Category: Entrance Exam

CUSAT CAT is a university level entrance exam conducted by Cochin University for admissions to its B.Tech, M.Phil, M.Tech, M.Sc., MCA, and various other programs. The exam is conducted in online mode in the month of April (tentatively).

The candidates can also apply through the GATE and MAT scores. Read on to explore the details about the registration, eligibility, exam pattern, and results of CUSAT CAT.

CUSAT CAT Registration

The application forms are released in the month of January (tentatively) on the official website. The forms can be filled through online mode.

The candidates can apply for CUSAT CAT in the following steps:

1. The candidates need to enter the personal details to register themselves. After this, an OTP will be sent to the candidate’s mobile number and email Id.
2. The candidates can login using the email Id and password and enter the required information.
3. Scanned images of photographs and signature need to be uploaded.
4. Fill in the course details.
5. The application fees can be paid online through net banking/credit card/debit card.

CUSAT CAT Application Fees

The application fees for general category is Rs. 1000.

For SC/ST category, the application fees is Rs. 500.

NRI candidates have to pay an application fee of Rs. 6000.

The international candidates will have to pay a fee of US $ 100.

For diploma and certificate programs, the application fees is Rs. 100 for general category and Rs. 50 for SC/ST.

The application correction window will open in case the candidates need to edit the information provided in the application form.

CUSAT CAT Eligibility Criteria

The eligibility criteria for the candidates appearing for CUSAT CAT is given below:

For UG Courses

1. The candidates should have passed 12th from a recognized board with atleast 50% marks.
2. For LLB courses, the candidates should be a Central Government employee and should be staying within a radius of 30 km from the university campus.
3. The candidates with supplementary exams in class 12th cannot apply for the entrance exam.

For PG Courses

1. The candidates must hold a bachelor’s degree with atleast 60% marks.
2. Different courses have different minimum qualifying marks.

CUSAT CAT Admit Card

The CUSAT CAT admit card is released online on the official website. The candidates need to download the admit and carry it to the examination hall. No candidate will be allowed to enter the examination hall without the admit card. Also, it is required for further admission processes.

The admit card can be downloaded in the following steps:

1. Go to the official website and click on the link for admit card notification.
2. A login page will open. The candidates are required to fill in the required details.
3. Enter the registration number and date of birth and click on submit.
4. Click on the admit card tab.
5. Download the admit card.

CUSAT CAT Exam Pattern

CUSAT CAT is an online exam of 3 hours that comprises multiple choice questions. The exam pattern is different for different exams. Three marks are awarded for every correct answer, whereas, one mark is deducted for every wrong answer. A minimum of 10 marks need to be scored by the candidates to qualify the exam.

The candidates need to follow the following instructions during the exam:

• A sheet will be provided for rough work.
• No electronic items are allowed inside the hall.
• If the candidates are found with any unauthorized material, they will be disqualified.

CUSAT CAT Results

CUSAT CAT results are declared tentatively in the month of May, on the official website. The merit list will be created according to the marks of the candidates.

The results can be downloaded in the following steps:

1. Login to the official website.
2. Enter the required information.
3. The result will be displayed.
4. The candidates can download the results.

CUSAT CAT Cut Off

The cut off is created on the basis of the highest marks in the examination. The cut off is different for different streams and colleges. The cut off usually depends upon:

1. The total number of candidates appearing for the exam.
2. Number of seats vacant in the institute.
3. Difficulty level of the exam.

CUSAT CAT Counselling

The counselling is conducted as per the ranks of the candidates in the merit list. Candidates need to follow the following instructions at the time of counselling:

1. Candidates will have to register themselves at the counselling centre.
2. The branches and colleges will be allotted based on the rank of the candidates in the merit list.
3. Original documents are required for verification.
4. If the candidates do not appear for the counselling, their seats will be cancelled.

Documents Required for Counselling

The following documents are required at the time of counselling:

1. Admit Card
2. Class 10th mark sheet and pass certificate
3. Class 12th mark sheet and pass certificate
4. Migration certificate
5. Transfer certificate
6. Four passport size photographs
7. Category certificate

The admission will be confirmed only after the submission of the above-mentioned documents.

For law, B.Com and BBA courses, the candidates will have to go through group discussion and personal interview.

Cochin University is a renowned university that provides admissions to a number of courses. The candidates need to prepare well for the entrance exam. Mock test papers and sample papers are a great help. This help them strengthen their weak points.

Proper guidance is essential for better preparations. The students can seek guidance from teachers, and seniors who have already cleared the exam.

The official website keeps updating the information related to the CUSAT CAT examination. For any update and details, the candidates should keep checking the official website.

Related Articles:

• BITSAT
• SRMJEE

Frequently Asked Questions

When will CUSAT CAT 2020 be conducted?

CUSAT CAT 2020 is postponed due to COVID-19 and no new dates have been announced yet.

Is CUSAT a government institute?

CUSAT is an autonomous university owned by the government, in Kochi, Kerela.

What is th mode of CUSAT CAT exam?

CUSAT CAT os conducted online.

What is the age limit for the candidates applying for CUSAT CAT?

There is no age limit for the candidates applying for CUSAT CAT.

JEE Main Physics Optics Previous Year Questions with Solutions

For JEE Main other Engineering Entrance Exam Preparation,  JEE Main Physics Optics Previous Year Questions with Solutions is given below.

Multiple Choice with ONE correct answer

1.When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air !   [1980-1 mark]
a) its wavelength decreases.
b) its wavelength increases.
c) its frequency increases.
d) neither its wavelength nor its frequency changes.
Ans.

Ans.

3.In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is halved and the distance
between the slits and the screen is doubled. The finge width is  [1981-2 marks]
a)unchanged                 b) halved
c) doubled                     d) quadrupled
Ans.

Ans.(a) Total internal reflection occurs when the ray of light travels from denser medium to rarer medium and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

Ans.

6.Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 41 are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are     [1988-1 mark]
a)51 and I       b) 51 and 31
c) 91 and I      d) 91 and 31
Ans.

7.Spherical aberration, in a thin lens, can be reduced by   [1994-1 mark]
a)using a monochromatic light ‘
b)using a doublet combination
c)using a circular annular mask over the lens
d)increasing the size of the lens.
Ans.(c) Spherical aberration is caused because the marginal rays and the paraxial rays incident on a lens are brought to focus at different points.To reduce spherical aberration, the marginal rays are blocked by using a circular annular mask over the lens.

8.A beam of light of wavelength 600nm, from a distant source, falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and a resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between the first dark fringes on either side of central bright fringe is  [1994-1 mark]
a)1.2 cm         b) 1.2 mm
c) 2.4 cm           d) 2.4 mm
Ans.

9.An isosceles prism of angle 120° has a refractive index 1.44. Two parallel monochromatic rays enter the prism, parallel to each other in air, as shown. The rays which emerge from the opposite faces [1995-2 marks]

Ans.

10.The focal lengths of the objective and the eye piece of a compound microscope are 2.0 cm and 3.0 cm, respectively. The distance between the objective and the eyepiece is 15.0 cm. The final image formed by the eyepiece is at infinity. The two lenses are thin. The distance, in cm, of the object and the image produced by the objective, measured from the objective lens, are respectively.[1995-2 marks]
a)2.4 and 12.0       b) 2.4 and 15.0
c) 2.0 and 12.0      d) 2.0 and 3.0
Ans.(a) The eyepiece forms the final image at infinity. Its object should therefore lie at its focus.‘F’ denotes focus of eyepiece. ‘I’ denotes image formed by the objective lens which serves as object for eye piece. It should be at 3 cm from eyepiece.

11.Consider Fraunhofer diffraction pattern obtained with a single slit illuminated at normal incidence. At the angular position of the first diffraction minimum, the phase difference (in radian) between the wavelets from the opposite edges of the slit is [1995]

Ans.

Ans.

13.An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a combination of convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm . The power of this lens combination, in dioptre is [1997-1 mark]
a)+1.5   b) -1.5     c) +6.67   d) -6.67
Ans.

14.A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave as a   [1999-2 marks]
a)convergent lens of focal length 3.5R
b)convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R.
c)divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
d)divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
Ans.

15.Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is replaced by X-rays, then the observed pattern will reveal,    [1999-2 marks]
a)that the central maximum in narrower
b)more number of fringes
c)less number of fringes
d)no diffraction pattern.
Ans.

16.A thin slice is cut out of a glass cylinder along a plane parallel to its axis. The slice is placed on a flat glass plate as shown in figure. The observed interference fringes from this combination shall be [1999-2 marks]
a)straight
b)circular
c)equally spaced
d)having fringe spacing which increases as we go outwards.

Ans.(a) Locus of equal path difference consists in the lines running parallel to the axis of the cylinder. Hence fringes obtained are straight.

Ans.

18.A point source of light B is placed at a distance L in front of the centre of a mirror of width d hung vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror at a distance 2L from it as shown in figure. The greatest distance over which he can see the image of the light source in the mirror is [2002-2 marks]

Ans.

Ans.

Ans.(a) Rays come out only from the surface CD when the light is incident at the surface AB of the slab. It means that rays after refraction from AB undergo total internal reflection at surface AD of the slab.

21.In a double slit experiment, instead of taking slits of equal widths, one slit is made twice as wide as the other. Then, in the interference pattern[2000-2 marks]
a)the intensities of both the maxima and the minima increase.
b)the intensity of the maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity.
c)the intensity of the maxima decreases and that of the minima increases.
d)the intensity of the maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity.
Ans.

22.In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is   [2000-2 marks]
a)virtual, erect and magnified
b)real, erect and magnified
c)real, inverted and magnified
d)virtual, erect and reduced.
Ans.(c) The intermediate image in a compound microscope is real, inverted and magnified.

23.Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase difference between the beams is p/2 at point A and p at point B. Then the difference between the resultant intensities at A and B is [JEE (Scr.) 2001-2M]
a) 2I        b) 4I     c) 5I     d) 7I
Ans.

24.In young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are observed to be formed in a certain segment of the screen when light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen is given by            [2001-1 mark]
a) 12       b) 18        c) 24           d) 30
Ans.

Ans.

26.A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prism Q and R of identical shape and of the same material as P are now added as shown in the figure. The ray will now suffer   [2001-2 marks]
a)greater deviation
b)no deviation
c)same deviation as before
d)total internal reflection

Ans.

27.An observer can see through a pin-hole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown in the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a height 2h, he can see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid is[2002-2 marks]

Ans.

28.Which one of the following spherical lenses does not exhibit dispersion? The radii of curvature of the surfaces of the lenses are as given in the diagrams.  [2002-2 marks]

Ans.

Ans.

30.Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle of 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections (including the first one) before it emerges out is [2002-2 marks]

Ans.

31.In the given diagram, CP represents a wavefront and AO and BP, the corresponding two rays. Find the condition in q for constructive interference at P between the ray BP and reflected ray OP.

Ans.

32.The size of the image of an object, which is at infinity, as formed by a convex lens of focal length 30 cm is 2 cm. If a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed between the covex lens and the image at a distance of 26 cm from the convex lens,calculate the new size of the image[2003-2 marks]
a) 1.25 cm b) 2.5 cm c) 1.05 cm d) 2 cm
Ans.

Ans.

34.A beam of white light is incident on glass air interface from glass to air such that green light just suffers total internal reflection. The colours of the light which will come out to air are[2004-2 marks]
a)violet, indigo, blue
b)all colours except green
c)yellow, orange, red
d) white light
Ans.

35.An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation.            [2004-2 marks]
a)PQ is horizontal
b)QR is horizontal
c)RS is horizontal
d)any one will be horizontal

Ans.

36.Monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm and 560 nm are incident simultaneously and normally on double slit apparatus whose slit separation is 0.1 mm and screen distance is lm. Distance between areas of total darkness will be [2004-2 marks]
a) 4mm   b) 5.6mm    c) 14mm   d) 28mm
Ans.(d) At the area of total darkness, in double slit apparatus, minima will occur for both the wavelengths which are incident simultaneously and normally.

37.A source emits sound of frequency 600 Hz inside water. The frequency heard in air will be equal to (velocity of sound in water = 1500 m/s, velocity of sound in air = 300 m/s) [2004-2 m]
a) 3000Hz     b)120Hz    c) 600Hz     d) 6000Hz
Ans.(c) Frequency of sound = 600 Hz inside water. Fre­quency of a wave depends on the source and it does not change during refraction when wave trav­els from one medium to another.

Frequency heard in air = 600 Hz.

38.A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The distance of the virtual image from the surface is                       [2004-2 marks]
a) 6 cm    b) 4 cm    c) 12 cm    d) 9 cm
Ans.

Ans.

40.A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The magnitude of the ratio of their focal lengths is 2/3. Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their individual focal lengths? [2005-2 marks]
a) -15,10     b) -10,15     c) 75, 50    d) -75,50
Ans.

Ans.

42.Focal length of the plano-convex lens is 15 cm. A small object is placed at A as shown in the figure. The plane surface is silvered. The image will form at                  [2006-3 marks]
a)60 cm to the left of lens
b)12 cm to the left of lens
c)60 cm to the right of lens
d)30 cm to the left of lens

Ans.

43.The graph shows relationship between object distance and image distance for an equiconvex lens. Then, focal length of the lens is. [2006-3 marks]
a)50 ±0.05 cm
b)50±0.10cm
c)00 ±0.05cm
d)5.00±0.10cm

Ans.

Ans.(b) Rays of light from sun are incident upon a biconvex lens. Sun is at infinity and incident rays form a parallel beam.The beam is brought to convergence in the focal plane of the lens. AB is image of the sun.

Ans.(c) The ray is incident on the interface of a rarer medium (air) from a denser medium (water), and the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle. The ray will be partly refracted and partly reflected

Ans.(b) On shifting the eye towards left, the image will appear to the right of the object pin if the image distance is more than the object distance and the image is real. This happens when the object lies between the focus and the centre of curvature, f < x<2f.

47.Two beams of red and violet colours are made to pass separately through a prism (angle of the prism is 60°). In the position of minimum deviation, the angle of refraction will be   [2008]
a)30° for both the colours
b)greater for the violet colour
c)greater for the red colour
d)equal but not 30° for both the colours
Ans.

Ans.

49.A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m above the surface of water in a lake. The refractive index of water is 4/3. A fish inside the lake, in the line of fall of the ball, is looking at the ball. At an instant, when the ball is 12.8 m above the water surface, the fish sees the speed of ball as [Take g = 10/s²],
a)9 m/s    b) 12 m/s   c) 16 m/s    d) 21.33 m/s
Ans.

50.A biconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is in front of a plane mirror. The distance between thelens and the mirror is 10 cm. A small object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. The final image is
a)virtual and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
b)real and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
c)virtual and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
d)real and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
Ans.

Multiple Choice with ONE or More Than ONE correct answer

Ans.(c) 100% reflection or transmission not possible

52.In Young’s double slit experiment, the interference pattern is found to have an intensity ratio between the bright and dark fringes as 9. This implies that[1982-3 marks]
a) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 5 units and 4 units respectively
b) the intensities at the screen due to the two slits are 4 units and 1 unit respectively
c) the amplitude ratio is 3
d) the amplitude of ratio is 2.
Ans.

53.A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of the combination is [1982-3 marks]
a) -1.5 dioptre        b) -6.5 dioptre
c)+6.5 dioptre      d) +6.67 dioptre
Ans.

Ans.

55.A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by an opaque screen            [1986-2 marks]
a)half the image will disappear
b)complete image will be formed
c)intensity of the image will increase
d)intensity of the image will decrease
Ans.(b), (d) Image formed will be complete when upper half of lens is blocked.

56.A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is approximately equal to  [1988-2 marks]

Ans.

57.A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism, as shown in figure. The refractive indices of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. The prism will [1989-2 marks]
a)separate part of the red colour from the green and blue colours
b)separate part of the blue colour from the red and green colours
c)separate all the three colours from one another
d)not separate even partially any colour from the other two colours.

Ans.

58.An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation between the objective and the eyepiece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal length f₀ of the objective and the focal length f_e of the eyepiece are
a)f₀ = 45 cm and f_e = -9 cm [1989-2 marks]
b)f_o = 50 cm and f_e = 10 cm
c)f_o = 7.2 cm and f_e  = 5 cm
d)f₀ = 30 cm and f_e = 6 cm
Ans.

59.A thin prism P1, with angle 4° and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another thin prism P₂ made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of the prism P₂ is    [1990-2 marks]
a) 5.33°   b) 4°   c) 3°   d) 2.6°
Ans.

60.A planet is observed by an astronomical refracting telescope having an objective of focal length 16m and an eyepiece of focal length 2cm. [1992-2 marks]
a)The distance between the objective and the eyepiece is 16.02m
b)The angular magnification of the planet is -800
c)The image of the planet is inverted
d)The objective is larger than the eyepiece.
Ans.

Ans.(c) A parallel beam of rays coming from the left is incident on the first lens of focal length f_r The lens forms the image (I_t) at its focus. The image (Ij) serves as virtual object for second lens. The second lens forms the final image I at distance v₂ from the second lens. I is the focal point of the lens system.
(i) Let x denote the distance of I from O.

62.A diminished image of an object is to be obtained on a screen 1.0 m from it. This can be achieved by appropriately placing    [1995-2 marks]
a)a concave mirror of suitable focal length
b)a convex mirror of suitable focal length
c)a convex lens of focal length less than 0.25m
d)a concave lens of suitable focal length
Ans.(a), (c) An image obtained on screen is a real image. Convex mirror and concave lens do not form real image of an object.Options (b) and (d) do not hold good.Options (a) and (c) hold good. They are correct. For concave mirror, the object should be beyond C to form a real diminished image between F and C of mirror.

63.Which of the following form(s) a virtual & erect image for all positions of the object?[1996-2 marks]
a) Convex lens       b) Concave lens
c) Convex mirror    d) Concave mirror.
Ans.(b),(c) Concave lens and convex mirror are diverging in nature. For all positions of objects, they form virtual and erect image.

64.A real image of a distant object is formed by a plano-convex lens on its principal axis. Spherical aberration    [1998-2 marks]
a)is absent
b)is smaller if the curved surface of the lens faces the object
c)is smaller if the plane surface of the lens faces the object
d)is the same whichever side of the lens faces the object
Ans.(b) Spherical aberration is smaller if the curved surface of the lens faces the object. The total deviation is shared between the curved and the plane surfaces.

65.A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence 45°. The ray undergoes total internal reflection. If M is the refractive index of the medium with respect to air, select the possible value(s) of p from the following [1998-2 marks]
a) 1.3   b) 1.4    c) 1.5    d) 1.6
Ans.

66.A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident normally on narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the first minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of the slit is   [1998-2 marks]

Ans.

67.A concave mirror is placed on a horizontal table, with its axis directed vertically upwards. Let O be the pole of the mirror & C its centre of curvature. A point object is placed at C. It has a real image, also located at C. If the mirror is now filled with water, the image will be:       [1998-2 marks]

Ans.

68.A spherical surface of radius of curvature R separates air (refractive index 1.0) from glass (refractive index 1.5). The centre of curvature is in the glass. A point object P placed in air is found to have a real image Q in the glass. The line PQ cuts the siuface at a point O and PO = OQ . The distance PO is equal to [1998-2 marks]
a) 5R     b) 3R     c) 2R    d) 1.5R
Ans.

Ans.

70.A student performed the experiment of determination of focal length of a concave mirror by u – v method using an optical bench of lengh 1.5 meter. The focal length of the mirror used is 24 cm. The maximum error in the location of the image can be 0.2 cm. The 5 sets of (u,v) values recorded by the student (in cm) are :(42,56), (48,48), (60,40), (66,33), (78,39).The data set(s) that cannot come from experiment and is (are) incorrectly recorded, is (are)
a)(42,56)    b) (48,48)     c) 66,33)    d) 78,39)
Ans.

Ans.

Assertion & Reason Type
Instructions The following question contains
statement-I (assertion) and statement -2 (reason). Of these statements, mark correct choice if
a)Statements-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
b)Statements-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1
c)Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is flase
d)Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

72.Statement-1 : The formula connecting u. v and f for a spherical mirror is valid only for mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.
Statement-2 : Laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces, but not for large spherical surfaces. [2007-3 marks]
Ans.

Comprehension based question type
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow
Paragraph-1: The figure shows a surface XY separating two transparent media, medium-1 and medium-2. The lines ab and cd represent wavefronts of a light wave travelling in medium- 1 and incident on XY. The lines ef and gh represent wavefronts of the light wave in medium-2 after refraction.

73.Light travels as a    [2007-4 marks]
a)parallel beam in each medium
b)convergent beam in each medium
c)divergent beam in each medium
d)divergent beam in one medium and convergent beam in the other medium.

Ans.

Ans.

75.Speed of light is    [2007-4 marks]
a)the same in medium-1 and medium-2
b)larger in medium-1 than in medium-2
c)larger in medium-2 than in medium-1
d)different at b and d

Ans.(b) The ray diagram suggests that on entering medium- 2, the ray bends towards normal, medium-2 is denser than medium-1.

Matching Type

76.A simple telescope used to view distant objects has eyepiece and objective lenses of focal lengths f_{e  and}  f₀ respectively. Then     [2006-6 m]

Ans.

77.An optical component and an object S placed along its optic axis are given in Column I. The distance between the object and the component can be varied. The properties of images are given in Column II. Match all the properties of images from Column II with the appropriate components given in Column I.[2008]

Ans.

Subjective / Numerical integer type

Ans.

Ans.A->p,s; B ->q;C->t;D—»r,s,t

80.A ray of light is incident at angle of 60° on one face of a prism which has an angle of 30°. The ray emerging out of the prism makes an angle of 30° with the incident ray. Show that the emergent ray is perpendicular to the face through which it emerges and calculate the refractive index of the material of the lens.       [1978]
Ans.(c) The formula is derived under paraxial approximation, only those rays are considered which make very small angle with the principal axis. This requires a small aperture.

Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is false, the laws of reflection are valid whenever the light is reflected. Nature of surface does not matter

81.A pin is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 20cm and made of a material of refractive index 1.5. The surface of the lens farther away from the pin is silvered and has a radius of curvature of 22 cm. Determine the position of the final image. Is the image real or virtual? [1978]
Ans.

Ans.

Ans.

85.An object is placed 21 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius curvature 10 cm. A glass slab of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed close to the mirror in the space between the object and the mirror. Find the position of the final image formed. The distance of the nearer surface of the slab from mirror to be 1 cm.     [1980]
Ans.

86.A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. The least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. The telescope is focussed for distinct vision on a scale 200 cm away from the objective. Calculate (a) the separation between the objective and the eyepiece and (b) the magnification produced [1980]
Ans.

87.The convex surface of a thin concavo-convex lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has a radius of curvature 20 cm. The concave surface has a radius of curvature 60 cm. The convex side is slivered and placed on a horizontal surface. [1981-6 marks]
i)where should a pin be placed on the optic axis such that its image is formed at the same place?
ii)If the concave part is filled with water of refractive index 4/3, find the distance through whcih the pin should be moved so that the image of the pin again coincides with the pin.

Ans.

88.Screen S is illuminated by two point sources A and B. Another source C sends a parallel beam of light towards point P on the screen (see figure). Line AP is normal to the screen and the lines AP, BP and CP are in one plane. The distance AP, BP and CP are 3m, 1.5 m & 1.5m respectively. The radiant powers of sources A and B are 90 watt and 180 watt respectively. The beam from C is of intensity 20 watt/m². Calculate the intensity at P on the screen.   [1982-5 marks]

Ans.Whenever any surface of a convex or plano-convex or concave convex lens is silvered, it behaves like

89.In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light, the fringe pattern shifts by a certain distance on the screen, when a mica sheet of refractive index 1.6 and thickness 1.964 micron is introduced in the path of one of the interfering waves. The mica sheet is then removed and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. It is found that the distance between successive maxima (or minima) now is the same as the observed fringe shift upon the introduction of the mica sheet. Calculate the wavelength of the monochromatic light used in the experiment [1983-6 marks]
Ans.

90.A piano convex lens has a thickness of 4 cm. When placed on a horizontal table, with the curved surface in contact with it, the apparent depth of the bottom most point of the lens is found to be 3 cm. If the lens is inverted such that the plane face is in contact with the table, the apparent depth of the centre of the palne face is found to be (25/8) cm. Find the focal length of the lens.
Ans.

91.A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 6500 A and 5200 A, is used to obtain interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment :
i)Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central maximum for wavelength 6500 A
ii)What is the least distance from the central maximum where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide?
The distance between the slits is 2 mm and the distance between the plane of the slits and the screen is 120 cm.    [1985-6 marks]
Ans.

Ans.

93.A right prism is to be made by selecting a proper material and the angles A and B (B < A), as shown in figure. It is desired that a ray of light incident on the face AB emerges parallel to the incident direction after two internal reflections.

Ans.

94.A parallel beam of light travelling in water (refractive index =4/3) is refracted by a spherical air bubble of radius 2 mm situated in water. Assuming the light rays to be paraxial. ‘[1988-6 marks]
i)Find the position of the image due to refraction at the first surface and the position of the final image.
ii)Draw a ray diagram showing the positions of both the images.
Ans.

Ans.

96.A narrow monochromatic beam of light of intensity I is incident on a glass plate as shown in figure. Another identical glass plate is kept close to the first one and parallel to it. Each glass plate reflects 25 percent of the light incident on it and transmits the remaining. Find the ratio of the minimum and the maximum intensities in the interference pattern formed by the two beams obtained after one reflection at each plate.

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101.Angular-width of central maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit is measured. The slit is illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 A . When the slit is illuminated by light of another wavelength, the angular-width decreases by 30%. Calculate the wavelength of this light. The same decrease in the angular-width of central maximum is obtained when the original apparatus is immersed in a liquid. Find refractive index of the liquid.    [1996-2 marks]
Ans.

Ans.

103.A double – slit apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.33 . It has slit separation of 1 mm & distance between the plane of slits & screen is 1.33 m. The slits are illuminated by a parallel beam of light whose wavelength in air is 6300 A [1996-3 marks]
a)Calculate the fringe width .
b)One of the slits of the apparatus is covered by a thin glass sheet of refractive index 1.53 . Find the smallest thickness of the sheet to bring the adjacent minimum on the axis.
Ans.

104.A thin plano-convex. Lens of focal length f is split into two halves. One of the halves is shifted along the optical axis. The separation between object and image planes is 1.8 m. The magnification of the image formed by one of the half lenses is 2. Find the focal length of the lens and separation between the two halves. Draw the ray diagram for image formation.[1996-5 marks]

Ans.

105.In Young’s experiment, the source is red light of wavelength 7 x 10-⁷ m . When a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5 at this wavelength is put in the path of one of the interfering beams, the central bright fringe shifts by 10-³ m to the position previously occupied by the 5th bright fringe . Find the thickness of the plate . When the source is now changed to green light of wavelength 5 x 10 ⁷ m, the central fringe shifts to a position initially occupied by the 6th bright fringe due to red light . Find the refractive index of glass for green light Also estimate the change in fringe width due to the change in wavelength. [1997-5 marks]
Ans.

Ans.

107.In Young’s experiment, the upper slit is covered by a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.4 while the lower slit is covered by another glass plate, having the same thickness as the first one but having refractive index 1.7 , Interference pattern is observed using light of wavelength 5400 A . It is found that the point P on the screen where the • central maximum (n 0) fell before the glass plates were inserted now has 3/4th of the original intensity . It is further observed that what used to be the 5th maximum earlier, lies below the point P while the 6th minimum lies above P. Calculate the thickness of the glass plate.(Absorption of light by glass plate may be neglected). [1997-5 marks]
Ans.

Ans.

Ans.(a) When the incident beam falls normally: Let path difference =Ax

110.The Young’s double slit experiment is done in a medium of refractive index 4/3. A light of 600 nm wavelength is falling on the slits having 0.45 mm separation. The lower slit S₂ is covered by a thin glass sheet of thickness 10.4 mm and refractive index 1.5. The interference pattern is observed on a screen placed 1.5 m from the slits as shown in figure [1999]
a)Find the location of the central maximum (bright fringe with zero path difference) on the y-axis.
b)Find the light intensity at point O relative to the maximum fringe intensity.
c)Now, if 600 nm light is replaced by white light of range 400 to 700nm, find the wavelength of the light that form maxima exactly at point O. [All wavelengths in this problem are for the given medium of refractive index 4/3. Ignore dispersion]
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Ans.

112.A quarter cylinder of radius R and refractive index 1.5 is placed on a table. A point object P is kept at a distance of mR from it. Find the value of m for which a ray from P emerge parallel to the table as shown in figure.     [1999-5 marks]

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114.A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is coated with a thin layer of thickness t and refractive index 1.8. Light of wavelength 1 travelling in air is incident normally on the layer. It is partly reflected at the upper and the lower surfaces of the layer and the two reflected rays interfere. Write the condition for their constructive interference. If 1 = 648 nm, obtain the least value of t for which the rays interfere constructively.  [2000-4 marks]
Ans.

115.The refractive indices of the crown glass for blue and red lights are 1.51 and 1.49 respectively and those of the flint glass are 1.77 and 1.73 respectively. An isosceles prism of angle 6° is made of crown glass. A beam of white light is incident at a small angle on this prism. The other flint glass isosceles prism is combined with the crown glass prism such that there is no deviation of the incident light. Determine the angle of the flint glass prism. Calculate the net dispersion of the combined system.        [2001-5 marks]
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116.A vessel ABCD of 10 cm width has two small slits S1 and S₂ sealed with identical glass plates of equal thickness. The distance between the slits is 0.8 mm. POQ is the line perpendicular to the plane AB and passing through O, the middle point of S1 and S₂. A monochromatic light source is kept at S, 40 cm below P and 2 m from the vessel, to illuminate the slits as shown in the figure below. Calculate the position of the central bright fringe on the other wall CD with respect to the line OQ. Now, a liquid is poured into the vessel and filled up to OQ. The central bright fringe is found to be at Q. Calculate the refractive index of the liquid.[2001-5 marks]

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117.A thin biconvex lens of refractive index 3/2 is placed on a horizontal plane mirror as shown in the figure. The space between the lens and the mirror is then filled with water of refractive index 4/3. It is found that when a point object is placed 15cm above the lens on its principal axis, the object coincides with its own image. On repeating with another liquid, the object and the image again coincide at a distance 25cm from the lens. Calculate the refractive index of the liquid.[2001-5 marks]

Ans.

118.A point source S emitting light of wavelength 600 nm is placed at a very small height h above a flat reflecting surface AB (see figure). The intensity of the reflected light is 36% of the incident intensity.Interference fringes are observed on a screen placed parallel to the reflecting surface at a very large distance D from it.   [2002-5 marks]
a)What is the shape of the interference fringes on the screen?
b)Calculate the ratio of the minimum to the maximum intensities in the interference fringes formed near the point P (shown in the figure).
c)If the intensity at point P corresponds to a maximum, calculate the minimum distance through which the reflecting surface AB should be shifted so that the intensity at P again becomes maximum.

Ans.

119.Find the focal length of the lens shown in the figure. The radii of curvature of both the surfaces are equal to R.  [2003-2 marks]

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121.A ray is incident on a medium consisting of two boundaries, one plane and other curved as shown in the figure. The plane surface makes an angle 60° with horizontal and curved surface has radius of curvature 0.4m. The refractive indices of the medium and its environment are shown in the figure. If after refraction at both the surfaces the ray meets principal axis at P, find OP.[2004-2 marks]

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122.In Young’s double slit experiment, a light containing two wavelengths 500 nm and 700 nm are used. Find the minimum distance where maxima of two wavelengths coincide. Given D/d = 10 ³ where D is the distance between the slits and the screen and d is the distance between the slits.   [2004-4 marks]
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123.An object is moving with velocity 0.01 m/s towards a convex lens of focal length 0.3m. Find the magnitude of rate of separation of image from the lens when the object is at a distance of 0.4m from the lens. Also calculate the magnitude of the rate of change of the lateral magnification.[2004 – 4 marks]
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124.What will be the minimum angle of incidence such that the total internal reflection occurs on both the surfaces?    [2005-2 marks]
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True / False

130.The setting sun appears higher in the sky than it really is  [1980]
Ans.True : At sunset, the sun appears red because in travel­ling through longer dust path, violet, blue, yellow and orange rays mostly get scattered away and the only light that reaches the earth is red.

131.The intensity of light at a distance r from the axis of a long cylindrical source is inversely proportional to r.       [1981-2 marks]
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132.A convex lens of focal length 1 metre and a concave lens of focal length 0.25 metre are kept 0.75 metre apart. A parallel beam of light first passes through the convex lens, then through the concave lens and comes to a focus 0.5m away from the concave lens.       [1983-2 marks]
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133.A beam of white light passing through a hollow prism gives no spectrum.              [1983-2 marks]
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134.The two slits in a Young’s double slit experiment are illuminated by two different sodium lamps emitting light of the same wavelength. No interference pattern will be observed on the screen[1984-2 marks]
Ans.True : For sustained interference pattern, the two sources should be coherent. Two different lamps cannot act as coherent sources. Hence no interference pattern will be observed on the screen.

135.In Young’s double slit experiment, performed with a source fo white light, only black and white fringes are observed. [1987-2 marks]
Ans.False : With source of white light, Young’s double slit ex­periment gives coloured fringes on either side of the central white fringe.

136.A parallel beam of white light falls on a combination of a concave and a convex lens, both of the same material. Their focal lengths are 15 cm and 30 cm respectively for the mean wavelength in white light. On the other side of the lens system, one sees coloured patterns with violet colour at the outer edge.   [1988-2 marks]
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Fill in the blanks

137.A light wave of frequency 5 x 10¹⁴ Hz enters a medium of refractive index 1.5. In the medium the velocity of the light wave is …………………  and its wavelength is……………………….. [1983-2 marks]
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138.A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, then d is equal to…………………………………….. cm. [1985-2 marks]
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139.A monochromatic beam of light of wavelength 6000 A in vacuum enters a medium of refractive index 1.5. In the medium, its wavelength is………. , its frequency is……………………… [1985-2 marks]
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141.A thin lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 1.5cm in air. When the lens is placed in a medium of refractive index 4/3, its focal will become……………… cm.          [1987-2 marks]
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142.A point source emits waves equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q are at a distance of 9 metre and 25 metre respectively from the source. The ratio of amplitudes of the waves at P and Q is…………[1989-2 marks]
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143.A slab of a material of refractive index 2 shown in fig. has a curved surface APB of radius of curvature 10 cm and a plane surface CD. On the left of APB is air and on the right of CD is water with refractive indices as given in the figure. An object O is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the pole P as shown. The distance of the final image of O from P, as viewed from the left is………..[1991-2 marks]

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146.The resolving power of electron microscope is higher than that of an optical microscope because the wavelength of electrons is ……………  than the wavelength of visible light  [1992-1 mark]
Ans. The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wavelength used.The resolving power of an electron microscope is higher than that of an optical microscope because the de Broglie wavelength associated with elec­tron is much smaller than the wavelength of light.

147.A slit of width d is placed in front of a lens of focal length 0.5m and is illuminated normally with light of wavelength 5.89 x 10-⁷ m. The first diffraction minima on either side of the central diffraction maximum are separated by 2 X 10^-3 m. The width d of the slit is……….. m.        [1997-1 mark]
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148.Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce a combination of power +10 dioptre. When they are 0.25 m part, the power reduces to +6 The focal length of the lenses are …………. m and…………..m[1997-2 mark]
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150.An image Y is formed of point object X by a lens whose optic axis is AB as shown in figure. Draw a ray diagram to locate the lens and its focus. If the image Y of the object X is formed by a concave mirror (having the same axis as AB) instead of lens, draw another ray diagram to locate the mirror and its focus. Write down the steps of construction of the ray diagrams.  [1994-6 marks]

Ans.

JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

COMEDK is a state-level entrance exam conducted by the Consortium of Medical, Engineering and Dental Colleges of Karnataka, that helps the students to seek admission in engineering, and architecture courses offered by institutes of the state. All those who have passed 12th can apply for the exam. The students can also apply through the NATA scores. The candidates can check the eligibility criteria on the official website before applying.

Read on to explore COMEDK registration, eligibility criteria, examination pattern and other relevant details.

COMEDK Registration

The registration can be done in the month of January and the application forms are made available on the official website. The candidates need to fill the application form carefully. The application correction window opens in the month of May. Hence, in case of any mistake, the candidates can make the corrections then.

The registration process is as under:

• The candidates need to go to the official website and click on the register tab.
• An email and ID password will be allotted at the time of registration.
• The candidates can login using the user ID and password.
• Fill all the required details.
• Upload a passport size photograph, ID proof, guardian signatures, and other documents.
• Click on the save button.
• Fill preferences for the exam city.
• Click on the submit button and make payment.
• The payment will be made in online mode only.
• Take out the print out of the form for future references.

An application fee of Rs.1600 is paid using debit card, credit card or net banking.

Latest: The last date to apply for COMEDK 2020 has been extended to May 05, 2020. Apply Online Here. Also, the exam has been postponed and is most likely to take place in 1st week of June 2020.

Related Articles:

• BITSAT
• SRMJEE

COMEDK Eligibility Criteria

The candidates should fulfil the eligibility criteria while filling the application form. Failure in fulfilling the criteria will lead to disqualification.

The eligibility criteria for the candidates appearing for COMEDK is as follows:

UG Courses (Engineering)

• The candidate should have passed 12th from a recognized board, with Physics, Chemistry, Maths, and English as the main subjects.
• The candidate should have scored 45% marks in Physics, Chemistry, and Maths in class 12th.
• The candidates in the reserved category should have scored 40% marks in the required subjects.
• The diploma holders cannot apply for COMEDK.
• Lateral entry is not allowed.

UG Courses (Architecture)

• There is no entrance test for B.Arch courses.
• The candidates should have secured 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry, and Maths individually in class 12th.
• The candidates should also have secured a total of 50% marks in class 12th.
• The candidates who have qualified an aptitude test in architecture, for instance, NATA, are eligible for the entrance test.
• A separate application form has to be submitted by the candidates seeking admission in the architecture courses.

COMEDK Admit Card

COMEDK admit card is released online on the official website. The admit card is very important for the candidates appearing for the examination. They will not be allowed to sit for the exam without the admit card. Also, the admit card is required at the time of counselling, and hence, has to be kept safe.

The admit card can be downloaded by the following process:

• Go to the official website.
• Click on the “admit card download” link.
• Login using the email ID and password provided at the time of registration.
• The admit card will be visible on the screen.
• Download the admit card and take a print out.

COMEDK Exam Pattern

• The exam is conducted in English mode only.
• The test comprises a total of 180 objective type questions.
• One mark is awarded for every correct answer.
• There is no negative marking.
• The total duration of the exam is 3 hours.

COMEDK Result

The results are announced online, on the official website. A merit list is prepared after the declaration of the results. The result contains the name of the candidate, test score, test rank, application number, admit card number, the contact details of the candidate, date of birth, category, ID proof details and the stream chosen.

COMEDK Cut off

The cut off is different for different courses, colleges, and categories. It depends upon the question paper and the highest marks scored in the exam. The merit list is prepared on the basis of the cut off marks.

Merit List

The merit list or the rank list is prepared by the exam authorities. The candidates in the merit list are eligible for centralized counselling.

The merit list prepared on the basis of the performance of the candidate, exam score, rank and the total number of seats available.

If there is any tie in the test score, it can be resolved in the following manner:

• The least number of wrong answers in Physics, Chemistry, and Maths.
• Total marks in Physics and Maths in the entrance exam.
• Marks scored in Maths in the entrance exam.
• The elder candidate is always ranked higher than the younger candidate.

COMEDK Counselling

• The counselling is conducted offline, in the month of July.
• It is held in two rounds.
• The seats are allotted based on the marks scored in the entrance test.

The candidates appearing for counselling need to follow the following steps:

• The candidates have to report to the venues allotted to them based on their ranks.
• The documents of the candidate will be verified.
• Biometric and photo verification is done.
• The candidates are issued a registration slip.
• The candidates need to fill three choices of colleges and courses. Based on their ranks and the preferred choices, the candidates are allotted seats.
• The candidates will have to accept the seat provided and pay the required fees.

Conclusion

COMEDK is a reputed exam where the candidates can seek admissions into one of the renowned institutes of Karnataka. However, it is not an easy nut to crack. The candidates need to be thorough with their concepts to get through the exam.

The candidates can refer to COMEDK reference books and can solve mock tests and sample papers for better practice. This also helps them to know their flaws and strengthens their skills.

The article gives a brief about the eligibility, examination pattern, result and cut off of COMEDK. The students can also refer to the official website for relevant details.

Frequently Asked Questions

Q. Is COMEDK only for Karnataka candidates?

No, COMEDK is for the candidates throughout the country.

Question. Can a candidate apply for Medical and Dental Colleges on the basis of COMEDK score?

Answer: No, COMEDK is not applicable to medical and dental colleges. It is organized for admissions into engineering and architecture courses only.

Question. Is the COMEDK score valid for admissions into architecture courses?

Answer: The admission to architecture courses is based on NATA score. But, the candidates have to fill the COMEDK application form.

Question. How can the candidates book the COMEDK examination slots?

Answer: The candidates can book the exam slots while filling the application forms in the month of February. There is no separate slot booking process.

BITSAT is conducted by BITS, Pilani for admissions to integrated programs offered by different campuses of BITS in Pilani, Hyderabad, and Goa. The application forms will be made available online till 15th April 2020. The exam is conducted online and will be held from May 16th to May 25th across the country.

Let us have a look at the registration process and eligibility criteria of the candidates.

BITSAT – Registration

The application forms are made available online. The last date of filling the online application forms is 15th April. The test centres will be allotted to the candidates on 22nd April. The candidates can book their respective slots between 25th to 27th April.

The application fees for BITSAT male and female candidates varies. Males need to make a payment of INR 3300 whereas the application fees for females is INR 2800. For candidates appearing for the test in Dubai, the application fees is INR 6300.

BITSAT Application Process

The application process for BITSAT is mentioned below:

• The candidates need to login to the official website of BITS Pilani.
• A valid user ID and password should be provided.
• Fill all the required details in the application form.
• After filling the details the candidates need to upload a scanned photograph alongwith the signatures in the required format.
• The candidates then need to pay the application fees.
• Click on the submit button and take the print out of the application form.

Note: The application fees is non-refundable.

BITSAT Admit Card

• The admit cards will be made available on the official website between 30th April to 18th May.
• The admit card can be downloaded using the candidate’s name, date of birth and application number.
• The details such as the candidate’s name, signatures, photograph, date and time of the test, test centre details, test slot and exam instructions.
• In case of an error in the admit card, the candidate should inform the authority in time for the timely generation of admit card.

BITSAT Slot Booking

The BITSAT slots can be booked from 25th to 27th April. Whoever comes first gets the slot at the earliest. The candidates who fail to book a slot are provided slots by the institute. The process of slot booking takes place in the following steps:

• The candidates can login entering the application number and date of birth.
• Select the exam centre of your choice.
• Choose the exam date.
• Select the slot as per your convenience.
• Submit.

BITSAT Eligibility

The candidates who have appeared for class 12th in 2020 or have passed 12th in 2019 are eligible for the entrance test. The toppers get direct admission. The age group of the candidates should be between 21 to 25 years.

Let us have a look at the eligibility criteria for different courses.

BITSAT Eligibility for B.Pharma Courses

• The candidates should have passed 12th from a recognized board.
• The candidate should have studied Physics, Chemistry, Maths, or Biology s the main subjects.
• For candidates who have more than once for 12th, only the latest performance will be taken into consideration.
• The students should have scored a total of 75% marks, with atleast 60% in each subject.
• Those who are currently studying in any of the BITS campuses are eligible for BITSAT.

BITSAT Eligibility for Non-Pharma Courses

• The candidates should have qualified 12thfrom a recognized board with Chemistry, Maths, and Physics as the core subjects.
• the candidate should be proficient in English.
• The students should have scored a total of 75% marks, with atleast 60% in each subject.

Note: There is no seat reservation for any category and the admissions are done purely on the basis of merit.

BITSAT Exam Pattern

BITSAT is an online test of 3 hours duration. There is no time limit for individual sections of the test. The test comprises a total of 150 objective type questions. There is also a negative marking for every wrong answer.

The questions are distributed in the following manner:

BITSAT Cutoff

There is a very high level of competition, and hence, the BITSAT cutoff has increased over the years. After the announcement of results, the cut off is provided on the official website. There is an individual merit list for the pharmacy students.

The counselling begins in the third week of May. Usually, the scoring trend goes as – Pilani followed by Goa followed by Hyderabad.

The cut off depends upon:

• Difficulty level of the exam
• Number of seats available
• Number of candidates appearing for the exam
• Highest marks in the entrance exam

BITSAT Results

The results are declared in two parts:

1. The results are provided on the computer screen as soon as the exam is completed.
2. The admit list and waiting list is published in the month of June.

The results can be checked online in the following steps:

• Go to the BITS official website.
• Click on the tab for Online Results for BITSAT.
• Enter the candidate’s name, application number, roll no. and date of birth.
• The scorecard will appear on the screen.
• Download it.

BITSAT Preparation Books

The syllabus for BITSAT involves class 11th and 12th topics of Physics, Chemistry, Maths and Biology. However, for better preparation, the candidates preparing for the BITS entrance exam can go through the following books which have been by-hearted by the toppers. These books include topics that are frequently asked in the examination.

1. NCERT Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics for class 11th and 12th
2. The Pearson Complete Guide to the BITSAT
3. BITSAT Explorer by MTG Learning Media Pvt. Ltd.
4. Wren & Martin for English
5. A Complete Success Package for Online BITSAT by Arihant Experts (With CD)

How to Prepare for BITSAT

Key Points on BITSAT

• The candidates who cannot get through JEE can get into one of the best institutes through BITSAT.
• The toppers in the 12th standard need not appear for the entrance exam. They can get direct admissions.
• The salaries and placements offered are the best in the industry.
• The ambience and infrastructure of the BITS campuses is beyond excellence.

BITSAT is not an easy nut to crack. Therefore, the students should be thorough with the syllabus. They can also consult the candidates who have already appeared for the examination, for better understanding of the examination pattern.

Hope, the above information helps the candidates with their queries. For further details on BITSAT, the students can refer to the official website.

VITEEE is conducted by Vellore Institute of Technology for admissions to its engineering courses. It is a university level entrance exam and the eligible candidates can apply to its courses offered in Vellore, Bhopal, Chennai, and Amaravati.

VIT is a renowned institute and around 2 lakh candidates appear for the exam every year. VITEEE is a computer-based online test of 2 and a half hours duration. Application forms can be submitted online as well as offline.

Read on to explore about VITEEE registration, eligibility, exam dates, and other relevant details.

VITEEE Registration

The application forms are released in the month of September in online as well as offline mode. The registration and application process is carried out in the following steps:

Online Mode

1. The candidates can submit the name, date of birth, nationality, gender, email ID, and mobile number to register on the official website. The login password will be received on the registered email ID and phone number of the candidate.
2. Fill in the required details in the application form.
3. The candidates can pay the application fees through net banking, credit card, debit card.
4. Upload the scanned images of photograph and signature and submit the form.

Note: The application fees for the online mode is Rs. 1150

Latest Update – VITEEE 2020 registration last date extended. Direct Link to Apply For VITEEE 2020

Offline Mode

1. The offline application forms can be obtained from different post offices on paying an amount of Rs. 1250 or submitting a demand draft of Rs. 1250 in favour of Vellore Institute of Technology.
2. The form should be filled with black ballpoint pen.
3. The application form should be sent by registered post or speed post.

Application Fee

The application fees for the students appearing for VITEEE is mentioned below:

• Online Application Fees – Rs. 1150
• Offline Application Fees – Rs. 1250
• For NRI Candidates – US$ 50

VITEEE Eligibility

The students appearing for VITEEE should fulfill the following eligibility criteria:

1. The candidate should be the resident of India or an NRI.
2. There is a foreign category for foreigners.
3. The candidate should be 22 years old as on July 1st of the current year.
4. The candidates should have scored a total of 60% in Physics, Chemistry, Maths/Biology.
5. The candidates belonging to the North Indian States, SC/ST category, and Jammu and Kashmir should have scored a total of 50% marks.
6. The students appearing for 12th can also apply for the entrance test.

The candidates who fail to fulfil the eligibility criteria are not allowed to apply for the examination.

VITEEE Slot Booking Process

The exam slots can be booked online. The slots are booked on first come, first serve basis. The candidates can book the slots in the following steps:

1. Click on the slot booking link in the official website.
2. Enter the application number and password provided during registration.
3. Select the desired date and slot of the examination along with the test center.
4. The booked slot cannot be changed thereafter.
5. If the candidate does not book the slot, it will be automatically allotted to the candidates as per the availability.
6. The admit card will be released only after the slot has been booked.

VITEEE Admit Card

The candidates will not be allowed to enter the examination hall without the admit card. It should be kept after the examination for the admission process. The admit card can be downloaded from the official website.

The admit card contains the candidate’s name, date of birth, admit card number, address of the test center, test date and time, and the photograph of the student. In case of any error, the student should immediately inform the authorities.

VITEEE Exam Pattern

VITEEE is an online test of 125 marks conducted for a duration of 2 and a half hours. Each question carries one mark. There is no negative marking for the wrong answer.

VITEEE Exam Pattern The questions are all objective type and the marking scheme is as follows:

VITEEE Results

The results are published on the official website. The students can check their ranks and marks scored in online mode. The candidates can check their results in the following steps:

1. Go to the official website.
2. Click on the result link.
3. Enter the application number and date of birth and click on submit.
4. The result will be displayed.
5. Download the results for further reference.

VITEEE Counselling

The VITEEE counselling is held offline. The provisional letters are sent on the registered email IDs. The students can attend the counselling sessions as scheduled.

The courses are allotted to the candidates on merit basis and seat availability. The authorities verify the documents. The candidates need to book the allotted seats by paying the required amount.

The documents required during the VITEEE counselling are given below:

• VITEEE admit card
• VITEEE counselling admit card
• VITEEE result copy
• Class 10th certificate as birth date proof
• For candidates waiting for class 12th results, the admit card of the appeared exam is required
• For reserved category, the community certificate is required
• Mark sheet of qualifying examination
• Nativity certificate fir candidates from North-eastern states, and Jammu and Kashmir
• DD of Rs. 50,000 in favour of “Vellore Institute of Technology”
• DD of Rs. 21000 for hostel in favour of “Vellore Institute of Technology”

Key Points of VITEEE

There are certain changes made in the Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Exam this year:

• The application fees of VITEEE offline form has been increased to Rs. 1250.
• A new section of aptitude is added to the entrance test.
• The number of questions in Physics and Chemistry is reduced from 40 to 35.

VITEEE is an opportunity for all those who could not make through the IIT JEE examinations. The entrance test gives them a chance to get into one of the renowned institutions in the country.

A thorough understanding of the class 11th and 12th syllabus is more than enough for the candidates to prepare for the entrance exam. They can also consult the candidates who had already qualified VITEEE for a better understanding of the examination pattern and the type of questions asked.

The students should keep checking the official website for daily updates and other important details. The students are requested to keep a check on the important dates, from the release of the application form to the announcement of the counselling dates. Failure in completing any step might lead to disqualification.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the extended date for registration of VITEEE 2020?

The last date of registration for VITEEE 2020 has been extended due to COVID-19. The date has not been announced by the University.

When will VITEEE 2020 be conducted?

The tentative date for VITEEE 2020 is from 13th to 19th April.

When will the results for VITEEE 2020 be declared?

The results are supposed to be published on the official website on 30th of April.

How can the candidate correct the mistakes made while filling the application form?

The candidates can correct the mistakes made while filling the application form. The dates for corrections will be announced by the University soon.

JEE Main Syllabus with Weightage – JEE Main is one of the most important examinations for every engineering aspirant. It brings a lot of queries and requires ambit of information about various aspects of JEE Main. After the recent changes announced in exam pattern, one of the mostly searched query by candidates for the upcoming examination is detailed JEE Main syllabus with weightage. By using the information about the weightage of JEE Main syllabus, the candidates will be able to know the topics which has to be more focused on and accordingly prepare for the examination.

Every year there may be variation in JEE Main syllabus with regards to weightage,however the analysis of past years weightage solves much of a query. Candidates can check the previous year question papers for syllabus weightage of JEE Main to know which topics and units may have a higher number of questions. While the topics with more weightage has to be given importance, the candidates are advised to study all of the topics mentioned in the JEE Main syllabus. Read the full article to know more information about JEE Main Syllabus with Weightage.

In order to score well by planned studies, one must know about the JEE Main chapter wise weightage. Keeping more focus on the JEE Main important topics and chapters with more weightage is crucial to get good marks. Without wasting time any further, let us see which chapter carry more weightage than the others in JEE Main 2020.

JEE Main 2020 Exam Pattern

Topic/Chapter wise JEE Main Syllabus with Weightage for Physics for Previous Year

Topic/Chapter wise JEE Main Syllabus with Weightage for Chemistry for Previous Year

Topic/Chapter wise JEE Main Syllabus with Weightage for Mathematics for Previous Year

Best Books for JEE Main preparation

Best Books for JEE Main Maths

• Mathematics NCERT
• Cengage Mathematics
• Topicwise Books of Arihant Publications
• Mathematics Textbooks for Class 11 & 12 by R.S. Aggarwal

Best Books for JEE Main Physics

• Physics NCERT
• H.C. Verma’s “Concepts of Physics Vol I & II
• Pradeep’s Fundamental Physics
• Halliday, Resnick & Walker’s “Fundamentals of Physics”

Best Books for JEE Main Chemistry

• Chemistry NCERT
• JEE Preparatory Series; Objective Chemistry Vol I & II, Arihant
• A Textbook of Organic Chemistry for AIPMT and all other Medical Entrance Examination, Dr. OP Tandon
• Objective NCERT at Your Fingertips for JEE- Chemistry by MTG Editorial Board

FAQ on NTA JEE Main Chapter-wise Weightage

Question: Is there any topic wise weightage in JEE Main exam?

Answer: No! Questions are asked from every topic covered by JEE Main. The formulation of questions in exam depends of authority; but there is no such parity among topics.

Question: Which topics form Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics are mostly asked in JEE Main exam

Answer: Students can find the topic wise distribution of questions from JEE Main syllabus with weightage to understand which topics have been covered in recent years. This will help students to study for the exam accordingly.

Question: How many questions are asked in JEE Main exam?

Answer: JEE Main 2020 will have a total of 75 questions, 25 each from Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Further, out of 25 questions, 20 questions will be MCQs and 5 questions will be questions with Numeric answer.

Question: Is JEE Main conducted only in online mode?

Answer: Yes! JEE Main is now conducted only in online mode.

Which Chapter were asked more? JEE Main 2020 Math Analysis

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IuvM8vVd0Vw

JEE Main Important Topics | JEE Main Preparation in 2 Month

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HN2lP5hNsCQ

In India, there are a number of examinations conducted by different universities for admissions into various courses such as engineering, pharmacy, management, law, medical, etc. The students can appear for these examinations after completing 12th. Below is the list of entrance exams conducted by various universities across the country.

Top University Entrance Exams in India

Following is the list of university entrance exams held in India:

BITSAT

BITSAT is conducted by Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani for admissions to integrated courses of BITS campus. The exam is conducted online.

SRMJEEE

SRM Joint Engineering Entrance Examination is conducted by the SRM university that provides admission to B.Tech courses in the university and its other campuses.

UPESEAT

The exam is administrated by the University of Petroleum and Energy Studies, Dehradun. The students qualifying the exam can get admission to B.Tech programs in the university.

PTU

Punjab Technical University organizes this university-level exam. the students qualifying the exam can get admissions to MBA, M.Sc., and journalism courses.

VITEEE

VIT Engineering Entrance Examination is conducted by VIT, Vellore. The students can seek admissions to B.Tech courses in the university and its campuses. The exam is conducted online.

Symbiosis SET

There are separate exams conducted by the Symbiosis International University for engineering, law, design, etc. The engineering aspirants need to qualify SITEEE, organized by the university. The SET general exam is organized for admissions to various undergraduate courses.

AMU

Aligarh Muslim University conducts entrance exams for various undergraduate and postgraduate courses This exam is only applicable to Indians and NRI candidates.

Other university entrance exams include PESSAT, KIITEE, BVP CET, Delhi University, Lucknow University, Jawaharlal Nehru University, Banaras Hindu University, Allahabad University, Banasthali University, etc.

The above-mentioned list of entrance exams conducted by different universities might prove helpful to the candidates aspiring for various undergraduate and postgraduate courses.

Pharmaceutical research and industry is growing rapidly in the country. This has made it one of the most opted courses in India. There are several international colleges and universities in India that offer graduate, postgraduate and diploma courses to the candidates. For this, the students need to qualify a few state, national and university level exams. Let us have a look at some of the pharmacy entrance exams in India.

Top Pharmacy Entrance Exams in India

Following are some of the pharmacy entrance exams in India:

GPAT

The Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test is a national level entrance exam conducted by the National Testing Agency. The students can take admissions to AICTE approved M.Pharma colleges and institutes by qualifying this exam. The exam occurs in the month of January.

NIPER JEE

National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research Joint Entrance Exam is a national level pharmacy entrance exam conducted by NIPER, Mohali. The students can get admission in M.Pharma, M.Tech (Pharma), MBA (Pharma) and Ph.D across its different campuses in India.

Delhi CET

Delhi Common Entrance Test or Delhi CET is a state-level entrance exam conducted by the Department of Training and Technical Education, Delhi. This exam is also known as Delhi Polytechnic Examination. The exam is held in the last week of May.

UPSEE

Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Exam or UPSEE is a state-level exam conducted by Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University for admissions to B.Pharma colleges across the state. The application forms are made available from the third week of January.

Jamia Hamdard Pharmacy Exam

The exam is conducted by Jamia Hamdard University, New Delhi, The application process begins in the third week of March. The diploma course started by Hamdard College of Pharmacy is affiliated by Delhi College of Technical Education.

Other pharmacy entrance exams include WBJEE, Gujrat CET, KCET, Goa CET, UKSEE, MET, GITAM GAT, etc. The above-mentioned list might help the candidates to have an overview of the pharmacy entrance exams conducted at state, national and college levels.

Also Read:

• Engineering Entrance Exams
• Medical Entrance Exams

IPU CET : Indraprastha University Common Entrance Test is a university-level exam for admissions to various graduate and postgraduate courses. The registration begins in the month of March (tentatively).

Indraprastha University is one of the most renowned universities in the country. All the details regarding the entrance test, eligibility criteria, exam pattern, and results are mentioned in the article.

IPU CET Registration

The application forms are available online on the official website. The candidates can apply for more than one course by filling separate forms.

After registration, the candidates are provided with an Id and password.

The candidates can log in using the id and password.

The application form can be filled in the following steps:

1. The application form is fully automated. There are two forms – ‘Form 1’ and ‘Form 2’.
2. The candidates need to fill the name, contact details, program group, program name, and code.
3. The candidates also need to select the exam category.
4. Submit the complete form.
5. A login id will be generated that can be used for future purposes.
6. The candidates can login to the account and fill the general information required.
7. Select the program you wish to undertake.
8. Upload your photograph, signatures, and left-hand thumb impression in JPG format only.
9. Click on ‘next’.
10. Fill in the qualification details and click on ‘next’.
11. The candidates can pay the application fee of Rs. 1000 online.
12. Take the printout of the application form.

IPU CET Eligibility Criteria

The eligibility criteria for the candidates appearing for IPU CET is mentioned below:

1. The candidates applying for B.Tech should have passed 12th from a recognized board with atleast 55% marks. The ones who have appeared for JEE Mains paper 1 can also apply.
2. For the Biotechnology course, the candidates should have passed 12th from a recognized board with atleast 55% marks in Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Biotechnology.
3. The lateral entry B.Tech (diploma) students should have passed three years diploma with 60% marks.
4. For lateral entry B.Tech (B.Sc.), the candidates should have passed B.Sc. in Maths from a recognized university, with atleast 60% marks.

IPU CET Exam Pattern

IPU CET is an offline and online exam of two and a half hours. The paper comprises multiple-choice questions. There is negative marking for every wrong answer.

Exam for courses such as BCA, BJ (MC), M.Tech, are conducted in offline mode. There are a few courses that have an online entrance exam.

IPU CET Admit Card

The admit card is released online on the official website. The candidates will not be allowed to enter the examination hall without the admit card.

The admit card contains the candidates’s name, signatures, photograph, thumb impression, exam time, address of exam center, etc.

The candidates are advised to carry a photo Id proof along with the admit card. The admit card should be kept safe for future purposes as well.

IPU CET Result

The results are released on the official website in the form of a rank list. The candidates can download the rank list which is to be presented at the time of counselling. The result is tentatively announced in the first week of June.

IPU CET Counselling

The counselling is conducted online as well as offline in multiple rounds. In each subsequent rounds, the remaining candidates are called to fill the vacant seats. Candidates need to fill a form, mentioning the preferred courses along with a counselling fees of Rs. 1000.

In offline counselling, the candidates need to go to the counselling centre and pay the fees offline. The candidates need to carry their original documents for verification. The following documents are required at the time of counselling:

• Admit Card
• Class 10 mark sheets
• Class 10th pass certificate
• Class 12th mark sheets
• Class 12th pass certificate

Indraprastha University is one of the renowned universities in the country. The candidates who cannot get through JEE can enter a renowned university through IPU CET. The candidates need to brush up their knowledge before appearing for the exam.

The candidates can solve mock test papers for better practice. This will also help them work on their shortcomings. For further updates on the dates and other events related to IPU CET, refer to the official website of Indraprastha University.

Related Articles:

• BITSAT
• SRMJEE

Frequently Asked Questions

When will IPU CET 2020 be conducted?

Tentatively, IPU CET was to be conducted in the second week of May. However, the exam date has been postponed amidst COVID-19 and the revised date has not been released yet.

How can the candidates edit the information provided during registration?

The information can only be corrected once the correction window opens. Until then, the candidates cannot make any changes once the final submit button has been clicked.

What is the mode of examination?

A few courses are conducted online while the exam for a few courses is conducted offline.

Can the candidates apply for more than one CET?

Yes, the candidates can apply for more than course by filling separate application forms for each CET.