Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 For Practice
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
- This question paper contains 4 sections- A, B, C, and D
(a) Section A- Multiple choice questions
(b) Section B- 2 marks
(c) Section C- 3 marks
(d) Section D- 5 marks - Internal choice is given in the paper, there is no overall choice.
Section – A (20 Marks)
Question 1.
Tushar is a Delhi Government employee working as a research analyst at Krishi Anusandhan Kendra (Institute), Delhi. He was given rent-free accommodation having five rooms. Tushar sublet two rooms to the students studying in the institute at a nominal rent. The matter was reported to the State Administrative Tribunal. He was suspended for a month and was asked to vacate the accommodation. Tushar wants to appeal against the decision of the State Administrative Tribunal. Where should he appeal? [1].
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal.
(b) Division Bench of Supreme Court of India.
(c) Division Bench of High Court of Delhi.
(d) No appeal is allowed in Alternate Dispute Resolution Mechanisms.
Answer:
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal.
Question 2.
There was a dispute between Ms. Shreya and Ms. Piyali regarding the title and possession of a plot of land. The parties to the dispute appointed a neutral third party Ms. Sharma who suggested potential solutions. Identify the role of Ms. Sharma in this situation. [1].
(a) Arbitrator.
(b) Negotiator.
(c) Mediator.
(d) Conciliator.
Answer:
(a) Arbitrator.
Question 3.
Sudhir, a college student, follows Kriti, his classmate. He sends her unwanted messages and ‘friend request’ on different social media portals. Although there is no violence or threat of violence, is Sudhir still guilty of any wrong? [1].
(a) Yes, because he is invading Kriti’s privacy.
(b) Yes, because he is unlawfully harassing Kriti.
(c) No, because he is not causing any physical harm or injury to Kriti.
(d)Yes, because he is being negligent towards his duties as a good student.
Answer:
(a) Corporate Law.
Question 4.
Raveena is working with a reputed law firm. Her areas of specialization typically involve practicing commercial and economic laws and advising on issues pertaining to commercial transactions between two parties. She also advises on the laws applicable to the transactions, drafts contracts and other documents, and helps clients with commercial negotiations. Raveena is specialized in [1].
(a) Corporate Law.
(b) Taxation Law.
(c) Transactional Law.
(d) Legal Process Outsourcing.
Answer:
(c) Transactional Law.
Question 5.
Michael Browne has an undergraduate degree in Anthropology and aspires to become a lawyer in the UK. Which of the following will enable him to do so? [1].
(a) Pupillage.
(b) Common Professional Examination.
(c) Bar Vocational Course.
(d) Legal Practice Course.
Answer:
(d) Legal Practice Course.
Question 6.
Situation I A man after the commission of a crime wrote a letter to his relative or friend expressing his grief over the matter. Situation II A dishonestly puts bait for dogs in his pocket, and thus induces Z’s dog to follow it. [1].
(a) It amounts to a confession in the situation I and theft in situation II.
(b) It amounts to theft in both situations.
(c) It amounts to a confession in both situations.
(d) There is no wrong in both case.
Answer:
(a) It amounts to a confession in the situation I and theft in situation II.
Question 7.
Match the following freedoms with appropriate restrictions.
| Column 1 | Column II | ||
| A. | Freedom to practice any profession. | (i) | Protection of interest of scheduled tribes. |
| B. | Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India | (ii) | State-prescribed professional or technical qualification |
| C. | Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms. | (iii) | Public order. |
| D. | Freedom of speech and. expression. | (iv) | Defamation. |
Codes
| A | B | C | D | |
| (a) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (b) | (i) | (ii) | (iii) | (iv) |
| (c) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) | (i) |
| (d) | (iv) | (ii) | (i) | (iii) |
Answer:
(a)(ii)(i)(iii)(iv).
Question 8.
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the death penalty? [1].
(a) the Death penalty is awarded only in the rarest of rarest cases.
(b) There should not be a delay in executing the prisoner waiting on death row.
(c) Indian Penal Code allows for appeal where the waiting period is longer than five years.
(d) Death penalty is not allowed in India.
Answer:
(d) Death penalty is not allowed in India.
Question 9.
The Criminal Law in India does not take into account liability in determining criminal culpability. [1].
(a) intention (Mens Rea).
(b) commission of an act (Actus Reus).
(c) motive.
(d) attempt in affixing criminal.
Answer:
(d) attempt in affixing criminal.
Question 10.
Assertion (A) The Model Code of Professional Responsibility, 1969, and the newer Model Rules of Professional Conduct, 1983 have been adopted in 49 states, DC, and in the Virgin Islands. Reason (R) The only exception is the state of California. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is. false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 11.
Assertion (A) For qualified lawyers coming from outside England and Wales, it is still possible to practice. Reason (R) The Solicitors Regulation Authority (SRA) does not impose any formal experience requirements in order to re-qualify as solicitors in England and Wales. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Question 12.
The Chairman of the District Legal Services Authority is. [1].
(a) Judge of High Court.
(b) Chief Justice of concerned High Court.
(c) District Judge.
(d) Advocate General.
Answer:
(c) District Judge.
Question 13.
In which of the following cases was it held that in the matter of confiscation of passports, a hearing should have been given to the petitioner in the interest of the principles of natural justice? Consequently, a hearing was given and the passport was returned to her. [1].
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
(b) Kharak Singh case.
(c) Three judge’s cases.
(d) Kesavananda Bharati Case.
Answer:
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
Question 14.
In which of the following cases has the court held that if a treaty or international agreement restricts the rights of the citizens or modifies the laws of the state, it would be required to have a legislative measure? [1].
(a) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India.
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
(c) Sheela Barse v. Union of India.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India.
Question 15.
Ankush was caught red-handed while traveling without a ticket in an outstation bus by the concerned officer. [1].
(a) Ankush has to pay a fine as the officer is compounding the offense.
(b) Ankush has to be imprisoned as this is a non-compoundable offense.
(c) Ankush can’t pay a fine at all but has to be imprisoned by the officer.
(d) The concerned officer can allow Ankush to travel without a ticket.
Answer:
(a) Ankush has to pay a fine as the officer is compounding the offense.
Direction Read the following principles carefully and answer questions 16 to 20.
Legal Principles
1 . An attempt is an act committed in part execution of a criminal design or intent, more than mere preparation, but falling
short of actual commission.
2. Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or. intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to cheat.
3. Preparation is the second stage in the commission of a crime. It means arranging the necessary measures for the commission of the intended criminal act.
4. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that his act is likely to cause death, commits the offense of murder.
5. Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act shall be guilty of negligence.
Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and choose the most appropriate answer.
Question 16.
In which of the following cases is X guilty of attempting to commit an offense? [1].
(a) X, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Y, sends his servant to buy a stamp paper in the name of Y. As the servant reaches the shop, he is arrested.
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.
(c) X pours half a pint of substance from a bottle marked ‘poison’ into the drink of Y. Y is not aware of it. Later, it turns out that the bottle did not contain any poison.
(d) X administers some noxious substance to Ria so that an abortion results. The woman was not pregnant.
Answer:
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.
Question 17.
Amar applied for the post of PG teacher in a government school and submitted his application along with his degrees. He was called for the interview on 10th June 2018. But the school authorities on 10th May 2018, discovered that the copy of the degrees attached to Amar’s application was forged and so the application was rejected. Has any offense been committed by Amar? [1].
(a) Yes, Amar is guilty of cheating.
(b) Yes, Amar is guilty of preparing to cheat.
(c) Yes, Amar is guilty of attempting to cheat.
(d) No, Amar is not guilty of any offense as he is not called for the interview.
Answer:
(c) Yes, Amar is guilty of attempting to cheat.
Question 18.
X tries to pickpocket Z. Z has a loaded pistol in his pocket. X’s hand touches the pistol and triggers it, resulting in the death of Z. Which of the following offenses has been committed by X? [1].
(a)X is guilty of causing Z’s murder.
(b) X is guilty of culpable homicide by negligence.
(c) X is guilty of causing grievous hurt.
(d)X is guilty of pickpocketing.
Answer:
(d)X is guilty of pickpocketing.
Question 19.
Which of the following is the first stage of any crime?[1].
(a) Intention.
(b) Preparation.
(c) Commission.
(d) Omission.
Answer:
(a) Intention.
Question 20.
A jumps into a swimming pool to save a boy from drowning. While pulling the boy from the water, A was hit by C. A left the boy in the water and attacked C. The boy died in the water. Choose the appropriate option.[1].
(a) A has not committed the offense of killing the boy.
(b) A has committed the offense of killing the boy.
(c) The boy has committed the offense of suicide.
(d) The boy has committed the offense of drowning.
Answer:
(a) A has not committed the offense of killing the boy.
Section-B (16 Marks)
Question 21.
What happened to the old categories of legal practitioners after the enactment of the Advocates’ Act, of 1961? [2].
Question 22.
(i) How has the Supreme Court diluted the provision of ‘locus standi’? [2].
(ii) Give an example of a situation where the principle of proportionality was used by the Court
Question 23.
(i) How can an immovable property of a value more than ₹100 be transferred?
(ii) What is the objective of Lis Pendens? [2].
Question 24.
“This source of Public International Law is described as evidence of general practice accepted as law.” Identify and explain this provision of the source of International Law. [2].
Question 25.
(i) State the composition of NLSA. [2].
(ii) State the composition of SCLC.
Question 26.
(i) What is conciliation?
(ii) In what ways does the role of a conciliator go beyond that of a mediator? [2].
Question 27.
Michael Kruger and James MacDonald are fighting a court case against each other. In the legal system of their country, the judge decides the manner in which evidence must be presented in court. Identify the legal system and state one of its advantages. [2].
Or
What is the difference between the role of a mediator and a conciliator-?
Question 28.
Ms. Celine D’Souza was working as a teller at Bharat Bank. She was charged with misappropriation of funds and without any grounds, she was suspended for 15 days. She applied for revocation of the suspension and the General Manager of the branch accepted her request as there was no proof against her. But she was transferred to a remote area branch and was paid a salary for 15 days only. She alleged that she has been discriminated against as she is a Christian. Identify the body she can approach for relief and give any two powers of this body. [2].
Or
Write any four powers of the National Commission for Women, which are similar to that of a civil court.
Section -C (24 Marks)
Question 29.
Article 21 states “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.” [3].
(i) What is meant by the term ‘right to life and personal liberty’?
(ii) How can one’s life and personal liberty be taken away?
Question 30.
(i) Name the body responsible for regulating the minimum legal standards to be maintained by institutions that impart legal education in India.
(ii) State any two categories of legal practitioners that existed under British rule in India. [3].
Question 31.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations [3].
(i) Two disputing parties who are located in different cities want to engage a mediator who is located in yet another city. The parties to the dispute and the mediator are unable to meet each other due to geographic distance and the situation arising out of Covid 19. Which type of mediation should they resort to?
(ii) A labor dispute arose between the migrant labor’s union and the management of a construction company. The disputing parties agreed to engage the services of Mr. Kulkarni, a neutral third party in resolving the dispute. Mr. Kulkarni suggested possible solutions to resolve disputes and claims.
(iii) A dispute arose between Medico Care Pharmaceutical Company, India and Health will Incorporation, China over the supply of faulty PPE and testing kits. Both companies want to resolve the dispute as per the guidelines of UNCITRAL
Question 32.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations [3].
(i) A dispute arose between Euro Space Consulting Co. and XYZ Hero Ltd. with respect to some technical issues relating to their technical design. They wanted to resolve their dispute but also had to keep matters confidential and their business secrets protected.
(ii) Sudha buys a TV and realizes it isn’t cooling as it is defective. She tries to return it or have the company fix it, but doesn’t succeed. She
talks with the salesperson, speaks with the manager, and writes emails to the company, and still, she is not satisfied with the company’s response. The disputing parties agree to refer the dispute to a neutral third party, Mr.Ranganathan who evaluates their case and directs them toward settlement.
(iii) Ritika and Rohan face marital discord but owing to the well-being of their daughter, they refer the dispute to an Institution that gives a binding decision without being bound by any procedural formality. This institution uses a social worker in its panel.
Question 33.
(i) What are the three kinds of trial procedures under CrPC? [3].
(ii) A man after the commission of a crime wrote a letter to his relative or friend expressing his grief over the matter. Will this amount to a confession?
Question 34.
List down the advantages of the separation of powers. [3].
Or
Define the division of powers in the context of the Indian Constitution.
Question 35.
Briefly explain the concept of the lease. Can sub-lessee sue the original lessor for damages for violation of quiet enjoyment of the property? [3].
Question 36.
International Human Rights have gained prominence in recent years. In this context, define international human rights. Also, a state is one of the most influential documents in this regard. [3].
Section-D (20 Marks)
Question 37.
Jerbo Mustafa was indicted on charges of committing ‘crimes of aggression’ in Aleppo. In this context. [5].
(i) Identify the international organization that can initiate action against him.
(ii) State the categories of crimes that can be dealt with by this organization.
(iii) Discuss the manner in which this organization takes up cases.
Question 38.
Explain the role of the following enactments in the history of the Legal Profession in India. [5].
(i) The Legal Practitioners Act of 1846.
(ii) Indian Bar Councils Act, 1926.
Or
Explain the categories of legal practitioners in India after the Advocates Act, of 1961.
Question 39.
What is the sale? What are the rights and liabilities of the seller and buyer? [5].
Or
Write a short note on the lease and determine the rights of the lessor.
Question 40.
What are ‘fundamental duties’? State their salient features. How are fundamental duties different from fundamental rights?
Or
What was the status of the right to education before it became a fundamental right under Article 21 A? [5].