NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution:

Section Name Topic Name
7 Evolution
7.1 Origin of Life
7.2 Evolution of Life Forms – A Theory
7.3 What are the Evidences for Evolution?
7.4 What is Adaptive Radiation?
7.5 Biological Evolution
7.6 Mechanism of Evolution
7.7 Hardy – Weinberg Principle
7.8 A Brief Account of Evolution
7.9 Origin and Evolution of Man
7.10 Summary

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Questions From Textbook Solved

Evolution Chapter Class 12 NCERT  Q1. Explain antibiotic, resistance observed in bacteria in light of Darwinian selection theory.
Ans: According to Darwin, environment selects organisms with favourable variations and these organisms are allowed to survive. When a bacterial population encounters a particular antibiotic, those sensitive to it die. But some bacteria having mutations become resistant to the antibiotic. Such resistant bacteria survive and multiply quickly as the competing bacteria have died. Some the resistance providing genes become widespread and entire bacterial population becomes resistant.

Evolution Class 12 NCERT Solutions Q2. Find out from newspapers and popular science articles any new fossil discoveries or controversies about evolution
Ans: New fossil discoveries are as follows :

1. An international research team has recently discovered some amber fly specimens in El Sopalo cave (Cantabria, Spain). According to an article published in the scientific journal ‘Current Biology’, these specimens fed on nector and pollinated gymnosperm plants 105 million years ago.

2. Research conducted in Japan has revealed a very unusual new species of octocoral from a shallow coral reef in Okinawa, Japan. This new species can be considered as “living fossil,” and is related in many ways to the unusual blue coral.

3. The 48 million year old fossil, recovered from the Bridger Formation in Wyoming, is the first description of a new species, named Babibasiliscusalxiby the author, and
may represent the earliest clear member of the lizard group, Corytophanidae.

4. Neanderthals became extinct about 40,000 years ago but contributed on average one to three percent to the genomes of present day Eurasians. Researchers have now analysed DNA from a 37,000 to 42,000 year old human mandible in Romania and have found that six to nine percent of this person’s genome came from Neanderthals, more than any other human sequenced till date. Because large segments of this individual’s chromosomes are of Neanderthal origin, a Neanderthal was among his ancestors as recently as four to six generations back in his family tree. This shows that some of the first modern humans that came to Europe mixed with the local Neanderthals.

Chapter 7 Biology Class 12 NCERT Solutions Q3. Attempt giving a clear definition of the term species.
Ans: Species is population or group of individuals that have potential of interbreeding and are able to produce viable, fertile young ones but are reproductively isolated from members of other species.

Evolution NCERT Solutions  Q4. Try to trace the various components of human evolution (hint: brain size and function, skeletal structure, dietary preference, etc.)
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q4
Dietary preference:
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus — herbivores Australopithecus Africans, Homo Carnivores habilis
Homo erectus, Homo sapinens — Omnivores

Evolution NCERT Solutions Class 12  Q5. Find out through internet and popular science articles whether animals other than man has self-consciousness.
Ans: Recent studies on self consciousness says gibbons are the nearest to human in this respect. Apes and orangutans came next. Among domestic animals, dog and other members of canidae family show subtle self consciousness.

Evolution NCERT  Q6.List 10 modern-day animals and using the” internet resources link it to a corresponding ancient fossil. Name both.
Ans: (i) Cockroach, Limulus (king crab), Neopilina, Latimaria (Fish) are fossil that has remain unchanged over years.
(ii) ‘Trilobites- fossil arthropods
(iii) Lung fishes – connecting link between fishes and amphibians
(iv) Peripatus – connecting link between annelids and arthropods .
(v) Woody mammoth – ice fossils
(vi) Gastropods – mould and cast fossil
(vii) Giant elk – amber fossil of asphalt
(viii) Dinosaur footprint – imprints

NCERT Solutions of Evolution Class 12  Q7. Practise drawing various animals and plants.
Ans: (1) Elephant
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q7
(2) Camel
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q7.1
(3) Dog
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q7.2
(4) Rose
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q7.3
(5) Dahlia
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q7.4
(6) hibiscus
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q7.5

Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 NCERT Solutions  Q8.Describe one example of adaptive radiation.
Ans: Darwin’s finches of the Galapagos islands had common ancestors but now have different types of modified beaks according to their food habits.

Evolution Questions And Answers Class 12 Q9. Can we call human evolution as adaptive radiation?
Ans: Yes, human evolution is an example of adaptive radiation as different species of human evolved across different areas of world as they diverged to different areas in following fashion.
(i) Hominid introduction occured in Africa and Asia:
(ii) Homo habilis lived in Africa – 2 million years ago.
(iii) Homo erectus- migrated to Asia and Europe and diverged into 2 species – Java Man and Peking Man.
(iv) Similarly Homo erectus – was followed by Homo sapiens.
(v) Primitive neanderthal man in Europe gave way to African cromagnon.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution Q9

Evolution Class 12 NCERT Q10. Using various resources such as your school library or the internet and discussions with your teacher, trace the evolutionary stages of any one animal say horse.
Ans: Evolutionary stages of horse:
Eohippus – Mesohippus – Merychippus – Pliohippus – Equus.
Evolutionary trend:
(i) Increase in body size.
(ii) Elongation of neck.
(iii) Lengthening of limbs.
(iv) Enlargement of third digit.
(v) Increase in structural complexity of teeth for feeding on grass.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health:

Section Name Topic Name
4 Reproductive Health
4.1 Reproductive Health – Problems and Strategies
4.2 Population Explosion and Birth Control
4.3 Medical Termination of Pregnancy
4.4 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
4.5 Infertility
4.6 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. What do you think is the significance of reproductive health in a society?
Ans: Reproductive health in a society is significant because the people are aware of
(i) birth control methods and advantages of small family,
(ii) sexually transmitted diseases and methods to avoid them,
(iii) importance breast feeding and post natal care of the mother and baby and
(iv) equal opportunities for the male and female children.

2. Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention in the present scenario.
Ans: The aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention are :

  • Introduction of sex education in schools to give right information to the young minds about reproductive organs, accessory organs of reproduction, secondary sexual characters, adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, STDs etc.
  • Providing knowledge about available birth control methods, care of pregnant mothers, post-natal care of the mother and child, importance of breast feeding etc.
  • Creating awareness about consequences of uncontrolled population growth and social evils (sex abuses and sex-related crimes, use of drugs, tobacco and alcohol etc.) among young people.

3. Is sex education necessary in schools? Why?
Ans: Yes, sex education is necessary in school.Because introduction of sex education in school encourage to provide the right or correct information to the young peoples so as to discourage children from believing in myths & having misconceptions about sex related aspects. Proper information about reproductive organs, safe & hygienic sexual practices, STD’s etc. would help people, those in the adolescent age group to lead a healthy reproductive life. In many countries, sexual education raises much contentious debate. Chief among the controversial points is whether covering child sexuality is valuable or detrimental; the use of birth control such as condoms and hormonal contraception, and the impact of such use on pregnancy, outside marriage, teenage pregnancy, and the transmission of STDs. Increasing support for abstinence – only sex education by conservative groups has been one of the primary causes of the controversies.

4. Do you think that reproductive health in our country has improved in the past 50 years? If yes, mention some such areas of improvement
Ans: Yes, in the last 50 years, reproductive health in our country has improved. Some such areas of improvement are (i) massive child immunization (ii) maternity and child health (iii) increasing use of contraceptives (iv) family planning.
Bringing sexual and reproductive health services to the millions of people living in countries which still suffer from short life expectancies, high levels of child and maternal mortality, child lSS&ur and illiteracy and poor overall health remains a major challenge for governments and non government organizations.

5. What are the suggested reasons for population explosion?
Ans: (i) Increased health facilities along with better living conditions had an explosive impact on the growth of population.
(ii) Decline in Death rate
(iii) Decline in Maternal Mortality Rate
(iv) Decline in Infant Mortality Rate
(v) Increase in the number of people in the reproductive age.

6. Is the use of contraceptives justified ? Give reasons.
Ans: Population in India is increasing at a very fast rate and such a growth necessitated intense use of contraceptive methods to bring all the fertile couples under its cover. It will help in bringing the birth rate down and consequently check the population growth. Therefore, the use of contraceptives is justified. It is essential to mention here that the selection of a suitable contraceptive method should be practiced in consultation with qualified doctors. The government provides these facilities free at the family planning centres. Contraceptives are given free or at nominal prices at these centres to the couples of reproductive age desirous of preventing conception.

7. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option. Why?
Ans: Removal of gonads or its parts is a surgical method, of sterilization. Vasectomy and tubectomy are carried out in males and females respectively. It will lead to infertility & both male and female will be dependent on hormones in their remaining life to regulate functioning of reproductive organs. These are very effective but their irreversibility is very poor, so they are not good options for contraception.

8. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned? in our country. Is this ban necessary? Comment
Ans: Since Amniocentesis is misused to find out the sex of the foetus leading to female foeticides, it is necessary. It is the prenatal diagnostic
technique, that helps to find out chromosomal (genetic) disorders, metabolic disorders of the foetus; in extreme cases where the foetus is found to be suffering from an incurable disorder Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is banned. The solution to the problem is not ‘ passing more laws, such as banning sex determination ultrasounds but raising the social & economic status of women,

9. Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Ans: ART (Assisted Reproductive Technologies) is a term that describes several different methods used to help infertile couples. ART involves removing eggs from a woman’s body, mixing them with sperm in the laboratory and putting the embryos bath into a woman’s body.
Success rates vary depending on many factors.Something that affects the success rate of ART includes age of the partners, reason for infertility,type of ART, if the egg is fresh or frozen. Various methods are now available to help such couples are — in vitro fertilization, gamete intra fallopian transfer, intracytoplasmic sperm injection & artificial insemination.
(i) In vitro fertilization – Patient’s egg & her partner’s sperm are collected & mixed together in a laboratory to achieve fertilization outside the body. The embryo produced may then be transferred into the female patient. It is commonly knownas test tube baby programme.
(ii) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) – A procedure in which eggs are retrieved from a woman, mixed with sperm & immediately replaced in one or other of the women’s fallopian tubes so that they fertilize inside the body (invivo).
(iii) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)– In this method, sperm & eggs are retrieved from both the parents. A single sperm is injected directly into an egg, then the fertilized egg is implanted into the woman’s uterus.
(iv)Artificial insemination – In this technique, the semen is collected either from husband or a healthy donor & is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus of the female (IUI-Intra uterine insemination).

10. What are the measures one has to take to prevent from contracting STDs?
Ans: (i) Avoiding sex with unknown partner /multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during intercourse.
(iii) In case of doubt, go for medical professional for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease.
(iv) Education & counselling of persons at risk on ways to adopt safer sexual behaviour.

11. State True/False with explanation
(a) Abortions could happen spontaneously too. (True/False)
(b) Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to abnormalities/defects in the female partner. (True/False)
(c) Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception. (True/False)
(d) Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive health of the people. (True/False)
Ans: (a) True. Due to internal factors like incompatibility, abortion could happen spontaneously.
(b)False. It is due to abnormalities/defects in either male or female or both the partners.
(c)True, but it is limited to period up to six months after parturition.
(d)True. Creating awareness about sex-related aspects removes the myths and miconcep- tions about these problems.

12. Correct the following statements:
(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(b )Ail sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives, among the rural women.
(d) In E.T. techniques, embryos are always transferred into the uterus.
Ans: (a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete transport & thereby prevent conception.
(b) Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections, other STD diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly.
(c) Oral pill are very popular contraceptives among the educated urban women.
(d) In E.T. techniques, embryos with 8 blastomeres are transferred into fallopian tube and more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction:

Section Name Topic Name
3 Human Reproduction
3.1 The Male Reproductive System
3.2 The Female Reproductive System
3.3 Gametogenesis
3.4 Menstrual Cycle
3.5 Fertilisation and Implantation
3.6 Pregnancy and Embryonic Development
3.7 Parturition and Lactation
3.8 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a)Humans reproduce————— (asexually/sexually).
(b)Humans are————— (oviparous, viviparous,ovoviviparous).
(c)Fertilization is————— in humans (external/internal).
(d)Male and female gametes are—————(diploid/haploid).
(e)Zygote is————— (diploid/haploid).
(f)The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called————— .
(g)Ovulation is induced by a hormone called—————
(h)The fusion of male and female gametes is called————— .
(i)Fertilization takes place in—————
(j)Zygote divides to form————— which is implanted in uterus.
(k)The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and uterus is called————— .
Ans: (a) sexually
(b) viviparous
(c) internal
(d)haploid
(e)diploid
(f)ovulation
(g)LH (Luteinizing hormone)
(h)fertilization
(i)ampullary-isthmic junction (fallopian tube)
(j)blastocyst
(k)placenta (Umbilical cord)

2. Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction Q2

3. Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system.
Ans:
byjus class 12 biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 3

4. Write two major functions each of testis and ovary.
Ans: Testes are components of both the reproductive system (being gonads) and the endocrine system (being endocrine glands). The respective functions of the testes are – producing sperm (spermatozoa) by the process of spermatogenesis and producing male sex hormones, of which testosterone is the best-known. Testosterone stimulates development of testes and of male secondary sexual characteristics.

The ovaries have two major functions. One is the production of eggs or ova, and the second is the production of hormones or chemicals which regulate menstruation and other aspects of health and well-being, including sexual well-being. Estrogen and progesterone are the most important hormones which serve many functions like, they induce and maintain the physical changes during puberty and the secondary sex characteristics and they support maturation of the uterine endometrium in preparation for implantation for a fertilised egg, etc.

5. Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubule.
Ans: The seminiferous tubule is a structural unit in the adult testis. The seminiferous tubules are situated in testicular lobules. Seminiferous tubule consists of two types of cells – Sertoli or supporting cells & spermatogenic cellsl Sertoli cells, are elongated and pyramidal & partially envelop the spermatogenic cells. The cells provide nourishment to the developing spermatogenic cells. Spermatogenic cells are stacked in 4-8 layers. These cells divide several times & differentiate to produce spermatozoa. Between seminiferous tubules lie the interstitial cells or leydig cells which produces testosterone hormone.

6. What is spermatogenesis? Briefly describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Ans: Spermatogenesis is the process of producing sperms with half the number of chromosomes (haploid) as somatic cells. It occurs in seminiferous tubules. Sperm production begins at puberty continues throughout life with several hundred million sperms be ing produced each day. Once sperm are formed they move into the epididymis, where they mature and are stored. During spermatogenesis one spermatogonium produces 4 sperms. Spermatogenesis completes through the following phases – multiplicative phase, growth phase, maturation phase & spermiogenesis. In multiplicative phase the sperm mother cells divide by mitosis & produce spermatogonia. The spermatogonia grow in size to form large primary spermatocytes by getting nourishment from sertoli cells in growth phase. Maturation phase involves meiosis I in which primary spermatocytes divide to produce secondary spermatocyte and meiosis II which produces spermatids. Thus each primary spermatocyte gives rise to four haploid spermatids. Spermiogenesis or spermateliosis is process of formation of flagellated spermatozoa from spermatids. Spermiogenesis begins in the seminiferous tubules but usually completed in epididymis.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction Q6

7. Name the hormones involved in regulation of spermatogenesis.
Ans: The hormones involved in regulation of spermatogenesis are GnRH, LH, FSH and androgens.

Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH). The increased levels of GnRH then acts at the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of two gonadotropins – luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). LH acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens. Androgens, in turn, stimulate the process of spermatogenesis. FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis.

8. Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.
Ans: Spermiogenesis is the process of transformation of spermatids into mature flagellated spermatozoa (sperms).Spermiation is the process of release of mature spermatozoa. In this spermatozoa are shed into the lumen of seminiferous tubule for transport.

9. Draw a labelled diagram of sperm.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction Q9

10.What are the major components of seminal plasma?
Ans: Seminal plasma is the fluid in which sperm is ejaculated. Major components of seminal plasma are secretions from seminal vesicles, prostrate and bulbourethral gland and sperms from testis. It is rich in fructose and contains enzymes, citric acid, hormones like prostaglandins, calcium and clotting proteins.

11. What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Ans: Male accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. These ducts store and transport sperms from the testis to the outside through urethra. The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral glands. Secretions of these glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. The secretions of bulbourethral glands also helps in the lubrication of the penis.

12. What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
Ans: The process of formation of a mature female gamete (ovum) is called oogenesis. It occurs in the ovaries of female reproductive system. Oogenesis is a discontinuous process it begins before birth, stops in midprocess & only resumes after menarch. It occurs in three phases : Multiplicative phase (formation of oogonia mitotically from the primary germ cells), Growth phase (growth of oogonia into primary oocyte) & Maturation phase (formation of mature ova from primary oocyte through meiosis). Maturation phase produces two haploid cells – Larger one called secondary oocyte & the smaller one called polar bodies (1st polar body). Meiosis II of secondary oocyte results in the formation of functional egg or ovum and a second polar body: The first polar body may also divide to form two polar bodies of equal sizes which do not take part in reproduction & ultimately degenerates. First maturation division may be completed in the ovaries just prior to ovulation but second one (Final) is completed outside the ovary after fertilization. Secondary oocyte is female gamete in which the 1st meiotic division is completed & second meiotic division (Metaphase stage) has begin. The egg is released at secondary oocyte stage under the effect of LH.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction Q12

13. Draw a labelled diagram of a section through ovary.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction Q13

14. Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction Q14

15. Name the functions of the following:
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Endometrium

(c) Acrosome
(d) Sperm tail

(e) Fimbriae
Ans: (a) Corpus luteum : The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometriuip.
(b) Endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilized ovum and other events of pregnancy.
(c) The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help during fertilization of the ovum.
(d) Sperm tail: Tail facilitates sperm motility which is essential for fertilization.
(e) Fimbriae: Fimbriae help in collection of the ovum after ovulation.

16. Identify True/False statements. Correct each
false statement to make it true.
(a) Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells. (True/False)
(b) Spermatozoa get nutrition from sertoli cells. (True/False)
(c) Leydig cells are found in ovary. (True/ False)
(d) Leydig cells synthesize androgens. (True/ False)
(e) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum. (True/False)
(i) Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. (True/False)
(g) Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual – experience. (True/False)
Ans: (a) False, Androgens or male sex hormones (e.g, testosterone) are secreted by Leydig cells.
(b) True.
(c) False, Leydig cells are found in testis.
(d) True.
(e) False, Oogenesis takes place in ovary.
(f) True.
(g) True.

17. What is menstrual cycle? Which hormones regulate menstrual cycle?
Ans: Menstrual cycle is the cyclic change( itf’the reproductive tract of primate female. This period is marked by a characteristic event repeated almost every month (28 days with minor variation) in the form of a menstrual flow (i.e. shedding of the endometrium of the uterus with bleeding. It may be temporarily stopped only in pregnancy.
The hormones that regulates menstrual cycles are
(i) FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone),
(ii) LH (Luteinizing hormone),
(iii) Oestrogens,
(iv) Progesterone.

18. What is parturition ? Which hormones are involved in induction of parturition?
Solution:
Parturition (or labour) means child birth. Parturition is the sequence of actions by which a baby and the afterbirth (placenta) are expelled from the uterus at childbirth. The process usually starts spontaneously about 280 days after conception, but it may be started by artificial means.

The process of parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanisms involving cortisol, estrogen and oxytocin.

19. In our society the women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct?
Ans: The sex chromosome pattern in the human females is XX and that of male is XY. Therefore, all the haploid female gametes (ova) have the sex chromosome X, however, the haploid male gametes have either X or Y. Thus 50% of sperms carry the X-chromosome while the other 50% carry the Y-chromosome. After fusion of the male and female gametes, the zygote carries either XX or XY depending upon whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilizes the ovum. The zygote carrying XX would be a female baby and XY would be a male baby. That is why it is correct to say that the sex of the baby is determined by the father.

20. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month? How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins? Would your answer change if the twins born were fraternal?
Ans: One egg is released by human ovary in a month. Identical twins: Identical twins are formed when a single fertilized egg splits into two genetically identical parts. The twins share the same DNA set, thus they may share many similar attributes. However, since physical appearance is influenced by environmental factors and not just genetics, identical twins can actually look very different.
Fraternal twins: These twins are formed when two fertilized eggs are formed. The twins share the different DNA set, thus they may share different attributes (dizygotic embryo).

21. How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies?
Ans: Since dogs have multiple births, several eggs mature and are released at the same time. If fertilised, the egg will implant on the uterine wall. Dogs bear their litters roughly 9 weeks after fertilisation, although the length of gestation can vary from 56 to 72 days. An average litter consists of about six puppies, though this number may vary widely based on the breed of dog. On this basis 6 eggs were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications:

Section Name Topic Name
12 Biotechnology and its Applications
12.1 Biotechnological Applications in Agriculture
12.2 Biotechnological Applications in Medicine
12.3 Transgenic Animals
12.4 Ethical Issues
12.5 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because –
(a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(b) toxin is immature;
(c) toxin is inactive;
(d) bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac.
Ans: (c) Toxin is inactive.

2. What are transgenic bacteria? Illustrate using any one example.
Ans: Bacteria having gene or genes usually from an unrelated organism incorporated into their genome are called transgenic bacteria. For example, when human insulin gene is introduced into the isolated plasmid of E.coli bacterium and this recombinant DNA is transferred into a fresh bacterium, then the later is said to be transgenic or transformed bacterium.

3. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of production of genetically modified crops.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications Q3

4. What are Cry proteins? Name an organism that produces it. How has man exploited this protein to his benefit?
Ans: The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is a common soil bacterium which produces a protein toxin that kills certain insects. The toxin is a crystal (Cry) protein. There are several kinds of Cry proteins which are toxic to different groups of insects. The gene encoding Cry protein is called cry gene. Biotechnologists have been able to isolate the gene responsible for production of toxin and to introduce it into a number of plants to produce genetically modified plants resistant to insects, e.g., Bt cotton (resistant to bollworm) and GM tobacco (resistant to hornworms).

5. What is gene therapy? Illustrate using the example of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Ans: Gene therapy is correction of malfunctioning/gen by repairing or adding correct copy. ADA (adenosine deaminase deficiency) is a very rare genetic disorder due to deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. The enzyme is crucial for the immune system to functions. It can be treated by gene therapy. This gene is transfected into early embryonic cells of bone marrow for permanent use.

6. Digrammatically represent the experimental steps in cloning and expressing an human gene (say the gene for growth hormone) into a bacterium like E. coli?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications Q6

7. Can you suggest a method to remove oil (hydrocarbon) from seeds based on your understanding of rDNA technology and chemistry of oil?
Ans: The genes for the formation of oil in the seed should be identified. The appropriate genes should be removed with the help of restriction endonucleases. Such DNA should then be treated with DNA ligases to make seal DNA at the broken ends. These cells when grown aseptically on nutrient medium will differentiate into a new plant whose seeds will not have oil in them.

8. Find out from internet what is golden rice.
Ans: Golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice (Oryza sativa) containing good quantities of β-carotene (provitamin A) which is principle source of vitamin A. Since the grains of the rice are yellow in colour due to β-carotene, the rice is commonly called golden rice. It was developed at Swiss Federal Institute of Technology by Professor Ingo Potrykus and Peter Beyer.

9. Does our blood have proteases and nucleases?
Ans: No, blood does not have protease and nuclease. If it would have been there blood and cell would have been digested, some protease do exist in inactive form.

10. Consult internet and find out how to make orally activ&protein pharmaceutical. What is the major problem to be encountered?
Ans: Orally active protein product that is successfully manufactured is vaccines for preventions of infectious diseases such as hepatitis B, herpes, influenza, etc. Gene for antigen are isolated from bacteria and grown along with cut leaf portions of potato plant in antibiotic medium – followed by callus formation and recombinant/transgenic potato are obtained which contain those vaccines.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Ecosystem

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Ecosystem

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Ecosystem

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 14 Ecosystem:

Section Name Topic Name
14 Ecosystem
14.1 Ecosystem–Structure and Function
14.2 Productivity
14.3 Decomposition
14.4 Energy Flow
14.5 Ecological Pyramids
14.6 Ecological Succession
14.7 Nutrient Cycling
14.8 Ecosystem Services
14.9 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Fill in the blanks.
(a) Plants are called as————- because they fix carbon dioxide.
(b) In an ecosystem dominated by trees, the pyramid (of numbers) is————- type.
(c) In aquatic ecosystems, the limiting factor for the productivity is————- .
(d) Common detritivores in our ecosystem are————- .
(e) The major reservoir of carbon on earth is————- .
Ans: (a) Autotrophs
(b) Spindle
(c) Sunlight
(d) Earthworm, bacteria & fungi of decay and vulture
(e) Oceans

2. Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers.
(d) Decomposers
Ans: (d)

3. The second trophic level in a lake is-
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Ans: (b)

4. Secondary producers are
(a) Herbivores
(b) Producers
(c) Carnivores
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)

5. What is the percentage of photo synthetically act., radiation (PAR), in the incident solar radiation?
(a) 100%
(b) 50 %

(c) 1-5%
(d) 2-10%

Ans: (b)

6. Distinguish between
(a) Grazing food chain and detritus food chain
(b) Production and decomposition
(c) ‘Upright and inverted pyramid
(d) Food chain and food web
(e) Litter and detritus
(f) Primary and secondary productivity
Ans: (a) Grazing Food Chain (GFC) begins with primary producers or plants and ends in carnivores (tertiary or top carnivores) whereas Detritus Food Chain (DFC) begins with detritus or dead organic matter and it ends in carnivores. In GFC, energy for the food chain comes from sun whereas in DFC, energy for the food chain comes from organic remains or detritus.

(b) Production is the phenomenon in which the energy is produced by the process of synthesis of organic compound from inorganic substances (such as CO2, H2O & minerals) utilizing generally the sunlight. It traps energy.
Decomposition refers to the breakdown of complex organic matter into simpler ones. It releases energy.

(c) In upright pyramid (e.g., grassland & cropland ecosystem), biomass or number of organisms or amount of energy decreases
on moving to upper trophic levels while in an inverted pyramid (eg. tree ecosystem) these quantities tend to increase on going to successive trophic levels.

(d) A food chain is a sequence of different types of organisms by which the flow of energy occurs from one trophic level to another whereas food web is the network of various food chains inter-connected to each other. Food webs increase adaptability and competitiveness of the organisms.

(e) Litter is the dead organic material fallen on the surface of the soil like leaves, remains of animals and excreta. Detritus is the dead organic matter found below the soil surface which is eaten up by the detritivores or broken down by decomposers.

(f) Primary productivity is the rate of synthesis of biomass or energy fixation by the plants. It is comparatively quite high.
Secondary productivity is the rate of synthesis of biomass by consumers (herbivores and carnivores). It is small and decreases with rise of trophic level.

7. Describe the components of an ecosystem.
Ans: The components of an ecosystem are as follows :

  1. Abiotic components or non living components : These include inorganic substances or minerals (standing state or standing quality), organic substances and different climatic conditions like temperature, pH, light, etc.
  2. Biotic components or living components :

(a) Autotrophs or producers which have capacity to manufacture their own food or which can fix radiant energy of sun into chemical energy, e.g., green plants and photosynthetic bacteria.

(b) Heterotrophs or consumers which are unable to manufacture their own food and depend upon other organisms for their food. These are of following types:

  • Primary consumers or herbivores which depend upon producers or green plants for their food.
  • Secondary consumers or carnivores which live upon herbivores.
  • Top consumers or top carnivores which live upon secondary consumers.

(c) Decomposers or microconsumers decompose dead organic substances of producers and consumers into simple substances and thus continue mineral cycles, e.g., bacteria, fungi, actinomycetes etc.

8. Define’ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of number and biomass.
Ans:  Ecological pyramid is a graphical method to show the number of organisms or biomass or amount of energy present at different trophic levels. Pyramid of number: Number of individuals at each trophic level is shown in pyramid. The pyramid of number (for example of a grassland) is upright. In this there is a decrease in the number of organisms starting from primary producers (plants) to top consumers (carnivores). Pyramid of biomass : Pyramid of biomass is graphic representation of amount of biomass per unit area sequence wise in rising trophic levels with producers at the base and top carnivores at the apex. Pyramids of biomass of a tree or . grassland ecosystem are upright and the pyramid of a pond ecosystem is inverted.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Ecosystem Q8

9. What is primary productivity? Give brief description of factors that affect primary productivity.
Ans: Primary productivity of an ecosystem is the amount of energy fixed or biomass synthesized by primary producers or green plants per unit area per unit time during photosynthesis. Factors affecting primary productivity are –
-Plant species inhabiting a particular area
-Sunlight
-Temperature
-Soil water
-Nutrients
lit deserts, sunlight is abundant but water is scarce or nutrients are lacking. Therefore, in such areas, water & nutrients supply become the limiting factors.

10. Define decomposition and describe the processes and products of decomposition.
Ans: The process by which decomposers break down complex organic remains (dead plants, animal remains and excretions) into inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water and nutrients is called decomposition. The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification and mineralisation. Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles. This process is called fragmentation.

By the process of leaching, water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.

Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. The process is called as catabolism.

All the above steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the detritus. Humification and mineralisation occur during decomposition in the soil.

Humification leads to accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance called humus that is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients.

The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the process known as mineralisation.

11. Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.
Ans: Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional. The ultimate source of energy is sun. The solar energy is captured by the green plants which utilize it in synthesizing their own food. The energy fixed by the green plants is transferred to herbivores which feed on them. The energy is then transferred to higher trophic levels (carnivores). At every step, considerable amount of energy is lost. According to 10% law, only 10% of total energy stored in a trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level of a food chain.

12. Write important features of a sedimentary cycle in an ecosystem.
Ans: The movement of nutrient elements through various components of an ecosystem takes place by a biogeochemical cycle. It is of 2 types – gaseous and sedimentary. A nutrient that does not enter the atmosphere easily is said to have a sedimentary cycle. Sedimentary cycle involve cycling of sulphur, phosphorus etc. which are located in earth’s crust.
Phosphorus is a very important element as it is present in various substances found in living beings. The cycling of phosphorus in an ecosystem occurs in such a way that plants obtain it from soil or rocks. The animals or primary consumers obtain it from plants. Secondary consumers or carnivores take it from herbivores while omnivores (like man) receive it both from plants and animals. Phosphorus present in organisms is also released during decomposition.

13. Outline salient features of carbon cycling in an ecosystem.
Ans:  Carbon is an important constituent of living matter. Green plants take it in the form of C02 from atmosphere and fix it as carbohydrates. Carbon which is also present in proteins, fats etc. is transferred to the organisms of other trophic levels. Apart from being released in atmosphere as C02 during respiration, carbon is also released in atmosphere through burning of wood, fossil fuel and decomposition of organic matter by microbes.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Ecosystem Q13

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology:Principles And Processes

NCERT  Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology: Principles And Processes

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles And Processes:

Section Name Topic Name
11 Biotechnology:Principles And Processes
11.1 Principles of Biotechnology
11.2 Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology
11.3 Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology
11.4 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical practice? Find out where they are used as therapeutics (use the internet).
Ans: (i) Human insulin – Diabetes
(ii) Human growth hormone – Dwarfism cure
(iii) Blood clotting factor Y1H/IX-Haemophilia
(iv) TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) – Heart attack/strokes
(v) PDGF (platelet derived growth factor) – Stimulates wound healing.
(vi) Interferon – Treatment of viral infection.
(vii) Interlinking – Enhances immune reaction,
(viii) Hepatitis B vaccine – Prevention of infectious disease.
(ix) Herpes Vaccine – Prevention of infectious disease.
(x) DNase I – Treatment of cystic fibrosis.

2. Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the product it produces.
Ans: Name of the Restriction enzyme – Bam HI.
The substrate DNA on which it acts –
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biotechnology Principles And Processes Q2

3. From what you have learnt, can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or DNA is bigger in molecular size? How did you know?
Ans: Both DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and enzymes are macromolecules. DNA is a polymer of deoxyribonucleotides and enzymes are proteins hence these are polymers of amino acids. But DNA is bigger in molecular size as compared to proteins because synthesis of proteins is regulated by a small segment of DNA, called genes and also a large number of proteins can be synthesised by a DNA molecule.

4. What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell? Consult your teacher.
Ans: The molar concentration of DNA in human cell is 2 mg/ml of cell extract.

5. Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.
Ans: No, eukaryotic cells do not have restriction endonuclease because DNA molecules of eukaryotes are heavily methylated. All the restriction endonucleases have been isolated from various strain of bacteria.

6. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks?
Ans: Shake flasks are used for growing and mixing the desired materials on a small scale in the laboratory. A large scale production of desired biotechnological product is done by using ‘bioreactors’. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, the bioreactors have following advantages
(i) Small volumes of cultures are periodically withdrawn from die reactor for sampling.
(ii) It has a foam control system, pH control system and temperature control system.
(iii) Facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.

7. Collect 5 examples of palindromic DNA sequences by consulting your teacher. Better try to create a palindromic sequence by following base-pair rules.
Ans: Palindrome nucleotide sequences in the DNA molecule are groups of bases that form the same sequence when read both forward and backward. Five examples of palindromic DNA sequences are as follows:
(i) 5′-—————GGATCC——————3’
3′—————CCTAGG—————–5′
(ii) 5’—————AAGCTT——————3′
3′——————TTCGAA —————-5′
(iii) 5′—————–ACGCGT—————–3′
3′——————TGCGGA————– 5′
(iv) 5′———- ACTAGT————3′
3′——————TGATCA————5′
(v) 5′—————AGGCCT—————3′
3′——————TCCGGA————–5′

8. Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made?
Ans: Recombinant DNA is formed due to crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosome. It occurs during pachytene stage of prophase of meiosis I

9. Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?
Ans: A reporter enzyme can be used to differentiate transformed cells by tracking down the activity of its co-responding genes (receptor gene). For e.g., (3-galactosidase (Lac Z) activity is not found in transformed cells so that they appear white in colour. The others, which appear blue in colour, indicate that cells do not carry foreign DNA.

10. Describe briefly the followings:
(a) Origin of replication
(b) Bioreactors
(c) Downstream processing
Ans: (a) Origin of Replication: This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. So, if one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA it should be cloned in a vector whose origin support high copy number.

(b) Bioreactor: Bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products by microbes, plant and animal cell and/or their enzymes. The bioreactor provides optimum growth conditions and facilitates achieving the desired products. The most commonly used bioreactor is of stirring type. A stirred tank bioreactor is usually a cylindrical vessel or vessel with a curved base to facilitate mixing of the contents. In the sparged stirred tank bioreactor, sterile air bubbles are sparged. The stirrer facilitates the mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor. A bioreactor has an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, a foam control system, a temperature control system, pH control system and sampling ports.

(c) Downstream Processing : The product obtained is subjected to a series, of processes collectively called downstream processing before it is made into a finished product ready for marketing. The two main processes are separation and purification. The product is then formulated with suitable preservatives. Such formulations have to undergo clinical trials, in case of drugs.

11. Explain briefly
(a) PCR
(b) Restriction enzymes and DNA
(c) Chitinase
Ans: (a) PCR = Polymerase chain reaction (in vitro method) is a molecular biological technique for enzymatically replicating DNA without using a living organism, such as E. coli or yeast.
3 steps in PCR are –
(i) Denaturation of desired double strand DNA-to ssDNA.
(ii) Annealing of primer to ssDNA (single standard).
(iii) Extension of primer by Taq DNA polymerase isolated form Thermits aquaticus.
Uses – Amplification of desired gene/gene cloning.
Advantage- More output, greater efficiency, less error prone, less human interference and cyclic and automated.
(b) Restriction enzymes and DNA – Restriction enzymes is a group of enzymes used to cleave or cut DNA strands each having a characteristics base sequence at which it cleaves.
(i) It restricts foreign DNA from entering normal cell by digesting it at various recognition site. Recognition site is palindromic.
(ii) They are endonuclease and exonuclease both types.
(iii) They produces sticky ends. Cleavage site and recognition site are different from each other. Restriction enzymes therefore are believed to be a mechanism evolved by bacteria to resist viral attack and to help in the removal of viral sequences.
(c) Chitinase – Chitinase is a enzyme to digest or breakdown glycosidic bonds in chitin cell wall of fungal cell to facilitate its transformation.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproduction in Organisms

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproduction in Organisms

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms:

Section Name Topic Name
1 Reproduction in Organisms
1.1 Asexual Reproduction
1.2 Sexual Reproduction
1.3 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Why is reproduction essential for organisms?
Ans: Reproduction is the ability of living organisms to produce a young one similar to itself. It ensures continuity of a species generation after generation. Reproduction introduces variation in the organisms. Useful variations are essential for adaptation and evolution. Therefore, it is essential for organisms.

2. Which is a better mode of reproduction sexual or asexual? Why?
Ans: Sexual reproduction is a better mode of reproduction because of the following reasons:

  1. Variation : Since fusion of gametes from different parents occur during sexual reproduction, hence genetic recombination takes place causing variations.
  2. Evolution : Variation being a major factor of natural selection, therefore, it plays an important role in evolution.
  3. Adaptation : The offspring produced due to sexual reproduction adapt better to the changing environmental conditions.
  4. Vigour and Vitality : Genetic recombination, interaction, etc. during sexual reproduction provide vigour and vitality to the offspring.

3. Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred to as clone?
Ans: Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction in which a single individual is capable of producing offspring. These offspring are not only genetically and morphologically similar to one another but also similar to their parent. Clone is the term given to individuals that are genetically and morphologically similar. Thus the offspring produced by asexual reproduction are called clones.

4. Offsprings formed due to sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why? Is this statement always true?
Ans: The offsprings obtained from sexual reproduction have better chances of survival because the genetic material of such organisms are formed from both the parents. Daughter organisms/offsprings show variation that leads to the evolution of species.

This statement is always true. The offspring produced due to sexual reproduction adapt better to the changing environmental conditions. Genetic recombination, interaction, etc. during sexual reproduction provide vigour and vitality to the offspring.

5. How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Ans: Production of offspring by a single parent without the formation and fiision of gametes is called asexual reproduction. It involves only mitotic cell division that gives rise the daughter cells which are genetically identical to the parent cell. Sexual reproduction is the production of offspring by two parents, male and female. It involves meiotic cell divisions producing haploid nuclei which on fusion produce offspring that are genetically different from their parents.

6. Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction. Why is vegetative reproduction also considered as a type of asexual reproduction?
Ans: The difference between asexual and sexual reproduction are as follows :
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproduction in Organisms Textbook Questions Q6
In plants asexual reproduction is called vegetative reproduction because vegetative plant parts like rhizome, runner, sucker, tuber, bulb all are capable of producing off springs These parts give rise to daughter individuals without the involvement of two parents.

7. What is vegetative propagation? Give two suitable examples.
Ans: Vegetative propagation is the formation of new plants from vegetative units. In plants, the units of vegetative propagation are runner, rhizome, sucker, tuber, offset, bulb, etc. These are capable of producing new offsprings. These structures are called v vegetative propagules.

Modified tuberous roots of sweet potato, tapioca, yam, Dahlia and Tinospora can be propagated vegetatively when planted in soil. Small plants emerging from the buds (called eyes) of the potato tuber, from the rhizomes of banana and ginger are other examples.

8. Define:
(a)Juvenile phase
(b)Reproductive phase
(c)Senescent phase.
Ans: (a)Juvenile phase : All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life before they can reproduce sexually. That period of growth is called juvenile phase. However, this phase is known as vegetative phase in plants. This phase is of different durations in different organisms.
(b)Reproductive phase: The end of juvenile/ vegetative phase marks the beginning of reproductive phase. During this phase, the organisms produce offspring. In higher plants, this phase can be easily seen when they come to flower but in animals, the juvenile phase is followed by morphological and physiological changes prior to active reproductive behaviour. The reproductive phase is also of variable period in different organisms like some plants, flower throughout the year while others show seasonal flowering. In animals like birds lay eggs seasonally “but when in captivity (as in poultry farms) can be made to lay eggs throughout the year. Placental female mammals, undergo cyclical changes in reproductive organs during this phase.
(c) Senescent phase: It begins from the end of the reproductive phase. During this phase of life span, there is progressive deterioration in the body (like slowing of metabolism, etc.). Old age ultimately leads to death.

9. Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why?
Ans: Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity because sexual reproduction results in multiplication and perpetuation of species and also contributes to evolution of species by introducing variation much more faster than asexual reproduction in a particular population. Sexual reproduction enables higher organisms to survive during unfavourable conditions.

10. Explain why meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked?
Ans: Gametogenesis is the process of formation of two types of haploid gametes (male and female). In gametogenesis, gametes are haploid in number and formed by meiosis so the chromosome number is haploid. Thus gametogenesis is always linked with meiosis.

11. Identify each part in a flowering plant and write whether it is haploid (n) or diploid (2n).
(a)Ovary ————————
(b)Anther ————————
(c)Egg ————————
(d)Pollen ————————
(e)Male gamete ————————
(f)Zygote ————————
Ans: (a)2n (b)2n (c)n (d)n (e)n (f)2n

12. Define external fertilization. Mention its disadvantages.
Ans: When fusion of the gametes takes place outside the body of the organisms, it is called external fertilization or external syngamy. The external medium like water is required for this form of fertilization. This form, is found in many aquatic animals like fishes, amphibians, majority of algae.
In this, parents release eggs and sperms in the surrounding water, then fertilization and development of offspring occur externally. Disadvantages of external fertilization:
(i)if occurs only in aquatic medium.
(ii)A chance factor is involved requiring synchronous release of gametes nearby and absence of turbulence of water.
(iii)There is no protection to young ones. They are vulnerable to a number of predators.

13. Differentiate between a zoospore and a zygote.
Ans: The zoospore is flagellated, motile, haploid or diploid spore formed inside a zoosporangium. It is the result of asexual reproduction.

The zygote is always diploid and formed by the fusion of gametes. It is usually non- flagellated and non-motile or motile. It is the net result of sexual reproduction.

14. Differentiate between gametogenesis from embryogenesis.
Ans: Differences between gametogenesis and embryogenesis are as follows :
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproduction in Organisms Textbook Questions Q14

15. Describe the post-fertilization changes in a flower.
Ans: In sexual reproduction, events that occur after the formation of zygote are called post-fertilization events. In flowering plants, the zygote is formed inside the ovule. After fertilization the sepals, petals and stamens of the flower wither and fall off. But the pistil remains attached to the plant. The zygote develops into the embryo and the ovules develop into the seed. The ovary develops into die fruit that develops.a thick wall called pericarp which is protective in – function. After dispersal, seeds germinate under favourable conditions to produce new plants.

16. What is % bisexual flower? Collect five bisexual flowers from your neighbourhood and with the help of your teacher find out their common and scientific names.
Ans: Flowers in which male and female sex organs (stamens and carpels) are borne on the same flowers are called bisexual flowers. You can observe following bisexual flowers in your kitchen and colony gardens :
(i)Brassica (sarson) – Brassica campestris
(ii)Onion – Allium cepa
(iii)Garden Pea (Edible pea) – Pisum sativum
(iv)Petunia – Petunia hybrida
(v)China rose (shoe flower) – Hibiscus rosa- sinensis.

17. Examine a few flowers of any cucurbit plant and try to identify the staminate and pistillate flowers. Do you know any other plant that bears unisexual flowers?
Ans: The male or staminate flowers of cucurbits bear bright coloured petals and a prominent group of stamens. Male plants or staminate flowers do not bear fruits. The female or pistillate flowers bear fruits. In a fertilised young pistillate flower very small fruit is visible below petals and sepals. Some unisexual plants are : Papaya, Mulberry and Date-palm.

18. Why are offspring of oviparous animals at a greater risk as compared to offspring of viviparous animals?
Ans: On the basis of the development of the zygote, animals are grouped into oviparous and viviparous. The oviparous animals such as reptiles and birds lay eggs. Their fertilised eggs are covered by hard calcareous shell and are laid in a safe place in the environment. After incubation period, young ones hatch out. In viviparous animals such as majority of mammals including human beings, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female individual. After a certain growth period, the young ones are delivered by the female individual. Due to proper care and protection, the chances of survival of young ones are more in viviparous individuals. Oviparous offsprings are at a greater risk than viviparous ones.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biodiversity and Conservation

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Biodiversity and Conservation

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation:

Section Name Topic Name
15 Biodiversity and Conservation
15.1 Biodiversity
15.2 Biodiversity Conservation
15.3 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Name the three important components of  biodiversity.
Ans: Three components of biodiversity are:
(a) Genetic diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Ecological diversity

2. How do ecologists estimate the total number of species present in the world?
Ans: Ecologists estimate the total number of species present in the world by comparing species richness of some exhaustively studied groups between any two regions (tropics, temperate or polar regions). Species richness, as a measure of diversity, has been used by many ecologists. Species density or the number of species per m² is most commonly used to measure species richness. Species abundance and species proportional abundance based indices are some other alternative approaches to the measurement of diversity.

3. Give three hypothesis for explaining why tropics ’”show greatest levels of species richness.
Ans: (1) The tropical area have a more stable climate than temperate zones. Local species continues to live in absence of natural disturbances.
(2) Warm temperature and high humidity in most tropical areas provide favourable conditions for growth and survival of diverse species.
(3) Tropical areas receive more solar energy over year and thus tropical communities are more productive and can support a wide range of species.

4. What is the significance of the slope of regression in a species-area relationship?
Ans: Slope of regression or regression coefficient makes it easier to measure species richness along an area. For a limited area like, a country, it gives a constant value of 0.1 to 0.2 irrespective of the taxonomic group or region. It remains amazingly similar for all those small regions. On the contrary, for measuring species-area relationship over large areas like the entire continents, the slope of regression values in the range of 0.6 to 1.2.

5. What are the major causes of species losses in a geographical region?
Ans: Species are lost in a geographical region due to natural disturbances like forest fires; famine, drought and also due to human disturbance with over replantation, habitat destruction, habitat displacement, over specialization, intensive agriculture and pollution.

6. How is biodiversity important for ecosystem functioning?
Ans: Biodiversity is important for ecosystem functioning because,
(1) It contributes to productivity.
(2) It cause more efficient recycling of energy and matter.
(3) It has many alternative pathways for survival under diverse conditions.
(4) Rich biodiversity provides alternatives available at each trophic level. All organisms are linked in food chains and interact with their abiotic environment in such a way so as to keep the natural cycles going and make the ecosystems self – sustaining units. Disappearance of any link in a food chain will not affect the ecosystem as other alternatives are there.

7. What are sacred groves? What is their role in conservation?
Ans: Sacred forests or sacred groves are forest patches around places of worship which are held in high esteem by tribal communities. They are the most undisturbed forest patches which are often surrounded by highly degraded landscapes. They are found in several parts of India, e.g., Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan (Aravalli), Madhya Pradesh (Sarguja, Bastar), Kerala, Meghalaya. Temples built by tribals are found surrounded by deodar forests in Kumaon region, Jaintias and Khasjas in Meghalaya. Not a single branch is allowed to be cut from these forests. As a result many endemic species which are rare or have become extinct elsewhere can be seen to flourish here. Bishnois of Rajasthan protect Prosopis cineraria and Black Buck religiously. Some water bodies are also held sacred in certain places, e.g., Khecheopalri in Sikkim. Their aquatic flora and fauna are naturally preserved.

8. Among the ecosystem services are control of floods and soil erosion. How is this achieved by the biotic components of the ecosystem?
Ans: Ecosystem services are products or benefits given by ecosystem processes to the environment for its purification, beauty, biodiversity, protection of natural resources, habitat to wild life and tribals, protection of soils, CO2 – O2 balance, retention of water against floods, drought and pollution. Plants play a vital role in the control of floods and soil erosion. Their roots bind the soil 10. particles firmly and in this way they do not allow the top soil to be drifted away by winds or moving water. Roots of plants also make the soil porous and allow water to go into the soil.

9. The species diversity of plants (22 per cent) is much less than that of animals (72 per cent). What could be the explanations to how animals achieved greater diversification?
Ans: Species diversity refers to the variety of species within a region which is less in plants as compared to animals. It is due to greater dispersal/more number of surviving individuals. Most animals possess simple or complex nervous system to control and coordinate various activities. They possess receptors to receive against them. Most of their responses are adaptive and ensure their survival in changing environmental conditions. They, therefore, have evolved to reveal much higher species diversity than plants who do not possess nervous system and respond differently against environment stimuli.

10. Can you think of a situation where we deliberately want to make a species extinct? How would you justify it?
Ans: Humans can cause extinction of species through various means. We are trying to eradicate disease causing organisms (e.g., poliovirus) from this world to make this world disease free. Since such micro-organisms are harmful to the human society, such attempt is justified. Further, such micro-organisms are not essential components (producers or decomposers) of any ecosystem, and losing one or few such organisms would not affect the functioning of ecosystem.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations:

Section Name Topic Name
13 ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
13.1 Organism and Its Environment
13.2 Populations
13.3 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. How is diapause different from hibernation?
Ans: Diapause is a period of suspended growth or development occuring in many insects and other invertebrates during which metabolic activities are greatly reduced. On the other hand, hibernation is a sleep like state in which a few animals, such as fishes and amphibians, pass the winter season as a way of surviving food scarcity and cold weather.

2. If a marine fish is placed in a fresh water aquarium, will the fish be able to survive? Why or why not?
Ans: When a marine fish is placed in a fresh water aquarium, the fish will not be able to survive because marine fish is adapted to live in saline seawater. In fresh water, it will not be able to cope with the outside hypotonic environment because of osmoregulation problem. In fresh water, the concentration of water, the difference between the concentration of the water and inside of the fish are increased and therefore, the osmotic pressure is also increased.The fish has to take more water into the body to be able to survive and to get rid of the excess salt present in its body.

3. Define phenotypic adaptation. Give one example.
Ans: Phenotypic adaptations are non-genetic changes
occurring in living organisms due to various extreme environmental conditions, such as stress, extreme temperature, change of habitat. These includes acclimatization, behavioural changes, etc.

4. Most living organisms cannot survive at temperature above 45°C. How are some microbes able to live in habitats with temperatures exceeding 100°C?
Ans: Micro-organisms of hot.springs and vents (mouth of sea bed volcanoes) are able to survive at the high temperature due to
(i) occurrence of branched chain lipids in their cell membrane that reduce fluidity of cell membranes.
(ii) having minimum amount of free water in their bodies. Removal of water provides resistance to high temperature.

5. Last the attributes that populations but not individuals possess.
Ans: Some significant attributes that populations but not individual possess are –
(i) Natality
(ii) Mortality
(iii) Growth forms
(iv) Population density
(v) Population dispersion
(vi) Population age distribution
(vii) Sex ratio

6. If a population growing exponentially double in size in 3 years, what is the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the population?
Ans: If the population growing exponentially double in size in 3 years, the intrinsic rate of increase of this population will be towards maximum.

7. Name important defence mechanisms in plants against herbivory.
Ans: There are various defence measures for animals against predators. But plants, as they cannot move away, have certain defence mechanisms against herbivory. Their main defences are chemical toxins, such as strychnine, a poison produced by tropical vine, morphine by opium poppy, nicotine produced by tobacco plant. Apart from these chemicals, the common defence measure is presence of spines (modified leaves) on the leaves, stems of the plant, modifications of leaves into thorns, development of sharp silicated edges in leaves which prevent them against damage caused by herbivores.

8. An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango tree. How do you describe this interaction between the orchid and the mango tree?
Ans: An orchid plant is growing on the branch of a mango tree is called epiphyte, i.e., plants growing on other plants or trees. This type of interaction is known as commensalism, where in orchid / derives benefit of interaction whereas mango tree is not affected. The orchid growing on the branch of mango tree get more light to grow and also, the mango is not harmed in any way.
Commensalism can be defined as an interaction between two animal or plant species that habitually live together in which one species benefits from the association while the other is not significantly affected.

9. What is the ecological principle behind the biological control method of managing with pest insects?
Ans: The ecological principle behind the biological control method of managing with pest insects is predator – prey relationship. It is based on the ability of the predator to regulate prey population.

10. Distinguish between the following:
(a) Hibernation and Aestivation
(b) Ectotherms and Endotherms
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations Q10

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations Q10.1

11. Write a short note on
(a) Adaptations of desert plants and animals
(b) Adaptations of plants to water scarcity
(c) Behavioural adaptations in animals
(d) Importance of light to plants
(e) Effect of temperature or water scarcity and the adaptations of animals.
Ans: (a) Desert plants have very small leaves or no leaves at all, and carrying out photosynthesis through the stems. Their stem could become succulent, and can store and retain water. Animals living in hot climatic region tend to be smaller than those living in cold climates. This can be explained by the fact that the amount of heat gained from the environment is approximately proportional to the body surface area. The majority of animals living in desert are small, like kangaroo rat. It feed on dry seeds and other dry plant material and does not drink,

(b) The evergreen trees such as Rhododendron, show water scarcity by an inward curling of the leaves. A more significant response is the closure of stomata, which reduces transpiration, but raises the internal temperature of die leaf affecting the rate of synthesis of proteins and photosynthesis. Deciduous trees of the temperature region drop their leaves in autumn, avoiding winter drought. Some water stressed plant’s accumulate excessive amounts of inorganic ions.

(c) Migrating temporarily to a less stressful habitat forms a more stressful habitat is a kind of behavioural adaptation in animals which enables them to survive in better environmental conditions. Desert lizards regulate their body temperature constant by behavioural means. They bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature decreases below the optimum, but move into shady or underground places when the temperature of the surrounding area starts increasing.

(d) Light affects plants through its quality, intensity and duration. Duration of light affects phenology, photosynthesis, growth, reproduction, flowering. Quality of light influences flowering, seed germination and movements. Light is required for the production of chlorophyll in chloroplasts. Plants germinated under insufficient illumination causes the destruction of chlorophyll.

(e) Animals mainly are of two types as they are adapted to controlling their body temperature. Poikilothermous are the animals whose temperature fluctuates with that of the environment, e.g., invertebrates and vertebrates, other than birds and animals. In contrast, homeotherms are the animals which can maintain their body temperature at a constant level, e.g., birds and mammals.

12. List the various abiotic environmental factors.
Ans: Abiotic factors are non living factors and conditions of the environment which influence survival, function and behaviour of organisms. Various abiotic factors are :

(i) Temperature – Temperature is one of the most important environmental factors. The average temperature varies seasonally. It ranges from subzero level in polar areas and high altitudes to more than 50°C in tropical deserts in summer and exceeds 100°C in thermal springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents.

(ii) Water – Next to temperature, water is the most important factor which influences the life of organisms. The productivity and distribution of land plants are dependent upon availability of water. Animals are adapted according to the water availability. E.g., aquatic animals are ammonotelic while xerophytic animals excrete dry feces and concentrated urine.

(iii) Light – Plants produce food through photosynthesis for which sunlight is essential source of energy. Light intensity, light duration and light quality influences the number of life processes in organisms, such as – photosynthesis, growth, trans-piration, germination, pigmentation, movement and photoperiodism.

(iv) Humidity – Humidity refers to the moisture (water vapour) content of the air. It determines the formation of clouds, dew and fog. It affects the land organisms by regulating the loss of water as vapour from their bodies through evaporation, perspiration and transpiration.

(v) Precipitation – Precipitation means rainfall, snow, sleet or dew. Total annual rainfall, seasonal distribution humidity of the air and amount of water retained in the soil are the main criteria that limit the distribution of plants and animals on land.

(vi) Soil – The soil is one of the most important ecological factor called the edaphic factor. It comprises of different layers called horizons. The upper weathered humus containing part of soil sustains terrestrial plant life.

13. Give an example for:
(a) An endothermic animal
(b) An ectothermic animal
(c) An organism of the benthic zone
Ans: (a) Man, (Homo sapiens)
(b) Black bear
(c) Corals

14. Define population and community.
Ans: Population can be defined as the total number of individuals of a species or any other class of an organism in a defined area or habitat or a group of individuals of the same species within a commnity.
Community can be defined as a naturally octurring assemblage of species living within a defined area or habitat.

15. Define the following terms and give one example for each:
(a) Commensalism
(b) Parasitism

(c) Camouflage (d)Mutualism
(e) Interspecific competition
Ans: (a) Commensalism is the association between organisms of different species in which one species benefits but does not apparent harm to the other. For example, in the large intestine of human being, bacteria Escherichia coli are present which helps in digestion.
(b) Parasitism is an association in which one organism lives on or in the body of another, from which it obtains its food. For example, the parasites of humans include fleas and lice, various bacteria, protozoans and fungi.
(c) Camouflage is a high degree of similarity between an animal and its visual environment, which enables it be disguished or concealed. For example, birds with necks and heads of contrasting colours are not easily recognised by their enemies under certain conditions.
(d) Mutualism is an association between two organisms of different species in which each partner benefits. For example, the cross fertilization or pollination of plant flowers by insects (sometimes by birds) is a mutual relation of wide occurrence and great importance, because many plants are self- sterile.
(e) Inter-specific competition can be defined as an interaction occurs between different species that share some environmental resource when this is in short supply. Inter-specific competition often results in the dominance of one species over another. For example, when two species of Paramoecium,Paramoecium caudatum and P.aurelia are confined in a closed containers with fixed amount of food, out of them one species always died out.

16. With the help of suitable diagram describe the . ; logistic population growth curve.
Ans: The S-shaped growth curve is also called a logistic growth curve. It describes a situation in which (in a new environmental condition) the population density of an organism increases slowly establishing itself then increasing rapidly, approaching an exponential growth rate. Many population of micro-organisms broadly follow this basic sigmoidal pattern. For example, when a fresh culture medium is inoculated with bacteria, sigmoidal or S-shaped growth curve is observed. The S-shaped curve is generated when a population approaches the environmental’s carrying capacity. Carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals of a population that can be supported in a given time.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations Q16
The S-shaped growth form is represented by the following equation- ” dNldt = rN[K-NIK]
Where, r = intrinsic rate of natural increase N = population density at time t K = carrying capacity

17. Select the statement which explains best parasitism.
(a) One organism is benefited.
(b) Both the organisms are benefited.
(c) One organism is benefited, other is not affected.
(d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.
Ans:(d) One organism is benefited, other is affected.

18.List any three important characteristics of a population and explain.
Ans: The three important characteristics of a population are:
(a) Density: The number of individuals per unit area or volume. For example, the number of frogs per m3 of forest region.
(b) Natality or Birth rate: The birth rate is determined by the number of individuals bom to a given population during a given period of time.
(c) Mortality or Death rate: The death rate or mortality represents a decrease in a given population during a given period of time. Generally, the death of individuals in a population are expressed by specific mortality which is described as the mortality population are expressed by specific mortality which is described as the mortality for given age group.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Microbes in Human Welfare

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Microbes in Human Welfare

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare:

Section Name Topic Name
10 Microbes in Human Welfare
10.1 Microbes in Household Products
10.2 Microbes in Industrial Products
10.3 Microbes in Sewage Treatment
10.4 Microbes in Production of Biogas
10.5 Microbes as Biocontrol Agents
10.6 Microbes as Biofertilisers
10.7 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Bacteria cannot be seen with the naked eyes, but these can be seen with the help of a microscope. If you have to carry a sample from your home to your biology laboratory to demonstrate the presence of microbes under a microscope, which sample would you carry and why?
Ans: Soil sample/water sample as they are the natural habitat of micro-organisms and can be directly observed.

2. Give examples to prove that microbes release, gases during metabolism.
Ans: There are lots of examples which prove, that microbes release gases during their metabolism. Some examples are as follows :

  • Dough, which is used for making dosa and idli is fermented by bacteria. The puffy appearance of dough is due to production of CO2 by fermentation process.
  • Swiss cheese is characterized by having the characteristic flavour and large holes. The large holes are formed due to the amount of CO2 released by a bacterium Propionibacterium sharmanii.

3. In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Mention some of their useful applications.
Ans: Milk, Curd and Cheese are coagulated product. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) convert lactose sugar into lactic acid. They also improve the nutritional quality of curd by increasing vitamin B12. Lactic acid bacteria are also found in the stomach where they check disease causing microbes.

4. Name some traditional Indian foods made of wheat, rice and Bengal gram (or their products) which involve use of microbes.
Ans: A number of dishes can be prepared through fermentation process by using microbes. Some important traditional dishes made up of wheat, rice and Bengal gram or black gram (vernacular urad) are as follows :

  • Bread – It is a fermented preparation of wheat by Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
  • Dosa, upma and idli – They are fermented preparation of rice and black gram (urad). The two are allowed to ferment for 3-12 hrs with Leuconostoc and Streptococcus species of bacteria.

5. In which way have microbes played a major role in controlling diseases caused by harmful bacteria?
Ans: By production of antibiotics like penicillin, tetracyclin, by production of vaccines for herpes, TB, DPT, etc.

6. Name any two species of fungus, which are used in the production of the antibiotics.
Ans: Penicillium chrysogenum, P. notatum, produce penicillin and Cephalosporium produces cephalosporins.

7. What is sewage? In which way can sewage be harmful to us?
Ans: Sewage is waste water release from household and industrial applications. It is harmful as
(i) it decreases flora mid fauna of H2O.
(ii) contamination of H2O/food/soil.
(iii) dissemination of pathogenic bacteria.

8. What is the key difference between primary and secondary sewage treatment?
Ans: There are three stages of sewage treatment : primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary treatment is a physical process while secondary is a biological process and tertiary is a chemical process.

9. Do you think microbes can also be used as source of energy? If yes, how?
Ans: Yes, the microbes present in activated sludge are digested anaerobically to generate a biogas i.e. by release of inflammable biogas in biogas plant, which is a source of energy.
Use of microbial culture for SCP (single cell protein).

10. Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Explain how this can be accomplished.
Ans: Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. This can be accomplished by the use of biofertilizers. The main source of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. They can provide plant nutrients at cheaper cost when compared with the chemical fertilizers. e.g.
(i) Use of leguminous plant with Rhizobium.
(ii) Use of sulphur fixing bacteria.
(iii) Use of hydrogen fixing bacterium.

11. Three water samples namely river water, untreated sewage water and secondary effluent discharged from a sewage treatment plant were subjected to BOD test. The samples were labelled A, B and C; but the laboratory attendant did not note which was which. The BOD values of the three samples A, B and C were recorded as 20 mg/L, 8 mg/Land 400 mg/L, respectively. Which sample of the water is most polluted? Can you assign the correct label to each assuming the river water is relatively clean?
Ans: The sample with BOD value of 400 mg/h is most polluted and should be levelled as B —> untreated sewage river H2O will be —> less BOD —> 8 mg/L – sample A.
Untreated water —> 2° effluent BOD —>River water 400 —> 20 —> 8 and so should be labelled as sample C.

12. Find out the name of the microbes from which cyclosporin A (an immuno suppressive drug) and statins (blood cholesterol lowering agents) are obtained.
Ans: Cyclosporin A (an immuno suppressive drug) is obtained from fungus Trichoderma polysporum while statins (blood cholesterol lowering agent) is obtained from yeast Monascus purpureus.

13. Find out the role of microbes in the following and discuss it with your teacher.
(a) Single cell protein (SCP)
(b) Soil
Ans: SCP – single cell protein is microbial yield/cell crop of bacterial, yeast, algae rich in protein. The protein content of microbial cell is very high. Dried cell of Pseudomonas grown on petroleum product has 69% protein and these proteins have all essential amino acids.

Soil : Microbes take part in formation and maintenance of soil. They add organic matter to freshly formed soil. The process is called humification. Some microbes act as biofertilizers and biopesticides.

14. Arrange the following in the decreasing order (most important first) of their importance, for the welfare of human society. Give reasons for your answer.Biogas, Citric acid, Penicillin and Curd.
Ans: Curd: Less important for society – as it depends on individual use and has only nutritions value.
Citric acid : Industrial use, not for dissipation in community.
Penicillin: Medicinal use of microbes, good for health of society, commercially more usable.
Biogas: Most important for community welfare as
(i) it reduces excreta, waste from community.
(ii) it produces inflammable gases, can be used as energy source.
(iii) it is a renewable source.
(iv) it has multidimensional utility.
(v) it is easily maintained and dissipated for community purpose.
So,Penicillin > Biogas > Curd > Citric acid.

15. How do biofertilizers enrich the fertility of the soil?
Ans: Biofertilizers enrich the fertility of the soil by:
(i) replenishment of lost nutrients like N2, phosphorus, iron, sulphur.
(ii) addition of required micronutrients and macronutrients.
(iii) making humus acid compost.
(iv) acting as scavanger.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production:

Section Name Topic Name
9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
9.1 Animal Husbandry
9.2 Plant Breeding
9.3 Single Cell Proteins
9.4 Tissue Culture
9.5 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Explain in brief the role of animal husbandry in human welfare.
Ans: Animal husbandry deals with the caring, feeding and management of domesticated animals. It includes poultry, farming and fisheries.
These animals are very useful for human beings because
(i) they provide products which are used as food like meat, milk, eggs, honey, etc.
(ii) there are some other substances obtained from animals which are beneficial to human beings like wool, silk, leather, bees wax etc.

2. If your family owned a dairy farm, what measures would you undertake to improve the quality and quantity of milk production?
Ans: To improve the quality & quantity of milk production, one should take care of the following points:
(i) Proper feeding of the cattle with good quality of food.
(ii) Clean and hygienic environment for cattles.
(iii) Proper medication.
(iv) Veterinary supervision.
(v) Selection of good breeds having high yielding capacity combined with resistance to disease.
(vi) Quality of breed.

3. What is meant by the term ‘breed’ ? What are the objectives of animal breeding?
Ans: A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like general appearance, features, size, configuration etc. is called a breed.
The main objectives of animal breeding are:

  • To produce high yielding varieties of animals like high milk producing cattle, more egg producing varieties of chicken, more wool bearing sheep varieties etc.
  • To produce drought varieties for doing work like cattle, etc.
  • To produce disease resistant varieties of the livestocks.

4. Name the methods employed in animal breeding. According to you which of the methods is best? Why?
Ans: Methods employed in animal breeding are
(i) Inbreeding
(ii) Out-breeding
(iii) Cross-breeding
(iv) Interspecific hybridization
(v) Artificial insemination
(vi) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Cross breeding is the best method as it results in the development of superior traits of both the breeds and the progeny produced are fertile and there is no inbreeding depression.

5. What is apiculture? How is it important in our lives?
Ans: Apiculture is the rearing and breeding of honeybees for the production of honey .
It is important in our live as honeybees provide honey, which is a highly nutritive substance and beeswax is used in many industries. Honeybees also pollinate flowers of some very important plants like sunflower, apple, pear.

6. Discuss the role of fishery in enhancement of food production.
Ans: Fishery is an industry which is concerned with the catching, processing or selling of fish. The role of fishery in enhancement of food production is as follows :

  1. The fish flesh is an excellent source of protein. It has very little fat, carries a good amount of minerals and vitamins A and D and is rich in iodine.
  2. Fish oil extracted from the liver of the sharks, sawfishes, etc., has medicinal value.
  3. Shagreen, the skin of sharks and rays are used in polishing the wood and other materials.
  4. The silvery bony scales of cyprimids are used in the manufacture of artificial pearls.
  5. Fish glue is a sticky product obtained from the skin of cod and is used as gum.
  6. Fish waste after the extraction of oil is used as fertilizer.
  7. The fishing industry has brought a lot of income to the farmers in particular and the country in general because of “Blue Revolution” (fish production) in the same lines as ‘Green Revolution’ (for producing enough food for all).

7. Briefly describe various steps involved in plant breeding.
Ans: Plant breeding is a purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields and are disease resistant. The given flow chart shows various steps involved in plant breeding.

8. Explain what is meant by biofortification.
Ans: Enhancement of nutritional quality of a crop by improving the content and quality of protein, fats, vitamins, minerals and micronutrient is called biofortification. It helps to improve public health.

9. Which part of the plant is best suited for making virus-free plants and why?
Ans: The apical and axillary meristems of plants are the best parts of the plant to make virus-free plants. This is because rate of division of meristematic cell is higher than rate of multiplication of virus and viruses are unable to invade newly formed meristematic cells. Hence, meristematic cells are free of virus although the whole plant is infected with virus. With the use of meristem, a healthy plant can be recovered from the diseased plant through micropropagation method.

10. What is the major advantage of producing plants by micro propagation?
Ans: It is faster method of producing a large number of plants. Plants formed by micro propagation are identical.

11. Find out the various components of the medium 12.used for propagation of an explant in vitro are ?
Ans: The various components of the medium used for propagation of an explant in vitro are
-Sucrose (source of energy & carbon)
-Inorganic salts
-Vitamins
-Growth regulators (auxins and cytokinins)

12. Name any five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India.
Ans: Sonalika (wheat)
Himgiri (wheat)
Pusa Swamim (mustard)
PusaSem2 (bean)
Pusa Sawani (lady’s finger)

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