Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Set 7 with Solutions
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
- All questions are compulsory.
- The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
- Section-A has 16 questions of 1 mark each: Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section- C has
7 questions of 3 marks each; Section- D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each: and Section-E has
3 questions of 5 marks each.- There is no overall choice. However, internat choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt onty one of the alternatives ¡n such questions.
- Wherever necessary, neat and properly Labeled diagrams should be drawn.
Section – A (16 Marks)
Question 1.
Which of the following is of haploid nature?
(a) Microspores and embryo sac
(b) Pollen mother cell and microspores
(c) Megaspore mother cell and embryo sac
(d) Nucellus and egg apparatus
Answer:
(a) Microspores and embryo sac Explanation: Pollen mother cell, megaspore mother cell, nucellus, exhibits diploid nature and egg apparatus has (2n + 3n) ploidy.
Caution:
The ploidy level of microspores and microspore mother cell as well as that of megaspore and megaspore mother cell often confuse students. Always remember that during meiosis a diploid cell forms haploid cell Thus, microspore or megaspore is haploid, formed from diploid microspore mother cell or megaspore mother cell by meiosis.
Question 2.
Match the following:
| Column (I) | Column (II) |
| (A) FemaLe Anopheles | (i) Occurs in stomach |
| (B) Gametocytes | (ii) Primary host |
| (C) Fertilization | (iii) Digestive tract of mosquito |
| (D) Mosquito bite | (iv) Sucks sporocytes |
Options:
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
Answer:
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
Explanation: When mosquito bites an infected person, it releases an anticoagulant and sucks up the gametocytes of the protozoan. The female anopheles is the primary host in the life cycle of protozoan. Gametocytes develop in the digestive tract of the mosquito. Fertilization occurs within the stomach.
Question 3.
What are (I) and (II)?
| (I) | (II) |
| (a) Mammals | Algae |
| (b) Mammals | Amphibians |
| (c) Algae | Crustaceans |
| (d) Amphibians | Mammals |
Answer:
(b) (I): Mammals; (II): Amphibians
Explanation:
The most diverse ecosystems may be found in South America’s mostly tropical Amazonian rain forest, which is home to more than 1,25,000 invertebrate species, A27 mammals, 427 amphibians, 3,000 fish, 1,300 birds, and more than 40,000 plants’ species.
Question 4.
The female reproductive part which is equivalent to the glans of the penis:
(a) Hymen
(b) Clitoris
(c) Uterus
(d) Placenta
Answer:
(b) Clitoris
Explanation: The term “glans” refers to the spherical vascular structure at the tip of the penis in male mammals and the clitoris in female mammals. It is the portion of the reproductive system that is visible.
Related Theory:
Above the urethral opening, tiny finger-like structure that lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora is called as clitoris.
Question 5.
If child has blood group B and mother has blood group A, then what are the impossibilities of blood group in father?
(a) B, AB
(b) B, A
(c) O, A
(d) AB, O
Answer:
(c) O, A
Explanation: If child has blood group B and mother has blood group A, then the possibilities of blood group in father is B, and AB.
Question 6.
Methanogens cannot be found in:
(a) aerobic sludge (digester) of a sewage treatment plant
(b) rumen (gut/stomach) of cattle or ruminants
(c) marshy areas
(d) flooded paddy fields
Answer:
(a) aerobic sludge (digester) of a sewage treatment plant
Explanation: Methanogens are present in the following environments: In the rumen (gut/ stomach) of cattle or other ruminants, in the anaerobic sludge (digester) of a sewage treatment plant, in marshy areas, and in flooded paddy fields.
Question 7.
The vitamin whose content increases while conversion of milk into curd by LAB:
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin B6
Answer:
(c) Vitamin
Explanation: The milk proteins are partly digested and coagulated by the acids that the LAB (lactic acid bacterium) creates as it grows. The bacterium that transforms milk into curd enhances the nutritional value of the product by boosting vitamin B12
Question 8.
The proteins encoded by the genes ………….. controls corn borer.
(a) cryiAb
(b) cryilAb
(c) acryliAc
(d) crylAc.
Answer:
(a) cry lAb
Explanation: The proteins encoded by the genes crylAc and cryllAb control the cotton bollworms, that of crylAb controls corn borer
Question 9.
In ICSI:
(a) the embryo is developed in the laboratory in which sperm is directly injected into ovum.
(b) embryo with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.
(c) involves in vitro fertilization.
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c)
Explanation:
A fertility remedy is intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI). In a lab, live sperm are injected into an individual’s eggs. An embryo can be produced using this process (fertilized egg). An example of in vitro fertilisation (IVF) is ICSI.
Question 10.
Mammalian cells in culture can take up DMA by:
(a) microinjection
(b) electroporation
(c) use of liposomes
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above
Explanation: Foreign DNA can be transferred into the living cells without involving the biological vector. They are microinjection, electroporation, liposome mediated gene transfer, biolistic method etc.
Question 11.
Which of the following is/are incorrect?
| Abbreviation (I) IVF |
Fruit form In Vivo Fertilisation |
| (II) ET | Embryo Transfer |
| (III) ZIFT | Zygote Inter FalLopian Transfer |
| (IV) GIFT | Gamete Intro Fallopian Transfer |
Options:
(a) (I), (II)
(b) (II), (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III)
(d) (I), (IV)
Answer:
(a) (I), (II)
Explanation: There are many assisted reproductive technologies (ART) that can give childless couples a blessing as follows:
(I) In vitro fertilization, or IVF (Test-tube babies).
(II) Embryo transfer, or ET
(III) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer, or ZIFT.
(IV) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Related Theory:
Some other assisted reproductive technologies (ART) are ICSI (Intracytoplasmic sperm injection) and IUI (Intrauterine Insemination).
Question 12.
Rakesh and Reshma struggle to conceive a child. They talked to a sexual therapist. Rakesh’s sperm count was normal, but the doctor noticed that his sperm were less mobile than usual. Which sperm component do you believe to be problematic?
(A) Acrosome
(B) Tail
(C) Nucleus
(D) Mitochondria
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
Answer:
(d) Mitochondria
Explanation: The middle portion of the sperm contains mitochondria. They are crucial for generating the energy needed for tail movement. Before the sperm and egg interact, this is crucialfor movement through the genital tract and oviduct. Rakesh may have fewer or less functional mitochondria, which hinders the movement of his normal number of sperm along the genital tract.
Question 13.
Assertion (A): Progesterone inhibits LSH production.
Reason (R): It stops further follicles to develop.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Progesterone inhibits FSH production and therefore it stops the further development of follicles.
Question 14.
Assertion (A): RDT is more useful than traditional hybridization procedure.
Reason (R): Traditional hybridization procedures are used in plant and animal breeding, very often it leads to inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with desired genes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: In the conventional hybridization processes used in plant and animal breeding, unwanted genes are frequently included and multiplied’ alongside desired ones. We can identify and introduce only one or a small number of desired genes into the target species using genetic engineering techniques, including the production of recombinant DNA.
Question 15.
Apple is a fruit that can be eaten and has about 7,500 cultivars. The ripened ovary and its surrounding tissues, which are edible, are contained in the fleshy fruit. Depending on the size, shape, and acidity, it comes in red, green, and yellow hues.
Assertion (A): Morphologically the fruit is a ripened ovary.
Reason (R); Ovary develops into fruit after fertilization.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Ovary develops into fruit after fertilization and thus morphologically the fruit is a ripened ovary.
Related Theory:
The fruit wall or pericarp develops from the wall of the ovary. Pericarp provides protection to seeds and thus helps in seed dispersal. The pericarp may be fleshy as in guava, tomato and cucumber or may be leathery and dry as in pea, bean and mustard. Pericarp is composed of three layers, i.e. Epicarp, Mesocarp and Endocarp.
Question 16.
Assertion (A): Tropical rain forest are called ‘Lungs of the Planet’.
Reason (R): Amazon rainforest are so old
and extensive in area and they generally draw in carbon dioxide and breathe out oxygen.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(d) A is False but R is true
Explanation: Amazon Rain Forest is known as the ‘Lungs of the Planet’ because they are so old and extensive in area and they generally draw in carbon dioxide and breathe out oxygen.
Section – B (10 Marks)
Question 17.
Name the scientist who discovered the:
(A) Recapitulation theory
(B) Mutation theory
(C) ‘On the origin of species’
(D) Theory of natural selection
Answer:
(A) Ernst Haeckel
(B) Hugo de vries
(C) Charles Darwin
(D) Charles Darwin
Question 18.
(A) Identify the above plant.
(B) Name the other plant with properties similar to above plant shown.
Answer:
(A) Datura
(B) Atropa Belladonna
Question 19.
Bt crops are plants that have been genetically altered (modified) to contain the bacterium’s endospore (or crystal) poisons, making them resistant to specific insect pests.
- Name the species from which the Bt- toxin genes were isolated.
- On which factor the choice of the Bt- gene depends?
Answer:
- Bacillius thuringiensis
- The choice of the genes depends upon the crop and the targeted pest.
Question 20.
Similar to other industries, the healthcare sector, including the IVF sector, experienced a significant upheaval in how it operated during COVID-19. Additionally, if a woman received a new COVID-19 diagnosis while being stimulated, these medical research organisations cautioned against continuing therapy. Describe any two assisted reproductive technologies.
OR
(A) What reflex is generated and which hormone is released during parturition?
(B) Which antibody is rich in colostrum?
Answer:
Two of the assisted reproductive technologies are:
(1) GIFT: “Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer” is referred to as GIFT. Gametes, or the female’s eggs and the male’s sperm, are cleansed and inserted into the female’s fallopian tubes using a catheter. Typically, this is a surgical procedure that causes some discomfort for about a week.
(2) IUT: Intrauterine insemination is the procedure of inserting a long, thin tube into a woman’s uterus to transfer a man’s sperm.
OR
(A) Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which induce mild contractions called foetal ejection reflexes. This triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
(B) IgA antibody
Question 21.
(A) Give the name of all the three genera of fungi responsible for causing ringworms.
(B) Name any two immunodeficiency disorders.
Answer:
(A) Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
(B) AIDS and SCID
Section – C (21 Marks)
Question 22.
(A) Differentiate between conformers and regulators.
(B) Identify (i) and (ii) in the graph shown below.
Answer:
(A).
| Regulators | Conformers |
| Metabolism is much faster | Metabolism is corn partitive slower |
| They are similar to birds, which are warm-blooded. | They are similar to modern-day reptiles, which are cold-blooded. |
| They can maintain a constant internal environment despite changes in the environment. | They cannot maintain constant internet environment and change according to the ambient atmospheric conditions. |
| They reflect a narrow of distribution. | They reflect a much wider range of distribution. |
(B) (i) Regulators
(ii) Conformers
Question 23.
Describe the functions of any three main hormones which are associated with the menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH):
- Stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles in the ovary.
- Encourages the ovarian tissues to manufacture estrogens.
Estrogen:
- After menstruation, the uterine wall is repaired.
- During the first two weeks of the menstrual cycle, concentrates until it causes the pituitary gland to release luteinizing hormone.
Luteinizing hormone (LH):
- Triggers ovulation.
- Induces the growth of a corpus luteum, which generates progesterone, from a Graafian follicle.
Question 24.
Explain the conservation replication of DNA with the help of figure.
OR
Write any three differences between ape and man.
Answer:
In this process, the DNA makes many copies of itself. In conservative replication, one original DNA acts as a template for the creation of two DNA copies. One of these two is constructed completely of brand-new DNA, whereas the other is composed of vintage DNA strands. The. biological significance of this DNA replication is negligible.
OR
| Ape | Man |
| Foramen magnum in skill is directed backward. In the vertebral column. the lumbar curve is absent. | The foramen magnum in the skull is directed downward. In the vertebral column, typical Lumbar curve is present. |
| In apes, the pelvic girdle is narrow and . elongated. Forelimbs are longer than hind Limbs. | In humans, pelvic girdle is broad and basin-Like. Forelimbs are shorter than hind Limbs. |
| Apes have semi-erect posture and quadrupedal locomotion. | Humans have complete erect postures with bipedal Locomotion. |
Question 25.
(A) Write any two features of rice genome project.
(B) What is abiogenesis?
Answer:
(A) (1)The rice genome is well mapped and well characterized and it is the smallest of the major cereal crop genomes at the estimated 400-430Mb.
(2) It is the third largest public genome project undertaken to date, behind the human genome project.
(B) It is the origin of life from non-living organic matter and without any intervention of living things.
Question 26.
(A) Identify I, II, III and IV.
(B) Name any two important biofertilizers.
Answer:
(A) I-Constant agitation
II- Settling tank
III- Activated sludge
IV- Anaerobic sludge digester
(B) Mycorrhiza and Frankia
Question 27.
(A) Give any four differences between immunization and vaccination.
(B) Differentiate between two different types of tumours.
Answer:
(A)
| Immunization | Vaccination |
| This process starts after the person is exposed to the vaccine and the body starts building resistance to that disease. | This process involves the introducing of the weekend and deactivating disease-causing microbes into a person. |
| Provides complete. immunity when the person fully recovers from the disease. | It does not guarantee complete resistance against disease |
| It is usually injected or administered orally. | It is not administered in any way: |
| Imovax vaccine is the trade name for the rabies vaccine. | The body builds up immunity through this vaccine for the |
(B)
| Benign Tumour | Malignant Tumour |
| (1) It is non-cancerous | (1)It is cancerous |
| (2) Remain-confined | (2) Spreads to other parts of the body |
Question 28.
(A) A prokaryotic cell does not have a clearly defined nucleus, but DNA is not dispersed all over the place. Explain.
(B) Why does the lac operon shut off after lactose was added to the medium in which E. coli was growing?
(C) important genetic abnormalities in humans can be cured via gene therapy. Comment.
(A) Some positively charged proteins hold some negatively charged DNA in the nucleoid region. The nucleoid’s DNA is arranged in substantial loops held together by proteins. And at one point, the mesosome is joined to the DNA in the form of single chromosomes.
(B) In response, lactose completely breaks down into glucose and galactose after being added. As a result, the repressor protein cannot bind to lactose, and the lac operon switches off.
(C) As a result of the “human genome project,” the majority of human genes and sequences have been discovered. Genetic diseases like eczema, cancer, haemophilia, thalassemia, and cystic fibrosis can now be treated by inserting the proper genes into affected individuals.
Section – D (8 Marks)
(Q. No. 29 and 30 are case based questions Each question has subparts with internal choice in one subpart.)
Question 29.
Sujata and Simran were working on two different stages of preparing a recombinant DNA. They were having a discussion on the process of DNA isolation and the polymerase chain reaction.
They posed the following questions to each other:
(A) Which enzyme is used to break open a fungal cell to release macromolecules like DNA, Proteins etc.?
(B) How many set/(s) of primers are required for the process of gene amplification? 1
(C) In the above diagram, the thermostable DNA polymerase used in the gene
Answer:
(A) Chitinase it is required to break open a cell to release DNA along with other macromolecules such as RNA, proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, etc.
Related Theory:
The genes are Located on the Long moLecules of DNA intertwined with protein such as histones. The RNA can be removed by treatment with ribonucLease whereas proteins can be removed by treatment with protease. Other molecules can be removed by appropriate treatments and purified DNA uLtimately precipitates out after the addition of chided ethanol This can be seen as collection of fine threads in the suspension.
(B) Two primers are required, oriented with their ends facing each other allowing synthesis of the DNA towards one another.
(C) Thermus aquaticus. DNA synthesis needs to be carried out by a polymerase which is stable at high temperatures. The polymerase which is generally used in PCR reactions or polymerase chain reaction is known as Taq polymerase. It is isolated from a bacterium called Thermus aquaticus. Other thermostable polymerases can also be used.
Related Theory:
If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times that is morethan 1 billion copies will be made. Such repeated amplification is achieved by the use of a thermostable DNA polymerase which remains active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA. The amplified fragment, if desired can now be used to ligate with a vector for further cloning.
OR
C could be Chitinase. The fungal cell wall is a complex and flexible structure composed basically of chitin and linked glucans, glycoproteins, and pigments. Chitinase can hence help in DNA isolation in the aforementioned case.
Question 30.
Mineral surfaces must have been important during the emergence of life on Earth, based on observations of minerals in modern rocks and soils. Whereas the assembly of the essential complex bio-organic molecules by random collisions in dilute aqueous soups is implausible, mineral surfaces could have played a catalytic role and acted as templates for the assembly of the first replicating organic molecules.
(A) What is Abiogenic theory?
(B) Who gave the concept of spontaneous
(C) Draw the Miller Urey’s experiment.
OR
Why the Earth’s atmosphere were of reducing nature before? Name the gases’ that was observed during Miller and Urey Experiment.
Answer:
(A) Abiogenesis is the theory which suggests that life first appeared on Earth more than 3.5 billion years ago. According to the theory of abiogenesis, the earliest life forms produced were extremely primitive before gradually becoming more sophisticated.
(B) Louis Pasteur
Related Theory:
In 1953, Stanley Miller (an American scientist) and Harold Urey set the laboratory conditions similar to the primitive atmosphere and carried out an experiment to demonstrate that in a closed flask, UV (Ultraviolet) radiations or electrical discharges or a combination of these can produce complex organic. compounds by taking a mixture ofCH4. NH3, H2 in the ratio 2:1:2 and water vapour at 800°C.
OR
All of the oxygen that was in the atmosphere was mixed with other substances. The early
section – E (15 Marks)
Question 31.
Explain the following process in flowering plants.
Answer:
The most varied category of terrestrial plants are angiosperms, which are flower-bearing plants. Angiosperms’ reproductive organs, which are distinct for male and female, are found in the flowers. Gametes, or sperm and egg ceils, are present in both. The pollen grains are assisted in reaching ” the stigma by way of pollination. The ovule-synergid cell receives the two sperm cells.
The next step is fertilization. The term “double fertilization” refers to the process of fertilization in angiosperms that produces both the zygote and the endosperm. In the complicated process of double fertilization, one of the two .sperm cells combines with the egg cell, and the other sperm cell fuses with two polar nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) and a diploid (2n) zygote, respectively.
Endosperm is created .when three haploid nuclei fuse together, a process known as triple fusion. The main endosperm nucleus eventually gives rise to the primary endosperm cell (PEC), which in turn gives rise to the endosperm. The zygote divides into many embryos before it becomes an adult.
OR
(A) In humans, there are two testicles. The scrotum, a pouch that houses the testes, is located outside the body. They have oval bodies that are around 4-5 cm long and 2-3 cm broad. The left testis often hangs a little bit lower than the right one. Each testis contains about 250 testicular lobules or compartments. Seminiferous tubules are the site of sperm production. One to three seminiferous tubules can be seen in each testicular
lobule. Two kinds of cells line seminiferous tubules:
(1) Spermatogonia or male germ cells- They undergo spermatogenesis to produce sperm.
(2) Sertoli cells – They provide nutrition to germ cells. Leydig cells or interstitial cells are present outside the seminiferous tubules in the interstitial spaces. They secrete male sex hormones or androgens, e.g. testosterone.
(B) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum does not degenerate. Instead, it grows continuously and produces progesterone which is necessary to support pregnancy. During pregnancy, a new graflfian follicle does not get mature. Therefore, there is no ovulation and no menstruation during pregnancy.
Question 32.
(A) A girl was having pain in his jaw, therefore she went to a dentist. Doctor said that her wisdom tooth is carising which is causing pain in her jaw. So by diagnosing, doctor adviced her to remove that tooth. But she was getting afraid by hearing this.
As a biology student, how will you console the girl and explain her the medical condition to help her overcome her fear of removal of wisdom tooth.
(B) Haemophilia occurs in the population with the frequency of 2 in 4000. Calculate the frequency of the carrier genotype using Hardy Weinberg Principle.
OR
(A) When a XX-egg is fertilised by Y-carrying sperm, what effects does that have on the child? What would you label this anomaly as?
(B) A tall, yellow, dihybrid pea plant was crossed with a double recessive plant.
(i) Which cross is this, exactly?
(ii) What is the genotype and phenotype of the progeny?
(iii) Which Mendel’s principle is demonstrated by the outcome of this cross?
Answer:
(A) I wilt tell, the girt that wisdom tooth is the vestigial part in the human beings and has no function in our body, hence, the removal of wisdom tooth wiLl not pose any health problem to her.
(B) The corner genotype is the heterozygous genotype. The Hardy Weinberg equation is used to calculate the genotype frequencies.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 2
Here, p2 is frequency of homozygous dominant genotype q2 is frequency of homozygous recessive genotype.
2pq is the frequency of heterozygous genotype. The incidence of sickle cell anemia in the population appears in individuals with the homozygous recessive genotype hence.
q2 is in 4000 or 2/4000 = 0.0005
Therefore, q = square root of 0.0005
= 0.0224
Since, p + q = 1
p =1 – q = 1-0.0024 = 0.9776
The frequency of heterozygous genotype
(2pq) is = 2 x 0.9776 x 0.0224
=5%
OR
(A) A child with Klinefelter syndrome and a XXY genotype wilt be developed from a generated by a XX-egg fertilised by a Y-sperm. It is distinguished by overtly feminine traits, such as a feminised body, a tait stature, pubic hair pattern, inadequate beard growth, and sterility,
(B) (i) Test cross
(ii)
(iii) According to the principle of independent assortment, when opposing characters are inherited, the factors of each pair of characters separate from the elements of the other pair of characters on their own.
Question 33.
(A) Give the name of the good vectors for cloning genes in plants and animals.
(B) What is meant by insertional inactivation in RDT?
(C) What are the two types of gene libraries?
OR
(A) State the two principles of biotechnology.
(B) Describe three possible vector-less techniques for delivering rDNA into a capable host cell.
Answer:
(A) Plants: tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
(B) Recombinant DNA technology employs a method called insertional Inactivation. This process involves engineering bacteria to insert foreign DNA or recombinant plasmids into a restriction site inside an antibiotic resistance gene, rendering the gene inactive or non-functional.
(C) (1) Genomic DNA: Cells in the majority of living things have genomic DNA. The genetic information that is handed down from one generation to the Additionally, they are often referred to as genomic DNA. In this, both introns and exons are represented.
(2) cDNA: A double-stranded DNA version of an mRNA molecule is called complementary DNA (cDNA). In this, only exons are represented.
OR
(A) The two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology include:
(1) Genetic engineering: Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to introduce these into host organisms.
(2) Maintenance of sterile ambiance in chemical engineering processes to enable growth of only the desired microbe-eukaryotic cell
(B) Transformation: The bacterial cell must first be made capable of absorbing DNA in order to drive bacteria to take up the plasmid. This is accomplished by administering to them a certain concentration of a divalent cation, such as Ca2+, which improves the efficiency of DNA entry into the bacteria through holes in its cell wall. Then, by incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by heating them to 420°C, and then putting them back into ice, recombinant DNA may be pushed into such cells.
Thus, the recombinant DNA may be ingested by the bacterium. Biolistics / Gene gun: Cells are bombarded with high-velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA. Microinjection: Glass micropipettes or metal microinjection needles are used to introduce genetic material into a living cell during the microinjection process. Glass micropipettes come in a variety of sizes and have tips that range in diameter from 0.1 to 10 m. Direct injection of DNA or RNA into the cell’s nucleus