AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern

AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern | Mode of Exam, Marking Scheme, Syllabus and Paper Pattern

AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern: Candidates who wish to apply for the exam must be aware of the AP EAMCET 2020 exam pattern. It is crucial for students to have complete knowledge regarding the examination. Through an exam pattern, aspirants come to know about various factors such as mode of examination, type of questions, the total number of sections, distribution of marks, etc. This will eventually help candidates to prepare well for an entrance examination. AP EAMCET Exam Pattern 2020 will let candidates know about every minute detail regarding the exam.

AP EAMCET 2020

Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Kakinada will conduct AP EAMCET 2020 examination on the behalf of Andhra Pradesh State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE). AP EAMCET stands for Andhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture, and Medical Common Entrance Test. It is a state level entrance exam which grants admission in various courses such as Engineering, Agriculture, and Medical. The admission authority provides admission to applicants within the state of Andhra Pradesh. Various private and government institutes accept the score of AP EAMCET 2020 exam.

AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern

Go through the below mentioned key points to know about AP EAMCET 2020 exam pattern

  • The exam will be held in online mode i.e. it will be a computer-based test.
  • AP EAMCET 2020 exam will be conducted for 180 minutes.
  • There will be objective type questions in the exam
  • The question paper will be divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics/Biology
  • There will be 40 questions each from Physics and Chemistry section and 80 questions from Mathematics.
  • The question paper will contain a total of 160 questions
  • The question paper will be in English and Telugu languages.
  • For each correct response, one mark will be awarded.
  • There will be no negative marking for an incorrect response.
Particulars Description
Mode of Exam Online Mode
Duration of Exam 180 minutes
Type of Questions Objective type
Sections in the Exam 3 (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics)
Total number of Questions 160 questions (40 questions from Physics and Chemistry each and 80 questions from Mathematics)
Language of the exam English and Telugu
Marking Scheme 1 mark awarded for the correct response.
There will be no negative marking.

AP EAMCET 2020 Syllabus

All the candidates who have applied for the exam must be familiar with the AP EAMCET 2020 syllabus. Applicants will be able to check the syllabus from the official website. The syllabus of the exam will cover topics from subjects such as Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics/Biology. Candidates must be thorough with the class 11th and 12th syllabus as the exam will be based on the level of these classes. Candidates must prepare for the exam as per the syllabus prescribed by the exam conducting body and furthermore, it will save time. Preparing for the exam according to the AP EAMCET Syllabus 2020 will let candidates utilize time in a proper manner without wasting on some unnecessary random topics.

AP EAMCET 2020 Preparation Tips

Here are some of the AP EAMCET 2020 preparation tips which will benefit candidates and will let them score well in the entrance exam

  • Have complete knowledge of exam pattern, syllabus and marking scheme.
  • Prepare from suitable and relevant study source.
  • Have a good set of books which will contain all the important topics of syllabus
  • Make a time table and devote equal time to each subject which will directly result in the proper management of time.
  • Practice an ample number of sample papers and previous years question papers as possible.
  • Make brief notes while preparing for the AP EAMCET 2020 examination.
  • Practice a lot of mock tests to analyze the preparation.
  • Take proper rest to keep the mind fresh
  • Eat healthy food rich in minerals, vitamins, nutrients, etc.

We hope the detailed article on AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or AP EAMCET 2020 Exam Pattern, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

AP EAMCET 2020 Eligibility Criteria

AP EAMCET 2020 Eligibility Criteria | Age, Domicile, Qualification and Nationality

AP EAMCET 2020 Eligibility Criteria: All the interested candidates who want to apply for the examination needs to fulfill the AP EAMCET 2020 eligibility. Moreover, the authority will accept applications of only eligible candidates. The eligibility is defined by a certain set of requirements which is required to be satisfied by desiring aspirants. Thus applicants are advised to first check the eligibility of AP EAMCET 2020 and further proceed to apply by filling an application form. The application of non-eligible applicant will face rejection and in addition, they will not be allowed to apply for the exam. Therefore, students must go through the AP EAMCET Eligibility 2020.

AP EAMCET 2020 Eligibility Criteria

Applicants can refer to the AP EAMCET 2020 eligibility so as to know whether they are eligible to apply or not. The various requirements that have to be fulfilled by applicants are listed below

  • Nationality: The candidate must hold the citizenship of India. PIO/OCI candidates are also considered eligible to apply.
  • Domicile: The interested applicant must have a domicile of Andhra Pradesh or Telangana.
  • Age and Qualification: Both of these requirements vary according to the different courses through the valid score of AP EAMCET 2020 examination.

AP EAMCET 2020 Eligibility Criteria Course Wise

For Engineering, B.Tech (Dairy), B.Tech (Agriculture Engineering), B.Tech (Food Science and Technology), and B.Sc (Agriculture Engineering) courses

  • The candidates who have qualified class 12th or equivalent exam with Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry as optional or related vocational courses in the fields of Engineering and Technology can apply.
  • Those who have passed Diploma examination in Engineering can are considered eligible to apply too.
  • Applicants must have an age of 16 years as on 31st December of the year of admission for Engineering and Pharmacy courses. There is no upper age limit.
  • For B.Tech (Dairy Technology/ Ag. Engineering)/ FS & T) and B.Sc. (Agr. Engg), students must have an age of 17 years as on 31st December of the year of admission. The upper age limit for general category is 22 years while for SC/ST categories it is 25 years.

For B.V.Sc. and A.H., B.Sc. (Horticulture) and B.F.Sc. courses

  • Those applicants who have passed 12th standard or equivalent exam with the related subjects can apply for the AP EAMCET 2020 examination.
  • Aspirants must have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission. The upper age limit for general category is 22 years whereas it is 25 years for SC/ ST categories.

For B.Pharm course

  • Students must have qualified their class 12th or equivalent exam with Biology, Physics, and Chemistry as optional subjects.
  • The applying candidates must have an age of 16 years as on the day of the beginning of admission.

For Pharm – D course

  • Applicants must have passed their 12th standard or equivalent exam with Biology, Physics, and Chemistry as optional subjects.
  • Candidates who have qualified a recognized Diploma examination in Pharmacy are considered eligible too.
  • General category students must have obtained a minimum of 45% marks while the Reserved category students must have obtained at least 40% for in the aggregate of specified subjects.
  • The candidate must have completed 17 years of age as on 31st December of the year of admission.

AP EAMCET 2020 Application Form

Jawaharlal Nehru Technical University (JNTU) will be responsible for releasing the AP EAMCET 2020 Application Form. Candidates who desire to apply for the entrance exam are required to fill the application form via online mode. The form will be available in the 2nd week of February 2020. Students have to visit the official website in order to fill the application form. But before proceeding to fill the application form of AP EAMCET 2020, applicants are advised to check the eligibility criteria. The exam conducting body will allow only eligible aspirants to fill the form.

The first thing that applicants need to do is to pay an application fee. This fee differs according to the stream for which applicants have to apply. After the payment has been deposited, applicants have to provide all the required details such as personal, educational and communication details. Apart from these details applicants also have to upload scanned images of their photograph and signature in the AP EAMCET Application Form 2020. When the form will be completely filled candidates have to submit it on or before the given deadline which is in the fourth week of March 2020.

AP EAMCET 2020 Application Fee

  • The application fee for Agriculture is Rs. 450
  • The application fee for The stream of Engineering is also Rs. 450
  • Candidates have to pay Rs. 900 in order to apply for both the streams (Engineering and Agriculture)

We hope the detailed article on AP EAMCET 2020 Eligibility Criteria is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or AP EAMCET 2020 Eligibility Criteria, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

JoSAA 2019 Eligibility Criteria

JoSAA 2019 Eligibility Criteria for JEE Main Paper 1 and 2, JEE Advanced and Complete Procedure

JoSAA Eligibility Criteria – The qualified candidates of JEE Main and JEE Advanced have to register for JoSAA 2019 in order to attend the counseling. The authority will accept the applications of those applicants who meet and fulfill the JoSAA 2019 Eligibility. On the other hand, a non-eligible candidate will not be allowed to register and in addition, his or her application will face rejection. Thus qualified aspirants who wish to get admission in IITs, NITs, IIITs and CFTIs must check the eligibility of JoSSA 2019. The eligibility of JEE Main must be satisfied by candidates who want to apply for admission in NITs, IIITs and CFTIs while the eligibility of JEE Advanced must be satisfied by candidates who want to apply for admission in IITs.

Apart from this JoSAA Eligibility 2019 will also differ according to various participating institutes which offer admission to qualifiers and courses. The institute will grant seat to only eligible candidates in the desired course. The registration will begin from 2nd week of June 2019.

Note: The JoSAA 2019 eligibility for JEE Main will depend upon the Paper 1 (B.Tech) and Paper 2 (B.Arch)

JoSAA 2019 Eligibility for JEE Main Paper 1

Candidates who have appeared in JEE Main Paper 1 must satisfy the following requirements for participating in JoSAA 2019:

  • Applicants must have obtained a score above the prescribed cutoff in the Paper 1 of JEE Main
  • The candidate must have passed 10+2 with Physics and Mathematics as compulsory subjects with any one of the following subjects Chemistry/Biology/Biotechnology/Technical Vocational Subject.
  • Aspirants belonging to general category must have obtained a minimum aggregate of 75% while aspirants belonging to SC/ST category must have obtained 65%.

JoSAA 2019 Eligibility for JEE Main Paper 2

The interested applicants must fulfill the following eligibility to take part in JoSAA 2019:

  • Candidates must have qualified Paper 2 of JEE Main by scoring marks equivalent to or above the released cutoff.
  • An individual must have studied Mathematics as a mandatory subject in class 12th.
  • General category applicants must have secured 75% while SC/ST applicants must have secured 65%.

JoSAA Eligibility for JEE Advanced

A set of requirements must be fulfilled by applicants and these requirements are mentioned as follows

  • Candidates must have qualified JEE Advanced examination with a valid score that satisfies the cutoff as prescribed by the authority
  • Students belonging to the general category must have obtained 75% in qualifying examination while students belonging to reserved category must have obtained 65%.

JoSAA 2019 – Complete Procedure

  • Candidates who fulfill the above mentioned JoSAA 2019 Eligibility for applying for admission in IITs, NITs, IIITs and CFTIs can proceed further to register themselves and fill the application form.
  • The registration will commence from the second week of June 2019 tentatively.
  • Upon successful registration, students have to fill the choice of courses and colleges according to their preference and interest.
  • Applicants have to lock all the filled choices before the given deadline.
  • The conducting authority will then conduct mock allotment in 2 rounds
  • Through mock allotment and choices filled, students will come to know whether they will get a seat in the desired college or not and in case they will not, then they can change their filled choices.
  • After completion of mock allotment, the authority will conduct seven rounds of seat allotment in which eligible candidates will be granted seats.
  • If satisfied with the seat then candidates have to download the Seat Allotment Letter and make the payment of Rs. 35, 000
  • Once the payment has been deposited, aspirants have to report at the specified venue for verification of documents
  • If candidates will not be satisfied with the allotted then they have to choose any of the following options: floating, freezing or sliding.
  • Finally, applicants who are satisfied with the seat have to report at the allotted reporting centers to deposit the remaining academic fees in order to confirm their admission.

JEE Main Physics Practical Physics Previous Year Questions with Solutions

JEE Main Physics Practical Physics Previous Year Questions with Solutions

For JEE Main other Engineering Entrance Exam Preparation,  JEE Main Physics Practical Physics Previous Year Questions with Solutions is given below.

Multiple Choice with ONE correct answer
1.In a screw gauge, the zero of main scale coincides with fifth division of circular scale in figure (i) The circular division of screw gauge are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one rotation. The diameter of the ball is in figure (ii) is [2006-3 marks]
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-1
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-7

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-2
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-3
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-8

3.A student performs an experiment to determine the Young’s modulus of a wire, exactly 2m long, by Searle’s method. In a particular reading, the student measures the extension in the length of the wire to be 0.8mm with an uncertainty of ± 0.05mm at a load of exactly 1.0 kg. The student also measures the diameter of the wire to be 0.4 mm with an uncertainty of ± 0.01mm- Take g = 9.8m/s2 (exact). The Young’s modulus obtained from the reading is [2007-3 marks]
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-4
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-9
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-10

4.Students I,II and III perform an experiment for measuring the acceleration due to gravity (g) using a simple pendulum. They use different lengths of the pendulum and/or record time for different number of oscillations. The observations are shown in the table. Least count for length =0.1cm Least count for time = 0.1s
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-5
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-6
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-11
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-12

5.A vernier calipers has 1 mm makes on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calipers, the least count is
a) 0.02 mm b) 0.05 mm
c) 0.1 mm d) 0.2 mm

Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-13

Subjective / Numerical integer type
6.If nth division of main scale coincides with (n +1)th  divisions of vernier scale. Given one main scale division is equal to a units. Find the least count of the vernier. [2003-2 marks]
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-14

7.A screw gauge having 100 equal divisons and a pitch of length 1 mm is used to measure the diameter of a wire of length 5.6 cm. The main scale reading is 1 mm and 47th circular division coincides with the main scale. Find the curved surface area of wire in  cm to appropriate significant figure. (use pi = 22/7) [2004-2 marks]
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-15
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-16

8.In a Searle’s experiment, the diameter of the wire as measured by a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm is 0.050 cm. The length, measured by a scale of least count 0.1 cm, is 110.0 cm. When a weight of 50 N is suspended from the wire, the extension is measured to be 0.125 cm by a micrometer of least count 0.001 cm. Find the maximum error in the measurement of Young’s modulus of the material of the wire from this data [2004-2 marks]
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-17

9.The side of a cube is measured by vernier callipers (10 divisions of a vernier scale coincide with 9 divisions of main scale, where 1 division of main scale is 1 mm). The main scale reads 10 mm and first division of vernier scale coincides with the main scale. Mass of the cube is 2.736 g. Find the density of the cube in appropriate significant figures.   [2005-2 marks]
Ans.
JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Physics Practical Physics-18

JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry in Everyday Life and Miscellaneous

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry in Everyday Life and Miscellaneous

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-
Ans.4) NH4+ ions are increased to suppress release of OH” ions, hence solubility product of Fe(OH)3 is attained. Colour of precipitate is different.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-2
Ans.(3) The given compound is aspirin which is antipyretic and analgesic.

3.P-particle is emitted in radioactivity by (2002)
(1)conversion of proton to neutron
(2)from outermost orbit
(3)conversion of neutron to proton
(4)p-particle is not emitted
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-3

4.Which of the following could act as a propellant for rockets ?                       (2003)
(1)Liquid oxygen + liquid argon
(2)Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen
(3)t Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen
(4)Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen
Ans.(2) Liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen are used as excellent fuel for rockets. H^/) has low mass and high enthalpy of combustion where as oxygen is a strong supporter of combustion.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-5
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-5

6.Which one of the following statements is correct ?                (2003)
(1)From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and Agl, ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl
(2)Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution
(3)On boiling at solution having K+, Ca2+ and HC03~ we get precipitate of K,Ca(C03).,
(4)Manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in the reducing flame.
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-6

7.A red solid is insoluble in water. However it becomes soluble if some KI is added to water. Heating the red solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured fumes and droplets of a metal appear on the cooler parts of the test tube. The red solid is (2003)
(1)Hgl 2) HgO
3) Pb304       4) (NH4)2Cr207
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-7

8.Which one of the following nitrates will leave behind a metal on strong heating ?        (2003)
(1)Copper nitrate
(2)Manganese nitrate
(3)Silver nitrate
(4)Ferric nitrate
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-8

9.Consider the following nuclear reactions M —N +2 He * N —L + 2P+ The number of neutrons in the element L is      (2004)
(1)142               2) 146
3) 140                 4) 144
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-9

10.Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories ?                                                             (2004)
(1)A co- enzyme 2) An antibiotic
3) An enzyme               4) A hormone
Ans.(4) Insulin

11.Which one of the following types of drugs reduces fever ?                                     (2005)
(1)Analgesic 2) Antipyretic
3) Antibiotic    4) Tranquiliser
Ans.(2)Temperature reduction

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-12
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-12

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-13
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-13

14.Regular use of which of the following fertilizer increases the acidity of soil ?              (2007)
(1)Potassium nitrate
(2)Urea
(3)Superphosphate
(4)Ammonium sulpahte
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-14

15.Which of the following nuclear reactions will generate an isotope ?                          (2007)
(1)neutron particle emission
(2)positron emission
(3)a-particle emission
(4)p -particle emission
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-15

16.Aspirin is known as (2012)
(1)Acetyl salicylic acid
(2)Phenyl salicylate
(3)Acetyl salicylate
(4)Methyl salicylic acid
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-in-everyday-life-and-miscellaneous-16

17.What is DDT among the following (2012)
(1)Greenhouse gas
(2)A fertilizer
(3)Biodegradable
(4)Non-biodegradable pollutant
Ans.(4) DDT is non-biodegradable pollutant

18.Which of the following compounds is not an antacid ? (2015)
(1)Aluminium hydroxide
(2)Cimetidine
(3)Phenelzine
(4)Ranitidine
Ans.Aluminium hydroxide was used as antacid. Cimetidine and ranitidine are now used as antacids.

JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Metallurgy and Environmental Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry  Metallurgy and  Environmental Chemistry

1.The metal extracted by leaching with a cyanide is        (2002)
1) Mg   2) Ag   3) Cu    4) Na

Ans.(2) Silver ore forms a soluble complex with 1
NaCl from which silver is precipitated using scrap zinc.
Ag2S + 2NaCN -> Na[Ag(CN)?]
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn ->Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag

2.Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of   (2002)
1) bauxite           2) alumina
3)alumina mixed with molten cryolite
4)molten cryolite

Ans.(3) Alumina is mixed with cryolite in the extraction of aluminium metal. Addition of cryolite decreases the melting point and increases the conductivity.

3.Cyanide process is used for the extraction of (2002)
1) barium            2) aluminium
3) boron           4) silver

Ans.(4) Cyanide forms a soluble complex with silver. Finally Ag is precipitated using zinc.

4.When the sample of copper with zinc impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are         (2002)
cathode                                   anode
1)pure zinc                            pure copper
2)impure sample                 pure copper
3)impure zinc                     impure sample
4)pure copper                    impure sample

Ans.(4) Pure metal always deposits at cathode.

5.When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value (2003)
1)slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there
2)uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm
3)which depends on the amount of dust in air
4)slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm

Ans.(4) The rain water after thrunderstorm contains dissolved acid and therefore the pH is less than rain water without thunderstorm.

6.Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth-floatation ?       (2004)
1) Magnetite                 2) Malachite
3) Galena                       4) Cassiterite

Ans.(3) Galena is sulphide mineral. Sulphide minerals are usually concentrated by froth floatation method.

7.The smog is essentially caused by the presence of        (2004)
1) 02 and 03                    2) 03 and N2
3)Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen       4)02 and N2

Ans.(3) Smog is Smoke + Fog. Somg contains mainly S02 and NOx

8.During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are        (2005)
1) Sn and Ag                  2) Pb and Zn
3) Ag and Au                 4) Fe and Ni

Ans.(3) Crude Cu contains Au and Ag as impurities.

9.Heating mixture of CuzO and Cu2S will give  (2005)
1) Cu + S02                   2) Cu + S03
3) CuO + CuS                 4) Cu2S03

Ans.(1) Self-reduction occurs upon heating a mixture of oxide and sulphide of copper.
2Cu20 + Cu2S——- > 6Cu + S02

10.Identify the wrong statements in the following:(2008)
1)Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion
2)Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming
3)Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth
4)Acid rains is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.

Ans.(3) Ozone layer does not allow ultraviolet radiation from sun to reach earth.

11.Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the  oxides and not subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly ?         (2008)
1)Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2
2)C02 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2
3)Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides
4)C02 is more volatile than CS2

Ans.(1) Metal slphides are more stable to heat than carbon disulphide.

12. Which method of purification is represented by the following equation      (2012)
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-metallurgy-and-environmental-chemistry-1
Ans.(4) Titanium and zirconium are refined by vapour phase refining called Van Arkels method. Nickel is refined by Mond’s process.

13.The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was        (2013)
1) Methylisocyanate         2) Methylamine
3) Ammonia                   4) Phosgene

Ans.(1) It is called MIC gas.

14.Which series of reactions correctly represents chemical relations related to iron and its compound ?   (2014)
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-metallurgy-and-environmental-chemistry-2
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-metallurgy-and-environmental-chemistry-3

15.Assertion (A) : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen.
Reason (R) : The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature. (2015)
1)Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
2)Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is the not correct explanation for the assertion.
3)The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
4)Both the assertion and reason are incorrect.

Ans.(1) N2 has triple bond and 02 has double bond.

JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Biomolecules and Polymers

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Biomolecules and Polymers

1.RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains        (2002)
(1)ribose sugar and thymine
(2)ribose sugar and uracil
(3)deoxyribose sugar and thymine
(4)deoxyribose sugar and uracil
Ans.(2) RNA has ribose sugar and uracil base.

2.The functional group, which is found in amino acid is       (2002)
(1)- COOH group 2) – NH2 group
3) – CH3 group              4) both (1) and (2)
Ans.(4) Amino acids contain – NH2 and – COOH groups.

3.Polymer formation from monomers starts by (2002)
(1)condensation reaction between monomers
(2)coordinate reaction between monomers
(3)conversion of monomer to monomer ions by protons •
(4)hydrolysis of monomers
Ans.(1)Polymerisation starts either by condensation or addition reactions between monomers.

4.Nylon threads are made of (2003)
(1)Polyester polymer 2) Polyamide polymer
(3)Polyethylene polymer
(4)Polyvinyl polymer
Ans.(2)Nylon is a polyamide.

5.Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives (2003)
(1)D-ribose 2) D-glucose
3) L-glucose                 4) D-fructose
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-5

6.The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of      (2003)
(1)dipole – dipole interaction
(2)hydrogen bonding
(3)electrostatic attractions
(4)van der Waal’s forces
Ans.(2) Helix is stabilised by hydrogen bonds.

7.Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
1) Uracil                           2) Thymine (2004)
3) Guanine                      4) Cytosine
Ans.(1)Uracil is not present in DNA.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-8

9.Which of the following is a polyamide? (2005)
1) Teflon                  .   2) Nylon – 6,6
3) Terylene                    4) Bakelite
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-9

10.Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer ?      (2005)
1) Neoprene                  2)  Teflon
3) Thiokol                     4) PVC
Ans.(2) Polytetrafluoroethylene.

11.The term anomers of glucose refers to (2006)
(1)isomers of glucose that differ in configu­rations at carbons one and four(C-land C-4)
(2)a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose
(3)enantiomers of glucose
(4)isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-l)
Ans.(4) Anomer is specific example of stereoisomer. Carbon atom at position 1 is anomeric.

12.The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are (2006)
(1)cytosine and adenine
(2)cytosine and guanine
(3)cytosine and thymine
(4)cytosine and uracil
Ans.(3) DNA has two pyrimidine bases. Thymine and cytosine.

13.The secondary structure of a protein refers to
(1)a -helical backbone
(2)hydrophobic interactions
(3)sequence of a-amino acids
(4)fixed configuration of the polypeptide back­bone
Ans.(1) Secondary structure of proteins involves a-helical back bond and R-sheet structures, These structures are formed as a result of l Hydrogen bonding between different peptide groups in the molecule.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-14
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-14

15.Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with    (2008)
1) (CH2OH)2                  2)    CH3CHO
3) CH3COCH3                4)    HCHO
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-15

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-16
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-16

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-17
Ans.(3) Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy carbonyl compounds.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-18
Ans.(3) Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy carbonyl compounds.

19.Biuret test is not given by                      (2010)
1) carbohydrates         2) polypeptides
3) urea                         4) proteins
Ans.(1) Biuret is a test characteristic of amide linkage. Urea also has amide linkage like proteins.

20.The polymer containing strong intermolecular forces e.g. hydrogen bonding, is (2010)
1) teflon                       2) nylon 6,6
3) polystyrene              4) natural rubber
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-20

21.The presence or absence of hydroxy group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA ? (2011)
1) 3rd 2) 4th 3) 1st 4) 2nd
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-21
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-21-1

22.Which of the following compounds can be detected by Molish’s test ?      (2012)
1)Nitrocompounds       2) Sugars
3) Amines        4) Primary alcohols
Ans.(2) Molish test for carbohydrates : when a drop or two drops of alcoholic solution of oc- naphthol is added to sugar solution and then cone. H2S04 is added along the sides of test tube, formation of violet ring at the junction of two liquids conforms the sugar.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-biomolecules-and-polymers-23
Ans.(3) Lewis acids can initiate the cationic polymerisation.

24.Which one of the following statements is correct ?     (2012)
(1)All amino acids except lysine are optically active
(2)All amino acids are optically active
(3)All amino acids except glycine are optically active
(4)All amino acids except glutamic acids are optically acitive
Ans.(3) Lewis acids can initiate the cationic polymerisation.

25.Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves    (2013)
1) 18 molecules of ATP 2) 10 molecules of ATP
3) 8 molecules of ATP 4) 6 molecules of ATP
Ans.1) Eighteen ATP units.

26.Which one is classified as a condensationpolymer ?        (2014)
1) Acrylonitrile             2) Dacron
3) Neoprene                 4) Teflon
Ans.(2) Dacron is the condensation polymer Neoprene, teflon and acrylonitrile are addition polymers.

27.Which one of the following bases is not present in DNA ?   (2014)
1) Thymine                                   2)       Quinoline
3) Adenine                    4) Cytosine
Ans.(2) Qunoline is the base which is not present in DNA.

28.Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints and lacquers ?                            (2015)
1) Bakelite                    2) Glyptal
3) Polypropene             4) Poly vinyl chloride
Ans.(2) Uses of polymer glyptal.

29.Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble ?   (2015)
1) Vitamin C                2) Vitamin D
3) Vitamin E                 4) Vitamin K
Ans.(1) Vitamin B and Vitamin C are water soluble.

JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Thermodynamics and Chemical Energitics

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Thermodynamics and Chemical Energitics

1.A heat engine absorbs heat Q, at temperature T, and heat Q2 at temperature Tr Work done by the engine is J(Q, + Q2). This data (2002)
(1)violates 1st law of thermodynamics
(2)violates Is‘ law of thermodynamics if Q, is -ve
(3)violates 1st law of thermodynamics if Q2 is -ve
(4)does not violates Is‘ law of thermodynamics
Ans.(1) Some mechanical energy is always converted (lost) to other forms of energy.

2.If an endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at freezing point of water and becomes feasible at its boiling point, then (2002)
(1)A H is – ve, A S is + ve
(2)AH and AS both are + ve
(3)AH and AS both are – ve
(4)AH is + ve, AS is – ve
 Ans.(2) At low temperature the AS is -ve which makes AG positive (AG = AH-TAS). But at higher temperature AS is +ve which makes the AG negative (condition for spontaneity).

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-3
 Ans.(4) AH negative shows that the reaction is spontaneous. Higher value for Zn shows that the reaction is more feasible.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-4
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-4

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-5
 Ans.(1) For spontaneous reaction, dS > 0. AG and dG should be negative, i.e. < 0

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-6
 Ans.(3) AG=-2.303 RT logK .

7.The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon                                          (2003)
(1)use of different reactants for the same product
(2)the nature of intermediate reaction steps
(3)the differences in initial or final temperature of involved substances
(4)the physical states of reactants and products
Ans.(2) Hess law of heat summation.

8.The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are -393.5 and -283 kj mol*1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is           (2004)
(1)5 kJ                            2)-110.5 kJ
3) -676.5 kJ                   4) 676.5 kJ
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-8

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-9
 Ans.(1) For a spontaneous change AG is negative and Ece„ is positive.

10.Consider the reaction : N2 + 3H2——— > 2NHcarried out at constant temperature and pressure. If AH and AU are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the following expressions is true ?
1) AH = 0                      2) AH = AU (2005)
3) AH< AU                     4) AH> AU
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-10

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-11
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-11

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-12
 Ans.(1) Energy required to get H and C atoms.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-13
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-13

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-14
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-14

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-15
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-15

16.Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous process  (2007)
(1)For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the change in entropy is positive
(2)Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
(3)Exothermic processes are always spontaneous (4)Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only criterion for spontaneity
Ans.
(1) For a spontaneous process in an isolated sys­tem, the change in entropy is positive.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-17
 Ans.(4) We know, AG = AH – TAS.So, lets find the equilibrium temperature, i.e., at which AG = 0; AH = TAS;
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-17

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-18
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-18

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-19
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-19
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-19-1

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-20
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-20

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-21
 Ans.(2) Enthalpy of formation of NH3=-46 kJ/mole  N2 + 3H2     2NH3 AHf = -2.x 46kJmol
Bond breaking is endothermic and bond formation is exothermic.Assuming ‘x’ is the bond energy of N-H bond (kJ mol-1)
712 + (3 x 436) – 6x = -46 x 2 Therefore, x – 352 kJ/mol

22.For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, AH and AS were found to be both +ve. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when                                 (2010)
1) T > T                        2) T > T
3) T is 5 times T             4) T = T
Ans.(2) AG = AH = TAS at equilibrium, AG = 0 .For a reaction to be spontaneous AG should be negative. Therefore, T > T

23.The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3 at 27°C is                                                             (2011)
1) 32.3 J moHK-1 2) 42.3 J mol-‘K”1
3) 38.3 J mol-1K-1 4) 35.8 J mol-1K_1
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-23

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-24
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-24
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-24-1

25.A position filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant temperature of 37.0#C. As it does so, it absorbs 208J of heat. The values of q and w for the process will be    (2013)(R = 8.314J/molK and
In 7.5 = 2.01)
(1)q = + 208J, w = – 208 J
(2)q = – 208J, w = – 208 J
(3)q = – 208J, w = + 208 J
(4)q = + 208J, w = + 208 J
Ans. (1) Work done by system is negative

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-26
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-26

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-27
 Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-thermodynamics-and-chemical-energitics-27

JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry

1.Conductivity (unit Siemen’s S) is directly proportional to area of the vessel and the concentration of the solution in it and is inversely proportional to the length of the vessel then the unit of the constant of proportionality is    (2002)
1) Sm mol-1                    2) Sm2 mol-1
3) S-2m2 mol’1                 4) S2m2 mol’1
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-1

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-2
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-2

3.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-3
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-3

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-4
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-4

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-5
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-5

6.When KMn04 acts as an oxidising agent and ultimately forms [MnOJ-1, Mn02, Mn203 and Mn+2. Then the number of electrons trans­ferred in each case respectively is (2002)
1) 4, 3, 1, 5        2) 1, 5, 3, 7
3)1,3, 4, 5               4)3, 5, 7,1
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-6

7.Which of the following is a redox reaction ?(2002)
(1)NaCl + KN03 -» NaN03 + KC1
(2)CaC204 + 2HC1 -> CaCl2 + H2C20,
(3)Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4C1 -> MgCl2 + 2NH4OH
(4)Zn + 2AgCN 2Ag + Zn(CN)2
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-7

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-8
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-8

9.Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are respectively + 0.5V, -3.0 V and -1.2 V. The reducing powers are in the order       (2003)
1) A > B > C                  2) C > B > A
3) A > C > B                  4) B > C > A
Ans.(4) Reductional potential is least for B. Hence B is the best reductant.

10.When during electrolysis of a solution of AgN03 9650 coloumbs of charge pass through the electroplating bath, the mass of silver deposited on the cathode will be (2003)
1) 10.8 g                         2) 21.6 g
3) 108 g                          4) 1.08 g
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-10

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-11
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-11

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-12
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-12

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-13
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-13

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-14
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-14

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-15
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-15

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-16
Ans.(3) Ecell increases, hence k increases.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-17
Ans.(1) Oxidation potential of Cr is least. So it changes easily from +2 to +3 state

18.Excess of KI reacts with CuS04 solution and then Na2S203 solution is added to it. Which of the statements is incorrect for this reaction?
(1)Cu2I2 is reduced
(2)Evolved I2 is reduced
(3)Na2S203is oxidized    4) CuL, is formed
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-18

19.The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of (2005)
(1)1 M acetic acid
(2)1 M chloroacetic acid
(3)1 M fluoroacetic acid
(4)1 M difluoroacetic acid
Ans.(4) CF2COOH is stronger acid and furnishes more ions.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-20
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-20

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-21
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-21

22.The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and acidified potassium dichromate solution is(2005)
1) +4          2) +6            3) +2           4) +3
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-22

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-23
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-23

24.The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr: NO(g) + Br2(g) —NOBr2(g) NOBr2(g)+NO(g) -» 2NOBr(g).If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is   (2006)

1) 1            2) 0              3) 3             4) 2

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-24
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-25
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-25
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-25-1

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-26
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-26

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-27
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-27

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-28
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-28

29.Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMn04 solution in the presence of H2S04. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HC1, because HC1     (2008)
(1)gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
(2)furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
(3)reduces permanganate to Mn2+
(4)Oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-29

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-30
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-30
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-30-1

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-31
Ans.(1) Mn2+ is more stable.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-32
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-32

33.A vessel at 1000 K contains C02 with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the C02 is converted in to CO on the addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K is (2011)
1) 0.3 atm                      2) 0.18 atm
3) 1.8 atm                      4) 3 atm
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-33

34.The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+ / Zn, Ni2+ / Ni and Fe2+ / Fe are -0.76, -0.23 and -0.44 V respectively. The reaction, x + y2+->x2+ + y will be spontaneous when                      (2012)
1) X = Ni, Y = Fe           2)X = Ni,Y = Zn
3) X = Fe, Y = Zn          4) X = Zn, Y = Ni
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-34

35.How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HC/ with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ? (2013)
1) 0.1 L 2) 0.9 L 3) 2.0 L 4) 9.0 L
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-35

36.Given below are the half-cell reactions ‘ Mn2+ + 2e -> Mn; E°=-1.18V 2(Mn3+ + e- -> Mn2+); E° = +1.51V The E° for 3Mn2+ -> Mn + 2Mn3+ will be
(1)-0.33 V; the reaction will occur (2014)
(2)-2.69 V; the reaction will not occur
(3)-2.69 V; the reaction will occur
(4)-0.33 V; the reaction will not occur
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-36

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-37
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-37

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-38
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-38

39.Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuS04. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is (at mass of Cu = 63.5 amu)                     (2015)
1) Og 2) 63.5g 3) 2g 4) 127g
Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-redox-reactions-and-electrochemistry-39


JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Chemical and Lonic Equilibrium

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Chemical and Lonic Equilibrium

1.M NaCl and 1 M HC1 are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is (2002)
1)not a buffer solution with pH < 7
2)not a buffer solution with pH > 7
3)a buffer solution with pH < 7
4)a buffer solution with pH > 7

Ans.(1) A buffer is a solution of weak acid and its salt  with strong base and vice versa. HCl is strong acid and NaCl is its salt with strong base. pH is less than 7 due to HCl.

2.Species acting as both Bronsted acid and base is   (2002)
1)HS04-1 2) Na2C03 3) NH3 4) OH-1

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-chemical-and-lonic-equilibrium-27

3.Let the solubility of an aqueous solution of Mg(OH)2 be x, then its ksp is      (2002)
1)4x3      2) 108x5         3) 27x4           4) 9x

Ans.
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4.The solubility of Mg(OH)2 is S moles / litre. The solubility product under the same condition is            (2002)
1)4S3         2) 3S4                 3) 4S2             4) S3

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-chemical-and-lonic-equilibrium-29

5.Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following equilibria ? (2002)
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Ans.(1) In this reaction the ratio of number of moles of reactants to products is same, hence change l in volume will not alter the number of moles

6.In which of the following reactions, increase in the volume at constant temperature does not affect the number of moles at equilibrium(2002)
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.(2) An acidic solution cannot have a pH > 7.

9.The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 1.0 x 10-5 molL”1. Its solubility product number will be            (2003)
1)4 x 10-10        2) 1 x 10-15
3) 1 x 10-10      4) 4 x 10-15

Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.(2) Due to exothermicity of reaction low or optimum temperature will be required. Since 3 v moles are changing to 2 moles. High pressure will be required.

12.Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity ?     (2003)
1)H2S 2) NH3 3) PH3 4) H20

Ans.(2) H2S is more acidic.

13.In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking kfor water as 1.85, the freezing point of the  solution will be nearest to   (2003)
1) – 0.360°C                    2) – 0.260°C
3) + 0.480°C                   4) – 0.480°C

Ans.(4) Decrease by 1.85 x 0.3 x 1.3 = 0.48°C

14.The conjugate base of H2P04– is (2004)
1) P043– 2) HP042- 3)H3P04 4)P205

Ans.
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Ans.(2) Applying law of mass action, the expression for K is obtained. Only 02 is a gas and hence its active mass only appear in K.

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Ans.(1) Kp = Kc (RT)in   .Here, An is 1 – (1 + 1) = – 1.

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Ans.(4) As per property of equilibria, reverse the equation and divide it by 2.

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Ans.(2) If ‘s’ is the solubility Ksp = 108s5 1 x 44 x s1+4 = 256 s5 = Ksp

19.The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2, in water is : 4xl0-12. The concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is     (2005)
1) 2.0 x 10.6 M              2) 1.0 x 10.4 M
3) 1.6 x 10.4 M              4) 4.0 x 10.10 M

Ans.
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Ans.(4) An increase in the concentration of a reactant at equilibrium, the forward reaction is favoured. Hence, adding F2

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-chemical-and-lonic-equilibrium-12

Ans.
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22.Hydrogen ion concentration in mol L-1 in a solution of pH = 5.4 will be  (2005)
1) 3.98 x 108                2) 3.88 x 106
3) 3.68 x 10-6                  4) 3.98 x 10-6

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-chemical-and-lonic-equilibrium-22

23.What is the conjugate base of OH ? (2005)
1) 02          2) H20          3) 0            4) O-2

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-chemical-and-lonic-equilibrium-23

24.An amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already containing ammonia gas at a certain temperature and 0.5 atm. Ammonium hydrogen sulphide decomposes to yield NH3 and 1I2S gases in the flask. When the decomposition reaction reaches equilibrium, the total pressure in the flask rises to 0.84 atm. The equilibrium constant for NII4HS decomposition at this temperature is (2005)
1) 0.30   2) 0.18  3) 0.17  4) 0.11

Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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28.The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA in which 50% of the acid is ionized is (2007)
1) 4.5          2) 2.5           3) 9.5           4) 7.0

Ans.
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Ans.
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30.The first and second dissociation constants of an acid H2A are 1.0 x 10-5 and 5.0 x 10“10 respectively. The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be      (2007)
1) 5.0 x 10-5                    2) 5.0 x 1015
3) 5.0 x 10-15                  4) 0.0 x 105

Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.(3) Equation (c) = equation (a) + equation (b). Thus K, = K,.K2

33.Four species are listed below
i) HC03; ii) H30+ iii) HSO4 iv) HS03F
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of thfflr acid strength ?            (2008)
1) iv < ii < iii <i                       2) ii < iii < i < iv
3) i < iii < ii < iv                       4) iii < i < iv < ii

Ans.
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34.The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKof a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be           (2008)
1) 9.58            2) 4.79             3) 7.01             4) 9.22

Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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38.Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0x 10-13. The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass is 120g of mol-1) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is (2010)
1) 1.2 x 10-10g             2) 1.2 x 10-9g
3) 6.2 x 10-5g                4) 5.0 x 10-8g

Ans.
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39.At 25°C, the solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 1.0 10_n. At which pH, will Mg2+ ions start precipitating in the form of Mg(OH)2 from a solution of 0.001 M Mg2+ ions ? (2010)
1)9              2) 10           3)11              4)8

Ans.
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40.The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if : (2011)
1)P(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M
2)P(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M l
3)P(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M
4)P(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M

Ans.
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Ans.
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42.The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. The value of the ionization constant Ka of this acid is     (2012)
1) 3×10_1                        2) 1×10-3
3) 1×10-5                         4) 1×10-7

Ans.
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Ans.(4) If SRP value is high-powerful oxidising agent.

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Ans.
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Ans.
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Ans.
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JEE Main Home Maths Physics Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Kinetics,Catalysis and Surface Chemistry

JEE Main Previous Year Papers Questions With Solutions Chemistry Kinetics,Catalysis and Surface Chemistry

1.Units of rate constant of first and zero order reactions in terms of molarity M unit are respectively    (2002)
1) sec-1, Msec-1            2) sec-1, M
3)Msec-1, sec-1            4) M, sec-1

Ans.
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2.For the reaction A + 2B—— > C, rate is given by R = [A] [B]2 then the order of the reaction is (2002)
1) 3            2) 6             3) 5             4) 7

Ans.(1) Order is the sum of the power of the concentrations terms in rate law expression.

3.The formation of gas at the surface of tungsten due to adsorption is the reaction of order (2002)
1) 0            2) 1             3) 2                  4)insufficient data

Ans.(1) It is zero order reaction

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-kineticscatalysis-and-surface-chemistry-1
Ans.(4) Rate of appearance of HI is twice to that of disappearance of H1 or I1

5.If half-life of a substance is 5 years, then the total amount of substance left after 15 years, when initial amount is 64 grams is (2002)
1) 16 grams                   2) 2 grams
3) 32 grams      4) 8 grams

Ans.
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Ans.(1) time versus log concentration

7.The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mol-1. If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path. What would be the net change in internal energy ?     (2003)
1) > 40 kJ 2) <40 kJ 3) Zero 4) 40 kJ

Ans.(3) For a cyclic process the net change in the internal energy is zero because the change in internal energy does not depend on the path.

8.The half-life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be   (2003)
1) 8.0 g 2) 12.0 g 3) 16.0 g 4) 4.0 g

Ans.
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9.Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption ? (2003)
1)Adsorption increases with increase in temperature
2)Adsorption is spontaneous
3)Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative
4)Adsorption on solids is reversible

Ans.(1) As adsorption is an exothermic process. Rise in temperature will decrease adsorption.

10.In respect of the equation k = Ae-Ea/RT in chemical kinetics, which one of the following statements is correct ?     (2003)
1)A is adsorption factor
2)Ea is energy of activation
3)R is Rydberg’s constant
4)k is equilibrium constant

Ans.(2) A is pre exponential facter,E is activation energy, R is gas constant and K is rate constant.

11.The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by Rate = k[A]n[B]m. On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as (2003)
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Ans.
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Ans.(2) r=k[02][N0]2. When the volume is reduced to half, the cone, will double. New rate = k[202][2NO]2 = 8k[02][NO]2. The new rate increases by eight times.

13.In first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is   (2004)
1) 30 minutes                2) 60 minutes
3) 7.5 minutes               4) 15 minutes

Ans.(1) t1/2 = 15 minutes Number of half lives =2 (For change of 0.1 to 0.05 and then to 0.025) Total time is 30 minutes

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-kineticscatalysis-and-surface-chemistry-5
Ans.(2) Second order reaction.

15.Identify the correct statements regarding enzymes  (2004)
1)Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperature
2)Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that the posses well – defined active sites
3)Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can not be poisoned
4)Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action

Ans.(2) Enzymes are specific catalysts at room m

16.The half – life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, the mass remaining after 24 hours undecayed is     (2004)
1)042 g                        2) 4.167 g
3) 3.125 g                     4) 2.084 g

Ans.
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17.Consider an endothermic reaction, X—— > Y with the activation energies Eb and Ef for the backward and forward reactions, respec­tively. In general (2005)
1)Eb < Ef           2) Eb > Ef
3)Eb = Ef
4)There is no definite relation between Eb and Ef

Ans.
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18. The volume of a colloidal particle, Vc as compared to the volume of a solute particle in a true solution Vs,could be  (2005)
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Ans.
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19.The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide and colloidal gold is positively and negatively charged, respectively, which of the following statements is NOT correct? (2005)
1)magnesium chloride solution coagulates, the gold sol more readily than iron (III) hydroxide sol.
2)sodium sulphate solution causes coagulation in both sols
3)mixing the sols has no effect
4)coagulation in both sols can be brought about by electrophoresis

Ans.(3) Same coagualtion occurs.

20. t1/4 can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a reactant to drop to 3/4 of its initial value. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is K, the t1/4 can be written as (2005)
1)10 / K                         2) 0.29/K
3) 0.69 / K                    4) 0.75 / K

Ans.
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21.A reaction involving two different reactants can never be  (2005)
1)Unimolecular reaction
2)First order reaction
3)second order reaction
4) Bimolecular reaction

Ans.(1) Only one reactant is involved in unimolecular reaction.

22.A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction will (2006)
1)remain unchanged                       2) triple
3) increase by a factor of 4              4) double

Ans.
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23.In Langmuir’s model of adsorption of a gas on a solid surface    (2006)
1)the rate of dissociation of adsorbed molecules from the surface does not depend on the surface covered
2)the adsorption at a single site on the surface / may involve multiple molecules at the same time
3)the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is proportional to the pressure of the gas
4)the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is independent of the pressure of the gas

Ans.(3) The extent of adsorptions is directly proportional to the pressure of gas.

24.Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as: k=Ae-E /RT In this equation, E represents (2006)
1)the energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
2)the energy below which colliding molecules will not react
3)the total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T
4)the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the reaction

Ans.(2) Colliding molecules with energy less than activation energy with not react.

25.Consider the reaction, 2A+B —> Products. 5 When concentration of B alone was doubled, i. the half-life did not change. When the con­centration of A alone was doubled, the rate increased by two times. The unit of rate con­stant for this reaction is        (2007)
1) L mol-1 s-1         2) No unit
3) molL-1 sy1         4) s-1

Ans.(1) 2A + B-> Product When cone, of B is doubled, the half life did „ not change, hence reaction is of first order w.r.t. When concentration of A is doubled, reaction rate is doubled, hence reaction is of first order w.r.t. A. Hence over all order of reaction is 1 + 1=2 .So, unit of rate constant mol-1 fits-1.

26.A radioactive element gets spilled over the floor of a room. Its half-life period is 30 days.If the initial activity is ten times the permis­sible value, after how many days will it be safe to enter the room ?  (2007)
1) 1000 days                2) 300 days
3) 10 days                    4) 100 days

Ans.
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Ans.
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28.Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005, respectively. The correct order of their protective powers is (2008)
1)D<A<C<B      2)C<B<D<A
3)A<C<B<D      4)B<D<A<C

Ans.(3) Higher the gold number lesser will be the protective power of colloid.

jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-kineticscatalysis-and-surface-chemistry-8
Ans.(4) Enthalpy of adsorption regarding physisorption is not positive and it is negative.

30.The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2 = 0.301) : (2009)
1) 230.3 minutes           2) 23.03 minutes
3) 46.06 minutes           4) 460.6 minutes

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-kineticscatalysis-and-surface-chemistry-25

31.The time for half life period of a certain reaction A products is 1 hour. When the initial concentration of the reactant ‘A’, is 2.0 molL-1, how much time does it take for its concentration to come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol Lr1 if it is zero order reaction? (2010)
1) 4h 2) 0.5h                 3) 0.25h       4) lh

Ans.
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Ans.
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33.The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10°C rise of temperature. If the temperature is raised by 50°C, the rate of the reaction increases by about      (2011)
1) 32 times 2) 64 times 3) 10 times 4) 24 times

Ans.
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Ans.
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35.For a first order reaction, (A) —> products, the concentration of A chnages from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes. The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M (2012)
1) 1.73 x 10-5 M/ min 2) 3.47 x 10-4 M / min 3) 3.47 x 10-5 M / min 4) 1.73 x 10-4 M / min

Ans.
jee-main-previous-year-papers-questions-with-solutions-chemistry-kineticscatalysis-and-surface-chemistry-30

36.The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes from 300K to 310K. Activation energy of such a reaction will be (R = 8.314 JK ‘mol-1 and log 2 = 0.301)(2013)
1) 53.6 kJ mol-1          2) 48.6kJmol-1
3) 58.5 kJmol-1              4) 60.5 kJmol-1

Ans.
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Ans.(2) Coagulation power increases with increase in charge of cation.

38.For the non-stoichiometry reaction 2A + B C + D, the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.    (2014)
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Ans.(1) Rate = K(A)m (B)m

39.Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to(2015)
1)low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
2)increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved
3)shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions
4)loss of active species on collision 40.

Ans.(1) According to collision theory

40.3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 ml. of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After qan hour it was filered and the strength of type nitrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid absorbed (per gram of charcoal) is (2015)
1) 18 mg 2) 36 mg 3) 42 gm 4) 54 .mg

Ans.
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