## JEE Main Physics Rotational Motion Previous Year Questions with Solutions

For JEE Main other Engineering Entrance Exam Preparation,  JEE Main Physics Rotational Motion Previous Year Questions with Solutions is given below.

### Multiple Choice with ONE correct answer

1.A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity co. Two objects each of mass m, are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The wheel now rotates with an angular velocity [1983-1 mark

Ans:
2.Two point masses of 0.3kg and 0.7kg are fixed at the ends of a rod which is of length 1.4m and of negligible mass. The rod is set rotating about an axis perpendicular to its length with a uniform angular speed. The point on the rod through which the axis should pass in order that the work required for rotation of the rod is minimum, is located at a distance of      [1995-2 marks]

(a)0.42 m from the mass of 0.3kg
(b)0.70 m from the mass of 0.7kg
(c)0.98m from the mass of 0.3kg
(d)0.98m from the mass of 0.7kg
Ans:
3.A mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the x axis, away from the origin. Its angular momentum with respect to the origin.[1997-lmark]

a) is zero                                       b) remains constan
c) goes on increasing                           d) goes on decreasing.
Ans:
4.A smooth sphere A is moving on a frictionless horizontal plane with angular speed co and centre of mass velocity v. It collides elastically and head on with an identical sphere B at rest. Neglect friction everywhere. After the collision, their angular speeds are (0A and 0)B, respectively. Then(1992-2Marks)

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5.A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with angular speed co on a horizontal plane as shown.The magnitude of angular momentum of the disc about the origin O is      [1999-2 marks]

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6.A cubical block of side a is moving with velocity v on a horizontal smooth plane as shown. It hits a ridge at point O. The angular speed of the block after it hits O is  [1999-2 marks]

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7.A cubical block of side L rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction p. A horizontal force F is applied on the block as shown. If the coefficient of friction is sufficiently high so that the block does not slide before toppling, the minimum force required to topple the block is :            [2000]

a) infinitesimal                                             b) mg/4

c) mg/2                                                           d)mg(l-p)
Ans:

8.A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density p is bent into a circular loop with centre at O as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis XX is:

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9.An equilateral triangle ABC formed from a uniform wire has two small identical beads initially located at A.The triangle is set rotating about the vertical axis AO.Then the beads are released from rest simultaneously and allowed to slide down, one along AB and the other along AC as shown. Neglecting frictional effects, the quantities that are conserved as the beads slide down, are:    [2000]

(a)angular velocity and total energy (kinetic and potential)
(b)total angular momentum and total energy
(c)angular velocity and moment of inertia about the axis of rotation.
(d)total angular momentum and moment of inertia about the axis of rotation.
Ans:

10.One quarter sector is cut from a O uniform circular disc of radius R. This sector has mass M. It is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the original disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation is                                                            [2001]

Ans:

11. A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches some height, and then rolls down (without slipping throughout these motions). The directions of the frictional force acting on the cylinder are [2002]

(a).up the incline while ascending and down the incline while descending
(b).up the incline while ascending as well as descending
(c).down the incline while ascending and up the incline while descending
(d).down the incline while ascending as well as descending
Ans:

12.Acircular platform is free to rotate in horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing through its centre. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now, the platform is given an angular velocity co0. When the tortoise moves along a chord of the platform with a constant velocity (with respect to the platform), the angular velocity of the platform co(t) will vary with time t as [2002]

Ans:

13.. Consider a body, shown in figure, consisting of two identical balls, each of mass M connected by a light rigidrod. If an impulse J = Mv is imparted to the body at one of its ends, what would be its angular velocity ?       [2003]

a) v/L                                 b) 2v/L
c) v/3L                                d) V/4L
Ans:

14.A particle undergoes uniform circular motion.About which point on the plane of the circle, will the angular momentum of the particle remain conserved ?        [2003]

(a)centre of the circle
(b)on the circumference of the circle
(c)inside the circle
(d)outside the circle
Ans:

15.A horizontal circular plate is rotating about a ‘ vertical axis passing through its centre with anangular velocity co0. A man sitting at the centre having two blocks in his hands stretches out his hands so that the moment of inertia of the system doubles. If the kinetic energy of the system is K initially, its final kinetic energy will be

a) 2K                  b) K/2
c) K                    d) K/4
Ans:

16.A disc is rolling (Withoutslipping)with angular velocity to. P and Q are two points equidistant \\um\UT\m\m\ from the centre C. The order of magnitude of velocity is                                           [2004]

a)VQ>Vc>Vp                                                  b) Vp > Vc > Vq

c) Vp = Vp, Vq = Vc                                      d) Vp < Vc > Vq
Ans:

17.A child is standing with folded hands at the centre of a platform rotating about its central axis. The kinetic energy of the system is K. The child now stretches his arms so that the moment of inertia of the system doubles. The kinetic energy of the system now is

(a):2K                      (b):K/2
(c):K/4                    (d):4K
Ans:

18. From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of radius R/3 is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through O is

Ans:

19.A particle is confined to rotate in a circular path with decreasing linear speed. Then Which of the following is correct

(a).L(angular momentumjis conserved about the centre
(b).only direction of Lis conserved
(c).it spirals towards the centre
(d).its acceleration is towards the centre
Ans:

20.A solid sphere of mass M and radius R havingmoment of inertia / about its diameter is recast into a solid disc of radius r and thickness t. The moment of inertia of the disc about an axis passing the edge and perpendicular to the plane remains I. Then R and r

Ans:

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22.A bob of mass M is suspended by a massless string of length L. The horizontal velocity V at position A is just sufficient to make it reach the point B. The angle©at which the speed of the bob is half of that at A, satisfies

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23.A Small  object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches upto a maximum height of3v²/4g  With respect to the initial position. The object

a) ring         b) solid sphere

( c) hollow sphere            (d) disc
Ans:

24.ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length (L) 0.5 m. The ball is rotated on a horizontal circular path about vertical axis.The maximum tension that the string can bear is 324 N. The maximum possible value of angular velocity of ball (in radian/s) is  [2011]

a) 9 )                                              (b).18

c) 27                                                  ( d) 36
Ans:
25Aarticle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection, when the particle is at its maximum height h, is [1990-2 marks]

Ans:
26.The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD, as shown in the figure, of uniform thickness about an axis passing through the centre O and perpendicular to the plane of the plate is

Where Ij, I2,13 and I4 are respectively the moments of inertia about axis 1,2,3 and 4 which are in the plane of the plate.                                                  [1992-2 marks]

27.A Tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity oo. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is                 [1992-2 marks]

28.Two  particles, each of mass m and charge q, are attached to the two ends of a light rigid rod of length 2R. The rod is rotated at constant angular speed about a perpendicular axis passing through its centre. The ratio of the magnitudes of the magnetic moment of the system and its angular momentum about the centre of the rod is          [1998-2 marks]

29.Let  I be the moment of inertia of a uniform square plate about an axis AB that passes through its centre and is parallel to two of its sides. CD is a line in the plane of the plate that passes through the centre of the plate and makes an angle 0 with AB. The moment of inertia of the plate about the axis CD is then equal to                       [1998-2 marks]

a) I                                                     b) I sin
c) lcos                                  d) lcos2(θ/2)

30.The torque t on a body about a given point is found to be equal to AxL where A is a constant vector, and l is the angular momentum of the body about that point. From this it follows that     [1998-2 marks]

(a) dl/dt is perpendicular to L at all instants of time
(b).The component of L in the direction of A does not change with time
(c)The Magnitude of L does not change with time
(d)L does not change with time

31. solid cylinder is rolling down a rough inclined plane of inclination θ Then [2006-5 marks]

(a) The friction force is dissipative
(b) The friction force is necessarily changing
(c)The  friction force will aid rotation but hinder translation
(d) The friction force is reduced if 0 is reduced

32. A  thin ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is rolling without slipping on a horizontal plane with velocity 1 m/s.   A small ball of mass 0.1 kg, moving velocity 20 m/s in the opposite direction, hits ring at a height of 0.75 m and goes vertically up with velocity 10 m/s. Immediately after the collision.

(a) The ring has pure rotation about its stationary CM.
(b). The ring comes to a complete stop
(c) Friction between the ring and the ground is to the left.
(d) there is no friction between the ring and the ground.

### H Assertion & Reasoning type

Instructions : Each question contains statement-1 (assertion) and statement-2 (reason). Of these statements, mark correct choice if

(a). Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
(b).Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1
(c).Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is flase
(d).Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

33.Statement – l:Two cylinders, one hollow (metal) and the other solid (wood) with the same mass and identical dimensions are simultaneously allowed to roll without slipping down an inclined plane from the same height. The hollow cylinder will reach the bottom of the inclined plane first;

Statement – 2:.By the principle of conservation of energy, the total kinetic energies of both the cylinders are identical when they reach the bottom of the incline.                           [2008]

## Comprehension based questions

### Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow

Two discs A and B are mounted coaxially on a vertical axle. The discs have moments of inertia I and 21 respectively about the common axis. DiscA is imparted an initial angular velocity 2oa using the entire potential energy of a spring compressed by a distance xr Disc B is imparted an angular velocity to by a spring having the same spring constant and compressed by a distance x2. Both the discs rotate in the clockwise direction.

34.The ratio X1/x2 is [2007-4 marks]

(a).2                                    b) 1/2

c) √2                                  d) 1√2

35.When disc B is brought in contact with disc A, they acquire a common angular velocity in time t. The average frictional torque on one disc by the other during this period is     [2007-4 marks]

36.The loss of kinetic energy during the above process is               [2008-4 marks]

### Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow

37. A uniform thin cylindrical disk of mass M and radius R is attached to two identical massless springs of spring constant k which are fixed to the wall as shown in the figure. The springs are attached to the axle of the disc symmetrically on either side at a distance d from its centre. The axle is massless and both the springs and the axle are in a horizontal plane. The unstretched length of each spring is L. The disc is initially at its equilibrium position with its centre of mass (CM) at a distance L from the wall. The disk rolls without slipping with velocity V0 = v0i. The coefficient of friction is μ

37.The net external force acting on the disk when its centre of mass is at displacement x with respect to its equilibrium position is

38.The centre of mass of the disk undergoes simple harmonic motion with angular frequency u equal to

39.The maximum value of V0 for which the disk will roll without slipping is

Two discs A and B are mounted coaxially on a ‘vertical axle. The discs have moments of inertia I and 21 respectively about the common axis. Disc A is imparted an initial angular velocity 2musing the entire potential energy of a spring compressed by a distance xt. Disc B is imparted an angular velocity m by a spring having the same spring constant and compressed by a distance Xj,. Both the discs rotate in the clockwise direction.                       [2007]

40.The ratio of xt/x2 is
(a) 2                               (b).1/2
(c)√2                               (d)1/√2

41.When disc B is brought in contact with disc A, they acquire a common angular velocity in time t. The average frictional torque on one disc by the other during this period is

42.The  loss of kinetic energy during the above process

43. A  particle is projected at time t = 0 from a point P on the ground with a speed v0, at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. Find the magnitude and direction of the angular momentum of the particle about P at time t = v0/g   [1984-6 marks]

44. A  small sphere rolls, down without slipping from the top of a track in a vertical plane. The track has an elevated section and a horizontal part. The horizontal part is 1.0 metre above the ground level and the top of the track is 2.4 metre above the ground. Find the distance on the ground with respect to thepoint B (which is vertically below the end of the track as shown in fig.)where the sphere lands .During its flight as a projectile, does the sphere continue to rotate about its centre of mass? Explain. [1987-7 marks]

45.A carpet of mass M, made of inextensible, material is rolled along its length in the from of a cylinder of radius R and is kept on rough floor. The carpet starts unrolling without sliding on the floor when a negligibly small push is given to it. Calculate the horizontal velocity of the axis of the cylindrical part of the carpet when its radius reduces to R/2.      [1990-8 marks]

46.A homogeneous rod AB of length L*1.8m and mass M is pivoted at the centre O in such a way that it can rotate freely in the vertical plane (fig). The rod is initially in the horizontal position. An insect S of the same mass M falls vertically with speed von the point C, midway between the points O and B. Immediately after falling, the insect moves towards the end B such that the tod rotates with a constant angular velocity ©  [1992-8 marks]

(a)Determine the angular velocity go in terms of v and L.
(b).If the insect reaches the end B when the rod has turned through an angle of 90°, determine v.

47. block X of mass 0.5kg is held by a long massless string on a frictionless inclined plane of inclination 30° to the horizontal. The string is wound on a uniform solid cylindrical drum Y of mass 2kg and of radius 0.2m as shown, in figure. The drum is given an initial angular velocity such that the block X starts moving up the plane.   [1994-6 marks]

(a).Find the tension in the string during the motion.
(b).At a certain instant of time the magnitude of the angularvelocity of Y is 10 rads-1. Calculate the distance travelled by X from that instant of time until it comes to rest

48.Two uniform thin rods A and B of length 0.6m each and of masses 0.01kg and 0.02kg respectively are rigidly joined end to end. The combination is pivoted at object- the lighter end, P as shown is fig, such that it can , freely rotate about point P in a vertical plane. Asmall object of mass 0.05 kg, moving horizontally, hits the lower end of the combination and sticks to it.

What should be the velocity of the object so that the system could just be raised to the horizontal position?          [1994-6 marks]

49.A  rectangular rigid fixed block has a long horizontal edge. A solid homogeneous cylinder of radius R is placed horizontally at rest Its length parallel to the edge such that the axis of the cylinder and the edge of the block are in the same vertical plane as shown in figure, there is sufficient friction present at the edge so that a very small displacement causes the cylinder to roll off the edge without slipping. Determine [1995-10 marks]

(a).The angle 0C through which the cylinder rotates before it leaves contact with the edge,
(b).he speed of the centre of mass of the cylinder before leaving contact with the edge, and
(c).The ratio of the translational to rotational kinetic energies of die cylinder when its centre of mass is in horizontal line with the edge.

50.A  uniform disk of mass m and radius R is projected horizontally with velocity v0 on a rough horizontal floor so that it starts off with a purely sliding motion at t = 0. After t0 seconds, it acquires a purely rolling motion as shown in figure. [1997-5 marks]

(a).Calculate the velocity of the centre of mass of the disc at t0.
(b)Assuming the coefficient of friction to be p. calculate t0. Also calculate the work done by the frictional force as a function of time and the total work done by it over a time t much longer than tQ.

51.Two thin circular discs of mass 2kg and radius 10cm each are joined by a rigid massless rod of length 20cm. The axis of the rod is along the perpendicular to the planes of the disc through their centres. This object is kept on a truck in such a way that the axis of the object is horizontal and perpendicular to the direction of motion of the truck. Its friction with the floor of the truck is large enough so that the object can roll on the truck without slipping. Take x-axis as the direction of motion of the truck and z -axis as the vertically upwards direction. If the truck has an acceleration of 9m/s2 calculate :            [1997-5 marks

5151515151851451515151551

(a).The force of friction on each disc

(b).The magnitude and the direction of the frictional torques acting on each disc about the centre of mass O of the object. Express the torque in the vector form in terms of unit vectors i, j and k in the x-y and z directions.

52. A  uniform circular disc has radius R and mass m. A particle also of mass m, is fixed at a point A on the edge of the disc as shown in fig.

The disc can rotate freely about a fixed horizontal chord PQ that is at a distance R/4 from the centre C of the disc. The line AC is perpendicular to PQ. Initially, the disc is held vertical with the point A at its highest position. It is then allowed to fall so that it starts rotating about PQ. Find the linear speed of the particle as it reaches its lowest position.     [1998-8 marks]

5252582502502520525252525

53.A man pushes a cylinder of JL mass mt with the help of a plank of mass m2 as shown. There is no slipping at any contact.

The horizontal component of the force applied by the man is F. Find

(a).The acceleration of the plank and the centre of mass of cylinder, and

(b).The magnitudes and directions of frictional  forces at contact points.     [1999-10 marks]

55353535353535353

## JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry  Elements of  d-Block,f-Block and Complexes

Ans.(2) A square planer complex is formed by hybridisation of s, px, py and dx2 -dy2 atomic orbitals.

2.The type of isomerism present in nitro- pentamine chromium (III) chloride is (2002)
3) ionization    4)   polymerisation
Ans.(2) The nitro group can attach to metal through nitrogen as (-N02) or through oxygen as nitrito (-ONO).

3.CH3-Mg-Br is an organo metallic compound due to  (2002)
(1)Mg-Br bond      2)   C-Mg bond
3) C-Br bond         4)   C-H bond
Ans.(2)Bond between C atom of organic molecule and metal atom.

4.Most common oxidation states of Ce (cerium) are     (2002)
(1)+2, + 3         2)   +2, + 4
3) +3, + 4       4)   +3, +5
Ans.(4)Common oxidation states of Ce(Cerium) are +3 and + 4.

5.Arrange Ce+3, La+3, Pm+3 and Yb+3 in increasing order of their ionic radii (2002)
(1)Yb+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3
(2)Ce+3 < Yb+3 < Pm+3 < La+3
(3)Yb+3 < Pm+3 < La+3 < Ce+3
(4)Pm+3 < La+3 < Ce+3 < Yb+3
Ans.(1) According to their positions in the periods, these values are in the order :

Ans.(2) A more basic ligand forms stable bond with metal ion, Cl is most basic amongst all.

7.Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+with copper ions in alkaline solutions but not in acidic solutions. What is the reason for it ? (2003)
(1)In acidic solutions protons coordinate with ammonia molecules forming NH4 ions and NH3 molecules are not available
(2)In alkaline solutions insoluble Cu(OH)2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of any alkali.
(3)Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance
(4)In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions
Ans.(1) Cu2+ forms complex with free NHy (4)

8.One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3)5C13, gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in water. One mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgN03 solution to yield two moles of AgCl(s). The structure of the complex is          (2003)
(1)[Co(NH3)3Cl3].2NH3
(2)[Co(NH3)4C12]C1.NH3
(3)[Co(NH3)4C1]C12.NH3 4) [Co(NH3)5C1]C12
Ans.

9.In the coordination compound, K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation state of nickel is             (2003)
1)0  2) + 1          3) + 2           4) – l
Ans.

10.A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is a characteristic of elements of          (2003)
(1)d-block 2) f-block
3) radioactive series 4) high atomic masses
Ans.(2) f-block elements show a regular decrease in atomic size due to lanthanide/actinide contraction.

11.The coordination number of central metal atom in a complex is determined by (2004)
(1)The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma bonds
(2)The number of only anionic ligands bonded to the metal ion
(3)The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma and pi- bonds both
(4)The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by pi-bonds
Ans.

12.Which one of the following complexes in an outer orbital complex ?      (2004)
(1)[Fe(CN)6]4–              2) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
3) [Co(NH3)6]3+             4) [Mn(CN)6]4_
Ans.

13.Coordination compound have great importance in biological systems. In this context which of the following statements is incorrect ?     (2004)
‘ 1) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contains calcium
(2)Carboxypeptidase – A is an enzyme and contains zinc
(3)Cyanocobalamin is B12 and contains cobalt
(4)Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and  contains iron
Ans.(3)Chlorophyll contains magnesium instead of calcium.

14.Cerium(Z=58)is an important member of the lanthanoids. Which of the following statements about cerium is incorrect ? (2004)
(1)The common oxidation states of cerium are +3 and +4
(2)Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent
(3)The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not knownin solutions                                        .
(4)The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than the +4 oxidation state
Ans.(3) Oxidation potential of Ce(IV) in aqueous solution is supposed to be -ve i.e. -0.784 V at 25°C.

15.Which one the following has largest number of isomers? (R-= alkyl group, en = ethylenediamine) (2004)
1) [Ru(NH3)4C12+]      2)         [Co(en)2Cl2]+
3) [Ir(PR3)2 H(CO)]2+      4)   [Co(NH3)5C1]2+
Ans.(2)Geomerical and optical isomerisum.

16.The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in B.M.) among is               (2004)
(1)[MnClJ2- > [CoCl4]-2 > [Fe(CN)6r
(2)[Fe(CN)6]’4 > [CoClJ2– > [MnClJ2-
(3)[Fe(CN)J4- > [MnClJ2– > [CoClJ2-
(4)[MnClJ2- > [Fe(CN)J4– > [CoClJ2-
Ans.(1) Number of unpaired e” in Mn2+ is 5, Co2+ is 3 and Fe2+ is zero.

17.The oxidation state of  Cr in  the complex[Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+ is  (2005)
(1)+3     2) +2           3) +1           4)0
Ans.

18.Calomel (Hg2Cl2) on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives                                    (2005)
(1)HgNH2Cl       2)   NH2-Hg-Hg-Cl
3) Hg20                  4)    HgO
Ans.(1) Reaction between calomel and ammonia is Hg2Cl2 + 2NH4OH ->Hg + Hg(NH2 )C1 + 2H2

19.The IUPAC name of the coordination compound K3[Fe(CN)6] is     (2005)
(1)Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
(2)Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
(3)Potassium hexacyanoiron (II)
(4)tripotassium hexcyanoiron (II)
Ans.(2) Complex of Fe3+ is ferrate(III).

20.Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?     (2005)
1) [Cu(NH3)4]+2               2)    [ZnClJ-2
3) [Cr(C204)3]-3                4)    [Co(CN)6]-3
Ans.(3) The optical isomers are.

Ans.

22.The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 BM. The correct one is       (2005)
(1)d4 (in strong ligand filed)
(2)d4 (in weak ligand field)
(3)d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
(4)d5 (in strong ligand field)
Ans.

23.The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(N02)(NH3)5]C12 is (2006)
(1)nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (III) chloride
(2)nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (II) chloride
(3)pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride
(4)pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
Ans.

24.Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative monodentate ligand X~ to form a paramagnetic complex [NiXJ2-. The number of unpaired electron(s) in the nickel and geometry of this complex ion are, respectively       (2006)
(1)one, tetrahedral      2) two, tetrahedral
3) one, square planar   4) two, square planar
Ans.

25.In Fe(CO)5, the Fe-C bond possesses (2006)
(1)k -character only
(2)both 0 and n characters
(3)ionic character 4) a -character only…
Ans.(2) Because of back bonding both o and kbonds are present.

26.How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion ? (2006)
(1)Six 2) Three 3) One 4) Two

27.Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to (2006)
(1)The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
(2)The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear charge
(3)The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu
(4)The imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
Ans.(4) Poor slidding by f-electrons.

28.Identify the incorrect statement among the, following                                                (2007)
(1)d-Block elements show irregular and erratic chemical properties among themselves
(2)La and Lu have partially filled d orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals
(3)The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very similar
(4)4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded
Ans.(4) 4f and 5f belongs to different energy levels, hence the shielding effect is on them is not the same. Shielding of 4f is more than 5f.

Ans.

30.The actinoids exhibits more number of oxida­tion states in general than the lanthanoids. This is because          (2007)
(1)The 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f orbitals
(2)There is a similarity between 4f and 5f orbit­als in their angular part of the wave function
(3)The actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids
(4)The 5f orbitals extend further from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals

Ans.(4) The actinoids exhibit more number of oxi­dation states in general than the lanthanoids. This is because the 5f orbitals extend further from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals.

31.The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element ‘E’ in the complex [E(en)2(C204)]N02 (where ‘en’ is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,   (2008)
1) 6 and 2 2) 4 and 2 3) 4 and 3 4) 6 and 3

Ans.

32.Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, the main reason being (2008)
(1)4f orbitals more diffused than the 5f orbitals
(2)Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3)More energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(4)More reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids

Ans.(2) Being lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than 4f and 5d orbitals.

33.In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at. no. 27), will be magnitude of A0 be the highest ?  (2008)
1) [Co(CN)6]3“              2) [Co(C204)3]3
3) [Co(H20)6]3+             4) [Co(NH3)6]3+

Ans.

34.Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the following statements in incorrect?(2009)
(1)Because of the large size of the Ln(III) ions the bonding in its compounds is predominantly ionic in character
(2)The ionic sizes of Ln(III) decreases in general with increasing atomic number
(3)Ln(III) compounds are generally colourless
(4)Ln(III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character

Ans.(3) Ln+3 compounds are mostly coloured.

35.Which of the following has an optical isomer?(2009)
1) [C0(NH3)3C1]\           2) [CO(en) (NH3)2]2+
3) [C0(H20)4(en)]3+        4) [CO(en)2(NH3)2]3+

Ans.(4) It is an octahedral complex of the type [M(AA)2X2] where AA is bidentate ligand.

36.In context with the transition elements, which of the following statements is incorrect ?(2009)
(1)In addition to the normal oxidation states, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these elements in complexes
(2)In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal show basic character and form cationic complexes.
(3)In the highest oxidation states of the first five transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and 3d electrons are used for bonding.
(4)Once the d3 configuration is exceeded, the tendency to involve all the 3d electrons in bonding decreases.
Ans.(2) In higher oxidation states transition elements show acidic nature.

37.Which of the following pairs represents linkage isomers ?   (2009)
(1)[Cu (NHj )4 ][PtCl4 ] and [Pt(NH,)4][CuCl4]
(2)[Pd (PPh3 )2 (NCS)2 ] and[Pd(PPh3)2(SCN)2]
(3)[CO(NH3)5N03]S04and [co(NH3)5S04]N03
(4)[PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2 (NH3)4]C12
Ans.

38.A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl3. 6NH(molar mass = 267.5g mol’1) is passed through a cation exchanger. The chloride ions obtained in solution were treated with excess of AgN03 to give 4.78g of AgCl (molar mass = 143.5 g mol-1). The formula of the complex is (At. Mass of Ag = 108u)                   (2010)
1)   [Co(NH3)6]C13         2)   [CoC12(NH3)JC1
‘ 3)    [CoC13(NH3)3]        4)    [CoC1(NH3)5]C12
Ans.

39.Which one of the following has an optical isomer? (en = ethylenediamine)           (2010)
(1)[Zn(en) (NH3)2]2+   2)   [Co(en)3]3+
3)[Co(H20)4(en)]3+           4)         [Zn(en)2]2+
Ans.

40.The magnetic moment (spin only) of [NiClJ2]-is     (2011)
1) 2.82 BM           2) 1.41 BM
(3)82 BM             4) 5.46 BM
Ans.

41.Which of the following facts about the complex [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is wrong ?    (2011)
(1)The complex is an outer orbital complex
(2)The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution.
(3)The complex involves d2sp3 hybridisation and is octahedral in shape
(4)The complex is paramagnetic
Ans.

42.In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statements is not correct ? (2011)
(1)Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy
(2)Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of compounds in + 4 state for all the members of the series
(3)There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the series
(4)All the members exhibit + 3 oxidation state
Ans.(2) All the Lanthanides can not form + 4  oxidation state.

43.Which among the following will be named as dibromidohis (ethylenediamine) chromium (m) bromide ?    (2012)
1) [Cr(en)3]Br33             2) [Cr(en)2Br2]Br
3) [Cr(en)BrJ-                4) [Cr(en)Br2]Br
Ans.

44.Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism ? (2013)
1) [Co(en)3]3+                 2) [Co(en)2C/2]+
3) [Co(NH3)C/3]       4) [Co(en)(NH3)2C/2]+
Ans.(3) [Co(NH3)3C/3] do not exhibit optical isomers but othee exhibit.

45.Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated against it ?  (2013)
(1)V2+< CF+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ :Paramagnetic behaviour
(2)Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : Ionic size
(3)Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr3+ < Sc3+ :Stability in aqueous solution
(4)Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn :Number of oxidation states
Ans.

Ans.(3) Order of wavelength of colours Red > Yellow > Green > Blue

Ans.

Ans.(2)Two bidentate and two monodentative – ligands are present.

Ans.(3) Change transfer from oxygen to manganese

Ans. (1) Ferrocyanide is blue.

## DAVV CET Syllabus 2020 | Get DAVV CET Syllabus from Here

DAVV CET Syllabus 2020: The Devi Ahilya Vishwavidyalaya conducts the common Entrance examination for admission to BCom (Hons), BA (Journalism), Integrated MBA, BA LLB, MBA, MA (Journalism and Mass Communication), MCom, in different colleges of the state of Madhya Pradesh by University Admission Committee (UAC). So the candidates who are planning to appear for DAVV Entrance Test must be aware of DAVV CET Syllabus and Exam Pattern. Having good knowledge over DAVV CET Syllabus will help aspirants to schedule their preparation plan.

## DAVV CET Syllabus

Students who are in the absence of an internet connection can also download the DAVV CET Syllabus PDF for free. Read on to find out everything about DAVV CET Syllabus. The complete syllabus of the DAVV examination is mentioned below. DAVV CET Syllabus is different for various groups.

### DAVV CET 2020 Syllabus

DAVV CET 2020 Syllabus for B.Com, BA, Integrated MBA, BA LLB, MBA, MA, M.Com

DAVV CET 2019 Syllabus for B.Com (Hons), BA (Journalism), Integrated MBA, BA LLB, MBA, MA (Journalism and Mass Communication), M.Com is as follows:

• Verbal Ability: Jumbled Paragraphs, Error Correction of Verb, Noun, Pronoun, Adjective, Adverb and other parts of speech in the Sentences, Correcting the sequence of sentences in the paragraph for example correct use of conditional sentence, time clauses, reported speech, passive writing, Vocabulary usage, Fill in the Blanks, Analogies, Critical Reasoning, Sentence Completion, Facts, Inference and Judgement.
• Quantitative Aptitude: Partnerships, Averages, LCM and HCF, Percentages, Speed, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Compound Interest, Simple Interest, Progressions and Series, Trigonometry, Permutation and Combination, Algebra, Number Systems, Probability, Mixtures and Alligations, Ratio, Proportion and Variation, Profit, Loss and Discount, Geometry, Set Theory & Function, Logarithm & Surds and Indices, Complex Numbers, Coordinate Geometry, Mensuration and Quadratic and Linear Equation.
• Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning: Data Tables, Data charts, Bar diagrams & Charts including Simple, Stacked, Composite Bar charts, Pie charts, Graphs, Data analysis, and Data comparison among others and Caselet based Data, Seating Arrangement, Blood Relations, Input-Output, Series, Syllogism, Puzzles, Critical Reasoning.

DAVV CET 2019 Syllabus M.Tech, MCA, B.Pharma

• Biology: Biomolecules, Carbohydrates, Proteins, Nucleic acids, Enzymes, Chromosomes and Cell Division, Genetics, Mutation, Photosynthesis, Unit of Life, Respiratory system, Human evolution, Ecosystem, Environmental pollution, Digestive system.
• Mathematics: Algebra, Logarithms, Complex Numbers, Permutation and combination, Differential calculus, Integral calculus, Differential Equations, Quadratic Equations, Probability

DAVV CET 2019 Syllabus for MSc and LLM

• Physics – Units and dimensions, Kinematics, Gravitation, Work, Power and Energy, Optics, Wave motion, Hydrostatics, and fluid mechanics, Vibrations, Thermodynamics, Thermal Physics, Rotational motion, Electromagnetism, Current electricity, Electrostatics, Electromagnetic induction, and Modern Physics
• Chemistry – Atomic Structure, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, The Periodic Table and Chemical Families, Chemical Equilibria, Redox Equilibria, Gaseous state, Chemical Energetic and Chemical Dynamics, Colloidal Solutions, Chemistry of metals, Halogen, Electrochemical, Hybridization of carbon s and p bonds, Fuel Gases, Electronic effects, Bio-molecules Carbohydrates, Aminoacids, and Nucleic acids, Alkyl halides, Alcohols, Ethers, Aldehydes and Ketones, Carboxylic Acids, Aliphatic Amines, Haloarenes, Phenols, Aromatic Aldehydes, Reaction
• Computer Science – Number System, History of Computers, Hardware, Software, Database ( introduction), Communication (Basic Introduction), Networking( LAN, WAN,)Internet (Concept, History, working environment, Application), Security Tools, Virus, Hacker, MS Windows, MS Office.

### DAVV 2020 Highlights | DAVV CET Syllabus

 Exam Name Devi Ahilya Vishwavidyalaya Common Entrance Test Exam Frequency Once a year Exam Mode Online Exam Duration 2 hours Test Takers Approx. 16,000 Accepting Colleges 2 Official Website http://www.dauniv.ac.in/

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding DAVV CET Syllabus 2020. Students can also check the list of Engineering Entrance Exams in India.

## SRMJEEE 2020 Exam – Postponed, New Dates, Application Form (Out), Eligibility, Syllabus, Pattern

SRMJEEE or SRM Joint Engineering Entrance Exam is a national level exam conducted by SRM University for admissions into B.Tech courses. Tentatively, the SRMJEEE 2020 exams will be held from 1st to 30th April. There is a slight modification in the examination pattern this year. There will be two additional sections along with the usual sections, i.e, English and Aptitude along with Physics, Chemistry, Maths/Biology.

Read on to explore more about SRMJEEE, its registration, eligibility, and exam pattern.

## SRMJEEE Registration

The application forms are available on the official website and can be filled online as well as offline. The last date for offline form submission is 29th February while the online forms should be submitted latest by 30th March.

You can register on the official website in the following steps:

1. Visit the official website.
4. A self-attested photograph should be uploaded on the form.
5. Fill the required details.
6. The course and campus that you fill in the form can be changed during counseling.
7. After registration, the application number is generated.
9. Pay the application fee and take out the printout for the same.
10. You can also download the application form and send a DD of Rs. 1100 to the following address.

The Director,

SRM Institute of Science and Technology,

Chengalpattu District,

The application will not be processed if the DD is not received.

### Offline Registration for SRMJEEE

1. The application forms are available in a few post offices in your state in Rs. 1100. The list of post offices is given on the official website.
2. Paste a self-attested photograph on the application form.
3. The form should be filled in capital, English letters, with a black ballpoint pen only.
4. The ovals can be filled using an HB pencil.
5. The form should not be torn or tampered.
6. You can also keep a copy of the form before sending.

### Application Fee

The application fees of Rs. 1100 can be paid in the following ways:

• The fees can be paid online using a credit card, debit card or net banking.
• The form filled online can be downloaded and can be sent along with a DD of Rs. 1100.
• The form can be bought from the post office and the amount can be paid there.

The SRMEE admit card can be downloaded from the official website. The admit card is issued only after complete registration and submission of application forms before the due date.

• Login using the id and password provided at the time of registration.
• The online slot booking process should be completed prior to the admit card issuance.
• In case of any mistake in the information provided in the admit card, the candidate should directly inform the Director of admissions.

## SRMJEEE Online Slot Booking

SRMJEEE is an online entrance exam where the students need to book their exam slots. The slot booking starts in the first week of April. The one who comes first gets the desired slot. The students can book their exam slots by logging in to the website using the provided id and password. It is only after the slot booking process, the admit cards will be generated.

## SRMJEEE Eligibility Criteria

The eligibility criteria to appear for SRMJEEE should be as follows:

### Nationality

The candidate can be a:

• Resident Indian
• Non-Resident Indian
• PIO or OCI cardholder issued by the government of India

### Age Limit

• Must be 16 years old as on 31st July of the year of appearing in 12th board examination.
• The upper age limit is 21 years.

### Qualifications

• Should be appearing in 10+2 or had passed 10+2 with Physics, Chemistry, Maths/Biology/Botany/Zoology/Biotechnology as the main subjects, from a recognized board.
• IB with diploma or an A-level in Chemistry, Physics, Maths/Biology/Botany/Zoology/Biotechnology.
• The candidates should have qualified the exams in not more than two attempts.

The candidates can also seek direct admissions in the University campus under the following provisions:

• The toppers of the central and state boards get direct admissions.
• Toppers in all the districts of Tamil Nadu.
• The candidates within top 10,000 ranks in IIT JEE.
• Sportsperson at National and International levels.

## SRMJEEE Exam Pattern

The entrance test contains questions from three main subjects – Physics, Chemistry, Maths/Biology. This year additional two sections, English and aptitude has been added to the test. The total exam duration is 2 hours 30 minutes. There is no negative marking for the wrong answers.

Each question carries 1 mark each. Physics and Chemistry contains a total of 35 questions comprising 35 marks. Maths and Biology contains 40 questions of 1 mark each. The English and aptitude section is of 5 and 10 marks respectively. Thus the entire test carries 125 marks.

## SRMJEEE Cut Off

The cut off of the examination depends on the following factors.

1. Difficulty level of the examination
2. Total number of applicants
3. Number of seats available
4. Combined performance of the candidates
5. The usual cut off trends
6. opening and closing ranks

## SRMJEEE Results

The SRMJEEE results are announced in the last week of April. The candidates can witness the results on the official website or on the registered email id. They can log in to the result page using the id and password obtained during registration. The result contains the aggregate marks and the rank obtained in the merit list.

## SRMJEEE Counselling

The counselling is processed by the SRM Joint Counselling Committee for all the four campuses of SRM University. Tentatively, counseling is conducted in the first and second week of May.

The candidates should carry all the counselling documents including the admit card, scorecard and counselling call letter to the counselling centre.

Only attending the counselling does not guarantee admission. The students need to submit all the required documents along with the fees to confirm their seat.

SRMJEEE is not an easy nut to crack. Therefore, the students are asked to go through the syllabus carefully while preparing for the exam. Also, the students should keep checking the official website for other relevant details and updates.

For further updates and information, visit the official website of SRM University.

When will the SRMJEEE 2020 be conducted?

SRMJEEE 2020 has been postponed due to COVID-19. The extended dates will be announced soon.

Is there any negative marking for the wrong answers?

No, there is no negative marking for the wrong answers. One mark is awarded for every correct answer.

When was the SRMJEEE application form released?

The SRMJEEE application form was released on 12th November 2019.

Who all are eligible for SRMJEEE?

The candidates who have passed 12th or are appearing for it with Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Maths, Biotechnology as the main subjects are eligible for SRMJEEE. Also the candidate should be 16-21 years old as on 31st July of the appearing year.

## JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Nitro,Amine and Azo Compounds

1.When primary amine reacts with chloroform in etharioicKOH then the product is (2002)
1) an isocyanide                    2) an aldehyde
3) a cyanide                           4) an alcohol

Ans.

2.The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p-toludine forms   (2003)

Ans.

3.The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3. CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH is(2003)
1)(CH3 )2 NH < NH3 < CH3NH2
2)NH3 < CH,NH2 < (CH3 )2 NH
3)CH3NH2 < (CH3 )2 NH < NH3
4)CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2 NH

Ans.(2) More is the no. of +1 groups attached to N atom greater is the basic character.

4.Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates  (2003)
1)propanoic acid and ammonium salt .
2)ethanoic acid and ammonium salt
3)methylamine salt and ethanoic acid
4)ethylamine salt and methanoic acid

Ans.

5.The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an organic compound for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The excess of acid required 20 mL of 0.5M sodium hydroxide solution hydroxide solutio for complete neutralization. The organic compound is 1)acetamide           2) thiourea            (2004)
3) urea                       4) benzamide

Ans.(3) Urea has C and N atoms in the ratio 1:2.

6.Which of the following is the strongest base?

Ans.(2)1° aliphalic amine.

7.Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for separation of amines ? (2005)
1) Hinsberg method 2) Hofmann method 3) Wurtz reaction 4) Curtius reaction

Ans.(3) Alkanes are obtained in Wurtz reaction.

8.Amongst the following the most basic compound is   (2005)
1) benzylamine                    2)    aniline
3) acetanilide                       4)    p-nitroaniline

Ans.(1) -NH2 group is not linked with benzene ring

9.An organic compound having molecular mass 60 is found to contain C=20%, H=6.67% and N=46.67% while rest is oxygen. On heating it gives NH3 alongwith a solid residue. The solid residue give violet colour with alkaline copper sulphate solution. The compound is (2005)
1) CH3NCO           2)  CH3 CONH2
3) (NH2)2CO         4)    CH3CH2CONH2

Ans. (3)Emperical formula CH4ON2.

10.Fluorobenzene (C6H5F) can be synthesized in the laboratory (2006)
1)by heating phenol with HF and KF
2)from aniline by diazotisation followed by heating the diazonium salt with HBF4
3)by direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas
4)by reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution

Ans.(2) Fluordrenzene is syntherised fro C6H5HBF4

11. CH3CH2NH2+CHa3+3KOH –>(A)+(B) + 3H20 In the chemical reaction, the compound (A) and (B) are respectively       (2007)
1)C2H5CN and 3KCl
2)CH3CH2CONH2 and 3KCl
3)C2H5NC and K2 C03
4)C2H5NC and 3KCl

Ans.(4) It is example of carbylamine reaction. The product will be C2H5

12.Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution ? (2007)
1) Trimethylamine            2) Aniline
3) Dimethylamine              4) Methylamine

Ans.(3) In aqueous solution basicity order of 1°, 2° and 3° amine with methyl group is 2° > 1° > 3°.In case of aniline lone pair of nitrogen is involved in resonance, so it is weaker base than aliphatic amines.

13.Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product ‘ is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprotis bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains (2008)
1)mixture of o – and p-bromotoluences
2)mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes
3)mixture of o- and p-bromoanilines
4)mixture of o-and m-bromotoluenes

Ans.

14.In the chemical reactions, the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are    (2010)

Ans.

15.A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated with CH3COC/ to get a compound * with molecular mass 390. The number of amino groups present per molecule of the former compound is  (2013)
1) 2                 2) 5                  3) 4                  4)6

Ans.

16.On heating an aliphatic primary amine with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide, the organic compound formed is            (2014)
1) an alkyl isocyanide            2) an alkanol
3) an alkanediol                   4) an alkyl cyanide

Ans.(1) R – NH2 + CHC13 + KOH -> R – NC Alkylisocyanide is obtained.

17.Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pKb vale ?(2014)
1)C6H5NH2       2) (CH3)2NH
3) CH3NH2     4) (CH3)3N

Ans.(2) (CH3)2NH is a stronger base in aqueous medium than Me3 So its pKb value is smallest.

Ans.(3) Sandmayer reaction.

## General Knowledge Simple Quiz Questions | GK Questions

GK Questions: General Knowledge is one of the fastest changing subject as the pace of development is very quick, and a knowledge can become stale with in a short period. that’s why this article has been thoroughly revised and updated. General knowledge or current affairs is easy scoring and very important section to score good marks in all competitive Exams.

## General Knowledge Simple Quiz Questions | GK Questions

Q 1. Which is the biggest continent in the world?

1. North America
2. Asia
3. Africa
4. Australia

Q 2. Which is longest river in the world?

1. Great Ganga
2. Nile
3. Amazon
4. Niger

Q 3. Which is the largest ocean in the world?

1. Indian Ocean
2. Pacific Ocean
3. Arctic Ocean
4. Atlantic Ocean

Q 4.  Which is India’s first super computer?

1. Param8000
2. param80000
3. param800
4. param8

Q 5.  Which bank is called bankers bank of India?

1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Punjab National Bank
3. State Bank of India
4. ICICI Bank

Q 6.  Which is largest animal in the world?

1. Sharke
2. Blue whale
3. Elephant
4. Giraffe

Q 7.  Which is largest animal on land?

1. Tiger
2. White Elephant
3. African Elephant
4. Crocodile

Q 8. Which is largest island in the world?

1. New Guinea
2. Andaman Nicobar
3. Greenland
4. Hawaii

Q 9. Which is largest flower in the world?

1. Rafflesia
2. Jasmine
3. Balloon Flower
4. Camellia

Q 10. Which is the 29th state of India?

1. Uttarakhand
2. Telangana

Q 11.  Tsunami is a word in which language?

1. Hindi
2. Urdu
3. Japanese
4. French

Q 12.  Which state has the longest coastal line in India?

1. Gujarat
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. West Bengal

Q 13. Which continent is known as Dark Continent?

1. Asia
2. South America
3. Australia
4. Africa

Q 14. On which river the Uri dam is constructed?

1. Beas
2. Jhalam
3. Sutlej
4. Ganga

Q 15. Which is the smallest country in the world?

1. Vatican City
2. Bhutan
3. Nepal
4. Shri Lanka

Q 16. Which is largest desert in the world?

1. KALAHARI
2. GOBI
3. TAKLAMAKAN
4. SAHARA

Q 17. Who was India’s first Deputy Prime Minister?

1. Morarji Desai
2. Vallabhbhai Patel
3. Devi Lal
4. Charan Singh

Q 18. Which is hottest continent on Earth?

1. Africa
2. South Asia
3. North America
4. Australia

Q 19. How many letters are there in the English alphabet?

1. 20
2. 26
3. 24
4. 21

Q 20. Which animal is Fastest land animal in the world?

1. Cheetah
2. Springbok
3. Lion
4. House Centipede

Q 21. Which is the highest dam of India?

1. Rihand Dam
2. Tehri Dam
3. Mettur Dam
4. Sardar Sarovar Dam

Q 22. Which is largest freshwater lake in the world?

1. Great Bear Lake
2. Lake Superior
3. Ohrid Lake
4. Great Salt Lake

Q 23. How many days are there in August?

1. 30
2. 31
3. 28
4. 29

Q 24. What is the 19th letter of the English alphabet?

1. N
2. M
3. W
4. S

Q 25. Who was India’s first President?

3. Varahagiri Venkata Giri
4. Varahagiri Venkata Giri

Q 26. Which Indian state has a separate constitution?

1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. West Bengal
3. Haryana
4. Goa

Q 27. Who is the first prime minister of India?

1. Narendra Modi
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Motilal Nehru
4. Indra Gandhi

Q 28. Panama Canal linked which 2 oceans?

1. Atlantic and Pacific
2. Atlantic and Indian
3. Arctic and Pacific
4. Indian and Pacific

Q 29. Which is smallest continent in the world?

1. Asia
2. Australia
3. Arctic
4. Africa

Q 30. Who was the inventor of electricity?

1. Benjamin
2. Benjamin Franklin
3. Leonardo da Vinci
4. Vikings

Q 31. Which metal is the lightest metal in world?

1. Zinc
2. Lithium
3. Platinum
4. Gold

Q 32. LED stands for what?

1. Light emitting Device
2. Low emitting Diode
3. Light electronic Diode
4. Light Emitting Diode

Q 33. How many colors are there in a rainbow?

1. 10
2. 9
3. 7
4. 11

Q 34. We smell with which part of our body?

1. Ear
2. Mouth
3. Brain
4. Nose

Q 35. ‘Taj Mahal’ is located at which place?

2. Agra
3. Ranchi
4. Mumbai

Q 36. Computer is connected to Internet by which device?

1. Modem
2. Mouse
3. CPU
4. RAM

Q 37. Which is smallest planet in our solar system?

1. The Earth
2. Mars
3. Mercury
4. Saturn

Q 38. What is Sun?

1. Planet
2. Comet
3. Pulsar
4. Star

Q 39. The Moon is the natural satellite of which planet?

1. The Earth
2. Mercury
3. Venus
4. Pluto

Q 40. How many players are there in an ice hockey team?

1. 5
2. 7
3. 8
4. 6

Q 41. How many players are there in a Cricket team?

1. 10
2. 9
3. 6
4. 11

Q 42. General Election in India hold after how many years?

1. 2
2. 10
3. 6
4. 5

Q 43. What is the capital of United States of America?

1. New York
2. Washington, D.C.
3. Los Angeles

Q 44. What is the capital of United Kingdom?

1. London
2. Liverpool
3. Bristol
4. Edinburgh

Q 45. How many meters are in 1 Kilometer?

1. 500
2. 2000
3. 100
4. 1000

Q 46. What is the capital of Karnataka?

1. Bengaluru
2. Mysore
3. Belgaum
4. Hubli

Q 47. World War ll (WW2) was ended in which year?

1. 1965
2. 1955
3. 1945
4. 1950

Q 48. World War l (WW1) was ended in which year?

1. 1917
2. 1920
3. 1919
4. 1918

Q 49. In which year India celebrated its first Republic day?

1. 1949
2. 1950
3. 1951
4. 1952

Q 50. Pakistan got independent in which year?

1. 1947
2. 1948
3. 1949
4. 1950

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## JEE Main Physics Current Electricity Previous Year Questions with Solutions

For JEE Main other Engineering Entrance Exam Preparation,  JEE Main Physics Current Electricity Previous Year Questions with Solutions is given below.

Multiple Choice with ONE correct answer
1.A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it.The heat developed is doubled if [1980]
a)both the length and the radius of the wire are halved.
b)both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled
c)the radius of the wire is doubled.
d)the length of the wire is doubled.

Ans.

2.The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per°C- At 300 K, its resistance is 1 ohm. This resistance of the wire will be 2 ohm at [1980]
a)1154 K   b) 1100 K    c) 1400 K    d) 1127 K

Ans.

3.In the circuit shown in fig the heat produced in the 5 ohm resistor due to the current flowing through it is 10 calorie per second. The heat generated in the 4 ohm resistor is [1981-2 marks]

a)1 calorie/sec        b) 2 calorie/sec
c) 3 calorie/sec       d) 4 calorie/sec

Ans.

4.The current i in the circuit (see fig) is [1983-1 mark]

a)(1/45) ampere      b) (1/15) ampere
c) (1/10) ampere      d) (1/5) ampere

Ans.

5.A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of     [1988-1 mark]
a)each of them increases
b)each of them decreases
c)copper increases and germanium decreases
d)copper decreases and germanium increases.

Ans.(d) Copper is a metal. Its resistance decreases when temperature falls.Germanium is a semiconductor. Its resistance in­creases when temperature falls.

Ans.

7.A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of nonuniform cross-section. The quantity / quantities constant along the length of the conductor is / are:      [JEE’97,lmark]
a)current, electric field and drift speed
b)drift speed only
c)current and drift speed
d)current only

Ans.

8.In the circuit shown, P1 R, the reading of the galvanometer is same with switch S open or closed.[JEE’99, 2]

Ans.(a) This is Kelvin’s method of determining resis­tance of galvanometer by Wheatstone bridge cir­cuit. Deflection in galvanometer G is same with switch S open or closed. It means that there is no current through S. This happens when the potentials at the two ends of S are same. This is the condition of balanced Wheatstone bridge.IP = IQ and IR = IG

9.In the given circuit, with steady current, the potential drop across the capacitor must be [2001-2 marks]

a)V      b)V/2      c)V/3     d)2V/3

Ans.

Ans.

11.In the given circuit, it is observed that the current I is independent of the value of the resistance R6. Then the resistance values must satisfy

Ans.(c) Since current I is independent of the value of resistance R6, it is clear that R1 R2, R3 and R4 are the resistances of the arms of a balanced Wheat­stone bridge. R1 R4 = R2R3

12.The effective resistance between points P and Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is [2002-2 marks]

Ans.Consider upper segment above PQ.It is a balanced Wheatstone bridge. The central resistance 2R becomes ineffective.Similarly in the lower segment, the central resistance 2R becomes ineffective.

13.A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3, are connected to a 250 V source, as shown in the figure. Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then [JEE 2002 (Scr), 2]

Ans.

14.Express which of the following setups can be used to verify Ohm’s law? [2003-2m]

Ans.(a) Ammeter is connected in series with the resis­tance- net and voltmeter is connected in parallel with the resistance-net for verification of Ohm’s law. Setup (a) can be used for the purpose.

15.In the shown arrangement of the experiment of the meter bridge if AC corresponding to null deflection of galvanometer is x, what would be its value if the radius of the wire AB is doubled?[2003]

a) x  b)x/4     c)4x     d)2x

Ans.(a) For null deflection of galvanometer in a metre- bridge experiment,

16.Three resistances of equal value are arranged in the different combinations as shown below. Arrange them in increasing order of power dissipation. [2003-2 marks]

Ans.

17.Shown in figure is a post office box. In order to calculate the value of external resistance, it should be connected between

a)B’ and C’
b)A and D
c)C and D
d)B and D

Ans.(b) Post office box is Wheatstone bridge modified for measurement of an unknown resistance.AB, BC and CD are the three arms. The unknown resistance is connected between A and D.

18.Six identical resistors are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance will be [2004-2 marks]

a)maximum between P and R
b)maximum between Q and R
c)maximum between P and Q
d)all are equal.

Ans.

Ans.(a) Resistance of 2 0hms does not belong to any cir­cuit where in a source of emf is connected. Hence no current flows through it.

Ans.

21.If a steady current I is flowing through a cylindrical element ABC. Choose the correct relationship.[2006-3 marks]

Ans.

22.A circuit is connected as shown in the figure with the switch S open. When the switch is closed, the total amount of charge that flows from Y to X is [2007-3 marks]

Ans.

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Ans.

25.To verify Ohm’s law, a student is provided with a test resistor RT, a high resistance R1 a small resistance R2, two identical galvanometers G1 and G2, and a variable voltage source V. The correct circuit to carry out the experiment is

Ans..(c) Theoretical

26.Incandescent bulbs are designed by keeping in mind that the resistance of their filament increases with the increase in temperature. If at room tem­perature, 100 W, 60 W and 40 W bulbs have filament resistance R100, R60 and R40, respectively, the rlation between these resistance is.

Ans.

Ans.

28.A meter bridge is set-up as shown, to determine an unknown resistance ‘X’ using a standard 10 ohm resistor. The galvanometer shows null point when tapping – key is at 52 cm mark.The end-corrections are 1 cm and 2cm respectively for the ends A and B. The determined value of‘X’is  (2011)

a)10.2 ohm                     b) 10.6 ohm
c) 10.8 ohm                     d) 11.1 ohm

Ans.

Multiple Choice with ONE or  More Than ONE correct answers
29.Capacitor C1 Of capacitance 1 micro-farad and capacitor C2 of capacitance 2 microfarad are separately charged fully by a common battery. The two capacitors are then separately allowed to discharge through equal resistors at time t = 0[1989-2 marks]
a) The current in each of the two discharging circuits is zero at t=0
b)The currents in the two discharging circuits are equal but not zero.
c)The currents in the two discharging circuits at t=0 are unequal.
d)Capacitor C1 loses 50% of its initial charge sooner than C2 loses 50% of its initial charge.

Ans.

30.In the circuit shown in the figure, the current through :

a) the 3W resistor is 0.50 A
b)the 3W resistor is 0.25 A
c)the 4 W resistor is 0.50 A
d) the 4W resistor is 0.25 A

Ans.

31.When a potential difference is applied across, the current passing through [1999-3 marks]
a) an insulator at 0 K is zero
b)a semiconductor at 0 K is zero
c)a metal at 0 K is finite
d)a p – n junction diode at 300 K is finite, if it is reverse biased

Ans.(a), (b), (d) (a) An insulator at 0 K does not permit any current to flow through it . Option (a) is cor­rect.
(b)A semiconductor at 0 K becomes an insulator. Obviously the current flowing is zero.Option (b) is correct.
(c)A conductor becomes a superconductor at 0 K. The current will be infinite.Option (c) is incorrect.
(d)In reverse biasing at 300K, a small finite cur­rent flows, due to minority charge carriers, through a p-n junction diode.Option (d) is correct.
Hence options (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

32.For the circuit shown in the figure [2009]

a)the current I through the batter is 7.5 mA
b)the potential difference across R1 ,is 18 V
c)ratio of powers dissipated in R1, and R2 is 3
d)if R1 and R2 are interchanged, magnitude of the power dissipated in RL will decrease by a factor of 9

Ans.

Assertion – Reasoning type
Instructions :The following question contains statement-I (assertion) and statement -2 (reason) of these statements, mark correct choice if
a)Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
b)Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1
c)Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is Base
d)Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

33.Statement – 1 : The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase of temperature.
Statement – 2 : In a conducting solid, the rate of collisions between free electrons and ions increases with increase of temperature. [1993-2 marks]

Ans.(d)

34.Statement – 1 : In a Meter Bridge experiment, null point for an unknown resistance is measured. Now the unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a higher temperature. The null point can be obtained at the same point as before by decreasing the value of the standard resistance. Statement – 2 : Resistance of a metal increases with increase in temperature.    [2008]
Ans.

Comprehension based question
Electrical resistance of certain materials, know as superconductors, changes abruptly from a nonzero value to zero as their temperature is lowered below a critical temperature Tc(0). An interseting property of supercondeuctors is that their critical temperature becomes smaller than Tc(0)if they are placed in a magnetic field, i.e., the critical temperature TC(B) is a function of the magnetic field strength B. The dependence of TC(B) on B is shown in the figure.

35.In the graphs below, the resistance R of a super­conductor is shown as a function of its tempera­ture T for two different magnetic fields B1 (solid line) and B2 (dashed line). If B2 is large than B1, which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of R with T in these fields ?

Ans.(a) Under magnetic field, the critical temperatures decreases as given in the data therefore the super conductors become conductors for higher mag­netic field at low temperature.

36.A superconductor has Tc(0) = 100 K. When a magnetic field of 7.5 Tesla is applied, its Tc de­creases to 75 K. For this material one can defi­nitely say that when.
a)B = 5 Tesla, Tc (B) = 80 K
b)B = 5 Tesla, 75 K < Tc (B) < 100 K
c)B = 10 Tesla, 75 K < Tc (B) < 100 K
d)B = 10 Tesla, Tc (B) = 70 K

Ans.(b) When ‘B’ is increased, TC(B) decreased where solid becomes super conductor. If B = 7.5 tesla given that ‘Tc(0) decreased from 100 K to 75 K. If ‘B’ is less than 7.5 then TC(B) stightly increases, it should be in between 75 K and 100 K so if B = 5 Tesla, 75 K < TC(B) < 100 K

Matching Type
37.Column – I gives certain situations in which a straight metallic wire of resistance R is used and Column II gives some resulting effects. [2007]

Ans.A) Energy stored in the capacitor is converted into heat /thermal energy when connected to a wire.B)Due to motional emf a constant potential difference and charges of constant magnitude appear at the ends of the wire.
C)Due to induction a constant charge and there by a constant potential difference appears at the ends of the conductor.
D)A source of constant emf is conneced to a conducting wire then (i) a constant potential difference (ii) a constant current and (iii) Heat is generated in the wire.

Subjective / Numerical integer type
38.A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer. What is the percentage change in its resistance?[1978]
Ans.

39.If each of the resistances in the network shown in the figure is R, what is the resistance between the terminals A and B?  [1978]

Ans.The circuit diagram can be redrawn as shown in the figure. This is equivalent to a balanced Wheatstone bridge. Since points P and Q are at the same potential, no current flows in the resistance R connecting them. Resistance X between A and B is, therefore, given by

Ans.

41.A 25 watt and a 100 watt bulb are joined in series and connected to the mains. Which bulb will glow brighter?        [1979]
Ans.

42.A copper wire having cross-sectional area of 0.5 mm2 and a length of 0.1 metre is initially at 25°C and is thermally insulated from the surrounding. If a current of 10 ampere is set up in this wire, i) find the time in which the wire will start melting. The change of resistance with the temperature of the wire may be neglected, ii) What will this time be, if the length of the wire is doubled?

Ans.

43.Find the potential difference between the points A and B and between the points B and C in the steady state. [1979]

Ans.

44.All resistance in the diagram below are in ohm. Find the effective resistance between the points A and B.[1979]

Ans.

45.In the circuit shown in figure, a voltmeter reads 30 volts when it is connected across 400 ohm resistance. Calculate what the same voltmeter will read when it is connected across the 300 ohm resistance. [1980]
Ans.

46.A battery of emf 2 volt and internal resistance 0.1 ohm is being charged with a current of 5 ampere. In what direction will the current flow inside the battery? What is the potential difference between the two terminal of the battery? [1980]
Ans.In order to charge a battery, its positive terminal is to be connected to the positive terminal of the charger (figure). Hence, inside the battery, the direction of flow of current is from the positive terminal to the neagative terminal.

i)Find the potential difference between the points A and B and the currents through each branch.
ii)If r2 is short circuited and the point A is connected to point B, find the currents through E1, E2, E3 and the resistor

Ans.

48.Calculate the steady state current in the 2 ohm resistor shown in the circuit in the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible and the capcitance of the condenser C is 0.2 microfarad.[1982-5 marks]

Ans.

49.Two resistors, 400 ohm and 800 ohm are connected in series with a 6 volt battery. It is desired to measure the current in the circuit. An ammeter of 10 ohm resistance is used for this purpose. What will be the reading in the ammeter? Similarly, if a voltmeter of 10,000 ohm resistance is used to measure the potential difference across the 400 ohm resistor, what will be the reading in the voltmeter? [1982-5 marks]
Ans.

50.A steady current passes through a cylindrical conductor. Is there an electric field inside the conductor? [1982-2 marks]
Ans.Yes. There is an electric field inside the conductor.In electrostatic condition, electric field inside a conductor is zero. But in this case a current flows through the cylinderical conductor. Hence there is an electric field inside the conductor.

51.In the circuit shown in the figure A E E,F,G,H are cells of emf 2, 1, 3 and 1 volt respectively, and their internal resistances are 2,1,3 and 1 ohm respectively.Calculate :      [1984-6 marks]

i)the potential difference between B and D and
ii)the potential difference across the terminals of each of the cells G and H.

Ans.

52.A part of circuit in a steady state along with the currents flowing in the branches, the values of resistances etc., is shown in the figure.Calculate the energy stored in the capacitor

Ans.

53.An infinite ladder network of resistances is constructed with 1 ohm and 2 ohm resistances, as shown in figure.The 6 volt battery between A and B has negligible internal resistance:

i)Show that the effective resistance between A and B is 2 ohm.
ii)What is the current that passes through the 2 ohm resistance nearest to the battery?[1987-7 marks]

Ans.In case of the infinite ladder of resistances, the effective resistance remains the same when one identical item is either added to it or removed from it.Let the effective resistance between A and B be R. The effective resistance between C and D will also be R.

Ans.

55.An electrical circuit is shown in the figure. Calculate the potential difference across the resistor of 400 ohm, as will be measured by the voltmeter V of resistance 400 ohm, either by applying Kirchhoff’s rules or otherwise.     [JEE’96, 5]

Ans.

56.Find the emf (V) and internal resistance (r) of a single battery which is equivalent to a parallel combination of two batteries of emfs V1, and V2 and internal resistances r1 and r2 respectively, with polarities as shown in figure [1997-5 marks]

Ans.(i) EMF of battery is equal to potential difference across the terminals, when no current is drawn from battery (for external circuit) [Here, all the elements in the circuit are in series] Current in internal circuit = i

Ans.

58.In the circuit shown in figure, the battery is an ideal one, with emf V. The capacitor is initially uncharged. The switch S is closed at time t=0.

Ans.

59.A thin uniform wire AB of length 1 m, an unknown resistance X and a resistance of 12 W are connected by thick conducting strips, as shown in the figure. A battery and a galvanometer (with a sliding jockey connected to it) are also available. Connections are to be made to measure the unknown resistance X using the principle of Wheatstone bridge. Answer the following questions.

a)Are there positive and negative terminals on the galvanometer?
b)Copy the figure in your answer book and show the battery and the galvanometer (with jockey) connected at appropriate points.
c)After appropriate connections are made, it is found that no deflection takes place in the galvanometer when the sliding jockey touches the wire at a distance of 60 cm from A. Obtain the value of the resistance X. [2002-1 + 2 + 2 marks]

Ans.(a) There are no positive and negative terminals on the galvanometer. The pointer swings depend­ing on current direction on both sides of central zero. For no current, the pointer stands at zero, (b) Jockey is a sliding contact on a resistance wire. AB is, infact, the resistance wire of the metre bridge experiment, based on the principle of Wheatstone bridge. Galvanometer and battery are shown in the figure

60.How a battery is to be connected so that the shown rheostat will behave like a potential divider? Also indicate the points about which output can be taken.    [2003-2 marks]

Ans.

Ans.

62.The circuit shown in the figure is used to measure the value of an unknown resistance X bycomparing it with a known resistance R with three different known resistances. R = R1 , R = R2 and R = R3 . The corresponding null points are obtained at A,B and C. Find which of the above will give the most accurate reading and why? [2005-2 marks]

Ans.Wheatstone bridge is most accurate when all the four resistances of the four arms are of the same order of magnitude. Null point at B is almost at the center of resistance wire. The resistances of the wire to the left (P) and to the right (Q) of B are almost equal. Obviously as X/R = P/Q, the magnitudes of X, R, P and Q are almost or same order. Hence B position of null-point gives most accu­rate reading.

Ans.

64.At time t = 0, a battery of 10 V is connected across points A and B in the given circuit. If the capaci­tors have no charge initially, at what time (in sec­onds) does the voltage across them become 4 V ?

Ans.

Ans.

66.Two batteries of different emfs and different internal resistance are connected as shown. The voltage across AB in volts is

Ans.

True / False type
67.In an electrolytic solution the electric current is mainly due to the movement of free electrons.[1980]
Ans.False. When a current passes through a solution of some electrolyte, the substance decomposes into posi­tively and negatively charged particles, called ions. When an electric field is set up in the solution by dipping the electrodes, the two kinds of ions to drift in opposite direction. Their movement con­stitutes electric current in the solution.

68.Electrons in a conductor have no motion in the absence of a potential difference across it.[1982-2 marks]
Ans.False.The electrons in a conductor move with thermal velocities freely. Their motion is random in the absence of potential difference. The statement is false.

69.The current-voltage graphs for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures Tl and T2 are shown in the figure. The temperature T2 is greater than T1.[1985-3 marks]

Ans.True.For a metallic wire, the resistance increases with increase of temperature. Evidently the current in a wire decreases a higher temperature, for a given potential difference V. In the given I-V graph,current is less at T2.

Fill in the blanks type
70.An electric bulb rated for 500 watt at 100 volt is used in a circuit having a 200 volt supply. The resistance R that must be put in series with the bulb, so that the bulb delivers 500 watt is…………..ohms [1987-2 marks]
Ans.

71.The equivalent resistance between points A and B of the circuit given is…………… [1997-2 marks]

Ans.

72.In the circuit shown each battery is 5V and has an internal resistance of 0.2 ohm. The reading in the ideal voltmeter V is………….V.

Ans.

## JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis

JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis: A total number of 1,61,319 candidates appeared in both papers 1 and 2 in JEE Advanced 2019. A total of 38705 candidates have qualified JEE (Advanced) 2019. Of the total qualified candidates, 5356 are females. Mr. Gupta Kartikey Chandresh of Ballarpur is the top ranker in Common Rank List (CRL) in JEE (Advanced) 2019. He obtained 346 marks out of 372 marks. Ms. Shabnam Sahay of Madhapur is the top ranked female with CRL 10. She obtained 308 marks out of 372 marks.

## JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis: Statistical Highlights

• Total number of qualified boys: 33349
• Total number of qualified girls: 5356
• Total number of qualified general (GE) candidates: 15566
• Total number of qualified general (GEN-EWS) candidates: 3636
• Total number of qualified OBC-NCL candidates: 7651
• Total number of qualified SC candidates: 8758
• Total number of qualified ST candidates: 3094

### JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis | Top Rankers

As you can see from the table below, AIR 1 is bagged by Gupta Kartikey Chandresh from Ballarpur (IIT Bombay Zone) while Himanshu Gaurav Singh from Allahabad & Archit Bubna from New Delhi (both under IIT Delhi Zone) bagged AIR 2 & 3 respectively.

According to the JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis, AIR 1 Gupta Kartikey Chandresh scored a total of 346 marks. His JEE Main rank was 18. AIR 2 Himanshu Gaurav Singh’s JEE Main rank was 14.

 All India Rank (AIR) Name of the Candidate Zone 1 Gupta Kartikey Chandresh Bombay 2 Himanshu Gaurav Singh Delhi 3 Archit Bubna Delhi 4 Gillella Akash Reddy Hyderabad 5 Battepati Karthikeyan Hyderabad 6 Nishant Abhangi Delhi 7 Kaustubh Dighe Bombay 8 Thivesh Chandra M Hyderabad 9 Dhruv Kumar Gupta Delhi 10 Shabnam Sahay Bombay

### JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis | Zone wise Top Rankers

The top rankers of JEE Advanced 2019 from each of the zone are tabulated below:

 Zone Topper IIT Bombay GUPTA KARTIKEY CHANDRESH (CRL 1) IIT Delhi HIMANSHU GAURAV SINGH (CRL 2) IIT Guwahati PRADIPTA PARAG BORA (CRL 28) IIT Kanpur DHRUV ARORA (CRL 24) IIT Kharagpur GUDIPATY ANIKET (CRL 29) IIT Hyderabad GILLELLA AKASH REDDY (CRL 4) IIT Roorkee JAYESH SINGLA (CRL 17)

### JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis | Category wise Top Rankers

The top rankers of JEE Advanced 2019 from each of the categories are tabulated below:

 Rank list Rank Name City/Town OPEN (CRL) 1 GUPTA KARTIKEY CHANDRESH BALLARPUR OPEN (CRL) 2 HIMANSHU GAURAV SINGH ALLAHABAD OPEN (CRL) 3 ARCHIT BUBNA NEW DELHI GEN-EWS 1 D CHANDRASEKHARA S S HETHAHAVYA MADHAPUR OBC-NCL 1 HIMANSHU GAURAV SINGH ALLAHABAD SC 1 SAMBIT BEHERA BHUBANESWAR ST 1 PIYUSH RAJ JAIPUR CRL-PwD 1 SUMIT JAIN SATNA GEN-EWS-PwD 1 DASARI RAJESH GANDHI NAGAR OBC-NCL-PwD 1 VEDANT DEEPAK BORKUTE NAGPUR SC-PwD 1 ARYAN KUMAR KANPUR ST-PwD 1 DHANANJAY SAPAWAT KOTA

### JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis | Top 5 Rankers (Zone Wise)

JEE Advanced 2019 was conducted by IIT Roorkee across 7 IIT zones. The table below shows the zonal top 5 rankers, i.e., top rankers from each of the 7 IIT zones:

 Zone wise Top 5 Zone Name of Candidate CRL Bombay GUPTA KARTIKEY CHANDRESH 1 Bombay KAUSTUBH DIGHE 7 Bombay SHABNAM SAHAY 10 Bombay ADITHYA BHASKAR 18 Bombay ANKIT KUMAR MISRA 32 Delhi HIMANSHU GAURAV SINGH 2 Delhi ARCHIT BUBNA 3 Delhi NISHANT ABHANGI 6 Delhi DHRUV KUMAR GUPTA 9 Delhi ADITYA BADOLA 11 Guwahati PRADIPTA PARAG BORA 28 Guwahati AQUIB NAWAZ 77 Guwahati PAWAN KUMAR 259 Guwahati VIVEK CHOUDHARY 474 Guwahati AMAN KUMAR 525 Kanpur DHRUV ARORA 24 Kanpur AKSHAT GUPTA 61 Kanpur TANAY SHARMA 62 Kanpur PRAKHAR JAGWANI 78 Kanpur KEVIN SHAH 85 Kharagpur GUDIPATY ANIKET 29 Kharagpur ANKIT KUMAR JAIN 30 Kharagpur KOUSTAV SEN 42 Kharagpur SOHAM MISTRI 48 Kharagpur SAYANTAN DHAR 51 Hyderabad GILLELLA AKASH REDDY 4 Hyderabad BATTEPATI KARTHIKEYA 5 Hyderabad THIVESH CHANDRA M 8 Hyderabad AMIT RAJARAMAN 12 Hyderabad GUMPARTHI VENKATA KRISHNA SURYA LIKHITH 13 Roorkee JAYESH SINGLA 17 Roorkee GURNOOR SINGH KHURANA 22 Roorkee SHREY SINGLA 36 Roorkee ABHINAV GUPTA 49 Roorkee NAVNEET JINDAL 60

### JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis | Zone wise Female Toppers

JEE Advanced 2019 was conducted by IIT Roorkee across 7 IIT zones. The table below shows the zonal top female rankers, i.e., top rankers from each of the 7 IIT zones:

 Zone wise Male Female Toppers Zone Name of Candidate CRL Gender Bombay GUPTA KARTIKEY CHANDRESH 1 Male Bombay SHABNAM SAHAY 10 Female Delhi HIMANSHU GAURAV SINGH 2 Male Delhi ANANYA GUPTA 233 Female Guwahati PRADIPTA PARAG BORA 28 Male Guwahati AAKRITI 817 Female Kanpur DHRUV ARORA 24 Male Kanpur VALAYA RAMCHANDANI 612 Female Kharagpur GUDIPATY ANIKET 29 Male Kharagpur ANJLEENA SHAKEBA 438 Female Hyderabad GILLELLA AKASH REDDY 4 Male Hyderabad SURAPANENI SAI VIGNA 44 Female Roorkee JAYESH SINGLA 17 Male Roorkee TANU GOYAL 272 Female

Stay tuned to LearnCBSE.in to know more about JEE Advanced 2019 Result Analysis.

## JEE Advanced Result 2019 Declared | Check Scores, Merit List and Counselling Procedure for IIT JEE Advanced 2019

JEE Advanced Result 2019: IIT Roorkee, Conducted IIT JEE Advanced 2019, it is expected to announce the JEE Advanced Result released by Today on 14th June 2019 @ 10 AM. The answer sheets for JEE advanced 2019 have been released by IIT Roorkee. Students can through this answer sheets by logging in the candidate portal. Furthermore, IIT Roorkee has sent the individual answer links to candidates through SMS and email.

The main answer sheet for JEE advanced will be released on June 4. The main exam was conducted in the computer base mode in two phases. One was from 9 am to 12 pm and 2 pm to 5 pm on 27th May. It was deemed mandatory by JEE that students should attempt both the papers 1 and 2. Also, the admit card for JEE advanced result was released on May 20. The registrations for JEE advanced was conducted online from May 3rd to 9th. Also, due to unforeseen events, students from Odisha were extra time till May 14 for their registration. While the results for JEE advanced released on June 14.

The results for the same will be declared by IIT Roorkee on June 14. For candidates, this result will be available only through online mode. In the result, individual scores of students along with total marks scored in the examination will be available.

Step 1: Candidates will have to go to the official website of JEE advanced for checking the result.

Step 2:  On this webpage, they are required to enter various details like date of birth, registration number, email address, and mobile number.

Step 3: Then after filling all the required details click on ‘Submit’.

Step 4: Thus, the result will be available on the screen. For further use, candidates can also download the result and take out the print.

### Details Mentioned on JEE Advanced Result 2019

• Name of the Candidate
• Parent’s/Guardian’s Name
• Date of Birth
• Gender
• JEE Advanced 2019 Roll Number
• JEE Advanced 2019 Registration Number
• Photograph
• Signature
• Category
• Person with Disability
• Registered Email ID
• Mobile Number
• Nationality
• Candidate’s Status: Whether Documents are Valid
• JEE Advanced 2019 Qualifying Status: Qualified or Not
• Rank Obtained by the Candidate in Common Rank List
• Category Rank

Along with the results, candidates will also get their respective ranks in the exam. The rank list for JEE advanced will also be released along with the result. The rank list will be prepared for only those candidates who have appeared in both paper 1 as well as paper 2 of the JEE advanced 2019. For the preparation of the rank list, secured scores will be taken into account of the candidates. The rank list will also be prepared only for those candidates that have scored bare minimum marks or more than that. It should be noted by everyone that the minimum marks for each student vary based on the different categories.

 Rank List Minimum % of Marks in Each Subject Minimum % of Aggregate Marks Common rank list (CRL) 10.0 35.0 OBC-NCL rank list 9.0 31.5 SC rank list 5.0 17.5 ST rank list 5.0 17.5 Common-PwD rank list (CRL-PwD) 5.0 17.5 OBC-NCL-PwD rank list 5.0 17.5 SC-PwD rank list 5.0 17.5 ST-PwD rank list 5.0 17.5 Preparatory course rank list 2.5 8.75

### JEE Advanced College And Rank Predictor

Before the results are out, candidates can check their scores based on the answer key released. Here candidates can check their probable ranks that they might score in the JEE advanced 2019. Once the scores are calculated using the answer key, candidates can use various tools available on Google for checking their ranks. They need to add suitable information like score, category, etc to check their rank.

Along with the rank, students can also check their list of probable colleges. There is a list of colleges that students can get admission into and these are probable colleges for that candidate where the chances are high. To use the college predictor, candidates need to fill the same information again. They will have to enter their preferred branches, ranks, category, and much more information. The list of probable colleges that student might get into will appear on the screen. This will also allow candidates to be prepared for the counseling process in which they are filling the course details.

The JEE advanced cutoff determines the minimum marks that a candidate needs to get to secure their admission in the participating institutions. The cutoff ranks of the students will be determined and also released during the counseling process. Furthermore, qualifying marks for the examination will also be released by the concerning authority. All the students and candidates who are eligible and meet the qualifying criteria for cutoff marks will be listed out in the rank list. They will also be marked eligible for the seat allotment and counseling process. Thus, JEE advanced will also act as a screening process for the main admissions.

### Counseling And Seat Allotment Process for JEE Advanced

The seat allotment process for JEE advanced will not be conducted by IIT Roorkee. Rather it will be conducted by JoSAA along with counseling. Thus, the conducting authority for the same is joint seat allocation authority. All the candidates that have qualified in JEE advanced, need to register through JoSAA and participate in this counseling process. The selection of preferred IITs along with the courses is already done. This allotment will be done through the ranking of the candidates along with their availability of seats and preference. The application form for JoSAA will be available in the second week of June tentatively.

 Particulars Tentative Dates Registration & Choice Fill-In Process 2nd Week of June 2019 Mock Allotment Round 1 for candidates who have filled their choices 3rd Week of June 2019 Mock Allotment Round 2 for candidates who have filled their choices 3rd Week of June 2019 First Round of Seat Allotment Last Week of June 2019 Seat Allotment Acceptance and reporting to help-center Last Week of June 2019 Second Round of Seat Allotment 1st Week of July 2019 Seat Allotment Acceptance and reporting to help-center 1st Week of July 2019 Third Round of Seat Allotment 1st Week – 2nd Week of July 2019 Seat Allotment Acceptance and reporting to help-center 2nd Week of July 2019 Fourth Round of Seat Allotment 2nd Week of July 2019

### Participating Institutions for JEE Advanced

There are a total of 23 Indian institutes of technology (IITs) that are participating in JEE advanced. The application to these institutions will be based on the secured scores of the candidates scored in the JEE advanced. They will use these scores to apply for the admissions in the IITs. There are around 11,000 seats that are offered by these 23 participating institutions. Furthermore, candidates can also apply separately to some lf of these institutions.

The examination was conducted by joint entrance examination advanced this is also commonly known as JEE. The main conducting authority for this year’s exam was IIT Roorkee. Also, the examination was conducted at a national level and it was only for students at the undergraduate level.

The main purposes of these exams were to take admission into the IITs. Mainly, the mode of the examination was computer-based and there were two papers in the day. The exam was conducted for 3 hours and had topics from physics, chemistry, and maths. A total number of 2,45,000 applicants appeared for this year’s JEE advanced exam. After the exam, the selection will be based on JEE advanced ranks and then through JoSAA selection. For BTech programs in IITs, there are 11,279 seats available currently.

## JEE Main Physics Electro Magnetic Induction Previous Year Questions with Solutions

For JEE Main other Engineering Entrance Exam Preparation,  JEE Main Physics Electro Magnetic Induction Previous Year Questions with Solutions is given below.

MuItipIe Choice with ONE correct answer

1.A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its length. A constant uniform magnetic field exists in space in a direction perpendicular to the rod as well as its velocity. Select the correct statement(s) from the following           [1985-2 marks]
a)The entire rod is at same electric potential.
b)There is an electric field in the rod
c)The electric potential is highest at the centre of the rod and increases towards its ends.
d)The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod and decreases towards its ends
Ans.(b) Let the metal rod AB move parallel to x-axis. Let the uniform magnetic field point in positive z- direction. The free electrons of the metal rod will experience magnetic force towards B. So there will be excess of electrons on B- end and shortage of electrons on A-end. The end A becomes posi­tively charged and the end B becomes negatively charged. An electric field is therefore setup in the metal rod. Option (b) is correct.

2.A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction B. A small cut is made in the ring and a galvanometer is connected across the ends such that the total resistance of the circuit is R. When the ring is suddenly squeezed to zero ‘area, the charge flowing through the galvanometer is                                    [1995]

Ans.

3.A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in horizontal magnetic induction g , At the position MNQ the speed of the ring is v, and the potential difference developed across the ring is

Ans.(d) At the position MNQ, the ring is at the point of moving out of the magnetic field. Its speed of fall is v. Due to fall, the flux associated with the ring changes. An emf is therefore induced in the ring.

4.Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lyingon a table without touching each other, Loop-A carries a current which increases with time. In response, the loop-B. [JEE ’99 2 Marks]
a)remains stationary
b)is attracted by the loop-A
c)is repelled by the loop-A
d)rotates about its CM, with CM fixed
Ans.(c)When the current in loop A increases, its mag­netic field in the surrounding space increases. The flux linked with loop B therefore increases. An emf is induced in B. Under Lenz’s law, the current flows in B opposite to that in A. Due to opposite directions of currents in A and B, loop B is re­pelled by loop A.

5.A coil of inductance 8.4 mil and resistance 6W is connected to a 12V battery. The current in the coil is 1.0 A at approximately the time                [JEE’99-2 Marks]
a) 500 s
b) 25 s
c)35 ms
d)1 ms
Ans.

6.A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists in a circular region of radius a and is directed into the plane of the paper, as showm in the figure. The magnitude of the induced electric field at point P at a distance r from the centre of the circular region. [2000-2 marks]
Ans.

7.

Ans.

8.A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. An electric field is induced. [2001-2 marks]

Ans.

Ans.(a)When current flows in one coil, the flux asso­ciated with the other coil depends upon its area receiving the flux. This is maximum in case (a) and so their mutual inductance will be maximum in situation (a).

Ans.(d)When switch S is closed a magentic field is set up in the space around P. The field lines threading Q increase in the direction from right to left and that field strength increases with time. According to Lenz’s law, IQ1 should therefore flow in anticlockwise direction as seen by E. Reverse is the case when S is opened. IQ2 will be clockwise.

11. A short -circuited coil is placed in a time varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated due to the current induced in the coil. If the number of turns were to be quadrupled and the wire radius halved, the electrical power dissipated would be                   [JEE 2002(Scr), 2 Marks]
a) halved
b) the same
c) doubled
Ans.(b)Current is induced in the short-circuited coil due to the imposed time-varying magentic field.

Ans.

13. A small bar magnet is being slowly inserted with constant velocity inside a solenoid as shown in figure. Which graph best represents the relationship between emf induced with time?     [2004- 2 M]

Ans.(c) As the bar magnet is inserted inside a solenoid, flux associated with the solenoid increases. Induced emf is negative.

This emf increases as more length of the bar mag­net is inserted in solenoid. Then emf starts decreas­ing. Polarity of emf will be opposite when the magnet enters and leaves the coil.

14.A capacitor is charged using an external battery with a resistance x in series The dashed line shows the variation on In I with respect to time. If the resistance is changed to 2x, the new graph will be               [2004 – 2 Marks]

Ans.

15. A 4pF capacitor and a resistance of 5MQ are in series with 12V battery. Find the time after which the potential difference across the capacitor is 3 times the potential difference across the resistor. [Given In (2) = 0.693].       [2005-2 marks]

Ans.

16.An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to auniform magnetic field g directed along positive z axis. The direction of induced current as seen from the z axis will be                 [2005 – 2 Marks ]
a).zero
b).anticlockwise of the +ve zaxis
c).clockwise of the + ve zaxis
d).along the magnetic field
Ans.(a) The cylinder is not moving in stationary mag­netic field. No emf is induced.The magentic filed applied to stationary cylinder is neither moving nor changing.No emf is induced in the cylinder.No current is induced in the cylinder.Induced current = zero.

Ans.

18.An AC voltage source of variable angular fre­quency CO and fixed amplitude V0 is connected to series with a capacitance C and an electric bulb of resistance R (inductance zero). When CO is in­creased)
a) the bulb glows diammer
b) the bulb glows brighter
c) total bulb glows brighter
d) total impedance of the circuit increases
Ans.

19. The figure shows certain wire segments joined together to form a coplanar loop. The loop is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field in the direction going into the plane of the figure. The magnitude of the field increases with time. and I2 are the currents in the segments ab and cd. Then, [2009]

Ans.(d)Since the field is increasing, the flux region is increasing; the induced current (by Lenz law) should flow in an anticlockwise sense around the boundary of the shaded region.

Multiple Choice with ONE or MORE THAN ONE correct answers
20.A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A magnetic induction ~g, constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists every where. The current induced in the loop is [1989-2 marks]

Ans.The square loop moves in its plane.A uniform magnetic induction exists in the plane of the loop. Hence change in magnetic flux is zero. Induced current in the loop = zero.

21. Two different coils have self inductances Lj = 8mH and L2= 2mH. The current in one coil is increased at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same constant rate. At a certain instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same. At that time, the current, the induced voltage and the energy stored in the first coil are ip Vj and W( respectively. Corresponding values for the second coil at the same instant are i2, v2 and    W2 respectively. Then:

Ans.

22. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L(L»Z). The loops are co-planar & their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is proportional to              [1998- 2 Marks]

Ans.

23.A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its length. A constant, uniform magnetic field exists in space in a direction perpendicular to the rod as well as its velocity. Select the correct statement(s) from the following
a)the entire rod is at the same electric potential
b)There is an electric field in the rod
c)The electric potential is highest at the centre of the rod & decreases towards its ends
d)The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod & increases towards its ends
Ans.

24. A field line is shown in the figure. This field cannot represent

a)magnetostatic field
b)electrostatic field
c)induced electric field
d)gravitational field
Ans.

25.Two metallic rings A and B, identical in shape and size but having different resistivities pA and pB, are kept on top of two identical solenoids as shown in the figure. When current I is switched on in both the solenoids in identical manner, the rings A and B jump to heights hA and hB, respectively, with hA > hB. The possible relation(s) between their resistivities and their masses mA and mB is (are)  [2009]

Ans.

26.A series R-C circuit is connected to AC voltage source. Consider two cases ; (A) when C is without a dielectric medium and (B) when C is filled with dielectric of constant 4. The current IR through the resistor and voltage Vc across the capacitor are compared in the two cases. Which of the following is / are true ?

Ans.

Assertion – Reasoning type
Instructions :The following question contains statement-I (assertion) and statement -2 (reason) of these statements, mark correct choice if
a)Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
b)Statement-l and2 are true and statement-2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1
c)Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is Base
d)Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

27.Statement – 1 : A vertical iron rod has a coil of wire wound over it at the bottom end. An alternating current flows in the coil. The rod goes through a conducting ring as shown in the figure.The ring can float at a certain height above the coil.   [2007]
Because Statement – 2 : In the above situation, a current is induced in the ring which interacts with the horizontal component of the magnetic field to produce an average force in the upward direction.

a)Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct explantation for Statement- 1.
b)Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement -2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
c)Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
d)Statement – 1 is False, Statement -2 is True.
Ans.(a) The induced current in the ring will interact with horizontal component of magnetic field and both will repel each other. This repulsion will balance the weight of the ring.

Comprehension based question
In the given circuit the capacitor (C) may be charged through resistance R by battery V by closing switch S1. Also when S1 is opened and S2 is closed the capacitor is connected in series with inductor (L).

Ans.

Ans.(d) When the capacitor gets fully charged S is opened and S2 is closed. Capacitor gets dis­charged.

Ans.

Matching type
31.You are given many resistances, capacitors and inductors. These are connected to a variable DC voltage source (the furs two circuits) or an AC voltage source of 50 Hz frequency (the next three circuits) in different ways as shown in Column II. When a current I (steady state for DC or rms for AC) flows through the circuit, the corresponding voltage and V2. (indicated in circuits) are related as shown in Column I. Match the two

Ans.

32.Column I gives certain situations in whcih a straight metallic wire of resistance R is used and column II gives some resulting effects. Match the statements in column I with the statements in column II. [2007-6 marks]

Ans.

Subjective / Numerical integer type
33.A current from A to B is increasing in magnitude. What is the direction of induced current, in the loop as shown in the figure? [1979]

Ans.The direction of the induced current is as shown in the figure, according to Lenz’s law which states that the indeed current flows always in such a direction as to oppose the change which is giving rise to it.

34.The two rails of a railway track, insulated from each other and the ground, are connected to a millivolt meter. What is the reading of the milli voltmeter when a train travels at a speed of 180 km/hour along the track, given that the horizontal components of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 x 10-4 weber / m2 and the rails are separated by 1 metre? [1981 – 4 Marks]
Ans.

35.Three ideitical closed coils A, B and C are placed and C cairy equal currents as shown in fig. Coils B and C are fixed in position and coil A is moved direction of the induced current in the diagram.[1982 – 2 Marks]

Ans.Coils B and C are fixed. When the coil A is moved towards the parallel coil B, at uniform speed, the magnetic flulx linked with B changes. An induced e.m.f. is setup in B and an induced current flows in B.

Under the phenomenon of induction, the induced current in 5 will flow so as to oppose the cause which produces it.Hence current in 5 will be in a direction opposite to that of . The direction of induced current is marked in the figure.

36.A sqiare metal wire loop of side 10 cm and resistaice 1 ohm is moved with a constant velocity v0in a uniform magnetic field of induction B = 2 weber / m2 as shown in the figure. The magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the plane  of the loop (directed into the paper). The’ loop is connected to a network of resistors each of value 3 ohm. The resistances of the lead wires OS and PQ are negligible. What should be the speed of the loop so as to have a steady current of 1 milli ampere in the loop? Give the direction of current in the loop.      [1983-6 marks]

Ans.

37.Space is divided by the line AD into two regions. Region I is field free and the Region II has a uniform magnetic field B directed into the plane of the paper. ACD is a semicircular conducting loop of radius r with centre at O, the plane of the loop being in the plane of the paper. The loop is now made to rotate with a constant angular velocity u about an axis passing through O and the perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The effective resistance of the loop is R. [1985-6 marks]
i)Obtain an expression for the magnitude of the induced current in the loop.
ii)Show the direction of the current when the loop is entering into the Region II.
iii)Plot a graph between the induced emf and the time of rotation for two periods of rotation.

Ans.

Ans.

Ans.

Ans.

41.Two parallel vertical metallic rails AB & CD are separated by 1 m. They are connected at two ends by resistance R1 & R2 as shown in the figure. A horizontal metallic bar L of mass 0.2 kg slides without friction, vertically down the rails under the action of gravity. There is a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.6T perpendicular to the plane of the rails. It is observed that when the terminal velocity is attained, the powers dissipated in R1 & R2 are 0.76 W & 1.2 W respectively. Find the terminal velocity of bar L & the values of R1 & R2.[1994, 6 Marks]

Ans.

42.A metal rod OA of mass m & length r is kept rotating with a constant angular speed v in a vertical plane about a horizontal axis at the end O. The free end A is arranged to slide without friction along a fixed conducting circular ring in the same plane as that of rotation. A uniform & constait magnetic induction B is applied perpendicular & into the plane of rotation as shown in figure. An inductor L and an external resistance R are connected through a switch S between the point O & a point C on the ring to form an electrical circuit. Neglect the resistance of the ring and the rod. Initially, the switch is open.     [1995-10 Marks]

Ans.OA is metal rod which rotates with a constant angular speed cc . The free end A of rod OA slides along a fixed conducting circular ring, g is the uniform and constant magnetic induction applied perpendicular and into the plane of rotation of the rod.(a) Induced emf across switch S :

43.A solenod has an inductance of 10 Henry & a resistance of 2 W. It is connected to a 10 volt battery. Sow long will it take for the magnetic energy to reach 1/4 of its maximum value ?[1996-3 Marks]
Ans.

44.An infiritesimally small bar magnet of dipole moment M is pointing and moving with the speed v in the x-direction. A small closed circular conducing loop of radius a and negligible self- inductance lies in the y-z plane with its centre at x = 0, aid its axis coinciding with the x-axis. Find the force opposing the motion of the magnet, if the resistance of the loop is R. Assume that the distant of x of the magnet from the centre of the loop s much greater than a. [1997- 5 Marks]
Ans.A closed circular conducting loop lies in the y — z plane with its centre at x = 0 . A small bar magnet moves with the speed v in the x— direction.Magnetic lines of the moving bar magnet thread the loop. An induced emf is therefore developed in the loop and an induced current flows in the closed loop.

Positive sign of force denotes repulsion between the magnet and the coil.

45.A par of parallel horizontal conducting rails of neglgible resistance, shorted at one end is fixed on a table. The distance between the rails is L. A concucting massless rod of resistance R can slide on he rails frictionlessly. The rod is tied to a masless string which passes over a pulley fixed to he edge of the table. A mass m, tied to the otler end of the string, hangs vertically. A constant magnetic field B exists perpendicular to the table. If the system is released from rest, calculate:

i)the terminal velocity achieved by the rod.
ii)the acceleration of the mass at the instant when the velocity of the rod, is half the terminal velocity.[1997 – 5 Marks]
Ans.

Ans.

Ans.

48.A thermocole vessel contains 0.5 kg of distilled water at 30° C • A metal coil of area 5 x 103m2 number of turns 100, mass 0.06 kg and resistance 1.6 ohms is lying horizontally at the bottom of the vessel. A uniform time varying magnetic field is setup to pass vertically through the coil at time t=0. The field is first increased from zero to 0.8T at a constant rate between 0 and 0.2s and then decreased to 0 and the same rate between 0.2 and 0.4s. This cycle is repeated 12000 times. Make sketches of the current through the coil and the power dissipated in the coil as function of time for the first two cycles. Clearly indicate the magnitudes of the quantities on the axes. Assume that no heat is lost to the vessel or the surroundings. Determine the final temperature of the water under thermal equilibrium. Specific heat of metal = 500 J kg-1K-1 and the specific heat of water =4200 J kg-1K-1. Neglect the inductance of the coil.         [2000-10 marks]
Ans.

49.An inductor of inductance L = 400 mH and resistors of resistance R1 = 2W and R2 = 2W are connected to a battery of e.m.f. E = 12V as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible. The switch S is closed at time t = 0. What is the potential drop across L as a function of time? After the steady state is reached, the switch is opened. What is the direction and the magnitude of current through R1 as a function of time?[2001-5 Marks]

Ans.

50.A rectangular loop PQRS, made from a uniform wire, has length a, width b and mass m. It is free to rotate about the arm PQ, which remains hinged along a horizontal line taken as the y — axis (see figure).

Ans.A loop PQRS is held in the x— y plane. It is free to rotate about arm PQ which remains hinged along y — axis. A current / is passed through it. When the loop is released, it stays in horizontal position in equilibrium.(a) Direction of current I in PQ .Let the direction of current I in PQ be from P to Q in the wire PQ. The loop develops a mag¬netic moment = M

51.A metal bar AB can slide on two parallel thick metallic rails separated by a distance l. A resistance R and an inductance L are connected to the rails as shown in the figure. A long straigit wire carrying a constant current I0 is placed in tie plane of the rails and perpendicular to them as shown. The bar AB is held at rest at a distance x1 from the long wire. At t=0, it is made to slide 01 the rails away from the wire. [1002- 5 Marks]

Ans.

52.

Ans.

53.In the figure both cells A and B are of equal emf E. Find R for which potential difference across battery A will be zero, long time after the switch S is closed. Internal resistance of batteries A and B are r1 and r2 respectively, ( r1 > r2).[2004 – 4 Marks]

Ans.The circuit contains resistances, inductance and capacitance as shown in the figure.

When current flows for a long time the capacitor will be fully charged. Resistance across capacitor becomes infinite and no current passes through it. Resistance across inductor is zero for D.C. and the whole current passes through it.

Ans.

Ans.

True/ False type
56.An e.m.f. can be induced between the two ends of a straight copper wire when it is moved through a uniform magnetic field.            [1980]
Ans.True : It the conductor cuts the lines of force.

57.A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non­ uniform magnetic field. An emf is induced in the coil.        [1986-3 marks]
Ans.false :The coil of metal wire is stationary in a non-uni­form magnetic field. The magnetic flux linked with the coil does not change.An emf is therefore not induced in the coil.The statement is false.

58.A conducting rod AB moves parallel to the x-axis (see figure) in a uniform magnetic field pointing in the positive z-direction. The end A of the rod gets positively charged.     [1987-2 Marks]

Ans.false :The coil of metal wire is stationary in a non-uni­form magnetic field. The magnetic flux linked with the coil does not change. An emf is therefore not induced in the coil. The statement is false.

Therefore at g, there will be an excess of elec­tions and at 4 there will be a deficiency of elec­trons. The end A of the rod gets positively charged because deficiency of electrons means a positive charge. The statement is true.

Fill in blanks
59.A uniformly wound solenoidal coil of self inductance 1,8 xl0-4 henry and resistance 6 ohm is broken up into two identical coils. These identical coils are then connected in parallel a cross a 15 volt battery of negligible resistance. The time constant for the current in the circuit is second and the steady state current through the battery is……………..ampere.            [1989-2 marks]
Ans.

Recommended Reading On: Applied Physics for First Year Engineering Notes

60.In a straight conducting wire, a constant current is flowing from left to right due to a source of emf. When the source is switched off, the direction of the induced current in the wire will be………………………………….[1993-1 mark]
Ans.When the source is switched off, current flowing from left to right in the conducting wire decreases to zero. According to Lenz’s law’, induced currrent will oppose the cause. Consequently the direction of induced current in the wire will be from left to right.

Ans.