Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1. This Question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D
  2. In Section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ Type Questions.
  3. In Section B question number 18-23 are Short Answer Type Questions (80-100) words. Question 18 & 19 are source based questions.
  4. In Section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based Questions (120-150) words.
  5. In Section D question number 29 to 30 are Map based Questions having 5 sub parts.

Section-A

Question 1.
The first stage of the Demographic Transition Theory has: [1]
(A) high fertility and low mortality
(B) high fertility and high mortality
(C) low fertility and low mortality
(D) low fertility and high mortality
Answer:
(A) high fertility and low mortality
Explanation: The first step of the Demographic transition theory has high fertility and low mortality.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Question 2.
Which of the following pairs is matched correctly? [1]

(A) Garrison Town – Ambala
(B) Tounsi Town – Saharanpur
(C) Mining Town – Kolkata
(D) Admmistralive Town – Singhrauli

Answer:

(A) Garrison Town – Ambala

Question 3.
approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. [1]
(A) Welfare
(B) Capability
(C) Income
(D) Basic needs
Answer:
(A) Welfare
Explanation: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.

Question 4.
Which of the following is the feature of ‘plantation agriculture’? [1]
(A) It is a single crop specializatipn.
(B) It is a multi crop specialization.
(C) It is an example of subsistence agriculture.
(D) Cultivation is done with the help of very primitive tools.
Answer:
(A) It is a single crop specializatipn.
Explanation: Plantation agriculture is a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area. The land is devoted to a single crop and the entire production is exported.

Question 5.
Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the: [1]
(A) energy supply
(B) communication supply
(C) labour supply
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(A) energy supply
Explanation: Petroleum are some of the important sources of energy for many industries. Industries which use more power are located near such sources so that there is an uninterrupted supply of energy and the production process is not hampered.

Question 6.
Buying and selling of things is termed as:[1]
(A) hunting
(B) trade
(C) commerce
(D) barter
Answer:
(B) trade
Explanation: Trade is a basic economic concept involving the buying and selling of goods and services. Trade can take place within an economy between producers and consumers.

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? [1]

Grassland/Subsistence gathering Country
(A) Glasslands of Australia Downs
(B) Grasslands of South Africa Velds
(C) Grasslands of North America Savanna
(D) Area of subsistence gathering in North America Alaska

Answer:

(C) Grasslands of North America Savanna

Explanation: The largest areas of Savanna are found in Africa, South America, Australia, India, Myammar, Thialand and Madagascar.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Question 8.
Identify the correct order of activities from lowest to highest rank: [1]
(A) Quaternary, Secondary, Tertiary, Primary
(B) Primary, Quaternary, Secondary, Tertiary
(C) Secondary, Primary, Quaternary, Tertiary
(D) Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary
Answer:
(D) Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary

Question 9.
The river basin which makes the minimum utilisation of groundwater: [1]
(A) Gomti
(B) Luni
(C) Subarnarekha
(D) Brahmaputra
Answer:
(C) Subarnarekha
Explanation: The digging of wells, the over use of water and the highly water intensive agricultural crops increases the uses of water becomes four times of the past years and the agriculture irrigation, tube wells and the use of water over large field cause decline in the level of groundwater utilization.

Question 10.
Which of these programmes is related to construction of water harvesting structures in Alwar, Rajasthan? [1]
(A) Neeru Meeru
(B) Arvary Pani Sansad
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Arvary Pani Sansad
Explanation: Rainwater harvesting is the collection and storage of rain, rather than allowing it to run off.

Question 11.
Arrange the canals from the longest to the smallest. [1]
(i) Grand canal, China
(ii) Qaraqum canal, Russia
(iii) Saimaa canal, Russia
(iv) Eurasia canal, Russia Options:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) ii, i, iii, iv
(C) iv, iii, i, ii
(D) i, iv, ii, iii
Answer:
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
Explanation: The Grand Canal, known to the Chinese as the Jing-Hang Grand Canal, is the longest canal or artificial river in the world.

Question 12.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options: [1]
I. Indiscriminate use of water for increasing population and industrial expansion has led to the degradation of the quality of water considerably.
II. Surface water available from rivers, canals, lakes etc. is always pure.
Options:
(A) Only Statement I is correct
(B) Both the statements are true and Statement II correctly present the reason for Statement
(C) Only Statement II is correct
(D) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect
Answer:
(A) Only Statement I is correct
Explanation: Surface water available from rivers, canals, lakes, etc. is never pure. It contains small quantities of suspended particles, organic and inorganic substances.

Question 13.
Assertion: During partition of 1947, two very important ports were snatched away from India. Reason: Karachi Port went to Pakistan and Chittagong Port to the East-Pakistan (Bangladesh) Options:[1]
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both statements are correct and Statement II correctly explains Statement
(D) Both are correct but not related to each other.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are correct and Statement II correctly explains Statement
Explanation: To compensate the losses, many new ports, like the Kandla in the West and the Diamond Harbour near Kolkata in the East were developed.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Question 14.
Assertion: The region of Gurugram-Delhi-Meerut is located far away from mineral and power resources. Reason: Therefore, the Industries are light and market-oriented. [1]
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Answer:
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
Explanation: Electronics, light engineering and electrical goods are major industries of this region.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
The population of India according to their economic status is divided into three groups, namely; main workers, marginal workers and non- workers. It is observed that in India, the proportion of workers (both main and marginal) is only 39.8 per cent (2011) leaving a vast majority of about 60 per cent as non- workers. This indicates an economic status in which there is a larger proportion of dependent population, further indicating possible existence of large number of unemployed or under employed people.

The proportion of working population, of the states and Union Territories show a moderate variation from about 39.6 per cent in Goa to about 49.9 per cent in Daman and Diu. The states with larger percentages of workers are Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Meghalaya. Among the Union Territories, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu have higher participation rate.

It is understood that, in the context of a country like India, the work participation rate tends to be higher in the areas of lower levels of economic development since number of manual workers are needed to perform the subsistence or near subsistence economic activities.

Question 15.
According to the economic status, the population of India is divided into? [1]
(A) Main workers
(B) Marginal workers
(C) Non- workers
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Question 16.
What is the proportion of main workers? [1]
(A) 60%
(B) 50%
(C) 49%
(D) 39.8%
Answer:
(D) 39.8%

Question 17.
………… is defined as the percentage of total workers to the total population. [1]
(A) Adult working population
(B) Work participation rate
(C) Young working population
(D) Marginal working population
Answer:
(B) Work participation rate

Section-B

Question 18.
Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:[3]
‘Manufacturing Industry’
Manufacturing means ‘to make by hand. However, now it includes goods ‘made by machines’. It is essentially a process which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods of higher value for sale in local or distant markets. Conceptually, an industry is a geographically located manufacturing unit maintaining books of accounts and records under a management system.

As the term industry is comprehensive, it is also used as synonymous with ‘manufacturing’. When one uses terms like ‘steel industry’ and ‘chemical industry’, one thinks of factories and processes. But there are many secondary activities which are not carried on in factories such as what is now called the ‘entertainment industry’ and ‘Tourism industry’, etc. So for clarity, the longer expression ‘manufacturing industry’ is used,

  1. “Manufacturing involves value addition.” Explain with a suitable example.
  2. Name two industries that provide services rather than production of goods.
  3. What is an industry?

Answer:
1. Manufacturing is essentially a process which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods of higher value. Example; Raw cotton is transformed to more valuable threads and then threads are further transformed into more valuable fabric. (Any other relevant example)

2. The ‘entertainment industry’ and ‘tourism industry’.

3. An industry is a geographically located manufacturing unit maintaining books of accounts and records under a management system.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Question 19.
Study the pie-chart given below and answer the questions that follow:[3]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions 1

  1. Which sector’s share is the maximum in the usage of surface and groundwater?
  2. What is the percentage of agricultural sector in the usage of surface water and groundwater?
  3. Why the development of irrigation was assigned a very high priority in the Five years plans?

Answer:

  1. The agricultural sector’s share is the maximum in the usage of surface water and groundwater.
  2. Surface water- 89% and Groundwater- 92%. India has traditionally been an agrarian economy, today two-thirds of its population depends on agriculture.
  3. Multipurpose river valley projects were launched to meet the irrigational needs of the country in Five years plans. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 20.
What is nuclear power? Mention the important nuclear power stations in India.[3]
Answer:
The power obtained by splitting atoms is called nuclear power. Nuclear power has emerged as a viable source in recent times. Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium.
Important nuclear power stations in India are:

  • Tarapur (Maharashtra)
  • Rawatbhata near Kota (Rajasthan)
  • Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu)
  • Narora (Uttar Pradesh)
  • Kaiga (Karnataka)
  • Kakarapara (Gujarat)

Question 21.
Why is road transport gaining more importance over rail transport? Explain.[3]
Answer:
Road transport is gaining more importance over rail
transport because:

  • The construction of roads is cheaper in comparison with railways.
  • Roads can be constructed even on hilly surface.
  • Roads provide door-to-door service while railways do not. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 22.
Describe the importance of sea routes in handling India’s foreign trade.[3]
OR
Distinguish between a port and a harbour.
Answer:
Importance of sea routes in handling India’s foreign trade

  • No track needs to be prepared.
  • Huge tonnage of goods can be easily carried through sea.
  • Sea route is cheap mode of transport.
  • India is surrounded by seas from three sides & is bestowed with a long coast line.
  • Any other relevant point. (Any three points)

OR
Port:

  • t is the point on the coast where the ship can be tied up for anchoring.
  • It provides facilities for loading and unloading of ship.
  • Ports are generally artificially created.
  • It provides many facilities like warehouses to store cargoes and well-built transportation systems.

Harbors:

  • It is an area at the sea providing shelter to the ships.
  • Ships are encouraged and given protection from waves and storms.
  • It is usually a natural structure.
  • It provides an adequate room for harbouring of ships. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 23.
What values can help in maintaining pollution-free air? [3]
Answer:
Values that can help in maintaining pollution-free air:

  1. Air pollution is harmful for environment and mankind; therefore, it is our responsibility to save air from pollution.
  2. People should be aware of the harmful effects of air pollution.
  3. People should feel duty bound to save air.
  4. People must follow rules for saving air.
  5. We must use eco-friendly, non-conventional sources of energy (solar, biogas and wind energy) as conventional sources (coal, oil and gas) are harmful.
  6. People should feel duty bound to use public transport. (Any three) (1 × 3 = 3)

Section-C

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Question 24.
Write a note on the ferrous minerals found in India. [5]
Answer:
Our country is well-placed in respect of ferrous minerals both in reserves and production.
Iron ore:
(i) India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. The two main types of ore found in our country are haematite and magnetite. It has a great demand in international market due to its superior quality.

(ii) The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal fields in the north-eastern plateau region of the country which adds to their advantage.

(iii) About 95 per cent of total reserves of iron ore is located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Manganese:
(i) Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and is also used for manufacturing ferrous alloys.

(ii) Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system.

(iii) Odisha is the leading producer of manganese. Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir. Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Bellary, Belgaum, North Canara, Chikmagalur, Shimoga, Chitradurga and Tumkur. (2½ + 2½ = 5)

Question 25.
Which is the apex body in India to improve the quality of National Highways? Examine the significance of National Highways. [5]
Answer:
The apex body in India to improve the quality of National Highways is National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
Significance of National Highways:

  1. National Highways pass across the country connecting major state capitals, major cities, important ports, and railway junctions.
  2. National Highways are meant for inter-state transport and for the movement of defence men and materials in strategic areas.
  3. The National Highways constitute approximately 2% of total road length and carries 40% of the total road traffic.
  4. There are of 4-6 lanes and makes the journey fast and easy. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 26.
Write a note on the changing nature of the international trade in India. [5]
OR
Describe the nature of water pollution in India.
Answer:
India aims to double its share in the international trade within the next five years. It has already started adopting suitable measures such as import liberalisation, reduction in import duties, de¬licensing and change from process to product patents. India has trade relations with most of the countries and major trading blocks of the world.
(i) Largest imports and exports are from Asia and oceanic countries.

(ii) Asia and Oceania accounted for 47.41 per cent of India’s export followed by West Europe (23.80 per cent) and America (20.42). Similarly, India’s imports were highest from Asia and Oceania (35.40 per cent) followed by West Europe (22.60 per cent) and America (8.36 per cent) in 2004-05.

(iii) Exchange of information and knowledge has surpassed exchange of goods and commodities. Through its advanced software knowledge and excellence in the field of information technology, India has emerged as a viable contender at the international level and is earning huge amounts of foreign exchange through the same.

(iv) Tourism too has added to India’s upgraded position in international trade. In 2004, there was a 23.5% increase in foreign tourist arrivals as against the number in 2003.

(v) India’s share in total world trade is continuously declining. It was 2.1% in 1950 and it is 1% in 2005. There are many factors responsible for it.

  • Depreciation in value of rupee in international market.
  • Slow progress in production. Increase in domestic consumption.
  • Increasing competition in international market, etc.

OR
(i) Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the quality of water considerably. Surface water available from rivers, canals, lakes, etc. are never pure. It contains small quantities of suspended particles, organic and inorganic substances.

(ii) Though water pollutants are also created from natural sources such as decomposition of plants and animals, pollutants from human sources are the real cause of concern.

(iii) Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc.,

(iv) Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes. Consequently, poisonous elements, reach the reservoirs, rivers and other waste bodies, which destroy the bio-system of these waters.

(v) Various types of chemicals used in modern agriculture such as inorganic fertilisers, pesticides and herbicides are also pollution generating compounds. These chemicals also infiltrate the soil to reach the groundwater. Cultural activities such as pilgrimage, religious fairs, tourism, etc., also cause water pollution.
(1 × 5 = 5)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Question 27.
Write an essay on hydel power in India. [5]
Answer:
Electricity produced from the water is called as hydropower. The falling water turns the water wheel or the turbines and electricity is generated. It is most convenient and versatile form of energy. Since, the First Five Year Plan, India has given much emphasis on generation of hydroelectric power from major hydro and mini hydel projects. These hydel projects also help in irrigation and fish culture. Hence, they are called multipurpose projects. Some of the

important hydel projects in India are:
(i) Bhakra-Nagal Project: The Bhakra-Nangal Project, on the river Sutlej, with its four power stations at Nangal, Bhakra, Ganguwal and Kotla is an important hydro power project. It has an installed capacity of 1.2 million KW. It supplies electricity to Punjab, Haryana and Delhi.

(ii) The Damodar Valley Project: The Damodar Valley Project with its three-hydel power stations at Tilaiya, Maithon and Panchet is built on river Damodar. It supplies electricity to Bihar and West Bengal.

(iii) The Hirakund Dam Project: The major hydroelectricity power project in Odisha is the Hirakud Dam Project on the river Mahanadi. The Rourkela Steel Plant mainly gets power supply from it.

(iv) The Rihand Project: It is a major hydroelectricity power project. On the borders of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh where water is stored in the form of a large lake and power is generated.

(v) The Chambal Valley Project: On the river Chambal, two power houses are constructed. One at Gandhi Sagar Dam in Madhya Pradesh and the other at Kota in Rajasthan.

(vi) The Koyana Hydroelectricity Project: It is one of the largest project in Maharashtra. The water of the Koyana, a tributary of the Krishna is utilised for power generation. It supplies electricity mainly to Mumbai-Pune industrial belt. (Any five) (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 28.
Discuss how modern agricultural technology has helped in increasing the chemical consumption and irrigation in enhancing the agricultural production. [5]
OR
Define the term ‘growth of population.’ Describe the third (III) phase of growth of population in India.
Answer:
Modern agricultural technology has diffused very fast in various areas of the country. Consumption of chemical fertilizers has increased by 15 times since mid-sixties. In 2001-02, per hectare consumption of chemical fertilizers in India was 91 kg which was equal to its average consumption in the world (90 kg). But in the irrigated areas of Punjab and Haryana the consumption of chemical fertilizers per unit area is three to four times higher than that of the national average. Since, the high yielding varieties are highly susceptible to pests and diseases, the use of pesticides has increased significantly since 1960s.

Expansion of irrigation has played a very crucial role in enhancing agricultural output in the country. It provided basis for introduction of modern agricultural technology such as high yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides and farm machinery. The net irrigated area in the country has increased from 20.85 million ha to 58.13 million ha over the period 1950-51 to 2000-01. Over these 50 years, area irrigated more than once in an agricultural year has increased from 1.71 million ha to 20.46 million ha. (2½ + 2½ = 5)

OR
Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time. The rate of the growth of the population is expressed in percentage (%). Third (III) phase of growth of population:

  1. India’s population entered the third stage of transition sometime in the close of the 1960s.
  2. This is the period of population explosion in India.
  3. The decline in the death rates was much more rapid than birth rate, the rate of increase in the population went up from 1.2 to 1.3 percent during 1921-51 to 2 to 2.2 percent during 1951-81.
  4. Improvement in the economy results in increase in the standard of living which in turn resulted in the decline of death rate. 1+4=5

Section-D

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Question 29.
On the given Political map of the world, the following Seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature.[5]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions 2

  • Shipping canal joining Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea.
  • Shipping canal in Central America.
  • Inland waterways of Europe.
  • Inland waterways of North America.
  • The waterway that connects the interior of USA with the Gulf of Mexico
  • A mega city in Philippine
  • The Terminal Station of a Transcontinental Railway.

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions 4

  • Suez Canal
  • Panama Canal
  • Rhina Inland Waterways
  • St. Lawrence Seway
  • The Missippi Waterways
  • Manila
  • Perth

Question 30.
On the given Political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols. [5]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions 3

  • Name a jute-producing state.
  • Name a cotton-producing state.
  • Name a sugarcane-producing state.
  •  Name a wheat-producing state.
  • Name a rice-producing state.
  • The leading tea-producing state.
  • The leading state in the production of coffee.

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions 5

  • West Bengal
  • Gujarat
  • Maharashtra
  • Punjab
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Assam
  • Karnataka