ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2014 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2014 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Name two causes of heart attack. (2)
Answer:
Causes of Heart Attack:

  • It is caused by the blocking of coronary arteries or veins by cholesterol deposition in them.
  • Sometimes it is also caused by abnormal pattern of heartbeats.
  • Sometimes the heart disease ‘cardio-myopathy’ increases the risk of heart attack.

(b) State two factors to ensure personal hygiene and cleanliness. (2)
Answer:
Personal hygiene and cleanliness:

  • Care of Skin
  • Care of Hands and Nails
  • Care of Hair
  • Care of Teeth and Gums
  • Care of Eyes

(c) State any three advantages of health education. (3)
Answer:
(i) Provide opportunity for proper growth and development: Health education programmes provide full opportunity for proper growth and development. It educates us regarding health problems, health hazards, etc.

(ii) Promotes Community and Individual Health: It guides us to promote safe, clean and hygienic environment. It promotes and develops healthy hygienic habits. It helps society by checking diseases at early stages.

(iii) Guides Preventive Steps against Diseases: It guides us regarding the preventive and treatment steps to be taken against various communicable diseases.

(iv) It promotes and develops healthy hygienic habits.

(v) It helps society by checking diseases at early stages.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) Define the term Drugs. (3)
Answer:
Drugs are chemical substances which alter the body and its functions, also known as medicines. When they are taken inside the body, they bring change in the biochemical system of the body. Drugs are designed to improve the chemical imbalance in the body. Drugs reduce the effects of disease, sickness, etc., by covering the chemical imbalance (caused by disease), thus helping to bring improvement.

Question 2.
(a) Define the term Immunity. (2)
Answer:
Immunity is the ability of the body to resist against disease. There are two types of defence mechanisms against all types of infections or diseases. It involves the blocking of entry of pathogens or destroying the pathogens in two ways:

  1. Internal defence or Natural Immunity or Innate Immunity (developed by body itself).
  2. External agent defence or Acquired Immunity or Adoptive Immunity (developed by medicines, drugs, creams and medical aids).

(b) State any two harmful effects of chewing tobacco. (2)
Answer:
Harmful effects of tobacco:
1. Tobacco as Poison : Nicotine is a brain poison found in tobacco. It is one of the most deadly poisons known to man. Half a drop of pure nicotine can be lethal to kill a person. There is no antidote for this poison.

2. Wrong Habit : Usually people start this habit to relieve tension (wrong concept). A small amount of nicotine with the first puff subdues tension. Soon after, it again stimulates the person for another puff. Thus, a smoker is caught in its vicious circle and becomes a slave to this habit.

3. Causes of Lung and Jaw Cancer : Intake of tobacco brings ‘tar’ (carbon compound) along with the smoke. This tar has a strong sticking effect, thus it gets attached to the lining of trachea and lungs, causing great risk of lung cancer. Chewing of tobacco also has similar carcinogenic effect and causes jaw cancer.

4. Increases Blood Pressure : Medical researches reveal that a single puff of cigarette can contract the smallest capillary. It increases the heart rate up to 20 beats per minute, thus extra pressure is exerted over heart and blood vessels. Therefore, the chances of heart problem increase.

5. Decrease in Body Temperature : When nicotine enters the body, it reduces the blood flow. This reduces the skin temperature by 3 to 4 degree.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) State the full form of AIDS and HIV. (3)
Answer:
Full form of AIDS is Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome; HIV is Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

(d) Write the caloric requirement of the following age groups:
(i) A child aged 14 years.
(ii) An adult Female (50 kg).
(iii) An adult Male (60kg). (3)
Answer:
Caloric requirement of:
(i) Child of 14 years requires = 1800 Calories per day
(ii) Adult female (50 kg) requires = 2400 Calories per day
(iii) Adult male (60 kg) requires = 2800 Calories per day

Question 3.
(a) Briefly explain the importance of sleep in our daily routine. (2)
Answer:
The main points regarding the importance of Sleep are:

  • It gives relaxation to various systems of the body so that they should work efficiently.
  • It helps us to refresh ourselves and carry out the work as before.
  • It removes waste products from our body.
  • It rejuvenates our body from the effect of fatigue.
  • It refreshes our mind for the next day.

(b) What is arteriosclerosis ? (2)
Answer:
Arteriosclerosis: Hardening and thickening of the walls of the arteries. Arteriosclerosis can occur because of fatty deposits on the inner lining of arteries. Causes : Smoking, High blood pressure.

(c) Define posture. What is the correct posture while standing? (3)
Answer:
Posture: Posture is the body position. It may be static or dynamic such as sitting, standing, lying, walking, running, reading, etc. There are different views about posture.

According to Physical Educationists: ‘Posture is a tool of mechanical efficiency of body which causes minimum stress to muscles. Moreover, maximum output of physical efficiency can be attained.

Correct Standing Posture: In correct standing posture, feet apart about 8 to 12 inches (roughly shoulder width). Feet should be parallel to each other and balanced evenly on both feet. Hold the head straight, chin parallel to floor, keep shoulder, hips and knees in straight line. From side view ear, shoulder, hip, knee and ankle should be centered along an imaginary straight line. The Centre of Gravity (C.G.) should be with the centre of feet.

(d) State any three symptoms of tuberculosis. (3)
Answer:

  • Coughing that lasts three or more weeks.
  • Coughing up blood.
  • Chest pain or pain with breathing or coughing.
  • Weight loss.
  • Fatigue.
  • Fever.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 4.
(a) Why are Antiseptics used ? (2)
Answer:
Antiseptics: Antiseptics are the chemicals which destroy or inhibit the growth of microbes. Antiseptics are suitable for external application to living tissues. These chemicals are used in such a low concentration that they cause no harm to the body and skin. Some commonly used antiseptics usually contain lysol, carbolic acid, iodine, benzoic acid, boric acid, etc.

(b) What precautions must be taken to prevent Athlete’s foot? (2)
Answer:
Athlete’s Foot: The spores of mould attack the skin of foot particularly between the toes. The fungi pathogen of this disease grows in damp spots. It is mostly found on those parts of body which remain damp with sweat. It is usually caused-by walking barefoot in moist places. The skin between the fingers of feet becomes soft and inflamed and there is intense itching. The affected parts appear whitish. It can be prevented by personal cleanliness.

(c) What form of first aid would be given to a person suffering from skin bum injuries ? (3)
Answer:
First Aid for Burn Injury:

  • For reducing the pain at the site of bums, cold water should be poured for 15 to 20 minutes or ice should be applied on that spot.
  • In cold climate, the victim should be kept warm.
  • If he feels thirsty, the salty and alkaline water should be given to the victim.
  • If an individual is burnt with chemical substances, the burnt part should be cleaned with water repeatedly.

(d) State the treatment for patient who has suffered an electric shock. (3)
Answer:
First aid and Treatment Steps :

  • If the victim is still under the effect of electric current, the electric current supply must be switched off.
  • When the injured person has been freed from the contact with the current, Artificial Respiration (AR) should be given immediately.
  • If necessary external Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) should be performed.
  • If he comes to his senses, he should be taken immediately to the hospital.

Question 5.
(a) Mention any two causes of Ringworm. (2)
Answer:
Causes of Ringworm : It is a contagious fungal disease of skin, hair and nails. On infection, ring-like discoloured patches appear on the skin which are covered by scales and vesicles. It is caused by contact with the infected persons or using the articles like comb, towel, soap, of the patients.

(b) What is meant by Immunization? (2)
Answer:
Immunization : Immunization is the introduction of any kind of dead, attenuated or weakened pathogens for the artificial development of immunity (resistance) against specific diseases.

(c) Mention three symptoms of Malaria. (3)
Answer:
Symptoms of Malaria:

  1. Headache and shivering with high temperature up to 104°-106° F (Fahrenheit).
  2. There is a lot of perspiration (sweating) when fever subsides.
  3. Body ache and body becomes weak.
  4. Body colour becomes pale.

(d) State any three factors that the influence diet requirement of a person. (3)
Answer:
Factors Affecting diet:
1. Age: Age plays an important role in diet preparation, like in growing age the children need more proteins (to meet growth patterns). In old age the people should avoid proteins and fats but take more minerals and vitamins.

2. Gender: Gender (sex) difference causes variation in diet. Males need more calories as compared to females (due to physiological and activity needs of body).

3. Workout Difference: Persons with heavy physical workout need more calories than those with less physical activity.

4. Body Weight: The weight also brings difference of diet. Overweight or obese person should take fibrous food whereas slim or lean (underweight) person needs more proteins and fats.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Section – B (50 Marks)
(Attempt any two questions from this section)
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.
Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Briefly explain the following terms: (8)
(i) An LBW
(ii) A Hit Wicket
(iii) A Run Out
(iv) A Stump Out
Answer:
(i) LBW : It means Leg-Before-Wicket. When the batsman’s leg or any part of his body prevents the ball from touching the wicket, he is out LBW.
(ii) Hit Wicket : A type of out, if the batsman in an attempt to hit ball breaks the wicket by hitting bat.
(iii) Run out: If the batsman runs towards wicket but does not get there in time to place his bat between the edge of the popping crease and an opponent breaks the wicket.
(iv) Stump out : If a batsman misses the ball and the wicketkeeper breaks the wicket when he outside the crease.

(b) (i) Enumerate any three duties of a Leg Umpire. (9)
(ii) State any three variations of Pace bowling.
(iii) What is meant by the term ‘Bad-Light’?
Answer:
(i) Duties of Leg a Umpire :

  • To check the Run-out
  • To check Stump-out
  • To check Short-run
  • To check Hit-wicket
  • To check High bounce ball

(ii) Pace Bowler Variation :

  • Out Swing
  • In Swing
  • Leg Cutter
  • Medium Pace
  • Bouncer

(iii) Bad-Light: When light is not sufficient to play and it causes danger to player. There is low intensity of light which creates problem to batsman, as they are not able to see the coming ball properly. In this condition Umpire can declare bad-light. Then match is supposed to stop.

(c) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (8)
(i) Hitting the ball twice
(ii) A Runner
(iii) The Toss
(iv) The Danger Area
Answer:
(i) Hitting the bail twice : If the batsman hits the ball intentionally for the second time (can stop but not to hit) then batsman can be declared out on an appeal (double-hit).
(ii) A Runner: A supplement player to the batsman who runs for the batsman, in case of injury, illness while playing.
(iii) The Toss : It is the procedure before the match to decide which team will perform the batting or fielding.
(iv) The Danger Area : An area between the wickets and close to batsman where ball can cause accident if player is not active or without guard. This area is generally known as silly-point.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 7.
(a) Briefly explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Wide-Ball
(ii) A Duck
(iii) An Appeal
(iv) A No-ball
Answer:
(i) A Wide-Ball: When the bowler bowls the ball out side the wide line of the batsman’s reach. An extra ball is bowled for a wide. It gives an extra run.
(ii) A Duck : The batsman gets ‘out’ without a single score.
(iii) An Appeal: It is request or shout by fielding players in anticipation of batsman to be given out by the Umpire.
(iv) No-Ball: When the bowler commits some non-legal action to bowl like overstepping of the bowling crease.

(b) (i) State the difference between a Dot-ball and a Dead-ball. (9)
(ii) What is the importance of Thirty yard Circle?
(iii) Explain the term Bump-ball.
Answer:
(i) Dot-Ball : A ball on which batsman cannot score run.
Dead-Ball: When ball is in the hands of the bowler after throw.

(ii) 30-Yard-Circle : An inner circle marked at 30 yard around the stumps. This circle is used during power play to restrain 9 fielders inside the 30 yard circle.

(iii) Bump-Ball : It is a hard hit to the ball over the ground by which the ball raises above the ground. When this ball is fielded it seems like a catch. Ball is played just under the lower edge of bat which gives appearance as the ball is hit in air.

(c) (i) List any four protective equipments used in a game of Cricket. (8)
(ii) Mention any four fielding positions on the Onside of the field.
(iii) State the full form of ICC and BCCI.
(iv) Explain the term Sweep-shot.
Answer:
(i) Protective Equipments used in Cricket:

  • Helmet
  • Leg Protector
  • Batsman Gloves
  • Chest Guard
  • Thy Guard
  • Abdominal Guard
  • Elbow Guard

(ii) On-side Fielding positions : Long-on, Mid-on, Mid-wicket, Squareleg, Fine-leg, Short-leg

(iii) The full form of ICC is International Cricket Council.
The full form of BCCI is Board of Control for Cricket in India.

(iv) Sweep Shot: In this shot the batsman hits the ball towards the leg side deep angle while kneeling down.

Football

Question 8.
(a) Explain the following terms in football: (8)
(i) An Expulsion
(ii) A Warning
(iii) Injury time
(iv) A Throw in
Answer:
(i) Expulsion or Red-card : Player is expelled if he commits a serious foul; is violent; strikes, charges; kicks or attempts to kick; trips on opponent, holds opponent; handles the ball intentionally; language abusive; offensive or insulting language; receives a second yellow-card during the game.

(ii) Warning or Yellow-card : The players receive a warning if they regularly break the rules; do not respect the Referee’s decision; delay the start of play; are argumentative or show unsportsman conduct; goalkeeper keeps the possession of the ball for more than six seconds, etc.

(iii) Injury Time : The time for which game has been stopped temporarily due to injury of the player. This stopped duration of game is added in regular time after each half.

(iv) Throwing-In : It is given opponent if ball passes over the sideline on ground or in air. This is taken by the player from the side line. The player throws the ball over the head to give the pass to his player. Both the feet are in contact with ground. A goal cannot be scored directly from throw in.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) What is the procedure of resuming the game from: (9)
(i) A Penalty kick
(ii) A Goal kick
(iii) An Indirect free kick
Answer:
(i) Resuming from Penalty Kick Procedure : Ball is kept stationary at penalty spot and opponent player kicks the ball forward; if goal is scored then game resumes by Kick-off; if the goal is not scored then it is restarted by goal-kick.

(ii) Goal Kick: The ball is kicked from any point within the goal area by a player of the defending team. Opponents remain outside the penalty area until the ball is in play. The kicker must not play the ball again until it has touched another player. The ball is in play when it is kicked directly out of the penalty area.

(iii) For indirect free kicks, the ball must be stationary when the kick is taken and the kicker must not touch the ball again until it has touched another player.

(c) Write the following: (8)
(i) Length and breadth of the field.
(ii) Duration of the match and duration of extra time.
(iii) Breadth and the height of the Goal Post.
(iv) Radius of Centre circle and Corner arc.
Answer:
(i) The length of the Touch line must be greater than the length of the goal line.
Length (touch line): minimum 90 m (100 yds.) and maximum 120 m (130 yds.)
Width (goal line): minimum 45 m (50 yds.) and maximum 90 m (100 yds.)
All lines must be of the same width, which must not be more than 12 cm (5 ins).

(ii) Duration of match = 2 halves of 45 minutes (M) and 40 minutes (W)
Extra time = 2 halves of 15 minutes

(iii) The distance between the posts is 7.32 m (8 yds.) and the distance from the lower edge of the crossbar to the ground is 2.44 m (8 ft.). Both goalposts and the crossbar have the same width and depth, which do not exceed 12 cm (5 ins).

(iv) The centre mark is indicated at the midpoint of the halfway line. A circle with a radius of 9.15 m (10 yds.) is marked around it.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 9.
(a) Write the following:
(i) Weight and circumference of the ball.
(ii) Minimum and maximum number of players to begin the match.
(iii) State the full form of ‘FIFA’.
(iv) (1) The distance of the Penalty Point from the Goal line.
(2) The height of the Corner flags. (8)
Answer:
(i) The football is spherical made of leather or other suitable material of a circumference of not more than 70 cm (28 ins) and not less than 68 cm (27 ins). Weight is not more than 450 g (16 oz) and not less than 410 g(14 oz) at the start of the match of a pressure equal to 0.6 – 1.1 atmosphere (600 – 1,100 g/cm2).

(ii) Number of Players : A match is played by two teams, each consisting of not more than eleven players, one of whom is the goalkeeper. A match may not start if either team consists of fewer than seven players.

(iii) The full form of FIFA is Federation International Football Association.

(iv) 1. Penalty point is 12 yds. (11m) from goal line
2. Height of flags is 5 feet (1 . 5 m) at corners

(b) (i) Under what three situations is a player not considered off-side?
(ii) State the position of the following during the execution of a penalty kick in a game of football:
(1) The ball
(2) The defending goalkeeper
(3) The players
(iii) State any three duties of an Assistant Referee. (9)
Answer:
(i) A player is in an off-side position if: He is nearer to his opponents’ goal-line than both the ball and the secondlast opponent.
A player is not in an offside position if : He is in his own half of the field of play. He is level with the second last opponent. He is level with the last two opponents.

(ii) Position during the execution of a Penalty kick in a game of football:
(1) The ball: At Penalty spot
(2) The defending goalkeeper : In front of goal line, in own goal area.
(3) The players : All other players in centre circle.

(iii) Duties of an Assistant Referee : There are two Assistant Referees or lines-men. They assist or help the Match Referee during the game. They are equipped with flags. Their duties are to indicate Match Referee by various signals like :

  • Ball is out of play
  • Which team to get corner-kick
  • Throw-in
  • Goal-kick
  • Off-side.

(c) Explain the following:
(i) A Goal scored
(ii) A tie breaker
(iii) Sudden death
(iv) Any four fundamental skills of football (8)
Answer:
(i) Goal-Scored : The Referee will signal goal when the ball completely crosses the goal- line between the goal post and under the cross bar of goal post. It must be scored in a fair manner.

(ii) Tie rule: (i) In case of tie in normal time then extra time of 15 minutes of two halves. If there is still tie then Penalty Shoots are taken in which 5 penalty kicks are taken alternately by both teams.

(iii) Sudden Death : If there is a tie after the Extra/ Overtime period and then in Penalty shoot-out; followed by Sudden-death. The teams keep taking Penalty kicks until one team wins.

(iv) (a) Trapping : It is controlling the lifted ball before it could bounce or control the ball in air, so that it should fall near the body range. It is trapped by chest, thigh (upper leg), under the foot, etc.

(b) Tackling : It is taking the ball possession from the opponent with sliding. Many times trapping the ball with head, chest, foot is also done for the possession of the ball.

(c) Dribbling : It is faking to the opponent in such a way that the control of ball is kept. Player controls the movement of the ball with the feet whereas upper body gives the dodging movement.

(d) Kicking: It is the most common skill used to hit the ball with power. It reaches long and away to the desired position. It is performed in various ways like kicking with inside; outside of foot; instep-kick; punt-kick; scissor kick;
banana or chip-kick; roll back-kick, etc. It can be used during free-kick, goal-kick, corner-kick, penalty-kick or when situation suits.

(e) Heading: Usually an attacker heads the ball to re-direct it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this, forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

(f) Passing: In this, the ball is passed to own teammate who is close. The ball is slightly pushed so that it should reach to the desired point. There are lots of variation of passing like push pass (ball is pushed with inner-edge of foot); out step push (with the outer edge of the foot), through-pass (between the opponents).

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Handball

Question 10.
(a) (i) When is a Throw-in awarded?
(ii) Mention any two situations when the 7-metre throw is awarded.
(iii) Mention any four duties of timekeeper. (8)
Answer:
(i) Throw-In or Referee-Throw : During play if ball goes out from the side line, then opponent gets the chance for ball possession by Referee’s consent and giving the ball first to referee and then is the ball pass by cutting side line.

(ii) 7-meter throw: It is also known as penalty throw. It is given when defending player intentionally obstruct the opponent while he is going for throw towards goal post.

(iii) Duties of Timekeeper: Timekeeper sits by side of Recorder on the official table.

  • He starts the game clock and stops the game when the playing time ends, after each half.
  • He stops the game clock during time-out and inform the end of time-out to Referee.
  • He stops or starts the game clock in between (by the indication of Referee).
  • He notes the duration of 2-minute suspended player and sends him for play accordingly.
  • He assists Recorder by telling the chest number of the player scoring the goal.

(b) (i) Mention any three instances when a two-minute suspension is given.
(ii) State any three violations for which the opposition is awarded a free throw.
(iii) What is the procedure for a substitution during a match? (9)
Answer:
(i) A 2-minute suspension is given when:

  • For a faulty substitution, if an additional player enters the court, or if a player interferes in the game from the substitution area.
  • Already received the maximum number of warnings.
  • For unsportsmanlike conduct by a player if the player and/or his team has already received the maximum number of warnings.
  • For unsportsmanlike conduct by a team official, if one of the officials on the team has already received a warning.

(ii) Violations for which the opposition is awarded a free throw.

  • For Passive play or wasting time
  • For wrong entry or exit of player
  • For serious or repeated foul.

(iii) Substitutes may enter the court, at any time and repeatedly, without notifying the timekeeper/ scorekeeper, as long as the players they are replacing have already left the court. The players involved in the substitution shall always leave and enter the court over their own team’s substitution line.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) State any four duties of the Referee.
(ii) List any four fundamental skills of Handball. (8)
Answer:
(i) Duties of Referee : Two referees are there, both standing diagonally opposite to each other. They assist one another for better coordination among them. They judge the fair play in their half and give decision accordingly.

  • They start the game by throw off and end the game by blowing whistle.
  • They signal fouls, time out, enforce foul and penalties.
  • They regulate Throw-in, Free-throw and penalty-throw;
  • Referee suspends the player, warning to player.
  • They indicate the beginning of the passive play and control the game under rules.
  • They give decision when goal has been scored.
  • They check players’ equipments, ball, ground dimensions; ground safety area etc.

(ii) Fundamental Skills of Handball:

  • Pass: A pass, basic element of play, is an essential move in handball. The ball may be passed or thrown to a teammate in various ways, such as overhead pass, under arm pass, bounce pass, hook pass, jump pass etc.
  • Jump-Throw: The shooter jumps up to throw at the goal. To be effective, the jump throw should be preceded by a run up (maximum of three steps).
  • Fall away-Throw: The shooter jumps up and just before he throws, he twists laterally so that he is almost horizontal in the air and then throws.
  • Dribble: It is a skill of controlling the ball from opponents, to keep the possession of the ball by bouncing.
  • Fake: It is a skill to deceive opponent in wrong direction. This provides free area to move in other direction.

Question 11.
(а) Explain the following terms in Handball: (8)
(i) A Fast-Break
(ii) A Referee’s throw
(iii) The duration of play
(iv) A Double-Dribble
Answer:
(i) Fast-Break : A ball is quickly passed from one end to another end, to own team make for scoring goal, whereas opponents’ defence cannot setup.
(ii) Referee-Throw or Throw-in : During play if ball goes out from the side line, then opponent gets the chance for ball possession by Referee’s consent and giving the ball first to referee and then is the ball passed by cutting side line.
(iii) Duration of game is 2 halves of 30 minutes (M) and 25 minutes (W) with 5 to 10 min. break in each half.
(iv) Double-Dribble : If player uses both hands simultaneously while dribbling, it is a fault.

(b) Briefly explain the following: (9)
(i) Passive-play
(ii) Shuffling
(iii) A Tie-Rule
Answer:
(i) Passive-Play : It is a method of intentionally delaying for attempting goal and keeping the possession of the ball for more than 20 seconds.
(ii) Shuffling: It is again a strategic move during attack when man-to-man check by defenders are done. In this player moves or changes his position to break the defence of defenders.
(iii) Tie-rule : If there is tie in regular time then extra-time of 5 min. of two halves is given. If tie still exists then five penalty throws are taken alternatively by each team to break the tie.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Answer the following :
(i) The length and breadth of the field.
(ii) The weight and the circumference of the ball for Male and Female Players.
(iii) The Duration of the game and the Duration of the extra time.
(iv) The number of players and officials required for a match. (8)
Answer:
(i) Playfield has a rectangular shape with 40 m length and 20 m breadth. It has safety zone of 1 m on sides and 2 m behind goal line.
(ii) Weight of handball for men is 450 gm ± 25 gm (425 gm to 475 gm.)
Weight of handball for women is 350 gm ± 25 gm (325 gm to 375 gm.)
(iii) Duration of extra time is 2 halves of 5 minutes each with 1 min breaks in between.
(iv) A team consists of up to 14 players. Not more than 7 players may be present on the court at the same time. The remaining players are substitutes.
Officials for handball match consists of: 2 Referees, 1 Scorer, 1 Timekeeper, 1 Recorder

Hockey

Question 12.
(a) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Field-Goal
(ii) Sudden death
(iii) A Warning
(iv) A 16-yard hit
Answer:
(i) Field-Goal : It is a goal scored by dribbling or passing within the shooting circle in a strategicall move by the attacking players.
(ii) Sudden-death: After tie of score in extra time period of 10 min. (in two halves) then sudden death is followed. In this, five players of both teams take penalty strokes in an alternate to break the tie. If the tie still exists, then one to one sudden death is followed to break the tie to decide the winning team.
(iii) Warning : A player is warned by green card by Umpire, in this the player has committed foul unintentionally. It can also be given if player indulges himself in foul play or wasting time.
(iv) 16 – Yard Hit: It is a method of restarting play by defender, when the ball crosses the goal line, last being touched by the player of the attacking team. In this, free hit is permitted from the outside of the shooting circle.

(b) (i) List any three fundamental skills of Hockey.
(ii) Explain the term Corner Push.
(iii) Explain the execution of Dribbling in Hockey. (9)
Answer:
(i)

  1. Dribble : It is tackling the ball with stick work.
    The movement of ball is controlled by rolling the stick around it, while maintaining constant control of ball with the stick.
  2. Push : This stroke is used to send the ball to shorter distance.
  3. Hit: This is a powerful stroke for long passes or to score goal.
  4. Flick : This technique is used for penalty strokes. It is similar to push but the ball is lifted at a low height.
  5. Dodge : It is the technique of dribble, in which the coming opponent is deceived in other direction by fake body movement.

(ii) Corner-Push: This is a kind of push used in penalty corner (short-corner) or from long corner. In this skill player pushes the ball with power so that it should quickly reach to own teammate. Right hand is placed low on the stick and pushes the stick forward while the left hand holds the top of handle. This skill is mostly used to pass the ball to own team player.

(iii) Dribbling : It is tackling the ball with stick work. The movement of ball is controlled by rolling the stick around it, while maintaining constant control of ball with the stick. This prevents opponents to get possession of the ball. The player adjusts his body accordingly.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Suspension
(ii) A Free hit
(iii) Astro Turf
(iv) A Goal scored
Answer:
(i) Suspension : A player is suspended if he commits serious foul (intentionally or unintentionally), like dangerous play, misconduct, argument to Umpire. Second yellow card is also suspension of player from the match. Player cannot continue playing match; moreover team will play without filling of suspended player.

(ii) Free-Hit : It is hit performed by player without interruption (before 5 yards). It is given to opponent team, when some foul or violation has been committed outside their own shooting circle/ D.

(in) Astro Turf : It is the artificially made surface (synthetic surface) proving the feeling of grass surface (artificial grass surface), water is also sprinkled over it for reducing the roughness. This AstroTurf surface is used to conduct all international matches.

(iv) A Goal Scored : A goal is scored when the ball is played within the circle by an attacker and does not travel outside the circle before passing completely over the goal line and under the crossbar.

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following terms:
(i) A Manufactured foul
(ii) A Side line hit
(ii) A Corner hit
(iv) A Free hit (8)
Answer:
(i) Manufactured Foul : It is given when player or players are found that they are not using the specified stick as per mles. In this stage penalty corner is awarded to opposing team.

(ii) Side line Hit: If ball goes out from side line then opposite team gets side line hit from the point where it has gone outside.

(iii) A Corner Hit: When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players then long corner pass is permitted to attacking team in that case.

(iv) Free-Hit: It is hit performed by player without interruption (before 5 yard). It is given to opponent team, when some foul or violation has been committed outside their own shooting circle D).

(b) (i) State any six responsibilities of an umpire in a game of hockey.
(ii) Mention three situations when a penalty stroke is awarded. (9)
Answer:
(i) Duties of Umpires : Two Umpires are there (one in each half).

  1. They judge fair play in their half and give decisions.
  2. They ensure the time of play (start and end of each half).
  3. They signal fouls and enforce penalties;
  4. They conduct Long corner, Penalty corner, Penalty stroke.
  5. They signal goal; restart game after a goal or restart after the suspension of play
  6. They check the equipments of players.

(ii) A Penalty stroke is awarded:

  • For an offence by a defender in the circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a goal.
  • For an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who does not have possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball
  • For an intentional offence by a defender outside the circle but within the 23 meters area they are defending.
  • For intentionally playing the ball over the back-line by a defender.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Answer the following :
(i) The length and breadth of the playfield.
(ii) The duration of the game for men and women players of hockey.
(iii) (1) The weight of the ball. (2) The distance of the Penalty mark from the goal line.
(iv) The dimension of the Goal Post and the Shooting Circle. (8)
Answer:
(i) The field of play is rectangular, 91.40 meters (100 yds.) long and 55.00 meters (60 yds.) wide.
(ii) A match consists of two periods of 35 minutes and a halftime interval of 5 minutes.

(iii) 1. The weight of hockey ball is between 156 grams and 163 grams.
2. The distance of the penalty mark from the goal-line is 6.40 m (7 yds.)

(iv) 1. Dimension of goal post is 3 -66 m (12 feet) long and 2 -14 m (7 feet) high with 5 cm thick cross block placed over goal line.
2. ‘D’ or Shooting circle is 14-63 m (16 yds.) semicircle.

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Explain the following time : (8)
(i) A ‘24’ Seconds Rule
(ii) A ‘8’ Seconds Rule
(iii) A ‘5’ Seconds Rule
(iv) A ‘3’ Seconds Rule
Answer:
(i) ‘24’ Seconds Rule : Whenever team gains possession of ball, it is supposed to attempt the basket within 24 seconds.

(ii) ‘8’ Seconds Rule : After the score or due to foul or any other reason if team gets the possession of ball it is supposed to move the ball in the front of court (from the rear half of court) within ‘8’ seconds.

(iii) ‘5’ Second Rule : A player cannot hold the ball (without bounce) for more than ‘5’ seconds.

(iv) ‘3’ Second Rule : Any offensive player cannot stay inside the opponent’s restricted area consecutively for more than ‘3’ seconds, (apart from attempts, rebounds or tries for making basket).

(b) (i) Differentiate between a ‘Zone- Defence’ and a ‘Man-to-Man Defence’. (9)
(ii) Differentiate between a ‘Technical Foul’ and a ‘Multiple Foul’.
(iii) State three violations that may occur during the course of the game.
Answer:
(i) Zone-Defence : It is defence in own half, where player covers particular area for defence. Man-to-Man Defence : It is defencive tactics where each player checks or guards or screens the opponent player (dining opponent ball possession).

(ii) Technical Foul: When a player or coach performs unsportsman act or misconduct or violent act deliberately. In this foul opponent gets two free throws along with throw-in from centre.
Multiple Foul: When many players are involved in the foul at the same time.

(iii) Violation: It is an infraction of rules of game i.e., illegal actions for controlling or dribbling the ball during the game (without obstructing opponent).

  • Travelling : Illegal movement of the ball like running without bounce or passing while running.
  • Charging: A player with ball dribbles the ball with the shifting palm rather than the fingers.
  • Double-Dribble: A player while dribbling the ball cannot use both hands simultaneously for dribble. He can use both hands only while receiving or while passing the ball.
  • Out of Bound: Ball hits the boundary line or it bounces out of playfield.
  • Back Court: If ball is passed from the front court to the rear court to own team-mate.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms in Basketball: (8)
(i) Team Foul Indicators
(ii) A 24 Second device
(iii) Charging
(iv) A held ball
Answer:
(i) Team Foul Indicators : It is a red colour indicator or red flag with 35 cm height and 20 cm width. It is raised up when team foul reaches four.

(ii) ‘24’ Second Device : It is the apparatus used to count 24 seconds which raises its alarm after 24 seconds. It starts with the possession of ball to each team.

(iii) Charging : It is personal contact, with or without ball, by pushing, illegally guarding the opponent. It is preventing defence from rear of player or back side of player.

(iv) Held-Ball: It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw-in (by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line.

Question 15.
(a) Write the following : (8)
(i) The length and breadth of the Court.
(ii) The weight and the circumference of the ball.
(iii) The duration of the game and that of extra time.
(iv) The dimension of the restricted area.
Answer:
(i) The Length of Court is 28 m. and Breadth is 15 m (including lines of 5 cm width). Safety zone is 2 m on all sides.

(ii) Basketball Specification:
For Men : The circumference of the ball shall be no less than 749 mm to 780 mm (size 7) and the ball shall weigh no less than 567 g to 650 g.
For Women : The circumference of the ball shall be no less than 724 mm to 737 mm (size 6) and the ball shall weigh no less than 510 g to 567 g

(iii) Duration of game is 40 min. in four quarters (10 minutes each), extra time is 5 min. Rest time in- between each quarter is 2 min. (between I to II and III to IV) and in half time it is 5 to 10 min.

(iv) Restricted Area : It is a rectangular shaped with length of 5.80 m and breadth of 4.90 m.

(b) (i) Mention any three occasions when the ball is considered dead. (9)
(ii) Differentiate between a Cut-in and a Throw-in.
(iii) Differentiate between a Foul and a Violation.
Answer:
(i) The ball becomes dead when:

  • Any field goal or free throw is made.
  • An official blows his whistle while the ball is live.
  • It is apparent that the ball will not enter the basket on a free throw which is to be followed by another free throw(s). A further penalty (free throw(s) and/or possession).
  • The game clock signal sounds for the end of the period.
  • The shot clock signal sounds while a team is in control of the ball.

(ii) Cut-In : The fast movement of the player towards the basket through two or more opponents to receive the ball.
Throw-In : It is passing the ball from sideline or end line (after the dead-ball) to restart the continuity of game.

(iii) Foul: It is an infraction of rules involving personal contact with the opponent or un-sportsmanlike behaviour. These obstructions are committed to the opponent to get the possession of the ball or overpower the opponent or misconducts or misbehave with the officials in the playing field. Fouls are noted over score sheet by the table official. In case of fouls, the opponents are awarded throw-in or free-throw (as per attempt for scoring).

Violation : It is an infraction of rules of game i.e., illegal actions for controlling or dribbling the ball during the game (without obstructing opponent). These violations are not noted over the score sheet but opponent gains the possession of the ball.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Substitution
(ii) A Fake
(iii) A Chest pass
(iv) A Bounce-Pass
Answer:
(i) Substitution : It is replacing player by reserve player. It is given on demand to officials, moreover, ball is in dead (not alive). The player to be substituted should be entered only when the other player has moved out of the court boundaries.

(ii) Fake : It is dodging or deflects to opponent in other direction. It is deceiving opponent in other direction.

(iii) Chest Pass : It is a direct pass to own teammate at chest level. Ball is passed with initial momentum depending upon the distance to pass. It is passed with both the hands which are flexed initially and later extended towards passing.

(iv) Bounce-Pass : Player passes the ball with a bounce to his teammates after faking defender. It should reach normal height.

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) What is meant by the following terms in Volleyball ? (8)
(i) Physical contact
(ii) A Service
(iii) A Setter
(iv) Blocking fault
Answer:
(i) Physical contact: When a player touches the ball it is considered as physical contact.
(ii) Service : The service is the act of putting the ball into play, by the back-right player, placed in the service zone.
(iii) Setter : A player specialized to lift the ball for the smash. It is performed over the coming ball from own teammates. This player is also known as booster.
(iv) Blocking Fault: The blocker touches the ball in the opponent’s space either before or simultaneously with the opponent’s attack hit. A back-row player or a Libero completes a block or participates in a completed block.

(b) (i) Draw a diagram showing the Rotation Position of players on the court. (9)
(ii) Difference between an Attack-Line and a Back- Line.
(iii) Explain the difference between an Ace and a Floating-Service.
Answer:
(i) Rotation Position of Players :
ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1

(ii) Attack-Line: An extended line behind the centre line which restricts libro to smash from front area of court. It is 3 m away from the net.
Back-Line: A line at the back of court at 9 m from net. It is also known as service-line.

(iii) Ace : A point scored over service which is unreturned.
Floating-Service : A technique of performing service in which ball is hit hard and it makes steep landing in opponent’s court.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms :
(i) A Rotation
(ii) A Side-out
(iii) A Penalty
(iv) Carrying the ball (8)
Answer:
(i) Rotation : After every change of service; the players of serving side rotate in clockwise otherwise it may be foul.
(ii) Side-Out: When the active ball touches or contacts the floor outside the boundary line.
(iii) Penalty : After the first warning the second misconduct is penalty. In this, team is penalized with the loss of a point or a rally.
(iv) Carrying the Ball: If ball rests momentarily in the hands of the player i.e., it is held for short duration in the action, it is illegal.

Question 17.
(a) State the following:
(i) The length and the breadth of the playfield.
(ii) The height of the net for (men) and for (women).
(iii) The weight and the circumference of the ball.
(iv) The dimension of the ‘Free Zone Area’ and the ‘Service Line’. (8)
Answer:
(i) Playing Court : The playing court is a rectangle measuring 18 m length and 9 m wide, surrounded by a free zone which is a minimum of 3 m wide on all sides.
The free playing space is the space above the playing area which is free from any obstructions. The free playing space shall measure a minimum of 7 m in height from the playing surface.

(ii) Height of net is 2-43 m for Men and 2-24 m for Women.

(iii) Its circumference is 65-67 cm and its weight is 260-280 g.

(iv)

  • Free zone area is 3 to 5 m on all sides of court.
  • Service line is 9 m

(b) (i) State any three duties of a coach.
(ii) List any six service faults. (9)
Answer:
(i) Duties of Coach :

  • Throughout the match, the coach conducts the play of his/her team from outside the playing court.
  • He/She selects the starting line-ups, the substitutes, and takes timeouts.
  • The coach records or checks the names and numbers of his/her players on the score sheet, and then signs it.
  • Prior to each set, gives the 2nd referee or the scorer the line-up sheet(s) duly filled in and signed.
  • Requests for timeouts and substitutions.

(ii) Service Fault:

  • Violates the service order.
  • Does not execute the service properly.
  • Faults after the service hit.
  • Ball goes out
  • Passes over a screen

(c) Explain the following terms :
(i) Change of Court
(ii) A Penetration-Fault
(iii) A Misconduct
(iv) A Blocking (8)
Answer:
(i) Change of Court : After each set the ends are changed. In the final set it is changed at 8th point.

(ii) Penetration-Fault: A fault given when the opponent player enters into the opponent area in air; by crossing centre line by foot or by hands over the net during smash, block or lift.

(iii) Misconduct : It is illegal action or offence or behaviour by the player or by the team member including coach; warning at first instance and recorded over score sheet.

(iv) Blocking : It is preventing the coming smash or ball over the net so that it lands in opponent court.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 18.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A Double play
(ii) A Pivot foot
(iii) Sacrifice Fly
(iv) Called game.
Answer:
(i) A double play: A play used by the defence in which two offensive players are legally put out as a result of continuous action.
(ii) A Pivot foot : The front foot of pitcher remain stationary while pitching is called pivot foot.
(iii) Sacrifice fly : A sacrifice fly in soft ball is when the batter sacrifice themselves to score the runner into the scoring position.
(iv) Called game : Five full innings have been played umpire called game. It is a ending procedure.

(b) (i) Mention any three circumstances where a put out is credited to the catcher. [9]
(ii) State any three circumstances under which a Base Hit shall not be declared as a score.
(iii) Mention any three situations when a ball is called Fair in softball.
Answer:
(i)

  • If there is a runner on first base and less then three out.
  • The most common ways batter or runner are put out are strike outs.
  • He bunts foul with two strikes.

(ii)

  • If the foul tip is strike three the batter is out and ball remain live.
  • When the ball is not legal or fair.
  • When a player fielding a batted ball retires a preceeding runner with ordinary effort.

(iii) Ball is fair in soft ball in following situations :

  • When a throw ball goes post a fielder remain playable territory.
  • When a runner must return in reverse while the ball is in play.
  • When the ball is legal ball.

(c) Explain the following: [8]
(i) A Foul tip
(ii) An Infield Fly
(iii) Leaping
(iv) Stealing.
Answer:
(i) A Foul tip : A foul tip is a batted ball which goes directly from the bat to the catcher’s hands or goes not higher than the batter’s head, and is legally caught by the catcher.

(ii) An infield fly : Once infield fly is called the batter is out regardless of the result of the play and whether the ball is caught or not.

(iii) Leaping : The leap is an illegal act that results in the pitcher becoming airborne on the initial push off from the pitcher plate.

(iv) Stealing : If the catcher catches the ball or the ball is missed and lands behind the plate the ball is considered live and the base is taken is called stealing.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 19.
(a) Explain the following : [8]
(i) A suspended game
(ii) A protested game
(iii) Quick Return Pitch
(iv) Triple play
Answer:
(i) Suspended game: To indicate suspension of play the umpire shall call time end and at the same time extends both arms above the head. It is called when game stops due to any reason in the beginning of mid game.

(ii) A protested game: It is the action of a defensive or offensive team objecting to the interpretation or application of a playing rule by an umpire or the eligibility of a team roster member.

(iii) Quick Return Pitch: A pitch made by the pitcher before the batter is ready.

(iv) Triple play: A Triple play is a continuous play by the defence on which three offensive players are put out.

(b) (i) When is the ball legally put into play by the Umpire?
(ii) What is meant by a run Batted In ?
(iii) Under what circumstances should base runners return to their base ? [9]
Answer:
(i) Each pitch ball which does not enter the strike zone and each illegally pitched ball.
(ii) A run batted in is a run scored because of following reasons :
(a) A safe hit
(b) A foul fly caught.
(iii) The ball is dead, the batter is out and the runner must return to their previous base.

(c) (i) An Overthrow [8]
(ii) Scoring a Run
(iii) Base-Running
(iv) Catching.
Answer:
(i) An over throw: When a ball is over thrown the ball is live and runners will only be stopped when the defensive team retrieves and field the ball.

(ii) Scoring a run: One run shall be scored each time a runner legally touches first, second, third base and have plate before the third out of the inning.

(iii) Base running: When the batter exchange their bases after hitting the ball is known as base running.

(iv) Catching: The most important role of catcher is handling the pitcher. He should stand as close to the batter as possible his feet spread.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2016 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2016 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Write any two advantages of Health Education. (2)
Answer:
Advantages of Health Education :
1. Provide opportunity for proper growth and development: Health education programmes provide full opportunity for proper growth and development. It educates us regarding health problems, health hazards, etc.

2. Promotes Community and Individual Health: It guides us to promote safe, clean and hygienic environment. It promotes and develops healthy hygienic habits. It helps society by checking diseases at early stages.

3. Guides Preventive Steps against Diseases: It guides us regarding the preventive and treatment steps to be taken against various communicable diseases.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Name any two diseases caused due to lack of Oral Hygiene. (2)
Answer:
Diseases caused due to lack of Oral Hygiene:

  • Abscess: It is decay of teeth.
  • Pyorrhea: It is bad smell from mouth.
  • Stomach Ache: Swear stomach ache and gastric problem.

(c) State any three Anti-mosquito measures. (3)
Answer:
Anti-mosquito measures : The preventive steps revolve around the breeding and growth of mosquitoes. Therefore, ditches, pits, etc., must be filled up before the onset of rainy season. Dirty water should not be allowed to stand near localities; spraying of DDT or BHC or malathion at dirty places; using of mosquito net, anti-mosquito repellant, oil, cream, coil, fluid, fixing mosquito screen on windows and doors, etc. In high risk areas of malaria, people should take one tablet of chloroquine (every week) during rainy season. Blood should be examined for malaria parasite to prevent its spread.

(d) Mention any three causes of Tuberculosis. (3)
Answer:
Tuberculosis is chronic and dangerous in which there is infection in the lungs. It affects lungs initially, later it also affects joints, bones, intestine and brain. This disease spreads by micro-organisms (rod shaped) called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Symptoms are like continuous fever (during night) and feeling of tiredness. Other symptoms are chronic cough, breathlessness, pain in chest, weight loss, loss of appetite, spitting of blood with sputum, etc.

Causes of Tuberculosis are :

  • Droplets Infection, generally the sputum or saliva of infected person spreads this disease.
  • Smoking, Alcoholism
  • Unhygienic conditions help to spread this infection like not washing utensils, etc.
  • Poor Hygiene Habits, not washing hands etc.

Question 2.
(a) Name any four common sports injuries. (2)
Answer:
The common sports injuries are:

  • Contusion
  • Abrasion
  • Laceration or Wound
  • Strain
  • Sprain
  • Dislocation
  • Bone fracture.

(b) What is Nutrition ? (2)
Answer:
Nutrition is the food which provides energy for workout along with growth and development of body. Our body grows, develops and functions properly with the help of nutrients in the food. The food contains various types of nutrients in it like Carbohydrates, Fats, Proteins, Vitamins, Minerals and Water.

(c) Mention any three factors to have healthy hair. (3)
Answer:
Care of Hair:

  • Regular washing of hair with soap or shampoo or conditioner.
  • Regular combing of hair with proper comb.
  • Gentle massage with hair oil improves the hair growth.
  • Hair should be kept clean and free from parasites, such as lice. The lice can be killed by washing the hair with shampoo containing linden. Dandruff can be removed by regular washing and combing. The best treatment for dandruff is regular washing with a shampoo containing selenium compounds or coal tar extracts.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) What is Pneumonia ? Write any two symptoms of pneumonia. (3)
Answer:
Pneumonia is a disease of Lungs.

  • It is caused by various types of germs such as Diplococcic pneumonia, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcal which enter into lungs and affect its functioning.
  • It is caused due to exposure to cold or dry places.
  • It is caused by the infected sputum of the patient.

Symptoms: In most cases:

  • Common cold (running nose) and frequent coughing.
  • Pain in chest, throat and difficulty in eating food.
  • Inflammation in the lungs, often patient feels shaking chills.
  • Cough along with sputum.
  • The high fever continues up to 105°F. Pulse is faster, about 150 beats per minute.
  • Restlessness.

Question 3.
(а) State any four advantages of Correct Posture. (2)
Answer:
Advantages of Correct Posture are :
1. Attractive Physical Appearance: The first image of personality comes through good posture. A good posture makes individual appear smart, good looking, charming and attractive.

2. Health Status: Correct posture of body reflects positive health status of an individual. Good posture is an image of good health and sound body.

3. Psychological Balance: A good posture improves the psychological balance of the body and mind. It improves the activeness of mind and leads to its optimum development.

4. Lesser Strain and Pain over Joints: Good posture causes less strain and pain over joints, as it distributes the body weight equally over the joints.

5. Improves Social Status: A good physique reflects positive social qualities. Good posture is an image of happy lifestyle and social well-being of an individual.

(b) State any four advantages of Recreation. (2)
Answer:
Advantages of Recreation are:

  • Develops Creativity: These activities guide our enquiring mind into creativity and adventure. It is very helpful for child growth.
  • Optimum Health: These activities develop optimum level of wellness along with good health and lot of physical fitness ability.
  • Utilization of Time: They provide good utilization of free time. They help to leam various life skills.
  • Outlet to Emotions: They provide easy outlet to emotions. They regulate and control our emotions and expressions.
  • Cheerful Life: These activities are very funny, enjoyable and pleasurable. Thus, they make the life cheerful and happy.

(c) Name the microorganism which causes Malaria. Mention any two symptoms. (3)
Answer:
It is caused by biting of female Anopheles mosquito. The growth of these mosquitoes takes place in dirty places, garbage, standing water, etc. When this mosquito bites a healthy person, it injects the germs via the blood inside the body. The incubation period of malaria is 7-20 days. It is the most fatal disease in the world.

Symptoms:

  • Headache and shivering with high temperature up to 104°-106° F (Fahrenheit).
  • There is a lot of perspiration (sweating) when fever subsides.
  • Body becomes weak and skin with pale colour.
  • Nausea feeling.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) What is Immunity ? Name the types of Immunity. (3)
Answer:
Immunity is the ability of the body to resist against disease. There are two types of defence mechanism against all types of infections or diseases. It involves the blocking of entry of pathogens or destroying the pathogens in two ways :
(A) Internal defence or Natural Immunity or Innate Immunity (developed by body itself)
(B) External agent defence or Acquired Immunity or Adoptive Immunity (developed by medicines, drugs, creams and medical aids).

Question 4.
(а) Define Disinfectants. (2)
Answer:
Disinfection is the killing of various pathogenic microbes which may otherwise find their entry in the body and may cause diseases. It is a preventive measure against communicable diseases. Disinfectants or germicides are chemical substances which destroy harmful microbes. They are suitable for application to inanimate objects only, where the microbes thrive and multiply. The commonly used disinfectants are Cresol, Phenol, Lysol, Formalin; Lime Bordeaux mixture, DDT, BHC, etc.

(b) What is meant by the term Vector Infection? (2)
Answer:
Vector Infection is a type of infection in which disease spreads through insects or animals by their bites like malaria, rabies, etc. In this infection the pathogens are transmitted from infected person by bite of insects, parasites, animals, etc.

(c) What is the full form of HIV ? Mention any two symptoms. (3)
Answer:
HIV means Human Immunodeficiency Virus. This disease also referred as AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) is a disorder of T-cells in blood (which stimulates antibody production) and affects the immune system of body. This results in the loss of natural defence against viral infections.
The symptoms are the rapid weight loss and chronic fatigue.

(d) State the sleep requirement for the following age groups: (3)
(i) Infants and children from 6 months to 2 years.
(ii) 2 years to 12 years.
(iii) Adults with normal routine.
Answer:
The body obtains adequate rest by means of sleep. One feels fresh and full of vigour after having a sound sleep. Sleep requirement for the following age groups are :
(i) Infants and children from 6 months to 2 years: 14-16 hours.
(ii) 2 years to 12 years : 10-12 hours.
(iii) Adults with normal routine : 7- 8 hours.

Question 5.
(a) Name any two diseases spread by Fungi. (2)
Answer:
Fungi grows in damp spots with sweat. Diseases spread by Fungi are:
(i) Ringworm.
(ii) Athlete’s foot.

(b) Write the full form of ABC and BMI. (2)
Answer:

  • Full form of ABC is: Airway, Breathing and Circulation.
  • Full form of BMI is: Body Mass Index.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Suggest three precautions that should be taken to avoid accidents caused by cooking gas. (3)
Answer:
Precautions that should be taken to avoid accidents caused by cooking gas are:

  • Rubber tube of gas cylinder should be checked up regularly for gas leakage.
  • Matchstick should be properly extinguished before throwing.
  • Electric switches should not be switched on when there is leakage.
  • Matchstick should be ignited before switching on the gas stove.
  • Door and windows should be opened for cross ventilation.

(d) State any three ill-effects of drugs. (3)
Answer:
Ill-effects of drugs are :
(i) Addictive Effects: Most of these substances have addictive effects, thus create physical and psychological dependence. Its regular use becomes the need of athletes to perform well in physical activity.

(ii) Cardiac Problems: Doping has adverse effect over heart and causes many types of cardiac problems like varied heartbeat, high blood pressure, hypertension, cardiac arrest, heart attack, etc.

(iii) Affects Kidney and Liver: Doping substance is strong chemicals, thus it adversely affects, like Cancer of kidney and liver. It leads to non-functioning or partial damage or failure of these important organs.

(iv) Unbalanced Psychological Behaviour: These substances usually lead to unbalanced psychological behaviour like aggression, loss of concentration, dizziness, headache, loss of neuromuscular responses, nausea feeling, nervousness, high anxiety, insomnia, depression etc.

(v) Musculature Body: Anabolic steroid causes strong muscles, thus affects the feminine look of females like musculature body of females, loss of hair (baldness), male voice, causes beard or moustaches on face, etc., thus personality is affected.

Section – B (50 Marks)
Attempt two questions from this Section.
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.
Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) Timed Out
(ii) Catch Out
(iii) Intentional Disturbance
(iv) Double Hit
Answer:
(i) Timed out: If the batsman does not report to face the bowler or unduly delays the match or if the new batsman takes longer than two minutes, from the previous wicket fall.

(ii) Catch out: When a ball is caught by a fielder before it touches the ground or if a fielder catches the ball hit by bat by the batsman.

(iii) Intentional Disturbance: If the batsman gets in the way of an opponent trying to catch the ball or when any player creates disturbance knowingly and hinders the batsman/bowler/fielder during the play of the game.

(iv) Double hit: If the batsman hits the ball intentionally for the second time (can stop but not to hit) then batsman can be declared out on an appeal. Or if a batsman hits the delivery with his bat and deliberately hits the ball again for any reason other than to defend his wicket.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) List any three Protective Equipments used by the batsman. (9)
(ii) Write down any three Fielding Positions of ‘On Side’.
(iii) What is the importance of 30 Yard Circle in the game of Cricket ?
Answer:
(i) Protective equipments used in cricket:

  • Helmet
  • Leg Protector/ Pads
  • Batsman/Batting Gloves
  • Chest Guard
  • Abdomen Guard

(ii) Fielding Positions of ‘On Side’:

  • Mid-on
  • Long on
  • Square leg
  • Fine Leg
  • Mid-wicket

(iii) 30 Yard Circle : An inner circle marked at 30 yard around the stumps. This circle is used during power play to restrain 9 fielders inside the 30 yard circle.

(c) Write the following : (8)
(i) Weight and circumference of a cricket ball.
(ii) Length and widest part of a cricket bat.
(iii) Height and breadth of cricket stumps.
(iv) Distance between stumps and distance of inner circle from the wickets.
Answer:
(i) Weight of the cricket ball = 5‘/2 ounce (156 gm.).
Circumference of the ball = 9 inches (22-5 cm).

(ii) Length of the cricket bat = 38 Inch (96-5 cm).
Widest part of bat = 4‘/4 inch (10 -8 cm).

(iii) Height of stumps = 28 inches (71-1 cm)
Breadth of stumps = 9 inches (22-8 cm)

(iv) Distance between stumps = 66 feet (22 yd.) or 20-12 m
Distance of Inner circle from wickets = 30 yards (27-4 m)

Question 7.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Sight Screen
(ii) How’s That
(iii) A Googly
(iv) A China-man
Answer:
(i) Sight Screen: It is a specified white or colour screen kept behind the stumps (especially behind bowling stump) over the boundary line, to provide visibility of approaching bowler towards batsman. It is with the dimension of 6 meter in length and 3 meter high.

(ii) How’s That: An appeal by the fielding-players to Umpire to consider the delivery of ball carefully. This appeal pressurizes the Umpire to consider them.

(iii) Googly: A ball bowled in such a way that it turns opposite than what it seems to be.

(iv) China-man: When a left arm spinner delivers an off-break bowling, it is termed as China-man.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) Draw a diagram of a Cricket Pitch and mark the following: (9)
1. The Bowling Crease
2. The Popping Crease
3. The Return Crease
(ii) What do you mean by Ball Tampering ?
(iii) What do you mean by the term Substitute?
Answer:
(i) 1. Bowling Crease
2. The Popping Crease
3. The Return Crease

(ii) Ball Tampering: It is the intentional damage to the ball by the fielding players to get undue advantage in the swing of the ball during bowling.

(iii) Substitute: A player from batting, fielding side is replaced with a new player. In super substitute, this replaced player can bat or field or bowl (with certain conditions). This is on trial basis. This is also referred as twelveth man.

(c) Explain the following: (8)
(i) A Stance
(ii) A Full Toss
(iii) A Run-up
(iv) A Sweep Shot
Answer:
(i) Stance : It is a position or posture of a batsman at the crease before facing a delivery.
(ii) Full Toss: A ball delivered by bowler above the ankles of the batsman without the bounce.
(iii) Run-Up : An approach run taken by bowler during bowling.
(iv) Sweep Shot: In this the batsman hits the ball to deep angle while kneeling down.

Football

Question 8.
(a) Draw a diagram of football field showing the entire dimensions. (8)
Answer:
ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1

(b) (i) State three procedures that will be followed during a Kick-off. (9)
(ii) State any three duties of an Assistant Referee.
(iii) What is the procedure of taking a Throw-in?
Answer:
(i) Touch line (100 to 130 yds)

  1. It is starting the game (in beginning or after half-time or after the goal has been scored or in extra-time).
  2. During kick-off players remain in their own half.
  3. Opponent team player does not enter 10 yard circle until ball is pushed or kicked forward.
  4. Kick-off player should not touch the ball consecutively second time until played by another player.

(ii) Duties of Assistant Referee:

  • There are two Assistant Referees or lines-men. They assist or help the Match Referee during the game. They are equipped with flags.
  • Their duties are to indicate Match Referee by various signals like ball is out of play.
  • Which team to get corner-kick or throw-in or goal-kick or off side?

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) When is corner kick awarded and from where is it taken ? (8)
(ii) Explain the following:
1. A Substitution
2. A Through-Pass
Answer:
(i) Corner-Kick: It is also known as flag kick. Corner kick is awarded when a defender puts the ball out of the play behind his team’s goal line. An attacking player then tries to send the ball in front of the goal for another attacker to head or make a short pass to a teammate to convert it into goal. It is taken from corner-arc or quarter-yard circle.

(ii) 1. Substitution: Though there are five reserve players but only two substitutes are permitted during match that too with permission from Referee.

2. Through-Pass: In this, the ball is passed between two or more defenders and the own teammate collects the ball and moves further.

Question 9.
(a) (i) State any four offences committed by a player within his own penalty area, which warrant the award of Penalty-kick.
(ii) What is the circumference and weight of a standard football ? State its minimum and maximum size.(8)
Answer:
(i) Penalty-Kick: A penalty kick is awarded when a foul is committed by a defender in the penalty area or technical area. The ball is placed on the penalty spot and the attacking player tries to kick it directly into the goal and goalkeeper only defends it. The offences are like :

  • Intentional hit to the player
  • Intentional handling the ball
  • Charging opponent
  • Holding opponent from behind.

(ii) Weight of the football = 14 ounce (400 gm) Minimum. 16 ounce (450 gm) Maximum Circumference of football = 27 inches (68 cm) Minimum. 28 inches (711 cm) Maximum

(b) (i) How is a goal scored in the game of football ?
(ii) As a Referee what decisions would you take if the following incidents occur during a match ?
1. A player intentionally pushes an opponent.
2. A defending player intentionally handles the ball in the penalty area.
3. A player indulges in misconduct even after receiving a Yellow card.
(iii) In a Knock-out tournament if the match ends in a draw, what will be the procedures followed to determine the winner of the match ? (9)
Answer:
(i) When the live ball crosses the goal line under the cross bar and in between the goal post.

(ii) Referee’s decision
1. When a player intentionally pushes an opponent then Direct Free Kick should be given.
2. When a defending player intentionally handles the ball in the penalty area then Penalty Kick should be given.
3. When a player indulges in misconduct even after receiving a Yellow Card then Red Card should be given (player should be sent off the game).

(iii) 1. During a knock-out tournament, if there is a tie at the end of regulation time, then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15-minutes each overtime period. In this duration if any team makes the goal, it wins the match. Earlier there was golden goal period in which the team who scores the goal first wins the game but now it is known as silver goal period.

2. If there is still a tie after the overtime period, a penalty shoot-out takes place (sudden death). The referee decides which goal will be used for the penalty kicks; the team to kick first is determined by a toss. Each team chooses 5 players to take the kick in turns. The team that has the most goals after 5 kicks wins the game.

3. If the teams are still tied after 5 kicks each, the teams keep taking penalty kicks until one team wins. The goal is scored when ball crosses the goal line (may be on surface or in air).

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following : (8)
1. An Off-side
2. A Free-kick
3. Heading
4. Passing
Answer:
1. Off-Side: A player is off side when he is close to the opposing goal line without the ball, unless two defenders are between the attacker and the goal line. This off-side is also considered as a defensive tactic (the entire defensive line moves rapidly in a wave to put the attackers off side). Off-side is given by linesman by raising red flag. Goal is not considered in that case and opponent is awarded indirect kick.

2. Free-Kick: A free-kick is awarded when a player has been fouled. In the direct free-kick, the ball can be kicked directly at the goal. In the indirect free-kick, the ball must be passed to a teammate before being directed at the goal. Opponent players must be 10 yards away from where it is to be taken.

3. Heading : Usually an attacker heads the ball to re-direct it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this, forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

4. Passing: In this, the ball is passed to own teammate who is close. The ball is slightly pushed so that it should reach to the desired point. There are lots of variation of passing like push pass (ball is pushed with inner-edge of foot); out step push (with the outer edge of the foot), through-pass (between the opponents).

Handball

Question 10.
(a) Explain the following : (8)
(i) Goal Area
(ii) Free Throw Line
(iii) Duration of Extra Time
(iv) Free Space Area
Answer:
(i) Goal Area: The arc around the goal post at 6 mt, which is restricted for all players except goalkeeper.
(ii) Free Throw Line: The dotted arc line marked around the goal area at 9 mt away from goal post. Free throw is awarded from this line.
(iii) Duration of Extra Time = 2 halves of 5 minutes each. (1 min break in between).
(iv) Free Space Area: The area where suspended player remains sitting till suspension time is over.

(b) (i) Mention any three duties of Timekeeper. (9)
(ii) Mention any three instances when a Referee gives a Two-minute suspension to a player.
(iii) Write any three privileges of the Goalkeeper.
Answer:
(i) Duties of Timekeeper: Timekeeper sits by side of Recorder on the official table.

  • He starts the game clock and stops the game when the playing time ends, after each half.
  • He stops the game clock during time-out and informs the end of time-out to Referee.
  • He stops or starts the game clock in between (by the indication of Referee).
  • He notes the duration of 2-minute suspended player and sends him for play accordingly.
  • He assists Recorder by telling the chest number of the player scoring the goal.

(ii) Two-Minute Suspension is given:

  • When player misbehaves with Referee.
  • Performs unsportsman act to opponent; manhandling the opponent.
  • Intentional obstruction from behind.
  • Repeatedly obstruction in spite of warning or yellow card.
  • Attempts to endanger the opponent’s health while attacking.

(iii) Privilege to Goalkeeper:

  • Only Goalkeeper is permitted inside the own Goal area.
  • Goalkeeper can touch the ball with any body part inside the Goal area.
  • Only Goalkeeper is permitted to leave the Goal area without permission.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) Write six situations where Penalty Throw is awarded. (8)
(ii) Write any two situations where Warning is given.
Answer:
(i) Penalty Throw (7m-throw) is awarded from 7 Meter line. This is given

  • When defending player intentionally obstructs the opponent from behind.
  • Blocking dangerously while player is throwing ball towards goal.
  • Jumps on the opponent without the ball.
  • Pushes the opponent.
  • Trips on the opponent when he has clear chance of scoring.

(ii) Warning is given when :

  • Pulls or hits the ball from opponents.
  • Blocks opponent with arms or legs.
  • Restrain, hold, pass, run or jump into opponent.
  • Endangers opponent.

Question 11.
(a) (i) Mention the two throws for which the Referee must
always blow the whistle to restart the game. (8)
(ii) What is the Restraining Line meant for?
(iii) Explain the term ‘throw of T.
(iv) Explain the term ‘free throw’ in handball.
Answer:
(i) Throws for which Referee whistles for restart of the game:

  • When goal has been scored.
  • After the end of first half.
  • After the 7 meter-throw or after the penalty throw.

(ii) Restraining Line is meant for goalkeeper. It restrains goalkeeper to come (ahead of goal line) up to this mark.

(iii) Throw-off : To start (after the goal scored or in beginning of each half) the game, a player passes the ball by cutting centre line whereas players of both teams remain in their own halves.

(iv) Free-Throw: It is also known as 9-mt throw. If defensive team commits fault or violation then opponent is awarded with 9 meter free-throw. Defensive player must be 3 meters away from the opponent players.

(b) (i) What is the meant by a Referee throw? (9)
(ii) When is a player excluded from the game?
(iii) What is the purpose of the Substitute line?
Answer:
(i) Referee Throw or Throw In: During play if ball goes out from the side line, then opponent gets the chance for ball possession by Referee’s consent and giving the ball first to referee and then is the ball pass by cutting side line.

(ii) Player is excluded from the game when Red Card or disqualification of a player who is repeatedly committing obstruction in spite of warning. He is not allowed to play further.

(iii) Substitution Line: The player to be substituted has to come out of playfield first and then the substitute has to enter from the substitute restraining line near the official table. It is marked 4.50 meters on side line, at centre line on both sides.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Define the following terms: (8)
(i) A suspension
(ii) An exclusion
(ii) A goal scored
(iv) A fast-break
Answer:
(i) A Suspension: If player intentionally obstructs the opponent, he remains out for two minutes. The team has to play with less number of player till he gains comes-in.

(ii) An Exclusion: It means disqualification of a player who is repeatedly committing obstruction in spite of warnings. He is not allowed to play further.

(iii) A Goal Scored: When the entire ball has completely crossed the goal line under the goal post, without violations of rules. Referee signals this by raising one hand, followed by restart from centre line.

(iv) Fast-Break: Ball is quickly passed to own teammate for scoring goal, which is placed close to opponent ring. It is moving the ball quickly down the court in order to score before defence can setup.

Hockey

Question 12.
(a) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Goal Line
(ii) A Playing Distance
(iii) Dribbling
(iv) An Obstruction
Answer:
(i) Goal lines: The parts of the back lines between the goal-posts.

(ii) Playing Distance has:
(a) Side lines: 91.40 meters long perimeter lines
(b) Back lines: 55.00 meters long perimeter lines.

(iii) Dribbling : It is tackling the ball with stick work. The movement of ball is controlled by rolling the stick around it, while maintaining constant control of ball with the stick. This prevents opponents to get possession of the ball. The player adjusts his body accordingly.

(iv) An Obstruction: It is hindrance to opponent against the rules. It prevents opponent player to play with ball by hindrance through body or stick.

(b) In the event of the ball going over a back line, how does the game resume : (9)
(i) When an attacker knocks the ball out of play ?
(ii) When a defender unintentionally knocks the ball out of play ?
(iii) When a defender intentionally knocks the ball out of play ?
Answer:
(i) When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players then Free hit from back line is permitted to attacking team in that case.

(ii) When a defender unintentionally knocks the ball out of play, then opposite team gets long corner from 5 meter mark.

(iii) When a defender intentionally knocks the ball out of play then penalty corner is given to opponent team.

(c) (i) Write any four occasions when the Umpire blows the whistle dining the game. (8)
(ii) Explain the following:
(A) A Penalty Corner
(B) Dangerous Play
Answer:
(i) The Umpire blows the whistle during the game when

  • Start and end of each half.
  • Fouls committed by players.
  • Goal has been scored.
  • Penalty corner.
  • Penalty stroke.

(ii) (A) A penalty corner : An attacker pushes a ball from a mark which is 10 yards away from the goal post on side the team prefers. Five defenders including a goalkeeper are allowed to stand behind the goal line to depend their goal.
(B) Dangerous play : When a player intentionally does something that can hurt another play or the player can be accidental.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following: (8)
(i) Carried
(ii) A Rolling Substitution
(iii) A Bully
(iv) A Corner
Answer:
(i) Carried: When a ball touches the leg or feet of the player, it is violation.

(ii) Rolling-Substitution: According to new rules any player can be changed from reserve players or substitutes without intimation to Referee. No extra time or stopping of game is given. There can be any number of rolling substitution from the substitute players, except during penalty corner.

(iii) Bully: This method is used to start or restart the game after interruption. In this method, two opponent players try to gain the control over ball by dribbling between them under Referee’s signal.

(iv) Corner: When a ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players then long corner pass is permitted to attacking team.

(b) (i) Mention three procedures to be followed while taking a Penalty Stroke. (9)
(ii) List three instances wherein Penalty Corner is awarded.
(iii) State the importance of the Shooting Circle.
Answer:
(i) Penalty stroke: It is also known as 7 yard push. This is awarded when some serious offence is committed by team in their shooting circle. Time stops during penalty stroke. Only goalkeeper and the player taking stroke permitted inside shooting circle. At the whistle player pushes or scoops or flicks the ball towards the goal for scoring a goal whereas goalkeeper defends it. It is done from the penalty spot 7 yards in front of goal post.

(ii) Penalty corner is awarded when a player

  • commits serious foul (intentionally or unintentionally)
  • indulges in dangerous play
  • for misconduct
  • enters into argument with Umpire.

(iii) Importance of Shooting Circle are:

  • Goal can only by scored from within the Shooting circle.
  • Intentional foul committed by defensive team in Shooting circle leads to Penalty corner.
  • Penalty corner is taken within Shooting circle.

(c) Explain the following : (8)
1. A Corner Push
2. A Dodge
3. A Tapping
4. A Shin Guard
Answer:
1. Corner-Push: This is a kind of push used in penalty corner (short-corner) or from long corner. In this skill player pushes the ball with power so that it should quickly reach to own teammate.

2. Dodge: It is the technique of dribble, in which the coming opponent is deceived in other direction by fake body movement. It prevents opponent to interfere or get possession of the ball.

3. Tapping: This skill is used to stop the fast coming ball by carefully stopping with stick. In this skill the stick is kept in between the fast coming ball so that it stops close to stick. There is lot of variation of tapping, like lying stick tapping, blade tapping, reverse stick tapping, etc.

4. Shin-Guard: It is the protective equipment used by a player to protect the shine-bone and ankle. Shin is the area between ankle and the knee. It is fiber made guard which is worn under the long stocking to protect lower leg and ankle.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Explain the following: (8)
(i) An Alternating possession indicator
(ii) A Double Foul
(iii) A Violation
(iv) Three Point Successful Shot
Answer:
(i) An Alternating Possession indicator: It is an instrument with arrow/indicator which shows the direction of the possession of ball to a team.
(ii) Double-Foul: A situation in which opposing player commits contact foul against each other simultaneously.
(iii) Violation: An infringement of rules, where opponent is awarded with throw-in from side line or end line closest to infraction.
(iv) Three Point Successful Shot: The basket or goal scoring which gives addition of three points in the score, thrown behind the three point line or arc. Referee signals this by raising both hands showing three fingers of palm.

(b) (i) Explain the following terms: (9)
1. A Ten Second Rule
2. A Cut in
3. A Clean Shot
(ii) What do you mean by Man-to-Man marking?
(iii) Define the term Zone-Defence.
Answer:
(i) 1. 10-Seconds Rule: After the score or due to foul or any other reason if team gets the possession of ball they are supposed to move the ball in the front of court (from the rear half of court) within ‘10’ seconds. (Now 8-second rule).
2. Cut-In: The fast movement of the player towards the basket through two or more opponents to receive the ball.
3. A Clean Shot : A shot in which ball does not touch the board and goal is scored.

(ii) Man-to-Man Marking: It is defensive stactics where each player checks or guards or screens the opponent player (during opponent ball possession).

(iii) Zone-Defence: It is defence in own half, where player covers particular area for defence.

(c) Write the following: (8)
(i) An Illegal Screening
(ii) A Live-Ball
(iii) A Dead-Ball
(iv) A Lay-up-Shot
Answer:
(i) Illegal Screening: It is illegal attempt to delay or prevent opponent player who does not control the ball from reaching desired position.
(ii) Live-Ball: During jump-ball if ball is legally tapped or officials place the ball for play or at the disposal of free throw or throw-in.
(iii) Dead-Ball: Ball lands out of bounds, official blows the whistle, in case of violation, fouls etc. It is temporarily stopping of game.
(iv) Lay-Up-Shot : A shot executed by a player while moving two steps with the ball and attempting a shot.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 15.
(a) Explain the following: (8)
(i) A Time-out.
(ii) A Disqualifying Foul
(iii) Rebounding
(iv) A Closely Guarded Player
Answer:
(i) Time-out: It is an interruption of game requested by coach. It lasts not more than one min. It can be taken one time in I, II and III quarter; and two times in IV quarter.

(ii) A Disqualifying Foul or Unsportsmanlike Foul: This is an intentional foul. It is a personal foul of a player, with or without the ball. It is deliberately committed against opponent. Player knowingly hits the opponent player who is going for scoring basket. This is a serious foul in which opponent gets two free throws along with side pass from centre line.

(iii) Rebounding: It is attempt to recollect the ball if it fails to score basket. It is bounce back of the ball after striking ring or backboard (in un-converted shot) which comes for play.

(iv) Closely Guarded Player: When a player is checked or guarded closely providing less chance to move in any direction.

(b) What do you understand by following terms: (9)
(i) Blocking
(ii) Holding
(iii) A Held Ball
Answer:
(i) Blocking : It is illegal personal contact which impedes the progress of opponent player with or without the ball.
(ii) Holding: It is personal contact to opponent player that infers the freedom of movement (by body contact).
(iii) Held-Ball: It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw-in (by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line (earlier jump-ball was performed under this condition).

(c) Write the following terms: (8)
(i) Dribbling
(ii) A Board Shot
(iii) A Three Point-Shot
(iv) Team Fouls
Answer:
(i) Dribbling : It is pumping of ball with hands so that it bounces back by which the movement of ball takes place by a player.
(ii) Board-Shot: It is an attempt to goal (score basket) by bounce from the ring board i.e., ball to hit the board first for scoring basket.
(iii) Three Point Shot: The basket or goal scoring which gives addition of three points in the score. It should be thrown behind the three point line or arc.
(iv) Team Fouls: These are total fouls of team. If team fouls exceed more than four fouls in each quarter then opponent team is awarded with two free throws on each foul.

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) Explain the following : (8)
(i) A Blocking
(ii) A Misconduct
(iii) An Assisted hit
(iv) A Consecutive contact
Answer:
(i) Blocking: It is preventing the coming smash or ball over the net so that it lands in opponent court.
(ii) Misconduct: It is illegal action or offence or behaviour by the player or by the team member including coach; warning at first instance and recorded over score sheet.
(iii) Assisted-Hit: A player when takes the support from teammate or any other structure or object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.
(iv) Consecutive-Contact: A player may not contact the ball two times consecutively, it is a foul.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Enumerate any three duties of each of the following : (9)
(i) A First referee
(ii) An Assistant referee
(iii) A Captain on the court
Answer:
(i) Duties of First Referee :

  • He is responsible for the conduct of match under rales and regulations from the start until the end.
  • He is final authority as far decision of match.
  • He can replace other officials who are not performing duty properly.
  • Referee controls all the situations of the match under rales.
  • Referee performs toss before the start of match,

(ii) Duties of Assistant Referee:

  • To provide assistance and help to first Referee.
  • He looks after rotation fault, positional fault, line cut, etc.
  • Helps match referee for substitution, time out.
  • He checks scorer and other officials.
  • He checks the fouls and faults at the net.

(iii) A Captain of the court:

  • Performs the toss.
  • Signs the Score sheet.
  • Authorized for conduct of team.
  • A captain of the court requests the referee to reconsider/check the decision.
  • Can verify the score sheet.

(c) Briefly explain the following: (8)
(i) A Rotation
(ii) A Collective block
(iii) A Screening
(iv) A Technical time out
Answer:
(i) Rotation : After every change of service; the players of serving-side rotate in clockwise otherwise it may be foul.

(ii) Collective-block: A block executed by two or more players in an attempt to block the coming ball.

(iii) Screening: A player of servicing team must not prevent the visibility of service player. The collective screening, from seeing the server or the flight path of the ball is illegal.

(iv) Technical Time-Out: It is given for 60 seconds in the final set when leading team reaches at the 8th and 16th points. It may be requested by each team.

Question 17.
(a) (i) List the officials appointed to conduct the match. (8)
(ii) What is a Rally point?
(iii) Who requests the referee for a substitution?
(iv) When is the service changed during a match?
Answer:
(i) Officials = 1 Referee, 1 Assistant Referee, 1 Scorer, 1 Table Official, 1 Commissioner of match, 4 Line Judges
(ii) Rally point: It is a point gained by exchange of strokes across the net.
(iii) The coach of the team requests for substitution to the assistant referee.
(iv) Service is changed when foul/violation is committed by the serving team or opponent gains the point or opponent team wins the rally.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) List three services faults which lead to a change of service. (9)
(ii) Mention three types of delays which prolong the games.
(iii) Explain the procedure of substitution during play.
Answer:
(i) Service Faults:

  • Unable to serve properly over the net.
  • Cutting of Service line during service.
  • Service lands outside the court.
  • Ball stuck in net during service.
  • Service is delivered from side of Antenna.

(ii) Delays in game:

  • During Substitution.
  • Timeout.
  • Ball goes away.
  • Injury to player.
  • Improper request to Umpire.

(iii) Substitution is done with the permission of Referee. An area 3 m away towards side line (substitution area) is allowed to move for substitution. When Referee signals for substitution the player should move out and substitute player should enter.

(c) Draw a neat diagram of a volleyball court and mark the following: (8)
(i) Side line
(ii) Service line
(iii) Attack line
(iv) Front zone
(v) Back zone
(vi) Rotation position
(vii) Height of the net (men) from the ground
(viii) Size of the net
Answer:
ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 2

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Softball

Question 18.
(a) Explain the following terms : (9)
(i) A chopped ball
(ii) A batter
(iii) A tagging
(iv) An illegally caught ball
Answer:
(i) A chopped ball: An illegal shot in which the ball is deliberately hit hard downward so that it bounces into the air in an attempt to avoid being caught.
(ii) A batter : A player comes on the base to face the delivery bowls by the pitcher is called batter.
(iii) A tagging : When less than two out and a ball is hit in the air and caught runners who have the base must return and tag before they can legally advance.
(iv) An illegally caught ball: An illegally caught ball occurs when a fielder catches a batted or thrown ball with his cap, glove or any part of his uniform while it is detached from its proper place.

(b) (i) List three instances of a Trapped Ball. (8)
(ii) State three duties of a plate umpire.
(iii) Mention three instances when the ball is dead and not in play ?
Answer:
Three instances of a Trapped ball:
(i) To make the batter out.
(ii) To make base runner not able to reach the base.
(iii) To make the base runner out.
Plate umpire:

  • He will call all balls and strikes.
  • He will determine when a game is forfeited.
  • He will assume all duties when assigned as a single umpire to a game.

Ball is dead and not in play :
(a) When the ball is batted illegally.
(b) When ‘No pitch’ is declared.
(c) When a foul ball is not caught.

(c) (i) What is the procedure of scoring in the soft ball ? (8)
(ii) What is the procedure of substitution in the game of softball ?
(iii) List any three conditions when a batter becomes a batter runner.
Answer:
(i) Procedure of scoring: One run shall be scored each time when a runner legally touches first, second third bases and home plate before the third out of the inning.

(ii) The coach or team representive of the team making the substitution shall immediatly notify the plate umpire at the time the substitute enters. The plate umpire shall report the change to the scorer. A substitute is not officially in the game until a pitch has been thrown or a play made.

(iii) Batter become a runner: Three conditions when a batter becomes a batter (base) runner:

  • As soon as he hits a fair ball.
  • When four balls have been called by umpire.
  • When the catcher interferes with or prevents line from striking at a pitched ball.

Question 19.
(a) (i) Name any two miscellaneous playing equipment. [8]
(ii) What is the distance between the bases ?
(iii) What is the length and breadth of the catcher’s boxes?
(iv) Which team is called a defensive team ?
Answer:
(i) (1) Helmet (2) Gloves
(ii) Distance between the bases – 60 feet.
(iii) Catcher’s box length – 10 feet
Catcher’s box breadth – 8 feet 5 inches
(iv) Defensive Team : The team which pitching the ball and trying makes out the batting team an low score is called defensive team.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) Under what circumstances is the base runner entitled
for more than one base ? [9]
(ii) What do you mean by an interference ?
(iii) What is a foul tip ?
Answer:
(i) When a player hits the ball out of bound is entitled for more than one base.
(ii) Interference : In soft ball interference occurs in a situation in which a person illegally changes the course of play from what is expected.
(iii) Foul tip : In softball a foul tip is defined as a batted ball that goes sharp directly from the bat to the catcher’s hand and is legally caught. A foul tip is considered a strike and the ball remains in play.

(c) Explain: [8]
(i) A stealing
(ii) An altered bat
(iii) An innings
(iv) Circumference and weight of the ball
Answer:
(i) A stealing : If the catcher catches the ball or the ball is missed and lands behind the plate the ball is considered live and the base is taken is called stealing.
(ii) Altered bat : A bat is altered when the physical structure of a leg bat has been changed.
(iii) Inning: An inning in softball consists of two haves. In each half one team bats until three out are made with the other defence team.
(iv) Circumference of ball – 65 to 67 cm.
Weight of ball – 260 to 280 gms.

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2022 Semester 2 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Maximum Marks : 40
Time allowed: One and a half hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section-A and any three questions from Section-B.
  • The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [].

Section – A
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) …….. is a financial statement which sets out assets and liabilities as on a certain date.
(a) Trading account
(b) Profit and Loss account
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Cash Budget
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

(ii) A …….. is an estimate of probable events that can be made by anybody.
(a) Budget
(b) Forecast
(c) Efficiency
(d) Liquidity
Answer:
(b) Forecast

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

(iii) When vacancies at higher levels are filled by shifting people from lower levels to higher levels with increase in status and salary it is called ……..
(a) Promotion
(b) Transfer
(c) Employment Exchange
(d) Placement Agency
Answer:
(a) Promotion

(iv) The …….. is the Central bank of our country which has the authority to print currency notes.
(a) ICICI
(b) RBI
(c) PNB
(d) HDFC
Answer:
(b) RBI

(v) ……. is a contract which the insurance company undertakes to indemnify the insured for loss or damage caused due to accidental fire.
(a) Life insurance
(b) Marine insurance
(c) Fire insurance
(d) Health insurance
Answer:
(c) Fire insurance

(vi) The ……. budget is a summary of all the budgets.
(a) Cash
(b) Sales
(c) Master
(d) Production
Answer:
(c) Master

(vii) The process of preparing budgets is known as ………..
(a) Budgeting
(b) Banking
(c) Marketing
(d) Pricing
Answer:
(a) Budgeting

(viii) Falsification of records, alteration of figures and keeping two sets of accounts are examples of ……… fraud.
(a) Insurance
(b) Internet and Cyber
(c) False accounting
(d) Intellectual property
Answer:
(c) False accounting

(ix) Advertisements, Labour contractors, Placement Agencies etc. are examples of ……… recruitment.
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) In house
(d) Selection
Answer:
(b) External

(x) ……… shareholders are the real risk bearers who enjoy voting rights.
(a) Equity
(b) Preference
(c) Debenture
(d) Bond
Answer:
(a) Equity

Section – B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 2.
(i) Name any four types of Selection tests. [2]
(ii) What is a Cash Budget ? [2]
(iii) State three differences between Central and Commercial banks. [5]
(iv) Write short notes on the following steps of selection : [3]
(a) Medical /Physical examination
(b) Group discussion
Answer:
(i) Aptitude test, Achievement test, Situational test, Personality test.

(ii) A cash budget is a document produced to help a business manage their cash flow. A cash budget is prepared in advance and shows all the planned monthly cash incomings (receipts) and any planned cash outgoings (payments).

(iii)

Central Bank

Commercial Bank

The bank which looks after the monetary system of the country is known as Central Bank. The organization which provides banking services to the public is known as Commercial Bank.
It is a banker to the banks and the Govern- ment of the country. It is the banker to the citizens of the nation.
It has powers to print currency notes. No power to print currency notes.

(iv) (a) A physical examination conducted by a physician can have a number of purposes as given below:

1. To check whether the candidate is physically fit to do the job. Those candidates who are successful at the interview will be ultimately rejected if they are found physically unfit.

2. Another aim is to recruit the candidates with sound health for efficient working of the organi-zation.
Medical examination aims to prevent injury or damage to the health of employees by placing them in proper job situations.

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

(b) Group discussion is used as an examination for many organizations. It tests the personality skills, communi-cation skills, teamwork, confidence, problem-solving skills, social skills, behaviour, and leadership abilities of a candidate. It is also an essential part of short-listing candidates for a job.

Question 3.
(i) What is an Overdraft ? [2]
(ii) What is Life Insurance ? [2]
(iii) Explain any three sources of external recruitment. [3]
(iv) State three differences between Budget and Forecast. [3]
Answer:
(i) Overdraft facility is a financial facility or instrument that enables you to withdraw money from your bank account (savings or current), even if you do not have any account balance. Like any other credit facility, the bank levies an interest rate when you avail the overdraft facility. You have to pay a fixed interest rate to avail an overdraft limit.

(ii) Life Insurance can be defined as a contract between an insurance policy holder and an insurance company, where the insurer promises to pay a sum of money in exchange for a premium, upon the death of an insured person or after a set period.

(iii) (a) People joining an organization, speci-fically through recommendations.
(b) Employment agencies or employment exchanges.
(c) Advertising.
(d) Institutes like colleges and universities (campus selection)

(iv)

Basis For Comparison

Budget

Forecast

Meaning A budget is a financial plan expressed in quantitative terms, prepared by the management in advance for a future period. Forecast means estimation of future trends and outcomes, based on the past and present data.
Target Budget sets target. There are no targets.
Updation On annual basis. At regular intervals.

Question 4.
(i) What is Selection ?
(ii) Give the full forms of:
(a) RTGS
(b) IMPS
(iii) State three differences between Equity and Preference shares. [3]
(iv) State three advantages of Internal Recruitment. [3]
Answer:
(i) Employee Selection is the process of interviewing and evaluating the candidates for a specific job and selecting an individual for employment based on certain criteria (qualifications, skills and experience). Employee selection can range from a very simple process to a very complicated process depending on the firm hiring and the position.

(ii) (a) Real Time Gross Settlement.
(b) Immediate Payment Service.

(iii)

Basis For Comparison

Equity Shares

Preference Shares

Meaning Equity shares are the ordinary shares of the company representing the part ownership of the shareholder in the company. Preference shares are the shares that carry preferential rights on the matters of payment of dividend and repayment of capital.
Repayment of capital In the event of winding up of the company, equity shares are repaid at the end. In the event of winding up of the company, preference shares are repaid before equity shares.
Rate of dividend Fluctuating. Fixed.
Redemption Redemption not allowed. Redemption allowed.

(iv) (a) Reduces time to hire the employees.
(b) It is economical.
(c) The candidate already knows about the company.
(d) Internal candidate are easier to find

Question 5.
(i) What are Debentures? [2]
(ii) What are Bonded Warehouses? [2]
(iii State three Precautions that must be taken while using Credit or Debit cards. [3]
(iv) Write short notes oh the following. [3]
(a) Utmost Good Faith (Principle of Insurance)
(b) ATM
Answer:
(i) A debenture is a marketable security (a type of investment) issued by a business or other organization to raise money for long-term activities and growth. It is a form of debt capital so it is accounted for as debt on the balance sheet of the issuing company.

(ii) A bonded warehouse is a building or other secured area in which dutiable goods may be stored, worked on or undergo light assembly operations without payment of duty. It may be managed by the state or by private enterprises. The importers can store cargo and effect partial releases, thereby deferring duty payment to Customs and at the same time, releasing the international (ISO) container in which the cargo is imported.

(iii) (a) Keep your debit or credit card in a safe place.
(b) Never disclose PIN of your debit or credit card.
(c) Use the cards on trustworthy websites.
(d) Never disclose CVV or credentials to anyone, even to the telephone caller.

(iv) (a) ‘Utmost good faith’ is one of the first principles of an insurance contract. This means that both the parties have to be transparent with each other and material facts have to be disclosed both before the policy is issued and after.

(b) ATM is an Automated Teller Machine. This machine can manage a deposit account of the customer (Savings/Current).
It allows a person to check account balances, withdraw money, print a statement of account activities or transactions. These machines can also deposit money.

Question 6.
(i) Write a brief note on NEFT. [2]
(ii) Name any four types of Selection tests. [2]
(iii) Use the following Trial Balance to fill in the missing details (entry and amount) to complete the Accounts of Ms. N. Razdan as on 31st March, 2021. [6]

Particulars Amount
(Dr) ₹

Amount
(Cr) ₹

Capital 60,000
Drawings 4,500
Cash at Bank 4,200
Purchase 66,000
Sales 1,35,000
Purchase Returns 3,000
Sales Returns 6,000
Discount 1,200
Carriage Outwards 1,800
Salaries 18,000
Trade expenses 3,600
Opening Stock 15,000
Bad debts 1,800
Rent 4,500
Machinery 1,08,000
Furniture 15,000
Debtors 15,000
Creditors 330
Stationery 7,500
Commission received 900
Loan 43,200
2,72,100 2,72,100

Closing Stock on 31st March, 2021 was valued at ₹ 78,000.
Note : Do not copy the final accounts. Only fill in the blanks with entry and amount.

Trading Account of Ms. N. Razdan for the year ending 31st March, 2021
ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10 1
Profit and Loss Account of Ms. N. Razdan for the year ending 31st March, 2021
ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10 2
Balance Sheet of Ms. N. Razdan as on 31st March, 2021
ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10 3
Only fill the table:

S.No.

Entry Amount
(i) To Gross Profit
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) To Net Profit
(v)
(vi)

Answer:
(i) NEFT stands for National Electronic Fund Transfer. A customer of the bank can use this facility from his bank branch or using online banking mode. Bank can transfer funds through NEFT on a nominal fee. Amount from ₹ 1 to any upper limit can be transferred from one bank to another bank. Banks provide free NEFT facility using Online banking.

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

(ii) Aptitude tests, Achievement tests, Situational tests, Personality tests.

(iii)

S.No. Entry Amount
(i) To Gross Profit 1,29,000
(ii) Carriage Outwards 1,800
(iii) Commission Received 900
(iv) No Net Profit 91,500
(v) Debtors 15,000
(vi) Loan 43,200

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2018 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2018 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) What is meant by Personal Hygiene? (2)
Answer:
Personal Hygiene : Personal health is also termed as Hygiene. The word ‘Hygiene’ comes from Greek word ‘Hygiea’ — the Greek goddess of beauty. She was the symbol of cleanliness, healthy habits, good structural figure and in all, a symbol of good health. For this the importance of personal health must be realised as taking care of one’s own body is called personal hygiene. It includes :
A. Personal cleanliness (a) Care of Skin (b) Care of Hands and Nails (c) Care of Hair (d) Care of Teeth and Gums (e) Care of Eyes (f) Care of Ears (g) Care of Feet
B. Rest, sleep and relaxation
C. Healthy habits

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) What is a Cramp? (2)
Answer:
Cramp: Cramp is inability of muscles to contract properly causing severe pain over affected part. In other words, this is unbalance contraction of muscles.

(c) State any three main causes of Cramp. (3)
Answer:
The causes of the cramps are:

  • Due to overtraining (without rest)
  • Loss of body water by sweating
  • Physical activity during sickness
  • Loss or lack of body salts or minerals
  • Physical activity during extreme bad weather or climate
  • Not performing proper warming-up

(d) Name the organism which causes Malaria. Mention any two symptoms of Malaria. (3)
Answer:
Malaria Cause: It is caused by biting of female Anopheles mosquito. The growth of these mosquitoes takes place in dirty places, garbage, standing water, etc. When this mosquito bites a healthy person, it injects the germs via the blood inside the body. The incubation period of malaria is 7-20 days. It is the most fatal disease in the world.

Symptoms:

  • Headache and shivering with high temperature up to 104°-106° F (Fahrenheit).
  • There is a lot of perspiration (sweating) when fever subsides.
  • Body becomes weak and skin with pale colour.
  • Nausea feeling.

Question 2.
(а) Define First -aid (2)
Answer:
First-aid: First aid is the immediate and temporary care given to the victim. The first objective is to save life. Knowing what to do and what not to do can help to avoid further injury, ease pain and possibly prevent disability and death. First aid can be a life-saving skill. In simple words, it is the first help to the victim.

(b) State any two ways to maintain Oral Hygiene. (2)
Answer:
Oral Hygiene or Dental care:

  • Cleaning the teeth and gums thoroughly after every meal.
  • Brushing the teeth with fluoride toothpaste, at least twice a day.
  • Reducing intake of sugar and sugary items (during, dinner).
  • Tooth decay can be prevented on large scale by adding fluorine in water supplies.
  • Dentist must be consulted twice a year.

(c) List any three ways of maintaining Personal Cleanliness. (3)
Answer:
Maintaining Personal Cleanliness :

  • Bath daily, clean your clothes and utensils thoroughly and dry them in sunlight.
  • Wash hands and eatables properly (like fruits, vegetables) before eating and cover the eatables properly.
  • Do not share your personal items like undergarments, clothes, towel, shoes, safety razor, comb, handkerchief, etc.
  • Care of teeth and gums (Oral hygiene).
  • Care of eyes, care of hair; care of ears.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) Suggest any three measures to avoid accidents caused by fire. (3)
Answer:
Prevention from Fire Accidents :

  • Always keep fire extinguisher ready or water filled bucket.
  • Wear cotton clothes while working near the fire
  • Matchstick should be properly extinguished before throwing.
  • Electric switches should not be switched on when there is leakage of LPG.
  • Rubber tube of gas stove should be checked regularly for leakage.

Question 3.
(a) What is meant by Immunization? (2)
Answer:
Immunization: Immunization is the introduction of any kind of dead, attenuated or weakened pathogens for the artificial development of immunity (resistance) against specific diseases. Immunization against some common infectious diseases has been taken up in India on a mass scale with an attempt to eradicate or minimize these diseases.

(b) Define Posture. (2)
Answer:
Posture : Posture is the body position. It may be static or dynamic such as sitting, standing, lying, walking, running, reading, etc. There are different views about posture. According to Physical Educationists: ‘Posture is a tool of mechanical efficiency of body which causes minimum stress to muscles. Moreover, maximum output of physical efficiency can be attained.’
According to Doctors, ‘Posture is soundness of physiological balance of body’.

(c) Write the full form of RICE. (3)
Answer:
RICE Means: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

  • Rest to player and completely restrict the movement of joint immediately.
  • Immediately apply cold compression or ice over the affected part to stop internal bleeding. Repeat this process several times after some intervals and put compression bandage over the affected part.
  • Compression bandage should be applied over the affected part to reduce the swelling.
  • Elevate the affected part above the level of heart by splint or support.

(d) State any three symptoms of Rheumatic Fever. (3)
Answer:
Rheumatic Fever : It is a serious disease which mainly affects children and young people in teens. It is an allergic condition that attacks the connective tissues of the body.

Symptoms:

  • Child develops sore throat,
  • Aching in joints, redness over joints
  • Irritation over skin, rashes over skin,
  • Continuous fever and body aching,
  • Soreness in muscles and joints,

Question 4.
(a) Define Antibiotics. (2)
Answer:
Antibiotics: Antibiotics are the chemical substances produced by certain microorganisms that kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms. The first antibiotic – the Penicillin – was discovered by chance by Alexander Fleming in 1928. Some of the antibiotics act on a variety of pathogenic microbes and are called broad spectrum antibiotics e.g., chloromyelin, aureomycin, declomycin, tetramycin, etc.

(b) State any two causes of Obesity. (2)
Answer:
The causes of obesity are :

  • Wrong dietary habits and less physical activity like overeating.
  • Taking lots of fats and fried food.
  • Taking lots of animal flesh; eating lots of sweets; eating junk food.
  • Drinking alcohol.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) State any three harmful effects of consuming alcohol. (3)
Answer:
Harmful effects of Alcohol:
(i) Economic Loss: Alcohol is a costly product in all its forms. It causes great loss of money, once a person is addicted to. Thus, it brings poverty to many homes. It causes many health problems and to cure all these health-related problems, extra money for medical treatment is required.

(ii) Physical Efficiency Loss: Regular drinking of alcohol makes body sick, weak and diseased. Body loses physical efficiency and health is affected to a great extent. Various systems of the body lose their efficiency. Thus, it results in an open invitation to many health problems. Alcohol has very adverse effect on sportspersons; it declines their physical efficiency to a great extent. Thus, performance is very poor for many days.

(iii) Loss of Senses : When we drink alcohol, it affects our senses. The sense of judgment is lost, so a person cannot think properly. It reduces self-control and a person commits many mistakes. An alcoholic person cannot control his emotions. Sometimes these emotions become aggressive and violent. Alcoholic sportsperson loses perfection in skill; thus performance is poor in games and sports.

(iv) Loss of Memory: It affects the CNS (Central Nervous System) and produces slow and continuous depression. In an alcoholic person, the brain’s activities get reduced. Brain cannot remember the immediate happening or occurrence, i.e., short term memory gets lost.

(v) Crime: Alcohol has direct relation with crime. Most of the crimes are committed when a person is drunk. It may result in suicide, road accidents, injuries, death and violence. Drunkards are more involved in sex crimes.

(d) List any three transmission modes of Venereal diseases. (3)
Answer:
Venereal diseases transmission :

  • Sexual intercourse contact is the main mode of transmission.
  • Unhygienic habits like sharing of clothes, towels, undergarments,
  • Contaminated toilet seats and even bath water.
  • Infected mother transfers this to baby.
  • Dampness and slump area are the root place of VD.

Question 5.
(a) Write the foil form of ABC and CPR. (2)
Answer:
Full form of ABC: Airway, Breathing and Circulation.
Full form of CPR: Cardio-pulmonary Resuscitation

(b) Name any two diseases spread by Virus. (2)
Answer:
Viruses Spread Diseases : Common cold, influenza, measles, mumps, poliomyelitis, rabies, smallpox, chickenpox, yellow fever, AIDS, etc.

(c) Mention any three causes of Sports Injuries. (3)
Answer:
Causes of Sports Injuries :
(i) Proper Warming-up: Proper- warming-up (general and specific) is a must for player before participating in any physical activity. It tones-up body muscles and prepares the player psychologically for the coming activity. Thus, it prevents them from accidents or injuries.

(ii) Medical Check before Activity: Player should be properly medically checked up before physical activity related to previous injury disease, physical fitness level, etc. They must be fit to participate in the activity.

(iii) Proper Concentration: Player should play with full alertness and proper concentration over the activity. Player should not have any stress or tension; moreover, must be mentally ready for the activity.

(iv) Safety Guards and Check Equipments: Player should check his equipments and their condition. Player should use good quality equipments along with safety guards. Player should wear proper dress or kit along with proper shoes (according to surface as per activity needs).

(v) Regular Conditioning and Proper Skill: Regular conditioning improves various abilities of player like proper skill action, develops specific physical components, strengthens weak muscles and joints, etc.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) Write the calories required for the following age groups: (3)
(i) A child aged 10 years.
(ii) An adult female (50 Kg)
(iii) An adult male with heavy sports activity.
Answer:
Caloric requirement of:
Child of 10 years requires = 1500 Calories per day
Adult female (50 kg) requires = 2400 Calories per day
Adult male with heavy sports activity requires = 3500 Calories per day

Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Bouncer
(ii) A Duck
(iii) A Yorker
(iv) A Century
Answer:
(i) A Bouncer : When the bowler bowls the ball fast and short so as to rise above the shoulder level after pitching.
(ii) A Duck : The batsman gets ‘out’ without scoring a single run.
(iii) A Yorker: When ball is just bounced under the bat.
(iv) A Century : A batsman scoring ton or one hundred runs.

(b) (i) Explain the term Overthrow. (9)
(ii) Enumerate any three duties of a Leg Umpire.
(iii) Under which condition can an umpire declare Bad Light.
Answer:
(i) Overthrow: If a fielder throws the ball and no other fielder is able to stop the throwing ball, the batsman is able to score runs or a boundary. Such runs are termed as overthrow.

(ii) Duties of Leg Umpire :

  • To check the Run-out,
  • To check Stump-out,
  • To check Hit-wicket,
  • To check High bounce ball,
  • To check Stumped -out.

(iii) Bad-Light: When light is not sufficient to play and it causes danger to player. There is low intensity of light which creates problem to batsman, as they are not able to see the coming ball properly. In this condition Umpire can declare bad-light. Then match is supposed to stop.

(c) (i) State the foil form of ICC and BCCI. (8)
(ii) When is a batsman considered to be Out bowled ?
(iii) Explain the term Hat- trick.
(iv) What is the importance of the 30 yard circle ?
Answer:
(i) Full form of ICC is International Cricket Council
Full form of BCCI is Board of Control for Cricket in India

(ii) Bowled out : If the ball partially or completely destroys the wicket even if it touches the bat.

(iii) Hat-Trick : A bowler gets three wickets in three successive balls, i.e., the bowler dismisses three batsmen on three consecutive balls.

(iv) 30-Yard Circle: An inner circle marked at 30 yards around the stumps. This circle is used during power play to restrain 9 fielders inside the 30 yard circle.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 7.
(a) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (8)
(i) Intentional Disturbance
(ii) Timed- out
(iii) A Stance
(iv) A Maiden Over
Answer:
(i) Intentional Disturbance: If the batsman gets in the way of an opponent trying to catch the ball.
(ii) Timed-Out: If the batsman does not report to face the bowler or unduly delays the match.
(iii) Stance: It is a position or posture of a batsman at the crease before facing a delivery.
(iv) Maiden-Over: The over in which not even a single run is scored.

(b) (i) What is the rule of Follow-On in a five days test match? (9)
(ii) State any three ways by which Runs are scored.
(iii) Write down any three fielding positions of On-side in Cricket ?
Answer:
(i) Follow-On : It is given in a test match when batting team cannot score sufficient runs and the lead is more than 200 runs, it may be given follow-on or to bat again.

(ii) Scoring Runs : In addition to the batsman running, runs cain be scored in
1. Bye : When a run is made without the ball touching the bat or any other part of the batsman’s body, this is called a Bye.

2. Leg-Bye : When the ball is touched by any part of the batsman’s body except his hands, this is called a Leg- Bye

3. No-Ball :Aball is declared No-Ball if it is bowled with a bent arm or if the bowler crosses over the line; the batting team is awarded one run. Apart from this, he can score runs by hitting the ball for running. Batsman is not given ‘out’ on no-ball (except Run-Out). The bowler has to bowl an extra ball for a no-ball.

4. Boundary : If the batted ball touches or crosses the boundary line after touching the ground, 4-runs are awarded.

5. Sixer : If the batted ball lands outside the boundary line without touching the ground, the batsman is awarded 6 runs.

(iii) Fielding positions of On-side : Mid-on, Long-on, Cover- drive, Mid-wicket, Square leg,

(c) (i) What is the difference between a Bye and a Leg Bye in Cricket ? (8)
(ii) Answer the following :
1. The length of the bat.
2. The weight of the ball.
3. Size of the bails’
4. The height of the Stumps.
Answer:
(i) Bye : when a run is made without the ball touching the bat or any other part of the batsman’s body, this is called a Bye.
Leg-Bye : When the ball is touched by any part of the batsman’s body except his hands, this is called a Leg- Bye.

(ii) 1. Length of Bat = 38 Inch (96-5 cm)
2. Weight of Cricket Ball = 5.5 Ounce
3. Bails Overall Length 4’A Inches (11 cm)
4. Height of Stumps = 28 Inches (71.1 cm)

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Football

Question 8.
(a) Answer the following :
(i) A free kick
(ii) Heading
(iii) Passing
(iv) Weight and circumference of football.
Answer:
(i) A Free Kick : Free-Kick : It is given when Referee shows the warning card to the player. In this foul has been committed outside the penalty area like intentional delay, intentional hit to the player, intentional handling the ball, charging, dangerous play, holding opponent from behind, violent play, kicking the opponent. While taking direct-kick the opposing player should be at least 10 yards away from the ball. Goal can be scored from direct kick.

(ii) Heading : Usually an attacker heads the ball to redirect it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

(iii) Passing : In this the ball is passed to own teammate who is close. The ball is slightly pushed so that it should reach to the desired point. There are lots of variation of passing like push pass (ball is pushed with inner-edge of foot); out-step push (with the outer edge of the foot), through-pass (between the opponents)

(iv) Weight of the Football = 14 to 16 ounce (425 g ± 25 g)
Circumference of Football = 27 to 28 inch (68 cm to 71 1 cm)

(b) (i) Explain the term Off side. [9]
(ii) Give the proper procedure to replace a field player with a substitute player.
(iii) Mention any three instances for which a direct free kick is awarded.
Answer:
(i) Off-side : A player is in an Off-side position, if: he/she is nearer to opponents ’ goal line than both the ball and the second-last opponent. A player is not in an offside position if: He is in his own half of the field of play. He is level with the second-last opponent. He is level with the last two opponents. This offside is also considered as a defensive tactic (the entire defensive line moves rapidly in a wave to put the attackers offside). Offside is given by linesman by raising red flag. Goal is not considered in that case and opponent is awarded with indirect kick.

(ii) Substitution Procedure : To replace a player with a substitute, the following conditions must be observed:

  • the referee must be informed before any proposed substitution is made
  • the substitute only enters the field of play after the player being replaced has left and after receiving a signal from the referee
  • the substitute only enters the field of play at the halfway line and during a stoppage in the match
  • the substitution is completed when a substitute enters the field of play
  • from that moment, the substitute becomes a player and the player he has replaced becomes a substituted player
  • the substituted player takes no further part in the match, except where return substitutions are permitted

(iii) A Direct Free Kick is awarded to the opposing team if a player commits

  • kicks or attempts to kick an opponent
  • trips or attempts to trip an opponent
  • jumps at an opponent
  • charges an opponent
  • strikes or attempts to strike an opponent
  • pushes an opponent
  • tackles an opponent

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Draw a diagram of a football field showing all its dimensions. [9]
Answer:
Football Playfield and its dimensions :
ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1

Question 9.
(a) Explain the following terms in Football: [8]
(i) Kick- off
(ii) Dropped ball
(iii) Injury time
(iv) Extra time
Answer:
(i) Kick-off: A kick-off is a way of starting or restarting play, at the start of the match, after a goal has been scored, at the start of the second half of the match, at the start of each period of extra time, where applicable. A goal may be scored directly from the kick-off.

(ii) Dropped ball: In case of struggle for ball possession when both players commit simultaneous foul, in that case the Referee stops the game for some time and afterwards drops the common ball to get the possession of the ball. Play restarts when ball touches the ground.

(iii) Injury Time : The time for which game has been stopped temporarily due to injury of the player. This stopped duration of game is added in regular time after each half.

(iv) Extra time : The time allotted to decide the match in case of draw. This time is awarded after expiry of normal duration.

(b) (i) How is a goal scored in the game of Football ? [9]
(ii) Give any three situations when a Kick- off is applied.
(iii) Under which three situations is a player not considered Off- side ?
Answer:
(i) Goal Scored : A goal is scored when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, between the goalposts and under the crossbar, provided that no infringement of the Laws of the Game has been committed previously by the team scoring the goal.

(ii) Kick- off : A kick-off is a way of starting or restarting play:

  • At the start of the match
  • After a goal has been scored
  • At the start of the second half of the match
  • At the start of each period of extra time, where applicable
  • A goal may be scored directly from the kick-off.

(iii) Off-side not considered: A player is not in an offside position if:

  • He is in his own half of the field of play or
  • He is level with the second-last opponent or
  • He is level with the last two opponents

(c) (i) Under which four situations can a Referee show a red card to a player ? (8)
(ii) Differentiate between Goal Kick and Comer Kick.
Answer:
(i) Red Card(Expulsion):

  • Serious foul play
  • Violent conduct
  • Spitting at an opponent or any other person
  • Denying the opposing team a goal or an obvious goalscoring opportunity by deliberately handling the ball (this does not apply to a goalkeeper within his own penalty area)
  • Denying an obvious goal scoring opportunity to an opponent moving towards the player’s goal by an offence punishable by a free kick or a penalty kick.

(ii) Goal Kick : A goal kick is a method of restarting play. A goal kick is awarded when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, either on the ground or in the air, having last touched a player of the attacking team, and a goal is not scored. A goal may be scored directly from a goal kick, but only against the opposing team.

Corner Kick: A comer kick is a method of restarting play. A comer kick is awarded when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, either on the ground or in the air, having last touched a player of the defending team, and a goal is not scored. A goal may be scored directly from a comer kick, but only against the opposing team.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Handball

Question 10.
(a) Explain the following terms in Handball: [8]
(i) Free Throw Line
(ii) A Fast Break
(iii) Screen
(iv) Safety zone.
Answer:
(i) Free Throw Line: The free-throw line (9-meter line) is a broken line, drawn 3 meters outside the goal-area line. Both the segments of the line and the spaces between them measure 15cm.

(ii) A Fast Break : A ball is quickly passed from one end to another end, to own teammate for scoring goal whereas opponent’s defense cannot be set-up.

(iii) Screen : 1. It is allowed with the body to block (screen) an opponent, whether she is in possession of the ball or not. 2. It is not allowed to block (screen) an opponent with arms, hands or legs.

(iv) Safety zone : It is an area around the handball court 3 metre on all sides of the court.

(b) (i) State any three duties of timekeeper. [9]
(ii) When is a seven meter throw awarded in the game of Handball ?
(iii) What is the purpose of the substitution line ?
Answer:
(i) Duties of Timekeeper : Timekeeper sits by side of Recorder on the official table.

  • He starts the game clock and stops the game when the playing time ends, after each half.
  • He stops the game clock during timeout and informs the end of timeout to Referee.
  • He stops or starts the game clock in-between (by the indication of Referee).
  • He notes the duration of 2-minute suspended player and sends him for play accordingly.
  • He assists Recorder by telling the chest number of the player scoring the goal.

(ii) A 7-meter throw is awarded when :

  • A clear chance of scoring is illegally destroyed anywhere on the court by a player or a team official of the opposing team;
  • There is an unwarranted whistle signal at the time of a clear chance of scoring;
  • A clear chance of scoring is destroyed through the interference of someone not participating in the game.

(iii) Substitution Line : The player to be substituted has to come out of playfield first and then the substitute has to enter from the substitute restraining line near the official table. It is marked 4.50 metres on sideline, at centre line on both sides.

(c) (i) Explain the Tie- rule in handball. [8]
(ii) Which parts of the body are allowed to be involved during the play ?
(iii) Explain the term passive play.
(iv) When is a throw in awarded ?
Answer:
(i) Tie- rule:
1. Overtime is played, following a 5-minute break, if a game is tied at the end of the regular playing time and a winner has to be determined. The overtime period consists of 2 halves of 5 minutes, with a 1-minute half-time break.

2. If the game is again tied after a first overtime period, a second period is played after a 5-minute break. This overtime period also has 2 halves of 5 minutes, with a 1-minute half-time break.

3. If the game is still tied, the winner will be determined in accordance with the rules for the particular competition. In the case that the decision is to use 7-meter-throwing as tie-breaker to decide a winner, the procedures indicated below shall be followed.

(ii) Players with possession of ball may throw or pass or dribble or hit or move with the ball or catch the ball with their hands or arms but never with their feet. Both hands (simultaneously) can only be used while catching or while throwing the ball.

(iii) Passive Play: It is not permitted to keep the ball in the team’s possession without making any recognizable attempt to attack or to shoot on goal. Similarly, it is not allowed to delay repeatedly the execution of a throw-off, free-throw, throw-in, or goalkeeper-throw for one’s own team. This is regarded as passive play, which is to be penalized with a free-throw against the team in possession of the ball unless the passive tendency ceases

(iv) Throw-in : A throw-in is awarded when the ball has completely crossed the side line, or when a court player on the defending team was the last one to touch the ball before it crossed his teams outer goal line.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 11.
(a) Explain the following term in Handball: [8]
(i) Shuffling
(ii) Goal area
(iii) A Throw off
(iv) An Exclusion
Answer:
(i) Shuffling : It is again a strategic move during attack when man to man check by defenders is done. In this, player moves or changes his position to break the defense of defenders.

(ii) Goal area : Only the goalkeeper is allowed to enter the goal area. The goal area, which includes the goal- area line, is considered entered when a court player touches it with any part of the body.

(iii) A Throw off: At the start of the game, the throw-off is taken by the team that wins the coin toss and elects to start with the ball in its possession. The opponents then have the right to choose ends. Alternatively, if the team that wins the coin toss prefers to choose ends, then the opponents take the throw-off.

(iv) An Exclusion : Temporal effects on the scoring performance for the team that suffered the exclusion of a player. As was argued, the exclusion of a player constitutes a critical moment in a handball game that leads to a 2-minute numerical superiority for the opponent, from which is expected to take an important advantage.

(b) (i) State any three basic skills used in the game of Handball. [9]
(ii) How many team time-outs is a team entitled to take in a match ? What is its duration ?
(iii) What is meant by Running in a game of Handball ?
Answer:
(i) Basic skills of Handball:
1. Pass : A pass, basic element of play, is an essential move in handball. The ball may be passed or thrown to a teammate in various ways, such as overhead pass, underarm pass, bounce pass, hook pass, jump pass, etc. The speed and accuracy of passes is often the gauge of a team’s skill level.

2. Jump-Throw : The shooter jumps up to throw at the goal. To be effective, the jump throw should be preceded by a run up (maximum of three steps). It is nothing less powerful than the standing throw. Jump-throw is more accurate and allows the player to have direct shot at the goal, as player jumps above the defender, who might otherwise block the ball.

3. Fall Away-Throw : The fall away-throw is a spectacular variation of the jump-throw. It is used for throws over goalpost from the wings (at the edge of the goal area). The shooter jumps up and just before he throws, he twists laterally so that he is almost horizontal in the air and then throws.

4. Dribble: It is a skill of controlling the ball from opponents, to keep the possession of the ball by bouncing. A good dribbling skill often dodges or fakes to approaching opponent.

(ii) Time-outs: A time-out is obligatory when: Each team has the right to receive one 1-minute team time-out in each half of the regular playing time, but not in overtime

  • a 2-minute suspension or disqualification is given;
  • a team time-out is granted;
  • there is a whistle signal from the timekeeper or the delegate;
  • consultations between the referees are necessary.

(iii) Running : A player with ball is not allowed to run or move more than 3 steps without dribbling the ball otherwise fault of running is given to opponent.

(c) (i) State any four duties of the referee in Handball. [8]
(ii) List any four situations when a referee gives a two-minute suspension to a player.
Answer:
(i) Duties of Referee : Two referees are there, both standing diagonally opposite to each other. They assist one another for better coordination among them.

  • They judge the fair play in their halves and give decision accordingly.
  • They start the game by throw-off and end the game by blowing whistle.
  • They signal fouls, timeout, enforce foul and penalties, side-pass, suspend player, warning to player.
  • They indicate the beginning of the passive play and control the game under rules.
  • They give decision when goal has been scored. They check player’s equipments, ball, ground dimensions; ground safety area, etc.

(ii) 2- Minute suspension :
(a) fouls that are committed with high intensity or against an opponent who is running fast;
(b) holding on to the opponent for a long time, or pulling him down;
(c) fouls against the head, throat or neck;
(d) hard hitting against the torso or throwing arm;
(e) attempting to make the opponent lose body control (e.g., grabbing the leg/foot of an opponent who is jumping.)
(f) running or jumping with great speed into an opponent.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Hockey

Question 12.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A long comer
(ii) A raised ball
(iii) Astro turf
(iv) Sudden death
Answer:
(i) A Long corner : Long-Comer : When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players. It is awarded to the attacking team after the ball goes over the end line (not between the goalposts) from the stick of the defender. The ball is placed five yards away from the sideline over the end line.

(ii) A Raised ball: Raised ball: The ball should not be raised in penalty area. Referee hold palms facing each other horizontally in front of the body, with one palm approximately 150 mm above the other.

(iii) Astro turf : It is the artificially made surface (synthetic surface) proving the feeling of grass surface (artificial grass surface), water is also sprinkled over it for reducing the roughness. This AstroTurf is used to conduct all international matches.

(iv) Sudden death : If there is Tie during regular time, then two halves of 10 min each are played as extended time. If there is still Tie, then ‘Sudden-Death’ is followed, in which five players of each team attempt to push the ball while opponent goalkeeper defends the ball. This is performed alternatively by each team, afterward one-to-one attempt is followed to break Tie.

(b) (i) Explain the term comer push. [9]
(ii) Mention any three situations when a penalty stroke is awarded.
(iii) What are the basic compulsory equipment required by a player in Hockey ?
Answer:
(i) Corner push : This is a kind of push used in penalty comer (short-comer) or from long comer. In this skill player pushes the ball with power so that it should quickly reach to own teammate.

(ii) Penalty stroke : A penalty stroke is awarded :

  • for an offence by a defender in the circle which prevents the probable scoring of a goal
  • for an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who has possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball

(iii) Proper kit, hockey shoes, long stocking, skin guard and stick. Field players of the same team must wear uniform clothing. Players must not wear anything which is dangerous to other players.

(c) (i) What is the procedure to resume the game when the ball is played over the back line unintentionally by a defender ? [8]
(ii) Name any four playing positions in the game of Hockey.
Answer:
(i) If played unintentionally by a defender or deflected by a goalkeeper or player with goalkeeping privileges, play is re-started with the ball on the 23 metres line and in line with where it crossed the back-line and the procedures for taking a free hit apply. With the ball being placed on the line, the re-start is effectively within the 23 metres area and the provisions for taking a free hit are applicable.

(ii)

  • Striker,
  • Center forward,
  • Leftwinger,
  • Rightwinger,
  • Midfielder,
  • Full backer,
  • Swipper

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) Side line hit
(ii) Rolling substitutions
(iii) A comer
(iv) A goal line
Answer:
(i) Side Line hit: If ball goes out from sideline, then opposite team gets sideline hit from the point where it has gone outside.

(ii) Rolling Substitutions : Any player can be changed from reserve players or substitutes without intimation to Referee. No extra time or stopping of game is given. There can be any number of rolling substitution from the substitute player, except during penalty corner.

(iii) A Corner: When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players. It is awarded to the attacking team after the ball goes over the end line (not between the goalposts) from the stick of the defender. The ball is placed five yards away from the sideline over the end line.

(iv) A Goal line : The back-line between the goal-posts.

(b) (i) State the importance of the shooting circle in the Hockey. [9]
(ii) Explain the term Dribbling.
(iii) Write any three duties of a captain.
Answer:
(i) Shooting Circle : A goal is scored when the ball is played within the circle by an attacker and does not travel outside the circle before passing completely over the goal-line and under the crossbar. The ball may be played by a defender or touch their body before or after being played in the circle by an attacker.

(ii) Dribbling: It is tackling the ball with the stick work. The movement of ball is controlled by rolling stick around it, while maintaining constant control of it with the stick.

(iii) Duties of Captain :

  • To toss for choice of start or side.
  • To nominate a player as captain ifhe is substituted or suspended from the game and informs the Referee of the change made.
  • He will be responsible for the conduct of his players on the field.

(c) Explain the following : [8]
(i) A ball out of play
(ii) Advantage
(iii) Yellow card
(iv) Flick
Answer:
(i) A ball out of play : The ball is out of play when it passes completely over the side-line or back-line.

(ii) Advantage: A penalty is awarded only when a player or team has been disadvantaged by an opponent breaking the Rules. Referee extends one arm high from the shoulder in the direction in which the benefiting team is playing.

(iii) Yellow card : It is temporary suspension to a player for a minimum of 5 minutes of playing time indicated by a yellow card or warning.

(iv) Flick: This technique is used for penalty strokes. It is similar to push but the ball which is lifted at a low height.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A substitution
(ii) A chest pass
(iii) A held ball
(iv) A jump ball
Answer:
(i) A Substitution : A substitution is an interruption of the game requested by the substitute to become a player.

(ii) A Chest Pass : It is a direct pass to own teammate at chest level. Ball is passed with initial momentum depending upon the distance to pass. It is passed with both hands which are flexed initially and later extended towards passing.

(iii) A Held Ball : It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw-in (by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line (earlier jump-ball was performed under this condition).

(iv) A Jump Ball: A jump ball is a technique of starting the game in the beginning, from the circles. It takes place when official tosses the ball between the two opposing players – with new rules only one time the jump-ball is done and next time it is done with throw- in.

(b) (i) Explain the term low dribble. [9]
(ii) What do you mean by man to man marking?
(iii) Mention any three duties of the scorer in a basketball match.
Answer:
(i) Low dribble : It is a defensive dribble to keep the control over the ball (when opponent is close). The ball is bounced at low height up to knee and body shields the opponent, body is slightly crouched.

(ii) Man to man marking : It is defensive skill where each player checks or guards or screens the opponent player (during opponent ball possession).

(iii) Duties of Scorer:

  • He shall make chronological running summary of points scored and shall record the field goals or basket scored made along with free-throws.
  • He shall record the personal and technical fouls of each player.
  • He shall indicate the number of fouls committed by each player by using number marker.
  • He shall record the team fouls and raise free- throw flag in case of more than four fouls in each quarter.

(c) (i) State any four Occasions when a ball becomes dead during the match. [8]
(ii) Write the dimensions of:
1. The length of the Basketball court.
2. The breadth of the Basketball court.
3. The radius of center circle.
4. The diameter of the ring.
Answer:
(i) The ball becomes dead when :

  • Any field goal or free throw is made.
  • An official blows his whistle while the ball is live.
  • The game clock signal sounds for the end of the period.
  • The shot clock signal sounds while a team is in control of the ball.

(ii) Write the dimensions of:
1. The length of the Basketball court: 28 meters
2. The breadth of the Basketball court: 15 meters
3. The radius of center circle : 1.80 meters
4. The diameter of the ring : 45 centimeters

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 15.
(а) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A direct shot
(ii) Charging
(iii) A technical foul
(iv) A team foul
Answer:
(i) A Direct Shot: This is the most common shot for 3 points also known as Jump Shot. In this one hand is used to push the ball and other directs the ball towards the basket with the jump. Hand extends over the head with full accuracy.

(ii) Charging: It is personal contact, with or without ball, by pushing illegal guarding. It is preventing defence from rear of player or backside of player.

(iii) A Technical Foul: When a player or coach performs unsportsmanlike act or misconduct or violent act deliberately. In this foul opponent gets two free- throws along with throw-in from centre.

(iv) A Team Foul: These are total fouls of team. If the team fouls exceed more than four fouls in each quarter then opponent team is awarded with two free-throws on each foul.

(b) (i) Name any three time-rule fouls in Basketball. [9]
(ii) Name any three fouls which involve personal contact with the opponent.
(iii) Name any three violations which are done without obstructing an opponent.
Answer:
(i) (1) Playing Time: The playing time period is of 40 min duration which is extended into four quarters. The rest period in-between I to II and III to IV quarters is 2 min whereas, in half (between II to III quarter) it is 5 min to 10 min, i.e., 10-2; 10-5/10; 10 – 2 ; 10. The game clock starts when the ball reaches the highest point on a toss, during a jump ball is tapped by the first player.

(2) Extra Time : In case of tie during normal time period of 40 min the game is extended for 5 min play. It can further be extended up to break of tie.

(3) ‘24’-Seconds Rule : Whenever team gains possession of ball, they are supposed to attempt the basket within 24 seconds.

(4) ‘8’-Seconds Rule: After the score or due to foul or any other reason if team gets the possession of ball they are supposed to move the ball in the front of court (from the rear half of court) within ‘8’ seconds. (Earlier it was 10 second rule).

(ii) Illegal contact with the opposing player. These fouls are charging, illegal blocking, guarding from behind, holding or pushing opponent, illegal-screening.

(iii) It is an infraction of rules of game :

  • Travelling : Illegal movement of the ball like running without bounce or passing while running.
  • Caring: A player with ball dribbles the ball with the shifting palm rather than the finger.
  • Double-Dribble : A player while dribbling the ball cannot use both hands simultaneously for dribble. He can use both hands only while receiving or while passing the ball.
  • Out of Bound : Ball hits the boundary line or it bounces out of play-field.
  • Back-Court: If ball is passed from the front court to the rear court to own teammate.

(c) (i) What is intentional foul ? What is the penalty for it? [8]
(ii) What is the procedure applied to start the game ?
Answer:
(i) Intentional foul /Technical Foul: If a technical foul is committed: By a player, a technical foul shall be charged against him as a player foul and shall count as one of the team fouls. By team bench personnel, a technical foul shall be charged against the coach and shall not count as one of the team fouls.
Penalty for Intentional foul / Technical Foul

  • The opponents shall be awarded 1 free throw, followed by:
  • A throw-in at the centre line extended, opposite the scorer’s table.
  • A jump ball in the centre circle to start the first period.

(ii) Jump-Ball : A jump ball is a technique of starting the game in the beginning, from the circles. It takes place when official tosses the ball between the two opposing players only one time the jump-ball is done and next time it is done with throw-in.
Jump ball procedure
1. Each jumper shall stand with both feet inside the half of the centre circle nearest to his own basket with one foot close to the centre line.

2. Team-mates may not occupy adjacent positions around the circle if an opponent wishes to occupy one of those positions.

3. The official shall then toss the ball vertically upwards between the 2 opponents, higher than either of them can reach by jumping.

4. The ball must be tapped with the hand(s) of at least one of the jumpers after it reaches its highest point.

5. Neither jumper shall leave his position until the ball has been legally tapped.

6. Neither jumper may catch the ball or tap it more than twice until it has touched one of the non¬jumpers or the floor.

7. If the ball is not tapped by at least one of the jumpers, the jump ball shall be repeated.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) Free zone
(ii) Back line
(iii) Antenna
(iv) A catch
Answer:
(i) Free zone : An area by the sides of court which can be used during game. It is 3 to 5 meters on all sides of court.
(ii) Back line : A line at the back of court at 9 m from net. It is also known as service line.
(iii) Antenna : An extended upright over the net which gives the idea of sideline. It is 80 cm in length whereas 80 cm is above the net.
(iv) A catch : The ball is caught and/or thrown; it does not rebound from the hit.

(b) (i) How many contacts are permitted in returning the ball over the net ? Explain the procedure. [9]
(ii) What is meant by the term libero ?
(iii) What do you mean by expulsion ?
Answer:
(i) Four Hits : The team is entitled to a maximum of three hits (in addition to blocking), for returning the ball. If more are used, the team commits the fault of “Four Hits”.

(ii) Libero: A specialized defensive player (wears different colour kit) who plays in rear half to provide rest to certain player. He can be substituted anytime during match from rear row player. He cannot serve, block and smash (he can smash behind the attack line).

(iii) Expulsion: A player or coach is expelled and not allowed to play further, if he repeatedly performs misconduct. He is not even allowed to sit over team bench.

(c) (i) Explain the procedure of substitution during the game. [8]
(ii) Enumerate any four duties of the first referee.
Answer:
(i) Substitution Procedure : Replacement of one or more players from the listed substitution apart from libero. The coach of the team requests for substitution to the assistant Referee. An area 3 meters away towards sideline (substitution area) is allowed to move for substitution. When Referee signals for substitution the player should move out and substitute player should enter.

(ii) Duties of First Referee :

  • He is responsible for the conduct of match under rules and regulations from the start until the end.
  • He is the final authority as far as the decision of match is concerned.
  • He can replace other officials who are not performing duty properly.
  • Referee controls all the situations of the match under rules. Referee performs toss before the start of match.
  • He whistles for service.
  • He can overrule the decisions of other officials if required.
  • He gives fault, warning,

Question 17.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A collective block
(ii) Assisted hit
(iii) Dead ball
(iv) Time out
Answer:
(i) A Collective Block : A block executed by two or more players in an attempt to block the coming ball.
(ii) Assisted hit: A player when takes the support from teammate or any other structure or object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.
(iii) Dead ball: The ball is out of play at the moment of the fault which is whistled by one of the referees; in the absence of a fault, at the moment of the whistle.
(iv) Time out : It is temporarily interruption asked by the coach during game. Each team may request a maximum of two timeouts. All requested timeouts last for 30 seconds.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) What is meant by ball in play ? [9]
(ii) What is ‘screening’?
(iii) List any three faults that a player is likely to commit while playing the ball.
Answer:
(i) Ball in Play : The ball is in play from the moment of the hit of the service authorized by the 1 st referee.
(ii) Screening: A player of servicing team must not prevent the visibility of service player. The collective screening, from seeing the server or the flight path of the ball is illegal.
(iii) Faults during Playing Ball : A team hits the ball four times before returning it, Assisted Hit, Catch, Double Contact.

(c) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A side out
(ii) A penalty
(iii) Carrying the ball
(iv) A penetration- Fault
Answer:
(i) A Side Out: When the active ball touches or contacts the floor outside the boundary line.
(ii) A Penalty : After the first warning the second misconduct is penalty. In this, team is penalized with the loss of a point or a rally.
(iii) Carrying the ball: If ball rests momentarily in the hands of the player, i.e., it is held for short duration in the action, it is illegal.
(iv) A Penetration Fault : A fault given when the opponent player enters into the opponent area in air; by crossing centre line by foot or by hands over the net during smash, block or lift.

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2021 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2021 Solved Semester 1

Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: One hour

General Instructions

  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
  • The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [].
  • Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1.
The ………. expects the organization to follow the laws of the country, pay taxes honestly etc. [1]
(a) Suppliers
(b) Employees
(c) Government
(d) Competitors
Answer:
(c) Government

Question 2.
Which of the following has these three features : tangible, durable and transferable ? [ 1 ]
(a) Trade
(b) Service
(c) Selling
(d) Product
Answer:
(d) Product

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 3.
Rent received and commission received are examples of: [1]
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Capital Receipts
(d) Revenue Receipts
Answer:
(d) Revenue Receipts

Question 4.
Any paid form of non-personal presentation or promotion of ideas, goods or services by an identified sponsor is termed as: [1]
(a) Advertising
(b) Publicity
(c) Sales Promotion
(d) Personal Selling
Answer:
(a) Advertising

Question 5.
A misleading label on a product is a violation of which consumer right ? [1]
(a) The Right to Safety
(b) The Right to Choose
(c) The Right to Consumer Education
(d) The Right to be informed
Answer:
(d) The Right to be informed

Question 6.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of E-Commerce over Traditional Commerce ? [1]
(a) Global market place
(b) Tailor-made product and services
(c) Reduction in cycle time of a transaction
(d) High operating cost
Answer:
(d) High operating cost

Question 7.
Stakeholders who contribute to the business enterprise from outside the organization are known as : [ 1 ]
(a) External Stakeholder
(b) Internal Stakeholder
(c) General Public
(d) Creditors
Answer:
(a) External Stakeholder

Question 8.
……… are people who provide money as loans to a commercial organization. [1]
(a) Suppliers
(b) Creditors
(c) Government
(d) Employees
Answer:
(b) Creditors

Question 9.
……… involves creation of liability and is shown on the liabilities side of the Balance Sheet. [ 1 ]
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Capital Receipts
(d) Revenue Receipts
Answer:
(c) Capital Receipts

Question 10.
Cost of sugarcane in making sugar is an example of …….. cost. [1]
(a) Direct
(b) Variable
(c) Indirect
(d) Semi-variable
Answer:
(a) Direct

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 11.
……….. is non-repetitive one-time communication that helps to increase immediate sales. [ 1 ]
(a) Advertising
(b) Publicity
(c) E-tailing
(d) Sales Promotion
Answer:
(d) Sales Promotion

Question 12.
……….. means exchanging goods for money and is production oriented. [1]
(a) Sales
(b) Marketing
(c) Pricing
(d) Advertising
Answer:
(a) Sales

Question 13.
……… expenditure is incurred for meeting day to day expenses of business and its benefit is exhausted within the current accounting year. [ 1 ]
(a) Capital
(b) Revenue
(c) Deferred Revenue
(d) Capital Receipts
Answer:
(b) Revenue

Question 14.
CRM in E-commerce stands for: [ 1 ]
(a) Convenient Relationship Management
(b) Customer Relationship Management
(c) Consumer Related Marketing
(d) Chain Related Management
Answer:
(b) Customer Relationship Management

Question 15.
The accounting treatment for Revenue expenditure like rent paid, insurance etc. is : [1]
(a) Income in Trading and Profit and loss account
(b) Expense in Trading and Profit and loss account
(c) Asset in the Balance Sheet
(d) Liability in the Balance Sheet
Answer:
(b) Expense in Trading and Profit and loss account

Question 16.
‘Horse dung is mixed in dhania powder ’ – Which type of Consumer Exploitation is it ? [1]
(a) Overcharging
(b) Under weighing
(c) Adulteration
(d) Misleading Advertising
Answer:
(c) Adulteration

Question 17.
Electronic Retailing represents …………. side of e-commerce. [1]
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) C2C
(d) C2G
Answer:
(b) B2C

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 18.
Which module of the ERP system helps to manage employee information, salaries and staff payment records etc. ? [ 1 ]
(a) Human Resource Module
(b) Inventory Module
(c) Sales Module
(d) Production Module
Answer:
(a) Human Resource Module

Question 19.
‘Telephone cost’ is an example of ………. cost. [1]
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Semi-Variable
(d) Direct
Answer:
(c) Semi-Variable

Question 20.
Individuals who provide physical and mental effort for an organization are known as : [1]
(a) Employers
(b) Employees
(c) Suppliers
(d) Creditors
Answer:
(b) Employees

Question 21.
………. is an expectation of employers. [1]
(a) Safety of loans given by them to the enterprise
(b) Fair and regular return on their capital
(c) Avoid monopoly and concentration of economic power
(d) Respect for intellectual property rights
Answer:
(b) Fair and regular return on their capital

Question 22.
Salary paid to a mill manager is an example of ………. cost. [1]
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Fixed
(d) Semi-Variable
Answer:
(b) Indirect

Question 23.
Which of the following is a technique used for Sales Promotion ? [1]
(a) Marketing
(b) Publicity
(c) Exchange Offers
(d) Personal Selling
Answer:
(c) Exchange Offers

Question 24.
……….. is a computer software system used to manage all the resources of an organization. [1]
(a) E-Tailing
(b) E-Marketing
(c) E-advertising
(d) ERP
Answer:
(d) ERP

Question 25.
……….. is an example of Capital Expenditure. [1]
(a) Purchase of a machine
(b) Cleaning and greasing office fans
(c) Goods purchased for resale
(d) Money paid as taxes Answer:
Answer:
(a) Purchase of a machine

Question 26.
…….. is a consumer right. [ 1 ]
(a) Right to Legislation
(b) Right to Trade Practices
(c) Right to Seek Redressal
(d) Right to Equality
Answer:
(c) Right to Seek Redressal

Question 27.
……… is a demerit of advertising. [ 1 ]
(a) Incentive to progress
(b) Introduction of a new product
(c) Misleading the consumer
(d) Generation of employment Answer:
Answer:
(c) Misleading the consumer

Question 28.
…….. cost is activity based. It increases with increase in output. [1]
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Semi-Variable
(d) Direct
Answer:
(b) Variable

Question 29.
………. is a meaningful mark for measuring market success or position of the firm in relation to those of the competitors. [1]
(a) Target Rate of Return
(b) Profit Maximization
(c) Market Share
(d) Price Stability
Answer:
(c) Market Share

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 30.
Setting up measures and rules against attacks on the internet, protection of data and information stored on computers is
known as ……….[ 1 ]
(a) E-Marketing
(b) E-Advertising
(c) E-Tailing
(d) E-Security
Answer :
(d) E-Security

Question 31.
An institution which is an expert at designing advertisements and releasing them through appropriate media is known as ……. [1]
(a) Bank
(b) Stock Exchange
(c) Advertising Agency
(d) Insurance Company
Answer:
(c) Advertising Agency

Question 32.
Heavy advertising expenses, heavy repairs, expenditure to move the business to a more convenient location are examples of …….. [1]
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital receipts
Answer:
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure

Question 33.
……. begins before production and continues even after sale. [1]
(a) Marketing
(b) Selling
(c) Consumption
(d) Distribution
Answer:
(a) Marketing

Question 34.
Insurance, banking, beauty parlour etc. are examples of ……. [1]
(a) Services
(b) Products
(c) Pricing
(d) Technology
Answer:
(a) Services

Question 35.
The ……… module of ERP can be used to track the stock of items using unique serial numbers to trace their current location within the organization. [1]
(a) Sales
(b) Purchase
(c) Human Resource
(d) Inventory
Answer:
(d) Inventory

Question 36.
Costs like Rent, Insurance etc. which do not change in spite of changes in the volume of output are …….. costs. [1]
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Fixed
(d) Variable
Answer:
(c) Fixed

Question 37.
To help the weaker sections of society by giving them preference in employment, to respect human rights including rights of women and children etc. are expectations of ………..
(a) Employers
(b) Employees
(c) Society
(d) Suppliers
Answer:
(c) Society

Question 38.
Creation of demand, Improving the standard of living, Customer satisfaction are objectives of … [ 1 ]
(a) Selling
(b) Pricing
(c) Marketing
(d) Publicity
Answer:
(c) Marketing

Question 39.
……… refers to advertising about socially relevant issues like Swachch Bharat Abhiyan, Do Gaj Doori Mask Hai Jaroori, Blood Donation etc. [1]
(a) Selling
(b) Sales Promotion
(c) Marketing
(d) Social Advertising
Answer:
(d) Social Advertising

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 40.
The consumer has the right to be protected against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and property.
This comes under the Right to ……… [1]
(a) Safety
(b) Choose
(c) Be Heard
(d) Be Informed
Answer:
(a) Safety

ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2020 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2020 Solved

(Two Hours)

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION – A (40 MARKS)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Distinguish between:
(a) Advertising and Publicity (2)
(b) Capital and Revenue expenditure (2)
(c) Equity shares and Preference shà res (2)
(d) internal and External Stakeholders (2)
(e) Central Bank and Commercial Bank (2)
Answer:
(a)

Advertising

Publicity

(i) It is paid by the sponsor who wants to advertise the product. (i) It is not a paid form of communication.
(ii) A large number of media are used. Based on various factors like cost, type of message, reliability, etc. media are selected. (ii) Mostly, publicity can be carried via newspapers, maga­zines, radio or tele­vision.
(iii) Company has a complete control over advertising. Company can design its adver­tising as per its needs (iii) Company has no control over public­ity in terms of mes­sage, time, frequen­cy and medium.
(iv) Advertising has less credibility. It is con­sidered as company’s efforts to increase sales. (iv) Publicity can be done at a much lower cost than advertising.

(b)

Capital Expenditure

Revenue Expenditure

(i) Capital Expenditure is the expenditure incurred for the purchase of fixed assets. (i) Revenue Expenditure is the expenditure incurred for day to day operations of the business and also for maintenance of fixed assets.
(ii) It results in the increase of earning capacity of the organization. (ii) It does not increase the earning capacity but helps maintains the existing capacity of the asset.
(iii) The items are recorded under assets side of the balance sheet. (iii) Items are recorded in trading and profit and loss accounts in the books of accounting.
(iv) The capital expe­nditure is non-recur­ring and one-time in nature. (iv) The revenue expen­diture is recurring and regular in nature.

ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c)

Equity Shares

Preference Shares

(i) Equity shares are the ordinary shares of the company representing the part ownership of the shareholders in the company. (i) Preference shares are the shares that carry preferential rights on the matters of payment of dividend and repayment of capital.
(ii) The dividend is paid after the payment of all liabilities. (ii) Priority in payment of dividend over equity shareholders.
(iii) In the event of winding up of the company, equity shares are repaid at the end. (iii) In the event of winding up of the company, preference shares are repaid before equity shares.
(iv) Equity shares can never be converted. (iv) Preference shares can be converted into equity shares.

(d)

Internal Stakeholders

External Stakeholders

(i) The individual and parties that are the part of the organization is known as Internal Stakeholders. (i) The parties or groups that are not a part of the organization, but gets affected by its activities is known as External Stakeholders,
(ii) They serve the organization. (ii) They get influen-ced by the organi- zation’s work.
(iii) Employees, Owners, Board of

Directors, Managers, Inventors etc.

(iii) Suppliers, Customers, Creditors, Clients, Intermediaries, Competitors, Society, Government etc.

(e)

Central Bank

Commercial Bank

(i) The bank which looks after the monetary system of the country is known as Central Bank. (i) The establishment, which provides banking services to the public is known as Commercial Bank.
(ii) It is a banker to the banks and the government of the country. (ii) It is the banker to the citizens of the nation.
(iii) It does not exist for making profit for its owners. (iii) It exists for making profit for its owners.
(iv) Public welfare and economic development. (iv) Main motive is earning profits.

ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 2.
(a) What is E-tailing ? (2)
(b) What are Fixed Costs ? (2)
(c) What is a Budget ? (2)
(d) Briefly explain Provident Fund. (2)
(e) State two advantages of internal recruitment. (2)
Answer:
(a) E-tailing is the selling of retail goods on the Internet. Short for “electronic retailing,” and used in Internet discussions as early as 1995, the term seems an almost inevitable addition to e-mail, e-business and e-commerce. E-tailing is synonymous with business-to-consumer (B2C) transaction.

(b) A fixed cost is a cost that does not change over the short term, even if a business experiences changes in its sales volume or other activity levels. This type of cost tends to instead be associated with a period of time, such as a rent payment in exchange for a month of occupancy or a salary payment in exchange for two weeks of services by an employee. It is of some importance to understand the extent and nature of the fixed costs in a business, since a high fixed-cost level requires a business to maintain a high revenue level in order to avoid generating losses. Depreciation, Insurance, interest expenses are some examples of fixed costs.

(c) A budget is a formal statement of estimated income and expenses based on future plans and objectives. In other words, a budget is a document that management makes to estimate the revenues and expenses for an upcoming period based on their goals for the business. Depending upon the requirements, budgets are of various types; Sales budget, Purchases budget etc.

(d) As compulsory, government-managed retirement savings scheme, Provident Fund enables employees to contribute a part of their savings each month towards their pension fund. Over time, this amount gets accrued and can be accessed as a lump sum amount, at the end of their employment or at retirement. The Provident Fund money is a huge amount that helps an employee grow his retirement corpus.

(e) Internal recruitment is cheaper in terms of expenses incurred on recruitment. It takes much less time to hire someone from within and the whole process is a lot more certain.

Question 3.
(a) State two advantages of Campus Recruitment as an external source of recruitment. (2)
(b) What do ýou mean by E-security? (2)
(c) What is meant by Industrial Relations? (2)
(d) Briefly explain the principle of Utmost good faith of insurance. (2)
(e) The Central Bank is a banker c bank. Explain in brief (2)
Answer:
(a)

  • The campus recruitment helps you to assess a pool of best or talented employees for the job you need to fill. In this increased chance, the company receives a variety and number of candidates who owns knowledge and ability to handle that job.
  • When a company goes with an external recruitment method, there is a quite better possibility of finding and identifying a fresher candidate who is capable of delivering new skills and inputs for the betterment of the company.

(b) E-security pertains to the security of personal data and other information stored over the Internet. It is also called information security. It is a set of practices intended to keep data secure from unauthorized access or alterations.

ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) The industrial Relations encompasses the relationship between the management and workmen and the role of a regulatory body to resolve any industrial dispute. IR plays a significant role in today’s working scenario where the harmonious relationship between the employers and employees is needed to have an uninterrupted production.

(d) The doctrine of utmost good faith is a principle used in insurance contracts, legally obliging all parties to act honestly and not mislead or withhold critical information from one another.
Insurance agents must reveal critical details about the contract and its terms, while applicants are required to provide honest answers to all the questions fielded to them.
Violations of the doctrine of good faith can result in contracts being voided and sometimes even legal action.

(e) The Central Bank is the apex body of the banking system. It supervises, co-ordinates and controls the operations and activities of the commercial banks. As their bank it undertakes following functions:

• Custodian of Cash Reserve : It is a legal tradition that all commercial banks should keep a certain portion of the demand and time deposits with the Central Bank of the country. This proportion is called cash reserve ratio. This minimum cash reserve requirement can be changed by the Central Bank.
The Central Bank pays interest to the banks on cash reserve ratio balances.
The cash reserve ratio enables the Reserve Banks of India to advance funds to banks that face temporary liquidity crisis. It is also an instrument of credit control.

• Lender of last Resort : The Central Bank acts as a lender of last resort to commercial banks. Whenever any commercial bank faces liquidity problems, the Central Bank provides funds to overcome crisis. ‘The lender of last resort’ function of central bank helps to control panic and infuses confidence among the banks as well as the public. Hence, during financial difficulties or crisis commercial banks can always depend on central bank for the required assistance.

Question 4.
(a) Briefly explain any two types of Selection tests. (2)
(b) What are Bonded Warehouses? (2)
(e) What do you mean by Insurance? (2)
(d) State any two features of the Consumer Protection Act. (2)
(e) Explain in brief Credit Card Fraud. (2)
Answer:
(a) Two types of selection tests are:

  • Aptitude Tests : These tests aim at measuring if an individual has the capacity or latent ability to learn a given job, in case he is given adequate training. Intelligence test and clerical aptitude are the types of Aptitude Test.
  • Situational Tests : This test makes evaluation of a candidate in a similar real life situation. The candidate is asked either to cope with the situation or solve critical situations of the job. Group discussion is one of the situational tests.

(b) Bonded warehouses are used when you do not need to take immediate delivery in India of the non-exempt, imported items.
Using a bonded warehouse, Indian customs duties are not payable when goods are deposited into the bonded warehouse located in India. Customs duties are paid when the items are removed (de-bonded) from the bonded warehouse.

(c) Insurance is a legal agreement between two parties i.e. the insurance company (insurer) and the individual (insured). In this, the insurance company promises to make good the losses of the insured on happening of the insured contingency.

The contingency is the event which causes a loss. It can be the death of the policyholder or damage/destruction of the property. It’s called a contingency because there’s an uncertainty regarding happening of the event. The insured pays a premium in return for the promise made by the insurer.

(d) Consumer Protection Act has the following features:

  • Coverage of Items: This Act is applicable on all the products and services, until or unless any product or service is especially debarred out of the scope of this Act by the Central Government.
  • Coverage of Sectors : This Act is applicable to all the areas whether private, public or cooperative.

(e) Credit card fraud happens when someone — a fraudster or a thief — uses your stolen credit card or the information from that card to make unauthorized purchases in your name or take out cash advances using your account.

Section – B
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
(a) Explain any five objectives of Markeing. (5)
(b) What is ERP ? Explain any three modules of the ERP System. (5)
Answer:
(a) Objectives of the marketing are:

  • Creation of Demand : The marketing management’s first objective is to create demand through various means. A conscious attempt is made to find out the preferences and tastes of the consumers. Goods and services are produced to satisfy the needs of the customers. Demand is also created by informing the customers the utility of various goods and services.
  • Customer Satisfaction : The marketing manager must study the demands of customers before offering them any goods or services. Selling the goods or services is not that important as the satisfaction of the customers’ needs. Modem marketing is customer-oriented. It begins and ends with the customer.
  • Market Share : Every business aims at increasing its market share, i.e., the ratio of its sales to the total sales in the economy. For instance, both Pepsi and Coke compete with each other to increase their market share. For this, they have adopted innovative advertising, innovative packaging, sales promotion activities, etc.
  • Generation of Profits : The marketing department is the only department which generates revenue for the business. Sufficient profits must be earned as a result of sale of want-satisfying products. If the firm is not earning profits, it will not be able to survive in the market. Moreover, profits are also needed for the growth and diversification of the firm.
  • Creation of Goodwill and Public Image: To build up the public image of a firm over a period is another objective of marketing. The marketing department provides quality products to customers at reasonable prices and thus creates its impact on the customers.

ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) ERP stands for Enterprise Resource Planning and refers to software and systems used to plan and manage all the core supply chain, manufacturing, services, financial and other processes of an organization.

Modules of ERP:

• Human Resource Module(HR) : Human Resource module helps to HR team for efficient management of human resources. HR module helps to manage employee information, track employee records like performance reviews, designations, job descriptions, skill matrix, time & attendance tracking. One of the important submodules in the HR module is Payroll System which helps to manage salaries, payment reports etc. It can also include Travel Expenses & Reimbursement tracking. Employee Training tracking can also be managed by ERP.

• Inventory Module : Inventory module can be used to track the stock of items. Items can be identified by unique serial numbers. Using that unique numbers inventory system can keep track of item and trace its current location in the organization.

• Sales Module : Typical sales process includes processes like Sales queries, inquiry analysis and handling, quotation drafting, accepting sales orders, drafting sales invoices with proper taxation, dispatch/ Shipment of material or service, tracking pending sales order. All these sales transactions are managed by the sales module of ERP.

ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 6.
(a) State any five expectations of employees from a business organization. (5)
(b) Describe any five utilities of a budget. (5)
Answer:
(a) Employee expectations include :

  • Timely and accurate payment of wages. They expect that their payment should be made on time.
  • Adequate training. They expect trainings for existing as well as new work.
  • Safe working conditions. A business organization should provide them safe working conditions in terms of building, health conditions etc.
  • Full explanation of all company policies and especially of their job responsibilities and fair and constructive feedback from their supervisor.
  • Recognition of their work. They expect that their work and knowledge should be recognized and be a part of future elevation process.

(b) There are many utilities of budgets.

  • Control income and expenditure.
  • Establish priorities and set targets in numerical terms.
  • Provide direction and co-ordination, so that business objectives can be turned into practical reality.
  • Assign responsibilities to budget holders (managers) and allocate resources.
  • Communicate targets from management to employees
  • Improve efficiency
  • Monitor performance

Question 7.
(a) Explain any five merits of road transport. (5)
(b) Explain: (5)
(i) ATM
(ii) Debentures
Answer:
(a) Merits of road transport are :

  • Less Investment: Roads need less capital than the railways. Laying of railway line needs much capital than road.
  • Door to Door Service: Railways have the drawback that they cannot go to each village while road transport provides door to door service.
  • Flexibility in Service : Unlike railways, the road transport provides flexible service to men and materials.
  • Employment: Road transport provides employment to many persons directly and indirectly.
  • Useful for Small Distances : While railways are useful in long distances, road transport is useful in small distances.

(b)

(i) ATM means Automated Teller Machine. It is used for making financial transactions from a bank account. These machines are used to withdraw money from personal bank accounts.
This makes banking process very easy because these machines are automatic and there is no need of human cashier for transaction. The ATM machine can be of two types; one with basic functions where you can withdraw cash and another one with more advanced functions where you can also deposit cash.

(ii) A debenture is one of the most typical forms of long-term loans that a company can take.
It is normally a loan that should be repaid on a specific date, but some debentures are irredeemable securities (sometimes referred to as perpetual debentures). The majority of debentures come with a fixed interest rate. This interest must be paid before dividends are paid to shareholders. In the US, most debentures are unsecured, but elsewhere debentures are typically seemed through the borrower’s assets.

Question 8.
(a) Explain any five features of the Environment Protection Act. (5)
(b) Briefly, explain any five benefits of advertising to producers. (5)
Answer:
(a) The Environment Protection Act has been brought into force from November, 1986. Its salient features are :

  • Take all necessary measures for protecting quality of environment.
  • Co-ordinate actions of States, officers and other authorities under this Act.
  • Plan and execute a nationwide programme for prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution.
  • Lay down standards for discharge of environmental pollutants.
  • Empower any person to enter, inspect, take samples and test.
  • Restrict areas in which any industries, operations or processes may not be carried out subject to certain safeguards.
  • Issue directions to any person, officer or authority including the power to direct closure, prohibition or regulation of any industry, operation or process.

ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Benefits of advertising to the producers are :

  • It increases the Sales Volume : Advertising increases the sales volume of the product. Hence mass production is possible. This leads to reduction in the cost of production.
  • It increases the Net Profit: It increases the net profit by a higher turnover of sales. It leads to higher volume of production. Hence average cost of production is less and the profit will increase.
  • It ‘stabilizes the Sales Volume : Stabilization of sales volume is possible through advertising by the process of repetition. Regular and frequent advertising leads to regular flow of sales. It gives the name, location, products and services of the selling houses to the public often. During slump period, advertising tends to ensure a permanent class of customers to buy the product.
  • It controls Product Price: Control of wholesale and retail price is possible by means of advertisement. The needy retailers are overcharged by some greedy wholesalers. The retailers charge higher prices for the products. Hence the consumers do not want to buy such products. This will lead to reduction in sales. Hence manufacturers print on the cover or announce the retail price of the product.
  • It helps in Opening New Market : Advertising is helpful in opening or creating new markets. It helps to get leadership in the market. It helps the manufacturers to take decision whether to expand the market share or not. It also helps them to sell new products or improved variety of products.

Question 9.
(a) What are the various ways by which consumers are exploited ? (5)
(b) Explain: (5)
(i) NEFT
(ii) RTGS
Answer:
(a) Consumers are exploited in the following five ways :

  • Sale of adulterated goods, i.e., addition of inferior substances to the product being sold.
  • Sale of sub-standard goods, i.e., sale of goods which do not confirm to the prescribed quality standards.
  • Use of false weights and measures leading to losses.
  • Supply of defective goods.
  • Misleading advertisements, i.e. advertis-ements falsely claiming a product or service to be of a superior quality, grade or standard.

(b) (i) NEFT: National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to- one funds transfer. Under this scheme, individuals can electronically transfer funds from any bank branch to any individual having an account with any other bank branch in the country participating in the scheme. In NEFT, funds from ? 1 to unlimited value can be transferred.

(ii) RTGS : RTGS means Real Time Gross Settlement. It can be defined as the continuous (real-time) settlement of funds. ‘Real Time’ means the processing of instructions at the time they are received rather than at some later time. ‘Gross Settlement’ means the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually (on an instruction by instruction basis). Considering that the funds settlement takes place in the books of the Reserve Bank of India, the payments are final and irrevocable. Minimum limit for RTGS funds is ₹ 2 lakh and there is no upper limit.

Question 10.
From the following Trial Balance ofA.B. Chandra as on 31st December, 2019. (10)
Trail Balance of A. B. Chandra as on 31.12.2019
ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1
The closing stock was valued at ₹ 12,000.
You are required to prepare a Trading Account and a Profit and Loss Account for the year ending 31st December 2019 and a Balance Sheet as on 31st December, 2019.
Answer:
A. B. Chandra
Trading and Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31-12-2019
ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 2
BALANCE SHEET OF A. B. CHANDRA As on 31-12-2019
ICSE 2020 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 3

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2019 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2019 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

[Section – A (50 Marks)]
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Define the term recreation. [2]
Answer:
Recreation is light playful activity which gives us enjoyment, fun and pleasure. It recreates our lost energy. During recreation, the effect of fatigue on various parts of body is minimised. It refreshes our mental stresses and gives the laughter feeling. In these activities there are no hard and fast rules. There are many sources of recreation like fun-games, dancing, listening music, playing with fun, etc.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Write any two diseases caused due to lack of oral hygiene. [2]
Answer:
Diseases caused due to lack of oral hygiene :

  • Abscess: It is decay of teeth.
  • Pyorrhea: It is bad smell from mouth.
  • Stomach Ache: Swear stomach ache and gastric problem.

(c) State any three objectives of First Aid. [3]
Answer:
First aid is the immediate and temporary care given to the victim. It helps to avoid further injury, ease pain and possibly prevent disability and death. First aid can be a life-saving skill. In simple words, it is the first help to the victim.
Three objectives of First Aid are:
1. Immediate Aid : If possible, the first aid should be provided immediately. So, without wasting any time the decision should be taken, so that immediate aid may be given to the victim.

2. Think about ABC : The person who provides first aid to the victim, should think about ABC, means – Airway, Breathing and Circulation. First of all he should check respiration. If respiration is not running well, we should be given Artificial Breathing (AB). After check-up his blood circulation; check his pulse rate. If his pulse is not felt by the first-aider, we should use Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) technique immediately.

3. Stop Bleeding : If there is bleeding from any organ of the wounded person, it should be stopped at once. In case of cut on any main artery, it should be kept pressed with thumb or bandage till the arrival of the doctor.

4. Crowd should be Kept Away: It is usually seen that people gather immediately when there is any accident Therefore, the person giving first aid should also try to keep away the crowd from the injured person.

(d) What is Pneumonia ? Write any two symptoms of Pneumonia. [3]
Answer:
Pneumonia is a disease of Lungs.

  • It is caused by various types of germs such as Diplococcic pneumonia, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcal which enter into lungs and affect its functioning.
  • It is caused due to exposure to cold or dry places.
  • It is caused by the infected sputum of the patient. Symptoms : In most cases :
    • Common cold (running nose) and frequent coughing.
    • Pain in chest, throat and difficulty in eating food.
    • Inflammation in the lungs, often patient feels shaking chills.
  • Cough along with sputum.
  • The high fever continues up to 105°F. Pulse is faster, about 150 beats per minute.
  • Restlessness.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by community health ? [2]
Answer:
Health is the quality of life to live most and serve the best. According to ‘WHO’, Health is the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely an absence of disease.

Health leads the man towards progress and prosperity. Healthy people make healthy nation. The prosperity of a nation rests upon the health of its citizens. This all cannot be achieved by one individual alone. It can only be possible with collective effort from every member of community. Health has no barrier of state, region, country and continent. Healthy living for all can only be achieved with the collective effort from every comer of world so that optimum health should prevail. Thus, Community or Society plays important role to improve the health for all.

(b) What is an antiseptic ? [2]
Answer:
Antiseptics are the chemicals which destroy or inhibit the growth of microbes. Antiseptics are suitable for external application to living tissues. These chemicals are used in such a low concentration that they cause no harm to the body and skin. Antiseptics are usually used to clean various wounds or injuries to kill the microorganisms that may otherwise find their entry into the body. Some commonly used antiseptics usually contain Lysol, carbolic acid, iodine, benzoic acid, boric acid, etc.

(c) State any three causes of bad posture. [3]
Answer:
Causes of bad posture :

  • Accident: Sometimes bad posture arises due to accidents. It may cause postural deformity.
  • Disease: Many kinds of diseases and illnesses, chronic sickness cause bad posture.
  • Lack of Nutritional Diet: Sometimes bad posture arises due to unbalanced diet, over-diet, under-diet and lack of nutritional diet.
  • Wrong Postural Habits : The wrong sitting posture or wrong postural habits during sitting, standing, lying, working, etc., cause bad posture.
  • Improper Treatment : Sometimes the improper treatment or wrong treatment for curing injury causes bad posture or postural deformity.

(d) What is the treatment for extensive and deep cuts ? [3]
Answer:

  • Clean the surface of the affected part by antiseptic such as Neosporin.
  • Stop bleeding at the earliest by compression or by pressing or put compression bandages.
  • Cover the affected part with medicinal cotton bandage or apply band-aid.
  • Repeat dressing or padding over the wound. If bleeding continues, then apply further pads or dressing.
  • Apply ice or cold compression for sometime.
  • If injury is deep go for stitches at the earliest.
  • Avoid infection by putting medicinal cream over it.
  • Care should be taken till the injury is totally healed up.

Question 3.
(a) Write the full form of AIDS and HIV. [2]
Answer:
Full form of AIDS is Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome; HIV is Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

(b) What do you mean by personal health ? [2]
Answer:
Personal Health : Personal health is also termed as Hygiene. The word ‘Hygiene’ comes from Greek word ‘Hygiea’ — the Greek goddess of beauty. She was the symbol of cleanliness, healthy habits, good structural figure and in all, a symbol of good health. For this the importance of personal health must be realised as taking care of one’s own body is called personal hygiene. It includes:
A. Personal cleanliness

  • Care of Skin
  • Care of Hands and Nails
  • Care of Hair
  • Care of Teeth and Gums
  • Care of Eyes
  • Care of Ears
  • Care of Feet.

B. Rest, sleep and relaxation.
C. Healthy habits.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) State any three causes of a sprain injury. [3]
Answer:

  • Lack of Fitness: Lack or less of physical fitness may cause injury or accident.
  • Not Performing Warming-up : Not performing proper warming-up before the activity is the main cause of injuries during sports.
  • Faulty Skill Actions: Player performing faulty skill actions or unbalanced movements while playing or uncoordinated movement causes injury.
  • Aggression or Violence: Aggression or violence during game is also the cause of accident or injuries.
  • Poor Playfield: Poor maintenance of playfield or playfield not as per rules of the game can cause injury.
  • Not Considering Safety Means: During game if we do not consider the safety means we may get injured.

(d) State any three harmful effects of drug abuse. [3]
Answer:
(i) Addictive Effects : Most of these substances have addictive effects, thus create physical and psychological dependence. Its regular use becomes the need of athletes to perform well in physical activity.

(ii) Cardiac Problems : Doping has adverse effect over heart and causes many types of cardiac problems like varied heartbeat, high blood pressure, hypertension, cardiac arrest, heart attack, etc.

(iii) Affects Kidney and Liver : Doping substance is strong chemical, thus it adversely affects kidney and liver. It leads to non-functioning or partial damage or failure of these important organs. Many times it is also the cause of cancer in the body.

(iv) Unbalanced Psychological Behaviour: These substances usually lead to unbalanced psychological behaviour like aggression, loss of concentration, dizziness, headache, loss of neuromuscular responses, nausea feeling, nervousness, high anxiety, insomnia, depression etc.

(v) Musculature Body : Anabolic steroid causes strong muscles, thus affects the feminine look of females like musculature body of females, loss of hair (baldness), male voice, causes beard or moustaches on face, etc., thus personality is affected.

Question 4.
(a) What is Arthritis ? [2]
Answer:
Arthritis is technically called as Osteoarthritis. It is inevitable as people grow older. This is the problem in which there is stiffness of joints. It happens when cartilage caps of bone rub each other.
Cause: It is due to Rheumatic fever (which is ignored earlier). The joints lubricant (synovial fluid) is reduced and causes stiffness in joints.
Symptoms: Pain, swelling and stiffness of joints. Joint produces sound or creaks when movement is performed especially early in the morning.

Preventive and Treatment Steps:

  • Regular gentle exercises or long walk is the best way to cure arthritis. It removes stiffness and pain by strengthening the supporting muscles of the joints.
  • Avoid jerky actions in old age.
  • Warming up by passive agents relieves the stiffness and pain.

(b) State any two preventive measures to protect our sense of hearing. [2]
Answer:

  • Earwax present in the ear protects ears during swimming. But excess of wax can cause partial deafness. Excess of wax accumulated in the ear should be removed by a doctor.
  • Dirt accumulated in the ear along with air should also be removed.
  • Hard articles like hair pins, matchsticks, etc., should never be used for cleaning the ear as these things can damage the eardrum.
  • On the entry of a foreign particle like insect, etc., ear should immediately be inspected by a doctor. If the doctor is not available the insect should be made to settle down by pouring mineral oil for the time being.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Define Insomnia. State any two symptoms of Insomnia. [3]
Answer:
Insomnia is the health problem in which a person cannot sleep properly. Die symptoms of insomnia are :

  • Emotional excitement
  • Restlessness
  • Irritated easily
  • Overstressfulness
  • Eye pain

(d) What is an Infectious disease ? Give two examples. [3]
Answer:
Communicable Diseases are also called Infectious disease. It is caused by the germ called pathogen, which must reach a healthy person before he suffers from the disease. Communicable (infectious) diseases are always caused by some pathogens (pathos-diseases, gen-producing) i.e., disease-producing organisms. Some of the communicable diseases are: AIDS, Hepatitis B and C, Chickenpox, Cholera, Tuberculosis, etc. These diseases always spread from an infected to healthy person.

Question 5.
(a) Name any two diseases spread by Protozoa. [2]
Answer:
Protozoa: It is unicellular organism which affects the defence system of body. Malaria, amoebic dysentery, sleeping sickness, etc.

(b) Write the full form of BMI and WHO. [2]
Answer:

  • Full form of BMI is : Body Mass Index.
  • Full form of WHO is : World Health Organization.

(c) State any three steps to be taken to prevent obesity. [3]
Answer:
1. Balanced Diet: Obese persons should strictly take balanced diet with very less amount of carbohydrates and fats.

2. Eating lot of Fibrous Food: Food items like fruits, salad, vegetables, etc., are rich sources of fibrous food. They are low in energy food and thus prevent obesity.

3. Avoid Fats: Avoid Med food. Direct fats like butter, cream, ghee, animal fats, etc., should not be taken. For the sake of taste, only refined oil or mustard oil should be used for cooking.

4. Physical Activity: An obese person should regularly perform physical activity and avoid sedentary lifestyle.

5. Avoid Junk Food: Junk food is a high calorie food. Moreover, it causes many health problems. The food items like burger, pastry, chocolates, cold drinks, candy, etc., should be avoided.

(d) Mention any three precautions to be taken while using electrical appliances. [3]
Answer:
Preventing Electric Shock:

  • All wiring, appliances and plugs should be kept in proper order.
  • Exact location of main switchboard should be known.
  • Lack of knowledge in using electrical gadgets should be avoided.
  • Standard and certified electrical gadgets should be used with instruction.
  • Proper fuse wire and safety switches should be used.
  • Electrical gadgets should not be touched with wet hands.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Section – B (50 Marks)
(Attempt two questions from this Section)
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.
Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Explain the following terms in Cricket: [8]
(i) An over
(ii) A wide ball
(iii) An appeal
(iv) A toss
Answer:
(i) An over: In this, player has to deliver or bowl for 6 times (legal) successively from one end.
(ii) A wide ball: When the bowler bowls the ball out side the wide line of the batsman’s reach. An extra ball is bowled for a wide. It gives an extra run.
(iii) An appeal: It is request or shout by fielding players in anticipation of batsman to be given out by the Umpire.
(iv) A toss: It is the procedure before the match to decide which team will perform the batting or fielding.

(b) (i) What is meant by ‘extra runs’ ? Give two examples of extra runs. [9]
(ii) Draw a diagram of a Cricket Pitch and mark the following:
1. The Bowling Crease
2. The Popping Crease
3. The Return Crease
(iii) List any three Protective Equipments used by the batsman.
Answer:
(i) Extra runs: All extra runs are credited to the team total, rather than individual batsmen. They are also referred to as sundries.
1. No ball
2. Leg Bye
3. Bye
4. Wide ball
5. Overthrow

(ii) 1. The Bowling Crease
2. The Popping Crease
3. The Return Crease
ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1

(iii)

  • Helmet
  • Leg Protector
  • Batsman Gloves
  • Chest Guard
  • Thy Guard
  • Abdominal Guard
  • Elbow Guard

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term ‘Follow on’ ? [8]
(ii) State the restrictions on the role of a substitute.
(iii) What do you mean by ball tampering ?
(iv) Explain the role of the Third Umpire in a match.
Answer:
(i) Follow-On : It is given in a test match when batting team cannot score sufficient runs and the lead is more than 200 runs, it may be given follow-on or to bat again.

(ii) A player from batting fielding side is replaced with a new player. In super substitute this replaced player can bat or field or bowl (with certain conditions). This is also referred to as twelfth man.

(iii) Ball Tampering : It is the intentional damage to the ball by the fielding players to get undue advantage in the swing of the ball during bowling.

(iv) Third Umpire or TV Umpire is an off-field umpire who makes the final decision in questions referred to him by the two on-field umpires. Television replays are available to the third umpire to assist him in coming to a decision. An on-field umpire can, at his own discretion, use a radio link to refer any close decision concerning dismissals (catches, run outs or stumping) or boundaries to the third umpire. The official who witnesses the match with high-tech apparatus and responsible for crucial or complicate decisions when in need.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 7.
(a) Explain the following terms in Cricket: [8]
(i) Straight drive
(ii) Double-hit
(iii) Catch out
(iv) Clean bowled
Answer:
(i) Straight Drive : An over pitched ball is hit straight with full control of bat.
(ii) Double-hit: If the batsman hits the ball intentionally for the second time (can stop but not to hit) then batsman can be declared out on an appeal. Or if a batsman hits the delivery with his bat and deliberately hits the ball again for any reason other than to defend his wicket.
(iii) Catch out: When a ball is caught by a fielder before it touches the ground or if a fielder catches the ball hit by bat by the batsman.
(iv) Clean bowled : If the ball partially or completely destroys the wicket even if it touches the bat.

(b) (i) State any three duties of the Main Umpire in a cricket match. [9]
(ii) Write any three fielding positions of “offside”.
(iii) Explain the term ‘Full-toss’ in Cricket.
Answer:
(i) They are the officials in ground responsible for administrating and imposing the rules and regulations of the game.

Duties of Umpires :

  • Umpire signals and declares the batsmen out
  • Short-run
  • End of over
  • Boundary; beginning
  • End of power play ; no ball; wide ball; leg bye, bye ; time-out, time-over; obstruction; break.

(ii)

  • Slips
  • Cover
  • Long off
  • Point
  • Mid off

(iii) Full-toss : A ball delivered by bowler pitched right up to the batsman.

(c) (i) State any four instances when the ball is considered a‘dead ball’. [8]
(ii) Answer the following with reference to cricket:
1. Circumference of the ball
2. Widest part of cricket ball
3. Breadth of stumps
4. Size of the sight screen.
Answer:
(i) Dead Ball: Dead ball is a particular state of play in which the players may not perform any of the active aspects of the game. In other words, batsmen may not score runs and fielders may hot attempt to get batsmen out.

  • The Umpire is satisfied that, with adequate reason, the batsman is not ready for the delivery of the ball.
  • The ball passes the batsman, is gathered by the wicketkeeper, and the batsmen obviously decline to attempt to take runs.
  • The ball is finally settled in the hands of the wicketkeeper or the bowler, and the batsmen obviously decline to attempt to take any more runs.
  • The umpire feels that both the fielding team and the batsmen consider the ball no longer to be in play.
  • The ball reaches the boundary and four runs or six runs are scored.

(ii) 1. Circumference of the ball = 9 inches (22-5 cm).
2. Widest part of cricket bat = 4V4 inch (10-8 cm).
3. Breadth of stumps = 9 inches (22-8 cm)
4. Size of the sight screen is 6 metre in length and 3 metre high.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Football

Question 8.
(а) Explain the following terms in Football: [8]
(i) Kicking
(ii) Dribbling
(iii) Tackling
(iv) Trapping
Answer:
(i) Kicking : It is the most common skill used to hit the ball with power. It reaches long and away to the desired position. It is performed in various ways like kicking with inside; outside of foot; instep-kick; punt- kick; scissor kick; banana or chip-kick; roll back-kick, etc. It can be used during free-kick, goal-kick, comer- kick, penalty-kick or when situation suits.

(ii) Dribbling : It is faking to the opponent in such a way that the control of ball is kept. Player controls the movement of the ball with the feet whereas upper body gives the dodging movement.

(iii) Tackling : It is taking the ball possession from the opponent with sliding. Many times trapping the ball with head, chest, foot is also done for the possession of the ball.

(iv) Trapping : It is controlling the lifted ball before it could bounce or control the ball in air, so that it should fall near the body range. It is trapped by chest, thigh (upper leg), under the foot, etc.

(b) (i) State any three duties of a match referee. [9]
(ii) List the basic compulsory equipment used by a football player.
(iii) What is the procedure adopted to restart the game from a throw in ?
Answer:
(i) Duties of Match Referee : Match Referee is an official responsible for the conduct of game under rules and regulations. His decision shall be final for the result of match. He is authorized to exercise his powers under the rules.

  • He enforces the rules of game over both teams, gives decision on controversies and disputes over ground.
  • Referee keeps the record of the game and acts as timekeeper.
  • He stops the game if player has been seriously injured and restarts the game after stoppage.
  • He is to check the equipments of the game and see that ground is fit for conduct of the game.

(ii) The basic compulsory equipments: Studs (football shoes), Shin Guard, T-shirt with No., Shorts, Stocking.

(iii) In case of struggle for ball possession when both players commit foul simultaneously, in that case the Referee stops the game for sometime and afterwards drops the common ball to get the possession of the ball. Game restarts when the ball touches the ground.

(c) (i) When is the ball called out of play in Football ? [8]
(ii) Write the full form of FIFA.
(iii) Answer the following:
1. Radius of centre circle.
2. Minimum and maximum number of players to start a match.
3. Height and width of the goal post.
4. Distance of penalty mark from the goal line.
Answer:
(i) Ball Out of Play: The ball leaves the field by entirely crossing a goal line or touch line (this includes when a goal is scored). Play is stopped by the Referee, a player is seriously injured, or the ball becomes defective.

(ii) The full form of FIFA is Federation International Football Association.

(iii) 1. A circle with a radius of 9.15 m (10 yards) is marked around it.
2. Number of Players : A match is played by two teams, each consisting of not more than eleven players, one of whom is the goalkeeper. A match may not start if either team consists of fewer than seven players.
3. The distance between the posts is 7.32 m (8 yds.) and the distance from the lower edge of the crossbar to the ground is 2.44 m (8 ft.). Both goalposts and the crossbar have the same width and depth, which do not exceed 12 cm (5 ins).
4. 11 metres (12 yards).

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 9
(a) Answer the following : [8]
(i) Length and breadth of the football field
(ii) Length and breadth of the Penalty area
(iii) Radius of Penalty arc and Comer arc
(iv) Duration of match and duration of extra time. ;
Answer:
(i) The length of the Touch line must be greater than the length of the goal line.
Length (touch line): minimum 90 m (100 yds.) and maximum 120 m (130 yds.)
Width (goal line): minimum 45 m (50 yds.) and maximum 90 m (100 yds.)
All lines must be of the same width, which must not be more than 12 cm (5 ins).

(ii) Length is 40.20 metres (44 yards) and Breadth is 16.45 metres (18 yards)

(iii) Radius of Penalty Arc is 9.14 metres (10 yards) and Comer Arc 91 centimetres (1 yards)

(iv) Duration of match = 2 halves of 45 minutes (M) and 40 minutes (W)
Extra time = 2 halves of 15 minutes

(b) (i) State any three duties of an Assistant referee. [9]
(ii) What is the procedure of resuming a game from a goal kick ?
(iii) Mention any three circumstances where the referee awards an indirect free kick against the goalkeeper.
Answer:
(i) Duties of Assistant Referee: There are two Assistant Referees or lines-men. They assist or help the Match Referee during the game. They are equipped with flags. Their duties are to indicate Match Referee by various signals like:

  • Ball is out of play
  • Which team to get comer-kick
  • Throw-in
  • Goal-kick
  • Off-side.

(ii) A goal kick is a method of restarting play. A goal , kick is awarded when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, The ball is kicked from any point within the goal area by a player of the defending team. Opponents remain outside the penalty area until the ball is in play. The kicker must not play the ball again until it has touched another player. The ball is in play when it is kicked directly out of the penalty area.

(iii) An indirect free kick is awarded to the opponent if a goalkeeper commits any of the following offences inside his own penalty area :

  • Takes more than four steps while controlling the ball with his hands, before releasing it from his possession.
  • Touches the ball again with his hands after it has been released from his possession without touching another player.
  • Touches the ball with his hands after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a teammate.
  • Touches the ball with his hand after he has received it directly from a throw-in by a teammate.

(c) (i) Explain the following : [8]
1. A direct free kick
2. A through-pass
(ii) State any four offences commited by a player within his own penalty area which warrants the award of a penalty kick.
Answer:
(i) 1. Direct Free Kick : It is given when Referee shows the warning card to the player. In this foul has been committed outside the penalty area like intentional delay, intentional hit to the player, intentional handling the ball, charging, dangerous play, holding opponent from behind, violent play, kicking the opponent. While taking direct kick the opposing player should be at least 10 yards away from the ball (unless same member is nearby). Goal can be scored from this direct kick.

2. Through-Pass : In this, the ball is passed between two or more defenders and the own teammate collects the ball and moves further.

(ii) Penalty-Kick : A penalty kick is awarded when a foul is committed by a defender in the penalty area or technical area. The ball is placed on the penalty spot and the attacking player tries to kick it directly into the goal and goalkeeper only defends it. The offences are like :

  • Intentional hit to the player
  • Intentional handling the ball
  • Charging opponent
  • Holding opponent from behind.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Handball

Question 10.
(a) Explain the following terms in Handball: [8]
(i) Affee-throw
(ii) A goal-post
(iii) A suspension
(iv) A line cut
Answer:
(i) Free-Throw: It is also known as 9-mt throw. If defensive team commits fault or violation then opponent is awarded with 9 meter free-throw. Defensive player must be 3 meters away from the opponent players.

(ii) Goalpost: It is wooden/ metallic post made with inner dimensions of 2 m height and 3 m length. The wooden log must be 8 cm thick in cubical shape log. It should be painted in black and white with dimension of 20 cm × 8 cm with alternate colour.

(iii) A Suspension: If player intentionally obstructs the opponent, he remains out for two minutes. The team has to play with less number of player till he gains comes-in.

(iv) Line Cut: During attempt for goal if a player cuts or crosses the goal line, this is a violation.

(b) (i) Write the three privileges which the goalkeeper is allowed. [9]
(ii) How is a goal scored in Handball ?
(iii) Describe the attire of a Handball player.
Answer:
(i) Privilege to Goalkeeper:

  1. Only Goalkeeper is permitted inside the own Goal area.
  2. Goalkeeper can touch the ball with any body part inside the Goal area.
  3. Only Goalkeeper is permitted to leave the Goal area without permission.

(ii) A goal is scored when the entire ball has completely crossed the goal line, provided that no violation of the rules has been committed by the thrower, a teammate or a team official before or during the throw. The goal line referee confirms with two short whistle signals and hand signal that a goal has been scored.

(iii) All the court players on a team must wear identical uniforms. The combinations of colors and design for the two teams must be clearly distinguishable from each other. All players used in the goalkeeper position on a team must wear the same color, a color
that distinguishes them from the court players of both teams and the goalkeeper(s) of the opposing team. The players must wear visible numbers that are at least 20 cm high in the back of the shirt and at least 10cm in the front. The numbers used shall be from 1 to 99.

(c) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a Handball court giving all its dimensions. [8]
Answer:
ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 2

Question 11.
(a) Explain the following term in Handball: [8]
(i) A penalty throw
(ii) A goal throw
(iii) Utility of goal area
(iv) A dive shot
Answer:
(i) Penalty Throw: It is also known as 7-Metre-Throw. In this goalkeeper alone defends the goal whereas opponent throws the ball towards goalpost behind 7 m mark. The goalkeeper is restricted to close up to restraining line of goalkeeper. Other players stand outside 9 m line or free throw line.

(ii) Goal Throw: During play if ball goes out from the end lines (goal line) by the opponent, then goalkeeper starts the game by goal throw. This is also known as goalkeeper throw.

(iii) Utility of Goal Area: The arc around goalpost at 6 m. Only the goalkeeper is allowed to enter the goal area. It restrict other players to enter this area which is restricted for all players except goalkeeper.

(iv) Dive shot: It is away of putting the ball/ shot, in order to score a goal, by jumping above the floor towards the goal. It is done without touching the goal area line (6 meter line).

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) When is the ball considered to be in play in Handball? [9]
(ii) When is a comer throw awarded in Handball ?
(iii) Explain the term ‘playing with the ball’ in Handball.
Answer:
(i) The ball remains in play, dining playing time, unless or until match Referee blows the whistle to stop the time, infringement/ foul has occurred, goal has been scored, in possession of goalkeeper, ball goes out of boundaries.

(ii) A comer throw is given to an attacking player while the ball is played over goal line by a defending player or either side of the goal. Corner throw is thrown by attacking player from the comer of court. It is done by throwing the ball by using either hand.

(iii) It is permitted to throw, catch, stop, push or hit the ball, by using hands (open or closed), arms, head, torso, thighs, and knees; hold the ball for a maximum of 3 seconds, also when it is lying on the floor; take a maximum of 3 steps with the ball.

(c) (i) Write four situations where a penalty throw is awarded. [8]
(ii) List four situations when a goalkeeper throw is awarded.
Answer:
(i) Penalty Throw is awarded when :

  • It is given when defending player intentionally obstructs the opponent while he is going for throw towards goalpost.
  • This is given when defending player intentionally obstructs the opponent from behind.
  • Blocking dangerously while player is throwing towards goal.
  • Jumps on the opponent without the ball, pushes the opponent, trips on the opponent when he has clear chance of scoring.

(ii) A goalkeeper-throw is awarded when :

  • A player of the opposing team has entered the goal area in violation of Rule.
  • The goalkeeper has controlled the ball in the goal area or the ball is stationary on the floor in the goal area.
  • A player of the opposing team has touched the ball when it is rolling on the floor in the goal area.
  • When the ball has crossed the outer goal line, after having been touched last by the goalkeeper or a player of the opposing team.

Hockey

Question 12.
(а) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) An obstruction
(ii) Playing distance
(iii) Tapping
(iv) A suspension
Answer:
(i) An obstruction : It is hindrance to opponent against the rales. It prevents opponent player to play with ball by hindrance through body or stick.

(ii) Playing Distance has:
(a) Side lines: 91.40 meters long perimeter lines
(b) Back lines: 55.00 meters long perimeter lines.

(iii) Tapping: This skill is used to stop the fast coming ball by carefully stopping with stick. In this skill the stick is kept in between the fast coming ball so that it stops close to stick. There is lot of variation of tapping, like lying stick tapping, blade tapping, reverse stick tapping, etc.

(iv) Suspension: A player is suspended if he commits serious foul (intentionally or unintentionally), like dangerous play, misconduct, argument to Umpire. Second yellow card is also suspension of player from the match. Player cannot continue playing match; moreover team will play without filling of suspended player.

(b) (i) What do you know about the shape, circumference and weight of a Hockey ball ? [9]
(ii) List the equipment which should be carried by the Umpire while conducting the match.
(iii) What is the duration of the game and interval ?
Answer:
(i) The ball:
(a) is spherical
(b) has a circumference of between 224 mm and 235 mm
(c) weighs between 156 grams and 163 grams
(d) is made of any material and coloured white (or an agreed colour which contrasts with the playing surface)

(ii) Umpiring equipment includes a copy of the current Rules book, a loud and distinctive whistle, a stop watch, coloured cards to indicate personal penalties and materials to record match details (Small diary and pen, Green, Yellow and Red Cards).

(iii) Duration of the Game = 2 halves of 35 min (Men), 30 min (Women)

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the hockey field with its dimensions. [8]
Answer:
ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 3

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) Flag-post
(ii) A reverse hit
(iii) A bully
(iv) A corner-push
Answer:
(i) Flag-Post: Four flags are placed at four comers and two are placed at a distance of 1 m from the sideline over the centre line. The height of flag post should be 4 to 5 feet.
(ii) Reverse hit: A ball which is hit with reverse hand side (from the opposite side) of the player.
(iii) Bully : This method is used to start or restart the game after interruption. In this method two opponent players try to gain the control over ball by dribbling on Referee’s signal.
(iv) Corner push : This is a kind of push used in penalty comer (short-comer) or from long comer. In this skill player pushes the ball with power so that it should quickly reach to own teammate.

(b) (i) Mention three procedures to the followed while taking a ‘Penalty Stroke [9]
(ii) List three instances wherein a ‘Penalty Comer ’ is awarded.
(iii) What is understood by a ‘manufactured foul’ ?
Answer:
(i) Penalty stroke: It is also known as 7 yard push. This is awarded when some serious offence is committed by team in their shooting circle. Time stops during penalty stroke. Only goalkeeper and the player taking stroke permitted inside shooting circle. At the whistle player pushes or scoops or flicks the ball towards the goal for scoring a goal whereas goalkeeper defends it. It is done from the penalty spot 7 yards in front of goal post.

(ii) Penalty comer is awarded when a player

  • commits serious foul (intentionally or unintentionally)
  • indulges in dangerous play
  • for misconduct
  • enters into argument with Umpire.

(iii) Manufacture Foul: It is given when player or players are found that they are not using the specified stick as per mles. In this stage, penalty comer is awarded to opposing team.

(c) Explain the following terms in Hockey : [8]
(i) A warning
(ii) A field goal
(iii) A push
(iv) Side line
Answer:
(i) Warning/Green Card : A player is warned by green card by Umpire if he has committed foul unintentionally. It can also be given if player indulges himself in foul play or wasting time. Player is temporarily suspended for 2-minutes.

(ii) Field-Goal: It is a goal scored by dribbling or passing within the shooting circle in a strategic move by the attacking players.

(iii) Push : This stroke is used to send the ball to shorter distance. Right hand is placed low on the stick and pushes the stick forward while the left hand holds the top of handle. This skill is’ mostly used to pass the ball to own team player when he is close.

(iv) Side-line : The longer side of playfield on both side of playfield with 91.40 meters (100 yards) perimeter line.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of basketball court with its dimensions. [8]
Answer:
ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 4

(b) (i) What is team foul ? [9]
(ii) Explain the term ‘double foul’ in a game of Basketball.
(iii) Explain in brief the term ‘Held-BalT.
Answer:
(i) A Team Foul: These are total fouls of team. If the team fouls exceed more than four fouls in each quarter then opponent team is awarded with two free-throws on each foul.

(ii) Double Foul : A situation in which opposing player commits contact fouls against each other simultaneously.

(iii) Held-Ball : It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw- in (by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line.

(c) Explain the following terms in Baketball: [8]
(i) Screening
(ii) A “5” second mle
(iii) A zone press
(iv) A multiple foul
Answer:
(i) Screening: A screen is a blocking move by an offensive player, by standing beside or behind a defender, to free a teammate to shoot, a pass, or drive in to score.

(ii) ‘5’ Second Rule: A player cannot hold the ball (without bounce) for more than ‘5’ seconds.

(iii) Zone Press: A defensive style in which the defense applies pressure to the offensive team at certain area of the court before and after the inbound pass. It is defence in own half, where player covers particular area for defence.

(iv) Multiple Foul: When two players are involved in the foul at almost the same time. Throw- in taken from sideline is taken in alternate manner.

Question 15.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A pivot food
(ii) A time out
(iii) A throw in
(iv) Holding
Answer:
(i) A Pivot foot : The front foot of pitcher remain stationary while pitching is called pivot foot.

(ii) Time-out: It is an interruption of game requested by coach. It lasts not more than one min. It can be taken one time in I, II and III quarter; and two times in IV quarter.

(iii) Throw in : It is passing the ball from side line or end line (after the dead-ball) to restart the continuity of game.

(iv) Holding: It is personal contact to opponent player that infers the freedom of movement (by body contact).

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) Explain in brief the term ‘Jump ball’ [9]
(ii) How does a team advance with the ball in an attempt to score ?
(iii) List down the officials in the game of Basketball.
Answer:
(i) Jump Ball : A jump ball is a technique of starting the game in the beginning, from the circles. It takes place when official tosses the ball between the two opposing players with new ndes only one time the jump ball is done and next time it is done with throw in.

(ii) Player with ball can advance with ball in an attempt to score by High/ Low Dribble. It is an offensive dribble. The bounce is high at twist height to provide fast running movement. Hands perform the pumping action over the ball by pressing it.

(iii) Officials : 1 Referee, 2 Umpire, 1 Scorer, 1 Assistant Scorer, 1 Timekeeper, one 24-Second Operator, 1 Table Commissioner.

(c) Write the following : [8]
(i) An illegal screening
(ii) A live-ball
(iii) A dead-ball
(iv) A lay-up shot
Answer:
(i) Illegal Screening : It is illegal attempt to delay or prevent opponent player who does not control the ball from reaching desired position.

(ii) Live-Ball: During jump-ball if ball is legally tapped or officials place the ball for play or at the disposal of free throw or throw-in.

(iii) Dead-Ball: Ball lands out of bounds, official blows the whistle, in case of violation, fouls etc. It is temporarily stopping of game.

(iv) Lay-Up-Shot : A shot executed by a player while moving two steps with the ball and attempting a shot.

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) Attack line
(ii) A setter
(iii) Back zone
(iv) A rotation
Answer:
(i) Attack line : On each court, an attack line, whose rear edge is drawn 3 m back from the axis of the centre line, marks the front zone.

(ii) Setter : A player specialized to lift the ball for the smash. It is performed over the coming ball from own teammates. This player is also known as booster.

(iii) Back Zone : The area behind the attack line or the rear area of the court to restrain Libro to come in front zone or attack line.

(iv) Rotation : After every change of service; the players of serving side rotate in clockwise otherwise it may be foul.

(b) (i) When is a team compelled to substitute a player ? [9]
(ii) When do the teams change the court ?
(iii) What is the procedure adopted to start a game ?
Answer:
(i) A team compelled to substitute a player when a player is got Expulsion (expelled) or Disqualification for repeated misconduct. He/ she is not allowed to play further. He is not even allowed to sit over team bench.

(ii) Change of Court : After each set the ends are changed. In the final set it is changed at 8th point.

(iii) The First Referee performs toss before the start of match. After positioning of both teams he blows long whistle for service and simultaneously indicates for service.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Draw a neat diagram of a Volley Ball court and mark the following:
(i) side line
(ii) service line
(in) attack line
(iv) front zone
(v) back zone
(vi) rotation position
(vii) height of the net (men) from the ground
(viii) size of the net
Answer:
ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 5

Question 17.
(a) Explain the following terms in Volley Ball: [8]
(i) An attack hit
(ii) A foot fault
(iii) An ace
(iv) A technical time-out
Answer:
(i) Attack Hit: All actions which direct the ball towards the opponent, with the exception of service and lock, are considered as attack hits. During an attack hit, tipping is permitted only if the ball is cleanly hit, and not caught or thrown.

(ii) Foot Fault : Occurs when a player while serving places a foot over or on the back line or when any player puts a foot over the center line into their opponents side of the court.

(iii) Ace: A point scored over service which is unretumed.

(iv) Technical Timeout: It is given for 60 seconds in the final set when leading team reaches the 8th and 16th points. It may be requested by each team.

(b) (i) State any three rules related to a ‘Libero player’. [9]
(ii) Explain the term ‘Triple block’ in Volleyball.
(iii) What is a rally point ?
Answer:
(i) Rules related to Libero player :

  1. The Libero is allowed to replace any player in a back row position.
  2. He/she is restricted to perform as a back row player and is not allowed to complete an attack hit from anywhere (including playing court and free zone) if at the moment of the contact the ball is entirely higher than the top of the net.
  3. He/she may not serve, block or attempt to block.

(ii) When three players ’ attempts or tries to block the ball from coming at the same time it is called a “triple block”.

(iii) A point scored after multiple exchange of rally across the net.

ICSE 2019 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Answer the following : [8]
(i) Weight of the ball
(ii) Circumference of the ball
(iii) Number of players in a team
(iv) Length of service line
(v) Height of net for Men and Women
(vi) How many time outs are awarded to a team in a match ?
(vii) Duration of a time out
(viii) Measurements of the free zone area
Answer:
(i) Weight of the ball is 260-280 g.
(ii) Circumference of the ball is 65-67 cm.
(iii) No. of Players in a team are 12 (6 Playing and 6 Substitutes including Libero)
(iv) 9 meters
(v) Height of net is 2-43 m for Men and 2-24 m for Women.
(vi) Timeout : It is temporarily interruption asked by the coach during game. Each team may request a maximum of two timeouts.
(vii) Timeout: Each team may request a maximum of two timeouts. All requested time-outs last for 30 seconds.
(viii) Free-zone Area: An area by the sides of court which can be used during game. It is 3 to 5 meters all sides of court.

ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2019 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2019 Solved

Section – A
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Distinguish between:
(a) Marketing and Sales (2)
(b) Central Bank and Commercial Bank (2)
(c) Product and Service (2)
(d) Debit Card and Credit Card (2)
(e) Shares and Debentures (2)
Answer:
(a)

Marketing

Sales

(i) It is market oriented. (i) It is product oriented.
(ii) Emphasis is on consumer wants. (ii) Emphasis is on product
(iii )Marketing begins before production. (iii) Sales starts after production.
(iv) Marketing con- tinues even aft-er selling the pro- duct. (iv) Sales comes to end after selling the product.

(b)

Central Bank

Commercial Bank

(i) It is a banker to the banks and the government of the country. (i) It is the banker to the citizens of the nation.
(ii) It looks after the monetary system of the country is known as Central Bank. (ii) It is the banker to the citizens of the nation.
(iii) It has the right to print currency notes. (iii) It is the banker to the citizens of the nation.
(iv) It prepares mone-tary policy (iv) A commercial bank does not have any right to prepare monetary policy.

ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c)

Product

Service

(i) A product is a physical, tangible product. (i) Service is intangible product.
(ii) Product can be returned to the seller. (ii) Service cannot be returned to the seller.
(iii) Products can be quantified numeri­cally. (iii) Services cannot be quantified in terms of numbers.

(d)

Debit Card

Credit Card

(i) Debit card is issued only when a person has a deposit account in his bank. (i) It is issued to a person without any deposit account in his bank.
(ii)  Payment done through debit card is deducted directly to the deposit account of the customer. (ii) Payment done through credit card is to be paid after a certain time interval.
(iii) Easy to obtain. Banks generally issue debit cards to their deposit accounts holders at the time of opening of a deposit account by a new customer, or mere on application to the existing customer. (iii) Involves an application and verification process. It takes few days to issue a credit card to the applicant.

(e)

Shares Debentures
(i) Shares are the owned funds of the company. (i) Debentures are the borrowed funds of the company.
(ii) Shares represent the capital of the company. (ii) Debentures repres-ent the debt of the company.
(iii) Shares cannot be con­verted into debentures. (iii) Debentures can be converted into shares.

Question 2.
(a) Mention any two objectives of Pricing. (2)
(b) Explain ‘Sales Budget’. (2)
(c) What is ‘Social Advertising Media’? (2)
(d) What is ‘Discounting of bills of exchanges’? (2)
(e) What do you mean by On-the-job training and Off-the-job training? (2)
Answer:
(a) Objectives of the pricing are:

  1. to increase the sales volume of the firm.
  2. to maximize profit of the firm.
  3. to achieve quality leadership by pricing.
  4. to remove competitors from market.

(b) A sales budget is an estimate of sales for a future accounting period. Sales budgets are often divided into first, second, third and fourth fiscal quarter estimates. The more accurate your sales estimates, the more effectively you can manage your business. While preparing the sales budget, the following factors are kept in mind :

  • Past Sales Figures and Trends
  • Plant Capacity
  • Availability of Raw Materials
  • Seasonal Fluctuations
  • Orders in Hand

(c) Social advertising media is a form of Internet advertising (unpaid efforts) that utilizes social networking websites as a marketing tool. Social advertising is any advertising in which you’re paying the social media company to display your content. It could be a display ad, a promoted tweet or other showcasing of your profile, products or services. The goal of social advertising media is to produce content that users will share with their social network to help. Youtube, Facebook, Twitter are the popular social advertising platforms.

ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) If the drawer of the bill does not want to wait till the due date of the bill and is in need of money, he may sell his bill to a bank at a certain rate of discount. The bill is endorsed by the drawer with a signed and dated order to pay the bank. The bank becomes the holder and the owner of the bill. After getting the bill, the bank will pay cash to the drawer equal to the face value less interest or discount at an agreed rate for the number of days it has to run. This is known as discounting of bills of exchange.

(e) The training given to an employee while he/she is performing tasks or processes related to his/her particular occupation. The employee typically performs tasks that are essential to their job function with the supervision of a manager. This type of training is typically used to broaden an employee’s skill set and to increase productivity. When the employees are given training outside the actual work location, such a type of training is termed as off the job training. The reason behind imparting training at a place other than the job location is to provide a stress-free environment to the employees where they can concentrate only on learning.

Question 3.
(a) What is meant by ‘Deferred Revenue Expenditure ’ ? (2)
(b) What do you understand by ‘Semi variable Costs ’ ? (2)
(c) How do warehouses help in price stabilization ? (2)
(d) Why is a ‘Master Budget’ also known as a Summary Budget ? (2)
(e) Explain the term ‘Logistics ’. (2)
Answer:
(a) Deferred Revenue Expenditure is an expenditure which is revenue in nature and incurred during an accounting period. These expenses are large in amount and the benefits are not consumed within the same accounting period. Suppose that a company is introducing a new product to the market and decides to spend a large amount on its advertising in the current accounting period. This marketing spend is supposed to draw benefits beyond the current accounting period.

(b) Semi-variable costs are costs or expenses whose behaviour is partially fixed and partially variable. Semi-variable costs remain fixed up to a particular production volume. Beyond this volume, semi-variable costs increase in direct proportion to output. Wages, for instance, are semi-variable costs which multiply by 1.5 beyond 40 hours worked in a given week.

(c) Warehouses play an important role in the process of price stabilization. They help in the stabilization of prices by adjusting demand and supply. Scarcity in supply of goods may increase their price in the market. Again, excess production and supply may also lead to fall in prices of the product. By maintaining a balance of supply of goods, warehousing leads to price stabilization.

(d) Master budget works as a summary budget for the overview of the business owners and the management. The master budget indicates how much the organization is earning and what the expenses are incurred as a whole.

(e) Logistics is used more broadly to refer to the process of coordinating and moving resources – people, materials, inventory and equipment – from one location to storage at the desired destination.

Question 4.
(a) Whatis‘National Electronic Fund Transfer’? (2)
(b) State any two precautions while using an ‘ATM’. (2)
(c) What do you understand by ‘HealthInsurance’?(2)
(d) What do you mean by Internet and Cyber Fraud ? (2)
(e) Explain any features of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. (2)
Answer:
(a) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide payment system. Under this Scheme, individuals can electronically transfer funds from any bank branch to any individual having an account with any other bank branch in the country participating in the Scheme. NEFT transactions are settled in batches. There is no lower or upper limit of funds for NEFT transactions. (However, in case of RTGS funds transfer, the minimum lower limit is fixed at Rs. 2 lakh and no upper limit).

(b) While using ATM, the following precautions should be taken:

  1. Do transaction yourself.
  2. Insert the card in card slot properly.
  3. While typing the password, take care that no one is looking at your fingers.
  4. When the transaction is completed, press Cancel button.

(c) Health insurance is a type of insurance coverage that covers the cost of an insured individual’s medical and surgical expenses. Depending on the type of health insurance coverage, either the insured pays costs out of pocket and receives reimbursement, or the insurer makes payments directly to the health service provider.

(d) Internet fraud is a fraud committed on the Internet, using the Internet and by means of the Internet. Internet fraud is the use of Internet services or software with Internet access to defraud victims or to otherwise take advantage of them. Frequent instances of Internet fraud include business fraud, credit card fraud, internet auction fraud, investment schemes.

Cyber fraud refers to any type of deliberate deception for unfair or unlawful gain that occurs online. The most common form is online credit card theft. Other common forms of monetary cyber fraud include non-delivery of paid products purchased through online auctions and non-delivery of merchandise or software bought online. Cyber fraud also refers to data break-ins, identity theft and cyber bullying, all of which are seriously damaging.

(e) Features of Environment Protection Act, 1986 are :

  • To take all necessary measures for protecting quality of environment.
  • Lay down standards for discharge of environmental pollutants.
  • Empower any person to enter, inspect, take samples and test.
  • Establish or recognize environmental laboratories.
  • Lay down safeguards for prevention of accidents and take remedial measures in case of such accidents.
  • Lay down procedures and safeguards for handling hazardous substances.

Section – B (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
(a) State any five expectations of employers from a business enterprise. (5)
(b) Briefly discuss any five advantages of E-commerce over traditional methods of transactions. (5)
Answer:
(a) Expectations of the employers are :

  1. Employees should be dependable and should keep secrecy of the business.
  2. Employees should achieve sales targets of the business firm.
  3. Employees should achieve profits for the firm.
  4. They expect quick learning on the part of their employees.
  5. Employers expect feedback of the products or services supplied by the business firm.

(b)

  1. Anytime, Anywhere Services : Internet technology is available anywhere, anytime, i.e. 24 hours service across the world.
  2. Cost Effective : E-commerce transactions lead to reduction in cost by sending e-mail etc.
  3. Online Marketing: It is buying and selling of goods on internet.
  4. Way of Information : Important information about consumer needs can be gathered with the use of e-commerce technology.
  5. Effective Advertisement : E-commerce is also a source of advertisement. Through internet a seller can give information to the consumer about its product.
  6. Instant Services: E-commerce provides promptness in service through which customers can get information in seconds while sitting in home or office.
  7. No need for Middleman : E-commerce does not require involvement of any middlemen, as there is direct contact between buyer and seller.
  8. World Level Expansion : Business has expanded many times through global reach of internet.
  9. Multiple Models of Business : E-commerce serves as a medium of interaction between customer to customer (C2C), between business to consumer (B2C), business to business (B2B) etc.

ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 6.
(a) What is an Advertising Agency? Explain any two of its functions. (5)
(b) Explain any five rights enjoyed by consumers as per The Consumer Protection Act, 1986. (5)
Answer:
(a) Advertising agency is an independent service-rendering organization. It delivers various services and performs many functions for its clients, who are advertisers. It is mainly involved in activities like planning, preparing and placing of ads in media. It also performs non-advertising functions for them. It offers them advisory and creative services. It does so to make a profit.

Functions:

(i) Media selection : Advertising agency helps an advertiser to select a proper media (ad platform) to promote his advertisement effectively. Media selection is a highly specialized function of an ad agency. It must select the most suitable media for its client’s ad. It must choose media, which has a potential to give best results for the lowest cost. It must select more than one media for the ad. For example, an advertisement can be put on television, the internet, newspapers, magazines, etc. After selecting the media, the ad agency must maintain goods contacts with the media.

(ii) Sales promotion: Advertising agency performs sales promotion. It helps an advertiser to introduce sales promotion measures for the dealers and consumers. This helps to increase the sales of the product.

(b) Consumers’ rights under section-6 of the consumer protection act are as follows :

(1) Right to Safety : A consumer has the right to safety against such goods and services as are hazardous to his health, life and property.
For example, spurious and substandard drugs; appliances made of low quality raw material, such as, electric press, pressure cooker, etc. and low quality food products like bread, milk, jam, butter, etc. The consumers have the right to safety against the loss caused by such products.

(2) Right to be Informed/Right to Representation : A consumer has also the right that he should be provided with all the information on the basis of which he decides to buy goods or services. Such information relate to quality, purity, potency, standard, date of manufacture, method of use, etc. of the commodity. Thus, a producer is required to provide all such information in a proper manner, so the consumer is not cheated.

(3) Right to Choose: A consumer has the absolute right to buy any goods or services of his choice from among the different goods or services available in the market. In other words, no seller can influence his choice in an unfair manner. If any seller does so, it will be deemed as interference in his right to choice.

(4) Right to be Heard: A consumer has the right that his complaint be heard. Under this right, the consumer can file a complaint against all those things which are prejudicial to his interest. First, their rights mentioned above (Right to Safety; Right to be informed and Right to choose) have relevance only if the consumer has the right to file his complaint against them. These days, several large organizations have set up Consumer Service Cells with a view to providing the consumer the right to be heard.

The function of the cell is to hear the complaints of the consumers and to take adequate measures to redress them. Many daily newspapers have also special columns to entertain the complaints of the consumers.

(5) Right to Seek Redressal : This right provides compensation to the consumers against unfair trade practice of the seller. For instance, if the quantity and quality of the product do not conform to those promised by the seller, the buyer has the right to claim compensation.

Several redressals are available to the consumer by way of compensation, such as free repair of the product, taking back of the product with refund of money, changing of the product by the seller.

Question 7.
(a) What is a Capital Market? Explain any two of its functions. (5)
(b) Explain any five objectives of Industrial Relations. (5)
Answer:
(а) The capital market is a market for financial assets which have a long or indefinite maturity. Capital market involves various instruments which can be used for financial transactions. Capital market provides long term debt and equity finance for the government and the corporate sector. Capital market can be classified into primary and secondary markets. The primary market is a market for new shares, where as in the secondary market the existing securities are traded. Capital market institutions provide rupee loans, foreign exchange loans, consultancy services and underwriting.

Functions of the capital market:

  1. Mobilization of Savings : Capital market is an important source for mobilizing idle savings from the economy. It mobilizes funds from people for further investments in the productive channels of an economy. In that sense it activate the ideal monetary resources and puts them in proper investments.
  2. Capital Formation : Capital market helps in capital formation. Capital formation is net addition to the existing stock of capital in the economy. Through mobilization of ideal resources it generates savings; the mobilized savings are made available to various segments such as agriculture, industry, etc. This helps in increasing capital formation.

(b) The main objectives of industrial relations are :

  • To safeguard the interest of labour and management by securing the highest level of mutual understanding and goodwill among all those sections in the industry which participate in the process of production.
  • To avoid industrial conflict or strife and develop harmonious relations, which are an essential factor in the productivity of workers and the industrial progress of a country.
  • To raise productivity to a higher level in an era of full employment by lessening the tendency to high turnover and frequency absenteeism.
  • To establish and promote the growth of an industrial democracy based on labour partnership in the sharing of profits and of managerial decisions, so that ban individuals personality may grow its full stature for the benefit of the industry and of the country as well.
  • To eliminate or minimize the number of strikes and lockouts by providing reasonable wages, improved living and working conditions, said fringe benefits.
  • To improve the economic conditions of workers in the existing state of industrial managements and political government.

Question 8.
(a) Explain the ‘Clearing House Function ’ of the Central Bank. (5)
(b) Explain any five disadvantages of Air Transport. (5)
Answer:
(a) Central bank also acts as a clearing house for the settlement of accounts of commercial banks. A clearing house is an organization where mutual claims of banks on one another are offset, and a settlement is made by the payment of the difference. Central bank being a bankers’ bank keeps the cash balances of commercial banks and as such it becomes easier for the member banks to adjust or settle their claims against one another through the central bank.

Suppose there are two banks, they draw cheques on each other. Suppose Bank A has to take Rs. 3,000 from bank B and has to pay Rs. 4,000 to B. At the clearing house, mutual claims are offset and bank A pays the balance of Rs. 1,000 to B and the account is settled. Clearing house function of the central bank leads to a good deal of economy in the use of cash and much of labour and inconvenience are avoided.

(b)

  1. High Costs : Air transport is a costly service. Its operational costs are too high. Middle class and poor people cannot affect its cash.
  2. Transportation : Transportation of all materials is not permissible by Air transport. Travellers cannot carry liquids, sharp objects while travelling.
  3. Huge Investments : For creating aviation facilities, huge investments are required. The cost of aeroplanes, construction and maintenance of aerodromes and control mechanism needs a capital expenditure.
  4. Unreliable : Most of the air transports are uncertain and the unreliable because these are controlled by weather condition. It is seriously affected by adverse weather-conditions. Fog, snow and heavy rain weather may cause cancellation of some flights.
  5. Small Carrying Capacity: The air crafts have small carrying capacity and therefore these are not suitable for carrying bulky and cheaper goods. The load capacity cannot be increased as it is found in case of rails.

Question 9.
(a) Explain the following Principles of Insurance : (5)
(i) Doctrine of Subrogation
(ii) Mitigation of Loss
(b) Explain briefly any five functions of Central Pollution Control Board’. (5)
Answer:
(a) (i) The doctrine of subrogation provides that if an insurer pays a loss to its insured due to the wrongful act of another, the insurer is subrogated to the rights of the insured and may prosecute a suit against the wrongdoer for recovery of its outlay.

(ii) In general, mitigation means to minimize degree of any loss or harm. In insurance contracts, various clauses and conditions are specified so as to ensure minimum losses to the insurer. The actuaries are entrusted with the responsibility of underwriting the insurance policy. They employ a variety of quantitative techniques in order to assess the risk associated with the insured and decide the appropriate premiums commensurate with the risk. The primary objective of the exercise is to mitigate the risk ingrained with the insured.

ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b)

  • Advise the Central Government on any matter concerning prevention and control of water and air pollution and improvement of the quality of air.
  • Plan and cause to be executed a nation-wide program for the prevention, control or abatement of water and air pollution.
  • Co-ordinate the activities of the State Board and resolve disputes among them.
  • Provide technical assistance and guidance to the State Boards, carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of water and air pollution, and for their preventioñ, control or abatement.
  • Plan and organize training of persons engaged in program on the prevention, control or abatement of water and air pollution.
  • Organize through mass media, a comprehensive mass awareness program on the prevention, control or abatement of water and air pollution.
  • Collect, compile and publish technical and statistical data relating to water and air pollution and the measures devised for their effective prevention, control or abatement.

Question 10.
The following is the Trial Balance of ABC Industries as on 31
Trial Balance of ABC Industries as on 31.12.2015
ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1
ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 2
The closing stock was valued at ₹ 9,000.
You are required to prepare a Trading Account and a Profit and Loss Account for the year ending 31st December 2015 and a Balance Sheet as on 31st December, 2015.
Answer:
ABC INDUSTRIES
Trading and Profit % Loss Account for the year ended 31-12-2015
ICSE 2019 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 3

ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2018 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2018 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Distinguish between:
(a) Consumer goods and Industrial goods. (2)
(b) Shut down costs and Sunk costs. (2)
(c) Standardisation and Grading (2)
(d) Savings Account and Current Account (2)
(e) Downward Communication and Upward Communication (2)
Answer:
(a) Difference between Consumer goods and Industrial goods.

Consumer Goods

Industrial Goods

Consumer goods are those goods which are directly used by the ultimate consumers or households. Industrial goods are those goods which are purchased for use in manufacturing other goods.

(b) Difference between Shut down costs and Sunk costs.

Shut Down Costs

Sunk Costs

A business firm may have to suspend its operations for a period due to some temporary problems e.g., shortage of raw-material. Sunk costs are historical or past costs which cannot be changed by any future decisions e.g., Investment in plant and machinery.

(c) Difference between Standardisation and Grading.

Standardisation

Grading

Standardisation refers to the process of setting up basic measures or standards to which the products must conform and taking steps to ensure that it actually adhere to standards. Grading is the process of sorting individual units of a product into well defined classes or grades of quality.

(d) Difference between Savings Account and Current

Savings Account

Current Account

Interest is allowed at a rate lower than in fixed deposit account but higher than in current account. No interest is allowed on this account as the costs of operations are high.

(e) Difference between Downward Communication and Upward Communication.

Downward
Communication

Upward
Communication

The flow of comm-unication from the top management down- wards to the operating level. The flow of commu­nication from the operating level upwar-ds to top management, are high.

ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 2.
(a) Why is brand loyalty considered an asset for the company ? (2)
(b) How does ‘Status barrier ’ affect Effective Communica-tion? (2)
(c) What do you mean by ‘Indirect material ’ ? Give two examples. (2)
(d) ‘Selection is a negative process. ‘Explain. (2)
(e) Explain ‘Contribution’as a principle of insurance. (2)
Answer:
(a) Brand loyalty is considered an asset for the company because:

  1. it helps to reduce costs of marketing.
  2. it enables the company to charge higher prices than competing brands.
  3. it gets support and cooperation from distribution channels.

(b) Status means the position of a person in the hierarchy of an organisation. In this barrier, the superior may pass selected information to his subordinates in order to maintain status difference. This will cause distortion in effective communication.

(c) Indirect materials are those materials which cannot be directly assigned to the specific product but which can be apportioned. It is used in the factory, office or selling and distribution division.
For example : oil lubricants, nails, stationary material, cotton waste etc.

(d) ‘Selectionisanegativeprocess’. Selection is the process of choosing individuals who have the requisite qualifications to fill the jobs. Selection is a negative process because it is process of rejecting many unsuitable candidates to choose the few suitable applicants. The number of candidates rejected are much more than those actually selected.

(e) Contribution means the right of an insurer who has paid claim under an insurance policy to call upon other insurers to contribute to the payment. The principle of contribution is applicable when the following conditions are satisfied:

  1. insured must be same person
  2. covers the same risk
  3. total amount of compensation under all policies must not exceed the amount of loss.

Question 3.
(a) Mention any two utilities of a Budget. (2)
(b) Name and explain the type of training designed to correct mistakes. (2)
(c) What is meant by ‘Capital Receipts ’? (2)
(d) State any two advantages of Travellers ’cheques. (2)
(e) Briefly describe the role of Marketing Research. (2)
Answer:
(a) Budgets are very useful in management. Two utilities of budgets are as follows :

  1. Delegation and Authority : According to ‘Koontz and O’Donnell’, “Reduction of plans to definite numbers, forces a kind of orderliness that permits the managers to see clearly what capital will be spent by whom, and where and what expense, revenue or units of physical input or output his plans will involve.”
  2. Higher Efficiency : Budgets bring efficiency and economy to the working of a business firm. This will help management in obtaining the most profitable combination of different factors of production.

(b) Types of training :

  1. Induction Training: It is process of introducing and familiarising new employees to the organisation so that they may adjust quickly and easily in their new environment.
  2. Vestibule Training: In this method, a training centre called vestibule is set up. Expert trainers are employed to provide training. As the training is conducted away from the actual workplace, the trainees can fully concentrate on learning.

(c) Capital Receipts refers to the receipts of a non-recurring nature such as additional capital from owners, loans raised by the firm. Some examples of capital receipts are :

  1. Amount received from the sale of furniture.
  2. Government grants and endowments.
  3. Capital raised by an issue of shares and debentures.

(d) The advantages of Traveller’s cheques are given below :

  1. The set value of traveller’s cheque helps to maintain a budget.
  2. It is readily accepted in many locations and by many merchants.
  3. There is no need to find a bank or money exchange location to convert or withdraw funds.
  4. Lost or stolen traveller’s cheques may be easier and faster to replace than a lost or stolen credit card.

(e) Marketing research provides information which is very helpful in taking right decisions about the various elements of marketing mix.

  1. Marketing research is a tool for enhancing the marketing plans, policies and prog-rammes.
  2. It helps to measure market potential. It tells the management where the company stands in industry.
  3. It is useful in making better choice of distribution channels and advertising media.

ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 4.
(a) Why is Financing an essential function of Marketing ? (2)
(b) Explain any two advantages of Rail Transport. (2)
(c) Explain the Right to Consumer Education under the Indian Consumer Protection Act. (2)
(d) State any four sustainable uses of Water. (2)
(e) “Both, conservation and restoration of natural resources or ecology cannot be possible without public awareness and community participation Comment. (2)
Answer:
(a) Financing is an essential though auxiliary function of marketing. Finance is required to meet fixed and working capital requirement of the business. Business firms often sell goods on credit to merchants and customers to increase the volume of sales. So, funds are required to keep stock, to meet transport, storage and to grant credit.

(b) The advantages of Rail Transport are :

  1. Railways are more reliable because they follow fixed routes, have regular time schedules and are available throughout the year.
  2. It is very cheaper means for carrying bulky goods over long distance.
  3. It can carry a much larger quantity of goods than motor vehicles.
  4. The freight charges are fixed and do not change frequently.

(c) According to this right, the consumer must be made aware of his rights and the remedies available under the different laws. The consumer has the right to acquire knowledge and to be well informed throughout life. He should be informed of the negative impacts of consuming adulterated products. When they know about the rights and duties only then they will prevented from exploitation.

(d) The various sustainable uses of water are :

  1. Use drip irrigation and other water conservation measures in agriculture.
  2. Protect water in water bodies from effluents and toxic materials.
  3. Build small reservoirs in place of a few big projects.
  4. Check over exploitation of surface and ground water.

(e) Conservation is the planned management of our surrounding to prevent its exploitation or destruction. Whereas restoration means recreation and enhancement of natural resources.
People will conserve and restore natural resources only when they are sensitive to the environment and realise the importance of ecological balance. Well informed citizens and environmentalists have the duty to take the initiative in making the common man aware of the need for ecological restoration and conservation.

Section – B (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
(a) Explain any five expectations of Suppliers from a business organisation. (5)
(b) Explain any five merits of Written Commun-ication to a business organisation. (5)
Answer:
(a) Various expectations of suppliers are :

  1. Reasonable terms of delivery and payment.
  2. Healthy and co-operative inter-business relationship.
  3. Regular and timely payment according to credit terms.
  4. Correct information about the company’s financial position.
  5. Fair prices for the supplies.

(b) The five merits of written communication to a business organisation are:

  1. Authoritative: Written communication appears to be more authoritative and formal. It is more credible in the eyes of the receiver. There is fixed responsibility for mistake in communication.
  2. Permanent Record : It provides a perma-nent record for future reference and as legal evidence. Contents can be easily verified.
  3. Uniformity : Written communication ensures transmission of information in uniform manner. The receiver can read and re-read the message until he understands it.
  4. Accuracy : It tends to more accurate and precise because written messages are prepared more carefully.
  5. Lengthy Messages : It is suitable for conveying lengthy messages and when a well considered response is desired.

ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 6.
(a) Mention five differences between Advertising and Personal Selling (Salesmanship).
(b) Explain any five techniques used in Sales Promotion.
Answer:
(a) Difference between Advertising and Personal Selling:

Basis Advertising

Personal selling

1. Aim Its aim is to create customer. Its aim is to make sales.
2. Flexible It is less flexible. It is more flexible.
3. Number of Persons Con-tacted It involves contact with a large number of persons. It involves contact with a limited number of persons.

 

4. Payment Direct payment for each advertisement. No direct payment for each contact.
5. Nature of corn

munication

There is no face to face contact. There is a face to face interaction with

customers.

(b) There are various techniques of sales promotion which are as follows:

  1. Bonus offers: It is the offer of an article free of cost or at nominal price on the purchase of a specified product. it is a practical persuasion to buy that helps to increase immediate sales and to clear accumulate stock.
  2. Exchange offer: In this method, customers are offered the facility of exchanging old products with the new one. For example, LG Ltd. offered to customers of washing machine that they could exchange their old washing machine and thereby pay less upto ₹ 5000 on the new one.
  3.  Coupons : Some organisations issue coupons to prospective buyers through newspapers, direct mail, dealers, package and door-to-door salesman. Coupons are used to introduce new products and to increase sales of established products.
  4. Clearance sale : Sales at reduced prices may be organised at important festivals or other occasions. For example, Khadi Gramodyog Bhavan offers special discount on Khadi products.
  5. Distribution of free samples : Free samples are distributed to selected people to gain consumer acceptance and to popularise the product. This is the effective technique for sale promotion as consumers can test the product before buying it.

Question 7.
(a) Briefly explain the importance of A.farketing. (5)
(b) Explain: (5)
(i) Bank Draft
(ii) Indemnity as a principle of insurance
Answer:
(a) Marketing is important for the following reasons :

  1. Large scale production : Marketing makes selling possible and thereby facilitates large scale production. This will reduce the cost of production and helps to expand the business.
  2. Income generation: Business can generate income to meet its expenses and earn more profits with the help of marketing. The survival and growth of a company depends upon the effectiveness and efficiency of marketing.
  3. Higher standard of living : Marketing modernised the living standards of people through the supply of quality products at reasonable prices. It is very helpful in improving the standard of living of people by offering a wide variety of goods and services with freedom of choice.
  4. Customer satisfaction: Marketing helps to identify and satisfy the needs and wants of consumers. Modem marketing begins and ends with the customers.
  5. Economic development : It makes the economy strong by balancing production with consumption. It also gives a boost to banking, insurance, transportation etc. to keeps the economy moving ahead.

(b)

(i) Bank Draft: Bank draft is a type of cheque which is drawn by a bank either on its own branch or on another bank. In order to remit money through a bank draft, a person first obtains the bank draft from the bank. The draft commission is paid in advance by the sender of the bank draft. The payment of an uncrossed bank draft can be collected at the counter of the bank on which it is drawn.

(ii) Indemnity : Indemnity means a promise to compensate in case of loss. The insured is entitled to recover from the insurer only the amount of loss actually suffered. The insured will not be allowed to make any profit out of the happening of any loss covered by insurance contract. For example, Aman has insured his house for ₹ 20,00,000. Due to a fire Aman’s house is destroyed but Aman has been able to salvage household goods worth ₹ 1,00,000. Aman will be compensated upto ₹ 19,00,000.

ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 8.
(a) Briefly explain any five types of Budgets. (5)
(b) Describe the role of Trade Union in a business concern. (5)
Answer:
(a) Various types of budgets are as follows :

(i) Sales Budget: It is laid down the revenue goals of the enterprise. It is a forecast of sales to be achieved, during a specified period in future. It also shows the break-up of total sales productwise, territorywise and monthwise. Some factors should be taken into consideration while preparing the sales budget:

  • Salesman’s estimates
  • General trade prospects
  • Availability of materials
  • Potential market

(ii) Materials Budget : Cost of production includes materials, labour and overheads. The material budget is generally prepared only for direct materials. The following are the steps for preparing material budget:

  • Estimate the raw-material require- ment.
  • Schedule the purchases of raw materials in required quantities.
  • Controlling the inventory of raw materials.

(iii) Cash Budget : It is the summary statement of the firms expected inflows and outflows of cash over a future time period. It is helpful in determining the future cash requirements as well as exercising control over cost and liquidity of the firm.

(iv) Production Budget: It contains the estimate of the total volume of production productwise and week or monthwise. It is prepared to plan and organise the production programme for achieving the sales target. A well planned production programme is required to ensure sufficient stock for sales, to keep inventory within reasonable limits.

(v) Master Budget: It is the summary of all budgets. It is incorporating its component functional budgets, which is finally approved, adopted and employed. This budget requires the approval of the Budget Committee before it is put into operation.

(b) Trade Union play role in business firms by following ways:

  1. Protection: Trade union resist retrenchment of their members and help to ensure steady employment for workers. It safeguard workers against all sorts of exploitation by the employer and political parties. Union serve as a check on arbitrary action by employers.
  2. Representation : Trade union represent working class in various national and international forums such as Indian Labour Conference and International Labour Organisation.
  3. Sense of Belongingness : Trade unions generate a spirit of self-respect and self-reliance among workers. A ordinary worker has little sense of belongingness in modem industry. He can gain social respect by joining a union.
  4. Participation : Trade unions work for achieving a better say of workers in the management of matters which directly influence the interests of workers.
  5. Education : Unions make workers conscious of their rights and duties and aware of the need for technological changes. Trade unions make arrangements for the education of workers and their family members.

Question 9.
(a) Explain any five advantages of air transport over water transport. (5)
(b) What do you mean by Group Life Insurance ? Explain three main features of Group Life Insurance.(5)
Answer:
(a) The following are advantages of air transport over water transport:

  1. Natural gift : The sky is a gift of nature and an aeroplane can fly through space without any hindrance. Air transport does not require large investment for construction of tracks.
  2. Highest speed : Air transport is best suited for perishable and other goods requiring immediate or prompt delivery. It is by far the fastest mode of transport. People can easily move from one place to other place which saves the valuable time for busy businessmen.
  3. Suitable : Air transport is suitable for light goods of high value. During natural calamities such as earthquakes, floods, it is the only mode of transport which can provide relief assistance to the victims.
  4. Efficient Service: Air transport provides regular and efficient service. During emergencies, deviation from normal route can be made.
  5. Shortest Route: An Air transport adopts shortest route and can reach places inaccessible by other means of transport. It can fly over deserts, high seas, forests and mountains.

(b) Group Life Insurance is a scheme which provides insurance cover on the lives of several persons under one insurance policy. It is provided to all employees without any evidence of insurability. For the insurance company, cost of administration is low as only one policy is issued for several persons. in case of injury or death to an employee, the claim received by the employer is paid to the employee. The main features of Group Life Insurance are:

  1. Group Life Insurance is basically a contract between the insurance company and employer. The policy issued to the employer is called master contract.
  2. The amount of premium is payable at a flat rate without any regard of the age and salary of the employees.
  3. It provides risk coverage to the employees as long as they remain in the service of the employer.

ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 10.
The Trial Balance given below was prepared by Pratim Pal on 31st December 2000. Prepare a Trading Account and a Profit and Loss Account Jòr the year ending 31st December 2000 and Balance Sheet as on 31st December 2000.
TRIA L BALANCE
ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1
Closing stock was valued at ₹ 3140/- on 31st December 2000.
Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ending 31st Dec. 2000
ICSE 2018 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 2

ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2017 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2017 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Distinguish between :
(a) Internal and External stakeholders (2)
(b) Direct Costs and Indirect Costs (2)
(c) Private warehouse and Public warehouse (2)
(d) Recruitment and Selection (2)
(e) Overdraft and Cash credit (2)
Answer:
(a)

Basis of Difference Internal Stakeholders

External Stakeholders

1. Meaning

 

Internal stakeholders are those individuals and groups who influence the enterprise from inside or within. They are the members of the organisation. External stakeholders are those individuals and groups who are a part of the firms external environment. They are not its members.
2. Constituents They consists of employees and employers (owners and managers). They consist of suppliers, customers, competitors government etc.

(b)

Basis of Difference

Direct Costs

Indirect Costs

1. Relationship Directly and wholly related to a particular unit or centre of cost. Not directly and wholly related to a particular unit or centre of cost.
2. Components (a) Direct Material;
(b) Direct Labour;
(c) Direct Expenses.
(a) Indirect Materials;

(b) Indirect Labour;

(c) Indirect Expenses.

3. Examples Sugarcane used in a sugar mill etc. Fuel, wages of store keeper etc.

(c)

Basis of Difference Private warehouse

Public warehouse

1. Meaning Private warehouses are owned  by manufactures and traders to store the goods produced or purchased by them until they are sold out. Public warehouses may be owned by Government, Public trusts and other public authorities.
2. Location Private warehouses are generally located in rural and sub-urban areas where space is available at low cost. Public warehouses are located in places which are well connected by roads, railways etc.

ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d)

Basis of Difference

Recruitment

Selection

1. Meaning It involves searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs. It involves comparing and choosing suitable candidates.
2. Objective To create a pool of  candidates. To choose the right person for every job.

(e)

Basis of Difference

Overdraft

Cash credit

1. Eligibility Only current account holders are eligible for overdraft. Persons/organisations not holding current accounts are eligible for cash credit.
2. Period It is for few days. It is for a longer period.

Question 2.
(a) What is Survey Method of Marketing Research ? Give one reason why it is mostly used. (2)
(b) Why should ‘Non-Trading Organisations ’maintain books of accounts ? Name the accounts prepared by them. (2)
(c) Give any four examples of Public awareness programmes organized for a better environ- ment. (2)
(d) State any two expectations of the Associates from a business enterprise. (2)
(e) What do you mean by ‘Semantic barrier ’ ? (2)
Answer:
(a) SURVEY METHOD : Survey method involves getting answers to specific questions from the entire market or a representative sample of it. A Survey is a detailed enquiry to collect information from either the entire universe or a part of it. Survey method involves the preparation and use of questionnaire (a list of questions) and therefore, it is also known as ‘QUESTIONNAIRE METHOD’. Survey is the most widely used method of collecting data due to it provides both quantitative as well as qualitative information and can be used to obtain both facts and opinions.

(b) Non-Profit Organisations need to prepare certain financial statements to know the surplus or deficit during the year and financial position at the end of the year. Non-Trading Organisations prepare the following accounts and statements:

  1. Receipts and Payments Acco+unts
  2. Income and Expenditure Accounts and
  3. Balance Sheet.

(c) Examples of Public awareness programmes organized for a better environment are as follows :

  1. Chipko Andolan (Movement)
  2. Beej Bachao Andolan (Save the seeds movement)
  3. Ganga Action Plan
  4. Ralegan Siddhi

(d) Expectations of Associates from a business enterprise are as follows:

  1. They expect fair trade practices regarding price, quality and service.
  2. They expect an atmosphere of healthy competition and ethical behaviour.
  3. They expect coordination among competitors to ensure the growth of the entire industry.

(e) SEMANTIC BARRIER : Semantics is the science of meaning. The same words and symbols may carry different meanings to different people. Communication breaks down when the sender and the receiver of the message use words and symbols in different senses. Sometimes, the language used by the sender may not be

Question 3.
(a) What are convenience products ? Give any two examples. (2)
(b) What is semi-variable cost ? Give one example. (2)
(c) What is meant by ‘Revenue Expenditure? (2)
(d) What is Direct Mail advertising ? Give any two advantages of it. (2)
(e) State two disadvantages of internal recruitment. (2)
Answer:
(a) CONVENIENCE GOODS : These are the products which consumers purchases frequently and with minimum efforts. Bread, butter, milk, toothpaste, soaps, newspaper etc., are the examples of convenience goods.

(b) SEMI-VARIABLE COSTS: The costs which vary with every increase or decrease in the volume of production but do not vary proportionately are called as semi-variable costs. Such costs contain fixed and variable elements. Because of the variable element, they fluctuate with volume and because of fixed element they do not change in direct proportion to output.
Depreciation, repairs etc., are the examples of the semi-variable costs.

(c) REVENUE EXPENDITURE : Revenue expenditure means the expenditure the benefit of which is exhausted
within the current year. Such expenditure is of a recurring nature and does not result in the acquisition of permanent assets. These expenditure are incurred for meeting day to day requirement of the business enterprise. All expenses incurred on day-to-day administration of a firm and the effect of which is completely exhausted within the current accounting are called revenue expenditure.
Examples of revenue expenditure are : rent; salaries ; wages etc.

ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) DIRECT MAIL ADVERTISING : In this medium, a mailing list of potential customers is prepared. The message is sent directly to individual customers through mail in the form of circular letters, booklets, leaflets, folders and catalogues which containing detailed information about the product are sent by post to these buyers.

Advantages of Direct Mail Advertising are :

  1. It is the most selective medium as the message is sent to selected persons directly.
  2. It has a personal touch since the message is addressed to a particular person.
  3. It ensures secrecy in advertising since the competitors do not get the information contained in the message.

(e) Disadvantages of internal recruitment are :

  1. LIMITED CHOICE : Internal recruitment restricts the choice of management. The existing employees may not be suitable for higher positions. Competent and deserving candidates from outside do not get the opportunity to be considered for these posts.
  2. INBREEDING: When all higher level vacancies are filled in by promoting present employees, new ideas and fresh thinking may not enter the organisation.

Question 4.
(a) Mention any two qualities of a good salesman. (2)
(b) Distinguish between Gratuity and Provident Fund. (2)
(c) What is a bonded warehouse ? (2)
(d) What do you mean by Mural advertising ? (2)
(e) Mention any two main advantages of group life insurance to employees and employers. (2)
Answer:
(a) Qualities of a good salesman are :

  1. KNOWLEDGEABLE : A good salesman should possess knowledge about his organisation, product, market, customer and competitor. He should have knowledge about the customer related to his habits, tastes, preferences and time of buying so that the repeated sales can be made.
  2. COMMUNICATION SKILLS : Communication skills is an asset for the salesman. He should be able to speak freely, clearly and in a well-pitched voice. He must be a person who has a natural ability for conversation.

(b)

Basis of Difference Gratuity

Provident Fund

1. Contributions The employee makes no contributions Both the employee and the employer make regular contributions.
2. Investment No specific investment. The amount is specifically invested and earns interest.
3. Payment Payable only at the time of retirement. A part of the amount can be withdrawn during service for specified purposes.

(c) BONDED WAREHOUSE : A Bonded warehouse is established under a bond with the customs authorities for storage of duitable goods till the payment of import duty. The owner of a bonded warehouse gives on undertaking not to release the goods until the customs duty is paid. Bonded warehouse are located in port towns and are licensed by the Government. These warehouses operate under the vigilance of customs officials.

(d) MURAL ADVERTISING : Mural advertising is also known as Outdoor advertising. This is the oldest medium of advertising and continues to be popular in spite of new media. It consists of the use of posters, billboards, electric displays etc. Posters are pasted on walls at important public places to convey the message to the people passing by such places. Sign boards or painted boards are displayed on buses, railways, carriages and public vehicles. Loudspeakers, travelling announcers sky writings, handbills etc., are examples of outdoor advertising or mural advertising.

(e) Advantages of Group Life Insurance to employees and employers are as follows :

  1. Group life insurance is economical for employees as they have to pay low premium in comparison with individual life policies.
  2. Group life insurance is also economical and convenient for the employer as he can meet his obligation out of money received from insurance company in case of an employee’s death.

Section – B (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
(a) Explain any five measures taken to overcome barriers of communication. (5)
(b) Explain expectations of the Government from a business organisation. (5)
Answer:
(a) Following are the measures taken to overcome the barriers of communication:

  1. Well Drafted Message : The message to be transmitted must be clear and concise. It is very essential to know the audience for whom the message is meant. The message should be adequate and appropriate for the purpose of communication.
  2. Proper language: The message should be expressed in simple and easily understood language. The words and symbols used to convey the message should match the reference and understanding of the receiver. This will help to minimise the semantic barrier.
  3. Consistency : Communication should be consistent with the goals and policies of the organisation. There should be no contradiction between words and actions.
  4. Gestures and tone : Words in the message must be reinforced through appropriate gestures or facial expressions. The tone used should take into account the physical environment and human conditions.
  5. Feedback : Communication is complete when the response or reaction of the receiver becomes known to the sender. Therefore, the receiver should be encouraged to express his reactions. The feedback should be analysed and used to improve future communications.

ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Every Stakeholder group expects something from a business organisation. The expectations of Government are as follows:

  1. They expect to follow the laws and regulations of the country.
  2. They expect to pay all taxes honestly, regularly and in time.
  3. They expect to avoid corrupting public servants.
  4. They expect to make proper use of scarce resources.
  5. They expect to assists in solving national problems, like poverty, unemployment, unbalanced regional growth etc.
  6. They expect to avoid monopoly and concentration of economic power.

Question 6.
(a) ‘Advertisement is a social waste.’
– In this context explain the demerits of advertisement: (5)
(b) What is ‘standardization ’ of products ? List any three benefits of standardization. (5)
Answer:
(a) Although advertising has a lot of benefits, it has been criticised on the following grounds :

  1. Higher Prices : Advertising increases prices of products to consumers because the expenses incurred on advertisements are passed on to consumers. However, advertising may not increase prices if it leads to large scale production.
  2. Creation of Monopoly : Big firms spend huge amount of money on advertising. Small firms cannot compete with them and ultimately fail. As a result, big firms become monopolies and use their monopoly power to exploit consumers.
  3. Wastage of Resources: Money spent on advertising is sheer waste because it does not add to the utility of products and services. Most of the advertisements are either ignored or escape the attention of consumers. Advertisements do not create new demand but only shift demand from one product to another.
  4. Misleads the Consumer : It is said that advertising is often deceptive and misrepresents facts to the consumer. Exaggerated or tall claims and every language are used to dupe unwary consumers. They are induced or defrauded through bogus testimonials and false comparisons to buy goods of doubtful value.
  5. Undermines Social Values : Modem advertising exerts such a corrupting in uence on cultural and social life that it is not only wasteful but immoral. Many advertisements are highly objectionable and socially undesirable as they encourage social evils like drinking and smoking. To some extent advertising spoils the landscape and diverts attention of drivers. Some advertisements may really be in poor taste but majority of them help to improve social standards.

(b) STANDARDIZATION OF PRODUCTS :

Standardization refers to the process of setting up basic measures or standards to which the products must conform and taking steps to ensure that the goods actually produced adhere to these standards. In standardization, the product contains certain desirable qualities like durability, safety, utility and special features such as design, weight, colour and size. Standardization facilitates the purchasing and selling of the products. Goods are sold by description. In India, ISI mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standard guarantees the quality of the product.

Benefits of Standardization are :

  1. They facilitate buying and selling of goods by sample or description. When goods are of standardised quality, customers do not insist on detailed inspection.
  2. Standardised goods sell better and fetch a better price to the seller because customers have more faith in them.
  3. Standardised goods enjoy a wider market.
  4. Standardisation help in raising finance because standardised products enjoy a ready market and they are readily accepted as a collateral security for granting loans.

Question 7.
(a) Explain any two methods of ‘Off-the-job training’. (5)
(b) Explain any five functions of the Central Bank of India. (5)
Answer:
(a) Off-the-Job Training : When an employee is trained outside the job, it is called off-the-job training.
Various methods of off-the-job training are :

(i) Internship Training: This is a joint programme of training in which business houses collaborate with technical institutions Internship training involves a balance between theory and practice. The trainees are given theoretical instructions in technical institutions. After completing theoretical learning, they receive practical training in factories and offices. This method is used in medical, accountancy and legal professions. It is very useful for technical and professional jobs which require advanced theoretical knowledge and practical experience on the job. But it is very time-consuming.

(ii) Vestibule Training : It is the most common off-the- job training method. Vestibule means a room between the outerdoor and the interior of a building. Workers are trained in a classroom or hall within the plant. A large number of workers are trained under the guidance of expert trainers. Special instructors teach the theoretical and practical aspects of the job. Same machines and equipments are used in the vestibule which are employed at the workplace. Vestibule method permits greater emphasis on teaching the best method of work. Trainees get accustomed to the work routine and can overcome initial nervousness before working on the actual job. Training does not hamper actual Work of production and trainees can better concentrate on learning. But vestibule training is very expensive.

(b) Functions of the Central Bank of India are :

(i) Issue of Currency Notes : The central bank has monopoly over issuing currency notes in the country. In order to inspire public confidence in paper currency, the central bank keeps reserves of gold, silver, etc., for issuing currency notes. Central bank is given monopoly of note issue in order to maintain uniformity in currency, to avoid over-issue and to lend prestige to the currency system.

(ii) Banker to the Government : The central bank acts as a banker, agent and advisor to the Government. As a banker, it receives and makes payments on behalf of the Government. The central bank serves as the Government’s agent in financial matters. It advises the Government in matters relating to monetary and banking policies. It manages the national debt and issue of Government securities. It also represents the Government in international conferences on monetary and banking matters.

(iii) Banker’s Bank : The central bank acts as the bank for all commercial banks in the country. When a commercial bank needs funds it can obtain loans and rediscount its bills with the central bank. Therefore, central bank is called ‘Lender of last resort’. Commercial banks are required to keep a cash reserve with the central bank so as to control credit in the country. The central bank advises commercial banks on matters relating to their business.

(iv) Credit Control : The central bank exercises both qualitative and quantitative control over credit granting capacity of commercial banks in order to maintain stability in prices and foreign exchange. In the absence of such control, commercial banks may lend too much or too little. They may lend to wrong parties or for unproductive purposes. They may also charge very high rates of interest.

(v) Custodian of Foreign Currency Reserves : The central bank is the sole custodian of gold, foreign exchange and all other reserves of the country. It manages these reserves judiciously so as to overcome difficulties in balance of payments and to stabilise the exchange rates.

(vi) Maintenance of Exchange Rate : The central bank monitors the exchange rate of the home currency in relation to foreign currencies. It tries to maintain stability in the exchange rate in order to promote the country’s foreign trade and to encourage the flow of foreign investment. The central bank buys and sells foreign currencies in order to maintain a stable exchange rate.

ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 8.
(a) Explain any five principles of Insurance. (5)
(b) Explain any five importance of warehousing. (5)
Answer:
(a) Principles of Insurance are as follows :

1. Utmost Good Faith (uberrimae fedie): The contract of insurance are based on the principle of utmost good faith. It implies that both the parties to the contract must disclose all material information truly and correctly. Misrepresentation or failure to reveal material information gives the aggrieved party the right to regard the contract as void.

2. Insurable Interest : Every insured person must have the insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. There can be no insurance if there is no insurable interest. Insurable interest implies monetary interest, without which no insurance contract is valid in the eye of law. Insurable interest is said to exist when the insured party is benefited by safety of the property and is prejudiced by its loss. If a person goes in for insurance without insurable interest in the insured commodity, the contract will be null and void.

3. Contract of Indemnity : The word ‘indemnity’ means security against loss. In other words, indemnity implies a promise to compensate in case of a loss. The principle of indemnity is applicable to all types of insurance policies, except life insurance. The insured will be compensated only up to the amount of loss suffered by him. The insured party cannot make a profit out of this insurance contract. An insured can get nothing more than the actual amount of the loss suffered. Here, the insurer undertakes to compensate the insured for the loss caused to him by the damage or destruction of the property insured. The principle of indemnity is applicable in case of fire insurance and marine insurance.

4. Doctrine of Subrogation: According to the doctrine of subrogation, after the insured is compensated for the loss caused by the damage to the property insured by him, the right of ownership of such property passes on to the insurer. It signifies that, if the insurer indemnifies the insured the loss in full, the insurer is entitled to recover any benefit due to the insured from a third party. If the insured party gets compensation for the loss suffered by him, he cannot claim the same amount of loss from any other party. If the insured claims compensation from both the sides, he will be in a better position than earlier. The principle of subrogation is applicable to fire insurance and marine insurance.

5. Causa Proxima (or proximate cause): Causa proxima means the nearest cause and not the remote cause to be looked into. Causes of loss may be of two kinds : (a) insured perils ; and (b) uninsured perils. The insurer is liable for a loss when such loss must have been proximately caused by the insured perils. The insurer is, in no case, liable to compensate for the damages arising directly or indirectly on uninsured perils. Suppose, a property is insured against fire, but it is damaged due to a road accident; in this case the insurance company is not responsible. Therefore, an insured can recover damages, if the cause is immediate or proximate to the loss.

(b) Importance of Warehousing are as follows :

1. Seasonal Production : Several commodities such as rice, wheat, sugar, etc., are produced during a particular season but they are consumed throughout the year. For example, potato is produced mostly in winter season but is demanded throughout the year. Perishable products like vegetables, fruits, eggs, butter etc. are stored in cold storage to make them available to consumers throughout the year.

2. Production in Anticipation of Demand : Factory goods are generally produced in anticipation of future demand. All the goods are not sold off as and when they are produced. They have to be kept in warehouses until the demand is created. Manufacturers store goods for wholesalers, wholesalers store goods for retailers and retailers store goods for consumers. Thus, need for warehousing arises at every stage in the process of marketing.

3. Storage of Raw Materials : Manufacturers have to store raw materials in order to ensure uninterrupted or regular production. Raw material prices are low during certain seasons. Manufacturers buy them in bulk and store them for use throughout the year.

4. Seasonal Demand : Some products such as electric fans, coolers, umbrellas, rain coats, woollen cloth, etc., are demanded in a particular season. But they are produced throughout the year. Such products have to be stored in warehouses so that the demand during the particular season can be met.

5. Stability in Prices : It is necessary to store goods to avoid violent fluctuations in prices. Producers and merchants can secure better prices by storing goods in warehouses.

Question 9.
(a) Discuss the role and concepts of Eco efficiency and Eco friendly technology. (5)
(b) “Budgets are useful for management”. Justify. (5)
Answer:
(a) Eco Efficiency : These are those technologies which help us to increase the productivity in less time. These also lower the cost that is involved in the production of the goods, products and services. In this, high efficiency production methods and technologies are used. Eco efficient technologies preserve natural resources, it also improve the industrial efficiency and the economic development.

Conceptually, Eco efficient technology is a “cleaner approach”. Eco efficiency provides both environmental and economic benefits through production efficiency.

  • It increase the resource productivity
  • Reduce the material and energy usage
  • Reduce pollution
  • Increase service intensity of goods and services
  • Improve recyclability of materials

Eco-Friendly Technology : This technology can help to preserve the environment through energy efficiency and reducing the harmful waste. It does not have any negative effect on ecology or on the natural environment. This technology mainly involves reduction in the usage amount of raw material and energy. It also reduce pollution, recycle material. By using renewable material it ensure that goods are durable and judicious and we should use these resources by keeping in mind their effects on the future.

Role of Eco-efficiency and Eco-friendly technology :

  • Adoption of efficient and eco-friendly technologies, helps in achieving sustainable development.
  • Use of solar cooker, solar heaters, solar cells and biogas plants leads to saving of energy.
  • Greater use of fuel cells and alternative fuels like hydrogen, ethanol etc. can save natural resources.
  • We should tap solar energy and hydel energy, nuclear energy etc. for development in sustained manner.
  • They improved recyclability of materials.

(b) Budgets are very useful in management. They offer the following advantages.

  1. Sound Planning: Budgets make planning purposeful and precise. Objectives and programmes are expressed in physical or monetary units in budgets. Budgets are prepared on the basis of forecasts. Therefore, budgets force managers to think about the future. Budgets help to minimise snap judgements
  2. Higher Efficiency : Budgets bring efficiency and economy to the working of a business firm. They help management in obtaining the most profitable combination of different factors of production.
  3. Sense of Responsibility: Budgets helps to establish divisional and departmental responsibility. They prevent “buckpassing” and create a sense of responsibility among managers.
  4. Source of Motivation : Budgets represent the ‘milestones’ to be reached. They tell people what is expected. Budgets become the goals or targets to be attained. The budget is an impersonal policeman that maintains ordered effort in the organisation.
  5. Coordination : Budgets force executives to think as a group. Budgets are prepared in consultation with one another. Therefore, they help in achieving co-ordination between different departments of the enterprise. The interaction between persons working in different departments that takes place during the process of budgeting facilitates uniformity of policies and united action.
  6. Effective Control : Budgets are an important tool of managerial control. Use of budgets for evaluation and control of performance is known as ‘budgetary control’. Budgetary control facilitates ‘control by exception’ by focussing attention on deviations from budgeted targets. Budgets provide exact standards with which actual results can be evaluated and variations between actual performance and budgetary targets can be analysed.

ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 10.
The value of stock on 31st December 2014 was ₹ 14,920.
Prepare a Trading Account and a Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st December 2014 and a Balance Sheet as at that date in the books of ABC enterprises. (10)
TRIAL BALANCE
ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1
ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 2
Answer:
ABC ENTERPRISES
TRADING & PROFIT AND LOSS ACCOUNT for the year ended 31st December, 2014
ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 3
ICSE 2017 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved for Class 10 4

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2021 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2021 Solved Semester 1

Maximum marks: 50
Time allowed: 1 hour

General Instructions:

  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
  • The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [].
  • Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1.
What is a shin splint injury ? [ 1 ]
(a) It is a traumatic injury to the brain that alters mental status.
(b) It is a partial or complete break in the continuity of the bone.
(c) Pain in lower region of leg between knee and ankle.
(d) It is a tear or sprain of the anterior cruciate ligament.
Answer:
(c) Pain in lower region of leg between knee and ankle.

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 2.
To develop the ability to handle success and failure with equanimity is considered as which objective of Physical Education? [1]
(a) Physical development.
(b) Psychological development.
(c) Social development.
(d) Emotional development.
Answer:
(b) Psychological development.

Question 3.
Which body type has a high metabolic rate? [1]
(a) Mesomorph.
(b) Endomorph.
(c) Ectomorph.
(d) Obese.
Answer:
(d) Obese.

Question 4.
The stage from the age of 12 years -19 years is called: [1]
(a) Childhood Stage.
(b) Infancy Stage.
(c) Adolescence Stage.
(d) Adulthood Stage.
Answer:
(c) Adolescence Stage.

Question 5.
A 100 percent perfection at hitting the target refers to the skill component [1]
(a) Speed.
(b) Strength.
(c) Accuracy.
(d) Power.
Answer:
(c) Accuracy.

Question 6.
In which stage do people face various chronic diseases? [1]
(a) Adolescence.
(b) Early adulthood.
(c) Late adulthood.
(d) Middle adulthood.
Answer:
(c) Late adulthood.

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 7.
Love of food and comfort is a psychological characteristic of which body type? [ 1 ]
(a) Endomorph.
(b) Mesomorph.
(c) Ectomorph.
(d) Hard Gainer.
Answer:
(a) Endomorph.

Question 8.
Which fracture shows no break and no wound in the skin? [1]
(a) Linear fracture.
(b) Impacted Fracture.
(c) Compound Fracture.
(d) Simple Fracture.
Answer:
(b) Impacted Fracture.

Question 9.
The process that start from infancy and continues into late adolescence concentrating on gross and fine motor skills is known as [1]
(a) Physical development.
(b) Psychological development.
(c) Social development.
(d) Emotional development.
Answer:
(a) Physical development.

Question 10.
The ability to perform a task or move from one point to other in the shortest period of time is called: [ 1 ]
(a) Power
(b) Speed
(c) Balance
(d) Agility
Answer:
(b) Speed

Question 11.
Genes and chromosomes affect which factors of human growth and development? [ 1 ]
(a) Heredity
(b) Environment
(c) Gender
(d) Nutrition
Answer:
(a) Heredity

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 12.
The objective of Social Development in physical education is : [1]
(a) To guide a person to make his body strong, well-shaped and good looking.
(b) To develop the ability to respect the attitudes and values of others.
(c) To develop the ability to control various emotions like fear, pleasure, hope, anger.
(d) To develop positive thoughts, ideas, behavior, attitude, conduct and responses.
Answer:
(b) To develop the ability to respect the attitudes and values of others.

Question 13.
Lower back pain [ 1 ]
(a) is a tear or sprain of the medial collateral ligament.
(b) refers to any pain or discomfort experienced in the bottom region of the spine.
(c) occurs when the ligament that supports the ankle stretch beyond their limit and tear.
(d) in lower region of leg between knee and ankle.
Answer:
(b) Refers to any pain or discomfort experienced in the bottom region of the spine.

Question 14.
Health related physical fitness components are: [ 1 ]
(a) Agility and speed.
(b) Muscular endurance and muscular strength.
(c) Balance and coordination.
(d) Power and speed.
Answer:
(b) Muscular endurance and muscular strength.

Question 15.
The training by an athlete should be followed without any break. Which principle does it refer to? [ 1 ]
(a) Principle of Continuity..
(b) Principle of Adaptation.
(c) Principle of Overload.
(d) Principle of Progression.
Answer:
(a) Principle of Continuity.

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 16.
The injury that occurs when ligaments of the ankle joint are forced beyond their normal range. [ 1 ]
(a) Muscle strain,
(b) Shin splint.
(c) Sprained ankle,
(d) Fracture.
Answer:
(c) Sprained ankle.

Question 17.
Timed shuttle run is useful to improve which component of Physical Fitness? [1]
(a) Speed
(b) Agility
(c) Power
(d) Accuracy
Answer:
(b) Agility

Question 18.
Which of the following exercise helps the body to gradually transition to a resting or near resting state? [1]
(a) Jogging
(b) Cooling down
(c) Warm up
(d) Sprinting
Answer:
(b) Cooling down

Question 19.
The principle of refers to the process of the body getting used to training through regular repetition. [1]
(a) Recovery.
(b) Adaptation.
(c) Reversibility.
(d) Specificity
Answer:
(b) Adaptation.

Question 20.
Which of the following is NOT a cause for Sprained Ankle? [1]
(a) Landing awkwardly on foot after jumping.
(b) Lack of Calcium.
(c) Walking or exercising on an uneven surface.
(d) A fall that caused the ankle to twist.
Answer:
(b) Lack of Calcium.

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 21.
Which test is conducted to assess muscle strength? [1]
(a) Cooper run.
(b) Harvard step up test.
(c) Push up test.
(d) Zig zag test.
Answer:
(c) Push up test.

Question 22.
Which statement about fracture is not true? [1]
(a) There are different types of fracture.
(b) Fracture is a Broken bone.
(c) Fractures range from a minor crack to a complete break.
(d) There is a slight pain.
Answer:
(d) There is a slight pain.

Question 23.
Where do you feel pain in the runner’s knee? [1]
(a) Front of the knee.
(b) Thigh.
(c) Calf.
(d) Back of the knee.
Answer:
(a) Front of the knee.

Question 24.
In periodisation, the year is divided into how many periods? [1]
(a) Two.
(b) Four.
(c) Three.
(d) Six.
Answer:
(c) Three.

Question 25.
Which of the following activities improves aerobic endurance the most? [ 1 ]
(a) Stretching
(b) Weightlifting.
(c) Swimming.
(d) Archery
Answer:
(c) Swimming.

Question 26.
What is a concussion? [ 1 ]
(a) Leg injury.
(b) Head injury.
(c) Back injury.
(d) Shoulder injury.
Answer:
(b) Head injury.

Question 27.
The process of preparation of a sportsman, based on scientific and technical principles, for higher performance is called : [1]
(a) Sports fitness
(b) Sports training
(c) Physical education
(d) Physical fitness
Answer:
(b) Sports training

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 28.
It is the time taken by the body to respond immediately after stimulus: [1]
(a) Speed
(b) Agility
(c) Stamina
(d) Reaction Time
Answer:
(d) Reaction Time

Question 29.
Injury of the ligament or tendon around the joints: [ 1 ]
(a) Stain
(b) Sprain
(c) Cramp
(d) Fracture
Answer:
(b) Sprain

Question 30.
The athlete must be given training as per the needs of the game. Which principle does it refer to? [ 1 ]
(a) Principle of Individuality.
(b) Principle of Specificity.
(c) Principle of Adaptation.
(d) Principle of Progression.
Answer:
(b) Principle of Specificity.

Question 31.
…………………… is the ability of the muscles to perform continuously without fatigue. [ 1 ]
(a) Strength.
(b) Flexibility
(c) Power
(d) Stamina.
Answer:
(d) Stamina.

Question 32.
All athletes must continually work harder to improve, as their bodies adjust to existing workouts. This is called: [1]
(a) Principle of Recovery.
(b) Principle of Specificity.
(c) Principle of Frequency.
(d) Principle of Overload.
Answer:
(d) Principle of Overload.

Question 33.
The ability to control the body position, while stationary or moving is: [1 ]
(a) Coordination.
(b) Power
(c) Accuracy.
(d) Balance.
Answer:
(d) Balance.

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 34.
Short and long periods of rest between exercise sessions is necessary. This is the principle of: [1]
(a) Adaptation
(b) Specificity
(c) Recovery
(d) Variance
Answer:
(c) Recovery

Question 35.
Which type of strength is essential in shot put. [1]
(a) Maximum strength.
(b) Explosive strength.
(c) Strength endurance.
(d) Dynamic strength.
Answer:
(a) Maximum strength.

Question 36.
Performance and physical adaptation can deteriorate if training stops. This is known as: [1]
(a) Healthy participation.
(b) Principle of Intensity.
(c) Principle of Periodization.
(d) Principle of Reversibility.
Answer:
(d) Principle of Reversibility.

Question 37.
At what point in a person’s growth and development does he or she become self-directed and experienced? [1]
(a) Infancy stage.
(b) Adulthood stage.
(c) Childhood stage.
(d) Adolescence stage.
Answer:
(b) Adulthood stage.

Question 38.
Which of the following is NOT the phase of Periodization? [1]
(a) Resting phase.
(b) Preparatory phase.
(c) Competitive phase.
(d) Transition phase.
Answer:
(a) Resting phase.

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 39.
Name the muscle fiber due to which the person will have more endurance : [ 1 ]
(a) Rapid twitch fiber.
(b) White twitch fiber.
(c) Fast twitch fiber.
(d) Slow twitch fiber.
Answer:
(d) Slow twitch fiber.

Question 40.
This principle of sports training, states that people respond differently to a given training stimulus: [ 1 ]
(a) Principle of Individuality.
(b) Principle of Adaptation.
(c) Principle of Reversibility.
(d) Principle of Variance.
Answer:
(a) Principle of Individuality.

Question 41.
Ectomorph body usually refers to: [1]
(a) Rounded physique.
(b) Balanced body.
(c) Lean body.
(d) Muscular body.
Answer:
(c) Lean body.

Question 42.
Which of the following is NOT the cycle of Periodization? [1]
(a) Meso cycle
(b) Macro cycle
(c) Micro cycle
(d) Nano cycle
Answer:
(d) Nano cycle

Question 43.
The ability of joints to move in maximum range with external help is known as: [ 1 ]
(a) Passive Flexibility
(b) Static Flexibility
(c) Active Flexibility
(d) Dynamic Flexibility
Answer:
(a) Passive Flexibility

Question 44.
What is the most common symptom of concussion? [1]
(a) Loss of consciousness, loss of balance.
(b) Pain and stiffness along the Achilles tendons in the morning.
(c) Pain on the outside of the hip and thigh or in the buttock.
(d) Morning stiffness of the elbow with persistent aching.
Answer:
(a) Loss of consciousness, loss of balance.

Question 45.
The prenatal environment is the environment of [ 1 ]
(a) The child from 0 to 5 years.
(b) The child during birth.
(c) The child after birth.
(d) The foetus in the womb.
Answer:
(d) The foetus in the womb.

ICSE 2021 Physical Education Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 46.
The full form of MCL is: [1]
(a) Medial Cruciate Ligament.
(b) Medial Collateral Ligament.
(c) Medial Common Ligament.
(d) Medial Crossover Ligament.
Answer:
(a) Medial Cruciate Ligament.

Question 47.
Which one of the following is not a part of Growth ? [1]
(a) Size
(b) Maturation.
(c) Height
(d) Weight
Answer:
(b) Maturation.

Question 48.
Breaking a bone with twisting force results in what kind of fracture? [1]
(a) Spiral Fracture.
(b) Transverse Fracture.
(c) Simple Fracture.
(d) Linear Fracture.
Answer:
(a) Spiral Fracture.

Question 49.
Which physical trait is associated with an Endomorph? [1]
(a) Little body fat percentage.
(b) Narrow waist.
(c) Soft and round shaped body.
(id) Long arms and legs.
Answer:
(c) Soft and round shaped body.

Question 50.
What is a fracture? [1]
(a) It is a tear or sprain of the anterior cruciate ligament.
(b) It is a partial or complete break in the continuity of the bone.
(c) It is an inflammation of the tendon that joins the muscle of the forearm to the outside of the elbow.
(d) It is the common term used to describe any one of several conditions that cause pain around the kneecap.
Answer:
(b) It is a partial or complete break in the continuity of the bone.