VITEEE Exam Pattern

VITEEE Exam Pattern 2020 | Check Marking Scheme & Syllabus

VITEEE Exam Pattern – The VITEEE is conducted for admission to various B.Tech courses in Vellore Institute of Technology. VIT Engineering Entrance Examination is Computer Based Test (CBT), which will be held in April-2020. So the candidates who are planning to appear for VITEEE must be aware of VITEEE Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know VITEEE 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing VITEEE Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding VITEEE Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, exam pattern, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
VITEEE Exam Pattern.

VITEEE Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of VITEEE Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the VITEEE exam:

  • Name of the Exam/VITEEE Full form: Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Examination.
  • Commonly known as –  VITEEE
  • Exam Category – Pre-UG
  • Conducting body: Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
  • Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • Mode of Registration: Online
  • Exam Type: National Level
  • Courses offered: Engineering (B.Tech)
  • VITEEE Official Website: https://www.vit.ac.in/

Detailed VITEEE Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of VITEEE Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the VITEEE 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed VITEEE Exam Pattern is listed below:

  • Section 1: Physics 40 questions with a total weightage of 40 marks
  • Section 2: Chemistry 40 questions with a total weightage of 40 marks
  • Section 3: Mathematics/Biology 40 questions with a total weightage of 40 marks
  • Section 4: English 5 questions with a total weightage of 5 marks.
  • Total weightage 125 marks

Highlights of VITEEE 2020 Marking Scheme

  1. For every correct answer, 1 Mark will be awarded.
  2. No Negative Marking for Incorrect Answer.
  3. There will be a total of 4 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry, Maths/Biology and English)
  4. Duration of Exam: 150 Minutes or 2 Hours 30 Minutes
  5. The total marks of the VITEEE (125 Marks/125 Questions)
  6. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
  7. The medium of the exam will be English Only.
  8. The exam will be held in online mode only.

VITEEE 2020 Syllabus

VITEEE Syllabus for 2020 Exam is based on the syllabus of class 11 and 12. The candidates have to prepare as per the syllabus only as no questions are asked apart from the topics in the syllabus. The candidates can check the syllabus for VITEEE 2020 in the table below:

Physics Chemistry Mathematics Biology
Laws of Motion & Work, Energy, and Power Atomic Structure Matrices and their Applications Taxonomy
Properties of Matter p,d and f Block Elements Trigonometry and Complex Numbers Cell and Molecular Biolog
Electrostatics Coordination Chemistry and Solid State Chemistry Analytical Geometry of two dimensions Reproduction
Current Electricity Thermodynamics, Chemical Equilibrium, and Chemical Kinetics Vector Algebra Genetics and evolution
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Electrochemistry Analytical Geometry of Three Dimensions Human health and diseases
Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current Isomerism in Organic Compounds Differential Calculus Biochemistry
Optics Alcohols and Ethers Integral Calculus and its Application Human physiology
Dual Nature of Radiation and Atomic Physics Carbonyl Compounds Differential Equations Plant physiology
Nuclear Physics Carboxylic Acids and their derivatives Probability Distributions Biotechnology and its applications
Semiconductor Devices and their Applications Organic Nitrogen Compounds and Biomolecules Discrete Mathematics Biodiversity, ecology and environment

VITEEE Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of VITEEE 2020 is tabulated below:

VITEEE 2020 Important Dates
Information brochure releases 4th week of Oct 2019
Online Application Process 4th week of Oct 2019
OMR Application Form available from 1st week of Nov 2019
Editing of the Online Application 3rd week of Mar 2020
Last date to submit the application form 3rd week of Mar 2020
Slot Booking starts 4th week of Mar 2020
Issuance of the VITEEE 2019 Admit Card 4th week of Mar 2020
VITEEE 2019 exam date 1st to 3rd week of Apr 2020
Declaration of Result 3rd week of Apr 2020
Counselling Process May 2020
Phase IV Counselling Process Jun 2020
Commencement of classes Jul 2020

Vellore Institute of Technology Highlights

  • Establishment Year: 1984
  • Type of University: Deemed to be University
  • Accredited with Grade A: Accredited with Grade A NAAC, India in 2015
  • Campus Area: 250 acres
  • Total No. of Students: 24000
  • No. of Hostels: 23
  • Total No. of Books: 2,21,118
  • E-Journals: 13344
  • Courses Offered: 19 Undergraduate, 34 Post graduate, 2 Integrated, 4 Research Programmes
  • Entrance Exams: VITEEE for B.Tech, VITMEE for M.Tech & MCA, VITREE for M.Phil and Ph.D.
  • Location: Vellore, Tamil Nadu
  • How to Reach: 3 km from Vellore-katpadi Junction

VITEEE Exam Timings

  • Session I: 09.00 am to 11.30 am
  • Session II: 12.30 pm to 03.00 pm
  • Session III: 04.00 pm to 06.30 pm

VITEEE Exam Pattern | Eligibility Criteria

Nationality: 

  • Indian
  • Non-Resident Indian
  • Person of Indian Origin
  • OCI Holder

VITEEE Age Limit:

  • Born on or after July 1, 1998

VITEEE Qualification Criteria:

  • Candidates who are appearing or have passed the 10+2 higher secondary exam which is conducted by ISC, CBSE, any State board
  • Intermediate or Two-year Pre-University Examination conducted by a recognized Board / University.
  • High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
  • General Certificate Education (G C E) examination (London/Cambridge/Srilanka) at the Advanced (A) level.
  • NIOS candidates are also eligible to apply.

VITEEE Qualifying marks:

  • General Category- Candidates should have scored an aggregate of 60% in Maths, Physics, and Chemistry in 10+2.
  • SC, ST, J&K, North Eastern states- Candidates should have scored an average 50% marks in Physics, Maths, and Chemistry in 10+2 or its equivalent exam.

How many campuses does VIT University have?

  • Vellore Institute of Technology – Chennai, Tamil Nadu
  • Vellore Institute of Technology – Vellore, Tamil Nadu
  • Vellore Institute of Technology – Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh
  • VIT – Bhopal

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding VITEEE exam pattern. Apart from knowing exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the VITEEE syllabus completely.

GEEE Exam Pattern

GEEE Exam Pattern 2020, Marking Scheme and Syllabus

GEEE Exam Pattern – The GEEE is conducted for admission to various B.Tech and B.Tech + M.Tech courses in Galgotias College of Engineering and Technology. GEEE is Pencil & Paper based exam, which will be held in June-2020. So the candidates who are planning to appear for GEEE must be aware of GEEE Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know GEEE 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing GEEE Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding GEEE Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, marking scheme, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
GEEE Exam Pattern.

GEEE Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of GEEE Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the GEEE exam:

  • Name of the Exam/GEEE Full form: Galgotias Engineering Entrance Examination.
  • Commonly known as –  GEEE
  • Exam Category – Pre-UG and PG
  • Conducting body: Galgotias College of Engineering and Technology (GCET)
  • Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • Mode of Registration: Online
  • Exam Type: National Level
  • Courses offered: Engineering (B.Tech & B.Tech + M.Tech)
  • GEEE Official Website: https://galgotiacollege.edu/

Detailed GEEE Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of GEEE Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the GEEE 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed GEEE Exam Pattern is listed below:

  • Section 1: Physics 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
  • Section 2: Chemistry 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
  • Section 3: Mathematics 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
  • Total weightage 90 marks

Highlights of GEEE 2020 Marking Scheme

  1. For every correct answer, 1 Mark will be awarded.
  2. No Negative Marking for Incorrect Answer.
  3. There will be a total of 3 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry & Maths)
  4. Duration of Exam: 90 Minutes
  5. The total marks of the GEEE (90 Marks/90 Questions)
  6. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
  7. The medium of the exam will be English Only.
  8. The exam will be held in offline mode only.

GEEE Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of GEEE 2020 is tabulated below:

Events Dates (Tentative)
Commencement of online application form 3rd week of December 2019
Last date to apply 1st week of June 2020
Admit card downloading 2nd week of June 2020
GEEE exam date 3rd week of June 2020
Result declaration 3rd week of June 2020

Galgotias College of Engineering Highlights

  • Type of Institute: Private
  • Approved By – AICTE, Ministry of HRD, Government of India
  • Affiliated To – Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam Technical University, Lucknow
  • Library Facilities – Total no. of Titles-9211, Number of Books-70830, Print Journals Subscribed-154, Number of Magazines-28, Number of Newspapers-9, Number of CDs-842
  • Campus Size – 19 Acres
  • How to Reach – 39.3 km From Noida Bus Stand

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding GEEE exam pattern. Apart from knowing exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the GEEE syllabus completely.

SRMJEEE Exam Pattern

SRMJEEE 2020 Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme and Syllabus

SRMJEEE Exam Pattern – The SRMJEEE is conducted for admission to various B.E/B.Tech courses in SRM Institute of Science and Technology (formerly known as SRM University). SRMJEEE 2020 will be conducted in the month of April, 2020 in online CBT mode. So the candidates who are planning to appear for SRMJEEE must be aware of SRMJEEE Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know SRMJEEE 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing SRMJEEE Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding SRMJEEE Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, marking scheme, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
SRMJEEE Exam Pattern.

SRMJEEE Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of SRMJEEE Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the SRMJEEE exam:

  • Name of the Exam/SRMJEEE Full form: Sri Ramaswamy Memorial Joint Engineering Entrance Examination.
  • Commonly known as –  SRMJEEE
  • Exam Category – Pre-UG
  • Conducting body: SRM Institute of Science and Technology
  • Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • Mode of Registration: Online
  • Exam Type: National Level
  • Courses offered: Engineering.
  • SRMJEEE Official Website: http://www.srmuniv.ac.in

Detailed SRMJEEE Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of SRMJEEE Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the SRMJEEE 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed SRMJEEE Exam Pattern is listed below:

  • Section 1: Physics 35 questions with a total weightage of 105 marks
  • Section 2: Chemistry 35 questions with a total weightage of 105 marks
  • Section 3: Mathematics/Biology 35 questions with a total weightage of 105 marks
  • Total weightage 315 marks

Highlights of SRMJEEE 2020 Marking Scheme

  1. For every correct answer, 3 Marks will be awarded.
  2. No Negative Marking for Incorrect Answer.
  3. There will be a total of 3 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry & Maths/Biology)
  4. Duration of Exam: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
  5. The total marks of the SRMJEEE (315 Marks/105 Questions)
  6. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
  7. The medium of the exam will be English Only.
  8. The exam will be held in online mode only.

SRMJEEE Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of SRMJEEE 2020 is tabulated below:

Events Dates (Tentative)
Starting of application form Last week of October 2019
Deadline of online application form Last week of March 2020
Deadline of offline application form The first week of March 2020
Application correction The second week of April  2020
Slot booking starts The second week of April 2020
Hall tickets release The second week of April 2020
Exam date The third week of April 2020
Result date The first week of May 2020
Counseling (OFFLINE) The second week of May 2020
Counseling (ONLINE) The third week of May 2020
Academic session starts The Third week of July 2020

List of SRM universities spread across the country:

  • SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Chennai – Kattankulathur Campus
  • SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Chennai – Ramapuram Campus
  • SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Chennai – Vadalapani Campus
  • SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Ghaziabad – NCR Campus
  • SRM University, Delhi – NCR Sonepat
  • SRM University, Andhra Pradesh – Amaravati
  • SRM University (started in 2017) – Sikkim

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding SRMJEEE exam pattern. Apart from knowing exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the SRMJEEE syllabus completely.

Olympiad

Olympiad

Introduction to Olympiad

Olympiads are the school level competitive exams which are conducted to test the IQ level of the students. The syllabus for these exams is based on school level, as per the guidelines given by the school boards. These exams are conducted at the National level, international level and zonal level by many private and government organisations. These exams helps students to grow their intellectual and logical skills.

The Olympiad is conducted for all the level of classes based on the subjects such as Science, Mathematics, Computer, General knowledge, Geography, Astronomy, Earth Science, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and Languages. Students who appear for olympiad exam and qualifies it will get certificates, scholarship, medals based on National, International and Zonal level.

They will be recognised by the schools, colleges or institutes and also will get the preference for the admissions for higher education. This exam gives exposure to students to the competitive world and to develop their interest in the future.

List of Olympiads

There is multiple Olympiad exam conducted in India for the students of class 1 to 12, based on different subjects. The questions of the exam will be subjective as well as aptitude type.

There are many Olympiad exams which are conducted on an outside the country but here we will discuss about olympiads conducted in India. Check the list below;

  • SOF(Science Olympiad Foundation) Olympiad Exams
  • UCO(Unified Council Olympiad) Exams
  • ASSET Olympiad Exams
  • TERIIN Olympiad Exams
  • Silver Zone Olympiad Exams
  • EduHeal Olympiad Exams
  • HummingBird Olympiad Exams
  • IAIS Olympiad Exams
  • HBCSE
  • KVPY
  • NOF
  • SEAMO
  • NMMS
  • NTSE
  • Technothlon

SOF Olympiads

Science Olympiad Foundation is an educational and non-profit foundation, which was founded in 1996. It is based in New Delhi, India. This organisation promotes science, mathematics, general knowledge, computer and English language skills among school students in India through multiple Olympiad examinations.

SOF is responsible to conduct 6 olympiads each year. As per the previous year’s data, currently, there are 5 lakh students all over the country who are participating in olympiads. Students from class 1 to 12 can participate. For each class, there is a different exam.

The question paper consists of 35 multiple choice questions of 40 marks for classes I to IV, and 50 multiple choice questions for classes V to XII of 60 marks, to be answered in one hour.

Results are announced for every student and it includes the student’s international rank, zonal rank and school rank. Take a look on the name of the Olympiads by SOF;

  1. National Science Olympiad (NSO)
  2. National Cyber Olympiad (NCO)
  3. International General Knowledge Olympiad (IGKO)
  4. International English Olympiad (IEO)
  5. International Mathematics Olympiad (IMO)
  6. International Company Secretaries Olympiad (ICSO)

Unified Council Olympiad

Unified Council is a professionally accomplished progressive organisation in the field of education, established in the year 1998 by renowned personalities from various fields, including some academicians of international reputation.

Since its beginning, Unified Council has brought collectively, the best brains in the department of education, in an effort to make the younger generation fundamentally stronger and to feed their brains for a bright and ambitious future.

The Unified Council Unit includes qualified teachers and professionals having an extraordinary involvement with school education. Their hands-on knowledge helps the organization create and execute solutions that are based on the actual needs of schools and teachers. The four olympiads conducted by Unified Council are;

  1. National Level Science Talent Search Examination [NSTSE]
  2. Unified International Mathematics Olympiad [UIMO]
  3. Unified Cyber Olympiad [UCO]
  4. Unified International English Olympiad [UIEO]

ASSET Talent Search

ASSET organises programmes for gifted students for the last nine years based on an investigation in this field and keeping in mind their specific needs. They deliver world-class, academically accurate courses.

ASSET Olympiad Exam is an accurately composed test which benchmarks a students achievement and will help everyone else who has attempted the exam. It lets know students a summary of their strengths and weaknesses.

Instead of testing their memory or their capacity to remember formulas and definitions ASSET adjudicates to get students to implement these concepts in various possible situations where a student’s higher order thinking skills are tested.

It benchmark’s school’s performance, mistakes that students carry behind every concept, and teacher effort while educating the students.

The results not only contains the Students Report but also includes the Teacher Performance along with the School Benchmarking. ASSET conducts three olympiads every year of English, Maths, and Science subjects.

  1. ATS Maths Olympiad
  2. ATS English Olympiad
  3. ATS Science Olympiad

TERIIN Olympiad Exams

TERIIN is an sovereign, multi-dimensional Foundation, with abilities in investigation, administration, consultancy, and implementation.

TERI act as innovators and factors of change in the energy, atmosphere, climate change and sustainability extent, having established communications for making it a better place to live in and action in these areas for over four decades.

GREEN Olympiad is a yearly written exam on environment introduced by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) in 1999.

The exam is conducted by Environment Education & Awareness Area (EEA) of TERI and invites participation from school pupils across India and abroad.

The TERIIN examination is open only for schools affiliated to approved education boards and educational trusts. Students enrolled in such schools from grades IV to X can appear in this examination.

  1. GREEN Olympiad

Silver Zone Olympiad Exams

Silver-zone Foundation is senior to all the international Education Olympiads with more than a Decade of Experience, Excellence and Popularity.

It is a registered trust, a non-profit organisation, an educational organization headquartered at New Delhi, to support learning beyond school curriculum among the students (from class 1st-12th), in an innovative way thereby to achieve their potential and grow their skills for a bright and ambitious future.

The Olympiads are conducted to enhance the thinking, logical, analytical and problem-solving skills of students in a highly competitive and global environment to help in building a solid foundation for National/International Competitive Examinations.

  1. International Olympiad of Maths [IOM]
  2. International Informatics Olympiad [IIO]
  3. International Olympiad of Science [IOS]
  4. International Olympiad of English Language [iOEL]
  5. International French Language Olympiad [IFLO]
  6. Akhil Bhartiya Hindi Olympiad [ABHO]
  7. International Talent Hunt Olympiad [iTHO]
  8. International Social Studies Olympiad [ISSO]
  9. International Reasoning & Mental Ability Olympiad [IRAO]
  10. Smart Kid General Knowledge Olympiad [SKGKO]

EduHeal Olympiad Exams

EduHeal Foundation (EHF) is a registered NGO raised by leading educationists, corporate heads and media doyens. EHF is actively involved in exploring talented school students by reaching out to 4000+ schools. High standard of Exam is administered by EduHeal in 3 levels at more than 3500 schools across the Globe.

The EduHeal Olympiad Exams are defined for the first round and the Level-2 exam will be conducted completely online at more than 200+ computer centres/1000+ school computer centers around the world.

EduHeal Foundation affords students who have crossed specific criteria to tour ISRO and Bombay Stock Exchange to engage with prominent personalities and also to be a part of national workshops.

All successful students (100%) get the coveted EHF certificate, which are beneficial during college admissions) and 33% of top rankers win the medals. Merit students at all levels (1&2) win one-time money scholarship & more.

Level 3 students win amazing prizes given by the sponsorer. For example, the certificate will carry the logo of the iconic BSE (in case of BIFO) making these certificates priceless.

  1. National Biotechnology Olympiad [NBTO]
  2. National Space Science Olympiad [NSSO]
  3. National Interactive Science Olympiad [NISO]
  4. National Interactive Maths Olympiad [NIMO]
  5. International Cyber Olympiad [ICO]
  6. International English Olympiad [IEO]
  7. International general knowledge Olympiad [IGO]
  8. Art & Clinic Contest [ACC]
  9. BSE International Finance Olympiad [BIFO]

HummingBird Olympiad Exams

Humming Bird Education Ltd. is the world’s only Olympiad organisation registered on the Bombay Stock Exchange. Humming Bird has assisted millions of students all across the earth from more than 10000 schools in 11 countries in the last 10 years.

For the same, our organization has been recognized by the Media all over the world, famous celebrities & politicians and eminent educators.

The main goal of Humming Bird Education Ltd, is to encourage the students to understand the in-depth knowledge of the subject as well as to magnify their factual, conceptual, reasoning, logical, analytical & problem-solving skills. This helps the students to achieve their true intellectual potential.

The Humming Bird International Olympiads are not only based on IQ (Intelligence Quotient) but also covers EQ (Emotional Quotient), SQ (Spiritual Quotient), CQ (Creativity Quotient), AQ (Adversity Quotient), FQ (Financial Quotient) and more importantly HQ (Happiness Quotient). They understand in the overall development of students and therefore serve them with perfectly crafted Olympiads.

  1. Humming Bird Mathematics Olympiad [HMO]
  2. Humming Bird Science Olympiad [HSO]
  3. Humming Bird Spelling Competition [Spell Bee]
  4. Humming Bird Entrepreneurship and Finance Olympiad [EFO]
  5. Humming Bird Multiple Intelligence Test [HMIT]
  6. Humming Bird Talent Search Examination [HBTSE]
  7. Humming Bird Commerce Competency Olympiad [HCC]
  8. Humming Bird Cyber Olympiad [HCO]
  9. Humming Bird English Olympiad [HEO]
  10. Humming Bird General Knowledge Olympiad [HGO]
  11. Humming Bird Hindi Olympiad [HHO]
  12. Humming Bird Aptitude & Reasoning Olympiad [ARO]

IAIS Olympiad Exams

IAIS – International Assessments for Indian Schools, is administered by Macmillan Education in partnership with Educational Assessment Australia(EAA) an education group of UNSW Global Pty Limited.IAIS is a leading international student assessment service that presents an objective, in-depth, external assessment of student skills in key learning areas.

IAIS is a characteristic assessment which brings to light the strengths and weaknesses of a student on the four core subject areas of English, Science, Mathematics and Digital Technologies.

  1. IAIS Science
  2. IAIS Mathematics
  3. IAIS Digital Technologies
  4. IAIS English

HBCSE

The international Olympiad campaign is sighted at bringing the most talented secondary and higher secondary students of the world collectively in a friendly competition of the highest level. The Olympiads do not point directly to any career profits; rather, they contribute a provocation to begin a career in science or mathematics, to undertake a lifelong journey into the realms of exciting intellectual challenges.

The Olympiads are not only competitions, they are the gathering places of the most brilliant young minds of the world, and many bonds forged at the Olympiads form the roots of scientific collaboration later in life. Much like the Olympics in sports, the Olympiads are a commemoration of the very best in school level science and mathematics.

A significant national Olympiad programme in basic sciences and mathematics which relates to the international Olympiads is in service in India. The Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education is the nodal center of the country for this programme. The programme strives at promoting excellence in science and mathematics among pre-university students.

  1. International Mathematical Olympiad [IMO]
  2. International Science Olympiad [ISO]

KVPY-Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana

The Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana is an on-going National Program of Fellowship in Basic Sciences, started and financed by the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, to draw exceptionally extremely motivated students for seeking basic science courses and research career in science.

The purpose of the program is to identify students with skill and ability for research; help them achieve their academic potential; assist them to take up research careers in Science, and assure the growth of the best scientific minds for research and development in the country.

Determination of the students is made from those studying in XI standard to 1st year of any undergraduate Program in Basic Sciences namely B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math./Int. M.Sc./M.S. in Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology having an talent for scientific research. Special groups / Committees are set up at IISc to select the applications and administer an aptitude test at various centers in the country.

Based on the performance in the aptitude test, short-listed students are called for an interview which is the final stage of the selection procedure. For receiving a scholarship, both aptitude test and interview marks are considered.

NOF-National Olympiad Foundation

National Olympiad Foundation accompanies one of its own GLOBAL talent search exams where the sources are utilized for students in demand who are unaware about education. NOF has its great features which are not impaired by any of the other organization in India.

NOF is first to start Olympiad Exams in Commerce, GK & Biology. NOF is an institution of academic exam administered across the country. An independent body of academicians of national and international fame serves all the questions for the exam.

NOF is an organization of scholastic examination conducted across the country. An exclusive body of academicians of national and international fame prepares all the questions for the examination.

Moreover, our R&D team consists of people from the topmost institutes across the world which keeps a tab on the latest development on the subject matters to ensure that the quality and competency of the examination can be maintained on an International ground.

  1. International Math Qualifier (IMQ)
  2. International Science Qualifier (ISQ)
  3. International English Qualifier (IEQ)
  4. International GK Qualifier (IGQ)
  5. International Commerce Qualifier (IComQ)
  6. International Biology Qualifier (IBQ)

SEAMO – Southeast Asian Mathematics Olympiad

SEAMO was started in 2016, assisting both Primary and Secondary schools in Southeast Asian countries. This Olympiad Exam presents a practical & neutral aspect to each student on their ability & skill and aims at encouraging excellence in every field of school education.

It provides a base platform that assesses the problem-solving capacity of a student by helping them to think deeply. Assists students to develop Logical & Analytical Thinking ability.

This exam is held for checking the mathematical skills for students.

NMMSS – National Means Cum-Merit Scholarship Scheme

The Centrally Sponsored Scheme “National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Scheme (NMMSS)” was originated in May, 2008. The purpose of the scheme is to award scholarships to worthy students of economically backward localities to hold their drop out at class VIII and support them to resume the study at the secondary stage.

Scholarship of Rs. 6000/- per annum (Rs.500/- per month) per student is granted to selected students every year for study in classes from 9th to 12th in State Government, Government aided and local body schools. There is a quota of scholarships for different states/UTs. Students whose familial income from all sources is not more than Rs. 1,50,000/- are qualified to avail the scholarships.

There is reservation as per State Government standards. The choice of students award of the scholarships is performed through an examination conducted by the State Governments. Scholarships are distributed by the State Bank of India directly into the bank accounts of students on a quarterly basis.

NTSE

National Talent Search Examination, originally termed as National Science Talent Search Scheme (NSTSS) and National Talent Search Scheme (NTSS), is one of the most important national level exam administered by National Council of Education Research and Training (NCERT).

NTSE offers 1000 scholarships for students of class X to allow them to pursue courses in the stream of science and social science (for up to doctoral level studies) and professional courses such as engineering and medicine (for up to second-degree level). However, in 2019, the total numbers of scholarships have been raised to 2,000.

Technothlon

Technothlon is yearly international school championship for classes IXth to XIIth managed and organized by the student organization of IIT Guwahati. It consists of prelims and mains exams.

Prelim is a written exam based on which teams are picked for the mains held at IIT Guwahati in which various events are held and prizes are given to the top three teams.

Student must be studying in standard 9th-12th in the current year. Classes 9th and 10th comprise the Junior squad while classes 11th and 12th comprise the Hauts squad. No prerequisite knowledge on definite topics in science or elsewhere is required.

Olympiad Exam Dates

Check the exam dates for the olympiads which will be conducted this year. We are providing here the links for each Olympiad exam. Students who are willing to write the exam and test their skills and aptitude knowledge, have to visit the below given links to know the dates of the exam.

  • SOF 2019 Exam Dates
  • Unified Council 2019 Exam Dates
  • Silver Zone 2019 Exam Dates
  • EduHeal Foundation 2019 Exam Dates
  • HummingBird Foundation 2019 Exam Dates
  • HBCSE Exam Dates

Key Features  and Benefits of Olympiads

  • Aims to focus on talented students and to emerge in the outer world competition.
  • Provides a platform for students to prove their logical and intellectual capabilities.
  • Helps students to build their confidence level and face the competition
  • Few provides scholarships for students, which can be used for future studies.
  • The certificates and medals students achieve by scoring in olympiads, help them to maintain a good academic background.
  • Improves students reasoning abilities and problem solving skills.
  • Helps to improve the brain power of students.

Prepares students to give the high level competitive exams such as CAT, IIT-JEE, MAT, etc.

CG-PPT-Syllabus

CG PPT Syllabus 2020 | Get Chhattisgarh Polytechnic Syllabus from Here

CG PPT Syllabus 2020: The Chhattisgarh Pre-Polytechnic Test is conducted for admission to Diploma Courses in Engineering and Technology, in different colleges of the state of Chhattisgarh by CG Vyapam. So the candidates who are planning to appear for CG PPT must be aware of CG PPT Syllabus and Exam Pattern. Having good knowledge over CG PPT Syllabus will help aspirants to schedule their preparation plan.

CG PPT Syllabus

Students who are in the absence of an internet connection can also download the CG PPT Syllabus PDF for free. Read on to find out everything about CG PPT Syllabus. CG PPT Exam Syllabus contains all chapters & topics of Class 10th Science & Maths. The complete syllabus of the CG PPT examination is mentioned below.

Entrance Exam Syllabus

CG PPT Syllabus of Science

General Properties of Matter And Sound:

Measurement, Motion & Force:

  • Measurement: Measurement in the International System of Units (S.I.), Tool of measurement: Vernier calipers,  screw gauge, Spherometer, Physical balance, and stopwatch.
  • Motion: Uniform and non-uniform motion, Particle, Body, Distance, Displacement, Speed, Velocity,  Acceleration, Retardation, Difference between velocity and speed.
  • Force: Mass and Weight, Inertia, Classification of force, Friction and Factors affecting friction, sliding and rolling friction, advantage, and disadvantage of friction, ways, and means of increase and decrease of friction, the importance of friction. Gravity and Gravitational force, Acceleration due to gravity.

Work and Energy:

  • Work: Definition, work done by Constant force, Kinetic and potential energy.
  • Heat & Temperature: Thermometer, Conversion of temperature in Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale. Specific heat, Heat capacity, Calculation of specific heat by the method of the mixture, Change of state, Latent heat, cooling due to evaporation, humidity and specific humidity, Heat expansion, Linear expansion, Superficial expansion, Volume expansion, and it’s coefficient.
  • Waves: Nature of waves, types of waves (longitudinal and transverse), simple harmonic motion, amplitude, Time period, Wavelength, Relation between — Velocities, Frequency & Wavelength.Sound: Nature of sound and its motion, range of hearing, ultrasonic waves and its application.

Wave and Sound:

  • Waves: Nature of waves, types of waves (longitudinal and transverse), simple harmonic motion, amplitude, Time period, Wavelength, Relation between — Velocities, Frequency & Wavelength.Sound: Nature of sound and its motion, range of hearing, ultrasonic waves and its application.

Matter: Structure & Behavior:

  • Matter: Nature and Behavior: Classification of matter based on the chemical constitution; elements, compounds, and mixtures, types of mixture.
  • Solution: Homogenous and heterogeneous, Suspension and Colloid, Concentration of solution.
  • Atoms and Molecules: Dalton’s atomic theory, Modem atomic theory, atomic and molecular mass, The mole, law of constant proportion, calculation of percentage composition of elements in simple compounds, determination of empirical and molecular formula in simple substances.

Structure of Atom:

  • Constituents of an atom (Electrons, Protons, and Neutrons), Atomic number, Atomic mass, Discovery of Nucleus, Bohr’s Atomic model, Distribution of electrons in Shells (up to atomic number 1-20), Valency electrons and valency, Isotopes, Isobars, Isotones, Radioactivity, Radioisotopes, and their application.

Light, Electricity & Magnetism:

  • Light: nature of light, a reflection of light, laws of reflection, reflection from plane and curved surface, image formation by plane convex and concave mirror, relation between focal length and radius of curvature, determination of focal length of concave mirror by single pin method, Relation between u-v-f.
  • Refraction of light: Laws of refraction, refraction by glass slab, critical angle, total internal reflection, use of total internal reflection in daily life. Convergin$ and diverging lens, Definition of focal length and optical center, image formation by lens.
  • Human eye, its defects and remedies. Comparison between photographic camera and human eye. Construction, working, uses and way diagram of simple telescope and astronomical telescope.
  • Electricity and its effects: electric intensity, potential. potential difference, electric current Ohms ’s law, Resistance, specific resistance, in fencing lac tors, combination of resistances and related numerical Thermal effect of current it’s use, calculation of power and electrical energy. Chemical effects of electric current. Primary and secondary their properties and drawback, Leclanche cell, dry cell, lead accumulator cell.
  • Magnetic effect of current: Magnetic effect of current, Oersted experiment, electro magnetic induction, electric motor, working principle and use of generator, general studies of alternate $current and direct current, electric discharge in gases, discharge tube, cathode rays, X-rays and their properties.
  • Magnetism: Magnet and it’s types, artificial magnet, methods of preparing of magnets, molecular theory of magnetism, demagnetization, magnetic keepers, magnetic lines of force and their Terrestrial magnetism, magnetic storm, magnetic meridian, geographical meridian, relation between V, H, I and 8.

Classification of Elements, Chemical Bonding, Reaction & Some Important Compound:

Periodic Classification of Elements:

  • A brief historical perspective of periodic classification of elements, Modern periodic law, modern Periodic table. Periodic Properties in period and in groups. metallic and non metal elements,  atomic size, ionization energy, and electron affinity.

Chemical Bonding:

  • Formation of Chemical Bonds, types of bonds-ionic and covalent bond, Electronegative and polar covalent  compound,  properties of ionic and covalent compound

Chemical Reactions:

  • Chemical reaction, Formula of simple compound, equation of simple chemical reaction and their balancing. Types of Chemical reactions – Combination, decomposition, displacement, Oxidation  and reduction

Rate of chemical reaction and chemical equilibrium:

  • Preliminary knowledge of rate of chemical reaction, Fast and slow chemical reactions, Reversible and irreversible chemical reaction. Reversible reaction and dynamic nature of equilibrium, Acids and bases, pH scale, Exothermic and endothermic reactions.

Some important chemical compounds:

  • Method of production of washing soda, baking soda. bleach in powder and plaster of Paris. Preparation of building material-lime cement, glass and steel. Laboratory method of preparing alcohol and acetic acid. Properties and uses of some general artificial polymers, polythene, polyvinyl chloride, Teflon. Soap and detergents.

Natural Resources:

  • Metals
  • Nonmetals
  • Coal and petroleum
  • Hydrocarbon
  • Source of Energy

Our Environment:

  • Biosphere
  • Pollution

CG PPT Syllabus of Maths

Algebra:

  • Rational Number & Expressions
  • Surds
  • Indices
  • Ratio and Proportion
  • Polynomials
  • Quadratic Equations
  • Arithmetic Series
  • Linear Equation

Trigonometry:

  • Trigonometric ratios: sin A, cos A, tan A, cot A, Sec A, cosec A.
  • Trigonometric ratios of 0º, 30º, 45º, 60º and 90º.
  • To find trigonometric ratios of 0º, 30º, 45º, 60º and 90º by Geometrical method.
  • Trigonometric equations: (0º<θ<90º).
  • Measurement of angle in different system degree, grade and radian.
  • Relation between arc, radius and central angle.
  • Trignometrical Identities.
  • Problems on height and distance.

Geometry:

  • Fundamental concepts of Geometry
  • Different theorems and/or axioms and their converse

Co-Ordinate Geometry:

  • Distance formula, section and mid-point formula.
  • Area of triangle, conditions for three points to be collinear, Centroid and Incentre of triangle.

Mensuration:

  • Area of triangle and rectangle.
  • Area and circumference of circle.
  • Area of sector of circle and length of arc of circle.
  • Area of four walls of cube and cuboids.
  • Surface area and volume of cube and cuboids.
  • Surface Area and Volume of prism, cylinder, cone and sphere.

Statistics:

  • Statistics and its definition
  • Collection and presentation of Data
  • Arranging data in ascending and descending order, cumulative frequency of a class, class-limit.
  • Graphical representation of statistical data, frequency polygon, cumulative frequency curve, histogram.
  • Problem-based on mean, median, mode and pie chart.
  • Preliminary knowledge of probability (based on single-event only).

CG PPT 2020 Highlights | CG PPT Syllabus

Exam Name Chhattisgarh Pre-Polytechnic Test
Commonly Known as  CG PPT
Conducting body CG Vyapam – Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board
Level State
Category Undergraduate (UG)
Exam Date  2nd Week of May 2020.
Mode Offline i.e. Paper and Pen-based Test (PBT)
Medium English
Duration 180 Minutes or 3 Hours
Official Website CG Vyapam
Helpdesk 0771- 2972780
[email protected]

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding CG PPT 2020 Syllabus. Students can also check the list of Engineering Entrance Exams in India.

AP EAMCET Exam Pattern

AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme and Syllabus

AP EAMCET Exam Pattern – The Andhra Pradesh Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test is conducted for admission to various engineering, medical and agricultural courses. JNT University Kakinada AP EAMCET 2020 will be conducted twice every year in the month of April in online CBT mode. So the candidates who are planning to appear for AP EAMCET must be aware of AP EAMCET Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing AP EAMCET Exam Pattern will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding AP EAMCET Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, marking scheme, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
AP EAMCET Exam Pattern.

AP EAMCET Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of AP EAMCET Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the AP EAMCET exam:

  • Name of the Exam/AP EAMCET Full form: Andhra Pradesh Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test
  • Commonly known as –  AP EAMCET
  • Exam Category – Pre-UG
  • Conducting body: JNTU Kakinada
  • Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • Mode of Registration: Online
  • Exam Type: State Level
  • Courses offered: Engineering, Medical, and Agricultural Courses
  • AP EAMCET Official Website: http://www.sche.ap.gov.in/eamcet

Detailed AP EAMCET Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of AP EAMCET Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed AP EAMCET Exam Pattern is tabulated below:

AP EAMCET Exam Pattern – Engineering

Subjects Total No. of Questions Marks
Mathematics 80 80*1
Physics 40 40*1
Chemistry 40 40*1
Total 160 Questions 160 Marks

AP EAMCET Exam Pattern – Agriculture

Subjects Total No. of Questions Marks
Botany 40 40*1
Zoology 40 40*1
Chemistry 40 40*1
Physics 40 40*1
Total 160 Questions 160 Marks

Highlights of AP EAMCET Exam Pattern

  1. For every correct answer, 1 Marks will be awarded.
  2. No Negative Marking for Incorrect Answer.
  3. There will be a total of 3 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry & Maths), 4 Sections for Agriculture
  4. The exam timings will be from 10:00 AM to 1:00 PM or 02:00 PM to 05;00 PM. So, the time duration of the exam is 3 hours.
  5. The total marks of the AP EAMCET exam Paper – I (160 Marks/160 Questions)
  6. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
  7. The medium of the exam will be Telugu and English for Telugu Medium, Urdu and English for Urdu Medium. (Candidates can select their preferred language while filling the application form).
  8. The exam will be held in online mode only.

AP EAMCET Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of AP EAMCET 2020 is tabulated below:

AP EAMCET 2020 Important Dates
Start of Online Application Form 04th week of February 2020
Last date to submit the online application form 04th week of March 2020
Last date to submit the online application form with the late fee 01st week of April 2020
Correction of Submitted Application Form 02nd week of April 2020
AP EAMCET 2020 Admit Card 03rd week of April 2020
Examination Date 03rd week of April 2020
Declaration of Result 01st week of May 2020

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding AP EAMCET exam pattern. Apart from knowing AP EAMCET exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the AP EAMCET syllabus completely. Going through the exam pattern and syllabus of AP EAMCET will assist aspirants to prepare their study plan and start their preparation accordingly.

We hope this detailed article on AP EAMCET Exam Pattern is helpful. If you have any queries regarding this article or AP EAMCET Exam Pattern, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible. 

MUJEE-Syllabus

MUJEE Syllabus | Get MUJEE Latest Syllabus from Here

MUJEE Syllabus: The Mangalayatan University Joint Entrance Examination is conducted for admission to various undergraduate programmes in technology by Mangalayatan University. So the candidates who are planning to appear for MUJEE must be aware of MUJEE Syllabus and Exam Pattern. Having good knowledge over MUJEE Syllabus will help aspirants to schedule their preparation plan.

MUJEE Syllabus

Students who are in the absence of an internet connection can also download the MUJEE Syllabus PDF for free. Read on to find out everything about MUJEE Syllabus. MUJEE syllabus for B.Tech includes topics from the three subjects mentioned below:

  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Mathematics

Entrance Exam Syllabus

MUJEE Question Paper Pattern for B.Tech

  • Physics – 35 Questions/ 35 Marks
  • Chemistry – 35 Questions/ 35 Marks
  • Maths – 35 Questions/ 35 Marks
  • Total – 105 Questions/ 105 Marks

MUJEE Syllabus for B.Tech: Physics

  • Units and Measurement Units for measurement, system of units-S.I.
  • Mechanics Motion in one dimension and  accelerated motion-scalar and vector quantities-Newton’s laws of motion-force and projectile motion-uniform circular motion friction-laws of friction
  • Gravitation, Mechanics of Solids and Fluids The universal law of gravitation, acceleration due to gravity-variation of ‘g’ with altitude, latitude, and depth-gravitation potential-escape velocity and orbital velocity.
  • Oscillations and Wave Motion Periodic motion-simple harmonic motion- equations of motion oscillations of spring-simple pendulum-free, forced and damped oscillation resonance.
  • Heat and Thermodynamics Kinetic theory of gases-postulates-pressure of a gas specific heat capacity-relation between Cp and Cv-first law of thermodynamics.
  • Ray and Wave Optics and Magnetism
  • Electricity and Magnetism Electrostatics-Coulomb’s inverse square law-dielectric constant-electric field-electric lines of force-electric dipole-electric potential-potential difference-electric flux-Gauss theorem-electrostatic induction-capacitor capacitors in parallel
  • Atomic Physics and Relativity Atomic structure-properties of cathode rays and positive rays-specific charge of an electron-atom model-Thomson atom model-Rutherford atom model-Bohr atom model- merits
  • Dual Nature of Matter and Nuclear Physics Matter waves-wave nature of particles Broglie wavelength-electron microscope. Nuclear properties; radius, mass, binding energy, density, isotopes
  • Electronics and Communication Semiconductors-doping-types-PN junction diode-biasing-diode as a Rectifier- transistors-transistor characteristics-amplifier-gain feedback in amplifiers-logic gates- basic logic gates-NOT, OR, AND, NOR

MUJEE Syllabus for B.Tech: Chemistry

  • Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry Matter and its nature, Dalton’s atomic theory; concept of atom, molecule, element, and compound; physical quantities and their measurements in chemistry, precision.
  • States of Matter Classification of matter into solid, liquid and gaseous states. Solid State: Classification of solids: molecular, ionic, covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea).
    Liquid State: Properties of viscosity and surface tension and effect of temperature on them (qualitative treatment only).  Dalton’s law of partial pressure; concept of absolute scale of temperature; ideal gas equation, kinetic theory of gases (only postulates).
  • Chemical Families–Periodic Properties Modern periodic law and present form of the periodic table, s & p block elements, periodic trends in properties of elements, atomic and ionic radii, ionization enthalpy
  • Atomic Structure Discovery of sub-atomic particles (electron, proton and neutron); Thomson and Rutherford atomic models and their limitations; nature of electromagnetic radiation, the photoelectric effect.
  • Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Covalent bonding: Concept of electronegativity, Fagan’s rule, dipole moment; Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and shapes of simple molecules. Quantum mechanical approach to covalent bonding: Valence bond theory–Its important features.
  • Chemical Energetics First law of thermodynamics, Energy changes during a chemical reaction, Internal energy and Enthalpy.
  • Chemical Thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics–Spontaneity of processes; S of the universe.
  • Solutions Different methods for expressing the concentration of solution-Molality, molarity, mole fraction, percentage (by volume and mass both), the vapor pressure of solutions and Raoult’s law-ideal and non-ideal solutions, vapour pressure-composition plots for ideal
  • Chemical Equilibrium Meaning of equilibrium, the concept of dynamic equilibrium. Equilibria involving physical processes: Solid-liquid, liquid-gas, and solid-gas equilibria, Henry’s law.
    Ionic equilibrium: Weak and strong electrolytes, ionization of electrolytes.
  • Electrochemistry Electrolytic and metallic conduction, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivities and their variation with concentration: Kohlrausch’s law and its applications
  • Surface Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics and Catalysis Adsorption–Physisorption and chemisorption and their characteristics.
    Factors affecting rates of reactions–factors affecting the rate of collisions encountered between the reactant molecules.
  • Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds Purification– Crystallization, sublimation, distillation, differential extraction, and chromatography– principles and their applications
    Quantitative analysis (basic principles only)
  • Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Tetravalency of carbon; shapes of simple molecules–hybridization (s and p)
    Nomenclature (Trivial and IUPAC) Covalent bond fission– Homolytic and heterolytic.
  • Hydrocarbons Classification, isomerism, IUPAC nomenclature, general methods of preparation, properties, and reactions.
    Alkanes–Conformations: Sawhorse and Newman projections (of ethane); Mechanism of halogenation of alkanes.
    Alkenes–Geometrical isomerism; Mechanism of electrophilic addition: addition of hydrogen.
    Alkynes–Acidic character; Addition of hydrogen, halogens, water and hydrogen halides; polymerization. aromatic hydrocarbons– nomenclature, benzene–structure.
  • Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen General methods of preparation, properties, reactions, and uses. Alcohols: Identification of primary, secondary.
    Ethers: Structure. Aldehyde and Ketones: Nature of carbonyl group; Nucleophilic addition reactions (addition of HCN, NH3 and its derivatives)
    Carboxylic acids: Reactions.
  • Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen General methods of preparation, properties, reactions, and uses. Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure
  • Polymers General introduction and classification of polymers, general methods of polymerization– addition and condensation, copolymerization; natural and synthetic rubber.
  • Bio-Molecules Carbohydrates–Classification: aldoses and ketoses; monosaccharides (glucose and fructose), constituent monosaccharides of oligosaccharides (sucrose, lactose, maltose) and polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen).
  • Chemistry in Everyday Life. Antihistamines–their meaning and common examples.

MUJEE Syllabus for B.Tech: Mathematics

  • Sets, Relations and Functions Sets and their representations, union, intersection, and complements of sets and their algebraic properties
  • Complex Numbers Complex numbers in the form a+ib and their representation in a plane. Argand diagram. Algebra of complex numbers, modulus.
  • Matrices and Determinants Determinants and matrices of order two and three, properties of determinants.
  • Applications of Matrices and Determinants Computing the rank of a matrix–a test of consistency and solution of simultaneous linear equations using determinants and matrices.
  • Quadratic Equations Quadratic equations in real and complex number system and their solutions. The relation between roots and coefficients, nature of roots.
  • Permutations and Combinations Fundamental principle of counting: permutation as an arrangement and combination as selection, the meaning of P(n,r) and C(n,r).
  • Mathematical Induction and its Applications Stating and interpreting the principle of mathematical induction. Using it to prove formula and facts.
  • Binomial theorem and its Applications Binomial theorem for a positive integral index; general term and middle term.
  • Sequences and Series
    Arithmetic, geometric and harmonic progressions. Insertion of arithmetic, geometric and harmonic means between two given numbers.
  • Differential Calculus Polynomials, rational, trigonometric, logarithmic and exponential functions. Inverse functions. Graphs of simple functions. Limits, continuity, differentiation of the sum, difference, product and quotient of two functions.
  • Applications of Differential Calculus Rate of change of quantities, monotonic– increasing and decreasing functions, maxima.
  • Integral Calculus Integral as an anti-derivative. Fundamental integrals involving algebraic, trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions. Integration by substitution, by parts, and by partial fractions. Integration using trigonometric identities. Integral as limit of a sum.
  • Differential Equations Ordinary differential equations, their order, and degree. Formation of differential equations.
  • Straight Lines in Two Dimensions Cartesian system of rectangular co-ordinates in-plane, distance formula, area of a triangle.conditions for the concurrence of three lines, a distance of a point from a line. Equations of internal and external bisectors of angles between two lines, coordinates of the centroid, orthocenter.
  • Circles in Two Dimensions Standard form of equation of a circle, general form of the equation of a circle, its radius and centre, equation of a circle in the parametric form, equation of a circle when the endpoints of a diameter are given, points of intersection of a line and a circle with the centre at the origin.
  • Conic Sections in Two Dimensions Sections of cones, equations of conic sections (parabola, ellipse, and hyperbola) in standard form, condition for y = mx+c to be a tangent and point(s) of tangency.
  • Vector Algebra Vectors and scalars, the addition of vectors, components of a vector in two dimensions and three-dimensional space, scalar and vector products, scalar and vector triple product. Application of vectors to plane geometry.
  • Measures of Central Tendency and Dispersion Calculation of mean, median and mode of grouped and ungrouped data.
  • Probability of an event, addition and multiplication theorems of probability and their applications; Conditional probability.
  • Trigonometry Trigonometrical identities and equations. Inverse trigonometric functions and their properties. Properties of triangles, including, incentre.

MUJEE 2020 Highlights

Exam Name Mangalayatan University Joint Entrance Examination
Known as MUJEE
Conducting body Mangalayatan University
Level University
Category Undergraduate
Exam Date February First week 2020 and April Last Week 2020
Mode of Exam Offline i.e. Paper and Pen-Based Test (PBT)
Medium English
Official Website Mangalayatan University
Helpdesk 8393878627
[email protected]

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding MUJEE 2020 Syllabus. Students can also check the list of Engineering Entrance Exams in India.

AP EAMCET 2020 Syllabus

AP EAMCET 2020 Syllabus | Detailed Syllabus With AP EAMCET Practice Questions

AP EAMCET 2020 Syllabus: Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University holds the responsibility for releasing the AP EAMCET 2020 syllabus. The concerned authority has not yet announced the syllabus but candidates must be thorough with class 11th and 12th concepts. The syllabus of AP EAMCET will be available on the official website. Applicants are advised to check the syllabus before starting to prepare for the exam. Moreover, candidates should be familiar with all the topics as it will save time which could be wasted on some unnecessary topics. AP EAMCET Syllabus 2020 will also be prescribed in the official brochure. The syllabus will cover topics from subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics.

AP EAMCET Syllabus 2019

Before getting into the details of AP EAMCET Syllabus 2019, let’s have an overview of the exam:

Name of the Exam AP Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (AP EAMCET)
Test Type State Level Entrance Test
Exam Date From 20th April 2020
Purpose of the Exam Admission to UG Engineering and other Professional Courses
Official Website www.sche.ap.gov.in
Subjects for Engineering Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Time Duration 3 hours

AP EAMCET 2020 Syllabus for Engineering

Although not the official one but the expected AP EAMCET 2020 syllabus of different subjects is prescribed below. Every single topic of the subject must be prepared well and candidates should not consider any topic to be of less importance.

Subject Number of Questions Maximum Marks
Mathematics 80 80
Physics 40 40
Chemistry 40 40
Total 160 160

AP EAMCET 2020 Physics Syllabus

  • Physics and Measurement
  • Kinetics
  • Laws of Motion
  • Work, Energy, and Power
  • Rotational Motion
  • Gravitation
  • Properties of Solids and Liquids
  • Thermodynamics
  • Kinetic Theory of Gases
  • Oscillation and Waves
  • Electrostatics
  • Current Electricity
  • Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
  • Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
  • Electromagnetic Waves
  • Optics
  • Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
  • Atoms and Nuclei
  • Electronic Devices
  • Communication System

AP EAMCET 2020 Chemistry Syllabus

Physical Chemistry

  • Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
  • States of Matter
  • Atomic Structure
  • Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
  • Chemical Thermodynamics
  • Solutions
  • Equilibrium
  • Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
  • Chemical Kinetics
  • Surface Chemistry

Inorganic Chemistry

  • Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
  • General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals
  • Hydrogen
  • S-Block Elements
  • P- block Elements
  • d and f-Block Elements
  • Co-ordination Compounds
  • Environmental Chemistry

Organic Chemistry

  • Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
  • Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
  • Hydrocarbons
  • Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
  • Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
  • Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
  • Polymers
  • Biomolecules
  • Chemistry in Everyday Life
  • Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

Mathematics

  • Integral Calculus
  • Limit, Continuity, and Differentiability
  • Sequence and Series
  • Binomial Theorem and its Simple Applications
  • Mathematical Induction
  • Permutation and Combination
  • Matrices and Determinants
  • Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
  • Sets, Relations, and Functions
  • Differential Equations
  • Co-ordinate Geometry
  • Three Dimensional Geometry
  • Vector Algebra
  • Probability and Statistics
  • Trigonometry
  • Mathematical Reasoning

AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern

Applicants who desire to apply for the exam must be aware of the AP EAMCET 2020 exam pattern. It is necessary for candidates to have complete knowledge regarding the exam. By knowing the exam pattern, applicants will automatically come to know about various factors such as mode of examination, type of questions, the total number of sections, distribution of marks, etc.

The candidates must know every single detail of the exam. The table below displays the exam pattern of AP EAMCET 2020

Particulars Description
Mode of Exam Online Mode
Duration of Exam 180 minutes
Type of Questions Objective type
Sections in the Exam 3 (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics)
Total number of Questions 160 questions (40 questions from Physics and Chemistry each and 80 questions from Mathematics)
Language of the exam English and Telugu
Marking Scheme 1 mark awarded for the correct response.
There will be no negative marking.

AP EAMCET 2020 Preparation Strategy

Here are some points that can help candidates to strategize how to prepare for the AP EAMCET 2020 examination

  • Have complete knowledge of exam pattern, syllabus and marking scheme.
  • Prepare from relevant study resource.
  • Refer to those books which contain every topic of the subject.
  • Make a time table
  • Devote equal time to each subject
  • Focus on the subject which seems to be more difficult.
  • Practice maximum number of sample papers and previous year’s question papers.
  • Make short notes while preparing for the entrance exam.
  • Take proper rest
  • Eat healthy food to remain mentally and physically strong.

We hope the detailed article on AP EAMCET 2020 Syllabus is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or AP EAMCET 2020 Syllabus, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

GITAM GAT Exam Pattern

GAT Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme, Exam Duration

GAT Exam Pattern – The GAT is conducted for admission to various UG Courses, M.Tech/M.Arch, M.Pharm courses in GITAM Deemed to be University. GITAM Admission Test 2020 is conducted in both Online (Computer Based Test [CBT]) and Offline Mode (Pen & Paper Test [PPT]). So the candidates who are planning to appear for GAT must be aware of GAT Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know GAT 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing GAT Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding GAT Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, exam pattern, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about GAT Exam Pattern.

GAT Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of GAT Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the GAT exam:

  • Name of the Exam/GAT Full form: GITAM Admission Test
  • Commonly known as –  GAT
  • Exam Category – Pre-UG, PG
  • Conducting body: GITAM Deemed to be University
  • Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT) and Pen & Paper Test (PPT)
  • Mode of Registration: Online
  • Exam Type: National Level
  • Courses offered: Engineering (B.Tech)UG Courses, M.Tech/M.Arch, M.Pharm
  • GAT Official Website: https://www.gitam.edu/

Detailed GAT Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of GAT Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the GAT 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed GAT Exam Pattern is listed below:

GAT 2020 – UG Courses

Section Subject No. of Questions Marks Allotted 
A Mathematics/ Biology 40 160
B Physics 30 120
C Chemistry 30 120
Total 100 400

GAT 2020 – M.Tech/M.Arch Programs

Exam Sections No. of Questions Marks
Quantitative Aptitude 40 160
Reasoning 30 120
Verbal Ability 30 120
Total 100 400

GAT 2020 – M.Pharm Programs

Exam Sections No. of Questions  Marks
Pharmaceutics 25 100
Pharmaceutical Analysis & Quality Assurance 25 100
Pharmacology 25 100
Pharmaceutical Chemistry 25 100
Total 100 400

GAT Marking Scheme Highlights

  • For every correct answer, 4 Marks will be awarded.
  • For every incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted.
  • No response: No marks will be awarded or deducted.
  • The total marks of the SAT (400 Marks/100 Questions)
  • Duration of the Exam – 2 Hours (or) 120 Minutes
  • Question Type – Multiple Choice Questions
  • UG Courses GAT Exam constitutes of 3 Sections Mathematics/Biology, Physics, and Chemistry
  • M.Tech/M.Arch Programs GAT Exam constitutes of 3 Sections Quantitative Analysis/ Aptitude, Intelligence and Reasoning, and Verbal Ability.
  • M.Pharm GAT Exam constitutes of 4 Sections Pharmaceutics, Pharmaceutical Analysis, and Quality assurance, Pharmacology, and Pharmaceutical Chemistry

GAT Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of GAT 2020 is tabulated below:

GITAM GAT 2020 Dates
Availability of Application form 1st week of Nov 2019
Last date for submission of filled-in Applications Forms 1st week of Apr 2020
Online slot booking 1st week of Apr 2020
Availability of E-hall tickets from 1st week of Apr 2020
Dates of Online Examination 1st to 3rd week of Apr 2020
Announcement of GAT-2020 Ranks 4th week of Apr 2020
Admission Counselling (B.Tech, B.Arch, B.Pharm) 1st week of May 2020
Counselling for JEE MAIN, AP & TS EAMCET RANKERS 1st week of Jun 2020
Admission Counselling (M.Tech, M.Arch, M.Pharm) To be announced!

NEET AP MBBS Merit List

NEET MBBS AP Rank List 2019 Released | Download AP Merit List 2019 PDF Here

NEET MBBS AP Rank List 2019: Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences Officials has released NEET MBBS AP Merit list on 17th June 2019. The authorities will publish Three AP MBBS Rank Lists,  viz., AP MBBS Eligible List, Provisional NEET MBBS Rank List, and Final NEET MBBS Rank List.

  • AP MBBS Eligible List – Eligible candidates to participate in AP MBBS Counselling.
  • Provisional NEET MBBS Rank List – List of Candidates Submitted Application Forms
  • The Final NEET MBBS Rank List – Complete details of shortlisted candidates.

NEET Merit List

There will be a separate NEET MBBS AP Provisional and Final Merit list for the management quota students. In this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding NEET 2019 MBBS AP Rank List. Read on to know everything about AP NEET Merit List 2019.

NEET MBBS AP Rank List 2019

Before getting into the details of NEET MBBS AP 2019 Rank List, let’s have an overview of the important dates:

Events Important Dates
Convenor Quota AP MBBS 2019 Applicant List 17th June 2019
Convenor Quota AP MBBS 2019 Provisional Merit List June 30, 2019
Convenor Quota Document Verification June
Convenor Quota AP MBBS 2019 Final Merit List 9th July 2019
Management Quota Provisional Merit List 9th July 2019
Management Quota Final Merit List 9th July 2019

NEET MBBS AP Rank List 2019 for Convenor Quota

The officials of Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada released the list of eligible candidates who can participate in AP MBBS counseling. Candidates who wish to secure MBBS/ BDS admission under Andhra Pradesh Convenor Quota can check the AP Eligible Merit List and fill up the application form. Candidates who will have registered will be called for document verification. On successful document verification, the NEET MBBS Andhra Pradesh Final Merit List will be released.

Type of Merit List Total Candidates 2019
Eligible List 40390 NEET MBBS AP Rank List
Provisional Merit List 15613 NEET MBBS Provisional Merit List
Final Merit List 12307 PH Category
Anglo Indian Category
PMC Category

The NEET 2019 Cut Off marks for General Category students is 134 marks, for PH category students is 120 marks, for OBC, SC & ST students the cutoff marks are 107.

NEET MBBS AP Rank List 2019 for Management Quota

Candidates who have applied for Management Quota seats can check the provisional and final Andhra Pradesh NEET Rank List which will be released by the authorities of Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences.

NEET MBBS AP Rank List 2019 – Document Verification

Candidates participating in NEET Andhra Pradesh MBBS Counselling must report to their respective reporting centers. Reporting candidates must also carry important documents as notified by the officials. The important documents to be carried to the reporting centers for NEET MBBS Counselling are listed below:

  • Aadhaar Card
  • Class 10 Pass Certificate
  • Date of Birth Certificate
  • Class 12 Marksheet
  • Local Status Certificate (if required)
  • Minority Certificate (if required)
  • NEET Admit Card
  • NEET Score Card
  • Caste Certificate (if required)
  • Required Certificate for special categories (Anglo Indian/ NCC/ CAP/ Sports & Games/ PH/ PMC)
  • Transfer Certificate

NEET MBBS Andhra Pradesh Rank List 2019 – NEET 2019 Cutoff

Candidates who wish to see their names in NEET 2019 MBBS Andhra Pradesh Merit List must obtain qualifying percentile marks in NEET 2019. Again this percentile will differ based on the candidate’s category. The NEET 2019 qualifying percentile based on the candidate’s category is tabulated below:

Category Percentile
Unreserved 50th Percentile
PWD candidates in unreserved category 45th Percentile
Reserved (SC/ST) and Persons with Disability (PwD) 40th Percentile

NEET MBBS Andhra Pradesh Rank List 2019 – Tie Breaker

If two or more candidates have the same rank, then the officials will follow the tiebreaker method to resolve the tie. The tie-breaking rules for  MBBS NEET AP Merit List are listed below:

  1. Tie 1: Candidates who have higher marks in NEET Biology exam will be given first preference.
  2. Tie 2: In case the tie still exists, the candidates who have higher marks in Chemistry will be given preference.
  3. Tie 3: If a tie still exists, then candidates with lesser number of NEET exam incorrect responses will be given preference.
  4. Tie 4: In case the tie still exists, then the candidate with older age will be preferred.

We hope that you are now provided with all the necessary information regarding NEET MBBS AP Rank List 2019. Candidates who are planning to appear for upcoming medical entrance exams like AIIMS and JIPMER can download AIIMS and JIPMER Previous Year Question Papers.

If you have any doubts or queries pertaining to NEET MBBS AP Rank List, feel free to post it in the comment section below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

JEE Main Physics Modern Physics Previous Year Questions with Solutions

JEE Main Physics Modern Physics Previous Year Questions with Solutions

For JEE Main other Engineering Entrance Exam Preparation,  JEE Main Physics Modern Physics Previous Year Questions with Solutions is given below.

Multiple Choice with ONE correct answer
1.An alpha particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of [1981-2Marks]
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Ans.
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2.The half life of radioactive radon is 3.8 day. The time at the end of which (l/20)th of the radon sample will remain undecayed is (given log10e= 0.4343) [1981-2Marks]
a)8 day   b) 16.5 day     c) 33 day    d) 76 day
Ans.
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3.Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are  [1983-1Mark]
a)electromagnetic radiations
b)the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
c)charged particles emitted by the nucleus
d)neutral particles.
Ans.
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4.If elements with principal quantum number 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be         [1983-lMark]
a)60        b) 32           c) 4           d) 64
Ans.
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5.Consider the spectral line resulting from the transition n = 2 -> n = 1 in the atoms and ions given below. The shortest wavelength is produced by [1983-l Mark]
a)hydrogen atom  b) deuterium atom  c) singly ionized helium  d) doubly ionised lithium
Ans.
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Ans.
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7.Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by :
a)the use of lead shielding
b)passing them through water
c)elastic collisions with heavy nuclei
d)applying a strong electric field
Ans.(b) Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by passing them through water. Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactors.

8.Consider a – particles, b – particles & g rays, each having an energy of 0.5 MeV. Increasing order of penetrating power of the radiations are : [JEE’94]
a)a, b, g b) a, g, b c) b, g, a d) g, b, a
Ans.
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9.An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons from a neutral helium atom. The energy (In eV) required to remove both the electrons form a neutral helium atom is: [JEE’95]
a)2    b) 49.2    c) 51.8    d) 79.0
Ans.
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10.A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emission of two particles with respective half-lives 1620 and 810 year. The time, in year, after which one-fourth of the material remains is [1995]
a)1080    b) 2430    c) 3240   d) 4860
Ans.
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13.As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the ground state of doubly ionized Li atom (Z = 3) is
a)51 b) 13.6        c) 40.8        d) 122.4
Ans.
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14.The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy 6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in Volts is :
a)2          b) 4            c) 6            d) 10
Ans.(b) Stopping potential is the negative potential which stops the emission of (K.E.)max electrons when applied.

Stopping potential = 4 volt.

15.In Hydrogen spectrum the wavelength of Ha line is 656 nm, where as in the spectrum of a distant galaxy, Ha line wavelength is 706 nm. Estimated speed of the galaxy with respect to earth is,[1999-2Marks]
a)2xl08m/s     b) 2xl07m/s
c) 2xl06m/s    d) 2xl05m/s
Ans.
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16.A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2, having non-zero velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particles, l1/ l2, is  [JEE ’99]
a)m1/ m2 b) m2/m1 c) 1.0 d) Om2/Om1
Ans.
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17.Which of the following is a correct statement?
a)Beta rays are same as cathode rays
b)Gamma rays are high energy neutrons.
c)Alpha particles are singly ionized helium atoms
d)Protons and neutrons have exactly the same mass
Ans.(a) a) Beta rays are same as cathode rays as they are streams of electrons. The statement is correct.(b)Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves They are not neutrons

(c)Alpha particles are doubly ionised helium atoms, not singly ionised heliumatoms.

(d)Protons have mass slightly less than that of neutrons. Masses are not exactly the same. Option (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect.Option (a) is correct.

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Ans.(b) Nuclear density is of the order of 1017 kg/m3

19.22Ne nucleus, after absorbing energy, decays into two a-particles and an unknown nucleus. The unknown nucleus is
a)nitrogen b) carbon c) boron d) oxygen
Ans.
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Ans.
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22.The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state. Which of the following statements is true? [JEE’ 2000 (Scr)]
a)Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energies decrease.
b)Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy remains the same.
c)Its kinetic and total energies decrease and its potential energy increases.
d)Its kinetic, potential and total energies decrease.
Ans.
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23.Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 101 and 1 respectively. If initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be 1/ e after a time of        [JEE ’ 2000 (Scr)]
a)1/(101)         b) 1/(111)
c) 11/(101)      d) 1/(91)
Ans.
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24.Electrons with energy 80 ke V are incident on the tungsten target of an X-ray tube. K shell electrons of tungsten have 72.5 keV energy. X-rays emitted by the tube contain only                                                    [2000-2Marks]
a)a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlug) with a minimum wavelength of 0.155 A0
b)a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with all wavelengths
c)the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten
d)a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of 0.155 A0 and the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten.
Ans.
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25.The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from[JEE’2001(Scr)]
a)inner orbits of atoms
b)free electrons existing in nuclei
c)decay of a neutron in a nucleus
d)photon escaping from the nucleus
Ans.
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26.The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition [2001-2Marks]
a) 2—>l  b) 3 —>2     c) 4 —>2     d)5—>4
Ans.
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29.The potential difference applied to an X – ray tube is 5 kV and the current through it is 3.2 mA. Then the number of electrons striking the target per second is         [JEE’ 2002 (Scr.)]
a)2 x 1016 b) 5 x 1016 c) 1 x 1017 d) 4 x 1015
Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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37.In a photoelectric experiment anode potential is plotted against plate current           [2004-2 Marks]
a)A and B will have same intensities while B and C will have different frequencies
b)B and C will have different intensities while A and B will have different frequencies
c)A and B will have different instensities while B and C will have equal frequeancies
d)B and C will have equal intensities while A and B will have same frequencies.
Ans.
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38.A 280 day old radioactive substance shows an activity of 6000 dps, 140 day later its activity becomes 3000 dps. What was its initial [2000-2marks]
a) 20000 dps b) 24000 dps
c) 12000 dps d) 6000 dps
Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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41.A photon of 10.2 eV energy collides with a hydrogen atom in ground state inelastically. After few microseconds one more photon of energy 15 eV collides with the same hydrogen atom.Then what can be detected by a suitable detector. [JEE’2005 (Scr)]
a)one photon of 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
b)2 photons of energy 10.2 eV
c)2 photons of energy 3.4 eV
d)1 photon of 3.4 eV and one electron of 1.4 eV
Ans.
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42.A beam of electrons is used in an Young double slit experiment. The slit width is d. When the velocity of electron is increased, then [2005]
a)no interference is observed
b)fringe width increases
c)fringe width decreases
d)fringe width remains same
Ans.
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43.If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen nuclei, the energy released per oxygen nuclei is [Mass of He nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of oxygen nucleus is 15.994 amu]
a) 7.6 MeV        b) 56.12 MeV
c) 10.24 MeV     d) 23.9 MeV
Ans.
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44.Given a sample of Radium-226 having half-life of 4 days. Find the probability, a nucleus disintegrates within 2 half lives.            [JEE 2006]
a) 1     b) 1/2     c) 3/4    d) 1/4
Ans.
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45.The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest integer) is [2007-3Marks]
a) 802 nm            b) 823 nm
c) 1882 nm          d) 1648 nm
Ans.
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46.In the options given below, let E denote the rest mass energy of a nucleus and n a neutron. The correct option is  [2007-3Marks]
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Ans.(a) Rest mass energy of U will be greater than the rest mass energy of the nuclei into which it breaks. The constituent nuclei and neutrons will have kinetic energy also, as a result of conservation of linear momentum.

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Ans.
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48.Which one of the following statements is WRONG in the context of X-rays generated from a X-ray tube? [2008]
a)Wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic number of the target increases
b)Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target.
c)Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electrical power given to the X-ray tube
d)Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons in the electrons in the X-ray tube.
Ans.
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Multiple Choice with ONE or  More Than ONE correct answers
52.The shortest wavelength of X-rays emitted from an X-ray tube depends on [1982-3Marks]
a)the current in the tube
b)the voltagae applied to the tube
c)the nature of the gas in tube
d)the atomic number of the target material
Ans.
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53.The threshold wavelength, for photoelectric emission, from a material is 5200 A0. Photo­electrons will be emitted when this material is illuminated with monochromatic radiation from a[1982-3Marks]
a)50 watt infrared lamp
b)1 watt infrared lamp
c)50 watt ultraviolet lamp
d)1 watt ultraviolet lamp.
Ans.
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Ans.(b),(c) Nuclear fusion reaction occurs when two or more lighter nuclei combine to produce a heavier nucleus.

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Ans.
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56.The X-ray beam coming from an X-ray tube will be [1985-2Marks]
a)monochromatic
b)having all wavelengths smaller than a certain maximum wavelength
c)having all wavelength larger than a certain minimum wavelength
d)having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
Ans.
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57.The mass number of a nucleus is [1986-2Marks]
a)always less than its atomic number
b)always more than its atomic number
c)sometimes equal to its atomic number
d)sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number.
Ans.
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58.Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because     [1987-2Marks]
a)there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted
b)the maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons depends only on the frequency of light and not on its intensity.
c)even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photoelectrons leave the surface immediately
d)electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized.
Ans.(a),(b),(c)

59.During a negative beta decay [1987-2Marks]
a)an atomic electron is ejected
b)an electron which is already present within the nucleus is ejected
c)a neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electrons,
d)a part of the binding energy of the nucleus is converted into an electron.
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-59

60.During a nuclear fusion reaction [1987-2 Marks]
a)a heavy nucleus breaks into two fragments by itself.
b)a light nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons breaks up
c)a heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons breaks up
d)two light nuclei combine to give a heavier nucleus and possibly other products.
Ans.(d)

61.The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is increased. As a result, in the emitted radiation
a)the intensity increases [1988-2Marks]
b)the minimum wavelength increases
c)the intensity remains unchanged
d)the minimum wavelength decreases
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-61

62.A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hr emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this source is     [1988-2Marks]
a) 6 hr   b) 12 hr    c) 24 hr   d) 28 hr
Ans.
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Ans.
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64.When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut off voltage and the saturation current are respectively 0.6 V and 18.0 mA. If the same source is placed 0.6m away from the photoelectric cell, then   [1992-2Marks]
a)the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt
b)the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt
c)the saturation current will be 6.0 mA
d)the saturation current will be 2.0 mA.
Ans.(b),(d) The stopping potential depends on the frequency of incident radiation and not on the intensity of incident radiation. The source is same, though placed at different distances, consequently the stopping potential remains unchanged. The saturation current depends on the radiation- intensity, incident on cathode of photocell. The radiation-intensity depends on the distance between the source and the cathode. Infact, inverse square law applies to intensity.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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67.Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct ?  [JEE’94]
a)The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less than the sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleons.
b)The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater than the sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleons.
c)In nuclear fusion, energy is released by fusion two nuclei of medium mass (approximately 100 amu).
d)In nuclear fission, energy is released by fragmentation of a very heavy nucleus.
Ans.(a),(d)
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-30
Ans.(c),(d) M, is the mass of 10Ne20
M2 is the mass of 20Ca40 nucleus.
Ne means 10 protons + 10 neutrons.
Ca means 20 protons + 20 neutrons.
Protons and neutrons are constituent particles. Due to mass defect, which is necessary for bind­ing the nucleus, mass of nucleus is always less than the sum of masses of protons and neutrons.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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72.
Ans.

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73.The half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean-life time of another radioactive element Y. Initially both of them have the same number of atoms. Then     [JEE ’99]
a)X & Y have the same decay rate initially
b)X & Y decay at the same rate always
c)Y will decay at a faster rate than X
d)X will decay at a faster rate than Y
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75.Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nucleon (B/A) versus mass number (A) is as shown in the figure. Use this plot to choose the correct choice (s) given below.

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76.Statement-1 : If the accelerating potential in an X-ray tube is increased, the wavelengths of the characteristic X-ray do not change.
Statement-2 : When an electron beam strikes the target in an X-ray tube, part of the kinetic energy is converted into X-ray energy.
a)Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
b)Statement-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1
c)Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
d)Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Ans.(b)

Comprehension based question 

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow

Passage – 1 : In a mixture of H-He+ gas (He+ is sinagly ionized He atom), H atoms and He+ ions are excited to their respective first excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total excitation energy to He+ ions (by collisions). Assume that the Bohr model of atom is exactly valid.   [2007-3Marks]

77.The quntum number n of the state finally populated in He+ ions is

a) 2    b) 3 c) 4             d) 5

Ans.
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jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-36
Ans.
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79.The ratio of the kinetic energy of the n = 2 electrons for the H atom to that of He+ ion is[2008]
a) 1/4     b) 1/2        c) 1     d) 2
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-79

Passage – 2 : The key feature of Bohor’s theory of spectrum of hydrogen atom is the quantization of an­gular momentum when an electron is revolving around a proton. We will extend this to a general rotational motion to find quantized rotational energy of a diatomic molecule assuming it to be rigid. The rule to be applied is Bohr’s quantization condition.

80.A diatomic molecule has moment of inertia I. By Bohr’s quantization condition its rotational energy in the nth level (n = 0 is not allowed) is
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-82

Passage – 3 : When a particle is restricted to move along x-axis between x = 0 and x = a, where a is of nanometer dimension, its energy can take only certain specific values. The allowed energies of the particle moving in such a restricted region, correspond to the formation of standing waves with nodes at its ends x = 0 and x = a. The wavelength of this standing wave is related to the linear momentum p of the particle according to the de Broglie relation. The energy of the particle of mass m is related to its linear momentum as
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-40

83.The allowed energy for the particle for a particular value of n is proportional to
a) ar2        b) a-3/2          c) a-1     d) a2
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-83

84.If the mass of the particle is m = 1.0 x 10-30kg and a = 6.6nm, the energy of the particle in its ground state is closest to
a) 0.8 meV        b) 8 meV     c) 80 meV       d) 800 meV
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-84

85.The speed of the particle, that can take discrete values, is proportional to
a) n-3/2    b) n-1    c) n1/2           d) n
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-85

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Ans.
(d) Plasma state is achieved at high temperature

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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Matching Type

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Ans.a—>p, b —>s, c—>r, d—>q

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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Subjective / Numerical integer type    
96.How many electrons, protons and neutrons are there in a nucleus of atomic number 11 and mass number 24? [1982-2Marks]
Ans.
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97.A uranium nucleus (atomic number 92, mass number 238) emits an alpha particle and the resultant nucleus emits (3 -particle. What are the atomic number and mass number of the final nucleus?         [1982-2Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-97

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-58
Ans.
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Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-99 jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-99-1

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-60
Ans.
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101.A double ionised lithium atom is hydrogen-like with atomic number 3.    [1985-6Marks]
i)Find the wavelength of the radiation required to excite the electron in Li from the first to the third Bohr orbit.(Ionisation energy of the hydrogen atom equals 13.6eV).
ii)How many spectral lines are observed in the emission spectrum of the above excited system?
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-101
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102.There is a stream of neutrons with a kinetic energy of 0.0327 eV. If the half life of neutrons is 700 second, what fraction of neutrons will decay before they travel distance of 10 m? [1986-6 Marks]
Ans.
"jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-102<br jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-102-1

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Ans.
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Ans.
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105.A gas of identical hydrogen – like atoms has some atoms in the lowest (ground) energy level A and some atoms in a particular upper (excited) energy level B and there are no atoms in any other energy level.The atoms of the gas make transition to a higher energy level by absorbing monochromatic light of photon energy 2.7eV. Subsequently, the atoms emit radiation of only six different photon – energies. Some of the emitted photons have energy 2.7eV, some have energy more and some have less than 2.7eV.
i)Find the principal quantum number of the initially excited level B.
ii)Find the ionization energy for the gas atoms.
iii)Find the maximum and the minimum energies of the emitted photons.   [1989-8 Marks]
Ans.
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106.Electrons in hydrogen like atoms (Z=3) make transitions from the fifth to the fourh orbit and from the fourth to the third orbit. The resulting radiations are incident normally on a metal plate and eject photo electrons. The stopping potential for the photo electrons ejected by the shorter wavelength, is 3.95 volt. Calculate the work function of the metal and the stopping potential for the photo electrons ejected by the longer wavelength. (Rydberg constant = 1.094 x 107m-1) [1990-71 marks]
Ans.
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Ans.
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108.A mono chropiatic point source radiating wave length 6000 A, with powev 2 watt, an aperture A of diameter 0.1 m and a lavge screen SC are placed as shown in fig. A photo emissive detector D of surface area 0.5 cm2 is ‘placed at the centre of the screen. The efficiency of the detector for the photo electron generation per incident photon is 0.9.
a)Calculate the photon flux at the centre of the screen and the photo current in the detector.
b)If the concave lens L of focal length 0.6 m is inserted in the aperture as shown, find the new values of photon flux and photo current. Assume a uniform average transmission of 80% from the lens.
c)If the work function of the photo emissive  sur­face is leV, calculate the values of the stopping potential in the two cases (without and with the lens in the aperture). [1991-2+4+2 Marks]
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Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-108
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109.Photo electrons are emitted when 400 nm radiation is incident on a surface of work function 1.9eV. These photo electrons passes through a region containing a-particles. A maximum energy electron combines with an a-particle to form a He+ ion, emitting a single photon in this process. He+ ions thus formed are in their fourth excited state. Find the energies in eV of the photons, lying in the 2 to 4eV range, that are likely to be emitted during and after the combination. [Take, h = 4.14 ’10-15 eV-s ][JEE ’99]
Ans.
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110.A hydrogen – like atom of atomic number Z is in an excited state of quantum number 2 n. It can emit a maximum energy photon of 204 eV. If it makes a transition to quantum state n, a photon of energy 40,8 eV is emitted. Find n. Z and the ground state energy (in eV) for this atom. Also, calculate the minimum energy (in eV) that can be emitted by this atom during de-excitation Ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-110
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111.When a beam of 10.6 eV photon of intensity 2 W/ m2 falls on a platinum surface of area 1 x 104 m2 and work function 5.6 ev, 0.53% of the incident photons eject photo electrons. Find the number of photo electrons emitted per sec and their minimum and maximum energies in eV. [JEE’ 2000]
Ans.
“>jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-111jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-111-1

112.A hydrogen like atom (described by the Bohr model) is observed to emit six wavelengths, originating from all possible transition between a group of levels. These levels have energies between – 0.85 eV and – 0.544 eV (including both these values) Find the atomic number of the atom.Calculate the smallest wavelength emitted in these transitions.    [JEE’ 2002]
Ans.
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113.Two metallic plates A and B each of area 5 x lO”4 m2, are placed at a separation of 1 cm. Plate B carries a positive charge of 33.7 x 10~12 A monochromatic beam of light, with photons of energy 5 eV each, starts falling on plate A at t = 0 so that 1016 photons fall on it per square meter per second. Assume that one photo electron is emitted for every 106 incident photons. Also assume that all the emitted photo electrons are collected by plate B and the work function of plate A remains constant at the value 2 eV. Determine [JEE’ 2002]
a)the number of photo electrons emitted up to t = 10 sec.
b)the magnitude of the electric field between the plates A and B at t = 10 s and
c)the kinetic energy of the most energetic  photo electron emitted at t = 10 s when it reaches plate B.
(Neglect the time taken by photo electron to reach plate B)
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-113
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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117.The photons from the Balmer series in Hydrogen spectrum, having wavelengths between 450 nm to 700 nm, are incident on a metal surface of work function 2 eV. Find the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electron. (Given he = 1242 e V nm) [2004-4 Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-117
“>jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-117-1

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Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-118
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119.Highly energetic electrons are bombarded on a target of an element containing 30 neutrons. The ratio of radii of nucleus to that of helium nucleus is (14)1/3. Find          [JEE 2005]
a)atomic number of the nucleus
b)the frequency of Ka line of the X-ray produced. (R = l.lx 107 nr1 and c = 3 x 108 m/s)
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-119
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120.In hydrogen-like atom (z = 11), nth line of Lyman series has wavelength 1 equal to the de-Broglie’s wavelength of electron in the level from which it originated. What is the value of n? [JEE 2006]
Ans.
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Ans.
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122.Light from a dischargebe containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of a piece of sodium. The kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectrons emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. The work function for sodium is 1.82 eV. Find –
a)the energy of the photons causing the photoelectric emission.
b)the quantum numbers of the two levels involved in the emission of these photons.
c)the change in the angular momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the above transition, and
d)the recoil speed of the emitting atom assuming it to be at rest before the transition.
(Ionization potential of hydrogen is 13.6 eV)[1992-lO Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-122
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-122-1

123.A neutron of kinetic energy 65 eV collides inelastically with a singly ionized helium atom at rest . It is scattered at an angle of 90° with respect of its original direction.
i)Find the allowed values of the energy of the neutron & that of the atom after collision.
ii)If the atom gets de-excited subsequently by emitting radiation , find the frequencies of the emitted radiation. (Given : Mass of he atom = 4x(mass of neutron), ionization energy of H atom =13.6 eV)     [JEE ’93]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-123
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-123-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-123-2
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-123-3
“>jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-123-4
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-123-6

124.A small quantity of solution containing 24Na  radionuclide (half life 15 hours) of activity 1.0 microcurie is injected into the blood of a person. A sample of the blood of volume 1 cm3 taken after 5 hours shows an activity of 296 disintegrations per minute. Determine the total volume of blood in the body of the person. Assume that the radioactive solution mixes uniformly in the blood of the personal Curie = 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second) [JEE’94]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-124
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-124-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-124-2

125.A hydrogen like atom (atomic number Z) is in a higher excited state of quantum number n. This excited atom can make a transition to the first excited state by successively emitting two photons of energies 10.20 eV & 17.00 eV respectively. Alternatively , the atom from the same excited state can make a transition to the second excited state by successively emitting two photons of energies 4.25 eV & 5.95 eV respectively. Determine the values of n & Z. (Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV)           [JEE’94]
Ans.
“>jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-125
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-125-1

126.An electron, in a hydrogen-like atom, is in an excited state. It has a total energy of -3.4 eV. Calculate (i) the kinetic energy and (ii) the de Broglie wavelength of the electron. [1996-3Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-126
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-126-1

127.At a given instant there are 25% undecyaed radio-active nuclei in a sample. After 10 second, the number of undecayed nuclei reduces to 12.5%. Calculate
(i) mean-life of the nuclei, and
(ii) the time in which the number of undecayed nuclei will further reduced to 6.25% of the reduce number.         [1996-3Marks]

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-127
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-127-1

128.In an ore containing uranium; the ratio of U238 to Pb206 nuclei is 3. Calculate the age of the ore, assuming that all the lead present in the ore is the final stable product of U238. Take the half-life of U238 to be 4.5 x 109 year.        [1997-5Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-128

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-70
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-129
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-129-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-129-2
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-129-3

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-71
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-130
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-130-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-130-2

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-72
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-131
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-131-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-131-2

132.In a nuclear reaction 235 U undergoes fission liberating 200 Me V of energy . The reactor has a 10% efficiency and produces 1000 MW power, if the reactor is to function for 10 year, find the total1 mass of uranium required. [2001-5 Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-132
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-132-1

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-73
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-133
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-133-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-133-2

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-74
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-134
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-134-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-134-2
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-134-3
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-134-4

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-75
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-135
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-135-1
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-135-2

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-76
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-136

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-77
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-137

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-78
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-138

139.A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work funtion 4.7 eV is suspended from an insulting thread in free-space. It is under continuous illumination of 200 nm wavelength light. As photo electrons are emitted, the sphere gets charged and acquires a potential. The maximum number of photo elec­trons emitted from the sphere is A x 10z (Where 1< A <10). The value of “Z” is (2011)
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-139

True / False

140.The kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by a photosensitive surface depends on the intensity of the incident radiation.          [1981-2 Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-140

141.In a photoelectric emission process the maximum energy, of the photo electrons increases with increasing intensity of the incident light. [1986-3 Marks]
Ans.

False : Maximum energy of photoelectrons increases with increasing frequency of incident light. The number of photoelectrons emitted increases with increasing intensity of light.

142.The order of magnitude of the density of nuclear matter is 104 kg m-2  [1989-2 Marks]
Ans.
False : Nuclear density is of the order of I0i7 kg/m3. Hence the statement is false.

Fill in the blanks

143.To produce characteristic X-rays using a tungsten target in an X-ray generator, the accelerating voltage should be greater than………. volt and the energy of the characteristic radiation is……….. eV.(The binding energy of the innermost electron in tungsten is 40 keV.)  [1983-2 Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-143

144.The radioactive decay rate of a radioactive element is found to be 103 disintegration/second at a certain time. If the half life of the element is one second, the decay rate after one second is…………. and after three second is………..     [1983-2 Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-144
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-144-1

145.The maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted in the photoelectric effect is linearly dependent on the…………. of the incident radiation  . [1984-2Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-145

146.In the uranium radioactive series, the initial nucleus is U and the final nucleus is Pb . When the uranium nucleus decays to lead, the number of a -particles emitted are……… and the number of (3 –

particles emitted are………            [1985-2Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-146

147.When the number of electrons striking the anode of an X-ray tube is increased the……. of the emitted X-rays increase, while when the speed of the electrons striking the anode are increased the cut-off wavelength of the emitted X-rays………………. [1986-2Marks]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-147

148.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-148
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-148

149. Atoms having the same…………….but different………. are called isotopes.  [1986-2 marks]
Ans.
Isotopes have same atomic number (Z) and different mass numbers (A).

150.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-150
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-150
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-150-1

151.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-151
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-151

152.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-152
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-152

153.In an X-ray tube, electrons accelerated through a potential differenc e of 15,000 volt strike a copper target. The speed of the emitted X-rays inside the tube is  ……..     rn/s.      [1992-1Mark]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-153

154.In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio of the kine tic energy to the total energy of the electron in a quantum state n is… [1992-lMark]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-154

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-155
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-155

156.A potential difference of 20 KV is applied across an x-ray tube. The minimum wave length of X – rays generated is       [JEE’96]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-156

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-157
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-157

158.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-158
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-158

159.The recoil speed of a hydrogen atom after it emits a photon in going from n = 5 state to n = 1 state is    m/s.      [1997-1Mark]
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-physics-modern-physics-159

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