NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The method of preparing compost with the help of earthworms is called
(a) composting
(b) vermicomposting
(c) manuring
(d) decomposing.
Solution:
(b) Vermicomposting is the method of preparing compost with the help of redworms or earthworms.
Steps for vermicomposting are as follows :
(i) Dig a pit in a suitable place in your garden.
(ii) Spray sand on the floor of the pit.
(iii) Add vegetable peels and fruits waste in the pit.
(iv) Sprinkle water to keep it moist.
(v) Place redworms in the pit.
(vi) Cover loosely with a gunny bag or a layer of grass.
(vii) Leave it for 3-4 weeks. After 3-4 weeks vermicompost is ready.

Question 2.
If you dump kitchen waste in a pit, it may, after sometime
(a) convert into compost
(b) convert into vermicompost
(c) remain as such
(d) remain forever in its dried form.
Solution:
(a) Kitchen waste is biodegradable so it readily gets converted into compost. Vermicompost is formed when we introduce earthworms or redworms in the pit along with the waste.

Question 3.
Which of the following activities does not reflect responsible behaviour with regard to waste disposal?
(a) Goods carried m paper bags or cloth bags.
(b) Waste collected in polythene bags for disposal.
(c) Waste separated into those that degrade and those that do not.
(d) Making handicrafts with used up notebooks.
Solution:
(b) Polythene bags are non-biodegradable. They remain as such in the environment and harm it. So waste collected in polythene bags reflects irresponsible behaviour.

Question 4.
Paheli gave the following ill effects of the practice of burning dried leaves and other plant parts.
(i) Burning degrades the soil.
(ii) Burning produces harmful gases/fumes.
(iii) Precious raw materials to obtain manure at low cost is lost.
(iv) Lot of heat is generated unnecessarily.
The correct reasons of why we should not burn leaves are
(a) i, ii and iv only
(b) i, ii, iii and iv
(c) ii and iii only
(d) ii, iii and iv only.
Solution:
(b): Burning of dried leaves and other plant parts produces smoke and harmful gases/fumes that generate a lot of heat and are harmful to our health. Burning degrades the soil and also results in the loss of precious raw material that could be converted into useful compost.

Question 5.
A garbage collector separate items mentioned below in the garbage into red, green and blue containers for their transfer to
landfill, composting pit, and recycling unit respectively.
Items:
(i) Plastic bags
(ii) Newspaper and journals
(iii) Screw and nuts
(iv) Vegetable peels
(v) Metal chips
(vi) Egg shells
Which item was transferred to which bin?

RED GREEN BLUE
(a) (i) and  (iv) (ii) and (iii) (v) and (vi)
(b) (i) and  (iii) (ii) and (v) (iv) and (vi)
(c) (i), (iii) and (v) (iv) and (vi) (ii) only
(d) (i) and  (v) (ii) and (iv) (iii) only

Solution:
(c): Plastic bags, metal chips, screw and nuts are non-degradable so they should be transferred to a landfill. Vegetable peels and egg shells are biodegradable so they should be transferred to a composting pit. Newspapers and journals can be recycled, so they should be transferred to recycling unit.

Question 6.
The steps required for conversion of kitchen garbage into manure are given below in a jumbled form.
(i) Put garbage in a pit.
(ii) Cover the bottom of the pit with sand.
(iii) Cover the pit loosely with a gunny bag or grass.
(iv) Add worms.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the above steps?
(a) (ii); (i); (iii); (iv)
(b) (i); (ii); (iii); (iv)
(c) (ii); (iv); (i); (iii)
(d) (iv); (i); (ii); (iii)
Solution:
(None) : The correct option should be (ii); (i); (iv); (iii). Refer to answer 1.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 7.
Read the items mentioned in columns-l and II and fill in the related process in the column III.

Column I Column II Column III
(a) Organic waste Earthworms (i) …………..
(b) Garbage Dig pit and fill with garbage (ii) …………..
(c) Old newspaper Paper bags (iii)…………..

Solution:

Column I Column II Column III
(a) Organic waste Earthworms (i)Vermicom­posting
(b) Garbage Dig pit and fill with garbage (ii) Landfill
(c) Old newspaper Paper bags (iii)Recycling

Question 8.
Correct the definitions of certain terms given below by changing only one word.
(i) Compost: Substances converted into manure for use in industries.
(ii) Lanfill: Garbage buried under water in an area.
(iii) Recycling: Reuse of unused material in the same or another form.
Solution:
(i) Compost: Substances converted into manure for use in agricultural fields.
(ii) Landfill: Garbage buried under soil in an area.
(iii) Recycling – Reuse of used materials in the same or another form.

Question 9.
Provide the suitable term that expresses the meaning of each of the following statements.
(a) Greeting cards made from newspaper.
(b) Contents of the waste bins.
(c) Worms converting certain kinds of waste into manure.
(d) An area where a lot of garbage is collected, spread out and covered with soil.
Solution:
(a) Recycling
(b) Garbage
(c) Vermicomposting
(d) Landfill

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 10.
To what use can you put the following kinds of garbage and how?
(i) Rotting smelly garbage
(ii) Dry leaves collected in a garbage
(iii) Old newspapers
Solution:
(i) Rotting smelly garbage can be converted into compost or vermicompost. Compost can be made by hurrying the organic waste (vegetable peels, fruit peels, dry leaves etc.) into a pit and covering it with soil. Vermicompost is made by using redworms-as fellows:

  • Dig a pit or keep a wooden box in a suitable place in your garden.
  • Spread 1 or 2 cm thick layer of sand or a net or chicken mesh at the bottom of the pit or the box.
  • Spread the rotting smelly garbage along with dry leaves, dried stalks of plants, dried animal dung etc. over the layer of sand.
  • Sprinkle some water over it to make the layer moist, and keep the layer loose.
  •  Put redworms in the pit.
  •  Cover the pit loosely with a gunny bag or an old sheet of cloth or a layer of grass.
  • Compost will be ready in about a month (3-4 weeks).

(ii) Dry leaves collected in a garbage can be converted into compost or vermicompost. Refer to answer 10 (i).
(iii) Old newspapers can be used for covering the books, for making the paper bags, for making paper pulp for use in handicrafts and also for making recycled paper. For recycling, old newspapers can be given to the kabadiwala (junk dealer).

Question 11.
Paheli was writing a letter to her friend. She crumpled and threw the first draft of her letter on the floor as it had become untidy. Similarly she crumpled and threw 6 more papers on the ground. In the end, she picked them up and put them in a polythene bag and threw it on the road outside her house. Do you think Paheli’s action were responsible? What would you have done if you were in her place?
Solution:
Paheli’s action shows an irresponsible behaviour. By doing so, she is adding the garbage to the environment. Instead of throwing the used papers, she can use them in different ways. Moreover, by throwing polythene bag on the road, she is adding non-biodegradable waste to the environment. If I were, at her place, then I would have either used the waste paper for doing rough work or converted the waste paper into paper pulp to make handicraft items or recycled paper.

Question 12.
Read the poem written below and then answer the questions from the information gathered from the book or elsewhere.
NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out img-1
(i) Name the two kinds of waste that need to be separated from each other in two different waste bins.
(ii) Name two items of waste each that need to be sent to a (a) landfill, (b) for composting
Solution:
(i) The two kinds of waste that need to be separated from each other in two different waste bind are named as biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable waste. Two different coloured waste bins, green and blue can be used to separate garbage. The green bin would contain biodegradable waste that can be converted into compost by bacteria or earthworms. The blue bin would contain dry recycleable waste. The waste in green bin is used for composting while that in blue bin is used for landfill.
(ii) (a) The two items that can be sent to landfill are empty glass bottles and plastic plates.
(b) Kitchen wastes and animal dung can be sent for composting.

Question 13.
Beera, a farmer would clear his field every day, and burn dry leaves fallen on the ground. After some time he found that those living in huts near his field were suffering from cough and breathing problems.
(i) Can you explain why?
(ii) Also suggest an environment friendly way to dispose the dry leaves.
Solution:
(i) Burning of dry leaves produces harmful fumes and gases which cause cough, breathing problems etc. People living in huts near Beera’s field suffered from these problems as they inhaled the harmful fumes and gases released by the burning of dry leaves.
(ii) Dry leaves can be put in a pit for composting. Composting is a method of preparing manure. It is an environment friendly way to dispose the dry leaves. The manure produced from the dry leaves can be used by farmers in the agriculture field for enrichment of the soil.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 14.
Put a tick () against the garbage items given in Table 16.1 which could be converted into manure. Put a cross () against the others.

Garbage Items Make manure or not
(i) Egg shells
(ii) Straw
(iii) Dry flowers
(iv) Pebbles
(v) Broken pieces of glass
(vi) Nails and screws
(vii) Plastic bangles
(viii) Left over food
(ix) Steel broken vessel
(x) Dead animals

Solution:

Garbage Items Make manure or not
(i) Egg shells
(ii) Straw V
(iii) Dry flowers V
(iv) Pebbles X
(v) Broken pieces of glass X
(vi) Nails and screws X
(vii) Plastic bangles X
(viii) Left over food  ✓
(ix) Steel broken vessel X
(x) Dead animals

 

Question 15.
The pie charts A and B shown in Fig. 16.1 are based on waste segregation method adopted by two families X and Y respectively.
NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out Q15
Which of the two families X or Y do you think is more environmentally conscious and why?
Solution:
Family X is more environmentally conscious because it segregated biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances separately, and on the basis of the further use of the waste as for composting, recycling or landfill. It disposed kitchen waste (biodegradable) and polythene bags (non-biodegradable) separately unlike family Y who disposed kitchen waste and polythene bags together as one waste.

Question 16.
Given below are steps in vermicomposting and each step has been given an alphabet. Rearrange the steps in the correct sequence and write the alphabets on the chart provided. One step is done for you.
F Dig a pit in a suitable place, in your garden.
C Spread sand on the floor of the pit.
E Add vegetable peels and fruits waste in the pit.
A  Sprinkle water to keep it moist
D Place red worms in the pit
B Cover with a gunny bag or grass
Step 1 – F
2 –
3 –
4 –
5 –
6 –
Solution:
Step 1 – F
Step 2 – C
Step 3 – E
Step 4 – A
Step 5 – D
Step 6 – B

Question 17.
Write 3 sentences on what comes to your mind when you chance to see the following.

  1. A rag picker.
  2. A cow eating a polythene bag.
  3. Foul odour emanating from garbage at the entrance of your house.

Solution:

  1. (a)
    (i) A rag picker represents poor people or poverty around us.
    (ii) He removes the garbage generated by us by sorting out the recyclable waste from non- recyclable waste.
    (iii) He is exposing himself to the harmful substances generated by the solid waste.
  2. (b)
    (i) A cow eating a polythene bag shows irresponsible behaviour of humans towards disposal of garbage in the form of polythene bag.
    (ii) A cow eating a polythene is exposing itself to hazardous material generating from garbage.
    (iii) There is a possibility of polythene bag choking in the gut of animal which can lead to its death.
  3. (c)
    (i) Foul odour emanating from garbage at the entrance of our house represents the production of large quantity of waste.
    (ii) It shows our irresponsibility towards garbage disposal, as we are expecting others to clear the waste generated by us.
    (iii) The foul garbage shows unhealthy surrounding with unpleasant sight which would lead to the spread of diseases. It shows the irresponsible behaviour of the municipality concerned as they should get the garbage cleared from the city.

Question 18.
Beautiful hand crafted articles like boxes and toys are made of paper pulp in our country. Can you explain how paper pulp which is made from paper can be used to make hard boxes and other articles?
Solution:
The paper pulp obtained from paper is mixed with glue and saw-dust. Glue and saw-dust make the paper hard. For making hard boxes, toys, etc. few coats of this hard pulp is applied over the framework. It is then allowed to dried up. Once the pulp is dried up, hard boxes and toys can further be processed.

Question 19.
Recently, a ban on plastic bags has been imposed in many places? Is the ban justified? Give reasons in three sentences.
Solution:
Yes, a ban on plastic bags is justified because:

  1. Plastic gives out harmful gases on heating or burning. These gases may cause pollution and many health problems including cancer in humans.
  2.  People fill garbage in plastic bags and throw it away on roads and other places like garbage dumps. When stray animals look for food in these bags, they end up swallowing the bags too. This results in their death due to choking.
  3.  Plastic bags thrown away carelessly on roads and other places get into drains and the sewage system. As a result, drains get choked and the. water spills on the roads. During heavy rains, it might even create a flood like situation.

Question 20.
Why should we not burn plastic items?
Solution:
We should not burn plastic items because:

  1. Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance, so it cannot be easily burnt.
  2. On burning, harmful gases and fumes are liberated out which are hazardous to the health of humans and animals and also to the environment.
  3.  The left over burnt pieces of plastic can be eaten by animals which may lead to their death by choking them.
  4.  The ashes left after burning of plastic are toxic in nature and thus, harm the environment.
  5.  Plastic is not environment friendly. Its burning causes soil pollution and air pollution.

Question 21.
What happens when

  1. cooking medium is made to flow down a drain
  2. insecticides, motor oil, paints are poured down the drain
  3. tea leaves, cotton swabs and old soft toys are thrown into the drain.

Solution:

  1. When cooking medium is made to flow down a drain, it may choke the pipes causing drainage problem and water spills. If the cooking medium reaches to the soil, it will clog the pores in the soil causing aeration problems which results in the death of useful microbes present in the soil, decrease in soil fertility and soil pollution.
  2. When insecticides, motor oil and paints are poured down the drain, they may choke the pipes causing drainage problem. On reaching the agricultural field; they clog the pores of soil leading to aeration problem. If the discharge reaches the water bodies, it pollutes the water and may cause various harmful diseases in aquatic animals.
  3. Tea leaves, cotton swabs and old soft toys may choke the drain if they are made to flow down the drain leading to drainage problems.

Question 22.
Answer the following questions in one or two words or sentences.

  1. Why should we prefer to use paper bags rather than polythene bags?
  2. Who, out of the following should properly dispose of th& garbage – father, mother, elder brother, younger sister?
  3. Which one out of beetles, roundworm and earthworm are used for vermicomposting and why?

Solution:

  1. We should prefer to use paper bags rather than polythene bags because paper bags can be recycled and degraded but polythene bags being non-degradable, are harmful for humans, animals, plants and for the environment.
  2. Every member of the family should properly dispose of the garbage as proper garbage disposal is not the responsibility of only one person. It should be a concern of every citizen be it is a mother, father, elder brother or younger sister.
  3. Earthworms are used for vermicomposting because earthworms convert waste from plants and animals or their products into compost.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out will help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 16 Garbage In, Garbage Out, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following parts of our body help us in movement?
(i) Bones
(ii) Skin
(iii) Muscles
(iv) Organs
Choose the correct answer from the option below.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Solution:
(a): Bones form the structural framework of body called skeleton. The skeleton along with muscles, helps our body parts to move. Muscles are like elastic bands which are attached to the bones by means of tough connecting bands called tendons. The muscles move the bones by their pull. Muscles cannot push. Therefore, to move the bone in one direction, at least two sets of muscles are required. A pair of two types of muscles help the bone to move. One of them contracts and becomes shorter, stiffer and thicker. This pulls the bone in one direction. The other muscle of the pair relaxes when one contracts. To move the bone in the opposite direction, the relaxed muscle contracts itself and brings the bone back to its original position. This time, the first muscle is relaxed.

Question 2.
Which of the following joints is immovable?
(a) Shoulder and arm
(b) Knee and joint
(c) Upper jaw and skull
(d) Lower jaw and upper jaw
Solution:
(c): Upper jaw and skull has immovable joints. In this type of joints there is no movement between the bones involved. So, these joints are immovable and fixed.

Question 3.
Which of the following organisms does not have both muscles and skeleton for movement?
(a) Dog
(b) Snail
(c) Earthworm
(d) Human being
Solution:
(None) : Earthworm does not have a skeleton. It has two sets of muscles one that makes it long and thin and the other that makes it fat. The contraction and relaxation of
these muscles help in movement. Snails have exoskeleton and muscles. Human beings and dogs have endoskeleton and muscles.

Question 4.
Underwater divers wear fin-like flippers on their feet to
(a) swim easily in water
(b) look like a fish
(c) walk on water surface
(d) walk over the bottom of the sea(sea bed).
Solution:
(a): While swimming, the muscle in the front part contracts, generating a curve on one side like a wave and the fin-like flippers move on the opposite direction exerting force against the surrounding water that push the underwater divers forward.

Question 5.
Snail moves with the help of its
(a) shell
(b) bone
(c) muscular foot
(d) whole body.
Solution:
(c) : During locomotion, the muscular foot of the snail comes outside and attaches to the ground. It forms a series of a wave like motion which helps the snail move forward. The foot of a snail has a special gland that produces a slimy mucus to make slippery track to help it move smoothly.

Question 6.
How many muscles work together to move a bone?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Solution:
(b): Two
Refer to answer 1.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 7.
Name the type of joint of your hand which help you to grasp a badminton racquet.
Solution:
Hinge joints present in our fingers help us to grasp the things.

Question 8.
What would have happened if our backbone was made of one single bone?
Solution:
We would not have been able to bend and twist our back if our backbone was made of one single bone.

Question 9.
Provide one word answers to the statements given below.

  1. joint which allows movement in all directions.
  2. Hard structure that forms the skeleton.
  3. Part of the body with a fixed joint.
  4. Help in the movement of body by contraction and relaxation.
  5. Bones that join with chest bone at one end and to the backbone at the other end.
  6. Framework of bones which gives shape to our body.
  7. Bones which enclose the organs of our body that lie below the abdomen.
  8. Joint where our neck joins the head.
  9. Part of the skeleton that forms the earlobe.

Solution:

  1. Ball and socket joint
  2. Bone
  3. Upper jaw with skull
  4. Muscles
  5. Ribs
  6. Skeleton
  7. Pelvic bones
  8. Pivotal joint
  9. Cartilage

Question 10.
Write the type of joint which is used for each of the following movements.
(a) A cricket bowler bowls the ball.
(b) A girl moves her head in right and left direction.
(c) A person lifts weights to build up his biceps.
Solution:
(a) Hinge joint and ball and socket joint
(b) Pivotal joint
(c) Hinge joint

Short Anser Type Questions

Question 11.
Match the name of the animals given in Column I with its body parts used for movement given in Column II.

Column I Column II
(a) Human being (i) Fines
(b) Cow (ii) Wings
(c) Snake (iii) Legs
(d) Eagle (iv) Whole body
(e) Fish (v) Limbs

Solution:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (ii)
(e) – (i)

Question 12.
Given below is a list of different types of movements in animals.
[Running, Jumping, Walking, Slithering, Crawling, Flying, Swimming, Creeping]
Write the types of movements seen in each animal.
(a) Duck
(b) Horse
(c) Kangaroo
(d) Snail
(e) Snake
(f) Fish
(g) Human beings
(h) Cockroach
Solution:
(a) Duck – Walking, Flying, Swimming
(b) Horse – Running, Walking
(c) Kangaroo – Jumping
(d) Snail – Creeping, Crawling
(e) Snake – Slithering
(f) Fish – Swimming
(g) Human beings – Walking, Running, Jumping, Swimming, Crawling
(h) Cockroach – Walking, Flying, Running

Question 13.
Boojho fell off a tree and hurt his ankle. On examination the doctor confirmed that the ankle was fractured. How was it detected?
Solution:
Doctor must have observed a swelling in the injured area and taken an X-ray of the ankle. X-ray images show the shapes of the bones in our body. By looking at the x-ray, doctor could have confirmed fracture in the ankle.

Question 14.
Bones are hard structures and cannot be bent. But, we can still bend our elbow, knee, etc. How is this possible?
Solution:
Bending of our body parts such as elbow, knee, back etc. is possible due to the presence of different types of joints between the bones. Elbow and knee are not made up of a single bone but two or more bones which are joined to each other by hinge joint. This joint along with the muscles help us to bend the elbow and knee.

Question 15.
Which type of movement would have been possible if
(a) our elbow had a fixed joint.
(b) we were to have a ball and socket joint between our neck and head.
Solution:
(a) Only those types of movements are possible which can be done without bending our arm like pointing to something etc.
(b) We would be able to rotate our head at 360°.

Question 16.
Earthworms are known as ‘farmer’s friends’. Why?
Solution:
Earthworms are called ‘farmer’s friends’. They improve the texture of soil. By burrowing into the soil, they make it loose, thus allowing air to enter into it and water to drain from it. They also form channels in the soil for roots to spread through. Earthworms also increase soil fertility by excreting the undigested materials into the soil.

 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 17.
(a) Unscramble the jumbled words and write them in the blank spaces provided.
(i) neosb ………………………….
(ii) tnemevom ………………………..
(iii) iontcaronct ……………………..
(v) arctigeal ………………………
(vi) epahs………………………..
(vii) sangro inerlant…………………
(viii) laxaeriont ………………………
(b) Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks using the words you unscrambled.
__(a)__and __(b)___ form the skeleton of the human body. They provide the framework, give __(c)__to the body and help in _(d) _. They protect the_(e)_ The bones are moved by alternate_(f)_ and_(g)_of two sets of _(h)_ attached to them.
Solution:
(a)
(i) Bones
(ii) movement
(iii) Contraction
(iv) Muscles
(v) Cartilage
(vi) Shape
(vii) Internal organs
(viii) Relaxation
(b)
(a) Bones
(b) shape
(c) Cartilage
(d) movement
(e) Internal organs
(f) Contraction
(g) Relaxation
(h) Muscles

Question 18.
How is the skeleton of a bird well-suited for flying?
Solution:
Following features make the skeleton of a bird well – suited for flying :

  1. Shape of the body is streamlined which helps to move in air.
  2. Bones are hollow and light.
  3. Bones of forelimbs are modified into wings for flight.
  4. Bones of hindlimbs are specialised for walking, hopping and perching.
  5. Shoulder bones are strong.
  6. Breastbones hold flight muscles and are used to move the wings up and down.

Question 19.
In Fig. 8.2 there are two snakes of the same size slithering on sand. Can you identify which of them would move faster and why?
NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements img-1
Solution:
A snake forms loops in its body while slithering. Each loop of the snake gives it a forward push by pressing against the ground. The snake with larger number of loops moves much faster than the snake with lesser number of loops. Thus snake “A” will move faster than snake “B”.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements will help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 8 Body Movements, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Components of Food.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food

Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
Which one of the following food item does not provide dietary fibre?
(a) Wholegrains
(b) Whole pulses
(c) Fruits and vegetables
(d) Milk
Solution:
(d): Dietary fibre is formed of cellulose and is obtained mainly from plant products. Whole grains, whole pulses, fruits and vegetables are rich sources of dietary fibre. Animal products (e.g. milk) do not contain dietary fibre.

Question 2.
Which of the following sources of protein is different from others?
(a) Peas
(b) Gram
(c) Soyabeans
(d) Cottage cheese (paneer)
Solution:
(d) : Peas, gram and soyabeans are the sources of plant proteins whereas cottage cheese (paneer) is the source of animal protein.

Question 3.
Which of the following nutrients is not present in milk?
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Calcium
(d) Vitamin D
Solution:
(b) : Protein, calcium and vitamin D are present in considerable amounts in milk whereas vitamin C is present in negligible amount in milk.

Question 4.
Read the food items given below.
(i) Wheat
(ii) Ghee
(iii) Iodised salt
(iv) Spinach (palak)
Which of the above food items are “energy giving foods”?
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Solution:
(c): Fats and carbohydrates are energy giving foods. Ghee is rich in fats and wheat is rich in carbohydrates. So, these are energy giving foods. Iodised salt and spinach are protective foods because iodised salt contain minerals and spinach is rich in both minerals and vitamins.

Question 5.
Read the following statements about diseases.
(i) They are caused by germs.
(ii) They are caused due to lack of nutrients in our diet.
(iii) They can be passed on to another person through contact.
(iv) They can be prevented by taking a balanced diet.
Which pair of statements best describe a deficiency disease?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Solution:
(c): Deficiency diseases are the diseases which are caused by deficiency of nutrients in the diet. These are non infectious and do not spread from one to another person.

Question 6.
Given below are the steps to test the presence of proteins in a food item.
(i) Take a small quantity of the food item in a test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake it.
(ii) Make a paste or powder of food to be tested.
(iii) Add 10 drops of caustic soda solution to the test tube and shake well.
(iv) Add 2 drops of copper sulphate solution to it.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps?
(a) i, ii, iv, iii
(b) ii, i, iv, iii
(c) ii, i, iii, iv
(d) iv, ii, i, iii
Solution:
(b): To test the presence of proteins in a food item, first make a paste or powder of food to be tested (ii), then take small quantity of the food item in a test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake it (i). After that add 2 drops of copper sulphate solution to it (iv), and finally add 10 drops of caustic soda solution to the test tube and shake well (iii). Let the test tube stand for a few minutes and observe the colour of the solution in the test tube. Appearance of violet colour indicates the presence of proteins in the given food item.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 7.
Unscramble the following words related to components of food and write them in thespace provided.
(a) reinpot___________
(b) menliars __________
(c) tivanmi ___________
(d) bocatradhyer _______
(e) nitesturn__________
(f) tfa_______________
Solution:
(a) Protein
(b) Minerals
(c) Vitamin
(d) Carbohydrate
(e) Nutrients
(f) Fat

Question 8.
Which of the following food items does not provide any nutrient
[Milk, Water, Orange juice, Tomato soup]
Solution:
Water does not provide us any nutrient yet it is essential for life.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 9.
Fill in the blanks from the list of words given below.
(carbohydrate, fat, protein, starch, sugar, vitamin A, vitamin C, roughage, balanced diet, obesity, goitre)
(a) Egg yolk is rich in_____and egg albumin is rich in___.
(b) Deficiency diseases can be prevented by taking a____.
(c) Eating too much of fat rich foods may lead to a condition called____.
(d) The component of food that does not provide any nutrient to our body and yet is essential in our food is_____.
(e) The vitamin that gets easily destroyed by heating during cooking is ____.
Solution:
(a) fat, protein
(b) balanced diet
(c) obesity
(d) roughage
(e) vitamin C

Question 10.
Read the items of food listed below. Classify them into carbohydrate rich, protein rich and fat rich foods and fill them in the given table. Moong dal, fish, mustard oil, sweet potato, milk, rice, egg, beans, butter, butter milk (chhachh), cottage cheese (paneer), peas, maize, white bread.

Carbohydrate Rich Food Item (A) Protein Rich Food Item (B) Fat Rich Food Item (C)
…………………… ……………. ……………..
…………………… ……………. ……………..
…………………… ……………. ………………
…………………… ……………. ………………
…………………… ……………. ……………..
…………………… ……………. ……………..
…………………… ……………. ……………..
…………………… ……………. ……………..

Solution:

Carbohydrate Rich Food Item (A) Protein Rich Food Item (B) Fat Rich Food Item (C)
Sweet potato Moong dal Mustard oil
Rice Fish Cottage cheese
Maize Milk Milk
White bread Egg Egg
Beans Butter
Butter milk Fish
Cottage cheese
Pea

Question 11.
Tasty food is not always nutritious and nutritious food may not always be tasty to eat. Comment with examples.
Solution:
Tasty food is not always nutritious, e.g., burger, samosa, chowmin, potato chips etc. are very tasty but not nutritious. These foods contain refined flour (maida), spices and lot of oil which is not good for health. On the other hand, nutritious food may not always be tasty to eat, e.g., boiled vegetables, pulses etc. are not always tasty but are very good for health. These foods contain important nutrients (proteins, vitamins, minerals etc.) which help to make us strong and healthy.

Question 12.
While using iodine in the laboratory, some drops of iodine fell on Paheli’s socks and some fell on her teacher saree. The drops of iodine on the saree turned blue black while their colour did not change on the socks. What can be the possible reason?
Solution:
The saree of Paheli’s teacher might have been starched. As starch turns blue black with iodine solution, so the saree also turned blue- black. Paheli’s socks did not have starch thus did not show any colour change.

Question 13.
Paheli and Boojho peeled some potatoes and cut them into small pieces. They washed and boiled them in water. They threw away the excess water and fried them in oil adding salt and spices. Although the potato dish tasted very good, its nutrient value was less. Suggest a method of cooking potatoes that will not lower the nutrients in them.
Solution:
Potatoes are nutritious vegetables that provide carbohydrates, vitamins (especially vitamin C), minerals and dietary fibre. Consuming potatoes along with their skin (peel) provides extra dietary fibre and nutrients. A method of cooking potatoes that will not lower their nutrient value is :
Wash the potatoes and cut them into thin slices. Cook the potatoes in little amount of oil and some water by adding salt and spices. Cover the cooking pot while cooking. This method helps to conserve the nutrients of potatoes.

Question 14.
Paheli avoids eating vegetables but likes to eat biscuits, noodles and white bread. She frequently complains of stomach ache and constipation. What are the food items that she should include in her diet to get rid of the problem? Give reason for your answer.
Solution:
Paheli must include whole grains, whole pulses, fresh fruits and vegetables in her diet to get rid of her problem. These food items contain roughage (dietary fibre) which is lacking in Paheli’s diet. Biscuits, noodles and white bread are made up of refined flour (maida) which does not contain any roughage. Roughage prevents constipation, since it allows the waste matter to move more easily down the lower intestine helping us to get rid of undigested waste.

Question 15.
(a) List all those components of food that provide nutrients.
(b) Mention two components of food that do not provide nutrients.
Solution:
(a) Components of food that provide nutrients are carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals.
(b) Components of food that do not provide nutrients are roughage and water.

Question 16.
‘Minerals and vitamins are needed in very small quantities by our body as compared to other components, yet, they are an important part of a balanced diet’. Explain the statement.
Solution:
Minerals and vitamins are needed in very small quantities but are essential for the normal functioning of our body. It is because
(i) They are protective foods and help in protecting our body against diseases.
(ii) They help in normal growth of our body.
(iii) They help in maintaining good health.

Question 17.
‘Water does not provide nutrients, yet it is an important component of food’. Explain.
Solution:
Water is a vital component of our food because
(i) Water helps our body to absorb nutrients from food.
(ii) Water helps in removing wastes in the form of urine and sweat.
(iii) Water transports nutrients throughout the body.
(iv) Water helps to maintain temperature of our body.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 18.
Boojho was having difficulty in seeing things in dim light. The doctor tested his eyesight and prescribed a particular vitamin supplement. He also advised him to include a few food items in his diet.
(a) Which deficiency disease is he suffering from?
(b) Which food component may be lacking in his diet?
(c) Suggest some food items that he should include in his diet, (any four)
Solution:
(a) He is suffering from night blindness, which is the inability to see in dim light.
(b) Vitamin A may be lacking in his diet because night blindness is caused by the deficiency of vitamin A.
(c) Carrot, papaya, mango, milk, green leafy, vegetables, fish oil, etc. are food items rich in vitamin A. Therefore, Boojho should include these items in his diet.

Question 19.
Solve the cross-word puzzle given as fig. 2.1 from the dues given below.
NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food - 1
Across
1. Lack of nutrients in our diet over a long period causes these diseases (10)
2. Rice and potato are rich in this type of carbohydrate (6)
3. Deficiency disease in bones making it become soft and bent (7)
4. The diet that provides all the nutrients that our body needs, in right quantities, along with adequate amount of roughage and water (8, 4)
5. Deficiency disease with bleeding gums (6)
6. Disease caused due to deficiency of iodine (6)
Down
7. Starch and sugar in our food are rich in this type of energy giving nutrient (13)
8. The term given to the useful components of food (9)
9. The disease caused by deficiency of iron in diet (7)
10. Green leafy vegetables, liver and apples are rich in this mineral (4)
11. Deficiency disease caused due to lack of vitamin B in the diet (8)
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food img-1
Question 20.
Observe the items given in Fig. 2.2 carefully and answer the questions that follow.
NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food img-2
(a) Food item rich in carbohydrates is___(i)______
(b) Egg is a rich source of protein, the mineral____(ii)__and vitamin __(iii)______
(c) ____(iv)___is a rich source of fat.
(d) Milk provides __(v)____ vitamin D and ___(vi)____(mineral).
(e) ___(vii)____(fruit) is a rich source of vitamin A.
(f) Spinach is a good source of the mineral__(viii)____
(g) Both eggs and ___(xi)____are rich in___(x)______
Solution:
(a) (i) chapati
(b) (ii) phosphorus (iii) D
(c) (iv) Butter
(d) (v) protein (vi) calcium
(e) (vii) Papaya
(f) (viii) iron
(g) (ix) peas (x) proteins

Question 21.
SNAKES AND LADDERS
Make a board-game just like ‘snakes and ladders’ with 10 x 10 grid boxes.
The mouth of the snake will represent the faulty food habit or faulty method of cooking. Its tail will represent the deficiency disease caused or loss of any nutrient in food.
Similarly, the box at the base of a ladder will represent healthy food habit or healthy method of cooking. Its upper end will represent the beneficial effect of that habit. An example is given as Fig. 2.3. Complete the board and play with your friends.
NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food img-3
Solution:
The terms to be put at the mouths and tails of snakes at different grid numbers are as follows

Mouth of snake (Faulty food habits or Cooking method) Tail of snake (Deficiency disease or loss of nutrient)
17. Eating food deficient in protein 7. Kwashiorkor
54. Lack of exposure to sunlight 34. Rickets
62. Absence of iron in diet 19. Anaemia
64. Less intake of fibre rich food 60. Constipation
83. Excessive cooking (or heating) of food 73.Vitamin C
95. Not taking green leafy vegetables and yellow fruits 75. Vitamin A deficiency
98. Not using iodised salt for cooking 79. Goitre

The terms to be put at the base and upper end of the ladders at different grid number are as follows:

Base of ladder (Healthy food habit or cooking method) Upper end of ladder (Beneficial effect of that habit)
4. Intake of milk, cheese and green vegetables 14. Upper end of ladder(Beneficial effect of that habit
9. Regular consumption of spinach, liver and apple 14. Healthy bones and teeth
19. Eating carrots, papaya  and banana 38. Sufficlient haemoglobin
21. Eating whole grains, pulses and fruits 42. Proper bowel movement
51. Drinking plenty of water 67. Body remains hydrated
71. Intake of citrus fruits 91. Healthy gums
80. Avoiding junk foods 100. Staying fit and healthy

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What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes History Chapter 5

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What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes Social Science History Chapter 5

What Books And Burials Tell Us Notes
Burial Spots of Families:
Some burial chambers have more than one skeleton, probably meaning that one chamber was used for many members of the same family. A hole in the wall allowed the chamber to be used over and over again. The burial sites were marked by stones.

Battles: Rig Veda tells us about battles fought for land and cattle. People met in assemblies and discussed war and peace. Wealth obtained thereafter was distributed amongst the leaders, priests and people.

Vedas: Initially, the Rigveda was not in written form, but was passed on orally. Knowledge passed on in this way is known as ‘Shruti’. The Vedic teachers took great care to teach students to pronounce words and memorise hymns correctly.

Class 6 History Chapter 5 Notes
Sanskrit and Other Languages:
Scholars have discovered many similarities between Sanskrit and European languages such as Latin, English and German. Historians came to the conclusion that Sanskrit belongs to the Indo-European group of languages. Other languages like Hindi, Kashmiri, Sindhi, etc. also belong to the same group.

Skeleton Studies: Study of the bone structure helps to differentiate between male and female skeletons. The hip or the pelvic area of a woman is generally larger than a man.

Special Burial at Inamgaon: We find burials dated back to 3600 and 2700 years ago. Adults were generally buried in the ground. Special mention may be made of a man who was found buried in a large, four-legged clay jar in the courtyard of a five-roomed house.

Class 6 History Chapter 4 What Books And Burials Tell Us Notes
Writing Evidence:
First evidence of writing in China was found 3500 years ago. These writings were on animal bones and were called oracle bones. However, the Chinese did not know the use of iron.

Other languages: Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam belong to the Dravidian family and the languages spoken in Jharkhand and parts of Central India belong to the Austro-Asiatic family.

Megaliths: These literally mean big stones, which were used by early men to spot burial sites.

What Books And Burials Tell Us Pdf Notes
There are four Vedas:

  • Rigveda
  • Samaveda
  • Yajurveda
  • Atharvaveda.

The oldest one is the Rigveda (3500 years ago). It contains over a thousand hymns (“Suktas”). The Vedas are religious texts of Hinduism. The hymns were composed by rishis and students memorised them. The Rigveda has been written in old (Vedic) Sanskrit.

The Vedas were written down much later. Students learnt the hymns and passed it on to other generations by memorising and not writing.
What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes History Chapter 5 Img 1
                                                                      The Manuscript of rigveda
Rigveda contains prayers for cattle, children and horsesf Wealth was distributed among the leaders, priests and other people, according to the Rigveda. ‘Yajnas’ were performed. Most men took part in wars.

The Rigveda divides people in two groups on the basis of their work : the ‘brahmins’ and the ‘rajas’. People or the community as a whole have been referred to as ‘jana’ or ‘vish’. The composers of hymns called themselves ‘Aryas’, and their opponents ‘Dasas’/ ‘Dasyus’.

Stone boulders as the one in figure are called Megaliths.
What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes History Chapter 5 Img 2
                                                                                     Megalith
They were used to mark burial sites. This practice was used in the Deccan and Kashmir. Some megaliths are on the surface and some are underground.

The dead were buried with distinctive pots, which are called Black and Red Ware.

People were buried along with several objects. The objects were chosen probably depended upon the status of the person dead.

Families were usually buried together.

In Inamgaon, people were buried with their head towards the north. Vessels containing food and water were placed with them.

What Books And Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes
Aryas:
The people who composed the hymns used the word ‘Aryas’ for themselves.

Black and Red-Ware: The two distinctive pots, with which the dead were buried, have been called the Black and the Red Ware.

Brahmins: The priests were referred to as the ‘Brahmins’. They performed various rituals.

Dasyus/Dasas: The opponents of the ‘Aryas’ were referred to as ‘Dasas’/’Dasyus’ by them. This world later meant ‘slave’.

Ncert Class 6 History Chapter 5 Notes
Megalith:
A stone boulder, used to mark burial site, is referred to as a megalith.

Sukta: The hymns of the Vedas were called ‘Suktas’, which translates into ‘well-said’.

About 3600 years ago – beginning of the settlement of Inamgaon.

About 3500 years ago (i.e. circa 1500 B.C.) – beginning of composition of the oldest of the Vedas, the Rigveda.

History Class 6 Chapter 5 Notes
About 3000 years ago (i.e. circa 1,000 B.C.) –
beginning of the building of megaliths.

Around 2700 years ago (i.e. circa 700 B.C.) – end of settlement at Inamgaon.

Around 2000 years ago – Charaka wrote ‘Charaka Samhita’.

What Books And Burials Tell Us Notes Pdf
Less than 200 years ago (in the 19th century A.D.) –
printing of the Rigveda for the first time.

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Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Notes Geography Chapter 5

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Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Notes Social Science Geography Chapter 5

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9 Notes
India is one of the twelve mega bio-diversity countries of the world. They are a group of countries that have the majority of the Earth’s species and therefore, considered extremely bio-diverse.

Being a vast country, India having 47,000 plant species (out of which 15,000 are flowering plants, i.e. 6 per cent in the world), occupies 10th position worldwide and 4th in Asia. Non-flowering plants such as ferns, algae and fungi also grow here. It also has around 90,000 species of animals (including marine and water fishes) and insects.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9 Notes Pdf
Natural Vegetation

Natural or virgin vegetation means the plant community which has grown naturally without any human intervention for a long time. That natural vegetation, which are left undisturbed over a long period of time are called virgin vegetation.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Notes
Virgin vegetation are of two types

  • Endemic species Those plant species which originated from the country, are termed as endemic species.
  • Exotic species Those plant species which originated outside the country are termed as exotic species.

Class 9 Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Notes
Factors Affecting Diversity
Factors which influence the variety of flora and fauna include Relief (land and soil), Climate (temperature, photoperiod and precipitation) and the Ecosystem. These are as follows

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Notes
Relief

It includes land and soil.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9 Pdf Notes
Land

It affects the natural vegetation both directly and indirectly. The nature of the land i.e. whether it is plain, hilly or a plateau, determines the kind of vegetation which will grow in it. Fertile lands are used for growing crops, vegetables and fruits.

Undulating (Wavy) and rough surfaces generally develop either into grasslands or woodlands (forests). Different types of land accordingly sustain and provide shelter to different kinds of wildlife.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Notes Pdf
Soil

The soils also vary place to place. Different kinds of soils provide different kinds of vegetation. For example, alluvial or deltaic soil of a river delta near the sea will sustain mangrove forests while slopes of hills have conical trees. The sandy soils of desert sustain thorny bushes.

Note Animals and birds also inhabit locations based on relief. For example, migratory birds like the Siberian cranes and flamingoes are found to nest in the wetlands of the Rann of Kuchchh, where the desert merges with the sea.

Notes Of Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9
Climate

It includes temperature, photoperiod and precipitation.

Ch 5 Geo Class 9 Notes
Temperature

The temperature along with the humidity in the air and precipitation determine the character of vegetation and its extent.
As the climate gets colder, either by increase in altitude (above 915m) or by going away from the equator, the vegetation will change from tropical to sub-tropical, temperate and then alpine.

For example, on the slopes of the Himalayas and hills of the Peninsula, the fall in temperature affects the type of vegetation and its growth.
Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Notes Geography Chapter 5 Img 1
Natural Vegetation Class 9 Notes
Photoperiod (Sunlight)

The amount and duration of sunlight is known as photoperiod. The difference in latitude, altitude and season brings variation in duration of sunlight in different places. In warmer regions and climates, plant growth is faster due to longer duration of sunlight, especially with availability of adequate moisture. An instance is the fact that the Southern slopes of the Himalayas are covered with thicker vegetation than the Northern slopes.

Class 9 Geography Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Notes
Precipitation

Advancing South-West monsoon (June to September) and retreating North-East (October- November) monsoons bring almost all the rainfall in India. Areas of heavy rainfall always have denser vegetation than other areas with lesser rainfall. The South-West monsoon rains on the windward side of the Western Ghats, thus cause a heavy growth of tropical evergreen forests there, whereas the leeward side does not have any such forests.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Notes Class 9
Ecosystem

Various species of plants occur in areas having similar climatic conditions. To a large extent its nature determines the animal life in that area. All the plants and animals in an area are interdependent on each other in their physical environment and form an ecosystem.

Thus, an ecosystem is a biological environment consisting of all the organisms living in a particular area, as well as all the non-living, physical components of the environment with which the organisms interact, such as air, soil, water and sunlight.

Class 9 Geo Ch 5 Notes
Biome

It is a major community of plants and animals having similar life forms existing under similar environmental conditions. A biome is identified on the basis of plant existing there. It is also termed as ‘major life zone’.

Class 9 Geography Ch 5 Notes
Human Influence In an Ecosystem

Human beings influence ecosystem in the following manner

  • They utilise the vegetation and wildlife.
  • The greed of human beings leads to over utilisation of natural resources.
  • Human beings cut the trees and kill the animals creating ecological imbalance.
  • Due to the activities of human beings, some of the ‘ plants and animals have reached the verge of extinction.

Class 9 Chapter 5 Geography Notes
Importance of Forests

Forests are advantageous for the environment. They influence climate, reduce soil erosion, regulate stream flow, provide raw material for industries and livelihood for many, etc. They control wind force and temperature and cause rainfall. They also provide shelter to various animal species.

Geography Class 9 Chapter 5 Notes
Change in Nature of Vegetation in India

Factors like growing demand for cultivated land, development of industries and mining, urbanisation have changed natural vegetation. The vegetation cover of India in large parts is no more natural in the real sense, except in some inaccessible regions like the Himalayas, the hilly region of Central India and the Marusthali. In most of the places, it is either modified, replaced or degraded by human interference.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9 Summary
Types Of Vegetation
Relief and climatic factors develop different types of vegetation. Based on the major forest types, India has following types of vegetation.

  1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
  2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
  3. Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs
  4. Montane Forests
  5. Mangrove Forests

Note: According to India State of Forest Report (SFR) 2015, the forest cover in India is 21.34% which was 21.05% in the year 2011.
Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Notes Geography Chapter 5 Img 2
Chapter 5 Geography Class 9 Notes
1. Tropical Evergreen Forests

These are also called tropical rainforests. They cover about 12% of the total forested areas of India. They are found in areas where the annual rainfall is over 200 cm.

Regions of Occurrence
Western slopes of the Western Ghats, both groups of islands (Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands), upper parts of Assam and some parts of the coasts of Tamil Nadu and Odisha.

Class 9th Geography Chapter 5 Notes
Characteristics of Tropical Evergreen Forest

  • As these areas are warm and wet almost throughout the year, they have abundant vegetation with tall trees (up to 60 m), creepers and bushes.
  • The vegetation occurred in a multilayered structure.
  • These appear green throughout the year, as the trees shed their leaves at different times.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9 Notes Pdf Download
Flora and Fauna

Ebony, mahogany, cinchona, rubber and rosewood trees are useful commercial trees found here. Animals found here include rhinoceros, elephants, various species of monkey, lemur, deer, many bird varieties, bats, sloth, scorpions and snails.
Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Notes Geography Chapter 5 Img 3
Ncert Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Notes
2. Tropical Deciduous Forests

These cover about 64% of the fetal forested areas of the country and are the most abundant variety of forests in India. These are also called monsoon forests and also spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 to 70 cm. Trees of this forest type shed their leaves for about 6 to 8 weeks in dry summer.

Notes Of Chapter Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9
Types of Tropical Deciduous Forest

On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.

Geography Chapter 5 Class 9 Notes
Moist Deciduous

Forests growing in annual rainfall areas between 100 and 200 cm are classified as moist deciduous. They cover about 34% of the country’s forested area.
They are found mostly in the Eastern part of the country such as North-Eastern states, West Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, foothills of the Himalayas and the leeward side of the Western Ghats. Teak (dominant species), bamboo, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun and mulberry trees are found in these forests.

Class 9th Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Notes
Dry Deciduous

Forests growing in annual rainfall areas between 70 and ‘100 cm are classified as dry deciduous. They cover about 30% of the country’s forested area. These are found in rainier parts of the Peninsular plateau and the plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Teak, sal, peepal and neem trees grow in these areas. Many parts of these areas have been cleared for agricultural activities and for grazing. Besides lions, tigers, elephants, pigs and deer many varieties of birds, lizards, snakes and tortoises are found in these forests.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 9 Short Notes
3. Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs

These cover about 5% of the total forested areas of India. These are found in areas where the annual rainfall is less than 70 cm.

Region of Occurrence
These are found in North-Western part of the country including semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, some areas of Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh, as well as parts of the Deccan Plateau.

Characteristics of Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs
The trees found in tropical thorn forest and scrubs are scattered.

Other such plants which have long roots, succulent stems and small thick leaves are also found here.

All these characteristics have developed to minimise evaporation and conserve moisture. Only scrubs are found in desert areas with the least rainfall.

Flora and Fauna
Trees like acacia palm euphorbia and cactus found in these areas. Fox, wolf, rats and mice, wild ass, horses, tiger, lion, camels and similar animals are found in these areas.

4. Montane Forests
These forests cover about 17% of the total forested areas of India and are found in mountainous areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. Natural vegetation changes with corresponding change in temperature with increasing altitude in the mountainous region. These succession of natural vegetation belts is same as in the order from tropical to tundra vegetation.

Altitudinal Distribution of Montane Forests

  • Wet Temperate Forest At lower altitude between 1,000-2,000 m, wet temperate forests with evergreen broad leaf trees such as oaks and chestnuts are prominent.
  • Temperate Forest At the altitude between 1,500-3,000 m, temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar are found. These forests cover mostly the Southern slopes of the Himalayas, places having high altitude in Southern and North-East India.
  • Temperate grasslands These are found at higher elevations. At high altitude above 3,600 m, temprate forest and grasslands give way to the alpine vegetation.
  • Alpine vegetation This vegetation through shrubs and scrubs merge into alpine grasslands. These area extensively used by nomadic tribes like Gujjars and Bakarwals for grazing.
  • Tundra vegetation Mosses and lichens are part of tundra vegetation are found at higher altitudes.

Flora and Fauna
Kashmir stag, spotted dear, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels, shaggy horn wild ibex, bear and rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair are found here. Silver firs, pines, junipers, birches, etc are trees common here.

5. Mangrove Forests
These are found in coastal delta areas influenced by sea tides. Due to this fact, they are also called tidal forests. The roots of the predominate mangroves are submerged under water. Such forests are found in the delta areas of rivers oh the East coast of India (Ganga, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri) due to mud and silt brought down by the rivers.

Flora and Fauna

  • In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, sundari trees providing durable timber are prominent. Other trees are palm, coconut, keora and agar.
  • Animals found here include the Royal Bengal Tigers, snakes, turtles, gharials and crocodiles.

Wildlife
India is also rich in its fauna (animal life) same as in flora (plant life). It has approximately 90,000 animal species and 2,000 species of birds.

They constitute 13% of the total world’s stock. There are 2,546 species of fish, which account for nearly 12% of the world’s stock.
It also shares between 5 and 8 % of the world’s amphibians, reptiles and mammals. The existence of animals in our country varies place to place.

Distribution of Wildlife in India
The elephants are the most majestic animals among the mammals. They are found in the hot wet forests of Assam, Karnataka and Kerala.

One-horned rhinoceroses are the other animals, which live in swampy and marshy lands of Assam and West Bengal.

Arid areas of the Rann of Kachchh and the Thar desert are the habitat for wild ass and camels, respectively.

India is the only country in the world that has both tigers and lions. The natural habitat of the Indian lion is the Gir forest in Gujarat. Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sunderbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan region.

Leopards too are members of the cat family. They are important among animals of prey.

The Himalayas harbour a hardy range of animals, which survive in extreme cold. Ladakh’s freezing high altitudes are a home to yak, the shaggy horned wild ox (weighing around 1 tonne) the Tibetan antelope, the bharal (blue sheep), wild sheep and the kiang (Tibetan wild ass).

The ibex, bear, snow-leopard and very rare red panda are found in certain pockets.

In the rivers, lakes and coastal areas, turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found.

The gharial is the only representative of a variety of crocodile, found in the world today.

Birdlife in India is colourful. Peacocks, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes and pigeons are some of the birds inhabiting the forests and wetlands of the country.

Indian bison, nilgai (blue bull), chousingha (four homed antelope), gazel and different species of deer are some other animals found in India in different places. It also has several species of monkeys.

Note: The Gir Forest is the last remaining habitat of the Asiatic lion.

Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in 1972 in India.

Migratory Birds
Some of the wetlands of India are popular with migratory birds. During winter, birds such as Siberian crane come in large numbers. One such place favourable with birds is the Rann of Kutch. At a place where the desert merges with the sea, flamingo with their brilliant pink plumage, come in thousands to build nest mounds from the salty mud and raise their young ones. It is one among many extraordinary sights in the country.

Need Of Environment Conservation
Our crops consist of edible plants from a bio-diverse environment. Many medicinal plants are also used by us. The animals were selected from large stock provided by nature as milch animal. They also provided us draught power, transportation, meat, eggs.

The fish provide nutritive food. Many insects help in pollination of crops and fruit trees. They also exert biological control on such insects which are harmful. Thus, it can be said that every species has a role to play in the ecosystem. So, its conservation is essential.

Due to excessive exploitation of the plants and animal resources by human beings, the ecosystem has been disturbed. About 1,300 plant species are endangered and 20 species are extinct. Quite a few animal species are also endangered and some have become extinct.

Summary
India is one of the twelve mega biodiverse countries in the world.

The plant community which has grown naturally without human intervention are called natural vegetation.

Natural vegetation which are left undisturbed by human for a long time is termed as virgin vegetation.

The type of virgin vegetation which are purely Indian are called Endemic or Indigenous species.

The virgin vegetation which comes from outside the country are called exotic species.

Various,relief and climatic factors are responsible for distribution of natural vegetation.

Land and soil are the relief factors affecting the type of vegetation.

Temperature, photoperiod and precipitation are the climatic factor affecting vegetation of a region.

Based on temperature, vegetation zones are divided into Tropical, Sub-tropical, Temperate and Alpine type.

Forest are renewable resources and play major role in enhancing quality of Environment.

Most of India’s natural vegetation are found in Himalayas, hilly regions of central India and in desert.

Biomes are very large ecosystem on land and have distinct types of vegetation and animal life.

Major vegetation types identified in India are tropical evergreen forests, tropical deciduous forests, tropical thorn forest and scrubs, montane forests and Mangrove forests.

Tropical Evergreen forest is found in region of very high rainfall.

Tropical deciduous forest or monsoon forests are the most widespread forests of India.

The thorn forest and scrubs are found in region with less that 70 cm rainfall.

Montane forests are high altitude alpine vegetation.

Mangroves are tidal vegetation found along the coastal region. Sundari is an important mangrove tree.

The World Conservation Union publishes Red list of critically threatened and endangered plant species.

India has 13% of the world’s total bird species and 12% fish stocks.

The Wildlife Protection Act in India was implemented in 1992.

The excessive exploitation of the plants and animal resources by Human beings led them to become endangered and extinct.

Hunting, pollution, the introduction of alien plant and animal species, deforestation are major threats for the ecosystem.

Government of India has taken many steps to protect plant and animals such as – setting up of national parks, biosphere reserves etc, the introduction of different projects to conserve critically endangered species e.g. project tiger, project rhino etc.

We all should be aware of the fact that a natural ecosystem is very important for our survival.

We hope the given Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Notes Social Science Geography Chapter 5 SST Pdf free download will help you. If you have any query regarding Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Notes, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Snehapoorvam Scholarship

Snehapoorvam Scholarship 2022-2023 for Orphaned Children | E-Suraksha Scholarship Portal

Snehapoorvam Scholarship 2022: In the state of Kerala, about 75,000 children under the age of 18 are residing in orphanages and almost 1500 shelters are running in Kerala. Most of the children have families and relatives, but most of them have lost their parents for several reasons. Children are more likely to be abused and exploited without proper adult care and protection. To protect them, the state government of Kerala has started a scheme called Snehapuram.

The main purpose of this plan is to recognize orphan children in families and to satisfy their needs, give social security to the unprotected groups, promote basic education, social integration, support families to manage their children within the family and to help these orphaned kids by providing financial assistance for the education of the children of these orphaned families. The government has intended to bring such children into the mainstream of society. The state government has made a very good judgment regarding orphans in Kerala.

Snehapoorvam Scholarship Dates

The Govt of Kerala has begun a noble initiative, Snehapoorvam Online Application Form to grant financial support to Orphans through Social Security Mission. Students who are qualified to apply for are encouraged to apply within the specified time. Since under no condition, late registration will be accepted.

Events Dates (Tentative)
Commencement of Application Process June 2022
Last date to apply online October 2022
Extended Last date December 2022
Official Website http://socialsecuritymission.gov.in/

Snehapoorvam Scholarship Benefits

The Kerala government in India is presenting Snehapoorvam Scholarship to orphans and vulnerable children. This scholarship increases the scope of school-going children who lost their parents.

Children below 5 years Children below 5 years can get financial support of Rs 300 per month.
Class 1 to 5 The stipend of Rs 300 per month for children studying in classes 1 to 5
Class 6th to class 10th Rs. 500 per month is given from class 6th to 10th
Class 11th and 12th For the children of class 11th and class 12th, the amount of Rs 750 per month
Degree / Vocational Courses Rs. 1000 per month for a student studying in degree/vocational courses

Snehapoorvam Scholarship Eligibility Criteria

The application receives orphan children below 5 years of age, children from Ist standard to 12th Class and university or college degree students.

  • Children who are orphans (lost either mother/father or both)
  • An applicant whose age is under 5 Years.
  • The candidate who falls under BPL Category.
  • Candidate from 1st class to Professional/ Degree Classes.
  • For candidates belonging to APL Category; annual income for rural regions should be below 20,000 and for urban regions total earning should be 22,375 or less than this.

Snehapoorvam Scholarship Application Procedure

Steps to Apply Offline

  • The application form with the needed documents should be presented at the head office of Aided/ Govt Institutions ere the last date. The head office will check and submit the Snehapoorvam Scholarship Application Form Pdf through the online portal to Executive Director, Kerala Social Security Mission.
  • Students who are under 5 years, can immediately apply to Executive Director, Kerala Security Mission by respective welfare organizations.

Snehapoorvam Scholarship Application Form PDF

Steps to Apply Online

  • Go to the Official website of Kerala Welfare Department (socialsecuritymission.gov.in)
  • Now click on “KSSM Web Application”
  • A new webpage will open asking your login credentials.
  • Click on the beneficiary/ Institution login button (Enter username, password and submit).
  • Now, Click on New Institution Register and fill all the necessary details
  • Now a new page will open and enter the user Id and password.
  • Update Profile- Change the password page will open ( complete it with necessary details).
  • Now, the fresh beneficiary Registration process will begin; fill all the necessary details.
  • Now submit the complete details.

Snehapoorvam Scholarship Documents Required

  • Parent’s Death Certificate (Proof that the child is orphan), attested copy of it
  • BPL Certificate/ BPL category ration card/ Annual income Certificate properly signed by Village Officer.
  • PSU/ Nationalized Bank passbook copy. The bank account of the child should be “ Joint Account” in the name of the guardian and beneficiary.
  • Aadhaar Card/ Confirmation slip obtained at the time/ after Aadhaar card registration.

Snehapoorvam Scholarship Contact Details

If you need more help related to the Snehapoorvam Scholarship please contact the office staff person in the following contact information.

  1. Address: Executive Director, Kerala Social Security Mission, Poojapura Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala 695012
  2. Phone: 0471-2341200, 2346016 (Fax)
  3. Email: socialsecuritymission@gmail.com

FAQ’s On Snehapoorvam Scholarship

Question 1.
What is the Snehapoorvam scholarship?

Answer:
The Kerala SNEHAPORVAM Scholarship is an action launched by the Kerala Government, to help orphans and abandoned children who have lost their parents in war, Communal riots, natural disasters, and accidents.

Question 2.
Who is eligible for the Snehapoorvam scholarship?

Answer: 

  • Children who are orphans (lost either mother/ father or both.)
  • An applicant whose age is under 5 Years.
  • The candidate who falls under BPL Category.
  • Candidate from 1st class to Professional/ Degree Classes.
  • For candidates belonging to APL Category; annual income for rural regions should be below 20,000 and for urban regions total earning should be 22,375 or less than this.

Question 3.
What are the benefits given to the orphan children?

Answer: 

  • Children below 5 years and from Ist to V class: Rs 300 per month
  • For Class VI to X: Rs 500 per month
  • For Class XI to XII: Rs 750 per month
  • For degree or Professional courses: Rs 1000 per month

Students can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution

Multiple Choice Questions

Single Correct Answer Type

Question 1. Which of the following unit is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
(a) Mole fraction (b) Parts per million
(c) Mass percentage (d) Molality
Solution: (a) Mole fraction is useful in’relating vapour pressure with concentration of solution. According to Raoult’s law, the partial vapour pressure of each component in the solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction.
A is one component.
NCERT exemplar class 12 chemistry chapter 2

NCERT exemplar class 12 chemistry chapter 2

Question 2. On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution feels cool to touch. Under which of the following case dissolution of sugar will be most rapid?
(a) Sugar crystals in cold water (b) Sugar crystals in hot water
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water (d) Powdered sugar in hot water
Solution: (d) Since the solution is cool to touch, the dissolution is endothermic. Therefore, high temperature will favour dissolution. Further, powdered sugar has large surface area and is favourable for dissolution.

Question 3. At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid
solvent is
(a) less than the rate of crystallisation
(b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crystallisation
(d) zero
Solution: (c) At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of solid solute is equal to rate of crystallisation.

NCERT exemplar class 12 chemistry

Question 4. A beaker contains a solution of substance ‘A’. Precipitation of substance ‘A’ takes place when small amount of ‘A’ is added to the solution. The solution is
(a) saturated (b) supersaturated
(c) unsaturated (d) concentrated
Solution: (b) When small amount of solute is added to its solution and it does not dissolve and get precipitated then this solution is supersaturated solution.

Question 5. Maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified
amount of a given liquid solvent does not depend upon
(a) temperature (b) nature of solute
(c) pressure (d) nature of solvent
Solution: (c) Solubility of a solid in liquid does not depend on pressure because solid is practically incompressible.

NCERT exemplar class 12 chemistry solutions 

Question 6. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due to 
(a) low temperature
(b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) high atmospheric pressure
(d) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
Solution: (b) At high altitudes the atmospheric pressure is less but the body temperature remains same hence concentration of oxygen in the air as well as blood is less.

Question 7. Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following mixture will show a positive deviation from Raoulf s law?
(a) Methanol and acetone (b) Chloroform and acetone
(c) Nitric acid and water (d) Phenol and aniline
Solution: (a) Mixture of Methanol and acetone shows positive deviation because methanol-methanol and acetone-acetone interactions are more than methanol-acetone. The more number of hydrogen bonds are broken the less number of new H-bonds are formed.

NCERT exemplar chemistry class 12

Question 8. Colligative properties depend on
(a) the nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution
(b) the number of solute particles in solution
(c) the physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution
(d) the nature of solvent particles
Solution: (b) Colligative properties depend upon the number of solute particles in the solution and independent of its nature.

Question 9. Which of the following aqueous solution should have the highest boiling point?
(a) l.OMNaOH (b) 1.0MNa2SO4
(c) 1.0MNH4NO3 (d) l.OMKNO3
Solution: (b) 1.0 M Na2SO4 since it furnishes maximum number of ions (2Na+ + SO4).

class 12 chemistry exemplar solutions

Question 10. The unit of ebullioscopic constant is , – ;
NCERT exemplar class 12 chemistry
Solution:
NCERT exemplar class 12 chemistry solutions
The unit of ebullioscopic constant is K kg mol-1 or K molality-1.

Question 11. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M MgCl2 solution is 1
(a) the same (b) about twice
(c) about three times (d) about six times
Solution: (c) 0.01 M solution of glucose does not ionize while 0.01 M MgCl2 solution furnishes 3 ions (Mg2+ + 2Cl) in the solution, hence the value of colligative property for MgCl2 solution is about 3 times.

Question 12. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle, shrivels because 
(a) it gains water due to osmosis
(b) it loses water due to reverse osmosis
(c) it gains water due to reverse osmosis
(d) it loses water due to osmosis
Solution: (d) Water starts moving out of mango (lower concentration) to the salt solution (higher concentration) due to osmosis.

Question 13. At a given temperature, osmotic pressure of a concentrated solution of a substance
(a) is higher than that of a dilute solution
(b) is lower than that of a dilute solution
(c) is same as that of a dilute solution
(d) cannot be compared with osmotic pressure of dilute solution
Solution: (a)
NCERT exemplar chemistry class 12
where C is concentration of the solution. So, the higher the concentration of solution at given temperature the higher will be the osmotic pressure.

Question 14. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality-prepared in different solvents will have the same depression in freezing point.
(b) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation 3.14(pi) = CRT (where C is the molarity of the solution).
(c) Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solutions of barium chloride, potassium chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is
BaCl2> KCl > CH2COOH > sucrose
(d) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile component of a solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
Solution: (a) Value of A is different for different solvents. Thus, according to relation,
class 12 chemistry exemplar solutions
even for same molal solutions depression in freezing point will be different.

Question 15. The value of van’t Hoff factor.s for KCl, NaCl and K2SO4, respectively, are
(a) 2, 2 and 2 (b) 2, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 1, and 2 (d) 1, 1 and 1
Solution: (b) KCl (K+ + Cl ) and NaCl (Na+ + Cl ) ionize to give 2 ions and K2SO4(2K+ + SO4) ionizes to give 3 ions thus, van’t Hoff factors for KCl, NaCl and K2SO4 are 2, 2 and 3 respectively.

Question 16. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Units of atmospheric pressure and osmotic pressure are the same.
(b) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower concentration of solute to a region of higher concentration.
(c) The value of molal depression constant depends on nature of solvent.
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure, is a dimensionless quantity.
Solution: (b) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move through a semipermeable
membrane from higher concentration of solute to lower concentration.

Question 17. Value of Henry’s constant KH
(a) increases with increase in temperature
(b) decreases with increase in temperature
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases then decreases
Solution: (a) Value of Henry’s constant increases with increase in temperature.

Question 18. The value of Henry’s constant KH is
(a) greater for gases with higher solubility
(b) greater for gases with lower solubility
(c) constant for all gases
(d) not related to the solubility of gases
Solution: (b) The higher the value of KH, the lower is the solubility of gas in the liquid.

Question 19. Consider the figure and mark the correct option.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution
(a) Water will move from side (A) to side (B) if a pressure lower than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
(b) Water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
(c) Water will move from side (B) to side (A) if a pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (B).
(d) Water will move from side (A) to side (B) if pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (A).
Solution: (b) Water will move from side 3 (concentrated sodium chloride solution) to side A (fresh water) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on piston B.

Question 20. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with
concentrations 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor for these solutions will be in the order
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-1
Solution: (c) The value of van’t Hoff’s factor will be iA=iB =iC due to complete dissociation of strong electrolyte (NaCl) in dilute solutions. On complete dissociation value of i for NaCl is 2.

Question 21. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option. Information:
(I) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A-A and B-B type are nearly same as A-B type interactions.
(II) In ethanol and acetone mixture A-A or B-B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A-B type interactions.
(III) In chloroform and acetone mixture A-A or B-B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than A-B type interactions.
(a) Solution (II) and (III) will follow Raoult’s law.
(b) Solution (I) will follow Raoult’s law.
(c) Solution (II) will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) Solution (III) will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Solution: (b) Solution A will follow Raoult’s law due to nearly same interactions between A-A, B-B and A-B. The solution formed will be nearly ideal.

Question 22. Two beakers of capacity 500 mL were taken. One of these beakers, labelled “A”, was filled with 400 mL water whereas’the beaker labelled “B” was filled with 400 mL of 2 M solution of NaCl. At the same temperature both the beakers were placed in closed containers of same material and same capacity as shown in figure.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-2
At a given temperature, which of the following statement is correct about the vapour pressure of pure water and that of NaCl solution.
(a) Vapour pressure in container (A) is more than that in container (B).
(b) Vapour pressure in container (A) is less than that in container (B).
(c) Vapour pressure is equal in both the containers.
(d) Vapour pressure in container (B) is twice the vapour pressure in container (A).
Solution: (a) Since NaCl is a non-volatile solute, it will reduce vapour pressure of the solution. Hence, vapour pressure of pure water in container A is more than in container B.

Question 23. If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at some specific composiiion’hien
(a) A-B interactions are stronger than those between A-A or B-B.
(b) vapour pressure of solution increases because more number of molecules of liquids A and B can escape from the solution.
(c) vapour pressure of solution decreases because less number of molecules of only one of the liquids escape from the solution.
(d) A-B interactions are weaker than those between A-A or B-B.
Solution: (d) If A-B interactions < A-A or B-B the vapour pressure will be more and the result will be positive deviation. The solutions which show positive deviation form minimum boiling azeotropes.

Question 24. 4 L of 0.02 M aqueous solution of NaCl was diluted by adding one litre of water. The molality of the resultant solution is
(a) 0.004 (b) 0.008 (c) 0.012 (d) 0.016
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-3

Question 25. On the basis of information given below, mark the correct option. Information: On adding acetone to methanol some of the hydrogen bonds between methanol molecules break.
(a) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation from Raoulf s law.
(b) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture forms maximum boiling azeotrope and will show positive deviation from Raoulf s law.
(c) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will form minimum boiling azeotrope and will show-negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will form maximum boiling azeotrope and will show negative deviation from Raoulf s law.
Solution: (a) At specific composition methanol-acetone mixture will show positive
deviation from Raoulf s law as it has lesser interactions than methanol- methanol and acetone-acetone interactions. Hence it forms minimum boiling azeotrope.

Question 26. KH value for Ar(g),CO2(g), HCHO(g) and CH4(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 x 10.5
and 0.413 respectively. 
Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-4
Solution: (c) The higher the value of KH, the lower is the solubility of the gas in the liquid. Hence the order of increasing solubility of the gases will be Ar <  CO2<CH4< HCHO

Question 27. Which of the following factor(s) affect the solubility of a gaseous solute in the fixed volume of liquid solvent?
(i) Nature of solute (ii) Temperature
(iii) Pressure
(a) (i) and (iii) at’constant T (b) (i) and (ii) at constant P
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (iii) only
Solution: (a, b) At constant temperature, the solubility of a gaseous solute in liquid depends on nature of solute and pressure. At constant pressure, solubility is dependent upon nature of solute and temperature.

Question 28. Intermolecular forces between two benzene molecules are nearly of same strength as those between two toluene molecules. For a mixture of benzene and toluene, which of the following are not true?
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-5
Solution: (c, d) For an ideal solution,
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-6
and benzene and toluene will form an ideal solution. Also, ideal solutions do not form minimum boiling azeotropes.

Question 29. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property because
(a) it depends on the concentration of a non-electrolyte solute in solution and does not depend on the nature of the solute molecules.
(b) it depends on number of particles of electrolyte solute in solution and does not depend on the nature of the solute particles.
(c) it depends on the concentration of a non-electrolyte solute in solution as well as on the nature of the solute molecules.
(d) it depends on the concentration of an electrolyte or a non-electrolyte solute in solution as well as on the nature of solute molecules
Solution:(a, b) Relative lowering of vapour pressure depends on concentration of non¬electrolyte solute in solution and number of particles of electrolyte solute. It does not depend on nature of solute in both conditions.

Question 30.van’t Hoff factor i is given by the expression
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-7
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-8

Question 31. Isotonic solutions must have the same
(a) solute (b) density
(c) elevation in boiling point (d) depression in freezing point
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-9
Isotonic solutions must have same osmotic pressure at a given temperature hence must have same volume and number of moles i.e., same molar concentration. Thus, the isotonic solutions have same elevation in boiling point, and depression in freezing point.

Question 32. Which of the following binary mixtures will have same composition in liquid and vapour phase?
(a) Benzene-Toluene (b) Water-Nitric acid
(c) Water-Ethanol (d) 6-Hexane-n-Heptane
Solution: (b, c) Non-ideal solution mixtures with same composition in liquid and vapour phase are azeotropes. Water-nitric acid has maximum boiling azeotrope and water-ethanol has a minimum boiling azeotrope.

Question 33. In isotonic solutions
(a) solute and solvent both are same
(b) osmotic pressure is same
(c) solute and solvent may or may not be same
(d) solute is always same solvent may be different
Solution: (b, c) For isotonic solutions osmotic pressure is same, solute or solvent may not be same.

Question 34. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the variation in total vapour pressure versus composition of solution it given by which of the curves?
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-10
Solution: (a,d)for idea solution.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-11

Question 35. Colligative properties are observed when
(a) a non-volatile solid is dissolved in a volatile liquid
(b) a non-volatile liquid is dissolved in an another volatile liquid
(c) a gas is dissolved in a non-volatile liquid
(d) a volatile liquid is dissolved in an another volatile liquid
Solution: (a, b) Colligative properties are observed when a non-volatile solid or liquid are dissolved in a volatile liquid.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 36. Components of a binary mixture of two liquids A and B were being separated by distillation. After some time separation of components stopped and composition of vapour phase became same as that of liquid phase. Both the components started coming in the distillate. Explain why does this happen?
Solution: Since both the components are coming in the distillate and composition of liquid and vapour phase become same, this shows that liquids have formed azeotropic mixture. Therefore, these components cannot be separated at this stage by distillation.

Question 37. Explain why on addition of 1 mol of NaCl to 1 litre of water, the boiling point of water increases, while addition of 1 mol of methyl alcohol to one litre of water decreases its boiling point.
Solution: NaCl is a non-volatile solute, therefore, addition of NaCl to water lowers the vapour pressure of water. As a result boiling point of water increases. On the other hand, methyl alcohol is more volatile than water, therefore its addition increases the total vapour pressure over the solution. As a result, boiling point of water decreases.

Question 38. Explain the solubility rule “like dissolves like” in terms of intermolecular forces that exist in solutions.
Solution: A substance dissolves in a solvent if the intermolecular interactions are similar in both the components. For example, polar solutes dissolve in polar solvents and non-polar solutes in non-polar solvents. Thus, we can say “like dissolves like”.

Question 39. Concentration terms such as mass percentage, ppm, mole fraction and molality are independent of temperature, however molarity is a function of temperature. Explain.
Solution: Molarity of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved per litre of solution. Since volume depends on temperature and changes with change in temperature, therefore, the molarity will also change with change in temperature. On the other hand, mass does not change with change in temperature, and therefore, concentration terms such as mass percentage, mole fraction and molality which do not involve volume are independent of temperature.

Question 40. What is the significance of Henry’s law constant KH?
Solution: According to Henry’s law:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-12

Question 41. Why are aquatic species more comfortable in cold water in comparison to warm water?
Solution: At a given pressure the solubility of oxygen in water increases with decrease in temperature. Therefore, the concentration of oxygen in sea is more in cold water and thus presence of more oxygen at lower temperature makes the aquatic species more comfortable in cold water.

Question 42. (a) Explain the following phenomena with the help of Henry’s law.
(i) Painful condition known as bends.
(ii) Feeling of weakness and discomfort in breathing at high altitude.
(b) Why does soda water bottle kept at room temperature fizz on opening?
Solution: (a)
(i) Deep sea divers depend upon compressed air for breathing at high pressure under water. The compressed air contains  N2 in addition to 02, which are not very soluble in blood at normal pressure. However, at great depths when the diver breathes in compressed air from the supply tank, more N2 dissolves in the blood and other body fluids because the pressure at that depth is far greater than the surface atmospheric pressure. When the diver comes towards the surface, the pressure decreases, N2 comes out of the body quickly forming bubbles in the blood stream. These bubbles restrict blood flow, affect the transmission of nerve impulses. The bubbles can even burst the capillaries or block them and starve the tissues of 02. This condition is called the bends, which are painful and life-threatening.
(ii) At high altitudes the partial pressure of 02 is less than that at the ground level. This results in low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of the people living at high altitudes or climbers. The low blood oxygen causes climbers to become weak and unable to think clearly known as anoxia.
(b) To increase the solubility of C02 in soft drinks, the soda water bottles are sealed under high pressure. When the bottle is opened at room temperature under normal atmosphere conditions, the pressure inside the bottle decreases to atmospheric pressure and excess C02 fizzes out.

Question 43. Why is the vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of glucose lower than that of water?
Solution: In pure liquid water, the entire surface of liquid is occupied by the molecules of water. When a non-volatile solute, such as glucose is dissolved in water some of the surface is covered by non-volatile glucose molecules. Therefore, the fraction of surface covered by the solvent molecules escaping. As a result
number of solvent molecules escaping from the surface also gets reduced and consequently the vapour pressure of aqueous solution of glucose is reduced.

Question 44. How does sprinkling of salt help in clearing the snow covered roads in hilly areas? Explain the phenomenon involved in the process.
Solution: When salt is spread over snow covered roads, it lowers the freezing point of water to such an extent that water does not freeze to form ice. As a result, the snow starts melting from the surface and therefore, it helps in clearing the roads. Hence, common salt acts as de-icing agent.

Question 45. What is a “semipermeable membrane”?
Solution: A membrane that permits the flow of solvent molecules not the solute molecules is called semipermeable membrane. During osmosis and reverse osmosis, only solvent molecules move across the semipermeable membrane.

Question 46. Give an example of a material used for making semipermeable membrane for carrying out reverse osmosis.
Solution: Cellulose acetate, potassium ferrocyanide, etc. are used as semipermeable membrane for carrying out reverse osmosis.

Matching Column Type Questions

Question 47. Match the items given in Column I and Column II.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-13
Solution: (i —> d), (ii —> c); (iii—> a); (iv b), (v —> f); (vi —> e)
(i) Saturated solution: A solution which contains maximum amounts of solute that can be dissolved in a given amounts of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature.
(ii) Binary solution: A solution with two components is known as binary solution.
(iii) Isotonic solution: A solution having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature as that of given solution is known as isotonic solution.
(iv) Hypotonic solution: A solution whose osmotic pressure is less than another is known as hypotonic solution.
(v) Solid solution: A solution in solid phase is known as solid solution.
(vi) Hypertonic solution: A solution whose osmotic pressure is greater than that of another is known as hypertonic solution.

Question 48. Match the items given in Column 1 with the type of solutions given in Column II.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-14
Solution: (i -» e), (ii -» c), (iii -» d); (iv —> b), (v —> a)
(i) Soda water: A solution of gas in liquid, e.g.,CO2  in soft drinks.
(ii) Sugar solution: A solution of solid in liquid in which sugar particles (solid) are dissolved in water (liquid).
(iii) German silver: This is an alloy which is a solid solution of solid in solid. It is an alloy of Cu, Zn and Ni.
(iv) Air: A solution of gas in gas..Air is a mixture of various gases.
(v) Hydrogen gas in palladium: This is an example of solution of gas in solid. This is used as a reducing agent.

Question 49. Match the laws given in Column I with expressions given in Column II.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-15

Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-16

Question 50. Match the terms given in Column I with expression given in Column II.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-17
Solution. (i —» d), (ii —» c), (iii —» b), (iv -> e), (v ->a)

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of
Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices:
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong.
(d) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.
(e) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct.

Question 51. Assertion (A): Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature. Reason (R): The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
Solution: (a) Molarity changes with temperature because volume changes with temperature.

Question 52. Assertion (A): When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water increases. Reason (R): When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, elevation in boiling point is observed.
Solution: (d) When methyl alcohol (volatile) is added to water, boiling point of water decreases because vapour pressure increases when volatile solute is added to volatile solvent;

Question 53. Assertion (A): When NaCl is added to water, a depression in freezing point is observed. Reason (R): The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point.
Solution: (a) When a non-volatile solute is added to water, freezing point lowers due to lowering of vapour pressure.

Question 54. Assertion (A): When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semipermeable membrane, the solvent by a semipermeable membrahe, the solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent side to the solution side. Reason (R): Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration solution to a region of low concentration solution.
Solution: (c) Solvent molecules pass through the semipermeable membrane from region of low concentration solution to the region of high concentration solution.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 55. Define the following modes of expressing the concentration of a solution. Which of these modes are independent of temperature and why?
(i) w/w (mass percentage)
(ii) x (mole fraction)
(iii) VIV (volume percentage)
(iv) M (molarity)
(v) wIV (mass by volume percentage)
(vi) m (molality)
(vii) ppm (parts per million)
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-18
Mass percentage, ppm, mole fraction and molality are independent of temperature since mass does not change with temperature.

Question 56. Using Raoult’s law explain how the total vapour pressure over the solution is related to mole traction of components in the given solutions.
(a) CHCl2 andCH4Cl2(l)
(b) NaCl(s) and H2O(l)
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-19

Question 57. Explain the terms ideal and non-ideal solutions in the light of forces of interactions operating between molecules in liquid solutions.
Solution: Ideal solutions: The solutions which obey Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration are known as ideal solution. For an ideal solution,
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-20

Question 58. Why is it not possible to obtain pure ethanol by fractional distillation? What general name is given to binary mixtures which show deviation from Raoult’s law and whose components cannot be separated by fractional distillation? How many types of such mixtures are there?
Solution: The solution or mixture having same composition in liquid as well as in vapour phase and boils at a constant temperature is known as azeotropes. Due to constant composition it cannot be separated by fractional distillation. There are two types of azeotropes
(i) Minimum boiling azeotropes: Solution which shows large positive deviation from Raoult’s law form minimum boiling azeotropes at a specific composition, e.g., ethanol-water mixture
(ii) Maximum boiling azeotropes: Solutions which show large negative deviation from Raoult’s law form maximum boiling azeotropes, e.g., solution having composition 68% HN03 and 32% water by mass.

Question 59. When kept in water, raisin swells in size. Name and explain the phenomenon involved with the help of a diagram. Give three applications of the phenomenon.
Solution: Raisins swell in size on keeping in water. This happens due to the phenomenon of osmosis. The outer skin of raisin acts as a semipermeable membrane. Water moves from a place of lower concentration to a place of higher concentration through the semipermeable membrane. Thus, water enters inside the raisins and make them swell.
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-21
Applications of the phenomenon

  • Movement of water from soil into plant roots and subsequently into upper portion of the plant is partly due to osmosis.
  • Preservation of meat against bacterial action by adding salt.
  • Preservation of fruits against bacterial action by adding sugar. Bacterium in canned fruit loses water through the process of osmosis, shrivels and dies.
  • Reverse osmosis is used for desalination of water.

Question 60. Discuss biological and industrial importance of osmosis.
Solution: Some essential importance of osmosis are given below:

  • In animals, circulation of water to all parts of body takes place due to osmosis.
  • Plant roots absorb water from soil due to osmosis. Concentration of cell sap inside the root hair cells is higher than that of water present in the soil. Water enters the root cells due to endosmosis.
  • Water absorbed by plant roots is circulated in the entire plant body and reaches to the top of a tall tree due to osmosis.
  • Osmosis helps in plant growth and germination of seeds.
  • Red blood cells burst when placed in water; it is due to endosmosis.
  • Various functions of plants are controlled by osmosis, e.g., stretching of leaves and flowers, opening and closing of flowers.
  • Use of salt and sugar in‘pickles and jams acts as preservatives. It prevents growth of bacteria and fungi by osmosis.
  • Dead bodies swell under water due to endosmosis.
  • When dried fruits and vegetables are placed in water, they slowly swell and return to the original form. It is again due to endosmosis of water into the fruits and vegetables.
  • Edema: Due to excess intake of salt by a person, the tissues become puffy, it is called edema. It is due to retention of water in the tissue owing to osmosis.

Question 61. How can you remove the hard calcium carbonate layer of the egg without damaging its semipermeable membrane? Can this egg be inserted into a bottle with a narrow neck without distorting its shape? Explain the process involved.
Solution: This can be achieved as under:
(i) Place the egg in a mineral acid solution for about 2 hours. The outershell of the egg dissolves. Remove any portion of it is left with your fingers.
(ii) Place the egg in a saturated solution (hypertonic) of sodium chloride for about 3 hours. Size of the egg is reduced as the egg shrivels due to osmosis.
(iii) Insert the egg in a bottle with a narrow neck. Add water to the bottle. Water will act as hypotonic solution, Egg regains shape due to osmosis. This is shown diagrammatically as under:
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-23

Question 62. Why is the molar mass determined by measuring a colligative property in case of some solutes abnormal? Discuss it with the help of van’t Hoff factor.
Solution: The compounds which dissociate or associate in the solvent show abnormal molecular masses.
(i) Association: Compounds like benzoic acid or ethanoic acid dimerise in benzene due to hydrogen bonding as a result of which the number of particles in the solution decreases. Since colligative properties depend upon number of particles, such solutes show lower colligative property.
(ii) Dissociation: Electrolytes like NaCl, KC1, etc. dissociate into ions which result in increased number of particles, hence higher value of colligative property.
To account for association or dissociation van’t Hoff introduced a factor T known as van’t Hoff factor. It is defined as Expected molar mass Abnormal molar mass _ Observed colligative property Calculated colligative property
Total number of moles of particles _ after association/dissociation Total number of moles of particles before association/dissociation
NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution-24

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We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solution, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

IGNOU Assignment

IGNOU Assignment 2019-20 (Released) | Check Online IGNOU Status, Dates, Latest Assignments from Here

IGNOU Assignment 2019-2020: IGNOU Assignments published by Indira Gandhi National Open University on its official website. Students can check and download the program wise assignments from the official website of IGNOU. Students need to download assignments for their chosen course on successful admission in a new session. Students must submit the program wise IGNOU Assignments to appear in IGNOU December 2019 TEE.

Students can download IGNOU Assignments December 2019 TEE in online mode only. The deadline for submission of Assignment IGNOU 2019 has extended up to 30th November 2019. So, students can submit their IGNOU Assignments 2019 for December TEE on or before the due date. Read the article below to know more information about IGNOU Assignment December 2019.

IGNOU Assignment 2019 20

IGNOU Assignments 2020 can be checked and downloaded through online mode only. IGNOU Assignments must be submitted by each student to the respective study center to appear in December 2019 TEE. Otherwise, they cannot appear in the Term End Exam conducted by IGNOU. Students can take help from IGNOU Solved Assignments to prepare and submit good assignments to the study center.

Students must keep in mind that IGNOU. Assignments have 30% weightage in each IGNOU Programme. Submitting an Assignment of IGNOU will help students to score high marks and increase the performance report in the grade card. Students must secure 40% marks in assignments to clear the assignments. After this, they can fill the IGNOU Exam Form to appear in IGNOU TEE.

Students must read IGNOUAssignments instructions prior to writing assignments. Students can find and IGNOU Assignment 2019-20 downloads their courses on the desktop or laptop. After this, they can write assignments by hand rather than printing or typing assignments. Students have to submit only 2018-19 session assignments to appear in December 2019 TEE. But, if the course chosen by the student has the availability of January or July 2019 session assignments then submit a fresh assignment to the study center. IGNOU has offered program wise assignments for the following courses.

  • Master’s Degree Courses
  • Bachelor’s Degree Courses
  • P.G. Diploma Courses
  • Diploma Courses
  • Certificate Courses
  • P.G. Certificate Courses
  • Foundation Courses

IGNOU Assignment Dates

Assignment IGNOU Events Dates
IGNOU Assignment Last Date (Extended) November 30, 2019
IGNOU Exam Date December 2019

How To Download IGNOU Assignment 2019-20?

Refer to the below-listed points to download the online IGNOUAssignments for TEE:

  • Students should go to the official website of IGNOU, ignou.ac.in assignment 2019-20.
  • Click on the ‘Downloads’ appeared under the ‘Student Support’ menu of the homepage.

IGNOU Students Support

  • Click on the ‘Assignments’ appeared in the left menu of the Downloads page.
  • The Programme wise Assignments will be displayed on your screen, https://webservices.ignou.ac.in/assignments/
  • Download the Assignments for your chosen course on your computer or laptop.
  • Take the printout of the selected assignments.
  • Submit the completed assignments in your study center on or before the due date.

How To Check IGNOU Assignment Status 2019-20?

Refer to the below point to check IGNOU Assignment Status

IGNOU Status Assignment

  • Now Enter Enrollment Number.
  • Select the Programme code and click on the submit button.
  • Now Status of the assignment will be displayed on Screen.

IGNOU Assignment Important Instructions

Refer to the below important instructions regarding IGNOU Assignment Question:

  • Students should write the sheets in an organized and continuous order.
  • Copied assignments will not be accepted by IGNOU, so make sure to avoid copying assignments.
  • Each assignment should be written in separate sheets. Make sure to use the next sheet for each course.
  • Each answer should be followed by a question number.
  • You will get an acknowledgment from the Coordinator or Programme In-charge during the submission of assignments at the study center.
  • In case of requesting the change of Study Centre, submit only the Tutor Marked Assignments to the original Study Centre until getting the change notification by the institute.
  • Write the correct enrolment number, name, topics, and address in your assignments.
  • Make sure to write the correct assignment number and the course title.

FAQ’s on IGNOU Assignment

Question 1.
Why is the submission of IGNOU Assignments required?

Answer:
IGNOU Assignments must be submitted by each student to the respective study center to appear in December 2019 TEE. Otherwise, they cannot appear in the Term End Exam conducted by IGNOU.

Question 2.
Can I get the IGNOU Assignments in Study Center?

Answer:
No, IGNOU Assignments can only be downloaded online from its official website.

Question 3.
What is the extended last date to submit IGNOU Assignments?

Answer:
The extended last date to submit IGNOU Assignments is 30th November 2019.

Question 4.
What is the score required to clear IGNOU Assignments?

Answer:
Students must secure 40% marks in assignments to clear the assignments. After this, they can fill IGNOU exam form to appear in IGNOU TEE.

Question 5.
What is the weightage of IGNOU Assignments?

Answer:
IGNOU Assignments have 30% weightage in each IGNOU Programme. Submitting IGNOU Assignments will help students to score high marks and increase the performance report in the grade card.

We hope this article will help you to get information about IGNOU Assignments. For any queries related to IGNOU Assignments, leave it in the comment box.

Jain Scholarship

Jain Scholarship 2020 | Dates, Application and Selection Process, Eligibility

Jain Scholarship 2019-2020: Jain Scholarship Test 2020 will be conducted by the Jain University, Bangalore. This scholarship will be awarded only to the students of Jain University. Jain University Scholarship Test (JUST) 2020 will be conducted tentatively from the second week of April till the third week of April 2020. Jain Scholarship application process will begin from November 2019 till April 2020. So, students can fill the application form online on the official website of Jain University. Students can also download the application form and submit it in offline mode at the office of the Jain University.

Jain Deemed-to-be University offers scholarships to encourage the extraordinary talents of students in different categories. Categories include sports, literary, community service, academics, and dance & music. The university also giving admission opportunities to students with auditory, visual, and other physical disabilities to all the courses. So, interested students must apply for the scholarship test on or before April 2020. Read the complete article to get all the information about Jain Scholarship.

Jain University Scholarship Test (JUST) 2020

Jain University Scholarship Test (JUST) 2020 will be available only to the students of Jain University. All eligible Indian students of Jain University can avail of this scholarship. Jain University was founded in 1990 in Bangalore, India. It was founded as Sri Bhagawan Mahaveer Jain College in Bangalore. The university provides 185 programs at 10,000 seats in undergraduate, postgraduate and research level courses.

The Jain Deemed-to-be University Scholarship Committee (JUSC) will review the scholarships on a regular basis. So, the agreement on the number of scholarships will be awarded to students every year are approved by JUSC. That is why the scholarships for each category will be awarded based on the number of scholarships available in each category in that year.

List of Jain Scholarship

Refer to the following categories of scholarships offered by the Jain Deemed-to-be University.

Scholarship Name Category Number of Scholarships Year of Award
Ekalavya Sports Open The duration of this scholarship is 3 years. After completing one year, the performance of the players will be reviewed. The review will be made on the basis of their performance or achievements in the State or National level and all India ranking tournaments. As per the review, the scholarship will be extended for the second year. Then, it will be extended to the third year based on 2nd year’s performance. In case, the performance of a player in the 1st year is not satisfactory then JUSC may terminate the scholarship granted to the upcoming sports scholar.
Atharva Literary Open The scholarship will be awarded in the first year based on performance. Then, it will be extended for the subsequent year if the continuation requirements are satisfied.
Dyumna Specially Challenged Open The scholarship will be awarded in the first year based on performance. Applicants need to submit a medical certificate as proof of the disability.
Samasti Community Service Open The scholarship will be awarded in the first year based on performance. Then, it will be extended for the subsequent year if the continuation requirements are satisfied.
Medha Academics Open The scholarship will be awarded in the first year based on performance. Then, it will be extended for the subsequent year if the continuation requirements are satisfied.
Natyaswara Music and Dance Open The scholarship will be awarded in the first year based on performance. Then, it will be extended for the subsequent year if the continuation requirements are satisfied.

Jain Scholarship Overview

Particulars Details
Conducting Body Jain Deemed-to-be University, Bangalore
Scholarship Name Jain Scholarship
Application Mode Both Online & Offline
Applicable State Karnataka
Exam Type University Level
Exam Category Undergraduate (UG)
Release of Application Form November 2019
Application Fee Rs. 500
Purpose of Scholarship offered scholarships to encourage the extraordinary talents of students
Website www.jainuniversity.ac.in

Jain Scholarship Dates

Events Dates
Start of Application Form November 2019
Last Date of Application Form Submission April 2020
Release of Admit Card April 2020
Jain Scholarship Test Start Date Second Week of April 2020
Jain Scholarship Test End Date Third Week of April 2020
Result Declaration Fourth Week of April 2020
Disbursement of Scholarship to the Selected Students of the University May 2020

Jain Scholarship Eligibility Criteria

The following are the eligibility criteria to apply for the Jain Scholarship Test.

  • The student must be a citizen of India.
  • The student should be studying at Jain University.
  • The students must have completed class 12th or equivalent entrance exam.
  • The general category students must have secured a minimum of 45% of marks in aggregate. Whereas the SC/ST category students must have secured a minimum of 40% of marks in aggregate.
  • The students should have completed class 12th with Mathematics, English, Physics, Chemistry or Biotechnology or Biology or technical vocational.

Jain Scholarship Selection Process

The student will be selected for Jain Scholarship based on their performance. All the applications received from students under sports, literary, academics, physically challenged, community service, music and dance categories. These applications will be reviewed by the Jain University Scholarship Committee. The committee will make the final decision of shortlisting students. Then, the shortlisted students will get a scholarship offer letter with an acceptance form. They can accept or reject it within the given time period. On acceptance of an offer, the committee will intimate the date, time and venue to receive the award.

Jain Scholarship Application Process

Jain Scholarship application form releases in both online and offline mode in November 2019. Students should fill and apply an application form for JUST on or before the due date. Refer to the following points to apply for the Jain Scholarship Test 2020.

How To Apply Online

Jain Scholarship

  • They must register themselves by filling the name, valid email id, mobile number, password, and verification code confirmed by them.
  • Students will have to generate a password and a valid email id to login to the scholarship application.
  • After confirmation of the login Id and password, students can see the Jain University scholarship application.
  • Students have to fill the correct details like personal, educational, etc. in the application form.
  • After filling the form, they should recheck it thoroughly to avoid the rejection from the scholarship committee.
  • The scanned copies of the relevant documents should be uploaded in jpg format.
  • After this, students must pay an application fee of Rs. 500/- through net banking or credit or debit card.
  • Then, submit the Jain Scholarship Test application form along with the documents.

How To Apply Offline

  • Students can get an application form from the admissions office of the Jain University.
  • A student can apply for only one category of the scholarship. A student should not hold more than one scholarship.
  • After this, students should fill the correct information in the Jain Scholarship application form.
  • Attach the relevant documents in jpg format along with the application form.
  • An application fee of Rs. 500/- must be paid through a demand draft.
  • The name and application number of the student must be mentioned on the backside of the demand draft.
  • The demand draft must be drawn in favor of the “Jain University” payable at Bangalore.
  • Then, submit the duly filled application form along with the necessary documents and demand draft at the below-given address by post
    Jain University
    Admissions Office, No.44/4, JGI Knowledge Campus,
    District Fund Road, Behind Big Bazar,
    Jayanagar 9th Block, Bangalore – 560069.

Jain Scholarship Checklist of Documents

The scanned copies of the following documents should be uploaded to apply for JUST.

  • Mark sheets and certificates of the previous examinations.
  • A recent passport size photograph.

Jain Scholarship Amount

The scholarship amount ranges from Rs. 2500/- to Rs. 25,000/- per year, to the students for pursuing higher studies in India.

Jain Scholarship Exam Pattern

Jain Scholarship exam pattern contains the type and level of questions asked in the test. Jain Scholarship Test includes 4 sections which are English, Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. The total number of questions asked in the test is 180. Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics 50 questions and English 30 questions will be asked in the test. There is no negative marking for wrong answers and every correct answer carries 1 mark.

The test will be conducted in 2 to 3 sessions per day. The duration of the test is 3 hours for each session. Students can choose their exam center along with the exam date according to their convenience. Refer to the following exam pattern of Jain University Scholarship Test

Sections Subjects Total Number of Questions
A Physics 50
B Chemistry 50
C Mathematics 50
D English 30
Total 180

FAQ’s on Jain Scholarship 2020

Question 1.
What is the Jain Scholarship?

Answer:
Jain Scholarship will be conducted by the Jain University, Bangalore. Jain Deemed-to-be University offers scholarships to encourage the extraordinary talents of students in different categories. The university also giving admission opportunities to students with auditory, visual, and other physical disabilities to all the courses.

Question 2.
What are the categories of scholarships offered in the Jain Scholarship?

Answer:
The Jain Scholarship offers different categories of scholarships to students. Categories include sports, literary, community service, academics, and dance & music.

Question 3.
Is the Jain Scholarship available for all State students?

Answer:
No, the Jain Scholarship is available only to the students of Jain University.

Question 4.
How much application fees will be paid for Jain Scholarship?

Answer:
An application fee of Rs. 500/- must be paid through demand draft drawn in favor of the “Jain University” payable at Bangalore.

Question 5.
When will be the Jain Scholarship Test conducted?

Answer:
The Jain Scholarship Test will be conducted from the 2nd week of April 2020 to the 3rd week of April 2020.

We hope this article will help you to get more information about the Jain Scholarship. If you have queries related to Jain Scholarship, then leave it in the comment box.

Students can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship

Dr. Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship 2020 | Eligibility Criteria, Application Procedure, Selection

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship 2019-2020: Dr. Shamanur Shivashankarappa Janakalyana Trust Davangere grants Scholarship Program to the scholars of class 11 to post-graduation who are wanting to proceed their higher education in the professional courses like Engineering, Technology, Management, Law, Nursing, Medicine and Dental Sciences.

The scholarship is a prize to candidates who have surpassed their academics and wish to continue further education. It is only a scholarship provided by the concerned authority, not a loan which need not be paid back. The scholarship is granted to all regular courses which are recognized by the boards or universities. Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship last date is September 10th 2019. Download Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Selected List 2019-2020.

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Highlights

Areas of study Professional courses like Engineering, Technology, Management, Law, Nursing, Medicine and Dental Sciences.
Level Class 11th to Post-graduation
Fellowship provided by Dr. Shamanur Shivashankarappa Janakalyana Trust
Provided to candidates of class 11 to post-graduation willing to pursue their higher education in the professional courses

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Eligibility Criteria

  • Only citizens of Karnataka are eligible
  • The family income of the candidate should not be more than 1 lakh per year.
  • Only those who study in reputed colleges on a regular basis, affiliated to the university of repute are eligible to apply.
  • Those who study through correspondence or in Part-time colleges are not eligible to apply.
  • All the applications will be scrutinized thoroughly, economically weaker and meritorious candidates will be awarded a scholarship
  • candidates must have a bank account number in any of the core banking facility branches
  • candidates must have an Adhaar number.

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Cut Off Marks

Courses Marks Examples
PUC, MBBS 90% If the candidate is pursuing PUC his/her 10th/SSLC score should be More than 90%
DIPLOMA, BSC, BCOM, BE, BVSC 85% If the candidate is pursuing BSC his/her PUC score should be More than 85%
BCA, BBM/BBA, BA, BDS, B PHARMA, MA, MSC, MCOM, B.Ed. 80% If the candidate is pursuing BDS his/her PUC score should be More than 80%
CA, MCA, MBA, MPHIL, MPED, MTECH 75% If the candidate is pursuing MBA his/her DEGREE score should be More than 75%

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Application Procedure

The applicant can apply online at, https://ssjanakalyantrust.org/. Just follow the below steps to apply for the Scholarship Program.

  • Go to the official website of Dr.Shamanur Shivashankarappa Janakalyana Trust Davangere through the URL provided above.

C:\Users\cbse\Downloads\Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Application Procedure.png

  • Go through the scholarship terms & conditions carefully and Click the Apply Now button at the end of the page.
  • Mention your Personal Information, Previous Education details, Present Education details and Bank Details
  • Mention the Name of the candidate
  • Mention your Aadhaar Number
  • Mention Your Date of Birth
  • Select your Gender
  • Mention your Father / Guardian Name
  • Mention your Father / Guardian Occupation
  • Mention your Address line 1
  • Mention your Address line 2
  • Mention your Pin Code
  • Only Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship online applications with the application number and with required documents will be accepted, no other applications like handwritten or similarly typed applications will not be accepted
  • Any issues and queries related to the online application send e-mail to drssjkt@gmail.com
  • Take a print out of the application form along with the required documents by courier, post or personally to
    The Secretary, Dr.Shamanur Shivashankarappa Janakalyan Trust,
    C/o. R L Law College,
    Behind Bapuji Educational Association Head office,
    P J Extension, Davangere-577002″, Karnataka

Documents Required for Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship

  • Passport size photo
  • SSLC/10th, PUC/12th marks card
  • Previous year/previous semesters marks card if pursuing UG or PG
  • Income certificate of family income from all sources.
  • Copy of Admission receipt/fee receipt
  • Copy of Identity card is issued by the Institution
  • Copy of candidate Bank account passbook showing candidate photo and account number and IFSC Code
  • Copy of ADHAAR card.

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Selection Procedure

  • The scholarship applications will be scrutinized by the expert members.
  • Applicants with top merit and from economically weaker section will be awarded a scholarship
  • The scholarship amount shall be disbursed to the Bank Account number of the candidate provided in the Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship 2020 application form.
  • If the candidate has given the account number of his parents, friends or relatives then the application will be rejected.
  • If a candidate leaves or discontinues the course from the institution, it shall be his/her duty and the duty of the Principal/Head of the Institution to send intimation to trust.

Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship Contact Number 08192 250237, Email ID: drssjkt@gmail.com

FAQ’s On Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship

Question 1.
What is the Shamanur Shivashankarappa Scholarship?

Answer:
Dr. Shamanur Shivashankarappa Janakalyana Trust’s Scholarship Program 2018 invites applications from candidates of class 11 to post-graduation who are willing to pursue their higher education in professional courses like Engineering, Technology, Management, Law, Nursing, Medicine and Dental Sciences. The main aim is to assist intelligent but economically poor candidates of Karnataka.

Question 2.
Who can apply for this scholarship?

Answer:
A candidate should be:

  • Citizen of Karnataka
  • Family income from all the sources should not be more than 1 lac per year.
  • Only those who study in recognized colleges on a regular basis, affiliated to the university of repute are eligible to apply.

Question 3.
Do you award a scholarship for a non-degree course?

Answer:
Yes, the scholarship is awarded for Degree and Non-Degree Courses.

Question 4.
What are the benefits?

Answer:
Financial support will be given to meritorious and needy candidates until the completion of the course.

Question 5.
Are there any special preferences given to any course?

Answer:
No, any course from a recognized college or university.

Question 6.
Is a scholarship given for abroad studies?

Answer:
No, an applicant cannot be granted a scholarship for abroad studies to any country or city in the world.

Question 7.
How many days will it take for announcing a scholarship?

Answer:
It would take 30 working days.

Students can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Why did Sher Shah Suri build the Shahi (Royal) road? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The main reason behind building the Shahi (Royal) road by Sher Shah was to strengthen and consolidate his empire from the Indus Valley to the Sonar valley in Bengal.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Golden Quadrilateral’. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Golden Quadrilateral is a 4 or 6 lane super highway project undertaken by National Highway Authority of India. It is a 5846 km long highway meant to connect India’s four big metro cities of Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata. It deducts the time-distance and cost of movement along with the megacities of India.

Question 3.
What is satellite communication? (All Indio 2014)
Answer:
Satellite is an advanced mode of communication in themselves. They also regulate the use of other means of communication.

Question 4.
Why is the density of rural roads very low in the hilly areas of India? Give one reason. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Nature of difficult terrain makes the construction of roads difficult and comparatively costly that’s why the density of roads is very low in the hilly areas of India.

Question 5.
State the main function of the Border Road Organisation. (All india 2013)
Answer:
The main Function of the Border Road Organisation (BRO) are:

  • Construction and maintenance of border roads.
  • Clearance of snow in high altitude areas.

Question 6.
State the main function of the National Highways Authority of India. (All Indio 2013)
Answer:
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is entrusted with the responsibility of development, maintenance and operation of National Highways.

Question 7.
What are National Highways? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the central Government are known as National Highways.

Question 8.
Name the headquarter of South Central Railway Zone. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Secunderabad is the headquarter of ‘South Central Railway Zone’ of India.

Question 9.
Which is the eastern terminal city of East-West corridor? (All India 2012)
Answer:
Silchar in Assam is the eastern terminal city of East-West corridor.

Question 10.
Name the railway line that was constructed between Roha in Maharashtra and Mangalore in Karnataka. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Konkan railway line was constructed between Roha in Maharashtra and Mangalore in Karnataka.

Question 11.
Name the air services which is widely used in the hilly areas of North-Eastern sector of India. (All India 2011)
Answer:
The air services which is widely used in the hilly areas of North-Eastern sector of India is Pawan Hans helicopter service.

Question 12.
What was the main aim behind establishing ‘Border Road Organisation’ in India? (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Border Road Organisation (BRO) was established with the aim to accelerate economic development and strengthening defence preparedness through the rapid and coordinated improvement of strategically important border roads.

3 Marks Questions

Question 13.
Describe any three advantages of satellite communication in India. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Advantages of satellite communication in India are as follows:

  1. Satellites provide a continuous and synoptic view of large er area which is very vital for the country due to the economic and strategic reasons.
  2. The Indian National Satellite system (INSAT) is a multipurpose satellite system which is very useful in telecommunication meteorological observation and other data and programmes for India.
  3. The Indian Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS) is very useful in the management of natural resources, monitoring of natural calamities, surveillance of border, etc in India.

Question 14.
The distribution of roads in India is not uniform. Examine the statement by giving three reasons, (HOTS; AM India 2014)
OR
“The density and quality of roads are better in plains as compared to other regions in India”. Support the statement with examples. (HOTS; All India 2009)
Answer:
The distribution of roads in India is not uniform. Reasons behind this uneven distribution of roads are:

  1. Roads can be easily and cheaply constructed in plain areas whereas it can be difficult and costly in hilly, mountainous and plateau areas. That’s why most of the northern states and southern states have a dense network of roads as compared to Himalayan and North-Eastern states.
  2. Level of economic development also plays an important role in deciding the network of roads in an area. That’s why having plain areas, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh have a less dense network of roads.
  3. Inaccessible areas also have less density of roads in India. Forested rainy and high altitude areas have less density of roads.

Question 15.
Describe any three advantages of pipelines as a means of transport in India. (All indin 2014)
Answer:
Advantages of pipelines as a means of transport in India are as follows:

  • It is the most convenient and efficient means of transporting liquids and gases over long distances.
  • Pipelines can also transport solids after converting them into the slurry.
  • Its initial set up cost is high after it pipelines transport liquids and gases very cheaply.

Question 16.
What are the three categories to the track of Indian railways? Write any one feature of each. (Delhi 2010)
OR
What are the three categories of Indian Railways on the basis of the width of a track? Write the main feature of each category. All India 2008
Answer:
Indian railways have been divided into three categories on the basis of the width of the track:
Broad Gauge In broad gauge, the distance between rails is 1.676 metres.
Characteristics of the broad gauge are:

  • Broad gauge line share 74.14 per cent of railway length in the total length of rail routes in the country.
  • The total length of broad gauge lines is 55188 km.

Metre Gauge In metre gauge, the distance between the rail is one metre.
Characteristics of metre gauge are:

  • It accounts for 21.02% of the total route length in the country.
  • The total length of the metre gauge is 6809 km.

Narrow Gauge In narrow gauge, the distance between the rails in 0.762 metres.
Characteristics of the narrow gauge are:

  • It accounts for about 4.94% per cent of total route length in the country.
  • The total length of the narrow gauge line is 2463 km.

Question 17.
Which are the two types of roads included under the category of ‘other roads’ in India? Write any two features of each. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Border roads and International Highways are included under the category of ‘Other Roads’ in India. These are described below:
Border Roads These are strategically important roads along the Northern and North- Eastern boundary of the country.
Characteristics of border roads are as follows:

  • The total length of border roads was 40450 km in 2005 which was constructed by BRO.
  • These roads are important to accelerate economic development and strengthening defence preparedness.

International Highway These are roads which connect India to neighbouring countries.
Characteristics of International highways are as follows:

  • They aim to promote a harmonious relationship with neighbouring countries.
  • They provide an effective connection to neighbouring countries.

Question 18.
Write any six characteristics of road transport in India. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Characteristics of road transport in India are as follows:

  1. With a total length of 42.3 lakh km of roads, India has placed itself among the countries which have a large road network.
  2. Road transport carries about 85% of passenger and 70% of freight traffic every year.
  3. Various attempts are made to modernise and improve the condition of roads in India such as Nagpur plan, twenty-year road plan.
  4. In India, roads are classified on the basis of purpose of construction and maintenance in National Highways (NH), State Highways (SH), Major District Roads and Rural Roads.
  5. Apart from above roads, there are border roads which are constructed for defence purpose and international roads which are constructed to link connection with neighbouring countries.
  6. Distribution of roads is not even throughout the country. Road density is highest in Uttar Pradesh and lowest in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 19.
Which is the most effective and advanced personal communication system in India? Explain any four characteristics of it. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The most effective and advanced personal communication system in India is the internet. It has the following characteristics:

  • With the help of the internet, users can directly communicate through e-mail and can get access to the world of knowledge and information.
  • Use of internet is increasing for e-commerce and carrying out money transactions.
  • The internet is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items.
  • Communication network through the internet and e-mail is a cheaper mode of communication which provides efficient access to information at a comparatively low cost.

Question 20.
Mention any six advantages of oceanic routes. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Following are the advantages of oceanic routes:

  • These play an important role in the transport section of India’s economy.
  • India’s vast coastline of about 7, 517 km easily facilitates this type of transport.
  • There are 12 major and 185 minor ports in India.
  • Abort 95% of India’s foreign trade by volume and 70% by value moves through oceanic routes.
  • This trade gives international trade service.
  • It provides transportation between the islands and the rest of the country.

Question 21.
Why is the Indian railway system divided into sixteen zones? Name the headquarters of Eastern, Western, Northern and Southern zones. (All Indin 2009)
Answer:
India has one of the longest railway networks in the world. Indian railways are the largest government undertaking in India. The Indian railway network is 64460 km long.

To reduce the pressure of this large size railway from a centralised railway system, the Indian railway system has been divided into sixteen zones. The headquarters of Eastern railway is Kolkata, the Western railway is Mumbai (Church gate), Northern railway is New Delhi and Southern railway is Chennai.

Question 22.
Describe any three characteristics of State Highways of India. (All India 2008)
Answer:
Three characteristics of state highways of India are as follows:

  • These are the highways which are constructed and maintained by the state governments.
  • They are meant to connect the state capitals with district headquarters and other important towns.
  • These roads are further connected to National Highways, so they can connect these areas to other states.

5 Marks Questions

Question 23.
Why is the distribution of roads not uniform in India? Explain with examples. (Delhi 2016)
OR
‘The distribution of roads is not uniform in India.’ Support this statement with suitable arguments. (HOTS: Delhi 2015)
OR
Explain With five suitable examples, how the level of economic development and nature of terrain affect the density of roads in India. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Nature of terrain and level of economic development affect the density of roads in the following ways:

  1. Construction of roads in plains is easy and cheaper than compare to hilly and mountainous areas, that’s why Indo-Gangetic plains have a high density of roads.
  2. Difficult terrain, the thick forest does not provide, suitable conditions for the development of roads. That’s the reason for having a low density of roads in Himalayan and North-Eastern region.
  3. Sandy soil is also a restriction in the development of roads, that’s the reason for having less density of roads in Western Rajasthan.
  4. Economic development also affects the density of roads. Karnataka plateau and Maharashtra have a density of roads due to the high concentration of industries and urbanisation in these areas.
  5. A high density of 50-100 km (per 100 sq km) of the area is also found in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh of Northern Plains. This is due to advanced agriculture, industry and urbanisation in these areas.

Question 24.
Which is the apex body in India to improve the quality of National Highways? Examine the significance of National Highways. (All India 2016)
Answer:
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is the nodal agency responsible for building, upgrading and maintaining most of the national highways network. It operates under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

The significance of National Highways can be examined through the following points:

  • National Highways form the lifeline of road transport and constitute the framework of the road system in India.
  • These roads are meant for inter-state and strategic defence movements.
  • These also connect the state capitals, major cities, important ports, railway junctions, etc.
  • The length of the National Highways has increased from 19,700 km in 1951 to 70,934 km which is a good indicator of development in India.
  • The National Highways constitute only 1.67% of the total road length but carry 40% of the road traffic.

Question 25.
Examine the role of Inland Waterways Authority of India.
OR
Explain why inland water transport is an important mode of transport. (All Indio 2015)
Answer:
The role of Inland Waterways Authority of India can be understood through the following points:

  • The Inland Waterways Authority was set up in 1986. It is entrusted with the responsibility of the development, maintenance and regulation of national waterways in the country.
  • It does the function of surveying the economic feasibility of new projects and also administration.
  • It advises the Central Government on Inland waterways matters.

Importance of inland water transport of India are:

  1. Inland water transport was the chief mode of transport before the advent of railways.
  2. These are an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India.
  3. These provide the cheapest and most suitable transportation for heavy and bulky material.
  4. It is fuel efficient and eco-friendly means of transport.
  5. Apart from transportation. Inland waterways are also significant for the promotion of tourism, e.g. the famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race (Vallamkali) which held every year in backwaters.

Question 26.
“Indian railways brought people of diverse .cultures together.” Support this statement with suitable examples. (HOTS; All Indio 2015)
Answer:
Following points can explain the given statement:

  1. Indian railway was introduced in 1853.
  2. Indian railways network is more than 64,000 km, thus one of the longest railway networks in the world.
  3. As India is a land of diverse cultures, it connects people of different regions through its sixteen zones.
  4. People from different languages with different customs and food habits could connect with each other using Indian railways.
  5. Generally, each state of India has a distinct culture and customs. When people travel from one state to another, they mostly use railways as a means of transport and thus meet different people having different culture and traditions.
  6. Not only within the states, but people also come into contact with foreigners who belong to other countries, having varying colours of different customs and practices. Thus, share their culture and customs with each other.

Question 27.
What are National Highways? Explain any four uses of National Highways in India. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the central government are known as the National Highways.
The main uses of National Highways are given below:

  1. These roads are meant for inter-state and strategic defence movements.
  2. The National Highways constitute only 1.67% of the total road length but carry 40% of the road traffic.
  3. National Highways are most important for industrial development. Most of the industries use such a location where National Highways provide good connectivity for the easy movement of goods and commodities from the source region to market areas. Thus, National Highways are important as they give good connectivity of distant areas with ease.
  4. These also connect the state capitals, major cities, important ports, railways junctions, etc.

Question 28.
Define the term road density. Explain with examples the two main determinants of road density in India. (Delhi 2011)
OR
Explain with examples the two main determinants of road density in India. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The density of roads is defined as the length of roads per 100 sq km of surface area. It is a method to compare road network of an area to another area. The two determinants of road density in India are as follows:

Nature of Terrain It directly affects the density of roads. The maximum concentration of roads is in the Northern Plains.
The surface in plains is even and level. The North-Eastern states don’t have good networks of roads due to difficult terrain. Large numbers of rivers due to heavy rainfall makes it necessary to construct a large number to bridges. Construction of roads is easily and comparatively cheaper in plains.

Level of Economic Development Uttar Pradesh has the highest density of roads i.e. 532 27 km in 100 sq km area. The density of over 100 km of road length per 100 sq km of areas is also found in Tamil Nadu. Karnataka Plateau and Maharashtra have also a high density of 50 to 100 sq km of road length per 100 sq km of area. This is because of the high concentration of industries and urbanisation in these areas Building material is locally available.

The high density of roads is also found in Punjab and Haryana of Northern plain. This is due to advanced agriculture, industry and urbanisation in these areas. Building material is obtained from the Himalayan region. Large parts of Deccan plateau have a moderate density of roads.

Question 29.
How are Indian railways contributing to the growth of the national economy? Explain with examples (All India 2011)
Answer:
India has one of the longest railway networks in the world. Indian railways virtually from the lifeline of India catering to its needs for large scale movement of traffic, both freight and passenger, thereby contribution to economic growth and also promoting national integration.

Indian railways transport carries about 45849 lakh passengers and 4782 lakh tonnes of goods and travels over a distance of 14 lakh km every day. The number of passengers has risen from 1284 million in 1950-51 to 6219 million in 2006-07 and 7651 million in 2010-11. On average, 13 million people are loved every day by the Indian Railways.

Apart from the passenger traffic, the freight also increased tremendously. Development in industrial and agricultural sectors has generated a high demand for all transport. Major commodities transported by railways include coal, iron and steel ores, petroleum products and essential commodities such as food grains, fertilizers, cement, sugar, salt, edible oils, etc.

Indian railways also contribute to the tourism sector by connecting hill stations, religious places and other important tourist attraction places. It is the largest government undertaking which provides employment to millions of people in India.

Question 30.
What is the importance of air transport? Describe any four characteristics of the air transport system of India. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Air transport facilitates the fastest movement of goods and passengers from one place to another place. It has reduced distances and converted the world into one unit. Air transport has great importance for a vast country like India where distances are large and the terrain and the climatic conditions are uneven throughout the country.

It is also important for our links with other countries. India occupies a central location between Western Europe and Africa on the one hand and South -East and East Asia on the other hand.

Characteristics of the air transport system in India are as follows:

  1. To provide safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in Indian space, there is a regulatory body known as Airport Authority of India.
  2. There are two corporations. Air India and Indian Airlines, which provide air services in India. Air India handles international traffic passengers and cargo whereas Indian Airlines is the major domestic air carrier of the country.
  3. In addition to Air India and Indian Airlines, there are two private scheduled airlines operating on the domestic network. 38 companies hold non- scheduled air taxi operators permit. The share of the private sector airways has increased very rapidly after liberalisation.
  4. Union government has launched an open sky policy in 1982. Under this policy, foreign airlines or association of exporters can bring any freighters to the country. Its objectives are to help exporters so that their exports become more competitive in the world.

Question 31.
What is the importance of water transport? Describe in brief water transport system of India. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Importance of waterways are as follows:

  • Waterways are an important mode of transport for both passengers and cargo traffic in India.
  • Waterways provide the cheapest and most suitable transportation for heavy and bulky material.
  • It is a fuel efficient and eco-friendly means to transport.

There are two types of water transport system in India:
Inland Waterways
India has 14500 km of navigable inland waterways which is used for about 1% of the country’s total transportation. It includes rivers, canals, backwater, creeks, etc. At present, 3700 km of major rivers and 4300 km of canal network are navigable by mechanised vessels.

The inland waterways authority is responsible for the development, maintenance and regulation of national waterways in the country. Currently, there are three Inland waterways which are considered as national . waterways.

Oceanic Routes
India’s vast coastline of about 7517 km including islands easily facilitates this type of transport. There are twelve major and 185 minor ports, which provide infrastructure support to these routes.

About 95% of India’s foreign trade by volume and 70% by value moves through oceanic routes. Besides, trade, its development is also necessary for the transportation between the island and mainland of India.

Map-Based Questions
Question 32.
Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols on the given outline political map of India.
(i) The international airport located in AssAnswer: (All India 2016)
(ii) The headquarter of South Central railway zone. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(i) Guwahati
(ii) Secunderabad
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication 1

Question 33.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The international airport in Punjab. (All India 2015)
OR
The northernmost international airport. (Delhi 2014)
(ii) The international airport in Karnataka. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(i) Amritsar
(ii) Bengaluru
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication 2

Question 34.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The international airport in Tamil Nadu. (All Indio 2014)
(ii) The northernmost international airport. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(i) Chennai
(ii) Amritsar
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication 3

Question 35.
Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Headquarter of North-Western Railway zone. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(i) Jaipur
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication 4

Question 36.
On the given political outline map of India provided to you, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) The southernmost international airport. (All India 2008)
(ii) The easternmost international airport. (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
(i) Thiruvananthapuram
(ii) Guwahati
Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication 5

Value Based Questions

Question 37.
“International Highways are constructed with the aim to promote a harmonious relationship with neighbouring countries and provide an effective connection with India”. Which value lead to the construction of International Highways?
Answer:
Following values lead to the construction of highways:

  • Globalisation
  • International peace
  • Harmony

Question 38.
“From an economic and strategic point of view, use of satellite is very vital for the country, as these give continuous and synoptic view larger area”. Identify the values from the statement.
Answer:
Following values can be derived from the statement:

  1. Technological advancement
  2. National security
  3. Development

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 20 Transport And Communication, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.