Category: Class 10

Print Culture and Modern World Class 10 Notes Social Science History Chapter 7 SST Pdf free download is part of Class 10 Social Science Notes for Quick Revision. Here we have given Print Culture and Modern World Class 10 History Chapter 7 Notes. According to new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions For Class 10 Social Science with Answers Carries 20 Marks. https://meritbatch.com/cbse-class-10-social-sciences-print-culture-and-modern-world-notes/

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Board	CBSE
Textbook	NCERT
Class	Class 10
Subject	Social Science Notes
Chapter	History Chapter 7
Chapter Name	Print Culture and Modern World
Category	CBSE Revision Notes

Print Culture and Modern World Class 10 Notes Social Science History Chapter 7

Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 Notes
Printing in the early days:
Invention of Printing Press had a very lasting effect on the social and cultural life of man. Print initially developed in East Asia and later developed through Europe and India. Before the era of print or invention of Printing Press, writing of books was purely manual affair. Books were handwritten and even illustrated. Calligraphy developed as an art during that era. Calligraphy means the art of beautiful and stylish writing.

Print Culture And The Modern World Notes
Printed matter Chinese tradition.
Chinese were the first to have a system of recruitment of civil service personal through open examination. Printing remained confined to examination materials till around the 16th century. Trade information was circulated among the traders through printed materials. By 19th century mechanical printing press made its appearance in China.

The First Printing Press was invented in 1430s by Johann Gutenberg. Johann Gutenberg’s Bible was the most beautiful books ever printed. Germany took the lead in revolutionizing printing all over Europe.

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Notes
Features of handwritten manuscripts:

• They were copied on palm leaves or on handmade papers. Pages were beautifully illustrated.
• They were pressed between wooden covers or sewn together to ensure preservation.
• Manuscripts were available in vernacular languages. They were highly expensive and fragile. They could not be read easily as script was written in different styles. They were not widely used in everyday life.

Class 10th History Chapter 7 Notes
Woodblock method became popular in Europe:
Production of handwritten manuscripts could not meet the ever increasing demand for books. Copying was an expensive, laborious and time consuming business. The manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle and could not be carried around or read easily. By the early 15th century, woodblocks started being widely used in Europe to print textiles, playing cards and religious pictures with simple, brief texts.

Class 10 History Print Culture And Modern World Notes
Visual culture:
In the end of 19th century a new visual culture had started. With the increasing number of printing presses visual images could be easily reproduced in multiple copies. Painters like Raja Ravi Verma produced images for mass circulation. Cheap prints and calendars were brought even by the poor to decorate the walls of their houses.

Print Culture And Modern World
Print popularized the ideas of the idea of the enlightenment thinkers:

• Collectively the writings of thinkers provided a critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism.
• Scholars and thinkers argued for the rule of reason rather than custom and demanded that everything to be judged through the application of reason and rationality.
• They attacked the sacred authority of the church and the despotic power of the state thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on tradition.
• The writing of Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely and those who read these books saw the world through new eyes, eyes that were questioning critical and rational

Print Culture And Modern World Notes
Development of reading mania in Europe:
A new forms of popular literature appeared to target new readers. There were ritual calendars along with ballads and folk tales. In England penny chapbooks were carried by petty peddlers known as chapmen and sold for a penny. In France these low priced books were called Bibliotheque Bleue as they were bound in cheap blue covers. Periodical presses developed to combine information on current affairs with entertainment. The idea of scientists and scholars had now become more accessible to the common people.

Print Culture And The Modern World
Impact of print on Indian women:
Writers started writing about the lives of women and this increased the number of women readers. Women writers began to write their own autobiographies. They highlighted the condition of women, their ignorance and how they were forced to do hard domestic labor. A large section of Hindu writing was devoted to the education of women. In the early 20th century the journals written by women became very popular in which women’s education, widowhood, widow remarriage were discussed.

Print culture created the conditions within which the French Revolution:
The print popularized the ideas of the enlightened thinkers who attacked the authority of the church and the despotic power of the state. The print created a new culture of dialogue and debate and the public become aware of reasoning. They recognized the need to question the existing ideas and beliefs. The literature of 1780s mocked the royalty and criticized their morality and the existing social order.

India and Print Culture:
Print culture came to India with the coming of Portuguese missionaries. Konkani was the first Indian language in which books were printed. The first Tamil book printed was printed in 1579 and Malayalam book in 1713. English printing in India commenced with the publication of Bengal Gazette in 1780. Printed tracts played a very significant role in the spread of social reform movement in India.

The Vernacular Press Act:

• In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed by the British Government to impose restrictions on vernacular press, which was responsible for spreading nationalist ideas.
• The government started to keep a regular track of the vernacular newspapers and had extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.
• When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

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S Chand Biology Class 10 Solutions Model Test Paper 1

Question 1.
From amongst the metals sodium, calcium, aluminium, copper and magnesium, name the metal.
(a) which reacts with water only on boiling, and
(b) another which does not react even with steam.
Answer:
When metals reacts with water(Hot, cold or steam), they displace hydrogen from the water and Hydrogen gas is released. Metals react with water according to their reactivities. Only those metals react with water, which are above hydrogen in the reactivity series.
(a) Out of given metals, only magnesium reacts with hot boling water and forms magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
(b) Out of all the given metals only copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so it cannot displace hydrogen from the water even if the temperature is so high. That’s why copper does not react even with the steam.

Question 2.
To an astronaut, why does the sky appear dark instead of blue?
Answer:
In the space, there is no atmosphere. So, the sunlight does not scatter in the space. Hence, an astronaut sees the dark sky.

Question 3.
Explain with the help of a diagram, why a pencil partly immersed in water appears to be bent at the water surface.
Answer:

Refractive of water is more than the air, so the speed of the light decreases when it travels from the air into the water. That’s why when light rays travel into the water, they bend towards the normal. Hence, the part of the pencil dipped inside water appears to be bent at the water surface, as shown in the above figure.

Question 4.
What is an oxidation reaction? Identify in the following reaction (a) the substance oxidized, and (b) the substance reduced.
ZnO + C → Zn + CO
Answer:
The reaction which involves gain of oxygen, loss of hydrogen or loss of electrons is defined as the oxidation reaction.

(a) In the given reaction, C is gaining oxygen, so it is oxidized.
(b) Whereas zinc (Zn) is losing oxygen, so it is reduced.

Question 5.
What is ‘reproduction’? Mention the importance of DNA copying in reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction is the process by which an organism gives rise to a new organism/offspring.
DNA copying is more commonly known as DNA replication. It is an important process which ensures that equal amount of DNA (genetic material) is passed on to the new cell as the parent cell multiplies.

Question 6.
What physical and chemical properties of elements were used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table? List two observations which posed a challenge to Mendeleev’s Periodic Law.
Answer:
Physical and chemical properties used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table.

1. Physical properties: Mendeleev arranged the periodic table in the increasing order of the atomic masses of the elements.
2. Chemical properties: Mendeleev distributed the elements into groups on the basis of formation of hydrides and oxides.

Challenges to Mendeleev’s periodic law.

• Position of the isotopes: Isotopes have different masses, so they must be assigned separate positions in the periodic table.
• Different groups of similar elements: Some chemically similar elements are placed in different groups, while some chemically different elements are placed in the same group.

Question 7.
(a) Show the formation of NaCl from sodium and chlorine atoms by the transfer of electron(s).
(b) Why has sodium chloride a high melting point?
(c) Name the anode and the cathode used in the electrolytic refining of impure copper metal.
Answer:
(a) Formation of sodium chloride by electron transfer.
Electronic arrangement of sodium and chlorine.

Formation of ionic bond.

(b) Sodium chloride has a high melting point because of strong lattice structure formed due to the ionic bond. Interatomic attractive forces hold the two elements tightly and increase their boiling point.
(c) In the electrolytic refining of impure copper metal, the impure copper plates act as the anode while a thin sheet of pure copper act as the cathode.

Question 8.
(a) What happens chemically when quicklime is added to water? Write chemical equation of the reaction involved.
(b) What is ‘Baking Powder’? How does it make the cake soft and spongy?
Answer:
(a) When quicklime or calcium oxide(CaO) is added to water then it reacts vigorously with water and forms slaked lime or calcium hydroxide(Ca(OH)₂). This reaction is highly exothermic and a large amount of heat is released in the process. The chemical reaction involved is as follows.
CaO(s)+H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(aq)CaO(s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(aq)

(b) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda(sodium hydrogen carbonate) and a solid, edible acid such as tartaric acid or citric acid. When baking powder is mixed with water, the sodium bicarbonate reacts with tartaric acid to produce carbon dioxide gas. The carbon dioxide gas gets trapped in the wet dough made for baking a cake or bread and then bubbles out slowly. Which makes the cake or bread soft and spongy.

Question 9.
(a) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement in relation to speed of light?
(b) Describe an activity to draw a magnetic field line outside a bar magnet from one pole to another pole.
Answer:
(a) Refractive index of a medium is the measure of the speed of light in that, medium with respect to the vacuum. It is defined as the ratio of the speed of the light in a vacuum to the speed of the light in the given medium. So, the term “The refractive index of diamond is 2.42” means that the speed of light in diamond is 12.4212.42 times the speed of the light in vacuum.

(b) We can put a magnetic compass nearby a bar magnet. The needle of the compass will show deflection in the direction of magnetic field lines. If we move the compass around the magnet, we can get the exact path of magnetic field lines around the bar magnet.

Question 10.
For the circuit shown in the diagram given below.

Calculate.
(a) the value of current through each resistor.
(b) the total current in the circuit.
(c) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
Answer:
(a) All the resistors are connected in parallel. They are getting an equal voltage across their ends, which is equal to the voltage of the battery.
Hence, the current flowing through each resistor \(\frac { { Voltageacrossthebattery } }{ { Resistanceoftheresistor } } \)
The voltage across the battery = 6 V
Current flowing through 5-ohm resistor = \(\frac{6 \mathrm{V}}{5 \Omega}\) = 1.2 A
Current flowing through 10-ohm resistor = \(\frac{6 \mathrm{V}}{10 \Omega}\) = 0.6 A
Current flowing through 30-ohm resistor = \(\frac{6 \mathrm{V}}{30 \Omega}\) = 0.2 A

(b) The total current in the circuit = Sum of the current through all the resistors = 1.2 A + 0.6 A + 0.2 A = 2 A

(c) The total resistance of the circuit = \(\frac{\text { Total voltage }}{\text { Total current }}=\frac{6 \mathrm{V}}{2 \mathrm{A}}=3 \Omega\)

Question 11.
(a) Draw a diagram to show the formation of image of a distant object by a myopic eye. How can such an eye defect by remedied?
(b) State two reasons due to which this eye defect may be caused.
(c) A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond a distance of 1.5 m. What would be the power of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision?
Answer:
(a) A diagram to show the formation of an image of a distant object by a myopic eye is shown below.

The defect of a myopic eye can be corrected by using a concave lens. A concave lens helps in diverging the rays to form an image on the retina of the eye.

(b) Causes of myopia:
(i) Elongation of the eyeball
(ii) Decrease in the focal length of the eye lens.

(c) As it is a case of myopia one has to use a concave lens.
The far point is 1.5 m, it means that the image should be formed at 150 cm or before on the same side as the object. The distance of the object is taken as infinite, as the problem is nearsightedness.
Now, u = ∞, v = –150 cm and f = ?
Using the lens formula, \(\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{f}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{-150}-\frac{1}{\infty}=\frac{1}{f}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{-150}\)
⇒ f = -150 cm
The maximum focal length to be used = −150 cm
Hence, the power of the lens required P = \(\frac{1}{f(\text { in meter })}=\frac{1}{1.5 \mathrm{m}}\) = 0.6D
Therefore, a concave lens with power 0.67 D or more is required for the correction in vision.

Question 12.
(a) Distinguish between the terms ‘overloading’ and ‘short-circuiting’ as used in domestic circuits.
(b) Why are the coils of electric toasters made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Answer:
(a) Overloading: When too many electrical appliances of high power voltage are switched on at the same time, a large current from the circuit is drawn. This is called overloading of the circuit. Overloading also occurs due to accidental hike in the supply voltage.
Shortcircuiting: When the live wire and neutral wire come into direct contact, a large amount of current flows through the circuit due to very small resistance, this is called short circuiting. The heat produced during short-circuiting is so high that it may cause a fire.

(b) The coil of the electric toaster is made up of an alloy because alloys have better properties than the pure metals. Such as,

1. They have a high melting point. This is necessary for the electric toaster as it is a heating device.
2. More resistant to oxidation. This is another requirement in a toaster.
3. Mechanically stronger than that of pure metal.

Question 13.
“Damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern”. Justify this statement. Suggest any two steps to limit this damage.
Answer:
“Damage to the ozone is a cause of concern”; this is because ozone depletion has created a hole in the ozone layer over the Arctic region.
Damage in the ozone layer allows the harmful UV rays to reach the earth surface. UV rays can cause –

• skin cancer, ageing and corneal cataracts in human beings
• death of many phytoplanktons leading to the increase in the rate of global warming
• increase in the global warming rate, in turn, leads to the melting of Arctic ice cap which may further result in the increase in sea level

Steps which can limit the damage to the ozone layer are –

• Not buying products in aerosol cans and maintaining air-conditioning filters and units. In order to halt the depletion of the ozone layer, countries around the world have banned the use of chlorofluorocarbons and other ozone-depleting substances. These compounds produce chlorine and bromine atoms which reach the atmosphere react with ozone, thus destroying it.
• By minimising the use of vehicles to limit the emission of harmful gases which cause damage to the ozone layer.

Question 14.
Define ‘hormones’. Name the hormone secreted by thyroid. Write its function. Why is the use of iodised salt advised to us?
Answer:
Hormones are intercellular chemical messengers secreted by specific endocrine glands of the body. They travel throughout the body to reach the target organs or cells and initiate a process. Chemically, hormones are proteins. Once the hormone is secreted from the gland, it is directly poured into the blood stream, which transports it to the site of action. They maintain the balance of biological activities in the body.

The hormone secreted by thyroid gland is thyroxine hormone. It regulates carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in the body.

It is advised to use iodised salt because iodine is required for the synthesis of thyroxine hormone. Deficiency of iodine would result in deficiency of thyroxine hormone and in turn lead to a disease called goitre.

Question 15.
(a) State any one difference between pollination and fertilization.
(b) A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits – blood group A or O is dominant? Why?
Answer:
(a)

Pollination	Fertilisation
Pollination is the process of transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of the same flower or another flower.	Fertilisation is the process of fusion of male and female gametes.

(b) No. The information provided above is not enough to tell us whether the trait of blood group A or O is dominant. Either of the two can be possible because each individual carries two alleles. Recessive traits can occur only when the two similar alleles are present.

There are two possibilities –
Possibility I – Blood group A is dominant and blood group O is recessive
In this case, the daughter can have either blood group A or O, if the mother and father have one allele of A and other of O blood group.

Possibility II – Blood group O is dominant and blood group A is recessive
In this case, the daughter can have blood group O, if the father carries both the alleles of blood group A while the mother has either both the alleles of blood group O or one of A blood group and other of O blood group.

Question 16.
(a) Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?
(b) List any two reasons for carbon forming a very large number of compounds.
(c) An organic acid ‘X’ is a liquid which often freezes during winter time in cold countries, has the molecular formula C₂H₄O₂. On warming it with ethanol in the presence of a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid, a compound ‘Y’ with a sweet smell is formed.
(i) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(ii) Write a chemical equation for the reaction involved.
Answer:
(a) The electronic configuration of carbon is 2, 4. The electron present in its outer most shell is 4 but for the stability, the number of electrons has to be 8. So, carbon can neither lose 4 electrons nor gain 4 electrons to complete its octet. For losing or gaining electrons from the outer-most shell, we require an enormous amount of heat/energy, which is not possible in nature. Hence, the four electrons present in the outer-most shell will try to share with other four electrons in order to fulfill their octet. That is why it forms covalent bonds.

(b) Two of the main reasons because of which carbon forms a large number of organic compounds are.
1. Tetravalent nature of carbon.
2. Greater C-C bond strength.

(c) Organic compound “X” freezes in colder countries must be a carboxylic acid containing molecule. So, the molecular formula will be CH3COOH.
When a carboxylic acid is treated with alcohol in the presence of sulphuric acid, it gives a sweet-smelling compound ester. So, when ethanoic acid treated with ethanol, it will give ethyl ethanoate.
Hence, X will be ethanoic acid and Y will be ethyl ethanoate which is a sweet smelling compound.

(ii) The reaction involved is as follows.

Question 17.
(a) What is a homologous series of compounds? List any two characteristics of a homologous series.
(b) (i) What would be observed on adding a 5% alkaline potassium permanganate solution drop by drop to some warm ethanol in a test tube?
(ii) Write the name of the compound formed during the chemical reaction.
(c) How would you distinguish experimentally between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid on the basis of a chemical property?
Answer:
(a) A homologous series is a series of organic compounds, which differ by a same repeating unit and have similar chemical properties due to the presence of the same functional group.
Characteristics of homologous series.
(i) Two consecutive members of a homologous series differ by a (-CH₂) unit and a mass of 14 amu.
(ii) Homologs of a series have similar chemical properties.

(b) (i) When 5% alkaline potassium permanganate is added to warm ethanol, ethanol gets oxidize to form ethanoic acid.

(ii) The compound formed during the reaction is ethanoic acid.

(c) Carboxylic acids react with sodium bicarbonate to produce brisk effervescence due to the release of carbon dioxide gas, whereas alcohols do not react with sodium bicarbonate.

Question 18.
(a) What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 volt? Name a device that helps to measure the potential difference across a conductor.
(b)Why does the connecting cord of an electric heater not glow hot while the heating element does?
(c) Electrical resistivities of some substances at 20°C are given below.
Silver 1.60 × 10^-8 Ωm
Copper 1.62 × 10^-8 Ωm
Tungsten 5.20 × 10^-8 Ωm
Iron 10.0 × 10^-8 Ωm
Mercury 94.0 × 10^-8 Ωm
Nichrome 100 × 10^-6 Ωm
Answer the following Qs in relation to them.
(i) Among silver and copper, which one is a better conductor? Why?
(ii) Which material would you advise to be used in electrical heating devices? Why?
Answer:
(a) It means that the 1 joule of energy is used up in transferring a charge of 1-coulomb between two points. A voltmeter is used to measure the potential difference across a conductor and it is always connected in parallel.

(b) The heating element of the heater is made up of an alloy which has very high resistance. So, when current flows through the heating element, it becomes too hot and glows red due to the heating effect of current. But the resistance of cord which is usually of copper or aluminium is very low so it does not glow.

(c) The conductivity of a material is indirectly proportional to its resistivity.
(i) Out of silver and copper, silver has less resistivity, that’s why it is a good conductor as compared to copper.
(ii) The material used in electrical heating devices must have high resistance. So, a material with high resistivity should be used from the table. Nichrome has the highest resistivity, it would have the highest resistance among all the given materials. Hence, it should be used for electrical heating devices.

Question 19.
(a) Name an instrument that measures electric current in a circuit. Define the unit of electric current.
(b) What do the following symbols mean in circuit diagrams?
(i)

(ii)

(c) An electric circuit consisting of a 0.5 m long nichrome wire XY, an ammeter, a voltmeter, four cells of 1.5 V each and a plug key was set up.
(i) Draw a diagram of this electric circuit to study the relation between the potential difference maintained between the points ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and the electric current flowing through XY.
(ii) Following graph was plotted between V and I values.

What would be the values of \(\frac{V}{I}\) ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V, 1.2 V and 1.6 V, respectively? What conclusion do you draw from these values?
Answer:
(a) An ammeter is used to measure the current in a circuit. Unit of electric current is ampere.
(b) (i) Variable resistance or Rheostat
(ii) A closed switch
(c) (i)

(ii) \(\frac{V}{I}\) for 0.8 V, 1.2 V and 1.6 V is the same as the graph between the voltage and the current is a straight line. So, the \(\frac{V}{I}\) ratio is constant for all the values of current and voltage.

Question 20.
(a) Draw a diagram depicting Human Alimentary Canal and label on it Gall Bladder, Liver and Pancreas.
(b) State the roles of Liver and Pancreas.
(c) Name the organ which performs the following functions in humAnswer:
(i) Absorption of digested food.
(ii) Absorption of water.
Answer:
(a)

(b) (i) Liver −It is the largest gland in the digestive system. It secretes bile, which helps in the digestion of fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
(ii) Pancreas − It secretes enzymes, such as trypsin and lipase for the digestion of proteins and fats respectively.

(c) (i) Absorption of digested food – small intestine
(ii) Absorption of water – large intestine

Question 21.
(a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart and label on it Aorta, Right Ventricle and Pulmonary Vein.
(b) State the functions of the following components of transport system.
(i) Blood
(ii) Lymph
Answer:
(a)

(b) (i) Functions of blood –

• transports hormones and nutrients throughout the body
• transports oxygen to cells and removes carbon dioxide
• maintains the body temperature

(ii) Functions of lymph –

• contains lymphocytes that are involved in immune response
• carries nutrients, hormones, etc.
• absorbs fats in lacteals (found in intestinal villi)

Question 22.
A metal is treated with dilute sulphuric acid. The gas evolved is collected by the method shown in the figure. Answer the following.

(a) Name the gas.
(b) Name the method of collection of the gas.
(c) Is the gas soluble or insoluble in water?
(d) Is the gas lighter or heavier than air?
Answer:
When a metal(M) is treated with dilute sulphuric acid, metal will displace hydrogen and form metal sulphate, along with colourless and odourless hydrogen gas. Hydrogen gas produced in the reaction will evolve with bubbles.
\(\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4} \rightarrow \mathrm{MSO}_{4}+\mathrm{H}_{2}\)
(a) Hydrogen gas will evolve.
(b) The method of collection of the gas shown in the figure is known as “downward displacement of water”.
(c) Hydrogen gas is insoluble in water.
(d) Hydrogen gas is lighter than air.

Question 23.
Ashwini has been given four test-tubes containing the following.
(a) Universal indicator
(b) Distilled water
(c) Sodium hydrogencarbonate
(d) Phenolphthalein
What will be observed by Ashwini when he adds a few drops of acetic acid to each test-tube, one by one?
Answer:
(a) When Ashwini adds acetic acid in the universal indicator, he will observe a colour either orange or yellow, depending upon the concentration of acetic acid. Because acetic acid is a weak acid, having a pH range of 3-6, so it will change the colour of universal indicator to orange or yellow.

(b) When Ashwini adds acetic acid in distilled water, he will observe acid and water mix uniformly.

(c) When Ashwini adds acetic acid in the sodium hydrogen carbonate, he will observe effervescence due to the formation of carbon dioxide.
\(\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}+\mathrm{NaHCO}_{3} \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOONa}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\)

(d) When Ashwini adds acetic acid in the phenolphthalein, he will observe the pink colour of phenolphthalein changes to colourless, because phenolphthalein turns colourless in acids.

Question 24.
A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colors marked 1 to 7 as shown in the diagram.

Which two positions correspond closely to the color of.
(a) a solution of potassium permanganate?
(b) ‘danger’ or stop signal lights?
Answer:
White light gets split up into seven colors, which are as follows.

(7) Violet (6) Indigo (5) Blue (4) Green (3) Yellow (2) Orange (1) Red

(a) Potassium permanganate is an odorless dark purple colored solid. Hence, color position 7 corresponds to potassium permanganate closely.
(b) The red color is a mark of danger or symbol for danger in general. Hence, color position 1 suits closely for danger signal.

Question 25.
Rajiv connected two exactly similar heating elements (or resistances) across a mains supply in two different ways to heat some water.
(a) Is more heat obtained when the heating elements are connected in series or when they are connected in parallel?
(b) Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
(a) More heat will be obtained when the heating elements are connected in parallel.
(b) Heat energy produced, H = I² R t

In the parallel combination of resistances, current increases due to a decrease in effective resistance.
As the heat energy produced is directly proportional to the square of the current, it can be concluded that the parallel combination gives more heat energy.

Question 26.
A student observed a permanent slide showing asexual reproduction in yeast.
(a) Draw diagrams of the observations the student must have made from the slide.
(b) Name the process of asexual reproduction of yeast.
Answer:
(a)

(b) The process of asexual reproduction in yeast is called budding.

Question 27.
Given below is a sketch of a leaf partially covered with black paper and which is to be used in the experiment to show that light is compulsory for the process of photosynthesis.

(a) At the end of the experiment, which of the leaf part/leaf parts labelled I, II and III will become blue-black when dipped in iodine solution?
(b) Which substance will be missing in the leaf part/leaf parts which will not become blue-black when dipped in iodine solution?
Answer:
(a) Parts I and III will appear blue black in colour which indicates the presence of starch in these regions.
(b) Part II will not appear blue black in colour because starch will be missing from that part. The black paper in region II will prevent the sunlight from reaching that region, as a result of which no starch synthesis would occur.

Lakhmir Singh Biology Class 10 Solutions

Students can easily access the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit Abhyasvan Bhav Sanskrit Class 10 Solutions Chapter 2 पत्रलेखनम् Questions and Answers which include deep explanations provided by our experts.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Also Read: Iterate over string c++ – C++ iterate over set – Different Ways to Iterate Over a Set in C++

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Economics Chapter 1 Development

Page 16
Q1. Development of a country can generally be determined by
(i) its per capita income
(ii) its average literacy level
(iii) health status of its people
(iv) all the above
Answer:
(iv) all the above

Q2. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India?
(i) Bangladesh
(ii) Sri Lanka
(iii) Nepal
(iv) Pakistan
Answer:
(ii) Sri Lanka

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Q3. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is Rs 5000. If the income of three families is Rs 4000, Rs 7000 and Rs 3000 respectively, what is the income of the fourth family?
(i) Rs 7500
(ii) Rs 3000
(iii) Rs 2000
(iv) Rs 6000
Answer:
(iii) Rs 6000

Q4. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries? What are the limitations of this criterion, if any?

(1)

• In the World Development Report, 2006, the World Bank has used the criterion of average income or per capita income in classifying different countries.
• The average income or the per capita income is the total income of the country divided by its population.

(2) According to the WDR 2006, countries are classified as mentioned below :

• Rich countries : Countries with per capital income of? 4,53,000 per annum and above in 2004 are called rich countries
• Low-income countries : Countries with per capital income of? 37,000 or less are called low-income countries.
• India comes in the category of low-income countries because its per capital income in 2004 was just ? 28,000 per annum.
• Rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries are generally called developed countries.

(3) Limitations of the criterion are as mentioned below :

1. It does not tell us how this income is distributed among people. A country may have more equitable distribution. People may be neither very rich nor extremely poor.
2. In another country with same average income, one person may be extremely rich while others may be very poor. So, the method of average income does not give correct picture of a country.
3.  This system hides disparities among people.

Q5. In what respects is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development different from the one used by the World Bank?

1. The criterion used by World Bank: The average income, i.e. per capita income is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries.
   According to the World Development Report 2006, published by the World Bank, countries with per capita income of $10066 per annum and above in 2004 are called rich or developed countries. On the other hand, countries with per capita income of $825 or less are called low-income countries.
2. The UNDP compares countries based on HDI e., on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capital income or average income.
3. Human Development Index used by UNDP is better because it is a wider indicator in which besides per capital income, health and education are also included.

Q6. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your own examples related to the development.

(1) We use averages for comparison between two countries, two persons or any two or more things.
(2) There are the following limitations to the use of averages :

• Averages do not tell us about similarities or differences between two countries or persons or things.
• By averages only one aspect income, size etc. in case of country, marks or participation in sports activities etc. in case of student, can be compared. All aspects or achievements are not compared.
• As only one aspect is compared, it does not give true picture of different countries, persons or things. For example, students differ in height, health, talents and interests. The healthiest student may not be the most intelligent or topper in studies. Similar is the case in respect of countries or states. A country may be ahead than the other country in one field but may lag behind in the other field. So averages do not give the correct picture.

Q7. Kerala, with lower per capita income, has a better human development ranking than Punjab. Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used to compare states. Do you agree? Discuss.

It is correct to say that per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used to compare states due to reasons as mentioned below :

• Money cannot buy all the goods and services that you need to live well. Income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able to use.
• There cannot be a pollution-free environment in a colony of rich people unless the whole community takes preventive steps.
• Sometimes, it is better to have collective services like security for the whole locality than to have individual security for one’s own house. Again a school may be opened for the children of the whole community than for one or two children of a rich person.
• Kerala has a better human development ranking than Punjab.
• In Kerala, Infant Mortality Rate is 11 in comparison to 49 in Punjab, where the per capita income is much more than Kerala. It is ? 26000 whereas in Kerala it is ? 22800. It is because Kerala has adequate basic health and educational facilities.
• Similarly in some states, the Public Distribution System (PDS) functions well and people get ration regularly whereas in some states ration shops do not function properly. At such places, people face a shortage of grains that affect their health. Thus it is clear that the states should not be compared on the basis of per capita income – alone.

Q8. Find out the present sources of energy that are used by the people in India. What could be the other possibilities fifty years from now?
The present sources of energy that are used by the people of India are electricity, coal, crude oil, cowdung and solar energy. Other possibilities fifty years from now, could include ethanol, bio-diesel, nuclear energy and better utilization of wind energy, especially with the imminent danger of oil resources running out.

Q9. Why is the issue of sustainability is important for development?

Sustainable development means that development should meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs. However, since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that the present type and levels of development are not sustainable. The issue of sustainable development has emerged from rapid industrialization of the world in the past century. It is felt that economic growth and industrialization have led to the reckless exploitation of natural resources. On the other hand, the stock of natural resources are limited. So, the growth of all countries in the future is likely to be endangered if the limited resources are completely exhausted.

Under these circumstances, the issue of sustainability has become important for development. A number of resources are being overused. For example, groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country i.e., Punjab, Haryana and western U.P. The water level has declined over 4 meters. As a result of it if we go on overusing there will be a water crisis in future. Similarly, if non-renewable resources are used recklessly these will also be exhausted.

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Q10. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the need of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of even one person.” How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development? Discuss.
This statement is relevant to the discussion of development since both resources and development go hand in hand. As the statement claims, our earth has enough resources – renewable and non-renewable to satisfy everyone’s need if we use them in an economic manner. For the sustainability of development, the consumption and maintenance of resources is also crucial. We have to use the resources keeping our environment protected and clear so that there is a balance between the development and use of our resources. As otherwise after a certain point of time in future the development will be stagnated.

Q11. List a few examples of environmental degradation that you may have observed around you.
Some of the examples of environmental degradation in the area are as follows :

1.  Air pollution has increased due to the emission of smoke from factories and vehicles.
2. There is an increase in water pollution due to shops and small factories in residential areas.
3. There is noise pollution due to the use of loudspeakers at night and blowing of horns unnecessarily on the roads by different vehicles.
4. People throw garbage wherever they want. Perhaps there is no provision for dustbins in the streets or roadsides.
5. Sometimes people urinate in the open on the roadside due to a lack of public conveniences.

Multiple Choice Questions

Previous Years’ Questions
1. Which one of the following countries has the largest size of the illiterate population in the age group of 15 + in the world? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) India
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Myanmar
(d) Bangladesh

2. Development of a country can generally be determined by its: [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) per capita income
(b) average.literacy Ieve4
(c) health status of its people
(d) none of these

3. We can obtain per capita income of a country by calculating: [CBSE (CCE) 2010]
(a) the total income of a person
(b) by dividing the national income by the total population of a country
(c) the total value of all goods and services
(d) the total exports of the country

4. Kerala has low infant Mortality Rate because: [CBSE (CCE) 2010]
(a) it has good climatic condition
(b) it has adequate infrastructure
(c) it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
(d) it has poor net attendance ratio

NCERT Questions
5. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan

6. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is ₹ 5000. If the income of three families is ₹ 4000, ₹ 7000 and ₹ 3000 respectively, what is the income of the fourth family?
(a) ₹ 7,500
(b) ₹ 3,000
(c) ₹ 2,000
(d) ₹ 6,000

Additional Questions
7. According to the World Development Report 2004, low-income countries are those which have per capita income of
(a) $ 900 or less.
(b) $ 1000 or less
(c) $ 825 or less
(d) $ 500 or less

8. Identify which of the following cannot be a development goal for a landless rural labourer?
(a) More days of work
(b) Better wages
(c) Quality education for children
(d) Foreign tours

9. Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like
(a) equal treatment
(b) freedom
(c) security
(d) all of them

10. Different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s development. A fair and just path for all should be achieved. Interpret the concept being discussed here.
(a) Social development
(b) Cultural development
(c) National development
(d) Economic development

11. List how many tonnes of liquid toxic wastes a vessel dumped in a city called Abidjan in Ivory Coast, a country in Africa?
(a) 500 tonnes
(b) 600 tonnes
(c) 900 tonnes
(d) 1000 tonnes

12. Countries with higher income are ………….. than others with less income.
(a) Less developed
(b) More developed
(c) Less stronger
(d) More organised

13. Income of the country divided by its total population is known as
(a) Capital Income
(b) National Income
(c) Per capita income
(d) GDP

14. In the World Development Report 2006, Rich Countries were those which in 2004 had the per capita income of
(a) ₹ 2,53,000 per annum & above
(b) ₹ 14,50,000 per annum & above
(c) ₹ 4,53,000 per annum & above
(d) ₹ 13,53,000 per annum & above

15. In the World Development Report 2006, low-income countries were those which in 2004 had the per capita income of
(a) ₹ 37,000 or less
(b) ₹ 47,000 or less
(c) ₹ 50,000 or less
(d) ₹ 39,000 or less

16. In 2004, India came in the category of
(a) Rich countries
(b) Low-income countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Medium income countries

17. Comparing all states, identify the state which had the highest per capita income in 2002 – 2003.
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Delhi
(d) Bihar

18. Which state had the least per capita income in 2002-03?
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Delhi

19. Number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year is known as
(a) Death rate
(b) Survival rate
(c) Infant mortality rate
(d) Life death rate

20. Proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group is called as
(a) Knowledge rate
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Attendance rate
(d) Excellence Rate

21. Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) 6 – 10
(b) 7 – 11
(c) 5 – 9
(d) 10 – 15

22. In 2003, Infant Mortality Rate in Kerala was
(a) 49
(b) 11
(c) 60
(d) 22

23. For the year 1995 – 96, the Net Attendance Ratio for class I to V in Bihar was
(a) 81
(b) 51
(c) 41
(d) 31

24. Literacy rate for the rural male population of Uttar Pradesh is
(a) 62 %
(b) 59 %
(c) 52 %
(d) 42 %

25. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), the weight of the person is divided by the
(a) Square of the weight
(b) Square of the height
(c) Square root of the height
(d) Square of the sum of height and weight

26. If BMI is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered
(a) overweight
(b) long height
(c) under nourished
(d) short height

27. Report published by UNDP which compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income is
(a) Human Education Report
(b) Human Development Report
(c) Human Population Report
(d) Human Quality Report

28. HDI Rank of India in the world out of 177 countries in 2004 was
(a) 93
(b) 126
(c) 130
(d) 125

29. India’s per capita income in US $ is …………… Sri Lanka (in 2004)
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
(d) less than or equal to

30. Nepal has nearly ……………. the per capita income of India (in 2004)
(a) one – fourth
(b) three – fourth
(c) equal
(d) half

31. What proportion of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves?
(a) One – Fourth
(b) One-Tenth
(c) One – Third
(d) half

32. Resources which will get exhausted after years of use is called ……………
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non – durable resources
(c) Non – renewable resources
(d) Competing resources

ANSWERS

 

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Economics: Understanding Economic Development – II

• Chapter 1 Understanding Economic Development
• Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy
• Chapter 3 Money and Credit
• Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy
• Chapter 5 Consumer Rights