Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 5 with Solutions
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions :
All the questions are compulsory.
- Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
- Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words each.
- Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
- Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
- Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170 words.
Section – A (12 Marks)
Question 1.
In_______the people hugged trees to prevent them from being cut and fell [1]
(A) Chipko Movement
(B) Anti-Arrack Movement
(C) Anti-untouchability
(D) Resistance Movement
Answer:
(A) Chipko Movement
Explanation: The beginning of the Chipko movement started from villages in Uttarakhand where the people hugged trees to protect them.
Question 2.
What is the full form of SEATO? [1]
(A) South East Asian Treaty Organisation
(C) South East Africa Treaty Organisation
(B) South East America Treaty Organisation
(D) South East Europe Treaty Organisation
Answer:
(A) South East Asian Treaty Organisation
Explanation: The SEATO or South East Asian Treaty Organisation was formed by the capitalist bloc to form an alliance in the South East.
Question 3.
Which among the following statements about the partition is incorrect? [1]
(A) The partition of India was the outcome of the “Two-Nation theory”.
(B) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion.
(C) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous.
(D) The scheme of partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border
Answer:
(D) The scheme of partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border
Explanation: The partition did not have any structured plan for the transfer of the population between the two nations that resulted in a lot of bloodshed
Question 4.
________came into existence by the signing of Bangkok Declaration. [1]
(A) ASEAN
(B) CENTO
(C) NATO
(D) SAARC
Answer:
(A) ASEAN
Explanation: The existence of the ASEAN came into picture with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration.
Assertion Reason Questions: Directions for Q.Nos. 5 and 6
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these
statements and choose one correct answer from the given options
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Question 5.
Assertion (A): India after independence from the British decided to decrease the influence of the foreign nations from its market. [1]
Reason(R): India did not want to become a victim of European influence in its economy.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: After its independence from the British rule, India took the decision to stay away from the foreign influence as it did not want to be a victim of the European influence once again.
Question 6.
Assertion (A): Democratic elections cannot be held in poor and uneducated nations. [1]
Reason(R): India was successful in its first test of democracy during the general elections in 1952
Answer:
(D) A is false, but R is true
Explanation: Democratic election in India in 1992, held in Rio De Janeiro, was successful despite the fact that most of the people in the country were uneducated and poor.
Question 7.
A neighbour of India which was a constitutional monarchy till 2006. [1]
(A) Nepal
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(4) Bangladesh
Answer:
(A) Nepal
Explanation: Nepal was a constitutional monarchy till the year 2006 when it became a true democratic nation
Question 8.
Which of the following statement about the Grand Alliance of 1971 is correct? [1]
The Grand Alliance:
(A) was formed by Non-Communist, Non-Congress parties.
(B) had a clear political and ideological programme.
(C) was formed by all Non-Congress parties.
(D) won the elections of 1971.
Answer:
(A) was formed by Non-Communist, Non-Congress parties.
Explanation: The Grand Alliance was formed by the non-communist and non-congress parties to compete against the Congress in 1971 elections.
Question 9.
At the _________, for the first time, global environmental issues were firmly consolidated at the political level. [1]
(A) Earth Summit, Rio De Janeiro
(B) Earth Summit, Minsk
(C) Earth Summit, Brussels
(D) Earth Summit, Chicago
Answer:
(A) Earth Summit, Rio De Janeiro
Explanation: The Earth Summit of 1992, held in Rio De Janerio, was the first global platform where the issues related to environmental degradation and protection were discussed
Question 10.
Founder President of Muslim League propounded the Two Nation theory. Who was the founder President of Muslim Leaigue? [1]
(A) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Wajid Ali Shah
Answer:
(A) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
Explanation: Muhammad Ali Jinnah was the founder President of the Muslim League and was also a proposer of the two-nation theory
Question 11.
The first general elections in 1952 involved simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and. [1]
(A) The President of India
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The State Assemblies
(D) The Prime Minister of India
Answer:
(C) The State Assemblies
Explanation: The first general elections of 1952 had the national and state elections together
Question 12.
The Kargil War took place in ________ [1]
(A) 1948
(B) 1971
(C) 1984
(D) 1999
Answer:
(D) 1999
Explanation: The Kargjl confrontation between India and Pakistan took place in the year 1999 when some of the Indian peaks were occupied by the Pakistan
Section – B (12 Marks)
Question 13.
What is the logic of ‘deterrence’? [2]
Answer:
It was dear that the destruction caused by the use of atomic bombs would be too costly for any country to bear. It was also realised that in the event of the nuclear war, both sides would be so badly harmed that it would be impossible to declare one side or the other as the winner. Even if one of them countries to attack and disable the nuclear weapons of its rival, the other would still be left with enough nuclear weapons to inflict unacceptable destruction. This is called the logic of ‘deterrence’. Both sides had the capacity to inflict irreparable loss.
Question 14.
How was US benefited by the Soviet disintegration? [2]
Answer:
Cold War ended and US became the sole superpower. The capitalist economy became the dominant economic system internationally. It signifies the collapse of the ideological conflict between the Sodalists and the Capitalists.
Question 15.
Suggest any two measures to have good relations with Pakistan. [2]
Answer:
Suggested measures
Cultural exchanges by prominent personalities. Economic cooperation should be encouraged by both countries. Movement of citizens to interact and understand each other.
Question 16.
What is LTTE? What are its demands? [2]
Answer:
(i) From 1983 onwards, the militant organisation, the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) has been fighting an armed struggle with the army of Sri Lanka and demanding ‘Tamil Eelam’ or a separate country for the Tamils of Sri Lanka.
(ii) This conflict however came to an end after the death of the LTTE chief Prabhakaran who provided the leadership to this movement. Since then there have been several measures taken to address the rights of the Tamils in Sri Lanka.
Question 17.
State two features of the EU that makes it an influential organization. [2]
Answer:
The two features of the EU that makes it an influential
organization are:
(i) EU has evolved over a time from economic union to political union. It has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
(ii) It’s share of world trade is much larger than that of the United States allowing it to be more assertive in trade disputes with the US and China.
Question 18.
“The South Asian experience of democracy has expanded the global imagination of democracy”. Explain the statement with examples. [2]
Answer:
The statement given above can be explained by the following examples:
(1) People of South Asian countries always aspired for the democracy. They have always fought for democratic government, be it the example of India or Bangladesh. After a long struggle, they are now democratic countries.
(2) Moreover, people of South Asian countries have always preferred democratic governments in any case. No monarchy has survived for long time in South Asia. The recent example of this is Nepal.
Section – C (20 Marks)
Question 19.
Describe the economic and political influence of the European Union on other countries. [4]
Answer:
Economic Influence
European Union is the world’s biggest economy. Its currency, the Euro, can counter the dominance of the US dollar. The EU’s share of world trade is three times larger than that of the US. He EU also functions as an important bloc in international economic organisations.
Political Influence:
Its two members Britain and France hold permanent seats in the UN Security Council. Now Britain has left the EU so only France holds permanent seat in UNSC from EU. It also includes several non-permanent members of the UN Security Council. The EU has influenced some US policies such as the current US position in Iran’s nuclear programme.
Question 20.
Differentiate between the traditional and non-traditional notions of security. [4]
Answer:
Traditional Notions of Security:
In the traditional conception of security the greatest danger to a country is from military threats from outside. This may endanger the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity. Military action also endangers the lives of ordinary citizens. Traditional security also concerns with internal security. It may be threatened by civil war and internal separatist movement.
Non-traditional Notions of Security:
It includes a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence. Main proponent of non-traditional notion is not just the state but also individuals or communities or indeed all of human kind. Therefore, it has been called ‘human security’ or ‘global security’. In non-traditional notion, threats may be such as terrorism, human rights, global poverty and migration, etc.
Question 21.
What were some of the big changes that defined the NDA government’s work till 2019? [4]
Answer:
Demonetisation: On November 8, 2016, the government announced that T500 and ₹1,000 currency notes in circulation would be withdrawn and new ₹500 and ₹2,000 notes were issued. The move was reportedly aimed at targeting black money, though that narrative did change over the course of the year. The currency in circulation has now steadily grown up,
Unified Tax: India has been looking at a unified goods and services tax (GST) regime for almost two decades. The NDA government took it upon itself to push through the indirect taxes reform. A single tax GST was implemented and several taxes were done away with.
Foreign Investment: The foreign investments have gone up since the NDA government came to power. The government has eased foreign investment norms in some crucial sectors.
Replacement: The Planning Commission was replaced with NITI Aayog. Conflicting ministries were brought under one minister like steel and mines or coal and power.
Question 22.
Explain any three consequences of the partition of India. [4]
Answer:
Though the partition of British India was foreseen, yet it resulted in the largest, most tragic and highly unplanned partition of a nation. It resulted in the following:
(1) Communal riots between Hindus and Muslims broke out in various parts of the country especially in Lahore, Calcutta, Amritsar and Dhaka.
(2) Torture and mass killing of people to prevent honour of family, separation from loved ones and torture of imprisonment/capture.
(3) Increase in the number of refugees on both sides of the border as a result of migration to and from India
(4) Spread of hatred between the two communities which resulted in the death of hundreds of thousands of people
Question 23.
Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN. [4]
Answer:
Permanent members are unlikely to agree to any reform, which reduces their clout of power or interest in the world body.
(1) While there has been a move to abolish or modify the veto system, there is also a realisation that the permanent members are unlikely to agree to such a reform. Also, the world may not be ready for such a radical step even though the Cold War is over. Without the veto, there is the danger as in 1945 that the great powers would lose interest in the world body, that they would do what they pleased outside it and that without their support and involvement, the body would be ineffective.
(2) It lacks equitable representation. Some emerging powers such as Brazil, Germany, Japan perhaps even South Africa have to be given an important position in the body. There are also those who feel that Africa will have to be accommodated and South America must be represented in any expansion of the permanent membership since those are the only continents not to have representation in the present structure.
Section – D (12 Marks)
Question 24.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The Antarctic continental region extends over 14 million square kilometres and comprises 26 per cent of the world’s wilderness area, representing 90 per cent of all terrestrial ice and 70 per cent of planetary fresh water. The Antarctic also extends to a further 36 million square kilometres of ocean. It has a limited terrestrial life and a highly productive marine ecosystem, comprising a few plants (e.g., microscopic algae, fungi and lichen), marine mammals, fish and hordes of birds adapted to harsh conditions, as well as the krill, which is central to marine food chain and upon which other animals are dependent.
The Antarctic plays an important role in maintaining climatic equilibrium, and deep ice cores provide an important source of information about greenhouse gas concentrations and atmospheric temperatures of hundreds and thousands of years ago. Who owns this coldest, farthest and windiest continent on globe? There are two claims about it. Some countries like the UK, Argentina, Chile, Norway, France, Australia and New Zealand have made legal claims to sovereign rights over Antarctic territory. Most other states have taken the opposite view that the Antarctic is a part of the global commons and not subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of any state.
These differences, however, have not prevented the adoption of innovative and potentially far-reaching rules for the protection of the Antarctic environment and its ecosystem. The Antarctic and the Arctic polar regions are subjected to special regional rules of environmental protection. Since 1959, activities -in the area have been limited to scientific research, fishing and tourism. Even these limited activities have not prevented parts of the region from being degraded by waste as a result of oil spills.
(i) How much of the world’s wilderness area is covered by Antarctic continental?
(A) 25 percent
(B) 26 percent
(C) 23 percent
(D) 27 percent
(ii) In what aspect of environment does the Antarctic play a vital role?
(A) Climatic equilibrium
(B) Eradicating effects of carbon
(C) Reducing pollution
(D) Cleaning seawater
(iii) Which of the following countries claims to own the Antarctic?
(A) India
(B) Canada
(C) UK
(D) Russia
(iv) Which of the following activities are carried out in the Antarctic?
(A) Research, fishing and tourism
(B) Mining, Deforestation
(C) Trading such as imports and exports
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(i) (B) 26 percent
(ii) (A) Climatic equilibrium
(iii) (C) UK
(iv) (A) Research, fishing and tourism
Question 25.
In the given political outline map of Europe, four member countries of the European Unions have been marked A, B, C and D. Identify them with the help of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number and the alphabet concerned. [4]
(i) An older member of the European Union located between Portugal and France.
(ii) An older member of the European Union located near Belgium and the Netherlands.
(iii) Two new members of the European Union.
(iv) This country joined the EU in 1995.
| Sr. Number for the information used | Alphabet concerned | Name of the state |
| (i) | ||
| (ii) | ||
| (iii) | ||
| (iv) |
Answer:
Corresponding Numbers Answers Corresponding alphabets
(i) Spain D
(ii) Germany A
(iii) Romania C
(iv) Sweden B
Question 26.
Study the given Cartoon and answer the questions that follow: [4]
(i) Which political leader demanded the partition of British India?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) M.A. Jinnah
(D) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(ii) Choose the statement that correctly explains the ‘two-nation theory’.
(A) India consisted of two groups of people, Hindus and Muslims, hence two nations are required.
(B) Two separate nations should be formed to accommodate the leaders of Hindus and Muslims.
(C) One nation for Congress and other for Muslim League was demanded.
(D) Hindus should have a separate nation but Muslims could choose any one out of the two
(iii) Which two states were bifurcated on the basis of religious majority?
(A) Gujarat and Punjab
(B) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(C) Punjab and Bengal
(D) Bengal and Gujarat
(iv) What among the following was not divided between India and Pakistan?
(A) Typewriters, books and musical instruments
(B) Liabilities
(C) Monuments
(D) Assets
Answer:
(i) (C) M.A. Jinnah
(ii) (B) Two separate nations should be formed to accommodate the leaders of Hindus and Muslims.
(iii) (C) Punjab and Bengal
(iv) (C) Monuments
Section – E (24 Marks)
Question 27.
Discuss some of the leading man-made causes of Global Warming?
OR
Discuss some of the natural causes of the Global Warming? [6]
Answer:
Man-made causes of Global Warming:
Deforestation: Plants are the main source of oxygen. They take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen, thereby maintaining environmental balance. Forests are being depleted for many domestic and commercial purposes. This has led to an environmental imbalance, thereby giving rise to global warming.
Use of Vehicles: The use of vehicles, even for a very short distance results in various gaseous emissions. Vehicles burn fossil fuels which emit a large amount of carbon dioxide and other toxins into the atmosphere resulting in a temperature increase.
Chlorofluorocarbons: With the excessive use of air conditioners and refrigerators, humans have been adding CFCs into the environment which affects the atmospheric ozone layer. The ozone layer protects the earth’s surface from the harmful ultraviolet rays emitted by the sun. The CFCs have led to ozone layer depletion making way for the ultraviolet rays, thereby increasing the temperature of the earth.
Industrial Development: With the advent of industrialisation, the temperature of the earth has been increasing rapidly. The harmful emissions from the factories add to the increasing temperature of the earth. In 2013, the Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change reported that the increase in the global temperature between 1880 and 2012 has been 0.9 degrees Celsius.
The increase is 1.1 degrees Celsius when compared to the pre-industrial mean temperature Agriculture: Various farming activities produce carbon dioxide and methane gas. These add to the greenhouse gases in the atmosphere and increase the temperature of the earth.
OR
Natural causes of Global Warming:
Volcanoes: Volcanoes are one of the largest natural contributors to global warming. The ash and smoke emitted during volcanic eruptions goes out into the atmosphere and affects the climate.
Water Vapour: Water vapour is a kind of greenhouse gas. Due to the increase in the earth’s temperature more water gets evaporated from the water bodies and stays in the atmosphere adding to global warming.
Melting Permafrost: Permafrost is there where glaciers are present. It is a frozen soil that has environmental gases trapped in it for several years. As the permafrost melts, it releases the gases back into the atmosphere increasing the earth’s temperature.
Forest Blazes: Forest blazes or forest fires emit a large amount of carbon-containing smoke. These gases are released into the atmosphere and increase the earth’s temperature resulting in global warming.
Question 28.
Describe the factors that make most of the former Soviet Republics prone to conflicts and threats. [6]
OR
What was meant by the Cuban Missile Crisis? Explain the course of events till it got resolved.
Answer:
Factors that make most of the former Soviet republics prone to conflicts and threats:
(1) There were internal weaknesses of Soviet political and economic institutions which failed to meet the aspirations of the people. Economic stagnation for many years led tosevere shortage of consumer items and a large section of Soviet society began to doubt and question the system and do so openly.
(2) Economic stagnation for many years led tosevere shortage of consumer items and a large section of Soviet society began to doubt and question the system and do so openly
(3) The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining a nuclear and military arsenal.
(4) The development of its satellite states in eastern Europe and within the Soviet system (the five Central Asian republics in particular). This led to a huge economic burden that the system could not cope up with. They could see the disparities between their system and the systems of the West. After years of being told that the Soviet system was better than Western capitalism, the reality of its backwardness came as a political and psychological shock.
(5) The development of its satellite states in eastern Europe and within the Soviet system (the five Central Asian republics in particular). This led to a huge economic burden that the system could not cope up with.
(6) The Soviet Union had become stagnant in an administrative and political sense as well.
(7) The rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty within various republics including Russia and the Baltic Republics (Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania), Ukraine and Georgia.
(8) Nationalist urges and feelings were very much at work throughout the history of the Soviet Union gave the size and diversity and its growing internal problems
OR
The Cuban Missile Crisis, known as the October Crisis Scare in Cuba, was a 13-days confrontation in October 1962 between the Soviet Union and Cuba on one side and the United States on the other side.
(1) The crisis is generally regarded as the moment in which the Cold War came close to turning into a nuclear conflict. Since Cuba was an ally of Soviet Union and received both diplomatic and financial aid from it, Nikita Khrushchev, the leader of Soviet Union, decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base.
(2) In 1962, he placed nuclear missiles in Cuba. The installation of these weapons put the US, for the first time, under fire from close range. Three weeks later, the Soviet Union had placed the nuclear weapons in Cuba. The America became aware of it.
(3) The US President John F. Kennedy and his advisors were reluctant to do anything that would lead to a full-fledged war but he soon
determined to get Khrushchev to remove the missiles from Cuba. Kennedy ordered American warships to intercept all Soviet ships heading to Cuba as a way of warning the USSR of his seriousness. A clash seemed imminent in what came to be known as Cuban Missile Crisis.
(4) Ultimately this crisis was managed by the medium of negotiations between the leaders of both nations.
Question 29.
What is Sardar Sarovar Project? Which benefits are expected to be if the project becomes successful? Also state the issues of relocation and rehabilitation associated with it. [6]
OR
Regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
(1) Sardar Sarovar Project is an ambitious develop mental project launched in The Narmada valley. Its a mega dam project consisting of 30 big dams, 135 medium dams and around 3,000 small dams to be constructed in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(2) Benefits:
(A) Water for irrigation
(B) Generation of electricity
(C) Help to control flood and drought
(3) About 245 villages have been affected and people belonging to these villages had to be relocated and rehabilitated. The affetced people were first raised by local activist groups. It was around 1988-89 that the issues crystallised under the banner of Narmada Bachao Aandolan, a loose collective of local voluntary organisation.
OR
(1) India’s democratic politics allows people and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identity, aspiration and specific regional problems.
(2) India’s democratic politics focus on regional issues and problems to receive adequate attention and accommodation in the policy making process. That is regional aspirations of Punjab, Assam, Kashmir, etc.
(3) Its examples are in the eighties; military erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North East, students agitated in Assam and Kashmir valley was on the boil.
(4)The government of India settled down some negotiations with these regional aspirations to reduce tensions in many regions.
(5) Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively
Question 30.
Analyse the circumstances that favoured Indira Gandhi to become Prime Minister after the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri. Mention any four achievements of Indira Gandhi that made her popular as a Prime Minister. [6]
OR
What main objective did Indira Gandhi want to achieve the launching a series of initiatives under the Ten Point Programme in 1967?
Answer:
The circumstances that favoured Indira Gandhi to become Prime Minister after the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri are as follows:
(1) Indira Gandhi was the daughter of popular ex prime minister Mr J.L. Nehru.
(2) She had been become congress President in1958.
(3) She had been Union Minister for Information in Shastri’s Cabinet from 1964-66.
Her four achievements that made her popular are as follows:
(1) She had imposed a ceiling on the rural land holdings and urban property to remove disparities in income and opportunity.
(2) She had abolished to princely privileges to prevail the principles of equality and social and economic justice.
(3) Decisive victory in the 1971 India-Pakistan war has soared Indira Gandhi’s popularity.
(4) First nuclear explosion in 1974 also increased her popularity. India termed it as a peaceful explosion.
OR
(1) She wanted to give the government policy a left orientation.
(2) She wanted to prove herself as pro-poor.
(3)She slowly wanted to sideline the syndicate and create her own support base with a trusted group of advisors from outside the party.
(4) To regain the ground that Congress had lost in the 1967 elections.
(5) She waned to implement the Ten Point Programme which included social control of banks, nationalization of General Insurance, ceiling on urban property and income, public distribution of food grains, land reforms and provision of home sites to the rural poor.