Reliefs and Remedies – Resolution of Corporate Disputes, Non-Compliances & Remedies Important Questions

Reliefs and Remedies – Resolution of Corporate Disputes, Non-Compliances & Remedies Important Questions

Question 1.
P is the Managing Director of AMR Limited who committed a fraud against the Company. A judicial proceeding has been initiated against P for fraud committed by him. Now P wants to settle the case through mediation or conciliation. Can P’s case be referred to mediation or conciliation?
Answer:
The crime of fraud comes under non-compoundable offence and these types of crime shall not be referred to mediation or conciliation for settlement. Hence the crime committed by P, cannot be referred to mediation and conciliation.

As per rule 30 of Companies (Mediation and Conciliation), Rule 2016, following matters shall not be referred to mediation or conciliation, namely:-

  • the matters relating to proceedings in respect of inspection or investigation under Chapter XIV of the Companies Act, 2013; or the matters which relate to defaults or offences for which applications for compounding have been made by one or more parties.
  • Cases involving serious and specific allegations of fraud, fabrication of documents forgery, impersonation, coercion etc.
  • Cases involving prosecution for criminal and non-compoundable offences.
  • Cases which involve public interest or interest of numerous persons who are not parties before the Central Government or the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal as the case may be.

Question 2.
“A Company and its officers will not be eligible for compounding again for similar offence”. Elucidate.
Answer:
If any offence committed by Company or the officers was compounded under section 441 of the Companies Act, 2013, and an offence similar to what was compounded earlier is committed again by a company or its officers within a period of three years from the date on which the earlier offence was compounded, then the provisions of section 441 of the Companies Act, 2013 will not be applicable and the company and the officers concerned will not be eligible for compounding again. In other words, similar offences can be compounded only once in three years.

Section 451 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that if a company or an officer of a company commits an offence punishable either with fine or with imprisonment and where the same offence is committed for the second or subsequent occasions within a period of three years, then, that company and every officer thereof who is in default shall be punishable with twice the amount of fine for such offence in addition to any imprisonment provided for that offence.

Question 3.
“National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) can rectify mistakes in its own orders on suo motu basis.” Comment with reference to the Companies Act, 2013 and Judicial Pronouncements.
Answer:
As per section 420(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, the National Company Law.
Tribunal may at any time within two years from the date of the order, with a view to rectifying any mistake apparent from the record:
(i) Amend any order passed by it, and
(ii) Shall make such amendment, if the mistake is brought to its notice by the parties. Provided that no such amendment shall be made in respect of any order against which an appeal has been preferred. Further, pursuant to Rule 11 of National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016, Tribunal has inherent power to make such order as may be necessary for meeting the end of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the tribunal, accordingly, the Tribunal can rectify the order passed by its own.

In Sree Ayyanar Spinning & Weaving Mills Ltd. v. Commissioner of Income Tax, 2008 (301 ITR 434), it was held that under first part of the provision, the tribunal is empowered to suo motu rectify any mistakes apparent on record any time within two years from the date of its original order. Under the second part, either the taxpayer or the department may file an application highlighting the mistake apparent on record.

In light of the provision, the Apex Court held that the appellate tribunal took time beyond the stipulated period even though the application was filed well within the period.

Thus, in the mentioned event the applicant has filed the application within the stipulated period of two years from the date of original order, it is binding for the appellate tribunal to decide the matter on the basis of merits and not on the ground of limitation.

Thus, Section 420(2) read with Rules 11, 154 and 155 of National Compa¬ny Law Tribunal Rules, 2016 substantiate that the Tribunal has power to rectify a mistake apparent from the record on its own motion or on an application by a party under the Act.

Question 4.
Mrs. Meera was the Managing Director of ME India Private Limited. During her tenure, she sold few properties of the Company and cleared all the registered mortgages. She also diverted Company’s funds of ₹ 50 Lakhs to her bank account and diverted another ₹ 10 Lakhs to pay off and discharge the Housing Loan on her daughter’s property. Later, winding up proceedings were initiated against the Company.
Can the Liquidator of the Company commence proceedings against Mrs. Meera and her daughter in these circumstances ?.
Answer:
Section 336 of the Companies Act, 2013 also covers the offences which were committed by the officers of the company when the company was not under winding up. In case where the company is subsequently ordered to be wound up, the offences committed by the officers of the company while the company was a going concern, will still be dealt under section 336, though such offence could be dealt with under other relevant sections had it remain a going concern. Action covered under Section 336(l)(d) are those which were committed within the twelve months immediately before the commencement of the winding-up or at any time thereafter.

Further, Section 329 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that any transfer of property of any kind by a company other than the transfer made in the ordinary course of business or the transfer is made in good faith and for a value consideration made within a period of one year prior to the presen¬tation of the petition for winding up shall be void against the liquidator.

The facts provided are similar to the facts of Fodare Pty Ltd. v. Shearn [2011] case. Shearn was the sole director of the Company during the relevant period and by sale of a property of the Company, she cleared all registered mortgages and diverted funds to the tune of A$ 383,000 to her bank account and diverted another A$ 251,000 to pay up and discharge a mortgage over a her daughter’s property.

The company was wound up. Liquidator commenced proceedings seeking a declaration that Shearn was in breach of fiduciary duties and her daughter was charged on the ground that she falls within the ambit of a constructive trustee as she was aware that she is receiving funds out of proceeds arising from sale of company’s property.

It was held that Shearn was liable to the Company for equitable compensation of both the amounts and statutory compensation together with interest and costs. Further, the Supreme Court held that her daughter was also liable to the company for equitable compensation of A$ 251,000 plus interest. The Court found that the daughter might be aware that her mother who was a former bankrupt did not have money and the property that was sold belonged to the company.

The Court said the liability of the mother and the daughter for equitable compensation of A$ 251,000 plus interest would rim concurrently such that both of them will be jointly and severally liable.

Hence it can be concluded that Mrs. Meera and her daughter would be jointly and severally liable for diversion of Company’s funds and the Liquidator of the company can commence proceeding against Mrs. Meera and her daughter after following due procedures provided in the Act.

Question 5.
XYZ Software Technologies Limited of Bengaluru was engaged in business of software exports. During the past years, it had exported services to its Parent entity in United States of America (USA), but failed to realize and repatriate the foreign exchange due on its exports to India, within the stipulated time. The Adjudicating Authority imposed a penalty under the provisions of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Being aggrieved by this penalty, the Company seeks your advice to file an appeal. Advise the Company.
Answer:
Sections 17 and 19 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 provide for appeals against orders of Adjudicating Authority. If the Adjudicating Authority is Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement, appeal will he to Special Director (Appeals).

Further appeal shall he with Appellate Tribunal for Foreign Exchange. However, if the Adjudicating Authority is senior to the Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement, then the appeal shah directly be made to the Appellate Tribunal.

Appeal to Special Director (Appeals): Appeal against order of Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement can be filed with Special Director (Appeals) under Section 17 of the said act within 45 days from the date on which the copy of the order made by the Adjudica¬tion Authority is received by the aggrieved person.

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal: Appeal against the order of Adjudicating Authority being senior to Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement or against the order of Special Director (Appeals) can be made to the Appellate Tribunal for Foreign Exchange under Section 19 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 199)) within 45 days from the date on which the copy of the order made by such Adjudicating Authority or Special Director (Appeals) is received by the aggrieved person.

It may be noted that the Tribunal is the final fact-finding authority and no appeal lies against the facts determined by the Tribunal. Hence, XYZ Software Technologies may file an appeal based on the Adjudicating Authority.

Question 6.
PQ Limited was a Company listed on XYZ Stock Exchange. The Company was making continuous losses and was not performing well. There were also reports of alleged financial irregularities in media. Also, many complaints were received by Securities Board of India (SEBI), regarding its listed securities. Subsequently, SEBI passed an Order to delist the securities of the Company from the said stock exchange. As a Company Secretary, advise PQ Limited for further course of action.
Answer:
As per Section 15T of the SEBI Act, 1992, any person aggrieved by an order of the Board or by an order made by an adjudicating officer may prefer an appeal to a Securities Appellate Tribunal (‘SAT’) having jurisdic¬tion in the matter.

The appeal shall be filed within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order made by the SEBI or the Adjudicating Officer, as the case may be, is received by him.

The Tribunal shall give an opportunity of being heard to the respondent and may pass the order confirming, modifying or setting aside the decision of SEBI. SAT shall also send a copy of its order to every party to appeal and to the concerned adjudicating officer. Further, the matter filed before SAT is dealt with as expeditiously as possible and is endeavoured to be disposed of within 6 months from the date of receipt of the appeal.

Thus, PQ Limited should consider filing an appeal to Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT). Alternatively, the company may go for delisting of the secu¬rities in accordance with the SEBI (Delisting of Securities) Regulations, 2009.

Question 7.
A Practicing Company Secretary wants to establish his practice in the field of Mediation and Conciliation. He wants to know whether he would not be eligible to be appointed as a Mediator or Conciliator as per Rule 5 of Companies (Mediation and Conciliation) Rules, 2016. Advise him.
Answer:
As per Rule 4 of Companies (Mediation and Conciliation) Rules, 2016, a Company Secretary with at least fifteen years of continuous practice is qualified for being empanelled as mediator or conciliator.
However, as per Rule 5 of Companies (Mediation and Conciliation) Rules, 2016, a person shall be disqualified for being empanelled as mediator or conciliator, if he-

  • is an undischarged insolvent or has applied to be adjudicated as an insolvent and his application is pending;
  • has been convicted for an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude;
  • has been removed or dismissed from the service of the Government or the Corporation owned or controlled by the Government;
  • has been punished in any disciplinary proceeding, by the appropriate disciplinary authority; or
  • has, in the opinion of the Central Government, have such financial or other interest in the subject matter of dispute or is related to any of the parties, as it is likely to affect the discharge of his professional obligations as a mediator or conciliator.

Question 8.
S is a newly qualified Company Secretary. He wants to know whether there is any dress code approved by the Council of ICSI as professional dress code, for Company Secretaries to appear before judicial /quasi-judicial bodies and Tribunal? Advise S.
Answer:
The professional dress prescribed under the code of conduct for the professional is required to be worn by the authorised representative while, appearing before the authorities.

The Council of ICSI has approved the following Guidelines for Professional Dress Code for Company Secretaries to appear before judicial/ quasijudicial bodies and tribunals:
1. For Male Members:

  • Navy Blue Suit (Coat & Trouser), with CS logo, Insignia or Navy  Blue Blazer over a sober coloured Trouser
  • Neck Tie (ICSI)
  • White full sleeve Shirt
  • Formal Black Leather Shoes (Shined).

2. For Female Members:

  • Navy Blue corporate suit (Coat & Trouser), could be with a necktie Insignia or
  • Saree/any other dress of sober colour with Navy Blue Blazer with CS logo
  • A sober footwear like Shoes/Bellies/Wedges, etc. (shined)

The Members in employment have also been prescribed the same dress code.

Question 9.
ABC Technologies Limited was incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 as a closely held Public Company. The paid-up capital of Company is ₹ 15 Crore. The Company suomotu filed a petition for compounding of violation under Section 203 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 8 of Companies (Appointment and Remuneration of Managerial Personnel) Rules, 2014. The Company pleaded that it had tried, but was unable to find and appoint a full-time Company Secretary as required under the Act. What would be the consequences for Company, its Directors and KMP in this case?
Answer:
As per Section 203(5) of the Companies Act, 2013, if a company contravenes the provisions of this section, the company shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees but which may extend to five lakh rupees and every director and key managerial personnel of the company who is in default shall be punishable with fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees and where the contravention is a continuing one, with a further fine which may extend to one thousand rupees for every day after the first during which the contravention continues.

The NCLT may levy maximum fine as:

Particulars Violation under Section 203 Fine for continuing of contravention
Penalty on Company Rupees five lakh Rupees one thousand per day of delay
Penalty on Director and KMP Rupees fifty thousand Rupees one thousand per day of delay

Hence, ABC Technologies Limited, its directors & KMP are subjected to penal provisions of Companies Act, 2013 as mentioned above.

Question 10.
PQR Express Limited is aggrieved by an order of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT). As a Company Secretary, advise the Company as to where an appeal can be filed against the order of NCLAT and also comment on limitation period of appeal against the order.
Answer:
As per section 423 of the Companies Act, 2013, any person aggrieved by any order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the Supreme Court within sixty days from the date of receipt of the order of the Appellate Tribunal to him on any question of law arising out of such order.

The Supreme Court may if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further period not exceeding sixty days.

In the given case, PQR Express Limited can file an appeal to Supreme Court of India against order of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) within 60 days from the date of receipt of order of the Appellate Tribunal.

Question 11.
ABC Exports Limited aggrieved by an order of Adjudication Authority under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, wants to file an appeal against the order in Civil Court. As a Company Secretary, advise ABC Exports Limited whether the civil court has jurisdiction to entertain such a suit? If not, suggest an alternate remedy
Answer:
Civil court cannot entertain such suits as civil court has no jurisdiction. As per section 34 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, no civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which an Adjudicating Authority or the Appellate Tribunal or the Special Director (Appeals) is empowered by or under this Act to determine and no injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power conferred by or under this Act.

In the given case, ABC Exports Limited can appeal to:
1. Appeal to Special Director (Appeals):
As per section 17(1) of Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999, the Central Government shall, by notification, appoint one or more Special Directors (Appeals) to hear appeals against the orders of the Adjudicating Authorities under this section and shall also specify in the said notification the matter and places in relation to which the Special Director (Appeals) may exercise jurisdiction.

As per section 17(2) of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, any person aggrieved by an order made by the Adjudicating Authority, being an Assistant Director of Enforcement or a Deputy Director of Enforcement may prefer an appeal to the Special Director (Appeals).

2. Appeal to Appellate Tribunal (Section 19):
As per section 19(1) of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, save as provided in sub-section (2), the Central Government or any person aggrieved by an order made by an Adjudicating Authority, other than those referred to in section 17(1), or the Special Director (Appeals), may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.

Question 12.
Sundry creditors of MNO Trading Limited filed a complaint with the Registrar of Companies (ROC), Delhi & Haryana alleging that the management of the company is Indulging In destruction and falsification of the accounting records of the company. The complainants request the ROC to take Immediate steps to seize the books of account & records of the company so that the management may not be allowed to tamper with the books of account & records. The complaint was received at 11 A.M. on 10th January 2019 and the ROC entered the premises at 11.30 A.M., for a search without obtaining an order from the Special Court. Comment on the action of ROC vis-a-vis his powers under the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
Section 209 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that whereupon information in his possession or otherwise, the Registrar (ROC) or inspector has reasonable ground to believe that the books and papers of
i. a company, or
ii. relating to the key managerial personnel, or
iii. any director, or
iv. auditor, or
v. company secretary in practice if the company has not appointed a company secretary, are likely to be destroyed, mutilated, altered, falsified or secreted, he may, after obtaining an order from the Special Court for the seizure of such books and papers,

  • enter, with such assistance as may be required, and search, the place or places where such books or papers are kept; and
  • seize such books and papers as he considers necessary after allowing the company to take copies of or extracts from, such books or papers at its cost.

According to the above provisions, ROC may enter and search the place where such books or papers are kept and seize them only after obtaining an order from the Special Court.

Since in the given question, ROC entered the premises for the search and seizure of books of the company without obtaining an order from the Special Court, he is not authorized to seize the books of the MNO Trading Limited.

Question 13.
Enumerate the Compounding Authorities under Companies Act, 2013. Write the procedure for compounding in brief.
Answer:
In terms of Section 441 of the Companies Act, 2013, there are two compounding authorities:

  1. Regional Director: The Regional Director (R D) appointed by the Central Government as a Regional Director for the purposes of the Companies Act, 2013, and
  2. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

Procedure for Compounding of offence:

  • Call for a board meeting to decide on compounding as per the Companies Act, 2013.
    Arrive at the amount of the fine involved as per the relevant section(s).
  • Hold the Board Meeting and pass resolution(s) to compound and provide for preparation and providing necessary authorization for compounding.
  • Every application for the compounding of an offence shall be made to the Registrar who shall forward the same, together with his comments thereon, to the Tribunal or the Regional Director or any officer authorised by the Central Government, as the case may be.
  • The filing with Registrar of Companies (ROC) is done in the e-form GNL-1 prescribed for this purpose. Also deliver sufficient number of hard copies of the compounding application to ROC for him to forward it to RD/Tribunal based on the quantum of fee involved.
  • There will be a personal hearing before the Regional Director or Tribunal which will decide the amount to be paid for compounding.
  • Get the order passed by the RD/Tribunal and pay the amount stipulated within the time fixed.
  • File Order of RD/NCLT with ROC in form INC-28 and ROC will take note of the Same.

Question 14.
Discuss confidentiality, disclosure and inadmissibility of Information under Mediation and Conciliation Rules, 2016.
Answer:
Rule 21 of the Mediation and Conciliation Rules, 2016 states the confidentiality, disclosure and inadmissibility of Information.
Disclosure of substance Information to the party by the Mediator or Conciliator is subject to maintenance of confidentiality.
1. When a mediator or conciliator receives factual information concerning the dispute from any party, he shall disclose the substance of that information to the other party, so that the other party may have an opportunity to present such explanation as it may consider appropriate: When a party gives information to the mediator or conciliator subject to a specific condition that the information may be kept confidential, the mediator or conciliator shall not disclose that information to the other party.

2. The receipt or perusal, or preparation of records, reports or other documents by the mediator or conciliator, while serving in that capacity shall be confidential and the mediator or conciliator shall not be compelled to divulge information regarding those documents nor as to what transpired during the mediation or conciliation before the Central Government or the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal or as the case may be, or any other authority or any person or group of persons.

3. The parties shall maintain confidentiality in respect of events that transpired during the mediation and conciliation and shall not rely on or introduce the said information in other proceedings as to-

  • views expressed by a party in the course of the mediation or conciliation proceedings;
  • documents obtained during the mediation or conciliation which were expressly required to be treated as confidential or other notes, drafts or information given by the parties or the mediator or conciliator;
  • proposals made or views expressed by the mediator or conciliator;
  • admission made by a party in the course of mediation or conciliation proceedings.

4. There shall be no audio or video recording of the mediation or conciliation proceedings.
5. No statement of parties or the witnesses shall be recorded by the mediator or conciliator.

Question 15.
What is a Settlement agreement as per Companies Act, 2013 and the Companies (Mediation and Conciliation) Rules?
Answer:
Rule 25 of the Companies (Mediation and Conciliation) Rules, 2016 provide for Settlement agreement
1. Written Signed Agreement between the parties resolving some or all issues – duly signed by the parties and counsel if anywhere an agreement is reached between the parties in regard to all the issues or some of the issues in the proceeding, the same shall be reduced to writing and signed by the parties and if any counsel has represented the parties, the conciliator or mediator may also obtain the signature of such counsel on the settlement agreement.

2. Submission of the Settlement agreement to the mediator or conciliator, Mediator or conciliator to forward the same along with covering letter to the Central Government or Tribunal or Appellate Tribunal The agreement of the parties so signed shall be submitted to the mediator or conciliator who shall, with a covering letter signed by him, forward the same to the Central Government or the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal, as the case may be.

3. Failure of settlement agreement between parties the mediator or con¬ciliator, to report the same to the Central Government or Tribunal or Appellate Tribunal, Where no agreement is reached at between the parties, before the time limit specified in rule 19, or where the mediator or conciliator is of the view that no settlement is possible, he shall report the same to the Central Government or the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal, as the case may be, in writing.

Question 16.
What are Settlement Orders under Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018?
Answer:
Settlement of proceedings before the Adjudicating Officer and the Board (Regulation 23)
1. Disposal of proceeding by the Adjudicating Officer based on the approved settlement terms The Adjudicating Officer shall by an appropriate order dispose of the proceeding pending before him on the basis of the approved settlement terms.

Explanation.-In case of concurrent proceedings, a comprehensive order may be passed by the Panel of Whole-Time Members and thereafter the concerned Adjudicating Officer may pass an order, disposing of the relevant proceedings before him, in view of the settlement.

2. Disposal of proceeding by the Panel of the Whole Time Members except to the Regulation 23(1) The Panel of the Whole-Time Members shall by an appropriate order dispose of proceedings initiated or proposed to be initiated other than the proceedings referred to in sub-regulation (1) of Regulation 23.

3. Settlement order to include details The settlement order passed under these regulations shall contain the details of the alleged default(s), relevant provisions of the securities laws, brief facts and circumstances relevant to the alleged default, the admissions made by the applicant if any and the settlement terms.

Question 17.
Explain Professional Dress for a Company Secretary.
Answer:
The professional dress prescribed under the code of conduct for the professional is required to be worn by the authorized representative while appearing before the authorities.
The Council of ICSI has approved the following Guidelines for Professional Dress Code for Company Secretaries to appear before judicial/ quasi-judicial bodies and tribunals like NCLT- NCLAT, SAT, etc.:
1. For Male Members:

  • Navy Blue Suit (Coat & Trouser), with CS logo, Insignia OR Navy Blue Blazer over a sober coloured Trouser
  • Neck-Tie (ICSI)
  • White full sleeve Shirt
  • Formal Black Leather Shoes (Shined).

2. For Female Members:

  • Navy Blue corporate suit (Coat & Trouser), could be with a neck-tie/insignia OR
  • Saree/any other dress of sober colour with Navy Blue Blazer with CS logo
  • A sober footwear like Shoes/Bellies/Wedges, etc. (shined).

Question 18.
SpecIfy which offences cannot be compounded under Companies Act 2013?
Answer:
Offences cannot be compounded under the Companies Act, 2013 are as follows:
Offence punishable with imprisonment only or imprisonment and fine – Not Compoundable Any offence punishable under this Act (whether committed by a company or any officer thereof) being an offence punishable with imprisonment only or imprisonment and also with fine cannot be compounded.

Compoundable offence in case the Investigation against company is pending or has been initiated Any offence otherwise compoundable cannot also be compounded if the investigation against such company has been initiated or is pending under this Act.

Offence committed within a period of three years from the date on which a similar offence committed
An offence committed by a company or its officer within a period of three years from the date on which a similar offence committed by it or him was compounded under this section, cannot be compounded. if the offence is not similar, this restriction to compound will not apply. Second or subsequent offence committed after the expiry of a period of three years eligible to be compounded.

Question 19.
State the qualifications and disqualifications of Empanelment as per the Companies Mediation and Conciliation Rules, 2016.
Answer:
Rule 4 and Rule 5 of the Companies Mediation and Conciliation Rules, 2016 provide for the qualifications and disqualifications of Empanelment Qualifications for Empanelment (Rule 4)
A person shall not be qualified for being empanelled as mediator or conciliator unless he:

  • has been a Judge of the Supreme Court of India; or
  • has been a Judge of a High Court; or
  • has been a District and Sessions Judge; or
  • has been a Member or Registrar of a Tribunal constituted at the National level under any law for the time being in force; or
  • has been an officer in the Indian Corporate Law Service or Indian Legal Service with fifteen years’ experience; or
  • is a qualified legal practitioner for not less than ten years; or
  • is or has been a professional for at least fifteen years of continuous practise as Chartered Accountant or Cost Accountant or Company Secretary; or
  • has been a Member or President of any State Consumer Forum; or
  • is an expert in mediation or conciliation who has successfully undergone training in mediation or conciliation.

Disqualifications for Empanelment (Rule 5)
A person shall be disqualified for being empanelled as mediator or conciliator if he:

  • is an undischarged insolvent or has applied to be adjudicated as an insolvent and his application is pending;
  • has been convicted for an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude;
  • has been removed or dismissed from the service of the Government or the Corporation owned or controlled by the Government;
  • has been punished in any disciplinary proceeding, by the appropriate disciplinary authority; or
  • has, in the opinion of the Central Government, such financial or other interest in the subject matter of dispute or is related to any of the parties, as is likely to affect prejudicially the discharge by him of his functions as a mediator or conciliator.

Question 20.
State the Role of Mediator or Conciliator as per the Companies Mediation and Conciliation Rules, 2016.
Answer:
Rule 17 of the Companies Mediation and Conciliation Rules, 2016 provide for the Role of Mediator or Conciliator
The mediator or conciliator shall attempt to:

  • facilitate voluntary resolution of the dispute by the parties,
  • communicate the view of each party to the other,
  • assist them in identifying issues,
  • reducing misunderstandings,
  • clarifying priorities,
  • exploring areas of compromise and generating options in an attempt to resolve the dispute,
  • emphasising that it is the responsibility of the parties to take decision which affect them and he shall not impose any terms of settlement on the parties,
  • On consent of both the parties, the mediator or conciliator may impose such terms and conditions on the parties for early settlement of the dispute as he may deem fit.

Question 21.
Write a note on Ethics to be followed by Mediator or Conciliator as per the Companies Mediation and Conciliation Rules 2016.
Answer:
Rule 28 of the Companies Mediation and Conciliation Rules, 2016 provide for the Ethics to be followed by Mediator or Conciliator The mediator or conciliator shall-

  • follow and observe the rules strictly and with due diligence;
  • not carry on any activity or conduct which shall reasonably be con¬sidered as conduct unbecoming of a mediator or conciliator;
  • uphold the integrity and fairness of the mediation or conciliation process;
  • ensure that the parties involved in the mediation or conciliation are fairly informed and have an adequate understanding of the procedural aspects of the process;
  • satisfy himself or herself that he or she is qualified to undertake and complete the assignment in a professional manner;
  • disclose any interest or relationship likely to affect impartiality or which might seek an appearance of partiality or bias;
  • avoid, while communicating with the parties, any impropriety or appearance of impropriety;
  • be faithful to the relationship of trust and confidentiality imposed in the office of mediator or conciliator;
  • conduct all proceedings related to the resolutions of a dispute, in accordance with the relevant applicable law;
  • recognise that the mediation or conciliation is based on principles of self-determination by the parties and that the mediation or conciliation process relies upon the ability of parties to reach a voluntary, undisclosed agreement; and
  • maintain the reasonable expectations of the parties as to confidentiality and refrain from promises or guarantees of results.

If any party finds that conduct of mediator or conciliator violates the ethics laid down in this rule, the party may immediately bring it to the notice of the Regional Director.

Question 22.
State the factors to be considered to arrive at the settlement terms as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018
Answer:
Regulation 10 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 provide for the factors to be considered to arrive at the settlement terms
While arriving at the settlement terms, the factors indicated in Schedule-II may be considered, including but not limited, to the following:

  • conduct of the applicant during the specified proceeding, investigation, inspection or audit;
  • the role played by the applicant in case the alleged default is committed by a group of persons;
  • nature, gravity and impact of alleged defaults;
  • whether any other proceeding against the applicant for non-compliance of securities laws is pending or concluded;
  • the extent of harm and/or loss to the investors’ and/or gains made by the applicant;
  • processes that have been introduced since the alleged default to minimize future defaults or lapses;
  • compliance schedule proposed by the applicant;
  • economic benefits accruing to any person from the non-compliance or delayed compliance;
  • conditions which are necessary to deter future non-compliance by the same or another person;
  • satisfaction of claim of investors regarding payment of money due to them or delivery of securities to them;
  • any other enforcement action that has been taken against the applicant for the same violation; and
  • any other factors necessary in the facts and circumstances of the case.

Question 23.
Explain the Procedure of settlement before the Internal Committee as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018
Answer:
Procedure of settlement before the Internal Committee (Regulation 13) as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 is stated below:
1. Application referred to Internal Committee for examination and determination of the settlement terms:
Save as otherwise provided in these regulations, an application shall be referred to an Internal Committee to examine whether the pro¬ceedings may be settled and if so to determine the settlement terms in accordance with these regulations.

2. Internal Committee to call for information and/or personal appear¬ance and or permit the submission of revised settlement terms within a period of ten working days from the date of the Internal Committee meeting

The Internal Committee may:

  • call for relevant information, documents, etc., pertaining to the alleged default(s) in possession of the applicant or obtainable by the applicant;
  • call for the personal appearance of the applicant before it: Provided that a duly authorized representative of the applicant may represent on behalf of the applicant,
  • permit the applicant to submit revised settlement terms within a period not exceeding ten working days from the date of the Internal Committee meeting Provided that the revised settlement terms received after ten working days, but within twenty working days may be considered subject to an increase of ten per cent over the recommended settlement amount.

3. The proposed settlement terms, if any, shall be placed before the High-Powered Advisory Committee.

Question 24.
Explain the procedure of Appeal to Appellate Tribunal as per the Foreign Exchange and Management Act, 1999.
Answer:
Appeal to Appellate Tribunal – Section 18 of FEMA
1. Central Government to notify an Appellate Tribunal regarding Foreign Exchange for appeals against orders of Adjudicating Authorities and Special Director (Appeals):
The Central Government shall, by notification, establish an Appellate Tribunal to be known as the Appellate Tribunal for Foreign Exchange to hear appeals against the orders of the Adjudicating Authorities and the Special Director (Appeals) under this Act.

2. Appeal to Appellate Tribunal – Section 19 of FEMA
Appeal to Appellate Tribunal by Central Government or any person subject to section 17(1) or the Special Director (Appeals)of the FEMA
Central Government or any person aggrieved by an order made by an Adjudicating Authority other than those referred to sub-section (1) of section 17, or the Special Director (Appeals), may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.

3. Deposit of penalty as notified by the Central Government, if any. Waiver of penalty at the option of the Appellate Tribunal
Any person appealing against the order of the Adjudicating Authority or the Special Director (Appeals) levying any penalty, shall while filing the appeal, deposit the amount of such penalty with such authority as may be notified by the Central Government. Where in any particular case, the Appellate Tribunal is of the opinion that the deposit of such penalty would cause undue hardship to such person, the Appellate Tribunal may dispense with such deposit subject to such conditions as it may deem fit to impose so as to safeguard the realisation of penalty.

4. Appeal to be filed within a period of forty-five days from the date of issue of order by the Adjudicating Authority or the Special Director (Appeals) Every appeal shall be fildd within a period of forty-five days from the date on which a copy of the order made by the Adjudicating Authority or the Special Director (Appeals) is received by the aggrieved person or by the Centred Government and it shall be in such form verified in such manner and be accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed. The Appellate Tribunal may entertain an appeal after the expiry of the said period of forty-five days if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not filing it within that period.

5. Opportunity of being heard – confirming, modifying or setting aside order appealed against On receipt of an appeal, the Appellate Tribunal may, after giving the parties to the appeal an opportunity of being heard, pass such orders thereon as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying or setting aside the order appealed against.

6. Copy of order sent to the parties and Adjudicating Authority and/or Special Director (Appeals) The Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to the parties to the appeal and to the concerned Adjudicating Authority or the Special Director (Appeals) as the case may be.

7. Disposal of appeal by the Appellate Tribunal within one hundred and eighty days from the date of the appeal filed. Failure to dispose the appeal within specified time, Appellate Tribunal to record reasons in writing for the same.

The appeal filed before the Appellate Tribunal shall be dealt with by it as expeditiously as possible and endeavour shall be made by it to dispose of the appeal finally within one hundred and eighty days from the date of receipt of the appeal. That where any appeal could not be disposed off within the said period of one hundred and eighty days, the Appellate Tribunal shall record its reasons in writing for not disposing off the appeal within the said period.

Question 25.
Write a brief note on Summary settlement procedure as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018
Answer:
Regulation 16 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 provides for summary settlement procedure

1. Board to issue notice of summary settlement in the prescribed format for filing a settlement application with respect to the specified proceedings to be initiated for necessary defaults.
Notwithstanding anything contained in Chapter VI, before initiating any specified proceeding, the Board may issue a notice of summary settlement in the format as specified in Part A of Schedule HI, calling upon the noticee to file a settlement application under Chapter II and submit the settlement amount and/or furnish an undertaking in respect of other non-monetary terms or comply with other non-monetary terms, as may be specified in the summary settlement notice in respect of the specified proceeding(s) to be initiated for the following defaults,-

  • Delayed disclosures, including filing of returns, report, document, etc.
  • Non-disclosure in relation to companies exclusively listed on regional stock exchanges which have exited
  • Disclosures not made in the specified formats
  • Delayed compliance of any of the requirements of law or directions issued by the Board
  • Such other defaults as may be determined by the Board.

Provided that, the specified proceeding(s)shall not be settled under this Chapter if in the opinion of the Board, the applicant has failed to make a full and true disclosure of facts or failed to co-operate in the required manner.

2. Power of the Board to modify the enforcement action against the notice. No right to the notice to seek settlement or avoid any enforcement action.
Notwithstanding anything contained in the notice of settlement, the Board shall have the power to modify the enforcement action to be brought against the notice and the notice of settlement shall not confer any right upon the notice to seek settlement or avoid any enforcement action.

3. Notice may within thirty days from the date of receipt of the notice of settlement file a settlement application along with specified fees and documentation, remit the amount, comply or undertake to comply with non-monetary terms and seek rectification of the calculation of the settlement amount. Power of Board to grant an extension of fifteen days and record in writing the reasons for granting the said extension.

The notice may, within thirty calendar days from the date of receipt of the notice of settlement:

  • file a settlement application in the Form specified in Part-A of Schedule-I along with non-refundable application fee as specified in Part-B and the undertakings and waivers as specified in Part-C of Schedule-I;
  • remit the settlement amount as specified in the notice of settlement
  • comply or undertake to comply with other non-monetary terms as specified in the notice of settlement, as the case may be; and
  • seek rectification of the calculation of the settlement amount, as communicated in the notice of settlement, at the time of filing the settlement application and in all such cases, the decision of the Board shall be final and remittance shall be done within thirty calendar days from the date of receipt of the decision of the Board:

Provided that, the Board may for reasons to be recorded, grant extension of time not exceeding a further period of fifteen calendar days for filing the settlement application, remittance of the settlement amount and/or furnishing an undertaking in respect of any of the non-monetary terms or compliance with any of the non-monetary terms specified in the notice of settlement.

4. Board shall pass an order of settlement on satisfactory remittance of ‘ settlement amount and undertaking furnished in the settlement notice.

Upon being satisfied with the remittance of settlement amount and undertaking furnished in respect of the non-monetary terms or com¬pliance with non-monetary terms, if any as detailed in the settlement notice, the Board shall pass an order of settlement under regulation 23.

Regulation 17 states that notwithstanding anything contained in these regulations, where a notice does not file a settlement application under this Chapter or remit the settlement amount and/or comply with other non-monetary terms to the satisfaction of the Board or withdraws the settlement application at any time prior to the communication of the decision of the Board, the specified proceedings may be initiated, and such a notice shall only be permitted to file a settlement application in respect of the proceedings pending before the Court or Tribunal, after conclusion of proceedings before the Adjudicating Officer or the Board, as the case may be.

Question 26.
What are the power of enforcement directorate to compound contraventions under FEMA Act 1999.
Answer:
If any Person contravenes provisions of Section 3(a) of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

  • in case where the sum involved in such contravention is five lakhs rupees dr below, by the Deputy Director of the Directorate of Enforcement;
  • in case where the sum involved in such contravention is more than rupees five lakhs but less than rupees ten lakhs, by the Additional Director of the Directorate of Enforcement;
  • in case where the sum involved in the contravention is rupees ten lakhs or more but less than fifty lakhs rupees by the Special Director of the Directorate of Enforcement;
  • in case where the sum involved in the contravention is rupees fifty lakhs or more but less than one crore rupees by Special Director with Deputy Legal Adviser of the Directorate of Enforcement;
  • in case the sum involved in such contravention is one crore rupees or more, by the Director of Enforcement with Special Director of the Enforcement Directorate. Provided further that no contravention shall be compounded unless the amount involved in such contravention is quantifiable.

Question 27.
Write differences between Mediation and Conciliation.
Answer:
Mediation is a structured process. The Mediator assists the disputants to reach a negotiable settlement. The Process results in signed agreement which decides the future behaviour of the parties. The decision of the mediator is called “settlement”.

Mediation is a process by which the parties to a dispute have closed-door discussions on a contentious issue in the presence of neutral mediator(s). Mediation is a voluntary process and is undertaken only if all the parties agree.

The mediator is specifically trained, helps the parties move from their positions, towards assessing where their interests are. Then, s/he helps the parties determine how the matter can be settled, examining various options. Meditation need not be confined to the issues raised in the case but can go beyond to other matters the parties want resolved. They can also agree to disagree on some issues while resolving the rest.

Mediation is a time-bound, private and confidential process. The information shared must be kept confidential by all parties, including the mediator. This facilitates a free and frank discussion on matters in dispute. Equally important, the discussions cannot be brought up before the court if the disputes are not resolved through mediation.

Conciliator brings the disputants to agreement through negotiation. The Conciliator is appointed only after the dispute has arisen. The decision of the Conciliator is called “award”.

The conciliation process is similar to mediation. But the conciliator suggests terms for settlement on evaluation of the issues discussed by the parties. In mediation, the mediator does not suggest the manner of settlement to the parties. Any settlement arrived at using either process is voluntary. No settlement can be imposed by the mediator or conciliator.

Question 28.
What is Settlement Notice as per Regulation 18 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018?
Answer:
Regulation 18 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 provides for Settlement Notice.
1. Settlement Notice specified in Part B of Schedule III:
A notice of settlement in the format as specified in Part B of Schedule III, indicating the substance of the probable charges and enforcement actions, may, except in cases covered under Chapter VII, be issued by the Board prior to the issuance of the notice to show cause so as to afford the notice an opportunity to file a settlement application under Chapter II, within fifteen calendar days from the date of receipt of the settlement notice.

2. Right of the Board to modify the nature of enforcement action against the notice Notwithstanding anything contained in the settlement notice, the Board shall have the right to modify the nature of the enforcement action to be initiated against the notice and the charges stated in the notice shall not confer any right to seek settlement on the said basis or avoid any enforcement action due to modified charges.

3. Failure to file settlement application Where a notice does not file the settlement application under this Chapter or withdraws the settlement application at any time prior to the communication of the decision of the Panel of Whole Time Members under regulation 15, the specified proceedings may be initiated and such a notice shall only be permitted to file a settlement application in respect of the proceedings pending before a court or tribunal, after conclusion of the proceedings before the Adjudicating Officer or the Board, as the case may be.

Question 29.
Write Note on compounding of offences.
Answer:
Write note on “compounding – a necessity”
Companies are expected to comply with the law(s) governing them and/or applicable to them.

In this context, the compliance of Companies Act, 2013, Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and SEBI/Securities laws assume significance.

When there is a non-compliance or contravention, it is said that an Offence is committed vis-a-vis the said compliance/regulatory requirement.

It is known that when an offence is committed, the accused is liable to be prosecuted as per the law in respect of which the said offence has been committed.

While it is true that good corporate governance demands a corporate citizen to comply with all the legal provisions, it may so happen for various reasons that there could be a lapse on compliance especially considering the number of compliances required.
But nevertheless, an offence is committed for which the law provides for a penalty/punishment.

Based on the Rajinder Sachar Committee and in general, it was observed that there is great need of leniency in the administration of the Corporate Law(s) particularly its penalty provisions.

Large number of defaults occurring are technical in nature and also because they arise out of ignorance of the lengthy and bewildering complexity of the provisions of the Law(s).

Therefore, the concept of compounding of offences was incorporated as a measure to avoid the long-drawn process of prosecution, which would save both cost and time in exchange of payment of a penalty to the aggrieved.

Compounding is not defined in Companies Act or FEMA or SEBI laws. Black’s Law Dictionary, states to “Compound” means “to settle a matter by a money payment, in lieu of other liability.” As per this definition.

Compounding is akin to a Settlement Mechanism, a settlement by paying the penalty in lieu of facing the prosecution for the offence committed.

Compounding provisions as per corporate laws, states that compounding is an admission of guilt either voluntarily or on receipt of notice of default or initiation of prosecution. The defaulters agree to pay penalty which may be ordered by the Compounding authority to be paid.

Thus, it can be said that Compounding is essentially a compromise or arrangement between administrator of the enactment and person committing an offence. Compounding crime consists of receipt of some consideration (termed as compounding fees) in return for an agreement not to prosecute one who has committed an offence.

Normally in law and particularly in criminal law, the power to compound the offence is at the discretion of the victim.

The perpetrator of offence cannot demand for compounding of the offence. But in corporate law, compounding is at the discretion of the offender/offending company.

When compounding is done, the prosecution is converted into fine i.e. condonation of prosecution by imposing penalty.

It enables the offender company and the director/officer-in-default to avail peace and honourable discharge and avoids cumbersome trial.

Question 30.
Discuss the grounds on which the application for settlement under SEBI (Settlement) Regulations, 2018 can be rejected
Answer:

  • The grounds on which the application for settlement under SEBI (Settlement) Regulations, 2018 can be rejected are underprovided under Regulation 6
  • Where the applicant refuses to receive or respond to the communications sent by the Board;
  • Where the applicant does not submit or delays the submission of information, document, etc., as called for by the Board;
  • Where the applicant who is required to appear, does not appear before the Internal Committee on more than one occasion;
  • Where the applicant violates in any manner the undertaking and waivers as provided in Part-C of the Schedule I;
  • Where the applicant does not remit the settlement amount within the period specified in clause (a) of sub-regulation (2) of regulation 15 and/ or does not abide by the undertaking and waivers. (2) The rejection under sub-regulation (1) shall be communicated to the applicant:

Provided that the applicant shall continue to be bound by the waivers given in respect of limitation or lathes in respect of the initiation or continuation or restoration of any legal proceeding and the waivers given under sub-paras (d), (e), (f) and (g) of para 12 of the undertaking and waivers as provided in Part-C of the Schedule I.

Question 31.
What is a Consent Order under SEBI Act?
Answer:
Consent Order means an order settling administrative or civil proceedings between the regulator and a person (Party) who may prima facie be found to have violated securities laws. It may settle all issues or reserve an issue or claim, but it must precisely state what issues or claims are being reserved.

A Consent Order may or may not include a determination that a violation has occurred. Consent orders cannot be construed as waiver of statutory powers by the Board. The Board always has the right to proceed for appropriate action if it cannot achieve its objectives through a consent order.

US Securities and Exchange Commission settles a substantial number (over 90%) of administrative/civil cases by consent orders.

Consent orders may provide flexibility of wider array of enforcement actions which will achieve the twin goals of an appropriate sanction and deterrence without resorting to a long drawn litigation before SEBI/Tribunal/ Courts.

Passing of consent orders will also reduce regulatory costs and would save time and efforts taken in pursuing enforcement actions. This effort could more effectively be used for pursuing cases which require the full process of enforcement action and for policy work.

Therefore, it has been decided that all appropriate administrative or civil actions e.g. proceedings under sections 11, 11B, 11D, 12(3) and 15-1 of SEBI Act and equivalent proceedings under the SCRA and the Depositories Act, 1996 and other civil matters pending before Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)/courts may be settled between SEBI and a person (party) who may prima facie be found to have violated the securities laws or against whom administrative or civil action has been commenced for such violation. Compounding of offence may cover appropriate prosecution cases filed by SEBI before the criminal courts.

Question 32.
Explain confidentiality as per Regulation 22 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018
Answer:
Regulation 22 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 provides for Confidentiality.
The following shall be treated as confidential,

  • the identity of the applicant seeking confidentiality; and
  • the information, documents and evidence furnished by the applicant

Provided that, the identity of the applicant or such information or documents or evidence may not be treated as confidential if,-

  • the disclosure is required by law;
  • the applicant has agreed to such disclosure in writing; or
  • there has been a public disclosure by the applicant.

Resolution of Corporate Disputes Non-Compliances & Remedies Notes

Competition Aspects – Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Competition Aspects – Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Question 1.
“Anti-trust laws world over believe that the free trade benefits the economy and at the same time, the legislations are formulated to for- j bid several types of restraints of trade and monopolisation”. Justify the statement in the context of the provisions of Competition Act, 2002 with respect to mergers, demergers or reverse mergers.
Answer:

  • Originally, anti-trust law in India was enacted through the Monopolies | and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969. Later, the Competition Act, 2002 replaced the MRTP Act, 1969.
  • Today, the Competition Act, 2002 is responsible to promote free trade as well as regulate trade and monopolization.
  • Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 prohibits any person or enter-prise from entering into a combination which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within the relevant market in India and if such a combination is formed, it shall be void.
  • Any person or enterprise, who or which proposes to enter into any combination, shall notify the Commission and disclose details of the proposed combination (merger or takeover).
  • Competition Act, 2002 is enacted with a view to promote the economic development of the country, to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition, to promote and sustain competition in markets, to protect the interest of consumers and to ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in market in India.

Question 2.
What is the procedure for regulation of combinations by the Competition Commission of India? Which institutions are exempt from giving a notice to the Commission regarding the proposed combination?
Answer:
→ Combinations means acquiring control, shares, voting rights or assets by a person over an enterprise, where such person has control over another enterprise engaged in competing business. It includes mergers and amalgamations between such enterprises.

→ Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 prohibits any person or enterprise from entering into a combination which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within the relevant market in India and if such a combination is formed, it shall be void.

→ Any person or enterprise, who or which proposes to enter into a combination, shall notify the Commission. No combination shall come into effect until 210 days have passed from the day on which notice has been given to the CCI or the CCI has passed orders, whichever is earlier

→ The CCI has the power to investigate the proposed combination and its effect on the relevant markets in India. Hence, this period of 210 days is extendable based on the number of information requests issued by the CCI. This means the actual approval duration can be a longer waiting period.

→ However, following transactions are exempted from notifying the
(a) Transactions that do no cross the threshold limits (as given by Section 6),
(b) Share subscription or financing facility or any acquisition, by a Public Financial Institution (PFI), Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI), Bank or Venture Capital Fund (VCF), as per loan agreement or purely investment purposes.
(c) Mergers between holding company and its wholly owned subsidiary company or mergers between wholly owned subsidiaries by enterprises belonging to same groups.
(d) Cases of reconstitution, transfer of whole or any part thereof and amalgamation of nationalized banks, under the applicable Banking Laws.
(e) Regional Rural Banks, under Central Govt, notifications are exempted.
(f) Combinations involving Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE) operating in Oil and Gas sector.

Question 3.
Discuss the provisions and powers of Competition Commission of India to impose penalty for non-furnishing of information on combination under the Competition Act, 2002
Answer:

  • Section 43A provides that if any person or enterprise who fails to give notice to the Commission, the Commission shall impose on such person or enterprise a penalty which may extend to –
    Competition Aspects - Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions 1
  • The above provisions imply that the Competition Commission of India (CCI) is empowered to levy penalties for non-compliance of combination regulations. However, it is well-settled that every discretion to impose penalty has to be exercised judicially.
  • Section 43A of the Act gives discretion to the Commission to impose penalty in case a person or enterprise fails to give notice to the Com-mission under section 6(2) of the Act.
  • Thus, the discretion available to the Commission is wide. The CCI may impose penalty of only a token amount or up to 196 of the turnover or assets of the combination.
  • While exercising this discretion, the Commission has to keep into mind the conduct of the parties and the circumstance under which the parties failed to give notice to the Commission.
  • In the case of SCM Soilfert Ltd. vs. CCI, the Appellate Tribunal held that Section 43A has no requirement of establishment of mens rea as the legislature has not used the phrase ‘wilful failure’. The imposition of penalty u/s 43A is due to breach of a civil obligation and once it is established that there was a failure to notify the proposed combination u/s 6(2) of the Act, the penalty has to follow.

Question 4.
Which transactions /institutions are exempt from notifying the CCI regarding their proposed combination?
Answer:
→ Combinations means acquiring control, shares, voting rights or assets by a person over an enterprise, where such person has control over another enterprise engaged in competing business. It includes mergers and amalgamations between such enterprises.

→ Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 prohibits any person or enter-prise from entering into a combination which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within the relevant market in India and if such a combination is formed, it shall be void.

→ As per section 6 of Competition Act, 2002, certain combinations shall be notified to CCI for getting their approval. However, following transactions are exempted from notifying the CCI –
(a) Transactions that do no cross the threshold limits (as given by Section 6),
(b) Share subscription or financing facility or any acquisition, by a Public Financial Institution (PFI), Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI), Bank or Venture Capital Fund (VCF), as per loan agreement or purely investment purposes.
(c) Mergers between holding company and its wholly owned subsidiary company or mergers between wholly owned subsidiaries by enterprises belonging to same groups.
(d) Cases of reconstitution, transfer of whole or any part thereof and amalgamation of nationalized banks, under the applicable Banking Laws.
(e) Regional Rural Banks, under Central Govt, notifications are exempted.
(f) Combinations involving Central Public Sector Enterprises operating in Oil and Gas sector.

Question 5.
“Advocate may accompany a person summoned by the Director General in investigation under Competition Act, 2002.” Briefly offer comments.
Answer:
As per the Competition Commission of India (General) Amendment Regulation, 2018, an advocate is authorized to accompany the person summoned by the Director General in investigation under the Competition Act, 2002. As per Regulation 46A, following conditions shall be satisfied –

  • Such Advocate is not permitted unless a prior request in writing together with vakalatnama or power of attorney is made.
  • He will not sit in front of the summoned person. During examination on oath, he shall neither be in a hearing distance nor shall interact, consult, confer.
  • There shall not be any misconduct on the part of such advocate.

Question 6.
The Competition Commission of India has received a complaint that the combination proposal of Tina Ltd. and Meena Ltd. is going to have an appreciable adverse effect on competition. Explain the factors to be considered to evaluate the effect of Combination under the Competition Act, 2002.
Answer:
→ The Competition Commission may inquire into the appreciable adverse effect caused or likely to be caused on competition in India as a result of combination. Such enquiry may be done either upon its own knowledge or information (suo motu) or upon receipt of notice.

→ It is mandatory for the Commission to inquire whether the combination referred to in that notice, has caused or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India. CCI shall verify whether the benefits of combination are more/less than the adverse effects.

→ Factors to be considered by the Commission while evaluating appreciable adverse effect of Combinations on competition in the relevant market are as follows –
(a) actual and potential level of competition;
(b) extent of barriers to entry into the market;
(c) level of combination in the market;
(d) degree of countervailing power in the market;
(e) chances that the combination would result increases prices or profit margins;
(f) extent of effective competition likely to sustain in a market;
(g) potential market share, in the relevant market;
(h) chances that combination would result in the removal of strong and effective competitor(s);
(i) nature and extent of vertical integration in the market;
(j) nature and extent of innovation;
(k) relative advantage, through the contribution to the economic development; and
(l) whether the benefits of the combination exceed the adverse effects of such combination.

Question 7.
The CCI has power to initiate investigation for any combination and there is set procedure for the same u/s 29 of the Competition Act, 2002. Mention the procedure for the investigation of a combination.
Answer:
The procedure for investigation by the Commission involves the following stages

  • Firstly, the Commission has to form a prima facie opinion that a combination is likely to cause, or has caused an appreciable adverse effect on competition within the relevant market in India. Once, such a conclusion is arrived at, the CCI shall issue a SCN to parties to the combination, about why an investigation in respect of such combination should not be conducted.
  • Upon receipt of the response of the parties to the combination, the Commission may call for the report of the Director General.
  • If the Commission is, prima facie, of the opinion that the combination is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition in relevant market, it shall, within 7 days, direct the parties to publish within 10 working days, the details of the combination, to the public and persons likely to be affected by such combination.
  • The Commission may invite any persons affected or likely to be affected by the said combination, to file their written objections within 15 working days of the public notice.
  • The CCI may, within 15 working days of filing of written objections, call for such additional information from parties and such information must be furnished by the parties within 15 days.
  • After receipt of all information and within 45 days from expiry of period for filing additional information, the CCI shall proceed to deal with the case.

Question 8.
“Events taking place outside India but having an effect on competition in India is also subject to jurisdiction of Competition Commission of India.” Comment on extra territorial jurisdiction provided under Competition Act, 2002.
Answer:
As per section 32, the Commission shall have jurisdiction to enquire and pass orders in accordance with the provisions of the Act into an agreement or dominant position or combination, which is likely to have, an appreciable adverse effect on competition in relevant market in India. The above powers are irrespective of the following:

  • an agreement has been entered into outside India; or
  • any party to such agreement is outside India; or
  • any enterprise abusing the dominant position is outside India; or
  • a combination has taken place outside India; or
  • any party to combination is outside India.

Thus, it is absolutely clear that any actions/agreements taking place outside India but having an effect on competition in India will be subject to the jurisdiction of Commission. The Commission will have jurisdiction even if both the parties to an agreement are outside India, but only if the agreement, dominant position or combination entered into by them has an appreciable adverse effect on competition in the relevant market of India. Such deals are observed in e-commerce businesses.

Question 9.
SAM Ltd. and MAS Ltd. are public companies operational in India. The combined enterprise will have total assets of ₹ 600 crores and combined turnover of ₹ 2000 crores. Examine whether the proposed amalgamation shall be notified to the Competition Commission of India.
Answer:

  • Combinations means acquiring control, shares, voting rights or assets by a person over an enterprise, where such person has control over another enterprise engaged in competing business. It includes mergers and amalgamations between such enterprises.
  • Sections 5 and 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 deal with the combination of enterprises. The Act provides for certain threshold limits for notifying the Competition Commission of India.
  • Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 prohibits any person or enter- H prise from entering into a combination which causes or is likely to z cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within the relevant market in India and if such a combination is formed, it shall be void.
  • Following are the thresholds for companies operating only in India –
    (a) Combined assets of more than ₹ 2000 crores or
    (b) Combined turnover more than ₹ 6000 crores; or
  • Hence, in the given case, the proposed amalgamation of SAM Ltd. and MAS Ltd. will not attract the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002 as they have total assets of value of ₹ 600 crore and combined turnover of ₹ 2000, which are less than the threshold specified under the provisions.

Question 10.
Certain ambiguities are cleared with the notification of Competition Commission of India (Procedure in regard to transactions of business relating to Combinations) Amendment Regulations, 2018 on 9th October 2018 – Briefly comment.
Answer:

  • The Competition Act, 2002 declares anti-competitive agreements as void; prohibits the abuse of dominant position, and regulates large combinations. Sections 5 and 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 regulate combinations.
  • There were certain ambiguities regarding notifying the Competition Commission of India (CCI) and getting their approval for the combinations.
  • CCI (Procedure in regard to transactions of business relating to combinations) Amendment Regulations, 2018 clarified computation of 210 days for a notified transaction that could be extendable based on number of CCI requests, including voluntary modifications by applicant.
  • The CCI can appoint agencies to supervise the implementation of modifications directed by the Commission.
  • The parties need not to wait for the CCI to order modification after a long-drawn review process. This would result in speedier resolution of the Competition Commission of India’s concern according quicker approvals in line with international practices.

Question 11.
Compliance of the Competition Act, 2002 in relation to merger and amalgamation
Answer:

  • Combinations means acquiring control, shares, voting rights or assets by a person over an enterprise, where such person has control over another enterprise engaged in competing business. It includes mergers and amalgamations between such enterprises.
  • Section 6 of the Competition Act, 2002 prohibits any person or enter-prise from entering into a combination which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within the relevant market in India and if such a combination is formed, it shall be void.
  • Any person or enterprise, who or which proposes to enter into a combination, shall notify the Commission. No combination shall come into effect until 210 days have passed from the day on which notice has been given to the CCI or the CCI has passed orders, whichever is earlier.
  • The CCI has the power to investigate the proposed combination and its effect on the relevant markets in India. Hence, this period of 210 days is extendable based on the number of information requests issued by the CCI. This means the actual approval duration can be a longer waiting period.

Question 12.
Discuss the origin and preamble of the Competition Act, 2002.
Answer:
Prior to Competition Law, the MRTP Act, 1969 regulated mergers and acquisitions in India. However, after the economic reforms of 1991 and the changing international economic scenario, it was felt that the MRTP Act, 1969 has become obsolete. Hence, there was a need to promote competition rather than restraining monopolies.

In view of the above developments, a ‘High Level Committee on Competition Policy and Law’ was constituted by the Central Government under the Chairmanship of Mr. Raghavan, which submitted its report in May 2002. Based on the recommendations of the Raghavan Committee, the Competitions Act, 2002 was passed to replace the MRTP Act, 1969.
The preamble of the Competition Act, 2002 states the purpose of the Statute which is –

  • the economic development of the country;
  • the establishment of CCI to prevent practices which hamper competition;
  • to promote and sustain competition in markets;
  • to protect the interest of the consumers; and
  • to ensure freedom of trade and fair competition in the markets.

Question 13.
What are the Regulatory Authorities under the Competition Act, 2002?
Answer:
The Competition Act, 2002 provides for establishment of a market regulator known as the Competition Commission of India (Commission / CCI). The CCI is a statutory body, established under the Act with legislative powers as mentioned in Preamble. The CCI is vested with powers to investigative, regulatory, adjudicatory and advisory jurisdiction.

The Act also provided for the establishment of Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) which was in operation till May 2017. Later, COMPAT has been merged with National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) constituted under the Companies Act, 2013 and the NCLAT has been designated as the Appellate Authority under the Act.

Question 14.
Discuss the thresold limits as defined by the competition Act, 2002
Answer:
Competition Aspects - Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions 2
In case of mergers or acquisitions or control, where the target company being acquired have assets of not more than ₹ 350 crores in India or turnover of not more than ₹ 1000 crore in India, arc exempt from section 5 of the Act for a period of 5 years. These are known as De Minimis exemption.

Question 15.
What are the types of combinations?
Answer:
Competition Aspects - Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions 3

Based on the economic activities being carried out by the parties, combinations may be classified into:

(a) Horizontal combinations involve the joining together of two or more enterprises engaged in producing the same goods, or rendering same services. They may be termed as competitors to each other. They result in reduction in competition and may create a dominant enterprise.

(b) Vertical combinations involve the joining together of two or more enterprises where one of them is an actual or potential supplier of goods or services to the other. They involve enterprises operating at different levels of the production and supply chain. The object may be to ensure a source of supply or an outlet for products or to enhance the efficiency.

(c) Conglomerate combinations involve the combination of enterprises not having horizontal or vertical connection. These enterprises are engaged in unrelated activities and may be affected with an objective to diversify into new areas by the acquiring enterprise.
Based on the geographical location of the enterprises, the combination may be classified into

  • Domestic combinations involve the joining together of two or more enterprises located in India only.
  • Cross-border combinations involve the joining together of two or more enterprises where one or more of them are operating from other countries. In such combinations, the combination needs to be approved by the Commission only if the overseas enterprises satisfy the local nexus test, as stated in section 5 of the Act.

Question 16.
Discuss the ‘Lesser Penalty’ regulations under Competition Act, 2002.
Answer:
Section 46 of the Competition Act, 2002 and the Lesser Penalty Regulations give the CCI power to impose lesser penalties on an entity that:
(a) makes a ‘vital disclosure’ by submitting evidence of a cartel; or
(b) provides ‘significant added value’ to the evidence already in possession of the CCI.

CCI recognizes leniency applicants who provide valuable inputs (‘markers’) in the CCI investigation. Such leniency is granted to only 3 leniency applicants, in order of priority –

  • the first leniency applicant could receive up to 100% immunity from penalty,
  • the second leniency applicant up to 50% reduction in penalty and
  • the third leniency applicant up to 30% reduction in penalty.

In the case of Indian Railways tenders for supply of Brushless DC Fans (2013), CCI published its first leniency decision granting a 75% reduction in penalty to a leniency applicant who came forward after the CCI commenced investigation of the anti-competitive conduct.

The Lesser Penalty Regulations provide incentives for companies and individuals to pro-actively assist in cartel enforcement.

Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Notes

Fraud under Companies Act, 2013 and Indian Penal Code, 1860 – Resolution of Corporate Disputes, Non-Compliances & Remedies Important Questions

Fraud under Companies Act, 2013 and Indian Penal Code, 1860 – Resolution of Corporate Disputes, Non-Compliances & Remedies Important Questions

Question 1.
“Breach of any trust may be held to be a civil wrong but when men’s rea is involved, it gives rise to criminal ability also.” Comment on this statement while supporting judicial pronouncements.
Answer:
The essential elements of the offence of criminal breach of trust are:
1. The person handing over the property must have confidence in the person taking the property so as to create a fiduciary relationship between them or to put him in position of trustee.

2. The accused must be in such a position where he could exercise his control over the property Le.; dominion over the property.

3. The term property includes both movable as well as immovable property within its ambit.

4. It has to be established that the accused has dishonestly put the property to his own use or to some unauthorized use. Dishonest intention to misappropriate is a crucial fact to be proved to bring home the charge of criminal breach of trust. The offence of criminal breach of trust has been upheld in many of the cases, some of which are reproduced below:

In V.R. Dalai v. Yugendra Naranji Thakkar, 2008, the Supreme Court has held that the first ingredient of criminal breach of trust is entrustment and where it is missing, the same would not constitute a criminal breach of trust. Breach of trust may be held to be a civil wrong but when men’s rea is involved it gives rise to criminal liability also.

In another landmark case of Pratibha Rani v. Suraj Kumar, 1985, the appellant alleged that her stridhan property was entrusted to her in-laws which they dishonestly misappropriated for their own use. The accused were held guilty of this offence since the appellant made out a clear, specific and unambiguous case against in-laws.

Question 2.
The Board of Directors of BIJI Private Limited made an application to the Registrar of Companies under section 248(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 for removal of name of the Company. The Board submitted an affidavit that Company has no pending liabilities. However, it was later found that few amounts were still payable to creditors. What penalties can be levied under the Companies Act, 2013 for such an application?
Answer:
As per section 251(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 where it is found that an application by a company under section 248(2) has been made with the object of evading the liabilities of the company or with the intention to deceive the creditors or to defraud any other persons, the persons in charge of the management of the company shall, notwithstanding that the company has been notified as dissolved:
(a) be jointly and severally liable to any person or persons who had incurred loss or damage as a result of the company being notified as dissolved; and

(b) be punishable for fraud in the manner as provided in section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Further, section 251(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that, the Registrar may also recommend prosecution of the

persons responsible for the filing of an application under section 248(2) of the Companies Act, 2013.
Based on above provisions, the Board of Directors of BUI Private Limited will be liable to penal provisions as per Section 251 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 3.
Mr. Ze, a Company Secretary has recently set up a Practice. Mr. Almo- ra a businessman reached out to Mr. Ze, to incorporate a Company. Mr. Ze assisted him with the list of information required and also extended his professional services for incorporation of the Company. When Mr. Ze was reviewing the documents provided to him, for uploading the forms, he noticed that the documents contained false information. Mr. Ze was apprehensive to go ahead with the incorporation of the Company. Advise Mr. Ze.
Answer:
Section 7 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the documents to be filed with the concerned Registrar of Companies (ROC) for incorporation of a company. While dealing with the requirements, under section 7(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 it has been stated that if a person furnishes false information or incorrect particulars or suppresses material information then the person is liable for action under Section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Further, Section 7(6) also provides that the promoters, the first directors and the fiduciaries viz, the Chartered Accountant, the Company Secretary in practice or the Cost Accountant or the Advocate, the Managing Director or the Secretary of the Company who have given a declaration in the prescribed format shall also be liable for action under Section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013. Thus the penal provision extends to the professionals also apart from the officers of the company.

Hence, Mr. Ze should take note of the aforementioned provisions and shall go for incorporation of the company with the correct information only otherwise, he should not go ahead with the incorporation of the Company, knowing that the documents provided contains false information.

Question 4.
Mr. Krish, a resident of Mumbai is a friend of Mr. Parth, who stays in Manali. As Mr. Parth did not have much exposure and information about personal finance and investment options in Manali, he trusted his friend for his investments. As per their agreement, Mr. Parth remitted ₹ 1 Lakh to Mr. Krish to invest in mutual funds and stock market. Mr. Krish employs the money in his own business ignoring his understanding with Mr. Parth has Mr. Krish committed criminal breach of trust?
Answer:
According to Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the essential ingredients of the offence of criminal breach of trust are as under:

  • The accused must be entrusted with the property or with dominion over it,
  • The person so entrusted must use that property, or,
  • The accused must dishonestly use or dispose of that property or wilfully suffer any other person to do so in violation of any:
  • direction of law prescribing the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or
  • legal contract made touching the discharge of such trust.

In the given case, there is an express or implied contract between Mr. Parth and Mr. Krish, that the money would be invested by Mr. Krish on behalf of Mr. Parth. But Mr. Krish invests the same in his own business which is violation of section 405 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. Hence, he has committed criminal breach of trust.

Question 5.
Ms. Rekha was working as ‘Gram Sachiv’ for tengram panchayats. She was a trusted person of the local villagers and they respected her. Ms. Rekha, collected a sum of ₹ 5 Lakhs from fifty villagers in the gram panchayats saying she would pay their house tax and issued receipts to them. Later it was found that she did not deposit the money into Government treasury, but utilized it for her personal purposes.

The villagers wanted to file a case against Ms. Rekha, when they came to know of the misappropriation done by her. Will the villagers be successful in filing a case against Ms. Rekha?
Answer:
According to Section 409 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, when a person in his capacity of a public servant, commits criminal breach of trust as specified under section 405 oF the Indian Penal Code, 1860, shall bc punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.

The facts mentioned are similar to Bachch u Singh y. State of Haryana case. The appellant was working as Gram Sachiv’ for eight-gram panchayats. He collected a sum of Rupees 648 from thirty villagers towards the house tax and executed receipts for the same.

As he was a public servant, and in that capacity, he had collected money as house tax but did not remit the same, he was charged under Section 409 of Indian Penal Code, 1860. It was held that the appellant dishonestly misappropriated or converted the said amount for his own use and his conviction under section 409 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 was upheld b the Supreme Court.

Ms. Rekha was working as a Gram Sachiv and collected money from the villagers. She misappropriated the funds for her personal benefits. In the background of the aforementioned case law, she can be charged under section 409 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 for breach of trust by public servant as she is a public servant.

Question 6.
Greenary Limited, a Public Limited Company was in the business of generation and supply of electricity and had its factory near Krishnapatan am Beach. Mr. Pond was the Vice-President (Operation) and was authorized by the Board of Directors of the Company to be in charge of the factory operations. As the factory was located on sea-shore, the Company was subject to the provisions of various Environmental Laws. The Company had not complied with the provisions relating to dumping/discharge of its production wastes, etc. Summons were issued against Mr. Pond by the adjudicating authority. Mr. Pond sent an email to you, the Company Secretary stating his designation would not tantamount to officer in default. Would you agree with Mr. Pond?
Answer:
According to section 47 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company, every person who at the time the offence was committed was in charge of, and was responsible to the company for the conduct of, the business of the company, as well as the company, shall be deemed to the guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly:

Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section shall render any such person liable to any punishment provided in this Act if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge for that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence.

Where an offence under the Act has been committed by a company and it is proved that the offence has been committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to any neglect on the part of, any director, manager, secretary or other officers of the company, such director, manager, secretary or other officers shall also be deemed to be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

Mr. Pond, has been authorised by the Board of Directors to be the in-charge of factory operations. As per section 47 of Water Act, 1974 he is deemed to the guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

Question 7.
A notice of investigation was sent to Maina Limited for alleged misappropriation of funds in the Company. As the Company Secretary of the Company, prepare a report touching upon various aspects of the activities of Company which would prove that the allegation in the instant case is not true.
Answer:
Date:
The Investigation Authority
ABC Building
B Block, New Delhi

Subject: Investigation notice on Misappropriation of Funds in Maina Limited. Ref: INVITE/19-20/520/dated 05-12-2019 We are in receipt of your letter vide No.- INVITE,/ 19-20/520/dated 05-12- 2019 regarding misappropriation of funds in of the Company under section 179/180/185/186/188 and other applicable provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

In this connection, we would like to inform you that the Business operation of the company (Basic information about the company: like Name, date of incorporation, registered office, branches, factories and other offices, status of the company, objects, capital structure, voting rights and shareholding pattern of the company).

The present Board of the company comprise (Brief history of past management set up, existing management set up, composition of Board of Directors, terms and conditions of the appointment of managerial personnel, details regarding appointment of directors and their relatives to an office or place of profit).

The Business activities of the company comprises (Nature of existing business, licensed and installed capacities, sources of finance, name of other companies falling within the same group).

During the period referenced under the letter the company has complied with the all the procedure and compliance required under the Act read with rules made thereunder. A summary of the transaction and procedure followed by the company is provided as under for your reference please:
Details of loans taken and loans advanced to Directors, the firms in which they are partners or companies in which they are Directors are in accordance with the provisions of the Act and compliance made by the company in this regard.

Acquisition/disposal of substantial assets and compliances thereof the investments made by the company and limits approved by the company.

  • Details of utilisation of loans taken, funds raised by the Company. Maintenance of statutory registers including minute’s books are being maintained up to date.
  • Internal checks and internal control system followed by the company.
  • Working results and financial position of the company in the context of its working results for the last three years.
  • Compliance by the Company and its officers with the provisions of the Companies Act and other Acts, applicable to the Company.
  • A scrutiny of abnormal/heavy expenditure items.
  • Transactions with Related Parties

As mentioned above, we have complied with the due procedures and compliance requirement as provided in the law, therefore, request you kindly consider our submission and take on record the same to close the further investigation into the affairs of the company.

We shall however submit any further information/clarification as may be required by your good selves.
Thanking you.
For, Maina Limited
(Company Secretary)

Question 8.
Mr. Raj owned 50 acres of land. He agreed to sell the land to Mr. Shani for ₹ 5 crore and executed a conveyance for the same. Despite the execution of conveyance, Mr. Raj later mortgages the entire 50 acres to Mr. Rohit. He conceals the fact of previous sale to Mr. Sham and receives money from Mr. Rohit. In the background of decided case law, indicate whether Mr. Raj would be held liable for cheating.
Answer:
Section 415 of Indian Penal Code, 1860, provides that whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to “cheat”.

In Chinthaman v. Dyaneshwar and Anr. [1973] case, the accused sold the property to the complainant. In fact, they said property was already mortgaged to some other person. The accused concealed the mortgage and registered it in favour of the complainant and received full consideration. The High Court held that it was a clear cheating offence. Yes, in the given case, Mr. Raj would be liable for offence of cheating as he dishonestly mortgaged the land to Mr. Rohit.

Question 9.
During the Statutory audit of MCP Limited, the auditors found that a fraud has been committed against the Company by its officers amounting to more than ₹ 10 crores. What are the duties of statutory auditors in the given case under the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer:
If an auditor of a company has a reason to believe, in the course of performance of his duties as statutory auditor, that an offence of fraud has been committed against the company by its officers or employees, which involves individually an amount of ₹ 1 crore or above, the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government.

Section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013 confers certain powers on the auditors of the company as well it casts certain duties on them. The auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government as under:-
the auditor shall report the matter to the Board or the Audit Committee immediately but not later than two days of his knowledge of the fraud seeking their reply or observations within forty-five days.

on receipt of such reply or observations, the auditor shall forward his report and the reply or observations of the Board or the Audit Committee along with his comments to the Central Government within fifteen days from the date of receipt of such reply or observations.

if no reply or observations are received from the Board or Audit Committee within the stipulated period of forty-five days, Auditor shall forward his report to the Central Government. the report shall be sent to the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs in a sealed cover by Registered Post with Acknowledgement Due or by Speed Post followed by an e-mail in confirmation of the same.

Question 10.
Intention is one of the essential ingredients to commit a fraud. Elaborate
Answer:
The Companies Act, 2013 enumerates that, intention is one of the essential ingredients to commit a fraud.
This was also held in a landmark judgment of Dr. Vimla v. Delhi Administration, where the SC observed that fraud has to satisfy two conditions viz.,

  1. Deceit or injury to the person deceived; and
  2. Intention to deceive.

In-State of Mysore v. Padmanabhacharya, the Supreme Court of India held a view that the intention can be assumed:

  • The case involved specific smuggling activities in contravention of the Sea Customs Act, 1887.
  • The SC held that considering the facts of the case, the intention to defraud continued even after the actual importation of goods and continued in the hands of the subsequent purchasers also.
  • The term intention has to be interpreted in a wider sense. An unintentional and mere accidental omission or commission generally will not stand the test of legal scrutiny in establishing a fraud.
  • Intention can be provided by looking into the associated factors relating to the challenged fraudulent act.

The Securities Appellate Tribunal, in Ketan Parekh v. SEBI, observed that,

  • It is the intention that will determine whether a transaction has been executed with the intention to manipulate the market or defeat its. mechanism. This could be understood from the circumstances because direct evidence may not be available in such cases.
  • Factors determining intention cannot be exhaustive, however, an illustrative list is given below of some factors which determine intention of the parties.

These include:

  • the frequency with which such transactions are undertaken,
  • the value of the transactions,
  • whether they involve circular trading and whether there is real change of beneficial ownership,
  • the conditions then prevailing in the market are Any one factor may or may not be decisive and it is from the cumulative effect of these that an inference will have to be drawn.

Question 11.
What are the essential ingredients of the Offence of Criminal Breach of trust?
Answer:
The essential ingredients of the offence of criminal breach of trust are as under:
1. The accused must be entrusted with the property or with dominion over it.
2. The person so entrusted must use that property; or
3. The accused must dishonestly use or dispose of that property or wilfully suffer any other person to do so in violation:

  • of any direction of law prescribing the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or
  • of any legal contract made touching the discharge of such trust.

Relevant case laws provided below:
In VR. Dalai v. Yugendra Naranji Thakkar, 2008, the Supreme Court has held that the first ingredient of criminal breach of trust is entrustment and where it is missing, the same would not constitute a criminal breach of trust. Breach of trust may be held to be a civil wrong but when men’s rea is involved it gives rise to criminal liability also.

In another landmark case of Pratibha Rani v. Suraj Kumar, 1985, the appellant alleged that her stridhan property was entrusted to her in-laws which they dishonestly misappropriated for their own use. The accused were held guilty of this offence since the appellant made out a clear, specific and unambiguous case against in-laws.

The SC held in Onkar Nath Mishra v. State that the offence of criminal breach of trust involves two distinct parts. The first consists of creation of an obligation in relation to property over which control is acquired by accused and second is misappro-priation or dishonest dealings in property, contrary to the terms of obligation created.

In Suryalakshmi Cotton Mills Ltd. v. Rajvir Industries Ltd., it was held that cheque is a property and if it has been used for a purpose for which the same had not been handed over, it would constitute breach of trust.

In S.K. Alagh v. State of UP, it was highlighted that in the absence of any provision laid down under statute, a director of a company or an employer cannot be held vicariously liable for any offence committed by company itself.

After analysing all the cases we may conclude that for an offence to fall under this section all the four requirements are essential to be fulfilled.

  1. The person handing over the property must have confidence in the person taking the property so as to create a fiduciary relationship between them or to put him in position of trustee. ig,
  2. The accused must be in such a position where he could exercise his control over the property Le.; dominion over the property,
  3. The term property includes both movable as well as immovable proper erty within its ambit.
  4. It has to be established that the accused has dishonestly put the property to his own use or to some unauthorized use. Dishonest intention to misappropriate is a crucial fact to be proved to bring home the charge of criminal breach of trust.

Question 12.
What are the main ingredients of cheating under Indian Penal Code t860?
Answer:
Cheating has been defined under section 415 of the IPC as follows:
That whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to “cheat”.

The constituents of cheating are provided below:
1. Deception of any person.
2.
(a) Fraudulently or dishonestly inducing that person

  • to deliver any property to any person or
  • to consent that any person shall retain any property; or

(b) Intentionally inducing that person to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property.

Relevant case laws provided below:
In Iridium India Telecom Ltd. v. Motorola Incorporated and Ors., it has been held by SC that deception is necessary ingredient under both parts of the section and complainant must prove that inducement has been caused by deception. It was further observed that non-disclosure of relevant information also amounts to deception.

In M.N. Ojha and others v. Alok Kumar Srivastav and Anr., the SC held that it was cheating where the intention on part of the accused was to wrongfully retain the excise duty which State is empowered under law.

In T.R. Arya v. State of Punjab, it was held that negligence in duty without any dishonest intention cannot amount to cheating. A bank employee when on comparison of signature of drawer passes a cheque there may be negligence resulting in loss to bank, but it cannot be held to be cheating.

Question 13.
An unintentional and mere accidental omission or- commission generally will not stand the test of legal scrutiny in establishing a fraud. Comment.
Answer:
The Securities Appellate Tribunal, in Ketan Parekh v. SEBI, observed that It is the intention that will determine whether a transaction has been executed with the intention to manipulate the market or defeat its mechanism. This could be understood from the circumstances because direct evidence may not be available in such cases.

Factors determining intention cannot be exhaustive, however, an illustrative list is given below of some factors which determine intention of the parties. These include

  • the frequency with which such transactions are undertaken,
  • the value of the transactions,
  • whether they involve circular trading and whether there is real change of beneficial ownership,
  • the conditions then prevailing in the market tire

Any one factor may or may not be decisive and it is from the cumu¬lative effect of these that an inference will have to be drawn.

Question 14.
Brief Note on Fraud.
Answer:
A general meaning of fraud may be taken as wrongful or criminal deception practiced with an intention to secure financial or personal gain to oneself and a financial or personal loss to the other.
Business Dictionary states, ‘Fraud’ is an act or course of deception, an intentional concealment, omission, or perversion of truth, to:

  1. Gain unlawful or unfair advantage,
  2. Induce another to part with some valuable item or surrender a legal right, or ‘
  3. Inflict injury in some manner

Fraud can also be:
a civil wrong (ie., a claim of monetary compensation against fraud perpetrator may be initiated in a civil court of competent jurisdiction),
a criminal wrong (ie., a fraud perpetrator may be prosecuted and imprisoned by governmental authorities) or
it may cause no loss of money, property or legal right but still be an element of another civil or criminal wrong. The ultimate object of practising fraud may be some monetary gain or other benefits.

Black Law Dictionary states that ‘Fraud’ refers to ‘All multifarious means which human ingenuity can devise, and which are resorted to by one individual to get an advantage over another by false suggestions or suppression of the truth. It includes all surprises, tricks, cunning or dissembling, and any unfair way which another is cheated.

Indian Contract Act, 1872 –
Section 17 of the Contract Act defines Fraud as “Fraud” means and includes any of the following acts committed by a party to a contract, or with his connivance, or by his agents, with intent to deceive another party thereto his agent or to induce him to enter into the contract.

Following are covered in fraud as per Contract Act:

  • Section 17(1) – outlines the concept of Suggestio Falsi or ‘Suggestion of falsehood.’ It implies suggestion of a fact by one who does not believe it to be true.
  • Section 17(2) – outlines the concept of Suppresio Veri or ‘Suppression of a fact.’ It means the active concealment or suppression of a fact by one having the knowledge or belief of the fact.
  • Section 17(3) – it mentions a promise made with without any intention of performing it.
  • Section 17(4) – any other Act fitted or designed to deceive.
  • Section 17(5) – any such act or omission as the law specially declares to be fraudulent

The Companies Act, 2013:
Section 447 of Companies Act, 2013 defines Fraud and related terms as below:
(i) ‘Fraud’ in relation to affairs of a company or anybody corporate, includes any act, omission, concealment of any fact or abuse of position committed by any person or any other person with the connivance in any manner, with intent to deceive, to gain undue advantage from, or to injure the interests of, the company or its shareholders or its creditors or any other person, whether or not there is any wrongful gain or wrongful loss;

(ii) ‘Wrongful gain’ means the gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled;
(iii) ‘Wrongful loss’ means the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing is legally entitled.

Brief reading of the Companies Act, 2013, specifies the following:

  • The definition of the term fraud is inclusive in nature.
  • A fraud may be in relation to a body corporate as well, not necessarily always in relation to a company.
  • Fraud includes any act, omission, concealment of facts or abuse of position by a person.
  • The definition also extends to those persons who connive with another in committing a fraud. The word ‘connive with’ can be understood as conspiring with a person to commit fraud.
  • Intention is important.
  • The fraud may not be targeted only at the company. Even if the fraud victims are shareholders, creditors or any other person, it will still constitute fraud.
  • Gain or loss arising out of fraud cannot be the basis of deciding quantum of punishment.

It is important to note that the term has a wide coverage of the acts and also of the fraudsters. The words ‘any person by this section states that the commission of the act, omission etc. is by someone other than a director or an employee and still falls within the purview of section 447.

Question 15.
Who is an Officer in default as per Companies Act, 2013?
Answer:
As per Section 2(60) of the Companies Act, 2013, “Officer who is in default” includes, for the purpose of the any provisions of the act, the whole time director, the KMP, or the persons who were providing directions to the company etc. Also, when it comes to issue or transfer of shares, the Registrar and Share Transfer Agent or the Merchant Banker is also classified as the officer who is in default.

Again, Section 2(51) when defining the term “Key Managerial Personnel” in relation to a company includes the CEO or the MD/WTD or the Manager or the Company Secretary or the CFO, such person who is one level below the Directors designated as KMP or such other officer.

Thus it becomes, even more important for directors and other professionals to act difigently in order to save themselves. As officers, they may attract the penal provisions for fraudulent acts.

An officer in default means any of the following officers of a company, namely:
1. Whole-time director

2. key managerial personnel

3. where there is no key managerial personnel, such director or directors as specified by the Board in this behalf.

4. any person who, under the immediate authority of the Board or any KMP, is charged with any responsibility including maintenance, filing or distribution of accounts or records, authorises, actively participates in, knowingly permits, or knowingly fails to take active steps to prevent, any default.

5. any person in accordance with whose advice, directions or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act, other than a person who gives advice to the Board in a professional capacity;

6. every director, in respect of a contravention of any of the provisions of this Act, who is aware of such contravention;

7. in respect of the issue or transfer of any shares of a company, the share transfer agents, registrars and merchant bankers to the issue or transfer.

Question 16.
Which directors of a company can be considered as officers in default?
Answer:
Executive directors, by virtue of their involvement in day to day affairs of the company, can usually be accused of fraud as they are aware of the loopholes in the systems prevalent with the company. However, this does not imply immunity to non-executive directors and independent directors merely due to their position.

Any fraudulent act would have a significant impact on the directors and KMP of a company. The Companies Act, 2013 has revamped the definition of officer in default to bring under its ambit more personnel than before.

As per section 2(60) of the Companies Act, 2013, “Officer who is in default” includes, for the purpose of any provisions of the act, the whole time Director, the KMP, or the persons who were providing directions to the Company, etc. Also, when it comes to issue or transfer of shares, the Registrar and Share Transfer Agent or the Merchant Banker is also classified as the officer in default.

Again, section 2(51), when defining the term ‘Key Managerial Personnel’ in relation to a company includes the CEO of the MD/WTD or the manager or the Company Secretary or the CFO, such person who is one level below the Directors designated as KMP or such other officer.

Thus, it becomes even more important for Directors and other professionals to act diligently in order to save themselves. As officers, they may attract the Penal provisions for fraudulent acts.

Question 17.
Explain the term Whistleblowing?
Answer:

  • The importance of whistleblowing mechanism can be gauged from the fact that LODR require listed entities to devise effective whistleblower mechanism.
  • Section 177(9) of the Companies Act provides that every listed company or such class or classes of companies as may be prescribed shall establish a vigil mechanism for the directors and employees to report genuine concerns in a manner prescribed therein.
  • The Act expressly requires that whistleblowers be provided direct access to the Chairman of the Audit Committee and for adequate safeguards to avoid victimisation of the whistleblowers.
  • If the protection provided to whistle-blowers is ineffective, it might result in an atmosphere of fear for the whistle-blowers wherein they would not be comfortable/encouraged to report the concerned discrepancies and inefficiencies.
  • The stronger the protection to the whistleblowers, more can be the chances of early fraud detections.

Question 18.
What is the term ‘Cheating by personation’.
Answer:
Sections 416 to 420 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 states that A person is said to “cheat by personation” if he cheats by

  • pretending to be some other person, or
  • knowingly substituting one person for another, or
  • representing that he or any other person is a person other than he or such other person really is.
    The offence is committed whether the individual personated is a real or imaginary person.

Following are the examples of cheating by personation:

  1. A cheats by pretending to be a certain rich banker of the same name. A cheats by personation.
  2. A cheats by pretending to be B, a person who is deceased. A cheats by personation.
  3. A calls B, a doctor, by pretending to be a leading politician and asks B to donate certain amount to a certain fund. A cheats by personation.
  4. A, using similarity of his name with name of a famous businessman, enters into deals pretending to be such businessman. A cheats by personation. “

Section 417 prescribes the punishment for cheating.
It states that whoever cheats shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.

Section 418 states that whoever cheats with the knowledge that he is likely to cause wrongful loss to a person whose interest in the transaction to which the cheating relates, he was bound, either by law, or by a legal contract, to protect, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

Section 419 provides that whoever cheats by personation shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

Question 19.
What is forgery? State the punishment for forgery.
Answer:
Forgery refers to the action of forging a copy or imitation of a document, signature, banknote, or work of art.
Section 463 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 Forgery:
Whoever makes any false document or false electronic record or part of a document or electronic record, with intent to cause damage or injury, ‘ to the public or to any person, or to support any claim or title, or to cause
any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery.

Section 463 of the Indian Penal Code 1860 Punishment for Forgery:
The IPC provides for imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.

Relevant case laws provided below:
1. In Ramchandran v. State, the SC held that to constitute an offence of forgery, document must be made with dishonest or fraudulent intention. A person is said to do a thing fraudulently if he does that thing with intent to defraud but not otherwise.

2. Parminder Kaur v. State of UP The Supreme Court held that mere alteration of document does not make it a forged document. Alteration must be made for some gain or for some objective.

3. Balbir Kaur v. State of Punjab 2011 CrLJ 1546 (P&H):
The allegation against the accused was that she furnished a certificate to get employment as ETT teacher which was found to be bogus and forged in as much as school was not recognized for period given in certificate.

The certificate did not anywhere say that school was recognized. It was held that merely indicating teaching experience of the accused, per se, cannot be said to indicate wrong facts. So the direction which was issued for prosecution is liable to be quashed.

Question 20.
Who can be responsible for a fraud performed on the company? Elaborate.
Answer:
It is important to note who can commit fraud so that possible prevention mechanisms can be implemented and followed.
Fraud can be executed by directors or any of the employees or even auditors or external consultants. However, company faces a greater risk from the actions of directors and employees since they are in possession of confidential information about the company which may not be available with other stakeholders.

There can be many motives of committing fraud. A few common ones are greed for monetary gain,

  • intention to bring disrepute to the company on account of being ousted (removed from job),
  • thrill of having power enough to circumvent or make others circumvent the law.

There is an existence of a few ‘Robin hood’ fraudsters who believe they are just increasing the balance in the society by defrauding the rich and bringing the benefits to the less fortunate.

Question 21.
Enumerate the duties of the auditor of the company in case of fraud reporting.
Answer:
The duties of the auditor of the company based on fraud reporting are stated below:

  • Section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013 confers certain powers and casts certain duties on the auditors of the company.
  • In case an offence of fraud is committed by the company or by its officers or employees, the auditors are required to report to the central government.
  • In cases of fraud involving amount less than ₹ 1 crore, the auditors are required to report to the audit committee of the company or to the Board in other cases.
  • Similar obligations are cast upon the company secretary in practice (secretarial auditor) and the cost accountant in practice (cost auditor) also.
  • Punishment up to ₹ 25 lakhs can be imposed for non-compliance of duties by an auditor.

Question 22.
Write a note on fraud committed by Directors?
Answer:
Section 447 seeks to penalise any person guilty of fraud involving amounts of at least ten lakh rupees or one per cent of the turnover, whichever is less, with imprisonment from six months to ten years and fine ranging from the amount involved in the fraud to three times such amount.

If the fraud involves public interest, the imprisonment will not be less than three years. If the amount involved is less than ten lakh rupees or one per cent of the turnover and the fraud does not involve public interest, the punishment shall be imprisonment up to five years or fine up to fifty lakh rupees or both.

If a director is found to be guilty of fraud and sentenced to imprisonment for six months or more, he would be required to If any director/person has been convicted of any offence and sentenced in respect thereof to imprisonment for a period of seven years or more, he shall not be eligible to be appointed as a director in any company.

Question 23.
Will fraud by just one director make the other director liable?
Answer:
Executive directors can be held responsible for fraud, since they are involved in and aware of the daily operations and systems of the company and have knowledge about possible loopholes in such operations and systems.
However, the non-executive directors or the independent directors do not claim immunity by virtue of their position and can be held liable if guilty.

‘Every director who consented to the fraud or is aware of the contravention, including contravention of Section 447 can be covered within the term ‘officer in default.

The method of awareness must be either by participating in board proceedings without objecting to the same or even by virtue of receipt of proceedings of the board.

‘Proceedings of the board’ to include minutes and board papers.

Resignation is not the immediate recourse to a non-executive director and does not release him from the liability post resignation. Proviso to Section 168(2) of the Act clearly provides that the director who has resigned shall be liable even after his resignation, for the offences which occurred during his tenure.

The attendance registers, board papers and minutes play a vital role in this regard.

Attendance at the board meeting includes the director within the ‘awareness’ purview.
Recording of the directors at the meeting, participation and non-participation in the discussion, voting and their dissentment if any is important to affixing liability.

Board papers play a critical role. Efficiently complied Board Papers circulated over a period of time, might be instrumental in throwing up a red flag for a director, and might result in an independent either recording his dissent or in extreme cases, resignation.

The SS-1: Secretarial Standard on Meetings of the Board of Directors requires that the draft minutes need to be circulated to all the members of the board of directors, not only those who attended the meeting. Thus the proceedings of the Board can be available even to those who did not attend the meeting and they can therefore be considered to be aware of a contravention. The minutes should be fairly detailed and all directors are expected to thoroughly read the minutes.

Question 24.
If a fraud is committed by director, whether the company will be treated as the fraudster or victim?
Answer:
If directors acting on behalf of the company deceive third parties, the company will also be penalised.
Under most legislations, the sections speaking about the offences by companies implicate the company and the officers in default.

The company might be able to recover the loss from the director, however, this would be at a later stage. Initially, the company will have to make good the losses of the third parties or pay the penalties for the violations.

Relevant case law in this regard is provided below:
Jetivia SA & Anr. v. Bilta (UK) Limited – The UK Court of Appeals decided that where the directors had acted to deprive the company of its assets and thus made it default in VAT payments to the UK HMRC, the company was the victim and did have a claim towards the breach of fiduciary duties owed to it by its directors.

Question 25.
Corporate Governance Mechanism to Prevent fraud from Sprouting.
Answer:
The Act has elaborate deterrent sections and penalties for fraudulent activities, particularly where unwary investors arc made to place their money in untrustworthy hands.

The sudden ‘awakening’ and action by the regulators can also make someone cautious.
A host of forensic audit techniques and methods available for analysing how exactly the fraud was bom and implemented are relevant only after it is discovered that a fraud has been committed and those involved.

1. Safe Guarding Strategy for Fraud Corporate Culture

  • A strong corporate culture is the prerequisite for any organization.
  • Fixation of procedures and policies to govern its employees.
  • Clear definition of the main accountable person, organizational structure of reporting systems, the reporting manager, job responsibilities, segregation of duties, and limitations.
  • Accurate investigation of a candidate’s history and background before hiring.
  • Clarity provided to the employees about their fraud prevention tactics.
  • Proper training provided to employees about documented policies defining fraud, its prevention and detection measures, before implementation.
  • A zero-tolerance policy for all kinds of fraud should be introduced to get rid of internal fraudsters.

2. Screening and Background Checking:

  • Adequate screening, background checking and verification before someone is recommended for or appointed as a director or hold senior managerial level positions. (Section 179(1) of the Companies Act, 2013)
  • ‘Fitness and probity’ norms should be complied for someone to be appointed as a director
  • Checking would be exhaustive where foreign nationals are appointed as directors since criminals in a country might flee and join entities in other countries.

3. Strong Internal Controls:

  • In the London Whale story it was established that JP Morgan incurred a loss more because of the risk management systems in the bank were not adequately geared to prevent this from happening.
  • The BFSI (Banks, Financial Services, Insurance) sector entities are required to follow regulatory directions in relation to internal audit and risk As per the provisions of regulation 17(8) of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (LODR).
  • The CEO and CFO are required to furnish a compliance certificate to the board of directors confirming their responsibility to maintain adequate internal controls pertaining to financial reporting and that they have evaluated the effectiveness and disclosed any deficiencies and design and operation of such internal controls to the auditors and the audit committee. The board of directors. will, therefore, rely on such certificate.
  • If this is fraudulently provided, chances are, the responsibility statement as discussed above will turn out to be incorrect.
  • In most cases, the CEO and CFO will both also hold the positions of directors.
  • Internal control systems and techniques such as established policies and procedures, maker – checker processes (separate people to generate and authorize transactions), limits on operation, block leaves etc. can all contribute towards reducing the possibilities of fraud and early detection.
  • Since certain internal controls like maker checkers and transaction limits can be installed through software systems, this is one of the very few fear or bias-free fraud prevention mechanisms.

4. Whistle Blowing:

  • The Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements Regulations (‘LODR’) requires listed entities to devise effective whistle-blower mechanism reflects on how necessary the lawmakers think these systems are.
  • Section 177(9) of the Companies Act provides that every listed company or such class or classes of companies as may be prescribed shall establish a vigil mechanism for the directors and employees to report genuine concerns in a manner prescribed therein
  • The Act expressly requires that whistle-blowers be provided direct access to the Chairman of the Audit Committee and for adequate safeguards to avoid victimisation of the whistle-blowers.
  • The ineffective protection mechanisms for whistleblowers might result in creating an atmosphere of fear for whistleblowers. The stronger the protection to the whistle blowers, more can be the chances of early fraud detections.

5. Remuneration:
Feeling of not being adequately remunerated can be one reason for a director or senior employee to be driven to ‘take what they are due’ from an entity irrespective of whether the means are acceptable.
Requisite board evaluation and remuneration policies incorporated to establish a measure for rewards against performance with a well-balanced metrics. Clarity in the minds of the management and employees would result in lesser chances of fraud.

6. Exit Checks and Clawbacks:

  • Exit interviews, particularly when employees are performing and are remunerated well, can raise red flags about possible involvement in fraud.
  • Clawback provisions in employment agreements, which enable the company to recover incentive and additional compensation paid to executives are an effective deterrent tool, since executive compensation tends to be largely performance linked.
  • Clawback provisions would provide for recovery of such compen-sation (usually other than the base salary) in case of fraudulent misrepresentation or misstatements.
  • The biggest fraud prevention mechanisms are, in reality growth-oriented companies which have appropriate recognition and remuneration mechanisms and thus, a high employee morale.
  • A positive community environment is difficult to quit, and even more difficult to ditch.

7. Independent Audit System:

  • Regular and surprise audits to be conducted by an independent audit team to check on the safety of the system.
  • All types of vacation balances to be checked.
  • The audit committee should monitor the quarterly and annual audits.
  • Responsibility of the team of experts for validating the results of any internal audit.
  • The internal audit system is accountable for the detection of 29% of all fraud cases.

8. Operational Reporting System:

  • An operational and effective reporting system, helpful in reducing fraud in companies.
  • Awareness amongst employees about the reporting system for reporting any kind of suspicious activity.
  • A reporting system that encourages the person to report the fraud anonymously could be beneficial as it will keep the identity of the employee private while reporting his/her colleague.
  • The employees should be encouraged and ensured that there won’t be any problem if they report anything that sparks doubt in their head.

9. Professional Expert for Fraud Prevention:

  • Surefire strategy to mitigate the deceitful activity.
  • Companies can hire certified fraud prevention experts as a part of the fraud prevention program.
  • These experts can prove to be very crucial for creating and instigating fraud prevention policies and invincible strategies.

Resolution of Corporate Disputes Non-Compliances & Remedies Notes

Process of Merger and Acquisition- Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Process of Merger and Acquisition – Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Question 1.
Elucidate the requirement of registration of offer of schemes involving transfer of shares under the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
Section 238(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for the mode of registration of offer of schemes or contract involving the transfer of shares.

As per the legal provision, every offer of a scheme or contract involving the transfer of shares or any class of shares in the Transferor Company to the Transferee Company shall be presented to the Registrar of Companies (ROC). With regard to Section 235 of Companies Act, 2013, every circular containing such offer and recommendation to the members of the Transferor Company by its directors to accept such offer shall be accompanied by such information and in such manner as may be prescribed. Further, every such offer shall contain a statement by or on behalf of Transferee Company, disclosing the steps it has taken to ensure that necessary cash will be available.

Every such circular u/s 235 of the Companies Act, 2013 shall be presented to the ROC for registration and no such circular shall be issued until it is so registered.

The Registrar may refuse to register any such circular. It shall communicate such refusal to the parties within 30 days of the application, along with reasons in writing.

The ROC may refuse to register any such circular, on the following grounds –
(a) which does not contain the prescribed information as required; or
(b) which is likely to give a false impression,
Section 238(2) of the Act states that an appeal may be filed with the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) against an order of the Registrar refusing to register any circular.

As per Section 238(3), any director who issues a circular which has not been presented for registration and registered, shall be liable to a penalty of ₹ 1 lakh.

Question 2.
What are the details to be disclosed under the explanatory statement of the notice of the meeting in respect of the scheme of compromise or arrangement?
Answer:
As per Section 230(3), the Tribunal shall instruct the amalgamating company to send notice of the meetings to all the creditors, members or class thereof and debenture-holders. The notice shall be accompanied by an explanatory statement disclosing the details of the scheme of compromise or arrangement and other details as required.

The explanatory statement of the notice of meeting in respect of the scheme of compromise or arrangement include the following –

  • Brief details of Transferor and Transferee companies,
  • Latest financial position of companies involved,
  • Valuation report,
  • Proposed share exchange ratio,
  • Main terms of transfer of assets and liabilities from Transferor to Transferee Company,
  • Appointed Date and expected Effective Date,
  • Mode of discharge of purchase consideration, Le. shares or cash payment or both etc.
  • Benefits of compromise or arrangement as perceived by the Board of directors to the company,
  • Arrangement with secured and unsecured creditors including debenture-holders.
  • Capital structure of Transferor Company and Transferee Company,
  • Provision for dissenting shareholders,
  • Transfer of employees of the Transferor Company to the Transferee Company,
  • Statement to bear all costs, expenses etc. in connection with the scheme,
  • Details of pending investigation or proceedings against the company,
  • Dissolution of Transferor Company (without winding up) on the effective date.

Question 3.
“Dissatisfactory implementation of sanctioned compromise and arrangement for amalgamation or merger may lead to liquidation.” Examine the statement in relation to powers of Tribunal in terms of Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
A merger or amalgamation is a type of arrangement, whereby assets of two or more companies get transferred or come under control of one company. Basically, it is a legal process whereby two or more companies come together for growth, expansion and prosperity.

Section 230 enables companies to enter into a scheme of compromise and arrangement, whereas Section 231 empowers the Tribunal to sanction such schemes.

As per Section 231(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Tribunal has the power to supervise the implementation of any such scheme of compromise or arrangement.

The Tribunal may give directions or make such modifications in the compromise or arrangement as it may consider necessary, for the proper implementation of the compromise or arrangement.

As per Section 231(2), where the Tribunal is satisfied that the scheme could not be implemented even with modifications and the company is unable to pay its debts, the Tribunal may order winding-up of such company.

Thus, dissatisfactory implementation of any scheme of compromise or arrangement may lead to the winding-up or liquidation order passed by the Tribunal.

Question 4.
“Non-compliance or contravention of the requirements prescribed under the Companies Act, 2013 mid rules framed thereunder in framing or implementing the scheme of a compromise, arrangement involving transferor and transferee Companies may lead to prosecution.” Briefly explain.
Answer:
An application u/s 230 made to Tribunal for sanctioning a scheme of compromise, arrangement, must specify that the scheme involves merger or amalgamation of two or more companies.

Also, it shall specify the nature of the transaction, Le. transfer of whole or any part of the undertaking, assets, and liabilities of Transferor Company to the Transferee Company.

On receiving such details, the Tribunal may order a meeting of the creditors or members or class thereof. The meetings shall be called, held and conducted as per the Tribunal directions.
As per Section 232(3), the Tribunal has the power to issue directions for the smooth functioning of the scheme.

As per Section 232(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, if transferor company or transferee company contravenes the provisions of this section, it shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than ₹ 1 lakh but which may extend to ₹ 25 lakhs.

Further, in case of such contravention, every officer of such transferor or transferee company who is in default, shall be punishable with imprisonment up to one year or with fine of minimum of ₹ 1 lakh, but which may extend to 3 lakhs, or with both.

Hence, a thorough compliance needs to be undertaken in any proposal for a scheme of merger or amalgamation.

Question 5.
“Contracts entered into and in force need to be replaced by fresh contracts after merged or takeovers entities that have been integrated pursuant orders passed by Courts or Tribunals.” Do you agree?
Answer:
Mergers, amalgamations, acquisitions, takeovers or any other kind of corporate restructuring is undertaken for the purpose of expansion, growth or diversification of business.

However, corporate restructuring is much more than economic synergies, but it covers other intangible factors as well, such as corporate cultures, practices, policies, and environment etc.

Thus, timely integration of systems, applications and data provide the corporate information needed to achieve the post-merger objectives.

Post-merger reorganization includes the reorganization of each and every aspect of a company’s functional area for the purpose of achieving the planned objectives of takeover, amalgamation, merger or demerger.
Every scheme of merger and amalgamation is sanctioned by the Court or Tribunal.

Post-merger, transferor company is dissolved and all its assets and liabilities are transferred to the transferee company. Further, the companies shall also ensure that the contracts entered by the merging entity shall continue to be transferred in the name of merged entity.

However, other aspects in the contracts with a third party may require company to inform about merger or may give rise to other parties to terminate the contract.

Normally lease agreements, that contain fixed tenure may release the landlord from such restriction in the event of restructuring of lessee entity.

Further, the merged entity would need to check various rights and obligations mentioned in the contracts with third parties and should allocate teams to identify and ensure compliance of those requirements. In short, all existing contracts with its terms shall be reviewed.

Question 6.
In cases of takeovers or demergers, dissenting shareholders have a right to voice a grievance – enumerate briefly the procedure.
Answer:
‘Dissenting Shareholder’ includes a shareholder who has not assented (consented) to the scheme. He has voted against a scheme of compro¬mise or arrangement. However, dissenting shareholders have a right to be heard and express their reservations.

As per Sec. 230(4) of the Companies Act, 2013, in a scheme of com¬promise or arrangement, dissenting shareholders shall be members holding not less than 10% shares in value.

Similarly, as per section 235 of the Companies Act, 2013, the dissenting shareholders have been put at the limit of 10% of the value of the shares of the company.

In case of listed companies, SEBI considers even a single shareholder to initiate investigation for remedial action under SEBI (SAST) Regulations, 2011.

Dissenting shareholders- have been provided with an opportunity to approach Tribunal. If the price fixed is not acceptable, even a single shareholder can approach National Company Law Tribunal to seek clarification and justice.

Question 7.
Rama Khadi Industries Ltd. is a fully owned subsidiary of Karishma Gramudyog Ltd, a State Government Company. The State Govt took a policy decision to amalgamate the former with the latter. Illustrate briefly the steps to be taken in the matter.
Answer:
Section 237 of the Companies Act, 2013 empowers the Central Government to provide for amalgamation of companies in public interest.

As per Section 237(1), where the Central Govt, is satisfied that it is essential in the public interest that two or more companies should amalgamate, it may provide for the amalgamation of those companies into a single company through an order in Official Gazette. Further, the Central Govt shall specify the terms of such amalgamation in the order.

Post amalgamation, every member or creditor (incl. debenture holder), of Transferor Company, shall have the same rights against the Transferee Company. However, if such interest or rights are reduced, they are entitled to compensation, duly computed by a competent authority and payable to him by the Transferee Company.

The Central Govt shall pass an order u/s 237(1) after the following actions –

  • a draft copy of proposed order to be sent to each of the companies concerned;
  • ensure that the time limit for filing an appeal has expired, or such appeal has been disposed off by the Tribunal
  • the Central Govt may modify order u/s 237(1) based on objections received from concerned companies; and
  • The copies of every order shall be laid before each House of Parliament.

Further, Section 233 enables holding and wholly-owned subsidiary company to merge through a fast-track process. In the given case, Karishma Gramudyog may apply to amalgamate with Rama Khadi Industries through the route given under section 233.

Question 8.
XYZ Resources Ltd., a listed company, is in the process of merging into ABC Transactions Ltd., which is not a listed Company. As a Company Secretary, detail the additional aspects to be noted for the merger of XYZ Resources Ltd. and ABC Transactions Ltd. in terms of Companies Act, 2013 and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Regulations.
Answer:
A merger or amalgamation is a type of arrangement, whereby assets of two or more companies get transferred or come under control of one company. Basically, it is a legal process whereby two or more companies come together for growth, expansion and prosperity.

In a scheme of merger or amalgamation, where one or more companies are listed, compliance of SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 is mandatory.

In the given question, XYZ Resources Ltd. (listed company) is the Transferor Company and ABC Transactions Ltd. (unlisted company) is the Transferee company. Hence, any order of NCLT sanctioning the Scheme of Amalgamation does not automatically make the Transferee Company (ABC Transactions Ltd.) a listed company.

Further, XYZ Resources Ltd., being a listed company need to file the draft scheme with stock exchange well before filing it with the Tribunal to obtain No Objection or Observation Letter in compliance with SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015. The validity of such a “No Objection or Observation” Letter is six months and such letter need to be placed before the Tribunal considering the sanction of the Scheme.

The company shall file copies of notices, circulars, etc. issued concerning amalgamation with the Stock Exchange where the company is listed. Requirement of auditors’ certificate for accounting treatment under schemes of arrangement.

XYZ Resources Ltd. shall submit to the concerned stock exchange, an auditor’s certificate to the effect that the accounting treatment complies with all the applicable Accounting Standards.

Question 9.
The main purpose of a merger or acquisition is to achieve the expected financial results namely the earnings and cash flow. But there are certain other measures that serve as key indicators for measuring post-merger i efficiency. What are these key indicators?
OR
Question 10.
What are the key indicators that need to be measured apart from expected financial results such as earnings and cash flow to evaluate extent of success of merger?
Answer:
Different factors may be considered for making value judgments such as growth in profit, dividend, company’s history, and increase in size, base for growth, etc.

There are certain measures that serve as key indicators for measuring post-merger efficiency.

The indicators may be grouped as –

  1. Financial outcomes
  2. Revenues, cost, net working capital and capital investments
  3. Organizational structure such as customers, employees and operations
  4. Yielding financial and strategic objectives so intended and are not resulting in value leakage

There are broadly four possible reasons for business growth and expansion which is to be achieved by the merged company.

These are –

  1. Operating economies achieved due to large size of the combined entity. These economies may arise due to better utilization of production capacities, distribution network, engineering services, R&D, reduction in inventory levels, cost reduction etc.
  2. Financial economies are achieved in the form of income tax benefits, higher debt capacity, better bargaining power, and reduction of floating cost incurred in raising funds.
  3. Growth and diversification resulting in gaining competitive advantage and achieving a position of dominance in the market. Higher market share and risk reduction.
  4. Managerial effectiveness due to better infusion of expert and experienced manpower. The well-coordinated effort brings synergies.

Question 11.
“Due Diligence starts much before the process of restructuring and helps in better negotiation of deals, to handle taxation and stamp duty aspects in better manner, to minimise and resolve the human and cultural issues that may arise out of mergers/amalgamation etc.”. Discuss the statement in view of the fact that Due Diligence is considered as background check’.
Answer:
Due Diligence refers to the investigations made to gather all relevant facts and information that can influence a decision to enter into a transaction or not.

Due diligence is a duty of every party to the transaction. M&A due diligence helps to avoid litigation due to insufficient knowledge.

Due diligence is the process by which confidential, legal, financial and other material information is exchanged, reviewed and appraised by the parties to a business transaction, which is conducted prior to the transaction.

It is the analysis and risk assessment of a future business transaction. It is the careful and methodological investigation of a business or persons, or the performance of an act with a certain standard of care to ensure that information is accurate and to uncover information that may affect the outcome of the transaction.

Due diligence is a meaningful analysis of the collected information. In this process the financial and non-financial information of the Target Company is collected and analyzed, to arrive at a decision about the potential transaction.

Due diligence report should provide information and insight on aspects such as the risks of a transaction, the value at which a transaction should be undertaken, the warranties and indemnities that needs be obtained from the vendor, etc.

Hence, it is basically a “background check” to make sure that the parties to the transaction have the required information that is needed to proceed with the transaction.

Question 12.
Corporates encounter pitfalls in post-merger statutory approval due to certain common errors, that need to be taken care of. Try to point out certain errors that need to be taken care of.
OR
Question 13.
Enumerate the common mistakes made by the corporate leading to pitfalls in mergers and acquisition? ‘
Answer:
Mergers, amalgamations, acquisitions, takeovers or any other kind of corporate restructuring is undertaken for the purpose of expansion, growth or diversification of business.

However, corporate restructuring is much more than economic synergies, but it covers other intangible factors as well, such as corporate cultures, practices, policies, and environment etc.

Due to lack of planning and vision, various companies commit some common mistakes while handling post-merger integration –
(a) Ego problems on both sides – buyer and seller – have frequent frictions, resulting in clashes and the situation turns bad to worse. Hence, having distinct leadership may work out well.

(b) Attempt to hasten the integration between both the companies increases the chances of making serious errors. Sudden and radical changes such as relocating the company’s entire production operations should be carefully considered before implementation.

(c) Many buyers assert their ownership by moving quickly to convert the acquired company. This does not always work in the right direction.

(d) A cautious approach should be checked with competitor actions. Thus, while a company is focused on integration, it gives ample time for competitors to control the market.

(e) One of the most common and damaging mistakes is to lay off crucial employees from the acquired company. This is a very complicated, delicate matter and even the seller might not have an accurate idea as job titles can be misleading.

Question 14.
Is it possible for a shareholder to seek an amendment to exchange ratio embodied in the scheme while considering the resolution, put forth for approval? Support your answer with decided case law(s).
Answer:
A merger or amalgamation is a type of arrangement, whereby assets of two or more companies get transferred or come under control of one company.

The Tribunal shall convene and hold meetings of members and/or creditors for the purpose of passing resolutions for approval of the scheme. The members shall vote on the swap ratio computed by the Registered Valuer(s).

A shareholder attending, the meeting either can assent or dissent the resolution but cannot suggest any alteration in the scheme.

In the case of Dinesh Lakhani vs. Parke Davis (India) Ltd. it was held that the swap ratio forms an integral part of scheme of amalgamation.

The exchange ratio is a matter of expert determination. Hence, any change or alteration in the swap ratio shall invalidate the basis. Thus, a shareholder has no right to change the swap ratio or any other aspect of the scheme.

Question 15.
XYZ Ltd. and ABC Ltd. filed applications before National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for amalgamation of both the companies to form a new Company PQR Ltd. Regional Director by an affidavit pointed out the following inconsistencies in the application(s):
(a) Main objects of XYZ Ltd. sue not similar to that of ABC Ltd; and
(b) Authorized capital of PQR Ltd. is not sufficient to cover the total consideration.
As a Company Secretary, you are requested to brief the facts and background, along With the judicial precedents, to the counsel enabling him to proceed in the matter.
Answer:
As per section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013, an application shall be made to Tribunal for sanctioning a scheme of amalgamation.

The Tribunal has the power to sanction the scheme u/s 231 of the Companies Act, subject to approval in the shareholders’ meeting(s) and creditors’ meeting(s). The resolution shall be passed in the respective meeting through dual majority as given under section 230(6).

In the case of Sadanand Varde vs. State of Maharashtra, the High Court held that provisions relating to compromise, arrangement and amalgamations are a complete code. If a scheme of compromise or arrangement includes increasing share capital or reduction of share capital etc., it can be done as a part of the scheme, without complying i with specific provisions of the Act.

In other words, a scheme of compromise or arrangement is intended to be a single-window clearance system, so that the parties are not put to avoidable, unnecessary and cumbersome procedures of making separate applications for various changes.

Further, in the case of Rangkala Investments Ltd. it was held that Court will sanction the scheme if alteration of the memorandum is by reshuffling of the Objects Clause by shifting Other Objects to Main Objects as per procedure prescribed under the Act.

In the case of Mcleod Russel (India) Ltd. the High Court held that there need not be similarity between objects of Transferor and Transferee companies. Companies carrying entirely dissimilar businesses can amalgamate.

In the case of Mahavir Weaves Pvt. Ltd. it was held that the Transferee Company may increase its authorized capital, after approval of the scheme.

The Counsel in the matter can be briefed with the above judicial precedents to the objections or observations made by the Regional Director before the National Company Law Tribunal.

Question 16.
An Ltd. was a listed Company with Kanpur Stock Exchange hut got delisted in 2012. In the year 2017, the Board passed a resolution approving a scheme of arrangement and petitioned before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). Subsequent to that, scheme was placed before the members which the NCLT ordered. Two (2) shareholders holding 80% shares opposed the scheme. As a Company Secretary, advise the Board on the next course of action(s) pursuant to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
As per section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013, an application shall be made to Tribunal for sanctioning a scheme of amalgamation.

The Tribunal has the power to sanction the scheme u/s 231 of the Companies Act, subject to approval in the shareholders’ meeting(s) and creditors’ meeting(s). The resolution shall be passed in the respective meeting through dual majority as given under section 230(6).

As per section 230(6) of the Companies Act, 2013, compromise or arrangement would require approval by a majority of persons representing three-fourths (75%) in value of the creditors, or class of creditors or members or class of members, as the case may be.

Once the required approval is received in the members’ and creditors’ meeting, the scheme of compromise or arrangement shall be sanctioned by the Tribunal. Once the scheme is approved by the Tribunal, the same is binding on the company, all the creditors and members.

In the given case, the proposed scheme was opposed by two share¬holders holding 80% shares. Hence, it does not fulfil requirement of Section 230(6) and will not be approved by the Tribunal based upon the reports received from Scrutinizer and Chairman of the meeting.

Moreover, it is given that A Ltd. was delisted in 2012 and hence it was not required to submit the scheme with SEBI, so observations, if any, from SEBI or stock exchanges were not required.

The Board of ‘A’ Ltd. may review the said scheme of arrangement and prepare a revised scheme of arrangement considering the observations of shareholders, if any, and present it for shareholder’s approval upon NCLT directions.

Question 17.
“Consequent to restructuring, more particularly through mergers, amalgamations or takeovers, the management needs to be sensitive to employees’ morale”. Briefly comment on the validity of the statement.
Answer:
Mergers and amalgamations are a type of corporate restructuring strategies undertaken for the purpose of expansion, growth or diversification of business.

However, corporate restructuring is much more than, economic benefits, but it covers other intangible factors as well, such as corporate cultures, practices, policies, and environment etc.

A merger can join two cultures, two sets of procedures and protocols, two sets of policies and change the employment environment and prospects of several hundreds of employees, who have been the bedrock of past successes and the key to future value.

Companies need to be sensitive with regard to terms and conditions of employment specifically at senior levels in order to ward off high labour turnover.

Usually, Tribunal would uphold terms of employment to be no less favourable than existing terms and conditions. Post-acquisition, parent company may want the acquired to adopt compensation structure of the parent entity.

The Company needs to carefully handle such sensitive areas to ensure employee satisfaction and comfort, which pays in the long run in building an image apart from preventing or reducing employee turnout.

Usually, Tribunal would uphold terms of employment to be no less favourable than existing terms and conditions. Post-acquisition, parent company may want the acquired to adopt compensation structure of the parent entity.

The Company needs to carefully handle such sensitive areas to ensure employee satisfaction and comfort, which pays in the long run in building an image apart from preventing or reducing employee turnout.

At times, in support functions, allocation becomes a challenge for senior positions like CFO, HR Head, etc. A careful planning is needed to avoid overlapping, underutilization.

Question 18.
What Is the Purpose of observation letter Issued by Stock Exchange(s) under SEBI (Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015?
Answer:
A merger or amalgamation is a type of arrangement, whereby assets of two or more companies get transferred or come under control of one company. Basically, it is a legal process whereby two or more companies come together for growth, expansion and prosperity.

In a scheme of merger or amalgamation, where one or more companies are listed, compliance of SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 is mandatory.

As per Regulation 37 of SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, a listed entity involved in a scheme of arrangement shall under file the draft scheme of arrangement with the stock exchange(s).

Such scheme shall be filed with the stock exchange for obtaining its Observation Letter or its No-objection Certificate (NOC) (letter with the comments of the stock exchange and SEBI on the draft scheme), before filing such scheme with any Tribunal, in terms of requirements specified by the Board or stock exchange(s) from time to time.

The listed entity shall place the Observation letter or No-objection letter of the stock exchange(s) before the Tribunal at the time of seeking approval of the scheme of arrangement.

The validity of the Observation Letter or NOC shall be six months.

Question 19.
As a Company Secretary, one should advise the Board regarding compliances under various legislations. Referring the cases of mergers or amalgamations, state the circumstances that warrant compliances under any or all of such legislations.
Answer:
A merger or amalgamation is a type of arrangement, whereby assets of two or more companies get transferred or come under control of one company. Basically, it is a legal process whereby two or more companies come together for growth, expansion and prosperity.

The entire responsibility is on the Company Secretary to ensure compliance of various legislations. In case of merger or amalgamations, the following legislations are required to be looked into for the purpose
of compliances –

  • The Companies Act, 2013 (Sections 230 – 240)
  • National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016
  • Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamations) Rules, 2016
  • Income-tax Act, 1961 (Income-tax Act, 1961 covers aspects like tax reliefs to the concerned companies, carry forward of losses, exemptions from capital gains tax etc.)
  • SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 (Where scheme of arrangement involves a listed company, it is necessary to send a copy of the scheme to Stock Exchanges where the shares of such company are listed to obtain their No Objection Certificate)
  • Competition Act, 2002 – compliance with the Competition Act, and Competition Commission of India (CCI) Regulations relating to Combinations
  • Indian Stamp Act, 1899
  • The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – as a part of resolution plan
  • FEMA (Cross Border Merger) Regulations, 2018 – for international mergers.

Question 20.
A scheme of Merger of Happy Limited with Lucky Pvt. Ltd. was filed with the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). The Regional Director raised objections that the additional filing fees and stamp duty on the increased share capital of the Lucky Pvt. Ltd. is to be paid and also against the changing name of the transferee company, for not complying with Section 61 of the Companies Act, 2013. Will the objection of the Regional Director hold good? Explain.
Answer:
As per section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013, an application shall be made to Tribunal for sanctioning a scheme of amalgamation. The Tribunal has the power to sanction the scheme u/s 231 of the Companies Act, subject to approval in the shareholders’ meeting(s) and creditors’ meeting(s).

In the case of Sadanand Varde vs. State of Maharashtra, the High Court held that provisions relating to compromise, arrangement and amalgamations are a complete code. Thus, a scheme of compromise or arrangement is intended to be a single-window clearance system, so that the parties are not put to avoidable, unnecessary and cumbersome procedures of making separate applications for various changes.

As per Section 232(3), where the Transferor Company is dissolved, the stamp duty fees, paid by it on its authorized capital shall be set off against any fees payable by the Transferee Company on its authorized capital subsequent to the amalgamation. After a merger or amalgamation, the authorised share capital of Transferor and Transferee company could be clubbed and additional fees may not be required to be paid.

In the case of Jaypee Cement vs. Jayprakash Industries Ltd. it was held that where the authorized share capital of the Transferor Company is combined with that of the Transferee Company, it does not require the payment of registration fee or the stamp duty because there is no reason why the same fee should be paid again by the Transferee Company on the same authorized capital.

In other words, where the Transferor Company is dissolved, the fees, paid by it on its authorized capital shall be set off against any fees payable by the Transferee Company on its authorized capital subsequent to the amalgamation.

Question 21.
M/s Happy Exports Limited was merged with M/s Smart Exports Limited. The order passed by High Court was filed with the Registrar of Companies (ROC). But the same was not taken on record by ROC. Will the scheme still be effective?
Answer:
As per section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013, an application shall be made to Tribunal for sanctioning a scheme of amalgamation. The Tribunal has the power to sanction the scheme u/s 231 of the Companies Act, subject to approval in the shareholders’ meeting(s) and creditors’ meeting(s).

As per Section 230(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, the sanction order of the Tribunal shall be filed with Registrar of Companies (ROC), within 30 days of the receipt of the order.

The compliance of Section 230(8), requires filing of the Tribunal order with the ROC and it does not specify the need for Registrar to register it. In other words, the order becomes effective only by filing the same with the ROC, within the time frame.

The ROC is bound to register the certified copy of the Tribunal order which is filed by the company. Therefore, if the company files the Tribunal Order sanctioning the scheme of amalgamation or merger with the Registrar of Companies then the scheme becomes effective.

Question 22.
The Tribunal can modify transfer date proposed in a scheme of amalgamation.
Answer:
Section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013 enables a company to enter into scheme of compromise and arrangement, whereas Section 231 empowers the Tribunal to sanction such schemes.

As per Section 23 1(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Tribunal has the power to supervise the implementation of any such scheme of compromise or arrangement.

The Tribunal may give directions or make such modifications in the compromise or arrangement as it may consider necessary, for the proper implementation of the compromise or arrangement.

Appointed Date or Transfer Date is the cut-off date from which all properties and liabilities are required to be transferred from the Transferor Company to the Transferee Company. As per Section 232(6), the appointed date must be clearly stated in the scheme of amalgamation.

In case of Marshall Sons & Co. Ltd. v. Income Tax Officer, the Supreme Court observed that it is true that while sanctioning the scheme, it is open to the Tribunal to modify the transfer date if there is little doubt that such date would be the date of amalgamation or date of transfer.

Hence, based on the above legal provisions and decided case law, we can say that the Tribunal has the power to modify the Transfer Date proposed in a scheme of amalgamation.

Question 23.
Narrate the conditions precedent and subsequent to Tribunal’s order sanctioning a scheme of arrangement.
Answer:
Section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013 enables a company to enter into scheme of compromise and arrangement, whereas Section 231 empowers the Tribunal to sanction such schemes.

As per Section 231(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Tribunal has the power to supervise the implementation of any such scheme of compromise or arrangement.

Following are the conditions, precedent and subsequent to Tribunals order sanctioning a scheme of arrangement –
(a) As per Section 230(3) the Tribunal shall instruct the company to send notice of the meetings to all members, creditors, or class thereof. The notice shall be accompanied by a statement disclosing the details of compromise/arrangement, copy of valuation report if any.

(b) As per Section 230(6), approval of the creditors and members or class thereof, is needed by simple majority in number and 3/4th majority in race

(c) After the Tribunal convened meeting and submission of Chairman’s report, the company shall file a petition to the Tribunal for sanctioning the scheme.

(d) Upon receipt of petition, the Tribunal shall fix a date for hearing of the petition. Such hearing date shall be published in newspapers, as above, at least 10 days before the hearing. After the hearing, the Tribunal may pass its order on the scheme.

(e) Where the company is under winding-up, the Tribunal shall not sanction a scheme of arrangement unless it has received a report from the Registrar of Companies to the effect that the affairs of the company have not been conducted in a manner prejudicial to public interest.

(f) Where the company is being dissolved, the Tribunal shall not an order for dissolution of a Transferor Company unless it has received a report from the Official Liquidator that the affairs of such company have not been conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interests of its members or to public interest.

(g) A certified copy of Tribunal order is required to be filed with the concerned ROC within 30 days of the receipt of the order. The Tribunal order shall be attached to the Memorandum Association of the Transferee Company.

Question 24.
Ludhiana Berry Ltd. has proposed merger of Jalandhar Berry Ltd. with itself. The merger scheme has been approved by 76% shareholders of Ludhiana Berry Ltd. and 98% shareholders of Jalandhar Berry Ltd. (in value terms). Explain with the help of relevant provisions and decided cases, whether this will be binding on all the shareholders (including dissenting shareholders).
Answer:
Section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013 enables a company to enter into scheme of compromise and arrangement, including merger and amalgamation.

As per Section 230(6), where 3/4th majority (in value) and simple majority in number of the creditors or members or any class thereof, agree to any compromiše or arrangement, it shall be binding on the company, all creditors, members or class thereof, if sanctioned by Tribunal.

The scheme must be approved by a resolution passed with the extraordinary majority, Le. a simple majority in number of members, creditors and representing 3/4th in value.

Thus, simple majority in number and not less than 75% in value present and voting at the meeting must approve the scheme. Hence, there is dual majority, Le. in number and in value.

In the given case, the merger scheme has been approved by 76% shareholders of Ludhiana Berry Ltd. and 98% shareholders of Jalandhar Berry Ltd. (in value terms).

However, the information is incomplete about the number of members present and voted in favour and against the resolution. Hence, in the given case, the data is insufficient to decide whether the requisite majority is achieved. In the absence of requisite majority u/s 230(6), the scheme shall not be approved.

Corporate Restructuring Insolvency Liquidation & Winding-Up Notes

Transfer Pricing – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Transfer Pricing – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Zonik Inc of Canada holds 35% shares of Gama India Ltd. imports 2000 units of product X from Zonik Inc Canada at a price of ₹ 1,500 per unit and these are sold to Sunil Regency Ltd. at a price of ₹ 1,700 per unit. Gama India Ltd. has bought similar products from Ronak India Ltd. and sold them to Vijay Ltd. at a gross profit of 14% on sales. Zonik Inc Canada offers a quantity discount of ₹ 15 per unit whereas Ronak India Ltd. does not offer such a quantity discount. Gama India Ltd. incurred freight of ₹ 10 per unit and customs duty of ₹ 30 per unit in case of purchases made from Zonik Inc Canada.

On the basis of these facts explain the method which would be applicable for the determination of Arm’s Length Price (ALP) under Income-tax Act, 1961.

Determine the Arm’s Length Price on the basis of the method as found to be applicable and also determine the effect on the net Profit/Income of Gama India Ltd. (assuming that there is no advance pricing agreement) in the scenario discussed above.
Answer:
Determination of Arm’s Length Price on basis of Resale Price Method and its effect on the income of Gama India Ltd.

Particulars Amount (₹)
Resale Price of goods purchased from Zonik Inc. Canada (per unit) 1,700
Less-. Normal Gross Profit Margin @ 14% on? 1,700 per unit (238)
Less: Expenses connected with purchases (Freight and customs duty ie. ₹ 10 + ₹ 30) (40)
Less: Quantity discount allowed by Zonik Inc. Canada (15)
Arm’s Length Price per unit 1,407
The price paid to Zonik Inc. Canada per unit 1,500
Excess price paid per unit (₹ 1,500 – ₹ 1,407) 93
Increase in income of Gamma Ltd. (₹ 93 × 2,000 units) 1,86,000

Question 2.
State with reasons, whether Jackson LLC, (incorporated in Japan) and Vijayshree Ltd. a domestic company, are/can be deemed to be associated enterprises for the transfer pricing regulations in the following independent situations:

(a) Jackson LLC. has advanced a loan of ₹55 crores to Vijayshree Ltd. on 12th January 2019. The total book value of assets of Vijayshree Ltd. is ₹100 crores. The market value of the assets, however, is ₹140 crores. Vijayshree Ltd. repaid ₹10 crores before 31st March 2019.

(b) Total value of raw materials and consumables of Vijayshree Ltd. is ₹800 crores. Of this, Jackson LLC supplies to the tune of ₹740 crores, at prices mutually agreed upon once in six months and depending upon the market conditions.
Answer:
(a) Jackson LLC (a foreign company, has an advanced loan of ₹55 crores to Vijayshree Ltd., a domestic company, which amounts to 55% of the book value of assets of Vijayshree Ltd. Since the loan advanced by Jackson LLC is not less than 51 % of the book value of assets of Vijayshree Ltd., Jackson LLC, and Vijayshree Ltd. are deemed to be associated enterprises for the purpose of transfer pricing regulations. The deeming provision would be attractive even if there is a repayment of loan during the same previous year which brings down its percentage below 51%.

(b) The Jackson LLC supplies 92.50% (₹740 crore/₹800 crores × 100) of the raw material and consumables required by Vijayshree Ltd. which is more than the specified threshold limit of 90%, however, Jackson LLC and Vijayshree Limited are not deemed to be associated enter¬prises since the price of supply is not influenced by Jackson LLC but is mutually agreed upon once in six months depending upon prevailing market conditions.

Question 3.
A Ltd., a US company has a subsidiary B Ltd. in India. An Ltd. sells Laptops to B Ltd. for resale in India. A Ltd. also sells laptops to C Ltd., another reseller. It sells 40,000 Laptops to B Ltd. at ₹ 10,000 per unit. The price fixed for C Ltd. is ₹ 9,000 per unit. The warranty in case of sale of laptops by B Ltd. is provided by B Ltd. However, for laptops sold by C Ltd., A Ltd. is responsible for providing a service warranty for 3 months. Both A Ltd. and B Ltd. offer an extended warranty at a standard rate of ₹ 1,000 per annum. On the basis of these facts explain the method which can be applied for the determination of arm’s length price. Also, determine the effect on the net profit/income of B Ltd. (Assuming that C Ltd. has not entered into an advance pricing agreement) in the scenario discussed above. Determine the arm’s length price also.
Answer:
A Ltd. the foreign company and B Ltd., the Indian Company are associated enterprises since A Ltd. is the holding company of B Ltd. A Ltd. sells laptops to B Ltd. for resale in India. A Ltd. also sells identical laptops to C Ltd., which is not an associated enterprise. The price charged by A Ltd. for similar products transferred in the comparable uncontrolled transactions is, therefore, identifiable. Therefore, the Comparable Uncontrolled Price (CUP) method for determining Arm’s Length Price (ALP) can be applied.

For the sale of laptops by C Ltd., A Ltd. is responsible for the warranty of 3 months. The price charged by A Ltd. from C Ltd. includes the charge for warranty for 3 months. Hence, Arm’s Length Price for laptops being sold by A Ltd. to B Ltd. and its effect on the total income of B Ltd. would be determined as follows:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Sale price charged by A Ltd. from C Ltd. 9,000
Less. Cost of warranty included in the price charged to C Ltd. (₹ 1,000 × 3/12) (250)
Therefore, Arm’s Length Price (ALP) 8,750
Actual Price paid by B Ltd. to A Ltd. 10,000
Difference per unit 1,250
No. of units supplied by A Ltd. to B Ltd. 40,000
Addition required to be made in the computation of total income of B Ltd. (₹ 1,250 × 40,000 units) 5,00,00,000

Notes:

  1. No deduction under chapter VI-A would be allowable in respect of the enhanced income of ₹ 5,00,00,000.
  2. Arm’s Length Price is to be adopted as adopting it would mean an increase in total income, (ie. if the purchase price for B Ltd. of ₹10,000 is replaced by ₹ 8,750, the purchase price would decrease by ₹ 1,250 per unit, and accordingly, income shall increase by ₹ 1,250 p.u. Hence adjustment for the same is required to the existing total income of B Ltd.)

Question 4.
ABC Ltd. Is a foreign subsidiary company of XYZ Ltd. sells refrigerators to ABC Ltd. at a price of 10,000 each for sale to Its dealers in Singapore. In other States, XYZ Ltd. is directly selling to their dealers at 12,000 with a warranty of one year ( ₹ 500 for each fridge). ABC Ltd. does not offer such a warranty. Quantity sold to ABC Ltd. Is 8,000 units and to dealers of XYZ Ltd. Is 3,000 units. Discuss the method to be applied to arrive at the arm’s length price and compute the ALP. How is the assessment of XYZ Ltd. going to be affected?
Answer:
ABC Ltd. and XYZ Ltd. are associated enterprises as ABC Ltd. is a subsidiary of XYZ Ltd. Comparable product (refrigerator) is sold to dealers (Uncompaiable transactions). Hence in given circumstances, the Comparable Uncontrolled Price (CUP) method for determining Arm’s Length price can be applied.
Arm’s Length Price and its effect on total Income can be determined as follows:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Sale price charged to dealers by XYZ Ltd. 12,000
Less Cost of warranty included in the price (500)
Arm’s Length Price as per CUP method 11,500
Actual sale price of XYZ Ltd. to ABC Ltd. i.e. Transfer Price 10,000
Difference per unit 1,500
No. of units sold by XYZ Ltd. to ABC Ltd. 8,000
Addition required to be made in the computation of total income of XYZ Ltd. ( 1,500 per unit × 8,000 units) 12,00,000

Notes:
1. No deduction under Chapter VI-A would be allowable in respect of the enhanced income of ₹ 12,00,000.
2. Arm’s Length Price is to be adopted as adopting it would mean an increase in total income. (Le. if the sale price for XYZ Ltd. of ₹ 10,000 is replaced by ₹ 11,500, the sale price would increase by ₹ 1,500 per unit, and accordingly, income shall increase by ₹ 1,500 p.u. Hence adjustment for the same is required to the existing total income of XYZ Ltd.)

Question 5.
What do you mean by ‘transfer pricing’? Explain its importance and benefits.
Answer:
Transfer Price means the value or price at which transactions take place amongst related parties. It is the price at which an enterprise transfers physical goods and intangible property and provides services to associated enterprises. It is used in accounting for the transfer of goods or services from one responsibility center to another or from one company to another associated company. It affects the revenue of transferring division and the cost of receiving division. As a result, the profitability, return on investment and managerial performance evaluation of both divisions are also affected. The transfer pricing mechanism is very important and beneficial due to the following reasons:

1. Helpful Incorrect pricing of Products/Services: An effective transfer pricing mechanism helps an organization incorrectly pricing of its products and services. Since, in any organization, the transaction between associated parties occurs frequently, it is necessary to value all transactions correctly so that the final product/service may be priced correctly.

2. Helpful in Performance Evaluation: For the performance evaluation of any entity, it is necessary that all economic transactions arc accounted. Calculation of correct transfer price is necessary for accounting of inter-related transactions between two associated enterprises.

3. Helpful In complying with Statutory Legislation: Since related party transaction has a direct bearing on the profitability or cost of a company, the effective transfer pricing mechanism is very necessary. For example, if the related party transactions are measured at less value, one unit may incur loss and another unit may earn undue profit. This will result in income tax imbalances at both party’s end.

Transfer pricing is also helpful in checking the practice of tax evasion.

Question 6.
Discuss the meaning of ‘associated enterprises’ as defined wider section 92A.
Answer:
Associated Enterprises ‘AE’ has been defined in Section 92A of the Act. It prescribes that HSiated enterprises, in relation to another enterprise, means an enterprise

(i) which participates, directly or indirectly, or through one or more intermediaries, in the management or control or capital of the other enterprise; or
(ii) in respect of which one or more persons who participate, directly or indirectly, or through one or more intermediaries, in its management or control or capital, are the same persons who participate, directly or indirectly, or through one or more intermediaries, in the management or control or capital of the other enterprise.

The basic criterion to determine an AE is the participation in management, control or capital (ownership) of one enterprise by another enterprise whereby the participation may be direct or indirect or through one or more intermediaries, control may be direct or indirect.

Question 7.
Discuss the meaning of the term ‘deemed associated enterprise’ as defined under section 92A(2).
Answer:
Two enterprises shaLl he deemed to be associated enterprises if, at any time during the previous year, any of the conditions prescribed below are satis1ed. Section 92A(2) enlists 13 situations in which two enterprises shall be deemed to be associated enterprises as follows:

(i) one enterprise holds, directly or indirectly, shares carrying not less than twenty-six percent of the voting power in the other enterprise;
or

(ii) any person or enterprise holds, directly or indirectly, shares carrying not less than twenty-six percent o the voting power in each of such enterprises; or

(iii) a loan advanced by one enterprise to the other enterprise constitutes not less than fifty-one percent of the book value of the total assets of the other enterprise; or

(iv) one enterprise guarantees not less than ten percent of the total borrowings of the other enterprise; or

(v) more than half of the board of directors or members of the governing board, or one or more executive directors or executive members of the governing board of one enterprise, are appointed by the other enterprise; or

(vi) more than half of the directors or members of the governing board, or one or more of the executive directors or members of the governing board, of each of the two enterprises, are appointed by the same person or persons; or

(vii) the manufacture or processing of goods or articles or business carried out by one enterprise is wholly dependent on the use of know-how, patents, copyrights, trademarks, licenses, franchises or any other business or commercial rights of similar nature, or any data, documentation, drawing or specification relating to any patent, invention, model, design, secret formula or process, of which the other enterprise is the owner or in respect of which the other enterprise has exclusive rights; or

(viii) ninety percent or more of the raw materials and consumables required for the manufacture or processing of goods or articles carried out by one enterprise, are supplied by the other enterprise, or by persons specified by the other enterprise, and the prices and other conditions relating to the supply are influenced by such other enterprise; or

(ix) the goods or articles manufactured or processed by one enterprise, are sold to the other enterprise or to persons specified by the other enterprise, and the prices and other conditions relating thereto are influenced by such other enterprise; or

(x) where one enterprise is controlled by an individual, the other enterprise is also controlled by such individual or his relative or jointly by such individual and relative of such individual; or

(xi) where one enterprise is controlled by a Hindu undivided family, the other enterprise is controlled by a member of such Hindu undivided family or by a relative of a member of such Hindu undivided family or jointly by such member and his relative; or

(xii) where one enterprise is a firm, association of persons or body of individuals, the other enterprise holds not less than ten percent interest in such firm, an association of persons or body of individuals; or

(xiii) there exists between the two enterprises, any relationship of mutual interest, as may be prescribed.

Question 8.
Explain In the following cases whether the entitles shall be deemed to be ‘associated enterprisés’ under section 92A(2):
(i) Run India Ltd. has 12 directors on its Board, out of which 6 directors are appointed by Race Ltd.
(ii) Cane UK Ltd. possesses 25% of the voting power In Bane (India) Pvt. Ltd.
(iii) Joy India’s total borrowings amounted to ₹1000 crore, out of which a guarantee has been given by Chapple India Ltd., for borrowing of ₹ 400 crores.
Answer:
(i) Two enterprises shall be deemed to be Associated Enterprises if more than half of the directors or members of the board of one enterprise are appointed by another enterprise. In the given case: – Race Ltd. has appointed only half (6 out of 12) of the directors on the Board of Run India Ltd. Thus, both are not Associated Enterprises.

(ii) Two enterprises shall be deemed to be Associated Enterprises, if one enterprise holds, directly or indirectly, shares carrying not less than twenty-six percent of the voting power in the other enterprise. In the given case, the volume of voting power possessed by Cane UK Ltd. in Bane (India) Pvt. Ltd. is less than 26%, thus they are not Associated Enterprises.

(iii) Two enterprises shall be deemed to be Associated Enterprises if one enterprise guarantees not less than ten percent of the total borrowings of the other enterprise; Here, as the percentage of borrowings guaranteed by Chapple India Ltd. is 40% ( 400 crores out of 1000 crore) is more than the prescribed limit thus, Joy India Ltd. and Chapple India Ltd., are deemed to be Associated Enterprises.

Question 9.
Brat Inc. of U.K. holds 9% shares in Pit Ltd. of India. The total book value of Assets of Pit Ltd. is ₹ 57,25,000. Brat Inc. of U.K. has given a loan to Pit Ltd. of ₹ 30,00,000. Examine whether Brat Inc. and Pit Ltd. are associated enterprises.
Answer:
Two enterprises shall be deemed to be Associated Enterprises if a loan advanced by one enterprise to another constitutes not less than 5196 of the j book value of total assets of another enterprise.
In the given case: – Total book value of Pit Ltd. is ₹57,25,000 51% of ₹57,25,000 = ₹29,19,750
Loan given by the UK company = ₹ 30,00,000
Since, the loan amount is more than 51% of the book value of the total assets of the Indian company, Brat Inc. and Pit Ltd. are deemed to be Associated Enterprises.

Question 10.
Coco Ltd. supplied consumables and raw material of 300 crores to Parrot Ltd. Total consumables and raw materials consumed by Parrot Ltd. was 400 crores. Examine whether Coco Ltd. and Parrot Ltd. are associated enterprises.
Answer:
Two enterprises shall be deemed to be Associated Enterprises, if, 90% or more of the raw materials and consumables required for the manufacture or processing of goods or articles carried out by one enterprise, are supplied by the other enterprise, or by persons specified by the other enterprise, and the prices and other conditions relating to the supply are influenced by such other enterprise.

Here, Coco Ltd. supplied 75% of the raw material (i.e. raw material worth ₹ 300 crores out of ₹ 400 crores) to Parrot Ltd. Therefore, Coco Ltd. and Parrot Ltd. would not be associated enterprises.

Question 11.
What are the ‘specified domestic transactions’ which are subject to transfer pricing provisions?
Answer:
Section 92BA, has been added in Transfer Price Code by Finance Act, 2012 which provides that “Specified domestic transaction” in case of an assessee means any of the following transactions, not being an international transaction, namely:
(i) Any expenditure in respect of which payment has been made or is to be made to a person referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 40A;

(ii) Any transaction referred to in section 80A;

(iii) Any transfer of goods or services referred to in sub-section (8) of section 80-IA;

(iv) Any business transacted between the assessee and another person as referred to in sub-section (10) of section 80-IA;

(v) Any transaction, referred to in any other section under Chapter VI-A or section 10AA, to which provisions of sub-section (8) or sub-section (10) of section 80-IA are applicable; or

(vi) Any other transaction as may be prescribed, and where the aggregate of such transactions entered into by the assessee in the previous year exceeds a sum of twenty crore rupees. Thus, a specified domestic transaction means a transaction that is covered by criteria as given in section 92BA and the aggregate value of such transactions exceeds ₹ 20 crores in a year.

Question 12.
Discuss the factors to be considered by the Assessing Officer while selecting the appropriate transfer pricing method.
Answer:
Factors to be considered by the Assessing Officer while selecting an appropriate transfer pricing method are as under:

  1. The nature and class of the international or Specified Domestic Transaction.
  2. The class or classes of Associated Enterprises entering into the transactions and the functions performed by them taking into account assets employed or to be employed and risk assumed by each enterprise.
  3. The availability, coverage, and reliability of data are necessary for the application of the method.
  4. The degree of comparability existing between the International transaction or Specified Domestic Transaction and the uncontrolled transaction, and between the enterprises entering into such transaction.
  5. The extent to which reliable and accurate adjustments can be made to account for differences, if any, between the International or Specified Domestic Transaction and the comparable uncontrolled transactions or between the enterprises entering into such transactions.
  6. The nature, extent, and reliability of assumptions are required to be made in the application of the method.

Question 13.
Explain the consequences that would follow if the Assessing Officer makes an adjustment to the Arm’s Length Price (ALP) in International transactions of the assessee resulting In an Increase In total income. What are the remedies available to an assessee to dispute such adjustment made by the AO?
Answer:
In case the Assessing Officer makes an adjustment to Arm‘s Length Price ALP’ in an international transaction which results in an increase in the taxable income of the assessee, the following consequences shall follow:

  1. No deduction under section 1 OAA or Chapter VI-A of Income-tax Act, 1961 shall be allowed from the income so increased.
  2. No corresponding adjustment would be made to the total income of the other associated enterprise (in respect of payment made by the assessee from whom tax has been deducted or is deductible at source) on account of an increase in the total income of the assessee on the basis of the arm’s length price so recomputed.

The remedies available to the assessee to dispute such an adjustment are:

  1. In case the assessee is an eligible assessee under section 144C of Income-tax Act, 1961, he can file his objections to the variation made in the income within 30 days [of the receipt of draft order by him] to the Dispute Resolution Panel and Assessing Officer. Appeal against the order of the Dispute Resolution Panel can be made to the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal.
  2. In any other case, he can file an appeal under section 246A of Income-tax Act, 1961 to the Commissioner (Appeals) against the order of the Assessing Officer within 30 days of the date of service of notice of demand.
  3. The assessee can opt to file an application to the Commissioner of Income-tax for revision under section 264 of Income-tax Act, 1961 of the order of the Assessing Officer.

Question 14.
When can uncontrolled transactions be taken as compared to international transactions? Which data can be used for the comparability of an uncontrolled transaction with an international transaction?
Answer:
As per rule 10B(3). the uncontrolled transactions can be taken as compared to international transactions only if

(a) none of the differences, if any, between the transactions being compared, or between the enterprises entering into such transactions are likely to materially affect the price or cost charged or paid in, or the profit arising from, such transactions in the open market; or

(b) Reasonably accurate adjustments can be made to eliminate the material effects of such difference.

If the differences are material and the adjustments cannot be made, the transaction cannot be taken as a comparable transaction, then such transaction shall be ignored.

Further, as far as possible the internal comparable (Le. transactions entered into by the associated enterprise with the unrelated party) should be selected as these will provide more reliable and accurate data as compared to external comparable data Le. (transaction with third parties).

As per rule IOB(4), the data to be used in analyzing the comparability of an uncontrolled transaction with an international transaction shall be the data relating to the financial year in which the international transaction has been entered into.
However, data relating to a period not being more than 2 years prior to such a financial year may also be considered if such data reveals facts that could have an influence on the determination of transfer prices in relation to the transactions being compared.

Question 15.
(i) What Is the Role of Transfer Pricing Officer In the matter of reference made by the Assessing Officer u/s 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
(ii) is It possible for the Assessing Officer to pass the assessment order without considering the Arm’sLength Price determined by the Transfer Pricing Officer?
Answer:
(i) As per the provision of section 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, where a reference is made by the Assessing Officer, the role of Transfer Pricing Officer is detailed as below:

  1. Transfer Pricing Officer shall serve a notice to the Assessee requiring him to produce the evidence in support of computation made by him in respect of Arm’s Length Price in relation to an International Transaction or specified domestic transaction.
  2. Transfer Pricing Officer after considering the evidence, information or documents as produced by Assessee and after considering such evidence as he may require on any specified points and after taking account all relevant materials which he has gathered, shall, by order in writing, determine the arm’s length price in relation to the international transaction or specified domestic transaction and send a copy of his order to the Assessing Officer for computation of total income of the assessee and also to the Assessee.
  3. With a view to rectifying any mistake apparent from the record, the Transfer Pricing Officer may amend any order passed by him and in such an event send a copy of the amended order to the Assessing Officer for re-assessment.

(ii) No, it is not possible for the Assessing Officer to pass the assessment order without considering the Arm’s Length Price determined by the Transfer Pricing Officer. As per Section 92(CA)(4), on receipt of the order from the Transfer Pricing Officer, the Assessing Officer shall proceed to compute the total income of the assessee in conformity with the arm’s length price as determined by the Transfer Pricing Officer.

Question 16.
What is the Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) under section 92CC of the Income-tax Act, 1961? Discuss and explain the validity and the binding nature of APA.
Answer:
Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) as per section 92CC is an agreement entered into between a taxpayer and a taxing authority (Board) on an appropriate transfer pricing methodology for fixing the arm’s length price ‘ALP’ for a set of transactions over a fixed period of time in future.

The Advance Pricing Agreement shall be valid for a period as specified in the Advance Pricing Agreement. However, this period will not be more than 5 consecutive previous years.

Advance Pricing Agreement shall be binding on:
(a) the person in whose case, and in respect of the transaction in relation to which, the agreement has been entered into; and
(b) on the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, and the income-tax authorities subordinate to him, in respect of the said person and the said transaction.

However, the advance pricing agreement shall not be binding if there is a change in law or facts having bearing on the agreement so entered into.

Question 17.
Rule 10MA(2)(i) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 postulates that the rollback provision in the context of transfer pricing shall apply in respect of an international transaction that is the same as the international transaction to which the agreement (other than the rollback provision) applies. What is the meaning of the word “same”? Also discuss whether this restriction also applies to the Functions, Assets, Risks (FAR) analysis.
Answer:
The International transaction for which a rollback provision is to be allowed should be the same as the one proposed to be undertaken in the future years and in respect of which the agreement has been reached. There cannot be a situation where rollback is finalized for a transaction that is not covered in the agreement for future years. The term “same international transaction” implies that the transaction in the rollback year has to be of the same nature and undertaken with the same associated enter-prise^), as proposed to be undertaken in the future years and in respect of which the APA has been reached.

In the context of FAR analysis, the restriction would operate to ensure that rollback provisions would apply only if the FAR analysis of the rollback year does not differ materially from the FAR validated for the purpose of reaching an agreement in respect of international transactions to be undertaken in the future years for which the agreement applies.

The word “materially” is generally being defined in the Advance Pricing Agreements being entered into by CBDT. According to this definition, the word “materially” will be interpreted consistently with its ordinary definition and in a manner that a material change of facts and circumstances would be understood as a change that could reasonably have resulted in an agreement with significantly different terms and conditions.

Question 18.
Bharani Exports Ltd. (BEL), has an SEZ unit in the 8th year of its operation. 90% of its export sales are to Lovely LLC of the USA, which has guaranteed the loan of ₹ 100 crores taken by BEL. Export sales turnover for the year is ₹300 crore. There are no DTA sales. The Assessing Officer, after examination of the records, concluded that the assessee BEL had failed to maintain proper records of the international transactions, computed the I ALP, and made an addition of ₹32 lakhs to the income returned. He also j proposes to levy the penalty. The assessee seeks your advice on the proposed action of the AO. Advise suitably.

Can the assessee claim deduction under section 10AA in respect of the addition of ₹32 lakhs made on account of transfer pricing adjustments?  BEL has not entered into an Advance Pricing Agreement (APA).
Answer.
The action of the Assessing Officer in making an addition to the declared income and issuing show-cause notice for levy of various penalties is correct since BEL had committed various defaults, as briefed hereunder, in respect of which penalty, is imposable.

  1. Failure to report any international transaction or any transaction, deemed to be an international transaction or any specified domestic transaction, to which the provision of Chapter-X applies would attract penalty @ 200% of the amount of tax payable since it is a case of misreporting of income referred under section 270A(9) read with section 270A(8).
  2. Failure to maintain required records as required under section 92D in relation to the international transactions shall be subject to penalty u/s 271AA @ 2% of the value of each international transaction.
  3. Failure to furnish a report from an accountant as required under section 92E makes it liable for penalty under section 271BA of ₹ 1 Lakh. The Assessing Officer shall give an opportunity of being heard to the assessee with a notice as to why the arm’s length price should not be determined on the basis of material or information or documents in the possession of the Assessing Officer. The assessee cannot claim deduction u/s 1OAA in respect of the additions of ₹32 lakhs made the AO on account of transfer pricing adjustments.

Question 19.
Discuss in brief a few benefits derived from the Safe Harbour Rules, relating to the transfer pricing regulations.
Answer.
Benefits derived from Safe Harbour Rules are as under:

  1. Compliance Simplicity: Safe Harbour Rules tend to substitute requirements in place of existing regulations, thereby reducing compliance burden and associated costs for eligible taxpayers, who would otherwise be obligated to dedicate resources and time to collect, analyze and maintain extensive data to support their inter-company transactions.
  2. Certainty and Reduce litigation: Electing Safe Harbours may grant a greater sense of assurance to taxpayers regarding the acceptability of their transfer price by the authorities without onerous audits. This conserves administrative and monetary resources for both the taxpayer and tax administration.
  3. AdminIstrative Simplicity: Since Tax administration would be required to carry out oni a minimal examination in respect of taxpayers opting for safe harbors; they can channelize their efforts to examine more complex and high-risk transactions and high-risk transactions and taxpayers.

Transfer Pricing Notes

  • Concept of “Transfer Price” and “Arm’s Length Price (ALP)”
  • Meaning of “Associated Enterprises”
  • Meaning of “International Transaction”
  • Transfer Pricing: applicability to domestic transactions – in case of Specified Domestic Transactions (SDT) where the aggregate of such transactions entered into by the assessee in the previous year exceeds ₹ 20 crores.
  • Methods of computing Transfer Price/Arm’s Length Price:
  • Comparable Uncontrolled Price (CUP) Method
  • Resale Price Method
  • Cost Plus Method
  • Profit Split Method
  • Transaction Net Margin Method (TNMM)
  • Criteria for selection of most appropriate transfer pricing method
  • Reference to Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO)
  • Concept of “Advance Pricing Agreement” (APA) and its basic provisions.
  • “Documentation” for Transfer Pricing
  • Concept of “Safe Harbour Rules” and its benefits
  • Various Penalties for contravention of transfer pricing provisions.

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Secretarial Audit – Fraud Detection and Reporting – Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence Important Questions

Secretarial Audit – Fraud Detection and Reporting – Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence Important Questions

Question 1.
Analyse the differences between Fraud and Non-compliance.
Answer:
Fraud vs. Non Compliance:
Fraud: As defined in Explanation to section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013, the “fraud” in relation to affairs of a company or anybody corporate, includes any act, omission, concealment of any fact or abuse of position committed by any person or any other person with the connivance in any manner, with intent to deceive, to gain undue advantage from, or to injure the interests of, the company or its shareholders or its creditors or any § other person, whether or not there is any wrongful gain or wrongful loss. In general the fraud can be defined as act or course of deception, an intentional concealment, omission, or perversion of truth to :

  • gain unlawful or unfair advantage.
  • induce another to part with some valuable item or surrender a legal right.
  • inflict injury in some manner.

Non-Compliance : The term non-compliance refers to failure to comply with the laws, rules regulations etc. It is commonly used in regard to a failure to meet the compliance requirements or failure to doing compliance be it the failure in following procedures, filing of information, eligibility conditions, reporting etc.

The relationship between the Fraud and the non-compliance can be constructed as the non-compliance in the company may lead to a fraud how ever it may also be noted that the fraud can also be made in the compliant company.

Question 2.
A fraud is punishable offence whereas the non-compliance also attracts the penalties. Differentiate between the two concepts i.e. Fraud and Non-Compliance.
Answer:
Authors’ Comment for Answer See December 2019 Paper

Question 3.
Write Short note on: “Disclosures in the Board’s Report related to Fraud”.
Answer:
The following details of each of the fraud reported to the Audit Committee or the Board during the year to be disclosed in the Board’s Report:

  1. Nature of fraud with description.
  2. Approximate amount involved.
  3. Parties involved, if remedial action not taken.
  4. Remedial actions taken.

Question 4.
What is the procedure for reporting of frauds by auditor involving amount more than INR 1 crore?
Answer:
If an auditor of a company in the course of the performance of his duties as statutory auditor has reason to believe that an offence of fraud which involves or is expected to involve individually an amount of rupees one crore or above is being or has been committed against the company by its officers or employees in that case the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government (CG).

The Auditor should report such frauds as soon as possible but not later than 62 days of knowledge about the frauds and the step by step procedure of the same is as below:

1. Report to Board/Audit Committee: Auditor shall forward his report to the board of directors or the audit committee, as the case may be, immediately but not later than 2 (two) days of his knowledge of the fraud seeking their reply or observations within 45 (forty-five) days.

2. Report to Central Government:
(a) After reply of Board/Audit Committee as the case may be: On receipt of such reply or observations the auditor shall forward his report and the reply or observations of the Board/Audit Committee along with his comments to the Central Government (CG) within 15 fifteen days of receipt of such reply or observations.

(b) If no reply received: In case the auditor fails to get any reply or observations from the board or the audit committee within the stipulated period of forty five days then he shall forward his report to the Central Government (CG) along with a note containing the details of his report that was earlier forwarded to the board or the audit committee for which he failed to receive any reply or observations within the stipulated time.

Question 5.
What kinds of transactions involve Fraud?
Answer:
Fraud has been noticed in many cases of scams in the following kinds of transactions in the past time which are pointed below :

  1. Related Party Transactions.
  2. Excessive Managerial remuneration.
  3. Insider Trading.
  4. Inter Company transactions.
  5. Mergers/demergers/acquisitions.
  6. IPO frauds.

In addition to above, other means of Corporate fraud are the inadequate disclosures, false or misleading information, theft of assets, false expenses, corruption, theft in formation, fraudulent applications, misuse of assets, dishonest business partners, fraudulent billing.

Question 6.
Write note on: Fraud Vs. Non-Compliance.
Answer:
“Fraud”:
The term fraud can be defined as act or course of deception, an intentional concealment, omission, or perversion of truth to gain unlawful or unfair advantage, induce another to part with some valuable item or surrender a legal right or inflict injury in some manner.

“Non-compliance”:
The term non-compliance refers to failure to comply with the laws, rules regulations etc., the term non-compliance is commonly used in regard to a failure to meet the compliance requirements or failure to doing compliance be it the failure in following procedures, filing of information, eligibility conditions, reporting etc.

In nutshell, the relationship between the Fraud and the non-compliance can be constructed as the non-compliance in the company may lead to a fraud however it may also be noted that the fraud can also be made in the compliant company.

Question 7.
Define Speculation?
Answer:
1. The term “Speculation” is defined as act of trading in an asset or conducting a financial transaction that has a significant risk of losing most or all of the initial outlay with the expectation of a substantial gain.

2. With speculation, the risk of loss is more than offset by the possibility of a huge gain, otherwise there would be very little motivation to speculate.

3. Indian capital markets have tilted towards speculative instruments having implications of a high level of speculative trading activity compared to investment activity.

Example: Foreign Exchange Market, Bond Market, Stock Market and specially the derivatives segment which comprises of futures and options contracts which is typically used by brokerages and high net worth individuals to bet on the direction of the markets.

Question 8.
What kinds of transactions relating to Company formation and management may be considered as the suspicious transactions which may or may not be with the group companies where the detailed audit is required to be performed?
Answer:
The following transactions relating to company formation and management may be considered as the suspicious transactions which may or may not be with the group companies, where the detailed audit is need to be performed are:

  1. Subsidiaries which have no apparent purpose.
  2. Companies which continuously make substantial losses.
  3. Complex group structures without cause.
  4. Uneconomic group structures for tax purposes.
  5. Frequent changes in shareholders and directors.
  6. Unexplained transfers of significant sums through several bank ac¬counts.
  7. Use of bank accounts in several currencies without reason.
  8. Purchase of companies which have no obvious commercial purpose.
  9. Sales invoice totals exceeding known value of goods.
  10. Makes unusually large cash payments in relation to business activities which would normally be paid by cheques, banker’s drafts etc.
  11. Transferring large sums of money to or from overseas locations with instructions for payment in cash.

Question 9.
Write short note on: “Situations when investigation into the affairs of a company is assigned to Serious Fraud Investigation Officer”?
Answer:
Investigation into the affairs of a company is assigned to SFIO where Government is of the opinion that it is necessary to investigate into the affairs of a company:

  1. On receipt of a report of the registrar or inspector under section 208 of the Companies Act, 2013.
  2. On intimation of a special resolution passed by a company that its affairs are required to be investigated.
    In the public interest.
  3. On request from any department of the Central Government or a State Government.

Question 10.
List ten early warning signals of Fraud Detections?
Answer:
Following are ten early warning signals of Fraud Detections:

  1. Bouncing of high value cheques.
  2. Delay observed in payment of outstanding dues.
  3. Frequent change in the scope of the project to be undertaken by the borrower.
  4. Default in undisputed payment to the statutory bodies as declared in the Annual report.
  5. Invoices without TAN and other details.
  6. Dispute on title of collateral securities.
  7. Heavy cash withdrawal in loan accounts.
  8. Non-production of original bills for verification upon request.
  9. High value RTGS payment to unrelated parties.
  10. Substantial increase in unbilled revenue year after year.

Question 11.
Who is considered as an Auditor for Fraud Reporting?’
Answer:
An auditor for Fraud Reporting includes:
1. Statutory Auditors of the company appointed under section 139 of the Companies Act, 2013.

2. Company Secretary in practice conducting Secretarial Audit under section 204 of the Companies Act, 2013.

3. Cost Accountant in practice conducting cost audit under section 148 of the Companies Act, 2013 and the Branch Auditors appointed under section 139 of the Companies
Act, 2013.

Note : The Internal Auditor or such other professionals appointed under any other statutes rendering other services to the company such as a tax auditor appointed under Income-tax Act, GST auditors appointed under the respective GST legislations are not covered under Section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence ICSI Study Material

Forming an Opinion and Reporting – Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence Important Questions

Forming an Opinion and Reporting – Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence Important Questions

Question 1.
Is there a need to obtain a Management Representation Letter from the Auditee Company?
Answer:

  1. The auditor may obtain a management representation letter from the auditee company on matters which are not capable of direct verification by the Auditor.
  2. The letter may be signed by Managing Director/Company Secretary/ Senior Management who would normally have authority to issue the same.
  3. The format may be adopted with changes, depending on the circum stances and facts governing every audit.
  4. The Auditor can use this letter of representation as part of his audit r evidence. However, it is advised to exercise all possible care, reasonable skill & due diligence.
  5. Adequate enquiries should be made in respect of matters which are capable of direct verification. Mere getting certification or written representation from management may defeat the purpose of the audit.
  6. However, it is advised to exercise all possible care, reasonable skill & due diligence. Adequate enquiries should be made in respect of matters which are capable of direct verification. Mere getting certification from management may defeat the purpose of the audit.

Therefore, there is need to obtain a Management Representation Letter from the Auditee Company.

Question 2.
What do you mean by an unqualified/unmodified opinion by an auditor?
Answer:
The Auditor shall express an unmodified opinion when based on Audit Evidence, the Auditor concludes that:

  1. there is due compliance with the applicable laws in terms of timelines and process; and
  2. the records as relevant for the audit verified by him as a whole are free from misstatement and maintained in accordance with the applicable laws.

Question 3.
“The Auditor while performing audit shall consider materiality while forming his opinion and adhere few principles.” In light of the given statement discuss those principles?
Answer:
Information is considered as material if its omission or misstatement could influence the opinion of the Auditor. Materiality can also be construed in terms of net impact. The Auditor while performing audit shall consider materiality while forming his opinion and adhere few principles as discussed below:

  1. The principle of completeness that requires the Auditor to consider all relevant Audit Evidence before issuing a report;
  2. The principle of objectivity that requires the Auditor to apply professional judgment and professional skepticism in order to ensure that all reports are factually correct and that findings or conclusions are presented in a relevant and appropriate manner;
  3. The principle of timeliness that implies preparing the report in due time; and
  4. The principle of a contradictory process that implies checking the accuracy of facts and incorporating responses from concerned persons.

Question 4.
Give five examples of the matters which should be considered as Emphasis of matter?
Answer:
Following are five examples of the matters needed to be considered as Emphasis of Matter:

  1. An uncertainty relating to the future outcome of exceptional litigation or regulatory action;
  2. In case of uncertainty about exceptional future events, pending litigations
  3. Early adoption of new accounting standards
  4. Adoption of New Technology.
  5. Recent Changes in the Regulatory Environment.

Question 5.
“The third party reporting may be based on the assurance on factual information for which the auditor should adhere to few points while forming an opinion based on third party reports or opinion.” Discuss those points as referred in the given statement?
Answer:
The third party reporting may be based on the assurance on factual information for which the auditor should adhere to few points while forming an opinion based on third party reports or opinion. The Auditor should adhere to the following while forming an opinion based on third party reports or opinions:

  • The Auditor should indicate the fact of use of third-party report or opinion and should also record the circumstances necessitating the use of third-party report or opinion.
  • The Auditor should indicate the fact if third-party report or opinion is provided by the Auditee.
  • The Auditor should consider the important findings/observation of third-party.
  • When necessary and feasible, the auditor should carry out a supplemental test to check veracity of the third party report or opinion.

Question 6.
List out the procedures to be performed for the purposes of the audit where the information produced by company as Audit Evidence is sufficient and appropriate?
Answer:
On consideration of the information informed by the company as Audit Evidence, the auditor should evaluate whether the information is sufficient and appropriate for purposes of the audit by performing procedures to:

  • Test the accuracy and completeness of the information, or test the controls over the accuracy and completeness of that information; and
  • Evaluate whether the information is sufficiently precise and detailed for the purposes of the audit.

Question 7.
What are pre-requisite for the reporting?
Answer:
Pre-requisite for the Reporting: An Audit report should be:

  1. Accurate : Free from errors and distortions and faithful to the under-lying facts.
  2. Objective : Fair, impartial, and unbiased and is a result of a fair minded and balanced assessment of all significant and relevant information.
  3. Clear : Effortlessly understanding resulting in avoidance of unnecessary technical language and providing all significant and relevant information.
  4. Concise : To the point avoid unnecessary elaboration, superfluous detail, redundancy, repetitiveness and wordiness.
  5. Constructive : Helpful to the engagement client and the organization and leads to improvements where needed.
  6. Complete : Missing nothing that is essential to the target audience and includes all significant and relevant information and observations to support recommendations and conclusions.
  7. Timely : The reporting on timely basis give management time to take proper corrective actions.

Question 8.
Write short note on: “Auditors’ Responsibility”.
Answer:
1. The auditor’s report should include a section with the heading “Audi-tor’s Responsibility”.

2. The Auditor’s report shall state that the responsibility of the auditor is to express the opinion on the compliance with the applicable laws and maintenance of records based on audit.

3. If any, the auditor’s report shall also state that the audit was conducted in accordance with applicable standard.

4. The auditor’s report shall also explain that those standards require that the auditor should comply with statutory and regulatory requirements and plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance about compliance with applicable laws and maintenance of records.

5. Auditor’s Report should state that due to the inherent limitations of an audit including internal, financial and operating controls, there is an unavoidable risk that some material misstatements or material non-compliances may not be detected, even though the audit is properly planned and performed in accordance with the standards.

Question 9.
What are the different stages of communication and discussion in Audit Process?
Answer:
Different stages of communication and discussion discussed as under:
1. Preliminary Draft: At the conclusion of fieldwork, the auditor should draft the report and present it to the entity’s management for auditee’s comments.

2. Exit Meeting: The auditor should discuss with the management the findings, observations, recommendations, and text of draft and obtain their comment on the draft, achieve consensus and reach an agreement on the audit findings.

3. Formal Draft: The auditor should prepare a formal draft, in view of the outcome of the exit meeting and other discussions. Upon review of such changes by the auditor and the management, the final report should be issued.

4. Final Report: The report should be submitted to the appointing authority or such members of management, as directed.

Question 10.
Write short note on: “Signing of Audit Report”.
Answer:
1. The auditor’s signature is either in the name of the audit firm, the personal name of the auditor or both as appropriate for the particular jurisdiction.

2. In addition to the auditor’s signature in certain jurisdictions, the auditor may be required to declare in the auditor’s report the auditor’s professional accountancy designation or the fact that the auditor or firm as appropriate has been recognized by the appropriate licensing authority in that jurisdiction.

3. In case of PCS firm, the secretarial audit report may be signed by the partner who conducted or under whose supervision the secretarial audit was conducted indicating his FCS/ACS number along with his certificate of practice number.

4. Further, the secretarial audit report cannot be signed by an employee of the PCS firm even if he/she may be a member of the ICSI holding certificate of practice number.

Question 11.
Write detailed note on: “Reporting with qualification”.
Answer:
1. Explanation of Qualification in Reporting in Board Report: As per Section 134(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, the board of directors in its report prepared shall provide an explanation in full on any qualification or observation or other remarks made by the company secretary in practice in the Secretarial Audit Report.

2. Qualification remark in bold and italics: A qualification, reservation or adverse remarks, if any, should be stated by the auditor at the relevant places in his report in bold type or in italics.

3. In case auditor not able to express an opinion: If the auditor is unable ‘ to express an opinion on any matter, he should mention that he is unable to express an opinion on that matter and the reasons there for.

4. In case of Limitations: If the scope of work required to be performed is restricted on account of restrictions imposed by the company or on account of circumstantial limitations, the report should indicate such limitations.

If such limitations are so material that the Auditor is unable to express any opinion, the Auditor should state that in the absence of necessary information and records, he is unable to report on compliance(s) relating to such areas by the Company.

Question 12.
Write short note on following:
i. Qualified Opinion;
ii. Adverse Opinion;
iii. Disclaimer of Opinion:
Answer:
i. Qualified Opinion:
An Opinion can be considered as a qualified opinion when the auditor specifically provides the additional paragraph or points out the specific instances where the company has failed to do compliance as required or provides reasons for the not issuing the unqualified report on the affairs of the company.

ii. Adverse Opinion:
An Opinion can be considered as an adverse opinion which is considered as the out of track opinion wherein the auditor concluded that the affairs of the company are not in line with its objectives, government rules, and the company has neglected and grossly misstated its records. An adverse opinion may be an indicator of fraud that forces entities to receive an adverse opinion to take corrective measures.

iii. Disclaimer of Opinion:
Where the auditor is unable to access the records of the company on any grounds such as geographical reasons, regulatory, natural calamity or could not complete the audit due to absence of requisite records or insufficient cooperation from-management, the auditor issues a disclaimer of opinion.

Disclaimer of opinion is an indication that no opinion was formed by the auditors and the Auditor was not able to conclude that the affairs of the company are conducted in true and fair manner such disclaimer of opinion is not considered as an opinion itself.

Question 13.
List situations in which the auditor should express modified opinion.
Answer:
Following are List of Situations in which the auditor should, express modified opinion : The Auditor should express modified opinion in following situations as discussed below:
1. When the Auditor concludes that based on the Audit Evidence obtained, there is non-compliance with the applicable laws in terms of timelines and process; or

2. When the Auditor concludes that based on the Audit Evidence obtained, the records as a whole are not free from material misstatement; or are not maintained in accordance with applicable laws; or

3. When the Auditor concludes that he is unable to obtain sufficient and appropriate Audit Evidence to conclude that there is due compliance with the applicable laws in terms of timelines and process; or

4. When the Auditor concludes that he is unable to obtain sufficient and appropriate Audit Evidence to conclude that the records as a whole are free from material misstatement; or are maintained in accordance with applicable laws; or

5. When the auditor has reasons to believe that the affairs of the company are not free from material misstatement.

Question 14.
List situations in which the auditor should express an unmodified opinion when based on Audit Evidence.
Answer:
Following are List of Situations in which the auditor should express unmodified opinion : The Auditor should express unmodified opinion in following situations as discussed below:
1. Based on Audit Evidence when the Auditor concludes that there is due compliance with the applicable law in terms of timelines and process; and

2. Based on Audit Evidence when the Auditor concludes that the records as relevant for the audit verified by him as a whole are free from misstatement and maintained in accordance with applicable laws.

3. Based on Audit Evidence when the Auditor concludes that information on the affairs of the company in all material respects are in accordance with the applicable reporting framework.

Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence ICSI Study Material

Audit Process and Documentation – Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence Important Questions

Audit Process and Documentation – Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence Important Questions

Question 1.
State the general guidelines for preparing Audit Working Papers.
Answer:
Following are general guidelines for preparation of Audit Working Papers:

  1. The working papers must be in logical order.
  2. The working papers must be initialled and dated properly.
  3. The working papers must be kept at safe place.
  4. The working papers should be accurate and complete.
  5. The working papers must be legible.
  6. The working papers must be in summarized form of the results of work performed.
  7. The working papers must be easy to understand.
  8. The working papers must depict clear picture of work performed.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of Audit Working Papers?
Answer:
Following are significance of Audit Working Papers:

  1. Assisting the engagement team to plan and perform the audit.
  2. Assisting members of the engagement team responsible for supervision to direct and supervise the audit work and to discharge their review responsibilities.
  3. Enabling the engagement team to be accountable for its work.
  4. Retaining a record of matters of continuing significance to future audits.
  5. Enabling the conduct of external inspections in accordance with applicable legal, regulatory or other requirements.

Question 3.
What do you understand by Audit Programme?
Answer:
An audit programme is a set of instructions which are to be followed for proper execution of audit.

  1. The audit programme contains the measures that are generally employed to determine what, and how much evidence must be collected and evaluated.
  2. Audit programmes may be laid down in advance for the whole year for some aspects of the audit which auditor expects to be audited after regular intervals of time or when needed.
  3. Audit programme contains step by step instructions to be carried out by team members.
  4. Audit programmes are prepared on the basis of audit plan usually by the auditor who is signing the Audit Report of the company.

Question 4.
What is Audit Programme? State its advantages.
Answer:
“Audit Programme”:

  • An audit programme is a set of instructions which are to be fol-lowed for proper execution of audit.
  • The audit programme contains the measures that are generally employed to determine what, and how much evidence must be collected and evaluated.
  • Audit programmes may be laid down in advance for the whole year for some aspects of the audit which auditor expects to be audited after regular intervals of time or when needed.
  • Audit programme contains step by step instructions to be carried out by team members.
  • Audit programmes are prepared on the basis of audit plan usually by the auditor who is signing the Audit Report of the company.

Advantages of Audit Programmes:

  • It serves as a ready checklist of audit programme to be performed.
  • It is useful for the audit assistants in carrying the audit work but also for the principal too as he would be in a position to account for the individual responsibilities.
  • It is useful basis for planning the programme for the following year.
  • It is used as evidence by the auditor in the event when any charge is brought against him.
  • It is in uniformity of the work can be attained as the same programme would be followed from time to time.
  • The proper allocation to the audit assistants or the article clerks.
  • It is useful fonauditor for easily knowing the extent of work done at any point of time.

Question 5.
Explain the need of Audit Working Papers?
Answer:
The needs for working papers are:

  1. They aid in the planning and performance of the audit.
  2. They aid in the supervision and review of the audit work and to review the quality of work performed, in accordance with AAS 17 “Quality Control for Audit Work”.
  3. They provide evidence of the audit work performed to support the auditor’s opinion.
  4. They document clearly and logically the schedule, results of test, etc.
  5. The working papers should evidence compliance with technical standards.
  6. They document that internal control has been appropriately studied and evaluated.
  7. They document that the evidence obtained and procedures performed afford a reasonable basis for an opinion.
  8. They retain a record of matters of continuing significance to future audits of the entity.
  9. The process of preparing sufficient audit documentation contributes to the quality of an audit.
  10. They enable an experienced auditor to conduct quality control reviews in accordance with Statement on Peer Review issued by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India.

Question 6.
During the Secretarial Audit of the Company, auditors found various reports of expert. Some reports comprise technical details about the plant and project including assessment. Write the note on the reliability of the said reports.
Answer:
Dependence on the Report of Other Expert by the Secretarial Auditor:
Where the secretarial auditor is planning to use the work of an expert, the auditor should evaluate the professional competence of the expert. This will involve considering the expert’s professional certification or licensing by, or membership in, an appropriate professional body and experience and reputation in the field in which the auditor is seeking audit evidence.

For example, for building structure related compliance, a civil engineer is considered as the expert; for aviation related compliance, the aeronautical engineer is considered as expert and so on. The auditor should evaluate the objectivity of the expert. The risk that an expert’s objectivity will be impaired increases when the expert is employed by the entity or is related in some other manner to the entity.

Question 7.
Short Note on: “Execution of Audit”.
Answer:
“Execution of Audit”:
The Effective Audit Execution is based on the Audit plan and the efficiency of the Audit team and it covers the following actions:

  1. Sampling of various transactions or items.
  2. Sampling for testing of controls.
  3. Identification of events.
  4. Performing controls testing procedures.
  5. Performing analytical procedures.
  6. Sampling for substantive test of details.
  7. Performing substantive test of details.
  8. Review of working papers.
  9. Managements’ Discussion on Draft Report.

Question 8.
Short Note on: “Board Composition”.
Answer:
Board Composition: The Auditor should go through the following points while conducting the audit:
1. Board of directors:

  • Composition and category of directors (e.g. promoter, executive, non-executive, independent non-executive, nominee director, etc.
  • Attendance of each director at the meeting of the board of directors and the last annual general meeting.
  • Number of other board of directors or committees in which a directors is a member or chairperson.
  • Number of meetings of the board of directors held and dates on which held.
  • Disclosure of relationships between directors inter se.
  • Number of shares and convertible instruments held by non-executive directors.
  • Web link where details of familiarization programme imparted to independent directors is disclosed.

2. Audit Committee:

  • Brief description of terms of reference;
  • Composition, name of members and chairperson;
  • Meetings and attendance during the year.

3. Stakeholder Relationship Committee:

  • Brief description of terms of reference;
  • Meeting and attendance during the year;
  • Composition, name of members and chairperson;

4. Nomination and Remuneration Committee:

  • Brief description of terms of reference;
  • Composition, name of members and chairperson;
  • Meeting and attendance during the year;
  • Performance evaluation criteria for independent directors.

Question 9.
Difference between: Audit Plan and Audit Programme?
Answer:
Following are distinction between Audit Plan and Programme:
Audit Plan:
Audit Plan lays down the audit strategies to be followed for conducting an audit such as identifying the areas where special audit consideration and skills.necessary to obtain the knowledge of business etc.

Plan cover the following:

  • Acquiring knowledge of accounting systems, policies and internal control procedures.
  • Establishing the expected degree of reliance to be placed on the internal control.
  • Determining the nature, timing and extent of the audit pro-cedures to be performed.
    Co-ordinating the work to be done.

Audit Programme:
1. Audit programme is an outline of how the audit is to be done, who is to do what work and within what time.

2. It lays down the following audit procedure to be followed:

  • Evaluation process
  • Ascertaining accuracy
  • Verification of Document
  • Scrutiny of supporting Documents
  • Checking of overall disclosure and presentation of all items in the audit completion
  • Preparation and submission of audit report

Question 10.
What steps taken by company for ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws?
Answer:
Following steps to taken by company for ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws:
1. For ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws the company should have a documented inventory of every applicable law, regulation, contractual obligation and any other form of compliance requirement which needs to comply.

2. For ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws the company should publish its compliance policy which should be supported by standards, procedures, and guidelines.

3. For ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws the company should exchange e-mails with legal/compliance team, functional heads, compliance officers and others with information on compliance obligations and skills concerning compliance matters in the information security context.

4. For ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws the company should share related agendas, minutes or notes of meetings with those people on related matters.

5. For ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws the company should place Internal reports concerning applicable compliance obligations, ideally with evidence that management is actively engaged in assessing the extent to which compliance is needed and aware of the risks of non-compliance.

6. For ensuring the compliance of the applicable laws the company should conduct Compliance assessment/review/audit reports, noting the content, form, distribution, status.

Question 11.
List the items included in Working Papers.
Answer:
The working papers must include:

  1. Planning documents and audit programs.
  2. Internal control questionnaires, flowcharts, checklists and narratives.
  3. Notes and minutes resulting from interviews.
  4. Organizational data, such as charts with job descriptions, process chart.
  5. Copies of important documents.
  6. Information about operating and financial policies.
  7. Results of control evaluations.
  8. Letters of confirmation and representation.
  9. Analysis and test of transactions, processes.
  10. Results of analytical review procedures.
  11. Audit reports and management responses.
  12. Audit correspondence that documents the audit conclusions reached.

Question 12.
Write Short Note on: “Inclusion of Documents in Standard set of Working Papers”.
Answer:
A standard set of working papers will include at least the following documents:
General File:

  • The General File contains key information through the various phases of the audit including planning, reporting process, audit programs and comments for the next audit.
  • The General File will include the draft and final reports.
  • The Audit responses will also be included in the file.

Work paper File:

  • This file should contain the detailed audit procedures and detailed audit working, papers.
  • The detailed audit procedures provide detailed audit steps of the audit work to be performed during fieldwork that will achieve the specific audit objectives outlined in the audit program.

Future Audit Considerations:

  • Auditors are encouraged to develop and document future audit ideas during the course of their work.
  • For this inclusion of “comments for next audit” section of the general file.

Question 13.
Write Short Note: “Audit Trail”.
Answer:
“Audit Trail”:

  1. Audit Trail is a repository of administrative and operational documentation relating to audit process.
  2. Audit Trail is established and maintained to aid in audit planning and to centralize available documentation and information not included in the individual audit files.
  3. An index should be developed and placed in the front of the permanent file indicating the documents contained, date included in file and auditor’s initials.

Question 14.
Write Short Note: “Working Paper Review”.
Answer:
“Working Paper Review”:

  1. The auditor should review all audit review notes to be certain that all notes have been resolved within the working papers.
  2. The documentation obtained and not relevant to the audit should be returned/destroyed upon the completion of the audit.
  3. The Working Paper Review will consist of:
  4. Determining compliance with working paper guidelines.
  5. Reviewing the audit program that outlines the major objectives of the audit and ensure that the procedures accomplish the objective.
  6. Reviewing the audit procedures and the referenced working papers to ensure the working papers support the procedures performed and all procedures have been completed.
  7. Determine that the working papers adequately document the conclusions reached in the report.
  8. Ensuring that all findings prepared have been discussed with the appropriate member of management, and that the disposition of the audit concerned is documented.
  9. Documenting review notes.

Question 15.
Write Short Note: “Board Processes”,
Answer:
“Board Processes”:
1. To ensure the effective board processes the auditor should also observe the requirement of the secretarial standards during the Audit along with the

  • Disclosure,
  • Eligibility,
  • Level of expertise,
  • Involvement of the directors in decision making etc.

2. The Board of directors as an institution plays a prominent role in corporate governance. It is responsible for directing and overseeing the business and management of the company.

3. The role of the Board of Directors (BODs) are considered as fiduciaries in that they are required to act in the interest of various constituencies in a company such as shareholders and other stakeholders.

4. The Secretarial Standard-1 helps in providing clarity in certain areas where the law is either silent or ambiguous.

However, wherever the law is silent certain good governance practices have been recommended and where it is ambiguous, the standards try to bring in more clarity and
adhere the common board processes across country.

Question 16.
Write short note: “Audit Questionnaire”.
Answer:
“Audit Questionnaire”:
1. Questionnaire is a comprehensive series of questions concerning internal control.

2. Questionnaire is used for collecting information about following attributes of internal control in an organisation:

  • Existence,
  • Operation and
  • Efficiency.

3. An advantage of the Audit Questionnaire is that the oversight or omission of significant internal control review procedures is less likely to occur with this method.

4. With a proper questionnaire, all internal control evaluation can be completed at one time or in sections.

5. The questionnaire is annually issued to the client and the client is requested to get it filled by the concerned executives and employees.

6. The questionnaire form provides an orderly means of disclosing control defects.

7. It is the general practice to review the internal control system annually and record the review the detail.

8. Generally questions are so framed that a ‘Yes’ answer denotes satisfactory position and a ‘No’ answer suggests weakness in the Audit Questionnaire. In addition to this, the provision is made for an explanation or further details of ‘No’ answers. In respect of questions not relevant to the business, ‘Not applicable’ reply is given.

9. If on a perusal of the answers, inconsistencies or apparent incongruities are noticed the matter is further discussed by auditors with the client for a clear picture and accordingly the auditor prepares a report of deficiencies and recommendation for improvements.

Question 17.
List ten documents which should be placed in the Permanent File and Current File separately?
Answer:
Following Ten documents required to be placed in the Permanent File:
1. Statutory Documents.

2. The rules and regulations of the company:

  • Memorandum of Association.
  • Articles of Association.
  • Certificate of Incorporation/Commencement of Business.
  • Registration documents under various statutory bodies.

3. Copies of documents of continuing importance and relevance to the auditor:

  • Letter of engagement and Board Resolution for appointment of the auditor.
  • Record of communication with the retiring auditor.
  • Royalty Agreement/Technical collaboration.
  • Copies of important legal documents/contracts.

4. The Company’s registered office address and all other units/ premises, with a short description of the work carried on at such places.

5. An outline history of the organization.

6. Analysis of significant ratios and trends.

7. List of all holding, subsidiary and associate companies.

8. Notes on internal control with Details of study & evaluation of internal controls in the form of narrative record, questionnaires or flow charts etc.

9. List of books and records maintained by the company and place of their location. Names, positions, specimens of signatures and initials of persons responsible for books and document should also be included.

10. List of the company’s advisors such as bankers, merchant bankers, stockbrokers, solicitors, valuer, insurance brokers etc.

Following Ten documents required to be placed in the Current File:

  • Appointment letter for the Current Year, along with the defined scope of Audit.
  • Extracts of important board/management meetings.
  • List of responsible persons with their designation and contact details.
  • Secretarial Audit Report/Financial Audit Report for Current year as well as previous year.
  • Actions initiated by company towards Secretarial Auditor’s ob-servations and suggestions in previous years reports.
  • Audit Plan/Audit Program.
  • Current year’s Secretarial Records.
  • Communications with the company/management team.
  • Letters of representations, confirmations received from company.
  • Audit review points and highlights of analysis.

Secretarial Audit Compliance Management and Due Diligence ICSI Study Material

Indian Equity – Non – Fund Based – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Indian Equity – Non – Fund Based – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Question 1.
Write notes on: Employees’ Stock Purchase Scheme
Answer:
Definition:
As defined in SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014, Employees’ Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS) is a means a scheme under which

A company offers shares to employees, as part of public issue or otherwise, or through a trust where the trust may undertake secondary acquisition for the purposes of the scheme.

Eligible Employee:

  • Permanent employee (India or outside India).
  • Director whether Whole Time Director or not (excluding independent director).
  • An employee of a subsidiary in India or Outside India or of a holding company.

Ineligible Employee:

  • An independent director.
  • Employee should neither be a promoter nor belongs to the promoter group.
  • A director who either by himself or through his relatives or through body corporate directly or indirectly holds more than 10% of the outstanding equity shares of the company cannot participate as he is not eligible to participate in the scheme.

Question 2.
Write note on : Employee stock option.
Or
Write note on: Employee Stock Option Scheme (ESOS)
Answer:

  • As defined in SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014, “Employee Stock Option Scheme” means a scheme under which a company grants employee stock option directly or through a trust.
  • As defined under section 2(37) of the Companies Act, 2013: “Employee Stock Option” means the option given to directors, officers or employees of a company or companies, if any which gives such directors officers or employees, the benefit or right to purchase or to subscribe for the shares of the company at a future date at a predetermined price.

Important Points to be noted for “Employee Stock Option”:

  • Issue of stock option is subject to approval by shareholders through a special-resolution.
  • Minimum period of one year between grant of option and its vesting has been prescribed.
  • Operation of stock-option shall be under the superintendence and direction of a compensation committee of the Board of Directors comprising independent directors in majority.
  • Stock-option may be made available to employee of subsidiary company with the approval of shareholders.

Question 3.
Write note on: “Sweat equity shares”.
Or
Explain the following: “Sweat Equity Shares”.
Answer:
Definition of “Sweat Equity Shares”: As per Section 2(83) of the Com-panies Act, 2013: “Sweat equity shares” means such equity shares as are issued by a company to its directors or employees at a discount or for consideration other than cash for providing their know-how or making available rights in the nature of intellectual property rights or value additions by whatever name called.

Governing provisions of “Sweat equity shares” divided into two parts:

  • Companies Act, 2013 and Rules made thereunder
  • SEBI (Issue of Sweat Equity Shares) Regulations, 2002.

Companies Act, 2013 and Rules made thereunder: According to Section 54 of the Companies Act, 2013 a company may issue sweat equity shares of a class of shares already issued, if the following conditions are fulfilled:

  • Authorization by way of Special Resolution: The issue is authorized by a special resolution passed by the company in the general meeting.
  • Inclusion of information in such resolution: The resolution specifies the number of shares, current market price, consideration if any and the class or classes of directors or employees to whom such equity shares are to be issued.
  • In case of listed companies: The sweat equity shares of a company whose equity shares are listed on a recognised stock exchange are issued in accordance with the Regulations made by SEBI in this regard and if they are not listed the sweat equity shares are to be issued in accordance with Rule 8 of Companies (Share Capital and Debenture) Rules, 2014.

SEBI (Issue of Sweat Equity Shares) Regulations, 2002:

  • Applicability: Listed companies which are issuing sweat equity shares are required to comply with SEBI (Issue of Sweat Equity) Regulations, 2002.
  • Non-Applicability: These regulations shall not apply to an unlisted company. However, unlisted company coming out with initial public offering and seeking listing of its securities on the stock exchange pursuant to issue of sweat equity shares, shall comply with the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

Question 4.
Explain the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 for issue of Sweat Equity Shares. To what extent the Sweat Equity Shares can be issued to an Independent Director?
Answer:
Issue of Sweat Equity Shares under Companies Act, 2013: According to Section 54 of the Companies Act, 2013 a company may issue sweat equity shares of a class of shares already issued, if the following conditions are fulfilled:

  • Authorization by way of Special Resolution: The issue is authorized by a special resolution passed by the company in the general meeting.
  • Inclusion of information in such resolution: The resolution specifies the number of shares, current market price, consideration if any and the class or classes of directors or employees to whom such equity shares are to be issued.
  • In case of listed companies: The sweat equity shares of a company whose equity shares are listed on a recognised stock exchange are is-sued in accordance with the Regulations made by SEBI in this regard and if they are not listed the sweat equity shares are to be issued in accordance with Rule 8 of Companies (Share Capital and Debenture) Rules, 2014.
    Also, the independent director of the Company are not entitled for issue ii of sweat equity shares of a class of shares already issued.

Question 5.
Discuss briefly the steps involved in the issue of bonus shares by a listed company. [(June 2011) (7 Marks)]
Answer:
A Listed Company issuing bonus shares should ensure that the issue is in conformity with the provisions of Companies Act, 2013 and SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018 as well as Companies Act, 2013:

  • Ensure that bonus issue has been made out of free reserves built out of the genuine profits or securities premium collected, in cash only and the reserves created by revaluation of fixed assets are not capitalised.
  • Ensure that the company has not defaulted in payment of interest or respect of fixed deposits or debt securities issued by it or in respect of the payment of statutory dues of the employees such as contribution to provident fund, gratuity, bonus etc.
  • Ensure that the bonus issue is not made in lieu of dividend.
  • There should be a provision in the articles of association of the com-pany permitting issue of bonus shares, if not steps should be taken to alter the articles suitably.
  • The share capital as increased by the proposed bonus issue should be well within the authorised capital of the company; if not, necessary steps have to be taken to increase the authorised capital.
  • Finalise the proposal and fix the date for the Board Meeting for considering the proposal and for authorising the taking up of incidental and attendant matters.
  • The date of the Board Meeting at which the proposal for bonus issue is proposed to be considered should be notified to the Stock Exchange(s) where the company’s shares are listed.
  • Hold the Board Meeting and get the proposal approved by the Board.
  • Immediately after the Board meeting intimate the Stock Exchange(s) regarding the outcome of the Meeting.
  • Ensure that the company has announced bonus issue after the ap-proved of Board of Directors and has implemented bonus issue within fifteen days from the date of approval and must not have the option of changing the decision.

However, where the company was required to seek shareholders’ approval for capitalization of profits or reserves for making bonus issue as per the Article of Association the bonus issue has implement¬ed within two months from the date of the meeting of the Board of Directors where in the decision to announce bonus as taken subject to shareholders’ approval.

  • Send three copies of the notice of general meeting to the Stock Ex-change(s) concerned.
  • Hold the general meeting and get the resolution for issue of bonus shares passed by members. A copy of the proceedings of the meeting is to be forwarded to the concerned Stock Exchange(s).
  • Give seven days’ notice to the Stock Exchange(s) concerned before the date of book closure/record date.
  • File return of allotment with the Registrar of Companies within 30 days of allotment. Intimate Stock Exchange(s) concerned regarding the allotments made and submit an application to the Stock Exchange(s) concerned for listing the bonus shares allotted.

Question 6.
Comment on the following statements: The option to participate in ESOP/ESPS scheme is not open for all employees of the company.
Answer:
As per definition of “Employee” it includes:

  • A Permanent employee of the company working in India or outside of India.
  • A director of the company whether a whole time director or not but excluding an independent director.

An employee as defined above of a subsidiary (in India/out of India)/ of a holding company of the company/of an associate company but does not include:

  • an employee who is a promoter or belongs to the promoter group;
    or
  • a director who either by himself or through his relatives or through anybody corporate, directly or indirectly holds more than 10% of the outstanding equity shares of the company.

It is quite clear that all employees are not eligible to participate in ESOP/ ESPS.

Thus, the given statement that “The option to participate in ESOP/ESPS g scheme is not open for all employees of the company” is correct.

Question 7.
What is a ‘bonus shares’? What are the conditions to be satisfied before issuing bonus shares?
Answer:
“Bonus Shares”: Bonus Shares mean the shares allotted by a company to its members free of cost by capitalizing its accumulated distributable profits.
Note: No issue of bonus shares shall be made by capitalising reserves created by the revaluation of assets.

Conditions for issue of Bonus Shares: The requirements to be complied with while making Bonus Issue are given as under:

  • As per section 63(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, no company shall capitalise its profits or reserves for the purpose of issuing fully paid-up bonus shares unless it is authorised by its articles.
  • It has been authorized by the shareholders in a general meeting of the company, on the recommendation of the Board of Directors.
  • It has not defaulted in the payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits or debt securities, if any issued by it.
  • It has not defaulted in respect of the payment of statutory dues of the employees, such as contribution to provident fund, gratuity and bonus.
  • The partly paid up shares if any outstanding on the date of allotment have been made fully paid up.

No Bonus Shares in lieu of dividend:
As per Section 63(3) of Companies Act, 2013, the bonus shares shall not be issued in lieu of dividend.

According to Rule 14 of Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014 states that the company which has once announced the decision of its Board recommending a bonus issue shall not subsequently withdraw the same.

Question 8.
Comment on the following: For the purpose of issue of bonus shares, the reserves created by revaluation of fixed assets shall not be capitalised.
Answer:

  • As the reserve created by revaluation of fixed assets should not be capitalised. These reserves are “capital reserves”. However, if the assets are subsequently sold and the profits are realised such profits could be utilised for capitalisation purposes.
  • Thus, the given statement is correct that “for the purpose of issue of bonus shares, the reserves created by revaluation of fixed assets shall not be capitalised”.

Question 9.
Jai Ltd. announced issued of bonus shares in the ratio of 1:3 (i.e. one share for every three shares held). At present the face value of share is ₹ 10, current market price is ₹ 621. In addition, it announced split of shares by reducing the face value from ₹ 10 to ₹ 2. Calculate the share price if all other things constant. What would have been the situation if split would have been done before the issue of bonus shares?
Answer:
Situation 1: Stock split post Bonus Issue:

Particulars Amount (INR)
Market value of 3 shares required to be held by shareholder (3 × 621) 1,863
Add : Issue price of Bonus share (1 × 0) 0
Total price of 4 shares 1,863
Stock split from ₹ 10/- to ₹ 2/-
No. of shares post stock split (4 × 5) = 20 shares

Situation 2: Stock Split before Bonus Issue:

Particulars Amount (INR)
Market value of 3 shares required to be held by shareholder (3 × 621) 1,863
No. of shares post stock split (3 × 5) = 15 shares
No. of Bonus shares to be received (15/3) = 5 shares
Total price of 20 shares 1863
Average price (1863/20) 93.15

Therefore, we can sa that there would be no change in the situation if the stock split taken place before issue of bonus shares

Question 10.
Answer the following:
Success Ltd., a listed company with an authorized, issued and subscribed capital of ₹ 35 crore comprising of 3.5 crore equity shares of ₹ 10 each and paid up capital of ₹ 34 crore decided to issue bonus shares in the ratio of 2:5. As a Company Secretary enumerate the steps involved in such an issue.
Answer:
Following are the steps involved in issue of Bonus Shares by Sucess Ltd.:
1. Ensure that bonus issue has been made out of free reserves built out of the genuine profits or securities premium collected in cash only.

2. Ensure that reserves created by revaluation of fixed assets are not capitalized.

3. Ensure that the company has not defaulted in payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits or debt securities issued by it or in respect of the payment of statutory dues of the employees such as contribution to provident fund, gratuity, bonus etc.

4. Ensure that the bonus issue is not made in lieu of dividend.

5. There should be a provision in the articles of association of the company permitting issue of bonus shares; if not, steps should be taken to alter the articles suitably.

6. The share capital as increased b the proposed bonus issue should be well within the authorised capital of the company; if not, necessary steps have to be taken to increase the authorised capital.

7. Finalise the proposal and fix the date for the Board Meeting for considering the proposal and for authorizing the taking up of incidental and attendant matters.

8. The date of the Board Meeting at which the proposal for bonus issue is proposed to be considered should be notified to the Stock Exchange(s) where the company’s shares are listed.

9. If there are any partly paid-up shares, ensure that these are made fully paid-up before the bonus issue is recommended by the Board of directors.

10. Hold the Board Meeting and get the proposal approved by the Board of directors.

11. The resolution to be passed at the General Meeting should also be approved by the Board of Directors in its meeting. The intention of the Board of directors regarding the rate of dividend to be declared in the year after the bonus issue should be indicated in the resolution for bonus issue to be passed by members in general meeting.

12. Immediately after the Board meeting intimate the Stock Exchange(s) regarding the outcome of the Meeting.

13. Hold the general meeting and get the resolution for issue of bonus shares passed by the members. A copy of the proceedings of the meeting is to be forwarded to the concerned Stock Exchange(s).

14. Give seven days’ notice to the Stock Exchange(s) concerned before the date of book closure/record date.

15. File return of allotment with the Registrar of Companies within 30 days of allotment (Section 39 of the Companies Act, 2013). Also intimate Stock Exchange(s) concerned regarding the allotments made.

16. Ensure that the allotment is made within fifteen days of the date on which the Board of directors approved the bonus issue. Also, submit an application to the Stock Exchange(s) concerned for listing the bonus shares allotted.

Question 11.
An establishment company maintaining power projects In India, raised ₹ 11,000 crores from indian Stock market with an issue price of ₹ 450 (FV of ₹ 10 per share)on 15th January, 2008. AnticIpate a huge returns on the share price, the Issue was subscribed 27.5 tImes and a huge response received to the company’s IPO. The company at the time of listing only owned a land for-its six power projects which were to be deveIoped for generation of electricity, and there was no revenue income at the tome of listing. On 15th February, 2008 the company listed Its shares but due to the stock market meltdown, the stock fell to ₹ 320 per share, i.e. a discount of ₹ 130 from its issue price of ₹ 450. Facing huge criticism from its inventors, the company decided to issue bonus shares in the ratio of 3 shares for 5 shares held. A public interest Litigation was filed challenging the issuance of bonus shares without any revenue income. The case was rejected and dismissed. Discuss the merits of the case and also the conditions for issue of bonus shares.
Answer:
The requirements to be complied with while making Bonus Issue are given as under

  • As per Section 63(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, no company shall capitalise its profits or reserves for the purpose of issuing fully paid- up bonus shares unless it is authorised by its articles.
  • It has been authorized by the shareholders in a general meeting of the company, on the recommendation of the Board of Directors.
  • It has not defaulted in the payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits or debt securities, if any issued by it.
  • It has not defaulted in respect of the payment of statutory dues of the employees, such as contribution to provident fund, gratuity and bonus.
  • The partly paid up shares if any outstanding on the date of allotment have been made fully paid up.

No Bonus Shares In lieu of dividend:
As per Section 63(3) of Companies Act, 2013, the bonus shares shall not be issued in lieu of dividend.

According to Rule 14 of Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014 states that the company which has once announced the decision of its Board recommending a bonus issue shall not subsequently withdraw the same.

Therefore, in the given case the company has complied with all the conditions required to be satisfied that the court was correct in awarding the judgment in favour of the company.

Question 12.
What are the advantages of bonus issue?
Answer:
Following are the advantages of Bonus Issue:

  • Market value of the Company’s shares comes down to their nominal value by issue of bonus shares.
  • Market value of the members’ shareholdings increases with the increase in number of shares in the company.
  • The paid-up share capital increases.
  • Bonus shares not considered as an income. Thus, not a taxable income.
  • Fund flow not adversely affected.

Question 13.
Discuss applicability and non-applicability of SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014?
Answer:
Applicability of SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014: The provisions of these regulations shall apply to following:

  • Employee Stock Option Schemes.
  • Employee Stock Purchase Schemes.
  • Stock Appreciation Rights Schemes.
  • General Employee Benefits Schemes.
  • Retirement Benefit Schemes.

Non-applicability of SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014:

  • It shall not apply to shares issued to employees in compliance with the provisions pertaining to preferential allotment as specified in the SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018.
  • The provisions pertaining to preferential allotment as specified in SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 shall not be applicable in case of a company issuing new shares in pursuance and compliance of these regulations.

Question 14.
Enumerate the procedure for issuing ESOP by a Listed Company?
Answer:
Procedure for issuing ESOP by a Listed Company:
Following are the steps to be followed for the purpose of issuing ESOP by Listed Company:

  • Hold a Board Meeting to consider and approve ESOP and formation of Compensation Committee.
  • Compensation committee shall plan draft the scheme of ESOP.
  • Board Meeting: Hold Board meeting to adopt the final scheme, appoint the Merchant banker and approve the notice of the General meeting for shareholders’ approval.
  • General Meeting: Hold General Meeting for approval of shareholders.
  • Application to Stock Exchange: Make an application to the stock ex-change for obtaining in-principal approval of the stock exchange.
  • Letter of grant of Option to eligible employees: Issue of letter of grant of option to the eligible employees along with the letter of acceptance of option.
  • Issue of Option Certificates: On receipt of letter of acceptance of option along with upfront payment (if any) from the employee issue the option certificates.
  • Issue of Letter of Vesting: After expiry of vesting period not less than one year the options shall vest in the employee. At that time, the Company shall issue a letter of vesting along with the letter of exercise of options.
  • Receipt of Letter of Exercise from Employee: Receipt to letter of exercise from the employee.
  • Board meeting during exercise period: Hold a Board Meeting at the suitable Interval during the exercise period for allotment of shares on options exercised by the options.
  • Dispatching Letter of Allotment: Dispatch of letter of allotment along with the share certificates or credit the shares so allotted with the Depositories.
  • Make application to Stock Exchange: Make an application to the Stock exchange for listing of the Shares so allotted.
  • Receipt of Listing: Receipt of Listing of the shares from the Stock exchange.

Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Notes

Regulatory Approvals – Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Regulatory Approvals – Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Question 1.
What is the entitlement of dissenting shareholders in case of amalgamation between banking companies? What are the information and documents required to be submitted by the banking companies to the Reserve Bank of India for determination of the value of shares by the Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
→ Any scheme of merger and amalgamation between two banking companies shall be approved by the Reserve Bank of India. Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provides for the procedure w! for amalgamation of banking companies. S

→ Basically, dissenting shareholders means the shareholders who have | validly exercised their vote against the resolution for such merger and z amalgamation. Such shareholders have a right to oppose the merger, unless they have withdrawn or lost their rights.

→ As per section 44A(3) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, where a scheme of amalgamation is sanctioned by Reserve Bank of India, a dissenting shareholder is entitled to claim the value of the shares held by him in that company. Such claim shall be made within 3 months from the date of the RBI sanction.

→ The value per share shall be determined by the Reserve Bank of India and such value of shares to be paid to the dissenting shareholders shall be full and final for all purposes.

→ To compute such value per share, the amalgamating banking company shall submit the following details to the Reserve Bank of India –
(a) A report on the valuation of the shares of the amalgamating company made for this purpose by the valuers appointed for the determination of the swap ratio.

(b) Detailed computation of such valuation.

(c) Where shares of the amalgamating company are quoted on the stock exchange

  • Details of the monthly high and low of the quotes on the exchange where the shares are widely traded together with number of shares traded during the six months immediately preceding the date on which the scheme of amalgamation is approved by the Boards.
  • The quoted price of the share at close on each of the fourteen days immediately preceding the date on which the scheme of amalgamation is approved by the Boards.

(d) Such other information and documents as the Reserve Bank of India may require.

Question 2.
Several Credits Finance Company Ltd., a Non-Banking organization is in the discussion for a merger with Hatak Bank Ltd., a scheduled Bank. Recommend the action points briefly.

OR

Question 3.
Certain aspects should be ensured by designated authority other than the High Court while granting approval of amalgamation of a non-banking financial company (NBFC) with a banking company. Name the authority and discuss the aspects to be ensured.
Answer:
→ Amalgamation of a banking company with another banking company is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. In such cases, the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 are not applicable in this case.

→ Where a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) merges into a banking company, the NBFC shall obtain approval from the Tribunal and the banking company should obtain the approval of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

→ Following factors shall be ensured
(a) the NBFC has not violated any RBI/SEBI norms;
(b) the NBFC complied with KYC of all its accounts holders;
(c) if the NBFC has availed credit facilities from banks or financial institutions, whether the loan agreement requires the NBFC to seek consent of the lending bank/financial institution for such merger/amalgamation.

→ The banking company shall furnish to the Reserve Bank of India, information as specified in the schedule to the direction and also the information and documents relating to the valuation along with its computation and the quoted price details.

Question 4.
“Amalgamation of Government Companies requires a simplified procedure for compliance”. List out the steps involved upto the stage of approval by Central Government for amalgamation of Government companies.
Answer:
→ Section 237 of the Companies Act, 2013 empowers the Central Gov-ernment to provide for amalgamation of companies in public interest.

→ As per section 237(1), where the Central Govt, is satisfied that it is essential in the public interest that two or more companies should amalgamate, it may provide for the amalgamation of those companies into a single company through an order in Official Gazette. Further, the Central Govt, shall specify the terms of such amalgamation in the order.

→ Broad steps involved in the amalgamation of Government companies are as under:
1. Government companies applying for amalgamation should obtain approval of Central Cabinet. In case of State Undertakings approval of State Council of Ministers is required.

2. In case of amalgamation of Joint Holding of State and Central Government in companies, approval of both Central and State Government is to be obtained.

3. Government companies intending to amalgamate should pass resolution at a general meeting of members of both the companies with all necessary compliances.

4. Every resolution of a government company should be passed at the general meeting by members holding 100% of the voting power and such resolution should contain complete details showing assets and liabilities of amalgamating companies.

5. Before passing resolution as above, 30 days’ notice in writing together with a copy of proposed resolution should be given by the Govt, company to all the members and creditors.

6. A resolution passed by the Government company is not valid and does not take effect, unless

  • the assent of all creditors has been obtained, or
  • assent of 90% of the creditors by value has been received and the company certifies that there is no objection from any other creditor.

7. Resolution passed by both the amalgamating companies along with approval of Cabinet should be sent to the Central Government. On being satisfied, the Central Government may order by notification in the Official Gazette, that the said amalgamation shall take effect.

Question 5.
ABC Bank Ltd. contemplates to merge with PQR Bank Ltd. Accordingly, draft scheme of amalgamation is placed before the Board of Directors of both the banks. The said scheme is aimed to be placed in the shareholders meeting thereafter. Mention the aspects which board of both the companies should consider in approving draft scheme of amalgamation.
Answer:

  • Amalgamation of one banking company with another banking company is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The provisions of the Companies Act are not applicable in this case.
  • Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provides for the procedure for amalgamation of banking companies. Section 44A requires that the draft scheme of amalgamation has to be approved by the shareholders of each banking company.
  • The resolution shall be passed by simple majority in number as well as 2/3rd majority in value of the shareholders. Such resolution can be passed by members present in person or by proxy at a meeting called for the purpose.
  • Before convening the said meeting, the draft scheme of amalgamation shall be approved by the Boards of Directors of the two banking companies. The Board of Directors of the merging companies shall consider the following factors
    • Values at which the assets, liabilities and reserves are proposed to be incorporated into the books of the amalgamated banking company.
    • Whether due diligence exercise has been undertaken in respect of the company.
    • Nature of consideration, which a bank will pay to shareholders of other company.
    • Whether swap ratio is determined by independent valuers having required competence and experience and whether in the opinion of the Board such swap ratio is fair and proper.
    • Shareholding pattern after the swap ratio, shall not violate the RBI guidelines,
    • Impact of amalgamation on the profitability and the capital ad-equacy ratio of the company,
    • Compliance with Basel Committee Norms,
    • Changes which are proposed to be made in the composition of the board of directors of the amalgamated banking company, in conformity with the RBI guidelines in that behalf.

Question 6.
“In amalgamation of two or more banking companies, Company Law is not applied.” Comment, briefly explaining the procedure for amalgamation of banking companies.
Answer:

  • Amalgamation of one banking company with another banking company is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The provisions of the Companies Act are not applicable in this case.
  • Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provides for the procedure for amalgamation of banking companies. Section 44A requires that the draft scheme of amalgamation has to be approved by the shareholders of each banking company.
  • The resolution shall be passed by simple majority in number as well as 2/3rd majority in value of the shareholders. Such resolution can be passed by members present in person or by proxy at a meeting called for the purpose.
  • Before convening the said meeting, the draft scheme of amalgamation shall be approved by the Boards of Directors of the two banking companies.
  • The Board of Directors of the merging companies shall consider the following factors
    • Valuation of assets, liabilities and reserves;
    • Effective due diligence exercise has been undertaken;
    • Nature of consideration, payable as a part of the merger;
    • Computation of swap ratio by independent valuers.
    • Shareholding pattern after the swap ratio, shall not violate the RBI guidelines etc.
  • The amalgamating banking company should submit to RBI the information and documents such as draft scheme of amalgamation, copies of the notices of every meeting of the shareholders, copies of valuers’ reports, appointed for the determination of the swap ratios etc.
  • If the scheme of amalgamation is approved by requisite majority of shareholders in accordance with the provisions of this section, it shall be submitted to RBI (Reserve Bank of India) for its sanction. The RBI may sanction a scheme by an order in writing. A scheme sanctioned by the RBI shall be binding on the banking companies concerned and on all the shareholders thereof.
  • Once the scheme of amalgamation is sanctioned by RBI, the property and liabilities of the transferor banking company, shall, by virtue of the order of sanction, be transferred to the transferee company. No further document will be necessary for effecting the transfer of the property from the transferor to the transferee company.
  • Where RBI sanctions a scheme of amalgamation, it may direct that on the date specified in the order, the transferor banking company shall stand dissolved. A copy of the order directing dissolution of the transferor banking company shall be forwarded by the RBI to the office of the ROC at which it has been registered. On receipt of such order, the Registrar shall strike off the name of the company.

Question 7.
“Prior approval of the Reserve Bank of India is required before acquiring controlling stake in a deposit taking NBFC.” Do you agree? Justify your answer
Answer:

  • Amalgamation of a banking company with another banking company is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. In such cases, the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 are not applicable in this case.
  • Where a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) merges into a banking company, the NBFC shall obtain approval from the Tribunal and the banking company should obtain the approval of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • Basically, RBI permission is not required for merger between two or more NBFCs. However, RBI approval shall be needed, where an NBFC had license (authorization) to accept deposits from the general public.
  • As per Non-Banking Financial Companies (Deposit Accepting) (Approval of Acquisition or Transfer of Control) Directions, 2009, any takeover
    or acquisition of control of a deposit taking NBFC, shall require prior written approval of Reserve Bank of India.
  • The Reserve Bank of India may, exempt any NBFC from all or any of the provisions of these directions either generally or for any specified period, subject to conditions.

Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Notes

Appearance Before NCLT/NCLAT – Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Appearance Before NCLT/NCLAT – Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Important Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the provision relating to appeal by a person aggrieved by the orders of National Company Law Tribunal.

OR

Question 2.
EST Ltd. is aggrieved by the order of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and seeks your advice for further steps in the matter.
Answer:
The provisions relating to appeal from orders of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)are given in Section 421 of the Companies Act, 2013. Following are the provisions

(a) Any person aggrieved by an order of the Tribunal (NCLT) may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).

(b) No appeal shall lie to the NCLAT from an order made by the NCLT, with the consent of parties.

(c) Every appeal u/s 421(1) shall be filed within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order of the Tribunal is made available to the person aggrieved. The appeal shall be in the prescribed form, and accompanied by such prescribed fees.

(d) However, the Appellate Tribunal may entertain an appeal after the expiry of 45 days from the date, but within a further period not exceeding 45 days, if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within that period.

(e) On receiving the appeal u/s 421(1), the Appellate Tribunal shall pass such orders thereon as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying or setting aside the order appealed against. The NCLAT shall provide a reasonable opportunity of being heard to the parties to the appeal.

(f) The Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to the Tribunal and the parties to appeal.

Question 3.
Constitution of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) will usher a new era as far as insolvency issues are concerned and will also open up new professional opportunities for Company Secretaries. Comment.
Answer:

  • The Companies Act, 2013 presents radical shift in process of reconstruction/ reorganization.
  • The Establishment of a single forum, which is dedicated to corporate matters, removes the problem of multiple regulators. Besides, Companies Act confers new powers on NCLT. NCLT is an adjudicating authority under IBC 2016 for insolvency resolution process of corporate and LLPs. NCLT and NCLAT is constituted with effect from June 1, 2016.
  • The establishment of NCLT/NCLAT shall offer various opportunities to Practicing Company Secretaries as they have been authorized to appear before the Tribunal/Appellate Tribunal.
  • Practicing Company Secretaries would be eligible to appear for matters which were hitherto dealt with by the High Court viz mergers, amalgamations and winding-up proceedings under the Companies Act.
  • A Practicing Company Secretary can be appointed as a Technical Member of NCLT, provided he has 15 years working experience as secretary in whole-time practice.
  • The National Company Law Tribunal has also been empowered to pass an order for winding up of a company.
  • Therefore, Practicing Company Secretaries may represent the winding up case before the Tribunal. With the establishment of NCLT, a whole new area of practice will open up for Company Secretary in Practice with respect to advising and assisting corporate sector on merger, amalgamation, demerger, reverse merger, compromise and other arrangements right from the conceptual to implementation level. Company Secretaries in Practice will be able to render services in preparing schemes, appearing before NCLT
  • NCLAT for approval of schemes and post-merger formalities –
  • Since all powers of BIFR have been entrusted to NCLT, detecting the Sick companies and providing resolution of the queries and for making reference to the Tribunal for revival and rehabilitation of the Company.
  • The provisions also mandated preparation of scheme and seeking approval from the Tribunal as may be required. Thus the practicing professionals could play a pivot role in the same area.

Question 4.
Every party who wants to file a petition in the NTCLT shall follow certain rules. Comment.
Answer:

  • The Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice. The Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal shall have power to regulate their own procedures.
  • The cause title shall state “Before the National Company Law Tribunal” and shall specify the Bench to which it is presented
  • Every appeal or petition or application or objection or counter presented to NCLT shall be in English. If it is in any other Indian language, it shall be accompanied translation in English.
  • Full name, age, description of each party and address and in case a party sues or being sued in a representative character, shall also be set out at the beginning of the appeal.
  • Every correction or deletion in any appeal or petition or application or document shall be initialed by the party or his authorized representative presenting it.
  • Presentation of Petition – Every petition, application, documents, appeal shall be presented in triplicate by the appellant or applicant or petitioner or respondent, as the case may be. Such petition shall be filed in person or by his duly authorized representative or by an advocate.
  • Every petition or application or appeal may be accompanied by documents duly certified. All the documents filed in the Tribunal shall be accompanied by an index in triplicate containing their details and the amount of fee paid thereon.
  • Joint Petition: The Bench may permit more than one person to join together and present a single petition if it is satisfied that they have a common interest in the matter.
  • Endorsement and Verification: Every petition or appeal shall be signed and verified by the party concerned. At the foot of every petition or appeal or pleading there shall appear the name and signature of the party or their authorized representative.
  • Interlocutory applications: Every interlocutory (interim) application : for stay, direction, condonation of delay, exemption from production; of copy of order appealed against or extension of time etc. shall be in prescribed form along with compliance of requirements.
  • Forms: Every petition or application or reference shall be filed in Form No. NCLT-1 with reqd. attachments thereto in Form No. NCLT- 2. Interlocutory application shall in Form No. NCLT-1 accompanied by such attachments thereto in Form No. NCLT-3. Every petition or application including interlocutory application shall be verified by an affidavit in Form No. NCLT-6. Notice to be issued by the Tribunal to the opposite party shall be in Form NCLT-5.

Question 5.
NCLT and NCLAT have opened a plethora of opportunities for Company Secretary in practice. Comment.
Answer:
Establishment of NCLT and NCLAT have created plenty of opportunities for Practicing Company Secretaries. Company Secretaries are authorized to appear before the NCLT/NCLAT.

Following are the areas of activities for Company Secretary:

1. Merger/Amalgamation/Compromise – A whole new area of practice opened up for Company Secretary in Practice with respect to advising and assisting corporate sector on merger, amalgamation, demerger, reverse merger, compromise and arrangements. The role of CS starts from the conceptual to implementation level. Company Secretaries in Practice will be able to render services in preparing schemes, appearing before NCLT/NCLAT for approval of schemes and post-merger formalities.

2. Revival of Companies – Where a Registrar of Companies (ROC) have struck off the name of a company u/s 248, a practicing company secretary may assist in revival of such company

3. Winding up – National Company Law Tribunal has also been empowered to pass an order for winding- up of a company. Therefore, Practicing Company Secretaries may represent the winding-up case before the Tribunal. Now Practicing Company Secretaries have been permitted to act as Liquidator in case of winding-up by the Tribunal.

4. Reduction of Capital – As per Section 66 of the Companies Act, subject to confirmation by the Tribunal, a company limited by shares or a company limited by guarantee and having a share capital can reduce its share capital. Practicing Company Secretaries will be able to represent cases of reduction of capital before the Tribunal.

5. Oppression and mismanagement – Sections 241 and 244 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the cases of Oppression and Mismanagement. Section 241 deals with making an application to Tribunal for relief in cases of Oppression, etc. and section 244 describes the Right to apply under section 241.

6. Insolvency and Bankruptcy cases – Insolvency practice is a new field of activity for professionals while improving the quality of intervention at all levels during rehabilitation/winding-up/ liquidation proceedings. Law has recognized the Insolvency Practitioners as Administrators, Liquidators, Turn around Specialists, Valuers, etc. Greater responsibility and authority have been given to Insolvency Practitioners under the supervision of the Tribunal to maximize resource use and application of skills.

7. PCS as Member of NCLT – A Practicing Company Secretary can be appointed as a Technical Member of NCLT, provided he has 15 years working experience as secretary in whole-time practice.

Corporate Restructuring, Insolvency, Liquidation & Winding-Up Notes