Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1. This Question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D
  2. In Section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ Type Questions.
  3. In Section B question number 18-23 are Short Answer Type Questions (80-100) words. Question 18 & 19 are source based questions.
  4. In Section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based Questions (12D-150) words.
  5. In Section D question number 29 to 30 are Map based Questions having 5 sub parts.

Section-A

Question 1.
Which of the following pair is correct? [1]
(A) Mediterranean Agriculture – Production of citrus fruits
(B) Mixed Farming – dominated cultivation
(C) Primitive Subsistence Agriculture – Mechanised grain farming
(D) Intensive Subsistence Agriculture – Jhumming farming
Answer:
(A) Mediterranean Agriculture – Production of citrus fruits
Explanation:
The Mediterranean region is an important supplier of citrus fruits. Viticulture or grape cultivation is a speciality of the Mediterranean region(Atlantic coast, southern California, central Chile, south western parts of South Africa and south and south western parts of Australia).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Question 2.
Which of the following pairs is matched correctly? [1]

(A) Very High Between 0.550 upto 7.00
(B) High Above 0.800
(C) Medium Between 0.701 upto 0.799
(D) Low Below 0.549

Answer:
(C) Medium Between 0.701 up to 0.799

Question 3.
Paper and medicine are industries [1]
(A) mining
(B) extracting
(C) Forest
(D) rain
Answer:
(C) Forest
Explanation:
All industries which derive their raw materials from the forests or plant life are called forests-based industries.

Question 4.
Which one of the following activities comes under ‘Primary Activities’? [1]
(A) Pastoralism
(B) Weaving Basket
(C) Milk Vending
(D) Tailoring
Answer:
(A) Pastoralism
Explanation: Pastoralism comes under the category of the primary activities.

Question 5.
Choose the ‘push factor’ of migration from the followings: [1]
(A) Socio-economic backwardness
(B) Pleasant climate
(C) Security of life and property
(D) Peace and stability
Answer:
(A) Socio-economic backwardness
Explanation:
Socio-economic backwardness is a major push factor of migration as the desire to obtain higher wage rates, improved the standard of living, better job opportunities, and good education system tempts the people to move to better places.

Question 6.
Who among the following has said-‘Asia has many places where people are few and few place where people are very many7? [1]
(A) Prof. Amartya Sen
(B) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq
(C) George B. Cressey
(D) Thomas Malthus
Answer:
(C) George B. Cressey

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? [1]

Industries Sugar
(A) Agro-based Plastic
(B) Mineral based Leather
(C) Chemical based Raw Material/Inputs
(D) Forest-based Sugar

Answer:
(C) Chemical based (Raw Material/InputsP)
Explanation: Leather is a raw material by Animal Board Industry. Forest Board Industry requires timber etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Question 8.
is an important mode of transport for both passenger and heavy cargo traffic in India. [1]
(A) Waterways
(B) Airways
(C) Roadways
(D) Pipeline
Answer:
(A) Waterways
Explanation:
Waterways has remained one of most important modes of transportation for the cargo traffic as well as the passengers in India.

Question 9.
Identify the land locked harbour from the following: [1]
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Ennor
(D) Both C & D
Answer:
(A) Vishakhapatnam
Explanation: The port of Vishakhapatnam has a landlocked harbor.

Question 10.
In which of the size class of urban centres India has the highest population? [1]
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Answer:
(A) I
Explanation:
Urban Centre with population of more than one lakh is called a city or class I town. Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities and more than five million are mega cities. Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai Bangalore, Hyderabad and Greater Mumbai are the metropolitan dties.

Question 11.
Arrange the following approaches in ascending order on the basis of time and choose the correct option: [1]
I. Areal differentiation
II. Spatial organisation
III. Exploration and description
IV. Regional analysis
(A) I, II, III IV
(B) IV, III, III
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) II, I, IV, III
Answer:
(C) III, IV, I, II
Explanation:
(III) Exploration and description
(IV) Regional Analysis
(I) Areal differentiation
(II) Spatial organisation

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Question 12.
Study the following statements I and II and choose the correct option: [1]
I. The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.
II. During this period a rapid fall in the mortality rate and high fertility rate in the country.
Option:
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) I and II both are wrong
(D) I and II both are correct
Answer:
(D) I and II both are correct
Explanation:
The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent.

Question 13.
Assertion: Cotton in the boll has limited use. [1]
Reason: When it is transformed into yarn it becomes more valuable.
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both statements are correct Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
(D) Both are correct but not related to each other.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are correct Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
Explanation: Secondary activities add value to Natural Resources by transforming Raw Materials into Valuable Products. When cotton boll is transformed into yarn, it becomes more valuable and can be used for making clothes.

Question 14.
Assertion: With the invention of the wheel, the use of carts and wagons became important.
Reason: Railways become the most popular and fastest form of transport in the nineteenth century. [1]
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Answer:
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Explanation:
The revolution in transport came about only after the invention of the Steam Engine in the Eighteenth Century.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 that follow:
The use of telecommunications is linked to the development of modern technology. It has revolutionised communications because of the speed with which messages are sent. The time reduced is from weeks to minutes. Besides, the recent advancements like mobile telephony have made communications direct and instantaneous at any time and from anywhere.

The telegraph, morse code and telex have almost become things of the past. Radio and television also help to relay newTs, pictures, and telephone calls to vast audiences around the world and hence they are termed as mass media. They are vital for advertising and entertainment. Newspapers are able to cover events in all corners of the world. Satellite communication relays information of the earth and from space. The internet has truly revolutionised the global communication system.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Question 15.
The means of electronic transmission of information over distances is known as:
(A) Overseas communication
(B) Communication
(C) Telecommunication
(D) Long-distance communication
Answer:
(C) Telecommunication

Question 16.
Fixed-line telephones were first established as telecommunications network in the late:
(A) 1700s
(B) 1800s
(C) 1900s
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) 1800s

Question 17.
State one characteristic of telecommunications.
(A) Tedious task
(B) No exchange of ideas
(C) Time-saving
(D) Only One person is involved
Answer:
(C) Time-saving
Explanation:
There must be a minimum number of two persons because no single individual can have an exchange of ideas with himself. A listener is necessary to receive one’s ideas. Therefore, there must be at least two persons-the sender of information and the receiver.

Section-B

Question 18.
Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:  [3]
Subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation: This type of agriculture is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population. Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low.

  1. Why is wet paddy farming subsistence?
  2. State one advantage of wet paddy farming.
  3. Why is the use of machinery limited in subsistence agriculture?

Answer:
1. Wet paddy farming is subsistence because historically communities grew rice for themselves and this lead to a way of life that has lasted many years.

2. Water requirement of paddy fields is around 3000 mm. Seepage from irrigation canals and deep percolation from paddy fields raise local groundwater table, and it functions as water source for upland fields surrounding the paddy fields.

3. Use of machinery is limited in subsistence agriculture because farmers grow food crops to meet the needs of themselves and their families on smallholdings. (1×3 = 3)

Question 19.
Study the map given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions 1

  • Identify and name the railway line shown on the map.
  • Name the continents linked by this rail route.
  • Explain how this railway line is helpful for the promotion of trade in this region.

Answer:

  • Trans-Siberian railway
  • It connects Asian countries with European countries.
  • It helps Asian region to market their products in European region. (1×3 = 3)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Question 20.
“Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India.” Examine. [3]
Answer:

Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India:

  • Towns like Harappa & Mohanjodaro were in existence.
  • Towns continued to flourish in prehistoric period.
  • Prehistoric towns developed along the rivers.
  • Any other relevant point? (To be examined by explaining any three points) (Any three)

[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019]

Detailed Answer:
Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India. Even at the time of Indus valley civilisation, towns like Harappa and Mohanjodaro were in existence. The following period has witnessed evolution of towns. It continued with periodic ups and downs until the arrival of Europeans in India in the eighteenth century. On the basis of their evolution in different periods, Indian towns may be classified as:

(a) Ancient Towns:
There are number of towns in India having historical background spanning over 2000 years. Most of them developed as religious and cultural centres. Varanasi is one of the important towns among these. Prayag (AEahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai are some other examples of ancient towns in the country.

(b) Medieval Towns:
Almost 100 existing towns have their roots in the medieval period. Most of them
developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms. These are fort towns which came up on the ruins of andent towns. Important among them are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.

(c) Modem Towns:
The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. Starting their foothold on coastal locations, they first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Pondicherry, etc. The British later consolidated their hold around three prindpal nodes – Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta) -and built them in the British style. 3

Question 21.
“The decades 1951-81 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.” Explain the statement by giving any three reasons. A 1 [3]
Answer:
21. The decades 1951-81 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India due to the following reasons:

  • There was rapid fall in mortality rate.
  • High fertility rate of the population in the country.
  • Improvement in living conditions.
  • Improvement in transportation and communication.
  • Improvement in health and sanitation.

(Any three) (1×3=3)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Question 22.
Give the meaning of “Net Sown Area.’ Explain any two points of difference between ‘Current Fallow’ and ‘Cultivable wasteland’. [3]
OR
Differentiate between metallic minerals and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area. It represents the total area sown with crops. Area sown with crops more than once in the same year is counted only once.

Difference:

  1. Current fallow is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Whereas, cultivable wasteland is the land that is left fallow (uncultivable) for more than five years.
  2. Current fallow land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes. Cultivable wasteland can be brought under cultivation after improving it through redamation practices. (1 + 1 + 1 = 3)

OR

No. Metallic Minerals Non-Metallic
(i) Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form. (i) Minerals Non-metallic minerals do not contain metals.
(ii) These metals are generally associated with igneous rocks. (ii) These metals are generally associated with sedimentary rocks.
(iii) They are usually hard and have a shine of their own. (iii) They are not usually hard and have no shine of their own.
(iv) Examples: Iron, cop per, bauxite and tin. (iv) Examples: Salt, coal, mica, and day.

Question 23.
Name the programs that were directed towards the development of target areas. [3]
Answer:
Some of the programs directed towards the development of target areas are:

  • Command Area Development Programme
  • Drought Prone Area Development Programme
  • Desert Development Programme
  • Hill Area Development Programme
  • The Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA)
  • Marginal Farmers Development Agency (Any Three) (1×3=3)

Section-C

Question 24.
‘The Suez Canal and the Panama Canal are two vital man-made navigation canals which serve as gateways of commerce for both the eastern and western worlds’. In the light of this statement explain the economic significance of these two canals. [5]
Answer:
Economic importance of the Suez and the Panama- Canals:
The Suez Canal:

  • It has given Europe a new gateway to Indian Ocean and Australia.
  • It has shortened the distance.
  • It saves time and fuel.
  • It has become cheaper as compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.
  • Suez is sea level canal.

Thus, Suez is very suitable for commerce.

The Panama Canal:

  • This canal has linked Eastern America with Western America.
  • It also links Europe with Western America.
  • It has shortened distance between Europe and Western America.
  • It saves time and fuel.
  • There are locks in canal even then it is more economical. (Any five of each to be explained.)

(CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016) (2½+2½=5)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Detailed Answer:
The Suez Canal:

  • It has shortened the distance: The Suez Canal is considered to be the shortest link between the East and the West due to its unique geographical location.
  • It saves time and fuel: The Suez Canal saves distance, time and operating costs for vessels that transit the canal.
  • It is an important international navigation canal linking the Mediterranean Sea at Port Said and the Red Sea at Port Suez.
  • Suez is very suitable for commerce: The canal is liable to be widened and deepened when required to cope with the development in ship sizes and tonnages.
  • The accidents are almost nil compared with other waterways.

The Panama Canal:
(i) It saves time and fuel: Today 10 per cent of the US shipping goes through the canal as it saves the travel time as well as the fuel consumption.

(ii) It has shortened distance between Europe and Western America: The canal has created an ease in the world trade. Therefore, the Canal helps to keep the world, trade running smoothly, keeping in mind America’s large economic importance.

(iii) This canal has linked Eastern America With Western America: The canal has shortened the distance and has opened the trade route between the US west coast and the east coast of South America.

(iv) Job Opportunities: The Panama Canal has created more job opportunities related to the distribution of the cargo.

(v) There are locks in canal even then it is more economical: This is because it cuts down the travel time taken by the cargo to reach the destination port.

Question 25.
Explain how ‘watershed management’ and ‘rainwater harvesting’ are the methods of efficient management and conservation of surface water resources in India. [5]
Answer:

  • It prevents runoff, recharges groundwater through percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc.
  • Haryali is a watershed development project which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.
  • It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources: natural and human within a watershed.
  • Neeru-Meeru Programme in Andhra Pradesh and Arvary Pani Sansad in Rajasthan have taken up construction of various water harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, check dams, etc. Rainwater

Harvesting:
(i) Traditional rainwater harvesting mainly in rural areas is done by using surface storage bodies like lakes, ponds, irrigation tanks, etc.

(ii) In Rajasthan rainwater harvesting structures, locally known as kunds or tankas are constructed near or in the house or village to store harvested rainwater.

(iii) It raises water availability, increases the quantity and improves the quality of groundwater by diluting pollutants/ contaminants, prevents soil erosion, reduces the fury of floods and checks salt water intrusion in coastal areas.

NOTE:
At least two points from each method to be explained.

(CBSE Marking Scheme,2018) (1×5 = 5)

Question 26.
Discuss the five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture in order to increase food production. [5]
OR
Explain any five major problems of the rural settlements faced in India.
Answer:
Five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture to increase foodgrains production are:

  • Intensification of cropping over cultivated land.
  • Increase cultivated area wherever possible.
  • To use HYV seeds, i.e., easy availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides.
  • Expansion of irrigation facilities. .
  • Use modem agricultural technology. (1×5=5)

(CBSE Marking Scheme, 2017)

Detailed Answer:
(i) Intensification of cropping over cultivated land: Foodgrains are the main consumption item of Indian people. Food availability is a necessary condition for food security. Intensification of cropping over cultivated land has helped in increasing the food production.

(ii) Increase cultivated area wherever possible: The government has introduced measures to abolish intermediary rights on land and all state government adopted legislation for the purpose. More and more land was given to farmers in order to increase the production of crops and hence solve the problem of food scarcity.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

(iii) To use HYV seeds, and availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides: In several regions, the farmers are not able to get information about the availability of new and improved varieties and some are not having access to quality seeds of these varieties., resulting in lesser yields. Farmers are being educated and encouraged to make use of HYV seeds along with easy availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides.

(iv) Expansion of irrigation facilities: Improved management of water for irrigation is essential in enhancing production and productivity, food security and poverty alleviation. It is necessary that an integrated water use policy is formulated and judiciously implemented. Modern methods of irrigation like sprinklers, drip irrigation, fertigation, among other water efficient tools need to be adopted on larger scale.

(v) User modem agricultural technology: Integrated pest management and integrated weed management has been provided to ensure higher production and sustainability of production base. (1 x5=5)
OR
Problems of rural settlements faced in India are:

  1. Rural settlements in India have poor infrastructure facilities.
  2. Supply of water to rural settlements is not adequate. People in villages, particularly in mountainous and arid areas have to walk long distances to fetch drinking water.
  3. Waterborne diseases such as cholera and jaundice are common problems because of lack of safe drinking water and unhygienic conditions.
  4. Villages are adversely affected by the conditions of drought and flood. This in turn affects the crop cultivation.
  5. The absence of toilet and garbage disposal facilities cause health-related problems.
  6. The houses made up of mud, wood and thatch get damaged during heavy rains and floods.
  7. Most of the houses do not have proper ventilation.
  8. Unmetalled roads and lack of modern communication
    networks cause difficulties in providing emergency services during floods.
  9. It is also difficult to provide adequate health and educational infrastructure for large population. The problem is particularly serious where houses are scattered over a large area. (Any five) 1×5=5

Question 27.
How is the population density closely related to the physical and socio-economic factors? [5]
Answer:
Population density is closely related to physical and socio-economic factors.
(i) Dense population in Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Kerala is due to flat and fertile plains, favourable climate, water availability and socio-economic factors.

(ii) Sparse population of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, North-Eastern States is due to hilly terrain, dense forests and harsh climate.

(iii) Rajasthan has water shortage and its hot and dry climate accounts for low population density.

(iv) Moderate density is seen in Odisha, Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, etc. due to possibilities of agriculture, industrial development and favourable climate to some extent.

(v) Mediterranean regions were inhabited from early periods in history due to their pleasant climate.

(vi) Favourable factors for transport network, industrialization, urbanization in Maharashtra, Goa, Delhi NCR, etc. account for high population density. The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan is thickly populated because of the presence of a number of industries. (Any Five Points) (1 x5=5)

Question 28.
What are the geographical requirements and areas of production of tea and coffee? [5]
OR
What do you know about the groundwater resources of India.
Answer:
Geographical requirements and areas of production:
Tea:

  • It is grown over undulating topography of hilly areas.
  • It requires well-drained soil.
  • It grows in humid and sub-humid tropics and sub -tropics.

Regions:
Brahmaputra Valley of Assam, Sub Himalayan region of West Bengal (Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri and Cooch Behar districts), the lower slopes of Nilgiri and Cardamom Hills in Western Ghats.

Coffee:

  • It requires tropical climate.
  • It is grown on undulating highlands.

Regions:
Highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016) 5

OR
(i) The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km.

(ii) The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in the north-western region and parts of south India.

(iii) The groundwater utilisation is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. However, there are states like Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc., which utilise only a small proportion of their groundwater potentials.

(iv) States like Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Tripura and Maharashtra are utilising their groundwater resources at a moderate rate.

(v) If the present trend continues demands for water would need the supplies. And such situation, will be detrimental to development, and can cause social upheaval and disruptions. (1×5=5)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Section-D

Question 29.
On the given Political map of the world, the following Seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each features. [5]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions 2

  • A major area of subsistence gathering
  • Name any one area of nomadic herding
  • Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing
  • A port on the coast of the Red Sea
  • The most important port of Pakistan
  • The country with largest area in Africa
  • The waterway that connects the interior of USA with the gulf of Mexico. (Any five)

Answer:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions 3

  • Tundra Region of Eurasia/Northern Eurasia
  • Mongolia
  • Australia
  • Egypt
  • Karachi
  • The Mississippi Waterways
  • Algeria

Question 30.
On the given Political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols. [5]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

  • The state having the highest density of population
  • The state having the lowest density of population
  • The state with largest number of out migrants
  • The leading state in the production of coffee
  • The state with the highest proportion of urban population in India
  • The headquarters of the ‘East Coast Railway Line’.
  • Give the name of the international airport in Tamil Nadu. (Any five)

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions 5

  • Bihar
  • Arunachal Pradesh
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Karnataka
  • Maharashtra
  • Bhubaneshwar
  • Chennai