Foreign Funding – Instruments & Institutions – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Foreign Funding – Instruments & Institutions – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Question 1.
Write notes on: “Subscription Agreement”.
Answer:
“Subscription Agreement”:
Subscription Agreement provides that Lead Managers and other managers agree severally and not jointly with the company subject to the satisfaction of certain conditions to subscribe for GDRs at the offering price set forth.

Subscription agreement also provides an option to be exercisable with-in certain period after the date of offer circular to the lead manager and other managers to purchase up to a certain prescribed number of additional GDRs solely to cover over-allotments if any.

Subscription agreement may provide that for certain period from the date of the issuance of GDR, the issuing company will not:

  • authorise the issuance of, or otherwise issue or publicly announce any intention to issue.
  • issue offer, accept subscription for, sell, contract to sell or other-wise dispose of, whether within or outside India.
  • deposit into any depository receipt facility any securities of the company of the same class as the GDRs or the shares or any securities in the company convertible or exchangeable for secu-rities in the company of the same class as the GDRs or the shares or other instruments representing interests in securities in the company of the same class as the GDRs or the shares.

Question 2.
Write notes on: “Road show in Euro issues”.
Or
Write notes on: “Road shows in Euro Issues.”
Or
“Road shows are in fact, a conference by the issuer company with the potential/future/prospective investors”. Elucidate.
Or
Answer:
Infact, the Statement “Road shows are conference by the issuer company with the potential or future or prospective investors” is absolutely correct. The concept of “Road show” is used in case of “Euro issue”, are as follows:

It is a pre-issue key action which ensure the successful launching of Euro-Issue. It can be defined as a meeting organized at different parts of world between’ the lead manager, Issuer Company and prospective investors.

Details & contents of Road show: Since road-show is a ‘information presentation meeting so the following details are included in such presentation:

  • Historical background i.e. date of incorporation, promoters, first directors etc.
  • Organizational structure i.e. centralized or decentralized.
  • Main object as given in object clause of Memorandum of Association.
  • Business line and product type.
  • Market position of company at domestic & international level.
  • Past years performance (if any).
  • Future plans & strategies, the company wants to achieve.
  • Challenges the company can face in future.
  • Financial results & operating performance.
  • Valuation of shares.

Question 3.
Write notes on the following: “External Commercial Borrowings.”
Answer:
“External Commercial Borrowings”: ECBs are commercial loans raised by eligible resident entities from recognized non-resident entities and should conform to parameters such as minimum maturity, permitted and non-permitted end-uses, maximum all-in-cost ceiling, etc. The parameters apply in totality and not on a standalone basis.

Tracks of ECBs: The framework for raising loans through ECB comprises the following three tracks:

  • Track I: Medium term foreign currency denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 3/5 years.
  • Track II: Long term foreign currency denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 10 years.
  • Track III: Indian Rupee (INR) denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 3/5 years.

The ECB Framework enables permitted resident entities to borrow from recognized non-resident entities in the following forms:

  • Loans including bank loans.
  • Securitized instruments (Example: floating rate notes and fixed rate bonds, non-convertible, optionally convertible or partially convertible preference shares/debentures).
  • Buyers’ credit.
  • Suppliers’ credit.
  • Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs).
  • Financial Lease.
  • Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs).

Question 4.
State the conditions required to be fulfilled for conversion of external commercial borrowings (ECBs) into equity.
Answer:
In case of conversion of External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) into Equity: ‘
Conditions: ECBs are converted into equity subject to following conditions:

  • The activity of the company is covered under Automatic Route for Foreign Direct Investment or Government approval for foreign equity participation has been obtained by the company, wherever applicable.
  • Foreign Equity holding after such conversion of debt into equity is within the sectoral cap if any.
  • Pricing of shares is as per the SEBI guidelines/regulations in the case of listed and unlisted companies as the case may be.

Reporting: Conversion of ECBs into equity must be reported in the Form FC-GPR to the concerned Regional office of the Reserve Bank of India as well as to the RBI within 7 working days in Form ECB-2.

Question 5.
What is ‘parking’ of External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) proceeds?
Answer:
The parking of ECB proceeds can be of two types as per revised ECB framework:
Parking of ECB proceeds abroad: ECB proceeds meant only for foreign currency expenditure can be parked abroad pending utilization. Till utilisation, these funds can be invested in the following liquid assets:

  • Deposits or Certificate of Deposit or other products offered by banks rated not less than AA (-) by Standard and Poor/Fitch IBCA or AA3 by Moody’s.
  • Treasury bills and other monetary instruments of one year maturity having minimum rating as indicated above.
  • Deposits with overseas branches/subsidiaries of Indian banks abroad.

Parking of ECB proceeds domestically:

  • ECB proceeds meant for Rupee expenditure should be repatriated immediately for credit to their Rupee accounts with AD Category-I banks in India.
  • ECB borrowers are also allowed to park ECB proceeds in term deposits with AD Category-I banks in India for a maximum period of 12 months.
  • These term deposits should be kept in unencumbered position.

Question 6.
What do you understand by External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)? Discuss the three tracks of ECBs.
Answer:
“External Commercial Borrowings”: ECBs are commercial loans raised by eligible resident entities from recognized non-resident entities and should conform to parameters such as minimum maturity, permitted and non-permitted end-uses, maximum all-in-cost ceiling, etc. The parameters apply in totality and not on a standalone basis.

Tracks of ECBs: The framework for raising loans through ECB comprises the following three tracks:

  • Track I: Medium term foreign currency denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 3/5 years.
  • Track II: Long term foreign currency denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 10 years.
  • Track III: Indian Rupee (INR) denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 3/5 years.

Question 7.
Explain the following statement: “External Commercial Borrowing (ECBs) refers to the commercial loans.”
Answer:
External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) refer to commercial loans in the form of bank loans, buyers, credit, suppliers, credit, securitized instruments (example: floating rate notes and fixed rate bonds, non-convertible, optionally convertible or partially convertible debentures or any other financial instruments that could be converted into equity shares at a later) availed of from non-resident lenders with a minimum average maturity of 3 years, ECB for investment in real sector- industrial sector, infrastructure sector-in India and specified service are under – Automatic Route, i.e. do not require Reserve Bank/Government of India approval.

Question 8.
Describe the end use of External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) through approval route.
Answer:
The permitted end use of proceeds of external commercial borrowings (ECBs) raised under revised ECB guideline, depends upon the tracks under which it was raised. The uses are as:

Track I:
(a) Capital expenditure in the form of:

  • import of capital goods including for services technical know-how and license fee provided they are the part of these capital goods).
  • local sourcing of capital goods.
  • new projects.
  • modernization/expansion of existing units.
  • Investment in jointventures(JV)/wholly-owned subsidiaries (WOS) overseas.
  • acquisition of shares of PSUs under the disinvestment pro-gramme of Government of India etc.

(b) SIDBI – Only for the purpose of lending to borrowers in the MSME sector.

(c) Units of SEZs – Only for their own requirements.

(d) Shipping and airlines companies – Only for import of vessels and aircrafts only.

(e) For general corporate purpose (including working capital) provided the ECB is raised from direct/indirect equity holder or from a group company; for a minimum average maturity of 5 years.

(f) ECBs under the approval route:

  • For import of second-hand good; as per DGFT guidelines.
  • For on-lending by Exim Bank.

Track II: Any end use other than following:
(a) Real estate activities.
(b) Investing in capital market.
(c) Using proceeds for equity investment domestically.
(d) On-lending to other entries with any of the above objective.
(e) Purchase of land.

Track III:
(a) All permitted use as per track n.
(b) SEZs/NMIZs Developers Only for providing infrastructure facilities within SEZ/NMIZ.
(c) NBFCs can use ECB proceeds for:

  • On-lending for any activities including infrastructure sector as permitted by the concerned regulatory department of RBI.
  • Hypothecated loans to domestic entities for acquisition of capital goods/equipment.
  • Providing capital goods/equipment to domestic entities by way of lease/hire purchase.
  • Entities in micro-finance sector – Only for on-lending to self-help, groups or for micro-credit or for bona fide micro-finance activity including capacity building.

Question 9.
What are “External Commercial Borrowings” (ECBs)? Explain various tracks and forms available under ECBs.
Answer:
Meaning of ECBs: ECBs are commercial loans raised by eligible resident entities from recognised non-resident entities and should conform to parameters such as minimum maturity, permitted and non-permitted end-uses, maximum all-in-cost ceiling, etc. The parameters apply in totality.

Tracks of ECBs: The framework for raising loans through ECB comprises the following three tracks:

  • Track I: Medium term foreign currency denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 3/5 years.
  • Track II: Long term foreign currency denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 10 years.
  • Track III: Indian Rupee (INR) denominated ECB with minimum average maturity of 3/5 years.

Forms of ECBs: The ECB Framework enables permitted resident en-tities to borrow from recognized non-resident entities in the following forms:

  • Loans including bank loans.
  • Securitized instruments (e.g. floating rate notes and fixed rate bonds, non-convertible, optionally convertible or partially convertible preference shares/debentures).
  • Buyers’ credit.
  • Suppliers’ credit.
  • Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs).
  • Financial Lease.
  • Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs).

Question 10.
What do you mean by ECB? Under what circumstances conversion of ECB’s into equity is possible?
Answer:
ECBs are commercial loans raised by eligible resident entities from recognized non-resident entties and should confirm to parameters such as minimum maturity, permitted and non-permitted end-uses, maximum all-in-cost ceiling, etc. The parameters apply in totality and not on a standalone basis.

Circumstances in which Conversion of ECBs into equity is permitted (including those which are matured but unpaid) subject to fulfilment of following conditions:

  • The activity of the borrowing company is covered under the automatic route for FDI or approval route from the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), wherever applicable for foreign equity participation has been obtained as per the extant FDI policy.
  • Reporting requirements should be fulfilled.
  • The conversion, which should be with the lender’s consent and without any additional cost will not result in breach of applicable sector cap on the foreign equity holding.
  • Applicable pricing guidelines for shares are complied with.
  • Consent of other lenders, if any.
  • In case borrower concerned has availed of other credit facilities from the Indian banking system the applicable prudential guidelines issued by RBI are complied with.

Question 11.
Distinguish between the following: “FCCB and FCEB”.
Answer:
“FCCB and FCEB”:
Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) are issued by a company to non-residents giving them the option to either convert them into shares of the same company at a pre-determined price or have the bonds redeemed. On the other hand, Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs) are issued by the investment or holding company of a group to non-residents which are exchangeable for the shares of the specified company at a predetermined price. The key difference, therefore, is while FCCB involves just one company, FCEB involves at least two companies where the bonds are issued by a company while the shares are of ‘offered company’ whose shares should be listed on stock exchange.

Question 12.
“Both Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs) and Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) are convertible into equity shares.” Since both are convertible into equity shares you are required to highlight the advantages of FCEBs over FCCBs.
Answer:
Both Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs) and Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) are convertible into equity shares, the advantages of FCEBs over FCCBs are:

  • Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds (FCEBs) offers similar benefits of conversion as Foreign Currency Convertible Bond (FCCB).
  • FCEBs offer one unique advantage over and above FCCB which is that FCEBs are convertible into shares of another company (offered company) that forms part of same promoter group as the issuer company. So it does not result in dilution of shareholding at the offered company level.
  • FCEB scheme affords a unique opportunity for Indian promoters to unlock value in group companies. They can raise money overseas to fund their new projects and acquisitions, both Indian and global by leveraging a part of their shareholding in listed group entities.

Question 13.
Distinguish between the following: “Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII).”
Answer:
Differences between “Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)”:

Basis of Distinction Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Foreign Institutional Investor (FII)
Meaning FDI is a direct investment into the production or business by a company in a country other than its domestic country. FII is an investment made by an investor in the markets of a foreign nation.
Restriction on entry and exit FDI cannot enter and exit easily. FII can enter the stock market easily.
Target FDI targets a specific enterprise. FII targeted to increases capital availability.
Stability FDI is considered more stable than FII. FII is considered less stable than FDI.
Nature of Investment FDI is “Strategic Investment” i.e. for long period. FII is Portfolio investment.

Question 14.
Distinguish between the following: “Asian Development Bank and International Monetary Fund”.
Answer:
Asian Development Bank: Asian Development Bank (ADB) assists its member and partners, by providing loans, technical assistance, growth and other equity investments to promote social and economic development ADB is composed of 67 members 48 of which are from the Asia and the Pacific region. The ADB is committed to achieving a prosperous, inclusive resilient and sustainable Asia and the Pacific while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty. It assists its members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.

International Monetary Fund (IMF): The IMF’s primary purpose is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system. The system of exchange rates and international payments that enables countries (and their citizens) to transact with each other. Funds mandate was updated in 2012 to include all macro-economic and financial sector issues that bear on global stability.

Question 15.
Briefly explain the principal documents involved in issuance of Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) and Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs).
Answer:
Following are principal documents involved in issuance of Global De-pository Receipts (GDRs) and Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs):

  • Depository Agreement: Depository agreement outlines the detailed arrangements entered into by the company with the Depository, the forms and terms of the depository receipts, rights and duties of the depositor.
  • Subscription Agreement: Subscription agreement provides that Lead Managers and other managers agree, severally and not jointly, with the company, subject to the satisfaction of certain conditions to subscribe for GDRs at the offering price set forth.
  • Agency Agreement: In accordance of this agreement, conversion agents are required to make the principal and interest payments to the holders of FCCBs from the funds provided by the company.
  • Trust Deed: For FCCBs, the company enters into a Covenant (known as Trust Deed) with the Trustee for the holders of FCCBs guaranteeing payment of principal and interest amount on such FCCBs and to comply with the obligations in respect of such FCCBs.
  • Custodian Agreement: Custodian works in co-ordination with the depository and has to observe all imposed obligations on it including those mentioned in the depository agreement. The custodian is responsible solely to the depository.

Question 16.
What is ‘offering circular’? Explain the contents of offering circular for Euro Issue.
Answer:
Offering Circular: It is a document issued by the issuer company through which the prospective investors can access vital information regarding the company in order to form their investment strategies. It is to be prepared very carefully giving true and complete information regarding the financial strength of the company, its past performance, past and envisaged research and business promotion activities track record of promoters and the company, ability to trade the securities on Euro capital market.

Contents of Offering Circular for Euro issue:

  • Background of the company and its promoters including date of incorporation and objects, past performance, production, sales and distribution network, future, plans etc.
  • Capital structure of the company existing proposed and consolidated.
  • Deployment of issue proceeds.
  • Financial data indicating track record consistent profitability of the company.
  • Group investments and their performance including subsidiaries, joint venture in India and abroad.
  • Status of approvals required to be obtained from Government of India.
  • Summary of significant differences in Indian GAAP, UK GAAP and US GAAP and expert’s opinion.
  • Report of statutory auditor.
  • Subscription and sale.
  • Transfer restrictions in respect of instruments.
  • Legal matters etc.
  • Investment considerations.
  • Description of shares.
  • Terms and conditions of global depository receipt and any other instrument issued along with it.
  • Economic and regulatory policies of the Government of India.
  • Details of Indian securities market indicating stock exchange, listing requirements, foreign investments in Indian securities.
  • Market price of securities.
  • Dividend and capitalization.
  • Securities regulations and exchange control.
  • Tax aspects indicating analysis of tax consequences under Indian law of acquisition, membership and sale of shares, treatment of capital gains tax, etc.
  • Other general information not forming part of any of the above.

Question 17.
“Offering circular is a mirror through which the prospective investors can access vital information of the company in order to form their investment strategies.” Explain the statement and list out the contents included in the offering circular.
Answer:

  • The given statement i.e. “Offering Circular is a mirror through which the prospective investors can access vital information regarding the company in order to form their investment strategies” is correct.
  • Offering Circular is used in case of “Euro Issue” which gives true and complete information regarding the financial strength of the company, its past performance, past and envisaged research and business pro-motion activities, track record of promoters and the company, ability to trade the securities on Euro capital market.

Contents of Offering Circular for Euro issue:

  • Background of the company and its promoters including date of incorporation and objects, past performance, production, sales and distribution network, future, plans etc.
  • Capital structure of the company existing proposed and consolidated.
  • Deployment of issue proceeds.
  • Financial data indicating track record consistent profitability of the company.
  • Group investments and their performance including subsidiaries, joint venture in India and abroad.
  • Status of approvals required to be obtained from Government of India.
  • Summary of significant differences in Indian GAAP, UK GAAP and US GAAP and expert’s opinion.
  • Report of statutory auditor.
  • Subscription and sale.
  • Transfer restrictions in respect of instruments.
  • Legal matters etc.
  • Investment considerations.
  • Description of shares.
  • Terms and conditions of global depository receipt and any other instrument issued along with it.
  • Economic and regulatory policies of the Government of India.
  • Details of Indian securities market indicating stock exchange, listing requirements, foreign investments in Indian securities.
  • Market price of securities.
  • Dividend and capitalization.
  • Securities regulations and exchange control.
  • Tax aspects indicating analysis of tax consequences under Indian law of acquisition, membership and sale of shares, treatment of capital gains tax, etc.
  • Other general information not forming part of any of the above.

Question 18.
List the approvals required for resources mobilisation by a company in the international capital market.
Answer:
The following approvals are required for issue of GDRs/FCCBs:

  • Approval of Board of Directors: A meeting of Board of Directors is required to be held for approving the proposal to raise money from Euro Capital market. A board resolution is to be passed to approve the raising of finance by issue of GDRs/FCCBs.
  • Approval of Shareholders: Proposal for making Euro issue, as proposed by Board of Directors require approval of shareholders through a special resolution.
  • Approval of Ministry of Finance: In case of FCCB issue exceeding US $ 100 million, the company needs to apply Ministry of Finance for approval. A Company need not obtain approval of Ministry of Finance before issuing depository receipts. However, approval if any required under FDI Policy would still be required.
  • Approval of Reserve Bank of India: The issuer company has to obtain approvals from Reserve Bank of India under circumstances specified under the guidelines issued by the concerned authorities from time to time.
  • In-principle consent of Stock Exchanges for listing of underlying shares: The issuing company has to make a request to the domestic stock exchange for in-principle consent for listing of underlying shares which shall be lying in the custody of domestic custodian. These shares, when released by the custodian after cancellation of GDR, are traded on Indian stock exchanges like any other equity shares.
  • In-principle consent of Financial Institutions: Where term loans have been obtained by the company from the financial institutions, the agreement relating to the loan contains a stipulation that the consent of the financial institution has to be obtained. The company must obtain in-principle consent on the broad terms of the proposed issue.

Question 19.
Explain briefly the following statement: “FCCB and ECB are different modes for raising foreign capital”.
Answer:
FCCB and ECB are two different modes for raising capital foreign sources

  • Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) means bonds issued in accordance with the FCCBs and Ordinary Shares (Through Depository Receipt Mechanism) Scheme, 1993 and subscribed by a non-resident in foreign currency and convertible into ordinary shares of the issuing company in any manner, either in whole or in part of the basis of any equity related warrants attached to debt instruments.
  • External Commercial Borrowings are one of the modes for sourcing of funds for corporate. External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) include commercial bank loans, buyer’s credit, suppliers credit, securitized instruments such as floating rate notes and fixed rate bonds. As per revised ECB guideline, ECB can be accessed as per three tracks i.e. Track-I, Track-II and Track-in.

Question 20.
What are the approvals required for issuance of Global Depository Receipts (GDRs)?
Answer:
Various approvals required for issuance of Global Depository Receipts (GDRs):

  • Approval of the Board of Directors.
  • Approval of shareholders;
  • No need to obtain approval of Ministry of Finance. In case approval if any required under FDI Policy would still be required.
  • Approved of Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
  • Approval of Reserve Bank of India.
  • In principal consent of
    • Stock Exchange for listing of underlying shares.
    • Financial Institutions.

Question 21.
Explain briefly: “Two-way Fungibility Scheme”.
Answer:
“Two-way Fungibility Scheme”:

  • “Two-way Fungibility Scheme” means that the shares so released can be reconverted by the company into DRs for purchase by the overseas investors.
  • Two-way Fungibility Scheme implies that the re-issuance of DRs would be permitted to the extent of Depository Receipts that have been redeemed and underlying shares are sold in domestic market.
  • Limited two-way fungibility scheme has been put in place by the Government of India for ADRs/GDRs. Under this scheme, a stock broker in India registered with SEBI, can purchase shares of an Indian company from the market for conversion into ADRs/ GDRs based on instructions received from overseas investors. Re-issuance of ADRs/ GDRs would be permitted to the extent of ADRs/GDRs which have been redeemed into underlying shares and sold in the Indian market.

Question 22.
“Not only Indian companies are going abroad to raise funds, foreign companies are also coming to India to raise funds.” Name the instrument(s) through which a foreign company can raise funds in India by issuing its own equity shares. Also, state the eligibility and conditions for the issue of such instrumcnt(s) in India.
Answer:
A foreign company can raise funds in India by issuing its own equity shares through Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs).

  • According to Section 2(48) of the Companies Act, 2013 “Indian Depository Receipt” means any instrument in the form of a depository receipt created by a domestic depository in India and authorised by a company incorporated outside India making an issue of such depository receipts.
  • Section 390 of the Companies Act, 2013 and Rule 13 of Companies (Registration of Foreign Companies) Rules, 2014 lays down the eligibility criteria and conditions for issue of Indian Depository Receipts.

Eligibility for Issue of IDRs:
As Rule 13(2) of the Companies (Registration of Foreign Companies) Rules, 2014 stipulates that the issuing company shall not issue IDRs unless:

  • its pre-issue paid-up capital and free reserves are at least US$ 50 million and it has a minimum average market capitalization (during the last three years) in its parent country of at least US$ 100 million.
  • it has been continuously trading on a stock exchange in its parent or home country (the country of incorporation of such company) for at least three immediately preceding years.
  • it has a track record of distributable profits in terms of section 123 of the Act, for at least three out of immediately preceding five years.
  • it fulfils such other eligibility criteria as may be laid down by the SEBI from time to time in this behalf.

Conditions:
Following conditions required to be fulfilled for issue of prospectus which is as under:
(a) No application form for the securities of the issuing company shall be issued unless the form is accompanied by a memorandum containing the salient features of prospectus in the specified form.

(b) An application form can be issued without the memorandum as specified in clause (a), if it is issued in connection with an invitation to enter into an underwriting agreement with respect to the IDRs.

(c) The prospectus for subscription of IDRs of the Issuing company which includes a statement purporting to be made by an expert shall not be circulated, issued or distributed in India or abroad unless a statement that the expert has given his written consent to the issue thereof and has not withdrawn such consent before the delivery of a copy of the prospectus to SEBI and the Registrar of Companies, New Delhi, appears on the prospectus.

(d) The provisions of the Act shall apply for all liabilities for mis-statements in prospectus or punishment for fraudulently inducing persons to invest money in IDRs.

(e) The person(s) responsible for issue of the prospectus shall not incur any liability by reason of any non-compliance with or contravention of any provision of this rule if:

  • as regards any matter not disclosed, he proves that he had no knowledge thereof; or
  • contravention arose in respect of such matters which in the opinion of the Central Government or SEBI were not material.

Question 23.
Indian companies are allowed to raise Equity Capital in the Inter-national Market through the issue of ADR/GDR/FCCB/FCEB. Briefly, discuss the regulatory framework of ADR & GDR in India.
Answer:
Indian companies are allowed to raise capital in the international market through issue of ADR/GDR which are regulated by the following legislations in India:

  • The Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds and Ordinary Shares (Through Depository Receipt Mechanism) Scheme, 1993.
  • Depository Receipts Scheme, 2014.
  • Notifications/Circulars issued by Ministry of Finance (MoF), GOI. Consolidated FDI Policy.
  • RBI Regulations/Circulars.
  • Companies Act, 2013 and Rules there under.
  • Listing Regulations.

Question 24.
Discuss the different modes of Euro Issue detail.
Answer:
Euro issue means modes of raising funds by an Indian company outside India in foreign currency. There are different modes of Euro issue which is as follows:
1. Depository Receipts:
a. American Depository Receipts
i Existing shares;
it Fresh shares.

b. Global Depository Receipts
i From Euro market.
ii From US market.

2. Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds/Foreign Currency exchangeable bonds.

Question 25.
States the procedure laid out for issuance of ADRs/GDRs. ;
Answer:
Following are the procedure for the issuance of ADRs/GDRs: The issue of ADRs/GDRs requires the approval of a Board of Directors, share holders, “In principle and Final” approval of Ministry of Finance, approval of Reserve Bank of India, In-principle consent of Stock Exchange for listing of underlying shares and In-principle consent of Financial institutions.
1. Approval of Board of Directors:
Meeting of Board of Directors is required to be held for approving the proposal to raise money from Euro Capital Market. Board Resolution is to be passed to approve the raising of finance by issue of GDRs/ FCCBs. The resolution should indicate therein specific purposes for which funds are required, quantum of the issue, country in which issue is to be launched, time of the issue etc.

2. Approval of Shareholders:
Proposal for making Euro issue, as proposed by Board of Directors requires approval of shareholders. A special resolution under section 62 of the Companies Act, 2013 is required to be passed at a duly convened general meeting of the shareholders of the company.

3. Approval of Ministry of Finance- “In-Principle and Final”:
With respect to ADR/GDR guidelines issued on the subject brought ADR/GDR under the automatic route and therefore the requirement of obtaining approval of Ministry of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs has been dispersed with.

Further, private placement of ADR/GDR will also not require prior approval provided the issue is managed by investment banker.

4. In-Principle Consent of Stock Exchanges for Listing of Underlying Shares:
The issuing company has to make a request to the domestic stock ex-change for in-principle consent for listing of underlying shares which shall be lying in the custody of domestic custodian. These shares, when released by the custodian after cancellation of GDR, are traded on Indian stock exchanges like any other equity shares.

5. In-Principle Consent of Financial Institutions:
Where term loans have been obtained by the company from the financial institutions, the agreement relating to the loan contains a stipulation that the consent of the financial institution has to be obtained. The company must obtain in-principle consent on the broad terms of the proposed issue.

Question 26.
“Achieving a prosperous, inclusive, resilient and sustainable Asia and the pacific, while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty”- Justify the mission of Asia Development Bank in your own words.
Answer:

  • Asian Development Bank (ADB) as a financial institution that would be Asian in character and foster economic growth and co-operation in one of the poorest regions in the world in early 1960s.
  • Asian Development Bank is committed to achieving a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty. It assists its members and partners by providing loans, technical assistance, grants and equity investments to promote social and economic development.
  • Asian Development Bank in partnership with member governments, independent specialists and other financial institutions is focused on delivering projects in developing member countries that create economic and developments impact.
  • As a multilateral development finance institution, Asian Development Bank provides:
    • Loans.
    • Technical assistance.
    • Grants.
  • Asian Development Bank maximizes the development impact of its assistance by:
    • Mobilizing financial resources through co-financing operations that top official, commercial and export credit sources.
    • Facilitating policy dialogues.
    • Providing advisory services.

Question 27.
What do you mean by “Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds” (FCCBs)? State the benefits of FCCBs to investors and the issuer.
Answer:
Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) are unsecured carrying a fixed rate of interest and an option for conversion into a fixed number of equity shares of the issuer company. Interest and redemption price (if conversion option is not exercised) is payable in dollars. FCCBs shall be denominated in any freely convertible Foreign Currency. However, it must be kept in mind that FCCB issue proceeds need to conform to ECB end use requirements.

Benefits to the Issuer Company:

  • Being Hybrid instrument, the coupon rate on FCCB is particularly lower than pure debt instrument thereby reducing the debt financing cost.
  • FCCBs are book value accretive on conversion. It saves risks of immediate equity dilution as in the case of public shares. Unlike debt, FCCB does not require any rating nor any covenant like securities, cover etc.

Benefits to Investors:

  • Has advantage of both equity and debt.
  • Ability to take advantage of price appreciation in the stock by means of warrants attached to the bonds which are activated when price of a stock reaches a certain point.
  •  It gives the investor
    • upside of investment in case equity and
    • debt portion protects the downside.
  • Assured return on bond in the form of fixed coupon rate pay-ments.

Question 28.
Discuss five elements of framework for raising External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) for Start-ups?
Answer:
1. Eligibility: An entity recognised as a Start-up by the Central Government as on date of raising ECB.

2. Maturity Minimum average maturity period will be 3 years.

3. Forms: The borrowing can be in form of loans or non-convertible, optionally convertible or partially convertible preference shares.

4. Currency: The borrowing should be denominated in any freely convertible currency or in Indian Rupees (INR) or a combination thereof.

In case of borrowing in INR, the non-resident lender, should mo­bilise INR through swaps/outright sale undertaken through an AD Category-I bank in India.

5. Amount: The borrowing per Start-up will be limited to USD 3 million or equivalent per financial year either in INR or any convertible foreign currency or a combination of both.

Question 29.
Discuss about four intermediaries’ agencies in Euro Issue?
Answer:
Four intermediaries’ agencies in Euro Issue are as follows:

1. Lead Manager: The company has to choose a competent lead manager to structure the issue and arrange for the marketing. Lead managers usually charge a lee as a per cent of the issue. The issues related to public or private placement, nature of investment, coupon rate on bonds and conversion price are to be decided in consultation with the lead manager.

2. Co-Lead/Co-Manager: In consultation with the lead manager, the company has to appoint co-lead/co-manager to coordinate with the issuing company/lead manager to make the smooth launching of the Euro issue.

3. Overseas Depository Bank: It is the bank which is authorised by the issuing company to issue Depository Receipts against issue of ordinary shares or Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds of issuing company.

4. Listing Agent: One of the conditions of Euro-issue is that it should be listed at one or more Overseas Stock Exchanges. The appointment of listing agent is necessary to coordinate with issuing company for listing the securities on Overseas Stock Exchanges.

Question 30.
What are the benefits of FCCBs to the Investor?
Answer:
Benefits of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds to the Investor are as follows:

  • It has advantage of both equity and debt.
  • It gives the investor much of the upside of investment in equity and the debt portion protects the downside.
  • Assured return on bond in the form of fixed coupon rate payments.
  • Ability to take advantage of price appreciation in the stock by means of warrants attached to the bonds which are activated when price of a stock reaches a certain point.
  • Significant Yield to maturity (YTM) is guaranteed at maturity.
  • Lower tax liability as compared to pure debt instruments due to lower coupon rate.

Question 31.
Write short note on: “International Monetary Fund”.
Answer:
“International Monetary Fund”:

  • IMF is governed by and accountable to the 189 countries that make up its near-global membership.
  • IMF is working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world.
  • The IMF’s fundamental mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system in three ways:
    • keeping track of the global economy and the economies of member countries;
    • lending to countries with balance of payments difficulties; and
    • giving practical help to members.

Question 32.
Write short note on: “Custodian Agreement”.
Answer:

  • Custodian works in coordination with the depository and has to observe all obligations imposed on it including those mentioned in the depository agreement. In nutshell, the custodian is responsible solely to the depository.
  • In the case of the depository and the custodian being same legal entity references to them separately in the depository agreement or otherwise may be made for convenience and the legal entity will be responsible for discharging both functions directly to the holders and the company.
  • The depository in its discretion determines that it is in the best interests of the holders to do so it may after prior consultation with the company terminate.
  • The depository shall notify holders of such change promptly and any successor custodian appointed shall agree to observe all imposed obligations.
  • The appointment of the custodian and in such an event the depository shall promptly appoint a successor custodian which shall upon acceptance of such appointment become the custodian under the depository agreement.

Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Notes

Other Borrowings Tools – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Other Borrowings Tools – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Question 1.
Explain “Commercial Paper”.
Answer:
“Commercial Paper”: Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form a promissory note. CP is a private placed instrument. It enables highly rated corporate borrowers to diversify their sources of short-term borrowings and provides an additional instrument to investors.

Question 2.
Comment on the following: Issue of unsecured debentures by a company to another company, where the debenture have an option for compulsory conversion into equity shares within seven years, cannot be termed as deposits.
Answer:
As per section 73 of Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 2(l)(c) of Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014 define the term ‘deposit’.

As per Rule 2(1)(c)(ix), deposit shall not include any amount raised by issue of bonds or debentures secured by first charge or a charge ranking pari passu with the first charge on any assets referred to in Schedule m of the Companies Act, 2013 excluding intangible assets of the company or the bonds or debentures compulsorily convertible into shares of the company within 10 years.

Since comprehensive reading of the above clause the unsecured debenture issued having option of compulsory conversion into shares of the company within ten years shall not be treated as deposits.

In the given case, the unsecured debentures issued by the company having option of compulsory conversion into shares of the company within seven years cannot be treated as deposits.

Question 3.
Define the term ‘deposits’ and list out the receipts of money which are not considered as deposits.
Answer:
According to the section 2(31) of the Act read with Rule 2(c) of Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014, “deposit” includes any receipt of money by way of deposit or loan or in any other form by a company, but does not include
→ any amount received from the Central Government or a State Government, or any amount received from any other source whose repayment is guaranteed by the Central Government or a State Government, or any amount received from a local authority, or any amount received from a statutory authority constituted under an Act of Parliament or a State Legislature.

→ any amount received from foreign Governments, foreign or international banks, multilateral financial institutions (including, but not limited to, International Finance Corporation, Asian Development Bank, Commonwealth Development Corporation and International Bank for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction), foreign Governments owned development financial institutions, foreign export credit agencies, foreign collaborators, foreign bodies corporate and foreign citizens, foreign authorities or persons resident outside India subject to the provisions of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and rules and regulations made there under.

→ any amount received as a loan or facility from any banking company or from the State Bank of India or any of its subsidiary banks or from a banking institution notified by the Central Government under section 51 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, or a corresponding new bank as defined in clause (d) of section 2 of the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970 or in clause (b) of section 2 of the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980, or from a co-operative bank as defined in Section 2(bii) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

→ any amount received as a loan or financial assistance from Public Financial Institutions notified by the Central Government in this be-half in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India or any regional financial institutions or Insurance Companies or Scheduled Banks as defined in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

→ any amount received against issue of commercial paper or any other instruments issued in accordance with the guidelines or notification issued by the Reserve Bank of India.

→ any amount received by a company from any other company.

→ any amount received and held pursuant to an offer made in accordance with the provisions of the Act towards subscription to any securities, including share application money or advance towards allotment of securities pending allotment, so long as such amount is appropriated only against the amount due on allotment of the securities applied for.

→ any amount received from a person who, at the time of the receipt of the amount, was a director of the company or a relative of the director of the Private company.

However, the director of the company or relative of the director of the private company, as the case may be, from whom money is received, furnishes to the company at the time of giving the money, a declaration in writing to the effect that the amount is not being given out of funds acquired by him by borrowing or accepting loans or deposits from others and the company shall disclose the details of money so accepted in the Board’s Report.

→ any amount raised by the issue of bonds or debentures secured by a first charge or a charge ranking pari passu with the first charge on any assets referred to in Schedule m of the Act excluding intangible assets of the company or bonds or debentures compulsorily convertible into shares of the company within Ten years.

However, if such bonds or debentures are secured by the charge of any assets referred to in Schedule HI of the Act, excluding intangible assets, the amount of such bonds or debentures shall not exceed the market value of such assets as assessed by a registered valuer.

→ any amount raised by issue of non-convertible debenture not constituting a charge on the assets of the company and listed on a recognised stock exchange as per applicable regulations made by Securities and Exchange Board of India.

→ any amount received from an employee of the company not exceeding his annual salary under a contract of employment with the company in the nature of non-interest bearing security deposit.

→ any non-interest bearing amount received and held in trust.

→ any amount accepted by a Nidhi company in accordance with the rules made under section 406 of the Act.

→ any amount received by way of subscription in respect of a chit under the Chit Fund Act, 1982.

→ any amount received by the company under any collective investment scheme in compliance with regulations framed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.

→ an amount of twenty five lakh rupees or more received by a start-up company, by way of a convertible note (convertible into equity shares or repayable within a period not exceeding five years from the date of issue) in a single tranche, from a person.

Question 4.
Tree Reserves’ and ‘Net Worth’ under the provisions of Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
As per section 2(43) of Companies Act, 2013: Tree Reserves’ mean such reserves which, as per the latest audited Balance Sheet of a company, are available for distribution as dividend. Provided that any amount representing unrealized gains, notional gains or revaluation of assets whether as a reserve or otherwise or any change in carrying amount of an asset or a liability recognized in equity, including profit and loss account on measurement of the asset or the liability at fair value, shall not be treated as free reserves.

As per section 2(57) of Companies Act, 2013: ‘Net worth’ means the aggregate value of the paid up share capital and all reserves created out of the profits and securities premium account, after deducting the aggregate value of the accumulated losses, deferred expenditure and miscellaneous expenditure not written off, as per the audited Balance Sheet, but does not include reserves created out of revaluation of assets, write-back of depreciation and amalgamation.

Question 5.
What is the difference between a Fixed Deposit and Inter-Corporate Deposit? In case of default by a company, explain the role of regulator.
Answer:
Fixed Deposit and Inter-Corporate Deposit:
Corporate also have access to another market called the Inter Corporate Deposits (ICD) market. An ICD is an unsecured loan extended by one corporate to another. Existing mainly as a refuge for low rated corporate, this market allows corporate with surplus funds to lend to other corporate facing shortage of funds. Another aspect of this market is that the better-rated corporate can borrow from the banking system and lend in this market to make speculative profits. As the cost of funds for a corporate in much higher than that of a bank, thus, the rates in this market are higher than those in the other markets. ICDs are unsecured, and hence the risk inherent is high.

Role of Regulator in case of default by a company:

If company fails to repay the depositor may apply to Tribunal and tribunal may direct that:
→ the company shall, in addition to the payment of the amount of deposit or part thereof and the interest due, be punishable with fine which shall not be less than one crore rupees but which may extend to ten crore rupees; and

→ every officer of the company who is in default shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or with fine which shall not be less than twenty-five lakh rupees but which may extend to two crore rupees, or with both.
However, if it is proved that the officer of the company who is in default, has contravened such provisions knowingly or wilfully with the intention to deceive the company or its shareholders or depositors or creditors or tax authorities, he shall be liable for action under section 447 of Companies Act, 2013.

→ Any suit, proceedings or other action may be taken by any person, group of persons or any association of persons who had incurred any loss as a result of the failure of the company to repay the deposits or part thereof or any interest thereon.

→ Where a company fails to repay the deposit or part thereof or any interest thereon referred to in section 74 of the Companies Act, 2013 within the time specified in sub-section (1) of that section or such further time as may be allowed by the Tribunal under sub-section (2) of that section and it is proved that the deposits had been accepted with intent to defraud the depositors or for any fraudulent purpose, every officer of the company who was responsible for the acceptance of such deposit shall, without prejudice to the provisions contained in sub-section (3) of that section and liability under section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013, be personally responsible, without any limitation of liability, for all or any of the losses or damages that may have been incurred by the depositors.

Question 6.
Distinguish between the following: Commercial Paper and Inter Corporate Deposit.
Answer:
Following are the differences between Commercial Paper and Inter Corporate Deposits:
Commercial Paper (CP):
It is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note to enable highly rated corporate borrowers to diversify their sources of short-term borrowings and to provide an additional instrument to investors.

Companies, Primary Dealers and financial institutions (FIs) are permitted to raise short-term resources under the umbrella limit fixed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) are eligible to issue Commercial Paper.

A company would be eligible to issue Commercial Paper provided:

  • the tangible net worth of the company, as per the latest audited balance sheet, is not less than ₹ 4 crores.
  • the company has been sanctioned working capital limit by bank/s or FIs and
  • the borrowal account of the company is classified as a Standard Asset by the financing bank/institution.

Inter Corporate Deposits (ICD):

  • Corporate also have access to another market called the Inter Corporate Deposits (ICD) market.
  • An ICD is an unsecured loan extended by one corporate to another. Existing mainly as a refuge for low rated corporate, this market allows corporate with surplus funds to lend to other corporate facing shortage of funds.
  • Another aspect of this market is that the better-rated corporate can borrow from the banking system and lend in this market to make speculative profits. As the cost of funds for a corporate in much higher than that of a bank. Thus, the rates in this market are higher than those in the other markets.
  • ICDs are unsecured. Thus, the risk inherent is high.
  • ICD market is an unorganised market with very less information available publicly about transaction details.

Question 7.
Comment on the following: A private company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 may issue debentures to any number of persons and can accept deposits from the public.
Answer:

  • According to section 2(68) of Companies Act, 2013: A private limited company may not make an invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.
  • However, under section 42 read with section 2(68), it may issue such security to any person (number of persons not exceeding 200).
  • As per provisions of section 73(2) read with Exemption Notification dated 5th June, 2015:

A private company may accept from its member’s monies not exceeding one hundred percent of aggregate of the paid-up share capital and free reserves

  • subject to the passing of a resolution in general meeting, and
  • subject to such rules as may be prescribed in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India

accept deposits from its members on such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon between the company and its members, subject to the fulfilment of certain conditions as provided under the Act.

Question 8.
Comment on the following: A private limited company can accept deposit from its members under the provisions of the companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
A private limited company can accept deposit from its members in accordance with Section 73 of the Companies Act, 2013 and rules made there under. Moreover, the Government has exempted the private companies vide notification dated 13th June, 2017, from applicability of section 73(1 )(a) to (e).

Accordingly, a private company may accept deposit from its members:
A. not exceeding one hundred per cent of aggregate of the paid up share capital, free reserves and securities premium account; or

B. is a start-up, for five years from the date of its incorporation; or

C. if it fulfils all of the following conditions, namely:
(a) is not an associate or a subsidiary company of any other company;
(b) if the borrowings of such a company from banks or financial institutions or anybody corporate is less than twice of its paid up share capital or fifty crore rupees, whichever is lower; and
(c) such a company has not defaulted in the repayment of such borrowings subsisting at the time of accepting deposits under this section:

However, the company referred to in clause A, B or C shall file the details of monies accepted to the Registrar in such manner as may be specified.

Question 9.
What are the merits and demerits of customer advance? Explain.
Answer:
Merits of Customer Advance:
(i) Interest free: Amount offered as advance is interest free. Hence funds are available without involving financial burden.
(ii) No tangible security: The seller is not required to deposit any tangible security while seeking advance from the customer. Thus assets remain free of charge.
(iii) No repayment obligation: Money received as advance is not to be refunded. Hence there are no repayment obligations.

Demerits of Customer Advance:
(i) Limited amount: The amount advanced by the customer is subject to the value of the order. Borrowers’ need may be more than the amount of advance.
(ii) Limited period: The period of customers’ advance is only up to the delivery goods. It cannot be reviewed or renewed.
(iii) Penalty in case of non-delivery of goods: Advances are subject to the condition that in case goods are not delivered on time the order would be cancelled and the advance would have to be refunded along with interest.

Question 10.
Sunbeam Ltd. failed to pay interest on repayment of deposits. One depositor approached the consumer forum with the request to issue order against the company for payment of interest on deposits. The company contended that the consumer forum was not a proper authority to issue such directions. Advice the company suitably.
Answer:
Facts of the case: The given facts are similar to a decided case law. Sun-beam Ltd. failed to pay interest on repayment of deposits. One depositor approached the consumer forum with the request to issue order against the company for payment of interest on deposits. The company contended that the consumer forum was not a proper authority to issue such directions.

Applicable provisions: The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission pointed out that after the Amendment Act, 1993, a consumer forum can direct payment of amounts due to a depositor under the provisions of Section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. An order directing payment of the outstanding amount to the depositors can now be made under the provisions of the Section 14.

Conclusion: In nutshell, the contention of Sun-beam Ltd. is not valid. The payment of interest to the deposit holder should be made as per the order of the consumer forum.

Question 11.
Board of Directors of Joy Ltd., by a resolution passed at its meeting, decided to provide a loan of ₹ 50 crore to Happy Ltd. The paid-up share capital of Joy Ltd. on the date of resolution was ₹ 100 crore and the aggregate balance in the free reserve and securities premium account stood at ₹ 40 crore. Examining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, decide whether the Board’s resolution to provide a loan of ₹ 50 crore to Happy Ltd. is valid?
Answer:
Applicable provisions: In accordance with the section 186 of the Companies Act, 2013 no company shall, directly or indirectly:

1. Give any loan to any person or other body corporate;

2. Give any guarantee, or provide security, connection with a loan to any other person body corporate or person; and

3. Acquire, by way of subscription, purchase or otherwise the Securities of any other body corporate; Exceeding 60% of its paid up share capital, free reserves and securities premium account or 100% of its free reserves and securities premium account, whichever is more unless the same is previously authorised by a special resolution passed in the company’s general meeting. No loan or investment shall be made or guarantee or security given by the company unless the resolution sanctioning it is passed at a meeting of the Board with the consent of all directors present at the meeting.

Facts of the case: Accordingly, in the given case, the company can grant a loan of ₹ 50 crore.
Since the company can grant a loan up to ₹ 84 crore (i.e. 60% of ₹ 100 crore + ₹ 40 crore i.e. = ₹ 84 or ₹ 40 crore whichever is more) without the approval of the general meeting by a special resolution and the Board meeting with the consent of all the directors present.

Conclusion: Only Board’s resolution to provide a loan of ₹ 50 crore to Happy limited without the approval of general meeting by a special resolution is valid.

Question 12.
Prism Ltd. has accepted ₹ 10 Lakh as advance towards the supply of goods to certain parties. As per the agreement, the company will supply the goods after two years from the date of deposit. Later on, internal auditors qualified their report on the ground that the company has violate the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. Directors explained that this is required to complete the order. Examining the relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, state whether the explanation given by the directors is justified.
Answer:
Applicable provisions: According to the section 2(31) of the Act read with Rule 2(c) of Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014 “deposit” includes any receipt of money by way of deposit or loan or in any other form by a company, but does not include any amount received in the course of or for the purposes of the business of the company as an advance for the supply of goods or provision of services provided that such advance is appropriated against supply of goods or provision of services within a period of three hundred and sixty five days from acceptance of such advance.

Facts of the Case: In case of any advance which is subject matter of any legal proceedings before any Tribunal of law, the said time limit of three hundred and sixty five days shall not apply. In the present case Prism Ltd. has accepted INR 10 lakhs as advance towards the supply of goods to certain parties on an agreement to supply goods after two years from date of deposit.

Conclusion: As per applicable provision, the amount so accepted by the company is “deposit”.

Question 13.
Virat, a person of 21 years of age is pursuing MBA (Finance) course at a reputed recognised business school. He is not a shareholder of Grow (Pvt.) Ltd. He wishes to inspect the registrar of investments in securities not held in company’s name and annual return of Grow (Pvt.) Ltd. He also want to take copies thereof. Examining the relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, advise Virat whether he would be successful in this regard.
Answer:
Applicable provision(s):
Section 187 read with rule 14 of Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers), Rules, 2014 provides that every company shall maintain Register of Investment in securities not held in company’s name in Form MI3P-3. Sub-section 3 of the section provides that such register shall be open to inspection by any member or debenture-holder of the company without any charge during business hours subject to such reasonable restrictions as the company may by its articles or in general meeting impose.

Section 94 provides that copies of annual return filed under section 92 shall be kept at registered office of the company. Further the copies of all the returns shall be open for inspection by any member, debenture-holder, other security holder or beneficial owner during business hours without payment of fees and by any other person on payment of such fees as may be prescribed under Companies (Registration office & fee) Rules, 2014. Further he may take a copy of the return on payment of such fees as may be prescribed in above said rules.

Facts of the Case: In the given case, Virat (a person of 21 years of age) is pursuing MBA (Finance) course at a reputed recognised business school. He is not a shareholder of Grow (Pvt.) Ltd. He wishes to inspect the registrar of investments in securities not held in company’s name and annual return of Grow (Pvt.) Ltd. Also he wants to take copies.

Conclusion(s):

  • In the given case, Virat who is not a member of the company is not eligible to inspect the Register of Investment in securities not held in company’s name.
  • In the given case, Virat may inspect and take copy of Annual Return and not the Register of Investment in securities not held in company’s name.

Question 14.
Board of Directors of Green Field Ltd. decides to accept deposits from the public at a compound interest rate of 12% per annum. Examining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, advise whether the Board can go ahead with its proposal.
Answer:

  • Facts of the case: Board of Directors of Green Field Ltd. decides to accept deposits from the public at a compound interest rate of 12% per annum.
  • Question Arises: Whether the Board can go ahead with its proposal or not?

Applicable Provisions:
As per Rule 3(6) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2016: No company under section 73 (2) or any “Eligible Company” shall invite or accept or renew any deposits in any form carrying a rate of interest or pay brokerage thereon at a rate exceeding the maximum rate of interest or brokerage prescribed by the Reserve Bank of India for acceptance of deposits by non-banking financial companies.

Conclusion: Green Field Ltd. is advised to go ahead with the proposal carrying a rate of interest not exceeding the maximum rate of interest or brokerage prescribed by the Reserve Bank of India for acceptance of deposits by non-banking financial companies.

Question 15.
Suresh, a member of Rtichi Ltd., wants to inspect the register of deposits maintained by the Company as required under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. The company refused to provide the register for inspection without assigning any reason. Referring to the provisions of the Act, examine the validity of the company’s refusal. What shall be your answer if the same Register is demanded by the statutory auditors of the company for inspection and for their audit?
Answer:
Facts of the Case: Suresh, a member of Ruchi Ltd. wants to inspect the register of deposits maintained by the Company as required under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
In the given case, company refused to provide the register for inspec-tion without assigning any reason.

Applicable provisions: According to Rule 14 of Companies (Acceptance of deposits) Rules, 2014, every company accepting deposits shall, from the date of such acceptance, keep at its registered office one or more separate registers for deposits accepted/renewed. In absence of any enabling provision, this register is not open for inspection by members and company may refuse to open it for inspection.

Conclusion: In the given case, Ruchi Limited can refuse to provide the register for inspection without giving any reason because it is not open for inspection but in case of statutory auditors, the company cannot to do so. The Statutory Auditors have a right to inspect and check every register maintained by the company.

Question 16.
RR Limited has decided to make investment in other companies for ? 50 lakhs, which is in excess of 60% of the company’s paid-up share capital, free reserve and securities premium account. Company has 5 directors. Four directors were present in the Board meeting, three directors have given their consent but one director abstained from voting. The decision of the Board was noted in the minutes of Board meeting and decided to make such investment by passing of Board resolution with majority. Referring to the provisions of Companies Act, 2013, examine the validity of the Board’s decision. [(June 2017) (4 Marks))
Answer:
Applicable provisions:
As per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 as contained in section 186(5), no investment shall be made or loan or guarantee or security given by the company unless the resolution sanctioning it is passed at a meeting of the Board with the consent of all the directors present at the meeting and the prior approval of the public financial institution concerned where any term loan is subsisting, is obtained. Further under the provisions of section 186(2) and 186(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, the loan amount must not exceed 6096 of its paid-up capital, free reserves and securities premium account or 10096 of free reserves and securities premium account, whichever is more. In case, the company wishes to exceed the said limit prior approval of company through special resolution would be acquired.

Facts of the case:
As per the facts of the given case, RR Limited has decided to make investment in other companies for ? 50 lakhs which is in excess of 60% of the company’s paid-up share capital, free reserve and securities premium account. Company has 5 directors. Four directors were present in the Board meeting, three directors have given their consent but one director abstained from voting. The decision of the Board was noted in the minutes of Board meeting and decided to make such investment by passing of Board resolution with majority.

In absence of adequate information, even if we assume that INR 50 lakh does not exceed the 100% of free reserves and securities premium account. RR limited has not complied with the provisions of section 186 (5) of the Companies Act, 2013 where consent of all the directors present is required.

Conclusion: The resolution of the Board of Directors therefore, is not 4 valid and has no legal effect.

Question 17.
XYZ Ltd., a company, has a paid up share capital of ₹ 60 crores and free reserves of ₹ 25 crores. It desires to make a loan of ₹ 20 crores to M Ltd. The company XYZ Ltd. has already made investments in many other companies including loans to the extent of ₹ 35 crores. Can the company go ahead with loan to M Ltd.? Please advise the company about the procedure to be followed by it.
Answer:
Applicable provisions: As per section 186 of the Companies Act, 2013 a company shall make investments upto 60 per cent of paid up share capital and free reserves or 100 per cent of free reserves and securities premium account whichever is more.

Facts of the Case: In the given case, XYZ Ltd., a company has a paid up share capital of ₹ 60 crores and free reserves of ₹ 25 crores desires to make a loan of ₹ 20 crores to M Ltd. XYZ Ltd. has already made investments in many other companies including loans to the extent of ₹ 35 crores.

Conclusion:

  • In this case, company can make maximum investment of 60% (60+25) = INR 51 crores.
  • In the given case as per facts of the case, XYZ Ltd. has already invested INR 35 crores, thus it can further invest 16 crores only.
    To invest up to 20 crores approval of shareholders through a special resolution required.

Question 18.
Commercial paper is sold at a discount from its face value and re-deemed at its face value. Calculate the pre-tax cost on annualised basis of Commercial paper, if face value is ₹ 5,00,000 maturity period is 180 days and net amount realized is ₹ 4,80,000. (Assume 360 days in a year.)
Answer:
Other Borrowings Tools – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions 1
= \(\frac{(5,00,000-4,80,000) \times 360 / 180}{4,80,000}\)
= 8.33%

Question 19.
Discuss merits of Commercial Paper?
Answer:
Merits of Commercial Paper:

  • It provides more funds compared to other sources.
  • It is freely transferable in nature therefore it has high liquidity also.
  • It produces a continuing source of funds. This is because their maturity can be tailored to suit the needs of issuing firm. It is highly secure and does not contain any restrictive condition.

Question 20.
Discuss demerits of Commercial Paper?
Answer:
Demerits of Commercial Paper:

  • The amount of money that can be raised through commercial paper is limited to the deductible liquidity available with the suppliers of funds at a particular point.
  • The duration of commercial paper cannot be extended.
  • New and moderately rated organizations are not in a position to raise funds by this method. Only financially secure and highly rated organizations can raise money through commercial paper.

Question 21.
In short, discuss the guidelines for issue of commercial paper.
Answer:
The RBI has issued guideline for issuance of commercial papers which is explained as:
Companies, Primary Dealer(s) and Financial Institutions (FIs) are per-mitted to raise short-term resources under the umbrella limit fixed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) are eligible to issue Commercial Paper (CP).

A company would be eligible to issue CP provided:

  • Tangible net worth of the company, as per the latest audited balance sheet, is not less than INR 4 crores.
  • Company has been sanctioned working capital limit by bank(5) or FIs.
  • Borrowers’ account of the company is classified as a Standard Asset by the financing bank/institution.

Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Notes

Gst (Compensation To States) Act, 2017 – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Gst (Compensation To States) Act, 2017 – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Why is the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 enacted?
Answer:
One of the biggest challenges while introducing GST in India was that states were opposing GST, because of their fear of losing revenue after the introduction of GST. The fear was more pronounced in the case of manufacturing/supplier states since the GST was to accrue to the state(s) where the actual consumption of goods takes place as GST is a destination-based tax.

In order to assure a steady flow of revenues to the states by way of compensating the loss, if it arises, Clause 18 of the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 specifically provided that the Parliament shall, by law, on the recommendation of the Goods and Services Tax Council, provide for compensation to the States for loss of revenue arising on account of implementation of the goods and services tax for a period of five years.

In line with the Constitutional amendment, the Government enacted the legislation known as, the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 for providing compensation to the States for the loss of revenue arising on account of implementation of the goods and services tax with effect from the date from which the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act is brought into force (01/07/2017), for a period of five years or for such period as may be prescribed on the recommendations of the GST Council.

Question 2.
Briefly discuss the provisions related to the levy of compensation cess.
Answer:
Compensation Cess is levied as per section 8( 1) of the Goods and Service Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017. As per this section, Compensation 1 Cess is levied on the notified supply of goods or services or both for the purpose of providing compensation to the States for loss of revenue for 5 years or I for such period as may be prescribed on the recommendation of Council, from I enactment of GST law, which may arise due to implementation of GST.

Question 3.
Will refund of Compensation Cess be admissible under GST?
Answer:
Yes. Circular No. 1/1/2017-Compensation Cess issued by Board clarifies that provisions of section 16 of the IGST Act, 2017, relating to zero-rated supply will apply mutatis mutandis for the purpose of Compensation Cess (wherever applicable), that is to say, that: Exporter will be eligible for a refund of Compensation Cess paid on goods exported by him [on similar lines as a refund of IGST under section 16(3)(a) of the IGST, 2017]; or

(a) No Compensation Cess will be charged on goods exported by an exporter under bond and he will be eligible for a refund of an input tax credit of Compensation Cess relating to goods exported [on similar lines as a refund of input taxes under section 16(3)(a) of the IGST, 2017],

Thus, refund of compensation Cess (if it’s on account of zero-rated supplies) will be admissible to the claimant. The process and procedure for a claim of such refund will be the same as for refund of IGST (on both goods and services) and in respect of accumulated ITC of compensation cess.

Further, in cases of unutilized ITC of compensation cess availed on inputs in cases where the final product is not subject to the levy of compensation cess, it has been clarified vide Circular No. 45/19/2018- GST dated 30th May 2018, that refund of accumulated ITC can be claimed in such situations, however the rebate route ie. payment of IGST and claiming refund of compensation cess of IGST paid will not be permissible in such cases. In such cases, they cannot utilize the compensation cess paid on inputs for payment of IGST in view of the proviso to section 11(2) of the Cess Act, which allows the utilization of the input tax credit of cess, only for the payment of cess on the outward supplies. Accordingly, they cannot claim a refund of compensation cess in case of zero-rated supply on payment of integrated tax.

Question 4.
Answer the following with reference to GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017:

  1. Projected Growth Rate
  2. Base year
  3. Projected Revenue for any year
  4. Calculation and release of compensation
  5. The objective of GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017

Answer:
(1) Projected Growth Rate
The projected nominal growth rate of revenue subsumed for a State during the transition period shall be fourteen percent (1496) per annum.

(2) Base Year
For the purpose of calculating the compensation amount payable in any financial year during the transition period, the financial year ending 31st March 2016 shall be taken as the base year.

(3) Projected Revenue for any year
The projected revenue for any year in a State shall be calculated by applying the projected growth rate over the base year revenue of that State.

Illustration: If the base year revenue for 2015-16 for a concerned State, calculated as per section 5 is one hundred rupees, then the projected revenue for the financial year 2018-19 shall be as follows:

Projected Revenue for 2018-19 = 100 \(\left(1+\frac{14}{100}\right)^{3}\)

(4) Calculation and release of compensation
The compensation payable to a state has to be provisionally calculated and released at the end of every two months, which shall be finally calculated for every financial year after the receipt of final revenue figures, as audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

(5) Objective
The objective behind providing compensation to the states is for the loss of 1 revenue arising on account of implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in pursuance of the provisions of the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.

Question 5.
What valuation is to be adopted for levying compensation cess? The assessable value of an article imported into India is 1100. Basic Customs Duty is 10% ad valorem; Social Welfare Surcharge – 10%; Integrated tax rate is 18% and compensation cess is 15%.
Compute the value for compensation cess and amount of compensation cess.
Answer:
The value of the goods for the purpose of levying compensation cess shall be assessable value plus Customs Duty levied under the Act, and any other duty chargeable on the said goods under any law for the time being in force as an addition to, and in the same manner as, a duty of customs.

Particulars Amount (₹)
Assessable Value 100
Basic Customs Duty at 10% 10
Social Welfare Surcharge @ 10% of basic customs duty 1
Value for purpose of levy of IGST and Compensation Cess 111
Integrated Tax @ 18% (Rounded off) 20
Compensation Cess @ 15% of ? 111 16.65

Gst (Compensation To States) Act, 2017 Notes

  • There are a total of 14 sections in the Act and 1 Schedule.
  • The objective of the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017.
  • Meaning of following terms: Base year, Base year revenue, Projected Growth rate, Projected Revenue.
  • Goods and Services on which such compensation cess is leviable (Given in Schedule to the Act).
  • Computation of compensation payable for any financial year.
  • Calculation and bi-monthly release of compensation.
  • Input Tax Credit (ITC) of cess to be utilized for payment of cess only.
  • CGST Act provisions are applicable for returns and refunds.

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Warehousing – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Warehousing – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
What is the difference between private warehouses and public warehouses under Customs law?
Answer:
A Warehouse is a designated area where goods are allowed to be stored after landing, without payment of duty. A public warehouse is appointed under section 57 and a Private warehouse is licensed under section 58 of the Customs Act, 1962.

Private Warehouse Public Warehouse
Licensed by the CBIC Appointed by the CBIC
Owned by the owner of goods Managed by warehousing corporations
Only goods of owners can be deposited Goods of any person can be deposited
The license can be canceled for violation of warehousing provisions. No question of cancellation of license.

Question 2.
AB Ltd. imported Super Kerosene Oil (SKO) and stored it in a warehouse. An ex-bond bill of entry for home consumption was filed and duty was paid as per the rate prevalent on the date of presentation of such bill of entry and the order for clearance for home consumption was passed. On account of the highly combustible nature of SKO, the importer made an application to permit the storage of such kerosene oil in the same warehouse until actual clearance for sale/use. The application was allowed. However, the rate of duty increased when the goods were actually removed from the warehouse. The department demanded the differential duty. The company challenged the demand. Whether it will succeed? Discuss briefly, taking support of decided case(s), if any.
Answer:
Yes, the Company will succeed.
The facts of the given situation are similar to the case of CCus. v. Biecco Lawrie Ltd. 2008 (223) ELT 3 (SC) wherein the Supreme Court has held that where duty on the warehoused goods is paid and out of charge order for home consumption is made by the proper officer in compliance with the provisions of section 68, the goods allowed to be retained for storage in the warehouse as permitted under Section 49 of the Customs Act are not treated as warehoused goods and importer would not be required to pay anything more.

Section 49 of the Customs Act, 1962 inter alia provides that imported goods entered for home consumption if stored in a public warehouse, or in a private warehouse on the application of the importer and if the same cannot be cleared within a reasonable time, shall not be deemed to be warehoused goods for the purposes of this Act, and accordingly the provisions of Chapter IX shall not apply to such goods.

Question 3.
Explain the validity of the following statements with reference to Chapter IX of the Customs Act, 1962 containing the provisions relating to the warehousing:

  1. The proper officer is not authorized to lock any warehouse with the lock of the Customs Department.
  2. The Commissioner of Customs (Appeals) may appoint public warehouses wherein dutiable goods may be deposited.
  3. The Commissioner of Customs or Principal Commissioner of Customs is not required to give notice to the licensee for cancellation of the license of a private warehouse if he has contravened any provision of the Customs Act, 1962.

Answer:
(1) The given statement is invalid:
As per section 58A(1) of the Customs Act, 1962 the Principal Commissioner of Customs or Commissioner s of Customs may subject to such conditions as may be prescribed, license a special warehouse wherein dutiable goods may be deposited and such I warehouse shall be caused to be locked by the proper officer and no person j shall enter the warehouse or remove any goods therefrom without the 2 permission of the proper officer.

(2) The given statement is invalid:
The Commissioner of Customs or the Principal Commissioner of Customs can appoint a public warehouse, wherein dutiable goods can be deposited under section 57 of the Customs Act, 1962.

(3) The given statement is valid:
The Commissioner of Customs or the Princi¬pal Commissioner of Customs is not required to give notice to the licensee while canceling the license of a private warehouse if he has contravened any provision of the said Act, as per section 58(2)(b) of Customs Act, 1962.

Question 4.
Balaram imported certain goods in November 2020 and an ‘into bond’ bill of entry was presented on 28th November 2020. Assessable value was US $1,00,000. The order permitting the deposit of goods in the warehouse for 3 months was issued on 2nd Dec. 2020. Balaram neither obtained an extension of the warehousing period nor cleared the goods within the permitted warehousing period of 1st March 2021. Only after a notice was issued under section 72 of the Customs Act, 1962 demanding duty and other charges, Bholaram removed the goods on 15th April 2021.

Compute the amount of duty payable by Bholaram while removing the goods from the warehouse, assuming that no additional duty or special additional duty is payable. You are supplied with the following information:

28.11.2020 01.03.2021 15.04.2021
Rate of exchange per USD ₹ 56 ₹ 55 ₹ 54
Rate of basic customs duty 15% 10% 5%

Answer:
Computation of customs duty payable by Bholaram

Particulars Amount
Assessable Value in US$ 1,00,000
Rate of Exchange (As per section 14 of the Customs Act, the rate of exchange in force on the date of presentation of Bill of Entry for warehousing shall apply. Hence, the rate in force on 28.11.2020 would apply.) ₹ 56 per US$
Assessable Value ₹56,00,000
Rate of duty (Since goods remained in the warehouse beyond the permitted period, hence, as per section 72, they are deemed to be removed on expiry of warehousing period on 1.3.2021. Hence, the rate of duty in force on the date of such deemed removal would apply as per Kesoram Rayon (SC) and SBEC Sugars (SC) 10%
Basic Customs Duty @ 10% of Assessable Value (₹ 56,00,000 × 10%) ₹ 5,60,000
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge ₹ 56,000
Total Customs Duty payable ₹ 6,16,000

Question 5.
Quoting the relevant provisions of the law, state the relevant dates for determining:

  1. Rate of duty, when warehoused goods are removed for home consumption.
  2. Rate of duty, if the warehoused goods are not removed from the warehouse within the permissible period.

Answer:
(1) As per section 15(1)(&) of the Customs Act, 1962, rate of duty as prevalent on the date of presentation of Bill of Entry for clearance for home consumption from the warehouse is applicable and not the rate prevalent when goods were removed from customs port.

(2) Goods that are not removed within the permissible period are deemed to be improperly removed on the day they should have been removed. Thus, duty applicable on such date i.e., the last date on which the goods should have been removed is relevant and not the date on which the goods were actually removed.

Question 6.
Explain briefly how the terms ‘warehouse’, ‘warehoused goods’, and ‘warehousing station’ are defined in the Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
As per section 2(43) of the Customs Act, 1962 ‘warehouse’ means a public warehouse licensed under section 57 or a private warehouse licensed under section 58, or a special warehouse licensed under section 58A. Section 2(44) of the Customs Act, 1962 defines “warehoused goods” to means goods deposited in a warehouse. As per section 2(45) of the Customs Act, 1962 “warehousing station” means a place declared as a warehousing station under section 9 of the Act.

Warehousing Notes

  • Licensing of Public warehouses, Private warehouses and Special warehouses.
  • Warehousing Bond – Triple duty bond to be executed.
  • Warehousing Period:

a. For Capital goods and other than capital goods intended for use in 100% EOU, EHTP, STP, or any warehouse wherein manufacture or other operations have been permitted – Till their clearance from the warehouse.
b. For any other goods: Till expiry of 1 year from the date on which the proper officer has made an order under section 60( 1).

  • Interest in case of warehoused goods: Applicable when goods are in the warehouse beyond a period of 90 days till the date of payment of duty on the warehoused goods. It is at 15% p.a.
  • Rights of an owner to deal with warehoused goods
  • Removal of goods from a warehouse
  • Remission of duty in case of volatile goods
  • Improper removal of goods from warehouse

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Advance Ruling, Settlement Commission, Demand, Search & Seizure, Refunds, Appellate Procedure, Offences And Penalties – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Advance Ruling, Settlement Commission, Demand, Search & Seizure, Refunds, Appellate Procedure, Offences And Penalties – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Yash an importer, imported certain goods on 10th April 2020 and paid custom duty by understating the value of goods imported. A show-cause notice was issued on Yash by the proper officer on 9th August 2020 demanding duty along with interest and penalty on the value of goods understated. The said notice was received by Yash on 14th August 2020. Yash deposited the amount of duty and interest along with the penalty that should be payable as per provisions of the law on 11th September 2020. Reference to section 28AA of the Customs Act, 1962 explains the provisions for imposition of interest and penalty if any. Also, give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Where a notice under section 28(1 )(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 has been served for short/non-levy or erroneous refund of duty or interest, for reason other than the reasons of collusion or any wilful misstatement or suppression of facts, the penalty will not be imposed. If the proper officer is of the opinion that the amount of duty along with interest leviable under section 28AA or the amount of interest, as the case may be, as specified in the notice, has been paid in full within 30 days from the date of receipt of the notice. The proceedings in respect of such person or other persons to whom the notice is served will be deemed to be concluded.

Further, if the notice is served in respect of collusion, any misstatement or suppression of facts for duty or interest which has not been so levied, or short levied or short paid or to whom refund has erroneously been made and the person make payment is full and penalty equal to 15% of the duty specified in the notice within thirty days of the receipt of notice and inform the proper officer, then the proceedings in respect of such person shall be deemed to be conclusive as to the matter stated therein.

In the given case, show cause notice was received by Mr. Yash on 14.08.2020 and he paid the duty, interest and applicable penalty on 11.09.2020, which is within 30 days of the receipt of the notice, therefore, if Mr. Yash has understated the value of imported goods with a fraudulent intention and has informed the proper officer of the payment made by him, in writing, in view of the above-mentioned provisions, penalty leviable on Mr. Yash will be 15% of the duty specified in the notice. However, if Mr. Yash has understated the value of imported goods on account of bona fide reasons, no penalty will be imposable on him.

Question 2.
Importer BOPPA Ltd. imported two consignments of ethyl alcohol which were allowed to be cleared for home consumption on the execution of a bond undertaking to produce license within a month. Since BOPPA Ltd. failed to fulfill the obligation, proceedings were initiated which culminated in confiscation of the goods under Section 111(d) of the Customs Act,1962 and imposition of penalty on the importer under section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962. Examine the correctness of the decision in terms of statutory provisions.
Answer:
The given case is similar to the case of Hira Lai Hari Bhagwati v. CBI (2003) 155 ELT 433 (SC). The Supreme Court of India had held that no penalty can be imposed if the goods are imported with bona fide belief that they are entitled to exemption, later on, they could not fulfill conditions of exemptions but paid the duty. Further, it was held that for establishing the offense of cheating, the complainant (i.e. importer) is required to show dishonest intention at the time of making a promise or presentation. Thereby there is no penalty under section 112(a) of the Customs Act, 1962.

With regard to confiscation of the goods under section 111(d) of Customs Act, 1962, the Supreme Court in the case of Sachinanda Banerji. Sitaram Agarwala 110 ELT 292 (SC), held that goods imported against restrictions under section 11 of the Customs Act, 1962 (section 11 deals with power to prohibit importation or exportation of goods) are liable to confiscation. Therefore, the action of the department to confiscate the goods u/s 111(d) of the Customs Act, 1962 is valid.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the power to search suspected persons entering or leaving India under Section 100 of the Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
Power to search under customs law Under section 100 of the Customs Act, 1962 where the proper officer of the customs has reason to believe that the following categories of persons have secreted any goods, liable to confiscation or any documents thereto, he may search such persons.
The categories of such persons referred to in this section are as follows:

  • Any person who has landed from or is about to board or is on board any vessel within the Indian Customs waters;
  • Any person who has landed from or is about to board or is on board of foreign-going aircraft;
  • Any person who got out of, or is about to get into, or is in the vehicle, which has arrived from, or is to proceed to any place outside India;
  • Any person not included in clause (a), (b), or (c) who has entered or is about to leave India;
  • Any person in the customs area.

Question 4.
State the conditions to be satisfied for a refund of export duty paid, as per the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
Under section 26 of the Customs Act 1962, any export duty paid on goods exported will be refunded if the following conditions are satisfied:

  • Goods are re-imported within one year from the date of export,
  • These goods are returned otherwise than by way of resale, and
  • A refund claim is lodged within six months from the date when the proper officer made an order for clearance of goods for re-importation.

Question 5.
Briefly explain the provisions of section 122 of the Customs Act, 1962 relating to the adjudication of confiscations and penalties.
Answer:
Section 122 read with Notification No. 50/2018-Cus. (N.T.), dated 8-6¬2018 provides that in every case in which anything is liable to confiscation or any person is liable to a penalty, such confiscation or penalty may be adjudged by the following adjudicating authorities:

Customs officer Value of goods liable for Confiscation
By a Principal Commissioner of Customs or Commissioner of Customs or a Joint Commissioner of Customs Without limit
By Assistant Commissioner of Customs or Deputy Commissioner of Customs Above ₹ 1 lakh but not exceeding ₹ 10 lakhs
By a Gazetted Officer of Customs lower in rank than an Assistant Commissioner of Customs or Deputy Commissioner of Customs Not exceeding ₹ 1 lakh

Question 6.
When can an appeal be filed to the Appellate Tribunal under the Customs Act, 1962 as per section 129A? State also matters for which the Appellate Tribunal does not hold jurisdiction.
Answer:
Appeal to Appellate Tribunal under the Customs Act, 1962 Person aggrieved by any of the following orders as per section 129A of the Customs Act may appeal to the Appellate Tribunal against: –

  • a decision or order passed by the Principal Commissioner of Customs or Commissioner of Customs as an adjudicating authority;
  • an order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) under section 128A;
  • an order passed by the Board or the Appellate Commissioner of Customs under section 128;
  • an order passed by the Board or the Principal Commissioner of Customs or Commissioner of Customs under section 130:

Provided that no appeal shall lie to the Appellate Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal shall not have jurisdiction to decide any appeal in respect of any order referred to in clause (b) if such order relates to:

  • any goods imported or exported as baggage;
  • any goods loaded in a conveyance for importation into India, but which are not unloaded at their place of destination in India, or so much of the number of such goods as has not been unloaded at any such destination if goods unloaded at such destination is short of the quantity required to be unloaded at that destination;
  • payment of drawback as provided in Chapter- X, and the rules made thereunder.

Question 7.
KRY Logistics Ltd., a steamer agent authored Import General Manifest and acted on behalf of the master of the vessel (the person-in-charge) before Customs Authorities to conduct all affairs in compliance with the Customs Act, 1962. The Steamer agent filed Import General Manifest, affixed the seal on the containers, and took charge of the sealed containers. It also dealt with the Customs Department for appropriate orders that had to be passed in terms of section 42 of the Customs Act, 1962. Penalty under section 116 of the Customs Act, 1962 was imposed by the Department on the steamer agent for the short landing of goods. Examine with the help of decided case law, if any, whether the Department is justified in imposing a penalty on the steamer agent?
Answer:
The issue in the given case is that whether a penalty for the short landing of goods under section 116(a) of the Customs Act, 1962 which is imposable on the person-in-charge of the conveyance, can be imposed on the steamer agent:

The High Court in the case of Caravel Logistics Pvt. Ltd. v. Joint Secretary (RA) [2013] 293 ELT 342 (Mad.) has observed that when the as- assessee affixed seal on containers and took their charge, he stepped into shoes of/acted on behalf of master of the vessel (the person-in-Charge). It held that conjoint reading of the relevant provisions of the Customs Act makes it clear that penalty imposable on person-in-charge in case of short-landing of the goods can also be imposed on the agent appointed by him. Hence, in view of the aforesaid position of law, Department is justified in levying a penalty for short-landing of goods on steamer agents.

Question 8.
Refund of import duty is available to an importer under section 26A of the Customs Act, 1962, if the goods are found to be defective and an application for refund of duty is made before the expiry of six months from the relevant date. What does the term ‘relevant date’ mean for the purposes of section 26A of the Customs Act, 1962?
Answer:
For the purpose of section 26A of the Customs Act, “Relevant date” means, –

  • in cases where the goods are exported out of India, the date on which the proper officer makes an order permitting clearance and loading of goods for exportation under section 51.
  • in cases where the title to the goods is relinquished, the date of such relinquishment.
  • in cases where the goods are destroyed or rendered commercially valueless, the date of such destruction or rendering of goods commercially valueless.

Question 9.
Clean Power Co., a 100% export-oriented undertaking (100% EOU) imported DG sets and furnace oil duty-free, for setting up captive power plants for its power requirements for export production. They used the power so generated for export production but sold surplus power into the domestic tariff areas (DTA). The Customs Department has demanded duty on DG sets and furnace oil as surplus power has been sold in the domestic tariff area (DTA). Discuss whether the demand of the Customs Department is valid in law by referring to decided case law if any.

Under section 148 of the Customs Act, 1962, agent appointed by the person-in-charge of the conveyance and any person who represents himself to any officer of customs as an agent of any such person-in¬charge is liable for fulfillment of all obligations imposed on such person- in charge under the Customs Act and to penalties and confiscation, if any. As per section 2(31) of the Customs Act, 1962 in the case of a vessel, the master of the vessel is the person in charge.
Answer:
The facts of the given case are similar to the case of Commissioner v. Hanil Era Textiles Ltd. 2005 (180) ELT A44 (SC), wherein the Supreme Court observed that in the absence of a restrictive clause in the notification that imported goods are to be solely or exclusively used for the manufacture of goods for export, there is no violation of any conditions of notification if surplus power generated due to unforeseen exigencies is sold in domestic tariff area.
Therefore, no duty can be demanded from Clean Power Company for selling surplus power in the domestic tariff area for the following reasons:

  • They have used the Diesel Generator sets and furnace oil imported duty-free for generation of power;
  • Such power generated has been used for manufacturing goods for export; and
  • Only the surplus power has been sold, as power cannot be stored.

Question 10.
In a search conducted in the office premises of Zebra Ltd., a large number of rough diamonds was recovered. It was found that these were imported without a license. After adjudication, the penalty was imposed on Zebra Ltd., and goods were confiscated. An option was given to the company to redeem goods on payment of redemption fine and customs duty at the appropriate rate. During the relevant period, there was an exemption notification in respect of these goods. Zebra Ltd. claimed the benefit of the exemption notification for payment of customs duty. Discuss in the light of a decided case, whether Zebra Ltd.’s contention is correct.
Answer:
The facts of the case are similar to that of M. Ambalal & Co. v. Commissioner of Customs (2011) where it was observed that the wording of the exemption notification was clear that the benefit of the exemption envisaged is for those goods that are imported. According to section 2(25) of the Customs Act ‘imported goods’ have been defined to mean “…any goods brought into India from a place outside India but does not include goods which have been cleared for home consumption.”

It is necessary that the above definition is read along with section 11, section 111, and section 112 of the Act, which provides for detection of illegally imported goods and prevention of the disposal thereof, confiscation of the goods and conveyances, and imposition of penalties respectively. Under section 111(d) of the Act, any goods which are imported contrary to any prohibition imposed by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force shall be liable for confiscation.

In this case, the goods which have been seized cannot be imported into India without a license under the Import Control Act, and therefore goods so imported cannot be treated to be lawfully “imported goods” within the definition of that term in section 2(25) of the Act. Therefore, Zebra Ltd. shall not be entitled to the benefit of the notification. Thus, the contention of Zebra Ltd. is not correct.

Question 11.
Mention the amount which is required to be deposited mandatorily before filing an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) and CESTAT under the Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
As per section 129E of the Customs Act, the Tribunal or the Commis¬sioner (Appeals), as the case may be, shall not entertain any appeal, –

(1) Under section 128(1), unless the appellant has deposited 7.5% of the duty demanded or penalty imposed or both, in pursuance of a decision or an order passed by an officer of customs lower in rank than the Commissioner of Customs;

(2) against the decision or order referred to in section 129A(l)(a), unless the appellant has deposited 7.5% of the duty demanded or penalty imposed or both, in pursuance of the decision or order appealed against;

(3) against the decision or order referred to in section 129A(1 )(b), unless the appellant has deposited 10% of the duty demanded or penalty imposed or both, in pursuance of the decision or order appealed against:

Provided that the amount required to be deposited under this section shall not exceed rupees ten crores. Further, the provisions of this section shall not apply to the stay applications and appeals pending before any appellate authority prior to the commencement of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014.

Question 12.
A show-cause notice demanding customs duty was issued in case of clearance made by 100% export-oriented undertaking (EOU) to domestic tariff area (DTA). Is the show cause notice defective in law? Explain in brief.
Answer:
Yes, the show-cause notice issued is defective in law as in respect of clearance made by a 100% Export Oriented Undertaking to Domestic Tariff Area the duty to be paid by the 100% EOU is the Duty of Excise (equal to custom duty) and not Custom Duty. Therefore, show cause notice using the word Customs Duty instead of Excise Duty is not maintainable.

Question 13.
Shyam Ltd. makes an unauthorized import of 3,000 pieces of a product CIF priced at $2 per piece by air from the USA. The consignment is liable to be confiscated. The import is adjudicated. Assistant Commissioner gives to the company an option to pay a fine in lieu of confiscation. It is proposed to impose a fine equal to 50% of the margin of profit. The market price is ₹ 200 per piece.

The rates of duty are as under:
Basic customs duty: 10%
Integrated Tax leviable under section 3(7) of Customs Tariff Act: 12%
Social Welfare Surcharge: 10%
The exchange rate is ₹ 50 per U.S. Dollar.
Compute – (i) the amount of fine; and (ii) the total amount payable by the company to clear the consignment. (Calculations should be made to the nearest rupee).

Answer:
Computation of amount of redemption fine and the amount payable to clear the consignment:

Particulars Amount (?)
CIF value of imported goods i.e. Assessable Value (3,000 × US$ 2 p.u. × ₹ 50 per US$) 3,00,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty @ 10% 30,000
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge at 10% of Basic Customs Duty 3,000
Value for the purpose of IGST 3,33,000
Add: IGST @ 12% of ₹ 3,33,000 39,960
Total Cost of imported goods 3,72,960
Market Price of goods (3,000 × ₹ 200 each) 6,00,000
Profit Margin (₹ 6,00,000 – ₹ 3,72,960) 2,27,040
Fine u/s 125 (Equal to 50% of Margin of Profit) 1,13,520
Total amount payable (Duty + Fine i.e. ₹ 30,000 + ₹ 3,000 + ₹ 39,960 + 1,13,520) 1,86,480

Note:
As per section 125 of Customs Act, redemption fine shall not exceed market value of goods excluding import duty. Therefore, in given case, maximum redemption fine leviable would have been ₹ 6,00,000 – (₹ 30,000 + ₹ 3,000 + ₹ 39,960) = ₹ 5,27,040.

Question 14.
A person makes an unauthorized import of goods liable to confiscation. After adjudication, Assistant Commissioner provides an option to the importer to pay a fine in lieu of confiscation. It is proposed to impose a fine (in lieu of confiscation) equal to 50% of the margin of profit.
The following particulars are made available:

  • Assessable value: ₹ 15,00,000
  • Total duty payable: ₹ 6,00,000
  • Market value: ₹ 25,00,000

You are required to narrate the provision and calculate the amount of fine and total payment to be made by the importer to clear the consignment.
Answer:
Computation of amount of redemption fine and total payment to be made by the importer

Particulars Amount(₹)
Assessable Value 15,00,000
Add: Customs Duty 6,00,000
Total Cost of Goods 21,00,000
Market Value of Goods 25,00,000
Margin of profit 4,00,000
The proposed amount of fine (5096 of margin of profit) 2,00,000
Maximum Fine (As per proviso to (1) of section 125 of Customs Act, redemption fine should not exceed the market price of goods confiscated less the duty chargeable thereon. i.e. Maximum Redemption Fine = Market Price of Goods Confiscated less Duty chargeable = ₹ 25,00,000 – ₹ 6,00,000 19,00,000
Since, the proposed amount of fine is less than the maximum amount of fine permissible, the redemption fine payable by the importer 2,00,000
The total payment to be made by the importer to clear the consignment (₹ 6,00,000 + ₹ 2,00,000 i.e. Customs Duty + Fine) 8,00,000

Advance Ruling, Settlement Commission, Demand, Search & Seizure, Refunds, Appellate Procedure, Offences And Penalties Notes

  • Refund of Export duty in certain cases.
  • Refund of import duty in certain cases
  • Recovery of duties not levied or not paid or short levied or short paid
  • Provisional attachment to protect revenue in certain cases
  • Assessment of duty
  • Provisional assessment and re-assessment
  • Demand of Duty
  • Transit and Transhipment
  • Prohibitions on importation/exportation of certain goods
  • Offences
  • Criminal liabilities
  • Civil liabilities
  • Confiscation of goods
  • Advance Rulings under Customs
  • Settlement Commission under Customs Act
  • Appeals and Revision under Customs Act
  • Search and Seizure under Customs Act
  • Offences and Penalties under Customs.

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Industry Specific Analysis – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Industry Specific Analysis – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
What is “Electronic Commerce” and who is an “E-commerce Opera-tor”?
Answer:
As per Section 2(44) of the CGST Act, 2017, Electronic Commerce means the supply of goods or services or both, including digital products over a digital or electronic network. As per Section 2(45) of the CGST Act, 2017, Electronic-commerce Operator means any person who owns, operates, or manages a digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce.

Question 2.
Discuss the following:

  1. Is it mandatory for e-commerce operators to obtain registration?
  2. Whether a supplier of goods or services supplying through an e-commerce operator would be entitled to threshold exemption?
  3. Whether TCS is required to be collected by e-commerce operators on supply of services by unregistered suppliers through their portal?

Answer:
(1) Yes. As per section 24(x) of the CGST Act, 2017, every electronic commerce operator has to obtain compulsory registration irrespective of the value of supply made by him. The benefit of threshold exemption is not available to e-commerce operators.

(2) As per Section 24(ix) of the CGST Act, 2017, every person supplying goods through an e-commerce operator shall be mandatorily required to register irrespective of the value of supply made by him. However, a person supplying services, other than the supplier of services under section 9(5) of the CGST Act, 2017, through an eCommerce platform is exempted from obtaining compulsory registration provided their aggregate turnover does not exceed INR 20 lakhs (or INR 10 lakhs in case of specified special category states) in a financial year. The government has issued notification No. 65/2017-Central Tax dated 15th November 2017 in this regard.

(3) As per Section 24(ix) of the CGST Act, 2017, every person supplying goods or services through an e-commerce operator is mandatorily required to register. However, vide Notification 65/2017-Central Tax dated 15th November, 2017a person supplying services, other than the supplier of services under section 9 (5) of the CGST Act, 2017, through an e-commerce platform were exempted from obtaining compulsory registration provided their aggregate turnover does not exceed INR 20 lakhs (or INR 10 lakhs in case of specified special category states) in a financial year. Since such suppliers are not liable for registration, eCommerce operators are not required to collect TCS on the supply of services being made by such suppliers through their portal.

Question 3.
Samode Charitable Trust, registered under section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, furnishes the following details of its income/receipts with respect to the activities undertaken by it during August 2020:

Particulars of Income/receipts Amount(₹)
Renting of the room where charges are ₹ 500 per day 2,00,000
Renting of the room where charges are ₹ 1,500 per day 3,00,000
Renting of community hall given for celebrations, for which amount charged is ₹ 25,000 or more per day. 5,00,000
Renting of shops for business purposes, where charges for each shop are ₹ 6,000 per month 3,50,000

You are required to compute the value of the taxable supply of Samode Charitable Trust for the above period. Give brief reasons for the treatment given to each while making the computation of taxable supply.
Answer:
Computation of value of Taxable Supply for the month of August 2020

Particulars Amount(₹)
Renting of rooms where charges are ₹ 500 per day Nil
Renting of rooms where charges are ₹ 1500 per day 3,00,000
Renting of Community hall where charges are ₹ 25,000 or more per day 5,00,000
Renting of shops for business purposes where charges are ₹ 6,000 per month for each shop Nil
Value of Taxable Supply 8,00,000

Note:
As per Entry number 13 of Notification No. 12/2012-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.6.2017, services by a person by way of renting of precincts of a religious place meant for the general public, owned or managed by an entity [ registered as a charitable or religious trust under section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 are exempt. However, this exemption shall not be available to the trust where: —

  • renting of rooms for ₹ 1000 or more per day.
  • renting of premises, community halls, Kalyan mandapam or open area j and the like for ₹ 10,000 or more per day.
  • renting of shops or other space for business/commerce purposes for ₹ 10,000 or more per month.

Question 4.
Mr. Mayank Kohli, a famous cricketer, furnishes you with the following information and particulars of his various receipts/income for the month of March 2020:

Particulars Amount(₹)
Receipts from Sports Authority of India for participation in recognized events of matches. 30,00,000
Receipts from the franchise of Indian Premier League which is not a recognized sports body for participation in the league matches. 50,00,000
Receipts from sports training academy for providing Coaching to young players; the academy is not registered u/s 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. 30,00,000

You are required to calculate the value of taxable supply and the amount of GST payable thereon by taking the rate of GST as applicable of 18%.
Answer:
Computation of Value of taxable supply for Mr. Mayank Kohli and GST for March 2020

Particulars Amount(₹)
Receipts from Sports Authority of India for participation in recognized sports events. [Exempt vide Entry No. 68 of Exemption Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate)] Exempt
Receipts from the franchise of Indian Premier League, not a recognized sports body, [being not exempt] 50,00,000
Receipts of sports training academy to coach young players [Liable for GST since sports training by charitable entities registered under section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 alone is exempt vide Entry No. 80 of Exemption Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate)].
This Academy is not registered under section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. 30,00,000
Value of Taxable Supply 80,00,000
GST payable @ 18% 14,40,000

Question 5.
With brief reasons, state whether the following will attract GST levy:

  1. Lodging accommodation with room tariff @ ₹ 900 per day.
  2. SKT & Co. transporting textile goods through ESSEM Transport Agency by paying ₹ 700 per bundle and sending 10 bundles on 31st March 2019.
  3. Kaziranga National Park collecting ₹ 200 per person as an entrance fee.
  4. Muthu Lab is a pathological lab owned by Muthu. He is a post-graduate in Microbiology. He collects fees for services rendered.
  5. Samy Transports carried agricultural produce i.e. turmeric from villages to towns (markets) by charging ₹ 2,000 per day per person.

Answer:
Exemption for certain services
Service exemption is to be considered in the light of Notification No. 12/2017-

  1. Lodging accommodation with a tariff below ₹ 1,000 is not liable for GST.
  2. Services provided by the goods transport agency where the consideration for the transportation of goods for a single consignee does not exceed ₹ 750 is not liable for GST. However, in the present case, the consideration for 10 bundles [being single consignment] is ₹ 7000. Hence, GST is attracted.
  3. As per Entry No. 79 of Notification No.l2/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28.6.2017, the Entrance/admission fee received by the national park from visitors is not liable for GST.
  4. Services by way of health care including paramedical service are not liable for GST.
  5. As per Entry No. 20 of the referred notification, Transportation of agricultural produce by rail or vessel from one place in India to another place is not liable for GST.

Question 6.
Anand Nursery engaged in agricultural-related services provides the following details of the transactions for the month of December 2018:

Particulars Amount (₹ in lakhs)
Renting of Agro-machinery 5
Cultivation of Ornamental flowers 2.5
Processing of Tomato ketchup 3
Processing of Potato chips 1.5

You are required to compute the value of taxable services of Anand Nursery for December 2018. Brief reasons to be given for each item along with the working.
Answer:
Computation of Taxable Services of Anand Nursery

Particulars Amount ( ₹ in lacs)
Renting of Agro-machinery [Note 1]
Cultivation of Ornamental flowers [Note 2]
Processing of Tomato ketchup [Note 3] 3
Processing of Potato chips [Note 3] 1.5
Value of Taxable Service 4.5

Notes:
1. The above case falls within the purview of Exemption Notification 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) SI. No. 54 under heading 9986. Renting
of Agro-machinery is exempt as per the aforesaid notification. Hence, the same is not liable to GST.

2. Cultivation of plants falls within the purview of agriculture which is exempt. Hence, the same is not liable to GST.

3. Potato chips and tomato ketchup are not agricultural produce and thus do not fall under the exemption. However, conversion of potato and tomato into potato chips and tomato ketchup respectively amounts to manufacture since, after such processing new products with a different name, character and use emerge. Therefore, such processing will not fall under the exemption and hence, it is liable to GST.

Question 7.
Explain with reference to the provisions of the CGST Act, 2017 whether the following transaction of services provided by different persons shall be subject to levy of GST:

(1) Government of Rajasthan has provided technical services to ABC Ltd. of Jaipur in the month of February 2019 against consideration of ₹ 75,000. The turnover of ABC Ltd. in the Financial Year 2017-18 was ₹ 18,50,000.

(2) Jaipur Municipal Corporation has awarded a contract for the construction of city roads to QPR Construction Ltd. in April 2018. However, QPR Construction Ltd. could not carry out the work and failed to perform the contract work as per terms and had paid the number of liquidated damages to Jaipur Municipal Corporation in December 2018 amounting to ₹ 10,00,000 as per the terms of the contract.

(3) XYZ Ltd. has made a payment of ₹ 80,00,000 to Bihar Government on account of the assignment of rights to use minerals in the State of Bihar.
Answer:
Eligibility to GST
(1) Services provided by the Central Government, State Government, Union Territory or Local Authority to a business entity with an aggregated turnover of up to ₹ 20 lakhs (? 10 lakhs in case of a special category state) in the preceding financial year are exempt vide Entry 7 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) provided the services are not in the nature as specified in Explanation to such entry.

Hence, GST shall not be levied on the amount of ₹ 75,000 charged for the technical services provided by the Government of Rajasthan to ABC Ltd. (being located in other than special category state), as the Turnover of ABC Ltd. in the preceding the financial year 2017-18 was of ₹ 18,50,000 being less than ? 20 lakh and the nature service is not falling in any of the exceptions specified in Explanation to said Entry 7 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate).

(2) Services falling under HSN 9991 or 9997 provided by Central Government, State Government, Union territory or local authority by way of tolerating non-performance of a contract for which consideration in the form of fines or liquidated damages is payable to the Central Government, State Government, Union territory or local authority under such contract are exempt vide Entry 62 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT(Rate).
Hence, no GST shall be payable on liquidated damages of ₹ 10,00,000 paid by PQR Construction Ltd. to Jaipur Municipal Corporation for non-performance of the contract.

(3) Transfer of the right to use any goods for any purpose (whether or not j for a specified period) for cash, deferred payment, or other valuable j consideration is deemed to be a supply of service in terms of Para 5(f) of Schedule II of the CGST Act, 2017 and is leviable to GST under HSN 997337 in terms of Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.6.2017.

Hence, GST is payable on the assignment of rights to use minerals in the State of Bihar by XYZ Ltd. in the amount of ₹ 80,00,000.

Question 8.
Ramakrishna Trivedi, a registered supplier of Bengaluru has received the following amounts from the various activities undertaken by him during the month ended on 31st October 2020:

Particulars Amount(₹)
Services related to funerals including transportation of dead bodies 30,000
The commission received as an insurance agent from the insurance company 95,000
Business assets (old computers) given to friends free of cost, the market value of all the computers was ₹ 2,00,000. No Input Tax Credit has been availed on such computers when used for business. No amount received as given free.
Amount received from PQR Ltd. for the performance of classical dance in one program. 1,99,000
Service provided to recognized sport body as a coach for participation in a sporting event organized by a recognized sports body 75,000

Note:
All the amounts stated above are exclusive of GST, wherever applicable. You are required to calculate the gross value of taxable supply on which GST is required to be paid by Ramkrishna Trivedi for the month of October 2020. Legal provisions explained in brief should form part of the answer.
Answer:
Computation of gross value of taxable supply on which GST is payable by Ramkrishna Trivedi for the month of October 2020:

Particulars Amount(₹)
Services related to funerals including transportation of dead bodies of ₹ 30,000 (Not a supply as per Schedule III) Nil
Did commission receive as an insurance agent from an insurance company of ₹ 95,000

Note: Above service is covered under reverse charge mecha¬nism (RCM) where tax is payable by the recipient i.e. insurance company (Notification No.l3/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017)

Nil
Business assets (old computer) given to friends free of cost

Note: As per Schedule I any kind of disposal or transfer of business assets made by an entity on a permanent basis even though without consideration qualifies as supply. However, this provision would apply only where the input tax credit (ITC) has been availed on such assets.

Since no ITC is claimed when such computers are used for business, it is not a supply.

Nil
Amount received from PQR Ltd. for the performance of classical dance in one program.

Note: This service is exempt only if the consideration charged for such performance is not more than ₹ 1,50,000. Here, it is more than ₹ 1,50,000, hence taxable in total.

1,99,000
Service provided to recognized sports body as a coach (Exempt as per notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017)
Total Taxable Turnover 1,99,000

Question 9.
BODMAS Ltd. providing educational services furnishes you with the following information for the various services provided by it for the month of March 2020:

Particulars Amount(₹)
Receipts from running a boarding school (including receipts for providing residential dwelling services of ₹ 14,00,000) 30,00,000
Receipts of “Gyan Uday” – an Industrial Training Institute (ITI) affiliated to the National Council for Vocational Training (NC VT) 2,00,000
Receipts of “Lakshya”, an institute registered with Directorate General of Employment and Training (DGET), Union Ministry of labor & employment, running a Modular Employable Skill Course (MESC) approved by the National Council for Vocational Training (NCVT) 1,00,000

 

Receipts of “Wizard”, a commercial coaching institute providing commercial coaching in the field of arts and science (no certificate was issued on completing the training) 80,000
Fees from prospective employers for campus interview 4,00,000
Renting of furnished flats for temporary stay to different persons 5,00,000
Receipts of “concepts” a commercial coaching institute providing coaching in the field of commerce (a certificate was awarded to each trainee after completion of training) 1,40,000
Receipts of Gurukul School providing education up to higher secondary 5,00,000

Compute the value of taxable supply assuming that all the above receipts are exclusive of GST.
Answer:
Services provided by an educational institution to its students, faculty, and staff are exempt vide Notification No.12/2017- CT. Further, an educational institution means, inter alia, an institution providing services by way of

  • education up to higher secondary school or equivalent;
  • education as a part of a curriculum for obtaining a qualification recognized by any law for the time being in force.
  • education as a part of an approved vocational education course. In view of the aforesaid provisions,

Value of taxable supply of BODMAS Ltd. for the month of March 2020 shall be computed as follows:

Particulars Amount(₹)
Receipts from Boarding school including receipts for residential dwelling service (Educational institution providing education up to Higher secondary school or equivalent – Exempt) Nil
Receipts of Gyan Uday (Educational institution running approved vocational education course – Exempt) Nil
Receipts of Lakshya running modular employable skill course – Exempt Nil
Receipts of Wizard – a coaching institution (Taxable since coaching institute is not an educational institution) 80,000
Fees from prospective employers for campus interviews (Tax-able, since such services, are not specifically exempt) 4,00,000
Renting of Furnished flats for a temporary stay of different persons (Not exempt since services by a hotel, inn, guest house, club, or campsite, by whatever name called for residential or lodging purposes, are exempt only when the value of supply of a unit of accommodation is below ₹ 1,000 per day.) In the given case, we are assuming that rent per flat per day is more than or equal to ₹ 1,000. 5,00,000
Receipts of Concepts – a Coaching institute (Taxable, since Coaching institute, is not an educational institute) 1,40,000
Receipts of Gurukul school providing education up to higher secondary – Exempt Nil
Value of Taxable Supply 11,20,000

Question 10.
Nursing Home has received the following amounts in the month of February 2020 in lieu of various services rendered by it in the same month. You are required to determine its GST liability for February 2020 from the details furnished below: –

Particulars Amount (₹ In lakhs)
Palliative care for terminally ill patients at patient’s home (Palliative care is given to improve the quality of life of patients who have a serious disease) 30
Services provided by cord blood bank unit of the nursing Home 24
Hair transplant services 100
Ambulance services to transport critically ill patients from various locations to a nursing home 12
Naturopathy treatments 80
Plastic surgery to restore the anatomy of a child affected due to an accident. (Anatomy means the study of the structure of human or animal bodies) 30
Reiki healing treatments (Such treatment is not a recognized system of medicine) 120
Mortuary services 10

Note:
All the amounts given above are exclusive of tax and the Rate of Tax is CGST @ 9% and SGST @ 9%. The point of supply for the services rendered by J Nursing Home in the month of February 2020 falls in the month of February itself.

Particulars Amount (₹ in lakhs)
Palliative care for terminally ill patients at patient’s home (Palliative care is given to improve the quality of life of patients who have a serious disease) Nil
Services provided by cord blood bank unit of the nursing Home Nil
Hair transplant services 100
Ambulance services to transport critically ill patients from various locations to a nursing home Nil
Naturopathy treatments Nil
Plastic surgery to restore, anatomy of a child affected due to an accident. (Anatomy means the study of the structure of human or animal bodies) Nil
Reiki healing treatments (Such treatment is not a recognized system of medicine) 120
Mortuary services Nil
Value of taxable supply 220
CGST at 9% (220 × 9%) 19.80
SGST at 9% (220 × 9%) 19.80

Note:
All healthcare services by a clinical establishment or authorized medical practitioner by way of diagnosis or treatment or care for illness, injury, deformity, abnormality, or pregnancy are currently exempt from GST. However, hair transplants or cosmetic or plastic surgery does not get an exemption and is taxed.

Question 11.
Mr. Hemant Kumar, a registered supplier of Chandigarh, has received an amount of ₹ 50,000 for providing services of a selector of the national team to a recognized sports body in Delhi. Will he be liable to charge GST on the same? What will be the status of Mr. Hemant Kumar does not have any other income except ₹ 50,000 as mentioned above.
Answer:
Services provided to a recognized sports body by an individual only as a player, referee, umpire, coach or team manager for participation in a sporting event organized by a recognized sports body are exempt from GST vide Exemption Notification No. 9/2017-IT(R) dated 28.06.2017. Thus, service provided as a selector of the team is not covered in the above-referred notification, Mr. Hemant Kumar is liable to charge GST on ₹ 50,000/. In case the turnover of Mr. Hemant Kumar falls below the minimum threshold of ₹ 20 lakhs, he is not required to charge any tax.

Question 12.
Define: Exempt Supply
Answer:
Exempt Supply {Section 2(47) of CGST Act, 2017}
Exempt Supply means the supply of any goods or services or both which attracts nil rate of tax or which may be wholly exempt from tax under section 11, or under section 6 of the Integrated Goods & Services Tax Act, and includes the non-taxable supply.

Industry-Specific Analysis Notes

  • Section 11 of the CGST Act empowers the Central Government to issue Notifications to exempt certain supplies of goods and services, Accordingly, Central Government has notified the list of services exempted to vide Notification No. 12/2017-CT. In this topic, analyzing the entries in the said notification, analysis of the applicability of GST in various sectors/industries is done. It should be noted that students should have at least once gone through all exemptions given in the said topic in their study material.

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Basic Concepts Of Customs Law – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Basic Concepts Of Customs Law – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on the Basic Customs Duty.
Answer:
Basic customs duty is levied under section 12 of the Customs Act, 1962 read with section 2 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. The duties of customs shall be levied at such rates as may be specified under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 or any other law for the time being in force, on goods imported into or exported from India. The rates of Customs duty are specified in the First and Second Schedule of Section 2 of Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (First Schedule enlist the goods liable to import duty and Second Schedule enlist the goods liable to export duty).

There are different rates for different goods but the merit rate is generally 7.5%. Basic duty may be exempted, wholly or partially, with or without any conditions, by a notification under section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962. Basic Customs Duty is also exempted upfront or through drawback mechanism where the imported goods are meant for re-export or for use in the manufacture of export goods. The basic customs duty may have two rates: (A) Standard rates (B) Preferential rates:

(A) Standard Rates: Standard rate is charged where there is no provision for preferential treatment.
(B) Preferential Rates: If the goods are imported from the area notified by the Government as preferential area duty to be charged at preferential rates. Preferential rate is applied only where the owner of the article (importer) claims at the time of importation, with supporting evidence, that the goods are chargeable with the preferential rate of duty, and if the importer fails to claim with supporting evidence then duty to be charged as standard rates. Basic Customs Duty is not creditable against any tax or duty, whatsoever.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of “Import” and “importer”, with reference to the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
As per section 2(23) of the Customs Act, 1962, the term import refers to bringing into India from a place outside India. Import of goods into India commences when the goods enter the territorial waters of India but get completed only when the goods become part of the mass of goods within the country. As per section 2(26) of the Customs Act, 1962, importer, in relation to any goods at any time between their importation and the time when they are cleared for home consumption, includes any owner, beneficial owner, or any person holding himself out to be the importer.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the taxable event for levy of import duty under Customs Act, 1962 giving reference of decided case law if any.
Answer:
In Garden Silk Mills Ltd. v. UOI 1999 SC ELT 358, the Supreme Court held the import of goods in India commences when the goods enter into ter¬ritorial waters of India but continue and are completed when goods become part of the mass of goods within the country. The taxable event is at the time when the goods reach the customs barrier and the bill of entry for home consumption is filed. In the case of warehoused goods, the goods continue to be in customs hands. Hence, the import takes place only when goods are cleared from the warehouse for home consumption by filing an ex-bond bill of entry.

Question 4.
Distinguish between “First Appraisement and Second Appraisement.”
Answer:
First Appraisement or goods-based assessment means assessment of goods after the goods are examined. This system is resorted to only in exceptional cases where it is not possible for the Appraiser to determine the value or classification of the goods or for any other reason on the basis of the documents as produced by the importers. Second Appraisement or document-based means making the assessment on the basis of the declaration made by the importers on the strength of documents such as invoice, catalog, literature showing the composition and use, price lists, etc., as produced by the importers. Under this system, the goods are examined after assessment and collection of duty.

Question 5.
What is the meaning of the terms Derelict, Jetsam, Flotsam, and Wreck used under Customs law?
Answer:
Derelict – This refers to any cargo, vessel, etc. abandoned in the sea with no hope of recovery.
Jetsam – This refers to goods jettisoned from the vessel to save from sinking. ;4 “Jettisoned” connotes the action of throwing goods overboard to lighten £ the load of the ship if it is in danger of being sunk.
Flotsam – Jettisoned goods that continue floating in the sea are called “p flotsam.
Wreck – This refers to cargo or vessel or any property which are cast ashore by tides after the shipwreck.

Question 6.
What is the difference between clearance for home consumption and clearance for warehousing under Customs law?
Answer:
Clearance for home consumption implies that the customs duty on import of the goods has been discharged and the goods are cleared for utilization/home consumption. The goods may instead of being cleared for home consumption be deposited in a warehouse and cleared at a later time. When the goods are deposited in the warehouse the collection of customs duties will be deferred till such goods are cleared for home consumption. The importer of the goods requires to execute a bond for a sum thrice the amount of duty assessed on the goods at the time of import of goods. The importer is also liable to pay interest, rent, and charges for the storage of goods in a warehouse.

Question 7.
Briefly Explain

  1. Bill of entry;
  2. Kinds of bills of entry;
  3. Basic documents to be filed along with the bill of entry.

Answer:
(1) A Bill of Entry is a statement of the nature and value of goods to be imported or exported, prepared by the shipper, and presented to a custom house. The Bill of Entry inter alia has columns for indicating the description of goods, value, quantity, marks and numbers, country of origin, etc.

(2) There are three kinds of Bills of Entry viz,

  • Bill of Entry for Home-consumption (White Colour)
  • Warehousing (into-Bond) Bill of Entry (Yellow Colour)
  • Bill of Entry for Clearance ‘Ex-Bond’ (Green Colour).

The home-consumption Bill of Entry which is printed on white paper is referred to as “white Bill of Entry”, the “into Bond” or “Warehousing Bill of Entry” is printed on yellow paper and “ex-bond” is printed on green paper. Each Bill of Entry has to be filed in quadruplicate. The columns in the original are printed in black, in blue in duplicate, and in violet in triplicate, and in green in quadruplicate.

(3) The following basic documents are to be filed along with the Bill of Entry:

  1. Invoice.
  2. Indent and acceptance correspondence pertaining to the Imported goods.
  3. Bill of Lading in respect of sea-consignments/Airway Bill in respect of Air Consignments.
  4. Letter of credit or Bill of exchange.
  5. Insurance policy or Insurance certificate.
  6. Import license (Customs purpose copy).
  7. Small Scale Industries Certificate in respect of Imports sought to be covered under free goods and Imports subjected to Actual Users (AU) conditions.
  8. Catalog, drawing, write-up, analysis certificate as the case may be, in respect of the goods sought to be cleared.
  9. Any other connected/relevant document.

Question 8.
State with brief reasons, whether the following statements are true or false in the light of provisions contained in Customs Act, 1962:

  1. Customs area includes a warehouse (3 Marks)
  2. A beneficial owner of imported goods is a person on whose behalf the goods are being imported.

Answer:
(1) True.
The definition of the customs area as provided under section 2(11) of the Customs Act, 1962 has been amended vide the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2017 to include within its ambit a warehouse also. Consequent to the above, the customs area is now defined to mean the area of a customs station or a warehouse and includes any area in which imported goods or export goods are ordinarily kept before clearance by customs authorities.

(2) True.
Subsequent to the insertion of new section 2(3A) in the Customs Act, 1962 vide the Finance Act, 2017, the beneficial owner has been defined to mean any person on whose behalf the goods are being imported or exported or who exercises effective control over the goods being imported or exported.

Question 9.
In the context of the ‘Clear first, pay later’ concept evolved under the customs law, state the objectives of the concept and the persons who are eligible to avail this facility.
Answer:
“Clear first, Pay later” concept under customs laws
(A) Objectives

  1. “Clear first, pay later” is a mechanism facilitating deferred payment of customs duty.
  2. It is a mechanism that delinks duty payment and customs clearance.
  3. The aim is to have a seamless wharf to warehouse transit in order to facilitate just-in-time manufacturing. This scheme is in force w.e.f. 16th November 2016.
  4. It is a trade facilitation move wherein benefits are extended to the entities who have demonstrated strong internal control sys¬tems and willingness to comply with the laws administered by the CBEC.

Eligible Persons

  1. Central Government has permitted importers certified under the Authorized Economic Operator program as AEO (Tier-Two) and AEO (Tier-Three) being eligible importers to make deferred payment of import duty under the clear first, pay later mechanism.
  2. The CBEC has rolled out the AEO (Authorized Economic Operator) program, as a part of the ease of doing business focus of the Government of India.

Question 10.
With reference to recent amendments made (Vide Finance Act, 2017) in the Customs Act, 1962, examine the validity of the following statements:

  1. A beneficial owner of imported goods is a person on whose behalf the goods are being imported but cannot be exported.
  2. The Customs area does not include a warehouse.
  3. Customs station includes international courier terminal but does not include the foreign post office.

Answer:
(1) The statement is invalid: A new section 2(3A) has been inserted in the Customs Act, 1962 vide the Finance Act, 2017 to define beneficial owner 7 means any person on whose behalf the goods are imported or exported or “ who exercise effective control over the goods being imported or exported.

(2) The statement is invalid: Section 2(11) of Customs Act, 1962 has been amended to include a warehouse within the customs area.

(3) The statement is invalid: The Finance Act, 2017 has included international courier terminals and foreign post offices within the scope of customs I station as defined under section 2(13) of Customs Act, 1962.

Question 11.
Raj Bihari Ltd., an importer of goods, had filed a bill of entry after 60 days of the filing of the Import General Manifest. The Deputy Commissioner of Customs imposed a penalty of ₹ 10,000 for the delayed filing of the bill of entry. Since Raj Bihari Ltd., the importer, wanted to clear the goods being urgently required, they have paid the amount of penalty of ₹ 10,000. In this backdrop, you are required to examine the issue (i) regarding the period available for filing the bill of entry (if) whether a penalty is imposed for delayed filing of the bill of entry, and (iii) whether a bill of entry can be filed in advance, in the context of the provisions contained under the Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
Bill of Entry under customs law
(i) As per Section 46(3) of the Customs Act, 1962, the time limit for filing a bill of entry is before the end of the next day following the day (excluding holidays) on which the aircraft/vessel/vehicle carrying the goods arrives at a customs station at which such goods are to be cleared for home consumption or warehousing.

(ii) As per Regulation 3 of Bill of Entry (Electronic Integrated Declaration and Paperless Processing) Regulations, 2018, where the bill of entry is not filed within the time specified in Section 46(3) of the Customs Act, 1962 and regulations made thereunder and the proper officer of Customs is satisfied that there was no sufficient cause for such delay, the importer shall be liable to pay charges for late presentation of the bill of entry at the rate of rupees five thousand per day for the initial three days of default and at the rate of rupees ten thousand per day for each day of default thereafter. Provided that where the proper officer is satisfied with the reasons for the delay, he may waive off the charges.

In the present case, Raj Bihari Ltd. has filed the bill of entry late and therefore, shall be subject to charges @ ₹ 5,000 per day for 3 days and thereafter @ ₹ 10,000 per day. As such, there is no provision under the Customs Act where under penalty can be levied for delay in the filing of the Bill of Entry. Thus, the penalty imposed by the Deputy Commissioner of Customs cannot sustain.

Question 12.
Shandaar Scraps Ltd., imported during October 2018 by the sea a consignment of metal scrap weighing 7,000 M.T. (metric tonnes) from the U.S.A. They filed a bill of entry for home consumption. The Assistant Commissioner passed an order for clearance of goods and applicable duty was paid by them.

Shandaar Scraps Ltd. thereafter found, on taking delivery from the Port Trust Authorities (i.e., before the clearance for home consumption), that only 6,400 M.T. of scrap were available at the docks although they had paid duty for the entire 7,000 M.T. since there was no short-landing of cargo. The short-delivery of 600 M.T. was also substantiated by the Port-Trust Authorities, who gave a “weighment certificate” to Shandaar Scraps Ltd. On filing a representation to the Customs Department, Shandaar Scraps Ltd. has been directed in writing to justify as to which provision of the Customs Act, 1962 governs their claim for remission of duty on the 600 M.T. not delivered by the Port-Trust.

You are approached by Shandaar Scraps Ltd. as “Counsel” for an opinion/ advice. Examine the issues and tender your opinion as per Customs Act, 1962, giving reasons in brief and the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
Remission of Customs duty As per the provisions of section 23 of the Customs Act, 1962 where it is shown to the satisfaction of the Assistant Commissioner of Customs or Deputy Commissioner of Customs that any imported goods have been lost (otherwise than as a result of pilferage) or destroyed, at any time before clearance for home consumption, the Assistant Commissioner of Customs or Deputy Commissioner of Customs shall remit the duty on such goods. Therefore, the duty shall be remitted only, if the loss has occurred before clearance for home consumption.

In the given case, it is apparent from the facts that the quantity of scrap received in India was 7000 metric tonnes and 600 metric tonnes thereof was lost when it was in the custody of Port Authorities i.e. before clearance for home consumption was made. The loss of 600 MT of scrap cannot be construed to be pilferage, as loss of such a huge quantity cannot be treated as “Petty Theft”.

Hence, the company is being advised to take shelter under section 23 justifying his claim for remission of duty on the goods short supplied by the Port Trust Authorities as per the certificate issued.

Question 13.
GP Scraps, imported during August 2018, by sea, a consignment of metal scrap weighing 8,000 M.T. from China and filed a bill of entry for home consumption. The Assistant Commissioner passed an order for clearance of goods and applicable duty was paid on the goods. GP Scraps thereafter found, on taking delivery from the Port Trust Authorities (i.e. before the clearance for home consumption), that only 7,500 M.T. of scrap was available at the docks, although they had paid duty for the entire 8,000 M.T., as there was no short-landing of cargo had been indicated. The short-delivery of 500 M.T. was also substantiated by the Port-Trust Authorities, who gave a “weighment certificate” to GP Scraps.

On filing a representation to the Customs Department, GP Scraps has been directed by the Department in writing to justify as to which provision of the Customs Act, 1962 governs their claim for remission of duty on the 500 M.T. not delivered by the Port-Trust to them. You are approached by GP Scraps as ‘Counsel’ for an opinion/advice. Examine the issues and tender your opinion as per law, giving reasons.
Answer:
Remission of Customs duty
As per the provisions of section 23 of the Customs Act, 1962 where it is shown to the satisfaction of the Assistant Commissioner of Customs or Deputy Commissioner of Customs that any imported goods have been lost (otherwise than as a result of pilferage) or destroyed, at any time before clearance for home consumption, the Assistant Commissioner of Customs or Deputy Commissioner of Customs shall remit the duty on such goods. Therefore, the duty shall be remitted only, if the loss has occurred before j clearance for home consumption.

In the given case, it is apparent from the facts that the quantity of scrap received in India was 8000 metric tons and 500 metric tons thereof was lost when it was in the custody of Port Authorities i.e., before clearance for home consumption. The loss of 500 M.T of scrap cannot be construed to be pilferage, as loss of such huge quantity cannot be treated as “Petty Theft”.

Hence, GP Scraps is being advised to take shelter under section 23 of Customs Act, 1962 justifying its claim for remission of duty on the goods short; supplied by the Port Trust Authorities as per the certificate issued.

Question 14.
What is the difference between Section 13 and Section 23 of the Customs Act, 1962?
Answer:
Section 13 of Customs Act, 1962 covers the situation of “pilferage of the goods” and Section 23 of Customs Act, 1962 covers “loss of goods” and these are quite different as explained by the table below:

Basis Section 13 Section 23
Meaning Pilfer means to steal, especially in small quantities Words lost or destroyed refers to “total loss” of goods
Duty Duty Duty if already paid, it will be remitted
Restoration If goods are restored after pilfer-age, importer is liable to pay Duty Restoration is not possible
Warehousing provisions Do not apply to this section Apply to this section
Onus to prove Does not lie on importer as it comes during examination of officer Has to prove
Time of occurrence After unloading but before order for clearance Before clearance for home consumption

Question 15.
What do you mean by the following specific terms used within the meaning of the Customs Act, 1962?

  1. Adjudicating Authority
  2. Baggage
  3.  Coastal goods
  4. Beneficial Owner
  5. Customs Area

Answer:
(1) “Adjudicating Authority” means any authority competent to pass any order on decision under this Act, but does not include the Board, Commissioner (Appeals), or Appellate Tribunal.
(2) “Baggage” includes unaccompanied baggage but does not include motor Vehicles [Section 2(3)]
(3) “Coastal Goods” means goods, other than imported goods, transported in a vessel from one port in India to another [Section 2(7)]
(4) “Beneficial Owner” means any person on whose behalf the goods are being imported or exported or who exercised effective control over the goods being imported or exported [Section 2 (3A)]
(5) “Customs Area” means the area of a customs station and includes any 2 areas in which imported goods or export goods are ordinarily kept before T clearance by customs Authorities, Customs area includes workhouse [Section 2(11)]

Question 16.
What do you understand with the term “Container” used under Customs Act, 1962?
Answer:
Word ‘container’ is not defined in the Customs Act. In a normal sense,
1. A container is simply a box. It is no more complex than a truck body, a railway freight van, or a ship’s hold. Containers are made of aluminum, steel, fiberglass, or plywood for lightness with steel frames to give strength. Standard sizes for containers are 40, 20, or 10 feet long, 8 ft, wide, and 8 ft, in height. Some have open tops or sides for loading special cargo.

2. Liquids are carried in boiler-shaped tanks surrounded by a rectangular framework.

3. Other containers are insulated or refrigerated and are constructed according to International standards and inspected by Insurance companies.

Question 17.
What do you mean by the following specific terms used within the meaning of the Customs Act, 1962:

  1. Appellate Tribunal
  2. Bill of entry
  3. Bill of export
  4. Smuggling
  5. Proper officer.

Answer:

  1. “Appellate Tribunal” means the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal constituted under section 129 of the Customs Act, 1962;
  2. “Bill of entry” means a bill of entry referred to in section 46 [Section 2(4)] used for clearance of imported goods;
  3. “Bill of export” means a bill of export referred to in section 50 [Section 2(5)] submitted by the exporter for export of goods by land route;
  4. “Smuggling”, in relation to any goods, means any act or omission which will render such goods liable to confiscation under section 111 or section 113 [Section 2(39)];
  5. “Proper Officer”, in relation to any functions to be performed under this Act, means the officer of customs who is assigned those functions by the Board or the Commissioner of Customs [Section 2(34)];

Question 18.
What do you understand by the expressions “India” and “Indian Customs Waters” under the Customs Law? Are there any differences between “Indian territorial waters” and “Indian customs waters”? Explain the significance of Indian customs waters under Customs Law.
Answer:
As per section 2(27) of the Customs Act, 1962, “India” includes the territorial waters of India. Further, “Indian customs waters” means the waters extending into the sea up to the limit of contiguous zone of India under section 5 of the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone, and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976 (80 of 1976) and includes any bay, gulf, harbor, creek or tidal river [Section 2(25)].

The concept of territorial waters and Indian customs waters are different for the purpose of Customs law. Territorial waters extend up to twelve nautical miles from the baseline on the coast of India.

Indian customs waters extend up to the contiguous zone of India which is twenty-four nautical miles from the nearest point of baseline. Thus, Indian customs waters extend up to twelve nautical miles beyond territorial waters. The significance of Indian customs waters is that the Customs Officer has powers to arrest a person; to stop and search any vessel; to confiscate a vessel concealing goods; to search any person onboard any vessel and; to confiscate goods in these waters. Marine police can go only up to 12 nautical miles whereas customs officers j have extended mileage up to 24 nautical miles.

Question 19.
State the relevant dates for determination of the rale of duty and tariff value for imports.
Answer:
The relevant date for determination of the rate of duty and tariff value (Section 15):

  • In case of goods entered for home consumption under section 46 – the date on which bill of entry is presented or the date of entry inwards whichever is later.
  • In case of goods cleared from a warehouse under section 68 – the date on which a bill of entry for home consumption is presented.
  • In case of any other goods – the date of payment of duty.

Question 20.
Distinguish between Transit and Transshipment of goods under Customs Act, 1962.
Answer:
The basic difference between transit and transshipment is that in ‘transit’ goods continue to be on the same vessel, while in transshipment, goods are transferred to another vessel/vehicle. Section 53 of Customs Act, 1962 dealing with transit provide that any goods imported in any conveyance will be allowed to remain on the conveyance and to be transited without payment of customs duty, to any place out of India or any customs station. However, all these goods must be mentioned in the import manifest or import report submitted by the person in charge of the conveyance

Under section 54 of Customs Act, 1962 Transshipment means transfer from one conveyance to another (the conveyance may be vehicle, ship, or aircraft). Such transshipment may be to any major port or airport in India. The following points detail the distinction between transit and transshipment:

Transit of goods Transshipment of goods
Goods are lying in the ship at an intermediate port. Goods are transferred to the intermediate port.
Only import manifest has to be submitted for entry. Bill of transshipment/declaration is also required for transshipment.
Transit is allowed in every port normally. Transshipment is allowed in specified ports only.
No supervision is required for transit goods. Transshipment takes place under the supervision of a proper officer.
No additional conditions or formalities are required. Specific conditions are imposed if goods are deliverable at an Indian port
Only one conveyance is involved in transit goods and the same carry the goods to the port of clearance. At least two conveyances are involved in transshipment and the transferee ship reaches the destination port

Basic Concepts Of Customs Law Notes

  • Levy of Customs duty: It is imposed on goods imported into or exported out of India as per the rates specified under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 or any other law.
  • Relevant date for determination of the rate of duty and tariff valuation
  • Provisions regarding duty on “Pilfered goods”
  • Provisions relating to duty on “Derelict”, “Jetsam”, “Flotsam” or “Wreck” goods brought or coming to India.
  • Provisions relating to abatement of duty on damaged or deteriorated goods.
  • Remission of duty on goods lost, destroyed or abandoned
  • Right to relinquish the title to the goods – abandonment of goods
  • Exemption from customs duty

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Preparing a Company for an IPO and Governance Requirements – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Preparing a Company for an IPO and Governance Requirements – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on: “Documents to be checked in due diligence pro-cess.” [(Dec. 2012) (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are information or documents to be checked during the process of due diligence:

  • Basic Information.
  • Important Business Agreements.
  • Financial Data.
  • Marketing Information.
  • Litigation Aspects.
  • IPR Details.
  • Taxation Aspects.
  • Internal Control System.
  • Human Resource Aspects.
  • Insurance Coverage.
  • Cultural Aspects.
  • Environmental Impact.

Question 2.
Write a note on: “Data room in due diligence.”
Answer:
→ Companies set up specific location where all the documents and the copies of the same are made available for examination and verification. Such specific location can be termed as “Data Room”.

→ Data Room provides all important business documents/information which cover financial, regulatory, IPR, Marketing, Press Report or any important material aspect pertaining to a business transaction.

→ Data Room create the common platform/place where all records of important business information are kept for the review by a potential buyer after signing of Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) as it discloses confidential data which is not available for public relating to business process, trade secret, technology information etc.

→ Some principles adhered for copying documents to state clearly the nature of documents which could be copied in the data room for such purpose photocopies and scanning machines are kept. Also, electronic data also monitored for which copies are required to be made.

→ Some provisions are made to mitigate the risks of data destruction/ data stealing for which the restrictive provisions are made for entry, study, noting and exit from the data room including physical checking of persons conducting such study in the data room.

Question 3.
Critically examine and comment on the following: “The concept of data room and its need in due diligence.”
Answer:
Concept of Data Room:
→ Companies set up specific location where all the documents and the copies of the same are made available for examination and verification. Such specific location can be termed as “Data Room”.

→ Data Room provides all important business documents/information which cover financial, regulatory, IPR, Marketing, Press Report or any important material aspect pertaining to a business transaction.

→ Data Room create the common platform /place where all records of important business information are kept for the review by a potential buyer after signing of Non Disclosure Agreement (NDA) as it discloses confidential data which is not available for public relating to business process, trade secret, technology information etc.

Need for Data Room:

  • Removes ambiguity in the minds of buyer about the profitability, growth prospectus and sustainability of business.
  • Give material information for the purpose of SWOT Analysis of the entity.
  • Provide better bargaining to buyer through analysis of the data.
  • Expose the weakness of the seller which is not directly provided to the buyer.
  • Provide data useful for better business valuation for both parties ie. buyers and seller.

Question 4.
Critically examine and comment on the following: “Types of information ‘ that can be provided under a data room.”
Answer:
Following are Types of Information that can be provided under a “Data Room”:

  • Financial Documents such as Annual Reports, Financial Statements filed with regulatory authorities, Cash Flow Statements, documentation with bankers etc.
  • Human Resource Information.
  • Basic corporate documents; such as Memorandum and Articles of Association.
  • Certificate of Incorporation (COI), Shareholders’ agreement, documents on General and Board Meetings, insurance contracts etc.
  • Equipment and information on operational aspects.
  • Information relating to sales, marketing etc.
  • Compliance related information.
  • Information published in media.
  • IPR details.
  • Information on litigation.

Question 5.
Weak Industries Ltd. is contemplating to sell its business to Expen-sive Enterprises Ltd. (EEL). As a Practising Company Secretary, EEL has engaged you to create a ‘data room’ and take further steps. Explain to the management of EEL:
i. What is data room;
ii. What benefits it will provide and
iii. In what circumstances creation of data room will be required?
Answer:
i. Data Room:
Companies set up specific location where all the documents and the copies of the same are made available for examination and verification. Such specific location can be termed as “Data Room”.

Data Room provides all important business documents/information which cover financial, regulatory, IPR, Marketing, Press Report or any important material aspect pertaining to a business transaction.

Data Room create the common platform /place where all records of important business information are kept for the review by a potential buyer after signing of Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) as it discloses confidential data which is not available for public relating to business process, trade secret, technology information etc.

ii. Benefits of Data Room:

  • Removes ambiguity in the minds of buyer about the profitability, growth prospectus and sustainability of business.
  • Give material information for the purpose of SWOT Analysis of the entity.
  • Provide better bargaining to buyer through analysis of the data.
  • Expose the weakness of the seller which is not directly provided to the buyer.
  • Provide data useful for better business valuation for both parties i.e. buyers and seller.

iii. Circumstances for creation of Data Room:

  • Mergers, Amalgamations and Acquisitions.
  • Strategic Alliances.
  • Partnering agreement.
  • Business Coalitions.
  • Outsourcing agreement.
  • Technology or Product Licensing.
  • Joint Ventures through technical or financial collaboration.
  • Venture Capital investment.
  • Public Issue.

Question 6.
Write a note on: “Provisions relating to Communication or procurement of unpublished price sensitive information as per SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015.”
Answer:
Regulation 3 of SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 provides for prohibition on communication or procurement of unpublished price sensitive information with some exceptions.

Important points as follows:
Prohibition [Reg. 3(1) & 3(2)]: No Person shall:

  • communicate, provide, or allow access to any unpublished price sensitive information or
  • procure from or cause the communication by any insider of

unpublished price sensitive information, relating to a company or securities listed or proposed to be listed or proposed to be listed except in furtherance of legitimate purposes, performance of duties or discharge of legal obligations.

Exception to Restrictions: However, above provisions shall not applicable to any unpublished price sensitive information which may be communicated, provided, allowed access to or procured, in connection with a transaction that would:

  • entail an obligation to make an open offer under the takeover regulation’s or
  • not attract the obligation to make an open offer under the takeover regulations.
  • board of Directors of the company is of informed opinion that the proposed transaction is in the best interests of the company and
  • the information that constitute unpublished price sensitive information is disseminated to be made generally available at least two trading days prior to the proposed transaction being effected in such form as the board of directors may determine.

Question 7.
Soha Ltd. wants to go for initial public offer. Ms. Pia, the Company Secretary of the Company, has to advise to the management of the company about the conditions for making initial public offer. What should be Ms. Pia’s advice?
Answer:
To
The Board of Directors
Soha Ltd.
Note: Conditions for making Initial Public Offer.

A company may make an initial public offer provided it fulfils all the following five conditions laid down under Regulation 26(1) and (2) of SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2009:

1. It should have net tangible assets of at least three crore rupees in each of the preceding three full years (of twelve months each), of which not more than fifty per cent are held in monetary assets. However, if more than fifty per cent of the net tangible assets are held in monetary assets, the issuer should have made firm commitments to utilise such excess monetary assets in its business or project:

Provided further that the limit of fifty per cent on monetary assets shall not be applicable in case the public offer is made entirely through an offer for sale.

2. It should have a minimum average pre-tax operating profit of rupees fifteen crore, calculated on a restated and consolidated basis, during the three most profitable years out of the immediately preceding five years.

3. It should have a net worth of at least one crore rupees in each of the preceding three full years (of twelve months each);

4. The aggregate of the proposed issue and all previous issues made in the same financial year in terms of issue size does not exceed five times its pre-issue net worth as per the audited balance sheet of the preceding financial year;

5. If it has changed its name within the last one year, at least fifty per cent of the revenue for the preceding one full year has been earned by it from the activity indicated by the new name.

Also, an issuer not satisfying any of the above conditions stipulated in sub-regulation (1) may make an initial public offer if the issue is made through the book-building process and the issuer undertakes to allot, at least seventy five per cent of the net offer to public, to qualified institutional buyers and to refund full subscription money if it fails to make the said minimum allotment to qualified institutional buyers.

Ms. Pia
Company Secretary
Soha Ltd.

Question 8.
“Information dissemination through website assumes significance particularly in respect of listed companies.” Discuss and explain the statutory disclosures on company’s website.
Answer:
Information dissemination through website assumes significance particularly in respect of listed companies:

As per regulation 46 of the SEBI Listing Regulations, 2015, every website of a listed Company must contain statutory disclosures in terms of the SEBI Listing Regulations under a separate section on its website which are enumerated as follows:
(a) details of its business;

(b) terms and conditions of appointment of independent directors;

(c) composition of various committees of board of directors;

(d) code of conduct of board of directors and senior management personnel;

(e) details of establishment of vigil mechanism/Whistle Blower policy;

(f) criteria of making payments to non-executive directors, if the same has not been disclosed in annual report;

(g) policy on dealing with related party transactions;

(h) policy for determining ‘material’ subsidiaries;

(i) details of familiarization programmes imparted to independent directors including the following details:

  • number of programmes attended by independent directors (dining the year and on a cumulative basis till date),
  • number of hours spent by independent directors in such programmes (during the year and on cumulative basis till date), and
  • other relevant details.

(j) the email address for grievance redressal and other relevant details;

(k) contact information of the designated officials of the listed entity who are responsible for assisting and handling investor grievances;

(l) financial information including:

  • notice of meeting of the board of directors where financial results shall be discussed;
  • financial results, on conclusion of the meeting of the board of directors where the financial results were approved;
  • complete copy of the annual report including balance sheet, profit and loss account, directors report, corporate governance report etc.;

(m) shareholding pattern;

(n) details of agreements entered into with the media companies and/or their associates, etc.;

(o) schedule of analyst or institutional investor meet and presentations made by the listed entity to analysts or institutional investors simultaneously with submission to stock exchange;

(p) new name and the old name of the listed entity for a continuous period of one year, from the date of the last name change;

(q) items in sub-regulation (1) of regulation 47;

Question 9.
IPO being “once a life lime event, mis-calculation of any nature can create a hurdle for company’s future growth.” Keeping this in mind list out the important aspects that key Managerial Personnel shall consider while prepare for an IPO.
Answer:
Company Secretary being Key Managerial Person under the Companies Act, 2013 is important personnel as far as compliance of various legislation is concerned. Company Secretary assumes a significant importance when he/she is required to be a part of the Company which proposes to attain ‘listed’ status. Besides complying with provisions of the Companies Act, a Company Secretary of an IPO bound Company is required to be aware and well versed with at least fundamental requirements as far as preparation for IPO as well as continuation of being listed is concerned.

The Key Managerial Personnel shall consider the following important aspects while preparing for an IPO issue:

  • Due Diligence
  • Setting up of Relevant Teams.
  • Management Structure.
  • Data Room.
  • Financial Information & Reporting Process.
  • Other Regulatory Compliances.
  • Industry data.
  • Management Discussion & Analysis.
  • Publicity & Advertising.
  • Road shows.
  • Material Contracts & Documents

Question 10.
Explain the Regulatory Framework for an IPO and scope of Due Diligence. [(Dec. 2019) (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Regulatory framework for an IPO and scope of due diligence:
Regulatory Framework for an IPO:

  • Companies Act, 2013 and Rules made thereunder.
  • SCRA, 1956.
  • SCRR, 1957 specially Rule 19(2)(h) which deals with minimum number of shares to be offered to the public in an IPO.
  • SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018.
  • Circulars issued by SEBI from time to time governing IPO process such as timeframe within which an IPO should be completed, modes of making payments in an IPO, roles and responsibilities of various intermediaries involved in an IPO etc.

Scope of due diligence in this context:
→ In terms of the ICDR Regulations, the Merchant Bankers are re-quired to submit due diligence certificate to SEBI and the formats for such certificate have been provided in the ICDR Regulations.

→ SEBI Regulations requires a Merchant Banker to:

  • exercise due diligence,
  • ensure proper care and exercise independent professional judgment.

→ The SEBI Regulations requires Merchant Banker to maintain records and documents pertaining to due diligence exercised in pre-issue and post-issue matters. The ICDR Regulations require that Offer Documents should contain all material disclosures, which are true and adequate to enable prospective investors to take an informed decision. Furthermore, the SEBI ICDR Regulations, 2018 require due diligence certificate to be issued by the Merchant Banker.

→ The Merchant Bankers are required to demonstrate that all reasonable steps were taken to exercise due diligence and ensure adequate disclosures were made to potential investors, they

Question 11.
“If going public is a complex process, being public is all the more complex as it assumes tremendous responsibilities on the managements and promoters of the company once listed”- Comment on the statement and the responsibilities it imposes on the management in terms of proce-dures and compliances.
Answer:
If going public is a complex process, being public is all the more com-plex as it assumes tremendous responsibilities on the managements and promoters of the Company once listed. The reason being, that the new set of shareholders would have acquired the ownership in the Company and the management has more responsibility towards outside shareholders as well as Regulators. Further, being publicly listed ownership of shareholding can change any time without the knowledge of the promoters & Company. The responsibility of the management of Listed Company towards the shareholders enhance manifold and managements shall continue to strive for maintaining good governance standards, implementing ethical business practices and continue to comply with applicable Regulations in a sustained manner.

Some of the important functions in the organization after listing can be enumerated as follows:
Board Procedure: On listing, Companies will have additional responsibility of complying with various disclosure requirements of the stock exchanges besides those required under Companies Act, 2013. The stock exchanges will have a standard list of compliances to be followed by Listed Companies at pre-determined schedules like:

Notice of every proposed Board meeting which is likely to consider any decision which is considered as “price sensitive”, must be given in advance as prescribed. The outcome of the Board Meeting must be intimated to the stock exchanges within 30 minutes of conclusion of the Board Meeting.

Every listed Company must have a qualified Company Secretary holding a certificate from ICSI who besides being Key Managerial Personnel as defined under Companies Act is also a designated ‘Compliance Officer’.

The Board process should be such streamlined that the calendar of proposed dates of Board Meeting in the financial year is required to be prepared in advance and intimated.

The exchanges have developed robust disclosure systems wherein even the time of dissemination of information is mentioned on the stock exchanges.

Compliance Requirements: The listed Companies are required to comply with continuous listing norms and have to adhere to periodic disclosures to the stock exchanges. The listed Companies basically will have to comply (besides provisions of Companies Act, 2013) with applicable requirements of :

  • SEBI (Listing Obligation & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (Listing Regulations).
  • SEBI (SAST) Regulations, 2011 (Takeover Regulations).
  • SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 (Insider Trading Regulations).

Question 12.
What are the advantages of going public and attaining listing?
Answer:
Following are advantages of going public and attaining listing are as follows:
Raising Capital: Companies require funds to finance its needs for expansion/growth, acquisitions & present business operations.

Currency for Mergers & Acquisitions: The established publicly traded Companies can use the equity shares as currency to acquire other business. The equity shares of listed company can be utilized to swap & do a stock deal as a consideration.

Leveraging: Equity shares listed on Stock Exchanges command a price and liquidity which leads to enhanced market capitalization.

Enhancing Brand Image: Listing a Company definitely enhances Company’s image & its profile. Listed stocks get attention of large pool of investors and other stakeholders/market participants which is helpful in creating and enhancing brand awareness.

Talent Acquisition & Management: Listed Companies can offer attractive Employee Stock Option (ESOP) or Employee Share Purchase Schemes (ESPS) to attract required talent pool and also to retain them. These initiatives encourage commitment and long term motivation amongst the talent pool.

Question 13.
Write Short Note on: “Road Shows”.
Answer:

  • Management needs to prepare for proposed Road shows and Investor Meets in advance.
  • Adequate representation of Promoters & Key Managerial Persons (KMPs) should be available for various meets, Road shows etc.

“Road Shows” generally comprises of:

  • ‘Press Conference’: Aims at giving information to the press for publication in their papers/newspapers for dissemination of information to the investors.
  • ‘Brokers, Investors/Analysts Meet’: Aims at giving detailed information to the market participants about the Company enabling them to understand the details and take it further to the ultimate investors.

Question 14.
Prepare list of policies disclosures are required on Website of Listed Companies?
Answer:
Policies required for disclosure on Website of Listed Companies:

  • Code of conduct for Board of Directors & Senior Management.
  • Code of conduct in terms of Insider Trading Regulations.
  • Code of practices & procedures for fair disclosures of unpublished price sensitive information.
  • Appointment letters to Independent Directors.
  • Familiarization programme for Independent Directors.
  • Whistle Blower Policy.
  • Policy of Related Party Transaction.
  • Material subsidiary policy.
  • Risk Management Policy.
  • Archival Policy.
  • Policy for disclosure of material information.
  • Dividend Distribution Policy.
  • Policy against sexual harassment

Question 15.
Write Short Note On: “Investor Grievances Redressal Mechanism”.
Answer:

  • Every listed Company must have in place Investor Grievance Redressal Mechanism to address grievances of any shareholders.
  • All listed Companies must register themselves on SEBI Complaints Redressal System (SCORES) platform.
  • Company must have Shareholders Relationship Committee to look after grievances of any nature against the listed Company.
  • Any shareholder (aggrieved party) can upload its complaint against the listed Company on this platform and listed Company is under obligation to address/redress the same within time bound programme prescribed by Securities and Exchange Board of India.

Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Notes

Industrial Designs – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Industrial Designs – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Question 1.
Industrial design plays an important role in the trading of consumer goods or products as well as helps economic development by encouraging creativity in the industrial and manufacturing sectors. Discuss the salient features of the Designs Act, 2000.
Answer:
Salient Features of Design Act, 2000 Objectives and Justification for Design Protection The process of acquiring design rights is of importance from the perspective of the creator of the design. Basically, the evolution of design rights was based on the keen interest to encourage and protect those who produce new and original designs, thereby facilitating competitive development and industrial progress.
Being a creation of the intellectual mind, the designs also need to be protected. Designs protection through registration has been a source of tremendous progress in the field of science and technology which has revolutionized manufacturing during the process.

Subject Matter of Design Law
The subject matter which is protected by the design system is the application of the design to an article. The two fundamental characteristics of the design law are – firstly, it is concerned with the visual aspects of the articles and secondly, it concerns designs applied to an article, which means concepts like garden designing, the architectural drawings and designs, book jackets, labels, tokens, medals, buildings and structures have been excluded from design protection.

The term Design as per the Design Act, 2000
A design refers to the features of shape, configuration, pattern, ornamentation or composition of lines or colours applied to any article, in two or three dimensional (or both) forms. This may be applied by any industrial process or means (manual, mechanical or chemical) separately or by a combined process, which in the finished article appeals to and is judged solely by the eye.

Who can apply for Registration
Any person or the legal representative or the assignee can apply separately or jointly for the registration of a design. The term “person” includes firm, partnership and a body corporate. An application may also be filed through an agent in which case a power of attorney shall be filed.

What is excluded from Design Protection?
Designs that are primarily, literally or artistic in character are not protected under the Design Act. These will include:

  • Book jackets, calendars, certificates, forms and other documents, dressmaking patterns, greeting cards, leaflets, maps and plan cards, postcards, stamps, transfers, medals.
  • Labels, tokens, cards, cartoons
  • Any principle or mode of construction of an article
  • Mere mechanical contrivance
  • Buildings and structures
  • Parts of the article not manufactured and sold separately
  • Variations commonly used in the trade
  • Mere workshop alterations of components of an assembly
  • Mere change in the size of the article
  • Flags, emblems or signs of any country
  • Layout designs of integrated circuits

What do you mean by new/original design
A design must have something new before the law will allow it to be registered. The design should be new or original; this is evident from Section 5(1) of the Act, which provides that the application for registration should be for “any new or original design”.

The words new or original, involve the idea of novelty, either in the pattern, shape or ornament itself or in the way an old pattern, shape or ornament is to be applied to an article. Novelty may consist not in the idea itself but the way in which the idea is to be rendered applicable to an article.

Question 2.
What do you understand by ‘design’? How is it different from ‘copyright’? What is the Act covering design?
Answer:
Design as per Section s (d) of the Designs Act, 2000 means only the features of shape, configuration, pattern or ornament or composition of lines or colour or a combination thereof applied to any article whether two dimensional or three dimensional or in both forms, by any industrial process or means, whether manual, mechanical or chemical, separate or combined, which in the finished article appeal to and are judged solely by the eye.

But does not include any mode or principle of construction or anything which is in substance a mere mechanical device and does not include any trade .mark, as defined in clause (v) of sub-section of Section 2 of the Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958, property mark or artistic works as defined under Section 2 (c) of the Copyright Act, 1957. Meaning of copyright specified under section 14 of the Copyright Act, 1957.

Design is with reference to the shape and aesthetic aspect of an article. It is different from copyright in the sense that a form of reference to a “hard” and “tangible” creation such as the shape of a cup. Copyright is “soft” defined creative work on paper and other media dealing with knowledge or information. The design does not include any artistic work, as defined in Section 2 (c) of the Copyright Act, 1957. The Design Act, 2000 covering design. Space, to write important points for revision

Question 3.
What is the meaning of ‘appeal to the eye’ in the definition of a design? A book designer prepares a jacket of a hard copybook. Will, his work be covered under the Designs Act, 2000 or will it be a subject matter of the Copyright Act, 1957? Discuss.
Answer:
As per Section 2 (d) of the Designs Act, 2000 design means only the features of shape, configuration, pattern, ornament or composition of lines or colours applied to any article whether in two dimensional or three dimensional or in both forms, by any industrial process or means, whether manual, mechanical or chemical, separate or combined, which in the finished article appeal to and are judged solely by the eye; but does not include any mode or principle of construction or anything which is in substance a mere mechanical device, and does not include any trademark or property mark (as defined in Section 479 of the Indian Penal Code) or artistic work ( as defined in clause (c) of Section 2 of the Copyright Act, 1957).

The design will therefore be calculated to attract the attention of the beholder regardless of whether or not it makes a favourable appeal to him. The requirement of appealing to the eye is therefore really a preliminary test of novelty, as compared to the fundamental form of the article. (Amp. V. Utilux (1972) RPC 103, pp 107). In the given case, Jacket will be covered under Copyright Act, 1957 not under the Designs Act, 2000 which is usually a three-dimensional structure or object with “appeal to the eye”.

Question 5.
What are the essential requirements for the registration of a design?
Answer:
The essential requirements for the registration of a design are as under:

  1. The design should be new or original, not previously published or used in any country before the date of application for registration. The novelty may reside in the application of a known shape or pattern to a new subject matter.
  2. The design should relate to features of shape, configuration, pattern or ornamentation applied or applicable to an article.
  3. The design should be applied or applicable to any article by any industrial process.
  4. The features of the design in the finished article should appeal to and are judged solely by the eye.
  5. Any mode or principle of construction or operation or anything which is in substance a mere mechanical device, would not be a registrable design.
  6. The design should not include any Trade Mark or. property mark or artistic works as define under the Copyright Act, 1957.

Question 6.
What is not a design under the Designs Act, 2000? Explain with illustrations.
Answer:
The design does not include:

  • any trademark, as defined in Section 2(zb) of the Trademarks Act, 1999 or
  • any property mark, as defined in Section 479 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, or
  • any artistic work, as defined in Section 2(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957.

Artistic Work means:
(1) A painting, sculpture, drawing (including a diagram, map, chart or plan), an engraving or a Photograph, whether or not any such work possesses artistic quality.

(2) Any work of architecture i.e. any building or structure having an artistic character or design or any mode for such building or structure.

(3) Any work of artistic craftsmanship. Illustrative of non-registrable designs are:

  • book jackets, calendars, certificates, forms and other documents;
  • dressmaking patterns, greeting cards, leaflets, maps and plan cards;
  • postcards, stamps and medals;
  • labels, tokens, cards and cartoons;
  • any principle or mode of construction of an article;
  • mere workshop alterations of components of an assembly;
  • a mere change in the size of the article;
  • flags, emblems or signs of any country;
  • layout designs of integrated circuits.

Question 7.
Define ‘design’ and analyse non-registrable designs with examples.
Answer:
Design as per Section 2(d) of the Designs Act, 2000 means only the features of shape, configuration, pattern or ornament or composition of lines or colours or a combination thereof applied to any article whether two dimensional or three dimensional or in both forms, by any industrial process or means, whether manual, mechanical or chemical, separate or combined, which in the finished article appeal to and are judged solely by the eye. Exceptions: Design does not include any mode or principle of construction or anything which is in substance a mere mechanical device, and does not include any trademark, as defined in clause (v) of sub-section of section 2 of the Trade and Merchandise Marks Act, 1958, property mark or artistic works as defined under section 2(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957.
As per section 4 of the Design Act, 2000, Design is not registrable in India, if it

  • is not new or original;
  • has been disclosed to the public anywhere in India or in any other country by publication in tangible form or.by use in any other way prior to the filing date or priority date of the application;
  • is not significantly distinguishable from known designs or combination of known designs;
  • Comprises or contains scandalous or obscene matter.

Question 8.
Sonar Industries, the proprietor of a registered design, obtained an ad interim injunction restraining TRISHA International from manufacturing portable table fans with a design that was allegedly an obvious or colourable imitation of Sonar’s registered design for such fans. Sonar Industries also alleged that TRISHA International was guilty of piracy of its registered design.

TRISHA International contended striking features of the registered design could not be viewed in isolation. It added that the configuration and ornamentation of its table fan design were dissimilar. Will TRISHA International succeed in getting the ad-interim injunction vacated ?. Give, reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
‘Design’ refers to the features of shape, configuration, pattern or ., ornamentation which can be judged by the eye in the finished products. Section 22 of the Design Act, 2000 provides the legal proceedings to be followed in the case of Piracy of Registered Design.

One of the below remedies can be sought against the accused:
(1) Paying to the registered proprietor of the design a sum not exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees recoverable as a contract debt provided that the total sum recoverable in respect of any one design shall not ‘ exceed fifty thousand rupees; and

(2) Recovery of damages for any such contravention, and an injunction •against the repetition thereof, to pay such damages as may be awarded and to be restrained by injunction accordingly. Not every resemblance is actionable and imitation does not mean duplication. An obvious limitation is one that immediately strikes one as being so like the original registered design as to be almost indistinguishable. In contrast, the word ‘fraudulent’ presupposes knowledge .of the registered design. To ascertain infringement, the two products need not be placed side by side, but rather examined from the point of view of a customer with average knowledge and imperfect recollection. The main consideration is whether the broad features of shape, configuration and pattern are similar to one another ( Veeplast vs. Bonjour, 2011).

The Designs Act, 2000 grants protection only for the appearance of the article which appeals to and is judged by the eye. In a case, the Calcutta High Court held as below: “Novelty resided in the design as a whole and not in its component parts. The striking features of the registered design could not be viewed in isolation. Components such as mounting brackets being mechanical devices could not be considered as a part of the design as registered in the Certificate of Registration.”

Thus, the question of whether TRISHA International’s portable table fan is an obvious imitation of Sonar’s registered design has to be determined solely by the test of an eye. Like the shape, configuration and ornamentation of TRISHA’s portable table fan design were clearly dissimilar to those of Sonar’s registered design, no prima facie case of piracy has been made out by Sonar.

Question 9.
Can stamps, Labels, tokens, cards be considered an article for the purpose of registration of Design? If yes, why and if no, why not?
Answer:
The answer to the question is ‘No’ since, once the Design i.e., the ornamentation is removed only a piece of paper, metal or like material remains and the article referred to ceases to exist. For Design protection, the article must have its existence independent of the Designs applied to it. [Design with respect to the label was held not registrable, by an Order on civil case No. 9-D of 1963, Punjab, High Court], So, the Design applied to an article should be integral with the article itself.

Question 10.
What is design under the Designs Act,2000? What is the design not registrable under the Act?
Answer:
Designs speak of drawings. However, when a design is applied to commercial goods by the enterprise concerned, it is termed as an industrial design.
According to Section 2(d)of the Designs Act, 2000, Design means only the features of shape, configuration, pattern or ornament or composition of line or colour or combination thereof applied to any article whether two dimensional or three dimensional or in both forms, by and industrial process or means, whether manual mechanical or chemical, separate or combined, which in the finished article appeal to and are judged solely by the eye, but does not include any mode or principle of construction or anything which is in substance a mere mechanical device, and does not include any trademark, as defined in clause (v) of sub-section of section 2 of the Trade and Merchandise Marks Act,1958, property mark or artistic works as defined under section 2 (c) of the Copyright Act,1957.

The design which is not registrable under the Act are:

  • any trademark as defined in Section 2 (zb) of the Trademarks Act,1999;
  • any property mark, as defined in Section 479 of the Indian Penal Code,1860 or
  • any artistic work, as defined in section 2(c)of the Copyright Act, 1957.

Examples of non-registrable designs are:

  • book jackets, calendars, forms, certificates and other documents;
  • dressmaking patterns, greeting cards, leaflets, maps and plan cards;
  • postcards, stamps and medals;
  • labels, tokens, cards and cartoons;
  • any principle or mode of construction of articles;
  • a mere change in the size of the article;
  • flags, emblems or signs of any country;
  • the layout of designs of integrated circuits.

Question 11.
What is the object of registration of designs? What is the duration of a design registration? Can it be extended?
Answer:
The object of registration of design are as follows:

  • It must be a design i.e. it must belong to the subject matter of a design which the Design Act, 2000, aims to protect;
  • It must be new or original;
  • It must not be one that is excluded from registration.

The duration of a design registration is initially ten years from the date of registration but in cases where the claim to priority has been allowed, the duration is ten years from the priority date. Yes, the initial period of ten years may be extended by a further period of five years, if the registered proprietor applies for extension in the prescribed manner.

Question 12.
What constitutes piracy of a registered design? What penalties have, been provided for piracy of a registered design under the Designs Act, 2000?
Answer:
Piracy of a design means the application of a design or its imitation to any article belonging to the class of articles in which the design has been registered for the purpose of sale or importation of such articles without the written consent of the registered proprietor. Publishing such articles or exposing terms for sale with knowledge of the unauthorized application of the design to them also involves piracy of the design. The piracy of registered design constitutes the following:

(1) for the purpose of sale to apply or cause to be applied to any article in any article in any class of articles in which the design is registered, the design or any fraudulent or obvious imitation thereof, except with the licence or written consent of the registered proprietor, or to do anything with a view to enabling the design to be so applied; or

(2) to import for the purpose of sale, without the consent of the registered proprietor, any article belonging to the class in which the design has been registered, and have applied to it the design or any fraudulent or obvious imitation thereof; or

(3) knowing that the design or any fraudulent imitation thereof has been applied to any articles in any class of articles in which the design is registered without the consent of the registered proprietor, to publish or expose or cause to be published or exposed for sale that article.

PENALTIES:
As per Section 22, if any person commits piracy of a registered design, he shall be liable to pay for payment of a sum not exceeding ₹ 25,000/ recoverable as a contract debt. However, the total sum recoverable in respect of any one design shall not exceed ₹ 50,000/

Question
Enumerate the general procedure for registering a design.
Answer:
The procedure for registration of designs are as follows:

1. WHERE To APPLY:
Any person claiming to be the proprietor of any new or original design. may apply for registration. An application for registration of a design shall be addressed to the controller of design. The Patent Office at Kolkata, or at any of its branch offices at New Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai. A proprietor may be from India or fpm a Convention Country.

2. TYPE OF APPLICATIONS:
There are two types of applications:

  • Ordinary application: It does not claim priority.
  • Reciprocity application: It claims the priority of an application filed previously in a conventional country. Such an application shall be filed in India within six months from the date of filing in a convention country. This period of six months is not extendable.

3. Substitution of Application or Joint Claiming:
The name of an applicant can be substituted or a joint claim can be made for an applied design if the following requirements are met:
(1) The claim for substitution is made before the design has been registered; and
(2) Right of the claimant shall be created only by:

  • an assignment;
  • agreement in writing made by the applicant or one of the applicants; or
  • operation of law; and

(3) The design under consideration shall be identified in the assignment or. the agreement specifically by reference to the number of applications for registration; or
(4) The rights of the claimant in respect of the design have been finally established by a Court.

A request for substitution of the applicant shall be filed in Form-2 along with the required fee as per Section 8. However, in the case of joint applicants, the controller shall not pass such direction without the consent of the other joint applicant(s).

CS Professional Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Notes

Patent Databases And Patent Information System – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Patent Databases And Patent Information System – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Question 1.
A patent search is a search conducted in the patent database to check whether any invention similar to the invention in respect of which patent is obtained, already exists. Discuss the patent search, patent database and various types of searches used in patent documentation.
Answer:
The object of the Patent search is to evaluate the subject matter invention in comparison to the prior art.
Prior art refers to scientific and technical information that exists before the effective date of a given patent application. Prior art may be found in any public documents such as patents, technical publications, conference papers, marketing brochures, products, devices, equipment, processes, and materials.

A prior art search refers to an organized review of prior art contained in public documents, prior art searches can be of various kinds: patentability searches conducted by an inventor before filing a patent application. Searches are conducted using different kinds of databases, from public databases of issued patents on the internet to exhaustive databases including technical literature. Searches can be done by legal professionals, by scientists, or by researchers, sometimes, defendants in patent litigation even offer bounties for invalidating prior art.

A patentability search may be conducted before the filing of a patent application to gauge the prospects of obtaining broad claim coverage. The purpose of conducting such a search is to find references related to the claimed invention in order to make an assessment of its patentability. Searches are typically fast and inexpensive since the patent agent’s clients often do not want to pay for an expensive, thorough search. Also, it is often presumed that the inventor himself will have a good sense of novelty based on his reading of the literature in his field and by communication with his peers.

Searches are a good way to get information on developments in the field of invention. Prior art searches may sometimes reveal what competitors consider worth protecting. Search results may be a critical factor in deciding whether to file a patent application. If a prior art search reveals references that anticipate the claimed invention, the inventor and the patent agent should consider how they can “avoid the prior art” by drafting the claims to overcome. In some cases, a prior art search may reveal patent references that are problematic. Just because you see a reference that seems similar to the invention does not mean the proposed application should be abandoned.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of The Patent Information System (PIS) and the National Institute for Intellectual Property Management (NIIPM).
Answer:
The functions of The Patent Information System (PIS) and National Institute for Intellectual Property Management (NIIPM) are as follows: PIS
(1) To obtain and maintain a comprehensive collection of the patent specification and patent-related literature on a worldwide basis;
(2) To provide technological information in patent or patent-related literature through publication services, search services, and patent copy supply service;
(3) To meet statutory obligation regarding novelty search under the Patent Act, 1970.
(4) Patent related literature on a worldwide basis to meet the need for technological information of various users in:

  • R&D establishments
  • Government Organizations
  • industries
  • Business, and
  • Inventors.

(5) Other users enabling them to make informed business decisions.

NIIPM

  • It is a national center of excellence for training, management, research, education in the field of Intellectual Property Rights related issues
  • Caters to the training of Examiners of Patents and Designs
  • Examiners of Trademarks & Geographical Indications
  • IP professionals
  • IP Managers in the Country
  • Imparting basic education to the user community
  • Government functionaries and stakeholders involved in the creation
  • Commercialization and management of intellectual property rights
  • It also facilitates research on IP-related issues including preparation of study reports and policy analysis of relevance to the Government.

Question 3.
List out the individual types of searches in patent documentation.
Answer:
The various types of searches are:
1. Pre-Application Searches (PAS)
Years ago, an invention is just an idea. The patent application process is difficult, time-consuming, and expensive. Therefore, the inventor should conduct “Pre- Application Searches” (PAS) before filing a patent application. In this search the inventor should look for:

  • Printed publications
  • Public knowledge or
  • Patent already issued in his country or a foreign country that may relate to the particular invention.

2. State-of-the-Art Searches
It is also known as “Informative Search”. This search is made to determine the general state-of-the-art for the solution of a given technical problem as background information for R&D activities and in order to know what patent publications already exist in the field of the technology or research. This kind of search is especially useful for technology development or technology transfer purpose.

3. Novelty Searches
The objective of this search is to determine the novelty or lack of novelty of the invention claimed in a patent application or a patent already granted, or of an invention for which no application has yet been filed. The aim of this search is to discover relevant prior art. The basic inventive ideas are formulated in such an unspecified way that many publications will apply to this broad description. Dependent on the outcome of the novelty search, the vent decision will be whether to stop or to go ahead in developing the invention. If nothing of relevance was found, it is easy and you should go ahead. The decision becomes difficult if one or more pertinent documents have been found. But important is to restrict the search to the appropriate area. This may be done by identifying a proper place or place for the subject of the searches in the I PC.

4. Patentability or Validity Searches
It is made to locate documents relevant to the determination not only of novelty but also of other criteria of patentability. This type of search should cover all the technical fields, which may contain material pertinent to the invention.

5. Name Searches
These are searches for locating information about published patent documents involving specific companies or individuals, as applicants, assignees, patentees, or inventors.

6. Technological Activity Searches
These searches are for identifying companies and/or inventors who are active in a specific field of technology. These searches are also suitable for identifying countries in which a certain technology is being patented, so as to know where to turn for obtaining particular information in a given field of technology.

7. Infringement Searches
The objective of this search is to locate patent and published patent applications, which might be infringed on by a given industrial activity. The aim of this search is to determine whether an existing patent gives exclusive rights covering that industrial activity or any part of it.

8. Legal Status Searches
A search for this type of investigation is made to obtain information on the validity (status) of a patent or a published patent application, on a given date, under the applicable patent legislation in one or more countries. Such information can assist in making decisions. For example:

  • exporting, or
  • negotiation of the license agreement.

It can also give guidance on the value attached to a particular patent by the patentee.

Question 4.
Why is a patent search done? What are the various online databases available that provide access to patent documents while conducting patent searches?
Answer:
A patent search is an important step before filing a patent application. A patent search is a search conducted in patent databases as well as in the literature available, to check whether any invention similar to the invention in respect of which patent is to be obtained already exists. Therefore, instead of going forth with the filing, if one conducts the patentability search, one can get a clear idea about the patentability of the invention whether the application should be filed and the strengths and weaknesses of his invention.

Patent information is made available to the public through a variety of databases. Each database covers a particular set of patent documents. Thus, it may be necessary to consult multiple databases in order to find and then access patent documents relevant to your interests. Internet-based databases are online databases. Anyone who has access to the Internet may be able to browse the full text of published patent documents via free-charge databases or commercial databases.

Many national and regional patent offices provide free online access to their own patent collections as well as to select patent documents from other offices.

For example, The Full-Tent and Full Page Image Database Of the United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) is one of the earliest and free online patent information systems.

International Patent Classification (IPC) is a hierarchical classification system used primarily to classify and search patent documents according to the technical fields they pertain to. IBM Intellectual Property Network, Intellectual Property Network (IPN) is a free IBM patent site provided by IBM. The database contains:

  • United States Patents (US):1971-present & updated weekly (full text/ full image)
  • European Patents – Applications (EP-A): 1979-present, updated weekly (Frontpage & claims/ full image)
  • European Patents – Issued (EP-B): 1980- present, updated weekly (front page & claims/ full image)
  • Patent Abstracts of Japan (JP): 1976- present, updated weekly (front page & claims/ representative image).

CS Professional Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Notes

Place of Supply – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions 

Place of Supply – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Sakshitha Dancers, owned by Mrs. Lasliya, a famous Bharata Natyam dancer, wishes to organise a ‘Lasliya Dance Concert’ in Chandigarh (Haryana). Sakshitha Dancers is registered in Jaipur, Rajasthan. It enters into a contract with an event management company, Hasan Arts (P.) Ltd. (registered in Delhi) for organising the said dance concert at an agreed consideration of ₹10,00,000.

Hasan Arts (P) Ltd. books the lawns of Hotel Sky Dine, Chandigarh (registered in Haryana) for holding the dance concert, for a lump sum consideration of ₹6,00,000. Sakshitha Dancers fixes the entry fee to the dance event at ₹6,000; 600 tickets for ‘Lasliya Dance Concert’ are sold. From the aforesaid details, identify the different supplies which are involved and determine the CGST & SGST or IGST liability, as the case may be, in respect of all the supplies involved in the outlined situation. Rate of GST may be taken as under:

SGST: 9%
CGST: 9%
IGST: 18%

Answer:
Identification of supplies involved and GST payable:

In the given problem, three supplies are involved:

(i) Services provided by Sakshitha Dancers to audiences by way of ad-mission to dance event.
(ii) Services provided by Hasan Arts (P.) Ltd. to Sakshitha Dancers by way of organising the dance event.
(iii) Services provided by Hotel Sky Dine to Hasan Arts (P.) Ltd. by way of accommodation in the hotel lawns for organising the dance concert. The CGST and SGST or IGST liability in respect of each of the above supplies is determined as under:

(i) Services provided by Sakshitha Dancers to audiences by way of admission to dance event

As per the provisions of section 12(6) of the IGST Act, 2017, the place of supply of services provided by way of admission to, inter alia, a cultural event shall be the place where the event is actually held. Therefore, the place of supply of services supplied by Sakshitha Dancers to audiences by way of admission to the music concert is the location of the Hotel Sky Dine, i.e. Chandigarh, Haryana.

Since the location of the supplier (Jaipur, Rajasthan) and the place of supply (Chandigarh, Haryana) are in different States, IGST will be leviable.

Therefore, IGST leviable will be computed as follows:

Consideration for supply 600 tickets @ ₹6,000 per ticket = ₹36,00,000 IGST @ 18% on value of supply = ₹36,00,000 × 18% = ₹6,48,000.

(ii) Services provided by Hasan Arts (P) Ltd. to Sakshitha Dancers by way of organising the dance event.

Section 12(7)(a)(i) of IGST Act, 2017 stipulates that the place of supply of services provided by way of organization of, inter alia, a cultural event to a registered person is the location of such person.

Therefore, the place of supply of services supplied by Hasan Arts (P.) Ltd. to Sakshitha Dancers (Jaipur, Rajasthan) by way of organising the music concert is the location of the recipient, ie. Jaipur (Rajasthan). Since the location of the supplier (Delhi) and the place of supply (Jai¬pur, Rajasthan) are in different States, IGST will be leviable.

Consideration for supply = ₹10,00,000.
IGST @ 18% on value of supply = ₹10,00,000 × 18% = ₹1,80,000

(iii) Services provided by Hotel Sky Dine to Hasan Arts (P.) Ltd. by way of accommodation in the Hotel lawns for organising the dance concert

As per the provisions of section 12(3)(c) of the IGST Act, 2017, the place of supply of services, by way of accommodation in any immovable property for organizing, inter alia, any cultural function shall be the place where such immovable property is located. Therefore, the place of supply of services supplied by Hotel Sky Dine (Chandigarh, Haryana) to Hasan Arts (R) Ltd. by way of accommodation is the place where immovable property ie. Hotel Sky Dine is located.

Since the location of the supplier (Chandigarh, Haryana) and the place of supply (Chandigarh, Haryana) are in the same State, CGST and SGST will be leviable.

Therefore, CGST and SGST leviable will be computed as follows: Consideration for supply = ₹6,00,000 CGST @ 9% on value of supply = ₹6,00,000 × 9% = ₹54,000 SGST @ 9% on value of supply = ₹6,00,000 × 9% = ₹54,000

Author’s note:
Only this one-time ICSI asked a single question of having weightage of 15 marks. Otherwise, maximum marks allotted to each question is 5.

Question 2.
Mrs. Bharghavi is a registered supplier under GST law in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, running a factory for manufacture of electric motors. For giving training to her employees, she has utilized the services of Vibrant Trainers Pvt. Ltd., a registered supplier in Trissur, Kerala. The training programs are to be held at Trissur.
(i) What will be the place of supply of services provided by Vibrant Trainers Pvt. Ltd. to Mrs. Bharghavi?
(ii) Will your answer be different, if Mrs. Bharghavi is not a registered supplier?
(iii) In the situation given in the problem, if the training is to be provided at Singapore, what will be the place of supply?
Answer:
(i) As per section 12(5) of IGST Act, 2017, when service in relation to training is provided to a registered person, place of supply is the location of recipient. Therefore, if Mrs. Bharghavi is a registered person, the place of supply will be the location of recipient, i.e., Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.

(ii) As per section 12(5) of IGST Act, 2017, when service in relation to training is provided to an unregistered person, the place of supply is the location where the services are actually performed. Therefore, in this case, place of supply will be Trissur, Kerala.

(iii) When the training takes place outside India (Singapore), the place of supply will be the location of recipient i.e. Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu as Mrs. Bharghavi ie. recipient of supply is registered under GST.

Question 3.
Determine the place of supply according to the provisions of Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 in the following cases:

(i) K of Kerala places an order to H of Gurgaon (Haryana) to supply motor parts and instructs him to deliver the spare parts to U of Kanpur (U.P.) directly to save transportation cost.

(ii) P Ltd. registered in Punjab sold its pre-installed transformer tower of electricity located at Himachal Pradesh to Bharat Ltd. registered in Delhi.

(iii) M from Mumbai enters into contract with the Indian Railways controlling office situated in U.P. for sale of food items in the trains from Mumbai to Delhi.

(iv) D of Delhi has a savings bank account with HDFC Bank in Delhi. When he was in Mumbai for official tour, he gets a DD (Demand Draft) from HDFC Bank in Mumbai.

(v) K of Kerala avails architect services for his property located in Chennai (Tamil Nadu) from an architect H of Hyderabad in Telangana State.
Answer:
(i) Goods are delivered to U (Kanpur, U.P.) the recipient of goods on the direction of K of Kerala. As per section 10(1)(b) of IGST Act, 2017, where the goods are delivered by the supplier to a recipient or any other person on the direction of a third person it shall be deemed that the said third person has received the goods and the place of supply of such goods shall be the principal place of business of such person, therefore in the given case, place of supply shall be the location of principal place of K ie. Kerala.

(ii) As per section 10(1)(c) of IGST Act, 2017, where supply does not involve movement of goods, place of supply shall be the location of goods at the time of delivery to the recipient. In the given case, the location of pre-installed tower is in Himachal Pradesh, therefore, place of supply is 3 Himachal Pradesh.

(iii) As per section 10(1)(e) of IGST Act, 2017, where the goods are supplied 5 on board a conveyance, the place of supply shall be the location at which such goods are taken on board. In the given case, M from Mumbai supplying food items in the train from Mumbai to Delhi, assuming that food items are taken on board at Mumbai, therefore, place of supply shall be Mumbai.

(iv) As per section 12(12) of IGST Act, 2017, place of supply of banking services shall be location of recipient of services on the records of supplier of services. However, if location of recipient of service is not on the records of supplier, the place of supply shall be location of supplier of services. In given case, assuming that D has Bank Account with HDFC Bank and on records of HDFC Bank, address of D is of Delhi, place of supply shall be Delhi.

(v) As per section 12(3) of IGST Act, 2017, place of supply of services of architects in relation to immovable property, shall be the location where immovable property is located. Therefore, in the given case place of supply shall be Chennai (Tamil Nadu).

Question 4.
Mr. Yogesh is working in Infosys Company having office in Bengaluru. Infosys Company is registered under GST. Mr. Yogesh purchased the ticket from Hyderabad for transportation as passenger by Air from Hyderabad to Chennai. Mr. Yogesh discloses the name of the organization and its registration number and the place where the organization is registered. Supplier of service is located at Hyderabad.

Find the following:
(i) Place of supply of service and GST liability.
(ii) Whether your answer is different if Mr. Yogesh has not disclosed the name of the organization and its registration number?
Answer:
(i) Place of Supply shall be Bengaluru (i.e. location of recipient of service) in terms of section 12(9) of IGST Act, 2017 as the passenger transportation service is supplied to a registered person. Further, IGST is liable to be paid by Air Travel Operator as location of supplier (Hyderabad, Telangana) and place of supply (Bengaluru, Karnataka) is in different states.

(ii) Place of Supply shall be Hyderabad (i.e. Place where the passenger embarks on the continuous journey) in terms of section 12(9) of IGST Act, 2017 as the supply of passenger transportation service is to a person other than registered person.

Further, CGST & SGST is liable to be paid by Air Travel Operator as location of supplier and place of supply is in same state i.e. Telangana.

Question 5.
Mr. Mahendra Goyal, an interior decorator provides professional services to Mr. Harish Jain in relation to two of his immovable properties. Determine the place of supply in the transactions below as per provisions of GST law in the following independent situations:

CASE LOCATION OF MR.MAHENDRA COYAL LOCATION OF MR.HARISH JAIN PROPERTIES SITUATED AT
I Delhi Mumbai New York (USA)
II Delhi New York Paris (France)

Answer:
Case I:
As per section 12(3) of IGST Act, 2017, where both the service provider and service recipient are located in India, the place of supply of services directly in relation to an immovable property, including services provided by interior decorators is the location of immovable property.

However, if the immovable property is located outside India, the place of supply is the location of recipient. Since in the given case, both the service provider (Mr. Mahindra Goyal) and the service recipient (Mr. Harish Jain) are located in India and the immovable property is located outside India (New York), the place of supply will be location of recipient le. Mumbai.

Case II:
As per section 13(4) of IGST Act, 2017, where either the service provider or recipient of service is located outside India, the place of supply of services directly in relation to an immovable property including services of interior decorators is the location of immovable property.

Since, in given case, service recipient (Mr. Harish Jain) is located outside India (New York), the place of supply will be location of immovable property ie. Paris (France).

Place Of Supply Notes

  • “Location of supplier” and “PLACE OF SUPPLY” determine the nature of the transaction i.e. whether the supply is “Intrastate” or “Inter-state” 1 and accordingly whether “CGST + SGST/UTGST” or “IGST” is 5 chargeable.
  • Sections 10, 11, 12 & 13 of the IGST Act determine the Place of Supply. Section 10: Place of supply of goods other than supply of goods imported into, or exported from India.
Case Place of supply
(1)(a) Supply involves the movement of goods. Location of goods at the time at which movement of goods terminates for delivery to the recipient.
(1)(b) Goods are delivered by the supplier to a recipient on the direction of a third person. Principal place of business of such third person.
(1 )(c) Supply does not involve the movement of goods. Location of such goods at the time of delivery to the recipient.
(1 )(d) Goods are assembled or installed at site. Place of such installation or assembly.
(1)(e) Goods are supplied on board a conveyance. Location at which such goods are taken on board.
(2) Supply of goods cannot be determined. Determined in such manner as may be prescribed.

Section 11: Place of supply of goods imported into, or exported from India.

Case Place of supply
(a) Goods imported into India Location of the importer.
(b) Goods exported from India Location outside India

Section 12: Place of supply of services where the location of supplier and recipient is in India.

Case Place of supply
(2) Other than cases specified in (3) to (14) – GENERAL CLAUSE (a) Supply is to a REGISTERED person – Location of such person
(b) When supply is to any person other than a registered person –

(i) Address on record exists: Location of recipient.

(ii) In other cases: Location of supplier of services.

(3) Services in relation to immovable property, lodging accommodation services. Location at which the immovable property is located or intended to be located. However, if the location of immovable property is outside India:- Location of the recipient.

Explanation: If immovable property is in more than one state or Union Territory:- Each such state or union territories in specific proportion.

(4) Restaurant and catering services, personal grooming, fitness, beauty treatment, health service including cosmetic and plastic surgery. The location where the services are actually performed.
(5) Training and performance appraisal services (a) To a registered person: Location of such person

(b) To an Unregistered Person: Location where services are actually performed

(6) Services by way of admission to events or amusement park or any other place and services ancillary thereto Place where the event is actually held or where the park or such other place is located.
(7) Services by way of organization of events or services ancillary to organization of events or assigning of sponsorship to such events (i) To registered person: Location of such person.

(ii) To an unregistered Person: Place where the event is actually held. But if the event is held outside India: Location of the recipient.

Explanation: If the event is held in more than one state/UT: Each of such state/ UT in specific proportion.

(8) Services by way of transportation of goods, including by mail or courier (a) To a Registered Person: Location of such person.

(b) To an unregistered Person: Location where such goods are handed over for their transportation.

Proviso: Where transportation is to a place outside India: Place of destination of such goods.

(9) Passenger Transportation services To a Registered person: location of such person.

To an unregistered person: Place where the passenger embarks on the conveyance for continuous journey*.

’Continuous journey: Return journey shall be treated as a separate journey.

Proviso: Right to passage is given for future use and point of embarkation is not known: As per section 12(2) of the IGST Act.

(10) Services on board a conveyance Location of first scheduled point of departure of that conveyance for the journey.
(11) Telecommunication services including data transfer, broadcasting cable & DTH services. (a)          Services by Fixed Telecommunication line: Location where such telecommunication line is installed for receipt of services.

(b)          Mobile connection on post- paid basis: Location of billing address of the Recipient of services on records of supplier of services.

(c)           Mobile connection on pre-paid basis through voucher or any other means:

(i) Through a selling agent, etc.: Address of selling agent, etc. as per records of supplier.

(ii) By any other person to final subscriber: Location where such pre-payment is received or such vouchers are sold.

(d) In other cases: Address of recipient as per records of supplier of services and where such address is not available, then location of supplier of services.

Proviso: Pre-paid service is availed/Re-charge is done through internet banking or other electronic mode: Location of recipient of services on record of supplier of services.

Explanation: Leased circuit line is installed in more than one state/UT: It shall be each state/UT in which it is installed in specific proportion.

(12) Banking and other financial services To any person: Location of recipient of services on the records of supplier of services.

Proviso: If location of recipient of services is not on records of supplier:

Location of supplier of services.

(13) Insurance Services (a) To a Registered Person: Location of such person.

(b) To an unregistered person: Location of recipient of services on the records of supplier of services.

(14) Advertising Services to Central Government, State Government, a statutory body or a local authority Each of such state/UT in specific proportion of the amount attributable to services by way of dissemination in respective states/UT.

Section 13 of IGST Act: Place of supply of service where the location of supplier or recipient of the supply is outside India

Case Place of supply
(2) General provisions: For services not covered in sub-sections (3) to (13) Location of recipient of services
If in above case, location of Recipient of services is not available in ordinary course of business Location of supplier of services
(3) Performance based services:

(a)          Services supplied in respect of goods which are required to be made physically available by the recipient of services to the supplier of services, or to a person acting on behalf of the supplier of services in order to provide the services.

 

When such services are provided from a remote location by way of electronic means

 

Services supplied in respect of goods which are temporarily imported into India for repairs or for any other treatment or process and are exported after such repairs or treatment or process without being put to any use in India, other than that which is required for such repairs or treatment or process

 

(b) Services supplied to an individual, represented either as the recipient of services or a person acting on behalf of recipient, which require the physical presence of the recipient or the person acting on his behalf, with the supplier for supply of services.

 

Location where services are actually performed

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Location where goods are situated at the time of supply of services.

 

Provisions of section 13(3) will not apply and place of supply shall be determined as per section 13(2).

 

 

 

 

 

Location where services are actually performed.

 

(4) Services relating to immovable property Place where immovable property is located or intended to be located.
(5) Services relating to events Place where the event is actually held.
(6) Services mentioned in (3), (4) and (5) provided at more than one location including a location in taxable territory. Location in Taxable territory
(7) Services referred in (3), (4) or (5) are supplied in more than one state or Union Territory. Each of the respective states or Union Territories and value of such supplies shall be in proportion to value for services separately collected or determined in terms of the contract or in absence of such contract, on such other basis as may be prescribed.
(8) Specified Services:

(a) Services supplied by a banking company or financial institution or a non-banking financial company to account holders

(b) Intermediary Services

(c) Services consisting of hiring of means of transport, including yachts but excluding aircrafts and vessels, up to a period of one month

 

Location of supplier of services

 

 

Location of supplier of services

Location of supplier of services

 

(9) Services of transportation of goods, other than by way of mail or courier Place of destination of such goods
(10) Passenger Transportation services Place where the passenger embarks on the conveyance for continuous journey.
(11) Services provided on board a conveyance First scheduled point of departure of that conveyance for the journey
(12) Online Information and Database access or Retrieval services (OIDAR) Location of recipient of services*

* Person receiving OIDAR services shall be deemed to be located in the taxable territory if any two of the following non-contradictory conditions are satisfied –

a. location of address is in the taxable territory
b. Credit Card/Debit Card etc. by which the recipient of services settles payment has been issued in the taxable territory.
c. Billing address of the Recipient of services is in the taxable territory.
d. IP Address of device used by Recipient of services is in the taxable territory.
e. Bank of Recipient of services in which account used for payment is maintained is in the taxable territory.
f. Country code of SIM card used by the recipient of services is of taxable territory.
g. Location of the fixed land line through which service is received by the recipient is in the taxable territory.
Section 13(13): To prevent double taxation or non-taxation of supply of a service, or for uniform application of rules – Government has the power to notify any description of services or circumstances in which place of supply shall be a place of effective use and enjoyment of a service.

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes