book
b. SA/cs return book
c. Purchase return book
d. Journal proper.
Answer:
c. Purchase return book

Hint:
Purchase returns book: This is maintained to record the transactions of goods returned to the supplier when purchase on credit. A debit note is issued by a seller to advise the amount owed by the buyer.

Question 20.
If assets are increased by 2,000 and liabilities are increased by 1,200.
What will be the effect on business equity?
a. 800
b. 2,000
c. 3,200
d. 1,200.
Answer:
a. 800

Hint:
Equity = Total assets – Total outside liabilities
= 2,000 – 1,200 = 800

Question 21.
In case of Trial Balance, balance comes from
a. Journal
b. Ledger
c. Balance Sheet
d. Profit & Loss A/c.
Answer:
b. Ledger

Hint:
Trial Balance may be defined as a statement which contains balances of all ledger accounts on a particular date.

Question 22.
Cost of goods sold – 60,000. SA/cs- 95,000 Expenses – 20,000 Gross Profit will be?
a. 20,000
b. 15,000
c. 35,000
d. 1,75,000.
Answer:
c. 35,000

Hint:
Gross Profit = Sales – Cost of Goods Sold = 95,000-60,000 = 35,000

Question 23.
Why ledger is made?
a. To classify all items appearing in Journal
b. To record the transaction
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Answer:
a. To classify all items appearing in Journal

Hint:
Ledger sorts out all the entries in journal under appropriate accounts for example all transactions related to cash are put in one account.

Question 24.
In case of three column cash book, contra entry is related with –
a. Cash; Discount
b. Cash; Bank
C. Bank; Discount
d. None of these.
Answer:
b. Cash; Bank

Hint:
The entry which involves both cash and bank transactions is called contra entry.

Question 25.
In case of three columnar cash book, contra entry.
a. Bank account only
b. Cash and discount account
c. Cash account only
d. Cash and bank account
Answer:
d. Cash and bank account

Hint:
In a case of Contra Entry of cash book when a transaction involves both cash and bank accounts, it is entered on both sides of the cash book, one in the cash column and other in the bank column, though on opposite sides.

Question 26.
The closing entry for transfer of Salaries Paid Nc appearing in the Trial Balance will be:
a. Debit Salaries A/c, Credit P&L A/c
b. Debit Salaries A/c, Credit Trading A/c
c. Debit Trading A/c, Credit Salaries A/c
d. Debit P&L A/c, Credit Salaries A/c
Answer:
d. Debit P&L A/c, Credit Salaries A/c

Hint:
The closing entry for transfer of salaries paid A/c appearing in trial balance will be.
Accounting Process - I – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 7

Question 27.
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to a journal entry?
a. It is prepared to record all transactions in alphabetical order
b. It should always end with a narration explaining the need for it
c. It should De substantiated by appropriate voucher and authority
d. It should always consist of a debit entry matched by a corresponding credit entry.
Answer:
a. It is prepared to record all transactions in alphabetical order

Hint:
In Journal Transactions are recorded in order of occurrence i.e. chronological order and not alphabetical order.

Question 28.
Which of the following entries will be entered in the Journal proper?
a. Sold goods on credit
b. Goods purchased and paid by cash
c. Furniture purchased on credit
d. Purchase goods on credit.
Answer:
c. Furniture purchased on credit

Hint:
Journal proper or General Journal is book of original entry (simple journal) in which miscellaneous credit transactions which do not fit in any other books are recorded. It is also called miscellaneous journal.
Some entries confined to general journal (or journal proper) are:

  • Opening entries
  • Closing entries
  • Adjustment entries
  • Rectification entries
  • Purchase of fixed assets etc.

Question 29.
Which of the following account will be credited for profit on safe of fixed assets?
a. Depreciation Account
b. Cash Account
c. Fixed Asset Account
d. Profit and Loss Account.
Answer:
d. Profit and Loss Account.

Hint:
When a fixed asset is sold at a profit then the account to be credited will profit and loss account.

Question 30.
A chronological record of transactions may be found in
a. Trial balance
b. Journal
c. Balance sheet
d. Ledger
Answer:
b. Journal

Hint:
Features of Journal

  • Is the book of prime entry
  • Transactions are recorded in order of occurrence i.e. chronological
  • Final accounts can’t be prepared directly from journal.
  • Journal is not balanced
  • Accuracy of the books can’t be tested

Question 31.
The imprest system pertains to:
a. Purchase book
b. Cash book
c. SA/cs book
d. Petty Cash book.
Answer:
d. Petty Cash book.

Hint:
The imprest system is an accounting system for paying out and subsequently replenishing petty cash. A cashier maintaining* petty cash is given a definite sum of money in the beginning of a period and is reimbursed for payments made at the end of the period. Thus, he will have again the fixed amount in the beginning of the new period. This system is known as the imprest system of petty cash book.

Question 32.
After the preparation of income statement, it was discovered that accrued expenses of (1,000 have been ignored and closing inventory has been overvalued by (1,300. This will have result in:
a. An understatement of net profit of Rs 2,300
b. An overstatement of net profit of Rs 300
c. An understatement of net profit of Rs 300
d. An overstatement of net profit of Rs 2,300
Answer:
d. An overstatement of net profit of Rs 2,300

Hint:
If accured expenses of Rs 1,000 have been ignored this will increase the net profit by Rs. 1,000
If closing inventory is overvalued, it will also result in increasing the net profit by Rs. 1,300
Thus, net effect will be profit increased by Rs. 2,300 (1200 + 1300)

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Theoretical Framework – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Theoretical Framework – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ The systematic recording of financial transactions pertaining to a business can be termed as accounting.

→ Accounting is defined by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) as “the art of recording, classifying, and summarizing in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which are, in part at least, of financial character, and interpreting the results thereof.”

→ We can see from this definition that accounting involves these elements

  • Accounting is an art as it helps in finding the financial results
  • It is a process that identifies, classifies and summarises the financial events that take place within an organisation
  • A reporting system that communicates relevant financial information

→ Branches of accounting
Financial accounting refers to accounting for revenues, expenses, assets, and liabilities. It involves the basic accounting processes of recording, classifying, and summarizing transactions, preparing balance sheet, profit and loss account.

Cost accounting is the branch of accounting dealing with the recording, classification, allocation, and reporting of current and prospective costs. It helps in determining the cost of production.

Managerial accounting is the branch of accounting designed to provide information to management for the purpose of enhancing controls.

→ Functions of accounting

  • The primary function of accounting relates to recording, classification and summary of financial transactions. The sole purpose is to prepare financial statements for reporting.
  • Auditing is compulsory in case of registered firms. Auditing is not possible without accounting. Thus accounting becomes compulsory to comply with legal requirements
  • To provide managers with information for decision making. Decision making programme is greatly assisted by accounting as with the help of accounting we can compare day to day operations with the predefined profit.
  • Accounting helps to find if there is any misuse of the money or assets of the firm.
  • Real position of the firm can be ascertained with the help of accounting. Here are many parties-owners, creditors, government, employees etc., who are interested in knowing the results of the firm and this can be communicated only through accounting. The accounting shows a real and true position of the firm or the business.
  • To provide information for stakeholders about financial performance and viability

→ Advantages of accounting

  • It records all the financial business transactions in a systematic manner which helps in comparison of financial results- comparison of its own results of different years- comparison of financial results with other firms in the industry.
  • Once established, less time consuming than manual systems.
  • Enables Balance Sheet tracking.
  • It is the true test of performance.
  • It is good for legal purpose as tax authorities rely on the figures shown by accounting.
  • It is used for valuation of business.

→ Disadvantages of accounting

  • There can be human error.
  • Accounting records are based on estimates.
  • Requires a knowledge of general accounting procedures to be fully utilized
  • Fixed assets are recorded at original cost.
  • Accounting information may be biased.
  • Money as a measurement unit keeps changing

→ Bookkeeping
Bookkeeping is the recording, on a day-today basis of the financial transactions and information pertaining to a business. It is concerned with ensuring that records of those individual financial transactions are accurate, up-to-date and comprehensive. It is a small part of accounting. It is mainly concerned with recording of financial data which includes receipts, payments, purchases, sales, expenditure.

Difference between book keeping and accounting.

Accounting Book keeping
Definition Preparation of accounting records. Recording daily activities of revenue and expenditure.
Purpose Measuring, preparation, analyzing, and interpretation of financial statements from the data provided by book keeping records Keeping an account of all receipts, revenues, expenditure in order to create accounting ledgers.
Goal To see how the company is performing, to monitor day to day accounting operations, and for taxing. the process of accumulating, organizing, storing, and accessing the financial information
Tools Balance sheets, profit and loss ledgers, positional declarations, and cash flow statements. Supplier ledger, customer ledger and general ledger and cash book.

→ Systems of Accounting
Cash system of accounting:
→ Under the cash accounting method, a company records customer receipts in the period that they are received, and expenses in the period in which they are paid.

→ In this kind of accounting system entries are made when cash is received. It will not treat any revenue or sale unless cash is received against it. Thus even if the entry belongs to last year it is shown in the books only when cash is received. Such kind of accounting system does not show a true or fair picture of the organization. Cash accounting is recognizing the income and expenses in your business when they are physically paid rather than on receipt or issue of an invoice. Many business owners like small firm, professionals like doctors, lawyers etc. when starting out often use a simple, basic cash system, because it helps to keep track of cash flow.

→ Accrual system of Accounting
With the accrual method, income and expenses are recorded as they occur, regardless of whether or not cash has actually changed hands. In this type of system cost and revenue are matched on the basis of relevant time period. It is also known as mercantile system of accounting. Further if any cost has lost its utility then it is written off. An excellent example is a sale on credit. The sale is entered into the books when the invoice is generated rather than when the cash is collected. Likewise, an expense occurs when materials are ordered or when a workday has been logged in by an employee, not when the check is actually written. Almost every company uses the accrual accounting method, since it provides the most accurate representation of the company’s financial state.

→ Accounting information – Accounts are the basic language of a company. It helps to understand the organization financial condition. Users of accounting information are

→ Users of accounting information within the organization – They are owners, board of directors , employees . The owners, the Board of Directors and the employees are interested in the information about their entity’s stability and profitability to support their future decisions. The owners and the Board of Directors are particularly interested in the entity’s ability to generate profit, while the employees are interested in the entity’s ability to provide remuneration, pensions and other benefits, as well as career opportunities.

→ Users of accounting information outside the organization – They are investors, creditors, suppliers, banks, customers, the public and state institutions and other authorities. The current or potential investors are interested in the risk-benefit relationship in order to make decisions regarding the purchase, sale or retention of stocks. The financial creditors are interested in the information related to the entity’s reimbursement ability. Suppliers and other trade creditors are interested in the entity’s solvency. Customers are interested in the information related to the continuity of the entity’s activity to make decisions about: the long-term collaboration. The state institutions and other authorities need a wide range of information to regulate the entities. Banks would like to get assured that they will be paid back in time in case any loans given.

→ Key characteristics of accounting information

Understandability: The accounting information should be in such a way that it will be understandable to users – who are generally assumed to have a reasonable knowledge of business and economic activities.

Relevance: Accounting information should relate to a specific time period or contain information regarding individual business functions.

Consistency: A particularly important characteristic is for the accountant to record information using a consistent application of accounting standards, and to present aggregated results in the same way, period after period.

Comparability: A characteristic feature is the ability for users to be able to compare similar companies in the same industry group and to make comparisons of performance over time. Much of the work that goes into setting accounting standards is based around the need for comparability.

Reliability: This implies that the accounting information that is presented is truthful, accurate, complete There should be an accounting system in place that is comprehensive enough to be able to routinely collect, record, and aggregate all transactions, so that users of the accounting information are assured that they are reading about the complete results of a business. This also means that there are no “surprises” that appear as retroactive adjustments to the financial statements.

Timely: The information is to be timely so that it can be used in decision making a delayed information is of no use

Objectivity: This implies that accounting information is prepared and reported in a “neutral” way. In other words, it is not biased towards a particular user group or vested interest.

→ Role of accountant
Accountants have a vital role to play in commercial success, by using their increasingly valuable knowledge in a way which gives their organizations or clients a competitive advantage. The role of accountant can be enumerated as

  • An accountant keeps a systematic record of all the financial transactions of company
  • Every limited company is required to appoint an auditor who is required to do auditing . Auditing is actually inspecting the accounting data to see the accuracy of the accounting statements.

→ Auditing is of two types
1. Internal audit – It is generally done in large organization where company audits its records so as to keep a proper control. Generally professionally qualified people heads this department.

2. Statutory audit – As per Companies Act every company is required to-get its account audited by a qualified chartered accountant

  • He can present himself before tax authorities. As he has knowledge about this , he is in a better position to assist his client
  • Accountant also acts as an adviser and financial interpreter, who may present the company’s financial data to people within and outside of the business
  • Another important role is in budgeting. Budgeting means to plan business activities before they occur. Thus in the end when all the business activities and transactions have been completed, actual can be compared with projected. Being a qualified person he is the best person for doing this.
  • As analysts, accountants may perform certain types of analysis using financial data that is used to assist in making business decisions
  • They prepare financial reports for directors and other employees of the organization
  • Accountants also perform duties such as share registration work, settling the disputes etc.

→ Accounting principles
Accounting follows a certain framework of core principles which makes the information generated through an accounting system valuable. Without these core principles accounting would be irrelevant and unreliable. These principles are

→ Accrual Concept
Business transactions are recorded when they occur and not when the related payments are received or made. This concept is called accrual basis of accounting and it is fundamental to the usefulness of financial accounting information.

Example: A business records its utility bills as soon as it receives them and not when they are paid, because the service has already been used. The company ignored the date when the payment will be made.

→ Going Concern Concept
Financial statements are prepared assuming that a business entity will continue to operate in the foreseeable future. The intention on the part of management is not to liquidate the entity or to significantly curtail its operational activities. It is because of this concept that fixed assets are valued cost minus depreciated value. The status of going concern is important because if the company is a going concern it has to follow the generally accepted accounting standards. If the principle of going concern is not valid then the organization must clearly say it in its financial statements.

→ Business Entity Concept
In accounting business organization and owners are two different identity. Thus business has its own existence separate from owners, creditors etc. This concept is called business entity concept. It means that personal transactions of owners are treated separately from those of the business. Therefore any personal expenses incurred by owners of a business will not appear in the income statement of the entity. Similarly, if any personal expenses of the owners are paid out of assets of the entity, it would be considered to be drawings for the purpose of accounting much in the same way as cash drawings.

→ Monetary Unit Assumption
In accounting we can communicate only those business transactions and other events which can be expressed in monetary units. This is called monetary unit assumption. Non monetary events like death, dispute etc. may have a great influence on the organization but these factors will not form the part of accounts as they can be calculated on monetary basis.

→ Accounting period concept
Although businesses intend to continue in long-term, it is always helpful to account for their performance and position based on certain time periods because it provides timely feedback and helps in making timely decisions. This time period is called accounting period and is generally of twelve months.

→ Revenue match concept
In an accounting period it is necessary that revenue of that period match with the expenses of that period. Thus according to this concept adjustments should be made for all the outstanding expenses, accrued income etc.

→ Realisation concept
Realisation concept in accounting, also known as revenue recognition principle. In case of sale of goods, revenue must be recognized when the seller transfers the risks and has imposed a legal obligation for the money. This is generally deemed to occur when the goods are actually transferred to the buyer. Where goods are sold on credit terms, revenue is recognized along with a corresponding receivable which is subsequently settled upon the receipt of the due amount from the customer.

→ Dual concept
It is based on the double entry book keeping. Thus one entry consists of debit to one or more accounts and another entry consists of credit to some other account. Thus at any point of time total assets should be equal to total liabilities.

→ Cost concept
Cost is the value of a resource given up or a liability incurred to acquire an asset/service at the time when the resource was given up or the liability incurred.

→ Accounting convention
An accounting convention is not a legally-binding practice; rather, it is a generally-accepted convention based on customs, and is designed to help accountants overcome practical problems that arise out of the preparation of financial statements. Different accounting conventions are

→ Materiality
According to this convention accountant should report only what is material and relevant. An item may be material for one purpose and immaterial for other thus preparation of accounts involves a high degree of judgment. Where decisions are required about the appropriateness of a particular accounting judgment, the “materiality” convention suggests that this should only be an issue if the judgment is “significant” or “material” to a user of the accounts. The concept of “materiality” is an important issue for auditors of financial accounts.

→ Consistency
The convention of consistency means that same accounting principles should be used for preparing financial statements year after year. A meaningful conclusion can be drawn from financial statements of the same enterprise when there is comparison between them over a period of time. But this can be possible only when accounting policies and practices followed by the enterprise are uniform and consistent over a period of time.

→ Disclosure
It implies that accounts should be prepared in such a way that all material information is clearly disclosed to the reader. The term disclosure does not imply that all information that any one could desire is to be included in accounting statements. The term only implies that there is to a sufficient disclosure of information which is of material in trust to proprietors, present and potential creditors and investors.

→ Conservatism
This convention ensures that uncertainties and risks inherent in business transactions should be given a proper consideration. As per this convention the accountants follow the rule ‘anticipate no profit but provide for all possible losses’.

→ Difference between accounting concept and conventions
Accounting Concepts are the necessary assumptions, conditions or postulates upon which the accounting is based. They are developed to help in the preparation of accounting statements so that the financial information provided to all the readers is such that all.

→ Readers interpret the statements in the same meaning and context. Example entity concept, dual entry concept etc. Accounting conventions are the customs or traditions guiding the preparation of accounts. They are adopted to make financial statements clear and meaningful. Example : Convention of Disclosure, Convention of Materiality etc

→ Accounting standard: These are a set of rules that are to be followed while preparing financial statements. These rules are not rigid and have to be applied with due care in response to circumstances. These accounting standards are formulated by Accounting Standards Board of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

→ Accounting policies: These are the specific policies and procedures used by a company to prepare its financial statements.

→ Classification of Accounts
All accounts may be grouped in two broad categories or classifications. These are personal and impersonal.
Personal Accounts: These are the accounts that have the names of debtors (customers) or creditors (suppliers), banks. They are therefore personal to this extent.

→ These accounts are of 3 types
(a) natural personal accounts
(b) artificial personal accounts
(c) representative personal account
Examples – Individuals, Partnership firms, corporate entities , Non- Profit Organizations

→ Impersonal Accounts:
These non-personal accounts may be divided into Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts.

→ Real Accounts – These accounts are tangible in nature and represent accounts that records possession such as machinery, furniture, premises and stock.
These accounts are of two types
(a) tangible real accounts – examples furniture and fixtures , plant and machinery
(b) intangible real accounts – example Goodwill, Patents and copyrights , cash accounts

→ Nominal Accounts – These accounts are intangible in nature and represent accounts that in which expenses, revenues and capital are recorded. Examples are sales , purchase, electricity , expenses, salary

→ Rules of Entry for general Accounts
An account is divided into two sides, a left side called the debit side and a right side called the credit side. The title of the account is written in the center at the top of each account.

→ Double entry: In the double entry system, transactions are recorded in terms of debits and credits. Since a debit in one account will be offset by a credit in another account, the sum of all debits must therefore be exactly equal to the sum of all credits. The double-entry system of bookkeeping or accounting makes it easier to accurately prepare financial statements directly from the books of account and detect errors. For example For example, when a company borrows money from its bank, the company’s Cash account will increase and its liability account Loans Payable will increase.

→ Rules of debit and credit: The source account for the transaction is credited (an entry is made on the right side of the account’s ledger) and the destination account is debited (an entry is made on the left). Each transaction’s debit entries must equal its credit entries.

→ In financial accounting or bookkeeping, “Dr” (Debit) indicates the left side of a ledger account and “Cr” (Credit) indicates the right.

→ When recording entries, debits are always listed first. In the general journal, where double-entry accounting is being used, debits are the first entry. The debited account is listed on the first line with the amount in the left-side of the register. The credited account is listed on the second line, usually indented and the credited amount is recorded on the right-side of the register.

→ Rules of Debit and Credit based on the types of Account: Under double entry system an account is classified into three types. They are
A. personal account,
B. real account and
C. nominal account,
there are three separate rules of debiting and crediting the financial transactions. The rules of debit and credit under different types of account are as follows:

A. Personal Account: Personal account is a account of a person. A person can be a natural person such as people like us, an artificial person such as firms, organizations and institutions and a representative person such as debtors and creditors. Since a person, be it a natural, artificial or representative, can be the receiver of benefits or giver of benefits, the rule of debiting and crediting the account of the person is as follows :

  • Debit the receiver of benefits.
  • Credit the giver of benefits.

This rule states that whenever a person receives benefits is debited by the amount of the benefit received. On the contrary, whenever the person gives the benefits is credited by the amount of benefits given. For example, if cash is paid to Anand (Anand is a natural person), his account (Anand’s account) is debited since he is the receiver of the benefit (cash). If cash is received from ABC Enterprises (ABC Enterprises is an artificial person), its account (ABC Enterprises account) is credited because it is the giver of benefits (cash).

B. Real Account: Real account is an record of an asset. An asset can be current asset such as cash, a fixed asset such as building and intangible asset such as goodwill. Since an asset, is a current, fixed or an intangible asset, can either come in the business through its purchase or go out of the business through its sales, the rule of debiting and crediting the real (asset) account is as follows:

  • Debit what comes in
  • Credit what goes out

This rule states that whenever some benefit in the form of asset come into the business through its purchase, its (asset) account is debited. Conversely, whenever some benefit in the form of asset goes out of the business through its sales, its (asset) account is credited. For example, if cash is invested in the business, cash (current asset) account is debited by the amount of cash. If furniture is purchased for cash, furniture (fixed asset) account is debited because it comes into and cash (current asset) account is credited because it goes out from the business in exchange for furniture.

C. Nominal account: Nominal account is a record of expense or loss or income or gain. An expense or loss is the sacrifice of benefits in exchange for service used and an income or gain is the benefit earned in exchange for service rendered. Since the business makes expenses and earns incomes, the rule of debiting and crediting the expense and income (nominal) account is as follows:

  • Debit all expenses and losses
  • Credit all incomes and gains

This rule states that whenever some benefit is sacrificed in exchange for service used ( expense made or loss suffered), its (expense) account is debited. On other hand, whenever some benefit is earned in exchange for service rendered, its (income or gain) account is credited. For example, when salary is paid, an expense is made by the business, therefore salary account is debited. On the other hand, when interest is received, an income is earned by the business, hence, interest received account is credited.

→ Rules of Debit and Credit Based on the Accounting Equation: Accounting equation is a statement of equality between the three basic elements of accounting. They are assets, capital and liabilities. Each and every financial transaction affects the three basic elements. However, the total of all assets is always equal to the total of capital and liabilities at any point in time.

→ When recording entries, debits are always listed first. In the general journal, where double-entry accounting is being used, debits are the first entry. The debited account is listed on the first line with the amount in the left-side of the register. The credited account is listed on the second line, usually indented and the credited amount is recorded on the right-side of the register.

Theoretical Framework MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
Accounting is
a. Recording of data accounting?
b. Recording of financial data
c. Recording of Strategically data
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Recording of data accounting?

Question 2.
Financial statements are
a. Financial records which make the statements
b. Financial records analyzed and put in a statement form so as to be used by an enterprise.
c. Transactions of the business.
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Financial records analyzed and put in a statement form so as to be used by an enterprise.

Question 3.
The branch of accounts that deals with the calculation of unit cost of services is called.
a. Cost Accounting
b. Management accounting
c. Financial Accounting
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Cost Accounting

Question 4.
The net profit or loss for a particular period of time is reported on the
a. Income Statement
b. Balance Sheet
c. trial Balance
d. Statement of Changes In Owner’s Equity
Answer:
a. Income Statement

Question 5.
Financial Accounting deals with.
a. Trial balance
b. Profit & loss account
c. Financial data
d. Both a & B
Answer:
d. Both a & B

Question 6.
Which of the following is NOT the function of
a. Creating the liabilities of an organization
b. Keeping systematic accounting
c. Preparation of balance sheet
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Creating the liabilities of an organization

Question 7.
Accounting makes
a. Decision making for the management easy as financial results can be compared.
b. The records being put is a systematic pattern so that any point of time they can be used.
c. The financial information being stored in a meaningful way for taxation purpose
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 8.
Fixed assets are recorded at
a. Current cost
b. Original cost
c. Depreciated cost
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Original cost

Question 9.
Accounting gives the true picture of the organization’s financial position.
a. True
b. False
c. Irrelevant
d. Partiality false
Answer:
d. Partiality false

Question 10.
Sometimes the accounting information is
a. Biased
b. Based on estimates
c. Based on current replacement cost
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 11.
An asset posses which of the following?
a. Future economic benefits for the business
b. All kind of benefits for the business
c. Expenses for the business
d. Merits and Demerits for the business
Answer:
a. Future economic benefits for the business

Question 12.
The limitation of accounting records is
a. Events can be expressed in the accounts
b. Non monetary items can be shown in accounting statements
c. Non monetary items can not be shown in accounting statements
d. Monetary items can be shown in accounting statements
Answer:
c. Non monetary items can not be shown in accounting statements

Question 13.
Accounting information is dependent on the
a. Person who is making it
b. Data that has been taken
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 14.
Book keeping is
a. Science
b. Art
c. Both a & b
d. Literature
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 15.
Features of book keeping one.
a. Mechanical recording
b. Repetitive recording
c. Record keeping of all money transactions
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 16.
Book keeping is meant to show all the transactions
a. of the whole year
b. of the accounting period
c. of half year
d. all of the above
Answer:
b. of the accounting period

Question 17.
What is done as per the basic concepts of accounts?
a. Book keeping
b. Accounting
c. Preparation of balance sheet
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Book keeping

Question 18.
Which is NOT a part of financial statements?
a. Balance sheet
b. Book keeping
c. Debit & Credit
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Book keeping

Question 19.
Which does not appear in a purchases ledger control account?
a. bad debts
b. discount received
c. goods returned to creditors
d. interest charged by supplier
Answer:
a. bad debts

Question 20.
In cash accounting system
a. Revenues of assets are shown only when cash is received irrespective of the period
b. Revenues of assets are shown only of the cash received for the transactions of the financial year
c. Revenues of assets are shown only of the cash received for the current year.
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Revenues of assets are shown only when cash is received irrespective of the period

Question 21.
In determing the income of ______________ people use receipts and expenditure account.
a. Doctors
b. Lawyers
c. Company secretary
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 22.
While preparing receipts and expenditure account
a. Outstanding expenses are to be taken care of
b. Only current expenses are to be taken care of
c. Outstanding income is to be taken care of
d. Outstanding expenses are not to be taken care of
Answer:
a. Outstanding expenses are to be taken care of

Question 23.
The other name of merchantile system of accounting is.
a. Cash system of accounting
b. Receipts & expenditure accounts
c. Accrual system of accounting
d. Whole of the above
Answer:
c. Accrual system of accounting

Question 24.
Which accounting system best reflect the time picture of organization?
a. Accrual system of accounting
b. Cash system of accounting
c. Receipts & expenditure accounts
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Accrual system of accounting

Question 25.
Which of the following should be the first action when making a prime entry for a transaction?
a. Study the voucher to identify the nature of the transaction
b. Post the transactions to the appropriate Ledger accounts
c. Decide on the Ledger account to be debited and the one to be credited
d. Enter the transaction in the appropriate book of prime entry
Answer:
a. Study the voucher to identify the nature of the transaction

Question 26.
As per the accrual system of accounting loss is
a. Cost that can not generate any revenues in future
b. Cash which has not been charged.
c. Cost which has lost its utility
d. Both a & c
Answer:
d. Both a & c

Question 27.
In accrual system of accounting
a. Revenues are taken care of irrespective whether cash in received on not
b. Cost incurred during the period is taken care of
c. Both a & b
d. Cost of last financial period is only taken care of
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 28.
Most appropriate way of defining accounting will be
a. Communicating the revenues
b. Communicating the losses of the organization
c. Collection of all the financial data
d. Communicating the financial position of an organization
Answer:
d. Communicating the financial position of an organization

Question 29.
Accounting information is being used by
a. Customer
b. Researchers
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 30.
Which amongst is NOT the work of accountant
a. Statutory audit
b. Internal audit
c. Secretarial auditor
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Secretarial auditor

Question 31.
Internal audit is
a. Of the staff of the company by its own staff
b. To check whether the instructions of the management are being followed ‘
c. Audit done by chartered accountant to show time and fair position of the company as per accounting principles
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 32.
Which is NOT the work of an accountant _____________?
a. Representing before the tax authorities
b. Working as an arbitrator
c. Planning & controlling the organization
d. Working as liquidation
Answer:
c. Planning & controlling the organization

Question 33.
Capital is
a. Liability to outsiders
b. Liability to owners
c. Assets of outsiders
d. Assets of owners
Answer:
b. Liability to owners

Question 34.
Recording the transaction will
a. increase an asset, increase a liability
b. decrease an asset, decrease a liability
c. increase an asset, increase owner’s equity
d. decrease an asset, decrease owner’s equity
Answer:
b. decrease an asset, decrease a liability

Question 35.
The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. assets less liabilities equal capital
b. assets plus liabilities equals capital
c. assets plus capital equals liabilities
d. none of the above
Answer:
a. assets less liabilities equal capital

Question 36.
The characteristic feature of dual aspect concept of accounting is
a. The total amount debited is always equal to total amount credited
b. All the transactions are settled in cash
c. Cost of the various asset is taken on the basis of actual amount spent on it
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. The total amount debited is always equal to total amount credited

Question 37.
Convention means
a. Practices followed by accountants
b. Assets and liabilities together form convention
c. It is a treaty signed by all the accounting forms all over the countries
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Practices followed by accountants

Question 38.
The objective of accounting standard is to
a. Bring uniformity in financial reporting
b. Ensure consistency and comparability of data with earlier years on with similar organizations
c. Both a & b
d. Establishment of law
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 39.
Interest outstanding will come under
a. Natural personal accounts
b. Artificial personal accounts
c. Representative personal accounts
d. Real accounts personal accounts
Answer:
c. Representative personal accounts

Question 40.
Trademark is classified in ____________ type of account
a. Real accounts
b. Personal accounts
c. Nominal accounts
d. Tangible real accounts
Answer:
a. Real accounts

Question 41.
A company sells goods on credit valued at Rs25000 to a customer. At what point in the sales cycle should this sale be recognized in the accounts?
a. When the customer’s order is received.
b. When the goods are ready for dispatch to the customer.
c. When the goods are sent, accepted and invoiced.
d. When the customer pays.
Answer:

Question 42.
The recording of financial transactions and events manually or electronically is called
a. Bookkeeping
b. information technology
c. Reporting
d. Auditing
Answer:
c. Reporting

Question 43.
Which best describes, the assets of a business?
a. items that should turn into cash in the near future
b. cash invested by the owner of the business
c. items bought for long term use by the business
d. items owing to or owned by the business
Answer:
a. items that should turn into cash in the near future

Question 44.
Which is recorded in the purchases ledger?
a. cash paid to a creditor
b. cash purchases
c. cheque received from a debtor
d. purchase of fixed assets
Answer:
d. purchase of fixed assets

Question 45.
Which document is issued by a supplier when a customer returns goods?
a. credit note
b. debit note
c. invoice
d. statement
Answer:
a. credit note

Question 46.
Accounting is
a. Art
b. Science
c. Literature
d. Money
Answer:
a. Art

Question 47.
Which of the following is a liability?
a. Motor Vehicles
b. Creditors for goods
c. Cash at Bank
d. Machinery
Answer:
b. Creditors for goods

Question 48.
Which ledger entries record the purchase of a machine bought on credit?
a. debit creditors, credit machinery
b. debit creditors, credit purchases
c. debit machinery, credit creditors
d. debit purchases, credit creditors
Answer:
c. debit machinery, credit creditors

Question 49.
Which will appear in income statement?
a. bank account
b. bank charges
c. bank loan
d. bank overdraft
Answer:
b. bank charges

Question 50.
Which book of prime entry is also a ledger account?
a. cash book
b. journal
c. purchases journal
d. sales journal
Answer:
a. cash book

Question 51.
In the audit of historical financial statements by audit firms, the criteria used are
a. regulations of the Indian Revenue Agency.
b. generally accepted auditing standards.
c. generally accepted accounting principles.
d. regulations of the provincial securities commissions
Answer:
b. generally accepted auditing standards.

Question 52.
What type of organizations use auditing services?
a. Non-for-profit organizations
b. Businesses
c. Governments
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 53.
The financial position of the business on a given date is reported on the
a. Income Statement
b. Balance Sheet
c. Statement of Changes In Owner’s Equity
d. Statement of Flows
Answer:
b. Balance Sheet

Question 54.
The purchase of supplies for cash will result in an
a. increase in cash and a decrease in capital
b. increase in cash and an increase in supplies
c. increase in supplies and a decrease in cash
d. increase in equipment and an increase in capital
Answer:
c. increase in supplies and a decrease in cash

Question 55.
Keeping the records of the business separate from the personal records of the owner of the business is said to be adherence to which accounting principle or concept?
a. Continuing-concern concept
b. Business entity principle
c. Realization principle
d. Objectivity principle
Answer:
b. Business entity principle

Question 56.
Which of the following is a formal written promise to pay a definite sum of money on demand or at a fixed or determinable future date?
a. Account payable
b. Account receivable
c. accounts payable
d. Prepaid insurance policy
Answer:
c. accounts payable

Question 57.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. a salary paid to a partner is an expense to the partnership
b. a salary paid to a proprietor is an expense to the proprietorship
c. a salary paid to a shareholder is an expense of the corporation
d. the business entity principle does not apply to corporations
Answer:
c. a salary paid to a shareholder is an expense of the corporation

Question 58.
Which of the following can be considered as the most important phase of accounting primary objective of financial accounting?
a. Identifying transactions
b. Preparing “T Accounts”
c. Preparing financial statements
d. Preparing trial balances
Answer:
c. Preparing financial statements

Question 59.
Which one of the following errors would cause a company’s unadjusted trial balance to be out of balance?
a. Overstating an asset balance by Rs 100 and a revenue balance by the same amount
b. Failure to post the debit portion of a journal entry to the proper account (recorded, for example, in a revenue rather than an expense account)
c. Recording a revenue transaction by crediting the accounts receivable account and debiting the revenue account
d. Recording the amount collected from a customer as a debit to the cash account and a debit to the accounts receivable account
Answer:
d. Recording the amount collected from a customer as a debit to the cash account and a debit to the accounts receivable account

Question 60.
The gross decreases in economic benefits for the business are what?
a. Expenses
b. Obligations
c. Creditors
d. Income or gain
Answer:
a. Expenses

Question 61.
If during the accounting period the assets increased by Rs 7,000, and the owner’s equity decreased by Rs 3,000, then the liabilities must have
a. increased by Rs 10,000
b. increased by Rs 4,000
c. decreased by Rs 4,000
d. decreased by Rs10,000
Answer:
a. increased by Rs 10,000

Question 62.
Sitara Textile is using the prudence concept to record the profit in its income statement. According to prudence concept, Sitara Textile will record profit when it is:
a. Expected
b. Realized
c. Material
d. Received
Answer:
b. Realized

Question 63.
Double entry book-keeping was fathered by
a. F.W. Taylor
b. Henry Fayol
c. Lucas Paciol
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Lucas Paciol

Question 64.
Which of the following is not an asset?
a. Buildings
b. Loan from a partner
c. Cash balance
d. Debtors
Answer:
b. Loan from a partner

Question 65.
Which of the following should not be called ‘Sales’?
a. Office fixtures sold
b. Goods sold for cash
c. Goods sold on credit
d. Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’
Answer:
a. Office fixtures sold

Question 66.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Capital can only come from profit
b. Profit increases capital
c. Profit does not alter capital
d. Profit reduces capital
Answer:
b. Profit increases capital

Question 67.
Common balance sheet format is:
a. The Account Form which lists assets on the right, and liabilities and equity on the left
b. The Report Form which lists assets on the bottom, and liabilities equity on the top
c. The Account Form which lists assets and liabilities on the left, and equity on the right
d. The Report Form which lists liabilities and equity on the bottom, and assets on the top
Answer:
d. The Report Form which lists liabilities and equity on the bottom, and assets on the top

Question 68.
Which of the following item is found in a Journal entry?
1. Date of each transaction
2. Rupee amount of each debit and credit
3. Explanation of each transaction
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 2 only.
c. 2 & 3 only.
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 69.
Business is treated as a separate entity accounts for
a. Role trader
b. Partnership
c. Company
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 70.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Accounting profit is the difference between cash receipts and cash paid in a period.
b. Accounting profit is the total of cash sales in the year less the expenses for the period.
c. Accounting profit is the difference between revenue income and expenses for the period.
d. Accounting profit is the difference between revenue income and cash payments for the period.
Answer:
c. Accounting profit is the difference between revenue income and expenses for the period.

Question 71.
From which of the following events the liability arises?
a. Present event
b. Future event
c. Past event
d. None of them
Answer:
c. Past event

Question 72.
Which of the following statements correct in relation to a trial balance?
a. It shows the financial position of a business.
b. All the balances in the trial balance will be summarized on the business balance sheet.
c. It is a list of balances and forms the starting point for the preparation of the business accounts.
d. It is part of the published accounts of a business.
Answer:
c. It is a list of balances and forms the starting point for the preparation of the business accounts. –

Question 73.
_____________ is the gross inflow of economic benefits
a. Assets
b. Liabilities
c. Income
d. Expenses
Answer:
c. Income

Question 74.
When a consistency is found between financial statements cf c, ,e entity from period to period
a. Conventions of conservatism
b. Conventions of materiality
c. Conventions of disclosure
d. Conventions of horizontal consistency
Answer:
d. Conventions of horizontal consistency

Question 75.
Which of the following are accounting conventions?
a. Double entry
b. Accounting equation
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 76.
In which of the following should an auditor’s report refer to the lack of consistency when there is a change in accounting principle that is significant?
a. The scope paragraph.
b. The opinion paragraph.
c. An explanatory paragraph following the opinion paragraph.
d. An explanatory paragraph before the opinion paragraph.
Answer:
c. An explanatory paragraph following the opinion paragraph.

Question 77.
______________ is the first phase of accounting cycle.
a. Identifying an economic event or transaction
b. Preparing journals
c. Posting entries to ledger accounts
d. Making decisions about business
Answer:
a. Identifying an economic event or transaction

Question 78.
Financial statements differ from management account because
a. The are mainly prepared for external users of financial information
b. They are more complex and hard to prepare
c. The are the summary of accounting data
d. The are prepared on basis of actual concept
Answer:
a. The are mainly prepared for external users of financial information

Question 79.
______________ is a separate legal structure where total
capital can be divided in many shares
a. Partnership
b. Sole proprietorship
c. Company
d. Non-profit organization
Answer:
c. Company

Question 80.
Which of the following is liability?
a. Resources
b. Obligations
c. Future benefits
d. Expenses
Answer:
b. Obligations

Question 81.
It is important for the auditor to be independent because
a. The audit conclusions cannot be relied upon if th4 auditor was biased in accumulating and evaluating evidence.
b. The auditor would not charge a fair rate to the client.
c. The auditor might not be as knowledgeable of the subject matter and the criteria.
d. The Indian Tax Authorities require that the auditor be independent.
Answer:
d. The Indian Tax Authorities require that the auditor be independent.

Question 82.
An asset must be ______________ by the business to be shown as an asset in its “balance sheet”
a. Possessed
b. Owned
c. Controlled
d. Used
Answer:
c. Controlled

Question 83.
Inclusion of personal expenses of using car in the business expenses would violate the concept:—
a. Separate business entity
b. Consistency
c. Going concern
d. Dual aspect
Answer:
a. Separate business entity

Hint:
In accounting business organization and owners are two different identity. Thus business has its own existence separate from owners, creditors etc. This concept is called business entity concept. It means that personal transactions of owners are treated separately from those of the business. Therefore any personal expenses incurred by owners of a business will not appear in the income statement of the entity.

Question 84.
“Assets should be valued at the price paid to acquire them” is based on-
a. Accrual concept
b. Cost concept
c. Money Measurement concept
d. Matching concept
Answer:
b. Cost concept

Hint:
Cost concept – cost is the value of a resource given up or a liability incurred to acquire an asset/service at the time when the resource was given up or the liability incurred.

Question 85.
A businessman purchases goods worth Rs. 25,00,000 and sold 80% of such goods during the accounting year ending on 31st March, 2011. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs. 7,50,000. He valued the closing stock @ Rs. 5,00,000 and not at Rs. 7,50,000 due to-
a. Money Measurement concept
b. Convention of conservatism
C. Cost concept
d. Accounting period concept
Answer:
b. Convention of conservatism

Hint:
Conservatism convention -This convention ensures that unceitainties and risks inherent in business transactions should be given a proper consideration. As per this convention the accountants follow the rule ‘anticipate no profit but provide for all possible losses’.
Purchase = Rs. 25,00,000; 80% of the goods have been sold.
So, cost of goods sold = Rs. 20,00,000 Stock remains at cost of Rs.5,00,000.
Since, market value of the stock left is Rs.7,50,000 which is higher than the cost of stock. So, stock is valued at Rs.5,00,000.

Question 86.
Revenue from sales of products is generally accounted in the period in which:-
a. Cash is collected
b. Sales is made
c. Products are manufactured
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. Sales is made

Hint:
Accrual Concept:
Business transactions are recorded when they occur and not when the related payments are received or made. This concept is called accrual basis of accounting and it is fundamental to the usefulness of financial accounting information.
Thus sale of products is recorded when sales is made and not when cash is collected or when products are manufactured.

Question 87.
Which of the following is not the purpose of accounting?
a. Providing information about the assets, liabilities and capital of business entity
b. Maintaining record of business
c. Providing information about the performance of business
d. Providing details about the personal assets and liabilities of the owners of business entity.
Answer:
d. Providing details about the personal assets and liabilities of the owners of business entity.

Hint:
Functions of accounting
The primary function of accounting relates to recording, classification and summary of financial transactions. The sole purpose is to prepare financial statements for reporting.

Auditing is compulsory in case of registered firms. Auditing is not possible without accounting. Thus accounting becomes compulsory to comply with legal requirements.

To provide managers with information for decision making. Decision making programme is greatly assisted by accounting as with the help of accounting we can compare day to day operations with the predefined profit.

Accounting helps to find if there is any misuse of the money or assets of the firm.
Real position of the firm can be ascertained with the help of accounting. Here are many parties-owners, creditors, government, employees etc., who are interested in knowing the results of the firm and this can be communicated only through accounting. The accounting shows a real and true position of the firm or the business.
To provide information for stakeholders about financial performance and viability

Question 88.
Which accounting concept is applicable to record a transaction entered between owner and business?
a. Productivity
b. Going concern
c. Prudence
d. Business entity
Answer:
d. Business entity

Hint:
Business Entity Concept
In accounting business organization and owners are two different identity. Thus business has its own existence separate from owners, creditors etc. This concept is called business entity concept. It means that personal transactions of owners are treated separately from those of the business. Therefore any personal expenses incurred by owners of a business will not appear in the income statement of the entity.

Question 89.
Ashok a cloth merchant buys cloth for Rs.50,000 paying cash Rs.20,000. What is the amount of expense as per accrual concept?
a. 50,000
b. 20,000
C. 30,000
d. Nil.
Answer:
a. 50,000

Hint:
Accrual Concept:
Business transactions are recorded when they occur and not when the related payments are received or made.
So, here amount of expenses is Rs.50,000 and not Rs.20,000.

Question 90.
Which of the following is an accepted method of accounting?
a. Cash Accounting
b. Accrual or Mercantile Accounting
c. Both Accrual Accounting and Cash Accounting
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Accrual or Mercantile Accounting

Hint:
Accrual system of Accounting
With the accrual method, income and expenses are recorded as they occur, regardless of whether or not cash has actually changed hands. In this type of system cost and revenue are matched on the basis of relevant time period. It is also known as merchantile system of accounting . Further if any cost has lost its utility then it is written off.

Almost every company uses the accrual accounting method, since it provides the most accurate representation of the company’s financial state.

Question 91.
Accounting transactions are recorded in terms of
a. Money
b. Purpose
c. Characteristics
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Money

Hint:
Monetary Unit Assumption:
In accounting we can communicate only those business transactions and other events which can be expressed in monetary units. This is called monetary unit assumption. Non monetary events like death, dispute etc. may have a great influence on the organization but these factors will not form the part of accounts as they can be calculated on monetary basis.

Question 92.
A businessman purchased goods for Rs. 25,00,000 and sold 70% of such goods during the accounting year ended on 31 st March, 2013. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs.5,00,000. He valued the closing stock at Rs.5,00,000 and not at Rs.7,50,000 due to:
a. Money measurement concept
b. Conservatism concept
c. Cost concept
d. Periodicity concept.
Answer:
b. Conservatism concept

Hint:
Conservatism convention -This convention ensures that uncertainties and risks inherent in business transactions should be given a proper consideration. As per this convention the accountants follow the rule ‘anticipate no profit but provide for all possible losses’.
Purchase of goods = Rs 25,00,000 Goods sold ( 70%) = Rs 17,50,000 Cost of stock remaining = Rs 7,50,000 – Market value of stock = Rs 5,00,000
Since market value is less than the cost of remaining stock so as per conservatism convention value of stock is taken as Rs 5,00,000.

Question 93.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List 1
(Types of Accounts)
X. Nominal Account
z. Personal Account

List II
Real account
(Principles)
1. Debit the receiver, credit the giver
2. Debit what comes in, credit what goes out
3. Debit all expenses, credit all gains

Correct option is:

X Y Z
a. 3 2 1
b. 1 3 2
c. 2 3 1
d. 1 2 3

Answer:

x y z
c. 2 3 1

Hint:
Personal Account: Debit the receiver of benefits. Credit the giver of benefits
Real Account: Debit what comes in. Credit what goes out
Nominal account: Debit all expenses and losses. Credit all incomes and gains

Question 94.
If capital at the end of the year is Rs. 7,000, capital introduced during the year is Rs. 5,000, drawings during the year are Rs. 8,000, loss incurred during the year is Rs. 10,000, then capital in the beginning would be equal to:
a. Rs. 12,000
b. Rs. 16,000
c. Rs.20,000
d. Rs.30,000.
Answer:
c. Rs.20,000

Hint:
Capital at the end of year= Rs 7000 Less – capital introduced during the year= Rs 5000 Add – Drawings made during the year = Rs 8000 Add – Loss incurred during the year = Rs 10,000 Capital at the beginning of the year = Rs 20,000

Question 95.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Capital of the firm is reduced by borrowing
b. When there is no change in proprietor’s capital, it is an indication of loss in business .
c. Nominal accounts refer to false transactions
d. Real accounts relate to the assets of a business.
Answer:
d. Real accounts relate to the assets of a business.

Hint:
Real account is an record of an asset. An asset can be current asset such as cash, a fixed asset such as building and intangible asset such as goodwill.

Question 96.
A concern proposes to discontinue its business from March 2013 and decides to dispose of all its assets within a period of 4 months. The Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2013 should indicate the assets at their:
a. Historical cost
b. Net realisable value
c. Cost less depreciation
d. Cost price or market value whichever is lower.
Answer:
b. Net realisable value

Hint:
It should indicate assets at net realizable value because the concern proposes to discontinue it business.

Question 97.
The convention of conservatism is likely to lead to an in the
a. Understatement of, liabilities
b. Overstatement of assets
c. Overstatement of capital
d. Understatement of assets.
Answer:
d. Understatement of assets.

Hint:
Conservatism convention ensures that uncertainties and risks inherent in business transactions should be given a proper consideration.
Thus it is likely to lead to an understatement of assets.

Question 98.
The rule ‘every transaction affects two or more ledger accounts’ is based or the concept of –
a. Going concern
b. Double entry system of book-keeping
c. Money measurement
d. Periodicity.
Answer:
b. Double entry system of book-keeping

Hint:
Double entry system is based ‘on scientific principles therefore, it is used by most of the business houses. This system recoqnlses the fact that every transaction has two aspects and records both aspects of each and every transaction.

Question 100.
Which of, the following is correct about ‘Accounting Concept’
a. Accounting concepts are based on accounting conventions
b. Accounting concepts are established by common accounting practices
c. Accounting concepts are methods or procedures accepted by caneral agreement
d. Personal judgement has no role in the adoption of accounting concepts.
Answer:
d. Personal judgement has no role in the adoption of accounting concepts.

Hint:
Accounting Concepts are the necessary assumptions, conditions or postulates upon which the accounting is based. They are developed to help in the preparation of accounting statements so that the financial information provided to all the readers is such that all readers .interpret the statements in the same meaning and context. Example entity concept, dual entry concept etc.
In brief we can say that personal judgement has no role in the adoption of accounting concepts.

Question 101.
Which of the following accounting equation is correct
a. Capital (Rs. 15,000) = Fixed Assets (Rs. 12,000) + Cash (Rs.4,000)
b. Trade payables (Rs.3,000) + Capital
(Rs. 17,000) + Bills Payable
(Rs.4,000) = Fixed Assets (Rs.20,000)
c. Capital (Rs. 15,000) = Cash (Rs. .3,000) + Fixed Assets (Rs. 9,000)
d. Trade payablestt 8,000) + Capital (Rs.7,000) = Fixed Assets
(Rs. 8,000) + Cash at Bank (Rs. 4,000) + Cash (Rs.3,000).
Answer:
d. Trade payablestt 8,000) + Capital (Rs.7,000) = Fixed Assets
(Rs. 8,000) + Cash at Bank (Rs. 4,000) + Cash (Rs.3,000).

Hint:
According to accounting equation Capital + Trade Liabilities = Assets (or)
Capital + Trade Liabilities = Fixed Assets + Current Assets Capital = 7,000
Assets = Assets (8,000) + Cash at Bank (4,000) + Cash (3,000) = Rs. 15,000.
Trade Payable = 8,000

Question 102.
General reserve is created on the basis of convention of –
a. Conservatism
b. Uniformity
c. Materiality
d. Full disclosure.
Answer:
a. Conservatism

Hint:
Conservatism
This convention ensures that uncertainties and risks inherent in business transactions should be given a proper consideration. As per this convention the accountants follow the rule ‘anticipate no profit but provide for all possible losses’. Examples Making provisions for Bad Debts, Making General Reserve, Valuing the stock at lower of cost or market value etc.

Question 103.
Revaluation account is a
a. Nominal account
b. Real account
c. Personal account
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Nominal account

Hint:
Nominal Accounts – These accounts are intangible in nature and represent accounts that in which expenses, revenues and capital are recorded. Examples are sales, purchase, electricity, expenses, salary, revaluation.
Since Revaluation a/c shows the profit or loss on revaluation, so it is a Nominal Account.

Question 104.
Atul purchased a car for Rs.5,00,000, by making a down, payment of Rs.1,00,000 and signing a Rs. 4,00,000 bill payable due in 60 days. As a result of this transaction
a. Total assets increased by Rs’5,00,000
b. Total liabilities increased by Rs.4,00,000
c. Total assets increased by Rs, 4,00,000
d. Total assets increased by Rs. 4,00,000 with a corresponding increase in liabilities by Rs. 4,00,000.
Answer:
d. Total assets increased by Rs. 4,00,000 with a corresponding increase in liabilities by Rs. 4,00,000.

Hint:
On purchase of a Car, total assets of balance sheet will be increased by Rs. 5,00,000 and on making of down payment of Rs. 1,00,000 total assets will decrease by Rs. 1,00,000. The result will be that total assets of Balance sheet will increase by Rs. 4,00,000.
On other hand a liability of Rs. 4,00,000 has been made so the liability side of Balance Sheet will be increased by Rs. 4,00,000.

Question 105.
Number of accounting standards presently issued by ICAI and notified by CG –
a. 29
b. 32
c. 31
d. 19
Answer:
a. 29

Hint:
Presently these are 32 accounting standards issued by ‘ICAI’ out of which 29 are notified by Central Government.

Question 106.
_____________ is an art of recording, classifying, summarising transactions and events which are of financial character in terms of money and interpreting the result thereof
a. Accountancy
b. Accounting
c. Book-Keeping
d. None of these.
Answer:
b. Accounting

Hint:
Accounting is defined by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) as “the art of recording, classifying, and summarizing in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which are, in part at least, of financial character, and interpreting the results thereof.”

Question 107.
Contingent liability is shown as ____________ in Balance Sheet.
a. Liability
b. Equity Shareholders fund.
c. Footnote
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. Footnote

Hint:
As per Schedule III of Companies Act 2013, Contingent liabilities are shown’ as footnote in the Balance Sheet.

Question 108.
Closing entry means
a. All income & expenses
b. All assets & liabilities
c. All assets
d. All liabilities
Answer:
b. All assets & liabilities

Hint:
Closing entry means all assets and liabilities are revalued and closed.

Question 109.
In which of the book cash purchase is recorded?
a. Cashbook
b. Purchase book
C. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these.
Answer:
a. Cashbook

Hint:
Journal in which all cash receipts and payments (including bank deposits and withdrawals) are recorded first, in chronological order.

Question 110.
Which of the following is not considered as an accounting concept?
a. Conservation
b. Business Entity
C. Accrual
d. Going Concern.
Answer:
a. Conservation

Hint:
Accounting Concepts are the necessary assumptions, conditions or postulates upon which the accounting is based. They are developed to help in the preparation of accounting statements so that the financial information provided to ail the readers is such that all readers interpret the statements in the same meaning and context. Example entity concept, dual entry concept etc.
Conservatism is an accounting convention & not a concept.

Question 111.
Which convention implies that the accounting practices should remain same from one year to another year.
a. Going Concern
b. Materiality
c. Accrual
d. Consistency.
Answer:
d. Consistency.

Hint:
Consistency
The convention of consistency means that same accounting principles should be used for preparing financial statements year after year.

Question 112.
_________________ and _________________ are independent variables.
a. Asset and Liability
b. Income and Expenses
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these.
Answer:
b. Income and Expenses

Hint:
An expense or loss is the-sacrifice of benefits in exchange for service used and an income or gain is the benefit earned in exchange for service rendered.
Independent variables are those variables which has no effect on each other.
The asset & liability are dependent variables while the income & expenses are independent variables.

Question 113.
Accounting Transactions are recorded in terms of:
a. Money”
b. Purpose
c. Characteristics
d. None of these.
Answer:
a. Money

Hint:
Monetary Unit Assumption:
In accounting we can communicate only those business transactions and other events which can be expressed in monetary units. This is called monetary unit assumption. Non monetary events like death, dispute etc. may have a great influence on the organization but these factors will not form the part of accounts as they can be calculated on monetary basis. According to this concept each & every accounting transaction is to be recorded in books of accounts in terms of money.

Question 114.
Double Entry principle means:
a. Writing all entries twice in the book
b. Having debit for every credit and similarly, credit for every debit
c. Maintaining the double account for each business transactions.
d. Writing two times the same entry Questions from December 2014
Answer:
b. Having debit for every credit and similarly, credit for every debit

Hint:
Double entry is a principle in which there is a debit for every credit & similarly a credit for every debit.

Question 115.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Capital of the: firm is reduced by borrowing
b. Nominal accounts refer to false transactions
c. When there is no change Inpropnetors capital, it is an indication of loss in business
d. Real accounts relate to the assets of a business.
Answer:
d. Real accounts relate to the assets of a business.

Hint:
Real account is an record of an asset. An asset can be current asset such as cash, a fixed asset such as building and intangible asset such as goodwill. Real account relate to the assets & liabilities of a business.

Question 116.
Which of the following statement is corrects.
a. Assets are equal to liabilities minus capital
b. Capital is equal to assets minus liabilities
c. Liabilities are equal to capital plus assets
d. Capital is equal to assets plus liabilities.
Answer:
b. Capital is equal to assets minus liabilities

Hint:
According to Accounting Equation.
Capital = Assets – Liabilities.

Question 117.
The convention of conservatism is likely to lead to an in the balance sheet.
a. Understatement of assets
b. Overstatement of assets
c. Overstatement of capital
d. Understatement of liabilities
Answer:
a. Understatement of assets

Hint:
Conservatism
This convention ensures that uncertainties and risks inherent in business transactions should be given a proper consideration. As per this convention the accountants follow the rule anticipate no profit but provide for all possible losses’. Examples Making provisions for Bad Debts, Making General Reserve, Valuing the stock at lower of cost or market value etc.
This convention understates the assets and over estimates the liabilities.

Question 118.
Mr. Ashish purchased a machinery costing Rs.3,00;000- on 1st October, 2012 Transportation and installation charges were incurred amounting to Rs.30,000 and Rs. 12,000 respectively. Dismantling charges of the old machine in place of which new machine was purchased amounted to Rs.30,000. Market value of the machine was estimated at Rs.3,60,000 on 31st March, 2013. While finalising the annual accounts Ashish values the machinery at Rs.3,60,000 in .his books. Which of the following concepts was violated by Ashish?
a. Cost Concept
b. Matching Concept
c. Realisation Concept
d. Periodicity Concept Questions from June 2015
Answer:
a. Cost Concept

Hint:
Cost concept – cost is the value of a resource given up or a liability incurred to acquire an asset/service at the time when the resource was given up or the liability incurred.
Ashish violated the cost concept. According to this concept, the value at which the various assets shall be recorded in the books shall be the historical cost or acquisition cost.

Question 119.
The provision for discount on debtors is often provided in keeping with the concept of:
a. Conservatism
b. Going Concern
c. Materiality
d. Consistency.
Answer:
b. Going Concern

Hint:
Conservatism
This convention ensures that uncertainties and risks inherent in business transactions should be given a proper consideration. As per this convention the accountants follow the rule anticipate no profit but provide for all possible losses’. Examples Making provisions for Bad Debts, Making General Reserve, Valuing the stock at lower of cost or market value etc.

Question 120.
Which of the following statements describe objectives of accounting?
(i) providing details of the personal assets and liabilities of the owner,
(ii) providing information about the assets, liabilities and capital of business entity
(iii) maintaining records of business
(iv) providing information about the performance of business entity:
a. (ii) and (iii)
b. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)
d. (i), (ii) and (iv).
Answer:
b. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Hint:
Objectives of accounting:

  • Maintaining the accounting records
  • Providing accounting information to users
  • Ascertaining profit & loss & financial position of business

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Cyber Laws – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Cyber Laws – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Introduction to Cyberspace :

  • Technology has proved to a great leveller. It has helped in creating ‘machine – clones’ in the form of computers a high speed data processing device performing arithmetic, logical and memory functions by manipulating optical, magnetic and electrical impulses.
  • The power of one ‘machine-clone’ is power of all connected ‘machine- clones’, which may be termed as network-of-network or Internet.
  • This dynamic virtual space created by the networks of ‘machine-clones’ has been termed as cyber space.
  • The word Cyberspace first appeared in ‘William Gibson’s’ in his science fiction Necromancer published in 1984.
  • Gibson portrayed cyberspace as a three dimensional virtual landscape created by network computers.
  • The New Oxford Dictionary of English defines ‘Cyberspace’ as the notional environment in which communication over computer networks occur.
  • Cyber space is a virtual medium.
  • It has no boundaries, no geographical mass or gravity.
  • It exists in a form of bits and bytes.

Cyber Space Vs. Physical World :

Cyber Space Physical World
1. It is a digital medium. 1. It is a physical world
2. It is static, well defined and incremental. 2. Cyber space is dynamic, undefined and exponential.
3. The contours of cyber space is as vast as human imagination and thus cannot be given a fixed shape. 3. The contours of physical world are fixed.
4. Cyber space represents network of millions of computers creating specter of digital life. 4. It does not represent any network.

1. Cyberspace is an interactive world and cannot be referred to as a xerox expression of geographic space.
2. Cyberspace can also be treated as a natural extension of physical world into infinite world.

CYBER LAWS:

  1. Cyber laws being technology incentive advocate the use and not misuse of technology.
  2. Any act, which violates the right of a person in digital medium (cyber space), would be treated as cyber space violations.
  3. The border less space, anonymity of user online, dynamic e-commerce and rapid digital transmission pose a real challenge to the application of traditional laws in cyberspace.
  4. Cyber laws are made to lesson the legal issues in the future.
  5. The aim of cyber related law worldwide is to harmonise the existing laws.
  6. There are several disturbing things that happens in cyberspace ranging from identify theft and terrorism to money laundering.
  7. Various criminals like hackers and crackers have been able to pave their way to interfere with the internet accounts through – Domain Name Server (DNS), internet Provider’s address (IP), spooling, phishing, internet phishing etc., to access unauthorised access to user’s computer system and steal data to make profits.
  8. Cyber law is a term that encapsulates the legal issues related to the use of communication, transactional and distributive aspects of networked information devices and technologies.
  9. Cyber law encompasses the legal, statutory and constitutional provisions that affect computer and computer networks.

It concerns – individuals, corporate bodies and institution which:

  • Are instrumental for the entry into cyberspace.
  • Provide access to cyberspace.
  • Create hardware and software which enable people to access cyberspace and
  • Use their own computers to go “online” and enter cyberspace.
  • Two main statutes, which govern criminal liability
  • The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000.
  • The main objective of the Act is to regulate and control the affairs of cyber world in an effective manner.
  • Chapter IX and XI of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deal with various cyber crimes.

Information Technology Act, 2000:

  • Indian is 12th nation in enactment of cyber law with the passage of Information Technology Act, 2000.
    The United Nations Commission of International Law (UNCITRAL) : adopted the model law on electronic commerce in 1966 in order to bring uniformity in the law of different countries.
  • The General Assembly of United Nations recommended that all states should give favourable considerations to this Model Law when they enacted Or revised their laws.
  • The first draft of legislation was created by Ministry of Commerce Government of India as E-commerce Act, 1998.
  • A redraft of legislation was prepared as “Information Technology Bill 1999″. Which was placed before the parliament in December 1999 and passed in May 2000.

Aim and Objectives of the Act:
The following are the objectives of the Act:

  • To grant legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication known as e-commerce.
  • To give legal recognition to digital signature for authentication of any information or matter which requires authentication under any law.
  • To facilitates electronic filling of documents with Government Departments.
  • To facilitate Electronic storage of data.
  • To facilitate and give legal sanction to electronic fund transfer between bank and financial institution.

To give legal recognition for keeping books of accounts by bankers in electronic form under:

  1. The Evidence Act, 1891 and
  2. The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

IT Act 2000 has amended the following:

  • Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860.
  • The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
  • The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 1891 &
  • The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

Features of the Act:

  1. Electronic contracts have been made legally valid if made through secure electronic communication.
    Legal recognition has been granted to digital signatures.
  2. Security procedures for electronic records and digital signature have been laid down.
  3. A procedure for appointment of adjudicating officers for holding inquiries under the Act has been laid down.
  4. A provision has been made for the establishment of cyber Regulatory Appellant Tribunal under the Act.
    An appeal against the order of the controller or adjudicating officer can be made to Cyber Appellant Tribunal and not to any civil court.
  5. Appeal against order of the Cyber Appellant Tribunal are to be made in the High Court.
  6. Digital signature are to be affected by use of asymmetric crypto system and harsh function.
  7. A provision has been made for appointment of Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) to license of regulate the working of certifying Authorities.
  8. The controller is to act as repository of all digital signature certificates.
  9. The Act is to apply to offences or contraventions committed outside India.
  10. The senior police officers have been given power to enter any public and search and arrest without warrant.
  11. Provisions have been made for the constitution of regulations Advisory Committee to advise the Central Government and the Controller.

Applicability and Non-Applicability of the Act :

Applicability Non-applicability
Section 1(2) provides that the Act extends to the whole India, including Jammu and Kashmir.

The act does not take citizenship into account. It provides an extraterritorial Jurisdiction.

Section 1(4), the provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 shall not apply to the following:

1. Execution of Negotiable Instrument under Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 except cheque.

2. Execution of a power of attorney under the Power of Attorney Act, 1882.

3. Creation of Trust under Indian Trust Act, 1882.

4. Execution of a Will under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 including any other testamentary disposition by whatever name called.

5. Entering into a contract for the sale of conveyance of immovable property or any interest in such property.

6. Any such class of documents or transactions as may be notified by Central Government in the Gazette.

Digital Signature:

  • Digital signatures, like written signature are used to provide authentication of the associated input, usually called as “message”.
  • Message may be anything form electronic mail to a contract in electronic form, or even a message sent using cryptographic protocol.
  • Digital signature can be used to authenticate the source of such messages.

The IT Act deals with digital signature under section 2, 3 and 15. These sections are reproduced as follows.

Section 2(1) (p):
Defines digital signature, “means authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with the provisions of Section 3″.
(a) Authentication: It is a process used to confirm the identity of a person or to prove the integrity of information.

(b) Message Authentication : It involves determining the source and verifying that it has not been modified or replaced in transit. Section 3 provides certain provisions in respect of authentication of electronic records which are:

  • Subject to the provisions of this section any subscriber may authenticate an electronic record by affixing his digital signature.
  • The Authentication of the electronic record shall be effected by the use of a symmetric crypto system and hash function which envelop and transform the intial electronic record into another electronic record.
  • Any person by the use of a public key of the subscriber can verify the electronic record.
    The private key and public key are unique to the subscriber and constitute a functioning key pair.

Secure Digital Signature (Section 15):
If, by application of a security procedure agreed to by the parties concerned, it can be verified that a digital signature, at the time affixed was:
1. Unique to the subscriber affixing it.

2. Capable of identifying such subscriber.

3. Created in a manner or using a means under the exclusive control of the subscriber and is linked to the electronic record to which it relates in such a manner that if the electronic record was altered the digital signature would be invalidated, the such digital signature shall be deemed to be a secure digital signature.
Cyber Laws – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes IMG 1

Against Individual Against individual Property Against Organisation Against Society
1. Harassment via e-mail 1. Computer vandalism 1. Possession of unauthorised information 1. Polluting the youth though indecent exposure
2. Cyber- Stalking 2. Transmitting virus 2. Cyber terrorism against the government organisation 2. Trafficking
3. Dissemination of obscene material 3. Netrespass 3. Distribution of printed software 3. Financial crimes
4. Defamation 4. Intellectual property crimes 4. Sale of illegal articles
5. Unauthorised control/access over computer system 5. Internet time thefts 5. Online gambling
6. Indecent exposure 6. Forgery
7. Email spoofing
8. Cheating & fraud

Electronic record and E-governance:
1. World Bank defined the use of information and communication technologies by government agencies to transform relations with citizens, business and other arms of the government.

2. The promotion of electronic governance is one of the prime objectives of IT Act, 2000.

3. Special provisions have been made under Chapter 111 of the Act for granting legal recognition to electronic records, electronic signature and to encourage their use by government and its agencies.

  • The Information Technology Act provides for the following provisions in context of electronic governance.
  • Legal recognition of Electronic Records (Section 4)
  • Legal recognition of digital signatures (Section 5)
  • Use of electronic.records and digital signatures in Government and its agencies (Section 6)
  • Retention of electronic records (Section 7)
  • Publication of rules, regulations, etc., in Electronic Gazette (Section 8)
  • Section 6, 7 and 8 not to confer right to insist document should be accepted in Electronic form (Section 9)
  • Power to make rules by Central Government in respect of digital signature (Section 10)

Data Protection:
1. As per Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000,if a body corporate is possessing any sensitive personal data in computer it control and is negligent in implementing reasonable security and thereby causes wrongful loss or wrongful gain to a person then he will liable to pay the compensation, not exceeding five crore rupees, to a person so affected.

2. Section 43A deals with the rules regarding sensitive personal data or information and body corporate or any person located within India.

Scope of Cyber Laws – Some areas of concern for cyber law are listed:

  • E-commerce
  • Online contracts
  • Business software patenting
  • E-taxation
  • E-governance
  • Cyber crimes

1. E-Commerce Law:

  • It defined simply, is the commercial transaction of services in an electronic format.
  • The US Census Bureau measures e-commerce by looking at “the value of goods and services sold online whether over open networks such as internet, or over proprietary networks running system such as EDI.

2. Online Contracts:
(i) The Indian Contract Act, 1872 lays down that for a contract to happen there has to be proposal, assent to the proposal, which transforms into a promise.
Promise + Consideration + Enforceable by law = Contract

(ii) Online contract represent the formation of series of contractual obligations in an online environment.

(iii) Electronic contract comprises of Successive events:

  • e-offer
  • e-acceptance
  • consideration.

3. Business Software Patenting:

  • Patent protects a process, while copyright protects expression.
  • Big- e-commerce retailers, like amazon, price line and E-bay are going for patenting the backend software technologies of their front end operations.

4. E-Taxation:

  • As E-commerce increased commercial transactions across national borders, the taxation issue has become of the most debated topics.

5. E-Governance:

  • E-governance involves information technology enabled initiatives that are used for improving.
  • The interaction between government and citizens or government and business – e-services.
  • The internal government operations-e-administration and
  • External interactions-e-society.

6. Cyber Crimes:

  • Intentional use of Information technology by cyber terrorist for producing destructive and harmful effects to tangible and intangible property of others is called cyber crime.

Few definition related to the cyber crime are as follows:
1. Marc M Goodman says that a computer crime can be classified into three categories.

  • As crime where computer is target
  • Crimes where computer is the tool of the crime.
  • Crimes where computer is instrumental.

2. Nandan Kamat says that since the internet is composed of computers, crimes occurring on the internet are computer crimes.

3. Suresh T Vishwanathan defines computer crime as:

  • any illegal action in which a computer is a tool.
  • Any incident associated with computer technology in which a perpetrator by intention made or could have made a gain.
  • Computer abuse is considered as any illegal, unethical or unanthorised behaviors relating to the automatic processing and transmission of data.

Appeal to High Court (Section 62):
Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the High Court within sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal to him on any question of fact or law arising out of such order.

Provided that the High Court may, if it is satisfied that the Appellate was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further period not exceeding sixty days.

Confiscation:
Confiscation of computers or any accessories thereto (Section 76) provided fpr confiscation of any computer, computer system, floppies, compact disks, tape drives or any other accessories related thereto, in respect of which any provisions of this Act, rules, orders or regulations made thereunder has been or is being contravened.

However, where it is established to the satisfaction of the court adjudicating the confiscation that the person in whose possession, power or control of any such computer, computer system, floppies, compact disks, tape drives or any other accessories relating thereto is found to be not responsible for the contravention of the provisions of this Act, rules, order or regulations made thereunder, the court may, instead of making an order for confiscation of such computer, computer system, floppies, compact disks, tape drives or any other accessories related thereto, make such other order authorized by this Act against the person contravening the provisions of this Act, rules, orders or regulations made thereunder as it may think fit.

Regulation of Certifying Authorities:
The Act has established a Certifying Authority to regulate the transactions related to electronic matters and these are explained below:

(a) Appointment of Controller and other officers (Section 17)
1. The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette,
appoint a Controller of Certifying Authorities for the purpose of this Act and may also by the same or subsequent notification appoint such number of Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers s it deems fit.

2. The Controller shall discharge his functions under this Act subject to the general control and directions of the Central Government.

3. The Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers shall perform the functions assigned to them by the Controller under the general superintendence and control of the Controller.

4. The qualifications, experience and terms and conditions of service jf Controller, Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers shall be such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.

5. There shall be a seal of the Office of the Controller.

(b) Functions of Controller (Section 18) – The Controller may perform all or any of the following functions, namely :

  • Exercising supervision over the activities of the Certifying Authorities;
  • Certifying public keys of the Certifying Authorities;
  • Laying down the standards to be maintained by the Certifying Authorities;
  • Specifying the qualifications and experience which employees of the Certifying Authorities should possess;
  • Specifying the conditions subject to which the Certifying Authorities shall conduct their business.

Adjudication:
(a) By adjudicating Officer:
Power to adjudicate (Section 46)
For the purpose of adjudging under this chapter whether any person has committed a contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or any rule, regulation, direction or order made thereunder the Central Government shall, subject to the provisions of sub-section (3), appoint any officer not below the rank of a Director to the Government of India or an equivalent Officer not below the rank of a Director to the Government of India or an equivalent officer of a State Government to be an adjudicating officer for holding an inquiry in the manner prescribed by the Central Government.

(b) Cyber Appellant Tribunal:
The Act provides for the establishment of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal. Its establishment, composition, Jurisdiction, powers, procedures is as follows:

Establishment of Cyber Appellate Tribunal (Section 48)
1. The Central Government shall, by notification, establish one or more appellate tribunals to be known as the Cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal.

2. The Central Government shall also specify, in the notification referred to in sub-section (!), the matters and places in relation to which the Cyber Appellate Tribunal may exercise jurisdiction.

Composition of Cyber Appellant Tribunal (Section 49):
A Cyber Appellate Tribunal shall consist of one person only (hereinafter referred to as the Residing Officer ol the Cyber Appellate Tribunal) to be ” appointed, by notification, by the Central Government.

Qualifications for appointment as Presiding Officer of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal (Section 50) : A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the presiding Officer of a Cyber Appellate Tribunal unless he –

  • Is, or. has been or is qualified to be, a Judge of a High Court.
  • Is or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and is holding or has held a post in Grade I of that service for at least three years.

Term of Office (Section 51)
The Presiding Officer of a Cyber Appellate Tribunal shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.

Appeal to Cyber Appellate Tribunal (Section 57)
1. Save as provided in sub-section (2), any person aggrieved by an order made by Controller or an adjudicating officer under this Act may prefer an appeal to a Cyber Appellate Tribunal having jurisdiction in the matter.

2. No appeal shall lie to the Cyber Appellate Tribunal from an order made by an adjudicating officer with the consent of the parties.

3. Every appeal under sub-section (1) shall be filed-within a period of twenty five days from the date on which a copy of the order made by the Controller or the adjudicating officer is received by the person aggrieved and it shall be in such form and be accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Technology has helped in creating :
(a) Machine – clone
(b) Machinery
(b) Gadgets
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Machine – clone

Question 2.
William Gibson’s Neuromancer was published in ________.
(a) 1990
(b) 1920
(c) 1984
(d) 2000
Answer:
(c) 1984

Question 3.
The word Cyberspace was first appeared in ________
(a) Window XP
(b) Neuromancer
(c) Electronic device
(c) Internet
Answer:
(b) Neuromancer

Question 4.
‘Cyberspace’ as the notional environment in which communication over computer networks occurs; is defined in ________.
(a) New English Dictionary
(b) Dictionary
(c) Modern English
(d) The New Oxford Dictionary
Answer:
(d) The New Oxford Dictionary

Question 5.
Cyber space is a ________ medium.
(a) Virtual
(b) Basic
(c) Wireless
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Virtual

Question 6.
Full form of DNS is:
(a) Domain Name Server
(b) Decent Name Server
(c) Domain Naming Server
(d) Domain Name Service
Answer:
(a) Domain Name Server

Question 7.
Full form of IP is:
(a) Internet Portal address
(b) Internet Provider access
(c) Internet Portal access
(d) Internet Provider’s address
Answer:
(d) Internet Provider’s address

Question 8.
India is the 12th nation In enactment of cyber law with _______
(a) Time
(b) Information technology Act, 2000
(c) IP
(d) DNS
Answer:
(b) Information technology Act, 2000

Question 9.
Digital signature, like written signature, used to provide authentication of the associated input, usually called as _______.
(a) Epistol
(b) Letter
(c) Message
(d) SMS
Answer:
(c) Message

Question 10.
The _______ and _______ are unique to the subscriber and constitute a function key pair.
(a) Public and Internet
(b) IP and DNS
(c) Private and government
(d) Private Key & Public key
Answer:
(d) Private Key & Public key

Question 11.
Statutes which govern online criminal liability include:
(a) Information Technology Act, Indian Contract Act, Law of Torts
(b) Indian Penal Code
(c) Information Technology Act & Indian Penal Code
(d) Information Technology.
Answer:
(c) Information Technology Act & Indian Penal Code

Question 12.
An appeal for the order of Cyber Appellate can be filled in:
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Court with the jurisdiction
(c) High Court
(d) Both High Court & Supreme Court
Answer:
(d) Both High Court & Supreme Court

Question 13.
There are _______ no. of member Cyber Appellate Tribunal.
(a) One Member
(b) Two Members
(c) One or more members
(d) Composition decided by central government
Answer:
(a) One Member

Question 14.
It is a notional environment in which communication over computer networks occur.
(a) Cyber Crime
(b) Cyber Law
(c) Cyber Space
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Cyber Space

Question 15.
Cyber crime is generally used to describe _______ in which computer or/and network is a tool, a target, or a place of criminal activity.
(a) Criminal Activity
(b) Cyber Crime
(c) Crime
(d) (a) & (b)
Answer:
(a) Criminal Activity

Question 16.
This is not the crime under individual property _______.
(a) Computer vandalism
(b) Transmitting virus
(c) Netrespass
(d) Distribution of pirated software
Answer:
(d) Distribution of pirated software

Question 17.
The crime against society is :
(a) Harassment via e-mail
(b) Cyber – stalking
(c) Trafficking
(d) E-mail spoofing
Answer:
(c) Trafficking

Question 18.
The scope and relevance of cyber law touches those areas which have a _______.
(a) Technological bend
(b) Energy
(c) Crime
(d) Cyberspace
Answer:
(a) Technological bend

Question 19.
The full form of (UNCITRAL) is :
(a) United Nations Commission on International Trade Law
(b) United National Commission on International Trade Law
(c) Union Nation Commission on International Trade Law
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) United Nations Commission on International Trade Law

Question 20.
Legal Recognition of digital structure comes under:
(a) Section 1
(b) Section 5
(c) Section 4
(d) Section 2
Answer:
(b) Section 5

Question 21.
Penalty for hacking of computer system includes _______.
(a) Punishment for imprisonment up to three years or with a fine which may extend up to two lakh or both
(b) Punishment for imprisonment of three years or with a fine which may extend up to two lakh or both
(c) Punishment for imprisonment of five years or,with a fine which may extend of two lakh or both
(d) Punishment for imprisonment up to three years and with a fine which may extend up to two lakh
Answer:
(a) Punishment for imprisonment up to three years or with a fine which may extend up to two lakh or both

Question 22.
Cyber Appellate Tribunal consist of ________.
(a) One member
(b) Two members
(c) One or more members
(d) Composition decided by the central government
Answer:
(a) One member

Question 23.
The Presiding officer of Cyber Appellate Tribunal holds office for _______.
(a) A period of six years or until he attains the age of sixty five whichever is earlier
(b) A period of five years or until he attains the age of sixty six whichever is earlier
(c) A period of four years or until he attains the age of sixty five whichever is earlier
(d) A period of five years or until he attains the age of sixty five whichever is earlier
Answer:
(d) A period of five years or until he attains the age of sixty five whichever is earlier

Question 24.
The presiding officer can me removed on the ground of _______.
(a) Misappropriation of assets
(b) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either fa) or (b)
Answer:
(b) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity

Question 25.
An appeal for the order of Cyber Appellate Tribunal can be filed in _______.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Court with the jurisdiction
(d) Both High Court and Supreme Court Answer:
Answer:
(b) High Court

Question 26.
Cyber space is a ________ medium.
(a) Physical
(b) Virtual
(c) Digital
(d) Virtual & Digital
Answer:
(b) Cyber Space Virtual medium. It has no boundaries, no geographical mass or gravity.

Question 27.
Which of the following is associated with Cyber law?
(a) David J. Hickton
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) Adam Smith
(d) David Ricardo
Answer:
(a) David J. Hickton contribute a lot to cyber law.

Question 28.
Cyber Space is:
(a) Inter connected digital Technology,
(b) Space between two internets
(c) Telecome Network
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Cyber space is meant to the inter connected digital technology.

Question 29.
Cyber Crime not include:
(a) Physical force/attack
(b) Intellectual Property Rights
(c) Hacking and disclosed privacy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Cyber crime include backing and disclose privacy, Intellectual property rights, privacy infringement etc. Thus, option (a) is correct.

Question 30.
Matter related to cyber crimes can heard at ________.
(a) District Court
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Cases related to cyber crime are heard by Supreme Court.

Question 31.
Who act a repository of all Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) issue under. It Act, 2000.
(a) Controller
(b) Adjudicating Officer
(c) Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(d) Any of these
Answer:
(a) The controller acts as a repository (a storehouse, i.e. who will maintain and authenticate and complete information) of all digital signature certificates.

Question 32.
Cyber Space _______.
(a) It is a physical world
(b) It is a massive space
(c) it is a digital medium. It has no fixed shape
(d) Any of these
Answer:
(c) Cyber space is a virtual / digital medium having no boundaries, no geographical mass hence no fixed shape.

Question 33.
What is the penalty for publishing Digital Signature Certificate false in certain particulars:
(a) Imprisonment of 2 years or with fine of 1 lakh or both
(b) Imprisonment of 3 years or with fine of 1 lakh or both
(c) Imprisonment of 2 years and with fine of 1 lakh
(d) Imprisonment of 4 years or with a fine of 3 years or both
Answer:
(a) Section 73 (2) provides that any person who contravenes the provisions of sub-section (1) shall be punished within imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.

Question 34.
Match the following:

(a) Computer Vandalism (i) Against Society
(b) Trafficking (ii) Against individual
(c) Staking (iii) Against organisation
(d) Distribution of Pirated Software (iv) Against individual property

Answer:

(a) Computer Vandalism (iv) Against individual property
(b) Trafficking (i) Against society
(c) Staking (ii) Against individual
(d) Distribution of Pirated Software (iii) Against organisation

Here, the cyber crimes are classified as on the basis of
(a) subject of crime
(b) against whom crime is committed.

Question 35.
Digital Signature is issued to:
(a) Subscriber
(b) Certifying Authority
(c) Government
(d) Controlle
Answer:
(a) The digital signature certificate is a secure digital key that is issued by the certifying authorities to the subscribers [Section 2(1) (Zh)] for the purpose of validating and certifying the identity of person holding this certificate. It makes use of asymmetric crypto system to create signatures.

Question 36.
When one is not satisfied with decision of Adjudicating Officer he can apply to whom?
(a) CAT
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Controller
Answer:
Every appeal under Section 57(1) shall be filed within a period of 25 days from the date on which a copy of the order made by controller or adjudicating officer is received by person aggrieved at’t shall be in such form and be accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed by Cyber Appellate Tribunal.

Question 37.
Cyber-law environment is ________.
(a) Notional
(b) Physical
(c) Ethical
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(a) Cyber Law is a notional or a virtual environment while dealing with some serious problems of internet, there is need of cyber law to govern the new virtual world. They are made to lesser the legal issues for the future. The cyber law also referred as “law of internet”.

Question 38.
Key to create a Digital Signature _______.
(a) Public key
(b) Private key
(c) Government key
(d) I.N.S key
Answer:
(b) The key which is used to create the digital signature is private key. [Section 2(1)(ZC)]. Private key is a part of secure key pair i.e. Asymmetric crypto system in which private key is used to create and public key is used to verify digital signature created.

Question 39.
Qualifications of CS in Cyber Law Appellate Tribunal?
(a) 15 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 30 years
Answer:
(a) A Company Secretary in practice is eligible to become a Technical member of National Company Law Tribunal if he is practising for at least 15 years, according to Qualifications of Tribunal (Section 409).

Question 40.
Act extend to whole of India including Jammu and Kashmir is given in:
(a) Article 253 of Cyber Law
(b) Article 151 of Contract Act
(c) Article 141 of Contract Act
(d) None of these.
(a) According to Section 1 (2) provides that Cyber Law Act extends to whole of India, including Jammu and Kashmir. To extend the provisions of Act to Jammu and Kashmir, Article 253 of the constitution is used.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes

CS Foundation Business Management, Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes MCQ Study Material

CS Foundation Business Management, Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes MCQ Study Material

Business Management Notes for CS Foundation

Business Ethics Notes for CS Foundation

Business Communication Notes for CS Foundation

Entrepreneurship Notes for CS Foundation

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes | Business Laws Notes MCQ Study Material

CS Foundation Law Notes | CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes MCQ Study Material

CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

CS Foundation Business Laws Notes

Entrepreneurship – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Entrepreneurship – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Introduction:

  • The concept of entrepreneurship was first established in 1700s.
  • Cantillon referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of landowners.
  • Entrepreneurship originated in middle ages and it was applied to “the man incharge of the great architectural works: castles and fortification, public buildings, abbeys and cathedrals”.
  • The Merriam Webster dictionary defined it as ‘one who organizes, manages and assumes the risks of a business or enterprise.’
  • In business context – it means to undertake a business activity or simply to start a business.
  • Entrepreneurship in simple words is defined as the process of taking risk and earning profit.
  • The word entrepreneur is derived from the french word “entreprendre” which means to “undertake”.
  • Entrepreneurship is central for enhancing the economic opportunity of nations.

Entrepreneurship involves the following key elements.

  • Innovation
  • Risk-Taking
  • Vision
  • Organising skills

Entrepreneurship is a risk-taking factor which is responsible for the end result in the form of profit or loss.

In the 20th century, an economist Joseph Schumpeter viewed entrepreneurship as a force of “creative destruction”

The entrepreneurial motivation is one of the most important factors which accelerates the pace of economic development by bringing the people to undertake risk-bearing activities.

The entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity or it is an innovative function. – Schumpeter

Entrepreneur is one who searches for change, responds to it, and exploits those changes as an opportunity. – Peter Drucker

Entrepreneurship is neither a science nor an art. It is a practice. It is knowledge-based. Knowledge in entrepreneurship is a means to an end, that is, by the practice” – Peter Drucker

Characteristics of Entrepreneurship:

  • It is a continuous process.
  • It is essential for economic development.
  • It involves taking risk and giving result.
  • It generates self-employment.
  • It can be regarded as a factor of production.
  • It is an innovative activity.
  • Create awareness among people about economic activity.
  • It creates human relation.

Traits/ Qualities of an entrepreneur:

  • He takes risk to achieve goals
  • He has a creative and innovative thinking
  • He owns his enterprise
  • He possess a sense of leadership
  • He is independent and takes personal responsibility
  • He has the ability of converting an idea into an opportunity
  • He is future-oriented.
  • Dissatisfied with the routine activity
  • He is innovative.

Entrepreneur:

  • Entrepreneurship is a process whereas entrepreneur is a person performing the process.
  • Entrepreneur is a trench word which means done who undertakes an endeavour”
  • An entrepreneur possesses creativity which means continuous learning questioning and thinking out of the box.

There is a direct relationship between your efforts and your income if you are an entrepreneur i.e. if your efforts are more then your reward should be more too.

Advantages of being an entrepreneur:

  • Can choose your favourite job i.e. doing what you love
  • Independence and freedom
  • It provides recognition.
  • It gives a feeling of self satisfaction
  • The income earned will have direct relationship with the efforts that are put i.e. more effort more reward.
  • An entrepreneur is his own boss.
  • An entrepreneur can bring many innovations in the organization which is the need of the hour.

Characteristics of an Entrepreneur:
(i) Mental Ability:
He must have creative thinking and ability to anticipate changes.

(ii) Business Secrecy:
He should guard his business secrets.

(iii) Human relations:
He should maintain good relations with his customers, employees etc.

(iv) Clear objectives:
He should have clear objectives about the nature of business.

(v) Communication skills:
He should have good communication skills.

Advantages of Entrepreneurship:

  1. An entrepreneur does what he loves and thus works with passion to succeed.
  2. Entrepreneurship allows a degree of freedom and independence.
  3. Entrepreneur has the feeling of recognition and self-fulfilment.
  4. Entrepreneurship offers a greater possibility for achieving significant financial rewards.
  5. Entrepreneurship are their own boss.
  6. Entrepreneurship leads to innovation and helps the local economy.

Types of entrepreneurs:

  • Idealist: He works on the basis of ideas formulated by him.
  • Optimizer: He has an optimistic approach and is satisfied with whatever he has.(Personal satisfaction of being a business owner.)
  • Hard workers: They believe in working hard to get the gains.
  • Sustainers: They maintain a proper balance between work and personal life. Apart from work, they need time for personal life.
  • Improvers: Their aim is to improve the society with their work. Their motto is to work in a manner which is morally and ethically correct so as to contribute to noble cause.
  • Adviser: These entrepreneurs have a habit of advising and pleasing their customers. They have a customer-oriented business.
  • Superstar: These types of entrepreneurs wins the heart of the people through their overwhelming personality and charisma.
  • Artiste: These are creativity oriented entrepreneurs. Their business activity is centered around creativity.
  • Visionary: These types of entrepreneurs see a dream and then put their best efforts to make that dream come true.
  • Analyst: These are expert at problem-solving techniques and making analyses.
  • Fireball: Such entrepreneurs are full of energy and enthusiasm but are too impulsive at times which leads to wrong decision making.
  • Juggler’s: These types of entrepreneurs love to take chances in business. They believe that they can handle every situation.
  • Hero: These entrepreneurs are great leaders. They motivate and inspire people around them.
  • Healer: These are cool and calm by nature and tries to bring about harmony in the organisation.

Difference between an Entrepreneur and a Manager

Entrepreneur Manager
(i) An entrepreneur conceives an idea and establishes the business with that idea A manager provides his services to the business established by the entrepreneur.
(ii) An entrepreneur takes risks arid gets the rewards A manager does not take risk and gets a fixed remuneration.
(iii) The main objective of the entrepreneur is to do innovations in the organization. The objective of manager is to supervise and manage the existing work.
(iv) As entrepreneur is himself the owner, he does not has the motive of deceiving the organization. Managers may sometimes be induced to involve in fraud or thefts.
(v) An entrepreneur becomes an entrepreneur by his qualities I.e. innovative thinking, risk-bearing etc. A manager becomes a manager by his qualifications I.e. education and degrees.
(vi) Survival and achieving long term growth. Short-term to meet deadlines set by top management.
(vii) Delegated to one self. Delegated by top management.

Nutshell:
An entrepreneur could be a manager but a manager cannot be an entrepreneur”.

Entrepreneurship:

  • Intrapreneurship is a process by which a person win the organization takes responsibility to turn an idea into opportunity.
  • This word was coined by Gifford Pinchot author of the book Intrapreneuring” written in 1985.
  • intrapreneurship = Entrepreneurship + Management skills
  • In simple words, it is the practice of entrepreneurship by the employees within an organization i.e. when manager acts as an entrepreneur it is known as Intrapreneurship.

Characteristics:

  • It Involves motivating the managers to take responsibility and act as entrepreneurs.
  • Such tasks are funded and have a support of the main organisation.
  • Creates wealth both for the manager as well as for the organization.
  • There are lesser chances of failure due to backing from the headquarters.

Difference between Entrepreneur end Intrapreneur:

Entrepreneur Intrapreneur
(i) He is the owner of the business. He is the employee of the business, generally the manager.
(ii) He likes innovations and develops new ideas for the organization. He does innovations not in the organization but for a particular product or service.
(iii) An entrepreneur shows his skills outside the organization by grabbing opportunities in the market. An intrapreneur shows all skills, creativity etc. within the organization. He is an inside entrepreneur.
(iv) Risk is high. Risk is moderate.

Nutshell: Not every business needs an entrepreneur but every business needs an Intrapreneur.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. The word Entrepreneur has a ……………………… origin.
(a) Latin
(b) French
(c) German
(d) Indian
Answer:
(b) French

2. The word “ entreprendre’ means:
(a) to undertake
(b) to manage
(c) to enter into business
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) to undertake

3. Anybody who wants to work for himself is known as-
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Intrapreneur
(c) Manager
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Entrepreneur

4. Which of these is not an element of entrepreneurship?
(a) Innovation
(b) Risk-taking
(c) Profit-making
(d) Visionary
Answer:
(c) Profit-making

5. Who viewed entrepreneurship as a force of” creative destruction”
(a) Schumpeter
(b) Cantillon
(c) Peter Drucker
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Schumpeter

6. Entrepreneurship is neither a science nor an art was expressed by:
(a) Schumpeter
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(b) Peter Drucker

7. Entrepreneurship is a continuous process. State true or false:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) None
Answer:
(a) True

8. Which of these is not a trait of an entrepreneur?
(a) Innovative
(b) Future oriented
(c) Independent
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

9. ………………… refers to the strong desire to achieve success.
(a) Dedication
(b) Determination
(c) Passion
(d) Self-confidence
Answer:
(b) Determination

10. A combination of common sense with knowledge and experience is termed as
(a) Leadership
(b) Flexibility
(c) Smart
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Smart

11. An entrepreneur should have which of the following feature:
(a) Mental ability
(b) Communication skills
(c) Clear objectives
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

12. ……………………. type of entrepreneurs manage both work and personal life together.
(a) Hero
(b) Healer
(c) Sustainer
(d) Artiste
Answer:
(c) Sustainer

13. One who nurtures the business by bringing harmony in the organization is known as-
(a) Superstar
(b) Healer
(c) Sustainers
(d) Advisers
Answer:
(b) Healer

14. An entrepreneur who is always ready to take chances is called ……………………………. .
(a) Superstar
(b) Hero
(c) Juggler
(d) Fireball
Answer:
(c) Juggler

15. A manager can be an entrepreneur but an entrepreneur cannot be a manager. The above statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) None
Answer:
(b) False

16. When a manager becomes an entrepreneur he is called:
(a) Intrapreneur
(b) Sustainer
(c) Manager only
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Intrapreneur

17. …………………………………. is a method for the companies to reinvest themselves and improve performance.
(a) Entrepreneurship
(b) Intrapreneurship
(c) Management
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Intrapreneurship

18. Every business needs an ………………………. .
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Intrapreneur
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Intrapreneur

19. One who is never dull in terms of enthusiasm, energy and attitude is …………………………….. .
(a) Fireball
(b) Juggler
(c) Superstar
(d) Hard worker
Answer:
(a) Fireball

20. Who can become an intrapreneur?
(a) Manager
(b) Employee
(c) Outsider skilled person
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

21. In which year the concept of entrepreneurship was first established.
(a) 1700
(b) 1900
(c) 1990
(d) 1600
Answer:
(a) 1700

22. Who referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of ‘land owners’.
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Cantillon
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Cantillon

23. According to whom, entrepreneurship is a Practice.
(a) Peter F Drucker
(b) A Schumpeter
(c) Cantillon
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Peter F Drucker

24. ‘A large income is the best recipe for happiness ever heard of ”.
(a) Napoleon Hill
(b) Maslow
(c) June Austen
(d) Hilaire Belloc
Answer:
(c) June Austen

25. Intrapreneurship is a combination of entrepreneurship and.
(a) Management skill
(b) Innovative skill
(c) Profit-making
(d) Risk-taking
Answer:
(a) Management skill

26. ………………………………. is devoted to the Promotion of any noble cause.
(a) Artiste
(b) Idealist
(c) Improver
(d) Visionary
Answer:
(c) Improver

27. “ Your real boss is the one who walks around under your hat”.
(a) Maslow
(b) Napoleon Hill
(c) Hilaire Belloc
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Napoleon Hill

28. The word intrapreneur was coined by Gifford Pinchot author of the book “Intrapreneuring” written in ………………… .
(a) 1986
(b) 1977
(c) 1985
(d) 1983
Answer:
(c) 1985

29. In the 20th century, an economist Joseph Schumpeter viewed entrepreneurship as a force of …………………….. .
(a) Risk-taking
(b) Profit-making
(c) Creative destruction
(d) Innovative skill
Answer:
(c) Creative destruction

30. Which of the following is not a key element of Entrepreneurship?
(a) Innovation
(b) Vision
(c) Motivation
(d) Risk-taking
Answer:
(c) Motivation

31. A person who searches for change, responds to it and exploits those changes as an opportunity is called?
(a) Manager
(b) Leader
(c) Entrepreneur
(d) Explorer
Answer:
(c) Entrepreneur

32. Which of the following is not a trait of an Entrepreneur?
(a) Innovative
(b) Satisfied with the routine activity
(c) Moderate risk taker
(d) Works under uncertainty
Answer:
(b) Satisfied with the routine activity

33. For a true entrepreneur, “success is the motivator and money is the ……………………. .
(a) Reward
(b) Objective
(c) Goal
(d) Need
Answer:
(a) Reward

34. Which of the following is not a very essential characteristic of an Entrepreneur?
(a) Mental Ability
(b) Communication Ability
(c) Clear objectives
(d) Pervasive
Answer:
(d) Pervasive

35. The most common type of Entrepreneur is
(a) Improver
(b) Idealist
(c) Super Star
(d) Hard workers
Answer:
(b) Idealist

36. The Entrepreneur which believes in consumer sovereignty is called.
(a) Improver
(b) Advisor
(c) Super Star
(d) Artiste
Answer:
(b) Advisor

37. The Entrepreneur who works for a noble cause, morally and ethically is called
(a) Optimizer
(b) Idealist
(c) Super Star
(d) Improver
Answer:
(d) Improver

38. Which of the following is not a type of Entrepreneur?
(a) Sustainer
(b) Improver
(c) Explorer
(d) Fireball
Answer:
(c) Explorer

39. The entrepreneur who are full of life, optimist and energetic are called as
(a) Jugglers
(b) Hero
(c) Healer
(d) Fireball
Answer:
(d) Fireball

40. The entrepreneur who makes an effort to manage everything themselves are called.
(a) Jugglers
(b) Fireball
(c) Hero
(d) Hard workers
Answer:
(a) Jugglers

41. The entrepreneur having good leadership skills and capability to inspire others are called.
(a) Hero
(b) Healer
(c) Artiste
(d) SuperStar
Answer:
(a) Hero

42. An Entrepreneur who has a charisma, charm and high energy and uses them to build his own personal brand is called.
(a) Hero
(b) Fireball
(c) Super Star
(d) Healer
Answer:
(c) Super Star.

43. The entrepreneur who makes a scenario planning to pre-prepare for any kind of turmoil is called.
(a) Healer
(b) Artiste
(c) Idealist
(d) Optimizer
Answer:
(a) Healer.

44. Which of the following statement is False?
(a) An entrepreneur develops new plans and ideas and the manager implements them.
(b) A manager faces more income uncertainties than entrepreneur
(c) The areas of required qualification for a manager and entrepreneurship are quite different.
(d) An entrepreneur can be a manager but a manager can not be an entrepreneur
Answer:
(b) A manager faces more income uncertainties than entrepreneur.

45. An individual employed by an organization for remuneration based on the financial results of the organization is called
(a) Manager
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Employer
(d) Intrapreneur
Answer:
(d) Intrapreneur.

46. Which of the following statement is not true? ‘
(a) Intrapreneur is the inside entrepreneur
(b) Not every business needs an Intrapreneur but every business needs an Entrepreneur
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) Not every business needs an Intrapreneur but every business needs an Entrepreneur.

47. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Entrepreneurs are found everywhere whereas intrapreneurs are to be encouraged within the organization.
(b) Intrapreneur have to face rivalry within the organization
(c) Resources are readily available to an intrapreneur
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

48. The prime focus of an Entrepreneur is to
(a) To get traditional corporate rewards
(b) To get an independent chance and opportunity to make more money
(c) To move towards organizational and personal success
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) To get an independent chance and opportunity to make more money.

49. The basic skills required for an Intrapreneur are
(a) Leadership, communication skills, planning etc.
(b) Creative, innovative, risk-taking, etc.
(c) Blend of Managerial and Entrepreneurial skills
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Blend of Managerial and Entrepreneurial skills.

50. Qualities like leadership, organizing, planning etc. are the basic requirements of a
(a) Manager
(b) Employee
(c) Entrepreneur
(d) Intrapreneur
Answer:
(a) Manager.

51. A person within a large corporation who takes direct responsibility for turning an idea into profitable finished product through assertive risk-taking is called.
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Manager
(c) Intrapreneur
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Intrapreneur.

52. The practice of entrepreneurship by the employees is termed as
(a) Management
(b) Administration
(c) Intrapreneurship
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Intrapreneurship.

53. The term Intrapreneurship was first coined by
(a) Gifford Pinchot
(b) Steve jobs
(c) Cantillon
(d) Taylor
Answer:
(a) Gifford Pinchot.

54. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Intrapreneurship
(a) It cultivates entrepreneurial Skills and Culture
(b) The chances of failure are high as compared to start-ups
(c) It creates wealth for the headquarters
(d) It helps in expanding the business portfolio.
Answer:
(b) The chances of failure are high as compared to startups.

55. An employee who is given the required support and resources to create new product or services is known as:
(a) Auditor
(b) Intrapreneur
(c) Entrepreneur
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Intrapreneur:
Intrapreneur refers to a person within a large corporation who takes direct responsibility for turning an idea into a profitable finished product through assertive risk-taking and innovation.
Thus, an employee who is given the required support and resources to create new products or services is known as an intrapreneur.

56. Which one of the following is not an element of entrepreneurship?
(a) Innovation
(b) Organisation skill
(c) Risk averseness
(d) Vision
Answer:
(c) Risk averseness:
Entrepreneurship is defined as the process of taking risk and earning profit. Entrepreneurship is central for enhancing the economic opportunity of nation.
Entrepreneurship involves the following key elements.

  • Innovation
  • Risk-taking
  • Vision
  • Organising skills

Hence, risk awareness is not an element of entrepreneurship.

57. What is the nature of entrepreneurship?
(a) An economic activity
(b) A cultural activity
(c) A political activity
(d) A technological process
Answer:
(a) An economic activity:
Entrepreneurship is defined as the process of making money, earning profits and increasing the wealth. While possessing characteristics such as risk-taking, management, leadership and innovation. It is a theory of evolution of economic activities. It is a continuous process of an ingredient of economic development. It creates awareness among people about economic activity and generates self-employment and additional employment.

58. The key element of entrepreneurship is:
(a) Management Skills
(b) Capital
(c) Creativity and innovation
(d) Business acquaintances
Answer:
(c) Creativity and innovation:
Entrepreneurship has been identified by the individuals as success of enterprise depending upon imagination, vision, innovation. The entrepreneur carries out “new combinations” thereby helping render old industry obsolete. Therefore, it can be said that creativity and innovation are the key elements of entrepreneurship.

59. For, being an entrepreneur, risk-bearing is:
(a) The only factor
(b) One of the factor
(c) The least factor
(d) Not a factor.
Answer:
(b) One of the factor:
Successful entrepreneurs are those who make better judgments about changes in the market and who cope up with risk and uncertainty better than these counterparts. Therefore for being entrepreneur, risk-bearing is one of the factor along with other important factors.

60. Intrapreneur faces competition from
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Managers
(c) Employees within the organisation
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Employees within the organisation:
One of key point of difference between the entrepreneurs and intrapreneurs is that while entrepreneurs have competition with other entrepreneurs outside the organisation, entrepreneurs have competition with employees within the organisation since intrapreneur is himself one of the employees.

61. Entrepreneur is a person:
(a) Having high aptitude
(b) Who wants to work for himself
(c) Ready to bear risk for profit in new venture
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.
Entrepreneur is a person of very high aptitude who pioneers changes, possessing characteristics found in only a very small fraction of population. Anyone who wants to work for himself is considered to be an entrepreneur. To some economists, entrepreneur is one who is willing to bear the risk of a new venture, if there is a significant chance for profit.

62. According to Peter Drucker, entrepreneurship is:
(a) A science
(b) An art
(c) Both a science and an art
(d) Neither a science nor an art.
Answer:
(d) Neither a science nor an art.
According to business expert Peter Drucker “Entrepreneurship is neither a science nor an art. It is a practice. It is knowledge-based. Knowledge in entrepreneurship is a means to an end, that is by the practice”.

63. Which of the following is not true about an entrepreneur?
(a) An entrepreneur is creative, innovative and risk-taker
(b) An entrepreneur is independent
(c) An entrepreneur is not future-oriented
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) An entrepreneur is not future-oriented:
Entrepreneur carries out “new combinations” thereby helping under old industries obsolete. Entrepreneurship allows undertaking the activities of one’s choice and comfort which offers independence and freedom in return.

64. The risk borne by entrepreneurs is
(a) Less
(b) Extreme
(c) Moderate
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Moderate:
Entrepreneur is a person who develops and owns his enterprise. One of his traits is that he is a moderate risk taker and works under uncertainty for achieving the goal. Thus, it can be said that risk borne by entrepreneurs is moderate.

65. The word ‘Entrepreneur’ has its origin from:
(a) Latin word
(b) French word
(c) German word
(d) Indian word.
Answer:
(b) French word:
The word entrepreneur has a French origin. It was originated during the middle ages when the term entrepreneur was applied to the man in charge of the great architectural works. It is derived from the french word “entrependre” which means “to undertake.”

66. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of entrepreneurship?
(a) Innovation
(b) Organising skills
(c) Indifferent approach
(d) Risk-taking.
Answer:
(c) Indifferent approach:
Entrepreneurship in simple words is defined as process of taking risk and earning profit. Entrepreneurship involves the following key elements- innovation, risk-taking, vision and organising skill. So among the following, in different approach is not a characteristic of entrepreneur.

67. Which one of the following is true about investment cost per job?
(a) Investment costs per job are high in large and medium industries
(b) Investment costs per job are high in small scale enterprises
(c) Investment costs per job are high in micro-enterprises
(d) Investment costs per job are higher in micro-enterprises than small scale enterprises.
Answer:
(a) Investment costs per job are high in large and medium industries:
Investment cost per job are high in large and medium industries. Investment made into large and medium industries make better profit than the Other small scale enterprises. Investment refers to investment in plant and machinery of an organisation.

68. Cantillon referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of …………………………. who are financially independent aristocrats.
(a) Landowners
(b) Employees
(c) Entrepreneurs
(d) Investors.
Answer:
(a) Landowners:
Cantillon referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of landowners who are financially independent aristocrats. For him, individuals who purchased a good at a certain price used that good to produce a product and then sold that product at an uncertain price could be considered entrepreneurs.

69. One who with his charm establishes and manages business to take it to unimaginable heights is known as …………………………. entrepreneur.
(a) Superstar
(b) Idealist
(c) Artist
(d) Sustainer.
Answer:
(a) Superstar
There are various types of entrepreneurs, few of them are:
Superstar – These types of entrepreneur wins the heart of the people through their overwhelming personality and charisma. Idealist works on the basis of ideas formulated by him.

Artist are Creativity oriented entrepreneurs. Their business activity is centred around creativity. Sustainer maintains a proper balance between work and personal life. Hence, superstar is the one who with his claim establishes and manages business to take it to unimaginable heights.

70. ‘The entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity or it is an innovative function” is said by —
(a) Schumpeter
(b) Kelsen
(c) Henry Maine
(d) Peter Drucker.
Answer:
(a) Schumpeter:
The given statement was said by Schumpeter –

71. A person within a large corporation who takes direct responsibility for turning an idea into a profitable finished product through assertive risk-taking and innovation, is an –
(a) Intrapreneur
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Manager
(d) Improver.
Answer:
(a) Intrapreneur:
Intrapreneurs are the one who are engaged within the confines of an organisation. They are primarily focused to be creative and to move towards organisational and personal successes. They takes responsibility for turning an idea into a profitable finished product through assertive risk-taking and innovation.

72. Which of the following is a characteristic of intrapreneurship?
X. Intrapreneurship is a risk-taking factor, which is responsible for the end result in the form of profit or loss
Y. It cultivates entrepreneurial skills
Z. Its followers are called managers.
Correct option is –
(a) X and Y
(b) Y and Z
(c) X and Z
(d) X, Y and Z.
Answer:
(b) Y and Z
Following are characteristics of intrapreneurship –

  • It promotes managers to be more innovative.
  • These projects are funded by large business organisations.
  • Managers are motivated to accept more risk.
  • Managers follow intrapreneurship.
  • Chances of failure are low.
  • It cultivates entrepreneurial skill.

Thus, answer is Y and Z.

73. Who among the following propounded the concept of ‘creative destructions’?
(a) Steve Jobs
(b) Albert S Humphrey
(c) Joseph Schumpeter
(d) Cantillon.
Answer:
(c) Joseph Schumpeter
Joseph Schumpeter focused how the entrepreneur’s drive for innovation and improvement which creates upheaval and change. He viewed entrepreneurship as a force of “ creative destruction”. The entrepreneurs carries out “new combinations”, thereby helping sender old industries obsolete.

74. Which of the following is feature of juggler?
(a) They have a habit of advising their customers.
(b) They are creatively oriented entrepreneurs.
(c) They believe in working hard to get the wins.
(d) They love to take chances in business.
Answer:
(d) They love to take chances in business.
A juggler means entertainer who keeps several plates, knives, balls or other objects in the air at once by tossing & catching them. The juggler entrepreneur likes the concept that the businessman gives them a chance in business to handle everything themselves.

75. Who coined the word Intrapreneurship?
(a) Gifford Pinchot
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Steve jobs
(d) Joseph Schumpeter
Answer:
(a) Gifford Pinchot:
The word ‘intrapreneurship’ was coined by the management consultant Gifford Pinchot, author of the 1985 book entitled Intrapreneuring. Hence, option (a) is correct.

76. Which of the following is one of the key elements of entrepreneurship?
(a) Motivation
(b) Mission
(c) Innovation
(d) Supervision
Answer:
(c) Innovation:
Four key elements of Entrepreneurship are:

  1. Innovation
  2. Risk-taking
  3. Vision
  4. Organising skills.

Hence, innovation is the one of the Key elements of entrepreneurship.

77. Which type of entrepreneur is lead by charisma, charm & high energy?
(a) Superstar
(b) Fireball
(c) Juggler
(d) Hero
Answer:
(a) Superstar:
Superstar is lead by charisma, charm & high energy. An entrepreneur like this has an overwhelming personality which works in his favour, so does in the favour of business.

78. …………………. means to undertake a business activity or to start one’s own business.
(a) Intrapreneurship
(b) Entrepreneurship
(c) Leadership
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(b) Entrepreneurship:
The word entrepreneur has a french origin. It is derived from the French word entreprendre which means to ‘undertake’. In a business context, it means to undertake a business activity or to simply start a new business.

79. The basic skills required for an intrapreneur are-
(a) Leadership, communication, planning
(b) Creativity, innovation, risk-taking
(c) Blend of managerial & entrepreneurial skill
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Blend of managerial & entrepreneurial skill:
Intrapreneurship is a combination of entrepreneurship & management skills. In simple words, intrapreneurship is the practice of entrepreneurship by employees within an organisation.
Hence, it is a blend of managerial & entrepreneurship skills.

80. The word ‘entreprendre’ means:
(a) To undertake
(b) To manage
(c) To enter into business
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) To undertake:
The word entrepreneur is derived from the French word “entreprendre”, which means “to undertake.”
Hence, option (a) is correct.

81. In which year the concept of the entrepreneurship was first established?
(a) 1700
(b) 1900
(c) 1990
(d) 1600
Answer:
(a) 1700
The concept of entrepreneur was first established in 1790 & the meaning was evolved ever since. Hence, option (a) is correct.

82. Cantillon referred Entrepreneurs one of the
(a) Classes of landowners
(b) Classes of employees
(c) Classes of entrepreneurs
(d) Classes of investors.
Answer:
(a) Classes of landowners:
Cantillon referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of landowners who are financially independent aristocrats. For him, individuals who purchased a good at a certain price used that good to produce a product and then, sold that product at an uncertain price could be considered ‘entrepreneurs’.

83. What is the remuneration of Entrepreneur?
(a) Love
(b) Profit
(c) Money
(d) Interest
Answer:
(b) Profit:
Entrepreneurship is defined as the process of taking risk and earning profit. Thus profit is the remuneration of entrepreneur.

84. Which amongst the following is incorrect regarding entrepreneurship –
(a) Entrepreneurship is derived from French word ‘entreprendre’.
(b) Entrepreneurship is related with innovative thinking.
(c) Entrepreneurship is related with organising skills.
(d) Entrepreneurship is mainly related with profit-making.
Answer:
(d) Entrepreneurship is mainly related with profit-making:
Entrepreneurship involves the following key elements:

  • Innovation
  • Risk-Taking
  • Vision
  • Organising Skills

Entrepreneurship is a risk-taking factor which is responsible for the end result in the form of profit or loss. Thus, entrepreneurship is not Mainly related with profit Making.

85. The word entrepreneur is derived from the french word ……………….. .
(a) Intraprenure
(b) Entreprendre
(c) Intraprendre
(d) Entrepreneure
Answer:
(b) Entreprendre:
The word entrepreneur has a French origin. It was originated during the middle ages when the term entrepreneur was applied to the man in charge of the great architecture. It is derived from the French word “entrepreneur” which means “to undertake”.

86. Which type of entrepreneur is full of life, energy and optimism.
(a) Fireball
(b) Healer
(c) Juggler
(d) Optimiser
Answer:
(a) Fireball:
Fireball are types of entrepreneurs which are full of energy and enthusiasm but are too impulsive at times which leads to wrong decision making.

87. Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) Intrapreneur is the inside entrepreneur
(b) Not every business needs an intrapreneur but every business needs an entrepreneur
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) Not every business needs an intrapreneur but every business needs an entrepreneur:
Intrapreneurship is a process by which a person within the organisation takes responsibility to turn an idea into opportunity.
Intrapreneurship = Entrepreneurship + Management Thus, not every business needs an entrepreneur but every business needs an intrapreneur, Thus, option (b) is correct.

88. Which of the following is not a type of entrepreneur?
(a) Sustainer
(b) Explorer
(c) Improver
(d) Fireball
Answer:
(b) Explorer:
Following are types of entrepreneurs:

  • Idealist
  • Optimiser
  • Hard workers
  • Sustainers
  • Improver
  • Advisor
  • Superstar
  • Artiste
  • Visionary
  • Analyst
  • Fireball
  • Jugglers
  • Hero
  • Healer.

Thus, explorer is not a type of entrepreneur.

89. Who among the following realises his dreams?
(a) Investor
(b) Manager
(c) Entrepreneur
(d) Employee.
Answer:
(c) Entrepreneur
Normally, all the businesses are founded keeping a vision in mind. The founding members (i.e. entrepreneurs) who visualize a dream and materialize the same are known as visionary (a type of entrepreneur). These are thinkers who pursue to make their vision come true. Thus, we can say that an entrepreneur is a person who realises his dreams.

90. Generally micro-entrepreneurs operate:
(a) For their choice
(b) For their need
(c) For their luxury
(d) None applicable.
Answer:
(a) For their choice:
Micro-enterprises is considered a small business employing 10 people or less and have a capital asset less than 30,00,000. Most Micro-enterprises are family businesses employing one or more persons. These micro-entrepreneurs operate micro-enterprises by choice. Most micro-enterprises owners are primarily interested in earning a living to support themselves and their families.

91. Which of the following is not a type of entrepreneur?
(a) Villain
(b) Artiste
(c) Fireball
(d) Superstar
Answer:
(a) Villain:
Following are types of entrepreneurs:

  • Idealist
  • Optimiser
  • Hard Workers
  • Sustainers
  • Improver
  • Advisor
  • Superstar
  • Artiste
  • Visionary
  • Analyst
  • Fireball
  • Jugglers
  • Hero
  • Healer

Thus, Villain is not a type of entrepreneur.

92. What type of entrepreneur do not do new things?
(a) Superstar
(b) Fireball
(c) Jugglers
(d) Sustainers
Answer:
(d) Sustainers:
The sustainer type of entrepreneurs comprise of people who like to maintain a balance between work and a personal lite, they do not wish the business to grow too large where it will cut into their personal life, they do not do new things they just need enough to survive.

93. Artiste entrepreneurs are:
(a) Artist in T.V. serials
(b) Proclaim themselves to be artist
(c) Persons with creativity orientation
(d) Artist in movies.
Answer:
(c) Persons with creativity orientation:
Artistic, these are creativity oriented entrepreneurs, thus, the type of business also are those which demand huge levels of creativity such as advertising -agencies and people in the music industry.

94. Entrepreneur was distinguished from capital provider in:
(a) 17 century
(b) 18Th century
(c) 19th and 2O century
(d) Middle ages
Answer:
(a) 17 century:
The concept of entrepreneurship was established in 1700s and the meaning has evolved ever since. Various economists and philosophers termed this differently in their own unique ways.

95. The meaning of the word Entrepreneur:
(a) To manage
(b) To enter into business
(c) To undertake
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) To undertake
The term ‘Entrepreneur’ is derived from French word, ‘entreprendre’ which means to ‘undertake’.

96. Who plays the role of innovator?
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Retailer
(c) Professional
(d) Enterprise
Answer:
(a) Entrepreneur
The entrepreneur plays a role of an innovator who markets his innovation.

97. Entrepreneur works for:
(a) Profits
(b) Innovations
(c) Salary
(d) Remuneration
Answer:
(a) Profits:
Entrepreneur is a person who works for profit. Entrepreneurship is defined as the process of making money, earning profits and increasing the wealth.

98. What is meant by Entrepreneur?
(a) Business
(b) Risk-taking
(c) Profit
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(d) All are applicable
Following are the characteristics of Entrepreneur:

  • Risk-taking
  • Management
  • Leadership
  • Innovation
  • Profit
  • Business

Thus, option (d), all the above is correct.

99. Which of the following are not considered as Entrepreneurs?
(a) Climber
(b) Hero
(c) Juggler
(d) Fireball
Answer:
(a) Climber
Following are types of Entrepreneurs:

  • Idealist
  • Optimiser
  • Hard workers
  • Jugglers
  • Healer
  • Sustainer
  • Improver
  • Advisor
  • Superstar
  • Artiste
  • Fireball
  • Analyst
  • Hero

Thus, option (a) i.e. climber not a type of Entrepreneur.

100. Cantillon referred Entrepreneur as on the class of:
(a) Landowners
(b) Innovation
(c) Vision
(d) Risk-taking
Answer:
(a) Landowners
Cantillon referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of Landowners who are financially independent aristocrats. For him, individuals who purchased a good at a certain price used that good to produce a product and then sold that product at an uncertain price could be considered entrepreneurs.

101. Which one of this following is not the characteristics of entrepreneur.
(a) Innovation
(b) Organising
(c) Indifferent approach
(d) Risk-taking
Answer:
(c) Indifferent approach:
Characteristics of Entrepreneur:

  • Mental ability
  • Business secrecy
  • Clear objectives
  • Human relation
  • Communication Ability

Thus, option (c) i.e. indifferent Approach is not a characteristic of Entrepreneur.

102. Which of the following ¡s not a personality trait or characteristic common among entrepreneurs?
(a) Alert to opportunities
(b) Self-starter
(c) Short attention span
(d) Visionary
Answer:
(c) Short attention span:
Short attention span is not a personality trait or characteristic common among entrepreneurs. It means when someone is not able to listen or pay attention to their surroundings or get easily distracted.

103. Superstar Entrepreneurs are:
(a) Stars in T.V. serials
(b) Actor’s in movies
(c) Persons with charisma, charm and high energy
(d) Proclaim themselves to be a star.
Answer:
(c) Persons with charisma, charm and high energy:
Superstar entrepreneurs are person with charisma, charm and high Energy. An entrepreneur like this has an overwhelming personality which works in his favour. So does in the favour of his business.

104. Which of the following is not a type of entrepreneurs?
(a) Serial Entrepreneur
(b) Social Entrepreneur
(c) Sleeping Entrepreneur
(d) Lifestyle Entrepreneur.
Answer:
(c) Sleeping Entrepreneur:
Sleeping entrepreneur Ts not a type of entrepreneur as they do not take active part in managing the affairs as he should be idealist, optimizer, hard worker, sustainer etc. who are capable of taking substantial risk in being the owner and operator of a business.

105. A managers job is more concerned with:
(a) Exploring new opportunities for making profits
(b) Taking risk
(c) Undertaking creative pursuits
(d) Meeting deadlines set up by top management.
Answer:
(d) Meeting deadlines set up by top management:
A manager job is more concerned with meeting deadlines set up by top management. He does provide his services in an enterprise established by entrepreneurs. He is an employee and does not undertake responsibility of any risk.

106. Which of the following is not true concerning entrepreneurs and risk?
(a) They see risk differently than the general public
(b) They minimise1 risk to every extent possible
(c) They usually take high risk
(d) They define risks early in the start-up process.
Answer:
(c) They usually take high risk:
An entrepreneur is the owner of the organization and he bears all the risk and uncertainties involved in running. an organization. He is a moderate risk taker and works under, uncertainty for achieving the goal.

107. Which of the following is not a type of entrepreneur?
(a) Artiste
(b) Superstar
(c) Fireball
(d) Villain
Answer:
(d) Villain:
Types of Entrepreneurs:

  • Idealist Entrepreneur
  • Optimisers” Entrepreneur
  • Hard Workers Entrepreneur
  • Sustainers Entrepreneur
  • Improvers Entrepreneur
  • Advisor Entrepreneur
  • Superstar Entrepreneur
  • Artiste Entrepreneur
  • Visionary Entrepreneur
  • Analyst Entrepreneur
  • Fireball Entrepreneur
  • Juggler Entrepreneur
  • Hero Entrepreneur
  • Healer Entrepreneur.

108. Which one of the following factors does not matter for a person to become an entrepreneur?
(a) Skin Colour
(b) Education
(c) Family background
(d) Personal values
Answer:
(a) Skin Colour:
The skin colour does not matter for becoming an entrepreneur. A successful entrepreneur comes in varying sizes and colour and are of different race, caste, creed or religion.

109. The term Intrapreneurship was first coined by ………………… .
(a) Joseph Schumpeter
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Gifford Pinchot
(d) Philip Kotler
Answer:
(c) Gifford Pinchot:
The word intrapreneur is a recently coined corporate counterpart to long-existing term entrepreneur. This word is coined by Gifford Pinchot, author of the book entitled Intrapreneuring in 1985.

110. Which of the following is not a common trait of Entrepreneur?
(a) Persistence despite failure
(b) A passion for the buyer
(c) Intolerance to ambiguity
(d) Self-Confidence.
Answer:
(a) Persistence despite failure:
Entrepreneur is one who searches for change, respond to it and exploits those changes as an opportunity. It involves in it innovation, risk-taking, vision and organizing skills but the trait which is not common is the persistence despite failure.

111. Which of the following is not a type of entrepreneurs?
(a) Serial Entrepreneur
(b) Sleeping Entrepreneur
(c) Lifestyle Entrepreneur
(d) Social Entrepreneur
Answer:
(b) Sleeping Entrepreneur:
Sleeping Entrepreneur is not a type of entrepreneur as they can be optimizer, hard workers, superstar, adviser, here or healer.

112. Which of the following factors does not affect a person for being an entrepreneur?
(a) Nationality
(b) Work History
(c) Education
(d) Personal values
Answer:
(a) Nationality:
Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity or it is an innovative function where motivation is one of the important factors. Thus, nationality is not a factor which affect a person in becoming the entrepreneur while education, personal values and work history can be considered for the same.

113. Which according to Joseph Schumpeter is not a vital function performed by the entrepreneur?
(a) Challenging accepted ways of doing things
(b) Revolutionising current patterns of production
(c) Creative destruction
(d) Regional development
Answer:
(d) Regional development:
Destructive creation was coined as a play on Joseph Schumpeter’s famous term “creative destruction”, which suggests that innovation leads to changes and Economic growth, challenging accepted ways of doing things and revolutionizing current pattern of production. Thus, regional development is not the factor considered in the definition by Joseph Schumpeter.

114. Analyst entrepreneurs are:
(a) Good at problem-solving
(b) Not focused
(c) Not creative
(d) Illogical
Answer:
(a) Good at problem-solving:
Analyst Entrepreneurs are experts at problem-solving techniques and making analysis which offers greater possibilities for achieving significant financial rewards.

115. Practice of entrepreneurship in an established firm is known as ……………………. .
(a) Leadership
(b) Manager Entrepreneurship
(c) Entrepreneurship
(d) Intrapreneurship
Answer:
(d) Intrapreneurship:
In simple words, the practice of entrepreneurship by the employees within an organization i.e when the manager acts as an entrepreneur is known as Intrapreneur. Hence option (d) is correct.

116. Which of the following is not a type of entrepreneur?
(a) Improver
(b) Climbers
(c) Advisor
(d) Juggler
Answer:
(b) Climbers:
Various type of Entrepreneurs are:

  • Idealist
  • Optimiser
  • Hard worker
  • Sustainer
  • Improver
  • Advisor
  • Superstar
  • Artiste
  • Visionary
  • Analyst
  • Fireball
  • Jugglers
  • Hero
  • Healer

117. Risk Bearing Capacity of an entrepreneur is generally:
(a) Low
(b) Conservative
(c) Extreme
(d) Moderate
Answer:
(c) Extreme:
One of the major characteristics of entrepreneur is that he has extreme capacity to bear risk.

118. Generally, micro-entrepreneur operate:
(a) For their choice
(b) For their need
(c) For their luxury
(d) None is applicable
Answer:
(a) For their choice:
Micro-Enterprise are very small enterprises and they operate as per their choice.

119. All of the following are enhancements to individual creativity except:
(a) Keeping a journal to record thoughts & ideas
(b) Allowing yourself to be creative
(c) Limiting your reading sources
(d) Enhancing your knowledge base.
Answer:
(c) Limiting your reading sources:
Limiting your reading sources is not an enhancement to individual creativity.

120. Generally, the main reason behind starting a business is:
(a) Earning profits
(b) Social science
(c) Earning name
(d) Spiritual reasons
Answer:
(a) Earning profits:
The main reason behind starting a business is earning profit.

121. The rewards for an entrepreneurial work comes in the form of ……………………….. .
(a) law
(b) wages
(c) interest
(d) profit
Answer:
(d) profit:
Profit is the return or reward of entrepreneur.

122. The word Entrepreneur’ has its original from:
(a) Latin word
(b) French word
(c) German word
(d) Indian word
Answer:
(a) Latin word:
‘Entrepreneurship’ word is derived from the french word which means enter into business with undertaking the risk. Entrepreneur is a person who undertakes the risk of whole business.

123. Expansion into new line of business is:
(a) Strength of the firm
(b) Weakness of the firm
(c) Opportunity of the firm
(d) Threat of the firm.
Answer:
(c) Opportunity of the firm:
Opportunity is also known as chance and there are so many opportunities come into the firm. Expansion into new line or increment into new line is opportunity of firm.

124. What to Achieve and by when is explained by …………………………… of an organization.
(a) Objectives
(b) Mission
(c) Strategy
(d) Vision
Answer:
(a) Objectives:
Organisation should always come into existence with some objectives and it is necessary to establish some aims for achievement otherwise organisation can not work rapidly. What to achieve, when to achieve, how to achieve is all explained by ‘objectives’ at an organisation.

125. Which of the following is not the characteristics of entrepreneurship?
(a) Innovation
(b) Organising skills
(c) Indifferent Approach
(d) Risk-Taking
Answer:
(c) Indifferent Approach:
The Characteristics of Entrepreneurship are follows:

  • Innovation
  • Organising Skills and Techniques
  • Risk-taking
  • Growth of business by Inventing new tricks and tips
  • Leadership or leading or motivating to employees.
  • Different Approach

Indifferent Approach is not a Characteristics of Entrepreneurship because entrepreneur thinks different in different – different situations for handling these situations.

126. Question referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of who are financially independent aristocrat
(a) Landowners
(b) Employees
(c) Entrepreneurs
(d) Investors
Answer:
(a) Landowners:
Entrepreneurship are classified as landowners who are financially independent aristocrats or Aristocrat means Governed by one person. Entrepreneur is one who alone invests capital and alone bears loss and enjoys profits like a landowner. So, entrepreneurs come under class of landowners.

127. Analyst type of entrepreneur are:
(a) Not intelligent
(b) Not future or,anted
(c) Able to crop up the solution at not cost and less time
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Able to crop up the solution at not cost and less time:
Analyst entrepreneurs excel at problem-solving in a systematic way. They are able to crop up the solution at no cost and less time.

128. Person who has very high risk-taking capacity
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Intrapreneur
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Entrepreneur:
A person who bear higher level of risk to undertake a venture is, Entrepreneur.

129. Who conceives the idea of business:
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Managing Director
(c) Entrepreneurship
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Entrepreneurship:
Entrepreneurship is equated to simply stating one’s own business. Most economists believe it is more than that. To some economists, the entrepreneur is one who is willing to bear the risk of a new venture if there is a significant chance for profit.

130. Advisor Entrepreneurs are:
(a) believe in Consumer Saverteighty
(b) believe in advising everyone
(c) believe in self-satisfaction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) believe in Consumer Saverteighty:
Advisor Entrepreneurs are the types of people who believe in consumer sovereignty they indulge excessively in providing customer services.

131. Which type of entrepreneurs are creativity oriented entrepreneurs?
(a) Improver
(b) Idealist
(c) Artiste
(d) Hero.
Answer:
(c) Artiste:
Artists are creativity oriented entrepreneurs. Thus, the type of business also are those which demand huge level of creativity such as – advertising agencies and people in music industry.

132. What are the key elements of entrepreneurship?
(a) Innovation
(b) Risk-taking
(c) Vision
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(a) Innovation:
Four key elements of entrepreneurship are –

  1. Innovation
  2. Risk-taking
  3. Vision
  4. Organising skills

133. Entrepreneur as ‘card owner’ is given by
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Cantillon
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) All
Answer:
(b) Cantillon:
Cantillon referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of ‘landowners’ who are financially independent aristocrats.

134. Entrepreneur who is never dull.
(a) Fireball
(b) Creativity
(c) Artiste
(d) Healer
Answer:
(a) Fireball:
One who is never dull in terms of enthusiasm, energy and attitude is known as fireball.

135. Entrepreneurs mainly come into light
(a) During I world war
(b) During II world war
(c) 1700s
(d) Cold war
Answer:
(c) 1700s:
Entrepreneur come into light and was first established in the “1 700s” and the meanings has involved ever since various economists and philosophers termed this differently in their own unique way.

136. Do what you love and you will never have to work for a day in your life
(a) Confucius
(b) Napoleon Hill
(c) Maslow
(d) Peter F. Drucker
Answer:
(a) Confucius:
One of the advantages of being an entrepreneur is doing what one cove. Choose a job that you like and you will never have to work a day in your life.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes