CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

All the questions are compulsory.

  1. Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
  2. Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words each.
  3. Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  4. Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon, and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
  5. Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170 words.

Section – A (12 Marks)

Question 1.
ARF was established in the year_______ [1]
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1994
(D) 1995
Answer:
(C) 1994

Explanation: ASEAN Regional Forum was the body that was established for the negotiation on different issues in the year 1994.

Question 2.
_______influenced the establishment of the organisation for European Economic Cooperation in 1948. [1]
(A) Marshall Plan
(B) Molotov Plan
(C) Manhattan Plan
(D) Warsaw Plan
Answer:
(A) Marshall Plan

Explanation: The Marshall Plan was put into place for the redevelopment of the Europe after the end of the World War II and this plan inspired the establishment of EEC.

Question 3.
Which one of the following was NOT given primacy by the makers of the Soviet System? [1]
(A) Abolition of private property
(B) Society based on the principle of equality
(C) No opposition party to be allowed
(D) No state control over economy
Answer:
(D) No state control over economy

Explanation: The USSR supported the idea of establishment of a centrally planned economy where there was total control of state over the economic affairs.

Question 4.
Who was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of India. [1]
(A) Sukumar Sen
(B) H.J. Kania
(C) VP Menon
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
Answer:
(A) Sukumar Sen.

Explanation: The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was Sukumar Sen who successfully completed the first two general elections.

Assertion Reason Questions: Directions for Q.Nos. 5 and 6
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose one correct answer from the given options
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Soviet Union and Communism collapsed in 1991.
Reason (R): The internal weaknesses of the Soviet political and economic institutions failed to meet the aspirations of the Soviet people. [1]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation: The disintegration of the USSR took place in the year 1991 due to the political and economic crisis which the bloc was facing in its influenced nations.

Question 6.
Assertion (A): India did not give legitimacy to the communist government in China as per its foreign policy. [1]
Reason (R): India and China agreed to follow the ideals of the Panchsheel
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(D) A is false, but R is true

Explanation: India was one of the earliest nations of Asia to give legitimacy to the communist government in China and the two nations agreed to follow the ideals of the Panchsheel.

Question 7.
Which of the following leader of East Pakistan was arrested by the Pakistani army which led to the war of 1971? [1]
(A) Sheikh Mujibur Rehman
(B) Zia-ur Rehman
(C) Sheikh Hasina
(D) Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto
Answer:
(A) Sheikh Mujibur Rehman.

Explanation: West Pakistan made the arrest the head of the Awami League, Sheikh Mujibur Rehman, in East Pakistan which led to the beginning of the resistance movement in East Pakistan.

Question 8.
In 1966_______contested Indira Gandhi for the post of Prime Minister from among Congress MPs. [1]
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(C) Gulzari Lai Nanda
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Answer:
(A) Morarji Desai

Explanation: After the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri there was a competition between Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi for the post of Prime Minister.

Question 9.
Which among the following would give more weightage to India’s proposal for permanent membership in the Security Council? [1]
(A) Nuclear capability
(B) It has been a member of the UN since its inception
(C) It is located in Asia
(D) India’s growing economic power and stable political system
Answer:
(D) India’s growing economic power and stable political system

Explanation: The rising economic and political impact of the Indians in the world makes a strong contenders for the upliftment of their position in the Security Council.

Question 10.
The key to growing India-Israel ties are: [1]
(A) defense
(B) religion
(C) trade
(D) politics
Answer:
(A) defense

Explanation: The growing proximity between India and Israel is due to the defense cooperation between the two nations.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 11.
The political party with C. Rajagopalachari as one of the prominent leaders and the one which was formed after the Nagpur Resolution of Congress was: [1]
(A) Communist Party
(B) Swatantra Party
(C) Congress Socialist Party
(D) Jana Sangh
Answer:
(B) Swatantra Party

Explanation: C. Rajagopalachari established the Swatantra Party to give strong opposition to the unilateral rule of Congress.

Question 12.
Dalit Panthers were formed and acted strongly in the state of_______ [1]
(A) Orissa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(B) Maharashtra

Explanation: Dalit Panthers were formed in the state of Maharashtra and fought for several reforms.

Section – B (12 Marks)

Question 13.
What is meant by a multipolar world order as visualized by India and Russia? [2]
Answer:
By a multipolar world order, they meant for the co-existence of several powers in the international system, collective security, greater regionalism, negotiated settlements of international conflicts, an independent foreign policy for all countries and decision-making through bodies like the UN which should be strengthened, democratized and empowered.

Question 14.
Has there been resistance to globalization in India? [2]
Answer:
Yes, resistance to globalization in India has come from different quarters.
(1) There have been left-wing protests to economic liberalization voiced through political parties as well as through forums like the Indian Social Forum.
(2) Resistance to globalization has also come from the political fight taking the form of objecting particularly to various cultural influences ranging from the availability of foreign television channels provided by cable networks, a celebration of Valentine’s Day, and westernization of the dress tastes of girl students in schools and colleges.

Question 15.
How was the reorganization of North-East India completed and by when? [2]
Answer:
The reorganization of the Northeast was almost completed in 1972. Meghalaya was carved out of Assam in 1972. Manipur and Tripura too emerged as separate states. The states of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh came into being much later. Nagaland had become a state in 1963.

Question 16.
Why is Japan considered as a rich country? [2]
Answer:
Japan was considered rich because it imported luxury goods like silk from China and textiles from India. In 2017, it became the third largest economy in the world. Japanese have a reputation of making high technology products. Japan is doing extremely well in Robotics and Automobile sectors and has a reputation of making high technology products, e.g., ASIMO, world’s most advanced humanoid robot is developed in Japan, other examples of Japanese brands are Maruti Suzuki, Sony, etc.

Question 17.
Discuss the causes of the Kargil war of 1999. [2]
Answer:
The cause of the conflict was the infiltration of Pakistani soldiers and Kashmiri militants into the Kargil district of Jammu and Kashmir and along the Line of Control. The intrusion into the area, that divided the Indian territory of Ladakh from the northern areas of the state, surprised the Indian army and Operation Vijay was launched immediately to flush out the enemies from the Kargil sector.  Tiger Hill, one of the highest peaks in the DrassKargil area of the State, became the focal point during the War. Indian Air Force (IAF) joined this operation and finally, after the fierce War of more than 60 days, India recaptured the Tiger Hill and pushed the Pakistani forces back to their territory.

Question 18.
How terrorism is a non-traditional threat to security? [2]
Answer:
Terrorism is a non-traditional threat to security.
Non-traditional notions of security go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence. Proponents of non-traditional threats to security say that not just the state but also individuals or communities or indeed all of humankind come under security.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Section – C (20 Marks)

Question 19.
What was the Green Revolution? Mention two positive and two negative consequences of the Green Revolution. [4]
Answer:
Green Revolution: It was introduced to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture, especially in food grains like wheat and rice to increase food production through high-yielding varieties of seeds, synthetic fertilizers, and scientific irrigation.
Positive Consequences:

  • It increased food production, especially in wheat, followed by an enhancement in food security.
  • Due to the green revolution, states like UR Punjab and Haryana became agriculturally prosperous.
  • It also resulted in the rise of middle peasant sections.

Negative Consequences:

  • It increased polarisation between the classes and regions.
  • The rich peasants and the large landholders were the major beneficiaries of this process.

Question 20.
Explain the process of establishing democracy in Nepal. [4]
Answer:
Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom and then a constitutional monarchy.

  • In 1990 King accepted the demand for a new democratic Constitution, but the democratic government could not survive long and was in trouble.
  • There was a violent conflict between the Maoist and the armed forces of the king.
  • In 2002, the king abolished dismissed the government and limited democracy in Nepal.
  • In 2006, there was a massive pro-democracy protest led by SPA.
  • King was forced to restore the house of representatives dissolved in 2002.
  • The transition to democracy is still in progress.

Question 21.
Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies required by states to save planet Earth. Substantiate the statement in light of the ongoing negotiations between the North and the Southern environmental issues. [4]
Answer:
Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to save the planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues. The Northern states or the First World states are concerned with ozone depletion and global warming whereas Southern States or the Third World states want to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.

The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stand equally responsible for ecological conservation. The developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation of the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects and if developed countries cause more environmental degradation, they are supposed to take more responsibility for it.

Developing countries are in the process of industrialization and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like Kyoto Protocol, etc. The special needs of developing countries must be taken into consideration in the process of development, application, and interpretation of International Environmental Law.

Question 22.
State the main issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989. What different configurations of political parties these differences led to? [4]
Answer:
The main issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989 were as follows:
(1) Rise of other Backward Classes as a political force that changed the dynamics of politics in India.
(2) Decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission and subsequent stir.
(3) Rise of politics based on religious identity and debate about secularism and democracy.
(4) Demolition of Babri Masjid led to rise in communal tensions between the Hindus and Muslims.
(5) Anti-Muslim riots in Gujarat.
(6) End of Congress dominance and beginning of the era of coalition politics.
These issues led to different configurations of political parties as mentioned below:

Political parties accepted the political and social claims of the backward castes. All political parties began to support the reservation of seats for the backward classes in education and employment. This gave rise to an era of coalition politics. Coalition governments were formed, i.e., National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, NDA in 1997, 1998, and 1999, and the UPA in 2004 and 2009.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 23.
Mention the four main objectives of the ASEAN Economic Community. [4]
Answer:
Objectives of ASEAN Economic Community:

  • To create a common market and production base with ASEAN status.
  • To aid social and economic development in the region.
  • To improve the ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanism to resolve economic disputes.
  • To create Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labor, and services.

Section – D (12 Marks)

Question 24.

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]

In the context of world politics, what are the common interests of approximately 30 crore indigenous peoples spread throughout the world including India? There are 20 lakh indigenous people of the Cordillera region of the Philippines, 10 lakh Mapuche people of Chile, six lakh tribal people of the Chittagong Hill Tracts in Bangladesh, 35 lakh North American natives, 50,000 Kuna living east of Panama Canal and 10 lakh Small Peoples of the Soviet North.

Like other social movements, indigenous people speak of their struggles, their agenda and their rights. In India, the description ‘indigenous people’ is usually applied to the Scheduled Tribes who constitute nearly 8% of the population of the country. With the exception of small communities of hunters and gatherers, most indigenous populations in India depend for their subsistence primarily on the cultivation of land.

For centuries, if not millennia, they had free access to as much land as they could cultivate. It was only after the establishment of British colonial rule that areas, which had previously been inhabited by the Scheduled Tribe communities, were subjected to outside forces. Although they enjoy constitutional protection in political representation, they have not got many of the benefits of development in the country.

In fact, they have paid a huge cost for development since they are the single largest group among the people displaced by various developmental projects since independence.
(i) In which region of the Philippines, do the indigenous people live?
(A) Java
(B) Sumatra
(C) In the capital city
(D) Cordillera
(ii) What is the description mentioned in the paragraph for indigenous people living in India?
(A) Scheduled Tribes
(B) Untouchables
(C) OBC
(D) None of the above
(iii) What portion of the total population do the indigenous people of India constitute?
(A) 8 per cent
(B) 9 per cent
(C) 10 per cent
(D) 12 per cent
(iv) What main occupation do the indigenous people depend on?
(A) Hunting
(B) Gathering
(C) Weaving
(D) Land cultivation
Answer:
(i) (D) Cordillera
(ii) (A) Scheduled Tribes
(iii) (A) 8 percent
(iv) (D) Land cultivation

Question 25.
In the given outline political map of India, five states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). All these states were created after 1956. Identify them with the help of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet shown in the map as per the following format: [4]
(i) The state came into existence in the year 1966.
(ii) The state was created in the year 1987.
(iii) The state was created in the year 1960.
(iv) The state came into being in the year 2000.

Sr. Number for the
information used
Alphabet concerned Name of the state
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

C:\Users\USER1\Desktop\CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions.png

Answer:
(i) (D) Meghalaya
(ii) (A) Mizoram
(iii) (B) Gujarat
(iv) (C) Chhattisgarh

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 26.
Study the given Cartoon and answer the questions that follow: [4]

C:\Users\USER1\Desktop\CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions 1.png

(i) When was NITI Aayog formed?
(A) 3rd January 2015
(B) 1st January 2015
(C) 1st January 2016
(D) 1st December 2016
(ii) The CEO and Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by_______
(A) President of India
(B) Members of Parliament
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Home minister of India
(iii) How did NITI Aayog serve for India?
(A) Back Bone
(B) Think Tank
(C) Planning Commission
(D) None of the above
(iv) Which councils of NITI Aayog will have to focus on developmental activities in specific areas and is patterned on the National Reforms Development Commission of China?
(A) National Councils
(B) International Councils
(C) Regional Councils
(D) All the above
Answer:
(i) (B) 1st January 2015
(ii) (C) Prime Minister of India
(iii) (B) Think Tank
(iv) (C) Regional Councils

Section – E (24 Marks)

Question 27.
Why was the end of the Second World War considered to be the beginning of the Cold War? Explain.
OR
How did the idea of a New International Economic Order (NIEO) originate? In 1972, which four reforms were proposed by UNCTAD to benefit the Least Developed Countries (LDCs)? [6]
Answer:
Factors responsible for the beginning of the Cold War:

  • The emergence of the USSR as the most powerful country.
  • Use of atom bombs by the USA against Japan.
  • The ideological rivalry between the two superpowers.
  • The two superpowers were keen on expanding their spheres.
  • Use of nuclear power raised many questions and comments like, why did USA drop bombs?
  • Some viewed that the US action was intended to stop the Soviet Union from making political and military gains.
  • It was necessary to end the war quickly.

Detailed Answer:
The Second World War was also the beginning of the Cold War. The World War ended when the United States dropped two atomic bombs on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki. With the defeat of Germany and Japan there was the devastation of Europe and many other parts of the world.

The United States and the Soviet Union became the greatest powers in the world with the ability to influence events anywhere on earth.
Factors responsible for the beginning of the Cold War:

(1) The USSR emerged as the most powerful country after the Second World War. The Soviet economy at that time was more developed than the rest of the world except the US.

(2) The Second World War ended when the United States of America dropped two atomic bombs on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in August 1945, causing Japan to surrender. The US action was intended to stop the Soviet Union from making military and political gains in Asia and elsewhere and to show Moscow that the United States was supreme. There was ideological rivalry between the two superpowers.

The Western Alliance headed by the US represented the ideology of liberal democracy and capitalism while the Eastern Alliance headed by the Soviet Union was committed to the ideology of socialism and communism. The two superpowers were keen on expanding their spheres. This led to alliance systems in the world, especially in Europe. Most countries of Western Europe sided with US and those of eastern Europe joined the Soviet camp.

OR

Since the early 1970s, the issue of the New International Economic Order (NIEO) has been the frontal issue in international relations involving the developing countries on one side and the developed countries on the other side. Developing countries of the third world made persistent demand for the establishment of NIEO.

While the South repeatedly demanded NIEO, the North resisted it. The third world countries regard the restructuring of the existing international economic order as the only way to get out of the present problems related to poverty, scarcity, unemployment, and economic problems. NIEO stands for making the international system fair, just, and equitable by adopting a code of conduct for developed countries and by accepting the due rights of underdeveloped countries.

The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development brought out a report in 1972 entitled Towards a New Trade Policy for Development. The report proposed, a reform in the global trading system as follows:
(1) The developing countries should be given control over natural resources which are exploited.
(2) The least developing countries should be given access to western markets so that they can sell their products and therefore, make trade more useful for the poorer countries.
(3) Reduce the cost of technology of western countries.
(4) LDCs should be provided a role in international economic institutions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 28.
What is meant by the traditional notion of external security? Describe any two components of this type of security.
OR
Rapid environmental degradation is causing a serious threat to security. Do you agree with the statement? Substantiate your arguments. [6]
Answer:
The traditional notion of external security means a threat to security from outside. In this concept of security, the greatest danger to a country is from military threats. The source of this danger is another country that by threatening military action endangers the core values of sovereignty, independence, and territorial integrity. Following are the three components of the traditional notion of external security.
(A) Deterrence (B) Defence(C) Balance of power

Governments may choose to surrender when actually confronted by war, but they will not advertise this as the policy of the country. Therefore, security policy is concerned with preventing war, which is called deterrence, and with limiting or ending the war, which is called defense.

Prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of war to an unacceptable level and to defend itself when war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country its objectives and to turn back or defeat the attacking forces altogether.

OR

The given notion of security comes under the non-traditional notions of security. Nontraditional notions of security go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence.
I agree with the statement that environmental degradation is causing a serious threat to security. Global warming is leading to environmental degradation.

Global warming can cause a rise in sea level of 1.5-2.0 meters. This rise in sea level can submerge 20 percent of Bangladesh, inundate most of the Maldives, and threaten nearly half the population of Thailand. This rise in sea level can pose a serious threat to human security. Environmental degradation is also responsible for aggravating diseases in people. Air pollution is causing a rise in cases of asthma.

Even young people are prone to many kinds of diseases which are related to environmental degradation. Water pollution is another example of environmental degradation. It also has an adverse effect on the life of the people. Many waterborne diseases are posing threats to people. So it is beyond any doubt that rapid environmental degradation is causing a serious threat to security.

Question 29.
Examine any six reasons for the imposition of an Emergency in India in 1975.
OR
Discuss the effects of Emergency on the following aspects of our polity. [6]
(A) Effect on civil liberties for citizens.
(B) Impact on the relationship between the Executive and Judiciary.
(C) Functioning of Mass Media.
(D) Working of Police and Bureaucracy
Answer:
Circumstances that led to imposition of Emergency:

  • Clash between the Executive (Government) and Judiciary.
  • Rising prices and lower growth rate.
  • Student movements in Bihar and Gujarat against price rise and corruption.
  • Railway strike led by George Fernandes.
  • A big rally at Ram Lila Maidan and call to the employees including police/army not to obey the undemocratic orders.
  • Judgement of Allaha bad High Court setting aside the election of Indira Gandhi. All these led to an atmosphere of distrust against Indira Gandhi who hurriedly tried to save her position by imposing emergency

OR

(A) There were mass arrests on the grounds of Preventive Detention. The arrests could not be challenged in any court of law. There were no reasons given for the arrests of the so-called suspects.
(B) There were many new changes incorporated through the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution. The role of the Supreme Court was curbed to some extent. The Court could not challenge the elections of the President of India, Vice President of India, and Prime Minister of India. It also gave the power to the government to a postponement of elections in situations of Emergency.
(C) The powers of media were curtailed by the imposition of press censorship. There was a ban on protests, strikes, agitations, etc. Fundamental Rights were curtailed and suspended. Many eminent Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan awarded and returned their titles. Some prominent newspapers like Indian Express protested by leaving blank spaces at places where news was censored.
(D) It is a combination of restrictions on the civil liberties of the people along with the tension between the government and the bureaucracy.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 2 with Solutions

Question 30. Examine the main provisions of the Rajiv Gandhi- Longowal Accord of 1985. How far was the Accord successful in bringing back normalcy in Punjab? Explain.
OR
Which three lessons do we learn from regional aspirations and their accommodation as an integral part of democratic politics? Describe. [6]
Answer
After coining to power following the election in 1984, the new Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi initiated a dialogue with moderate Akali leaders. In July 1985, he reached an agreement with Harchand Singh Longowal, then the President of the Akali Dal. This agreement, known as the Rajiv Gandhi Longowal Accord or the Punjab Accord, was a step towards bringing normalcy to Punjab.

It was agreed that Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab, a separate commission would be appointed to resolve the border dispute between Punjab and Haryana, and a tribunal would be set up to decide the sharing of Ravi- Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. The agreement also provided for compensation to and better treatment of those affected by the militancy in Punjab and the withdrawal of the application of the Armed Forces Special Powers Act in Punjab.

However, peace did not come easily or immediately. The cycle of violence continued nearly for a decade. Militancy and counter-insurgency violence led to excesses by the police and violations of human rights. Politically, it led to the fragmentation of the Akali Dal.

The central government had to impose. President’s rule in the State and the normal electoral and political process was suspended. It was not easy to restore the political process in an atmosphere of suspicion and violence. When elections were held in Punjab in 1992, only 24 percent of the electors tuned out to vote. Militancy was eventually eradicated by the security forces. But the losses incurred by the people of Punjab – Sikhs and Hindus like were enormous.

Peace returned to Punjab by the middle of the 1990s. The alliance of Akali Dal (Badal) and the BJP scored a major victory ini997, in the first normal elections in the State in the post-militancy era. The State is once again preoccupied with questions of economic development and social change. Though religious identities continue to be important for the people, politics has gradually moved back along secular lines.

OR

  • Regional aspirations are very important part of democratic politics and the expression of regional issues is a normal phenomenon.
  • Democratic negotiations are the best way to resolve regional issues.
  • Regional matters can be resolved by power sharing within the constitutional framework.
  • Regional balance and economic development decrease the feeling of regional discrimination. Therefore, the problem of the backwardness of regions should be addressed at a priority.
  • Constitutional provisions are already incorporated in resolving regional issues. As the sixth schedule of the Constitution allows different tribes complete autonomy of preserving their practices and customary laws.
  • Federalism should be given respect in the true sense.