Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
  3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
  4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
  5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
  6. Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
  7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
  8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
  9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
MCQs (1 x 20 = 20)

Question 1.
Which of the following is a step taken by the Supreme Court of India to strengthen the centre-state relations after 1990?
(a) By refusing all control of the central government over the state governments.
(b) By making India a Unitary System instead of a federal one.
(c) By making it mandatory for state governments to join Lok Sabha.
(d) By making it difficult for the Central Government to dismiss state governments in an arbitrary manner. [1]
Answer:
(d) By making it difficult for the Central Government to dismiss state governments in an arbitrary manner.
Explanation: The Supreme Court decided in a case after 1990 that it was not possible for the Central Government to dismiss the State Government by proclaiming an emergency unless in extreme conditions.

Question 2.
Which of the following did Richard Arkwright create?
(a) Spinning Jenny
(b) Jute Mill
(c) Steam Engine
(d) Cotton Mill [1]
Answer:
(d) Cotton Mill
Explanation: Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill. Till this time, production was spread all over the countryside and carried out within village households. After this invention, the costly new machines could be purchased, set up and maintained in the mill.

Related Theory:
The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly cotton and metals. Growing at a rapid pace, cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to the 1840s.

Question 3.
Identify which of the following statement is correct with regards to the movement in the picture given below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions 1
(a) The movement in the picture can be identified as the Non-cooperation movement.
(b) The Charkha in the middle represents the notion of Self Rule.
(c) The Islamic flag raised in the centre of the image was raised to protest against the Muslim Community.
(d) Mostly Women participated in this movement. [1]
Answer:
(a) The movement in the picture can be identified as the Non-cooperation movement.
Related Theory:
The Charkha in the middle can be identified with the notion of Self Help. The Non-Cooperation movement was also organised keeping Muslim Interests in mind, which brought Muslims and Hindus closer.

Question 4.
Arrange the following types of Banks in decreasing order of the hierarchy of their size and operational range.
(I) Private Banks
(II) Rural Sector Banks
(III) Government Nationalised Banks
(IV) Reserve Bank of India Options:
(a) (I)-(II)-(III)-(IV)
(b) (IV)-(III)-(II)-(I)
(c) (IV)-(III)-(I)-(II)
(d) (III)-(IV)-(II)-(I) [1]
Answer:
(c) (IV)-(III)-(I)-(II)
Explanation: Reserve Bank of India sets rules for all the other operating banks in India, Government nationalised banks handle both branches in Urban and Rural Areas, even the remotest areas. Private Banks are usually only found in urban areas and deal with mostly classes with better economic situations. Rural sector banks are found only in rural areas.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Question 5.
Identify the type of energy with the help of given hints.
The energy refers produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth.
(a) Tidal energy
(b) Hydroelectric energy
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Nuclear energy [1]
Answer:
(c) Geothermal energy
Explanation: Geo thermal energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth. Geothermal energy exists because, the Earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth.

Related Theory:
Groundwater in such areas absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot. It is so hot that when it rises to the earth’s surface, it turns into steam which drives the turbines.

Question 6.
Which one of the following options does not support the statement given below?
Statement: The democratically elected government passed an Act in 1956.
(a) To recognise Sinhala as the only official language
(b) To follow preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs
(c) To protect and foster Buddhism in the country
(d) To recognise the autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils. [1]
Answer:
(d) To recognise the autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils.
Explanation: The Act of 1956 was passed to establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka. This Act increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils.

Related Theory
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied.

Question 7.
Match the items in column A with those of column B and find the most appropriate code which reflects the correctly matched pairs.

Column A Column A
(A) Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics (I) Julius Hübner
(B) The Planting of Tree of Liberty (II) Frederic Sorrieu
(C) The Massacre at Chios (III) Karl Kaspar Fritz
(D) The fallen Germania (IV) Eugene Delacroix

Codes:
(a) A-(II), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(I)
(b) A-(III), B-(II) C-(l), D-(IV)
(c) A-(II), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(I)
(d) A-(IV), B-(II), C-(III), D-(I) [1]
Answer:
(a) A-(II), B-(lll), C-(IV), D-(l)
Explanation:
(A) Frederic Sorrieu was a French artist who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social Republics’ in 1848.

The painting shows the peoples of Europe and America – men and women of all ages and social classes – marching in a long train, and offering homage to the statue of Liberty as they pass by it.

(B) German painter Karl Kaspar Fritz, painted the Tree of Liberty to represent the occupation of the town of Zweibrucken by the French armies.

(C) French painter Delacroix drew this painting depicting an incident in which 20,000 Greeks were said to have been killed by Turks on the island of Chios in 1824.

(D) The fallen Germania was painted in 1840.

Question 8.
The body which recognizes and registers Political Parties in India is called:
(a) Legislature
(b) Judiciary
(c) Election Commission
(d) Party Council of India [1]
Answer:
(c) Election Commission
Explanation: It is a specific body created to conduct elections in India and to check, recognise and monitor political parties. The Central Election Commission recognises National Parties. State Election Commissions are subunits of the central election commission at state level.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a measure to reduce soil erosion?
(a) Creating deep channels (gullies)
(b) Contour Ploughing
(c) Strip cropping
(d) Planting of shelterbelts [1]
Answer:
(a) Creating deep channels (gullies)
Explanation: Contour ploughing (ploughing along contour lines, helps to decelerate flow of water down the hill/mountain, thereby reducing soil erosion by water), Strip cropping (letting strips of grass grow between crops to break the flow of air, which in turn reduces soil erosion by wind) and growing Shelter belts (continuous line of trees to around an otherwise barren land, to hold the soil from being blown away via winds also help save soil from being eroded by water) are all ways which help prevent Soil Erosion.

Gullies make it easy for the soil to get eroded by running water which result in a bad land topography known as ravines.

Related Theory:
Denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion Chambal river basin in Madhya Pradesh is famous for such
ravines or bad lands.

Question 10.
How does foreign trade integrate countries?
(a) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. It integrates markets.
(b) Foreign trade joins the customers together on platform.
(c) Foreign trade removes all taxes and cesses on import and export.
(d) Foreign trade helps make a union of producers of various countries. [1]
Answer:
(a) Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. It integrates markets.
Explanation: Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

Related Theory:
Foreign trade is still not tax free. Custom duties is levied on import of various goods.

Caution:
Questions like these must be attempted keeping in mind long term benefits and implementation of the concept mentioned.

Question 11.
Choose the odd one out:
(a) In many parts of India parents prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child aborted before she is born.
(b) The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is very small.
(c) Women are given no remuneration for the household work they perform everyday.
(d) Women have been given the right to vote and contest elections by the Indian Constitution. [1]
Answer:
(d) Women have been given the right to vote and contest elections by the Indian Constitution.
Explanation: The rest of the statements are testaments to the patriarchal nature of the current society. They describe the unequal distribution of status, power and incentives among the gender, But option (d) talks about an equal, unprejudiced society where women are treated at par with men.

Related Theory:
Women in different parts of the world organised and agitated for equal rights. There were agitations in different countries for the extension of voting rights to women. These agitations demanded enhancing the political and legal status of women and improving and are called Feminist movements.

Question 12.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Hindu orthodoxy commissioned the Samachar Chandrika to oppose Raja Rammohan Roy’s opinions.
Reason (R): He opposed Hindus.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. [1]
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
Explanation: Rammohan Roy published the Sambad Kaumudi from 1821 to oppose some matters like widow immolation, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatry. He was not against Hindus or Hinduism.

Related Theory:
The Deoband Seminary, founded in 1867, published thousands upon thousands offatwas telling Muslim readers how to conduct themselves in their everyday lives, and explaining the meanings of Islamic doctrines.

Question 13.
Which indicators are used to calculate BMI?
(a) Height and Immunity of a person
(b) Strength and Quickness of a person
(c) Height and Weight of a person
(d) Weight and IQ of a person [1]
Answer:
(c) Height and Weight of a person
Explanation: Body Mass Index of a person measures the nutrition level of a person. To calculate the same, the weight of a person has to be divided by the height of a person. Ideal BMI levels have been pre-decided. After calculation of the BMI, they can be checked against the chart to determine whether the person is obese or malnutritioned.

Caution:
It is important to read and understand the information in the boxes. Questions can be asked from any of these boxes in the chapter.

Question 14.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
In the ……………… sector, the governmentowns most of the assets and provides all the services.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) private
(d) public [1]
Answer:
(d) public
Explanation: In the public sector, the
government owns most of the assets and provides all the services. In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private individuals or companies.

Related Theory:
Railways or post office is an example of the public sector whereas companies like Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) or Reliance Industries limited (RIL) are privately owned.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Question 15.
Choose the correctly matched pair-
(a) Rich Farmer and labourer-similar developmental goals
(b) Student and Businessmen- different developmental goals
(c) Factory worker and CEO of the factory- same development goals
(d) Urban youth and Rural youth-Contradicting developmental goals [1]
Answer:
(b) Student and Businessmen- different developmental goals
Explanation: In any condition or situation, a Student and a Businessman will have completely different developmental goals. While a businessman would want to loose labour laws or no work time regulations, students might only want better and affordable educational facilities.

Related Theory:
A factory worker and CEO of the factory is bound to have Contradicting developmental goals because of their relationship. An employee would want to reduce his cost of production by paying less to the worker while the worker would want more wages for his sustenance. Youth, whether in the urban or rural region, might only want better employment opportunities and facilities.

Question 16.
Percentage of population living below the poverty line, 1999-2000.

Caste and Community Groups Rural Urban
Scheduled Tribes 45.8 35.6
Scheduled Castes 35.9 38.3
Other Backward Classes 27.0 29.5
Muslim Upper Castes 26.8 34.
Hindu Upper Castes 11.7 29.9
Christian Upper Castes 9.6 5.4
Sikh Upper Castes 0.0 4.9

Read the table and answer the following question:
According to the table, which of the following upper caste groups faces maximum poverty?
(a) Christian Upper Caste
(b) Sikh Upper Caste
(c) Hindu Upper Caste
(d) Muslim Upper Caste [1]
Answer:
(d) Muslim Upper Caste
Explanation: According to the given table, maximum poverty incidence is faced by the Muslim caste group in both the regions. Their figures are the highest. This makes it difficult for them to achieve holistic development since poverty equals to decline in their capacity to afford basic sustenance facilities like food, shelter and clean water.

Related Theory:
The average economic status (measured by criteria like monthly consumption expenditure) of caste groups still follows the old hierarchy – the ‘upper’ castes are best off, the Dalits and Adivasis are worst off, and the backward classes are in between.

Question 17.
Fill in the blank marked a by choosing the most appropriate option.

Basis of Distinction National Highways State Highways
Meaning National Highways link all major cities situated on borders of the country They link a state capital with important districts in a state.
Maintenance Authority of Service Maintained by (A) – They cater to the need of nation. Maintained by (SPWD) – They cater to needs of one state at a time.

(a) NHAI – (a) North-Eastern parts
(b) BRD – (b) North-Southern parts
(c) SPWD – (c) North-Western parts
(d) CPWD – (d) South-Eastern parts [1]
Answer:
(d) CPWD
Related Theory
A number of major National Highways run in North- South and East-West directions. The historical Sher- Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No.l, between Delhi and Amritsar.

Question 18.
Identify the correct statement about the treaty of Vienna.
(a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria signed the treaty of Vienna.
(b) This treaty was signed to restore the democracies that had been overthrown by Napoleon.
(c) The treaty created a new democratic and liberal order in Europe.
(d) The treaty was signed in 1895. [1]
Answer:
(a) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria signed the treaty of Vienna.
Explanation: The treaty was signed in 1815 to restore the monarchies that Napoleon had conquered. It aimed to set up a conservative order in Europe.

Question 19.
By 1980s, several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in which of the following parts of Sri Lanka?
(a) North-Eastern parts
(b) North-Southern parts
(c) North-Western parts
(d) South-Eastern parts [1]
Answer:
(a) North-Eastern parts

Question 20.
Given below are the demands of Tamils in Sri Lanka. Identify which one of their main demands was repeatedly denied by the Sri Lankan government.
(I) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(II) Equatity of opportunity in securing education and jobs
(III) More autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils (Tamil Eelam)
(IV) Separate flag and national anthem
(a) (I), (II) and (III)
(b) Only (III)
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) (I) and (III) [1]
Answer:
(a) I, II and III
Explanation: Tamils in Sri Lanka had many demands but their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. In pursuits, the other two demands were also denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.

Section – B
Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 4 = 8)

Question 21.
From the late 1970s, MNCs also began to shift production operations to low-wage Asian countries. Mention two reasons for the same. [2]
Answer:
From the late 1970s MNCs began to shift production operations to low-wage Asian countries because:

  • This was because of the low cost-structure offered by the Asian economies due to their extremely low wages.
  • China and other Asian countries had recently come back to the post-war world economy after being isolated for decades through some policy changes which made production beneficial in these countries.

Question 22.
Mention two characteristics of a successful democracy? [2]
Answer:
Two characteristics of a successful democracy are:
(1) Every successful democracy must adhere to the defining characteristic of democracy-that the representatives are chosen directly by the people. For this, free and fair elections must be arranged where each gets equal opportunity to vote or contest elections.

(2) A sucessful democracy always enhances the dignity of its citizens by giving them equal opportunity regardless of their status. It also protects the rights of the minority communities.

Question 23.
What are Sacred Groves? Give an example.
OR
Why is rainwater harvested in North-eastern regions like Shillong? [2]
Answer:
Sacred Groves are virgin forests preserved in an unadulterated form by local residents and native communities because they’ve been ascribed religious values. These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference by them is banned.
OR
Rooftop rainwater harvesting is the most common practice in Shillong, Meghalaya. Even though Shillong recieves the highest rainfall in the world, the city faces acute water shortage because the water retention capacity of the soil is low.

Fresh water is scarcely available and cannot fulfill the needs of the residents.

Caution:
Boxes carry important information in a chapter. Some of these also include examples and explain a concept based on those examples.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Question 24.
Read the source and answer the following questions:
Arun supervises the work of one farm labourer.
Arun has seven acres of land. He is one of the few persons in Sonpur to receive bank loan for cultivation. The interest rate on the loan is 8.5 per cent per annum, and can be repaid anytime in the next three years. Arun plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the crop. He then intends to store the rest of the potatoes jn a cold storage and apply for a fresh loan from the bank against the cold storage receipt. The bank offers this facility to farmers who have taken crop loan from them.
(A) Mention the role that credit will play in the given situation.
(B) Name the terms of credit mentioned in the given source. [2]
Answer:

  • Credit will play a positive role in the given situation as Arun is being charged minimum interest rates.
  • He will be able to invest in better technologies and skills once he harvests his yield without worrying about the availability of the loan before the next sowing season.

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 25.
In Europe, the decade of 1830 brought great economic hardship”. Support the statements with three arguments.
OR
By the end of the nineteenth century, a new visual culture was taking shape in India. Do you agree? Elaborate upon your stand. [3]
Answer:
The decade of 1830 brought with it immense economic hardships.

  • As population began multiplying in the first , half, it became difficult for citizens to earn a livelihood. Job seekers outnumbered the opportunities available.
  • People from rural areas migrated to cities. The slums were filled with such people.
  • Small native producers had to face stiff competition from cheap machine- made goods imported from industrially developed England.
  • Peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations under exploiting Aristocrats.
    (Mention any two points)

OR
By the end of the nineteenth century, a new visual culture was taking shape in India.

  • Visual images could be easily reproduced in multiple copies because of multiple new printing presses. Painters produced images for mass circulation.
  • Poor wood engravers and woodblock makers set up shop near the letterpresses, and were employed by print shops.
  • Cheap prints and calendars could be bought even by the poor to decorate the walls of their homes or places of work.

These prints shaped ideas about modernity and tradition, religion and politics, and society and culture

Question 26.
What are the various ways in which MNCs set up or control the production in other countries? [3]
Answer:
MNCs control production in other countries in following ways:
(1) Most MNCs make joint ventures with domestic companies to start their operations. This helps the MNCs because the domestic company has complete knowhow of the local business conditions and an established framework of business.

(2) MNCs later break the tie up and operate as an independent company which helps it in having a greater control on production.

(3) MNCs in developed countries pLace orders for production with small producers whose products they sell under their own name. This is another way of controlling production.

Question 27.
What is meant by a regional political party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a regional political party. [3]
Answer:
Political Parties based in one state or two and only concern themselves to the issues and affairs of a certain community or group of people based in a part of the nation are called Regional Political Parties. The conditions required for a party to be recognised as a regional political party are:

  • A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state is recognised as a regional or state party.
  • It has to win at least two seats in the legislative assembly for this recognition.
  • Some state parties are Trinamool Congress, Janata Dal, RashtriyaLok Dal etc.

Question 28.
What is pipeline transportation? Mention one merit and demerit of this type of transportation. [3]
Answer:
Pipeline transport network is the new mode of transportation these days. Pipelines were used in early times to transport water to cities and industries. These days, they are used for transporting crude oil, from petroleum fields to refineries, fertiliser factories and other by-products to thermal power plants.

Solids and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry.

Merits:

  • Useful in transporting liquids and solid in slurry form to far away locations.
  • Subsequent running costs after laying down the network are minimal.
  • It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays, hence they are quicker. (Mention any 1)

Demerits:

  • Initial cost of laying these pipelines is high.
  • Pipelines might burst or have leakage while transporting. Maintenance cost is generally very high. (Mention any 1)

Question 29.
What is a concurrent list and how are laws made on the subjects mentioned in this list? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Constitution divides subjects/fields into three lists based on which authority can make laws upon them.
(1) Concurrent list includes subjects 66 subjects of state importance. Subjects like Education, forest, marriage, adoption and succession are a part of this list.

(2) Both the Central and State governments are permitted to make laws on these subjects through debate and standard procedures followed in Parliaments and assemblies.

(3) In case of conflict or deadlock, the central government has the upper hand. Its decision will prevail upon that of the state government.

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (5 x 4 = 20)

Question 30.
How do industries cause water pollution? Explain any four measures to control water pollution created by industries in India.
OR
Compare the geographical conditions required for the production of cotton and jute. [5]
Answer:
Water pollution is caused by Inorganic and Chemical waste and effluents dumped into rivers by industries. Some of these are dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics, rubber, hot and heavy water from industries permanently affect aquatic life and even human life. The quality of freshwater is degraded by dumping of heavy chemicals like lead, arsenic and others.

Methods to control water pollution:

  • Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds can help decrease its harmful effects.
  • Use of ground water resources also needs to be regulated and monitored so as to stop its excessive exploitation.
  • Industries which don’t comply with laws and rules laid out by the government should not be given permits to establish and work at all.
  • Equipment should be updated to minimise waste products.

OR

The geographical conditions required for the production of cotton and jute:

  • Cotton grows in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau. Jute requires a well-drained fertile soil in the flood plains where soils are renewed annually.
  • Cotton requires more than 21°C of temperature, Jute requires 30°C temperature.
  • Cotton needs light rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth. Jute crops need the climate to be both warm, wet and the monsoon climate is ideal.
  • Cotton needs Black soil. Jute needs Alluvial soil.
  • Cotton is grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh. Jute is grown in West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya.

Question 31.
Examine with the help of two arguments how the dignity and freedom of citizens are best guaranteed in a democracy.
OR
Differentiate between coming together and holding together federation type with examples. [5]
Answer:
The dignity and freedom of citizens are best guaranteed in a democracy. This can be asserted by examining these arguments:
(1) Women have been discriminated against and treated as secondary citizens in most political systems of the past. They achieved the status of equals, where they’ve been granted suffrage and reservation to come forward and participate equally as males only in a democratic set up.

(2) In non-democratic set up, the principle of individual freedom and dignity do not have the legal and moral force.

(3) Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the socially and economically disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity through devices like reservation.

(4) But still, there are examples of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, however these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps this is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.

(5) A public expression of dissatisfaction with the administration proves the success of democracy in teaching the people about their human and legal rights.

(6) It transforms people from the status of a ‘subject’ to that of a citizen and entitles to them a dignified Life.
(Mention any five points)
OR
The differences between coming together federation and holding together federation are as follows:
(1) “Coming Together Federation” is formed when independent states come together to form a bigger country or nation-state.

(2) “Holding Together Federations” is formed when a large country decides to formed when larger countries divides central power itself into subunits between states and central government for better administration purposes.

(3) In “Coming Together Federation” , the state governments are stronger, whereas in “HoLding Together Federation”, the central government is stronger.

(4) In “Coming Together Federation”, all states governments have equal powers irrespective of the size but in “Holding Together Federation” this may not be the case.

(5) Examples of “Coming Together Federation”: U.S.A., Switzerland and Australia. Examples of “Holding Together Federation: India, Spain and Belgium.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Question 32.
How was the civil disobedience movement different from non-cooperation movement? Explain.
OR
Explain the role of Bretton Woods institutions in post-Second World War settlement. [5]
Answer:
In the Non-Cooperation Movement, People were to refuse cooperation with British while in the Civil Disobedience movement people were encouraged to break colonial laws.

  • Non-Cooperation was polite in its nature, Civil Disobedience movement was very assertive.
  • While the Non-Cooperation Movement was not large in its appeal, the Civil Disobedience Movement was carried out on a pan-india scale.
  • Laws were being broken, schools, colleges and elections boycotted all across the country.
  • In Non-Cooperation Movement, women participated in limited numbers while in Civil Disobedience Movement, women participated in large numbers who broke the salt law, picketed the shops selling foreign goods and liquor shops, manufactured the salt, etc.

OR

The role of Bretton Woods institutions in post- Second World War settlement:

  • The Second World War caused death and destruction on a huge scale. The amount of economic devastation and social disruption needed immediate and effective reconstruction.
  • To preserve economic stability and provide employment, the Bretton Woods Conference established the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It was created to mainly deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations.
  • Bretton Wood Twins, the International Bank for reconstruction and development, known as the World Bank was set up to finance post- war reconstruction.
  • These institutions were made to support nations by funding them. The Bretton Woods institutions have helped devastated nations build their economies rapidly.
  • These institutions later shifted their attention towards developing countries to help them grow and develop their infrastructure and production capacity.

Question 33.
What is national development? What are the aspects covered under the National development?
OR
Compare the economic activities of the private sector with that of the public sector.
Answer:
National development refers to the improvement of the . life standards of a country’s citizens through actualization of their different developmental goals: provision of a healthy, free, safe and dignified life to every citizen without any discrimination.

  • Under national development, the government decides what would be a fair and just for all citizens.
  • Under National development, only those programmes and policies are implemented which would benefit the maximum number of people.
  • Under national development, national interests are prioritised over self-interests.
  • National development also entails inclusivity of citizens in decision making, provision of compulsory health and educational facilities, affordable housing and food for every citizen.
  • National development also entails invoking feelings of belongingness, national unity among all communities.

OR
The differences between the economic activities of both the sectors are:

S.No. Public Sector Private Sector
(1) Most of the assets of the public sector are owned by the government. The private sector is owned by individuals or group of individuals.
(2) Government provides all services in the public sector. In the private sector, services are offered by the owner of the firm.
(3) Government raises money for various activities through taxes. The private sector collects money for the services they provide.
(4) In public sector, the motive is not to earn profits. Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits.
(5) Railways and post offce are examples of the public sector. Tata Steel and Reliance are examples of the private sector.

Section – E
Case Based Questions (4 x 3 = 12)

Question 34.
Read the given source and answer the following questions:
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things.

Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, the Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from the Human Development Report 2006.
(A) According to the passage given above, which indicators have come to be used widely along with income as a measure of development? [1]
(B) How did India perform at the Human development Report, 2018? [1]
(C) How is the criterion of World Bank in measuring development different from UNDP’s criteria? [2]
Answer:
(A) Indicators of Development
Related Theory:
The concept of human development was introduced by Dr. Mahabub-ut-Haq describing it as development that enlarges people’s choice and improves their lives, people are central to all development under this concept.

The United Nations development Programme (UNDP) has used his concept of human development to publish the Human development Report (HDR) annually since 1990.

(B) Other than income, Health and education are the importance criteria used to measure the level of development in almost all the countries in the world.

Question 35.
Read the given source below and answer the following questions:
Wages increased somewhat in the early nineteenth century. But they tell us little about the welfare of the workers. The average figures hide the variations between trades and the fluctuations from year to year. For instance, when prices rose sharply during the prolonged Napoleonic War, the real value of what the workers earned fell significantly, since the same wages could now buy fewer things.

Moreover, the income of workers depended not on the wage rate alone. What was also critical was the period of employment: the number of days of work determined the average daily income of the workers. At the best of times till the mid-nineteenth century, about 10 per cent of the urban population were extremely poor. In periods of economic slump, like the 1830s, the proportion of unemployed went up to anything between 35 and 75 per cent in different regions.

The fear of unemployment made workers hostile to the introduction of new technology.
(A) Why were the workers hostile to the introduction of new technology? [1]
(B) Why could not the rise in wages translate into a better lifestyle for these workers? [1]
(C) What other factors affected the lives of the workers? [2]
Answer:
(A) Workers were scared of getting replaced by the new technology. They felt they would be thrown out because the new technology was superior and more effcient.

(B) Other factors which affected the lives of the workers are:

  • Seasonality of work
  • Abundance of labour and lack of jobs

(C) Wage hike could not help the workers in living a better lifestyle because:

  • Wages increased but market prices also rose sharply which diluted all other benefits.
  • Also, work duration affected their total wages. Even if there was a wage hike, the period of employment affected their total.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions

Question 36.
Read the given source and answer the following questions:
This soil is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain. These soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH<6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients and occur mostly in southern states. Western Ghats region of Maharashtra, Odisha, some parts of West Bengal and North-east regions. Where these soils support deciduous and evergreen forests, it is humus rich, but under sparse vegetation and in a semi-arid environment, it is generally humus poor.
(A) Identify the soil based on the hints given in the source. [1]
(B) Name few crops which can be grown in this soil. [2]
(C) Why is the given soil poor in humus in a semi-arid environment? [1]
Answer:
(A) Laterite soil develops in tropical, subtropical climate with alternate wet and dry seasons and hence undergoes leaching (loss of water soluble nutrients and minerals from soil) because of heavy rains.

Related Theory:

  • Black soil is made up of Lava flows.
  • Alluvial soil is a result of deposition of minerals and proportions of sand, silt and clay by rivers in their course.
  • Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall, in hydrated form they appear yellow.

(B) pH level measures the acidity/basicity or neutrality of any compound. pH level below 6.0 or 6.0 states compound is acidic, 7.0 states compound is salt or is neutral and pH level above 7.0 states compound is basic in nature.

(C) In Loterite Soil, There’s not enough vegetation, hence not enough dead remains are available for decomposition and formation of humus.
Explanation: Humus is formed of remains of dead and decaying plants and animals. Since in sparsely vegetated areas, both are scarcely found, humus is not formed in an appropriate amount.

Section – F
Map Based Questions (2 + 3 = 5)

Question 37.
(a) On the given political map of India, identify the places marked as A and B with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) A place where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.
(B) A place where movement of Indigo planters started. [2]

(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Chennai – STP
(b) Marmagao – Seaport
(c) Sardar Sarovar – Dam
(d) Hyderabad – Rajiv Gandhi Airport [3]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions 2
Answer:
(a) Amritsar
(B) Champarn
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions 3