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Question-5
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Question-6
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Question-7
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Articles are a type of determiners. The term determiner covers several classes of words which includes Definite and Indefinite Articles, the Demonstratives and Adjectives of indefinite number and quantity, numerals and possessives. Determiners identify or specify a noun in various ways, for example, by making it definite (the child), indefinite (a child) or by indicating quantity or amount (many/three/some children) etc. Here we will discuss only the Definite and Indefinite Articles.
A,An and The are called articles. ‘A’ and ‘An’ are Indefinite articles as they are used indefinitely before countable common nouns singular numbers. ‘A’ is used with nouns beginning with consonants or consonant sound whereas ‘ An’ is used with vowels or vowel sound.
Examples:
Examples:
Use of ‘A’
Use of ‘An’
Use Of ‘The’
(i) It is used before a particular person or thing; as
(ii) It is used to denote a whole class or kind; as
(iii) It is used before common nouns which are names of things unique of then- kind; as
(iv) It is used before the names of directions, the dates of months; as
(v) It is used before the superlative degrees of an adjective; as
(vi) It is used before the names of oceans, rivers, gulfs, seas, mountain ranges and groups of islands; as
(vii) It is used before the names of races or nations; as
(viii) It is used before the names of newspapers, religious books, famous buildings, ships, historical events; as
(ix) It is used before Proper nouns, Material nouns and Abstract nouns to make them Common nouns: as
(x) It is used before the musical instruments; as
(xi) It is used before the inventions; as
(xii) It is used before the parts of the body; as
(xiii) It is used before the political parties; as
Omission of the Article The
Article is omitted before-Article is omitted before-
(i) Proper Nouns; as
(ii) Arts and Sciences; as
(iii) Names of materials; as
(iv) Abstract nouns used in general sense; as
Exercise 1
Some of these sentences are right, but some of them need a/an. Put in a/an where necessary. Write ok if the sentence is already correct.
Answer
Exercise 2
Fill in the blanks with a/an or the:
Answer.
Exercise 3
Put in a/an or the wherever necessary.
Answer
Exercise 4
Put in a, an or the wherever necessary. Don’t use any article where it is not necessary.
Answer
NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishSanskritHindiRD Sharma
Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2017 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.
Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours
General Instructions
Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)
Question 1.
(a) What do you mean by a balanced diet ? (2)
Answer:
Balanced Diet: Balanced diet is that diet which contains all the important nutrients (macro and micro) in correct proportion for efficient working of the body. In other words, it is intake of appropriate type and adequate amount of food to supply energy and to support growth and development of an individual. Balanced diet contains all nutrients (macro and micro) in sufficient quantity and it fulfils the needs of body. Components of balanced diet are
(a) Energy Yielding Food
(b) Body Building Food
(c) Defensive Food
(b) What is Coronary Thrombosis ? (2)
Answer:
It is the most common Coronary Artery Disease and named as Heart Attack. Heart attack is actually a defect in which there is reduction in functional ability of the heart. Heart attack does not mean heart has been hit. It is actually failure of heart to continue activity. It is one of the most serious health problems as this is the cause of 30% of mortality rate in adults. This is mostly common with those who have sedentary lifestyle and poor dietary habits.
(c) Mention any three causes of Insomnia. (2)
Answer:
Insomnia: Insomnia, the inability to get to sleep or sleep well at night. It’s the most common sleep complaint.
(d) List any three harmful effects of tobacco consumption. (3)
Answer:
(i) ‘Tobacco as Poison: Nicotine is a brain poison found in tobacco. It is one of the most deadly poisons known to man. Half a drop of pure nicotine can be lethal to kill a person. There is no antidote for this poison.
(ii) Wrong Habit : Usually people start this habit to relieve tension (wrong concept). A small amount of nicotine with the first puff subdues tension. Soon after, it again stimulates the person for another puff. Thus, a smoker is caught in its vicious circle and becomes a slave to this habit.
(iii) Causes of Lung and Jaw Cancer: Intake of tobacco brings ‘tar’ (carbon compound) along with the smoke. This tar has a strong sticking effect, thus it gets attached to the lining of trachea and lungs, causing great risk of lung cancer. Chewing of tobacco also has similar carcinogenic effect and causes jaw cancer.
(iv) Increases Blood Pressure : Medical researches reveal that a single puff of cigarette can contract the smallest capillary. It increases the heart rate up to 20 beats per minute, thus extra pressure is exerted over heart and blood vessels. Therefore, the chances of heart problem increase.
(v) Decrease in Body Temperature : When nicotine enters the body, it reduces the blood flow. This reduces the skin temperature by 3 to 4 degree.
Question 2.
(a) What do you mean by obesity? (2)
Answer:
Obesity means excessive accumulation of fats in the body and tendency of an individual to become fatty due to this. It is a health problem in which the body gains lot of weight, i.e., overweight of body (abnormal). In this problem, the non-consumed (extra) fats of the body get deposited under the skin. This deposition of fats takes place especially in areas like the abdomen, chest, shoulder, buttocks and legs. Sometimes the excess of fats can also be noticed on neck, chin and cheeks. The obesity level can be calculated by the formula of “Body Mass Index” (BMI).
(b) List any four preventive measures against communicable diseases. (2)
Answer:
Prevention of spread of communicable diseases is called prophylaxis. Preventive measures are:
(c) How should we provide first aid to a drowning victim? (3)
Answer:
When a person is drowned in the water, his lungs and stomach are filled with water. In such state, the victim may die in 5 minutes. In such condition :
(d) List any three preventive steps to treat Arthritis. (3)
Answer:
Preventive and treatment steps :
Question 3.
(a) What is congenital disease ? (2)
Answer:
These are also known as hereditary diseases. These diseases are present right from the birth. They are caused either due to genetic disorder or environmental factors during development, e.g., haemophilia, colour-blindness, sickle-cell anemia, albinism, etc. They are passed on from generation to generation.
(b) What is meant by Drug Abuse ? (2)
Answer:
Non-prescribed drugs are known as Drug Abuse. These drugs are not recommended by physician or doctor. They are not taken for curing certain disease. They are self- taken for their addictive effect. Person takes these drugs as a habit under the influence of bad company; to remove tensions, loneliness, etc. But once a person starts taking drugs, he or she cannot stop using it, thus becoming slave to drugs.
(c) Give any three preventive steps to avoid a heart attack. (3)
Answer:
Preventive and treatment steps :
(i) Immediate Treatment : Recently new medicines and researches have been made for the treatment of heart attack such as Clot Buster, Streptokinase and Urokinase, etc. These medicines dissolve the abnormal clot within coronary arteries/veins. Aspirin is also helpful.
(ii) Permanent Treatment : Regular exercises with low to medium intensity pace for half to one hour. Slow jogging or brisk walk is also other alternative. Practicing yogic asana and pranayama is also very helpful for heart victims. Diet is important part for heart patients. It should be low in fats with lot of fibrous food.
(d) What three preventive measures would you take to check the spread of Bronchitis? (3)
Answer:
Preventive and treatment steps :
Question 4.
(a) What is a Thomas splint ? (2)
Answer:
Thomas splint is an easy way to provide the support to injured elbow. In this, a cloth piece is rotated around the neck up to elbow so that it gives support to injured elbow, moreover it prevents further movement and does not damage the injured elbow further.
(b) Why should we avoid heavy meal at night? (2)
Answer:
During night our physical activity is less, thus less energy is required. The energy from heavy meal during night is useless and it gets deposited in form of adipose tissues z’.e., it increases the fat percentage in the body.
(c) Mention any three symptoms of bone injury. (3)
Answer:
Symptoms of bone injury :
(d) Give any three preventive measures of poisoning. (3)
Answer:
Prevention from poisoning :
Question 5.
(a) Mention any four preventive steps to minimize sports accidents. (2)
Answer:
(i) Proper Warming-up : Proper warming-up (general and specific) is a must for player before participating in any physical activity. It tones-up body muscles and prepares the player psychologically for the coming activity. Thus, it prevents them from accidents or injuries.
(ii) Medical Check before Activity : Player should be properly medically checked up before physical activity related to previous injury disease, physical fitness level, etc. They must be fit to participate in the activity.
(iii) Proper Concentration : Player should play with full alertness and proper concentration over the activity. Player should not have any stress or tension; moreover, must be mentally ready for the activity.
(iv) Safety Guards and Check Equipments: Player should check his equipments and their condition. Player should use good quality equipments along with safety guards. Player should wear proper dress or kit along with proper shoes (according to surface as per activity needs).
(v) Regular Conditioning and Proper Skill: Regular conditioning improves various abilities of player like proper skill action, develops specific physical components, strengthens weak muscles and joints, etc.
(b) What do you mean by the term dislocation ? (2)
Answer:
Dislocation: It is an injury of joint in which the adjoining bones are displaced from their original position. It may be associated with sprain or fracture. Dislocation is mainly caused due to direct or indirect impact over the joint. It may be simple dislocation, fractured dislocation or complicated dislocation.
(c) What three points should be kept in mind in order to take care of our eyes? (3)
Answer:
Eyes being a delicate sense organ, special care should be given to the eyes. Following precautionary measures can keep eyes in proper condition :
(d) Name the causal agents for the following diseases : (3)
(i) Rabies
(ii) Pneumonia
(iii) Ringworm
Answer:
The main causes of:
(i) Rabies: Rabies virus is a neurotropic virus. This disease is caused by the Rabicilus virus (found in wild carnivorous animals like wolf, jackals, etc.). Sometimes it is also caused by diseased dog bite. It is not a communicable disease but still a very dangerous disease.
(ii) Pneumonia: It is caused by various types of germs such as Diplococcus pneumonia, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcal which enter into lungs and affect its functioning. It is caused due to exposure to cold or dry places or by the infected sputum of the patient.
(iii) Ring worm: It is a contagious disease of skin, hair and nails. On infection, ring-like discoloured patches appear on the skin which is covered by scales and vesicles. It is transmitted by contact with the infected persons or using the articles used by the patients. It can be prevented by personal cleanliness and avoiding the use of articles and clothes used by the patient.
Section – B (50 Marks)
(Attempt two questions from this Section)
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.
Cricket
Question 6.
(a) Explain the following : (8)
(i) A dot ball
(ii) A runner
(iii) An appeal
(iv) A wide ball
Answer:
(i) Dot Ball: A good length ball (bowled by bowler) on which batsman cannot score runs.
(ii) Runner : A supplement player to the batsman who runs for the batsman, in case of injury, illness while playing.
(iii) Appeal: It is a request or shouts by fielding players in anticipation of batsman to be given out by the umpire.
(iv) Wide Ball : When the bowler bowls the ball out of the batsman’s reach, towards the sideward of wickets.
(b) (i) Mention any three instances when umpire calls for a No ball. (9)
(ii) When is a batsman considered to be out stumped ?
(iii) List three different types of strokes played by the batsman in front of the wicket ?
Answer:
(i) No Ball: When the bowler commits some non-legal action to bowl.
(ii) Stump out : If a batsman misses the ball and the wicketkeeper breaks the wicket when he outside the crease.
(iii) Sweep: In this, the batsman hits the ball to deep angle while kneeling down.
Lofted Hit: A hit by the batsman, on which ball is lifted up in air.
Drive : It is hitting the ball in front field. Hook-Shot : It is hitting the high raised ball with force towards the leg side.
Pull-Shot : It is hitting the ball forcefully with good back lift and follow-through action of bat goes towards the on side of field.
(c) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) Clean bowled
(ii) Hit wicket
(iii) Handling the ball
(iv) Rim out
Answer:
(i) If the ball partially or completely destroys the wicket even if it touches the bat.
(ii) A bowler gets three wickets in three successive balls.
i. e., the bowler dismisses three batsmen on three consecutive balls.
(iii) If the batsman touches the ball with his hand.
(iv) If the batsman runs towards wicket but does not get therein time to place his bat between the edge of the popping crease and an opponent breaks the wicket then the batsman is run out.
Question 7.
(a) Explain the following : (8)
(i) Bodyline bowling
(ii) Declaration
(iii) Power play
(iv) Straight drive
Answer:
(i) Bodyline bowling : A type of negative bowling in which the ball is aimed at hitting the body of the batsman.
(ii) Declaration : A process in which the captain of the batting side may call the batsman off the field irrespective of the scores and discontinue their innings.
(iii) Power Play : A Power play is the name for the fielding restrictions in limited-over’s and Twenty-20 cricket. Mandatory Power play (1-10 over’s); the first 10 over’s of an innings will be a mandatory power play (i.e. in One Day format). During the mandatory Power-play, only two fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle. Between over’s 11 and 40, a maximum of four fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle. In the final 10 over’s (41-50), a maximum of five fielders will be allowed to field outside the 30-yard circle. It is mounting pressure over batsman by placing close fielding positions (9 players inside the 30 yard circle). It can be in three stages on request by captain.
(iv) Straight Drive : An over pitched ball is hit straight with full control of bat.
(b) (i) What is meant by obstructing the field ? (9)
(ii) What is meant by the term LBW?
(iii) Write any three duties of the umpire.
Answer:
(i) A batsman can be given out for obstructing the field if he willfully attempts to obstruct or distract the fielding side by word or action. The following three circumstances where this applies, but the law is not limited to these circumstances.
(ii) When the batsman’s leg or any part of his body prevents the ball from touching the wicket is given out for Leg-Before-Wicket( LBW).
(iii) They are the officials in ground responsible for administrating and imposing the rules and regulations of the game.
Duties of Umpires :
(c) (i) Write down any four ‘off side’ fielding positions in cricket. (8)
(ii) What are the signals for the following :
1. Short run
2. Power play
3. Bye
4. Free hit
Answer:
(i)
(ii) 1. It is signaled by Leg Umpire by folding the arm sideward.
2. The power play is signaled by moving the arm in a clockwise fashion from the ground to above your head.
3. Umpire signals this by raising one arm to sideward.
4. The umpires will signal a free hit by (after the normal No Ball signal) extending one arm straight upwards and moving it in a circular motion.
Football
Question 8.
(a) (i) What -is a penalty arc and why is it important? (8)
(ii) What do you mean by the term indirect free-kick ?
(iii) Write down the procedure to restart the game when the ball passes over the touch line.
(iv) Write down the procedure to restart the game when the ball is last touched by the defending player and passes over the goal line.
Answer:
(i) Penalty arc marked from 10 yards away from Penalty Point. It touches rectangular area of penalty area. It restrains the players to enter this area during Penalty Kick.
(ii) Indirect Free-Kick: An indirect free-kick is awarded to the opponent if a goalkeeper commits any of the following offences inside his own penalty area: takes more than four steps while controlling the ball with his hands, before releasing it from his possession; touches the ball again with his hands after it has been released from his possession without touching another player; touches the ball with his hand after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a teammate; touches the ball with his hand after he has received it directly from a throw-in by a teammate.
(iii) Goal-Kick : When ball passes over the goal line without goal scoring by the attacking player, then ball is kicked by placing from the penalty area.
(iv) Corner-Kick: It is also known as flag kick. Comer- kick is awarded when a defender puts the ball out of the play behind his team’s goal line. An attacking player then tries to send the ball in front of the goal for another attacker to head or make a short pass to a teammate to convert it into goal. It is taken from comer-arc or quarter-yard circle.
(b) (i) State any three instances when the opposite team is awarded an indirect free kick for an offence committed by the goal keeper. (9)
(ii) Name the tool kit carried by the referee to conduct a football match.
(iii) State any three fouls when the referee shows a yellow card to a player during the game.
Answer:
(i) If a goalkeeper commits any of the following offences inside his own penalty area;
(ii) It includes Cap, Whistles, Penalty/Foul Cards (Red, Yellow), Pocket Diary, Stop Watch/ Timer Watch, Flags, Bags, Coin, Down Indicators, Rule book etc.
(iii) Warning (Yellow Card):
(c) (i) Explain in detail the procedure followed during Tie-breaker in the game of Football. (8)
(ii) State the following :
1. Duration of the football match (men and women)
2. Substitution allowed in a match.
3. Officials for conducting a football match.
4. Duration of extra time
Answer:
(i) Tie-Breaker Rule :
1. Extra Time : During a knockout tournament, if there is a tie at the end of regulation time, then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two halves of 15 minutes each. In this duration, if any team scores the goal, wins the match. Earlier there was golden goal period in which the team who scored the goal first won the game but now it is said as silver goal period.
2. Penalty Shoot-outs : If there is still a tie after the overtime period, a penalty shootout takes place. The referee decides which goal will be used for the penalty kicks; the team to kick first is determined by a toss. Each team chooses 5 players to take the kicks in turn. The team that has the most goals after 5 kicks wins the game.
3. Sudden-Death: If the teams are still tied after 5 kicks each, the teams keep taking penalty kicks until one team wins. The goal is scored when ball crosses the goal line (may be on surface or in air).
(ii) 1. Duration of Match is 2 halves of 45 minutes for Men and 40 minutes for Women.
2. Substitution : A maximum of three substitutes may be used in any match played in an official competition organized under the auspices of FIFA.
3. Officials of Match are : 1 Match Referee, 2 Assistant Referees or Linesmen, 1 Commissioner, 1 Injury Timekeeper (depending upon tournament).
4. Extra Time: During a knockout tournament, if there is a tie at the end of regulation time, then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two halves of 15 minutes each. In this duration, if any team scores the goal, wins the match. Earlier there was golden goal period in which the team who scored the goal first won the game but now it is said as silver goal period.
Question 9.
(a) (i)What do you mean by the term Red Card! (8)
(ii) Explain the term ‘Sudden death’.
(iii) What is the distance between the goal posts and the height of the cross bar from the ground?
(iv) Give the measurement of the goal area in football.
Answer:
(i) Expulsion (Red Card) : Player is expelled if he commits a serious foul; as violent; strikes, charges; kicks or attempts to kick; trips on opponent, holds opponent; handles the ball intentionally; uses abusive language, offensive or insulting language; receives a second yellow card during the game.
(ii) Sudden death : If the teams are tied after 5 kicks. i.e., after penalty shootouts; then each team keeps taking penalty kicks until one team wins. The goal is scored when ball crosses the goal line (may be on surface or in air).
(iii) Goalpost Dimension is 8 yards. (7.3 meters) * 8 ft. (2.44 meters) with 5 inches cylindrical thickness of post.
(iv) It is marked at front of goal post, with 6 yards to both sides of goal post and 6 yards at front. The dimensions of this rectangular goal area is 20 yards by 6 yards.
(b) (i) List any three duties to be performed by the captain of the team. (9)
(ii) Mention any three duties of the referee before the match.
(iii) State any three duties of the fourth official.
Answer:
(i) Duties of a Captain :
(ii) Duties of Match Referee : Match Referee is an official responsible for the conduct of game under rules and regulations. His or her duties before the match are:
(iii) The fourth official serves as a replacement official in the event that one of the other officials (referee or assistant referees) cannot continue officiating, usually through injury. In situations where an Assistant Referee is unable to continue, the fourth official replaces that Assistant Referee.
(c) Explain the following : (8)
(i) Trapping
(if) Tackling
(iii) Dribbling
(iv) Kicking
Answer:
(i) Trapping : It is controlling the lifted ball before it could bounce or control the ball in air, so that it should fall near the body range. It is trapped by chest, thigh (upper leg), under the foot, etc.
(ii) Tackling : It is taking the ball possession from the opponent with sliding. Many times trapping the ball with head, chest, foot is also done for the possession of the ball.
(iii) Dribbling : It is faking to the opponent in such a way that the control of ball is kept. Player controls the movement of the ball with the feet whereas upper body gives the dodging movement.
(iv) Kicking : It is the most common skill used to hit the ball with power. It reaches long and away to the desired position. It is performed in various ways like kicking with inside; outside of foot; instep-kick; punt- kick; scissor kick; banana or chip-kick; roll back-kick, etc. It can be used during free-kick, goal-kick, comer- kick, penalty-kick or when situation suits.
Handball
Question 10.
(a) Write the following : (8)
(i) Duration of the game (men and women)
(ii) Duration of the extra time and timeout
(iii) Weight of the ball (men and women)
(iv) Circumference of the ball (men and women)
Answer:
(i) Duration of game has 2 halves of 30 minutes for Men and 25 minutes for Women with 5 to 10 minute break in each half.
(ii) Extra time has 2 halves of 5 minutes each with 1 minute break in-between.
(iii) Weight of ball is 450 g ± 25 grams for Men and 350 g ± 25 grams for Women.
(iv) Circumference of the ball is 60 centimeters for Men and 55 centimeters for Women.
(b) (i) How is a goal scored ? (9)
(ii) How does a player advance with the ball?
(iii) List any three occasions when the clock is stopped during the game?
Answer:
(i) When ball crosses the goal line completely under the goal-post, provided that no violation of the rules has been committed by the thrower, a teammate or a team official before or during the throw. Referee raises one hand and blows the short whistle twice.
(ii) Dribble : It is a skill of controlling and advancing with the ball. It is preventing opponents to gain the possession of the ball by bouncing, dodging, faking with the ball and advancing with the ball.
(iii)
(c) (i) What are the dimensions of the playing area? (8)
(ii) Where is the penalty line marked on the field?
(iii) What is the shape of the handball and what material is used in the construction of a handball?
(iv) What do you understand by the term Fake!
Answer:
(i) The dimensions of the playfield have rectangular shape with 40 meters length and 20 meters breadth. It should have 1 to 2 meters free zone area on all its sides.
(ii) Penalty line is marked parallel at the distance of 7 meters at the front of goal post.
(iii) The playfield have rectangular shape with 40 meters length and 20 meters breadth. Handball is an indoor game played on hard leveled wooden surface.
(iv) Fake: A skill to deceive opponent in wrong direction and thus making free space to move ahead.
Question 11.
(a) Draw a neat diagram of a handball court giving all its measurements. (8)
Answer:
(b) (i) List three duties of a Recorder. (9)
(ii) When is a comer throw awarded?
(iii) What is the utility of the goal area?
Answer:
(i) Recorder sits over the official table.
(ii) A comer throw is given to an attacking player while the ball is played over goal line by a defending player or either side of the goal. Comer throw is thrown by attacking player from the comer of court. It is done by throwing the ball by using either hand.
(iii) Goal Area : The arc around the goal post at 6 meters which is restricted for all players except goalkeeper. Only goalkeeper is permitted inside the own goal area. Goalkeeper can touch the ball with any body part inside the goal area. Only goalkeeper is permitted to leave the goal area without permission.
(c) Define the following terms : (8)
(i) A double-dribble
(ii) A line cut
(iii) A goal-throw
(iv) An over time
Answer:
(i) Double-Dribble : If player uses both hahds simultaneously while dribbling, it is a fault.
(ii) Line Cut: During attempt for goal if a player cuts or crosses the goal line, this is a violation.
(iii) Goal-Throw : During play if ball goes out from the end lines (goal line) by the opponent, then goalkeeper starts the game by goal throw. This is also known as goalkeeper throw.
(iv) Overtime is played, following a 5-minute break, if a game is tied at the end of the regular playing time and a winner has to be determined. The overtime period consists of 2 halves of 5 minutes, with a 1-minute half-time break.
Hockey
Question 12.
(a) Explain the following : (8)
(i) Carried
(ii) Back stick
(iii) A comer
(iv) A penalty stroke
Answer:
(i) Carried : When ball touches the leg or feet of the player, it is a violation.
(ii) Back stick : A player when uses backside of stick while dribbling. It is also a violation.
(iii) Penalty Corner : A penalty comer is awarded for an offence by a defender in the circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a goal; for an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who does not have possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball; for an intentional offence by a defender outside the circle but within the 23 metres area they are defending; for intentionally playing the ball over the back-line by a defender.
(iv) Penalty Stroke : It is also known as 7-yard push. It is given when some serious offence is committed by the defending team in their shooting circle which probably has interrupted the goal scoring. Time stops during penalty stroke. Only goalkeeper and the player taking stroke is permitted inside shooting circle. At the whistle player pushes or scoops or flicks the ball towards the goal scoring whereas goalkeeper defends it. It is done from the penalty spot 7 yards in front of goalpost.
(b) (i) List three offences by defenders which are penalized with a penalty comer against them. (9)
(ii) List any six instances when a referee blows the whistle for a foul.
Answer:
(i)
(ii) The Umpire blows the whistle during the game when:
(c) (i) What is the procedure for taking a penalty comer? (8)
(ii) What signal shall the umpire give for the following?
1. Goal scored
2. Dangerous play
3. Obstruction
4. Penalty comer
Answer:
(i) Penalty Corner Procedure : When serious foul is committed (intentional or unintentional), dangerous play, misconduct, argument with Umpire by player. It is taken from end line (10 yards away from goalpost) with push and while remaining attacker stops the ball outside the D to continue. Only five defenders are allowed inside the shooting circle during penalty comer.
(ii) 1. A goal is scored when the ball is played within the circle by an attacker and does not travel outside the circle before passing completely over the goal-line and under the cross-bar.
2. Dangerous Play : It is any action which is dangerous to the player or could lead to a dangerous situation due to raised ball, tackling from wrong position, etc.
3. Obstruction: It is hindrance to opponent against the rules.
4. A penalty comer is awarded for an offence by a defender in the circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a goal; for an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who does not have possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball; for an intentional offence by a defender outside the circle but within the 23 metres area they are defending; for intentionally playing the ball over the back-line by a defender.
Question 13.
(a) Write down the following : (8)
(i) Height of the comer flag post
(ii) Duration of the game (men and women)
(iii) Dimensions of the goalposts.
(iv) Weight of the ball and weight of the stick.
Answer:
(i) Four flags are placed at four comers and two are placed at a distance of meter from the stdehne over the centre line. The height of flag post should be 4 to 5 feet.
(ii) Duration of the game has 2 halves of 35 minutes for Men and 30 minutes for Women.
(iii) Dimension of goalpost has 12 Feets (3 -66 meters) by 7 Feets (2 14 meters) of 5 centimeters thick wood.
(iv) Weight of ball is 5’A Ounces (156 grams).
Weight of stick is between 16 to 32 Ounces.
(b) (i) When is a player awarded a push ini What minimum distance should be observed by the player of the opposite team during a push ini (9)
(ii) When is a goal considered to have been scored in a match?
(iii) Write any three duties of the referee.
Answer:
(i) When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players. It is awarded to the attacking team after the ball goes over the end line (not between the goalposts) from the stick of the defender. The ball is placed five yards away from the sideline over the end line.
(ii) A goal is scored when the ball is played within the circle by an attacker and does not travel outside the circle before passing completely over the goal-line and under the cross-bar.
(iii) Two Umpires are there (one in each half).
(c) Draw a neat diagram of the hockey field with its measurements. (8)
Answer:
Question 14.
(a) (i) Name the types of the time-outs. (8)
(ii) What do you mean by pivot-foot ?
(iii) Name any four fundamental skills in Basketball.
(iv) Write any two duties of the time keeper.
Answer:
(i) Charged Timeout : It is an interruption of game requested by coach. It lasts not more than one minute. It can be taken one time in I, II and III quarters; and two times in IV quarter.
(ii) Pivot-Foot : It is a restricted motion with ball. A player rotates around keeping one foot stationary. It is changing the direction of body while one foot maintains the contact with floor.
(iii) Passing : Chest-pass, bounce-pass, long-pass, one- hand pass, one-hand side-pass and underhand pass. Dribbling : Low-dribble, high-dribble, behind the back-dribble, under the leg-dribble.
Shooting : Jump-shot, set-shot, hook-shot, lay-up-shot, dunk-shot and tip-in shot.
Defence: Zone defence, man-to-man defence, match¬up defence (blocking, screening), press defence.
(iv) Duties of Timekeeper:
(b) (i) What is the duration of the game ? How is this time divided ? (9)
(ii) List any six player fouls which are noted over the score sheet by the table official.
Answer:
(i) Playing Time : The playing time period is of 40 minute duration which is extended into four quarters. The rest period in-between I to II and III to IV quarters is 2 minute whereas, in half (between II to III quarter) it is 5 minute to 10 minute, i.e., 10 -2 ; 10 – 5/10 ; 10 – 2 ; 10. The game clock starts when the ball reaches the highest point on a toss, during a jump ball is tapped by the first player.
(ii) The main fouls are :
Personal Foul: It is a player’s foul which involves illegal contact with the opposing player whether the ball is live or dead. A player is eliminated from the match if he commits 5 personal fouls. They are further penalized with throw-in or ffee-throws if their team has committed more than four fouls in each quarter. These fouls are charging, illegal blocking, guarding from behind, holding or pushing opponent, illegal screening, etc.
Unsportsmanlike Foul: This foul is also known as intentional foul. It is a personal foul of a player, with or without the ball. It has been deliberately committed against opponent like intentionally hitting the opponent player who is going for scoring basket. This is a serious foul in which opponent gets two freethrows along side pass from centre-line. Technical Foul: When a player or coach performs unsportsmanlike act or misconduct or violent act deliberately. In this foul opponent gets two free-throws along with throw-in from centre.
Multiple Foul: When two players are involved in the foul at almost the same time. Throw in taken from sideline is taken in alternate manner.
Team Fouls: These are total fouls of team. If the team fouls exceed more than four fouls in each quarter then opponent team is awarded with two free-throws on each foul.
(c) (i) Write the procedure to start the game. (8)
(ii) List any four technical equipments used by the table officials.
Answer:
(i) Jump-Ball: A jump-ball is a technique of starting the game in the beginning, from the circles. It takes place when official tosses the ball between the two opposing players. With new rules only one time the jump-ball is done and next time it is done with throw-in.
(ii)
Question 15.
(a) (i) Write any two conditions when a team forfeits the right of play. (8)
(ii) Give the signals for the following :
1. Jump ball
2. Charged time out
3. Technical foul
4. Double foul
5. Travelling
6. Time in
Answer:
(i)
(ii) 1. It is indicated by Thumbs up followed by point finger in direction of alternating possession arrow.
2. It is indicated by forming T by index finger showing.
3. It is indicated by form T, palm showing.
4. It is indicated by wave clenched fists on both hands.
5. It is indicated by rotate fists.
6. It is indicated by chop with hand.
(b) (i) State any three violations when opponents gain the possession of the ball. (9)
(ii) What is centre circle ? What are its dimensions ?
(iii) What is front pivot ?
Answer:
(i)
(ii) It is marked circle at the center of playfield for the jump ball. The radius of center circle is 1 -80 meter.
(iii) Front Pivot: It is a restricted motion with ball. A player rotates around keeping one foot stationary. It is changing the direction of body while one foot maintains the contact with floor.
(c) Write down the following : (8)
(i) ‘24’ second rule
(ii) ‘8’ second rule
(iii) ‘5’second rule
(iv)‘3’second rale
Answer:
(i) ‘24’ Second Rule: Whenever team gains possession of ball, they are supposed to attempt the basket within 24 seconds.
(ii) ‘8’ Second Rule : After the score or due to foul or any other reason if team gets the possession of ball they are supposed to move the ball in the front of court (from the rear half of court) within ‘8’ seconds. (Earlier it was 10 second rule).
(iii) ‘5’ Second Rule : A player cannot hold the ball (without bounce) for more than ‘5’ seconds.
(iv) ‘3’ Second Rule : Any offensive player cannot stay inside the opponents restricted area consecutively for more than ‘3 ’ seconds, (apart from attempts, rebounds or tries for making basket).
Volleyball
Question 16.
(a) Define the following terms : (8)
(i) A double touch
(ii) Ball out of play
(iii) A disqualification
(iv) Service
Answer:
(i) Double Touch : A player hits the ball twice in succession or the ball contacts various parts of his/ her body in succession.
(ii) Ball out of Play : When ball is out of play at the moment of a fault, which is whistled by one of the Referees.
(iii) A team member who is sanctioned by disqualification must leave the Competition Control Area for the rest of the match with no other consequences. It is indicated by yellow + red card (jointly)
(iv) It is a skill to start the game. The server delivers it over the net, and it is done behind the service line.
(b) (i) Enumerate any three duties of each of the following: (9)
1. A line judge
2. A scorer
3. A coach
Answer:
1. If only two line judges are used, they stand at the corners of the court closest to the right hand of each referee, diagonally at 1 to 2 meter from the corner. Duties of line judge :
2. The scorer performs his/her functions seated at the scorer’s table on the opposite side of the court facing the first referee.
3. Duties of coach :
(c) (i) Mention any three breach which are punishable. (8)
(ii) Explain legal and illegal substitution in volleyball.
Answer:
(i) 1. Penalty: The first rude conduct in the match by any team member is penalized with a point and service to the opponent.
2. Expulsion : A team member who is sanctioned by expulsion shall not play for the rest of the set and must remain seated in the penalty area with no other consequences.
3. Disqualification : A team member who is sanctioned by disqualification must leave the Competition Control Area for the rest of the match with no other consequences.
(ii) A substitute player may enter the game in place of a player of the starting line-up, but only once per set, and he/she can only be substituted by the same starting player. A substitution is illegal, if it exceeds the limitations indicated in Rule.
Question 17.
(a) (i) When and by whom was the game volleyball invented? (8)
(ii) List down the equipment used by a volleyball player.
(iii) Define the terms :
1. Positional fault
2. Rotational fault
Answer:
(i) The game of volleyball, originally called “mintonette,” was invented in 1895 by William G. Morgan after the invention of basketball.
(ii) A standard spherical volleyballs, Proper kit with uniformity except the Libro, Proper shoes, Net, Antenna, Team bench etc.
(iii) 1. Positional fault : During service the players must stay in their positions, i.e., diagonally opposite player must be in the same manner as in beginning. Otherwise, positional fault is given to opponent.
2. Rotational fault : A fault in which a wrong positional player performs the service.
(b) (i) Explain how a set and a match is won by a team. (9)
(ii) What is delay ? What are the various ways which a game may be delayed ?
(iii) How many legal interruptions are allowed in a game? Who grants the legal interruption?
Answer:
(i) A set is won by the team which first scores 25 points (except the deciding 5th set) with minimum lead of two points. To win a match, team has to win three sets. In case of 2-2 tie of sets, the deciding 5th set is played to 15 points with a minimum lead of 2 points.
(ii) During substitution, time out, ball goes away, injury to player, improper request to Umpire. Like delaying a substitution, requesting an illegal substitution, repeating an improper request, delaying the game by a team member.
(iii) Regular game interruptions are Time-outs and Substitutions. An interruption is the time between one completed rally and the 1st Referee’s whistle for the next service. Regular game interruptions may be requested by the coach, and/or by the game captain.
(c) Briefly explain the following terms : (8)
(i) Service zone
(ii) Substitution zone
(iii) An attack line
(iv) A substitution
Answer:
(i) Service-zone : The service zone is a 9 m wide area behind each end line. It is an area behind the backline which is used for performing service.
(ii) Substitution zone: The substitution zone is limited by the extension of both attack lines up to the scorer’s table
(iii) Attack line: On each court, an attack line, whose rear edge is drawn 3 m back from the axis of the centre line, marks the front zone.
(iv) Substitution: Replacement of one or more players from the listed substitution apart from libero. The coach of the team requests for substitution to the assistant referee. An area 3 m away towards sideline (substitution area) is allowed to move for substitution. When Referee signals for substitution, the player should move out and substitute player should enter.
Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science
Q.1.What do you mean by the word ethnic ?
Ans. A social division based on shared culture. People belonging to the same ethnic group believe in their common descent because of similarities of physical type or of culture or both.
Q.2.Which ethnic group in Belgium has the largest population ?
Ans. Flemish.
More Resources for CBSE Class 10
Q.3.‘The tension between Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities was more acute in Brussels’. Give reason.
Ans.The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. So the Dutch¬speaking community, who got the benefit of economic development and education much later showed the resentment between the Dutch-speaking and the French-speaking communities.
Q.4.Which are the most important social groups of Sri Lanka ? –
Ans. (i) Sinhala speaking (ii) Tamil speaking
Q.5Which ethnic group is in majority in Sri Lanka ?
Ans. Sinhala
Q.6.Name the two sub groups of Tamils in Sri Lanka. [CBSE 2014]
Ans. (i) Sri Lankan Tamils (ii) Indian Tamils
Q.7.When did Sri Lanka emerge as an independent nation ? [CBSE Sep. 2010, 11]
Ans. 1948
Q.8.What is a Civil War ?
Ans. It is a violent conflict between the opposing groups within a country, for example the conflict between Sinhalese and Indian Tamils in Sri Lanka.
Q.9. Name the ethnic group of Sri Lanka which were involved in a Civil War.
Ans. (i) Sri Lankan Tamils or the Sinhalese (ii) Indian Tamils
Q.10. What is majoritarianism ? Name a country which has lost peace due to this. [CBSE Sep. 2013]
Ans. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority. Sri Lanka.
Q.11. Power shared among different organs of government is known as horizontal distribution of power. Give reason.
Ans. Because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
Q.12. State one prudential reason and one moral reason for power sharing from the Indian content.
Ans. (i) India is a multicultural society.
(ii) India is a democratic country.
Q.13. What is different between prudential and moral reasons for power sharing ?
Ans. Prudential reasons stress that power sharing will bring out better outcomes, whereas moral reasons emphasis the very act of power sharing as valuable.
Q.’14. Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government in Belgium. Which is that third kind of government ?
Ans. Community government.
Q.15. What is the basic principle of democracy ?
Ans. The basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power.
Q.16. For a long time it was believed that all power of government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. Give reason.
Ans. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions.
Q.17. What is a community government ?
Ans. A community government is one in which different social groups are given the power to handle the affairs related to their communities. They are expected to work jointly for the benefit of the common masses without undermining any one community.
Q.18. Name the most important organs of the government.
Ans. Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
Q.19. What is a federal government ?
Ans. It is a government under which two or more than two sets of governments govern the country.
Q.20. What is a reserved constituency ?
Ans. A reserved constituency is a constituency which is reserved for a particular section of the society.
Q.21. What is the importance of reserved constituency ?
Ans. This type of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social group who otherwise would feel alienated from the government.
Q.22. What is die system of checks and balances in power sharing ? [CBSE 2014]
Ans. Under this system one organ of the • government keeps the check over the other. None of the organs can exercise unlimited powers. This keeps a balance of power among various institutions.
Q-23. The system of ‘checks and balances’ comes under which form of power sharing. [CBSE 2014]
Ans. Horizontal power sharing.
Q.24. What is a coalition government ?
Ans. A coalition government is a cabinet of parliamentary government in which several parties cooperate. It generally happens when no party gets a majority in the parliament and several parties join together to prove their majority.
Q.25. In Sri Lanka, the democratically elected government adopted a series of which measures to establish Sinhala supremacy ? Mention any one. [CBSE Sept.2010]
Ans. They established a Majoritarian government.
Q.26. State two main bases of social division in Sri Lanka. [CBSE 2008 (D) Compt.]
Ans. (i) Religion (ii) Language
Q.27. Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka ?
Ans. Buddhism.
Q.28. Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium ? [CBSE 2010, 11]
Ans. French and Dutch
Q.29. Give one example of horizontal sharing of power. [CBSE 2010, 11]
Ans. Power sharing among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
Q.30. Who elects the community government in Belgium ? [CBSE Sept. 2010]
Ans. People belonging to one language community- Dutch, French and German.
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q1
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q2
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q3
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q4
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q5
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q6
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q7
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q8
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q9
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q10
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q11
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q12
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q13
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q14
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q15
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q16
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q17
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q18
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q19
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q20
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q21
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q22
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q23
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q24
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q25
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q26
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q27
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q28
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q29
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q30
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q31
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q32
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q33
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q34
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q35
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q36
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q37
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q38
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q39
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q40
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q41
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q42
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q43
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q44
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q45
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q46
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q47
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q48
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q49
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q50
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q51
Linear Programming Ex 30.4 Q52
Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2012 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.
Part – I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all Questions from this part)
Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey ofIndia Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
[For Grid Refer Appendix A Page 4]
(a) Name and give the four figure grid reference of a settlement where the people of the region meet at least once a year. [1]
Answer:
In 1520 for Annual Fair.
(b) What does the conventional symbol at grid reference 145132 mean? [1]
Answer:
Lined Well
(c) If a man were to walkfrom Gulabganj (1820) to Harmatiya (1916) :
(i) In which direction would he be walking ?
(ii) Which are the two different kinds of roads that he would be using ? [3]
Answer:
(i) SE
(ii) Metalled and Cart Track
(d) What do the following numbers in grid square 1718 and 1818 mean ? [2]
(i) 280
(ii) 281
Answer:
(i) Contour line of 280 m
(ii) Spot height
(e) What are the two differences between the settlement Bamba in 1914 and those in 1813 ? [2]
Answer:
(f) Name four facilities that Anadra had makes it an important settlement. [2]
Answer:
(g) what is the quickest means of communication for the people of Dabahi (1313) ? [1]
Answer:
Telephone Line
(h) What do the following mean :
(i) brackish in 1915
(ii) causeway in 1715
(iii) 6r in 1218 ? [3]
Answer:
(i) Well which is salty and unfit for drinking
(ii) It is a raised mettaled road across a minor stream.
(iii) Height of the broken ground is 6m
(i) Mention two factors which support the following:
(a) The Sipu river is in its middle course
(b) The rainfall in the region shown in the map extract is seasonal. [4]
Answer:
(a)
(b)
(j) What is the distance in kilometres the distance stone 20 in 1818 and the causeway in 1715 along the metalled road? [1]
Answer:
Distance between stone 20 in 1818 and the causeway 1717 is = 6 cm
As per scale 1 cm = 50,000 cm
6 cm = 50,000 × 6 = 30,0000 cm
1,00,000 cm = 1 km
1 cm = \(\frac{1}{1,00,000}\)
3,00,000 cm = \(\frac{1}{1,00,000}\) × 3, 00, 000 = 3 km
Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Draw, name and number the Tropic of Cancer. [1]
(b) Label the river Narmada. [1]
(c) Shade and name Lake Chilka. [1]
(d) Mark and name the Aravali Mountains. [ 1 ]
(e) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass. [1]
(J) Shade and name a densely populated state in South India. [1]
(g) Shade and name a region with black soil. [1]
(h) Mark With a dot and name Srinagar. [1]
(i) Mark and name the winds which bring rain in winter to the Coromandal Coast. [1]
(j) Name and print O on an oilfield in North-east India. [ 1 ]
Answer:
Part-II (50 Marks)
(Attempt any five questions from this Part)
Question 3.
(a) (i) Name the type of climate prevailing over India.
(ii) Mention any two factors responsible for it. [2]
Answer:
(i) Tropical monsoon.
(ii)
(b) What is the direction of the summer monsoon? Why ?[2]
Answer:
S.W. Monsoon.
1. By early June the low pressure conditions in N.W.Plains of India attract the trade winds (S.E. trade winds) of the Southern hemisphere.
2. After crossing the Equator they follow a south-westerly direction. This is why they are known as south-west monsoons.
(c) Give geographical reasons for the following :
(i) Even in summer Shimla is cooler than Delhi.
(ii) The northern plains fo India do not freeze in winter.
(iii) Kochi has a lesser annual range of temperature than Agra. [3]
Answer:
(i) Because of high altitude.
(ii) Because of low altitude and northern walls of the Himalayas protect these from cold winds.
(iii) Agra is far away from the moderating influence of the seas.
(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Calculate the mean annual temperature.
(ii) What is the total rainfall during the monsoon season?
(iii) Does the station have a maritime or a continental climate.
Give a reason for your answer. [3]
Answer:
(i) Range of temp. Highest – Lowest = 30.4 – 23.8 = 6.6°C
(ii) 208.4 cm
(iii) Range of temperature = Highest temp – Lowest Tem. 30.4-23.8 = 6.6
Range of temperature is very low which proves the station has maritime climate.
Question 4.
(a) State two methods of controlling the erosion of soil caused by running water. [2]
Answer:
1. Constructing Dams: Much of the soil erosion by river floods can be avoided by constructing dams across the rivers. This checks the speed of water and saves soil from erosion.
2. Contour ploughing: It involves ploughing along the outline of the fields in a circular manner. This prevents to soil from being washed away by running water.
(b) Mention two differences in the alluvial soil of the northern plains and the alluvial soil on the coastal plains of India. [2]
Answer:
Khadar Soil
Bangar Soil
(c) Mention any three characteristics of black soil which makes the soil fertile. [3]
Answer:
(d) Give geographical reasons for the following:
(i) Laterite soil is not suitable for cultivation.
(ii) Red soil is red in colour.
(iii) Khadar soils are preferred to Bangar soil. [3]
Answer:
(i) Due to lack of nitrogen, potassium and organic elements laterite soils lack fertility and are not suitable for cultivation.
(ii) Due to wide diffusion.
(iii) Because it is more fertile.
Question 5.
(a) Mention two reasons why Tropical Evergreen forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes. [2]
Answer:
(b) Give two characteristics of tidal forests. [2]
Answer:
(c) Mention three reasons why forests must be conserved. [3]
Answer:
(a) Forest provides many major and minor products like wood, gum, fibre, fruits etc.
(b) They play a significant role in the prevention and control of soil erosion.
(c) Forests are a major natural resources of a country.
(d) Name any three tree found in monsoon deciduous forests and state one use of each of these trees. [3]
Answer:
Question 6.
(a) Mention two advantages of rainwater harvesting. [2]
Answer:
(b) Why are inundation canals being converted to perennial canals ? Give two reasons. [2]
Answer:
Inundation canals provide irrigation mostly during rainy season and they irrigate small area on the other hand perennial canals flow throughout the year and they irrigate large area. So the inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals.
(c) Give two advantages and one disadvantage that tube wells have over surface wells. [3]
Answer:
Advantages:
Disadvantages:
(d) Where are tanks most widely used in India ? Why ? [3]
Answer:
Tank irrigation is widely prevalent in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Orissa. The tank irrigation is more important in the Deccan Plateau because:
1. The terrain of Deccan Plateau is undulating and is made up of hard rocks which makes it difficult to dig canals and wells.
2. There is little percolation of rainwater due to hard rock structure and groundwater is not available in large quantity.
Question 7.
(a) (i) Name two leading states producing Manganese.
(ii) Name one use of the mineral. [2]
Answer:
(i) Orissa and Maharashtra
(ii) It is used as a fuel.
(b) (i) Name two varieties of iron ore used in industry.
(ii) How is the low grade iron one utilized? [2]
Answer:
(i) Haematite and Magnetite
(ii)
(c) Give geographical reasons why:
(i) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes.
(ii) Oil refineries are located close to oil fields or near ports.
(iii) The location of coal fields is an important factor in industrial development. [3]
Answer:
(i) Because it is the best quality of coal.
(ii)
(iii)
(d) Name the mineral:
(i) Which is converted to aluminium ?
(ii) Which is used in the manufacture of cement ?
(iii) The largest deposits of which are found in Balaghat in Madhaya Pradesh ? [3]
Answer:
(i) Bauxite
(ii) Limestone
(iii) Manganese
Question 8.
(a) What is the importance of agriculture in India? Mention two factors. [2]
Answer:
(b) Name a state which produces short staple cotton. Which climatic and soil conditions favour the cultivation of cotton in the state mentioned ? [2]
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh
Soil: Alluvial soil
Climatic conditions: Abundant sunshine, moderate to light rainfall.
(c) Give geographical reasons for the following:
(i) Jute has to be retted
(ii) Tea is grown on hill slopes
(iii) Silver oak and banana trees are grown on coffee plantations. [3]
Answer:
(i) Fibre can easily removed.
(ii) Because roots cannot tolerate stagnant water.
(iii) Coffee plant should be sheltered from direct sunlight, especially when the plants are young. In plantation, the coffee bushes are generally planted under the shade of taller and harder plants such as bananas, silver oak and jack fruits.
(d) Explain the following:
(i) The propagation ofrubber by the bud grafting method.
(ii) The propagation of sugar cane by ratooning.
(iii) The propagation of paddy by transplantation. [3]
Answer:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Question 9.
(a) Give two reasons why the woollen industry has not developed as well as the cotton industry in India. [2]
Answer:
(b) State two factors which favour the silk industry in Karnataka. [2]
Answer:
(c) Mention three problems of the sugar industry in India. [3]
Answer:
(d) In what way does the cotton industry contribute to the economy of India ?
Mention any three relevant factors. [3]
Answer:
Question 10.
(a) What are petrochemicals ?
Name any two products made from petrochemicals. [2]
Answer:
Petrochemicals are those chemicals and compounds which are derived from petroleum resources.
(b) Why has the electronics industry grown in importance ? [2]
Answer:
(c) Mention three advantages that a mini steel plant has over an integrated steel plant. [3]
Answer:
(d) Name:
(i) A city on the each coast of India which has a ship building yard.
(ii) The iron and steel plant set up with German collaboration.
(iii) A city which has a plant manufacturing Maruti cars. [3]
Answer:
(i) Kolkata
(ii) Rourkela
(iii) Gurgaon in Haryana
Question 11.
(a) Why has the importance of inland waterways declined? Give any two reasons. [2]
Answer:
(b) Name two areas where helicopter services may be used? [2]
Answer:
Hilly terrains and the regions having big rivers, dense forest, dissected relief etc.
(c) Mention any three problems being faced by the Indian Railways. [3]
Answer:
(d) What is the Golden Quadrilateral ? Mention any two ways in which it will help in the economic development of the country. [3]
Answer:
The super highways linking Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai- Mumbai and Delhi by six-lane. These super highways have been constructed to reduce the time and distance between mega cities of India.
These highways will integrate various markets of the country.
Linear Programming Ex 30.5 Q1
Linear Programming Ex 30.5 Q2
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(i)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(ii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(iii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(iv)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(v)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(vi)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(vii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q1(viii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q2(i)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q2(ii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q2(iii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q2(iv)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q3(i)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q3(ii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q3(iii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q3(iv)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q4(i)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q4(ii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q5
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q6
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q7(i)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q7(ii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q7(iii)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q7(iv)
Straight Line in Space Ex 28.5 Q8
(For Annual Examination to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards) Based on the latest syllabi and Design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E New Delhi
Strictly based on the Latest Scheme Of Assessement, the latest Syllabus and Design of the Question paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.
MODEL TEST PAPER 2 (Unsolved)
SECTION A : READING (20 MARKS)
Question 1:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [8]
Chocolate diamonds are actually brown diamonds and compared to the well-known white diamonds they aren’t worth much. Diamonds are produced in mines. The best known diamond mines are in Australia, South Africa and Russia. The largest diamond mine was discovered in 1976 in the desert of Australia near a little creek named Lake Argyle. Diamonds are created under very extreme conditions of pressure and high temperature. It is a general misunderstanding that there exist only white colourless diamonds. Actually, diamonds exist in many different colours.
Of all the diamond mines in the world almost 80% of all diamonds produced are brownish in colour. Because they were found in such large quantities compared to the other coloured diamonds, they were considered as low valued diamonds only good for the industrial sector. But a famous man called Le Vian came with a marketing campaign to increase the popularity of the chocolate diamond. Instead of calling it a brown diamond, he gave it popular names like caramel, chocolate, cinnamon and cognac. Since his marketing campaign, chocolate diamonds are becoming very popular.
The value of a diamond is based on its shape, brightness and colour. Because white diamonds are rare, their value is based on the fact that there are not many white diamonds around. But if you look at the shape and brightness, then the brightest diamond in the world known to man is a brown diamond. Before the development of the Argyle diamond mine in Australia in 1986, most brown diamonds were considered worthless for jewellery; they were even not assessed on the diamond colour scale, and were predominantly used for industrial purposes. However, marketing strategies changed in the 1980s and brown diamonds became popular gems. The change was mostly due to supply: the Argyle mine, with its 35 million carats (7,000 kg) of diamonds per year, makes about one third of global production of natural diamonds; 80% of Argyle diamonds are brown. The percentage of brown diamonds is lower in other mines, but it is almost always a significant part of the total production. Consequently, scientific research has intensified on causes of brown colour in diamonds and ways to alter them.
(a) What is the wrong notion about diamonds? [1]
(b) Why were brown diamonds considered low in value? [1]
(c) How did brown diamonds become popular? [1]
(d) On what factor is the value of a diamond based? [1]
(e) Why are white diamonds rare? [1]
(f) What popular names are given to brown diamonds by Le Vian? [1]
(g) Based on shape and brightness, which is the brightest diamond known to mankind? [1]
(h) In what conditions are diamonds created? [1]
Question 2:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [12]
There was a time when our hills, mountains and even plains were covered with huge forests. As the population grew, trees were cut down to meet the demand for fuel and timber. Thus our wonderful forests came to be destroyed. Now we don’t have enough trees to give us firewood even. So, people are forced to burn cattle-dung. which ought to be saved for use as manure. Cattle-dung is very necessary to maintain the fertility of soil. Chemical fertilisers alone can’t help. In many areas where only chemical fertilisers are used, the crop yields have started falling.
There is another grave danger. Now we don’t have enough trees to treat all the carbon-dioxide that is being produced in our homes, factories and by our automobiles. The air remains polluted and it can give us a number of serious diseases.
Trees are man s best friends. They are God s greatest gift to man. They are the invaluable wealth of a nation. It is our sacred duty to protect them and look after them well. An average size tree creates sufficient oxygen in one year to provide oxygen for a family of four. Planting trees is important, is evident as they are the natural habitat of the animals and birds, as well as many endangered species. There are still too few of them to fully offset the change brought about by global warming. Automobile traffic, manufacturing and other human activities are playing havoc with our environment. Reduce global warming simply by planting trees for the environment. It is the need of the hour if we want to save our planet. Trees not only remove harmful chemicals from the soil, but also help reduce the
(a) How have we destroyed our wonderful forests? [2]
(b) Explain why crop fields are falling. [2]
(c) The impure air can give us a number of serious diseases. How? [2]
(d) Explain what the writer feels is the “Need of the hour”. [2]
(e) What is meant by ‘endangered’? (Para 3) [1]
(f) What is meant by ‘havoc’? (Para 4) [1]
(g) Find the word opposite in meaning to ‘increase’. (Para 4) [1]
(h) Find the word opposite in meaning to ‘worthless’. (Para 3) [1]
SECTION B : WRITING AND GRAMMAR (30 MARKS)
Question 3:
A teacher motivates and inspires her students. Taking ideas from the following visual, write an article in about 100-120 words talking about the role and importance of teacher in our lives.[8]
Question 4:
Develop a short story in about 200-250 words on the basis of the following hints and give it a suitable title. [12]
An unknown village in Uttarakhand — many families inhabiting it — livelihood depends on Indian Tourism — Natural Disaster of 2013 — the river in flood — life of tourists and residents in danger — Governmental intervention for relief and rescue — dreams, hopes and reality all shattered.
Question 5:
Complete the following passage by choosing the appropriate option from the ones given below. Write your answer in the answer sheet against the correct blank number. Do not copy the entire passage. [3]
Birbal was one of the nine gems (a)_________ Akbar’s court. He (b)_______ very intelligent. People still enjoy (c)__________ his stories.
Question 6:
There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect word and the correction in the answer sheet as given below : [4]
Question 7:
Rearrange the following words and phrases to make meaningful sentences. [3]
(a) their / rewards / humans / equitably / share / with others / do
(b) comes / naturally / it / to / children / involves / it / when / collaborative work
(c) are / they / less inclined / it / when / does not / collective action / involve
SECTION C : LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (30 MARKS)
Question 8:
Read one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow : [4]
Those who saw it said the dog knew instantly. He never jumped on Chuck again. From that moment,
he took up a post beside his master s bed around the clock.
(a) What was it that the dog knew instantly?
(b) What was the name of the dog?
(c) What had happened to the master?
(d) How does Duke show his devotion and loyalty to his master-Hooper?
OR
I am beautiful pearls, plucked from the
Crown of Ishter by the daughter of Dawn
To embellish the gardens.
(a) Who does ‘I’ refer to in these lines?
(b) What does ‘I’ compare itself to?
(c) What is meant by the phrase ‘to embellish the gardens?
(d) What is meant by ‘the crown of Ishter’?
Question 9:
Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words : [2×4=8]
(a) Why was money of no use to the grandmother in ‘How I Taught my Grandmother to Read’?
(b) How did John’s first meeting with Jessie’s father go?
(c) The final stanza in the poem ‘The Road Not Taken’ starts with a sigh. Why?
(d) Do you think the punishment given to the convict was just?
Question 10:
Answer one of the following questions in about 100-120 words : [8]
The story ‘Best Seller’ brings out the sharp contrast in what we say and what we actually do. With reference to Pescud, bring out the truth of this statement. Do you think people like Pescud are hypocrites?
OR
“Suffer? (puzzled) suffered? My God, yes. (Drinks) but that’s a long time ago. Ha! ha! That was when I was a man.” These words of the convict reveal a lot about him. Describe the story the convict tells and give your views about the punishment he suffered. What are your feelings for him at this stage?
Question 11:
Answer one of the following questions in about 150-200 words : [10]
Glumdalclitch took certain precautions to keep Gulliver safe during the travels with her father. Mention some of the precautions taken by her.
OR
Comment on the character of Abraham Pannell, commander of the ship.
OR
Art treasures of today are the dug-up common places of yesteryears. Elaborate the observation.
OR
What kind of trouble does Harris’ boastful nature land him into. Describe it vividly.
CBSE Sample PapersMathsScienceSocial ScienceSanskritEnglishHindi
(For Annual Examination to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards) Based on the latest syllabi and Design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E New Delhi
Strictly based on the Latest Scheme Of Assessement, the latest Syllabus and Design of the Question paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.
MODEL TEST PAPER 1 (Unsolved)
SECTION A : READING (20 MARKS)
Question 1:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [8]
Today budgies-often called lovebirds in India – are the most popular pet birds in the world. All the adored cage birds of today are the descendants ofparrots. They are one of the smallest of the world s 330 parrot species which have come down from a plucky little bird in rural Australia.
Some appear to be about 30 cm long from tail tip to crown, with bulbous, fluffy foreheads, barrel chests and deep-set eyes. Their colour are striking; vivid shades of blue, grey and green as well as violet and white. Most startling of all are the yolk-yellow birds, called Latinos that are like splashes of luminous paint. The first colour mutations in captive birds were blue and yellow. Today, breeders raise them with rainbow of colours.
Lovebirds stay near water when it s dry, but when there s a lot of rain they spread out. They are sometimes seen nestling on top of tall eucalyptus trees. While some of the caged varieties would have difficultyflying across a room, wild budgies travel hundreds of kilometres at speeds of up to 50 kilometres per hour to seek seed and water. Even in prolonged droughts, the budgies have an extraordinary ability to withstand dehydration. When deprived of water, budgies can reportedly exist with little weight loss for more than a month at an average air temperature of 30 degrees. At 20 degrees, some can apparently survive indefinitely without water, provided they are getting some moisture from food. Male budgies can be excellent mimics and can develop huge vocabularies. Hens may whistle and can learn a new word, but they are not nearly as loquacious as males. Budgies are diamorphic upon sexual maturity. Adult males of most colours, except albino and the very pale pastels, develop a blue colour. Hens have a lilac or tan colour that turns brownish upon maturity.
(a) Name the most popular pet birds in the world? [1]
(b) Who were the ancestors of the caged birds? [1]
(c) Where do lovebirds stay during winter? [1]
(d) What do you know about the travelling capacity of budgies? [1]
(e) Why, according to the author, are budgies tough birds? [1]
(f) How are male budgies better than hens with regard to learning words and mimicry? [1]
(g) Which colour do hens develop upon maturity? [1]
(h) How many species of parrots are there? [1]
Question 2:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [12]
Su means number and Doku means single. The game of Sudoku has many similarities to the game of life. Sudoku is a puzzle game designedfor a single player, much like a crossword puzzle. The puzzle itself is nothing more than a grid of little boxes called “cells ”. They are stacked nine high and nine wide, making 81 cells total.
In life, too, you start with a given set of notions and then work from there on. In Sudoku, you need to follow a set of rules to build up the grid, filling each row, column and box with numbers ranging from one to nine, so much like in life where you have to go on your way without antagonizing anyone else. Respect every number (person) and things would be fine.
In Sudoku, the arrangement of the given numbers is symmetrical. This is instructive in life, on how to maintain steadfast faith, poise and equanimity despite situations when everything turns topsy-turvy. While playing, you never think of the end (the result); you just keep working on the numbers and the final result (fruits of action) accrues on its own. Extremely difficult puzzles may take hours. Similarly, to achieve desired results in life may take years. The game of Sudoku and the game of life are best played in calm but focused state.
Everything has to go in tandem in Sudoku grid: the rows, columns and squares. Exactly as in life. Your duties towards your family, teachers, society and country all go on simultaneously.
There is a subtle difference between Sudoku and life. Make a mistake and you can erase it and begin all over again in Sudoku. Not so in life. You can learn a lesson, though, and avoid making the same mistake in future.
(a) What kind of a game is Sudoku, according to the writer? [2]
(b) How has the writer compared the number in Sudoku to life? [2]
(c) Based on the article summarise the similarities between Sudoku and life. [2]
(d) The game of Sudoku and the game of life are best played in calm but focused state. Evaluate the statement. [2]
(e) Which word can replace ‘instructive’ in the passage? (Para 3) [1]
(f) What is meant by ‘equanimity’? (Para 3) [1]
(g) Find the word opposite to ‘obvious’. (Para 5) [1]
(h) Find the word opposite to ‘ruffled’. (Para 3) [1]
SECTION B : WRITING AND GRAMMER (30 MARKS)
Question 3:
Surveys conducted among school children have repeatedly revealed that the children today are lazy and unhealthy. They love to eat out and relish only junk food. Consequently, obesity is a common problem that afflicts them. Write an article in about 100-120 words on this issue for a parenting magazine. [8]
Question 4:
‘Every drop counts. Let’s not waste so that other survive. Resources are depleting they are not incessant.’ Develop a story based on the given remark in about 200-250 words with a suitable title. [12]
Question 5:
Complete the following passage by choosing the appropriate option from the ones given below. Write your answer in the answer sheet against the correct blank number. Do not copy the entire passage. [3]
Working in a team (a)______ really a healer and stress buster. Success (b)_________failure is not an individual’s responsibility. It is a collective responsibility, (c)_______ good team work demands a perfect communication among all members.
Question 6:
There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect word and the correction in the answer sheet as given below. [4]
Question 7:
Rearrange the following words and phrases to make meaningful sentences. [3]
(a) animal / a / typical / eats / half the / day
(b) sometimes / eat / they / or / birds / rodents / as well
(c) skilled / tree-climbers / they / efficient swimmers / are / and
SECTION C : LITERTURE TEXTBOOK AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (30 MARKS)
Question 8:
Read one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow : [4]
For a good cause if you are determined, you can overcome any obstacle. I will work harder than
anybody but I will do it. For learning there is no age bar.
(a) Who is T in the above lines?
(b) What does the speaker want to leam?
(c) Why does the speaker say these words?
(d) What reflection does it throw on the speaker?
OR
Oh! I’m fed up with the place.
(a) Who spoke these words to whom?
(b) Which place is she fed up with and why?
(c) Pick out the word from this line similar in meaning to ‘depressed’.
(d) What frame of mind is the speaker in?
Question 9:
Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words : [2×4 = 8]
(a) ‘It was like lighting a fuse. Duke shimmied himself U-shaped in anticipation’. Explain.
(b) Who was Mr Hinkle? Why did Pescud enquire about his whereabouts?
(c) The title “The Road Not Taken” is appropriate title for the poem. Comment.
(d) What is the significance of the silver candle sticks?
Question 10:
Answer one of the following questions in about 100-120 words : [8]
Your behaviour, your attitude towards others, senior or junior is of the highest importance in your life. They can make or mar your life. Taking the example of Private Quelch, express your views on “humility and courtesy are the hallmarks of a successful man”.
OR
Gaston has proved his cunning in business matters, but as far as moral ethics are concerned, there is a definite lack of it in him. Discuss the values he should have possessed, with reference to Villa for Sale.
Question 11:
Gulliver’s master’s greed increased day by day. What was its outcome?
OR
‘The Emperor of Lilliput is a true leader of his people.’ Elaborate on his character.
OR
George’s peaceful sleep disturbs the other two friends. Why do they behave so? Is it the case with everyone? Justify.
OR
The writer while describing an event is always reminded of the similar event that occurred earlier.
Which story is he reminded of when George failed to play the banjo? Explain in detail.
CBSE Sample PapersMathsScienceSocial ScienceSanskritEnglishHindi
Periodic Assessment 3
[Periodic Assessment 3 is based on the main points of periodic Assessment 1 & 2 and the following syllbus]
Suggested Syllabus
Reading Skills
Question 1:
A factual passage of 300-350 words with 8 very short answer type questions.
Question 2:
A discursive passage of 350-400 words with 4 short answer type questions and 4 very short type questions for vocabulary
Writing Skills with Grammar
Question 3:
Diary and Article Writing
Question 4:
Writing a short story
Question 5:
Gap filling
Question 6:
Editing and omission
Question 7:
Sentence reordering or sentence transformation
Literature Textbook and Extended Reading Text
Question 8:
One out of two extracts from prose and poetry with 4 very short answer type questions.
Question 9:
Four short answer type questions (Best Seller, The Seven Ages, Oh, I Wish I’d looked after me Teeth and Song of the Rain)
Question 10:
One out of two long answer type questions (Best Seller, The Bishop’s Candlesticks)
Question 11:
One out of two very long answer type questions .
Gulliver’s Travels – Chapter 27 to 39
Three Men in a Boat – Chapter 14 to 19
Strictly based on the Latest Scheme Of Assessement, the latest Syllabus and Design of the Question paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.
SECTION A : READING (20 MARKS)
Question 1:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [8]
By the time Albert Einstein died at the age of 76, he had totally transformed the way that we see the universe, including our very notions of space and time. Not bad for someone who struggled at school. Einstein was bom in Ulm, Germany in 1879. His parents were concerned that he scarcely talked until the age of three, but he was not so much a backward as a quiet child. As a school boy, his work didn’t scream “genius ” and even his teachers found it hard to reconcile the student they had known with the great scientist he later became. After working hard in the laboratory but skipping lectures, Einstein graduated with an unexceptional record in 1900. He couldn’t find a job in a university so he worked for the Swiss Patent Office and spent his spare time working on theoretical physics problems. At the age of just 26, whilst still at the patent office, he published three papers in a leading German physics journal. These papers on Brownian motion, the photoelectric effect and special relativity contained explanations and ideas that changed the way we all view the world. By the time he finally found an academic job in 1909, Einstein s reputation as one of the greatest scientists of all time was spreading rapidly. And in 1915, at the age of 36, Einstein produced his theory of general relativity which delved even further into the workings of the universe. After being awarded the 1921 Nobel Prize for Physics for his work on the photoelectric effect, Einstein became closely involved with the development of quantum theory before moving on to pursue the search for a Grand Unified Theory that would tie all of physics together. In 1933, Einstein escaped the persecution of Jews by Nazi Germany by accepting a position at the Institution for Advanced Study at Princeton, USA where he spent the rest of his life. Although he initially supported the use of atomic weapons as a deterrent in the Second World War, he later campaigned for nuclear disarmament and world peace. He died in 1955 of heart failure and became an icon of genius.
(a) What had Albert Einstein done before he died at the age of 76? [1]
(b) Where was he bom and how would you describe his school life? [1]
(c) Why was he considered a backward child by his parents and teachers? [1]
(d) What was the subject of each of the three papers he published at the age of 26? [1]
(e) Why was he awarded the Nobel Prize? [1]
(f) Why was the year 1933 significant in Einstein’s life? [1]
(g) How do we know that Einstein change his mind about atomic weapons? [1]
(h) Explain the term ‘icon of genius’ in your own words. [1]
Question 2:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [12]
(a) What annoying things a child can do at different stages? [2]
(b) Do you think it is right to ignore a child’s behaviour? Why? Why not? [2]
(c) Give an example of behaviour of a child that can be dangerous to his life. [2]
(d) The most important principle about changing children’s behaviour is to change
your own behaviour first. What does the writer mean by this statement? [2]
(e) Replace the word ‘irritating’ by the word given in the first paragraph. [1]
(f) Find out the word in the paragraph 3 which is the opposite of ‘worthless’. [1]
(g) Find out the word in the paragraph 3 which means the same as ‘determined’. [1]
(h) Give the verb form of ‘behaviour. ’ [1]
SECTION B : WRITING AND GRAMMAR (30 MARKS)
Question 3:
You are Atul / Ankita of Class X, the Captain of the School Social Science Club. You have witnessed that crime against women has increased in the country whether it is female infanticide, rape, murder, physical or emotional assault. As a concerned citizen of the country, write an article in about 100-120 words, on ‘How to Make our Women Secure’?[8]
Question 4:
School children went out to explore forest — lost the way — away from the camp — cries i of animals — heard “thump-thump” sound — a large elephant — trumpted angrily — came towards them — a balloon — started blowing — big balloon — hit hard with hand — “bang-bang” — loud noise — elephant turned away — saved.
Question 5:
Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate words from the given options. [½ x 6 = 3]
His wife watched us (a)_______the kitchen door. I wondered (b)________she had observed any difference in the way I ate rice, drank water or cleaned the floor after the meal. When I (c)________ leaving his house, Amit Mishra invited me to join (d)________for dinner again the (e)________ weekend. Observing my hesitation, he told me not to get upset .saying, “Once you decide to change the system,(f)_________problems have to be confronted .”
Question 6:
The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet as given below against the correct blank number.[½ × 8 = 4]
Question 7:
Rearrange the following words and phrases to make meaningful sentences. [3]
(a) are not / citizens / respected / senior / or cared for
(b) ill-equipped / are not only / insufficient / old age homes / also / but
(c) must / anyone else’s / place them / the society / before / interest
SECTION C :LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (30 MARKS)
Question 8:
Read one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow : [4]
The ralating of anecdotes and humorous occurrences has always seemed to me. Mr. Pescud, to
be a particularly agreeable way of formatting and perpetuating amenities between friends.
(a) Who is the speaker?
(b) What does the above lines reflect about the speaker?
(c) What do you mean by ‘anecdotes’?
(d) Explain- ‘perpetuating amenities between friends’
OR
Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Is second childishness and mere oblivion,
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
(a) What does the actor do after this scene?
(b) Why does the poet call this stage second childishness?
(c) Why does the poet call life strange eventful history?
(d) What physical weaknesses does the actor have in this stage?
Question 9:
Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words : [8]
(a) Why do you think the Colonel allowed the salesman to marry his daughter even though he (the Colonel) came from a lineage of Earls?
(b) Describe the house in which Jessie had lived. ‘
(c) What are the problems faced by the poet after she neglected her teeth.
(d) In what sense are men and women merely players on the stage of life?
Question 10:
Answer one of the following questions in about 100-120 words : [8]
Is John A. Pescud a hypocrite? He pretends to have moral standards or opinions that he never practises in life. Justify your answer by giving examples from the text.
OR
After returning from Mr Bramble’s house, Jerry Fisher writes a diary entry about the events that had just taken place and how he tried to ensure that Bramble would take part in the big fight on Monday. Write the diary entry, mentioning the role played by the Major and his reasons for telling the truth to Harold.
Question 11:
Answer one of the following questions in about 150-200 words : [10]
Many words and terms like power, war, law, punishment had no place in the language of the Houyhnhnms. This was a difficulty, almost insuperable, for Gulliver’s master to understand what Gulliver was relating, “still he arrived at a competent knowledge of what human nature in the other world can perform.” What picture of Gulliver’s master, ‘The great Houyhnhnm’, does it give you? Explain.
OR
Gulliver became quite zealous and enthusiastic in his description of the thousand contrary reasons why illnesses breed in our body. What do you think of him since by profession he is a surgeon?
OR
Why was the crowd on the Kew Bridge entertained by George and the party of eight?
OR
The writer condemns the “wretched small boat.” Don’t you find something humorous in it? How had he described his boats earlier in connection with the steam launch? Explain what it tells you about him.
CBSE Sample PapersMathsScienceSocial ScienceSanskritEnglishHindi