Concept of Auditing – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Concept of Auditing – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Meaning of audit: Audit is originated from Latin word ‘audire’ which means to hear. In earlier times accounts were heard by auditors and were verified and certified. In those days, the audit is done to find out whether the payments and receipt are properly accounted or not. Over the time the auditing procedure has changed tremendously.

→ An audit is the examination and verification of the financial report of an organization. The financial report includes a balance sheet, an income statement, a statement of changes in equity, a cash flow statement, and notes comprising a summary of significant accounting policies and other explanatory notes. The goal of a financial statement audit is to form an opinion regarding whether financial statements are or aren’t free from error.

→ Traditionally auditing was confined to financial statements but now auditing is being done in other areas too like safety, environment, security, information etc.

→ Definition of auditing: Auditing is an examination of the accounting books and the relative documentary evidence so that an auditor may be able to find out the accuracy of figures and may be able to make report on the balance sheet and other financial statements which have been prepared by the end of accounting is the beginning of auditing.

→ Objectives of Auditing: Auditing main purpose or object is to find the opinion of an auditor about correctness and reliability of accounts and the financial position of the business concern.

→ Definitions of auditing given by different person
1 According to Lawrence R. Dicksee, “an audit is an examination of accounting records undertaken with a view to establishing whether they correctly and completely reflect the transactions to which they relate. In some instances, it may be necessary to ascertain whether the transactions themselves are supported by authority.”

2 According to A.W. Hanson “An audit is an examination of accounting records to establish their reliability and the reliability of statements drawn there from.”

3 According to R.B. Bose “Audit may be said to the verification of the accuracy and correctness of the books of accounts by independent person qualified for the job and not in any way connected with the preparation of such accounts.”

→ There are differences between accounting and auditing:

  • accounting is recording all the financial transactions, preparing trial balance, balance sheet, profit and loss account while auditing is checking correctness of these records.
  • Moreover an auditor who is preparing financial statements is working as an accountant while an auditor doing auditing is checking the correctness of the records.
  • it is not required that all the accountants be auditor but all the auditors are required to be accountants.

→ Principle aspects to be covered in Auditing:
Effective audit is critical to the quality of financial reporting and the proper conduct of business. Thus some of the aspects to be covered when doing audit are

  • First is to understand the system and procedure adopted by the entity
  • Before beginning the auditing determine whether, and to what extent, to use specific work of the internal auditors
  • If using the specific work of internal auditors, to determine whether that work is adequate for the purposes of the audit and how effective is the internal control system.
  • To check the arithmetic calculations to trace out if any error in the books of accounts
  • to monitor the integrity of the financial statements of the company and any formal announcements
  • relating to the company’s financial performance
  • auditor has to ascertain that items of capital nature are identified and differentiated from items of revenue nature
  • Should review the clarity and completeness of disclosures in the financial statements and consider whether the disclosures made are set properly in context.
  • a proper adjustment has been made for income and expenditure of a particular period
  • to report to the board on how it has discharged its responsibilities.
  • if auditor is not satisfied with any aspect of the proposed financial reporting by the company, it shall report its views to the board.
  • Should ensure all statutory compliance related to income tax, companies Act etc. has been complied by entity
  • Should review and approve the statements included in the annual report in relation to internal control and the management of risk.
  • Should physically assess all the assets of the entity
  • Should inspect the documents to find whether liabilities have been correctly mentioned

→ Benefits of Audit:
The purpose of an audit is to form a view on whether the information presented in the financial report, taken as a whole, reflects the financial position of the organization at a given date, some of the benefits of auditing are

  • An audit helps to identify weaknesses in the accounting systems and enables us to suggest improvements
  • An audit assures directors not involved in the accounting functions on a day-to-day basis that the business is running in accordance with the information they are receiving, and helps reduce the scope for fraud and poor accounting
  • It helps to maintain books of accounts up to date
  • Auditing is also a legal requirement for some companies
  • An audit facilitates the provision of advice which can cover anything from the tightening of internal controls, to reducing the risk of fraud or tax planning
  • An audit adds credibility to published information for employees, customers, suppliers, investors and tax authorities
  • It helps in strengthening the internal system
  • An audit provides assurance to shareholders (if they are not directors closely involved in the business) that the figures in the accounts show a true and fair view

Limitations of audit:
→ Due to the inherent limitations of audit, auditors are only able to offer ‘reasonable assurance’ over the truth and fairness of the financial statements

→ Due to high cost auditor limits his scope of work to selective testing

→ Audit involves the use of judgment in the identification of audit risks. Although auditing standards provide guidelines to assist auditors in forming sound professional judgments, it is inevitable that an auditor may at times misjudge a situation which may cause the auditor to overlook a misstatement in the financial statement.

→ Generally an auditor is required to give audit report within specified time which doesn’t give him enough time to check all the records

→ they have to rely on the representations of management in order to assess the reasonableness of the matters concerning financial statements.

→ By their very nature, frauds are intended to be concealed which makes the work of auditors a little difficult

→ The perceived independence of an auditor is for instance impaired where a client accounts for the revenue of the audit firm

→ Investigation: Investigation is an examination of books and records for any specified purpose, sometimes differing in scope from the ordinary audit. Investigation implies an examination of and record for some special purpose. Investigation is carried out not in substitution of audit, but in addition to audit.

→ Difference between Audit and Investigation: Following are the important distinctive features in both the term.

  • Audit which is conducted for a particular object is called investigation while auditing is the examination of financial statements of any entity
  • Investigation is carried out on behalf of the outsiders who want to know the financial position of the business.
  • While audit is conducted on behalf of the share holders.
  • Audit of annual financial statements is compulsory under the law but Investigation is not compulsory under law but voluntary, depending upon necessity.
  • Investigation can be conducted by anyone and he may not be an auditor while auditing can be done only by auditor
  • The report of the investigation is submitted to the party appointing him for investigation while the report of audit is submitted to the share holders.
  • Investigators are appointed by management or owners or any third party but auditors are appointed by shareholders or owners of the entity.
  • Investigation may cover a period more then a financial year while auditing covers the period of one financial year.
  • Investigation is conducted for a particular purpose or object while the object of auditing is to find out the correctness of statements and exhibit a true and fair view about the affairs of the business.
  • Investigation seeks conclusive and corroborative evidence while most of the auditing evidences are persuasive

Concept of Auditing MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
…………………………….. are not legally required to get their financial statements audited
a. Companies
b. Banks
c. Partnership firm
d. Insurance companies
Answer:
c. Partnership firm

Hint:
Audit which is prescribed by a state/legislation e.g. Company audit as per Companies Act, audit of Banking Companies, electricity supply companies, public and charitable trust, co-operative schemes which have been set up under the Act of Parliament and other audits required as per law Partnership firms are not required legally to get their accounts statement audited.

Question 2.
In audit, investigation exercise is
a. Mandatory
b. Recommendatory
c. Voluntary
d. Voluntary but recommendatory in all cases
Answer:
c. Voluntary

Hint:
Audit of annual financial statements is compulsory under the law but Investigation is not compulsory under law but voluntary, depending upon necessity.

Question 3.
The format of investigation report is
a. Prescribed by law
b. Not prescribed by any law
c. Standardized
d. Neither standardized nor prescribed by any law
Answer:
d. Neither standardized nor prescribed by any law

Hint:
The report of the investigation is submitted to the party appointing him for investigation while the report of audit is submitted to the share holders.
The format of audit report has been prescribed by law whereas there is no statutory form of investigation report neither any form has been prescribed by law.

Question 4.
Which of the following is true about audit?
a. Audit starts after accounting ends
b. Accounting starts after auditing ends
c. Accounting and auditing exercise are parallel
d. Accounting is complementary to auditing
Answer:
a. Audit starts after accounting ends

Hint:
Definition of auditing: Auditing is an examination of the accounting books and the relative documentary evidence so that an auditor may be able to find out the accuracy of figures and may be able to make report on the balance sheet and other financial statements which have been prepared by the end of accounting is the beginning of auditing.

Question 5.
Which of the following is a type of persuasive audit evidence for the auditor?
a. Client’s Bank statements
b. Documents obtained by auditor directly from third parties
c. Carbon copies of sales invoices
d. Computations made by the auditor himself
Answer:
c. Carbon copies of sales invoices

Hint:
Audit evidence is information obtained by the auditor to draw conclusions to support opinion on the Financial statements. Persuasive audit evidence will be those evidence which are good at persuading someone to do or believe something through reasoning or the use of temptation.
A, b, d are conclusive evidence . Only c is persuasive evidence.

Question 6.
For an auditor, to check arithmetical accuracy is
a. Not required
b. Mandatory
c. Voluntary
d. Recommendatory
Answer:
b. Mandatory

Hint:
To check the arithmetic calculations to trace out if any error in the books of accounts is one of the important aspect of auditing.

Question 7.
Verification of assets is done to ascertain
(X) Existence of asset
(Y) Ownership of asset
(Z) Possession of asset The correct option is:
a. (X) and (Y)
b. (Y)and(Z)
c. (X)and(Z)
d. (X), (Y) and (Z)
Answer:
d. (X), (Y) and (Z)

Hint:
It is the duty of the auditor to physically inspect the assets and their recording in the books of accounts and verify the legal and official documents to ascertain the existence, ownership, possession, classification and valuation of assets of an entity.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not correct about investigation?
a. Investigation may be done by any person having the knowledge of entity’s business
b. Investigation is mandatory in nature and needs to be done on yearly basis
c. The scope of investigation is decided by the appointing authority
d. There is no standard format of investigation report.
Answer:
b. Investigation is mandatory in nature and needs to be done on yearly basis

Hint:
Investigation: Investigation is an examination of books and records for any specified purpose, sometimes differing in scope from the ordinary audit. Investigation implies an examination of and record for some special purpose. Investigation is carried out not in substitution of audit, but in addition to audit. Investigation is carried out on behalf of the outsiders who want to know the financial position of the business. Investigation can be conducted by anyone and he may not be an auditor. There is no format of investigation report.

Question 9.
Principal aspects to be covered in an audit involves:
(X) Review of system and procedures
(Y) Review of internal control system
(Z) Ensuring statutory compliance The correct option is:
a. (X) and (Y)
b. (Y) and (Z)
c. (X) and (Z)
d. (X). (Y) and (Z)
Answer:
d. (X). (Y) and (Z)

Hint:
Principle aspects to be covered in Auditing
Effective audit is critical to the quality of financial reporting and the proper conduct of business. Thus some of the aspects to be covered when doing audit are

  • First is to understand the system and procedure adopted by the entity
  • Before beginning the auditing determine whether, and to what extent, to use specific work of the internal auditors
  • If using the specific work of internal auditors, to determine whether that work is adequate for the purposes of the audit and how effective is the internal control system.
  • To check the arithmetic calculations to trace out if any error in the books of accounts
  • to monitor the integrity of the financial statements of the company and any formal announcements relating to the company’s financial performance
  • auditor has to ascertain that items of capital nature are identified and differentiated from items of revenue nature
  • Should review the clarity and completeness of disclosures in the financial statements and consider whether the disclosures made are set properly in context.
  • a proper adjustment has been made for income and expenditure of a particular period
  • to report to the board on how it has discharged its responsibilities.
  • if auditor is not satisfied with any aspect of the proposed financial reporting by the company, it shall report its views to the board.
  • Should ensure all statutory compliance related to income tax, companies Act etc. has been complied by entity
  • Should review and approve the statements included in the annual report in relation to internal control and the management of risk.
  • Should physically assess all the assets of the entity
  • Should inspect the documents to find whether liabilities have been correctly mentioned

Question 10.
Detection and prevention of fraud is the ……………………… objective of auditing activity.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Single
d. Specific
Answer:
b. Secondary

Hint:
Auditing is an examination of the accounting books and the relative documentary evidence so that an auditor may be able to find out the accuracy of figures and may be able to make report on the balance sheet and other financial statements which have been prepared by the end of accounting is the beginning of auditing.

Auditing main purpose or object is to find the opinion of an auditor about correctness and reliability of accounts and the financial position of the business concern.
Thus detection and prevention of fraud is the secondary objective of auditing.

Question 11.
Quality of auditor to be free from influence is defined by which term?
a. Independence
b. Confidentiality
c. Skill
d. Integrity
Answer:
a. Independence

Hint:
According to R.B. Bose “Audit may be said to the verification of the accuracy and correctness of the books of accounts by independent person qualified for the job and not in any way connected with the preparation of such accounts.”
Thus, quality of auditor to be free from influence is defined by Independence.

Question 12.
Auditing exercise includes:
(i) Checking of accounts
(ii) Verification of accounts
(iii) Examination of accounts The options are:
a. I and III
b. I, II and III
c. I and II
d. Hand 11.1
Answer:
b. I, II and III

Hint:
Auditing exercise includes:

  • Checking of accounts
  • Verification of accounts
  • Examination of accounts
  • Investigation of some statements
  • Examination of evidence

Question 13.
In case of investigation, the period of investigation coverage
a. Is 2 years
b. Is 1 year
c. Differs on case to case basis
d. Is 6 months.
Answer:
c. Differs on case to case basis

Hint:
Investigation may cover a period more than a financial year as it depends on case to case basis while auditing covers the period of one financial year.

Question 14.
The primary objective of statutory auditing is to – (x) detect errors (y) prevent errors (z) express an opinion. The options are:
a. (x) and (y)
b. (z) only
c. (y) only
d. (x), (y) and (z).
Answer:
b. (z) only

Hint:
Auditing main purpose or object is to find the opinion of an auditor about correctness and reliability of accounts and the financial position of the business concern.

Question 15.
Audit working papers are the property of
a. Income Tax Department
b. Auditor
c. Owner
d. Government.
Answer:
b. Auditor

Question 16.
Which of the following is disqualified for appointment as auditor of a company?
a. An Officer or Employee of the company
b. A limited liability partnership
c. A Chartered Accountant holding a certificate of practice
d. A firm of Chartered Accountants.
Answer:
a. An Officer or Employee of the company

Hint:
According to Sec. 141(3) there are some persons who are disqualified or not eligible for appointment as an auditor namely:

  • an officer or employee of the company
  • a body corporate other than LLP registered under LLP Act, 2008.
  • A person who IS a partner

Question 17.
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programme preparation?
a. To detect errors or fraud
b. To assets audit risk
c. Together sufficient appropriate evidence
d. To comply with GAAP.
Answer:
c. Together sufficient appropriate evidence

Hint:
The main purpose of audit programme is that every material area has been audited appropriately and sufficient appropriate audit evidence has been obtained in respect of every important areas of audit.

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Planning – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Planning – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

→ Planning is a Rational Approach to Future:
Definitions:
Planning is forecasting and deciding in advance a course of action to be followed and activities to be pursued in future but mere forecasting is not planning. Planning is a rational approach to the future.

→ By Philip Kotler:
“Planning means deciding in the present what to do in the future. It is the process whereby companies reconcile their resources with their objective and opportunities.”

→ By George R. Terry:
“Planning is the selecting and relating of facts and the making and using of assumptions regarding the future in the visualisation and formulation of proposed activities believed necessary to achieve desired results”.

→ It is an all-pervasive and a fundamental function of management.

→ With the above definitions, it is very clear that planning involves deciding in advance what is to be done and where, how and by whom it will be done.

→ Planning is a mental work and includes looking in the future and forecasting on the basis of estimates available.

→ More important for higher level of management.

→ Merely ascertaining the future is not planning till it is followed by making provision for it.

→ Planning deals with future and forecasting management does not plan about past but guided by past performance.

Features of Planning:

  • It is a primary function: Planning prevails at all the levels of management. It is thus the function of every manager.
  • It is a continuous function: Because plans have to be revised in the light of changing environment and also different functions overlap each other, thus planning process has to be continuously repeated.
  • Pervasive function: Planning pervades at all levels and all departments of an organisation. The planning horizons broaden and the implications of plans becomes wider as one goes up the level in the management hierarchy.

Importance of Planning:
Planning creates employees conscious of enterprises objectives:
Since the process starts with a clear definition of objectives of Individual department and organisation as a whole, the employees look at the organisation in its entirety which makes possible effective achievement of goals. Objectives represent endpoints of planning.

Planning leads to economy In operation:
It improves the effectiveness of all other functions of management and ensures coordinated functioning of efforts throughout the enterprise.
Planning for repetitive or routine matters reduces the need to revise the whole problem.

PlannIng precedes control:
Management function of control seeks to check the performance against some predetermined standards or projected course of action established through planning process. Control cannot exist without planning.

PlannIng provides a precIous managerial tool for the future:
It Is through this process that forecasting can be done about the future events and activities and a suitable course of action can be found on the basis of these forecasting results. Though forecasting is its essential characteristics, the task of planning does not end merely with assessing the future.

Planning influences the efficacy of other managerial functions:
Planning makes the task of managing more effective and improves efficiency of other functions of management.

Limitations of Planning

  • Planning premises may not be fully reliable:
    Planning is always done on the basis of predictions. Since future is uncertain, planning is also subject to uncertainty.
  • Rapidity of changesets another limit to planning:
    Rapid changes in business environment bring instability and makes the planning job more difficult.

Availability of time and cost involved:
During an emergency situation, decisions have to be taken without planning in advance. Such decisions may result in failure due to shortage of time period. Similarly, longer duration plans involve more cost. Greater are the details more will be the cost. Benefits expected to be derived from the planning should be more than the cost involved. Ascertaining the benefits & cost of planning is a difficult task.

Management and personnel philosophy – A serious limitation: Planning cannot be done with old philosophies of management or with their concepts and beliefs in mind. Since psychologically people are resistant to change they have to be convinced of the value of change.

Procedural and policy rigidities come in the way for planning: Policies and rules once established are difficult to change. Planning may call for a change in the existing procedures. When planning has to go through such rigidities, it becomes a difficult job.

Powerful Internal Constraint in Planning
Capital invested in the firm: Powerful internal constraint in planning. Managers develop a strong tendency to recovery of capital sunk as a result of some of their earlier decision that future planning is constrained and limited to its recovery.

External constraints
These can be:

  • Labour unrest and policies regarding thereto;
  • Government rules and regulations.
Types of Plans
Plans
Strategic Plan Tactical Plan Operational Plan
Long term plan 3-5 years/above involves competitive analysis, SWOT etc. to compet effectiveness. Top-level managers form and execute them. Mid-term plan 1 to 3 years creates the blueprint for strategic plan.
Middle managers consult with lower-level managers to develop the tactical plans.
Short term plan maximum 1 year covers the entire organisation’s goals & day to day operations.
Lower-level managers consult with middle managers.

Strategic Plans: They identify & target internal goals but provide a general guidance on how they can be attained.

Types of Assessment:
1. Environmental Assessment – Environmental assessment is the assessment of the environmental consequences (positive and negative) of a plan, policy, program or actual projects prior to the decision to move forward with the proposed action. It helps the smooth functioning of strategic plan.

2. Operational Assessment – To assess the competitive implications of resources and capabilities relative to other environments, organizations must question four major factors, which are as fallows.

  • A resource adds value
  • A resource is rare to the extent
  • Capability to create a degree of limit ability
  • A firm must have to maintain its coordination and organisation
  • Sustaining four elements given above is known as distinctive competence

Planning – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 1

→  Planning Components
They are usually defined as:
Organisation Mission: It is a statement distinguishing the organisation from others of its type and explains the fundamental reason for existence.
it can be written or may be implicit.

Purpose of mission statement

  • It Is a benchmark for managers.
  • It defines common purpose and foster loyalty among employees.
  • It is a guideline and future direction fOE- outsiders.

Purposes:

  • The purpose or mission is a definitive statement of the goals of the organisation that ¡t has to achieve.
  • It shows the way the management works towards the achievement of goals.
  • Fundamental & unique purpose that sets ¡t apart from other enterprises.
  • Reflects belief and philosophy of management.

Objectives:
Objectives should be clearty laid down and effectively communicated to all the employees.

  • They are the end results of any process undertaken in an organisation and should be properly balanced.
  • All the objectives must be reviewed continuously in. the light of organisational changes.
  • Objectives can be individualistic or collective, short term or long term, tangible or intangible, generator specific.
  • Peter F. Drucker has laid down eight key areas.

Objective should be clearly defined and communicated

  • Market standing
  • Innovation
  • Productivity
  • Physical and financial resources
  • Profitability
  • Management performance and development
  • Work performance and attitude
  • Public responsibility

→  PolicIes:
Policies are of great help in delegating of authority of a manager.

  • These help the managers during the decision making pcocess.
  • Policies define the course of action that should be undertaken to determine present and future decisions.
  • Every manager has the power to make policies foc his own area of worl but that should be within the limits of his authority.
  • They should be flexible because rigid policies does not enable the employees to take further initiatives.
  • Policies cari be written, verbal or implied.
  • It may pertain to sales, production, personnel, finance and purchase on the functional basis.

Procedures, Methods & Rules:
1. A procedure includes the exact steps in which any task must be undertaken and specifies the chronological sequence for handling future activities.
2. Methods involve a specific step that has to be followed.
3. Rules means any kind of regulation from which no deviation is possible. It can be in favour of against the organisation.
4. Policy is a guide to thinking, procedures are guide to action.

→ Budgets:

  • Is a single-use plan
  • They are statements of expected revenue or losses of the organisation in numerical terms.
  • They are prepared with a view to control the monetary activities of the enterprise so that they fall in line with the anticipated limits.
  • Budget T making is a planning process, whereas its administration is a part of controlling.
  • Budget is a statement of income and expenditure.

→  Programme:

  • These are usually supported by budgets.
  • These include a brief description of work to be carried out in a proper sequence in order to achieve the goals.
  • Programme is a complex structure of policies, procedures, methods, rule, budgets and other assignments that can originate at any level in the organisation can be major or minor programmes.
  • Outline of plan of work to be carried.

→  Strategy:

  1. Strategy is an interpretative planning and very popular in military science. ,
  2. Anthony defines strategies as “the process of deciding on objectives of the organisation, on changes in these objectives, on the resources used to attain these objectives, and on the policies that are to govern the acquisition, use and disposition of these resources.” „
  3. Strategy means deciding upon the goals of the enterprise and then carving out a plan to achieve those goals.
  4. They are a useful framework for guiding enterprise thinking and action.
  5. Chandler defines strategy as, “the determination of the basic long term goals and objectives of an enterprise and the adoption of courses of action and the allocation of resources necessary to carry out these goals.”

→ Steps Involved in Planning
Establishing Objectives:
Objective must be understandable & rational to make planning ‘ effective.

  • The first and foremost step in planning is deciding the objectives of ihe enterprise.
  • This means deciding what is to be done, the activities or results to be accomplished, the rules procedures or policies to be laid down.
  • Objectives of the enterprise must be very clear so as to enable easy achievement of goals.

→  Premising:
1. Premises means the assumptions or future setting within which the planning takes place. Planning is always done for the future and thus assumptions are required because there is no certainty about the activities that will take place in future. All assumptions are not premises.

2. Selection of premises involves skills and experience of the people involved.

3. Premises are not always same for all the industries.

4. (a) Premises can be internal or eyWnal to the firm. Internal premises may include sale forecast, capita! investment or programmes and policies that has been laid down by the management, External premises can be categorised as socio-economic, product market and factor market. Possible to quantify into rupee term.

(b) Premises can also be tangible or intangible. An example of intangible premises is goodwill of a company. An e.g. of tangible premises is when it is possible to quantify in terms of rupee.

(c) The other type of premises are controllable, uncontrollable and semi controllable.

Controllable prem Eses are already pre-decided by the management. Whereas uncontrollable premises are absolutely beyond the control of enterprise and prermses that can be modulated and controlled are semi-controllable.

→ Determining Alternative Courses:
Alternative courses of action must always be identified so that the management can resort to these alternatives in case the planning fails due to unforeseen circumstances.

→ Evaluation of Alternatives:

  • In case more than one alternatives are available, the manager must evaluate all the alternatives on the basis of their strong or weak points and considering the other factors involved.
  • This evaluation is a must to arrive at a decision.

→ Selecting a Course of Action:
This step involves choosing the best alternative from amongst those available.

→ Formulating Derivative Plan:

  • To give effect to and make the final plan work a derivative plan is required.
  • Every manager and department should contribute to the accomplishment of final plan on the basis of derivative plans.

→ Numbering Plans by Budgeting:
Plans should be made workable by allotting them their respective values by converting them into budgets.
Thus, the process of planning can be divided into 3 stages premising, forecasting and decision-making.

→ Factors influencing Goal Commitment

  • Effective use of goals requires getting individuals and or workgroups to be committed to goals they must carry out.
  • It is one’s attachment to, or determination to reach a goal.

→ Supervisory Authority:

  • Goals may be assigned by supervisor who explains the reasons for the goals to the staff and gives needed instructions.
  • A supportive supervisor will be more effective than an authoritative one.
  • A supervisor must encourage and offer opportunities,

→ Peer and Group Pressure

  • This builds goal commitment by focusing everyone’s efforts.
  • Successful individuals act as role models but if goals are seen as unfair, peer and group pressure can cut goal commitments.

→ Public Display
Commitment may be greater too difficult goals with public commitment rather than private.

→ Expectations of Success

  1. It individuals have high expectations of success then they might be more committed.
  2. If they think they cannot accomplish the tasks, commitment to the goal is less likely.

→ Incentives and Rewards:

  • During goal setting, incentives may be offered.
  • Incentives are of two types-tangible and intangible.

→ Tangible – money.
Intangible – Job challenge and recognition of goal achievement.
Positive outcomes may foster commitment but negative ones may inhibit commitment.

→ Participation

  • Where the individual participates in goal setting, commitment will be stronger.
  • Participation aids in plan development for goal implementation.

Managers should include subordinate in goal setting and then in planning how to achieve those goals.

→ Planning Period:

  • Plan can be made either for long-range or intermediate-range or short range.
  • The planning period should be such that involves flexibility in the plan.
  • Short-range plans must not be made in a haste or depending upon the current situation. They should always be made keeping in mind the long-range plans.
  • Promoting on novation: The role of planning process.
  • Potential obstacles to planning.
  • Overcoming obstacles to planning.
  • “Commitment Principle implies that long-range plans are not really for future but for the future impact of today’s decision.”
  • Commitment principle considered in the light of ‘flexibility principle’ of planning. Which means plans must have an ability to change direction.
  • A manager periodically checks on events and expectations and redraws plans as necessary to maintain a course towards a desired goal, is called principle of navigational change.

→ Promoting Innovation: The role of planning process

  • An organisations view of innovation may come from the highest levels.
  • The CEO sees a future based on innovation and will communicate this to organisation members.
  • Goals can encourage innovation by having new ideas incorporated into goals.
  • Plans can also achieve goals by using innovative means in order to achieve stated goals.

→ Potential obstacles to Planning:

  • A rapidly changing environment may make planning harder.
  • Some manager may not believe in planning at all.
  • The manager’s daiiy work schedule pressures may distract from planning.
  • Some managers have poor planning knowledge and skills.
  • There may be low managerial involvement which may reduce effective planning.

→ Overcoming obstacles to Planning

  • Have top management shown strong support for the planning process.
  • Have lower-level managers engaged in and supported planning.
  • Increase training of staff in how to develop plans.
  • Managers should review plans often.
  • Managers should develop contingency plan.

→ Decisions lie at the core of planning
The plans should be as flexible as possible. The more flexible is the, plan lesser will be the danger of losses to be incurred due to unforeseen events. This is also called the ‘Principle of navigational change.

→ Concept of forecasting:

  • It means identifying and defining the conditions in future which will help in planning the work in the present.
  • It may be comprehensive or limited in scope. Since forecasting always involves some amount of guesswork, managers preparing such forecasts must-have skill and experience.

→ Steps in Forecasting:
IdentIfying end Developing the Structure:
It involves the following steps:

  • Identity strategic factors that are important for the forecast.
  • Analyse internal and external factors and relations between them.
  • Analyse the trend of each of such factors.

→ Forecasting Future Course of Business:

  • Statistical and other mathematical techniques are used for protecting future business.
  • The experience, clairvoyance and participation of management are important determinants of the quality of forecast.

→  Analysis of Deviations:

  • The actual resuhs should be analysed along with the differences with the forecasted one.
  • The reason for the deviation Is then analysed and corrective action is taken for future forecasting.

→ Improving the Existing Forecasting Procedure;
Guesswork should be gradually reduced and substituted by rational judgement and systematic analysis. Skill in forecasting is largely gained through experience and practice.

→  Advantages of Forecasting

  • Plans the synthesis of various forecasts-annual, short-term, long-term
  • It helps the management to arrive at a correct decision.
  • It helps the management to use better control techniques by focusing on areas where there is less control.
  • It facilitates team spirit in the organisation which helps planning and coordination.
  • It prepares the management to handle a critical situation that wasn’t expected.
  • Fayol referred to planning as synthesis of various forecasts annual, long term, short term, special etc.

Forecasts are based on postulations and assumptions and as such, are subject to sanie amount of guesswork.
PossIbility of error cannot be completely eliminated from forecasts.

→ Concept of Decision Making:

  • DecIsion-making permeates planning, organizing, controlling and all other functions of management.
  • It involves selection of the best course of action from those available,
  • It is one of the most Important functions of management since entire success or failure of the enterprise depends upon Its decision.
  • It is because of this reason, decision should be based on a careful study of the facts available.

Decision-making as a rational process should be based on systematic analysis of all pertinent facts and not guided by intuitions.

→ Principles of Decision Making:
Principle of Definition:
1. It involves the basic fact that a problem well defined Is half solved.
2. A good description of problem reduces managers time and effort to find a correct decision.

→ Principle of Evidence:
Since decision making is one of the most important aspect of an organisation, it must be backed by concrete working papers and documents which serve as an evidence. Decision should not be taken hastily.

→  Principle of Identity:

  • A situation is viewed differently by different people.
  • Therefore, before taking a decision views of all the people along with the time period when such situation occurred should also be considered.
  • This will help in better understanding of the problem and making quality decisions.

→ Decision-Making Conditions:
The 3 possible conditions are:

Certainty:

  • This arises when the decision-maker knows exactly what will happen.
  • Under this situation, the manager exactly knows the outcome because of the certainty involved in taking the decision.

Risk:

  • This condition is most common and widely prevails in most of the organisations.
  • Under this situation, only a part of the information is available and hence the decision-maker has to make an estimate of the outcome.
  • This estimate is based on his past experience of the same situation.
  • To enable managerial success in taking decision. There should always be some amount of risk-taking ability.
  • If probability estimates are assigned to expected outcomes on the basis of past experience, it is known as objective probability.
  • If the probability estimates are assigned on the basis of how an individual feels about, the problem (gut feel) then it is called subjective probability.
  • Decision-makers could be risk takers or risk avengers.

Uncertainty:

  • Under this situation, the decision-maker cannot estimate the outcome of various alternatives.
  • Here the outcome is uncertain, hence decision making is difficult.

Steps in Decision Making
Identifying and Diagnosing the Real Problem:

  • Past acts and decisions, predetermined objectives and environmental considerations provide the structure for current decisions.
  • Manager must know the gap between what exists and what is expected to happen.
  • Identifying the reasons for the gap and understanding the problem results in higher achievement of objectives.

→  Discovery of Alternatives:

  • Manager should search for the alternatives that would help him in making decisions.
  • Only the key factors or factors critical .for the decision should be considered.
  • It also has principle of limiting factor, i.e. management should limit itself to the discovery of those key factors which are critical or strategic to the decision involved.
  • It is described as a search of strategic factor.

Decision-making as a rational process should be based on systematic analysis of all pertinent facts and not guided by intuitions.

→ Principles of Decision Making
Principle of Definition:
1. It involves the basic fact that a problem well defined is half solved.
2. A good description of problem reduces manager’s time and effort to find a correct decision.

Principle of Evidence:
Since decision making is one of the most important aspect of an organisation, it must be backed by concrete working papers and documents which serve as an evidence. Decision should not be taken hastily.

→ Principle of Identity:

  • A situation is viewed differently by different people.
  • Therefore, before taking a decision views of all the people along with the time period when such situation occurred should also be considered.
  • This will help in better understanding of the problem and making quality decisions.

→ Decision-Making Conditions:
The 3 possible conditions are:
Certainty:
1. ThIs arises when the decision-maker knows exactly what will happen.
2. Under this situation the manager exactly knows the outcome because of the certainty involved in taking the decision.

  • Risk:
  • This condition is most common and widely prevails Fri most of the organisations.
  • Under this situation, only a part of the information is available and hence the decision-maker has to make an estimate of the outcome.
  • ThIs estimate ¡s based on his past experience of the same situation.
  • To enable managerial success in taking decisions. There should always be some amount of risk-taking ability.
  • If probability estimates are assigned to expected outcomes on the basis of past experience, it is known as objective probability.
  • If the probability estimates are assigned on the basis of how an individual feels about the problem (gut feel) then it is called subjective probability.
  • Decision-makers could be risk takers or risk avengers.

Uncertainty:
1. Under this situation, the decision-maker cannot estimate the outcome of various alternatives.
2. Here the outcome is uncertain, hence decision making is difficult.

→ Steps In Decision Making
identifying and Diagnosing the Real Problem:

  • Past ats and decisions, predetermined objectives and environmental considerations provide the structure for current decisions.
  • Manager must know the gap between what exists and what is expected to happen.
  • Identifying the reasons for the gap and understanding the problem results In higher achievement of objectives.

→  Discovery of Alternatives:

  • Manager should search for the alternatives that would help him in making decisions.
  • Only the key factors or factors critical for the decision should be considered.
  • It also has principle of limiting factor, i.e. management should limit itself to the discovery of those key factors which are critical or strategic to the decision involved.
  • It is described as a search of strategic factor.

→ Analysis and Evaluation of Available Alternatives:

  • Once all the alternatives have been identified, the next step is the selection of the best alternative.
  • Management should consider the risk involved in choosing amongst the available alternatives.
  • Both tangible and intangible factors must also be considered. For e.g.- profit, time, money, public relations, morale etc.
  • The techniques of. marginal analysis can be used for the evaluation of alternatives.
  • Alternatives should be selected on the basis of cost-effectiveness.

→ Selection of Alternative to be followed:
(a) This is mainly done on the basis of past experience. But changes in the circumstances must always be kept in mind, before taking a decision in the present situation.

(b) Selection on the basis of experiments: Experimentation as the basis for final decision has the advantage of incorporating intangible factors and also the environmental changes. But it is the most expensive of the techniques.

(c) Research as the basis for decision: A number of research approaches and techniques have been developed which are contributing to the research as the basis for decision. Break-even analysis, marginal contribution analysis, forecasting, capital budgeting, standard costing, sensitivity analysis, operations research etc. are currently in use in the field of decision making.

→ Communication of Decision:
(a) Management should take into account the attitude and prejudices of the people in the organisation.

Hierarchy of Decisions:
The manager should determine the importance of each decision in forms of its commitment, scope and risk involved.
Less important decision can be based on simple analysis whereas important decisions must be made after a thorough analysis of all the related factors.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1 ……………….. is deciding in advance the course of action to be followed.
(a) Organising
(b) Direction
(c) Controlling
(d) Planning
Answer:
(d) Planning

2. ……………….. represents the end point of planning.
(a) Goals
(b) Strategies
(c) Objectives
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Objectives

3. Strategic plans target …………………. but provide a brief guidance on how to achieve them.
(a) External goals
(b) Internal goals
(c) Organisational objectives
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Internal goals

4. …………………. reflects belief and philosophy of management.
(a) Objectives
(b) Purposes/Mission
(c) Goals
(d) Rules
Answer:
(b) Purposes/Mission

5. Which qualities should a person possess while planning?
(a) Reflective thinking
(b) Imagination
(c) Farsightedness
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

6. Only economists & technicians employed by the management as staff experts are involved in making forecasts.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False.
Answer:
(b) False

7. Policies must be rigid and should not allow discretion on the part of subordinates.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) False

8. ……………….. specifies the manner of doing work, i.e. sequence for handling future activities.
(a) Rules
(b) Method
(c) Procedures
(d) Programme.
Answer:
(c) Procedures

9. Which amongst the following is rigid and specific & cannot be changed?
(a) Methods
(b) Procedures
(c) Policies
(d) Rules.
Answer:
(d) Rules.

10. ……………………. is supported by capital revenue & expense budgets.
(a) Programme
(b) Strategy
(c) Goals
(d) Policies.
Answer:
(a) Programme

11. Method of evaluation of various alternatives are:
(a) Basis of cost-effectiveness
(b) Marginal analysis
(c) Risk involved and resources available
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

12. Second step of planning process is the establishment of:
(a) Planning premises
(b) Objectives
(c) Goals to be achieved
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Planning premises

13. Planning Premises can be …….. .
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Tangible
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

14. Quality of forecasts depends upon:
(a) Experience
(b) Clairvoyance
(c) Participation of management
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

15. The possible condition for decision making would be:
(a) Certainty
(b) Risk
(c) Uncertainty
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

16. While planning for expansion ……………….. might be the limiting factor.
(a) Availability of finance
(b) Availability of trained staff
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

17. Certainty, risk and uncertainty are the three possible conditions of:
(a) Decision making
(b) Planning
(c) Risk management
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Decision making

18. Planning provides for the future.
(a) Managerial tools
(b) Goals
(c) Strategic Plans
(d) Business Plans
Answer:
(a) Managerial tools

19. Planning is fully reliable.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t say
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) False

20. Government rules and regulations are constraints,
(a) External
(b) Organisational
(c) Internal
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) External

21. ……………………… helps the managers during the decision making process.
(a) Budget
(b) Strategies
(c) Programme
(d) Policies
Answer:
(d) Policies

22. Every manager has the power to make policies but within the limits of his authority.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) True

23. …………………….. helps the management to arrive at a correct decision.
(a) Planning
(b) Forecasting
(c) Decision Making
(d) Experience
Answer:
(b) Forecasting

24. Which of the following are Principles of Decision making?
(a) Principle of definition
(b) Principle of evidence
(c) Principle of Identity
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

25. …………….. arises when the decision-maker knows exactly what will happen.
(a) Risk
(b) Certainty
(c) Uncertainty
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Certainty

26. “Planning is the selecting and relating of fact.? and the making and using of assumption regarding the future in the visualization and formulation of proposed activities believed necessary to achieve desired results”. This is given by:
(a) Philip Kotler
(b) Buyers and Rue
(c) Kasts & Rosenzweig
(d) George R. Terry
Answer:
(d) George R. Terry

27. Which one is not a feature of Planning?
(a) Planning is Positive
(b) Primary Function
(c) Intellectual Process
(d) Pervasive Function
Answer:
(d) George R. Terry

28. Which one of the following is not an importance of Planning?
(a) Planning makes personal conscious of enterprise objectives.
(b) Planning proceeds direction.
(c) Planning leads to economy in operation.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Planning proceeds direction.

29. Which function of management cannot exist without planning?
(a) Organising
(b) Directing
(c) Controlling
(d) Staffing
Answer:
(c) Controlling

30. Which one of the following is not the limitation of planning?
(a) Rapidity of changesets another limit to planning
(b) Planning premise may not be fully reliable.
(c) Procedural and policy rigidities also come in the way of planning.
(d) Planning is applicable in every level.
Answer:
(d) Planning is applicable in every level.

31. Which type of plan describes the goals of an internal organization, a working group or a department?
(a) Project Plans
(b) Strategic Plans
(c) Operational Plans
(d) Marketing Plans
Answer:
(c) Operational Plans

32. Which of the following is a formal statement of business plans?
(a) Largely enforced business goals.
(b) The reason why they are believed attainable
(c) The plan for reaching those goals
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

33. Objective can be:
(a) Individualistic or collective
(b) Short-term or long term
(c) Tangible or Intangible
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

34. Which one signify some kind of regulation, positive or negative & permit no discretion in its application?
(a) Procedures
(b) Rules
(c) Strategy
(d) Methods
Answer:
(b) Rules

35. Who defines strategies as “the process of deciding on objectives of the organization, on changes in these objectives, on the resources used to attain these objectives and on the policies that are to govern the acquisition, use and disposition of these resources”.
(a) Chandler
(b) Buyers & Rue
(c) Anthony
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Anthony

36. Which is a complex structure of policies, procedures, methods, rules, budgets & other assignments?
(a) Strategy
(b) Programme
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Programme

37. ‘TDCI’ Stands for:
(a) Technological Development Corporation of India.
(b) Trade Development Corporation of India.
(c) Tourism Development Corporation of India
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Tourism Development Corporation of India

38. What is the duration of Planning Period?
(a) Long-range
(b) Intermediate-range
(c) Short-range
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

39. Forecasting is done by which level of management?
(a) Top level
(b) Middle level
(c) Lower level
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Top level

40. Which of the following is the ‘Decision Making Condition’.
(a) Certainty
(b) Uncertainty
(c) Risk
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

41. According to George R. Terry is the selecting & relating of facts.
(a) Organising
(b) Directing
(c) Controlling
(d) Planning
Answer:
(d) Planning

42. Planning is a mental work and includes …………………. on the basis of estimates available.
(a) Looking
(b) Forecasting
(c) Direction
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(b) Forecasting

43. The first stage in Planning is the deliberate statement of ……………….. .
(a) Organization
(b) Objectives
(c) Direction
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(b) Objectives

44. Planning is always done on the basis of
(a) Instability
(b) Mental work
(c) Predictions
(d) Goals
Answer:
(c) Predictions

45. Types of plans are:
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Eight
(d) Five
Answer:
(d) Five

46. Plans defines the working goals of an International organization,
(a) Operational
(b) Marketing
(c) Project
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) Operational

47. Plans which identify & target internal goals.
(a) Project
(b) Marketing
(c) Strategic
(d) Operational
Answer:
(c) Strategic

48. They are statement of expected revenue or losses of the organisation,
(a) Programme
(b) Budget
(c) Policies
(d) Strategy
Answer:
(b) Budget

49. Who defines a strategy as “adaption of courses of action & allocation of resources necessary to carry out these goals”.
(a) Anthony
(b) George R. Terry
(c) Faraday
(d) Chandler
Answer:
(d) Chandler

50. ………………… Premises are those that are largely decided by company management.
(a) Controllable
(b) Uncontrollable
(c) Semi controllable
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Controllable

51. …………….. is a must to arrive at a decision.
(a) Evaluation of Alternatives
(b) Determining Alternative Courses
(c) Premising
(d) Objective
Answer:
(a) Evaluation of Alternatives

52. It means identifying & defining the condition in future which will help in planning.
(a) Objective
(b) Controlling
(c) Forecasting
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Forecasting

53. What are not the advantages of forecasting.
(a) It helps the Management to arrive at correct decision
(b) It helps the Management to use better techniques
(c) It. increases the guess-work
(d) It facilitates team spirit in organization.
Answer:
(c) It increases the guess-work

54. Who referred to Planning as “synthesis of various forecasts”.
(a) Fayol
(b) Chandler
(c) George R. Terry
(d) Anthony
Answer:
(a) Fayol

55. Discovery of limiting factors is important to the process of
(a) Identifying
(b) Decision making
(c) Diagnosing
(d) Managing
Answer:
(b) Decision making

56. Research techniques currently used in decision making is-
(a) Forecasting
(b) Standard costing
(c) Capital budgeting
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

57. While planning for expansion, might be the limiting factor.
(a) Availability of finance
(b) Availability of trained staff
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

58. Example of decision making by group is:
(a) Conferences
(b) Committees
(c) Office meeting
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

59. Disadvantage of decision making by groups:
(a) Improves the quality of decisions
(b) Many member evade their individual responsibility
(c) It is a time-consuming affair
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) & (c)

60. Quality of Decisions will be better if the variables are:
(a) Unquantifiable
(b) Ambiguous
(c) Certain
(d) Quantifiable
Answer:
(d) Quantifiable

61. Which qualities should a person possess to succeed in planning.
(a) Reflective thinking
(b) Imagination
(c) Farsightedness
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

62. Strategies show a direction.
(a) Undefined
(b) Well defined
(c) Unified
(d) Parallel
Answer:
(c) Unified

63. ………………… refers to outline of plans of work to be carried out in a pfopei sequence.
(a) Programme
(b) Budget
(c) Organising
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Programme

64. Programme is a complex structure of:
(a) Rules
(b) Budget
(c) Methods
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

65. Budget may be expressed in:
(a) Non-materials
(b) Money
(c) Numerical expression
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) & (c)

66. These are business plans that have changes in perception and branding as their primary goal.
(a) Marketing
(b) Project
(c) Operational
(d) Strategic
Answer:
(a) Marketing

67. Management is a process.
(a) Static
(b) Dynamic
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Dynamic

68. Which of these contribute to accomplishment of group goals.
(a) Staffing
(b) Direction
(c) Control
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

69. After plans are set, the final step to give them meaning is to numberise them by.
(a) Procedures
(b) Budget
(c) Planning
(d) Rules
Answer:
(b) Budget

70. Forecasts may be:
(a) Comprehensive
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited
(d) Both(a) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both(a) & (c)

71. Possibility of error cannot be completely eliminated from
(a) Planning
(b) Forecasts
(c) Organising
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

72. Which one of the following reflects the belief and philosophy of management in an organisation?
(a) Vision
(b) Mission
(c) Objectives
(d) Goals.
Answer:
(b) The mission of a business is the fundamental unique purpose that sets it apart from other enterprises of its type and identifies the scope of its operations in terms of product and market. The mission is a general enduring statement of the intent of business. It reflects the belief and philosophy of management.

73. In an organisation, policymaking is the function of:
(a) Management
(b) Administration
(c) Personnel Management
(d) Government.
Answer:
(b) In an organisation, admInistration is concerned with policy-making whereas management with policy implementation.

74. ………………… is a primary function.
(a) Controlling
(b) Planning
(c) Co-ordination
(d) Organisation.
Answer:
(b) Planning is an all-pervasive and a primary funchon of management. No manager, irrespective of the position In the organisation can do without it. However, planning ¡s subject to certain limitations and proper understanding of them will go a long way in improving efficiency of planning.

75. Which one of the following deals with future and involves forecasting?
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Controlling
(d) Leadership
Answer:
(a) Planning deals with future and involves forecasting. A manager does not plan about the past though in his planning for future he is also guided by past performance. Since planning relates activities of the enterprise to its future environment, it requires projecting future activities of the organisation.

76. Premises signify …………….. within which planning will take place.
(a) Planning assumptions
(b) Planning deviations
(c) Planning resources
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Premises signify planning assumptions within which planning will take place.

77. Which one of the following is the first and primary step in the planning process?
(a) Premising,
(b) Determining alternative courses,
(c) Evaluating alternatives
(d) Establishing objectives.
Answer:
(d) The first and primary step in planning process is the establishment of planning objectives or goals. Definite objectives, in fact, speak categorically about what is to be done, where to place the initial emphasis and things to be accomplished by the network of policies, procedures, budgets and programmes, the lack of which would invariably result in either faulty or ineffective planning.

78. Planning may call for a change in the existing –
(a) Accounting Concepts
(b) Government Mandates
(c) Governance Standards
(d) Procedures and Policies.
Answer:
(d) Procedures, rules and policies once established are difficult to change. But on the other hand, planning may call for a change in the existing procedures and policies.

79. Budget preparation is primarily a planning process whereas its administration is a part of –
(a) Implementation
(b) Controlling
(c) Payments
(d) Approval process.
Answer:
(b) Budget is an important control device. It is often thought of in connection with controlling alone. However, budget-making is primarily a planning process whereas its administration is a part of controlling.

80. Which of the following is incorrect about strategy?
(a) It helps in competitive market
(b) It is innovative
(c) It is creative
(d) It gives long-term process guarantee.
Answer:
(d) Strategy helps us to enter in the competitive market, it is innovative, it is creative but it doesn’t give guarantee for long-term process as in long-term strategy requires changes with change in conditions.

81. ………………… is a single-use plan containing expected results is numerical terms.
(a) Procedures
(b) Methods
(c) Rules
(d) Budget.
Answer:
(d) Budget is a single-use plan containing expected results in numerical terms. They are statements of expected revenue or losses of the organisation in numerical terms.

82. It is the general enduring statement of the extent of business –
(a) Objectives
(b) Policies
(c) Mission
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Mission is a general enduring statement of the intent of business. It reflects the belief and philosophy of management. It is the unique purpose that sets if apart from other enterprises and identifies the scope of its operations.

83. Discovery of is important to the process of decision making.
(a) Unlimited factors
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Integrity
(d) Limited factors.
Answer:
(d) Discovery of Limited factor is important to the process of decision making, that its management should limit itself to the discovery of those key factors which are critical or strategic to the decision involved.

84. “Planning reconcile their resources opportunities” is given by –
(a) Chester I Barnard
(b) George R Terry
(c) Philip Kotler
(d) Peter. F. Drucker
Answer:
(c) According to Philip Kotler: “Planning means deciding in the present what to do in the future. It is the process whereby companies reconcile their resources with their objectives and opportunities”.

85. Strategy was primarily used in:
(a) Military Science
(b) Practical Science
(c) Political Science
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Strategy is a term very popular in military science. It refers to meeting the enemy under conditions advantageous to one’s own.

86. Which of the following is a single-use plan containing expected results in numerical terms?
(a) Budget
(b) Policies
(c) Procedures
(d) Rules.
Answer:
(a) Budget is a single-use plan. They are statements of expected revenue or losses of the organisation in numerical terms.

87. The process of decision making involves several steps that can be divided into distinct categories. The solution phase involves
(a) Acquiring information
(b) Diagnosing the factors affecting the problem or opportunity
(c) Identifying a problem or opportunity
(d) Implementing the decided course of action.
Answer:
(d) The process of decision making involves several steps:

  • Acquiring Information about the problems.
  • Identifying a problem or opportunity.
  • Diagnosing the factors affecting the problem or opportunity.
  • Discovery of Alternatives.
  • Analysis and Evaluation of Alternatives.
  • Selection of the Best Alternatives.

So, the solution phase involves implementing the decided course of action.

88. Decisions that have long-term perspectives of two to five years and affect the entire organisation are:
(a) Programmed decisions
(b) Tactical decisions
(c) Strategic decisions
(d) Operational decisions.
Answer:
(c) Strategic decisions have long term perspective of two to five years and affect the entire organisation.

89. In the organisation ………………. has both short term and long term:
(a) Vision
(b) Mission
(c) Objective
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) The first important task of planning is to lay down objectives or goals. Objectives represent the end towards which not only planning but all other activities of management are directed. Objectives can be individualistic or collective: Short term or long term, tangible or intangible, general or specific.

90. What is the main function of management?
(a) Planning
(b) Organizing
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(a) Planning is an all-pervasive and fundamental function of management. All other functions of organizing, staffing, directing and controlling must reflect planning function of management. Thus, planning is the main function of management.

91. It involves looking ahead and projecting the future course of events:
(a) Organizing
(b) Forecasting
(c) Controlling
(d) Co-ordination
Answer:
(b) Forecasting may be defined as analysis and interpretation of the future conditions in relation to operation of the enterprise. It involves looking ahead and projecting the future course of events.

92. Out of the given option, the final step in the decision-making process is:
(a) Choosing best alternatives among a set of alternatives ‘
(b) Identifying problems
(c) Resolving problems
(d) Deciding alternatives for a problem.
Answer:
(c) The final step in the decision-making process is resolving problem and thereby communicating of decisions and its acceptance by the organísatiofl after identifying the problem, deciding alternatives for problems, choosing best alternative among a set of alternatives.

93. By Planning premises we refer to:
(a) Guide to thinking in decision making
(b) A single operation of one particular step and specifies how this step is to be followed.
(c) The exact manner in which a particular activity is to be done
(d) The forecasting and assumption about the future.
Answer:
(d) Planning premises signifies planning assumptions or future setting within which planning will take place. The very nature of planning requires that some assumptions be made regarding future happenings.

94. When the availability of each alternative and its outcomes are associated with probability estimates, decisions are being made under a condition of:
(a) Uncertainty
(b) Risk
(c) Certainty
(d) Conflict.
Answer:
(c) The final step in the decision-making process is resolving problem and thereby communicating of decisions and its acceptance by the organisation after identifying the problem, deciding alternatives for problems, choosing best alternative among a set of alternatives.

95. The most appropriate definition of a “Procedure” is:
(a) It suggests the exact manner in which a particular activity is to be done.
(b) It signifies some kind of regulation, positive or negative and permits no discretion in its application.
(c) It is a single-use plan containing expected results in numerical terms
(d) It involves a single broad guideline for decision making.
Answer:
(d) Planning premises signifies planning assumptions or future settings within which planning will take place. The very nature of planning requires that some assumptions be made regarding future happenings.

96. Which of the following is not considered to be a part of the planning function of a manager?
(a) Mapping out strategy
(b) Motivating
(c) Making decisions
(d) Defining goals
Answer:

97. When the availability of each alternative arid its outcomes are associated with probability estimates, decisions are being made under a condition
(a) Uncertainty
(b) Risk
(c) Certainty
(d) Conflict.
Answer:
(b) Risk: Most of the managerial decisions are made under risk conditions, that is, some information is available but it is insufficient to answer all questions about the outcomes, so a decision-maker has to make probability estimates of these outcomes.

98. The most appropriate definition of a procedure M is:
(a) It suggests the exact manner In which a particular activity is to be done.
(b) It signifies some kind of regulation, positive or negative and permits no discretion in its application.
(c) It is a single-use plan containing expected results in numerical terms
(d) It involves a single broad guideline for decision making.
Answer:
(a) Procedure suggest the exact manner in which a particular activity is to be done. It specifies the chronological sequence for handling future activities.

99. Which of the following is not considered to be a part of the planning function of a manager?
(a) Mapping out strategy
(b) Motivating
(c) Making decisions
(d) Defining goals
Answer:
(b) Planning function includes:

  • Setting missions
  • Laying objectives
  • Mapping policies, procedures, methods & rules
  • Budgets
  • Programme
  • Mapping Strategies

Thus, motivating is not a function of planning, it is a function of directing.

100. Which of the following is not an advantage of Decision making by groups?
(a) Decision making by group provides training to employees.
(b) Decision making by group is a time-consuming process.
(c) Decision made by group is widely accepted.
(d) Decision making by group improves the quality of decision making.
Answer:
(b) Decision-making by groups is not a rare thing observed in business operations. Board meetings, committees, staff meetings and conferences provide examples of decisions-making by groups.

If properly handled, decision-making by groups or committees offers the following advantages:

  • It improves quality of the decision since different viewpoints and opinions are reflected in it.
  • Coordination of departmental activities through meetings of their respective heads become easier.
  • Group decision-making provides opportunity for participation by individuals representing different interests and thus, it boosts their morale and motivates them for a wholehearted cooperation in carrying out the decisions.
  • It provides opportunity for the training of employees and their development as future decision-makers.

101. Which of the following suggests the exact manner in which a particular activity is to be done?
(a) Procedures
(b) Budget
(c) Policies
(d) Strategy.
Answer:
(a) Procedures suggest the exact manner in which a particular activity is to be done. It specifies the chronological sequence for handling future activities. An enterprise, for example, may have promotion policy based on seniority. To implement this policy, procedures must be established for calculating seniority of employees and granting them actual promotions. It is apparent, procedures are guide to actions.

102. The management function of control is largely a matter of …………. .
(a) Resolving conflicts
(b) Determining what needs to be done
(c) Enforcing rules for employees
(d) Monitoring to see that tasks are accomplished
Answer:
(d) Management function of control seeks to check the performance against some predetermined standard or projected course of action established through planning process. Though planning affects all other functions of management, the unique feature of control is that it cannot exist without planning.

103. Which of the following best define the term planning:
(a) Integrated process to formulate the plans.
(b) Evaluate alternatives
(c) Devise the tools to manage an organisation
(d) Deciding upon the future course of actions to achieve the objectives of an organisation.
Answer:
(d) Planning means deciding upon the future course of actions to achieve the objectives of organisation.

104. Functions of administration are:
(a) Executive and governing
(b) Policymaking and implementation
(c) Legislative and determinative
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Planning / Functions of administration are legislative and determinative.

105. Which one of the following control techniques is associated with recording of expenses and comparing them with the budgeted cost?
(a) Internal Audit
(b) Standard costing
(c) Break-even analysis
(d) Statistical control
Answer:
(b) Standard costing is one of the control techniques which is associated with recording of expenses and comparing them with budgeted cost.

106. Premises signify ………………….. within which planning will take place.
(a) Planning assumptions
(b) Planning deviations
(c) Planning resources
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Planning will takes place in planning assumption signify by premises.

107. How many principles of management have been suggested by Henry Fayol?
(a) 10
(b)14
(c) 12
(d) 16
Answer:
(b) There are 14 principles of Management suggested by Henry Fayol.

108. Which of the following is the first and primary step in the planning process?
(a) Premising
(b) Determining
(c) Evaluating alternatives
(d) Establishing objectives
Answer:
(d) Planning process is very tedious process and it involves so many steps and its first step is to set objectives i.e. what to achieve. Without objective, nothing can be achieved by organisation. So, setting goals is the Primary Step of Planning Process.

109. Which one of the following method is used frequently by an organisation to decide its strategic goals?
(a) Group discussion
(b) Brainstorming
(c) Interview
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Brain Storming: Brainstorming is a group creativity technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its members. Thus, option (b) is correct answer.

110. The term strategy is derived from:
(a) Strategos
(b) Strata
(c) Strategy
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Strategy is derived from a Greek word Strategos comprising two words Stratos + ago; respectively meaning army and moving or guiding.

111. Planning is a:
(a) One time process
(b) Continuous process
(c) Once in 10-year process
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b)Planning is a continúous process of management.

112. Planning is
(a) Fixed
(b) Flexible
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Planning is flexible as it can be changed in accordance to current situation and can be redrafted.

113. Planning may call for a change in the existing —
(a) Accounting Concepts
(b) Government Mandates
(c) Governance Standards
(d) Procedure and Policies
Answer:
(d) Planning may call for a change in the existing ‘Procedure and Policies’ of the organisation because all other three only affect the planning already done.

114. Strategic plans are required for plans?
(a) Long Range
(b) Short Range
(c) Medium Range
(d) All
Answer:
(a) Strategic plans are detailed action steps laid out to achieve strategic goals. These have a time horizon 5 years and above. These plans often include their mission and goals as these are the basis for action steps.

115. Actual selection of course of action from among the alternative?
(a) Decision Making
(b) Forecasting
(c) Premises
(d) Budgeting
Answer:
(a) Decision making signifies actual selection of a course of action from among a number of alternatives. It is so important to the job of managing that management is sometimes described as consisting essentially of the decision making process.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Controlling – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Controlling – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Introduction:
Koontz and O’Donnell gave the following definition, “The managerial control implies the measurement of accomplishment against the standards and the correction of deviation to assure attainment of objectives according to plans.”

Concept of Controlling:
“Control is the process of bringing about conformity of performance with planned action.” ~ Dale Henning

  • In common parlance, the word control means to check or verify, to regulate or to curb or to restrain.
  • Controlling is to ensure that the actions move in accordance with the plans.
  • Its main purpose is to check the deviations and take corrective action that is necessary.
  • Like the planning function, controlling is also an all-pervasive function and performed at all the levels in the organization.
  • Control is directly related to planning.
  • Control depends and contributes to all other functions of management.
  • Remedial action of controlling may result in alteration of plans, change in the organizational structure, modification in the staffing process, or change in the process and techniques of direction.

Characteristics of Control:
1. It is forward-looking:

  • A manager can take corrective action only on matters relating to future events.
  • Whatever has been done in the past cannot be controlled.
  • It is usually preventive as it tends to minimize losses and wastages.
  • A manager applies the advantages of previous experience to future conditions.

2. It is a continuous activity:
There should always be a cross-check or control between actual and planned performance. So that the deviations can be corrected in time.

3. Purpose of controlling is positive:

  • It plays a positive role for both the organization and the individual.
  • Control on the individual implies checking their activities so that the common goals are accomplished.
  • Control on the organization means to ensure that only planned activities take place.
  • At individual level the purpose of control is to make individuals give up a part of their independence so that common goals of objectives may be accomplished.

4. Controlling exist at every level of management activity :
It is the function of every manager – from chairman of BOD to first-line supervisor. Top management is involved in exercising strategic control, middle management concentrates on tactical control and operational control is the responsibility of supervisory management.

Importance of Control:
1. Helps in decentralizing authority: It helps the management to speed up the process of decision making without losing their control.

2. Increases managerial ability: It helps the managers to react prudently towards situations with risk and uncertainty; especially in areas of customer demand, government regulations by developing control system managers are better able to monitor specific activities and react quickly to significant changes in the environment. This facilitates organization viability in the face of environmental uncertainty of change.

3. Ensures optimum use of valuable resources: Controlling is necessary to ensure optimum utilization so that the results are achieved with least cost and few untoward consequences.

4. Facilitates coordination: Control and coordination are co-extensive. Where control is required to achieve the goals it is only through coordinated activities that one can make it possible control pulls together all the devise and multiple threads of organized activities & weave them into unified system to achieve predetermined goals.

5. It structures the human behaviour:

  • Control brings orders, discipline amongst the employees and improves their outlook towards the organization.
  • It reduces diversity and brings unity in their performance.

6. Fosters organizational efficiency and effectiveness:
Efficient control system helps in achieving organizational efficiency & effectiveness by focusing on crucial areas of performance & control is related to internal & external dimensions of the organization and include:

  • fixing responsibility for performance
  • motivating people for better performance
  • effective dealing with uncertainty
  • eliminating wasteful expenditure.

7. Controlling acts as a final link in the functional chain of management activities.

Control Process
1. Establishing Standards: Standards are the criteria based on which a performance can be measured. It can be a:

  • Tangible or Specific Standard, or (e.g. – production of 200 units per day)
  • Intangible or Abstract Standard (e.g. – to be the most preferred employer)

2. Measurement of Actual Performance against the Standards:

  • The next step is to check the actual performance. This is done not just to detect a mistake but also to predict future problems.
  • In practice, for some activities standards cannot be developed and also there are some performances which are difficult to measure.
  • Performance must be measured in units similar to those in which standards are expressed.
  • Thus, the manager should only concentrate on significant deviations whenever they occur.

3. Corrective Action:

  • In case of discrepancy between actual output and planned output, some corrective action is required.
  • It can be due to controllable or uncontrollable factors. The following are important phases of corrective action:

(A) Operation Phase: it involves the following steps:

  • Thorough investigation of the cause of deviation.
  • Taking actions for correcting the situation.
  • Prompt direction for correction in accordance with the decisions.
  • Close supervision of the corrective action to ensure that it is moving in accordance with the plan and is effective.

(B) The Administrative Phase:

  • Carrying out further investigation for determining the factors that are responsible for the deviation.
  • Ascertaining whether disciplinary actions are required as per the situation. Creative planning to prevent recurrence of the situation.
  • And lastly making a plan to prevent the recurrence of the situation.

4. Follow Through:

  • The corrective action must always be checked to ensure its compliance.
  • Specific procedures must be established and the responsibility should be clearly assigned to carry out the corrective action.
  • The superior must watch whether the subordinate is applying what he had learnt in the training program to the actual work situation.

Limitation of controlling :

  • Difficulty in setting Quantitative Standards: It becomes difficult to compare any plan with actual if it is not quantitative in terms of measurement.
  • No control on external factors: There is no control over external factors (i.e. technology updates government policies, customer preferences etc.)
  • Resistance from employees: Employees may resist to control since it curbs their freedom.
  • Costly affair: Control is expensive in terms of time, effort which are costly (maybe construct the efficiency of the organisation).

Essentials of a Good Control System
1. Feedback:

  • This is the essence of controlling. Any manager responsible for controlling needs information how much effective his control is. This is the process of adjusting the future actions based upon the information about the past performance.
  • This information is known as feedback which can be formal or informal.
  • Formal feedback can be in the form of financial statements, statistical analysis etc., whereas informal feedback can be through personal contact, informal discussions, etc.
  • Even the fastest data i.e., real-time information will not result in automatic correction of deviations from plans.

2. Control should be objective: It should be definite and objective. Impartial appraisal of work performance must be done in order to make employees respond favourably, it should not be a matter of Subjective Discrimination.

3. Prompt Reporting of Deviations: Managers should be able to provide the information as soon as possible so that failures can be avoided.

4. Forward-Looking: An ideal control system should be able to detect the errors much before they occur i.e. it should be self-correcting and forward-looking. A manager should therefore structure system in a way so that deviations are predicted well in time and corrective action can be initiated before substantial deviation occurs.

5. Flexibility:
Control system should be made under a flexible plan and must be able to adapt itself to the changing business conditions. Control should remain workable under dynamic business conditions includes the failure of control system itself.

6. Organizational Suitability: Flow of control information should be consistent with organization structure employed.

7. It should be economical and easy to understand:

  • It should be cost-effective, i.e. the cost of installation and maintenance should justify its benefits. :
  • The control system must be developed keeping in mind the qualification and expertise of the executives who have to use it.
  • Thus complex charts, statistical analysis may not serve as a good control device unless its meaning is properly understood by such executives.

8. Strategic point control: –

  • Management should not try to control all factors.
  • More importance must be given to more strategic areas and deviations so that management is not involved with less important problems.
  • Efficient control system discriminates between important & unimportant factors and through it makes the system more effective and less costly.

9. Control should suggest corrective actions: Effective control system must indicate deviations and suggest timely actions to be taken.

10. Control should be worker focused: Control is required on people Handing material resources for producing certain work results. This enables the management to make the people directly accountable. It results in higher productivity. Control system should be worker focused rather than the work or Job oriented one.

11. Simple to understand: While launching a control system, it must notify that it should be very efficient as well as simple so that its benefits and drawbacks are easily understandable.

Relationship between Planning and Controlling
1. Planning is looking ahead whereas controlling is looking back, since planning involves deciding in advance about the course of action to be taken in future and controlling is checking whether plans are properly implemented, hence backwards-looking.

2. Planning is done on the basis of past experience and then future course of action is decided.

3. Controlling attempts to improve work performance in future.

4. Koontz, O’Donnell and Weihrich remark, “Every objective, every goal of many planning programmes, every policy, every procedure and every budget become standards against which actual or expected performance might be measured.”

5. Controlling is a postmortem of events which have already taken place.

Traditional Control Techniques:
1. Budgetary Control:

Budget refers to a statement of anticipated inflows and expected outflows expressed numerically.

ICMA of England & Wales defines it as – “a financial and/or qualitative statement prepared prior to a defined period of time of the policy to be pushed during that period for the purpose of attaining a good objective.”

ICMA of England & Wales defines budgetary control as “the establishment of objectives relating to the responsibilities of executives to the requirements of a policy and the continuous comparison of actual with budgeted results, either to secure by individual action the objective of that policy or to provide a basis for its revision.”

(d) It involves the following steps:

  • Determination of objectives to be achieved like higher profits, better financial position, etc.
  • Noting the steps necessary to achieve the objectives.
  • Translating the course of action into monetary terms.
  • Constant comparison of the actual performance with the budgeted performance.

(e) Types of Budgets:

  • Sales budget
  • Production budget
  • Purchase budget
  • Capital expenditure
  • Administrative budget expenses
  • Research and Development Budget
  • Cash budget

Master budget

  • Master budget is a budget which combines all other budgets in a summary form.
  • The various functional budgets are the components of Master Budget.

Summary plan is divided into:

  • forecast income statement
  • forecast balance sheet

(f) Purposes of Budgeting:
According to Koontz and O’ Donnel, “Budget correlates planning and allows authority to be delegated without loss of control.”

Means of coordination: Budgeting is also used for coordinating the activities of various divisions of a business.

To control cost: Budgets help the management to know separately the cost of each element and exercise effective control over it.

To increase efficiency: When a production budget is separately prepared, progress and efficiency of production can be determined.

To encourage research and development: Thorough analysis of deviations particularly of key factors provide a sound basis for research and development.

To develop an organised procedure for planning: Budget requires planning and also acts as an instrument for planning. It involves forecasting or projecting a future course of action.

Basis for control: Budget lays down objectives, goals and standards of the company in objective terms. It helps in analysing the deviations, and also suggest corrective actions.

To determine capital requirements: Budget helps in computing financial flows at different levels of all operations in a company.

To increase utility of cost records: Budget involves considerable use of cost records, thus increasing their utility. A master budget is frequently prepared to combine all other budget in a summary form.

(g) Benefits of Budgeting:

  • It helps the management to make comparisons between diverse things by converting them into common numerical terms.
  • Wastage and losses are avoided.
  • The excess expenditure can be scrutinized before it is incurred.
  • Management by exception is possible.
  • Targets for-profits are set up and then corrective action is taken for any deviation. Thus, it ensures profit planning.
  • Standard against which their performance is supposed to be judged is well known.
  • Lesser overlapping and nothing will be left undone.
  • If budgets are based on measured dynamism, firm would be able to grow at a faster rate.

2. Standard Costing:

  • Expenses related with every activity are recorded and then compared with budgeted costs.
  • Suitable action is taken where any deviations are found.

3. Ratio Analysis:

  • Ratio analysis is the relationship between various elements of financial statements expressed in mathematical terms.
  • It helps to understand the profitability,^liquidity and solvency of a firm.

4. Statistical Control: In order to find out the. .cause of deviations comparison of various ratios, averages and percentages of statistical data are undertaken. Statistical reports compiled after the analysis are presented in the forms of charts or graphs which helps in visualizing the trends and weaknesses in the respective areas of operation and necessary remedial steps are suggested.

5. Breakeven Analysis:

  • It is a point of no-profit no-loss
  • It acts as a basis for future performance
  • It determines the minimum level where the firm should operate

6. Internal Audit:

  • It refers to the regular and independent appraisal of the accounting, financial and other operations of a business.
  • It is done by the staff generally called as internal auditors.
  • But this method is limited to the integrity of accounts and assets only Modern Control Techniques / Non-Traditional Techniques.

1. Zero Base Budgeting: This technique was introduced by Peter Pyhrr of US in 1970. The following are the steps under this approach:

  • The managers at all the levels have to define the objectives of each programme of activity.
  • It requires additional time and effort during its initial year.
  • They then prepare the alternative spending plan known as decision.

packages which are:

  • One involving expenditure of (say) 20% below the present level of expenditure or the minimum expenditure which will permit the programme to continue meaningfully.
  • another package indicating resources in terms of men, materials and money which will be needed to continue at the present level of performance and objectives.
  • and a third package indicating what could be achieved, if additional funds were available to the extent (of say) 10% or more. The executives at the next higher level have to consolidate these decision packages and rank them in order of priorities. This is an effective technique for continuous evaluation of all the activities.

2. Network Analysis:
1. Critical Path Method (CPM):

  • Developed by Walker of Dupont.
  • Under this technique, a project is broken into different activities and their relationship is determined.
  • These relationships are shown with the help of a network diagram. This network can be used for the optimum use resources and time.
  • This approach is based on the assumption that the time taken by an activity is proportional to the magnitude of resources allocated to them.

(e) This approach has the following advantages:

  • It identifies critical areas and pays more attention to these areas:
  • Wastage of time, money and energy is avoided.
  • Achievement of clearly defined project objectives is made easy.
  • Provide an analytical approach to the ‘achievement o project objectives which are clearly defined.

2. Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT):

  • It helps in planning, monitoring and controlling of projects.
  • It is directed towards dynamic management of projects.
  • It uses probability and linear programming for planning the activities.
  • Probability helps to estimate the timing of various activities, whereas linear programming is used to maximize the profit of various activities.
  • PERT technique is used in construction of ships, buildings etc.

It specifies techniques and procedures to assist project manager in:-

  • PlannIng schedules and costs.
  • Determining time and cost status,
  • Forecasting manpower skill requirements,
  • Predicting schedule slippages and cost overruns,
  • Developing alternate time-cost plans,
  • Allocating resources among tasks.
Management Audit financial Audit
1. It looks into the past, present and future. It is concerned with verification and confirmation of current financial data.
2. Covers areas of managing on asset potential, capacity utilization, executive evaluatlon etc. it is mainly concerned with financial records and results of company’s operation for the year.
3. Rights and çiuties are not clearly defined: Clearly defined rights and duties of the company auditors.
4. Maybe undertaken by the management itself. It is conducted by an independent qualified auditor.

Appraisal Areas Under Management Audit:
The American Institute of Management has identified 10 categories consists of ten categories of appraisal areas:
1. Economic Function: This Indudes appraising the public value of the company in relation to different groups like consumers, employees, etc.

2. Corporate Structure: The effectiveness of the corporate structure appraised.

3. Health of Earnings: It determines the extent to which the company earning profits.

4. Service to Shareholders: The company’s service to the shareholder in terms of minimum risk, maximum return etc. is determined.

5. Research and Development: This Is evaluated In terms of the participation by the company in developing research policies and developing new and economical ways of doing things.

6. DIrectorate Analysis: This involves the evaluation of

  • The quality of each director and his contribution to the company.
  • The extent to which directors work as a team, and
  • Whether they act as a trustee for the organization.

7. FIscal Policies: This means appraising the effective utilization of company’s funds.

8. Production Efficiency: It Includes the appraisal of material and machines.

9. Sales Vigour: It evaluates the extent to which sales have been realized, development of sales personnel and the extent to which present sales policies will help the mçagement to realize future sales potential.

10. Executive Evaluation: The quality of executives and their management philosophy should be evaluated separately. Three personal qualities essential for business leaders are ability, industry and integrity.

Relationship between planning and controlling:
these are balled the siamese twins of management. planning facilitates controlling and controlling facilitates planning

11. Planning Is looking ahead and controlling is looking back:
critical evaluation:
Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back the view of planning and controlling expressed in the statement though true, is incomplete. Planning is no doubt a forward-looking activity as it involves deciding In advance the organization’s objectives, strategies, major plans, policies & programmes and forecasting the future events as also likely their impact on the organization.

Controlling is backwards-looking activity as it involves checking whether the plans are properly implemented, their results achieved and the deviations corrected.
However, description of the processes and purposes of planning and controlling though correct, is certainly not complete, planning is not merely forward-looking as it is also based on past experiences, controlling is not merely a looking back exercise. By identifying deviations and initiating corrective steps, controlling attempts to improve performance in future. The whole exercise of looking back is meant to improve work performance in future.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. A manager can control the past as well as take action for future.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true, partly false
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) False

2. Which function involves constant revision and analysis of standards resulting from deviations?
(a) Controlling
(b) Directing
(c) Organizing
(d) Planning
Answer:
(a) Controlling

3. Control presupposes the existence of and
(a) Policies and Procedures
(b) Objectives and Policies
(c) Goals and Plans
(d) Strategy and Goals.
Answer:
(c) Goals and Plans.

4. Control Is a function to ensure and maintain coordination throughout the organization.
(a) Wider
(b) Vital
(c) One-step
(d) Continuous
Answer:
(c) Goals and Plans

5. ……………….. and are two important phases under corrective action.
(a) Operation and administrative
(b) Establishing goals and standards
(c) Measurement of performance and their comparison
(d) Measurement of. performance and follow-through
Answer:
(a) Operation and administrative

6. Ideal control is self-correcting and forward-looking.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true partly false
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

7. The traditional control techniques are:
(a) Budgetary Control and CPM
(b) PERT and CPM
(c) Zero Base Budgeting and Management Audit
(d) Budgetary Control and Standard Costing
Answer:
(d) Budgetary Control and Standard Costing.

8. provides the yardstick for measurement of performance essential for effective control.
(a) Standard Costing
(b) Internal Audit
(c) Budgetary Control
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Budgetary Control.

9. Efficient control system discriminates between important and unimportant activities.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true partly false
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

10. Traditional control focuses on scientific methods whereas non-traditional control are based more on non-scientific methods.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true partly false
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) False.

11. Through analysis of provide a sound Isis for research and development.
(a) Budgeted goals
(b) Key factors
(c) Production costs
(d) Plans
Answer:
(b) Key factors.

12. …………………… provides basis for collective actions to be taken to improve future performance.
(a) Internal Audit
(b) Standard Costing
(c) Break-Even Analysis
(d) Statistical Control
Answer:
(c) Break-Even Analysis

13. Zero base budgeting can be used more meaningfully In those areas where a direct relationship exists between the expenditure on an activity and its benefits to the enterprise.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true partly false
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

14. Under method project is broken down into different activities.
(a) Critical Path Method
(b) Project evaluation and review technique
(c) Zero Base Budgeting
(d) Management Audit
Answer:
(a) Critical Path Method

15. provides framework for treating a wide range of project management problems.
(a) Critical Path Method
(b) Zero Base Budgeting.
(c) Project evaluation and review technique
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Project evaluation and review technique

16. and are called the siamese twins of management.
(a) Planning and Organizing
(b) Co-ordination and Co-operation
(c) Directing and Controlling
(d) Planning and Controlling
Answer:
(d) Planning and Controlling.

17. Which one is the final link in the functional chain of management activities.
(a) Direction
(b) Planning
(c) Controlling
(d) Co-ordination
Answer:
(c) Controlling

18. Which one presupposes the existence of goal and plans
(a) Planning & Controlling
(b) Planning
(c) Organisation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

19. Amongst an of these which one is not a characteristic of controlling
(a) Controlling is forward-looking
(b) Controlling is positive
(c) Controlling is negative
(d) Contro
Answer:
(c) Controlling is negative.

20. Control is a one-step process.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
Answer:
(a) True

21. Which of these characteristics involves actual and planned performance.
(a) Continuous activity
(b) Forward-looking
(c) Positives
(d) Management at every level.
Answer:
(a) Continuous activity

22. Controlling serves a positive purpose at this level:
(a) Organizational level
(b) Individual level
(c) Both (a) &( b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) &( b)

23. Which management should go in for decentralization authority.
(a) Middle
(b) Low
(c) Top
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(c) Top

24. Which is largely geared towards highlighting needed behaviour and discouraging unwanted behaviour.
(a) Organisation
(b) Planning
(c) Direction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these.

25. …………………… are important process of management,
(a) Direction
(b) Controlling
(c) Coordination
(d) Planning.
Answer:
(c) Coordination

26. In the backwards-looking activity which is not involved,
(a) Forecasting the future
(b) Deviation
(c) Planning
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Forecasting the future

27. In the forward-looking activity which is not involved,
(a) Deviations are corrected
(b) Planning
(c) Direction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Deviations are corrected.

28. Which function improves work performance in future?
(a) Planning
(b) Direction
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

29. Function which is named, as forward-looking or looking back,
(a) Planning
(b) Organization
(c) Direction
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling.

30. Planning and Controlling ……………………….. each other.
(a) Do not complete
(b) Substitute
(c) Reinforce
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Reinforce

31. Zero base budgeting was first introduced by:
(a) Peter Players
(b) Koontz
(c) O Donnell
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Peter Players

32. Zero base budgeting was introduced in which year.
(a) 1980
(b) 1970
(c) 1956
(d) 1979
Answer:
(b) 1970

33. Which network technique for management control was developed by Walker of Despot to reduce time-periodic maintenance.
(a) PERT
(b) Critical path method
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Critical path method

34. Critical path method relation are shown with the help of diagram known as:
(a) Network diagram
(b) Line diagram
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Flow chart
Answer:
(a) Network diagram

35. PERT involves basic network technique which includes:
(a) Planning
(b) Monitoring
(c) Controlling
(d) Both (a ) &(b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a ) &(b)

36. PERT uses ……………. and …………….. for planning and controlling the activities.
(a) Probability
(b) Linear programming
(c) Both (a) &(b)
(d) Planning.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) &(b).

37. Statutory audit is known as:
(a) Standard Audit
(b) Financial Audit
(c) InternalAudit
(d) Management Audit.
Answer:
(b) Financial Audit.

38. Which audit looks towards the past, present and future:
(a) Financial Audit
(b) Management Audit
(c) Internal Audit
(d) Standard Audit
Answer:
(b) Management Audit

39. Which audit is largely concerned with financial records and results of company:
(a) Standard Audit
(b) Management Audit
(c) Financial Audit
(d) Internal Audit
Answer:
(c) Financial Audit

40. The full form of AIM.
(a) American Institute of Management
(b) Accounting Institute of Management
(c) Audit Institute of Management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) American Institute of Management

41 .Which one is not an appraisal area of Management Audit.
(a) Economic Function
(b) Basis for Control
(c) Health of Earning
(d) Sales Figures Management
Answer:
(b) Basis for Control

42. Exercising control over day-to-day operation of the enterprises for the purpose of executing budget is known as:
(a) Standard Costing
(b) Budgetary Control
(c) Internal Audit
(d) Network Analysis.
Answer:
(b) Budgetary Control

43. This technique helps in finding out the activ ity of profitable:
(a) Standard Costing
(b) Budgetary Control
(c) Statistical Control
(d) Internal Audit
Answer:
(a) Standard Costing.

44. Which analysis is a point of no profit no loss.
(a) Network Analysis
(b) Break Even
(c) Financial Ratio
(d) Standard Costing
Answer:
(b) Break Even.

45. Which one is not an essential of good Control System.
(a) Forward looking
(b) Feedback
(c) Corrective action
(d) Flexible.
Answer:
(c) Corrective action.

46. Which one of these is not a traditional method of controlling,
(a) Budgetary Control
(b) Standard costing
(c) Merit-Rating
(d) Break-even analysis
Answer:
(c) Controlling is to ensure that the actions move in accordance with the plans. A variety of tools and techniques have been developed and used for the years for purposes of managerial control. Some of these techniques are termed as traditional and others as modern. The main traditional control devices are:

  • Budgetary Control
  • Standard Costing
  • Financial Ratio Analysis
  • Internal Audit
  • Break-even Analysis
  • Statistical Control.

Thus, Merit Rating is not a traditional method of controlling.

47. Which one of the following is not correct about control?
(a) Control is forward looking
(b) Control suggests corrective actions
(c) Control is one time activity
(d) Control is exercised as per organisational authority.
Answer:
(c) The main characteristics of controlling are:

  • Controlling is forward looking.
  • Controlling exists at every management level.
  • Controlling is a continuous activity.
  • Controlling suggests corrective action.
  • Control is exercised as per organisational authority.

Thus, control is not a one time activity.

48. Which one of the following is considered as non-traditional control technique?
(a) Internal audit
(b) Break-even analysis
(c) Zero-base budgeting
(d) Financial ratio analysis
Answer:
(c) Traditional devices focus on non-scientific methods, whereas non-traditional devices are based on more of scientific methods and are more accurate. Some of non-traditional (modem) control devices are:

  • Zero base budgeting
  • Network analysis
  • CPM- Critical Path Method
  • PERT- Programme Evaluation and Review Technique.
  • Management Audit.

49. Which one of the following is known as technique of controlling?
(a) Margin of safety
(b) Margin of Contribution
(c) Break-even analysis
(d) P/v Ratio.
Answer:
(c) Various techniques of controlling are:
Traditional

  • Budgetary Control
  • Standard Costing
  • Financial Ratio Analysis
  • Internal Audit
  • Break-Even Analysis
  • Statistical Control Non Traditional
  • Zero Base Budgeting
  • Network Analysis
  • CPM- Critical Path Method
  • PERT- Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
  • Management Audit.

50. In which country the zero base budgeting was first evolved?
(a) Japan
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Zero base budgeting is a new approach to budgeting which was first introduced by Peter Pyhrr in 1970 in the United States. It is defined as an operative planning and budgeting process. Which requires each manager to justify his entire budget in detail from scratch and shifts the burden of proof to each manager to justify why he should spend any money at all.

51. The concept of ‘zero base budgeting’ was introduced in 1970 by:
(a) Joseph L. Massie
(b) Lester R. Bittel
(c) Peter Pyhrr
(d) Peter F. Drucker.
Answer:
(c) Zero base budgeting is a new approach to budgeting and it was first introduced by Peter Pyhrr in 1970 in the United States. It is defined as an operative planning and budgeting process which requires each manager to justify his entire budget in detail from scratch and shifts the burden of proof of each manager to justify why he should spend any money at all.

52. Which one of the following is called the Siamese twins of management?
(a) Planning and organizing
(b) Co-ordination and co-operation
(c) Directing and controlling
(d) Planning and controlling.
Answer:
(d) Planning and controlling are closely linked to each other, therefore they are called Siamese twins of management. Effective planning facilitates controlling and controlling facilitates planning.

53. Which one of the following control techniques provides basis for collective actions to be taken to improve future performance?
(a) Internal audit
(b) Standard costing
(c) Break-even analysis
(d) Statistical control.
Answer:
(c) Break even Analysis is point of ‘No Profit No loss’. It can be used as a control device as it proves a basis for collective actions to be taken to improve future performance.

54. The traditional control techniques’are ………………………… .
(a) Budgetary control and CPM
(b) PERT and CPM
(c) Zero base budgeting and management audit
(d) Budgetary control and standard costing.
Answer:
(d) Traditional control techniques are:

  • Budgetary control
  • Standard Costing
  • Financial Ratio Analysis
  • Internal Audit
  • Break Even Analysis
  • Statistical Control

Thus, Budgetary Control and Management Audit are the traditional controlling techniques.

55. …………………………. is the process of adjusting future actions based upon information about past performance.
(a) Control
(b) Organisational suitability
(c) Feedback
(d) Network Analysis.
Answer:
(c) Feedback is the process of adjusting future action based upon information about the past performance. Hence option (c) is correct.

56. …………………………….. is the relation between various elements of financial statements expressed in mathematical terms.
(a) Ratio Analysis
(b) Management Audit
(c) Internal Audit
(d) PERT.
Answer:
(a) Ratio Analysis is the relation between various elements of financial statements expressed ¡n mathematical terms. it helps to understand profitability, liquidity and solvency of a firm.

57. Which network technique includes planning, monitoring and controlling?
(a) CPM
(b) Zero-Base Budgeting
(c) PERT
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique [PERT] is an important technique in the field of project management. It involves basic network technique which includes planning, monitoring and controlling of projects.

58. In which situation, control function is most required ?
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Centralisation
(c) Planning
(d) Organising
Answer:
(b) In Centralisation, the management exercises maximum control on all activities; hence, the level of control required is maximum.

59. ……………………………. and are called the Siamese twins of management.
(a) Planning and organising
(b) Co-ordination and co-operating
(c) Directing and controlling
(d) Planning and controlling.
Answer:
(d) Planning and controlling are closely linked to each other, therefore they are called Siamese twins of management. Effective planning facilitates controlling and controlling facilitates planning.

60. Orderly synchronization of group efforts, so as to provide unity of action in the pursuit of common purpose is?
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Controlling
(d) Co-ordination
Answer:
(d) Co-ordination is the orderly synchronization of group efforts so as to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose.

61. Managers always use these for performance standards during the Control process
(a) Employee opinions
(b) Standards given in books
(c) Generic performance on the basis of their intuition
(d) Goals created during the planning process.
Answer:
(d) Managers uses goals created during the planning processes for performance standards during the control process. It must be measured in units similar to those in which standards are expressed.

62. Management audit has a:
(a) Down orientation
(b) Future orientation
(c) Past orientation
(d) Top orientation.
Answer:
(c) Management Audit may be defined as the systematic and dispassionate examination, analysis and appraisal of management of overall performance. Management Audit signifies critical assessment of management of the enterprise from the broadest possible point of view. Such an audit looks to the past, to historical records of past performance. Option (c) past orientation is correct answer.

63. Zero based budgeting was first introduced in:
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) Zero Based budgeting is a new approach to budgeting which was first introduced by Peter Pyhrr in 1970 in the United States.

63. Which of the following is the correct meaning of word “Appraisal” in the context of management?
(a) Frequent guidance
(b) Unified command
(c) The act of estimating performance
(d) To illustrate.
Answer:
(c). Appraisal’ in the context of management is the act of estimating the performance.

64. A major part of the controlling function of management is to ………………. .
(a) Correct performance problems
(b) Structure an Organisation
(c) Formulate strategies
(d) Set standards.
Answer:
(a) A major part of the controlling function of management is to correct performance problems.

65. Which of the following is a single-use plan containing expected results in numerical terms?
(a) Budget
(b) Policies
(c) Procedures
(d) Rules.
Answer:
(a) A Budget is a single use plan containing expected results in numeric terms.

66. A household that cuts back, on supermarket spending and going over budget on its food budget, is using the budget tool as a (n).
(a) Planning tool
(b) Controlling tool
(c) Leading tool
(d) Organising tool.
Answer:
(b) Budgeting is one of the most important of controlling devices. Control represents the most widely known use for budgeting. Budget is used as a controlling tool commonly.

67. Zero – Base Budgeting was first introduced in:
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) China
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) Zero base budgeting was.first introduced by Peter Pyhrr in 1970 in the United States.

68. Co-ordination and Controlling exists are at:
(a) Same level
(b) Different level
(c) Intersect
(d) Siamese Twins
Answer:
(a) Controlling and co-ordination exist at same level. Control and Coordination are important processes of management. Control keeps all activities and efforts within their fixed boundaries and makes them to move toward common goal through co-ordinated activities.

69. A corn pany looks at its expenses and finds that its payment to treelancers increased significantly over the past few months, exceeding the budget by 25 percent This is an example of ……………………… .
(a) using a budget foc planning
(b) using data to confirm a budget
(C) justifying expenses with a budget
(d) usinq a budget for monitoring and controlling.
Answer:
(c) The company finds that its payment to freelancers increased exceeding the budget by 25%. This is an example of justifying expenses with the budget which altogether justice the inflow and the outflow of the company.

69. Which of the following best defines standard” in relation t0 estaiisning controls?
(a) Unbased Evaluation
(b) Parallel Association .
(c) Performance Target
(d) Rival Strategies.
Answer:
(c) Performance targets best define ‘standard’ in relation to establishing controls. Standards are the norms against which performance is measured to find out its results. This requires measuring the work in terms of control standards.

70. In general, the greater the distance between the home office of a global company and its branch, the ……………… .
(a) Less formalised the control
(b) Less automated the Control
(c) More formalised the control
(d) Control would be irrelevant.
Answer:
(a) In general, the greater the distance between the home office of a global company and its branch, the less formalised the controls as it may create problems in regulating the activities losing ultimate control over the goals and standards, of the organisation.

71. According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firms productivity is its inability to ……………….. .
(a) Utilize funds available
(b) Use government subsidy
(c) Use advanced controls
(d) Acquire and maintain human capital.
Answer:
(c) According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firm’s productivity is its inability to use advanced controls. It affects people who handle material resources for producing certain work results.

72. Pubic Investment in a company is generally in the form of:
(a) Savings Account
(b) Shares, Debentures and Deposits
(c) Purchase of goods
(d) Dividend.
Answer:
(b) Public investment in a company is generally in the form of shares, debentures and deposits which is a good source of generating funds.

73. Which Of the following defines a liquidity ratio?
(a) Revenue in relation to investment
(b) Total debt in relation to total assets
(c) Current assets in relation to current liabilities
(d) Amount of sales in relation to cost to produce.
Answer:
(c) Liquidity Ratio are the ratios that measure the ability of a company to meet its short term debt obligation. These ratios measure the ability of a company to pay off its short term liabilities when they fall due.

74. After a thorough company wide self-examination, company Y decides to set up work teams. This is an example of ………. .
(a) An external change causing an internal change
(b) An internal change causing an external change
(c) An internal change causing another internal change
(d) An external change causing another external change.
Answer:
(c) Company wide self examination is an internal change. Deciding to set up work teams is also an internal change. Therefore, such activities are internal change causing another internal change.

75. Controlling is the ………………… in the management process.
(a) Final step
(b) Low important step
(c) First step
(d) Most important step
Answer:
(a) Management process includes:

  • Planning
  • Organising
  • Staffing
  • Directing
  • Controlling

Thus, controlling follows other managerial functions. It is a continuous process and by forcing events to conform to plans, it becomes intimately connected with planning.

76. Zero Base Budgeting was first introduced in:
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) India
(d) China.
Answer:
(a) Zero based budgeting is a new approach to budgeting, which was first introduced by Peter Pyhrr in 1970 in the United States (US).

77. Controlling compares ……………………….. to see if goals are being achieved.
(a) Planned performance to standard performance
(b) Standard performance to ideal performance
(c) Actual performance to competitor performance
(d) Actual performance to planned performance.
Answer:
(a) Control is not a one-step process but a continuous one. It involves constant revision and analysis of standards resulting from the deviations between aètuai and planned performance. Hence, option a is correct.

78. Which institute has defined a budget as “ a financial and/or quantitative statement prepared prior to a defined period of time of the policy to be pushed during that period for the purpose of attaining a good objective”?
(a) The Institute of Cost and Management Accountants of England
(b) The Institute of Cost and Management Accountants of’England and Wales
(c) The Institute of Cost and Management Accountants of Scotland
(d) The Institute of Cost and Management Accountants of Wales.
Answer:
(b) The Institute of Cost and Management Accountants of England and Wales defines a budget as a financial and! or quantitative statement prepared prior to a defined period of time of the policy to be pushed during that period for the purpose of attaining a good objectiver.

79. Which of the following is a logical and sequential order of completing a non-routine work?
(a) Efficiency analysis
(b) Planning and control.analysis
(c) Satiation analysis
(d) Network analysis.
Answer:
(d) Network analysis is a technique for planning and controlling complex projects and for scheduling the resources required on such products. It achieves this aim by analyzing the component parts of a project and assessing the sequential relationships between each event. The results of this analysis are represented diagrammatically as a network of interrelated activities.

80. A technique that helps change agents to deal with change is:
(a) Manipulation
(b) Co-optation
(c) Education and communication
(d) Threats to employees.
Answer:
(c) Education & Communication: One of the best ways to overcome resistance to change is to educate people about the change effort beforehand. Up-front communication and education helps employees see the logic in the change effort. This reduces unfounded and incorrect rumors concerning the effects of change in the organization.

81. When a budget is used for controlling it provides ……………….. against which resource consumption can be compared.
(a) qualitative Standards
(b) quantitative Standards
(c) flexible Standards
(d) non numerical Standards.
Answer:
(b) Budget is a method of controlling and in this, quantitative standards are set for comparing with the resource consumption.

82. To identify a problem, a manager ……………….. .
(a) Uses institution to see that things don’t look right
(b) Compares one set of standards or goods to a second set of standards or goods
(c) Compares the current state of affairs with some standard or good
(d) Looks for top management.
Answer:
(c) A Manager compares current situation with the standards to identify a problem.

83. Which of the following is not an objective of management audit?
(a) Improve the profit earning capacity
(b) Controlling the operations
(c) Identifying the grey area in operations
(d) Presenting findings to shareholders of the company.
Answer:
(d) Presentation of finding to shareholder is not the objective of management audit, it is a part of statutory audit.

84. The control process in an organization starts with …………………. .
(a) measuring performance
(b) evaluating performance
(c) comparing performance to standard
(d) establishing standards
Answer:
(d) Control Process-

  • Establishing Good and Standard
  • Measurement of Actual performance
  • Evaluating performance
  • Comparison
  • Follow through process.

85. The Concept of zero base budgeting was introduced in 1970 by:
(a) Joseph L.’ Massie
(b) Lester R. Bittel
(c) Peter Pyhrr
(d) Peter F. Drucker
Answer:
(c) Concept of Zero base budgeting was introduced by Peter Pyhrr in 1970 in the United States. It is defined an operative planning and budgeting process which requires such manager to justify his entire budget in detail from scratch (hence Zero base).

86. Which one of the following is called the siamese twins of management?
(a) Planning and Organizing
(b) Co-orcnation and Co-operation
(c) Directing and Controlling
(d) Planning and Controlling
Answer:
(d) Planning and Controlling are closely linked to each other. These are called Siamese twins of Management.

87. The Traditional Control techniques are:
(a) Budgetary Control and CPM
(b) PERT and CPM
(c) Zero base budgeting and Management audit
(d) Budgetary control and Standard costing
Answer:
(d) Techniques of Control are of two types :

  1. Traditional techniques.
  2. Modern techniques.

Traditional Techniques are :

  • Budgetary Control
  • Standard Costing
  • Financial Ratio Analysis
  • Internal Audit
  • Break-Even Analysis.
  • Statistical Control

Modern Techniques of Control are :

  • Zero Base Budgeting
  • Network Analysis
  • Management Audit.

88. Operating Analysis is ………………….. .
(a) Transactional Analysis
(b) Security Management
(c) Risk Management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) Operation Analysis is designed to add value by transforming input into useful outputs. There has no connection or relation between Operating Analysis and Transaction analysis/ or any other specific management.

89. CPM Stands for ……………….. .
(a) Critical Programme Method
(b) Crucial Path Methodology
(c) Critics Programme Management
(d) Critical Path Method.
Answer:
(d) CPM: Critical Path Method is an important network technique for management control to reduce time for periodic maintenance.

90. Steps to controlling functions:
(a) Establishing Goals and Standards
(b) Corrective Actions to be taken
(c) Measure the actual performance against standards
(d) Follow-through
(i) A-B-C-D
(ii) C-B-D-A
(iii) A-C-B-D
(iv) D-C-B-A
Answer:

Controlling function:

  • Establishing goals and standards .
  • Measure the actual performance against established standards
  • Corrective Action to be taken
  • Follow-through.

91. ………………….. is the relation between various elements of financialstatements expressed in mathematical terms.
(a) Ratio Analysis
(b) Management Audit
(c) Internal Audit
(d) PERT
Answer:
(a) ‘Ratio Analysis’ is the relation between various elements of financial statements expressed in mathematical terms.

92. Which one is not a traditional control techniques:
(a) PERT & CPM
(b) Management audit
(c) Standard costing
(d) Break-even analysis
Answer:
(a) Despite the never technique of planning and control, some of the traditional techniques are still very popular because of their special significance and continuing utility.
They are as under-

  • Budgetary control
  • Standard costing
  • Financial Ratio Analysis
  • Break Even Analysis
  • Statistical Control.

93. The process of adjusting future action based upon information in past:
(a) Decision making
(b) Feedback
(c) Follow though
(d) Control
Answer:
(b) Feedback is the process of adjusting future action based upon the information about past performance. It is based upon interdependence of different parts of a system.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Accounting Process – III – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Accounting Process – III – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Capital Expenses or Expenditures:
These are payments by a business for fixed assets, like buildings and equipment. Capital expenses are not used for ordinary day-to-day operating expenses of a business, like rent, utilities, and insurance. Another way to consider capital expenses is that they are used to buy assets that have a useful life of more than one year.

→ For example, if you buy office supplies for your business, that purchase is an operating expense, because office supplies don’t typically last more than one year (although you may have those boxes of staples lying around for a long time). On the other hand, if you buy office furniture, it is expected that it will last longer than a year, so you are buying a fixed asset, and that purchase is considered a capital expense. The cost of alterations, are normally capital expenditure as they involve improving or changing an asset and so providing an enduring benefit to the business.

→ The following are the capital expenditures Examples:

  • Cost of goodwill.
  • Cost of freehold land and building and the legal charges incurred in this connection,
  • Cost of lease.
  • Cost of machinery, plants, tools, fixtures, etc.
  • Cost of trade marks, patents, copy rights, designs, etc.
  • Cost of car, lorry etc.
  • Cost of installation of lights and fans,
  • Cost of any other assets acquired by way of equipment,
  • Erection cost of plant and machinery,
  • Cost of addition to existing assets.
  • Structural improvements and alteration in the existing assets,
  • Expenses for developments in case of mines and plantations.
  • Expenses for administration incurred during construction and equipment of any industrial enterprise,
  • Expenses incurred in experimenting which finally result in the acquisition of a patent or other rights.

→ Revenue Expenditure
Revenue expenditure is expenditure concerned with the costs of doing business on a day to day basis. When companies make a revenue expenditure, the expense provides immediate benefits, rather than long term ones. This is contrasted with capital expenditures, which are long term investments intended to help a business grow and thrive. Revenue expenditures include things like maintenance, wages and salaries, and costs for utilities. The revenue expenditure consists of expenses which must be covered immediately to keep the business running and which provide immediate benefits. A repair to an asset restores it to what it originally had been and is normally an allowable revenue expense.

→ Following are the examples of revenue expenditure :

  • Wages or salaries paid to factory workers.
  • Machine Oil to lubricate.
  • Electricity or Power required to run machinery or motor.
  • Expenditure incurred in the ordinary conduct and administration of business, i.e. rent, carriage on saleable goods, salaries, wages manufacturing expenses, commission, legal expenses, insurance, advertisement, free samples, postage, printing charges etc.
  • Repair and maintenance expenses incurred on fixed assets.
  • Cost of saleable goods.
  • Depreciation of fixed assets used in the business.
  • Interest on borrowed money.
  • Freight, cartage, octroi duty, transportation, insurance paid on saleable goods. ‘
  • Petrol or diesel consumed in motor vehicles.
  • Service charges to motor vehicles.
  • Bad debts.

→ Deferred Revenue Expenditure – Sometimes, some expenditure is of revenue nature but its benefit likely to be derived over a number of years generally 3 to 5 years. Such expenditure is called deferred revenue expenditure. Example of deffered revenue expenditure are :

  • heavy advertisement expenditure
  • discount on debentures
  • insurance premiums
  • Advertisement
  • Licensing

→ Revenue Receipts: It is related to normal activities of the business Credited as revenue to Trading and Profit & Loss Account of the organisation Examples: receipts from sales of goods and services, rent etc. Revenue receipts are considered as business income and it is arises because of business transactions. While calculating net income only the expenses in revenue nature are allowed to deducted

→ Capital Receipts – Receipts which are non-recurring (not received again and again) by nature and whose benefit is enjoyed over a long period are called “Capital Receipts”. Capital receipts are non-business income and it arises independently, that are not considered as business income and is treated as capital gain.

→ Distinction between Capital Receipt and Revenue Receipt:

Revenue Receipt Capital Receipt
1. It has short-term effect. The benefit is enjoyed within one accounting period. 1. It has long-term effect. The benefit is enjoyed for many years in future.
2. It occurs repeatedly. It is recurring and regular. 2. It does not occur again and again. It is nonrecurring and irregular.
3. It is shown in profit and loss account on the credit side. 3. It is shown in the Balance Sheet on the liability side.
4. It does not produce capital receipt. 4. Capital receipt, when invested, produces revenue receipt e.g. When capital is invested by the owner, business gets revenue receipt (i. E. Sale proceeds of goods etc.).
5. This does not increase or decrease the value of asset or liability. 5. The capital receipt decreases the value of asset or increases the value of liability e.g. Sale of a fixed asset, loan from bank etc.
6. Sometimes, expenses of capital nature are to be incurred for revenue receipt, e.g. purchase of shares of a company is capital expenditure but dividend received on shares is a revenue receipt. 6. Sometimes expenses of revenue nature are to be incurred for such receipt e.g. On obtaining loan (a capital receipt) interest is paid until its repayment.

→ Capital Profit
It is the profit which is earned on the sale of fixed assets, or issuing shares at premium etc. This profit generated is either transferred to capital account or is transferred to capital Reserve Account. Capital Loss is also not shown in Profit & Loss account but shown only in balance sheet. If the loss is negligible then it is debited to profit and loss account of the year in which it occur but if the loss is huge then they are distributed over the years and a portion of loss is debited to profit and loss account of every year. Generally capital losses are set off against capital profit.

→ Revenue Profit
It is the profit which is earned during the ordinary course of business. Revenue Profit is shown in Profit & Loss account which can be used for creating reserves or for distribution or being used in the business. Revenue loses are the loss that occur in the ordinary course of business and is show in Profit & Loss account.

→ Capital losses
Capital loss occurs due to the sale of assets, share and debentures at a price less than their face value or book value. Capital losses are not shown in profit and loss account but are shown in balance sheet on the assets side. A capital loss cannot be offset against income from other sources but must be offset against capital gains and may be carried forward to offset against future capital gains

→ Revenue Losses
Revenue loss occurs due to heavy amount of operating expenses and low turnover or sales. Revenue loss is shown on the debit side of the trading and profit and loss account and asset side of balance sheet as accumulated loss.

→ Contingent Liabilities: Contingent liabilities are costs that the organization will have to face if a particular event occurs, or present liabilities that are unable to be measured with sufficient reliability to be recorded in the financial statements. Typically, contingent liabilities consist of guarantees and indemnities, uncalled capital and legal disputes and claims.

→ Contingent Assets: a contingent asset is a possible asset that arises from past events and whose existence will be confirmed only by the occurrence or non-occurrence of one or more uncertain future events not wholly within the control of the entity. The amount of the asset, or whether it will eventuate, will not be confirmed until a particular event occurs. An example is a claim that an entity is pursuing through legal processes, where the outcome is uncertain.

Accounting Process – III MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
Which of the following should be the first action
when making a prime entry for a transaction?
a. Study the voucher to identify the nature of the transaction
b. Post the transactions to the appropriate Ledger accounts
c. Decide on the Ledger account to be debited and the one to be credited
d. Enter the transaction in the appropriate book of prime entry
Answer:
a. Study the voucher to identify the nature of the transaction

Question 2.
Journalizing is
a. Process of having the source of transactions
b. Process of recording transactions in the journal
c. Process of having the sources of transactions for journal
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Process of recording transactions in the journal

Question 3.
Generally journal is kept in a
a. Mathematical method
b. Columnar method
c. Straight method
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Columnar method

Question 4.
Which of the following will disturb the balancing of the trial balance?
a. Error in adding up a book of prime entry
b. Entering an acquisition of an asset, on credit terms, in the Purchases Day Book
c. Posting to an asset account instead of an expenditure account
d. Entering a wrong amount in a book of prime entry.
Answer:
a. Error in adding up a book of prime entry

Question 5.
The data and month of the first entry are written
a. On the next line of the data column
b. On the same line of the data column
c. On a line above the data column
d. At the left of the data column
Answer:
a. On the next line of the data column

Question 6.
In the particulars account the name of the account to be credited is entered at ___________ place with a prefix ‘To’
a. In confirmation of the name of the account to be debited
b. Next line to the account name that is to debited
c. Any where in the journal
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. In confirmation of the name of the account to be debited

Question 7.
Location of the debit column is
a. In contravention with particulars
b. In front of the particulars column where the amount is debited
c. In front of the particulars column where the amount is credited
d. Not present anywhere in the journal
Answer:
b. In front of the particulars column where the amount is debited

Question 8.
For every entry in journal the transaction can be
a. Personal
b. Real
c. Nominal
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 9.
The information that is not provided in the ledger is
a. Information regarding debtors
b. Every information is provided with narration
c. Information regarding creditors
d. Information regarding purchases
Answer:
b. Every information is provided with narration

Question 10.
The rules of debit and debit are applied to of accounts
a. Personal
b. Nominal
c. Real
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 11.
c/f indicates
a. Credit
b. Ledger folio
c. Carry forward
d. Journal name
Answer:
c. Carry forward

Question 12.
The reason for totaling at the end of the page of a journal is
a. It makes whole system more convenient
b. As the calculations are lengthy it is more comfortable
c. It is a general practice
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 13.
When does a entry termed as a combined entry
a. If two transactions of one company are involved
b. If there is debit and credit both
c. Transactions are of the same nature and they take place on the same day.
d. All the accounts are debited the very same day
Answer:
c. Transactions are of the same nature and they take place on the same day.

Question 14.
This is NOT the function of ledger
a. To classify all the items
b. To put all the items at application accounts
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 15.
Pick out the wrong one
a. In ledger account debit is one left hand side and credit on sight hand side
b. Ledger takes care of only real and nominal accounts of an enterprise
c. Name of the account in ledger is written in the top middle of the account
d. Ledger account is divided into two sides
Answer:
b. Ledger takes care of only real and nominal accounts of an enterprise

Question 16.
In ledger J.F. denotes
a. Page number
b. Folio
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 17.
Book of analytical record is
a. Balance sheet
b. Journal
c. Ledger
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Ledger

Question 18.
Posting is
a. The process of displaying results in balance sheet
b. The process of displaying results in profit and loss account
c. The process of recording the transactions in journal
d. The process of recording the transactions in ledger
Answer:
d. The process of recording the transactions in ledger

Question 19.
What is uncommon in ledger?
a. Name of the accounts used in journal are different from ledger
b. Account which is credited in journal is debited in ledger
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 20.
What is NOT required for ledger?
a. Data
b. Using ‘To’ and ‘By’
c. In folio column page number of journal
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 21.
If there is a debit balance in ledger accounts than
a. debit side of an account exceeds the credit side
b. credit side of an account exceeds the debit side
c. total of the debit side is more
d. both a & c
Answer:
a. debit side of an account exceeds the credit side

Question 22.
Which is NOT a subsidiary book?
a. Sales book
b. Salary book
c. Purchase book
d. Cash book
Answer:
b. Salary book

Question 23.
Pick the odd one
a. Entries for purchases of goods are done
b. Entries for purchases of goods on credit are done
c. Entries for purchase of goods on cash are done
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Entries for purchase of goods on cash are done

Question 24.
Whether for purchase book or sales book ________________ is required
a. Invoices
b. Credit
c. Cash
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 25.
The book in which two columns are present one for cash and other for discount is
a. Sales book
b. Purchase book
c. Cash book
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Cash book

Question 26.
When cash is withdrawn from bank it is recorded
a. On debit side in cash column and on credit side of bank column
b. On debit side in cash column and on the debit side of bank column
c. On the debit side of ash bank column and on cred it side of cash col umn.
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. On debit side in cash column and on credit side of bank column

Question 27.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. In emergency the Petty Cashier may give staff loans of small amounts
b. The Petty Cash Book could be either a subsidiary book or a main book of accounts
c. Every payment made by the Petty Cashier should be supported by evidence
d. Regularly Petty Cashier is reimbursed to make up his cash balance to the imprest
Answer:
a. In emergency the Petty Cashier may give staff loans of small amounts

Question 28.
Float is
a. money given at the beginning of month to cashier
b. Money left at the end of the month with cashier
c. Both a & b
d. None of the also
Answer:
a. money given at the beginning of month to cashier

Question 29.
Petty cash book can be treated as
a. Register
b. Memoranda book
c. Part of double entry system
d. Non of the above
Answer:
c. Part of double entry system

Question 30.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. In the double entry accounting system maintained manually, a journal entry A should always end with a narration explaining the need for it
b. is needed only in the absence of other suitable book of prime entry for the transaction
c. should be substantiated by appropriate voucher and authorized at proper level
d. should always consist of a single debit entry matched by a corresponding credit entry
Answer:
d. should always consist of a single debit entry matched by a corresponding credit entry

Question 31.
Worn out assets on sale are recorded in
a. Soles journal
b. Cash journal
c. Petty cash journal
d. General journal
Answer:
d. General journal

Question 32.
XYZ company purchase an asset that turns out to be defective and was required to be sold as a worn out item. The entry will be made in:
a. Worn out journal
b. Cash journal
c. General journal
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. General journal

Question 33.
Function of the ledger is
a. to calculate the total debit and credit of the company
b. to prepare the summary of each account
c. to record all the transactions in a period.
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. to prepare the summary of each account

Question 34.
A business transaction cannot be recorded unless ____________ is present
a. Sales bill
b. Purchase bill
c. Memo
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 35.
What is possible if the trail balance of a company agrees?
a. There are two mistakes in the recordings made
b. There may be some mistakes in the recording of books
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a and b

Question 36.
Invariably errors in the trial balance are due to
a. Recording in wrong books
b. Omitting the transactions that should be recorded
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a and b

Question 37.
An accountant forgot to enter a sales entry in the subsidiary register the impact will be
a. Trial balance will not be affected
b. Trial balance will be affected
c. Debit side enhanced of the trial balance will be
d. Credit side enhanced of the trial balance will be
Answer:
a. Trial balance will not be affected

Question 38.
The mistakes in the total of the subsidiary book will
a. Not affect the personal account of customers
b. Will affect the personal account of customers
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Not affect the personal account of customers

Question 39.
Because of the lack of proper accounting knowledge ______________ type of error is done
a. Partial omission error
b. Compensating error
c. Error of commission
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Error of commission

Question 40.
If the sum of the debit column equals the sum of credit column in a trial balance, it indicates
a. no errors have been made.
b. no errors can be discovered.
c. The mathematical equality of the accounting equation.
d. That all accounts reflect correct balances.
Answer:
a. no errors have been made.

Question 41.
The feature of errors of principle
a. affect trial balance
b. affect profit and loss account
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. affect profit and loss account

Question 42.
Commission is paid for a purchase of land. It will be
a. Disclosed in trial balance
b. Not disclosed in trial balance
c. Will be disclosed in profit and loss account
d. Will be disclosed in balance sheet
Answer:
b. Not disclosed in trial balance

Question 43.
Office was renovated and renovation charges were 5000. They were put in purchase book account. It is
a. Error of complete omission
b. Error of principle
c. Error of commission
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Error of principle

Question 44.
A new accountant did credit Rs500 instead of Rs50,000. It is an error of
a. Error of commission
b. Error of complete omission
c. Error principle
d. Error of duplication
Answer:
a. Error of commission

Question 45.
The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is correct?
a. The general journal is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general ledger.
Answer:
a. The general journal is a chronological record of transactions.

Question 46.
It is irrelevant to check below mentioned to trace the error in trial balance
a. Check the total of debit and credit column
b. Totals of subsidiary books
c. No mistakes in the balancing of various accounts
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 47.
One sided errors are
a. Errors affecting purchase account only
b. Errors affecting only balance sheet
c. Errors affecting any one account
d. Errors affecting only balance sheet
Answer:
c. Errors affecting any one account

Question 48.
For rectification of one sided error
a. Journal entry is to be corrected
b. Relevant account entry in the ledger to be corrected
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Relevant account entry in the ledger to be corrected

Question 49.
Accidently Shyam’s account was credited by Rs. 2000 instead of Amit. What corrections should be done.
a. Debit the account of Shyam
b. Credit the account of Amit
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a and b

Question 50.
Company purchased furniture worth Rs. 1 Lakh but it was wrongly recorded remedy to this problem will affect
a. One account
b. Two account
c. It is an independent account
d. It can not be rectified
Answer:
c. It is an independent account

Question 51.
Suspense account is a special account as it records
a. All the uncertain items entry
b. After correction in trial balance it shows no balance
c. If trial balance shows debit than debit is shown in debit side of suspense account
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 52.
When an error is found in the trial balance of last year which affects the profit of the company then
a. suspense’s account is prepared
b. profit and loss adjustment account is prepared
c. it is left undisturbed
d. Balance sheet adjustment account is prepared
Answer:
b. profit and loss adjustment account is prepared

Question 53.
A correction in the profit & loss adjustment account of the company was detected at later stage the correct treatment of this will be
a. Ignore accounts have already been prepared and nothing can be done
b. Show it as an additional balance sheet
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 54.
In case the accountant is unable to differentiate between capital expenditure and revenue expenditure it is type of error
a. Accounting error
b. Errors of principle
c. Errors of omission
d. Errors of commission
Answer:
b. Errors of principle

Question 55.
Purchase of goodwill is
a. Revenue expenditure
b. Capital expenditure
c. Deferred revenue expenditure
d. revenue receipts
Answer:
b. Capital expenditure

Question 56.
Expenses were made to keep the machine in running condition such expenses are
a. Capital expenditure
b. Revenue expenditure
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Revenue expenditure

Question 57.
Transactions that a business doesn’t record in any specialized journal are recorded in which journal or book?
a. Cash payments journal
b. Cash receipts journal
c. Purchases return journal
d. General journal
Answer:
d. General journal

Question 58.
Money is paid to a lawyers ‘X’ for checking the papers of an industrial land purchased but after purchase some legal issues are there for which the lawyer ‘Y’ is appointed. Money paid to
a. ‘X’ is capital expenditure and ‘Y’ is revenue expenditure
b. Both are revenue expenditure
c. Both are capital expenditure
d. ‘X’ is revenue expenditure while ‘Y’ is capital expenditure
Answer:
a. ‘X’ is capital expenditure and ‘Y’ is revenue expenditure

Question 59.
It is not uncommon in deferred revenue expenditure
a. That benefit may last for few years, 3-5 years
b. That it is an accidental expenditure with heavy amount
c. It is recurring expenditure
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 60.
It is NOT a revenue receipt
a. Lamp sum payment received in installment
b. Amount received by the sale of goods
c. Both a & b
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Lamp sum payment received in installment

Question 61.
A building purchased for rupees 200,000 was sold for Rs 20,000. The treatment of the capital loss will be in manner.
a. It will be shown in profit and loss account
b. It will be spreader over a number of years and a portion will be shown in profit and loss statement
c. It will be spreaded over a number of years and a portion will be shown in balance sheet
d. It will be shown in balance sheets
Answer:
b. It will be spreader over a number of years and a portion will be shown in profit and loss statement

Question 62.
The nature and extent of the contingent liabilities is
a. Shown as a footnote of balance sheet
b. Shown in the financial statement notes
c. Are not shown at
d. all none of the above
Answer:
a. Shown as a footnote of balance sheet

Question 63.
Shares of an enterprise were given at a premium of rupees 20. This money will be put in
a. capital loss
b. capital account
c. capital reserve account
d. both a & b
Answer:
d. both a & b

Question 64.
Everything except _________________ is capital receipt
a. Loans
b. Money from debenture holders
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 65.
Invariably revenue receipts
a. Are set off against revenue expenses
b. Have no effect on profit and loss account
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Are set off against revenue expenses

Question 66.
Company’s paid up capital is rupees 50,000. It will be put in
a. Capital account
b. Capital receipts
c. Revenue receipts
d. Deferred revenue account
Answer:
b. Capital receipts

Question 67.
When closing stock is given in trial balance, there, it will effect:
a. Trading account only
b. Balance sheet only
c. Owner’s equity only
d. Both Trading account and Balance sheet
Answer:
b. Balance sheet only

Question 68.
Which of the following is an item of a debtors control account?
a. Cash sale
b. Credit sales
c. Credit purchase
d. Cash purchases
Answer:
c. Credit purchase

Question 69.
Which of the following is an item of a creditors control account?
a. Cash purchases
b. Cash sales
c. Credit sales
d. Credit purchase
Answer:
a. Cash purchases

Question 70.
The following comments below relate to the recording of journal entries. Which statement is true?
a. For any given journal entry, debits must exceed credits.
b. It is customary to record credits on the left and debits on the right.
c. The chart of accounts reveals the amount to debit and credit to the affected accounts.
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into debit/credit format.
Answer:
d. Journalization is the process of converting transactions and events into debit/credit format.

Question 71.
The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general ledger.
Answer:
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.

Question 72.
The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger account.
d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account, trial balance.
Answer:
d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account, trial balance.

Question 73.
The trial balance:
a. Is a formal financial statement.
b. Is used to prove that there are no errors in the journal or ledger.
c. Provides a listing of every account in the chart of accounts.
d. Provides a listing of the balance of each account in active use.
Answer:
d. Provides a listing of the balance of each account in active use.

Question 74.
The journal entry to account for the acquisition on credit of factory machinery from Millet pic should require which of the following:
a. Debit Factory account and credit Millet pic account
b. Debit Machinery account and credit Millet pic account
c. Debit Millet pic account and credit Machinery account
d. Debit Machinery account and credit Cash account
Answer:
b. Debit Machinery account and credit Millet pic account

Question 75.
Amit commenced business introducing as his capital furniture worth Rs. 21,000, a car valued at
Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 48,000 in cash. The journal entry for recording this would require:
a. Debit in the three asset accounts, including cash and a credit in the Capital Account
b. No journal entries
c. Debit in the two asset accounts other than cash and a credit in the Capital Account
d. Debit in the cash Account and credit in the Capital Account
Answer:
c. Debit in the two asset accounts other than cash and a credit in the Capital Account

Question 76.
The prime entry for the acquisition of a cash book, ledgers and a journal for Rs 240 from X Ltd, on credit would be in the:
a. Journal
b. purchases Day Book
c. Cash Book
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Journal

Question 77.
If an amount paid for servicing vehicles has been posted in error to Motor Vehicles account the journal entry necessary to correct this error should require which of the following:
a. Debit Vehicle maintenance account and credit Motor Vehicles account
b. Debit Cash account and credit Motor vehicles account
c. Debit Vehicle maintenance account and credit Cash account
d. Debit Motor vehicles account and credit Vehicle maintenance account
Answer:
a. Debit Vehicle maintenance account and credit Motor Vehicles account

Question 78.
The invoice relating to the acquisition on credit of an Office Equipment for Rs24,500 from Globe Ltd was entered in the Purchases Journal. To correct this error which of the following needs to be done?
a. A Journal entry: Debit Office Equipment ale and credit Purchases ale with Rs24,500
b. No journal entry is needed
c. Journal entry: Debit Office Equipment ale and credit Globe Ltd ale with Rs24,500
d. Journal entry: Debit Globe Ltd ale and credit Office Equipment ale with Rs24,500
Answer:
a. A Journal entry: Debit Office Equipment ale and credit Purchases ale with Rs24,500

Question 79.
Which of the following should be the first action when making a prime entry for a transaction?
a. Enter the transaction in the appropriate book of prime entry
b. Study the voucher to identify the nature of the transaction
c. Decide on the Ledger account to be debited and the one to be credited
d. Post the transactions to the appropriate Ledger accounts
Answer:
b. Study the voucher to identify the nature of the transaction

Question 80.
Financial statements are prepared directly from the
a. general journal
b. ledger
c. trial balance
d. adjusted trial balance
Answer:
d. adjusted trial balance

Question 81.
Monthly and quarterly time periods are called
a. fiscal period
b. calendar period
c. quarterly period
d. interim period
Answer:
a. fiscal period

Question 82.
Which of the following best describes a trial balance?
a. It is a list of balances on the books
b. Shows the financial position of a business
c. Shows all the entries in the books
d. It is a special account
Answer:
c. Shows all the entries in the books

Question 83.
Which of the following is not a book of prime entry?
a. Cash book
b. Returns Inwards Day Book
c. The Petty Cash Book
d. The Ledger
Answer:
d. The Ledger

Question 84.
Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to accounting for a Credit Note received from a supplier?
a. Post the amount on the Credit Note to the debit of the supplier’s personal account
b. Enter the particulars in a Purchases Returns Day Book
c. Post periodical total of amounts on Credit Notes to the credit of Returns Outwards a/c
d. Debit the amount of the Credit Note to the Purchases account
Answer:
d. Debit the amount of the Credit Note to the Purchases account

Question 85.
Which of the following statements is not correct when accounting for a credit sale?
a. A Post the amount of the individual invoice to the credit of the Sales account
b. Post the periodical total of the amounts of sale to the credit of Sales account
c. Enter the particulars from the invoice in the Sales Journal
d. Post the amount of the individual invoice to the debit of the relevant Customer’s account
Answer:
a. A Post the amount of the individual invoice to the credit of the Sales account

Question 86.
When using a petty cash system, the replenishment of the fund would normally include a debit to:
a. Cash.
b. Petty Cash.
c. Revenues.
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 87.
The correct way of accounting an amount received from a credit customer is:
a. Credit Cash account and debit the individual customer’s account
b. Debit Cash account and credit Capital account
c. Debit Cash account and credit Sales account
d. Debit Cash account and credit the individual customer’s account
Answer:
d. Debit Cash account and credit the individual customer’s account

Question 88.
Which of the following describes the practical framework of bookkeeping?
a. Classifying, recording and summarizing
b. Reporting, analyzing and interpreting
c. Classifying, analyzing and interpreting
d. Recording, summarizing and reporting
Answer:
a. Classifying, recording and summarizing

Question 89.
Which of the following highlights the correct order of the stages in the accounting cycle?
a. Journalizing, final accounts, posting to the ledger and trial balance
b. Journalizing, posting to the ledger, trial balance and final accounts
c. Posting to the ledger, trial balance, final accounts and journalizing
d. Posting to the ledger, journalizing, final accounts and trial balance
Answer:
b. Journalizing, posting to the ledger, trial balance and final accounts

Question 90.
In considering the effectiveness of evidence gathering procedures, it was found that most companies have adjustments. Research also shows that:
a. Both receivables and payables are usually overstated.
b. Receivables are usually overstated and payables are usually understated.
c. Receivables are usually understated and payables are usually overstated.
d. Both receivables and payables are usually understated
Answer:
c. Receivables are usually understated and payables are usually overstated.

Question 91.
Another name of journal is
a. Specialized journal
b. Day book
c. Cash book
d. Record book
Answer:
b. Day book

Question 92.
A subsidiary record is a book
a. of subsidiary entry.
b. containing the final account.
c. of final entry.
d. of original entry.
Answer:
d. of original entry.

Question 93.
Pending the location of errors in the books of accounts that affect the agreement of the Trial Balance, the difference disclosed is normally posted to ______________
a. Adjustment Account.
b. Holding Account.
c. Control Account.
d. Suspense Account.
Answer:
d. Suspense Account.

Question 94.
When a buyer returns damaged goods to the seller, the buyer receives
a. credit note.
b. pro forma invoice.
c. debit note.
d. consignment note.
Answer:
a. credit note.

Question 95.
Which ONE of the following, in a classified form, contains permanent records of all transactions?
a. Cash Book.
b. Sales Day Book.
c. Journal.
d. Ledger.
Answer:
d. Ledger.

Question 96.
Pending the location of errors in the books of accounts that affect the agreement of the Trial Balance, the difference disclosed is normally posted to _______________
a. Adjustment Account.
b. Holding Account.
c. Control Account.
d. Suspense Account.
Answer:
d. Suspense Account.

Question 97.
Users of subsidiary books of accounts are;
a. Financial Journalists.
b. Risk Analysts.
c. Cost Accountants.
d. Financial Consultants.
Answer:
d. Financial Consultants.

Question 98.
An office equipment bought on credit would first be entered by the purchaser in the
a. Returns Outward Book .
b. Purchase Day Book.
c. Journal Proper.
d. Sales Day Book returns Inward Book.
Answer:
c. Journal Proper.

Question 99.
Which of the following is type of cash receipt journal + cash payment journal?
a. Bank statement
b. Statement of cash flow
c. Cash book
d. Cash documents
Answer:
c. Cash book

Question 100.
If there is a non agreement of trial balance the possible reasons could be
a. Complete omission of the posting
b. Due to transposition of the posting
c. There has been a wrong posting either on debit side or credit side
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 101.
The characteristic feature of imprest system is
a. Fixed amount of cash is allocated to petty cash fund
b. Cash distributed from petty cash fund is documented with receipts
c. Both a&b
d. Petty cash disbursement receipts are everyday replenishments of the petty cash fund
Answer:
c. Both a&b

Question 102.
A company draws cash from United Bank. The entries in the Company’s accounts should be:

Debit Credit
1. United bank account Cash account
2. Purchases Cash Account
3. Income Bank Account
4. Cash account United bank account

a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
Answer:
d. 4

Question 103.
Discount allowed is
a. Expense of business
b. Income of business
c. Loss of business
d. Abnormal loss of business
Answer:
a. Expense of business

Question 104.
The last month of the fiscal year is 113. A journal entry in which two or more account is
a. March debited or credited is referred as
b. December
c. April
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. March debited or credited is referred as

Question 105.
Which of the following will a supplier send to customer whose invoice was under cast?
a. Notification Note
b. Way Bill
c. Credit Note
d. Debit Note
e. Invoice
Answer:
d. Debit Note

Question 106.
The process of recording is done
a. Two times a year
b. Once a year
c. Frequently during the accounting period
d. At the end of a accounting period
Answer:
c. Frequently during the accounting period

Question 107.
General Journal is a book of _______________ entries
a. First
b. Original
c. Secondary
d. Generic
Answer:
b. Original

Question 108.
The process of recording transaction in different journals is called
a. Posting
b. Entry making
c. Adjusting
d. Journalizing
Answer:
d. Journalizing

Question 109.
A Company makes a purchase on 10th may some office equipment. The correct journal entry will be

Debit Credit
1. Office equipment Supplies
2. Purchases Office equipment
3. Accounts payable Office equipments
4. Office equipment Accounts payable

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer:
a. 1

Question 110.
Every business transaction affects at least ___________ accounts
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Infinite
Answer:
b. Two

Question 111.
Discount allowed is a kind of deduction from
a. Account payable
b. Account receivable
c. Cash account
d. Discount account
Answer:
b. Account receivable

Question 112.
The other name of journal fs
a. Ledger
b. T account
c. Day book
d. cash book
Answer:
c. Day book

Question 113.
A journal entry in which two or more account is
debited or credited is referred as
a. Journal entry
b. Multi entry
c. Additional entry
d. Compound entry
Answer:
d. Compound entry

Question 114.
The term 2/10-n/30 implies that _________________ % discount will be given if the payment made within _______________ day is receivable within 30 days
a. 2, 10
b. 10, 2
c. 10, 30
d. 3, 15
Answer:
a. 2, 10

Question 115.
Goods returned by customer should be debited to which of the following accounts?
a. Sales income account
b. Sales account
c. Return inward account
d. Expenses account
Answer:
c. Return inward account

Question 116.
Which of the following is a double column cash book?
a. One column for cash and another for bank
b. One column for cash and another for discount
c. One for bank and another for discount
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 117.
Which of the following specialized journals records “’good returned by customers”?
a. Purchase journal
b. Sales journal
c. Purchases return journal
d. Sales return journal
Answer:
d. Sales return journal

Question 118.
Sales on credit is recorded in which of the following journal?
a. Purchases journal
b. Sales journal
c. Purchases return journal
d. Sales return journal
Answer:
b. Sales journal

Question 119.
Which of the following specialized journals will record “goods returned by the business”?
a. Purchase journal
b. Sales journal
c. Purchases return journal
d. Sales return journal
Answer:
c. Purchases return journal

Question 120.
Sales and purchase journal don’t record
a. credit sales
b. credit purchases
c. credit sales and purchases
d. cash sales and purchases
Answer:
d. cash sales and purchases

Question 121.
Cash received from debtor is recorded in which of the following specialized journals?
a. Purchase journal
b. Sales journal
c. Cash receipts
d. Cash payments journal
Answer:
c. Cash receipts

Question 122.
Cash purchases is recorded in which of the following specialized journals?
a. Purchase journal
b. Sales journal
c. Purchases return journal
d. Cash payments journal
Answer:
d. Cash payments journal

Question 123.
A brief explanation recorded in every entry in general is commonly known as
a. Narration
b. Explanation
c. Summary
d. Other information
Answer:
a. Narration

Question 124.
Which of the following should be entered in the Journal?
(i) Payment for purchases
(ii) Fixtures bought on credit
(iii) Credit sale of goods
(iv) Sale of surplus machinery.
a. (i) and (iii)
b. (i) and (iv)
c. (ii) and (iv)
d. (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
c. (ii) and (iv)

Question 125.
Which of the following are not errors of principle?
(i) Motor expenses entered in Motor Vehicles account
(ii) Purchases of machinery entered in Purchases account
(iii) x Sales of Rs. 250 to Varun completely omitted from books
(iv) Sales to a Varun entered in Amit’s account.
a. (i) and (iv)
b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (i) and (ii)
d. (i) and (iv)
Answer:
a. (i) and (iv)

Question 126.
Errors are corrected via the Journal because:
a. It saves entering them in the ledger
b. It is much easier to do
c. It provides a good record explaining the double entry records
d. It saves the bookkeeper’s time
Answer:
c. It provides a good record explaining the double entry records

Question 127.
Which of these errors would be disclosed by the trial balance?
a. Credit sales of Rs300 entered in both double entry accounts as Rs30
b. A purchase of Rs250 was omitted entirely from the books
c. Selling expenses had been debited to Sales Account
d. Cheque Rs 95 from C Smith entered in Smith’s account as Rs 59
Answer:
d. Cheque Rs 95 from C Smith entered in Smith’s account as Rs 59

Question 128.
What should happen if the balance on a Suspense Account is of a material amount?
a. Should be written off to the balance sheet
b. Write it off to Profit and Loss Account
c. Carry forward the balance to the next period
d. Find the error(s) before publishing the final accounts
Answer:
d. Find the error(s) before publishing the final accounts

Question 129.
What is an analytical petty cash book
a. Petty cash book formed in columnar form
b. Petty cash book formed in tabular form
c. Petty cash book formed in arithmetic form
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Petty cash book formed in columnar form

Question 130.
Ahmad Industries want to make payment to supplier in the form of a pay order. The bank deducted Rs.160 as service charges without its knowledge. The error is known as:
a. Error of commission
b. Error of omission
c. Error of original entry
d. Error of principle
Answer:
a. Error of commission

Question 131.
Which of the following account(s) will be affected, while rectifying the error of a purchase return of Rs.200 to Mr. “A” entered in sales book instead of purchase return book?
a. A’s account only
b. Sales account only
c. Purchase returns account and sales account
d. Purchases account only
Answer:
a. A’s account only

Question 132.
Which of the following account(s) will be affected, while rectifying the error of an amount Rs.200 received from Mr. “P” wrongly credited to Mr. “Q’s” account?
a. Only Cash Account
b. Only P’s account
c. Only Q’s account
d. Both of Mr. P’s & Mr. Q’s Account
Answer:
d. Both of Mr. P’s & Mr. Q’s Account

Question 133.
Which of the following will disturb the balancing of the trial balance?
a. A Posting to an asset account instead of an expenditure account
b. Entering a wrong amount in a book of prime entry
c. Entering an acquisition of an asset, on credit terms, in the Purchases Day Book
d. Error in adding up a book of prime entry.
Answer:
d. Error in adding up a book of prime entry.

Question 134.
If the totals of two columns of trial balance are equal it means
a. Ledger posting is correct
b. No outstanding debit
c. No outstanding credit
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. Ledger posting is correct

Question 135.
Trial balance proves only the accuracy of ledger posting
a. Debit
b. Accounting
c. Arithmetical
d. Credit
Answer:
c. Arithmetical

Question 136.
One of the objective of preparing Trial Balance is to help locate
a. Accounting errors
b. Financial statements
c. Difference between ledger and journal
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Accounting errors

Question 137.
Which of the following expenditures is of capital nature?
a. Purchase of goods
b. Cost of repairs
c. Wages paid for installation of machinery
d. Rent of a factory.
Answer:
c. Wages paid for installation of machinery

Hint:
Capital Expenses or Expenditures
These are payments by a business for fixed assets, like buildings and equipment. Capital expenses are not used for ordinary day-to-day operating expenses of a business.

Question 138.
A liability which arises only on the happening of some event is called:-
a. Current liability
b. Contingent liability
c. Outstanding liability
d. Fixed liability
Answer:
b. Contingent liability

Hint:
Contingent Liabilities – Contingent liabilities are costs that the organization will have to face if a particular event occurs, or present liabilities that are unable to be measured with sufficient reliability to be recorded in the financial statements. Typically, contingent liabilities consist of guarantees and indemnities, uncalled capital and legal disputes and claims.

Question 139.
Heavy amounts were spent by Saroj for addition to machinery in order to increase the production capacity. The amount is-
a. Revenue Expenditure
b. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
C. Capital Expenditure
d. Liability
Answer:
C. Capital Expenditure

Hint:
Capital Expenses or Expenditures
These are payments by a business for fixed assets, like buildings and equipment. Capital expenses are not used for ordinary day-to-day operating expenses of a business. . Another way to consider capital expenses is that they are used to buy assets that have a useful life of more than one year.

Question 140.
What is the nature of expenses incurred on the issue of shares?
a. Revenue
b. Capital
c. Neither (a) nor (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
b. Capital

Hint:
Capital Expenses or Expenditures
These are payments by a business for fixed assets, like buildings and equipment. Capital expenses are not used for ordinary day-to-day operating expenses of a business. Another way to consider capital expenses is that they are used to buy assets that have a useful life of more than one year.

Expenses incurred on issue of shares is capital in nature as shares are issued for lifetime of company and are not day to day expenses.

Question 141.
Which of the following is not a capital expenditure?
a. Cost of issuing shares and debentures
b. Wages paid for construction of a new office
c. Purchase of a new spark plug for Rs. 10
d. Repair of a second hand vehicle purchased.
Answer:
c. Purchase of a new spark plug for Rs. 10

Hint:
Revenue Expenditure
Revenue expenditure is expenditure concerned with the costs of doing business on a day to day basis. When companies make a revenue expenditure, the expense provides immediate benefits, rather than long term ones.

Question 142.
The cost of supplying uniform to employees is a:
a. Capital expenditure
b. Revenue expenditure
c. Deferred revenue expenditure
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. Revenue expenditure

Hint:
Revenue Expenditure
Revenue expenditure is expenditure concerned with the costs of doing business on a day to day basis. When companies make a revenue expenditure, the expense provides immediate benefits, rather than long term ones.

The cost of supplying uniform to employees is a revenue expenditure as it is an immediate benefit to employees and there is no long term benefit of this expenditure.

Question 143.
Expenses incurred for obtaining a license for starting a factory are
a. Capital Expenditure
b. Revenue Expenditure
c. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
d. Prepaid Expenses.
Answer:
a. Capital Expenditure

Hint:
Capital Expenses or Expenditures
These are payments by a business for fixed assets, like buildings and equipment. Capital expenses are not used for ordinary day-to-day operating expenses of a business. Another way to consider capital expenses is that they are used to buy assets that have a useful life of more than one year.

Question 144.
Which of the following is not a capital expenditure?
a. Purchase of land & building
b. Amount paid for wages.
c. Improving permanent assets.
d. None of the above.
Answer:
b. Amount paid for wages.

Hint:
Revenue Expenditure
Revenue expenditure is expenditure concerned with the costs of doing business on a day to day basis. When companies make a revenue expenditure, the expense provides immediate benefits, rather than long term ones.

Examples of revenue expenditure are Wages or salaries paid to factory workers,Machine Oil to lubricate

Question 145.
When we get the property registered, then what type of expenditure it is?
a. Capital
b. Revenue
c. Deferred Revenue
d. None.
Answer:
a. Capital

Hint:
Capital Expenses or Expenditures
These are payments by a business for fixed assets, like buildings and equipment. Capital expenses are not used for ordinary day-to-day operating expenses of a business. Another way to consider capital expenses is that they are used to buy assets that have a useful life of more than one year.

Question 146.
Insurance received by the company is what for the company?
a. Capital expenditure
b. Revenue expenditure
c. Capital receipt
d. Revenue receipt.
Answer:
c. Capital receipt

Hint:
Capital Receipts: Receipts which are non-recurring (not received again and again) by nature and whose benefit is enjoyed over a long period are called “Capital Receipts”. Capital receipts are non-business income and it arises independently, that are not considered as business income and is treated as capital gain.

Question 147.
Interest on drawings to be treated IS:
a. Revenue Expenditure
b. Capital Expenditure
c. Revenue Income
d. Capital Income.
Answer:
c. Revenue Income

Hint:
Revenue Receipts: It is related to normal activities of the business Credited as revenue to Trading and Profit & Loss Account of the organisation.
Interest on drawings is the interest charged on day to day routine drawings made.
Since, it is the income of the firm of recurring nature it will be treated as revenue income.

Question 148.
At the time o: commencement of business, preliminary expenses incurred are treated as:
a. Revenue Expenditure
b. Capital Expenditure
c. Deferred Revenue Expenditure.
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. Deferred Revenue Expenditure.

Hint:
Deferred Revenue Expenditure – Sometimes, some expenditure is of revenue nature but its benefit likely to be derived over a number of years generally 3 to 5 years. Such expenditure is called deferred revenue expenditure. Example of deffered revenue expenditure are:
heavy advertisement expenditure
discount on debentures
insurance premiums
Advertisement Licensing
Preliminary expenses

Question 149.
The expired portion of capital expenditure is shown in the:
a. An expense
b. An income
c. An asset
d. A liability
Answer:
a. An expense

Hint:
An expired cost is a cost that has been recognized as an expense. This happens when a business entity fully consumes or receives benefit from a cost. An expired cost may also be construed as the total loss in value of an asset.

Question 150.
A business entity distributed goods worth Rs. 15,000 as free sample. The, adjustment to be made is:
a. Subtracted from purchases A/c and credited to Profit and Loss A/c
b. Added to Purchase Ne and credited to Profit and Loss A/c r
c. Added to Purchase Ne and debited to Profit and Loss A/c
d. Subtracted from Purchases A/c and debited to Profit and Loss A/c.
Answer:
d. Subtracted from Purchases A/c and debited to Profit and Loss A/c.

Hint:
Journal entries will be
Accounting Process - III – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1

Question 151.
Sriram purchased a furniture for Rs. 6,000, the accounts affected from this transaction will be:
a. Capital account and cash account
b. Furniture account and cash account
c. Furniture account and capital account
d. Capital account and bank account.
Answer:
b. Furniture account and cash account

Question 152.
Rs.25,000 spent on tile overhaul of second hand purchased machines would be (x) Revenue expenditure (y) Capital expenditure (z) Deferred revenue expenditure. The options are:
a. (x) and (y)
b. (x) only
c. (y) only
d. (z) only.
Answer:
c. (y) only

Hint:
The overhauling expenses incurred on second hand machine purchased in order to bring it to use are not day to day expenses. These are one time expense whose useful life is more than 1 year so capital expenditure.

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Business Communication – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Business Communication – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Concept of Communication:
Communication is a dynamic, transitional (two-way process) in which there is an exchange of ideas linking the sender and receiver toward mutually accepted direction or goals.
It is a process by which information is exchanged between different individuals through a common system of symbols, signs or behaviour etc.
It may be

  • intrapersonal: when we try to communicate with ourself
  • interpersonal communication: when we convey message to others, Communication is derived from a latin word communicate” which means share/participate.

Business Communication:
When one communicates done to transact some business commercial activity i.e. providing goods or services with the intention generating gains is defined as Business Communication.

It is useful to acquire the skill of effective writing and speaking. Information Is giving out; communication is getting through.

Characteristics of Communication:

  • two-way process requiring feedback from the receiver.
  • Ongoing and continuous process.
  • Essential for all types of organisation.
  • its basic purpose is to create mutual understanding by giving information influencing others and elicitingictions.
  • Facts, Ideas and emotions are part of communication.
  • It can also be done through signs.
  • Communication in organisation consist of flow of messages through several networks like problem-solving, workflow etc. It is a dynamic process.
  • It is a goal-oriented process.
  • Communication is an interdisciplinary science.
  • It takes two to communicate message.

Importance of Communication:

  • Increase in Size: Larger business needs more communication. An efficient system of communication is required to carry out its activities successfully.
  • Growing Specialization: Narrow division of work results in different activities being handled by different departments. Specialization can be possible only when there is no communication gap between two specialists.
  • Cut-throat Competition: As per Industrial Policy, 1991 Liberalization and globalisation have resulted into inter-firm competition due to which persuasive communication takes place. Persuasive communication occurs in the form of advertisement, personal contacts and publicity.
  • Trade Union Movement: Employee unions are very strong and powerful Management should consult union leaders in several matters.

Human Relations: Effective communication between management and employee is possible if they develop mutual trust and confidence, by involving employees in decision making etc.

Public Relations: Manager should develop public relation by informing Government, distribution, supplies, investors about its contribution towards the society. Public relations helps business to improve its image in society.

Personal Asset: Communication is a personal asset for a good speaker as it is essential for success in every job. Manager need to deliver speeches, write documents and conduct interviews which requires good communication skills.

Means of Communication:
While transmitter of written communication one has to pay serious attention towards:

  • Appropriate Words
  • Clarity of Ideas
  • Inoffensive language
  • Lucid style
  • Coherent Presentation

Appropriate Words: Words should not be used in negative aspect or should not be misunderstood. It depends upon the situation, in which these words are used.

Clarity of Ideas: It is a precursor or for effective communication. Use of uncertain words should be avoided, clarity of expression requires proper encoding of the message and choice of appropriate words.
Inoffensive Language: To Build Goodwill or reputation, inoffensive language is required especially while communicating with the organisation.

Lucid Style: It implies uniformity in the style of writing. There are certain executives who cultivate a style of writing from which they rarely depart.

Coherent Presentation: A proper link between various sentences and paragraphs must be clear which makes it easily understandable.

Oral Communication:
Around 80% of communication is in the oral form. Various modes of oral communication includes telephone, message, video conferencing, speeches etc.
Speech is the earliest and most widely used medium of communication.

Business Conversation:
There is a great importance of speech in business also. Every now and then we make conversation in business with superiors with subordinate superiors among themselves, subordinates among themselves, customers with suppliers and suppliers with clients etc.

Factors affecting Oral Communications:

  • Audience
  • Size of Audience
  • The degree of significance attached to the information to be spoken out,
  • Fear of Loss
  • Fear of status, etc.

Effective oral communication is a passport to success in business.

Advantages of Oral Communication:

  • Saves time:
  • Provides opportunity for instant feedback and clarifies the doubts.
  • Helps to convey the message more appropriately with suitable tone, voice and use of words. ‘
  • An effective tool of persuasion in management.
  • Very effective in communicating with groups.
  • Economical as it saves man-hours & stationery.
  • Its withdrawal is comparatively easy.

Disadvantage of Oral Communication:

  • Depends on Sender / Receiver’s attitude.
  • It is not a One-Sided Activity. It is complete when the sender sends the message and receiver receives the messages and sends its feedback.
  • Bad/ partial listening affects the message communicated.
  • There is no record for future reference or legal liability.
  • Its economy is control specific.
  1. Dictation:
  • Sort all your incoming mail yourself or leave it to be done by your secretary.
  • Be clear in pronunciation. Use simple words and short sentences
  • Do not repeat the sentences.
  • Spell out complicated or technical words.
  • Take personal action only on those papers that you feel are important and require your personal attention
  • Organize your thoughts, plan the reply for a letter and if required, note down all the points you want to cover before you commence your dictation.
  • Set aside regular time slots for dictation.
  • Use your natural voice and normal volume.
  • Do not dictate while chewing something.
  • Pause after completing a sentence.
  • Listen Carefully on dictation being read back to you.
  • Give all letters and supporting papers to your secretary.

2. Talking on the telephone:

  • Do not let your telephone ring for too long reflect promptness.
  • Be clear and audible and do not shout into the mouthpiece.
  • Always be polite, no matter what your mood is or how the person on the other end is talking.
  • Do not answer in rush
  • Be calm
  • Do not eat or chew while talking
  • Never bang the phone, always replace the receiver gently on the cradle.

Visual Communication:
It is communication with words, pictures, logos or any combination of the three. It can be in the forms of graphs, maps, slides, models etc.

Advantages of Visual Communication:

  • It makes conveying of information easier for the receiver to follow.
  • It is remembered easily by the receiver and for a long period.

Disadvantages of visual communication:
(i) This mode is expensive

Audiovisual communication:
It includes communication through cinema, internet, television, video conferencing etc.

Advantages of audiovisual communication:

  • Uses both sight and hearing simultaneously for communicating
  • Enhances the effectiveness of the message
  • Wider reach
  • Message remembered for a longer time.

Disadvantages of Audiovisual communication:

  • High Cost:
    Factors for Choosing Means and Mode of communication
  • Organizations size and policy: Smaller the organisation, communication will be oral. Larger the organisation communication will be in writing.
  • Cost Factor: The cost incurred by the organisation to communicate the messages should show the expected results.
  • Nature of message: Whether the message is confidential, important or urgent and whether it needs to be sent by post or hand delivery.
  • Distance Involved: Long-distance messages should not be send personally.
  • Resources: The resources available at both the ends may influence our choice.

Process of Communication:
Business Communication – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 1
Sender:
The person initiating the idea of communicating a message.

Message:
The idea or message, which the sender wants to be conveyed. It should be encoded in words/symbols suitable for the receiver.

Medium:
Medium can be oral as well as in written form. Written medium may be reports, fax, telegram, telephone or email.

Receiver:
Person receiving the message. He decodes the message in order to determine the meaning of the message sent to him.

Feedback:
When receiver sends a message to the sender ¡n form of a response to complete the communication.

Noise:
Cause of communication failure.
Success of communication is proportionate to control of noise at
different levels of communication process.

Principles and Essentials of Communication:
Effective communication can be achieved by having a thorough knowledge of the communication process in an organisation.
It mainly depends upon 3 things-

  1. Understandable messages,
  2. Credibility of the sender
  3. How message is affecting the receiver.

Seven C’s of Effective Communication

  1. Clarity of expression
  2. Completeness of information
  3. Conciseness of message
  4. Concreteness in presentation
  5. Courtesy towards recipient
  6. Correctness of facts
  7. Consideration for receiver

Guidelines for effective communication:

  • Choose the Right Means and Mode: This depends upon organisation’s size, policy, cost involved, urgency and various other factors.
  • Own Your Message: Sender and receiver own the responsibility for whatever they say.
  • Offer Complete and Relevant Information:
    Incomplete information makes it necessary to begin another cycle of communication to issue clarification therefore message must offer complete and relevant information.
  • Obtain Feedback: Obtaining feedback through receiver ensures that message has been correctly understood.
  • Think of the Recipient’s status before communicating:
  • Verbal and Non-Verbal Congruence: Verbal & non-verbal expressions must be coordinated simultaneously.
  • Repeat If Necessary: To save time and space, repetition should be avoided. Repetition ensures that crucial part of message is no ignored or overlooked.
  • Do not Judge: Ljnfavourable Judgement sometimes effects the organisation goodwill. Avoid premature evaluation.
  • Rely on Facts: Communication must not be relied on certain things which cannot be proved. It must be relied on facts.

Types of Communication
Communication is of two types:

  1. Internal
  2. External

Internal Communication:

  • It refers to communication within the organisation.
  • It is important because as business grows in size, its activities becomes more complex.
  • It promotes understanding and cooperation among members.
  • It can be official or unofficial.
  • Most of it is in oral form.
  • Communication at personal level within the organisation is an informal

communication (grapevine):

  • All modes of non-verbal communication can be used.
  • Some modes of written communication are also used.
  • Intelligent managers use this human weakness to their advantage shaving favourable with the employees.

External Communication:

  • When the people in the organisation communicate with anyone outside the organisation.
  • These people may be clients, customers, dealers, or distributors.
  • Methods: letters, circulars, price lists, etc.

Mainly: Formal and documented.
All modes of Visual, audiovisual and non-verbal communication may be used.

Communication Flow:
It depends upon organisations:

  • Size
  • Structure
  • Philosophy

It may be –

  1. Downward,
  2. Upward,
  3. Diagonal, or
  4. Horizontal.

Downward Flow:
It flows from a superior to a subordinate.

  • traditional organisations have a vertical structure.
  • All the decisions are taken from the top.
  • Suited for an organisation in which the line of authority runs downwards.

Disadvantages:

  • Under and over communication
  • Delay
  • Loss of information
  • Creation of authoritarian atmosphere
  • Distortion

Upward Flow:
Flow moves from subordinate to superior.
It leads to prevention of new problems and solutions of the old ones.

Diagonal Flow:

  • Sometimes communication involves more than one department in the organisation.
  • It enables people to talk to lower & higher ranks freely.
  • It is based on cooperation, goodwill and respect between the parties concerned.

Horizontal Communication
It takes place between people of same status or level of authority.
It helps in promoting better understanding and coordination among various people or departments.

Johar Window: It is the one of the most useful model describing the process of human interaction. It was propounded be Joseph Luit and HarryIngham.

1. Arena – Known to self – also called open quadrant

2. Blind Spot -Not known to self

3. Facade – Known to others -Hidden quadrant

4. Unknown – neither known to – participants nor by peers.

Business Communication:
• Mainly: Formal and documented.
• All modes of Visual, audio-visual and non-verbal communication may be used.

Barriers of Communication:
Lack of Planning: Message should be communicated with propel planning. If the message is not clear, il is supposed that the purpose In mind is also not clear.

False Assumption: Some times while communicating sender start with several assumption which may or may not be true and receiver forced to accept them.

Ambiguity: Sometimes receiver may not understand the meaning intended by the sender. A wrong interference is often drawn when the message yields more than one meaning.

Distortion: Many communication gets distorted due to change in provisions or medium while the sender thinks that message is sent at delivered properly, the truth is that receiver has not understood it at all.

Passing Judgement: Use of offensive or annoying expressions sometimes make the communication ineffective.

Implied Meaning: It is possible for the receiver not to get the implied meaning due to differences in his and senders background.

Lack of Trust: Lack of trust may result in communication failure as the relationship between the sender and receiver are not so strong. The Information shared by them is less due to lack of confidence.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. What does Vitra personal communication mean.
(a) Communication with ourselves
(b) Communication with other
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of above
Answer:
(a) Communication with ourselves

2. What does interpersonal communication mean.
(a) Communication with ourselves
(b) Communication with other
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Communication with other

3. “The language of a politician obscures the truth. The language of an artist revels it. Who spoke these words?
(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) John Keats
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) JM Keynes
Answer:
(a) Salman Rushdie

4. English has become the global language of business and finance Who spoke this lino?
(a) John Keats
(b) Salman Rushdie
(c) Nayantara Sehgal
(d) JM Keynes
Answer:
(c) Nayantara Sehgal

5. College teach one thing that is perhaps most valuable for the future employees to know. This one basic skill is to organize and express ideas in writing and speaking. Who spoke these words?
(a) Nayantara Sehgal
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) John Keats
(d) Salman Rushdie
Answer:
(b) Peter Drucker

6. Which of the following feature is not of communication?
(a) Continuous
(b) Goal-Oriented
(c) No flow of Message
(d) Inter-disciplinary Science
Answer:
(c) No flow of Message

7. Study of Body language is known as –
(a) Anthropology
(b) Psychology
(c) Sociology
(d) Political science
Answer:
(a) Anthropology

8. Study of persuasion, perception and attitude.
(a) Anthropology
(b) Psychology
(c) Sociology
(d) Political science
Answer:
(b) Psychology

9. Study of voting behaviour is known as.
(a) Sociology
(b) Political Science
(c) Anthropology
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (b)

10. Which of the following is not an importance of communication.
(a) Human Relation
(b) Inter-disciplinary science
(c) Personal Asset
(d) Public Relation
Answer:
(b) Inter-disciplinary science

11. Which ¡s not a type of verbal communication.
(a) Oral
(b) Written
(c) Visual
(d) Gestures
Answer:
(d) Gestures

12. Which is not a type of Non-Verbal Communication.
(a) Gestures
(b) Movements
(c) Eye contacts
(d) Visual
Answer:
(d) Visual

13. Which of the feature belongs to choice of means and mode of communication.
(a) Nature of organisation
(b) Variable Means
(c) Distance Involved
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Distance Involved

14. ……………………… is necessary for the completion of communication process.
(a) Encoding
(b) Decoding
(c) Feedback
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Feedback

15. Which of the following is not a part of seven ‘C’s of Effective Communication.
(a) Clarity of expression
(b) Conciseness in presentation
(c) Correctness of facts
(d) Completeness of information
Answer:
(b) Conciseness in presentation

16. Which mode of communication is internal communication.
(a) Verbal communication
(b) Non-verbal communication
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

17. Whiçh is not a communication flow.
(a) Upward
(b) Horizontal
(c) Vertical
(d) Diagonal
Answer:
(c) Vertical

18. Which is a barrier to communication.
(a) True assumption
(b) Trust and confidence
(c) Planned way
(d) Ambiguity
Answer:
(d) Ambiguity

19. Communication is essentially a ………………… process.
(a) One way
(b) Threeway
(c) Four-way
(d) Two way
Answer:
(d) Two way

20. Facial expression; gestures; eye contact; nodding the head and physical appearance are the form of:
(a) Verbal Communication
(b) Oral Communication
(c) Non-Verbal Communication
(d) Visual Communication
Answer:
(c) Non-Verbal Communication

21. What is an essential part of Communication?
(a) Ongoing Process
(b) Goal-oriented process
(c) To Create mutual understandings
(d) Feedback.
Answer:
(d) Feedback.

22. Which Communication is essential for insuring mutual co-operation and understanding between different departments.
(a) Sound Communication
(b) Organizational Communication
(c) Persuasive Communication
(d) Oral Communication
Answer:
(a) Sound Communication

23. Flow of messages through several networks.
(a) Sound Communication
(b) Organizational Communication
(c) Persuasive Communication
(d) Written Communication
Answer:
(b) Organizational Communication

24. Which form of communication has a strong cultural context.
(a) Verbal Communication
(b) Non-verbal Communication
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Oral Communication
Answer:
(b) Non-verbal Communication

25. An advantage of oral communication is:
(a) Partial Listening
(b) Effective tool of persuasion in Management.
(c) One sided Activity
(d) No record or legal liability
Answer:
(b) Effective tool of persuasion in Management.

26. What is a Coherence?
(a) Lack of poise
(b) Proper link between the sentence and the paragraphs.
(c) Confused thinking
(d) Branching off from the main streams of thought while writing the evidence
Answer:
(b) Proper link between the sentence and the paragraphs.

27. There are …………… C’s of effective communication.
(a) Six
(b) Seven
(c) Four
(d) Nine
Answer:
(b) Seven

28. ‘Intrapersonal’ Communication includes two or more persons.
(a) True
(b) False, it includes only oneself.
(c) True, in internal organisation only
(d) True, in matrix organisation only
Answer:
(b) False, it includes only oneself.

29. ‘Inter-disciplinary Science’ means-
(a) Knowledge from various other subjects
(b) Knowledge from various types of communication
(c) Knowledge from various sciences
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Knowledge from various sciences

30. Communication is personal
(a) Art
(b) Talent
(c) Asset
(d) (a) & (b)
Answer:
(c) Asset

31. Press Release, Radio, Presentation, video Conferencing, which one of these is odd?
(a) Presentation
(b) Video conferencing
(c) (a) & (d)
(d) Press Release
Answer:
(d) Press Release.

32. Coherent presentation is an important factor of communication Here ‘coherent’ stands for:
(a) Clear
(b) Easy & Soft
(c) Soft
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Clear

33. Which factor is not in consideration while Choosing means & mode of communication.
(a) Cost factor
(b) Nature & weather of locality
(c) Resources
(d) Distance involved
Answer:
(b) Nature & weather of locality

34. ………………….. function is discharged in reverse.
(a) Feedback
(b) Receiving
(c) Decoding
(d) Encoding
Answer:
(a) Feedback

35. Memo, Fax, Circulars, Manuals; emails Which of these cannot be used for external communication?
(a) Circulars
(b) Manuals
(c) Memo
(d) All of above
Answer:
(c) Memo

36. Which of these is odd?
Distortions, Ambiguity, Lack of Controlling false assumptions, implied meanings, passing judgements.
(a) False assumptions & Passing judgements
(b) Ambiguity
(c) Distortions & False assumptions
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(d) All are correct

37. VerbosIty means.
(a) Use of fine language
(b) Use of superfluous words
(c) Use of rude and rough Language
(d) Use of Unethical ideas.
Answer:
(b) Use of superfluous words

38. Abrupt means.
(a) Sudden and unexpected
(b) Drowsy and lazy
(c) Unclear
(d) Displeased
Answer:
(a) Sudden and unexpected

39. Communication is the exchange of:
(a) Facts
(b) Ideas
(c) Signs
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

40. PlaIn Language Commission insisted that the USP (Unique Selling Proposition) of business English should be:
(a) Ornamental
(b) Clancy
(c) Simplicity
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

41. ‘The Language of a politician obscures the truth. The language of an artist reveals ir This is said by
(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Sydney J Harris
(d) Nayantara Sehgal
Answer:
(a) Salman Rushdie

42. “Reading maketh a full man, writing an exact man, Conference a ready man” who spoke these words.
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Francis Beacon
(c) Sydney Harris
(d) Salman Rushdie
Answer:
(b) Francis Beacon

43. Which of the following is not an advantage of written communication
(a) More time consuming
(b) Accurate and precise
(c) Can be easily revised
(d) Sufficient time for planning
Answer:
(a) More time consuming

44. Oral communication includes:
(a) Type recorder
(b) Flip charts
(c) Intercom
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

45. Which of the following is a disadvantage of oral communication.
(a) Saves time
(b) Economical
(c) no record for future preference
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) no record for future preference

46. Visual Communication includes:
(a) Maps
(b) Slider
(c) Graphs
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

47. Which of the following Is not a type al audiovisual Communication:
(a) Cinema
(b) Video Conferencing
(c) Neon Hoardings
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Neon Hoardings

48. Lack of planning acts as a communication barrier.
(a) True
(b) False, if it is well co-ordinated
(c) false, planning can never be a communication barrier
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

49. Which mode of Communication is external communication.
(a) Verbal Communication
(b) Non-verbal communication
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

50. ‘Agenda’ includes which skill of the following:
(a) Writing
(b) Oral
(c) Speaking
(d) Listening
Answer:
(a) Agenda is a document that outlines the content of a forthcoming. meeting. It is usually send alongwith notice of the meeting. It is not compulsory.

List of Agendas are:

  • Minutes of last meeting
  • Matter arising from the minutes
  • Any other business
  • Date of next meeting

Thus, Agenda is a document which includes writing skills.

51. Which one of the following is not a barrier to communication
(a) Distortion in communication
(b) Feedback
(c) Ambiguity
(d) Lack of trust
Answer:
(b) Barriers of Communication are the causes of misunderstanding and misinterpretations of message communicated.
There are various types of barriers such as:

  • Lack of Planning
  • False Assumption
  • Ambiguity
  • Distortion
  • Passing Judgement
  • Implied meeting
  • Lack of trust

Thus, “Feedback” is not the barrier to communication.

52. Communication by the CEO of the organisation to the purchase officer is an example of:
(a) Upward communication
(b) Downward communication
(c) Horizontal communication
(d) Informal communication.
Answer:
(b) Communication by the CEO of the organisation to the purchase officer is an example of downward communication.
Traditional organisations have a vertical structure. All the important decisions are taken at the top. These are communicated through different levels of hierarchy to the workers at lower levels which is possible by downward communication.

53. Crosswise communication is also known as …………………….. communication.
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Diagonal
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Crosswise Communication is also known as Diagonal Communication. Diagonal communication is based on co-operation, goodwill and respect between the parties concerned. Here the people are able to talk to lower/higher ranks freely rather than waiting.

54. If you want to reduce miscommunication, you should:
(X) Start assuming
(Y) Talk to people
(Z) Improve your working environment The correct option is:
(a) (X)and(Y)
(b) (Y) and (Z)
(c) (X) and (Z)
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Communication failures may be caused due to many reasons which need to be kept in mind so as to reduce miscommunication:

  • Sender must avoid false assumptions.
  • Message must be send with adequate planning.
  • There must be no ambiguity in the message send.
  • Sender must talk to people to solve their queries.
  • Working requirements must be approved.

Thus, correct option is Y and Z.

55. Which one of the following is not a barrier to communication?
(a) Incorrect choice of medium
(b) Difference in status
(c) Trust level
(d) Open communication channel.
Answer:
(d) Communication failures may be caused due to various reasons such as:
→ Lack of planning
→ False Assumption
→ Ambiguity
→ Incorrect choice of medium
→ Distortions
→ Passing judgements
→ Lack of trust
→ Status differences
Open communication channel is not a barrier to communication.

56. Match the parts of communication process to their respective definition:
1 Receiver (i) It decodes the message to determine the meaning of the message sent
2. Feedback (ii) An idea of an argument initially originates from here.
3. Medium (iii) After this process one cycle of interpersonal communication is completed
4. Sender (iv) It may be in the form of a letter or report, fax or telegram, telephone or email.
The correct option is:
(a) 1 (i), 2 (iii), 3 (iv), 4 (ii)
(b) 1 (iii), 2 (i), 3 (iv), 4 (ii)
(c) 1 (iv), 2 (iii), 3 (i), 4 (ii)
(d) 1 (ii), 2 (i), 3 (iv), 4 (iii).
Answer:
5. (a) Receiver → It decodes the message to determine the meaning of the message sent.
Feedback → After this process one cycle of interpersonal communication is completed.
Medium → It may be in the form of a letter or report, fax or telegram, telephone or email.
Sender → An idea or an argument initially originates from here.

57. Gestures cannot be used in –
(a) Oral communication
(b) Body language
(c) Written communication
(d) Informal communication.
Answer:
(c) Written communication means communication in written form. It may require drafting of letters and circulars proposals, memos etc. but it doesn’t include any gestures. Hence, gestures cannot be used in written communication.

58. Seven C’s of effective communication do not include –
(a) Consideration of sender
(b) Courtesy towards recipient
(c) Correctness of facts
(d) Concreteness in presentation.
Answer:
(a) Seven C’s of effective communication –

  1. Clarity of expression
  2. Completeness of information
  3. Conciseness of message
  4. Concreteness in presentation
  5. Courtesy towards recipient
  6. Correctness of facts
  7. Consideration for receiver.

Hence, Consideration of sender is not included in 7 C’s of effective communication.

59. The flow or pattern of communication can be –
(a) Downward
(b) Upward
(c) Diagonal or horizontal
(d) All of the above.
(d) The flow or pattern of communication may be downward, upward, diagonal or horizontal. Hence, all of the above option is correct.

60. Top to bottom communication is known as.
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Lateral
(d) Diagonal
Answer:
(a) Top to bottom communication is known as vertical because traditional organisation have vertical structure and in these organisations, communication flow from top to bottom as most of the decisions are taken by the top-level management. Hence, option (a) is correct.

61. ………………………… language should not be used in communication.
(a) Polite
(b) Clear
(c) Offensive
(d) Oral.
Answer:
(c) Language should be used in communication are:

  • Appropriate words
  • Clarity of ideas
  • Inoffensive language
  • Lucid style
  • Coherent presentation

Thus, offensive language should not be used in communication.

62. Horizontal communication is:
(a) From higher to lower level
(b) From lower to higher level
(c) At same level
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Horizontal communication takes place between people of same status or level of authority. Thus, horizontal communication is done at same level.

63. Process of communication doesn’t include.
(a) Receiver
(b) Feedback
(c) Sender
(d) Correct language
Answer:
(d) Process of communication includes the following elements: –

  • Sender
  • Message
  • Medium
  • Receiver
  • Feedback

Thus, process of communication does not includes correct language.

64. 7’Cs of effective communication doesn’t include.
(a) Clarity of expression
(b) Completeness of presentation
(c) Conciseness of message
(d) Courtesy towards recipients.
Answer:
(b) Seven C’s of effective communication are

  1. – Clarity of expression
  2. – Completeness of information
  3. – Conciseness of message
  4. – Concreteness in presentation
  5. – Courtesy towards recipient
  6. – Correctness of facts
  7. – Consideration for receiver

Hence, completeness of presentation is not included in 7 C’s of effective communication.

65. Which of the following is not a barrier of communication.
(a) Lack of planning
(b) Ambiguity
(c) Lack of staffing
(d) Lack of trust
Answer:
(b) Barriers to communication are the causes of misunderstanding and misinterpretations of message communicated.
There are various types of barriers such as: –

  • Lack of Planning
  • False Assumption
  • Ambiguity
  • Distortion
  • Passing Judgement
  • Implied meeting
  • Lack of Trust

Thus, lack of staffing is not a barriers of communication.

66. Choose the correct phrase to complete the following sentence while giving dictation ………………………………. .
(a) One may not organise one’s thoughts before dictating the message
(b) One may be clear in pronunciation
(c) One may not ask the secretary to read back the message
(d) One may refrain from dictating technical words.
Answer:
(b) While giving dictation, few things should be kept in mind such as:

  • Organise your thoughts, plan the reply for a letter and if need be jot down all the points you want to cover before you commence your dictation.
  • Be clear in pronunciation. Use simple words and short sentences.
  • Do not repeat words or sentences unless requested.
  • Spell out complicated or technical words.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

67. Most communication failures are caused because of:
(a) Light
(b) Music
(c) Dance
(d) Noise.
Answer:
(d) Most communication failures are caused because of Noise. It is an element, which interferes with the communication process. The success of communication is proportionate to the control of noise at different level of the communication process.

68. Which is not a mode of external written communication?
(a) Office order
(b) Advertisement
(c) Press release
(d) Invitation for Annual General Meeting.
Answer:
(a) When people in an organisation communicate with anyone outside the organisation it is called external communication. These people may be clients or customers, dealers, media, government, general public (includes shareholders) etc.

The modes of external written communication can be advertisement, press release, circulars, invitation for annual general meeting etc. Hence, option (a) office order is not a mode of external written communication.

69. Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?
(a) Video conferencing
(b) Gestures
(c) Letters
(d) E-mail.
Answer:
(b) Non-verbal communication where messages are communicated through body language (i.e.) facial expression & gestures. Hence, letters, emails & video conferencing are the verbal modes of communication.

70. This began as an American experiment in computer communication technology during the cold war and has revolutionised the world:
(a) Internet
(b) Fax
(c) Radar
(d) Telegrams.
Answer:
(a) What began as an American experiment in computer communication technology during the cold war has revolutionised the world. E-mail has been around for almost as internet.

71. Most communication failures are caused because of:
(a) Music
(b) Noise
(c) Dance
(d) Light.
Answer:
(b) Most communication failures are caused because of noise.

72. Which of the following is a type of verbal Communication?
(a) Nodding of the head
(b) Manuals
(c) Gestures
(d) Movements.
Answer:
(b) Verbal communication includes written communication, oral visual and audio-visual communication. Which in comprises Manuals Reports, Fax charts, Presentation etc.

73. ………………………………. communication. How usually takes place between people at the same level of hierarchy in the organisation.
(a) Horizontal
(b) Downward
(c) Upward
(d) Vertical.
Answer:
(a) Horizontal Communication usually takes places between people at the same level of hierarchy.

74. “Relevant details must be submitted for the preparation of order by Saturday”. This is an example of which kind of communication barrier:
(a) False assumption
(b) Passing judgements
(c) Ambiguity
(d) Distortions.
Answer:
(c) Ambiguity: We must remember that our intentions are strictly private. They are only known to us. Therefore, the receiver may not correctly understand the meaning intended by us. Wrong inference is often drawn because the message yields more than one meaning. For example, the instruction that relevant details must be submitted for preparation of order by Saturday is ambiguous. It does not clarify whether the details are required by Saturday or that day itself.

75. There are C’s in communication:
(a) Seven
(b) Six
(c) Four
(d) Eight
Answer:
(a) There are seven C’s of Effective Communication:

  1. Clarity of expression
  2. Completeness of information
  3. Conciseness of message
  4. Concreteness in presentation
  5. Courtesy towards recipient
  6. Correctness of facts
  7. Consideration for the receiver

76. Which is not the barrier to communication:
(a) Lack of planning
(b) Ambiguity
(c) Gestures
(d) False Assumptions
Answer:
(c) Barriers to communication:

  • Lack of Planning
  • False Assumption
  • Ambiguity
  • Distortions
  • Passing-Judgements
  • Implied Meaning
  • Lack of Trust

Thus, option (c) i.e. Gestures is not a barrier to communication.

77. Which is not a mode of external written communication?
(a) Press release
(b) Advertisement
(c) Invitation for Annual General Meeting
(d) Office order.
Answer:
(d) Office orders is not a mode of external written communication. It is the internal communication which is within the organisation. It could be individual to individual, individual to group, group to individual etc.

78. Effective communication has become essential due to:
(a) Increase in size of organisation
(b) Growing specialisation
(c) Growing need of co-ordination
(d) All the stated options are correct.
Answer:
(d) Effective communication has become essential increase in size of organisation as firms have grown tremendously in scale of operation thereby making communication to carry out its activities across successfully secondly growing specialization and coordination.

79. Which of the following is not an advantage of oral communication?
(a) It depends on the listening of the receiver
(b) It is economical
(c) It provides the opportunity for immediate feedback
(d) It helps to convey the message with suitable tone.
Answer:
(a) Oral communication depends upon the listening of the receiver is not an advantage as it is not a one-sided activity. The communication has to use appropriate words to convey the message and the receiver has to have the ability to, reach to the message spontaneously to give the feedback.

80. In the communication process, the sender the message.
(a) Decodes
(b) Encodes
(c) Feedback
(d) Receives.
Answer:
(b) In the communication process, the sender encodes the message which he wants to convey. The idea or message, at this stage may be quite vague so it has to be given a concrete shape by encoding it in suitable words or symbols.

81. Which of the following pattern should confirm to the writing strategy of a newsletter in an organisation?
(a) No pattern exists
(b) The news, the explanation, a positive close and a contact number
(c) A buffer, an explanation, the news, the positive close
(d) A buffer, the news, the reasons, a neutral close.
Answer:
(b) Ideal Writing Strategy of a Newsletter in an Organisation covers following levels:

  • The NEWS
  • Various Explanations
  • A positive winding-up closure to Newsletter
  • Lastly, Organisation Contact Details are furnished.

82. The process of communication does not involve:
(a) Medium
(b) Feedback
(c) Fax message
(d) Sender
Answer:
(c) Process of communication involves:

  • Sender
  • Message
  • Medium
  • Receiver
  • Feedback
  • Noise

83. The highest level of interactivity between the sender and the receiver is in.
(a) Electronic news letters
(b) Bulletin Boards
(c) Face-to-face communications
(d) Facebook postings
Answer:
(c) Face to face communication gives a personal touch to the communication. It also provides an opportunity for feedback and clarification. Thus, it is most interactive in nature.

84. Horizontal flow of communication takes place
(a) Between people of the same level.
(b) Between more than one organisation. .
(c) From lower levels to higher levels of authority.
(d) From higher levels to lower levels of authority.
Answer:
(a) Horizontal type of communication flow usually takes place between people of the same status/level of hierarchy in the organization. However, as flatter organizational structures have now become the order of the day, people of different ranks now manage to converse with less reserve and formality. There are many advantages of such openness. Policy decisions are no longer shrouded in mystery. Workers are encouraged to ask questions and understand the compulsions of hard decisions. There is better understanding and coordination.

85. Which of the following is not an advantage of oral communication?
(a) It provides the opportunity for immediate feedback.
(b) It helps to convey the message with suitable tone.
(c) It depends on the listening skills of the receiver.
(d) Its economical.
Answer:
(c) Every now and then in business we make conversation – superiors with subordinates, superiors among themselves, subordinates among themselves, customers with suppliers, and suppliers with clients and so on and so forth. Hence, we cannot ignore the importance of speech in business. Its success or failure depends on the mental make-up of the sender/receiver at the time of communication. Thus, option c will be considered as disadvantage but not the advantage.

86. Which of the following, falls into the group of seven C’s of effective communication?
(a) Customer newsletter
(b) Customised reports
(c) Courtesy towards recipient
(d) Customers feedback
Answer:
(c) The key to success of business partly lies in being able to communicate effectively; one should make a conscious effort to master it. Effective communication depends on three things: “Understandable messages, credibility of the sender, and how the message affects the receiver”. Hence, courtesy towards the recipient is the one among the seven C’s from the above options.

87. Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) Written communication does not allow immediate feedbacks, as compared to oral communication
(b) Written communication does not create legal liability
(c) Written communication is permanent
(d) Written communication takes much more time
Answer:
(b) Written Communication does create legal obligation and are legally binding on the parties.

88. Words are changed to signals with the help of the …………………… key in a telegram.
(a) Marons
(b) Mortoris
(c) Morse’s
(d) Morgoris.
Answer:
(c) In Telegrams, on order to send a message words are changed into signals with Marse’s key.

89. Communication failures can be caused due to:
(a) Ambiguity
(b) Clarity
(c) Correctness
(d) Completeness
Answer:
(a) Ambiguity is one of the basic reasons of distortions in communication.

90. “Relevant details must be submitted for the preparation of order by Saturday”. This is an example of which kind of communication barrier?
(a) Passing judgements
(b) Ambiguity
(c) False assumption
(d) Distortions
Answer:
(b) The given is example of ambiguity and it does not clarify whether the details are required by Saturday or the order must be prepared by that day.

91. Which one of the following is grammatically correct?
(a) I bought three dozen bananas
(b) I bought three dozen bananas
(c) I bought three dozens banana
(d) I bough three dozen banana.
Answer:
(b) I bought three dozen bananas is grammatically correct.

92. Don’t worry we are prepared ……………….. anythings. Which one of the following is the correct preposition to fill in the blank space?
(a) By
(b) From
(c) To
(d) For
Answer:
(d) Don’t we are prepared for anythings. ‘For’ is correct preposition.

93. Which of the following serves as a road map for the meeting?
(a) Addendum to the notice
(b) Agenda
(c) Quorum
(d) Notice
Answer:
3. (b) Agenda means to serve as a road map for meeting.

94. If you want to reduce miscommunication on, you should:
(x) Start assuming
(y) Talk to people
(z) Improve your working environment The Correct option is:
(a) (x)and(y)
(b) (y) and (z)
(c) (x) and (z)
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) By talking to people, miscommunication can be reduced to the great extent. Improve working environment helps to reduce miscommunication

95. Which of the following is not a barrier to communication?
(a) Incorrect choice of medium
(b) Difference in status
(c) Trust level
(d) Open communication channel
Answer:
(d) Open communication channel is not a barrier to communication.

96. Match the parts of communication process to their respective definition:
1. ReceIver (i) It decodes the massage to determine the meaning of the message sent
2. Feedback (ii) An idea or an argument initially originates from here.
3. MedIum (iii) After this process one side of interpersonal communication is completed.
4. Sender (iv) It may be in the tom, at a letter or report fax or telegram, telephone or email.

The Correct option is:
(a) 1 (i), 2 (iii), 3(iv), 4 (ii)
(b) 1 (iii), 2 (i), 3 (iv), 4 (ii)
(c) 1 (iv), 2 (iii), 3 (i), 4 (ii)
(d) 1 (ii), 2 (i), 3 (iv), 4 (iii)
Answer:
6. (a) ‘Receiver means it decodes the message to determine the meaning of message sent. ‘Feedback’ means after this process one cycle of inter-personal communication is communicated. “Medium’ may be in the form of a letter or report fax or telegram, telephone or e-mail. ‘Sender’ means An idea or an agreement initially originates from here.

97. The word “Communication” has been derived from.
(a) Communism
(b) Community
(c) Communicate
(d) Communis
Answer:
(d) “Communication” is derived from latin word Communis which means to import, to share or to make common.

98. Which of the following is incorrect
(a) Communication is a dynamic process
(b) Communication is one-way process
(c) Communication is ongoing process
(d) It mot only contain facts but ideas and emotions too.
Answer:
(c) Communication is a two-way process
It contains not only facts but ideas, emotions and information too.
It is ongoing process
It is a dynamic process etc., hence option (b) is correct option.

99. Flow of Communication is:
(a) Upward flow
(b) Diagonal flow
(c) Horizontal flow
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) Channels of Communication:

  • Downwards flows
  • Upward flows
  • Diagonal flows
  • Horizontal; hence option (d) is correct.

100. Language of communication may be:
(a) Verbal or written only
(b) Verbal or Non-verbal
(c) Oral only
(d) Gestural only
Answer:
Business Communication – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 2

101. Which one of these is a mode of Non-Verbal communication:
(a) Video conference
(b) Tele Communication
(c) Gestures
(d) Massages
Answer:
(c) Types of Non-Verbal Communication:

  • Gestures
  • Facial expressions
  • Movement
  • Eye Contact
  • Physical appearance

102. Gestures cannot be used in –
(a) Oral communication
(b) Body language
(c) Written communication
(d) Informal communication.
Answer:
(c) Gestures cannot be used in written communication because they can only be represented by personal communication.

103. Seven C’s of effective communication do not include –
(a) Consideration of sender
(b) Courtesy towards recipient
(c) Correctness of facts
(d) Concreteness in presentation
Answer:
(a) Seven C’s of effective communication are as follows:

  • Correctness of facts
  • Clarity of expression
  • Conciseness of message
  • Completeness of information
  • Consideration of the receiver
  • Concreteness in presentation
  • Courtesy towards recipient.

104. The flow or pattern of communication can be –
(a) Downward
(b) Upward
(c) Diagonal or horizontal
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) The flow of pattern of communication can be

  • Downward
  • Upward
  • Diagonal or horizontal.

105. To eat one’s words
(a) To retract one’s assertions under compulsion.
(b) To have to humiliate one self.
(c) To make something less effective.
(d) To issue a challenge.
Answer:
(a) To eat one’s words means- Retract what one has said, especially in a humiliated way.
Eg. They will eat their words when win.

106. Meaning of ab initio?
(a) To the same thing
(b) To infinity
(c) From the beginning
(d) In good faith.
Answer:
(c) The phrase “ab initio” means From the beginning.

107. Downward communication can tie done between?
(a) Employer and Employer
(b) Employee and Employee
(c) Employer and Employee
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(c) Traditional organisations have a vertical structure. All the important decisions are taken at the top. These are communicated through different levels of hierarchy to the workers. It is done between employer and employee.

108. Business communication is:
(a) Internal and informal
(b) External and formal
(c) Internal as well as external
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(d) Types of Communication –

  • Internal Communication
  • External Communication
  • Formal Communication
  • Informal Communication
  • Downward Communication
  • Upward Communication
  • Vertical Communication

109. Sender can be:
(a) Receiver
(b) Recipient
(c) Communicator
(d) All of above.
Answer:
(c) Sender is a person who want to share ideas, facts etc. Hence sender can be a communicator.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Company:
→ A company is owned by shareholders who appoint Directors to give direction to the business. Company is a legal body in its own right with an existence that is separate in law from its owners. The company will thus be sued and can sue in its own name.

→ Shareholders put funds into the company by buying shares. The money contributed for purchase of shares is the capital of the company. Thus total share capital is divided into smaller portions which are called shares and persons purchase these shares and become the owners in the company. Limited liability is a form of business protection for company shareholders.

→ Meaning of shares: A unit of ownership that represents an equal proportion of a company’s capital. It entitles its holder (the shareholder) to an equal claim on the company’s profits and an equal obligation for the company’s debts and losses. Share as defined in Section 2(84) of the Companies Act, 2013 means a share in the share capital of a company and it also includes stock.

→ Types of Shares:
I. Equity Shares – Equity shares are those shares who do not enjoy any preference as regards payment of dividend and repayment of capital. The rate of dividend on equity shares is not fixed. It fluctuates, as it depends on the profits made by a company i.e. higher the profits, higher the dividend, lower the profits, lower die dividend. Moreover Equity shareholders are paid their capital after the preference shareholders are paid. They have normal voting rights. They receive dividend after it is paid to preference shares.

II. Preference Shares – These will usually have a preferential right to a fixed amount of dividend, expressed as a percentage of the nominal (par) value of the share It is, however, still a dividend and payable only out of profits. Preference shareholders are paid their capital first. They do not have normal voting rights. Preference shares are classified into many types like cumulative preference shares, non-cumulative preference shares, convertible preference shares, non-convertible preference shares etc.

→ Types of Share Capital
1. Authorized Share Capital: This is also known as registered capital. It is the maximum amount of capital that the limited company is authorized to issue to its shareholders. However, the maximum amount can be changed by some legal formalities.

2. Subscribed Capital: This is the amount of money that the investors agree to subscribe in return for their shares.

3. Issued Share Capital: This is the part of capital which has been allotted or issued to shareholders.

4. Called up Share Capital: This is the total amount of issued capital for which the holders of shares are required to pay.

5. Paid up Share Capital: This is the actual amount paid by the shareholders on called-up capital. The amount remaining unpaid on the called-up capital is known as “call in arrears”.

→ Issue of Shares:
The number of authorized shares that is sold to and held by the shareholders of a company, regardless of whether they are insiders, institutional investors or the general public are called issued shares. Shares can be issued only when the minimum subscription has been received.

→ Terms of issue of shares:
A limited company may issue the shares on following different terms.
(a) Issue of Shares for Consideration other than cash or for cash or on capitalization of reserves.
(b) Issue of Shares at par i.e. at face value or at nominal value.
(c) Issue of Shares at a Premium i.e. at more than face value.
(d) Issue of Shares at a Discount i.e. at less than the face value.

→ Issue of shares at par: Par value shares are those which have a face value assigned to them. Such shares may be issued at par that is nominal value or face value. When par value shares are issued exactly at par, cash is debited and common stock or preferred stock account is credited. Accounting Entries

→ When shares are issued at par and the amount is paid in lump sum
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 1
In case shares allotted are of different classes then separate account is to be opened for each share class. If minimum subscription is not received then all the money is to be returned back and thus the accounting entry will be
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 2

→ When shares are issued at par but the amount is payable in installment
When all the money due for shares is not payable in lump sum then money can be called in installments. In this case shares are allotted and the money is called as and when required by the company. Such demands are termed as calls. Calls differ from each other by their numbers like first call, second call and so on and last call is called Final call.

→ Accounting Entries
On Receipt of Application Money
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 3
On allotment of shares Share Application Money is transferred to share Capital Account
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 4

→ Issue of shares at Premium: When the shares are issued at a price higher than the nominal value of the shares then it is called as shares issued at a premium. The amount of premium is decided by the board of Directors as per the guide lines issued by SEBI. Such share premium collected by the company is credited to a separate A/c called as “Securities Premium A/c”. Although Securities Premium is a profit to the company, it is not a revenue profit, it is treated as capital profit.

→ Issue of Shares at Discount: The Companies Act, permits issue of shares at a discount subject to the following conditions.
(a) The issue must be of a class of shares already issued.
(b) Not less than 1 year has at the date of issue elapsed since the date on which the company became entitled to commence business.
(c) The issue at a discount is authorized by a resolution passed by the company in the general meeting & sanctioned by the company law board.

→ Until it is written off the amount should be shown on the asset side of Balance Sheet under the head Miscellaneous Expenditure.

→ Under-subscription of Shares: Situation where a new stock (share) issue has fewer buyers than there are shares (the entire number of shares is not initially sold). Sometimes before an IPO, buyers will indicate that they are willing to buy any of the leftover shares from an under subscription scenario. Thus total number of shares applied by people is less than the number of shares offered for subscription but is not less than minimum subscription is termed under- subscription.

→ Over – subscription of Shares: Situation where a new stock (share) issue has more buyers than there are shares to satisfy their orders. This excess of demand over supply occurrence pushes the share’s price higher and may motivate the issuer to bring out another issue. This situation is opposite to under subscription.

→ Calls in Arrears: Money called up for shares, but not paid at the correct time is calls in Arrears. After allotment of shares company calls for money left to be paid by the shareholder and if shareholder does not pay such amount called by company in due time then such money called up is termed Calls in Arrears. Moreover interest is charged on these calls as specified in the articles. In case it is not mentioned in the articles then rate of interest can not be more than 5 %. The Balance of calls-in-arrears account is deducted from the Called-up capital in the Balance Sheet.

→ Calls in advance: it means calls not due but paid by the shareholders in advance thus the amount of future calls is received in advance by the company. A company may if authorized by its articles accepts call-in advance amount form its shareholders. A separate calls-in-advance is opened for its accounting treatment. The amount received by the company as calls in advance is a debt of the company. Besides this Company is also required to pay interest on this money received in advance from shareholders. The rate of interest can be as specified in the articles of the company but can not be more than 6%.

→ Issue of shares for consideration other than cash: A company can issue shares for consideration other than cash. Common examples include issuing shares in return for property, assets the company needs or (e.g. in a takeover) shares in another company. These shares can be issued to

→ Issue of shares to vendors: A company may purchase assets from the vendors and instead of paying them cash company allots shares to those vendors. A Company may take over a running business i.e. assets & liabilities of another business. The Sellers of the business are known as Vendors

→ Issue of shares to Promoters: A promoter’s share is a share issued to a stockholder in exchange of the services and labor actually rendered in favor of a corporation

→ A company may allot fully paid shares to Promoters who provide some technical information, or provide services etc. instead of paying him in cash. As the amount paid to promoters will be used by company for long period of time it will be treated as capital expenditure and debited to Goodwill Account.

→ Forfeiture of Shares: if a shareholder fails to pay allotment money and/or calls money on his shares as called upon by the company his shares may be forfeited by giving due notice and following the procedure specified in the articles of association on this behalf. This is known as forfeiture of shares in simple words to forfeit a share means to cancel the allotment to defaulting share holders. When a share is forfeited, the shareholder no longer owes any remaining balance, surrenders any potential capital gain on the shares and the shares become the property of the issuing company.

→ The issuing company can re-issue forfeited shares at par, a premium or a discount as determined by the board of directors. There is no specified procedure for the forfeiture of shares in the Companies Act but directors must follow some procedure, a notice is given to the shareholder whose shares are being forfeited and minimum of 14 days is given regarding the payment after which shares are forfeited in a board meeting.

→ Effect of the forfeiture of shares is that the name of the shareholder is removed from the register of members and amount already received on these shares is forfeited to the company. The forfeited amount should be transferred to newly opened share forfeiture account it means that he is no more shareholder of the company

→ Share Capital A/c Dr. (no of forfeited shares*amount called up per shares)

  • To Calls in Arrears A/c (amount of unpaid calls )
  • To Share Forfeiture A/c (amount received towards share received)

→ If the Forfeited shares are issued at a discount, the proportion amount of discount allowed on such shares should be cancelled.

→ If the Forfeited shares were issued at a premium and the premium money is already received on those Forfeited shares, security premium A/c will not be cancelled or debited.
Reissue of Forfeited Shares: Company can re-issue or dispose of such shares in such manner as it thinks fit. Any profit on reissue of Forfeited shares represents capital profit & hence it should be transferred to capital reserve. If all forfeited shares are not reissued only that proportion of share forfeiture account which belongs to the reissued shares should be transferred to capital reserve account and the remaining balance of the share forfeiture account relating to shares not reissued is carried forward.

→ The amount of discount allowed on reissue of shares at the most can be equal to the forfeited amount on such shares.

→ The maximum permissible discount on reissue of shares which were originally issued on discount will be equal to the amount forfeited plus the amount of discount initially allowed on these shares at the time of their original issue.

→ In case forfeited shares are issued on premium than amount in the Share Forfeited Account will be treated as net gain and transferred to Capital Reserve Account

→ In case forfeited shares are issued at par than amount in the Share Forfeited Account will be treated as net gain and transferred to Capital Reserve Account

→ Forfeiture and Shares allotted on Pro-Rata basis – Pro – Rata means shares are distributed to all applicants in such a way that every applicant will get shares less than what he applied for, the money remaining on the shares which are given to the potential shareholders may now be used to pay part of their future indebtedness on the shares already allotted to them. Pro-Rata allotment situation comes when shares of the company are oversubscribed.

→ Example
The issued share capital of Stag pic was Rs 100 million, being 100 million equity shares of Rs 1 each fully paid with no share premium account. On 2 January 20 xl the company offered 40 million shares to the public at Rs 1.25 each, payable 40p on application, 30p on allotment and 55p on call at 30 June 20×1. Applications closed on 31 January when applications had been received for 65 million shares. On 4 February, 15 million were rejected and moneys returned, and allotments were made pro rata to the remaining applicants.

→ Note that since 50 million share applications were not rejected, allotments were on the basis of four shares 50p paid (i.e. 50 million @ 40p ÷ 40 million) for every five shares applied for; a balance of only 30p -(50p -40p) = 20p per share will be payable on Allotment. The amounts due on allotment were received in full by 28 February. By 4 July, call money for 32 million shares had been received. The remaining shares (8 million) were forfeited. On 18 July 4 million forfeited shares were reissued at 75p each.

Application money = 65 million @ Rs0.40 = Rs26 million
Refunded = 15 million @ Rs 0.40 Rs 6 million
Allotment money = 40 million @ Rs 0.20 = Rs 8 million
Share premium per share = 1.25 – Rs 1 = Rs 0.25
Total share premium = 40 million @ Rs 0.25 = Rs 10 million
Nominal value of application and allotment = 40 million @ (Rs 0.40 + Rs 0.30 – Rs 0.25)
= Rs 18 million
Call
Nominal value of call = 40 million @ Rs 0.55 = Rs22 million.
Call money received = 32 million @ Rs 0.55 Rs 17.6 million.
Forfeiture
Called-up value of forfeited shares excluding the share premium = 8 million @ Rs 1 = Rs 8 million
Premium included in the amount called up relating to forfeited shares = 8 million @ Rs 0.25 = Rs 2 million
Amount in call account relating to arrears on forfeited shares  = 8 million @ Rs 0.55 = Rs 4.4 million.
Reissue
Reissue money received = 4 million @ Rs 0.75 = Rs 3 million
Nominal value of shares reissued called up = 4 miIlion @ Rs 1 = Rs 4 million
Amount in forfeited shares account relating to reissue = 4 million @ (Rs 0.40 + Rs 0.30) = Rs 2.8 million

Example: Karan Ltd. forfeited 500 shares of Rs 10 each fully called-up out of which the company received only Rs 5 and the balance amount remained unpaid. As a result, the company forfeited these shares for the non-payment of allotment money of Rs 3 and call money of Rs 2. These shares were reissued by the company at Rs 15 per share fully paid-up. Pass the necessary Journal entries.
Solution:
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 5

Debentures:
→ A debenture is a medium to long-term debt format that is used by large companies to borrow money. For short term fund requirement companies may take promissory notes, bank overdrafts etc. but Debentures are the most common form of long-term loans that can be taken by a company. Most debentures pay a fixed rate of interest. It is required that this interest is paid prior to dividends being paid to shareholders. Furthermore, most debentures are secured on the borrower’s assets, although some are not, these can be known as naked or unsecured debentures. The main advantage of debentures to companies is the fact that they have a lower interest rate than e.g. overdrafts. Also, they are usually repayable at a date far off in the future.

→ Issue of Debentures: Just like shares debentures can be issued for cash as well as for consideration other than cash and as collateral security.

→ Issue of debentures for Cash: The procedure and accounting entries for issue of debentures are very much similar to that of share. A prospectus is issued to the public for inviting applications. The money on debentures may be payable in full at a time along with application or by installments on application, allotment and various calls. When a debenture is issued at its face value, it is called issue of debenture at par. If a debenture of Rs 200 is issued at Rs 200, it is called the issue of debenture at par.

I Debentures Issued at par and redeemable at par
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 6
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 7

II. Issue of debentures at premium: A debenture is said to be issued at premium when the issue price exceeds the par value. If a debenture of RslOO is issued at Rs 110, then it is called issue of debenture at premium. The excess amount RslO (RsllO-Rs 100) is debenture premium. Where a company issues debentures at a premium, whether for cash or otherwise, a sum equal to the aggregate amount or value of the premiums on those debentures shall be transferred to an account, to be called “the securities premium account”.
When premium amount due with application money
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 8

III. Issue of Debentures at Discount: When a debenture is issued at an amount less than its face value, it is said to be issued at discount. If a debenture of RslOO is issued at Rs 95, it is said to have been issued at a discount of Rs 5. Such loss is a capital loss and is shown in the asset side of balance sheet under the heading “Miscellaneous Expenditure”. In case debentures are issued at discount, debenture account is credited with nominal value of debenture and discount allowed is transferred to “Discount on issue of Debenture Account”
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 9

→ Issue of debentures for consideration other then cash – Sometimes a company may purchase an asset, like plant or machinery, and may issue debentures in payment of consideration for such assets. Sometimes a company may purchase some running business and may settle the purchase consideration by issue of debentures.
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 10

→ Issue of debenture as collateral security: Collateral security means security provided to the lender over and above the prime or principal security. Collateral security is to be realized only when the principal security fails to pay the amount of loan. Issue of debentures is a means to provide collateral security when the borrower is not in a position to give any other assets as collateral security. When the loan is paid back, the debentures issued as collateral security are returned to the company. Sometimes, when a company takes a loan, say of Rs 1000000 from a bank, it may have to issue (in addition to any other security that it may have offered) debentures for the same amount or even a higher amount. These debentures will not carry any right as long as the terms of the loan are not contravened. The holder of such debentures is entitled to interest only on the amount of loan, but not on the debentures. However, if there is any breach, say, failure to pay the interest, the creditor may choose to activise the debentures and then claim all the rights of the debenture holder.

→ In case the company (borrower) ’fails to pay the principal along with interest in time, the lender is at liberty to recover his dues from the sale of primary security in the first instance. If the realizable value of primary security is insufficient to clear the dues, the lender has the right to invoke the benefit of collateral security whereby, the debenture may either be presented for redemption or sold in the market.

→ No entry is required to be passed in books of account as debentures are issued only as collateral security and becomes active only when loan is not repaid. But a note is to be given in the balance sheet showing such debentures under the heading of loan account.

→ Redemption of Preference Shares: Subject to the provisions of the Companies Act 2013 a company limited by shares may, if so authorized by its articles, issue preference shares which are, liable, to be redeemed. As per new companies act i.e. CA 2013 No company limited by shares shall, after the commencement of this Act, issue any preference shares which are irredeemable. A company limited by shares may, if so authorised by its articles, issue preference shares which are liable to be redeemed within a period not exceeding twenty years from the date of their issue but a infrastructure company may issue preference shares for a period exceeding twenty years, subject to the redemption of such percentage of shares as may be prescribed on an annual basis at the option of such preferential shareholders.

→ Provisions related to redemption of preference shares
(a) No such shares shall be redeemed except out of profits of the company which would otherwise be available for dividend or out of the proceeds of a fresh issue of shares made for the purposes of the redemption

(b) No such shares shall be redeemed unless they are fully paid.

(c) According to companies Act 2013 in case if shares are to be redeemed at premium then payment for such payment must be arranged either out of profits of the company or out of company’s securities premium account.

(d) The redemption of preference shares under this section by a company shall not be taken as reducing the amount of the company’s authorized share capital.

(e) when a company has redeemed or is about to redeem any preference shares, it shall have power to issue shares up to the nominal amount of the shares redeemed or to be redeemed as if those shares had never been issued, and accordingly the share capital of the company shall not for the purposes of any enactments relating to stamp duty be deemed to be increased by the issue of shares in pursuance of this subsection.

(f) The capital redemption reserve fund may, notwithstanding anything in this section, be applied by the company in paying up unissued shares of the company to be issued to members of the company as fully paid bonus shares.

(g) Where any such shares are redeemed otherwise than out of the proceeds of a fresh issue, there shall out of profits which would otherwise have been available for dividend be transferred to a reserve fund to be called “the capital redemption reserve fund”. A sum equal to the nominal amount of the shares redeemed shall, except as provided in this section, apply as if the capital redemption reserve fund were paid up share capital of the company.

(h) Capital Redemption Reserve (C.R.R.) Account can not be used for any other purpose except issuing frilly paid bonus shares to the equity shareholders.

(i) A company has redeemed or is about to redeem any preference shares, it shall have power to issue fresh shares up to the nominal amount of the shares redeemed or to be redeemed as if those shares had never been issued, and accordingly the share capital of the company shall not for the purposes of any enactments be increased by the issue of shares. Thus a new share capital account (could be equity or preference) will be equal to the redeemable preference shares.

(j) If new shares are issued at par then nominal value of the shares will be transferred to C.R.R. Account. Example if 12% preference shares are redeemed with the fresh issue of 1000 shares having the nominal value of Rs 10 then Rs 10000 will be transferred to C.R.R. Account.

(k) In case fresh shares are issued at premium then in such case only nominal value of the share will be transferred to C.R.R. Account and premium will be transferred to “Securities Premium Account “. While if preference shares are redeemed at premium then premium can be received both from securities premium account as well as from the profit of Company.
Example if 12% preference shares are redeemed with the fresh issue of 1000 shares having the nominal value of Rs 10 issued at Rs 12 then Rs 10000 will be transferred to C.R.R. Account and Rs 2000 will be transferred to “Securities Premium Account “.

(l) In case fresh shares are issued at loss then in such case only value of the share received will be transferred to C.R.R. Account and discount will be a capital loss.
Example if 12% preference shares are redeemed with the issue of fresh 1000 shares having the nominal value of Rs 10 being issued at Rs 8 then Rs 8000 will be transferred to C.R.R. Account and rest Rs 2000 as capital loss.

(m) If there are two types of redeemable preference share i.e. one is fully paid up and other is partly paid up then
– If it is given that both classes of preference shares are to be redeemed then firstly, convert the partly paid up by making final call.
– If it is given that preference shares are to be redeemed then only Fully paid up preference shares are to be redeemed.

(n) In case preference shares are redeemed partly out of profits and partly out of fresh issue then redeemable preference share account = CRR Account + new share capital account

→ Various accounting entries for redemption of preference shares
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 11

Introduction to Company Accounts MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
Characteristic feature NOT found in company is
a. Legal entry
b. Common seal
c. Affected by insolvency of an individual member
d. Association of individual members
Answer:
c. Affected by insolvency of an individual member

Question 2.
Which of the following items is not an appropriation of profit for a limited company?
a. Preference shares dividend payable
b. Ordinary dividend payable by the company
c. Income tax payable by the company
d. Debenture interest payable
Answer:
d. Debenture interest payable

Question 3.
Which of the following statement is correct for preference shares?
a. They have voting rights
b. Their rights and given in memo – condom of association
c. They can vote at the time of winding up of the company
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. They can vote at the time of winding up of the company

Question 4.
Of the following account types, which would be 8. increased by a debit?
a. ‘Liabilities and expenses.
b. Assets and equity
c. Assets and expenses
d. Equity and revenues
Answer:
c. Assets and expenses

Question 5.
If articles provide then preference shareholder can have
a. Voting right in the general meeting
b. To receive divided along with equity shareholders
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 6.
Minimum capital with which a company is registered is
a. Issued capital
b. Subscribed capital
c. Authorized capital
d. Paid up capital
Answer:
d. Paid up capital

Question 7.
When there is an increase in the minimum capital with which the company is registered is to be altered
a. Memorandum of association
b. Articles of association
c. Paid up capital
d. Subscribed capital
Answer:
a. Memorandum of association

Question 8.
In balance sheet the classes of shares that have been issued by the company are shown under the heading
a. Authorized capital
b. Issued capital
c. Subscribed capital
d. Paid up capital
Answer:
b. Issued capital

Question 9.
Partly paid up capital is
a. Authorized capital
b. Subscribed capital
c. Paid up capital
d. Issued capital
Answer:
b. Subscribed capital

Question 10.
A company issued shares at Rs. 100 Company received Rs. 60 per share Rs. 60 is
a. Subscribed capital
b. Paid up capital
c. Called up capital
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Called up capital

Question 11.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Ordinary shares have fixed dividends and stable market values
b. Ordinary shares have variable dividends and stable market values
c. Ordinary shares have fixed dividends and volatile market values
d. Ordinary shares have variable dividends and volatile market values
Answer:
d. Ordinary shares have variable dividends and volatile market values

Question 12.
Prospectus is
a. Invitation from company to subscribe for shares
b. Document submitted to ROC after allotment of shares
c. Document which shows the number of shares that have been allotted
d. Document which shows the paid up capital of the company
Answer:
a. Invitation from company to subscribe for shares

Question 13.
Share capital account can be credited only
a. Application money is received
b. When shares are allotted
c. When prospectus is issued
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. When shares are allotted

Question 14.
Calls are
a. Share value
b. Application money
c. Demand made to shareholder by directors
d. Allotment money
Answer:
c. Demand made to shareholder by directors

Question 15.
Allotment money is
a. First installment money called by company
b. Second installment money called by company
c. Third installment money called by company
d. Final installment money called by company
Answer:
b. Second installment money called by company

Question 16.
“Shareholder wealth” in a firm is represented by:
a. The number of people employed in the firm.
b. The book value of the firm’s assets less the book value of its liabilities.
c. The mount of salary paid to its employees
d. The market price per share of the firm’s common stock.
Answer:
d. The market price per share of the firm’s common stock.

Question 17.
Minimum subscription required by a company is
a. 90%
b. 80%
c. 75%
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. 90%

Question 18.
Premium received on shares is treated as
a. Capital reserve
b. Capital receipt
c. Capital revenue
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Capital receipt

Question 19.
In case of under subscription ____________ is NOT found
a. Total no of application received is equal to total no of shares offered
b. Total no of application received is less than total no. of shares by offered.
c. Total no. of application is more than the total no of shares offered.
d. Both a & c
Answer:
d. Both a & c

Question 20.
Features of calls-in- advance
a. Considered as capital of the company
b. Shown on the liabilities side
c. No dividend pain on calls in advance
d. Both a & c
Answer:
d. Both a & c

Question 21.
Which of the following statement is true?
a. Loan capital is paid up capital of the company
b. Loan capital is subscribed capital of the company
c. Loan capital is money borrowed from outsiders
d. Loan capital is not normally repaid to the lender
Answer:
c. Loan capital is money borrowed from outsiders

Question 22.
Amount of interest to be paid by a person whom shares have been allotted but has not paid money asked, by the last date will be
a. 5%
b. 6%
c. 7%
d. 8%
Answer:
a. 5%

Question 23.
Shares can be forfeited by
a. Shareholders
b. Registrar of companies as per companies act
c. Directors
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Directors

Question 24.
Amongst the following that is not a short term means of raising capital
a. Loans from financial institutions
b. Bills of exchange
c. Promissory note
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Loans from financial institutions

Question 25.
All of them are long term borrowings except
a. Cash credits
b. Public deposits
c. Debentures
d. Both a & c
Answer:
d. Both a & c

Question 26.
In ______________ debenture account is to be mentioned
a. Name of the debenture
b. Rate of interest
c. Date of issue of debenture
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Rate of interest

Question 27.
When debentures are issued at discount. Such discount
a. May be written off against revenue profits
b. May be written of against capital profit
c. Both a & b
d. Shown at debit side of balance sheet
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 28.
Feature of debentures issued as collateral securities. Select from the given options
a. Only interest on loan to be paid
b. Interest on loan as well debenture to be paid.
c. Debenture issued as a security towards the loan taken
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 29.
It is uncommon is case of debentures issued as collateral security that
a. Interest be given on debentures
b. Accounting entry is not made
c. Existence of debenture given as a note in balance sheet
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 30.
When preference shares are redeemed the redemption money is paid from
a. Capital account
b. Profits of the company
c. securities premium account
d. Both b & c
Answer:
d. Both b & c

Question 31.
Redemption of preference shares can be done except
a Fresh shares are issued for this purpose.
b. From the profits
c. When shares are partly paid
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. When shares are partly paid

Question 32.
Capital redemption reserve account is prepared when
a. Redemption is done out of issue of fresh shares
b. Redemption is done out of profits of the company
c. Redemption is done through company’s capital fund
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Redemption is done out of profits of the company

Question 33.
Which of the following transactions would have no impact on stockholders’ equity?
a. Purchase of land from the proceeds of a bank loan.
b. Dividends to stockholders.
c. Net loss.
d. Investments of cash by stockholders.
Answer:
a. Purchase of land from the proceeds of a bank loan.

Question 34.
Which of the following would not be included on a balance sheet?
a. Accounts receivable
b. Accounts payable.
c. Sales
d. Cash.
Answer:
c. Sales

Question 35.
It is UNCOMMON in calls in advance that
a. Directors pay 8 % interest on the amount paid by shareholder
b. Directors pay 6% interest on the amount paid by shareholder
c. Directors pay 5% interest on the amount paid by shareholder
d. Directors pay 4% interest on the amount paid by shareholder
Answer:
a. Directors pay 8 % interest on the amount paid by shareholder

Question 36.
The following relate to the recording process. Which of these statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record, of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to the general ledger.
Answer:
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general journal.

Question 37.
Select the statement that is true?
a. Preference shares have variable dividends and volatile market values
b. Preference shares have fixed dividends and stable market values
c. Preference shares have variable dividends and no market values
d. Preference shares have variable dividends and stable market values
Answer:
b. Preference shares have fixed dividends and stable market values

Question 38.
Which is true?
a. Called up capital and paid up capital are equal
b. Called up capital and paid up capital are unequal
c. Called up capital and paid up capital may be equal
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Called up capital and paid up capital may be equal

Question 39.
If a company has the word limited at the end of its name, this means that:
a. The shareholder’s liability for the debts of the business is restricted
b. The number of shareholders have fixed upper limit
c. The number of members can never be increased.
d. There is a limit to the number of shares that can be issued
Answer:
a. The shareholder’s liability for the debts of the business is restricted

Question 40.
A retail store sold gift certificates that are redeemable in merchandise. The gift certificates lapse one year after they are issued. How would the deferred revenue account be affected by each of the following?
Redemption of Lapse of certificates : certificates
a. Decrease: Decrease
b. Decrease: no effect
c. No effect: decrease
d. No effect: no effect
Answer:
a. Decrease: Decrease

Question 41.
The correct concept of double entry book keeping states that
a. For every goods received on credit, the seller becomes your creditor
b. For every debit entry, there must be a corresponding credit entry
c. For every seller, there must be a buyer
d. One party receives and another party give value
Answer:
b. For every debit entry, there must be a corresponding credit entry

Question 42.
Subscription received in advance is classified in the Balance Sheet of a club as _____________
a. Tangible asset
b. Intangible asset
c. Fixed asset
d. Current liability
Answer:
d. Current liability

Question 43.
Leases have been capitalized by the client but refuse to capitalize them in the financial statements; Which of the following reporting options does an auditor have if the amounts pervasively distort the financial statements?
a. Qualified opinion.
b. Unqualified opinion.
c. Favorable opinion.
d. Adverse opinion.
Answer:
d. Adverse opinion.

Question 44.
When a company’s stock record books are maintained by an outside transfer agent, the auditor should obtain confirmation from the registrar or transfer agent concerning the:
a. Amount of dividends paid to related parties.
b. The complaints of the shareholders received.
c. Number of shares issued and outstanding.
d. Proper authorization of stock rights and warrants.
Answer:
c. Number of shares issued and outstanding.

Question 45.
When an auditor has substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern because there is no continuity of operations of the company then the auditor most likely would express a qualified opinion if
a. The effects of the adverse financial conditions likely will cause a bankruptcy filing.
b. information about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern is not disclosed.
c. Management has no plans to reduce or delay future expenditures.
d. Negative trends and recurring operating losses appear to be irreversible.
Answer:
b. information about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern is not disclosed.

Question 46.
Which of the following items would not form part of the shareholders’ equity of a company on the statement of financial position?
a. Ordinary share capital
b. Trade payables
c. Share premium
d. Retained profits
Answer:
b. Trade payables

Question 47.
Which one of the following would not be included in a full set of company financial statements?
a. The cash budget
b. The statement of financial position r
c. The statement of changes in equity
d. The income statement
Answer:
a. The cash budget

Question 48.
ABC pic issues 30,000 shares of Rs.1 at Rs.1.30 for each share. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs. 30,000 and share premium will increase by Rs. 39,000.
b. Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs. 39,000 and share premium will increase by Rs. 9,000.
c. Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs. 39,000 and share premium will be unaffected.
d. Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs 30,000 and share premium will increase by Rs. 9,0000
Answer:
d. Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs 30,000 and share premium will increase by Rs. 9,0000

Question 49.
Polyster Ltd made a profit for the year ended 31 March 2012 of 130,000. During that year the company had paid preference dividends on 100,000 (5% preference shares). In addition, an ordinary dividend of 4 Rs. per share was paid on 200,000 ordinary shares. What was the retained profit for the year ended 31 March 2012?
a. Rs. 22,000
b. Rs. 17,000
c. Rs. 25,000
d. Rs. 30,000
Answer:
b. Rs. 17,000

Question 50.
Which of the following would not be an entry in the statement of changes in equity?
a. Revaluation gain
b. Dividends paid
c. Taxation
d. Profit for the year
Answer:
c. Taxation

Question 51.
Which of the following situations most likely represents the highest risk of a material misstatement arising from misappropriations of assets?
a. A large number of bearer bonds on hand
b. A large number of inventory items with low sales prices.
c. A large number of transactions processed in a short period of time.
d. A large number of fixed assets with easily identifiable serial numbers.
Answer:
a. A large number of bearer bonds on hand

Question 52.
Each of the following is a type of known misstatement, except:
a. An inaccuracy in processing data.
b. The misapplication of accounting principles.
c. Differences between management and the auditor’s judgment regarding estimates.
d. A difference between the classification of a reported financial statement element and the classification according to generally accepted accounting principles.
Answer:
c. Differences between management and the auditor’s judgment regarding estimates.

Question 53.
An ordinary share dividend is:
a. Part of the company profits used to reward the shareholders for their investment.
b. Interest on money lent to the company by its shareholders.
c. An expense of running the company.
d. The directors’ remuneration
Answer:
a. Part of the company profits used to reward the shareholders for their investment.

Question 54.
XYZ Ltd issues 500000 new ordinary Rs 1 shares at an issue price of Rs 1.50 and makes a bonus Issue of new shares amounting to 50000 Rs1 ordinary shares. The company also increases its authorized ordinary share capital by 550000 Rs1 ordinary shares. By how much will the balance sheet ordinary share capital account increase?
a. Rs 800 000.
b. Rs 550 000.
c. Rs750 000
d. Rs. 350000.
Answer:
b. Rs 550 000.

Question 55.
Statements of Standard Accounting Practice and Financial Reporting Standards should be complied with when preparing the final accounts of a limited company because:
a. The Companies Act 1985 demands that they are used.
b. The auditors will insist they are followed.
c. The directors are under a legal obligation to ensure they are followed.
d. They ensure that the accounts present a true and fair view.
Answer:
d. They ensure that the accounts present a true and fair view.

Question 56.
If current accounts are not being managed for a partnership firm then partners are maintaining _________________ accounts
a. Fixed capital account
b. Partnership account
c. Fluctuating capital account
d. Saving account
Answer:
c. Fluctuating capital account

Question 57.
Which of the following statement correctly describes debentures?
a. Income bonds that require interest payments only when earnings permit.
b. Income bonds that require interest payments only when earnings permit.
c. Subordinated debt and rank behind convertible bonds.
d. A form of lease financing similar to equipment trust certificates.
Answer:
c. Subordinated debt and rank behind convertible bonds.

Question 58.
Which of the following statement is true?
a. Authorised Capital = Issued Capital
b. Authorised Capital > Issued Capital
c. Paid up Capital ≥ Issued Capital
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Authorised Capital = Issued Capital

Hint:
Authorised share capital: This is also known as registered capital. It is the maximum amount of capital that the limited company is authorised to issue to its shareholders. Issued capital means that portion of authorised capital which has been issued thus authorised capital is more than issued capital.

Question 59.
Which of the following will define, when appropriation of a certain number of shares is made to an applicant in response to his application?
a. Share allotment
b. Share forfeiture
c. Share trading
d. Share purchase.
Answer:
a. Share allotment

Hint:
With a share allotment, the shares are created and issued by the company to the people who become the company’s shareholders.

Question 60.
P Ltd. forfeited 150 shares of Rs.10 each, issued at a premium of Rs. 2, for non – payment of the final call of Rs. 3. Cut Of those, 100 shares were reissued @ Rs. 11 per share. How much amount would be transferred to capita! reserve?
a. Rs. 700
b. Rs. 500
c. Rs. 1,200
d. Rs. 300
Answer:
a. Rs. 700

Hint:
When forfeited shares were re-issued the following Journal Entry will be passed
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 12

Question 61.
If tl”9 number of shares offered to public for subscription is less than the number of applications received, it is termed as.
a. Minimum subscription
b. Over subscription
c. Under subscription
d. Maximum subscription
Answer:
b. Over subscription

Hint:
Over subscription of Shares: Situation where a new stock (share) issue has more buyers than there are shares to satisfy their orders. This excess of demand over supply occurrence pushes the share’s price higher and may motivate the issuer to bring out another issue.

Question 62.
Shares may be issued
a. For cash
b. For consideration other than cash.
c. For both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. For both (a) and (b)

Hint:
A limited company may issue the shares for Consideration other than cash or for cash or on capitalization of reserves.

Question 63.
Which of the following will be the journal entry for recording the issue of shares at par against purchase of Machinery?
a. Debit Machinery A/c, Credit Share Capital A/c
b. Debit Share Capital A/c, Credit Machinery A/c
c. Debit Bank A/c, Credit Share Capital Nc
d. Debit Machinery A/c, Credit Cash A/c
Answer:
a. Debit Machinery A/c, Credit Share Capital A/c

Hint:
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 13

Question 64.
Debentures of a company can be issued
a. For cash
b. For consideration other than cash
c. As a collateral security
d. Any of the above.
Answer:
d. Any of the above.

Hint:
Just like shares debentures can be issued for cash as well as for consideration other than cash and as collateral security

Question 65.
On issue of debentures as a collateral security, which account is credited?
a. Debentures Account
b. Bank Loan Account
c. Debenture holdings Account
d. Debenture Suspense Account
Answer:
a. Debentures Account

Hint:
Collateral security means security provided to the lender over and above the prime or principal security. Collateral security is to be realized only when the principal security fails to pay the amount of loan.
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 14

Question 66.
XY Limited issued 2,50,000 equity shares of Rs.10 each at a premium of Rs.1 each payable as Rs.2.5 on application, Rs.4 on allotment and balance on the first and final call. Applications were received for 5,00,000 equity shares but the company allotted to them only 2,50,000 shares. Excess money was refunded after adjustment for further calls. Last call on 500 shares were not received and shares were forfeited after due notice. This is a case of:
a. Over subscription
b. Pro-rata allotment
c. Forfeiture of shares
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Hint:
Over – subscription of Shares: Situation where a new stock (share) issue has more buyers than there are shares to satisfy their orders. This excess of demand over supply occurrence pushes the share’s price higher and may motivate the issuer to bring out another issue.
Company invited applications for 2,50,000 shares but applications are received for 5,00,000 shares. This is a case of over – subscription.

Pro – Rata means shares are distributed to all applicants in such a way that every applicant will get shares less than what he applied for, the money remaining on the shares which are given to the potential shareholders may now be used to pay part of their future indebtedness on the shares already allotted to them. Pro-Rata allotment situation comes when shares of the company are oversubscribed.
Company allotted 2,50,000 shares to the applicants of 5,00,000 shares. This is a case of Pro-rata allotment.

Forfeiture of Shares: if a shareholder fails to pay allotment money and/or calls money on his shares as called upon by the company his shares may be forfeited by giving due notice and following the procedure. Company could not receive last call on 500 shares and these were subsequently forfeited. This is a case of forfeiture of shares.

Question 67.
Z Limited forfeited 200 fully called up shares of Rs.10 each on which Rs.1 ,300 had been received; later on these shares were reissued as fully paid up @ Rs.9 per share. The amount to be transferred from share forfeited account to capital reserve account will be:
a. Rs.1,800
b. Rs.2,000
c. Rs.1, 100
d. Nil.
Answer:
c. Rs.1, 100

Hint:
Important points to remember
→ Company can re-issue or dispose of such shares in such manner as it thinks fit. Any profit on reissue of Forfeited shares represents capital profit & hence it should be transferred to capital reserve.

→ The forfeited amount should be transferred to newly opened share forfeiture account.

→ If the Forfeited shares are issued at a discount, the proportion amount of discount allowed on such shares should be cancelled.

On forefeiture of shares accounting entries are
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 15

Question 68.
Omega Limited, a listed company acquires assets worth Rs.7,50,000 from Alpha Limited and issue shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of 25%. The number of shares to be issued by Omega Ltd., to settle the purchase consideration will be:
a. 60,000
b. 75,000
c. 1,00,000
d. 1,25,000.
Answer:
a. 60,000

Hint:
Number of shares to be issued = 7,50,000/12.5 = 60,000 shares

Question 69.
E Ltd. had allotted 10,000 shares to the applicants of 14,000 shares on pro-rata basis. The amount payable on application was Rs.2. F applied for 420 shares, Th2 number of shares allotted and the amount carried forward for adjustment against allotment money due from F will be:
a. 60 shares; Rs.120
b. 340 shares; Rs.160
c. 320 shares; Rs.200
d. 300 shares; Rs.240
Answer:
d. 300 shares; Rs.240

Hint:
Application received = 14,000
No. of shares alloted = 10,000
No. of shares allotted to F = 420 × \(\frac { 10 }{ 14 }\) = 300 shares.
Application money received from F
F sent application money for 420 shares × 2 = Rs. 840
Application money adjusted against 300 shares
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 16
Rs 240 is to be adjusted against allotment.

Question 70.
A company cannot issue redeemable preference shares for a period exceeding:
a. 6 Years
b. 7 Years
c. 8 Years
d. 20 Years.
Answer:
d. 20 Years.

Hint:
According to Sec 55 of Companies Act, 2013 a company cannot issue any preference share, which is irredeemable or is redeemable after the expiry of a period of twenty years from the date of its issue.

Question 71.
A company forfeited 1,000 shares on 10 each (which were issued at par) held by Saurabh for non-payment of allotment money of Rs.4 per share. The called-up value per share was 18. On forfeiture, the amount debited to share capital account will be
a. Rs.10,000
b. Rs.8,000
c. Rs.2,000
d. Rs.18,000.
Answer:
b. Rs.8,000

Hint:
The forfeited amount should be transferred to newly opened share forfeiture account.
So, Share Capital A/c will be debited by (1,000 × 8) = Rs. 8,000
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 17

Question 72.
The maximum amount beyond which a company is not allowed to raise funds by issue of its shares, is called
a. Subscribed capital
b. Called-up capital
c. Paid-up capital
d. Authorised capital.
Answer:
d. Authorised capital.

Hint:
According to Companies Act, 2013 a joint stock company is not allowed to raise funds by issue of shares beyond the limit of Authorised Capital.

Question 73.
Pious Limited purchases a machine worth Rs. 1,15,000 from Indigo Traders. Payment was made as Rs. 10,000 by cheque and the remaining by issue of equity shares of the face value of Rs.10 each fully paid-up at an issue price of Rs. 10.50 each. Amount of share premium would be .
a. Rs.6,000
b. Rs.5,000
c. Rs.7,000
d. Rs.4,000
Answer:
b. Rs.5,000

Hint:
Share premium = 10,000 × 0.50 = 5000

Question 74.
G Ltd. purchased land and building from H Ltd. at a book value of Rs. 2,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 12% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. For this transaction, the debentures account would be credited with –
a. Rs.2,60,000
b. Rs.2,50,000
c. Rs.2,40,000
d. Rs. 1.60,000.
Answer:
b. Rs.2,50,000

Hint:
In case debentures are issued at discount, debenture account is credited with nominal value of debenture and discount allowed is transferred to “Discount on issue of Debenture Account”

Book Value of Building:
Face Valued Debenture – Discount on issue of debenture
= \(\frac{2,00,000}{100-(100 \times 20 \%)}\) = \(\frac{2,00,000}{80}\)
= 2,500 debentures
Debentures A/c will be credited by = No. of debentures × Face value of debentures
= 2,500 × 100
= 2,50,000

Question 75.
Solid ltd. issued 2,000, 10% preference shares of f 100 each at par, which are redeemable at a premium of 10%. For the purpose of redemption, the company issued 1,500 equity shares of Rs.100 each at a premium of 20% per share. At the time of redemption of preference shares, the amount to be transferred by the company to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account will be –
a. Rs.50,000
b. Rs 40,000
c. Rs.2,00,000
d. Rs 2,20,000.
Answer:
a. Rs.50,000

Hint:
In case fresh shares are issued at premium then in such case only nominal value of the share will be transferred to C.R.R. Account and premium will be transferred to “Securities Premium Account “.

Amount to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve:
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 18

Question 76.
A company invited share application of 5,000 shares, it received application of 6,000 shares and were allotted shares on prorata basis, 200 shares were forfeited. To which of the following does this case belong: ‘
a. Prorata
b. Oversubscription.
c. Forfeiture.
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Hint:
Over-subscription of Shares: Situation where a new stock (share) issue has more buyers than there are shares to satisfy their orders. This excess of demand over supply occurrence pushes the share’s price higher and may motivate the issuer to bring out another issue.
The company invited share application of 5,000 shares, it received application of 6,000 shares This is-a case of over-subscription.

Pro-Rata means shares are distributed to all applicants in such a way that every applicant will get shares less than what he applied for, the money remaining on the shares which are given to the potential shareholders may now be used to pay part of their future indebtedness on the shares already allotted to them. Pro-Rata allotment situation comes when shares of the company are oversubscribed.

Forfeiture of Shares: if a shareholder fails to pay allotment money and/or calls money on his shares as called upon by the company his shares may be forfeited by giving due notice and following the procedure. 200 shares were forfeited by company.

Question 77.
X failed to pay final call on 24,000 shares Rs.20 per share on 15.12.2013 ‘and paid the same on 15.03.2014. What is the interest of calls in arrears.
a. 12,000
b. 6,000
c. 6150
d. 6,250
Answer:
a. 12,000

Hint:
Final call paid was delayed by 3 months
Interest on calls in arrears will be
\(\frac{24000 \times 20 \times 10 \times 3}{100 \times 12}\) = 12,000

Question 78.
Company cannot issue shares more than –
a. Authorised Capital
b. Subscribed Capital
c. Issued Capital
d. Paid up Capital
Answer:
a. Authorised Capital

Hint:
Authorised share capital: This is also known as registered capital. It is the maximum amount of capital that the limited company is authorised to issue to its shareholders.

Question 79.
Premium received on re-issue of forfeited share should be
a. Debit to share forfeited A/c
b. Credit to share forfeited A/c
c. Credit securities premium A/c
d. None
Answer:
c. Credit securities premium A/c

Hint:
As per the provisions of Companies Act 2013, the amount of premium on fresh issue after redemption, should be credited to securities premium A/c and face value to share capital account.

Question 80.
X Ltd. forfeited 700 shares of Rs.10 each (9 called up) on which he paid up 7 per share. Out of these 200 shares were re-issued at Rs.9. Calculate the amount credited to Share Capital A/c at time of re-issued?
a. 6,300
b. 4,300
c. 1,800
d. 2,000.
Answer:
d. 2,000.

Hint:
If the Forfeited shares are issued at a discount, the proportion amount of discount allowed on such shares should be cancelled.

Entry for reissue of forfeited shares will be :
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 19

Question 81.
Y Ltd. forfeited 300 shares of Rs.10/- each for non-payment of allotment money of Rs.4/-, first call and second call of Rs.2/- each. All the shares were re-issued @ Rs.10 paid UP. Calculate the amount transferred to capital reserve.
a. 800
b. 900
c. 1,800
d. 600
Answer:
d. 600

Hint:
In case forfeited shares are issued at par than amount in the Share Forfeited Account will be treated as net gain and transferred to Capital Reserve Account
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 20

Question 82.
A limited company issued a prospectus inviting application for 2,000 shares of Rs. 10 each at premium of Rs. 2 per share payable as follows: On application – Rs. 2
On allotment – Rs. 5 (including premium)
On 1st call- Rs. 3
On llnd final call – Rs. 2
Application were received for 3,000 shares and allotment was made on pro-rata basis to applicant of 2,400 shares. Money received in excess on application was adjusted towards allotment.
Ramesh whom 40 shares were allotted, failed to pay allotment money & first call his shares were forfeited. Find the number of shares Ramesh has applied ‘for?
a. 52
b. 50
c. 42
d. 48.
Answer:
d. 48.

Hint:
Pro rata allotment of shares will be = no. of shares applied × 2400/2000
Ramesh applied for × shares and he is allotted 40 shares.
40 = 2400 × X/2000 .
x = \(\frac{2400 \times 40}{2,000}\)
= 48 shares

Question 83.
Gas Ltd. issued 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs.10 each payable as follows: Rs.3 on application, Rs.3 on allotment, Rs.2 on first call and Rs.2 on second and final call. The Company received application for 1,50,000 shares.
The allotment was made as under:
Applicants for 50,000 shares were allotted in full. Applicants for 80,000 shares were allotted 50,000 shares on pro-rata basis and applicants for 20,000 shares were rejected. The amount of excess application money available for adjustment against allotment is:
a. Rs.50,000
b. Rs.90,000
c. Rs.60,000
d. Rs.40,000
Answer:
b. Rs.90,000

Hint:
Introduction to Company Accounts – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes 21
The amount of excess application money available for adjustment against allotment is Rs. 90,000.

Question 84.
Dabur Ltd. forfeited 400 shares of Rs. 1 G each fully called up on which the holder has paid only application money at Rs. 4 per share. Out of these 250 shams were reissued at 2 per share fully paid up. Capital reserve will be credited by:
a. Rs.3 000
b. Rs. 1,600
c. Rs.4,0300
d. Rs. 1,000
Answer:
d. Rs. 1,000

Hint:
In case forfeited shares are issued on premium than amount in the Share Forfeited Account will be treated as net gain and transferred to Capital Reserve Account.
250 shares were forfeited
Amount received on 250 shares = Rs 1000(250 × 4)

Question 85.
A new company wants to issue share at premium. The maximum rate of premium will be?
a. No limit
b. 10%
c. 30%
d. 15%
Answer:
a. No limit

Hint:
In case fresh shares are issued at premium then in such case only nominal value of the share will be transferred to C.R.R. Account and premium will be transferred to “Securities Premium Account “. Companies Act does not prescribe any maximum rate of premium.
So, the maximum rate of premium will be having no limit.

Question 86.
Forfeited shares account (not yet re-issued) shown under the heading ……………….
a. Current liabilities
b. Reserves and surplus
c. Share capital
d. Long term borrowings
Answer:
c. Share capital

Question 87.
Picus – Limited purchases a machine worth ‘Rs. 1,15,000 from Indigo Traders. Payment was made as Rs. 10,000 by cheque and the remaining by issue of equity shares of the face value of Rs.10 each fully paid-up at an issue price of Rs. 10.50 each. Amount of share premium would be;
a. Rs.5,000
b. Rs.6,000
c. Rs.7,000
d. Rs.4,000
Answer:
a. Rs.5,000

Hint:
Amount of premium = 50 × 10000 = 5000
10,000 equity shares @ Rs. 10 face value and Rs. 0.50 as a premium.

Question 88.
T ltd. has issued 14% Debentures of Rs. Rs.20,00,000 at a discount of 10% in April 2013 and the company pays interest half-yearly on June 30 and December 31 every year. On March 31, 2014, the amount shown as ‘interest accrued but not due’ in the balance sheet will be:
a. Rs.70,000
b. Rs.2,80,000
c. Rs. 1,40,000
d. Rs. 2,10,000
Answer:
a. Rs.70,000

Hint:
when interest that is either payable or receivable has been recognized, but not yet paid or received because it is not due is interest accrued.
Interest “accrued but not due” in the Balance sheet will be:
20,00,000 × 14/160 × 3/12 = 70,000

Question 89.
Which of the following accounts can not be transferred to capital redemption reserve account?
a. Dividend equalisation account
b. General reserves
c. Profit and loss appropriation account.
d. Securities premium reserves
Answer:
a. Dividend equalisation account

Hint:
Where any shares are redeemed otherwise than out of the proceeds of a fresh issue, there shall out of profits which would otherwise have been available for dividend be transferred to a reserve fund to be called “the capital redemption reserve fund”.

Following accounts are transferred to CRR

  • General Reserves
  • Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
  • Securities Premium Reserves
  • Other free Reserves

Question 90.
As per Section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013, the securities premium reserve can be utilised for the purpose of:
a. Redemption of preference shares
b. Transfer of amount to capital redemption reserve
c. Payment of dividend on preference shares
d. Payment of premium on redemption of preference shares.
Answer:
d. Payment of premium on redemption of preference shares.

Hint:
As per Companies Act Securities premium can be utilised only for:
(a) issuing fully paid shares to members
(b) writing off the balance of preliminary expenses of the company
(c) writing off commission paid/discount allowed/expenses incurred on issue of shares or debentures of the company
(d) for providing for the premium payable on redemption of preference shares
(e) for purchase of its own shares

Question 91.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
a. Equity shares are convertible
b. Equity shares have voting rights
c. Equity shares are also known as ordinary shares
d. Equity shareholders get dividend.
Answer:
a. Equity shares are convertible

Hint:
Equity shares are not convertible shares where as preference shares are convertible, they can be converted into equity shares but equity cannot be converted into preference shares.

Question 92.
XYZ limited issued 20,000 shares of Rs.10 each. It received applications for 24,000 shares. Shares were allotted to all shareholders proportionately. The application money was Rs.6 and allotment and call money was Rs.4 per share. Ram who was allotted 300 shares could not pay the allotment money. The money due to Ram would be:
a. Rs. 1,800
b. Rs. 1,200
c. Rs. 1,440
d. Rs.840.
Answer:
d. Rs.840.

Hint:
Application received – 24000
Allotment made -20000
No. of shares applied = 24000 × 300/20000 = 360
Money paid by Ram on application = 360 × 6 = 2160
Money for 300 shares = 1800
Extra money paid by Ram = 360
Allotment money due = 1200 – 360 = 840 (300 shares @rs 4)

Question 93.
Star Ltd. issued 80,000 equity shares of Rs,10 each. The money was payable as Rs.3 on application, Rs.4 on allotment, Rs.2 on first call and Rs.1 on final call. The applications were received for 1,20,000 shares. Applicants of 20,000 shares were allotted in full. Applicants of 80,000 shares were allotted 60,000 shares on prorata basis and applications for 20,000 shares were rejected. Amount to be refunded by the company is:
a. NIL
b. Rs. 1,80,000
c. Rs.60,000
d. Rs. 1,20,000.
Answer:
c. Rs.60,000

Hint:
20,000 shares were rejected, Rs. 3 on application
20,000 × 3 = Rs. 60,000

Question 94.
Large Ltd. issued 25,000 equity shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of Rs.15 each payable as Rs.25 on application, Rs.40 on allotment and balance in the first call. The applications were received for 75,000 equity’ shares. The above is the case of:
a. Forfeiture of shares
b. Pro-rata allotment
c. Over-subscription
d. Under-subscription.
Answer:
c. Over-subscription

Hint:
Over-subscription of Shares: Situation where a new stock (share) issue has more buyers than there are shares to satisfy their orders. Thus the number of application received is more than number of shares issued.

Question 95.
Which of the following statement is not true:
a. When the shares are forfeited securities premium is debited along with share capital where premium has not been received
b. Where all the forfeited shares are not re-issued the share forfeited account will show a credit balance equal to gain on forfeiture of shares not yet re-issued .
c. Loss on re-issue of shares cannot be more than the gain on forfeiture of those shares
d. Where forfeited shares are re-issued at premium, the amount of such premium is credited to capital reserve account.
Answer:
d. Where forfeited shares are re-issued at premium, the amount of such premium is credited to capital reserve account.

Hint:
In case forfeited shares are issued on premium than amount in the Share Forfeited Account will be treated as net gain and transferred to Capital Reserve Account

Question 96.
T Ltd. has issued 14% debentures of Rs.20,00,000 at a discount of 10% in April, 2013 and the company pays interest half yearly on June 30, and December 31, every year. On March 31, 2014 the amount shown as interest accrued but not due in the balance sheet will be:
a. Rs. 1,40,000
b. Rs.2,10,000
c. Rs.2,80,000
d. Rs.70,000.
Answer:
d. Rs.70,000.

Hint:
when interest that is either payable or receivable has been recognized, but not yet paid or received because it is not due is interest accrued.
Interest accrued but not due as on 31st March, 2014
= \(\frac{20000 \times 14 \% \times 6 / 12}{2}\)
= 70,000

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

E-Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

E-Correspondence – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Introduction:

  • System of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the internet is called World Wide Web (WWW).
  • World Wide Web and internet are two separate but related things.
  • The letters were written by one party to another, and the answers thereto. make what is called the correspondence of the parties.
  • Such correspondence is done through electronic signals via internet is called E-Correspondence.
  • With a web browser, one can view web pages that contain text, video, multimedia etc.

Web:

  • WWW or web is way of accessing information over the medium of internet
  • Protocol used by Web is HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol).
  • Web also utilises web browsers such as Internet Explorer, Mozilla, Google Chrome to access web pages that are linked to each other via links to form web documents.
  • It contains graphics, sounds, text and video.
  • Web is just a part of internet, the true term are not synonyms and should not be confused.

Internet:

  • It is a network of networking infrastructure.
  • Information travels in internet through a variety of languages known as protocols.
  • It is a global connection of people/computers linked together by telephone lines.
  • it is a collection of textual documents and other resources.
  • It can be called as an application riinning on the internet.

Uses of Internet:

  • Sending e-mail
  • Publicity and Advertisement
  • Teleconferencing
  • E-commerce.

E- Correspondence:

  • It is also known as “e-mail correspondence” or “electronic correspondence”.
  • It is a method of providing information through e-mail.

E-mail:

  • E-mail is also known as electronic mail.
  • It involves sending messages through telecommunication links.
  • E-mail refers to exchange of text messages and computer files over a communication network.
  • It can be sent simultaneously to a large number of people.
  • Today it is a central component of business communication.

History of E-mail:

  1. By 1974, email in its improved form was being used by the US military.
  2. 2. By 1975, efforts to organize the email bore fruits.
  3. A general operating area known as email Account was created for user who wanted to avail the email services,
  4. Access controlling was done by giving the user a secret password which only he/she would know.
  5. E-mail services were being offered in commercial packages and per-minute charges were applicable to those using their services.
  6. By the early 11 90s free and user-friendly email providers had taken the industry by storm.
  7. Player like yahoo’ and ‘Hotmail were competing for the market share.
  8. Today there are more than 600 million email users across the globe, with newer players like Google (Gmail) and Rediff entering.
  • In 1965, the Massachusetts Institute of Technology was first to demonstrate the use of first e-mail system, known as “MAILBOX”.
  • Tomlinson is called the “Father of e-mail” and is credited with its invention.
  • He provided the symbol “@” as an addressing standard.
  • In 1972, FTP (File Transfer Protocol) was used but it resulted in various problems. For every recipient a new mail was created which required a huge memory space.
  • Nowadays,
    SMTP is used to send e-mails
    POP is used to receive e-mails.

Notes:
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):
SMTP is an Internet standard for electronic mail transmission across internet protocol (IP) networks.

POP (Post Office Protocol):
It is an application-layer internet standard protocol used by local e-mail clients to retrieve e-mails from a remote server over a TCP/IP connection.

Features of E-mail

  • E-mail is an electronic mode of message transmission. Messages are sent using HTML (HyperText Markup Language)
  • E-mail has become one of the cost-effective modes of fast communication
  • Packages like Messenger’ and Outlook’ helps to compose new mails and forwarding emails to the people whose e-mas addrésses are stored in the “Address Box” Packages also allow us to format the content changing its size, font and colour.
  • An interlace between e-mail programs and word processing programs allows us to perform various functions.

Electronic Mail System:

  • Some standards of professionalism should be adopted while using e-mail.
  • Separate personal, as well as professional mail accounts, should be maintained.
  • Limiting or monitoring the size of distribution list for proper management.
  • Various establishment policies for sending or receiving. attachment should be followed.
  • Responding promptly to e-mail messages.
  • Ensuring day to day viewing of e-mails.
  • Pay attention towards the work performed by professionals through e-mails.

2. Optimizing personal E-mail use:

  • Expert and managers can take several steps to maximize the efficiency of their company’s email system.
  • These tips extend from pattern of personal email use to serve as a guideline for company-wide email policies.
  • User of electronic mail are encouraged to adopt the same standard of professionalism that dictate the tone and appearance of postal correspondence.
  • Separate the personal mail account from professional one.
  • Monitor size of distribution List to keep them manageable.
  • Establish policies for receiving attachments.
  • Augment your email address to ensure accurate identification.
  • Promptly respond to E-mail messages of any significance.
  • Establish efficient daily e-mail practices.
  • Pay Attention.

3. Proper use of E-correspondence:

  • We deal with different type of email correspondence whether it be for business, for personal use, or for school, we all need to know proper way of sending email to other.
  • E-mail correspondence comes in various colours and designs and it is creative as the sender making it words used in email are like.
  • Small hit match, they can be useful to mend fragile relationships, warm the heart and high the way, or they can ignite whole forest a frame that could cause hence and destruction.

E-mail Etiquette:

  • Basic rules should be kept in mind while addressing people through e-mail.
  • It is very difficult to express the tone in writing. Tone here refers to accent used while writing an e-mail.
  • Be concise while writing an e-mail.
  • A person should stay away from writing abbreviations. A person should be professional while writing an e-mail.
  • Proper grammar and spelling should be used.
  • Before entering the e-mail address, the e-mail should be checked twice.

Advantages of E-mail:

  • Managing e-mails is very easy task.
  • E-mails are delivered very fast from any part of the world.
  • Compared to other modes of communication e-mails are less expensive.
  • E-mail can be filtered easily by the subject line present in e-mail.
  • The level of security and reliability in transmission of e-mail is very high.

Disadvantages of E-mail:

  • Sometimes, sending a mail is time-consuming because organizing and reading of information through e-mail can consume more time and may also act as a hindrance on workers’ productivity.
  • Sensitive information can be send through mail anywhere in the world. It does not matter that mail is sent accidentally or deliberately. This may harm any organisation from security point of view.
  • Sometimes, the meaning conveyed by sender is different from the meaning understood by receiver due to impersonal communication.
  • Sometimes, understanding the e-mails in wrong way i.e. misunderstanding is due to differences in communication.
  • It takes time to destroy hard copy or printed copy but by a simple hard drive crash, all mails can be lost.

Note :

  • E-mail is not the confidential mode of communication. E-mail cannot be replaced by direct as well as face to face communication.
  • E-mails cannot be relied in case of emergency.
  • E-mail is dependent upon internet. Sometimes networks get disturbed and system loses connectivity.

Intranet:

  • The word intra means within or internal.
  • The intranet is a type of information system that facilitates communication within the organisation among widely dispersed departments, division and regional locations.
  • External people cannot access the internet, thus secured.
  • Intranet connects people to gather with internet technologies using web browsers, web servers arid data warehouses in a single view.
  • With a web browser, one can view web pages that contain text, video, other multimedia etc.

Benefits of Intranet:

  • Intranet helps the user to locate and view information easily and faster.
  • It also help to use application relevant to their roles and responsibilities.
  • Intranet allow organisation to distribute information within time so that employees may get link to relevant information at their convenience.
  • Intranet act as a powerful tool for communication within an organisation by both the ways, horizontally as well as vertically.
  • Web publishing helps to understand and access corporate information which is complex and not easily available.
  • Intranet acts as a platform for development of applications to manage business operations and management.
  • Intranet is cost-effective as it saves time, money as well as natural resources.
  • Easy accessibility of information by all authorized users.
  • Each person has an ability to view same information within the intranet, thus promoting common corporate culture.
  • People are updated by latest laws and specifications with the help of intranet.

Purposes of internet:

  1. InternaI communication.
  2. To deliver tools and applications, thus advancing productivity.
  3. Used as a corporate culture-change platform.
  4. Send private messages.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. The letter written by one party to another, and the answers thereto, make what is called the correspondence of parties such correspondence It done through electronic signals via internet is called …………………………..
(a) Intranet
(b) E-mail
(c) E-correspondence
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) E-correspondence.

2. Full form of HTTP
(a) Hypertext transfer protocol
(b) Hyper transfer text protocol
(c) Hypertext transfer plan
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Hypertext transfer protocol.

3. ………………………………….. is a networking infrastructure.
(a) Internet
(b) Intranet
(c) Extranet
(d) E-mail
Answer:
(a) Internet.

4. What is the other name for e-corresponclence7
(a) E-mail – correspondence
(b) Electronic -correspondence
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b).

5. Full form of URL is:
(a) Uniform Reachable Locator
(b) Uniform Resource Locator
(c) Uniform Research Locator
(d) Uniform Readable Locator
Answer:
(b) Uniform Resource Locator.

6. First e-mail system was known as:
(a) MALE BOX
(b) MAILBOX
(c) EMAIL BOX
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) MAILBOX.

7. When was FTP (File Transfer Protocol) put in use ……………………….. .
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Answer:
(c) 1972.

8. Which protocol is used to receive mail?
(a) SMTP
(b) POP
(c) HTTP
(d) FTP
Answer:
(b) POP.

9. Which of the following is not the feature of E-mail?
(a) Spam
(b) Search
(c) Signature
(d) Settlement
Answer:
(d) Settlement.

10. Which is not an E-mail etiquette?
(a) Be concise
(b) Be Realistic
(c) Be Professional
(d) Watch your tone.
Answer:
(b) Be Realistic.

11. Which protocol is used by web?
(a) HTTP
(b) SMTP
(c) FTP
(d) POP
Answer:
(a) HTTP.

12. Unsolicited or junk mails are filtered through the option of
(a) Delete
(b) Trash
(c) Spam
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Spam.

13. WWW stands for
(a) World web-wide
(b) Wide world web
(c) World wide web
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) World wide web

14. Who s called as the “father of E-mail”?
(a) Merrian
(b) Aristotle
(c) Tomlinson
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Tomlinson.

15. This began as an American experiment in computer communication technology during the cold war and has revolutionised the world.
(a) Fax
(b) SMS
(c) Telegram
(d) Email
Answer:
(d) Email.

16. …………………………. allows a central communication area for the entire company.
(a) Intranet
(b) Internet
(c) Extranet
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Intranet.

17. ……………………………….. is used in place for paper to communicate.
(a) Internet
(b) Intranet
(c) Email
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

18. Full form of IMAP:
(a) Internet Message Access Plan
(b) Internet Message Access Protocol
(c) Intranet Message Access Protocol
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Internet Message Access Protocol.

19. Full form of POP:
(a) Post office plan
(b) Point office protocol
(c) Post office protocol
(d) Point office plan.
Answer:
(c) Post office protocol.

20. Which year was watershed year in e-mail marketing?
(a) 1946
(b) 1956
(c) 1966
(d) 1976
Answer:
(d) 1976.

21. Uses of Internet:
(a) Sending e-mail
(b) Teleconferencing
(c) E-commerce
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

22. It is an electronic, cost-effective and fastest mode of communication as of today.
(a) Internet
(b) E-mail
(c) E- Correspondence
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Internet.

23. In year the MIT was the first to demonstrate the use of the first e-mail system, known as MAIL Box.
(a) 1965
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1968
Answer:
(a) 1965.

24. Full form of FTP is
(a) Full-time protocol
(b) File transfer program
(c) Fun time program
(d) File transfer protocol
Answer:
(d) File transfer protocol.

25. The ……………….. option allows us to share documents, worksheets, presentations, pictures and videos along with the mails
(a) Spam
(b) Interface
(c) Attachments
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Attachments.

26. Which of this is not an advantage of EMAIL?
(a) Managing E-mail is easy
(b) E-mail is fast
(c) E-mail is Inexpensive
(d) Security
Answer:
(d) Security.

27. Purposes of Intranet:
(a) Internet Communication
(b) Send private messages
(c) Used as a corporate culture -change platform
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

28. Full form of HTML is:
(a) Hypertext mail language
(b) Hyper transfer markup language
(c) Hypertext markup language
(d) High time markup language
Answer:
(c) Hypertext markup language.

29. With reference to e-mail, BCC stands for ……………………………. .
(a) Blind carbon copy
(b) Before carbon copy
(c) Before copy carbon
(d) Blind copy carbon
Answer:
(a) Blind carbon copy:
With respect to e-mail, BCC Stands for Blind Carbon Copy. It is used or chosen to send a group or list of people the same message using BCC, which is kindest and least obvious way to send mail short of encryption.

30. Which one of the following is a system of interlinked documents accessed via internet?
(a) Intranet
(b) Extranet
(c) World wide web
(d) Local area network.
Answer:
(c) World wide web:
World Wide Web is a system of interlinked documents accessed via internet. The worldwide web is way of accessing information over the medium of the internet.

31. Which one of the following protocols is generally used in internet
(a) HTTP
(b) HPPT
(c) TTPH
(d) TPTH
Answer:
(a) HTTP:
Protocol generally used in Internet is HTTP. (HyperText Transfer Protocol)

32. ………………….. option forbids unwanted e-mails to enter into the Inbox.
(a) Interface
(b) Spam
(c) Protocols
(d) Jargon.
Answer:
(b) Spam:
Unsolicited or Junk mails can be tittered by using the Spam’ option which forbids unwanted mails to enter your inbox.

33. In which year does US Military Started using improved form of email?
(a) 1965
(b) 1974
(c) 1975
(d) 1972
Answer:
(b) 1974:
It was the year 1974 in which US military started using improved form of email.

34. Who is the founder of E-mail?
(a) Merrian
(b) Tomlinson
(c) Aristotle
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Tomlinson:
Tomlinson is called the “father of e-mail and is credited with its invention.

35. What is the watershed year in the history of e-mail mailoeting?
(a) 1976
(b) 1974
(c) 1972
(d) 1970
Answer:
(a) 1976 :
Year 1976 was a waters head year in the history of e-mail marketing. E-mail services was being offered in the commercial packages and per-minute changes were applicable to those using these services.

36. What is the full form of HTTP?
(a) Hydro Text Transfer Protocol
(b) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(c) Hyper Text Transfer Process
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol:
HTTP refers to as HyperText Transfer Protocol

37. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation www?
(a) World wide web
(b) World work web
(c) Wide world web
(d) Web worldwide.
Answer:
(a) World wide web:
The abbreviation ‘www’ stands for World Wide Web which is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the internet. With a web browser, one can view web pages that may contain text, images, videos and other multimedia and navigate between them via hyperlinks.

38. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Messenger and outlook express are a part of web browsers
(b) The specialists prefer programmes like Eudora
(c) E-mail packages help us to compose and forward messages
(d) All the stated options are correct.
Answer:
(c) E-mail packages help us to compose and forward messages:
Option C is the correct statement i.e. E-mail packages helps us to compose and forward messages through the computer.

39. Choose the incorrect option about e-mail services:
(a) E-mail is a replacement of Teleconferencing
(b) E-mail depends on internet connectivity
(c) E-mail cannot be considered a confidential mode of communication
(d) E-mails are not expensive.
Answer:
(a) E-mail is a replacement of Teleconferencing:
Features of E-mail:
E-mail is an electronic mode of message transmission.
⇒ It has become one of the cost-effective modes of fast communication.
⇒ E-mails are delivered very fast from any part of the world.

Note:

  • E-mail is not the confidential mode of communication
  • It cannot be replaced by teleconferencing
  • It cannot be relied in case of emergency
  • it is dependent upon internet.

So, option A is not correct statement regarding E-mail. i.e. E-mail Is a replacement of teleconferencing.

40. Unsolicited or junk mails are filtered through the option of:
(a) Packages
(b) Spam
(c) Inbox
(d) Attachments.
Answer:
(b) Spam:
Spam: Unsolicited or Junk mails can be filtered by using the ‘spam’ option which forbids unwanted mails to enter your inbox.

41. Who is the founder of E-mail:
(a) Tomlinson
(b) Aristotle
(c) Meridian
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Tomlinson:
Tomlinson is the founder of E-mail and Is credited with its invention.

42. What is the other name of E – correspondence?
(a) Electronic – correspondence
(b) Email correspondence
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b):
E-correspondence is also called electronic correspondence and E-mail correspondence. Thus options (a) & (b) are correct.

43. Who is called the ‘Father of E-mail’ and is credited with the invention?
(a) Tomlinson
(b) Merriam
(c) Morse
(d) Aristotle.
Answer:
(a) Tomlinson:
Tomlinson is called the ‘father of email’ and is credited with its invention because he chose the ‘@’ symbol to provide an addressing standard in the form of “user@host”, which is in use till date.

44. Choose the incorrect option about E-mail services?
(a) E-mail is a replacement for Tele-conferencing
(b) E-mail can be considered a confidential mode of communication
(c) E-mails are not expensive
(d) E-mails depend on internet connectivity.
Answer:
(b) Service information system:
E-mail can be considered a confidential mode of communication. This statement is incorrect as sensitive information can be easily shared and distributed within a business. An email can be intercepted by a hacker or go on an incorrect e-mail address and wind up in someone’s else inbox.

45. Which of the following is incorrect about the language of an e-mail?
(a) One should not use jargon unless writing to people of one’s own profession
(b) One may freely use abbreviations
(c) One should use words with positive connotations.
(d) Salutation is not necessary.
Answer:
(b) One may freely use abbreviations:
The language of E-mail:

  • Write short, crisp and focused paragraphs.
  • Use concrete words with positive connotations.
  • Do not use abbreviations and acronyms
  • Don’t use jargon or slang. It can be used if you are communicating with people of same profession.
  • Use short and simple sentences.

46. What is the full form of the abbreviation SIS with respect to communication?
(a) Senior information supervisor
(b) Service information system
(c) Strategic important system
(d) Strategic information system.
Answer:
(d) Strategic information system:
Abbreviation SIS w.r.t. Communication is Security and Intelligence. ServIces SIS are developed in response to corporate business initiative, lise of such communication systems provide business competitive advantage on their competitors as they see provide a good or service in a way that is better than that of their peer.

47. E-mail etiquettes include:
(a) Going into unnecessary details
(b) Watching your tone
(c) Display whatever you have
(d) Being unprofessional.
Answer:
(b) Watching your tone
E-mail etiquettes Include:
→ Mind your manners
→ Watch your tone
→ Be concise
→ Be professional
→ Use correct spelling and proper grammar
→ Wait to fill in the ‘TO’ email address.

48. Which of the following is/are an advantage/advantages of e-mail?
(a) It is cheaper than a letter
(b) It is faster than a letter
(c) Locations do not prove any obstacle in its path
(d) All the stated options are correct.
Answer:
(d) All the stated options are correct.
“Electronic mail” or “e-mail” as it is commonly called the process of sending or receiving a computer file or message by computer modem over telephone wires to a pre-selected “mailbox” or “address” on another computer. E-mail can also be sent automatically to a large number of electronic addresses via mailing lists (through ‘mail-merge option). E-mail messages can range from the simplest correspondence to business presentations, engineering blueprints, book chapters, or detailed contracts. Hence it is cheaper, faster than a letter and location do not create any obstacle.

49. Which of the following protocol is used by the web?
(a) TTPH
(b) TPTH
(c) HTTP
(d) HTPT.
Answer:
(c) HTTP:
The World Wide Web, or simply Web, is a way of accessing information over the medium of the internet. It is an information-sharing model that is built on top of the Internet. The Web uses the HTTP protocol (one of the languages spoken over the Internet) to transmit data. Web services, which use HTTP to allow applications to communicate in order to exchange business logic, use the Web to share information.

50. Which of the following is incorrect about the language of an email?
(a) One should not use Jagran unless writing to people of one’s own profession.
(b) One should use words with positive connotations
(c) Salutation is not necessary
(d) One may freely use abbreviations
Answer:
(d) One may freely use abbreviations:
The use of abbreviations in the Email shall be avoided as far as possible. The statement d is incorrect as freely use of abbreviations should be avoided.

51. Which of the following is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the internet?
(a) World wide web
(b) Internet
(c) Emails
(d) Extranet
Answer:
(a) World wide web:
World Wide Web is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the internet.

52. Which of the following is not an advantage of e-mail?
(a) It lacks the personal touch of traditional method of correspondence in business
(b) It is easy to filter
(c) E-mail packages allow us to out, copy and park
(d) In email communication differences in location do not prove to be an obstacle
Answer:
(a) It lacks the personal touch of traditional method of correspondence in business:
Lack of personal touch of traditional method of correspondence is a disadvantage.

53. Advantage of E-mail
(a) Easy to manage
(b) Email is expensive
(c) Can be treated as valuable evidence
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Advantages of an E-mail:

  • Easy to manage
  • Is Inexpensive
  • Easy to filter
  • Transmission is secure and reliable.

54. …………….. option forbids unwanted e.mails to enter into the Inbox
(a) Interstate
(b) Spam
(c) Protocols
(d) Jargon
Answer:
(b) Spam: Spam option forbids unwanted e-mails to enter into the Inbox.

55. This began as a American experiment in computer communication technology during cold war and has revolutionized the world?
(a) Fax
(b) Telegram
(c) Internet
(d) Radar
Answer:
(d) Radar: Radar began as a American experiment in computer communication technology during cold war and has revolutionized the world.

56. Causes unnecessary delays file backups storage problem:
(a) Virus
(b) Spam
(c) Attachments
(d) Emotions
Answer:
(a) Virus
These viruses cause unnecessary delay, storage problems, file backups etc. Ineffective consumer search:
A close look at the e-commerce market.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Audit and Auditors Reports – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Audit and Auditors Reports – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

→ Auditor and Related Provisions
Who is an auditor

→ An auditor is a professional who is responsible for evaluating some aspect of a project, business, or individual.
Auditors are used to ensure that organizations are maintaining accurate and honest financial records and statements.

→ Along with evaluating a project or aspect of a company, this person is often expected to make recommendations regarding the correction of negative conditions that currently impact the organization.

→ Essentially, this person may function as an employee or an independent professional. When working for an organization, he or she is usually referred to as an internal auditor. External auditor is not an employee of the organization thus he is able to give an unbiased opinion and report the true picture of the organization.

→ Appointment of Auditors
Section 139 of the companies Act 2013 contains provisions regarding the appointment of auditors
1. Appointment of First Auditors: Section 139(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that the first auditor or auditors are to be appointed by the Board of directors within 30 days from the date of the registration of the company These auditors will work until the conclusion of the First Annual general meeting. Company is not required to inform Registrar of Companies regarding the appointment of first auditors. In case directors are not able to appoint directors within one month of incorporation, the company may appoint its first auditors in general meeting.

2. Subsequent Appointment by the Shareholders: Appointment of auditor shall be made by members at First AGM and every subsequent AGM. Company shall intimate the auditor about appointment as per Section 139(1) of = the Companies Act 2013 . Such auditors must be intimated within 7 days of appointment and company shall obtain written consent and certificate (in accordance with the conditions prescribed in section 141) from auditor. Then, company is required to file a notice with the registrar about the appointment within 15 Days of the meeting. The auditor will also certify that he satisfies the criteria provided in section 141.

3. Appointment of subsequent auditor in Government company: Appointment of auditor shall be made by CAG. within 180 days from the commencement of financial year. The Auditor shall hold office for a till the conclusion of AGM.

4. Conditions for appointment of Subsequent Auditor in case of Listed Companies:
If an individual is appointed as an auditor for 1 term i.e. for 5 consecutive years then that individual will not be eligible for reappointment for next 5 years from the expiry of his term as an auditor of company. Whereas, if an audit firm is appointed as auditor for 2 term i.e. for 10 consecutive years then that audit firm will not be eligible for reappointment for next 5 years from the expiry of its term as an auditor of company.

5. Appointment in case of Casual vacancy: Casual vacancy arises due to death, insanity, disqualification or insolvency of the auditor. Board of directors has the power to fill the vacancy. Auditor so appointed hold office till the conclusion of next general meeting. If casual vacancy is arising by resignation then vacancy shall be filled by the Company in its general meeting within 3 months from the date of recommendation of the Board.

→ Qualification of auditor -Section 141 (1) and Section 141(2) of Companies Act, 2013 contains provision as regards to qualifications of auditors. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as auditor of a company unless he is a chartered accountant within the meaning of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (38 of 1949). This applies to all the companies whether public or private, section 25 company, government company.

Disqualification of auditor – Section 141(3), of the companies act, 2013 defines disqualification of the auditor
→ As per Act none of the following persons shall be qualified for appointment as auditor of a company:
(a) a body corporate;
(b) an officer or employee of the company;
(c) a person who is a partner, or who is in the employment, of an officer or employee of the company;
(d) a person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding one thousand rupees, or who has given any guarantee or provided any security in connection with the indebtedness of any third person to the company for an amount exceeding one thousand rupees ;
(e) a person holding any security of that company after a period of one year from the date of commencement of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2000.

→ A person shall also not be qualified for appointment as auditor of a company if he is, by virtue of sub-section (3), disqualified for appointment as auditor of any other body corporate which is that company’s subsidiary or holding company or a subsidiary of that company’s holding company, or would be so disqualified if the body corporate were a company.

→ If an auditor becomes subject, after his appointment, to any of the disqualifications specified in sub-sections (3) and (4), he shall be deemed to have vacated his office as such.

→ Further in case of insolvency and unsound mind a person is disqualified to be a member of ICAI

→ If a partner is disqualified then the firm will automatically be disqualified

→ Rights of auditors: According to section 143 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company auditor has the following rights

  • Right of Access to Books of Accounts: Auditor has a right of access at all times to the company’s books, accounts and vouchers (in whatever form they are held) whether kept at the head office of the company or elsewhere.
  • Right to obtain Information and Explanation:Auditor may require any of the following persons to provide him with such information or explanations as he thinks necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor. Persons include any officer or employee of the company and any director of the company.
  • Right to visit Branches: Where the Branch Accounts are not audited by a duly qualified auditor, the auditor has a right of access at all time to the books, accounts and vouchers of the company and thus, may visit the branch, if he deems it necessary.
  • Right to Signature on Audit Report- Under section 229, only the person appointed as auditor of the company, or where a firm is so appointed, only a partner in the firm practicing in India, may sign the auditor’s report
  • Right to receive Notice and other Communications relating to General Meeting and attend them: A company’s auditor is entitled to receive all notices of, and other communications relating to, any general meeting. He has right to attend any general meeting of the company, and to be heard at any general meeting which he attends on any part of the business of the meeting which concerns him as auditor.
  • Right to receive remuneration – auditor has rights to receive remuneration for the audit work performed by him.

→ Duties of auditor: Besides having rights an auditor has some duties to ensure the work discharged by him is of credibility and true and fair.
Section 143(1) under the Companies Act 2013 specifies some duties to auditors these are

  • As per section 143(2) the auditor shall make a report to the members of the company on the accounts examined by him and on every financial statements which are required by or under this Act to be laid before the company in general meeting and the report shall after taking into account the provisions of this Act, the accounting and auditing standards and matters which are required to be included in the audit report under the provisions of this Act.
  • The audit report should be prepared in accordance with section 143,
  • Where any of the matters required to be included in the audit report under this section is answered in the negative or with a qualification, the report shall state the reasons therefor
  • If an auditor of a company, in the course of the performance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence involving fraud is being or has been committed against the company by officers or employees of the company, he shall immediately report the matter to the Central Government
  • Every auditor shall comply with the auditing standards.

→ Auditors report
An auditor’s report provides an opinion of the validity and reliability of a company or organization’s financial statements. The goal of an auditor’s report is ultimately to document reasonable assurance that a company’s financial statements are free from material error.

→ Under section 143(3)of the Companies Act, 2013, the duties of the auditor which relate to his report are that the auditor shall report to the shareholders on the accounts examined by him. The report so submitted shall contain the following:
(a) Whether, in his opinion, the Profit and Loss Account referred to in his report exhibits a true and fair view of the profit or loss.
(b) Whether, in his opinion, the Balance Sheet referred to in his report is properly drawn up so as to exhibit a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the business as shown by the books of accounts.
(c) Whether he has obtained all the information and explanations which to the best of his knowledge and belief were necessary for the purpose of his audit.
(d) Whether, in his opinion, proper books of accounts as required by law have been kept by the company
(e) whether Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet comply with the accounting standards
(f) auditors have given adverse remarks if any either in bold or italics type
(g) whether any director is disqualified from being appointed as director under section 164(2)
(h) Whether the company’s Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account dealt with by the report are in agreement with the books of accounts and returns.

→ As per Section 143(4) of the Companies Act, 2013,where any of the matters referred to above is answered in the negative or with a qualification, the auditor’s report shall state the reason for the answer.
The audit report is the end product of every audit.

→ Essentials of auditor report: An audit of a company’s financial statements should result in a report where the accountant or auditor is free to share their opinion about the validity and reliability of a company’s financial statements. In this report, the auditor should give a true picture of the company and their financial statements. The auditor should also state their connection with the financial statements, and whether they are externally or internally connected to the company. In their report, the auditor can also share any reservations or additional information. Reservations could arise if the auditor disagrees something within the financial statements.
An auditors report has following parts:
1. Report title- In a company many reports are being issued, thus to segregate auditors report from other reports auditors report should mention on top that it is auditors report.

2. Audit report addressee: Audit report is generally addressed to shareholders or Board of directors of Company. The report should be properly addressed either as per law or as per his engagement letter

3. Identification: Report should mention the financial statement that have been audited. It should also mention the data and period for which financial statements have been prepared. It should mention the name of the entity for which the audit has been performed

4. Reference to auditing standards: Report should state the standards that have been followed in auditing.

5. Opinion: The auditor should ensure that financial statements is reliable and satisfies the test of materiality. As per auditor’s opinion, these statements gives a true and fair view. Opinion states the auditor’s conclusions based on the results of the audit exam.

6. Signature: Report should be signed in auditor name or firm name or both as appropriate as per Sec. 145 of the CA 2013.

7. Auditors Address: The report should give the address of the auditor so that the person reading the report knows the name of city of auditor.

8. Date of report: The auditors report shall not be a date earlier to the date on which accounts were approved by the management, moreover the date should not be date earlier to the date on which auditor received all the audit evidence

→ Auditors Opinion: The audit report should include a section headed “Audit Opinion” or “Qualified Audit Opinion”, as appropriate. This section should clearly express the auditor’s opinion as to whether the financial report is presented fairly in accordance with:
(a) Accounting Standards and other mandatory professional reporting requirements in India; and
(b) when appropriate, relevant statutory and other requirements

→ Types of Opinion
The opinion expressed in the audit report should be either:
(a) unqualified opinion
(b) qualified opinion
(c) an adverse opinion
(d) Disclaimer of opinion

(a) Unqualified Opinion: An unqualified opinion should be expressed when the auditor is satisfied in all material respects that the financial report is presented fairly in accordance with:
(a) Accounting Standards and
(b) relevant statutory and other requirements,
so as to present a view which is consistent with the auditor’s understanding of the entity’s financial position, the results of its operations and its cash flows. It is also known as “clean Report”.

(b) Qualified Opinion: A qualified opinion must be issued when the auditor knows the financial statements are significant but not that significant that they may be given adverse opinion. The opinion must state the nature of the qualification. If the qualifications are measurable then auditor should quantify it and if not possible then he should state that quantification is not possible.
Always reasons to the qualification should be mentioned by the auditor. The words “subject to” are specified to show quantification.

(c) Adverse opinion: An adverse opinion should be expressed when the effects of a disagreement with management or a conflict between applicable financial reporting frameworks is of such a magnitude or is so pervasive or fundamental that the financial report taken as a whole is, in the auditor’s opinion, misleading or of little use to the addressee of the audit report. When auditor gives adverse opinion then he should mention the reason for it.

(d) Disclaimer of opinion: An inability to form an opinion should be expressed when a scope limitation exists and sufficient appropriate audit evidence to resolve the uncertainty resulting from the limitation cannot reasonably be obtained and the possible effects of the adjustments that might have been required to resolve the uncertainty are of such a magnitude or so pervasive or fundamental that the auditor is unable to express an opinion on the financial report taken as a whole. Reasons for disclaimer of opinion should be stated.

Audit and Auditors Reports MCQ Questions – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing

Question 1.
Excluding ___ all are the characteristic features of external auditor
a. Periodic audits on a rotating basis
b. External to organization
c. No connection to organization
d. Both b & c
Answer:
a. Periodic audits on a rotating basis

Question 2.
First auditors are appointed
a. Within 30 days
b. In first general meeting in some cases
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Answer:
c. Both a & b

Question 3.
First auditors are appointed by
a. Board of directors
b. Shareholders
c. Government
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Board of directors

Question 4.
In general auditors are appointed for
a. Financial year
b. 3 years
c. Complete year
d. As per the contract with the directors
Answer:
a. Financial year

Question 5.
A vacant position that arises because of the resignation of the director can only be filed in
a. Annual general meeting
b. Board meeting
c. Board meeting but expired at the general meeting
d. Both a & b
Answer:
c. Board meeting but expired at the general meeting

Question 6.
Casual vacancy occurs only when
a. Direction dies
b. Declared incompetent
c. Resigns
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 7.
In how much time should the notice be given to central government regarding the request for the appointment of director?
a. Within of director
b. Within 30 days
c. Within 15 days
d. Within 20 days
Answer:
a. Within of director

Question 8.
For section 25 companies now Section 8 company as per Companies Act, 2013 the auditor is appointed under section
a. 225 companies Act
b. 226 of companies Act
c. 226 of chartered accountant act
d. 225 of chartered accountant act
Answer:
b. 226 of companies Act

Question 9.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The audit profession is unregulated
b. The audit profession is regulated by its own professional body
c. Outside bodies sometimes become involved in the regulation of audit profession
d. The audit profession is regulated only by the government
Answer:
b. The audit profession is regulated by its own professional body

Question 10.
An auditor cannot obtain audit evidence by
a. Physical inspection
b. observation of procedures
c. computation and checking of client’s records
d. computation and checking of client’s competitor’s records
Answer:
d. computation and checking of client’s competitor’s records

Question 11.
As per Companies (Amendment) Act, 2000 ___________ person will not be appointed as auditor
a. Person of unsound mind
b. Person who is indebted of amount more than Rs. 1,000
c. Employee of the company
d. Person holding security of the company
Answer:
d. Person holding security of the company

Question 12.
In a firm of 3 auditors, one of the partner of the firm was disqualified but the other 2 auditors were qualified. In such case whether the firm be disqualified
a. Yes
b. No
c. Partially yes
d. Partially no
Answer:
a. Yes

Question 13.
Auditors can receive notice of any
a. General meeting
b. Board meeting
c. Committee meeting
d. All of the above
Answer:
a. General meeting

Question 14.
Which is NOT the function of auditor?
a. To check all the books that are relevant to auditing.
b. To check the articles of association
c. To sign the audit report
d. To receive remuneration
Answer:
b. To check the articles of association

Question 15.
It is the duty of the auditor
a. Loans and advances have shown as demerits
b. Loans and advances have been shown as revenues
c. Personal expenses have been charged to revenue
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 16.
As per auditor report ___________ turns out to be the integral part of auditors report
a. Adverse comments
b. Any disqualification of director
c. Collecting all the information required
d. All of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question 17.
Audit reports are made for
a. Employees
b. Shareholders
c. Government
d. All of the above
Answer:
b. Shareholders

Question 18.
A auditors firm’s personnel partner periodically studies the auditors firm’s personnel advancement experience to ascertain whether individuals meeting stated criteria are assigned increased degrees of responsibility. This is evidence of the auditor’s firm’s adherence to prescribed standards of
a. Quality control.
b. Due professional care.
c. Supervision and review.
d. Field work.
Answer:
a. Quality control.

Question 19.
The first standard of field work, which states that the work is to be adequately planned, and assistants, if any, are to be properly supervised, recognizes that
a. Early appointment of the auditor is advantageous to tile auditor and the client
b. Acceptance of an audit engagement after tt1e close of the client’s fiscal year is generally not permissible.
c. Appointment of the auditor subsequent to the physical count of inventories requires a disclaimer of opinion.
d. Performance of substantial parts of the . examination for necessary at interim dates.
Answer:
a. Early appointment of the auditor is advantageous to tile auditor and the client

Question 20.
It is not uncommon in auditor report to
a. Have title
b. Indicate the accounting principle used
c. Signature of auditor
d. All of the above
Answer:
c. Signature of auditor

Question 21.
Pick the one that is not required in the auditor report
a. Data
b. Place
c. Signature
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 22.
If there are no adverse comments in the auditor report it is
a. Adverse opinion
b. Clear report
c. Qualified opinion
d. Disclaimer of opinion
Answer:
b. Clear report

Question 23.
There are significant but not so significant adverse comments. Such a report is
a. Adverse opinion
b. Qualified opinion
c. Disclaimer of opinion
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. Qualified opinion

Question 24.
Insufficiency of finding proper evidence leads to type of auditor report
a. Adverse opinion
b. Qualified opinion
c. Disclaimer of opinion
d. Unqualified opinion
Answer:
c. Disclaimer of opinion

Question 25.
Where a Company suffers loss as a result of an auditor’s negligence and the directors do not take any action, any member of the company may take action against the auditor by
a. direct institution of a case in court against the auditor
b. convening a meeting of members within 30 days
c. giving 60 days notice to the company of his intention to institute an action in court
d. giving 30 days notice to the company of his intention to institute an action in court
Answer:
d. giving 30 days notice to the company of his intention to institute an action in court

Question 26.
The auditor reviews the organization’s chart primarily for the purpose of
a. Understanding of the workflow
b. Investigating the various communication channels
c. Understanding the responsibility and authority of individuals
d. Understanding of the entity and its environment
e. Ensuring that the audit is conducted both methodically and Systematically
Answer:
c. Understanding the responsibility and authority of individuals

Question 27.
When approached to perform an audit first auditor should make inquiries of the predecessor auditor. This is a necessary procedure because the predecessor auditor may be able to provide the successor with information that will assist the successor in determining whether
a. the engagement should be accepted.
b. in the predecessor’s opinion internal control of the company has been satisfactory.
c. The predecessor’s work should be used.
d. The company follows the policy of rating its auditors.
Answer:
b. in the predecessor’s opinion internal control of the company has been satisfactory.

Question 28.
When a company’s financial statements have been audited, an audit report will be prepared. If this is unqualified the auditors will report that the financial statements:
a. Are certified correct.
b. Contain no material errors.
c. Comply with the Companies Act.
d. Present a true and fair view and comply with the Companies Act
Answer:
d. Present a true and fair view and comply with the Companies Act

Question 29.
A limitation on the scope of an auditor’s examination sufficient to preclude an unqualified opinion will usually result when management:
a. Presents financial statements that are prepared in accordance with the cash receipts and disbursements basis of accounting.
b. States that the financial statements are not intended to be presented in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles.
c. Does not make the minutes of the Board of Directors meetings available to the auditor.
d. Asks the auditor to report on the balance sheet and not on the other basic financial statements.
Answer:
c. Does not make the minutes-of the Board of Directors meetings available to the auditor.

Question 30.
One of the auditing firm’s basic objectives is to provide professional services that conform to professional standards. Reasonable assurance of achieving this basic objective is provided through:
a. A system of quality control
b. A system of peer review
c. Continuing professional education
d. Compliance with generally accepted reporting standards
Answer:
a. A system of quality control

Question 31.
In reporting on compliance with laws and regulations during a financial statement audit in accordance with Government Auditing Standards, an auditor should include in the auditor’s report:
a. A statement of assurance that all controls over fraud and illegal acts were tested
b. Material instances of fraud and illegal acts that were discovered
c. The materiality criteria used by the auditor in considering whether instances of noncompliance were significant
d. An opinion on whether compliance with laws and regulations affected the entity’s goals and objectives
Answer:
b. Material instances of fraud and illegal acts that were discovered

Question 32.
An auditor is liable for the following
a. Third Party liabilities
b. Fraud perpetrated in highly sophisticated circumstances
c. None of these
d. Both a & b
Answer:
b. Fraud perpetrated in highly sophisticated circumstances

Question 33.
During audit of the financial statements, the auditors are concerned with the verification and determination of which one of the following items?
a. Statements accuracy and feasibility
b. Date accuracy and reliability
c. Policies value and reliability
d. Cycle policies and reliability
Answer:
b. Date accuracy and reliability

Question 34.
Which one of the following authorities shall fix the remuneration of the auditors, if auditors are appointed by the Companies Ordinance?
a. Directors
b. Shareholders
c. Company registrar
d. None of the above
Answer:
a. Directors

Question 35.
A retailing entity uses the Internet to execute and record its purchase transactions. The entity’s auditor recognizes that the documentation of details of transactions will be retained for only a short period of time. To compensate for this limitation, the auditor most likely would:
a. Compare a sample of paid vendors’ invoices to the receiving records at year-end.
b. Plan for a large measure of tolerable misstatement in substantive tests.
c. Perform tests several times during the year, rather than only at year-end.
d. Increase the sample of transactions to be selected for cutoff tests.
Answer:
c. Perform tests several times during the year, rather than only at year-end.

Question 36.
The _____________ is also expected to provide the resources needed and select staff members to accompany the auditors.
a. auditor
b. client
c. internal auditor
d. auditee
Answer:
d. auditee

Question 37.
The primary responsibility for the adequacy of disclosure in the financial statements of a publicly held company rests with the
a. Partner assigned to the engagement.
b. Auditor in charge of field work.
c. Management of the company.
d. Securities & Exchange Commission.
Answer:
c. Management of the company.

Question 38.
The audit final report should include, at a minimum, the following: (choose the one NOT required)
1. Type of audit conducted
2. Characteristics of audit
3. Identification of involved parties: auditor, auditee, and third party
4. Audit team members
5. Critical nonconformities and other observations.
6. Audit standards and reference documents used
7. Determination of proper corrective action(s)
8. Duration of audit
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
Answer:
b. 2

Question 39.
An auditor should consider which of the following when evaluating the ability of a company to continue as a going concern?
a. Audit fees
b. Future assurance services.
c. Management’s plans for disposal of assets.
d. A lawsuit for which judgment is not anticipated for 18 months.
Answer:
c. Management’s plans for disposal of assets.

Question 40.
Which of the following paragraphs of an auditor’s report does an auditor communicate the nature of the engagement and the specific financial statements covered by the audit?
a. Scope paragraph.
b. Opinion paragraph.
c. Introductory paragraph.
d. Explanatory paragraph.
Answer:
c. Introductory paragraph.

Question 41.
Who can not be appointed as auditor?
a. Director
b. Manager
c. Secretary
d. None of the above
Answer:
d. None of the above

Question 42.
Everything is false for external auditors except
a. They are not allowed to undertake consultancy work’ for companies they audit
b. They are responsible for ensuring that there haven’t been any frauds in companies that they audit.
c. Both a&b
d. They can never become employees of the company
Answer:
d. They can never become employees of the company

Question 43.
Which of the following professional services is not provided by a firm of Chartered Accountants?
a. Auditing the financial statements of a company
b. Financial advice
c. Investigations
d. Quality control on the shop floor.
Answer:
d. Quality control on the shop floor.

Question 44.
When a company receives the notice of the resignation of the Auditor, the company shall within 14 days send a copy of the notice to
a. all shareholders and all persons entitled to be sent copies of the financial statements
b. all shareholders and creditors
c. Corporate Affairs Commission and all minority shareholders
d. Corporate Affairs Commission and every person who is entitled to be sent copies of the financial statements.
Answer:
d. Corporate Affairs Commission and every person who is entitled to be sent copies of the financial statements.

Question 45.
Which of the following external influences will not affect the directors in the preparation of the financial statements?
a. Legislation
b. Regulatory requirements
c. The political environment
d. Accounting requirements
Answer:
c. The political environment

Question 46.
Which one of the following is NOT a condition for the auditor to disclose unlawful acts of the client uncovered by him?
a. The client refuses authority to disclose
b. The client authorizes him to disclose
c. The court compels him to disclose
d. Disclosure is in the interest of the auditor especially to defend himself in a litigation
Answer:
a. The client refuses authority to disclose

Question 47.
Which of the following statements is false?
a. The External Auditor is appointed by the shareholders at the Annual General Meeting
b. The Internal Auditor is appointed by the shareholders after the approval of the management
c. The Internal Auditor is appointed by the management
d. The Directors can appoint External Auditor to fill a casual vacancy
Answer:
b. The Internal Auditor is appointed by the shareholders after the approval of the management

Question 48.
Issue of bonus shares can be made out of
a. undistributed profit only
b. cash and bank balances only
c. Share premium account, undistributed profits or capital redemption reserve fund
d. consolidated fund, undistributed profits or share premium account
Answer:
c. Share premium account, undistributed profits or capital redemption reserve fund

Question 49.
Which resolution does a company need to pass to remove an auditor before the expiration of his term of office?
a. Special Resolution
b. General Resolution
c. Majority Resolution
d. Ordinary Resolution
Answer:
d. Ordinary Resolution

Question 50.
A company that has the liability of its members limited by the Memorandum of Association to such amount as the members may respectively undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up is termed.
a. Limited Liability Company
b. Public Limited Liability Company
c. General Limited Liability Company
d. Company Limited by Guarantee
Answer:
d. Company Limited by Guarantee

Question 51.
An independent auditor might consider the procedures performed by the internal auditors because
a. They are employees whose work must be reviewed during substantive testing
b. They are employees whose work might be relied upon
c. Their work impacts upon the cost/benefit trade off in evaluating inherent limitations
d. Their degree of independence may be inferred by the nature of their work
Answer:
b. They are employees whose work might be relied upon

Question 52.
To emphasize auditor independence from management, many corporations follow the practice of
a. Appointing a partner of the auditing firm conducting the examination to the corporation’s audit committee
b. Establishing a policy of discouraging social contact between employees of the corporation and their dependent auditors
c. Requesting that a representative of the independent auditor be on hand at the annual stockholders meeting
d. Having the independent auditor report to an audit committee of outside members of the board of directors
Answer:
d. Having the independent auditor report to an audit committee of outside members of the board of directors

Question 53.
The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are:-
a. evidence for audit conclusions
b. owned by the client
c. owned by the auditor
d. retained in auditor’s office until a change in auditors
Answer:
c. owned by the auditor

Question 54.
If the auditor discovers weaknesses in the Internal Control System of a company he is required to communicate the condition to the
a. Senior management and the Board of Directors
b. Executive Directors
c. Board of Directors
d. Audit Committee
Answer:
d. Audit Committee

Question 55.
Which of the following is the least concern to an auditor regarding the client’s internal control system?
a. Efficiency and effectiveness of operations
b. Controls related to the reliability of financial reporting
c. Controls over classes of transactions
d. Auditors are equally concern with each of the given issues
Answer:
a. Efficiency and effectiveness of operations

Question 56.
The most reliable form of evidence among the following is
a. Minutes of meetings
b. Directors” representation
c. Bank letters
d. Staff payroll
Answer:
d. Staff payroll

Question 57.
The situations below reflect circumstances leading to qualification of audit reports under disagreements EXCEPT
a. Failure to comply with the Statements of Accounting Standard
b. Disagreement as to facts or figures
c. Absence of proper accounting records
d. Company follows an inappropriate Statement of Accounting Standard
e. Disagreement as to facts and figures
Answer:
c. Absence of proper accounting records

Question 58.
Auditing standards differ from auditing procedures in that procedures relate to
a. Measure of performance.
b. Audit principles.
c. Acts to be performed.
d. Audit judgments.
Answer:
c. Acts to be performed.

Question 59.
Audit report is addressed to
a. Shareholders
b. Board of directors
c. Government
d. Both a & b
Answer:
d. Both a & b

Question 60.
The independent auditor of 1900 differs from the auditor of today as in the 1900 auditor was more concerned with the
a. Validity of the income statement.
b. Determination of fair presentation of financial statements-.
c. Improvement of accounting systems.
d. Detection of irregularities.
Answer:
d. Detection of irregularities.

Question 61.
The first general standard of generally accepted auditing standards which states, in part, that the examination is to be performed by a person or persons having adequate technical training, requires that an auditor have
a. Education and experience in the field of auditing.
b. Ability in the planning and supervision of the audit work.
c. Proficiency in business and financial matters.
d. Knowledge in the areas of financial accounting.
Answer:
a. Education and experience in the field of auditing.

Question 62.
An independent audit aids in the communication or economic data because the audit
a. Assures the reader of financial statements that any fraudulent activity has been corrected.
b. Confirms the accuracy of management’s financial, representations.
c. ends credibility to the financial statements.
d. Guarantees that financial data are fairly presented
Answer:
c. ends credibility to the financial statements.

Question 63.
Which of the following best describes the reason why an independent auditor reports on financial statements?
a. A management fraud may exist and is more likely to be detected by independent auditors.
b. Different interests may exist between the company preparing the statements arid the persons using the statements
c. A misstatement of account balances may exist and [s generally corrected as the result of the independent auditor’s work.
d. Poorly designed internal control may exist.
Answer:
b. Different interests may exist between the company preparing the statements arid the persons using the statements

Question 64.
A auditor, while performing an audit, strives to achieve independence in appearance in order to
a. Reduce risk and liability.
b. Comply with the generally accepted standards of field work.
c. Become independent in fact.
d. Maintain public confidence in the profession.
Answer:
d. Maintain public confidence in the profession.

Question 65.
The “generally accepted auditing standards” are standards which
a. Are sufficiently established so that independent auditors generally agree on their existence.
b. Are generally accepted based upon a pronouncement of the Financial Accounting Standards Board.
c. Are generally accepted in response to the changing needs of the business community.
d. Are generally accepted as a consequence ‘of approval of the AICPA membership.
Answer:
d. Are generally accepted as a consequence ‘of approval of the AICPA membership.

Question 66.
Due professional care in auditing requires
a. A critical review of the work done at every level of supervision.
b. The examination of all corroborating evidence available.
c. The exercise of error free judgment.
d. A study and review of the l/C’s that include tests of controls
Answer:
a. A critical review of the work done at every level of supervision.

Question 67.
Which of the following best describes the reason why an independent auditor reports on financial statements?
a. A management fraud may exist and is more likely to be detected by independent auditors.
b. Different interests may exist between the company preparing the statements and the persons using the statements.
c. A misstatement of account balances may exist and is generally corrected as the result of the independent auditor’s work.
d. Poorly designed internal control may exist.
Answer:
b. Different interests may exist between the company preparing the statements and the persons using the statements.

Question 68.
Independent auditing can best be described as
a. A branch of accounting.
b. A discipline that attests to the results of accounting and other functional operations and data.
c. A professional activity that measures and communicates financial and business data.
d. A regulatory function that prevents the issuance of improper financial information.
Answer:
b. A discipline that attests to the results of accounting and other functional operations and data.

Question 69.
Operational auditing is primarily oriented towards
a. Future improvements to accomplish the goals of management.
b. The accuracy of data reflected in management’s financial records.
c. The verification that a company’s financial statements are fairly presented.
d. Past protection provided by existing internal control.
Answer:
a. Future improvements to accomplish the goals of management.

Question 70.
The exercise of due professional care requires that an auditor
a. Use error-free judgment.
b. Consider the internal control structure, including tests of controls.
c. Critically review the work done at every level of supervision.
d. Examine all corroborating evidence available.
Answer:
c. Critically review the work done at every level of supervision.

Question 71.
In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to acceptance of a client, an auditing firm is not likely to
a. Make inquiries of the proposed client’s legal counsel.
b. Review financial statements of the proposed client.
c. Make inquiries of previous auditors.
d. Review the personnel practices of the proposed client.
Answer:
d. Review the personnel practices of the proposed client.

Question 72.
Within the context of quality control, the primary purpose of continuing professional education and training activities is to enable an auditing firm to provide personnel within the firm with
a. Technical training that assures proficiency as an auditor.
b. Professional education that is required in order to perform with due professional care.
c. Knowledge required to fulfill assigned responsibilities and to progress within the firm.
d. Knowledge required in order to perform a peer review.
Answer:
c. Knowledge required to fulfill assigned responsibilities and to progress within the firm.

Question 73.
In pursuing auditing firms’ quality control objectives, an auditing firm may maintain records indicating which partners or employees of the CPA firm were previously employed by the auditing firm’s clients. Which quality control objective would this be most likely to satisfy?
a. Acceptance of client.
b. Supervision.
c. Independence.
d. Monitoring.
Answer:
c. Independence.

Question 74.
Pick the statement, which is not true regarding the appointment of an auditor
a. The appointment of an auditor in a private company’s first financial year must be made by the members by passing an ordinary resolution.
b. A private company must appoint an auditor, unless the directors have decided that no auditor will be required in future
c. A small company does not need to appoint an auditor and Government has asked not to appoint an auditor to escape from unnecessary burden.
d. Generally, a public company must appoint an auditor but they may not if the directors feel that no appointment is required.
Answer:
a. The appointment of an auditor in a private company’s first financial year must be made by the members by passing an ordinary resolution.

Question 75.
An auditor who conducts a negligent audit can only be contractually liable to the company, and not to third parties. True or False?
a. True
b. False
c. partially true
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. False

Question 76.
Who appoints the auditors of a company
a. Shareholders
b. Central Government
c. Board of directors
d. Registrar of companies
Answer:
a. Shareholders

Hint:
Section 139 of the companies Act 2013 contains provisions regarding the appointment of auditors. Accordingly auditors are appointed by shareholders.

Question 77.
Board meeting is the meeting of
a. Shareholders
b. Government
c. Creditors and debtors
d. Directors of the company
Answer:
d. Directors of the company

Hint:
Board Meeting refers to the meeting of Board of Directors of the Company

Question 78.
A statutory auditor reports to
a. Debenture holders
b. Central Government
c. Board of directors
d. Share holders
Answer:
d. Share holders

Hint:
Under section 143(3)of the Companies Act, 2013, the duties of the auditor which relate to his report are that the auditor shall report to the shareholders on the accounts examined by him.

Question 79.
When an auditor does not have any reservation/objection regarding the information under audit, which type of audit report is issued to him?
a. Qualified report
b. Clean report
c. Adverse audit report
d. Disclaimer of opinion
Answer:
b. Clean report

Hint:
Unqualified Opinion: An unqualified opinion should be expressed when the auditor is satisfied in all material respects that the financial report is presented fairly in accordance with:
(a) Accounting Standards and
(b) relevant statutory and other requirements,
so as to present a view which is consistent with the auditor’s understanding of the entity’s financial position, the results of its operations and its cash flows. It is also known as “clean Report”.

Question 80.
The first auditor of a company is appointed
g. Within one month of completion of capital subscription of the company
b. Within one month of promotion of the company
c. Within one month of’ the commencement of the business of the company
d. Within one month of incorporation of the company.
Answer:
d. Within one month of incorporation of the company.

Hint:
Appointment of First Auditors: Section 139(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that the first auditor or auditors are to be appointed by the Board of directors within 30 days from the date of the registration of the company.

Question 81.
The duties of a company auditor are defined under/in
a. Memorandum of association
b. Articles of association
c. Companies Act, 2013
d. Agreement between company and the auditor
Answer:
c. Companies Act, 2013

Hint:
As per section 143 of CA 2013 auditor has following duties

  • The auditor shall make a report to the members of the company on the accounts examined by him and on every financial statements which are required by or under this Act to be laid before the company in general meeting and the report shall after taking into account the provisions of this Act, the accounting and auditing standards and matters which are required to be included in the audit report under the provisions of this Act.
  • The audit report should be prepared in accordance with section 143
  • Where any of the matters required to be included in the audit report under this section is answered in the negative or with a qualification, the report shall state the reasons therefor
  • If an auditor of a company, in the course of the performance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence involving fraud is being or has been committed against the company by officers or employees of the company, he shall immediately report the matter to the Central Government
  • Every auditor shall comply with the auditing standards.

Question 82.
Under which meeting is an auditor usually appointed?
a. Board meeting
b. Shareholders meeting or general meeting
c. Debenture holders meeting
d. Class meeting
Answer:
b. Shareholders meeting or general meeting

Hint:
Appointment of auditor shall be made by members at First AGM and every subsequent AGM. Company shall intimate the auditor about appointment as per Section 139(1) of the Companies Act 2013 .Thus the auditor of any company can be appointed by the shareholders in general meeting.

Question 83.
Casual vacancy arising due to resignation of an auditor may be filled by-
a. Board of director
b. Shareholder’s in general meeting
c. Audit committee
d. Debenture holders
Answer:
a. Board of director

Hint:
Appointment in case of Casual vacancy: According to section 139 (8)Casual vacancy arises due to death, insanity, disqualification or insolvency of the auditor. Board of directors has the power to fill the vacancy. Auditor so appointed hold office till the conclusion of next general meeting.

Question 84.
Due to lack of audit evidences, auditor issues a
a. Qualified opinion
b. Unqualified opinion
c. Adverse opinion
d. Disclaimer of opinion
Answer:
d. Disclaimer of opinion

Hint:
Disclaimer of opinion: An inability to form an opinion should be expressed when a scope limitation exists and sufficient appropriate audit evidence to resolve the uncertainty resulting from the limitation cannot reasonably be obtained and the possible effects of the adjustments that might have been required to resolve the uncertainty are of such a magnitude or so pervasive or fundamental that the auditor is unable to express an opinion on the financial report taken as a whole.

Question 85.
In which section of the CA, 2013, the provisions relating to an Auditor’s Report are covered?
a. Section 143(1)
b. Section 143(2)
c. Section 143(3)
d. Section 143(4)
Answer:
b. Section 143(2)

Hint:
As per section 143(2) the auditor shall make a report to the members of the company on the accounts examined by him and on every financial statements which are required by or under this Act to be laid before the company in general meeting and the report shall after taking into account the provisions of this Act, the accounting and auditing standards and matters which are required to be included in the audit report under the provisions of this Act

Question 86.
The board of directors shall appoint first auditor of a company:
a. within one month of completion of capital subscription by the company
b. within one month of the promotion of the company
c. Within one month of the commencement of the business of the company
d. Within one month of incorporation of the company.
Answer:
d. Within one month of incorporation of the company.

Hint:
Appointment of First Auditors: Section 139(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that the first auditor or auditors are to be appointed by the Board of directors within 30 days from the date of the registration of the company These auditors will work until the conclusion of the First Annual general meeting.

Question 87.
The client changed method of depreciation from straight line to written down value method. This has been disclosed as a note to the financial statements. It has an immaterial effect on the current financial statements. It is expected, however, that the change will have a significant effect on future periods. Which of the following option should the auditor express?
a. Unqualified opinion
b. Qualified opinion
c. Disclaimer of opinion
d. Adverse opinion.
Answer:
b. Qualified opinion

Hint:
Qualified Opinion: A qualified opinion must be issued when the auditor knows the financial statements are significant but not that significant that they may be given adverse opinion. The opinion must state the nature of the qualification. If the qualifications are measurable then auditor should quantify it and if not possible then he should state that quantification is not possible.

Always reasons to the qualification should be mentioned by the auditor. The words “subject to” are specified to show quantification.

Question 88.
If a casual vacancy in the office of auditor arises by his resignation it should only be filled by the company in a:
a. Board meeting
b. General meeting
c. Annual general meeting
d. Statutory meeting.
Answer:
b. General meeting

Hint:
Disclaimer of opinion: An inability to form an opinion should be expressed when a scope limitation exists and sufficient appropriate audit evidence, to resolve the uncertainty resulting from the limitation cannot reasonably be obtained and the possible effects of the adjustments that might have been required to resolve the uncertainty are of such a magnitude or so pervasive or fundamental that the auditor is unable to express an opinion on the financial report taken as a whole.

Question 89.
‘Disclaimer of Opinion’ means
a. The auditor gives clean report
b. The auditor gives qualified report
c. The auditor gives adverse report
d. The auditor is unable to expresses his opinion.
Answer:
d. The auditor is unable to expresses his opinion.

Hint:
Disclaimer of opinion: An inability to form an opinion should be expressed when a scope limitation exists and sufficient appropriate audit evidence, to resolve the uncertainty resulting from the limitation cannot reasonably be obtained and the possible effects of the adjustments that might have been required to resolve the uncertainty are of such a magnitude or so pervasive or fundamental that the auditor is unable to express an opinion on the financial report taken as a whole.

Question 90.
Statutory audit report of a company is addressed to
a. Board of Directors
b. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
c. Employees of the company
d. Members of the company.
Answer:
d. Members of the company.

Hint:
Statutory audit report is addressed to the members of the company and is considered at the AGM.

Question 91.
Which of the following are the rights of a Statutory Auditor?
X. To receive remuneration
Y. To attend Board of Director’s meeting
Z. To attend the general meeting W. To visit the branch office Correct option is –
a. x and Y
b. X, Y and Z
c. X, Z and W
d. X, Y, Z and W
Answer:
c. X, Z and W

Hint:
According to section 143(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company auditor has the following rights

  • Right of Access to Books of Accounts ‘
  • Right to obtain Information and Explanation
  • Right to visit Branches
  • Right to Signature on Audit Report
  • Right to receive Notice and other Communications relating to General Meeting and attend them
  • Right to receive remuneration

Question 92.
The form and basic contents of statutory audit report are
a. Provided in the Companies Act, 2013
b. Provided in the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949
c. Provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
d. Not provided anywhere.
Answer:
a. Provided in the Companies Act, 2013

Hint:
Under Section 143(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, it is the duty of the auditor to make a report to the members of the company on the accounts examined by him.
Section 143(2) states that auditor’s report must state the negative points noticed’ by him along with the reasons for the same.
Thus, form and basic contents of statutory audit report are provided in the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 93.
Duties of auditor are given in
a. 144
b. 146
c. 143
d. 139.
Answer:
c. 143

Hint:
Section 143(1) under the Companies Act 2013 specifies some duties to auditors.

Question 94.
The first auditor holds the office till
a. Auditor dies
b. Auditor retires
c. Holding of 1 St AGM
d. Conclusion of 1st AGM.
Answer:
c. Holding of 1 St AGM

Hint:
Appointment of First Auditors: Section 139(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that the first auditor or auditors are to be appointed by the Board of directors within 30 days from the date of the registration of the company These auditors will work until the conclusion of the First Annual general meeting.

Question 95.
Which of the following is not mentioned in Audit Report?
a. Whether HR practices are going right or wrong.
b. Whether any Director is disqualified from appointment.
c. Whether Balance Sheet gives true fair view.
d. Whether he has obtained all the information and explanation required by him for the purpose of audit.
Answer:
a. Whether HR practices are going right or wrong.

Hint:
The report so submitted shall contain the following:
(a) Whether, in his opinion, the Profit and Loss Account referred to in his report exhibits a true and fair view of the profit or loss.
(b) Whether, in his opinion, the Balance Sheet referred to in his report is properly drawn up so as to exhibit a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the business as shown by the books of accounts.
(c) Whether he has obtained all the information and explanations which to the best of his knowledge and belief were necessary for the purpose of his audit.
(d) Whether, in his opinion, proper books of accounts as required by law have been kept by the company
(e) whether Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet comply with the accounting standards
(f) auditors have given adverse remarks if any either in bold or italics type
(g) whether any director is disqualified from being appointed as director under section 164(2)
(h) Whether the company’s Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account dealt with by the report are in agreement with the books of accounts and returns.

Question 96.
When does casual vacancy arises in the office of the auditor?
a. Arises due to resignation
b. Arises due to death
c. Arises due to disqualification
d. All of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above.

Hint:
Casual vacancy arises due to death, insanity, disqualification or insolvency of the auditor.

Question 97.
A person who is indebted to the company for which amount cannot be appointed to set as an auditor of a company
a. As may be prescribed
b. 1,000
c. 3,000
d. 5,000.
Answer:
a. As may be prescribed

Hint:
Section 141(3), of the companies act, 2013 defines disqualification of the auditor. As per this section a person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding one thousand rupees, or who has given any guarantee or provided any security in connection with the indebtedness of any third person to the company for an amount exceeding one thousand rupees is disqualified to be appointed as auditor.

Question 98.
If shareholders cannot appoint the auditors in General Meeting, then who will appoint the auditors?
a. Central Government
b. Directors
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Central Government

Hint:
If shareholders cannot appoint the auditors in General Meeting, then the Central Government may appoint a person to fill the vacancy under Section 139. The company is required to give within one week notice, to the Central Government that the power has become exercisable.

Question 99.
XYZ, a C.A. firm is an auditor of Lawan Pvt Ltd. X included Y as a partner in the firm. Then who will be the auditor?
a. X
b. Y
c. Both X and Y
d. None of the above.
Answer:
c. Both X and Y

Hint:
Section 141(1) and Section 141(2) of Companies Act, 2013 contains provision as regards to qualifications of auditors. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as auditor of a company unless he is a chartered accountant within the meaning of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

In this XYZ is a chartered accountancy firm which implies that all the partners are chartered accountants.
Thus if Y has been appointed as partner of XYZ then he is also CA. Thus all partners of XYZ firm can be I appointed as auditors. So, Both X & Y will be the auditors.

Question 100.
If an individual partner of a C.A. firm is disqualified to be an auditor, then which of the following is correct?
a. Whole firm will be disqualified
b. Whole firm will not be disqualified
c. Only that C.A. will be disqualified
d. None of the above.
Answer:
a. Whole firm will be disqualified

Hint:
If an individual partner of a C.A. firm is disqualified to be an auditor, then whole firm will be disqualified under Section 141.

Question 101.
Appointment of an auditor is done under which section of Companies Act,2013?
a. 139
b. 142
c. 137
d. 140.
Answer:
a. 139

Hint:
Section 139 of the companies Act 2013 contains provisions regarding the appointment of auditors

Question 102.
Under which Section of Companies Act, 2013, qualifications and disqualifications of an auditor are mentioned?
a. 140
b. 143
c. 141
d. 145.
Answer:
c. 141

Hint:
Section 141(1) and Section 141(2) of Companies Act, 2013 contains provision as regards to qualifications of auditors. Section 141(3), of the companies act, 2013 defines disqualification of the auditor

Question 103.
Power of Central Government to appoint are auditor is given in which section of Companies Act, 2013?
a. 226
b. 139
c. 276
d. 225.
Answer:
b. 139

Hint:
Power of Central Government to appoint an auditor is given Under Section 139 of Companies Act, 2013.

Question 104.
A clean audit report is:
a. A qualified audit report
b. A modified audit report
c. An unqualified audit report
d. A audit report that has an adverse opinion.
Answer:
c. An unqualified audit report

Hint:
Unqualified Opinion: An unqualified opinion should be expressed when the auditor is satisfied in all material respects that the financial report is presented fairly in accordance with:
(a) Accounting Standards and
(b) relevant statutory and other requirements,
so as to present a view which is consistent with the auditor’s understanding of the entity’s financial position, the results of its operations and its cash flows. It is also known as “clean Report”.

Question 105.
The retiring auditor can:
(i) Make written representations
(ii) Get his representation circulated
(iii) 8e given an opportunity of being heard. The options are:
a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. II and III
Answer:
a. I, II and III

Hint:
The retiring auditor can:

  • make written representations.
  • get his representation circulated.
  • be given an opportunity of being heard.

Question 106.
As per Companies Act, 2013, which of the following sections deal with qualifications of the audit?
a. Section 226(3) and 226 (4)
b. Section 141
c. Section 224(1) and 224 (2)
d. Section 224 (3) and 224.
Answer:
b. Section 141

Hint:
Section 141(1) and Section 141(2) of Companies Act, 2013 contains provision as regards to qualifications of auditors.

Question 107.
Under which Section of Companies Act, 2013, the auditor has a duty to sign audit report.
a. Section 227 (4A)
b. Section 227 (3)
c. Section 227 (2)
d. Section 145
Answer:
d. Section 145

Hint:
Signature: Report should be signed in auditor name or firm name or both as appropriate as per Sec. 145 of the CA 2013.

Question 108.
The auditor has a right to:
a. To direct the officers of the company
b. Retain the books of accounts
c. Attend all the board meetings
d. Access the books of Accounts and vouchers of the company.
Answer:
d. Access the books of Accounts and vouchers of the company.

Hint:
According to section 143 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company auditor has the following rights

  • Right to access to books, accounts and vouchers
  • Right to obtain information and explanation
  • Right to sign audit report
  • Right to receive notice and attend General Meeting
  • Right to receive remuneration
  • Right to visit Branches

Question 109.
Which of the following may be appointed as the first auditor of the company?
(i) A Chartered Accountant in practice
(ii) A firm of Chartered Accountants in practice
(iii) A limited liability partnership of Chartered Accountants in practice. The options are:
a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I and II.
Answer:
a. I, II and III

Hint:
A person shall not be qualified for appointment as auditor of a company unless he is a chartered accountant within the meaning of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (38 of 1949). This applies to all the companies whether public or private, section 25 company, government company.
LLP’s can be appointed as auditors of company but only chartered accountant partners are authorized to act and sign on behalf of firm.

Question 110.
In which section of Companies Act, 2013, the provisions relating to an auditor’s remuneration is covered?
a. Section 140
b. Section 141
c. Section 142
d. Section 139.
Answer:
c. Section 142

Hint:
Remuneration of Auditors [142(1)]:- Remuneration shall be decided by members at a general meeting except for the remuneration of first auditor which shall be decided by board.

Question 111.
Who will be responsible for errors in report if external auditor relies on the work of internal auditor?
a. External auditor
b. Internal auditor
c. Management
d. Shareholder.
Answer:
a. External auditor

Hint:
An auditor’s report provides an opinion of the validity and reliability of a company or organization’s financial statements. The goal of an auditor’s report is ultimately to document reasonable assurance that a company’s financial statements are free from material error.

Linder section 143(3)of the Companies Act, 2013, the duties of the auditor which relate to his report are that the auditor shall report to the shareholders on the accounts examined by him.

Thus external auditor has a duty to present fair and true position of the company. He is the person who is reviewing the work of internal auditor. If there is a lapse in his duty then he will be responsible.

CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes

Organisation – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Organisation – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Organisation as comprising human relationship in group activity:
“Organisation structure is the pattern of relationships among the component parts of the organisation.”

kast and Rosenzweig:
1. Concept of Organisation:

  • Organisation can be defined as collection of people and coordination of their activities to achieve the objectives of the enterprise.
  • In format sense, it is referred as collectivity of people and inoperative sense, it is referred as division of work.

Steps in Organising:

  1. Identification and classification of activities consistent with organisational objectives
  2. Formation of workable units or departments.
  3. Delegation of authority and placing of responsibility to the executives.
  4. Establishment of superior-subordinate relationships.
  5. Provision for effective coordination and establishment of definite line of supervision.

Features of Organisation:

  • It is a sub-process of management.
  • It is goal-oriented.
  • It deals with group efforts.
  • It is based on the principle of division of work.
  • It establishes authority-responsibility relationships.

Organisation structure is defined as:

  • Set of formal tasks assigned to individuals and departments.
  • formal reporting relationships includes line of authority, decision responsibility, number of hierarchical levels and span of manager’s control.
  • Design of systems to ensure effective coordination.

Importance of Organisation:

  • The goal of organisation are attained through mutual contribution.
  • Effectiveness and efficiency helps in providing continuity and success to business firms.

1. FacilItates Administration: It helps in effectively achieving the functions of planning, directing, coordination and controlling.

2. FacilItates Growth and Diversification:

  • Organisation helps in developing the enterprise by taking it to greater heights.
  • This growth is facilitated by division of work and proper delegation of authority.

3. Perm Its Optimum Use of Resources:

  • It facilitates optimum use of human resources through specialisation.
  • This means that the people in the enterprise are effectively trained.

4. Stimulate Creativity: Organisation helps the managers In focusing on the areas which are more important so that their talent can be exploited to the maximum.

5. Transfer and Adaptation of Technology: Any enterprise must always accept and adapt itself with the latest technology available in the market and also import these technologies to the society through its members.

6. Encourages synergy effect:

  • It is the effect which enhances the performance of a team when one efficient member motivates other normal members to work more efficiently.
  • It can be done through proper selection, training remuneration for employees.

Process of Organisation:
1. Determination of Objectives:

  • It is necessary tor the management to clearly define the objectives before taking up any activity.
  • Since the objectives provide a strategy to the management, they will help in giving unity of direction in the organisation.
  • They will get unity of direction in the organisation.

2. IdentIfication and coupling of Activities:

  • Each job should be properly classified and grouped.
  • In case of a bigger group, all the jobs must be assigned clearly to the employees with a well-defined authority and responsibility.
  • This will help in reducing the duplication of work.

3. Allotment of Duties:
After the duties and tasks have been defined, they should be clearly allotted to the members, depending upon their ability and made responsible for that.

4. Developing Relationships:

  • Accountability and authority of one person over the other should be explicitly defined.
  • n individual should be given sufficient authority to do the job assigned to him.
  • This will facilitate the smooth functioning by facilitating delegation of responsibility and authority.

5. Integration of Activities:
(a) This can be achieved:

  • Through authority relationships horizontally/vertically.
  • Through an effective communication system.

Authority, Responsibility and Accountability:
Authority:

  • It is the right of the managers to command the subordinates, issue them orders and Instructions.
  • Fayol defined authority as the right to give orders and exact obedience.
  • Mooney described authority as “the supreme co-ordinating power”.
  • Authority to command exact obedience is known as the official authority or authority of position.
  • A manager can have the ability to ¡ntuence behaviour of the people and this is known as personal authority.

Responsibility:

  • It is the obligation to perform a task. Thus its basic essence is obligation.
  • A manager has the authority to get things done from his subordinates, so authority flows downwards whereas responsibility flows upwards.

Accountability:

  1. It means answerability for the accomplishment of the task assigned by the superior.
  2. The process of delegation is completed only after the employee is able to answer all the questions put up before him.
  3. Authority goes down and down in the line making everyone accountable for the duty assigned. Authority, Responsibility and Accountability should be equal to each other. If anyone of them is out of balance, problems can arise.

Authority, Power, Continuum:

  • Authority and power are not the same.
  • Authority mean right to command, whereas power is the capacity to influence the behaviour of others.

Delegatlon of Authority: .

  • Delegation means the process of getting work done by others by giving them responsibility.
  • Delegation of authority entails division of workload and sharing responsibility.
  • A manager is not judged by the work he performs but by the amount of work he gets done through others.
  • Degree of delegation depends upon manager’s degree of management capabilities.

Process of Delegation
1. AllocatIon of Duties: This is the most important task under delegation, before the authority is delegated the duties corresponding to that must also be allocated.

2. Delegation of AuthorIty: Delegation is the process a manager follows in dividing the work assigned him so that he performs that part which only he, because of his unique organisational placement, can perform effectively and so that he can get others to help him with what remains. L. A. Allen.

3. AssIgnment of ResponsIbility: When authority is delegated, I.e. when one is given the rights, the employee must also be assigned a corresponding “obligation to perform. Operating responsibility can only be delegated.

4. Creation of Accountability: To complete the delegation process, employees must also be assigned accountability. Duties, authority and obligation are three most important ingredients of delegation.

Principles of Delegation
1. Clarity of Delegation:

  • The employee must be given a very clear idea of the task assigned, the functions to perform and authority given to perform the task.
  • Ambiguity in delegation often results in poor outcomes.
  • Every subordinate must know what positions exist in the organisation structure and how his own position fits in the overall managerial hierarchy.
  • Delegation of authority should not be rigid, ¡t should modify with the change in work.

2. Responsibility cannot be delegated:

  • A manager when delegates the work to his subordinates, does not mean that he shall not be held responsible for that tàsk.
  • Thus, when authority Is delegated, obligations are not passed down the organisation, rather new responsibilities are created at each level.

3. Delegation to be consistent with result expected:

  • A manager should know jobs & results expected of delegation and should delegate only that much authority which is just to accomplish the results.
  • This principle is based on assumption that goals are set & plans made in advance, jobs are set up to accomplish them.
  • Helps minimising dangers of delegation.

4. Parity of Authority and ResponsIbility:

  • An employee can be held accountable for the tasks assigned to him and for this purpose the authority is delegated to him.
  • Since both authority and responsibility relate to the same task, it would be correct to say that they are co-extensive.
  • Duties are concerned with objectives and activities, obligation with attitude and authority Is related to rights. Delegation to be consistent with results expected.

5. ExceptIon Principle:

  • The manager delegates the authority to the subordinate in order to be able to focus on other important task and to push down the process of decision making as close to the source of information as possible.
  • The exception being that when the junior Is not able to make a decision then he should refer them upwards for consideration by the senior.
  • The pooling together of the authority of two or more managers before a problem caribe solved, a decision be made is described as splintered authority.

6. PrincIple of Functional Definition:

  • All the activities and tasks that are assigned to an individual must have dear definition of authority, duties, power and responsibility.
  • Only then will the employee be able to effectively achieve the target.

7. Scalar Principle:
There should be a dear line of authority from top to the lower level of management.

8. PrincIple of Unity of Command:

  • Delegation can be effective only when a subordinate receives orders from one senior only.
  • This avoids problems of confusion, preferences and divided loyalty.

Barriers to Delegation:

  1. Fear of loss of power
  2. Certain personal attitudes
  3. Lack of ability to direct.

Span of management: The number of subordinates that a superior can effectively supervise is known as ‘span of management’ or ‘Span of control.’

5. Centralisation and Decentralisation:

  • Centralisation means a large part of decision making and authority is withheld at higher positions in the management hierarchy.
  • Whereas, decentralisation refers to a situation where a larger part of authority Is delegated down to the junior level so that a decision can be quickly taken.
  • But decentralisation does not mean delegation of authority. The difference being that decentralisation is a situation produced by larger delegation of authority while delegation is a process.
  • The organisation can sustain without decentralisation but not without delegation.

Advantages of CentraIistIon:

  • Uniformity of policy and procedures can be strictly enforced.
  • Eliminates duplicate or overlapping activities.
  • Enables fuller utilisation of employees skills and talent.
  • Ensures consistency of operation and thus helps in retaining substantial control over the activities of the enterprise.

Advantages of Decentralisation:

  • It improves the quality of decisions by pushing decision making closer to those who are affected by the decision.
  • It facilitates efficiency of managers, as the managers know what they have to do. Thus good managers are encouraged to perform better and weak managers are counselled and reprimanded.
  • Managers and employees at all the levels can actually see the result of their own work and actions and thus their morale is boosted.
  • It provides actual work experience, thus, create a reservoir of promotable managerial manpower.
  • Improved morale of personnel.
  • Decentralisation of management is yet another advantage of decentralisation.

Factors determining degree of Decentralisation:
1. Importance and Significance of the Decision:

  • All the decisions that are of importance are normally not delegated and the authority is retained at higher levels of management only.
  • Thus, it can be observed that determining factor is the responsibility allocation along the managerial hierarchy.

2. Size of the Enterprise:

  • The more are number of departments the more difficult it is to take decisions.
  • Thus, it is suggested that the size of the enterprise should be such that units can be managed with ease.

3. Management Attitude and Philosophy:
Executives with rigid outlooks do not delegate much authority, on the other hand, executives with a lenient approach involve the employees In the decision making.

4. Control Techniques:
Management desirous of obtaining a strict policy with regards to price, product, service etc. will try retaining control in their own hands.

5. AvailabilIty of Capable Executives:

  • It is very obvious that executives delegating authority would want that they do so only to an educated and experienced staff.
  • This feature of decentralisation requires training of the employees.

6. Environment Influences:
The more the decisions are under environmental influence the lesser should be their delegation.
(a) Some examples of this are government policies, trade unions, etc.

Differences between Delegation and Decentrallsatlons:

Points/Basis Delegation Decentralisation
1. Nature It Involves superiors and subordinates. It involves delegation from top-level to the lowest level of management.
2. Control It remains with the superior. It is passed on to the lower levels.
3. Need It Is Essential to get things done. It is optional. Management may or may not delegate authority.
4. Responsibility It remains with the delegator. He will remain answerable for the job. Head of department is responsible for all the activities under him. Thus it is fixed at each department.
5. Relationship Delegation creates superior-subordinate relationships. Decentralisation is a step towards formation of semi-autonomous units.

According to Allen, decentralisation is systematic effort to delegate to the lower levels all authority except that which caribe exercised at central point.

Departmentalisation: ‘Departation’ or ‘Deparimentalisation’ is the process of grouping the activities of an enterprise into several units for the purpose of administration at all levels.

7. Type of Organisation Structure:

  • Formal Structure
  • Informal Structure

1.Formal Structure:
Refers to the structure of jobs and positions with defined functions and relationships built by management to realize the objective.

Formal structure comprises of the following:
(i) Line Organisation:

  • it is the oldest and the simplest form of organization called as military organization or scalar type of organisation.
  • Under these, the managers have the direct responsibility of accomplishing any task.
  • Also known as scalar organisation, in this, the superior has direct control over the subordinate. it is also called as military organisation.
  • Chief executive leads the organisation.

(e) Benefits:

  • It is economical, effective and simple to work.
  • Promotes unity of command conforms scalar principal.
  • Fixes responsibility in a definite manner.
  • Less expensive due to non-inducement of staff personnel.
  • It is stable.
  • Rapid decisions are taken.
  • Excellent discipline due to unified control.
  • Effective co-ofdination.
  • Promotes unity of command.

(f) Weaknesses:

  • Suffers from lack of specialisation.
  • There may be occasions when a line manager Is not competent to take decisions. Lack of expert staff advice.
  • It is rigid and inflexible since its based on autocratic system of management.
  • It lacks expert staff advice.
  • The work may be allotted on the basis of choice of superior rather than according to any plan.
  • It is based upon autocratic system of management.
  • Key men being loaded to the breaking point.
  • It cramps progress and prevents effective working of the unit.
  • Encourage nepotism.
  • Dictatorial or arbitrary power leads to considerable damage.

(g) Suitability:

  • Where the scale of business is small.
  • In continuous process industries.
  • Work is of routine nature.
  • Machinery is nearly automatic.
  • Labour management problems are not difficult to solve.

(ii) Functional OrganisatIon:
(a) All the similar type of work s grouped in one department which is under one senior.
(b) This means better utilisation of employees and development of their skills.
(c) Scope of work is limited but area of authority is unlimited.
(d) It ensures division of labour and specialization based on individual proficiency and knowledge.

(e) Disadvantages:

  • It requires high degree of specialization and hence difficult to establish.
  • AuthorIty and responsibility often overlap
  • With the change in the personnel, performance is also affected that may lead to instability.
  • Specialists ignore the big picture due to which deficiency of leadership is felt for a long time.
  • One man control underlines organisation largely alleviated here.
  • Locating and fixing up responsibility becomes difficult.
  • Control and coordination becomes difficult to achieve as specialists often operate with considerable independence so that organisation seldom functions as a total system.

(iii) Line and Staff Organisation:
(a) The staff managers assign the duties to the line so that the staff managers get time for more important tasks which are not routine in nature. Line is supplemented by staff. Clear demarcation between thinking & doing; staff being the ‘thinkers’ and line being the doers.

(b) Advantages:

  • Organisation is more stable and flexible.
  • CombInes the best of both the line and staff managers.
  • Better utilisation of human resources.
  • Financial specialists provide advice to management on various matters.
  • Stability and discipline of line organisation are preserved; only the specialist is added.

(c) Disadvantages:

  • Line and staff relationships may result in jealousy.
  • Line managers loose their judgement and Initiative by depending too much on staff.
  • Staff members do not get much authority to perform the task effectively.

(d) Staff act as the ‘thinkers” and line as the ‘doer.

The problem of choice:
It is concerned with determining the right balance of the organising structure / among the three. – The line structure ês characterised by total absence of staff specialists, though it is a part of every organisation. Functional organisation involve too much of specialisation. The line and staff organisation lies in between the line structure and functional organisation.

(iv) Project Management Organisation:
It sets up within an existing organisation.

(a) such organisation is directed by a project manager responsible for project goals.

(b) Under this type of organisation, a manager is selected from the organisation itself and assigned the responsibility of completing a well-defined project.

(c) He then selects his own team members who will assist him in achieving the project goals.

(d) Manager’s authority is functional within limits of project and the organisation dissolves after project work is completed.

(e) Advantages:

  • It has an independent status. WhIch cuts horizontally the organisation structure.
  • Flow of information is lateral and not vertical. Thus, it has strong horizontal working relationships.

(v) Matrix Organisation:
(a) It combines functional departments with project organisation.

(b) The functional department constitute vertical chains of command while project organisation form horizontal chain of command.

(c) Project wise, the organisation is divided into various functional departments, which form the vertical chain of command and the project organisation or product decisions form the horizontal chain of command.

(d) The task force consists of a group of individuals, drawn from various functional departments.

(e) Advantages:
Promotes specialisation as well as lateral coordination.

(f) Limitations:

  • The number of vertical and horizontal relationships hamper the organisational efficiency.
  • Disagreement between project team and functional department.
  • Difficulty for functional heads to appraise employee performance.

2.  Informal Structure:
Barnard viewed informed organisation as joint personal activity without conscious joint purpose, even though possibly contributing to joint results.
Keith Davis regards informal organisation as the network of personal and social relationships which is not established or required by formal organisation.
(a) Features:

  • Develops spontaneously and is not established for any purpose.
  • These represent the human psychology to socialise in the organisation.
  • It is pervasive.
  • It cannot altogether be abolished.
  • The authority flows upward and horizontally.
  • Informal authority is earned and not delegated.

(b) Functions of Informal Groups:

  • Provide social satisfaction and maintain cultured values and lifestyle.
  • The group develops system of communication to meet wants.
  • Exercise of social controls which influence and regulate the behaviour of others.

(c) BenefIts:

  • Encourages managers plan and act more carefully.
  • It helps to get the work done.
  • Tends to encourage co-operation.
  • Gives satisfaction and stability to workgroups.
  • Lightens workload of a manager.
  • Provides useful channel for communication.
  • Provides a safety valve for employee’s emotions.

(d) Limitations:

  • Resistance to Change: The group members are strongly bound by their preconceived ideas, notions and culture.
  • Rumour: Such a type of organisational structure results into rumours and gossips.
  • Role Conflict: Workers may want to achieve the requirement of their group which might be in conflict with that of their senior.
  • Conformity: Social control of Informal groups exerts pressure for conformity.

(e) Control of informal Organisation:
The significant aspects of manager’s duty in this connection are-

  • He should recognise and reconcile himself to the existence of informal organisation.
  • He should have a positive role and should minimise the negative aspects.
  • Formal organisation should be turned with informal organisation which can contribute to the accomplishment of enterprise objective.
  • He should make informal organisation secondary to formal organisation.

8. Structure of Organisation:

  • The structure of organisation is created to achieve certain goals.
  • There should be a proper authority-responsibility relationship. It is means to an end.
  • The structure manifests the enterprise objectives.
  • It should not be a static structure but should be dynamic.
  • It should be able to adapt and grow with the changing business conditions.
  • To adapt itself to the changes an organisation may have to modify a part of its working,
  • Peter F. Drucker also views organisations as a mean to the end.

Purpose And Cause Of Organizing:

  • Purpose – to facilitate achievement of enterprise objective through orderly organised group effort with least cost, time, money, effort and pain.
  • Cause of organisation lies in the limitations of span of management.

Dynamic Organisation Structure:
Call for adopting the organisations structure to changing conditions so that it can survive & grow.

Developing an Organisation Structure it calls for the following steps:

  • Clear definition of objectives: This will help in determination of stability and basic characteristics of the organisation.
  • identifying the activities and grouping them Into one group for easy coordination of group activities: Enumeration of activities is necessary to achieve the objectives.
  • Determine the structure: The organiser must decide about the basis of department, orientation, number of departments, pattern of authority. etc.
  • Revise the structure on the basis of assessment of resources: This calls for determining the human and financial resources In order to match the different positions in the organisation along with the resources.

Growth in Organisation:
According to Larry E. Greiner, Each evolutionary period is characterised by the dominant management style used to achieve growth, while each revolutionary period is characterised by the dominant management problem that must be solved before growth will continue.

The movement of enterprise, in general, appears to be towards autonomy, flexibility and informality and is conducive to adaptiveness and innovativeness that are key to organisational effectiveness & success.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. When one team member influences the other team members for greater performance than what it was before such motivation, this effect is called ……………
(a) Growth
(b) Enrichment
(c) Synergy effect
(d) Adaptation
Answer:
(c) Synergy effect.

2. structure is the oldest pattern of organisation.
(a) Line structure
(b) Functional organisation
(c) Matrix structure
(d) Line and staff organisation.
Answer:
(a) Line structure.

3. structure is also called military/scalar type of organisation.
(a) Functional organisation
(b) Matrix organisation
(c) Project management organisation.
(d) Line organisation
Answer:
(d) Line organisation

4. Line organisation is flexible and changeable.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True/Partly False
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) False

5. Under which system, the whole task of management and direction of subordinates is divided according to the type of work involved.
(a) Line organisation
(b) Functional organisation
(c) Line and staff
(d) Matrix organisation
Answer:
(b) Functional organisation.

6. Functional organisation is characterised by total absence of stall specialists.
(a) True
(b) Partly True/Partly False
(c) False
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) False.

7. Under ……………… organisation, there is a clear demarcation between thinking and doing.
(a) Line and staff organisation
(b) Functional organisation
(c) Matrix organisation
(d) Project management organisation.
Answer:
(a) Line and staff organisation.

8. ……………….. develops spontaneously and is not established by formal managers.
(a) Formal organisation
(b) Authority
(c) Informal organisation
(d) Power.
Answer:
(c) Informal organisation.

9. A manager in an organisation is judged by the work he performs on his own. Hence, delegation is not essential for him.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Partly True/Partly False
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) False

10. …………………. is described as the right of a manager to command subordinates, issue them orders and instructions.
(a) Responsibility
(b) Accountability
(c) Delegation
(d) Authority
Answer:
(d) Authority.

11. Authority flows downwards and …………… flows upwards.
(a) Control
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Responsibility.

12. Authority can be delegated whereas responsibility cannot be delegated.
(a) True
(b) False
(C) Partly True Partly False
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) True.

13. ………………. will be more effective when subordinates receives orders and instructions directly from one senior only.
(a) Delegation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Accountability
(d) Planning.
Answer:
(a) Delegation.

14. …………………………………. is not compulsory to the process of organisation.
(a) Planning
(b) Controlling
(c) Decentralisation
(d) Delegation
Answer:
(c) Decentralisation.

15. In Decentralisation, management exercises maximum control.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Partly True/Partly False
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) False.

16. Decentralisation is a step towards creation of …………….. units.
(a) Complete
(b) Autonomous
(c) Semi-autonomous
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Semi-autonomous.

17. In delegation control rests with the ………………….. .
(a) Concerned department
(b) Delegator/supervisor
(c) Subordinate
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Delegator/supervisor.

18. Space of matrix organisation, the manufacturing department constitutes the horizontal chain of command.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True/Partly False
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) False.

19. ………………………. helps to eliminate overlapping or duplicate activities and thus effects cost savings.
(a) Delegation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Informal organisation
(d) Centralisation
Answer:
(d) Centralisation.

20. Functional organisation is difficult to establish because of high degree of control
(a) true
(b) False
(c )True/Partly False
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) true.

21. Which one is not a feature of Organisation
(a) Allotment of duties
(b) Goal-Oriented
(c) Group effort
(d) Division of work
Answer:
(a) Allotment of duties.

22. Which one is the importance of Organisation
(a) Facilitates Administration
(b) Integration of Activities
(c) Developing Relationships
(d) Allotment of duties
Answer:
(a) Facilitates Administration.

23. There are ……………. types of Organisation Structure
(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two.

24. ………………………… in a formal sense refers to a collectivity of persons engaged in pursuing specified objectives.
(a) Organisation
(b) Teamwork
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Organisation.

25. Which structure refers to the job and position of an organisation?
(a) Formal Organisation
(b) Informal Organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Formal Organisation.

26. Line Organisation is the part of a ……………………. .
(a) Functional Organisation
(b) Informal Organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

27. Which of the following are the barriers to delegation?
(a) Lack of ability to direct well
(b) Fear of loss of power.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

28. To complete the process employees must also be assigned accountability.
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Centralisation
(c) Delegation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Delegation.

29. Which one is not the principle of delegation?
(a) Allocation of Duties
(b) Clarity of Delegation
(c) Parity of Authority
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Allocation of Duties.

30. Which function have direct responsibility for the objective of enterprise?
(a) Project Management Organisation
(b) Line and Staff Management
(c) Line Organisation
(d) Matrix Organisation.
Answer:
(c) Line Organisation.

31. …………………….. refers to the tendency to withhold a larger part of formal authority at higher position in management.
(a) Centralisation
(b) Delegation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Centralisation.

32. Democratisation of management is yet another advantage of ……………………….. .
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Planning
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation.

33. Delegation is must for ………………………… .
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Organisation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation.

34. Which functions as comprising human relationships in group activity.
(a) Planning
(b) Controlling
(c) Organisation
(d) Directing
Answer:
(c) Organisation.

35. “Delegation of authority and placing of responsibility to the executives of the department for carrying out the assigned activities” is an important step of-
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Directing
(d) Controlling.
Answer:
(b) Organising.

36. …………………… can be defined as collection of people and coordination of their activities of the enterprise.
(a) Directing
(b) Controlling
(c) Organising
(d) Planning
Answer:
(c) Organising.

37. Organisation is based on the principle of ………………….. .
(a) Decision Making
(b) Division of Work
(c) Developing Relationships
(d) Group Efforts
Answer:
(b) Division of Work.

38. …………………………….. means a large part of decision-making and authority is withhold at higher positions in the management hierarchy.
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Centralisation
(c) Delegation
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Centralisation.

39. The organisation can sustain without but not without …………………… .
(a) Centralisation, Decentralisation
(b) Delegation, Authority.
(c) Centralisation, Decision-making.
(d) Decentralisation, Delegation
Answer:
(d) Decentralisation, Delegation.

40. Which of the following is not a factor determining degree of Decentralisation?
(a) Control Techniques
(b) Size of the Enterprises
(c) Management Attitude
(d) Allotment of Duties
Answer:
(d) Allotment of Duties.

41. ………………………… regards informal organisation as the network of personal and social relationships which is not established or required by formal organisation.
(a) Keith Davis
(b) Barnard
(c) Kasts and Rosenzweing
(d) Larry E. Greiner
Answer:
(a) Keith Davis.

42. “The right to give orders and exact obedience” is ……………………. .
(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) Authority – Power Continuum
Answer:
(a) Authority.

43. Which one of the following is a feature of delegation of authority?
(a) Division of work and delegation of authority.
(b) The tendency to withhold a larger part of the formal authority at higher echelons of management hierarchy.
(c) Combining functional departments with product or project organisation.
(d) A dear demarcation between thinking and doing.
Answer:
(a) As the organisation grows, there is a need to delegate authority to more and more people to cope with the volume of work. Delegation of authority entails division of workload and sharing responsibility.

44. “The multiplicity of vertical and horizontal relationships impair organisational efficiency”. This statement is for:-
(a) Functional organisation
(b) Line organisation
(c) Matrix organisation
(d) None.
Answer:
(c) In matrix organisation, the multiplicity of vertical and horizontal relationships impair organisational efficiency. Project wise, the organisation is divided into various functional departments, which form the vertical chain of command and the project organisation or product decisions from the horizontal chain of command. The vertical lines of authority are cut horizontally across by project on product line divisions.

45. Which one of the following forms of organisation is suitable for software development for a client?
(a) Line Organisation
(b) Functional Organisation
(c) Line and Staff Organisation
(d) Project Management Organisation.
Answer:
(d) Project organisation is a setup within an existing organisation for the purpose of completion of project or accomplishing assigned objectives in time and within cost and profit goals as laid down by the management in this connection. It may involve development and introduction of a new product, complete re-designing of an existing product line, installing a new plant, and the like. For example, Software development for a client.

46. Which one of the following is a step towards formation of semi-autonomous units?
(a) Delegation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Centralisation
(d) Growth.
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation improves morale of personnel. Managers at different levels and semi-autonomous divisions are able to see by themselves the results of their own actions and ascertain their role and success.

47. Which one of the following statements explains the term ‘decentralisation’?
(a) The tendency to withhold larger part of formal authority at higher echelons of management hierarchy
(b) When a larger part of the authority is delegated down the levels of management so that decisions are made as near the source of information and action is possible.
(c) The concern for the people employed in an organisation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) When a larger part of authority is delegated down the levels of management so that decisions are made as near the source of information and action as possible, such a tendency and characteristic in the organisation is described as decentralisation.

48. Under …………………… organization, there is a clear demarcation between thinking and doing.
(a) Line and staff
(b) Functional
(c) Matrix
(d) Project management.
Answer:
(a) Underline and staff organisation, there is a clear demarcation between thinking and doing because the staff being the “thinker” and the line being the “doers” describes the line and staff organisation.

49. An efficient system of control encourages top management to go in for of authority.
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Classification
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Centralisation refers to the tendency to withhold a larger part of formal authority at higher part of formal authority at higher echelons of management hierarchy. Thus, larger number of decisions and more important of them are made by those occupying higher positions in the organisations. So, by this, we can say that “An efficient system of control encourages top management to go in for centralisation of authority.”

50. organisation refers to the relationship between people based not on procedures but on personal attitudes prejudices and also the likes and dislikes of people.
(a) Informal
(b) Formal
(c) Normal
(d) Mutual.
Answer:
(c) Accountability denotes answerability for the accomplishment of the task assigned by the superior to his subordinate. It is to be noted that the process of delegation is not at all complete with just assigning the duty and delegating appropriate authority for the accomplishment of the task. The process of delegation becomes complete only by making the delegates answerable to the superior for his functioning.

51. denotes answerability for the accomplishment of the task assigned by the superior to his subordinate.
(a) Delegation of power
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
(d) Centralisation.
Answer:
(a) Informal organisation refers to the relationship between people based not on procedures but on personal attitudes, prejudices and also the likes and dislikes of people. It is a network of personal and social relationships which is not established.

52. Line type of structure is the pattern of organisation.
(a) Modern
(b) Oldest
(c) Most expensive
(d) Flexible.
Answer:
(b) The oldest and simplest form of organisation is line organisation. Line functions are those which have direct responsibility for accomplishing the objective of the enterprise.

53. Henry Fayol defined ……………………… as “the right to give orders and exact obedience”.
(a) Delegation
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
(d) Reporting.
Answer:
(b) Authority may be described as the right of a manager to command subordinates, issue them orders and instructions and enact obedience. Fayol defined authority as “the right to give orders and exact obedience.”

54. Delegation is the process while ………………. is the situation produced by larger delegation of authority down the levels of organisation.
(a) Centralisation
(b) Accountability
(c) Decentralisation
(d) Responsibility.
Answer:
(c) Decentralisation is basically concerned with attitude and philosophy of the organisation and management. It is not merely a process involving handing over part of the authority to the subordinates. Delegation is a process while decentralisation is the situation produced by larger delegation of authority down the levels of organisation.

55. Small scale industry consists of which type of organisation?
(a) Functional organisation
(b) Line organisation
(c) Matrix organisation
(d) Project organisation
Answer:
(b) Small Scale Industry consist of Line Organisation because it is an oldest form of organisation and requires at all levels of management.

56. Delegation is a …………………………… and decentralisation is a produced by larger delegation of authority down the levels of organisation –
(a) Situation, process
(b) Distribution, process
(c) Process, situation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Decentralisation is basically concerned with attitude and philosophy of the organisation and management. It is not merely a process involving handling one or part of the authority to the subordinates. Delegation is a process while decentralisation is the situation produced by larger delegation of authority down the level of organisation.

57. Which of the following is the oldest & simplest form of organisation?
(a) Line organisation
(b) Matrix organisation
(c) Functional organisation
(d) Line and staff organisation.
Answer:
(a) The oldest and simplest form of organisation is line organisation. Line functions are those which have direct responsibility for accomplishing the objective of the enterprise.

58. Vertical line of authority are cut horizontally across by …………… .
(a) Product line division
(b) Project line division
(c) Product or project line division
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) In a matrix organisation, the functional departments like manufacturing, marketing, accounting and personnel constitute the vertical chains of command while the project organisation or product divisions form the horizontal chains of command. The vertical lines of authority are cut horizontally across by project or product line divisions.

59. Which one out of the following is the most recent organisation structure?
(a) Matrix organisation
(b) Line organisation
(c) Project management organisation
(d) Functional organisation.
Answer:
(a) A newly evolving organisation structure which has received considerable attention in the West is the Matrix Organisation. It combines functional departmentation with product or project organisation.

60. A traditional “top-down” organisation is ………………….. organisation.
(a) An absolutely formalised.
(b) A largely decentralised
(c) A largely centralised.
(d) An absolutely decentralised.
Answer:
(b) Large part of authority is delegated down the levels of management, so that decisions are made as near the source of information and action as possible, such as tendency and characteristics in the organisation is described as decentralization. Hence, option (b) is correct answer.

61. The formal right of the manager to take decisions give orders and expect the orders to be carried out is:
(a) Unity of Command
(b) Accountability
(c) Authority ‘
(d) Responsibility.
Answer:
(c) “Authority” may be described as right of a manager to command subordinates, issue them orders and instructions and exact obedience. Hence, option (c) is correct answer.

62. Organisational design requires a manager to ………………… .
(a) Organise groups within an organisation
(b) Change the culture of an organisation
(c) Change the logo of an organisation
(d) Change or develop the structure of an organisation.
Answer:
(d) Organisational design is a step by step methodology which identifies the dysfunctional aspect of workflow, procedures and structure etc. to change or develop the structure of an organisation. Hence, option (d) is correct.

63. Which of the following refers to a Scalar Chain?
(a) Thinking out and executing a plan
(b) Equity and equality of treatment while dealing with people
(c) Minimising employee turnover
(d) Superior- subordinate relations throughout the organisation.
Answer:
(d) In this form of organisation, a supervisor exercises direct supervision over a subordinate under the organisation, authority flows from the person at the top to the person at the lowest of the organisation. This form of organisation is called military organisation or scalar chain type of organisation.

64.“The right to take decisions by virtue of your formal position” can be termed as:
(a) Direction
(b) Responsibility
(c) Accountability
(d) Authority.
Answer:
(d) Authority may be regarded in the official hierarchical sense as the right to command and power may be regarded as the capacity to influence the behaviour of others.

65. The traditional view holds that managers should not directly supervise more than subordinates.
(a) Seven or eight
(b) Nine or ten
(c) Five or six
(d) Eleven or twelve.
Answer:
(c) The traditional view holds that managers should not directly supervise more than six subordinates.

66. Which kind of organisation structure is recommended in the case, where the scale of business is small, number of subordinate and operative employees are not many and the organisation is in continuous process industry?
(a) Line organisation
(b) Line & staff organisation
(c) Matrix organisation
(d) Functional organisation.
Answer:
(a) The line organisation system can be successfully utilised: Where the scale of organisation is small, number of subordinates and operative employees are not too many In continuous process industry.

67. Of the functions of management, the purpose of …………….. is to assemble similar-looking jobs so as to bring order in the organisation,
(a) Directing
(b) Auditing
(c) Feedback
(d) Organising.
Answer:
(d) Organising is the function of management which purposes to assemble similar-looking jobs so as to bring order in the organisation.

68. Identify the right sequence of the process of organizing:
(i) Identification and classification of activities
(ii) Grouping activities
(iii) Establishing superior-subordinate relationship
(iv) Delegation of authority
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (Ii), (iv), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv). (i)
(d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer:
(b) Process of organisation:

  • Determination of objectives and classification of activities.
  • Grouping the activities.
  • Allotment of Duties.
  • Developing Relationships.
  • Integration of activities.

Thus, option (b) is correct.

69. It arises out of the network of personal and social relationships which is not established as required by formal organisation:
(a) Informal structures
(b) Formal structures
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Informal organisation structure refers to the relationship between people that is not based on procedures but on personal attitudes, prejudices, likes and dislikes. It arises out of the network of personal and social relationships which is not established as required by formal organisation.

70. Which of the following form of organisation structure is the most suitable for software development for a client?
(a) Line and staff organisation
(b) Line organisation
(c) Functional organisation
(d) Project management organisation.
Answer:
(d) Project management organisation is the most suitable for software development for a client as it may involve development and introduction of a new product, complete redesigning of an existing product line as the lie.

71. Which of the following is not a feature of organising?
(a) It is a subprocess of management
(b) It established authority-responsibility relationships
(c) It deals with individual effort.
(d) It is based on the principle of division of work.
Answer:
(c) Individual effort is not a feature of organising as it is described as a collective group of persons engaged in pursuing specified objectives. It can be considered as consisting of division of work and coordination of their activities towards some common objectives.

72. Larger organizations tend to have ………………….. than smaller organizations.
(a) More specialization
(b) Less departmentalization
(c) Fewer rules and regulations
(d) Less employees.
Answer:
(a) Larger organisations tend to have more specialization than smaller organisations as these organisations have more control and coordination which makes it as such.

73. The formal right of a manager to make decisions, give orders, and expect the order to be carried out is:
(a) Unity of command
(b) Accountability
(c) Authority
(d) Responsibility.
Answer:
(c) Authority may be described as the right of a manager to command subordinates, issue the orders and instructions and to act or not to act depends upon how he deems fit to accomplish certain objectives of the organisation.

74. The jobs of assembly line employees are to be changed to allow more tasks to be done by individual workers. This is a reduction in ………………. .
(a) Centralisation
(b) Departmentalisation
(c) Work specialisation
(d) Chain of Command
Answer:
(a) Centralisation refers to the tendency to withhold a larger part of formal authority at higher echelons of management hierarchy. Thus more important decisions are made by those occupying higher positions.

75. In a ………………. employees are recruited from functional departments to work on a specific project for a limited time period.
(a) Matrix structure
(b) Divisional structure
(c) Team structure
(d) Productive structure.
Answer:
(a) In a Matrix Organisation, the functional department like manufacturing, marketing, accounting constitute the vertical chains of command, while the project organisation form the horizontal chain of command. This kind of organisation consists of a group of individuals drawn from the various functional departments, who are assigned to a particular project.

76. ………………………………. is the process of assessing an organisation’s strategy and environmental demands and then determining the appropriate organisational structure.
(a) Organisational structuring
(b) Organisational design
(c) Organisational chartering
(d) Organisation development.
Answer:
(a) Organisational structuring is the process of assessing an organisation strategy and environmental demands and then determining the appropriate organisational structure.

77. Which of the following statements about delegation can be best applied?
(a) Delegation is synonymous with participation
(b) The group shares decision-making authority & responsibility with management
(c) When a manager delegates decision-making authority, the subordinate makes a recommendation and then the manager makes the final decision
(d) Managers delegates so that subordinates takes the decision and he can spend more time on relatively important decisions.
Answer:
(d) Delegation is an administrative process of getting things done by others by giving them responsibility. It entails the division of work load and the sharing of responsibility. By delegating some of the work-load towards subordinates, the manager may focus and spend more time on relatively important decisions.

78. The task of ‘organising’ involves:
(a) Assigning tasks
(b) Grouping tasks into departments
(c) Defining yOais
(d) Exercising authority.
Answer:
(b) Organising is concerned with both the “orderly” assemblage of human and material resources as well as the process of development of a structure of formally identified and distinguished tasks, roles and relationships that are attributable to the various members so that they can work effectively as a group. Thus, the division of work among people and coordination of their efforts to achieve specific objectives are the fundamental aspects of organization.

79. ……………….. companies can easily coordinate activities in a consistent way across diverse departments.
(a) Big
(b) Decentralised
(c) Centralised
(d) Multinational.
Answer:
(c) Centralisation refers to the tendency to withhold a larger part of formal authority at higher echelons of management hierarchy. Thus, larger number of decisions more important to them are made by those occupying higher positions in the organisation. Thus, option c is correct.

80. Which of the following is not a characteristic of line organisation?
(a) They are like military organisation
(b) They are simple to work in
(c) They are flexible
(d) They are stable.
Answer:
(c) The oldest and simplest form of organization is line origination. Line functions refer to those employees who have direct responsibility for accomplishing the objective of the enterprise. This form of organisation is otherwise called military organization or scalar type of organisation. It is stable in character but apart from bulk of advantages, it is rigid and inflexible. Discipline is maintained to the extent that organisation is rarely allowed to change.

81. Which is the first step in effective delegation:
(a) Fixed the employees responsibility for the work they are assigned.
(b) Set up a feedback mechanism.
(c) Match the desired task with the most appropriate employee.
(d) Determine clearly the task you wanted to be done and the people who are available.
Answer:
(d) Irrespective of the level at which authority is passed on to subordinates, the delegation of authority can be conceived as a four-step process. The first step for the effective delegation is the Allocation of Duties. Duties are the tasks and activities that a superior desires someone else to do. So, before authority can be delegated, the duties over which the authority relates must be allocated to subordinate. Thus, option d is correct.

82. Organizational design requires a manager to …………… .
(a) Change the culture of an organization
(b) Change the logo of an organization
(c) Change or develop the structure of an organization
(d) Organize groups within an organization.
Answer:
(c) Organisational Design is a step by step methodology which identifies the dysfunctional aspect of workflow, procedures and structures etc. To change or develop the structure of an organisation.

83. The sets of assembly line employees are to be changed to allow more tasks to be done by individual workers. This is a reduction in ………………….. .
(a) Centralisation
(b) Work specialisation
(c) Departmentalisation
(d) Chain of command
Answer:
(a) Decentralisation allows more work to be done at lower lever by fixing responsibility at different level. Decentralisation is reduction in Centralisation.

84. Delegation of Authority results into:
(a) Obligation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Responsibility
(d) Centralisation
Answer:
(b) Delegation of Authority results in Decentralisation. Decentralisation is an extended form of Delegation.

85. Mathematical approach to management is closely related to:
(a) Empirical approach of management
(b) Interpersonal behaviour approach of management
(c) Corporate approach of management
(d) Decision theory approach of management.
Answer:
(d) Decision theory approach can be defined as a course of action purposely chosen from a set of alternatives (using logical views as well as social views) to achieve organisational or managerial objectives or goals. Option (d) is correct answer.

86. Under ………………… organization, there is a clear demarcation between thinking and doing:
(a) Line and Staff
(b) Functional
(c) Matrix
(d) Project management
Answer:
(a) Line and Staff Organisation is a type of organisation in which there is clear demarcation between thinking and doing. In this Organisation, the Staff being ‘thinkers’ and line being ‘doers’.

87. Performance appraisal means systematic process of measuring and evaluation of …………….. of each employee by a person trained for merit rating.
(a) Personality/Performance
(b) Intelligence
(c) Mental health/Vigour
(d) Participation
Answer:
(a) Performance appraisal means systematic process of Measuring and Evaluation of personality/performance of each employee by a person trained for Merit Rating.

88. Most Companies begin the process of establishing organisational ethics programs by developing:
(a) Ethics training programmes
(b) Codes of conduct
(c) Ethics enforcement mechanisms
(d) Hidden agendas
Answer:
(b) Codes of Conduct is a formal statement followed by most of companies begin the process of establishing organisational ethics programmes.

89. A company engaged in alcohol manufacturing merged with a cigarette manufacturing Firm. What type of merger at this?
(a) Horizontal merger
(b) Product extension merger
(c) Market extension merger
(d) Vertical merger.
Answer:
(b) Cigarette and Alcohol are two different product under category of narcotic as a product extension merger takes place between two business organisations that deals in products that are related to each other and operate in the same market. Thus option (b) is correct answer.

90. Decentralisation means:
(a) Large part of authority is withhold at higher levels
(b) Large part of authority is delegated to lower levels
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation refers to delegation of large part of auth jrity to lower levels.

91. Centralisation and Decentralisation are one and the same things
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false.
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation and Centralisation are to different concepts that are contrary to each other.

92. Which is suitable form of organisation for small organisations?
(a) Matrix
(b) Line and Staff
(c) Product Management
(d) Line
Answer:
(d) For small size organisation line organisation structure is most suitable as it is fully centralised structure, helps in easy control.

93. Tradition ‘Top-down’ organisations are:
(a) Largely Centralised
(b) Largely Decentralised
(c) Authoritively Centralised
(d) Authoritively Decentralised
Answer:
(a) Tradition ‘Top down’ organisations are largely centralised as in such organisation decision are taken by top-level and executed by lower level of hierarchy.

94. Military Organisation is also known as:
(a) Project Management Organisation
(b) Matrix Organisation
(c) Line and Staff Organisation
(d) Line Organisation.
Answer:
(d) Line organisation is also called Military organisation or scalar type of organisation; in this form of organisation, a supervisor exercises direct supervision over a subordinate.

95. Matrix organisation is the combination of:
(a) Functional departmentation with product organisation
(b) Functional departmentation with labour heads
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) Matrix organisation is a combination of functional departmentation (manufacturing, marketing, accounting, etc.) with Project Organisation (or product divisions form the horizontal chain of command).

96. Delegation of authority is as same as accountability.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(b) Delegation is related to authority, where accountability is related to responsibility.

97. …………………. Organisation refers to the relationship between people based not on procedures but on personal attitudes, prejudices and also the likes and dislikes of people
(a) Informal
(b) Formal
(c) Normal
(d) Mutual
Answer:
(a) ‘Informal Organisation’ refers to the relationship between people based not on procedures but on personal attitudes, prejudices and also likes and dislikes of people.

98. …………………………. denotes answerability for the accomplishment of the task assigned by the superior to his subordinate.
(a) Delegation of power
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
(d) Centralisation
Answer:
(c) ‘Accountability’ denotes answerability for the accomplishment of the task assigned by the superior to his subordinate.

99. Line type of structure is the ……………….. pattern of organisation.
(a) Modern
(b) Oldest
(c) Most expensive
(d) Flexible.
Answer:
(b) Line type of structure is the ‘oldest’ pattern of organisation. It refers to the structure based on scalar chain and formal organisation structure.

100. Henry Fayol defined ……………………. as “the right to give orders and exact obedience”.
(a) Delegation
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
(d) Reporting
Answer:
(b) Henry Fayol defined ‘Authority’ as the “right to give orders and exact obedience”.

101. Delegation is the process while is the situation produced by larger delegation of authority down the levels of organisation.
(a) Centralisation
(b) Accountability
(c) Decentralisation
(d) Responsibility
Answer:
(c) Delegation is the process while ‘Decentralisation’ is the situation produced by larger delegation of authority down the levels of organisation.

102. Grapevine consists of a complex network of ……………. communication.
(a) Crosswise
(b) Formal
(c) Informal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Grapevine consists of a complex network of ‘Informal communication’.

103. An efficient system of control encourage top management to go in for ……………….. of authority.
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Classification
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) An efficient system of control encourage top management to go in for ‘decentralisation’ of authority.

104. Which of the following is not the characteristic of organizing.
(a) It is sub-process of management
(b) It includes individual efforts
(c) It based on division of work
(d) It establishes a superior or subordinate relationship.
Answer:
(b) Characteristics of organisation are –

  • It is a subprocess of management
  • It is goal oriented
  • It deals with group efforts
  • It is based on the principle of ‘division of work’
  • It establishes authority coordination between them and establishment of definite lines of supervision.

105. ……………….. refers to the tendency to withhold a large part of formal authority at higher echelons of management
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Centralisation refers to the tendency to withhold a larger part of formal authority at higher echelons of management hierarchy. Thus, large number of decisions more important to them are made by those occupying higher positions in the organisation.

106. Controlling the authority at higher echelons
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Centralisation refers to the tendency to withhold a larger part of formal authority at higher echelons of management hierarchy, whereas decentralisation is to distribute the authority to the lower level of management.

107. If the management gives decision making power to his team members then he is doing?
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(b) The process of delegating large part of authority down the level of management so that decision are made as near the source of information and action as possible, such a tendency and characteristic in the organisation is described as decentralisation.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Nature of Management and its Process – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Nature of Management and its Process – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Introduction:
→ Concept of Management:

  • Origin of management is from a Greek word ‘NOMOS’
  • It denotes not only functions but also the people who discharge these functions.
  • Management is a vital function which is concerned with all the aspects of working of an enterprise.
  • It is the art of getting things done.
  • It is concerned with human being whose behaviour is unpredictable.

→ Ever since people have began forming groups to achieve individual goals, management has become the essence of coordinating the individual efforts It denotes not only a special position and rank but also a discipline and field of study.

→ Definition of Management

  • Koontz and O’Donnell: “Getting things done through and with people”.
  • Henry Fayol: “to manage is to forecast, and to plan, to organize, to command, and to coordinate”.
  • Hicks: “the process of getting things done by the people and through the people”.
  • Haimann: “Management is the process of getting things done through people and directing the efforts of individuals towards a common objective”.

→ For-Profit Organisations: (Businesses)

  • Since businesses tend to develop their employees (human assets) in the pursuit of financial goals (profits), they benefit society by creating both material and human wealth.
  • Material wealth is usually in the form of financial profit.
  • And human wealth through the professional development of their employees.

→ Not-For-Profit Organisations: (Institutions):

  • Not-for-Profit businesses create both material and human wealth.
  • But profits are used for a charitable purposes.
  • Typically, institutions such as charities, provide physical and emotional support for the disadvantaged and less fortunate members of society.

→ They help them by:

  • Managing their problems
  • Creating learning opportunities
  • Helping children grow and develop
  • Healing the sick
  • Providing stability and sense of belonging.

→ Adding Value:
Managers may add value to the wealth-creating process of the business or institution by:

  • Changing a part of the company’s strategy.
  • Finding a more effective way of marketing products.
  • Initiating the redesign of manufacturing process.
  • Developing and implementing a more effective approach to customer service.
  • Implementing a new organisation structure for the organisation and leading employees in the change process.
  • Selecting and developing the most competent employees as part of succeeding planning strategy and so forth.

→ Management Performance:
Management is the process of getting things done by coordinating the activities of people throughout an organisation.
Nature of Management and its Process – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 1

→  Efficiently:
Means in the least time and least cost. It is usually measured as output by input.

Efficiently –Nature of Management and its Process – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 2
Both inputs and output may be measured in units of quantity, money or time.

Effectively:
It means doing the right things to a required standard of quality.

→ Objectives of Management:

  • Management should provide an environment whereby the maximum output can be extracted from an individual.
  • Achieving Maximum Output with Minimum Efforts: Human’ financial and material resources can be combined in such a manner that it results in reduction of various costs.
  • Optimum Use of Resources: This leads to increase in efficiency which can be obtained by reducing spoilage, wastage and breakage which in turn leads to saving of time, effort and money which is essential for the growth & prosperity of any enterprise.
  • Maximum Prosperity: This means smooth and coordinated functioning of the enterprise, which ensures good working conditions, suitable wage system, incentive plans and higher profits to the employer.
  • Human’ Betterment and Social Justice: Through increased productivity and employment, management ensures better standards of living and justice through its uniform policies.

→ Importance of Management:

  • Achieving Group Goals: Management directs group efforts towards achievement of pre-determined goals. It converts disorganized resources of men, machines, money, etc. into useful enterprise. These resources are coordinated, directed and controlled in such a manner that enterprises work towards attainment of goals.
  • Optimum Utilization of Resources: This is possible by selecting its best possible alternate use in the industry from out of various uses. If employees & machines are producing their maximum, there would be no under-employment of any resources.
  • Reduces Costs: Proper planning yields minimum inputs into maximum output. The best combination of physical, human and financial resources also results into the cost reduction.
  • Establishes Sound Organisation: To attain this objective, management must establish effective authority-responsibility relationship. All jobs should be clear to everyone, which means right job for the right person.
  • Establishes Equilibrium: It enables the organisation to survive in the changing environment. To accomplish this, the initial coordination of the organisation must be changed with the change in external environment.

→ Prosperity of Society: Efficient management leads to:

  • Better economic production
  • Welfare of people
  • Avoid wastage of scarce resources
  • Improved standard of living
  • Increase in profit.

→ Management – Science or Art:

  • Science may be defined as a body of knowledge, systematized through application of scientific methods in any department of enquiry.
  • Science includes physical sciences which have exactness in their nature and also social sciences which is based on unpredictable human behaviour.
  • Management can then be described as a variable growing science if compared with the nature of exact physical sciences.
  • Management is still a growing science.
  • Management has now a theoretical base.

→ Features of Management as a Science:

  • Inexact science, deals with complex human behaviour
  • Developing science.
  • Inter-Disciplinary Science-learns freely from other disciplines, such as economics, sociology and psychology.

→ Management as an Art:

  • The function of art is to effect change or accomplish goals by deliberate efforts.
  • Practical application of theoretical knowledge is reflected in art. In this sense, management is an art as well.
  • Management principles involves skills to work out situations. This element is so important for executives that some authorities regard management to be essentially an art.

→ Features of Management as en Art:

  • Process involves use of know-how and skills.
  • Directed towards accomplishment of concrete results.
  • Creating productive situations needed for further improvement.
  • Personalised because every manager has his own approach to problems.
  • Science and art are not mutually exclusive but are complementary.

Theory and practice of management are mutually helpful and go side-by-side for the efficient functioning of any organisation. Thus, science is a body of knowledge while art denotes the mode of practical application of knowledge, hene not mutually exclusive.

→ Management as Profession
Features of Management:

  • Systematic body of knowledge.
  • Need for learning and proper organisation.
  • Entry restricted on the basis of examination or education.
  • Dominance of service motive.

Except for restricted entry, management qualifies all other tests of a profession.

  • Backed by a systematic body of knowledge.
  • Many management principles have been developed which need proper learning and education.
  • Management of today must be creative rather than adoptive and be conscious of its ethical and social responsibilities to the society.
  • Professional management consultants are both growing in number and quality.

→ Reasons of Raising Management to the status of distinct profession:

  • Growing administrative complexities.
  • Emergence of the corporate form of organisation.
  • Separation of ownership from management.
  • Development of an organized body of systematic knowledge.

→ Management Functions
Henry Fayol is also known as ‘Founder of Modern Management Theory’, grouped the elements of management into 5 managerial functions and 6 activities:

Elements/Functions are

  1. Planning
  2. Leading
  3. Controlling
  4. Organising
  5. Co-ordinating

→ Activities are

  • Technical
  • Commercial
  • Financial
  • Security
  • Accounting
  • Managerial

Top management spend more time in planning, the middle level on organizing and lower level concerned with directing Luther Gulick gave the word POSDCORB using initial letters of management. P-Planning, 0-organising, S-staff ing, D-directing, co-ordinating, fIR- Reporting, B-Budgeting

→ Reporting is a part of control function:
Budgeting represent both planning and controlling Newmann and Summer classified managing process as function of:

  • Organising
  • Planning
  • Leading
  • Controlling

→Management Functions

Planning:
Deciding in advance what is to be done, how and when it will be done. Projecting the future course of action, Helps to bridge the gap between present and future.

Planning process comprises of:

  • Objectives
  • Policies
  • Procedures
  • Rules
  • Programmes
  • Budget
  • Strategies

Is the fundamental function, all other functions of management are greatly influenced by planning process.
Top management spend more time in planning, middle level in organising, lower-level manager in directing. Organising: Problem of organising arises only when group efforts are involved.

→ It consists of the following steps:

  • Determine activities of organisation keeping in view its objectives
  • Classify activities into groups for purpose of division.
  • Assignment of these group of activities to individuals.
  • Delegate & fix authority & responsibility to carry out assigned duties.
  • Coordinate activities and authority relations throughout the organization.

Thus, organising is concerned with orderly assemblage of human and material resources.

3. Leading: Management is efficient in climbing the ladder of success;
leadership determines whether the ladder is leaning against the right wall.” – Stephen R. Covey

Leading consists following steps:

  • Outlining a vision of what can be achieved.
  • Focusing on interpersonal relationships.
  • Motivate and inspire employees to perform better.
  • Improve employees job performance
  • Lead to innovation
  • Ensure the accomplishment of tasks on time and corresponding with the required policies.

4. Control:
Good control system should suggest corrective measures so that negative deviations do not occur.
Control is closely related to the planning job of the manager.

Important steps are:

  • Measurement of actual performance against standards and recording deviations. It should not be viewed as the post mortem of past achievement and performance.
  • Analyzing and probing the reasons for such deviation.
  • Fixing responsibility in terms of person responsible for negative deviations.
  • Correction of employee performance so that group goals and plans can be achieved.
    Feedback can be of great use in this regard.

Nature of Management and its Process – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 3

→ Theory of Scientific Management:

  • Federick Taylor is known as Father of Scientific Management.
  • He suggests the ‘one best way3 of doing each task.
  • Scientific management movement was hailed as a ‘second industrial revolution’.

→ Four principles of Scientific Management:

  1. ‘Develop a science’ for each element of work:
    It refers to analyse workflows, improve the economic efficiency (providing test breaks) and labour productivity.
  2. Scientifically select, train, teach and develop workers to heir them reach their full potential:
    Taylor instructs to hire ‘first class’ workers on the basis of their aptitude to do a job well and also train them.
  3. Cooperate with employees to ensure Implementation of scientific management:
    Taylor emphasised Viet the interest of employer and employees must be same (not antagonist), that prosperity for the employee cannot exist for many years unless it is accompanied by the prosperity for the employees and vice versa.
  4. Principle of Scientific Management was to divide the work and the responsibility equally between management and workers: Taylor said, “Almost every act of workman should be preceded one or more preparatory acts of the management which enable him to do his work better and quicker than he otherwise could.”

→Development of Management Theory:
Principles of Management:
Various management principles given by different authors are as follows:
Frederick Taylor: Popularly known as lather of scientific management. He began his career as an apprentice in small machine shop and rose to the level of engineer. His writing reflects the practical wisdom and work experience. His main concern was management a shop level and he was mainly concerned with efficiency of workers are managers at production level. Public criticism and opinions compelled him to appear before the special congressional committee hearings in 1912.

The major principles of his scier1titíc management can be summarised as below:
Henry Laurence Gantt: “Task and Bonus Plan” rask and Bonus Plan: A wage incentive plan in which high task efficiency is maintained by providing a percentage bonus as a reward for production in excess of standard.

→ Principles from Scientific Management Times:
rime approach is developed by Frank Bunker Gilbreth & his wife, Lillian Moller Gilbreth, They emphasised the importance of giving greater attention to minute details of work and also developed the principles o motion economy, intended to eliminate redundant motions and produce rhythm by scientific development of essential motions.

→ Bureaucracies & Corporations: Max Weber:
Maximilian Karl Emil “Max” Weber (1864-1920) proposed the idea of bureaucracies at a time when promotion to prominent position of authority was based on who you knew (politics), who you were (heredity) or traditions.

Bureaucracy is the exercise of control on the basis of knowledge, expertise or experience Fairness as oppose to favouritism.

→ The main principles of bureaucratic management are as follows:

  • Qualification-based hiring: Employees are hired on the basis of their technical training or educational background.
  • Merit-based promotion: Promotion is based on experience or achievement.
  • Chain of command: Official hierarchy of authority who is in charge of whom and whose permission must be asked.
  • Division of Labour: Task, responsibilities & authority are clearly divided & defined.
  • Impartial application of Rules & procedures: Rules and procedures apply to all members of the organisation as well as top to bottom without any liberty.
  • Recorded in writing: All administrative decision, acts, rules or procedures will be recorded in writing.
  • Managers separate from Owners: The owners of an organisation should not manage or supervise the organisation.

→ Henry Fayol: Popularly known as father of modern management theory;
Published (1916) “Administration Industrielle et Generate” (Industrial and General Administration) No English translation could be available until year 1929. He started his carrier as coal mine engineer in 1860 in french coal mine and was MD (chief executive) from 1883-1918.

(a) He divided all activities of industrial enterprise into the following 6 groups:

  • Technical activities concerning production.
  • Commercial activities of buying and selling.
  • Financial activities to seek optimum use of capital.
  • Accounting activities pertaining to final accounts and costs and statistics.

→ Contributions of Sociologists, and Psychologists:

  • The behaviour a lists says that the study of management should be concerned with human behaviour in organisations and related matters: Organisational effectiveness depend on the quality of relationships among people.
  • Hawthorne experiments (1928-32) conducted by Elton Mayo.
  • Good management requires ability to develop interpersonal competence and support collaborative efforts.
  • Psychologists and sociologists have laid the foundation of interdisciplinary approaches to the study of organisation and management.
  • Psychologists & sociologists have made significant contributions to the behavioural school of thoughts.

→ Systems Approach:

  • A system is a set of things interdependent so as to form a complex unity.
  • This approach defines organisation as a complex whole consisting of mutually interdependent parts which interacts with the environment of which it is a part.

→ There are two types of Systems:

  1. Open Systems
  2. Close Systems

1. Open Systems: An open system approach recognises the dynamic interaction with the environment (i.e. suppliers, labour unions, financial institutions, govt, agencies etc.).

2. Close Systems: A close system does not interact with and is not influenced by the environment in which it operates.

→ Managerial Roles:

  • Henry Mintzberg (1973) published The nature of Managerial work’
  • He characterized the managerial work as “brevity, variety and fragmentation”.
  • – Mintzberg categorises manager’s activities into ten roles.
Managerial Roles
Interpersonal Roles Informational Roles DecIsional Roles
(i) Figurehead (ii) Leader (iii) Liaison
(iv) Monitor (v) Disseminator (vi) Spokesperson
(vii) Entrepreneur (viii) Disturbance handler (ix) Resource Allocator
(x) Negotiator

→ Administration and Management:

Administration Management
1. Concerned with policymaking. Policy implementation
2. Functions are legislative and determinative. Functions are executive and governing.
3. Concerned with planning and organizing. Concerned with motivating and controlling.
4. Normally involves Board of Directors. Involves personnel below the level of Board of Directors.

→ Practically:
Practically, management is as much responsible for planning as is administration.
Administration is a process of laying down broad policies & objectives of the organisation, whereas management directs & guides the operating activities towards relating the objective set forth by former.
It is also said that administration is a function while management is a lower level.
Management includes administrative management (i.e) administration & operative management.

→ Managerial Skills:
Essential skills which every manager needs for doing better management are called as ‘Managerial Skills’.

According to Prof. Katz, “Managerial skills can be technical, human & conceptual.”
Top-level – more conceptual and less technical skills Lower level – more technical and less conceptual.

Human relation skill are equally required by all three level of management.
1. Conceptual Skills:

  • The ability to visualize the organization as a whole.
  • Includes analytical, creative & initiative skills. Helps the managers to identify the problems.
  • Mostly required by top-level managers because they spend more time ¡ri planning, organising and problem-solving.

2. Human Relation Skills:

  • Also known as interpersonal skills.
  • Help the managers to understand, communicate and work with others, and to lead, motivate and develop team spirit.

3. Technical Skills:

  • Helps the managers to use different machines and tools. i.e. improves their ability to perform.
  • Mostly low-level managers require these skills. rasks and Responsibilities of Professional Managers
    A professional manager is an expert, trained and experienced to aptl manage any type of organisation.

→ Qualities of a Professional Manager:

  • Objective, focused & performance-oriented.
  • Help in meeting competitive challenges.
  • Creative and dynamic.
  • Follow management practices based on experience & information.
  • Apply management theories to solve emerging problems.

→ Professional Manager’s Tasks include the following:
1. Providing Direction to the Firm: It means envisioning goals.
Effectively declare what’s possible for the team to achieve and compelling them to accomplish more than they thought.

2. Managing Survival and Growth:

  • Two factors are important for survival & growth, internal and external factors.
  • Internal factors are largely controllable, such as choice technology, efficiency of labour etc.
  • External factors are government policy, changing taste of customers, attitudes & values, increasing competition etc.

3. MaIntaining Firm’s Efficiency: The manager should complete his tasi in an efficient manner. The more output he will produce with given input, greater will be his profit.

4. Meeting the Competition Challenge: Managers must anticipate & prepare for increasing competition.

5. Innovation: It is an ongoing task, necessary for survival in this age of competition.

6. Renewal: Means providing new processes and resources. Renewal also helps the business to survive.

7. Building Human Organisation: Every manager must constantly bol out for people with potential and attract them to join the company.

8. Change Management: It’s the manager’s task to ensure that the change is introduced and incorporated in a smooth manner.

9. Selection of Information Technology: Computers, Internet, Intranet confront the modern manager with the challenge of using the best technology.

10. LeadershIp: “A leader can be a manager, but a manager is no necessary a leader”, says’s Gemmy Allen.

  • It is the persuasion of the person over others to inspire actions for achieving the goals.
  • Involves interpersonal characteristics of a manager’s position that involves communication with team members.

11. Change Management: A manager’s task is to ensure that the change is introduced and incorporated in a smooth manner.

12. Selection of Information Technology: Computers, internet, Intranets, telecommunication and infinite range of software application poses the managers with the challenge of using best technology.

Nature of Management and its Process MCQ Questions

1. The economic environment consists of 3 basic entities:
(a) Households (consumers), firms (producers), and manufacturers.
(b) Producer (firms), Retailer and Consumer.
(c) Households (consumers), firms (producers) and Government (co-ordinator)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Households (consumers), firms (producers) and Government (co-ordinator)

2. Management is originated from the Greek word:
(a) Kiyo
(b) Nomos
(c) Like
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Nomos

3. defined management as the process of getting things done by and through the people.
(a) Hicks
(b) Koontz and O’Donnell
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) Haimann
Answer:
(a) Hicks.

4. The combination of human, material and financial resources should result in:
(a) Reduction of cost
(b) Increase in revenue
(c) Greater production
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Reduction of cost.

5. The efficiency of factors of production can be increased by:
(a) Optimum utilisation of resources
(b) Reducing costs
(c) Good working conditions
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Optimum utilisation of resources.

6. Management is a and science.
(a) Exact & disciplinary
(b) Inexact and interdisciplinary
(c) Exact and social
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Inexact and interdisciplinary

7. Management is an art because it involves and …………….. .
(a) Experience and intelligence
(b) Creativity and personalization
(c) Skills and knowledge
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Creativity and personalization.

8. Management as a profession satisfies all the tests. True or false?
(a) True
(b) Partly True/Partly false
(c) False
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) False

9. Which approach involves making generalizations from case study to establish theories as a useful guide?
(a) Group Behaviour Approach
(b) Decision Theory Approach
(c) Empirical Approach.
(d) Operational Approach
Answer:
(c) Empirical Approach.

10. Interpersonal behaviour approach is also known as:
(a) Behavioural science, leadership or human relations approach
(b) Behavioural science and decision making approach
(c) Leadership group behaviour approach
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Behavioural science, leadership or human relations approach.

11. …………………. is the core of management according to decision theory approach.
(a) Leadership
(b) Decision making
(c) Motivation
(d) Planning
Answer:
(b) Decision making

12. Mathematical approach is closely related to:
(a) Empirical approach
(b) Interpersonal behaviour approach
(c) Operational approach
(d) Decision theory approach
Answer:
(d) Decision theory approach

13. approach recognizes that the problems faced by managers vary with nature and size of enterprise.
(a) Operational
(b) Group Behaviour
(c) Decision theory
(d) Mathematical approach
Answer:
(a) Operational.

14. ……………, a french industrialist is known as ‘father of modern management theory.
(a) Luther Gulick
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Newmann & Summer
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Henry Fayol

15. Which word did Luther Gulick coin using initial letters of management?
(a) POSBRD
(b) POSDBRD
(c) POSDCORB
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) POSDCORB.

16. True or false: Success on part of executives essentially calls for capability to promote self-appraisal.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) None to these.
Answer:
(b) False

17. ………………….. is a preparatory step and bridges the gap between present and future.
(a) Organising
(b) Staffing
(c) Directing
(d) Planning
Answer:
(d) Planning.

18. …………….. and …………….. are fundamental aspects of organisation.
(a) Division of work and coordination of their efforts
(b) Delegation of authority & determination of activities
(c) Determination & classification of activities
(d) Delegation of authority & coordination of activities.
Answer:
(a) Division of work and coordination of their efforts

19. ………………….. function calls for properly motivating, communicating, leading & supervising the subordinates.
(a) Staffing
(b) Organising
(c) Direction
(d)Controlling
Answer:
(c) Direction.

20. True or false: If cooperation exists, coordination will automatically follow.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) Partly False
Answer:
(a) True

21. Co-ordination is achieved through understanding of …………………….. relationships.
(a) Interpersonal, (horizontal)
(b) Vertical
(c) Hierarchical
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Interpersonal, (horizontal).

22. ……………….. is the father of ‘scientific management.
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Frederich Taylor
(c) Luther Gulick
(d) Newmann & Summer
Answer:
(b) Frederich Taylor.

23. ‘Task and Bonus Plan’ was devised by:
(a) Taylor
(b) Fayol
(c) Newmann & Summer
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

24. Authority and responsibility are ………….. .
(a) Co-extensive
(b) Mutually exclusive
(c) Complimentary to each other
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Co-extensive

25. Management is affected by and in turn, affects the system in which it operates. Thus, it is a system.
(a) Closed
(b) Open
(c) Neither closed nor open
(d) Notice of the above
Answer:
(b) Open

26. Entrepreneur’s role of a disturbance handler, allocator of resources & negotiator’s role are the roles that the manager has to perform.
(a) Interpersonal
(b) Decisional
(c) International
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Decisional

27. Functions of administration are & …………… .
(a) Executive & governing
(b) Policy making & implementation
(c) Legislative & determinative
(d) Sustaining & controlling.
Answer:
(c) Legislative & determinative

28. Managerial skills are classified as ………. & ………… by Katz.
(a) Technical, human & conceptual
(b) Communication, administrative & leadership
(c) Conceptual, technical & leadership
(d) Administrative, decision making & communication.
Answer:
(a) Technical, human & conceptual.

29. ………………….. is one of the objectives of the management.
(a) Establishing equilibrium
(b) Maximum Prosperity
(c) Prosperity of society
(d) Reducing cost.
Answer:
(b) Maximum Prosperity

30. It refers to superior-subordinate relations throughout the organisation,
(a) Espirit de corps
(b) Order
(c) Equity
(d) Scalar chain
Answer:
(d) Scalar chain

31. Management is an ………………….. science.
(a) Exact
(b) Inexact
(c) Flexible
(d) Rigid
Answer:
(b) Inexact.

32. Management as an Art denotes the mode of:
(a) Body of knowledge
(b) Sociology
(c) Practical application
(d) None knowledge
Answer:
(c) Practical application.

33. Management fails to qualify the test of Professionalism relating to:
(a) Systematic body of knowledge
(b) Dominance of service motive
(c) Restricted entry
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None.

34. Which of these provides the organisation with adequate number of competent and qualified personnel at all levels of Management.
(a) Human Resource Management
(b) Planning
(c) Organising
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Human Resource Management.

35. Which is the ‘last’ Process of Management?
(a) Directing
(b) Planning
(c) Controlling
(d) Organising
Answer:
(c) Controlling

36. “Maintaining discipline and rewarding effective performance ” comes under.
(a) Human Resource Management
(b) Control
(c) Organising
(d) Directing
Answer:
(d) Directing.

37. Fayol suggests the following ………………… Principles of the management.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(d) 8
(c) 11
Answer:
(b) 14

38. According to which Principle, “An employee shall receive orders from one senior only”.
(a) Unity of direction
(b) Unity of command
(c) Discipline
(d) Division of work.
Answer:
(b) Unity of command.

39. According to which Principle “The need for teamwork and the importance of effective communication is needed”?
(a) Equity
(b) Esprit de corps
(c) Initiative
(d) Remuneration.
Answer:
(b) Esprit de corps.

40. Psychologist and have made significant contributions to the Trainers Scientists
(a) Mentors
(b) Trainers
(c) Sociologists
(d) Scientists
Answer:
(c) Sociologists

41. Which managerial skills are also called as ‘design skills’?
(a) Technical skill
(b) Leadership skills
(c) Problem-solving skill
(d) None.
Answer:
(c) Problem-solving skill.

42. The lower-level managers require more technical skills because they are of the actual operation.
(a) Supervisor
(b) Charge
(c) Incharge
(d) Performer
Answer:
(c) Incharge

43. Technical, human and conceptual are the types of ………….. .
(a) Technical skills
(b) Managerial skills
(c) Specific
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Managerial skills

44. Which of the following is not the task of Professional management,
(a) Innovation
(b) Renewal
(c) Change management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

45. Administration does the function of:
(a) Policymaking
(b) Implementing Plan
(c) Compromising Plan
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Policymaking.

46. Analytical creative and initiative skills comes under which managerial skill.
(a) Technical skills
(b) Leadership skills
(c) Administrative skill
(d) Conceptual skills
Answer:
(d) Conceptual skills.

47. Conceptual skills are generally needed by:
(a) Top-level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle-level management
(d) Both b & c
Answer:
(a) Top-level management

48. Which of the following is the third step in the process of organising.
(a) Determination of activities of the
(b) Co-ordination of activities enterprise
(c) Assignment of the groups of activities
(d) Delegation of authority to individuals
Answer:
(c) Assignment of the groups of activities.

49. Behaviourahst approach was given by:
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) R.C. Dewis
(c) A.H. Maslow
(d) Henry Mintzberg
Answer:
(a) Elton Mayo.

50. Socialist and Psychologist contribution to behaviouralist approach is given by:
(a) A.H. Maslow
(b) Henry Mintzberg
(c) Me Gregor
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

51. Who coined the word POSDCORB about functions of management?
(a) Henry Lawrence Gantt
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Newmann and Summer
(d) Luther Gulick.
Answer:
(d) Luther Gulick coined the word POSDCORB using the initial letters of Management functions
P Planning
O Organising
S Staffing
D Directing
Co. Co-ordinating
R Reporting
B Budgeting.

52. Management is a/an :
(a) Exact science
(b) Interdisciplinary science
(c) Science as well as are
(d) B & C both.
Answer:
(d) Management is an interdisciplinary science it draws freely from other disciplines, such as economics, sociology and psychology and the fact is that science is a body of knowledge, while art denotes the mode of practical application of knowledge. Hence, B & C both is correct answer.

53. Who corrected the difficulties of Taylor’s differential piece rate system?
(a) Henry Lawrence Gantt
(b) Henri Fayol
(c) Newmann and Summer
(d) Max Weber
Answer:
(a) Henry Lawrence Gantt for instance corrected to some extent the difficulties of Taylor’s differential piece rate ‘ system where two rates of wage, one lower and one higher are fixed. Those who fail in attaining the standard, are paid at lower rate and those exceeding the standard or just attaining the standard get higher rate’ by devising a new method known as the “task and bonus plan”.

54. Which one of the following definitions of management is given by Henry Fayol?
(a) Management is to forecast, to plan, to organise, to command, to coordinate and control activities of others.
(b) The process of getting things done by the people and for the people
(c) The functions of getting things done through people and directing efforts of individuals towards a common objective.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) According to Henry Fayol, management is “to manage is to forecast, and to plan, to organise to command, to co-ordinate and to command”.

55. Who distinguished between ‘principles’ and ‘elements’ of management?
(a) Fredrick Taylor
(b) Newmann and Summer
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) Henry Lawrence Gantt.
Answer:
(c) Henry Fayol distinguished between principles and elements of
management, using the former for rules and guides, and the element of management for its functions. He grouped these elements into five managerial functions as:
– Planning
– Organising
– Commanding
– Co-ordinating
– Controlling

56. At which level of management hierarchy intellectual skill is the most important & vital?
(a) Lower
(b) Middle
(c) Higher
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) The top-level managers require more conceptual skills and less technical skills. Thus, intellectual skills are most vital for higher level of management since they have to make plans keeping in mind the whole organisation.

57. Superior – Subordinate theory was given by.
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) V. A. Graicunas
(c) Koontz O’ Donnel
(d) Joseph Jerard.
Answer:
(a) Henry Fayol gave the 14 principles of management among which one is Scalar chain which refers to superior-subordinate relations. throughout the organisation. It should be short-circuited and not to be carried to the extent it proves detrimental to the business.

58. Which of the following is a concept given by Frederick Taylor?
(a) Division of work
(b) Unity of command
(c) Stopwatch study
(d) None.
Answer:
(c) Fredrick Taylor gave the following principles and elements of management-

  • Separation of planning and doing.
  • Replacement of old rule of thumb by scientific method.
  • Scientific selection and training of workers.
  • Absolute co-operation between labour and management in work performance.
  • Determining time standard for each job through stopwatch study.
  • Introduction of system of functional foremanship.
  • Differential piece rates of wage payment.

59. Management is concerned with the …………. .
(a) Executive Governing
(b) Implementing planning
(c) Policy implementation
(d) Policy making.
Answer:
(c) Management is a dynamic process because it keeps on changing with the changes which takes place in environment and as well as a continuous process because it is required until the goal of organisation is achieved. Hence, both the processes are related with management, thus option C is correct i.e. both fat & fb

60. Which theory is known as the core of management?
(a) Operational Approach.
(b) Mathematical Approach.
(c) Group Behaviour Approach
(d) Decision Theory Approach.
Answer:
(c) Management is a lower level function, it only directs and guides the operations of an organisation towards realizing goals set forth by the administration. Administration is concerned with policy making whereas management is concerned with policy implementation.

61. It is defined as a systematized body of knowledge through application of a scientific method in one department of enquiry.
(a) Science
(b) Management as a science
(c) Only (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) Decision theory approach is known as the core of management. They concentrate on rational decision making, selection from among possible alternatives of a course of action or policy.

62. Administration is mostly used at of management.
(a) Top level
(b) Lower level
(c) Middle level
(d) All levels.
Answer:
(a) Science is defined as a systematized body of knowledge through application of a scientific method in one department of enquiry.

63. ‘Getting things done through and with the people is given by:
(a) Koontz and O’Donnell
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Haimann
(d) Hicks.
Answer:
(a) Administration is a process of laying down broad policies and objectives of the organisation. It is a top-level function. It is mainly concerned with policymaking.

64. Who is the father of Scientific Management?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Fedrick Taylor
(c) Fedrick Lawrance Cantt
(d) Fedrick Gillbath
Answer:
(a) Koontz and O’Donnell states that Management means, “Getting things done through and with people”. ‘

65. Which approach involves making generalization from case study to _ establish theories as a useful guide?
(a) Group behaviour approach
(b) Decision theory approach
(c) Empirical approach
(d) Operational approach.
Answer:
(b) Frederick Taylor is popularly known as the ‘father of scientific management.

66. ‘The process of getting things done by the people and through the people” is given by:
(a) Hick
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Koontz O’Donnell
(d) Haimann.
Answer:
(c) Scholars belonging to Empirical Approach believed that clear understanding of the management theories can only be developed by the study and analysis of cases and comparative approach. In this approach, they intend to make some generalisations from case study with view to establishing theories as useful guides for future course of action.

67. ‘To manage is to forecast and to plan, to organize, to command, to co-ordinate and to command” is given by?
(a) Haimann
(b) Luther Gulick
(c) Newmann and Summer
(d) Henry Fayol.
Answer:
(a) Hick defines management as “the process of getting things done by the people and through the people.”

68. “Knowhow and skill” are the features of:
(a) Management as a Science
(b) Management as an Art
(c) Management as a Profession
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) According to Henry Fayol, “to manage is to forecast, and to plan, to organize, to command, to co-ordinate and to command.”

69. Which word did Luther Gulick coin, using the initial letters of management functions?
(a) POSCRD
(b) POSBRD
(c) POSCARB
(d) POSDCORB.
Answer:
(d) Luther Gulick coined the word POSDCORB using the initial letters of management functions:
P = Planning
O = Organising
S = Staffing
D = Directing
Co = Co-ordinating
R = Reporting
B = Budgeting

70. The principles of unity of command and unity of direction was given by:
(a) W.F. Taylor
(b) Lyndall Urwick
(c) George Tenny
(d) Henry fayol.
Answer:
(d) Henry Fayol is popularly known as father of unlearn management theory. He suggested 14 principles of management; which includes Unity of command & Unity of direction.
(a) Some of the essentials of a good advertisement are:

  • It should be targeted to improve sales of product.
  • It should be prepared by professional agencies.
  • It must leave a positive impact over sales.
  • It may be expensive for small enterprises.

71. Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) Advertisements are never targeted to improve sales
(b) Advertisements are prepared by professional agencies
(c) Advertisements make positive impact on sales
(d) Advertisements are expensive.
Answer:
(d) Henry Fayol, “father of unlearned modern management theory” suggested 14 principles of management.

72. How many principles of management were suggested by Henry fayol?
(a) 13
(b) 16
(c) 12
(d) 14.
Answer:
(c) According to Katz, “Managerial skills can be technical, human and conceptual”. Hence, option c is correct.

73. Greek work ‘Nomos’ means:
(a) Controlling
(b) Planning
(c) Organizing
(d) Management.
Answer:
(d) The Greek word ‘nomos’ means Management.

74. Who gave manager’s role three phases:
(a) Frederick Taylor
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Henry Mintzberg
(d) Luther Gulick.
Answer:
(c) According to Henry Mintzberg, a manager’s work role has three phases:

  1. Interpersonal role
  2. Informational role
  3. Decisional role

75. Technical, human, and conceptual are type:
(a) Specific
(b) Technical Skills
(C) Managerial Skills
(d) All are applicable
Answer:
(c) Essential skills which every manager needs for doing better management are called as Managerial Skills. Managerial skills are classified as technical, human and conceptual by Katz.

76. The essential skills which every manàger needs for doing better management is known as:
(a) Leadership skills
(b) Teaching skills
(c) Professional skills
(d) Managerial skills.
Answer:
(d) The essential skills which every manager needs for doing better management are called as Managerial Skills.

77. ‘Luther Gulick coined the term:
(a) POSDCORBS
(b) POSD
(C) PODSCORB
(d) POSDCORB
Answer:
(d) ‘Luther Gulick’ coined the word ‘POSDCORB’ using initial litters of management functions:
(P) – Planning
(O) – Organising
(S) – Staffing
(D) – Directing
(CO) – Co-ordinating
(R) – Reporting
(B) – Budgeting

78. Interpersonal, informational and decisional roles are the three phases of a manager’s work role.. This theory was given by:
(a) Henry Mintzberg
(b) Koontz O’ Donnell
(c) Luther Guhok
(d) Henry Fayol.
Answer:
(a) According to Henry Mintzberg, a managers work role has three phases which include Interpersonal role, Informational role and decisional role which thereby focuses in contact and dealings with other people, understanding of his organisation and role of initiating change, taking risk and performing role of allocator, negotiator as well.

79. Greek word “Nomos means:
(a) Management
(b) Organising
(c) Controlling
(d) Planning.
Answer:
(a) The word “management” has its origin from the greek word ‘nomos’ which means management. It involves not only a function but also the people who discharge it. It Is management that provides planning, organization and direction which are necessary for business operations.

80. Which word did Luther Gulick coin, using the initial letters of management functions?
(a) POSDCORB
(b) POSCARB
(c) POSCRD
(d) POSBRD.
Answer:
(a) Luther Gulick coined the word POSDCORB using the initial letters of management functions:
Planning(P),
Organising(O),
Staffing(S),
Directing(D),
Coordinating (Co),
Reporting (R) and
Budgeting (B).

81. Who has defined management as the process of getting things done by the people and through the people?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Hick
(c) Koontz & O’Donnell
(d) Haimann
Answer:
(b) Hick defines management as the process of getting things done by the people and through the peopls.

82. Which of the following refers to superior-subordinate relations, throughout the organisation? .
(a) Scalar chain
(b) Equity
(c) Esprit de corp
(d) Order
Answer:
(a) Scalar Chain: it refers to superior-subordinate relationships throughout the organisation. It should be short circulated and not be carried to the extent that it proves detrimental to the business.

83. Which of the following is not a principle given by Henry Fayol?
(a) Unity of Direction
(b) Unity of Command
(c) Positive Attitude
(d) Division of world.
Answer:
Fayol observed that the importance of managerial ability increases as one goes up the echelons of management hierarchy. He also emphasised the need for training in management for which development of management theory is essential. On the basis of his experiences and foresight into the field of management, Fayol suggested the following fourteen principles of management. Thus, positive attitude is none of the principles by Fayol.

84. The definition of management Getting things done through and with people’ was given by:
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) Koontz & O’ Donnell
(c) Luther Gulick
(d) Henry fayol.
Answer:
(b) Koontz & O’Donnell state that management means, “Getting things done through and with people”. Thus, option b is correct.

85. The fast that Management draws its body freely from other disciplines such as economics, sociology, and psychology makes it:
(a) Interdisciplinary
(b) Science
(c) Profession
(d) Art.
Answer:
(a) The Stream of Management draws certain aspects from various disciplines. Hence, making it the interdisciplinary science.

86. How many principles of management were suggested by Henry Fayol?
(a) 16
(b) 13
(c) 12
(d) 14
Answer:
(d) Henry Fayol suggested 14 principles of management.

87. Resolving a conflict can be considered as a part of which of the following function?
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Organising
(d) Directing
Answer:
(b) Staffing or Human Resource Management is a-people centred, pervasive function and thus it also includes resolving of conflict among personnel and worker.

88. Which one of the following acronyms did Luther Gulick coin using initial letters of Management’s Functions?
(a) POSBRD
(b) POSDBRD
(c) POSDCORB
(d) POCDSORB
Answer:
(c) Luther Gullick coin using initial letters of Management’s functions is
POSDCORB where P- Planning O – Organisation
S – Staffing
D-Directing
CO-Co-ordinating
R- Reporting
B-Budgeting

89. Management is an Art because it involves use of:
(a) Experience and Intelligence
(b) Creativity and Personalization
(c) Skills and knowhow
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Art means skill development and know-how to tackle situations by techniques. Management is an Art and Science both. Management is an Art because it involves use of skill and know-how to tackle situations by different techniques and it is science because it establishes relation between cause and its results.

90. Who developed the idea of management by objectives (MBO)?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) William C. Douglas
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Peter F. Drucker
Answer:
(d) Peter F. Drucker developed the idea of management by objectives 4 (MBO). In his book ‘The Practice of Management in 1954.

91. Who define the management as, “ Getting things done through and with people”?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Koontz O’ Donnell
(c) Hick
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) According to Koontz 6’ Donnell, “Management is an art of getting things done through the people and with the people.”

92. Management is a/an
(a) Science
(b) Art
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Management is a science while drafting strategies or planning and art while executing them, hence it is both science and art as well.

93. Who was given the lower esteem to upper esteem?
(a) Me Groger
(b) Maslow
(c) Elton Mayo
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Maslow suggest the hierarchy of needs that emphasize the need for self-esteem and self-respect (Esteem needs are the basis of human desires from lower to upper).

94. The principle of “division of work” was given by
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Federick W. Taylor
(c) M.C. Groger
(d) Henry Lawrence Gantt.
Answer:
(a) 14 Principles of Business Management provided by Henry Fayol are as follows:

  • Division of work
  • Authority and Responsibility
  • Discipline
  • Unity of Command
  • Unity of Direction
  • Subordination
  • Remuneration (viii) Centralisation
  • Scalar Chain
  • Order
  • Equity
  • Stability (xiii) Initiative
  • Esprit De Corps

95. Which principle of management suggest the discipline of team spirit.
(a) Esprit de corps
(b) Scalar chain
(c) Remuneration ‘
(d) ‘Division of work
Answer:
(a) Esprit de Corps Principle emphasises the need for teamwork and the importance of effective communication in obtaining it.

96. to involves outlining a vision of what can be achieved, focusing on interpersonal relations by communicating with each employee, and motivating and inspiring people to perform better.
(a) Planning,
(b) Organising
(c) Leading
(d) Controlling.
Answer:
(c) Leading is to involves outlining a vision of what can be achieved, focusing on interpersonal relations by communicating with each employee, and motivating and inspiring people to perform better.

97. Theory X is developed by:
(a) McGregor
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) F.W. Taylor
(d) William Douglas
Answer:
(a) Theory of X and Theory of Y is developed by Psychologist Dauglas – Me Gregor to explain how managers beliefs about what motivates their people can affect their management style.

98. The Greek word ‘nomos’ means –
(a) Control
(b) Norms
(c) Management
(d) Business
Answer:
(c) The Greek word ‘Nomos” means ‘Management’ in an ordinary form of english language.

99. Differential piece rate system was devised by –
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Henri Lawrence Gantt
(c) Frederick Taylor
(d) Peter Drucker
Answer:
(c) Differential Piece Rate System was devised by ‘Frederick Taylor’.

100. Budget preparation is primarily a planning process whereas its administration is a part of –
(a) Implementation
(b) Controlling
(c) Payments,
(d) Approval Process.
Answer:
3. (b) Budget preparation is a primarily a planning process whereas its administration is a part of ‘Controlling’.

101. Fathers of scientific management is:
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Frederick Taylor
(c) Luther Gulick
(d) Adam Smith.
Answer:
(b) Frederick Taylor who is popularly known as the Father of Scientific Management. The goal of Frederick Taylor’s (1901) scientific management was to use systematic study to find the “one best way” of doing each task. He gives four principles of management.

102. General and Industrial Management
(a) Luther Gulick
(b) Newman and Summer
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) Frederick Taylor.
Answer:
(c) As a manager Henry Fayol came to the conclusion that there was a single administrative science application to all types of organisations. In the year 1916, he published his well-known work in French entitled “Administration Industrielle etGenera/e”(industrial and General Administration).

103. What is the Mission Statement of ICSI:
(a) To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance
(b) Dreamers Dream
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) To develop high calibre professionals facilitates good corporate governament.
Answer:
(d) Mission Statement of ICSI – “To develop high calibre professionals facilitating good corporate governance” as the mission statement describes the desired future of the business.

104. Which one is the general forces?
(a) Customers
(b) Suppliers
(c) Legal
(d) Investor
Answer:
(c) General forces which effect the organisation indirectly they are classified as.

  • Socio-cultural and Demographics
  • Technology
  • Economic conditions
  • Ecology and Physical Environment ‘
  • Political and Legal Acronym “STEEP”

105. The word ‘nomes’ has been derived from? ‘
(a) Greek word
(b) French word
(c) Latin word
(d) German word
Answer:
(a) The word “Management” has its origin in the Greek word “Nomos’ which means ‘Management’.

106. ‘POSDCORB’ is coined by?
(a) Luther Gulick
(b) Koontz O Donnel
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Luther Gulick coined POSDCORB using initial letters management functions:
(P) Planning;
(O) Organising;
(S) Staffing;
(D) Directing;
(Co Coordinating;
(R) Reporting;
(B) Budgeting.

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Social Entrepreneurship – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Social Entrepreneurship – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes

Introduction:

  1. Any organization that uses business methods to address a social or environment problem in an innovative way is called social Entrepreneurship.
  2. It is a revolution occurring around the world today, where people from all walk of life are developing and implementing innovative, effective and sustainable solutions in response to social and environmental challenges.
  3. These solutions includes products, services, frameworks and interventions brought to market by both new startup and existing organizations, whether for profit or non-profit.

Definition of Social Entrepreneurship:
Greg Dees, co-founder of the centre for the Advancement of Social Entrepreneurship at Duke University and a member of the Impact

Entrepreneurship advisory board, wrote the definitive definition:
Who is a Social Entrepreneur:

  1. They are individuals and innovative solutions to society’s most pressing social problems.
  2. They are ambitious and persistent, tackling major social issues and offering new ideas for wide-scale change.
  3. They find what is not working and solve the problem by changing the system, spreading the solution, and persuading entire societies to take new leaps.
  4. They often seem to be possessed by their ideas, committing their lives to changing the directions of their field.
  5. They are both visionaries and ultimate realists, concerned with the practical implementation of their vision above all else.
  6. Each social entrepreneur presents ideas that are user friendly, understandable, ethical and engage widespread support in order to maximize the number of local people that will stand up, seize their idea and implement with it.
  7. In other words, every leading social entrepreneur is mass recruiter of local change makers – a role model proving the citizens who channel their passion in to action can do almost anything.
  8. Over the past two decades, the citizen sector has discovered what the business sector learned long ago:“ There is nothing as powerful as a new idea in the hands of a first-class entrepreneur.”

Why “Social” Entrepreneur?

  • Social entrepreneurs act as the change agents for society.
  • A business entrepreneur might create entirely new industries, a social entrepreneur comes up with new solutions to social problems and then implements them on a large scale.

Historical Examples of leading Social Entrepreneurs:
1. Susan B. Anthony (U.S.): Fought for Women’s Rights in the United States, including the right to control property. Helped spearhead adoption of the 19th amendment.

2. Vinoba Bhave (India):

  • Founder and leader of the Land Gift Movement.
  • Caused the redistribution of more than 70,00,000 acres of land to India’s untouchable and landless.

3. Dr. Maria Montessori (Italy):
Developed the Montessori approach to early childhood education.

4. Florence Nightingale (U.K.)
Founder of modern nursing, she established the first school for nurses and fought to improve hospital conditions.

5. Margaret Sanger (U.S.)

  • Founder of the Planned Parenthood Federation of America.
  • She led the movement for family planning efforts around the world.

6. John Muir (U.S.):

  • He is a Naturalist and conservationist.
  • He established the National Park System and helped found the Sierra Club.

7. Lean Mormet (France):

  • He is responsible for the reconstruction of the french economy following World War II, including the establishment of the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC).
  • The ECSC and the European Common Market were direct precursors of the European Union.

Social Entrepreneurs play the role of change agents in the social sector by:

  • Adopting a mission to create and sustain value.
  • Recognizing and relentlessly pursuing new opportunities to serve that mission.
  • Engaging in a process of continuous innovation, adoption and learning.
  • Acting boldly without being limited by resources currently in hand.
  • Exhibiting heightened accountability to the constituencies served and for the outcomes created.

How to identify a social entrepreneurship opportunity:

  • Social entrepreneurship is developing dynamically in Europe, solving the problems of unemployment, social securities, civic engagement.
  • The main mission of social entrepreneurship is to bring benefits to society.
  • Entrepreneurship with a social aspect has great potential around the world and in Ukraine as well.
    Social enterprises operate in complex environment.
  • Some may be competing against fully commercial businesses and some against state subsidized services.
  • Creating Social values becomes the main driver for social, entrepreneurs, alongside achieving the relevant financial substainability to maintain that value.
  • Several types of market niche filled by social enterprises can include.

1. Markets serving the very poor, where business margins are low and risks tend to be high. In some sectors such as micro financing.

  • There is an on-going debate as to whether a fully commercial operation can fulfill the needs to the poorest client groups more and effectively than modified NGO models.
  • Examples: Micro clinics run in low income areas; selling affordable irrigation tools to poor, smallholder farmers.

2. Other new and challenging markets where high costs may be incurred to stimulate demand and create new opportunities to the need to overcome stigma, acclimatize clients to more complex technology, challenge perceptions that services should be provided by the state.

Example: Social entrepreneurs which are operating in this market niche are providing counseling services to the people living with HIV, AIDS and other socially managed groups.

3. Markets for products producing environmental benefits but which may not be fully commercially competitive. Clearly, many environmentally beneficial business lines are fully commercially viable.

Creating a Social Business Model:

  • Social enterprises apply business solutions to social problems.
  • Since there are no shareholders in a non-profit organization, the profits from the related social enterprise are completely re-invested in the work of the organization.

A business model includes two key elements:
1. An operating strategy:
It includes internal organizational structure and external partnerships that are crucial for creating the organization’s intended impact.

2. A resource strategy:
It defines where and on what terms the organization will acquire the resource it needs to do its work.

A social enterprise can be integrated integrated with the non-profit organization in one of several ways.

Embedded Integrated External
1. The enterprise and the social program are one and the same. The business activities overlap with the social program. Social and business activities are separate and may not be related to the mission of the organization.
2. The business is created to serve clients. The business is created as a funding mechanism and to enhance the mission of the organization. The business is created mainly as a funding mechanics to support social activities.

Social Enterprise New Balance Sheet:

  • By raising a portion of the capital it needs from equity investors. A risky business can then borrow money from debt investors who seek predictable returns.
  • In the emerging model of social enterprise capital markets, donors play the role of equity holders, providing capital that supports an enterprise.
  • The tools that are taking social entrepreneurs in the direction are as follows.
    Social Entrepreneurship – Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes 1

Funding Social Ventures: Strategies for success:

  • Social enterprises are entrepreneurial organisations that innovate to solve problems.
  • They include non profit and for profit ventures and their returns social benefits and financial revenues.
  • Some social enterprises earn a profit that is sufficient to get the business funded by investors.
  • They might provide goods and services to customers willing to pay a premium for a socially beneficial product green energy, say or organic food. They might sell an essential service to poor customers at decent profits.
  • Social enterprises cannot fund themselves entirely through sales or investment.
  • They are not profitable enough to access traditional financial markets resulting in financial social return gap.
  • A lack of funding opportunities is one of the major disadvantages that social enterprises face.

Innovation in Practice:
Some of the more forward – thinking foundations and social investors have realized that the current methods of financing social enterprises are inefficient, for the enterprises and themselves have started working to broadened the access to capital.

There are some of the mechanisms they are employing.

Loan Guarantees:

  • The Bill and Melinda Gates foundation now issues loan guarantees, rather than direct funds.
  • Its first guarantee allowed a charter school in Houston to raise $67 million in commercial debt at a low rate.
  • It saves the school (and its donors) almost $10 million in interest payments.

Quasi equity debt:

  • A quasi equity debt severity is particularly useful for enterprises that are legally structured as non-profits and therefore cannot obtain equity capital.
  • The important characteristics of equity investment
  • Its returns are indexed to the organization’s financial performance.

Pooling – Techniques that involve pooling funds have also opened new financial doors to Social enterprises, because the pooling institution can tailor its liabilities to the needs of different kinds of investors.

Social Impact Bonds:

  • The social impact bond, deserves special notice for its ability to help governments fund infrastructure and services, specially as public budgets are cut and municipal bond markets are stressed.
  • Launched in UK in 2010, this type of bond is sold to private investors who are paid a return only if public project succeeds.
  • The government, for its part, pays a fixed return to investors for verifiable results.
  • U.S. for an instance, issuing “space bonds” that would pay a return only if a manned were to reach Mars on schedule and under budget.
  • Challenges for the Indian Social Enterprise Sector.

Major Challenges that this new age social enterprise sector faces are:

Limited access to early stage capital due to difficulties faced by domestic and foreign investment.
Indian regulations still don’t formally recognize for-profit social enterprise.

Social Entrepreneurship MCQ Questions

1. Any organization that uses business methods to address a social or environmental problem in an innovative way is know as:
(a) Innovation
(b) Enterprise
(c) Social Entrepreneurship
(d) Entrepreneurship
Answer:
(c) Social Entrepreneurship

2. Who act as a change agent of the society?
(a) God
(b) Human Beings
(c) Investors
(d) Social
Answer:
(d) Social

3. Which among the following is a social Entrepreneur ________.
(a) Susan B. Anthony
(b) Vinoba Bhave
(c) John Muir
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

4. Social Impact Bonds where launched in:
(a) US
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) Australia
Answer:
(b) UK

5. ________ is a form of Pooling Techniques.
(a) Bonds
(b) Micro Finance
(c) Small funding
(d) Collective Investment
Answer:
(b) Micro Finance

6. ________ is one of the challenges facing a social entrepreneur.
(a) United access to early stage capital
(b) Development of new product
(c) Maintaining profits
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) United access to early stage capital

7. Which of the following is a key element of Social Business Model.
(a) An operating strategy
(b) A resource strategy
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

8. Social enterprises are entrepreneurial organizations that ________ to solve problems.
(a) Think
(b) Foster
(c) Innovate
(d) Wants
Answer:
(c) Innovate

9. Which of the following is a major disadvantages that social enterprises face.
(a) Lack of innovation
(b) Lack of Funding opportunities
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Lack of Funding opportunities

10. ________ is particularly useful for enterprises that are legally structured as non profits and therefore cannot obtain equity capital.
(a) Quasi equity debt security
(b) Loan security
(c) Deemed security
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Quasi equity debt security

11. The innovative methods used in social enterprises to broader the access of capital includes:
(a) Loan Guarantee
(b) Quasi equity Debt
(c) Pooling
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

12. The funding of social enterprise is essentially a problem of:
(a) Availability of Investment options
(b) Financial structuring
(c) Profits
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Financial structuring

13. The key to managing return or funding in social enterprises is to offer ________.
(a) Consistent risks and returns to all investors.
(b) Different risks and returns to different kinds of investors.
(c) Returns on the basis of type of Social enterprise.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Different risks and returns to different kinds of investors.

14. In a social enterprise business model measurable impact is created by the generation of ________.
(a) Social Value
(b) Economic Value
(c) Service Value
(d) Funding Value
Answer:
(a) Social Value

15. As a Socia Entrepreneur ________ fought for Women’s Rights in the United States, including the right to control property and helped spearhead adoption for the 19th amendment.
(a) Dr. Maria Montessori
(b) Vinoba Bhave
(c) Susan B. Anthony
(d) Margaret Sanger
Answer:
(c) Susan B. Anthony

16. What would a return only if a manned mission were to reach Mars on schedule and under budget ________.
(a) Mars Bond
(b) Planet Bond
(c) Space Bond
(d) Satellite Bone
Answer:
(c) Space Bond

17. Who issues loan guarantees rather than direct funds.
(a) George F. Terry
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Bill and Melinda Gates
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Bill and Melinda Gates

18. Which of the following tools of Innovation are in Practice.
(a) Quasi – equity Debt
(b) Pooling
(c) Social Impact Bond
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

CS Foundation Business Management Ethics and Entrepreneurship Notes