NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Industries

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Industries

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Industries

Also Read: Textiles Engineering Notes

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(i) What is meant by the term ‘industry’?
(ii) Which are the main factors which influence the location of an industry?
(iii) Which industry is often referred to as the backbone of the modern industry and why?
(iv) Why cotton textile industry rapidly expanded in Mumbai?
(v) What are the similarities between the information, the technology industry in Bangalore and California?
Answer:
(i) Industry refers to economic activity that is concerned with the production of goods, extraction of minerals, or provision of services.

(ii) The location of industries is affected by the availability of raw material, land, water, labour, power, capital, transport, and market.

(iii) Ships, trains, trucks, and automobiles are made largely of steel. From safety pins to big ships are made from steel.

  • Oil wells are drilled with steel machinery.
  • Steel pipelines transport oil.
  • Minerals are mined with steel equipment.
  • Farm machines are mostly made of steel.
  • Large buildings have steel framework.

(iv) Cotton textile industry expanded rapidly in Mumbai initially because of the presence of a lot of favorable conditions. Warm and moist climate, a port situated nearby to import machinery, easy availability of raw material, and skilled labour were factors behind this.

(v) Similarities between the information technology industry in Bangalore and Silicon Valley in California:

  • Bangalore is located on Deccan Plateau, Silicon Valley (Santa Clara Valley) next to the rocky mountains.
  • Both have a clean environment.
  • The mild climate throughout the year (pleasant climate).
  • Close to educational, scientific, and technological centers.
  • Close to major roads and airports.
  • Good access to markets.
  • Skilled workforce.
  • Low rents and low cost of living.

Question 2.
Tick the correct Answer:
(i) Silicon Valley is located in
(a) Bangalore
(b) California
(c) Ahmedabad

(ii) Which one of the following industries is known as the sunrise industry?
(a) Iron and steel industry
(b) Cotton textile
(c) Information Technology

(iii) Which one of the following is a natural fibre?
(a) nylon
(b) jute
(c) acrylic
Answer:
(i) (b),
(ii) (c),
(iii) (b).

Question 3.
Distinguish between the following.
(i) Agro-based and mineral-based industry
(ii) Public sector and joint sector industry
Answer:
(i)
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Industries Q3

Question 4.
Give two examples of each the following.

  1. Raw materials
  2. End products
  3. Tertiary activities
  4. Agro-based industries
  5. Cottage industries
  6. Co-operatives

Answer:

  1. ores, plants.
  2. Clothes that we wear, a car.
  3. Trade, banking.
  4. Food processing, leather industry.
  5. Basketweaving, pottery.
  6. AMUL, Sudha Dairy.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option.
(i) What class of economic activities does manufacturing come under?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Primary as well as secondary

(ii) Which industry is the base of all other industries?
(a) Cotton textile industry
(b) Leather industry
(c) Iron and steel industry
(d) IT industry

(iii) What class of industries does Mamti Udyog come under?
(a) Joint sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Cooperative sector

(iv) Which of these factors affect the location of industries?
(a) Power
(b) Availability of raw material
(c) Transport
(d) All of these

(v) What process does the iron ore undergo in a blast furnace?
(a) Smelting
(b) Refining
(c) Extraction
(d) None of these

(vi) What is the output of iron and steel industry?
(a) Steel
(b) Pig iron
(c) Iron ore
(d) All of these

(vii) Which of these states has some major steel-producing centers?
(a) Punjab
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra

(viii) What is the name of the place where TISCO began?
(a) Kharkai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Sakchi
(d) Rourkela

(ix) From where does the iron ore come to Pittsburgh?
(a) Silicon Valley
(b) Florida
(c) Minnesota
(d) Washington
Answer:
(i) (b), (ii) (c), (iii) (a), (iv) (d), (v)(a), (vi) (a), (vii) (b), (viii) (c), (ix) (c).

Question 2.
Fill in the blank spaces given to complete each sentence.

  1. The river that provides sufficient water to Osaka’s textile industry is ………………..
  2. On basis of raw materials used, industries are classified as and ………………
  3. Basket-weaving, handicraft, and pottery are examples of …………… industries.
  4. Factors affecting the location of industries are …………, ……………, …………, ……….. etc. (give any four)
  5. Regions like the Mumbai-Pune cluster and Chhotanagpur industrial belt are important ……….. regions of India.
  6. The process of smelting is done in a ………….
  7. The four states where most steel-producing centres are located are and ………….
  8. The first cotton textile mill was established in Ahmedabad in ………..
  9. Silicon Valley is located near the …………….. Mountains.

Answer:

  1. Yodo
  2. agro-based, mineral-based, marine-based, forest-based
  3. small-scale
  4. power, raw material, labour, capital, market, transport, communication, etc.
  5. industrial
  6. blast furnace
  7. West Bengal, Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh
  8. 1859
  9. Rocky

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).

  1. The leather industry is a forest-based industry.
  2. Small capital and infrastructure characterize small-scale industries.
  3. Milk dairies like Sudha Dairy are joint sector industries.
  4. Raw materials are inputs into an industry’s manufacturing process.
  5. Major industrial regions tend to be located in the temperate areas, near seaports and coal fields.
  6. The iron and steel industry is a sunrise industry.
  7. While smelting, heating is done beyond the melting point.
  8. Alloying with other elements changes the properties of steel.
  9. The nearest station to the Sakchi steel plant was Kalimati.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True
  5. True
  6. False
  7. True
  8. True
  9. True

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column I correctly with those given in Column II.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Industries Exercise Questions Q4
Answer:
(i) (b), (ii) (e), (iii) (a), (iv) (c), (v) (d).

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define industry.
Answer:
The industry refers to economic activity that is concerned with the production of goods, extraction of minerals, or the provision of services.

Question 2.
Name three common methods of classifying industries.
Answer:
Industries are classified according to the raw material used, size, and ownership.

Question 3.
Expand the abbreviation AMUL. Where is its headquarters?
Answer:
Anand Milk Union Limited. Its headquarters are in Anand, Gujarat.

Question 4.
Name four common processes involved in the textile industry.
Answer:
Ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing are processes involved in the textile industry.

Question 5.
Name an industrial region in northern India.
Answer:
The Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region is an industrial region in northern India.

Question 6.
Name some elements alloyed with steel.
Answer:
Aluminium, nickel, and copper are elements that are alloyed with steel.

Question 7.
What products do industrial plants in Jamshedpur produce?
Answer:
Industrial plants produce chemicals, locomotive parts, agricultural equipment, machinery, tinplate, etc.

Question 8.
What is the link between the mines and the industry in Pittsburgh?
Answer:
The Great Lakes of North America lying between the mines and industrial plants in Pittsburgh.

Question 9.
Name two natural fibres and two human-made fibres.
Answer:
Two natural fibres: wool, silk. Two human-made fibres: nylon, polyester.

Question 10.
Give a reason for the fact that the cotton textile industry in India could not compete with that in the West initially.
Answer:
The production of handwoven cotton textiles in India was expensive and time-consuming, so it could not compete with the Western standards.

Question 11.
What industries have started replacing the textile industry in Osaka?
Answer:
Iron and steel, machinery, shipbuilding, automobiles, electrical equipment, and cement industry have begun to replace the textile industry in Osaka.

Question 12.
Why is Bangalore called “Silicon Plateau”?
Answer:
Bangalore is called Silicon Plateau because of the IT industry there, and the word “plateau” refers to the Deccan Plateau where it is located.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of raw material used.
Answer:
On the basis of raw material used, industries are classified into agro, mineral, marine, and forest-based. The raw material of agro-based industries consists of plant and animal-based products. Some examples are food processing, cotton textile industry, and leather industry. The raw material used in mineral-based industries consists of mineral ores.

An example: iron and steel industry. Marine-based industries use products obtained from the sea and oceans as raw materials. Seafood industry is one such industry. A forest-based industry uses forest produce as raw material. Examples are the paper industry and furniture.

Question 2.
Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of ownership.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, industries are classified into the private sector, state-owned (public sector), joint sector, and cooperative sector. Private-sector industries are owned by individuals or a group of individuals. Public sector industries are owned by the government. Joint sector industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals. Maruti Udyog is an example of such an industry. Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers, or both. AMUL is one such industry.

Question 3.
Describe the inputs, processes, and outputs in an industrial system with an example.
Answer:
An industrial system consists of inputs, processes, and outputs. Raw materials, labour, costs, transport, power and infrastructure are inputs. In a cotton textile industry, for example, inputs are cotton, human labour, transport cost, etc. Processes are activities done to convert raw material into finished products. In a cotton textile industry, ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, etc process. The finished product and all profits earned are the outputs. In the cotton textile industry, the outputs are clothes we wear.

Question 4.
Give examples of industrial regions in India and the world.
Answer:
The major industrial areas of the world are eastern North America, western and central Europe, eastern Europe, and eastern Asia. In India, major industrial regions are the Mumbai-Pune cluster, Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region, Hugli region, Ahmedabad-Baroda region, Chhotanagpur industrial belt, Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Belt, Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region, and the Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram industrial cluster.

Question 5.
Write the properties and significance of steel.
Answer:
Steel has these properties: it is tough, it can easily be shaped (malleability), cut or made into wire (ductility). Adding certain other elements makes it harder, tougher, and rust-retention capability.

Steel is the backbone of the modern industry. We use a lot of steel objects in daily life. Ships, trains, and most other vehicles, tiny needles and safety pins, machinery and equipment, buildings, etc utilise steel as a main or sole constituent.

Question 6.
What factors supported Sakchi being chosen to set up the steel plant by TISCO?
Answer:
Sakchi was chosen for various reasons. It was close to the Kalimati Railway Station. It was also close to iron ore, coal, and manganese deposits. Kolkata, a source of a large market, was not far away. Jharia coalfields, and limestone, dolomite, limestone and manganese from Orissa and Chhattisgarh were easily accessible. The nearby rivers (Kharkai and Subamarekha) provided sufficient water supply.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Industries Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the cotton textile industry with special reference to its history and spread in India.
Answer:
Cotton is a natural fibre crop. The cotton textile industry is the industry which involves in making clothes out of the fibre. It is one of the oldest industries of the world. India has a glorious history of producing excellent quality cotton textiles. The Muslins of Dhaka, Chintzes of Masulipatnam,

Calicos of Calicut and gold-wrought cotton of Burhanpur, Vadodara and Surat had world-famous quality and design. The traditional Indian cotton textile industry, however, could not compete with the Western textile mills, due to the high cost of the handwoven textile. The process involved, moreover, was time-consuming.

The first successful mechanised textile mill in India was established in Mumbai in 1854. The factors that led to the success were the warm and moist climate, the presence of a nearby port for importing machinery, the availability of raw material and skilled labour. Humidity was the main reason why the industry was initially limited to Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Today the industry has spread to various other parts of the country, due to the artificial production of humidity. The important cotton textile centres are in Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Puducherry, and Panipat.

Question 2.
Write short notes on
(a) the iron and steel industry in Pittsburgh and
(b) cotton textile industry in Osaka.
Answer:
(a) Pittsburgh is an important steel city in the USA. Most raw materials such as coal are available locally. Iron ore is brought from the iron mines in Minnesota. The shipping of ore is also a convenient pathway: the Great Lakes of North America. From the lakes to the industrial area, trains are there to carry the ore. Rivers like Ohio, the Monogahela, and the Allegheny provide adequate water supply. Finished steel is transported to the market by both land and water routes.

(b) Osaka is an important textile centre in Japan. It is called the “Manchester of Japan”. Like every important centre, geographical factors played an important role in the establishment of industry here. The plains around Osaka meant land was easily available for the growth of cotton mills. The warm and humid climate is well suited to the spinning and weaving of cotton. The river Yodo provides adequate water supply. Easily available labour and the location of the port are also significant factors. The industry however depends completely on imports. The finished product is exported and is not very expensive.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where

Question.1.
State whether true or false:
(a) James Mill divided Indian history into three periods – Hindu, Muslim, Christian.
(b) Official documents help us understand what the people of the country think.
(c) The British thought surveys were important for effective administration.
Answer.
(a) False
(b) False
(c) True

Question.2.
What is the problem with the periodisation of Indian history that James Mill offers?
Answer.
James Mill divided Indian history into three periods – Hindu, Muslim and British. This periodisation has its own problem. It is difficult to refer to any period of history as ‘Hindu’ or ‘Muslim’ because a variety of faiths existed simultaneously in these periods. It is also not justified to characterise an age through the religion of the rulers of the time. What it suggests is that the lives and practices of others do not really matter. It is worth-mentioning that even rulers in ancient India did not all share the same faith.

Question 3.
Why did the British preserve official documents?
Answer.
The British preserved documents because of the following reasons:

  • Any information or proof of any decision can be read/used from the preserved documents.
  • The preserved documents reveal the progress made by country in the past.
  • One can study the notes and reports which were prepared in the past
  • Their copies may be made and used in modern times.
  • Documents were helpful in understanding social, economical and history of those times.

Question 4.
How will the information historians get from old newspapers be different from that found in police reports?
Answer.
The information printed in newspaper are usually affected by the views and opinions of the reporters, news editors etc. But what historians find in police reports are usually true and realistic.

Question 5.
Can you think of examples of surveys in your world today? Think about how toy companies get information about what young people enjoy playing with or how the government finds out about the number of young people in school. What can a historian derive from such surveys?
Answer.
Surveys are done by government and private companies.

  • on demographic changes, employment, incomes, tastes, interests, possessions, etc.
  • Manually or with use of technology.
  • At different places like home, schools, institution, malls, etc.
    Historians may get information about preferences, life style, demographic changes, political, social, economic life, etc.

Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Exercise Questions

Question.1.
A History of British India was written by
(i)(a) Charles Darwin
(b) James Mill
(c) Albert Einstein
(d) ThomasHardy

(ii) The first Governor-General of India was
(a) Lord Dathousie
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Warren Hastings

(iii) The National Archives of India came up in the
(a) 1920s
(b) 1930s
(c) 1940s
(d) 1950s

(iv) The word ‘Calligrapher’ means
(a) One who is specialised in the art of painting.
(b) One who is specialised in the art of music.
(c) One who is specialised in the art of beautiful writing.
(d) One who is specialised in the art of public speaking.

(v) Census operations are held
(a) every five years
(b) every seven years
(c) every ten years
(d) every twelve years
Answer.
(i)(b), (ii)(d), (iii)(a), (iv)(c), (v)(c).

Question.2.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words to complete each sentence.
(i) The colonial government gave much importance to the practice of
(ii) Historians have usually divided Indian history into ancient, and
(iii) A History of British India is a massive work.
(iv) Mill thought that all Asian societies were at a level of civilisation than Europe.
(v) The British established specialised institutions like and to preserve important documents.
Answer.
(i) Surveying
(ii) medieval- modem
(iii) three-volume
(iv) lower
(v) archives- museums

Question.3.
State whether each of the following statements is True or False.
(i) The British were very particular about preserving official documents.
(ii) Printing began to spread by the middle of the 20th century.
(iii) The periodisation of Indian history offered by James Mill was not at all accepted.
(iv) The British carried out detailed surveys by the early 19th century in order to map the entire country.
(v) James Mill glorified India and its culture in his book A History of British India.
Answer.
(i) True,
(ii) False,
(iii) False,
(iv) True,
(v) False.

Question.4.
Match the items given in Column A correctly with those given in Column B.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Exercise Questions Q4
Answer.
(i) (c), (ii) (a), (iii) (d), (iv) (b).

Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the events for which specific dates can be determined.
Answer.
The year a king was crowned, the year he married, the year he had a child, the year he fought a particular battle, the year he died, etc.

Question 2.
What was an important aspect of the histories written by the British historians in India?
Answer.
The rule of each Governor-General was an important aspect.

Question 3.
Who was James Mill?
Answer.
He was a Scottish economist and political philosopher and is known for his book A History of British India.

Question 4.
What was Mill’s opinion about the Asian societies?
Answer.
In Mill’s opinion all Asian societies were at a lower level of civilisation than Europe.

Question 5.
What evil practices, according to James Mill, dominated the Indian social life before the British came to India?
Answer.
According to James Mill, the evil practices that dominated to the Indian social life were religious intolerance, caste taboos and superstitious practices.

Question 6.
How did paintings project Governor- General?
Answer.
Paintings projected Governor-Generals as powerful figures.

Question 7.
Why do many historians refer to modem period as colonial?
Answer.
It is because, under British rule people did not have equality, freedom or liberty—the symbols of modernity.

Question 8.
Mention one important source used by historians in writing about the last 230 years of Indian history.
Answer.
The official records of the British administration.

Question 9.
What is done under census?
Answer.
It records the number of people living all the provinces of India and gathers information on castes, religions and occupation.

Question 10 .
What do official records not tell?
Answer.
Official records do not tell what other people in the country felt, and what lay behind their actions.

Question 11.
Why do we try and divide history into different periods?
Answer.
We do so in order to capture the characteristics of a time, its central features as they appear to us.

Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Short Answer Type Questions

Question  1.
How did James Mill view India?
Answer.
James Mill did not cherish any positive idea about India. He was of the opinion that all Asian societies were at a lower level of civilisation than Europe. According to his telling of history, before the British came to India, the Hindu and the Muslim despots ruled the country. Religious intolerance, caste taboos and superstitious practices dominated social life. He felt that only British rule could civilise India. He suggested that the British should conquer all the territories of India to ensure the enlightenment and happiness of the Indian people. For India was not capable of progress without the help of the British.

Question 2.
Historians divide Indian history into ancient, medieval and modem. But this division too has its problems. What are these problems?
Answer.
This periodisation has been borrowed from the West where the modem period was associated with the growth of dll the forces of modernity such as science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality. Medieval was a term used to describe a society where these features of modem society did not exist.
It is difficult for us to accept this characterisation of the modem period. Here, it is worth-mentioning that Indians did not have equality, freedom or liberty under the British rule. The country also lacked economic growth and progress in that period. It is therefore many historians refer to modem period as colonial period.

Question 3.
What did the British do to preserve important official documents and letters?
Answer.
The British felt the need to preserve all the important official documents and letters. For this, they set up record rooms attached to all administrative institutions. The village tahsildar’s office, the collectorate, the commissioner’s office, the provincial secretariats, the lawcourts – all had their record rooms. The British also established specialised institutions such as archives and museums to preserve important records.

Question.4.
What do official records not tell? How do we come to know about them?
Answer.
Official records do not always help us understand what other people in the country felt, and what lay behind their actions. For that we have diaries of people, accounts of pilgrims and travellers, autobiographies of important personalities, and popular books, etc. that were sold in the local bazaars. With the spread of printing press, newspapers came to be published and issues began to be debated in public. Leaders and reformers wrote.to spread their ideas, poets and novelists wrote to express their feelings.

Question.5.
How did the British conquer India and establish their rule?
Answer.
The British conquered India in the following ways:

  1. They subjugated local nawabs and rajas.
  2. They established control over the economy and society collected revenue to meet all their expenses, bought goods they wanted at lower prices and produced crops they needed for export.
  3. They brought changes in rulers and tastes, customs and practices.
  4. Thus, they moulded everything in their favour and subjugated the country very soon.

Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Long Answer Type Questions

Question. 1.
How do the official records of the British administration help historians to write about the last 250 years of Indian history?
Answer.
The British believed that the act of writing was important. Hence, they got written up every instruction, plan, policy decision, agreement, investigation, etc. They thought that once this was done, things could be properly studied and debated. This conviction produced an administrative culture of mtemos, notings and reports.
The British were very interested in preserving all important documents and letters. For this, they established record rooms attached to all administrative institutions such as the village tahsildar’s office, the collectorate, law courts etc. They also set up archives and museums to preserve important records.
Letters and memos that moved from one branch of the administration to smother in the early years of the 19th century can still be read in the archives. Historians can also take help from the notes and reports that district officials prepared or the instructions and directives that were sent by officials at the top to the provincial administrators.

Question.2.
How did surveys become important under the colonial administration?
Answer.
The British gave much importance to the practice of surveying because they believed that a country had to be properly known before it could be effectively administred. Therefore, they carried out detailed surveys by the early 19 th century in order to map the entire country:

  1. They conducted revenue surveys in villages.
  2. They made efforts to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the local histories and the cropping pattern.
  3. They also introduced census operations, held at the interval of every ten years from the end of the 19th century. They prepared detailed records of the number of people in all the provinces of India, noting information on castes, religions and occupation separately.
  4. The British also carried on several other surveys such as botanical surveys, zoological surveys, archeolo¬gical surveys, forest surveys, etc. In this way, they gathered all the facts that were essential for administering a country.

Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Source-Based Questions

Question 1.
Read the following extract (source 2) taken from the NCERT textbook page 7 and answer the questions that follow:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Source Based Questions Q1

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Source Based Questions Q1.1

Questions:
(i) Why did the policemen in Delhi refuse to take their food on Thursday morning ?
(ii) How did the men in other police stations react when they came to know about the protest?
(iii) What was the comment of one of the strikers on the food supplied to them ?
Answers:
(i) They did so as a protest against their low salaries and the inferior quality of food supplied to them from the Police Lines kitchen.
(ii) They also refused to take food.
(iii) One of the strikers said that the food supplied to them was not fit for human consumption. Even cattle would not eat the chapatis and dal which they had to eat.

Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Picture-Based Questions

Question.1.
Observe the picture below taken from the NCERT textbook (page 1) and answer the questions that follow:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Picture Based Questions Q1

Questions:
(i) What does the above picture try to suggest?
(ii) Explain how this image projects an imperial perception.
Answers:
(i) The picture tries to suggest that Indians willingly gave over their ancient texts scriptures (shashtra) to Britannia, the symbol of British power, as if asking her to become the protector of Indian culture.
(ii) This image clearly depicts the imperial superiority. The image of the lion symbolizes superior power. The empire is the giver and its subjects are always loyal to the throne.

Question.2.
Observe the picture below taken from NCERT textbook (page 5) and answer the questions that follow:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 1 How, When and Where Picture Based Questions Q2

Questions:
(i) What is it?
(ii) When did it come up?
(iii) Where was it located when Delhi was built?
(iv) What does this location reflect?
Answers:
(i) It is the National Archives of India.
(ii) It came up in the 1920s.
(iii) When Delhi was built, it was located close to the Viceregal Palace.
(iv) It reflects the importance of this institution in the British eyes.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory

Question 1.
Match the following:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Q1
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Q1.1

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) The British conquest of Bengal began with the Battle of …………
(b) Haider All and Tipu Sultan were the rulers of …………..
(c) Dalhousie implemented the Doctrine of ……………
(d) Maratha kingdoms were located mainly in the part of …………… India.
Answer:
(a) Plassey
(b) Mysore
(c) Lapse
(d) Western

Question 3.
State whether true or false:
(a) The Mughal empire became stronger in the eighteenth century.
(b) The English East India Company was the only European company that traded with India.
(c) Maharaja Ranjit Singh was the ruler of Punjab.
(d) The British did not introduce administrative changes in the territories they conquered.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) False
(c) True
(d) False

Question 4.
What attracted European trading companies to India?
Answer:
European trading companies were attracted due to the following reasons:

  1. Cheap and fine quality of silk and cotton.
  2. For spices like pepper, cloves, cardamom and cinnamon etc.

Question 5.
What were the areas of conflict between the Bengal Nawabs and the East India Company?
Answer:

  1. The Bengal nawabs asserted their power and autonomy and refused to grant the Company concessions,
  2. They demanded large tributes for the Company’s right to trade,
  3. They denied the Company any right to mint coins,
  4. They stopped the Company from extending its fortifications
  5. Accusing the Company of deceit, they claimed that the Company was depriving the Bengal government of huge amounts of revenue and undermining the authority of the nawab. It was refusing to pay taxes, writing disrespectful letters, and trying to humiliate the nawab and his officials. These were the areas of conflict between the Bengal Nawabs and the East India Company.

Question 6.
How did the assumption of Diwani benefit the East India Company?
Answer:
The Mughal emperor, in 1765, appointed the Company’s the Diwan of the provinces of Bengal. The Diwani allowed the Company to exploit the vast revenue resources of Bengal. This solved a major problem that the company had earlier faced. Although its trade had expanded, it had to buy most of the goods in India with gold and silver imported from Britain. The overflow of gold from Britain stopped after the assumption of Diwani. Now revenue from India could finance Company expenses. These revenues they used to purchase cotton and silk textiles in India, maintain Company troops and meet the cost of building the Company fort and offices at Calcutta.

Question 7.
Explain the system of ‘subsidiary alliance’.
Answer:
Subsidiary Alliance System

  1. The Britishers as a supreme power: Whichever state wanted to sign this treaty, had to accept the English as a supreme authority. The East India Company behaved as a guardian of that state.
  2. Appointment of resident: The state kept an English Resident in their court,
    to check the activities of the king.
  3. Keeping of an English army: Indian rulers were not allowed to have their army to protect the state from external and internal invasion. The state had to keep an English army. The state had to bear financial burden of the army.
  4. Giving to the territory: If the Indian rulers failed to make payments, part of their territories were taken away as penalty.
    e.g.,

    • The Nawab of Awadh was forced to give over half of his territory to the company in 1801.
    • Hyderabad was also forced to cede territories on similar grounds.
  5. Protection by the English: In return for the above-mentioned conditions the English Company promised to protect the state from its enemies. They also promised the state not to interfere in the internal affairs of the state but this was a promise they seldom kept.

Question 8.
In what way was the administration of the Company different from that of Indian rulers?
Answer:
The administration of the Company was different from that of the Indian rulers in the following ways:

  1. The Company divided its administrative units called Presidencies. There were three Presidencies –  Bengal, Madras and Bombay. In India, districts were the main administrative units.
  2. Each presidency was ruled by a Governor. Districts were ruled by the Collectors.
  3. The supreme head of the administration of the Company was the Governor-General. But in India, the head of the administration was the king. .
  4. The main job of the Governor-General was to introduce administrative reforms while the main job of the Collector was to collect revenue and taxes- and maintain law and order in his district.

Question 9.
Describe the changes that occurred in the composition of the Company’s army.
Answer:

  1. East India Company adopted its own method when it began recruitment for the army.
  2. It was known as the sepoy army (from the Indian word sipahi, meaning soldier).
  3. With the change in warfare technology from the 1820s, the cavalry needs of the Company’s army declined, because the British empire was fighting in Burma, Afghanistan, and Egypt. There the soldiers were armed with muskets and matchlocks
  4. The soldiers had to keep pace with changing military requirements.
  5. Its infantry regiments now became more important.
  6. In the early 19th century the British began to develop a uniform military culture.
  7. Soldiers were given European-style training drills and discipline.
  8. They regulated their life far more than before.
  9. Often this created problems since caste and community feelings were ignored in building a force of professional soldiers.

Question 10.
After the British conquest of Bengal, Calcutta -grew from a small village to a big city. Find out about the culture, architecture, and the life of Europeans and Indians of the city during the colonial period.
Answer:
Hints: Visit the school library or get information from the internet.
Indians were influenced by British culture, architecture and lifestyle.

  1. Culture: British influence began.
  2. Architecture: Influenced by the British Architecture (fortification of the city, churches, etc.). Rich Indians started constructing bungalows in the English style.
  3. Life: English education, English clothes, became to be popular.

Question 11.
Collect pictures, stories, poems, and information about any of the following – the Rani of Jhansi, Mahadji Sindhia, Haidar Ali, Maharaja Ranjit Singh, Lord Dalhousie, or any other contemporary ruler of your region.
Answer:
The Rani of Jhansi: Collect information and photographs
Hints:

  1.  Early childhood
  2. Early marriage
  3. Death of husband
  4. Adopted son
  5. Fight with British
  6. Died fighting with the British.
  7. History would always remember her.

1. Rani of Jhansi:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Q11
Lakshmibai was born probably on 19 November 1828 in the holy town of Varanasi in a Marathi brahmin family. Her father was Moropant Tambe. Her father worked for a court of Peshwa of Bithoor district. Peshwa brought Manikarnika up like his own daughter. The Peshwa called her “Chhabili”, which means “playful”.

She was educated at home and was more independent in her childhood than others of her age; her studies included archery, horsemanship, and self-defense.

Rani Lakshmibai was accustomed to ride on horseback accompanied by a small escort between the palace and the temple. The Rani Mahal, the place of Rani Lakshmibai, has now been converted into a museum. She died, fighting British Army bravely, to save her state Jhansi.

2. Mahadaji Shindhia
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Q11.1
Mahadaji Shinde (1730-1794 A.D.) also spelled as Mahadji Scindia or Mahadaji Scindia, was a Maratha ruler of the state of Gwalior in central India.

Mahadaji was instrumental in resurrecting Maratha power in North India after the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761 and rose to become a trusted lieutenant of the Peshwa, leader of the Maratha Empire. During his reign, Gwalior became the leading state in the Maratha Empire and one of the foremost military powers in India.

He accompanied Shah Alarm II (Mughal Badshah) in 1771 to Delhi in order to restore the Mughals in Delhi. The Marathas were practically at that time ruling Delhi. He annihilated the power of Jats of Mathura and during 1772-73 and destroyed the power of Pashtun Rohillas in Rohilkhand and captured Najibabad. His role during the ‘First Anglo Maratha War was greatest from the Maratha side since he humbled the British in Central India, single-handed, which resulted in the Treaty of Salbai in 1782, where he mediated between the Peshwa and the British.

3. Hyder Ali Of Mysore
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Q11.2
Hyder Ali (1721-1782) was the sultan and de facto ruler of the Kingdom of Mysore in southern India. Born Hyder Naik, he distinguished himself militarily, eventually drawing the attention of Mysore’s rulers. Rising to the post of Dalavayi (commander-in-chief) to Krishnaraja Wodeyar II, he came to dominate the titular monarch and the Mysore government. He became the de facto ruler of Mysore as Sarvadhikari (Chief Minister) by 1761. He offered strong anti-colonial resistance against the military advances of the British East’India Company during the First and Second Anglo Mysore Wars and he was the innovator of military use of the ‘iron-cased Mysorean rockets.

4. Maharaja Ranjit Singh
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Q11.3
Ranjit Singh was born to Sardar Maha Singh and Raj Kaur on 13 November 1780, in Gujranwala, Punjab (now in Pakistan). As a child, he suffered from smallpox which resulted in the loss of one eye. At the time, much of Punjab was ruled by the Sikhs under a Confederate Sarbat Khalsa system, which had divided the territory among factions known as misls Ranjit Singh’s father was the commander of the Sukerchakia Misl and controlled a territory in west Punjab based around his headquarter at Gujranwala.

In 1799, Ranjit Singh captured Lahore (now in Pakistan) from the Bhangi Misl and later made it his capital. This was the first important step in his rise to power. In the following years, he brought the whole of central Punjab from the Sutlej to the Jhelum under his sway. This area includes north of Satluj (Jullundhar, Amritsar, Pathankot, etc.); and Lahore, Multan, etc. of Pakistan.

5. Lord Dalhousie
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Q11.4
Governor-general of India (1848 to 1856): Lord Dalhousie is one the most negatively remembered personality in the rule of East India Company. He ruled India with his full efficiency from 1848 to 1856 A.D. In India, he was famous for various negative and positive reasons.
Positive:

  1. Starting of Railway in 1853 A.D. for the first time, between Bombay to Thane.
  2. Starting with postal and telegraph services in India.
  3. Starting with widow remarriage in 1856 A.D.
  4. Completion of Ganges Canal.
  5. Reform in Indian civil services.

Negative

  1. East India Company captured the princely state of Punjab in 1849 A.D.
  2. Second Anglo-Burmese War.
  3. Doctrine of Lapse (Most Controversial).
  4. Annexation of Awadh.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Exercise Questions

Question 1.
(i) Which one was not a trading company?
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The Dutch
(c) The French
(d) The Japanese

(ii) What was farman?
(a) It was a royal dress.
(b) It was a royal order.
(c) It was a royal food.
(d) It was a royal procession.

(iii) The Nawab of Bengal after Alivardi Khan was
(a) Murshid Quli Khan
(b) Tipu Sultan
(c) Sirajuddaulah
(d) Mir Qasim

(iv) The British who did the Company’s army against Sirajuddaulah at Plassey was
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Lord Hastings
(c) Edmund Burke
(d) Lord Dalhousie

(v) This Governor-General introduced the policy of ‘paramountcy’.
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Bentinck

(vi) Which one of these was annexed on the basis of Dolhousie’s ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?
(a) Punjab
(b) Awadh
(c) Satara
(d) Hyderabad

(vii) The Governor-General who was impeached
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Hastings
Answer:
(i) (d), (ii) (b), (iii) (c), (iv) (a), (v) (a), (vi) (c), (vii) (c).

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words to complete each sentence.

  1. British territories were broadly divided into administrative units called …………….
  2. ……….. and ………… were two famous Maratha soldiers and statesmen of the late 18th century.
  3. The Royal Charter could not prevent other European powers from entering the …………… markets.
  4. The Bengal Nawabs asserted their power and autonomy after the death of …………..
  5. ………….. was made the Nawab of Bengal after the defeat of Sirajuddaulah at Plassey.
  6. The Company took over Awadh in the year ……………..
  7. The principal figure in an Indian district was the …………….
  8. The first Anglo-Maratha war ended with the Treaty of …………………

Answer:

  1. Presidencies
  2. Mahadji Sindhia; Nana Phadnavis
  3. Eastern
  4. Aurangzeb
  5. Mir Jafar
  6. 1856
  7. Collector
  8. Sabai

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is True or False.

  1. The Maratha power was crushed in the third Anglo-Maratha war.
  2. Tipu Sultan disallowed local merchants from trading with the Company.
  3. The Company took away parts of territories from Punjab and Satara on the basis of ‘subsidiary alliance’.
  4. The Mughal emperor appointed the Company as the Diwgzt of the provinces of Bengal in the year 1700.
  5. Sirajuddaulah got help from his commander Mir Jafar and finally won a victory in the Battle of Plassey.
  6. Lord Dalhousie’s ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ proved to be a total failure.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True
  5. False
  6. False

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column A correctly with those given in Column B.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Exercise Questions Q4
Answer:
(i) (b), (ii) (d), (iii) (f), (iv) (a), (v) (c), (vi) (e).

Class 8 History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the ruler of England in 1600?
Answer:
Queen Elizabeth, I was the ruler of England in 1600.

Question 2.
What caused huge loss of revenue in Bengal?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s Farman had granted the Company only the right to trade duty-free. But the officials of the Company, who were carrying on private trade on the side, also stopped paying duty. This caused a huge loss of revenue for Bengal.

Question 3.
Why did the Company want a puppet ruler?
Answer: A puppet ruler would willingly give it trade concessions and other privileges.

Question 4.
What was the main reason for the defeat of Sirajuddaulah at Plassey?
Answer:
Mir Jafar, one of Sirajuddaulah’s commanders, did not fight the battle.

Question 5.
Why did the Battle of Plassey become famous?
Answer:
It was the first major victory the Company won in India.

Question 6.
Whom did the Company install in place of Mir Jafar?
Answer:
The company installed Mir Qasim in place of Mir Jafar.

Question 7.
How did the Company purchase Indian goods?
Answer:
It purchased Indian goods with gold and silver imported from Britain.

Question 8.
Who was called ‘nabobs’?
Answer:
Several Company officials returned to Britain with wealth and led flashy lives and showed their riches with great pride. They were called “nabobs’.

Question 9.
Who were the Residents?
Answer:
The Residents were the political or commercial agents and their job was to serve and further the interests of the Company.

Question 10.
What purpose did the Residents serve?
Answer:
Through the residents, the Company officials began interfering in the internal affairs of Indian states.

Question 11.
Name the two rulers under whose leadership Mysore became powerful.
Answer:
Haider Ali and his son, Tipu Sultan.

Question 12.
Why did Tipu Sultan develop a close relationship with the French in India?
Answer:
He did so in order to modernise his army with their help.

Question 13.
What happened in the-Battle of Seringapatam?
Answer:
Tipu Sultan was killed defending his capital Seringapatam.

Question 14.
What was the result of the second Anglo-Maratha war?
Answer:
The British gained Orissa and the territories north of the Yamuna river including Agra and Delhi.

Question 15 .
What was the objective behind the Company’s new policy of ‘paramountcy ’?
Answer:
The Company claimed that its authority was paramount or supreme and therefore its power was greater than that of Indian states.

Question 16.
What was the result of Rani Channamma’s anti-British resistance movement?
Answer:
She was put in the prison where she died.

Question 17.
What was Lord Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse?
Answer:
If an Indian ruler died without a male heir his kingdom would become the part of Company territory.

Question 18.
Name the Kingdoms which were annexed on the basis of ‘Doctrine of Lapse’.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur, and Jhansi.

Question 19.
What constituted the Mughal army?
Answer:
Cavalry and infantry, that is; paidal soldiers.

Question 20.
Why was Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of India, tried after he returned to England?
Answer:
He was tried for the misgovernance of Bengal.

Question 21.
What was the result of this trial?
Answer:
Warren Hastings was impeached.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of different European trading companies besides the British East India Company that entered the Eastern markets.
Answer:
Different European trading companies were:

  1. The Portuguese. By the time the first English ships sailed down the West coast of Africa, round the Cape of Good Hope, and crossed the Indian Ocean, the Portuguese had already established their presence in the western coast of India and had their base in Goa.
  2. The Dutch. By the early 17th century, the Dutch too were exploring the possibilities of trade in the Indian Ocean.
  3. The French. The French traders soon arrived on the scene for the same purpose.

Question 2.
What were the grievances of the Company regarding the Nawabs of Bengal?
Answer:
The Company declared that the unjust demands of the local officials were ruining the trade of the Company. Trade could flourish only if the duties were removed. It was also convinced that to expand trade it had to enlarge its settlements, buy up villages and rebuild its forts.

Question 3.
Write a note on Tipu Sultan – The ‘Tiger of Mysore’.
Answer:
Tipu Sultan was the famous ruler of Mysore. He ruled Mysore from 1782 to 1799. Under his leadership, Mysore became very powerful. It controlled the profitable trade of the Malabar coast where the Company purchased pepper and cardamom. In 1785 Tipu Sultan stopped the export of these items through the ports of his kingdom and disallowed local merchants from trading with the Company. He also developed a relationship with the French in India to modernise his army with their help. The British got furious. They waged four battles against Tipu Sultan. The last battle proved unfortunate for him. He was killed defending his capital Seringapatam. The way he resisted the British is undoubtedly praiseworthy.

Question 4.
Give a brief description of all the three Anglo-Maratha Wars. Also, write the main consequences.
Answer:
The Company waged a series of wars against the Marathas in order to crush Maratha power:

  1. In the first war, there was no clear victor, hence it ended in 1782 with the Treaty of Sabai.
  2. The second Anglo – Maratha War began in 1803 and ended in 1805. This war was fought on different fronts resulting in the British gaining Orissa and the territories north of the Yamuna river including Agra and Delhi.
  3. The Third Anglo – Maratha War of 1817-1819 crushed Maratha power. The Peshwa was removed. The Company now had complete control over the territories south of the Vindhyas.

Question 5.
What administrative reformations were brought in the sphere of justice?
Answer:
Before the reformations were brought, there were Maulvis and Hindu pandits who interpreted Indian laws for the European district collectors who presided over civil courts. The criminal courts were still under a qazi and a mufti. The Brahman pandits usually gave different interpretations of local laws. But there was no uniformity in them. To bring out about uniformity, in 1775 eleven pandits were asked to compile a digest of Hindu laws. N.B. Halhed translated this digest into English. By 1778 a code of Muslim laws was also compiled for the benefit of European judges, under the Regulating Act of 1773, a new Supreme Court was established, while a court of appeal – the Sadar Nizamal Adalat – was also set up at Calcutta.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
The Company was very keen to have a puppet ruler in place of Sirajuddaulah so that it might enjoy trade concessions and other privileges. It began to help one of Sirajuddaulah’s rivals become the nawab. This infuriated Sirajuddaulah. He sternly asked the Company to stop meddling in the political affairs of his dominion. After negotiations failed, the Nawab marched with his soldiers to the English factory at Kasimbazar, captured the Company officials, disarmed all Englishmen, and blocked English ships. Then he marched to Calcutta to establish control over the Company’s fort there. As soon as the Company officials in Madras heard the news of the fall of Calcutta, they sent forces under the command of Robert Clive, reinforced by naval fleets. Prolonged negotiations with the Nawab followed. But no concrete solution came out. Finally, in 1759, Robert Clive led the Company’s army against Sirajuddaulah at Plassey.

In this battle, Sirajuddaulah got defeated. The main reason was that one of his commanders, Mir Jafar, did not fight the battle. He, in fact, supported the Company by not fighting because the Company had promised to make him Nawab after defeating Sirajuddaulah. The victory of the Company in the Battle of Plassey gave it immense confidence. It was the first major victory of the Company in India.

Question 2.
Who introduced the policy of ‘paramounty’? What did it mean? What sort of resistance did the Company face?
Answer:
Lord Hastings, who was the Governor-General of India from 1813 to 1823, introduced a new policy of ‘paramounty’. Now the Company claimed that its authority was paramount or supreme, hence its power was greater than that of Indian states. In order to protect its interests, it was justified in annexing or threatening to annex any Indian kingdom.
However, this process did not go unchallenged. For example, when the British tried to annex, the small state of Kitoor (in Karnataka today), Rani Channamma took to arms and led an anti-British resistance movement. She was arrested in 1823 and died in prison in 1829. But this resistance movement did not stop. It was carried on by Rajana, a poor chowkidar of Sangoli in Kitoor. With popular support, he destroyed many British camps and records. He was also caught and hanged by the British in 1830.

Question 3.
How did the East India Company begin to trade in Bengal?
Answer:
The East India Company set up the first English factory on the banks of the river Hugh in the year 1651. This became the base from which the Company’s traders, known at that time as ‘factors’, operated. The factory had a warehouse where goods for export were stored and it had offices where Company officials set. As trade expanded, the Company persuaded merchants and traders to come and settle near the factory.

By 1696 the Company began to build a fort around the settlement. Two years later it bribed Mughal officials into giving the Company zamindari rights over three villages. One of these was Kalikata which later developed into a city, known as Calcutta. The Company also persuaded the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb to issue a firman granting the Company the right to trade duty-free. The Company tried continuously to press for more concessions and manipulate existing privileges. For instance, Aurangzeb’s Farman had granted only the Company the right to trade duty-free. But Company officials who were carrying on private trade on the side were expected to pay duty. But they refused to pay. This caused huge loss of revenue for Bengal.

Map Skills

Question 1.
On outline maps of India show expansion of British territorial power in India.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Map Skills Q1
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Map Skills Q1.1
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Map Skills Q1.2
Fig. 1 (a), (b), (c). Expansion of British territorial power in India.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Source-Based Questions

Question 1.
Read the following extract taken from the NCERT textbook and answer the questions that follow.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Source Based Questions Q1
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Source Based Questions Q1.1
They have enticed several merchants and others to go and take protection under them.

Questions:
(i) What intention did the English traders show initially?
(ii) How did their activities divert later on?
Answers:
(i) When the English traders first came into the country they were very polite. They petitioned the then government in a humble manner for liberty to purchase a plot of ground to build a factory house there.

(ii) Slowly and steadily the English traders began to show rudeness. They built a strong fort, surrounded it with a ditch which had communication with the river, and mounted a great number of guns upon the walls. They took great number of the king’s subjects into slavery.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Picture-Based Questions

Observe the following pictures taken from NCERT textbooks subsequently and answer the questions that follow:

Question 1.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Picture Based Questions Q1
Questions:
(i) Identify the person above.
(ii) When was he appointed the Governor of Bengal?
(iii) Which battle did he fight in ‘1757 and against whom?
Answers:
(i) He is Robert Clive.
(ii) He was appointed the Governor of Bengal in 1764.
(iii) In 1757, he fought the Battle of Plassey against Sirajuddaulah.

Question 2.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory Picture Based Questions Q2
Questions:
(i) What is it?
(ii) Where is it kept?
(iii) When did the British take it way?
Answers:
(i) It is a toy tiger of Tipu.
(ii) It is kept in the Victoria and Albert Museum in London.
(iii) The British took it away when Tipu Sultan died defending his capital Seringapatam on 4 May 1799.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. The British described the tribal people as …………
  2. The method of sowing seeds in jhum cultivation is known as …………….
  3. The tribal chiefs got …………. titles in central India under the British land settlements.
  4. Tribals went to work in the of Assam and the ……………… in Bihar.

Answer:

  1. savage
  2. broadcast
  3. land
  4. tea plantations, coal mines

Question 2.
State whether true or false:

  1. Jhum cultivators plough the land and sow seeds.
  2. Cocoons were bought from the Santhals and sold by the traders at five times the purchase price.
  3. Birsa urged his followers to purify themselves, give up drinking liquor, and stop believing in witchcraft and sorcery.
  4. The British wanted to preserve the tribal way of life.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False

Question 3.
What problems did shifting cultivators face under British rule?
Answer:
The life of shifting cultivators was directly connected to the forest. So, when the British brought changes in forest laws, their life was badly affected. The British extended their control over all forests and declared that forests were state property. Some forests were classified as Reserved Forests for they produced timber which the British wanted. In these forests, people were not allowed to move freely and practice jhum cultivations. As a result, many jhum cultivators had to move to other areas in search of work.

Question 4.
How did the powers of tribal chiefs change under colonial rule?
Answer:
Change in the Powers of the Tribal Chiefs under Colonial Rule

  • Before the arrival of the British in India, tribal chiefs were important people.
  • They had economic power.
  • They had the right to administer and control their territories.
  • In some areas, they had their own policy.
  • They decided on the local rules of land and forest management.

The British changed their functions and powers considerably.

  • They were allowed to keep their land titles over a cluster of villages and rent outlands.
  • They were divested of their administrative power.
  • They were forced to follow laws made by the British in India.
  • They also had to pay tribute to the British, and discipline the tribal groups
    on behalf of the British.
  • They lost the authority they had earlier enjoyed amongst their people.
  • Now they were unable to fulfill their traditional functions.

Question 5.
What accounts for the anger of the tribals against the dikus?
Answer:
The tribals wanted to drive out the dikus—missionaries, moneylenders, Hindu landlords, and the government because they saw them as the cause of their misery. The following facts account for their anger against the dikus:

  1. The land policies of the British were destroying their traditional land system.
  2. Hindu landlords and moneylenders were taking over their land.
  3. Missionaries were criticising their traditional culture.

Question 6.
What was Birsa’s vision of a golden age? Why do you think such a vision appealed to the people of the region?
Answer:
Birsa was deeply influenced by many of the ideas he came in touch within his growing-up years. The movement that he led aimed at reforming tribal society. He urged the Munda to give up drinking liquor, clean their village, and stop believing in witchcraft and sorcery. He often remembered the gloden past of the Mundas, when they lived a good life, constructed embankments, tapped natural springs, planted trees and orchards, practiced cultivation to earn their living. They did not kill their brethren and relatives. They lived honestly.

Birsa wanted to restore this glorious past. Such a vision appealed to the people of the region because they were very much eager to lead a free life. They had got fed up with the colonial forest laws and the restrictions that were imposed on them.

Question 7.
Find out from your parents, friends or teachers, the names of some heroes of other tribal revolts in the twentieth century. Write their story in your own words.
Answer:
Students are suggested to do this work themselves.

Question 8.
Choose any tribal group Hiring in India today. Find out about their customs and way of life, and how their lives have changed in the last 50 years.
Answer:
Students are suggested to visit a neighbouring tribal area and collect information regarding their customs and way of life and other things.

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:
(i) The Khonds belonged to
(a) Gujarat
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Orissa
(d) Punjab

(ii) British officials saw these settled tribal groups as more civilised than hunter-gatherers
(a) Gortds
(b) Sahthals
(c) Khonds
(d) Both (a) and (b)

(iii) Vaishnav preachers were the worshippers of
(a) Shiva
(b) Durga
(c) Krishna
(d) Vishnu

(iv) Kusum and Palash flowers were used to
(a) prepare medicines
(b) make garlands
(c) color clothes and leather
(d) prepare hair oil

(v) The Gaddis of Kulu was
(a) shepherds
(b) cattle herders
(c) fruit gatherers
(d) hunters
Answer:
(i) (c), (ii) (d), (iii) (d), (iv) (c),(v) (a).

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words to complete each sentence.

  1. The lives of shifting cultivators depended on free movement within …………….
  2. The …………… were not ready to work as laborers.
  3. The British wanted tribal groups to …………. and become …………… cultivators.
  4. The British declare that forests were …………… property.
  5. Birsa was born in a family of ………….. a tribal group that lived in …………………
  6. The Santhals of Hazaribagh reared

Answer:

  1. forests
  2. Baigas
  3. settle down, peasant
  4. state
  5. Mundas, Chottanagpur
  6. cocoons

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is True or False.

  1. The traders and moneylenders never deceived the tribal people.
  2. The silk growers earned huge amount of wealth and therefore enjoyed a happy life.
  3. Many tribal groups did not like the colonial forest laws and therefore revolted.
  4. The jhum cultivators in north-east India stopped their traditional practice.
  5. The tribal Chiefs lost their authority under the British rule.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column A correctly with those given in Column B.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Exercise Questions Q4
Answer:
(i) (d)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (e)
(iv) (b)
(v) (c)

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention different types of activities of the tribal people.
Answer:

  1. Some practiced jhum cultivation,
  2. Some were hunter-gatherers.
  3. Some herded animals.
  4. Some took to settled cultivation.

Question 2.
Why did the British want tribal groups to settle down and become peasant cultivators?
Answer:
It was because settled peasants were easier to control and administer than people who were always on the move.

Question 3.
Why did the British introduce land settlements?
Answer:
They did so in order to get a regular revenue source for the state.

Question 4.
Why were some forests classified as Reserved Forests?
Answer:
These forests produced timber which the British wanted.

Question 5.
What problem did the British face after they stopped the tribal people from living inside forests?
Answer:
They faced the problem of shortage of labour.

Question 6.
Why did the Forest Department establish forest villages?
Answer:
It did so in order to ensure a regular supply of cheap labour.

Question 7.
How did the tribal groups view the market and the traders?
Answer:
They viewed them as their main enemies.

Question 8.
Who was Birsa?
Answer:
Birsa belonged to a family of Mundas, a tribal group that lived in Chottanagpur.

Question 9.
What did people say about him?
Answer:
People said that he had miraculous powers. He could cure all diseases and multiply grain.

Question 10.
What problems did Birsa set out to resolve?
Answer:

  • The familiar ways of tribals seemed to be disappearing.
  • Their livelihoods were under threat.
  • The religion appeared to be in danger. Birsa set out to resolve these problems.

Question 11.
Who were the outsiders being referred to as dikus? [Imp.]
Answer:
Traders, moneylenders, missionaries, Hindu landlords, and the British were the outsiders being referred to as dikus.

Question 12.
On what charges was Birsa convicted?
Answer:
Birsa was convicted on the charges of rioting.

Question 13.
When did Birsa die and how?
Answer:
He died of cholera in 1900.

Question 14.
When and where was the forest satyagraha staged?
Answer:
The forest satyagraha occurred in the 1930s in the Central Provinces.

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the main activities of the Khonds living in the forests of Orissa?
Answer:
The Khonds were basically hunter-gatherers. They regularly went out on collective hunts and then divided the meat amongst themselves. They ate fruits and roots collected from the forest and cooked food with the oil they extracted from the seeds of the sal and mahua. They used many forest shrubs and herbs for medicinal purposes and sold forest produce in the local markets. All their activities were based on forests.

Question 2.
How did traders and moneylenders exploit the tribal people?
Or
How were traders and moneylenders cause of the tribals’ misery? [V. Imp.]
Answer:
Tribal groups often needed to buy and sell in order to be able to get the goods that were not produced within the locality. This led to their dependence on traders and moneylenders. Traders came around with things for sale. They sold the goods at high prices.

Moneylenders used to give loans with which the tribals met their cash needs, adding to what they earned. But the interest charged on the loans was very high. Thus, both traders and moneylenders always exploited tribal people. It is therefore the tribals- saw them as evil outsiders and the cause of their misery.

Question 3.
How did the British officials view settled tribal groups and those who moved about from place to place?
Answer:
The British officials saw settled tribal groups such as the Gonds and Santhals as more civilised than hunter-gatherers or shifting cultivators. These tribal groups lived in the forests and kept on moving. They did not have a fixed home. The British considered them wild and savage and therefore they needed to be settled and civilised.

Question 4.
Describe land settlements introduced by the British.
Answer:
The British introduced land settlements to ensure a regular revenue source for the state. Under these settlements:

  • the British measured the land, defined the rights of each individual to that land, and fixed the revenue demand for the state.
  • some peasants were declared landowners, other tenants. The tenants were to pay rent to the landowner who in turn paid revenue to the state.

Question 5.
Why was the British effort to settle jhum cultivators not very successful?
Answer:
(a) It is usually difficult to carry on settled plough cultivation in areas where water is scarce and the soil is dry.
(b) Jhum cultivators who took to plough cultivation often suffered since their fields did not preclude good yields. Hence, the jhum cultivators in north-east India insisted on continuing with their traditional practice.
(c) The British faced widespread protests. Therefore, they allowed them to carry on shifting cultivation in some parts of the forest.

Question 6.
What problem did the British face after they brought changes in forest laws? How did they solve this problem?
Answer:
The British stopped the tribal people from living inside forests by introducing some changes in forest laws. This created a problem. They lost labour force because most of the jhum cultivators moved to other areas in search of work. Who would cut trees for railway sleepers and transport logs?

Colonial officials solved this problem by giving jhum cultivators small patches of land in the forests and allowing them to cultivate these on the condition that these who lived in villages would have to provide labour to the Forest Department and look after the forests. The Forest Department established forest villages in many regions to ensure a regular supply of cheap labour.

Question 7.
Give a brief history of the revolts by different tribal groups in the country.
Answer:
Several tribal groups in different parts of the country were unhappy with the changes they were experiencing and the problems they were facing under the British rule. Finally, they rebelled against the changes in laws, the restrictions on their practices, the new taxes they had to pay, and the exploitation by traders and moneylenders.

  • The Kols rebelled in 1831-32.
  • The Santhals rose in revolt in 1855.
  • The Bastar Rebellion in central India broke out in 1910.
  • The Warli Revolt in Maharashtra in 1940.
  • Birsa Munda also led one such movement.

Question 8.
How did Birsa resume his movement after his release in 1897?
Answer:
Birsa was released in 1897. Now he began touring the villages to gather support. He used traditional symbols and language to rouse people, urging them to destroy dikus and the Europeans and establish a kingdom under his leadership. Birsa’s followers began targetting the symbols of dikus and European power. They attacked police stations and churches and raided the property of moneylenders and zamindars. They raised the white flag as a symbol of Birsa Raj.

Question 9.
In what ways was the Birsa movement significant?
Answer:
The Birsa movement was significant in two ways:

  1. It forced the colonial government to introduce laws so that the land of the tribals could not easily be taken over by dikus.
  2. It showed once again that the tribal people had the capacity to protest against injustice and express their anger against colonial rule. They did this in their own specific way, inventing their own rituals and symbols of struggle.

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How did different tribal groups live? Describe in brief.
Answer:
Tribal people were involved in many different types of activities:

Some tribal people practised jhum cultivation also known as shifting cultivation. This was done on small patches of land, mostly in forests. The cultivators cleared off small patches of land. They then burnt the vegetation and spread the ash from the firing, which contained potash to fertilize the soil. They used equipment like ax and hoe for preparing the soil for cultivation. Then they scattered the seeds on the field. Once the crop was ready and harvested, they moved to another field. Shifting cultivators were found in the hilly and forested tracts of north-east and central India.

Some tribal groups were engaged in hunting animals and gathering forest produce, hence known as “hunter-gatherers’. They saw forests as essential for survival. The Khonds was such a community living in the forests of Orissa. They regularly went out on collective hunts and then divided the meat amongst themselves. They ate fruits and roots and cooked food with the oil they extracted from the seeds of the sal and mahua. They got rice and other grains in return for their valuable forest produce. Sometimes they did odd jobs in the villages like carrying loads, etc.

Some tribal groups lived by herding and rearing animals. They were pastoralists who moved with their herds of cattle or sheep according to the seasons. For example, the Victim Gujjars of Punjab hills, and the Labadis of Andhra Pradesh were cattle herders, the Gaddis of Kulu were shepherds and the Bakarwals of Kashmir reared goats.

Some tribal community took to settled cultivation. They cultivated their fields in one place year after year, instead of moving from place to place. They began to use the plough and gradually got rights over the land they lived on.

Question 2.
Give a brief life sketch of Birsa Munda.
Answer:
Birsa was born in the mid-1870s in a family of Mundas, a tribal group that lived in Chottanagpur. He grew up around the forests of Bohanda, grazing sheep, playing flute, and dancing in the local akharas. As an adolescent, Birsa heard tales of the Munda uprisings of the past and saw sirdars (leaders) of the community urging the people to revolt. Birsa took great interest in the sermons of missionaries because they inspired the Mundas to attain their lost rights. He also enjoyed the company of a prominent Vaishnav preacher. He wore the sacred thread and began to value the importance of purity and piety.

He decided to reform tribal society. He urged the Mundas to give up all their bad practices like drinking liquor, etc. Here, it is worth mentioning that Birsa also turned against missionaries and Hindu landlords. He urged his followers to restore their glorious past. He talked of a golden age in the past when Mundas lived a very good life. They did not kill their brethren and relatives. Birsa wanted to see these qualities again in the tribal society.

British officials got terrified to visualise the political aims of Birsa Munda. As the movement spread, the government arrested him in 1895, convicted him on the charges of rioting. He has also jailed for two years.

After Birsa was released in 1897, he began to tour the villages to gather support. He urged his supporters to destroy dikus and the Europeans. In 1900, he died of cholera and the movement faded out. But it proved significant in the long run.

Map Skills

Question 1.
On an outline political map of India, mark the location of the following tribal groups in India:
(a) Gaddis
(b) Gonds
(c) Santhals
(d) Baigas
(e) Mundas
(f) Khonds
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Map Skills Q1

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Source-Based Questions

Question 1.
Read the following extract (Source 2) taken from the NCERT textbook and answer the questions that follow:
“In this land of the English how hard it is to live”
In the 1930s Verrier Elwin visited the land of the Baigas – a tribal group in central India. He wanted to know about them – their customs and practices, their art and folklore. He recorded many songs that lamented the hard time the Baigas were having under British rule.
In this land of the English how hard
it is to live
How hard it is to live
In the village sits the landlord
In the gate sits the Kotwar
In the garden sits the Patwari
In the field sits the government
In this land of the English how hard
it is to live
To pay cattle tax we have to sell cow To pay forest tax we have to sell buffalo To pay land tax we have to sell bullock How are we to get our food?
In this land of the English.
Quoted in Verrier Elwin and Shamrao Hiuale, Songs of the Maikal, p. 316.

Questions:
(i) Who was the Baigas?
(ii) Why did Verrier Elwin visit their land?
(iii) What were the songs about?
Answers:
(i) The Baigas were a tribal group living in central India.
(ii) Verrier Elwin visited their land because he was very curious about them. He wanted to know their customs, and practices, their art, and folklore.
(iii) The songs that he recorded lamented the hard time the Baigas were having under British rule.

Class 8 History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Picture-Based Questions

Question 1.
Observe the given picture taken from NCERT textbook and answer the questions that follow:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 4 Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Picture Based Questions Q1

Questions:
(i) What do you see in the above picture?
(ii) Under what circumstances did they work?
Answers:
(i) They are coalminers of Bihar (now Jharkhand) 1948.
(ii) They had to work deep down in the dark and suffocating mines. Working in this condition was not only back¬breaking and dangerous, it was often literally killing.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
State whether true of false:

  1. In the Western world, modem cities grew with industrialisation.
  2. Surat and Machlipatnam developed in the nineteenth century.
  3. In the twentieth century, the majority of Indians lived in cities.
  4. After 1857 no worship was allowed in the Jama Masjid for five years.
  5. More money was spent on cleaning Old Delhi than New Delhi.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. False
  4. True
  5. False

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

  1. The first structure to successfully use the dome was called the …………
  2. The two architects who designed New Delhi and Shahjahanabad were …………… and ………..
  3. The British saw overcrowded spaces as …………
  4. In 1888 an extension scheme called the …………. was devised.

Answer:

  1. Central dome
  2. Edward Lutyens; Herber Baker
  3. Unhygienic
  4. Lahore Gate Improvement Scheme

Question 3.
Identify three differences in the city design of New Delhi and Shahjahanabad.
Answer:
Three differences were:

  1. Shahjahanabad was crowded with mohallas and several dozen bazaars. But New Delhi was not crowded nor were there mazes of narrow by-lanes.
  2. Shahjahanabad was not established in a planned manner while New Delhi was beautifully planned.
  3. There was chaos everywhere in Shahjahanabad. But New Delhi represented a sense of law and order. ’

Question 4.
Who lived in the ‘white’ areas in cities such as Madras?
Answer:
The British lived in the ‘white’ areas in cities such as Madras.

Question 5.
What is meant by de-urbanization?
Answer:

  • De-urbanisation is a process when a large number of people from cities begin to move to other towns/villages. Lack of opportunities like trade, export from ports, and jobs related to trade and exports; was the main cause of this.
  • In the 18th century many smaller cities, many trading centres, and regional centers. If political power declined like Surat, Seringapatam, etc.

Question 6.
Why did the British choose to hold a grand Durbar in Delhi although it was not a capital?
Answer:
After the revolt of 1857, numerous events took place in Delhi.

  • In 1877, Viceroy Lytton organized a Durbar to acknowledge Queen Victoria as the Empress of India.
  • Calcutta was still the capital of British India, but the grand Durbar was being held in Delhi because, during the Revolt, the British realized the importance of the Mughal emperor to the people.
  • It was therefore important to celebrate British power with pomp and show in Delhi.

Question 7.
How did the Old City of Delhi change under British rule?
Answer:

  1. The British wanted Delhi to forget its Mughal past.
  2. The area around the Fort was completely cleared of gardens, pavilions, and mosques (temples were left intact) for security reasons.
    • Mosques in particular were either destroyed or put to other uses.
    • The Zinat-al-Masjid was converted into a bakery.
    • No worship was allowed in the Jama Masjid for five years.
    • One-third of the city was demolished.
    • Its canals were filled up.
    • In the 1870s, the western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken to establish the railways and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.
    • The Delhi College was turned into a school and shut down in 1877.
  3. The British now began living in the sprawling Civil Lines away from the Indians in the Walled City.

Question 8.
How did the partition affect life in Delhi?
Answer:
India got partitioned in 1947 and this led to a massive transfer of populations on both sides of the new border. As a result, the population of Delhi increased all of a sudden. The job of the people changed and the culture of the city became different. Most of these migrants were from Punjab. They stayed in camps, schools, etc. While some got the opportunity to occupy residences that had been vacated by the Muslims.

Yet others were housed in refugee colonies. New colonies like Lajpat Nagar and Tilak Nagar grew at this time. Shops and stalls were set up to cater the needs of the migrants, schools and colleges were opened. The migrants coming to Delhi were rural landlords, lawyers, teachers, traders and small shopkeepers. Partition changed their lives and occupations. They had tp take up new jobs like hawkers, vendors, carpenters, and ironsmiths.

Question 9.
Find out the history of the town you live in or of any town nearby. Check when and how it grew, and how it has changed over the years. You could look at the history of the bazaars, the buildings, cultural institutions, and settlements.
Answer:
Monu Nagar (An Imaginary Town):

  1. Monu Nagar was a small village along G.T. Road.
  2. People in the village lived a simple life, mostly of the agriculturist.
  3. Slowly modern life style came.
    • People started shops along the road.
    • Some started repairs of vehicles, cycles, scooters and agriculture implements etc.
  4. Agriculture as occupation declined.
  5. Several schools, a college and health center developed over years.
  6. Some air-conditioned restaurants were opened during last five years.
  7. It has become a big town.

Question 10.
Make a list of at least ten occupations in the city, town, or village to which you belong, and find out how long they have existed. What does this tell you about the changes within this area?
Answer:
I live in a village, I find here the following occupations in which villagers are engaged:

  1. Farming
  2. Fishing
  3. Teaching
  4. Carpentry
  5. Grocery
  6. Vending
  7. Weaving
  8. Cattle rearing
  9. Blacksmith
  10. Barber These occupations have existed for a long time in the village.

We have seen many changes in the methods of these occupations. With the spread of education and awareness, many new technologies have been adopted. For example, in the beginning, farmers used ploughs in their fields but now they are using tractors.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:
(i) Which group of cities was recognized as Presidency cities?
(a) Bombay, Orissa, and Calcutta
(b) Bombay, Madras, and Vishakhapatnam
(c) Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta
(d) Madras, Rajasthan, and Calcutta

(ii) The capital of British India before Delhi was
(a) Madras
(b) Bombay
(c) Orissa
(d) Calcutta

(iii) The Delhi College was built in the year
(a) 1792
(b) 1785
(c) 1700
(d) 1695

(iv) The Viceroy’s Palace is now known as
(a) Rashtrapati Bhavan
(b) Pradhanmantri Bhavan
(c) Mantri Bhavan
(d) Raj Bhavan

(v) In 1877, Viceroy Lytton organized a grand durbar to acknowledge Queen Victoria as the Empress of India at’
(a) Calcutta
(b) Delhi
(c) Bombay
(d) Madras
Answer:
(i) (c), (ii) (d), (iii) (a), (iv) (a), (v) (b)

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words to complete each sentence.

  1. The period from ………… to …………. is referred to as a period of the Delhi renaissance.
  2. The western walls of Shahjahanabad were broken to establish the …………… and to allow the city to expand beyond the walls.
  3. New Delhi was constructed as a 10-square-mile city on …………….., south of the existing city.
  4. The Delhi Municipal Committee was not willing to spend money on a good …………….. system.
  5. Some Havelis were taken over by the upcoming …………….. class.
  6. The Delhi Improvement Trust was set up in ………… and it built areas like ………….. for ………… Indians.
  7. By the early 20th century only …………… percent of Indians were living in cities.

Answer:

  1. 1830; 1857
  2. railways
  3. Raisina Hill
  4. drainage
  5. mercantile
  6. Daiyaganj; South; wealthy
  7. 11

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is True or False.

  1. The central dome of the Viceroy’s Palace was copied from the Mughal architecture.
  2. New Delhi took at least 50 years to build.
  3. The population of Delhi grew all of a sudden after partition.
  4. The Mughal aristocracy in the 17th and 18th centuries lived in large bungalows.
  5. Colonies like Lajpat Nagar and Tilak Nagar grew at the time of partition.
  6. The cities like Machlipatnam, Surat, and Seringapatam were deurbanized.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column A correctly with those given in Column B.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Exercise Questions Q4
Answer:
(i) (c), (ii) (a), (iii) (d), (iv) (e), (v) (b).

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two industrial cities in Britain.
Answer:
Leeds and Manchester.

Question 2.
Name the cities that were de-urbanized in the 19th century.
Answer:
Surat, Machlipatnam and Seringapatam.

Question 3.
Why were the main streets of Chandni Chowk and Faiz Bazar made broad?
Answer:
They were made broad for royal processions to pass.

Question 4.
Where did British live in the 1870s?
Answer:
They lived in the sprawling Civil Lines area that came up in the north.

Question 5.
Where, did the Indians live in the 1870s?
Answer:
They lived in the Walled City.

Question 6.
Why was a durbar held in Delhi in 1911?
Answer:
In 1911, when King George V was crowned in England, a durbar was held in Delhi to celebrate the occasion.

Question 7.
Who visited the durbar?
Answer:
Numerous Indian princes and British officers and soldiers visited the durbar.

Question 8.
What is Kingsway known now?
Answer:
It is now known as Rajpath.

Question 9.
Why was the Viceroy’s Palace higher than Shah Jahan’s Jama Masjid?
Answer:
The Viceroy’s Palace was higher than Shah Jahan’s Jama Masjid in order to establish British importance.

Question 10.
What jobs did the new migrants coming to Delhi take up?
Answer:
They took up jobs as hawkers, vendors, carpenters and ironsmiths.

Question 11.
What were havelis?
Answer:
Havelis were grand mansions in which the Mughal aristocracy in the 17th and 18th century lived.

Question 12.
What did the Census of 1931 reveal?
Answer:
The Census of 1931 revealed that the Walled City area was thickly populated with as many as 90 persons per acre, while New Delhi had only about 3 persons per acre.

Question 13.
Why did Machlipatnam lose its importance as a port-town by the late 18th century? [V.Imp.]
Answer:
It was because the British shifted their trade to the new ports of Bombay, Madras and Calcutta.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the main features of Shahjahanabad, built by Shah Jahan.
Answer:
Main features are given below:

  1. Shahjahanabad, that was began in 1639, consisted of a fort-palace complex and the city adjoining it. Lai QUa or the Red Fort contained the palace complex.
  2. To its west lay the Walled City with 14 gates.
  3. The main streets of Chandni Chowk and Faiz Bazaar were broad enough for royal processions to pass. A canal ran down the centre of Chandni Chowk.
  4. The Jama Masjid was among the largest and grandest mosques in India. There was no place higher than this mosque within the city.

Question 2.
Before 1857, developments in Delhi were somewhat different from those in other colonial cities. How?
Answer:
In Presidency cities, Bombay, Madras and Calcutta, the living spaces of Indians and the British were sharply separated. Indians lived in the “black’ areas, while the British lived in well laid out “white’ areas. But in Delhi, in the first half of the 19th century, the British lived alongwith the wealthier Indians in the Walled City. The British learned to enjoy Urdu/Persian culture and poetry and took part in local festivals.

Question 3.
What happened to Delhi after 1857?
Answer:
During the Revolt of 1857, the rebels gathered in the Delhi and captured it under the leadership of the Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar. Delhi remained under the control of the rebels for four months.
When the British recaptured Delhi, they embarked on a campaign of revenge and plunder. The British forces began wrecking vengeance on the streets of Delhi, massacring the rebels. To prevent another rebellion, the British exiled Bahadur Shah to Burma, dismantled his court, razed several of the places, closed down gardens and built barracks for troops in their place.

Question 4.
How did partition change the lives and occupations of the refugees? [Imp.]
Answer:
The partition caused massive transfer of populations on both sides of the new border. Muslims left Delhi for Pakistan while their place was taken by equally large numbers of Sikh and Hindu refugees from Pakistan. Many of the Muslims who went to Pakistan were artisans, petty traders and labourers. The new migrants coming to Delhi were rural landlords, lawyers, teachers, traders and small shopkeepers. Partition changed their lives and their occupation. They had to take up new jobs as hawkers, vendors, carpenters and ironsmiths.

Question 5.
Write a short note on ‘havelis’.
Answer:
Havelis were grand mansions in which the Mughal aristocracy in the 17th and 18th centuries lived.
A haveli housed many families. On entering the haveli through a beautiful gateway, there was an open courtyard which was surrounded by public rooms. These public rooms meant for visitors and business, used exclusively by males.

The inner courtyard with its pavilions and rooms was meant for the women of the household. Rooms in the havelis had multiple uses, and very little by way of furniture. These havelis began to decline as the Mughal amirs found it difficult to maintain them under conditions of British rule.
Some havelis were subdivided and sold. Some were taken over by the upcoming mercantile class while many feel into decay.

Question 6.
Describe the main features of the colonial bungalow.
Answer:
The main features of the colonial bungalow:

  1. It was meant for one nuclear family.
  2. It was a large single-storyed structure with a pitched roof and usually set in one or two acres of open ground.
  3. It had separate living and dinning rooms and bedrooms and a wide verandah running in the fronts and sometimes on three sides.
  4. Kitchens, stables and servants’ quarters were in a separate space from the main house. The house was run by dozens of servants.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the construction plan of New Delhi.
Answer:
New Delhi was constructed as a 10-square-mile city on Raisina Hill, south of the existing city. Two architects namely Edward Lutyens and Herbert Baker, were called on to design New Delhi and its buildings. The government complex in New Delhi consisted of two-mile avenue, Kingsway, now known as Rajpath, led to the Viceroy’s Palace, now known as Rashtrapati Bhavan, with the Secretariat buildings on either sides of the avenue.
The features of these government buildings were borrowed from different periods of India’s imperial history, but the overall look was classical Greece of Fifth century BCE. For instance, the central dome of the Viceroy’s Palace was copied from the Buddhist stupa at Sanchi, and the red sandstone and carved screens or Jalis were borrowed from Mughal architecture.
These new buildings, had to assert British importance. Therefore, the Viceroy’s Palace was kept higher than Shah Jahan’s Jama Masjid.

Question 2.
What did the Census of 1931 reveal? What attempts were made to decongest the old city?
Answer:
The Census of 1931 revealed that the Walled City area was densely populated with as many as 90 persons per acre, while New Delhi had only about 10 persons per acre.
Several attempts were made to decongest the old city, for example, in 1888 an extension scheme called the Lahore Gate Improvement Scheme was planned by Robert Clarke for the Walled City residents. The idea was to draw residents away from the old city to a new type of market square, around which shops would be built. Streets in this redevelopment strictly followed the grid pattern and were of identical width, size and character. Land was devided into regular areas for the construction of neighbourhoods. But this development remained incomplete and did not help to decongest the old city.

In 1936, the Delhi Improvement Trust was set up. It built areas like Daiyaganj south for wealthy Indians. Houses were grouped around parks. Within the houses, space was divided according to new rules of privacy. Instead of spaces being shared by many families or groups, now different members of the same family had their own private spaces within the home.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Source-Based Questions

Question 1.
Read the following extract (Source 1) taken from NCERT textbook (page 67) and answer the questions that follow.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Source Based Questions Q1

Questions:
(i) What sad affair took place in Delhi 1739?
(ii) Who is Mir Taqi Mir? How does he lament over the ruins of Delhi?
Answers:
(i) In 1739, Nadir Shah sacked and plundered the city of Delhi.
(ii) Mir Taqi Mir is an eighteenth-century Urdu poet. He is one of the unfortunate persons who has witnessed the decline of the city of Delhi. He remembers those times when Delhi was a supreme city in the world. After Nadir Shah plundered this city, it became a deserted place.

Class 8 History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Picture-Based Questions

Observe the pictures taken from the NCERT textbook subsequently and answer the questions that follow:

Question 1.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Picture Based Questions Q1

Questions:
(i) What do you see in the above picture?
(ii) When did this city begin to grow?
Answers:
(i) The above picture is of Bombay port that existed in the 18th century.
(ii) The city of Bombay began to grow when the East India Company started using Bombay as its main port in western India.

Question 2.
The shrine of Nizamuddin Auliya in Delhi.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 6 Colonialism and the City Picture Based Questions Q2

Questions:
(i) What does the above picture remind you?
(ii) When did this grand event take place?
(iii) What major decision was announced here?
Answers:
(i) The above picture reminds us of the Coronation Durbar of King George V.
(ii) This important event took place on 12 December 1911.
(iii) The decision to shift the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi was announced at this Durbar.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste, and Reform Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
What social ideas did the following people support:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform Q1
Answer:
These people supported the following ideas:

  1. Spread of education among women.
  2. Widow remarriage.
  3. Caste equality and justice.
  4. Abolition of child marriage.
  5. Social equality for untouchables.

Question 2.
State whether true or false:

  1. When the British captured Bengal they framed many new laws to regulate the rules regarding marriage, adoption, the inheritance of property, etc.
  2. Social reformers had to discard the ancient texts in order to argue for reform in social practices.
  3. Reformers got full support from all sections of the people of the country.
  4. The Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed in 1929.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. False
  4. True

Question 3.
How did the knowledge of ancient texts help the reformers promote new laws?
Answer:
The reformers tried to convince people that widow burning, caste distinctions, child marriage, etc had no sanction in ancient texts. Their knowledge of ancient texts gave them immense confidence and moral support which they utilised in promoting new laws. They did not get feared when people raised voice against the reforms they had brought.

Question 4.
What were the different reasons people had for not sending girls to school?
Answer:
Vidyasagar in Calcutta (now Kolkata) and many other reformers in Bombay. (now Mumbai) set up schools for girls.

  •  When the first schools were opened in the mid-nineteenth century, many people were afraid of them.
  • They feared that schools would take girls away from home.
  • They would prevent them from doing their domestic duties.
  • Girls had to travel through public places in order to reach school. This would have a corrupting influence on them.
  • GMs should stay away from public spaces.

Question 5.
Why were Christian missionaries attacked by many people in the country? Would some people have supported them too? If so, for what reasons?
Answer:
Christian Missionaries were attacked in the country by many people because they suspected that they were involved in forced conversion and conversion using money power of poor and tribal people from Hinduism to Christianity. If some people supported them, that was because they felt this might improve the economical condition and education of the poor and tribals.

Question 6.
In the British period, what new opportunities opened up for people who came from castes that were regarded as “low”?
Answer:
With the expansion of cities, new demands of labor created. Drains had to be dug, roads laid, buildings constructed and cities cleaned. This required coolies, diggers, carriers, bricklayers, sweepers, rickshaw pullers, etc. This labour came from people who belonged to the “low” caste. They left their villages and small towns and shifted to the cities to get work. Some went to work in plantations in Assam, Mauritius, Trinidad, and Indonesia. Although it was not easy to work in the new locations, poor people saw this an opportunity to get away from the exploitations of the upper-caste.

Question 7.
How did Jyotirao, the reformer, justify their criticism of caste inequality in society?
Answer:
Jyotirao Phule, born in 1827, was the most vocal amongst the “Low-caste” leaders.

  • He attacked the Brahmans’ claim of their superiority to others. He argued the Aryans were foreigners, who came from outside the subcontinent.
  • They defeated and subjugated the true children of the country and looked at the defeated population as inferior.
  • According to Phule, the “upper” castes had no right to their land and power. In reality, the land belonged to the so-called low castes.
  • Phule opined that there existed a golden age when warrior-peasants tilled the land and ruled the Maratha countryside in just and fairways.
  • He proposed that the Shudras (labouring castes) and Ati Shudras (untouchables) should unite to challenge caste discrimination.
  • The Satyashodhak Samaj association founded by Phule propagated caste equality.

Question 8.
Why did Phule dedicate his book Gulamgiri to the American movement to free slaves?
Answer:
Jyotirao Phule wrote a book in 1873. He named the book Gulamgiri meaning slavery. Some ten years before this, the American Civil War had been fought, leading to the end of slavery in America. Phule dedicated his book to all those Americans who had fought to free slaves. He did this in order to establish a link between the conditions of the lower castes in India and the black slaves in America.

Question 9.
What did Ambedkar want to achieve through the temple entry movement?
Answer:
Ambedkar was born into a Mahar family. In childhood, he experienced various forms of caste prejudices in his everyday life.

  • Ambedkar led three such movements for temple entry between 1927 and 1935.
  • His aim was to make everyone see the power of caste prejudices within society.

Question 10.
Why were Jyotirao Phule and Ramaswami Naicker critical of the national movement? Did their criticism help the national struggle in any way?
Answer:

  • Both Jyoti Rao Phule and Naicker were critical of national movement in their own times.
  • Jyoti Rao Phule was critical of nationalism preached by upper castes. He wrote that they give advice to Shudra, Muslim and Parsi youth to forget their differences and come together for progress of nation, later it will be “Me here and you over there” all over again.
  • E V Ramaswamy Naicker became member of Congress. But left it in disgust when he found out that at a feast, organised by nationalists, seating arrangement was based on caste distinctions.
  • Their assertions, forceful speeches and writings did lead to rethink and self-criticism among the upper caste nationalist leaders.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste, and Reform Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option.

(i) The Brahmo Samaj was founded by
(a) Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy
(c) Vivekananda
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(ii) The practice of Sati was banned in the year
(a) 1800
(b) 1821
(c) 1827
(d) 1829

(iii) A widow home was established at Poona by
(a) Tarabai Shinde
(b) Pandita Ramabai
(c) Mumtaz Ali
(d) Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

(iv) Peasants and artisans were referred to as
(a) Vaishyas
(b) Shudras
(c) Untouchables
(d) Kshatriyas

(v) Periyar founded
(a) Self Respect Movement
(b) Temple Entry Movement
(c) Paramhans Mandali
(d) Dalit Movement

(vi) The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was opened by
(a) Khizr Khan
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Sayyid Ahmed Khan
(d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Answer:
(i) (b), (ii) (d), (iii) (b), (iv) (b), (v) (a), (vi) (c).

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words to complete each sentence.

  1. According to the Child Marriage Restraint of ……….. and woman below the age of ………….. could marry.
  2. …………. were an important Act no man below the age untouchable caste of present-day Andhra Pradesh.
  3. Tarabai Shinde Published a book named …………..
  4. Raja Rammohun Roy was well versed in …………, …………… and several other Indian and European languages.
  5. The Satnami movement was founded by ……………. who belonged to a low caste family.
  6. In 1873, Jyotirao Phule wrote a Book Gulamgiri meaning …………………..
  7. The Begums of………….. played a vital role in promoting education among women.

Answer:

  1. 18, 16
  2. Madigas
  3. Stripurushtulna
  4. Sanskrit, Persian
  5. Ghasidas
  6. Slavery
  7. Bhopal

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is True or False.

  1. Raja Rammohun Roy founded the Arya Samaj in 1875.
  2. Pandita Ramabai was a great scholar of Sanskrit and she founded a widow’s home at Poona to provide shelter to widows.
  3. The Begums of Bhopal started schools for Muslim girls in Patna.
  4. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar strongly criticized widow remarriage.
  5. The Arya Samaj was an association that attempted to reform Hinduism.
  6. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker continued the movement for caste reform in the 20th century.
  7. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar is popularly known as Periyar.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. False
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True
  7. False

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column A correctly with those given in Column B.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform Exercise Questions Q1
Answer:
(i) (c), (ii) (a), (iii) (e),(iv) (b), (v) (d)

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste, and Reform Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are social reformers described so?
Answer:
Social reformers are described so because they felt that some changes were essential in society and unjust practices needed to be rooted out.

Question 2.
How did reformers bring changes in society?
Answer:
They brought changes in society by persuading people to give up old practices and adopt a new way of life. .

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘sad’?
Answer:
Widows who chose death by burning themselves on the funeral pyre of their husbands were known as ‘sati’, meaning virtuous woman.

Question 4.
Who was known as Vaishyas?
Answer:
Traders and moneylenders were known as Vaishyas.

Question 5.
Who was Raja Rammohun Roy?
Answer:
Raja Rammohun Roy was a learned social reformer. He was well versed in Sanskrit, Persian, and several other Indian and European languages. He raised voice against the practice of Sati and got it rooted out.

Question 6.
What was the hook swinging festival?
Answer:
It was a popular festival in which devotees underwent a peculiar form of suffering as part of ritual worship. With hooks pierced through their skin, they swung themselves on a wheel.

Question 7.
Who was Mumtaz Ali?
Answer:
Mumtaz Ali was a social reformer who reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for the education of women.

Question 8.
Who published the book named Stripurushtulna? What is it about?
Answer:
Tarabai Shinde published Stripuru-shtulna. It is about the social differences between men and women.

Question 9.
How did the widow’s home at Poona help the widows?
Answer:
It trained them so that they could manage financial support for themselves.

Question 10.
What was the contribution of Christian missionaries in spreading education among tribal groups and lower castes?
Answer:
These missionaries set up schools for tribal groups and lower caste children. Here, they were equipped with some skills to make their way into a new world.

Question 11.
Why do people view leather workers with contempt?
Answer:
Leatherworkers work with dead animals which are seen as dirty and polluting. Hence, people see them with contempt.

Question 12.
Who was Madigas?
Answer:
They were experts at cleaning hides, tanning them for use, and sewing sandals.

Question 13.
Who were Shudras?
Answer:
They belonged to laboring castes.

Question 14.
Who was Ati Shudras?
Answer:
They were untouchables.

Question 15.
What was the Satyashodhak Samaj? Who founded it?
Answer:
The Satyashodhak Samaj was an association that propagated caste equality. It was founded by Jyotirao Phule.

Question 16.
Why did E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker leave the Congress?
Answer:
He left the congress because he found nationalists adhering to caste distinctions. At a feast organised by them, the lower castes were made to sit at a distance from the upper castes.

Question 17.
Name the Hindu scriptures which were criticized by Periyar.
Answer:
The codes of Manu, the ancient lawgiver and the Bh^gavad Gita and the Ramayana.

Question 18.
Why were untouchable students not allowed to enter the classrooms where upper-caste boys were taught?
Answer:
There was a false notion among the upper-caste that untouchables would pollute the rooms where their children were taught.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste, and Reform Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What did Raja Rammohun Roy do to end the practice of sati?
Answer:
Raja Rammohun Roy was a great social reformer. He moved to see the tyranny of old practices that were deeply rooted in Indian society. Burning of widows on the funeral pyre of their husbands was one such old practice which, Rammohun Roy felt, needed to be rooted out immediately. He began a campaign against this.

As he had a deep knowledge of Sanskrit, Persian, and several other Indian and European languages, die tried to show through his writings that the practice of sati had no sanction in ancient texts. He got support from the British officials who had also begun to criticise Indian traditions and customs by the early 19th century. Finally, in 1829, the practice of Sati was banned.

Question 2.
Give an account of the movement that spread in different parts of the country in favour of widow remarriage. Did the movement get success?
Answer:
The movement in favour of widow remarriage spread in different parts of the country by the second half of the 19th century. Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage in the Telugu- speaking areas of the Madras Presidency. Around the same time young intellectuals and reformers in Bombay pledged themselves to work for the same cause.

In the north the founder of the Arya Samaj Swami Dayanand Saraswati also supported widow remarriage. However, the movement did not get much success. The number of widows who actually remarried remained low. Those who remarried were not easily accepted in the society. The conservative people never approved the new law.

Question 3.
What do you know about Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai? What did they do for improving the condition of women?
Answer:
Tarabai Shindewas a woman who got an education at home at Poona. She is better known for publishing a book named Stripurushtulna meaning a comparison between women and men. She, in this book, criticises the social differences between men and women. Pandita Ramabai was a great scholar of Sanskrit.

She found Hinduism very oppressive towards women and wrote a book about the pathetic condition of Hindu women belonging to the upper caste. She started a widow’s home at Poona to provide shelter to widows who had been maltreated by their husband’s relatives. Here women were given the training to make them self-dependent.

Question 4.
Give a brief description of movements that were organised by people from within the lower castes against caste discrimination.
Answer:
By the second half of the 19th century, people from within the lower castes began to raise voice against caste discrimination. They organised movements against this practice and demanded social equality and justice. The Satnami movement became famous in Central India. It was initiated by Ghasidas, who came from a low caste, worked among the leather workers, and organised a movement to improve their social status. In Eastern Bengal, Haridas Thakur’s Matua sect worked among low caste Chandala cultivators. Haridas questioned Brahmanical texts that supported caste discrimination. Shri Narayana Guru belonged to Ezhavas, a low caste in present-day Kerala. He proclaimed the ideals unity of all people within one sect, a single caste and one god. By organising these movements the leaders coming from low-caste tried to create awareness amongst the lower castes.

Question 5.
Who was E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker? What, did he do to improve the condition of the untouchables?
Answer:
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker belonged to a middle-class family. He had been an ascetic in his early life and had studied Sanskrit scriptures carefully. Afterward, he became a member of Congress but quit it when he found that at a feast organised by nationalists, seating arrangements followed caste discrimination, i.e. the lower castes were made to sit at a distance from the upper-castes. He founded the Self Respect Movement which inspired untouchables to fight for their dignity. He argued that untouchables were the true upholders of an original Tamil and Dravidian culture which had been subjugated by Brahmans. He felt that all religious authorities saw social divisions and inequality as God-given. Untouchables had to free themselves from all religions to achieve equal social status.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste, and Reform Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why were changes necessary in Indian society?
Answer:
Indian society had been a prey to many evil practices for a long time. Men and women were treated differently. Women were subjected to many restrictions. They were not allowed to go to schools. They were not allowed to choose their husbands. Child-marriage was an established custom in the society. Most children were married off at an early age. Both Hindu and Muslim men could many more than one wife. In some parts of the country, sati was in practice. Those widows were praised who chose death by burning themselves on the funeral pyre of their husbands. Women’s rights to property were also restricted.

One more evil practice that had crippled Indian society was that all people did not enjoy equal status. The upper-caste consisted of Brahmans and Kshatriyas, availed all privileges. But other than these people were subjected to exploitation. The untouchables, who did menial works, were considered polluting. They were not allowed to enter temples, draw water from the well used by the upper castes. They were seen as inferior human beings.

These evil customs and practices had eclipsed the progress of society. Hence, debates and discussions began to take place from the early 19th century, with the development of new forms of communications. For the first time, books, newspapers, magazines, leaflets and pamphlets were printed. They spread awareness among the common mass.
Social reformers like Raja Rammohun Roy, Ishwarchander Vidyasagar, came forward and took initiatives to bring changes in society by abolishing the evil practices one after Another.

Question 2.
How did women involve themselves in their upliftment?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, Indian women themselves began to work for their upliftment. They began to get higher education in universities. Some of them trained to be doctors, some became teachers. Many women began to write and publish their critical views on the status of women in society. The name of Tarabai Shinde is worth mentioning here. She got an education at home at Poona. She published a book, Stripurushtulna, meaning a comparison between men and women. She criticised the social differences between men and women. Another woman, Pandita Ramabai, was a great scholar of Sanskrit.

She criticised Hinduism which was so oppressive towards women. She wrote a book about the miserable lives of upper-caste Hindu women. She established a widow home at Poona to provide shelter to widows who had been ill-treated in their families. From the early 20 th century, Muslim women such the Begums of Bhopal and Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain played an active role in spreading education among Muslim girls. They founded schools for them. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossairi fearlessly criticised the conservative ideas. She argued that religious leaders of every faith accorded an inferior position to women.

The orthodox Hindus and Muslims got alarmed to see all this. Several Hindu nationalists felt that Hindu women were adopting Western ways which would corrupt Hindu culture and erode family values. Orthodox Muslims were equally worried about the impact of these changes. Unaware of all these, women, from the early 20th century, began to form political associations, pressure groups to push through laws for female suffrage and better health care and education for them. Some of them even joined various kinds of nationalist and socialist movements from the 1920s.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste, and Reform Source-Based Questions

Question 1.
Read the following extract (Sources 1 and 4) taken from the NCERT textbook and answer the questions that follow:
“We first tie them down to the pile”
Rammohun Roy published many pamphlets to spread his ideas. Some of these were written as a dialogue between the advocate and critic of a traditional practice. Here is one such dialogue on sati:

An advocate of Sati:
Women are by nature of inferior understanding, without resolution, unworthy of trust … Many of them, on the death of their husbands, become desirous of accompanying them; but to remove every chance of their trying to escape from the blazing fire, in burning them we first tie them down to the pile.

Opponent of Sati:
When did you ever afford them a fair opportunity of exhibiting their natural capacity? How then can you accuse them of want of understanding? If, after instruction in knowledge and wisdom, a person cannot comprehend or retain what has been taught him, we may consider him as deficient; but if you do not educate women how can you see them as inferior.

Questions:
(a) What notions did the society have in favour of the practice of sati?
(b) What arguments did the reformers put against the practice of sati?
Answers:
(a) The society believed women to be of inferior understanding without resolution and unworthy of trust. So, she was not allowed to live without her husband. Therefore, she was forced to be inflamed with the body of her husband after his death.
(b) The reformers accused the society of not recognising women’s potentialities. They said that the society had never bothered to educate women and had always neglected them. So, it was quite unjustified to call them inferior and untrustworthy.

Question 2.
“We are also human beings”
In 1927, Ambedkar said:
We now want to go to the Tank only to prove that like others, we are also human beings … Hindu society should be reorganised on two main principles – equality and absence of casteism.

Questions:
(a) Who was Ambedkar?
(b) On what basis did he wish Hindu society to be reorganised?
Answers:
(a) Ambedkar was a Dalit leader. He belonged to a Mahar family. He did a lot for the upliftment of the condition of Dalits.
(b) He wished Hindu society to be reorganised on the basis of two principles – equality and absence of casteism.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste, and Reform Picture-Based Questions

Question 1.
Observe the pictures below taken from is NCERT textbook and answer the questions that follow:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform Picture Based Questions Q1

Questions:
(i) This is a picture of a child bride at the beginning of the 20th century. Which Act was passed to prevent child marriage and when?
(ii) What did the Act mention?
Answers:
(i) In 1929, the Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed to prevent this practice.
(ii) According to the Act no man below the age of 18 and a woman below the age of 16 could marry.

Question 2.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform Picture Based Questions Q2
Questions:
(i) Who are these people? What are they doing in the picture?
(ii) What did they do for upper-caste landowners?
Answers:
(i) These people are Dublas of Gujarat. In the picture, they are carrying mangoes to the market.
(ii) Dublas did hard work for upper-caste landowners. They cultivated their lands and worked at a variety of odd jobs at the landowner’s house.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(i) Which are the two main climatic factors responsible for soil formation?
(ii) Write any two reasons for land degradation today.
(iii) Why is land considered an important resource?
(iv) Name any two steps that the government has taken to conserve plants and animals.
(v) Suggest three ways to conserve water.
Answer.
(i) Temperature and rainfall are two main climatic factors responsible for soil formation. Rainfall contributes in breaking the rocks by applying pressure. Temperature fluctuations between hot and cold also form cracks in the rocks.

(ii) Reasons for land degradation are:

  • Ever-growing demand of the growing population
  • Destruction of forest‘cover

(iii) Land is an important resource because it provides surface for agriculture, living, forestry, industries, construction, etc. Most activities take place on land.

(iv) Steps taken by the government include establishment of natural parks and wildlife sanctuaries in different parts of India. Their purpose is conservation of vegetation and wildlife, respectively.

(v) Three ways to conserve water are as under:

  • Rainwater harvesting: It is a method of collecting water while it rains so that it may come of use in the future.
  • The canals used for irrigation should be properly built so that loss of water does not take place while the water is transported to the field.
  • In dry regions, drip or trickle irrigation is suggested.

Question 2.
Tick the correct answer.
(i) Which one of the following is NOT a factor of soil formation?
(a) time
(b) soil texture
(c) organic matter

(ii) Which one of the following methods is most appropriate to check soil erosion on steep slopes?
(a) shelter belts
(b) mulching
(c) terrace cultivation

(iii) Which one of the following is NOT in favour of the conservation of nature?
(a) switch off the bulb when not in use
(b) close the tap immediately after using
(c) dispose polypacks after shopping
Answer.
(i) (b), (ii) (c), (iii) (c).

Question 3.
Match the followings:
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Q3
Answer.
(i) (c), (ii) (d), (iii) (a), (iv) (b).

Question 4.
State whether the given statement is true or false. If true, write the reasons.

  1. Ganga-Brahmaputra plain of India is an overpopulated region.
  2. Water availability per person in India is declining.
  3. Rows of trees planted in the coastal areas to check the wind movement is called intercropping.
  4. Human interference and changes of climate can maintain the ecosystem.

Answer.

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. False

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions Choose the correct option.
(i) Which of these resources covers about three-fourths of the total surface of earth?
(a) land
(b) soil
(c) air
(d) water

(ii) What are low-lying areas very susceptible to?
(a) earthquakes
(b) landslides
(c) flooding
(d) tsunamis

(iii) Which of these physical features are best suited for living?
(a) plains and river valleys
(b) mountains
(c) deserts
(d) lakes and rivers

(iv) Which of these is example of community land?
(a) the Sunderban forests
(b) a bungalow
(c) the Parliament House
(d) none of these

(v) What is the majority of land in India used for?
(a) cultivation
(b) pasture
(c) forests
(d) none of these

(vi) Which of these countries is mainly covered with forest land?
(a) India
(b) Brazil
(c) USA
(d) both b and c

( vii) Due to what feature is ocean water unfit for human consumption?
(a) poisonous
(b) salinity
(c) water temperature
(d) none of these
Answer:
(i)(d), (ii)(c), (iii)(a), (iv)(a), (v)(a), (vi)(d), (vii)(b).

Question 2.
Fill in the blank spaces given to complete each sentence.

  1. The percentage of fresh water on …………..
  2. The process responsible for soil formation is called ……………
  3. Private land is owned‘by a fan ………………
  4. The grainy layer on land is called …………….
  5. Soil becomes fertile due to the right mix of …………… and ……….
  6. The colour, texture, etc of soil is determined by ……………….
  7. Climate factors influencing rate of weathering include and …………….
  8. ………….. is the growing of different crops in alternate rows.
  9. 70% of fresh water exists as ……………..

Answer:

  1. 2.7
  2. weathering,
  3. individual
  4. soil
  5. minerals, organic matter
  6. parent rock
  7. rainfall, temperature
  8. intercropping
  9. ice sheets.

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).

  1. The land has similar features all over the surface of the earth.
  2. Plains and valleys are densely populated because of soil fertility.
  3. Population and technology are important factors that determine land use pattern.
  4. The growing population is not a cause of soil erosion.
  5. Topography and organic material affect the soil composition of soil.
  6. Time affects the rate of humus formation during the process of soil formation.
  7. The earth is called the water planet because of the large amount of water available over it.
  8. Africa and West Asia are areas facing serious water scarcity.
  9. Forest and other vegetation promote surface run-off.
  10. The convention, CITES, lists species which should not be traded.

Answer.

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True
  7. True
  8. True
  9. False
  10. True

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column I correctly with those given in Column II.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Exercise Questions Q4
Answer.
(i) (c), (ii) (a), (iii) (e), (iv) (b), (v) (d), (vi) (f).

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the possible reasons behind the uneven distribution of population around the world?
Answer.
The reasons behind uneven population distribution are mainly the varied conditions of land and climate.

Question 2.
Give three common forms of land use.
Answer.
Three common land use forms are: (i) As cropland, (ii) Pasture, (iii) Forests.

Question 3.
What human factors determine land use pattern?
Answer.
Human factors affecting land use pattern are population and technology.

Question 4.
Define soil.
Answer.
The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

Question 5.
What is required to make soil fertile?
Answer.
The right mix of minerals and organic matter is needed to make soil fertile.

Question 6.
What is parent rock?
Answer.
The rock from which soil is derived is called parent rock.

Question 7.
What are the factors threatening soil as a resource?
Answer.
Two factors that threaten soil as a resource are soil erosion and its depletion.

Question 8.
What method of soil conservation may be used in coastal and dry reqions?
Answer.
Shelter belts are used to protect the soil in coastal and dry regions.

Question 9.
Why is the earth called the “water planet”?
Answer.
The earth’s surface has about three- fourths water, so it is called “water planet”.

Question 10.
In what forms is fresh water found on the earth?
Answer.
Fresh water is found in the forms of groundwater, water in rivers and lakes, and water vapour.

Question 11 .
What is the name given to the process involved in rain formation?
Answer.
The process involved in the formation of rain is called “water cycle”.

Question 12.
Name some regions of water scarcity in the world.
Answer.
Africa, West Asia, South Asia, parts of western USA, northwest Mexico, parts of South America, and Australia face water scarcity.

Question 13.
Name a method to save surface run-off.
Answer.
Water harvesting is a method to save surface run-off.

Question 14.
How is a bird like vulture important for the ecosystem?
Answer.
A vulture feeds on dead livestock and so it cleanses the environment.

Question 15.
What is the distinguishing feature between evergreen and deciduous forests?
Answer.
Evergreen forests never shed their leaves whereas deciduous forests shed their leaves once a year.

Question 16.
What is the Vanamahotsava?
Answer.
The social programme of planting trees, organized at the community level is called vanamahotsava.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is land being degraded? Suggest methods to conserve land resource.
Answer.
The ever-growing population has increased demand for living space, due to which forests are being destroyed, thus causing land degradation. The rate of degradation of land resources can be checked by promoting afforestation, land reclamation, regulated use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers, and checking to overgraze.

Question 2.
What is weathering?
Answer.
Weathering refers to the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks. This breaking up and decay are caused by temperature fluctuations between too high and too low, frost action, plants, animals, and even human activity. Weathering is the major process involved in the formation of soil. It takes millions of years to form soil by this process.

Question 3.
How is water an important resource?
Answer.
Water is an indispensable resource of life. Firstly water serves the most basic purpose of drinking, without which life is impossible. It is helpful in cleaning our bodies, clothes, and utensils. Farmers depend on water for irrigation. Water is also used in cooking food. Water is a source of electricity as well. Plants require water for their growth. Water is required for various industrial purposes in factories.

Question 4.
Write a short note on wildlife.
Answer.
The animal kingdom, which consists
of animals, birds, aquatic creatures and insects, is called wildlife. These creatures provide us various important products such as milk, meat, hides, and wool. Bees give us honey and help in pollination. They play the role of decomposers in the environment. Birds like the vulture are scavengers and they help in cleansing the environment. All forms of wildlife are an integral part of our ecosystem.

Question 5.
What are the major types of vegetation in the world? Describe vegetation in different rainfall conditions.
Answer.
The major types of vegetation in the world are grouped as forests, grasslands, scrubs and tundra.” In areas of heavy rain, huge trees can be found. Forests are abundant in areas of heavy rainfall. With moisture and rainfall the density of forests declines. In moderate rainfall areas, grasslands are found. In diy areas, we find thorny shrubs and scrubs. Plants here have deep roots and leaves have thorny surface to reduce loss of moisture. The tundra vegetation consists of mosses and lichens.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe methods of soil conservation.
Answer.
Some common methods of soil conservation are mentioned below: Mulching. Mulching is the process of covering the bare ground between plants with a layer of organic matter like straw. It contributes in retaining soil moisture.

Terrace Farming. Terrace farming is the method of farming in which broad flat steps or terraces are made on the steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops 4 They reduce run-off and soil erosion. Intercropping. In intercropping, different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from being washed away by rain.
Contour Ploughing. Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down a slope is called contour ploughing.

Shelter Belts. Rows of trees that are planted in certain areas to check wind movement are called shelter belts. Contour Barriers. Stones, grass, and soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.
Rock Dams. This prevents gullies and further soil loss since rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. Q.2. What is the threat to vegetation and wildlife? What is the need to conserve them? How can we do this? [V. Imp.] Ans. Forests and wildlife are an important resource. Climate change and human interferences in the animal kingdom can cause loss of natural habitat for plants and animals. Certain species have become endangered and many have become extinct now.

Poaching incidents contribute to their extinction. Plants and animals are an important part of the ecosystem. Plants provide food, oxygen and shelter to humans and animals. Animals provide us important products such as milk, meat, honey, etc. There exists a balance in the environment if we do not disturb the natural number of species living on the earth. A single extinction can affect the ecosystem badly. So animals and plants obviously need to be conserved. The government has introduced national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves for this purpose. Poaching should be severely dealt with. Indiscriminate killings need to be discouraged. Social awareness must be created about the importance of trees, social forestry. Students should be involved in vanamahotsavas at regional and community levels.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resources

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(i) Why are resources distributed unequally over the earth?
(ii) What is resource development?
(iii) Why are human resources important?
(iv) What is sustainable development?
Answer.
(i) Resources are distributed unequally over the’earth because of the different natural conditions, and physical factors like terrain, climate and altitude.

(ii) Resource development is the method of utilising our intelligence in order to improve the quality, usability and utility of a resource.

(iii) Human resources are important because the development of other resources solely depends upon this resource as humans have knowledge, skill, and technology to develop other resources.

(iv) We should use resources in such a balanced way that we satisfy our needs as well as conserve them for the future. This concept is called sustainable development.

Question 2.
Tick the correct answer.
(i) Which one of the following does not make a substance a resource?
(a) utility
(b) value
(c) quantity

(ii) Which one of the following is a human-made resource?
(a) medicines to treat cancer
(b) spring water
(c) tropical forests

(iii) Complete the statement. Biotic resources are
(a) derived from living beings.
(b) made by human beings.
(c) derived from non-living things.
Answer.
(i) (c), (ii) (a), (iii) (a).

Question 3.
Differentiate between the following.
(a) Potential and actual resources
(b) Ubiquitous and localised resources
Answer.
(a)
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resources Q3
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resources Q3.1

Question 4.
Activity
“Rahiman paani raakhiye,
Bin paani sab soon.
Paani gaye na ubere Mod, manus, choon…”
[Says Rahim, keep water, as without water there is nothing. Without water pearl, swan and dough cannot exist.] These lines were written by the poet Abdur Rahim Khankhanam, one of the nine gems of Akbar’s court. What kind of resource is the poet referring to? Write in 100 words what would happen if this resource disappeared?
Answer.
The resource referred to by the poet is the water. It is one of the most indispensable resources of life. It can be said to be one of the preconditions of life, like air. Firstly, water serves the most basic purpose of drinking, without which life is not possible. In the absence of water, one would be unable to clean clothes, utensils, or even take a bath. Farmers depend on water for irrigation. Rainwater is so important for proper agriculture. Water is also used in cooking food. Nowadays water has proved to be a useful source of electricity. Besides human beings, plants require water for their growth. Water is also required for various industrial purposes in factories. In short, no form of life can go on without water.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option.
(i) Which of these is not a resource?
(a) the Indian Prime Minister
(b) your Geography book
(c) a small piece of paper
(d) none of these

(ii) Which of these does not have economic worth but is valuable?
(a) shoes
(b) mountains
(c) coal
(d) none of these

(iii) The types of resources on basis of stock are
(a) ubiquitous and localised
(b) actual and potential
(c) renewable and non-renewable
(d) abiotic and biotic

(iv) Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) solar energy
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) natural gas

(v) Which of these is an example of sustainable development?
(a) ignoring the lights when they are switched on but not required
(b) not wasting paper
(c) using coal and petroleum deposits at a fast pace
(d) none of these
Answer.
(i) (d), (ii) (b), (iii) (c), (iv) (d), (v) (b).

Question 2.
Fill in the blank spaces given to complete each sentence.

  1. A substance becomes a resource if it has …………..
  2. ………….. and …………. are two important factors which make a substance a resource.
  3. On the basis of the level of development, resources are classified into ……………. and …………..
  4. An actual resource to crazy might have been a ……………. resource some time ago.
  5. Windmills generate …………..energy which is a resource because it will never end up.
  6. Although renewable resources can be replenished, we should be …………… regarding their use.
  7. Coal and petroleum are examples of ………….. resources.
  8. Air is a ubiquitous resource since it is found ………………..
  9. Physical factors affecting the presence of a localised resource are …………….., ………………, and ……………
  10. Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called ………………..

Answer.

  1. utility
  2. time, technology
  3. actual, potential
  4. potential
  5. wind, renewable
  6. careful
  7. non-renewable
  8. everywhere
  9. terrain, altitude, climate
  10. resource conservation.

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).

  1. We should wastewater since it is a renewable resource and we do not need to be careful in its use.
  2. A resource always has the same economic value.
  3. With respect to electricity, water was a potential resource until a few years back.
  4. All natural sources of energy are renewable.
  5. A farmer is a human resource.
  6. Resources need to be conserved for future generations.
  7. Sustainable development is a way to use resources carefully as well as saving them for the future.

Answer.

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True
  7. True.

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column I correctly with those given in Column II.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resources Exercise Questions Q4
Answer:
(i) (d), (ii) (a), (iii) (e), (iv) (b), (v) (c).

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the condition for a substance to be called a resource?
Answer:
A substance needs to have some utility to be called a resource.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the word “utility”?
Answer:
If a substance can be used in any way, it is said to have a utility.

Question 3.
What are the natural resources?
Answer:
Resources that are drawn directly from nature are called natural resources.

Question 4.
What is the name given to the type of resources that have limited stock?
Answer:
The resources having limited stock are called non-renewable resources.

Question 5.
How are resources classified according to their distribution?
Answer:
On the basis of their distribution, resources are classified into ubiquitous and localised.

Question 6.
Give three examples of abiotic resources.
Answer:
Air, land, soils.

Question 7.
How are human-made resources different from natural resources?
Answer:
Human-made resources have been created by human beings, whereas natural resources are provided by nature.

Question 8.
What is human resource development?
Answer.
Improving the quality of human skills in order to make them more useful is called human resource development.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the terms of resource conservation and sustainable development.
Answer.
Resource conservation is the concept of using resources carefully so that they do not end up quickly. The future generations also need the resources, but if we keep using them at a fast pace, they may end up, thus posing problems for the future. We should use resources in such a balanced way that we satisfy our needs as well as conserve them for the future. This concept is called sustainable development.

Question 2.
Why are human beings resources?
Answer.
Human beings are intelligent living beings. They can use their intelligence to realise the utility of substances. Had there been no humans, the resources would not have been resources. Human beings are interdependent on each other, and they prove useful to each other. For example, a postman renders us an important service, so he is a resource.

Question 3.
Explain how resources are classified broadly.
Answer.
Resources are broadly classified into natural, human-made and human. Natural resources are those that are taken from nature. They are used without modifying them, i.e. in the same form as they exist in. Rivers, lakes, air, soils, minerals, trees, mountains, etc. are natural resources. Human-made resources have not been provided to us by nature. Human beings have used their intelligence to manufacture them for their own use. Examples include vehicles, buildings, roads, telephones, etc.
Human resources include people who serve us in any way. A teacher, doctor, carpenter, cobbler, etc. are human resources.

Question 4.
Write a short note on the significance of time and technology in making a substance a resource.
Answer.
Time and technology are important factors in making substances resources. With time, technology develops. As technology develops, we begin to discover new ways to make life better. In this process, certain substances which were useless to us earlier become useful. An invention and discovery give us new resources. An example is a hydroelectricity. This technology has made water a source of electricity.

Question 5.
As human beings, how can we ensure sustainable development?
Answer.
Since we live on the earth, it is our duty to practice sustainable development. We can do this by ensuring that:

  • The usage of renewable resources is sustainable,
  • The diversity of life on earth is maintained,
  • The damage caused to nature by our activities is’as Tow as possible.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe how resources are classified.
Answer.
Resources are broadly classified into natural, human-made, and human. Natural resources are those that are taken from nature. They are used without modifying them, i.e. in the same form as they exist in. Rivers, lakes, air, soils, minerals, trees, mountains, etc. are natural resources. Human-made resources have not been provided to us by nature. Human beings have used their intelligence to manufacture them for their own use. Examples include vehicles, buildings, roads, telephones, etc.
Human resources include people who serve us in any way. A teacher, doctor, carpenter, cobbler, etc are human resources.

On the basis of level of development, a resource can be actual or potential. An actual resource is one which is used currently. We know their quantity. A potential resource is one whose utility is not known at present or is not used despite having utility; instead, it may be useful at some time in the future. It means that it has the potential to have utility, although it does not have any today.

On the basis of origin, a resource can be abiotic or biotic. Abiotic resource is one that has life. Anabiotic resource is non-living. Natural resources may also be classified as renewable and non¬renewable. A renewable resource can be used without any risk of its ending up. They exist in unlimited quantities. On the other hand, the use of non-renewable resources needs to be controlled since once they end up, they cannot be renewed.

On the basis of distribution, a resource can be ubiquitous or localised. A ubiquitous resource is found everywhere. A localised resource is however found in certain parts of the world only.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(i) Name any three common minerals used by you every day.
(ii) What is an ore? Where are the ores of metallic minerals generally located?
(iii) Name two regions rich in natural gas resources.
(iv) Which sources of energy would you suggest for
(a) rural areas (b) coastal areas (c) arid regions
(v) Give five ways in which you can save energy at home.
Answer:
(i) Three common minerals used by us in day-to-day life are copper, iron and salt.

(ii) Ore is the raw me tat-found in the earth mixed with other materials or impurities.
They are generally located in igneous or metamorphic rocks.

(iii) Two regions in India rich in natural gas resources are Jaisalmer and Krishna-Godavari delta.

(iv) (a) For rural areas, solar energy and wind energy are feasible options. There aren’t many high-rise buildings to act as an obstacle for sunlight or to break the momentum of wind. ”
(b) For coastal areas, wind energy and tidal energy are good choices.
(c) For arid regions, wind energy and solar energy are feasible, for reasons similar to rural areas.

(v) Five ways in which one can save energy at home:

  • Promoting the use of solar energy as much as possible.
  • Using biogas as cooking fuel.
  • Drying clothes in sunlight instead of electric dryers to prevent emissions and unnecessary use of electricity.
  • Avoiding misuse of electricity; switching off fans and lights when not required.
  • Using pressure cookers for cooking.

Question 2.
Tick the correct Answer:
(i) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of minerals?
(a) They are created by natural processes.
(b) They have a definite chemical composition.
(c) They are inexhaustible.
(d) Their distribution is uneven.

(ii) Which one of the following is not a producer of mica?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Andhra Pradesh

(iii) Which one of the following is a leading producer of copper in the world?
(a) Bolivia
(b) Ghana
(c) Chile
(d) Zimbabwe

(iv) Which one of the following practices will not conserve LPG in your kitchen?
(a) Soaking the dal for some time before cooking it.
(b) Cooking food in a pressure cooker.
(c) Keeping the vegetables chopped before lighting the gas for cooking.
(d) Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame.
Answer:
(i) (c), (ii) (b), (iii) (c), (iv) (d).

Question 3.
Give reasons.
(i) Environmental aspects must be carefully looked into before building huge dams.
(ii) Most industries are concentrated around coal mines.
(iii) Petroleum is referred to as “black gold”.
(iv) Quarrying can become a major environmental concern.
Answer:
(i)

  • Because of the following reasons:
  • Dams create an imbalance in the earth’s equilibrium.
  • Deforestation leads to environmental pollution.
  • People are displaced.
  • Cities/villages/towns are shifted causing untold hardships to people.
  • Flood threats loom large.
  • Earthquake threats.
  • Silting of lakes a problem.

(ii) Presence of coal mines around industries reduces the costs of transportation and also ensures easy availability of fuel.
(iii) Petroleum is a very valuable fossil fuel. It is used for running all types of machinery, transport vehicles, from a bicycle to an aeroplane.
(iv) After quarrying, pits are not covered so they may cause environmental hazards.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the following.
(i) Conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
(ii) Biogas and natural gas.
(iii) Ferrous and non-ferrous minerals
(iv) Metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
(i)
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources Q4

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources Q4.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources Q4.2

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources Q4.3

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option.
(i) Which of these is a non-metallic mineral?
(a) Iron ore
(b) Bauxite
(c) Limestone
(d) Manganese ore

(ii) Which continent produces more than half of the world’s tin?
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) South America

(iii) Which continent is the leading producer of iron ore in the world?
(a) North America
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia

(iv) Which state is a major bauxite producing area?
(a) Goa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Tamil Nadu

(v) What is the name given to the electricity produced from coal?
(a) Nuclear power
(b) Thermal power
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) None of these

(vi) Which of these is a conventional source?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Natural gas
(d) All of these

(vii) Which of these is called buried sunshine?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Coal
(c) Solar energy
(d) Tidal energy

Answer:
(i) (c), (ii) (b), (iii) (c), (iv) (b), (v) (b), (vi) (d), (vii) (b).

Question 2.
Fill in the blank spaces given to complete each sentence.

  1. Metallic minerals are classified into …………….. and ………….
  2. Gold and silver are …………. minerals.
  3. Minerals can be extracted by ………….,…………., or …………
  4. Deep bores dug to reach mineral deposits are called …………
  5. Metallic minerals are generally found in ……….. and…………..rock formations.
  6. The mineral deposits in North America have located in three zones: …………… the Appalachian region and the mountain ranges of the West.
  7. …………… is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
  8. …………. is the most abundantly available fossil fuel.
  9. Petroleum is drilled from ………
  10. Bhakra Nangal is an important …………….. station in India.
  11. …………… and……… are radioactive metals.

Answer:

  1. ferrous, non-ferrous
  2. non-ferrous
  3. mining, drilling, quarrying
  4. shafts
  5. igneous, metamorphic
  6. the Canadian region north of the Great Lakes
  7. Australia
  8. Coal
  9. Oil fields
  10. hydel power
  11. Uranium, thorium.

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).

  1. All ores are rocks but all rocks are not minerals.
  2. Quarrying is good for the environment.
  3. Mineral fuels like coal and petroleum are found in sedimentary strata.
  4. Coal is more predominant in the Canadian Shield Region than the Appalachians.
  5. Chile and Peru are leading producers of copper.
  6. Kolar in Karnataka has large deposits of silver.
  7. Copper is an element used in almost everything.
  8. Bauxite is the ore of aluminium.
  9. Nuclear power can be produced from the nuclei of most elements.

Answer:

  1. Ture
  2. False
  3. Ture
  4. False
  5. True
  6. False
  7. True
  8. True
  9. False

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column I correctly with those given in Column II.
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Minerals and Power Resources Exercise Questions Q4
Answer:
(i) (d), (ii) (a), (iii) (b), (iv) (c), (v) (e).

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between a rock and an ore.
Answer:
A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. An ore is a rock from which minerals are mined.

Question 2.
Define quarrying.
Answer:
Quarrying is a process of extraction in which minerals lying near the surface are simply dugout.

Question 3.
Name the leading tin producers in Asia.
Answer:
China, Malaysia, and Indonesia are leading tin producers in Asia.

Question 4.
Name two areas in Australia, which have large deposits of gold.
Answer:
Two areas in Western Australia having large deposits of gold are Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

Question 5.
Name two minerals in whose production India contributes a significant part.
Answer:
India has vast deposits of high-grade iron ore, and it is also a leading producer of salt.

Question 6.
In which industry is silicon important? From which ore is it obtained?
Answer:
Silicon is important in the computer industry. It is obtained from quartz.

Question 7.
Why are minerals considered non-renewable?
Answer:
Minerals take thousands of years to form. The rate of formation is much smaller than the rate of consumption. So we classify them as non-renewable.

Question 8.
Why is coal called “buried sunshine”?
Answer:
Coal is called “buried sunshine” because it is found buried under the earth, and is as important a source of energy as sunshine.

Question 9.
Why are petroleum and its derivatives called “black gold”?
Answer:
Petroleum and its derivatives are black in colour but as valuable as gold, so we refer to it as “black gold”.

Question 10.
What is natural gas?
Answer:
Natural gas is a fossil fuel obtained with petroleum deposits in oil fields.

Question 11.
Which was the first country to develop hydroelectricity?
Answer:
Norway was the first country to develop hydroelectricity.

Question 12.
Name some important hydel power stations in India.
Answer:
Bhakra Nangal, Gandhi Sagar, Nagaijunasagar, and Damodar Valley Projects are important hydel power stations in India.

Question 13.
Name nuclear power stations in India.
Answer:
Kalpakkam, Tarapur, Ranapratap Sagar, Narora, and Kaiga are the nuclear power stations in India.

Question 14.
Give one advantage of biogas over natural gas.
Answer:
Biogas is a renewable source of energy whereas the amount of natural gas is limited.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name and describe briefly methods of extraction.
Answer:
Mining, drilling, and quarrying are methods of extraction. Mining is a process of extraction of taking out minerals from rocks under the earth’s surface.

  1. Opencast mining: In this, minerals lying at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer.
  2. Shaft mining: In this, deep bores (called shafts) are made to reach mineral deposits lying at large depths.
  3. Drilling: In this, deep wells are bored to take out minerals.
  4. Quarrying: It is the process of extraction in which minerals lying very close to the surface are extracted just by digging them out.

Question 2.
Where are minerals found?
Answer:
Minerals are found in different types of rocks. Metallic minerals are usually found in igneous and metamorphic rocks that form large plateaus. Examples: iron ore is found in north Sweden, copper, and nickel in Canada. In igneous and metamorphic rocks in South Africa, iron, nickel, chromites, and platinum are found. Non-metallic minerals are found in sedimentary rock formations. Limestone deposits are found in France. Mineral fuels such as coal and petroleum are found in sedimentary strata.

Question 3.
Describe the mineral distribution in North America.
Answer:
The mineral deposits in North America are found in three zones: the Canadian region in the north of the Great Lakes, the Appalachian region, and the Rocky Mountains in the West. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium, and copper are mined in the Canadian Shield Region, coal in the Appalachian region. Western Cordilleras have vast deposits of copper, lead, zinc, gold, and silver.

Question 4.
Write common uses of minerals.
Answer:
Minerals are important in many industries. Minerals used in gems are usually very hard. These are then set in varying styles of jewellery. Iron and copper are metals used in almost everything. Copper is present in everything from coins to pipes and electricity wires. Silicon, obtained from the mineral quartz, is the base of the computer industry. Aluminium, obtained from bauxite ore, and its alloys are used in aeroplanes due to their lightweight. Aluminium is also used in kitchen cookware.

Question 5.
How is hydroelectricity, produced?
Answer:
Hydroelectricity is produced from the energy possessed by water falling from great heights. River water is stored in dams. When rainwater or river waterfalls from heights, it flows over turbine blades placed at the bottom of the dam. The moving blades are connected to a generator which produces electricity from this energy. This electricity is called hydroelectricity. The water discharged after its production is used for irrigation.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name and describe some non- conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Non-conventional power sources are those power sources that have come into use recently due to the depleting conventional resources and growing awareness. Solar energy, wind energy, geothermal energy, nuclear power, and tidal energy are examples of non- conventional power sources.

Solar energy is the heat and light energy captured from the sun. Solar cells help to convert this energy to electricity. Solar energy is used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers, etc.

Wind energy is the energy possessed by moving air (wind). Windmills are used to convert wind energy to electricity. Wind farms having clusters of windmills located in coastal regions and mountain passes.

Nuclear power is the energy possessed by the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium-, thorium, etc.

Geothermal energy is the heat energy obtained from the inside of the earth. The temperature inside the earth increases as we go deeper. This heat is used to produce electricity. It is accessed in the form of hot springs. Tidal energy is the energy generated from tides. It is harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea.

Biogas is a gaseous fuel obtained from the decomposition of organic waste like dead plant and animal material or animal dung and kitchen waste. It is an excellent fuel for cooking and lighting and is environment-friendly.

Question 2.
Write the advantages and dis¬advantages of non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Advantages:

  1. Non-conventional sources of energy are usually inexhaustible. They do not pollute the environment.
  2. Nuclear power is emitted in large amounts.
  3. Most non-conventional sources of energy cost less.
  4. These forms of energy are safe to use and clean.

Disadvantages:

  1. Windmills are costly to set up. So using them to harness wind energy is costly, even though the electricity generated from it is cheap.
  2. Setting up windmills disturbs radio and TV broadcasts.
  3. Harnessing tidal energy destroys the natural habitats of wildlife.
  4. Moreover, tidal energy is difficult to harness.
  5. Obtaining nuclear energy from radioactive material generates radioactive waste. It is expensive too.
  6. Biogas, although useful and renew¬able, contributes to the greenhouse effect.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(i) What is agriculture?
(ii) Name the factors influencing agriculture.
(iii) What is shifting cultivation? What are its disadvantages?
(iv) What is plantation agriculture?
(v) Name the fibre crops and name the climatic conditions required for their growth.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture is the primary activity that involves the cultivation of crops, fruits, vegetables, flowers and rearing of livestock.

(ii) Factors influencing agriculture include the topography of soil and climate.

(iii) Shifting cultivation is the type of farming in which agricultural activities are shifted from one field to another when the fertility of the soil of the former is diminished
Disadvantages:

  • Deforestation
  • Soil erosion
  • Small patches for cultivation
  • Not sufficient for feeding a large population.

(iv) Plantation agriculture is a type of commercial farming where only a single crop (like tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton) is grown. A large amount of labour and capital are required. The product is processed on the farm itself or nearby factories.

(v) Two major fiber crops are jute and cotton. Jute grows well on alluvial soil and requires high temperature, heavy rainfall, and a humid climate for its growth. Cotton needs high temperatures, light rainfall, and bright sunshine for its proper growth.

Question 2.
Tick the correct Answer:
(i) Horticulture means
(a) growing of fruits and vegetables
(b) primitive farming
(c) growing of wheat

(ii) Golden fiber refers to
(a) tea
(b) cotton
(c) jute

(iii) Leading producers of coffee
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Russiac
Answer:
(i) (a), (ii) (c), (iii) (a).

Question 3.
Give reasons.
(i) In India agriculture is a primary activity.
(ii) Different crops are grown in different regions.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture is an activity of growing crops, fruits, vegetables, flowers, and rearing of livestock. It is a primary activity since it directly involves natural resources. In India, a huge number of people derive the activity from their ancestors. Due to lack of literacy in general, farmers prefer agriculture since they acquire the required skills from their ancestors, and so feel comfortable with it.

(ii)

  • Different topography
  • Different soils
  • Different climates
  • Different lifestyles of the people in different regions.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the following.
(i) Primary activities and secondary activities.
(ii) Subsistence farming and intensive farming.
Answer:
(i)
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Q4

Question 5.
Find out the difference between the lifestyle of farmers in the USA and India on the basis of pictures collected from magazines, books, newspapers and the internet.
Answer:
The lifestyle of an Indian farmer is quite different from that of a farmer in the USA. An Indian farmer does not have much land whereas the average size of a farm in the USA is about 250 hectares. An Indian farmer lives in his house but an American farmer lives in his farm. A farmer in India applies his own experience, and advice of other farmers and elders regarding farming practices. But a farmer in the USA gets his soil tested in laboratories to assess the nutrients of the soil. An Indian farmer does not know of any technical advancements whereas a farmer in the USA has a computer which is linked to the satellite. In comparison to an Indian farmer, an American farmer is much more advanced in every aspect.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Exercise Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option
(i) Which of these is a tertiary activity?
(a) manufacturing wool
(b) selling grocery
(c) agriculture
(d) none of these

(ii) What is the breeding of fish known as?
(a) agriculture
(b) pisciculture
(c) sericulture
(d) viticulture

(iii) What is the main crop in intensive subsistence agriculture?
(a) rice
(b) maize
(c) wheat
(d) oilseeds

(iv) Which form of farming is also called “slash and bum” agriculture?
(a) subsistence farming
(b) shifting cultivation
(c) plantation
(d) mixed farming

(v) Which of these is not a plantation product?
(a) rubber
(b) coffee
(c) rice
(d) tea

(vi) In what season is wheat grown in India?
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) monsoon
(d) autumn

(vii) Name the staple diet of tropical and sub-tropical regions.
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c)jute
(d) coffee
Answer:
(i) (b), (ii) (b), (iii) (a), (iv) (b),
(v) (c), (vi) (b), (vii) (b).

Question 2.
Fill in the blank spaces given to complete each sentence.

  1. In the world, ………. percent of the population is engaged in agriculture.
  2. …………. is the commercial rearing of silkworms.
  3. ………. and …………… are two fundamental types of farming.
  4. In the thickly populated areas of monsoon regions of Asia, the major class of farming done is ……………..
  5. …………, ………….., ………….. and …………. are animals usually reared by nomadic herders.
  6. In ………., the land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock.
  7. ………….. and ……….. are fibre crops.
  8. Tea is a major…………… crop in India.
  9. Wheat thrives best in ……………. soil.
  10. The three major millets in India are ………….. and ………..

Answer:

  1. 50
  2. Sericulture
  3. Subsistence farming and commercial farming
  4. intensive subsistence farming
  5. Yak, sheep, goat, camel
  6. mixed farming
  7. Cotton, jute
  8. plantation
  9. loamy
  10. jowar, bajra, ragi

Question 3.
State whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).

  1. Favourable topography of soil and climate is vital for agriculture.
  2. Household labour is involved in subsistence farming.
  3. A transport network is significant for plantation agriculture.
  4. Major plantations are found in tundra regions.
  5. In the USA, the farmer usually resides on the farm.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True

Question 4.
Match the items given in Column I correctly with those given in Column II
NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Exercise Questions Q4
Answer:
(i) (c), (ii) (a), (iii) (b), (iv) (d), (v) (j), (vi) (g), (vii) (e).

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the basic function of the three basic types of economic activities?
Answer:
The three types of economic activities are involved in the transformation from a plant to a finished product.

Question 2.
What are the tertiary activities?
Answer:
Tertiary activities are those which provide support to primary and secondary activities.

Question 3.
In what sorts of areas are agricultural activities concentrated?
Answer:
Agricultural activities are concentrated in those areas of the world which have suitable conditions of growing crops.

Question 4.
What is arable land?
Answer:
The land on which crops are grown is called arable land.

Question 5.
How is subsistence farming classified?
Answer:
Subsistence farming is classified into intensive and primitive subsistence agriculture.

Question 6.
In what sort of areas is nomadic herding practised?
Answer:
Nomadic herding is practised in semi-arid and arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia, and some parts of India.

Question 7.
Why is mixed farming called so?
Answer:
In mixed farming, the land is used for growing crops as well as rearing livestock.

Question 8.
What is the main feature of plantation agriculture?
Answer:
In plantation agriculture, only a single crop is grown.

Question 9.
What weather conditions are required in the growing and harvesting seasons of wheat?
Answer:
In the growing season, wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall and in the harvesting season, it needs bright sunshine.

Question 10.
Which two countries lead in the production of jute?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on the types of economic activities. Give examples.
Answer:
The three types of economic activities are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary Activities. Activities which involve direct extraction and production of natural resources are called primary activities. Examples: agriculture, fishing, mining. Secondary Activities. Activities which are concerned with the processing of natural resources are called secondary activities. Examples: manufacturing of finished products. Tertiary Activities. Activities which fall neither in the primary category nor the second category are called tertiary activities. They form support to primary and secondary activities. Examples: selling goods, advertising, and banking.

Question 2.
Name the inputs and outputs of agriculture in general. Also mention the various operations involved.
Answer:
The inputs in agriculture are seeds, fertilisers, machinery, labour, etc. The operations involved in agriculture are ploughing, sowing, irrigation, weeding, and harvesting. As outputs of the farming activity, a farmer gets crops, wool, dairy products, and poultry products.

Question 3.
Explain shifting cultivation.
Answer:
Shifting cultivation is a class of primitive subsistence agriculture. In this, a plot of land is cleared by the farmer. This is done by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with soil and crops are grown. After some time, the land is abandoned and the farmer moves to a different place. This type of farming is common in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of south-east Asia, and north-east India. It is also called “slash and burn” agriculture, because of the process of felling and burning the trees is involved.

Question 4.
Enlist the climate conditions required for the proper cultivation of rice. Mention the main regions of its production.
Answer:
Rice is a major food crop‘in tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world. Its cultivation needs high temperatures, high humidity and rainfall. Its growth is best in alluvial clayey soils since they have water retention capacity. China and India are the leading producers in the world. In favourable climatic conditions, even two to three crops are grown in a year.

Question 5.
What do you understand by agricultural development?
Answer:
Agricultural development refers to efforts made to increase production in farms so as to meet the ever¬growing demand of the population. The activities that come under this development are increasing the cropped area, growing more crops, improving irrigation, using fertilizers, sowing HYV (high-yielding variety) of seeds, and promoting mechanization. Mechanization ensures that little labor is done by the farmers; instead, machines are used to provide efficiency.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe subsistence farming and its types in detail.
Answer:
The two main types of farming are:
subsistence farming and commercial farming.
Subsistence farming is practised solely to meet the needs of the farmer’s family. Therefore, the practices involved are usually old- fashioned. Use of modern technology is minimum and most work is done by household labour.

In intensive, subsistence agriculture, simple tools and huge labour are used by a farmer to cultivate a small plot of land. More than one crop is grown annually in favourable conditions. Rice is the major crop. This form of agriculture is seen in the thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of south, south-east and east Asia. Shifting cultivation is a class of primitive subsistence agriculture. In this, a plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them.

The ashes are then mixed with soil and crops are grown. After some time, the land is abandoned and the farmers move to a different place. This type of farming is common in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of south-east Asia and north-east India. It is also called “slash and burn” agriculture.

Nomadic herding refers to the practice in which herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water. Animals usually reared are the yak, sheep, camel and goats.

Question 2.
Describe commercial farming and its types in detail.
Answer:
Commercial farming is the practice in which crops are grown exclusively for commercial purpose, i.e. for sale in the market. A large area is cultivated and huge capital is involved unlike subsistence farming. Machines are used to a large extent.
Commercial grain farming is a class of commercial farming. Crops like wheat and maize are grown for commercial purpose. The temperate grasslands of North America, Europe and Asia are some common areas where it is seen.

Mixed farming is another type of commercial farming. The land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock. Some areas where it is followed are Europe, eastern USA, Argentina, south-east Australia, New Zealand and South Africa. Plantations are a type of commercial farming where only a single crop (like tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton) is grown. Large amount of labour and capital are required. The produce is processed in the farm itself or nearby factories.

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