CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 6 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

This Question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D
In Section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ Type Questions.
In Section B question number 18-23 are Short Answer Type Questions (80-100) words. Question 18 & 19 are source based questions.
In Section C question number 2A to 28 are Long Answer based Questions (120-150) words.
In Section D question number 29 to 30 are Map-based Questions having 5 sub parts.

Section-A

Question 1.
Which one of the following organisations proposed the Basic Needs Approach”[1]
(A) International Labour Organisation
(B) United Nations Development Programme
(C) World Health Organisation
(D) International Monetary Fund
Answer:
(A) International Labour Organisation
Explanation: The Basic Needs Approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.

Question 2.
Which of the following pairs is matched correctly? [1]

(A) Autombile Industry	– Los Angles
(B) Shipbuilding Industry	– Lusaka
(C) Aircraft Industry	– Florence
(D) Iron and Steel Industry	– Pittsburgh

Answer:

(D) Iron and Steel Industry

– Pittsburgh

Explanation: Pittsburgh is the world’s capital for the production of Iron and Steel, and it located in the United States of America, it is known as ”Iron City”. Pittsburg district alone is responsible for producing one-fourth of steel required by the entire country.

Question 3.
The ‘gold collar’ professions are: [1]
(A) hardly paid workers.
(B) daily wages labourers.
(C) highly paid executives.
(D) None of the Above.
Answer:
(C) highly paid executives.
Explanation: Gold collar individuals are highly skilled and in high-demand professionals who are highly paid.

Question 4.
Choose the sea port of Europe: [1]
(A) Vancouver
(B) Durban
(C) North Cape
(D) Belem
Answer:
(D) Belem
Explanation: North Cape is an important seaport of Europe. This sea route which lies across the Atlantic Ocean connects the West European and the West African countries with Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay in South America. The traffic is far less on this route.

Question 5.
Which one of the following South American nation, is a part of OPEC? [1]
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Venezuela
(D) Peru
Answer:
(C) Venezuela
Explanation: Venenzuela has rich oil resources and is a part of the OPEC group of nations.

Question 6.
The number of farmers per unit area of farmland is known as [1]
(A) agricultural density of a population
(B) working density of a population
(C) industrial density of a population
(D) rural density of a population
Answer:
(A) agricultural density of a population
Explanation: Agricultural density is a statistical measure of population density. Population growth, development, and stability of a population are indirectly determined with the help of agricultural density. The quality of land largely affects agricultural density.

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? [1]

Period	Approaches
(A) Early colonial period	Exploration and description
(B) Literal colonial period	Regional analysis
(C) 1970 s	Emergence of humanistic, radical and behavioural schools
(D) 1980 s	Post-modernism in geography

Answer:

(D) 1980 s

Post-modernism in geography

Explanation: 1990 s period had post-modernism in geography approach.

Question 8.
Identify which of the following groups of cities have been arranged in the sequence of their ranks i.e., 1,2,3 and 4 in Total Literacy Rate? [1]
(A) Kerala, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
(B) Karnataka, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka, Bihar
(D) Bihar, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
Answer:
(A) Kerala, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
Explanation: Total Literacy Rate of Kerala is 93.91 percent Total Literacy Rate of Karnataka is 75.60 percent Total Literacy Rate of Uttar Pradesh is 69.72 percent Total Literacy Rate of Bihar is 63.82 percent

Question 9.
Palli and Nagla belong to which one of the following rural settlements: [1]
(A) Clustered
(B) Semi-clustered
(C) Hamleted
(D) Dispersed or isolated.
Answer:
(C) Hamleted
Explanation: Hamleted settlements are those that are divided into several physical units.

Question 10.
Nainital, Mussoorie, Shimla, Pachmarhi, Jodhpur are: [1]
(A) transport towns
(B) tourist towns
(C) industrial towns
(D) educational town
Answer:
(B) tourist towns
Explanation: The majority of the hill towns are the attraction for the tourists.

Question 11.
Arrange the following in correct sequence: [1]
Following is the information about History of Indian Airlines:
(i) Air transport was nationalised and two corporations, Air India International and Indian Airlines was. formed.
(ii) Air transport was provided by four major companies namely Indian National Airways, Tata Sons Limited, Air Services of India and Deccan Airways
(iii) Air transport in India was launched between Allahabad and Naini.
(iv) Four more companies joined the services Bharat Airways, Himalayan Aviation Limited, Airways India and Kalinga Airlines.
Options:
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer:
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

(Explanation:
(i) 1911-Air transport in India was launched between Allahabad and Naini. 1947-Air transport was provided by four major companies namely Indian National Airways, Tata Sons Limited, Air Services of India and Deccan Airways.

(iii) 1951-Four more companies joined the services, Bharat Airways, Himalayan Aviation Limited, Airways India and Kalinga Airlines.

(iv) 1953-Air transport was nationalised and two corporation, Air India International and Indian Airlines were formed.

Question 12.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options: [1]
I. Cotton is a ‘Pure’ raw material which does not lose weight in the manufacturing process.
II. The Swadeshi movement gave a major impetus to the industry as there was a call for boycotting all Indian made Khadi to encourage British goods in India.
Options:
(A) Only Statement I is correct
(B) Both the statements are true and Statement II correctly present the reason for Statement [1]
(C) Only Statement II is correct
(D) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect
Answer:
(A) Only Statement I is correct
Explanation: The Swadeshi movement gave a major impetus to the industry as there was a call for boycotting all British-made goods in favour of Indian goods.

Question 13.
Assertion: Indian agricultural economy was largely subsistence before Independence. [1]
Reason: Agriculture is purely land based activity unlike secondary and tertiary activities.
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both statements are correct Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
(D) Both are correct but not related to each other.
Answer:
(D) Both are correct but not related to each other.

Question 14.
Assertion: The advancement in Information Technology has had a profound influence on the country’s economy. [1]
Reason: A majority of the multinational companies operating in the area of Information Technology have either Software Development Centres or Research Development Centres in India.
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Answer:
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
Explanation: A major impact of this growth has been employment, creation, which is almost doubled every year. Plus India’s Software Industry has achieved a remarkable distinction for providing quality products.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Small scale manufacturing is distinguished from household industries by its production techniques and place of manufacture (a workshop outside the home/cottage of the producer). This type of manufacturing uses local raw material, simple power-driven machines and semi-skilled labour. It provides employment and raises local purchasing power. Therefore, countries like India, China, Indonesia and Brazil, etc. have developed labour¬intensive small-scale manufacturing in order to provide employment to their population.

Question 15.
How are small scale industries distinguished from household industries? [1]
(A) On the basis of production techniques
(B) On the basis of place of manufacturing
(C) On the basis of market demand
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation:
While small-scale industries produce goods with mechanised equipment employing outside labour, the cottage industries involve operations mostly by hand which are carried on primarily with the help of the members of the family. A cottage industry is one which is carried on wholly or primarily with the help of members of the family either, as a whole or part- time occupation. A small-scale industry, on the other hand, is one which is operated mainly with hired labour, usually employing 10 to 50 persons.

Question 16.
In small scale industries the manufacturing is done on [1]
(A) Large scale
(B) Micro scale None
(C) Macro scale
(D) of the Above
Answer:
(B) Micro scale None
Explanation: The investment in small scale
industries is done one time on machinery, plant, and equipment, but it does not exceed Rs. 10 crore

Question 17.
Which is the correct example of small-scale industry? [1]
(A) Leather industry
(B) Pickle making
(C) Beverages
(D) Computer making
Answer:
(B) Pickle making
Explanation: The pickle making business does not require much investment since the demands of the business are minimal. The man power employed is not as high as large scale industry and not much specialised skill is required.

Section-B

Question 18.
Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
The National Youth Policy (NYP-2014) launched in February 2014 proposes a holistic ‘vision’ for the youth of India, which is “To empower the youth of the country to achieve their full potential, and through them enable India to find its rightful place in the community of nations”. The NYP-2014 has defined ‘youth’ as persons in the age group of 15-29 years. The Government of India also formulated the National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in 2015 to provide an umbrella framework to all skilling activities being carried out within the country, and to align these to common standards and links skilling with demand centres.

When was the NYP launched?
What was the main thrust of NYP?
When did the Government of India formulate the National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship?

Answer:

The government has launched the National Youth Policy (NYP 2014) to cater the needs of youth in India.
The main thrust of the policy is to empower the youth in terms of their effective participation in decision-making and carrying the responsibility to be a leader.
The National Skill Development Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet on 01.07. 2015, and officially launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 15.07. 2015 on the occasion of World Youth Skills Day.

Question 19.
Study the map and answer the following questions:[3]

(i) Name the canal shown in the map.
Name the two ports on either side of the canal.
State the advantages of ocean transport over land and air transport.

Answer:

Panama Canal
Colon, Panama
- Advantages of ocean transport over land and air transport.
- One of the great advantages of water transportation is that it does not require route construction. The oceans are linked with each other and are navigable with ships of various sizes.
- All that is needed is to provide port facilities at the two ends.
- It is much cheaper because the friction of water is far less than that of land.
- The energy cost of water transportation is lower.
- Eco friendly. (1 + 1 + 1= 3)

Question 20.
What are metropolitan cities and mega cities? Give two examples of each of the metropolitan cities and mega cities from India.[3]
Answer:
Cities which have population size between one million and five million are called metropolitan cities and more than five million cities in the world are mega cities.
Examples:

Metropolitan cities: Surat, Kanpur, Jaipur, Lucknow, etc.
Megacities: Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad, etc. (1+2=3) (CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015)

Question 21.
How would you distinguish between net sown area and gross cropped area? [3]
Answer:

Net Sown Area	Gross Cropped Area
(i) Net sown area is the proportion of the country which is used for growing crops.	(i) Gross cropped area is divided by net sown area. It includes the part of net sown area which is used for two or three crops in a year.
(ii) Out of the known total area of 3046 lakh hectares, the net sown area is 1411 lakh hectares. It is 46.32% of the total area.	(ii) For example if 5 hectares of net sown area is used for double cropping in a year, the gross cropping is 10 hectares.
(iii) The distribution of net sown area is not uniform. In Northern Plains, it is very high. In Punjab, it is 84%, while in Mizoram it is 3.1%	(iii) Gross cropped area explain the intensity of cropping in a region. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, have the high gross cropped area. Ra¬jasthan have low gross cropped area.

Question 22.
Explain the importance of irrigation for agriculture in India. [3]
OR
Give two advantages of ‘wind energy.’ Mention four states in India having favourable conditions for the development of wind energy.
Answer:
Importance of irrigation
(i) Control of drought and famines Insufficient, uncertain and irregular rain causes uncertainty in agriculture. Even during monsoon, the rainfall is scanty and undependable in many parts of the country. Sometimes, the monsoon get delayed considerably while sometimes they cease prematurely. This pushes large areas of the country into drought conditions. With the help of irrigation, droughts and famines can be effectively controlled.

(ii) Higher productivity on irrigated land Productivity on irrigated land is considerably more than the productivity on unirrigated land.

(iii) Multiple cropping possible Provision of irrigation facilities can make the growing of two or three crops in a year in most areas of the country. This will considerably enhance agriculture production and productivity.

(iv) Role in new agricultural strategy The successful implementation of the High Yielding Programme enhances agricultural production to a great intent. This has been made possible due to the expansion of irrigation facilities. (Any three)

OR
The advantages of wind energy are:

The wind is free and with modern technology it can be captured efficiently.
Once the wind turbine is built the energy it produces does not cause greenhouse gases or other pollutants.
Although wind turbines can be very tall and each take up only a small piece of land. This means that the land below can still be used. This is especially the case in agricultural areas as farming can still be continued.

States having favourable conditions are:

Rajasthan
Gujarat
Maharashtra
Karnataka (1 + 2= 3)

Question 23.
Explain any three characteristics of the ‘State Highways’ in India [3]
Answer:
Three characteristics of the State Highways in India are:

These are constructed and maintained by the state governments.
They join the state capitals with district headquarters and other important towns. These roads are connected to the National Highways.
These constitute 4 per cent of total road length in the country. (1 × 3 = 3)

Section-C

Question 24.
Classify means of communication on the basis of scale and quality into two categories. Explain any two characteristics of each category. [5]
Answer:
Classification of means of communication on the basis of scale and quality

Personal
Mass Characteristics

1. Personal Communication System:
(a) It is the most effective and advanced one and widely used in urban areas.

(b) It enables the user to establish direct connect through e-mail to get access to world of knowledge and information.

(d) It is a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items. (Letters, Telephone, Fax, E-mail, Internet, etc).

(e) Among all the personal communication system, internet is the most effective and advanced one. It is widely used in urban areas. It enables the user to establish direct contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information.

(f) The internet is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items. The network through internet and e-mail provides an efficient access to information at a comparatively low cost.

2. Mass Communication System
(a) Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay and changed the socio – cultural life of people. All India Radio broadcasts a variety of programmes related to information, education and entertainment. Special news bulletins are also broadcast at specific occasions like session of Parliament and state legislatures.

(b) Television broadcasting emerged as the most effective audio-visual medium for information and educating masses.

(c) Use of satellite and synoptic view of larger area for economic and strategic reasons. (Radio, Television, Cinema, Satellite, Newspaper, Magazine and Books, Seminar and Conference, etc). On the basis of configuration and purposes, satellite system in India can be grouped into two: Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) and Indian Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS). The INSAT, which was established in 1983, is a multipurpose satellite system for telecommunication, meteorological observation and for various other data and programme. (Any two points to be explained of each category) (2½ + 2½ =5)

Question 25.
How is the use of plastic bags harmful for environmental degradation? Evaluate it by citing suitable reasons. [5]
OR
The disposal of urban waste has become a serious concern for the local authorities. Analyze the statement with
suitable examples.
Answer:

Chemicals added to plastics are absorbed by human bodies. Some of these compounds have been found to alter hormones or have other potential human health effects.
Plastic debris, laced with chemicals and often ingested by marine animals, can injure or poison wildlife.
Floating plastic waste, which can survive for thousands of years in water, serves as mini transportation devices for invasive species, disrupting habitats.
Plastic buried deep in landfills can leach harmful chemicals that spread into groundwater.
Around 4 percent of world oil production is used as a feedstock to make plastics, and a similar amount is
consumed as energy in the process.

OR
The problem of overcrowded, congested and insufficient infrastructure of urban areas results in accumulation of huge urban waste. There are two sources of urban waste. Household or domestic sources and industrial or commercial sources. The mismanagement of urban waste disposal is a serious problem in big cities. Tons of waste come out daily in metropolitan cities and are burnt. The smoke released from the waste pollutes the air. Lack of sewers or other means to dispose of human excretes safely and the inadequacy of garbage collection sources adds to water pollution.

The concentration of industrial units in and around urban centres gives rise to a series of environmental problems. Dumping of industrial waste into rivers is the major cause of water pollution. The solid waste generation continues to increase in both absolute and per capita in cities. This improper disposal of solid waste attracts rodents and flies which spread diseases. The thermal plants release a lot of smoke and ash in the air. For example, a plant producing 500 MW electricity releases 2000 tons of ash which is difficult to manage

Question 26.
“Waterways is an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India.” Support the ” statement with examples. [5]
OR
Attaining sustainable development in the command area requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve ecological sustainability. Highlight the measures proposed to promote sustainable development in the command area of Indira Gandhi Rajasthan Canal.
Answer:
Importance of water transport in India:

It is the cheapest mode of transport.
It is suitable for carrying heavy & bulky material.
It is fuel efficient & eco friendly.
India contributes 1% of the Inland waterways.
It comprises rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks etc.
Ocean routes will help in doubling India’s foreign trade.
National waterway 1 from Allahabad (Prayagraj) to Haldia, National waterway 2 from Saliva to Dhubri etc. and all major parts.
Any other relevant point? (To be supported by explaining any five points with examples)

[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019] (1×5=5)

Detailed Answer:
The waterway is an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India.

Waterways are the cheapest mode of transport.
Waterways are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
Waterways are fuel-efficient.
Waterways are an environment-friendly mode of transport.
Heavy and bulky goods being exported or imported are easier for trans-shipment from waterways to ships on the coast, as the waterways lead to ports. (1×5=5)

OR
Seven measures proposed to promote sustainable development in the command area are meant to restore ecological balance.
(i) The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy. The canal project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in

(ii) In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.

(iii) The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system (equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet) shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.

(iv) The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity
shall be reclaimed.

(v) The eco-development through afforestation, shelterbelt plantation and pasture development is necessary, particularly in the fragile environment of

(vi) The social sustainability in the region can be achieved only if the land allottees having poor economic background are provided adequate financial and institutional support for cultivation of land.

(vii) The economic sustainability in the region cannot be attained only through development of agriculture and animal husbandry. The agricultural and allied activities have to develop along with other sectors of the economy. This shall lead to diversification of economic base and establishment of functional linkages between basic villages, agro-service centers and market centers. (Any five points) (1×5 = 5)

Question 27.
Write a note on the non-ferrous minerals found in India. [5]
Answer:
India is poorly endowed with non-ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite.
Bauxite:
(i) Bauxite is the ore which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.

(ii) Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers.

(iii) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other major producers. Bhavanagar, Jamnagar in Gujarat have the major deposits.

(iv) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa are minor producers of bauxite.

Copper”

Copper is an indispensable metal in the electrical industry for making wires, electric motors, transformers and generators.
It is malleable and ductile. It is used in alloy making and also mixed with gold to provide strength to jewellery.
The copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan. (2½ + 2½ =5)

Question 28.
The depleting water resources may lead to social conflicts and disputes. Elaborate it with suitable examples. Analyse any five points of importance of ‘pipelines’ as means of transportation.[5]
Answer:
The available water resources are depleting rapidly. The depletion of water resources has led to social conflicts in the country. Some examples are as follows:

(i) There was a shortage of water for irrigation in Haryana. The Central Government planned to provide water from the River Satluj, but the people of Punjab did not allow the government. This matter was even decided by the Supreme Court in favour of Haryana. But it did not take the real shape.

(ii) The Kaveri River dispute between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka was also such dispute which was settled by the Supreme Court recently.

(iii) Polluted water of the rivers also creates a problem in the society. Several rivers are being polluted by the industries of different states such as Yamuna from Delhi to Etawah, Ganga at Kanpur and Varanasi.

(iv) The Satluj-Yamuna Link Canal dispute between Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan also lead to social disputes.

(v) Similarly, the River Krishna dispute between Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh has also caused a lot of social unrest. (1×5=5)

OR
Importance of Pipelines

Pipelines are used extensively to transport liquid, gases and slurry.
It is used to transport liquefied coal.
In New Zealand, milk is being supplied through pipelines from farms to factories.
About 17% of all freight per tonne-km is carried through pipelines in U.S.A
Pipelines are used to connect oil wells to refineries and to ports or domestic markets.
Any other relevant point.

(Analyse any five points)
[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019]

Detailed Answer:
Pipelines are considered as one of the most convenient modes of transport due to the following benefits by it:
(a) Provide large volume transportation for example 60 million litres per day.
(b) Provide excellent safety with fewer than two incidents per 10,000 kilometres of pipeline per year.
(c) Are secure and provide uninterrupted supply, unaffected by weather conditions.
(d) Are cost-efficient for medium and long haul transportation, with no need for handling operation.

(e) Provide an uninterrupted flow of water, gas and petroleum. Pipelines are ideally suited to transport liquids and gases as they have relieved the increasing pressure on the existing surface transport system (railways and roadways). Moreover, pipelines are safe, accident-free and environmental friendly.

(f) Rule out trans-shipment losses or delays. Supply through pipelines is very reliable. It is free from obstacles in road and rail transport.

(g) Are quick, cheap, efficient and environment friendly mode of transportation.
(h) Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but, the running cost is minimal.
(i) Are eco-friendly, do not contribute to the pollution and save fuel.
(j) Can be laid in difficult terrains, underwater, and dense forested areas. (Any five) 1×5=5

Section-D

Question 29.
On the given Political map of the world, the following Seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each features. [5]

Grasslands of Australia associated with commercial grain farming.
Grasslands of South Africa associated with commercial grain farming.
Grasslands of North America associated with commercial grain farming.
One area of subsistence gathering in North America.
One area of nomadic herding in Asia.
A Mega City
A Journal Station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

Answer:

Downs of Australia
Velds of South Africa
Prairies of North
Mongolia
Delhi
St. Petersburg

Question 30.
On the given Political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols. [5]

An iron ore mine in Karnataka.
The southermost major seaport of India.
A major copper mining area in Rajasthan.
A major seaport which has been developed after Independence to cater to the needs of western and northwestern parts of the country.
The international airport located in Assam.
A textile centre next to Ahmedabad.
An integrated iron and steel plant in Odisha.

Answer:

Kudremukh
Tuticorin
Khetri
Kandla
Guwahati
Vadodara
Rourkela