Valuation Of Imports And Exports – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Valuation Of Imports And Exports – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Calculate FOB Value, Cost of Insurance, Cost of Freight, and Assessable Value where only the CIF value Is given as the US $ 5,000. Exchange rates notified by RBI and CBEC are ₹ 50 and ₹ 48 respectively for one US $.
Answer:
As per rule 10(2) proviso 3 of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007 where FOB value of goods, cost of insurance, and freight are not ascertainable, then cost of insurance and cost of freight shall be computed as follows:
CIF value – US$ 5,000 × ₹ 48 = ₹ 2,40,000
Freight & Insurance – ₹ 2,40,000 × 21.125/121.125 = ₹ 41,858
FOB Value – ₹ 2,40,000 – ₹ 41,858 = ₹ 1,98,142

The exchange rate notified by CBECICBIC has to be taken i.e. ₹ 48,1US$. As per Rule 10 of Valuation Rules, freight, and insurance when not availab1e has to be taken as 20% and 1.125% of FOB value respectively

Question 2.
Compute the assessable value and total customs duty payable under the Customs Act, 1962 for an Imported machine, based on the following information:

Particulars Amount (US$)
Cost of the machine at the factory of the exporter 20,000
Transport charges from the factory of the exporter to the port of shipment 800
Handling charges paid for loading the machine in the ship 50
Buying commission paid by the importer 100
Lighterage charges paid by the importer 200
Freight incurred from the port of entry to the inland container depot 1,000
Ship demurrage charges 400
Freight charges from exporting country to India 5,000
Date of Bill of Entry: 20.02.2020
(Rate of BCD: 20%; Exchange rate as notified by CBIC: ₹ 60 per US$)
Date of Entry Inward: 25.01.2020
(Rate of BCD: 12%; Exchange rate as notified by CBIC: ₹ 65 per US$)
Rate of IGST: 12%

Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value and total customs duty payable:

Particulars Amount US$
Cost of the machine 20,000
Add: Transport charges from factory of exporter to the port of shipment 800
Add: Handling charges 50
FOB Value 20,850
Add: Insurance (20,850 x 1.125%) 234.56
Add: Freight 5,000
Add: Lighterage Charges 200
Add: Ship Demurrage charges 400
CIF Value/Assessable Value 26,684.5625
Amount (₹)
Assessable Value (US$26,684.5625 x ₹ 60) 16,01,074
Add: Basic Customs Duty @ 20% (₹ 16,01,074 x 20%) 3,20,215
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge @10% of Basic Customs Duty 32,022
Value for the purpose of levy of IGST 19,53,311
Add: IGST @ 12% (₹ 19,53,311 x 12%) 2,34,397
Total Cost of Imported goods 21,87,708
Customs Duty payable (₹ 3,20,215 + 32,022 + 2,34,397) 5,86,634

Question 3.
ABC Ltd. imported a machine from the UK in November 2020. The details in this regard are as under :

1. FOB value of the machine: 12,000 UK Pound
2. Freight (Air): 4000 UK Pound
3. Licence fee, the buyer was required to pay in the UK: 500 UK Pound
4. Buying commission paid in India ₹ 20,000
5. Designing charges paid to a consultancy firm in New Delhi, which was necessary for such machine ₹ 1,00,000 (vz) Actual landing charges paid at the place of importation ₹ 25,000.
6. Insurance premium details were not available.
7. For this purpose you may consider the following:

  • Rate of exchange ₹ 98.00 per one pound.
  • Rate of Basic Customs Duty (BCD) at 10%
  • Integrated tax under section 3(7) of Customs Tariff Act at 12%
  • Social Welfare surcharge as applicable
  • Ignore GST Compensation Cess.

You are required to compute the total customs duty and integrated tax payable on the imported machine. You may make suitable assumptions wherever found necessary.
Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value and total Customs Duty and Integrated Tax payable

Particulars Amount UK Pound
FOB Value 12,000
Add: License fee required to be paid in the UK payable by the buyer as a condition of sale, are all includible in the assessable value – Rule 10(l)(c) 500
FOB Value for the purposes of Customs 12,500
Add: Air Freight (Restricted to 20% of UK Pounds 12,500) 2,500
Insurance: 1.125% of UK Pounds 12,500 140.625
CIF Value 15,140.625
Amount (₹)
Therefore, CIF Value/Assessable Value, converted in ₹ (UK Pound 15,140.625 x ₹ 98 per UK Pound) 14,83,781
Add: Basic Customs Duty @ 10% (₹ 14,83,781 x 10%) (A) 1,48,379
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge @ 10% of Basic Customs Duty (B) 14,838
Value for the levy of IGST 16,46,998
Add: Integrated Tax under section 3(7) of Customs Tariff Act @ 12% (C) 1,97,640
Total Cost of Imported Goods 18,44,638
Total Customs Duty and integrated tax payable (A + B + C) 3,60,857

Notes:
1. In the case of goods imported by Air, where actual air freight is not known, it is restricted to 20% of the FOB value of goods. (Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules)
2. Insurance charges that were not ascertainable have to be included @ 1.125% of FOB Value of Goods. (Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules)
3. Buying commission is not included in the assessable value.
4. Designing charges paid for work done in India have not been included for the purpose of arriving at the assessable value. (Rule 10(1) of Customs Valuation Rules)
5. No landing charges are to be added to the CIF Value.
4. Compute the assessable value of an imported product as of 11.12.2020 in the following independent situations:

Case 1:

Particulars Figures in Euros
FOB Value 2,000
Freight, loading, unloading, and handling charges associated with the delivery of the imported goods to the place of importation Not Known
Insurance charges 20

Case 2:

Particulars Figures in Euros
FOB Value 2,000
Sea Freight, loading, unloading, and handling charges associated with the delivery of the imported goods to the place of importation 100
Insurance charges Not Known

Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value

CASE 1:

Particulars Euro
FOB Value 2,000
Add: Cost of Transportation (Since not known, taken at 20% of FOB value) 400
Add: Cost of insurance (Actual) 20
CIF Value i.e. Assessable Value 2,420

CASE 2:

Particulars Euro
FOB Value 2,000
Add: Cost of Transportation (Actual) 100
Add: Cost of insurance (Not ascertainable, hence taken as 1.125% of FOB value) 22.50
CIF Value i.e. Assessable Value 2,122.50

Question 4.
Particulars relating to the import of product Z by Mr. Prahalad on 23-12-20 from Antwerp, Belgium to the Chennai airport, are given hereunder:

  • FOB value of the Product $10,000
  • Cost of transport, loading, unloading, and handling $ 2,500 charges associated with the delivery of the imported goods to the place of importation
  • Insurance $ 1,000
  • Unloading charges at Chennai airport ₹ 34,000
  • Exchange rate notified by CBEC on 23-12-20 1$ = ₹ 64
  • Exchange rate notified by RBI on 23-12-20 1 $ = ₹ 64.50
  • Basic customs duty 10%

Ascertain the assessable value and the amount of duty payable by Mr. Prahalad.
Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value and total tax and duty payable by Mr. Prahalad in respect of import of product Z

Particulars Amount(₹)
FOB Value of the product $10,000
Add Adjustments as per Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules:
Cost of Transportation, loading, unloading, and handling charges associated with the delivery of the imported goods to the place of importation, restricted to 20% of FOB value (US$ 10,000 × 20%) $2,000
Insurance (Actual) $1,000
CIF Value Le. Assessable Value $13,000
The exchange Rate notified by CBIC, US$ 1 = ₹ 64 is to be considered for arriving at the assessable value of the imported product ($13,000 × ₹ 64) 8,32,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty @ 10% (A) 83,200
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge @ 10% of Basic Customs Duty (B) 8,320
Therefore, Assessable Value for levy of IGST 9,23,520
Add: IGST @ 12% (Assumed GST at 12% on the goods) (C) 1,10,822
Total Cost of imported goods 10,34,342
Therefore, Total Customs Duty Payable (A+B+C) or; (Total Cost of imported Goods less Assessable Value) 2,02,342

Unloading charges at Chennai Airport are not to be added. It is to be noted that landing charges are not to be added to the CIF value in view of amendment in Rule 10(2) of the Customs Valuation Rules vide Notification No. 91/2017 – Cus. (NT) dated 26.09.2017.

Question 5.
Chandu Industries Ltd. imported some goods from the USA. The details of the transactions are as under:

CIF Value of goods: US$ 1,44,000
Rate of basic duty: 20%
SWS 10%

If similar goods were supplied in India, IGST payable as per tariff plan would be 12%. You are required to calculate the assessable value and total duty payable thereon as per provisions of customs law.
Note: Rate of Exchange is as follows:
As per CBIC: 1 US$ = ₹ 63
As per RBI: 1 US$ = ₹ 60
Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value and customs duty payable for goods imported by Chandu Industries from the USA

Particulars Amount(₹)
GIF Value (US$) i.e. Assessable Value 1,44,000
Assessable Value (Converted in ₹ by applying the rate of exchange notified by CBIC as on date of presentation of Bill of Entry. US$ 1,44,000 × ₹ 63) 90,72,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty at 10% 9,07,200
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge (S WS) @ 1096 of Basic Customs Duty 90,720
Assessable Value for the levy of IGST 1,00,69,920
Add: IGST u/s 3(7) @ 12% 12,08,390
Total cost of imported goods 1,12,78,310
Total Customs Duty payable (₹ 9,07,200 + ₹ 90,720 + ₹ 12,08,390) 22,06,310

Question 6.
Following particulars are available in respect of consignment of goods imported:

  • Cost at the factory of the exporter: US$ 20,000
  • Carriage/Freight/insurance up to the port of shipment in the exporter’s country: US$ 400
  • Charges for loading onto the ship at the shipping port: US$ 100
  • Freight charges of the ship for transport up to Indian port: US$ 1,200

Compute the assessable value for the purpose of levy/payment of customs duty.

Answer:
Computation of Assessable value for imported goods as per section 14 of Customs Act read with Rule 10 of Customs Valuation Rules:

Particulars Amount in US$
Cost of Goods at the factory of Exporter 20,000
Add: Carriage/Freight/insurance up to the port of shipment in the exporter’s country 400
Add: Charges for loading onto the ship at the shipping port 100
FOB Value of the goods 20,500
Add Freight charges of the ship for transport up to the Indian port – Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules. 1,200
Add:Insurance(UNASCERTAINABLE,therefore, 1.12596ofFOB Value) – Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules. 230.63
Therefore, CIF Value/Assessable Value 21,930.63

Note:
1 Carriage/Freight/Insurance, as well as charges for loading onto the ship, shall be included in the assessable value as these charges are necessary for importation and are incurred at the place of export.

Question 7.
Care Energy Ltd. imported a lift from England at an invoice price of ₹ 20,00,000. The assessee had supplied raw material worth ₹ 5,00,000 to the supplier for the manufacture of said lift. Due to safety reasons, the lift was not taken to the jetty in the port but was unloaded at the outer anchorage. The charges incurred for such unloading amounted to ₹ 25,000 and the cost incurred on the transport of lift from outer anchorage to jetty was ₹ 50,000. The importer was also required to pay ship demurrage charges of ₹ 10,000. The lift was imported at an actual cost of transport of ₹ 45,000 and insurance charges of ₹ 20,000. Compute its assessable value.
Answer:
Computation of assessable value for Care Energy Ltd. of the Lift imported from England:

Particulars Amount(₹)
FOB Value, being the Invoice price 20,00,000
Add: Raw material supplied by the assessee (Adjustment of Rule 10(1) of Customs Valuation Rules) 5,00,000
FOB Value of Customs 25,00,000
Add: Adjustments as per Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules
Sea Freight 45,000
Ship Demurrage charges 10,000
Lighterage 25,000
Barge charges 50,000 1,30,000
Insurance cost (Actual) 20,000
CIF Value/Assessable Value 26,50,000

Note:
The cost of transportation of the imported goods includes the ship demurrage charges on chartered vessels, lighterage and barge charges i.e. any 1 cost in relation to transport from exporter’s port to importer’s port should be added in the FOB as an adjustment of Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules while computing Assessable Value.

Question 8.
Bhaskar Ltd. has imported certain equipment from Japan at a CIF value of 5,00,000 Yen. Other details are as under:

Air Freight 90,000 Yen
Insurance charges 10,000 Yen
Freight from airport to factory in India ₹ 20,000
Date of presentation of Bill of Entry (Exchange Rate notified by CBIC: 1 Yen = ₹ 0.40) 28th April 2020
Date of arrival of goods in India (Exchange rate notified by CBIC: 1 Yen = ₹ 0.42) 8th May 2020
Commission payable to an agent in India (Not included in CIF value of 5,00,000 Yen) 10% of FOB cost in Indian ₹

Arrive at the Assessable Value for the purposes of customs duty providing brief notes wherever required with appropriate assumptions.
Answer:

Particulars Currency Amount
CIF Value Yen 5,00,000
Less: Air Freight Yen 90,000
Less: Insurance charges Yen 10,000
FOB Value Yen 4,00,000
FOB Value in ? by applying the rate of exchange as notified by CBIC as on date of presentation of Bill of Entry. Yen 4,00,000 × ₹ 0.40) 1,60,000
Add: Commission payable to Indian agent (Yen 4,00,000 × 10.40 × 10%) 16,000
FOB Value 1,76,000
Add: Air Freight, restricted to 20% of FOB Value as goods are imported by Air (Yen 90,000 × 0.40 = 136,000 or ₹ 1,76,000 × 20% = ₹ 35,200, whichever is-less) 35,200
Add: Insurance charges (Actual. Therefore, Yen 10,000 × 0.40) 4,000
Therefore, CIF Value/Assessable Value 2,15,200

Note:
Any post importation transport cost is to be neglected as it is not supposed to form part of assessable value. Therefore, Freight from airport to factory in India amounting to ₹ 20,000 is neglected while computing assessable value.

Question 9.
The following information is furnished by Kanha in respect of articles of Jewellery imported from the USA:

FOB US$ 20,000
Exchange Rate 1 US$ = ₹ 65
Air Freight US$ 4,500
Insurance charges Not known
Landing charges ₹ 1,000
Basic Customs Duty 10%
IGST leviable u/s 3(7) 12%

Calculate the total customs duty payable by Kanha.
Answer:
Computation of Customs duty payable by Kanha:

Particulars Currency Amount(₹)
FOB Value of goods US$ 20,000
Add: Adjustments of Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules
Air Freight (Actual or 20% of FOB, whichever is lower ie. US$ 4,500 or 20% of US$ 20,000 = US$ 4,000, whichever is lower.) us$ 4,000
Insurance (Not known, therefore, 1.125% of FOB i.e. 1.125% of US$ 20,000) us$ 225
Therefore, CIF Value/Assessable Value us$ 24,225
Assessable Value Converted int (US$ 24,225 × ₹ 65) 15,74,625
Add: Basic Customs Duty @10% 1,57,463
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS) at 10% of Basic Customs Duty 15,746
Value for the purpose of levy of IGST 17,47,834
Add: IGST u/s 3(7) @ 12% 2,09,740
Total Cost of imported goods 19,57,574
Total Customs Duty payable (₹ 1,57,463 + ₹ 15,746 + ₹ 2,09,740) 3,82,949

Question 10.
Honest importers imported a machine with accessories from the USA. Compute the assessable value and customs duty payable thereon from
the following data:

CIF Value of the machine (including accessories) US$1,50,000
CIF Value of accessories compulsorily supplied along with machine US$ 30,000
(Not shown separately in the invoice)
Rate of basic customs duty on machine 10%
Rate of basic customs duty on accessories 20%
Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS) 10%
Exchange Rate 1 US$ = 1 60
The effective rate of IGST on similar goods in India 12%

Answer:

Computation of Assessable Value and Customs Duty payable by Honest Importers on Machine imported from the US:

Particulars Amount (₹)
CIF Value of the machine (inclusive of accessories) (US$1,50,000 × ₹ 60}/Assessable Value 90,00,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty @10% 9,00,000
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge @ 10% of Basic Customs Duty 90,000
Value for the purpose of levy of IGST 99,90,000
Add: IGST u/s 3(7) @ 12% 11,98,800
Total Cost of imported goods 1,11,88,800
Therefore, Total customs duty payable (₹ 9,00,000 + ₹ 90,000 + ₹ 11,98,800) or; (Cost of imported goods – Assessable Value) i.e. 1,11,88,800 less 90,00,000 21,88,800

Note:
As per Accessories (Conditions) Rules, 1963, accessories and spare parts compulsorily supplied with main implements are chargeable at the same rate as applicable to the main machine. Therefore, such accessories shall also be chargeable with duty at the rate applicable to the machine i.e. @ 10% ad valorem.

Question 11.
Determine the assessable value for computation of customs duty from the following information relating to a machine imported from the USA by an Indian Company:

Cost of Machine US$ 25,000
Cost of goods supplied by the importer to the exporter to be used in the manufacturing of machine ₹ 2,00,000
Design and development charges payable to exporter US$ 9,000
Installation charges of a machine ₹ 1,00,000
Packing and Insurance charges US$ 1,000
Freight US$ 1,000
Transportation charges of the machine from port to the place of installation ₹ 50,000

Note:
The exchange rate declared by RBI was ₹ 61 per US$ while the rate declared by the Board was ₹ 60 per US$.

Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value in case of imported goods:

Particulars Amount(₹)
Cost of Machine (US$ 25,000 × ₹ 60) 15,00,000
Add: Cost of goods supplied by the importer to the exporter to be used in the manufacturing of machine (Rule 10(1) of Customs Valuation Rules) 2,00,000
Add: Development and design charges payable to the exporter (US$ 9,000 × ₹ 60) 5,40,000
Add: Packing and insurance charges (US$ 1,000 × 60) 60,000
FOB Value 23,00,000
Add: Freight (US$ 1,000 × 60) 60,000
Therefore, CIF Value/Assessable Value 23,60,000

Note:
The rate of Exchange as notified by CBIC is to be considered and hence it is taken at US$ 1 = ₹ 60. The exchange rate declared by RBI is to be neglected.

Question 12.
Zhi Ltd. has imported a machine to be used for providing a taxable service. The assessable value of the imported machine as approved by customs is ₹ 5,00,000. Customs Duty at 10% is payable. Further, if the machine is supplied in India, IGST @ 12% is leviable on such machine. Social Welfare Surcharge is applicable at prevailing rates.
You are required to:

  1. Calculate the total customs duty payable on such machine; and
  2. Examine whether Zuhi Ltd. can avail Input Tax Credit and if yes, how much Input Tax Credit can be availed.

Answer:
1. Computation of total Customs Duty payable:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Assessable Value of imported machine 5,00,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty at 10% 50,000
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge at 10% of Basic Customs Duty 5,000
Value for the purpose of levy of IGST 5,55,000
Add: IGST @ 12% 66,600
Total Cost of imported Goods 6,21,600
Therefore, Total Customs Duty payable 1,21,600

2. Zuhi Ltd. can avail Input Tax Credit only for IGST of ₹ 66,600. It should g be noted that Input Tax Credit cannot be availed with respect to basic p customs duty as well as Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS).

Question 13.
SM Ltd. imported machinery at a FOB value of ₹ 34,00,000. Does this sum include ₹ 4,00,000 attributable to post importation activities to be called by the seller? SM Ltd. had supplied raw material to the seller worth ₹ 10,00,000 for the manufacture of said machine. The goods were imported by vessel and the actual cost of transport is ₹ 1,60,000. The importer has also paid demurrage charges of ₹ 10,000 and lighterage and barge charges ₹ 30,000, in addition, to said ₹ 1,60,000. SM Ltd. also paid ₹ 50,000 for transportation of goods from the port of entry to the Inland Container. The actual cost of insurance is ₹ 1,00,000.

Compute the assessable value based on Rule 3 read with Rule 10 of the Customs Valuation Rules, 2007, assuming the amount attributable to post importation activities is not payable as a condition of sale of imported goods.
Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value of imported goods

Particulars Amount(₹) Amount(₹)
Invoice Price of goods including amount attributable to post importation activities 34,00,000
Less: Amount attributable to post importation activities included above (4,00,000)
Net Amount to be considered 30,00,000
Add: Raw material supplied by the assessee as per Rule 10(1) of Customs Valuation Rules 10,00,000
FOB Value of Goods 40,00,000
Add Adjustments as per Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules.
Transport cost
Sea Freight 1,60,000
Ship Demurrage charges 10,000
Lighterage and Barge charges 30,000 2,00,000
Insurance (Actual) 1,00,000
Therefore, CIF Value/Assessable Value 43,00,000

Notes:
1. The cost of transport of imported goods includes the ship demurrage charges on charted vessels, lighterage or barge charges. Therefore, amounts towards those are added to the FOB value of goods while computing assessable value.

2. Charges for post importation activities shall not form part of the assessable value of goods, since the same are not payable as a condition of sale. Hence, they are deducted from ₹ 34,00,000 Le. Invoice price as it included the same.

3. Freight incurred from the port of entry to inland container depot is not includible in assessable value as it is posted importation transportation cost.

Question 14.
A material was imported by air at a CIF price of US$ 5,000. Freight paid was US$ 1,500 and insurance cost was US$ 500. The banker realized the payment from the importer at the exchange rate of ₹ 65 per US dollar. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) notified the exchange rate at ₹ 63 per US$. Find the value of material for the purpose of levying customs duty.
Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value of imported goods:

Particulars Amount
CIF Value of goods 5,000
Less: Air Freight (1,500)
Less: Insurance Charges (500)
FOB Value 3,000
Add: Adjustments as per Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules
Freight (As it is by air, it shall be lower of 2: Actual i.e. US$ 1,500 or 20% of FOB i.e. 20% of US$ 3,000 = US$ 600) 600
Insurance (Actual) 500
CIF Value/Assessable Value in US$ 4,100
Therefore, Assessable Value converted in ₹ by applying the rate of exchange as notified by CBIC as on date of presentation of Bill of Entry (the US $ 4,100 × ₹ 63) 2,58,300

Question 15.
Compute the total customs duties and integrated tax payable based on the following information:

  • FOB Value of Solar cells: US$ 1,000
  • Freight from exporting country: US$ 250
  • Insurance: US$10
  • Buying Commission: US$ 50
  • Date of filing Bill of Entry: 20th January 2020 (Rate of Basic Customs Duty: 5%, Safeguard Duty: 70%)
  • Exchange rate notified by RBI: ₹ 70.05 and by CBIC: 170 for 1 US$ on date of presentation of the bill of entry.

Answer:
Computation of total Customs duty and Integrated tax payable

Particulars Amount (US$)
FOB Value of solar cells 1,000
Freight from exporting country (Note 1) 200
Insurance 10
Buying commission (Note 2)
CIF Value 1,210
Amount (₹)
CIF Value (US$1,210 × ₹ 70 per US$) (Note 3) i.e. Assessable Value in ₹ 84,700
Basic Customs Duty @ 5% (Note 4) (₹ 84,700 × 5%) (A) 4,235
Safeguard Duty @ 70% (Note 5) (B) 59,290
Social Welfare @ 10% of Basic Customs Duty (Note 6) (C) 424
Value for levy of IGST 1,48,649
Integrated Tax leviable @ 5% (₹ 1,48,649 × 5%) (Note 7) (D) 7,432
Total Cost of imported goods 1,56,081
Total Customs Duty payable (A + B + C + D) 71,381

Notes:

1. Actual freight incurred or 20% whichever is less has to be adopted when the import is by air (Assumed). If it is assumed that goods are imported by any mode other than by air then the full value of freight US $ 250 shall be included in the assessable value.

2. “Buying commission” is not included in the assessable value as it is the amount paid by the importer to his agent [Any amount paid to exporter directly or indirectly is only included],

3. Rate of exchange notified by CBIC on the date of presentation of the bill of entry is considered.

4. Rate of duty is the rate prevalent on the date of presentation of the bill of entry or the rate prevalent on the date of entry inwards whichever is later (Section 15 of Customs Act, 1962)

5. Safeguard duty has to be applied on the CIF Value

6. Social welfare surcharge is levied @10% on Basic Custom Duty only.

7. Integrated tax is levied on the sum total of the assessable value of the imported goods, customs duties, and applicable Social Welfare Surcharge. The integrated tax rate is assumed to be 5%.

Question 16.
A commodity is imported into India from a country covered by a notification issued by the Central Government under section 9A of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. Following particulars are made available:
CIF Value of the consignment: US$ 25,000
Quantity imported: 500 kgs
Exchange rate applicable: ₹ 65 = 1 US$
Basic customs duty: 10%
SWS as applicable.

As per the notification, the anti-dumping duty will be equal to the difference between the cost of the commodity calculated at US$ 70 per kg. and the landed value of the commodity as imported.

Appraise the liability on account of normal duties, cess, and anti-dumping duty. Assume that only Basic customs duty and SWS are payable.
Answer:
Computation of basic customs duty, SWS, and Anti-Dumping duty payable:

Particulars Amount(?)
CIF Value of the Consignment/Assessable Value (US $ 25,000 X ? 65 per US $) 16,25,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty @10% 1,62,500
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge at 10% of Basic Customs Duty 16,250
Landed Value 18,03,750
Cost of commodity for purpose of Anti-Dumping duty notification (500 Kg X US$70 per kg X ? 65 per US $) 22,75,000
Anti-Dumping Duty (? 22,75,000 – ? 18,03,750) 4,71,250

Notes:

1. IGST under section 3 (7) of Customs Tariff Act is not leviable as the question clearly states that only Basic Customs Duty and SWS are chargeable apart from Anti-Dumping Duty.

2. For the purpose of notification imposing Anti-Dumping Duty, “landed value” means the assessable value as determined under the Customs Act, 1962 and includes all duties of customs except duties levied under sections 3, 8B, 9, and 9A of the Customs Tariff Act.

3. No SWS is imposable on Anti-Dumping Duty.

Question 17.
Miss Priya imported certain goods weighing 1000 kgs having a CIF value of US$ 40,000. The exchange rate of 1 USD was ₹ 65 on the date of presentation of a bill of entry. Basic customs duty chargeable is @ 10% and Social Welfare Cess is as applicable. However, vide Notification issued by the Government of India, anti-dumping duty has been imposed on these goods.

The anti-dumping duty will be equal to the difference between the amount calculated @ USD 60 per kg and the ‘landed value’ of goods. You are required to compute the amount of customs duty and of the anti-dumping duty payable by Miss Priya.
Note:
Neglect GST.
Answer:
Computation of amount of Customs Duty payable including the Anti-Dumping duty

Particulars Amount (₹)
CIF Value of the consignment i.e. Assessable Value in ₹ (US$ 40,000 × ₹ 65 per US$) 26,00,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty @ 10% 2,60,000
Add: Social Welfare Surcharge (S’W S) @ 10% of Basic Customs Duty 26,000
Therefore, Landed Value of the Goods 28,86,000
Cost of commodity for the purposes of Anti-Dumping notification (1,000 kgs × US$ 60 per kg × ₹ 65 per dollar) 39,00,000
Anti Dumping Duty payable (₹ 39,00,000 – ₹ 28,86,000) 10,14,000
Therefore, Total Customs Duty payable (₹ 2,60,000 + ₹ 26,000 + ₹ 10,14,000) 13,00,000

Note: For the purposes of notification imposing Anti-Dumping duty, landed | value means the assessable value as determined under the Customs Act,1962 and includes all duties of customs except duties levied under sections 3, 8B, 9, and 9A of the said Customs Tariff Act, 1975.

Question 18.
With reference to section 9AA of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, state briefly the provisions of refund of anti-dumping duty with reference to relevant case law.
Answer:
According to the provisions of Section 9AA of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, wherein importer proves to the satisfaction of the Central Government that he has paid any anti-dumping duty imposed on any article, in excess of the actual margin on dumping in relation to such article, he shall be entitled to refund of such duty. However, the importer will not be entitled to a refund of provisional anti-dumping duty under Section 9AA as the same is refundable under section 9A(2) of the said Act. Refund of excess anti-dumping duty paid is subject to provisions of unjust enrichment. This view was held by Apex Court in the case of – Automotive Type Manufacturers Association v. Designated Authority 2011 (63) ELT 481 Whether Anti-dumping duty/safeguard duty is to be added for determining the value for integrated tax?

Question 19.
The assessable value of an article imported into India is ₹ 100; Basic Customs Duty is 10% ad valorem; Social Welfare Charge is 10%; Safeguard duty is ₹ 20; Integrated tax rate is 18% and Compensation cess is 15%. Compute total tax liability
Answer:
Yes. In cases where imported goods are liable to Anti-Dumping Duty or Safeguard Duty, value for calculation of IGST as well as Compensation Cess shall also include Anti-Dumping Duty amount and Safeguard duty amount.

Particulars Amount (₹)
Assessable Value 100
Basic Customs Duty @10% 10
Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS) @ 10% of 10 1
Safeguard Duty 20
Value for purpose of IGST (₹ 100 + 10 + 1 + 20) 131
Integrated Tax @ 18% (₹ 131 × 18%) 24
Compensation Cess @ 15% of ₹ 131 20
Total Tax liability (₹ 10 + 1 + 20 + 24 + 20) 75

Question 20.
A consignment of 800 metric tonnes of edible oil of Malaysian origin was imported by a Charitable organization in India for free distribution to below poverty line citizens in a backward area under the scheme designed by the Food and Agricultural Organisation. This being a special transaction, a nominal price of US$ 10 per metric tonne was charged for the consignment to cover the freight and insurance charges. The Customs house found out that at or about the time of importation of this gift consignment, there were the following imports of edible oil of Malaysian origin:

Quantity imported in metric tonnes Unit Price in US$ CIF
20 260
100 220
500 200
900 175
400 180
780 160

The rate of exchange on the relevant date was 1 US$ = ₹ 65 and the rate of basic customs duty was 10% ad valorem. There is no Integrated tax and GST Compensation Cess.

Calculate the amount of duty leviable on the consignment under the Customs Act, 1962 with appropriate assumptions and explanations where required.
Answer:
Computation of Assessable Value as per Rule 4 of Customs Valuation Rules i.e. Valuation on basis of Identical goods and total Customs duty payable: 1

Particulars Amount(₹)
CIF Value i.e. Assessable Value of 800 metric tonnes @ US$ 160 per metric tonne (Converted in ₹ : 800 × 160 × ₹ 65) 83,20,000
Add: Basic Customs Duty @10% 8,32,000
Add: SWS at 10% of Basic Customs Duty 83,200
The total cost of imported goods 92,35,200
Total Customs Duty payable (₹ 8,32,000 + ₹ 83,200) or (₹ 92,35,200 – 83,20,000) 9,15,200

Notes:

1. In the given case, US$ 10 per metric tonne has been paid only towards freight and insurance charges and no amount has been paid or payable towards the cost of goods. Thus, there is no transaction value for the said goods. In such a case, the value of imported goods shall be the transaction value of identical goods sold for export to India and imported at or about the same time as the goods being valued. (Rule 4 of Customs Valuation Rules)

2. The transaction value of comparable imports should be at the same commercial level and in substantially the same quantity as the goods being valued. Therefore, consignments of 20 and loo metric tonnes cannot be considered to be substantially the same quantity. Hence, the remaining 4 consignments are left for our consideration.

3. Remaining 4 consignments are incomparable quantities that can be considered for valuation purposes. However, the unit prices in the 4 consignments are different. Rule 4 of Customs Valuation Rules stipulates that in applying Rule 4 of said Rules if more than one transaction value of identical goods is found, the lowest of such value shall be used to determine the value of imported goods. Accordingly, the unit price of consignment undervaluation is taken at US$ 160 per metric tonne.

Question 21.
From the following information you are required to determine the export duty and explain your assumptions:

  • FOB Price of goods: US$ 1,20,000
  • Shipping Bill presented electronically on: 26.04.2020
  • The proper officer passed the order permitting clearance and loading of goods for export on: 5.5.2020
  • The rate of Exchange and Rate of Export duty is as under:
Date Rate of Exchange Rate of Export Duty
26.04.2020 1 US $ = > 60 9%
05.05.2020 1 US $ = > 61 10%

(e) Rate of exchange is notified for export by CBIC.
Answer:
Computation of Export Duty payable

Particulars Amount(₹)
Transaction Value of exports is FOB price of goods (No Further adjustment is to be made) US$ 1,20,000
Rate of Exchange (it is to be taken as notified by CBIC as on date of presentation of shipping bill as per section 14 of Customs Act) ₹ 60 per US$
Assessable Value in ₹ (US$ 1,20,000 × ₹ 60) ₹ 72,00,000
Rate of duty (it is as on the date on which Proper Officer makes an order permitting clearance and loading of the goods for exportation) 10%
Exports Duty payable @ 10% (No Social Welfare Surcharge is levied on exports) ₹ 7,20,000

Question 22.
Ms. Poorvisha has exported some goods to Sydney, Australia. She provides the following details to you:

  1. CIF value of the goods = AUD 2,10,000.
  2. FOB price of goods: (Australian $) AUD 2,00,000.
  3.  Shipping bill presented electronically on 29th April 2020.
  4. The proper officer passed an order permitting clearance and loading of goods for export (Let Export Order) on 2nd May 2020.
  5. During the interval between the presentation of the shipping bill and clearance of goods, there were changes in the rate of export duty as well as the rate of exchange.

The rate of export duty and rate of exchange details are as follows:

Date Rate of exchange Rate of Export duty
29-04-2020 1 AUD = ₹ 70 11%
02-05-2020 1 AUD = ₹ 70.50 10%

You are required to calculate the export duty payable by the exporter.
Answer:
Computation of export Duty Payable

Particulars Amount(₹)
FOB price of goods [Note 1] AUD 200,000
Value in Indian currency (AUD 2,00,000 × t 70) [Note 2] ₹ 1,40,00,000
Export duty @ 10% [Note 3] ₹ 14,00,000

Notes:
1. As per section 14(1) of the Customs Act, 1962, the assessable value of the export goods is the transaction value of such goods which is the price actually paid or payable for the goods when sold for export from India for delivery at the time and place of exportation.

2. As per the third proviso to section 14(1) of the Customs Act, 1962, assessable value has to be calculated with reference to the rate of exchange notified by the CBIC on the date of presentation of a shipping bill of export.

3. As per section 16(7)(n) of the Customs Act, 1962, in case of goods entered for export, the rate of duty prevalent on the date on which the proper officer makes an order permitting clearance and loading of the goods for exportation, is considered.

Question 23.
Is the transaction value under the Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007, acceptable even if goods are sold to related persons? Give reasons.
Answer:
As per Rule 3(3), of Customs Valuation (Determination of Value of Imported Goods) Rules, 2007 in the following two cases the transaction value shall be accepted even if goods are sold to related persons:

1. the examination of the circumstances of the sale of the imported goods indicates that the relationship did not influence the price.
2. whenever the importer demonstrates that the declared value of the goods being valued closely approximates to one of the following values ascertained at or about the same time:

  • the transaction value of identical goods, or of similar goods, in sales to unrelated buyers in India;
  • the deductive value for identical goods or similar goods;
  • the computed value for identical goods or similar goods:

Provided that in applying the values used for comparison, due account | shall be taken of demonstrated difference in commercial levels, quantity levels, adjustments in accordance with the provisions of Rule 10, and cost incurred by the seller in sales in which he and the buyers are not related.

Question 24.
St. Thomas Hospital and Research Centre imported a machine from Long Life Scientific Ltd., the USA for in-house research. The price of the machine was settled at the US $ 8,000. The machine was shipped on 10th March 2020. Meanwhile, the hospital authorities negotiated for a reduction in the price. As a result, Long Life Scientific Ltd. agreed to reduce the price by $ 500 and communicated the revised price of $ 7,500 by sending a fax message dated 14th March 2020. The machine arrived in India on 17th March 2020. The Commissioner of Customs has decided to take the original price as the transaction value of the goods on the ground that the price is reduced only after the goods have been shipped. Do you agree with the step taken by the commissioner? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
No, the commissioner’s approach is not correct in the law. As per section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962, the transaction value is the price actually paid or payable for the goods when sold for export to India for delivery at the time and place of importation. Further, the Supreme Court in the case of “Garden Silk Mills y. U 01” has held that importation gets complete only when the goods become part of the mass of goods within the country.

In the given case, the price of the goods was reduced while the goods were in transit, it could not be contended that the price was revised after importation took place. Hence, the goods should be valued as per the reduced price, which was the price actually paid at the time of importation.

Question 25.
Write a short note on the following:
(a) Safeguard Duty
(b) Anti-dumping duty
Answer:
(a) Safeguard Duty (Section 8 of Customs Tariff Act, 1975)
The Central Government may impose safeguard duty on specified imported goods if it is satisfied that the goods are being imported in large quantities and they are causing serious injury to the domestic industry. The safeguard duty is imposed for the purpose of protecting the interests of any domestic industry in India aiming to make it more competitive.

Conditions:
1. Safeguard duty is product-specific.
2. It is in addition to any other duty.

Safeguard duty, unless revoked earlier, cease to have an effect on the expiry of four years from the date of imposition. If the Central Government is of the opinion that the domestic industry has taken measures to adjust to such injury or threat thereof and it is necessary that the safeguard duty should continue to be imposed, it may extend the period of such imposition.

However, in no case, the safeguard duty shall continue to be imposed beyond a period of ten years from the date on which such duty was first imposed. If the Central Government is of the opinion that increased imports have not caused or threatened to cause serious injury to a domestic industry, it shall refund the duty so collected.

Exemptions from safeguard duty:
1. If an article originating from a developing country and the share of imports of that article from that country does not exceed 3% of the total imports of that article in India it should be exempted from safeguard duty.

2. If an article originating from more than one developing country and aggregate of imports from developing countries each with less than 3% import share taken together does not exceed 9% of the total imports of that article into India then it should be exempted from safeguard duty. Articles imported by 100% EOU or units in a free trade zone or Special Economic Zone safeguard duty shall not be applicable unless specifically made applicable in the notification.

(2) Anti-Dumping Duty (Section 9 of Customs Tariff Act, 1975)

Dumping: Dumping means exporting goods to India, at prices lower than the price in the domestic market of the exporting country, subject to certain adjustments.
When the export price of a product imported into India is less than the normal value of like articles sold in the domestic market of the exporter the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, impose an anti-dumping duty not exceeding the margin of dumping in relation to such article. Anti-dumping duty is country-specific ie. it is imposed on imports from a particular country. Normal value means the comparable price in the ordinary course of trade, in the exporting country, after making adjustments to the extent of conditions of sale, taxation, etc.

Computation of Anti-dumping duty: The anti-dumping duty is the margin of dumping or injury margin whichever is lower.

The margin of dumping: Difference between the export price and normal value of an article.

Normal Value means the comparable price in the ordinary course of trade, in the exporting country, after making adjustments to the extent of conditions of sale, taxation, etc.

Injury Margin: It means the difference between the fair selling price of domestic industry and the landed cost of imported products.

Fair Selling price: Price at which the industry has expected to charge under normal circumstances in the Indian market.

Valuation Of Imports And Exports Notes

  • Format for computation of Assessable Value in case of imported | goods as per section 14 of Customs Act read with Rule 10 of Customs Valuation Rules: I
Particulars Amount
a. Price of the goods at exporter’s factorv/godown/shop xxxx
b.Add: Cost of transporting goods from exporters factory to the exporter’s port, insurance, loading charges at exporter’s port, etc. Xxxx
c. Free on Board Price (FOB) of the goods Xxxx
d. Add: Adjustments as per Rule 10(1) of Customs Valuation Rules (Excluding buying commission, charges for post importation activities) Xxxx
e. Customs FOB (As per ICAI’s recommendation) Xxxx
f. Add: Adj ustnwnts as per Rule 10(2) of Customs Valuation Rules: Xxxx
(a) Actual Cost of transportation, loading, unloading and handling charges associated with the delivers’ of imported goods to the place of importation. (In case of AIR, it shall be actual or 20% of FOB, whichever is lower). If Transport cost is UNASCERTA1NABLE, then 20% of FOB value.

If FOB Value is also not ascertainable, then it will be 20% of  “FoB Value + Cost of Insurance”

Xxxx
(b) Actual cost of Insurance. If UNASCERTAINABLE – 1.125% of the FOB. If FOB value is not ascertainable, then it will be 1.125%of “FOB + cost of transportation, loading, unloading and handling charges” Xxxx
CIF Value i.e. Assessable Value for the purpose of computing customs duties. (1f it is in foreign currency, convert in  by applying rate of exchange as notified by CBIC as on date of presentation of Bill of Entry) xxxx

However, if the valuation cannot be done as per section 14, then sequentially, the following rules will be applied:

Rule 4: Identical Goods
Rule 5: Similar Goods
Rule 6: Residual method
Rule 7: Deductive Value
Rule 8: Computed Value

  • Types of duties under customs:

a. Basic customs duty
b. Integrated Tax – Section 3(7) of Customs Tariff Act, 1975
c. Goods and Services Tax Compensation Cess – Section 3(9) of Customs Tariff Act, 1975
d. Additional Duty of Customs (Countervailing Duty i.e. CVD) – Section 3 of Customs Tariff Act (Equivalent to Excise duty which still is leviable on the manufacture of some goods)
e. Special Additional Duty (Special Countervailing Duty Le. Special CVD) – It is to offset the effect of VAT (It is applicable on some limited goods)
f. Protective Duty
g. Safeguard Duty
h. Countervailing Duty on subsidized articles Anti-Dumping Duty
j. Social Welfare Surcharge
k. Road and Infrastructure Cess

Valuation for Exports:
Price paid/payable for delivery at the time and place of Exportation which essentially means that the price up to a port in India when goods are exported has to be considered. (Le. FOB Value of Exports is its assessable value)

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Crisis Management & Risk and Liability Mitigation – Resolution of Corporate Disputes, Non-Compliances & Remedies Important Questions

Crisis Management & Risk and Liability Mitigation – Resolution of Corporate Disputes, Non-Compliances & Remedies Important Questions

Question 1.
POB Limited wants to design and implement an effective Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) system. Evaluate the challenges likely to be faced by the Company during implementation of ERM system.
Answer:
Risk management is also known as Enterprise Risk Management (‘ERM’), is a systematic and holistic approach for firms to address all their risks, whether operational, strategic or financial, Comprehensively. ERM focuses on identifying risks, developing and monitoring risk management system and reacting to risk events when they occur.

POB Limited may face the following challenges in designing and implementing an effective ERM system, including:
1. Effectively linking risk and strategy: Integrating risk management into the overall corporate strategy is a challenge for many Indian firms. The challenge is to have an ERM system that encompasses a process capable of being applied in strategy setting across the enterprise.

2. Implementing cost-effective risk management for small and medi¬um-sized enterprises: While the costs of risk management failures can be high, designing and implementing efficient ERM can also be quite costly, especially for small and medium-sized firms.

3. Addressing all major areas of risk: ERM requires a firm to take a portfolio view of risk; boards must consider how various risks inter-relate, rather than treating each business and risk individually. This is a significant challenge for many boards.

4. Mitigating new risks: In India, many complex areas of risks have emerged in the last decade or so, which has made risk management particularly challenging. For example, some traditional areas of risk, such as political instability and strikes and unrest, appear to have subsided while others, such as information and cyber security as well as terrorism and insurgency, have increased in prominence.

Companies operating in various industries have experienced the theft of data and sensitive information. For companies in major cities, the threat of terror attacks has become a growing cause for concern, which can be hard to manage by the company itself.

Question 2.
ABC & Co., Chartered Accountants, are the Statutory Auditors, as well as the Internal Auditors of Super Sky Limited. Evaluate whether the same is permitted under the Companies Act, 2013. If not, what are the penal provisions under the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer:
Yes, the additional fee does not absolve the Company from the liability of penalty or any other action under the Act for such default or failure. One of the significant changes brought in by the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017 is the amendment in section 403 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Pursuant to the said amendment, the non-offence period of 270 days has been omitted from the Companies Act, 2013 and the filing of forms, returns or documents within the time prescribed under the relevant provision has been made mandatory.

Accordingly, the non-filing of forms, returns or documents within the time prescribed under relevant provision (for e.g., Form AOC-4 within 30 days of date of AGM) is now considered as a default or failure and the payment of additional fees does not absolve the company from the liability of penalty or any other action under the Act for such default or failure.

Question 3.
Distinguish between General Liability Insurance and Professional Liability Insurance.
Answer:
General Liability Insurance covers business from a few “general” lawsuits that any business could face. It triggers when a third party (Le., anyone who doesn’t work for the company) sues the business over:

  1. Bodily injuries they incurred on the commercial premises,
  2. Damage caused to their property,
  3. Advertising injuries (e.g. slander, libel, misappropriation, and copyright infringement).

General Liability Insurance pays for the legal expenses (lawyers’ fees, court costs, and settlements or judgments). Any small-business owner, no matter their industry or the size of their business, can face these claims. That’s why many consider this policy to be the keystone of a business protection plan. Professional Liability Insurance is also known as “Errors and Omissions Insurance” or “Malpractice Insurance”. Its coverage focuses specifically on the lawsuits that stem from the professional services rendered.

Though this policy is especially important for service providers to carry, most small business owners can benefit from its coverage. It shields the insured from third-party lawsuits alleging:

  • Negligent professional services.
  • Failure to uphold contractual promises.
  • Incomplete or shoddy work.
  • Mistakes or omissions.

These torts are among the most expensive a business owner can face. One need not be at fault to be sued, an unhappy client may name the business in a lawsuit to recoup the “losses” they incurred because of the work carried out. “Crisis Management is not necessarily the same thing as risk management”.

Question 4.
What is Crisis Management and how is it different from risk management. Explain in detail guidelines/recommendations for establishing a good crisis management plan.
Answer:
1. Crisis management is the identification of threats to an organization and its stakeholders, and the methods used by the Organization to deal with these threats.

2. An organization may face various types of crises like natural crisis, technological crisis, confrontation crisis, etc.

3. Crisis management involves dealing with crises in a manner that minimizes damage and allows the affected organization to recover quickly. Dealing properly with a crisis can be especially important for a company’s public relations.

4. Businesses that effectively put a continuity plan in place in case of unforeseen contingencies can mitigate the effects of any negative event that occurs. The process of having a continuity plan in place in the event of a crisis is known as crisis management.

5. Crisis management is different from risk management. Unlike risk management, which involves planning for events that might occur in future, crisis management involves reacting to negative events during and after they have occurred. For example, an oil company may have a plan in place to deal with the possibility of an oil spill, but if such a disaster actually occurs, the magnitude of the spill, the backlash of public opinion, and the cost of clean-up can vary greatly and may
exceed expectations.

6. As Crisis may come in several forms and it is recommended in all cases that a company be prepared ahead of time with a crisis management plan.

The following guidelines are recommended for establishing good crisis management plans:

  • Employ a professional crisis manager who can help in planning crisis management processes.
  • Initiate frequent training and refresher courses on handling crisis. Drills and fake operations must frequently take place to keep refreshing stakeholders on emergency responses to crisis.
  • Form a crisis team to work under Initiate systems that can effectively monitor or detect foreseeable crisis signals
  • early enough in order to tackle the situation before it gets out of hand. ,
  • Provide a list of key persons in case of a crisis and their contacts. The contact information must be displayed where anyone can see and easily access them.
  • Identify the ground person to be notified immediately when a crisis occurs.
  • Apart from a crisis manager, there must be a coordinating person among employees who possess firsthand news on a looming crisis. It should be the same person who can be trusted by his colleagues with vital information on any suspected crisis.
  • Identify a central point where the employees can assemble and the exit points to use in case of a crisis. Emergency exit doors with ease of opening them must be labelled well and an emergency central place identified and properly labelled as well.
  • Regular testing of the crisis management process and emergency equipment and updating them frequently or as needed the leadership of a crisis manager.
  • Planning responses and crisis management processes for various potential crises is highly recommended. It takes several approaches and processes to address different crisis.

Question 5.
“Directors and Officers (D & O) insurance has become closely associated with broader management liabilities insurance, which covers liabilities of the corporate itself as well as the personal liabilities for the directors and officers of the company”. Enumerate the reasons to buy D & O policy.
Answer:
Directors and officers insurance affords protection to directors and officers from liability arising from actions connected to their corporate responsibilities. The policy provides indemnity to the directors and officers in respect of Legal costs in defending proceedings brought against them alleging wrongful acts.

Key reasons to buy D&O insurance are:
1. Personal assets of directors are at risk: If a director has been accused of breaching duties, their personal assets are at risk in case they don’t have any D&O insurance.

2. Defending a legal action is an expensive affair: The legal costs and expenses in litigations involving directors are usually complex and costly.

3. Investors can file a case: If investors believe that they have incurred losses due to mismanagement of the company, they could approach the court to seek compensation.

4. Employees can sue: It is not only shareholders who can file a case against the directors as even employees reach the court to challenge the decision of the directors. It is a hard reality that in today’s corporate world, there has been a rise in the number of cases filed by employees, related to sexual harassment or wrongful dismissal.

5. Customers can take legal actions: In some cases, customers also reach the court against misrepresentations made in the advertisement materials and deceptive trade practices.

6. Enquiry initiated by regulatory authorities: Regulatory bodies like SEBI, Revenue Department, etc., can initiate enquiry against directors.

7. In case of bankruptcy or insolvency: If faced with bankruptcy, creditors can pursue legal action against directors if they think that they have not acted in their best interest.

8. Helps in attracting/retaining talent: Not having a comprehensive D&O may discourage talented employees from joining the company as they know will not be guarded against any legal case if arise in future.

9. D&O claims are not covered under any other policy: Most of the people believe that D&O claims are also covered under other liability insurance plans like professional indemnity.

Question 6.
“A legal compliance program is generally defined as a formal program specifying an organization’s policies, procedures, and actions with an in- lent to prevent and detect violations of laws and regulations”. Comment briefly.
Answer:
A legal compliance program is a set of internal policies and procedures of a company to comply with laws, rules, and regulations or to uphold business reputation. A compliance team examines the rules set forth by government bodies, creates a compliance program, implements it through¬out the company, and enforces adherence to the program.

Legal Compliance programs need to be tailored to the specific company’s needs, there are principles to consider in reviewing a program like:
There should be a strong “tone at the top” from the board and senior management emphasizing the company’s commitment to full compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, as well as internal policies.

There should be clear reporting systems in place both at the employee level and at the management level so that employees understand when and to whom they should report suspected violations and so that management understands the board’s or committee’s informational needs for its oversight purposes.

Question 7.
“Several large companies and financial institutions worldwide no Longer exist today as they neglected the basic rules of Corporate Governance, Risk Management and Control”.
Answer:
The importance of corporate governance in risk management is amply supported by the reasoning of the Kumar Mangalam Bina Committee on Corporate Governance to implement corporate governance in India.

Risk Management is an integral component of corporate governance and good management. There is a growing realization that corporate governance has an impact on enterprise risk management. Several large companies and financial institutions worldwide no longer exist or have been taken over precisely because they neglected the basic rules of risk management and control.

Some common risk management problems in relation to corporate governance that appeared in many financial institutions before and during the crisis according to the OECD (2009) was because of following reasons:

  • Risks were frequently not linked to strategy which is a key issue to ensuring that risk management has a focus on the business context;
  • Risk definitions are often poorly expressed. Better risk definitions (context, event, consequence) are contrary to a lot of current thinking in risk management which has shorten risk descriptions to the smallest number of words possible;
  • Organizations weren’t always in a position to develop intelligent responses to risks;
  • Boards didn‘t take stakeholders and guardians into account in detailing responses to risk
  • Important parts of the value chain were outsourced to others

Question 8.
“Anticipating future risks is a key element of avoiding or mitigating those risks before they escalate into crisis.” Explain.
Answer:
The company’s risk management structure should include an ongoing effort to assess and analyze the most likely areas of future risk for the company, including how the contours and interrelationships of existing risks may change and how the company’s processes for anticipating future risks are developed.

This includes understanding risks inherent in the company’s strategic plans, risks arising from the competitive landscape and the potential for technology and other developments to impact the company’s profitability and prospects for sustainable and long-term value creation.

Anticipating future risks is a key element of avoiding or mitigating those risks before they escalate into crises. In reviewing risk management, the board or relevant committees should ask the company’s executives to discuss the most likely sources of material future risks and how the company is addressing any significant potential vulnerability.

Question 9.
“Errors and Omissions Insurance is a special type of coverage that protects a Company against claims that a professional service provided, caused client to suffer financial harm due to mistakes on the part of professional or because he may have failed to perform some service.”
Answer:
Professional indemnity insurance is also known as professional liability insurance and also as Errors & Omissions (E&O) insurance. It is a type of liability insurance that works to protect businesses and individuals who provide consultation and services with the compensation for full and hefty costs arising from the loss that they have caused to their client.

The coverage provided by the insurance company focuses on the alleged failure of the service delivery by the Company, which has led to the financial loss due to errors and omissions in the service or consultation.

Some reasons that might make it necessary to have E&O are as under:
High risk of lawsuits: Not having professional indemnity insurance may put a person at high risks as many companies may take advantage of the professionals since they are not completely secured. Moreover, it can put the Company/Professional in a financial loss if a case is filed against them.

Risk of losing business: Many clients prefer those companies which has such insurance for doing business, at times they are keen to know if the Company or any of its employees makes a mistake, whether it will be covered or not.

Question 10.
Taking a case of Crisis Management in corporate houses, throw light on its significance.
Answer:
1. Facebook’s silence about its data breach:
The social media giant reportedly chose to stay silent even though it had known for three years that Cambridge Analytica – the consulting firm hired by President Donald Trump’s 2016 campaign – improperly accessed information on millions of people.

Since then, the company has racked up misstep after misstep. From the failure to issue an immediate statement from Chief Executive Officer Mark Zuckerberg when Facebook finally admitted what happened to hiring a shady opposition research firm to investigate its critics. Facebook was the subject of more trouble when the New York Times reported that it shared even more user data with outside companies than previously acknowledged.

Significance of Crisis Management:
When the news broke, disclosure is the most effective strategy in a crisis because the truth always emerges. Companies and even the government need to explain what happened on their own terms and regain confidence by demonstrating that they have learned a lesson and are taking immediate steps to change course.

2. Coca-Cola PR Crisis Management:
Background:

  • The company came under a storm of criticism after The New York Times charged that Coca-Cola was funding obesity research that attempted to disprove the link between obesity and diet and shift the problem to lack of exercise.
  • The article says Coca-Cola, desperate to halt sliding sales, financed the new non-profit Global Energy Balance Network. Critics call it a front group created to espouse misinformation and deflect the role of soft drinks in the spread of obesity and Type 2 diabetes.

Kent’s reaction to the crisis:

  1. Corporations under fire can look to Kent’s op-editorial for guidance when responding to attacks and considering apologies.
  2. Kent outlines the company’s response and admits the company’s misstep while not exactly apologizing in his opinion, Coca-Cola: We’ll Do Better.
  3. In a matter-of-fact tone, Kent takes the accusations head-on, acknowledging the accusations that it has deceived the public about its support for scientific research. He defends the company by saying it is attempting to tackle the global obesity epidemic and has always had good intentions.

A New Strategy:

  • Kent also admits the company’s strategy “is not working.” “I am disappointed that some actions we have taken to fund scientific research and health and well-being programs have served only to create more confusion and mistrust,” he writes.
  • He explains how the company will act going forward. First, he says it will act with even more transparency. The company will publish a list of health and well-being partnerships and research activities it has funded in the past five years on its website and will update the list every six months.
  • The company will continue its efforts to provide healthy options, he says, such as waters, lower-calorie and lower-sugar drinks, diet soda and zero-calorie drinks. At the same time, he inserts a sales plug by referring to Coca-Cola’s wide range of beverage options.
  • Opinion stresses the company’s commitment to fighting obesity. “We want to get focused on real change, and we have a great opportunity ahead of us,” he says. “We are determined to get this right.”

Kent successfully filled the three O’s of crisis management
Mark Braykovich, vice president at Atlanta-based The Wilbert Group, says Kent successfully filled the three O’s of crisis management: Own up to it. Assuming responsibility at some level usually helps the corporate reputation over the long run. Get the CEO Out front.

The CEO is the best spokesperson for the corporation. Most PR disasters happen when companies shield the CEO, or the CEO appears to have little interest in the problem. Make an Outsized response. Overaction is preferable to small measures or ignoring the critics.

Kent directs the president of Coca-Cola North America to create an oversight committee of independent experts to provide governance on company investments in academic research, and engage experts to explore opportunities for research and health initiatives. Brockovich says he gives Kent an A for using the three O’s.

Conclusion:
Coca-Cola’s response to accusations that it financed a front group to protect its interests at the expense of public health is a case study in PR crisis management. As opined by Coca-Cola CEO Muhtar Kent epitomizes a corporate response that contains the essential elements of effective corporate PR crisis management.

Question 11.
Do General Liability and Professional Liability Ever Cover the Same Claims?
Answer:

  • Both policies cover certain liabilities, but they don’t cover the same liabilities. General Liability and Professional Liability Insurance are alike based on the following:
  • Both policies deal with (separate) unavoidable liabilities. Small business owners have targets and bear the cost of civil tort if any.
  • General Liability and Professional Liability policies work together to mitigate expenses when accidents and oversights lead the business owners in legal trouble.
  • Client Contracts would also require either policies.
  • In case of certain Construction contractors, there is a requirement by the general contractor to carry one’s own General Liability (and Workers’ Compensation Insurance) coverage.
  • Big contracted projects including IT consultants, need Professional Liability coverage to address potential lawsuits.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Enterprise Risk Management (‘ERM’)
Answer:
1. Meaning ERM:
Risk management, also known as Enterprise Risk Management (“ERM”), is a systematic and holistic approach for firms to address all their risks, whether operational, strategic or financial, comprehensively.

2. ERM Focus:
ERM focuses on identifying risks, developing and monitoring a risk management system and reacting to risk events when they occur.

3. ERM an Effort:
As ERM is a firm-wide effort to manage all the firm’s risks, involvement by the company’s board of directors and senior management is imperative.

4. ERM in India a Fundamental Function of the Board:
In India, both the Companies Act, 2013 and the Listing Guidelines view risk management practices as one of the fundamental functions of the board of directors.

5. Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission role in ERM:
Beginning in the mid-1980s, the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO), initially formed in part to study fraudulent financial reporting, began to articulate a risk management framework.

6. In 2004, following several corporate governance scandals around the world, COSO issued a detailed report defining ERM as “… a process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise, designed to identify potential events that may affect the entity, and manage risks to be within its risk appetite, to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of entity objectives.”

7. The COSO approach presents eight interrelated components of ERM:

  • internal environment (the tone of the organization),
  • setting objectives,
  • event identification,
  • risk assessment,
  • risk response,
  • control activities,
  • information and communications, and
  • monitoring

8. The significance of ERM can be seen in the value it creates when effectively implemented and the value it destroys when there are shortcomings in leadership and implementation.

9. ERM facilitates Value creation:
ERM is a critical component of value creation. ERM must play a central role in every substantive business decision. Effective ERM can enable a company to manage potential future events that create uncertainty and respond to uncertainty in a manner that reduces the likelihood of downside surprises. ERM supports a company to improve the quality of risk-taking and thereby, give the company a competitive advantage.

10. Avoiding value destruction:
A company cannot preserve its value if its ERM is below standard. This role of preserving corporate value is far more visible when ERM fails than when it succeeds.

11. Failures in risk management have contributed to some of the most significant scandals and losses suffered by companies.

Question 14.
Reasons to buy a Director and Office Insurance Policy.
Answer:
1. Personal assets of directors are at risk:
If a director has been accused of breaching duties, their personal assets are at risk in case they don’t have any D&O insurance.

2. Defending a legal action is an expensive affair:
The legal costs and expenses in litigations involving directors are usually complex and costly.

3. Investors can file a case against you It may sound unlikely, but things can go downward. If investors believe that they have incurred losses due to mismanagement of the company, they could approach the court to seek compensation. For instance, if any action of a director results in a drop in share price, which leads to loss to shareholders and investors, then there is a high possibility that they may bring a class-action lawsuit against the company and directors.

4. Employees can sue directors:
It is not only shareholders who can file a case against the directors as even employees each the court to challenge the decision of the directors. It is a hard reality that in today’s corporate world, there has been a rise in the number of cases filed by employees, related to sexual harassment or wrongful dismissal. For example, in 2016, a sacked software engineer won case against HCL Tech. The court called his dismissal unlawful and asked the company to reinstate the petitioner with continuity of service and paid full salary along with other benefits.

5. Customers can take legal actions:
In some cases, customers also reach the court against misrepresentations made in the advertisement materials and deceptive trade practices.

6. Enquiry initiated by regulatory authorities:
Regulatory bodies, like SEBI, Revenue Department, etc.; can initiate enquiry against directors.

7. In case of bankruptcy or insolvency:
If faced with bankruptcy, creditors can pursue legal action against directors if they think that they have not acted in their best interest.

8. Helps in attracting/retaining talent:
Not having a comprehensive D&O may discourage talented employees from joining the company as they know will not be guarded against any legal case if arise in future.

9. D&O claims are not covered under any other policy:
It is a belief that D&O claims are also covered under other liability insurance plans like professional indemnity. However, it is not true.

Question 15.
What are international laws and regulations relating to Cyber Security?
Answer:
1. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR):
The European Union’s (EU’s) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), effective from May 2018, raises the regulatory bar, and it sweeps more broadly than some on-EU-based companies may realize.

The GDPR imposes stringent requirements on both data collection and data processing, including increased data security mandates, enhanced obligations to obtain data owner consent, and strict breach notification requirements.
GDPR is extra-territorial in its reach and carries severe penalties for non-compliance-up to 4% of worldwide revenue.

2. Issue of detailed and prescriptive regulations by the United States to protect Consumers Data
In the United States, the New York State Department of Financial Services (DFS) has implemented detailed and prescriptive regulations of its own, requiring covered institutions-entities authorized under New York State banking, insurance or financial services laws to meet strict minimum cybersecurity standards.

The revised regulations require, among other things that covered institutions have in place a cyber-security program designed to protect consumers’ private data, approved by boards of directors or senior corporate officers and accompanied by annual compliance certifications, the first of which was required to be filed on February 15, 2018.

3. Guidance for market disclosures issued by the SEC (Securities Exchange Commission) – 2011
The SEC has turned its attention to market disclosure and breach notification. Since 2011, when the SEC’s Division of Corporation Finance issued interpretive guidance regarding cyber security disclosures, public companies have been required to “disclose the risk of cyber incidents if they are among the most significant factors that make an investment in the company speculative or risky.”

4. SEC 2018
In February 2018, the SEC issued new guidance to clarify its expectations on such disclosures focusing on “reinforcing and expanding upon” the 2011 guidance, advising public companies to evaluate the materiality of cyber risks and incidents and make necessary disclosures in a timely fashion, while warning that the SEC is watching closely.

However, the 2018 guidance explores the board oversight, disclosure controls and procedures, insider trading and selective disclosures. As it regards risk oversight, the 2018 guidance advises that public companies should disclose the role of boards in cyber risk management, at least where cyber risks are material to a company’s business. Therefore, while most boards are likely already engaged in some form of cyber risk oversight, the call by the SEC for more public disclosure may prompt consideration of whether to deepen or sharpen that engagement.

5. SEC to take more aggressive approach on the Enforcement side
On the enforcement side, the SEC has signalled that it may move towards a more aggressive approach, alluding to the feasibility of disclosure-based enforcement actions, amid reports that it is engaged in investigations of companies like Yahoo and Equifax.

In its newly issued guidance, the SEC warns that “directors, officers, and other corporate insiders must not trade a public company’s securities while in possession of material non-public information, which may include knowledge regarding a significant cybersecurity incident experienced by the company.”

Question 16.
What are the different types of crisis?
Answer:
The different types of crisis are provided below
1. Natural Crisis
Disturbances in the environment and nature lead to natural crises. Such events are generally beyond the control of human beings. Tornadoes, Earthquakes, Hurricanes, Landslides. Tsunamis. Flood, Drought all result in natural disasters.

2. Technological Crisis
Technological crisis arises as a result of failure in technology. Problems in the overall systems lead to technological crises. Breakdown of machines, corrupted software and so on give rise to technological crisis.

3. ConfrontatIon Crisis

  • Confrontation crises arise when employees fight amongst themselves. Individuals do not agree to each other and eventually depend on non-productive acts Like boycotts, strikes for indefinite periods and so on.
  • In such a type of crisis, employees disobey superiors; give them ultimatums and force them to accept their demands.
  • Internal disputes, ineffective communication and Lack of coordination give rise to confrontation crisis.

4. CrisIs of Malevolence

  • Organizations face crisis of malevolence when some notorious employees take the help of criminal activities and extreme steps to fulfil their demands.
  • Acts like kidnapping company’s officials, false rumours all lead to crisis of malevolence.

5. Crisis of Organizational Misdeeds

  • Cases of organizational misdeeds arises when management takes certain decisions knowing the harmful consequences of the same towards the stakeholders and external parties.
  • In such cases, superiors ignore the after-effects of strategies and implement the same for quick results.

Crisis of organizational misdeeds can be further classified into following three types:
Crisis of Skewed Management Values: Crisis of Skewed Management Values arises when management supports short term growth and ignores broader issues.

Crisis of Deception: Organizations face crisis of deception when management purposely tampers data and information. Management makes fake promises and wrong commitments to the customers. Communicating wrong information about the organization and products lead to crisis of deception.

Crisis of Management Misconduct: Organizations face crisis of management misconduct when management indulges in deliberate acts of illegality like accepting bribes, passing on confidential information and so on.

6. Crisis due to Workplace Violence:
Such a type of crisis arises when employees are indulged in violent acts such as beating employees, superiors in the office premises itself.

7. Crisis due to Rumours:
Spreading false rumours about the organization and brand lead to crisis. Employees must not spread anything which would tarnish the image of their organization.

8. Bankruptcy:
A crisis also arises when organizations fail to pay its creditors and other parties. Lack of fund leads to crisis.

9. Crisis Due to Natural Factors:
Disturbances in environment and nature such as hurricanes, volcanoes, storms, floods; droughts, earthquakes etc. result in crisis.

10. Sudden Crisis:
As the name suggests, such situations arise all of a sudden and on an extremely short notice. Managers do not get warning signals and such a situation is in most cases beyond any one’s control.

11. Smouldering Crisis:
Neglecting minor issues, in the beginning, lead to smouldering crisis later. Managers often can foresee crisis but they should not ignore the same and wait for someone else to take action. Warn the employees immediately to avoid such a situation.

Question 17.
What are the special considerations regarding Cyber Security Risk?
Answer:
1. Increasing dependency of technology increases chances to Cyber Crime:
The ever-increasing dependence on technological advances that characterizes all aspects of business and modern life has been accompanied by a rapidly growing threat of cybercrime, the cost of which, according to a 2017 report by Herjavec Group, is expected to grow to more than $6 trillion annually by 2021.

As recent examples (e.g., the hacking of computer networks belonging to the SEC and to Equifax) have highlighted, network security breaches, damage to IT infrastructure and theft of personal data, trade secrets and commercially sensitive information are omnipresent risks that pose a significant financial and reputational threat to companies of all kinds. With computing devices increasingly embedded in everyday items and connected to the “Internet of Things,” virtually all company functions across all industries are exposed to cyber security risk.

2. Attention towards Cyber Security Risk:
In light of the growing number of successful cyber-attacks on even the most technologically sophisticated entities, lawmakers and regu¬lators in the United States and abroad have increased their attention to cybersecurity risk.

3. Guidance by General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR):
In the United States, regulatory and enforcement activity relating to cybersecurity has continued to ramp up at the state level. Internationally, the European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) will take effect in May 2018, significantly increasing data handling requirements for companies with even a minimal European nexus. Companies are thus facing a two-front storm, with regulatory risks compounding the security threat.

4. Implementation of comprehensive cyber security risk mitigation pro-grams with recent defensive technologies having adequate focus on security procedures:
In response, engaged corporate leaders should implement comprehensive cyber security risk mitigation programs, deploying the latest defensive technologies without losing focus on core security procedures like patch installation and employee training, executing data and system testing procedures, implementing effective and regularly exercised cyber incident response plans, and ensuring that the board is engaged in cyber risk oversight.

5. As cyber security risk continues to rise in prominence, so too has the number of companies that have begun to specifically situate cyber security and cyber risk within their internal audit function.

6. Role of Director to ensure technical expertise and relevant time for Internal Audit Function:
Directors should assure themselves that their company’s internal audit function is performed by individuals who have appropriate technical expertise and sufficient time and resources to devote to cyber security risk. Further, the internal audit team should understand and periodically test the company’s risk mitigation strategy, and provide timely reports on cyber security risk to the board’s audit committee.

7. Boards preparedness for Cyber security breach:
In satisfying their risk oversight function with respect to cyber security, boards should evaluate their company’s preparedness for a possible cyber security breach, as well as the company’s action plan in the event that a cyber security breach occurs.

Question 18.
Write note on “A Strategic Cyber-Roadmap for the Board” released in November 2016.
Answer:
With respect to preparation by the boards for a possible cyber security breach the board should consider the following actions, several of which are also addressed in The Conference Board’s “A Strategic Cyber-Roadmap for the Board” released in November 2016:
1. Identify the company’s “Crown Jewels”-Le., the company’s mission-critical data and systems-and work with management to apply appropriate measures outlined in the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Framework;

2. Ensure that an actionable cyber incident response plan is in place that, among other things, identifies critical personnel and designates responsibilities; includes procedures for containment, mitigation and continuity of operations; and identifies necessary notifications to be issued as part of a pre-existing notification plan;

3. Ensure that the company has developed effective response technology and services (e.g., off-site data backup mechanisms, intrusion detection technology and data loss prevention technology).

4. Ensure that prior authorizations are in place to permit network monitoring.

5. Ensure that the company’s legal counsel is conversant with technology systems and cyber incident management to reduce response time; and

6. Establish relationships with cyber information sharing organizations and engage with law enforcement before a cyber-security incident occurs.

Question 19.
Write a short note on “Scenario of D&O Policy in India”.
Answer:
I. India – OpenIng and Growth of Economy:
Almost 25 years have passed since India ushered in a new era of commercial liberalization and reform. This continuous and gradual opening up of the economy, driven by a rapid growth in domestic consumer demand, has resulted in an influx of foreign investment, which in turn has strengthened private Indian companies.

2. Lack of Professionalism in Indian Companies:
Economic growth also has its dark side. India is a victim of corporate fraud and scams. Significance cultural differences in Indian companies function vis-à-vis their international counterparts, Indian companies are often seen as less professional.

3. Trends Prevalent In Indian Companies:
Though the scenario may be changing, the ‘family business’ outlook of many Indian enterprises and an occasionally backward approach to various compliance and disclosure requirements continue to prevail. Siphoning of funds through related-party transactions, accounting irregularities, and corruption are just a few of the common, unfortunate trends that are prevalent in Indian companies.

4. Management and Promoted driven Frauds In India:
In the case of Satyam. Lilliput, or NSEL, numerous instances of Management and promoter-driven fraud have come to light.

The concern surrounding director liability has also been highlighted by the arrests of Stefan Schlipf, the managing director of BMW India Financial Services, and William Pinckney, managing director and chief executive officer of Amway India, along with two other directors.

5. Liability of Corporate Directors
The ubiquitous issue of corruption and the high risk of internal fraud raise serious concerns about the liability of corporate directors. American litigators representing Indian companies or advising clients interested in becoming corporate officers in India would advise on the director and officer liability under Indian law.

6. Director liability in India can be divided into two principal areas:

  1. liability under the Companies Act of 1956 (the 1956 Act), which has now transitioned to the Companies Act of 2013 (the 2013 Act); and
  2. liability under other Indian statutes. There has been a seminal shift in the Indian corporate legal regime with the enactment of the 2013 Act and more recent amendments.

7. Critical failure of Indian corporate law highlighted:
Critical failure of Indian corporate law highlighted during corporate and financial scams, such as the Harshad Mehta episode or the Satyam fiasco. Various investors also discovered that money had been siphoned off by promoters through related-party or customer-vendor transactions.

8. Directors and officers (D&O) liability insurance:
Directors and officers (D&O) liability insurance is insurance coverage intended to protect individuals from personal losses if they are sued as a result of serving as a director or an officer of a business or other type of organization. It can also cover the legal fees and other costs the organization may incur as a result of such a suit.

9. Applicability of Directors and officers (D&O) liability insurance:
Directors and officers liability insurance applies to anyone who serves as a director or an officer of a for-profit business or non-profit organization.

A directors and officers liability policy insures against personal losses, and it can also help reimburse a business or non-profit for the legal fees or other costs incurred in defending such individuals against a lawsuit.

10. Payment of Directors and officers (D&O) liability insurance:
Directors and officers liability insurance is paid to directors and officers of a company, or to the organization(s) itself, for losses or reimbursement of defence costs if a legal action is brought against them. Coverage can extend to criminal and regulatory investigations/trials defence costs. Civil and criminal actions are often brought against directors and officers simultaneously.

D&O insurance has become closely associated with broader management liability insurance, which covers liabilities of the corporation itself as well as the personal liabilities for the directors and officers of the corporation.

11. Increased liability under the Companies Act, 2013 beneficial for accountability of directors:
Shareholder disputes, the increased liability under the 2013 Act are beneficial to increase pressure on defaulting directors, nominating shareholders, or promoters. Resignation may protect a director from subsequent defaults, an erstwhile director may still continue to be liable for any defaults that took place during his or her tenure under section 168(2) of the 2013 Act.

The Companies Act, 2013 prompted concerns about the role, accountability, and responsibility of non-executive, nominee, and independent directors, who could be caught on the wrong side of the company’s disputes.

Question 20.
Enumerate what is Professional Liability Insurance? How does a Professional Liability Insurance Work?
Answer:
Professional liability insurance – How does it work:
1. Professional liability insurance policies are usually arranged on a claims-made basis, which means coverage is good only for claims made during the policy period.

2. Typical professional liability policies will indemnify the insured against loss arising from any claim or claims made during the policy period by reason of any covered error, omission or negligent act committed in the conduct of the insured’s professional business during the policy period.

3. Incidents occurring before the coverage was activated may not be covered, although some policies may include retroactive date.

4. Coverage does not include criminal prosecution, nor all forms of legal liability under civil law, only those listed in the policy.

5. Cyber liability, covering data breaches and other technology issues, may not necessarily be included in core policies. However, insurance that covers data security and other technology security-related issues is available as a separate policy.

6. Some professional liability policies tightly worded. Number of policy wordings are designed to satisfy a stated minimum approved wording, which makes them easier to compare, others differ dramatically in the coverages they provide.

7. Example, breach of duty may be included if the incident occurred and was reported by the policyholder to the insurer during the policy period.

8. Wordings with major legal differences can be confusing. Example, coverage for “negligent act, error or omission” indemnifies the policyholder against loss/circumstances incurred only as a result of any professional error or omission, or negligent act (Le., the modifier “negligent” does not apply to all three categories, though any non-legal reader might assume that it did).

9. Meanwhile, a “negligent act, negligent error or negligent omission” clause is a much more restrictive policy, which would deny coverage in a lawsuit alleging a non-negligent error or omission.

Question 21.
Explain what are Legal Compliance Programs.
Answer:
1. Appropriate review of the company’s legal compliance programs Senior management should provide the board or committee with an appropriate review of the company’s legal compliance programs and how they are designed to address the company’s risk profile and detect and prevent wrongdoing.

2. Compliance programs to be well-tailored to the specific needs of the company
The compliance programs will need to be tailored to the specific company’s needs, there are a number of principles to consider in reviewing a program. There should be a strong “tone at the top” from the board and senior management emphasizing the company’s commitment to full compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, as well as internal policies.

A well-tailored compliance program and a culture that values ethical conduct continue to be critical factors that the Department of Justice (DOJ) will assess under the Federal Sentencing Guidelines in the event that corporate personnel engage in misconduct.

3. In addition, while Deputy Attorney General Rosenstein has announced a review of all DO enforcement guidance memos, including the 2015 “Yates memo” on holding individuals accountable for wrongdoing, we expect that an emphasis on individual accountability will remain a key feature of the enforcement landscape, highlighting the continued importance of companies swiftly and responsibly investigating and remediating indications of possible misconduct.

4. A compliance program should be designed by persons with relevant expertise and will typically include interactive training as well as written materials.

5. Compliance policies should be reviewed periodically to assess their effectiveness and to make any necessary changes. Policies and procedures should fit with business realities.

6. There should be consistency in enforcing stated policies through appropriate disciplinary measures.

7. Clear reporting systems in place both at the employee level and at the management level so that employees understand when and to whom they should report suspected violations and so that management understands the board’s or committee’s informational needs for its oversight purposes.

8. A company may choose to appoint a chief compliance officer and/ or constitute a compliance committee to administer the compliance program, including facilitating employee education and issuing periodic reminders. If there is a specific area of compliance that is critical to the company’s business, the company may consider developing a separate compliance apparatus devoted to that area.

Question 22.
What are the challenges faced by the Board of Directors in developing the ERM
Answer:
Challenges facing Boards of Directors in developing ERM:
Over the past several years, corporate India has become much more engaged with and sensitized to ERM. Leading companies have formed risk management and compliance teams that are integrated within the firm and that provide valuable information to the board. Nevertheless, there is room for improvement.
Indian boards face significant challenges in designing and implementing an effective ERM system, including:

(a) Effectively linking risk and strategy:
Integrating risk management into the overall corporate strategy is a challenge for many India firms. The challenge is to have an ERM system that encompasses a process capable of being applied in strategy setting across the enterprise. “Effective risk management is not about eliminating risk-taking, which is a fundamental driving force in business and entrepreneurship.” In other words, taking appropriate risk needs to be at the heart of corporate strategy. The board must understand and guide the company’s appetite and ability to take risk, and communicate the same to the company’s risk management team.

Operationally, ‘tying risk with strategy’ means that risk managers must be integrated in implementing the company’s strategy and must not be separated from the board and management so that the actual risk taken is tied to the company’s risk appetite and ability. ERM programs must be developed with input from various functions in the organization, such as finance, sales, legal etc.

(b) Implementing cost-effective risk management for small and medium-sized enterprises:
While the costs of risk management failures can be high, designing and implementing efficient ERM can also be quite costly, especially for small and medium-sized firms.

Hiring consultants or the necessary staff to develop stress-testing and early warning systems to alert the board regarding significant risks can be difficult to do in smaller companies.
While large firms can establish a ‘chief risk officer’ function with direct report to the board, doing so is much harder for smaller companies.

(c) Addressing all major areas of risk: ERM requires a firm to take a Portfolio view of risk;
Boards must consider how various risks inter-relate, rather than treating each business and risk individually. This is a significant challenge for many boards.

(d) Mitigating new risks:
In India, many complex areas of risks have emerged in the last decade or so, which has made risk management particularly challenging. For example, some traditional areas of risk, such as political instability and strikes and unrest, appear to have subsided while others, such as information and cyber security as well as terrorism and insurgency, have increased in prominence.

Companies in a wide variety of industries have experienced the theft of data and sensitive information. For companies in major cities, the threat of terror attacks has become a growing cause for concern, which can be hard to manage by the company itself. According to a 2015 survey, the top five risks for Indian firms include:

  • corruption, bribery and corporate fraud;
  • information and cyber security;
  • terrorism and insurgency;
  • business espionage; and
  • crime.

Resolution of Corporate Disputes Non-Compliances & Remedies Notes

Appeals and Revision – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice

Appeals and Revision – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice

Question 1.
The proceedings under the CGST Act, 2017 before the authorities including the Appellate Tribunal can be attended by the “Authorized Representative”. Explain who can act as an authorized representative under the Act.
Answer:
For the purposes of this Act, the expression “authorized representative” shall mean a person authorized by the person referred to in section 116(1) to appear on his behalf, being:-

(a) his relative or regular employee; or

(b) an advocate who is entitled to practice in any court in India, and who has not been debarred from practicing before any court in India; or

(c) any Chartered Accountant, a Cost Accountant or a Company Secretary who holds a certificate of practice and who has not been debarred from practice; or

(d) a retired officer of the Commercial Tax Department of any State Government or Union territory or of the Board who, during his service under the Government, had worked in a post not below the rank than that of a Group-B Gazetted officer for a period of not less than two years. However, such officer shall not be entitled to appear before any proceedings under this Act for a period of one year from the date of his retirement or resignation; or

(e) any person who has been authorized to act as a goods and services tax practitioner on behalf of the concerned registered person.

Question 2.
Define “Adjudicating Authority”
Answer:
Adjudicating Authority
“Adjudicating Authority” means any authority, appointed or authorized to pass any order or decision under this Act, but does not include the Central Board of Excise and Customs, the Revisional Authority, the Authority for Advance Ruling, the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling, the Appellate Authority and the Appellate Tribunal.

Adjudicating authority thus includes Principal Commissioner of Central Tax, Commissioner of Central Tax, Additional Commissioner of Central tax, Joint/Deputy/Assistant Commissioner of Central Tax etc.

Question 3.
Hema Lubricants Ltd., filed an appeal before the Appellate Tribunal against the order of the Appellate Authority, wherein the issue was revolving around the place of supply.

The Tribunal decided the issue against the company and in favour of the department. The company is of the firm opinion that its view is correct and hence there is need to take the issue to an appellate forum higher than the Appellate Tribunal.

As the Company Secretary, dealing with indirect tax matters, advise the company about filing of appeal before the appropriate forum.
Answer:
Where the supplier or the department is not satisfied with the order passed by the State Bench or Area Benches of the Appellate Tribunal, appeal can be filed before the High Court if the High Court is satisfied that such an appeal involves a substantial question of law.

[Section 117(1) of the CGST Act, 2017] Nevertheless, appeal against orders passed by the National Bench or Regional Benches of the Tribunal can be filed only before the Supreme Court and not before High Court.

As per section 109(5) of the Act, only the National Bench or Regional Bench of the Tribunal can decide appeals where one of the issues involved relates to the place of supply.

Since the issue involved in the given case relates to the place of supply, the appeal in case would have been decided by the National Bench or Regional Bench of the Tribunal. Consequently, Hema Lubricants Ltd., will have to file an appeal before the Supreme Court and not with the High Court.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss whether the following powers vest with the Commissioner (Appeals) under the GST Act, 2017:
(i) Remanding the case back to the adjudicating authority; and
(ii) Condoning the delay in filing appeal before him.
Answer:
(i) No, Commissioner (Appeals) being the first appellate authority does not have power to remand the case back to the adjudicating authority for fresh adjudication. The power is not given to Commissioner (Appeals) by Statute. However, Power to remand has been specifically given to Appellate Tribunal under Section 113 of the CGST Act, 2017.

(ii) Yes, Commissioner (Appeals), if satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from presenting the appeal within the specified period, allow it to be presented within a further period of one month under section 107(4) of the CGST Act, 2017.

Question 5.
What is the jurisdiction of the National (& Regional Benches) & the State (& area benches) of the Tribunal? [Practice Manual]
Answer:
The National Bench or Regional Benches of the Appellate Tribunal shall have jurisdiction to hear appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority in the cases where one of the issues involved relates to the place of supply.

The State Bench or Area Benches shall have jurisdiction to hear appeals against the orders passed by the Appellate Authority or the Revisional Authority in the cases involving matters other than those cases where the issues involved relates to the place of supply.

Question 6.
State the provision and also the amount of pre-deposit required to be made by a registered supplier to file an appeal against the order in each of the following independent cases under the CGST Act, 2017:
(1) Order dated 18th Oct., 2018 passed in the case of M/s RR Ltd. by the Joint Commissioner creating a tax demand of ₹40,00,000. M/s RR Ltd. has admitted ₹5,00,000 as tax liability but intends to file an appeal with the Commissioner (Appeals) against the balance tax demand.

(2) In an order dated 18th Nov., 2018 passed in the case of M/s KK Ltd., the Joint Commissioner of Central Tax has created a tax demand of ₹35,00,000 and also has imposed a penalty of ₹5,00,000. M/s KK Ltd. intends to file an appeal with the Commissioner (Appeals) both against the order creating demand of ₹35,00,000 and order imposing penalty of ₹5,00,000.
Answer:
Section 107(6) of the CGST Act, 2017 requires an appellant filing appeal before the Appellate authority to pre-deposit full amount of tax, interest, fine, fee and penalty as is admitted by him, arising from the impugned order and a sum equal to 10% of the remaining amount of tax in dispute. Considering the said legal position, the pre-deposit to be made in the instant cases shall be as below;

RR Ltd. has to pre-deposit 15,00,000 (admitted tax) and 13,50,000 (i.e. 10% of ₹35,00,000 tax in dispute) in total of amount of ₹ 8,50,000.

In the case of KK Ltd., since no amount of tax or penalty has been admitted by the appellant, it has to pre-deposit 10% of the tax amount i.e. (10% of ₹35,00,000) which comes to ₹3,50,000.

Question 7.
XY Company received an adjudication order passed by the Assistant Commissioner of Central Tax on 2nd December, 2018 under section 73 of the CGST Act, 2017 wherein it was decided as follows:

IGST due ₹7,00,000
Interest ₹25,000
Penalty ₹50,000

XY Company filed an appeal before the Appellate Authority on 28th January, 2019. How much the company has to pay as pre-deposit under section 107(6) of the CGST Act, 2017 if the assessee appeals against part of the demanded amount say Tax ₹4,00,000, interest ₹15,000 and penalty ₹30,000 and admits the balance liability of tax, interest and penalty?
Answer:
Section 107(6) of the CGST Act, 2017 provides that no appeal shall be filed before Appellate Authority, unless the appellant pays:

(a) in full, such part of the amount of tax, interest, fine, fee and penalty arising from impugned order, as is admitted by him; and

(b) 10% of remaining tax in dispute arising from impugned order Thus, since XY Company admits the tax liability of ₹3,00,000 + Interest ₹10,000 and Penalty ₹20,000 it has to make a pre-deposit of:

(i) ₹3,30,000 (i.e. 300000 + 10000 + 20000)
(ii) ₹40,000 (i.e. 10% of 4,00,000)

Total ₹3,70,000

Appeals And Revision Notes

  • Sections involved: 107 to 121 of CGST Act.
  • Appeals to Appellate Authority
  • Revisional Authority and its powers
  • Appeals to Appellate Tribunal
  • Appeal to High Court
  • Appeal to Supreme Court

In respect of the above points, students should know the following:

  • Appeal can be filed against which order
  • Can Department Appeal
  • Can “Place of Supply” matters be appealed
  • Appeal Fees
  • Time Limit to file an appeal
  • Mandatory Pre deposit

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Advance Rulings Under GST – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Advance Rulings Under GST – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
State the matters on which Advance Ruling can be sought under GST Law. State any four such matters as specified under the CGST Act, 2017.
Answer:
Under section 97(2) of the CGST Act, 2017, Advance Ruling can be sought for the following questions/matters/issues:

  1. Classification of any goods or services or both;
  2. Applicability of a notification issued under the provisions of this Act;
  3. Determination of time and value of supply of goods or services or both;
  4. Admissibility of Input Tax Credit of tax paid or deemed to have been paid;

Question 2.
Bharghav Pesticides Ltd., a domestic company, intends to start a business in Kolkata, involving supply of certain goods, mostly meant for foreign buyers in China. There is some difficulty in the classification of the goods. Can the company seek advance ruling from the Authority for Advance Ruling formed under CGST Act, 2017 in respect of the issue of classification of goods? Can the company also seek ruling on issues involving place of supply?
Answer:
Advance Ruling
Advance ruling under GST can be sought by a registered person or a person desirous of obtaining registration under GST law [Section 95(c) of the CGST Act, 2017]. Therefore, it is not mandatory for a person seeking advance ruling from the AAR formed under CGST Act, 2017 to be a registered person.

Section 97(2) of the CGST Act, 2017 enjoins that the questions/matters on which the advance ruling can be sought for determining the classification of any goods or services or both. Therefore, the Company can seek the advance ruling for determining the classification of goods proposed to be supplied.

Determination of place of supply is not one of the specified questions/matters on which advance ruling can be sought under section 97(2). Further, section 96 of the CGST Act, 2017 provides that AAR constituted under the provisions of a SGST/UTGST Act shall be deemed to be the AAR in respect of that State /Union territory.

Thus, AAR is constituted under the respective State /Union Territory Act and not under the Central Act. This implies that ruling given by AAR will be applicable only within the jurisdiction of the concerned State/Union territory.

It is also for this reason that the question on determination of place of supply cannot be raised with the AAR. Hence, the applicant cannot seek the advance ruling for determining the place of supply of the goods proposed to be supplied by the applicant.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the procedure to be followed by the Authority for Advance Ruling on receipt of application for Advance Ruling under section 98 of CGST Act, 2017.
Answer:
The procedure to be followed by the Authority of Advance Rulings (AAR) on receipt of the application for advance ruling under section 98 of the CGST Act is as under:

1. Upon receipt of an application, the AAR shall send a copy of application to the officer in whose jurisdiction the applicant falls and call for all relevant records.

2. The AAR may then examine the application along with the records and may also hear the applicant. Thereafter he will pass an order either admitting or rejecting the application.

3. Application for Advance Ruling will not be admitted in cases where the question raised in the application is already pending or decided in any proceedings in the case of an applicant under any of the provisions under this Act.

4. If the application is rejected, it should be by way of speaking order giving the reasons for rejection and only after giving an opportunity of being heard to the applicant.

5. If the application is admitted, the AAR shall pronounce its ruling on the question specified in the application. Before giving its ruling, it shall examine the application and any further material furnished by the applicant or by the concerned departmental officer.

6. Before giving the ruling, AAR must hear the applicant or his authorised representative as well as the jurisdictional officers of CGST/SGST.

7. If there is a difference of opinion between the two members of AAR, they shall refer to the point of points on which they differ to the Appellate Authority for hearing the issue.

8. The Authority shall pronounce its Advance Ruling in writing within 90 days from the date of receipt of application.

9. A copy of the Advance Ruling duly signed by members and certified, in a prescribed manner shall be sent to the applicant, the concerned officer, and the jurisdictional officer.

Advance Rulings Under Gst Notes

  • Sections 95-106 of CGST Act, 2017 covers provisions with respect to Advance Rulings.
  • Meaning of “Advance Ruling”.
  • “Applicant” for Advance Ruling mechanism.
  • Role and constitution of Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) and Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling (AAAR).
  • Questions for which Advance Rulings can be sought.
  • The procedure with respect to Advance Rulings.
  • Applicability of Advance Ruling.
  • Instances where advance ruling becomes “void ab initio’’

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Securities Laws – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Securities Laws – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Question 1.
Excel Ltd., a public limited company listed with The Stock Exchange, Mumbai, wants to issue equity shares on preferential basis pursuant to a scheme approved under Corporate Debt Restructuring framework specified by Reserve Bank of India, to various persons as may be selected by the Board of Directors of the company.

Following information relevant to the preferential issue is available :
(i) Total No. of equity shares to be issued. 50 lac equity shares of ₹ 10 each out of which 30 lac equity shares will be allotted on 31st December, 2008 as fully paid up and balance 20 lac equity shares shall be allotted on the same date but paid up to ₹ 5 each and balance ₹ 5 shall be called upon at a later date and shall be paid up on 31st May, 2009.

(ii) Out of the proposed allottees some persons are holding their shares in Excel Ltd. in physical form and not in dematerialised form and some persons had sold their entire shareholding in Excel Ltd. in July, 2008.

(iii) The meeting of general body of shareholders for approving the preferential issue was held on 15th October, 2008.
Based on the above information you are required to answer the following queries with reference to the SEBI (Disclosure and Investor Protection) Guidelines, 2000:

  • What would be the lock-in period for the shares allotted on preferential basis?
  • Who are the persons not entitled for allotment of shares on preferential basis?

Answer:
Present Case:
In the given case, 30 lakh equity shares issued as fully paid up on 30th June, 2005 shall be locked in upto 30th June, 2006. 20 lakh equity shares issued as partly paid up on 30th June 2005 shall be locked in upto 30th November, 2006 (i.e. upto 1 year from 30th November, 2005, when the shares were made fully paid up).

As per Sub-Regulation(1) of Regulation 72, a listed issuer may make a preferential issue of speeded securities, if:

  • a special resolution has been passed by its shareholders:
  • all the equity shares, if any, held by the proposed allottees in (he issuer are in dematerialised form;
  • the issuer is in compliance with the conditions for continuous listing of equity shares as specified in the listing agreement with the recognised stock exchange where the equity shares of the issuer are listed:
  • the issuer has obtained the Permanent Account Number of the proposed allottees.

Lock-in of Specified Securities:
1. The specified securities, allotted on a preferential basis to the promoters or promoter group and the equity shares allotted pursuant to exercise of options attached to warrants issued on a preferential basis to the promoters or the promoter group, shall be locked-in for a period of three years from the date of trading approval granted for the specified securities or equity shares allotted pursuant to exercise of the option attached to warrant, as the case may be:

Provided – that not more than twenty per cent, of the total capital of the issuer shall be locked-in for three years from the date of trading approval:

Provided further – that equity shares allotted in excess of the twenty per cent, shall be locked-in for one year from the date of trading approval pursuant to exerciser of options or otherwise, as the case may be. Provided further that in case of convertible securities or warrants which are not listed on stock exchanges, such securities shall be locked in for a period of one year from the date of allotment.

2. The specified securities allotted on a preferential basis to persons other than the promoters and promoter group and the equity shares allotted pursuant to exercise of options attached to warrants issued on preferential basis to such persons shall be locked-in for a period of one year from the date of trading approval. Provided that in case of convertible securities or warrants which are not listed on stock exchanges, such securities shall be locked in for a period of one year from the date of allotment.

3. Lock-in of the equity shares allotted pursuant to conversion of convertible securities other than warrants, issued on preferential basis shall be reduced to the extent,the convertible securities have already been locked-in.

4. The equity shares issued on a preferential basis pursuant to any resolution of stressed assets under a framework specified by the Reserve Bank of India or a resolution plan approved by the National Company Law Tribunal under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016, shall be locked-in for a period of one year from the trading approval:

5. If the amount payable by the allottee, in case of re-calculation of price under sub-regulation (3) of regulation 164 is not paid till the expiry of lock-in period, the equity shares shall continue to be locked-in till such amount is paid by the allottee.

6. The entire pre-preferential allotment shareholding of the allottees, if any, shall be locked-in from the relevant date up to a period of six months from the date of trading approval:

Provided that in case of convertible securities or warrants which are not listed on stock exchanges, the entire pre-preferential allotment shareholding of the allottees, if any, shall be locked-in from the relevant date up to a period of six months from the date of allotment of such securities.

As per Sub-Regulation (2) of Regulation 72, the issuer shall not make preferential issue of specified securities to any person who has sold any equity shares of the issuer during the 6 months preceding the relevant date: However, SEBI, has granted relaxation to the issuer in terms of SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations 2011, the preferential allotment of Shares, fully convertible debentures and partly convertible debentures, shall be made by it within such time as may be specified by SEBI in its order granting relaxation.

  • Accordingly, the persons who hold their shares in Excel Ltd. in physical form (whether wholly or partly), shall not be eligible for preferential allotment of shares.
  • Also, the shareholders who had sold their shareholding in Excel Ltd. in January, 2005 shall not be entitled for allotment of shares on preferential basis.

Question 2.
Industrial Finance Corporation of India, established under the Industrial Finance Corporation Act, 1948 having its registered office at Mumbai issued 8% Redeemable Bonds redeemable after 7 years. These bonds were issued directly to the members of the public and not through the mechanism of Stock Exchanges. You are required to state with reference to the provisions of Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, whether such direct issue of Bonds by the Industrial Finance Corporation of India is not violating the provisions of the said Act.
Answer :
Act not to Apply In Certain Cases (Sec. 28)
(1) The provisions of this Act shall not apply to –
(a) the Government, the RBI, any local authority or any corporation set up by a special law or any person who has effected any transaction – with or through the agency of any such authority as is referred to in this clause;

(b) any convertible bond or any option or right in relation thereto, in so far as it entitles the person in whose favour any of the foregoing has been issued to obtain at his option from the company or other body corporate, whether by conversion of the bond or warrant or otherwise, on the basis of the price agreed upon when the same was issued.

(2) Without prejudice to the provisions contained in sub-Sec. (1), if the CG (Powers are excercisable by SEBI also) is satisfied that in the interest of trade and commerce or the economic development of the country it is necessary or expedient so to do, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify any class of contracts as contracts to which this Act or any provision contained therein shall not apply, and also the conditions, limitations, or restrictions, if any, subject to which it shall not so apply.

Present Case:
Since Industrial Finance Corporation of India has been set up under a special law VIZ Industrial Finance Corporation Act 1948, the provisions of SCRA, 1956 shall not apply to it. Thus Industrial Finance Corporation can issue 8% Redeemable Bonds directly to the public and not through the mechanism of stock exchanges.

Question 3.
An Unlisted Public Company, having a paid-up equity share capital of ₹ 5 crores consisting of 50,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid-up, proposes to reduce the denomination of equity shares to less than ₹ 10 per share and make an initial public offer of equity shares at a premium.
Examine whether it is possible for the company to issue shares at a denomination of less than ₹ 10 and, if so, state the minimum issue price and other conditions to be fulfilled under the SEBI (Disclosure and Investor Protection) Guidelines, 2000.
Answer:
Face Value of Equity Shares [Regulation 31]
An issuer making an initial public offer may determine the face value of the equity shares in the following manner:
(a) If the issue price per equity share is five hundred rupees or more, the issuer shall have the option to determine the face value at less than ten rupees per equity shares:
Provided that the face value shall not be less than one rupee per equity share;

(b) If the issue price per equity share is less than ₹ 500, the face value of the equity shares shall be ₹ 10 per equity shares: Provided that nothing contained in this sub-regulation shall apply to initial public offer made by any Government company, statutory authority or corporation or any special purpose vehicle set up by any of them, which is engaged in infrastructure sector.

Conditions for Initial Public Offer [Regulation 26]:
1. An issuer may make an initial public offer, if:
(a) it has net tangible assets of at least three crore rupees in each of the preceding three full years (of twelve months each), of which not more than fifty per cent are held in monetary assets:

Provided – that if more than fifty per cent of the net tangible assets are held in monetary assets, the issuer has made firm commitments to utilise such excess monetary assets in its business or project:

Provided further – that the limit of fifty per cent on monetary assets shall not be applicable in case the public offer is made entirely through an offer for sale;

(b) it has a minimum average pre-tax operating profit of ₹ 15 crore, calculated on a restated and consolidated basis, during the three most profitable years out of the immediately preceding five years;

(c) it has a net worth of at least ₹ one crore in each of the preceding 3 full years (of 12 months each;

(d) the aggregate of the proposed issue and all previous issues made in the same financial year in terms of issue size does not exceed 5 times its pre-issue net worth as per the audited balance sheet of the preceding financial year;

(e) if it has changed its name within the last 1 year, at least 50% of the revenue for the preceding 1 full year has been earned by it from the activity indicated by the new name.

2. An issuer not satisfying the condition stipulated in sub-regulation (1) may make an initial public offer if the issue is made through the book-building process and the issuer undertakes to allot, at least seventy five per cent of the net offer to public, to qualified institutional buyers and to refund full subscription money if it fails to make the said minimum allotment to qualified institutional buyers.

3. An issuer may make an initial public offer of convertible debt instruments without making a prior public issue of its equity-shares and listing thereof.

4. An issuer shall not make an allotment pursuant to a public issue if the number of prospective allottees is less than 1,000.

5. No issuer shall make an initial public offer if there are any outstanding convertible securities or any other right which would entitle any person with any option to receive equity shares:

Provided that the provisions of this sub-regulation shall not apply to:
(a) a public issue made during the currency of convertible debt instruments which were issued through an earlier initial public offer, if the conversion price of such convertible debt instruments was determined and disclosed in the prospectus of the earlier issue of convertible debt instruments;

(b) outstanding options granted to employees pursuant to an employee stock option scheme framed in accordance with the relevant Guidance Note or Accounting Standards, if any, issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India in this regard;

(c) fully paid-up outstanding convertible securities which are required to be converted on or before the date of filing of the red herring prospectus (in case of book-built issues) or the prospectus (in case of fixed price issues), as the case may be.

6. Subject to provisions of the Companies Act, and these regulations, equity shares may be offered for sale to public if such equity shares have been held by the sellers for a period of at least one year prior to the filing of draft offer document with the Board in accordance with sub-regulation (T) of Regulation 6:

Provided – that in case equity shares received on conversion or exchange of fully paid-up compulsorily convertible securities including depository receipts are being offered for sale, the holding period of such convertible securities as well as that of resultant equity shares together shall be considered for the purpose of calculation of 1 year period referred in this sub-regulation:

Provided further – that the requirement of holding equity shares for a period of one year shall not apply:
(a) in case of an offer for sale of specified securities of a Government . company or statutory authority or corporation or any special purpose vehicle set up and controlled by any one or more of them, which is engaged in infrastructure sector;

(b) if the specified securities offered for sale were acquired pursuant to any scheme approved by a Tribunal or under sections 230-234 of the Companies Act, 2013, in lieu of business and invested capital which had been in existence for a period of more than one year prior to such approval;

(c) if the specified securities offered for sale were issued under a bonus issue on securities held for a period of at least 1 year prior to the filing of draft offer document with the Board and further subject to the following:

(i) such specified securities being issued out of free reserves and share premium existing in the books of account as at the end of the financial year preceding the financial year in which the draft offer document is filed with the Board; and

(ii) such specified securities not being issued by utilization of revaluation reserves or unrealized profits of the issuer.

7. An issuer making an initial public offer may obtain grading for such offer from one or more credit rating agencies registered with the Board.

Question 4.
The Securities and Exchange Board of India received serious complaints against Mr. Satyanarayan, a member of Mavli Stock Exchange. State as to what powers can be exercised by the Securities and Exchange Board of India to make enquiries and to take action in this matter, under the provisions of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956?
Answer:
Disciplinary Action against members of Stock Exchange [Sec 6]:
SEBI can exercise the following powers under Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 on receipt of serious complaints against the affairs of Mr. Satyanarayan, a member of Mavli Stock Exchange.

(i) SEBI may, by order in writing call upon the member of the stock exchange to furnish in writing information or explanation in respect of the matter under inquiry [Sec. 6(3)(a)].

(ii) SEBI instead of calling for information, may also either appoint one or . more person to make an enquiry or direct the governing body of stock exchange to make inquiry and submit its report to SEBI [Sec. 6(3)(b)].

(iii) In case of adverse findings, SEBI can direct Mavli Stock Exchange to take disciplinary action against Mr. Satyanarayan, such as fine, expulsion from membership, suspension from membership. Mavli Stock Exchange is under obligation to take the action as directed. [Sec. 9]

Question 5.
The Balance Sheet of Royal Ltd. as at 31-03-2013 disclosed the following details:
(i) Authorised share capital : ₹ 400 crores
(ii) Paid up share capital : ₹ 150 crores
(iii) Reserves and surplus : ₹ 750 crores
The company has issued in the year 2008, Fully Convertible Debentures of ₹ 100 crores which are due for conversion in the year 2013. The company proposes, after the conversion of Debentures to issue Bonus shares in the ratio of 1:1. Explain briefly the requirements of the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
(a) Requirement of Companies Act, 2013 with regards to Issue of bonus shares [Sec. 63]
1. A company may issue fully paid up bonus shares to its members, in any manner whatsoever, out of.

  • its free reserves;
  • the securities premium account; or
  • the capital redemption reserve account:

Provided that no issue of bonus shares shall be made by capitalising reserves created by the revaluation of assets.

2. No company shall capitalise its profits or reserves for the purpose of issuing fully paid-up bonus shares under sub-section (1), unless:

  • it is authorised by its articles;
  • it has, on the recommendation of the Board, been authorised in general meeting of the company;
  • it has not defaulted in payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits or debt securities issued by it;
  • it has not defaulted in respect of the payment of statutory dues of the employees, such as, contribution to provident fund, gratuity and bonus;
  • the partly paid-up shares, if any outstanding on the date of allotment, are made fully paid-up;
  • it complies with such conditions as is prescribed under Rule 14 of Companies (Share Capital and Debenture) rules, 2014.

3. The bonus shares shall not be issued in lieu of dividend.

Present Case:
Applying the provisions contained in these Regulation and companies Act, 2013 to the given problem, Royal Ltd. can make a bonus issue in the ratio of 1:1 as follows:
(1) The articles of Royal Ltd. must authorize it to issue the bonus shares. If there is no provision in the articles authorising the company to issue bonus shares, firstly, the articles shall be amended by passing a special Resolution.

(2) Steps for determining whether any increase in Authorised share capital is required.

Details
(a) Paid up share capital as on 31/03/2013 ₹ 150 crores ₹ 150 crores
(b) Paid-up capital as on 31st March 2013 [After conversion of ₹ 100 crores into equity share capital] ₹ 100 crores
(c) Proposed bonus issue – 1 share for every share held [250+250] ₹ 250 crores
(d) Post bonus issue capital ₹ 500 crores
(e) Authorised share capital ₹ 400 crores
(f) Increase in Authorised share capital ₹ 100 crores

(b)

  • The increase in Authorised share capital shall be made by passing a resolution in the general meeting.
  • Sources of bonus issue Reserve & Surplus ₹ 750 crores.
  • Sources are enough to make a bonus issue.

Question 6.
Mr. Gupta has transferred his shares in a listed company registered in his name to Mr. Patel. Due to his busy schedule, Mr. Patel has failed to get the shares registered in his name before the company declared and paid dividend on those shares.
Examine with reference to the provisions of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, whether Mr. Gupta is entitled to receive and retain the dividend even though he has transferred his shares before declaration of dividend.
Answer:
Title to Dividends:
As per Sec. 27(1) of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 a holder of security can legally receive and retain any dividend declared by the company even if he has transferred the security for valuable consideration. However, he (i.e. holder of security who is a transferor) cannot receive or retain the dividend if the transfer deed with all other documents required for transfer are lodged with the company within fifteen days of the date on which the dividend became due.

The period of fifteen days shall be extended as follows :
(1) In case of death of the transferee by the actual period taken by his legal representative to establish his claim to the dividend

(2) In the case of loss of the transfer deed by theft or any other cause beyond the control of the transferee, by the actual period taken for the replacement thereof and

(3) In case of delay in the lodging of any security and other documents relating to the transfer due to causes connected with the post, by the actual period of delay (Explanation to Sec. 27(1) of SCRA).

Present Case:
In view of the above, Mr. Gupta is entitled to receive and retain the dividend received by him if the transferee, Mr. Patel has not lodged the transfer deed with the company within fifteen days of the date on which dividend became due or the extended period as per explanation to Sec. 27(1).

However, Sec. 27(1) will not affect the right of the transferee to enforce his rights, if any against the transferor or any other person, if the company refuses to register the transfer of security in the name of the transferee. Space to write important points for revision :

Question 7.
Mr. S, a member of MN Ltd., obtained an order from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) against the company. But the company failed to redress the grievance of Mr. S within the time fixed. Consequently, SEBI imposed penalty on the company. The company, however, did not pay the penalty also. State how the penalty can be recovered from the company?
Answer:
According to Sec. 28A of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, if a person fails to pay the penalty imposed by the adjudicating officer or fails to comply with any direction of the Board for refund of monies or fails to comply with a direction of disgorgement order issued under section 11B or fails to pay any fees due to the Board, the Recovery Officer may draw up under his signature a statement/certificate in the specified form specifying the amount due from the person and shall proceed to recover from such person the amount specified in the certificate by one or more of the following modes, namely:

  • Attachment and sale of the person’s movable property
  • Attachment of the person’s bank accounts
  • Attachment and sale of the person’s immovable property
  • Arrest of the person and his detention in prison
  • Appointing a receiver for the management of the person’s movable and immovable properties.

Question 8.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has undertaken inspection of books of accounts and records of LR Ltd., a listed public company. Specify the measures which may be taken by SEBI under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 to protect the interest of investors and securities market, on completion of such inquiry.
Answer:
Measures SEBI on completion of inquiry: Following measures are undertaken as per Sec. 11 (4) of SEBI, Act, 1992.
(a) Suspend the trading of any security in a recognised stock exchange.

(b) Retain persons from accessing the securities market and prohibit any person associated with securities market to buy, sell or deal in securities.

(c) Suspend any office bearer of any stock exchange or self regulatory organisation from holding such position.

(d) Impound and retain the proceeds or securities in respect of any transaction which is under investigation etc.

(e) Attach, after passing of an order on an application made for approval by the Judicial Magistrate of the first class having jurisdiction, for a period not exceeding one month, one or more bank account or accounts of any intermediary or any person associated with the securities market in any manner involved in violation of any of the provisions of this Act, or the rules or the regulations made thereunder:

Provided – that only the bank account or accounts or any transaction entered therein, so far as it relates to the proceeds actually involved in violation of any of the provisions of this Act, or the rules or the regulations made thereunder shall be allowed to be attached;

(f) Direct any intermediary or any person associated with the securities market in any manner not to dispose of or alienate an asset forming part of any transaction which is under investigation:

Provided – that the Board may, without prejudice to the provisions contained in sub-section (2) or sub-section (2A), take any of the measures specified in clause (d) or clause (e) or clause (f), in respect of any listed public company or a public company (not being intermediaries referred to in section 12) which intends to get its securities listed on any recognised stock exchange where the Board has reasonable grounds to believe that such company has been indulging in insider trading or fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities market:

Provided further that the Board shall, either before or after passing such orders, give an opportunity of hearing to such intermediaries or persons concerned.- The amount disgorged, pursuant to a direction issued, under section 11 B of this Act or section 12 A of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956) or section 19 of the Depositories Act, 1996 (22 of 1996), as the case may be, shall be credited to the Investor Protection and Education Fund established by the Board and such amount shall be utilised by the Board in accordance with the regulations made under this Act.]

Question 9.
Industrial Finance Corporation of India, established under the Industrial Finance Corporation Act, 1948 having its registered office at Mumbai issued 8% redeemable bonds redeemable after 7 years. These bonds were issued directly to the members of the public and not through mechanism of stock exchanges.

You are required to state with reference to the provisions of Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, whether such direct issue of bonds by the -Industrial Finance Corporation of India is not violating the provisions of the said Act.
Answer:
In order to prevent undesirable transactions in securities and to promote healthy stock market, the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 was enacted and all the Stock Exchanges in the country are registered under this Act. Section 40 of the Companies Act, 2013 states that offer of shares or debentures to public for subscription shall be made only after the permission of a stock exchange.

Section 28(1) of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 states that the provisions of this Act shall not apply to the Government, the Reserve Bank of India, any local authority, or corporation set up by a special law or any person who has effected any transaction with or through the agency of any such authority as stated earlier.

As stated in the question Industrial Finance Corporation of India is a corporation set up under the Industrial Finance Corporation Act, 1948. i.e. under a special statute enacted by the Parliament. Therefore, this Corporation does not need any permission from a Stock Exchange to issue any Bond or other securities. Accordingly, it has not violated the provisions of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956. The nature and tenure of the Bonds are immaterial.

Question 10.
RSE Stock Exchange Limited, a recognised stock exchange is involved in trading of shares of Son Limited. The SEBI on receiving a complaint from a group of investors enquired and found that trading of shares of Son Limited is being conducted in a manner detrimental to the interest of the general investors. In order to curb the same, the SEBI wants to issue some directions to RSE Stock Exchange Limited.

Referring to the provisions of the Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956, discuss whether the SEBI has power to issue such directions. Can such directions be given to an individual who made some profit in any transaction in contravention of any provision of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, or regulations made thereunder?
Answer:
Power to Issue Direction : As per Sec. 12A of Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, SEBI may issue directions if after inquiry it is satisfied that issue of direction is necessary for:

  • in the interest of investors;
  • for development of securities market;
  • to prevent the affairs of any recognised stock exchange or clearing corporation which is detrimental to the interests of investors or securities market;
  • to secure the proper management of any such stock exchange or clearing corporation.

SEBI can give directions to:

  • stock exchange
  • clearing corporation
  • any person associated with the securities market
  • any company whose securities are listed or proposed to be listed with stock exchange.
  • any person, who made profit or averted loss by involving in any transaction or activity in contravention of Act to disgorge of amount of wrongful gain or averted loss.

Present Case:
Referring to above provision, if trading of shares of Son Limited who is a member of RSE Stock Exchange Limited, is being conducted in a manner detrimental to the interest of the general investor then SEBI has power as per Sec. 12 A to give directions to RSE Stock Exchange Ltd. SEBI has also power to issue directions to an individual who made some profit in any transaction.

Question 11.
Securities of Herbal Products Limited were listed in Madras Stock Exchange, which is a recognized stock exchange. The company has incurred losses during the preceding three consecutive years and it has also negative net worth. On having such information, Madras Stock Exchange decided to delist the securities of the company.
Decide the validity of the decision and explain the provisions of Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956 along with the grounds made under the Securities Contract (Regulation) Rules regarding delisting of securities.
Answer:
As per Sec. 21 A of the Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956:
A recognised stock exchange may delist the securities, after recording the reasons therefore, from any recognised stock exchange on any of the ground or grounds as may be prescribed under this Act. The securities of a company shall not be delisted unless the company concerned has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard. A listed company or an aggrieved investor may file an appeal before the securities Appellate Tribunal against the decision of the recognised stock exchange within fifteen days from the date of the decision.

As per Rule 21 of Securities Contract (Regulation) Rules, the alleged grounds for delisting of security are stated as follows:
(i) the company has incurred losses during the preceding 3 consecutive years and it has negative net-worth;

(ii) trading in securities of the company has remained suspended for a period of more than 6 months;

(iii) the securities of the company have remained infrequently traded during the preceding 3 years;

(iv) the company or any of its promoters or any of its director has been convicted for failure to comply with any of the provisions of the Act or SEBI Act, 1992, or Depositories Act, 1996 or rules, regulations, / agreements made thereunder, as the case may be and awarded a penalty of not less than one crore rupees or imprisonment of not less than 3 years;

(v) the addresses of the company or any of its promoter or any of its, directors, are not known or false addresses have been furnished or the company has changed its registered office in contravention of i the provisions of companies Act; or

(vi) Shareholding of the company held by the public has come below the minimum level applicable to the company as per the listing agreement under the Act and the company has failed to raise public holding to the required level within the time specified by the recognised stock exchange.

Present Case:
In the given case, Herbal Products Ltd. which is listed in Madras Stock Exchange, a recognised stock exchange, has incurred losses during the preceding three consecutive years and it also has negative net worth.

So, as per Sec. 21A read with Rule 21 of the Securities Contract (Regulation) Rules, it is an alleged ground on the basis of such ground the recognised stock exchange may delist the securities of the company.

Here, Madras stock exchange decided to delist the securities of ‘Herbal Product Limited. So, here decision taken by Madras stock exchange is valid in law.

Question 12.
The Delhi Stock Exchange Ltd. was granted recognition by Securities Exchange Board of India. SEBI received compliant alleging that the said Stock Exchange is indulging in fraudulent activities. SEBI is of the opinion that the recognition granted should be withdrawn in the interest of trade and public. State the provisions to withdraw the recognition under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956. Examine the validity of the contracts entered by the Stock Exchange prior to such withdrawal order.
Answer:
Withdrawal of recognition under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956:
Sec. 5(1) states that if the Central Government, SEBI is of the opinion that the recognition granted to a stock exchange under the provisions of this Act should in the interest of the trade or in the public interest, be withdrawn, the Central Government or SEBI may serve on the governing body of the stock exchange, a written notice that the Central Government is considering the withdrawal of the recognition for the reasons stated in the notice and after giving an opportunity to the governing body to be heard in the matter, the Central Government may withdraw by public notification in the official Gazette, the recognition granted to the stock exchange.

Provided that no such withdrawal shall affect the validity of any contract entered into or made before the date of the notification, and the Central Government may, after consultation with the stock exchange, make such provision as it deems fit in the notification of withdrawal or in any subsequent notification similarly published for the due performance of any contracts outstanding on that date.

Question 13.
Primex Securities (P) Ltd. is a Company involved in stock broking and is registered with SEBI. The said broking Company failed to:

  • Redress the grievances of the investors within the stipulated time.
  • Segregate securities or money of clients and used the same for self use or for any other clients.

The Securities and Exchange Board of India issued an Order against the said Company for committing the above offences. The Managing Director of the Company seeks your advice on the following under the provisions of the Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956.
(i) What is the penalty for the above offences?
(ii) Whether the offence committed by the stock broking company is compoundable? If so, by whom?
(iii) Whether this offence can be compounded after institution of proceedings against the stock broking Company?
Answer:
(i) As per Sec. 23 of the securities contract (Regulation) Act, 1956.
The SEBI issues an order against the company for committing offences and impose penalty as follows :

  • Offence : Redress the grievances of the investors within the stipulated time.
  • Penalty : Fine of at least ₹ 1,00,000 but may extend to ₹ 1,00,000 per day during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 1 crore.
  • Offence : Segregate securities or money of clients and used the same for self use or for any other clients.
  • Penalty : At least ₹ 1,00,000 but may extend to ₹ 1 crore.

(ii) The offence committed by the stock brooking company, not being an offence punishable ‘with imprisonment’ only, or‘with imprisonment and also with fine’ is compoundable. Such offences shall be compoundable by the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) or a Court.

(iii) The offence may either before or after the institution of any proceedings can be compounded against the stock brooking company.

Question 14.
DEF Limited is a listed company. The Board of Directors of the company at their meeting held on 1st November, 2018 approved the proposal to issue bonus shares in the ratio of 1 : 1. Such bonus issue is authorized by its Articles of Association for issue of bonus shares and capitalization of reserves. The company implemented the bonus issue on 15th November, 2018. Whether the company has contravened the provisions of Securities Exchange Board of lndia (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulation 2018?
Answer:
Bonus Issue: According to the provisions of Chapter IX of the SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2009, a listed issuer may issue bonus shares to its members if it is authorised by its articles of association for issue of bonus share, Capitalisation of reserves, etc.

An issuer, announcing a bonus issue after the approval of its board of directors and not requiring shareholders’ approval for Capitalisation of profits or reserves for making the bonus issue, shall implement the bonus issue within fifteen days from the date of approval of the issue by its board of directors. According to the stated facts, Board of Directors of DEF Ltd. approved the proposal to issue of bonus shares in the meeting held on 1st November 2018. This issue of bonus shares, is without requiring shareholders’ approval.

Accordingly, DEF Ltd. implemented the bonus issue within fifteen days from the date of approval of the issue by its board of directors (i.e. on 15th November 2018). So, DEF Ltd. is in compliance with the SEBI (ICDR) Regulation, 2009 and thus has not contravened.

Question 15.
N was a senior official of Xeta Limited, a listed Company. He was convicted for involvement in insider trading and manipulation of share price of the company. The adjudicating officer levied penalty as provided in the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, for which the recovery officer issued a certificate of recovery including interest on penalty. N filed an appeal before the securities Appellate Tribunal challenging that the interest cannot be levied by the recovery officer. Is N’s argument tenable?
Answer:
The present case is similar to the case of PVP Global Ventures Pvt Ltd. v. SEBI [SAT] Appeal No. 451 of 2018 [Decided on 12/04/2019]. In this case the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) observed that the object and intention of inserting Section 28A to the SEBI Act, 1992 was to provide a mechanism for recovery of the amount due to SEBI.

Instead of prescribing an independent mechanism for collection and recovery of the amounts due to SEBI, the legislature deemed it fit to follow the mechanism provided under the Income Tax Act, 1961 and accordingly inserted Section 28A to SEBI Act wherein the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961 relating to collection and recovery have been incorporated.

Thus, the legislature by inserting Section 28A to SEBI Act, 1992 has provided that if a person fails to pay the amounts referred in Section 28A, then the Recovery Officer shall draw up a statement/certificate and proceed to recover the amounts specified in the certificate by any one or more of the five modes specified therein.

This Tribunal in Dushyant N. Dalai & Anr. v. SEBI decided on March 10, 2017 (Appeal No. 41 of 2014) in which judgment was affirmed by the Supreme Court reported in 2017 SCC Online SC 1188, after considering the provision of Section 28A of SEBI Act, 1992 read with Section 220 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 held that the liability to pay interest under Section 28A read with Section 220 is automatic and arises by operation of law,

From the aforesaid, it becomes clear that interest was not only chargeable under Section 28A read with Section 220(2) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 but the provisions of the Interest Act, 1978 could also be taken into consideration and interest could be charged from the date on which the penalty became due.

In the light of the aforesaid, we are of the view that the Recovery Officer was justified in charging interest from the date of the order passed by the Adjudicating Officer. In view of the aforesaid, we find no merit in these appeals and are dismissed. In the circumstances there shall be no order on costs.

Hence, N’s argument is not tenable.

Multidisciplinary Case Studies CS Professional Notes

Inspection, Search, Seizure and Arrest, Penalties, Demand and Recovery Under GST – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions 

Inspection, Search, Seizure and Arrest, Penalties, Demand and Recovery Under GST – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Which are the applicable provisions for the purpose of recovery of tax short paid or not paid or amount erroneously refunded or input tax credit wrongly availed or utilized under CGST Act?
Answer:
Section 73 and Section 74 of the CGST Act, 2017 deals with the recovery of tax short paid or not paid or amount erroneously refunded or input tax credit wrongly availed or utilized.

In particular, Section 73 of the CGST Act, 2017 deals with the cases where there is no invocation of fraud/suppression/mis-statement etc. and Section 74 deals with cases where the provisions related to fraud/suppression/ mis-statement etc. are invoked.

Question 2.
Green & Green Private Limited has been issued a show cause notice (SCN) on 15th March, 2019 under section 73(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 on account of short payment of tax for the month of April, 2018. Green & Green Private Limited contends that the show cause notice so issued is time-barred in law. You are required to examine the technical veracity of the contention of Green & Green Private Limited in the context of provisions of the CGST Act, 2017.
Answer:
The show cause notice (SCN) under section 73(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 shall be issued at least 3 months prior to the time limit specified for issuance of order under section 73(10) and adjudication order under section 73(10) has to be issued within 3 years from the due date for furnishing of annual return for the financial year to which the short-paid/not paid tax relates to.

Thus, SCN under section 73(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 can be issued within 2 years and 9 months from the due date for furnishing of annual return for the financial year to which the short-paid/not paid tax relates to.

The SCN has been issued for the period April, 2018 which falls in the financial year 2018-19. Due date for furnishing annual return for the FY 2018-19 is 31-12-2019 and 3 year’s period from the due date of filing annual return lapses on 31-12-2022.

Thus, SCN under section 73(1) ought to have been issued latest by 30-9-2022, which in the given case, the notice has been issued on 15-3-2019, and therefore the same is in time. The contention of Green & Green Private Limited that the SCN is time barred is wrong.

Question 3.
(i) Deepak Garg started supply of goods within the state of Rajasthan from 1st December 2018. His turnover exceeded ₹20 lakh on 25th January 2019. However, he didn’t apply for registration. Determine the amount of penalty, if any, that may be imposed on Deepak Garg under CGST Act, 2017 on 31st March 2019, if the tax evaded as on said date, on account of failure to obtain registration is ₹8,000.
(ii) Kishore, an unregistered person under GST, purchases the goods supplied by Sanjay who is a registered person without receiving a tax invoice and thus helps in tax evasion. Determine maximum amount of penalty that may be imposed on Kishore under CGST Act, 2017.
Answer:
(i) Under section 122(1) of CGST Act, 2017 where a taxable person who is liable to be registered under this Act but fails to obtain registration, shall be liable to pay a penalty of ten thousand rupees or an amount equivalent to the tax evaded whichever is higher.

Hence Deepak Garg is liable for penalty of ₹10,000

(ii) Under section 122(3) of the CGST Act, 2017 any person who aids or abets any of the offences specified in clauses (i) to (xxi) of sub-section (1), he/she shall be liable to a penalty which may extend to twenty five thousand rupees. Hence, Kishore is liable for maximum penalty of ₹25,000 since he is helping in the tax evasion which is an offence under the CGST Act, 2017.

Question 4.
Mrs, Poomima started a business in supply of goods on 12-12-2017 at Salem, Tamil Nadu. During the year ended 31-3-2018, the details of the supplies effected at her Chennai office are as under:
(a) Supply of Taxable goods within the state: ₹16,00,000
(b) Supply of Exempt goods ₹5,00,000
She has not taken any GST registration. Determine the amount of penalty, if any, which may be imposed on her on 31-3-2018. In respect of taxable goods, SGST is 6% and CGST is 6%.
Note: Assume that she crossed the ? 20,00,000 limit on 25-1-2018.
Answer:
In given case, aggregate turnover of Financial Year 2017-18 is ₹21,00,000 (₹16,00,000 + ₹5,00,000). Where the aggregate turnover of a supplier making supplies exceeds ₹20 lakhs in a financial Year, he is liable to be registered under the Act of the concern state or union territory as the case may be. The said supplier must apply for registration within 30 days on which he becomes liable for registration.

However, in the given case, Mrs. Poornima became liable to registration on 25-1-2018, she did not apply for registration within 30 days of becoming liable to registration.

Section 122(1)(xi) of the CGST Act, 2017 enjoins that a taxable person who is liable to be registered under the CGST Act, 2017 but fails to obtain registration shall be liable to pay penalty of

(a) ₹10,000; or;
(b) An amount equivalent to the tax evaded. Whichever is higher.

In the given case, (b) is 12% of ₹1,00,000 i.e. ₹12,000. Hence a sum of ₹12,000 will be levied as penalty for failure to get himself registered.

Note:
GST is payable only when a person is registered/becomes liable to register under GST. Hence, GST liability in this case would arise only on Turnover beyond ₹20,00,000. Hence, it is computed on ₹1,00,000. It is assumed that all supplies after 25-1-2018 are taxable supplies.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of recovery in instalments under Section 80 of CGST Act 2017 giving the circumstances in which such facility can be allowed and will not be allowed to the defaulter.
Answer:
Recovery in instalments (Sections 80 of the CGST Act, 2017)

Commissioner can allow payment with interest by defaulter in monthly instalments not exceeding 24 instalments.

In case of default in payment of any one instalment on its due date, the whole outstanding balance payable on such date shall become due.

For seeking instalment facility, taxable persons can file application electronically in form GST DRC-20.

The instalment facility will not be allowed if:

The taxable person has already defaulted on the payment of any amount under GST law and recovery process is already undergoing;
The taxable person has not been allowed to make payment in instalments in the preceding financial year under GST law; and
The amount for which instalment facility is sought is less than ₹25,000.

Question 6.
What are the modes of recovery of tax available to the proper officer under GST laws?
Answer:
Section 79 of CGST Act, 2017 deals with the modes of recovery of dues. In terms of the said provision, the proper officer may recover the dues in following manner:

(a) Deduction of dues from the amount owned by the tax authorities payable to such person.

(b) Recovery by way of detaining and selling any goods belonging to such person.

(c) Recovery from other person, from whom money is due or may become due to such person or who holds or may subsequently hold money for or on account of such person.

(d) Distrain any movable or immovable property belonging to such person, until the amount payable is paid. If the dues not paid within 30 days, the said property is to be sold and with the proceeds of such sale the amount payable and cost of sale shall be recovered;

(e) Through the Collector of the district in which such person owns any property or resides or carries on his business, as if it was an arrear of land revenue;

(f) By way of an application to the appropriate Magistrate who in turn shall proceed to recover the amount as if it were a fine imposed by him;

(g) Through enforcing the bond/instrument executed under this Act or any rules or regulations made there under;

(h) CGST arrears can be recovered as an arrear of SGST and vice versa.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of the term “Search”?
Answer:
The term ‘search’ has not been expressly defined in the GST statutes. However, the powers of the GST officers to search any premises have been contained in section 67 of the CGST Act, 2017.

Section 67(2) of the CGST Act, 2017 provides that where the proper officer, not below the rank of Joint Commissioner, either pursuant to an inspection carried out under sub-section (1) or otherwise, has reasons to believe that any goods liable to confiscation or any documents or books or things, which in his opinion shall be useful for or relevant to any proceedings under this Act, are secreted in any place, he may authorise in writing any other officer of central tax to search and seize or may himself search and seize such goods, documents or books or things.

Further, section 67(10) of the CGST Act, 2017 provides that the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), relating to search and seizure, shall, so far as may be, apply to search and seizure under this section subject to the modification that sub-section (5) of section 165 of the said Code shall have effect as if for the word “Magistrate”, wherever it occurs, the word “Commissioner” were substituted.

Question 8.
What are the powers of the proper officer during the search?
Answer:
The officer authorised under to carry out inspection shall have the power to seal or break open the door of any premises or to break open any almirah, electronic devices, box, receptacle in which any goods, accounts, registers or documents of the person are suspected to be concealed, where access to such premises, almirah, electronic devices, box or receptacle is denied. (Section 67(4) of the CGST Act).

Question 9.
Who can order for Search and Seizure under the provisions of CGST Act?
Answer:
An officer of the rank of Joint Commissioner or above can authorize an officer in writing to carry out search and seize goods, documents, books or things. Such authorization can be given only where the Joint Commissioner has reasons to believe that any goods liable to confiscation or any documents or books or things relevant for any proceedings are hidden in any place.

Question 10.
What is a Search Warrant and what are its contents?
Answer:
The written authority to conduct search is generally called search warrant. The competent authority to issue search warrant is an officer of the rank of Joint Commissioner or above. A search warrant must indicate the existence of a reasonable belief leading to the search. Search Warrant should contain the following details:

  • the violation under the Act,
  • the premise to be searched,
  • the name and designation of the person authorized for search,
  • the name of the issuing officer with full designation along with his round seal,
  • date and place of issue,
  • serial number of the search warrant,
  • period of validity i.e. a day or two days etc.

Question 11.
What is the meaning of the term “Inspection”? Who can order for carrying out “Inspection” and under what circumstances?
Answer:
The term ‘Inspection’ has not been expressly defined under the GST statutes. However, section 67(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 provides that where the proper officer, not below the rank of Joint Commissioner, has reasons to believe that

(a) a taxable person has suppressed any transaction relating to supply of goods or services or both or the stock of goods in hand, or has claimed input tax credit in excess of his entitlement under this Act or has indulged in contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder to evade tax under this Act; or

(b) any person engaged in the business of transporting goods or an owner or operator of a warehouse or a godown or any other place is keeping goods which have escaped payment of tax or has kept his accounts or goods in such a manner as is likely to cause evasion of tax payable under this Act,

He may authorise in writing any other officer of central tax to inspect any places of business of the taxable person or the persons engaged in the business of transporting goods or the owner or the operator of warehouse or godown or any other place.

Question 12.
What powers can be exercised by an officer during valid search?
Answer:
An officer carrying out a search has the power to search for and seize goods (which are liable to confiscation) and documents, books or things (relevant for any proceedings under CGST/SGST Act) from the premises searched. During search, the officer has the power to break open the door of the premises authorized to be searched if access to the same is denied.

Similarly, while carrying out search within the premises, he can break open any almirah or box if access to such almirah or box is denied and in which any goods, account, registers or documents are suspected to be concealed. He can also seal the premises if access to it denied.

Question 13.
Can a CGST/SGST officer access business premises under any other circumstances?
Answer:
Yes. Access can also be obtained in terms of Section 65 of CGST/SGST Act. This provision of law is meant to allow an audit party of CGST/SGST or C&AG or a cost accountant or chartered accountant nominated under section 66 of CGST/SGST Act, access to any business premises without issuance of a search warrant for the purposes of carrying out any audit, scrutiny, verification and checks as may be necessary to safeguard the interest of revenue.

However, a written authorization is to be issued by an officer of the rank of Commissioner of CGST or SGST. This provision facilitates access to a business premise which is not registered by a taxable person as a principal or additional place of business but has books of account, documents, computers etc. which are required for audit or verification of accounts of a taxable person.

Question 14.
What is meant by the term ‘Seizure’?
Answer:
The term ‘seizure’ has not been specifically defined in the GST Law. In Law Lexicon Dictionary, ‘seizure’ is defined as the act of taking possession of property by an officer under legal process. It generally implies taking possession forcibly contrary to the wish of the owner of the property or who has the possession and who was unwilling to part with the possession.

Question 15.
What are the safeguards provided in GST Act(s) in respect of Search or Seizure?
Answer:
Certain safeguards are provided in section 67 of CGST/SGST Act in respect of the power of search or seizure. These are as follows:
(i) Seized goods or documents should not be retained beyond the period necessary for their examination;

(ii) Photocopies of the documents can be taken by the person from whose custody documents are seized;

(iii) For seized goods, if a notice is not issued within six months of its seizure, goods shall be returned to the person from whose possession it was seized. This period of six months can be extended on justified grounds up to a further period of maximum six months;

(iv) An inventory of seized goods shall be made by the seizing officer;

(v) Certain categories of goods to be specified under CGST Rules (such as perishable, hazardous etc.) can be disposed of immediately after seizure;

(vi) Provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 relating to search and seizure shall apply. However, one important modification is in relation to sub-section (5) of section 165 of Code of Criminal Procedure – instead of sending copies of any record made in course of search to the nearest Magistrate empowered to take cognizance of the offence, it has to be sent to the Principal Commissioner/Commissioner of CGST/ Commissioner of SGST.

Question 16.
What is the lime limit for issuance of SCN in respect of seized goods?
Answer:
The SCN in respect of seized goods is to be issued within six months from the date of seizure of goods, otherwise the goods shall be returned to the person from whose possession they were seized. However, the period of six months, on sufficient cause being shown can be extended by the proper officer for a further period not exceeding six months. (Section 67(7) of the Act.)

Question 17.
When can the proper officer authorize ‘arrest’ of any person under CGST/SGST Act?
Answer:
The Goods and Services Tax Authorities are empowered under section 69 of CGST Act, 2017 to arrest persons accused of offences specified under Section 132 of the CGST Act, 2017 (‘CGST Act’). The Commissioner of CGST(Central Goods and Services Tax), by order, can authorize any CGST officer to arrest a person, if he has reasons to believe that such person has committed an offence specified in clause (a) or clause (b) or clause (c) or clause (d) of section 132(1) of CGST Act, 2017 which is punishable under H clause (i) or (it) of section 132(1) or section 132(2) of the CGST Act, 2017.

This essentially means that a person can be arrested only when the amount of tax evaded or the amount of input tax credit wrongly availed or utilized or the amount of refund wrongly taken exceeds ₹1 Crore (imprisonment for a term up to 1 year with fine) or ₹5 Crores (imprisonment for a term up to 5 years with fine).

Section of CGST Act Offence
132(1)(a) Supply of any goods or services or both without issue of any invoice in violation of the provisions of the Act or Rules with intent to evade tax.
132(1)(b) Issue of any invoice or bill without supply of goods or services or both in violation of the provisions of the Act or Rules leading to wrongful availment or utilisation of input tax credit or refund of tax
132(1)(c) Availment of input tax credit using the invoice or bill referred to in clause (b)
132(1)(d) Collection of any amount of tax but failing to pay the same to the Government beyond a period of 3 months from the date on which such payment becomes due

The word arrest usually comes within the realm of criminal jurisdiction. Offences can be classified into 3 major categories:

  1. Tax evasion
  2. Wrong/fraudulent availing of Input tax credit
  3. Wrong/fraudulent obtaining of Refund

The punishment for offences in Section 132(a), (b), (c), (d) of CGST, 2017 where the quantum involved is more than 5 crore is cognizable and non-bailable. All other offences with lesser quantum are non-cognizable and bailable.

If the Commissioner of CGST/SGST believes a person has committed an offence u/s 132 of CGST Act, he can be arrested by any authorised CGST/SGST officer. The arrested person will be informed about the grounds of his arrest. He will appear before the magistrate within 24 hours of arrest in case of cognizable offence.

Question 18.
What are cognizable and non-cognizable offences under CGST Act?
Answer:
In section 132 of CGST Act, 2017 it is provided that the offences relating to taxable goods and/or services where the amount of tax evaded or the amount of input tax credit wrongly availed or the amount of refund wrongly taken exceeds ₹5 crores, shall be cognizable and non-bailable. Other offences under the act are non-cognizable and bailable.

Question 19.
When can the proper officer issue summons under CGST Act?
Answer:
Section 70 of CGST/SGST Act, 2017 gives powers to a duly authorized CGST/SGST officer to call upon a person by issuing a summon to present himself before the officer issuing the summon to either give evidence or produce a document or any other thing in any inquiry which an officer is making.

A summons to produce documents or other things may be for the production of certain specified documents or things or for the production of all documents or things of a certain description in the possession or under the control of the person summoned.

Question 20.
What can be the consequences of non-appearance to summons?
Answer:
The proceeding before the official who has issued summons is deemed to be a judicial proceeding. If a person does not appear on the date when summoned without any reasonable justification, he can be prosecuted under section 174 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

If he absconds to avoid service of summons, he can be prosecuted under section 172 of the IPC and in case he does not produce the documents or electronic records required to be produced, he can be prosecuted under section 175 of the IPC. In case he gives false evidence, he can be prosecuted under section 193 of the IPC. In addition, if a person does not appear before a CGST/ SGST officer who has issued the summons, he is liable to a penalty up to ? 25,000 under section 122(3)(d) of CGST/SGST Act.

Question 21.
What are the guidelines for issue of summons?
Answer:
The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) has issued guidelines from time to time to ensure that summons provisions are not misused in the field. Some of the important highlights of these guidelines are given below:

(i) summons is to be issued as a last resort where assessees are not co-operating and this section should not be used for the top management;

(ii) the language of the summons should not be harsh and legal which causes unnecessary mental stress and embarrassment to the receiver;

(iii) summons by Superintendents should be issued after obtaining prior written permission from an officer not below the rank of Assistant Commissioner with the reasons for issuance of summons to be recorded in writing;

(iv) where for operational reasons, it is not possible to obtain such prior written permission, oral/telephonic permission from such officer must be obtained and the same should be reduced to writing and intimated to the officer according such permission at the earliest opportunity;

(v) in all cases, where summons are issued, the officer issuing summons should submit a report or should record a brief of the proceedings in the case file and submit the same to the officer who had authorized the issuance of summons;

(vi) senior management officials such as CEO, CFO, General Managers of a large company or a Public Sector Undertaking should not generally be issued summons at the first instance. They should be summoned only when there are indications in the investigation of their involve¬ment in the decision-making process which led to loss of revenue.

Question 22.
What are the precautions to be observed while issuing summons?
Answer:
The following precautions should generally be observed when summoning a person:

(i) A summon should not be issued for appearance where it is not justified. The power to summon can be exercised only when there is an inquiry being undertaken and the attendance of the person is considered necessary.

(ii) Normally, summons should not be issued repeatedly. As far as practicable, the statement of the accused or witness should be recorded in minimum number of appearances.

(iii) Respect the time of appearance given in the summons. No person should be made to wait for long hours before his statement is recorded except when it has been decided very consciously as a matter of strategy.

(iv) Preferably, statements should be recorded during office hours; however, an exception could be made regarding time and place of recording statement having regard to the facts in the case.

Question 23.
What are the prescribed offences under CGST/SGST Act?
Answer:
The CGST/SGST Act codifies the offences and penalties in Chapter XVI. The Act lists 21 offences in section 122 of CGST Act, 2017, apart from the penalty prescribed under section 10 for availing compounding by a taxable person who is not eligible for it. The said offences are as follows:-

  1. Making a supply without invoice or with false/incorrect invoice;
  2. Issuing an invoice without making supply;
  3. Not paying tax collected for a period exceeding three months;
  4. Not paying tax collected in contravention of the CGST/SGST Act for a period exceeding 3 months;
  5. Non-deduction or lower deduction of tax deducted at source or not depositing tax deducted at source under section 51;
  6. Non-collection or lower collection of or non-payment of tax collectible at source under section 52;
  7. Availing/utilizing input tax credit without actual receipt of goods and/ or services;
  8. Fraudulently obtaining any refund;
  9. Availing/distributing input tax credit by an Input Service Distributor in violation of Section 20;
  10. Furnishing false information or falsification of financial records or furnishing of fake accounts/documents with intent to evade payment of tax;
  11. Failure to register despite being liable to pay tax;
  12. Furnishing false information regarding registration particulars either at the time of applying for registration or subsequently;
  13. Obstructing or preventing any official in discharge of his duty;
  14. Transporting goods without prescribed documents;
  15. Suppressing turnover leading to tax evasion;
  16. Failure to maintain accounts/documents in the manner specified in the Act or failure to retain accounts/documents for the period specified in the Act;
  17. Failure to furnish information/documents required by an officer in terms of the Act/Rules or furnishing false information/documents during the course of any proceeding;
  18. Supplying/transporting/storing any goods liable to confiscation;
  19. Issuing invoice or document using GSTIN of another person;
  20. Tampering/destroying any material evidence;
  21. Disposing of/tampering with goods detained/seized/attached under the Act.

Question 24.
What is meant by the term penalty?
Answer:
The word “penalty” has not been defined in the CGST/SGST Act but judicial pronouncements and principles of jurisprudence have laid down the nature of a penalty as: a temporary punishment or a sum of money imposed by statute, to be paid as punishment for the commission of a certain offence; a punishment imposed by law or contract for doing or failing to do something that was the duty of a party to do.

Question 25.
What is the quantum of penalty provided for in the CGST/SGST Act?
Answer:
Section 122(1) of CGST Act, 2017 provides that any taxable person who has committed any of the offences mentioned in section 122 shall be punished with a penalty that shall be higher of the following amounts: The amount of tax evaded, fraudulently obtained as refund, availed as credit, or not deducted or collected or short deducted or short collected; or; A sum of ₹10,000.

Further Section 122(2) of CGST Act, 2017 provides that any registered person who has not paid tax or makes a short payment of tax on supplies shall be a liable to penalty which will be the higher of: 10% of the tax not paid or short paid; or; ₹10,000.

Question 26.
Is any penalty prescribed for any person other than the taxable person?
Answer:
Yes. Section 122(3) of CGST Act, 2017 provides for levy of penalty extending to ₹25,000 for any person who aids or abets any of the 21 offences, deals in any way (whether receiving, supplying, storing or transporting) with goods that are liable to confiscation, receives or deals with supply of services in contravention of the Act, fails to appear before an authority who has issued a summon, fails to issue any invoice for a supply or account for any invoice in his books of account.

Question 27.
What action can be taken for transportation of goods without valid documents or attempted to be removed without proper record in books?
Answer:
If any person transports any goods or stores any such goods while in transit without the documents prescribed under the Act (i.e. invoice and a declaration) or supplies or stores any goods that have not been recorded in the books or accounts maintained by him, then such goods shall be liable for detention along with any vehicle on which they are being transported.

Where owner comes forward:
Such goods shall be released on payment of the applicable tax and penalty equal to 100% tax or upon furnishing of security equivalent to the said amount. In case of exempted goods, penalty is 2% of value of goods or ₹25,000 whichever is lesser.

Where owner does not come forward:
Such goods shall be released on payment of the applicable tax and penalty equal to 50% of value of goods or upon furnishing of security equivalent to the said amount. In case of exempted goods, penalty is 5% of value of goods or ₹25,000 whichever is lesser.

Question 28.
What is meant by confiscation?
Answer:
The word ‘confiscation’ has not been defined in the Act. The concept is derived from Roman law wherein it meant seizing or taking into the hands of emperor, and transferring to Imperial “fiscus” or Treasury. The word “confiscate” has been defined in Aiyar’s Law Lexicon as to “appropriate (private property) to the public treasury by way of penalty; to deprive of property as forfeited to the State.” In short in means transfer of the title to the goods to the Government.

Question 29.
When do goods become liable to confiscation under the provisions of CGST/SGST Act?
Answer:
As per section 130 of CGST/SGST Act, goods become liable to confiscation when any person does the following:

  • supplies or receives any goods in contravention of any of the provisions of this Act or rules made thereunder leading to evasion of tax;
  • does not account for any goods on which he is liable to pay tax under this Act;
  • supplies any goods liable to tax under this Act without having applied for the registration;
  • contravenes any of the provisions of the CGST/SGST Act or rules made thereunder with intent to evade payment of tax.

Question 30.
Can any conveyance carrying goods without cover of prescribed documents be subject to confiscation?
Answer:
Yes. Section 130 of CGST Act, 2017 provides that any conveyance carrying goods without the cover of any documents or declaration prescribed under the Act shall be liable to confiscation. However, if the owner of the conveyance proves that the goods were being transported without cover of the required documents/declarations without his knowledge or connivance or without the knowledge or connivance of his agent then the conveyance shall not be liable to confiscation as aforesaid.

Question 31.
What is Prosecution?
Answer:
Prosecution is the institution or commencement of legal proceeding; the process of exhibiting formal charges against the offender. Section 198 of the Criminal Procedure Code defines “prosecution” as the institution and carrying on of the legal proceedings against a person.

Question 32.
Which are the offences which warrant prosecution under the CGST/ SGST Act?
Answer:
Section 132 of the CGST/SGST Act codifies the major offences under the Act which warrant institution of criminal proceedings and prosecution. 12 such major offences have been listed as follows:

(a) Making a supply without issuing an invoice or upon issuance of a false/incorrect invoice;
(b) Issuing an invoice without making supply;
(c) Not paying any amount collected as tax for a period exceeding 3 months;
(d) Availing or utilizing credit of input tax without actual receipt of goods and/or services;
(e) Obtaining any fraudulent refund
(f) evades tax, fraudulently avails ITC or obtains refund by an offence not covered under clauses (a) to (e);
(g) Furnishing false information or falsification of financial records or furnishing of fake accounts/documents with intent to evade payment of tax;
(h) Obstructing or preventing any official in the discharge of his duty;
(i) Dealing with goods liable to confiscation i.e. receipt, supply, storage or transportation of goods liable to confiscation;
(j) Receiving/dealing with supply of services in contravention of the Act;
(k) tampers with or destroys any material evidence or documents;
(l) Failing to supply any information required of him under the Act/Rules or supplying false information;
(m) Attempting to commit or abetting the commission of any of the of¬fences at (a) to (t) above.

Question 33.
What is the punishment prescribed on conviction of any offence under the CGST/ SGST Act?
Answer:
The scheme of punishment provided in section 132(1) is as follows:

Offence involving Punishment (imprisonment extending to)
Tax evaded exceeding ₹5 crore or repeat offender for ₹250 lakh 5 years and fine
Tax evaded between ₹2 crore and ₹5 crore 3 years and fine
Tax evaded between ₹1 crore and ₹2 crore 1 year and fine
False records/Obstructing officer/Tamper records 6 months

Question 34.
What is a culpable state of mind?
Answer:
While committing an act, a “culpable mental state” is a state of mind – wherein the act is intentional;

the act and its implications are understood and controllable;
the person committing the act was not coerced and even overcomes hurdles to the act committed;
the person believes or has reasons to believe that the act is contrary to law.

Section 135 of the CGST Act, 2017 provides that in any prosecution for an offence under this Act which requires a culpable mental state on the part of the accused, the court shall presume the existence of such mental state but it shall be a defence for the accused to prove the fact that he had no such mental state with respect to the act charged as an offence in that prosecution. The explanation to the said provision further provides that:-

(i) the expression “culpable mental state” includes intention, motive, knowledge of a fact, and belief in, or reason to believe, a fact;
(ii) a fact is said to be proved only when the court believes it to exist beyond reasonable doubt and not merely when its existence is established by a preponderance of probability

Question 35.
Can a company be proceeded against or prosecuted for any offence under the CGST/ SGST Act?
Answer:
Yes. Section 137 of the CGST/SGST Act provides that every person who was in-charge of or responsible to a company for the conduct of its business shall, along-with the company itself, be liable to be proceeded against and punished for an offence committed by the company while such person was in-charge of the affairs of the company. If any offence committed by the company

has been committed with the consent/connivance of, or
is attributable to negligence of any officer of the company then such officer shall be deemed to be guilty of the said offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

Question 36.
Are there any monetary limits prescribed for compounding of offence?
Answer:
Yes. The lower limit for compounding amount is to be the greater of the following amounts:
50% of tax involved; or;
₹10,000.
The upper limit for compounding amount is to be greater of the following amounts:
150% of tax involved; or;
₹30,000.

Question 37.
What is the procedure for compounding of offences?
Answer:
The applicant has to make an application in form GST CPD-01 to the Commissioner for compounding of an offence. The application is not allowed unless the tax, interest and penalty liable to be paid have been paid in the case for which the application has been made On receipt of the application, the Commissioner shall call for a report from the concerned officer with reference to the particulars furnished in the application, or any other information, which may be considered relevant for the examination of such application.

The Commissioner, after taking into account the contents of the said application, may, by order in FORM GST CPD-02, on being satisfied that the applicant has cooperated in the proceedings before him and has made full and true disclosure of facts relating to the case, allow the application indicating the compounding amount and grant him immunity from prosecution or reject such application within ninety days of the receipt of the application. The application shall not be decided without affording an opportunity of being heard to the applicant and recording the grounds of such rejection.

Inspection, Search, Seizure And; Arrest, Penalties, Demand And Recovery Under Gst Notes

Sections involved:
a. Inspection, Search, Seizure and Arrest: Sections 67 to 72 of CGST Act.

  • Power of inspection, search, seizure and arrest.
  • Inspection of goods in movement.
  • Power to arrest.
  • Power to summon persons to give evidence and produce documents.
  • Access to business premises.
  • Officers to assist proper officers.

b. Offences and penalties: Sections 122 to 138 of CGST Act:

  • Penalty for certain offences (21 offences covered): X 10,000 or tax evaded/not deducted/not collected/Input Tax Credit availed of or passed on or distributed irregularly/claimed fraudulently, whichever is higher.
  • Penalty for supplies on which tax has not been paid or short paid or erroneously refunded, or where ITC has been wrongly availed or utilised.

For any reason other than fraud: X 10,000 or 10% of the tax due from such person, whichever is higher.
For the reason of fraud: X 10,000 or 100% of the tax due from such person, whichever is higher.

  • Penalty for any person other than the taxable person: (who aids or abets any of 21 offences): Penalty up to ₹ 25,000.
  • Penalty for failure to furnish information return: ₹ 100 for

each day of the period during which failure to furnish such return continues or; ₹ 5,000, whichever is higher. 10.1

  • Fine for failure to furnish statistics: ₹ 10,000 (maximum) + if continuing offence: ? 100 each day after the first day during which offence continues but a maximum ₹ 25,000.
  • General Penalty: For person contravening any of provisions of this Act or any rules made thereunder for which no penalty is separately provided: maximum penalty – ₹ 25,000.
  • No penalty to be imposed for minor breaches
  • Power to waive penalty or fee or both in certain notified cases
  • Power of detention or seizure of goods/conveyances
  • Power of Confiscation of goods or conveyances and levy of penalty
  • Cognizable and Non-cognizable offences.
  • Provisions relating to the liability of officers and certain other persons
  • Compounding of Offences

c. Demand and recovery: Sections 73 to 84 of CGST Act.

  • Concept of Show Cause Notice (SCN)
  • Time limit for issue of SCN:

a. Where fraud is not involved:
At least 3 months prior to the time limit specified for passing the order determining the amount of tax, interest and penalty payable by the defaulter. Further, the said order is to be passed within 3 years from the due date of furnishing the annual return for F.Y. to which tax not paid, etc. relates.

Thus, the time limit for issuance of SCN is 2 years and 9 months from the due date of filing the Annual Return for the financial year to which demand pertains or from the date of erroneous refund.

b. Where fraud is involved:
At least 6 months prior to the time limit specified for passing the order determining the amount of tax, interest and penalty payable by the defaulter. Further, the said order is to be passed within 5 years from the due date of furnishing the annual return for F.Y. to which tax not paid, etc. relates. Thus, the time limit for issuance of SCN is 4 years and 6 months from the due date of filing the Annual Return for the financial year to which demand pertains or from the date of erroneous refund.

  • Quantum of Penalty:

a. Where fraud is not involved:
1096 of tax or ₹ 10,000, whichever is higher. However, NO PEN-ALTY if tax and interest are paid within 30 days of the issue of notice.
Note: Penalty continues to be payable if self-assessed tax is not paid within 30 days from the due date of payment of such tax (i.e. even if SCN is not issued, the penalty is payable if tax is paid beyond 30 days from the due date of payment of tax.)

b. Where fraud is involved:
The penalty is equivalent to tax i.e. 10096 of tax.
However, if voluntary payment of tax and interest, before SCN: 1596 of tax
If Tax, Interest paid within 30 days of issue of SCN: 2596 of tax. If Tax, Interest paid within 30 days of communication of adjudi¬cation order: 5096 of tax.

  • General provisions relating to the determination of tax.
  • Provisions relating to tax collected but not paid to Government.
  • Provisions relating to initiation of recovery proceedings.
  • Provisions dealing with the recovery of tax.
  • Payment of Tax and other amounts in instalments.
  • Transfer of property to be void in certain cases.
  • Tax to be the first charge on property as per section 82 of CGST Act.
  • Provisional attachment to protect revenue in certain cases.
  • Provisions regarding continuation and validation of certain recovery proceedings.

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Interpretation of Law – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Interpretation of Law – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Question 1.
Anita residing in Delhi publishes in Calcutta statements defamatory of Babita of Mumbai. Babita wants to sue Anita in Calcutta. Advise Anita and Babita.
Answer:
Under Section 19 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a plaintiff can sue the defendant in the place where the defendant resides or the Court where the cause of action arose. Hence Babita can bring the action against Anita in Delhi, where she resides, or in Calcutta, where the defamatory statement was made.

Question 2.
Ram and Shyam sell wheat for ₹ 10,000 to Sohan and Mohan. Sohan sells cloth worth ₹ 12,000 to Shyam. Sohan files a suit against Shyam for recovery of price of cloth. Shyam claims set off of the cost of wheat in this suit. Will he succeed?
Answer:
In this case, Ram and Shyam sell wheat worth ₹ 10,000 to Sohan and Mohan. Sohan sells cloth worth ₹ 12,000 to Shyam. Sohan then files for the recovery of his consideration for the cloth. Shyam wishes to,set off the price of wheat against the price of the cloth. He will not succeed, as under Rule 6 of Order VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, set off of claims is possible only when the parties to both claims are the same.

Question 3.
X resides at Bombay, Y at Delhi and Z at Chennai. X, Y and Z being together at Calcutta, Y and Z make a joint promissory note payable on demand and deliver it to X. Where can X sue Y and Z for amount of the promissory note.
Answer:
According to Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in case of a dispute arising, the plaintiff can sue the defendants in a court within whose jurisdiction they reside or carry on business or work for gain. Alternatively, they can be sued in the place where the cause of action arose.

Hence, in this case, X can sue Y and Z at Delhi, Chennai or Calcutta.

Question 4.
XY and Co. files a suit under Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for recovery of ₹ 50,000 which were given by it as loan to its employee Z against the promissory note executed by him in the Court of the District Judge. Z received the summons for judgement in the suit under Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Z files a written statement after 20 days of the receipt of summons in the said suit. The Court of District Judge ignores the written statement of Z and outright passes the judgement and decree for recovery of ₹ 50,000 with costs against Z. Examine the correctness of the procedure adopted by the Court of District Judge.
Answer:
Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 covers the details for .summary procedure. According to it, the defendant needs to file a Memorandum of Appearance within ten days of the service of summons on him. In this case, Z files a written statement after twenty days of the receipt of summons in the said suit. The District Judge ignores the statement and passes a judgement and decree for recovery of the entire sum plus costs again Z. The procedure adopted by the District Judge was entirely justified in the light of the statement given by Z coming after the required time set aside for leave to defend the suit. In such a situation, the judge is entitled to hear the suit exparte and pass the necessary judgement.

Question 5.
Amar files a suit against Binod for enhancement of rent. The court dismisses the suit holding that the rent is already too high. Binod now files a suit against Amar for reduction of rent and pleads that the previous decision that the rent is excessive will operate as res judicata. Is the plea valid?
Answer:
No, the suit is not maintainable as it is covered by the doctrine of ‘Constructive Res Judicata’ that is provided for in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It prevents further suits being filed for a matter that is at the core of a former suit. The reasons are as below –

  • The same party should not be troubled with the same matter again and again.
  • There should be a limit to the number of cases filed in a court, i.e. vexatious cases should not be entertained.
  • The same matter should not be used for wasting valuable court time repeatedly.

The basic requirement for applying this doctrine is that the matter that is at the core of the former suit should also be the main essence of the latter suit(s). Since this is not the case here, the subsequent suit will not be maintained.

Question 6.
Arjun who resides at Delhi entered into a contract with, Bheem at Mumbai for supply of certain goods at Kolkata where Bheem resides and carries on business. At the time of entering into contract, it was agreed upon between Arjun and Bheem that in case of any dispute regarding payment or delivery of goods arises, the suit will be filed only in Bangalore court. Bheem failed to make payment of goods. Arjun files a suit at Bangalore for recovery of money. Bheem alleges that Bangalore court has no jurisdiction to decide the suit. Is the plea of Bheem maintainable?
Answer:
Yes, Bheem’s plea that the Bangalore court has no jurisdiction in the suit is maintainable. The justification for this lies in Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It says that in case of a dispute arising, the plaintiff can sue the defendants in a court within whose jurisdiction they reside or carry on business or work for gain. Alternatively, they can be sued in the place where the cause of action arose, but in no third place.

Hence, in this case, the suit can be filed in Kolkata or Mumbai but not at 1 Delhi.

Question 7.
Anand filed a tenancy application under the Tenancy Act. His earlier suit was not maintainable before the civil court in view of bar created under section 85 of the Tenancy Act. Whether the decision rendered by the civil court would operate as res judicata for deciding tenancy application under the Tenancy Act?
Answer:
No, the decision rendered by the civil court would not operate as res judicata as the earlier suit was not maintainable. It is covered by the doctrine of ‘Constructive Res Judicata’ that is provided for in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It prevents further suits being filed for a matter that is at the core of a former suit.

The requirements and reasons are as below –

  • The same party should not be troubled with the same matter again and again.
  • There should be a limit to the number of cases filed in a court, i.e. vexatious cases should not be entertained.
  • The same matter should not be used for wasting valuable court time repeatedly.

The basic requirement for applying this doctrine is that the matter that is at the core of the former suit should also be the main essence of the latter suit(s). Since this is not the case here, the subsequent suit will not be maintained.

Question 8.
A cause of action arises between two parties Surendra and Mahendra. The courts at Meerut and Ghaziabad are competent to try the suit. But both the parties to the contract agree to vest the jurisdiction in the court at Meerut. Is such an agreement valid?
Answer:
Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 says that in case of a dispute arising, the plaintiff can sue the defendants in a court within whose jurisdiction they reside or carry on business or work for gain. Alternatively, they can be sued in the place where the cause of action arose, but in no third place. However, if more than one court is competent to try the suit, then the parties can decide by mutual agreement upon one court. This will normally happen when the cause of action lies in more than one court’s jurisdiction.

Hence, in this case, the agreement of the parties to vest the jurisdiction in the court of Meerut is valid.

Question 9.
A suit was instituted by the plaintiff company alleging infringement by the defendant company by using trade name of biscuits and selling the same in the packing of identical design, etc., as that of plaintiff company. A subsequent suit was instituted in a different court by the defendant company against the plaintiff company with the similar allegations. Discuss the validity of the subsequent suit.
Answer :
The doctrine of res sub-judice refers to a matter pending before a judge, or court, or not yet decided. It is a matter under judicial consideration, meaning that a decision regarding the case it pertains to has not been reached yet. The doctrine or rule implies that if a matter is awaiting judicial proceedings and a decision may not be heard in any other court until it has been decided upon in the first court the matter was filed in. This doctrine helps in avoiding duplicity of cases, and prevents opposing judgements being reached in same matters (Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908).

The doctrine of ‘Constructive Res Judicata’ that is provided for in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It prevents further suits being filed for a matter that is at the core of a former suit.

Since the parties are the same in both suits and the subject matter of both the suits is also same, the second suit would be res sub-judice, and it will be stayed until the first suit is decided. The judgement of the first suit will then be res judicata for the second one.

Question 10.
Aman filed a suit against Bhuvan for obtaining a house and land property of Chaman on the ground that Chaman had bequeathed those properties to him by a will. But, Aman failed to prove the will and his suit was dismissed. Now, Aman files a fresh suit to get the properties of Chaman on the ground that he is the only and nearest heir to Chaman. Will Aman succeed?
Answer:
A dismissal of a suit operates as res judicata for suits filed on the same matter between the same parties. It is covered by the doctrine of ‘Constructive Res Judicata’ that is provided for in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It prevents further suits being filed for a matter that is at the core of a former suit.

The requirements and reasons are as below –

  • The same party should not be troubled with the same matter again and again.
  • There should be a limit to the number of cases filed in a court, i.e. vexatious cases should not be entertained.
  • The same matter should not be used for wasting valuable court time repeatedly.

The basic requirement for applying this doctrine is that the matter that is at the core of the former suit should also be the main essence of the latter suit(s). Since this is not the case here, the subsequent suit will not be maintained and Aman will not succeed. (Mukunda Jana vs. Kanta Mandal)

Question 11.
Anubhav owes ₹ 10,000 to the partnership firm of Bose and Chander. Bose dies leaving Chander surviving. Anubhav sues Chander for a debt of ₹ 15,000 due in his individual capacity. Can Chander set off the debt of ₹ 10,000?
Answer:
This is covered by the terms of set-off provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. ‘Set off’ means a settlement where both the plaintiff and the defendant have some claims to be collected from each other. What one party owes to another might be used to discharge all or a part of the debt he is owed by the other party.

In this case, after the death of Bose, only Chander survives in the partnership firm, to which Anubhav owes ? 10,000. Anubhav later on sues Chander for an individual debt of ₹ 15,000. Since the situation fulfils all the demands of a valid set-off, it is permissible.

Question 12.
Ajeet resides at Bhopal, Baljeet at Indore and Charanjeet at Lucknow. Ajeet, Baljeet and Charanjeet being together at Kolkata, Baljeet and Charanjeet make a joint promissory note payable on demand and deliver it to Ajeet. Where can Ajeet sue Baljeet and Charanjeet for the amount of the promissory note?
Answer:
According to Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in case of a dispute arising, the plaintiff can sue the defendants in a court within whose jurisdiction they reside or carry on business or work for gain. Alternatively, they can be sued in the place where the cause of action arose.

Hence, in this case, Ajeet can sue Baljeet and Charanjeet at Indore, Lucknow or Kolkata.

Question 13.
Avinash, residing in Delhi, requests his friend Bishnoy, residing in Lucknow, for a loan of ₹ 10 lakh. Bishnoy asks Avinash to come to Lucknow and collect the cheque for the said amount. Accordingly, Avinash collects the cheque at Lucknow. Avinash has failed to repay the loan. Bishnoy wants to institute a suit for the recovery of loan against Avinash. Mention the place where Bishnoy can file a suit against Avinash. Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
According to Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in case of a dispute arising, the plaintiff can sue the defendants in a court within whose jurisdiction they reside or carry on business or work for gain. Alternatively, they can be sued in the place where the cause of action arose.
Hence, in this case, Ajeet can sue Baljeet and Charanjeet at Indore, Lucknow or Kolkata.

Question 14.
ABC Ltd. is a pharmaceutical company having its j corporate office in Mumbai. XYZ Ltd., another pharmaceutical company, is C carrying on pharmaceutical business at Nagpur. XYZ Ltd. published an advertisement at Bangalore constituting infringement of the registered trade mark of ABC Ltd. ABC Ltd. intends to institute a suit for damages against XYZ Ltd. Advise where ABC Ltd. should institute the suit.
Answer:
According to Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in case of a dispute arising, the plaintiff can sue the defendants in a court within whose jurisdiction they reside or carry on business or work for gain. Alternatively, they can be sued in the place where the cause of action arose.
Hence, ABC Ltd. can institute a suit against XYZ Ltd. at Nagpur or Bangalore.

Question 15.
Avinash, residing in Delhi, requests his friend Bishnoy, residing in Lucknow, for a loan of ^ 10 lakh. Bishnoy asks Avinash to come to Lucknow and collect the cheque for the said amount. Accordingly, Avinash collects the cheque at Lucknow. Avinash has failed to repay the loan. Bishnoy wants to institute a suit for the recovery of loan against Avinash. Mention the place where Bishnoy can file a suit against Avinash. Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
According to Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in case of a dispute arising, the plaintiff can sue the defendants in a court within whose jurisdiction they reside or carry on business or work for gain. Alternatively, they can be sued in the place where the cause of action arose, in part or completely. Bishnoy can, hence, sue Avinash in Lucknow, as the cause of action arose there. Moreover, Avinash came to Lucknow to collect the loan amount, so he can be sued there.

Question 16.
A suit was instituted by Rosy Pvt. Ltd. dealing in cosmetics alleging infringement by Sunder Pvt. Ltd. by using trade name ‘Monica’ and selling the same in wrappers and cartons of identical design and colour used by the plaintiff company. A subsequent suit was instituted in different court by the defendant company (Sunder Pvt. Ltd.) against the plaintiff company with the same allegation. Decide, whether the subsequent suit will be allowed to continue. Give reasons and support your answer with case law.
Answer:
A suit was instituted by Rosy Pvt. Ltd. dealing in cosmetics alleging infringement by Sunder Pvt. Ltd. by using trade name ‘Monica’ and selling the same in wrappers and cartons of identical design and colour used by the plaintiff company. A subsequent suit was instituted in different court by the defendant company (Sunder Pvt. Ltd.) against the plaintiff company with the same allegation.

This case is covered by the Doctrine of Res Judicata. ‘The Doctrine of Constructive Res Judicata’ has been provided in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It prevents further suits being filed for a matter that is at the core of a former suit.

The reasons are as below –

  • The same party should not be troubled with the same matter again and again.
  • There should be a limit to the number of cases filed in a court, i.e. vexatious cases should not be entertained.
  • The same matter should not be used for wasting valuable court time repeatedly.

The basic requirement for applying this doctrine is that the matter that is at the core of the former suit should also be the main essence of the latter suit(s). Hence, in this case, the subsequent suit will not be allowed to continue. This was also observed in the case of Ramdas Nayak v. Union of India , where the court observed: It is a repetitive litigation on the very same issue coming up before the courts again and again in the grab of public interest litigation. It is high time to put an end to the same.

Question 17.
A transport company has its head office at Mumbai and branch offices at Allahabad, Patna and Bhopal. A dispute cropped up between Sameer and the company in respect of a transaction through Allahabad office. Sameer files a suit in respect of this dispute against the company in a court at Patna. How will the court decide?
Answer:
According to Explanation II appended to Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, “a corporation shall be deemed to carry on business at its sole or principal office in India, or in respect of any cause of action arising at any place where it has also a subordinate office at such place”.

In this view of the given facts of the case as well as the legal provisions mentioned above, the court at Patna has no jurisdiction to try the suit as the cause of action in respect of the transaction has not arisen through Patna Branch Office.

Question 18.
A suit was instituted by the plaintiff company alleging infringement by the defendant company for using trade name of medicine and selling the same in wrapper and carton of identical designs with same colour combination, etc., as that of plaintiff company. A subsequent suit was instituted in a different court by the defendant company against the plaintiff company with similar allegations. In such a situation, advise the plaintiff company the procedure adopted by the courts.
Answer:
Rule: Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code deals with stay of suit. Stay of suits prevents courts of concurrent jurisdiction from simultaneously trying two parallel suits in respect of same matter in issue. The purpose is also to avoid conflict of decision. The institution of second suit is not barred but the trial cannot be proceeded with.

Facts of the case : A suit was instituted by the plaintiff company alleging infringement by the defendant company by using trade name of biscuits and selling the same in the packing of identical design, etc., as that of plaintiff company. A subsequent suit was instituted in a different court by the defendant company against the plaintiff company with the similar allegations.

Question involved : What is the validity of the subsequent suit?

Decision : The institution of subsequent suit as per the rule above is not barred but the trial cannot be proceeded with.

Question 19.
(a) Anil was a trustee of a trust. After Anil’s death, Brij wrongfully takes the possession of the trust property. Chandan, the son of Anil files a suit for recovery of possession of the property against Brij as the legal heir of Anil in his individual capacity. But Chandan did not succeed. Then Chandan files another suit for recovery of trust property against Brij in the capacity of trustee as he was appointed as trustee after the death of Anil. Whether the second suit is barred by the doctrine of constructive res judicata? Explain.

(b) Mohan filed a suit against Sohan and Rohan for partition of coparcenery property ‘P-1′. The suit has been decided. Mohan files another suit against Sohan and Rohan for the partition of coparcenery property ‘P-2′, which was in existence at the time of filing of the first suit. Decide.
Answer:
(a) The Doctrine of Constructive Res Judicata’ has been provided in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It prevents further suits being filed for a matter that is at the core of a former suit.

The reasons are as below –

  • The same party should not be troubled with the same matter again and again.
  • There should be a limit to the number of cases filed in a court, i.e. vexatious cases should not be entertained.
  • The same matter should not be used for wasting valuable court time repeatedly.

The basic requirement for applying this doctrine is that the matter that is at the core of the former suit should also be the main essence of the latter suit(s). In this case, the two suits are filed by Chandan in two different capacities. Hence, the second suit is not barred.

(b) This case is covered by Rule 2 (Order 2) of the CPC, which provides that in a previous suit filed by the plaintiff, the entire claim which he is . desirous of obtaining should be included. If it is not so done, inclusion of the claims left out in the previous plaint will not be allowed in a second plaint filed by the same party against the same defendant.

Hence, the second suit filed by Mohan against Sohan and Rohan is not to be allowed.

Question 20.
Ram and Shyam sell rice for ₹ 25,000 to Sohan and Mohan. Sohan sells cloth worth ₹ 28,000 to Shyam. Sohan files a suit , against Shyam for recovery of price of cloth. Shyam claims set-off of the cost of rice in this suit. Will he succeed?
Answer:
‘Set off means a settlement where both the plaintiff and the defendant have some claims to be collected from each other. What one party owes to another might be used to discharge all or a part of the debt he is owed by the other party.

In the given case, Sohan is the plaintiff while Shyam is the defendant. The amount of which set-off is claimed by the defendant Shyam is not recoverable from Mohan, who is jointly liable with Sohan to pay it. Mohan is not party to this suit.

In view of the factual situation, Shyam will not be allowed set-off of the amount claimed by him, as set off is allowed only against those parties which are jointly liable in the first place.

Question 21.
A transport company has its head office at Kolkata and branch offices at Allahabad, Lucknow and Puri. A dispute cropped up between Hassan and the transport company in respect of a transaction through Allahabad office. Hassan files a suit in respect of this dispute against the company in a court at Puri. Is the court at Puri competent to decide this case ? Give reasons.
Answer:
The suit can only be filed in Kolkata or Allahabad, but not in Puri, as per Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure. The Civil Procedure Code 1908, Section 20, tells about where suits are to be instituted – where defendants reside or cause of action arises.

Subject to the limitations aforesaid, every suit shall be instituted in Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction –
(a) the defendant, or each of the defendants where there are more than one, at the time of the commencement of the suit, actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain; or

(b) any of the defendants, where there are more than one, at the time of the commencement of the suit actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain, provided that in such case either the leave of the Court is given, or the defendants who do not reside, or carry on business, or personally work for gain, as aforesaid, acquiesce in sych institution; or

(c) the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.

Question 22.
A suit was instituted by the plaintiff company alleging infringement by the defendant company by using trade name of medicine and selling the same colour combination, etc., as that of plaintiff company. A subsequent suit was instituted in a different court by the defendant company containing the same allegations. Advise the plaintiff company about the steps to be taken by it giving reference to relevant legal provisions and case law.
Answer:
In this case, the plaintiff can file an application for a stay on the subsequent suit. ‘Stay of suit’ implies the action taken under Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It is the Doctrine of res sub-judice. The doctrine of res sub-judice refers to a matter pending before a judge, or court, or not yet decided. It is a matter under judicial consideration, meaning that a decision regarding the case it pertains to has not been reached yet.

The doctrine or rule implies that if a matter is awaiting judicial proceedings and a decision may not be heard in any other court until it has been decided upon in the first court the matter was filed in. This doctrine helps in avoiding duplicity of cases, and prevents opposing judgements being reached in same matters (Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908). When such a case arises, generally a stay operates on the second or following suit.

Question 23.
Robert Steel Tube Co. Ltd. had applied for allotment of 2500 acres of land on 30-6-1994 and in principle approval of allotment of 2500 acres of land was given on the terms and conditions laid down in the policy decision of the State Government as revised on 25-1-1995 for the establishment of the steel plant.

Robert Steel Tube Co. Ltd. deposited ₹ 1.25 crores with the Haryana Industrial Development Corporation Ltd. (Corp.) on 3-4-1995 and took possession of 1756.29 acres of land in the first phase in 1996. However, the company did not execute the lease deed with the Corporation. Ultimately, on 25-7-2003 on failure to get the lease deed executed, the land was resumed and possession letter of 1756.29 acres of land was cancelled by the Corporation. The amount of ₹ 1.25 crores deposited by the company was forfeited and adjusted towards compensation for use and occupation of the land and damages.

Out of the resumed land, the Corporation allotted 934.31 acres of land to other units. Robert Steel Tube Co. Ltd. made unsuccessful representations to the Corporation for allottment. Thereafter, the company filed a writ petition before the High Court for allotment of the balance land of 821.98 acres to it. Will the company succeed in its petition against the Corporation? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
The fact of the case is similar to the fact of Orissa Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporate vs. M/S MESCO kalinga Steel Limited and Others (With CA No. 2546/2017 (@ SLP(c) No. 23759/2007 and CA No. 2547/2017 (@SLP (C) No. 2683/2008)).

In this matter, the possession of land had been enjoyed by the company for around seven years without execution of the lease deed. No explanation has been placed on record for inaction on part of the company. In this regard, the company has also not been able to prove that they were not negligent even after the timely, initiation by the authorities for the execution of the lease dead with the Corporation.

The transfer had become void due to the company’s own lapse and negligence. The company had forfeited the right to get the lease deed executed, as in the absence of execution of lease deed, the relationship of lessor and lessee never came into being under the legal perspectives. The company waited for years after taking possession.

The company is statutory authority and it can act on the basis of written lease deed. The execution of the lease deed is necessary and it is in the public- interest to prevent unauthorized leasing out of property on its behalf. Lease is required to be executed in a presented format in the shape of formal development which is a sine quo non as-per the law of the land.

In the absence thereof, it would not be permissible to hold the relationship of lessor and the lessee. The corporation is a statutory body and can act only in the mode prescribed. Further, one has to be aware of the fact that ignorantia legis neminem excusat, means Ignorance of Law is no excuse.

In this paradigm, the company should be aware of the legal procedure prost the allotment of the land and should be ready to accept the consequences for ignoring the required process of the law to be observed by them The. conduct of the company was not in line with the compliances and responsibilities required to be adhered under law, as it remained negligent in execute the lease deed.

There was no contract which could have been enforced and it became void due to inaction of the company itself. The conduct of the company had no justification at any point of time not to execute the lease deed. Henceforth, there is no equitable or legal consideration in favor of the company, wherein they could succeed in its petition against the Corporation.

Question 24.
The Statutory Auditor of your Company allegedly got transferred 1000 shares of the Company in his name. However, the matter was ultimately resolved and settled between Auditor and the complainant, despite which Disciplinary Committee of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) took up the case and ultimately found that the conduct of Statutory Auditor was derogatory in nature and highly unbecoming and held him guilty of ‘Other misconduct’ under Section 22 read with Section 21 of the Chartered Accountants’Act, 1949.

The Council of ICAI removed the Auditor from the rolls for a period of six months. The Auditor appealed against the same. Will he succeed?
Answer:
The present problem is similar to the case of Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountant [SC] Civil Appeal No. 11034 of 2018 (Arising out of SLP (C) No. 19564/2017). In the case cited above, the Disciplinary Committee has found the Chartered Accountant guilty of practice (similar to the facts in the question) which was not in his professional capacity.

The Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India [ICAI], made its recommendation to the High Court to remove the aforesaid Chartered Accountant for a period of six months from the rolls. The Council of [GAI was entitled to do so under Schedule I Part-IV sub-clause (2) of Chartered Accountant Act, 1949 if, in the opinion Of the Council, such act brings disrepute to the profession whether or not related to his professional work.

However, High Court declined to remove him from the rolls for six months. Hon’ble Supreme Court held “in the case, it is clear that the impugned judgment is incorrect and must, therefore, be set aside. The matter be remanded to the High Court to be decided afresh leaving all contentions open to both parties.” Applying the rationale of the above decision, it can be decided that the Auditor will not succeed in his appeal.

Multidisciplinary Case Studies CS Professional Notes

Income Tax Implication On Specified Transactions – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Income Tax Implication On Specified Transactions – Advanced Tax Laws and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.

  1. State the period of holding for considering the shares in a private j limited company to be treated as a long-term capital asset.
  2. An assessee has purchased a car for business purposes on 10th June 2019 for ₹ 10 lakhs. This is the only asset in the block of assets. In the previous years, 2019-20 and 2020-21, 25% of the usage of cars was for personal purposes. What is the depreciation allowable for the assessment year 2021-22? You may take the rate of depreciation as 15%.
  3. Vikas, a resident in India, has received a dividend of ₹ 13 lakhs from A Ltd., an Indian company. He has incurred an expenditure of ₹ 1 lakh for earning such a dividend. What.is the tax payable by him in respect of such dividend income?

Answer:
(1) The period of holding of shares of a private limited company to be treated as Long term capital assets is 24 months i.e. the shares should be held for more than 24 months to qualify as long-term capital assets.

(2) Computation of Depreciation on Car allowable for Assessment Year 2021-22 (Relevant to the Previous Year 2020-21)

Particulars Amount (₹) Amount (₹)
Purchase price of Car 10,00,000
Less: Depreciation @ 15% for P.Y. 2019-20 1,50,000
Depreciation not allowable for personal use (37,500) (1,12,500)
Written Down Value as on 1 -4-2020 8,87,500
Less: Depreciation at 15% for P.Y. 2020-21 1,33,125
Depreciation not allowable for personal use (25%) (33,281) 99,844

Note: The car after purchase being used for business purposes is 75% and personal purpose is 25%. Therefore, depreciation allowable as per section 32 read with section 37(1) is 75% of the depreciation to be calculated at 15% on the value of the car.

(3) Assuming that the Dividend of ₹ 13,00,000 for Indian companies is received during the Previous Year 2020-21, it will be taxable in the hands of recipient shareholders. It should be noted that w.e.f. A.Y. 2021-22 (Relevant to P.Y. 2020-21), there will be no Dividend Distribution Tax under section 115-0 and the entire dividend will be taxable in hands of the recipient shareholder only.

Here Tax shall be payable as per normal rates of tax for the individual assessee as the dividend income will form part of his total income. However, it should be noted that tax will be payable on a dividend of ₹ 12,00,000 (₹ 13,00,000 – deduction of ₹ 1,00,000 being expenses incurred to earn such income.)

Question 2.
Distinguish between Slump sale and demerger.
Answer:
Slump Sale:
As per Section 2(42C) of the Income-tax Act slump sale means the transfer of one or more undertakings as a result of the sale for a lump sum consideration without values being assigned to the individual assets and liabilities in such sales. Any profits or gains arising from the slump sale, affected in the previous year, shall be chargeable to income tax as capital gains and shall be deemed to be the income of the previous year in which the transfer took place. Slump sale can be between any person and consideration is always in cash.

Demerger:
As per section 2(19AA) of the Income-tax Act demerger, in relation to companies, means the transfer, pursuant to a scheme of arrangement under sections 391 to 394 of the Companies Act, 1956. The transfer is an ongoing concern basis and all the property and liabilities of the undertaking, being transferred by the demerged company, immediately before the demerger, becomes the property and liabilities of the resulting company by virtue of the demerger. The demerger is between companies only and consideration is in form of shares only.

Question 3.
ABC Finance Corp., a finance company had received a certain amount from its subsidiary, under a scheme of arrangement sanctioned by the High Court under sections 391 to 394 of the Companies Act, 1956. Can this scheme of arrangement be treated as a slump sale to attract capital gains provisions? Discuss in the light of decided case law.
Answer:
The facts of the case are similar to that of SREI Infrastructure Finance Ltd. v. Income-tax Settlement Commission [2012] 207 Taxman 74 of Income-tax Act (Delhi), where the Delhi High Court held that it would be wrong to infer that section 50B is applicable only in case of actual “sale” of assets. Moreover, section 50B of the Income-tax Act shall be applicable in all types of “transfer” mentioned in section 2(47). When a scheme under sections 391 to 394 of the Companies Act, 1956 is sanctioned by the Court, it is treated as a binding statutory scheme because the scheme has to be implemented and enforced. However, this cannot be a ground for the assessee to escape tax on ‘transfer’ of a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The taxability of the said transaction is to be decided as per the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Therefore, although the scheme is approved by the court under sections 391 to 394 of the Companies Act, 1956 it shall be treated as slump sale and capital gains provisions would be attracted.

Question 4.
ABC Ltd. proposes to sell one unit XYZ which was set up in 2011 (out of 10 units) and it is not related to the company’s main line of business. Total consideration for the sale of XYZ unit as a going concern by way of slump sale is ₹ 3,50,000. The summarised financial position of XYZ Unit as of 31st Jan. 2021 (Date of sale) is as under:

Liabilities Amount (₹) Assets Amount (₹)
Paid up capital 50,000 Fixed Assets 70,000
General Reserve 40,000 Debtors 40,000
Revaluation Reserve 30,000 Inventories 40,000
Current Liabilities 30,000
Total 1,50,000 Total 1,50,000

Additional information as under:
Do fixed assets include land purchased at ₹ 5,000 in May 2013, revalued at ₹ 50,000.
For the remaining fixed assets, their Written Down Value as per Income-tax Act is ₹ 10,000.
Cost Inflation Indices are as under:
Financial Year 2013-14: 220, Financial Year 2020-21: 301
Compute the capital gains arising on sale of XYZ unit of ABC Ltd.
Answer: Computation of Long-Term Capital Gains under section 50B i.e. Slump sale for ABC Ltd. on the transfer of XYZ unit for Assessment Year 2021-22 (Relevant to the Previous Year 2020-21)

Particulars Amount(₹)
Full Value of consideration for slump sale on the transfer of unit XYZ 3,50,000
Less: Cost of Acquisition and cost of the improvement (Being Net Worth of the unit transferred Le. XYZ) (65,000)
Therefore, Long Term Capital Gains u/s 50B 2,85,000

Working Note:
Computation of Net Worth of XYZ unit of ABC Ltd.

Particulars Amount(₹)
A. Assets:
Land (excluding revaluation) 5,000
Other Fixed Assets (WDV as per Income-tax Act) 10,000
Inventories 40,000
Debtors 40,000
Total Assets 95,000
B. Liabilities:
Current Liabilities 30,000
Total Liabilities 30,000
C. Net Worth (A-B) 65,000

Note:
Since Unit XYZ is in existence for more than 36 months, the resultant capital gains are Long Term Capital gains. However, it should be noted that for computing Capital gains under section SOB of the Income Tax Act, the benefit of indexation shall not be available.

Question 5.
ABC Ltd. is a public company but shares are not listed in any stock exchange in India as of 31st December 2020. On 1st January 2021, the company issued 10 lakh shares of the face value of ₹ 10 per share, the fair market value of which is ₹ 130, at an issue price of ₹ 150 per share. Discuss the applicability of section 56 of Income-tax Act, 1961 where shares are issued to:

  • Resident Indians
  • Non-resident Indians
  • Venture Capital Undertakings

Answer:
According to section 56(2)(viib) of the Income-tax Act, where a company, not being a company in which the public are substantially interested, I receive, in any previous year, from any person being a resident, any consideration for issue of shares that exceeds the face value of such shares, the aggregate consideration received for such shares as exceeds the fair market value of the shares shall be treated as Income from Other Sources. However, this clause shall not apply where the consideration for the issue of shares is received:

  • by a venture capital undertaking from a venture capital company or venture capital fund or specified fund or;
  • by a company from a class or classes of persons as may be notified by the Central Government on this behalf.

In case the investors/subscribers are Resident Indian, then tax liability will be issue price ie. ₹ 150 per share less ₹ 130 per share being fair market value = ₹ 20 per share. Total tax needs to be paid on ₹ 2,00,00,000 (₹ 20 per share × 10,00,000 shares).

In case the investors/subscribers are non-resident Indian and Venture Capital undertaking then there shall be no tax liability as they are exempted under section 56 of the Income-tax Act.

Question 6.
On 11-5-2020, Rama Ltd. purchased its own shares having a face value of ₹ 10. Amount offered to shareholders was ₹ 80 per share. The total amount distributed by Rama Ltd. on buyback of 15,000 shares is ₹ 13,50,000. These shares were issued in the year 2007-08 at a premium of ₹ 15. Kaka one of the shareholders holding 1,500 shares (cost of acquisition ₹ 25 per share, year of acquisition 2010-11) got ₹ 1,35,000. Determine tax consequences in the hands of Kaka (Shareholder) and Rama Ltd. under section 115QA for AY 2021-22, assuming shares are unlisted.
Answer:
Tax liability of Kaka (shareholder):
As a share of Rama Ltd. is unlisted, Kaka is not chargeable to tax for capital gains which is exempt under section 10(344) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Tax liability of Rama Ltd. as per section 115QA

Particulars Amount(₹)
Amount paid to shareholders at the time of buyback 13,50,000
Less: Amount received at time of issue of shares (? 25 X15,000 shares) (3,75,000)
Distributed Income to shareholders on account of buyback 9,75,000

 

Tax on distributed income at 20% 1,95,000
Add: Surcharge @ 12% 23,400
Sub Total 2,18,400
Add: Health & Education Cess @ 4% 8,736
Therefore, Tax liability under section 115QA 2,27,136
Rounded off to nearest of ₹ 10 u/s 288B 2,27,140

Note: The offered price is ₹ 80 per share but the actual amount paid for 15,000 shares is ₹ 13,50,000 which gives the rate per share as paid by the company of ₹ 90 per share.

Question 7.
Alfa Ltd., a domestic company purchased its own unlisted shares on 4th July 2020. The consideration for buy-back amounting to ₹ 10.50 lakh was paid on the same day. The amount received by the company two years back for the issue of such shares was ₹ 6.5 lakh. The Assessing Officer has issued a notice to tax the gains on shares to which the company denies. State the correctness of the contention of the Assessing Officer and also compute the tax payable, if any. Also, compute the amount of interest, if any, payable by the company assuming that the tax due is paid to the credit of the Central Government on 29th September 2020.
Answer:
As per section 115QA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, any amount of distributed income by the company on buyback of shares (not being shares listed on a recognized stock exchange) from a shareholder shall be charged to tax.

Further, such a company shall be liable to pay additional income tax at the rate of 20% on the distributed income. Thus, the contention of the Assessing Officer relating to the taxability of the gains resulting from the buyback of shares is correct.

Particulars Amount(₹)
Consideration for buyback 10,50,000
Consideration received for issue of shares (6,50,000)
Distributed income 4,00,000
Additional Tax at 20% 80,000
Surcharge at 12% 9,600
Sub-Total 89,600
Add: Health and Education Cess @ 4% 3,584
Total Tax payable 93,184
Rounded off to nearest of ₹ 10 u/s 288B 93,180

The above tax should be paid on or before 18th July 2020. However, it was paid on 29th September 2020. Thus, for this delay interest is payable @ 1% per month for each month in whole or part. Therefore, interest is payable for 3 months. Interest = ₹ (93,180 × 1 /100 × 3) = ₹ 2,795.

Question 8.
XYZ Pvt. Ltd. has converted itself into a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) on 1-4-2018 and at the time of conversion, all the conditions speci¬fied in section 47(xiiib) have been fulfilled. The unabsorbed business loss and depreciation of the company as of the date of conversion were ₹ 40 lakhs and ₹ 27 lakhs respectively. The business profits of the LLP for the previous year 2018-19 were ₹ 75 lakhs. However, on 5-9-2019 two partners (who were erstwhile shareholders of XYZ Pvt. Ltd.) having in aggregate 51% of the profit-sharing in LLP, resigned. Discuss the tax consequences of the conversion of the company into LLP and the subsequent resignation of partners.
Answer:
As per section 72A(6A), the LLP would be able to carry forward and set-off the unabsorbed depreciation and business loss of ₹ 40 lakhs and ₹ 27 lakhs, respectively, of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. since at the time of conversion, all the conditions specified in section 47(xiiib) have been fulfilled. Further, the LLP can set off the unabsorbed depreciation and business loss aggregating to ₹ 67 lakhs against its business profits of ₹ 75 lakhs for A.Y. 2019- 20.

However, if in any subsequent year, the LLP fails to fulfill any of the conditions mentioned in section 47(xiiib), the business loss or unabsorbed depreciation of the company already set off by the LLP would be deemed to be the income chargeable to a tax of the LLP for the year in which it fails to fulfill such conditions. One of the conditions mentioned in section 47(xiiib) is that the erstwhile shareholders of the company continue to be entitled to receive at least 50% of the profits of the LLP for a period of 5 years from the date of conversion. Since two partners (who were erstwhile shareholders of ABC Pvt. Ltd.) holding in aggregate, 51% of the profit-sharing in the LLP have resigned on 5-9-2019, thus the LLP has failed to fulfill this condition.

Therefore, the amount of ₹ 67 lakhs representing unabsorbed depreciation and business losses set off against profits of the LLP for the A.Y. 2019-20, would be deemed to be the income of the LLP for the A.Y. 2020-21, being the year in which it failed to fulfill the conditions.

Question 9.
A resident by the name of Mr. Ram received gifts during the financial year 2020- 21 as follows:

  • ₹ 1,00,000 from his friend residing in the USA,
  • ₹ 20,000 from his elder brother residing in Lucknow,
  • ₹ 50,000 from his friend residing in Mumbai (received on the occasion of the birthday of Mr. Ram),
  • Shares received from his father, the fair market value (i.e. value as per stock exchange) of the shares on the date of the gift was ₹ 2,00,000
  • ₹ 50,000 from his friend residing in Mumbai (received on the occasion of the marriage of Mr. Ram).
  • Jewelry received from his friend; the fair market value of the jewelry is ₹ 84,000.

We need to advise Mr. Ram with regard to the tax treatment of the above items in the hands of Mr. Ram.
Answer:
The tax treatment of gifts in the hands of Mr. Ram will be as follows:

  • ₹ 1,00,000 received from his friend will be fully included in income because a friend is not covered in the definition of ‘relative’.
  • ₹ 20,000 received from elder brother will not be charged to tax because elder brother is covered in the definition of ‘relative’.
  • Birthday is not covered in the list of the prescribed occasions on which gift is not charged to tax, hence ₹ 50,000 received on the occasion of birthday will be included in income.
  • Nothing will be included in income in respect of shares received from his father since father comes under the definition of the term ‘relative’
  • Marriage is covered in the list of the prescribed occasions on which gift is not charged to tax, hence 150,000 received on the occasion of marriage will not be taxed.
  • A friend is not covered in the definition of relative and hence, in respect of jewelry received from his friend, the fair market value, ie., ₹ 84,000 will be included in income.

Question 10.
An Ltd. incurred an expenditure of ₹ 50 lakhs on glow-sign boards displayed at dealer outlets. Examine with the help of decided case law, whether the above expenditure is revenue or capital in nature.
Answer:
The facts of the case are similar to that of the CITv. Orient Ceramics and Industries Ltd. [2013] 358 ITR 49 where the Delhi High Court noted the following observations of the Punjab and Haryana High Court, in CIT  v. Liberty Group Marketing Division [2009] 315 ITR 125, while holding that such expenditure was revenue in nature. The expenditure incurred on the glow sign boards is revenue in nature as these were incurred with the object of facilitating the business operation and not with the object of acquiring an asset of enduring nature.

Thus, the expenditure incurred by A Ltd. on glow-sign boards are revenue in nature

Question 11.
Bace Drinks Ltd. was carrying more than one business activity, namely manufacturing soft drinks and trading in soft drinks. However, the manufacturing activity was not profitable and was hence, discontinued. The employees who were directly connected with this manufacturing activity were laid off and severance cost was paid to those employees. The same was claimed by the assessee as revenue expenditure. The Assessing Officer disallowed the same treating it as capital expenditure, on the argument that it was incurred as a result of the closure of business of the assessee. Discuss what would be the nature of expenditure.
Answer:
The facts of the case are similar to that of the CIT v. KJS India P. Ltd [2012] 340 ITR 380 (Delhi), where the Delhi High Court, held that though one of the business activities was suspended, it cannot be construed that the assessee has closed down its entire business. The assessee still continues to trade in soft drinks. Therefore, the said expenditure will be allowed as revenue expenditure even though it was related to a manufacturing activity that was suspended.

Question 12.
Sharad Hospitals purchased second-hand medical equipment for use as spare parts of existing equipment. Examine with the help of decided case law, that whether the above expenditure is revenue or capital in nature.
Answer:
The Karnataka High Court, in Dr. Aswath N. Rao v. ACIT [2010] 326 ITR 188, held that since the second-hand machinery purchased by the as¬sessee was for use as spare parts for the existing old machinery, the same had to be allowed as revenue expenditure.

Question 13.
Sukriti Ltd. incurred expenses of ₹ 76,000 for the issue of shares. However, the public issue could not materialize on account of non-clearance by SEBI. Examine with the help of decided case law, whether the above expenditure is revenue or capital in nature.
Answer:
The facts of the case are similar to that of the Mascon Technical Services Ltd. v. CIT[2013] 358ITR 545, where the Madras High Court observed that the assessee had taken steps to go in for a public issue and incurred share issue expenses. However, it could not go in for the public issue by reason of the orders issued by the SEBI just before the proposed issue. The High Court observed that though the efforts were aborted, the fact remains that the expenditure incurred was only for the purpose of expansion of the capital base. The capital nature of the expenditure would not be lost on account of the abortive efforts. Thus, the expenditure incurred by Sukriti Ltd. constitutes capital expenditure.

Income Tax Implication On Specified Transactions Notes

  • Slump Sale under section 50B of Income-tax Act
  • Buy back of shares – Tax on distributed income to shareholders: Sec¬tion 115QA of Income-tax Act
  • Issue of shares at a premium (section 56 of Income-tax Act)
  • Cash Credit (section 68 of Income-tax Act)
  • Unexplained Money (section 69A of Income-tax Act)
  • Capital Gain on Amalgamation/Mergers
  • Capital gains on demerger
  • Gifts (section 56 of Income-tax Act)

CS Professional Advance Tax Law Notes

Life Insurance – Finance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Life Insurance – Finance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
With the deferment of applicability of IFRS in insurance business by IRDAI to year 2021, discuss relevant provisions and implications as Applicable to insurance contracts from a CS perspective. Will this accounting reform bring in a positive stride for insurance business in India?
Answer:
IFRS 17 establishes the principles for the recognition, measurement, presentation and disclosure of insurance contracts within the scope of the standard. The objective of IFRS 17 is to ensure that an entity provides relevant information that faithfully represents those contracts. This Standard was published on 18th May 2017, effective for the Annual period on or after 01 January 2021 IFRS-17 is applicable to 3 types of insurance contracts:

  • Insurance contracts, including inward reinsurance contracts accepted.
  • Reinsurance contracts ceded.
  • Investment contracts with discretionary participation features, by an entity which issues insurance contracts as well.

Separating components from an insurance contract may contain one or more components that would be within the scope of another standard if they were separate contracts. For example, an insurance contract may include an investment component or a service component (or both).

Unit Linked Life insurance policies, for example, have an insurance component and investment component. It is a contract bundled with insurance element and investment element and is like Term insurance + Mutual fund. In such cases, this principle applies. The standard provides the criteria to determine when a non-insurance component is distinct from the host insurance contract.

Investment component to be separated from a host insurance contract only if that investment component is distinct. The entity shall then apply IFRS 9 to account for the separated investment component. After performing the above steps, separate any promises to transfer distinct non-insurance goods or services. Such promises are accounted under IFRS I5 ‘Revenue from Contracts with Customers.

Level of aggregation:
IFRS 17 requires entities to identify portfolios of insurance contracts, which comprises contracts that are subject to similar risks and managed together. Contracts within a product line would be expected to have similar risks and hence would be expected to be in the same portfolio if they are managed together. (IFRS 17:14)
Each portfolio of insurance contracts issued shall be divided into a minimum of: (IFRS 17:16)

  • A group of contracts that are onerous at initial recognition, if any,
  • A group of contracts that at initial recognition have no significant possibility of becoming onerous subsequently, if any; and
  • A group of the remaining contracts in the portfolio, if any.

An entity is not permitted to include contracts issued more than one year apart in the same group. If contracts within a portfolio would fall into different groups only because law or regulation specifically constrains the entity’s practical ability to set a different price or level of benefits for policyholders with different characteristics, the entity may include those contracts in the same group.

Recognition: An entity shall recognise a group of insurance contracts it issues from the earliest of the following:

  • the beginning of the coverage period of the group of contracts
  • the date when the first payment from a policyholder in the group becomes due; and
  • for a group of onerous contracts, when the group becomes onerous.

Measurement:
On initial recognition, an entity shall measure a group of insurance contracts at the total of:

  • the fulfilment cash flows'(“FCF”), which comprise.
  • estimates of future cash flows.
  • an adjustment to reflect the time value of money (”TVM”) and the financial risks associated with the future cash flows, and
  • a risk adjustment for non-financial risk.
  • the contractual service margin (“CSM”).

An entity shall include all the future cash flows within the boundary of each contract in the group. The entity may estimate the future cash flows at a higher level of aggregation and then allocate the resulting fulfilment cash flows to individual groups of contracts. The estimates of future cash flows shall be current, explicit, unbiased, and reflect all the information available to the entity without undue cost and effort about the amount, timing and uncertainty of those future cash flows. They should reflect the perspective of the entity, provided that the estimates of any relevant market variables are consistent with observable market prices. (IFRS 17:33)

Premium allocation approach:
An entity may simplify the measurement of the liability for remaining coverage of a group of insurance contracts using the Premium Allocation Approach (PAA) on the condition that at the inception of the group:

  • the entity reasonably expects that this will be a reasonable approximation of the general model, or
  • the coverage period of each contract in the group is one year or less.
  • (iii) Where, at the inception of the group, an entity expects significant, variances in the fulfilment cash flows (FCF) during the period before a claim is incurred, such contracts are not eligible to apply the PAA.

Investment contracts with a DPF (Discretionary Participating Features) An investment contract with a DPF (Discretionary Participating Features) is a financial instrument and it does not include a transfer of significant insurance risk. It is in the scope of the standard only if the issuer also issues insurance contracts. The requirements of the Standard are modified for such investment contracts.

Reinsurance contracts held:
The requirements of the standard are modified for reinsurance contracts held, in estimating the present value of future expected cash flows for reinsurance contracts, entities use assumptions consistent with those used for related direct insurance contracts. Additionally, estimates include the risk of reinsurer’s non-performance.
Modification of an insurance contract Derecognition

An entity shall derecognise an insurance contract when it is extinguished, or if any of the conditions of a substantive modification of an insurance contract are met.
Presentation in the statement of financial position
An entity shall present separately in the statement of financial position the carrying amount of groups of:

  • insurance contracts issued that are assets
  • insurance contracts issued that are liabilities
  • reinsurance contracts held that are assets; and
  • reinsurance contracts held that are liabilities.

Insurance service result:
An entity shall present in profit or loss revenue arising from the groups of insurance contracts issued, and insurance service expenses account arising from a group of insurance contracts it issues, comprising incurred claims and other incurred insurance service expenses. Revenue and insurance service expenses shall exclude any investment components.

Disclosures:
An entity shall disclose qualitative and quantitative information about:

  • the amounts recognised in its Financial Statements that arise from insurance contracts
  • the significant judgements, and changes in those judgements, made when applying IFRS 17; and
  • the nature and extent of the risks that arise from insurance contracts.

Transition:
An entity shall apply the standard retrospectively unless impracticable, in which case entities have the option of using either the modified retrospective approach or the fair value approach.

Question 2.
Explain the schedules prepared in the financial statements of an insurance company.
Answer:
Financial Statement of Insurance Company:
The Financial statements of Insurance Company are prepared in accordance with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of Insurance Companies) Regulations, 2002.

Schedule A of the regulation contains following parts:
1. PART I of Schedule A the regulation contains ‘Accounting principles for preparation of financial statements and while preparing the Financial Statement for the insurance companies in India, these principals are to be followed.

2. PART II of Schedule A of the regulation contains the details of Disclosures which are forming part of Financial Statements in the Insurance Company.

3. PART III of Schedule A of the regulation contains General instructions for preparation of Financial Statements.

4. PART IV of Schedule A of the regulation contains the Contents of Management Report.

5. PART V of Schedule A of the regulation Contains the formats for Preparation of Financial Statements of a life insurance company. Similarly, Schedule B of the regulations contain Part I, Part II, Part III, Part IV and Part V which contains the above-stated information about General Insurance companies.

As per the above-said Regulations, following financial statements are to be prepared by Insurance Companies

  • Form of Revenue Account (Policyholders account)
  • Form of Profit and Loss Account (Shareholders Account)
  • Form of Balance Sheet (Policyholders and Shareholders)
  • Schedules to Financial Statements
  • Notes to accounts giving the significant accounting policies and actuarial assumption
  • Disclosures on regulatory actions taken by any enforcement authority
  • Details of directorships, if any, held by persons in charge of management
  • ageing analysis of policyholders unclaimed amounts
  • Details of payments made to Statutory Auditors
  • Summary of related party transactions
  • Key accounting ratios.

CS Professional Insurance Law and Practice Notes

Applications of Life Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Applications of Life Insurance – Insurance Law and Practice Important Questions

Question 1.
Ricky has a personal accident policy that covers death by accident but excludes death by disease. He falls from his horse and suffers leg injuries. He is admitted to hospital but his leg wound turns septic and one week later he dies as a result of the disease septicaemia.
Explain whether the personal accident insurers are liable under the policy referring to relevant case law in support of your answer.
Answer:
The issue here is causation- the insurers would need to establish whether original accident was the proximate cause of Ricky’s death or was his death as result of septicaemia.
Where there is a ‘chain of events, the insurers are liable where the loss flows in an unbroken chain directly from an insured peril.

Equally, there is no liability if the loss flows from an excluded peril. Etherington v Lancashire and Yorkshire Accident Insurance Company (1909): The insured fell from the horse and suffered some injuries that force him to lie in cold and damp conditions so that he contracted pneumonia, of which he eventually died. It was held that the proximate cause of his death was the original ‘accident’ if the fail from the horse and not the disease that ultimately killed him (which was excluded).

Mardon Accident Insurance Co. (1903): The insured scratched his leg with his thumbnail while removing his socks, Six days later the wound turned septic, on the tenth day septicaemia set in and on the twentieth day the injured dies of septicaemia. The policy covered death by accident but excluded death by disease.

The Court in this case held that the proximate cause of death was accident and not the ensuing disease.
In this scenario, the ‘chain of events’ was unbroken in the sense that septicaemia was a natural consequence of Ricky falling from his horse and suffering the leg injury. The personal accident insurers would therefore be liable even though he died from septicaemia and excluded peril.

Question 2.
What is your opinion in linking insurance buying to Income tax sops? Discuss the tax benefits available to an individual for life insurance policies.
Answer:
A policyholder who takes a Life Insurance Policy is entitled to the following income tax benefits. Section 80C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 any premiums paid for Life Insurance Policy on the life of the person, his/her spouse or children is eligible for a deduction from the Gross Total income of the person.

The deduction is subject to the following conditions:
(i) The premiums paid in any year by the policyholder are allowed as a deduction up to a maximum amount not exceeding 10% (15% in case of certain persons with specified illness of ailments) of the Actual Capital Sum Assured under the Policy. Any amount in excess of the said 10%/15% will not qualify for deduction.

This deduction is not applicable to deferred annuity policies. Actual Capital Sum. Assured is the amount guaranteed to be paid by the Life Insurance Company on the happening of the events insured under the policy. However, such Actual Capital Sum Assured shall not include premiums agreed to be returned and Bonuses declared from time to time.

(ii) If the policyholder (other than annuity policy) discontinues the Policy within two policy years, no benefit is available in the second policy year. Besides, the deduction given in the first policy year will be treated as an income in the second policy year.

(iii) Deduction is allowed for the policies taken on the life of an individual, his wife/ husband and children.
(iv) Life Insurance Policies including deferred annuity policies are eligible. Pension policies are treated separately under section 80CCC of the Income-tax Act, 1961 hence, not eligible under section 80C of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

(v) Under section 80C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, many tax saving instruments are eligible for deduction and Life Insurance Policies is one amongst them.

(vi) The maximum amount which can be claimed as a deduction under section 80C,80CCC (deduction for pension policies) and 80CCD of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (contributions under the New Pension Scheme) cannot exceed ₹ 1,50,000/-.

Under section 80CCC of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the premiums paid for a pension policy issued by a Life Insurance company is eligible for deduction. Any amount received under a Pension Policy on account of surrender of the Policy or as pension (annuity payments) is taxable on receipt. The limit is ₹ 1,50,000/- which is subject to overall limit of deduction under all the three sections 80C, 80CCC and 80CCD of the Income-tax Act, 1961 all put together.

Section 80CCD of the Income-tax Act, 1961:
Central Government has notified contributions made under the New Pension Scheme administered by the Pension Funds Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) as eligible for deduction under section 80CCD of the Income-tax Act, 1961. PFRDA collects contributions from subscribers and invests them as per fund options with some limited flexibilities, which can be selected by the Subscribers. PFRDA invests the funds of the subscribers like a Mutual Fund and manages them.

Private Sector, as well as self-employed persons, can join the New Pension Scheme and subscribe to the Scheme. Upon attaining the age of Superannuation at least 40% of the corpus must be utilized to purchase an annuity Policy from empanelled Life Insurance Company, who will then pay monthly annuity to the subscriber depending on the annuity option chosen.

Up to 60 years of the corpus can be withdrawn as commuted value at the time of superannuation. While the basic contribution under section 80CCD (I) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is subject to the overall deduction under sections 80C, 8iOCCC and 80CCD of the Income-tax Act, 1961 put together, Section 80CCD (1B) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, provides additional ₹ 50,000/-deduction only for the contributions to the Pension scheme notified under the section by the Central Government i.e. PFRDA’s New Pension Scheme. The amount of contribution from employees is limited to 10% of salary.

Section 80DDD of the Income-tax Act, 1961:
A Life Insurance Policy taken by an individual who has a dependent with some specified disabilities under the Section will be eligible for deduction up to ₹ 75,000 per year for taking the Life Insurance Policy for such dependents. The deduction increased to ₹ 11,25,000 per year where such dependents have serious disabilities.

Such policies are taken by the Caretaker of such dependent (who must be a relative having insurable interest) on his own life and the dependent shall be the nominee who will get the benefits under the Policy. Upon the death of the caretaker. If the dependent predeceases the Caretaker, the amount allowed as deduction shall be deemed to be an income in the year in which such amount is received by caretaker and shall be taxed accordingly.

Section 10(10D) of the Income-tax Act, 1961:
In computing the total income of a previous year of any person, any income falling within any of the following clauses shall not be included any sum received under a life instance policy, including the sum allocated by way of bonus on such policy, other than:

any sum received under sub-section (3) of section 80DD or sub-section (3) of section 80DDA of the Income-tax Act, 1961; or

any sum received under a Keyman insurance policy; or

any sum received under an insurance policy issued on or after the 1st day of April 2003 but on or before the 31st day of March 2012 in respect of which the premium payable for any of the years during the term of the policy exceeds twenty per cent of the actual capital sum assured; or

any sum received under an insurance policy issued on or after the 1st day of April 2012 in respect of which the premium payable for any of the years during the term of the policy exceeds ten per cent of the actual capital sum assured:

Provided that the provisions of sub-clauses (c) and (d) shall not apply to any sum received on the death of a person:
Provided further that for the purpose of calculating the actual capital sum assured under sub-clause (c), effect shall be given to the Explanation to sub-section (3) of section 80C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or the Explanation to sub-section

(2A) of section 88 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as the case may be:
Provided also that where the policy, issued on or after the 1st day of April 2013, is for insurance on life of any person, who is

  • a person with disability or a person with severe disability as referred to in section 80U of the Income-tax Act. 1961; or
  • suffering from disease or ailment as specified in the rules made under section 80DDB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the provisions of this sub-clause shall have effect as if for the words “ten per cent”, the words “fifteen per cent” had been substituted.

Question 3.
What are the tax implications in life insurance under the Income Tax Act of India?
Answer:
Tax Law Implications In Life Insurance:
Historically life insurance in India has been driven mainly by benefits doled out under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Different Sections under Income Tax Act, 1961 deal with benefits at the purchase, renewal and claim stages of a life insurance policy. Life insurance policies have been used a effective tax planning tools. Following are some of the Sections under the

Income Tax Act, 1961 dealing with tax benefits for life insurance policies:
Deductions under Sections 80C/80CCC/80D:
Under Section 80C of the Act, premiums paid by the Assessee on policies held by himself, spouse or children is eligible for deduction from gross total income. This is also applicable to a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) where the Karta of he HUF pays premiums on policies held by any member of the HUF. Where the premiums payable under the policy exceeds 10% of the actual capital sum assured, the deduction is limited to 10% of the sum assured.

Section 8OCCC deals with contributions to approved pension products. It lays down that an individual assessee who has paid premiums out of his income chargeable to tax to effect or keep in force a contract for any annuity plan of Life Insurance Corporation 04 India or any other insurer for receiving pension from the fund aPproved under Section 10 (23AA8).

he shall be allowed a deduction in the computation of his total income, of the whole of the amount paid or deposited (excluding interest o bonus accrued or are(i.ted to the assessee’s account, it any) up to a maximum of ₹ 1.00.000 With previous year.

Section 80CCD deals with contributions to approved pension products by an individual assessee. It lays down that where an assessee. being an individual has In the previous year paid or deposited any amount in his account under a notified pension scheme. he shaM be allowed a deduction in the computation of his total income, of the whole of the amount so paid or deposited as does not exceed 10% of his salary (in case of Central Government employees) or 10% of his gross total income (in any other case) In the previous year.

CS Professional Insurance Law and Practice Notes

Business Strategy and Management – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Business Strategy and Management – Multidisciplinary Case Studies Important Questions

Question 1.
Read the following case and answer the questions given at the end :
In 2006-07 PTC Food division decided to enter the fast growing (20-30% annually) snacks segment, an-altogether new to it. It had only one national competitor-Trepsico’s Trito. After a year its wafer snack brand-Ringo, fetched 20% market share across the country. Rmgo’s introduction was coincided with the cricket world cup. The wafer snacks market is estimated to be around ₹ 250 crores.

The company could take the advantage of its existing distribution network and also source potatoes from farmers easily. Before the PTC could enter the market a cross-functional team made a customer survey through a marketing research group in 14 cities of the country to know about the snacks of eating habits of people. The result showed that the customers

within the age-group of 15-24 years were the most promising for the product as they were quite enthusiastic about experimenting new snack taste. The , company reported to its chefs and the chefs came out with 16 flavours with varying tastes suiting to the targeted age-group.

The company decided to target the youngsters as primary target on the assumption that once they are lured in, it was easier to reach the whole family. Advertising in this category was extremely crowded. Every week two-three local products in new names were launched, sometimes with similar names. To break through this clutter the company decided to bank upon humour appeal.

The Industry sources reveal that PTC spent about ₹ 50 crores on advertisement and used all possible media-print and electronic, both including the creation of its own website, Ringoringoyoungo.com with offers of online games, contests etc. Mobile phone tone downloading was also planned which proved very effective among teenagers. The site was advertised on all dot com networks. Em TV, Shine TV, Bee TV and other important channels were also used for its advertisement along with FM radio channels in about 60 cities with large hoardings at strategic places.

Analysts believes that Ringo’s success story owes a lot to PTC’s widespread distribution channels and aggressive advertisements. Humour appeal was a big success. The ‘Ringo’ was made visible by painting the Railway bogies passing across the States. It has also been successful to induce Lovely Brother’s Future Group to replace Trito in their Big-Bazaar and chain of food Bazaars. PTC is paying 4% higher margin than Trepsico to Future group and other retailers.

Ringo to giving Trepsico a run for its money. Trito’s share has already been reduced considerably. Retail tie-ups, regional flavours, regional humour appeals have helped PTC. But PTC still wants a bigger share in the market and in foreign markets also, if possible.
Questions:
(a) What is SWOT Analysis?
(b) What are the strength of PTC?
(c) What are the weaknesses of PTC for entering into the branded snacks market?
(d) What kind of marketing strategy was formulated and implemented for Ringo? What else need to be done by Ringo so as to enlarge its market?
Answer:
(a) The comparison of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats is normally referred to as a SWOT analysis.

  • Strength : Strength is an inherent capability of the organization which it can use to gain strategic advantage over its competitors.
  • Weakness : A weakness is an inherent limitation or constraint of the organization which creates strategic disadvantage to it.
  • Opportunity : An opportunity is a favorable condition in the organization’s environment which enables it to strengthen its position.
  • Threat : A threat is an unfavorable condition in the organization’s environment which causes a risk for, or damage to, the organization’s position.

The central purpose of SWOT analysis is to identify the strategies that will create a firm – specific business model that will best align, fit, or match a company’s resources and capabilities to the demands of the environment in which it operates. Strategic managers compare and contrast the various alternative possible strategies against each other with respect to their ability to achieve major goals and superior profitability.

(b) The strength of PTC:

  • Wide spread distribution network
  • Aggressive advertisements
  • Easy availability of raw material
  • Ringo’s introduction coincided with Cricket Wold Cup.

(c) The main weakness was the presence of strong national competitor. The company has only targeted youngster. Heavy advertisement cost is not required. It is unusually increasing the expenditure of the company.

(d) The company’s marketing strategy targeted the youngster on the assumption that once they are lured in, it would be easier to reach the whole family. For this their decision to bank upon humour appeal clicked. The following measures can be taken by Ringo so as to enlarge its market.

  • Making the product available in public places and other crowded areas and organising street shows etc.
  • Attention should also be paid towards the preference and tastes of foreign buyers for exploring the foreign market.

Question 2.
Read the following case and answer the questions given at the end:
Subhiksha (prosperity in Sanskrit) began with a single grocery store at Chennai in 1997. Subhiksha stores increased from 50 in 2000 to 140 by 2002-03 (spread across 30 towns in Tamilnadu) to 670 by 2006-07 to 1650 by September, 2008. Its early success was due to its business model based upon no-frills/deep discount and high level of neighbourhood focus. Its decision in 2004 to go national from a regional player at a rapid pace proved wrong.

With the growing ambition to go national, focus shifted from value to customers to creating valuation for self. The company had recruited all the employees to foray into consumer durables also. Its revenue increased from ₹ 278 crore from 140 stores in 2005 to ₹ 2305 crore in 2008 with a capital base of ₹ 32 crore. Subhiksha’s profit after tax for 2007-08 was ₹ 41 crore. It had invested heavily, largely using debt, and paybacks took longer than expected. Repayment of debt had no relationship to cash flow. In the end the company had liabilities of ₹ 900 crore.

Around January, 2009, the company had started to shut down stores pan-India and in February, the top management quit the firm, not just because it defaulted on rentals of its outlets and salaries since October, 2008. Today all the stores are closed. Major suppliers had stopped supplies after it defaulted on payments. It asked its employees to take home groceries; and go on leave without pay. Many employees did not get their salaries. Initially the company was confident to restructure and remain in business.

Indian retail industry comprises of 12 million mom-and-pop stores and kirana stores (many of whom have also started innovating) and unknown number of hawkers in the unorganized sector working on small-sized stores and with low or no rentals and salaries and the organized retailers (market share not more than 5%).

The emergence of a large young population and a growing middle class wi(p strong disposable incomes and credit card culture are the drivers of the organized retail, a mix of two types ones going in for huge expansion announcements and others following “slow and steady wins the race strategy”. The industry operates not on a very hefty margin. The yearly top-line growth is likely to remain around 10-15% as against forecasted 35% this year. Compared with players like Pantaloon, Reliance, More, RPG and even Nilgiri’s (which has private equity funding), Subhiksha has no large group’s backing (except Shri Azim Premji having 10% stake).

The strategy was to raise more debt and keep equity low. During 2006, Subhiksha had a good chance to make an initial IPO or raise private equity money, but it was in quest of creating higher valuations. Suddenly retail was no longer so hot and the capital tap had gone dry. Due to inability to raise more debt, working capital was diverted to expand. Many of the organized retailers have survived the downturn through transformation in their strategies and tactics. However, one thing is certain that footfalls have declined for the organized retail.

Debt-ridden retailer Subhiksha Trading Services Ltd. has begun its second innings in February, 2010, with the launch of its first cash-and-carry store (the board outside the outlet reads Subhiksha Maligai Arisi Mandi) in Thiruvanmiyur in Chennai – at its first ever retail outlet). “Subhiksha’s model will be different this time around and will not directly engage with customers,” said an industry source.
Questions:
(a) “To understand the nature of competition certain questions need to be answered.” What those questions are?
(b) Who were the competitors of Subhiksha? Do you think they were better equipped than it?
(c) What, where and how the business strategy of Subhiksha might have gone wrong?
(d) If you were the strategy consultant to the Organised Retailers Association of India, what will you advise to control the cost and convert the threat of dropping footfalls and declining sales into an opportunity?
(e) How is a Cash-and-carry store different from a Retail store? Name any other such Cash-and-carry store in India.
Answer:
(a) The nature of competition can be visualised in terms of SWOT (strength, weakness, opportunities and threats). The questions frequently asked are as follows:

  • What are the strengths? What are the strengths of the competitors?
  • What are the weaknesses? What are the weaknesses of the competitors?
  • What are the opportunities that are available? What is the position of opportunities when compared to competitors?
  • What are the threats that are available? What is the position of threats when compared to competitors?

Alternatively: Alternative questions that can be answered to understand the nature of competition are :

  • Who are the competitors?
  • What are their market shares?
  • What are their products and services?
  • What gives them cost and price advantage?
  • What are their financial positions?
  • What are they likely to do next?
  • Who are the potential future competitors?

(b) Subhiksha was facing competition on two fronts :

  • Organised sector: Big departmental stores.
  • Unorganised sector: Weekly markets, street vendors etc.

Different vendors in organised and unorganised sector enjoyed a number of distinct advantages in comparison with Subhiksha. There are many players in the organized retailing such as ‘Big Bazaar’, ‘Spencer’, ‘More’, etc. These had support of established big business houses. They also took better strategic decisions. All of them competed with Subhiksha and were not short of finances.

The unorganised sector’s benefit is their own low costs and reach to the customers. Mom-and-Pop stores are small-sized retailers that are spread around nook and corner of the country. They enjoy personal relationships touch with the customers, and have cost advantage due to no or low rentals and salaries. They also normally work with their own funds and do not have any interests costs.

Weekly Bazaars, frequently named after the days of weeks such as Mangal/Budh Bazaar, also enjoy similar position. Hawkers lined up along streets, spread out on temporary platforms and illuminated by gas-lamps also offer bargains. The street vendors offer the unparalleled convenience as they serve at the door of the users.

(c) Subhiksha’s business model was working fine till it was a regional player. It did try to look at the things with long-term perspective but that landed them in trouble. Problems arose when it tried to expand rapidly. It was their aggressive growth strategy that had gone awry because they opened too many stores in too short a period without realising the potential of the company. Outlets were opened for sake of expansion, inspite of focus on sustainable growth.

Subhiksha’s financial strategy also proved to be problematic. Retail sector needs cash infusion. Subhiksha expanded by diverting working capital and rising high costs debts. To leverage on a small equity base of ? 32 crore only was bound to put them in difficulty. Recession made it faster. The strategy of Subhiksha of raising funds with more debt and less equity was wrong. It also did not go for the IPO to manage their finances in a better manner.

(d) In order to control the costs Organised Retailers Association of India can make several recommendations to its members. A strategist may suggest the following points:

  • Reduce inventory : With proper inventory management, the cost of obsolescence and reduce financing cost of inventory.
  • Efficient utilisation of facilities : Expenditure on account of power can be reduced by optimum usage of air-conditioning, lifts, lighting, etc.
  • Procure directly from the source : To reduce the costs and take advantages of bulk purchases, the products may be purchased directly from the manufacturers and producers.
  • Lease out excess space to manufacturers and other marketers : Extra space may be leased out at a price to others. This will generate extra revenue and efficient utilisation of space. Many organised retailers offer separate space to the sellers of cosmetics or small eateries. This also improves footfalls.
  • Offer discounts : Hefty discounts can be offered on the products that are brought at low costs to improve the interest and footfalls. It improves the sales even with falling footfalls.
  • Combination offers : Offers can be made to combine low moving products with fast moving products and sell them at discount.
  • A balanced capital structure : The debt-equity ratio should be properly maintained with future perspective so that the scarce financial resources can be utilized in an optimum manner.
  • Organise special events to improve sales : Special events can be launched. These can have direct effect in increasing footfalls and the sales. For example, an exhibition can be organised inviting mobile manufacturers to showcase their new products. Events such as painting competition for school kids, magic shows can also be organised to attract visitors to the stores.
  • Have proper security : Proper security system should be maintained to reduce the losses on account of pilferages.

(e) A cash-and-carry store is different from a retail store. Cash and carry store is one where customer pays in cash and carries away the purchases. The term is basically being used for the stores (wholesalers) that are making bulk sales to the retailers, caterers and institutional buyers.

Therefore the business model is business to business. No credit period is given and invoice is settled on the spot in cash. The goods are carried away by the purchasers themselves. The store works as a bulk supplier rather than a retailer selling small quantities directed towards consumers.

Question 3.
Read the following case and answer the questions given at the end:
Godrej, still managed by a family board, is a 113-year-old brand and has a great brand value. But younger generation’s reaction has been – “it’s my parents’ or my grandparents’ brand. Hence the Group launched a re-branding exercise in 2008, the most visible part being a new logo, uniform across all group companies. It has well diversified businesses – cyclical (property: owning 3000 acres in Mumbai’s Vikhroli alone, Ahmedabad, Pune and Kalyan), stable (fast moving consumer goods), rural (Agrovat stores) and urban (organised retail stores-Nature’s Basket, domestic appliances and furniture).

The group sells fatty acids to tyre manufacturers; animal feed to 1,00,000 farmers; and premium wine in Mumbai and Delhi. Its customers range from five-year olds (nutrine), ageing man (hair dye), to housewives (soaps & locks), IT companies (renting sprawling spaces), to Government of India (like rockets for Chandrayan), and to 50,000 barbers (Godrej dye). But it abstains in new-age, sunrise industries like health care and information technology.

Godrej Consumer Products Limited (GCPL) has adopted a ‘3 by 3’ strategy, sticking to emerging markets in three regions – Asia, Africa and Latin America as their culture, tastes and even skin colours are quite similar to India and in three categories-personal care, hair-care and insecticide. Since 2005, GCPL has made seven acquisitions, including its biggest acquisition of Indonesia’s Megasari Group for ₹ 1200 crore, in 2010.

“Acquisitions overseas add s.tatus and pedigree to brand-owners in the domestic market” says an expert. Prashant Goenka (Emami) questions “When Indian companies such as Dabur, Godrej and Marico can make it big in international markets, why can’t Emami ?” Anil Chug (Wipro) says, “by having a presence in multiple markets our risk assessment is neutralized”. Marico’s Harish opines- “the global play has helped Marico expand its footprint and given it another avenue for growth.”

Recently Godrej’s top honchos toured the hinterlands, an indicator of the renewed focus on consumer. To reach out to new customers, Especially in rural India, it has gone in for destructive innovation. The group has been manufacturing refrigerators for more than 50 years, but its penetration has been only 18%. It found out that people do not need a 180 litre fridge due to space and cost constraints.

It came out with ‘Chotukool’ – a square 45 litre mini fridge priced at just ₹ 3,250. Another example of destructive innovation is the launch of ‘U & Us’ – a ‘by appointment’ design studio where customers co-design their furniture as customers see furniture as an extension of their personality. Thus Godrej group is transiting from manufacturing-oriented to consumer oriented.
Questions:
(i) What are the strengths of Group Godrej?
(ii) What are the weaknesses of Group Godrej?
(iii) What is the Group Godrej’s perception with regard to innovation and consumers now?
(iv) Why do firms go global?
Answer:
(i) Strengths of the Godrej group are: .

  • The group is into well diversified businesses. The businesses are both cyclical and stable in nature. The group also has presence in both rural and urban markets with different product offerings.
  • Godrej is more than 113 year old brand.
  • Godrej enjoys trust and goodwill and has great brand value.
  • Godrej has 3000 acres of own land in Vikhroli, a developing suburb in Mumbai.
  • Godrej is growing internationally and is concentrating on emerging markets of three regions – Asia, Africa, & Latin America.

(ii) Weaknesses of the group are:

  • Godrej is managed by members of a family. Unlike professional management the family considerations may play important role in the decisions of the company.
  • Godrej has made some aggressive acquisitions in recent times. How these are assimilated will be crucial for its business.
  • Lacks a significance presence in new-age, sun-rise industries like health care, information technology and automobile industry.

(iii) Godrej group is shifting from being manufacturing oriented to consumer oriented. The company is focusing on customers and innovation. A business must understand what its customers want and keep innovating new products to satisfy the identified wants. If a company fails to do this, it will get extinct. For innovation Godrej has adopted destructive innovation. The capacity to innovate is a fundamental source of competitive advantage.

(iv) There are many reasons due to which the companies go global:

  • To increase the returns through higher margins or lower costs through large scale of operations.
  • Firms having surplus resources or capabilities developed at home may deploy them abroad for expansion.
  • Due to imposition of trade barriers by an importing state, the exporters from aboard decide to build manufacturing plants in the importing country.
  • Firms facing stiff domestic competition often decide to go international in search of new market.
  • International presence dilutes local risk
  • Development of Institutions to support and facilitate international business.
  • Availing advantages of the liberalization initiatives of various governments across the world.
  • Attractive opportunities may exist in form of businesses in managerial or financial difficulty.

Question 4.
Read the following case and answer the questions given at the end:
Sharp Corporation is a worldwide developer of innovative products and core technologies that play a key role in shaping the future of electronics. As a leader in liquid crystal displays (LCDs) and digital technologies, Sharp offers one of the broadest and most advanced lines of consumer electronics, information products and electronic components, while also creating new network businesses. Sharp Corporation has traveled a long way from an assembler of televisions to a leading TV manufacturer.

In its early days as business enterprise, the company was making low quality and low price TVs and, was, thus overshadowed by the giants like Sony, Samsung and Matsushita. It was a technology follower in the beginning and was using secondary technology, The brand image, too, was not very high. Sharp, under the leadership of Machida, went for a brand image make over by using innovation. The new leader has concentrated on R & D, in addition to enhancing its market coverage.

Its innovation in liquid crystal display (LCD) technology and developing products featuring LCD’s made at the reputed electronics company in Japan. Sharp is now the world’s largest manufacturer of LCD TVs. The company has very well succeeded and sustaining its success is a major critical factor: its focus on innovation. Unfortunately, the global economic downturn has hit Sharp worse than the most American Companies.

The industry as a whole, and Sharp in particular, realised the fact that only innovation in terms of quality, cost and competitive strength is the main survival factor. At the same time the industry is not unaware of the fact that every new technology will obsolete faster. Average life of every new technology is becoming shorter and shorter.

The ever changing competitive scenario with the global competitors waging to dethrone Sharp and the entry of low cost manufacturers from Asia, have created some of the biggest challenges for Sharp. Newer display technologies with superior quality at a lesser price are emerging in the international market. Sharp has taken the first mover advantage, but is facing competition from the late entrants.
Questions:
(i) What are the strengths of Sharp Corporation?
(ii) What are the weaknesses of Sharp Corporation?
(iii) What should be the next move of Sharp Corporation?
(iv) Analyse the key success factors for LCD TV Industry.
Answer:
(i) A positive aspect or strong capacity of a business which helps it overcome difficulties and gain strategic advantage over the others is known as strength of any business.
Example : Excellent work force, strong R & D.

The strengths of Sharp Corporation are as follows:

  • It is the leader in LCD and digital technologies.
  • Broadest and advanced product line
  • Wide market coverage
  • Focus on innovation through R & D.

(ii) The term weakness refers to a negative aspect or limitation of a business which keeps it way behind its competitors.
Example : Use of old technology or techniques of production.

The weaknesses of Sharp Corporation are as follows:

  • Brand image was not high in the beginning and was thus overshadowed by giants like-Sony, Samsung, Matsushita.
  • It was technology follower in the beginning and was using secondary technology.
  • Global economic turn down hit it worse than other American Company. it
  • Not able to cope up with ever changing technology.

(iii) The next move of Sharp Corporation should be to renew its value chain management in order to create competitive edge both in terms of high quality product as well as in terms of low cost. It can also explore areas where competition is low and also think about i
alliances, merger and takeovers.

(iv) Key success factors of LCD TV industry.

  • High quality accomplished with low cost and competitive strength.
  • Constant upgradation in its technology.
  • First moves advantage.

Question 5.
To which industries the following development offers opportunities and threats? The number of nuclear families, where husband and wife both are working, is fast increasing’.
Answer:
Different developments in the environment can offer different opportunities and threats to businesses. An Opportunity is a favourable condition in the organisation’s environment which enables it to strengthen its position with respect to its competitors. A threat is an unfavourable condition in the which causes a risk for, or damage to, the organisation’s position.

The Situation in the question relates to threats and opportunities of social environment. In the present social environment, there is growth of nuclear families. This is away from the joint family system, when both husband & wife are working it increases their spending capacity. Opportunity: Such developments bring direct opportunities to different businesses such as Ready to eat food, fast to cook items, dish washers, washing machines, creches for children and so on. Indirect opportunities exists for other lifestyle products.

Threat: At the same time, such development also acts as threat to traditional raw food suppliers, kitty party organizers and so on.

Question 6.
The Postal Department of GOI is trying to develop competitive strategies to make better profits. The Chief of the postal department presents the following facts:
(i) There are many couriers who operate in major cities and offer guaranteed delivery at very marginally higher prices than the postal department and yet manage to make a lot of profits.

(ii) Couriers offer tracking facilities on the e-computer so that a customer knows when his consignment is getting delivered or where it is located at any point of time.

(iii) Many pick up points are available for customers. Even retail customers find it convenient to book their requirements without having to travel much. For bulk booking, the couriers provided pick up facility at no further cost.

(iv) Couriers are not available in rural and sub-urban areas whereas postal network is very good in these places.

(v) Couriers in the cities operate until 7 p.m. whereas the corresponding speed posts or registered posts close at 2-30 p.m. / 4 p.m. in most areas and 6 p.m. / 8 p.m. in big Post Offices in Metro Cities/GPO respectively. There are one or at most two centres which operate speed post counters for 24 hours, but there are no 24×7 courier facilities.

(vi) Postal services for parcels are much cheaper than the courier services.

(vii) International courier charges very highly priced for documents and parcels, whereas postal charges are up to 70% cheaper, but delivery is at least 50% slower. Retail customers prefer postal services while corporate houses prefer couriers.

(viii) International courier is mainly parcel services. Documents are not prominent revenue makers due to electronic mode of communication.

(ix) Staff in courier services is more customer-friendly than the Postal Dept, staff, whereas the Postal Dept, staff are paid much more.

(x) While wondering how different the scale of profits could be between similar services, the Chief of Postal Department considers that for a Post Office to operate, in addition to document/parcel bookings, banking services like MIS/PF/Savings Account, etc. telephone bill payment services, stamp sale services and other services are being rendered, requiring the necessary hierarchy of approving authority to be present. He is considering opening of more centres exclusively for the equivalent of courier services.

Required:
(a) Identify threats to the Postal Department, GOI.
(b) What would you consider as important strengths of the Postal Department, GOI?
(c) Mention the opportunities that the Postal Department, GOI can profitably consider.
(d) Apart from (x) suggest appropriate business strategies that the Postal Department, GOI may practically apply to successfully run a long-term profitable document/parcel service on the lines of the courier service.
Answer:
(a) Threats: Changes in the external environment also may present threats to the Postal Department. It is an unfavourable condition in the organization’s environment which creates a risk or causes damage to the Postal Department, which the Postal Department is not equipped to handle.

There are different threats as given below:

  • shifts in consumer tastes away from the firm’s products
  • emergence of substitute products
  • new regulations
  • increased trade barriers

(b) Strengths: A Postal Department’s strengths are its resources and capabilities that can be used as a basis for developing a compe.itive advantage. It is an inherent capacity which an organization can use to gain strategic advantage. It may be the availability of a particular resource with the Postal Department or the ability of the Postal Department to leverage it to performing certain activities better than its competitors.

Important Strengths of Postal Department are given below:

  • patents
  • strong brand names
  • good reputation among, customers
  • cost advantages from proprietary know-how
  • exclusive access to high grade natural resources
  • favorable access to distribution networks.

(c) Opportunities: The external environmental analysis may reveal certain new opportunities for profit and growth. It is a favourable condition in the Postal Department environment which enables it to consolidate and strengthen its position.

Opportunities of the Postal Department are given below:

  • an unfulfilled customer need
  • arrival of new technologies
  • loosening of regulations
  • removal of international trade barriers.

(d) Business Strategies of Postal Department:
(1) SO Strategies – The SO strategies try to improve the company’s strengths relative to its environmental opportunities. These strategies use firm’s internal strengths to take advantage of external opportunities. It is the aim of enterprises to move from other positions of the matrix to this one. When the firm faces a weakness, it strive to overcome it, making such weaknesses into strengths. When a major threat is faced by the firm, it will try to avoid such threat by focusing on opportunities.

(2) WO Strategies – The WO strategies will enable the Postal Department to overcome weaknesses and focus to tap its opportunities. WO strategies are evolved to improve internal weaknesses by taking advantage of external opportunities. The firm with internal weaknesses in certain areas may overcome them by developing such competencies internally or acquire from outside to take advantage of opportunities available in the external environment.

(3) ST Strategies – The ST strategies try to gear up the internal strengths to reduce the vulnerability of external environmental threats. The basic objective of these strategies is to maximize the advantage of internal strengths while minimizing the external environmental threats.

(4) WT Strategies – The WT strategies are the defensive strategies used to counter the internal weaknesses as well as external threats. In this situation retrenchment, joint ventures and liquidation strategies need to be evolved to up or out.

SWOT matrix is widely used as a strategic planning tool and used to generate several strategic alternatives. The aim of a business organization is to move from one position to another desirable position in the SWOT matrix. SWOT matrix can be prepared for the whole organization or for particular strategic business unit.

Question 7.
To which industries the following developments offer opportunities and threats’?
“Increasing trend in India to organize IPL (Cricket) type of tournaments in other sports also”.
Answer:
Opportunities An opportunity is a favourable condition in the organisation’s environment which enables it to strength then its position. The opportunities through IPL (cricket) tournaments are as follows:

  • Growth of the Nation.
  • Growth of Indian Cricket Industry.
  • Growth of Stadiums.
  • Growth of Sports Industry.
  • Growth of Media Industry.
  • Growth of tourism and hotel industry.

Threats – A threat is an unfavourable condition in the organisations environment which causes a risk for or damage to organisation.

  • Increase in corruption.
  • Increase in betting.
  • Time wasting of people.

Question 8.
significant example of Strategic Choices in Indian Corporate in recent times is the growth for Starbucks and the Tata group. Starbucks has opted to enter into a strategic alliance with the Tata Group, as it attempts to establish a position in the Indian market. Tata Starbucks Limited is the 50-50 joint venture between Tata Global Beverages Limited and the Starbucks Coffee Company. The Company celebrated the opening of the 50,h Starbuck store in India on 8th July, 2014. The company launched its first store at Phoenix Market City, Velachery, Chennai.

The Company will continue to open more and more stores and grow thoughtfully in the market with a commitment to offer the unique Starbucks experience, unrivalled service, hand-crafted beverages, extensive food offerings and with a distinct fragrance and aroma of Coffee to Coffee lovers across the country. With 50 stores now operational across 5 cities, Tata Starbucks Limited continues to grow and nurture its brand in India-in line with its promise to build a strong connect with the Indian consumers.

Perhaps somewhat unusually, the stores will be co-branded as “Starbucks Coffee: A Tata Alliance.” Long known as a nation of tea drinkers-despite a rich tradition of Coffee in the south-lndia has embraced Coffee house culture with a vengeance.

“We are going to move as fast as possible in opening as many stores as we can so long as we are successful and so long as we are embraced by the indian consumers” said John Culver, President of Starbucks China and Asia Pacific. The need to address and respect potential cultural issues seems to have been a key factor in deciding to use the joint ventures route rather than set up a separate Starbucks subsidiary in India.

“We never considered 51 %,” Culver said, “When we looked at the opportunity to enter India, understanding the complexities of the market and , ,the uniqueness that is India, we wanted to find a local business partner.”
(i) What is Strategic Planning? State the Strategic Planning Process.
(ii) What approaches to Strategic Planning are advised to Tata Starbucks Limited for the Strategic Choice phases?
(iii) State the important key components of Strategic Planning Process for decision making in “Starbucks Coffee: A Tata Alliance.”
Answer:
(i) Strategic Planning: Refers to the development of strategic plans that involve taking information from the environment and deciding upon an organizational mission and upon objectives, strategies and a portfolio plan. It involves establishing the overall identity of the company, deciding on the strategic alternatives the company will follow and choosing the tactics or weapons which the company will emphasize.

Simply put, Strategic Planning involves identifying the long-term objectives and determining the action plans for the company. The objectives and action plans should be established only after careful assessment and prediction of the future states of relevant environmental factors.

Strategic Planning Process: Involves the identification of alternatives, the collection of information, evaluation and selection of alternatives and finally the strategic decisions themselves. Strategic Planning Process can best be understood in terms of stages:

  • Stage-1 : Defining the mission.
  • Stage-2 : Assessing organizational resources
  • Stage-3 : Evaluating environmental risks and opportunities
  • Stage-4 : Establishing long-term objectives
  • Stage 5 : Formulating strategy
  • Stage-6 : Establishing annual objectives
  • Stage-7 : Establishing operational plans
  • Stage-8 : Implementing the plans
  • Stage-9 : Implementing, Monitoring and Adapting.

(ii) Approach to Strategic Planning Process for Tata Starbucks Limited – The following are the basic approaches to Strategic Planning process ‘ for Tata Starbucks Limited:

  • Keep the engaging commitment.
  • Set Long-term Strategic Objectives for improved performance of the organization
  • Keep on generating Strategic Options
  • Keep evaluating and decide on strategies
  • There is a need to track monitoring implementation of the strategies against the long-term objectives.

(iii) Key Components of Strategic Planning Process are :

  • The Strategic intent/objective to improve the long-term performance of the Starbucks Coffee: A Tata Alliance.
  • The Strategic issues distilled from the analysis of key factors relevant to the overall situation of the organization in its environment and
  • The Strategic options generated by the planning.

The Strategic choice space is in the area of overlap among these three components. Consideration of the other overlaps between pairs of components may stimulate discussion and possible other thoughts to clarify what are the really important elements in any decision about strategy. Between intent and issue analysis there may be no feasible options apparent.

Before giving up it may be worth looking to see if the alignment between factors raised in the analysis which seem relevant to objectives have been misread, or are alternative forms of issues already aligned in the central strategic choice space. Between intent and options it may be possible to identify early on that some options are just not feasible. There will of course be options thrown up that seem feasible, and to fit the issues raised to some extent, and yet do not align well with the objectives. They may be overly risky, or not align with the code of corporate conduct of the organization.

However, it is only in the space created by all three component circles overlapping, that we find any logical candidate strategic choice for inclusion in the final corporate strategy. Honest and evidence based exploration of this space enables a reasonable and possible set of strategies to emerge as if by magic. The ‘magic’ is that which comes with systematic hard work, and honesty in facing up to the really big challenges or strategic elephants facing the organization, in its pursuit of longer term sustainable performance.

When managerial ego becomes involved or a deep rooted organizational culture is at play, it may be very difficult to follow the logic as presented. It will be tempting to argue for a change in strategic intent in order to get in a favored strategic option. A suggested but infeasible strategic choice which seems very attractive might have influential supporters, so the evidence regarding its feasibility needs to be sound and fully available to the planning team may need to be carefully argued with clear evidence in support. Choosing what not to do, is as important to agree and record as part of the planning process, as the finally agreed strategic choices.

Question 9.
American Apparel is a fashion retailer and manufacturer that advertises itself as a vertically integrated industrial company. The brand is based in Downtown, Los Angles, where from a single building they control the dyeing, finishing, sewing, cutting, marketing and distribution of the company’s product.

The shoots and distributes its own advertisements, often uses its own employees as subjects. It also owns and operates each of its retail location as opposed to franchising. According to the management, the integration strategy allows the company to design, cut, distribute and sell an item globally in the span of a month.
(i) Which type of ‘integration strategy’ is being followed by the company?
(ii) Give reasons for adopting such strategy in support of your answer.
Answer:
Since the company controls both production and distribution of its product, it is an example of a balanced vertically integrated strategy.

Vertical integration – is the process in which several steps in the production and/or distribution of a product or service are controlled by a single company or entity, in order to increase that company’s or entity’s power in the marketplace.

Vertical integration – represents an expansion or extension of the firm by integrating preceding or excessive productive processes. That is, the firm incorporates more processes toward the original source of raw materials (backward integration) or to ward the ultimate consumer (forward integration). For this reason the given case is an example of balanced vertical integration.

Question 10.
Read the following case study carefully and answer the questions given at the end:
Historically, the pharmaceutical industry has been a profitable one. Between 2002 and 2006, the average rate of return on invested capital (ROIC) for firms in the industry was 16.45%. Put differently, for every dollar of capital invested in the industry, the average pharmaceutical firm generated 16.45 cents of profit. This compares with an average return on invested capital of 12.76% for firms in the computer hardware industry, 8.54% for grocers, and 3.88% for firms in the electronics industry.

However, the average level of profitability in the pharmaceutical industry has been declining of late. In 2002, the average ROIC in the industry was 21.6%; by 2006, it had fallen to 14.5%. The profitability of the pharmaceutical industry can be best understood by looking at several aspects of its underlying economic structure. First, demand for pharmaceuticals has been strong and has grown for decades.

Between 1990 and 2003, there was a 12.5% annual increase in spending on prescription drugs in the United States. This growth was driven by favourable demographics. As people grow older, they tend to need and consume more prescription medicines, and the population in most advanced nations has been growing older as the post-World Was II baby boom generation ages. Looking forward, projections suggest that spending on prescription drugs will increase between 10 and 11% annually.

Second, successful new prescription drugs can be extraordinarily profitable. For example, Lipitor, the cholesterol lowering drug sold by Pfizer, was introduced in 1997, and by 2006 this drug had generated a staggering $ 12.5 billion in annual sales for Pfizer. The costs of manufacturing, packing, and distributing Lipitor amounted to only about 10% of revenues.

Pfizer spent close to $ 500 million on promoting Lipitor and perhaps as much again on maintaining a sales force to sell the product. This still left Pfizer with a gross profit of approximately $ 10 billion. Since the drug is protected from direct competition by a twenty-year patent, Pfizer had a temporary monopoly and could charge a high price. Once the patent expired, in 2010, other firms were able to produce “generic” versions of Lipitor and the price fell substantially within a year.

Competing firms can produce drugs that are similar (but not identical) to a patent-protected drug. Drug firms patent a specific molecule, and competing firms can patent similar, but not identical, molecules that have a similar pharmacological effect. Thus, Lipitor does have competitors in the market for cholesterol lowering drugs, such as Zocor, sold by Merck, and Crestor, sold by AstraZeneca. But these competing drugs are patent protected. Moreover, the high costs and risks associated with developing a new drug and bringing it to market limit new competition.

Out of every 5,000 compounds tested in the laboratory by a drug company, only five entered clinical trials, and only one of these will ultimately make it to the market. On an average, estimates suggest that it costs some $ 800 million and takes anywhere from ten to fifteen years to bring a new drug to market. Once in the market, only three out of ten drugs ever recoup their R&D and marketing costs and turn a profit. Thus the profitability of the pharmaceutical industry rests on a handful of blockbuster drugs. At Pfizer, the world’s largest pharmaceutical company, 55% of revenues were generated from just eight drugs.

To produce a blockbuster, a drug company must spend large amounts of money on research, most of which fail to produce a product. Only very large companies can shoulder the costs and risks of doing this making it difficult for new companies to enter the industry. Pfizer, for example, spent some $ 7.44 billion on R&D in 2005 alone, equivalent to 14.5% of its total revenues. It is a established fact that it is difficult to get into the pharma industry.

Although a large number of companies were ranked among the top twenty in the industry in terms of sales in 2005, most failed to bring standard products to the market. In addition to spending on R &D, the incumbent firms in the pharmaceutical industry spend large amounts of money on advertising and sales promotion. While the $ 500 million a year that’ Pfizer spends promoting Lipitor is small relative to the drug’s revenues, it is a large amount for a new competitor to match, making market entry difficult unless the competitor has a significantly better product.

There are also some big opportunities on the horizon for firms in the industry. New scientific breakthroughs in genomics are holding out the promise that within the next decade, pharmaceutical firms might be able to bring to market new drugs that treat some of the most intractable medical conditions, including Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s disease, cancer, heart disease, stroke, depression, anxiety, stress and AIDS.

However, there are some threats to the long-term dominance and profitability of industry giants like Pfizer. First, as spending on health care rises, politicians look for ways to limit health care costs, and there is likelihood of some forms of price control on prescription drugs. Price controls are already in effect in most developed nations, and although they have not yet been introduced in the United States, they could be.

Second, twelve of the thirty-five top-selling drugs in the industry lost their patent protection between 2004 and 2009. By one estimate, some 28% of the global industry’s sales of $ 307 billion was exposed to generic challenge in the United States alone, due to drugs going off patent between 2006 and 2012. It is not clear to many industry observers whether the established drug companies have enough new drug prospects in their pipelines to replace revenues from drugs going off patent.

Moreover generic drug companies, have been aggressive in challenging the patents of proprietary drug companies and in pricing their generic offerings. As a result, their share of industry sales has been growing. In 2005, they accounted for more than half by volume of all drugs prescribed in the United States, up from one-third in 1990.

Third, the industry has come under renewed scrutiny following studies showing that some FDA approved prescription drugs, known as COX-2 inhibitors, were associated with a greater risk of heart attracks. Two of these drugs, Vioxx and Bextra, were pulled from the market in 2004.
Questions:
(a) Drawing on the Five Forces Model of Michael E. Porter, explain why the pharmaceutical industry has historically been a very profitable industry.
(b) There are apprehensions in the pharma industry that its profitability, measured by rate of return on invested capital (ROIC) may decline in the near future. Why do you think it may occur?
(c) What are the prospects and opportunities for the pharma industry going forward? What are the threats that are discernible?
(d) What must pharma industry do to exploit the opportunities? What strategies should the industry adopt to counter the threats?
Answer:
(a) Michael Porter Five Force Model:
a. Threat of new Entrants (low) : The Intensity of this force is low as opening a new pharmaceutical company requires a huge capital investment. It is not possible for everybody to open a pharmaceutical company. Some of the factors that restrict to enter in pharmaceutical industry are as under:

  • Product specialty or blockbuster drugs required
  • High advertisement and sales promotion cost
  • High research and marketing cost
  • High manpower cost
  • Risk associated with new product development i.e. less success rate in clinical trials, less probability of profitable product etc.
  • As per study, out of every 5000 compounds tested in the laboratory by a drug company, only five entered clinical trials and one of these ultimately make it to the market.
  • Also, three out of ten drugs ever recoup their R & D and marketing costs and turn a profit.
  • In view of large amount of funds, few mega firms only enter into this industry.

b. Bargaining power of suppliers (low):
Generally, good manufacturing companies have their own research and development facilities, so for raw materials they are almost self-dependent. The companies who are depending on the outside suppliers, purchases the goods in quantity from the suppliers which reduces the bargaining power of suppliers.

c. Bargaining power of Buyers (low) :

  • Drugs are protected from direct competition by a twenty year patent. Being some of the giants had monopoly power in this industry; there is no option with the buyer to purchase the patented drugs, if prescribed by the medical practitioner.
  • Consumption of more prescribed medicines.
  • Branded, highly researched and quality products push up the buyers to purchase and redu the bargaining power of buyers.

d. Threat of Substitutes (low to medium):

  • Generic version of medicine.
  • The Intensity of this force is low to medium. Generic drugs companies have been aggressively challenging the patents of proprietary drugs companies and in pricing their generic offerings.
  • As a result, their share of industry sales has been growing. In 2005, they accounted for more than half by volume of all drugs prescribed in United States up from one third in 1990.
  • However, for patented drugs, no substitute is available as competing firm can patent similar molecule but not the identical.

e. Competitive Rivalry (low):

  • In generic drugs, rivalry is high as compared to patented drugs. Because other companies can’t manufacture those drugs as a specific molecule is patented.
  • Competing Firms can produce drugs that are similar (but not identical) to a patent-protected drug.
  • Drug firms patent a specific molecule, and competing firms can patent similar, but not identical molecules that have a similar pharmacological effect. Thus, Lipitor dose have competitors in the market for cholesterol lowering drugs, such as Zocor, sold by Merck, and Crestor, sold by Astra Zeneca.
  • On other side, once the patent of a particular drug is expired, other companies with patent of identical product or with generic product may enter into the market.

(b) The profitability of pharmaceutical industry can be best understood by looking at several aspects of its underlying economic structure. There are valid apprehensions in the pharma industry that its profitability, measured by rate of return on invested capital (ROIC) may decline in the near future as it come down from 21.6% in 2002 to 14.5% in 2006.. It may occur due to following reasons:

  • Major concern of the politicians is to limit healthcare cost and to price control on prescription drugs.
  • Many drugs going off the patent make revenues suffer. Company may lose the revenue due to drugs going of the patents. As per the estimate, twelve out of thirty-five top selling drugs lost their patent protection between 2004 to 2009.
  • A long gestation period is required in bringing a new drug to the market. The estimates suggest that it takes 10 to 15 years to bring a new drug to the market.
  • Threat of risk associated with the prescribed drugs with some disease as per the study conducted like GDA approved prescription drugs, known as COX-2 inhibitors, were associated with a greater risk of Heart attacks.
  • High cost of research and development. A large number of pharma companies have failed to bring a standard product to the market. Only three out of ten drugs ever recoup their R & D and marketing costs and turn a profit.
  • High costs and risks associated with developing a new drug and bringing it to market limits the competition. Out of 5000 compounds in the laboratory by a drug company, only five enter clinical trials, and only of those actually reach the market.
  • Promotion of generic drugs in Government hospitals.

(c) Though the average level of profitability in the pharmaceutical industry has been declining overtime (In 2002, the average ROTC in the industry was 21.6; by 2006, it had fallen to 14.5%), but still the pharmaceutical industry is generating high profits compare to other industry i.e. computer hardware 12.76%; Grocers 8.54%; Electronics 3.88%.

The prospect for the industry for going forward is very positive. Because the demand for pharmaceuticals has been strong and has grown for decades. Between 1990 and 2003, there was a 12.5% annual increase in spending on prescription drugs in the United States. This growth was driven by favorable demographics, i.e., longevity of life has increased in many developed as well as developing countries like India. Projections state that spending on prescription drugs will increase between 10% to 1170 annually.

As people grow older, they tend to need and consume more prescription medicines. Many new drugs need to be produced for ailments and diseases like Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, Cancer, heart disease, stroke. AIDS. Then there are health issues related to growing pollution — air, water, and noise pollution. Pollution is contributing a large number of deaths. Anxiety, stress, and other psycho-related prescription drugs can be extraordinarily profitable. High costs and risks associated with developing a new drug and bringing it to the market limit new competition.

There are, of course, threats to the pharma industry as well.
I. The government looks for ways to limit health care costs through some form of price control on prescription drugs. Price controls are already in effect in many countries – developed and developing ones, including India.

II. Renewed scrutiny: some approved drugs have been found to be associated with greater risk of heart attacks. Prescription drugs are always under scrutiny and can become redundant or undesirable, as research evolves.

III. To produce a blockbuster drug, a pharmaceutical company must invest large amount of money, most of which may fail to produce a product.

IV. There is the likelihood of sub-standard products being marketed by unscrupulous drug manufacturers.

V. Unethical practices by drug manufacturers to market their products is a big threat to the industry itself.

VI. Whistle blower policy offers generous incentives to employees of Pharam Company for revealing malpractices in their company. This also pose a great threat.

(d) The Pharma industry must adopt multipronged steps to exploit opportunities. It has to adopt market segmentation strategy. It is especially required for small and specialized firms in the drug industry.

  • The firms have to intelligently do product positioning.
  • Unique molecule should be developed having similar pharmaceutical effect alike of competitor product.
  • The firm have to work upon the new drugs prospects which helps to replace the revenue from drugs going up patents, especially in the new drugs which helps to cure the ailments like Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s etc.
  • On the R&D front, firms usually need to evaluate whether to perform R&D within the firm or to outsource.

The firm may adopt the following strategies : Cost Leadership Strategy: The Industry needs to control the price of prescription drugs as the price controls are already in effect in most of developed nations but it is yet to be introduced in the United States. Cost leadership is only possible till the expiration of Patent. Simultaneously, the firms need to do the extensive research on the new drugs prospects to replace the revenues from drugs going off patent.

Product Differentiation Strategy : Industry can produce the good quality and well researched drugs which helps in differentiating it with the generic products. Industry should do the intensive research on the new drugs which helps to cure the most intractable medical conditions like Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s disease, Cancer, heart disease, stroke, depression, and anxiety. Stress and AIDS.

Niche/Focus Strategy: Industry should also focus on the various studies which shows that prescribed drugs are associated with serious health diseases like FDA approved prescription drugs, known as COX-2 inhibitors, were associated with a greater risk of heart attacks. These drugs or any such drugs should be pulled from the market on immediate basis.

Question 11.
Read the following case study carefully and answer the questions given at the end:
The automobile industry in India is world’s fourth largest, with the country currently being the world’s 4th largest manufacturer of cars and 7th largest manufacturer of commercial vehicles in 2018. Indian automotive industry (including component manufacturing) is expected to reach ?16.16 – 18.18 trillion (US$ 251.4-282.8 billion) by 2026.

Two-wheelers dominate the industry and made up 81% share in the domestic automobile sales in Financial Year 2018-19. Overall, Domestic automobiles sales increased at 6.71 per cent CAGR during Financial Years between April 2012 and March 2018 with 26.27 million vehicles being sold in Financial Year 2018-19. Indian automobile industry has received Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) worth US$, 21.38 billion between April 2000 and March 2019.

Domestic automobile production increased at 6.96 per cent CAGR during the Financial Years between April 2012 and March 2019 with 30.92 million vehicles manufactured in the country in Financial Year 2018-19. In Financial Year 2018-19, commercial vehicles recorded the fastest pace of growth in domestic sales at 17.55% year-on-year, followed by three-wheelers at 10.27 per cent year-on-year. The passenger vehicle sales in India crossed the 3.37 million units in Financial Year 2018-19 and is further expected to increase 10 million units by Financial Year 2019-20.

The government aims to develop India as a global manufacturing as well as a research and development (R & D) hub. It has set up National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRIP) Centre as well as a National Automotive Board to act as facilitator between the government and the industry. Under (NATRIP), five testing and research Centre have been established in the country since 2015.

The Indian government has also set up an ambitious target of having only electric vehicles being sold in the country. Indian auto industry is expected to see 8-12% increase in its hiring during Financial Year 2019-20. The Ministry of Heavy Industries, Government of India has shortisted 11 cities in the country for introduction of electric vehicles (Evs) in their public transport systems under the FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid) and Electric Vehicles in India) scheme.

The first phase of the scheme has been extended to March 2019 while in February 2019, the Government of India approved the FAME-II scheme with a fund requirement of ?10,000 crore (US$ 1.39 billion) for Financial Years 2020-22. Number of vehicles supported under FAME scheme has increased to 192,451 units in March 2018 from 5,197 units in June 2015.

Automotive industry globally is at the cusp of a major transformation. Growing concerns for environment and energy security clubbed with rapid advancements in technologies for power train electrification, increasing digitalization, evolution of future technologies and innovative newer business Tnodels and ever-increasing consumer expectations are transforming the automotive business.

One of the key facets of such a change is the rapid development in the field of electric mobility which might transform the automotive industry like never before. With an ambition to be among the top 3 in automobile manufacturing by 2026 (as per the Automotive Mission Plan 2016-2026), Indian auto industry needs to consider an innovative and pragmatic approach to ride this transformative wave.

Today, with continued efforts of more than a decade, many major economies such as US, china, Netherlands, Norway etc. have promoted electrification of vehicles through various fiscal and non-fiscal incentives and have now gathered momentum in terms of demand, charging infrastructure and manufacturing econ-system. Such countries are perhaps more ready with pure electric vehicles to achieve their regulatory and strategic targets.

India has started late on the electrification path and needs a strong policy to catch-up and move rapidly towards the stated goal of total pure electric technology regime. Pure electric vehicle penetration currently remains quite low in India due to several reasons including significant affordability gap and low level of consumers’ acceptance (i.e. lack of demand), low level of electric vehicle manufacturing activities (i.e. lakh of supply), lack of comparable products (especially in the 2w category), non-existent public charging infrastructure etc.

Taking cognizance of the advancements in the electric vehicle technology, markets development globally and a dire need to reduce energy demand and de-carbonization of the auto sector in India NITI Ayog’s transformative mobility report of 2017 has set out a desirable and ambitious roadmap for pure electric vehicles, wherein, it is said that if India adopts a transformative solution of shared connected electric mobility, 100% public transport vehicles and 40% of private vehicles an become all electric by 2030. This vision needs to be expanded to have a future of all electric vehicles.

To make sure that this vision is realized, the industry, government and various stakeholders will need to collaborate and invest. Most importantly, the long-term plan for the country for such an endeavor will have to be implemented with full conviction, hundred percent commitment and total perseverance. As the electric vehicle technology is evolving rapidly, it could be possible that transition to hundred percent electric vehicle regime might evolve earlier than envisaged in the stated vision.

Therefore, the policy will need to be necessarily adaptive while at the same time must not bring sudden changes so as to allow outcomes in a planned manner and to ensure that the necessary transformation takes place with the minimum of disruption which may have socio-economic impact in terms of industrial growth, employment and livelihood of people in the auto-industry.

Auto-industry will invest with a proper business case even with a certain degree of risk around market readiness of electric vehicles. In not so distant, future, such investments are likely to turnaround the electric vehicle scenario in an opportunity. Such investments will run into thousands of crores for the auto-industry towards creating a sustainable market place and a robust manufacturing eco-system for electric vehicles. Already, many automobile manufacturers and auto-component manufacturers in India have launched or announced their plans to develop electric vehicles and related components. Businesses, including the public sector
companies, will be looking at setting-up the entire supply chain including cell manufacturing in the country.

It is important to understand the ‘consumers’ outlook and concerns as to why growth of market for electric vehicles has been sluggish. The single major factor for slow penetration of EVs is their high price which is around 2 to 2.5 times more than a comparable conventional vehicle.

The other important concern of EVs is their range per change. To offer a higher range, higher battery capacity in the vehicle is needed which lead to increase in the EV price proportionately and increases the price At the same time, however, EV offer a significant advantage on operating cost (running plus maintenance cost) which could be as low as 1 /4th of that of a conventional vehicle.

As compared to a personal vehicle, commercial vehicles like taxi fleets, bus fleets, 3-wheelers run 4 to 5 times longer distance per day. Therefore, for such higher mileage vehicles savings on operating cost will pay-back the initial high purchase price faster than low mileage vehicles. Attractive power tariff can play a significant role to offset capital cost of buying EV with lower operating cost at faster pace.

Most of the personal vehicle buyers consider upfront purchase price, fuel efficiency, maintenance and service cost, comfort features as the key buying criteria. However, commercial vehicle buyers consider capital expenditure (GAPEX) plus operational expenditure (OPEX) cost economics as the most important buying criteria.

It may be noted that automobiles have product development gestation of minimum of 3 years and product manufacturing life-cycle of around 8 to 10 years. Therefore, it is important to understand the level of effectiveness of each policy measure and acceptability of the policy measures from a long-term implementation perspective.

In this respect, a mix of policy measures which are equitable, implementable and can be sustained on a long-term basis with minimum fiscal burden and maximum impact and outreach. It may be noted that various policy measures have different level of impact on the market and their criticality. The policy measures which result in acceptance of electric vehicle technology are the most critical.
Questions:
(a) Explain in detail the components of SWOT analysis and also discuss in brief the SWOT analysis of present Automobile Industry?

(b) “In a country like India, electric vehicles are need of the hour”. Outline the opportunities for electric vehicles in India.

(c) What should be the policy measures and recommendations to provide impetus to the Electric Vehicle industry that would counter the impending threats.

(d) As a Company Secretary, what would be your suggestions for the Government for increasing the usage of Electric Vehicle in the Country through regulatory initiatives.
Answer:
(a) A SWOT analysis is of immense assistance for brainstorming, strategic planning and decision making. It is a very important tool for starting of new projects, ensuring their proper progress by monitoring their stages of development and implementing changes in the project, whenever required.

This tool allows multidimensional analysis of the current subject’s conditions of a business organization as well as internal and external factors to maximize the benefits, minimize negative consequences of certain actions and the most importantly to ascertain whether the objective is attainable or not. It is an effective strategic development procedure that links internal organizational strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats. The following are the components of SWOT analysis:

Building on Strengths:
SWOT analysis involves identifying the strengths of a company in comparison to its competitors. Strengths come from the knowledge, abilities, and resources available to the firm that gives it a competitive advantage in the industry. Some of the major strengths are an excellent sales staff with strong knowledge of products, robust customer relationship, innovation, etc.

Major strengths, in the present case of Automobile Industry, are as under:

  • Growth in sales of commercial vehicles, three wheelers and passenger vehicles.
  • Size of the market and forecasted growth.
  • Foreign Direct Investment in Indian Automobile Industry since April, 2000.
  • Infrastructure set-up by Government i.e. National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRIP) Centre as well as National Automotive Board.
  • Sanctioning of huge corpus of funds for quick implementation of Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid) and Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) scheme.

Minimizing Weaknesses:
Weaknesses are any limitation or deficiency in the firm’s resources and competencies that could hinder its performance. A business r eeds to identify the vulnerabilities within its organization that competitors could exploit. Common reasons of a Company’s weakness include ineffective management, paucity of resources and assets, inefficient processes, etc. Major weaknesses, in the present case of Automobile Industry, are:

  • High Price of Electric Vehicles as compared to conventional vehicles.
  • Non-existence of Public Charging Infrastructure.
  • Significant affordability gap and low level of consumers’ acceptance.
  • Low supply of electric vehicles.
  • Lack of comparable products.

Seizing Opportunities:
A business is required to determine potential opportunities to be pursued in the industry. There may be plentiful opportunities in an industry that may call for pondering over opportunities by the management of a company while evaluating their effectiveness. Potential opportunities can result from identifying an overlooked market segment, changing industry regulations, advancements in technology, improvement in buyer supplier relation, etc. Moreover, a business can exploit the weakness of its competitors by targeting their frail position to gain market share.

Major opportunities, in the present case of Automobile Industry, are:

  • Government targets for 100% public transport vehicles and 40% of private vehicles by 2030, indicate that near future is full of opportunities in Electric Vehicle (EV) sector. Government is announcing several benefits and subsidies to increase usage of EVs.
  • Setting-up of entire supply chain including cell manufacturing in the country.
  • Commercial vehicles like taxi fleets, bus fleets, 3-wheelers run 4 to 5 times longer distance per day which would lead to increase in demand for commercial vehicles and also, the less cost burden on the passenger/goods will trigger the demand for commercial vehicles.

Counteracting Threats:
Any situation that puts a company in an unfavorable position or impedes its efficient operations can be classified as a threat. To adequately identify these situations, the organization needs to evaluate the macro-environment and assess the industry’s social, economic, political, technological, natural and international segments.

For instance, changes in customer preferences or advancements in technology can render a product or service obsolete. Additionally, economic and regulatory changes or the exhaustion of natural resources can make production infeasible. Global competitors are entering into the Company’s market which tends to increase competition in domestic market.

Major threats, in the present case of Automobile Industry, are:

  • Government Policy to bring sudden change may have socio-economic impact in terms of industrial growth, employment and livelihood of people in the auto industry.
  • Many major economies like US, China, Netherlands, Norway, etc. whose EV products are well developed with a decade of continuous efforts may enter in the Indian market.
  • Low level of consumer acceptance of electric vehicles may impact the sales growth of this industry. If government makes it mandatory to purchase EV then scrapping of huge quantity of conventional vehicle will pose a challenge.
  • Slow diffusion of technology leading to lack of capacity utilization.

(b) Opportunities for electric vehicles in India are as under:
1. Government targets for 100% public transport vehicles and 40% of private vehicles by 2030 thereby giving an indication that near future is full of opportunities in EV sector.

2. Rapid urbanization has increased the demand for energy and transport infrastructure.

3. India’s commitment to address the issue of climate change necessitates the adoption of alternative fuels for environmental sustainability.

4. The shift towards renewable energy sources has led to cost reduction from better electricity generating technologies, thereby creating the possibility of clean, low-carbon and inexpensive grids.

5. Setting-up of entire supply chain including cell manufacturing in the country provides another set of opportunities. Advances in battery technology have led to higher energy densities, faster charging and reduced battery degradation from charging. Combined with the development of motors with higher rating and reliability, these improvements in battery chemistry have reduced costs and improved the performance and efficiency of electric vehicles.

6. EVs with their fully developed ecosystem of charging and maintenance are key to the concept of smart cities in India.

7. High expenses on oil import in the changing geopolitical conditions require India to ensure its energy security by moving towards alternative energy sources.

8. The existing mode of transport for last mile connectivity like auto-rickshaw and feeder buses suffers from capacity constraint. These vehicles need better management and should be considered as the first area of transformation to e – vehicles.

9. Commercial vehicles like taxi fleets, bus fleets, 3-wheelers run 4 to 5 times longer distance per day which leads to increase in commercial vehicles on road and also, the less cost burden on the passenger/goods as well.

10. To create awareness among the general public about the key benefits of electric vehicle provides a big opportunity for media and advertising agencies.

11. Automobile sector giants which have expertise can support the government initiatives and get the benefit of Government schemes like FAME, NATRIP, etc.

(c) It is very much critical to bridge the gaps for each vehicle segment as well as for different types of users. Therefore, a multi-pronged, segment and customer specific policy is needed. The policy should collectively aim at improving affordability and acceptance of electric vehicles by the following approaches mentioned below:

Bridging the viability gap:
Demand incentives or cash subsidies can at best be a short-term measure to kick- start the process. However, tax rebates and other fiscal & non-fiscal measures can be sustained over a longer term and will have a greater impact and outreach. For next few years, there will be a need for all such measures to collectively bridge the gap and make EVs a preferred choice for the consumers.

Creating infrastructure to charge electric vehicles:
Proper and suitable charging infrastructure will need to be in place. Based on use, location and density of electric vehicles, a combination of slow and fast chargers will be required. Charging infrastructure requires substantial installation, operation and maintenance costs and can also incur significant costs for land procurement (in India land is a premium).

Demand aggregation of home and workplace chargers (AC charging) can act as a lever to reduce prices as well as to have such charges installed at a mass level. Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) and other such government agencies can run a program for procurement of AC c+iargers in bulk and offer at affordable prices to individual users, RWAs and Corporate.

Encourage domestic manufacturing – Make in India:
A world class manufacturing base with a competitive strength in terms of scale, quality, cost and technology for electric vehicles and their critical components will be a must to achieve the stated goal of hundred percent electric regime. Production of Battery at lower cost and higher efficiency will make EVs cheaper as Battery constitutes one third of the cost of EVs. Without Indigenous battery production, India will be constrained to bring about EV revolution.

Public awareness:
Studies have suggested that awareness of electric vehicles is low which included familiarity with technology, lack of knowledge related to government’s schemes, lack of awareness of economic benefits, etc. For the technology to be known and its impression to get formed, a multidimensional approach is needed to create the awareness.

(d) Suggestions to the government for increasing the usage of Electric Vehicles in the country through regulatory initiatives:
1. Through support and regulations, launch home, multi-units dwelling and work place charging schemes/policies. Demand aggregation of home and workplace chargers (AC charging) can be a great lever to reduce prices as well as to have such chargers installed on a mass scale.

2. For corporates/employers, accelerated depreciation on such infrastructure can be provided as a tax relief measure. Individual users can be provided income tax relief to the extent of the cost incurred on procuring charging equipments.

3. At workplaces, employers can be incentivized to allow employees to charge at subsidized rate. Creation of charging infrastructure may be considered as part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) to encourage investments by corporates.

4. Regulations should be passed that will mandate provision of AC slow charging points in parking areas of residential buildings, workplaces spaces, shopping malls, commercial complex, etc. Considering “Smart Cities” to have charging infrastructure as an integrated component of development.

5. Electricity related Acts need to be amended to allow resale of electricity by third party for facilitating setting-up of charging infrastructure.

6. Regulations need to be put in place to ensure availability of stable and good quality power for EV charging.

7. Different segment of vehicles (2W, 3W, PVs, CVs) may require different type of charging standard (& connector), however, the charging infrastructure, at-least at public places, should be common to the extent possible to reduce the infrastructure cost.

8. Energy companies (like IOCL, HPCL, IGL, NTPC, BHEL, GAIL, etc.) may invest in providing a charging network, specially the fast charging stations at inter-city routes like State and national highways. This could also be based on renewable electricity sources.

Multidisciplinary Case Studies CS Professional Notes