Role Of Company Secretary – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Role Of Company Secretary – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Introduction:

  • The ICSI (Institute of Company Secretaries of India) is a premier national professional body established under an Act of Parliament namely the Company Secretaries Act, 1980.
  • Functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India.
  • Has been set up to develop and regulate the profession of company secretaries.
  • It has headquarters in New Delhi and 4 regional Councils at Chennai, Kolkata, Mumbai, and New Delhi, and 68 Chapters spread all over India.
  • Has set up Centre for Corporate Governance, Research and Training (ICSI-CCGRT) at Navi Mumbai.
  • Conducts examination at 85 centers across the country and one overseas center in Dubai.
  • Company Secretaries are knowledgeable professionals who guide, advise the strategy maker of entities.
  • CS as a professional certifies and verifies the trustworthiness of the affairs of a corporation.
  • The skills and attributes of a good Company Secretary may include humanity humility, high intelligence, and understanding of agendas, negotiation, and resilience.
  • The professionals are required to demonstrate not only Intelligence Quotient (IQ) but also Emotional Quotient (EQ).

Role Company Secretary under Companies Act, 2013 Key Managerial Personnel:

  • Along with the Chief Executive Officer/Managing Director/Whole-time Director and Chief Financial Officer, “Company Secretary” has also been brought within the ambit of KMP giving them the long-deserved recognition of KMP of the company.

Companies Mandatorily Required to Appoint Key Managerial Personnel:

  • As per Section 203 of the Companies Act, 2013, read with the Companies (Appointment and Remuneration of Managerial Personnel) Rules 2014, the following class of companies namely;
  • Every listed company.
  • Every other public company having a paid-up share capital of ₹ 10 crores or more.
  • Further, as per recently notified Rule 8A of the Companies Rule 2014, a company other than a company covered under rule 8 that has a paid-up( share capital of 5 crore rupees or more shall have a whole-time company secretary.

Functions of Company Secretary (Section 205):

  • to report to the Board about compliance with the provisions of this Act,
  • to ensure that the company complies with the applicable secretarial standards; and
  • to discharge such other duties as may be prescribed.

Duties of Company Secretaries

  • Act as a vital link between the company and its Board of Directors, Shareholders and Stakeholders, and Regulatory authorities.
  • Plays a key role in ensuring the Board procedures are followed by regularly revised.
  • Provides the board with guidance as to its duties responsibilities and power under various laws, rules, and regulations.
  • Act as a compliance officer.
  • Is an important member of the corporate management team and acts as conscience seeker of the company. The signing of Annual Return (Section 92):
  • The annual return is filled by CS and the director. In the case where no company secretary is appointed by the company, then by CS in practice. (OPC is an exception to it)
  • In the case of a listed company and other prescribed companies, even if the annual return is signed by Companies Secretary in Employment, it is further required to be certified by CS in Whole-Time Practice.

Role Of Company Secretary – CS Foundation Business Law Notes chapter 13 Img 1

  • This prescribed claim is under the Companies (Management and Administration) Rule, 2014.

Company Secretary in Practice
1. Secretarial Audit:

  • Every listed company and a company belonging to another class of companies are required to give a secretarial audit report, by a company secretary in practice.
  • As per the Companies (Appointment and Remuneration of Managerial Personnel) Rule, 2014, the other class of companies shall be as under:
  • Every public company having a paid-up share capital of 50 crore rupees or more.
  • Every public company having a turnover of two hundred fifty crore rupees or more.

Act as Scrutinizer in E-voting:

  • Every company having not less than one thousand members shall provide to its member’s facility to exercise their right to vote on a resolution proposed to be considered at a general meeting by electronic means.
  1. Appointment as Administrator (Section 259)
  2. Company liquidators (Section 275)
  3. Professional assistance to company liquidator (Section 291)
  4. Qualification of Tribunal (Section 409)

Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016:
Recognition of Company Secretary in practice to act as insolvency practitioner under the code.

Securities Laws:

  • Appearance before Securities Appellate Tribunal: Practicing Company Secretary has been authorized to appear as authorized representative before the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) under SEBI Act, 1992 and Depositories Act, 1996.
  • Reconciliation of Share Capital Audit
  • Audit of Capital Market Intermediaries:
  • It is in this direction that SEBI has authorized practicing company secretaries to undertake internal audits of various capital market intermediaries.

Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008:

  • The annual return of LLP having a turnover of more than 5 crore rupees.
  • Contribution of more than 50 lakh rupees shall be accompanied by a certificate from a Company Secretary in Practice. Rule 25(2) of LLP

Rules, 2009. Special Economic Zones Act & Rules, 2006

  • Company Secretary in Practice has been authorized to appear as authorized representative before the board. Rule 16 of SEZ Rule, 2006.

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997

  • Company Secretary in Practice has been authorized to appear as authorized representative before the Telecom Disputes Settlement and. & Appellate Tribunal.

Competition Act, 2002

  • Company Secretaries in Practice act as authorized representatives before the Competition Commission of India and Competition Appellate Tribunal.

Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016

  • “Practising Companies Secretary” act as authorized representative before the Appellate Tribunal or the Regulatory Authority or the adjudicating officer.

Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

  • “Practising Companies Secretary” authorized to issue No objection tax clearance certificate regarding the transfer of capital contribution/profit shares of an limited liability partnership from resident to non¬resident/non-resident to the resident.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Companies Secretary is defined under:
(a) clause (c) of sub-section (2) of Section 1 of the Company Secretaries Act, 1980.
(b) clause (c) of sub-section (1) of Section 2 of the Company Secretaries Act, 1980.
(c) clause (d) subsection (1) of Section 3 of the Company Act, 2013.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) clause (c) of sub-section (1) of Section 2 of the Company Secretaries Act, 1980.

Question 2.
The ICSI is a premier national professional body established under
(a) Act of Parliament
(b) Act of Central Government
(c) Companies Act, 2013
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Act of Parliament

Question 3.
Company Secretary is not the Key Managerial Personnel of the Company.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Partly True
(d) Can’t Say
Answer:
(a) False

Question 4.
The ICSI functions under the administrative jurisdiction of
(a) Ministry of State Affair
(b) Central Government
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affair
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affair

Question 5.
The role of Company Secretary is :
(a) Arbitrator
(b) Lawyer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Can’t say
Answer:
(a) Arbitrator

Question 6.
Secretarial Audit is defined under:
(a) Section (204)
(b) Section 2 (31)
(c) Section (205)
(d) Section (208)
Answer:
(a) Section (204)

Question 7.
The secretarial Audit report should be prepared by
(a) Every listed company
(b) Every Public Company having a paid-up share capital of 50 crore rupees or more
(c) Every Public Company having a turnover of 250 crores or more
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
The Role of Scrutinizer is played by
(a) Charted Accountant
(b) Companies Secretary in practice
(c) Advocate
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 9.
A Company Secretary in practice is not eligible to become a Technical Member of NCLT.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 10.
A practicing company secretary can be a member of NCLT if he is practicing for at least:
(a) 10 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years.
Answer:
(c) 15 years

Question 11.
Company Secretary has been recognized to represent before various Regulators, and Authorities under which Act?
(a) SEBI Act, 1992
(b) LLP Act, 2008
(c) Telecom Regulatory Authority of Indian Act, 1997
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 12.
Power/duties of Auditors apply ______________ to Company Secretary in practice conducting secretarial audit.
(a) Matadis Mutandis
(b) Mutatis Mutandis
(c) Mutatis Mutants
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Mutatis Mutandis

Question 13.
Full form of SEBI:
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(b) Shares and Exchange Board of India
(c) Securities and Employment Board of India
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India

Question 14.
The vision of Institute of Company Secretaries Board of India is :
(a) To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance
(b) To develop high caliber professionals facilitating good corporate governance.
(c) Speak the truth abide by the law.
(d) To lead the world.
Answer:
(a) To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance

Question 15.
Companies Secretary is a :
(a) Solution Provider
(b) Business Manager
(c) Strategist
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 16.
Work of a Practicing Company Secretary is of:
(a) Secretarial Audit
(b) Pre-certification of e-form
(c) Duty to report fraud
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 17.
Stock exchange and every company shall provide the facility to its members to exercise right to vote if it has:
(a) not less than one thousand members
(b) not less than ten thousand members
(c) not more than one thousand members
(d) not more than ten thousand members.
Answer:
(a) not less than one thousand members

Question 18.
Function of Company Secretary is defined under:
(a) Section 205
(b) Section 2 sub-section (1) clause (c) of Companies Secretary Act, 1980.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Section 205

Question 19.
The Abbreviation ‘BIFR’ with reference to Sick Companies in India means:
(a) Board for Indian Financial Reserves
(b) Board for Industrial and Financial Resources
(c) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
(d) Board for International Fund Reserve
Answer:
(c) The Abbreviation ‘BIFR’ which is related to Sick Companies in India means -Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction.

Question 20.
Functions of a Company Secretary to is defined under:
(a) Section 208
(b) Section 227
(c) Section 205
(d) Section 116
Answer:
(c) Functions of a company secretary are defined under Section 205 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 21.
Legal works of a company is done by:
(a) CS in practice
(b) CS in employment
(c) Advocate
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) In the functioning of business, which may relate to compliance of the law, ethical code of conduct sensitivity to the environment, etc. Company Secretary in practice, in employment, and advocate play, is a very important role in legal works.

Question 22. ____________ has authorised Practicising Company Secretary to undertake internal audit of various capital market intermediaries.
(a) SEBI
(b) Central Government
(c) Audit Committee
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Answer:
(a) SEBI (Stock Exchange Board of India) has authorized the Practicing Company Secretary to undertake internal audits of various capital market intermediaries.

Question 23.
Which act as a repository of all Digital Signature Certificate (DSC):
(a) MCA (Ministry of Corporate Affairs)
(b) Government
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(d) Controller
Answer:
(d) Controller Act as a repository of all Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) as per Section 20 of Information Technology Act, 2000.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes

Types of Audit – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Types of Audit – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ In the earlier times audit implies the auditing of accounts but later various types of audit came into existence. Audit can be divided into two categories on the basis of law

  • Audit which is prescribed by a state/legislation e.g. Company audit as per Companies Act, audit of Banking Companies, electricity supply companies, public and charitable trust, co-operative schemes which have been set up under the Act of Parliament and other audits required as per law
  • Audit done voluntarily such as audit of proprietorship, partnership firm, HUF etc.
    Moreover audit can again be divided on the basis of scope of work such as management audit, internal audit etc.

→ Various Types of audit
(a) Internal audit
(b) Cost audit
(c) Tax audit
(d) Financial audit
(e) Secretarial audit
(f) Bank audit
(g) Co-operative Societies Audit
(h) Trust audit
(i) Insurance audit
(j) Partnership audit
(k) Sole Proprietorship audit
(l) Government audit
(m) Management audit
(n) Functional audit
(o) Propriety audit
(p) Efficiency audit

→ Internal audit
Section 138 of the Companies Act, 2013 contains provisions regarding internal audit. As per Companies Act, 2013, certain class or classes of company as may be prescribed shall appoint an internal auditor who will conduct an audit of the functions and activities of the company and make a report thereon to the Board of Directors.The role of internal audit is to provide independent assurance that an organization’s risk management, governance and internal control processes are operating effectively.

→ According to Rule 13 of The Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 following class or classes of companies shall be required to appoint an internal auditor or firm of internal auditors
(a) Every listed company;

(b) Every unlisted public company having:

  • Paid up share capital of 50 crore rupees or more during the preceding financial year; or
  • Turnover of 200 crore rupees or more during the preceding financial year; or
  • Outstanding loans or borrowings from banks or public financial institutions exceeding 100 crore rupees or more at any point of time during the preceding financial year; or
  • Outstanding deposits of 25 crore rupees or more at any point of time during the preceding financial year; and

(c) Every private company having:

  • Turnover of 200 crore rupees or more during the preceding financial year; or
  • Outstanding loans or borrowings from banks or public financial institutions exceeding 100 crore rupees or more at any point of time during the preceding financial year.

→ Objectives of Internal audit

  • Internal audit is an independent appraisal function established by the management of an organisation
  • It helps in keeping a control over the business activities. The examination and evaluation of the adequacy and effectiveness of internal control systems provide the reasonable assurance to managers and help them to improve the effectiveness of governance.
  • It helps to determine whether controls over financial and operating data provide managers with reasonable assurance that the financial and operating data is accurate and reliable
  • It helps to perform special administrative requests, special projects, investigations due to allegations of fraud, theft, waste, abuse etc as requested by management and recommend control improvement.
  • Purpose of internal audit is To report all internal audit findings to the appropriate level of management and Audit Committee.
  • It evaluates so there is Proper economic and effective use of resources.
  • It helps to determine whether controls over compliance with policies, procedures, plans, laws and regulations provide managers with reasonable assurance that proper compliance actually occurs
  • To coordinate Internal Audit services with the external auditors
  • To keep the Audit Committee and management aware of emerging trends regarding internal controls, risk management and governance
  • To check if any errors in the accounting records
  • To define the duties and liabilities of the staff so that a proper check can be placed if any negligence
  • to determine whether controls over assets provide managers with reasonable assurance that assets exist and are protected against loss that could result from theft, fire,
  • to determine whether controls over operations and programs provide managers with reasonable assurance that the operations and programs are being carried out as planned,
  • to determine whether controls over compliance with policies, procedures, plans, laws and regulations provide managers with reasonable assurance that proper compliance actually occurs
  • to do performance appraisal
  • to give new ideas relating to procedures, marketing etc.

→ Benefits of Internal Audit

  • an internal audit can help to identify risks, which may lead an entity to fail in achieving its performance and profitability targets
  • It helps in reviewing the progress of the entity
  • Auditing begins when accounting ends thus auditing helps in finding out the errors in accounting
  • It aid in preventing a loss of assets and resources
  • It ensures reliable financial reporting
  • helps in complying with laws and regulations
  • is to provide assurance to management and a level of comfort to the Audit Committee, Boards of Directors and external stakeholders that the company has a strong control environment
  • it helps in investigating any matter which owners or management may be doubtful about
  • internal auditing helps to encompass all areas of risk management
  • Companies can assess whether the controls and procedures they have put in place are adequate to mitigate the identified risks
  • Allows for professional development of people
  • When management extends the internal audit scope to include evaluation of enterprise risks, this can enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of processes by identifying duplication and redundant activities.
  • To identify strengths and weaknesses within departments and recommend corrective action
  • To prevent potential risk of Fraud, Waste and Abuse
  • Limitations of Internal audit
  • Staff size limitations may obstruct efforts to properly segregate duties. If adequate staff is not there then the implementation of compensating controls to ensure that objectives are achieved can not be done
  • A limitation in any system is the element of human error, misunderstandings, fatigue and stress.
  • The cost of implementing a specific control should not exceed the expected benefit of the control.
  • A time lag is also a hindrance for effective internal control. As it is known that auditing starts when accounting ends, thus there is a time lag between recording and checking which makes the work a little difficult

→ Financial Audit or Statutory Audit

  • Statutory Audit is often called financial Audit.
  • Sections 139 to 147 under chapter X of the Companies Act, 2013 contain provisions regarding statutory audit and auditors.
  • Section 139 contains that at the first annual general meeting every company shall appoint an individual or firm as it auditor who will hold office from the conclusion of that meeting till the conclusion of the sixth annual general meeting
  • Section 141 contains that a person shall be eligible for appointment as an auditor of a company only if he is a chartered accountant and in case of a firm whereof majority of partners practising in India are qualified for appointment
  • It uses an independent body to examine a business’ financial transactions and statements
  • The ultimate purpose of this form of auditing is to present an accurate account of a company’s financial business transactions.
  • Determines if there are sufficient controls over cash and other assets and if adequate process controls exist for the acquisition and use of resources.
  • Section 143 which contains provisions regarding powers and duties of auditors

→ Cost Audit
According to Chartered Institute of Management Accountants, London (CIMA), cost audit is “the verification of the correctness of cost accounts and of the adherence to the cost accounting plan”. In simple words the term cost audit means a systematic and accurate verification of the cost accounts and records and checking of adherence to the objectives of the cost accounting. Ministry of Corporate affairs has made cost audit compulsory for companies engaged in fertilizer, bulk drug, sugar, telecommunication, industrial alcohol and electricity & petroleum

→ Duties of cost auditor

  • Whether the planned expenditure is designed to give optimum results
  • Whether the return from expenditure on capital and current operations could be improved if some other alternate plan of action is used
  • Whether the size and channels of expenditure used produced the best results
  • Examine the correctness of the cost records maintained by the concern

→ Secretarial Audit
Secretarial audit is a compliance audit. It is a process to check compliances made by the Company under Corporate Law & other laws, rules, regulations, procedures
A Company Secretary in Practice has been assigned the role of Secretarial Auditor in section 2(2)(c)(v) of The Company Secretaries Act 1980.

→ Features of secretarial audit

  • Determines if departments are complying with applicable laws, roles and regulations, and maintaining various records and registers
  • It assures the owners that management and affairs of the company are being conducted in accordance with requirements of laws, and that the owners’ stake is not being exposed to undue risk.
  • Recommendations from these audits usually require improvements in processes and controls used to ensure compliance with regulations
  • The secretarial audit can assist bodies like SEBI, Stock Exchanges, Financial Institutions, Banks, etc. to gauge or measure the levels of compliance and non-compliance by the companies
  • To provide comfort to investors that the company has been conducting its affairs in accordance with laws

→ Regulations regarding secretarial audit
As per section 204 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Companies (Appointment and Remuneration of Managerial Personnel) Rules, 2014, following companies are required to obtain ‘Secretarial Audit Report’ form independent practicing company secretary:

  • Every listed company
  • Every public company having a paid-up share capital of Fifty Crore rupees or more; or
  • Every public company having a turnover of Two Hundred Fifty Crore rupees or more.

→ “Turnover” means the aggregate value of the realisation of amount made from the sale, supply or distribution of goods or on account of services rendered, or both, by the company during a financial year. [Section 2(91)]

→ Secretarial Audit is also mandatory to a private company which is a subsidiary of a public company, and which falls under the prescribed class of companies

→ Other Audits
(1) Tax audit:
In India tax audit is compulsory for certain assessee whose turnover or receipts exceed the specified limit, of Tax audit are

  • Audit of accounts of assessees having total sales, turnover or gross receipts exceeding the specified Rs. 1 crore for business and Rs.25 lakhs for profession for previous year is compulsory
  • Objective of this audit is to assist the tax authorities in making the correct tax liability
  • Tax auditor has to specify transactions which have an effect on tax liability
  • For availing certain deductions and exemptions audit report is required to be submitted.

(2) Bank Audit
A large amount of public funds are handled by banks thus it is required to assess that statement of accounts reveal a true picture. Features of Bank audit are

  • auditors have to certify that statement of accounts of the bank as at the closure of the half year/financial year reveal true and fair view of the Bank’ financial position
  • every provision for non performing asset/bad debts has been made and there is no hidden NPA
  • Banking Regulation Act, 1949 contains the provisions relating to the maintenance of accounts and their audit.
  • It acts as a regulatory measure on Banks

(3) Co-Operative Society Audit
Co-Operative Society are just like companies and have separate ownership from its members. Since only a small number of members are managing the Society thus an audit of the accounts is compulsory as per Law. Features of audit are

  • An auditor Has to check whether provisions related to Co-Operative Act Rules and bye-laws have been followed
  • As affairs of the society are often handled by non technical people thus auditor is required to report on this aspect also.

(4) Trust Audit
An independent financial audit gives an assurance to the people who create trust that the purpose for which they have created trust is being fulfilled and no fraud is going on. Features of Trust Audit are

  • In India as per Income Tax Act, 1961 some of the income earned by trust is not included while computing the income earned for tax purpose, thus a true and fair accounts is required so no fraud is done regarding the payment of Income Tax.
  • Auditor Verifies the accuracy and appropriateness of individual trust accounts
  • Just to safeguard the interest of the trust beneficiary sometimes a compulsory audit of the trust is mentioned in the trust deed itself

(5) Insurance Audit
The insurance audit is a process common to the insurance industry Features are

  • An audit to ensure customer has paid no more than the appropriate premium for his exposure
  • Auditor should be conversant with IRDA,1999
  • An audit is an examination of insurance company’s operation, records and books of account

(6) Partnership Firm Audit
Audit of partnership firm is not compulsory & even the Partnership Act 1932 is silent about this. Features of audit are

  • Auditing the accounts of a partnership firm helps in detecting errors & frauds & verification of financial statements
  • Banks & financial institutions lend money to the firms only on the basis of audited accounts thus an audit is beneficial
  • Helps in proper calculation of goodwill
  • Audit should be done as per the partnership deed and Partnership Act

(7) Sole Proprietorship Audit

  • Audit is not required to be done by an independent auditor
  • No legal requirement to get the audit done
  • Audit assures that accountant has managed the books and prepared accounts in a proper way

(8) Government audit
Auditing is essential to government accountability to the public. Features of audit are

  • Audits provide an independent, objective, nonpartisan assessment of the financial transactions of the Government.
  • It is the duty of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C&AG) to audit the receipts and expenditure of the Union Government and Sate Government.
  • Government audit also includes the audit of Government Companies conducted by C&AG in accordance with the Companies Act, 2013 and other relevant legislations
  • As Government officials entrusted with public resources are responsible for carrying out public functions legally, effectively, efficiently, economically, ethically, audit provides a check on it.

(9) Management Audit
A management audit can be defined as an audit which analyzes the effectiveness of the management team of a company
Features of audit are:

  • Evaluation of actual performance with targeted performance
  • Some of the events that call for a management audit are top management changes, mergers and acquisitions etc.
  • The objective of a management audit is not to appraise individual executive performance, but to evaluate the management team in relation to their competition.

(10) Functional audit
The objective of a functional audit is to provide an independent evaluation of a function, with respect to system, process, input and output.
Features of audit are:

  • It is to evaluate the effectiveness of the department process and find out the shortfall.
  • corrective measures are taken to remove the shortfalls

(11) Propriety audit
It is a form of management audit which helps the management to find the inefficiency in the system.
Features of this audit are:

  • Expenditure is analyzed so that improper and unnecessary expenditure colud be identified although the expenditure has been done in conformity to rules and regulations

(12) Efficiency audit
Efficiency audit is related to that whether corporate plans are effectively executed.
Features of audit are:

  • It assess how efficiently the system is being performed
  • It is also known as performance audit
  • Auditor investigates the reasons of variances in actual performance and planned performance.
  • It also investigates that capital resources of company are properly utilized or not.
  • To identify unprofitable practices, the performance audit is helpful. It may analyze one department or the whole organization as per the requirement
  • Efficiency audit might analyze the, maintenance and implementation of resources, such as equipment, to identify areas that require improvement.
  • Program audits analyze performance to determine whether a program or department is effectively accomplishing its goals

Types of Audit MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
Statutory audit is to be done by
a. A practicing Chartered Accountant or a firm of practicing Chartered Accountants
b. A practicing Company Secretary or a firm of practicing Company Secretaries.
c. A practicing Cost Accountant or a firm of practicing Cost Accountants
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. A practicing Chartered Accountant or a firm of practicing Chartered Accountants

Hint:
Section 141 contains that a person shall be eligible for appointment as an auditor of a company only if he is a chartered accountant and in case of a firm whereof majority of partners practising in India are qualified for appointment.

Question 2.
Balance sheet audit includes verification of:
a. Assets
b. Liabilities
c. Income accounts and expenses accounts wherever appropriate
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Hint:
Balance Sheet audit involves the verification of all the balance sheet items which involves both assets and liabilities as well as verification of income and expenses accounts whenever required.

Question 3.
The audit conducted by Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a form of
a. Bank Audit
b. Financial Audit
c. Routine Audit
d. Government Audit
Answer:
d. Government Audit

Hint:
Government audit also includes the audit of Government Companies conducted by C&AG in accordance with the Companies Act, 2013 and other relevant legislations.

Question 4
……………………………….. is useful for the purpose of cost control, cost reduction and proper utilization of scarce resources
a. Financial Audit
b. Cost Audit
c. Secretarial Audit
d. Tax Audit
Answer:
b. Cost Audit

Hint:
The term cost audit means a systematic and accurate verification of the cost accounts and records and checking of adherence to the objectives of the cost accounting. Ministry of Corporate affairs has made cost audit compulsory for companies engaged in fertilizer, bulk drug, sugar, telecommunication, industrial alcohol and electricity & petroleum

Question 5.
Who can order management audit?
a. Workers of a company
b. Central Government
c. Board of Directors
d. Securities and Exchange Board of India
Answer:
c. Board of Directors

Hint:
A management audit can be defined as an audit which analyzes the effectiveness of the management team of a company. Thus, the Board of Directors in whose hands the management of the company rests can order the management audit.

Question 6.
Cost Audit is
a. Mandatory for all companies
b. Mandatory for manufacturing companies covered by Cost Audit Report Order
c. Mandatory for all trading companies
d. Mandatory for all manufacturing companies
Answer:
b. Mandatory for manufacturing companies covered by Cost Audit Report Order

Hint:
Ministry of Corporate affairs has made cost audit compulsory for companies engaged in fertilizer, bulk drug, sugar, telecommunication, industrial alcohol and electricity & petroleum

Question 7.
Statutory audit of a company is
a. Mandatory
b. Voluntary
c. Recommendatory
d. Voluntary but recommendatory
Answer:
a. Mandatory

Hint:
The ultimate purpose of Statutory audit is to present an accurate account of a company’s financial business transactions. Statutory audit is mandatory for companies.

Question 8.
Who appoints an internal auditor?
a. Shareholders of the company
b. Statutory auditor
c. Institute of the Internal auditors of India
d. Board of Director of the company
Answer:
d. Board of Director of the company

Hint:
As per Companies Act, 2013, certain class or classes of company as may be prescribed shall appoint an internal auditor who will conduct an audit of the functions and activities of the company and make a report thereon to the Board of Directors. Internal auditors are appointed by the Board of Directors of the company.

Question 9.
Ram is a chartered accountant working as proprietor. His gross receipts are Rs. 50 Lakhs for the year. Which type of audit will necessarily be applicable for him?
a. Statutory audit
b. Tax audit.
c. Internal audit
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. Tax audit.

Hint:
As per the Income tax act every person carrying on the business whose turnover or gross receipts exceeds Rs. 1,00,00,000 (Rs. 25,00,000 in case of profession) in the previous year shall get his accounts audited.

Since, Ram is a chartered Accountant which means Ram is carrying on a profession and is gross receipt i.e. Rs. 50,00,000 exceed the limit of Rs. 25,00,000, he is required to get Tax Audit done.

Question 10.
In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be concerned with:
a. Cost accounting system
b. Internal control system
c. Legal compliance
d. Accounting system.
Answer:
b. Internal control system

Hint:
The role of internal audit is to provide independent assurance that an organization’s risk management, governance and internal control processes are operating effectively.

Question 11.
Which of the following is primarily carried out to ascertain the cases of improper, avoidable and infructuous expenditure?
a. Propriety aud.
b. Statutory audit
c. Tax audit
d. Functional audit.
Answer:
a. Propriety aud.

Hint:
Under propriety audit, the expenditure is analysed with a view to ascertain the cases of improper, avoidable and infructuous expenditure. There is no legal requirement to get the audit done but Audit assures that accountant has managed the books and prepared accounts in a proper way.

Question 12.
In general, the scope of management audit is
a. Flexible
b. Rigid
c. Prescribed by law
d. Prescribed by the appointing authority.
Answer:
a. Flexible

Hint:
It is not mandatory but is recommendatory. Thus, its scope is flexible.

Question 13.
The statutory auditor of a company can act as
a. Internal Auditor
b. Cost Auditor
c. Tax Auditor
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. Tax Auditor

Hint:
Tax auditor and statutory auditor means one and the same thing. Thus, statutory auditor of a company can acts as a tax auditor.

Question 14.
In general, what is the period covered in a statutory audit?
a. 1 Year
b. 2 Year
c. 3 Year
d. Depending upon the auditor’s wish.
Answer:
a. 1 Year

Hint:
Statutory audit covers the period of one financial year thus a period of one year.

Question 15.
As per the Company Act, 2013, which of the following audit is voluntary for all companies in India:
X. Secretarial Audit
Y. Statutory Audit
Z. Cost Audit
W. Internal Audit
Correct option is
a. X and Y
b. X and W
c. X and Z
d. X, Y, Z andW.
Answer:
b. X and W

Hint:
As per Companies Act, 2013, certain class or classes of company as may be prescribed shall appoint an internal auditor who will conduct an audit of the functions and activities of the company.
Statutory Audit is mandatory for the public companies.
Secretarial audit is voluntary
Ministry of Corporate affairs has made cost audit compulsory for companies engaged in fertilizer, bulk drug, sugar, telecommunication, industrial alcohol and electricity & petroleum

Question 16.
Who appoints the auditor for government company
a. Comptroller and Auditor
b. Shareholders
c. Central Government
d. Directors.
Answer:
a. Comptroller and Auditor

Hint:
“Comptroller and Auditor General of India” appoints the auditor for Government company.

Question 17.
Statutory Audit is to be done by
a. A practicing Chartered Accountant or a firm of practicing CA.
b. A practicing CS or a firm of practicing CS
c. A practicing cost accountant or a firm of practicing cost accountant
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. A practicing Chartered Accountant or a firm of practicing CA.

Hint:
Eligible person to be appointed as auditor – Section 141 contains that a person shall be eligible for appointment as an auditor of a company only if he is a chartered accountant and in case of a firm whereof majority of partners practising in India are qualified for appointment.
Statutory audit is done by Chartered accountant.

Question 18.
Which of the following is voluntary audit.
a. Internal Audit
b. Tax Audit
c. Cost Audit
d. Statutory Audit
Answer:
a. Internal Audit

Hint:
Internal audit is voluntary as there is no obligation to conduct this audit. Although As per Companies Act, 2013, certain class or classes of company as may be prescribed shall appoint an internal auditor who will conduct an audit of the functions and activities of the company and make a report thereon to the Board of Directors.

Question 19.
Income tax Audit is conducted under
a. Income Tax Act
b. Banking Regulation Act
c. Companies Act
d. Insurance Act.
Answer:
a. Income Tax Act

Hint:
Tax audit is the audit of accounts required under the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Question 20.
Who can do a Bank Audit?
a. C.A.
b. C.S.
c. CMA
d. All of the above.
Answer:
a. C.A.

Hint:
Bank audit is done by chartered Accountant.

Question 21.
The given statement regarding bank audit “Adequate Provision for nonperforming assets/ Bad debts has to be made in the books” is
a. True
b. False
c. Partly True
d. Partly False.
Answer:
a. True

HInt:
Features of Bank audit are

  • auditors have to certify that statement of accounts of the bank as at the closure of the half year/financial year reveal true and fair view of the Bank’ financial position
  • every provision for non performing asset/bad debts has been made and there is no hidden NPA
  • Banking Regulation Act, 1949 contains the provisions relating to the maintenance of accounts and their audit.
  • It acts as a regulatory measure on Banks

Question 22.
Tax audit is conducted ……………………… number of times in a year.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. ‘n’ no. of times.
Answer:
a. 1

Hint:
Tax audit is done for one financial year i.e. one year.

Question 23.
Which type of audit may be conducted by organisation’s staff?
a. Internal Audit
b. External Audit
c. Cost Audit
d. Tax Audit.
Answer:
a. Internal Audit

Hint:

  • Internal audit is an independent appraisal function established by the management of an organisation
  • It helps in keeping a control over the business activities. The examination and evaluation of the adequacy and effectiveness of internal control systems provide the reasonable assurance to managers and help them to improve the effectiveness of governance.
  • It is conducted by internal auditors

Question 24.
Who will be responsible for errors in audit report if external auditor relies on the work of internal auditor?
a. External Auditor
b. Internal Auditor
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Management.
Answer:
a. External Auditor

Hint:
The opinion of the external auditor, an independent expert assures the owners about the reliability of the financial statements. To prove his utility an external auditor needs to check all the details of the financial statements and will be considered responsible for any errors.

Question 25.
Cost Audit is compulsory for
a. Fertilization Company
b. Sugar Company
c. Tele Communication
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Hint:
Ministry of Corporate affairs has made cost audit compulsory for companies engaged in fertilizer, bulk drug, sugar, telecommunication, industrial alcohol and electricity & petroleum.

Question 26.
Why auditing cannot be done by internal audit staff?
a. (a) Biased nature
b. Incapable staff
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. (a) Biased nature

Question 27.
Provisions related to bank audit is given in:
a. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
b. Companies Act, 2013
c. Income Tax Act, 1961
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

Question 28.
Audit is:
a. Internal
b. External
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. Both (a) and (b)

Hint:
Audit are Internal as well as External. Internal audit is when the management appoints auditor while external audit comprises of statutory audit, etc as demanded by law.

Question 29.
Which of following audits are done every year?
(i) Tax Audit
(ii) Statutory Audit
(iii) Concurrent Audit
a. (i) & (ii)
b. (ii) & (iii)
c. (i) & (iii)
d. All of the above:
Answer:
a. (i) & (ii)

Hint:
The Tax Audit and Statutory Audit are the audits which are done every year while concurrent audit is voluntary.

Question 30.
The cost auditor is to Judge whether the planned expenditure is designed to give optimum result. This exercise may be categorised as:
a. Operation audit
b. Financial audit
c. Efficiency audit
d. Management audit
Answer:
c. Efficiency audit

Hint:
The cost auditor is to judge whether the planned expenditure is designed to give optimum result. This exercise may be categorised as efficiency audit which refers to comparing the actual results with the desired/projected results.

Question 31.
For a tax audit, the specified limit given under Income tax Act, 1961 for a person carrying on business shall be:
a. Turnover exceeds Rs. 40,00,000 in the previous year
b. Turnover exceeds Rs.1,00,00,000 in the previous year
c. Turnover is below Rs.40,00,000 in the previous year
d. Turnover is below Rs.60,00,000 in the previous year
Answer:
b. Turnover exceeds Rs.1,00,00,000 in the previous year

Hint:
As per the Income Tax Act, 1961, every person carrying on business whose turnover or gross receipts exceeds Rs. 1,00,00,000 (Rs. 25,00,000 if carrying on profession) in the previous year shall get his accounts audited.

Question 32.
Consider the following statements about Bank Audit in India? (X) The Bank audit may be done by any person who possesses the prescribed qualification Le. CA, CS and CMA (Y) one of the objectives of Bank audit is to ascertain the adequacy of the provisions of Non-performing assets in Bank. On the basis of above.
a. Statement X is false and statement Y is true
b. Statement X and statement Y both are false
c. Statement X is true and statement Y is false
d. Statement X and statement Y both are true.
Answer:
a. Statement X is false and statement Y is true

Hint:
Features of Bank audit are

  • auditors have to certify that statement of accounts of the bank as at the closure of the half year/financial year reveal true and fair view of the Bank1 financial position
  • every provision for non performing asset/bad debts has been made and there is no hidden NPA
  • Banking Regulation Act, 1949 contains the provisions relating to the maintenance of accounts and their audit.
  • It acts as a regulatory measure on Banks

Question 33.
An auditor of a partnership firm is appointed as per ……………………………..
a. Status
b. Agreement
c. Convention
d. Government Orders.
Answer:
b. Agreement

Hint:
Presently partnership firms in India are not legally bound to get their financial statements audited. Thus partnership firm can appoint an auditor for auditing as per their agreement.

Question 34.
Cost audit is useful for the purpose of proper utilization of scarce resources through (i) cost control (i1) cost reduction (iii) cost minimisation. The options are:
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. I, II and III
d. I and III
Answer:
b. I and II

Hint:
Benefits of Cost audit:

  • It ensures that cost control and cost reduction techniques are followed.
  • It ensures efficient utilization of scarce resources.
  • It ensures that unit has been running economically and efficiently
  • It ensures that proper cost records are maintained.

Question 35.
The statutory auditor is duty bound to enquire whether ……………………………. expenses have been charged to ……………………………… Account.
a. Fixed, Revenue
b. Personal, Revenue
c. Personal, Capital
d. Capital, Profit and Loss
Answer:
c. Personal, Capital

Question 36.
For a tax audit, the specified limit given under Income Tax Act, 1961 for a person carrying on business shall be:
a. Turnover exceeds (Rs. 1,00,00,000 in the previous year
b. Turnover exceeds (Rs.40,00,000 in the previous year
c. Turnover is below (Rs.40,00,000 in the previous year
d. Turnover is below (Rs.60,00,000 in the previous year.
Answer:
a. Turnover exceeds (Rs. 1,00,00,000 in the previous year

Hint:
As per Income Tax Act, every person carrying on business whose turnover or gross receipts exceeds Rs. 1,00,00,000 (25,00,000 if. carrying profession) in previous year shall get his accounts audited.

Question 37.
In India, the audit of co-operative society:
a. Voluntary
b. Mandatory
c. Mandatory on satisfying certain criterion
d. Mandatory for some specified class of societies.
Answer:
b. Mandatory

Hint:
Audit which is prescribed by a state/legislation e.g. Company audit as per Companies Act, audit of Banking Companies, electricity supply companies, public and charitable trust, co-operative schemes which have been set up under the Act of Parliament and other audits required as per law

Question 38.
The audit conducted by CAG (Comptroller Auditor General of India) is a form of:
a. Propriety Audit
b. Statutory Audit
c. Bank Audit
d. Routine Audit
Answer:
b. Statutory Audit

Hint:
Government audit includes the audit of Government Companies conducted by C&AG in accordance with the Companies Act, 2013 and other relevant legislations. It is a statutory audit.

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Business Environment – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Business Environment – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Introduction:
Chester I. Barnard, “Environment consists of atoms and molecules, agglomeration of things in motion, alive, of men and emotions, of physical, and social laws, social ideas, norms of actions, of forces and resistence. The number is infinite and they are always present, they are always changing.”

  • Environment is always changing.
  • Each business operates in a unique environment.
  • Environment influence businesses and in turn, businesses influences environment.

Meaning of Business Environment:

  1. The term ‘business is wide and is put to different usages.
  2. ‘Business’ can referred as any activity consisting of purchase, sale, manufacture, processing and /or marketing of products and/or services.
  3. Business is said to exist for profits.
  4. Both society and business cannot function without each other.
  5. Business vary in size, as measured by the number of employees or by sales volume etc.
  6. There is the single word that describes today’s business, it is ‘change’.
  7. “Modern business is dynamic”.
  8. ‘Environment’ refers to the surroundings.
  9. ‘Business environment’ is the sum of several external and internal forces that affects the functioning of business.
  10. “Environment factors or constraints are largely if not totally, external and beyond the control of individual industrial enterprises and their managements.”
  11. There is close interaction between Business and its Environment.
  12. Factors such as change in technology, factors etc., are to be considered by an organisation in order to survive in the changing business environment.
  13. In order to be successful, business is required to not only recognise various elements of environment but also have to respect, adapt or manage and influence them.
  14. Environment possess threat to the firm as well as offer immense opportunities for exploitation.
  15. However, besides earning profits, business survives for various other reasons in the society. They are –
    (a) becoming an important institution of society
    (b) supplying goods and services
    (c) creating jobs for unemployed
    (d) offering better standard/quality of life
    (e) contributing to the overall economic growth of the country.

Features of Business Environment:
1. The following features of business environment helps a person to understand the environment within which his business has to function:
(i) Dynamic: Business environment is always changing in nature. This is due to the various types of influences operating in the environment like needs of customers, fashion, technology, etc.

(ii) Multi-faceted: Any change occurring in the business environment are viewed differently by different persons. What form does this change takes depends upon the observer’s perception. E.g. a same development may be taken as opportunity for some while it may be taken as threat for some others.

(iii) Sum of external forces: Business environment is an aggregate of various externa! factors.

(iv) Uncertainty: In today’s world, environment is changing every moment. Thus, with such frequent changes it is difficult to predict the future happenings and non-happening.

(v) Both specific and general forces: Business environment consists of both specific and general forces. Specific forces refers to the forces that affects the individual enterprises iike customers* suppliers etc. General forces refers to the forces that affects all the enterprises in an industry together like social, legal conditions etc.

(vi) Relativity: Business environment can be regarded as a relative concept as it changes from one region to another, from one country to another and even from one individual to another individual.

2. Importance of Business Environment: Giving Direction for Growth: Correct assessment and interaction with environment leads to new frontiers of growth for the business enterprises. Adoption of the changes in the business environment and thereby, moving along with it, helps the business in various ways which are as follows:
(i) Threat Identification: Identifying the threats operating in the environment beforehand helps the firms to take corrective and preventive measures. This is essential for the firms in order to survive competition.

Example : Microsoft keeps upgrading its product and launches new version of windows in order to be the market leader similar is the case with i-phone.

(ii) Performance Improvement: By keeping a continuous check on the environment, the firms can adopt the business practices suitable for the present situation, thus improving its performance.

(iii) Meeting Competition: Keeping track with the changing environment helps the firm to analyze its competitor’s strengths, weaknesses and further strategies. Thus, the firm can form its own strategies accordingly. Example : Nokia has launched its Lumia Series Phones in order to cope competition with Samsung Galaxy.

(iv) Advantage of first mover: The firm can succeed its competitors only by exploiting the opportunities coming their way before their competitors.

(v) Able to cope with rapid changes: All firms must understand the dynamic environment properly and must take suitable steps in order to cope up with these rapid changes taking place.

(vi) Continuous learning: Business environment helps the managers to face the challenges as it requires them to update their skills and knowledge.

(vii) Building image: Company’s which are more sensitive to the changes in the environment are in better position than others. Thus, it helps the company to build its goodwill. Example : Windows are frequently updated by Microsoft.

Vision Statement:
1. ‘Vision Statement’ is a road map of a company’s future. It describes the desired future position of the company.

2. Vision Statement answers the following question:

  • Who we are and where we are new?
  • Where we are going?

Some examples of Vision Statement:

  • Disney’s Mission : is to entertain inform and inspire people around the globe through the power of unparalleled storytelling, reflecting the iconic brands creative minds and innovative technologies that make ours the world’s premier entertainment company.
  • ICSI : ‘to be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance’

Mission Statement:
1. ‘Mission Statement’ helps defining the company’s business, its objectives and. its approach to reach those objectives. It broadly describes an organisation’s present capabilities, customer focus, activities, and business make up.

2. When your vision is your ultimate goal, your mission is how you will get there.

3. Mission Statement answers the following questions:

  • What does our company do?
  • Who do we do it for?
  • Where do we exist?
  • How does we do it?
  • Why does our company do it?

4. The business vision and mission is paramount to the future growth and success of the business no matter the size of the organisation.

5. Internal factors include the vision and mission of the organization and other internal mechanism of the organization.

Some examples of mission statement:

  1. Reliance Industries : ‘To become major player in chemical business and grow in other growth oriented industries like infrastructure’.
  2. ICSI : To develop high caliber professionals facilitating good corporate governance.
  3. Facebook : ‘To give people the power to share and make the world more open and connected’
  4. Ranbaxy : To become a $1 billion research – based global pharmaceuticals’.

Uses of Vision And Mission Statement:
Vision and Mission Statement provides various uses to the organization:

Internally:

  1. Helps in defining performance standards.
  2. Guides the employees in decision making.
  3. Guides the management while planning on strategic issues.
  4. Inspires the employees to work more productively.
  5. Helps establishing a framework for ethical behaviour.

Externally:

  1. Helps in better communication with customers, suppliers and alliance partners and also create closer linkage.
  2. Provides external support.
  3. Serves as a public relations tool.
    Business Environment – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes 1

Internal Environment: It consists of the factors that are within the control of business.
(i) Man i.e. Human Resources: It is the strength and weakness of any organisation and must possess various characteristics like, skills, quality high morale, attitude etc.

(ii) Money i.e. Financial Resources: Various financial factors like the financial position, financial policies and its resources affects the business functioning. The source of finance is share capital banking and other financial institutions etc.

(iii) Various Marketing Resources: Factors like brand, equity, distribution network etc. effects the marketing efficiency and performance of a company directly, thereby affecting the company’s decision making.

(iv) Machinery i.e. Physical Assets: Efficient working of any organisation is possible only on proper acquisition and working of assets. Money invested in such assets must provide enough returns and profits so as to satisfy the organisation. It also depends on the technical development and government policy.

(v) Management Structure: It includes the internal structure of any organisation like the Board of Director’s Composition etc. which directly affect the company’s decision. It also affects the strategies undertaken by the company. The management structure must be in accordance with the business environment.

(vi) Miscellaneous Factors: It includes:
1. R & D:- R & D refers to the company’s ability to innovate and compete, it is mainly focused on technological improvement, (i.e. designing, producing and distributing product in a more creative innovation manner.)

2. Company’s Image & Brand Equity: Image of the company in the outside environment (market) has a direct bearing over the internal environment of the company (ex: raising finance, making JV, expansions, acquisitions etc.)

3. Value system: The principle of wrong and right that are accepted by an individual or organisation are what comprise value system. Value system has important bearing on the business policies, mission, objectives and practices.

  • Company’s brand image and goodwill
  • Competitor’s action it involves
  • Identifying Competitor’s
  • Assessing their strengths, weakness etc.
  • Selecting strategy to deal with them
  • Research and Development
  • Value System of Business

External Environment : It consists of the factors that are outside the company’s boundaries, thus the company have no control over them. Company must adapt to such changes. External environment can be micro or macro.

Micro Environment:

  • It is also known as task or operating environment.
  • It is the immediate environment with which the organisation interacts for its day to day operations.
  • These factors are more closely linked with the company than the macro factors.
  • It affects a particular firm only.
  • The micro environmental forces, though are external factors, still have a direct bearing on the operations of the firms.

It deals with the following:
(i) Consumers/Customers: The main aim of every business is to create and retain customers. Customers pay for company’s product. Thus, they must be provided quality goods at most reasonable prices. Organisation survive on the basis of meeting ‘customer needs & wants’.

(ii) Competitors: Before making any strategy, business must be aware of its competitor’s actions to the environment changes. This will maintain and improve the company’s position. The name of the game in marketing a product is differentiation. Every firm has Unique Selling Point (USP).

(iii) Employees: It includes Board of Directors, owners and employees that are considered as the backbone of the organisation. They influence the day to day functioning of organisation and should be provided with proper training and development while considering the dividend policy of the company. We can say Training & Development play important role.

(iv) Suppliers: They provide raw material for the business’s production activities. They have their own bargaining power which seriously affects the industry’s cost structure.

(v) Shareholders: They invest in company’s capital thus are the owners of company. They affects the company’s operations as they have a right to vote on ail the decisions. Balance must be maintained between organisation’s health and shareholder’s interest.

(vi) Media: It must be organised in such a way that it promotes the ‘ positive things of organisation while reduces the impact of negative things. It helps in building image and reputation.

Some organisation employ (PR) consultants to manage particular event or incident. Positive media can ‘make’ an organisation & negative media attention can ‘break’ an are required.

Macro Environment:

  • When the macro factors become uncontrollable the success 01 company depends upon its adaptability to the environment.
  • It is also known as General or Remote environment.
  • It is beyond the direct influence and control of organisation.
  • These factors are more uncontrollable than micro factors.
  • It covers the broader issues with which the organisation deals for long term working.

It deals with the following: (STEEP)
(i) Socio-Cultural and Demographics: It consists of societal values, lifestyle and various characteristics of population. Those characteristics have to be identified which affects the further strategic competitiveness of the company. They affect directly or indirectly to the business environment. It include social factor like customs, tradition, values, beliefs, poverty, literacy, life expectancy rate etc.

(ii) Technological: This environment includes the methods, techniques and approaches adopted for production of goods and services and their distribution. Technology and business are highly inter related and inter-dependent. Technology influences the business operations and brings many opportunities for the business. It come in many form like medical devices etc.

(iii) Economic: It represents the situation of the region and nation in which the firm operates. Business obtains all its inputs from the economic environment and all its outputs are also absorbed there. It includes the following factors :
(a) Economic Conditions

  • Gross Domestic Product,
  • Per Capital Income,
  • Capital Availability,
  • Foreign Exchange Reserves etc.
  • Markets
  • Foreign Trade
  • Capital Market

(b) Economic Policies

  • Industrial Policy,
  • Fiscal Policy,
  • Monetary Policy,
  • Foreign Investment Policy,
  • EXIM Policy, etc.

(c) Economic System

  • Capitalistic Economy,
  • Socialistic Economy,
  • Mixed Economy.

(iv) Ecology and Physical Environment: These factors are important for those units which carry on production and manufacturing activities. It includes weather, climatic conditions, availability of natural resources, location aspect etc. They play an important role for those who carry out production & manufacturing activities.

(v) Political and Legal: Political environment means the political system, the government policies and their attitude towards the business community. Political groups put pressure on business for political gain by raising the sensitive issues relating to public.

Legal environment means the flexibility and adaptability of law and other legal rules governing the business. Every business has to work within the framework of law. Political Environment refer three political institution viz. legislature, executive, judiciary in shaping, directing and controlling business activities.

Global Integration: There was a growth in NNP, per capita income, infrastructure etc.

  • Government has taken several steps to speed up the industrial growth and solve various economic problems.
  • Government efforts resulted in a mixed response.
  • Radical change in economic policies was brought in 1991.
  • Foreign Investment Promotion Board was set up to channelize the foreign capital investment in India.
  • It includes – Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation
  • This resulted in increase in Per Capita income, Net National Product, Infrastructure development, etc.

Features of Current Phase of Globalisation:

  • Developing new financial markets
  • Growing Global Consumer Market with global brands.
  • Reducing anti-trust laws and proliferating mergers and acquisitions.
  • Growing trend of multilateral agreements
  • Conventions and agreements on the global environment

Liberalisation – refers to relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in areas of social and economic policies. It refers to the process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of business enterprises.

Liberalisation Includes:

  • Abolishing industrial licencing requirement
  • Freedom in fixation of prices of goods and services.
  • Reduction in tax rates.
  • Freedom in deciding business scale.
  • Simplifying import export procedure.
  • High foreign exchange reserve.

Benefits of Liberalisation:

  • Liberalisation has led to expansion of Indian Economy.
  • Easy entry of foreign business organisations in India.
  • Stiff competition has led to increase in efficiency.
  • High growth rate.
  • Availability of goods at competitive prices.
  • Healthy stock market
  • Low inflation rate, etc.
  • Good industrial relation
  • Strong rupee
  • High foreign exchange Rate

Privatization:
1.  Privatization refers to the transfer of assets or service functions from public to private ownership or control. “It means the withdrawal of the state from an industry or sector – partially or fully.”

2. Privatization has become a universal trend. Even in communist countries it became a measure of economic rejuvenation.

3. Launching and sustaining transformation of the economy from a command to a market mode (capitalistic).

4. Its objectives are:

  • To increase the size of private sector, distributing more widely in the population at large.
  • Improving the performance of Public Sector Units.
  • Encourage private sector investments.
  • Revenue generation.
  • Reduction of administrative burden.
  • Launching and sustaining the transformation of the economy for a command to a market model.

Routes of privatization/Methods of privatization:

  • Divestiture : The partial or full disposal of an investment or asset through sale, exchange, closure or bankruptcy. Business may divest by selling of ownership stakes.
  • Contracting : Under this, the government give contracts for services to be performed and delivered to other organisations.
  • Liquidation : It can be formal (sale of assets and closure of enjire enterprise) or informal (suspending some of its operations).
  • Denationalisation/Reprivatization : it means transferring something from state ownership to private ownership.
  • Franchising : Government gives authorisation to someone to sell or distribute its goods or services in a certain designated area.
  • Leasing : It is a process by which government can obtain the use of certain fixed assets for which it may pay a series of payments.
  • Government withdrawal : Government withdraws its production from certain goods and services, leaving them completely with private enterprises.

Benefits of privatization:

  • Reducing fiscal burden
  • Reviving sick units
  • Reducing the size of administrative machinery
  • Helps in generating funds
  • Enabling the government to concentrate on essential states.
  • Private sector registered fast growth in the post liberalized period.

Functions of privatization:

  • Better management of enterprises
  • Encourage entrepreneurship
  • Accelerate pace of economic development
  • Increase number of workers and common man who an shareholders.

Problems in privatization:

  • Growth of monopoly power
  • Loss making units are not bought
  • Lop- sided industrial development

Globalization (Became a buzzword):
(i) It refers to integration of world into one huge market by removing the trade barriers among countries. It means, the growing economic interdependence of countries worldwide through increasing volume and variety of cross border transactions in goods and services and of international capital flows, and also through the more rapid and wide spread diffusion of technology.

(ii) Globalisation is at two levels:

  • Macro and
  • Micro

(ii) Reasons for globalisation:

  • Rapid shrinking of time and distance.
  • Domestic markets are no longer adequate and rich.
  • Foreign market becomes large enough to justify foreign investment.
  • Reduce high transportation cost
  • Political stability
  • To get technology
  • To secure reliable or cheaper source of raw materials.
  • Generate higher sales
  • Better cash flows.

US, Canada and Mexico have signed the North America Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) to remove all trade barriers among their countries.

The following are the features of the current phase of globalization:
New Markets –

  • Growing global markets in services – banking, insurance, transport.
  • New financial markets- deregulated, globally linked, working around the clock, with action at a distance in real time, with new instruments such as derivatives.
  • Deregulation of anti-trust laws and proliferation of mergers and acquisitions.
  • Global consumer markets with global brands.

(iv) New Rules and Norms –

  • Market economic policies spreading around the world, with greater privatization and liberalization than in earlier decades
  • Widespread adoption of democracy as the choice of political regime
  • Human rights conventions and instruments building up in both coverage and number of signatories – and growing awareness among people around the world
  • Consensus goals and action agenda for development
  • Conventions and agreements on the global environment – biodiversity, ozone layer, disposal of hazardous wastes, desertification, climate change.
  • Multilateral agreements in trade, taking on such new agendas as environmental and social conditions.
    New multilateral agreements for services, intellectual property, communications – more binding on national governments than any previous agreements
  • The multilateral agreement on investment under debate.

(v) Comparative Analysis of Business Environment – India and other countries:
1. Business Environment of a company comprises of all factors which, directly affect the functioning of a company or business enterprise.

2. Every country is different in terms of micro environment and macro environment which it provides to corporate entities operating there. India has a young population, with around 65% in the age group of 15 to 64 years.

3. The Companies Act, 2013 has also greatly impacted the doing business in India.

4. As per the World Bank doing business, India made the biggest improvement in business regulation, increasing its distance to frontier score by 2 points and moving up in the ease of dong business ranking from 134 in 2015 to 130 out of 189 countries in 2016.

5. The ‘Doing Business’ rankings are published by the World Bank each years and the rankings are based on 10 parameters.

7. India ranks in the top 10 in Protecting Minority Investors.

8. India is a vibrant market for telecommunication products such as mobile telephones and internet connections, automobiles and several other consumer and luxury goods.

9. India has witnessed massive improvement in the quality of Its automobile manufacturing after 1990s when several international players began manufacturing their products in India.

10. The socio-cultural fabric is another important environmental factor that should be analysed while comparing business India with respect to other countries.

11. The differences in language sometimes pose a serious problem, even necessitating a change in the brand name.

12. Geographical and ecological factors, such as natural resources endowments, weather and climatic conditions, topographical factors, locational etc. are all relevant to business.

13. Technological factors sometimes pose problems. A firm, which is unable to cope with the technological changes may not survive.

14. India is the world’s largest democracy in terms of voters and is a parliamentary form of government with a two timed parliament executive and judiciary all having district but inter related functions.

15. India has reasonably liberalized economy since the economic reforms initiated in 1991.

16. GDP growth rate in India is 7% per annum.

17. India is a country with strong banking system and vibrant capital market.

18. India’s financial system is led by its large banking industry with total deposits of all scheduled commercial banks in India in nearly US $ 1.52 trillion.

19. Outstanding loans and advances is approx US $ 1.1 trillion (₹ 74,352 billion) as on March, 2014.

20. As per the latest data from world federation of exchanges the share of the US in world cap is 38%, that of India 2.00% and of China 14.3%.

21. The foreign investment has shown positive growth in both portfolio and direct investment terms over the last two decades.

22. The factors of the business environment can be broadly divided as:
(a) Micro environment: It consists of factors specific to the company such as its customers, competitors, suppliers, investors and creditors of the company which impact functioning and performance of the company directly and is part of its immediate environment.

(b) Macro environment: The macro environment consist of factors which impact all companies or corporate entities functioning in a country and include legal and taxation issues, regulators, political and government influences, social and cultural issues, technological and economic factor.

23. These parameters are as follows:

  • Starting a business
  • Dealing with construction permits
  • Getting electricity
  • Registering property
  • Getting credit
  • Protecting minority investors
  • Paying taxes
  • Trading across borders
  • Enforcing contracts, and
  • Resolving insolvency.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Profit is the only objective of all business firms _______.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 2.
Modern business is _______.
(a) Constant
(b) Profitable
(c) Dynamic
(d) Stable
Answer:
(c) Dynamic

Question 3.
Features of business environment does not include:
(a) Uncertainty
(b) Relativity
(c) Static Nature
(d) Specific and General forces
Answer:
(c) Static Nature

Question 4.
_______ tells the purpose of business existence.
(a) Vision
(b) Mission
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Mission

Question 5.
Both Vision and Mission statements are commonly used to:
(a) define measurement standards
(b) create wider linkages with customers, suppliers and alliance partners
(c) guide managements thinking on strategic issues
(d) enlist internal support
Answer:
(c) guide managements thinking on strategic issues

Question 6.
“Where you can visualize your business in 7 years time”. This is a:
(a) Mission Statement
(b) Vision Statement
(c) Business Statement
(d) Statement of purpose.
Answer:
(b) Vision Statement

Question 7.
“To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance” is a _______ of ICSI .
(a) Vision
(b) Mission
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b) above.
Answer:
(a) Vision

Question 8.
Types of Business Environment includes the following:
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
Internal business environment does not include:
(a) Man
(b) Money
(c) Marketing Resources
(d) Government Policies.
Answer:
(d) Government Policies.

Question 10.
Environment factors which are within the control of business are known as:
(a) Micro factors
(b) Internal factors
(c) Macro factors
(d) External factors
Answer:
(a) Micro factors

Question 11.
_______ is a type of external environment.
a) Operating
(b) General
(c) Remote
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 12.
Micro factors are the factors that are in the company’s immediate environment.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

Question 13.
Micro environmental factors can be described as _______ close to a business that have a direct impact on its strategy.
(a) External factors
(b) Internal factors
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Competitive factors
Answer:
(b) Internal factors

Question 14.
Macro environment is also known as :
(a) Task environment
(b) Remote environment
(c) Global environment
(d) Operating environment
Answer:
(b) Remote environment

Question 15.
_______ factors affects the economy as a whole and are not Particular to any organisation.
(a) Micro
(b) Macro
(c) Internal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Macro

Question 16.
Change in technology, economic conditions, political and legal factors are _______ factors.
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) External

Question 17.
Which of the following is not included in liberalization _______.
(a) Reduction in tax matter
(b) Abolition of licensing
(c) Simplification of policies
(d) Imposition of tariff barriers.
Answer:
(d) Imposition of tariff barriers.

Question 18.
Which of the following is a type of economic system?
(a) Capitalistic economy
(b) Socialistic economy
(c) Mixed economy
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
_______ is a process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of business enterprises.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Liberalisation

Question 20.
Liberalisation does not include:
(a) Abolishing industrial licensing requirement in most of the industries
(b) Freedom in fixing prices of goods and services
(c) Restriction in deciding the scale of business activities
(d) Simplifying the procedure for imports and exports.
Answer:
(c) Restriction in deciding the scale of business activities

Question 21.
Following is not an objective of privatisation :
(a) Improving the performance of PSU’s
(b) Decreasing the size of private sector
(c) Reducing administrative burden
(d) Revenue Generation.
Answer:
(b) Decreasing the size of private sector

Question 22.
Routes of privatisation include :
(a) Divestiture
(b) Contracting
(c) Nationalisation
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 23.
NAFTA stands for:
(a) New American Free Trade Agreement
(b) North African Free Trade Agreement
(c) North American Free Trade Agreement
(d) North American Full Trade Acceptance.
Answer:
(c) North American Free Trade Agreement

Question 24.
NAFTA was signed among following countries:
(a) US, Canada, Mexico
(b) India, US, Pakistan
(c) US, Canada, UK
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) US, Canada, Mexico

Question 25.
_______ describes the desired future position of the company,
(a) Internal Environment
(b) Mission Statement
(c) Vision Statement
(d) External Environment.
Answer:
(c) Vision Statement

Question 26.
A Business has absolute control on the _______.
(a) Internal Environment
(b) External Environment
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Internal Environment

Question 27.
Micro and Macro Environment is the part of _______.
(a) Business Environment
(b) Internal Environment
(c) External Environment
(d) Both (b) & (c).
Answer:
(c) External Environment

Question 28.
Micro Environment is also known as _______.
(a) Operating Environment
(b) Task Environment
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b).
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 29.
Financial Factors, Human Resource, Marketing Resource and Miscellaneous Factors are _______ Factors.
(a) Micro
(b) Macro
(c) Internal
(d) External.
Answer:
(c) Internal

Question 30.
GDP, Per capital income, foreign exchange are the examples of _______.
(a) Economic Policy
(b) Economic System
(c) Economic Conditions
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Economic Conditions

Question 31.
When did Government of India introduced a change in Economic Policy _______.
(a) 1892
(b) 1991
(c) 1895
(d) 1781
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 32.
Through the _______ Process, Indian economy has opened up and started interacting with the world.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Liberalisation

Question 33.
Which process of development became a vital measure of economic rejuvenation in the communist countries:
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(b) Privatisation

Question 34.
_______ has become universal trend.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Privatisation

Question 35.
High growth rate, easy availability of goods, at competitive rate, high foreign exchange reserve can be achieved by:
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Liberalisation

Question 36.
_______ means transferring something from state ownership to private ownership.
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Denationalisation
(c) Divestiture
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Denationalisation

Question 37.
Problems in Privatisation are:
(a) Growth of monopoly power
(b) Loss making units are not bought
(c) Lop-sided industrial development
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 38.
_______ refers to integration of world into one huge market by removing the trade barriers among countries.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 39.
Benefits of Privatisation does not include _______.
(a) Reducing fiscal burden
(b) Sick units reconstruction
(c) Reducing the size of administrative machinery
(d) Low inflation rate.
Answer:
(d) Low inflation rate.

Question 40.
_______ is the process by which government can obtain the use of certain fixed assets for which it may pay a series of payments.
(a) Franchising
(b) Leasing
(c) Contracting
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(b) Leasing

Question 41.
_______ helps defining the company’s business, its objectives and its approach to reach those objective.
(a) Vision statement
(b) Mission statement
(c) Business statement
(d) Statement of purpose.
Answer:
(b) Mission statement

Question 42.
_______ means the flexibility and adaptability of law and other legal rule governing the business.
(a) Political Environment
(b) Legal Environment
(c) Technological Environment
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(b) Legal Environment

Question 43.
Economic Policies are framed by _______.
(a) Private
(b) Business
(c) Government
(d) Semi government
Answer:
(c) Government

Question 44.
Legislature, executive and the judiciary comes under the _______.
(a) Political Environment
(b) Physical Environment
(c) Legal Environment
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(a) Political Environment

Question 45.
A statement answers the question “why do we exist”?
(a) Vision
(b) Mission
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Mission

Question 46.
_______ Statement defines the company’s business, its objectives and its approach to reach these objectives.
(a) Vision
(b) Mission
(c) Profitability
(d) Annual Report
Answer:
(b) Mission

Question 47.
In a mission /vision Statement, the matters relating to guiding employee decision making, establishing ethical behaviour, performance standards etc are.
(a) Internal to organisation
(b) External to organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) Internal to organisation

Question 48.
The matters relating to creating close linkages and letter communication with customers, suppliers and alliance partners given in a mission/ vision Statement are
(a) Internal to organization
(b) External to organization
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) External to organization

Question 49.
_______ is the future dream of a business.
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Vision Statement
(c) Mission Statement
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Vision Statement

Question 50.
The question like “Where do you exist”, “How does it do it” are covered by _______.
(a) Vision Statement
(b) Mission Statement
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) Mission Statement

Question 51.
Which of the following is-not covered by the organisation’s Internal Environment _______.
(a) Human Resource
(b) R & D
(c) Media
(d) Management Structure
Answer:
(c) Media

Question 52.
The forces which are external but still have a direct bearing on the operations of the firm are called.
(a) Micro Environment
(b) Macro environment
(c) Internal Environment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Micro Environment

Question 53.
Customers, shareholders, competitors, etc. are the elements of _______.
(a) Micro Environment
(b) Internal environment
(c) Macro Environment
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Micro Environment

Question 54.
Technology, Culture, Demographics etc. are the elements of _______.
(a) Internal Environment
(b) Micro Environment
(c) Macro Environment
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Macro Environment

Question 55.
The size, density, distribution and growth rate of population is called _______.
(a) Ecology
(b) Habitat
(c) Demographics
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Demographics

Question 56.
_______ was Set up to channel foreiqn capital investment
(a) SEBI
(b) Foreign Investment Promotion Board
(c) Special Economic Zone
(d) International Trade Promotion Board
Answer:
(d) International Trade Promotion Board

Question 57.
Which of the following is an element of Political environment?
(a) Legislature
(b) Judiciary
(c) Executive
(d) All of the Above
Answer:

Question 58.
Which of the following is a method of Privatisation _______
(a) Divestiture
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 59.
The form of privatisation in which the government company retains its legal status even though some or all of its operations are suspended is called.
(a) Controlling
(b) Formal liquidation
(c) Informal liquidation
(d) Denationalisation
Answer:
(c) Informal liquidation

Question 60.
The method of Privatisation in which the government authorises the delivery of certain services in a designated area is called _______.
(a) Franchising
(b) Leasing
(c) Contracting
(d) Divesture
Answer:
(a) Franchising

Question 61.
Which of the foliowing is not a use of Vision/Mission Statement?
(a) Inspiring the Employees
(b) Defining Problems & Standards
(c) Increasing the profits and revenue
(d) Defining the Performance Standards
Answer:
(c) Increasing the profits and revenue

Question 62.
Which of the following is not true in relation to the business environment?
(a) It is beyond the organisational
(b) It is a sum total of internal and external control factors
(c) Organisation can remain insensitive to the business environment
(d) It is dynamic in nature
Answer:
(c) Organisation can remain insensitive to the business environment

Question 63.
USP stands for _______.
(a) Unique Selling Price
(b) Unique Strategic Price
(c) Unique Selling Point
(d) Ultimate Selling Price
Answer:
(c) Unique Selling Point

Question 64.
The partial or full disposal of an investment or asset through sale, exchange, closure or bankruptcy is called as _______.
(a) Divestiture
(b) Environment withdrawal
(c) Denationalisation
(d) Reprivatisation
Answer:
(a) Divestiture

Question 65.
The process of restoring to its former properties seized by the government is called _______.
(a) Divestiture
(b) Restoration
(c) Reprivatisation
(d) Liquidation
Answer:
(c) Reprivatisation

Question 66.
Sole proprietorship for is most suitable for;
(a) Where the nature of business is simple
(b) Where manual skill is required
(c) Where the market for the product is small & local
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 67.
Which of the following can be treated as characteristics of business organization?
(a) All business enterprise engage in operation on a continuous basis.
(b) Business undertakings are not exposed to any risk for uncertainty.
(c) A business firms are owned by one individual and not by a group of individuals jointly.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) All business enterprise engage in operation on a continuous basis.

Question 68.
_______ in any organization must have characteristic like skills, quality, high morale, commitment towards the work, attitude etc.
(a) Marketing Resources
(b) Financial factors
(c) Human Resource
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Human Resource

Question 69.
Which of the following is a part of liberalisation process?
(a) Making industrial licensing requirement mandatory in most of the industries
(b) Regulating the scale of business activities
(c) Fixing of prices of goods and services
(d) Simplifying the procedures for imports and exports
Answer:
(d) Liberalisation refers to the process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of business enterprises.
It includes:

  • Abolishing industrial licensing requirement
  • Freedom in fixation of goods and services
  • Reduction in tax rates
  • Freedom in deciding business scale
  • Simplifying import export procedures

Thus, among the given options, simplifying the procedures for imports and exports is right.

Question 70.
Macro factors of business environment are generally:
(a) As controllable as micro factors
(b) Less controllable than micro factors
(c) More controllable than micro factors
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Macro Environment also known as General or Remote Environment is beyond the direct control and influence of the organisation. These factors are more uncontrollable than micro factors i.e. they are less controllable than micro factors.

Question 71.
Which one of the following is the result of product differentiation?
(a) Brand Equity
(b) Competitive Advantage
(c) Value System
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Competitor analysis is a critical aspect of analyzing the internal business environment. Competitor’s action affect the ability of the business to make profits, because competitors will continually seek to gain advantage over each other, by differentiating their product and service and by seeking to provide better value for money.

Question 72.
Which one of the following is the desired future position?
(a) Financial Statement
(b) Vision Statement
(c) Objectives
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Vision Statement is a road map of a company’s future. It describes the desired future position of the company.

Question 73.
Mission Statement of a company is derived from its:
(a) Articles of Association
(b) Vision Statement
(c) Memorandum of Association
(d) Prospectus
Answer:
(b) Mission Statement helps defining the company’s business, its objectives and its approach to reach those objectives. It broadly describes an organisation’s present capabilities, customer focus, activities and business makes, thus helping an organisation to reach its desired future position as set out in its vision statement.
Thus, mission statement of a company is derived from its Vision Statement.

Question 74.
There is a close and interaction between the business and its
environment.
(a) Frequent
(b) Continuous
(c) Seldom
(d) Occasional
Answer:
(b) Business, environment is always changing in nature. Moreover, environment influences business and in turn, business influences environment. Thus, it can be said that there is close and continuous interaction between business and its environment.

Question 75.
Which one of the following shows a big picture of what a company wants to achieve in future?
(a) Vision statement
(b) Mission statement
(c) Value statement
(d) Quality statement.
Answer:
(a) Vision statement is where you want your business to reach at. It is your future dream for your business. Thus we can say that Vision Statement shows a big picture of what a company wants to achieve in future.

Question 76.
Value system of an organisation have an impact on its:
I. Objectives
II. Policies
III. Practices
IV. Profit
The correct option is:
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II and III only
(c) II, III and IV only
(d) I, II, III and IV.
Answer:
(b) The principles of right and wrong that are accepted by an individual or organisation are what comprise value system. The value system of the founders and those at the helm of affairs has important bearing on the choice of business, the mission and objectives of the organisation, business policies and practices.
Thus, value system has no impact on profits of an organisation.

Question 77.
Which among the following are the key drivers of globalisation?
(a) Government action, exchange rates, competition and socio-demographic factors
(b) Market convergence, competition, exchange rates and cost advantages
(c) Cost advantages, government action, economic cycles and competition
(d) Market, cost, competition and government policies.
Answer:
(d) Key drivers of Globalisation:

  • Market driver
  • Cost driver,
  • Government driver
  • Competitive driver
  • Other drivers.

Question 78.
Which one of the following is not a feature of business environment?
(a) Dynamic nature
(b) Image building
(c) Uncertainty
(d) Totality of external forces
Answer:
(b) Following are the features of Business Environment:

  • Dynamic
  • Multi – faceted
  • Sum of external forces
  • Uncertainty
  • Both specific and general forces
  • Relatiyity

Therefore, image building is not a feature of business environment.

Question 79.
Which one of the following describes the desired future position of a company?
(a) Mission statement
(b) Vision Statement
(c) Competitive advantage
(d) Qualitative policy
Answer:
(b) ‘Vision Statement’ is a road map of a companies future. It describes the desired future position of the company.

Question 80.
The process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of a business enterprise is known as :
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Liberalisation refers to relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in areas of social and economic policies. It refers to the process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of business enterprises.

Question 81.
Business environment consists of which element?
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Business environment factors is a sum of several external and internal forces that affects the functioning of the business. Thus, it contains both internal and external elements.

Question 82.
Which of the following is not an economic policy?
(a) Industrial Policy
(b) Fiscal Policy
(c) Exim Policy
(d) Technological Policy
Answer:
(d) Economic policies are:

  • Industrial policy
  • Fiscal policy
  • EXIM policy
  • Foreign investment policy

Thus, technological policy is not an economic policy.

Question 83.
Macro environment, is concerned with major issues and upcoming changes in the environment.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) It is true that macro environment is concerned with major issues with which the organisation deals for long term working.

Question 84.
Which of the following factor is not included in micro-environment?
(a) Customers
(b) Employees
(c) Suppliers
(d) Technology
Answer:
(d) Micro economics comprises of following factors.

  • Consumer / Customers – Competitors
  • Employees – Suppliers
  • Share holders – Media

Thus, in the given question, technology is not a factor of micro environment.

Question 85.
The economic environment of business in India is changing at a fast rate mainly due to economic policies:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly Yes
(d) Partly No
Answer:
(b) The economic conditions of a country refer to a set of economic factors that have great influence on business organisations. Hence, the given statement that economic environment of business in India is changing at a fast rate mainly due to economic policies are false.

Question 86.
Which of the following affects an individual enterprise?
(a) General forces
(b) Specific forces
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) General forces affect the enterprises or industry as a whole while the specific forces affect the individual enterprises.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

Question 87.
Which among the following is the vision of ICSI?
(a) “Promoting global excellence”
(b) ‘To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance”
(c) “Partners in Nation building”
(d) “Building corporate responsibility”
Answer:
(b) Vision statement is a road map of a company’s future. Following is the vision of ICSI, “To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance.

Question 88.
When a state owned enterprise is given in private hands, it is known as ______.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) Transformation
Answer:
(c) Privatization refers to the transfer of assets or service functions from public to private ownership or control.
Thus, under privatisation a state owned enterprise is given in private hands.

Question 89.
Who started the process of liberalisation?
(a) Yashwant Singh
(b) Jashwant Singh
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Manmohan Singh started the process of liberalisation.

Question 90.
Mission Statement is derived from ______.
(a) Future position of the company
(b) Company’s business and its objectives
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Mission statement helps defining the Company’s business, its objectives and its approach to reach those objectives. It broadly describes an organisation’s present capabilities, customer focus activities and business makes, thus helping an organisation to reach its desired future position as set out in its vision statement.

Question 91.
Which one of the below is not an example of mission statement?
(a) Disney :‘To make people happy”.
(b) Facebook: “To give people the power to share and make the world more open and connected.”
(c) Google : ‘To organise the world’s information and make it universally accessible and useful.
(d) ICSI : “To develop high caliber professionals facilitating good corporate governance.”
(e) None of these
Answer:
(a) Vision Statement of Disney, ‘To make people Happy.”

Question 92.
Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them instead of losing it to competitors. The mentioned advantage can be categorised under:
(a) First mover advantage
(b) Initial identifier advantage
(c) Earlier advantage
(d) Second mover advantage
Answer:
(a) Under first mover advantage, early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to express them instead of losing them to competitors. For ex. Maruti Udyog became the leader in the small car market because it was the first to recognize the need of small cars in India.

Question 93.
Recruitment of public relations consultants are a part of ______.
(a) Operating Environment
(b) General Environment
(c) Macro Environment
(d) Competitive Environment
Answer:
(a) Public relations is a practice of managing the spread of information between an individual or an organisation the public. Public relations is the idea of creating coverage for clients, rather than marketing or advertising the aim of public relations is to inform the public, prospective customers, investors, partners, employees and other stakeholders and ultimately persuade them to maintain certain view about the organisation. So recruitment of public relation consultants is a part of Operating Environment.

Question 94.
Liberalization in India did not result in:
(a) A high growth rate
(b) A healthy and flourishing stock market
(c) Easy availability of goods at competitive prices
(d) Low foreign exchange reserves
Answer:
(d) Benefits of liberalization includes:

  • It has led to expansion of Indian Economy.
  • Easy entry of foreign business organisation in India.
  • High growth rate.
  • Availability of goods at competitive prices.
  • Healthy stock market.
  • Low inflation rate.

But it does not result in low foreign exchange reserves.

Question 95.
Where is company’s mission statement derived from?
(a) From the vision of the company ‘
(b) From the company policies
(c) Memorandum of Association of the Company
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Elements of Mission and Vision statements are often combined to provide a statement of the purposes, goals and values of the companies. However, some times the two are used interchangeably. Where your vision is your ultimate goal, your mission is how you get there.

Question 96.
Opening up of an industry that has been reserved for the public sector to the private sector is an example of:
(a) Modernisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Privatisation
Answer:
(d) Another dimension of privatization is opening up of an industry that has been reserved for the public sector of the private sector.

Question 97.
Mission statement is derived from ______.
(a) Vision statement
(b) Laws and statutes
(c) Company policies
(d) The company’s memorandum of association
Answer:
(a) The mission statement of a enterprise is derived from its vision, at some places mission and vision statements are used interchangeably.

Question 98.
Which of these is not included in (NAFTA) North American Free Trade Agreement?
(a) US
(b) India
(c) Mexico
(d) Canada
Answer:
(b) US, Canada and Mexico have signed the North American Free Trade Agreement to remove all trade barriers among these countries. India is not a part of NAFTA.

Question 99.
Who started the process of liberalisation?
(a) Yashwant Singh
(b) Jashwant Singh
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Mahatma Ghandhi
Answer:
(c) Manmohan Singh started the process of liberalisation.

Question 100.
When did Government of India introduced a change in Economic policy?
(a) 1892
(b) 1991
(c) 1895
(d) 1781
Answer:
(b) Government of India introduced a change in Economic policy 1991. This policy abolished licensing in most of the cases, allowed private participation in most industries, disinvestment was carried out in many public sector enterprises and opened up the economy considerably.

Question 101.
Mission statement is derived from:
(a) Company policies
(b) The Companies memorandum of association
(c) Vision statement
(d) Laws and statutes
Answer:
(c) Mission statement is derived from the vision statement, as mission statement defines the company’s objective, business and its approach to reach those objectives or the desired future position of the company. Thus, elements of mission and vision are often combined to provide a statement of purpose, goal and values of the company.

Question 102.
Product differentiation is an example of:
(a) Brand loyalty
(b) Value statement
(c) Brand equity
(d) Competitive advantage.
Answer:
(d) Product differentiation is an example of competitive advantage. To explain it is a critical aspect of analyzing the internal business environment. Competitor’s action affect the ability of the business to make profit and gain an advantage over each other; thus for seeking to provide better value for money.

Question 103.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Privatisation got momentum in India after 1947
(b) Privatisation and liberalisation has no co-relation
(c) Privatisation facilitates liberalisation
(d) Liberalisation facilitates privatisation
Answer:
(b) Privatisation : The transfer of a business, industry or service from public to private ownership and control, liberalisation. The process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth ” functioning of business enterprises. Thus, we can say that there is no co-relation between privatisation and liberalisation.

Question 104.
_______ is not part of External Environment analysis:
(a) Analysing financial ratio
(b) Studying the political environment
(c) Analysis available technologies
(d) Analysis social, cultural, demographic and geographic forces
Answer:
(a) The external environment of an organisation comprises of all entities that exists outside its boundaries, but have significant influence over its growth and survival. Hence, analysing financial ratio is not a part of external environment analysis.

Question 105.
Which of the following is a part of internal environment scanning:
(a) Political environment
(b) Customer preferences
(c) Chain of command
(d) Law and order
Answer:
(b) Customer preferences is a part of internal environment scanning as the organisation survive on the basis of meeting “customer needs and wants” and providing benefits to their customers. Failure to do so will result in a failed business strategy.

Question 106.
Which of the following is not included in an analysis of the business environment?
(a) Economic trends
(b) Animal behaviour
(c) Social behaviour
(d) Political trends
Answer:
(b) The acronym for macro analysis is STEEP. The five areas of Interest are:

  • Socio Cultural and Demographics
  • Technology
  • Economic Condition
  • Ecology and Physical Environment
  • Political and Legal trend

Question 107.
Opening up of an industry that has been reserved for the public sector to the private sector is an example of:
(a) Modernization
(b) Globalization
(c) Liberalization
(d) Privatization
Answer:
(d) Privatization has become an universal trend means transfer of ownership or management from public sector to private sector.

It also means withdrawal of state from an industry or sector, partial or fully. Another dimension of privatization is opening up industry that has been reserved for public sector to private sector.

Question 108.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Identification of possible threats does not help an organization to face the competition
(b) Identification of possible threats helps an organization to grow even in competition
(c) Identification of possible threats helps in taking corrective and improving measures to survive the competition
(d) Identification of possible threats require thorough knowledge of business environment
Answer:
(a) Identification of possible threat help an organisation to face competition and even grow.

Question 109.
Generally the main reason behind starting a business is:
(a) Social service
(b) Earning profits
(c) Earning name
(d) Spiritual reasons
Answer:
(b) Every business serve a common purpose to earn profit. All other reasons are secondary.

Question 110.
Key goal in the firm’s growth phase is:
(a) Expansion of sales
(b) Expansion of capital
(c) Cutting costs
(d) Expansion of profit
Answer:
(a) After the successful introduction of a product, the company tries to increase its market share or sales in the growth phase, which is its percentage of sales volume compared to competitors in the same category. The company focuses on additional promotional and distribution efforts to reach as many potential end users as possible.

Question 111.
Competitors are a part of:
(a) External business environment
(b) Internal business environment
(c) Both External and Internal environ Merit
(d) Neither External nor Internal environment
Answer:
(a) External Environment consist of the factors that are outside the company’s boundaries, thus the company has no control over them. Competitors are the part of the same. Before making any strategy, business must be aware of its competitors actions to the environment changes.

Question 112.
An activity which is related with continuous and regular production and distribution of goods and services for satisfying human wants is called:
(a) Production
(b) Distribution
(c) Service
(d) Business
Answer:
(d) Business is very wide term and is put to different usages. It can be referred as the activity consisting of purchase, sale, manufacturing, processing and marketing of goods and services. It exist for profits and satisfying human wants in many ways. Therefore society and business cannot function without each other.

Question 114.
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is stimulating:
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Localization
(d) Globalisation
Answer:
(d) Globalisation refers to integration of world into huge market by removing the trade barrier among countries. US, Canada and Mexico have signed the North America Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) to remove all the trade barrier among the countries. Thus, World Trade Organisation (WTO) has stimulated the cross borders trade.

Question 115.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Liberalization facilitates privatization
(b) Privatization and liberalization have no co-relation
(c) Privatization got momentum in India after 1947
(d) Privatization facilitate liberalization
Answer:
(b) Privatisation and Liberalisation are 2 different concept and they have no correlation among them.

Question 116.
Globalization is an example of which environmental factor?
(a) Economic
(b) Political
(c) Social
(d) Legal
Answer:
(a) Globalisation is an example of economic environmental factor.

Question 117.
Every identification of opportunities help an enterprise to be the first to exploit them instead of losing them to competitors. The mentioned advantage can be categorized under:
(a) Second mover advantage
(b) First mover advantage
(c) Initial identifier advantage
(d) Earlier advantage
Answer:
(b) First mover advantage means early identification of opportunities allows enterprise to exploit them instead of losing them to competitors.

Question 118.
Examples to an organization’s functional units include all of the following except:
(a) Research and development
(b) Competencies
(c) Marketing
(d) Production
Answer:
(b) Organisation’s functional units include :

  • Production
  • Marketing
  • Finance
  • HR
  • R & D

Competencies can not be included in organisations functional units.

Question 119.
Observing Business environmental changes on a continuous basis to ascertain the future value, is called:
(a) Monitoring
(b) Assessing
(c) Forecasting
Answer:
(c) Forecasting means ascertaining future value by continuous observing of environmental changes.

Question 120.
Which of the following shows a big picture of what a company wants to Achieve in future?
(a) Vision statement
(b) Mission statement
(c) Value statement
(d) Quality statement
Answer:
(a) The vision statement describes future position of company or we can say vision statement shows a big picture of what a company wants to achieve in future.

Question 121.
Value System of an organisation have an impact on its:
I. Objectives
II. Policies
III. Practices
IV. Profit
The correct option is:
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and III only
(c) II, III, and IV only
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer:
(b) Value System : A coherent set of the principles of right and wrong accepted by a person, organisation or society. The value system of the founders and those pf helm of affairs has important bearing on the choice of business, the Mission and Objectives of the organisation, business Policies and Practices. Value System is used as a guide to operate the organisation. It is not related to profit.

Question 122.
Which of the following are the key drivers of globalisation?
(a) Government action, exchange rates, competition and socio-demographic factors
(b) Market coverages, competition exchange rates and cost advantages
(c) Cost advantages, Government action, economic cycles and competition
(d) Market, cost, competition and Government policies.
Answer:
(d) Globalisation means the growing economic interdependence of the countries worldwide through increasing volume and variety of cross border transactions in goods and services and of international capital flows and also through the more rapid and wide spread diffusion of technology. Market cost, government policies and competition are the key drivers or integral part of globalisation.

Question 123.
In a business environment, which one of the following is not a political factor?
(a) Tax policy
(b) Employment laws
(c) Environment regulations
(d) Exchange rate
Answer:
(d) Exchange Rate does not come under political factor if we talk about in a business environment.
Entrepreneurs are classified as land owners who are financially independent aristocrat or aristocrat means governed by one person.

Question 124.
WTO is related with ________.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) World Trade Organisation (WTO) promotes Globalisation,
option (b) is correct.

Question 125.
Reducing Government Control is a feature of:
(a) Globalisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Features of liberalisation:

  • Abolishing industrial licensing requirement
  • Freedom in fixation of prices
  • Reduction in tax burden
  • Freedom in deciding business scale
  • High forex reserve
  • Relaxation / Reduction of government control

Question 126.
Which one of the following is not a feature of business environment?
(a) Dynamic building
(b) Image building
(c) Uncertainty
(d) Totaly of external forces
Answer:
(b) Business Environment has the following features.

  • Dynamic
  • Multi faceted
  • Sum of External Forces
  • Uncertainty
  • Both Specific and general forces
  • Relativity

Therefore, image building is not a feature of business environment.

Question 127.
Which one of the following describes the desired future position of a company?
(a) Mission Statement
(b) Vision Statement
(c) Competitive advantage
(d) Qualitative policy
Answer:
(b) Vision statement is where you want your business to reach at. It is your dream for your business. Thus we can say that Vision Statement describes the desired future position of a company.

Question 128.
The process-of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of a business enterprise is known as:
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Liberalisation refers to relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in areas of social and economic policies. It refers to the process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of a business enterprise.

Question 129.
Product differentiation is an example of:
(a) Brand Loyalty
(b) Value Statement
(c) Brand Equity
(d) Competitive Advantage
Answer:
(d) Product differentiation is an example of competitive advantage. It is a critical aspect of analysing the internal business environment. Competitor’s action affect the ability of the business to make profits and gain an advantage over each other, thus for seeking to provide better value of money.

Question 130.
Which of them is a object of a business that goes beyond earring profits:
(a) An important institution in society
(b) Creating job opportunities
(c) Offering better quality of life
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Beside earning profits, business survives for various other objects including –

  • Becoming an important institution of society
  • Supplying goods and services
  • Creating job’s for unemployed
  • Offering better Standard / quality of life
  • Contributing to the overall economic growth of the country

Thus all the above stated options are correct

Question 131.
Types of business Environment:
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Internal, External, General Specific
(d) (a) and (b) both
Answer:
(d) Business Environment has following two types –

  • Internal Environment the factors which are within the control of business entity.
  • External Environment factors that are out the company’s boundaries, thus the company have no control over them.

Thus the correct answer is option (d)

Question 132.
Match the following:
(a) Globalisation (i) To allow using once name and technique
(b) Franchising (ii) Global and cross border transactions
(c) Privatisation (iii) Abolishing industrial licensing
(d) Liberalisation (iv) Moving to private sectors from state ownership
Options:
(a) (a) III, (b) IV, (c) I, (d) II
(b) (a) II, (b) I, (c) IV, (d) III
(c) (a) IV, (b) I, (c) III, (d) II
(d) (a) I, (b) II, (c) III, (d) IV
Answer:
(b) Globalisation refers to integration of world into one huge market by removing trade barriers among countries. It comprises of global and cross border transactions. Franchising means giving authority to some one to use once name and technique.

Privatisation refers to transfer of assets or service function to private sector from state ownership. Liberalising refers to eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions. It includes abolishing Industrial Licensing requirement. Thus the correct answer is option (b).

Question 133.
Which statement tells about company’s objectives, it’s approach to reach their objectives.
(a) Mission
(b) Vision
(c) Both
(d) Statement of objectives
Answer:
(a) A mission statements defines the company’s business its objectives and its approach to reach those objective. It can be crafted in the following steps:

  • What does company do?
  • What do you do it for?
  • Where do you exist?
  • How does it do it?
  • Why does your company do it?

Question 134.
To develop high caliber professionals facilitating good corporate governance is:
(a) Mission
(b) Vision
(c) Objective
(d) Motto
Answer:
(a) The Institute of Company Secretary of India has the mission statement as -“To develop high caliber professionals facilitating good corporate governance”.

Question 135.
Liberalisation includes:
(a) Simplifying the procedures for imports and exports.
(b) To generate revenue for the state
(c) It may result in better management of the company
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Liberalization refers to the process of eliminating unnecessary control and restrictions on the smooth functioning of business enterprises.

It includes:

  • Freedom in deciding the scale of business activities
  • Simplified policies to attract foreign capital and technology to India
  • Simplifying the procedures for imports and exports.
  • Reduction in tax rates, etc.

Question 136.
The withdrawal of the state from an industry or sector, partially or fully.
(a) Liberalization
(b) Privatization
(c) Both
(d) Globalisation
Answer:
(b) ‘Privatization’ which has become a universal trend means transfer of ownership and/or management of an enterprise from the public sector to the private sector. There is a withdrawal of the state from an industry or sector, partially or fully.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes

Business Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Business Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Meaning of Business Correspondence:
Communication through exchange of letters is known as correspondence. We communicate our feelings, thoughts etc. to our friends and relatives through letters that may be called personal correspondence. A Businessman also writes and receives letters in his day-to-day transactions, which is called business correspondence.

Business correspondence or business letter is a written communication between two parties. Businessmen may write letters to suppliers of goods and also receive letters from the suppliers. Customers may write letters to businessmen, seeking information about availability of goods, price, quality, sample etc. or place order for purchase of goods.

Importance of Business Correspondence:

  • Help in maintaining proper relationship
  • Inexpensive and convenient mode
  • Create and maintain goodwill
  • Serves as evidence
  • Help in expansion of business.

Essential Qualities of a Good Business Letter:
(a) Inner Qualities: The inner qualities of a good business letter refer to the quality of language, its presentation, etc. These facilitate quick processing of the request and that leads to prompt action. Let us discuss the various inner qualities of a good business letter.

  • Simplicity
  • Clarity
  • Accuracy
  • Completeness
  • Relevance
  • Courtesy
  • Neatness

(b) Outer Qualities: The outer qualities of a good business letter refers to the appearance of the letter. It includes the quality of paper used, colour of the paper, size of the paper etc. Good quality paper gives a favourable impression in the mind of the reader. It also helps in documenting the letters properly. Let us discuss the various outer qualities of a good business letter.

  • Quality of paper
  • Colour of the paper
  • Size of the paper
  • Folding of letter
  • Envelope

Parts of a Business Letter:
The essential parts of a business letter are as follows:
1. Heading: The heading of a business letter usually contains the name and postal address of the business, E-mail address, website address, Telephone Number, Fax Number, Trade Mark or logo of the business (if any)

2. Date: The date is normally written on the right-hand side corner after the heading as the day, month and years. Some examples are 28th Feb 2003 or Feb. 28, 2003.

3. Reference: It indicates letter number and the department from where the letter is being sent and the year. It helps in future reference.

4. Inside address: This includes the name and full address of the person or the firm to whom the letter is to be sent. This is written on the left-hand side of the sheet below the reference number.

5. Subject: It is a statement in brief, that indicates the matter to which the letter relates. It attracts the attention of the receiver immediately and helps him to know quickly what the letter is about.

6. Salutation: This is placed below the inside address. It is usually followed by a comma (,). Various forms of salutation are:
Sir/Madam: For official and formal correspondence Dear Sir/Madam: For addressing an individual Dear Sir/Dear Madam For addressing a firm or company.

7. Body of the letter: This comes after salutation. This is the main part of the letter and it contains the actual message of the sender. It is divided into three parts.
(a) Opening part: It is the introductory part of the letter. In this part, attention of the reader should be drawn to the previous correspondence, if any. For example with reference to your letter no.326 dated. 12th March, 2003,1 would like to draw your attention towards the new brand of television.

(b) Main part: This part usually contains the subject matter of the letter. It should be precise and written in clear words.

(c) Concluding Part: It contains a statement of the sender’s intentions, hopes or expectations concerning the next step to be taken. Further, the sender should always look forward to getting a positive response. At the end, terms like Thanking you, With regards, With warm regards may be used.

8. Complimentary close: It is merely a polite way of ending a letter. It must be in accordance with the salutation.

9. Signature: It is written in ink, immediately below the complimentary close. As far as possible, the signature should be legible. The name of the writer should be typed immediately below the signature.

10. Enclosures: This is required when some documents like cheque, draft, bills receipts, lists, invoices etc. are attached with the letter.

11. Copy circulation: This is required when copies of the letter are also sent to persons apart of the addressee. It is denoted as C. C. For example.

C.C.

  • The Chairman, Electric Supply Corporation
  • The Director, Electric Supply Corporation
  • The Secretary, Electric Supply Corporation

12. Postscript: This is required when the writer wants to add something, which is not included in the body of the letter.

Types of Business Letters:

Formal Letters Informal Letters
1. Sales – purchase letters 1. Memorandums
2. Order letters, 2. Appraisals
3. Enquiry letters 3. Interview
4. Claim letters 4. Thanksyou letters
5. Dispute settlement letters 5. Reference letters
6. Agreement letters 6. Cover letters
7. Sales Report etc. 7. E-mails etc.

Human Resource Correspondence:
Personnel department deals with all matters relating to staffing night, from recruitment to retrenchment. In earlier times, the administration sections charges these functions. Later on, it acquired the name of personnel department. With the passage of time, more and more CEOs realised the is men and not necessarily the machines that change the fortunes undertakings.

Effective HR Letters:
HR letters are also called EmploymentJEmployer/Personnel Letters.
HR Letters includes the following:

  • Acknowledging a receipt of resume
  • Making job offer
  • Rejecting a candidate
  • Welcoming a new employee
  • Notifying an employee of a promotion
  • Recognizing an employee for superior performance
  • Disciplining an employee etc.

These letters must be coherent, informative and legally sound.
Letter must satisfy the goal of avoiding, reducing or reasoning liability (in accordance with the situation i.e. rejection letters).

Job Application:

  • Job Application is always drafted in response to advertisement.
  • Job Application is like sales circular because in job application we are offering our skills for a price.
  • A person may write a comprehensive application which would contain all details about one’s education and experience.
  • Job application is similar to sales circular.
  • To receive curriculum vitae (CV) by fax or email.

How to write an Effective Application Letter:
1. Get off to a direct start: In your first paragraph explain why you are writing, job title, name of company etc.

2. Offer something different than what’s in your resume: Your application must differ from your resume, you can be a bit personal (but not much).

3. Make a good case: Write it in the sense which move you at the next level; an interview. Then finally toward ultimate goal: get a job offer. So include all necessary details and remove all unnecessary.

4. Closure with important details: Include contact information and end up with a polite thank you.

Resume:

  • Resume is pronounced as rez-Qom-ay
  • It is a record of ones professional as well as personal detail.
  • It may be enclosed with job application.
  • A good resume should not be very long.
  • One should not let it go beyond three pages.
  • Terms like Bio-data, curriculum vitae or datasheet are also used describe documents.
  • Personal details, like age, sex, race or nationality.
  • Minor details should be omitted to make room for achievements & skills.

Notes:
1. Resume should contain following characteristics:
→ Career goal and specific job objective should be mentioned.
→ Revealing adequate knowledge about the company being approached. –
→Explaining how your qualification and experience suits the position offered by the company.
→ Giving evidence of writing skills to company.

2. Points common to all CV’s/Resumes:

  • Personal particulars
  • Academic Qualification
  • Additional Qualification
  • Experience
    Functional: emphasizing the skill and talent of the applicant
    Chronological: emphasizing on work experience or listing job description
  • Additional Information may include languages known and anything such as hobbies, any achievements etc.
  • References.

Specimen of Job Application:
The Manager (HR)

18th April 2012

Development Bank
Madras Cross Road
Chennai – 256700
Dear Sir/ Madam,
IT Consultant
Your Advertisement ………………………………………………. Salutation …………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………. Introduction ………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………… Body …………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………..Conclusion …………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………
Yours Faithfully
XYZ
Ends Resume

Element of Curriculum Vitae or Sample Resume:

  • Personal Data: Name, address, Telephone or contact number, DoB, Sex, Marital Status
  • Objective: desired position
  • Education: Include College/Universities, month & year of your graduation, list of your degree (without the use of abbreviations).
  • Work experience: List your job titles, name of organisations you worked for and dates of your employment
  • Honors/Activities/Achievements/Publications: If any
  • Other Sections: Summary of qualification, Interests,
    Languages (computer or any specific)
    Professional Membership
    Volunteering
  • Reference

Specimen of CV

Curriculum Vitae

Name: XYZ
Birth: DD/MM/YYYY
Nationality: Indian/NRI
Permanent address: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Telephone: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
E-mail: …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Workplace: …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Education: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Language: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Interest: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Reference: 1. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
: 2. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Interview:
→Some companies conduct initial interviews telephonically and shortlist candidates for final interviews.
→ Interview letter should contain information about the position applied for, date, time and venue of the Interview.
→ Interview letter should give sufficient notice to the candidate to enable them to confirm their attendance in the interview with their original certificates.

Specimen of Interview letter

Letter Head of the Organisation

Date ………………………………

To
Name
(address)
Dear (Name),
Please refer to your application for the post manager in our company (salutation)
……………………………………………………………………………………. Body ………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
We regret to inform that we do not reimburse the travelling expenses of the local candidates.
Please confirm telephonically that this appointment suits you.
Yours Sincerely
Sd /-
Manager – Human
Resources

Short-listing Candidates:

  • Companies may short-list candidates for absorption in near future if the company is unable to find suitable positions for candidates at the time of interview.
  • Details are stored in the databank & a polite letter is addressed to them.
  • A letter by company is written for informing candidates about his shortlisting for an offer of an appointment.

Letter of Appointment:

  • Initial intimation to the candidate is given through a brief provisional letter.
  • But the final document must be drafted carefully as the terms of employment are stated in the letter.

Provisional Letter of Appointment:
Dear (Name),
Please refer to your application and the subsequent interview for the post of Systems Manager in HCL Ltd.
We are pleased to inform that you have been selected for the position. A detailed letter to be mailed you soon.
Your Sincerely,
Manager – (HR)

Terms of Appointment:
Detailed offers of appointment normally mention terms of appointment and seek the acceptance of the selected candidate.
It is advisable to insert clauses which anticipate organisational changes & protect company’s interests.

Specimen

(Letterhead)

Ref No.:
Date:
To,
Mr. XYZ (address)
SUB: Appointment Letter
Dear ……………………………………. ,
Please refer to our earlier letter dated DD/MM/YYY.
As stated earlier, we will be pleased to hire your services as a (Post) if you accept the following terms and conditions.
1. Place of Operation: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Remuneration: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Duties: …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. Probation: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Confirmation: ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. Terms of Leave: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
7. Retirement: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Please sign a copy of this letter and fax it to 036-07834531 in acceptance of the terms and conditions and report to the Human Resource Manager on DD/MM/YYYY at HRS: MIN AM/PM We welcome you to HCL (India) and wish you a successful career. Your Sincerely,
Manager – Human Resources

Confirmation of an employee:

  • After the completion of probation period, the employee is to be explicitly informed about his confirmation in the organisation.
  • A letter is posted by company to the candidate

Specimen of letter calling candidate for written test

(Letter Head)

Date:
Ref No:
(Name)
(Address)
Dear Sir,
Subject
With reference …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………Introduction ………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………… Rules for examination ……………………………………
Thanking you
Sd/-
(R.F.)
Personnel Manager

Specimen of Regret Letters

(Letter Head)

(Name)
(Address)
Date: DD/MM/YYYY
Dear Sir,
Sub: Recruitment for post of Finance Manager We refer to your application dated 1st March 2012
…………………………………………………………………………………. (Body) ……………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………. (Conclusion) ………………………………………………………………………….

Yours Faithfully
Sd/-
(XYZ)
Personnel Manager

Goodwill Letters:
Goodwill letters are not mandatory but they are required to be written in order to enhance the relation and increase the goodwill of the organisation.

  • These letters are not compulsory to be written
  • Goodwill letter should be brief
  • Goodwill letter must be sent promptly in order to be relevant and effective
  • They are likely to be handwritten

Types of Goodwill Letter:
Every business letter should be a goodwill letter

  • Thank you Letter
  • Congratulatory Letter
  • Letter of Sympathy
  • Condolence Letter
  • Obituary Notice

Thank you letters: There are several instances in our personal as well as professional lives when people do favours for us. Sometimes we take them for granted and do not thank them for their favours. To earn precious goodwill a thank you letter must be drafted.

Congratulatory letters: Friends, Colleagues and business associates may earn a promotion, recognition or an award for achievement in both the personal and professional area. A letter of facilitation should be sent to earn a goodwill in the process.

Letter of Sympathy: It is important to share the pains of our friends and associate. A letter of sympathy is drafted to share the feelings of our colleagues, friends and associates. There is a word of caution such letter are only sent when someone suffers a major loss or illness.

Condolence letter: These letters are the most difficult to draft since we are writing to people who have lost someone very dear to them. Strong sense of grief is to be shared in order to provide some relief. So a condolence letter is written to people who have lost someone very dear.

Obituary Notice: These notices provide news about the people who have recently passed away.

Obituary
XYZ Ltd. announces with deep grief the passing away of its Managing director Mr Ram in a car accident near Mathura high way on Monday. His mortal will be consigned to flames at (Name of place), Delhi on Wednesday 16th Jan 20xx at 10:30 AM

Note:

  • Letters carrying positive news are called Direct Approach Letters.
  • Letters conveying unwelcoming news (i.e. rejection or decline etc.) are called Indirect Approach Letters.’
  • All kinds of letters whether long or short need careful planning

Purchase Correspondence:

  • Most people believe that selling is the most challenging, important as well as toughest job.
  • Purchasing is same as selling it is also a tough job to do.
  • Selling and Purchasing are inter-dependant.

Enquiries:

  • First as well as foremost step of commercial transaction is enquiries.
  • Enquiry is the most common business communication
  • Enquiry letter should be drafted clearly and the message to be conveyed should be complete.
  • An enquiry should be compact, straight forward and courteous.
  • An enquiry should be incorrect tone.

Essentials of Drafting an Enquiry:

  • Clear Reporting: The kind and quantity of goods required should be mentioned clearly.
  • Samples, specifications should be sent along with letter.
  • Handling: Proper checking and handling of items should be there.
  • Mode of Payment: Mode of payment should be clearly specified whether in cash, cheque etc.

Replies:

  • Reply of each and every enquiry should be sent.
  • Enquiries from big business deserve more attention hence a good reply should be sent to big business houses.
  • Requests for only a catalogue or a price list may not need a covering letter.

Industrial Enquiries:

  • These enquiries may use technical jargon.
  • Receiver of the letter should be able to understand the enquiry referred.

Replies to Industrial Enquiry:

  • Reply must be polite and expeditious.
  • Reply of an enquiry should begin with an expression of gratitude and state at the outset that requested documents are being sent.
  • Reply must not begin with refusal.
  • Reasons for turning down business offer should be explained.

Estimates:

  • Estimates are sought and provided where services rather than off-the-shelf goods are involved.
  • If a customer ask for an estimate for the complete job an estimate should be provided to the customer with necessary details.

Tender Notice:
It is an invitation to submit “bids” to provide such goods/services on a large scale at a quoted price with respect to certain conditions.

Essentials for Preparation of Tender Notices:
→ It should be prepared in serial, tabular or paragraph form.
→ These tenders are open for all, often for purpose of pre-qualification or limited ones. The registered and eligible parties gets shortlisted on the basis of pre-qualification tenders.
→ Some job which involves huge amount of foreign loans/assistance may be offered through global tenders
→Tender notice also includes estimated value of work to be done and goods delivery details.

Tender Process:

  • It should be submitted on the stated date as well as at time mentioned in sealed covers.
  • Specified enclosure must also accompany them e.g. EMD Earnest Money deposit, normally 2% of estimated value.
  • Party getting the contract has to replace it with performance guarantee of up to 10% of the estimated value.
  • Usually the principle of “lowest bid gets the contract”.

Specimen Pre – Qualification Notice

(Letter Head)

Notice No:
Invitation for Pre-Qualification
1. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
7. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

AO.
DDA (Dwarka)

Date: DD/MM/YYYY
Limited Tender
Name of the Organisation
Notice Inviting Tender/Tender
Notice ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………….. Body of the Tender …………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………..
Date:

Sd/-
Post

Placing Order:
These order forms are usually pre-numbered which helps buyer in placing an order.
Terms and conditions are printed overleaf. Attention must be paki to this tact.

Letter Order:
Essentials to place order through Letters:

  • An authorization to the seller
  • An accurate description of goods
  • Catalogue number ¡f ordering out of it
  • Quantity or number required
  • Price per unit and total amount involved in the transaction
  • Delivery details such as time and place
  • Payment terms agreed I.e. whether on delivery or after availing credit.
  • Polite closing, inviting a confirmation of acceptance

Specimen of Order Letter:

(Letter Head)

Order No.

  Date. ………………………

Address:
Dear Sir,
SUBJECT
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………….. Body of the Letter …………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Terms and Conditions:
1. Price
2. Discount
3. Excise Duty
4. Sales Tax
5. Despatch
……………………………………………………………………………… Conclusion …………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Yours faithfully,
Sd/-
(Post)

Making Complaints:

  • Essential points to be kept in mind while making complaints.
  • Delay should not be there while making complaints because as the time passes the matter gets complicated.
  • Both sides should be heard so as to find the person who is guilty.
  • The complaint made by consumers should be based on factual information.

Business Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 1

Sales Correspondence:
AIDAS plan is an effective sales correspondence which lists down the following essentials:
A → Attention
I → Interest
D → Desire
A → Action
S → Satisfaction
These are usually combined or blended so smoothly in a well-written persuasive message that it is difficult and unnecessary – to separate them.

Strategic Marketing:
It is a very good strategy to first define our buying motive and the segment we are trying to motivate and then, write according to the conclusions arrived.

Sales letter:
→ A sales letter is always written to an individual with his specific needs in mind.
→ Specimen of a sales letter

Dear (Name)

  • Salutation
  • Different Packages
  • Comparison of different packages
  • Conclusion ;

Yours sincerely,

Sales Circular:

  • A difference between a sales letter & a sales circular is subtle.
  • A sales circular is drafted keeping large number of people in mind.
  • Large number of audience in this circular is addressed with single salutation for e.g:- Subscribers, Investor, client etc.
  • By the help of Mail Merge facility every circular can be addressed by the names as well as addresses.
  • A specimen of a sales circular is same as sales letter but a sales circular contains subtitle.

Sales circular can be formed for various purposes such as:

  • Circular informing seasonal discount
  • A circular letter to dealer announcing off-season discount scheme.
  • A circular to stockists announcing special incentive scheme.
  • Circular informing increase in price.
  • Circular informing appointment of sole-selling agent.
  • Circular informing price scheme.
  • Circular informing special concession.
  • Circular informing change of address.
  • Circular announcing opening of New Regional Office.

Advertisement:

  • Advertisement is the biggest example of paid communication.
  • The purpose of advertisement is to impart information about the activities performed by the society.
  • The other purpose of advertisement is to develop attitude and also to induce action beneficial to the advertiser.

Advertisement is used for following purposes:

  • Building of strong public Image.
  • Opening a new factory or sales office.
  • Explanation by management on a strike by workmen.
  • Informing the consumers and the public about malpractices prevailing in the market pertaining to company’s products, infringement of trade markets etc.
  • Publication of various notices.
  • Recruitment of personnel.
  • Launch of an IPO (Initial public offering).
  • Invitation of tenders.
  • Appointment of distributors.
  • Increase in prices.
  • Hike in prices.

Advertisement Vs. Publicity:

  • Sometimes the term “Publicity” is used synonymously with ‘Advertisement’.
  • Publicity is a broader term than Advertisement.
  • Advertisement is a form or a type of publicity.

Essentials of Advertisement:

  • Exposure: Audience must be exposed to the communication
  • Perceiverance: Audience must perceive correctly what action is desired by the communicator.
  • Retention: Audience must retain the message sought to be communicated.
  • Action: Audience must act on the advertisement.

Essential Components of Various Advertisements:
In the table given below, an attempt has been made to highlight the emphasize area’ of advertisement for different purposes:
Business Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 2
Business Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 3

Advertisement Today:
1. Handbills
2. Leaflets
3. Pamphlets
4. Brochures

Modern methods includes:
1. Newspapers.
2. Television

3. Internet

  • 3/4,h of the Newspaper is devoted to Advertisements.
  • It is essential that advertisement should serve it purpose.
  • Advertisements should be prepared, printed or aired through the right media at the right time.

Classifieds:

  • Classifieds are printed in a newspaper under heading such as matrimonial.’
  • Classifieds are charged according to the no. of words present in the advertisement.
  • Drafting of classified is similar to telegraphic message.
  • The rest of grammar are relaxed in order to keep the matter brief.
  • Specimen of a classified

Situation vacant/wanted/for sale /Business Offers

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Contact (Address/Box No) Ph …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Fax ………………………………………

Public Notices:
Sometimes it becomes essential to issue public notice because it is statutorily required or public has to be informed about the companies activities.

(Letter Head)
Public Notice

Notice is
hereby …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
sd/-
Company Secretary

Date: DD/MM/YYYY

Appointments:

  • Senior-level positions are generally advertised in appointment pages or inbox. So are prized products & services.
  • The space is measured in columns/cms.
  • The charges vary according to circulation and goodwill of newspaper.
  • Advertising agencies vie. for corporate advertising accounts, which may run in crores of rupees.

(Letter Head)

“Required ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Apply immediately to Box No.2345, HT, New De-101112

Accounts Correspondence:

  • A commercial transaction is a complex process which start from the stage of ordering of goods to the delivery of finished goods to the customer.
  • Most of the companies follow SCM (Supply Chain Management) which helps the company in making the transaction, cost-effective and efficient.

Invoice:

  • It is the document which gives full information of the goods being shipped.
  • Invoice is prepared by the exporter and sent to the importer.

Invoice serves the following purposes:
→ Invoice provides an accurate description of goods being sent and of prices to enable the buyer to verify them.
→ Invoice states the total amount payable by the buyer.
→ Regular customer is entered into the books of account who pays at the end of the credit period.
→ It transfers ownership of goods and helps in calculation of duties and taxes payable on them.
→ Invoice is a valid legal document. It can be used when dispute arises regarding payment.

Proforma Invoice:

  • Proforma invoice is different from invoice for the sake of form only.
  • Proforma is neither entered into books nor charged to the accounts of recipients.

Proforma invoice is used for following purposes :

  • It is used as a quotation
  • It is used as demand for payment from a new customer or to the person with whom the company does not have any credit facility.
  • It gives detail of goods and amount of goods sent for approval.
  • It helps or enable the company for calculation of duties and taxes payable.

Delivery Challan:

  • It give details of the goods sent
  • It is issued by stores department
  • It includes sale value of goods and do not require covering letter.

Statement of Accounts:

  • Regular buyer most of the times prefer acceptance of material on credit
  • Regular buyer sometimes prefer to accept goods “on Approval”.
  • Statement of Account shows the opening balance, details of transaction and closing balance.
  • Whole accounting system is based on double-entry bookkeeping system. It was originated by Luca Pacioli, an Italian genius monk in his book names Summa de Arithmetic in the year 1494.
  • Statement of accounts do not need covering letter.

Format of Statement of Account:
Business Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 4
Credit / Debit Note:

  • Credit Note: A document sent by a seller to a buyer to rectify an error of overcharge in an invoice, or to allow credit for goods returned. It is entered in the books of account.
  • DebIt Note: A note sent by a seller to buyer to rectify an undercharge in the original invoice. It s in the nature of a supplementary invoice.
  • In the Credit / Debit Note the abbreviation E & 0E means error and omission excepted.
  • Credit and Debit Note is exchanged between the parties to adjust the amount of differences.
  • Credit / Debit Note is enclosed with the letter along with it.

The different types of letter endorsed aro:-

  • Letter regarding details of error.
  • Letter regarding returning of goods.
  • Letter for refusing to issue credit note.

Specimen letter:
Dear Sir,
We regret to inform ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………. Body of the letter ………………………………………………………………………………
We are enclosing a Debit Note of ₹ XXXX /- to cover the amount of difference. We regret the inconvenience caused to you Your faithfully,
R. K Singh

Collection Letters:

  • Collection of amount is the most important job for the organisation.
  • Good organisation understands the importance of making payment on time without any delay. It leads to creation of goodwill.
  • It will be foolishness to write the first collection letter in an angry tone. If the party does not pay on time then, firmer tone should be adopted in subsequent letters.
  • Collecting payment is most difficult part of business.
  • Collection letter must be written cautiously.

Reminder Letter
Specimen :
Dear Sir,
Please refer to our statement for the period ending December, 20xx, which was mailed to you on xx January 20xx, and a telephonic reminder later. We regret to inform that we have still not received the payment.
We shall be grateful if you remit the outstanding amount on the receipt of this letter.
Yours faithfully,
R. K Singh

Defaulter:
To challenge the defaulter one must follow some steps

  • Suspension of supplies
  • Cancellation of credit
  • A stricter tone and style may be justifiably used against them

Final reminder:
A letter in stricter tone and style is written for final reminder.

Explaining Delays:
In order to seek an extension of time from the supplier, customer writes a letter to explain the reasons for delay.

Banking Correspondence:
Business without banking is impossible/unimaginable.
Company starts its operations by opening a current A/c
Facilities provided by bank to the companies include

  • Overdraft limit
  • Term loan
  • Credit References
  • Depository services etc.

Company operates the account through one or more authorised signatories who may be changed by board of directors.

Change of Signatories:
A letter is written to change the no. of signatories or change the person holding the authorised signatory.

Insurance Correspondence:

  • Insurance is a contract between the company, called the insurer and the client known as insured.
  • Calculation of insurance is made on annual basis. Flexible payments plans are offered for the sake of convenience.
  • Premium is calculated in percentage terms, e.g. 2 paise per hundred rupees for fire Insurance.

Various letters are drafted by policyholder and by insurance company such as:-

  • A letter for policy renewal
  • A letter for roll and void policies
  • A letter for reporting loss

Specimen Letter by Insurance Company

[Letter Head]

(Name)
(Address)
Dear (Name)
Policy No.
Introduction ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………….. Body …………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………… Conclusion …………………………………………………………………………………………..
Yours faithfully
xxxx sd/-
(Past)

Provident Fund Correspondence:

  • All business entities employing more than twenty persons are covered under the Employee Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
  • The employee contributes a total of 12% of Basic Salary + Dearness Allowances to the funds established under the schemes prescribed by the Central Government.
  • A company failing to deposit the money may receive a show-cause notice from the provident fund commissioner’s office.
  • A grace period of 5 days is allowed.

[Reply to Show Cause Notice]

To
The Regional PF Commission.
Employee’s Provident Fund,
60, Skylark Building,
Nehru Place,
New Delhi.
Dear Sir,
Return for Nov 2012 / Code No. DL/3523
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Introduction
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Specimen letter for change of signatories :
Dear Sir,
The Board of Directors of our company decided at a meeting held on 6 February 2012 that our current account no. 6619 with you will be operated jointly by the Managing Director and Chief Account Officer with immediate effect.

A certified copy of the resolution of the Board and the specimen signatures of the authorised signatories are enclosed.
Please acknowledge the receipt of this instruction.
Yours faithfully,
R. K Singh

Stop Payment:

  • During the business hours a company mails large number of cheques and other instruments.
  • If the payee reports that he has not received the cheque yet, It is advisable to convey to bank promptly for the stop payments of cheque.

Overdraft:
Sometimes, companies faces the problem of insufficient cash. To cope up with this problem companies opt for overdraft facility.

Specimen :
Dear Sir,

Current Account No. 2332

We regret ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………. Introduction …………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….. Body ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
Please arrange immediate credit to clear the overdraft. If you find working capital is inadequate, we advice you to negotiate a higher OD limit.
Yours faithfully,
R. K Singh

Term loan:
Fixed term loan are usually secured against any fixed asset. Sometimes fixed-term loan take time to sanction, so a letter is dispatched in the event of delay.

Specimen :
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. Body ………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………. Conclusion ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Yours faithfully,
R. K Singh

Correspondence With Postal Activities:
Nowadays, correspondence with postal department has reduced due to the increased use of email and private courier services.
Facilities like Post Box number are continued to be used by large corporate houses.

Post Box Facility
The Post Master
Parliament Street Post Office
New Delhi -110001
DD/MM/YYYY
Dear Sir,
Sub: Request For Post Box Facility
……………………………………………………………………………… Introduction ………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………. Body ……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………….. Conclusion ……………………………………………………………………………….
Please allow a Post Box number and oblige.
We thank you in anticipation
R. K Singh

Correspondence With it and Corporates:
Nowadays companies use various communication system to communicate such as fax, PBX, Answering Machines etc.
he old telephone one still remain indispensable and still used by large corporate houses.

An application for reconnection of phone
To
The SDO
Andheri (East Zone)
MTNL Mumbai Dear Sir,

Sub: Reconnection of Phone No. xxxxx

……………………………………………………………………… Body ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
You are requested to reconnect phone immediately as we are facing lots of inconveniences.
We thank you in anticipation
Yours faithfully,
R. K Singh

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. A job application is similar to
(a) Sales letter
(b) Purchase letter
(c) Letter of order
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sales letter.

2. A sales letter drafted for a large number of people is known as
(a) Sales Order
(b) Sales circular
(c) Sales manual
(d) Sales Enquiry
Answer:
(b) Sales circular

3. Which of the following is applicable in case of Telegram.
(a) The message must be detailed
(b) Normal grammar and punctuation must always be followed.
(c) Time should be written according to twenty-four-hour clock
(d) Block letter must not be used
Answer:
(c) Time should be written according to twenty-four-hour clock.

4. Office orders have a format similar to that of:
(a) Press Release
(b) Representation
(c) Advertisement
(d) Memorandum
Answer:
(d) Memorandum.

5. Which of the following is not a form of intra-organisational communication.
(a) Representation
(b) Memorandum
(c) Press release
(d) Office Notes
Answer:
(c) Press release.

6. Difference between a sales letter and sales circular is
(a) Subtitle
(b) Salutation
(c) Introduction
(d) Conclusion
Answer:
(a) Subtitle.

7. Which of the following features specifically does not relate to advertisement
(a) Inviting tender
(b) Hike in prices
(c) Placing an order
(d) Recruitment of personnel
Answer:
(c) Placing an order.

8. Which of the following is not the heading of a classified?
(a) Business offer
(b) Situation vacant
(c) Situation wanted
(d) Situation sale
Answer:
(d) Situation sale.

9. What does OEM stands for?
(a) Outstated Equipment Manufactures
(b) Original Equipment Manufactures
(c) Ordinary Equipment Manufactures
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Original Equipment Manufactures.

10. Which type of letter is not goodwill letter.
(a) Thank you letter
(b) Condolence letter
(c) Letter of complaint
(d) Letter of sympathy
Answer:
(c) Letter of complaint

11. Which of these terms and conditions are not present in the letter appointment?
(a) Place of operation
(b) Remuneration
(c) Probation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

12. Obituary notice is written to provide a news of:
(a) Some body’s death
(b) Somebody’s promotion
(c) Somebody’s termination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Somebody’s death

13. The first step of a commercial transaction is ……………………… .
(a) Making an order
(b) Making an enquiry
(c) Giving quotations
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Making an enquiry

14. In case of tender notices, EMD stands for:
(a) Electronic monetary deposit
(b) Earnest money department
(c) Earnest money division
(d) Earnest money deposit
Answer:
(d) Earnest money deposit.

15. Normally, in tender notices EMD is …………………… of estimated value.
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Answer:
(a) 2%

16. In case of tenders, contracts s given based on the principle of:
(a) Lowest bid get the contract
(b) will get the contract
(c) Best bid wifl et the contract
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Lowest bid get the contract

17. In case of order letters which of these is not placed under the head of terms and conditions:
(a) Price
(b) Discount
(c) Credit terms
(d) Despatch
Answer:
(c) Credit terms.

18. What does “D” stands for in ADIDAS plan?
(a) Despatch
(b) Discount
(c) Delivery
(d) Desire
Answer:
(d) Desire

19. …………………………………. is the biggest example of paid communication.
(a) Advertisement
(b) Publicity
(c) Letters
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Advertisement

20. Which of these is an essential feature required for advertisement?
(a) Exposure
(b) Perseverance
(c) Retention
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

21. Which of these is not a traditional method of approaching customers?
(a) Handbills
(b) Leaflets
(c) Brochures
(d) Personal mails
Answer:
(d) Personal mails.

22. …………………………………… deals with all matters relating to staffing right from recruitment to retrenchment.
(a) Personnel department
(b) Marketing department
(c) Directing department
(d) Controlling department
Answer:
(a) Personnel department.

23. ………………………….. is a record of one’s personal and professional detail.
(a) Curriculum Vitae
(b) Bio-data
(c) Data Sheet
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

24. …………………………………………… is based on emphasizing the skills and talents of the applicant
(a) Functional Experience
(b) Chronological Experience
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Functional Experience

25. …………………………………… should contain information about the position applied for date, time and venue.
(a) Thank you letter
(b) Interview letter
(c) Congratulatory letter
(d) Condolence letter.
Answer:
(b) Interview letter

26. ………………………………………. is a combination of both
(a) Data Sheet
(b) Circulum vitae
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Circulum vitae

27. Initial intimation of appointment may be given through a brief ………………….. .
(a) Sympathy letter
(b) Congratulatory letter
(c) Provisional letter
(d) Thank you letter.
Answer:
(c) Provisional letter

28. Good News Letter are also called as ……………………… .
(a) Indirect approach letter
(b) Direct approach letter
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Direct approach letter

29. The first step of a commercial transaction is to make
(a) Replies
(b) Estimates
(c) Enquiries
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Enquiries

30. ………………………. may use technical jargon
(a) Replies
(b) Enquiry
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Industrial Enquiry.
Answer:
(d) Industrial Enquiry.

31. What does CIF stands for –
(a) Cost Insurance & Free
(b) Call Insurance & Freight
(c) Cost Insurance & Freight
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Cost Insurance & Freight

32. ………………………………………. bid gets the contract
(a) Lowest
(b) Highest
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Lowest

33. …………………….. is used to identify contractors who would be allowed to tender for certain contracts.
(a) Tender
(b) Estimate
(c) Pre-qualification
(d) Reply.
Answer:
(c) Pre-qualification

34. ……………………. letter saves time and effort.
(a) Ready-to-send
(b) Thank you
(c) Sympathy
(d) Condolence.
Answer:
(a) Ready-to-send.

35. Select which from the following is not a type of advertisement.
(a) Hike in price
(b) Inviting tenders
(c) Stunts performed by actors
(d) Recruitment of personnel
Answer:
(c) Stunts performed by actors

36. What does not affect sales demand?
(a) Attention
(b) Attraction
(c) Interest
(d) Desire.
Answer:
(b) Attraction

37. One word for a sentence “fail to fulfil a promise”.
(a) Burdensome
(b) Revenge
(c) Penury
(d) Tedious.
Answer:
(b) Revenge

38. In case of letter of enquiry …………………………… may also be given, especially in case the intention is to have credit and when it is the first transaction,
(a) Name of the company
(b) Credit reference
(c) Phone No
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Credit reference

39. What is the full form of CNC?
(a) Computerized and Numerically Counted
(b) Computerized and Numerically Claimed
(c) Computerized and Numerically Controlled
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Computerized and Numerically Controlled

40. The party getting the contract has to replace it with performance guarantees of up to …………………. of the estimated value and experience certificate.
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 10.
Answer:
(d) 10.

41. ……………………………… only mentions the quantity and type of goods.
(a) Invoice
(b) Performa Invoice
(c) Delivery Challan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Delivery Challan

42. A note sent by a seller to buyer to rectify an undercharge in the original invoice
(a) Credit note
(b) Debit Note
(c) Warrant
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Debit Note.

43. Which of the following is not a banking service:
(a) Policy Renewal
(b) Overdraft limit
(c) Term loan
(d) Status Enquiries
Answer:
(a) Policy Renewal.

44. ……………………………….. connect the different Branches of an organisation in a Private, dedicated communication network.
(a) ISDN
(b) Post box of facility
(c) VSAT
(d) AAR
Answer:
(c) VSAT

45. The following is an example of which type of letter.
Dear Sir.
Please refer to our statement of a/c for the period ending Dec 2011, which was Mailed to you on 5 Jan , 2012 and the telephonic reminder letter. We regret to enforce that we have still not received that Payment.
We will agree that delayed payments may affect schedule and cause avoidable inconvenience to both the parties.
We shall be grateful if you remit the outstanding amount on the receipt of this letter.
(a) Collection Letter
(b) Reminder Letter
(c) Statement of Account
(d) Final Reminder
Answer:
(b) Reminder Letter

46. A commercial transaction is a ……………………………….. process.
(a) Simple
(b) Chain
(c) Complex
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Complex

47. The Policy may be declared …………………………….. if the Insurer detects under insurance.
(a) Policy renewal
(b) Null and void Policies
(c) Overdraft limit
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Null and void Policies

48. Which of the following is a type of insurance correspondence letter?
(a) Reporting loss
(b) Overdraft limit
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) C Form
Answer:
(a) Reporting loss.

49. The first collection letter should be written in ………………….. manner
(a) Firm
(b) Polite
(c) Strict
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Polite.

50. The ………………………. is calculated in percentage term say 2 paise per hundred rupees for fire insurance.
(a) Restricted loss
(b) Sum Assured
(c) Maturity value
(d) Premium
Answer:
(d) Premium.

51. A company may not charge the full price of shares but recover in instalments that are known as “…………………………..”.
(a) First call
(b) Second call
(c) Final call
(d) Call
Answer:
(d) Call

52. “Enterprise are paid to create wealth not to control cost” is said by
(a) John Keats
(b) Peter F Drucker
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) AL Bowley
Answer:
(b) Peter F Drucker.

53. It is advisable to send a copy of ……………………… showing arrears of payment to the companies before sending the collection letter.
(a) Statement of Account
(b) Statement of Affair
(c) Statement showing Balance Sheet
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Statement of Account.

54. Which feature of banking services should be used when the payee reports that he has not received the instrument.
(a) Change of signatories
(b) Overdraft limit
(c) Status Enquiries
(d) Stop payment
Answer:
(d) Stop payment.

55. The term …………………. is used for the introduction of new technologies like CAM in manufacturing of existing products.
(a) Overdraft
(b) Loan
(c) Money order
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Loan.

56. Sanction letter is required in which type of loan?
(a) Term loan
(b) Overdraft
(c) Cash credit
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

57. ………………….. facility shall be used by corporate houses relating to postal department
(a) Letter posting
(b) Post Box facility
(c) Money order
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Post Box facility

58. To challenge defaulter some steps should be followed like
(a) Suspension of supplies
(b) Cancellation of credit
(c) A stricter tone and style
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

59. Full form of AAR
(a) Against all risk
(b) All Against risk
(c) All against refund
(d) All Against recovery
Answer:
(a) Against all risk.

60. Full form of E & OE
(a) Error and Omission Eluded
(b) Error and Omission Excepted
(c) Error and Omission Eradicated
(d) Error and Omission Established
Answer:
(b) Error and Omission Excepted.

61. ……………………….. is the document which gives full information of the goods being Shipped and sent to the importer.
(a) Proforma invoice
(b) Delivery Challan
(c) Invoice
(d) Debit Note
Answer:
(c) Invoice

62. In which Legal Condition, a person or business has liabilities exceeding the assets and the debtor is unable to pay the amount.
(a) Winding up process
(b) Incorporation
(c) Bankruptcy
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Bankruptcy.

63. Proforma Invoice is used for which purposes:
(a) Helps the company for calculation of duties and taxes Payable
(b) Used as quotation
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

64. Accounting System is based on double-entry bookkeeping system. It was originated by in the year .
(a) John keats, 1496
(b) A. L. Bowley,1542
(c) Luca Pacioli, 1494
(d) Charles Darwin 1690
Answer:
(c) Luca Pacioli, 1494

65. Full form of SCM
(a) Sales Cost Management
(b) Supply Chain Management
(c) Supply Cost Management
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Supply Chain Management

66. A letter in stricter tone and style is written for ……………….. .
(a) Suspension
(b) Reminder Letter
(c) Cancellation
(d) Final Reminder.
Answer:
(d) Final Reminder.

67. Insurance is a contract between the company, called the & the client known as ……………………………… .
(a) Contractor contractee
(b) Insurer, Insured
(c) Insured, Insurer
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Insurer, Insured.

68. Investors are expected to open to get their share certificate in the electronic forms.
(a) Current A/c
(b) Demat A/c
(c) Saving A/c
(d) Fixed A/c
Answer:
(b) Demat A/c.

69. Banking require letter writing for following service.
(a) Overdraft limit
(b) Dividend
(c) Postal authorities
(d) Policy renewal
Answer:
(a) Overdraft limit

70. The abbreviation ISDN stands for ………………………. .
(a) Integrated small digital network.
(b) International small display network.
(c) Integrated system digital network
(d) Integrated system display network.
Answer:
(c) Integrated system digital network

71. The word ‘resume’ is a …………………….. word.
(a) Latin
(b) Greek
(c) French
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) French
The word ‘resume’ is a french word which is pronounced as rezoom-ay. It is a record of one’s professional as well as personal detail. A good resume should not be very long. One should not let it go beyond three pages. It may be enclosed with job application.

72. ‘Letter of sympathy’ is a part of –
(a) Inter – departmental communication
(b) Press Release
(c) Goodwill Letters
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Goodwill Letters
Letter of Sympathy: It is important to share the pains of our friends and associate. A letter of sympathy is drafted to share the feeling of our colleagues, friends and associates. Therefore, letter of Sympathy is a part of goodwill letter.

73. Which one of the following is not purchase correspondence?
(a) Request for quote
(b) Tender Notice
(c) Purchase Order
(d) Goodwill Letter
Answer:
(d) Goodwill Letter:
Purchase Correspondence: Most of them think selling is a toughest job to do but purchase is also a tough job to do. Selling and purchase are interdependent.

Different types of Purchase correspondence are:

  • Enquiries
  • Replies
  • Industrial Enquiries
  • Replies to Industrial Enquiry
  • Request for quote/Tender Notice
  • Purchase order
  • Tender Process

Therefore, Goodwill letter is not a part of purchase Correspondence.

74. Which one of the following documents is issued by the seller when goods are returned by the customer?
(a) Invoice
(b) Supplementary Invoice
(c) Proforma Invoice
(d) Credit Note
Answer:
(d) Credit Note:
Credit Note: A Document by a seller to a buyer to rectify an error of over change in an invoice; or to allow credit for goods returned. It is entered in the books of account.
Thus, credit note is a document issued by a seller when goods are returned by the customer.

75. Which one of the following methods is used frequently by an organisation to decide its strategic goals? ‘
(a) Group discussion
(b) Brainstorming
(c) Interview
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Group discussion:
Group Discussion is used frequently by an organisation to divide its strategic goal. Various Ideas by each level are brought up by the employees for the betterment of organisation.

76. Which one of the following is not true about a job interview?
(a) In a job interview, one needs to study about the job, the company and industry
(b) Memorise and rehearse the answers to the probable questions in the interview
(c) Reach at the interview venue about 10-15 minutes early
(d) Bring an extra copy of resume at the time of interview.
Answer:
(d) Bring an extra copy of resume at the time of interview:
It is not necessary for the candidate to bring the second copy of the resume as it is not required in job interview.

77. Organisations publish ……………………. when they have to procure goods and services on a large scale or get projects executed.
(a) Purchase requisition
(b) Tender Notice
(c) Purchase Order
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Tender Notice:
Organisations publish tender notices when they have to procure goods and services on a larger scale or get projects executed. They may be defined as invitations to submit bids to provide such goods/services at quoted prices and subject to stated conditions.

78. When goods are returned by the customer, which one of the following is issued to the customer for the value of goods returned?
(a) Debit Note
(b) Performa Invoice
(c) Invoice
(d) Credit Note.
Answer:
(d) Credit Note:
Credit Note is a document sent by seller to a buyer to rectify an error of overcharge in an invoice or to allow credit for goods returned. Thus, when goods are returned by the customer, credit note is issued to the customer for the value of goods returned.

79. A company operates its bank account only through –
(a) Shareholder
(b) Investors
(c) Persons authorized by the Board of Directors
(d) Company Secretary.
Answer:
(c) Persons authorized by the Board of Directors:
A company operates its bank A/c only through the persons authorized by the Board of Directors and who may even be changed by the Board of Directors.

80. ……………………… is neither entered into books of account nor charged to the account of the recipients.
(a) Delivery Challan
(b) Invoice
(c) Credit/Debit Note
(d) Proforma Invoice.
Answer:
(d) Proforma Invoice:
A proforma invoice is different in so far as it is for form’s sake only. It is neither entered into books nor charged to the account of the recipients.

81. Which of the following is a goodwill letter?
(a) Sympathy letter
(b) Obituary letter
(c) Thank you letter
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above:
Types of Goodwill letters:

  • Thank you letter
  • Letters of Sympathy
  • Obituary Notice
  • Condolence letter

Thus, Option (d) i.e. all of the above is correct.

82. A job application does not contain which of the following?
(a) Your personal quality
(b) Your reason of removal from last job
(c) Your achievements
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above:
Job application contains :

  • Personal Quality
  • Academic Qualification
  • Additional Qualification
  • References
  • Experience or Achievement

Thus, option (d) is correct i.e. none of the above.

83. “We are pleased to inform you that you are shortlisted for an appointment in our company as soon as we can find a position in keeping with your qualifications and experience.” Which type of letter is this?
(a) Letter of appointment
(b) Short-listed candidate
(c) Letter of confirmation
(d) Goodwill letter.
Answer:
(b) Short-listed candidate:
Companies may shortlist candidates for absorption at a later date if they are unable to find a suitable position for them at the time of interview. In such cases, their details are stored in the data bank and a polite letter addressed to them. Thus, the give example is of short-listed candidate.

84. Which of the following is not a guideline for writing minutes?
(a) Record full text of motion
(b) Ensure each item has been recorded
(c) Ensure separate paragraph for each item
(d) Reorganisation of work
Answer:
(d) Reorganisation of work:
General Guidelines for writing minutes are as follows :

  • Use separate paragraphs for each item.
  • Record full text of motions.
  • Language of minutes should be simple and precise.
  • Ensuring that each item discussed in the meeting has been recorded.
  • The secretary should go on taking notes during the meeting.
  • Defamatory language, irrelevant point should not be recorded. Thus, Re-organisation of work is not a guideline for writing minutes.

85. A reply to enquiry letter must take care of:
(a) A reference to the date and number o’ the letter of enquiry
(b) All relevant information about goods, prices, discounts etc.
(c) Assurance of best service to the sender of the enquiry
(d) All the stated options are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the stated options are correct:
A reply to enquiry letter must include:

  • Clear reporting of kind & quantity of goods.
  • Assurance of best service.
  • Reply must not begin with refusal.
  • Reply must be polite & expeditious.
  • All relevant information must be stated clearly.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

86. A Company Secretary:
(a) Has nothing to do with the directors of the company
(b) Is never in touch with any government department
(c) Occupies an important place in a corporate set-up
(d) Does not have to correspond with the investors.
Answer:
(c) Occupies an important place in a corporate set-up:
A company secretary occupies an important place in a corporate setup. It is defined as per definition of key managerial personnel in Companies Act, 2013.

87. Which of the following statement about Goodwill letters is incorrect?
(a) It should not contain stereotyped phrases
(b) It may contain one’s sincere feelings
(c) It should be brief
(d) It should not be handwritten.
Answer:
(d) It should not be handwritten:
Goodwill letters features are as follows:
→Goodwill letter should be brief
→ No compulsion to write them
→ They should preferably be handwritten.
→ Should And contain stereotyped phases.
→Should be brief.

88. The abbreviation VSAT stands for:
(a) Video Shot Aperture Transmission
(b) Very Small Aperture Terminals
(c) Voice Sites Applicable Transmission
(d) Voice Server Applied Terminals.
Answer:
(b) The abbreviation VSAT stands for Very Small Aperture Terminals which connect the different branches of an organisation in a private, dedicated communication network

89. A correct statement about advertising is:
(a) It is a paid communication to the masses
(b) It is meant to impart information, develop attitudes and create needs
(c) It induces action beneficial to the advertiser
(d) All the stated options are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the stated options are correct:
Advertising is mass paid communication, the ultimate purpose of which is to impart information, develop attitudes and induce action beneficial to the advertiser.

90. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) An enquiry letter should be compact, straight forward and courteous
(b) An enquiry letter can be lengthy with repetitions
(c) A properly drafted enquiry letter can originate big business deals
(d) An enquiry letter should be drafted clearly.
Answer:
(b) An enquiry letter can be lengthy with repetitions:
While writing we should avoid lengthy and unnecessary statements and representations.

91. Thank you letters, congratulatory letters, letters of sympathy and condolence letter are the type of ………….. letters.
(a) Regret
(b) Order
(c) Goodwill
(d) Sales.
Answer:
(c) Goodwill:
Thank you letters, congratulatory letters, letters of sympathy and condolence letters are the type of Goodwill letters.

92. A true statement about Telegrams is:
(a) It cannot be sent to remote places
(b) It is a recent development in communication technology
(c) It is coded language to communicate
(d) It is very expensive.
Answer:
(b) It is a recent development in communication technology:
Words are changed into signals (codes) with the help of the More’s key and sent across countries and continents in a short time.

93. Choose the incorrect statement about securities:
(a) In order to use dematerialising facilities one has to open a demat account
(b) Change from electronic format to physical form is called re-materialisation
(c) Once you dematerialise your securities you cannot rematerialise
(d) Change from physical form to electronic format is called dematerialisation.
Answer:
(c) Once you dematerialise your securities you cannot rematerialise
Securities are being used in electronic or dematerialised form, however, re-conversion to physical form or rematerialisation is also possible.

94. Telex is used only for student text and are used for graphics, text etc:
(a) Partly true
(b) Partly false
(c) True
(d) False
Answer:
(c) True:
Telex machine only allow exchange of text and for graphics etc.

95. Goodwill letter is written in which tone?
(a) Formal tone
(b) Informal tone
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b):
Goodwill letters are not mandatory but they are written in order to enhance the relation and increase the goodwill of the organisation. It should be brief and in informal tone.

96. We write a congratulatory letter, when:
(a) A friend, colleague or a business associate earns a promotion, recognition
(b) We want to send a message of felicitation
(c) Somebody has made us proud
(d) All the stated options are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the stated options are correct:
We write a congratulatory letter when a friend colleague or a business earn a promotion, recognition, honour or an award. The achievement may be in the personal or professional arena we may send a message of felicitation and earn some precious goodwill in the process.

97. When reviewing resumes, all of the following are important to keep in mind except:
(a) Focus on the font and format
(b) Identify what the educational background of the candidate is in order to determine qualifications
(c) Do not make assumption based just on what is written
(d) Look for long unexplained gaps in between jobs.
Answer:
(c) Do not make assumption based just on what is written:
While reviewing resume, the things which are required to be kept in mind are focus on font/format, educational background, qualifications, unexplained gaps in between jobs except; making assumptions based just on what is written as there are many professional agencies which are just involved in these works as well as sometimes hiding factual informations.

98. Which of the following is a traditional method of advertising?
(a) SMS
(b) Internet
(c) Radio
(d) E-mails
Answer:
(c) Radio:
Radio is a traditional method of advertising. Advertising is frightfully expensive. Therefore, it is essential that the advertisement should serve its purpose. This method help the advertisement to be aired at the right time and at low cost.

99. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) An enquiry letter should be compact, straight forward and courteous
(b) An enquiry letter should be drafted clearly
(c) An enquiry letter can be lengthy with repetitions
(d) A properly drafted enquiry letter can be big business deals.
Answer:
(c) An enquiry letter can be lengthy with repetitions:
An enquiry letter should be straightforward, compact and courteous. It should be brief and to the point, complete and correct. It should avoid lengthy and unnecessary statements and repetitions.

100. An incorrect statement about an invoice is:
(a) It is not a valid legal document
(b) It is sent to the importer
(c) It is entered in the accounts book of the importer
(d) It is prepared by the exporter.
Answer:
(a) It is not a valid legal document:
Invoice is a document which gives accurate description of the goods being sent and their prices to enable the buyer to check them. It is a valid legal document in case of a dispute regarding payment.

101. Choose the incorrect statement about the agenda of a meeting:
(a) Agenda is always circulated after the meeting
(b) When the Chairperson or Secretary want to keep the agenda secret, they do not circulate it
(c) Agenda should be sent to all members entitled to receive it
(d) An agenda is a document that outlines the discussion points of a forthcoming meeting.
Answer:
(a) Agenda is always circulated after the meeting:
Agenda is a document that outlines the contents of a forthcoming meeting. It is usually sent along with the notice of the meeting. Sometimes agenda is prepared after the circulation of a notice in order to enable the members to get any item included to discuss at the meeting.

102. In which of the following letters, a direct approach is recommended?
(a) Condolence letter
(b) Letter of sympathy
(c) Appointment letters
(d) Letter of rejection.
Answer:
(c) Appointment letters:
There are 2 types of letters:

  1. Direct Approach
  2. Indirect Approach

Direct Approach: Letters carrying positive news. Eg: Appointment letter, Promotion letter
Indirect Approach: Letters carrying unwelcomed news. Eg: Letters of Rejection.

103. Very often a sales letter does not have the following enclosed with it
(a) An advance draft
(b) Literature about the product
(c) Self-addressed reply envelop
(d) Forms seeking information about the customer.
Answer:
(a) An advance draft
Sales letter contains the following:

  • Literature about the product
  • Self-addressed reply envelop
  • Forms seeking information about the customers.

104. A Company Secretary:
(a) Is never in touch with any government department
(b) Has nothing to do with the directors of the company
(c) Occupies an important place in a corporate set-up
(d) Does not have to correspond with the investors.
Answer:
(c) Occupies an important place in a corporate set-up
A company secretary occupies an important place in a corporate setup.

105. Choose the incorrect statement related to invoice:
(a) An invoice helps the regular customer to pay at the end of the credit period.
(b) An invoice helps a customer to enter the amount in his account book.
(c) It does not transfer the ownership.
(d) An invoice states the total amount payable.
Answer:
(c) It does not transfer the ownership.
Invoice may serve following purposes:

  • Gives an accurate description of goods being sent and their prices enable the buyer to check them.
  • States the total amount payable for the convenience of buyer
  • Regular customers enter it in their account books and pay at the end of credit period
  • Transfers ownership of goods and helps in calculation of taxes payable on them.

106. A telephone screening interview would be most suitable if you were recruiting for:
(a) An assembly worker
(b) A data entry clerk
(c) A receptionist
(d) A dental assistant.
Answer:
(c) A receptionist:
An assembly worker, a data entry clerk and a dental assistant are all engaged in practical skill-based employment. However, for a receptionist, the way of speaking, fluency and tone is to be specifically judged. Thus, telephone screening interview would suit.

107. A correct statement about advertising is:
(a) It is a paid communication to masses.
(b) It is meant to impart information, develop attitudes and create needs.
(c) It includes action beneficial to the advertiser.
(d) All the stated options are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the stated options are correct:
It is difficult to imagine today’s world without advertising. Three-fourths of a newspaper is devoted to advertisements of various kinds. Television programs are interrupted at frequent intervals to telecast commercials. On the internet, one finds goods and services being advertised on home pages of different search engines and websites. Thus, Advertising is a paid communication, for the masses. Its ultimate purpose is to impart information, develop attitudes, create needs and induce action beneficial to the advertiser.

108. …………………………… can act as liaison between the community on one hand and government on the other.
(a) Consumers association
(b) Employee association
(c) Trade unions
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above:
A liaison officer is a person who liaises between two organizations to communicate and coordinate their activities. Generally, liaison officers are used to achieve the best utilization of resources or employment of services of one organization by another. Liaison officers often provide technical or subject matter expertise of their parent organization. Usually, an organization embeds a liaison officer into another organization to provide face-to-face coordination. Thus, none of the above liaisons between community and the government.

109. Which of the following statements should be kept in mind while preparing a resume:
(a) Do not include the skills you can offer
(b) Include the job title you are seeking and the skills you can offer
(c) Be general in your career objectives
(d) Include information about your family.
Answer:
(c) Be general in your career objectives:
While resume contains most of factual information about the applicant, the application or the covering letter reveals the profile of the applicant. If it is cleverly drafted, it may increase the chances of crossing the first hurdle. Thus, your resume should mention career goals and specific job objectives.

110. Choose the correct option:
(a) A debenture is an interest yielding loan.
(b) A debenture cannot be converted into equity shares.
(c) The right shares can be allotted to anyone.
(d) A company sometimes allots bonus shares to its shareholders even if it runs into losses.
Answer:
(a) A debenture is an interest yielding loan:
Public investment in a company is generally in the form of shares, debentures and deposits. Anyone can participate in the capital of a company through equity shares. The return on shares depends on the profitability of the company and is in the form of dividend. A debenture is an interest-yielding loan but may be partly or fully convertible into equity shares. The Rights Shares are allotted only to the existing shareholders of the company but they have to be paid for. The company may also part with profits in the form of Bonus shares to the existing shareholders.

111. Reputed associate of a leading foreign bank requires smart graduates with good communication skills for hard-core marking. Walk-in-interview is between 12 noon to 5 pm on February 5th at Hotel Hilton, Connaught Circus, New Delhi. This is an example of:
(a) Business Offers
(b) Situations Vacant
(c) Situation wanted
(d) Public Notice
Answer:
(b) Situations Vacant
The given classified advertisement is the example of situation vacant.

112. Which of the following statement about complaint letters is incorrect?
(a) A bona fjde complaint can be made after a passage of time
(b) A complaint should be based on factual information
(c) A dissatisfied customer has a right to lodge a complaint
(d) It is inappropriate to assume at the beginning that the seller alone is art fault.
Answer:
(a) The Statement a is incorrect- A Bonafide complaint should be made without delay since the passage of time complicates the matter.

113. Which of the following is not an essential part of a job resume?
(a) Address
(b) Education
(c) Work experience
(d) Food habits
Answer:
(d) Food habit is not an essential part of Resume.

114. Which one of the following is not true about a job interview?
(a) In a job interview, one needs to study about the job, the company and industry
(b) Memorise and rehearse the answers to the probable questions in the interview
(c) Reach at the interview venue about 10-15 minutes early
(d) Bring an extra copy of resume at the time of interview.
Answer:
(b) Memorise and rehearse the answers to the probable questions in the interview.

115. Which of the following is correct about office notes?
(i) Office notes are a form of internal communication between two different departments
(ii) Office notes are put up by sections or departments to higher authorities
(iii) The actual layout of the office note is same for all the companies. The Correct option is:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
Office notes are a form of internal communication. It is a communication between two different departments.

116. Which one of the following general rules is not applicable when composing a telegram?
(a) Block letters must be used as for as possible
(b) Sentences are to be divided by the word ‘STOP’
(c) The message must be brief and clear
(d) Normal grammar and punctuation must not be ignored.
Answer:
(d) Normal grammar and punctuation must not be ignored:
Block letters must be used as for as possible, is not applicable when composing a telegram.

117. Which one of the following is a type of goodwill letter?
(a) Letter of sympathy
(b) Office Order
(c) Thank you Order
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Thank you Order
Types of Goodwill letter:

  • Thank you letters
  • Congratulatory letters
  • Letter of Sympathy
  • Condolence letters
  • Obituary Notices.

118. Resume for job should be:
(a) Career goals and job objective;
(b) Your adequate knowledge about the company being approached
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these:
Resume: contain following details:

  1. Personal Particulars
  2. Academic Particulars
  3. Additional Qualification
  4. Experience
  5. Reference.

119. Organisations publish ………………….. when they have to procure goods and services an a large scale or get projects executed.
(a) Purchase requisition
(b) Tender notice
(c) Purchase order
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Tender notice:
Organisations publish ‘Tender Notice’ when they have to procure goods and services on a large scale or get projects executed.

120. …………………… is neither entered into books of account nor charged to the account of the recipients.
(a) Delivery Challan
(b) Invoice
(c) Credit / Debit Note
(d) Proforma Invoice
Answer:
(d) Proforma Invoice:
‘Proforma Invoice’ is the invoice or a type of papers note which is signed by consigner to the consignee and is neither entered into books of account nor changed to the account of the recipients.

121. …………………… are made in order to voice a grievance and to secure a relief.
(a) Business Communication
(b) Invoice
(c) Public Notices
(d) Representations.
Answer:
(d) Representations:
Representations are made in order to voice a grievance and to secure a relief.

122. When an organisation needs to share Important Information with members of general public, it drafts a –
(a) Public Notice
(b) Office Memorandum
(c) Agreement
(d) Representation.
Answer:
(a) Public Notice:
Public notice is the medium which is used by the organisation when an information is needed to be shared to a large no. of members within the general public.

123. A good press release should not be –
(a) Factual
(b) Lengthy
(c) News value
(d) Format based.
Answer:
(b) Lengthy:
A good press release should not be lengthy.
It should be –
– Brief
– Factual
– News value
– Format based.

124. When goods are returned by the customer, which one of the following is issued to the customer for the value of goods returned?
(a) Debit note
(b) Performa Invoice
(c) Invoice
(d) Credit note
Answer:
(d) Credit note:
When goods are returned by the customer credit note is issued to the customer for the value of goods returned.

125. AIDAS is a abbreviation of:
(a) Attention, Interest, Desire, Action, Satisfaction.
(b) Active, Interest, Desire, Ambition, Satisfaction.
(c) Both of above
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(a) Attention, Interest, Desire, Action, Satisfaction:
Effective sales writing demands following what Is known as the ‘AIDAS’ plan which stands for Attention, Interest, Desire, Action, and Satisfaction.

126. Types of goodwill letters
(a) Letter of sympathy
(b) Condolence letter
(c) Obituary letter
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(d) All of above.
Every business letter should be a goodwill letter.
They are classified as under –
– Thank you letters
– Congratulatory letters
– Letter of sympathy
– Condolence letters
– Obituary Notices.

127. It is neither entered into books nor charged to the account of recipient?
(a) Invoice
(b) Performa invoice
(c) Proforma Invoice
(d) Statement of Accounts.
Answer:
(c) Proforma Invoice:
A proforma invoice is different insofar as II is for the sake of form only. It is neither entered into books nor charged to the account of the recipients.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Business Ethics – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Business Ethics – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

1. Business Ethics:
It refers to application of ethics in business.

  • It facilitates and promotes:
  • good to society,
  • improves profitability,
  • fosters business relations and
  • employee productivity.
  • Generally, it means, coming to know what is right or wrong in the workplace and doing what’s right.
  • Unethical practices are creating problems to businessmen and business units.
  • Life and growth of business depends upon business ethics.
  • Business ethics are developed by the passage of time and custom.
  • If a custom is adopted and accepted by businessman and public, that custom will become an ethic.
  • It is applicable to every type of business.
  • It means the behaviour of a businessman while conducting a business, by observing morality in his business activities.
  • According to Wheeler,
    “Business Ethics is an art and science for maintaining harmonious relationship with society, its various groups and institutions as well as recognizing the moral responsibility for the rightness and wrongness of business conduct.”
  • According to Rogene A. Buchholz,
    “Business Ethics refers to right or wrong behaviour in business decisions.”
  • Business Ethics or Ethical Standards are the principles, practices and philosophies that guide the business people.
  • It can be said to begin where the law ends.

It is primarily concerned with those issues that are not covered by law, or where there is no definite consensus on whether something is right or wrong.

2. importance of Business Ethics:

  • Good business ethics promote good business and retains it for a long period of time.
  • It helps to understand why power and influence of business in society is increasing, what are its implications and how this issues are to be addressed.
  • It provides a major contribution to our societies like:
  • producing the products
  •  providing services
  • providing employment
  • paying taxes and acting as an engine for economic development and increases goodwill.
  • It helps to create mutual trust and confidence in relationships by helping us understand various causes and consequences of business malpractices.
  • It provides means to appreciate and understand the stakeholders demand more clearly through which they are able to meet ethical expectations more effectively.
  • It helps to improve ethical decision making by providing managers with appropriate knowledge and tools that allows them to diagnose and analyse ethical dilemma and problems.
  • It helps the business to prosper by following good ethical standards.
  • It provides us with the ability to assess the benefits and problems associated with different ways of managing ethics.
  • Good ethical standards helps the business to face challenges.

3. Characteristics of Business Ethics:

  • They are the principles, which govern and guide business people to perform business functions and in that sense, it is a discipline.
  • It is both a science and an art.
  • It continuously test the rules and moral standards.
  • It is dynamic in nature.
  • It is based on theological principles like humarf welfare, good behaviour sincerity, service etc.
  • It is based on reality and social customs prevailing in business environment.
  • It studies activities, decisions and behaviour which are related to human beings.
  • It has a universal application because business exists all over the world.
  • Many of the ethical principles develop personal dignity.
  • It keeps harmony between different roles of businessman, with every citizen, customer, owner and investors. ’

4. Principles of Business Ethics:

  • Various principles are developed by Cantt, J.S. Mill, Herbert Spencer, Plato, Thomas Garret, Woodrad, Wilson etc. are as follows:
  • Not to do any evil: Doing evil to oneself or to another, either as a means or an end, is unethical.
  • Co-operation with others: Business should help others only if, other deserves for help.
  • Equivalent price: As per W. Wilson,
    “People are entitled to get goods equivalent to value of money one pays”.
  • Human dignity: Man should not be treated as a factor of production. Human dignity should be maintained.
  • Sacredness of means and ends: Means and techniques adopted to serve the business ends must be sacred and pure. Thus, good end can not be attained with wrong means even if beneficial to society.
  • Principle of proportionality: One should make a proper judgement before doing anything so that others do not suffer from any loss or risk of evil.
  • Publicity: As per W. Wilson,
    “Anything that is being done or to be done should be brought to the knowledge of everyone”. This way no unethical act can be done.
  • Universal value: Business should be conducted on the basis of universal values.
  • Non-co-operation in evils: Business should not co-operate with anyone in any evil acts.
  • Non-violence: If businessman hurts the interest or rights of the ,, society or exploits its consumers by overlooking their interests, it is equivalent to violence and unethical act.

5. Elements of Business Ethics:
Key elements:

  1. Formal code of conduct
  2. Ethics committee
  3. Ethical communication
  4. An ethic office with ethical officers
  5. Ethics Training Programme
  6. A disciplinary system
  7. Establishing an ombuds person
  8. Monitoring.

Code of Conduct:
It refers to the statements of organisational values.
It comprises of three elements:

  1. Code of Ethics
  2. Code of Conduct
  3. Statement of Values.
  • It is a written document, inspirational in contents and specifies clearly what is acceptable or unacceptable behaviour at workplace and beyond, when the employees represent their organisations outside.
  • Code should reflect the managements desire to incorporate the values and policies of the organisation. It is a statement of organizational values.

Code of Ethics:

  • For small businesses, the code is usually unwritten.
  • Larger businesses often have written codes of ethics and employees are twined in them and required to adhere to the code.
  • It is a buzzword to employees to observe ethical norms and forms the basis for rules of conduct.
  • It is comprehensive enough to cover the entire scheme of organisational ethics expected to be followed by everyone in the company.
  • It usually specifies methods for:
  • reporting violations,
  • disciplinary action for violations,
  • structure of the due process to.be followed.
  • It must summarize the beliefs and values of the organisation.
  • Owners that are regularly engaged in unethical practices, pass those values and principles to other people working in the business.
  • Small business suffer more because unethical behaviour and actions are easier for customers to take notice of.
  • It vary among businesses.
  • All employees must be treated equally, and any issues of inequality must be dealt quickly, fairly and in manner satisfactory to all.
  • Now, consumers pay a great deal of attention to corporate governance and proper behaviour of businesses and their owners.
  • Where code of ethics is unarticulated or formally documented – is vital to ensure that a business will succeed.

Ethics Committee:
These committees are wholly devoted at work places.

They perform following functions:

  1. can rise concerns of ethical nature
  2. prepare or update code of conduct
  3. resolve ethical dilemma
  4. formulate ethical policies
  5. develop ethical standards
  6. evaluates the compliance with those ethical norms.
  • Members must be selected from these persons having knowledge in their industry, their code of ethics and community standards.
  • Members are also conscious about the corporate culture and ethical concise of the organisation.

Two committees are to be formed
1. At the Board Level:
This committee is in charge of oversee development and operation of the ethics management programme.

2. Ethics Management Committee:

  • This committee is charged with implementing and administrating an ethics management programme.
  • This involves administrating and training about policies and procedures, and resolving ethical dilemmas.
  • It comprises of senior officers.

Ethical Communication System:
It plays an important role in making Ethics Programme successful.
To be effective, it should allow the employees to make enquiries, gel advice if needed or report the wrong doing.
it is necessary to educate employees about the organisations ethica standard and policies.

It has the following objectives:

  1. To communicate organisations values and standards of ethica conduct or business to employees.
  2. To help employees to get guidance and resolve questions regarding compliance with firm’s standards of conduct and values.
  3. To provide information to employees on company’s policies anc procedure regarding ethical code and conduct of business,
  4. To set up means of enquiry such as telephone hotlines, suggestior boxes and email facilities for employees to contact and get advice from competent authorities.

Other means of communication:

  • Top management can communicate to lower level managers whc can communicate it to operational levels.
  • Publishes newsletters.
  • Values can be communicated in company’s briefing and management meetings.
  • Using attractive multi-coloured posters being placed in most visible places of organisation premises.
    These means are used to expose company’s code or ethics.

Ethics Office and Officers:
These offices are to be established to communicate and implement ethics policies among employees.
Ethics officer is appointed for this purpose.
Such officers should develop a reputation for credibility, integrity, honesty and responsibility.

Functions of ethics officer:

  1. They are responsible for assessing the needs and risks that an ethics programme must address.
  2. To conduct ethical training programme for employees.
  3. To monitor and audit ethical conduct.
  4. To review and update code in time.
  5. To develop and distribute a code of conduct or ethics.
  6. To ensure that organisation is in compliance with governmental regulations.
  7. To take action on possible violations of company’s code.
  8. To establish and maintain a confidential service to answer employees questions about ethical issues.

Ethics Training Programme:

  • The main objective of this is to offer assistance to employees to understand the ethical issues that are likely to arise in their work place.
  • Induction training should be arranged when new employees are recruited.
  • Importance of abiding code should be dealt at the induction meeting.
  • A well developed and training programme will help the employees to understand the organisation’s policies and expectations, relevant rules, bye-laws and regulations which are to be complied with.
  • Moreover for its success, the senior executive from every department must be fully involved in it.

Disciplinary System:

  • This system should be established to deal with ethical violations promptly and severely.
  • If unethical behaviour is not dealt properly, it will threaten the entire social system.
  • Companies should be consistent while enforcing disciplines i.e. the company should adopt a fair attitude towards everyone without any discrimination or bias.

Establishing an Ombuds person:
He is responsible for-
1. coordinating development of the policies and procedures to institutionalize moral values in workplace.
2. resolving ethical dilemmas by interpreting policies and procedures.

Monitoring:

  • An Effective monitoring committee it to be formed.
  • It must consist of ethics officer, internal audits, investigations surveys and supporting systems.
  • Monitoring is done by internal audits, surveys, investigations, supporting systems etc.

Ethics in Compliance:

  • Compliance is about obeying and adhering to rules and authority.
  • Motivation for being compliant could be to do the right thing out of fear of being caught rather than a desire to be abiding by the law.
  • Organisations that value high ethics comply with the laws not only in letter but go beyond what is stipulated or expected of them.

Ethics in Finance:

  • Window dressing, misleading financial analysis.
  • Related party transactions not at arm’s length.
  • Executive compensation.
  • Fake reimbursements.
  • Insider trading, securities fraud leading to manipulation of the financial markets.
  • Bribery, kickbacks, over billing of expenses, facilitation payments.
  • Ethics in Human Resources

Ethics of Production:

  • This area of bus;ness ethics deals with the duties of a company to ensure that products and production processes do not causes harm.
  • It is difficult to define a degree of permissibility, or the degree of permissibility may depend on the changing state of preventive technologies or changing social perceptions of acceptable risks.

It includes:

  1. Product testing ethics.
  2. Problems arising out of new technologies like genetically modified food etc.
  3. Ethidal relations between the company and the environment, include pollution, environmental ethics, carbon emission trading.
  4. Defective, Addictive, Hazardous and inherent dangerous products.

Ethical Dilemma:

  • It refers to a situation where ,one is in conflict between moral imperatives.
  • Also known as ethical paradox or moral dilemma.
  • It refers to any situation in which guiding moral principles cannot determine which course of action is right or wrong.
  • To obey one action, would result in transgressing another.

Dimensions of Ethical Dilemma:

  • Choice between equally undesirable alternatives.
  • There s no nght” and ‘wrong.
  • Different courses of action possible.
  • Can be resolved, not solved.
  • Involves value judgements about actions or consequences.
  • Resources which must be allocated are fine or limited.
  • Date will not help resolve issue.
  • Choices have far reaching effects on persons, relationships and society.
  • Different sources (Psychology, theology) offer resolutions.
  • Unfavourable outcomes will result.
  • Business Ethics Principles followed by Indian Companies:
  • Sacrifice: A person who is willing to sacrifice part of his bread or the process effort commands a superior place. An individual is trained by principle of ‘sacrifice’ through “give and take” policy.
  • Reward: Individual’s activities should be monitored and encouraged by rewarding them. This may cultivate the spirit of higher productivity among groups.
  • Polygamy: It refers to wedding of two different cultures by absorption or takeover.
  • Taxation: Individuals who are hardworking and productive are taxed more which encourages them to stay fit for a longer period by proper appreciation and encouragement.
  • Harmony: To avoid conflicts and friction, one is guided by certain set of moral conducts and principles.
  • Justice: It means that one who works hard should be rewarded and one who fails should be punished.
  • Integrity: Groups working together are encouraged to stay united in order to reap benefits of division of labour.
  • Non-violence: It protects the organisation from strikes and lockouts and unnecessary avoidable conflicts.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. The term ‘Business Ethics’ came into common use in the year:
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
Answer:
(c) 1970

2. The society of Business Ethics was started in:
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
Answer:
(d) 1980

3. When was EBEN commenced:
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1982
(d) 1992
Answer:
(c) 1982

4. The idea of business ethics caught the attention of academics, media and business firms by the end of the:
(a) First World War
(b) Second World War
(c) Cold War
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Cold War

5. The legitimate criticism of business practices was attacked for indulging the “………………… ” of entrepreneurs.
(a) Honesty
(b) Integrity
(c) Freedom
(d) Reputation
Answer:
(c) Freedom

6. The fields which settled the discourse of business ethics:
(a) Media
(b) Business firms
(c) Academics
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (c)

7. Business Ethics has a ………………………. application:
(a) Universal
(b) Natural
(c) Practical
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Universal

8. ………………….. is not a natural science but a creation of human mind.
(a) Ethical Standard
(b) Business Ethics
(c) Ethics
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ethics

9. …………………………… is a set of principle and expectations that are considered binding on any person who is the member of a particular group.
(a) Code of ‘ethics’
(b) Code of ‘conduct’
(c) Code of ‘practice’
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

10. The alternative names for code of conduct are ………………… .
(a) Code of ethics
(b) Code of practice
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b).

11. Corporate entities are legally considered as persons in:
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) USA

12. Business ethics is based on well accepted –
(a) Moral and social values
(b) Social values only
(c) Moral values only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Moral and social values.

13. Which of the following is not a ‘code of conduct’:
(a) Code of ethics
(b) Code of practices
(c) Code of Behaviour
(d) Code of Management
Answer:
(d) Code of Management.

14. Which of the following Act made code of ethics mandatory for all organisations:
(a) The Companies Act, 2013
(b) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, 2002
(c) The Partnership Act, 1932
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, 2002.

15. The Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 made it important for business to have an:
(a) Ethics Code
(b) Code of Conduct
(c) Code of Practice
(d) Business ethics
Answer:
(a) Ethics Code.

16. Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 is named alter which of the following experts.
(a) Aristotle
(b) Smator Paul Sarbanes
(c) Michael Oxley
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c).

17. Key Elements of Business Ethics are:
(a) A strong code of Ethics
(b) Ethics coach
(c) System for confidential Reporting
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

18. Which are not the key elements of Business Ethics:
(a) Investor loyalty
(b) Ethics Training
(c) Ethics coach
(d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(a) Investor loyalty.

19. What are not the features of Business Ethics:
(a) Relativity
(b) Far reaching concept
(c) Practical application
(d) Protection to consumer
Answer:
(c) Practical application.

20. The key features which a person should prevail while teaching ethics to the employees are:
(a) Employing Ethical Concept
(b) Analytical Skills
(c) Decision making
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

21. ……………………….. provides the legal, social, moral, economical and cultural limits within which business has to be conducted.
(a) Ethics
(b) Ethical Standards.
(c) Ethics code
(d) Business Ethics
Answer:
(d) Business Ethics.

22. Business Ethics is a ……………….. norm.
(a) Pervasive
(b) Continuous
(c) Relative
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Relative.

23. Which one of the following is not the advantage of Business Ethics.?
(a) High turnover of staff
(b) Customer Satisfaction
(c) Investor’s loyalty
(d) Attracting and Retaining Talent
Answer:
(a) High turnover of staff.

24. What are the ethical issues faced by ‘Ethics in Finance’ ?
(a) Affirmative Action
(b) Executive compensation
(c) Insider Trading
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) & (c).

25. What are not the ethical issues faced by ‘Ethics in ‘finance’?
(a) Affirmative Action
(b) Occupational Safety and health
(c) Overbilling of expense
(d) both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) & (b).

26. Which one of the features relates to ‘Ethics in Human Resource’?
(a) Insider Trading
(b) Price discrimination
(c) Discrimination Issues
(d) Black market, grey market.
Answer:
(c) Discrimination Issues.

27. Which one of the feature does not relate to ‘Ethics in Human Resource’?
(a) Sexual harassment
(b) Discrimination issue
(c) Affirmative Action
(d) Product testing Ethics
Answer:
(d) Product testing Ethics.

28. Which one of the feature relates to ‘Ethics in Marketing’?
(a) Defective dangerous product
(b) Sexual harassment
(c) Insider Trading
(d) Black market, grey market
Answer:
(d) Black market, grey market.

29. Which one of the features does not relate to ‘Ethics in Marketing?
(a) Black Market, grey market
(b) Misleading Advertisement
(c) Price Skimming
(d) Carbon emission trading
Answer:
(d) Carbon emission trading.

30. Which one of the features relate to ‘Ethics in Production’?
(a) Affirmative Action
(b) Executive compensation
(c) Inherently dangerous product
(d) Price fixing
Answer:
(c) Inherently dangerous product.

31. WhIch one of the feature does not relate to Ethics in Production’?
(a) Addictive dangerous product
(b) Product testing ethics
(c) Environmental ethics
(d) Whistle blowing
Answer:
(d) Whistleblowing.

32. What are the Reasons for unethical business practices?
(a) Greed for Quick money
(b) Administrative Corruption
(c) Cultural and Social Reason
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

33. Administrative corruption include ‘gifts’ to the:
(a) Factory Inspector
(b) Boiler Inspector
(c) Pollution Control Board Inspector
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

34. Measures to improve ethical behaviour of business are framed at which level:
(a) Societal level
(b) Government level
(c) Institutional level
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

35. Compliance is about obeying and adhering to:
(a) Rules and Authority
(b) Law
(c) Discipline
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Rules and Authority.

36. The term ethics is derived from …………………………. word:
(a) French
(b) German
(c) Greek
(d) Russian.
Answer:
(c) Greek

37. ………….. School adopteii business ethics after …………………………..
(a) American Business /1980
(b) Indian Business / 1990
(c) European Busiriess/ 1987
(d) China Business /1986
Answer:
(c) European Business/ 1987.

38. Which Act is important for business organisation having an ethics code?
(a) Law of Contract, 2002
(b) Sarbanes Oxley Act, 2002
(c) The EnContract, 2002
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sarbanes Oxley Act, 2002.

39. Practice of gives protection to customers.
(a) Business Ethics
(b) Social ethics
(c) Moral ethics
(d) Economy ethics
Answer:
(a) Business Ethics.

40. ……………………………….. is the vital factor in successful Lusiness strategy.
(a) Investor Loyalty
(b) Attraction and Talent
(c) Customer Satisfaction
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Customer Satisfaction.

41. ………………………. plaecisive role in introducing and implementing ethics.
(a) Ethics in compliance
(b) Ethics in finance
(c) Ethics in marketing
(d) Ethics in Human resources.
Answer:
(d) Ethics in Human resources.

42. …………………………… deals with moral principles behind the operation and regulation of marketing.
(a) Ethics of moral principal
(b) Ethics of marketing
(c) Ethics of finance
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Ethics of marketing.

43. Employer should behave ethically while dealing with others, i.e. employees suppliers, customers etc. In this sense, what view does Business ethics concept represent?
(a) Narrow
(b) Limited
(c) Conservative
(d) Universal
Answer:
(d) Business ethics refers to a ‘code of conduct’ which businessman are expected to follow while dealing with others. Employer should behave ethically while dealing with other i.e. employee, suppliers, customers etc. In this sense, business ethics concept represent universal application.

44. Which one of the following statements about business ethics is false?
(a) Business ethics goes beyond legal issues
(b) Ethical conflicts lead to ethical dilemma
(c) Ethical conduct builds trust among individuals and in business relationships
(d) Application of business ethics is limited to the profitable organisations.
Answer:
(d) Elements of Business Ethics: These are the traits which are important and influential to success of a company such as:

  • Ethical conflict lead to ethical dilemmas.
  • Business ethics goes beyond legal issues.
  • Ethical conduct builds trust among individuals and in business relationship.

But application of business ethics is not only limited to the profitable organisation.

45. Which one of the following is the quality of an ethics coach?
(a) He should have strong knowledge of ethical practices
(b) He should have strong analytical skills
(c) He should have knowledge of decision making tools
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) Ethics in house or outsourced expert, who will be available as a friendly and confidential resource for employees facing complicated, ethical dilemmas should be arranged in every company. This person needs to have sufficient expertise in employing ethical concepts, analytical skills and decision making tool to facilitate an ethical resolution to the problem.

Also essential in an ethics coach is the assurance of confidentiality and also a friendly and up standing coach who protects confidentiality and speaks with everyone in the office at various time. Thus, answer is all of the above.

46. Business ethics and financial performance are linked together and hence are advantageous to –
(a) Company
(b) Investors loyalty
(c) Employees
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) Business Ethics is advantageous in following ways when financial performance and business ethics are linked together:

  • Company: Companies displaying a clear commitment to ethical conduct out performs the companies that do not display any ethical conduct.
  • Investors loyalty: Doing business ethically creates investors loyalty towards business.
  • Employees: Good companies are able to attract the best talent.

Ethical company that is dedicated to taking care of its employees are rewarded with employees being equally dedicated in taking care of the organisation. Thus, answer is all of the above.

47. Ethics is considered as –
(a) Normative Science
(b) Exact Science
(c) Natural Science
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) Normative science means that the subject involves value judgements and is concerned with welfare propositions. Since, ethics is also concerned with values and welfare, it is considered as a normative science.

48. Which of the following works as a motivation for an employee to work in an organisation?
(a) Monetary benefits
(b) Career progression
(c) Learning opportunities
(d) All ot the above.
Answer:
(d) Motivation for an employee to work in an organisation are monetary benefits, career progressive, learning opportunities etc. As employee who provides their time, skills and energy to an organisation want salary, bonus, arrears progression, learning etc. in return.

49. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 was enacted for safeguarding the interests of –
(a) Employees
(b) Management
(c) Consumers
(d) Government.
Answer:
(a) The government has enacted various legislations such as the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 for the benefit of employees.

50. A written document of policies and principles that guides the behaviour of all employees is known as –
(a) Ethical dilemma
(b) Code of ethics
(c) Financial delegation document
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Code of ethics refers to a written code of conduct which every business is required to form in order to inform the employees as to what one ought is to do and what to strive for. Thus, it is the written documents of policies and principles that guides the behaviour of all employees.

51. Which one of the following means ethical dilemma?
(a) A situation requiring a choice between ethical and unethical behaviour
(b) A situation of ethical behaviour
(c) A situation of unethical behaviour
(d) A written statement of policies and principles that guides the behaviour of all employees.
Answer:
(a) Ethical dilemmas is a situation requiring a choice between ethical and unethical behaviour. It is a situation requiring a choice between equally desirable alternatives.

52. In what way society can ensure ethical practices to be followed by business houses?
(a) Establishing social groups to pressurise the business organisations for adopting ethical practices.
(b) Boycotting the organisations following unethical practices.
(c) Arranging ethical awareness programme for business houses.
(d) All nf the above.
Answer:
(d) Various measures are suggested for improving the ethical behaviour of business houses:

  • Every organisation should lay down its code of conduct.
  • Records must be more transparent.
  • People adhering to code of conduct must be rewarded.
  • An ethical committee must be formed.
  • Consumer awareness programmes must be propagated.
  • Social groups can pressurize the organizations.
  • Organisations following unethical practices can be boycotted. Thus, answer is all of the above.

53. Whistle Blowing is a/an ………………….. practice
(a) Ethical Practice
(b) Illegal Practice
(c) Unethical Practice
(d) Social Practice.
Answer:
(c) Whistle blowing is an unethical practice. It is a process where a person informs on another or make public disclosure of corruption or wrong doing.

54. ‘Compliance’ refers to obeying and adhering to –
(a) Rules and authority
(b) Policies and discipline
(c) Laws
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) ‘Compliance’ refers to obeying and adhering to rules and authority. An organisation’s ethical climate ensure compliance with law.

55. An expert who is available to solve ethical dilemmas confidentially is known as –
(a) Ethics coach
(b) Ethics Philosopher
(c) Ethics manager
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) An expert who is available to solve ethical dilemmas confidentially is known as Ethics coach. He is a person who is available either in house or is out -sourced. He should have sufficient expertise in employing ethical concepts, analytical skills, and decision making tool so to facilitate an ethical solution to the problem.

56. The primary responsibility of a business is towards –
(a) Employees
(b) Owner
(c) Banker
(d) Employer
Answer:
(a) The primary responsibility of a business is towards its employees. Ethical organisation creates an environment that is trust worthy making employees willing to rely, take decisions and act on the decisions and action of the co-employees.

57. Which one of the following is not an unethical business practice?
(a) Collusion
(b) Insider Trading
(c) Kickback
(d) Whistle blowing
Answer:
(c) Reasons for unethical business practices are:

  • No Government support ,
  • Collusion
  • Inside Trading
  • Whistle Blowing

Therefore, Kick back is not the reason for unethical business practices.

58. Which one of the following is correct about business ethics?
(a) Business ethics has absolute norms
(b) Business ethics is enforced by law
(c) Following business ethics practices is mandatory for all organisations
(d) Business ethics has a universal application.
Answer:
(d) Following are the features of business ethics:

  • It is a code of conduct which businessman should follow while conducting their activities.
  • It is universally applicable and is a relative norm.
  • It is a far reaching concept.
  • Social values and morals are its important elements.
  • It gives protections to customers.
  • No law is applicable to it.
  • It has to be conducted within limits.

59. Which of the following acts made code of ethics mandatory for companies listed on the stock exchange?
(a) Companies Act, 2013
(b) Sarbanes – Oxley Act, 2002
(c) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Sarbanes-Oxley Act, 2002 made it important and mandatory in writing about what one ought to be and what to strive for.

60. Which one of the following is a measure to improve ethical behaviour of business at societal level?
(a) Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar
(b) Mumbai Grahak Panchayat
(c) Ethical Committee comprising BOD
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Various organisations like Mumbai Grahak Panchayat, Consumer Society of India etc. have been started by consumer groups to protect the interest of consumers at societal level.

61. Ethics violation has got negative impact on –
(a) Morale
(b) Job
(c) Trust
(d) Remuneration.
Answer:
(a) Ethical executives seek to protect and build the company’s goods reputation and the morale of its employees by engaging in no conduct that might undermine respect and by taking whatever actions are necessary to correct and prevent in appropriate conduct of others. Thus, Ethics violation has got negative impact on Morale.

62. When an employee exposes his employer’s wrongdoings to others, it is termed as:—
(a) Fraud
(b) Misrepresentation
(c) Mistake
(d) Whistle Blowing
Answer:
(d) Whistle Blowing: It refers to a process where a person informs another or makes public disclosure of corruption or wrong doing.

63. The idea of business ethics caught the attention of academics, media and business firms by the end of:
(a) First World War
(b) Second World War
(c) Cold war
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) The idea of business ethics caught the attention of academics, media and business firm by the end of cold war. However, legitimate criticism of business practices was attacked for infringing the “freedom” of entrepreneurs and critics were accused of supporting communists.

64. Providing information to law enforcement or regulatory agencies about a business’ illegal or improper activities by its employees’ is known as:
(a) Ethical wrong
(b) Whistle blowing
(c) Ethical dilemma
(d) Ethical wonder.
Answer:
(b) Providing information to law enforcement or regulatory agencies about a business’ illegal or improper activities by its employees is known as whistle Blowing. The process where a person informs on another or makes public disclosure of corruption or wrong doing.

65. Which one of the following is not correct about business ethics?
(a) Business ethics is a universal and absolute concept
(b) Business ethics is based on well accepted moral and social values
(c) Business ethics is a code of conduct which businessmen should follow while conducting their normal activities
(d) Business ethics give protection to customers and other social groups related to a firm.
Answer:
(a) Features of Business ethics:

  • Business ethics is based on well accepted moral and social values.
  • Business ethics is a code of conduct which businessman should follow while conducting their normal activities.
  • Business ethics gives protection to customers and other social groups related to a firm.
  • It cannot be enforced by law. It has to be accepted as self discipline by businessman.
  • Business ethics is not a universal and absolute concept.

Thus, the given option (A) is not correct.

66. To be successful, business ethics and training program need to:
(a) Be focused on personal opinion of employees
(b) Be limited to higher management
(c) Educate employees.on formal ethical frameworks and models of ethical decision-making
(d) Promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions.
Answer:
(a) Various measures have been suggested at institutional level to improve the ethical behaviour of business, one of which includes- The organisations should conduct training and provide continuous guidance to its employees regarding the importance of ethical behaviour. Thus, to be successful, business ethics and trairring program need to educate employees or formal ethical frameworks and models of ethical decision-making.

67. When a firm charges different prices from different groups of customers, it may be accused of:
(a) Cultural relativism
(b) Money laundering
(c) Facilitating payments
(d) Price discrimination.
Answer:
(d) Price discrimination is a process in which a firm charges different prices from different groups of customers. It is one of the ethical issues confronted in the area of marketing. It can be carried out by a monopolist as he has an inelastic supply of his goods.

68. Codes of conduct and codes of ethics: .
(a) Are formal statements that describe what an organisation expects of its employees
(b) Become necessary only after a company has been in legal trouble
(c) Are designed for top executives and managers and not for regular employees
(d) Rarely become an effective component of the ethics and compliance program.
Answer:
(c) Primary elements of a strong organisational compliance program are:

  • A written code of conduct
  • Ethics training
  • Ethics coach
  • System of confidential Reporting

Thus, significant financial expenditure is not the key element of business ethics.

69. Which one of the following is not the primary elements of a strong organisational compliance program?
(a) A written code of conduct
(b) An ethics officer
(c) Significant financial expenditures
(d) A formal ethics training program.
Answer:
(c) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, 2002 was enacted and passed in USA to help laid off employees get their job back. This also helps new employees learn important aspect of how to carry out their action at work, and provides veteran employees with something to fall back on, both as a reminder and as something to cite if they are being pressed to do something that they believe to be wrong.

70. Businesses must first be responsible to:
(a) Employees
(b) Customers
(c) Owners
(d) Bankers.
Answer:
(a) Code of conduct also known as code of ethics or code of practice is a set of principles and expectations that are considered binding on any person who is a member of a particular group.
Thus, a strong code of ethics serves to inform employees of the vision that the company’s executives have for the company’s image and goals.

71. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, 2002 was enacted and passed in USA to:
(a) Punish those who committed accounting frauds in the late 1990s
(b) Improve corporate profits
(c) Help laid-off employees get their jobs back
(d) Help restore confidence in corporate America.
Answer:
(b) Customer satisfaction is a vital factor in successful business strategy. An organisation with.a strong ethical environment places its customer’s interest as foremost. Ethical conduct towards customers builds a strong competitive position. Thus, businesses must first be responsible to its customers.

72. Most companies begin the process of establishing organisational ethics programs by developing:
(a) Ethics training programmes
(b) Codes of conduct
(c) Ethics enforcement mechanisms .
(d) Hidden agendas.
Answer:
(b) Code of conduct informs the employees of the vision that company’s executives have for achieving company’s objectives. It helps the new employees to learn important aspects of how to carry out their , actions at work. After establishing a proper code of conduct, company’s require to have a formal education program, training guidance in order to motivate the businessmen to follow ethical practices.
Thus, most companies begin the process of establishing organisational ethics programs by developing codes of conduct.

73. …………………… also serves to inform employees of the vision that the company’s executives have for the company’s image and goals.
(a) Customer Feedback
(b) Code of Ethics
(c) Ethics Coach
(d) Mission.
Answer:
(b) Code of Ethics serves to inform employees pf the vision that (he company’s executives have for the company’s image and goals. This help new employees learn important aspects of how to carry out their actions at work, and provides veteran employees with something to fall back on, both as a reminder and as something to cite if they are being pressed to do something that they believe to be wrong.

74. Investors are concerned about of the company in which they invest.
(a) Ethics, social responsibility and reputation
(b) Employees
(c) Executive compensation
(d) Only profitability.
Answer:
(a) Investors are concerned about ethics, social responsibility and reputation of the company in which they invest. Investors are becoming more and more aware that an ethical climate provides a foundation for efficiency, productivity and profits. Relationship with any stakeholder, including investors, based on dependability, trust and commitment results in sustained loyalty.

75. The ethics in human resource management cover those ethical issues arising around the –
(a) Society-employer relationship
(b) Customer-employees relationship
(c) Employer-State relationship
(d) Employer-employees relationship.
Answer:
(d) The ethics of human resource management cover those ethical issues arising around the employer-employee relationship, such as the rights and duties owed between employer and employee.

76. Price skimming is an ethical issue covered under –
(a) Ethics in Compliance
(b) Ethics in Marketing
(c) Ethics in Finance
(d) Ethics in Production.
Answer:
(b) Ethics, in Marketing deals with the moral principles behind the operation and regulation of marketing. The ethical issues confronted in this area include pricing i.e. price fixing, price discrimination, price skimming, black markets, misleading advertisements, etc.

77. Anti-competitive practices include –
(a) Insider trading
(b) Grey markets
(c) Employment of child labour in production activities
(d) Tie-in arrangements.
Answer:
(d) Anti-competitive practices are ethical issues under ethics in marketing which includes manipulation of supply, inclusive dealing arrangements, tying arrangements etc.

78. A situation requiring a choice between equally undesirable alternatives; any difficult or perplexing situation or problem is known as –
(a) Trivial
(b) Pivotal
(c) Dilemma
(d) Veteran.
Answer:
(c) A situation requiring a choice between equally undesirable alternatives, any difficult or per-planing situation or problem is known as dilemma.

79. Spending money on restoring the environment, affected out of products of inherently dangerous nature are known as –
(a) Business Ethics
(b) Corporate Philanthropy
(c) Whistle Blowing
(d) Corporate Leadership.
Answer:
(a) Spending money on restoring the environment, affected out of products of inherently dangerous nature are known as Business Ethics.

80. Mohan joined a company as Chief Finance Officer (CFO). He observed that the company is involved in concealing tax and engaged in other malpractices. He brought this fact to the notice of the Incqme Tax Authorities. This action of Mohan would be termed as –
(a) Cartelisation
(b) Misconduct
(c) Ethical wrong
(d) Whistle blowing.
Answer:
(d) The process where a person informs on another or makes public disclosures of corruption or wrong doing is known as whistle blowing. So, the action of Mohan would be termed as whistle blowing.

81. The rules or principles that define right or wrong conduct are known as-
(a) Ethics
(b) Customer satisfaction
(c) Ethical conflict
(d) Norte of the above.
Answer:
(a) By using ethical standards, a person or a group of person or an organisation regulate their behaviour to distinguish between what is right and what is wrong as perceived by others. So, the rules or principles that define right or wrong conduct are known as Ethics.

82. An activity is probably ethical if –
(a) It is approved by most individuals in the ‘organisation and is custpmary in the industry
(b) It is Approved by most individuals in the organisation
(c) It is customary in the industry
(d) It is legal.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics have following features –

  • Universally applicable and is a relative norm.
  • Far- reaching concept which goes beyond the idea of money creation and creates long – lasting relationship.
  • Social values and morals are its important concepts.
  • It gives protection to customers and other social groups.
  • It cannot be enforced by law.
  • It is a code of conduct which businessmen should follow while conducting their normal activities i.e. it is customary in nature. Thus, an activity is probably ethical if it Is customary in the industry.

83. “Adhering to Rules and Authority” comes under which Scope of Ethics?
(a) Ethics in marketing
(b) Ethics in compliance
(c) Ethics in finance
(d) Ethics in production.
Answer:
(b) Compliance is about obeying and adhering to rules and authority. Hence, this comes under the scope of ethics in compliance.

84. Business Ethics is required at which level of management?
(a) Top level
(b) Middle level
(c) Lower level
(d) All level.
Answer:
(d) Business Ethics is required at all level of management i.e. top level management, middle level management, lower level management. It covers companies, their employees etc. Ethics are code of conduct which businessmen should follow while conducting normal activities of business.

85. Idea of Business Ethics caught the attention of Academics, Media and Business Firms at the end of …………. .
(a) First world war
(b) Second world war
(c) Cold war
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) The idea of business ethics caught the attention of academics, media and business firms by the end of cold war.

86. Following are the principles of business ethics –
(a) Under advantage
(b) Disrespect
(c) Honesty
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Principles of Business Ethics are as follows:

  • Honesty.
  • Integrity.
  • Promise Keeping.
  • Loyalty.
  • Fairness.
  • Concern for Others.
  • Respect for Others.
  • Law Abiding.
  • Commitment to Excellence. .
  • Leadership.
  • Reputation and Morale.
  • Accountability.

So, Honesty is one of the principle of Business Ethics.

87. Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 is named after which of the following experts?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Srnator Paul Sarbanes
(c) Michael Oxley
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) The Sarbanes – Oxley Act came into force in 2002 and was named after Senator Paul Sarbanes and Representative Michael Oxley, who were its main architect. Thus, option (d) is correct that is both (b) & (c).

88. Business ethics is a ……………….. norm.
(a) Pervasive
(b) Continuous
(c) Relative
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Business Ethics is a relative norm. It differs from business to business.

89. Which of the following is not an unethical business practice …………………. .
(a) Collusion
(b) Insider trading
(c) Kickback
(d) Whistle Blowing
Answer:
(c) Collusion, Insider Trading, Whistle Blowing are the reasons for an unethical practice but Kick back is not an unethical practice.

90. Which one of the following is a measure to improve ethical behaviour of business at societal level —
(a) Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar
(b) Mumbai Grahak Panchayat
(c) Ethical committee comprising of BOD.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Various organizations like Mumbai Grahak Panchayat Consumer Society of India etc. have been started by consumer groups to protect the interest of consumers and make them aware.

91. Which among the following is the vital factors in successful business strategy –
(a) Attracting and Retaining Talent
(b) Investor loyalty
(c) Customer satisfaction
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(c) Customer satisfaction is a vital factor in successful business strategy. Repeat purchases/orders and enduring relationship of mutual respect is essential for the success of the company. This is achieved by a company that adopts ethical practices.

92. When an employee exposes his employer’s wrong goings to others it is termed as
(a) Fraud
(b) Misrepresentation
(c) Mistake
(d) Whistle Blowing.
Answer:
(d) When an employee exposes his employer’s wrong doings to others, it is termed as whistle blowing, it is the process where a person informs on another or makes public disclosure of corruption or wrong doing.

93. Which one of the following is the recent case of unethical practice ?
(a) Satyam
(b) Auditing fraud
(c) Insider Trading
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Auditing practices and insider trading are types of ethics in business. Satyam is the recent case of unethical practice.

93. Write the expanded form of “EBEN” ?
(a) European Business Ethics Network
(b) European Behaviour Ethics Network
(c) Exact Business Ethics Network
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) European Business schools adopted business ethics after 1987 commencing with Europe Business Ethics Network (EBEN) in 1982.

94 The term ‘Business Ethics’ came into common use in the year.
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
Answer:
(c) The term “business ethics” came into common “use in the early 1970’s.

95. …………………. refers to the ‘code of conduct’.
(a) Code of practice
(b) Code of ethics
(c) Business ethics
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics refers to the ‘code of conduct’. Code of conduct is a set of principles and expectations that are considered binding on any person who is a member of a particular group.

96. Which amongst the following ethical issue is not related with ethics in finance.
(a) Fraudulent asset valuation
(b) Insider Trading
(c) Executive compensation
(d) Price fixing
Answer:
(d) Following are the ethical issues related with ethics in finance

  • Fraudulent asset valuations.
  • Insider trading, securities frauds leading to the manipulation of financial market
  • Executive compensation.
  • Over billing of expenses, facilitation payments.

Thus, Price fining is not an ethical issue related with ethics in finance.

97. What are the reasons for unethical business practices ?
(a) Greed for quick money
(b) Administrative corruption
(c) Cultural and social reason
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) Following are the reasons for unethical business practices

  • Greed for quick money.
  • Absence of well organised consumer movement.
  • No Government support.
  • Administrative corruption.
  • Cultural and social reason.

Thus, the answer is all of the above.

98. Measures to improve ethical behaviour of business are framed at which level ?
(a) Societal level
(b) Governmental level
(c) Institutional level
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) Measures to improve ethical behaviour of business are framed at

  • Institutional level
  • Government level
  • Societal level

Thus, the answer is all of the above.

99. The word ethics is derived from the word ‘ethos’ which means …………….. .
(a) way of living
(b) way of looking
(c) way of hearing
(d) way of speaking.
Answer:
(a) The term ethics is derived from the Greek word “ethos” which means “way of living”.

100. Ethics has application………………….. .
(a) Universal
(b) Continuous
(c) Rigid
(d) Limited.
Answer:
(a) Ethics is a code of conduct which businessmen should follow while conducting their normal activities or function. It is universally applicable and is a relative norm.

101. Which of the following is not related to ethics in marketing ?
(a) Price fixing
(b) Price discrimination
(c) Price skimming
(d) Over billing of expenses
Answer:
(d) Following are the ethical issues related to ethics in marketing

  • Pricing
  • Various anti-competitive practices
  • Various misleading advertisements
  • Black markets, grey markets.

Thus; Over billing of expenses is not an ethical issue related to ethics in marketing.

102. Which of the following action is an ethical practice?
(a) Harassment
(b) Refuse to grant leave, recording genuine reason in writing by the employer
(c) Corruption
(d) Discrimination by employer in treatment while dealing with employees.
Answer:
(b) Unethical practices include:

  • Harassment
  • Cultural and Social Reason
  • Greed for Quick Money
  • Administrative Corruption
  • Discrimination by employer in treatment while dealing with employees.

But refuse to grant leave, recording genuine reason in writing by the employer is an ethical practice.

103. Which of the following is/are correct statements ?
(a) Business ethics is not applicable is small business and industry
(b) Business ethics is not applicable to Government departments
(c) Business ethics is applicable to all types of businesses
(d) Business ethics is applicable to only few specified business by GOI.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics are code of conduct which businessman should follow while conducting their normal activities or function. It is universally applicable and is a relative norm.
Thus, it is correct to say that Business ethics is applicable to all types of business.

104. A/An …………………. is a moral situation in which a choice has to be made between two equally undesirable alternatives.
(a) Moral Problem
(b) Moral Obligation
(c) Ethical Confusion
(d) Ethical Dilemma.
Answer:
(d) An ethical Dilemma is a moral situation requiring a choice between equally undesirable alternatives, any difficult or perplexing situation or problem.

105. Which of the following ethical issue is related to finance?
(a) Abusing Co-workers
(b) Black Mailing
(c) Insider Trading
(d) Using of power and abusive language.
Answer:
(c) Ethical issue in finance that companies & employees are confronted with include:

  • fraudulent asset valuations
  • insider trading
  • executive compensation
  • over billing of expenses, facilitation payments.

106. The element which serves to provide employees with a means for reporting observed misconduct or violations without fear of reprisal is known as:
(a) Ethics Training
(b) Ethics Coach
(c) Strong Code of Ethics
(d) Systems for confidential reporting.
Answer:
(d) Key elements of business ethics includes system for confidential reporting: element which serves to provide employees with a means for reporting observed misconduct or violations without fear of reprisal.
This serves to further discourage ethical violations, while getting ‘ everyone involved.

107. Which of the following can be related as the benefits of behaving ethically by the businesses?
(a) Long term sustainability
(b) Goodwill lost
(c) Societal resistance
(d) High attrition rate.
Answer:
(a) Benefits of Behaving ethically by business are as follows:

  • Ethics works a great, deal in making long term, long last relationships.
  • Investor loyalty
  • Customer satisfaction
  • Far reaching concept

Hence, long term sustainability is correct answer.

108. Which ethical principle in business advocates equal treatment of all irrespective of caste, creed, gender or any other differences’?
(a) Justice and Fairness
(b) Ethics of Care
(c) Utilitarianism
(d) Rights and Duties.
Answer:
(a) Ethical principle in business, accordingly states fairness as, ethical persons are fair & just in all dealings, they manifest a.commitment to justice, the equal treatment of individuals, tolerance for and acceptance of diversity (such as, cast, creed, gender etc.)

109. A supplier of a component part has offered Karan’s family a free two- week cruise if his firm gets a very large order from karan’s company. The most ethical course of action for Karan to take would be to:
(a) Call the police
(b) Accept it if the part in question meets quality standards
(c) Politely turn it down and discuss the offer with his boss
(d) Ask around and see how his boss handled such offers previously.
Answer:
(c) In the business practices, greed for quick money is an unethical / behaviour for exploiting its consumer. In this case, Karan should politely turn the offer down and discuss the offer with his boss which shows his honesty, integrity, loyalty etc. towards his firm \which are the ethical principles in business and the most ethical course of action for Karan.

110. The records and operation of the organisations have to be made more transparent. The shareholders, employees and creditors of the firm should be aware of each and every financial decision taken by the firm. This statement can be attributed to which type of measure to improve ethical behaviour of business?
(a) Government level
(b) Global level
(c) Institutional level
(d) Societal level.
Answer:
(c) Some of the measures to improve ethical behaviour of business at institutional levels are:

  • The organisation should lay down code of conduct.
  • The records & operations of the organisation have to be made more transparent. The shareholders, employees and creditors of the firm should be aware of each & every financial decision taken by the firm.
  • The business units should reward those people vyho adhere to the code of conduct.
  • The organisation should set up machinery for continuous appraisal of ethical behaviour of employees etc.

111.  Activity to improve ethical behaviour by enacting various legislation is not taken at:
(a) Government level
(b) Institutional level
(c) Industrial level
(d) Societal level.
Answer:
(c) The other three levels i.e. Government level, institutional level, Societal level have laid down code of conduct and various , legislations to improve ethical behaviour.

112. Business ethics may be defined as a set of moral rules and principles to / protect the interest of:
(a) Industry as a whole
(b) Business unit ,
(c) Both Business unit & industry
(d) Employer.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics may be defined as a set of moral rules and principles to protect the interest of customer’s, employers, society, business unit and the industry as a whole.

113. ……………………………….. is doing the right thing even is nobody is watching.
(a) Promise keeping
(b) Effectiveness
(c) Efficiency
(d) Integrity.
Answer:
(d) Integrity is doing the right thing even if nobody is watching.

114. Which of the following’action indicate ethical practice on part of business?
(a) To promote harmful products
(b) To promote corruption
(c) To promote harmless products
(d) To promote aicohol.
Answer:
(c) Ethical practices includes actions and practices which are morally right and do not harm the welfare of society. For example promote products which are harmless etc.

115. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Ethics pays in long term
(b) Codes of ethics foster ethical, ethical behavior because they expand the opportunity to behave ethically
(c) Ethics is good for company
(d) Without a code of ethics or formal policy on ethics employees are likely to base their decisions on how their peers and superiors behave.
Answer:
(b) Code of ethics foster ethical behaviour because they expand the opportunity to behave ethically.

116. Aspiration of Indians to build a strong nation in a short time coupled with their Colonial legacy has led to two divergent strands of values. This can be attributed to which category of reasons for unethical behaviour?
(a) Cultural and Social reason
(b) Sanctions and Discriminations
(c) Greed for quick money
(d) Absence of well organised consumer movement.
Answer:
(a) The reason for unethical practices in India:-
Cultural and Social Reason:-
Indian people aspire to build a strong nation in a short time coupled with our colonial legacy has lead to two divergent stand of values: Traditionally idealized value and operative values.

117. Ethical executives …………………………. .
(a) Never delegate their authority
(b) Never use power
(c) Abuse power
(d) Do not exercise power arbitrarily.
Answer:
(d) Ethical executives are fair and just in all dealings, they do not exercise power arbitrarily.

118. Which of the following ethical issue is related to production?
(a) Black market
(b) Grey market
(c) Price discrimination
(d) None is applicable.
Answer:
(d) The ethical issues related to production are:

  • Defective, addictive and dangerous products
  • Ethical issues relating pollution and environmental ethics
  • Ethical problems arising out of new technology
  • Product testing ethics.

119. Which of the following can be related as the benefits of behaving ethically by the business?
(a) Societal resistance
(b) Goodwill lost
(c) High attrition rate
(d) Long term sustainability of business.
Answer:
(d) A business can prosper on the basis of ethical standards and it help to retain the business for long years:

120. Choose the Correct option:
(a) Regular’buyers generally accept material on credit
(b) Regular buyers generally do not accept material on credit
(c) Regular buyers generally do not maintain good relations with the seller company
(d) Regular buyers are generally avoided by the seller company.
Answer:
(a) Regular buyers generally accept material on credit.

121. Which of the following action indicate unethical practice on part of business?
(a) To reduce price of product
(b) To pay bonus
(c) To reduce cost of product
(d) To reduce safety standards in factory premises.
Answer:
(d) To reduce safety standards in factory premises indicate unethical practice on part of business as it will lead to decrease the trust of the employees in the organisation.

122. Which among the following is an example of unethical behaviour in an organisation?
(a) Bullying Employees
(b) Forcing them to work long hours
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Bullying employees and forcing them to work long hours is an example of unethical behaviour. Ethics is an attempt to guide human conduct and it is also an attempt to help man in leading good life by applying moral principles. But bullying the employees, forcing them to work is not right, this is against the principles and rules of ethics.

123. Which one of the following is the ethical activity:
(a) Loosing talks
(b) Employees using phones during their lunch break for appointment of doctor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Ethics refers to well based standards of right and wrong that prescribe what human ought to do, usually in terms of rights, obligations, benefits to society, fairness or specific virtue. ‘What is right’ is ‘ethical’ and ‘what is wrong’ is ‘unethical’. Using phone during lunch break is not unethical, it is ethical. Employees can use their phone during their lunch, because it is a break for employee and they are free to use their break.

124. Which of the following is the example of unethical practice in ethics in finance:
(a) Misleading financial analysis :
(b) Over billing
(c) Bribery
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(d) Following are unethical practices in finance:

  • Misleading financial analysis
  • Insider trading
  • Executive Compensation
  • Bribery, kickbacks, over billing of expenses
  • Fake reimbursements

Thus, all are unethical practices in finance.

125. Which of the following is unethical practice:
(a) Harassment
(b) Misuse of minutes
(c) Theft of stock
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) Unethical Practices includes:

  • Harassment
  • Cultural and Social reason
  • Greed for Quick Money
  • Administrative Corruption
  • Discrimination by Employer in treatment while dealing with employees.

All these are unethical practices. Thus, the answer is option (d).

126. Code of conduct is followed by:
(a) Code of ethics
(b) Only (a)
(c) Code of unethical practice
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) Code of Conduct is also called code of ethics. It comprises of three elements:

  • Code of Ethics
  • Code of Conduct
  • Statement of Values.

It is a written document, inspirational in contents and specifies clearly what is acceptable or unacceptable behaviour in workplace. Thus, it is followed by both code of ethics and code of unethical practices.

127. Which of the following ethics is concerned with meaning of philosophical language and moral proposing:
(a) Virtue ethics
(b) Political ethics
(c) Normative ethics
(d) Meta ethics
Answer:
(a) Virtue Ethics is often viewed as a separate branch in itself. Although it is clearly normative as well, virtue ethics is distinguished from other forms of normative ethics because it is concerned with possessing moral traits, living a good, philosophical language and moral proposing.

128. What is the meaning of “Whistle Blowing”: .
(a) Disclosure Corruption
(b) Brevity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The Process where a person informs about another misdoing or make a public disclosure of corruption or wrong doing, is called whistleblowing.

129. Which of the following is /are the elements of ethics:
(a) Formal code of conduct
(b) Ethics Communication
(c) Ethics Committee
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) Elements of Ethics:

  • Formal Code of Conduct
  • Ethics Committee
  • Ethical Communication
  • An Ethics office with ethical officers
  • Ethics Training Programme
  • A Disciplinary System
  • Establishing an Ombuds Person
  • Monitoring

Thus, all are the elements of ethics. The answer is option (d).

130. Why business should behave ethically?
(a) To exist in a competitive environment
(b) To keep its commitments
(c) To protect their employee
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) Business should behave ethically:

  • To exist in a competitive market
  • To keep its commitments made to society
  • To meet the stakeholders expectation
  • To build the trust with key-stakeholder group
  • To protect their employees and their reputation
  • To protect its own interest as well as of the business community as a whole

131. Ethics is derived from:
(a) Ethos
(b) Mores
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) The word ‘ethics’ is derived from Greek word ethds (character) and from latin word ‘mores’ (customs).

132. Which of the following can be reLated as the benefits of behaving ethically by the businesses?
(a) High attention rate
(b) Societal resistance
(c) Goodwill lost
(d) Long term sustainability of business.
Answer:
(d) Long term sustainablilty of business can be related as the benefits ot behaving ethicaily by the businesses. It is generally viewed that good business ethics piomote good business and thereby it helps to retain the business f0r long years.

133. Which of the following can be cited as incidents of unethical business activity?
(a) Unfair competitive practices In the computer Industry
(b) Deceptive advertising of medicines and toys
(c) Error and fraud
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) Unfair competiting practices, deceptive advertising of medicines and toys, errors and fraud these all are cited as incidents of unethical business activity as it hurts the interest and rights of society and – exploits the consumer.

134. Ethical executives …………… .
(a) harass subordinates
(b) are not carried away with undue influence
(c) bribe official
(d) invite any conflict of interest.
Answer:
(b) Ethical executives are not carried away with undue influence as it is an unethical act and a good end cannot be attained with wrong means, even if it is beneficial.

135. Which of the following action indicate ethical practice on part of business?
(a) Using imported raw material, when there is no need
(b) Using recycled raw material
(c) Using raw material which create environmental pollution
(d) Using raw material of substandard quality.
Answer:
(b) Using recycled raw material indicate ethical practice on part of business being an ethical decision making which allow to correctly provide solutions to any of the objective confronted with.

136. Which of the following action indicate ethical practice on part of busness?
(a) To promote harmful poeducts
(b) To promote alcohol
(c) To promote corruption
(d) To promote harmless products.
Answer:
(d) To promote harmless products indicate ethical practice on part of business as it provide an ability to assess the benefits and problems associated in different ways.

137. The reason for a business to behave unethically could be:
(a) Sustainability
(b) Long term commitments with customers
(c) Tax evasions
(d) Administrative reforms.
Answer:
(c) The reason for a business to behave unethically could be tax evasions as these malpractices have a potential to inflict enormous harm on individuals, on communities and economic development.

138. The process where a person makes public disclosure of corruption or wrong doing is known as:
(a) Whistle blowing
(b) Presa release
(c) Shouting
(d) Ethical surveillance.
Answer:
(a) The process where a person makes public disclosure of corruption or wrong doings is known as whistle blowing. According to W. Wilson, anything that is being done or to be done, should be brought to the knowledge of everyone. If everyone knows, none gets opportunity to do an unethical act.

139. Business Ethics is based on well accepted ………………… values.
(a) Legal and moral
(b) Moral and social
(c) Social and legal
(d) Social and cultural.
Answer:
(b) Business ethics is based on well accepted moral and social values. It studies what is morally right or wrong, just or unjust and on the other side it aims at individual good as well as social good, the good of the mankind as a whole.

140. Business ethics is a set of:
(a) Moral rules
(b) Principles
(c) Values
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) Business ethics is a set of moral values, principles and values. Thus, it is also regarded as science of the highest good. It determines rightness or wrongness of actions.

141. Which of the following ethical issues is related to marketing?
(a) Issues affecting the privacy of the employer-whistle blowing
(b) Accounting fraud
(c) Issues affecting the privacy of the employee-worlplace surveillance, drug testing .
(d) Misleading advertising.
Answer:
(d) Marketing ethics is the area of applied ethics which deals with the moral principles behind the operation and regulation of marketing. One of the ethical issues confronted in this area is misleading advertisement.

142. Which of the following economies tends to have a moie effective capital market than the rest?
(a) Developed
(b) Emerging
(c) Expensive
(d) Developing.
Answer:
(a) Developed economies tends to have a more effective capital market than the rest i.e. emerging, developing economies as such because of practices of managing business operation in economic and political environment which makes rooms to actively trade and invest.

143. One of the most critical ethical issues faced in human resources is:
(a) Insider Trading
(b) Affirmative action
(c) Fraudulent asset valuations
(d) Product testing ethics.
Answer:
(b) The issues of ethics faced by HRM are:

  • Discrimination issues
  • Sexual Harassment
  • Affirmative Action
  • Issues surrounding the representation of employees and democratization of the workplace, Tradestation.
  • Issues affecting Privacy of Employee, Workplace Surveillance, Drug testing.
  • Issues affecting privacy of the employer: Whistle blowing
  • Issues relating to fairness of employment contract and balance of power between employer and employee.
  • Occupational safety and health.

144. The reason for a business to behave unethically could be:
(a) Long term commitments with customers
(b) Sustainability
(c) Tax Evasions
(d) Administrative reforms.
Answer:
(c) Reasons for business to behave unethically:

  • Greed for Quick Money
  • No Government Support
  • Administrative Corruption
  • Cultural and Social Reason
  • Tax Evasion
  • Other fears (fear of retrenchment, sanctions and government policies)

145. You work as a manager of camp that runs adventure holidays for children. During their holidays, children take part in activities such as rock climbing under the direction of instructors who are employed by you. Observing strict safety standards is of paramount importance, since the lives of children and instructors are potentially at risk. Which of the following action will be considered as ethical?
(a) To scold the instructor publically
(b) To check instructors qualification and skill at the time of joining
(c) To change the instructors once in a month so that they can work without emotional attachment
(d) To introduce fandom drug and alcohol testing for instructorto ensure that their ability to fulfill their role is not impaired.
Answer:
(b) Scolding the instructor publicly, Changing the instructor on regular basis or without prior information
Introducing random drug tests for instructor All of the above are unethical practices.

146. In general, ethics are related to:
(a) Business only
(b) Few aspects of life only
(c) Every aspect of life
(d) Few categories of business only.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics reflects the philosophy of business, one of whose aim is to determine the fundamental purpose of a company ethics is related to every aspect of our life. In today’s world of scams, frauds, corruptions due to cut-throat competition, it is essential for new entrants to ensure that they adhere to the basic ethical standards.

147. Which of the following can be related to as the benefits of behaving ethically by the businesses?
(a) Societal resistance
(b) Goodwill lost
(c) High attention rate
(d) Long term sustainability of business.
Answer:
(d) A business can prosper on the basis of good ethical standards and it helps to retain the business for long years.

148. Activity to improve ethical behaviour by giving rewards is taken at:
(a) Industry level
(b) Institutional level
(c) Government level
(d) Societal level.
Answer:
(b) Ethical behaviour at institutional level includes:

  • The organisations should lay down code of conduct
  • The business units should reward people
  • Should set up machinery for continuous appraisal
  • The operations should have to be made more transparent.

149. Thelollowing behaviour is an example of ethical consideration within business relationships.
(a) Avoiding obligations
(b) Shirking responsibilities
(c) Setting a poor example for others
(d) Keeping company secrets.
Answer:
(d) Business ethics also recognised that the world of business raised new and unprecedented moral problems not covered by personal systems of morality.
Common-sense morality is sufficient to govern judgements about stealing from your employer, cheating customers and tax fraud.

150. Which of the following action indicate ethical practice on part of business?
(a) Expecting worker to work for specified hours in pleasant conditions
(b) Expecting worker to work for any duration any time the employer wants
(c) Expecting worker to work for more than specified hours even if it is not so desired
(d) Expecting worker to work for very long hours in unpleasant conditions.
Answer:
(a) Managing interests of employees in business is covered under ethics of HRM. It includes ethical issues arising around the employer-employee relationship, such as the rights and duties owed between employer and employee.
Thus, expecting worker to work for specified hours in pleasant conditions is the ethical behavior expected on behalf of business.

151. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?
(a) Business ethics is not applicable to small business and industry
(b) Business ethics is applicable to only few specified business by GOI
(c) Business ethics is applicable to all types of business
(d) Business ethics is not applicable to Government departments.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics is concerned with the behaviour of a businessman in doing a business. Unethical practices create problems to businessmen as well as business units. Business ethics is applicable to all types of business.

152. ………………………. is doing the right thing, even if nobody is watching.
(a) Promise keeping
(b) Effectiveness
(c) Integrity
(d) Efficiency.
Answer:
(c) Integrity is doing the right thing even if nobody is watching.

153. Which of the following is/are correct statements?
(a) Ethics leads to business sustainability
(b) Ethics are enforceable
(c) Ethics is useless
(d) Business ethics are the same as legal issues.
Answer:
(a) Business ethics is concerned with the behavior of a businessman in doing a business. Business ethics may be defined as a set of moral rules and principles to protect the interest of customers, employers, society, business unit itself and the industry as a whole.

154. Which of the following can be related as the benefits of behaving ethically by the businesses from the stakeholders perspective?
(a) High attention rate
(b) Societal welfare
(c) Un-sustainability of business
(d) Goodwill lost.
Answer:
(b) Business ethics is nothing but the application of ethics in business. Business ethics is the application of general ethical ideas to business behaviour. Ethical business behaviour facilitates and promotes good to society, improves profitability, fosters business relations and employee productivity.

The social responsibility of a business requires the observing of business ethics. A business man should not ignore the business ethics while assuming social responsibility. Thus, from the stakeholders point of view the societal welfare is related as the benefits of behaving ethically.

155. A/An …………………………. is a moral situation in which a choice has to be made between two equally undesirable alternatives.
(a) Ethical dilemma
(b) Moral problems
(c) Moral obligation
(d) Ethical confusion.
Answer:
(a) An ethical dilemma is a situation where one is in conflict between moral imperatives. Often rejecting either solution has major consequences. It is also known as ethical paradox or moral dilemma. Ethical dilemma is any situation in which guiding moral principles cannot determine which course of action is right or wrong. To obey one action, would result in transgressing another. Thus, option a is correct.

156. Which of the following action is an ethical practice?
(a) Unauthorised disclosure of confidential information and intellectual property of company by employee to competitors
(b) Unauthorised disclosure of confidential information and intellectual property of company by ex-employee to competitor
(c) Bribing
(d) None is ethical.
Answer:
(d) Business Ethics or Ethical standards are the principles, practices and philosophies that guide the business people in the day to day business decisions. Business ethics are the principles, which govern and guide business people to perform business functions and in that sense business ethics is a discipline. Thus, option d is correct.

157. Which of the following action indicate ethical practice on part of a business organisation?
(a) Treating people roughiy
(b) Behaving in an erratic manner
(c) Treating fairly and behaving honestly
(d) None is ethical.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics may be defined as a set of moral rules and principles to protect the interest of customers, employers, society, business unit itself and the industry as a whole. Thus, option c is correct.

158. One of the most critical ethical issues faced in human resource is:
(a) Fraudulent asset valuations
(b) Insider trading
(c) Product testing ethics
(d) Affirmative action.
Answer:
(d) Human Resource Management (HRM) plays a decisive role in introducing and implementing ethics. Ethics should be a pivotal issue for HR specialists. The ethics of human resource management (HRM) covers those ethical issues arising around the employer-employee relationship, such as the rights and duties owed between employer and employee. The issues of ethics faced by HRM therefore, include affirmative action.

159. Which of the following action indicate unethical practice on part of a business organisation?
(a) Engage worker to-work in factory without hygiene condition
(b) Engage worker to work in factory without safety standards
(c) Engage worker to work in factory on Sunday without compensatory holiday
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) The concept of business ethics has come to mean various things to various people, but generally it’s coming to know what it right or , wrong in the workplace and doing what’s right – this is in regard to effects of products/ services and in relationships with stakeholders.
Business ethics is concerned with the behavior of a businessman in doing a business. Unethical practices are creating problems to businessman and business units. Thus, option d is correct.

160. What can be underlying principles of ethical decision making?
(a) Leadership
(b) Esteem
(c) Honesty and integrity
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics can help to improve ethical decision making by providing managers with the appropriate knowledge and tools that ‘ allow them to correctly identify, diagnose, analyse, and provide solutions to the ethical problems and dilemmas they are confronted with. In a nutshell, the principle of ethical decision making is the honesty and integrity.

161. The intent of Business or Corporate Ethics is to:
(a) Balance the desire of businesses to maximise profits against the needs of all stakeholders.
(b) Guide the business to earn profits without harming individuals or society or natural environment as a whole.
(c) Promote a ‘code of conduct’ which everyone in an organisation are expected to follow while dealing with others.
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) Business ethics provides an ethical framework for evaluating business and the corporate world. Business ethics is nothing but the application of ethics in business. Business ethics is the application of general ethical ideas to business behavior. Ethical business j behavior facilitates and promotes good to society, improves profitability, fosters business relations and employee productivity.

162. Ethical executives ………….. .
(a) Adapt value based approach
(b) Do not take undue advantage of other’s mistake
(c) Stop others from committing mistake
(d) All the Stated options are correct.
Answer:
(d) Ethical Executive adapt:

  • a value based approach
  • Do not take undue Advantage
  • Stop others from committing mistake.

163. Ethics is a set of principles or standards of human conduct that govern the behaviour of:
(a) Individuals
(b) Organizations
(c) Both individuals and organizations
(d) Neither individuals nor organizations.
Answer:
(c) Ethics is a set of principles or standards of human conduct that Governs the behaviour of Individual and Organisation Both.

164. The measures to improve ethical behaviour of business does not include:
(a) Monitoring
(b) Formal code of conduct
(c) Avoidance
(d) Ethics committee.
Answer:
(c) Measures to improve ethics:

  • Formal code of conduct.
  • Ethics committee
  • Ethics communication
  • Ethics office
  • Ethics training programme
  • A Disciplinary programme.
  • Establishing an Ombuds person.
  • Monitoring

165. Which of the following action indicates ethical practice on part of business?
(a) To promote corruption
(b) To promote alcohol
(c) To promote harmless products
(d) To promote harmful products.
Answer:
(c) Promotion of harmless product is an ethical practice on the part of business.

166. The intent of business or corporate ethics is to:
(a) Balance the desire of businesses to maximize profits against the needs of all the stakeholders.
(b) Guide the business to earn profits without harming individuals or society and natural environment as a whole
(c) Promote a code of conduct which everyone in an organisation are expected to follow while dealing with others
(d) All are applicable.
Answer:
(d) The object of business or corporate ethics.

  • Balance the desire of business people to maximise profit against the needs of stakeholder.
  • Guide the business to earn profit without, harming.
  • Promote a code of conduct.

167. Business Ethics is based on well accepted values
(a) moral and social
(b) legal and moral
(c) social and legal
(d) social and cultural
Answer:
(a) Business ethics is based on well accepted Moral and Social Values.

168. “A company’s reputation for ethical behavior can help it create a more positive image in the market place, which can bring in new customers through word – of – month referrai’s. Commonly, a reputation for unethical dealings, hurt’s the company’s chances to obtain new customers, particularly in this age of social networking when dissatisfied customers can quickly disseminate information about the negative experience they had.” Which of the following point is most relevant topic of ethics for paragraph subject matter?
(a) Business ethics is market gimmicks
(b) Ethical behavior tends to market failure
(c) Customer loyalty as advantage of business ethics
(d) Build customer loyalty is disadvantage of ethics.
Answer:
(c) Advantages of Business Ethics include customer satisfaction and investor loyalty.
In today’s world, Ethical Business practice may increase the prospective customer by the referral by satisfied customer whereas unethical practice may hurt such chances.

169. Which of the following action is an unethical practice?
(a) Use of unethical or illegal practices to collect any competitive information.
(b) Offering or taking bribe or illegal payment
(c) Harassment
(d) All are unethical.
Answer:
(d) Unethical Practical include-

  • Offering and Taking Bribe
  • Harassment
  • Wrong practice to collect information.

170. Which of the fallowing ethical issue is related to marketing?
(a) Manipulation of financial market
(b) Issues relating to the fairness of the employment contract and the balance of power between employer and employee
(c) Accounting Fraud
(d) None is applicable.
Answer:
(d) Ethical issue in marketing-

  • Pricing
  • Anti Competitive Practice
  • Misleading Advertisement
  • Children and Marketing
  • Black or Grey Market.

171. The main reason why business behave i nethically can be majority stated as follows:
(a) Sustainability
(b) Greed for quick money
(c) Tax regulations
(d) Administrative Reforms
Answer:
(b) Greed for quick money is one of the reasons due to which business use unethical practice.

172. The Idea of business caught the attention of academics, Media and business firms by the end of:
(a) First world war
(b) Second world war
(c) Cold war
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Business grown rapidly at the end of cold war as the idea of business caught the attention of academics, media and business firms by end of cold war.

173. Providing Information about the law enforcement to regulatory agencies of a business is illegal or improper activity by its employees’ is …………………. .
(a) Ethical wrong
(b) Whistle blowing
(c) Ethical dilemma
(d) Ethical wonder.
Answer:
(a) Information related to illegal or improper activities by its employee’s provide to the enforcement of regulatory agencies is known, as whistle blowing.

174. Which of the following is not correct about business ethics?
(a) Business ethics is a universal and absolute concept
(b) Business ethics is based on will accepted moral and social values
(c) Business ethics is a Code of Conduct which businessman should follow while conducting their normal activities ‘
(d) Business ethics give protection to customers and other social groups related to a Firm.
Answer:
(a) Business ethics is based on well accepted Social Values and also Moral Values, these are Code of Conduct and give protection to customers and other groups related to firms but they are not followed in whole world and it is not an absolute concept.

175. To be successful business ethics and training program need to:
(a) Be focused on personal opinion of employees
(b) Be limited to higher management
(c) Educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and modals of ethical decision making
(d) Promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions.
Answer:
(c) Business ethics and training programmes need to educate employees on general ethical frameworks and Models of ethical decision nominating if they want to be successful.

176. When a firm charges different prices from different groups of customers, it may be accused of:
(a) Cultural Relativism
(b) Money laundering
(c) Facilitating payments
(d) Price discrimination.
Answer:
(d) Price Discrimination means different prices from different customers charges by firms and price discrimination exists in monopoly market mainly.

177. Codes of Conduct and Codes of ethics :
(a) Are formal statement that describe what an organisation expects of its employees
(b) Become necessary only after a company has been in legal trouble
(c) Are designed for top executives and managers and not for regular employers
(d) Rarely become an effective component at the ethics and compliance program.
Answer:
(a) There are formal statements i.e. Codes of Conduct and ethics which describe what will be expected from employees by its organisation.

178. Ethics is:
(a) Positive in nature
(b) Normative in nature
(c) Subjective in nature
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Normative is referred to what is ought to be, that is also implemented while performing Ethics, hence Ethics is normative in nature.

179. Which ethics has a choice to choose good or bad?
(a) Ethics of dilemma
(b) Ethics of code of conduct
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
Answer:
(a) Ethics of dilemma: It is a situation when one is in conflict between moral imperatives (that what is good and what is bad).

180. “Ethics” is derived from Greek word:
(a) Ethinic
(b) Ethical
(c) Ethicos/Ethos
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(c) Ethics is derived from the greek word Ethikos or Ethos meaning Customs or character.

181. The rules or principle that define right or wrong conduct are known as …………………. .
(a) Ethics
(b) Customer Satisfaction
(c) Ethical conflict
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) The rules or principles that define right or wrong conduct are known as ‘Ethics’.

182. An activity is probably ethical if –
(a) It is approved of by most individuals in the organisation and is customary in the Industry.
(b) It is approved by most individuals in the organisation.
(c) It is customary in the Industry.
(d) It is legal.
Answer:
(d) An activity is probably ethical if it is a legal act not an illegal act. Therefore, a legal activity is an ethical activity.

183. ……………………………. also serves to inform employees of the vision that the company’s executives have for the company’s image and goals.
(a) Customer Feedback
(b) Code of Ethics
(c) Ethics coach
(d) Mission
Answer:
(b) ‘Code of Ethics’, also serves to inform employees of the vision that company’s executive have for the company’s image and goals.

184. Investors are concerned about of the company in which they invest.
(a) Ethics, Social responsibility and reputation
(b) Employees
(c) Executive compensation
(d) Only profitability
Answer:
(a) Investors are concerned about – ‘Ethics, Social Responsibility and reputation’ of the company in which they invest.

185. The ethics in human resource management cover those ethical issues arising around the –
(a) Society-employer relationship
(b) Customer – employees relationship
(c) Employer – State relationship
(d) Employer – employees relationship.
Answer:
(d) The ethics in Human Resource Management covers those ethical issues arising around the employer – employees relationship.

186. Price Skimming is an ethical issue covered under …………………………. .
(a) Ethics in Compliance
(b) Ethics in Marketing
(c) Ethics in Finance
(d) Ethics in Production.
Answer:
(b) Price Skimming is an ethical issues covered under ethics in marketing.

187. Anti-Competitive practices include –
(a) Insider trading
(b) Grey markets
(c) Employment of child labour in production activities
(d) Tie-in arrangements
Answer:
(d) Anti competitive practices include Tie-in arrangements.

188. A situation requiring a choice between equally undesirable alternatives; any difficult or perplexing situation or problem is known as –
(a) Trivial
(b) Cognition
(c) Dilemma
(d) Veteran
Answer:
(c) Dilemma is a situation requiring a choice between equally undesirable alternatives; any difficult or perplexing situation or problem.

189. Spending money on restoring the environment, affected out of products of inherently dangerous nature are known as –
(a) Business Ethics
(b) Corporate Philanthropy
(c) Whistle Blowing
(d) Corporate Leadership
Answer:
(a) ‘Business Ethics’ are known as where money is spend on restoring the environment, affected out of products of inherently dangerous nature.

190. Mohan joined a company as Chief Finance Officer (CFO). He observed that the company is involved in concealing tax and engaged in other malpractices. He brought this fact to the notice of the Income Tax Authorities. This action of Mohan would be termed as –
(a) Cartelisation
(b) Misconduct
(c) Ethical wrong
(d) Whistle blowing.
Answer:
(d) This action of Mohan will be whistle blowing because he did not consult the situation as case to the board and directly hit it to the income tax authority.

191. Getting things done through with people:
(a) Koontz O Donnel
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Hick
(d) Haiman
Answer:
(a) Koontz and O’ Donnell’ state that management means, “Getting things done through and with people”.

192. Which condition creates the Ethical Dilemma?
(a) Is all the stakeholders interest getting protected
(b) Is the company’s profit increasing
(c) Is the company’s business activities increasing
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(a) An ethical dilemma is a situation where one is in conflict between moral imperatives.
Dimensions of Ethical Dilemmas are –

  • Choice between equally undesirable alternatives
  • Different courses of action possible
  • Can be resolved not solved
  • There is no ‘right’ of ‘wrong’ etc „

So that all the stakeholders interest are protected.

193. Ethics is derived from which word?
(a) French
(b) German
(c) Greek
(d) Latin
Answer:
(c) The term ethics is derived from the Greek word ‘ethos’ which itself is derived from the Greek word ethos, meaning custom or characters.

194. Ethical executives are:
(a) Real In business
(b) Worthy
(c) Worthy of trust
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(c) Ethics offices are to be established to communicate and implement ethics policies among employees of the organization. The ethics officer should develop a reputation for credibility, integrity, honesty and worthy of trust etc.

195. ……………………….. is a person which informs about another misdoings or public disclosure of corruption or wrong doing.
(a) Ombuds person
(b) Whistle blowing
(c) Ethical person
(d) Company Secretary
Answer:
(b) A whistle blower is a person who exposes secretive information or activity that is deemed illegal, unethical, or not correct within a private or public organization. Two other classifications of whistle blowing are private and public.

196. ………………. are established to communicate and implement ethics policies among employees of organisation.
(a) Ethic officer
(b) Ethic committee
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(a) Ethics officers are to be established to communicate and implement ethics policies among employees of the organization. For this purpose ethics officers is to be appointed.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Business Functions – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Business Functions – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Introduction:

  • A Process or operation that is performed routinely to carry out a part of the mission of an organisation.
  • “Business has only two functions – Marketing and Innovation”
  • It is also known as business process or operation.
  • It refers to the routine activities carried out in an organisation in order to produce a product or to provide a service, thereby helping an organisation to achieve its mission.
  • It involves division of labour among persons or departments.
  • While carrying out the various business functions, the following points need to be considered.
  • It represents what work has been done by the organisation. This concept is used in organisation architecture domain.

(i) Strategy:

  • This term ordinarily means something that has to do with war and deception of an enemy.
  • It is derived from Greek word ‘Strategos’ meaning ‘the act of the general.
  • A company’s strategy consists of the combination of competitive moves and business approaches that managers employ to please customers, compete successfully and achieve organisational objectives.
  • “Strategy is the direction and scope of an organisation over the long term which achieves advantages for the organisation through its configuration of resources within a challenging environment to meet the need of markets and to fulfill shareholder’s expectations.”
  • It represents the managerial response to changes in business environment

It possess the following features:

  • Their formulation is done by top management.
  • Their execution is done by middle and lower management.
  • Explains managers the way to respond to the changing business environment.
  • Effective mobilisation of resources.
  • Helps in achieving objectives.
  • It is specialized planning to retaliate competitors.
  • It redefines direction toward common effort.

Various types of strategies include:
(a) Corporate Strategy: It is concerned with overall business scope and purpose. It is stated in a Mission Statement.

(b) Business Unit Strategy: It is concerned with a particular business unit competing in a specific business environment. It considers decisions regarding choice of product,
competitive advantage, new opportunities, etc.

(c) Operational Strategy: It involves organising each part of business to deliver the above two strategies. It focuses on resources, people, process etc.

(ii) Business Location:

  • It relates to the decision about locating a new business.
  • ‘Virtual business’ is the business done from home without setting it up anywhere else.

Various factors affecting it are:
(a) Communication: It involves various forms of communication media as well as the transport facilities.

(b) Suppliers: Business supplier of any raw material must be closely related in order to reduce the cost.

(c) Labour: Business which is labour intensive is preferred to be situated in area of low wages labours.

(d) Government Assistance: Government provides various loans and subsidies for setting up new business in some backward areas.

(e) Market, Customer & Population: A start-up may need to be located near particular centers of population.
Example : If the product is for an old aged people then it is important to be located where there is a sufficient population of such people.

“Some poorer areas of UK are known as ‘Assisted areas’
Example : Wales, North-East England etc.”

(f) Type of Population: Business should be located in the market where the population is of the kind for which its product is meant.

(iii) Decision Making:

  • It might be regarded as a problem solving activity which is terminated, when a satisfactory solution is reached.
  • It refers to an emotional, mental or reasoning process which involves selection of best course of action among the available alternatives.
  • It can be rational or irrational.
  • It can be based on explicit or tacit assumptions.

This is extended form of planning Hence, it is only efficient when it is supported by process of planning.

(iv) Government Policy:

  • Some models of business ignore government.
  • Various government policies in form of legislative restrictions, and regulations must be adhered to while carrying out various business functions.
  • Various business functions are discussed here after.

Planning:
“The process of planning covers a wider range of activities, all the way from initially sensing that something needs doing to firmly deciding who does what when…. It is more than logic or imagination of judgement. It is a combination of all these that culminates in a decision – a decision about what should be done.

The decision phase of planning is so important that we shall use the expression ‘decision-making’ as a synonym of planning.” “The planning function determines organisational objectives and the policies, programmes, schedules, procedures, and methods for achieving them. Planning is essentially decision-making since it involves choosing among alternatives and it also encompasses innovation. Thus, planning is the process of making decisions on any phase of organised activity.”

  • “Chance favors the prepared mind.”
  • It refers to mapping out exactly various steps that are required to achieve a.particular goal of an enterprise.
  • It is a primary function of Management.
  • It is an intellectual process that involves determination of a particular course of action.
  • The main principle of planning is that adequate planning or mental effort must take place.

Budgetary Control:
1. Budget: A Budget is a device used for managerial control. Mathematical and quantitative presentation of your goals in a tabular manner.

2. Budgeting: This process initiates with the establishment of specific targets of performance and is followed by executing plans to achieve such desired goals and comparing actual results with the targets of performance/goals from time to time. Budgeting is the formulation of plans for a given future period in numerical terms.

3. “Budgetary control: Budgets are quantitative statements that prescribe standards, set in advance.
“The establishment of budgets relating the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of a policy, and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by individual action the objective of that policy, or to provide a basis for its revision.”

Institute of Cost & Management Accountant (ICMA)
It has following features:

  • Prepared for a future time period.
  • Prepared for attaining some pre-determined objectives.
  • Financial and for quantitative statement.
  • Its components are- Income, Expenditure and Capital Employment.
  • It is goal oriented.

Types of Budget
(I) Based on time:

Long-term budget: The budget designed by management for a long-term (i.e. 3 to 10 years)
Short-term budget: Budget which is prepared for a period ranging from 1 to 3 years.

(II) Based on capacity:

Fixed budget: The budget remains constant regardless of the level of activity, is called as fixed budget.
Flexible budget: The budget which changes with the change in level of activities is a flexible budget. It identifies the fixed cost, semi-variable cost and variable cost, to show the expected results at different volumes.

(III) Based on scope:
(i) Functional Budget:

  • Sales Budget : Budget used to determine, quantity of anticipated sales and expected selling price per unit.
  • Production Budget : It is prepared to indicate the production for the specified period and is expressed in the units of output produced.
  • Materials Budget : The budget prepared ‘to show the quantities of direct material’ and ‘raw material required to manufacture the finished product.
  • Purchase Budget : Budget is designed to estimate the quantity and value of different items to be bought at different points of time, considering the production schedule and inventory required.
  • Cash Budget : It highlights the cash needed by the business in a specified period.

(ii) Master Budget: It is an integrated budget that reflects the estimated profit and loss and financial position. It is created after functional budget by financial officer.

(IV) Based on receipts and expenditure:

  • Capital budget: Budget takes into account the estimated capital receipts and expenditure for a specific period.
  • Revenue budget: The budget that covers all the revenue receipts and expenses of a particular financial year.

It provides following advantages to a business enterprise:

  • Helps in attainment of pre-determined organisational goals.
  • Optimum allocation and utilisation of resources.
  • Facilitates management by exception.
  • Source of motivation to employees.
  • Helps in achieving co-ordination among various departments.
  • It focuses on specific and time bound targets.

Research and Development:

  • Popularly referred as ‘R & D’
  • Research is required in order to develop and/or improve products and methods.
  • R & D plays a vital role in maintaining the business.
  • Research may either be pure research or applied research.
  • Pure/Basic/Fundamental Research increases knowledge and have no immediate or direct commercial value.
  • Applied Research aims at producing definite results.

Finance:

  • It is the lifeblood of an organisation.
  • It can be simply stated as money.
  • It represents short-terms and long-term requirements of any organisation.
  • Business Finance: refers to the money required for carrying out the business activities.

Financial management:
Definition of finance : “Finance may be defined as that administrations area or set of administrative functions in an organisation may have the means of carrying out its objectives as satisfactorily as possible.”

Definition of Business Finance : “Business finance include those business activities which are concerned with the acquisition and conversion Of capital funds in meeting the financial needs and overall objectives of business enterprise.” “Financial management is the activity concerned with planning raising, controlling and administering of funds used in the business.”

“Financial management is that area of business management devoted to a judicious use of capital and a careful selection of source of capital in order to enable a spending unit to more in the direction of reaching its goals.”

“Financial management is the operational activity of a business that is responsible for obtaining and effectively utilising the funds necessary for efficient operations.”

  • Financial Management : refers to the management of limited financial resources that the organisation has to its utmost advantage.
  • Financial Management aims at reducing the cost of finance.
  • It does not involves only fund raising but involves as to how these funds are most effectively utilised.

Nature Significance and Scope of Financial Management : Generally it should be seen that finance is arranged at the lowest possible cost for the business. Then we can say that more economically the finances is availed, better it will be for the business.
Business Functions – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes IMG 1
Such decision are required to be taken in the interests of the shareholders.

Financing Decisions:

  • It refers to raising of finance from long term and short term sources.
  • Capital Structure Decisions relates to raising finance from long term sources.
  • Working Capital Decisions relates to raising finance from short term sources.
  • Funds can be raised from external sources like shares, debentures etc.
  • It can also be raised from internal sources like retained earning.
  • Cost of raising finance has to be opted for before selecting any source.

Investment Decisions:

  • It refers to deciding the amount of investment out of the available finance on long term or short term basis.
  • Capital Budgeting refers to investing funds for long term i.e. in fixed assets.
  • Working Capital Management refers to investing funds for short term i.e. current assets.
  • Reversal of capital budgeting decisions is riot possible since it involve huge capital outflow.

Dividend Decisions:

  • A decision determining the division of earning between payment of dividend to shareholders and retained earning.
  • It refers to deciding the part of profits to be distributed as dividend to the shareholders.
  • Shareholders demand higher dividend.
  • Management wants to retain higher profit for business needs.
  • Thus, management is required to make an appropriate dividend policy.
  • Financial Planning: Refers to pre-estimation of financial needs of an organisation to ensure the availability of right amount of finance at right time.
  • Excess funds add to cost of financing.
  • Deficit funds does not allows the firm to honor its commitments timely.

Supply Chain Management (SCM):

  • By sharing data upstream (with a company’s suppliers) and downstream (with a company’s client) SCM application have potential to improve time to market, reduce costs, and allow all parties in supply chain to better manage current resource and plan for future needs.
  • It refers to the process of planning, implementing, and controlling the operations of the supply chain with the purpose to satisfy customer requirements as efficiently as possible.
  • It spans movement and storage of raw materials, work in progress inventory and finished goods from point of origin to point of consumption.
  • It integrates flow within and among the companies.
  • Its aim is to reduce the inventory in order to lower the holding cost.
  • Web based Application Service Providers (ASP) provides all the SCM services to companies.

It involves 3 flows:

  • Product Flow : It means movement of goods from supplier to customer or vice-versa.
  • Information flow : It means transmission of orders and updating of delivery status.
  • Finance Flow : It means various payment schedules, terms of payment, credit terms etc.

It involves use of 2 software

  • Planning Application : It involves uses of advanced algorithms to determine the best way to fill and order.
  • Execution Application : It involves track of physical status of goods, material management and other financial information.

It has the following objectives:

  • Increasing efficiency
  • Low cost
  • Enhanced flexibility
  • Improved customer service
  • Optimization of value chain.

SCM includes managing supply and demand, sourcing raw materials, order management, delivery, etc..

It performs the following function:

  • Managing demand and supply
  • Sourcing raw materials
  • Manufacturing
  • Assembly
  • Warehousing
  • Inventory tracking
  • Order entry
  • Order Management
  • Distribution
  • Delivery to the customer.

Transformation Process refers to the process of business activities required to convert the organisation’s resources into products and services demanded by the customers.

  • Production and Operations management (POM) refers to various methods of handling the conversion or production process.
  • It involves the following methods:

(i) Job Method:

  • Whole work is handled by a worker or group of workers firm production and large construction projects
  • Low technology job enables the company to include customer’s specific requirements as job processes.
  • Example : hairdressers etc.
  • High technology job requires proper project management or control which involves (a) clear objectives to be defined, and (b) Proper decision making process.
  • Example : Films production, large construction projects, etc.

(ii) Batch Method:

  • Each work is divided into specific parts or operations.
  • it helps in achieving:
  • Labour specialisation
  • High equipment utilisation
  • Low capital expenditure
  • It causes following problems:
  • Poor work flow
  • Build up of “work in progress” or stocks.
  • Example : Production of electronic components

(iii) Flow Method:
1. It refers to the method in which the task is performed on continuos basis i.e. the material processing is continuous and progressive.

2. It aims at:

  • Improving material & work flow
  • Reducing the need for skilled labour
  • Completing the work faster

3. Following requirements are to be met for its proper working:

  • Constant demand of company’s product
  • Standardized product and/or production
  • Specific materials should be used
  • Materials used must be delivered timely
  • Each operation must be carefully defined and recorded in detail
  • Output of each operation must be of standard quality.
  • Example : Production of motor cars, televisions etc.

Information and Communication Technology function

  • It’s objective is to gain advantage from modern technology.
  • Focuses on improving business processes and making them cost effective.
  • Also aims at reaching new customers and launching new products or services.

Market:
Definitions:
(i) Traditional Concept:
“Marketing may be defined as the performance of business activities that directs the flow of goods and services through producers to customers.”

(ii) Modern Concept:
“Marketing is the process of discovering and translating consumer needs and wants into products arid services and in turn making It possible for more and more of these products and services.”

  • Market refers to a mechanism through which buyers and sellers actually meet to effect purchase and sales of goods and services.
  • Marketing refers to identifying the customers, determining their needs and wants, delivering them products to satisfy those needs and wants and keeping the customers.

It involves two concepts:

  1. Traditional
  2. Modern

Marketing process starts with marketing research and ends with the customer buying the company’s product.

  • Marketing is different from selling.
  • Marketing Mix:

Definitions:
Culliton conceived of marketeer as the ‘mixer of ingredients.’
4P’s of Marketing ‘E. Jerome McCarthy’ was the first person to suggest the four P’s of marketing:

  • Product
  • Price
  • Place (distribution)
  • Promotion

“Marketing mix is the term that is used to described the combination of the four inputs that constitute the core of an organisation’s marketing system. These four elements are the product offering, the price structure, the promotion activities and the distribution system.”

Difference between Selling and Marketing

Basis Selling Marketing
Focus On producer On customers
Demand Assumes demand for products Generates demand for products
Supremacy Producer is supreme Customer is supreme
Process Involves exchange of goods and services Involves satisfying customer needs
Law Follows the law of Caveat Emptor Follows the law of Caveat Vendor
Perspective Short perspective with profit maximisation Long perspective emphasising growth and stability

Marketing Mix : refers to the ingredients or the tools or the variables which the marketeer mixes in order to interact with a particular market.

“Marketing mix are the set of marketing tools that first uses to purchase its marketing objectives in the target market.”

A planned mix of the controllable elements of a products marketing commonly terms.

  • Product
  • Price
  • Place
  • Promotion

Nell H. Borden: Borden’s marketing mix includes the following elements:

  • Product Planning
  • Branding
  • Advertising
  • Packaging
  • Servicing
  • Pricing
  • Distribution Channels
  • Promotion
  • Displays
  • Physical Handling

Various marketing functions are classified into 2 categories:

  • General Functions
  • Specific Functions

General functions includes the following –

Marker and Consumer Research Obtaining information about the current market situation and future perspectives
Permanent Adaptation Employment of all the available resources in order to satisfy the market demands.
Full satisfaction of demand By meeting the market requirements, it surpasses its competitors.
Maximization of economic efficiency Optimization of ail economic processes like production, transportation, etc.

Specific Functions varies from industry to industry

Various Marketing Principles Include:

  • Market knowledge
  • Producing what it can sell, not to sell what it produces
  • Studying consumer preferences
  • Marketing should be done for the company, not company for marketing

Human Resource Management (HRM):

  • It refers to getting things done through people.
  • Market requirement for skilled and talented people is competitive and expensive.
  • The aim is:
  • To ensure that at all the times the business is correctly staffed by the right number of people with the skills relevant to the business needs.”

It possess the following features

  • Pervasive nature as it is present in all enterprises
  • Concerned with people
  • Focus on results rather than rules
  • Enables employees to develop their potential
  • Provide competent and well-motivated employees.
  • Maintains cordial relations
  • Encourages the employees
  • Assigns jobs to people
  • Multi-disciplinary activity
  • People at work, individual and groups

Its objectives are as follows:

  • Achieving goals of both people and the organisation
  • Effective utilisation of people
  • Maintain high moral of employees
  • Identity and satisfy the human needs
  • Well-trained employees
  • Job satisfaction to employees
  • Maintain quality of work life
  • Enhances employee’s capabilities ,
  • Overall personality development of each employee –
  • Ensure ethical and social responsibility of business toward society..
  • Employers with precision and clarity

Scope:
HRM needs to be integrated with the overall strategy to ensure effective utilization of people and gaining better results for the organisation.

Services –
Legal Department – in any organization plays following roles:

  1. Legal advisor
  2. Discuss the potential legal issues.
  3. Offer training and help to employees for keeping them up to date regarding workplace laws.
  4. Solving customer’s complaints and grievances.
  5. Represents company in the law suit filed against it.
  6. Handles filing of patents and other legal documents with the official agencies.

Company Secretary performs various secretarial functions as follows:

  1. Conducting Board Meetings
  2. Conducting General Meetings of Shareholders
  3. Representing organisation in various registration and legal matters
  4. Managing procedural formalities

Various accounting functions to be performed by business are as follows:

  1. Record keeping
  2. Fulfilling various legal requirements
  3. Protecting the business properly.
  4. Communicating the business results to interested parties.

Accounting: Accounting is the function of business that gathers data and information from all the different aspects of the business. List of accounting functions are:

  1. Record keeping
  2. Protect business property
  3. Legal requirement
  4. Communicating the Results

Administration Department is set up to ensure that all office work is completed timely. It performs the following functions :

  1. Foster regional economic development
  2. Controls external communications
  3. Supply of security for the premises
  4. Creation of more effective plans
  5. dewing of governmental affairs
  6. Enhancing regions renewable/reusable resources

Information and Communication Technology Department helps in implementing the modern technology in business. A good ICT department will increase the efficiency of a business and there by profits also.

Social Functions:
Business was only concerned with profit maximisation as its primary aim with little or no attention to social responsibility. Some businessmen discharged their religious duty by giving grants in charity mainly for education, welfare of the poor, etc. Charity transformed into small but valuable acts of philanthropy by businessmen on socio-economic issues of concern to them. These philanthropic acts were generally beyond the scope of the business operations and qualified as individual act towards the welfare of the society.

Evolution:
Social function of Business was not an alien concept but existed in different forms such as charity, sponsorship or philanthropy. The development of CSR is divided into four phases in India based on country’s political and economic environment. Different CSR practices moved parallel with India’s historical development. Since social responsibility was made a mandate in 2013 a fifth phase is added to the CSR evolution phases in India.

Phases of CSR practice in India:

  1. Phase – Key Thrust
  2. Phase 1 (Till 1914) – CSR motivated by charity & philanthropy
  3. Phase II (1914-1960) – CSR for India’s social development
  4. Phase III (1960-1980) – CSR under paradigm of mixed economy.
  5. Phase IV (1980-2013) – CSR as interface between philanthropic and business approach
  6. Phase V (2013 onwards) – Government made CSR spending mandatory for sizable firms

Social responsibility of business was professed internationally and linked to sustainable development. In this context it is stated that something that comes from people should go back to the people. This is necessary to complete the cycle which is perhaps the only way to. sustainable development. To achieve the goal of sustainability Elkington in 1994 coined the term Triple Bottom Line in an effort to expand the People. Planet and Profit agenda by more fully integrating it into business practices.

1. People (human capital) signify fair and beneficial business practices towards labour and the community and region in which business is conducted. Company conceives a reciprocal social structure in which the well-being of corporate, labour and other stakeholder interests are independent.

2. Planet refers to sustainable environmental practices. A TBL company endeavours to benefit the natural order as much as possible or at the least do no harm and curtail environmental impact. It endeavours to reduce its ecological footprint by, among other things, carefully managing its consumption of energy and non-renewables and reducing manufacturing waste as well as disposing it in a safe and legal manner. A triple bottom line company does not produce harmful or destructive ‘ products such as weapons, toxic chemicals or batteries containing dangerous heavy metals for example.

3. Profit on the other hand refers to the economic value created by the organisation for the immediate economic environment. It differs from the traditional accounting definition of profit. In the original concept, within a sustainability framework, the ‘profit’ aspect needs to be seen as the real economic benefit enjoyed by the host society. It is the real economic impact the organisation has on its economic environment.

Meaning and Understanding:
CSR is also defined as the obligation of businessmen to pursue those policies, to make those decsions, or to follow those lines of action which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society. A socially responsible firm is one whose managerial staff balances a multiplicity of interests. Instead of striving only for larger profits for its stakeholders, a responsible enterprise also takes into account its employees, suppliers, dealers, local communities and the nation”.

Benefits of Social Responsibility:
The following are some of the implications of discharge of social responsibility:

  • Research has been instrumental in providing evidence to the fact that companies who discharge social responsibility have positive impact on their performance.
  • Firms discharging socially responsible behaviour are able to build a good social image of their brand and sell more.
  • Socially responsible behaviour provides legitimacy to the existence of the firm.
  • Companies recognising and integrating social functions enhance their reputation/goodwill and position themselves as responsible corporate citizens.

Regulatory Framework in India:
Section 135, for the first time made social responsibility a mandate for all corporations having net worth of rupees five hundred crore or more, or turnover 6f rupees one thousand crore or more or a net profit of rupees five crore or more during any financial year.

Such stated companies are required to constitute a corporate social responsibility committee consisting of three or more directors of which at least one should be an independent director. This committee is entrusted with the task of formulating a social responsibility policy which spells out the activities to be undertaken as part of CSR. Schedule VII provides a list of activities which may be included by companies in their CSR policies. These activities include:
1. Eradication of hunger, poverty, malnutrition, promoting health care including preventive health care and sanitation and making available safe drinking water.

2. Promoting education, including special education and employment enhancing vocational skills especially among children, women, elderly and differently able and livelihood enhancement project.

3. Promoting gender equality, empowering women, setting up.homes and hostels, for women and orphans, setting up old age homes, day care centres, and such other facilities for senior citizens and measures for reducing inequality faced by socially and economically backward groups.

4. Ensuring environmental sustainability, ecologicai balance, protection of flora and fauna, animal welfare, agro-forestry, conservation of natural resources and maintaining the quality cf Soil, air, water.

5. Protection of national heritage, art and culture including restoration of buildings and sites of historical importance and works of art, setting up of public libraries, promotion and development of traditional arts and handicrafts.

6. Measures for the benefit of armed forces veterans, war widows, and their dependents.

7. Training to promote rural sports, nationally recognised sports, Paralympic sports and Olympic sports.

8. Contribution to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund or any other fund set by Central Government for socio-economic development and relief and welfare of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, other backward classes, minorities and women.

9. Contributions or funds provided to technology incubators located within academic institutions which are af proved by the Central Government.

10. Rural Development projects.

The Board of such Companies are required to ensure that the company spends in every financial year, at least 2% of the average net profit of the company made during the three immediately preceding financial years, in pursuance of the Corporate Social Responsibility Policy. If the company fails to spend such amount, the Board is required to furnish reason for the same in its report.

Corporate Social Responsibility activities can be discharged through any of the methods:

  • Directly on its own.
  • Through its own non-profit foundation set up so as to facilitate this initiative.
  • Through independently registered non-profit organisations that have a record of at least three years in similar such related activities.
  • Collaborating or pooling their resources with other companies.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
_________ involves division of labour among multiple persons and/or technologies
(a) Business function
(b) Business process
(c) Business operation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
‘Strategos’ is _________.
(a) ‘the science of the general’
(b) the act of the general
(c) a Greek word
(d) Both (b) and (c) above.
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c) above.

Question 3.
Formulating strategies is a job of:
(a) Top Management
(b) Middle Management
(c) Lower Management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Top Management

Question 4.
_________ strategy is stated in the company’s mission statement.
(a) Business unit
(b) Operational
(c) Business level
(d) Corpo-ate
Answer:
(d) Corpo-ate

Question 5.
Business done from home is known as:
(a) Real Business
(b) Artificial Business
(c) Virtual Business
(d) Transparent Business
Answer:
(c) Virtual Business

Question 6.
Factors affecting business location does not include the following:
(a) Labor
(b) Advertisement facilities
(c) Suppliers
(d) Communication facilities
Answer:
(b) Advertisement facilities

Question 7.
Some areas of UK like whales, North-east England etc. are known as:
(a) Underdeveloped areas
(b) Developing areas
(c) Poor areas
(d) Assisted areas.
Answer:
(d) Assisted areas.

Question 8.
Decision making is a process _________.
(a) Emotional
(b) Rational
(c) Mental
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 9.
_________ is a primary function of management
(a) Planning
(b) Budgeting
(c) Research & Development
(d) Organising
Answer:
(a) Planning

Question 10.
_________ is a device used for managerial control.
(a) Planning
(b) Decision – making
(c) Financial Management
(d) Budget
Answer:
(d) Budget

Question 11.
Budget is prepared for the past work period.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
Answer:
(b) False

Question 12.
Following is not a component of Budget:
(a) Saving
(b) Income
(c) Expenditure
(d) Capital employment.
Answer:
(a) Saving

Question 13.
_________ research has no immediate or direct commercial value.
(a) Basic
(b) Fundamental
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 14.
Resources are always, _________ and wants are always _________
(a) Limited, Unlimited
(b) Unlimited, Limited
(c) Limited, Limited
(d) Unlimited, Unlimited
Answer:
(a) Limited, Unlimited

Question 15.
Financial Management comprises of:
(a) Financing decisions
(b) Investment decisions
(c) Dividend decision
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 16.
Reversal of _________ decision is not possible.
(a) Capital Budgeting Decision
(b) Capital Structure Decision
(c) Working Capital Decision
(d) Dividend Payment Decision.
Answer:
(a) Capital Budgeting Decision

Question 17.
Excess funds lessens the financing cost.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
Answer:
(b) False

Question 18.
Selling is a _________ concept while marketing is a concept.
(a) wide, narrow
(b) narrow, wide
(c) small, big
(d) big, small
Answer:
(b) narrow, wide

Question 19.
Law of caveat emptor applies to :
(a) Marketing
(b) Selling
(c) Both (a) arid (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Selling

Question 20.
Marketing mix does not include the following P:
(a) Planning
(b) Product
(c) Price
(d) Place
Answer:
(a) Planning

Question 21.
_________ refers to getting the things done through others.
(a) Scientific Management
(b) Personnel Management
(c) Financial Management
(d) Marketing Management.
Answer:
(b) Personnel Management

Question 22.
SCM Stands for:
(a) Supply Chain Material
(b) Source Concept Management
(c) Supply Choice Material
(d) Supply Chain Management
Answer:
(d) Supply Chain Management

Question 23.
Marketing mix involves:
(a) Consumers
(c) Retailers
(b) Financing
(d) Products/Service
Answer:
(d) Products/Service

Question 24.
ASP stands for:
(a) Application service provider
(b) Application source provider
(c) All service provider
(d) Application service planning.
Answer:
(a) Application service provider

Question 25.
_________ flow refers to order transmission and updation of delivery status.
(a) Product flow
(b) Service flow
(c) Information flow
(d) Finance flow
Answer:
(c) Information flow

Question 26.
POM stands for:
(a) Product and Operations Manager
(b) Product and Operational Management
(c) Production and Operations Management
(d) Production and Operational Management.
Answer:
(c) Production and Operations Management

Question 27.
Production of chocolates is an example of:
(a) Flow Method
(b) Job Method
(c) Batch Method
(d) Group Method
Answer:
(a) Flow Method

Question 28.
Which one of the following is not a feature of a strategy.
(a) It is a specialized planning to retaliate competitors
(b) It is the job of middle level and lower level management
(c) It redefines directions towards common efforts
(d) It explains manager response to changing business environment
Answer:
(b) It is the job of middle level and lower level management

Question 29.
Decisions regarding choice of product, gaining competitive advantage etc. are a part of _________.
(a) Corporate strategy
(b) Business unit strategy
(c) Operational strategy
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Business unit strategy

Question 30.
Which of the following strategy focuses on issues of resources, process, people etc?
(a) Corporate strategy
(b) Business unit strategy
(c) Operational strategy
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Operational strategy

Question 31.
Planning is an _________.
(a) Intellectual process
(b) Mechanical Process
(c) One time activity
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Intellectual process

Question 32.
Which one of the following statements is not true regarding a Budget?
(a) It is a financial statement
(b) It is a quantitative statement
(c) It may include income expenditure and employment of capital
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
(d) None of the Above

Question 33.
A Budget includes _________.
(a) Income
(b) Expenditure
(c) Employment of Capital
(d) All of the Above
Answer:
(d) All of the Above

Question 34.
In determining a business location which of the following factors should be considered _________.
(a) Communication facility
(b) Government Assistance
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 35.
Which one of the following is not a flow of SCM?
(a) Entrepreneurship Flow
(b) Product Flow
(c) Information Flow
(d) Finance Flow
Answer:
(a) Entrepreneurship Flow

Question 36.
The activity of turning the resources into products and services is called as:
(a) Supply Chain Management
(b) Planning
(c) Directing
(d) Transformation Process
Answer:
(d) Transformation Process

Question 37.
Which of the following is not a feature of Batch Method?
(a) It requires the division of work into parts or operations
(b) It does not result in building up significant work in process
(c) It results in specialisation
(d) It focuses on achieving high utilization of resources
Answer:
(b) It does not result in building up significant work in process

Question 38.
Which of the following is not a requirement of Flow Method _________.
(a) There must be substantially constant demand
(b) The product must be standardised
(c) Division of work into parts or operations
(d) All the operations must be carefully defined
Answer:
(c) Division of work into parts or operations

Question 39.
Job Method includes:
(a) Low Technology jobs
(b) High Technology jobs
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 40.
Which one of the following is not a feature of selling?
(a) It has a long-term perspective
(b) It considers profit as a sole motive
(c) It is based on the law of Caveat Emptor
(d) It focuses’on producers
Answer:
(a) It has a long-term perspective

Question 41.
Which one of the following is not a feature of marketing _________.
(a) It focuses on customers
(b) It considers product identification and customer satisfaction
(c) It follows the law of Caveat Vendor
(d) It has a short term perspective
Answer:
(d) It has a short term perspective

Question 42.
Which of the following is not a general function of Marketing
(a) Market and consumer research
(b) Temporary Adoption
(c) Full Satisfaction of demand
(d) Maximising of economic efficiency
Answer:
(b) Temporary Adoption

Question 43.
Which one of the following is not a feature of HRM _________.
(a) It is pervasive in nature
(b) Helps in motivating the employees
(c) It is a multidisciplinary activity
(d) It focuses on rules
Answer:
(d) It focuses on rules

Question 44.
Which of the following is not a function of a Company Secretary?
(a) Conducting the Statutory meetings of the company
(b) Liaisoning and managing procedural formalities
(c) Communicating the results to the interested parties
(d) Representing the organisation for registration of company, change of name etc.
Answer:
(c) Communicating the results to the interested parties

Question 45.
The Accounting function includes _________.
(a) Communicating results
(b) Protecting the business property
(c) Liaisoning and managery procedural formalities
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (b)

Question 46.
The term ICT stands for _________.
(a) Internet Communication Tapping
(b) Initial Corporate Tax
(c) Insurance, Cartage and Transportation
(d) Information and Communication Technology
Answer:
(d) Information and Communication Technology

Question 47.
Borden’s Marketing Mix does not include _________.
(a) Product Planning
(b) Penetrating
(c) Promotion
(d) Advertising
Answer:
(b) Penetrating

Question 48.
CSR stands for _________.
(a) Customer Satisfaction Ratios
(b) Corporate Sales Returns
(c) Customer Sales Ratios
(d) Corporate Social responsibility
Answer:
(d) Corporate Social responsibility

Question 49.
CSR is based on Theory _________.
(a) Stakeholder
(b) Involvement
(c) Ethical
(d) Marketing
Answer:
(a) Stakeholder

Question 50.
In which dimension of CSR responsibility would you classify the issue of recycling and non wasteful packaging?
(a) Consumer
(b) Social and community involvements
(c) Physical environment
(d) Employee relations
Answer:
(c) Physical environment

Question 51.
Which of the following is not a criticism of CSR _________.
(a) CSR is too costly
(b) CSR encourages cynicism
(c) CSR leads to enhanced brand reputation
(d) CSR is misguided
Answer:
(c) CSR leads to enhanced brand reputation

Question 52.
Which of the following statements best describes Corporate Social Responsibility?
(a) A corporation’s requirement to make as much profit as possible.
(b) A corporation’s obligation to society that goes beyond the requirements of the law and economics to take into account the social and environmental impact of its decisions.
(c) A corporation’s obligation to consider the impact of its decisions on the environment.
(d) The duty of care a corporation has to its employees and customers.
Answer:
(b) A corporation’s obligation to society that goes beyond the requirements of the law and economics to take into account the social and environmental impact of its decisions.

Question 53.
Which of the following form part of the business case for CSR?
(a) Better motivated staff reduce operating costs.
(b) Increased brand value and reputation.
(c) The maintenance of the ‘licence to operate’.
(d) All of the options given.
Answer:
(d) All of the options given.

Question 54.
The moral case for CSR, i.e. that it is the right thing to dc, is justified by which of the following arguments?
(a) That the corporation is a creation of society and should therefore serve its needs.
(b) That the corporation is a legal creation and therefore cannot be a moral agent.
(c) Large corporations do not have the power or resources to address society’s problems.
(d) Business decisions will have social and environmental consequences which will be addressed by governments.
Answer:
(a) That the corporation is a creation of society and should therefore serve its needs.

Question 55.
The most influential theory of corporate responsibility of the past century is:
(a) The moral minimum model
(b) The classical model.
(c) The social contract theory
(d) The stakeholder theory.
Answer:
(b) The classical model.

Question 56.
Which concerns does CSR address?
(a) Moral & Ethical
(b) Social & Environmental
(c) Legal & Regulatory
(d) Monetary & Profit
Answer:
(b) Social & Environmental

Question 57.
Which of following stakeholders are interested in CSR?
(a) customers
(b) investors
(c) employees
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 58.
What is the primary purpose of budgeting?
(a) Planning
(b) Control
(c) Organizing
(d) Direction
Answer:
(b) A widely used device for managerial control is the budget. Moreover, it has sometimes been assumed that budgeting is the device for accomplishing control. Thus, the primary purpose of budgeting is control.

Question 59.
These influences the choice of location of business:
(a) Labour
(b) Government Assistance
(c) Population
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Various factors affecting the business locations are:

  • Communication and transport facilities.
  • Location of business suppliers.
  • Labour requirement.
  • Government assistance.
  • Type of population.

Thus, all the given options influences the choice of location of business.

Question 60.
Car manufacturing is a :
(a) Line production process
(b) Flow production
(c) Batch production
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Flow method of production refers to the method in which the task is performed on continuous basis i.e. the material processing is continuous and progressive.
Example : production of motor cars, televisions etc.

Question 61.
What is the chief work done by top authorities in structure of management?
(a) Decision-Making
(b) Recruiting Manpower
(c) Holding Meeting
(d) Selling Products
Answer:
(a) Decision making is regarded as the mental processes resulting in the selection of action among alternative scenarios. Thus, it is a reasoning or emotional process which is the chief work done by the top authorities.

Question 62.
Which one of the following strategy deals with day-to-day activities of a business?
(a) Corporate strategy
(b) Operational strategy
(c) Business unit strategy
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Corporate Strategy is concerned with the overall business scope and purpose. Business unit strategy is concerned with a particular business unit competing in a specific business environment. Operational strategy involves organising each part of the business to deliver the above two strategies. It focuses on people, processes, etc. Thus, the strategy which deals with the day to day activities of a business is the operational strategy.

Question 63.
Which level of management is responsible for strategic planning in an organisation?
(a) Lower level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Top level management
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Strategy is the direction and scope of an organisation over the long term. It reflects managerial response to changes in business environment. Since it involves various aspects relating to planning and decision-making, top level management is responsible for strategic planning of an organisation.

Questions 64.
Which one of the following is the responsibility of human resource management?
(a) To ensure respect for individual employer
(b) To ensure reconciliation of individual goals with those of the organisation
(c) To achieve and maintain high morals among the employees
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) Various objectives of human resource management are as follows:

  • Achieving goals of both people and the organisation.
  • Effective utilisation of people.
  • Maintaining high moral of employees.
  • Identify and satisfy the human need.
  • Well trained employees.
  • Job satisfaction to employee’s.
  • Maintain quality of work life.
  • Enhances employee’s capabilities.
  • Overall personality development of each employee.
  • Ensure ethical and social responsibility of business towards society.

Question 65.
Marketing is a concept than selling.
(a) Narrow
(b) Older
(c) Broader
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Marketing and selling are not synonymous. Selling is a narrow concept which involves transfer of goods or services from producers to consumers. Whereas marketing is a wide concept which emphasizes on identifying consumer needs and providing want satisfying products or services.

Question 66.
Which one of the following is not a part of ‘marketing mix’?
(a) Planning
(b) Product
(c) Price
(d) Place.
Answer:
(a) [Marketing mix is the combination of four inputs which constitute the core of a company’s marketing system, i.e. the product, the price structure, the promotional activities and distribution system.]
Thus, Planning is not a part of marketing mix.

Question 67.
In marketing, a distinctive group of consumers is known as:
(a) A class
(b) A segment
(c) An emerging market
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Marketing is the process of discouraging and translating consumer needs and wants into products and services and in twin making its possible for more and more of these products and services. A distinctive group of consumer in marketing process is known as a -segment. Market segmentation divides the consumers into distinct groups or segments.

Question 68.
Car servicing is an example of _________
(a) Batch processing
(b) Job processing
(c) Flow processing
(d) Contract processing.
Answer:
(b) Job method is a method of handling low as well as high technology jobs where whole work is handled by a worker or group of workers. Low technology jobs enables the company to include customers specific requirements as job processes. Thus, car servicing is an example of job processing as it is concerned with specific requirements/problems of the customer.

Question 69.
Which of the following type of budget is prepared to assess the level of inventories, receivables etc.?
(a) Material Budget
(b) Profitability Budget
(c) Cash Budget
(d) Working Capital Budget.
Answer:
(d) Working Capital Budget specifies the available .working capital i.e. investment in current assets like inventory, debtors, receivables etc. at different points of time

Question 70.
Which of the following strategy focuses on issues of production processes, material, etc.?
(a) Operation Strategy
(b) Business Unit Strategy
(c) Corporate Strategy
(d) Marketing Strategy.
Answer:
(a) Operational strategy is concerned with how each part of the business is organised to deliver the corporate and business – unit level strategic direction. Operational strategy therefore focuses on issues of resources, processes, people, material etc.

Question 71.
Generally is responsible for complying procedural formalities relating to corporate restructuring in a company _________.
(a) Finance function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Secretarial function
(d) Administration function.
Answer:
(c) Various secretarial functions involves:

  • Conducting Board meetings
  • Conducting General meetings of shareholders
  • Representing organisation in various registration and legal matters.
  • Liaising and managing procedural formalities pertaining to re – structuring, change of name, shifting of registered office, etc.

Therefore, Secretarial Function is responsible for complying procedural formalities relating to corporate restructuring in a company.

Question 72.
Which of the following is not an accounting function:
(a) Maintaining accounts in compliance with Accounting Standards
(b) Arranging for finance
(c) Journalisation and preparation of final accounts
(d) Attrition monitoring.
Answer:
(b) Accounting is- the function of business that gathers data and information from ail the different aspects of the business. The list of accounting functions include:

  • Recording Keeping function.
  • Protect Business Property.
  • Legal Requirement Function.
  • Communicating the Results.

But the arranging for finance is related with financial services.

Question 73.
A means of obtaining financial resources that involves the sale of part of the ownership of the business is called:
(a) Bankruptcy
(b) Equity financing
(c) Commercial loans
(d) Debt financing.
Answer:
(b) Equity financing is the source of means of obtaining financial resources that involves the sale of part of the ownership of the business.

Question 74.
Film production is done by which method of production?
(a) Job method
(b) Batch method
(c) Flow method
(d) Group method
Answer:
(a) With Job production, the complete task is handled by a single worker or group of workers. High-technology jobs involve much greater complexity.

Example of high technology/complex jobs : Film production, large constructions projects (example: the Millennium Dome)

Question 75.
Selling is a _________ concept while marketing is a _________ concept.
(a) Wide, narrow
(b) Big, small
(c) Narrow, wide
(d) Small, big
Answer:
(c) Selling is a narrow concept which involves transfer of goods or services from producers to consumers and marketing is a wide concept which emphasizes identifying consumers needs and providing want satisfying products or services.

Question 76.
Film production is the example of which method _________.
(a) Batch Method
(b) Job Method
(c) Flow Method
(d) Contract Method
Answer:
(b) With Job production, the complete task is handled by a single worker or group of workers, high-technology jobs involves much greater complexity. Example of high technology Jobs:- film production etc.

Question 77.
The objective of Human Resource Management does not include:
(a) To increase employees job satisfaction and self actualization
(b) To develop and maintain a quality of work life
(c) To provide well trained and well motivated employees
(d) To get the manufacturing/servicing done.
Answer:
(d) Human Resource Management, in the sense of getting things done through people. It includes a process of bringing people and organisation together so that goals of each are met. Therefore, manufacturing/servicing are excluded from its purview.

Question 78.
Selling and marketing are the same. This statement is:
(a) Depends on customers philosophy
(b) Depends on the organisation philosophy
(c) False
(d) True.
Answer:
(c) Because selling is a narrow concept which involves transfer of goods or services from producer to customers whereas marketing is a wide concept which emphasizes identifying consumers needs and providing want satisfying products or services.

Question 79.
The Section of the balance sheet that include all the debts of the company is called:
(a) Asset
(b) Cash flow
(c) Liabililies
(d) Equity
Answer:
(c) The section of the balance sheet that includes all the debts of the company is called liabilities is short term or long term which thereby is significant in taking any financial decision.

Question 80.
Budgeting is an activity of:
(a) Environmental Scanning
(b) Strategic planning
(c) Strategy formulation
(d) Strategy implementation
Answer:
(d) Budgeting is an activity of strategy implementation which is a process of conducting programs (activities needed to accomplish plan), budgets (cost of programs) and procedures (sequence of steps needed to do the job).

Question 81.
There is _________ which can be applied to decide the most important factors in choosing a location.
(a) No magic formula
(b) Prescribed formula
(c) A common formula
(d) A Scientific formula
Answer:
(a) There is no magic formula which can be applied to decide the most important factors in choosing a location.

Question 82.
In C.I.F. contracts, C.I.F. stands for:
(a) Cost, Insurance and Freight
(b) Calculated Insurance and Freight
(c) Cost, Identity and Freight
(d) Customs, Insurance and Freight
Answer:
(a) C.I.F stand for Cost, Insurance and Freight.

Question 83.
Market place for talented and skilled people is:
(a) Remunerative and approachable
(b) Not reasonably priced
(c) Competitive and expensive
(d) Competitive and approachable
Answer:
(c) The market place for talented and skilled people is competitive and expensive.

Question 84.
Which of the following production process is suitable for film production _________.
(a) Line Method
(b) Job Method
(c) Batch Method
(d) Flow Method
Answer:
(b) With job production, the complete task is handled by a single worker or a group of worker. Job can be of scale / low technology as well as high technology / complex.
Example: of high technology/complex are film production or large construction project.

Question 85.
Which of the following is not included in the marketing mix as defined b; William J. Stanton?
(a) Convergence
(b) Promotional activities
(c) Price structure
(d) Distribution system
Answer:
(a) William J. Stanton defined Marketing mix as combination of 4 inputs which constitute core of marketing mix element i.e the product, price structure, the promotional activities and the distribution system.

Question 86.
Production budget is not influenced by:
(a) Sales Budget
(b) Available Technology
(c) Production Capacity
(d) Available Cash
Answer:
(a) Production Budget is influenced by:

  • Available technology
  • Production capacity
  • Available cash

Question 87.
Which of the following production process is suitable for film production?
(a) Batch method
(b) Line method
(c) Job method
(d) Flow method
Answer:
(c) Job method is the method where whole work is handled by a worker or group of workers firm production. It requires proper project management which involves clear objectives and proper decision process. Thus, Film production and large construction projects falls under jot method.

Question 88.
Human Resource Management is a part of:
(a) Every managers role
(b) Only human resource managers role
(c) Only human resource departments role
(d) Only marketing managers role
Answer:
(c) The purpose of Human Resource Management (HRM) is to hire, train and develop staff and where necessary to discipline or dismiss them. Through effective training and development, employees at Enterprise achieve promotion within the company and reach their full potential. Human Resources (HR) is concerned with the issues of managing people in the organisation. The Human Resources department is responsible for many people related issues in an organisation.

Question 89.
Selling and marketing are the same. This statement is:
(a) Depends on the customer’s philosophy
(b) False
(c) True
(d) Depends on the organization’s philosophy
Answer:
(b) Statement is False. Because they are different. Selling is transfer of ownership for consideration marketing is promotion of goods or services.

Question 90.
_________ require that the work for any task is divided into parts or operations.
(a) Job method
(b) Batch method
(c) Group method
(d) Flow method
Answer:
(b) In Batch method, work is divided into parts or operation different.

Question 91.
Which one of the following is not a part of marketing mix?
(a) Planing
(b) Product
(c) Price
Answer:
(a) Marketing Mix included followings ingredients or elements. These are:

  • Product planning
  • Pricing
  • Branding
  • Advertising
  • Promotion
  • Displays
  • Physical handling.

It does not include planning.

Question 92.
In marketing a distinctive group of consumers is known as:
(a) A class
(b) A segment
(c) An emerging market
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) ‘Segment’ is a word which is used in marketing for a distinctive (separate) group of consumers.

Question 93.
In this each work is divided into batches/team.
(a) Job Method
(b) Flow Method
(c) Batch Method
(d) Group Method
Answer:
(c) Batch method of production is divided each work into batchs and in terms.

Question 94.
Which of the following deals with day-to-day operations of business:
(a) Corporate Strategy
(b) Operating Strategy
(c) Business Unit Strategy
(d) Executive and directory Planning
Answer:
(b) Operational Strategy is formulate to ensure smooth functioning of day to day operation.

Question 95.
Contribution of ILO to business function:
(a) Set Inter-nation labour standards
(b) Binding with labour standards
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) ILO- provide set of instruction for labour standards.

Question 96.
In _________ this, each work is divided into branches and terms:
(a) Job method
(b) Batch method
(c) Flow method
(d) Group method
Answer:
(b) Batch method: Each work is divided into specific parts or operations.

Question 97.
UNDP stands for:
(a) Urban and National Development Programme
(b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) Unique Nationality Designed Programme
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) UNDP: United Nations Development Programme.

Question 98.
Car Servicing is an example of:
(a) Batch processing
(b) Job processing
(c) Flow processing
(d) Contract processing
Answer:
(b) Job method is a way of handling low as well as high technology jobs where whole work is handled by worker or group of workers. Low technology jobs enables the company to include customer specific requirements as job processes. Thus car servicing is an example of job processing as it is concerned with specific requirements/problems of the customers.

Question 99.
Which of the following type of budget is prepared to assess the level of inventories, receivable etc.?
(a) Material Budget
(b) Profitability Budget
(c) Cash Budget
(d) Working Capital Budget
Answer:
(d) Working Capital Budget specifies the available working capital i.e. investment in current assets like inventory, debtors/receivables, etc. at different point of time.
Therefore it can be said that working capital budget is prepared to assess the level of inventories, receivables, etc.

Question 100.
Which of the following strategy focuses on issues of production processes, material, etc.?
(a) Operation Strategy
(b) Business Unit Strategy
(c) Corporate Strategy
(d) Marketing Strategy
Answer:
(a) Operational Strategy is concerned with how each part of the business is organised to deliver the corporate business-unit level strategic direction. Operational Strategy therefore focuses on issue of resources, processes, people, material, etc.

Question 101.
Generally _________ is responsible for complying procedural formalities relating to corporate restructuring in a company:
(a) Finance Function
(b) Marketing Function
(c) Secretarial Function
(d) Administration Function
Answer:
(c) Generally Secretarial function department is responsible for complying procedural formalities relating to corporate restructuring in a company.

Question 102.
Environment scanning is for:
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(d) Can’t say
Answer:
(a) Environment scanning is a process of gathering information about events and their relationships within an organisation’s internal and external environment. The basic purpose of environment scanning is to help management determine the future direction of the organisation.

Question 103.
Which type of scanning requires unconscious mind.
(a) Passive
(b) Active
(c) Direct
(d) Indirect
Answer:
(a) Everyone scans continually. Ongoing scanning at an almost unconscious level is passive scanning. No effort is made to select a particulars information resource to scan. The criteria of passive scanning are obscure, unspecified, and often continuously changing.

Question 104.
To reduce inventory in objective of _________.
(a) POM
(b) SCM
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Supply Chain Management (SCM) is the oversight of materials, information and finances as they move in a process from supplier to manufacturer to wholesaler to retailer to consumer. It is said that the ultimate goal of any effective supply chain management system is to reduce inventory.

Question 105.
Mixer of ingredients:
(a) Ketter
(b) Culliton
(c) Peter F Drucker
(d) Henry Fajel
Answer:
(b) Culliton conceived of marketeer as “the Mixer of ingredients”.

Question 106.
Investment decision comprises _________.
(a) Financial planning
(b) Fixed capital management
(c) Working capital management
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Answer:
(a) Investment decision means deicing the quantum of investment out of available finance on long term basis as well as on short-term basis. Hence it is a financial planning.

Question 107.
Two function of Business are _________.
(a) Marketing and Profit Maximization
(b) Marketing and innovation
(c) None of the above
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Answer:
(b) Business has only two function-

  • Marketing
  • and innovation coined by Peter F. Drucker.

Question 108.
Services involve:
(a) Legal
(b) Accounting
(c) Secretarial
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Services involves.

  • Legal
  • Secretarial functions
  • Accounting
  • Administration
  • Information and communication Technology function.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes

Elements of Company Law – I – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Elements of Company Law – I – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Introduction:

  1. Word “company” is derived from Latin word “Com Panis” meaning Com i.e. with/together and Panis i.e. bread.
  2. It is originally referred to an association of persons who took their meals together.
  3. The word “company” denotes a joint stock enterprise in which the capital is contributed by a large number of people.
  4. In Smith V. Anderson, it was observed that company in broad sense may mean an association of individuals formed for some purpose.
  5. Company can be an incorporated (profit making) or unincorporated (non profit making like a club or a society) body.
  6. An incorporated company refers to a separate person distinct from the individuals constituting it.
  7. An unincorporated company such as partnership refers to only a collection of individuals.
  8. It is called a body corporate because the persons comprising it are made into one body by incorporating it according to law and clothing it with legal personality and so turn it into a corporation.
  9. Word “Corporation” is derived from Latin word “corpus” which means “body”.
  10. It is a legal person created by process other than natural birth, thus called artificial person.
  11. A Company have a personality, distinct and separate from its members.

The Incorporated company is formed either:

  1. under Special Act of Parliament:
  2. Example : LIC, Damodar Valley Corporations etc. or
  3. under Companies Act, 2013 or under any previous Company law.
  4. Example : Hindustan Lever Ltd., Tata Steel Ltd., etc.

As per Section 2(20) of the Companies Act, 2013. “Company” means a company incorporated under Companies Act, 2013 or under any previous company law. Section should be exactly as per law. The unincorporated Company formed not for profit purpose falls within the meaning of a company licenced U/S 8 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Characteristics:
(1) Corporate Personality

  • Company is a separate legal entity distinct from individuals who are its members. (It is also known as separate legal entity)
  • It is known by its own name.
  • It has its own seal. (Common seal i.e. official signature of a company) [Amendment of Sec. 9 – “the word common seal” has been omitted]
  • Its members are its owners but they can be its creditors simultaneously.
  • It is capable of owning property, incurring debts, borrowing money, having a bank account, employing people, entering into contracts and suing or being sued in the same manner as an individual.
  • A shareholder cannot be held liable for the company’s act even if he holds virtually the company’s entire share capital.
  • Shareholders are not the company’s agent and so they cannot bind it by their acts.
  • This was brought forward in the case of Salomon V. Salomon and Co. Ltd., (1897)
  • The company does not hold its property as an agent or trustee for its members and they cannot sue to enforce its rights, nor can they be sued in respect of its liabilities.

Respective Case Law:
(1) Salomon V. Salomon and Co. Ltd –

  • Mr. Salomon was carrying on the business of leather merchant and boot manufacturing as a sole proprietor.
  • He formed a limited company for taking over his business.
  • The Company’s nominal capital was £ 40,000 in £1 shares.
  • Payment of total purchase consideration of £ 38,782 was in the following form:
  • Fully paid shares of E, each issued to Salomon £ 20,000
  • Secured debentures issued to Salomon £10,000
  • Cash Paid £ 8,782
  • Other 6 members of his family were issued 1 share each.
  • Salomon held virtually the entire share capital of the company. Hence, the company was called as ‘one man company’
  • Due to trade depression, company went into liquidation.
  • Company’s liabilities was £ 10,000 secured by debentures and its assets realised £ 6,050.
  • Unsecured creditors owing £ 8,000 claimed that Salomon was carrying on business in the name of the company. Thus, company was a mere agent of Salomon.
  • They claimed that one man cannot owe money to himself.

Court held that:

  • Salomon & Co. was a real company fulfilling all the legal requirements.
  • It had an identity separate from its members.
  • Thus, secured debentures even though held by Salomon, were to be paid in priority to unsecured creditors.

This case established the legality of “one-man company” and principle of limited liability.

Lee V. Lee’s Air farming Ltd.
Alternative Case Study : Corporate personality: Salomon v/s Salomon & Co. Ltd. (1897)

(2) Limited Liability –

  • Members of a company cannot be held liable for its debts.
  • In case of limited company, the liability of members is limited to the extent of unpaid value of shares held by them.
  • In case of company limited by guarantee, members are liable to the extent of amount guaranteed by them.
  • Guaranteed amount can be called only at the time of company’s, liquidation winding up.

(3) Transferability of Shares –

  • Shares are movable property which are transferable subject to certain conditions.
  • In public company, shares are freely transferable.
  • However, there are certain restrictions on the transfer of shares in a private company.
  • Any absolute restriction on the right to transfer shares is void.
  • Shares in a public company can be transferred without any restriction but shares in private company can not be transferred.

(4) Common Seal –

  • It is the official signature of the company.
  • Company’s name is engraved on it.
  • A document not bearing common seal of the company is not authentic and has no legal force behind it.
  • A rubber stamp does not serve, the purpose.
  • Amendment made by Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015.

Amendment of Section 9:
In Section 9 of the Principal Act, the words “and a common seal” shall be omitted.

Amendment of Section 22:
In Section 22 of the Principal Act,
(i) In Sub-Section(2) –
(a) for the words “under its common seal”, the words “under its common seal if any”, shall be submitted

(b) the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:
“Provided that in case a company does not have a common seal, the authorisation under this sub-section shall be made by two directors or by a director and the Company Secretary, wherever the company has appointed a Company Secretary”.

(ii) In sub-section (3), the words “and have the effect as if it were made under its common seal” shall be omitted.

Amendment of Section 46:
In Section 46 of the Principal Act, in sub-section (1), for the words “issued under the common seal of the company”, the words “issued under the common seal, if any, of the company or signed by two directors or by a director and the Company Secretary, wherever the company has appointed a Company Secretary” shall be substituted.

(5) Perpetual Succession

  • Death, insolvency, insanity etc. of any member does not affects continuity legal existence and identity of the company.
  • “Members may come and go, but the company goes on forever.”
  • It can be dissolved only under law through winding up procedure.

(6) Separate Property

  • No member can claim to be the owner or co-owner of company’s property. Member cannot get insurance of the property belonging to the company.
  • Company can own and hold property in its own name.

(7) Capacity to sue and be sued in its own name:

  • A company is a legal person, thus it can sue others and can be sued by others in its own name.
  • In an unincorporated association, an action may have to be brought in name of members either individually/collectively.

Relevant to Lifting of Corporate Veil

  • Due to law’s fiction, company is seen as an entity distinct from its members, but actually company is an association of persons who are the beneficial owners of company’s property.
  • No member can be held, liable for the company’s act even if he holds virtually the entire share capital of the company.
  • Lifting of corporate veil means ignoring the company’s separate legal identity. It involves disregarding of the corporate personality and looking behind the corporate entity, at the controlling persons and make them liable for debts and obligations of the company.
  • It is permissible only when it is permitted by the statute.

It is permitted in the following cases:
(i) If the company is formed for commission of.

  • fraud and improper conduct.
  • to defraud creditors
  • to avoid legal obligations.

Relevant Case Law:

  • Gilford Motor Co. V. Home
  • Jones V Lipman

(ii) To determine whether company Is an enemy company or not.
Relevant Case Law:
Daimler Co. Ltd. V. Continental Tyre and Rubber Co.

(iii) To prevent evasion of taxes and duties.
Relevant Case Law:

  • CIT V Maeriakshi Mills Ltd.
  • Sir Dinshaw Manakjee Petit.

(iv) If purpose of company’s formation is to avoid a welfare legislation e.g. reducing its liability of bonus payable under Bonus Act.
Relevant Case Law:
1. The workers employed in Associated Rubber Industries Ltd. Bhavnagar V. The Associated Rubber Industries Ltd. Bhavnagar and other, A.I.R. 1986 SCI

(v) For the purpose of protecting the public policy and thus, preventing the transaction contrary to public policy.
Relevant Case Law:
1. Connors Bros V. Connors

(vi) If the holding company has incorporated the subsidiary company for the sole purpose of using it as an agent.
Relevant Case Law:
1. Re, R.G Films Ltd.

Various Statutory Provisions for lifting the corporate veil are as follows:

  • Reduction in Membership
  • Misdescription of name.
  • Presentation of group accounts of holding and subsidiary companies.
  • Fraudulent Trading.
  • Payment of Arrears of tax.
  • Ultra-vires acts.
  • Misrepresentation in prospectus.

Elements of Company Law – I – CS Foundation Business Law Notes IMG 1

Difference Between Company and Partnership:

Company Partnership
  • Complex formation due to various legal formalities.
  • Compulsory registration is required.
  • Governed by Companies Act, 2013.
  • Separate legal entity of company from its members.
  • Management is in the hands of B.O.D. appointed by shareholders.
  • Property of the Co. is not the property of individuals.
  • Members of the Co. are not its agents.
  • Members can contract with the company.
  • Shares are freely transferable.
  • Liability of a shareholder is limited by shares or a guarantee.
  • Death or insolvency of a shareholder does not effect the life of the company.
  • A Co. is legally required to have it’s accounts audited annually by a Chartered Accountant.
  • Easy formation due to comparatively less legal formalities.
  • Registration is not compulsory.
  • Governed by Partnership Act, 1932.
  • No separate legal entity.
  • Its affairs, are managed by all or any of them acting for all.
  • Property of the firm, is the property of individuals.
  • Partners are the agents of the firm.
  • Partners cannot contract with the firm.
  • Shares are transferable with the consent of the other partners.
  • Liability of a partner is unlimited.
  • Death or insolvency of a partner dissolves the firm.
  • The accounts of the firm are audited at the discretion of the partners.

Differences between Company and LLP:

Basis Company LLP
Regulation It is regulated by statute i.e. Companies Act, 2013. It is regulated by, a contractual agreement or in absence of it, under Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
Owners and Managers In case of a company there is a clear distinction between owners and managers of a company. In LLP, partners hold ownership and also hold power’s to manage the LLP.
Compliance of Formalities A company would have to file annual return of audited financial statement with MCA each year. LLP does not have to file audited financial statements if its annual turnover is less the 40 lakhs and capital contribution is less than 25 lakhs.
Fine and Penalties A company enjoys few advantage relating fine and penalties from MCA. LLP could incur larger comparatively a company for non-compliance or late filing with MCA example ₹ 100 per day.
Stability A company has been in existence for longer than LLP’s in India as it is older and more familiar. LLP is a recently introduced entity in India therefore, some of the rules, regulations and procedures are continuing to evolve thus, a company has been in existence for longer than LLP.
Investment Benefits A company prevail better access to funding from banks and foreign direct investments than that of LLP. LLP enjoys less funding benefits than that a company because of its better image.
Flexibility Less flexible than LLP. More flexible than a company.

LLP is a separate legal entity, liable to the full extent of its assets but liability of the partners is limited to their agreed contribution in the LLP. No partner is liable on account of the independent or un-authorized actions of other partners.

LLP is not relieved of the liability for its other obligations as a separate entity. As LLP consists elements of both ‘a corporate structure’ as well as ‘a partnership firm’, it is called a hybrid between a company and a partnership.

Difference Between Company and HUF:

Company HUF
1. It consists of heterogeneous members.
2. No karta and coparceners system.
3. Person becomes member on fulfilment of certain requirements.
4. Its registration is compulsory.
1. It consists of homogeneous members.
2. Karta has the sole authority to contract, debts for the purpose of the business. While coparceners do not have such authority.
3. Person becomes member by birth.
4. Its registration is not compulsory.

Difference Between Company and Club:

Company Club
  • It is a trading association.
  • Its registration is compulsory.
  • It is a non-trading association.
  • Its registration is not compulsory

Difference Between Company and Corporation:

  • Corporation refers to an association of persons incorporated as per the relevant law and covered with a legal personality separate from the persons constituting it.
  • It is wider than the word ‘company’
  • It is also known as ‘body corporate’

Difference Between Company v/s Body Corporate:

Basis Company Corporation
Meaning A company which is created and registered under the Indian Companies Act, 2013 or any other previous act. A company is a voluntary association of two or more than two persons. The term corporation is defined in Section 2(11) of the Companies Act, 2013. This includes a private company, public company, OPC, small company, LLP, foreign company etc.
Formation A company must formed in India (under Companies Act, 2013). A corporation includes a company incorporate inside or outside the country. (Exclude co-operative society, any other corporation formed by Central Government).
Scope Comparatively Less. wide.

It includes:

  • a company incorporated outside India.

it does not include:

  • a co-operative society registered under any law relating to societies, co-operative.
  • any other body corporate (not being a company as defined in this act), which the CG may by notification specify in this behalf.

Society whether a body corporate or not?
Any society registered under Societies Registration Act does not come under body corporate.
Relevant Case Law:
(i) Board of Trustees V State of Delhi, A.I.R. 1962 S.C. 458

Advantages of an incorporated Company –

  • Corporate Personality : It has a legal personality which is completely separate from its members.
  • Limited liability : Liability of the members is limited by Shares or guarantee.
  • Perpetual Succession : Death or insolvency of members does not affect the existence or continuity of the company. Even death of a member does not affect its existence.
  • Transferability of Shares : Members are allowed to transfer their shares freely, thus having liquidity of their investment. Share of Private Co. are not freely transferable.
  • Separate Property : Being an artificial legal person, company can own funds and assets in its own name. Company’s property is not its member’s property.
  • Capacity to Sue : Company can sue and be sued by others in its own name.

Flexibility and autonomy : Company can form and amend its own policy with much independence subject to the principles of law, equity and good conscience and in accordance with provisions of Companies Act, 2013 MOA and AOA. Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) has been defined in Companies Act, 2013 to mean:

  • the Chief Executive officer or the managing director or the manager;
  • the company secretary;
  • the whole-time director;
  • the Chief Financial officer; and
  • such other officer as may be prescribed.

As per the Amendment made by Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017 Revised Section 2(51) – “Key Managerial Personnel” in relation to a company, means :

  • the Chief Executive Officer or the Managing Director or the Manager;
  • the Company Secretary;
  • the Whole-time Director;
  • the Chief Financial Officer;
  • such other officer, not more than one level below the directors who is in whole-time employment, designated as key managerial personnel by the Board; and
  • such other officer as may be prescribed;”

Disadvantages of an Incorporated Company:
1. Several legal formalities: Incorporation of a company involves adherence to several legal formalities which requires lot of time and money. Failure to perform any formality or provision attracts penal consequence.

2. Separation of Ownership-and Management: Members have no direct control over the affairs of company which makes their ownership position more passive.

3. Greater Tax Burden: It is liable to pay income tax at a flat rate without any minimum taxable limit.

4. Corporate Disclosures: Members have comparatively restricted assessibility to company’s internal management and day to day working.

5. Greater Social Responsibility: The enormous powers used by companies have an impact on society, thus are subject to greater control and regulation.

6. Lengthy winding up procedure: Even at the time of its winding up, detailed procedure is to be followed which is expensive and time consuming.
Elements of Company Law – I – CS Foundation Business Law Notes IMG 3

Private Company [Section 2(68)]:
1. A company which has the following features is a private company.

  • restricts the right to transfer its shares.
  • except in case of ‘one person company’ a private company should have minimum 2 members and cannot have more than 200 members (excluding employee and ex-employee members).
  • prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.
  • has a minimum paid up capital of one lakh rupees or such higher paid-up capital as prescribed.

2. The company can only accept deposit from its members, directors or their relatives.

3. Joint shareholders are counted as one member.

4. It must add the words ‘Private Limited’ at the end of its name.

5. They are granted certain privilege and exemptions under Companies Act, 2013 because not much public interests is involved in private companies.

6. Company is required to file it’s financial statement and annual returns to ROC (Registrar of Company) which can be accessed by any person by paying fees.

Note:
According to Companies (Amendment Act, 2015):
Provides that in Clause (68), the words “of one lakh rupees or higher paid up capital” shall be omitted.

Certain privileges granted to private company:

  • Only 2 members are required for its incorporation. (One in case of OPC)
  • Minimum 2 directors are required to be appointed.
  • Does not requires commencement of business certificate.
  • Provisions of managerial remuneration does not apply.
  • No limit on borrowings, etc.

Public Company [Section 2(71)]:
1. Public Company means a company which:

  • is not a private company
  • has a minimum paid-up share capital of five lakh rupees or such higher paid-up capital as may be prescribed.
  • is a subsidiary of a company, not being a private company, shall be deemed to be public company for the purpose of this act. Subsidiary of public co. is also treated to be public company.
  • should have minimum seven members and have no limit for maximum members.

2. It requires minimum 7 members for its formation.

3. Any member of public can acquire its shares/debentures.

4. Its shares are capable of being dealt in stock exchange.

5. According to Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015:
Provides that in Clause (71), the words “of ₹ 5 lakhs or higher paid up share capital” shall be omitted.

Differences Between Public and Private Company:

Basis of Differentiation Private Company Public Company
Minimum number of member Two (one incase of OPC) Seven
Maximum number of member 200 Unlimited
Transferability of shares Restricted Freely transferable
Raising Capital from public Not allowed Allowed
Number of Directors Minimum-two maximum -15 Minimum – 3 Maximum -15
Name of company Name must end with the words ‘Private Ltd.’ Name must end with the word ‘limited’
Exemption from several legal restriction Not required to observe several legal restrictions Too many legal formalities and restriction to be adhered to
Minimum paid-up capital One lakh as per the Amendment made by Companies (Amendment Act, 2015), provides that in clause (68) the words of one lakh rupees or higher paid up capital shall be omitted. Five lakh.
as per the Amendment made by Companies (Amendment Act, 2015), provides that in clause (71) the words of ₹ Five lakh or higher paid up capital shall be omitted.

Company limited by Shares:

  • It is a registered company whether public or private company.
  • Liability of members is limited to the unpaid amount on the shares held by them.
  • This should be stated in the MOA of such company.
  • It arises when a valid call is made by the company.

Company limited by Guarantee:

  • It is a registered company whether public or private company.
  • Liability of members is limited to the amount that he has guaranteed to pay to the company.
  • Liability arises only in the event of winding up of company.
  • Its MOA should state the amount of guarantee given by members.
  • Example – clubs, trade associations etc.

Unlimited Company:

  • Its memorandum does not in any way limits the liability of its members.
  • Every member is liable to contribute to’the company’s assets until all its debts are paid in full.
  • Not common in India
  • Members are not however, liable directly to the company’s creditors.
  • Liquidator asks the members to contribute in the event of company’s winding up.
  • It may be subsequently converted into a limited company, subject to certain conditions.
  • The liability is extended to the personal property of the members.

Company with Charitable Objects Non-Profit Companies / Licenced Companies [Section 8]:

  • Licence may be granted by CG if the following conditions are satisfied:
  • Company’s object is to promote art, commerce, science, religion, charity or any other useful object.
  • Company applies its income in promoting its object.
  • Company prohibits payment of any dividend to its members.
  • It is not required to use the words ‘Limited’ or ‘Private Limited’ at the end of its name even though it is a Limited Company.
  • It shall enjoy all privileges and be subject to all the obligations of limited company.
  • A firm may become its member.
  • Company can alter its object clause in MOA or AOA only by obtaining previous approval of CG in writing.
  • It can convert itself into company of any kind only after complying with the prescribed conditions.

Conditions for revoking licence by CG:

  • Company contravenes any of the requirements or any of the conditions subject to which a licence was issued,
  • Its affairs are conducted fraudulently
  • Its affairs are conducted in manner violative of company’s objects, or
  • Prejudicial to public interest.

On revocation CG may also direct the company:

  • to wound up, or
  • amalgamate with another company registered under section 8, if it is in public interest.

On revocation of licence by CG:

  • ‘Words limited’ or ‘Private limited’ shall be inserted at the end of company’s name.
  • Company shall cease to enjoy exemptions granted by CG Under Section 8

Before revocation, CG shall give an opportunity of being heard to the company.

Government Company [Section 2(45)]:
1. It is a company –
(i) In which not less than 51% of the paid up share capital is held by:

  • CG (Central Government)
  • SG (State Government)
  • Partially by CG and partially by SG

(ii) Which is a subsidiary of a Government Company.

2. Its auditor is appointed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C & AG).

3. C & AG:

  • Directs the manner in which the accounts are to be audited.
  • Gives instructions to auditor regarding the performance of his functions.
  • Conducts supplementary test audit by persons authorised by him.
  • Comments upon or supplements the audit report submitted to him by the auditor.

4. If CG holds shares in the company, it is required to place before both houses of Parliament an annual report of its working within 3 months of its AGM along with a copy of audit report and any comments or supplements to it by Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

5. If SG holds shares in the company, its annual report is to be placed in the same manner before the house or both the houses State Legislature.

6. If CG does not holds shares in the company, every SG who holds shares in the Co. or where only one SG holds shares in the co. shall cause its annual report to be placed in the same manner before the house or both the houses of state legislature.

7. CG by notification in the Official Gazette can grant them certain exemptions from some provisions of Companies Act.

Foreign Company [Section 2(42)]:
Foreign Company means any company or body corporate incorporated outside India which:

  • has a place of business in India, whether by itself or through agent, physically or through electronic mode
  • conducts any business activity in India in any other manner. Thus, the companies doing business through electronic mode are also termed as foreign company and need to comply with the specified provisions.

Under foreign company:
If not less than 50% of the paid-up capital is held by:

  • one or more citizens of India, or
  • one or more companies or body corporate incorporated in India, or
  • partly by above two,

Whether singly or in aggregate, it has comply with:

  • provisions of chapter XXIII dealing with company incorporated outside India, and
  • other prescribed provisions of Companies Act, 2013 as if it were a company incorporated in India.

The following documents are required to be submitted by a foreign company with the Roc of New Delhi and with ROC of the State in which such place of business is situated within 30 days of the establishment.

  • Certified copy of the Constitution of the company
  • Full address of the principle or registered office
  • Particulars of the directors and secretary of the company
  • Name and address of the authorised person in India
  • Full address of the principle place of business in India.

Holding and Subsidiary Company [Section 2(46) and 2(87)]:
1. When a company:
(a) controls the composition of board of directors, or

(b) exercises or controls more than one half of the total share capita! either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies then, it is known as the holding company and the other company is the subsidiary company.

Total share capital for this purpose means the aggregate of:

  • Paid-up equity shares capital and
  • Convertible preference share capital.

2. Holding Company shall not have layers of subsidiaries beyond prescribed limit.
The expression “Company” includes any body corporate.

3. The word control includes;

  • The right to appoint majority of the directors or
  • to control the management or
  • the policy decisions exercisable by a person or persons acting individually or in concert, directly or indirectly including by virtue of their share holding or
  • management rights or shareholders agreements or voting agreements or in any other manner.
  • As per the Amendment made by Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017 For the purposes of this clause, the expression “company” includes anybody corporate;

Holding Company:
Elements of Company Law – I – CS Foundation Business Law Notes IMG 2

One Person Company (OPC) [Section 2(62)]:
1. It means a company which has only one person as a member.

2. The MOA of such a company is required to indicate, the name of the other person, with his prior consent in the prescribed form, who shall, in the event of the subscriber’s death’ or his incapacity to contract become the member of the company and the written consent of such person shall be filed with ROC at the time of its incorporation along with MOA and AO A.

3. Only a natural person who is an Indian citizen and resident in India is eligible to incorporate OPC and be its nominee.

4. “Resident in India” means a person who has stayed in India for a period of not less than 182 days during immediately preceding one calender year.

5. It is considered as a private company.

6. It has been granted many relaxations in compliance and procedural aspects.

7. No person shall be eligible to incorporate more than one OPC or become nominee in more than one OPC.

8. No minor shall become member or nominee of OPC or hold share with beneficial interest.

9. It cannot be incorporated or converted into Section 8 company.

10. It cannot carry out Non-Banking Financial Investment Activities including investment in securities of any Body corporates.

11. It cannot convert voluntarily into private company unless two years have expired from date of its incorporation, except if its paid-up capital is increased beyond 50 lakh rupees or its average annual turnover exceeds two crore rupees.

Small Company [Section 2(85)] – Such classification is based on size i.e. paid up capital & turnover:
1. It means a company other than a public company whose:

  • paid-up capital does not exceeds ₹ 50 lakh or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 5 crore.
  • turnover as per last profit and loss account does not exceeds ₹ 2 crore or such higher amount as may be prescribed, which shall not be more than ₹ 20 crore.

2. These are small sized private companies

3. However, nothing applies to:

  • holding company or subsidiary company,
  • company registered under Section 8
  • company or body corporate governed by any Special Act.

As per the Amendment made by Companies (Amendment) Act, 2017 – “Small Company means a company, other than a public company:
(i) paid-up share capital of which does not exceed fifty lakh rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ten crore rupees; and

(ii) turnover of which as per profit and loss account for the immediately preceding financial year does not exceed two crore – rupees or such higher amount as may be
prescribed which shall not be more than one hundred crore rupees.”

Producer Company:

  • A company registered under part chapter IX A.
  • If the company is engaged in activities which is not described under Section 581 B, ROC can cancel the registration exclusively engaged in the activities specified by Section 581 B.
  • The membership of producer companies is to open such people who themselves are primary producers, which is an activity by some agricultural products is produced by such primary producer.
  • Any existed company can not convert itself in to producer and
  • Producer can not convert itself in to any other company.

Promotion and Incorporation of a Company:
1. Company should be formed for lawful purpose i.e. it, should not be in contravention of general law of the country.

2. Registrar of Companies (ROC) is a body which –

  • registers the company.
  • receives documents and forms from the company and registers them.
  • maintains company’s record.
  • makes these records available for public inspection.
  • ensures that company comply with provisions of Companies Act, 2013.

Company formation involves 3 steps:

  • Promotion
  • Incorporation by Registration, and.
  • Commencement of Business.

Promotion:

  • Is the process of conceiving an idea and developing it into a concrete proposition or project to be accomplished by the incorporation and floatation of a company.
  • The person who takes necessary steps to accomplish these objectives is known as promoter.

Promoter [Section 2(69)] means a person:

  • who has been named as such in a prospectus or is identified by the company in the annual return referred to in Section 92; or
  • who has control over the affairs of the company, directly or indirectly whether as a shareholder, director or otherwise; or
  • in accordance with whose advice, directions or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act.

Provided that sub-clause (c) shall not apply to a person who is acting merely in a professional capacity.
1. A director/officer/employee who has control over the affairs of the company, directly or indirectly whether as a share holder, director or otherwise is considered as a promoter.

2. However, a director/officer/employee of the issuer or a person, if acting as such merely in his professional capacity, shall not be treated as a promoter.

Functions of promoters include:

  • Decides the company’s name and ensures its acceptance by ROC.
  • Decides the company’s detail about MOA, AOA, director’s nomination, solicitors, bankers, auditors, secretary etc.
  • Identifies the registered office of the company.
  • Arranges for printing of MOA, AOA, registration, issue of prospectus etc.

3. He is responsible for bringing the co. in the existence for the object which he has in mind.

4. Company cannot ratify the contract made by promoter before its incorporation.
Relevant case law:
1. Kelner V. Baxter

5. A promoter is neither an agent nor a trustee of the company, as the company has not come into existence.

6. A promoter stands in a fiduciary capacity towards the company.
Duties of promoter includes:

  • Not to make any secret profit.
  • Full and fair disclosure of interests.

Relevant case law:
1. Gliuckstein V. Barnes.

Remedies available to company are:

  • Recession of contract
  • Recovery of secret profit made by the promoter
  • Company may sue the promoter for breach of trust

Procedure for Incorporation or Registration – Certain legal requirements to be fulfilled:

  • There must be an association of persons.
  • Minimum 2 persons are required in case of private company (One in case of OPC) and 7 persons in case of pubic company.
  • Company must have a common object.
  • Company must be a formed for lawful object.
  • MOA and AOA must be subscribed.
  • Formalities of incorporation must be complied with.

Availability of Name:
1. Company must have a name of its own to establish its separate identity.

2. Name is a symbol of its independent corporate existence.

3. Company may adopt any suitable name provided it is not undesirable.

4. As per Section 4(2), name shall not be.

  • identical with or resemble too nearly to name of an existing company registered under this Act
  • such that its use by company: will constitute an offence under any law for the time being in force, or is undesirable in opinion of CG.

5. Section 4(3) states that company, shall not be registered with a name which contains any word or expression:

  • giving an expression that it is in any way connected or having a patronage of CG, any SG, local authority, or corporation etc., or
  • prescribed, unless approved by CG.

6. As per Section 4(4) person has to make an application in e-form no. INC1 alongwith fee to ROC for reservation of

  • proposed name, or
  • name to which it proposes to change.

7. ROC with reserve the name for 60 days from date of application.

8. The main object is to prevent the use of name likely to mislead the public.
Vetting of MOA and AOA, Printing, Stamping and Signing : Promoters have to approach ROC for the required help. ROC do not charges any fees. A written request is to be made by the promoters. ROC helps and assists them and after vetting of MOA and AOA, he gets them printed. They have to be stamped as per the Stamp Act of the state in which the registered office is situated. They are to be signed by the subscribers or an agent on their behalf.

9. MOA and AOA shall be signed in following manner as per Rule 13 of Companies Rules, 2014:

  • They shall be signed by each subscriber to MOA in presence of atleast one witness who shall attest the signature.
  • Both the subscriber and witness shall add his name, address, description and occupation.
  • If subscriber is illiterate, he shall affix his thumb impression or mark.
  • Person writing on his behalf shall describe the mark, place name of subscriber against it and authenticate it by his own signature, and write no. of shares taken by him.
  • Such person shall read and explain contents of MOA and AOA to subscriber.
  • If subscriber is a body corporate, then it shall be signed by director, officer, or employee of body corporate authorized by resolution passed by BOD.
  • If such person is a LLP, then it shall be signed by a partner of LLP, duly authorized by resolution passed by all the partners.
  • Provided that in either case, the person so authorized shall not, at the same time, be a subscriber to MOA & AOA.

Where the subscriber to the memorandum is a foreign national residing outside India.

(a)
Country in any part of common wealth

(b)
Country which is party to the Hague Apostille Convention 1961

(c)
Country outside the common wealth and not party to the Hague Apostille Convention 1961

Signatures and address on MOA and AOA and proof of identity Notarized by a Notary (Public) in that part of the common wealth Notarized by a Notary (Public) of the country of his origin and duly certified by Hague convention. Notarized by a Notary (Public) of such country and certified by a diplomatic or consular officer empowered in this behalf.

(d) Visited in India and he is not a person of Indian origin or overseas citizen of India and intended to incorporate a company, in such a case the incorporation shall be allowed if he/she is having a valid business visa.

Power of Attorney:
Promoters may appoint an attorney for carrying out instructions and requirements by registrar. Power of attorney is to be executed on a non judicial stamp paper for this purpose.

Documents required to be filed with ROC Compulsory:

S. No. Form No. Title Particulars
1. f. INC. 33 under SPICE Form No. Memorandum of Association Constitution of company
2. f. INC. 34 under SPICE Articles of Association Regulations relating to internal management of company.
3. INC.8 Declaration from Professional Section 7(1)(b) requires filing of a declaration in the prescribed form by an advocate, a Chartered Accountant, Cost Accountant or Company Secretary in practice, who is engaged in the formation of the company and by person name in AOA as Director, manager or secretary of the company.
4. INC.9 Declaration from subscribers to MOA. Section 7(1)(c) requires filing of Self declaration from subscribers of MOA and from persons named as first directors.

1. These are to be filed within 30/180 days of incorporation respectively, but before the commencement of business.

S. No. Form No. Title Particulars
1. INC.22 Notice of registered address Location of the company’s registered office
2. DIR.12 Particulars of directors/ Consent to act as a director As per Section 7(1) (f) & (g) if company appoints any person as its director, manager or secretary by virtue of its AOA, its particulars must be filed and also the particulars of their interests in other firms or body corporate along with their consent, to act as directors.
3. _ Particulars of subscribers Section 7(1 )(e) requires filing of particulars of name, residential address, nationality and other particulars of every subscriber to MOA along with the proof of identity.

2. The prescribed fees for the registration of the company depending upon the company’s nominal capital is required to be paid to the ROC.

3. ROC will register all the documents filed with him and there after register the company by issuing a certificate of incorporation, if he is satisfied that:

  • All requirements aforesaid have been complied with.
  • Company is authorised to be registered under the Act.

4. Incorporation has the following effects [Section 9]:

  • Company becomes a body corporate
  • It acquires a legal recognition
  • It gets a name in which it will carry on business.
  • Its object are laid down.
  • Subscribers become the members of the company.

Incorporation certificate issued by ROC shall be a conclusive evidence that [Section 7]:

  • all requirements of Companies Act have been complied with in respect of registration and matters precedent and incidental thereto,
  • association is a company authorised to be registered,
  • association has been duly registered under the Companies Act.

A significant step is taken by MCA by introducing e-forms INC – 32 under SPICE scheme vide MCA’s notification dated 01/10/2016 notifying companies (Incorporation) fourth Amendment Rules, 2016. SPICE means simplified performa for Incorporating Companies Electronically.

The SPICE form is also introduced with a function to prepare e-MOA & e- AOA (electronic MOA/AOA) via this attribute there is no opportunity to prepare the manual MOA/AOA & no option to physically sign the MOA/AOA by subscribers and witness. Form INC. 32 under SPICE scheme is a single window form which can be used for the following purposes:

  • Application of DIN
  • Application for availability of name
  • No need to file separate form for first director (DIR. 12)
  • Address of Regd. Office (INC. 22) j
  • No need to file separate form for PAN/TAN. Form INC. 33 is meant for e-MOA (electronic MOA) & form
  • INC. 34 is meant for e-AOA (electronic AOA).

Relevant Case Law:
(i) Jubilee Cotton Mills Ltd. v. Lewis

(ii) Moosa v. Ebrahim:
Even if MOA was signed by 2 adults and 5 others, who were minors, due to which certificate issued was void, however certificate is conclusive for all purpose and it prevents anyone from alleging that the company does not exist.

(iii) Performing Right Society Ltd. v. London Theatre of varieties. Where the object of a company is unlawful, it has been held that the certificate of registration is not conclusive for this purpose.

Allotment of Corporate Identity Number (CIN):

  1. As per Section 7(3), ROC shall allot CIN to the company from the date mentioned in the incorporation certificate.
  2. This shall be a distinct identity for the company.

Memorandum of Association (MOA):

  1. It contains the constitution of the company
  2. It is the first step in company’s formation
  3. As per Section 2(56), “memorandum” means the memorandum of association of a company as originally framed and altered from time to time in pursuance of any previous company law or this Act.
  4. It not only shows the objects of formation but also determines the scope of its operations beyond which its actions cannot go.
  5. According to Palmer, “MOA is a document of great importance in relation to the proposed company.”
  6. It is the charter of a company
  7. It is the premise on which the whole foundation of the company stands
  8. It contains 6 clauses which are known as the ‘conditions of memorandum’.

Name Clause:

  1. Contains the name of the proposed company
  2. Name should not be undesirable
  3. It should not be identical with the name of another company
  4. It should not be prohibited one
  5. It should end with Words Limited or Private Limited.
  6. It must be approved by ROC

Situation Clause / Registered Office Clause:

  1. It contain only the name of the state in which the registered office is situated
  2. It does not contains the complete address of the registered office.

Object Clause:

  1. It contains the objects to be pursued by the proposed company.
  2. It is sub divided into:
    (a) Main objects, and other incidental and ancillary objects.
    (b) Other objects.

Liability Clause:

  1. It is required by the limited company only
  2. It contains whether the liability of members is limited by shares, guarantee or both.

Capital Clause:
(i) It is mandatory for every company

(ii) It states:

  • The number of shares
  • The nominal value of each share, and
  • The total capital with which the company is to be registered.

Subscription Clause:

  • MOA must be subscribed by atleast 7 persons in case of public company and atleast 2 persons in case of private company. (1 in case of OPC)
  • Every subscriber shall take atleast one share in case of company limited by shares. The MOA should be signed by each subscriber also stating his address description and occupation.
  • Particulars of every subscriber shall be witnessed.

In case of OPC, name of person who is in the event of death of subscriber, shall become the member of company.

Articles of Association:

  • As per section 2(5) “AOA” means the articles of association of company as originally framed or as altered from time to time or applied in pursuance of any previous Company Law or Act.
  • It contains the regulations relating to the internal management of the company.
  • These rules and regulations are framed by the company for its own governance.
  • It is also called as regulations or bye laws of the company.
  • It is subordinate to and is controlled by the memorandum of association
  • In case of contradiction with AOA, MOA prevails.
  • Public company limited by shares need not have its own articles. It can adopt Table F of Schedule I.
  • Private company must register its own articles.
  • Some of the important clauses of articles are as follows:
  • Share capital and variation of rights, lien on shares, forfeiture of shares, directors, their appointment, accounts and audit, GM, share certificates, etc.
  • The Articles plays a part that is subsidiary to the memorandum of association.
  • The Articles govern the ways in which the object of the company are to be carried out and can be framed and altered by the members.
  • It must be within the limits marked out by the memorandum and the ‘ Companies Act.
  • It must be printed, divided into paragraphs, numbered consecutively, stamped adequately, signed by each subscriber to the memorandum and duly witnessed and filed along with the memorandum.

Forms of Articles include:

  • Table F – Articles of company limited by shares.
  • Table H – Articles of company limited by guarantee not having share capital.
  • Table G – Articles of company limited by guarantee having share capital.
  • Table I – Articles of an unlimited company having share capital.
  • Table J – Articles of an unlimited company not having share capital.

Content of Articles:
The articles should contain generally the following matters:

  1. Exclusion wholly or in part of Table F
  2. Adoption of preliminary contracts
  3. Number and value of shares
  4. Issue of preference shares
  5. Allotment of shares
  6. Calls on share
  7. Lien on shares
  8. Transfer and transmission of shares.
  9. Nomination
  10. Forfeiture of shares
  11. Alteration of capital
  12. Buy Back
  13. Share certificates
  14. Dematerialisation
  15. Conversion of shares into stock
  16. Voting rights and proxies
  17. Meetings and rules regarding committees
  18. Directors, their appointment and delegation of powers
  19. Nominee directors
  20. Issue of Debentures and stocks
  21. Audit committee
  22. Managing Director, whole time Director, Manager, Secretary
  23. Additional Director
  24. Seal
  25. Remuneration of Directors
  26. General meetings
  27. Directors meetings
  28. Borrowing powers
  29. Dividends and Reserves
  30. Accounts and Audit
  31. Winding up
  32. Indemnity
  33. Capitalisation of Reserves

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) A company is an artificial person created by law.
(b) A company can do every act like a natural person except the acts which are pureiy of personal nature.
(c) A company can be held liable for violation of the statutory provisions of the Companies Act.
(d) A company can be imprisoned for violation of such provision which attract penalty by way of imprisonment only.
Answer:
(d) A company can be imprisoned for violation of such provision which attract penalty by way of imprisonment only.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of a public company?
(a) It has a separate legal entity.
(b) It has a perpetual succession.
(c) It has a common seal and separate property
(d) Its shares are non-transferable.
Answer:
(d) Its shares are non-transferable.

Question 3.
A and B were the only members of a company who died in a road accent. In this case, the company comes to end on the death of A and B.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 4.
A company being a legal person is also a citizen under the Constitution of India ________.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 5.
A statutory company or corporation is one which is incorporated ________.
(a) By an Act of Parliament
(b) By an Act of State Legislature
(c) Under the Companies Act, 2013
(d) By either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) By either (a) or (b)

Question 6.
In case of a company limited by guarantee, the liability of the members can be enforced ________.
(a) At any time when the company so decides
(b) Only at the time of winding up of the company
(c) Only by an order of court
(d) Only by an order of Registrar of Companies
Answer:
(b) Only at the time of winding up of the company

Question 7.
A Government Company is one in which 51% or more of the paid up share capital is held by ________.
(a) Central Government alone
(b) State Government alone
(c) Central and State Government jointly
(d) Any of the above
Answer:
(d) Any of the above

Question 8.
At the time of registration the filing of Articles of Association with the Registrar of Companies is compulsory for ________.
(a) Private companies, unlimited companies and companies limited by guarantee
(b) Unlimited companies only
(c) Companies limited by shares only
(d) All types of companies
Answer:
(a) Private companies, unlimited companies and companies limited by guarantee

Question 9.
If at the time of registration, a company limited by shares does not file Articles of Association with the Registrar, then ________.
(a) The company cannot be registered without this document
(b) The company is deemed to be adopted “Table F”
(c) The company is deemed to have become a company with unlimited liability
(d) The directors become liable to be punished with fine at the rale of ₹ 50 for each day during which the default continues
Answer:
(b) The company is deemed to be adopted “Table F”

Question 10.
On 14th July, the Registrar of Companies issued a Certificate of Incorporation, but it was dated 10th July instead of 14th July. From which date the company will legally come into existence?
(a) 10th July
(b) 14th July
(c) 31st July
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) 10th July

Question 11.
A company comes into existence when ________.
(a) the ‘memorandum of association’ is signed by the required number of members.
(b) the ‘memorandum of association’ is submitted for registration to the Registrar of Companies.
(c) It is registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
(d) It establishes its registered office and starts functioning there form.
Answer:
(c) It is registered under the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 12.
A company formed for the promotion of commerce, art, science, religion, charity etc. may not use the word limited’ at the end of its name, even if it is a limited company.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 13.
The Registered office clause of Memorandum of Association contains ________.
(a) The name of the state in which the registered office of the company is to be situated.
(b) The name of the city/town only and not that of the state.
(c) The name of Registrar of companies.
(d) The complete postal address.
Answer:
(a) The name of the state in which the registered office of the company is to be situated.

Question 14.
The Object clause of Memorandum of Association must be divided into two Sub- Clauses, namely (i) main objects clause, and (ii) object in furtherance of main object clause.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 15.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) In limited companies, the liability of members holding fully paid-up shares is Nil.
(b) In companies limited by guarantee, the liability of members is limited to the amount which they have agreed to pay.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) None of these is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

Question 16.
For which of the following companies it is not obligatory to have Articles of Association?
(a) Public Companies Limited by Shares
(b) Public Companies Limited by Guarantee
(c) Private Limited Companies
(d) Unlimited Companies
Answer:
(a) Public Companies Limited by Shares

Question 17.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ‘memorandum’ and ‘articles’ are binding on the members in their relation to the company.
(b) The ‘memorandum’ and ‘articles’ are binding on the company in their relation to the members.
(c) None of these is true
(d) Both of these are true
Answer:
(d) Both of these are true

Question 18.
Company’s ‘memorandum’ and ‘articles’ are public documents.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 19.
In case ‘memorandum’ and ‘articles’ are inconsistent, then which shall * prevail over the others?
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) The one approved by Registrar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Memorandum of Association

Question 20.
A public company having a share capital can start its business on obtaining ________.
(a) Certificate of incorporation and approval of Company Law Board.
(b) ‘Certificate to commence business’ and approval of Company Law Board.
(c) ‘Certificate of Incorporation’
(d) Approval of High Court.
Answer:
(c) ‘Certificate of Incorporation’

Question 21.
Company has succession.
(a) Longer
(b) Continued
(c) Perpetual
(d) Limited
Answer:
(c) Perpetual

Question 22.
If company do not follow the principle of separate legal entity can be done.
(a) Lifting of corporate veil
(b) Principle of equity
(c) Principle of natural justice
(d) All of above
Answer:
(a) Lifting of corporate veil

Question 23.
Total managerial remuneration in a public company cannot be of net profit.
(a) 10%
(b) 11%
(c) 18%
(d) 11.5%
Answer:
(b) 11%

Question 24.
Audit of Government Company is done by C & AG. This statement is ________.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 25.
Any Corporate Body/Association of Firm can be appointed as director of the company. This statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 26.
How many members should sign the MOA in case of public company?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Question 27.
conceives the idea of the business.
(a) Promoters
(b) Auditors
(c) Directors
(d) Shareholders
Answer:
(a) Promoters

Question 28.
Shares of company are freely transferable.
(a) Private company
(b) Public company
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Public company

Question 29.
Life Insurance Corporation Ltd. is formed under:
(a) Companies Act, 2013
(b) Special Act of Parliament
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Special Act of Parliament

Question 30.
Company’s corporate personality was brought forward in the case of:
(a) Macaura V. Northern Assurance Co. Ltd.
(b) Jons V. Lipman.
(c) CIT V. Meenakshi Mills Ltd.
(d) Salomon V Salomon and Co. Ltd.
Answer:
(d) Salomon V Salomon and Co. Ltd.

Question 31.
Which of the following is a non-trading association?
(a) Company
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Club
(d) HUF
Answer:
(c) Club

Question 32.
Promoter is both an agent and trustee of the proposed company.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 33.
Liability clause in MOA is required by:
(a) Company limited by shares
(b) Company limited by guarantee
(c) Company limited by both shares and guarantee
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 34.
Articles of unlimited company having share capital is included in:
(a) Table I
(b) Table G
(c) Table H
(d) Table F
Answer:
(a) Table I

Question 35.
Which one of the following is not a main clause of memorandum of association?
(a) Name clause
(b) Capital clause
(c) Object clause
(d) Profit clause
Answer:
(d) Profit clause

Question 36.
________ is to be executed on a non judicial stamp paper.
(a) Share warrant
(b) Power of attorney
(c) Incorporation certificate
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Power of attorney

Question 37.
The word company is derived from word “Com Panis”.
(a) French
(b) Latin
(c) German
(d) Indian
Answer:
(b) Latin

Question 38.
Which of the following are the characteristics of a company?
(a) Corporate Personality
(b) Limited Liability
(c) Perpetual Succession
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 39.
The company has a capacity to sue and be ________.
(a) Incorporated
(b) Sued
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sued

Question 40.
A company may be an ________.
(a) Incorporated company
(b) Unincorporated company
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Incorporated company

Question 41.
A word corporation is derived from latin term “corpus” which means ________.
(a) Body
(b) Legal Person
(c) Artificial Person
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Body

Question 42.
The liability of the member of the company is limited to the extent of the of the shares held by them.
(a) Unpaid value
(b) Paid value
(c) Nominal value
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Nominal value

Question 43.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Partners are the agents of the firm but member of company are not its agents
(b) Partner cannot contract with his firm but a member of a company can
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these is correct
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 44.
In public company, the members of the company is not less than ________.
(a) Two
(b) Seven
(c) Ten
(d) Twenty
Answer:
(b) Seven

Question 45.
In Private Company, member of the company is not less than ________.
(a) Seven
(b) Ten
(c) Two
(d) Eight
Answer:
(c) Two

Question 46.
A company is a on the other hand a club is a ________.
(a) Trading association, non trading association.
(b) Mon trading association, trading association.
(c) Trading association, trading association.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Trading association, non trading association.

Question 47.
Which of the following are not the advantages of incorporation?
(a) Separate property
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) Capacity to sue
(d) Flexibility & autonomy
Answer:
(b) Unlimited liability

Question 48.
Which of the following are not the disadvantage of incorporation?
(a) Formalities and expenses
(b) Corporate disclosure
(c) Limited liability
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Limited liability

Question 49.
Which of the following are kinds of companies?
(a) Private companies
(b) Producer companies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 50.
Provisions related to accounts, winding up, calls on shares, forfeiture, etc. are contained in ________.
(a) Articles of Association
(b) Memorandum of Association
(c) Prospectus
(d) Statement in.lieu of prospectus
Answer:
(a) Articles of Association

Question 51.
What are the limits of number of members in a Private Company?
(a) Fifty
(b) Seven
(c) Twenty
(d) Two hundred
Answer:
(d) Two hundred

Question 52.
If XYZ is the holding company of P&R Ltd. then, which of the following statement is not true in this regard.
(a) XYZ Ltd. controls the composition of Board of P&R
(b) XYZ Ltd. holds more than 50% of the nominal value of the equity shares
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 53.
Which of the following is not a stage of the development of company?
(a) Promotion
(b) Production
(c) Incorporation
(d) Commencement of Business
Answer:
(b) Production

Question 54.
Which of the following company/companies are registered by the Companies Act, 2013?
(a) Government Company
(b) Private Company
(c) Public Company
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 55.
A public company must have atleast directors whereas a private company must have atleast directors.
(a) 3 ; 2
(b) 2 ; 3
(c) 2 ; 5
(d) 8; 10
Answer:
(a) 3 ; 2

Question 56.
A subsidiary of a government company is also treated as a ________.
(a) Government Company
(b) Public Company
(c) Private Company
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Government Company

Question 57.
The ________ of a government company is appointed or reappointed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
(a) Auditor
(b) Company Secretary
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Auditor

Question 58.
Which of the following company is incorporated in a country outside India?
(a) Private Company
(b) Foreign Companies
(c) Government Company
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Foreign Companies

Question 59.
Wnich of the following statement is false?
(a) No legal formality is required to form a company.
(b) The shareholders of a company have limited liability.
(c) A company can own property in its own name.
(d) A company is managed by the elected representatives of shareholders.
Answer:
(a) No legal formality is required to form a company.

Question 60.
A ________ is one who performs the preliminary duties necessary to bring a company into being and float it.
(a) Auditor
(b) Promoter
(c) Director
(d) Financer
Answer:
(b) Promoter

Question 61.
The registered office clause of memorandum of association contains ________.
(a) The name of the state in which the registered office of the company is to be situated.
(b) The name of the city/town only and not that of the state.
(c) The name of registrar of companies
(d) The complete postal address.
Answer:
(a) The name of the state in which the registered office of the company is to be situated.

Question 62.
“One who undertakes to form a company with reference to a given object and set it going and who takes the necessary steps to accomplish that purpose”
(a) Promoter
(b) Directors
(c) C.E.O.
(d) Board of Directors
Answer:
(a) Promoter

Question 63.
Which of the following are the functions of a promoter?
(a) Decides name of a company
(b) Nomination of directors
(c) Settles the details of memorandum and articles
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 64.
A ________ is neither an agent, nor a trustee of a company.
(a) Directors
(b) Company Secretary
(c) Employees
(d) Promoters
Answer:
(d) Promoters

Question 65.
Which documents contains the constitution of a company?
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Memorandum of Association

Question 66.
Which documents contains the regulations relating to the internal management of a company?
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Articles of Association

Question 67.
For vetting the MOA and AOA, as per SPiCE eMOA and eAOA is required.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) True

Question 68.
The companies are regulated-under ________.
(a) Companies Act, 1596
(b) Companies Act, 1957
(c) Indian Partnership Act,1932
(d) Companies Act, 2013
Answer:
(d) Companies Act, 2013

Question 69.
The certificate of incorporation is that the company is entitled to commence business.
(a) Exclusive
(b) Conclusive
(c) Supportive
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Question 70.
The whole process of the company formation may be divided into three direct stages, the sequence is ________.
(a) Promotion, incorporation by registration, commencement of business.
(b) Incorporation by registration, commencement of business, promotion.
(c) Commencement of business, promotion, incorporation by registration.
(d) Commencement of business, incorporation by registration, promotion.
Answer:
(a) Promotion, incorporation by registration, commencement of business.

Question 71.
Company is managed by ________.
(a) Shareholders
(b) Board of Directors
(c) Karta
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(b) Board of Directors

Question 72.
H.U.F. consists of which type of members ________.
(a) Both (b) & (c)
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Homogeneous
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Homogeneous

Question 73.
Partnership is governed by Partnership Act ‘
(a) 1956
(b) 1948
(c) 1932
(d) 1982
Answer:
(c) 1932

Question 74.
Which is not a case of lifting of corporate veil ________.
(a) Connors Bros. v. Connors
(b) Jones v. Lipren
(c) Pearce v. Brookes
(d) CIT v. Meenakshi Mills Ltd.
Answer:
(c) Pearce v. Brookes

Question 75.
Word ‘Corporation’ is ________ than company
(a) Narrow
(b) Wider
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Wider

Question 76.
Advantage of incorporated company is ________.
(a) Corporate disclosures
(b) Common seal
(c) Capacity to sue
(d) Winding up procedure
Answer:
(c) Capacity to sue

Question 77.
Find the odd one out:
(a) Private Company
(b) Public Company
(c) Consumer Company
(d) Producer Company
Answer:
(c) Consumer Company

Question 78.
Joint shareholders are counted as ________.
(a) Two
(b) No limit
(c) 50
(d) One
Answer:
(d) One

Question 79.
Example of company limited by guarantee ________.
(a) Clubs
(b) Both (a) & (c)
(c) Societies
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Both (a) & (c)

Question 80.
Which is not a registered company ________.
(a) Company limited by share
(b) Company limited by guarantee
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 81.
Public company shares are dealt in ________.
(a) Stock exchange
(b) Public
(c) Market
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Stock exchange

Question 82.
Is there any limit on borrowings to a Private Company ________.
(a) Limit up to ₹ 50,000
(b) Limit up to 1 lakh
(c) No limit
(d) None
Answer:
(c) No limit

Question 83.
Unlimited company may be subsequently converted into limited company ________.
(a) True
(b) Partly true
(c) False
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

Question 84.
Non-Profit companies are also called ________.
(a) Holding companies
(b) Licensed companies
(c) Subsidiary companies
(d) Government companies
Answer:
(b) Licensed companies

Question 85.
Government company comes under section ________.
(a) 2(46)
(b) 2(44)
(c) 2(43)
(d) 2(45)
Answer:
(d) 2(45)

Question 86.
Foreign company must issue prospectus ________.
(a) True
(b) Partly true
(c) False
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) True

Question 87.
Company’s memorandum & articles are public documents ________.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 88.
For Incorporation or registration ________.
(a) MOA must be subscribed
(b) AOA must be subscribed
(c) Only MOA
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (b)

Question 89.
MOA contains ________.
(a) Constitutions
(b) Regulations
(c) Declaration
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Constitutions

Question 90.
MOA has ________.
(a) 9
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 91.
AOA is also called as ________ of the company.
(a) Regulations
(b) Bye-Laws
(c) Provisions
(d) Both (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) or (b)

Question 92.
Tables I includes articles of ________.
(a) Unlimited company having share capital
(b) Company limited by guarantee
(c) Company limited by shares
(d) Public company
Answer:
(a) Unlimited company having share capital

Question 93.
Which amongst the following documents is not required to be filed by a foreign company with the Registrar?
(a) Address of the registered office of the company
(b) Address of the principles place of business in India
(c) Declaration of Solvency
(d) Articles of Association
Answer:
(c) Declaration of Solvency

Question 94.
Lifting of corporate veil is permitted ________.
(a) By statue
(b) Voluntary
(c) Any time
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) By statue

Question 95.
Which one of the following is NOT an essential feature of a company?
(a) Perpetual Succession
(b) Unlimited Liability
(c) Separate Property
(d) Transferability of shares
Answer:
(b) Unlimited Liability

Question 96.
Which one of the following statement is not true regarding a company?
(a) The shares of a company can be transferred
(b) It is very simple and easy to form a company
(c) It is a separate legal entity
(d) it has independence to form its policies
Answer:
(b) It is very simple and easy to form a company

Question 97.
Which one of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a company?
(a) It does not has a capacity to sue
(b) it has more social responsibility
(c) Greater tax burden
(d) More disclosures
Answer:
(a) It does not has a capacity to sue

Question 98.
Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding a private company?
(a) It cannot invite public to subscribe to shares or debentures
(b) Restricts the right to transfer its share
(c) At least five members are required to form a company
(d) It should have at least two directors
Answer:
(c) At least five members are required to form a company

Question 99.
The auditor of a Government company is appointed by ________.
(a) Central Government
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) Directors of the Company
(d) Shareholders of the Company
Answer:
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Question 100.
The maximum managerial remuneration which can be paid by a private company is ________.
(a) 11 % of net profit
(b) 11 % of turnover
(c) 5% of share capital
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 101.
In case of a company limited by shares, the members are liable to the extent of ________.
(a) Nominal value of share
(b) Called up value of shares
(c) They are personally liable
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Nominal value of share

Question 102.
Which one of the following is not true with reference to an unlimited company?
(a) The liability is extended to their personal property
(b) The members are not liable directly to the creditors of the company
(c) It cannot convert itself into a public company
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) It cannot convert itself into a public company

Question 103.
A “not for profit” company is permitted as per which section of the Companies’ Act, 2013?
(a) Sec. 3 (i) (iv)
(b) Sec. 5
(c) Sec. 8
(d) Sec. 12.
Answer:
(c) Sec. 8

Question 104.
The licence to form a company “not for profit” is granted by ________.
(a) State Government
(b) Registrar
(c) High Court
(d) Central Government
Answer:
(d) Central Government

Question 105.
Government company is defined under which section of the Companies Act, 2013?
(a) Sec. 2(45)
(b) Sec. 2(44)
(c) Sec. 2(43)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sec. 2(45)

Question 106.
In a Government Company, the minimum share of Centre and State Government is:
(a) 51 % or more of the paid up share capital
(b) 5% or more of the issued share capital
(c) 51 % or more of the authorised share capital
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) 51 % or more of the paid up share capital

Question 107.
As per the Companies Act, 2013, what is the minimum paid up share capital required for a public? company?
(a) ₹ 1 Lakh
(b) ₹ 5 Lakh
(c) ₹ 1 Crore
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) According to Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015: Provides that in Clause (71), the words “of ₹ 5 lakhs or higher paid up share capital” shall be omitted.”

Question 108.
Which one of the following is known as owners of a company?
(a) Debentureholders
(b) Board of Directors
(c) Shareholders
(d) Partners
Answer:
(c) Shareholders are known as owners of company because they provide funds to company. A person who holds shares in the capital of company is known as a shareholder.

Question 109.
A company can change its name by passing:
(a) Ordinary resolution
(b) Special resolution
(c) Board resolution
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) A company can change its name by passing Special Resolution (SR). Company shall alter his Memorandum of Association and sent a copy of SR and altered MOA to ROC. The Registrar as shall issue a fresh certificate of Incorporation to the company containing a new name.

Question 110.
The minimum number of directors in a public company is:
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) The minimum directors required to run a public limited company is 3 directors. The maximum directors on the other hand would be 15′ directors and if more directors need to be appointed than they can be appointed by the special resolution.

Question 111.
What is the meaning of maxim ultra vires?
(a) An accomplished act
(b) Within the powers
(c) Beyond the powers
(d) With the guilty mind
Answer:
(c) Maxim ‘ultra vires’ means beyond the power of the company i.e. beyond the objects clause of memorandum of association or beyond the companies Act itself. Acts which are ultra vires are void ab initio and whole body of Shareholders acting unanimously cannot ratify the ultra vires acts.

Question 112.
In a company who conceives the idea of the business?
(a) Promoters
(b) Auditors
(c) Directors
(d) Shareholders.
Answer:
“Promotion” is the process of conceiving an idea and developing it into a concrete proposition or project to be accomplished by the incorporation and flotation of a company. The person who conceives the idea of business is termed as “Promoter”.

Question 113.
Which of the following are the characteristics of a private company?
X. Limited liability of members
Y. Perpetual succession
Z. Free transferability of shares
Correct option is –
(a) X and Y
(b) Y and Z
(c) X and Z
(d) X, Y and Z.
Answer:
(a) A company form of organisation possess various characteristics such as –

  • Corporate personality
  • Limited liability
  • Perpetual succession
  • Transferability of shares
  • Separate property
  • Capacity to sue and be sued

However, two forms of company i.e. public and private company differs from each other on the basis of transferability of shares. Private company restricts the right of member to transfer their shares freely. However, public company allows free transfer of shares to its members. Therefore, free transferability of shares is not a feature of private company and so the answer is X and Y.

Question 114.
The maximum number of directors in a private limited company is ________.
(a) 3
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 15
Answer:
(d) The Company Act, 2013 prescribes the minimum number of directors i.e. 2 to form a private limited company and one in case on OPC (One Person Company). However, there is maximum number of directors in a private limited Company is 15.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Question 115.
Which company give its members a right to transfer his shares:
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) Government
(d) None
Answer:
(a) In public company, the members can freely transfer their shares while private company districts the right to transfer its shares while private company districts the right to transfer its shares.

Question 116.
Maximum number of members in public company are:
(a) 50
(b) 10
(c) No limit
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Public company can have any number of members. Thus, there is no limit on the maximum number of members in public company.

Question 117.
Which of the following cases clearly established that a company has a separate legal entity:
(a) Salomon v Salomon and Co. Ltd.
(b) Sultan and Co. Ltd. v Sultan
(c) Connors Bros v Connors
(d) Foss v Harbottle.
Answer:
(a) Salomon Vs Salomon and Co. Ltd. clearly established that a company has a separate legal entity.

Under this case, the court held that:
Salomon & Co. was a real company fulfilling all the legal requirement and it had an identity separate from its members.

Question 118.
A company that owns substantial shares in another company to control management and operations by influencing its Board of Directors is known as:
(a) Holding Company
(b) Foreign Company
(c) Public Company
(d) Private Company.
Answer:
(a) As per Sec. 2 (46) of the Companies Act, 2013, Holding Company is a company:

  • Controls the composition of Board of Directors or
  • Exercises or controls more than one half of the total share capital either at its own or together with one or more of its, subsidiary companies then it is known as holding company and the other company is the subsidiary company.

Question 119.
Articles of Association of a Company contains the name of ________.
(a) First Directors ”
(b) Subsequent Directors
(c) Shareholders
(d) Managers
Answer:
(a) Section 7(1 )(g) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that the particulars of the interests of the persons mentioned in the Article of Association as the first Directors of the company in other firm or bodies corporate along with their consent to act as directors of the company in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

Question 120.
An OPC must have minimum number of directors ________.
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Section 149(1) of Companies Act, 2013 requires that every company shall have a minimum number of 3 directors in case of public company, 2 in case of private-company and one in case of one person company.

Question 121.
A company dies with the death of its shareholders:
(a) Partly true
(b) True
(c) False
(d) Can’t say
Answer:
(c) Members may come and members may go but the company goes on forever. A company has perpetual succession, i.e. death or insolvency of a shareholder or all of them does not affect the life of company.

Question 122.
Transfer and transmission of shares are dealt under:
(a) Certificate of incorporation
(b) Article of Association
(c) Confidential agreement
(d) Memorandum of association.
Answer:
(b) Transfer and transmission of shares are dealt under article of association. It is one of the content of Articles framed by the company for its own working. Every member owing fully paid up shares is at liberty to dispose off according to his choice but subject to Articles of Company.

Question 123.
The word is added at the end of its name by a private limited company.
(a) Public Company Limited
(b) Limited
(c) Private Limited
(d) Public Limited.
Answer:
(c) By virtue of Section 2(68) of Companies Act, 2013. It is clearly prescribed that the word “private limited” must be added at the end of its name by a private limited company.

Question 124.
Firm is a separate entity in the eyes of law. This statement is:
(a) True in case of Limited liability Partnership
(b) Not true for Indian firms
(c) Depends on agreement between partners
(d) True in all cases.
Answer:
(d) True in all cases.

Question 125.
An application seeking extension of time to hold annual general meeting of a company should be made to;
(a) Company Secretary
(b) The Registrar of Companies
(c) Company Law Tribunal
(d) Court.
Answer:
(b) In case, it is not possible for a company to hold an annual general meeting within the prescribed time, the Registrar may, for any special reason, extend the time within which any AGM shall be held.

Question 126.
Those who provide financing in exchange of ownership are called:
(a) Lenders
(b) Analysts
(c) Equity Investors
(d) Debt financing
Answer:
(c) Those who provide financing in exchange, of ownership are called equity investors or shareholders.

Question 127.
Under section 12 of the Companies Act, a company shall, on and from the ________ of its incorporation, have a registered office capable of receiving and acknowledging all communications and notices as may be addressed to it.
(a) 45th day
(b) 2 months
(c) 15th Day
(d) 30th Day
Answer:
(c) Under Companies Act, 2013. Section 12, a company shall, Within 30,h Days of its incorporation have a registered office capable of receiving and acknowledging all communication and notice as may be addressed to it.

Note:

  • In Section 12 of the Principal Act, –
  • In sub-section (1), for the words “on and from the fifteenth day of its incorporation”, the words ” within thirty days of its incorporation” shall be substituted;
  • In sub-section (4), for the words “within fifteen days”, the words “within thirty days” shall be substituted. ‘

Question 128.
A company limited by shares, which does not have Articles of Association can adopt ________ as its Articles.
(a) Table J of Schedule II
(b) Table G of Schedule I
(c) Table H of Schedule II
(d) Table F of Schedule I
Answer:
(d) Companies are required to have its own MOA & AOA registered where public company limited by shares, need not have its own articles. It can adopt table F of Schedule.

Question 129.
Those who provide financing in exchange of ownership are called:
(a) Debt financing
(b) Analysts
(c) Lenders
(d) Equity investors
Answer:
(d) Equity investors are people who invest money into a company in exchange for a share of ownership in the company, typically, equity investors ^iave no guarantee of a return on their investment and may lose their money should the company go out of business.

Question 130.
________ is the company in which at least 51 % shares are held by Central or State Government or partly by both.
(a) Public company
(b) Government company
(c) Foreign company
(d) HoSdina
Answer:
(b) A “Government Company” is defined under Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013 as “any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government, or by t any State Government or Governments, or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government Company”.

Thus, the cardinal feature of a Government . Company is not less than 51% ownership – by Central/State Government, either individually or jointly. Hence, option (b) is , correct.

Question 131.
A Public Corporation has:
(a) Public ownership
(b) Public accountability .
(c) Business management for public end
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(d) A public corporation has –

  • Public ownership: They are owned and controlled by public.
  • Public accountability: They are accountable to public because public money is involved.
  • Business management for public end: Management is appointed by public.

Question 132.
The basic document of company generally are:
(a) Annual Accounts’
(b) Prospectus
(c) Minutes of meetings
(d) Memorandum and Articles of Association
Answer:
(d) Memorandum and Articles of the association are the basic document of the company. They are the charter or constitution of company.

Question 133.
In case of loss to a limited company, the liability of the shareholders is:
(a) Unlimited
(b) Limited to the amounts as they have declared
(c) Limited to the amount of capital to which they have subscribed
(d) Limited up to it’s secured debts
Answer:
(c) The liability of shareholder is limited to the amount of capital to Which they have subscribed and not paid.

Question 134.
In a company who conceives the idea of the business?
(a) Promoters
(b) Auditors
(c) Directors
(d) Shareholders
Answer:
(a) Promoters are the persons who take into their mind the idea of formation of company. They play most important role in the formation of company as they are persons who conceives idea of formation and without them, there can not be any company formation is done.

Question 135.
Every company public or private has to be registered with
(a) Central Bank of India
(b) RBI
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Registrar of Companies (ROC)
Answer:
(d) Every public or private company has to e registered with Registrar of Company (ROC).

Question 136.
Which of the following are the characteristics of a private company?
X. Limited liability of members
Y. Perpetual succession
Z. Free transferability of shares Correct option is:
(a) X and Y
(b) Y and Z
(c) X and Z
(d) X, Y and Z
Answer:
(a) A company form of organisation posses various characteristics such as:

  • Corporate personality
  • Limited Liability
  • Transferability of Shares
  • Perpetual Succession
  • Separate property
  • Capacity to sue and be sued.

However, two forms of company i.e. public and private company differs from each other on the basis of transferability of shares. Private company restricts the right of member to transfer their shares freely. However, public company allows free of shares to its members. Therefore, freely transferability of share is not a feature of private company, hence option (a) is correct.

Question 137.
A public corporation has ________.
(a) Public ownership
(b) Public accountability
(c) Business management for public
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) A public corporation has

  • Public ownership i.e. they are owned and controlled by public
  • Public accountability i.e. they are accountable to public because public money is involved,
  • Business management for public end i.e. management is appointed by public.

Thus the right answer is option (d).

Question 138.
Board of Trustee v/s State of Delhi AIR, 1962?
(a) Separate Property
(b) Fraud
(c) Distinction of between company and corporation
(d) Exception of privity to contract
Answer:
(c) In the content of Distinction between a company and a corporation, the term corporation does not include a Co-operative Society registered under any law relating to Co-operative Societies. A society registered under Societies Registration Act has been held by Supreme Court in Board of Trustees v/s State of Delhi, AIR 1962
S.C. 458 not to corrie within the term ‘body corporate’ under Companies Act.

Question 139.
Who can’t use the terms ‘limited’ and ‘Private Limited’?
(a) OPC (one person company)
(b) Section‘8’CO
(c) LLP (Limited Liability Partnership
(d) Both‘A’and‘C’
Answer:
(b) The ‘Section 8’ company which are registered under Companies Act for the purpose of promotion of commerce, art, science, sports, education, religion, etc. are issued a licence by Central Government in such prescribed manner and conditions as it deem fit to be a limited company, without addition to its name of words ‘limited’ or ‘private limited’ as the case may be.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes

Human Resource Management – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Human Resource Management – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Chapter At A Glance:
Leon C. Megginson, “from the national point of view, human resource may be defined as knowledge, skills, creative abilities, talents and aptitudes obtained in the population; whereas from the viewpoint of the individual enterprise, they represent the total of the inherent abilities, acquired knowledge and skills as exemplified in the talents and aptitudes of its employees.”

Julius Micheal, “calls these resources, ‘human factors, which refer to, “a whole consisting of inter-related, inter-dependent, and interacting physiological, psychological, sociological, and ethical components.”

Edwin B.’Flippo, “Personnel management is the planning, organising, directing and controlling of the procurement, development, resources to the end that individual and societal objectives are accomplished.”

Concept of Human Resource:
All the activities of any enterprise are determined by the people who make up that organization.
Thus, motivation of human resource is of utmost importance.
Thus, HRM is the process of management that is directly concerned with the human resource in the organization.
HRM is that part of management which is concerned with people at work and with their relationship with an enterprise. Its aim is to bring together and develop into effective organisation the man and women who make up an enterprise having regard for the well being of the individual and of working groups, to enable them to make their best combination to its success.

The term human resource can be defined as the skills, knowledge, experience and training that a manager/employee should have in order to manage any organization.

French Wendell defines “Personnel management is the recruitment, selection, development, utilization, compensation and motivation of human resources by the organisation.”

Differences:

Personnel Management HR Management
1. More administrative in nature, deals with payroll, employment laws. 1. It focuses on the developmental activities.
2. Focuses on operational activities. 2. Focuses on human resource as contributes to the success of an enterprise.
3. Specific in nature. 3. General in nature
4. It seeks to motivate the employees with compensation, rewards etc. 4. It is responsible for managing the workforce by formulating policies and procedures.

similarity between PM and HRM:

  • Both emphasize on integrating personnel / HRM
  • Both emphasize on importance of individuals fully developing their ability for their own personal satisfaction.
  • Both models identify placing right people into right job as important means of integrating personnel/  HAM practice with organizational goals.

Features of Human Resource Management
1. Inherent Part of Management:

  • This function is performed by all the managers.
  • Responsibility of every manager to train and motivate the employees working under him.
  • He undertakes the basic responsibility of selecting people who will work under him.

2. PervasIve Function:
This function is performed on a continuous basis by every manager. It is performed at all various levels across all departments.

3. Based on Human Relations:

  • Since HRM deals with people working in the organization. The manager should give due regard to the expectations, likes, dislike and needs of his employees.
  • If the personnel function is performed properly, the human relations in the organization will be cordial.

4. people-centred:

  • Blue – Collar and White – Collar workers
  • Managerial and Non-managerial personnel
  • Professionals and Non-Professionals

5. Personnel ActivIties or Function:

  • It Includes several functions such as manpower planning, employment placement, training appraisal and compensation employees.
  • Personnel Department is created to perform these functions.

6. ContInuous Process: G. R. Terry, The personnel function can not be turned on and end off like water from a faucet; it cannot be practised only one hour each day or one day a week. Personnel management requires a constant alertness and awareness of human relations and their importance in everyday operations.

Types of personnel:

  • Blue-collar workers are workers working on machines and engaged it loading/ unloading.
  • White-collar workers are derical employees.
  • Managerial and Non-managerial workers.
  • Professional and non-professional workers.

Importance of Human Resource Management Objectives:

  • To ensure optimum utilization of human resources.
  • To establish and maintain a defined structure of relationship in the organization, and demarcating dearly the authority and responsibility, accountability for each job.
  • To ensure maximum development of human resource through welfare opportunities and salary hikes.
  • To ensure coordination of individual / group activity goals with the organization so that the employee feels committed.
  • Identify and satisfy individuals by offering various monetary & nor monetary rewards.
  • Ensure respect for human beings by providing services & welfare facilities to personnel.

Steps implanted to achieve the above objectives:

  • Human Resource or manpower planning.
  • Recruitment, selection and placement of personnel i.e. employment function.
  • Training and development of employees.
  • Appraisal of performance of employees and taking corrective steps.
  • Motivation of workforce.
  • Remuneration of employees.
  • Social security and welfare of employees.

Limitations of HRM:
1. Uncertainty:

  • Since the business environment changes rapidly it also affects the employment situation. One cannot totally rely on it and do every action according to it.
  • Thus, the company may have to appoint or remove people.

2. Problem of excess staff:

  • Most companies feel that the solution of this problem is to remove or terminate the services of such excess staff.
  • This affects the thinking of other employees and they start feeling insecure.

3. Time Consuming:

  • For appointment and removal of employees, HR department collects information from various sources.
  • This takes a lot of time since each job is considered separately.

4. Expensive:
The process of HRM is expensive. The company has to spend a lot of money for each activity.

5. Conservative approach of top management:
Top management adopts a conservative attitude & is not ready to make changes.
Role of Personnel Manager: Personnel manager perform managerial as well as operative function.

He plays multiple roles in an organization some of which are as under:
(a) Policy Formulation: The personnel manager helps the top management in deciding the policies for transfer, appraisal, welfare off employees.

(b) Advisor Role: Managers face day-to-day problems and hence can offer useful advice as he is familiar with labour laws and agreements and problems encountered.

(c) Representative Role: The personnel manager generally acts as a representative of the employees on setting forth the grievances and suggestions to the top management.

(d) Decision-Maker Role: He plays an effective role in decision making that relates to formulating policies, procedures, programmes of Human Resource Management.

(e) Welfare Role: He acts as a welfare officer in the organization. For this purpose, he is concerned with welfare services of employees and his family members.

(f) Researcher: He maintains the records of the employees and on the basis of such records he researches various personnel areas such as labour turnover, absenteeism, etc.

(g) Linking Pin Role: A personnel manager gives information to the trade union leaders regarding the policies, programmes and convey the views of the trade union leaders to the high management.

(h) Mediator Role: Personnel manager acts as mediator between employees, group of employees and between management and employees. He attempts for industrial peace and harmony.

(i) Leadership Role: A personnel manager ensures effective communication, provides leadership, influences for co-operation and acts as a counsellor.

Qualities of HR Manager:
(a) Fayol has put the qualities required by managers into the following categories:

  • Physical health, vigour, address.
  • Judgmental, mental vigor and adaptability.
  • Moral energy, firmness, willingness to accept responsibility, initiative, loyalty, fact, dignity.
  • Educational general acquaintance with matter not belonging exclusively to the function performed.
  • Technical peculiar to the function and
  • Experience arising from the work.

(b) Major qualities are;

  • He should have human approach to human problems i.e. he should be sympathetic towards their problems. Should not depend upon his formal authority too much and should have sense of social responsibility.
  • He should be mentally alert and at no time should be caught unaware.
  • He should be competent to take decisions.
  • He should be honest in dealing with employees.
  • He should be patient in listening to the problems of the employees.
  • He should be a good leader and for that purpose a good communicator.
  • He should not depend upon his formal authority too much.
  • He should be good communicator.
  • He should have a social responsibility so as to help his employee to discharge their social obligations to the south segments of the society.

Functions of Human Resource Manager
1. Managerial Functions: Being a part of the management, he must perform the functions of:
(a) Planning: It has already been discussed in earlier chapters that planning is the process of deciding in advance the policies that will drive the employees towards the achievement of organizational goals. Example, anticipating vacancies, planning jobs, etc.

(b) Organizing: The manager after planning the objectives must organize the resources to meet those objectives. For this, he should carry out the following activities:

  • Grouping of personnel activity into functions.
  • Assignment of activities to employees.
  • Accordingly delegating the authority.
  • Finally co-ordinating different activities.

(c) Direction:

  • It involves encouraging the people to work willingly and effectively.
  • The HR manager must have the ability to identify the needs of employees and the means and methods to satisfy those needs.

(d) Controlling: It involves performance appraisal of employees, critical examination of employee records and suggesting ways and means to improve the employee performance so that more output can be achieved.

2. Operative Functions: It covers those tasks which are specifically entrusted to the HR department, which are as follows:
Employment: This includes assessing the manpower requirement in an organization and then selecting the right kind of employee fit for that position.

(b) Development:

  • It is the duty of each manager to carefully train the employee so that he can perform the job better.
  • Both the old and new employees must be trained so as to update their knowledge in the use of latest techniques.
  • Develop an employee for higher jobs in the organisation.

(c) Remuneration:

  • The employees must be given a fair amount of salary which is consistent with their volume of work: done.
  • For fixing the remuneration, ma lager can make use of techniques like job evaluation and performance appraisal.

(d) Motivation: The manager must appraise the employees with good performance through both monetary and non-monetary incentives.

(e) Personnel Records: The HR department must maintain all the records of its employees, such as achievements, training acquired, absenteeism, promotion etc.

(f) Maintenance:

  • Good working conditions increases the efficiency of the employees.
  • Health, safety and comfort of the workforce.
  • The personnel department also provide for various welfare services which relate to the physical and social well-being of the employees.

(g) Industrial Relations:

  • The personnel manager has the full information relating to personnel and working knowledge of various labour enactments, he helps in collective bargaining, joint consultation and settlements of disputes.
  • He helps in laying down the grievance procedure to redress the grievances of the employees.

(h) Separation: Since the first function of personnel management is to procure the employees, it is logical that the lost employees should be returned to society.

3. Advisory Functions:
The HR Manager being a specialist in his area can offer his advice to:

  • Top Management: Personnel manager advises the top management, in formulation and evolution of personnel programme. He may give advice for achieving and maintaining good human relations and high employee morale.
  • Departmental Heads: He offers advice on various matters like recruitment and selection, placement, training, job analysis, etc.

Recruitment:
Recruitment Process: Definitions
Edwin B. Flippo, “ Recruitment is the process of searching the candidates (or prospective employees) and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the Organisation.”
Dale S. Beach, “Recruitment is the development and maintenance of adequate manpower resources it involves the creation of a pool of available labour upon when the organisation can draw when it needs additional employees.”

Process of identification of different sources of personnel is known as recruitment and linking activity between those offering and those seeking jobs.

  • It is the process of searching for the right candidate for the job & encouraging them to apply.
  • “It is a positive function as it results in collection of applicants in response to the vacancy advertised”.

Sources of Recruitment:
Internal Sources: May induce selection of employees through-

  • (a) Transfer; or
  • (b) Promotion

Selection of employees in this manner has the following benefits:

  • It‘s simple and economical.
  • Improves employee morale as promotions provide an opportunity for advancement.
  • Employers can appraise the skill and capability of present employees more accurately.
  • Promotes loyalty among the employees.
  • Plus time efficient.
  • Persons already employed can be more easily inducted and trained for new jobs.

External Sources: This include:

  • Casual applicants
  • Contractors and jobbers
  • Open advertisements.
  • The person recommended by former/present employees.
  • Telecasting.
  • Employment exchanges.
  • Temporary /Badli workers.
  • Gate hiring of unskilled workers.

Differences:

Internal Sources External Sources
1. It is a quick process. It is a lengthy process.
2. It is economical. It involves cost since vacancies have to be published.
3. Choice of candidates is limited. The organization can hope for talented candidates from outside.
4. The scope of fresh talent is diminished. External workers feel dissatisfied if external sources are used.

Selection and Recruitment:

Selection Recruitment
Meaning 1. Process of selecting the right candidate for right job. Process of searching the candidate for vacancies in the company.
Nature 2. It is a negative process. It is a positive process.
Aim 3. Its Aim is to reject the unsuitable candidates and choose the best. Aim is to attract more and more candidates for the job.
Contract of Service 4. Contractual relation is created. Since after this stage employees are recruited which creates a contract of service between employer and employee. No contractual relation is created. Since there is communication of vacancies only.
Procedure 5. The firm makes the candidates pass through a number of stages,. The term notifies the vacancies through various sources.
Cost 6. It is highly cost-effective. It is less cost-effective than selection process.

Selection and Recruitment:
Recruitment and selection help in employing the right person for, the right job.

Benefits of Selection:

  • It builds a stable workforce if the employees are carefully chosen.
  • Job satisfaction will be higher when employees get jobs of their choice i.e. Higher Morale.
  • It will keep absenteeism and labour turnover low.
  • Organization can achieve its objectives effectively with competent employees.
  • The rate of industrial accidents will be considerably low If suitable employees are placed on various jobs.

Absenteeism and employee turnover are the important problems which are being faced by most of the organisation.

Selection Procedure:
1. PrelIminary Interview:

  • In this, a brief description of the employee’s knowledge and personality is given.
  • The most unsuitable candidate are eliminated at this stage.
  • Candidates who pass this stage are asked to fill up the employment form.

2. Receiving Applications (great value to interviewer):

  • The applications are received in response to the advertisement the organization makes.
  • These give a very good idea about the candidate’s likeliness, educational qualification etc.

3. Screening Applications:

  • After all the applications are received they are screened to shortlist the suitable candidates.
  • The candidates may then be called again for interviews on some specific criteria like sex, desired age group, experience and qualification.
  • The screened applications are reviewed by personnel manager and interview letters are dispatched by post.

4. Employment Tests: Before deciding upon the suitable candidate it is necessary to match his abilities with the available vacancy by performing the following tests:

  • Aptitude
  • Interests
  • Proficiency
  • Personality
  • Intelligence

These tests bring out the qualities and weaknesses of the shortlisted candidates.

5. Employment Interview:

  • The main purpose of this interview is to find out suitability of the candidate to seek more information
    to give him accurate picture of job.
  • This interview is necessary for selection of a right person.
  • It enables to check the factual data of the applicant.
  • During the interview, the members of selection committee appraise each candidate according to merit.

6. Checking References:
The references that a candidate provides are cross checked and the employee’s past employment details, education, etc. are verified.

7. Medical Examination:
It is important so as to:-

  • to ascertain the applicant’s physical capability to meet the job requirements.
  • to protect the organization against unwanted claims under workers compensation laws.
  • it helps to prevent any communicable disease entering the organization.

8. Final Selection and Appointment letter:

After all the due formalities are completed the candidate is appointed and given the letter of appointment.

Generally, the candidates are appointed on probation basis and after seeing his work pattern and commitment towards the organization, they are made permanent.

If during probation period the candidate is found unsuitable he may either be transferred to other job matching his profile or his services may be terminated.

Training and Development (integral part of HR functions management)

Training implies a systematic procedure in which special training and technical knowledge is imparted to employees for certain specific jobs.

Training and development programmes are of two categories –

  1. On the job programme
  2. Off the job programme

Off the job, programmes include supervisory and managerial training programmes.

Under training and development:
Training of operative and skilled workers are mostly organised by way of-

  • Training on specific jobs.
  • Vestibule training with separate set of tools and equipment in a special training centre.
  • Internship training with the co-operation of vocational training institutions.
  • Apprenticeship training combining job experience with classroom instruction.
  • Job rotation involving transfer from job to job on a systematic basis.

Benefits of Training and Development:

  • It helps is improve the quality of workforce.
  • Managers are updated with latest skills, techniques and knowledge.
  • Promising employees can be trained for higher posts hence recruitment becomes easier.
  • It ensures tong term survival and growth of the organization.
  • It ensures that resources are properly and fully utilized since trained employees make better use of material/equipment.
  • It facilitates delegation and decentralization of authority since trained employees are willing to accept new and challenging jobs.
  • It improves employee morale and job satisfaction.
  • It enables the organisation to fill manpower needs.
  • It creates group cohesiveness and encourages teamwork.
  • It ensure that managerial resources of the organization are properly and fully used.

Training Methods:
A. On-the-job training methods
Under these methods, new or inexperienced employees learn through observing peers or managers performing the job and trying to limitation their behaviour.
These methods are less costlier as employees are always on the jobs.

Some commonly used methods are:
1. Coaching:

  • Coaching is one-to-one training.
  • It helps in quickly identifying the weak areas and tries to focus on them.
  • It also offers the benefits of transferring theory learning to practice.
  • The biggest problem is that it perpetuates the existing practices and styles.
  • In India, most of the scooter mechanics are trained only under this controlled.

2. Mentoring:

  • The focus of this training is on the development of attitude.
  • It is used for managerial employees.
  • Mentoring is always done by a senior inside person.
  • It is one-to-one interaction, like coaching.

3. Job Rotation:

  • It is the process of training employees by rotating them through a series of related jobs.
  • Rotation not only makes a person well acquainted with different job, but it also alleviates boredom and allows to develop rapport with a number of people.
  • Rotation must be logical.

4. Job-instructional Technique (JIT):
It is step by step on the job training method in which a suitable trainer:

  • prepares a trainee
  • demonstrates the task or the skill to the trainee.
  • allows the trainee to show the demonstration on his or her own.
  • follow up feedback.

The trainees have presented the learning material in written or by learning machines through series called ‘frames’.

5. Apprenticeship:

  • Apprenticeship is a system of training a new generation of practitioners of a skill.
  • This type of training is vogue in those trades in which a long period is required for gaining proficiency.
    Ex: Crafts and technical fields.
  • The objective of such training is to make the trainees all-round craftsmen.
  • It is an expensive method of training.

6. Understudy:

  • In this method, a superior gives training to a subordinate.
  • The subordinate learns through experience and observation by participating in handling day-to-day problems.

B. Off-the-job training Method
1. Lectures and conferences:

  • Lectures and conferences are the traditional and direct method of instruction.
  • It is a verbal presentation for a large audience.

2. Vestibule Training:

  • Vestibule training is a term for near-the-job training, as it offers access to something new.
  • In vestibule training, the workers are trained in a prototype environment on specific job in special part of the plant.

3. Simulation Exercises:
Simulation is any artificial environment exactly similar to the actual situation. There are four basic simulation techniques used for imparting training:

  1. Management games
  2. Case study
  3. Roleplaying
  4. In-basket training.

(a) Management games:

Properly designed games help to ingrain thinking habits, analytical logical and reasoning capabilities, importance of teamwork, time management, to make decisions lacking complete information, communication and leadership capabilities.

  • Use of management games can encourage novel, innovative mechanisms for coping with stress.
  • Management games orient a candidate with practice applicability of the subject.

(b)Case Study:
Case study are complex examples which give on insight into the context for a problem as well as illustrating the main point.

(c) Roleplaying:
Each trainee takes the role of a person affected by an issue and studies the impacts of the issues on human life.

(d) in-basket traIning:

  • It is also known as in-tray training
  • It consists of set of business papers which may include email, SMS, reports, memos, and other items.

Sensitivity Training:

  • It is also known as laboratory or T-group training.
  • This training is about making people understand about themselves and other reasonably, which is done by developing in them social sensitivity and behavioural flexibility.

It comprises of three steps:

  1. Unfreezing the old values.
  2. Development of new values. ‘
  3. Refreezing the new ones.

Performance management:
Performance management can be defined as a set of policies and procedures which alms to improve the achievement of organisational goals through a focus on individual performance.

Objectives of Performance Management:

  • To mould employees behaviour in order to comply with company norms.
  • To improve consistency between employee actions and corporate goals.
  • To improve the quality of HR planning, especially training an succession.
  • To improve quality of salary reviews
  • To provide records in cases of dismissal, demotion, grievance appeal.

Performance appraisal:
1. Its basic purpose is to determine the worth of an employee. it can be done by various method such as merit rating or evaluation, progress rating etc.

2. Rating may be done by supervisor or an independent appraiser.

3. The determination can be done by appraising various factors which may be objective or subjective.

4. Dale Yoder quoted, “Performance appraisal includes all formal procedures used to evaluate personalities and contributions and potentials of group members in a working organisation. It is a continuous process to secure information necessary for making correct and objective decisions on employees.” People differ in their abilities and aptitudes.

Advantages and Disadvantages Advantages:

  • It helps the supervisor to evaluate the performance of his employees systematically and periodically.
  • Allocation of work can be done on the basis of capabilities.
  • It helps in guiding and correcting the employees.
  • It can be used as a basis of sound personnel policy for transfers and promotions.
  • It provides an opportunity to the employees to improve their rating over the others since they get reward for good performance.
  • Impartial evaluation will prevent grievances and motivate the employees for higher and better results.
  • Ratings can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of training programmes.

Limitations:

  • If the factors of assessment are irrelevant, the results might not be accurate.
  • It involves rating of different factors like initiative and personality of the employees; so the actual rating may not be done on scientific lines.
  • Sometimes the supervisors are guided by their emotions and likes while judging an employee.
  • In certain cases, different qualities have to be rated which may not be given proper weightage.

Methods ot Appraisal:
1. TraditIonal Method:
Unstructured Appraisal: The appraiser has to write down his impression about the person being appraised in an unstructured way. It is highly subjective and has its merits In Its simplicity and is still in uso in small firms.

Ranking Method:

  • It is the simplest method.
  • The appraiser ranks all the employees by a comparison of their qualities.
  • But this method can be easily adopted if number of employees are less and work performance is measurable.
  • It involves paired comparison method in which employee are compared and ranked in pairs.

3. Forced Distribution Method:

  • The basic assumption used under this method is that the employees can be distinguished as outstanding, above average, below average and poor average.
  • The rater is required to distribute the employees in five categories on the basis pl their overall performance.

(4) Graphic Rating Scale:

  • This method Is similar to Rating Scale method except the qualities or attributes are indicated on a graph or chart.
  • The scale of attributes may be numerical, alphabetical descriptive adjective.

(5) Checklist:

  • Under this method, the rater gets a series of questions about the employee’s behaviour and performance.
  • He has to indicate whether it applies or not to the employee. After this, values are assigned depending upon their relative importance.

(6) Critical Incident Method: It involves appraisal of employees on the basis of events or incidents and employee’s reaction to the same reflecting positive or negative aspects of his behaviour.
It is similar to the Rating scale method but the degrees and qualities of employees are indicated on graph.

(7) Field Review method:

  • It involves an expert who questions the supervisor to obtain ail the important information for each.
  • The workers are usually classified into three categories outstanding, satisfactory and unsatisfactory.
  • Superficial judgement can be eliminated if the appraiser probes deeply.

Modern Methods
(i) Management by Objectives:
1. It is also known as the goal-setting approach as enunciated by Peter F. Drucker further strengthened by Douglas MC Gregor.

2. Steps: The subordinate and superior discuss the job requirement and agree on the contents of job and key result areas.

The employees prepare a list of objectives for a period, e.g. 6 to 12 months.

He discusses with his senior and sets out a final plan.

Progress is measured and further criteria are established for evaluation of progress.

The superior and subordinate again meet to discuss the results and ensure that the targets will be achieved.
3. This approach is widely appreciated by employees and also has led to greater satisfaction, comfort and less tension.

4. It emphasizes on training and development of individuals.

5. It is a problem-solving approach rather than tell and sell approach.

6. Built-in device of self-appraisal by subordinates because they know their goals and standards.

7. Limitations:

  • It can be applied only when goal setting is possible subordinates. It is doubtful to apply for blue-collar workers.
  • It involves considerable time and effort.
  • it is not suitable for operative workers since they do not take initiative in setting their own goals.
  • It is argued that critical evaluation and modification to improve are incompatible.

(i) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS):

  • They are designed to identity critical area of performance for a jot for getting results.
  • Performance is evaluated on pre-decided criteria and their compared with BARS.
  • As a result of this, the supervisor is in a position to compare the two performances i.e. employees actual behaviour with the behaviour previously determined.
  • It helps to clarify three major controversies of the appraisal process.
  • Issue of rating content (trait vs job-related)
  • Multidimensional nature of performance
  • The issue of most effective way to anchor the rating scales.

This approach tends to produce more valued and reliable results reducing measurement errors.

7. Limitations:-

  • It can be applied only when goal setting is possible by subordinates. It is doubtful to apply for blue-collar workers.
  • It involves considerable time and effort.
  • It is not suitable for operative workers since they do not take initiative in setting their own goals.
  • It is argued that critical evaluation and modification to improve are incompatible.

(ii) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)

  1. They are designed to identify critical area of performance for a job for getting results.
  2. Performance is evaluated on pre-decided criteria and then compared with BARS.
  3. As a result of this, the supervisor is in a position to compare the two performances i.e. employees actual behaviour (/ith the behaviour previously determined.

4. It helps to clarify three major controversies of the appraisal process-

  • Issue of rating content (trait vs job-related)
  • Multidimensional nature of performance
  • The issue of most effective way to anchor the rating scales.

5. This approach tends to produce more valued and reliable results by reducing measurement errors.
Human Resource Planning The meaning of HRP: In simple terms, Human Resource Planning should be viewed, as that part of HRM whereby a determination is made in terms of organization’s human resource needs for it to be able to meet its goals.

Bulla and Scott (1994) cited in Armstrong (2001: 357) defined it as, “The process of ensuring that the human resource requirements of an organization are identified and plans are made for satisfying those requirements”.

HRP: A Qualitative and Quantitative Process: HRP addresses an organization’s human resource needs both in quantitative terms i.e. how many people and qualitative terms i.e. what kind of people and with what skills, knowledge, and aptitudes (SKAs).

The Institute of Personnel Management Zimbabwe (IPMZ), as per that HRP is essentially a 3 step process which involves:

  • HR forecasting
  • Inventory and auditing
  • HR plan

HR Forecasting:
HR forecasting is that part of HRP which involves the estimation of future HR requirements in terms of actual numbers and the skills and competencies they will need. As indicated earlier on, the basis of this estimation is the organization’s strategic plan or long-term business plan. Several techniques (qualitative and quantitative) are used for this purpose.

The following are some of the techniques used:

  • Zero-based forecasting
  • Bottom-up approach’
  • Predictor variable approach
  • Computer-based simulation

Availability forecast Inventory and Audit: After having determined the H R requirements necessary for the organization to meet its goals, the HR manager then has to engage in the process of inventory analysis and auditing. This essentially means making a “stocktake” of what the organization already has in place. Thus the following question is raised at this stage.

HR Plan:
The questions asked during the inventory and audit stage are answered at the last stage of the HRP process i.e. the plan stage. Here the HR manager basically works on a plan to address the discoveries at the inventory and audit stage- the plan, which becomes the document called the Human Resource Plan.

Operational / Short term HR planning: An operational HR Plan is essentially a document that spells out what the organisation will do in terms of the various HR practices e.g. R – (recruitment) and S – (selection) – in order to achieve organisational objectives.

The Purpose of HRP:
An organization may have its own purpose of engaging in HRP depending on its particular circumstances but the following are the generic aims of HRP. (Armstrong 2001; 362)

  • Attract and retain the number of people required with the appropriate skills, expertise and competencies.
  • Anticipate the problems of potential surplus or deficits of people.
  • Develop a well trained and flexible workforce – thus contributing to the organization’s ability to adapt to uncertain or changing environments.
  • Reduce dependence of external sources of labour supply by developing appropriate internal ones.
  • Derive optimum value from an organization’s HR.

Key components of a highly effective talent management process include:

→ A clear understanding of the organization’s current and future business strategies.

→ Identification of the key gaps between the talent in place and the talent required to drive business success.

→ A sound talent management plan designed to close the talent gaps.

→ Accurate hiring and promotion decisions.

→ Connection of individual and team goals to corporate goals and providing clear expectations and feedback to manage performance.

→ Development of talent to enhance performance in current positions as well as readiness for transition to the next level.

→ A focus not just on the talent strategy itself, but the elements required for successful execution.

→ Business impact and workforce effectiveness measurement during and after implementation.

Organization Development:
Organizational development is the process through which an organization develops the internal capacity to be the most effective it can be in its mission work and to sustain itself over the long term. This definition highlights the explicit connection between organizational development work and the achievement of organizational mission. This connection is the rationale for doing OD work.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. Human Resource Management is administrative In nature and focused on the operational activities.
(a) True
(b) False
(C) Partly True Partly False
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) False

2. Human Resource Management provides full-proof results and every activity can be planned according to it?
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True Partly False
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) False

3. The HR Manager plays an effective role in decision making on issues relating to ……………. .
(a) Management
(b) Human Resource
(C) Government
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Human Resource.

4. ……………. and …………………… help in employing the right person for the right
(a) Training and Development
(b) Motivation and Training
(c) Compensation and recruitment
(d) Recruitment and Selection
Answer:
(d) Recruitment and Selection.

5. Transfer and Promotion are the two internal sources of recruitment.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True Partly False
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True.

6. In which of the below methods choice of candidates is limited?
(a) External source of recruitment
(b) Internal sources
(c) Selection
(d) Open advertisements
Answer:
(b) Internal sources

7. Which of these is a negative process?
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) Development
Answer:
(b) Selection

8. The selection programme begins with
(a) Receiving applications.
(b) Preliminary Interview
(c) Employment Tests
(d) Employmenl_Interview
Answer:
(b) Preliminary Interview.

9. Training prevents
(a) Group cohesiveness
(b) Job satisfaction
(c) Managerial obsolescence
(d) Long term survival
Answer:
(c) Managerial obsolescence.

10. Performance Appraisal means systematic evaluation of …………………. of each employee by a person trained for merit rating.
(a) Personality/performance
(b) Intelligence
(c) Mental health/vigour
(d) Participation
Answer:
(a) Personality/performance

11. Performance Appráisal is a totally reliable method and always provides good results.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True Partly False
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) False.

12. Ranking Method can only be applied when the number of employees is …………….. .
(a) large
(b) moderate
(c) small
(d) very large
Answer:
(c) small.

13. ……………………. and ………………………. are the traditional methods for appraisal.
(a) Field review method and management by objectives
(b) BARS and graphic rating scales
(c) Critical incident method and BARS
(d) Ranking Method and Checklist
Answer:
(d) Ranking Method and Checklist.

14. ……………….. suggested the method of goal setting approach for performance appraisal which is called Management by Objective’.
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Douglas Mc. Greger
(c) Newmann and Summer
(d) Henry Fayol
Answer:
(a) Peter Drucker

15. Essential feature of Management By Objective” is …………………. .
(a) Self-appraisal
(b) Mutual establishment of job goals
(c) Behaviour of the subordinates
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Mutual establishment of job goals.

16. Under BARS, the supervisor is in a position to compare the employee’s actual behaviour with the behaviour that has been previously determined to be more or less effective.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True Partly False
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

17. ………………… helps to anticipate the problems of potential surplus or deficits of people.
(a) Demand Forecasting
(b) Supply Forecasting
(c) Performance management
(d) HAP
Answer:
(d) HAP.

18. ………………. is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand for, and supply of the right type of people in the right number.
(a) Human Resource Planning
(b) Recruitments
(c) Human Resource Management
(d) Human Capital Management
Answer:
(a) Human Resource Planning.

19. Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource Planning?
(a) Creating highly talented personnel
(b) International strategies
(c) Resistance to change and move
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

20. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with the potential to fill key business leadership positions in the company is called …………………….. .
(a) Highly talented personnel creation
(b) Investing in human resources
(c) Succession planning
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Succession planning.

21. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders with the human resource planning process?
(a) Type and quality of forecasting information
(b) Time horizons
(c) Environmental uncertainties
(d) Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers.
Answer:
(d) Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers.

22. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
(a) Political and legislative issues
(b) Economic factors
(c) Technological changes
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

23. Procedure of analyzing human capital availability and need of human resources for organization is classified as:
(a) human resource planning
(b) recruitment planning
(c) cost planning
(d) differentiation planning
Answer:
(a) human resource planning.

24. HR plans of any organization does not include:
(a) ‘personnel Ian
(b) production plans
(C) compensation plans
(d) training development plans
Answer:
(b) production plans.

25. In which of the following methods of performance appraisal, employees are distinguished as outstanding, above average, average, below average and poor.
(a) Ranking Method
(b) Checklists
(c) Unstructured appraisal
(d) Forced distribution method.
Answer:
(d) The basic assumption under Forced Distribution method is that the employees can be distinguished in five categories as outstanding, above average, average, below average and poor on the basis of their overall performance.

26. Which one of the following is an internal source of recruitment?
(a) Placement Agency
(b) Employment Exchange
(c) Transfer
(d) Educational Institutions.
Answer:
(c) Recruitment from internal sources so as to fill up casual vacancies includes transfer, promotion, or re-hiring of previous employees.

27. Which one of the following is the expanded form of acronym ‘MBO’?
(a) Management of Business Organisation
(b) Management of Business Objectives
(c) Management by Options
(d) Management by Objectives.
Answer:
(d) MBO stands for Management by Objectives. It is also Known as goal-setting approach as enunciated by Peter Drucker. It means that an employee is not appraised by his recognisable traits, but by his performance with respect to the agreed goals or objectives.

28. The act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a particular job, is known as –
(a) Promotion
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) Transfer
Answer:
(c) Training implies a systematic procedure whereby employees are imparted technical knowledge and skill for specific job. It emphasises improvements of the ability of employees to handle specific jobs and operations more effectively.

29. Performance appraisal helps in –
(a) Orderly determination of an employee’s worth to an organisation
(b) Meeting manpower needs of the organisation
(c) Improving communication abilities, human relation and managing interaction with subordinates.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The basic purpose of performance appraisal is to facilitate orderly determination of an employee worth to the organisation of which he is a part. It can be done by various methods such as merit rating or evaluation, progress rating, etc.

30. Ranking, rating scales and checklists are the method of –
(a) Job description
(b) Promotion method
(c) Performance appraisal
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Performance appraisal means systematic evaluation of the personality and performance of each employee by his superior or some other person trained in the technique of merit rating. There are various; methods of merit rating which may be classified into:
Traditional Methods Modern Methods

  • Unstructured Appraisal Management by Objectives.
  • Employee Ranking
  • Forced Distribution Behaviourally anchored rating scales
  • Graphic- Rating Scales
  • Checklists.
  • Critical Incidents
  • Field review

31. Which one of the following refer to the study of individual and group behaviour in an organisation?
(a) Organisational behaviour
(b) Human resource management
(c) Human relations
(d) Group dynamics.
Answer:
(a) Organisation involves both individuals and groups working within it. Organisational behaviour refers to the study of individual and group behaviour in an organisation.

32. The full form of BARS is –
(a) Behaviourally Anchored Ranking Scales
(b) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
(c) Behaviourally Anchored Rollback Scales
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) are designed to identify critical areas of performance for a job for getting results. Performance is evaluated by asking the rates to record specific observable job behaviours of an employee and then to compare these observations with a “behaviorally anchored rating scale.”

33. Performance appraisal means systematic process of measuring and evaluating each employee by a person trained for merit rating.
(a) Personality/Performance
(b) Intelligence
(c) Mental health/vigour
(d) Participation.
Answer:
(a) Performance appraisal means systematic process of measuring and evaluation of personality/performance of each employee by a person trained for merit rating. It employs various rating techniques for comparing individual employees in a workgroup in terms of personal qualities or deficiencies and the requirement of their respective jobs.

34. Ranking Method of performance appraisal can conventionally be applied when the number of employees is:
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Ranking method of performance appraisal can conventionally be applied when the number of employees is small because work personal is measurable. The ranking thus made involves subjective appraisal of employees without any common standard.

35. Who among the following suggested the method of goal setting approach for performance appraisal which is also called ‘management by Objectives’?
(a) Peter F. Drucker
(b) Douglas McGregor
(c) Newmann and Summer
(d) Henry Fayol.
Answer:
(a) It was Peter F. Drucker who proposed goal-setting approach to performance appraisal which he called, “Management by Objective and self-control”.

36. While appraising performance of people, it is assumed that people usually differ in: ‘
(a) Their tasks
(b) Their behaviour
(c) Their abilities and aptitude
(d) Their ways of actions.
Answer:
(c) People usually differ in their abilities and aptitudes. Therefore, it is necessary for management to know these differences so that the employees having better abilities may be awarded and the wrong placements of employees may be rectified through transfers. Thus, while appraising the performance of people, it is assumed that people usually differ in their abilities and aptitudes.

37. Human Resource Management is that part of management which is concerned with and their relationship with an enterprise.
(a) Board of directors
(b) Society at large
(c) Regulators
(d) The employees.
Answer:
(d) HRM is that part of the process of management which is concerned with the people who worked in organisation i.e. employees. Its aim is to bring men and women together who make up an enterprise and having regard for the well-being of an individual and of working groups, to enable them to make their best contribution to its success.

38. “Recruitment is the development and maintenance of adequate manpower resources. It involves the creation of a pool of available labour upon whom the organisation can draw when it needs additional employees”. The given statement is the observation of –
(a) Edwin B. Flippo
(b) Dale S. Beach
(c) Peter Drucker
(d) Douglas McGregor.
Answer:
(b) The given statement is observed by Dale S. Beach.

39. ………………. means systematic evaluation of the personality and performance of each employee by his supervisor or some other person trained in the techniques of merit rating.
(a) Training and development
(b) Performance appraisal
(c) Human Resource Management
(d) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS).
Answer:
(b) Performance appraisal means systematic evaluation of the personality and performance of each employee by his supervisor or some other person trained in the techniques of merit rating. It employs various rating techniques for comparing individual employees in a workgroup, in terms of personal qualities or deficiencies and the requirements of their respective jobs.

40. Management by objectives (M.B.O) is given by –
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Fredrick Taylor
(c) Hick
(d) Haimann.
Answer:
(a) It was Peter Drucker who proposed a goal-setting approach to performance appraisal which he called “Management by Objectives and Self-Control”.

41. Which of these is not an operative function of Human Resource Manager?
(a) Top Level Management
(b) Employment
(c) Compensation
(d) Development.
Answer:
(a) Operative Functions of Human Resource Manager includes:-

  • Employment
  • Development
  • Remuneration
  • Motivation
  • Personnel Records
  • Maintenance
  • Industrial Relations
  • Separation Thus, TOP level Management is not an operative function of Human Resource Manager.

42. “Personnel Management is the recruitment selection development utilisation, compensation, motivation of human resource by the organisation”. This definition is given by:
(a) Peter F Drucker
(b) French Wendell
(c) Edwin B. Flippo
(d) Dirks.
Answer:
(b) French Wendell defines, “Personnel management is the recruitment, selection, development, utilization, compensation and motivation of human resources by the organisation.”

43. Which of the following is the “positive process”:
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Organisation
(d) Operation
Answer:
(a) Recruitment refers to the process of searching the candidates for jobs in the organisation. It is a positive function as it results in collection/pool of applicants in response to the vacancy advertised.

44. ………………. type of performance measurement format would most likely include graphs, tables and other outputs.
(a) MBWA
(b) Written report
(c) Oral report
(d) Graphical Rating Scale.
Answer:
(d) In traditional methods of performance appraisal, Graphical Rating – Scale method is similar to the Rating-Scale method except that the degrees of qualities or attributes on which employees are to be appraised are indicated on a graph or chart. Hence, option (d) is correct answer.

45. Which department deals with the issues related to the absenteeism?
(a) Production
(b) Sales
(c) Marketing
(d) HRM.
Answer:
(d) Human Resource Management is that part of the process of management specifically concerned with the people employed in an organisation. Absenteeism & employee turnover are the important problems which are being faced by most of the organisations in Human Resource Management wherever unsuitable employees are appointed, the efficiency of the organisation will go down.

46. Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests and physical exams that firms use to identify suitable candidates for a job? ‘
(a) Job analysis methods
(b) Personal techniques
(c) Selection tools
(d) Forecasting tools.
Answer:
(c) Selection procedure starts with the screening of applications for various jobs from the interested candidates. The personnel department administers various kinds of tests to the candidates to determine if they would be able to do their jobs efficiently. Those passing this stage are called for employment interviews. The employment process is completed when appointment letters are issued to the candidates clearing all the stages in the selection procedure.

47. Which of the following has a basic purpose of facilitating orderly determination of an employee’s worth to the organisation of which he is a part?
(a) Recruitment
(b) Performance appraisal
(c) Development
(d) Training.
Answer:
(b) Performance appraisal means systematic evaluation of the personality and performance of each employee by his supervisor or some other person trained is the techniques of merit rating. The basic purpose of performance appraisal is to facilitate orderly determination of an employee’s worth to the organisation of which he is part.

48. Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests and physical exams that firms use to identify suitable candidates for a Job?
(a) Forecasting tools
(b) Selection tools
(c) Job analysis methods
(d) Personnel techniques.
Answer:
(b) The main steps in selection procedure or the tools of selection are:

  • Preliminary interview
  • Receiving applications
  • Screening of applications
  • Employment test
  • Employment interview
  • Physical examination
  • Checking references
  • Final Selection.

49. Which department deals with the issues related to the absenteeism?
(a) HRM
(b) Sales
(c) Marketing
(d) Production.
Answer:
(a) Absenteeism and employee turnover are the important problems which are being faced by most of the organisation HRM department. The intensity of these problems can be reduced if in the future all selections are made carefully.

50. The operative function of a Human Resource Manager means:
(a) Those tasks or duties which are specifically entrusted to the HR ‘ department under the general supervision of HR Manager
(b) Those tasks that are the functions of strategic planning and organising in relation to HR Department
(c) Specialized work that requires special attention
(d) Advising the managers in their personal matters.
Answer:
(a) The operative functions of a Human Resource Manager are those tasks and duties which are specifically entrusted to the HR Manager i.e.Recruitment, Selection, Training etc.

51. Which one of the following is the external source in recruitment:
(a) Transfer
(b) Casual Vacancy
(c) Promotion
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(b) External source of recruitment:

  • Recruitment at factory gate.
  • Casual callers
  • Advertisement
  • Employment agencies
  • Management Consultants
  • Educational Consultants
  • Recommendation
  • Labour Contractors
  • Telecasting Thus, option (b) is correct.

52. Programs like, classroom lecture, conferences, group discussion, case studies, role-playing, etc. falls under which of the following category:
(a) Off-the-job programs.
(b) On-the-job programs
(c) Determination of the employees work
(d) Computer training.
Answer:
(a) Off-the-job programs.

53. Which one of the following is the external source in recruitment:
(a) Transfer
(b) Casual Vacancy
(c) Promotion
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(a) Programs like classroom lecture, conferences, group discussion, case studies, role playing etc. falls under off-the-job programs as they cover supervisory and managerial training programs.

54. Which of the following is (are) designed to identify the critical areas of performance for a job and to describe the more effective and less effective job behaviour for getting results.
(a) Management by objectives.
(b) Checklists
(c) Graphic Rating Scale
(d) Behaviourally anchored rating scale
Answer:
(d) BARS are designed to identify the critical areas of performance for a job and to describe the more effective and less effective job behaviour for getting results. Performance is evaluated by asking the rates to record specific observable job behaviour of an employee and then to compare the observations with a “behaviorally anchored rating scale.” As a result, the supervisor will be in a position to compare the employee’s actual behaviour with the behaviour that has been previously determined to be more or less effective.

55. The development of a vision about where the company wants to be and how it can use human resources to get there is referred to as:
(a) Contingency theory
(b) An affirmative action plan
(c) Strategic HR planning
(d) HR Tactics.
Answer:
(c) The effectiveness with which various kinds of human resources are coordinated and utilised is responsible for the success or failure in achieving organisational objectives.
Therefore, strategic HR planning helps to use human resources to accomplish the vision of the organisation.

56. According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firms productivity is its inability to ………………. .
(a) utilize funds available
(b) use advanced controls
(c) use government subsidy
(d) acquire and maintain human capital.
Answer:
(d) Experts assert that it’s the workforce and the company’s inability to recruit and maintain a good workforce that constitutes a bottleneck for production. Projects backed by good ideas, vigour, and enthusiasm are less likely to be stopped by a shortage of cash than a shortage of human capital, which is the knowledge, education, training, skills and expertise of a firm’s workers.

57. Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests and physical exams that firms use to identify suitable candidates for a job?
(a) Job analysis methods
(b) Forecasting tools
(c) Personnel techniques
(d) Selection tools.
Answer:
(d) The firm makes the candidates pass through a number of stages, such as filling of forms, employment tests, interviews, medical exams etc. It is the process of selection of right type of candidates and offering them the jobs. Hence, option d is correct.

58. According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firms productivity is its inability to
(a) utilize funds available
(b) use advanced controls
(c) use government subsidy
(d) acquire and maintain human capital.
Answer:
(d) The most important of all capital is Human Capital. The Inability of an organisation to maintain the Human Capital is the biggest hindrance in its productivity.

59. The employees contribute a total of …………………. of their basic salary plus dearness allowance to EPF
(a) 10%
(b) 14%
(c) 6%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(d) Employees contribute a total of 12% of basic salary to EPF.

60. The method of appraisal similar to the Rating Scale Method except that the degrees of qualities or attributes on which employees are to be appraised are, indicated on a graph or chart, is known as:
(a) Field Review Method
(b) Ranking Method
(c) Forced Distribution Method
(d) Graphic Rating Method.
Answer:
(d) Graphic Rating is similar to Rating Scale Method.

61. Which of the following is not the characteristics of the process of selection?
(a) Selection is the. process of selecting right candidate
(b) Selection follows recruitment
(c) The aim of selection is to ensure most suitable candidate for the job
(d) Selection is a negative process.
Answer:
(b) Recruitment follows Selection process

62. Ranking method of performance appraisal can conventionally be applied when the number of employees is:
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Both (a) and (b) Above
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Ranking method of performance appraisal is used when the number of employees is small and work is measurable.

63. Who among the following suggested the method of goal setting approach for performance appraisal which is also called ‘management by objectives:
(a) Peter F. Drucker
(b) Douglas Me. Gregor
(c) Newmann and Summer
(d) Henry Fayol.
Answer:
(a) ‘Management by objectives and ‘self-control’ proposed by Peter F.Drucker in which he describes goal setting to performance appraisal.

64. While appraising performance of people. It is assumed that people usually differ in:
(a) Their tasks
(b) Their behaviour
(c) Their abilities and aptitude
(d) Their ways of actions.
Answer:
(c) Each person have different abilities and aptitude so, while appraising performance of people, it is assumed that people usually differ in their abilities and aptitude.

65. HR manager’s work is to:
(a) Motivate employees to make them contribute fully
(b) Directing towards goals
(c) To advise the head of various departments
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) HR manager’s function are:

  • Management function: (Planning, directing, controlling, etc.)
  • Operational function: (Development, motivation, separation, etc.)
  • Advisory function: (Top Management, Departmentally) hence, option (d) is correct.

66. Human Resource Management is that part of management which is concerned with and their relationship with an enterprise.
(a) Board of directors
(b) Society at large
(c) Regulators
(d) The employees.
Answer:
(d) Human Resource Management is that part of management which is concerned with ‘the employees’ and their relationship with an enterprise.

67. Recruitment is the development and maintenance of adequate manpower resources. It involves the creation of a pool of available labour upon whom the organisation can draw when it needs additional employees. The given statement is the observation of –
(a) Edwin B. Flippo
(b) Dale S. Beach
(c) Peter Drucker
(d) Douglas Me Gregor.
Answer:
(b) The gÉven statement Is the observation of ‘Dale S. Beach’.

68. ……………………… means systematic evaluation of the personality and performance of each employee by his supervisor or some other person trained in the techniques of merit rating.
(a) Training and development
(b) Performance appraisal
(c) Human Resource Management
(d) Behaviorally Anchored Rating
Answer:
(b) ‘Performance Appraisal’ means systematic evaluation of the personality and performance of each employee by his supervisor or some other person trained in the techniques of merit rating.

69. ‘Management by Objective’ is given by:
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Mc Gregor
(c) Kriootz O Donna
(d) Hicks
Answer:
(a) It was Peter Drucker” who proposed goal. Setting approach to performance appraisal which is called ‘management by objective and self-control’. This approach was further strengthened by “Douglas Mc. Gregor”.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Introduction to Law – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Introduction to Law – CS Foundation Business Law Notes

Introduction:
1. Law is an instrument to regulate human behaviour – be it social life or business life.

2. There is lack of unanimity on true nature and meaning of iaw as it has been viewed by different jurists from different view points.

3. Various definitions can be grouped into 5 heads:

  • Natural
  • Positivistic
  • Historical
  • Sociological
  • Realistic

Natural School:

  1. “The art or science of what is equitable and good”
  2. “The highest reason implanted in nature”
  3. “The standard of what is just and unjust”
  4. As per Romans ‘justice’ is the main and guiding element of law.
  5. As per Hindu view, law is a part of “Dharma.”
  6. “The body of principles recognised and applied by the state in the administration of justice”
  7. “A set of rules imposed and enforced by society with regard to the attribution and exercise of power over persons and things”

Positivistic Definition of Law:

  1. “Law is the aggregate of rules set by man as politically superior or sovereign, to men as political subject”.
  2. “In other words, law is the “command of the sovereign”.
  3. 3 elements of law includes: command, duty and sanction.
  4. “Law is a normative science”.
  5. Grund Norm is the ultimate norm from which ail other norms derive their power.

Historical Definition of Law:
1. Savigny’s gave following point.

  • Law is a matter of unconscious and organic growth
  • It is not universal in native
  • It must be as per the popular custom
  • Legislation is last stage of law making

2. Law has close association with following two notions:

  • Notion of order
  • Notion of force

Sociological Definition of Law:

  1. “Essentially and exclusively as social fact”.
  2. “The form of the guarantee of the conditions of life of society, assured by State’s power of constraint”.
  3. Law is a social institution to satisfy social wants.

Realist Definition of Law:

  1. “Law is a statement of the circumstances in which public force will be brought to bear upon through courts.”
  2. “A principle or rule of conduct so established as to justify a prediction with reasonable certainty that it will be enforced by the courts if its authority is challenged, is a principle or rule of law”.

Characteristics of Law:
1. Law pre supposes a state which makes, authorizes to make, recognises or sanctions rules called as law. These rules are made to serve some purpose.

2. Law is made effective by:

  • Requiring damages to be paid for an a jury due to disobedience.
  • Requiring one to complete an obligation that he has failed to perform.
  • Preventing disobedience.
  • Administering some form of punishment.

3. Meaning of Law – It refers to the rule of conduct to be followed by people, formulated by the state in order to maintain peace and order in the society.

Significance of Law:

  • It provides hope of security for future.
  • It provides socio-economic justice
  • It removes the existing imbalances in the socio-economic structure.
  • It helps in achieving socio-economic goals contained in our constitution.
  • It serves as a vehicle of social change.
  • Law needs to be constantly changed in order to bring it in conformity with the general statements and customs.

Sources of Law:

  • Source means origin
  • Law originates from the sovereign.
  • It originate from Volkgeist – general consciousness of the people
  • Roscoe pound analysed the term “law” in the 20th century.
  • Law originates from God.
  • Vedas is primary source of Hindu law
  • Quran is primary source of Mohammedan law.
    Introduction to Law – CS Foundation Business Law Notes IMG 1

Principle Sources of Indian Law:

It includes the following:
(1) Customs / Customary Law –

  • Most ancient of all sources.
  • When same thing was done again and again in a particular way, it became a custom.
  • Smritis and Commentaries are based on customs.
  • It has a inferior place in Mohammedan law.
  • Sunnis have interpreted law of divorce and inheritance based on custom.

Customs are divided into:
(i) Customs without sanction/Positive morality are non-obligatory and are just observed due to pressure of public opinion.

(ii) Customs having sanction are enforced by the state.
Introduction to Law – CS Foundation Business Law Notes IMG 2

Legal Customs:

  • are enforced by courts
  • have become a part of law of land
  • operate as a binding rule of law

(a) Local Customs:

  • prevails in some definite locality
  • source of law for that particular place only
  • they are of 2 types:
  • Geographical local customs
  • Personal local customs

(b) General Customs:

  • prevail throughout the country
  • one of the sources of law of land

Conventional Customs:

  • also known as “usages”
  • are binding due to an agreement between the parties.

Following conditions to be satisfied, before it is adopted:

  • Clearly established and known to the contracting parties.
  • Cannot alter the general law of the land.
  • Must be reasonable.

Custom to be valid requires the following conditions to be fulfilled:
(a) Immemorial or Antiquity: It must be ancient English law placing limit to legal memory does not apply to Indian law.

According to Blackstone, “A custom, in order that it may be legal and binding must have been used so long that the memory of man runs not to the contrary, so that, if any one can show the beginning of it, it is no good custom.”

(b) Reasonableness: It must be useful to the society and must not be opposed o principles of equity, justice and good conscience.

(c) Conformity with law and public morality: It must not be opposed to any public policy or statute.

(d) Certainty: It must be definite and certain, rather than being vague and ambiguous.

(e) Compulsory observance: It must have been continuously and compulsory observed without interruption from long time.

(f) Unanimity of opinion: It must be universal in nature.

(g) Consistency: One custom must not conflict with other established customs.

(h) Peaceful enjoyment: It must be observed peacefully in all law courts without any conflicts.

(2) Judicial Decisions / Precedents: (Past decisions)

  • ‘Precedent’ refers to some pattern set for guiding the future conduct.
  • Decisions laying down some new rule or principle are called Judicial Precedents.
  • The principles of law that are expressed for the first time in court decisions becomes precedent which are to be followed as law in future while deciding identical problems and cases.
  • This rule of a court decision becoming precedent to be followed in future cases is known as doctrine of stare decisis.
  • This creates confidence in the minds of litigants.
  • Justice administration becomes fair and equitable.

General Principles:

  • Lower Court is bound by decisions of Higher Court.
  • Higher Courts are bound by their own decisions.

High Court’s Principles in Particular:

  • High Court’s decisions are binding on all subordinate courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction.
  • High Court’s decision have a persuasive value in a court which comes under jurisdiction of another court.
  • The rule that a court decision becomes precedent to be followed for similar cases.
  • In case of any conflict, decision of High Court within whose jurisdiction that court comes, will prevail.
  • In case of any conflict between decisions of two co-equal benches, later decision is followed.
  • Smallest Bench is formed by a single judge.
  • Division Bench means bench of two judges.
  • Full Bench means bench of three or more judges.
  • Decision of Full Bench is binding on Smaller bench.
  • Even a wrong decision of Division Bench is binding on Smaller Bench.
  • High Courts are courts of co-ordinate jurisdiction.
  • Pre-constitution privity council decisions are binding on the High Courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court.

Supreme Court’s Principles in Particular:

  • Supreme Court is the highest court.
  • Its decisions are binding on all courts within the territory of India and other judicial tribunals of the country.
  • Only the statement of ratio of the judgement have the binding force.
  • It is not bound by its own decisions.
  • Earlier decisions can be departed from only if found erroneous and is detrimental to the general public welfare.
  • English decisions have persuasive value in India.
  • It is not bound by the decisions of Privity Council or Federal Court.

Precedents are of following kinds:
1. Declaratory: It is an application of an already exiting law. According to Salmond, “A declaratory precedent is one which is merely the application of an already existing rule of law. ”

2. Original: It creates and applies a new rule of law. It creates law for future. It develops law of the country.

3. Persuasive: It does not creates any obligation on the judge to follow but deserves to be attached great weight. It is a historical source of law rather than a legal source.
These are not compulsory to be followed but are considered by the judges to give their decision.

4. Absolutely Authoritative: It creates a binding force on the judge and he is bound to follow it whether he approves it or not. It is a legal source of law. These are compulsorily required to be followed.

5. Conditionally Authoritative: Though binding on the judge, it can be disregarded if it is considered wrong or contrary to law. (The rule is that a court decision becomes precedent to be followed for similarly cases)

Doctrine of Stare Decisis:

  • It refers to adhere to the decision and not unsettle thing which are established.
  • Law already settled by a series of decisions becomes binding on the courts and have to be followed in
  • similar cases.
  • Like cases are decided alike.
  • It is not universally applicable.
  • It should not be applied at the cost of justice.

Ratio Decidendi.
The court while giving the decision give the importance to those certain points which leads into giving the decision. Such points are known as ratio decidendi:

  • It is a decision based on the material facts of a case (Prof. Goodhart)
  • It is binding between the contracting parties.
  • It is equally applicable to other cases of similar nature.

Obiter Dicta:

  • The Judges are not bound to follow them although they can take advantage of them.
  • They sometimes help the cause of the reform of law.
  • It means “said by the way”.
  • It is a persuasive precedent.
  • These are the statements that are not necessary for a particular decision’s case but occur in the course of delivering a judgement.
  • Judges can take advantage of it.
  • It can also be a deliberate expression of opinion.
  • The word “law declared” includes an obiter dictum provided it is upon a point raised and agreed.

(3) Statutes / Legislation:

  • Also referred as Jus Scriptum meaning written law, or Jus non-Scriptum meaning unwritten law, Salmond prefers to call it as “enacted law”.
  • It is consisted in the declaration of legal rules by an authority duly empowered by the constitution in this behalf.
  • Various statutory laws are created by legislation.
  • Legislation can be Supreme, or and Subordinate.
  • Supreme legislation directly derives its power from the constitution. Thus, cannot be repealed, annulled or controlled by any other legislative authority.
  • Subordinate legislation proceeds from any authority other than sovereign power.
  • Parliament possesses power of Supreme Legislation.
  • The power given to the executive to make rules in some cases is known as executive or delegated legislation.
  • Rules made by executive have to be placed on the table of both the houses of Parliament for a specified time. After being approved by legislature, it becomes a part of legislation.
  • Supreme Legislation includes acts of parliament and the ordinances, other laws made by President and Governor.
  • Subordinate legislation includes legislation made by various authorities like corporation, municipalities etc.

(4) Personal Law:
It is applied where any point of the issue in not covered by any statutory law or custom.

Hindu’s law is found in:

  • The Shruti which includes 4 Vedas
  • The Smritis which are of 3 types – the codes of Manu, Yajnavalkya and Narada.

Mohammedan’s law is found in:

  • The Holy Kuran
  • Hadis : actions, percepts and sayings of Prophet Mohammed.
  • Ijmas : concurrence of opinion of the companions of Prophet and his disciples.
  • Kiyas : analogical deductions from Quran, Hadis and Ijmas.
  • Digests and Commentaries : which includes Hedaya (the most important and famous one) and Fatawa Alamgiri (complied by Aurangzeb Alamgiri)

Secondary Sources of Indian Law – It includes the following :
(1) Justice, Equity and Good Consciences

(2) Sources of English Law –

  • Common Law
  • Law Merchant
  • Principle of Equity
  • Statute Law

(1) Justice, Equity and Good Conscience :

  • Introduced by Impey’s Regulations of 1781
  • It applies in absence of any rule of a statutory law, custom or personal law.
  • It owes its origin to the beginning of British administration of justice in India.
  • They have been modified to suit the Indian conditions and circumstances.
  • It must not be inconsistent with any doctrine or theory of Hindu law.

(2) English Law – Main body of rules and principles of India law have been adopted from English law which in turn have been taken from following sources:
(i) Common Law:

  • Unwritten law of England which is common to the whole of the realm
  • Principles-evolved by judges while making decisions on cases brought before them.
  • It denotes body of legal rules which have several primary sources.

(ii) Law Merchant:

  • Important source of Mercantile law.
  • It refers to the customs and usages which are binding on traders in their dealings with each other.

(iii) Principle of Equity:

  • It refers to a body of rules whose primary source is neither any custom nor a written law.
  • In cases where anyone is not satisfied with the decision of common law, can file a writ or mercy petition
  • with the king (fountain head of justice). Chancellor to whom the petitions are referred by the king dispose it off as per his commonsense, natural justice and good conscience.
  • Law administered by chancellor is known as Equity and such courts are known as Equity courts.

(iv) Statute Law:

  • It refers to the law derived from the legislation or enactment of Parliament or the subordinate and delegated legislative bodies.
  • It is now a very important source of Mercantile law
  • It overrides an unwritten law
  • Example : Bankruptcy Act, 1914.
  • English Sale of Goods Act, 1893; etc.

Mercantile or Commercial Law:

  • It grew up from customs and usages of merchants or traders in England
  • Eventually become a part of common law of England
  • It relates to the commercial activities of people of the society
  • It is concerned with trade and commerce

Branches of Law:
They are:

  • Constitutional law (Highest and supreme law of country)
  • Administrative law
  • Criminal law
  • Civil law
  • Mercantile or commercial law Sources of Mercantile Law

Its sources are:

  • Law Merchant
  • Statute law
  • Common law
  • Principles of Equity

Mercantile Law in India :
Sources of Indian Mercantile Law:

  • English Mercantile Law
  • Statute Law
  • Judicial Decision
  • Custom and Trade Usages

Indian Contract Act, 1872 was enacted as an attempt to codify and establish uniform principles of Mercantile law in India.

Following are the sources of India Mercantile law:
(i) English Mercantile Law – Certain modifications have been made in English law to make it suitable to the Indian needs.

(ii) Statute Law

  • It includes the various acts enacted by India legislature.
  • Example – The Indian Contract Act, 1872;
  • The Sales of Goods Act, 1930; etc.

(iii) Judicial Decisions

  • In cases where law is silent, judge takes a decision based on justice, equity and good conscience.
  • On basis of such decisions, other cases of similar nature are decided.

(iv) Customs and Trade Usages – Various provisions of Indian statute give effect to the rules laid down in a particular Act which are subject to special custom or trade usage.

Legal Terminology and Maxims:
Legal Maxim refers to an established principle or proposition.

Term/Phrase Meaning
ab initio From the beginning.
ad hoc Not intended to be able to be adapted to other purposes.
ad idem To the same thing.
ad infinitum To infinity
ad valorem According to value.
alter ego A second identity living within a person.
arhicus curiae Friend of the court.
a udi alteram partem Hear the other side.
bona fide In good faith.
de facto in fact.
de jure In law.
de novo A new.
dehors Outside of.
ex gratia As a matter of grace or favour.
ex officio By virtue of an office.
ex parte Expression used to signify something done or said by one person not in the presence of his opponent.
fait accompli An accomplished act.
ictus reus Guilty act.
in personam Against the person.
in rem An act/proceeding done or directed with reference to no specific person or with reference to all whom it might concern.
Inter alia Amongst other things.
inter vivos Between living persons.
intestate A person is deemed to die intestate in respect of property of which he or she has not made a testamentary disposition (“will”) capable of taking effect.
intra vires Within the powers.
ipso facto By the mere fact.
ipso jure By the law itself.
lis pendens A pending suit.
locus standi Signifies a right to be heard.
mens rea A guilty mind.
mesne profits Intermediate profits, the profits which a person in wrongful possession of the property actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received therefrom together with interest on such profits excluding the profits due to improvement made by the person in wrongful possession.
modus operandi Mode of operating; the way in which a thing, cause etc. operates.
mutatis mutandis With the necessary changes in points of detail, with such change as may be necessary.
obiter dictum An opinion of law not necessary to the decision. An expression of opinion (formed) by a judge on a question immaterial to the ratio decidendi, and unnecessary for the decision of the particular case. It is no way binding on any court, but may receive attention as being an opinion of high authority.
pendente Iite During litigation.
quid pro quo The giving of one thing of value for another thing of value; one for the other; thing given as compensation.
ratio decidendi Reasons for deciding, the grounds of decision.
res integra An untouched matter; a point without a precedent; a case of novel impression.
res judicata A case or suit already decided.
rule nisi A rule to show cause why a party should not do a certain act, or why the object of the rule should not be enforced.
sine die Without day.
sine qua non An indispensable requisite.
stare decisis To stand by things decided; to abide by precedents where the same points come again in litigation.
status quo Existing condition.
sub judice Before a judge or court, pending decision of a competent count.
ultra vires Beyond one’s powers.

Understanding Case Citation:
1. Case Name:

  • Represented in Italics followed by a comma.
  • First name tells the person bringing the court action.
  • Second name is the person against whom the action is brought.
  • Criminal law case is always brought by the state against a person.
  • Defendant may not always remain same.

2. Name of Reporter
(i) It refers to a multi-volume publication where court decisions are found.

(ii) Eg. – AIR – All India Report:
ITR – Income Tax Report etc.

Full Name Official Abbreviation Type of Case Reported
All India Reports AIR Decision from SC and HC
Supreme Court Cases SCC Indian Supreme Court
Company Law Journal CLJ Decision Relating to Company Law matters
Income Tax Report ITR Decision Relating to Income Tax matters
Labour Reports LR Decision Relating to Labour Law matters

3. Beginning and Ending Page – It is important to provide the specific pages on which a quote is found if a direct quote from any case is being used.

4. Year of Decision – It refers to the year in which the court deliver the decision.
Example : Furman V. Georgia, 408 U.S. 238,240 (1972).

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a definition of law:
(a) Physiological
(b) Realistic
(c) Sociological
(d) Historical
Answer:
(a) Physiological

Question 2.
As per. Romans, ________ is the main guiding force.
(a) Law
(b) Equity
(c) Justice
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Justice

Question 3.
law is a normative science. This definition was given by:
(a) Ulpine
(b) Austin
(c) Kelson
(d) Cicero
Answer:
(c) Kelson

Question 4.
Elements of law include:
(a) Command
(b) Duty
(c) Sanction
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
As per Historical definition of law, it is not universal in nature.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 6.
________ is a primary source of Hindu law.
(a) Vedas
(b) Holy Kuran
(c) Smritis
(d) Bible
Answer:
(a) Vedas

Question 7.
________ is the most ancient source of Indian law.
(a) Judicial Decisions
(b) Personal Law
(c) Statutes
(d) Customs
Answer:
(d) Customs

Question 8.
________ custom prevails in-a particular locality.
(a) Legal
(b) General
(c) Conventional
(d) Local
Answer:
(d) Local

Question 9.
Custom to be valid must not be:
(a) Immemorial
(b) Uncertain
(c) Reasonable
(d) In confirmation with law and public morality.
Answer:
(b) Uncertain

Question 10.
Rule of Court decision to be followed in future cases is known as ________.
(a) Doctrine of Indoor Management
(b) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
(c) Doctrine of Court Decisis
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Doctrine of Stare Decisis

Question 11.
In case of any conflict between decisions of co-equal benches ________ decision prevails.
(a) Later
(b) Previous
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Later

Question 12.
Bench of two judges is known as ________.
(a) Smallest Bench
(b) Full Bench
(c) Division Bench
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Division Bench

Question 13.
Supreme Court is bound by its own decisions.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 14.
________ precedents creates law for the whole country.
(a) Declaratory
(b) Pervasive
(c) Absolutely Authoritative
(d) Original
Answer:
(d) Original

Question 15.
Legislation can be:
(a) Supreme
(b) Subordinate
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 16.
Shruti includes ________ number of Vedas.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 17.
________ is an unwritten law of England.
(a) Common law
(b) Law Merchant
(c) Equity
(d) Statute
Answer:
(a) Common law

Question 18.
Latin maxim “bonafide” means:
(a) From the beginning
(b) In good faith
(c) Guilty act
(d) In bad faith
Answer:
(b) In good faith

Question 19.
Latin Maxim “in personam” means:
(a) Against specific person
(b) Against no specific person
(c) Amongst other things
(d) Within the powers
Answer:
(a) Against specific person

Question 20.
Hindu and Muhammedan law is ________.
(a) Personal Law
(b) Principle Law
(c) Historical Law
(d) Cus omary Law
Answer:
(a) Personal Law

Question 21.
“A declaratory precedent js one which is merely the application of already existing rule of law.” This was said by:
(a) Ulpine
(b) Cicero
(c) Salmond
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Salmond

Question 22.
Which of the following is the definition of law ________.
(a) Natural
(b) Realistic
(c) Historical
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.
Who said that “law is the highest reason implanted in nature”
(a) Ulpine
(b) Cicero
(c) Justinian Digest
(d) Salmond
Answer:
(b) Cicero

Question 24.
Who was the prominent modern natural writer who defined law as “the body of principles recognised and applied by the state in the administration justice.”
(a) Salmond
(b) Ulpine
(c) Cicero
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Salmond

Question 25.
Which of the following are the main source/sources of mercantile law.
(a) Principles of equity
(b) Common law
(c) Law merchant
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 26.
________ is the last stage of law making and therefore, the lawyer or the jurist is most important than legislature.
(a) Custom
(b) Social control
(c) Legislation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Legislation

Question 27.
________ is one of the essential of sociological definition of law
(a) Coercive
(b) Legislations
(c) Judicial Process
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Coercive

Question 28.
________ refers to some pattern set for guiding the future conduct
(a) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
(b) Precedent
(c) Judicial Precedent
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Judicial Precedent

Question 29.
General meaning of source is:-
(a) Origin
(b) Established
(c) Uses
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Origin

Question 30.
All norms derives their power from the ultimate norms known as ________.
(a) Normative relation
(b) Ground norms
(c) Legal norms
(d) Physical norms
Answer:
(b) Ground norms

Question 31.
Law administrated by chancellor is known as ________.
(a) Statued law
(b) Equity
(c) Equity courts
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Equity

Question 32.
These customs which are non-obligatory and are observed due to the pressure of public opinion is known as ________.
(a) Custom having sanction
(b) Positive Morality
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Positive Morality

Question 33.
Customs that are enforced by state are known as ________.
(a) Customs having sanction
(b) Local customs
(c) General customs
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Customs having sanction

Question 34.
This is an essential condition for making a valid custom:
(a) Compulsory observations
(b) Peaceable enjoyment
(c) Certainty
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 35.
The term precedent means ________.
(a) Observation
(b) Set pattern for guiding the future conduct
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 36.
Article makes clear that the law declared by the government
shall be binding on all the courts within the territory of India.
(a) Article .171 of the constitution
(b) Article 141 of the constitution
(c) Article 187 of the constitution
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Article 141 of the constitution

Question 37.
The underlying principle of judicial decision which is only authoritative is ________.
(a) Doctrine of stare decisis
(b) Ratio decidendi
(c) Obiter dicta
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Ratio decidendi

Question 38.
Ratio decidendi is nothing more than decision based on the material facts of the cases defined by ________.
(a) Ulpine
(b) Salmond
(c) Prof. Goodhart
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Prof. Goodhart

Question 39.
Which proceeds from the sovereign power in the state or which derives the power directly from the constitution.
(a) Supreme Legislation
(b) Obiter Dicta
(c) Judiciary
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme Legislation

Question 40.
Which of the following is not the branch of law ________.
(a) Civil Law
(b) Administrative Law
(c) Commercial Law
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 41.
The Latin Maxim “ab initio” means ________.
(a) Frorrr the beginning
(b) To infinity
(c) A new
(d) In law
Answer:
(a) Frorrr the beginning

Question 42.
The Latin Maxim “ad hoc” means ________.
(a) To the same thing
(b) Friend of court
(c) Not intended to be adopted to other purposes
(d) In fact
Answer:
(c) Not intended to be adopted to other purposes

Question 43.
The Latin Maxim “In personam” means ________.
(a) Within the powers
(b) During Litigation
(c) Without day
(d) Against the person
Answer:
(d) Against the person

Question 44.
The Latin Maxim “Mutatis Mutandis” means ________.
(a) With necessary changes
(b) A guilty mind
(c) During litigation
(d) Beyond One’s Power
Answer:
(a) With necessary changes

Question 45.
The Latin Maxim “Ultra Vires” means ________.
(a) Beyond one’s powers
(b) Existing conditions
(c) Without day
(d) Guilty Act
Answer:
(a) Beyond one’s powers

Question 46.
If a case is written as ________.
ONGC Vs HTC, 512 CR 230 (2004)
Then in this case. “512″ refers to
(a) Volume Number
(b) Beginning page
(c) Name of victim
(d) Name of the Reporter
Answer:
(a) Volume Number

Question 47.
If a case citation is stated as Choman Lai V/s Andrew, 511 The “U.S” refers to ________.
(a) Name of the Country
(b) Name of Judge
(c) Name of Victim
(d) Name of the Reporter
Answer:
(d) Name of the Reporter

Question 48.
In a case citation, the term ‘CLJ’ would mean ________.
(a) Company Law Journal
(b) Competent Learned Judge
(c) Corporate Law Jurisdiction
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Company Law Journal

Question 49.
Which one of the following is NOT a major source of Indian Mercantile law?
(a) Judicial Decisions
(b) English Mercantile Law
(c) Customs and Trade Usages
(d) The U.S Federal Forum
Answer:
(d) The U.S Federal Forum

Question 50.
The first attempt to codify and establish uniform principles of mercantile law was done in the year ________.
(a) 1841
(b) 1857
(c) 1932
(d) 1872
Answer:
(d) 1872

Question 51.
The underlying principle of a judicial decision which is only authoritative is termed as ________.
(a) Obiter Dicta
(b) Stare Decisis
(c) Ratio Decidendi
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ratio Decidendi

Question 52.
The literal meaning of the Latin Expression “Obiter Dicta” is ________.
(a) To the same thing
(b) Hear the other side
(c) Outside of
(d) Said by the way
Answer:
(d) Said by the way

Question 53.
Which of the following statement is not correct in context to the Supreme Court?
(a) It is bound by its own decisions
(b) It’s decisions are binding on all courts in India
(c) It is not bound by the decision of Federal Court
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) It is bound by its own decisions

Question 54.
‘Sir Henry Marine and Savigy’ have given the ________.
(a) Realist Definition of law
(b) Historical definition of law
(c) Sociological Definition of law
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Historical definition of law

Question 55.
‘Holmes and Cardozo’ have given the ________.
(a) Realist Definition of law
(b) Sociological Definition of law
(c) Historical Definition of law
(d) Customary Definition of law
Answer:
(a) Realist Definition of law

Question 56.
Which of the following is NOT a requisite for a valid custom?
(a) Antiquity
(b) Certainty
(c) Consistency
(d) Voluntary Observance
Answer:
(d) Voluntary Observance

Question 57.
Which of the followinq is NOT correct in context to the Hiqh Court in India?
(a) It is the court of Co-ordinate Jurisdiction
(b) Privity council decisions are not
(c) Its decisions are binding on all tribunals within its jurisdiction
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Privity council decisions are not

Question 58.
A Bench of three Judges in a High Court is called as ________.
(a) Smallest Bench
(b) Division Bench
(c) Triangular Bench
(d) Full Bench
Answer:
(d) Full Bench

Question 59.
The Smallest Bench in a High Court consists of how many Judges?
(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) One

Question 60.
A Bench of two judges in High Court is called as ________.
(a) Smallest Bench
(b) Division Bench
(c) Full Bench
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Division Bench

Question 61.
The Hindu Personal law is basically found in ________.
(a) Shruti
(b) Smriti
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 62.
Which of the following is not a Smriti?
(a) Manu
(b) Yajnavalkya
(c) Narada
(d) Shruti
Answer:
(d) Shruti

Question 63.
Which of the following is NOT a type of precedent?
(a) Persuasive Precedents
(b) Original Precedent
(c) Conditional Authority Precedent
(d) Passive Precedent
Answer:
(d) Passive Precedent

Question 64.
‘The Courts are required to apply the personal law of the parties where the point at issue is not covered by a statutory law or custom”
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly False
(d) Partly True
Answer:
(a) True

Question 65.
The guidance or authority of the past decisions of the court are called ________.
(a) Judicial Precedents
(b) Original Precedents
(c) Persuasive Precedents
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Judicial Precedents

Question 66.
Legal customs and conventional customs are a part of ________.
(a) Customs without Sanction
(b) Customs having Sanction
(c) Judicial Customs
(d) Voluntary Customs
Answer:
(b) Customs having Sanction

Question 67.
Which of the following is source of Indian mercantile law?
(a) English Mercantile law
(b) Judicial decisions
(c) Customs and trade usages
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) The main source of Indian Mercantile Law are:

  • English Mercantile Law
  • Statute Law
  • Judicial Decision
  • Customs and Trade Usages

Thus, option (d) is correct answer.

Question 68.
Which kind of precedent from the following creates and applies a new rule of law?
(a) Declaratory
(b) Persuasive
(c) Absolutely authoritative
(d) Original.
Answer:
(d) An original precedent is one which creates and applies a new rule of law. It is a law for the future because it is now applied. Number of original precedents is small but their importance is very great. They alone develop the law of the country and serve as a good evidence of law for the future.

Question 69.
________ means “adhere to the decision and do not unsettle things which are established”.
(a) Stare decisis
(b) Ratio decidendi
(c) Obiter dicta
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Doctrine of stare decisis refers to the policy of courts to abide by or adhere to principles established by decisions in earlier cases : Thus, stare decisis means “adhere to the decision and do not unsettle things which are established.”

Question 70.
Which of the following is not a source of Indian law?
(a) English mercantile law
(b) Judicial law
(c) Civil law
(d) Customs and trade usage
Answer:
(c) The principal sources of Indian law are:

  • Customs or Customary Law.
  • Judicial decisions or precedents
  • Statutes or legislation.
  • Personal Law e.g. Hindu & Mohammedan Law.

Hence, Civil Law is not a source of Indian Law.

Question 71.
Which of the following is not a branch of merchant law?
(a) Criminal law
(b) Civil law
(c) Administrative law
(d) English law
Answer:
(d) Branches of Mercantile Law are :

  • Constitution Law
  • Administrative Law
  • Criminal Law
  • Civil Law
  • Mercantile / Commercial Law

Thus, option (d) English Law is correct answer.

Question 72.
Law is “essentially & exclusively a social fact” is given under _______
(a) Historical
(b) Sociological
(c) Realist
(d) Positivistic
Answer:
(b) Duguit under Sociological definition of law, defines law as “essentially and exclusively as social fact”.

Question 73.
“Justice is the main guiding ePernent of law” is defined under which school?
(a) Natural
(b) Sociological
(c) Positivistic
(d) Historical
Answer:
(a) Under Natural School of law as per Romans, ‘Justice’ is the main guiding force / element of law.

Question 74.
Decision of one High Court have only a _______ value in a court within the jurisdiction of another High Court.
(a) Voluntary
(b) Mandatory
(c) Persuasive
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) High Court’s decisions are binding on all subordinate courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction. Where as, High Court’s decision have a persuasive value in a court which comes under jurisdiction of another court.

Question 75.
The decisions given by Supreme Court are recorded in _______.
(a) AIR
(b) SCC
(c) AIR and SCC
(d) ITR
Answer:
(c) Those decisions which are given by Supreme Court are recorded in SCC (Supreme Court Cases) and AIR (All India Report).

Question 76.
Meaning of intra vires _______.
(a) Within the power
(b) Amongst the other
(c) Beyond the power
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) The legal Maxim, “intra vires” means within the powers.

Question 77.
Which law is related to the commercial activities of the people of the society?
(a) Constitutional law
(b) Administrative law
(c) Civil law
(d) Mercantile law
Answer:
(d) Mercantile Law or Commercial Law is related to the Commercial activities of people of the society. It is concerned with trade and commerce.

Question 78.
Past decision of the courts for future cases is known as:
(a) Customs
(b) Previous work
(c) Precedents
(d) Historical record
Answer:
(c) The guidance or authority of past decisions of the courts for future cases or only such decisions which lay down some new rule or principle are called judicial precedent.

Question 79.
‘Fait accompli’ means:
(a) Accomplished Act
(b) Accomplished person
(c) Vision to be accomplished
(d) Person accompanying in crime
Answer:
(a) The “fait accompli” is a Latin word which means an accomplished act.

Question 80.
In case of Hindu and Muslim family business, which laws prevail to divide their family properties?
(a) Government law
(b) Their Own laws
(c) Legal laws
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hindus and Mohammedans are governed by their personal law as modified by statute law and custom in all matters relating to inheritance, succession, marriage partition of joint family property pious obligations religions and charitable endowments.

Question 81.
In case name, the first name usually identifies:
(a) The person who is defending the case
(b) The person against whom the action is brought
(c) The person who is bringing the court action
(d) The person who is accused
Answer:
(c) Case Name: There are typically two names for a case. Usually the first name identifies who is bringing the court action and the second name is the person against whom action is being brought.

Question 82.
Custom as a source has a very inferior place in the _______.
(a) Hindu law
(b) Judicial decision
(c) Criminal law
(d) Mohammedan law
Answer:
(d) Customs as a source of law has a very inferior place in Mohammedan law. However, customs which were not expressly disapproved by the prophet were good laws.

Question 83.
What is meant by ‘ab initio’?
(a) From the beginning
(b) From the origin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Legal maxim ‘ab initio’ means, from the beginning and from the origin. So, the option (c), i.e. both (a) & (b) is correct.

Question 84.
_______ is the primary source of Hindu law?
(a) Vedas
(b) Holy Quran
(c) Smriti
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) In the case of Hindus, their personal law is to be found in:

  • The shruti which includes four vedas.
  • The ‘Smrities’ which are recollections handed down by the Rishi’s or ancient teachings.

Thus, option (d) is correct.

Question 85.
A is one which is merely the application of an already existing rules of law _______.
(a) Conditionally authoritative precedents
(b) Declaratory precedents
(c) Persuasive precedents
(d) Absolutely Authoritative Precedent.
Answer:
(b) A declaratory precedent is one which is merely the application of an already existing rule of law. It do not create or applies a new rule of law. It is as good a source of law as an original precedent.

Question 86.
“Fait accompli” means:
(a) Accomplished person
(b) Person accompanying in crime
(c) Vision to be accomplished
(d) Accomplished act.
Answer:
(d) “Fait Accompli” means an accomplished act or a thing accomplished and presumably irreversible. This legal maxim is an established principle or proposition.

Question 87.
‘Fait accompli’ means:
(a) Accomplished act
(b) Person accompanying in crime
(c) Accomplished person
(d) Vision to be accomplished
Answer:
(a) Fait accompli means “An Accomplished Act”.

Question 88.
“Law is essentially and exclusively a social fact”, this is the definition of which class of law?
(a) Historical
(b) Sociological
(c) Natural
(d) Positive
Answer:
(b) Duguit under the sociological definition of law defines it as “Essentially and exclusively as social fact”.

Question 89.
Customs are considered as of law _______.
(a) Rules
(b) Source
(c) Principle
(d) Decision
Answer:
(b) Sources means origin. It is divided into 2 parts i.e principal sources and secondary sources. Custom falls under the category of principal sources. It is most ancient of all sources. Smiritis and commentaries are based on customs.

Question 90.
‘De facto’ means:
(a) in fact
(b) a new
(c) old
(d) in law
Answer:
(a) There are numbers of legal maxims which refers to an established principle. Under this the maxim De facto means in fact.

Question 91.
“Law is a part of Dharma”, this is the concept of which school of law?
(a) Positive
(b) Sociological
(c) Natural
(d) Historical.
Answer:
(c) Ancient Hindu view was that law is the common of God and even the ruler is bound to obey it. Thus, law is a part of Dharma. Ancient Hindu view was a part of Natural view.

Question 92.
‘Status quo’ means:
(a) Update the status
(b) Maintains existing status
(c) Change the status
(d) Improve the status
Answer:
(b) ‘Status quo’ means ‘maintaining the existing status’.

Question 93.
What is the meaning of Maxim Ultra Vires?
(a) An accomplished act
(b) Within the powers
(c) Beyond, the power
(d) With the guilty mind.
Answer:
(c) ‘Maxim Ultra Vires’ is Latin phrase which means ‘Beyond the power’.

Question 94.
Which kind of precedent from the following creates and Applies a new rule of law?
(a) Declaratory
(b) Persuasive
(c) Absolutely authoritative
(d) Original
Answer:
(d) Original kind of precedent creates new rule and applies new rule.

Question 95.
According to value is meaning of legal Maxim:
(a) ad hoc
(b) ad idem
(c) ad valorem
(d) de facto
Answer:
(c) Ad valorem means According to value.

Question 96.
Source of Indian Mercantile law?
(a) English Mercantile Law
(b) Customs’and Usage
(c) Judiciary decision
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Source of Indian Mercantile Law

  • English Mercantile Law
  • Judiciary Decision
  • Custom and usage
  • Acts enacted by Indian legislature; option (d) is correct.

Question 97.
The decision of Supreme Court is recorded as (abbreviation);
(a) AIR, SCC
(b) AIR only
(c) CLJ
(d) LR
Answer:
(a) Abbreviation used to Record;

  • AIR : All India Reports: Important decisions of Supreme Court
  • SCC : Supreme Court Cases: Record Indian Supreme Court.

Question 98.
What does the mean of Legal Maxim “Inter AM’ _______.
(a) Among your area
(b) A guilty mind
(c) Among other things
(d) Signifies a right to be heard
Answer:
(c) Inter Alia: Among other things

Question 99.
_______ means “adhere to the decision and do not unsettle things which are established”.
(a) Stare decisis
(b) Ratio Decidendi
(c) Obiter dicta
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Doctrine of stare dicisis refers to the policy of courts to abide by or adhere to principles established by decisions in earlier cases. Thus, stare decisis means adhere to the decision and do not unsettle things which are established.

Question 100.
The meaning of legal maxim ‘Mens rea’ is ________
(a) A pending suit
(b) Immediate profits
(c) During litigation
(d) A guilty mind
Answer:
(d) The meaning of legal maxim, ‘mens rea’ is ‘a guilty mind’.

Question 101.
Highest Court of India ________.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Civil Court
(d) District Court
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court is the highest Court of India. Its decisions are binding on all courts within the Territory of India and other Judicial tribunals of the country.

Question 102.
Bonafide means:
(a) A guilty mind
(b) In a good faith
(c) Beyond Once power
(d) Among other things
Answer:
(b) Bonafide means “in good faith”.

Question 103.
________ is the Court whose decisions are binding on all courts and other judicial tribunals
(a) High Court
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Indian Penal Court
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Article 141 of the Constitution makes it clear that the law declared by Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts with in the territory of India. The Supreme Court being the highest court binds all judicial tribunals and courts by its decisions.

Question 104.
Hindu and Mohammedan law is ________.
(a) Personal Law
(b) Customary Law
(c) Precedents
(d) Statutes
Answer:
(a) The courts are required to apply personal law of the parties where the point at issue is not covered by any statutory law or custom. Hindus are governed by their personal law in matters relating to inheritance, succession, marriage, etc. and Mohammedans are governed by their personal law in matters relating to wills, succession, legacies, etc.

Question 105.
‘Mens rea’ meaning?
(a) A Guilty Act
(b) A Guilty mind
(c) Important person
(d) Pending suit
Answer:
(b) The meaning of ‘mens rea’ is ‘Guilty mind’.

Question 106.
Law is a Part of “Dharma” ________.
(a) National school
(b) Realistic school
(c) Historical school
(d) All of Above.
Answer:
(a) According to Natural School of law, ancient Hindus view was that ‘law’ is the command of God and not of any political sovereign. Everybody including the ruler, is bound to obey it. Thus, law is a part of ‘Dharma’.

Question 107.
Find the odd one out:
(a) Manu
(b) Yojnavalkya
(c) Shruti
(d) Narada
Answer:
(c) According to the personal law, in case of Hindus, their personal law is found to be in:

  • The Shruti which includes four Vedas.
  • The ‘Smritis’ which are recollections handed down by Rishi’s or ancient teachings and percepts of God.
  • There are three main Smritis:

Codes of Manu, Yojnavalkya and Narada.

Question 108.
Who is the Supreme Commander of Indian Armed forces:
(a) Major
(b) President
(c) Lieutenant
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Answer:
(b) The President of India is the Head of State and Supreme Commander of Indian Armed forces while the people elected Prime Minister act as a Chief Executive and is responsible for running the government.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes

Bank Reconciliation Statement – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Bank Reconciliation Statement – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Bank is “an establishment authorized by a government to accept deposits, pay interest, clear cheques, make loans, act as an intermediary in financial transactions, and provide other financial services to its customers.”

→ Bank account has gone through many changes over the past half century. With many different types of account, offering a variety of benefits, it’s important to select the account that best suits your needs.

→ Types of Bank Account
A. Savings Accounts: These are intended to provide an incentive for individual to save money. You can make deposits and withdrawals, but there is a restriction on the number of amounts and amount of withdrawal that can be made. They pay interest on the deposits that are made. Because of its restriction regarding the withdrawal it does not suit the businessmen but is popular with individuals

B. Current account: Current Accounts are basically meant for businessmen. No interest is paid in current account but any number of transactions without limit can be made. On the other hand, banks charges certain service charges, on such accounts. Sometimes businessman is allowed to withdraw amount more then what is deposited balance available in their account. Such a facility of withdrawing more than the available balance money in their account is called overdraft

C. Fixed Deposit Account: Fixed deposits are bank accounts that require the account holder to make a deposit and agree to leave funds in the account for a specific amount of time. In return for this agreement, the financial institution pays interest to the account. Often, the interest paid on a FD is higher than the rate paid on other types of bank account.

D. Recurring Deposit Account: These are popularly known as RD accounts and are special kind of Term Deposits and are suitable for people who do not have lump sum amount of savings, but are ready to save a small amount every month. Normally, such deposits earn interest on the amount already deposited (through monthly installments) at the same rates as are applicable for Fixed Deposits/Term Deposits.

→ Bank Deposit: Bank Deposit refers to an amount of money in cash or check form or sent via a wire transfer that is placed into a bank account. The target bank account for the Bank Deposit can be any kind of account that accepts deposits. Deposits can be made by filling up a form called pay-in-slips which is deposited with the cashier of the bank and an acknowledgement is taken. Money deposited with the bank is debited to bank account.

→ Withdrawals: Withdrawal of money from the bank account can be made with the help of withdrawal slip provided by banks. Moreover withdrawal of money can be made by cheques which mentions the name of the person to whom the bank should pay money. Money withdrawn from the bank is credited to bank account.

→ Bank Pass Book: A Bank pass book is similar to a small notebook that contains your name, account number and certain other personal information about you. This book records all deposits and withdrawals.

→ Bank Reconciliation Statement: A company’s cash balance at bank and its cash balance according to its accounting records usually do not match. This is due to the fact that, at any particular date, checks may be outstanding, deposits may be in transit to the bank, errors may have occurred etc. Therefore companies have to carry out bank reconciliation process which prepares a statement accounting for the difference between the cash balance in company’s cash account and the cash balance according to its bank statement.

→ Following are the transactions which usually appear in company’s records but not in the bank statement:

  • Deposits in Transit: Deposits which have been sent by the company to the bank but have not been received by the bank at proper time before the issuance of bank statement.
  • Checks Outstanding: Checks which have been issued by the company but were not presented or cleared before the issuance of bank statement.
  • Service Charges: Service charges may have been deducted by the bank. Such charges are usually not known to the company before the issuance of bank statement.
  • Interest Income: If any interest income has been earned by the company on its bank account, it is not usually \ entered in company’s cash account before the issuance of bank statement.
  • Dishonour of Cheques: when cheques deposited with the bank but are dishonoured then such cheque amount is debited in the company books but not given any effect in company’s cash book
  • Direct payment made by the bank: For certain payments like insurance premium, electricity bills etc. Company given instructions to bank that they be paid by the bank at their own end. Such payments are shown in cash book but company account books forgets to show such payments made
  • Cheques received but not honoured: sometimes cheques are received and their entry is made in the books of company but they are not deposited with bank which shows the difference in the statement.
  • Errors: sometimes there may be errors in making the entry either by the company employee or bank employee

→ Need for a Bank Reconciliation statement: ‘Reconciliation’ between the cash book and the bank statement final balance simply means an explanation of the differences. This identification of the difference can prevent frauds, it shows the actual position of the Bank balance, highlights the causes of difference.

→ Procedure for preparation of Bank Reconciliation Statement: Cash book is the record of cash and bank transaction prepared by the entrepreneur and the pass book is the statement of accounts prepared by the bank. There are a lot of reasons due to which the balances of cash book and pass book do not match, and then bank reconciliation statement is prepared to reconcile both the balances.

→ Step 1: Adjusting the Balance as per Bank (Pass Book)
Balance as per Bank Statement on date, 2013
Adjustments:
Add : Deposits in transit
Deduct: Outstanding checks
Add or Deduct: Bank errors
Adjusted or corrected Balance per Bank

→ Deposits in transit – are amounts already received and recorded by the company, but are not yet recorded by the bank. Because deposits in transit are already included in the company’s Cash account, there is no need to adjust the company’s records. However, deposits in transit are not yet on the bank statement. Therefore, they need to be listed on the bank reconciliation as an increase to the balance per bank in order to report the true amount of cash.

→ Outstanding cheques- are cheques that have been written and recorded in the company’s Cash account, but have not yet cleared the bank account .Because all checks that have been written are immediately recorded in the company’s Cash account, there is no need to adjust the company’s records for the outstanding checks. However, the outstanding checks have not yet reached the bank and the bank statement.

→ Therefore, outstanding checks are listed on the bank reconciliation as a decrease in the balance per bank.

→ Bank errors: are mistakes made by the bank. Bank errors could include the bank recording an incorrect amount, entering an amount that does not belong on a company’s bank statement, or omitting an amount from a company’s bank statement. The company should notify the bank of its errors. Depending on the error, the correction could increase or decrease the balance shown on the bank statement.

→ A helpful rule of thumb is “put it where it isn’t.”

→ Step 2. Adjusting the Balance per Cash Book
The second step of the bank reconciliation is to adjust the balance in the company’s Cash account so that it is the true, adjusted, or corrected balance Balance per Books on date, 2013 Adjustments
Deduct: Bank Service charges
Deduct: NSF cheques & fees
Deduct: Cheque printing charges
Add: Interest earned
Add: Notes receivable collected by bank
Add or Deduct: Errors in Company’s Cash Account

→ Adjusted or Corrected Balance per Book
Bank service charges are fees deducted from the bank statement for the bank’s processing of the checking account activity. Other types of bank service charges include the fee charged when a company overdraws its checking account and the bank fee for processing a stop payment order on a company’s cheque. The bank might deduct these charges or fees on the bank statement without notifying the company. When that occurs the company usually learns of the amounts only after receiving its bank statement.

→ An NSF cheque or bounced cheque is a cheque that was not honored by the bank of the person or company writing the cheque because that account did not have a sufficient balance. As a result, the cheque is returned without being honored or paid. (NSF is the acronym for not sufficient funds. Often the bank describes the returned cheque as a return item. Because the bounced cheque and the related bank fee have already been deducted on the bank statement, there is no need to adjust the balance as per the bank. However, if the company has not yet decreased its Cash account balance for the returned cheque and the bank fee, the company must decrease the balance in cash book in order to reconcile.

  • Add the interest earned by the company and not recorded in cash book but included in bank pass book.
  • Errors or omissions in the cash book can lead to a difference between the balance as per bank statement and the balance as per cash book
  • A helpful rule of thumb is “put it where it isn’t.”

→ Step 3. Comparing the Adjusted Balances:
After adjusting the balance per bank (Step 1) and after adjusting the balance per books (Step 2), the two adjusted amounts should be equal. If they are not equal, you must repeat the process until the balances are identical. The balances should be the true, correct amount of cash as of the date of the bank reconciliation.

→ Step 4. Preparing bank reconciliation statement when overdraft balance is given – Sometimes a businessman withdraws excess amount from the bank account and the closing bank balance of a month is a debit balance. This balance amount is called ‘overdraft balance’ as per Pass Book. This is shown in the cash book as a credit balance. Overdraft balance is to be shown in the minus column of statement as the starting point. The other steps shall remain same.

→ Step 5. Preparing Bank Reconciliation statement when extract of cash book and pass book are given – when extracts of cash book and pass book are given then while preparing the reconciliation statement firstly the heading should be given mentioning the name of the business and the period for which cash book and pass book are prepared. After this the bank reconciliation statement be prepared.

Bank Reconciliation Statement MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
For withdrawal of money from account, what is to be submitted?
a. Fixed deposit receipt
b. Fixed deposit account receipt
c. Deposit receipt
d. Receipt
Answer:
a. Fixed deposit receipt

Question 2.
Bank does not pay interest on the following account
a. Recurring deposit account
b. Fixed deposit account
c. Savings account
d. None of the above
Answer:

Question 3.
Pay in slips are NOT used for depositing money in
a. Current account
b. Saving account
c. Fixed deposit account
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Fixed deposit account

Question 4.
X deposited rupees 500 in Bank account
a. Bank account will be credited
b. Bank account will be debited
c. Saving account will be debited
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Bank account will be debited

Question 5.
The purpose of preparing a Bank Reconciliation Statement is to:
a. Ascertain that the difference between the Cash book balance and the Bank Statement balance has been accounted for
b. Correct errors in the Cash book or errors in the Bank statement
c. Amend the balance of the Bank Statement of the firm
d. Amend the balance in the Cash book of the firm
Answer:
c. Amend the balance of the Bank Statement of the firm

Question 6.
For keeping the bank pass book up to date the responsibility is passed on to
a. Bank
b. Client
c. Creditor
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Client

Question 7.
It is not true for bank reconciliation statement
a. That the bank balance as per cash book and pass book able some
b. Prepared on a particular date .
c. A single transaction is recorded both in bank pass book as well as bank cash book.
d. The transaction in the cash book one recorded as per client new point.
Answer:
a. That the bank balance as per cash book and pass book able some

Question 8.
Bank reconciliation sometimes points to the need for adjusting entries. Invariably how should it be done?
a. The reconciliation of the ending balance per the bank statement to the adjusted cash balance.
b. The reconciliation of the cash balance per the company records to the adjusted cash balance.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. The reconciliation of the ending balance per the bank statement to the adjusted cash balance.

Question 9.
At the happening of below mentioned event what will happen. A cheque is deposited with bank
a. Bank pass book will be credited
b. Bank pass book will be debited
c. Bank’s column in cash book is debited
d. Bank’s column in cash book is credited
Answer:
c. Bank’s column in cash book is debited

Question 10.
Collection charges and incidental charges are first reflected in
a. Pass book
b. Cash book
c. Bank statement
d. None o the above
Answer:
a. Pass book

Question 11.
The proper treatment of unrecorded deposits (deposits in transit) on a bank reconciliation is to show them as an
a. addition per book balance of cash
b. deduction per book balance of cash
c. addition per bank statement balance
d. deduction per bank statement balance
Answer:
c. addition per bank statement balance

Question 12.
Some of the transaction that is dependent on bank statement are
a. Collection charges
b. Dividends received
c. Rent received
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 13.
Bank reconciliation statement points out
a. Credibility of the balance shown in pass book.
b. Savings account
c. Fixed deposit account
d. Recurring deposit account.
Answer:
a. Credibility of the balance shown in pass book.

Question 14.
Bank reconciliation statement is prepared on
a. Yearly basis from Jan to December
b. Certain period basis
c. As on particular date
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 15.
Base of reconciliation statement is
a. Balance shown in cash book
b. Balance shown in pass book
c. Either a or b
d. Nor a nor b
Answer:
c. Either a or b

Question 16.
An enterprise take cash book balance as the base for preparation of bank reconciliation statement. Some of the bank charges have been put. These charges will be
a. Added in cash book
b. Deducted in cash book
c. Nothing is to be done for this entry
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Deducted in cash book

Question 17.
In case of on enterprise having an overdraft facility the bank reconciliation statement treats all the cheques deposited but not cleared in the cash book to be
a. Added
b. Deducted
c. To be revealed only in pass book
d. To be revealed only in cash book
Answer:
a. Added

Question 18.
Overdraft balance as per cash book will be
a. Shown in minus column of bank reconciliation statement
b. Shown in ‘plus’ column of bank reconciliation statement
c. Will be carried forward for next period
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Shown in ‘plus’ column of bank reconciliation statement

Question 19.
Banks objective is to
a. Collect money on behalf of client
b. Give loans to client
c. Accept deposits of clients
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 20.
The proper treatment of outstanding cheques on a bank reconciliation is to show them as a
a. addition per book balance of cash
b. deduction per book balance of cash
c. addition per bank statement balance
d. deduction per bank statement balance
Answer:
d. deduction per bank statement balance

Question 21.
Favourable balance of cash book implies the
a. Credit balance of cash book
b. Debit balance of cash book
c. Bank overdraft
d. Adjusted balance of cash book
Answer:
b. Debit balance of cash book

Question 22.
A check returned by bank marked “NSF” means that
a. Bank can’t verify your identify
b. There are not sufficient funds in your account
c. Check has been forged.
d. Check can’t be cashed being illegal
Answer:
b. There are not sufficient funds in your account

Question 23.
In the Bank reconciliation statement “Deposit in transit” is usually
a. Subtracted from bank balance
b. Added to bank balance
c. Added to cash book balance
d. Subtracted from cash book balance
Answer:
b. Added to bank balance

Question 24.
Bank reconciliation statement is prepared by
a. Accountant of the business
b. Manager of the business
c. Controller of the bank
d. Accountant of the bank
Answer:
a. Accountant of the business

Question 25.
Which of the following error results in unadjusted cash book balance?
a. Outstanding cheques
b. Unpresented cheques
c. Deposit in transit
d. Omission of Bank charges
Answer:
d. Omission of Bank charges

Question 26.
Bank charges amounting to Rs 5000 was not entered in the cash book. Identify the correct adjustment in accounts
a. Bank charges will be debited in cash book.
b. Bank charges will be added to cash book balance
c. Bank charges will be credited in cash book
d. Bank charges need no adjustment in cash book
Answer:
c. Bank charges will be credited in cash book

Question 27.
Unpresented cheques are also referred as
a. Uncollected cheques
b. Uncredited cheques
c. Outstanding cheques
d. Bounced cheques
Answer:
c. Outstanding cheques

Question 28.
_____________ are cheques that are issued by the business but not yet presented to bank
a. Uncollected cheques
b. Uncredited cheques
c. Outstanding cheques
d. Bounced cheques
Answer:
c. Outstanding cheques

Question 29.
A record of transaction between the bank and the holder _____________ of is bank statement
a. A foreign currency account
b. A current account
c. A saving account
d. All of the given options
Answer:
d. All of the given options

Question 30.
What is true about a reconciliation Statement? It is a statement:-
a. Sent by the bank when we have made and error
b. Sent by the bank when we the account is overdrawn
c. Drawn up by the bank to verify the cash book
d. Drawn up by us to verify our cash book balance with the bank statement balance
Answer:
d. Drawn up by us to verify our cash book balance with the bank statement balance

Question 31.
Which is the statement that is uncommon for a Bank Reconciliation Statement?
a. Part of the double entry system
b. Not part of the double entry system
c. Sent by the firm to the bank
d. Posted to the ledger accounts.
A (i), (iii) and (iv)
B (i), and (ii)
C (i), (ii) and (iv)
D (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
c. Sent by the firm to the bank

Question 32.
The recording of financial transactions and events manually or electronically is called
a. Bookkeeping
b. Information technology
c. Reporting
d. Auditing
Answer:
d. Auditing

Question 33.
The cash account on the balance sheet should not include which of the following, items:
a. Travel advances to employees
b. Currency
c. Money orders
d. Deposits in transit
Answer:
a. Travel advances to employees

Question 34.
How would deposits in transit be handled when reconciling the ending cash balance as per the bank statement to the correct adjusted cash balance?
a. Added to be balance per the bank statement.
b. Subtracted from the balance per the bank statement
c. Added to the balance per company records.
d. Ignored.
Answer:
b. Subtracted from the balance per the bank statement

Question 35.
A cash deposit made by business appears on the bank statement as ____________ balance
a. Debit
b. Credit
c. Expense
d. Liability
Answer:
b. Credit

Question 36.
The trading securities owned by a company are:
a. Reported on the balance sheet as a current asset.
b. Reported on the balance sheet as a noncurrent asset.
c. Reported on the balance sheet as a contraequity asset.
d. Reported on the balance sheet as a reduction of liabilities.
Answer:
a. Reported on the balance sheet as a current asset.

Question 37.
When a person who is maintaining accounts is not able to differentiate between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure it is
a. Errors of Principle
b. Errors of ommission
c. Errors of commission
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Errors of Principle

Question 38.
Adjusted profit and loss are used in
a. Budgetary control technique
b. Information technique
c. Financial accounts preparation technique
d. For bounced cheques
Answer:
a. Budgetary control technique

Question 39.
An account used for carrying temporarily doubtful receipts or disbursements and discrepancies is
a. Suspense account
b. Debit balance
c. Bank overdraft
d. Adjustment account
Answer:
a. Suspense account

Question 40.
Standing orders are
a. Credited in the cash book
b. Debited in the cash book
c. Entered in the bank statement
d. Entered in the petty cash balance
Answer:
a. Credited in the cash book

Question 41.
A company was entered in hire purchase agreement and had to pay Rs1000 per month. Three payment we accounted but no entry was found in cash book. Indentify the correct adjustment in cash book.
a. Rs 1000 will be added to cash book balance
b. Rs2000 will be deducted from cash book balance
c. Rs3000 will be added to cash book balance
d. Rs3000 will be subtracted from cash book balance.
Answer:
a. Rs 1000 will be added to cash book balance

Question 42.
Bank sent debit advice of Rs500 to company on overdraft. It wasn’t entered in cash book. What will be the adjustment in cash book.
a. Rs 500 will be debited
b. Rs 500 will be credited
c. Non-adjustable
d. Rs 1000 will be subtracted
Answer:
b. Rs 500 will be credited

Question 43.
In bank reconciliation statement the account of outstanding checks is added to ______________ balance of cash
a. Book adjusted
b. Unadjusted
c. Understand
d. Overstated
Answer:
a. Book adjusted

Question 44.
Balance as per cash book (adjusted) = Rs 1000, unpresented checks = Rs. 2000, uncredited checks = Rs. 500, compute the balance as per bank statement
a. Rs 2000
b. Zero
c. Rs 3000
d. Rs 2500
Answer:
a. Rs 2000

Question 45.
A discount of Rs2000 was given to a supplier on his prompt repayment of debt but the cashier did not enter in the cash book. What should be the adjustment in cash to work out the correct balance of cash book?
a. Rs2000 will be debited in cash book
b. Rs 2000 will be credited in cash book
c. Rs 4000 will be debited in cash book
d. Rs4000 will be credited in the cash book
Answer:
b. Rs 2000 will be credited in cash book

Question 46.
If a cheque written by a firm is not canceled by the bank and returned with the month’s bank statement, the firm should
a. adjust the balance in the firm’s checkbook to reflect the data that appears in the bank’s records.
b. immediately notify the bank requesting that it correct its records.
c. consider this check as outstanding when preparing the bank reconciliation.
d. Consider this check to be lost and issue a replacement check.
Answer:
c. consider this check as outstanding when preparing the bank reconciliation.

Question 47.
Bank reconciliation statement is the comparison of the bank statement with
a. Cash receipt Journal
b. Cash payment Journal
c. Cash book
d. Financial statements
Answer:
c. Cash book

Question 48.
The proper treatment on the bank reconciliation of a debit memorandum issued by the bank is to show it as an
a. addition per book balance of cash
b. deduction per book balance of cash
c. addition per bank statement balance
d. deduction per bank statement balance
Answer:
b. deduction per book balance of cash

Question 49.
The proper treatment on the bank reconciliation of a note collected by the bank for the depositor is to show it as an
a. addition per book balance of cash
b. deduction per book balance of cash
c. addition per bank statement balance
d. deduction per bank statement balance
Answer:
a. addition per book balance of cash

Question 50.
The proper treatment on the bank reconciliation of an NSF cheque of a customer that is returned with the bank statement is to show it as a(an)
a. addition per book balance of cash
b. deduction per book balance of cash
c. addition per bank statement balance
d. deduction per bank statement balance
Answer:
b. deduction per book balance of cash

Question 51.
If the bookkeeper recorded a bank deposit of Rupees 450, but the bank recorded the deposit at its correct amount of Rupees 540. The bank reconciliation will require a/an
a. addition per book balance of cash
b. deduction per book balance of cash
c. addition per bank statement balance
d. deduction per bank statement balance
Answer:
a. addition per book balance of cash

Question 52.
The bookkeeper recorded a cheque at Rupees 340.56 for store supplies. The cheque was recorded by the bank at its correct amount of Rupees 430.65. The bank reconciliation will require a/an
a. addition per book balance of cash
b. deduction per book balance of cash
c. addition per bank statement balance
d. deduction per bank statement balance
Answer:
b. deduction per book balance of cash

Question 53.
Who prepares Bank Reconciliation Statement?
a. Bank employee
b. Customer of bank or his representative or his accountant
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. Customer of bank or his representative or his accountant

Hint:
Companies do bank reconciliation process which prepares a statement accounting for the difference between the cash balance in company’s cash account and the cash balance according to its bank statement.

Question 54.
For the purpose of bank reconciliation statement, only the Rs. column of the cash book is to be considered.
a. Cash
b. Bank
c. Cash and Bank
d. Discount
Answer:
b. Bank

Hint:
‘Reconciliation’ between the cash book and the bank statement is the purpose of Bank reconciliation.

Question 55.
Bank balance as per” cash book of ABC Enterprises as on 31 st March, 2013 is f 1,500. Cheques deposited with bank but not cleared amount to f 100 and cheques issued but not presented for payment amount to f 150. The bank allowed interest amounting to Rs.50 and collected dividend Rs.50 on behalf of ABC Enterprises. Balance as per pass book should be:
a. Rs. 1,600
b. Rs. 1,850
c. Rs. 1,450
d. Rs. 1,650.
Answer:
d. Rs. 1,650.

Hint:
Bank Reconciliation Statement – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1

Question 56.
Which of the following is true about bank reconciliation statement
a. Bank reconciliation statement need not to be prepared where the balance of cash book and pass book matches
b. Bank reconciliation statement is to be prepared necessarily as per the Income tax Act, 1961
c. Bank reconciliation statement is prepared on yearly basis
d. Bank reconciliation statement is to be prepared and supplied by bank
Answer:
a. Bank reconciliation statement need not to be prepared where the balance of cash book and pass book matches

Hint:
‘Reconciliation’ between the cash book and the bank statement final balance simply means an explanation of the differences. If there is no difference that there is no need fo the preparation of reconciliation statement.

Question 57.
Cash book shows Dr. balance Rs. 10,000, cheque issued Rs. 4,000 and cheques presented Rs. 3,000. calculate the balance as per pass book.
a. 13,000
b. 7,ooo
c. 6,000
d. 10,000
Answer:
b. 7,ooo

Hint:
Bank Reconciliation Statement – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 2

Question 58.
If the cheque is not .presented for the payment upto the date of the preparation of the Bank Reconciliation Statement then the balance as per pass book will be:
a. Higher than the balance shown by the cash book by the amount of unpresented cheque.
b. Same as shown by the cash book
c. Twice the balance shown by the cash book
d. Lower than the balance shown by the cash book by the amount of unpresented cheque
Answer:
a. Higher than the balance shown by the cash book by the amount of unpresented cheque.

Hint:
Checks Outstanding: Checks which have been issued by the company but were not presented or cleared before the issuance of bank statement.

In such case the difference in the bank statement and the balance shown in the pass book is more than the balance shown by the Cash book because entry in the cash book is made the time cheque is issued by the company but since the cheque has not been presented bank statement doesn’t reflect it.

Question 59.
The pass book shows and overdraft of Rs. 2,000. It was discovered that cheques of Rs. 200, Rs. 40 and Rs. 37 respectively has not been presented for payments and a cheque of Rs. 100 paid into account had not been cleared. The balance as per the cash book will be:
a. Rs. 2,177 (Cr.)
b. Rs. 1,977 (Cr.)
c. ‘ Rs. 1,977 (Dr.)
d. Rs. 2,177 (Dr.)
Answer:
d. Rs. 2,177 (Dr.)

hint:
Bank Reconciliation Statement – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 3

Question 60.
Bank Balance as per cash book of ABC Enterprises as on 31 SI March, 2013 is Rs. 1, SOJ cheques deposited with bank but not cleared amount to Rs. 100 and cheques issued but not presented for payment amount to Rs. 150. The bonk allowed interest amounting Rs. 50 and collected dividend Rs. 50 on behalf Gf ABC Enterprises, Balance as per pass book should be:
a. Rs. 1,600
b. Rs. 1,850
c. Rs. 1,450
d. Rs. 1,650.
Answer:
d. Rs. 1,650.

Hint:
Bank Reconciliation Statement – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 4

Question 61.
A credit balance in the bank statement indicates:
a. Cash at bank
b. Cash in hand
c. Bank overdraft
d. Overpayment to creditors.
Answer:
a. Cash at bank

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Scales of Business – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Scales of Business – CS Foundation Business Environment Notes

Introduction:
1. Scale of business refers to size of the business.

2. “Enterprise means an industrial undertaking or a business concern or any other establishment by whatever name called, engaged in the manufacturing or production of goods, in any manner, pertaining to any industry specified in the 1st schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 or engaged in providing or rendering of any service or services.”

3. Enterprises can be classified into following forms on basis of size of Industry, choice of the business activity; etc.

Micro Enterprises :

  • It is an enterprise engaged in the manufacturing or production of goods pertaining to any industries specified in the 1st schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 where the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed 25 lakh rupees.
  • In case of enterprises engaged in providing or rendering of services, it is micro where investment in equipment does not exceeds 10 lakh rupees.
  • It is the most frequent form of business in developing countries.
  • It requires small amount of capital for its formation.
  • It is simple to operate.
  • It makes use of local product and skills.
  • It helps in creating jobs as it is labour intensive.
  • It uses micro loans or micro credit for its finance.
  • Owners of micro enterprises are known as entrepreneurs.
  • It is a catalyst for comprehensive community development.

It provides following advantages to the country’s economy :

  • Creates Jobs
  • Enhances income
  • Strengthens the purchasing power
  • Lower cost
  • Adds business convenience
  • Show most promise for sustainable development.

Small Scale Enterprises/Small Scale Industries (SSI)

  • Initially they were classified into those using power with less than 50 employees and those not using power with the employee strength being more than 50 but less than 100.
  • Plays a vital role in generating employment and increasing commercial activities.
  • These are organised on small scale, producing goods with the help of small machines, hired labour and power.
  • It is an enterprise engaged in the manufacture or production of goods pertaining to any industry specified in the 1st schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951, where the investment in plant and machinery is more than 25 lakh rupees but does not exceed 5 crore rupees.
  • In case of the enterprises engaged in providing or rendering of services. It is a small enterprise, where the investment in equipment is more than 10 lakh rupees but does not exceed 2 crore rupees.

They are of two types:

  • Traditional Small Industries
  • Modern Small Industries

Capital source investment on plant and machinery to differentiate from small scale and large scale or medium scale.

Traditional Small Industries:

  1. Highly labour intensive
  2. Cannot provide full time employment to workers
  3. Provides part-time employment to agricultural labour and artisans
  4. Example – Khadi, handloom, handicrafts, village industries etc.
  5. In 1979-80, it provided 56% of total employment and 74% of output.
  6. Handicrafts possess highest labour productivity. It also makes a significant contribution towards foreign exchange earning.

Modern Small Industries:

  1. It makes use of highly sophisticated machinery and equipment.
  2. Example – industries producing rubber products, chemical products, – hardware, electrical items etc.
  3. In 1979 – 80, it provided only 33% of total employment.

It plays following role in Indian economy:
(i) Production: It helps in growth of country’s economy. It contributes almost 40% of the gross industrial value added in the economy.

(ii) Employment generation: After agriculture, it creates the largest employment opportunities for the Indian people.

(iii) Export: It plays a major role in Indian exports. It contributes 45%- 50% to Indian exports. Directly it accounts for nearly 35% of total exports and indirectly around 15%.

(iv) Opportunity: It provides enormous opportunities due to following reasons :

  • Less capital intensive
  • Government support and promotion
  • Manpower training
  • Export promotion
  • Machinery procurement
  • Raw Material procurement
  • Growth in demand in the domestic market
  • Funding & Financing and subsidies
  • Reservation for exclusive manufacturers by S.S.I
  • Tooling & testing support

(v) Increasing export potential for domestic products: It has played a major role in increasing the export potential of various Indian products.

(vi) Welfare: It improves the welfare position of people in following ways:

  • It can be started by people of lower income group
  • Increases the people’s income level and standard of living
  • Reduces poverty
  • Promotes equal income distribution
  • Large proportion of income generated by these enterprises is distributed among workers

Large Scale Enterprises:

  • It means those industries which require huge infrastructure, manpower and have influx of capital assets.
  • It refers to industries with a fixed asset of more than 10 crore or 100 million rupees.
  • Due to the IT Boom IT companies are also included in large scale industry.
  • It uses both indigenous and imported technologies.
  • They cater both the local and foreign markets.
  • Example : iron and steel industry, textile industry, telecom industry, natural gas, mining, IT company etc.

Public Enterprises:

  • it refers to business organisation owned, managed and controlled by local, central or state government. Whole or most of the investment is made by government itself.
  • “Public enterprises are autonomous or semi autonomous corporations and companies established, owned and controlled by the state and engaged in industrial and commercial undertakings.”
  • It is not only managed by government it’s also controlled by them.
  • It is also known as Public Sector Enterprises.
  • Example : HMT – Hindustan Machine Tools GAIL – Gas Authority of India, etc.

These were required due to following reasons :

  • Private sector do not take interests in areas where –
  • gestation period is long
  • heavy investment is required
  • profit margin is low
  • Private sector prefer to set up their business in areas having certain natural advantages, thus leading to regional imbalances.

They possess the following characteristics:

  • Government control: They are owned, controlled, managed and financed by State or Central government.
  • Useful to various sectors: It serves people of ail sections of the community.
  • Autonomous or semi – autonomous organisation: They may either be under the direct control of government or established under any statute or act.
  • Providing service: It provides the people with essential commodities at most reasonable prices.
  • Monopoly enterprises: It does not involve private participation, thus enjoy monopoly in its operations.
  • Public accountability: They are liable to general public for their activities.
  • Direct channel for use of foreign money.
  • Agent for implementing government plans.
  • Financial independence.

Following forms are prevalent in India for public enterprises:
(i) Departmental Undertaking: These are directly managed by different government departments. It is established for providing essential public utility services.
Example : Posts and Telegraph, Railways etc.

(ii) Government Company: These are companies registered as joint stock under Indian Companies Act, 2013. It refers to company in which 51% or companies under more of paid -up capital is held by Central or State Government.
Example : Hindustan Machine Tools Ltd (HMT), Bharat Electronics Ltd. etc.

(iii) Statutory/Public Corporation: These organisations are established under special act passed by Parliament or State Legislature.
Example : Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), Union Trust of India (UTI).etc.
a. In 1947, there were 3 departmental enterprises :

  • Railways
  • Post and telegraphs
  • Defense production

b. Foundation of strong public enterprises in Indian economy was laid by our first Prime Minister Jawahar Lai Nehru. Other renowned personalities associated with this are :

  • Josip Broz Tito
  • Abdel Gamal Nasser

c. Presently number fo PSU’s have increased to 300 enterprises with a total investment of about 130 billion euros.

d. PSU’s account for nearly 20% of India’s gross national product (GNP). PSE’s contribute nearly 4% of total national savings.

e. Presently, PSE’s employs 1.9 million persons as compared to private sector which employs about 0.9 million persons only.

f. It provides a low rate of return on capital invested.

g. Government’s industrial policy was announced on 24th July, 1991. Following central PSEs were identified by Government as ‘Navratnas’ in July, 1997 :

  • BHEL – Bharat Heavy Electronics Limited
  • BPCL – Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
  • GAIL – Gas Authority of India Limited
  • SAIL – Steel Authority of India Limited
  • MTNL – Mahanagar Telecom Nigam Limited
  • ONGC – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation .
  • HPCL – Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
  • IOC – Indian Oil Corporation
  • NTPC – National Thermal Power Corporation

h. In October, 1997 some other PSE’s were included in Navratnas, thus giving them as ‘Miniratnas’

i. BIFR : Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction is set up by government for the revival of sick and loss making enterprise.

j. In 2010, the government established the higher Maharatna category, which raises a company’s investment ceiling from ₹ 1,000 crore to ₹ 5,000 crore. The Maharatna firms can now decided on investments of up to 15 per cent of their net worth in a project while the Navaratna companies could invest up to ₹ 1,000 crore without explicit government approval. Two categories of “Miniratnas” afford less extensive financial autonomy.

Guidelines for awarding ratna status are as follow:

Maharatna Navaratna Miniratna Category-1 Miniratna Category-ll
Eligibility

 

Three years with an average annual net profit of over ₹ 5,000 crore,
or
Average annual Net worth of ₹ 15,000 crore for 3 years. or Average annual Turnover of ₹ 25,000 crore for 3 years ₹ 1,000 crore ₹ 5,000 crore,
or
free to decide on investments up to 5% of their net worth in a project
A score of 60 (out of 100), based on six parameters which include net profit, net worth, total manpower cost, total cost of production, cost of services, PBDIT (Profit Before Depreciation, Interest and Taxes), capital employed, etc., and A company must first be a Miniratna and have 4 independent directors on its board before it can be made a Navaratna. Have made profits continuously for the last three years or earned a net profit of ₹ 30 crore or more in one of the three years. Have made profits continuously for the last three years and should have a positive net worth.
Benefits for investment ₹ 1,000 crore ₹ 5,000 crore, or free to decide on investments up to 5% of their net worth in a project up to ₹ 1,000 crore or 15% of their net worth on a single project or 30% of their net worth in the whole year (not exceeding ₹ 1,000 crore). up to ₹ 500 crore or equal to their net worth, whichever is lower. up to ₹ 300 crore or up to 50% of their net worth, whichever is lower.

As on October, 2019 there are 10 Maharatnas, 14 Navaratas and Miniratnas in category 1 category 2

Note : From 1st December 2016 by an official notification, Government of India dissolved it and all proceeding to be referred to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) as per provisions of insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.

Performance of Industry : 12th five year plan (2012-17) following schemes are:

  • National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRIP).
  • Restructuring of PSEs under DHL
  • Jagdishpur; UP Paper Mill Project of Hindustan Paper Corporation Lmt. (H.P.C.)
  • Scheme for enhancement of competitiveness in Capital Goods Industry.
  • Schemes for North Eastern Region (HPC; NPPC; CCI & AXCL).

Multinational Corporation (MNC’s/Multinational Enterprise (MNE)

  • It refers to a corporation/enterprise which manages its production / delivers services in more than one country.
  • “MNC is a corporation that has its management headquarters in one country called home countries, and operates in several other countries, called host countries.”
  • These are large sized enterprises.
  • There world wide activities are centrally controlled by its parent company.
  • Example: MC Donalds, Honda, Toyota etc.
  • U.S.A. among the biggest MNCs country.

MNC’s can functions in three ways:

  • Headquarters is located in one nation while production facilities are located in one or more countries.
  • Parent company is situated in one nation while other operating subsidiaries in other countries
  • Headquarters is located in one country which looks after the wide conglomeration which stretch to several countries.

Reasons for growth of MNC’s can be as follows

  • Avoid trade barriers.
  • Low labour costs.
  • Reduce transport and distribution costs.
  • Securing supplies of raw material.

Following are the reasons why company extend into different country:

  • Reduce the transportation/distribution cost
  • Avoid custom duty/licensing
  • Meet different rules and regulation
  • Cost advantage- for example law labour cost
  • Secures supplies of raw material in market
  • Economic growth and Employment

Economy of any country receives following advantages from MNC:

  • Provides employment to people of host countries, thereby enabling economic growth.
    Generates new ideas and new technology which helps in improving the production quality, thereby improving the quality of human capital.
  • Provides the host country with availability of high quality goods and services at reasonable prices.
  • It contributes large amount to the government treasury of host country in form of huge taxes.
  • It invests in the infrastructure of host countries.

Advantages of MNC’s:

To Host Countries To Home Countries
  1. Raising the Investment Rate
  2. Accelerates Economic Growth
  3. Increases Exports and Reduces Imports
  4. Efficient Resource Utilisation.
  5. Support to enterprises of host countries
  6. Facilitates transfer of technology.
  7. Provides services of skilled professionals
  8. Benefits of Research & Development
  9. Increasing competition thus finishing monopolies
  1. Increased foreign exchange inflow
  2. International co-operation
  3. Promotion of Bilateral Trade Relations
  4. Optimum Resource Utilisatior

Disadvantages of MNC’s:

  • Provides costly, outdated and obsolete technologies
  • Charges heavy fees for their services.
  • Reckless utilisation of resources, leading to extinction of non – renewable resources.
  • Creates monopolies by acquiring control over markets of host countries.
  • Adverse effects on life style/culture of people.
  • They may avoid taxes by the way of transfer pricing.
  • Profit maximization being their main objective, harms the national interest of host country.
  • Interference in the economic and political systems of economy.
  • Causes brain drain in the developing countries
  • Develop monopolies which effect local market.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Micro enterprises are the enterprises providing services, and where the investment in equipment exceeds 10 lakh rupees.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
Answer:
(b) False

Question 2.
Scale of business involves determination of:
(a) Capital Requirement
(b) Business size
(c) Business production
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
Micro enterprises are:
(a) Labor intensive
(b) Capital intensive
(c) Machine intensive
(d) Both (b) and (C)
Answer:
(a) Labor intensive

Question 4.
Traditional small industries provide:
(a) Full time employment
(b) Part time employment
(c) No employment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Part time employment

Question 5.
Handloom is an example of:
(a) Small scale enterprise
(b) Modern small scale enterprise
(c) Micro enterprise
(d) Traditional small scale enterprise
Answer:
(d) Traditional small scale enterprise

Question 6.
The agreement entered into by two countries in order to facilitate trade and removing restrictions is called _______.
(a) Liberal agreement
(b) Mutual agreement
(c) Co-operative agreement
(d) Bateral agreement
Answer:
(d) Bateral agreement

Question 7.
For the goods having artistic features _______ enterprise is preferred.
(a) Large scale
(b) Small stale
(c) Micro
(d) Very large scale
Answer:
(b) Small stale

Question 8.
Large scale business provides _______ economies.
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Both internal and external
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both internal and external

Question 9.
“Public corporations are autonomous or semi- autonomous corporations and companies established, owned and controlled by the state and engaged in industrial and commercial undertaking.”
This definition is given by:
(a) N.N. Malaya
(b) A.H. Hansom
(c) O.L. Rehan
(d) LV. Starke
Answer:
(a) N.N. Malaya

Question 10.
Public accountability and Government control are features of which type of enterprise:
(a) Micro
(b) MNC
(c) Large scale
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a type of public sector enterprise?
(a) Departmental undertaking
(b) Statutory corporation
(c) Subsidiary of public enterprise
(d) Government company
Answer:
(c) Subsidiary of public enterprise

Question 12.
The advantages of MNC’s to the Home country include.
(a) Inflow of foreign exchange
(b) Promoting bilateral trade relations
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
Foundation of public enterprises in India was laid down by:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Jawaha, Lai Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) S. Radha Krishnan
Answer:
(b) Jawaha, Lai Nehru

Question 14.
PSLI’s account for _______ of India’s GNP.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(b) 20%

Question 15.
Government’s Industrial Policy was announced on _______.
(a) 24th July, 1990
(b) 24th July, 1997
(c) 24th July, 1991
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 24th July, 1991

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a ‘Navratna’?
(a) GAIL
(b) NTPC
(c) LIC
(d) BHEL
Answer:
(c) LIC

Question 17.
BIFR Means:
(a) Board for Indian financial Reserves
(b) Board for Industrial and Financial Resources
(c) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
(d) Board for International Fund Reserves
Answer:
(c) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction

Question 18.
Following is/are the main characteristics of MNC’s :
(a) Large size
(b) World wide activities centrally controlled by parent Company.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 19.
Which of the following is not a reason for MNC’s growth :
(a) Avoid trade barriers
(b) Increased labour cost
(c) Reduced transport cost
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Increased labour cost

Question 20.
Advantages of MNC’s include:
(a) Employment Generation
(b) Economic Growth
(c) Efficient Resource Utilisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 21.
Basis for classification of Industries are _______.
(a) Size of Industry
(b) Nature of Business
(c) Choice of Business
(d) Both (a) & (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (b).

Question 22.
Population engaged in Micro enterprises produces non-monetary wealth for ________.
(a) Advertising
(b) Serving society
(c) Self consumption
(d) Sale.
Answer:
(c) Self consumption

Question 23.
Source of finance for Micro sector are-
(a) Micro loan
(b) Financial institution
(c) Formal source
(d) Informal source.
Answer:
(a) Micro loan

Question 24.
Capital requirement for Micro Enterprise should be (Service Producing) ________.
(a) Equipment not exceeding 10 lakh.
(b) Equipment not exceeding 12 lakh.
(c) Equipment not exceeding 25 lakh.
(d) Equipment not exceeding 01 lakh.
Answer:
(a) Equipment not exceeding 10 lakh.

Question 25.
Micro enterprise are intensive therefore create _______.
(a) Capital, profit
(b) Labour, job
(c) Technological, capital
(d) Capital, job.
Answer:
(b) Labour, job

Question 26.
Initially, Small scale Industry were classified on basis of ________.
(a) Number of employees
(b) Amount of capital
(c) Profit generating ability
(d) Power of production.
Answer:
(a) Number of employees

Question 27.
Small Scale Industries are classified into ________.
(a) Traditional, Modern
(b) Traditional, Ancient
(c) Modern, Ancient
(d) None of above:
Answer:
(a) Traditional, Modern

Question 28.
S.S.I contributes ________ of the gross industrial value added in the Indian economy.
(a) 80%
(b) 20%
(c) 90%
(d) 40%.
Answer:
(d) 40%.

Question 29.
Which of these is not an opportunity for SSI ________.
(a) Less Capital Requirement
(b) Finance & Subsidies
(c) Export Promotion
(d) State Control.
Answer:
(d) State Control.

Question 30.
Increasing export potential for Indian products enabled our country to achieve _______.
(a) Fashion Technology
(b) Information Technology
(c) Design Technology
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 31.
Which of the following is not the role of SSI in Indian Economy
(a) Employment Generation
(b) Export Barrier
(c) Tooling & Testing Support
(d) Improved Welfare Position.
Answer:
(c) Tooling & Testing Support

Question 32.
Large Scale Industry comprises of ________.
(a) Sophisticated Products
(b) Engineering Product
(c) Iron & Steel Industry
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Iron & Steel Industry

Question 33.
The public sector enterprises are owned by ________.
(a) Government
(b) Individual
(c) Society
(d) Public.
Answer:
(a) Government

Question 34.
Most of the investment done in PSE are by ________.
(a) Individual
(b) Private Body
(c) Government
(d) Non-Profit-organisation.
Answer:
(c) Government

Question 35.
The enterprises which are under monopoly of state enterprises are ________.
(a) Railway
(b) Post & telegraph
(c) Energy Production
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(d) All of above.

Question 36.
Characteristic of public enterprise to be responsible for nation denotes ________.
(a) Public Accountability
(b) Government Accountability
(c) Owner Accountability
(d) Ethics Accountability.
Answer:
(a) Public Accountability

Question 37.
Arranging day to day finance is the characteristic of ________.
(a) Private enterprise
(b) Public enterprise
(c) MNC
(d) Small scale industries.
Answer:
(b) Public enterprise

Question 38.
Statutory corporation is not created by Act of Government ________.
(a) False
(b) Partly True
(c) True
(d) Both
Answer:
(a) False

Question 39.
Government company refer to the company in which 51 % of ________ is held by the Government?
(a) Control
(b) Paid up capital
(c) Called up capital
(d) Unpaid capital
Answer:
(b) Paid up capital

Question 40.
Departmental enterprises comprises of ________.
(a) Railway, Telegraph, Defence
(b) Telecom, Railway, Defence
(c) Transport, Railway, Defence
(d) Network, Transport, Railway.
Answer:
(a) Railway, Telegraph, Defence

Question 41.
Person responsible for the collection of taxes on behalf of the Government are ________.
(a) Cashier
(b) Exchequer
(c) Manager
(d) Controller.
Answer:
(b) Exchequer

Question 42.
Which of them is a Navrafna’s of Government?
(a) IOD
(b) LOC
(c) IOC
(d) BOC
Answer:
(c) IOC

Question 43.
Which of them is not among the Navratna’s?
(a) HMT&LIC
(b) BHEL&GAIL
(c) MTNL&BPCC
(d) SAIL & ONGC.
Answer:
(a) HMT&LIC

Question 44.
LDC, stand for ________.
(a) Local development country .
(b) Less developments company
(c) Lack of developed company
(d) Less developed country.
Answer:
(d) Less developed country.

Question 45.
Which of them is not a merit of MNCs ________.
(a) Optimum utilization of resources
(b) Charge heavy fees
(c) Break monopolies
(d) Transfer of technologies.
Answer:
(b) Charge heavy fees

Question 46.
MNCs have their head quarters in more than ________ country/countries
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 47.
An enterprise engaged in production is a micro enterprise if the investment in Plant & Machinery does not exceed _______.
(a) 25 lakhs
(b) 1 Crore
(c) 50 lakhs
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) 25 lakhs

Question 48.
In India, a large scale enterprise refers to an enterprise in which investment in fixed assets is more than _______.
(a) 100 million
(b) 500 million
(c) 250 million
(d) 1000 million
Answer:
(a) 100 million

Question 49.
How many PSU’s are currently operating in India?
(a) 247
(b) 300
(c) 259
(d) 350
Answer:
(b) 300

Question 50.
How many companies in India are included in Miniratnas?
(a) 73
(b) 60
(c) 100
(d) 110
Answer:
(a) 73

Question 51.
Which of the following is not an advantage of MNC’s ________.
(a) It helps in generating tax revenues for the host
(b) It helps in generating employment opportunities
(c) Providing high quality goods
(d) Helps in development of backward areas
Answer:
(d) Helps in development of backward areas

Question 52.
BHEL, HPCL, NTPC, ONGC, SAIL are the examples of ________.
(a) Navratnas
(b) Miniratnas
(c) Swarnratnas
(d) Kohinoors
Answer:
(a) Navratnas

Question 53.
The contribution of PSU’s in the total national savings is ________.
(a) 4%
(b) 6%
(c) 1%
(d) 5%
Answer:
(a) 4%

Question 54.
The number of people currently employed in PSU’s in India are around _______.
(a) 1.9 million
(b) 3 million
(c) 4.8 million
(d) 5 million
Answer:
(a) 1.9 million

Question 55.
Which of the following statements is not true in respect of PSU’s?
(a) It has played a significant role in the Indian Economy
(b) The rate of return is high
(c) The total saving rate in PSU’s is nearly 35%
(d) The overall performance of most of the PSU’s is not satisfactory
Answer:
(b) The rate of return is high

Question 56.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) The traditional small scale industries are labour intensive
(b) Modern small scale industries use highly sophisticated machinery and equipments
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 57.
A corporate body created by Parliament or state legislature by a special Act defining its powers i.e. functions etc. is called ________.
(a) Departmental undertaking
(b) Government company
(c) Statutory corporation
(d) Public company
Answer:
(c) Statutory corporation

Question 58.
An organisation established for providing essential services like railway, postal services, broadcasting etc. is called _______.
(a) Statutory Corporation
(b) Departmental undertaking
(c) Public Company
(d) Government company
Answer:
(b) Departmental undertaking

Question 59.
A government company refers to a company in which _______ is held by the central or state government
(a) 51 % of authorised capital
(b) 51% of Subscribed capital
(c) 51% of nominal capital
(d) 51 % of the paid up capital
Answer:
(d) 51 % of the paid up capital

Question 60.
Life Insurance Corporation, State Trading Corporation etc. are the examples of ________.
(a) Statutory corporation
(b) Government company
(c) Departmental undertaking
(d) Public company
Answer:
(a) Statutory corporation

Question 61.
ONGC, BHEL, Hindustan Machine Tools Limited etc are the examples of ________.
(a) Statutory corporation
(b) Government company
(c) Departmental undertaking
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Government company

Question 62.
The country in which the headquarters of MNC are located is called ________.
(a) Host country
(b) Home country
(c) Principle country
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Home country

Question 63.
The foreign country in which the MNC operates its business is called as ________.
(a) Host Country
(b) Home Country
(c) Foreign country
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Host Country

Question 64.
Bringing credits savings and other essential services to the poor is called ________.
(a) Poor Finance
(b) Micro Credit
(c) Micro Finance
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) & (c)

Question 65.
Which one of the following is true about micro enterprises?
(a) Labour intensive
(b) Capital intensive
(c) Technology intensive
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Micro enterprises refers to enterprises where the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed 25 lakh rupees. These enterprises require small amount of capital for its formation. Moreover, it helps in creating jobs as it is labour-intensive.

Question 66.
Which one of the following is a key in the firm’s growth phase?
(a) Increase in scale
(b) Increase in profit
(c) Increase in capital
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Increase in firms scale, capital and profit all will result in firms growth. Increase in scale refers to the increase in production. Increase in capital also means firms factors of production. Moreover, increase in firm’s profits will result an increase in firms overall growth.

Question 67.
In which year was the new economic policy ushered that gave a new direction to Indian economy?
(a) 1993
(b) 1989
(c) 1991
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) To improve the performance of the public enterprise, Government of India has taken several measures. On 24th July, 1991 the Government of India announced its industrial policy to improve the j performance and portfolio of public sector enterprises.

Question 68.
Which of the following is not true about the purpose of a business?
(a) Earning profit
(b) Supply of goods and services
(c) Creating job opportunities
(d) Performing sovereign functions
Answer:
(d) Business is an organisation in which organised production and exchange of goods and services are undertaken with a view to earn profits. It can also be referred as process of organising all the steps that are required to be undertaken for establishment of relationship between men, material and machinery in order to carry on business efficiently.

Thus, business is carried on for the purpose of:

  • Earning profit
  • Supplying goods and services
  • Creating job opportunities

Question 69.
The definition of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India is based on:
(a) Total sales of the unit
(b) Investment in machines and equipments
(c) Market coverage
(d) Export turnover
Answer:
(b) The definition of Micro, Small and medium enterprise in India is based on investment in machines and equipments. Under Micro Enterprise Investment in Plant and machinery does not exceed 25 Lakh rupees while Investment in equipment does not exceed 10 Lakh rupees. In small enterprises investment in P&M is more than 25 Lakh while Investment in equipment does not exceeds 2 crore.

Question 70.
The abbreviation ‘BIFR’ with reference to sick companies in India means:
(a) Board for Indian Financial Reserves
(b) Board for Industrial and Financial Resources
(c) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
(d) Board for International Fund Reserves
Answer:
(c) The government has taken every step to revive and restructure the public sector enterprises to improve their performance, productivity and profitability for sick companies in India, the enterprises are referred to Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction to prepare appropriate revival or rehabilitation package.

Note : From 1st December 2016 by an official notification, Government of India dissolved it and all proceeding to be referred to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) as per provisions of insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.

Question 71.
Which one of the following is a push factor influencing the internationalisation of a company?
(a) Difficulty in finding skilled staff in the home country
(b) The need to be close to key resources
(c) Low-cost labour in other countries
(d) Financial incentives from governments in emerging markets.
Answer:
The following are some reasons to expand into different countries:

  • Reduce transport and distribution cost.
  • Avoid trade barriers.
  • Meet different rules and regulations.
  • Secure supplies of raw material or market.
  • Cost advantage-e.g. low labour cost.

Thus low labour cost in other countries is one of the push factor influencing the inter nationalisation of a company.

Question 72.
Foundation of public enterprises in India was laid down by:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Answer:
(b) The foundation of the strong public enterprises, particularly the goods producing section in the Indian economy was firmly laid by our Prime Minister Jawahar Lai Nehru who was also inspired and supported by the Josip Aiigned movement.

Question 73.
Transfer pricing litigations are generally related to _______.
(a) Domestic Companies
(b) Multinational Companies
(c) Public Enterprises
(d) Statutory Authority.
Answer:
(b) Multinational Companies have various disadvantages associated with it one of which is – Transfer pricing enables MNC’s to avoid taxes by manipulating prices in the case of intra-company transactions. Thus, Transfer pricing litigations are generally related to Multinational Companies.

Question 74.
Coca-Cola is an example of:
(a) MNC
(b) Indian Company
(c) Foreign Company
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Coca Cola is an example of MNC. MNC refers to a corporation / enterprise which manages its production / delivers services in more than one country.

Question 75.
________ is responsible for revival of Public Sector Enterprises.
(a) NTPC
(b) NCLT
(c) BRPSE
(d) MNC
Answer:
(c) BRPSE : Boards for reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises. Established in December, 2004 as advisory body to advise the Government on the strategies, measures and schemes related to strengthening, modernizing, reviving and restructuring of public sector enterprises.

Question 76.
Microsoft is a:
(a) Indian Government Company
(b) Multinational Company
(c) Statutory Corporation
(d) Public Limited Company
Answer:
(b) Multinational Corporation is a corporation that manages production or delivers services in more than one country. Microsoft is also a Multinational Company.

Question 77.
Advantages of multinationals to home countries are _______.
(a) Ensure optimum utilisation of resources
(b) Promote bilateral trade relations
(c) Promote global Co-operations
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Advantages of Multinational to home countries are:

  • Facilitate Inflow of Foreign Exchange
  • Promote Global Co-operations
  • Ensure Optimum Utilization of Resources
  • Promote Bilateral Trade Relations

Question 78.
For the goods having artistic features size of enterprise is preferred.
(a) Small scale
(b) Large scale
(c) Corporation
(d) Very large
Answer:
(a) Traditional as small scale industries includes goods having artistic features like Khadi handloom, village industries handicrafts, sericulture, coin etc.

Question 79.
Which is not a criterion for defining small business?
(a) Usually employs fewer people
(b) Is Geographically localised
(c) Is considered smaller in relation to competitors
(d) Financed by a large number of investors.
Answer:
(d) An Industrial unit can be categorised as a small scale unit if it fulfills the capital investment limit fixed by the Government of India for small scale sector. The investment in plant & machinery is more than 25 lakhs but does not exceeds 5 crores and the number or investors ar-e limited.

Question 80.
Push factors for locating a business includes:
(a) Availability of skilled labour
(b) Rising competition in an area
(c) Government support
(d) Technological advancement
Answer:
(a) Push factors for locating a business includes availability of skilled labour, availability of raw materials etc.

Question 81.
The size and structure of business depends on many factors which (are):
(a) Arbitrary and random
(b) In the control of enterprises
(c) Range from internal to external factors which are beyond the control of enterprises
(d) Beyond the control of enterprises
Answer:
(c) The size and the structure of business depends on many factors which range from internal to external factors which are beyond the control of the enterprises.

Question 82.
Which of the government agency look after the industrial sick unit?
(a) BRPSE
(b) BIFR
(c) IDBI
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(b) BIFR looks after Industrial sick units. The government has taken every step to revive and restructure the public sector enterprises to improve their performance, productivity and profitability for sick companies in India. The enterprises are referred, to Board for Industrial and financial reconstruction (BIFR) to prepare revival or rehabilitation package.

Note : From 1st December 2016 by an official notification, Government of India dissolved it and all proceeding to be referred to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and National, Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) as per provisions of insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.

Question 83.
MNCs have their head quarters in more than countries/country.
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) Multi National Corporation (MNC) or Multi National Enterprise (MNE) is a corporation enterprise which has its headquarters in one country and manages production or delivers services in more than one country.

Question 84.
What is the full form of SSI?
(a) Small scale industries
(b) Small scale enterprises
(c) Large scale enterprises
(d) Public enterprises
Answer:
(a) Full form of SSI is Small Scale Industries.

Question 85.
A public sector enterprise is suitable for:
(a) Fierce competitive projects
(b) High capital intensive projects
(c) Low capital intensive projects
(d) Low technology intensive projects
Answer:
(b) Public sector enterprise is suitable for high capital intensive projects as it denotes “state ownership and operation of industrial, agricultural, financial and commercial undertakings”. It is thus liable to the general public for their performances. It helps to reduce regional imbalances altogether.

Question 86.
Handicraft industry is a:
(a) Heavy capital intensive industry
(b) Medium/small scale industry
(c) Technical industry
(d) Macro industry.
Answer:
(b) Handicraft industry is a medium/small scale industry which are organised on a small scale and produce goods with the help of small machines, hired labour and power. Traditionally these industries are highly labour-intensive.

Question 87.
A Multinational Corporation (MNC) operates in:
(a) More than 1 country
(b) More than 5 countries
(c) More than 10 countries
(d) More than 2 countries.
Answer:
(a) A multinational corporation or multinational enterprise is a corporation that manages its production or delivers its services in more than one country.

Question 88.
A Multinational Corporation (MNC) operates in:
(a) More than 2 countries
(b) More than 10 countries
(c) More than one country
(d) More than 5 countries
Answer:
(c) Multinational Corporation refers to a corporation which manages its production/delivers services in more than one country. It has its management quarters in one country called home country and operates in several countries called host countries.

Question 89.
A(n) ________ is a group of firms producing a similar product or service, such as soft drinks, electronic games or computers.
(a) Cluster
(b) Division
(c) Sector
(d) Industry
Answer:
(d) In modern economies, there are dozens of industry classifications, which are typically grouped into larger categories called sectors, with individual companies being classified into an industry based on their largest sources of revenue. Thus, an industry is the group of firms producing a similar products and services.

Question 90.
Modern small-scale units are:
(a) Labour intensive
(b) Material intensive
(c) Technology intensive
(d) Capital intensive
Answer:
(c) Small scale enterprises are organized on the small scale, producing goods with the help of small machines, hired labour and power but in the modern small scale units, it makes the use of highly ‘ sophisticated machinery and equipment.
Example: Industries producing rubber products, chemical products etc.

Question 91.
The process under which profits go back to the head quarters of the MNC, rather than staying in the host country is called:
(a) Remittance of profits
(b) Transferring of profits
(c) Sending of profits
(d) Repatriation of profits
Answer:
(d) The word Repatriation means return of money back to ones’ own country. The process of sending profits back is called Repatriation of profit.

Question 92.
The definition of Micro-Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India is based on:
(a) Total sales of the unit
(b) Investment in machines and equipments
(c) Market coverage
(d) Export turnover
Answer:
(b) Definition of Micro-small and medium enterprises based on ‘Investment in plant and machinery and its equipment’ in India.

In Micro enterprises, investment does not exceed 25 lakh rupees. In case of small enterprises, investment is more than 25 lakh rupees but not exceed five crore rupees. In medium enterprises, investment is more than 5 crores rupees but not more than 10 crore rupees.

Question 93.
Which of the following is a Push Factor influencing the internationalisation of a company?
(a) Difficulty in finding skilled staff in the home country
(b) The need to be close to key resources
(c) Low cost Labour in other countries
(d) Financial incentives from governments in emerging markets.
Answer:
(c) Factors influencing the internationalisation of a company:

  • Reduce transportation costs and distribution costs
  • Avoid trade barriers
  • Meet different rules and regulations
  • Secure supplies of raw materials / markets
  • Cost advantages – i.e Law Labour costs
  • Economic growth and employment
  • Advantages of MNCs Hence, Option (C) is Correct.

Question 94.
Foundation of public enterprises in India was laid down by:
(a) Indra Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan.
Answer:
(b) The foundation of public enterprises particularly the goods producing sectors in Indian economy was firm laid down by our first prime minister Jawahar Lai Nehru who was also inspired and supported by Josip Broz Tito and Abdul Qamal Nasser.

Question 95.
Which one of the following is true about Investment Cost per Job?
(a) Investment costs per Job are high in large and medium industries.
(b) Investment costs per job are high in small industries.
(c) Investment costs per job are high in micro enterprises.
(d) Investment costs per job are higher in micro enterprises than small scale enterprises.
Answer:
(a) Investment Costs per job are low in Micro enterprises but high in large and medium enterprises.

Question 96.
Full form of MNC _______.
(a) Mega Nurturing Corporates
(b) Mega National Corporations
(c) Multinational Corporations
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) MNC: Multinational Corporations.

Question 97.
NCLT given a delay period for filing _______.
(a) of 10 days
(b) of 100 days
(c) of 900 days
(d) of 90 days
Answer:
(d) NCLT given a delay period for filing of 90 days

Question 98.
BRPSE stands for:
(a) Board of Reconstruct Private Sector Enterprises
(b) Board for Reconstruction Public Sector Enterprises
(c) Board for Remuneration Partition and Serve Enterprises
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) BRPSE: Board for Reconstruction Public Sector Enterprises.

Question 99.
Transfer pricing litigations are generally related to:
(a) Domestic Companies
(b) Multinational Companies
(c) Public Enterprises
(d) Statutory Authority
Answer:
(b) Multinational companies have various disadvantages associated with it, one of which is that transfer pricing enables it to avoid taxes by manipulating prices in case of intra-company transactions. Thus, transfer pricing litigations are generally related to multinational companies.

Question 100.
Trade between Home country to foreign country?
(a) Multinational country
(b) International
(c) Bilateral country
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Multinational corporations (MNCs) are key agents transforming the international political and economic landscape. Because they are highly visible organisations with great power and mobility, they inspire both awe and fear.

Question 101.
The capital market intermediaries act as a link between?
(a) Investors and issuers
(b) Investors and regulators
(c) Regulators and issuers
(d) Regulators, investors, issuers
Answer:
(d) In the context of capital market, capital market intermediaries are an important constituents of overall governance framework. Being an important link between regulators, investors and issuers, therefore expected to ensure that their internal control are so efficient that ensure effective investor service at all times.

Question 102.
Maharatna involves _______.
(a) NTPC
(b) ONGC
(c) SAIL
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Maharatna involves 7 companies are:

  • NTPC
  • ONGS
  • SAIL
  • BHEL
  • IOCL
  • CIL
  • GAIL

Question 103.
Which of the following are included in traditional small industries.
(a) Khadi and Handloom
(b) Sericulture
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Traditional small industries involved Khadi and Handloom and sericulture as they are more labour intensive.

CS Foundation Business Environment and Law Notes