Agricultural Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Agricultural Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Explain the crop and microinsurance in India.
Answer:
Crop Insurance and Weather Based Crop Insurance:
Crop insurance is a means of protecting the agriculturist against financial losses due to uncertainties that may arise from crop failures/losses arising from named or all unforeseen perils beyond their control.
Weather Based Crop Insurance aims to mitigate the hardship of the insured farmers against the likelihood of financial loss on account of anticipated crop loss resulting from incidence of adverse conditions of weather parameters like rainfall, temperature, frost, humidity etc.

Micro Insurance:
Microinsurance is the protection of low-income people against specific perils in exchange for regular premium payments proportionate to the likelihood and cost of the risk involved. Low-income people can use micro insurance, where it is available, as one of several tools (specifically designed for this market in terms of premiums, terms, coverage, and delivery) to manage their risks.

Live in remote rural areas, requiring a different distribution channel to urban insurance products;

Are often illiterate and unfamiliar with the concept of insurance, requiring new approaches to both marketing and contracting;

Tend to face more risks than wealthier people do because they can not afford the same defenses. So, for example, on average they are more prone to illness because they do not eat as well, work under hazardous conditions and do not have regular medical check-ups;

Have little experience of dealing with formal financial institutions, with the exception of the National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Linkage Banking programme;

Designing micro-insurance policies requires intensive work and is not simply a question of reducing the price of existing insurance policies.

CS Professional Insurance Law and Practice Notes

Corporate Tax Planning And Tax Management – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Corporate Tax Planning And Tax Management – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
State with brief reason, whether the following relate to tax planning, tax avoidance, or tax evasion:

  1. Setting up of a liaison office in India by a foreign company, instead of a full-fledged establishment to run its business activities in India.
  2. Investment in bonds approved for purposes of section 54EC.
  3. Businessman claiming depreciation on a refrigerator purchased for residential use.
  4. Visiting a foreign country for a certain number of days to reduce the number of days of stay in India.
  5. The assessee has two residential houses. He wants to sell a vacant site purchased 6 years back. To avail exemption under section 54F, he gifts a residential house to his major son.

Answer:
(1) Setting up of a liaison office in India by a foreign company, instead of a full-fledged establishment to run its business activities in India is to reap the benefit of the DTAA instead of coming under the provisions of section 9 of the Income-tax Act, and thus is an act of Tax Planning.

(2) Investment in Bonds approved u/s 54EC will reduce tax liability relating to Capital Gains. It is an act of Tax Planning.

(3) Businessman claiming depreciation on a refrigerator purchased for residential use is an act of Tax Evasion because of wrongly claiming depreciation on personal assets by showing as business assets.

(4) Visiting a foreign country to reduce the number of days of stay in India is a measure of Tax avoidance with regard to residential status, which may have an impact on the taxability total income.

(5) Gifting a house property to a major son with a view to come within the eligibility norms of an exemption section is though legally permissible but is an act of Tax Avoidance.

Question 2.
State with reason, whether the following acts can be considered as an act of Tax Planning, Tax Management, Tax Avoidance or Tax Evasion:

  1. Starting a business in an industrially backward State will entitle an assessee to claim a deduction under section 80-IB.
  2. Transferring of assets to another person without adequate consideration.
  3. Installation of Air Conditioner costing ₹ 75,000 at the residence of Director as per terms of appointment; but treating it as Plant installed in Quality Control Section in the factory.
  4. Mr. D is a working partner in a firm and he is entitled to a salary of ₹ 30,000 per month. He treats this as salary instead of business income.
  5. X&Y Ltd. maintains adequate records and registers of tax deducted at source by it to enable timely compliance of legal provisions.

Answer:
(1) Starting a business in an industrially backward State which will entitle an assessee to claim a deduction is an act of Tax Planning because the incidence of tax is minimized using the exemptions/deduction provided in the Income Tax Act, 1961.

(2) Transferring assets to another person without adequate consideration is an act of Tax Avoidance because the element of mala fide motive is involved to avoid payment of tax.

(3) Installation of Air Conditioner costing ₹ 75000 at the residence of Director as per the terms of appointment but treating it as plant installed in Quality Control Section in the factory is an act of Tax Evasion because of suppression of fact. This is with the objective to treat factory assets for claiming depreciation to be deducted from business income.

(4) Tax Evasion because Mr. D tries to reduce his tax liability by misrepresenting the income as salary instead of business income, thereby claiming the standard deduction.

(5) X & Y maintain adequate records and registers of tax deducted at source by it to enable timely compliances of legal provisions is an Act of Tax Management because it involves compliance of law regularly.

It enables the company to manage the affairs of business efficiently for timely payment of tax and submission of returns.

Question 3.
Specify with brief reason, whether the following acts can be considered as an act of (i) Tax management; or (ii) Tax planning; or (iii) Tax
evasion; or (iv) Tax avoidance:

  1. To reduce tax payable, Sunil Varma an individual, paid ₹ 55,000 as of life insurance premium on the policy of his minor son.
  2. A foreign company has an Indian subsidiary that is selling its product to the parent company at a price of ₹ 100 per unit while the same product is sold to another foreign company at ₹ 200 per unit.
  3. A company claiming depreciation on the motor car which is being used by director for personal purposes.

Answer:
(1) Premium paid on the life insurance policy of minor son is allowed as deduction under section 80C of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Therefore,
₹ 55,000 paid, by Mr. Sunil Varma, as premium on the life insurance policy of his minor son is an act of Tax Planning.

(2) The transaction which is not at Arm’s Length Price ‘ALP’ is an act of Tax Avoidance. In this case, an Indian subsidiary, while selling its products, charging less amount from its foreign parent company and shifting profits to outside India in order to avoid tax liability in India and therefore is an act of Tax Avoidance as the transaction is not at arm’s length price.

(3) Claiming depreciation on the motor cars being used for personal purposes is not allowed under section 32 of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Therefore, the depreciation claimed by the company on the motor car which is being used by the director for personal purposes is an act of Tax Evasion.

Question 4.
Specify whether the following acts can be considered as (i) Tax planning, or (ii) Tax management, or (iii) Tax evasion.

  1. P deposits ₹ 1,00,000 in Public Provident Fund (PPF) account so as to reduce his total income from ₹ 3,40,000 to ₹ 2,40,000.
  2. SQL Ltd. maintains the register of tax deductions at the source affected by it to enable timely compliance.
  3. An individual taxpayer making a tax saver fixed deposit of ₹ 1,00,000 in a nationalized bank.
  4. A bank obtaining declaration from depositors in Form No. 15G/15H and forwarding the same to income-tax authorities.
  5. Z debits his household expenses as business expenses in the books.

Answer:
(1) Depositing an amount to the Public Provident Fund (PPF) in order to reduce the total income and tax liability is an act of Tax Planning. Therefore, a deposit of ₹ 1,00,000 in ‘PPF’ by P to reduce his total income from ₹ 3,40,000 to ₹ 2,40,000 is an act of Tax Planning.

(2) Maintenance of Register of Tax Deduction at Source to enable timely compliance is an act of Tax Management. Therefore, the maintenance of the TDS registers by SQL Ltd. to enable timely compliance is an act of Tax Management.

(3) Investment in tax saver fixed deposits is allowed as deduction u/s 80C of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and is an act of Tax Planning. Therefore, depositing ₹ 1,00,000 in tax saver fixed deposit by an individual taxpayer is an act of Tax Planning.

(4) Obtaining declaration from depositors by a bank in Form 15G/ 15H and forwarding the same to the Income Tax Authorities is an act of
Tax Management.

(5) Claiming the household expenses as business expenses in the books of account is not allowed as deduction u/s 37 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and is an act of Tax Evasion. Therefore, the act of Z debiting his household expenses as business expenses is an act of Tax Evasion.

Question 5.
Specify whether the following acts can be considered as an act of Tax management, tax planning, or tax evasion.

  1. Surbhi issues a credit note for ₹ 36,000 payable to Suresh, who is the son of Surjit, managing director of the company. The purpose is to increase his income from ₹ 1,00,000 to ₹ 1,36,000 and reduce his income correspondingly.
  2. Z Ltd. deducts tax at source but fails to deposit the same in the Government treasury.
  3. B transferred 1,000 debentures of a company to his son C before the due date of interest to reduce his tax liability.

Answer:
1. Tax Evasion:
Surbhi Ltd. has issued a credit note to Suresh with a view to transferring part of its income to Suresh.
Suresh being an individual will be liable to tax at normal rates applicable to the individual, which, in this case, will be lower than the rate applicable to Surbhi Ltd. had such transfer of income not been affected, the income would have been taxed in hands of Surbhi Ltd. at a higher rate of 30%. Such an act is a model of tax evasion.

2. Improper Tax management:
In this case, the company will be liable to pay interest and penalty.

3. Tax Avoidance:
In this case, Mr. X wants to avoid his tax liability by transferring the debentures before the due date of interest to his son.

Question 6.
Distinguish between ‘tax planning’ and ‘tax avoidance.
Answer:

Tax Planning Tax Avoidance
Tax planning is an act within the four corners of the tax laws. It is a means to avail the benefits legally permissible under the Act. It complies with the legal language of the law but not the spirit of the law.
Tax planning is a permissible legal right that enables the taxpayer to maximize his return net of taxes. It refers to reducing the tax liability by finding out loopholes in the law.
Tax planning has judicial approval. The concept can be considered heinous to tax evasion. Government brings amendments to curb such practices and to plug the loopholes.
It does not result in a levy of penalty and prosecution as it is within the language and spirit of the law. It may result in disregarding the transaction done to avoid tax and may or may not result in penalties and prosecution against the person engaged in it.
An individual who made the investment in PPF to claim deduction under section 80C is an example of tax planning. An asset transferred by one person to another person without consideration/ without adequate consideration may be treated as an example of tax avoidance.

Question 7.
Distinguish between ‘tax planning’ and ‘tax evasion ‘.

Tax Planning Tax Evasion
It is an act within four corners of tax laws. It is a means to avail benefits legally permissible. It is an attempt to avoid tax by misrepresentation of facts and falsification of accounts
It is a permissible legal right that enables the taxpayer to maximize his return net of taxes. It is a legal offense that may lead to penalties and prosecution.
It enables the assessee to have more cash flow in order to expand the business. It distorts the economy and results in black money generation.
It is a professional exercise. It encourages bribery and weakens the economic and political situation of the country.
It has judicial approval. It is denounced by courts as anti-social

Question 8.
Distinguish between “Diversion of Income and Application of Income”
Answer:

Diversion of Income Application of Income
Income never reaches the assessee as his own income. By virtue of an obligation, the income is diverted at the source before it reaches the assessee. Income reaches the assessee as his own income and its subsequently applied to discharge an obligation.
Here, the obligation is on the source of income. Here, the obligation is on the receipt of income i.e. after income reaches the assessee.
There is an overriding title by virtue of which diversion of income takes place. There is no overriding title in this case.
In case of diversion, the income is not included in the income of the assessee. In the case of application, income is included in the income of the assessee.
Since the assessee does not have a title, income cannot be said to have accrued or arisen. Income is said to have accrued or aris-en and therefore is taxable in hands of the assessee.

Question 9.
Peer Ltd. took over the running business of a Ramu, a sole proprietor by a sale deed. As per the sale deed, Peer Ltd. undertook to pay overriding charges of ₹ 15,000 p.a. to Ramu’s wife in addition to the sale consideration. The sale deed also specifically mentioned that the amount was charged on the net profits of Peer Ltd., who had accepted that obligation as a condition of purchase of the going concern. Examine, in the light of decided case law that whether the payment of overriding charges by Peer Ltd. is in the nature of diversion of income or application of income.
Answer:
The facts of the case are similar to that of the case Jit & Pal X-Rays (P.) Ltd. v. CIT(2004) 134 Taxman 62 (All), where the Allahabad High Court observed that the overriding charge which had been created in favor of the wife of the sole-proprietor was an integral part of the sale deed by which the going concern was transferred to the assessee. The obligation, therefore, was attached to the very source of income i.e. the going concern transferred to the assessee by the sale deed. The sale deed also specifically mentioned that the amount in question was charged on the net profits of the assessee-company and the assessee-company had accepted that obligation as a condition of purchase of the going concern. Hence, it is clearly a case of diversion of income by an overriding charge and not a mere application of income. Thus, the payment of overriding charges by Peer Ltd. to Ramu’s wife is a case of diversion of income and hence allowed to be deducted from Income of Peer Ltd.

Question 10.
Why is tax planning necessary?
Answer:
Tax planning is necessary on account of the following reasons: –
1. The basic objective of tax planning is to reduce the incidence of tax in a legitimate manner. Because of a lack of awareness of the legal requirements, an assessee may not be in a position to take advantage of the various deductions and exemptions allowed under the tax laws.

2. An assessee has to acquire good knowledge of the tax laws and plan his affairs in such a way that he will be in a position to avail the various concessions admissible to them and thus reduce the tax liability to the maximum extent possible.

3. Tax planning also helps in the reduction of litigation which involves wast-age of valuable time and money.

4. Planning is very essential in choosing the areas where investments can be made. In order to encourage investments in certain areas, the Government provides various tax incentives.

5. Tax planning also results in an increase in profits which can legitimately be used for expanding business or setting up new ventures.

6. It facilitates taking of various managerial decisions such as whether to go for modernization and replacement of plant and machinery, buy or take assets on a lease, close or continue the business, etc. g. Tax planning is also necessary to meet the tax liability in time without affecting the financial condition of the taxpayers.

Question 11.
Examine the doctrine of form and substance in the context of tax planning?
Answer:
The following are certain principles enunciated by the Courts on the question as to whether it is the form or substance of a transaction, which

1. will prevail in income-tax matters:
Form of the transaction is to be considered in case of genuine transactions – It is well settled that when a transaction is arranged in one form known to the law, it will attract tax liability whereas, if it is entered into in another form which is equally lawful, it may not. Therefore, in considering whether a transaction attracts tax or not, the form of transaction put through is to be considered and not the substance. However, this rule applies only to genuine transactions.

2. True Legal relation is a crucial element for taxability:
It is open for the authorities to pierce the corporate veil and look behind the legal facade at the reality of the transaction. The taxing authority is entitled j as well as bound to determine the true legal relation resulting from a j transaction. The true legal relationship arising from a transaction alone | determines the taxability of a receipt arising from the transaction.

3. Substance (i.e. actual nature of expenses) is relevant and not the form:
In order to determine whether a particular item of expenditure is of revenue or capital nature, the substance and not merely the form should be looked into.

Question 12.
Global Ltd. is a widely-held company engaged in power generation in Assam. At present, the company is having a capital of ₹ 10 crores in fully paid equity shares. The company is considering a proposal to increase its power generation capacity which will require ₹ 5 crores. The additional capital required can be raised either by the issue of fully paid equity shares or by the issue of 10% debentures. Directors of the company want to raise the funds through equity shares as the company can have fully owned capital. Will you accept the proposal at a 20% rate of return (pre-tax) and a 30% rate of tax? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
Computation of Expected Rate of Return on Capital Employed Figures in ₹

Particulars Proposal I Proposal II
Issue of equity shares Issue of 10% Debentures
Equity share capital 15,00,00,000 10,00,00,000
10% Debenture 5,00,00,000
Therefore, Total Capital Employed 15,00,00,000 15,00,00,000
PBIT (Expected Rate of return on capital em-ployed @ 20%) 3,00,00,000 3,00,00,000
Less: Interest on Debentures at 10% (50,00,000)
Profit Before Tax (PBT) 3,00,00,000 2,50,00,000
Less: Tax @ 30% on PBT (90,00,000) (75,00,000)
Profit After Tax (PAT) 2,10,00,000 1,75,00,000
Expected rate of return for shareholders 14% 17.50%

Decision:
The proposal of deriving additional capital by issuing fully paid-up equity shares is not acceptable as it will give a lesser rate of return to shareholders in the future. Therefore, it is beneficial to raise the additional funds through the issue of 10% debentures as it will increase the rate of return to shareholders from 14% to 17.50%.

Question 13.
Does a company want to raise capital of ₹ 40,00,000 for a project where earnings before tax would be 30% of the capital employed? The company can raise debt finance @ 12% p.a. The following three alternatives for raising capital are available for the company:

  • ₹ 40,00,000 by equity capital
  • ₹ 20,00,000 by equity capital and ₹ 20,00,000 by loans
  • ₹ 8,00,000 by equity capital and ₹ 32,00,000 by answer:

Assume that the company would distribute the entire amount of profits as dividends. The tax rate is 31.20%. Work out which one of the above three alternatives should the company opt to minimize its tax liability?
Answer:
Analysis of financing options to minimize the tax liability of the company Figures in ₹

Particulars Alternative 1 Alternative 2 Alternative 3
Earnings Before Interest and Tax (40,00,000 × 30%) 12,00,000 12,00,000 12,00,000
Less: Interest (2,40,000) (20,00,000 × 12%) (3,84,000) (32,00,000 × 12%)
Earnings Before Tax 12,00,000 9,60,000 8,16,000
Less: Tax @ 31.20% (3,74,400) (2,99,520) (2,54,592)
Earnings After Tax available for Equity Shareholders 8,25,600 6,60,480 5,61,408
Rate of return on equity share capital (e/Share Capital × 100) 20.64% 33.02% 70.18%

Decision:
Since Alternative 3 offers the maximum rate of return on equity share capital, the company should opt for Alternative 3.

Questions 14.
Ravi Glass Ltd., a widely held company is considering a major expansion of its activities for which an additional investment of ₹ 3 Crores is required. The company has the following three options/alternatives for the financing of the proposed additional investment of ₹ 3 crores:

  • By issue of Equity shares and raise the equity share capital only.
  • ₹ 2 crores from the issue of Equity shares and ₹ 1 crore by issue of 15% debentures.
  • ₹ 1 crore from the issue of Equity shares, ₹ 1 crore from the issue of 15% debentures, and the remaining ₹ 1 crore by taking a bank loan on interest payable at 15% p.a.

The expected rate of return on the new investment has been worked out at 30%. The corporate rate of tax for the time being on the income is 31.20%. The company has proposed to declare the total net profits as dividends. You are required to suggest to the company which is the best alternative to be undertaken for the purpose of the proposed investment. Assume that no other taxes are being payable/to be charged on the distributed profits.
Answer:
Computation of Expected rate of return on equity share capital: Figures in ₹

Particulars Proposal I

Issue of Equity shares only

Proposal II

Issue of Equity shares and 15% Debentures

Proposal III

Issue of Equity Shares, Bank loan @ 15% and 15% Debentures

Earnings Before Interest and Tax (₹ 3,00,00,000 × 3096) 90,00,000 90,00,000 90,00,000
Less: Interest @ 15% on Debentures  – (15,00,000) (₹ 1,00,00,000 × 15%) (15,00,000) (₹ 1,00,00,000 × 15%)
Less: Interest on Bank Loan (15,00,000) (₹ 1,00,00,000 × 15%)
Earnings Before Tax 90,00,000 75,00,000 60,00,000
Less: Tax @ 31.2% of EBT (28,08,000) (90,00,000 × 31.2%) (23,40,000) (75,00,000 × 31.2%) (18,72,000) (60,00,000 × 31.2%)
Earnings After Tax 61,92,000 51,60,000 41,28,000
Expected rate of return on equity share capital (f / Equity Share Capital × 100) 20.64% 25.80% 41.28%

Decision/Conclusion:
The rate of return on equity is highest in the case of the third alternative. Therefore, the company should opt for the third alternative.

Question 15.
X Ltd. has a share capital of ₹ 60,00,000. For the expansion of business, it requires an additional ₹ 60,00,000. To finance the project, the company has three options:

  • Issue of Equity shares only.
  • Issue of equity shares of ₹ 30,00,000 and 12% debentures amounting to ₹ 30,00,000.
  • Issue of equity shares of ₹ 15,00,000, issue of 12% debentures of ₹ 30,00,000, and the remaining amount from borrowings from the bank at 20% interest per annum.

Assuming that the expected rate of return is 25%, advise which alternative the company should opt to maximize the rate of return. The rate of tax is 31.20%.
Answer:
Computation of Return on Equity share capital for X Ltd. Figures in ₹

Particulars Alternative 1 Issue of equity shares only Alternative 2 Issue of equity shares and Debentures Alternative 3 Issue of equity shares, debentures, and borrowings from the bank
Earnings Before Interest and Tax (₹ 1,20,00,000 × 25%) 30,00,000 30,00,000 30,00,000
Less: Interest 3,60,000 (₹ 30,00,000 × 1296) 6,60,000 (30,00,000 × 12%) + (₹ 15,00,000 × 2096)
Earnings After Tax 30,00,000 26,40,000 23,40,000
Less: Tax @ 31.20% 9,36,000 8,23,680 7,30,080
Earnings After Tax available to equity shareholders 20,64,000 18,16,320 16,09,920
Return on Equity share capital (c/Eq uity Share Capital × 100) 17.20% 20.18% 21.47%

Conclusion:
The company should opt for Alternative 3 as Return on equity share capital is highest under that option.

Questions 16.
A is employed with XYZ Ltd. His salary is ₹ 1,00,000 per month. He is also paid a house rent allowance of ₹ 20,000 per month. His wife B is also employed at a salary of ₹ 40,000 per month with ABC Ltd. where A holds 20% shares.

B does not hold adequate qualifications for the post which she is holding. B is the owner of a house that is self-occupied by the family. The house was constructed in the year 2018-19 with borrowed funds. Suggest a scheme for tax planning to minimize the tax liability for the financial year 2020-21. (Assessment Year 2021-22).
Answer:
A is advised to reduce his shareholdings with XYZ Ltd. from 20% to 1 19% to avoid clubbing of salary income of B (A’s wife) u/s 64( 1 )(iv).

B should not treat the house as self-occupied. She should let it out to A and issue a rent receipt of an amount say ₹ 40,000 per month. On the basis of rent receipt, A is entitled to claim the exemption in respect of House Rent Allowance ‘HRA’ to reduce his tax liability. Besides, B can claim the exemption in respect of interest payable on housing loans.

Question 17.
Vijay is employed with Sunder Ltd., at a monthly salary of ₹ 45,000. He also receives ₹ 5,000 per month as a house rent allowance. he deposits ₹ 40,000 in the PPF account. He also pays ₹ 30,000 as tuition fees for his two children.

Vijay’s wife, Isha is employed with Chander Ltd., at a monthly salary of ₹ 25,000, where Vijay holds 21% of the shares of the company. Isha is not adequately qualified for the post held by her in Chander Ltd. Isha owns a house used as a self-occupied house by the family. The municipal value of the house is ₹ 3,60,000. It was constructed with borrowed funds in 2019-20. Interest on the loan is ₹ 1,80,000 p.a. Isha insured the house and paid an insurance premium of ₹ 8,000 to United India Insurance Company. She also paid ₹ 20,000 as municipal taxes.

Suggest a scheme of tax planning for both Vijay and Isha to minimize their tax liability during the financial year 2020-21.
Answer:
Some of the Tax planning measures for Vijay and Isha could be:
(1) Vijay holds a substantial interest (2196) in Chander Ltd. where Isha holds a post for which she is not adequately qualified. Thus, the remuneration received by Isha would be clubbed in the income of Vijay. To avoid | this, Vijay may reduce his shareholding in Chander Ltd. to 1996.

(2) Vijay and Isha may request their respective employers to restructure their salaries, as follows:

  • Restructure salaries to break up the monthly salary into basic pay, conveyance allowance/car facility, leave travel facility, medical reimbursement, and telephone reimbursement, etc. This will reduce the amount of taxable salary.
  • There are several employees’ welfare schemes such as recognized provident fund, approved superannuation fund, gratuity fund. Payments made towards such schemes are eligible for deductions. So, Vijay and Isha may request their employer to include these welfare schemes and make contributions towards the same.

(3) Currently Isha is treating the house as self-occupied by the family; she may rent out this to Vijay against a rent receipt. This will enable Vijay in claiming the deduction for House Rent Allowance.

(4) Isha may claim the deduction for the principal amount and the interest amount paid for the funds borrowed for the construction of the house. For the principal amount, the deduction could be claimed for up to ₹ 1,50,000, and for interest, the amount deduction could be claimed up to ₹ 2,00,000.

Question 18.
A, B, and C are planning to start a retail business. The profits of the business for the year are estimated to be ₹ 20,00,000. Two alternatives are available to them regarding the selection of form of organization:

1. A Partnership Firm:

  • Capital introduced by each partner: ₹ 20,00,000
  • Interest on capital at 20%
  • Salary ₹ 3,00,000 p.a. to each
  • Profits are to be distributed equally.

2. A Company:

  • Share Capital of ₹ 4,00,000 each.
  • Loan of ₹ 16,00,000 by each @ 12%.
  • Salary of ₹ 3,00,000 p.a. to each.
  • Remaining profits are to be distributed equally as dividends Advise, which alternative is better from the tax point of view.

Answer:
Alternative 1: Partnership Firm
Computation of tax outflow under this option:

Particulars Amount (₹) Amount (₹)
Profits as an estimate of the firm 20,00,000
Less: Interest on capital (₹ 20,00,000 × 12% × 3) 7,20,000
Book Profits 12,80,000
Less: Allowable Remuneration towards partners
Lower of following 2:-
Actual Remuneration towards working partners ₹ 3,00,000 × 3 partners) and; 9,00,000
Maximum Limit: ? 3,00,000 × 90% + Balance Book Profits × 60% = 2,70,000 + ₹ 5,88,000 8,58,000
Therefore, Allowable remuneration 8,58,000
Profits and Gains from Business or Profession/Total Income of firm 4,22,000
Tax Liability @30% 1,26,600
Add: Health and Education Cess @ 4% 5,064 1,31,664
Rounded off to nearest of ₹ 10u/s 288B 1,31,660
Partners Total Income (Each partner)
Interest to the extent allowed in the firm (₹ 20,00,000 × 1296) 2,40,000
Salary (To the extent allowed in the firm) {₹ 8,58,000/3} 2,86,000
Share of profit from the firm {Fully Exempt u/s 10(2A) of Income Tax Act] 5,26,000
Tax liability of each partner
On an income of ₹ 2,50,000
On ₹ 2,50,000 to ₹ 5,00,000, Tax@ 5% 12,500
On income between ₹ 5,00,000 to ₹ 10,00,000, Tax at 2096 (₹ 26,000 × 20%) 5,200
Sub Total 17,700
Add: Health and Education Cess @ 4% 708
Total Tax each partner 18,408
Rounded off to nearest of ₹ 10 u/s 288B 18,410
Therefore, Tax liability of 3 partners (₹ 18,410 × 3) 55,230
Therefore, Total Tax Outflow under this option (₹ 1,31,660 + ₹ 55,230) 1,86,890

Alternative 2: Company
Computation of Total tax outflow under this option:

Particulars Amount(₹) Amount (₹)
Profits as an estimate of the company 20,00,000
Less: Interest on Loan (₹ 16,00,000 × 12%) 5,76,000
Less: Salary (₹ 3,00,000 × 3) 9,00,000
Profits and Gains from Business or Profession/Total Income 5,24,000
Tax Liability at 25% 1,31,000
Add: Health and Education Cess @ 4% 5,240
Total Tax payable by the company 1,36,240
Profit After Tax Available for distribution as dividend (₹ 5,24,000 – 1,36,240) 3,87,760
Shareholders/Director’s Total Income (Each)
Income from Salary 3,00,000
Less: Standard Deduction u/s 16(id) (50,000)
Net Taxable Salary 2,50,000
Income from Other Sources:
Interest on Loan (₹ 16,00,000 × 12%) 1,92,000
Dividend (₹ 3,87,760)/3 1,29,253 3,21,253
Total Income 5,71,253
Rounded off to nearest of ₹ 10u/s 288B 5,71,250
Tax liability of each partner:
On an income of ₹ 2,50,000
₹ 2,50,000 to ₹ 5,00,000, Tax at 5% 12,500
On income between ₹ 5,00,000 to ₹ 10,00,000, Tax at 2096 (₹ 71,250 × 20%) 14,250
Sub-Total 25,750
Add: Health and Education Cess @ 4% 1,030 26,780
Therefore, Tax payable by 3 shareholders/directors (₹ 26,780 × 3) 80,340
Therefore, Total tax outflow (₹ 1,36,240 + ₹ 80,340) 2,16,580

Advice:
Since overall tax outflow is less in the option of the firm than a company, it is advisable to start a new business in the form of a partnership firm.

Note:
Keeping in view amendments made by Finance Act, 2020 applicable w.e.f. A.Y. 2021-22 (Relevant to RY. 2020-21), Dividend is taxable in hands of recip¬ient i.e. shareholders & hence, it is included in the total income of shareholders and tax is calculated on total income as per normal slab rates applicable to individuals. There will be no implication of Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) for dividends declared, paid, or distributed on or after 01.04.2020.

Further, it is assumed that the individual assessee has not opted for an alternative mechanism to compute tax as per section 115BAC of the Income Tax Act, hence normal rates of tax are applied.

Author’s Note:
In the view that ICSI is asking questions restricted to 5 marks only in recent exams, such lengthy questions may not be asked. However, it has been included here as any part of such question could be asked individually. Further, for conceptual clarity with respect to selection of the type of entity: Partnership Firm v/s Company the question is must be covered.

Questions 19.
From the following information, advice as to which shall be a better option, i.e., repair or replacement of machine:

  • The cost of repair is ₹ 90,000 and the machine will work for 4 years.
  • An expenditure of ₹ 18,00,000 shall be incurred on the purchase of a new machine and the scrap value of the machine after 10 years would be, ₹ 72,000.
  • On purchase of the new machine, the production will increase and the profit of the organization will increase from ₹ 9,00,000 to ₹ 15,00,000 per year.
  • The rate of interest is 15% (on purchase).
  • The old machine can be sold at present for ₹ 1,50,000 and after 4 years it would be sold for ₹ 30,000.
  • The rate of income tax is 30% and no surcharge is payable. Health & education cess is applicable as per rules.

Answer:
Comparative statement showing After-Tax Profit from different alternatives: Figures in ₹

Particulars Repair Replacement
Annual Repairing Expenses (Note 1) 22,500
Depreciation on the new machine (Note 2) 1,72,800
Interest on ? 18,00,000 at 15% p.a. 2,70,000
Depreciation on the old machine 30,000
Total Expenses 52,500 4,42,800
Expected Profit 9,00,000 15,00,000
Less: Total Expenses 52,500 4,42,800
Net Profit Before Tax 8,47,500 10,57,200
Less: Income Tax @ 31.20% (Rounded off u/s 288B) (Tax at 30% + Health and Education Cess @ 4%) 2,64,420 3,29,850
Profit After Tax 5,83,080 7,27,350

Decision:
It is better to replace the old machine with the new one as overall profit is higher in that option as compared to the under the option of repairing the machine.

Note:
Annual Repairing expenses = ₹ 90,000/4 = ₹ 22,500
Depreciation on New Machine = (₹ 18,00,000 – ₹ 72,000)/10 = ₹ 1,72,800
Depreciation on existing machine = (₹ 1,50,000 – ₹ 30,000)/4 = ₹ 30,000

Question 20.
Sure Success Ltd. wants to acquire an asset costing ₹ 1,00,000. It has 2 options available, the first one is buying the asset by taking a loan repayable in 5 installments of ₹ 20,000 each with 14% interest per annum. The second is leasing the asset for which the annual lease rental charge is ₹ 30,000 up to 5 years. The lessor charges 1% as a processing fee in the first year. Assume Internal Rate of Return to be 10%.

The Present Value factors are

Year 1 2 3 4 5
PV Factor .909 .826 .751 .683 .621

Assuming that the payments are made at the end of the year, suggest which alternative is better for the company. The rate of depreciation is 15% while the tax rate is 31.20%.
Answer:

I. If the Asset is taken on lease
Computation of Present Value of Net Cash Outflows under this option: Figures in ₹

Year Lease

Rentals

Tax savings at 31.20% Net Cash Outflow Present Value Factor @ 10% Present Value (? )
1 31,000* 9,672 21,328 0.909 19,387
2 30,000 9,360 20,640 0.826 17,049
3 30,000 9,360 20,640 0.751 15,501
4 30,000 9,360 20,640 0.683 14,097
5 30,000 9,360 20,640 0.621 12,817
78,851

“Processing Fees is assumed at 1% of original cost of asset. Therefore, ₹ 1,00,000 × 196 = ₹ 1,000. Therefore, Total outflow in year 1 = ₹ 30,000 + ₹ 1,000 = ₹ 31,000. Sum of Present value under this option shall be ₹ 78,851.

II. If the Asset is bought using Loan funds as given:
Computation of Present Value of Net Cash Outflows under this option: Figures in ₹

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
Payment of Loan (Principal) 20,000 20,000 20,000 20,000 20,000
Interest 14,000 11,200 8,400 5,600 2,800
Gross Outflow 34,000 31,200 28,400 25,600 22,800
Depreciation @ 15% 15,000 12,750 10,838 9,212 7,830
Total of Interest and Depreciation 29,000 23,950 19,238 14,812 10,630
Tax savings @31.12% 9,048 7,472 6,002 4,621 3,317
Net Cash Outflow 24,952 23,728 22,398 20,979 19,483
PV Factor 0.909 0.826 0.751 0.683 0.621
PV of Outflow 22,681 19,599 16,821 14,328 12,099

Therefore, some of the present value of net cash outflow under this option shall be ₹ 85,528.

Decision:
It is advisable to opt for taking the asset on lease as the sum of present value p of net cash outflow is lower under this option.

Question 21.
An Ltd. wants to acquire a machine on 1st April 2020. It will cost ₹ 60,00,000. It is expected to have a useful life of 5 years. Scrap Value will be? 10,000. If the machine is purchased through borrowed funds, the rate of interest is 11.5% p.a. Loan is repayable at the end of 5 years. If the machine is acquired through lease, lease rent would be ₹ 16,00,000 p.a. Profit before depreciation and tax are expected to be ₹ 4.5 crores every year. Depreciation is charged at 15% p.a. on Written Down Value. Besides, the additional depreciation is available in the first year. Investment allowance is, however, not available. The average rate of tax may be taken at 31.20%.

An Ltd. seeks your advice whether it should –
a. Acquire the machine through own funds or borrowed funds or
b. Take it on lease.
Present Value factor shall be taken at 10%. At this rate, present values of Re.l are – Year 1: 0.9091, year 2: 0.8264, Year 3: 0.7513, Year 4: 0.6830 and Year 5: 0.6209.
Answer:
I: If the Asset is bought with own funds:
Computation of Present Value of Net Cash Outflows under this option:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Gross Cash Outflow at year 0 60,00,000
Less: Present Value of savings in tax on account of depreciation (Note 1) (10,22,700)
Less: Present Value of Salvage value at end of year 5 (₹ 10,000 × 0.6209) (6,209)
Therefore, the Present Value of Net Cash Outflows under this option 49,71,091

Note 1
Computation of Present Value of savings in tax on account of depreciation: Figures in ₹

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
Written Down Value 60,00,000 39,00,000 33,15,000 28,17,750 23,95,087
Depreciation at 15% on Written Down Value 21,00,000 (60,00,000 × 15%) + (60,00,000 × 20%#) 5,85,000 (₹ 39,00,000 × 15%) 4,97,250 (₹ 33,15,000 × 15%) 4,22,663 (₹ 28,17,750 × 15%) 3,59,263 (₹ 23,95,087 × 15%)
Tax Savings at 31.20% on above 6,55,200 (₹ 21,00,000 × 31.20% 1,82,520 (₹ 5,85,000 × 31.20%) 1,55,142 (₹ 4,97,250 × 31.20%) 1,31,871 (₹ 4,22,663 × 31.20%) 1,12,090 (₹ 3,59,263 × 31.20%)

 

PV Factor at 10% 0.9091 0.8264 0.7513 0.6830 0.6209
Present Value (c × d) 5,95,642 1,50,835 1,16,558 90,068 69,597

# In year 1, there is additional depreciation. The rate of such additional depreciation is 20% of the Actual Cost of the asset.

Some of the Present Value of Tax savings on account of depreciation is ₹ 10,22,700

II: If Asset is bought with Loan Funds
Computation of Present Value of Net Cash Outflows under this option: Figures in ₹

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
Repayment of Loan 60,00,000
Interest ( ₹60,00,000 × 11.5%) 6,90,000 6,90,000 6,90,000 6,90,000 6,90,000
Gross Outflow 6,90,000 6,90,000 6,90,000 6,90,000 66,80,000 (66,90,000 – 10,000 being scrap value)
Depreciation (5) 15% (Ref: Note 1) 21,00,000 5,85,000 4,97,250 4,22,663 3,59,263
Total of Depreci-ation and Interest 27,90,000 12,75,000 11,87,250 11,12,663 10,49,263
Tax Savings on above @ 31.20% 8,70,480 3,97,800 3,70,422 3,47,151 3,27,370
Net Cash Outflow (1,80,480) 2,92,200 3,19,578 3,42,849 63,52,630
PV Factors at 10% 0.9091 0.8264 0.7513 0.6830 0.6209
Present Value (1,64,074) 2,41,474 2,40,099 2,34,166 39,44,348

Some of the Present Value of net cash outflows under this option shall be ₹ 44,96,013

III: If Asset is taken on lease
Computation of Present Value of Net Cash Outflow under this option: Figures in ₹

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5
Lease Rentals i.e. Gross Outflow 16,00,0000 16,00,000 16,00,000 16,00,000 16,00,000
Less: Tax Savings @ 31.20% 4,99,200 4,99,200 4,99,200 4,99,200 4,99,200
Net Cash Outflow 11,00,800 11,00,800 11,00,800 11,00,800 11,00,800
PV Factor at 10% 0.9091 0.8264 0.7513 0.6830 0.6209
Present Value 10,00,737 9,09,701 8,27,031 7,51,846 6,83,487

Therefore, some of the present value of net cash outflows shall be ₹ 41,72,902

Notes:
1. In Option III, instead of applying PV factors for each year from year 1 to year 5, students may apply the Present Value Annuity Factor as Net Outflows are common at ₹ 11,00,800 each year.

2. In Option I and Option II, there is Short Term Capital Loss at end of year 5 as the asset is sold only for ₹ 10,000 against WDV of ₹ 20,35,824 (₹ 23,95,087 less ₹ 3,59,263). However, such Short-Term Capital loss is neglected for decision making as it can be set off only against capital gains (either Long Term or Short Term). Hence, the assumption is that in a given case such loss will not account for any savings in tax.

3. Profit Before Depreciation and Tax is the same under every option and hence is immaterial in decision making. Therefore, it is neglected and the decision is based on the outflows.

Decision:
It is advisable to take the asset on lease as the sum of the present value of net cash outflows is least under that option.

Author’s Note:
Numerical based on “Purchase of Asset v/s Taking Asset on Lease” as covered above are not asked these days in Exams. However, we have included it above as some part of it might be asked for lower weightage of say 5 marks AND also, for conceptual clarity, it is important to solve such questions. The theory question on the said issue can be attempted only if a student knows logic which best could be understood through numerical.

Question 22.
Suresh is employed in Delhi and is drawing ₹ 50,000 per month as salary. Besides, he got a one-month salary as a bonus. He is given an option by the employer, either to accept HRA or a rent-free accommodation which is owned by the employer. HRA is payable @ ₹ 10,000 per month, while the rent for accommodation in Delhi is ₹ 12,000 per month. Advise Suresh, whether it would be beneficial for him to avail of HRA or rent-free accommodation provided by the employer.
Answer:
Computation of tax liability of Suresh, in case he accepts Rent Free Accommodation:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Basic Salary (₹ 50,000 × 12) 6,00,000
Bonus (One month’s salary) 50,000
Valuation of Rent-Free Accommodation (₹ 6,00,000 + ₹ 50,000) × 15% 97,500
Therefore, Gross Salary 7,47,500
Less: Standard Deduction under section 16(ia) (50,000)
Net taxable salary/Total Income 6,97,500
Tax liability
On first ₹ 2,50,000
On ? 2,50,000 to ₹ 5,00,000, Tax @ 5% 12,500
On ? 5,00,000 to ₹ 10,00,000, Tax @ 20% (₹ 1,97,500 × 20%) 39,500
Sub Total 52,000
Add: Health and Education Cess @ 4% 2,080
Net Tax liability 54,080

Salary for valuation of perquisite of accommodation is “Basic + D.A. (TOE) + Any Commission + Bonus + Any other monetary benefits + Taxable element of allowances”.
Computation of tax liability of Suresh in case if he accepts HRA:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Basic Salary (₹ 50,000 × 12) 6,00,000
Bonus 50,000
Taxable House Rent Allowance (refer Note) 36,000
Gross Taxable Salary 6,86,000
Less: Standard Deduction under section 16(id) (50,000)
Net Taxable Salary/Total Income 6,36,000
Tax liability
On income up to ₹ 2,50,000
On income between ₹ 2,50,000 to ₹ 5,00,000, tax at 5% 12,500
On income between ₹ 5,00,000 to ₹ 10,00,000, tax @ 20% (₹ 6,36,000 – ₹ 5,00,000) x 20% 27,200
Sub Total 39,700
Add: Health and Education Cess @ 4% 1,588
Total tax 41,288
Rounded off to nearest of ₹ 10 under section 288B 41,290

Working Note:
Taxable House Rent Allowance is computed as follows:

Particulars Amount (₹) Amount (₹)
HRA received (₹ 10,000 x 12) 1,20,000
Less: Exempted u/s 10(13A): Least of following 3:-
i.HRA received 1,20,000
ii Rent Paid less 10% of salary* (₹ 12,000 x 12) -(₹ 6,00,000 x 10%) 84,000
iii. 50% # of salary (₹ 6,00,000 x 50%) 3,00,000
Therefore, Exemption 84,000
Taxable HRA 36,000

’Salary for purpose of HRA = Basic + D.A. (Terms of Employment) + Commission (% of sales) i.e ₹ 6,00,000 #50% when rent paid in Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai.

Computation of Net take away of Suresh under both the options: Figures in ₹

Particulars Accommodation HRA
Basic Salary 6,00,000 6,00,000
Bonus 50,000 50,000
Accommodation/HRA 1,20,000
Gross Inflow 6,50,000 7,70,000
Less: Taxes Payable (54,080) (41,290)
Less: Rent Payable (1,44,000)
Net Cash Inflows 5,95,920 5,84,710

Notes:

  1. It is assumed that both the houses i.e. the one under the HRA option and the one under the Accommodation option are identical.
  2. the decision cannot be taken only on basis of tax outflow as under option of HRA, the assessee is making an extra payment of Rent of ₹ 2,000 from his pocket, as HRA received, is ₹ 10,000 per month, but rent paid is ₹ 12,000 p.m. Such outflow is not involved in the Accommodation option.

Decision:
Since overall net cash inflow is higher under the option of Accommodation, it is advisable to opt for the same instead of HRA.

Question 23.
Make an analysis between the purchase and taking on the lease of an asset for the purpose of business by the assessee considering the Income Tax provisions and the benefits available. Which option is considered to be better as per tax provisions and other benefits?
Answer:
Analysis between Purchase of an assets and taking the assets on Lease for the purpose of business: –
(1) In case of purchase, depreciation is allowed under section 32. On the other hand, depreciation will not be allowed u/s 32 in case of assets taken on lease.
This principle has also been upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ICDS Ltd. v. CIT(2013) 350 ITR 527.

(2) In the case of a lease, lease rent paid will be allowed as a deduction u/s 37(1) as revenue expenditure. Repairs are also allowable under section 31.

(3) In case of purchase, insurance premium, current repairs are allowed as deduction u/s 31, and interest on borrowed funds is deductible u/s 36 a revenue expenditure.

(4) Purchase of machinery would create tangible assets which can also be a mortgage in case of finance needs whereas in the case of assets taken on lease, it is not possible.

(5) In the case of the purchase option, residual value at the end of useful life belongs to the Lo owner. Capital gains tax liability or savings should also be taken Into consideration.

The benefits available as to tax payments are to be worked out separately under both the situations and be analyzed to find out which option is better. However, taking of an asset by investing own funds be always found to be better because of the available benefits under the tax laws and having of tangible assets In the business.

Question 24.
What are areas of tax planning with reference to the location of business?
Answer:
The Income Tax Act. 1961 provides for various benefits based on the location of the business. The various areas of tax planning in relation thereto arc as follows:

  1. Special provisions in respect of newly established units in Special Economic Zone (Section 10M)
  2. Deduction In respect of profits and gains from industrial undertakings or enterprises engaged in infrastructure development, etc. (Section 80-IA)
  3. Deduction in respect of profits and gains by an undertaking or enterprise engaged in the development of special economic zone (Section 80-lAB)
  4. Special provisions in respect of specified business (Section 80-lAC)
  5. Deduction in respect of profits and gains from certain industrial undertakings other than infrastructure development undertakings, etc. (Section 80.18)
  6. Deductions in respect of profits and gains from housing projects (Section 80-IBA)
  7. Special provisions in respect of certain undertakings or enterprises in certain special category states (Section 80-IC)
  8. Special provisions in respect of certain undertakings in north-eastern states (Section 804E)
  9. Deduction in respect of certain incomes of offshore banking units and international financial services center (Section SOLA)

Question 25.
The Board of Directors of your company Is In a dilemma whether to purchase outright the machines for their company or to acquire them through leasing Advice on tax implications.
Or;
Explain leasing wI. buying of a business asset as a tool of tax planning.
Answer:
In recent years, leasing has become a popular source of financing in India. Leasing is a financial arrangement whereby an organization is vested with the use and control over assets without a title of ownership, in consideration of lease rent for a period of time. The person who leases i.e. the owner is called lessor while the person who takes the asset on lease is called the lessee. The decision to lease or buy an asset with borrowed funds can be made after considering the following:

1. Owned/Borrowed Funds: If the asset is purchased through owned funds, there will be a heavy initial outlay and funds will be locked up being denied other investment opportunities. If the asset is purchased through borrowed funds, then apart from interest payments, the provision would have to be made for payment of loan installments. Lease Reniais: In a lease option, annual lease rentals results in significant
recurring expenditure.

2. Tax implications: The lease rentals are deductible for income tax. purposes as operating expenses of the concern. In case assets arc purchased, the assessee will be entitled to a deduction of depreciation. In the case of the purchase of assets with borrowed funds, the interest payment will also be deductible.

3. The costs of operating the asset art Irrelevant since It Is the same irrespective of the mode of acquisition. However, if operating costs are different in the case of ownership or lease, then they should be considered. In case the firm owns the asset, it has full right over residual value at end of the useful life of the asset, in respect of which capital gains/loss may have to be computed. However, in the case of a lease, the residual value doesn’t belong to the firm.

Author’s Note:
Institute has not been asking such theory questions from tax planning in recent times. However, they have been included in this book so that students could get conceptual clarity on these issues. Hence, it is advisable to thoroughly go through such questions as well.

Corporate Tax Planning And Tax Management Notes

  • Concept and illustrations of Tax Planning, Tax Management, Tax Avoidance, and Tax Evasion.
  • Areas of corporate tax planning:

1. Form of organization/ownership pattern.
2. Locational aspects.
3. Nature of business.
4. Tax planning in respect of corporate restructuring.
5. Tax planning in respect of financial management.
6. Tax planning with respect to Non-resident companies.
7. Tax planning in respect of employee’s remuneration.
8. Tax planning in respect of court rulings and legislative amendments.

  • Concept and illustrations of Tax Planning, Tax Management, Tax Avoidance, and Tax Evasion.
  • Areas of corporate tax planning:

1. Form of organization/ownership pattern.
2. Locational aspects.
3. Nature of business.
4. Tax planning in respect of corporate restructuring.
5. Tax planning in respect of financial management.
6. Tax planning with respect to Non-resident companies.
7. Tax planning in respect of employee’s remuneration.
8. Tax planning in respect of court rulings and legislative amendments.

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

The Protection Of Plant Varieties And Farmers ’ Rights – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

The Protection Of Plant Varieties And Farmers ’ Rights – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Question 1.
(c) Farmers in developing countries particularly in India are very confused and do not understand the concept of intellectual property right. Some people are misguiding them and creating panic and rumour that the patent law will prevent them to use seeds for cultivation. If you are an I PR expert how you will clear farmers’ doubt about the patent law that it will not affect their livelihood and still they can use the seeds for cultivation as usual.
Answer:
The law on the subject is contained in the Protection of Rant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001 where under the concept of Plant Breeders’ Rights has been provided legal sanction/authority. There is undoubtedly a need to provide incentives to the Plant Breeders who are engaged in the creative work of research which sustains agricultural progress through returns on investments made in research and to persuade the researchers to share the benefits of their creativity with society.

The issue of enacting a law relating to Plant Varieties Protection and Farmers’ Rights in India assumed importance particularly in the wake of the TRIPS agreement under WTO which seeks to promote effective protection of Intellectual Property Rights in all fields of technology. Article 27 of the TRIPS Agreement defines “Patentable subject matter” and requires member countries to provide for the protection of plant varieties whether by patenting or by an effective sui generis system or by any combination thereof.

With a view to providing for the establishment of an Authority to give an effective system of protection of the rights of plant breeders and farmers, and to encourage the development of new varieties of plants and to give effect to the provisions of TRIPS Agreement, the Parliament enacted the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Right Act, 2001. The Act seeks to stimulate investment for research and development both in the public and private sectors for the development of new plant varieties by ensuring appropriate returns on such investments. It also seeks to facilitate the growth of the seed industry in the country through domestic and foreign investment to ensure the availability of high-quality seeds and planting material to Indian farmers.

It also recognizes the role of farmers as cultivators and conservers and the contribution of traditional, rural and tribal communities to the country’s agro-biodiversity by rewarding them for their contribution through benefit sharing and protecting the traditional rights of the farmers. The Act also provides for the setting up of the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmer’s Rights Authority to promote and develop new varieties of plants and promote the rights of the farmers and breeders.

Considering the above, it is not correct to say that the Patent Law prohibits the Farmers from using seeds (for cultivation) which are not a subject matter of grant of a right under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Right Act, 2001. In fact, the law is meant to provide protection to the farmers’ rights over the inventions that they are able to come up with and disclose them for the benefit of the common public at large.

Question 2.
(a) Company ABC is a biotechnology-related company. It created a new organism by doing genetic manipulation with the traditional existing organism. Advice on the patentability of such genetic manipulation.
Answer:
In 1972, Anand Chakrabarty, a microbiologist, researcher to the General Electric Company filed a patent application in relation to a bacterium from the genus pseudomonas containing therein, at least two stable energy-generating plasmids, each of the said plasmids providing a separate hydrocarbon degradative pathway. It was a man-made, genetically engineered bacterium capable of breaking down multiple components of crude oil. It was asserted that because of this property, which is possessed by no naturally occurring bacteria, the invention could treat oil spills.

The patent claims were of three types:

  • process claim for the method of producing the bacteria
  • claims for an inoculum comprised of a carrier material floating on water such as straw and the new bacteria, and
  • claims to the bacteria itself.

The Patent Examiner allowed the claims to fall into the first two categories but rejected the claim for bacteria. The decision rested on two grounds:

  • That microorganisms are products of nature, and
  • That as living things, they are not patentable subject matter.

Later, the Patent Office Board of Appeals reiterated the examiner’s decision on the ground that micro-organisms do not fall within the ambit of patentable subject matter since they are living things. Besides the Court of Custom and Patent Appeals emphasized that this issue was not whether the claimed bacterium was living or inanimate but whether it constituted an invention made by human intervention.

The Court reaffirmed that the bacterium was not a handiwork of nature rather it was Charabarty’s own invention. The four statutory categories of inventions, which can be granted patents are processed, the machine, manufacture and composition of matter. Hence, on the question as to in which category would the invention fall. The Supreme Court held that Genetically Engineered oil-consuming bacterium could be categorized either as the composition of matter or manufacture.

The court read the term manufacture in accordance with its dictionary definition, to mean the production of articles for use from raw or prepared materials by giving to these materials, new forms, qualities, properties or combinations whether by hand labour or by machinery. The court obviously turned back to the legislative intent of the drafters of the US Patent Act to ascertain the rationale behind using general and broad terminology “any composition of matter” or “manufacture.”According to the court, this selection of broad language suggested that the drafters’ goal was to stimulate innovation in a wide range of then-unknown technologies and scientific fields, a goal that would be frustrated if Congress was repeatedly required to amend the statute so as to explicitly delineate new categories of patentable inventions.

The court observed that the legislative history of the Patent Act connotes that .* the patentable subject matter includes “anything under the sun that is made by man.” Chakrabarty simply shuffled genes, changing bacteria that already existed. The widest interpretation by the court, let the broadest amplitude to patentability to the living subject matter. After this historic decision, the US biotech industry flourished and numerous patents have been granted on human-made higher life forms such as transgenic crops, mice, fish, cows etc.

TRI Ps supported the argument for patenting of microorganisms in Article 27.3 of TRIPs. It excludes two specific classes of subject matter from patentability:

  1. Diagnostic, therapeutic and surgical methods for the treatment of human and animal; and
  2. Plants and animals other than microorganisms and essentially biological processes for the production of plants or animals other than no biological and microbiological processes.

TRIPS permit patenting of the microorganism but do not define microorganism leaving member states to formulate their own standards relating to it. Indian Patent Act, 1970 through its Section 3 allows the patenting of microorganism and microbiological processes to be patentable. Hence, India does not allow patenting of microorganisms already in nature, but genetically modified versions of the same microorganism that result in enhancement of its called efficacies are patentable.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the constitution of Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority.
Answer:
Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights, Authority and Registry. The provisions under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers-Rights Act, 2001 on the subject of Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights, Authority and Registry’ are contained in Chapter II (Sections 3 to 13) of the ActvTbe relevant provisions thereof are reproduced herein below:

Section 3 – Establishment of Authority (1):
The Central Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, establish an Authority to be known as the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority for the purposes of this Act. (4) The Authority shall consist of a Chairperson and fifteen members. (5) (a) The Chairperson, to be appointed by the Central Government, shall be a person of outstanding calibre and eminence, with long practical experience to the satisfaction of that Government especially in the field of plant varietal research or agricultural development, (b) The members of the Authority, to be appointed by the Central Government, shall be as follows, namely:-

  1. The Agriculture Commissioner, Government of India, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, New Delhi, ex officio;
  2. The Deputy Director-General in charge of Crop Sciences, Indian Council of Agricultural Research, New Delhi, ex officio;
  3. The Joint Secretary in charge of Seeds, Government of India, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, New Delhi, ex officio;
  4. The Horticulture Commissioner, Government of India, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, New Delhi, ex officio:
  5. The Director, National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources, New Delhi, ex officio;
  6. One member not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India to represent the Department – of Biotechnology, Government of India, ex officio;
  7. One member not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India to represent the Ministry of Environment ‘ and Forests, Government of India, ex officio;
  8. One member not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India to represent the Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs, Government of India, ex officio;
  9. One representative from a National or State level farmers’ organisation to be nominated by the Central Government:
  10. One representative from a tribal organisation to be nominated by the Central Government;
  11. One representative from the seed industry to be nominated by the Central Government,
  12. One representative from an agricultural University to be nominated by the Central Government;
  13. One representative from a National or State level women’s organisation associated with agricultural activities to be nominated by the Central Government; and
  14. Two representatives of State Governments on a rotation basis to be nominated by the Central Government. (c) The Registrar-General shall be the ex officio member-secretary of the Authority. (7) The Chairperson shall appoint a Standing Committee consisting of five members, one of whom shall be a member who is a representative from a farmers’ organization, to advise the Authority on all issues including farmers’ rights.

Section 4 – Meetings of Authority:
(1) The Authority shall meet at such time and place and shall observe such rules of procedure in regard to the transaction of business at its meetings including the quorum at its meetings and the transaction of business of its Standing Committee appointed under sub-section (7) of section 3 as may be prescribed.
(2) The Chairperson of the Authority shall preside at the meetings of the Authority. (6) No act or proceeding of the Authority shall be invalid merely by reason of

  • Any vacancy in, or any defect in the constitution of, the Authority; or
  • Any defect in the appointment of a person acting as the Chairperson or a member of the Authority; or
  • Any irregularity in the procedure of the Authority not affecting the merits of the case.

Section 7 – Chairperson of being Chief Executive:
The Chairperson shall be the Chief Executive of the Authority and shall exercise such powers and perform such duties as may be prescribed.

Section 8 – General functions of Authority:
(1) It shall be the duty of the Authority to promote, by such measures as it thinks fit, the encouragement for the development of new varieties of plants and to protect the rights of the farmers and breeders.
(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provisions, the measures referred to in sub-section (1) may provide for

  • The registration of extant varieties subject to such terms and conditions and in the manner as may be prescribed;
  • Developing characterization and documentation of varieties registered under this Act;
  • Documentation, indexing and cataloguing of farmers’ varieties;
  • Compulsory cataloguing facilities for all varieties of plants;
  • Ensuring that seeds of the varieties registered under this Act are available to the farmers and providing for compulsory licensing of such varieties if the breeder of such varieties or any other person entitled to produce such variety under this Act does not arrange for production and sale of the seed in the manner as may be prescribed;
  • Collecting statistics with regard to plant varieties, including the contribution of any person at any time in the evolution or development of any plant variety, in India or in any other country, for compilation and publication;
  • Ensuring the maintenance of the Register.

Section 11 – Power of Authority:
In all proceedings under this Act before the Authority or the Registrar,(a) The Authority or the Registrar, as the case may be, shall have all the powers of a civil court for the purposes of receiving evidence, administering oaths, enforcing the attendance of witnesses, compelling the discovery and production of documents and issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses (b) The Authority or the Registrar may, subject to any rule made in this behalf under this Act, make such orders as to costs as it considers reasonable and any such order shall be executable as a decree of a civil court.

Section 12 – Registry and offices thereof:
(1) The Central Government shall establish, for the purposes of this Act, a Registry which shall be known as the Plant Varieties Registry.
(4) The Authority may appoint such number of Registrars as it thinks necessary for the registration of plant varieties under the superintendence and direction of the Registrar-General under this Act and may make regulations with respect to their duties and jurisdiction.
(7) There shall be a seal of the Plant Varieties Registry.

Section 13 – National Register of Plant Varieties:
(1) For the purposes of this Act, a Register called the National Register of Plant Varieties shall be kept at the head office of the Registry, wherein shall be entered the names of all the registered plant varieties with the names and addresses of their respective breeders, the right of such breeders in respect of the registered varieties, the particulars of the denomination of each registered variety, its seed or other propagating material along with the specification of salient features thereof and such other matters as may be prescribed.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on infringement offences, penalties and procedure.
Answer:
Infringement, Offences, Penalties and Procedure (Chapter X – Section 64 to 77)
Section 64 – Infringement:
Subject to the provisions of this Act, a right established under this Act is infringed by a person-

(1) who, not being the breeder of a variety registered under this Act or a registered agent or a registered licensee of that variety, sells, exports, imports or produces such variety without the permission of its breeder or within the scope of a registered licence or registered agency without the permission of the registered licensee or registered agent, as the case may be

(2) who uses, sells, exports, imports or produces any other variety giving such variety, the denomination identical with or deceptively similar to the denomination of a variety registered under this Act in such manner as to cause confusion in the mind of general people in identifying such variety so registered.

Section 65 – Suit for infringement, etc:
(1) No suit-(a) for the infringement of a variety registered under this Act; or (b) relating to any right in a variety registered under this Act, shall be instituted in any court inferior to a District Court having jurisdiction to try the suit.
(2) For the purposes of clauses (a) and (b) of sub-section (1), “District Court having jurisdiction” shall mean the District Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the cause of action arises.

Section 66 – Relief in a suit for infringement:
(1) The relief which a court may grant in any suit for infringement referred to in section 65 includes an injunction and at the option of the plaintiff, either damages or a share of the profits.
(2) The order of injunction under sub-section (1) may include an ex pane injunction or any interlocutory order for any of the following matters, namely:–

  • discovery of documents;
  • preserving of infringing variety of documents or other evidence which are related to the subject matter of the suit,
  • attachment of such property of the defendant which the court deems necessary to recover damages, costs or other pecuniary remedies which may be finally awarded to the plaintiff.

Section 67 – Opinion of scientific adviser:
(1) When the court has to form an opinion upon any question of fact or a scientific issue, such court may appoint an independent scientific adviser to suggest it or to inquire into and report upon the matter to enable it to form the desired opinion.
(2) The scientific adviser may be paid such remuneration or expenses as the court may fix. Offences, Penalties and Procedure

Section 68 – Prohibition to apply denomination of (25 of 1961) registered variety:
(1) No person other than the breeder of a variety registered under this Act or a registered licensee or a registered agent thereof shall use the denomination of that variety in the manner as may be prescribed.
(2) A person shall be deemed to apply the denomination of a variety registered under this Act who-

  • applies it to the variety itself; or
  • applies it to any package in or with which the variety is sold, or exposed for sale, or had in possession such package for sale or for any purpose of trade or production; or
  • places, encloses or annexes the variety which is sold, or exposed for sale, or had in possession for sale or for any purpose of trade or production, in or with any package or other thing’ to which the denomination of such variety registered under this Act has been applied; or
  • uses the denomination of such variety registered under this Act in any manner reasonably likely to lead to the belief that the variety or its propagating material in connection with which it is used is designated or described by the denomination; or
  • in relation to the various uses such denomination in any advertisement, invoice, catalogue, business letter, business paper, price list or other commercial document and such variety is delivered. to a person in pursuance of a request or order made by reference to the denomination as so used.

(3) A denomination shall be deemed to be applied to a variety whether it is woven in, impressed on, or otherwise worked into, or annexed or affixed to, such variety or to any package or other thing.

Section 69 – Meaning falsely applying to denominate of (25 of 1961) registered variety:
(1) A person shall be deemed to falsely apply the denomination of a variety registered under this Act who, without the assent of the breeder of such variety,

  • applies such denomination or a deceptively similar denomination to any variety or any package containing such variety;
  • uses any package bearing a denomination which is identical with or deceptively similar to the denomination of such variety registered under this Act, for the purpose of packing, filling or wrapping therein any variety other than such variety registered under this Act.

(2) Any denomination of a variety registered under this Act falsely applied I as mentioned in sub-section (1), is in this Act referred to as false denomination.

(3) In any prosecution for falsely applying a denomination of a variety registered under this Act the burden of proving the assent of the breeder of such variety shall lie on the accused.

Section 70 – Penalty for applying false denomination, etc.:
(1) Any person who-
(a) applies any false denomination to a variety; or
(b) indicates the false name of a country or place or false name and address of the breeder of a variety registered under this Act in the course of trading such variety, shall unless he proves that he acted, without intent to defraud, be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three months but which may extend to two years, or with fine which shall not be less than fifty thousand rupees but which may extend to five lakh rupees, or with both. Section 71 – Penalty for selling varieties to which false denomination is applied, etc.: Any person who sells, or exposes for sale, or has in his possession for sale or for any purpose of trade or production of any variety to which any false denomination is applied or to which an indication of the country or place in which such variety was made or produced or the name and address of the breeder of such variety registered under this Act has been falsely made, shall unless he proves

(a) that have taken all reasonable precautions against committing an offence against this section, he had at the time of the commission of the alleged offence no reason to suspect the genuineness of the denomination of such variety or that any offence had been committed in respect of indication of the country or place in which such variety registered under this Act, was made or produced or the name and address of the breeder of such variety;

(b) that, on-demand by or on behalf of the prosecutor, he gave all the information in his possession with respect to the person from whom he obtained such variety; or

(c) that otherwise he had acted innocently, be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but which may extend to two years, or with fine which shall not be less than fifty thousand rupees but which may extend to five lakh rupees, or with both.

Section 72 – Penalty for falsely representing (25 of 1961) variety as registered:
Whoever makes any representation with respect to the denomination of a variety or its propagating material or essentially derived variety or its propagating material not being a variety or its propagating material or essentially derived variety or its propagating material registered under this Act, to the effect that it is a variety or its propagating material or essentially derived variety or its propagating material registered under this Act or otherwise represents any variety, or its propagating material, or essentially derived variety or its propagating material not registered under this Act to the effect that it is registered under this Act shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term, which shall not be less than six months but which may extend to three years, or with fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees but which may extend to five lakh rupees, or with both. Section 73 – Penalty for a subsequent offence.-

Whoever, having already been convicted of an offence under this Act is again convicted of such offence shall be punishable for the second and for every subsequent offence with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to three years, or with fine which shall not be less than two lakh rupees but which may extend to twenty lakh rupees, or with both.

Section 74 – No offence in certain cases:
The provisions of this Act relating to offences shall be subject to the right created as recognised by this Act and no act or omission shall be deemed to be an offence under the provisions of this Act if such act or omission is permissible under this Act. Section 75 – Exemption of certain persons employed in the ordinary course of business: Where a person accused of an offence under this Act proves that in the ordinary course of his employment, he has acted without any intention to commit the offence and having taken all reasonable precautions against committing the offence charged, he had, at the time of the commission of the alleged offence, no reason to suspect the genuineness of the act so charged as an offence and on demand made by or on behalf of the prosecutor, he gave all the information in his possession with respect to the persons on whose behalf the offence was committed, he shall be acquitted.

Section 76 – Procedure where the invalidity of registration is pleaded by the accused:

(1) Where the offence charged under this Act is in relation to a variety or its propagating material or essentially derived variety or its propagating material registered under this Act and the accused pleads that the registration of such variety or its propagating material or essentially derived variety or its propagating material, as the case may be, is invalid and the court is satisfied that such offence is prima facie not tenable, it shall not proceed with the charge but shall adjourn the proceedings for three months from the date on which the plea of the accused is recorded to enable the accused to file an application before the Registrar under this Act for the rectification of the Register on the ground that the registration is invalid.

(2) If the accused proves to the court that he has made such application within the time so limited or within such further lime as the court for sufficient cause allow, the further proceedings in the prosecution shall stand stayed till the disposal of such application for rectification.

(3) If within a period of three months or within such extended time as may be allowed by the court, the accused fails to apply to the Registrar for rectification of the Register, the court shall proceed with the case as if the registration were valid.

(4) Where before the institution of a complaint of an offence referred to in sub-section (1), any application for the rectification of the Register concerning the registration of the variety or its propagating material or essentially derived variety or its propagating material, as the case may be, in question on the ground of invalidity of such registration has already been properly made to and is pending before the Registrar, the court shall stay the further proceedings in the prosecution pending the disposal of the application aforesaid and shall determine the charge against the accused in conformity with the result of the application for rectification.

Section 77 – Offences by companies:
(1) If the person committing an offence under this Act is a company, the company as well as every person in charge of, and responsible to, the company for the conduct of its business at the time of the commission of the offence shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly:

Question 5.
Write a short note on farmer rights.
Answer:
Farmers’ Rights (Chapter Vi – Section 39 to 46) Section 39 – Farmer’s rights: (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act,-

(i) A farmer who has bred or developed a new variety shall be entitled for registration and other protection in like manner as a breeder of a variety under this Act;

(ii) The farmers’ variety shall be entitled to registration if the application contains declaration as specified in clause (A) of sub-section (1) of section 18;

(iii) A farmer who is engaged in the conservation of genetic resources of landraces and wild relatives of economic plants and their improvement through selection and preservation shall be entitled in the prescribed manner for recognition and reward from the Gene Fund: Provided that material so selected and preserved has been used as donors of genes in varieties registrable under this Act;

(iv) A farmer shall be deemed to be entitled to save, use, sow, re-solve, exchange, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under this Act in the same manner as he was entitled before the coming into force of this Act: Provided that the farmer shall not be entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act.

Explanation:
For the purposes of clause (iv), “branded seed” means any seed put in a package or any other container and labelled in a manner indicating that such seed is of a variety protected under this Act.

(2) Where any propagating material of a variety registered under this Act has been sold to a farmer or a group of farmers or any organisation of farmers, the breeder of such variety shall disclose to the farmer or the ‘ group of farmers or the organisation of fanners, as the case may be, the expected performance under given conditions, and if such-propagating material fails to provide such performance under such given conditions, the farmer or the group of farmers or the organisation of fanners, as the case may be, may claim compensation in the prescribed manner before the Authority and the Authority, after giving notice to the breeder of the variety and after providing him an opportunity to file an opposition in the prescribed manner and after hearing the parties, may direct the breeder of the variety to pay such compensation as it deems fit, to the farmer or the group of farmers or the organisation of farmers, as the case may be.

Question 6.
Mention the provisions related to ‘Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal.
Answer:
Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal (Chapter VIII-Sections 54 to 59) Section 54 – Tribunal:
The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, establish a Tribunal to be known as the Plant Varieties Protection Appellate Tribunal to exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under this Act.

Section 55 – Composition of Tribunal:
(1) The Tribunal shall consist of a Chairman and a such number of Judicial Members and Technical Members as the Central Government may deem fit to appoint.

(2) A Judicial Member shall be a person who has for at least ten years held a judicial office in the territory of India or who has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held a post in Grade-ll of that Service or any equivalent or higher post for at least three years or who has been an advocate for at least twelve years.

(3) A Technical Member shall be a person who is an eminent agricultural scientist in the field of plant breeding and genetics and possesses experience of at least twenty years to deal with plant variety or seed development activity, or who has held the post in the Central Government or a State Government dealing with plant variety or seed development equivalent to the Joint Secretary to the Government of India for at least three years and possesses special knowledge in the field of plant breeding and genetics.

(4) The Central Government shall appoint a Judicial Member of the Tribunal, to be the Chairman thereof.

(5) The Central Government may appoint one of the Members of the Tribunal to be the senior member thereof.

(6) The senior Member or a Member shall exercise such of the powers and perform such of the functions of the Chairman as may be delegated to him by the Chairman by a general or special order in writing.

(7) Every such appeal shall be preferred by a petition in writing and shall be in such form and shall contain such particulars as may be prescribed.

Section 57 – Orders of Tribunal:
(1) The Tribunal may, after giving both the parties to the appeal an opportunity of being heard, pass such orders, thereon as it thinks fit.

(2) The Tribunal may, at any time within thirty days from the date of the order, with a view to rectifying the mistake apparent from the record, amend any order passed by it under sub-section (1), and make such amendment if the mistake is brought to its notice by the appellant or the opposite party.

(3) In every appeal, the Tribunal may, where it is possible, hear and decide such appeal within a period of one year from the date of filing of the appeal.

(4) The Tribunal shall send a copy of any order passed under this section to the Registrar. ,

(5) The orders of the Tribunal under this Act shall be executable as a decree of a civil court.

Section 58 – Procedure of Tribunal:
(1) The powers and functions of the Tribunal may be exercised and discharged by Benches constituted by the Chairman of the Tribunal from among the Members thereof.

(2) A Bench shall consist of one Judicial Member and one Technical Member.

(3) If the Members of a Bench differ in opinion on any point, they shall state
the point or points on which they differ, and the case shall be referred to the Chairman for hearing on such point or points by one or more of the other Members and such point or points shall be decided according to the opinion of the majority of the Members who have heard the case, including those who first heard it.

(4) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Tribunal shall have the power to regulate its own procedure and the procedure of Benches thereof in all matters arising out of the exercise of its powers or the discharge of its functions, including the places at which the Benches shall hold their sittings.

(5) The Tribunal shall, for the purpose of discharging its functions, have all the powers which are vested in the Registrar under section 11, and any proceeding before the Tribunal shall be deemed to be a judicial proceeding within the meaning of sections 193 and 228 and for the purpose of section 19G of the Indian Penal Code, and the Tribunal shall be deemed to be a civil court for all the purposes of section 195 and Chapter XXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

(6) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other provisions of this Act or in any other law for the time being in force, no interim order (whether by way of injunction or stay or any other manner) shall be made on, or in, any proceedings relating to an appeal unless

  • copies of such appeal and of all documents in support of the plea for such interim order are furnished to the party against whom such appeal is made or proposed to be made; and
  • opportunity is given to such a party to be heard in the matter.

Section 59 – Transitional provision.- Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, till the establishment of the Tribunal under section 54, the Intellectual Property Appellate Board established under section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 shall exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on the Tribunal under this Act subject to the modification that in any Bench of such Intellectual Property Appellate Board constituted for the purposes of this section, for the Technical Member referred to in sub-section (2) of section 84 of the said Trade Marks Act, the Technical Member shall be appointed under this Act and he shall be deemed to be the Technical Member for constituting the Bench under the said sub-section (2) of section 84 for the purposes of this Act.

Question 7.
Discuss the Procedure of surrender and revocation of certificate.
Answer:
Surrender and Revocation of Certificate (Chapter V – Sections 33 To 38) Section 33 – Surrender of certificate of registration:
(1) A breeder of a variety registered under this Act may, at any time by giving notice in the prescribed manner to the Registrar, offer to surrender his certificate of registration.

(2) Where such an offer is made, the Registrar shall notify in the prescribed manner every registered agent or registered licensee relating to such certificate.

(3) Any of such agent or licensee may, within the prescribed period after such notification, give notice to the Registrar of his opposition to the surrender and where any such notice is given, the Registrar shall intimate the contents of such notice to the breeder of such variety.

(4) If the Registrar is satisfied after hearing the applicant and all the opponents, if desirous of being heard, that the certificate of registration may properly be surrendered, he may accept the offer and by order revoke the certificate of registration.

Section 34 – Revocation of protection on certain grounds:
Subject to the provisions contained in this Act, the protection granted to a breeder in respect of a variety may, on the application in the prescribed manner of any person interested, be revoked by (he Authority on any of the following grounds, namely:

  • that the grant of the certificate of registration has been based on incorrect information furnished by the applicant;
  • that the certificate of registration has been granted to a person who is not eligible for protection under this Act;
  • that the breeder did not provide the Registrar with such information, documents or material as required for registration under this Act;
  • that the breeder has failed to provide an alternative denomination of the variety which is the subject matter of the registration to the Registrar in the case where the earlier denomination of such variety provided to the Registrar is not permissible for registration under this Act;
  • that the breeder did not provide the necessary seeds or propagating material to the person to whom a compulsory licence has been issued under section 47 regarding the variety in respect of which registration certificate has been issued to such breeder;
  • that the breeder has not complied with the provisions of this Act or rules or regulations made thereunder;
  • that the breeder has failed to comply with the directions of the Authority issued under this Act;
  • that the grant of the certificate of registration is not in the public interest Provided that no such protection shad be revoked unless the breeder is given a reasonable opportunity to file an objection and of being heard in the matter.

Section 35 – Payment of annual fees and forfeiture of registration in default thereof:

(1) The Authority may, with the prior approval of the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, impose a fee to be paid annually, by every breeder of a variety, agent and licensee thereof registered under this Act determined on the basis of benefit or royalty gained by such breeder, agent or licensee, as the case may be, in respect of the variety, for the retention of their registration under this Act.

(2) If any breeder, agent or licensee fails to deposit the fee referred to in sub-section (7) imposed upon him under that sub-section in the prescribed manner up to two consecutive years, the Authority shall issue notice to such breeder, agent or licensee and on service of such notice if he fails to comply with the direction in the notice, the. Authority shall declare all the protection admissible under the registration certificate issued to such breeder or agent or licensee forfeited.

(3) The arrears of fee imposed under sub-section shall be deemed to be the arrears of land revenue and shall be recoverable accordingly.

Section 36 – Power to cancel or change registration and to rectify the Register:

(1) On an application made in the prescribed manner to the Registrar by any person aggrieved, the Registrar may make such order as he may think fit for cancelling or changing any certificate of registration issued under this Act on the ground of any contravention of the provisions of this Act or failure to observe a condition subject to which such registration certificate is issued.

(2) Any person aggrieved by the absence or omission from the Register of any entry, or by any entry made in the Register without sufficient cause, or by any entry wrongly remaining on the Register, may apply in the prescribed manner to the Registrar and the Registrar may make such order for making, expunging or varying the entry as he may think fit.

(3) The Registrar may, in any proceeding under this section, decide any question that may be necessary or expedient to decide in connection with the rectification of the Register.

(4) The Registrar on his own motion may, after giving notice in the prescribed manner to the parties concerned and after giving them an opportunity of being heard, make any order referred to in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2).

CS Professional Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Notes

Life Insurance – Underwriting – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Life Insurance – Underwriting – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Describe the rules of interpretation of a policy.
Answer:
Like any other contract, disputes do arise in Insurance contracts, regarding liability, quantum, extent and duration of cover, especially in cases where the insurer may have earlier repudiated the claim. It follows consequently, that interpretation of the policy document, is of paramount importance even at the time of inception and during the currency of the policy and not only in a court of law.

In case of any difficulty in understanding the language or rules of the contract, the policy document being a standard document, drafted by the insurer, the benefit of doubt is always in favour of the insured, as a principle of natural justice.

This is as per the doctrine of contra preferentum rule which states that where the contractual language is capable of alternative interpretations, it will be construed or translated in favour of the insured, who accepts the standard contract.

Consequently, the following rules for interpretation of the policy are applied:

  • Printed and written portion of the policy is to be construed together as far as possible.
  • In case of contradiction, the written portion over-rides the printed portion.
  • The policy is to be interpreted as a whole.
  • The words in the policy are to be given their plain, ordinary and popular meaning.
  • Technical words are to be given their strict technical meaning.
  • The ordinary rules of grammar shall apply.

Question 2.
Write a short note on objective of underwriting.
Answer:
Main Objectives of Underwriting:

  • To reduce the possibility of adverse selection against the insurer.
  • Prudent underwriting reduces the chances of Physical. Moral, and Morale hazards.
  • Underwriting helps in determining the expected loss potential of the proposed insured and selecting a price in line with this expected loss.

Question 3.
What do you mean by underwriting? Explain the process of underwriting In insurance.
Answer:
Underwriting Process:
The underwriting process follows a series of stages, at the end of which the status of a risk is decided. It is only after the risk has been weighed and all possible alternatives evaluated that the final underwriting is done.

When a proposal for insurance is received, the underwriter has four possible courses of action:

  • Accept the risk at standard rates
  • Charge extra premium depending on the risk factor
  • Impose special conditions
  • Reject the risk.

There are different types of hazards which can influence his decision to accept or reject a risk:
(i) Physical hazards:
These are hazards that affect the physical characteristics of whatever is being insured. For example, a building made of wood represents a higher level of physical hazard than one made of brick.

(ii) Moral hazards:
These hazards refer to the defects that exist in a person’s character that may increase the frequency or the severity of loss. Such a character may tend to increase the loss for the company.

(iii) Financial hazards:
If the value of the risk is beyond the capacity of the insurer he may reject the risk, or share the same.

CS Professional Insurance Law and Practice Notes

Marine Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Marine Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on warranties in marine insurance.
Answer:
A warranty means a condition or a stipulation, in a Policy the breach of which entitles the Insurer to make the insurance policy altogether invalid and void and any loss may not be paid under the Policy and this ¡s so even though the
breach arises through circumstances beyond the control of the warrantor.

The following warranties are generally recognised under the Marine Insurance Act:

  • warranty of neutrality;
  • warranty of good safety;
  • warranty of seaworthiness of the shíplvessel;
  • where the policy relates to a voyage performed in different stages, during which the ship require different kinds of or further preparation or equipment for the purpose of that stage;
  • ka time policy there Is no implied warranty that the ship shall be sea warranty at any stage of the adventure but wherewith the privity of the assured, the ship Is sent to sea in a unseen worthy condition, the insurer is not liable for loss attributable to unseen worthiness;
  • in a voyage policy on goods or other movables, there is an implied warranty that at the commencement of the voyage the ship is not only seaworthy as a ship but also that it is reasonably fit to carry the goods or other movables to the destination by the party;
  • warranty of legality;
  • warranted that goods are packed in suitable condition to withstand the normal transit damages.

Question 2.
Which Section of the Marine Insurance Act, 1963 talks of a ‘valued policy’? Define. (5 marks)
Answer:
Section 29 of the Marine Insurance Act, 1963 talks of a valued policy:

  • A Valued Policy is a policy which specifies the agreed value of the subject matter insured.
  • Subject to the provisions of this Act and in the absence of fraud, the value fixed by the Policy is, as between the Insurer and the Assured conclusive of the insurable value of the subject intended to be insured, whether the loss be total or partial.
  • Unless the policy otherwise provides, the value fixed by the policy is not conclusive for the purpose of determining whether there has been a constructive total loss.

U/s 30 an unvalued policy is a policy which does not specify the value of the subject matter insured but subject to the limit of the sum insured leaves the insurable value to be subsequently ascertained.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Marine Insurance? Explain different types of Marine insurance.
Answer:
Marine Insurance:
A contract of marine insurance is an agreement whereby the insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured, in the manner and to the extent thereby agreed, against transit losses, that is to say losses incidental to transit. A contract of marine insurance may by its express terms or by usage of trade be extended so as to protect the insured against losses on inland waters or any land risk which may be incidental to any sea voyage.

In simple words the marine insurance includes.

  • Hull insurance which is concerned with the insurance of ships (hull, machinery, etc)
  • Cargo insurance which provides insurance cover in respect of loss of or damage to goods during transit by rail, road, sea or air.

Hull Insurance:
There are various types of policies issued to cover different types of ships/boats depending on their function and usage of the vessel.

Sundry vessels:
There are separate policies designed for fishing vessels, Sailing vessels, inland vessels (barges, pontoons, flats, floating cranes, tugs, ferries, passenger vessels etc. Other types of insurance include covers for jetties, wharves etc and vessels plying in inland waters such as lakes, rivers canals etc.

Liners/Tankers/Bulk carriers/Dredgers:
There are many types of vessels and policies have been designed to cover all these types of vessels- but primarily depend on the function and area of operation for the premium rating etc.

CS Professional Insurance Law and Practice Notes

Life Insurance – Practices – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Life Insurance – Practices – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between the following:
(i) Term plan’ and ‘endowment plan’.
Answer:
‘Term plan’ and ‘endowment plan’:
Under Term plan’ the protection is available throughout the policy period and sum insured is payable only at the death of the insured during the policy period. Nothing is payable on survival. In endowment plan, the sum insured is payable either on death or at the time of maturity of the policy.

Question 2.
In aggressive sale of business, insurance companies are experiencing a severe problem of “Lapsation” (non-continuation of premium payment), which is hindering the growth of life insurance business. Identify some (any five external or internal) causes of the Lapsation of Life Insurance Policies.
Answer:
Ganesan committee identified that the early lapsation of the life insurance policies is the combined effect of both the external and internal factors with some element of interaction between the two.
The committee identified the following factors:
External Factors
1. Economic decision making of the policy.
2. Economic Social Background.
3. Availability of alternative investment options.
4. Client specific features like:

  • Wealth and Savings
  • Education
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Location : Rural/ Urban
  • Financial difficulties
  • Resource Availability

5. Macroeconomic factors like

  • Disposable income
  • Inflation
  • Government policies with regard to taxation
  • Fiscal incentives
  • Development of industrialized areas
  • All the above factors are beyond the control of an Insurance Company.
  • The internal factors contributing to the lapsation of life insurance policies are:

1. Product design and choices:

  • Types of plans
  • Mode of premium payments
  • Policy Term.

2. Marketing and Personal Strategies:

  • Planning of business activities (budgets, time frames)
  • Sales personnel agents development officers, branch marketing supervisors
  • Customer education
  • Market research
  • HRD linked to marketing (recruitment training appraisal, incentives and discounts)
  • Policy mismatch (lack of need-based selling)
  • Absence of insurance awareness/consciousness
  • Domination of Tax concern rather than risk management concern,
  • Lack of agency professionalism while selling insurance policies
  • Remuneration/commission structure for the field force (High commission for the first year premiums and low commission for renewal premiums)
  • Knowledge gap among the field personnel and no quality consciousness in training programs for the field force business target structure (focuses mostly in the month of March)
  • High agent turnover/poaching/churning the policies due to increased competition in the market
  • Lack of after-sales service.

Question 3.
Do you agree to the proposition that life insurance in addition to being a provision for the benefit of an individual and his family also acts as a social and economic welfare product? Elucidate.
Answer:
The immediate effect of a life policy taken by an individual accrues to the beneficiary on the death of the insured. The beneficiary could be the spouse, the members of the family or even partners or company in case of key man policies.

These claims available to the beneficiaries on the death of the insured help to meet the priority needs of such people like marriage expenses, education expenses of the children or even day to day needs of the family so that the society as a whole gets indirectly benefits of such payments.

Besides the above, the life insurance companies have a big role to play. The Life insurance companies which collect the savings of a person and convert into wealth.

The functions of life insurance company helping social and economic welfare Of the nation may be discussed as under:
(a) Saving Institution: Life Insurance companies both promote and mobilize savings in the country. The exemption provided to the taxpayers under the income tax laws provide further incentive to higher income persons to save through life insurance policies. The total volume of insurance business has been growing with the awareness of the insurance benefits and this has been resulting in more savings in the nation and consequent creation of wealth.

(b) Term Lending Institution: Life Insurance companies also function as a large-term financing institutions in the country. The annual net accrual of investible funds from life insurance business (after making all kinds of payments and liabilities to the policyholders) and net income from investments are quite large. These are used in term lending to the corporate borrowers of the industry and these help in growth of the industry in the country.

(c) Investment Institutions: Life Insurance companies including LIC of India are big investor of funds in the government sector. Under the law the life insurance companies including LIC of India are required to invest certain percentage of their accruals in government and other approved securities. These life insurance companies also make funds available to the private sector through investment in shares, debentures and loan. LIC of India also plays a significant role in developing the business of underwriting of new issues.

The International Association of Insurance Supervisors (IAIS) noted that by investing in bonds and other securities issued by financial institutions, insurance companies provide “an important contribution to the financial soundness of banks and more broadly to financial stability. In a similar fashion insurers are also allocating capital to the real economy by purchasing debt securities of industrial companies or through real estate investments.”

(d) Stabiliser in the share market: LIC acts as a downward stabilizer in the share market. The continuous inflow of new funds enables LIC to buy in the share market when the market is weak. However, LIC does not sell in the market when the market is high as it needs to always keep investing in the high inflow of funds.

(e) Biggest employers in the economy: Life Insurance companies are one of the biggest employers. They employ large number of staff for their day to day operations. In addition to the staff they also provide employment to intermediaries like agents, brokers, sub-brokers and other outsourcing companies who take care of some of their operations outside their offices.

(f) Expanding business: Whether businesses are launching a new product, signing a new sales contract or purchasing a new company, the business needs assurances that the other party is conducting business in good faith, insurance provides the necessary protection, in case business doesn’t proceed as planned.

Likewise, businesses would be reluctant to hire new employees if not for workers’ compensation insurance, which protects the employer while providing the employee with income when an accident temporarily puts the employee out of work.

Question 4.
Life insurance penetration is still dismally low in India. Why? Do you believe that “Keyman Insurance” can help in improving the situation? If yes, then how?
Answer:
We agree with the statement that Key Insurance Penetration is still dismally low. Key Insurance penetration in India continues to be one of the lowest at 3.69%, according to the annual report by IRDAI. “Insurance penetration in India was at less than 1% when the industry opened up for private companies in F.Y. 2000-01. The life insurance penetration was at 4.6% in 2009 but visibly showed a downward trend after that. Volatility in the stock market in 2008-2009 and regulatory changes in 2010 adversely impacted the sale of ULIP (unit-linked insurance plan) products and premiums. “Penetration in India reflected a flat trend of 2.7% from F.Y. 2014-15 to 2016-17.

Reasons for Low Insurance Penetration
A Pre-launch Survey Report published by NCAER (National Council of Applied Economic Research) and IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory Authority of India), gave few insights into the reasons why insurance penetration is low in this country.

  • Majority of insured households know that insurance is a better tool for emergency than any other savings instrument.
  • About equal number of households whether insured or uninsured see life insurance as a long-term savings and risk coverage tool.
  • About 50% of both rural and urban household have heard about health insurance policies.
  • Majority of both insured and uninsured household felt that insurance is relevant for all classes.
    However, there are a few missing links and clues that point to the leakages:
  • Agents are the primary source of information about insurance for all households. A whopping 75% households have bought insurance because of agents’ advice.
  • Majority of households in both segments perceive ‘accidents’ and ‘untimely death’ as the two events relevant to insurance.
  • About 13% of uninsured population feels that insurance is only relevant for the rich while another 25% have no idea about it.
  • About 50% of uninsured population feels that insurance is neither a savings tool nor a protection tool.
  • This population also does not know about the kind of losses insurance can compensate for or to what extent.

Key Person Insurance is also known as Keyman Insurance. This is an insurance taken by a company (or partnership firm) on the life of a Key Person who can an employee or a director of the company or partner of the firm. For example, let us assume that A is the founder and Promoter of ABC Limited and has invested in the equity shares of the company. He is also the Chairman of the Board of the Company. It is only because of him that the company has turned profitable and his presence adds significant value to the company. Under the above scenario, on death of A, the company ABC Limited could be impacted financially.

His absence could result in loss of potential income as some clients who are with the company because of him could move to other companies or there could be a drop in morale of the management and this company’s performance and therefore revenue and profitability.

Thus, the company ABC Limited has an insurable interest in the life of Mr. A so the company can purchase a Keyman Insurance Policy from a life insurance company, where the Policyholder will be ABC Limited and the life insured would be that of Keyman i.e. Mr. A in this case. The company has an insurable interest in the life of Mr. A as in case of his death the company is likely to suffer losses. Only term insurance policy where sum assured is payable only on the death of the life assured.

Sum assured in such cases is calculated based on the contribution of the Keyman to the Company and potential loss to the company in case of sudden death of the Keyman. From underwriting point of view, it is important to establish the need for insurance of the Keyman i.e. whether the Life assured is indeed an indispensable person to the organization. This could be subjective based on certain statements made by the organizations but mostly it should translate into some visible benefit due to continuance.

The following factors are considered while considering the need for Key Person Insurance:
(i) Age: Generally the assured is not too young or not too old. If too young the person might not have contributed significantly to the company’s success. If too old the person might not have enough residual service to justify a minimum term of the policy.

(ii) Level of expertise: High level of technical expertise or management skills makes a person indispensable. Qualification and experience in different fields is of great significance importance.

(iii) Earning of Profit making track record of the company: Usually, the key person’s contribution translates into higher revenue or profitability over a period of time, especially when the person is in sales or marketing jobs or Managing Director or CEOs whose key performance indicator is driving profitability.

However, there could be other functional heads like Chief Human Resources Officer who may not contribute directly to Profitability but builds a good culture which motivates employees to stick on to the company and contribute to the success. However, this needs to be demonstrated by the company taking the Key Person Policy.

There is no limit to the number of Key persons (s) in a company. This depends on the needs of the company. Usually, the sum assured under a Key Person policy is linked to the profitability of the company and the amount of insurance cover granted could be, minimum of the following 3 parameters:

  1. 3 times the average gross profits of the Company for the last 3 years.
  2. 5 times the average net profit of the company for the last 3 years.
  3. 10 times the total annual compensation package for the key man which includes salary, bonus and all other perquisites.

If there are more than 1 key person in the Company, the overall limit will be governed by the same principle and the sum assured granted to the various key persons will not exceed the overall limit arrived at by the above method. So we can say that Keyman Insurance helps in increasing the penetration level in Insurance as it is been done in bulk for the employees of an organization.

Question 4.
There are 1,000 persons who are all aged 50 years and are healthy. It is expected that of these, 10 persons may die during the year. if the economic value of the loss suffered by the family of each dying person is taken to be ‘ ₹ 20,000, explain how these 1,000 persons may share the risks in cases of 10 persons through pooling of funds.
(b) On what basis the insurable interest arise under the following circumstances:

  • Owner of a building and bank as a mortgagee.
  • Warehouse and keeper of goods.
  • Renting the building by landlord to a tenant.
  • Employer to pay compensation to employees for accidents.

Answer:
(a) Insurance reduces risk through pooling of funds. People lacing common risks come together and make their small contributions to a common fund. The contribution to be made by each person is determined on the assumption that while it may not be possible to tell beforehand, which person will suffer, it is possible to toll, on the basis of past experiences, how many persons, on an average, may suffer losses.

  • In the given problem, the total loss would work out to be ₹ 2,00,000/- (i.e. 10 x 20,000). If each person of the group contributes ₹ 200/- a year, the common fund would be ₹ 2,00,000/- This would be enough to pay ₹ 20,000/- to the family of each of the ten persons who die. Thus, 100 persons share the risks in case of 10 persons.

(b) Insurable interest arises under the following circumstances:

  • by ownership
  • by law (as a bailor and bailee)
  • by contract
  • by legal liability.

Question 5.
Kumar, holder of a life insurance policy for a sum assured of 110 lakh, died in an accident. The accident was widely reported in the press. Mrs. Sheela Kumar, his wife, was the nominee under the policy.
Nayar, the agent who had canvasseTt’the insurance, met Tandon, the Regional Vice-President of the insurance company and requested for a ” prompt settlement of he claim assuring that he will get the documentation,
completed by Mrs. Kumar. Nayar was a leading agent of the company.

Tandon took an intimation letter from Nayar and instructed the accounts department to hand over the receipted voucher and claim cheque to Nayar. Tandon, however, forgot to inform his action to Sharma the claims officer of the insurance company.

Nayar handed over the cheque, voucher and claim form to Mrs. Kumar stating that he will collect the documents next day. Since he did not turn up the next day, she mailed the claim form, discharged voucher and the policy bond to the insurance company. Sharma, who received the documents, not knowing the earlier action of Tandon, approved the claim and arranged for a cheque for ₹ 10 lakh to be mailed to Mrs. Kumar.
The insurance company wrote to Nayar intimating that the amount of ₹ 10 lakh will be recovered in installments from his agency commission. Nayar replied that such an action will be in violation of the agency law and agreement.
Answer the following questions stating reasons:
(a) Can the company legally recover the money from Nayar?
(b) Can the company legally recover the money from Mrs. Kumar?
(c) Can the company legally recover the money from children of Mrs. Kumar?
Answer:
(a) Mr. Nayar, is the agent of the insurance company in which Mr. Kumar was the holder of a life insurance policy. The relationship of Mr. Nayar (being an agent) and the Insurance Company (Being an employer) are governed by the Indian Contract Act, 1872 and Sections 182 to 238 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 governs the relationship between a Principal and an Agent.

An Agent is a person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with third persons. The function of an agent is to bring his principal into contractual relations with third persons. A Principal is a person for whom the above act is done or who is so represented. An agent, who acts within the scope of authority conferred by his or her principal, binds the principal in the obligations he or she creates against third parties.

In the present case, The company may not be entitled to recover the money from the agent Mr. Nayar as the negligence occurred on the part of Insurance Company official Mr. Sharma and Mr. Nayar, the agent is not responsible for the double disbursement of claim to the insured i.e. Mrs. Kumar.

(b) Yes, the excess money paid could be legally recovered from Mrs. Kumar. There are generally several causes in the policy agreement that forbid double indemnification. The Insurance Company generally reserves the right to recover the amount from the Policyholder or the member of policy holder’s family or any other person, if it is found that the benefits are erroneously paid due to the fault of the Policyholder. Further, in case the insurer is not in a position to recover such amounts from the member or any other person, the Policyholder will be liable to pay the said amount to the insurer within the prescribed time limit from the date of its demand.

The Policyholder however, will not be liable or responsible for any wrong payments made by the company without any fault on the part of the Policyholder but nothing stops the company in recovering the excess amount paid to Mrs. Kumar.

(c) The Insurance Company generally reserves the right to recover the amount from the Policyholder or the member of policy holder’s family or any other person, if it is found that the benefits are erroneously paid due to the fault of the Policyholder. However, the Policyholder will not be liable or responsible for any wrong payments made by the Company without any fault on the part of the Policyholder. In this case since the cheque has been issued in the name of Mrs. Kumar, it is doubtful that the company can legally recover money from the children of Mrs. Kumar.

Question 5.
Ashwini, aged 30 years, was employed as a supervisor in a bank. On 4th June, 2012, he took two life endowment insurance policies on his life for ? 50,000 each from Prudent Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Each policy had a different maturity term and period. Both the policies had accident claim benefit of an equivalent amount, viz. in the case of death of the insured due to an accident, the amount payable by the insurer would be twice the amount of the sum assured. Ashwini made his wife Smt. Asha as his nominee under the policies and also the legal assignee, since the couple had no issues then.

On 31st May, 2014, Ashwini while going to his office on his two-wheeler was involved in a head-on collision with a motor car coming from the opposite direction and was severely injured. He was admitted to a hospital, but succumbed to the injuries and died in the hospital on the morning of 2nd June, 2014.

Smt. Asha filed a claim under the policies with the insurer for payment of the sum assured together with the accident benefits. The company, after processing the claim, informed her on 15th July, 2014 that they were rejecting the claim on the ground that Ashwini, while taking the policies, had suppressed material facts.
The insurer indicated that Ashwini did not mention in the proposal form, the fact of an earlier ailment of having suffered from para-typhoid in June – July 2010 and having been away from his employer on medical leave between 6th June 2010 and 5th July 2010.

The nominee filed a complaint on 18th August 2014 with the District Consumer Forum stating that the repudiation of the claim was not justified. The insurer reiterated its argument that the non-mention of the previous ailment to it was a suppression of material facts and affected the fundamental nature of the contract. The District Consumer Forum on consideration of the arguments before it held in favour of the insurer agreeing with it that the deceased had suppressed material facts at the time of the proposal.

Smt. Asha, not accepting the decision of the District Consumer Forum, filed an appeal with the State Forum. Her counsel contended before the Forum that even if the deceased had suffered from para-typhoid less than two years prior to obtaining the policies and did not give the necessary information in the proposal form, it did not amount to a material suppression of facts. His main argument was that the cause of death was the accident with the motor vehicle and the cause had no nexus whatsoever with the alleged ailment. Thus, there was no suppression of facts.

The State Forum after hearing the arguments of both the parties allowed Smt. Asha’s appeal and held that the cause of death was accident and not illness. The non-mention of the fact of illness and hospitalisation did not amount to any non-disclosure of material facts. The Forum granted the relief asked for and directed the insurance company to pay Smt. Asha ₹ 2,00,000 under the policies. The decision taken on 6th January 2015 also entitled the nominee with interest at 9% per annum from the date of filing the claim, viz. 18th August. 2014.

From the information given above, answer the following questions – (a) Was the State Forum justified in its conclusion in terms of the conditions of life policies issued by Indian insurance companies? Give reasons for your answer. Cite relevant case law, if any.

(b) If Ashwini had died on account of an illness, and not in an accident, will the decision of the State Forum be different? Give reasons.

(c) What are the provisions of the Insurance Act, 1938 regarding the time limit beyond which the terms of a life insurance policy cannot be questioned?
(d) What do you mean by ‘guaranteed surrender value’ in a life policy?
(e) Can a discontinued life insurance policy be revived by the insured and if so under what circumstances and on what terms?
(f) Can a disputed claim under a small value life policy (e.g. ? 2,000) be settled in a quick manner?
(g) If death of the insured under a life policy takes place within two years of its commencement, by way of suicide, will the beneficiary get a claim?
Answer:
(a) The decision of the State Forum is justified on the following grounds:

  • That the Death of Late Shri Ashwini Kumar was as a result of an accident and not any illness.
  • That Section 45 of the Insurance Act,1938 provides that a policy of life insurance cannot be called in question by an insurer after the expiry of three years from the date on which it was effected on the ground that a statement made in the proposal for insurance or any other document leading to the issue of the policy was inaccurate or false.
  • That the Death of Shri Ashwini Kumar was within two years of taking a Life Insurance Policy from “Prudent Life Insurance Company”. The policy was taken on the 4th of June 2012 and the death of the assured occurred on 2nd of June 2014.
  • That the accident of Motor Cycle with car resulting in death of the assured had nothing to do with any illness and hence cannot come under the purview of Section 45 of the Insurance Act.
    In the light of the foregoing, the decision taken by the state forum was correct and in Relevant Case: Life Insurance Corporation of India Vs. Shakuntala Bai on 17 July, 1973 (AIR 1975 AP 68).

(b) Had the Death of Late Shri Ashwini Kumar occurred on account of illness and not accident on 2nd of June 2014, the same would have come under the purview of Section 45 of Insurance Act, 1938 of three years limitation and hence the illness of the deceased on account of Para¬Typhoid would have been a material fact and its non-disclosure in the proposal form would have prejudiced admission of liability under the claim.
The Decision of the District Forum in repudiating the claim would than have been justified.

(c) The Section 45 of the Insurance Law (Amendment) Act, 2015 clearly stipulates that no policy of life insurance shall be called in question on any ground whatsoever (other than fraud) after the expiry of three years from the date of the policy, i.e., from the date of issuance of the policy or the date of commencement of risk or the date of revival of the policy or the date of the rider to the policy, whichever is later.

(d) The Guaranteed Surrender Value is the amount guaranteed to the Policyholder in case of voluntary termination of a policy before maturity. The minimum surrender value allowed is equivalent to an assured percentage of the total amount of premium paid by the Policyholder. Surrender value is the amount that a Policyholder receives from the insurer in case he plans to terminate the policy before its maturity. If a Policyholder decides to end the policy before it matures, he is liable to receive a certain sum that has accrued as his saving. From this amount the insurer deducts the surrender charge and the remaining is transferred to the Policyholder.

A regular premium policy acquires guaranteed surrender value after the policyholder has paid the premiums continuously for three years if the premium paying term is 10 years or more. For policies where premium paying term is less than 10 years, policy acquires guaranteed surrender value after 2 years premiums have been paid. When an individual decides to terminate his policy, all the benefits attached with it cease to exist, including the life cover. Therefore, the Policyholder should only terminate the policy if he feels that it no longer fulfils the requirement or if he realizes that the policy was sold with false promises.

(e) Yes, a discontinued life insurance policy can be revived by the insured. If the life policy has lapsed, it may be revived during the lifetime of the assured, but within a period of 3 years from the date of first unpaid premium and before the date on which the Annuity Vests, on payment of arrears of premium together with interest as may be decided by the insurer. Revival is a fresh contract wherein the insurer can impose fresh terms and conditions. It varies from policy to policy, insurer to insurer; Generally, a declaration of the insured state of health at the time of reinstatement is taken by the insured.

(f) Yes, in the event of any dispute relating to the settlement of a claim on a policy of life insurance assuring a sum not exceeding two thousand rupees (exclusive of any profit or bonus not being a guaranteed profit or bonus) issued by an insurer in respect of insurance business transacted in India, arising between a claimant under the policy and the insurer who issued the policy or has otherwise assumed liability in respect thereof, the dispute may at the option of the claimant be referred to the Authority (i.e. IRDA) for decision and the Authority may, after giving an opportunity to the parties to be heard and after making such further inquires as he may think fit, decide the matter.

The decision of the authority under above clause shall be final and shall not be called in question in any Court, and may be executed by the Court which would have been competent to decide the dispute if it had not been referred to the authority as if it wore a decree passed by that Court.

(g) If death occurs within certain period of time as mentioned in the policy document (generally 2 years) of taking a Life Insurance Policy, the beneficiary/nominee would receive the premium back but not the death benefit.

Question 6.
What are the characteristics of endowment insurance?
Answer:
Endowment Insurance:
An endowment insurance offers death cover if the life insured dies during the term of the policy and also offers a Survival benefit if.the life insured survives until the maturity of the policy.

It offers death cover if the life insured des during the term of the policy OR survival benefit the life insured survives until the maturity of the policy.

Some of the key features of an Endowment insurance plan are :

  • If the life insured survives the entire term of the plan, then a specified amount is paid to him/her on maturity of the plan
  • If the life insured dies before the maturity of the plan, then the death cover benefit is paid to the nominee/beneficiary.
  • Savings element: After deducting the death cover charges & administration charges from the premium, the remaining amount is invested by the insurance company. The returns earned are later paid back to the life insured in the form of bonuses.
  • Goal-based investment: Helps in accumulating money for specific plans like a child’s higher education or marriage, etc.
  • Some insurance companies also allow partial withdrawal or loans against these policies

There are different variants under this plan –

  • Higher death cover than the maturity benefit
  • Maturity benefit is double the death cover, known as a double endowment insurance plan.

Question 7.
What are ULIPS? Explain its features and importance.
Answer:
Unit linked Insurance Plan :
A Unit Linked Insurance Plan or ‘ULIP’ as it is popularly known is basically a combination of insurance as well as investments, similar to a protection cum savings plan. While a part of the premium paid is utilized to provide insurance cover to the policyholder the remaining portion is invested in various equity and debt schemes.

A fund is created from a pool of premiums collected from policyholders and the fund is used to invest in various market instruments (debt and equity) in varying proportions similar to mutual funds. ULIP policyholders are allotted units and each unit has a Net Asset Value (NAV) that is declared on a daily basis. The NAV is the value based on which the net rate of returns on ULIPs are determined. The NAV varies from one ULIP to another based on market conditions and the fund’s performance.

Features :
ULIP policyholders can make use of features such as top-up facilities, switching between various funds during the tenure of the policy, reduce or increase the level of protection, options to surrender, additional riders to enhance coverage and returns as well as tax benefits.

Types :
There are a variety of ULIP plans to choose from based on the investment objectives of the investor, his risk appetite as well as the investment horizon. Some ULIPs allocate a larger portion of the invested capital in debt instruments while others purely invest in equity. Again, all this is totally based on the type of ULIP chosen for investment and the investor preference and risk appetite.

Charge:
Unlike traditional insurance policies, ULIP schemes have a list of applicable charges that are deducted from the payable premium. The notable ones include policy administration charges, premium allocation charges, fund switching charges, mortality charges, and a policy surrender or withdrawal charge. Some Insurer also charge “Guarantee Charge” as a percentage of Fund Value for built-in minimum guarantee under the policy.

Risks :
Since ULIP returns are directly linked to market performance and the investment risk in investment portfolio is borne entirely by the policyholders, one needs to thoroughly understand the risks involved and one’s risk absorption capacity before deciding to invest in ULIPs.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the Proposal form under IRDA (protection of Policyholders’ Interests) Regulations, 2002.
Answer:
Proposal Form:
The Insurance policy is a legal contract between the Insurer and the Policyholder. As is required for any contract there is a proposal and an acceptance. The application document that is used for making the proposal is commonly known as the ‘Proposal Form’. All the facts stated in the Proposal form becomes binding on both the parties arid failure to appreciate its contents can lead to adverse consequences in the event of claim settlement.

The Proposal form has been defined under IRDA (Protection of Policyholders’ Interests) Regulations, 2002 as “it means a form to be filled in by the proposer for insurance for furnishing all material information required by the insurer in respect of a risk, in order to enable the insurer to decide whether to accept or decline, to undertake the risk and in the event of acceptance of the risk, to determine the rates, terms and conditions of a cover to be granted.

While the IRDA had defined the Proposal form, the design and content was left open to the discretion of the Insurance company. However based on the feedback received from policyholders, intermediaries, Ombudsmen and Insurance companies, the IRDA felt it necessary to standardise the form and content of the Proposal Form. Thus the IRDA has issued the IRDA (Standard Proposal form for Life Insurance) Regulations, 2013. While the IRDA has prescribed the design and content, it has provided the flexibility to the Insurance companies for seeking additional information.

He Proposal form carries detailed instructions not only for the Proposer and the Proposed Life Insured but also to the Intermediary who solicits the policy and assists in filling up the form.

It also requires the Proposer and the Proposed Insured to declare the correctness and authenticity of the information provided in the form. In addition, the Intermediary is required to certify that he has explained the features of the policy, including terms and conditions, premium requirements, exclusions and applicable charges to the Proposer.

It is pertinent to mention here that the Proposal form gains utmost importance in any insurance contract, as the insurance company offers a cover on the basis of information provided in the Proposal form. Through the Proposal form, the Insurer seeks to elicit all material information of the Proposer and the Proposed Insured, which includes name, age, address, education, income and employment details of the Proposer, medical history of the Proposed Insured and his family members, income details, any existing life insurance cover on the Proposer as well as Proposed Insured. The information sought in the Proposal form is important for an insurance company to assess the risk that can be underwritten and also to comply with other regulatory requirements such as the ‘Know Your Customer norms.

The IRDA regulations divide the Proposal form into the following broad sections:
Section A – Contains details of the Proposer;
Section B – Contains speciaiised/additional information which may vary based on the product;
Section C – Contains suitability analysis which is highly recommended;
Section D – Contains details of the product proposed. Some of the Insurers also have online versions of the Proposal form, through which an Insurance policy can be proposed online by the Proposer on the website of the Insurance Company.

Question 8.
Write a brief note on Variable insurance plans.
Answer:
Variable Insurance Plan:
Variable life insurance is a permanent life insurance policy with an investment component. Variable universal life insurance can help meet the needs of those who want life insurance protection with the potential to build cash value. The policy has a cash-value account, which is invested in a number of sub-accounts available in the policy. A sub-account act similar to a mutual fund, except it’s only available within a variable life insurance policy.

A typical variable life policy will have several sub-accounts to choose from, with some offering upwards of 50 different options. The cash value account has the potential to grow as the underlying investments in the policy’s sub¬accounts grow – at the same time, as the underlying investments drop, so may the cash value. The appeal to variable life insurance lies in the investment element available in the policy and the favourable tax treatment of the policy’s cash value growth.

Annual growth of the cash value account is not taxable as ordinary income. Furthermore, these values can be accessed in later years and, when done properly through loans using the account as collateral, instead of direct withdrawals, they may be received free of any income taxation. Similar to mutual funds and other types of investments, a variable life insurance policy must be presented with a prospectus detailing all policy charges, fees and sub-account expenses.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Nomination? Explain the difference between Assignment and Nomination.
Answer:
Nomination:
Nomination is a facility that enables a Policyholder to nominate an individual, who can claim the proceeds of the policy, upon the demise of the Policyholder.

Nomination is dealt with under Section 39 of the Insurance Act, 1938. It lays down that the Policyholder who holds a policy of life insurance on his own life may nominate the person or persons to whom the money secured by the policy shall be paid in the event of his death.

Where any nominee is a minor, a major should be appointed to receive the money secured by the policy in the event of death of the policyholder during the minority of the nominee.

CS Professional Insurance Law and Practice Notes

Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
What is ‘fire insurance’? What are the risks covered under ‘fire and special peril policy’?
Answer:
Fire insurance is a tariff product and the inclusion, exclusion and conditions of the risk thus is uniformaly applicable to all the policies irrespective of its being issued by any of the insurance companies. Normally the fire insurance is construed to the covering risk of fire peril only but the fire insurance policy issued under Indian Tariff covers other risks as well.

As the name ‘Fire and Special Perils’ suggest the standard policy covers the risk of fire and other names special perils. Some of the risks excluded under fire insurance can be written back as add on cover by paying additional premium. Thus ‘Standard fire and Special Peril Policy’ with the permitted ’Add on’ covers can also be issued.

Risks covered under Fire and Special Peril Policy are:

  • Fire
  • Lightening
  • explosion/implosion
  • aircrafts damage
  • riot strike, malicious damage etc.

Question 2.
State the exclusions as regards a fire insurance policy.
Answer:
A Fire Insurance Policy usually does not cover a certain amount known as “Excess” under the policy. The policy also excludes damage caused by war and war like operations, nuclear perils, pollution or contamination, electrical/mechanical breakdown, burglary and house breaking.

Certain perils like earth quake and spontaneous combustion can be covered on payment of additional premium. Fire Insurance policies are issued for one year except for dwellings, where a policy may be issued for long term (with minimum period of three years), and the premium for the entire duration should be paid in advance subject to the discounts available as per the policy provisions.

Question 3.
What are the conditions precedent to and subsequent to a fire insurance contract? Discuss. (5 marks)
Answer:
Conditions are terms which prescribe the limitations under which an insurance policy is granted and which specify the duties of the assured. They can be either conditions precedent or subsequent. Conditions precedent are those, which are essential for the creation of a valid contract, the non satisfaction of which makes the contract void ab initio.

The Conditions precedents to a Fire Insurance Contract are:

  • Offer
  • Acceptance
  • Lawful Consideration
  • Consensus ad idem-(Mutual Consent)
  • Competency to Contract
  • Lawful Object
  • Agreement

Conditions subsequent relate to the continuance of a valid contract, the non-fulfilment of which leads to the avoidance of the contract from the date of the breach. They can be further classified into express conditions and implied conditions. Express conditions which are expressly provided in the contract.

Implied conditions are those, which are implied by law to apply to every contract of insurance irrespective of any specific inclusion or referencp to them such as insurable interest, good faith etc. A condition, which seeks to reduce or curtail the period of limitation and prescribes a shorter pend’d than that prescribed by law is void.

However, the insured is absolved once it is shown that he has done everything in his power to keep, honour and fulfil the promise and he himself is not guilty of a deliberate breach. An insurer cannot take recourse to a condition, which has not been mentioned in the policy to reduce his liability. However, an insurance policy may not curtail the right but may merely provide for forfeiture.

The conditions subsequent to the contract in fire Insurance would be:

  • Utmost Good Faith
  • Insurable Interest
  • Strict Indemnity
  • Subrogation
  • Contribution
  • Proximate Cause.

Question 4.
What do you understand by condition of ‘average’ in a fire insurance contract? How does this operate? Explain.
Answer:

  • The doctrine of average or average clause is forever applied in indemnity policies – primarily in property claims – fire and engineering.
  • At the time of taking the policy the insured has to consider the value of the risk or subject matter of insurance -sum insured.
  • He must ensure that the adequate value has been declared and insured.
  • If at the time of loss, it is found that the sum insured is less than the actual value of the subject matter, then the proportionate or ratable portion of the claims would be payable.
  • The insured would hence, be his own insurer for the difference.
  • Insurance Contracts are strictly Contracts of indemnity.
  • On the happening of an Insurance event-Fire the Insurer pays for the sum Insured or Market Value of the property whichever is less.

Hence, lithe sum insured of a property is ₹ 30 lacs and me Market Value of the same on the day of Fire was ₹ 35 lacs and if the property was damaged by fire to the extent of ₹ 28 lacs, than the liability of the Insurance Company would be = \( \frac{\text { Suminsured }}{\text { MarketValue }} \times \text { Loss }\)
i.e., \(=\frac{30,00,000}{35,00,000} \times 28,00,000 \) = 24 Lacs.
The owner of the property would be liable for the remaining ₹ 4 lacs and would be considered to be its own Insurer for the balance.

Question 5.
“The digital economy will make usage-based, on-demand and all-in-one insurance lifestyle products more relevant”. Explain the role and impact of technology in insurance business.
Answer:
Insurers today are negotiating a unique and complex environment. Competition is intensifying as non-industry entrants and fintech innovators provide increasing choice and raise consumer expectations of frictionless, personalised experience. The digital technologies that enable the experience continue to develop, bringing with them a data explosion. And for insurers that can derive deep insights from that data there are exceptional opportunities to enhance agility, grow profitable business and differentiate themselves from the competition.”

Yes, it’s true that at present the digital economy will make usage-based, on-demand and ‘all-in-one’ insurance lifestyle products more relevant. Customers will prefer personalized insurance covers instead of the one-size-fits-all products currently available. Today, more than 80 percent of the premiums collected by insurers are lost to distribution costs. Digital models will make intermediaries in the insurance value chain – marked by their excessive dependence on human effort. Flexible coverage options, micro insurance and peer-to-peer insurance will become viable options in the long run.

Reinsurers will provide risk capital directly to digital brands and regulatory frameworks will accommodate shorter value chains. Lifestyle apps will re-imagine the insurer-insured relationships. Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) will enable the creation of insights-driven offerings as they integrate data from multiple sources. Deeper understanding of customer behaviors will lead to more accurate risk assessments, personalized premiums and value on a sustainable basis for better customer experience and brand loyalty plus reduced false claims. Nowadays, insurance policy is being issued in digitalized manner and kept with repository.

Some of the areas where technology is going to impact in a big way include:
(i) Al and Automation for Faster Claims:
Robotic Process Automation (RPA) and Al will occupy center stage in insurance, driven by newer data channels, better data processing capabilities and advancements in Al algorithms.

(ii) Advanced Analytics and Pro-activeness:
Premiums will become highly personalized, enabled by new sources of. tech-enabled data such as internet of Things, mobile-enabled InsurTech apps and wearables. With the connected devices market poised to grow strongly in the next five years, Property and Casualty (P&C) insurers will be able to extract real-time and accurate data on the loss exposure of individual consumers. This will help them proactively respond with timely and highly personalized interventions.

(iii) InsurTech Partnerships:
InsurTech firms have been showing significant growth in the areas of auto, homeownership and cyber insurance. Such strong growth will stimulate traditional insurers to either acquire technology capabilities or partner with InsurTech companies. With an increasing demand for innovative products and services from millennial’s, such collaboration will become a critical imperative. Overall, it will be a win-win situation- traditional insurers will benefit from faster results in establishing a tech culture and InsurTech companies will get access to larger customer bases, funding and domain expertise.

(iv) Mainstreaming Blockchain:
The need for huge volumes of customer data to be processed in real time by different insurance functions calls for easy and secure transfer of data across organizations and their diverse stakeholders. Blockchain technology provides the advantage of secure data management across multiple interfaces and stakeholders without loss of integrity. Thus, technology is going to drive the insurance business in future, however, the key is to understand how and when to tap into this potential leveraging existing and new technologies.

Question 6.
Anup sells his house to Naresh and a fire occurs before the insurance on the house is cancelled. Can Anup claim the insurance amount? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
This case relates to the tinning of existence of insurable interest. In this case, Anup no longer has an insurable interest in the house at the time when the fire occurs. The insurable interest did not exist at the time of loss.

Question 7.
R Ltd. is a public limited company and is engaged in procurement of rice and its exports, in the course of its business, it utilised the godown facilities offered by the port authorities for storing rice bags awaiting shipment. Right from the commencement of its business, it has covered the risks under a fire insurance policy taken from a very reputed public sector general insurance company. The insurer has been servicing the account through one of its development officers. The policy period normally runs between the first of July of one year and the end of June of the subsequent year.

There were cyclonic storms and heavy rains on 22nd and 23rd July, 2010 resulting in severe flooding of the godowns of the port trust where R Ltd. had stored the rice bags awaiting shipment. On ceasing of the rains on 25th July, 2010, R Ltd. found that most of the rice bags stored in the port godowns had either been damaged or washed away. The doors of the godowns had been lifted and carried away by the rainwater and except for some clusters of rice grains found on the floors of the godown here and there, the entire stock of rice had been washed away. The insured immediately lodged a claim with the insurer asking for a compensation in terms of the fire policy.

On examination of the case, the insurance company noticed the following: The policy was due for renewal on 1st July, 2010. A notice for the payment of premium had been issued to the insured and served on it. The insured had drawn a cheque on 28th June, 2010 on its bankers for the insurance premium due on the basis of the premium notice and had handed over the cheque to the development officer servicing the amount, on the evening of 30th June, 2010.

This was duly acknowledged by the development officer, who also issued a cover-note for the oncoming period. The cheque was deposited by the development officer with the insurer’s branch to which he was attached on 17,h July, 2010 when he returned to the headquarters from his official tour. The branch officials deposited the cheque into the insurance company’s bank account on 18th July, 2010 and the bank credited the account with the premium on 25th July, 2010 because of the intervening public and bank holidays.

The regular policy for the year 2010-11 was not issued by the insurance company till the event of loss. The insured had enjoyed the cover with the same insurance company from the year 2003-04 and no major loss claim had been made R Ltd. so far on the insurance company.

On receipt of the claim papers from R Ltd., the insurance company’s claims department made an analysis of the same and sent a reply to R Ltd. rejecting the claim for the following reasons:

  • The company was not on cover at the time of the loss, since no premium had been paid by R Ltd.
  • The premium was received on 25th July, 2010 after the loss had occurred and hence no insurance policy can be granted.
  • Loss due to floods is not covered under a fire policy.
  • The cover note issued by the development officer did not bind the insurance company.

On receipt of this reply, R Ltd. approached you for advice on the resolution of the dispute. One of the methods suggested by R Ltd. was to proceed against the insurer before the Insurance Ombudsman. R Ltd. also felt that the IRDA could be approached directly for the resolution of the dispute.

Additional facts that may assist in the formation of your views are as follows:

  • Goods stored in the godowns were 20,000 tonnes of rice whose cost of acquisition was ₹ 200 crore. The quantum of storage was supported by independent stock registers maintained by the port authorities.
  • The District Collector of the area, who was appointed by the State Government as the Relief Commissioner, certified that all the goods in the godowns were lost in the floods and there existed no salvage.
  • The stocks in the godowns carried an insurance cover for ₹ 250 crore.
  • A public sector bank had advanced ₹ 80 crore against the stock in the godowns and on the date of flood loss, the outstanding loan amount was ₹ 75 crore. The bank has lodged independently a claim with the insurance company asking the insurer to pay the claim directly to it against the loan outstanding.

In the backdrop of the above information, make an assessment of the situation and give your opinion in detail on the following issues:
(i) Whether a cover for insurance existed on the day of the accident?
(ii) Whether the claim was covered in terms of a fire policy? Also indicate what type of losses are not covered under a fire policy?
(iii) Whether the IRDA can intervene in the matter, on behalf of the insured/bank for the settlement?
(iv) Whether the insured is entitled to any claim under the policy from the insurer?
(v) If the claim has arisen, specify the amount of the same.
(vi) Whether the insured company can approach the Insurance Ombudsman for the settlement of the claim?
(vii) Whether the lender bank has an insurable interest in the property and hence be a party to the claim settlement?
Answer:
This question brings into focus all the prospects of insurance claims management and requires a sound knowledge of principles and practice of insurance. Considering the various facts of the case, the answers to the various questions raised are given below:
(i) Whether a policy existed on the date of occurrence of fire:
First Feature:

(a) It is clear that on the facts of the case, there existed a fire cover. It is to be borne in mind that the company has been taking the Policy with this Insurance Company for over 20 years and had a fire cover without break for this particular risk.

(b) The company obviously was a reputed exporter and has extensively used the port facility for storage and dispatch etc.

(c) These facilities are run by independent statutory bodies and thus be trusted with the facts.

(d) The period for cover was to start on 1st July. A premium notice based on the existing policy coverage, terms & conditions was issued by the insurance company before the expiry of the existing policy and the client R has issued the renewal premium cheque for the same and handed the same to the development officer- an employee of the insurer and noting at its records.

(e) Development Officer is the employee of the Insurance company and thus an authorised representative.

(f) He had received the cheque on 30th June before the expiry of the current policy and also had acknowledged it by issue of a cover note pending issue of the policy document.

(g) The development officer is an authorised official to issue cover note and in fact it is part of his assigned duties to issue one, it is in clear position in law that a cover note is a valid document that brings into existence the relationship of insurer and insured between the parties and has a validity for 60 days by when the normal formalities of issue of a policy could be completed.

The Second Feature:
Is that the cover is not a new one but is only a renewal of the existing policy on the same terms as agreed to between the parties earlier. Hence, it is clear that there exists a contract between the Parties, a valid Insurance Contract between the two parties on the subject matter of cover.

The Third Feature:
To be noticed is the provision of Section 64VB of the Insurance Act which clearly stipulates the payment of premium in advance before commencement of the cover. Facts denote that the amount of premium was collected by the Development Officer of the Insurance company on 30th June, 2010 – a day prior to the opening of the next year of risk cover. The insurer lodged the cheque for collection on the same day but the banker credited the insured account only on 24th July due to intervening government and bank holidays.

Issue of a cheque and its collection were a part of normal commercial activities. Hence, it has to be concluded that the payment of the premium has been made by R in the normal course and Section 64VB’s demand has been complied with in all aspects.

Hence, all the pre-requisite for the coming into existence of a fire- policy has been satisfied and as on the date of the accident, a valid insurance cover existed in favour of R.

(ii) Whether claim was covered in terms of policy:
The cover that existed was a fire policy-prima facie a standard one. This policy normally, covers losses arising out of fire and special allied perils like as storms, floods, typhoon, earthquake, inundation, lightening, strikes and landslides. In the case of Standard Fire Policy with Special Perils covered, the risks of Storm, Cyclone, Flood, Inundation and Earthquake risks are covered on payment of applicable additional premium.

In the instant case, the cause for loss is damage due to storms flooding and consequent inundation, it is noticed that such a risk is covered under the standard fire policy, subject to other conditions being satisfied, the insurer is liable for the losses.

A standard fire policy usually does not cover losses on account of damages caused by war and .warlike operations, nuclear perils, pollution or contamination, electrical or mechanical breakdowns, burglary and housebreaking.

(iii) Whether R can approach IRDA for settling the issue:
1. The Act that established it has defined its powers under Section 14 and apart from other duties outlined in the section, the following is clearly indicated “to protect the interest of the policy holder with regard to settlement of claims and other terms and conditions”. .

2. This specific object of the IRDA has to be invoked by R to support his claims for IRDA’s intervention in regard to this matter if the insurer does not act fairly and reasonably in the matter. The fact outlined in the question clearly established on liability of insurance company towards R-claims whether there existed a policy. Whether fire perils covered flood losses etc. – and it will, therefore, be very appropriate if R approached IRDA seeking its intervention.

3. Whilst IRDA may intervene in this case and issue a direction to a public sector company, consider different on the part of R and the public sector bank which has lent money to R may result in IRDA deciding to intervene.

4. Past records establish the fact in an identical case, where a client has approached IRDA for its intervention when its long run of negotiation with a public sector insurance company did not result in any solution. After examining all the factors IRDA decided to intervene and passed an order directing the insurer to pay the claim.

5. The insurer not satisfied with the IRDA’s direction, took the matter in appeal to the court which clearly indicated that IRDA did have the powers and infact an obligation to intervene on behalf of the insured.

6. That step will not only be necessary to protect the interest of a policy holder but represented wholly and truly authority, obligation to control, nurture and develop the insurance industry.

(iv) Whether any liability accrued on the part of the insurer:
Yes, Insurers are liable for the loss as per the terms and conditions of the Policy because two important conditions have been fulfilled. Firstly there exists the policy coverage. Secondly the policy is valid as on the date of loss.

Thirdly, the loss occurred due to a peril covered under the policy issued. With the client/policy holder complying with all the required formalities, the insurer is liable for the loss.

The client has also informed the insurer of the accident immediately after it knew of its occurrence. Hence it has to be concluded that there existed a policy on the date of the event in terms of which a claim has to be settled.

(v) If the claim has arisen, the amount of the claim:
We have already noticed that under a valid policy in existence, a claim has arisen. It has to be assessed and the amount of compensation has to be determined. To assess the damage, the insurer has to appoint a surveyor who has to finalise his assessment to the insurer based on the documents submitted and facts of the case and this assessment will form the basis for settlement.

In the instant case, the loss has been established independently in that stocks those were in the garden 20,000 tonnes of rice had been verified by the stock record maintained by the Port Trust which is an independent statutory authority. Its certificate can be accepted prima facie. In addition, physical examination of the Godown established the fact that the entire stock at Godown had been either damaged or washed away due to the force of the storm coupled with heavy rain and there was no salvage at the godown. The district collector who also was the Relief commissioner had confirmed about the total loss of the stock. It is thus crystal clear that the entire stock had been lost. Hence this is a claim for total loss and accordingly the total cost of the stock is payable.

(vi) Approach to Insurance Ombudsman:
The establishment of Ombudsman at different parts of the country is a facility to enable insured to get an opportunity to settled outstanding issues at no cost. An insured can approach an Ombudsman with his case for settlement when the insurance company refuses to accept the claim or settle it at lower value than expected by the insured. The only . drawback to this facility is that commercial claims of more than ? 20 lakh cannot be referred to Ombudsman. In this case R cannot go to the Ombudsman to settle the claim since loss amount is above the limit. Alternative available is to move the Consumer Courts where no such limit of loss is fixed.

(vii) The interest of the lender bank:
The bank had advanced money to R on the stock held in Port godowns to the extent of ? 80.00 Crores and as on the date of loss had an outstanding of ? 75 crore due to it. This makes the bank as a Party with an insurable interest which will permit it to raise with the insured the question of the settlement of the claims. It will be within the rights of the bank to have the claim amount to the extent of amount of the loan outstanding, to be released to it.

Question 8.
Nilesh, a businessman took a fire insurance policy to cover stocks of oil seeds, oil cakes, etc., in a godown of Class I construction located behind Vile Parle Market, Mumbai for a sum insured of ₹ 7 lakh against fire with riot and strike cover with ABC Insurance Company Ltd. for the period 15th May, 2014 to 16th May, 2015. The insured remitted ₹ 1,255 through account payee cheque to the insurer as premium for the coverage. The cheque was acknowledged by the insurer and a cover note for the sum insured of ₹ 7 lakh was issued against fire with riot and strike coverage on 19th May, 2014 (17m and 18th May, 2014 being Saturday and Sunday). The cover note covering the risk in question was duly delivered to Nilesh on 20th May, 2014 by an authorised representative of the insurer. The cover note whilst describing the property in brief also indicated “Subject to terms, conditions and exceptions of the standard fire policy.” The policy however was not released by the insurer.

Unfortunately, on 22nd June, 2014, a fire occurred in the godown and resulted in damage to a part of the oil seeds and oil cakes. The fire brigade was summoned and the fire was put out after considerable effort. But by that time, a substantial portion of the insured’s stocks had suffered damages. The insurance company upon receipt of intimation, deputed a senior fire surveyor to carry out inspection and assessment of damages. The surveyor after detailed inspection and verification of records assessed the damages to the tune of ₹ 3.40 lakh on account of ‘spontaneous combustion’. The report was submitted to the insurer on 25,h July, 2014.

The insured, Nilesh, took-up the matter with the insurance company for compensation. The ABC Insurance Company Ltd. however on the basis of surveyors findings informed the insured that spontaneous combustion was an excluded peril under the standard fire policy and hence the insurance company could not admit its liability under the claim. This decision of the insurance company was conveyed to the insured in writing on 6th August, 2014.

Being not satisfied with the decision of the insurance company, the insured, Nilesh took-up the matter with the ‘consumer forum’ for redressal stating that the cover note issued to him did not have a stipulation that ‘spontaneous combustion’ was an excluded peril under the standard fire policy and in the absence of such a condition, his rightful claim for compensation cannot be rejected by the insurer. Moreover, the policy too had not been released by the insurer even after a month and hence the claimant was completely in the dark with regard to terms, conditions and exclusions of a standard fire policy. The insured, therefore, cannot be penalised for ‘no fault of his own.’

The insured further contended that there was ‘deficiency in service’ on the part of the insurer in not releasing the policy document in time and in keeping the insured fully informed of the coverage.
The consumer forum heard arguments from both the parties including those advanced by the respective advocates on both sides. They also questioned the surveyor at length who had carried out loss assessment of the damages sustained by the insured.

The consumer forum after due deliberation amongst its members, directed the insurance company to pay the claim to the insured to the tune of ₹ 3.40 lakh as assessed by the surveyor.
The consumer forum further directed the insurance company to pay an additional amount of ₹ 30,000 for ‘deficiency in service’ in not releasing the fire policy within a reasonable period of 30 days.
Answer the following question:
(a) Discuss in detail how far the award of the consumer forum is justified in the light of the terms and conditions of the standard fire policy.
(b) Was the penalty for ‘deficiency in service’ imposed on the insurer justified in the light of existing guidelines in the market wherein there is no stipulation on issuance of a policy by the insurer within a reasonable period of 30 days ?
(c) What are the additional perils that can be covered under a standard fire policy?
(d) What do you understand by ‘condition of average’ in a fire insurance contract?
(e) Name the ‘excluded perils’ under a fire policy.
(f) Can a fire policy be issued providing coverage for more than one year?
Name the subject matter along with the period for which such cover can be granted ?
(g) Mention the ‘implied conditions’ in a fire insurance contract.
Answer:
(a) Fire insurance contracts are contracts of utmost good faith. Utmost good faith implies that there should be good faith on both sides – not only on the side of the insured but also the insurer should observe it strictly. In the given case are clear. A policy was taken against fire and riot. Strike risks for sum insured of ₹ 7 lakhs. The good insured was stocks of oil cakes and oil seeds in a class I godown located behind parle market, Mumbai for ₹ 7 lakh.

The cover note was issued by ABC Insurance Company covering the risk from May 15, 2014 to May 16, 2015. A representative of the insured delivered the cover note personally on May 20, 2014. He should have advised the insured that the commodity is susceptible to spontaneous compensation and therefor this risk too should be taken. But he did not do so.

The policy too was not released within a reasonable period of a month. On June 22, 2014, a fire occurred and damages were assessed by a senior surveyor to the tune of ₹ 3.40 lakhs. The cause of loss was spontaneous combustion.

The insured took the matter with the insurance company. The company denied its liability stating that spontaneous combustion was an excluded risk. The matter thereafter went to the consumer forum which gave an award against the insurance company for ₹.3.40 lakh.
1. On a review of the above facts, it becomes clear that the insurer was neither proactive nor sensitive to the needs of his client. Had he been a real friend and advisor, he would have advised the insured to take spontaneous combustion risk on may 20, 2014 itself when his representative met the insured and handed him the cover note.

2. He did not do so, nor released the policy document timely so that the insured may take precaution even belatedly.

3. He just acted as an insurer forgetting that insurance is peoples business. You are dealing with the people and hence you have to be proactive and sensitive to their needs.

4. As, insurance is the subject matter of solicitation, the representative should have advised the client with regards to the coverage.

5. However, in the above case, although a cover note is binding on the insured, since there is a lapse on the side of the insurer, the . consumer forum’s award is timely, fair and justified.

Alternate Answer:
(a) The operative clause of the cover note of fire insurance generally reads as follows.
“In consideration of the proposer named in the schedule hereto having, proposed to effect an insurance against fire for the period therein, on the usual terms and conditions of this company and having paid the premium stated in the schedule is hereby insured to the extent of the sum insured mentioned therein”.

The cover note is made subject to the terms and conditions of the fire policy by the following clause.
“The Cover Note is issued pending preparation and issue of a duly stamped policy of insurance and should the terms and conditions of this Company’s policy be unknown to the proposer, it shall be incumbent upon him to make application to the company for a copy of such terms and conditions. Failure to comply with policy terms and conditions though the insured being unacquainted with them shall not excuse his failure to act in accordance therewith and by the acceptance oh this Cover Note, the proposer binds himself by the terms and conditions of this company’s policy.”

The operative clause of the fire policy provides coverage in respect of fire but excludes damages caused to the insured property by “its own fermentation, natural heating or spontaneous combustion.”
However, extension endorsement in the fire policy covering spontaneous combustion can be obtained by the insured on payment of additional premium.

In the above case the insured failed to make an application to the Insurance Company for, a copy of the terms and conditions of the policy. Thus, it is a failure on the part of the insured and not the insurance company. Ignorance of the terms and conditions of the policy on the part of insured is not an excuse. Moreover, extension endorsement and add on cover for spontaneous combustion is available to the insured only on payment of additional premium by the insured before coverage of the risk. But in this case no such additional premium was paid by the insured to the insurance company. Thus, the insurance company is not liable to pay for the loss due to spontaneous combustion.

In the above case, the award of the Consumer Forum for payment of claim to the insured to the tune of ? 3.40 lakh as assessed by surveyor is not justified.

(b) Cover Note is a temporary document evidencing the receipt of premium and acceptance of the risk by the insurer, pending preparation and issuance of fully worded insurance policy. Usually the cover note is issued for a temporary period of 30 days and beyond this period the cover note becomes invalid and has to be replaced by a fully worded policy document.

For the insured, the Cover Note is the evidence that the risk he proposed for insurance is covered against the peril he desired. The insurer issues the fully worded policy once he receives the full details required for underwriting the risk, including documents like completed proposal form and all other relevant information required in documentary form like inspection reports etc.

If the issuance of fully worded insurance policy by the insurance company (even after receipt of ail necessary documents from the insured) is delayed beyond the reasonable period of 30 days, then the insurance company will be liable for deficiency of service.

Therefor, the decision of the consumer forum in awarding a penalty for deficiency in service is fully justified.
(c) The additional perils or add on covers are extension of fire policy which can be covered on payment of additional premium and by attachment of endorsements.

These add on covers include:

  • Spontaneous combustion
  • Earthquake (Fire and shock)
  • Forest fire
  • Architect, etc. fees (in excess of 3%)
  • Debris removal (in excess of 1% of claim amount)
  • Terrorism
  • Temporary removal of stocks
  • Leakage and contamination cover
  • Spoilage material damage cover
  • Deterioration of stocks in cold storage premises due to power failure following damage due to an insured peril.
  • Impact damage due to insured’s own vehicles, Forklifts and the like and the articles dropped therefrom.
  • Loss of rent
  • Insurance of additional expenses of rent for alternative accommodation
  • Start up expenses.

1. Fire insurance contracts are strict contracts of indemnity.

2. In other words, the insurer is supposed to indemnify the insured to the extent of loss suffered by him and not more than the loss.

3. Indemnity implies making good of actual loss.

4. The aim of the principle of indemnity is to place the insured in his pre-loss financial position and not to make a gain out of a loss.

For example, if a property is insured for a certain amount and later on it transpired that the market value of the property was much on the higher side and in case an accidental fire occurs, then the insured will be his own insurer for the accidental partial loss suffered by him. This is also known as under insurance or self-insurance.
formula:= \(\frac{\text { Suminsured }}{\text { Market value }} \times \text { loss }\)
For example, if sum insured is ₹ 2 lakh and the value of the property on the day of loss was ₹ 2.75 lakh. If the loss assessed for partial damages is ₹ 1.25 lakh, then the liability of the insurance company would be as under:
= \(\frac{2,00,000}{2,75,000} \times 1,25,000\)
= Loss payable ₹ 90,909
The insured would be his own insurer for the balance amount of loss. In other words, he has to bear a loss of ? 34,091 out of his pocket.

(e) The excluded perils under a Fire Policy are discussed below:

  • Loss or damage caused by war and war like operation
  • Nuclear perils
  • Pollution or contamination
  • Electrical/mechanical breakdown
  • Burglary and house breaking
  • 5% of each and every claim – Subject to a minimum of ? 10,000 in Act of Gods (AOG) perils, ? 10,000 for each and every loss out of other perils
  • Loss, destruction or damage caused to bullion, precious stones, works of art exceeding ? 10,000, books of accounts, paper money, explosives etc.
  • Stocks in cold storage
  • Any electrical/electronic machinery
  • Loss of earnings, loss by delay, consequential loss etc.
  • Loss/damage by spoilage, interruption/ cessation of any process
  • Loss by theft during or after the peril
  • Loss by natural calamity.

(f) Fire insurance policies are normally issued for one year only. Only in the case of residential dwellings, the policy may be issued for a longer term. In such an eventuality, the policy may be issued for a minimum period of 3 years, however with payment of premium in advance.

(g) Conditions are of two types (i) Express condition (ii) Implied condition. While express conditions, are those that are normally specified on the face of the contract, and printed on the policy document, implied conditions are those, which are so basic and material that their existence forms the very basis of the policy.

In the absence of express conditions, the insurance contract is subject to implied conditions, which relate to:

  • Utmost good faith
  • Insurable interest
  • Indemnity
  • Subrogation
  • Contribution
  • Proximate cause

Question 9.
Anil, an individual, has taken with Urban Insurance Co. Ltd., a fire policy against his residential property, for a sum assured of ₹ 3,00,000. The cover lasts till the end of September, 2015. On 20th May, 2015, an accidental fire takes place and the entire building is gutted and damaged. Anil prefers a claim with the insurance company. The claim is rejected on the ground of negligence on Anil’s part. Representations made by Anil to the insurer against such a rejection were not successful. What options are left to Anil to proceed further in this regard? Discuss.
(b) Southern Ltd. carries a large volume of stock. It has secured fire policies to cover the stocks from three general insurers, the details of which are as under:
Insurer Sum Assured
M Insurance Co. Ltd. – ₹ 75,00,000
N Insurance Co. Ltd. – ₹ 50,00,000
S Insurance Co. Ltd. – ₹ 25,00,000

On 31st January, 2015,-when a fire, took place the value of the actual stocks in the godown, on the basis of the company’s accounts was ₹ 1,60,00,000. Salvage gained was ? 1,50,000 which the company recovered and realised by way of sales. .

Determine the individual liability of each of the insurers on the premise that the claim was admitted by the companies.
Answer:
(a) This question deals with dispute resolution between an insured and insurer. It is a case where an individual has insured a non- commercial building qgainst fire losses for ₹ 3,00,000. A fire takes place and the building is completely gutted and destroyed. In other words, the property is completely lost and there is a total loss. The insurer, on receiving a claim has denied it on the ground of negligence on the part of the insured.

The avenues open to Mr. Anil to resolve the disputes are discussed below:

  • He can approach the Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum established by a State Government in each district of a State. These forums deal with cases of a value of upto ₹ 20,00,000 rupees.
  • The forum has the power of a Civil Court. The forum can order and provide relief to the complainant.
  • For insurance related claims, an additional separate window has been provided in the shape of insurance ombudsman who has been empowered to look into insurance related cases from non-corporate persons when the claim amount does not exceed ₹ 20 lakhs.

A person who wants to approach the ombudsman must have approached first the insurance company and must have gone through the procedure regarding complaint redressal mechanism in house by the company.

After hearing both the insurer and the insured, the Ombudsman will make his recommendation within one month from the date of receipt of the complaint. This will be followed by a trial order within three months. The Ombudsman’s order will be binding on the insurer but if the insured was not satisfied with the order he can choose to appeal against it. The insurer, within 15 days of the Ombudsman order shall comply with it. The individual can also appeal against the award pronounced by the Ombudsman if he is not satisfied with the judgment in the Consumer forums.

In the above case, the fire accident took place on May 20,2015 and on the insured reporting to in-house grievance facility, the insurer rejected the claim. Anil has now two choices before him. As the loss is less than ₹ 20 lakh, he can either approach the District Consumer Forum or go to the insurance Ombudsman. The claim before the Consumer Forum will be civil litigation and will be time consuming. If Anil approaches the insurance Ombudsman, the settlement process is quick around three or four months and if Anil at the end of the proceedings is not satisfied with the Ombudsman’s award, he can seek alternative remedies, like Consumer Forum, High Court, etc.

Therefor, will be prudent for Anil to go to insurance Ombudsman with the complaint. The cost of litigation will also be very low before the Ombudsman.

(b) This question calls for an inter-say allocation of liabilities amount different insures have insured. The main idea of an insurance contract is to indemnify the insured, against losses. The insured cannot gain out of a loss and hence the claim will have to be settled on pro-rata basis by all the three insurers collectively as per their sum insured liability ratios. As there are three insures, the liability to settled claims has to be distributed ratably.

The claim amount has to be calculated applying the ‘SUE’ clause in the order namely:
S – Salvage
U – Under-insurance
E – Excess
The distribution will be as under:
The actual stocks at the time of loss were ₹ 1,60,00,000.
Insurance covers available are ₹ 75 lakh + ₹ 25 lakh + ₹ 50 lakh = 1.50 crore.
There is under insurance.
Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions 1
The loss has therefore to be limited to the maximum of the same assured under the policies.
Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions 2
Maximum Allowable ₹ 1,48,50,000 to be distributed among M, N & S in the ratio of 3:2:1 viz. after adjusting for under insurance clause.
The stocks were insured only to the value of ₹ 1,50,00,000 i.e. upto a value of 93.75%. Hence, the amount payable is to be adjusted for under insurance after adjustment of salvage, and Excess of ₹ 10,000.

Therefore 93.75% of ₹ 1,48,50,000 = 1,39,21,875 which is to be divided amongst the three insurers in rateable proportion after excess adjustment.
Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions 3
(5% of every claim subject to a minimum of ₹ 10,000 is taken as mandatory excess)
Balance Amount of loss payable = ₹ 1,39,11,875
Loss payable ₹ 1,39,11.875 to be distributed among M, N & S in the ratio of 3:2:1 (Based on the respective contribution of M, N and S in the Sum Assured)
M Insurance Co. Ltd. , 316 of 1, 39, 11, 875 or ₹ 69,55,938
N Insurance Co. Ltd. , 2/6 of 1, 39 ,1 1, 875 or ₹ 46,37,292
S Insurance Co. Ltd., 1/6 of 1, 39, 11, 875 or ₹ 23,18,645

Question 10.
Hari took a fire insurance cover on his stock of oil-seeds, oil-cakes, etc., while stored in a godown of Class-I construction, for a sum assured of ? 1,50,000 with Zenith General Insurance Co. Ltd. The risk was inspected by the insurer’s representative. After the inspection, he collected the premium due and issued a cover note. The official receipt for the premium was received after three days by Hari. The cover note issued by the insurer’s representative indicated that “the stock of oil-seeds and oil-cakes, etc. are covered for a period of 12 months effective from 26th February, 2015, subject to terms, conditions, exceptions, etc. of the insurer’s printed policy against the risk of fire whilst stored in a godown of Class-I construction.” Despite several written requests and reminders by Hari, the policy document was not issued till the end of May, 2015. In the meantime, on 10th May, 2015, a major fire broke out in the godown damaging a large part of the insured’s stock.

The insurer appointed a licensed surveyor who assessed the loss of oil-seeds and oil-cakes to the tune of ₹ 1.15,000. He also held that the fire was on account of ‘spontaneous combustion.
In the course, Hari filed a claim for loss with the insurer. Zenith Insurance Co. Ltd. informed him that the fire having occurred due to an excluded peril, viz., spontaneous combustion, no claim would be payable.
How will you advise Hari to proceed to support his claim? Discuss in your answer, the sanctity of a cover note issued by an insurance company or its representative.
Answer:
Since the claim lodged by Mr. Hari has been turned down by Zenith General Insurance Company on the ground that “Spontaneous Combustion” is not covered under a standard fire policy, he can take up the matter with insurance ombudsman of his state and file a complaint with that office. The ombudsman is an internal redressal machinery of insurer created by the industry with the backing of the Central Government. The decision of the ombudsman is binding on the Insurance Company but not the claimant. The ombudsman would look into the entire matter of issuance of cover note by the insurer without any stipulation and give the benefit to the claimant.

The very fact that there was no warranty stipulated in the cover note strengthens the case of the claimant and benefit of doubt must go in his favour.
If Mr. Hari still does not get justice, than he can approach the District Forum and State Forum for redressal of his grievance.

A Cover note is a temporary risk document issued by the insurer till it is replaced by a stamped policy document. Insurers all over the world honour this document. The cover note describes the risk proposed for insurance and also stipulates conditions which are relevant and necessary.
In the present case, since no warranty pertaining to “Spontaneous Combustion” being an excluded Peril was incorporated in the Cover note issued by the insurer, he cannot disown his liability under the claim at this stage. The claim will have to be honoured by the insurer.

Question 11.
Kishore, owner of Jeevan Brothers, a business enterprise, had taken two insurance policies from a general insurance company on his factory located in Goa. One was a fire policy and the other was a consequential loss of profit due to fire policy.

On 8th January, 2015, early morning around 3.00 A.M., there was a short- circuit in the main switch-board in the sub-station receiving power from the State Electricity Board which resulted in a f lashover producing over-currents. The flashover and over-currents generated excessive heat which caused the paint on the panel board to be charred, producing smoke and soot thereby causing a hole to develop in the adjoining feeder. The smoke and soot alongwith the ionized air travelled to the generator compartment where again a short-circuit took place resulting in the tripping of the generator.

This resulted in the entire power supply to the plant being stopped and due to this, the supply of water/steam to the waste-heat-boiler by the flue gases at a high temperature continued to be fed into the boiler resulting in damage to it.

Kishore had the losses examined which were calculated at:
(i) ₹ 1,35,17,709 for material loss due to damage to the boiler and other connected equipments; and
(ii) ₹ 19,11,10,000 as loss of profits for the period during which the plant had to be shut down due to the accident.
He had intimated the insurance company of the accident and loss in due time and subsequently made a claim under the two policies on the insurer. He had sent alongwith the claim, the surveyors’ reports. The insurance company rejected the claim holding that the loss did not occur due to fire. Hence, Kishore took the matter to the National Commission under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

Before the National Commission, the insurance company reiterated its stand that the damage to the boiler and other equipments was not caused by fire but because of stoppage of electricity due to short-circuit in the switch-board, resulting in stoppage of power leading to a thermal shock. It stated that the proximate cause had to be seen for settling a fire claim which in the present case was the thermal shock due to stoppage of power. The National Commission, on examination of the facts, did not agree to the insurer’s arguments and decided in favour of Kishore.

The insurer not satisfied with the National Commission’s decision carried the matter further to a legal forum where again the counsel laid stress on two issues, viz., (a) there was no fire; and (b) in any case, fire was not the proximate cause for the damage.

The counsel for the insured relied on the decision of the National Commission and argued that it was necessary to determine first whether there was a fire. Admittedly in this case, there was a short-circuit causing a flashover. A flashover is the near simultaneous ignition of all combustible material in an enclosed area. When certain materials are heated, they undergo thermal decomposition and release flammable gases. Flashover occurs when the majority of surface in a space is heated to the auto-ignition temperature of flammable gases.

In the present case, it was noticed that the short-circuit in the main switch board caused a flashover. According to one of the two surveyors, this flashover should be defined as a phenomenon of a developing fire (or radiant heat source), radiant energy at wall and ceiling surfaces within a compartment. In the present case, the paint got burnt due to the flashover and such high energy levels would, undoubtedly, result in a fire causing melting of the panel board.

The second surveyor admitted that fire of a short duration could not be called a ‘sustained’ fire as contemplated by the insurer. In his view, the duration of fire was not at all relevant so long as there was a fire causing damage to the asset. The claim was maintainable even if the fire was for a fraction of a second. The counsel reiterated that the term ‘fire’ in the fire policy was not qualified by the word ‘sustained’ and the Appellate Court should bear in mind the basic proposition of law that a court should not add words to the statute or to a document and the policy must be read as it was. The counsel, therefore, stated that the insurance company’s argument that there was no ‘sustained’ fire in this case and hence the claims were not admissible was basically incorrect and wrong.

The Court after hearing both the parties agreed to the argument that what was to be decided in this case, whether the loss to the property was caused by ‘fire’ and not ‘sustained’ fire. It had been clearly established in the case and also supported by the reports of the two surveyors that there was a flashover in this case resulting in a fire of whatever limited time that had caused the blackening of the switch-board and the consequent loss to the boiler and other equipments. Had the fire not occurred, the damage would not have occurred and that there was no intervening agency that was an independent source of the damage to the plant.

The Court also referred to the decision in General Assurance Society Ltd. v. Chandmull Jain and another [AIR 1966 SC 1644] where it was laid down by the Constitution Bench that in case of ambiguity in a contract of insurance, the ambiguity should be resolved in favour of the insured and against the insurance company.
The insurer had not questioned the quantification of losses by the surveyors. The Court, therefore, felt that the claims under the two policies were allowable in favour of Kishore and consequently dismissed the insurance company’s appeal.

On the basis of the above facts and information, answer the following questions:
(a) Is the insurance company justified in rejecting the claim? What are your views on Kishore’s claims?
(b) Define ‘fire’ and how do you recognise the existence of fire. Relate your answer with the facts of the above case.
(c) What is ‘proximate cause’ and its relevance? Determine the proximate cause in the above case.
(d) In case of ambiguity in a contract of insurance, it should be resolved in favour of the insured. Discuss the relevant provisions and their applicability to the above case.
(e) Define ‘fire insurance’ and explain the risks covered and exclusions under a standard fire and special perils policy.
(f) Is it compulsory for a loss to be surveyed by a person? Who can conduct such a survey and what are the duties of such a surveyor?
Answer:
(a) In the given case, on perusing the facts it is very clearly seen that the insurance company was not justified in refusing to pay the claims, because the reasons for the loss was very much covered by the terms and conditions of the policy.

In another way, the claim made by Kishore was genuine and had to pay.
As seen from the case details, the loss was caused due to short circuit circulating which resulted in a flash over.
The cause of loss to the boiler and equipment was due to the fire. Short circuit circulating resulted in a flash over. Due to this flash over and over currents, excessive heat energy was generated which resulted in the evolution of marginal fire.

The surveyors observed in their reports that a flash over took place.
Fire of an extremely short duration followed short circuit.
Due to this flash over and over currents, excessive heat energy was generated which resulted in the evolution of marginal fire.

As fire was the proximate cause of the loss, the claim was genuine and stand taken by insurance company was not tenable.
Note: One of the basic principles of insurance is Principle of Causa Proxima. Principle of Causa Proxima, or in simple English words, the Principle of Proximate (i.e. Nearest) Cause, means when a loss is caused by more than one causes, the proximate or the nearest cause should be taken into consideration to decide the liability of the insurer.

(b)The meaning of ‘Fire’ is Ignition under accidental circumstances. Essentials of proof of a fire include firstly there should be an actual ignition of the property which ought not to have been on fire, under accidental circumstances.

Generally, Fire Insurance Policies are designed to provide protection against material loss or damage, by fire and other specified perils.
Fire or combustion is result of normally fuel, oxygen initial source of heat. In the above case, the loss was evidently caused by “Flashover, which can be defined as a phenomenon of a developing fire radiant energy at wall and ceiling surfaces within a compartment. In the above case, the paint had been burnt due to the said flashover. Such high energy levels, would undoubtedly, have resulted in a fire,
causing melting of the panel board.” Therefore, the loss was evidently caused by fire.

(c) Nearest Cause can be defined as a cause which is not the cause that is nearest in time or place but the active and effective cause that sets in motion a chain of events which brings about the ultimate result without the intervention of any other force working from an independent source.

Notwithstanding, the question always is: Is the unbroken connection between the wrongful act and the injury, a continuous operation? In another way, did the facts constitute a continuous succession of events, so linked together as to make a natural whole, or there was some new and independent cause intervening between the wrong and the injury.

In the given case, if the nearest cause of the loss or destruction, including other machines, apparatus, fixtures, fittings etc, or part of the electrical installation is due to fire which started in an electrical machine or apparatus, all such losses is covered by the policy. The question is to test whether a flashover and fire was the proximate cause of the damage.

To realise this it is necessary to understand the sequence of events, which is as follows:

  • Short-circuit takes place in the main switchboard receiving electricity from the State Electricity Board possibly due to the entry of a Vermin.
  • Short-circuit results in a flashover.
  • Short-circuit and flashover produced over-currents, which in turn produced enormous heat.
  • The over currents and the heat produced resulted in the expansion and ionization of the surrounding air. The electricity supply from the State Electricity Board got tripped.
  • The paint of the Panel Board was charred by the enormous heat produced and the MS partition of the adjoining feeder connected to the generator power developed a hole.
  • It resulted in formation of smoke/soot and the ionized air crossed over the MS partition and entered into the compartment receiving
    electricity from the generator. Consequently the generator power supply also got tripped.
  • The tripling of purchased power and generator power resulted in stoppage of water/steam in the waste heat boiler.
  • The flue gases at high temperature continued to enter the boiler, which resulted in thermal shock causing damage to the boiler tubes.

In this connection, it may be noted that in their written submission before the National Commission the company has admitted that there was a flashover and fire. Therefore, fire is the nearest cause of loss.

(d) “Adhesion” is a silent feature of insurance contract. In a contract of adhesion, one party draws up the contract in its entirety and presents it to the other party on a ‘take it or leave it’ basis; the receiving party does not have the option of negotiating, revising, or deleting any part or provision of the document.

Insurance contracts are of this type, because the insurer writes the contract and the insured either ‘adheres’ to it or is denied coverage.

In a Court of law, when legal determinations must be made because of ambiguity in a contract of adhesion, the Court will render its interpretation against the party that wrote the contract.
Typically, the Court will grant any reasonable expectation on the part of the insured (or his or her beneficiaries) arising from an insurer- prepared contract.

In the given statement, refers to the interpretation of the policy conditions and provisions. As a matter of fact, in a policy, the wordings are very technical and not easy to understand.
Hence, law and guidelines very specifically emphasize using simple, understandable and clear language so that there is no confusion in understanding of the conditions by either party to the contract.

In the above case, there was a dispute with regards to the cause of loss. While the insured claimed that cause of loss is a covered cause of loss and hence the claim was not tenable. The surveyors accepted in their report that the cause of loss was not a sustained fire, but a possible fire after the flash over being of a very short duration.

This means that they have also accepted the cause of loss to be fire but for a short duration. As the fire insurance policy conditions cover fire and as there was no mention of a sustained fire in the policy wording, the insurance company cannot change the statutory definition and therefore, as per law, and as per the doctrine of contra proferentum, the law provides that in any condition, in case there is any ambiguity in the policy, in a contract of insurance, the ambiguity should be resolved in favour of the claimant and against the insurance company. Hence in the present case, the repudiation of the company was not justified and hence, the claim is payable and the dismissal of the case was also justified.

(e) Section 2 of the Indian Insurance Act, 1938, “Fire Insurance Business” is defined as ‘the business of effecting, otherwise than incidentally to some other class of insurance business, contracts of insurance against loss by or incidental to fire or other occurrence customarily included among the risks insured in fire insurance policies.

A Standard fire and Special perils policy covers the following 12 different types of risks covered such as:

  • Fire
  • Lighting
  • Explosion/Implosion
  • Aircraft damage
  • Riot
  • Strike
  • Malicious and Terrorism Damage (MTD)
  • Storm
  • Cyclone
  • Typhoon
  • Tempest
  • Hurricane
  • Tornado
  • Flood and Inundation ,
  • Impact damage by rail/road/vehicle or animal
  • Subsidence and landslide (including rockslide) Bursting and/or overflowing of water tanks
  • Apparatus and pipes
  • Missile testing operations
  • Leakage from automatic sprinkler installations
  • Bush fire etc.

The exclusions under a fire policy are given below:
1. Loss of or damage to any electrical machine, apparatus, fixture or fitting (including electric fans, electric household or domestic appliances, wireless sets, televisions sets and radios) or to any portion of the electrical installation, arising from or occasioned by over running, excessive pressure short circuit, arcing self-heating or leakage of electricity from whatever cause (lightning included), provided that this exemption shall apply to the particular electrical machine apparatus, fixtures, fittings or portion of the electrical installation so affected and not to other machines, apparatus, fixture, fittings or portion of the electrical installation which may be destroyed or damaged by fire so set up.’

2. A perusal of the exclusion clause shows that the main part of the exclusion clause which protects the insurer from liability under the policy, covers loss of damage to any electrical machinery, apparatus, fixture or fittings including wireless sets, television sets, radio and so on which themselves are a total loss or a damage or damaged due to short circulating, arcing, self-heating or leakage of electricity. However, the proviso to the said clause through inclusion of any other machinery, apparatus, fixture or fitting being destroyed or damaged by fire which has affected any other appliances such as television sets, radio, etc, or electrical machines or apparatus are clearly included within scope of the fire policy for whatever damage or destruction caused by the fire.

If for example the short circulating results in damage to a television set through fire created by the short circuiting in it, the claim for it is excluded under the fire policy. However, if from the same fire there is a damage, to the rest of the house or other appliances, the same is included within the scope of the fire policy by virtue of the proviso.

(f) No. It is not compulsory for an insurer to appoint a surveyor for each and every loss reported by a policy of general insurance.

  • Only where the estimated loss exceeds ? 20,000, the insurers are mandated to appoint a licensed surveyor to assess and settle the loss. [Section 64UM (2) of the Insurance Act].
  • Each person who is an individual and intending to act as a surveyor and loss assessor in respect of general insurance business shall apply to the Authority for grant of license in FORM-IRDA-I-AF as given in the Schedule to these regulations.
  • The Authority shall, before granting license, take into consideration all matters relating to the duties, responsibilities and functions of surveyor and loss assessor and satisfy itself that the applicant is a fit and proper person to be granted a license.

In special and without prejudice to the foregoing, the Authority shall satisfy itself that the applicant, in addition to submitting the application complete in all respects:

  • satisfies all the applicable requirements of Section 64UM read with Section 42D of the Act and rule 56A of the Insurance Rules,1939;
  • possesses such additional technical qualifications as may be specified by the Authority from time to time;
  • has furnished evidence of payment of fees for grant of license, depending upon the categorization;
    has undergone a period of practical training, not exceeding 12 months, as contained in Chapter VII of these regulation; and
  • furnishes such additional information as may be required by the Authority from time to time.

The Authority on being satisfied that the applicant is eligible for grant of license, shall grant the same in FORM-IRDA-2-LF as given in the Schedule to these regulations and send an intimation to the applicant together with an identity card mentioning the special class or category of general insurance business namely, fire, marine cargo, marine hull, engineering, motor, miscellaneous and loss of profit for which the Authority has granted license and the license shall remain valid for a period of five years from the date of issue thereof, unless cancelled earlier.

Some of the Obligation/Duties/Responsibilities of a Surveyor are given below:

  • declaring whether he has any interest in the subject-matter in question or whether it pertains to any of his relatives, business partners or through material shareholding;
  • maintaining confidentiality and neutrality without jeopardizing the liability of the insurer and claim of the insured;
  • conducting inspection and re-inspection of the property in question suffering a loss;
  • examining, inquiring, investigating, verifying and checking upon the causes and the circumstances of the loss in question including extent of loss, nature of ownership and insurable interest;
  • conducting spot and final surveys, as and when necessary and comment upon franchise, excess/under insurance and any other related matter;
  • estimating, measuring and determining the quantum and description of the subject under loss;
  • advising the insurer and the insured about loss minimization, loss control, security and safety measures, wherever appropriate, to avoid further losses;
  • commenting on the admissibility of the loss as also observance of warranty conditions under the policy contract;
  • surveying and assessing the loss on behalf of insurer or insured;
  • assessing liability under the contract of insurance;
  • pointing out discrepancy, if any, in the policy wordings;
  • satisfying queries of the insured/insurer and of persons connected there to in respect of the claim/loss;
  • recommending applicability of depreciation and the percentage and quantum of depreciation;
  • giving reasons for repudiation of claim, in case the claim is not covered by policy terms and conditions;
  • taking expert opinion, wherever required;
  • commenting on salvage and its disposal wherever necessary.

Note: The appointed surveyor shall submit his report within 30 days of his appointment. In exceptional cases, the surveyor may seek extension of time up to 6 months from the insurer, under intimation to the insured. If the report is incomplete, the insurer may seek additional report within 15 days of submission of the report by the Surveyor. Such an additional, report must be submitted within 3 weeks of request having been made. The main role of the surveyor is to assess the loss and its quantum and not to settle the claim.

Question 12.
A is an individual and owns extensive properties. He has insured them against comprehensive risks with a general insurer. One property X was insured for a sum of ₹ 8,00,000 against fire and incidental risks. The property was lost to a fire accident and A made a claim against the insurance company. After getting a report from a surveyor, the insurer rejected the claim stating that there had been some breaches in warranties. A comes to you for advice as to how to proceed further. What course of action will you suggest to A to enable him to prove the claim against the insurer?
Answer:
There are different forums open for an insured to consider his claim. For an insured to proceed with his claim in an outside forum, he has to exhaust internal procedure. He must make an representation to the insured’s own grievance settlement mechanism that has been made obligatory for the insurer to establish and when the insured is not satisfied with the progress of the claim refer to forum or the forum must result, he has option to proceed further.

The option open to him are civil courts and the common protection agencies are easiest method that has been prescribed by the IRDAI to conform to the Redressal of Public Grievances Rules, 1998 and approach the Insurance ombudsman. The ombudsman can step in cases where there is a partial or total representation of a claim by the insurer. Hence, this procedure will be available to A.

The dimensions of the ombudsman scheme make it very plain to an insured to adopt as an easy facility. The complaint with the ombudsman must be filed within one year from the date of rejection by the insurer or a first seller from the insurance company on the insured’s representation.

There is a two-stage procedure followed by the ombudsman-viz an initial recommendation and then being not found acceptable or final award. Ombudsman’s recommendation comes within a month of the date of receipt of the complaint by him and is after hearing both insured and insurer of the recommendation made by the ombudsman were to be acceptable to the parties, they could go ahead and, settle the claim with the insurance company with the recommendation not later than 15 days of the receipt from the ombudsman.

If the matter does not get settled at most stage the ombudsman shall after hearing the parties will pass an award in writing within three months of the receipt of the complaint and a copy of the award is sent to both the insurer and the insured. The award binds the insurance company but if the insured does not feel satisfied with the ombudsman’s decision , he can further go for legal remedies in courts etc.

One limiting factor of the ombudsman process is that the award can not exceeds ₹ 20.00 lacs and the matter should be non-commercial.
It has been seen that the ombudsman path is the cheapest and quickest settlement path for the resolution of the dispute in re-dispute claim.
In the present case, the cover granted was non-commercial the subject-matter insured was a property. The insurance cover was for ₹ 8.00 lacs.
In the circumstances, the advice for A will be file a complaint to the Insurance ombudsman after exhausting the approach to the internal dispute resolution of the insurance company.

Question 12.
United Industries insured its factory assets as detailed below with Star General Insurance Company for the values given below under a Standard Fire Insurance and Special Perils Policy.
The insurance was on market value (indemnity) basis.
Building ₹ 6,75,00,000
Machinery (Other than Boiler) ₹ 18,76,00,000
Boiler: ₹ 1,75,00,000

The boiler being subject to a loan agreement with National Bank was also insured by the bank under a separate Standard Fire and Special Perils Policy from Satellite Insurance Company for ₹ 2,75,00,000 which was the current replacement value of the boiler. This policy was also obtained on the market value basis only.

The policy deductible in respect of any one claim was ₹ 25,000/- under each of the two policies.
In a major fire accident the insured factory was heavily affected. All the three assets namely Building, Machinery and Boiler were heavily damaged.

The surveyor appointed by the Star General Insurance Company whose appointment was also concurred by the Satellite Insurance Company assessed the loss on indemnity basis as below after taking into account the applicable depreciation.
Building Repairs: ₹ 1,25,00,000
Machinery Repairs and replacements: ₹ 2,50,00,000
Boiler Repairs: ₹ 75,00,000

As assessed by the surveyor the market value as on the. date of loss of respective assets were as below:
Building: ₹ 9,00,00,000
Machinery other than boiler: ₹ 26,80,00,000
Boiler:₹ 2,75,00,000
Work out the recovery obtainable from each of the two insurers under their respective policies based on the assessment done by the surveyors as above.
Answer:
Claims recoverable under the Star General Insurance Company’s Policy
(i) Building:
If the declared sum insured is found to be less than the value of the property insured, then the claim amount is proportionately reduced. In building this condition is applied so the losses assessed by the surveyors are reduced.
Market value of the building as on the date of loss: ₹ 9,00,00,000/
Sum insured under the policy : ₹ 6,75,00,000/
Under Insurance : 9,00,00,000/(-) 6,75,00,000/ = 2,25,00,000/
2,25,00,000/ 9,0,00,000 x 100
= 25%
Building Repairs assessed by the surveyors = 1,25,00,000/
Net Claim before application of excess = 1,25,00,000 x 75%
= ₹ 93,75,000/

(ii) Machinery : Same above Condition is Applicable in Machinery also
Market value of machineries as on the date of loss: ₹ 26,80,00,000/
sum insured under the policy :₹ 18,76,00,000/
Under Insurance : ₹ 26,80,00,000 –
18,76,00,000
= 8,04,00,000
= 8,04,00,000
26,80,0,000 / 100
= 30%
Machinery repairs assessed by the surveyor = ₹ 2,50,00,000/
Net admissible daim befooe apphcation of excess = 2,50,0, 000 x 70% = ₹ 1,75,00,000/

(iii) Boiler:
Market value of the Boiler as on the date of loss : ₹ 2,75,00,000/
There is no under insurance in the case of boiler as the total sum insured under both the policies put together is more than the market value
Boiler repairs as assessed by the surveyors = ₹ 75,00,000/-
Net admissible claim for Boiler from Star General Insurance Company = 1,75,00,000/
45,00,000 × 75,00,000
= ₹ 29,16,667/-
Total claim recoverable from Star General = 93,75,000
+ 1,75,00,000
Insurance Company before applying excess + 29,16,1667/ = ₹ 2,97,91,667/-
Net claim form Star General Insurance Company = 2,97,91,667 – 25,000
after excess = ₹ 2,97,66,667/-
Claim recoverable under satellite Insurance Company’s Policy
Admissible claim before excess = 2,75,00,000/ 4,50,00,000 x 75,00,000 = ₹ 45,83,333
Excess = ₹ 25,000
Net Claim after excess = 45,83,333 – 25,000 = ₹ 45,58,333

Question 13.
ABC Co. Ltd. which operates a wholesale warehouse, had a fire on its premises on 30th April, 2016 which destroyed most of the building and stock worth of ₹ 10,160 was salvaged. The company has a Fire Insurance Policy (with suitable average clauses) covering the assets as under:
Assets Insured Insurance Cover (in ₹)
Stock 6,50,000
Building 9,00,000
Loss of Profits
Including standing charges of ₹ 2,50,000 with a six month period of indemnity. –
The Company’s last Profit & Loss Account (year ended 31st March, 2016) is given below:
Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2016
Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions 4

The company’s records show that the sales for April, 2016 had been at ₹ 1,50,000. Payments made to trade creditors in April, 2016 were ₹ 1,15,500 and the creditors increased by ₹ 4,500.

The company’s business was disrupted until the end of July, 2016 during which period the turnover fell by 12,20,000 compared with the same period in the previous year. It was agreed that 65% of the value of the building had been lost and at the time of fire it was worth ₹ 10,00,000.
Questions:
(i) Discuss the validity of ABC Company’s claim under a ‘Fire Insurance’ policy stating the loss coverage as per the policy provision. Can “Loss of Profit” also be insured?
(ii) What is the legal implication and provision relating to “Average clauses”? How will it affect ABC company claims? Calculate the liability of the Insurance Company for loss of stock, building and profits claims compensation payable to ABC Company.
(iii) Explain the process of claim settlement followed by General Insurance Companies and the documents required to be submitted by ABC Ltd. for its claims.
Answer:
(i) The company ABC Ltd. is entitled to a claim payment under its “fire Insurance” policy for the loss of stock, building and profits as the assets were destroyed due to a fire in its warehouse.
A fire insurance policy cover all losses caused due to unforseen or damage to property due to fire and other parts covered under the policy includes:

  • Dwelling
  • Office
  • Machinery, equipments accessories
  • Goods, Stock material, semi finished goods etc.

The fire insurance policy cover all losses caused due to :

  • Goods spoiled or property damaged by water used to extinguish the fire.
  • Pulling down of adjacent premises by the fire brigade in order to prevent the progress of flame.
  • Breakage of goods in the process of their removal from the building where fire is raging e.g. damage caused by throwing furniture out of window.
  • Wages paid to persons employed for extinguishing fire.

Loss of profit can also be covered on payment of extra premium as add-on paid along with a basic fire policy. It cannot be sold as stand alone basis separately as an independent policy.
The sum insured under Loss of Profits policy should represent the gross profit of the indemnity period selected.

The indemnity period is the maximum period required to put the business back into normal operation after damage to insured property by an insured peril. The indemnity period could vary from 6 months to 3 years.

For indemnity periods up to one year, the annual gross profit should be selected as sum insured.
For indemnity periods longer than one year, the Gross Profit (GP) should be proportionately increased. For example:

Indemnity Period Calculation of Sum Insured
1 year (12 months) Annual Gross Profit x 1
2 years (24 months) Annual Gross Profit x 2
2.5 years (30 months) Annual Gross Profit x 2.5
3 years (36 months) Annual Gross Profit x 3

For the purpose of Loss of Profit insurance, Gross Profit (GP) is ;
commonly understood to be the net Trading Profit plus Standing Charges (fixed charges). Usually, insurance companies will cover only those Standing Charges which have been specifically declared at the time of proposal.

(ii) The application of average clause is trigged at the time of a claim settlement if the Insurance Company observe that a property is underinsured. In other words, where the full value of a property is not insured it implies that, the full indemnity of the loss is not available, due to inadequacy of sum insured.

In the given case, ABC Co. Ltd. did not insured building at its full value. It has underinsured. While the building was valued at Z10 lacs on the date of loss the sum insured available was only Z9 lacs. Hence ABC Co. Ltd will compensate on this basis only.

The various loss claim under the policy are shown below:
Gross Profit % for last year
Gross Profit as per Profit & Loss (Net Profit+ Other Expenses+ Insured Standing Charges)
Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions 5
Gross Profit % for last year
Gross Profit % for last year = \(\frac{4,05,000 \times 100}{22,50,000}\) = 18%
Calculation of Purchases
Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions 6
Memorandum Trading Account for the period ended dated of tire
Fire and Consequential Loss Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions 7
Computation of Loss of Stock
Estimated Closing Stock as at the date of fire ₹ 6,42,000
Less Stock Salvaged ₹ 10,160
Loss of Stock ₹ 6,31,840
Loss of building
Value of Building ₹ 10,00,000
65% of the value of building ₹ 6,50,000

Since the insurance cover was less than the value of the asset average clause will apply
Claim of loss of Building = \(\frac{9,00,000 \times 6,50,000}{10,00,000}\) = ₹ 5,85, 000
Claim for Building loss = ₹ 5,85,000

Loss of Profit
Indemnity Period = 3 Months
Gross Profit Ratio for the year
Net Profit + Insured Standing Charges = \(\frac{2,35,000 \times 1,15,500}{22,50,000}\) = 15.57 %
Short Turnover = ₹ 2,20,000
Loss of Profit 2,20,000*15.57% = ₹ 34,254

(iii) General Insurance is basically an insurance policy that protects against losses and damages other than those covered by life insurance. The coverage for most general insurance policies is for one year. The risks covered by general insurance are:

  • Property loss, for example stolen car or burnt house.
  • Liability arising from damage caused by yourself or a third party.
  • Accidental death or injury. General Procedure for Claim Settlement: The general procedure for seeking claim settlement is same in most forms of General Insurance.

The procedure in detail is as explained below:

  • Intimation of submission of the claim by the insured: The insured would intimate the insurance company of the occurrence of a peril or risk which has caused loss or damage to the insured property.
  • Evaluation/Registration of Claims:

The insurer would briefly initiate process check.

  • Whether the policy has been issued by the insurer.
  • Whether the policy is in existence.
  • Whether the correct premium has been received by the insurer.
  • Whether the peril causing loss/damage is an insured peril.

If the insurer is not satisfied and the necessary elements of insurance are not present, it may repudiate the insurance claim and intimate the insured about the repudiation. In some cases, the insurer may ask for some other inputs about the insurance claim which he thinks necessary for processing the claim further.

If on receipt of the additional inputs, the insurer is not satisfied, he may repudiate the claim and intimate the insured about repudiating of the claim. Only after getting satisfied about the claim, the insurer initiates the next step for claim processing.

The insurer would immediately arrange for surveyor to be appointed who would look into the circumstances of the loss, assess the actual loss suffered in money terms and that which can be indemnified in terms of the contract, advise the insurer regarding compliance of the various terms conditions and warranties under the contract etc.

The loss assessor has also to advise the client on various aspects of loss mitigation, limitation and salvage. Loss investigation including forensic investigation and analysis may also come under the purview of a professional investigator. Acid tests applied by the surveyor of the various principles – insurable interest, utmost good faith, proximate cause and of course contribution, help in deciding ultimately, whether a claim is payable and the amount to be paid.

If the claim is not paid within the same financial year in which it occurred then the surveyor’s assessment would enable the adequate provisioning for the claim in its financials.

(c) Settlement of Claims: The insurer would ensure claims are settled on receipt of the final report from the surveyor, generally within the Turnaround time (TAT) by various regulations and committed by the insurance company.

(d) Recovery: The next step for the insurance company, in certain cases, is initiating process for recovery from the third person who is party in the loss e.g. in marine cargo transit claims- recovery proceedings as per applicable statutes are initiated against carriers.

In motor third party liability claims -awards are settled with victims of any motor accident and action initiated against the vehicles for recovery.

The various documents necessary for subtracting the claim under Fire Insurance policy by ABC Co. Ltd. include:

  • Copy of the original fire insurance policy.
  • FIR Copy.
  • Photographs of the loss/ fire accidents.
  • Accounts reports, ledgers to show the loss of profit.
  • Past year final accounts statement.
  • Surveyors initial report.
  • Claim notice copy.

Question 14.
ABC Ltd. is a Public Limited Company, engaged in the business of exports of rice. It uses godowns of the Port Authorities for storage of the rice stocks meant for exports. The company has taken a Fire Insurance Policy cover from XYZ Insurance Ltd. which is a Public Sector Company. Satish who is a Development Officer with the Insurance Company has been assigned the account of ABC Ltd. to service and cater to all its requirements of service. The policy is effective from July of one year to June of the subsequent year.

On 21st and 22nd July 2015, there were heavy rains with cyclonic storms, due to which the Port Authority’s Godowns were severely flooded. On ceasing of the rains on 26th July 2015, ABC Co. Ltd. found that most of the bags stored in the Ports Godowns had been washed away. Except for some clusters of rice here and there, all the stocks had been damaged and destroyed by the rain. The Company lodged a claim with the Insurance Company, asking for compensation under the Fire Insurance Policy.

The Insurance Company while examining the claim, observed that:

  • The policy was due for renewal on 1 st July 2015 and the Insurance Co. had already sent a notice for payment of renewal premium to ABC Limited.
  • ABC Ltd. had handed over a cheque for the premium as per the premium notice received from XYZ Insurance Ltd.
  • The cheque was given to Satish, Development Officer on 27th June, 2015. The receipt of the cheque was duly acknowledged by Satish who had also issued a Cover Note for the period from 1st July, 2015 to 30th June, 2016.
  • Satish however went on an official trip and deposited the cheque with his company branch on 16th July 2015 after returning from his official trip.
  • The accounts department deposited the cheque with the bank of the Insurance Company on 21st July 2015 which was credited to the XYZ Ltd. account on 25th July 2015.
  • The Insurance Company however did not issue the regular policy till the event of the loss.
  • ABC Ltd. was insured with XYZ Insurance Ltd. since the inception of its business 12 years back and no claims had been made so far by the Company.

On receipt of claim from ABC Ltd. the Insurance Company analysed the claim papers and sent a reply to ABC Ltd. repudiating the claim on the following grounds that:

  • ABC Ltd. Co. was not covered on the date of loss, as no premium was paid for the cover.
  • The premium was received by XYZ Insurance Co.’s accounts department on 25th July 2015 after the loss had occurred and hence no insurance policy can be granted.
  • Loss due to floods is not covered under Fire Insurance Policy.
  • XYZ Insurance Co. was not bound by the Cover Note issued by Satish, Development Officer.

ABC Ltd. Co., on receipt of reply from XYZ Insurance Ltd. has approached you as an Insurance Expert to advice them for resolution of the dispute. They have also appraised you with the following additional facts about the case :

  • Goods stored in the Godowns included 22000 tons of Rice acquired at a cost of ₹ 200 crores. The quantum of stocks was supported by the stock registers of the Port Authorities, which is also a Third Party record for confirmation.
  • The stocks in the godown were covered by a Fire Insurance Policy of X 250 crores.
  • The stocks were pledged to a Nationalized bank for a loan of ₹ 75 crores. The outstanding amount on the date of fire was ₹ 60 crores The Bank has also sent a claim to the Insurance Co. to pay the claim amount directly to the bank as the name of the bank was also endorsed on the earlier policies.
  • The District Collector of the area appointed by the State Government, as Relief Commissioner had also certified that the goods in the godown were lost in the floods and there was no salvage.
    Based on the above facts of the case, as an Insurance Expert, kindly advice

ABC Ltd. Co. on the following issues :
(a) Validity of the Fire Insurance Policy on the day of the accident?
(b) Tenability of the claim of Banker and ABC Ltd. for flood loss under Fire Policy.
(c) Claims settlement process as laid down by the Insurance Act, 1938.
(d) Liability of XYZ Co. Ltd. under the provisions of the Fire Insurance Policy.
(e) Role of IRDAI and Insurance Ombudsman in dispute resolution and settlement in the light of the given case.
Answer:
(a) The Fire insurance policy was very much valid and in force on the date of the accident. It is to be borne in mind that ABC Ltd. has been taking the policy, with XYZ Insurance Ltd. since inception of the business, almost 12 years back, which is quite long. The company had a fire cover without break for so many years. The company obviously was a reputed exporter and has extensively used the port facility for storage and dispatch etc.

These facilities are run by independent statutory bodies and thus can be trusted with the facts. The period for cover was to start on 1st July 2015. A premium notice based on the existing policy coverage, terms and conditions was issued by the insurance company before the expiry of the existing policy and ABC Ltd. had issued the renewal premium cheque and handed over the same to the Development Officer, an employee of the insurer and noting at its records.

Development Officer (DO) is the employee of the Insurance company and hence an authorised representative. He had received the cheque on 27th June 2015 before the expiry of the current policy and also had acknowledged it by issuing Cover Note pending issue of the policy document. The PO is an official to issue Cover Note and in fact it is part of his assigned duties to issue one.

Moreover, it is in clear position in law that a Cover-Note is a valid document that brings into existence the relationship of insurer and insured between the parties and has validity for 60 days by when the normal formalities of issue of a policy could be completed. Secondly, the cover is not a new one but is only a renewal of the existing policy on the same terms as agreed to between the parties earlier. Thus, it is clear that there exists a contract between the Parties, a valid Insurance Contract between the two parties on the subject matter of cover.

Thirdly, the provisions of section 64VB of the Insurance Act, 1938 clearly stipulate the payment of premium in advance before commencement of the cover. Facts indicate that the amount of premium was collected by the DO of the Insurance Company on 27th June 2015 which is prior to the commencement of the next year’s risk cover.

The insurer lodged the cheque for collection on receiving it from the DO Satish and the banker credited the insured account only on 25th July 2015 due to intervening Government and bank holidays. However, it shall be noted here that once the premium is received by the Insurance Company, the risk is deemed to have been commenced and it is immaterial when they deposited the premium cheque in their accounts.

One other point to be noticed is that the cheque was honoured on presentation and that there was no indication that the customer had no balance in his account, the cheque was liable to be dishonoured on presentation etc. Issue of a cheque and its collection were a part Of normal commercial activities. Thus it has to be concluded that the payment of the premium has been made by ABC Ltd. in the normal course and section 64VB’s requirement has been complied with in all aspects. Thus all the pre-requisites evidencing the existence of a fire policy is satisfied and therefore, as on the date of the accident a valid insurance cover existed in favour of insured ABC Ltd.

(b) The claim of the insured ABC Ltd for loss of rice bags due to floods under a fire policy is valid and tenable. It is seen that the cover that existed was a Standard Fire insurance Policy. This policy generally covers losses arising out of fire and special allied perils such as storms, floods, typhoons, earthquakes, inundation, lightning, strikes, and landslides. In the case of Standard Fire Policy with Special Perils covered, the risks of Storm, Cyclone, Flood, inundation and Earthquake risks are covered on payment of applicable additional premium.

In the present case, the cause for loss is damage due to storms, flooding and consequent inundation, it is noticed that such a risk is covered under the standard fire policy, subject to other conditions being satisfied, the insurer is liable for the losses. A standard fire policy usually does not cover losses on account of damages caused by war and warlike operations, nuclear perils, pollution or contamination, electrical or mechanical breakdowns, burglary and housebreaking.

Secondly, in the given case the claim of the Banker who had advanced loan to ABC Limited against the stocks which were lying in the godowns of the port authorities is also valid and tenable. The total loan advance by the bank was ₹ 75 crores and the amount outstanding on the date of loss was ₹ 60 cores. This makes the bank as a Party with an insurable interest which will permit it to raise with the insured the question of the settlement of the claims. It will be within the rights of the bank to have the claim amount, to the extent of amount of the loan outstanding, to be released to it.

(c) The general procedure for seeking claim settlement is same in most forms of General Insurance.
Step 1 – Intimation/Submission of the Claim by the Insured The insured would intimate the insurance company of the occurrence of a peril or risk which has caused loss of or damage to the insured property.

Step 2 – Evaluation/Registration of Claim
The insurer would briefly initiate process check –

  • Whether the policy has been issued by the insurer
  • Whether the policy is in existence
  • Whether correct premium has been received by the insurer
  • Whether the peril causing loss/damage is an insured peril

If the insurer is not satisfied and the necessary elements of insurance
are not present, it may repudiate the insurance claim and intimate the insurer about the repudiation. In some cases, the insurer may ask for some other inputs about the insurance claim which he thinks necessary for processing the claim further. If on receipt of the additional input, the insurer is not satisfied, he may repudiate the claim and intimate the , insured about the repudiation of claim. Only after getting satisfied about the claim, the insurer initiates the next step for claim processing.

Step 3 – Appointment of surveyor/loss assessor/investigator etc.
The insurer would immediately arrange for surveyor to be appointed who would look into the circumstances of the loss, assess the actual loss suffered in monetary terms and that which can be indemnified in terms of the contract, advise the insurer regarding compliance of the various terms conditions and warranties under the contract etc.

The loss assessor has also to advise the client on various aspects of loss mitigation, limitation and salvage. Loss investigation including forensic investigation and analysis may also come under the purview of a professional investigator.

Acid tests applied by the surveyor of the various principles insurable interest, utmost good faith, proximate cause and of course contribution, help in deciding ultimately, if a claim is payable as well as quantum payable.
Submission of the claim form: The insured must fill all possible details in the claim form. He must lodge the claim form within 15 days of the fire to claim compensation. Delay in submission of claim from may result in non-acceptance of the claim.

Evidence of Claim: Along with the claim form, the insured must send certain proof of fire and other records, if available and if required. The evidence should enable the insurance company to determine the amount of loss.

Verification of Form: The claim form along with the supporting evidence is verified by the insurance company. The insurance company then appoints the surveyors to conduct an assessment of the actual loss.

Survey: After the receipt of the form, and necessary verification, the insurance company appoints the surveyors to assess the actual loss. The surveyors conduct the necessary investigations. They investigate into the cause of fire, the actual amount of property lost and other relevant details. The surveyors then make the report of their findings and assessment of the loss.

Appointment of the Arbitrator: There may be a dispute regarding the amount of claim. In such a case, an arbitrator is appointed, acceptable to both the parties, to settle the amount of the loss.
Settlement of Claims: If there is no dispute between the two parties, as to the amount of loss, the insurance company then makes necessary payment to the insured.

(d) Yes, insurers are liable for the loss as per the terms and conditions of the Policy because two important conditions have been fulfilled. Firstly, there exists the policy coverage. Secondly, the policy is valid as on the date of loss. Thirdly, the loss occurred due to a peril covered under the policy issued. With the client /policyholder complying with all the required formalities, the insurer is liable for the loss.

The client has also informed the insurer of the accident immediately after it knew of its occurrence. Therefore it has to be concluded that there existed a policy, on the date of the event in terms of which a claim has to be settled. It has to be assessed and the amount of compensation has to be determined.

To assess the damage, the insurer has to appoint a surveyor who has to finalise his assessment to the insurer based on the documents submitted and facts of the case and this assessment will form the basis for settlement. In the present case, the loss has been established independently in that stocks those were in the garden 22,000 tons of rice had been verified by the stock record maintained by the Port Trust which is an independent statutory authority. Its certificate can be accepted prima facia.

In addition, physical examination of the godown established the fact that the entire stock at godown had been either damaged or washed away due to the force of the storm coupled with heavy rain and there was no salvage at the godown. The district collector who was the Relief commissioner had confirmed about the total loss of the stock. It is thus crystal clear that the entire stock had been lost.

Hence, this is a claim for total loss and accordingly, the total cost of the stock is payable. The cost of acquisition of total stocks as reported by ABC Limited was ₹ 200 crores which is payable subject to report from the surveyor and final assessment by the authorities of the insurance company. This also includes the amount payable to the bank.

(e) IRDAI is the Regulatory Authority for insurance business in India. The Act that established it has defined its powers under section 14 and apart from other duties outlined in the section, the following is clearly indicated “to protect the interests of the policyholder with regard to settlement of claims and other terms and conditions”. This specific object of the IRDAI has to be invoked by ABC Limited to support its claims for IRDAI’s intervention in regard to this matter if the insurer does not act fairly and reasonably in the matter.

The fact outlined in the question clearly established on liability of insurance company towards ABC Limited – claims whether there existed a policy. Whether the perils covered flood losses etc. – and it will, therefore, be very appropriate for ABC Limited to approach IRDAI seeking its intervention. Whilst IRDAI may intervene in this case and issue a direction to the insurance company.

Past records establish the fact in an identical case, where a client has approached IRDAI for its intervention when its long period of negotiation with a public sector insurance company did not result in any solution. After examining all the factors IRDAI decided to intervene and passed an order directing the insurer to pay the claim.

The insurer not satisfied with the IRDAI’s direction took the matter in appeal to the court which clearly indicated that IRDAI had all the necessary the powers and in fact an obligation to intervene on behalf of the insured. That step will not only be necessary to protect the interest of a policyholder but represented wholly and truly authority, obligation to control, nurture and develop the insurance industry.

An insured can approach an Ombudsman with his case for settlement when the insurance company refuses to accept the claim or intends to settle it at a lower value than expected by the insured.

The only drawback to this facility is that commercial claims of more than ₹ 20 lakh cannot be referred to Ombudsman. In this case, ABC Limited cannot go to the Ombudsman to settle the claim since loss amount is above the limit. Alternative available is to move the Consumer Courts where no such limit of loss is fixed.

An Ombudsman shall be selected from amongst persons having experience of the insurance industry civil servant from administrative service or judicial service. An insurance Ombudsmen is appointed for a term of 3 years. However, no person can continue as Insurance Ombudsman after he/she has attained 65 years of age (Proceedings before the Ombudsmen).

The Ombudsman may, if he deems fit, allow the complainant to adopt a procedure other than under sub-rule (1) or sub-rule (2) of rule I4 of Insurance Ombudsman Rules, 2017 for making a complaint, after notifying the parties to the dispute.

Recommendations made by the Insurance Ombudsman:
Where a complaint is settled through mediation, the Ombudsman shall make a recommendation which it thinks fair in the circumstances of the case, within one month of the date of receipt of written consent on mutual basis for such mediation and the copies of the recommendation shall be sent to the complainant and the insurer concerned. If the recommendation of the Ombudsman is acceptable to the complainant, he shall send a communication in writing within fifteen days of receipt of the recommendation, stating clearly that he accepts the settlement as full and final.

The Ombudsman shall send to the insurer, a copy of its recommendation, along with the acceptance letter received from the complainant and the insurer shall, thereupon, comply with the terms of the recommendation immediately but not later than fifteen days of the receipt of such recommendation, and inform the Ombudsman accordingly.

Awards by Ombudsmen:
Where the complaint is not settled by way of mediation under rule 16 of Insurance Ombudsman Rules, 2017, the Ombudsman shall pass an Award, based on the pleadings and evidence brought on record. The Award shall be in writing and shall state the reasons upon which the award is based.

Where the Award is in favour of the complainant, it shall state the amount of compensation granted to the complainant after deducting the amount already paid, if any, from the award. However, the Ombudsman shall not award any compensation in excess of the loss suffered by the complainant as a direct consequence of the cause of action or shall not award compensation exceeding ₹ 30 lakhs (including relevant expenses, if any).

The Ombudsman shall finalize its findings and pass an award within a period of 3 months of the receipt of all requirements from the complainant. A copy of the award shall be sent to the complainant and the insurer named in the complaint. The insurer shall comply with the award within 30 days of the receipt of the award and intimate compliance of the same to the Ombudsman.

The complainant shall be entitled to such interest at a rate per annum as specified in the regulations, framed under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India Act, 1999, from the date the claim ought to have been settled under the regulations, till the date of payment of the amount awarded by the Ombudsman. The award of Insurance Ombudsman shall be binding on the insurers.

Question 15.
Textiles Pvt. Ltd. Co. availed a Standard Fire and Special Perils Insurance Policy as per the standard format for factory building and machinery and also for stocks as given below. Insurance coverage for the building and machinery was on reinstatement value basis:

Assets
Building 2,80,00,000
Machinery 7,20,00,000
Stocks 5,62,50,000

An accidental fire occurred on a Sunday night when the factory was not in operation. The factory, building, some machinery and stocks stored in the process block were damaged. As per the Appointed Surveyor’s Risk Inspection Report, the reinstatement value of the entire building and machinery, value of stocks immediately prior to accident was as below:

Assets
Building 4,00,00,000
Machinery 9,00,00,000
Stocks 5,62,50,000

The Surveyor’s assessment of loss of different assets before application of underinsurance was as given below:
Assets ₹
Building (on the basis of actual repairs and replacement) 1.23,75,000
Machinery
Totally destroyed machinery

  • On reinstatement value basis 2.81.25.000
  • On depreciated value basis 1,57.50,000

Repairs to partially damaged machinery on actual 50,62,500
Stocks 27,00,000
Salvage Value NIL

  • While the damaged building was completely repaired the insured did not reinstate the totally destroyed machinery for some business reasons. Based on the given facts, answer the following questions:
    (a) Define.Fire and discuss the scope of coverage and exclusions under a Standard Fire and Special Perils Policy.

(b) Interpret and explain the following clauses as applicable in a FIP:

  • Reinstatement clause
  • Average clause
  • Coinsurance clause
  • Over insurance clause
  • Salvage clause

(c) Calculate the amount of underinsurance in case of building and machinery and work out the total claims amount payable by the Insurance Company under the FIP.

Question 16.
What is fire insurance? What are the exigencies, which fire insurance generally, covers?
Answer:
Fire Insurance:
The most popular property insurance is the standard fire insurance policy. The fire insurance policy offers protection against any unforeseen loss or damage to/destruction of property due to fire or other perils covered under the policy.

The different types of property that could be covered under a tire insurance policy are dwellings, offices, shops, hospitals, places of worship and their contents industrial/manufacturing risks and contents such as machinery, plants, equipment and accessories; goods Including raw material, material in process, semi-finished goods, finished goods, packing materials etc in factories, godowns and in the open; utilities located outside industrial manufacturing risks; storage risks outside the compound of industrial risks; tank farms/gas holders located outside the compound of industrial risks etc.

What a Fire Policy Covers:
Though it is called ‘Fire Insurance’, apart from the risk of fire, it also otters cover against lightning, explosion/implosion, aircraft damage, riot, strike and malicious damage, storm, cyclone, typhoon, hurricane, flood and inundation, impact damage, subsidence and landslide including rockslide, bursting and/or overflowing of water tanks, apparatus and pipes, missile testing operations, accidental leakage from automatic sprinkler installations, bush fire etc.

What a Fire Policy Excludes:
A tire insurance policy usually does not cover a certain amount known as ‘excess under the policy. Loss or damage caused by war and warlike operations, nuclear perils, pollution or Contamination, electrical/mechanical breakdown, burglary and housebreaking are excluded. Certain perils like earthquakes, spontaneous combustion etc can be covered on payment of additional premium. Fire insurance policies are issued for one year except for dwellings, where a policy may be issued for long term (with a minimum period of three years).

CS Professional Insurance Law and Practice Notes

Competition Law – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Competition Law – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Question 1.
(i) An arrangement has been made among the Cotton producers that the cotton produced by them will not be sold to mills below a certain price. The arrangement was in writing but it was not intended to be enforced by legal proceeding. Examine whether the above arrangement can be considered as an agreement within the meaning of Sec. 2(b) of the Competition Act 2002.

(ii) The Central Government has formed the opinion that Mr. CBM (A member of the competition commission of India) has abused his position which may be prejudicial to public interest as a member of the commission. Examine the powers of the Central Government in this regard.
Answer:
Provision;
As per Sec. 2(b) of the Competition Act, 2002, ‘agreement’ includes any arrangement or understanding or action in concert

  • whether or not, such arrangement, understanding or action is formal or in writing; or
  • whether or not such arrangement, understanding or action is intended to be enforceable by legal proceedings.

Present Case :
In the given case, the understanding reached among the manufacturers of cotton to control the price of cotton shall amount to an ‘agreement’ as defined u/s Sec. 2(b) although such an understanding is in writing but not intended to be enforced by legal proceedings.

(ii) Provision:
Sec. 11 (2) of the Competition Act, 2002, empowers the CG to remove the chairperson or any member of the CCI in certain cases. One of the ground mentioned in Sec. 11 (2) is ‘where he has so abused his position as to render his continuance in office prejudicial to the public interest as a member’. However the member may be removed only if, on a reference made by the CG, the Supreme Court has conducted an enquiry and reported that the member ought to be removed on such grounds.

Present Case:
Accordingly in the given case the CG has power to remove Mr. CBM.

However following procedure should be adopted :

  • The CG shall make a reference to Supreme Court.
  • The Supreme CcuT shall order to hold an enquiry.
  • The enquiry shall be held in accordance with the procedure prescribed by the Supreme Court.
  • The Supreme Court may then order for removal of the member.

Question 2.
(i) In a proceeding before the Competition Commission of India involving two Pharmaceutical companies, the plaintiff requested the presiding officer to call upon the services of experts from the pharmaceutical sector to determine the truth of the allegations levelled by it against the respondent. The respondent opposed the request on the ground that such action cannot be taken by the Competition Commission. You are required to state with reference to the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002, whether the contention of the respondent is tenable.

(ii) The Central Government has formed as opinion that Mr. CBM (a member of the Competition Commission of India) has acquired such financial interest that it may affect prejudicially his functions as a member of the Competition Commission and it wants to remove him from his office. You are required to state with reference to the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002, whether the Central Government can do so and if yes, how ?
Answer:
Provision:
Sec. 36 (3) of the Competition Act, 2002 empowers the Commission to call upon the experts from the fields of economics, commerce, accountant, international trade or from any other discipline to assist the Commission in the conduct of any inquiry before it. As per Regulation 54 of the Competition Commission General Regulations, 2004, made by the Commission u/s 14 of Competition Act, 2002, it may draw up a panel of such experts.

Present Case:
Therefore, in the given case, the contention of the respondent is not correct. The Commission has the power to call upon the services of experts from the pharmaceutical sector to determine the truth of the allegations levelled by the Plaintiff against the respondent.

(ii) Provision:
Please refer 2007 – Nov [2] {C} (c) (ii) on page no. 321 Present Case :

In the given case, the Central Government has the power to remove Mr. CBM. However, following procedure must be adopted for his removal:

  • The CG shall make a reference to Supreme Court.
  • The Supreme Court shall order to hold an enquiry.
  • The enquiry shall be held in accordance with the procedure prescribed by the Supreme Court.
  • The Supreme Court may then order for removal of the member.

Question 3.
Vasudha Foot wear Ltd. is of the view that XYZ Co. Ltd., is abusing its dominant position in the footwear industry. It wishes to lodge a compliant against XYZ Co. Ltd., before the Competition Commission. Briefly elucidate the factors which the commission will consider to ascertain whether XYZ Co. Ltd., is enjoying a dominant position in the footwear industry.
Answer:
Dominant position of an enterprise: The Competition Commission while inquiring whether the enterprise XYZ Company enjoys a dominant position or not under Section 4 of the Competition Act, 2002 will take the following factors into account:

  1. market share of the enterprise;
  2. size and resource of the enterprise;
  3. size and importance of the competitors;
  4. economic power of the enterprise including commercial advantages over competitors.
  5. Vertical integration of the enterprises or sale or service net work of such enterprises.
  6. Dependence of .consumers on the enterprises.
  7. Monopoly or dominant Dosition whether acquired as result of any statute or by virtue of being a Government company or a public sector undertaking or otherwise.
  8. Entry barriers including barriers such as regulatory barriers, financial risk, high capital cost of entty, marketing entry barriers, technical entry barriers, economies of scale, high cost of substitutable goods or services for consumers.
  9. Countervailing buying power.
  10. Market structure and size of market.
  11. Social obligations and size of market.
  12. Relative advantage, by way of contribution to the economic development, by the enterprise enjoying a dominant positive having or likely to have an appreciable adverse effect on competition.
  13. Any other factor which the commission may consider relevant for the inquiry.

Question 4.
Mr. Raj Behari retired as a Member of Competition Commission of India (CCI) on 31st October, 2008. He was offered the post of Chief Executive in M/s. LSD Ltd. which was earlier a party in the proceedings before CCI. Can he join the company with effect from 1st November, 2009?
What will be the position if Mr. Raj Behari joins Oil & Natural Gas Commission Ltd., a Government Company with effect from 1st April, 2009? ONGC was also earlier a party in the proceedings before CCI.
Answer:
Provision : According to Sec. 12, of the Competition Act, 2002 the Chairperson and other Members shall not, for a period of two years from the date on which they cease to hold office, accept any employment in or be connected with the management or administration of any enterprise which has been a party to a proceeding before the Commission under this Act.

However, nothing contained in this section shall apply to any employment under the Central Government or a State Government or local authority or in any statutory authority or any corporation established by or under any Central, State or Provincial Act or a Government Company as defined in Sec.2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Present case :
(i) In the present case, HLL Ltd. is an enterprise which has been a party to any proceeding before the Commission. Mr. MKP ceased to be a member on 31st March, 2007. Therefore, Mr. MKP cannot join HLL Ltd. upto 31st March, 2007 (i.e. upto 2 years of cessation of his office of member).

(ii) LIC is a corporation established by a Central Act, and so the restriction on employment of Chairman or a Member shall not apply where appointment is made in LIC. Therefore, Mr. MKP can join LIC.

Present Case :
In the present case, M/s LSD Ltd. is an enterprise which has been a party to any proceeding before the Commission. Therefore, Mr. Raj Behari cannot join M /s LSD Ltd. upto 31st October, 2010 (i.e., upto two years of cessation of his office of member).

Oil & Natural Gas Commission Ltd. is a Government company as defined in Sec. 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013 and so the restriction on employment of Chairman or a Member shall not apply where appointment is made in Oil & Natural Gas Commission Ltd. Therefore, Mr. Raj Behari can join Oil & Natural Gas Commission Ltd. W.e.f 1st April, 2009.

Question 5.
The Central Government on the recommendation of selection committee appoints Mr. Ramesh aged 56 years as Member of the Competition Commission of India to be effective from 1st January, 2010. State with reference to the provisions of Competition Act, 2002 the term for which he will be appointed and whether he can be reappointed as such and also if he resigns after two years whether the vacancy can be filled up by the Chairman of the Commission.
Answer:
Terms of office of chairperson and other Members [(Sec. 10(1) of the Competition Act, 2002)] –

  • The chairperson and other members shall hold the office for a tenure of 5 years.
  • They shall also be eligible for re-appointment.
  • They shall hold the office upto the age of sixty five years.

Filling of Vacancies [Sec. 10(2)] – A Vacancy caused by :

  • resignation
  • removal
  • death or
  • otherwise

of the chairperson or any other member shall be filled by making fresh appointments in accordance with the rules framed by the Central Government in this behalf Under Sec. 9

Present Case – Keeping the above provision in mind. Mr. Ramesh can be appointed as member of the commission for a term of five years as he is aged fifty six years on 1st January, 2010. He can also be reappointed but his reappointment will be only up to the age of sixty five years. If Mr. Ramesh resigns as member after working for two years the resulting vacancy can be filled up by fresh appointment approved by the Selection Committee and the Chairman has no power to fill up the vacancy on his own.

Question 6.
Attempt:
Hon’ble Justice Mr HCJ, a retired High Court Judge, attained the age of 61 years on 31st December 2011. The Central government appointed him as the chairperson of the Competition Commission of India with effect from 1st January 2012. State, with reference to the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002, the term for which he may be appointed as chairperson of the Competition Commission of India. Whether he can be reappointed as such and till when he can remain as chairperson of the Competition Commission of India?
Answer:
Provision:
Tenure of Chairman of Competition Commission of India [Sec. 10]

  • The Chairperson and every other Member shall hold their offices for a term of five years from the date on which he was appointed.
  • The Chairperson and every other Member shall be eligible for reappointment.
  • The Chairperson or any other member shall not to hold office after he has attained the age of sixty five years.

Present Case :

  • Mr. HCJ can be appointed as Chairperson for a term of four years since at the time of appointment he has not attained the age of sixty five years.
  • Mr. HCJ is of sixty one years. On attainment of age of sixty five years, Mr. HCJ shall have to vacate the office of Chairperson, and he shall not be reappointed as Chairperson.

Question 7.
The Competition Commission has served notice on VIPUL PAINTS LTD. to look into alleged contravention of certain provisions. The company wants to object to the same on the ground that the same was consequent to a complaint made by the State Government, which is not in order. Advise the company suitably.
Answer:
If provisions of Section 3(1) or 4(1) of the Competition Act, 2002 are not followed, the Competition commission can initiate an enquiry into the matter on its own (suo moto means on its own, without any request) or on receipt of any complaint from public. It can start enquiry on contravention of Section 3(1) or 4(1) of the Competition Act, 2002 if:

  • It has received any complaint from any person, consumer, consumer association or trade association etc. Required fees should be paid with the complaint.
  • The Central Govt, or any State Govt, has asked for such enquiry.

In the present case, Vipul Paints should not object to the notice of Competition commission on the grounds that the complaint was made by State Govt. All State Governments have power to make complaint to the Commission.

Question 8.
The Central Government, without referring the matter to the Supreme Court of India for inquiry, removed a member of the Competition Commission of India on the ground that he has become physically or mentally incapable of acting as a member. Decide, under the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002, whether removal of the member by the Central Government is lawful?
Answer:
Removal of Member of CCI – As per Sec. 11 (2) of the Competition Act, 2002, the CG is empowered to remove, by an order member of the CCI from his office if such member has become physically or mentally incapable of acting as a member.

Restrictions – As per Sec. 11 (3), of the same Act the CG has to make a reference to the Supreme Court of India under the two conditions :

  • Where the member has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a member.
  • Where a member has abused his position as to render his continuance in office prejudicial to the public interest.

Present Case – Thus, under present circumstances under Sec. 11 (2) and Sec. 11 (3), the action of CG is in order and removal of member is valid. Approval of Supreme Court is not required.

Question 9.
Bombay Textiles Limited and Gujarat Textiles Limited marketing their products in India propose to be amalgamated. The enterprise created as a result of the said amalgamation will have assets of value of three hundred crore rupees anti turnover of one thousand crore rupees. Examine whether the proposed amalgamation attracts the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002? (4 marks) [CA Final P-4 (Old Syllabus)]
Answer:
Sec. 5 deals with combination:
Revised Thresholds:
On March 4, 2016, the Central Government issued notifications pertaining to the statutory thresholds in the purposes of “combinations” under Section 5 of the Competition Act, 2002 (“Act”).
1. Increase in thresholds: Pursuant to Notification No. S.O.675(E) dated March 4, 2016, the value of assets and the value of turnover has been enhanced by 100% for the purposes of Section 5 of the Act. Accordingly, the revised thresholds for notification to the Competition Commission of India (“Commission”) are.
Competition Law – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions 1

2. Increase in thresholds of De Minimis Exemption: Pursuant to Notification NO. S.0.674(E) dated March 4,2016 acquisitions where enterprises whose control, shares, voting rights or assets are being acquired have assets of not more than ₹ 350 crores in India or turnover of not more than ₹ 1,000 crore in India, are exempt from Section 5 of the Act for a period of 5 years. Accordingly, the revised thresholds for availing of the De Minimis exemption for acquisitions are:

3. Definition of Group: As per Notification No. S.O. 673(E) dated March 4,2016, the exemption to the “group” exercising less than fifty percent, of voting rights in other enterprise from the provisions of Section 5 of the Act under Notification No. S.O. 481 (E) dated March 4, 2011, has been continued for a further period of 5 years.

Present Case:
In the present case, the proposed amalgamation of Bombay Textiles Limited and Gujarat Textiles Limited will not attract the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002 as they have assets of value of three hundred crore rupees and turnover of one thousand less than the specified under the provisions.

Question 10.
A truck manufacturing company proposes to enter into distributorship agreements requiring the dealers not to sell trucks of other manufacturers and also not to sell the trucks outside the territory assigned to them. Examine with reference to the Provisions of the Competition Act, 2002 whether the proposed agreements will be considered as Anti competitive Agreements and void in case the company entered into such agreements.
Answer:
Anti-Competitive Agreements Provision:
Under Sec. 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 any agreement amongst enterprises of persons at different stages or levels of the production chain in different markets, in respect of production, supply, distribution, storage, sale or price of, or trade in goods or provision of service, shall be a void agreement if it causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition. According to the problem, there are two conditions given in the agreement, which fall under the following stages:

(i) Exclusive Supply Agreement: Includes any agreement restricting in any manner the purchaser in the course of his trade from acquiring or otherwise dealing in any goods or services other than those of the seller or any other person.

(ii) Exclusive distribution agreement: Includes any agreement to limit, restrict or withhold the output or supply of any goods or services or allocate any area or market for the disposal or sale of the goods or services.

Present Case :
In view of the above provisions of the Competition Act, 2002 validity of the clauses of the agreement as given in the question can be determined as follows:

Part (i) of the question restricts the dealer to deal in the goods of other manufacturers. This is a exclusive separate agreement u/s 3(4) of the Act. Hence, the proposed agreement is anti-competitive and void.

Part (ii) of the question restricts the dealers not to sell the goods outside the territory assigned to them. This is a Exclusive Distribution Agreement u/s 3(4) of the Act. Hence, the proposed agreement is anti competitive and void.

Question 11.
MNO Tyres Limited is in the business of manufacture of automotive tyres : for the past one year. To increase its market share, the company has decided to reduce the prices of tyres. The cost structure of the passenger car tyre is as under:

  • Cost of production five thousand rupees per tyre
  • Selling price six thousand rupees per tyre

The company started selling tyres five thousand and two hundred rupees per tyre and the other tyre manufacturers made a complaint to the Competition Commission of India stating that MNO Tyres Limited is guilty of predatory pricing having the effect of reducing the competition or eliminating the competition. Advise MNO Tyres Limited as to the meaning of predatory pricing and whether the company can be said to have indulged in the said practice having regard to the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002.
Answer: :
Provision:
Sec. 4 (2) (a) of the Competition Act, 2002 prohibits abuse of dominant position by any enterprise or group. Abuse of dominant position is ‘ considered if an enterprise or a group directly or indirectly, imposes unfair or discriminatory:

  • condition in purchase or sale of goods or services; or
  • price in purchase or sale (including predatory price) of goods, or service.

“Predatory price” means the sale of goods or provision of services, at a price which is below the cost, as may be determined by regulations, of production of the goods or provision Of services, with a view to reduce competition or ! eliminate the competitors.

Present Case:
According to the provisions given under Sec. 4(2)(a) of the Competition Act, , 2002, MNO Tyres Ltd. cannot be said to have indulged in predatory pricing as the revised selling price (five thousand and two hundred rupees per tyre) is more than its cost of production (five thousand rupees per tyre).

Question 12.
(i) The mango producers in Lucknow have entered into an arrangement among them whereby they have decided not to sell the mango below certain price. This arrangement has been made in writing but not intended to be enforced by any legal proceedings. Referring to the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002, examine whether the said arrangement shall fall within the jurisdiction of the term ‘agreement’ within the meaning of the said Act.

(ii) The coconut producers in Tirunelveli (Tamil Nadu) have formed an association to control the production of coconuts. Referring to the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002, examine whether the said association to control the production of coconuts shall fall within the jurisdiction of the term ‘Cartel’ under the provisions of the said Act.
Answer:
Provision:
As per Sec. 2 (b), ‘agreement’ includes any arrangement or understanding or action in concert.

(i) Whether or not such arrangement, understanding or action is formal or in writing or
(ii) Whether or not such arrangement or understanding or action is intended to be enforceable by legal proceedings.

Present Case:
In the give case, the understanding reached among the mango producers in Lucknow amount to an ‘agreement’ as defined under Section 2 (b) not with standing the fact that:

  • Such an understanding is not in writing and
  • Such an understanding is not intended to be enforced by legal proceedings.

Hence, mango producers in Lucknow are said to be in agreement with the meaning of said Act, if they are not intended to be enforced by legal proceedings. It is a Horizontal Anti Competitive Agreement.

(ii) Provision:
The given problem relates to Sec. 2 (c) of the Competition Act, 2002. As per Sec. 2 (c). ‘Cartel’ includes an association of producers, sellers, distributors, traders or service providers who, by agreement amongst themselves, limit, control or attempt to control the production, distribution, sale or price of or trade in goods or provision of services.

Present Case:
In the given case, the association that has been formed is falls within the definition of ‘Cartel’ as given under sec. 2 (c) of the Competition Act, 2002. Since the above conditions are satisfied coconut producers in Tirunelveli (Tamil Nadu) are said to be in term ‘Cartel’ under the provisions of the said Act.

Question 13.
(i) Shyam & Co. is engaged in the manufacture of cement. It sold the goods initially below the cost price for a year and slowly, its other competitors went out of the market. Thereafter, the enterprise changed its strategy and sold the goods above its cost price and made substantial profits. Examine the action, if any, which may lie against this enterprise under the Competition Act, 2002.

(ii) Bombay Textiles Limited and Gujarat Textiles Limited marketing their products in India propose to be amalgamated. The enterprise created as a result of the said amalgamation will have assets of value of ₹ 300 crore and turnover of ₹ 1,000 crore. Examine whether the proposed amalgamation attracts the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002.
Answer:
As per Sec. 4 of Competition Act, 2002, it is prohibited to abuse the dominant position by any enterprise or group. Where after inquiry the Commission finds that any agreement referred to in Section 3 or action of an enterprise in a dominant position, is in contravention of Sec. 3 or Section 4, as the case may be, it may pass all or any of the following orders, namely:

1. direct any enterprise or association of enterprises or person or association of persons, as the case may be involved in such agreement, or abuse of dominant position, to discontinue and not to re-enter such agreement or discontinue such abuse of dominant position, as the case may be;

2. impose such penalty, as it may deem fit which shall be not more than ten per cent of the average of the turnover for the last three preceding financial years, upon each of such person or enterprises which are parties to such agreements or abuse:

Provided that in case any agreement referred to in section 3 has been entered into by a cartel, the Commission may impose upon each producer, seller, distributor, trader or service provider included in that cartel, a penalty of up to three times of its profit for each year of the continuance of such agreement or ten per cent of its turnover for each year of the continuance of such agreement, whichever is higher;

3. direct that the agreements shall stand modified to the extent and in the manner as may be specified in the order by the Commission;

4. direct the enterprises concerned to abide by such other orders as the Commission may pass and comply with the directions, including payment of costs, if any;

5. pass such other order or issue such directions as it may deem fit: Provided that while passing order under this section, if the Commission comes to a finding, that an enterprise in contravention to section 3 or section 4 of the Act is a member of a group as defined in clause (b) of the Explanation to section 5 of the Act, and other members of such a group are also responsible for, or have contributed to, such a contravention, then it may pass orders, under this section, against such members of the group.

Present Case:
In the given instance, Shyam and Co. abused its dominant position by imposing predatory price of goods. Action against this enterprise shall lie in Sec 27 of the Competition Act, 2002.

(ii) Section 5 deals with combination of enterprises and persons. The amalgamation of enterprises shall be a combination of such enterprises if the enterprise created as a result of the amalgamation, as the case may be, have either in India, the assets of the value of more than ₹ 1,500 crores or turnover more than ₹ 4,500 crores.

Therefore, in the above case the proposed amalgamation of Bombay Textiles Limited and Gujarat Textiles Limited will not attract the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002 as they have assets of value of ₹ 300 crore and turnover of ₹ 1,000 crore which are less than specified under the provisions.

Question 14.
CTVN and Channel 10 telecasted Mahabharat TV serial in dubbed form in Bangla language in the State of West Bengal. The co¬ordination committee comprising film and TV entities in the State banned the telecast of the dubbed version of the serial contending that it was affecting the TV and film industry of the State.
CTVN and Channel 10 intend to contest the ban before the Competition Commission of India.
Discuss whether:
(i) Activities in which the co-ordination committee indulged can be treated as ‘agreement’ for the purposes of section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 and the Co-ordination Committee would be covered by the definition of ‘person’ under 2(l) of the Act?

(ii) The act of banning of the TV serial amounts to violation of the provisions of section 3(3)(b) of the Competition Act, 2002?
Answer:
(i) The given case is similar to the case of Competition Commission of India v. Co-ordination Committee of Artists and Technicians of W.B. Film and Television & Ors [SC], Civil Appeal No. 6691 of 2014 [Decided on 07/03/2017].

An agreement referred to in Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 has to relate to an economic activity which is central to the competition law. Economic activity refers to any activity consisting of offering products in a market regardless of whether the activities are intended to earn a profit. The “agreement” or “concerned practice” is the means through which enterprise or association of enterprises or person or association of persons restrict competition.

The functional approach and the corresponding focus on the activity, rather than the form of the entity may result in an entity being construed an enterprise when it engages in some activities, but when it engages in others. Non-profit making organizations or public bodies may of turn operate in their charitable or public activity but may be construed an undertaking when they engage in commercial activities. Coordination Committee, which is engaged in activities which are not charitable. It is engaged in economic activities on behalf of the film and TV artists. In action in banning the dubbed TV serial amounts to an “infringement” under the Competition Act, 2002.

The Commission Committee, which may be a “person” as per Section 2(1) of the Competition Act. 2002. is not undertaking any economic activity by itself. But the Commission Committee is an association of enterprises (constituent members) and these members are engaged in production, distributions, and exhibition of films. Thus the Commission Committee amounts to an “enterprise” or the kind of ‘association of persons’ as per the Section 3 of the Act.

(ii) The act of the Commission Committee deprives the consumers of exercising their choice. Its act definitely caused harm to consumers by depriving them from watching the dubbed serial on TV channel. It also hindered competition in the market by barring dubbed TV serials from exhibition on TV channels in the State. Such acts or conduct also limit supply of serial clubbed in Bangla which amounts to violation of the provisions of Section 3(3)(b) of the Competition Act, 2002.

Question 15.
‘Q Cars’ was a radio taxi service provider, which was offering customer discounts and royalty programmes, etc., M group was a competitor-who alleged that owing to its dominant position, ‘Q Cars’ group has devised certain abusive practices which inter alia include unreasonable discounts amounting to abysmally low/predatory pricing to consumers etc., to adversely affect and oust its competitor from the relevant market.

It was also alleged that under its business arrangement, ‘Q Cars’ was giving whole trip-amount received from the passengers to the respective taxi drivers along with additional incentives in order to get them attached exclusively with the ‘Q Cars’ network. It also alleged that ‘Q Cars’ enters into exclusive contracts with taxi owners in violation of provisions of Competition Act, 2002, whereby the taxi drivers are restrained from getting attached on to any other competing ‘radio taxi operator’ network. Has ‘Q Cars’ contravened the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002?
Answer:
The present case is similar to the case of Meru Travel Solutions Pvt Ltd v. Uber India Systems Pvt. Ltd & Ors [CCI] Case No. 96 of 2015 [Decided on 10/02/2016] wherein the Competition Commission of India held that the definition of relevant geographic market in the radio taxi services market has been dealt with by the Commission in many previous cases. The Commission was of the view that the relevant geographic market in that case would be “Delhi”.

The Commission held – “It has considered the TechSci research report and it is a matter of fact that Uber Group was not interviewed during the collection of data in the TechSci report. Evidently, there are glaring differences in the data and results depicted by the two research reports i.e. research report and TechSci report; casting a serious doubt on their authenticity and neutrality. The conflicting results indicate that either the data relied upon in the said reports is not accurate or the data has been selectively collected and relied upon to reach some predetermined results.

Therefore, despite the Informant’s attempt to discredit the results of the research report, the Commission is apprehensive in drawing conclusions with regard to the market share of UBER on the basis of such contradictory research reports. Hence, despite the deficiencies observed above, a conclusion may be drawn from a combined reading of both these research reports that there exists stiff competition, at least between OLA and UBER, with regard to the radio taxi industry in Delhi. Further, both the research reports have acknowledged the presence of other major players in the market, apart from UBER and OLA. Further, the fluctuating market share figures of the various players show that the competitive landscape in the relevant market is quite vibrant and dynamic.

Based on the foregoing discussion, the Commission is of the view that the radio taxi services market in Delhi is competitive in nature and UBER does not appear to be holding a dominant position in the relevant market. Since Uber group does not seem to be dominant in the relevant market, there is no need to go into the examination of its conduct in such relevant market.

Based on the aforesaid, the Commission is of the view that no case of contravention is made out against Uber Group.” Applying the conclusion of the above case, it can be concluded that ‘Q Cars’ has not contravened the provisions of Competition Act, 2002.

Questions:

  • Whether the Appellant is in order requesting the CCI of recall the investigation?
  • Whether CCI has enherent powers to recall/review its investigation orders in exercise of powers u/s 26(1) of the Act?
  • Whether any provision of the Act indicates that an order u/s 26(1) cannot be reviewed or recalled?
  • Whether writ petition filed against CCI order directing investigation is maintainable?

Multidisciplinary Case Studies CS Professional Notes

Layout-Designs Of Integrated Circuits – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Layout-Designs Of Integrated Circuits – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Question 1.
(a) Looking at the growth of mobile phones and other electronic devices in the Indian market an Indian firm is interested to make investments to market integrated circuits in India. The problem is the firm does not have the technology to manufacture IC (Integrated Circuits) therefore the Indian firm is negotiating with an American technology company for signing the technology agreement for IC. Advise the American company how the agreement can be signed between the American company and Indian firm and can American company apply to cancel the registration of Indian firm as a registered user of layout design in future if the American Company is dissatisfied with an Indian firm.
Answer:
When registered layout design is intended to be allowed to be used by some other person, then such person is required to be registered with the Registrar as a registered user. Registered proprietor and the proposed registered user shall have to make a joint application in writing to the Registrar in a prescribed manner along with agreement in writing, entered into between them with regard to use of layout design showing particulars of the relationship, existing or proposed, including the degree of control by the proprietor over the permitted use which this relationship will confer.

The particulars should also clarify whether the proposed registered user shall be the sole registered user and mention the place and duration of the permitted use. After getting the compliance of requirements under the Act, the Registrar registers the proposed registered user.
The Registrar has the powers under the Act to cancel the registration as a registered user of layout design on any of the following grounds:

(1) Registered user has not used the layout design in accordance with the agreement;

(2) The proprietor or the registered user misrepresented, or failed to disclose some material facts at the time of application which would have an adverse bearing on the registration of the registered user;

(3)The circumstances have changed since the date of registration in such a way that at the date of such application for cancellation they would not have justified registration of the registered user;

(4) That the registration ought not to have been effected having regard to right vested in the applicant by a contract in the performance of which he is interested;

(5) Registration may be canceled by the Registrar of his motion or on the application in writing by any person on the ground that any stipulation in the agreement between the registered proprietor and the registered user regarding the topographical dimensions of the layout design is either not being enforced or is not being complied with;

(6) Registration may be canceled by the Registrar if the layout design is no longer registered. The Registrar is required to issue a notice in respect of every application received for cancellation of registration of the registered user to the registered proprietor and each registered user (not being the applicant)of the layout design. Although before canceling registration, the registered proprietor shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the infringement of layout design.
Answer:
Infringement of layout design:
Only a registered proprietor of the layout design or a registered user can make use of the layout design. What will constitute the infringement of layout design has been explained in detail in the SICLD Act, 2000. Under the Act, any person who infringes the layout design shall be liable to pay the proprietor of the registered layout design, royalty to be determined by negotiation between the registered proprietor and that person or by the Appellate Board. Such royalty is negotiated to keep in view the benefit that accrued to the person who has infringed the layout design as per the SICLD Act, 2000. The users/purchaser of infringed layout design is entitled to immunity from infringement under this Act. Use of registered layout design with the written consent of the registered proprietor of a registered layout design also shall not constitute infringement. Also, where any person creates a layout design by application of independent intellect which is identical to a registered layout design, then, such act shall not constitute an infringement of the registered layout design.

Question 3.
Discuss the Procedure for Registration of Layout design under the Semi-Conductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design Act, 2000.
Answer:
Conditions and Procedure for Registration Acceptance of Application:
Any person who wants to register his layout design is required to apply in writing to the Registrar Semiconductor Integrated Circuits Layout-Design Registry in the concerned territorial jurisdiction, as per the procedure prescribed in the SICLD Act, 2000. The Registrar after scrutiny may refuse the application or may accept it absolutely or with amendments or modifications, as he may consider necessary.

Prohibition of Registration of Certain Layout-Designs:
The SICLD Act, 2000 prohibits the registration of certain Layout designs. A layout design that is not original is prohibited. Similarly, the registration of layout design which has been commercially exploited anywhere in India or a convention country has been prohibited. A layout design that is not inherently distinctive or which is not inherently capable of being distinguishable from any other registered layout design also cannot be registered. The Act, however, provides that a layout design that has been commercially exploited for not more than two years from the date on which an application for its registration has been filed either in India or a convention country shall be considered as not having been commercially exploited.

Withdrawal of Acceptance:
As per provisions of the SICLD Act, 2000, the Registrar has the power to withdraw the acceptance of an application for registration (before registration’ of layout design) if it comes to his knowledge that the layout design is prohibited of registration under the provisions of this Act. The Registrar may, however, provide the opportunity of being heard to the applicant if he so desires, before the withdrawal of the acceptance.

Advertisement of Application:
According to the SICLD Act, 2000, when an application for registration of a layout design has been accepted, the Registrar is bound to advertise the accepted application within fourteen days after the date of acceptance. After the advertisement, the Registrar has the discretion to advertise the application again if the application has been corrected or is permitted to be amended under the Act and notify in the prescribed manner the correction or amendment made.

Opposition to Registration:
Any person under the SICLD Act, 2000 can oppose the proposed registration of l&yout design. After an application for registration of a layout-design has been accepted, any person can give notice in writing to the Registrar of his opposition, within three months from the date of advertisement or re-advertisement or within a further period not exceeding one month in the aggregate, (as may be allowed by the Registrar) as per the procedure provided.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss the position of International Law on Layout – Designs of Integrated Circuits.
Answer:
Layout – Designs of Integrated Circuits: International Law:
A diplomatic conference was held at Washington, D.C., in 1989, which adopted a Treaty on Intellectual Property in Respect of Integrated Circuits, also called the Washington Treaty or I PIC Treaty. The Treaty, signed in Washington on May 26, 1989, is open to States Members of WIPO or the United Nations and to inter-governmental organizations meeting certain criteria. The Treaty has been incorporated by reference into the TRIPS Agreement of the World Trade Organization (WTO), subject to the following modifications:

the term of protection is at least 10 (rather than eight) years from the date of filing an application or of the first commercial exploitation in the world, but Members may provide a term of protection of 15 years from the creation of the layout design; the exclusive right of the right holder extends also to articles incorporating integrated circuits in which a protected layout-design is incorporated, in so far as it continues to contain an unlawfully reproduced layout-design; the circumstances in which layout-designs may be used without the consent of right-holders are more restricted; certain acts engaged in unknowingly will not constitute infringement.

Article 35 of TRIPS in Relation to the IP1C Treaty states:
Members agree to provide protection to the layout-designs (topographies) of integrated circuits (referred to in this Agreement as “layout-designs”) in accordance with Articles 2 through 7 (other than paragraph 3 of Article 6), Article 12 and paragraph 3 of Article 16 of the Treaty on Intellectual Property in Respect of Integrated Circuits and, in addition, to comply with the following provisions.

Article 2 of the IPC Treaty gives the following definitions:

  • ‘integrated circuit’ means a product, in its final form or an intermediate form, in which the elements, at least one of which is an active element, and some or all of the interconnections are integrally formed in and/or on a piece of material and which is intended to perform an electronic function,
  • ‘layout-design (topography)’ means the three-dimensional disposition, however, expressed, of the elements, at least one of which is an active element, and of some or all of the interconnections of an integrated circuit, or such a three-dimensional disposition prepared for an integrated circuit intended for manufacture …

Under the IPIC Treaty, each Contracting Party is obliged to secure, throughout its territory, exclusive rights in layout-designs (topographies) of integrated circuits, whether or not the integrated circuit concerned is incorporated in an article. Such obligation applies to layout designs that are original in the sense that they are the result of their creators’ own intellectual effort and are not commonplace among creators of layout designs and manufacturers of integrated circuits at the time of their creation.

Question 5.
Mention the situations in which Registrar has powers to cancel the registration under Integrated Circuit Lay Out Designs Act, 2000.
Answer:
The Registrar has the powers under the Act to cancel the registration as a registered user of layout design on any of the following grounds:
(1) the Registered User has not used the layout design in accordance with the agreement;

(2) The proprietor or the registered user misrepresented, or failed to disclose some material facts at the time of application which would have an adverse bearing on the registration of the registered user;

(3) The circumstances have changed since the date of registration in such a way that at the date of such application for cancellation they would not have justified registration of the registered, user;

(4) That the registration ought not to have been effected having regard to right vested in the applicant by a contract in the performance of which he is interested;

(5) Registration may be canceled by the Registrar of his motion or on the application in writing by any person on the ground that any stipulation in the agreement between the registered proprietor and the registered user regarding the topographical dimensions of the layout design is either not being enforced or is not being complied with;

(6) Registration may be canceled by the Registrar if the layout design is no longer registered.

The Registrar is required to issue a notice in respect of every application received for cancellation of registration of the registered user to the registered proprietor and each registered user (not being the applicant) of the layout design. However, before canceling of registration, the registered proprietor

Question 6.
Explain the procedure of assignment and transmission under Integrated Circuit Lay Out Designs Act, 2000.
Answer:
Assignment and Transmission: The proprietor of a registered layout-design has powers under the Act to assign the layout design for any consideration. The registered layout design may be transferred with or without goodwill. However, the person who becomes entitled by assignment or transmission to a registered layout design shall also have to register his title with the Registrar as per the procedure provided in the Act.

CS Professional Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Notes

 

Recent Developments In Patent System – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Recent Developments In Patent System – Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Important Questions

Question 1.
Company ABC is specialized in the area of creating software as per the needs of the clients. It developed software which enhances the performance of the computer in terms of speed. Company ABC wants to provide IPR protection to the software. Please advise on this issue to the company.
Answer:
Computer Software is a matter of Intellectual Property Rights protection and recognized at International Level by the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.

TRIPS provides patents as well as copyright protection to the computer software. However, there are conceptual differences between patents and copyright. Hence, the protection of the computer software has to qualify the eligibility criteria of the patents or copyright to claim the protection of IPR. For the protection of software for patent rights, the eligibility criteria of novelty, non-obviousness, etc. have to be with regard to the software. Although, the Patents Act, 1970 excludes certain innovations from the purview of the Patent Act, 1970.

Section 3 and 4 of the Patent Act specify a list of subject matter that is not patentable, in particular, “a mathematical or business method or a program per se or algorithm’ is of specific importance to a software innovation (Section 3(k)). The Indian Patent law does not contain any specific provision regarding the protection of computer software. Computer software on the other hand is protected as applicable to literary and aesthetic works. The computer software that does not have a technical effect is protected under copyright law. A computer program is therefore dealt with literary work and the law and practice in relation to literary works will apply to computer programs. For copyright protection, computer software needs to be original, and sufficient effort and skill must be put into making it the original work of the author.

A program that generates the multiplication of tables or algorithm may not suffice the degree of effort required for protection. Apart from it, the work should be first published in India or if published outside India, the author on the date of publication should be a citizen of India.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on Patentable Inventions in Biotechnology.
Answer:
Patentable Inventions in Biotechnology:
The exciting developments in the domain of biotechnology have resulted in intensive R&D activities all over the world including India. After information technology, biotechnology is increasingly recognized as the next wave in the knowledge-based economy. Biotechnology has been at the core of a number of important developments in the pharmaceutical, agrochemical, energy, and environmental sectors. In particular, progress in the field of molecular biology, biotechnology, and molecular medicine has highlighted the potential of biotechnology for the pharmaceutical industry.

Conventionally, a micro-organism is considered as an organism that is microscopic, i.e., too small to be seen by the naked human eye and can be viewed only under a microscope, usually, an ordinary light microscope. Micro-organisms include bacteria, fungi, viruses, protists, and other prokaryotes as well as some microscopic plants (phytoplankton) and animals (zooplankton). The US Supreme Court ruled that genetically altered micro-organisms were indeed patentable based on the following criteria:

  • They were man-made;
  • They were products of human manipulation and therefore considered similar to any other invention;
  • They had a specified industrial application (one criterion for patenting is that the invention has utility).

Further, Supreme Court cited the fact that there was precedence for patenting living matter. Since 1930 certain asexually reproduced plants have been protected by patents. Furthermore, in 1970 the Plant Variety Protection Act allowed for the protection of some sexually reproduced plants. As a result of the Supreme Court’s decision, the US biotechnology industry flourished and many US patents have been granted on human-made higher life forms such as transgenic mice, fish, etc. Thus, microorganisms, plants, and animals have now all received U.S. patenting status. Europe views patenting of “man-made” life in much the same manner as the U.S. patent office.

TRIPS Agreement obliges member states to patent micro-organisms. Article 27.3 permits WTO member countries to exclude two specific classes of subject matter from patentability:

  1. diagnostic, therapeutic, and surgical methods for the treatment of humans or animals; and
  2. plants and animals other than microorganisms, and essentially biological processes for the production of plants or animals other than nonbiological and microbiological processes.

Though the TRIPS agreement mandates patent protection for micro-organisms, it does not define microorganisms; thus there is no standard definition for member nations to follow.

To comply with the World Trade Organization (WTO), Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, India amended the Patents Act, 1970 with effect from January 2005. The Indian Patent Act has now a specific provision in regard to patenting of micro-organisms and microbiological processes. It is now possible to get a patent for a microbiological process and also products emanating from such processes. The most vital distinction between the legal practices of India and developed countries is that India does not allow patenting of micro-organisms that already exist in nature, as the same is considered to be a discovery as per the provisions of Section 3(d) of the Patents Act, 1970 and therefore not patentable.’But genetically modified versions of the same microorganisms that result in enhancement of its known efficacies are patentable.

Another requirement is the sufficiency of disclosure which is very important. The Patents Act, 1970 stipulates that a sufficient and clear description of the .invention should be given. The Act or the Rule, however, does not stipulate any condition or procedure to meet the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure in the case of inventions involving the use of biological material, which are very difficult to describe in words.

It has been the practice of the Patent Office from time immemorial to follow the practice adopted by the foreign patent offices by allowing the accession No., accorded by a depository institution either foreign or Indian in the patent specification to satisfy the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure of the invention desired to be patented.

Question 3.
Write a brief note on the Biodiversity Act, 2002.
Answer:
The Biodiversity Act, 2002
Pursuant to the CBD, India enacted the Biological Diversity Act in 2002, and notified Biological Diversity Rules in 2004, to give effect to the provisions of this Convention. The Act is implemented through a three-tiered institutional structure at the national, state, and local levels. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) has been set up in October 2003 in Chennai. As per Section 8(4) of the Act, the NBA consists of a Chairperson, five non-official and ten ex-officio members to be appointed by the Central Government to represent various Ministries.

The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is an Act of the Parliament of India for the preservation of biological diversity in India and provides a mechanism for equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of traditional biological resources and knowledge. The Act was enacted to meet the obligations under Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), to which India is a party. The is an Act to provide for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources, knowledge, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Whereas India is rich in biological diversity and associated traditional and contemporary knowledge systems relating thereto. And whereas India is a party to the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity signed at Rio de Janeiro on the 5th day of June 1992. The vision of the NBA is the conservation and sustainable use of India’s rich biodiversity and associated knowledge with people’s participation, ensuring the process of benefit sharing for well being of present and future generations. The mission of the NBA is to ensure effective implementation of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and the Biological Diversity Rules 2004 for conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.

Biodiversity and Biological Resource Biodiversity has been defined under Section 2(b) of the Act as “the variability among living organisms from all sources and the ecological complexes of which they are part, and includes diversity within species or between species and of eco-systems”. The Act also defines, Biological resources as “plants, animals and micro-organisms or parts thereof, their genetic material and by-products (excluding value-added products) with actual or potential use or value, but does not include human genetic material.”

National Biodiversity Authority and State Biodiversity Boards The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body, headquartered in Chennai, under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India established in 2003 to implement the provisions under the Act. State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) have been created in 28 States along with 31,574 Biological management committees (for each local body) across India.

Question 4.
How has a software patent been defined? Briefly discuss some of the important issues concerning software patents.
Answer:
A software patent is generally defined as a patent that protects some programming technique. The Foundation for a Free Information Infrastructure (FFII) has defined a software patent as being a patent on any performance of a computer realized by means of a computer program.
The important issues concerning software patenting are as follows:

  • Whether software patents should be allowed, and if so, where the boundary between patentable and non-patentable software should lie;
  • Whether the invention step and non-obviousness requirement is applied too loosely to software; and
  • Whether patents covering software discourage, rather than encourage, innovation.

Question 5.
Discuss the criteria of patentability of software in India.
Answer:
The criteria of patentability of software in India are:

  • They are man-made;
  • They were products of human manipulation and thereof considered similar to any other invention;
  • They had a specified industrial application.

Question 6.
How is the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure met in the case of micro-organisms?
Answer:
In the case of micro-organisms sufficiency of disclosure is very important. The Patent Act, 1970 stipulates that a sufficient and clear description of the invention should be given. The Act or the Rule, does not stipulate any condition or procedure to meet the requirement of sufficiency of disclosure in the case of inventions involving the use of biological material, which are very difficult to describe.

CS Professional Intellectual Property Rights Laws and Practices Notes

Securitization – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Securitization – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by “securitization”? Explain the “securitization structure”?
Answer:
Meaning of “Securitization”:

  • Securitization is the transformation of financial assets into securities.
  • Securitization is the process of pooling and repackaging of homogenous illiquid financial assets into marketable securities that can be sold to investors.
  • Securitization is used by financial entities to raise funds other than what is available via the traditional methods of on-balance- sheet funding

“Securitization – Process”:
There are four steps in a securitization:

  1. Special Purpose Distinct Entity (SPDE) is created to hold title to assets underlying securities.
  2. Originator or holder of assets sells the assets (existing or future) to the SPDE.
  3. SPDE with the help of an investment banker, issues securities which are distributed to investors.
  4. SPDE pays the originator for the assets with the proceeds from the sale of securities.

Securitization structure as presented below:
Securitization – Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Important Questions 1

Question 2.
As per SEBI Regulations, explain the eligibility criteria for the public offer of Securitized Debt Instruments.
Answer:
Eligibility Criteria:
Following are the eligibility criteria for the Public Offer of Securitized Debt Instrument as per SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008: A person cannot make a public offer of securitized debt instruments or seek listing for such securitized debt instruments unless:

  • it is constituted as a special purpose distinct entity.
  • all its trustees are registered with the SEBI under the SEBI (Is-sue and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008.
  • it complies with all the applicable provisions of these regulations and the SEBI Act.

Non-applicability for requirement of Obtaining Registration:
The requirement of obtaining registration is not applicable for the following persons who may act as trustees of special purpose distinct entities:

  • Any person registered as a debenture trustee with SEBI.
  • Any person registered as a securitization company or a reconstruction company with the RBI under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002.
  • National Housing Bank established by the National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
  • National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development established by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981.
  • Any scheduled commercial bank other than a regional rural bank
  • Any public financial Institution as defined under clause (72) of section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • Any other person as may be specified by SEBI.

However, these persons and special purpose distinct entities of which they are trustees are required to comply with all the other provisions of the SEBI (Public Offer and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008.

Question 3.
Discuss the conditions for Listing of Security Receipts?
Answer:
“Conditions for Listing of Security Receipts”: An issuer may list its security receipts on a recognized stock exchange subject to the following conditions:
Issue on Private Placement Basis: The security receipts have been issued on a private placement basis.

Issue Security Receipts in compliance to applicable laws: The issuer has issued such security receipts in compliance with the applicable laws.

Offer/invitation to subscribe to Security Receipts: The offer or invitation to subscribe to security receipts shall be made to such number of persons not exceeding two hundred or such other number in a financial year as may be prescribed from time to time.

Security Receipts in Demat Form: The security receipts proposed to be listed are in dematerialized form.

Disclosures: The disclosures as provided in Regulation 38E of SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008 have been made in the offer document.

Minimum Allotment: The minimum allotment made to the qualified buyers is ₹ 10 lakhs.

Valuation of Security Receipts: Such security receipts have been valued prior to listing. However, such valuation shall not be more than three months old from the date of listing and shall be done by an independent valuer.

Credit Rating: The security receipts have been rated by a credit rating agency registered with SEBI. However, such rating shall not be more than three months old from the date of listing.

Question 4.
Write Short Note on: “Obligations to Redeem Securitized Debt Instruments”.
Answer:
“Obligations to Redeem Securitized Debt Instruments”:
Timely payment of Interest and redemption: The trustee and the special purpose distinct entity shall ensure timely payment of interest and redemption amounts to the investors in terms of the offer document or other terms of issue of the securitized debt instruments out of the realisations from the asset pool, credit enhancer or liquidity provider.

Recovery of dues from the Obligators: The trustee shall ensure that the servicer adopts such prudent measures as may be expected under the origination documents to recover the dues from the obligators in the event of any default in any portion thereof.

Expected Period of Maturity: The expected period of maturity of each scheme and the possibility of extension or shortening of such period shall be disclosed in the offer document together with the likely circumstances in which such extension or shortening may take place.

Question 5.
Briefly discuss the various provisions as laid down for “Trading of Security Receipts”?
Answer:
Following are the provisions for “Trading of Security Receipts”:
Trading Lot of Security Receipts: The trading lot of the security receipts shall not be less than ₹ 10 lakh.

Security receipts issued on Private Placement Basis: The security receipts issued on a private placement basis which are listed on recognised stock exchanges shall be traded and such trades shall be cleared and settled in recognised stock exchanges subject to conditions specified by SEBI.

Reporting on recognized Stock Exchange: Trades of security receipts which have been made over the counter shall be reported on a recognized stock exchange having a nationwide trading terminal or such other platform as may be specified by SEBI.

Specific Conditions for Reporting: SEBI may specify conditions for reporting of trades on the recognized stock exchange or other platform.

Question 6.
Write Short Note on: “Launching of schemes under SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008”.
Answer:
“Launching of schemes under SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008”:
→ A special purpose distinct entity may raise funds by making an offer of securitized debt instruments through formulating schemes in accordance with these regulations.

→ A special purpose distinct entity and trustees thereof shall ensure that realisations of debts and receivables are held and correctly applied towards redemption of securitized debt instruments issued under the respective schemes or towards payment of returns on such instruments or towards other permissible expenditure of the scheme.

→ In case of multiple schemes, the special purpose distinct entity shall maintain separate and distinct accounts in respect of each such scheme and shall not combine asset pools or realisations of a scheme with those of other schemes.

→ The terms of issue of the securitized debt instruments may provide for exercise of a cleanup call option by the special purpose distinct entity subject to adequate disclosures.

→ No expenses shall be charged to the scheme in excess of the allowable expenses as may be specified in the scheme and any such expenditure, if incurred shall be borne by the trustees.

Question 7.
Discuss in brief the provisions regarding “sale of security receipts by the existing holders”?
Answer:
A sale of security receipts by any existing holder of such security receipts under provisions of Chapter VILA of SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008 shall be subject to the issuer compulsorily listing the security receipts before complying with the provisions of this chapter.

Any existing holder of security receipts who proposes to sell (whole or part of) its holding of security receipts to the qualified buyers on private placement basis where such security receipts are proposed to be listed may do so in accordance with the provisions of Chapter VIIA of SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitized Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008.
In spite of above discussed provisions, if such sale by any holder of security receipts shall be permitted only if the holding is not less than fifty per cent of the outstanding security receipts.

Corporate Funding and Listings in Stock Exchanges Notes