Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

Also Read: Python Program to Find Sum of Odd Numbers Using Recursion in a List/Array

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
  3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
  4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
  5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
  6. Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
  7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
  8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
  9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
MCQs (1 x 20 = 20)

Question 1.
Which of the following statements stands true for India?
(a) Indians hate political parties because they are corrupt.
(b) Indians love political parties because they are extremely efficient.
(c) Indians believe that political parties are not completely trustworthy but their existence and participation is important and inevitable.
(d) Indians want to replace representative democracy with direct democracy. [1]
(c) Indians believe that political parties are not completely trustworthy but their existence and participation is important and inevitable.
Explanation: In India, even though the trust in political parties is dwindling, people are still identifying to political parties because they’re the only visible institutions representative of democracy. People associate their presence with the existence of democracy and hence accept it despite the mistrust.

Question 2.
Identify the type of farming using the given hints:
(1) It is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.
(2) It is labour-intensive farming.
(3) It uses high doses of biochemical inputs.
(a) Plantation farming
(b) Commercial farming
(c) Intensive Subsistence farming
(d) Primitive Subsistence farming [1]
(c) Intensive Subsistence farming
Explanation: Intensive Subsistence farming is practised in areas of high population density. It involves active participation of labour in the farm. It requires extremely high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation which are used for obtaining higher production.

Related Theory:
Primitive subsistence agriculture is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family community labour.

Question 3.
Look at the picture given below. Choose the statement which stands true for the products of this sector.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions 1
(a) Activities belonging to this sector only produces raw goods.
(b) The sector only produces crops.
(c) The products of’ this sector form the base for all other products that are subsequently made.
(d) It is used for manufacturing its own raw materials. [1]
(c) The products of this sector form the base for all other products that are subsequently, made.
Explanation: Most of the natural products are made from activities involving the agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry. These products are further used to further make processed goods. Thus, this sector is the primary sector.

Related Theory:
The industrial sector is known as the secondary sector. The tertiary sector is the service sector. This sector only produces services as products. No goods are created through the activities of this sector.

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is (are) true about the administration in Belgium?
(I) Regional governments existed in Belgium even before 1993.
(II) In 1993, the central government was given constitutional powers to take away powers from the regional governments.
(III) Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form of government.
(a) Only I
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and III [1]
(b) I and II
Explanation: Belgium shifted from a unitary form to a federal form of government. A federal form of government has two levels of independent governments- union/federal and regional/state and they derive their power from the constitution directly. In 1993, the regional governments were given constitutional powers that made them independent of the central government.

Related Theory:
Under the unitary system of government, there is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions

Question 5.
Which of the following factors is missing from non-democratic governments?
(a) Stability
(b) Strict rules and regulations
(c) Development
(d) Transparency [1]
(d) Transparency
Explanation: Democracy ensures that decision making will be based on norms and procedures. Transparency is often missing from a non- democratic government.

Related Theory:
It is right to expect democracy to produce a government that follows procedures and is accountable to the people.

Question 6.
How is a geologist different from a geographer?
(a) A geologist studies soils and a geographer studies physiology of a region.
(b) A geographer studies rocks and their chemical composition and a geologist studies about the sub-soil.
(c) A geologist studies about the chemical composition of minerals and a geographer reads about the economic activities related to the minerals.
(d) A geographer studies about the physiological features of a region but a geologist studies the depth of an ocean. [1]
(c) A geologist studies about the chemical composition of minerals and a geographer reads about the economic activities related to the minerals.
Explanation: Only the distribution of mineral resources and associated economic activities are of interest to geographers. A geographer otherwise studies the physiological distribution of features and landforms. A geologist reads about the formation of minerals, their age and physical and chemical composition.

Related Theory:
Geographers study minerals as part of the earth’s crust for a better understanding of landforms.

Question 7.
Match the items in column A with those of column B and choose the most appropriate code which reflects the correctly matched pairs.

Column A Column B
(A) INC (I) Cultural Nationalism
(B) BJP (II) Marxism Leninism
(C) NCP (III) Secularism
(D) CPI (IV) Gandhian Secularism

(a) (A)-II, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-I
(b) (A)-I (B)-IV (C)-II, (D)-III
(c) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
(d) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II [1]
(d) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
Explanation: INC supports and encourages Secularism.
For BJP, Cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutva’) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.
CPI was formed in 1925. The party believes in Marxism-Leninism, secularism and democracy. NCP was formed in 1999 following a split in the Congress party. The party espouses democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, socialjustice and federalism.

Related Theory:
BSP was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. The party seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.

Question 8.
Modern currency is without any use of its own. Which of the following statements supports the given assertion?
(a) Riya cannot melt a rupee or note and use it to make jewellery.
(b) Riya can sell rupee to buy jewellery.
(c) Riya can issue valid currency of her own.
(d) Riya can buy goods by using currency. [1]
(a) Riga cannot melt a rupee or note and use it to make jewellery.
Explanation: Modern currency, unlike ancient currency, is not made of gold and silver. It cannot be melted and used, smuggled or sold to earn money.

Related Theory:
The RBI issues currency on behalf of the government in India.

Question 9.
Which of the following pamphlets was a private English enterprise that began English printing in India?
(a) Hindustan Gazette
(b) Bengal Gazette
(c) Sambad Kaumudi
(d) Bombay Samachar [1]
(b) Bengal Gazette
Explanation: In 1780, James Augustus Hickey began to edit the ‘Bengal Gazette’ that described itself as ‘a commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none’. It began English printing in India.

Related Theory:
Hickey published a lot of advertisements, including those that are related to the import and sale of slaves. But he also published a lot of gossips about the Company’s senior officers in India.

Question 10.
How are average income and per capita income related to each other?
(a) Average income is larger than per capita income.
(b) Average income is equal to per capita income.
(c) Per capita income is the sum of average income of all the citizens of the country.
(d) Average income is the sum of per capita income of all the citizens of a city. [1]
(b) Average income is equal to per capita income.
Explanation: Average income is the total income of the country divided by its total population. Average income is also known as per capita income.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions

Question 11.
Choose the correctly matched pair:
(a) Lack of internal democracy- No new candidates to promote at higher positions
(b) Influence of Money and Muscle power- Candidates with true potential are nominated
(c) Challenge of meaningful choice- Increase in ideological differences between parties
(d) Challenge of dynastic succession- No open and transparent procedures [1]
(d) Challenge of dynastic succession- No open and transparent procedures
Explanation: Challenge of Dynastic succession arises because most parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning. It becomes very difficult for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who happen to be the leaders offer unfair advantage to favour people close to them or even their family members.

Related Theory:

  • Lack of Internal democracy challenge reflects the tendency of political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top.
  • Influence of money and muscle power-Parties nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.
  • Challenge of meaningful choice- Decline in ideological differences between parties cause parties to offer useless choice of representatives to citizens.

Question 12.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: Assertion (A): The most dynamic industry in Britain was clearly metal.
Reason (R): With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation: The Iron and Steel industry was the leading industry in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s. A huge reason behind this was the huge demand from railways and other economic sectors. By 1873, Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the value of its cotton export.

Question 13.
Which region in India is heavily covered with unclassed forests managed by local communities?
(a) Northern India
(b) Southern India
(c) North-eastern region
(d) Western-Central region [1]
(c) North-eastern region
Explanation: All North-eastern states and parts of Gujarat have a very high percentage of their forests as unclassed forests managed by local communities. Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, constituting 75 per cent of its total forest area.

Related Theory:
Unclassed Forests are forests and wastelands belonging to both government and private individuals and communities.

Every chapter should be summarized with important facts and figures highlighted for the students to be able to answer these questions

Question 14.
Scheduled Languages of India :

Language Proportion of
speakers (%)
Assamese 1.6
Bangla 8.3
Bodo 0.1
Dogri 0.2
Gujarati 4.9
Hindi 40.2
Kannada 3.9
Kashmiri 0.5
Konkani 0.2
Maithili 0.9
Malayam 3.6

The given table lists the languages spoken in the country along with their proportion as per cent of the total population of India in 1991. Which of the given languages is second most popular language in the country?
(a) Hindi
(b) Gujarati
(c) Bangla
(d) Kannada [1]
(c) Bangla
Explanation: The first column in this table lists the languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. These figures are based on the Census of India, 1991. Bangla is spoken lesser than Hindi but more than Gujarati and Kannada.

Question 15.
Read the table.

Countries Party membership in
percentage of population
India 15.4
Sweden 9.5
Zimbabwe 8.0
China 10.6

Based on your interpretation of the table, political parties might enjoy the most popularity in which ofthefollowing countries?
(a) China
(b) Sweden
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) India [1]
(d) India
Explanation: Party membership is the highest in India according to the given table. This means that more number of people are participants of a political party in India when compared to other countries according to the tabLe. Hence, political parties might enjoy the most popularity in India from the countries mentioned in the given table.

Question 16.
Find the odd one out-
(a) Raja Ravi Varma, Abanindra Nath Tagore, Alfred Concanen
(b) Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde, Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabh Bhai Patel
(d) Jane Austen, Emily Bronte, George Elliot [1]
(b) Kailashbashini Debt, Tarabai Shinde, Aruna AsafAli
Explanation: The first two women mentioned in the given option are writers who wrote about women and their conditions in the nineteenth century. Aruna Asaf Ali is not an author but a revolutionary. She participated in the Quit India movement.

The rest of the options mention famous people belonging to the same line of occupation.

For such questions, it is possible that the options contain objects or names mentioned in different chapters. To solve such questions, it is extremely important to recognise the relationship between the objects or names mentioned in each alternative and then figure out the one that does not fit.

Question 17.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
In December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, the …………………. formalised the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ or full independence for India.
(a) The central legislature
(b) Provincial council
(c) Indian National Congress
(d) Hindu Mahasabha [1]
(c) Indian National Congress
Explanation: In December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Lahore session of Indian National Congress formalised the demand of‘Purna Swaraj’ or full independence for India because they had been valiantly but silently fighting for Independence for years.

Related Theory:
It was declared that 26 January 1930, would be celebrated as the Independence Day. People were to take a pledge to struggle for complete independence on this day.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions

Question 18.
What is the reason behind the high school drop-out rates among girl students?
(a) They want to get married.
(b) They do not have ample opportunities to study further due to lack of institutions.
(c) Their parents don’t want to spend the limited available resources on their daughter’s education. They want to spend it on their sons.
(d) They want to pursue courses which only admit male students. [1]
(c) Their parents don’t want to spend the limited available resources on their daughter’s education. They want to spend it on their sons.
Explanation: Girls drop out because parents prefer to spend their resources on their boys’ education rather than spending equally on their sons and daughters.

Related Theory:
The literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent compared with 76 per cent among men.

Question 19.
Identify the correct statements about caste inequality.
(I) Caste is an important source of economic inequality.
(II) The relationship between caste and economic status has changed a lot.
(III) The upper castes are heavily under-represented.
(IV) The proportion of people living in extreme poverty is much higher for the lowest castes.
(V) Today, it is possible to find very rich and very poor people in every caste.
(a) I and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II, IV and V
(d) II and III [1]
(c) I, II, IV and V
Explanation: Caste is an important source of economic inequality because it regulates access to resources of various kinds. The relationship between caste and economic status has certainly changed a lot. It is possible to find very rich and very poor people in every caste. The upper castes are heavily over-represented among the rich while the lower castes are severely under-represented.

Related Theory:
With economic development, large scale urbanisation, growth of literacy and education, occupational mobility and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages, the old notions of caste hierarchy are breaking down.

Question 20.
Which of the following terms is related to political parties?
(a) Direct democracy
(b) Autocracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Representative democracy [1]
(d) Representative democracy
Explanation: The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. This is because large and complex societies need some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present them to the government. Political parties become that instrument.

Section – B
Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Mention four articles which were transported through the silk routes from China to the western world. [2]
How did Indian revolutionaries and social reformers deal with the issues of caste discrimination in the nineteenth century? [2]
Four articles which were transported through the silk routes from China to the west are:

  • Pottery
  • Textiles
  • Spices
  • Precious metals

Indian revolutionaries and social reformers dealt with the issues of caste discrimination in thq following ways:

  • They wrote books and pamphlets about the same educating millions of people about the unfair treatment meted out to the disadvantaged castes.
  • Local protest movements also published a lot of popular journals and tracts criticising ancient scriptures and envisioning a new future.

Question 22.
What is sustainable development? Mention its significance.[2]
Sustainable development involves encouraging the economic and technological development without compromising with the ecological balance of the planet. It requires the development to take place without damaging the environment to allow equitable opportunities Tor the present and future generations.

Related Theory:
The development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.

Question 23.
What led to a civil war in Sri Lanka? Discuss in two points. [2]
A civil war started in Sri Lanka because:

  • Sri Lankan Sinhalese community oppressed the Tamils depriving them of their freedom, rights and opportunities. The Tamils felt isolated and overlooked.
  • The Tamils’ demand for a separate state was ignored by the Sinhalese and constant exploitation caused them to revolt.

Question 24.
Mention two ways for a country to attract foreign investment. [2]
Two ways for a country to attract foreign investment are:

  • A country should have flexible labour laws to allow cheap labour to work in the factories and industries.
  • Governments encourage setting up Industrial production units with world-class electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational facilities to attract MNCs.

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 25.
Emboldened with success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919). Why was this protest organised? [3]
The Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act was organised because:

  • Rowlatt Act was passed against the majority opinion of Indian members of the Imperial legislative council.
  • The legislation gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities.
  • This act allowed and encouraged detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. This caused severe repression among the rising nationalists.

Question 26.
Highlight the importance of money. [3]
The importance of money can be understood through the following points :

  • Money serves as an intermediary in various buying-purchasing transactions and effectively eliminates the double coincidence of wants.
  • It is universal and standardises the units of transactions. For each transaction, the value of a note or a coin is always the same, everywhere, in a country.
  • It reduces the chances of forgery and fraud since the units are fixed.

Question 27.
Why is the Belgium model of administration complicated but beneficial to the country?
What is a horizontal power sharing arrangement? Mention the three most important organs of the Indian government which share power horizontally. [3]
Belgium has recognised and accommodated its regional and linguistic diversities by adopting a unique model of government. A few characteristics of this model are:

  • Belgian Constitution declares that the Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.
  • The capital, Brussels, has a separate government in which both the linguistic communities have equal representation.
  • The state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government.


  • A horizontal power sharing arrangment distributes power and responsibility among different institutions and groups at the same level.
  • This means the institutions are all at the same level and share power which comes from a single head, the Constitution.
  • In India, the most important organs of the union government – the legislature, the executive and the judiciary share power among themselves horizontally. They are dependent over each other but they do not interfere with each other’s responsibility and tasks.

Related Theory:
Institutions like the Central government, the state government and the local governments share power vertically where power comes from the topmost rung, the Central government.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions

Question 28.
In recent years, multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition for a variety of reasons. Mention three such reasons. [3]
Multi-purpose projects and dams have been accused of notoriety. This can be evidenced through the following arguements:

  • Dams fragment rivers making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate, especially to protect themselves from spawning.
  • Multi-purpose projects cause earthquakes, floods and landslides. Regulating and damming of rivers affect their natural flow causing sedimentation.
  • These projects have displaced and affected a lot of people. Local people have had to give up their land, livelihood and their meagre access and control over resources for the greater good of the nation.

Question 29.
Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all Do you agree? Examine the need for fair globalisation. [3]
Fair Globalisation ensures that the benefits of globalisation are shared better. They create opportunities for all.

  • Globalisation has been unfair on small producers, entrepreneurs and small ventures while it has benefitted consumers and huge companies based in different countries.
  • Fair globalisation enabled by the government will ensure that small producers are not thrown out of business and that the labour is treated fairly.
  • Fair globalisation can also help underdeveloped and developing countries to compete with the sophisticated machinery and production process of developed countries.

Question 30.
Mention few examples of long-distance pre-modern trade and cultural exchange between different parts of the world.
Describe the role of ‘technology’ in transformation of the world in the nineteenth century. [5]
Five examples of pre-modern trade and Long distance cultural exchange between various countries and regions across the world are:

  • Explorers like Vasco de Gama, Christopher Columbus visited countries and brought back articles and sold it in their countries.
  • An active coastal trade has linked the Indus valley civilisations with present-day West Asia since 3000 BCE. As a consequence and evidence of active trade, cowries or cowdis from the Maldives have been found in China and East Africa.
  • One aspect of exchange between the countries can also be the spread of diseases and virus from one country to another destructing native colonies.
  • Food travelled from one corner of the world to another. For example, Pasta travelled to Italy with Arab traders.
  • West-bound Chinese silk cargoes also travelled across the silk-routes. Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and spices from India and South¬east Asia.

The role of‘technology’ in transformation of the world in the nineteenth century was:

  • Technology played a major role in all these developments. Railways, steam shipping, telegraph, etc. were important inventions without which it was not possible to imagine the transformation of nineteenth century world.
  • Technology also helped in linking the markets by supporting import and export trade by the invention of trains and ships.
  • Faster railways, lighter wagons and larger ships helped move food more cheaply and quickly from far away farms to final markets.
  • Invention of refrigerated ships made it possible to transport meat from one region to another as before live animals were transported to Europe to be eaten as meat.
  • The refrigerated ships reduced shipping cost and lowered meat prices in Europe. The poor in Europe could now consume a more varied diet. Better living conditions promoted social peace within the country and support for imperialism abroad.
  • Technology played a very important role in linking the world markets which promoted the spirit of colonialism. (Mention any 5 points)

Question 31.
Why is the Inland navigation system of India not functional? Mention any three seaports functioning in India along with their features.
Define a community conservation programme. Enlist the names and objectives of a few successful community conservation programmes undertaken in India. [5]
India has been abundantly bestowed with large rivers, streams and lakes. Their presence supports a well-functioning inland navigation system. However, it is not very popular in India because:

  • Not all of these waterbodies are navigable. India has inland navigation waterways of 14,500 km in length. Out of these only 5685 km are navigable by mechanised vessels.
  • Most waterbodies are shallow and meander a lot which also reduces their chances of being used as a waterway.

India has 12 major and 200 minor ports. These ports handle almost 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade. Three such ports are-

  • Mumbai port is the largest and the busiest port in India. It is a spacious, natural and well-sheltered harbour.
  • Marmagao port of Goa is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country. This port accounts for about fifty per cent of India’s iron ore export.
  • Chennai port is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country. It handles a very large volume of trade and cargo.

A community conservation programme involves active participation from the natives and residents of a region in conserving the natural resources present in the region. Some examples are:

  • The famous Chipko movement, aimed at protecting the local trees from being cut, was successfully executed in Southern Himalayas. It also included community afforestation of indigenous species. 1
  • Beej Bachao Andolan led by farmers and citizens groups in Tehri and Navdanya resulted in diversified crop production without the use of synthetic chemicals.
  • Narmada Bachao Andolan was organised to clean the river Narmada and save it from all sorts of pollution and waste disposal.
  • Residents of Alwar, Rajasthan saved a forest by declaring it Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’. They prohibited all forms of unting and human interference.

Question 32.
Discuss the model of power sharing adopted in India in five points.
‘The Centre-State relations in India have changed from time to time since independence.’ Explain the statement with argument. [5]
India, a democratic nation, has always supported the concept of distribution of power and responsibilities.
Its model of power sharing is vivid and unique to its diverse population.

  • India has a three-tier system of government where the central, state and local governments share powers to make rules and regulation on different subjects classified according to their importance and scale.
  • India also practises horizontal power sharing model where no organ of the government is superior.
  • Legislature, Judiciary and Executive are all equal and interdependent. They cannot interfere in each other’s role.
  • In India, pressure and interest groups of people also enjoy indirect power to influence political representatives regarding important policy decisions.
  • Social and religious groups have also been given power to take decisions because India as a secular state doesn’t interfere in personal religious matters of the citizens unless there’s a threat to the internal/ external security of the nation.

The Centre-State Relations in India before 1990:

  • For a long time, the same party ruled at the centre and in most of the States in India after independence. The State governments didn’t exercise their rights as autonomous federal units.
  • As and when the ruling party at the state level was different, the parties that ruled at the Centre tried to undermine the power of the States. This undermined the spirit of federalism.
  • After 1990, the country saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country. This was also the beginning of the era of coalition governments at the centre.
  • Since no single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the major nationaL parties had to enter into an alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government at the centre.
  • This led to new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of State Governments. This federal power sharing is more effective today which has made it difficult for central government to dismiss State governments in an arbitrary manner.

Question 33.
Why does the government have to necessarily spend on providing educational and healthcare facilities to the citizens of their country?
How can formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Explain. [5]
The government must necessarily spend upon provision of education and healthcare facilities to their citizens because:

  • A large number of citizens are unable to afford these facilities for themselves and their families which pushes them further into the vicious circle of poverty. They need external support to survive.
  • The government has to support such families to bring them out of their poverty and underdevelopment.
  • Education is the foundation for future. If the upcoming generations were not given basic education, they would not be able to grow in turn causing the country’s future to plummet too.
  • The government has to spend on providing quality education and healthcare because private sector doesn’t provide these at affordable costs.
  • It is also the duty of the government to take care of the citizens of the country as a popularly elected and democratic government.

The formal sector loans can be made beneficial to poor farmers and workers in following ways:

  • The process of providing loans should be made easier.
  • Large number of banks and cooperatives should be opened in the rural areas.
  • Banks and cooperatives should expand their facility of providing loans to decrease the dependence upon the informal sector.
  • Special focus should be paid on poor and small farmers along with small scale industries.
  • Loan processing should be simple, faster and timely.

Section – E
Case Based Questions (4 x 3 = 12)

Question 34.
Read the given source and answer the following questions.
The English parliament, which had seized power from the monarchy in 1688 at the end of a protracted conflict, was the instrument through which a nation-state, with England at its centre, came to be forged. The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland that resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ meant, in effect, that England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.

The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members. The growth of a British identity meant that Scotland’s distinctive culture and political institutions were systematically suppressed. The Catholic clans that inhabited the Scottish Highlands suffered terrible repression whenever they attempted to assert their independence.

The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress, and large numbers were forcibly driven out of their homeland. Ireland suffered a similar fate.
(A) Analyse the reason the process of unification of Britain is different from that of Italy. [1]
(B) How did England become a democratic country from a well functioning monarchy? [1]
(C) Highlight how England asserted its dominance over Scotland. [2]
(A) Britain attained unification through a legislation called the Act of Union (1707) but Italy had to go through several internal wars. Italian leaders had to fight three wars to unite its fragmented society where regionalism was rampant such was not the case with Britain.

Explanation: Italy was united through political struggles and wars while Britain asserted itsdominance over its neighbouring countries through the legislation, Act of Union (1707).


  • The English Parliament seized power from the ruling monarchy in 1688 at the end of a long and rigorous political conflict. It was this instrument through which United Kingdom came to be forged.
  • Henceforth, the English Parliament became the ruling government in the country dismissing the all- pervasive authority of the monarchical government.


  • The British forbade the Scottish Highlanders from speaking their Gaelic language or wear their national dress.
  • Scotland’s distinctive culture and political institutions were systematically suppressed by the British.

This oppression resulted in complete suppression of the Scottish identity.

Question 35.
Read the given source and answer the following questions:
In 2018, India was the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world after China. India is a producer of tropical as well as temperate fruits.

Mangoes of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal, oranges of Nagpur and Cherrapunjee (Meghalaya), bananas of Kerala, Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu, lichi and guava of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, pineapples of Meghalaya, grapes of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Maharashtra, apples, pears, apricots and walnuts of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh are in great demand the world over.
(A) What is the art of growing fruit and vegetable crops called? [1]
(B) Differentiate between tropical and temperate crops using two points. [1]
(C) Differentiate between Kharif and Rabi crops using two points. [2]
(A) The art or science of growing fruits and vegetables is called Horticulture. These crops are called Horticultural crops.

(B) India is a producer of tropical as well as temperate fruits, they can be distinguished from each other based on the following points:

  • Tropical fruits are grown in tropical regions (between the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn). They require a moist warm climqte but are capable of withstanding dry weather in some cases.
  • While Temperate fruits are grown in areas close to the middle latitudes, they are grown only in colder regions. They require colder temperature for certain period to grow.
  • Some temperate fruits are apple, plum, strawberry etc. Tropical fruits are mango, banana etc. (Mention any 2 points)

(B) The differences between Rabi and Kharif crops are:

Basis of Distinction Rabi Crops Kharif Crops
Sowing and Harvesting seasons Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and
Examples Wheat, Barley, Peas Paddy, Maize

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions

Question 36.
Read the given source and answer the following questions:
A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also shares in the household work. Her brother may not like this.

Similarly, to get more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced-such as tribals. They might resent this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land. So, two things are quite clear.
(A) What are the developmental goals discussed in the source. [1]
(B) Mention any two developmental goals. [1]
(C) Mention two cases developmental goals. [2]
(A) The developmental goals discussed in the given extract includes:

  • Freedom and equality
  • More advanced infrastructure

(B) Two features of developmental goals are-

  • Developmental goals of two parties can be completely different from each other.
  • What may be a developmental goal for one person might be destructive for another person.

(C) Two cases of conflicting developmental goals are:

  • Industrialists might want more land for their factories. Poor people might want the same land to build affordable houses. More land for industries might mean less for the houses.
  • Farm owners might need cheap labour to work on their farms while the landless labourers might want a hike in their wages to live better lives.

Section – F
Map Based Questions (2 + 3 = 5)

Question 37.
(a) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the places marked as A and B with the help of following information and write their correct names on the line marked near it.
(A) The place where session of Indian National Congress was held in September 1920.
(B) The place where Jallianwala Bagh Incident was organised. [2]

(b) On the same given map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:
(a) Kalapakkam-Nudear Power Plant
(b) Namrup Thermal power plant
(c) Chennai-Sea Port
(d) Hyderabad-Rajiv Gandhi Airport [3]
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions 2
(a) (A) Culcutta (B) Amritsar
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 7 with Solutions 3