Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
  3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
  4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
  5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
  6. Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
  7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
  8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
  9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
MCQs (1 x 20 = 20)

Question 1.
Which of the following changes was a part of the 1992 amendment to the Indian Constitution which was a major step towards decentralisation of power?
(a) Telangana was created.
(b) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections for the local government bodies.
(c) Central Election Commission was institutionalised.
(d) It was made mandatory for the leaders to declare their physical assets before their election. [1]
(b) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to the local government bodies.
Explanation: A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The indian Constitution was amended to make the third- tier of democracy more powerful and effective. In this pursuit, holding regular elections was made compulsory.

Related Theory:
An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each state to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.

Question 2.
How do banks mainly use the deposits of their customers?
(a) to pay salaries of its employees
(b) to pay interests to its customers
(c) to return the money which the Bank has lent from entrepreneurs to balance its books
(d) to extend loans to people [1]
(d) to extend loans to people Explanation: Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people. Banks pays the salaries of its employees through the interest it earns by lending money to people.

Related Theory:
Banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers).

Question 3.
Read the given graph and answer the following question:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions 1
Which is the most important sector in terms of its contribution to the GDP in 1973?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Both Primary and Tertiary Sector
(a) Primary Sector
Explanation: The most important sector in terms of its contribution to the GDP in 1973 is the primary or the agricultural sector.

Question 4.
What is credit?
(I) Credit is the money lent to someone.
(II) Credit is the money borrowed from someone.
(a) (I) is true.
(b) (II) is true.
(c) Both (I) and (II) are true.
(d) Both (I) and (II) are false. [1]
(c) Both (I) and (II) are true.
Explanation: Credit is the money that a person borrows from another. The lent amount is known as credit. Credit (loan) refers to an agreement in which the Lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions

Question 5.
Identify the political party based on the given hints:
(I) Its symbol is an elephant.
(II) It was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
(III) Its main base is in Uttar Pradesh.
(a) NCP
(b) BSP
(c) BJP
(d) INC [1]
(b) BSP
Explanation: BSP (Bahujan Samaj Party) was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. It seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.

Question 6.
How did the policy of the Indian government regarding Indian producers and companies change after 1991?
(a) The government decided that the Indian producers could now compete with foreign companies and hence opened Indian market to the world.
(b) The government decided that the Indian producers required more protection and increased tax barriers.
(c) The government asked the Indian producers to learn foreign methods of production.
(d) They decided that the foreign companies should not be allowed to sell their products in India because they are inferior. [1]
(a) The government decided that the Indian producers could now compete with the foreign companies and hence opened the Indian market to the world.
Explanation: Starting around 1991, the government decided that the time had come for the Indian producers to compete with the producers around the globe. It felt that competition would improve the performance of producers within the country since they would have to improve their quality.

Related Theory:
Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent as a result of this liberalisation.

Question 7.
Match the items in both the columns and choose the code which reflects the correctly matched pairs:

Symbol Political Parties
(A) Hand (I) Indian National Lok Dal
(B) Bulb (II) INC
(C) Reading Glasses or Spectacles (III) CPI
(D) Sickle and Wheat (IV) Mizoram People’s Conference

(a) (A)- (IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
(b) (A)- (I), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(III)
(c) (A)- (II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV)
(d) (A)- (II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III) [1]
(d) A- (II), B- (IV), C-(I), D-(III)
Explanation: INC and CPI are both national parties while the other two, namely, Indian National Lok Dal and Mizoram People’s Conference are state parties. They have been recognised based on the criterion of the Election Commission.

Related Theory:
Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission. While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol – only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol.

Question 8.
The East India Company established political power, it could assert a monopoly on right to trade. Which of the following steps was not taken to assert a monopoly on the right to trade?
(a) Company tried to eliminate the existing traders.
(b) Company appointed Gomasthas to supervise weavers.
(c) Weavers were controlled by system of advances.
(d) Company tried to conquer new provinces. [1]
(d) Company tried to conquer new provinces. Explanation: The EIC proceeded to develop a system of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs, and ensure regular supplies of cotton and silk goods. Conquering new lands was to primarily establish political power and take over the administration of new lands.

Related Theory:
The company appointed a paid servant called the gomastha to supervise weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth.

Question 9.
What is the other name given to the great Indian Bustard?
(a) Chinkara
(b) Hangul
(c) Gharial
(d) Godawan [1]
(d) Godawan
Explanation: The Great Indian Bustard or Godawan is the state bird of Rajasthan and is considered India’s most critically endangered bird. It is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of the grassland ecology. Its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Related Theory:
The bird is under constant threats due to collision/ electrocution with power transmission lines, hunting (still prevalent in Pakistan), habitat loss and alteration as a result of widespread agricultural expansion, etc.

Question 10.
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power which takes the form of competition among different parties. How is this competition beneficial for the country?
(a) It introduces more candidates in a democracy.
(b) It ensures that power and responsibility is distributed among various parties and groups.
(c) It brings out new methods of administration.
(d) The competition leaves behind only the best administrators in power. [1]
(b) It ensures that power and responsibility is distributed among various parties and groups.
Explanation: In contemporary democracies, competition among different parties ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups. This makes the administration more representative.

Related Theory:
When two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections and if their alliance gets elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions

Question 11.
Choose the correct matched pair.
(a) Farmer from Punjab- insurance for his car
(b) An aspirant of government job-facilities to visit religious places
(c) An employee in an IT firm-Peaceful work atmosphere
(d) A poor man in a water scarce region-ways to dig deeper wells [1]
(c) An employee in an IT firm-Peaceful work atmosphere
Explanation: Ideal goals of development for the given people are Farmers from Punjab- insurance for his crops and equipment. An aspirant of government job- coaching facilities. A poor man in a water scarce region-free water supply through pipelines etc.

Related Theory:
Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these are important goals.

Question 12.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Consequences of environ-mental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.
Reason (R): Destruction due to exploitation of nature takes place everywhere.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation: Destruction due to natural disasters doesn’t restrict itself to a specific nation or region. The actions of any country can affect the entire world at the same time.

Related Theory:
Sustainability of development is essential for the upcoming generations to enjoy the fruits of the development achieved by our generation.

Question 13.
How can we suffer from water scarcity if planet Earth is three-fourth covered by water?
(a) Most water is polluted.
(b) Most water is in the form of ice and vapour and cannot be utilised.
(c) Over-exploitation of fresh water resources causes water scarcity.
(d) Drinking water is not accessible to all the countries in the world. [1]
(c) Over-exploitation of freshwater resources causes water scarcity.
Explanation: The availability of water resources varies over space and time, mainly due to the variations in seasonal and annual precipitation, but water scarcity is mostly caused due to over-exploitation and excessive usage of resources.

Related Theory: Freshwater can be obtained directly from precipitation, surface run-off and groundwater.

Question 14.
Which of the three states is the most developed based on all three indicators?

State Infant Mortality
Rate per
1,000 (2003)
Literacy Rate (%)
Net Attendance Ratio
for Class l-V
Punjab 49 70 81
Kerala 11 91 91
Bihar 60 47 41

(a) Kerala
(b) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(d) All three of them are equally developed. [1]
(a) Kerala
Explanation: All the indicators show that Kerala has better literacy rates and net attendance ratio which means Kerala provides better educational facilities. Infant mortality rates are low which show that the state has excellent medical and health care facilities.

Related Theory:
Bihar has high infant mortality and low literacy and net attendance ratio. This means it is not developed in comparison to other states.

Question 15.
Read the following data:

% share of national Income
Name of the Countries Top 20% Bottom 20%
South Africa 64.8 2.9
Brazil 63.0 2.6
Russia 53.7 4.4
USA 50.0 4.0
United Kingdom 45.0 6.0
Denmark 34.5 9.6
Hungary 34.4 10.0

Which of the following nations has an equitable distribution of income?
(a) Brazil
(b) South Africa
(c) Denmark
(d) Hungary [1]
(d) Hungary
Explanation: This is because maximum share of income in Hungary is not entrusted to the rich classes unlike in the other countries. In Hungary, the poor-most class shares 10% of the total wealth of the country. The richest class has 34.4 %. The difference between the two is not huge. Hence, it has an equitable distribution of economic resources and opportunities.

Question 16.
Find the odd one out from the following options:
(a) Solar energy, Hydel energy, Geothermal energy
(b) Wind energy, Tidal energy
(c) Nuclear energy, Natural gas, Petroleum and Coal
(d) Biomass, Atomic energy [1]
(c) Nuclear energy, Natural gas, Petroleum and Coal
Explanation: All the other options include only clean form of energy. These forms of energy are also examples of renewable resources. They can be renewed and rejuvenated periodically. While the odd option out includes Petroleum and Coal which are not clean forms of energy. They pollute the environment and cause climate change by emitting carbon di oxide upon burning.

Question 17.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
The Constitution declares India a of ……………. states.
(a) federation
(b) group
(c) confederation
(d) union [1]
(d) union
Explanation: The Constitution declares India as a Union of States. It does not use the word federation even though the Indian union is based on the principles of federalism. It is an indestructible union because the states do not have the right to secede from this union.

Related Theory:
America, on the other hand, is a federation of states.

Question 18.
Which of the following workers can be classified as an employee of the primary sector?
(a) A Cricketer
(b) A Fisherman
(c) A industry worker
(d) A Salesman [1]
(b) A Fisherman
Explanation: The primary sector includes activities like agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry. This sector is also called agriculture and related sector. A fisherman can be thus understood as an employee of the primary sector.

Related Theory:
A salesman and a cricketer are both performing services for other consumers and hence belong to the tertiary sector.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions

Question 19.
Which of the following minerals is NOT found in abundance in Meghalaya?
(a) Coal
(b) Iron Ore
(c) Limestone
(d) Copper [1]
(d) Copper
Explanation: In most of the tribal areas of the north-east India, minerals are owned by individuals or communities. In Meghalaya, there are large deposits of coal, iron ore, limestone and dolomite etc.

Related Theory:
Coal mining in Jowai and Cherapunjee is done by family members in the form of a long narrow tunnel, known as ‘Rat hole’ mining.

Boxes given in the chapter also contain important information. Students must pay attention to them while reading the chapter.

Question 20.
Why is collateral necessary to borrow money?
(I) It is a physical asset.
(II) It is a guarantee against the borrowed money.
(III) It can be sold if the borrower defaults on the repayment even once.
(IV) lt makes borrowing quicker.
(a) I and II (b) II only
(c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV [1]
(a) I and II
Explanation: Collateral is a physical asset that the borrower owns (such as land, building, vehicle, livestocks, deposits with banks) and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.

Related Theory:
If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.

Section – B
Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Besides the violence at Chauri Chaura, what were the other reasons why Gandhiji called off the Non-cooperation movement? [2]
Other reasons are:
(1) Within the Congress, leaders wanted to participate in elections to the provincial councils that had been set up by the Government of India Act of 1919 to try and bring changes in the administration from the inside.

(2) People were getting tired of the mass struggles and protests everyday. There were not many alternate Indian institutions that they could be a part of after boycotting the british institutions.

Question 22.
Mention the major iron-ore belts found in India.
Why is Aluminium an important metal? [2]
Two major Iron-ore belts found in India are:

  • Durg Bastar Chandarpur Belt in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra – It contains super high grade hematite iron ore. It has the best physical properties needed for steel-making.
  • Balia ri-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru- Tumakuru belt lies in Karnataka- Kudremukh has the largest iron-ore reserves in the world. The Kudremukh mines located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka are a 100 per cent export unit.

Aluminium is an important metal because:

  • It is very strong, resistant to corrosion and light. It is used to make equipment, airplanes and utensils.
  • Aluminium shows good conductivity and great malleability. It is a great conductor of heat.

Question 23.
Has the tertiary sector grown equally in terms of employment generation as its contribution to the GDP? Explain in two points. [2]
The Tertiary sector has not grown equally in terms of employment generation from 1973 to 2014. From 1973. to 2014, the primary sector continues to be the largest employer even now.

Such questions not only require thorough understanding of the given graph but also the other graphs mentioned in the chapter. Students should focus on each one of them.

Question 24.
How does the Equal Remuneration Act of 1956 help in overcoming the discrimination faced by women at work places? [2]
Women face immense discrimination at work place. They are not paid equally despite doing the same amount of work. The ERA of 1956 helped in the following ways:

  • The ERA 1956 made it mandatory for offices to pay a man and woman equally if they are both employed at the same position and are performing equally well.
  • This will reduce the wage gap and promote equality at work places. Women will feel appreciated and valued.

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 25.
How are state parties beneficial for Indian democracy? [3]
State parties are beneficial for the Indian democracy because:

  • India is a diverse country with numerous communities residing in different parts. State or regional parties help accomodate each of their aspirations.
  • State parties strengthen the concept of federalism in the Indian democracy because often national parties have to form coalition governments with state parties to govern a state/the country.
  • Common people and talented administrators can reach and participate in state parties easily. It is harder for them to approach national political parties.

Question 26.
Why is the road transport becoming more important for the development of a nation with time? [3]
Road transport is becoming more important with time because:

  • It is the most commonly used form of transportation for shorter distances. Goods are transported from factories to markets and vice versa using roads.
  • The construction and maintenance costs of roads is less than that of any other form of transportation. They are quicker to mend. Hence, they are the cheapest mode of transportation too.
  • They connect different modes of transportation to people’s residences and offices. For passangers, roadways is an intermediary form of transportation that connects their destination to their homes and one form of transportation to other.

Question 27.
Why did the developing nations organise themselves into G-77? Mention three points. [3]
Most developing countries did not benefit from the fast growth and economic institutions which were made by the developed countries.

  • The development that the Western economies experienced in the 1950s and 1960s was completely different from that experienced by developing and least developed countries.
  • To aid their development, the developing countries organised themselves as a Group of 77 (or G-77) – to demand a new international economic order (NIEO).
  • They wanted to gain real control over their natural resources, more development assistance, fairer prices for raw materials, and better access for their manufactured goods in developed countries’ markets which they weren’t able to get unless the financial institutions were neutrally administered.

Question 28.
Mention three reasons why Self Help Groups are necessary for people living in rural areas.
Give three reasons why banks should increase their lending in rural areas. [3]
Three reasons why Self Help Groups are necessary for the Indian economy are as follows:

  • Self help group members residing in rural areas can take small loans from the group itself to meet their financial needs on low interests. This prevents them from borrowing credit from moneylenders who charge exorbitant interests.
  • Banks are also willing to lend to the poor women when organised in SHGs, even though they have no collateral as such because SHGs bring accountability to them.
  • SHGs also help its members to inculcate saving habits. Hence the SHGs are beneficial for rural people.

Three reasons why banks should increase their lending in rural areas are:

  • Absence of bank branches in rural areas push them towards lending from moneylenders who charge exorbitant rates of interest.
  • Most people are unable to get loans from these lenders too because moneylenders are limited in number. Farmers require credit regularly but are unable to get the same because of this dearth.
  • Formal credit needs to be distributed more equally among lenders from all classes and communities. Opening branches in rural areas will help in that.

Question 29.
Printing created an appetite for new kinds of writing in the nineteenth century. Lives and feelings of women began to be written in particularly vivid and intense ways. How did this change things for the middle class women of the time? [3]
Printing created an appetite for new kinds of writing in the nineteenth century. This created favourable conditions for middle class women.

  • Liberal husbands and fathers started sending their women to women’s schools to read and learn about the world.
  • Many journals began carrying writings by women. They explained why women should be educated. They also carried a syllabus and attached suitable reading matter to be used for home-based schooling.
  • Few Bengali women like Kailashbashini Debi wrote books highlighting the experiences of women. Conservative Hindus and Muslim families were still opposed the education of their women.

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (5 x 4 = 20)

Question 30.
Differentiate between Food and Non Food crops by giving examples. Which of them is more important for the development of a nation?
What is resource planning? Why is resource planning essential? Explain. [5]
The difference can be listed on the basis:

Basis of Distinction Food Crops Non-Food Crops/Cash Crops
Definition Crops which are grown to be directly consumed are food crops. Crops grown to produce goods
Sowing purpose They are grown for sustenance. They are industrial crops-grown for sales.
Constituents They supply nutrition-vitamins. They do not necessarily supply nutrition.
Examples Paddy, Wheat Rice. Tea, Coffee, Jute, Cotton.

For a nation, both of these types are equally important because one of them is used for sustenance of the population while the other helps them earn their livelihood. Either one of them cannot be completely depended upon for the development of a nation.
Resource planning is a technique of proper utilisation of resources which aimed at sustainable development. Resource planning is essential because of the following reasons:

  • Most of resources available on earth are limited in supply.
  • The resources available to us are distributed unevenly all over the country.
  • Overutilization of the resources may lead to environmental pollution and depletion of resources as well. Therefore, planning of resources can reduce pollution and overutilization of resources as well.
  • Planning of resources can lead to having a balanced development at national, state, regional and local levels.

Question 31.
Highlight the various functions of political parties in India.
How can the relationship between politics and religion be beneficial and problematic at the same time? Explain. [5]
The functions are:

  • A political party contests elections through candidates.
  • In a democratic country, parties form a link between the government and the people. They convey their aspirations to the government at the centre.
  • Those parties which lose elections form the opposition. They voice different view points than the government and also mobilize opposition against them.
  • Political parties shape public opinion.
  • Political parties represent the views of various communities and mould it to achieve satisfaction for the majority.

The relationship between politics and religion can be beneficial:

  • Influence of religion can make politics ethical.
  • Religious communities can politically express their needs and interests. Politics can help ensure their freedom and equality.
  • Political authorities can monitor and control religious oppression.

The relationship can be problematic:

  • Religion can lead to development of nationalist sentiments leading to birth of conflicts.
  • Political parties use religion to make political gains by appeasing one and ignoring others.
  • State power may be used to establish the domination of one religious group over another.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions

Question 32.
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Do you agree? Elaborate upon your stand.
Explain how print culture developed in India. [5]
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. However this conservatism was coloured
in a new hue.

  • Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society-like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies etc., should be preserved.
  • They did not however propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
  • They agreed that the modernisation introduced by Napoleon could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy.
  • Conservatives believed that modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe.
  • They still believed in the orthodox institutions but they were prepared to colour them in the hues of modernism.

The print culture developed in India by the following means:

  • India had a very rich and old tradition of handwritten manuscripts in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, as well as in various vernacular languages.
  • The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid 16th century.
  • By the 1870s, besides Urdu, Marathi, Bengali, Hindi printing also began giving voice to local opinions.
  • Print in the 18th century : By the close of the 18th century, a number of newspapers and journals appeared in print. The first Indian weekly i.e. Bengal Gazette also came into picture in the late 18th century.
  • Print in the 19th century : By the end of the 19th century, a visual culture started taking place. By 1870s, caricatures and cartoons were being published in journals and newspapers. (Mention any 3 points)

Question 33.
Mention five factors which have made the phenomenon of Globalisation possible.
Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well Do you agree? Elaborate. [5]
Five such factors are:

  • Rapid improvement in transportation has helped in facilitating Globalisation. Improved transportation has made transfer of goods and services simpler and quicker.
  • Liberalisation of trade restrictions and foreign investment have enabled the globalisation process.
  • The drastic improvement in communication and Information technology has played a vital role in faster delivery of ideas and information across continents at very low costs. This has helped in intermingling of cultures.
  • Internet has facilitated strong contact between people from different nations. At one click, people can now virtually visit other nations. They can talk to people across the world through video calls, phone calls, emails and by using social media.
  • Barriers on foreign investment were also removed to a large extent enabling many MNCs to set up their units in the country.


  • Money or Income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of development, goods and services that citizens are able to use.
  • Money cannot buy a pollution-free environment or clean drinking water.
  • It cannot buy citizens rights and freedom to express their opinions.
  • Money cannot also ensure holistic national development. It might ensure economic growth but not development.
  • Money cannot ensure proper education. Money can afford to pay school fees but it cannot afford values and literacy which is more than just learning addition, subtraction etc.

Section – E
Case Based Questions (4 x 3 = 12)

Question 34.
Read the given source and answer the following questions:
The IMF and the World Bank were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial countries. They were not equipped to cope with the challenge of poverty and lack of development in the former colonies. But as Europe and Japan rapidly rebuilt their economies, they grew less dependent on the IMF and the World Bant Thus from the late 1950s the institutions began to shift their attention more towards developing countries.

As colonies, many of the less developed regions of the world had been part of Western empires. Now, ironically, as newly independent countries facing urgent pressures to lift their populations out of poverty, they came under the guidance of international agencies dominated by the former colonial powers.
(A) Why was the World Bank established? [1]
(B) How did the developing countries come under the guidance of international agencies? [1]
(C) Mention two characteristics of the post¬war international economic system. [2]
(A) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or the World Bank was set up to finance postwar reconstruction. This institution gives loan to least developed countries at low rates.
Related Theory:
The framework was agreed upon at the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in July 1944 at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA.

(B) The institutions were build to preserve the economic stability of the new world and to provide more employment. The developed countries outgrew the institution and did not need any more help.

This caused them to focus on the developing and least developed countries. They began solving their economic issues by granting them cheap loans and grants.

(C) Two characteristics of post-war international economic system or the Bretton Woods system are:

  • It was based on fixed exchange rates.
  • In this system, national currencies were fixed against the price of the dollar and the price of the dollar was fixed against gold.

Question 35.
Read the given source and answer the following questions:
Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as Sulphur dioxide and Carbon monoxide. Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.

Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects. Are you aware of the Bhopal Gas tragedy that occurred? Air pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants, buildings and the atmosphere as a whole.
(A) What is meant by the term “Airborne”? [1]
(B) How was the Bhopal Gas Tragedy caused? [1]
(C) Mention two ways to reduce Air pollution. [2]
(A) The term “Airborne” means transported by the air or carried by the air from one place to another.

(B) Bhopal Gas Tragedy was a major Industrial accident which occured in 1984. A dangerous gas, methyl isocyanate, escaped from an insecticide plant that was owned by the Indian subsidiary of the American firm Union Carbide Corporation. The gas killed thousands of people. Survivors continue to suffer from various diseases.

Such answers are based on real life incidents which have been mentioned in the book. It is always wise to make a detailed list of such incidents mentioned in a chapter and read about them separately.

(C) Two ways in which Air pollution can be reduced are:

  • Reducing the dependence upon fossil fuels for energy.
  • Fixing smoke filters, electric scrubbers and chimneys in industries to reduce and treat the disposed gas before releasing it in the atmosphere.

Related Theory:
Afforestation can also help in improving the air quality of a region. Trees help clear the quality by exhaling oxygen and inhaling carbon dioxide.

Question 36.
Read the given source and answer the following questions:
Do we prefer democracy only for moral reasons? Or are there some prudential reasons to support democracy too? Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens.

While these features are common to most of them, these democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social situations, their economic achievements and their cultures. Clearly, what may be achieved or not, achieved under each of these democracies will be very different. But is there something that we can expect from every democracy, just because it is democracy?
(A) What is a prudential reason for supporting democracy? [1]
(B) Mention two features of a democratic nation. [1]
(C) Mention two legitimate expectations from a democratic government. [2]
(A) A prudential reason for supporting democracy is that it helps to avoid social and political conflicts between communities with different interests and practises.

(B) A democratic nation has following features:

  • It ensures free and fair elections.
  • It has formally adopted constitutions.
  • It has a universal adult franchise and right to contest elections.
  • It has political parties who compete for power. (Mention any two points)

(C) Two such legitimate expectations are:

  • One can expect an accountable and responsible government from a democratic government.
  • A democracy should also facilitate transparent decision-making processes and results.

Section – F
Map Based Questions (2 + 3 = 5)

Question 37.
(a) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the places marked as A and B with the help of following information and write their correct name on che lines marked near it.
(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1927.
(B) Mahatma Gandhi organized a Satyagraha Movement at this place for indigo planters. [2]

(b) On the same given map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:
(a) Ramagudam thermal power plant
(b) Thiruvananthapuram Software Technology Park
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport
(d) Haldia port [3]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions 2
(a) (A) Madras (B) Champaran
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 6 with Solutions 3