Category: ICSE

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2016 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2016 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Distinguish between:
(a) Verbal Communication and Non-verbal communication
(b) Budget and Forecast
(c) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost
(d) Coupons and Premiums.
(e) Sales Promotion and Advertising.
Answer:
(a)

Basis of Distinction	Verbal Communication	Non-Verbal Communication
(i) Meaning	Communication through spoken and written words	Communication without using words, rather using signals
(ii) Types	Oral communication and written communication	Body language, Paralanguage, Proximics, Visual, Oral Communication

(b)

Basis of Distinction	Forecast	Budget
(i) Meaning	A forecast is merely an estimate of what is likely to happen.	A budget is a statement of planned events.
(ii) Involvement of Management	A forecast is a judgement that can be made by anybody.	A budget is a plan that requires authority of management.

(c)

Basis of Distinction	Fixed cost	Variable cost
(1) Basis	Fixed costs are time based.	Variable costs are activity based.
(ii) Example	Rent, insurance, salary	Raw material, direct labour

(d)

Basis of Distinction	Coupons	Premiums
(i) Purpose	It is used to introduce new products.	It is used to clear accumulated stocks.
(ii) Example	Discount coupons	Price off premium

(e)

Basis of Distinction	Sales Promotion	Advertising
(i) Time Horizon	Short term Perspective	Long term Perspective
(ii) Aim and his product	To increase immediate sales	To build image of producer

Question 2.
(a) What is a ‘Cash Budget’ ? (2)
(b) What do you understand by ‘Formal Communication’ ? (2)
(c) What does a pay-in-slip contain ? (2)
(d) Write a short note on ATM. (2)
(e) What do you understand by ‘Brand Promotion’? (2)
Answer:
(a) Cash budget is a summary statement of the firms expected inflows and outflows of cash over a future time period.

(b) Formal communication refers to official communication. It takes place through the paths officially created by the organisation. It flows from superiors to the subordinates and flows from top to bottom.

(c) A pay-in-slip contains the following :

1. Account holders name
2. Address
3. Date
4. Account number
5. Amount in words
6. Amount in figures

(d) Automatic Teller Machines (ATMs) is a self service terminal open 24 hours a day. The customer inserts his ATM card into the terminal and then inserts the identification code. The machine responds by giving cash, accepting deposit and handling other simple transactions.

(e) Brand promotion is that element of marketing mix which is designed to inform, remind, persuade and influence the customers so that they purchase the brands of the advertiser company.

Question 3.
(a) How does financing facilitate the marketing activity ? (2)
(b) Mention any four sources of external recruitment. (2)
(c) Explain any two modes of purchasing goods. (2)
(d) Explain any two disadvantages of Road Transport over Water Transport. (2)
(e) How does an ‘Organizational barrier’ affect Effective Communication ? (2)
Answer:
(а) Marketing activities exercise an important influence on the financial policies of the firm, particularly with regard to cash and credit sales. Finance is required in marketing to keep stocks, to meet transport, storage and other cost and to grant credit.

(b) The four sources of external recruitment are as follows :

1. Advertisements
2. Educational Institutions
3. Employment exchanges
4. Recruitment agencies

(c) The two modes of purchasing goods are as follows :

1. Purchase of goods for cash
2. Purchase of goods on credit

(d) The two disadvantages are as follows :

1. Limited Capacity: Road transport is not suitable for carrying bulky or heavy goods as a motor vehicle cannot carry heavy goods.
2. Undependable : Road transport is not fully de-pendable. Roads become unserviceable during goods, snowfalls, etc.

(e) When the organisational structure of a firm is complex consisting of several levels of authority, there are greater chances of distortion or breakdown in communication which tends to be slow and rigid.

Question 4.
(a) Give any two features of Consumer Protection Act 1986. (2)
(b) State any two functions of a Trade Union. (2)
(c) Explain ‘Marketing Research’ (2)
(d) What is Deferred Revenue expenditure ? Give and example. (2)
(e) State any two advantages of Ratio adverti- sing. (2)
Answer:
(a) The two features are as follows:

1. Comprehensive Provisions and Effective Safeguards.
2. Three-Tier Gnevánce Redressai Machinery.

(b) The two functions are as follows:

1. Protection : of employees/workers from all sorts of exploitation by employer and political parties.
2. Proper Standard of Living : Union attempt to secure fair wages, proper working conditions and welfare facilities.

(c) Marketing research refers to the systematic gathering, recording and analysis of data about marketing problems with the aim of providing information useful for decision- making in the field of marketing.

(d) Deferred revenue expenditure refers to the revenue expenses the benefits of which extends beyond the current accounting year. However, suçh expenditure does not result in acquisition of any permanant asset. Example — Heavy Advertisement expenditure.

(e) The two advantages are as follows:

1. It has a wide appeal as all types of people can be approached.
2. People can listen to the advertisement, while in transit saving time.

Section – B (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
(a) State any five expectations of employees from a business organization. (5)
(b) Explain any five interpersonal skills that are required for effective communication. (5)
Answer:
(a) The five expectations of employees are as follows :

1. Security of job and continuity of services under congenial conditions.
2. A fair remuneration in the form of wages and salaries.
3. Safe and comfortable working environment.
4. Quick and fair redressal of grievances.
5. Protection of trade union rights.

(b) The five interpersonal skills are as follows :

1. Know your subject: A good speaker must know and understand the topic on which he is speaking. He must have full facts to support his arguments.
2. Adopt Right Posture : A speaker should maintain eye contact with his listener. It helps to maintain a link and to personalise what you say.
3. Use Humour : A good speaker should have a sense of humour. He should speak clearly with right volume and right tone of voice.
4. Full Attention : Pay complete mental attention to what the speaker is saying. Shut past experiences and future plans out of your mind.
5. No Talking: Keep quite while listening. Try to listen what a speaker means rather than what he says.

Question 6.
(a) Explain the exchange Junctions of Marketing. (5)
(b) Explain any two methods of Marketing Research. (5)
Answer:
(a) The exchange function of Marketing is classified as :

1. Buying and Assembling
It involves the following steps :

1. determination of customers’ need in terms of quantity, quality, time etc.
2. negotiation for price and terms of sale.
3. Assembling is necessary to secure large lots for shipment, to ensure uninterrupted production and to provide variety.

2. Selling & Dividing: Selling is the heart of marketing. Selling enables a firm to satisfy the needs of the customers, and thereby achieve its objective. Selling also involves dispersion of goods among customers, servicing customers’ complaint and transfer of title or ownership of goods.

(b) The two methods are as follows :

(i) Experimentation Method : Under this method, a control market is established in which all forces except those being tested are kept under check. Reactions are recorded under controlled conditions to test a theory. It requires skilled investigators. Moreover, it is difficult to select test markets and to control the variables.

(ii) Survey Method : This method involves getting answers to specific questions from the entire market or a representative sample of it. When the survey of all the units of information is made, it is known as census enquiry or survey. On the other hand, when a few representative units are collected from them, it is called sample enquiry or survey.

Question 7.
(a) Explain the main functions of a Commercial Bank. (5)
(b) Enumerate any five liminations of Television Advertising. (5)
Answer:
(a) The main functions are as follows :

(i) Accepting Deposits : It is the main function of commercial bank. It attracts deposits for the purpose of making loans and investments. Banks offer different types of deposit accounts to suit the needs of various depositers. Banks receive the following types of deposits:
(a) Fixed deposits
(b) Current deposits
(c) Savings deposits
(d) Recurring deposits

(ii) Granting Loans : Commercial Banks lend money to individuals, firms and other institutions. A commercial bank offers different forms of loans. It lends money in the following ways :
(a) Loans and Advances
(b) Overdraft
(c) Cash Credit
(d) Discounting of bills

(b) The limitations are as follows :

1. Television advertising is very costly and only well- established firms can afford it.
2. It has a very short life and back reference is not possible.
3. The message must conform to physical limitations and mechanical regulations.
4. High repetition or frequency is required to keep reminding people about the existence of the product.
5. There is lack of flexibility as the immediate changes in the advertisements are not possible.

Question 8.
(a) Explain any five steps in the Selection process of employees. (5)
(b) Describe the importance of training to employees and employers. (5)
Answer:
(a) The five steps are as follows :

1. Group Discussion: It is a useful means of judging the leadership ability and social traits of the candidates.
2. Medical or Physical Examination : A medical check-up of such candidates is done by a panel of doctors to ensure that they are healthy and physically fit for the job.
3. Checking References : Generally information regarding a few responsible people are taken so that they can be contacted to get information about the background, abilities and character of candidates.
4. Final Approval : The candidates who are found suitable after every procedure are formally appointed by issuing appointment letters to them.
5. Placement: Selected candidates are put up or posted on appropriate jobs. This is called placement.

(b) The importance of training are as follows :

1. Higher Productivity: Training helps to improve the job performance of employees. As a result quantity and quality of performance increases.
2. Reduced Supervision : Well-trained employees are self-reliant. They do not require continuous and intensive supervision.
3. Better Safety: Training makes employees proficient and reduces accidents. It makes employees safety conscious.
4. Economy : Trained employees will use facilities properly and reduce wastage, spoilage and breakage. Loss due to damages is minimised.
5. Higher Morale : Effective training improves job attitudes and self-confidence of employees. Trained employees can work better and thereby earn rewards.

Question 9.
(a) Explain the following principles of Insurance: (5)
(i) Utmost good faith (Uberrimae fidei)
(ii) Doctrine of subrogation.
(b) What is meant by recycle ? How do environ- mental values help a common man ? (5)
Answer:
(a) (i) Utmost good faith (Uberrimae fidei)
An insurance contract is based on utmost good faith on the part of both the parties. It is the legal duty of the proposer (one who wants to get an insurance policy) to disclose all material facts about the subject to be insured. A material fact is one which would affect the judgement of the insurer in assessing the degree of risk.

(ii) Doctrine of subrogation
It implies that after indemnifying the insured for his loss, the insurer becomes entitled to all the rights and remedies relating to the property insured. The insurer shall step into the shoes of the insured. It is applicable to all contracts of indemnity and it is not applicable to life insurance.

(b) Conversion of wastes into re-usable materials is known as recycle.
It helps in the following ways :

1. It makes you more aware about environment’s resources.
2. It helps us to prevent excess usage of non-biode- gradble waste.
3. It helps to make maximisation of available resources.
4. It makes us aware about using harmful chemicals, pesticides.

Question 10.
Prepare a Trading, Profit & Loss A/C and Balance Sheet of Mr. A Haridas for the year ended 31s’ March, 1980 from the following Trial Balance : (10)
The Closing Stock on 31.03.80 was value at ₹ 40,000.

Answer:
In the books of Mr. A. Haridas Trading & Profit and Loss A/C for the year ended 31.3.80

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2022 Semester 2 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Maximum marks: 50
Time allowed: 1 hour

General Instructions:

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Questions from any two games you have studied are to be answered.
• Each game is divided into two Sections, SECTION A and SECTION B. Attempt all questions from
• SECTION A and any two questions from SECTON B of the two games that you have studied.
• The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

Cricket
Section-A
(Attempt all questions.)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [5]
(i) How many umpires officiate on the ground during a cricket match ?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 2

(ii) The National Governing body of cricket is
(a) BFI
(b) BCCI
(c) BWF
(d) CFI
Answer:
(b) BCCI

(iii) What is the length of the cricket pitch?
(a) 22 yards (20.12 m)
(b) 26 yards (23.77 m)
(c) 20 yards (18 m)
(d) 16 yards (14 m)
Answer:
(a) 22 yards (20.12 m)

(iv) Why are white cricket balls usually used during T20 matches?
(a) It looks classier
(b) It saves the bowler’s energy
(c) It is more visible in the evening
(d) It is easy for a batsman to score more runs
Answer:
(c) It is more visible in the evening.

(v) What is the distance of the inner circle used for field restrictions?
(a) 20 yards
(b) 40 yards
(c) 30 yards
(d) 50 yards
Answer:
(c) 30 yards

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 2.
(i) What do .you mean by Byes in cricket ? [2]
Answer:
Bye is considered when the batsman takes or gets the run/s due to misfielding (without the ball touching the bat).

(ii) Define the term Bowled in cricket. [2]
Answer:
In cricket, the term bowled has several meanings.
First, is the act of propelling the ball towards the wicket defended by a batsman.
Second, it is a method of dismissing a batsman, by hitting the wicket with a ball delivered by the bowler. (The term “bowled out” is sometimes used instead.)

Third, it is used in scoring to indicate which bowler is credited with dismissing a batsman, when the batsman is dismissed by being bowled, leg before wicket, caught, stumped, or hit wicket.

(iii) State any three occasions when the umpire can change the ball in the game. [3]
Answer:
1. In a match of more than one day’s duration, the captain of the fielding side may demand a new ball when the number of overs, excluding any part overs, bowled with the old one is equal to or greater than 80 overs. The umpire shall inform the other umpire and indicate to the batter and the scorers whenever a new ball is taken into play.

2. Ball lost or becoming unfit for play

3. When ball loses its Specifications

(iv) When is a follow on implemented during the course of a test match? [3]
Answer:
It is implemented or given in a test match when batting team cannot score sufficient runs and the lead is more than 200 runs, it may be given follow-on or to bat again.

Question 3.
(i) Explain the term Hit Wicket in cricket. [2]
Answer:
If the batsman breaks the wicket (the bails falls) by the hitting of the bat.

(ii) What do you mean by the term Power Play in cricket? [2]
Answer:
Power Play: It is a new rule introduced in 1991 concerning the fielding restriction in One Day International Cricket. In this rule there can be only 2 fielders outside the 30 yard circle. This can be performed in three stages with information to Umpire. The first Power Play is of ten overs whereas others are of five overs each. It is a non-verbal action in which the Umpire raises his right hand and moves it in a circular manner from top to bottom.

(iii) Mention any three fielding positions on the onside of the field. [3]
Answer:
Mid-on, Long-on, Mid wicket, Square leg, Cow cover

(iv) Name any three international tournaments in cricket. [3]
Answer:
ICC World Cup, Triangular Series, Shaijah Cup, T20 Cup, Ashes Series

Question 4.
(i) What do you mean by the term Beamer in cricket? [2]
Answer :
It is a type of delivery in which the ball without bouncing, passes above the batsman’s waist height. Such a ball is often dangerously close to the batsman’s head, due to the lack of control a bowler has over high full tosses.

(ii) Explain the term Tail ender in cricket. [2]
Answer:
Few of the last four or five batsmen coming for the batting order, these are normally bowlers with limited batting ability.

(iii) Mention three situations when a team’s innings is said to be complete. [3]
Answer:
A side’s (team’s). innings is to be considered as completed if any of the following applies

• the side is all out.
• at the fall of a wicket or the retirement of a batsman, further balls remain to be bowled but no further batsman is available to come in.
• the captain declares the innings closed.
• the captain forfeits the innings.

(iv) Mention any three duties of the leg umpire. [3]
Answer:
In cricket, the leg umpire is the second umpire on the field and stands at the square leg of batsman around 25 meter from the batter. Leg umpire assists the other umpire in decisions like :

• Stumping
• Hit wicket
• Run-out
• Short run
• Bouncer ball
• Players in field
• Check over power play rules.

Football
Section A
(Attempt all questions.)

Question 5.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [5]
(i) What is the radius of the center circle?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 10 inches
(c) 9.15 m
(d) 16.5 m
Answer:
(c) 9.15 m

(ii) The international governing body of football is.
(a) FIBA
(b) FIDE
(c) FICA
(d) FIFA
Answer:
(d) FIFA

(iii) When a player strikes the ball in mid-air it is called as:
(a) Back pass
(b) A banana kick
(c) A half volley kick
(d) A bicycle kick
Answer:
(c) A half volley kick

(iv) The two longer boundary lines of the football field are called as:
(a) Goal line
(b) Touch line
(c) Half way line
(d) Optional line
Answer:
(b) Touch line

(v) The height of the flag post is:
(a) 1.5m (5ft.)
(b) 1 m (3.28 ft.)
(c) 5.5m (18 ft.)
(d) 9.15 m (30ft.)
Answer:
(a) 1.5m (5ft.)

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 6.
(i) Explain the term Comer Arc in football. [2]
Answer:
It is the place or comer quarter circle area from where the comer kick is taken. It is comer quarter circle of lyard radius between Touch line and Goal line.

(ii) What do you understand by the term Goal scored in football? [2]
Answer:
The Referee will signal goal when the ball completely crosses the goal line between the goalpost and under the crossbar of goalpost. It must be scored in a fair manner.

(iii) Write any three duties of assistant referee in football. [3]
Answer:
There are two Assistant Referees or Linesmen. They assist or help the Match Referee during the game. Their duties are to indicate Match Referee by various signals like ball is out of play; which team to get comer-kick or throw-in or goal-kick or offside. They are equipped with flags.

(iv) What is the procedure of resuming the game from kick-off ?[3]
Answer:
It is starting the game (in beginning or after half-time or after the goal has been scored or in extra time). During kick-off players remain in their own half. Opponent team player does not enter 10 yards circle until ball is pushed or kicked forward. Kick-off player should not touch the ball consecutively second time until played by another player.

Question 7.
(i) Explain the term Penalty Kick in football. [2]
Answer:
A penalty-kick is awarded when a foul is committed by a defender in the penalty area. The ball is placed on the penalty spot and the attacking player tries to kick it directly into the goal and goalkeeper only defends it. The offences are like Intentional hit to the player; Intentional handling the ball; Charging opponent; Holding opponent from behind.

(ii) When is a throw in awarded in a football match? [2]
Answer:
It is given to opponent if ball passes over the sideline on ground or in air. This is taken by the player from the sideline. Player throws the ball over the head to give the pass to his player. Both the feet are in contact with ground. A goal cannot be scored directly from throw-in.

(iii) When is a comer kick awarded and from where is it administered? [3]
Answer:
It is also known as flag kick. Comer-kick is awarded when a defender puts the ball out of the play behind his team’s goal line. An attacking player then tries to send the ball in front of the goal for another attacker to head or make a short pass to a teammate to convert it into goal. It is taken from comer-arc or quarter-yard circle.

(iv) State any three instances when the opposite team is awarded an indirect free kick for offences committed by the goalkeeper. [3]
Answer:
An indirect free-kick is awarded to the opponent if a goalkeeper commits any of the following offences inside his own penalty area : Takes more than four steps while controlling the ball with his hands, before releasing it from his possession; Touches the ball again with his hands after it has been released from his possession without touching another player; Touches the ball with his hand after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a teammate; Touches the ball with his hand after he has received it directly from a throw-in by a teammate.

Question 8.
(i) Explain the term Goal Line in football. [2]
Answer:
These are the shorter sides of rectangular playfield of football. The goal posts are placed in middle of goal line. Its length is between 50 to 100 yards.

(ii) Name any two international tournaments in Football. [2]
Answer:
FIFA World Cup, Euro Cup, Olympic Games, Club League

(iii) State any three caution able offences in Football. [3]
Answer:
A player is cautioned and shown the yellow card if he commits any of the following seven offences:

• unsporting behavior
• dissent by word or action
• persistent infringement of the Laws of the Game
• delaying the restart of play
• failure to respect the required distance when play is restarted with a comer kick, free kick or throw-in

(iv) Mention any three duties of Fourth Official. [3]
Answer:
A fourth official may be appointed under the competition rules and officiates if any of the three match officials is unable to continue, unless a reserve assistant referee is appointed. He assists the referee at all times:

• Prior to the start of the competition, the organiser states clearly whether, if the referee is unable to continue, the fourth official takes over as the referee
  or whether the senior assistant referee takes over as referee with the fourth official becoming an assistant referee.
• The fourth official assists with any administrative duties before, during and after the match, as required by the referee.
• He is responsible for assisting with substitution procedures during the match.
• He has the authority to check the equipment of substitutes before they enter the field of play. If their equipment does not comply with the Laws of the Game, he informs the referee.
• He supervises the replacement balls, where required. If the match ball has to be replaced during a match, he provides another ball, on the instruction of the referee, thus keeping the delay to a minimum.
• He assists the referee to control the match in accordance with the Laws of the Game. The referee, however, retains the authority to decide on all points connected with play.

Hockey
Section-A
(Attempt all questions.)

Question 9.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [5]
(i) The dimensions of a hockey field are:
(a) 91.40 m × 55 m
(b) 92.5 m × 54 mn
(c) 95 m × 55 m
(d) 91.4 m × 75 m
Answer:
(a) 91.40 m × 55 m

(ii) The national governing body of Hockey is
(a) BHF
(b) BWF
(c) KGH
(d) IHF
Answer:
(d) IHF

(iii) The weight of the hockey stick is:
(a) 537 gm
(b) 637 gm
(c) 937 gm
(d) 737 gm
Answer:
(d) 737 gm

(iv) The limit on the number of substitutions per game in hockey is:
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) No limit
Answer:
(d) No limit

(v) The distance of penalty mark from the goal post:
(a) 8.90 m
(b) 6.40 m
(c) 91.40 m
(d)55m
Answer:
(b) 8.90 m

Section – B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 10.
(i) Define the term Side line in hockey. [2]
Answer:
It is the longer (91.40 metres) perimeter line of the Hockey playfield.

(ii) Explain the term Rolling Substitution in hockey. [2]
Answer:
According to new rules any player can be changed from reserve players or substitutes without intimation to Referee. No extra time or stopping of game is given. There can be any number of rolling substitution from the substitute player, except during penalty corner.

(iii) Name any three playing positions of the players in the game of hockey. [3]
Answer:
Left Wing, Right Wing, Inners, Mid Fielders, Sweepers, Full Backers

(iv) List any three instances when an umpire blows the whistle in the game. [3]
Answer:
Umpires blow the whistle to :
(a) start and end each half of the match
(b) start a bully
(c) enforce a penalty
(d) start and end a penalty stroke
(e) indicate a goal
(f) re-start the match after a goal has been scored
(g) re-start the match after a penalty stroke when a goal was not scored
(h) stop the match for the substitution onto or off the field of a fully equipped goalkeeper and to restart the match on completion of the substitution.

Question 11.
(i) What do you understand by the term Rebound in hockey? [2]
Answer:
‘Rebound’ is a term used in sports to describe the ball (or puck or other object of play) becoming available for possession by either opponent after an attempt to put the ball or puck into the goal has been unsuccessful.

(ii) Explain the term Give and Go in hockey. [2]
Answer:
A give-and-go, or one-two, is a fundamental maneuver in many team sports which involves two players passing the ball or puck back and forth. The player who has the ball or puck passes to a teammate and then repositions in order to receive a return pass and possibly create a scoring opportunity.

(iii) Mention any three fundamental skills in hockey. [3]
Answer:
Dribble: It is tackling the ball with stick work. The movement of ball is controlled by rolling the stick around it, while maintaining constant control of ball with the stick. This prevents opponents to get possession of the ball. The player also adjusts his body accordingly.

Push: This stroke is used to send the ball to shorter distance. Right hand is placed low on the stick and pushes the stick forward while the left hand holds the top of handle. This skill is mostly used to pass the ball to own team player when he is close.

Hit: This is a powerful stroke for long passes or to score goal. Player raises the stick at back and then hits the ball With full swing of stick whereas hands hold the stick from top.

Flick: This technique is used for penalty strokes. It is similar to push but the ball which is lifted at a low height.

Scoop: It is similar to flick but ball is lifted more high. This skill is generally used for penalty stroke from 7-yard point.

(iv) What is the procedure of taking a penalty stroke? [3]
Answer:
It is also known as 7-yard push. It is given when some serious offence is committed by the defending team in their shooting circle which probably has interrupted the goal scoring. Time stops during penalty stroke. Only goalkeeper and the player taking stroke is permitted inside shooting circle. At the whistle player pushes or scoops or flicks the ball towards the goal scoring whereas goalkeeper defends it. It is done from the penalty spot 7 yards in front of goalpost.

Question 12.
(i) Explain the term Bully in hockey. [2]
Answer:
This method is used to start or restart the game after interruption. In this method two opponent players try to gain the control over ball by dribbling on Referee’s signal.

(ii) Explain the technique Indian dribble in hockey. [2]
Answer:
The Indian dribble is a field hockey technique, first appearing at the 1956 Summer Olympics. The base of the technique is the continuous pushing of the ball from left to right and back in a rapid fashion. Moving with the ball Left-handed at the top right-hand loose in middle of the stick Left hand in watch position.

(iii) What is dodging? What is the importance of dodging in a hockey match? [3]
Answer:
It is the technique of dribble, in which the coming opponent is deceived in other direction by fake body movement. It prevents opponent to interfere or get possession of the ball.

(iv) What is the procedure of taking a penalty comer? [3]
Answer:
Penalty Corner Procedure: When serious foul is committed (intentional or unintentional), dangerous play, misconduct, argument with Umpire by player. It is taken from end line (10 yards away from goalpost) with push and while remaining attacker stops the ball outside the D to continue. Only five defenders are allowed inside the shooting circle during penalty corner.

Basketball
Section-A
(Attempt all questions.)

Question 13.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [5]

(i) The national governing body of basketball is ………………. .
(a) BFI
(b) BWF
(c) VFI
(d) BMW
Answer:
(a) BFI

(ii) A free throw is worth is ………………. .
(a) 2 points
(b) 1 point
(c) 5 points
(d) 3 points
Answer:
(b) 1 point

(iii) Kicking a basketball is what kind of foul ?
(a) Passing foul
(b) Technical foul
(c) Personal foul
(d) Team foul
Answer:
(c) Personal foul

(iv) An offensive team must attempt for a field goal within
(a) 30 seconds
(b) 8 seconds
(c) 20 seconds
(d) 24 seconds
Answer:
(d) 24 seconds

(v) The two lines at each end of the Basketball court are known as :
(a) Touch lines
(b) End lines
(c) Centre line
(d) Free throw line
Answer:
(b) End lines

Section – B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 14.
(i) Explain the term Centre Circle in basketball. [2]
Answer:
The centre circle shall be marked in the centre of the playing court and have a radius of 1.80 m measured to the outer edge of the circumference. If the inside of the centre circle is painted, it must be the same colour as the restricted areas.

(ii) Explain the Three Second rule in basketball. [2]
Answer:
Any offensive player cannot stay inside the opponent’s restricted area consecutively for more than ‘3’ seconds, (apart from attempts, rebounds or tries for making basket).

(iii) Explain the skill of Crossover Dribble in basketball. [3]
Answer:
A crossover dribble is a basketball maneuver in which a player dribbling the ball switches the ball rapidly from one hand to the other, to make a change in direction. In a typical example the player heads upcourt, dribbling the ball in (say) the left hand, then makes a wide step left with a good head fake. If the defender is deceived, the player can then switch to dribbling with the right hand and surpass the defender.

(iv) Mention any three fouls which involve personal contact with the opponent. [3]
Answer:
It is a player’s foul which involves illegal contact with the’opposing player whether the ball is live or dead. A player is eliminated from the match if he commits 5 personal fouls. They are further penalized with throw- in or free-throws if their team has committed more than four fouls in each quarter. These fouls are charging, illegal blocking, guarding from behind, holding or pushing opponent, illegal-screening, etc.

Question 15.
(i) Explain the term Violation in basketball. [2]
Answer:
It is an infraction of rules of game, i.e., illegal actions for controlling or dribbling the ball during the game (without obstructing opponent). These violations are not noted over the score sheet but opponent gains the possession of the ball.
Travelling, Caring, Double-Dribble, Out of Bound, Back-Court.

(ii) What is the duration of play in basketball? [2]
Answer:
Duration of Game = 40 minutes in four quarters (10 minutes each); Extra Time = 5 min.

(iii) State any three duties of referee in basketball. [3]
Answer:
There is one Referee and one Umpire to conduct the match.

1. They enforce the game rules to both the teams.
2. They observe and whistle for fouls and violation and indicate this to the table official.
3. They keep the ball for free-throw or throw-in to the opposing teams. They assist each other for smooth conduct of the game.

(iv) How is substitution of a player done in basketball? [3]
Answer:
A substitution opportunity begins when:

• For both teams, the ball becomes dead, the game clock is stopped and the official has ended his communication with the scorer’s table.
• For both teams, the ball becomes dead following a successful last or only free throw.
• For the non-scoring team, a field goal is scored when the game clock shows 2:00 minutes or less in the fourth period and in each extra period.
• A substitution opportunity ends when the ball is at the disposal of a player for a throw-in or a first or only free throw.
• A player who has become a substitute and a substitute who has become a player cannot
  respectively re-enter the game or leave the game until the ball becomes dead again, after a clock-running phase of the game, unless.

Question 16.
(i) Name any two national tournaments in basketball. [2]
Answer:
Federation Cup, National Games, Baba Farid Invitational Tournament, Om Prakash Memorial Tournament

(ii) Explain the term Travelling in basketball. [2]
Answer:
It is a violation in which illegal movement of ball by dribbling, i.e., player moves without the bounce; passes or collects ball while running.

(iii) What is a Technical foul? What is the penalty for it? [3]
Answer:
When a player or coach performs unsportsmanlike act or misconduct or violent act deliberately.
In this foul opponent gets two free-throws along with throw-in from centre.

(iv) Explain the term game lost by default in basketball. [3]
Answer:
A team shall lose a game by default if, during the game, the team has fewer than 2 players on the playing court ‘ ready to play. If the team to which the game is awarded is ahead, the score shall stand as at the time when the game was stopped. If the team to which the game is awarded is not ahead, the score shall be recorded as 2 to 0 in its favour. The defaulting team shall receive 1 point in the classification. For a 2-games (home and away) total point series (aggregate score), the team that defaults in the first or in the second game shall lose the series by ‘default’.

Volleyball
Section-A
(Attempt all questions.)

Question 17:
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [5]
(i) What is the player who specializes in defense called?
(a) Setter
(b) Attacker
(c) Libero
(d) Spiker
Answer:
(c) Libero

(ii) How many sets are there in a men’s volleyball game?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer:
(b) 5

(iii) After a team gains a serve, in which way do the teams rotate?
(a) They do not rotate
(b) Clockwise
(c) Anti clockwise
(d) As the captain decides
Answer:
(c) Anti clockwise

(iv) The international governing body of volleyball is
(a) FIBA
(b) FIDE
(c) FIFA
(d) FIVB
Answer:
(d) FIVB

(v) Which of these is not a type of Volleyball serve?
(a) Top spin
(b) Floating
(c) Tandem
(d) Under hand
Answer:
(c) Tandem

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 18.
(i) What do you mean by legal interruption in volleyball? [2]
Answer
An interruption is the time between one completed rally and the 1st referee’s whistle for the next service. The only regular game interruptions are TIME-OUTS and SUBSTITUTIONS.

Regular game interruptions may be requested by the coach, or in the absence of the coach, by the game captain, and only by them.
Substitution before the start of a set is permitted, and should be recorded as a regular substitution in that set.

(ii) Explain the term Double Contact in volleyball. [2]
Answer:
A player hits the ball twice in succession or the ball contacts various parts of his/her body in succession.

(iii) Explain the structure of the antennae used in the game of volleyball. [3]
Answer:
An antenna is a flexible rod, 1.80 m long and 10 mm in diameter, made of fibreglass or similar material.
An antenna is fastened at the outer edge of each side band. The antennae are placed on opposite sides of the net.
The top 80 cm of each antenna extends above the net and is marked with 10 cm stripes of contrasting colour, preferably red and white.
The antennae are considered as part of the net and laterally delimit the crossing space.

(iv) State any three penetration faults during the match. [3]
Answer:
A fault given when

• the opponent player enters into the opponent area in air;
• by crossing centre line by foot or
• by hands over the net during smash, block or lift.

Question 19.
(i) What do you mean by the term side bands in volleyball? [2]
Answer:
Two white bands are fastened vertically to the net and placed directly above each side line.
They are 5 cm wide and 1 m long and are considered as part of the net.

(ii) Explain the term Back row attack in volleyball. [2]
Answer:
A back row attack is an offensive volleyball strategy that happens when the setter sets a ball to a hitter who takes off from behind the ten foot line, hits the ball in the air into the opposing team’s court and lands either in front of or behind the ten foot line.

(iii) Mention any three duties of the scorer. [3]
Answer:

1. He/she keeps the score sheet according to the rules, co-operating with the 2nd referee.
2. He/she uses a buzzer or other sound device to notify irregularities or give signals to the referees on the basis of his/her responsibilities.
3. Prior to the match and set, the scorer registers the data of the match and teams, including the names and numbers of the Liberos, according to the procedures in force, and obtains the signatures of the captains and the coaches.

(iv) State any three rules related to a libero player in volleyball. [3]
Answer:

1. A specialized defensive player (wears different colour kit) who plays in rear half to provide rest to certain player.
2. He can be substituted anytime during match from rear row player,
3. He cannot serve, block and smash (he can smash behind the attack line).

Question 20.
(i) Explain the term Back Zone in Volleyball. [2]
Answer:
It is an area between Front Zone and Service Line. In other words it is an area behind the Attack line with the dimension 6 by 9 m.

(ii) What do you mean by Foot fault in volleyball? [2]
Answer:
It is the fault during service occurred when a player cuts the service line during the delivery of Service.

(iii) Explain Expulsion in Volleyball. [3]
Answer:
A player or coach is expelled and not allowed to play further, if he repeatedly performs misconduct. He is not even allowed to sit over team bench.

(iv) Mention any three Acts of Breach that will be punished by the referee. [3]
Answer:
All misconduct sanctions are individual sanctions, remain in force for the entire match and are recorded on the score sheet.
The repetition of misconduct by the same team member in the same match is sanctioned progressively (the team member receives a heavier sanction for each successive offence).

Badminton
Section-A
(Attempt all questions.)

Question 21.
Choose the correct answers to questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [5]
(i) What is the width of the badminton court for singles game??
(a) 13.40 m
(b) 6.70 m
(c) 5.18 m
(d) 18 m
Answer:
(c) 5.18 m

(ii) What is the height of the net at the poles?
(a) 1.55 m
(b) 5.18 m
(c) 1.51 cm
(d) 5.20 cm
Answer:
(a) 1.55 m

(iii) What is the point system in badminton?
(a) 5 sets of 15 points
(b) 3 sets of 25 points
(c) 3 sets of 21 points
(d) 5 sets of 11 points
Answer:
(c) 3 sets of 21 points

(iv) How many times can a player strike a shuttlecock before it flies over the net?
(a) Twice
(b) Once
(c) Thrice
(d) Unlimited
Answer:
(b) Once

(v) When a birdie is hit back and forth together, it is called:
(a) Rally
(b) Serve
(c) Smash
(d) Set
Answer:
(a) Rally

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 22.
(i) Explain the term Short service line in Badminton. [2]
Answer:
It is the first line parallel to net at a distance of 1.98m. The service landing between Net and Short Service Line is considered as Short service which is fault.

(ii) What is a Back alley in badminton? [2]
Answer:
It is the back area of the court where long service is considered out dining doubles game also known as back alley. This area is between two long service lines at the back of court.

(iii) When is the shuttle not in play in a game of badminton? [3]
Answer:
A shuttle is not in play when :

• it strikes the net or post and starts to fall towards the surface of the court on the striker’s side of the net;
• it hits the surface of the court; or
• a ‘fault’ or a ‘let’ has occurred.

(iv) Explain the skill of Footwork in badminton. [3]
Answer:
Foot work is important skill in badminton. It is a specialised stepping performed by the player by which he covers whole court. A good player usually covers all sides of the court in one step from the centre.

Question 23.
(i) Define the term Love in Badminton. [2]
Answer:
It is the way of scoring in the beginning i.e., the score is nil at both sides.

(ii) Explain the term Net Lift in badminton. [2]
Answer:
A drop which is placed from close to net in the opponent side. It makes inverted ‘U’ shape. It is also known as hairpin drop.

(iii) When is let called by the umpire in a game of badminton? [3]
Answer:
Let : It is redelivery of the same point. It is called by Umpire due to unforeseen situations like, Umpire is unable to see the landing of shuttle, fault at both sides of the players simultaneously; if receiver is not ready, shuttle breaks during rally, lighting goes during rally, interruption or object fall during rally shuttle hangs over the top of net.

(iv) State any three duties of the referee in badminton. [3]
Answer:

• To check the condition of playing surface and arrange linesman over different lines.
• To call both players or teams for the toss and start the game.
• To call out scoring after .each point. To give decisions as per rules on conflicting points.
• To declare in or out on crucial point with assistance from linesman.
• To check the flight of shuttle in case of dispute over the flight of shuttle.
• To observe foot fault, service fault, wrong service court, net touch, over the net, etc. and give decision accordingly.
• To give break for cleaning sweat.
• To check the spectator’s shouts. He/ she sits over high bench to observe the match carefully.

Question 24.
(i) Explain the term Rubber in badminton. [2]
Answer:
A rubber game is the third and deciding game in a badminton match. When both players won one set each, and would have to enter into a 3rd deciding game to determine the winner. This 3rd set is called the rubber.

(ii) What is the duty of the line judge in badminton? [2]
Answer:
The line judges shall sit on chairs in prolongation of their lines at the ends and sides of the court and preferably at the side opposite to the umpire.
A line judge shall be entirely responsible for the line(s) assigned except that the umpire shall overrule the call of the line judge, if beyond reasonable doubt, in the opinion of the umpire, a line judge has clearly made a wrong call.

(iii) Mention service court errors made by a player in badminton. [3]
Answer:
Service-Court Error: If a player delivers the service from wrong side of the court then it is given to opponent.

(iv) Explain the skill of Overhead Forehand Stroke in badminton. [3]
Answer:
This is an offensive as well as defensive stroke. It is taken with overhead swing of the racket to hit the shuttle hard so that shuttle goes deep and back in the opponent’s court. It may be high clear or low clear, over the both sides of the court in opponent’s side.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2022 Semester 2 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Maximum Marks: 50
Time allowed: One and a Half hour

General Instructions :

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section-A and any four questions from Section-B.
• The marks intended Jbr questions are given in brackets [  ].

Section – A
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) ………………… shows the financial position of the organization.
(a) Trial Balance
(b) Profit and Loss account
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Income and Expenditure account
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

(ii) Human Resource Management is a ………………… oriented function.
(a) Job
(b) People
(c) Money
(d) Profit
Answer:
(b) People

(iii) …………………. is a Banker s Bank.
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Agricultural Bank
(c) Exchange Bank
(d) Central Bank
Answer:
(d) Central Bank

(iv) ……………….. function ensures that the policies, procedures and actions of the organization are in public interest.
(a) Financial Management
(b) Public Relations
(c) Skill Development
(d) Performance Appraisal
Answer:
(b) Public Relations

(v) In this type of account, no cheque book is issued to the account holder:
(a) Fixed Deposit account
(b) Open account
(c) Saving Deposit account
(d) Current account
Answer:
(a) Fixed Deposit account

(vi) …………………. is one of the internal sources of recruitment.
(a) Advertisements
(b) Transfers
(c) Gate hirings
(d) Education institutes
Answer:
(b) Transfers

(vii) Receipt and Payment account is a ………………….. account.
(a) Real
(b) Nominal
(c) Personal
(d) Trading
Answer:
(a) Real

(viii) Making consumers aware of their rights and duties is ………………..
(a) Consumer Education
(b) Value Education
(c) Industrial Relation
(d) People Relation
Answer:
(a) Consumer Education

(ix) ……………….. is an elimination process.
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) Education
Answer:
(b) Selection

(x) Asking for cash memo for the item purchased is
(a) Consumer education
(b) Consumer awareness
(c) Consumers’ duty
id) Consumers’requirement
Answer:
(c) Consumers’duty

Section – B
(Answer any four questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) State any one point of difference between Recruitment and Selection. [2]
(ii) Write a short note on Empathy as an element of Public Relations. [2]
(iii) Write in short about any three Consumer Rights. [3]
(iv) Write three uses of‘Receipt and Payment Account’. [3]
Answer.
(i) Recruitment is basically the process of searching for suitable candidates and giving them an opportunity to apply for the said position. On the other hand, selection refers to the process of choosing the right one for the vacant position in the company.

Recruitment is a positive approach whereas selection is a negative(eliminating) approach.

(ii) Empathy – the ability to understand the feelings of others. It separates exemplary public relations and ordinary communications.
Empathy improves customer loyalty and teamwork.

(iii) (a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to be informed

(iv) (a) To reflect cash and bank transactions in a period.
(b) It can be used in place of income and expenditure statement.
(c) We can ascertain closing balance of cash at the end of year.

Question 3.
(i) State any one point of difference between ‘Receipt and Payment Account’ and ‘Income and Expenditure Account’. [2]
(ii) What is Saving Deposit account ? [2]
(iii) Write in brief about any three features of Human Resource Management. [3]
(iv) Write any three ways by which Environmental Values and Ethics can be developed in people. [3]
Answer:
(i) Receipt and Payment Account is a summary of cash and bank transactions. Income and Expenditure Account is summary of income and expenses for the current year.

(ii) A Savings Deposit account is a bank account in which a customer can deposit his money from his savings and other resources. Bank gives a nominal rate of interest (from 2.75% to 4% per annum). At the time of need, the customer can withdraw money from the cash counter of the bank or from ATM using ATM card.

(iiii) (a) HRM is people-oriented.
(b) It is development-oriented.
(c) It is decision-oriented.

(iv) (a) Developing policies that clearly define programmes in order to save the environment which includes disposal and waste management strategies.
(b) Awareness and education about the importance of ecology and its conservation should be taught to the students.
(c) Suitable training programmes for teachers and parents can be held to enable them to provide value education to young men and women.

Question 4.
(i) Justify either for or against by giving a reason for the following statement. ‘Balance Sheet is an account. ’ [2]
(ii) Mention any two natures (characteristics) of Public Relations. [2]
(iii) Write three advantages of opening a bank account. [3]
(iv) Explain the following: [3]
(a) Structured Interview
(b) Group Interview
(c) Stress Interview
Answer:
(i) A balance sheet is a part of the final accounts. A balance sheet is a statement and not an account. It has no debt or credit sides and as such the words ‘To’ and ‘By’ are not used before the names of the accounts shown therein.

(ii) (a) To secure cooperation of public.
(b) To maintain successful relation with public.
(c) To satisfy different groups of society.

(iii) (a) You can keep your savings safe in a bank account.
(b) You can withdraw the money at cash counter or through debit (ATM) card anytime.
(c) Money deposited in the account, earns a fix interest income on regular intervals.

(iv) (a) A structured interview is a data collection method that relies on asking questions in a set order to collect data on a topics.

(b) Group interview refers to a type of interview where more than two people are involved. A number of candidates are interviewed together at the same time or one candidate is interviewed by different department representatives at the same time.

(c) A stress interview takes place when an interviewer asks uncomfortable questions in to check how a potential employee performs in a stressful situation. This type of interview gives the hiring team an opportunity to judge how a candidate responds to stress, prioritises multiple important tasks or deals with challenging clients.

Question 5.
(i) Justify either for or against by giving a reason for the following statement.
‘Internal source is an incomplete source of Recruitment. ’ [2]
(ii) Write any two functions of Human Resource Management. [2]
(iii) State three points of difference between Central Bank and Commercial Bank. [3]
(iv) What is Food Adulteration ? Give any two examples. [3]
Answer:
(i) Internal source of recruitment limits the choice to a few people and denying hiring of outsiders who may be better qualified and skilled. It creates negative impacts on the employees who are not promoted within the organization.

(ii) (a) One of the most well-known functions of human resource management is recruitment and hiring.
(b) Onboarding and ongoing training and development

(iii)

Central Bank	Commercial Bank
The bank which looks after the monetary system of the country is known as Central Bank.	The organization which provides banking services to the public is known as Commercial Bank.
It is a banker to the banks and the Government of the country.	It is the banker to the citizens of the nation.
It has powers to print currency notes.	No power to print currency notes.

(iv) Food adulteration means adding inferior material to food to increase its weight in order to gain more profits. For example; a tea-leaves packet of one brand, costs ₹ 250 per kg and costs ₹ 400 per kg of another brand. But, if the seller sells the mixture at ₹ 400 per kg.

Mixing both of the tea packets, will cost the seller ₹ 650 for two kilograms i.e. ₹ 325 per kg. In this way, he earns an additional profit of ₹ 75 per kg. Misbranding is also a form of adulteration. Altering the list of ingredients, date of expiry also falls under misbranding.

Question 6.
(i) Write about any two Direct Methods of Recruitment. [2]
(ii) Describe Employee Relations as a scope of Public Relations. [2]
(iii) Mention three circumstances under which a bank can refuse payment or dishonor a cheque. [3]
(iv) Mention any three features of a Balance Sheet. [3]
Answer:
(i) Advertisement, campus recruitment, job fairs are the direct methods of recruitment.

(ii) (a) The foundation of good employee relations are sound personnel policies and implementation of these policies.
(b) Employees are to be allowed to express their opinions about matters affecting their interests.
(c) Information about corporate policies affecting their interest to be given to the employees.

(iii) A cheque can be refused or dishonoured:
(a) When there is any cutting on the cheque.
(b) When amount in words and numbers differ
(c) When the date of cheque is future date.
(d) The date of cheque issued is more than three months.

(iv) (a) A balance sheet consists of transactions recorded under two sides namely, assets and liabilities.
(b) The total of both sides should always be equal.
(c) The balance sheet discloses financial position of the business.

Question 7.
Case Study
Urban Company is Asia’s Largest online home service platform. Launched in 2014,Urban Company today operates in India, Australia, Singapore, the UAE and the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia. The platform helps customers book reliable and high-quality services-beauty treatments, massages, haircut, home cleaning, handymen, appliance repair, painting, pest control and more-delivery by trained professionals conveniently at home. Urban Company’s vision is to empower millions of professionals worldwide to deliver services at home like never experienced before.

Urban Company provides a platform that allows skilled and experienced professionals to connect with users looking for specific services. All the professionals, though experienced and skilled, undergo intensive training modules before being allowed to list their services on the platform. Once on the platform, Urban Company’s match-making algorithm identifies professionals who are closest to the users’ requirements and available at the requested time and’data.
In reference to the above case, answer the following questions:

(i) What type of Bank account does Urban Company have? Why ? [2]
(ii) Explain how, the professionals are recruited by Urban Company. [2]
(iii) Write about any three External sources of Recruitment. [3]
(iv) What services does the Urban Company offer ? [3]
Answer:
(i) The Urban Company opens the Savings Bank Account so that the people could save money and earn a nominal interest.

(ii) The Urban Company provides an online platform for skilled and experienced persons. They apply to the company offering their skills and services. After getting proper training they are recruited in the company.

(iii) External sources of recruitments are;

• Internet advertisements
• Advertisement on their own website
• Employee referrals

(iv) Home cleaning, appliance repair, pest control.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2021 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2021 Solved Semester 1

Maximum Marks: 50
Time allowed: One hour

General Instructions :

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
• The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1.
A company must balance profits, consumer satisfaction and public welfare. Which stage of marketing emphasises on the given statement ? [ 1 ]
(a) sales-oriented stage
(b) product-oriented stage
(c) societal marketing stage
(d) marketing-oriented stage
Answer:
(c) societal marketing stage

Question 2.
Media which has limited coverage : [1]
(a) Newspapers
(b) Direct mail
(c) Television
(d) Radio
Answer:
(b) Direct mail

Question 3.
During this stage, from 1950-1960, marketers focus shifted from promotion to product improvement. [ 1 ]
(a) Marketing oriented stage
(b) Product oriented stage
(c) Production oriented stage
(d) Sales oriented stage
Answer:
(b) Product oriented stage

Question 4.
An element of marketing mix, which creates utilities of time, place and possession: [1]
(a) Place
(b) Product
(c) Promotion
(d) Price
Answer:
(a) Place

Question 5.
In this type of market, customers select goods by reading the detailed literature and examining the samples: [1]
(a) Mail order market
(b) Tele market
(c) Catalogue market
(d) Online market
Answer:
(c) Catalogue market

Question 6.
………………. is the type of market on the basis of nature of goods. [1]
(a) Wholesale market
(b) Retail market
(c) Money market
(d) Consumers’market
Answer:
(d) Consumers’market

Question 7.
In this stage of marketing, the motto was to ‘Sell what can be produced.’ : [1]
(a) Product oriented stage
(b) Production oriented stage
(c) Marketing oriented stage
(d) Sales oriented stage
Answer:
(b) Production oriented stage

Question 8.
The value which is derived from the way the consumer perceives the brand name is : [1]
(a) Brand promotion
(b) Brand loyalty
(c) Brand equity
(d) Quality control
Answer:
(c) Brand equity

Question 9.
Advertisement designed to change a lifestyle of people is ………………. [1]
(a) Persuasive advertising
(b) Concept advertising
(c) Institutional advertising
(d) Product advertising
Answer:
(b) Concept advertising

Question 10.
The main objective of this advertising is to persuade the customers to buy a product or service or to support an idea. [1]
(a) Concept advertising
(b) Product advertising
(c) Persuasive advertising
(d) Informative advertising
Answer:
(c) Persuasive advertising

Question 11.
The strategy of selective distribution may be employed during ……………… stage of product life cycle. [ 1 ]
(a) Growth
(b) Maturity
(c) Introduction
(d) Decline
Answer:
(c) Introduction

Question 12.
The products bought after comparing quality, price, etc. of different brands are known as : [1]
(a) Shopping products
(b) Specialty products
(c) Industrial products
(d) Convenience products
Answer:
(a) Shopping products

Question 13.
In which type of market, products are advertised and demonstrated on television? [1]
(a) TV advertisement
(b) Newspaper advertisement
(c) Tele market
(d) Network market
Answer:
(c) Tele market

Question 14.
The traditional channel employed in the distribution of consumer goods is: [1]
(a) Manufacturer-Agent- Wholesaler-Retailer-Consumer
(b) Manufacturer-Agent-Retailer-Consumer
(c) Manufacturer-Wholesaler-Retailer-Consumer
(d) Manufacturer-Retailer-Consumer
Answer:
(c) Manufacturer-Wholesaler-Retailer-Consumer

Question 15.
Under this Pricing Strategy, a business firm adjusts its own price policy in accordance with general pricing structure in the industry. [1]
(a) Skimming pricing
(b) Parity pricing
(c) Cost plus pricing
(d) Penetrating pricing
Answer:
(b) Parity pricing

Question 16.
Advertising has been criticised because it [ 1 ]
(a) Generates employment
(b) Increases prices of products to the consumers
(c) Establishes direct link between producer and consumer
(d) Provides wider choice
Answer:
(b) Increases prices of products to the consumers

Question 17.
Which of the following is not an element of Distribution mix ? [1]
(a) Discount
(b) Transportation
(c) Channel
(d) Storage
Answer:
(a) Discount

Question 18.
……………….. ensures uniform standards of quality and design of products to consumers. [1]
(a) Selling
(b) Branding
(c) Advertising
(d) Publicity
Answer:
(b) Branding

Question 19.
Which stage of the Product Life Cycle is characterized by saturation in the market ? [1]
(a) Introduction
(b) Growth
(c) Maturity
(d) Decline
Answer:
(c) Maturity

Question 20.
Sale by description is suitable for: [ 1 ]
(a) Standardized goods
(b) Non-standardized goods
(c) Perishable goods
(d) Specimen goods
Answer:
(a) Standardized goods

Question 21.
Keen observation, alert mind and ……………………. are the qualities of a good salesman. [1]
(a) Cheerfulness
(b) Sharp memory
(c) Sincerity
(d) Sensitivity
Answer:
(b) Sharp memory

Question 22.
A market is a mechanism through which ……………………. are exchanged sold and transferred. [1]
(a) Products and services
(b) Products and capital
(c) Services and brands
(d) Patents and services
Answer:
(a) Products and services

Question 23.
Economic, social, legal and other forces influence marketing activities therefore, marketing is [1]
(a) A system
(b) Persuasive
(c) Part of total environment
(d) Creative
Answer:
(c) Part of total environment

Question 24.
Sales promotion, advertising, personal selling and publicity are used for ……………… [1]
(a) Promotion of products
(b) Placing the products
(c) Pricing the product
(d) Distribution of products
Answer:
(a) Promotion of products

Question 25.
Modern marketing has created several non-traditional markets like ……………… [1]
(a) Future market
(b) The international market
(c) Automatic vending machines
(d) The consumers’market
Answer:
(c) Automatic vending machines

Question 26.
On the basis of geographical area, market is classified into : [1]
(a) In-house market
(b) Regional market
(c) Primary market
(d) Spot market
Answer.
(b) Regional market

Question 27.
Marketing was considered to be mere distribution in this stage of Marketing: [ 1 ]
(a) Production-oriented stage
(b) Sales-oriented stage
(c) Product-oriented stage
(d) Marketing-oriented stage
Answer:
(a) Production-oriented stage

Question 28.
Consumer’s continuous preference of a particular brand due to faith in its superiority is termed as …………… [1]
(a) Brand Equity
(b) Brand promotion
(c) Brand loyalty
(d) Branding
Answer:
(c) Brand loyalty

Question 29.
The latest method of direct selling is ………………… [ 1 ]
(a) Online marketing
(b) Retail outlets
(c) Door-to-door selling
(d) Catalogue selling
Answer:
(a) Online marketing

Question 30.
Selling price = Total cost per unit +Desired profit per unit is the formula to fix prices under which Pricing Strategy? [ 1 ]
(a) Skimming pricing
(b) Penetrating pricing
(c) Cost plus pricing
(d) Parity pricing
Answer:
(c) Cost plus pricing

Question 31.
Selling aims at ……………….. [1]
(a) Maximization of customer satisfaction
(b) Long term goals
(c) Maximization of profit
(d) Stability of firm
Answer:
(c) Maximization of profit

Question 32.
…………………. is selective, flexible and is the skill of persuading people. [1]
(a) Personal selling
(b) Sales promotion
(c) Advertising
(d) Publicity
Answer:
(a) Personal selling

Question 33.
In non-business organization marketing is necessary for: [1]
(a) Creating demand
(b) Facing competition
(c) Spreading socially useful ideas
(d) Widening market
Answer:
(c) Spreading socially useful ideas

Question 34.
…………………. represents an integrated approach to marketing. [1]
(a) Price mix
(b) Place mix
(c) Marketing mix
(d) Promotion mix
Answer:
(c) Marketing mix

Question 35.
A high percentage of new products fail during this period of Product Life Cycle: [ 1 ]
(a) Growth stage
(b) Decline stage
(c) Introduction stage
(d) Maturity stage
Answer:
(c) Introduction stage

Question 36.
Factors which do not influence price determination is ………………… [1]
(a) Risk
(b) Goodwill
(c) Government control
(d) Buying motive
Answer:
(b) Goodwill

Question 37.
The main aim of penetrating pricing is to: [ 1 ]
(a) Provide funds for expansion
(b) Maximize the market share
(c) Provide a reasonable return on capital
(d) Avoid price wars
Answer:
(b) Maximize the market share

Question 38.
Sales promotion is ……………… in nature. [1]
(a) Non-recurring
(b) Recurring
(c) Written form
(d) Symbolic
Answer:
(a) Non-recurring

Question 39.
In advertising, the …………………. has control over the contents and the timing of the message. [ 1 ]
(a) Media
(b) Customer
(c) Competitor
(d) Sponsor
Answer.
(d) Sponsor

Question 40.
The activity involved in planning, pricing, promoting and distributing products and services is called ………………. [ 1 ]
(a) Marketing
(b) Selling
(c) Advertising
(d) Publicity
Answer:
(a) Marketing

Question 41.
The term ‘Caveat emptor’ means: [1]
(a) Let the seller beware.
(b) Let the buyer beware.
(c) Customer is king.
(d) Let the producer beware.
Answer:
(a) Let the seller beware.

Question 42.
One of the additional elements of marketing mix of services is …………………… [1]
(a) Price
(b) Place
(c) People
(d) Promotion
Answer:
(c) People

Question 43.
Which one is the feature of the advertising ? [1]
(a) Direct communication
(b) Face to face communication
(c) Mass communication
(d) Verbal communication
Answer:
(c) Mass communication

Question 44.
………………… determines the sales volume and the profit margins. [1]
(a) Price
(b) Product
(c) Competitor
(d) Marketing
Answer:
(a) Price

Question 45.
It is one of the methods of selling: [1]
(a) Sale on approval
(b) Capital sales
(c) Sale on instruction
(d) Exchange sales
Answer:
(a) Sale on approval

Question 46.
Marketing Mix represents the ………………… of an enterprise. [ 1 ]
(a) Total marketing program
(b) Total selling program
(c) Promotion techniques
(d) Total distribution plan
Answer:
(a) Total marketing program

Question 47.
Choose the correct sequence of the Product Life Cycle. [ 1 ]
(a) Introduction > Growth > Maturity > Decline > Abandonment
(b) Introduction > Maturity > Growth > Decline > Abandonment
(c) Introduction > Growth > Maturity > Abandonment > Decline
(d) Introduction > Maturity > Growth > Abandonment > Decline
Answer:
(a) Introduction > Growth > Maturity > Decline > Abandonment

Question 48.
This pricing strategy involves charging according to what competitors are charging: [ 1 ]
(a) Going rate pricing
(b) Cost plus pricing
(c) Penetrating pricing
(d) Skimming pricing
Answer:
(a) Going rate pricing

Question 49.
In which stage of the product life cycle, sales continue to grow but at a decreasing rate ? [ 1 ]
(a) Maturity stage
(b) Decline stage
(c) Growth stage
(d) Introduction stage
Answer:
(a) Maturity stage

Question 50.
……………………. is not a concept of market. [1]
(a) Area concept
(b) Demand concept
(c) People concept
(d) Supplier concept
Answer:
(d) Supplier concept

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2019 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2019 Solved

Time Allowed : Two Hours

General Instructions :

• Answers to this Paper must be written On the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section M.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section

Question 1.
State one difference between each of the following:
(a) Capital Market and Money Market [2]
(b) Direct Cost and Indirect cost [2]
(c) Employment Exchanges and Placement Agencies [2]
(d) Cheque and Bank Draft [2]
(e) Advertising and Publicity [2]
Answer:
(a)

Basis of Difference	Capital Market	Money Market
Meaning	A section of financial market where long term securities are issued and traded.	A segment of the financial market where lending and borrowing of short term securities are done.
Nature of Market	Formal	Informal

(b)

Basis of Difference	Direct Cost	Indirect Cost
Meaning	A cost that is easily attributable to a cost object is known as Direct Cost.	Indirect Cost is defined as the cost that cannot be allocated to a particular cost object.
Classification	Direct material, direct labour, direct expenses	Indirect material, indirect labour, indirect overheads

(c)

Basis of Difference	Employment Exchanges	Placement Agencies
Scope	They work for Govt. Bodies, State Government offices, Public Sector Officers and provide information about the registered users for particular field.	They work for large, small scale companies.
Ownership	They are run by Central/State/UT Government.	They are run by private firms.

(d)

Basis of Difference	Cheque	Bank Draft
Payment	Payable either to order! or to bearer.	Always payable to order of a certain person.
Issuance	Cheque is issued by an individual.	Demand Draft is issued by a bank.

(e)

Basis of Difference	Advertising	Publicity
About the Product	It is what the company says about its product.	It is what others say about the product.
Cost	Very expensive marketing tool.	Free of cost.

Question 2.
(a) Mention any two advantages of wind energy. [2]
(b) State any two uses of Balance Sheet. [2]
(c) Mention any two circumstances when a Bank can refuse payment of a cheque. [2]
(d) What is meant by consumer education ? [2]
(e) Mention the four elements ofMarketing mix. [2]
Answer:
(a) Advantages of wind energy:

• It is a pollution free, clean energy source.
• It is totally free source of energy.

(b) Uses of balance sheet are :

• A balance sheet reflects the capital of the company showing its strength or weakness. One can use a balance sheet to gain insight of a company and its financial operations.
• Tell you about company’s worth; that is, how much would be left if all assets were sold and debts were paid off.

(c) A bank can refuse a payment of cheque in the following circumstances :

• If the signatures of the borrower on the cheque differ from the signatures done by him in the account opening form.
• If the cheque issued date is more than 3 months old.

(d) Consumer education means :

• providing resources and information to the consumers like price and trade practices.
• educating customers as how to make better buying decisions that directly affect the functioning of the economy.

(e) Elements of marketing mix are :

1. Product
2. Price
3. Promotion
4. Place

Question 3.
(a) What is food adulteration ? Give an example. [2]
(b) State the importance of ‘persuasion ’ as an element of Public Relations. [2]
(c) Explain two advantages of opening a bank account. [2]
(d) What is meant by parity pricing ?  [2]
(e) What do you mean by Office and Administrative Overhead ? [2]
Answer:
(a) Food Adulteration refers to the process by which the quality or the nature of a given food is reduced through addition of adulterants or removal of vital substance. Food adulterants are inferior chemical substances present in food that cause harm or is unwanted in the food.

A common example of food adulteration is mixing of papaya seeds in pepper. Mixing of sweet potato in ghee is another common example of food adulteration.

(b) Persuasion refers to the process by which a person’s attitudes or behaviour are influenced by communication. Persuasion helps in changing the hostile opinion. It helps in understanding the needs and expectations of customers from a particular product and also addressing their queries.

(c) Advantages of opening a bank account:
There is no need to keep huge cashes in business place or home.
The cash deposited in the bank earns an interest.

(d) Parity pricing means increasing selling price of a product or service proportionately or rather by the same amount as the increase in the prices of raw materials or inputs.

(e) Office and Administrative overheads are those costs which are incurred for the overall administrative work of the organization. They include:

• Indirect materials such as office supplies, stationery and printing items, brooms etc.
• Indirect labour such as salaries payable to staff
• Indirect expenses such as lighting, rent/insurance of office.

Question 4.
Give a reason either for or against each of the following statements:
(a) Human Resource Management is a challenging function. [2]
(b) Every transactions has two effects. (Answer with reference to the Concept of Accounting) [2]
(c) Ethics has no role in Public Relations. [2]
(d) Today’s Marketing Concept is known as Consumer Oriented Concept. [2]
(e) A distribution channel serves as a link between producers and consumers. [2]
Answer:
(a) Yes. Human Resource Management is a challenging function. One of the challenges for the HRM is related to the factors that are located inside the organization. These factors include competitive position and flexibility organizational restructuring and issues of downsizing, the exercise of self-managed teams, development of suitable organizational culture etc.

(b) Yes, every transaction has two effects. The dual effect principle is the foundation or basic principle of accounting. It provides the very basis for recording business transactions into the records of a business. This concept states that every transaction has a dual or double effect and should therefore be recorded in two places.

This is the beginning of the double entry book keeping system.

The basis of this principle is that every transaction that a business does has two effects.

If we take a basic transaction, A buys a vehicle for ₹ 5,00,000, we can break this down to see that there is two effects.
Effect 1 – A has ₹ 5,00,000 less in his bank
Effect 2 – A has an asset that has a cost of ₹ 5,00,000.

(c) Ethics has a role in public relations. Ethics are important to help gain public trust, retain employees and can lead to greater innovation in the industry.

Ethics include the professional values of advocacy, honesty, expertise, independence, loyalty and fairness. Ethical values include the free-flow of information, competition, disclosure of information, safeguarding confidence, conflicts of interest and enhancing the profession.

While we often deal with the provisions of conduct as PR professionals, understanding the underlying values is a key to successful ethical practice.

(d) Yes, marketing concept is consumer oriented concept. The marketing concept is the use of marketing data to focus on the needs and wants of customers in order to develop marketing strategies that not only satisfy the needs of the customers but also accomplish the goals of the organization.

The marketing concept is oriented toward pleasing customers (be those customers organizations or consumers) by offering value. Specifically, the marketing concept involves focusing on the needs and wants of the customers so the organization can distinguish its product(s) from competitors’ offerings.

(e) A distribution channel serves a link between producers and consumers. A channel of distribution is the route or path along which goods move from producers to ultimate consumers. If there is no channel of distribution, the goods cannot reach from manufacturer to wholesaler and wholesaler to retail and retailer to consumers.

Section – B (60 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section

Question 5.
(a) Explain the maturity stage and abandonment stage of product life cycle. [5]
(b) Explain three professional and two social significances of Human Resource Management. [5]
(c) Explain any two leading money functions of the commercial bank. [5]
Answer:
(a) (i) Maturity Stage :
In maturity stage prices of the product fall and profits also fall due to high competitive pressures. Growth rate becomes stable and weak firms are forced to leave the industry. Heavy expenditure is incurred on promotion to create brand loyalty. Firms try to modify and improve the product, to develop new uses to the product and to attract new customers in order to increase sales.

(ii) Abandonment Stage :
This is the final stage of the product life cycle. In this stage, the firm abandons the product in order to make better use of its resources. As preferences of customers change, new and more innovative products replace the abandoned product. When the decline is fast, the product is abandoned by the firm. New products with unique features may be introduced. Some firms cannot bear the loss and sell out and discontinue the product.

(b) Professional significance :

1. HRM provides maximum opportunities for personal development of each employee in the organization.
2. It helps in maintaining healthy relationships among individuals, and different work groups.
3. Allocates work properly to the employees.

Social Significance :

1. Provides suitable employment that provides social and psychological satisfaction to people.
2. Maintains a balance between the jobs available and the jobseekers in terms of numbers, qualifications, needs and aptitudes.

(c) Primary functions of commercial banks in money lending:
Money deposited by the customers in the banks is disbursed to the needy persons for productive purposes. This function is very important because the economic development of the country mainly depends on the credit schemes of banks. Banks lend money in different forms. The most popular forms of lending are :

Overdraft
An overdraft is an arrangement by which the customer is permitted to draw money over and above the credit balance in his account. The customers have to pay interest for the overdrawn amount.

Cash Credit
Cash credit is a short-term credit given to the businessmen for meeting their working capital requirements. It is normally made against certain security. The banker opens the cash credit account in the name of the borrower and permits him to withdraw money from time to time up to a certain limit fixed by the value of stocks available in the business premises of the borrower.

The borrower withdraws money from the cash credit account as per his requirements.

Interest is charged only on the amount actually withdrawn by the account holders from the account. This type of loan is very popular among businessmen in India.

Loans and Advances
These are direct loans given to all type of customers. These loans are given against the security of the movable and immovable properties. The amount of loan is paid as cash, or customer’s account is credited with it so that he can withdraw the amount from his account at any time.

Question 6.
(a) Explain any two types of interviews that are used in selection of employees. [5]
(b) Discuss employee relations and government relations on the basis of scope ofpublic relations. [5]
(c) Explain any five features of Income and Expenditure account. [5]
Answer:
(a) Types of interviews in selection process :
Formal Interview:
Formal interviews may be held in the employment office by the employment officer in more formal atmosphere, with the help of well-structured questions. The time and place of the interview will be stipulated by the employment officer.

Informal Interview:
An informal interview is an oral interview and may take place anywhere. The employee or the manager or the personnel manager may ask a few almost inconsequential questions like name, place of birth, names of relatives etc. either in their respective offices or anywhere outside the plant of company. It is not planned and nobody prepares for it. This is used widely when the labour market is tight and when you need workers badly.

(b) Government relations with employees specifically focus on how the employees of an organization interact with the government. In fact, employees interact with their organization through various branches and officials of the organization and in turn, the organization interacts with the government. This is the area of public relations that helps build relationships and positive interactions between an organization and government officials.

Government relations rely heavily on communicating about regulatory issues, one-on-one conversations with government representatives and building efforts on behalf of a group or organization.

(c) Features of income and expenditure account are :

• It shows the excess of income over expenditure or viGe-versa.
• Expenses are entered on debit side and incomes on the credit side.
• Capital items are excluded.
• Any income of revenue nature relating to the present period whether actually received or not and any expenditure of revenue nature whether paid or not being taken into account.
• All receipts and payments relating to the preceding or succeeding period are excluded.

Question 7.
(a) Discuss the Sales oriented stage and Product oriented stage of marketing. [5]
(b) Explain Product advertising and Informative advertising. [5]
(c) Explain the first five steps, in personal selling. [5]
Answer:
(a) In the product oriented stage the motto is “Make all you can”.

1. Demand exceeds available supply.
2. All that is made can be sold.
3. Focus is on engineering and generating output, not the customer.

In the sales oriented stage the motto was “Sell all you make”.

1. Supply frequently exceeds demand.
2. Focus is on promotion and pricing; objective is to sell the entire inventory.

(b) Product advertising is the art of building and maintaining product awareness with potential buyers. A good product advertising educates potential customers on why they need the product, how it is used and the benefits derived from its use. A successful program also tells the consumer how the product is better than similar offerings by competitors.

Informative advertising is often used when launching a new product or for an updated product. The objective is to develop initial demand for a good, service organization or cause. It is used when a new product is put in the market’ on when an old product has been re-launched or updated. Informative advertising will tell the consumer and marketplace about the product, explain how it works, provide pricing and product information and should build awareness for the product as well as the company.

(c) Steps in personal selling are :
Prospecting
The first step of the personal selling process is called ‘prospecting’. Prospecting refers to locating potential customers. There are many sources from which potential customers can be found: observation, social contacts, trade shows, commercially-available databases, commercially-available mail list and cold calling.

Pre-Approach
The pre-approach involves preparation for the sales presentation. Preparation involves research about the potential customers, such as market research. Research is useful in planning the right sales presentation. During the pre-approach the salesperson may also plan and practice their sales presentation.

The Approach
The approach refers to the initial contact between the salesperson and the prospective customer. During this stage the sales person takes a few minutes for “small talk” and get to know the potential customer. The goal of the approach is to determine the specific needs and wants of the individual customer, as well as allowing the potential customer to relax and open up.

Sales Presentation
The sales presentation involves the salesperson presenting the product or service, describing its qualities and possibly demonstrating features of the product. Ideally the sales presentation will be individualized to match the needs and desires of the potential customer.

Closing the Sale
Closing the sale refers to finalizing the sale and persuading the potential customer to make the purchase. During the ‘closing the sale’ step, prices and payment options may be negotiated.

Question 8.
(a) Write short notes on : [5]
(i) Business Entity Concept
(ii) Going Concern Concept
(b) Explain any two types of consumer products with examples. [5]
(c) Explain any Jive procurement functions of Human Resource Management. [5]
Answer:
(a) (i) The business entity concept states that the transactions associated with a business must be separately recorded from those of its owners or other businesses. It requires the use of separate accounting records for the organization that completely exclude the assets and liabilities of any other entity or the owner. Without this concept, the records of multiple entities would be intermingled, making it quite difficult to discern the financial or taxable results of a single business.

(ii) The going concern concept of accounting implies that the business entity will continue its operations in the future and will not discontinue its operations due to any reason. A company is a going concern if no evidence is available to believe that it will or will have to cease its operations in future.

(b) Two types of consumer products are:
Convenience Products :
Convenience products are bought by the consumers most frequently. They are bought immediately and without great comparison between other options. Convenience products are typically low-priced, not-differentiated among other products and placed in locations where consumers can easily purchase them. The products are widely distributed, require mass promotion and are placed in convenient locations.

Sugar, laundry detergent, pencils, pens and papers are examples all of convenience products.

Shopping Products:
Shopping products are bought less frequently by consumers. Consumers usually compare features of shopping products such as quality, price and style between other products. Therefore, shopping products are more carefully compared against other products and consumers spend considerably more time in comparison, as opposed to convenience products. Shopping products require personal selling and advertising.

Airline tickets, furniture, electronics, clothing and phones are all examples of shopping products.

(c)

1. Job analysis: It is the process of collecting information relating to the operations and responsibilities pertaining to a specific job.
2. Human resources planning : It is a process of determining and assuring that the organisation will have an adequate number of qualified persons, available at proper times, performing jobs which would meet their needs and provide satisfaction for the individuals involved.
3. Recruitment : It is the process of searching prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization.
4. Selection : It is the process of ascertaining qualifications, experience, skills and knowledge of an applicant with a view to appraising his/her suitability to the job in question.
5. Placement : It is the process for matching the employee’s qualifications, experience, skills and interest with the job on offer. It is the personnel manager’s responsibility to position the right candidate at the right level.

Question 9.
Case Study
Ryan Ltd. took the following steps in the beginning of this year to widen its consumer base. It expanded the business operations to cover international markets and within India, it focused on Delhi. It repositioned itself as a FMCG company, offering a wide rangof Modem Electronic items, and moved away from traditional marketing to non-tmditional marketing. The company focused on quality control andpublicity. It also introduced new advertisements featuring film stars and sports personalities. It undertook various brand promotion methods.

(a) Explain any two advantages of advertising to manufacturers. [5]
(b) Explain any two elements of promotion mix. [5]
(c) Explain any five Non-traditional markets. [5]
Answer:
(a) Advantages of advertising to manufacturers :

• The increase in demand caused by advertising makes possible the installation of latest plants and introduction of technological improvement. This results not only in improved quality of the product but in the reduction of the cost per unit.
• Through advertising the manufacturer can create a demand for his product and maintain it throughout the year and thereby reduce the seasonal slumps in his business.

(b) (i) Advertising:
Advertising is defined as any paid form of non-personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods and services by an identified sponsor. It is a way of mass communication. It is the most popular and widely practiced tool of market promotion. Major part of promotional budget is consumed for advertising alone. Various advertising media – television, radio, newspapers, magazines, outdoor means and so forth, are used for advertising the product.

(ii) Sales promotion :
Sales promotion covers those marketing activities other than advertising, publicity and personal selling that stimulate consumer purchasing and dealer effectiveness. Sales promotion mainly involves short-term and non-routine incentives, offered to dealers as well consumers. The popular methods used for sales promotion are demonstration, trade show, exhibition, exchange offer, seasonal discount, free service, gifts, contests, etc.

(c) Non-traditional markets are :

• Catalogue market
• In-house market
• Mail-order market
• Automatic vending machines
• Tele-market

(i) Catalogue market:
The seller prepares catalogues of products and sells directly to the customer. Samples of the products are also kept at the selling place of the seller which can be seen, tested or examined by the customers.

Avon is a good example of a company successfully using this channel to sell its range of cosmetics.

(ii) In-house market :
In this type of market, sales persons visit door-to-door in the locality and offer products to the people at their houses. This is an effective method and offers good discounts to the customers. Dictionaries, visual books are sold in this manner.

(iii )Mail-order market:
In this type of market, the seller mails the catalogue of the products and other publicity material to the prospective buyers. Customers place orders after reading the publicity material. Goods are despatched through courier or V.P.P. This market is however being replaced by online shopping firms like Flipkart, Amazon.

(iv) Automatic vending machines :
These machines are installed in the premises of malls, workplaces, schools and public places. Customer puts the coins/cash in the machine and collects the product. Vending machines for selling cold drinks, tea, coffee, soups can be seen at various places.

(v) Tele-markets:
The product is advertised on television channels and in the newspapers. Toll-free numbers are provided in the advertisement for placing the orders. Orders are executed through couriers.

Question 10.
A leading Human Resource Consultancy group has received a number of applications for the post of an analyst for its Hyderabad office. But the person finally selected had no prior experience for work in the same industry. The administrative manager feels that with proper training the selected person will turn out to be an asset to the organisation. Although he feels that on-the-job training will be the most appropriate, other members of the selection committee recommended Internship training and Role Playing methods of training.

(a) What is employee selection ? Mention any three benefits of employee selection. [5]
(b) Explain Internship training and Role Playing methods of training. [5]
(c) Explain any two internal sources of recruitment. [5]
Answer:
(a) Selection is the process that an organization uses to determine which job applicant will be the most successful in meeting the demands of the job or will fit well with the existing work groups and the culture of the organization.

Benefits of employee selection :
Reduces Applicant Numbers :
Recruitment attracts many applicants to a particular job, which may prove difficult to manage, but selection reduces applicants to a manageable number. Candidates who have applied for a job during the recruitment stage are screened in the selection stage. Those who prove suitable for the job are selected and unsuitable ones are rejected.

Access Behaviour:
Selection gives managers an opportunity to assess potential employees’ character and personality. This ensures that only an employee with the most suitable personalities and skills is given the job. The organization takes particular notice of the personal flexibility and adaptability of a candidate, which ‘ assures that such an individual can adjust rapidly to the tough demands of the job.

Low Employee Turnover
Appropriate selection procedures applied in the recruitment process ensure that only the most qualified individual is chosen to fill a vacancy. Recruited employees who are satisfied with their jobs lead to a low employee turnover rate. Employee retention is important to an organization, as the costs of hiring and training new employees are very high.

(b) Under the Internship Training, an educational or a vocational institute enters into an arrangement with the industrial enterprises to provide experiential knowledge to their students.

Simply, the training conducted to offer a practical knowledge to the students, lasting for few months, is called as the internship training. These trainings are conducted for such courses viz. Engineering, Medical, Management, etc., wherein the advanced theoretical knowledge is to be backed up by the practical experience of the job.

Role playing method is a stimulation in which each participant is given a role to play. Trainees are given with some information related to description of the role, concerns, objectives, responsibilities, emotions, etc. Then, a general description of the situation and the problem that each one of them faces, is given.

For instance, situation could be strike in factory, managing conflict, two parties in conflict, scheduling vacation days, etc. Once the participants read their role descriptions, they act out their roles by interacting with one another.

(c) Employees of the organization :
Employees of the organization communicate or inform about the vacant positions of the organization to their friends and relatives. In many organizations, they allowed referring potential candidates for the suitable vacancies.

Promotions :
Promotions involve vacancies of the organization are filled by promoting the skilled employees to the suitable jobs and it can motivate the employees by giving higher position, increased salary, status and responsibility. Promotions can help in reducing employee turnover by creating the hope of getting higher positions.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2018 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2018 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
State one difference between each of the following:
(a) Spot Market and Future Market   [2]
(b) Institutional Advertising and Product Advertising   [2]
(c) Fixed Deposit Account and Recurring Deposit Account  [2]
(d) Fixed Cost and Variable Cost   [2]
(e) Recruitment and Selection  [2]
Answer:
(a) Difference between Spot Market and Future Market:

Spot Market	Future Market
Goods are physically transferred from the buyers to the sellers in the spot market.	In the Future Market, commodity exchange which are organised for making future contract which does not require actual delivery of goods from seller to the buyer.

(b) Difference between Institutional and Product Advertising

Institutional Advertising	Product Advertising
This type of advertising is used to build the goodwill or image of an Organisation or institution in public.	In this type of advertising, it focuses on a particular product or brand or service of an enterprise.

(c) Difference between Fixed Deposit Account and Recurring Deposit Account:

Fixed Deposit Account	Recurring Deposit Account
Fixed Deposits are made for a specified period and cannot be withdrawn before the expiry for which they have been deposited in the bank.	Recurring deposit can be opened with small amount over a specified period, the depositor keeps on depositing a certain sum of money every month.

(d) Difference between Fixed Cost and Variable Cost:

Fixed Cost	Variable Cost
The cost which are attributed to fixed factors of production are called fixed cost.	The cost which vary or change with the change in the size of outputs are called variable cost.

(e) Difference between Recruitment and Selection :

Recruitment	Selection
Searching prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs called recruitment.	Choosing the candidates having necessary qualifications and eliminate all unsuitable candidates is called selection.

Question 2.
(a) Mention any two essentials of a Brand. [2]
(b) State any two uses of Income and Expenditure Account. [2]
(c) Mention any four elements of Price Mix. [2]
(d) Mention any two harmful effects of global warming. [2]
(e) What is meant by Vestibule Training ? [2]
Answer:
(a) The essentials of a brand are :

1. The brand name should be brief and clear.
2. It should be suggestive of the utility of the product.

(b) The two uses of Income and Expenditure Account are :

1. It is prepared with the object of finding out the surplus or deficit of current incomes over current expenses.
2. It serves as the basis for preparing the Balance Sheet of non-trading organisation.

(c) The four elements of Price Mix are :

1. Discounts : A firms will increase the sales by giving discounts to the customers.
2. Price Policy: It is the standing answer of the firm to M recurring problem of pricing.
3. Credit : It denotes confidence of the lender in the honesty and integrity of the borrower and his ability to repay his debt in time.
4. Allowances: The manufacturer may offer promotional allowances, e.g., advertising allowances etc.

(d) The two harmful effects of global warming are:

1. Global warming could have disastrous effects on the environment, e.g., sea level rise, polar ice melts etc.
2. It have serious impact on human lives by affecting freshwater availability, agriculture yield etc.

(e) Vestibule Training is also known as “Off the Job Training.” New workers are trained with specialised machines and equipments under practical work situation. Trainees have an opportunity to get accustomed to the work routine and recover from their initial nervousness before going on the actual jobs.

Question 3.
(a) Mention any two merits of external sources of recruitment. [2]
(b) What is a Bank Draft ? [2]
(c) What do you mean by business ethics ? [2]
(d) Give two reasons for the growing importance of Public Relations to business enterprises. [2]
(e) Give two General Utility functions of Commercial Banks. [2]
Answer:
(a) The two merits of external recruitment are given below :

1. Selection from external sources facilitates the choice of personnel from a large number of applicants.
2. The enterprise greatly benefits from the freshness of outlook and approach of personnel chosen from external sources.

(b) Bank draft is a type of cheque which is drawn by a bank either on its own branch or on another bank. In order to remit money through a bank draft, a person first obtains the bank draft from the bank. The draft commission is paid in advance by the sender of the bank draft. The payment of an uncrossed bank draft can be collected at the center of the bank on which it is drawn.

(c) Business ethics is the written and unwritten code of principles and values that govern decisions and actions within a company. The purpose of business ethics is to guide the managers and employees in performing their jobs.

(d) The following are the reasons for the growing importance of Public Relations to business enterprises :

1. The development of an astoundingly vast and intricate network of mass communication media.
2. The increasingly keen competition in the world economy has imposed a regard for public opinion and an urgent need for public support.

(e) The General utility functions of Commercial Banks are :

1. Issuing letter of credit and standing as surety for customers.
2. Accepting and discounting bills of exchange of exporters.

Question 4.
Justify a reason either for or against each of the following:
(a) A Receipts and Payments Account is a nominal account. [2]
(b) Some costs are semi-variable in nature. [2]
(c) Human Resource is the most valuable asset to business enterprises. [2]
(d) A company needs to pay for its publicity to the media owners. [2]
(e) With reference to the concept of accounting only those transactions are recorded in accounts which can be expressed in terms of money. [2]
Answer:
(a) No, Receipts and Payment Account is not a nominal account. It is a real account, (debit what comes in, credit what goes out). The primary object of preparing this account is to find out the cash position and to show receipts and payments under different heads. As, it is summary of cash transactions appearing in the Cash Book.

(b) Yes, some costs are also semi-variable costs in nature. These costs do not vary proportionately but do not remain constant with the change in the volume of output. For example, in telephone cost, basic rental cost is fixed but call rates are vary.

(c) Human Resource Development is a system of developing in a continuous and planned way the competencies of individual employees, dynamic groups, teams and total organisation to achieve organisational goals. It also maintain the high morale and better human relations would then be measured in terms of these more tangible criteria.

(d) A company needs to pay for its publicity to the media owners. As the company have to pay money for communicating the new and different uses of their products which will increase the demand of the product and boost nation’s economy too.

(e) Money is a common denominator. Money measurement concept helps to make accounting records homogeneous, relevant, simple and understandable. In other words, an event, howsoever important may be to the business, will not be recorded unless its monetary effect can be measured with a fair degree of accuracy. So, in this concept, only those transactions are recorded in accounts which can be expressed in terms of money.

Section – B (60 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section

Question 5.
(a) Distinguish between ‘Product’and ‘Services’. [5]
(b) Explain the strategies to be adopted during the Introduction Stage and the Growth Stage of Product Life Cycle. [5]
(c) Explain ‘Accounting Period Concept’with reference to concept of accounting. [5]
Answer:
(a) Difference between Product and Services.

Basis	Product	Services
(i) Market Relationship	Product and brand are the focus of transaction.	A very important link.
(ii) Quality	Can be measured and controlled.	Difficult to control and measured.
(iii) Inseparability of buyer and seller	Fully separable, remote transactions are possible.	Not separable, remote transactions not possible.
(iv) Sensitivity to time	Low sensitivity, e.g., a soap can be bought in advance of need.	Highly sensitive, e.g., doctor’s services are needed when there is a patient.
(v) Brand	Main strategy is product marketing.	People are equally important.

(b) The strategies adopted during Introduction stage are :

1. Selective distribution and attractive discount should be given.
2. Proper advertisement of product.
3. Removing technical and other deficiencies in the product.
4. Attractive gifts to customers as an introductory offer.

The strategies adopted during Growth stage are :

1. Keeping the price at competitive levels.
2. Expanding distribution channels to make the product available wherever demanded.
3. Greater emphasis on customer service.
4. More advertising to create brand image.

(c) Accounting statements are prepared at regular intervals, generally one year. This is called Accounting period concept. The expenditure whose benefit will across over a long period, should be apportioned suitable over each year. The users of financial statements need periodical reports on the performance of business.

As such, the results of business can be ascertained only after the liquidation of business. But the measurement of net profit and financial position of the business after a very long period will be of little use of owners, managers, investors and other.

Question 6.
(a) What is direct selling ? Mention four circumstances where direct distribution is more suitable than indirect channels of distribution. [5]
(b) Explain any five qualities of a good salesman. [5]
(c) Explain Matching Principle of Accounting. [5]
Answer:
(a) When producer or the manufacturer directly sells the goods to the customers without involving any middlemen, it is called direct selling. For example, McDonalds, Ba& etc. The producer can sell their product or services to customers by mail order selling, door-to-door selling etc. There are some circumstances where direct distribution is more suitable than indirect channels of distribution :

1. In case of industrial goods like CT Scan machine, direct channel should be preferred because they are technical, expensive, made to order and purchased by few buyers.
2. Short channels are preferred for technically complex goods like industrial or engineering products like machinery etc.
3. Direct channels are used if management wants greater control on the channel members otherwise a company can go in for longer channels.
4. Perishable products like fruits, bread or vegetables are distributed through direct channels.

(b) The following are the qualities of a good salesman :
(i) Knowledge :
Salesman should have adequate knowledge of his company, its product, rival products, consumer behavior etc. He should have knowledge about the price at which the competitor is offering goods or services.

(ii) Sociable :
A good salesman always mixes up with people without any restraint. He should have the quality of adjusting with the customers of different nature. He should be a convincing, conversationalist and should be able to present his proposition pleasantly.

(iii) Physical Attributes :
A successful salesman must have sound health and pleasing personality. He should have capacity for hardwork, a good stamina and sufficient tolerance. He should be mentally fit to understand what prospect says on one hand and on the other to make prospect understand what he says.

(iv) Initiative :
Initiative is needed in prospecting, approaching and convincing the buyers even without prior direction. An effective salesman also needs to have presence of mind and good common sense.

(v) Personality :
A good salesman should always has neat and clean appearance and he should be dressed up in accordance to the particular working conditions. Personality is a composite of various features of a person – habits, appearance, way of dressing, posture, voice etc. He should not be casual.

(c) Matching Principle of Accounting :
According to this principle, cost of a particular period should be charged from the revenue of same period only. This principle provides the guidelines as to how the expenses are to be matched with revenue. For matching costs with revenue, first revenue should be recognized and then costs incurred for generating that revenue should be recognized.

It requires that in determining the net profit, all costs which are applicable to revenue of that period should be charged against that revenue. The following points should be considered while matching costs with revenue :

1. Cost of goods remaining unsold at the end of the year together with expenses incurred on them must be carried forward to the next year.
2. When a item of revenue is included in the profit and loss account, all expenses incurred on it whether paid or not, should be included in the profit and loss account.
3. Incomes received in advance must be treated as a liability, while income earned but not received should be recognized as revenue.
4. If an amount is spent, but revenue from it will be earned in the next year, the amount should be carried down as an asset and should be shown as an expense next year.

Question 7.
(a) Write short notes on :  [5]
(i) Consumer Rights
(ii) Direct and Indirect Labour cost
(b) Explain any two functions of a central bank of a country. [5]
(c) Explain any two methods of On-The-Job Training. [5]
Answer:
(a) (i) Consumer Rights are now an integral part of our lives like a consumerist way of life market resources
and influences are growing by the day and so is the awareness of one’s consumer rights. The following are the consumer rights :
(A) Right to Safety
(B) Right to be Informed
(C) Right to Choose
(D) Right to be Heard
(E) Right to seek addressed
(F) Right to Consumer Education

(ii) Direct Labour Costs is that cost which are specifically and conveniently traceable to specific products. Labour takes an active and direct part in the production of a goods.

Indirect Labour Costs is that cost which cannot be easily traced to specific units of output. Labour is employed for carrying out tasks incidental to goods produced.

(b) The following are the two functions of a Central Bank:
(i) Banker’s Bank:
The central bank acts as a banker to all the commercial banks in the country. This means, the relation of the central bank with other banks of the country is almost alike to those of a bank with its customer. Commercial banks are required to keep a certain proportion of their deposits in the form of cash reserves with the central bank. These reserves facilitates the central bank to control the issue of credit by commercial banks.

(ii) Custodian of Foreign Currency:
The central bank is the sole custodian of gold and foreign currency reserves of the country. It preserves the reserves of the country, in order to utilize them for making payments to foreign countries when the balance of payments is unfavourable, foreign exchange resources are reduced.

The central bank, therefore, advises the government to impose restrictions on exports and encourage imports or vice-versa in such a way that the balance of payments may be favourable to the country.

(c) The two methods of On-The-Job Training are :
(i) Apprenticeship Training :
In this method, the trainees learn by working with those who are already skilled in their jobs. It aims at providing necessary background; practical knowledge and necessary experience to the worker. The Government of India has set up Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) for the purpose of apprenticeship training. During this training, trainee may be given a stipend.

(ii) Job Rotation :
In this method, the trainee is periodically rotated from job-to-job. The trainee gets job knowledge and gains experience in different assignments.

Few persons have the capacity to move from one job to another. So, the persons to be trained and the jobs to which they are to be rotated should be selected carefully.

Question 8.
(a) Briefly explain the elements of public relations. [5]
(b) Explain:
(i) Campus Recruitment [5]
(ii) Placement agencies as external sources ofrecruitment.
(c) What is energy crisis ? Discuss any two renewable energy
sources that would help meet this crisis. [5]
Answer:
(a) Public Relation is a philosophy and function of mana-gement expressed in policies and practices which serve the public to secure its understanding and goodwill.
The following are the various elements of public relations:

1. Target group Orientation : The target group to be reached must be clearly identified for any campaign. The definition of the target group should be in demographic and psychographic terms.
2. Adequate Resources : To be effective, and to make the desired impact, advertising, publicity and public relations programmes must be sustained and backed with adequate financial resources.
3. Media Selection : The media to be used must be those which reach the right target group at the right time, and at the minimum cost.
4. Objective Orientation : All advertising, publicity and public relations programmes must have pre-defined short-term and long-term objectives as a prerequisite.
5. Creativity and Innovations: The more creative and innovative you can be, the better your message will be noticed and the better will be the chance of your being able to achieve your goals.

(b) (i) Campus Recruitment :
Jobs in business have become highly technical and require well-educated persons. The employer gets help from the placement cell of the educational institute in recruitment and the selection. Companies send their managers to such institutions where there are suitable candidates recommended by institutes. For example, students passing out from IIMs and IITs are recruited every year at the campus itself.

(ii) Placement agencies :
Placement agencies consists of private agencies and professional bodies. These agencies keep biodata of a large number of candidates and provide a nation wide service of recommending suitable names to their clients. They also keep a complete record of skills and qualification of the candidates and sometimes even advertise the jobs on behalf of their clients in order to recruit the most potential candidate. This source of recruitment is employed for recruitment of senior managers and technicians.

(c) An energy crisis is any great bottleneck in the supply of energy sources to an economy. It is also the gap between demand and supply. It usually refers to the shortage of oil, or the shortage of electricity or other natural resources. Renewable energy is energy generated from natural resources which can be generated continuously in nature and are inexhaustible. The various renewable sources of energy are:

(i) Solar Energy : Solar energy is the energy received by the earth from the sun. The solar energy can be converted into other forms of energy mainly by two methods :
(a) Thermal Method : In this method, solar radiation in the form of heat is converted into mechanical, electrical and chemical energy by using solar thermal devices.
(b) Photo voltaic Method : The sun’s energy is directly converted into electricity using a photo voltaic cell.

(ii) Biomass Energy: Biomass includes firewood, crop and timber wastes, aquatic plants, animal wastes and organic matter from household, municipal and certain types of industrial wastes. India produces about 300 million tones of crop residue every year in which it generate about 40,000 MW of electricity.

Question 9.
Flipkart, a Bengaluru based company, which started in the year 2007 as an online book store is now India’s largest e-retailer. It is popular in the books and electronics segment but it now sells products across categories including fashion, consumer durables, home decor and furniture. Flipkart is doing very good business and it acquired 100% of Myntra, but Myntra will operate as an independent entity. Mobile Brand ‘Motorola ’ is selling their new launches in India through Flipkart. The company aims at becoming leader in every segment.

India’s e-commerce market has seen growth in the past few years as more people log on to the Internet to shop online. Goods can be bought on ‘cash on delivery’. Various banks like HDFC, Axis and ICICI tied up with the reputed e-sellers, so as to convert online purchases into convenient equated monthly installments. Amazon, the world’s largest e-retailer entered India and in few months the company has aggressively gained market share by expanding its product range and introducing the one day delivery system. Soon after Flipkart also introduced one day delivery and the same day delivery in selected towns and cities. With reference to the above:

(a) What is online shopping ? [5]
Name any three companies do online trading in India.
(b) What are the reasons for the increase in online shopping in India ? [5]
(c) Identify the distribution channel adopted by Motorola in selling its new launches [5]
Briefly explain few other distribution channels adopted by marketers.
Answer:
(a) Online shopping is very convenient and hasslefree and customers can order goods or products 24 hours a day. They can access information on the internet about competing brands. The sellers or producers sells products across all over the world and sells across various categories including fashion, consumer durables, home decor, furniture etc. It is the place where seller can quickly add products and change prices and descriptions also. The companies who do online trading in India are Flipkart, Amazon, Myntra etc.

(b) The various reasons for the increase in online shopping in India are:

1. Consumers can easily compare prices and review online before making a purchase.
2. Customers increasingly prefer the flexibility of online shopping as it offers the convenience to shop when they want and from wherever they happen to be.
3. Online shopping offers a much easier way for customers to search for exactly what they want at the click of button.
4. An online store allows customers the option to shop from further a field as they are not restricted by geographical location.
5. Customers can buy things at cheaper prices.

(c) Direct channels of distribution adopted by Motorola in selling its new launches.
There are various distribution channels adopted by marketers :

1. Telemarketing: The products are heavily advertised on T.V. The consumers who watch advertisements and feel interested can place their orders.
2. One Level Channel : This channel involves the use of one middleman who in turn sells them to the ultimate customers. This channel is often used for the distribution of consumer durables and products of high value.
3. Two Level Channel: This channel is suitable where producer has limited finance and narrow product line or where the wholesalers are specialised. Under this, wholesaler and retailer act as a link between the manufacturer and the customers.
4. Three Level Channel: This is the longest channel of distribution. The producers hands over his entire output to the selling agent who distributes it among a few wholesalers. This level is usually used when a manufacturer deals in limited products and wants to cover a wide market.

Question 10.
The oldest Indian confectionery company wants people to know that their cookies and biscuits are from the “House of Parle The company finds it important to reinstate the credibility and familiarity of the brand. From now onwards, the company will advertise its products under the tagline “From the House of Parle ”.

Parle is sitting on a strong pedigree of many individual brands, with reference to brand equity, while the flagship Parle-G is worth ₹ 5000 Crore plus and by far the biggest brand in the portfolio combining nearly 30% of overall share, others like Parle 20-20 and Parle Magix Cream are among ₹ 1000 Crore and Crackjack, Monaco and Hide & Seek around ₹ 500 Crore.

The fact that Parle is strongly associated with Parle-G, the world’s largest biscuit brand, is both a strength and a weakness. The company today suffers an image deficit compared to Britannia and ITC s Sunfeast. With this latest campaign, Parle is careful enough not to take either of the two extreme routes – harping multiple brands or shifting focus on the corporate brand alone. Instead, it has optedfor a more judicious mix.

Researchers are comparing the current Parle strategy to the Titan strategy. The watch brand, in its early days, used the tagline “From the house ofTatas ”. However, when it became a big brand itself, various sub-brands like Raga, Nebula, Edge, etc. all started using the tagline “From Titan ”. In the same way, Parle is trying to bring forth the main brand in the mindspace of consumers and make the sub-brands its subordinate.

With reference to the above:
(a) Explain the brand policy Parle has taken to advertise its products.   [5]
(b) What is brand equity ? Explain the brand equity Parle products are measured in and mention the sub-brand which has the highest brand equity.   [5]
(c) What is brand promotion ? Explain two methods of brand promotion.   [5]
Answer:
(a) The Parle adopt familiarity brand policy. The company advertise its product under the tagline “From the House of Parle”. It is a formal plan used by a business to create a particular image of itself in the mind of current and potential customers. Parle is sitting on a strong pedigree of many individual brands. They can build its prestige and goodwill by offering quality brands at reasonable prices.

(b) Brand equity means the marketing effect of a brand. High brand equity provides a company with many competitive advantages. Brands have equity because they create high awareness, many loyal customers and high reputation for perceived quality. It also refers to the result from the marketing of a particular product or service because of its brand name and that would not occur if product don’t have brand name.

With reference to brand equity, while the flagship Parle-G is worth ₹ 5,000 Crore plus and by far the biggest brand in the portfolio combining nearly 30% of overall shares, other like Parle 20-20 and Parle Magix cream are among ₹ 1000 Crore and Crackjack, Monaco and Hide & Seek around ₹ 500 Crore.

(c) Brand promotion is that element of marketing mix that aims at informing, reminding, persuading and influencing the customers so that they purchase the brand. It is applied and persuasive communication used for informing and reminding the customers. Its aim is to persuade the customers to buy more and more products. So that it will increase the company’s sale. Brand promotion efforts seek to stablize sales by minimising the impact of such fluctuations. It facilitates mass production which leads to economies of scale and lower costs.

The two methods of brand promotion are given below :
(i) Publicity :
Publicity refers to the non-personal stimulation of demand for a brand by placing important news about it in published medium. Public relations activities are typically designed by the firm to build image for the firm. For example, Reliance World Cup Cricket Tournament, ITC Sangeet Sammelan, etc. Good or Bad remarks or reviews appearing in newspapers or magazines about a film, book, a policy etc. are also called publicity.

(ii) Sales Promotion :
It refers to the use of short term incentives to persuade the people to purchase the goods or services immediately. The basic purpose of sales promotion is to stimulate on the spot buying through short-term and non-recurring incentives which helps to increase the sales and profits. It also help to inform the prospective buyers about the availability, features and uses of product. There are some techniques of sales promotion i.e., Rebate, Discount, Product combination, Refunds, Lucky draw, Sampling etc.

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ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Paper 2013 Solved

Section-A (40 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Name any two neutral colours that highlight the use of other colours. [2]
Answer:
Grey and White are the two neutral colours which highlight the use of other colours.

(b) What type of lights are suitable for a bedroom? [2]
Answer:
Local lights should be used in the bedroom. On the top of the dressing table one tubelight should be placed. Study table may have a separate lamp or light. Bathroom also needs a ceiling as well as a mirror light.

(c) List two advantages of a well-planned kitchen. [2]
Answer:

1. It helps in the proper working.
2. A well planned kitchen also help in making or preparing nutritional food because in a well planned kitchen you will work comfortabely.

(d) State two ways of taking care of carpets. [2]
Answer:

• Carpets should not be turned or folded.
• It should be lightly cleaned.
• Never drag any furniture over the carpets. It will damage the carpet.

(e) Write the full form of ATM and PIN. [2]
Answer:

• ATM is known as Automated Teller Machine.
• PIN means Personal Identification Number.

Question 2.
(a) Mention any two advantages of consumer education. [2]
Answer:

• Can buy the goods intelligently.
• Have the knowledge about goods quality, price and can even bargain with the shopkeeper.

(b) Define the term‘Food Adulteration’. [2]
Answer:
Food Adulteration: To get the extra margin of profit the traders reduce the quantity of the pure goods and add the similar good in it which is cheap and of low quality. This removal of quality product and addition of the low quality good is known as food adulteration. It is done mainly by intentionally.

(c) State the use of optical brighteners in doing laundry. [2]
Answer:
Optical brighteners are generally used for white clothes. Because white clothes gradually lose their whiteness with regular use. Sometime white clothes turns yellow. Optical brightener basically are the agents which are colourless dyes, they attached themselves with the clothes fabrics and make them brighter when light reflect on them.

(d) What are primary colours ? Give two examples. [2]
Answer:
Primary colours are those colours which cannot be obtained by the combination of any colour. These are Red, Yellow and Blue. These three colours when get combine with each other they form the other colours.

(e) Why is freezing not considered an economical method of food preservation ? [2]
Answer:
Firstly all the food items have not the same freezing point. Some freeze soon and some take much time. The main thing why the freezing method not considered as economical method of food preservation is that this method only prevents the activity of bacteria but it does not kill the bacteria. That’s why if we take a food from the refrigerator and place it in open for some time, food gets spoiled because when the food kept in open it comes in the contact of air and moisture. In the moisture the bacteria again get a chance to grow which spoil the food.

Question 3.
(a) Name any two eating disorders observed during adolescence. [2]
Answer:
Bulimia nervosa and Anorexia nervosa are the two eating disorders observed during adolescence.

(b) List any two characteristics of a balanced diet. [2]
Answer:

• A proper balanced diet provide us complete nutrients which our body needs for growth and development.
• If we take proper balance diet, it prevents us from so many diseases. Some diseases are happend due to the deficiency of nutrients.

(c) Mention any two characteristics of a good soap used for washing clothes. [2]
Answer:

• A good soap produce sufficient lather for effective washing.
• It should be firm to touch and it should not be too soft or too hard.

(d) How is direct lighting different from indirect lighting ?. [2]
Answer:
Direct Lighting: When a light directly fall on an object it is called direct lighting.
Indirect Lighting: When a light gets reflected or diffused by striking an object and then fall on other object is called indirect lighting. Used specially in the interiors to avoid the shadows.

(e) List two qualities of a material used on a kitchen counter. [2]
Answer:

• The material used in the kitchen counters should be heat resistance.
• Should be resistant to acid.
• Should be easy to clean.

Question 4.
(a) Name the male and female sex hormones. [2]
Answer:
Male sex hormone is testosterone.
Female sex hormones are known as oestrogen and progesterone.

(b) List any two standardization marks. [2]
Answer:
Two standardization marks: These are ISI and Agmark.

(c) Name the method of washing used on silk garments. [2]
Answer:
Method of washing used on silk garments: Silk garments can be washed by using these methods.

• Preparation: Firstly examine the silk garment for tears, holes and stains and after examination give suitable treatment.
• Steeping: It is avoided in case of wool, due to its weak strength when wet.
• Washing: Silk should be washed with gentle handling, using kneading and squeezing method.
• Rinsing: It should be done in clear, soft tap water till all soap is removed from the garments.
• Stiffening: Silk is very soft, it requires a treatment of gum water to give it stiffness, proper shape, body and shine.
• Drying: Coloured silk should be dried in shade and white silk in sunlight.
• Ironing: Silk clothes should not be sprinkled with water for proper ironing because it leaves stains on the fabric.
  For this question you can only write washing step alone.

(d) Give two advantages of having windows in the kitchen. [2]
Answer:
Advantages of windows :

• A good source of ventilation.
• Provide light and air.
• Also remove the bad odour from the kitchen.

(e) State any two factors affecting the physical development of a child. [2]
Answer:
Factors affecting physical development of a child:

• Good nutritive food
• Proper exercises
• Behaviour of the family.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
A well planned kitchen should have the advantage of various activities being undertaken easily and efficiently. In this context, explain the:
(a) importance of proper flooring in the kitchen. [5]
Answer:
Importance of the flooring: A well maintained floor is necessary for a kitchen. Floor should be dust free means should not be kutcha. Because if the floor is kutcha (temporary) dust particles can make the food dirty and unhygienic. Proper tiles should be placed in the kitchen. Floor surface should be clean and easy to maintain. Floor should not be too slippery.

In the simple words we can say a kitchen floor should be made-up of such materials which are easy to clean and maintain.

(b) working area of the kitchen. [5]
Answer:
Working area of a kitchen include the following centres:

• Preparation and mixing centre
• Storage centre
• Cooking stove centre
  • In preparation and mixing centre the food is cut or chooped.
  • In storage centre the food stuffs are kept.
  • In cooking stove centre the food is cooked. Cooking centre should be away from mixing and sink centres.

(c) five major types of kitchen. [5]
Answer:
Major types of kitchen :

• Single file kitchen also known as straight live kitchen.
• Double file kitchen, has two rows of cabinets at the opposite walls.
• U-shaped kitchen – has cabinets on/along three walls.
• L-shaped kitchen – has cabinets on the two adjacent walls.
• Strip kitchen – Found in the small houses.

Question 6.
Budgeting is the art and science of planning one’s income and expenditure to live a comfortable lifestyle that also ensures adequate savings. In this context explain the :
(a) factors affecting a family budget. [5]
Answer:
Factor affecting family budget:

• Status: This is the important factor which affect the budget of a family. A rich family have generally large expenditure than a poor family.
• Family composition: Bigger is the size of the family large will be the expenditure.

(b) objectives of savings. [5]
Answer:
Saving objectives:

• It provide us financial help during illness or any inability.
• Beneficial for future use.
• Act as a source of income.
• Also helps in the time of child education.

(c) necessary steps taken while writing a cheque. [5]
Answer:
Necessary steps: While writing a cheque a person should understand the following things:

• Should have an account with the bank.
• Should have enough balance in his account. If the balance is low the bank will cancel the cheque.
• Should mention the date on the cheque.
• Name of the payee, to whom written amount is made payble.
• Mention the amount.
• Drawer’s signature should be there otherwise the cheque will be returned by the bank.

Question 7.
Good nutrition is important for all ages. In this context:
(a) Discuss the diet and feeding pattern of a pre-school child. [5]
Answer:
Diet for Pre-school Child : The diet of children 1-6 years need adequate amounts of essential nutrients (calcium, phosphorus, proteins, Vit. A, Vit. B, Vit. C and Iron). The rate of growth and development of pre-school children depend to a large measure on the diet consumed by them. Keep foods, which are too fatty or too sweet out of children. Such type of food may fill his limited space, without providing the nutrients needed.

We should serve them part of milk in the form of curd/ butter, milk, kheer, custard or ice cream. Fruits, nutritional snacks, crisp crackers or toast can also be given. Give them such kinds of food which are nutritious and help in their growth and development.
Generally, provide them milk, fruits, protein products etc.

(b) Describe the maintenance of proper nutrition during adolescence. [5]
Answer:
Adolescents are physically more active than adults. They feel hungry all the time. So it is necessary to train adolescents to eat properly at regular interval of times. Adolescents require large amounts of nutrients to support the acceleration in growth during this period. The calcium, iron, magnesium protein and zinc are incorporated into developing tissues during the growth period. Due to increased energy needs, the recommended intake for vitamin B increases. Vitamin D is important in the formation of longer bones. The requirement of other vitamins like A, C, E and B also increases.

Calcium is one of the most critical and important nutrients for this age. This is needed to provide material for the growth of the skeleton and the teeth, also for other physiological functions. An adolescent must use milk products as the prime source. Other sources of calcium rich food can also be tried.

Requirement of iodine also increases during this period, specially in case of girls. The use of iodized salt and iodine rich foods will provide an adequate intake.
Iron for body tissues and blood is very essential. Onset of menstrual cycle in girls, increases their iron requirement. Extra iron should be supplied by sufficient intake of leafy vegetables.
It is very important that sufficient nutrients should be provided in this stage for rapid growth of the child.

(c) Explain the need for adequate nutrition and a balanced diet for the elderly. [5]
Answer:
Adequate nutrition and a balanced diet is essential in the old age to prevent and control hazards and bad effects of ageing. Obesity, diabetes, constipations, cardiovascular diseases are the major diseases in old ages.

Hence, good nutrition is very important during old age. Special care should be taken that the diets of the elderly are nutritionally adequate and well balanced. You should know or have the knowledge that the elder people require less calories. Few factors always be kept in mind while you are planning balanced diet for the elder people.

• Provide them liberal amounts of food products like as milk, fresh fruits, green vegetables. These kind of food provide them vitamin and other minerals.
• Adequate consumption of calcium, should be ensured to make the bones strong in old age too.
• Scientists also gave emphasis on the importance of water in the diet of the elder persons for the better functioning of kidneys.
• The diet should be soft and well cooked and it should also include those foods which need a little or no mestication. Because at old age maximum people loss their teeth. So they need soft food.
• Intake of sweets, fried, high fat foods should be reduced at minimum. Because the elder people feels difficulty to digest such kind of food.

Question 8.
Consumer rights are an important part of our economic lives.
In this context explain :
(a) Any five consumer rights. [5]
Answer:
Consumer Rights :
1. Right to choose : It means right to be assured, wherever possible the access to variety of goods and services at competitive price/satisfactory quality and service at a fair price.

2. Right to safety: It means right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services, which are hazardous to life and the product not only meets their immediate needs but also fulfills long term interests.

3. Right to be informed or information: It means right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods so as the consumer should insist on getting all the information about the product or services before making a choice.

4. Right to redress : It means right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation of consumers.

5. Right to be heard: It means that consumer interests will receive due considerations at appropriate forums. It also includes consumer welfare.

(b) The harmful effects of the following adulterants:
(i) Lathyrus (Kesari dal)
(ii) Toxic colouring. [5]
Answer:
(i) Kesari Dal (Lathyrus sativus): This is a staple food which is oftenly mixed with the other pulses. This is found in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bengal and Bihar.

Ill effects : If any person consume high or excessive amount of Kesari dal can suffer with a form of paralysis. It mainly occurs in boys and men in the age of 5-45 years. The disease starts with stiffness of the knee joints and legs with pain around the knee and ankle joints within 10 to 30 days. The person suffer from this disease becomes crippled as his knees gets bent and stiff.

(ii) Toxic colouring are not safe for use. These are carcinogenic such types of colouring produce many types of abnormalties. These affect skin, ovaries, bones, mental retardation, eye defects, lungs and so many other body parts.

(c) Any five points to be kept in mind to overcome consumer related problems. [5]
Answer:

1. Consumer should be aware from the market.
2. Should always check the price, manufacturing and expiry date of the products.
3. Should also check the standardization mark for quality assurance.
4. Should always check the measuring devices while the seller weigh something which he bought. Never accept irregular weights.
5. Never believe on the advertisement or adds.

Question 9.
Adolescence is a time of heightened emotional tension resulting from physical and glandular changes that constantly occur. In this context, discuss the:
(a) Role of the endocrine glands. [5]
Answer:
Role of endocrine glands : The endocrine system is made-up of glands which regulate and secrete hormones. Endocrine glands are also known as Ductless glands because these have not special ducts.

Hormones are the chemical messenger of the body. Hormones regulate the growth, metabolism, sexual development and functions of the body. Thyroid, Adrenals, Pituitary, Hypothalamus and reproductive organs are the major glands of the endocrine system. Reproductive organs play important role in secreting sex hormones. Sex hormones are responsible for the sexual growth and other physical development. Pancreas is also an important part of this system because it has a great role in hormone production and in digestion also.

(b) Effects of sex hormones at puberty. [5]
Answer:
Reproductive organs play an important role in secreting sex hormones. These sex hormones are responsible for the sexual growth. During puberty, gonads produce increased level of sex hormones. Girls start menstruate and boys become able to produce sperm.

• In girls, development of breast and broadening of hips takes place.
• Growth of hairs in the pubic region.
• In boys, muscular growth, facial and pubic fyair growth, change in voice takes place.

(c) Skin changes at this stage and ways to prevent it. [5]
Answer:
During the adolescence period, the skin of the adolescent undergoes many changes. Sometime these changes can be noticiable but sometime can’t be. At this stage the skin become oily and start causing irritation. Acne is the major problem in this stage. It is caused when the skin secrete oil and a particular kind of bacteria start growing inside the pores of the skin. Never pop your acnes because it leaves black marks on your skin. You should drink plenty of water to overcome such problem. Never eat oily, fatty or junk food.

Prevention ways :

• Drink plenty of water.
• Never pop the pimples.
• Protect your skin from sun.
• Clean your face twice in a day.

Question 10.
Write short notes on the following :
(a) Different methods of laundering clothes. [5]
Answer:
There are different methods of laundering clothes. These methods depends upon the type of the cloth. For example, for silk the method of laundering will vary somehow. For wool it is little bit different.
1. Squeezing method: Used for soft and delicate fabrics such as woollen, silk etc.

2. Washing with the help of machine: This method is very convenient. It saves labour and time. Nowadays it is used in homes too for washing clothes. Its advantages are with washing you can also do drying in side way process. Washing and drying these are two process which are carried out in one time in this machine. Hence, these are very much useful.

(b) Advantages of using detergents over soaps. [5]
Answer:
Advantages of detergents over soaps :

• Detergents are cheaper than soaps.
• Detergent are efficient in hard water too.
• They are easy to rinse.
• Surface tension of detergent is low. So they have more efficiency than soaps.
• Detergents are soluble even in cold water.

(c) Any five factors influencing the choice of carpets in a living room. [5]
Answer:
The five factors which influence the choice of carpets in a living room are given below :

1. Colour: Colour choice makes a different look. It is the important factor which influence the choice of carpet.
2. Size: Depending upon the size of the room, the size of the carpet also vary.
3. Design: Design is the another factor which influence the choice of carpet. Carpet are of plain as well as in pattern design.
4. Money: Money also influence the choice of carpet.
5. Quality: Quality also influence.
   These are some of the factors which influence the choice.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Home Science Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Paper 2014 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Paper 2014 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) What is meant by the intensity of a colour ? [2]
Answer:
Intensity of a colour means brightness or dullness of a colour. Bright colour have the full intensity. To reduce the intensity, add its complementary colour. Thus, by adding other colour both becomes soft colours.

(b) Mention any two objectives of furnishing a house. [2]
Answer:
Basically, there are three objectives of furnishing a house. These are:

1. Beauty
2. Functionalism
3. Expressiveness

(c) Mention any two factors affecting the selection of fabrics for home furnishing. [2]
Answer:
Factors for selecting fabrics for home :

• Colour is the number one factor. Everyone choose a different colour.
• Durability – How much time it remains? This is the other factor of selection of fabric.
• Style – Everyone need a different style of fabrics.

(d) Differentiate between general lighting and local lighting. [2]
Answer:

General Lighting	Local Lighting
A basic form of lighting that replaces sunlight.	It provide extra fixture material which are often placed in task areas.

(e) Briefly explain a work triangle. [2]
Answer:
Work Triangle is mainly a method of doing activities and work in the kitchen.

Generally, a work triangle is used by the designers. They use it for creating efficient use of the kitchen. Work Triangle include three work centres. These work centres are listed below:

• Preparation and mixing centre
• Cooking stove centre
• Storage centre.

Question 2.
(a) What should be the aspect of an ideal kitchen? [2]
Answer:
An ideal kitchen comprise of all the aspects means an ideal kitchen should be :

• faced towards east or north east to easily get sunrays.
• large sized to allow sufficient circulation of air and movement of persons.
• well lighted.

(b) Mention two factors affecting a family budget. [2]
Answer:

• First factor is size of the family. Smaller the family simple will be the budget. Large family create problems if the income is less. How to feed the family members ?
• Family budget can also be get affected by the status of the family. Because expenditure varies depending upon the status.

(c) List two advantages of making payments through a cheque. [2]
Answer:
Advantages of payment by a cheque :

• A cheque provide easy and inexpensive way of transferring money.
• No need of checking and counting the bank notes.
• Easy transaction.

(d) Give two differences between growth and development. [2]
Answer:
Difference between Growth and Development:

• Growth is measurable while development is not measurable. Development can be felt and observed only.
• The growth stops after a certain age whereas development of the body continues till death.
• Growth and development are related to each other. When a body grows in size, there is an increase in his capacity to do work. But sometimes development takes place without growth, e.g., If the physical growth is stunned, the person may have better mental, social and other developments.

(e) What is meant by positive peer pressure ? [2]
Answer:
Positive Peer Pressure : Positive peer pressure in general mean the positive energy given by the peers to the adolescent. It is the ability which is used to develop a healthy friendship and a good peer relationship. This all depends upon the adolescent’s self-reliance and self-identity. Peers can often listen, accept and understand the challenges, frustration of the adolescent.

Question 3.
(a) Define cognitive development in a child. [2]
Answer:
Cognitive development: Cognitive development is basically the development of the brain of a child. It develops the ability of the brain to think and find answer or solution of problems. This type of the development is very necessary for the child.

(b) What are food fads ? [2]
Answer:
Food fads: Food fad is an pattern of food behaviour which is unusual and which has no factual basis. People interest for a short time.

(c) Name two important chemical preservatives permitted for food preservation. [2]
Answer:
Chemicals prevent the growth of the microorganisms. Jam, Pickles also preserved by adding chemicals like salt, vinegar, spices, sugar.
Potassium metabisulphite and sodium benzoate are used as preservatives for ketchup and squashes.

(d) What are convenient foods ? [2]
Answer:
Convenient foods: Convenient foods is another food category in which food is semi processed and stored. This method increase the life and ease of preparation of the food. These types of the food include juices, jams, pickles and frozen peas. Do not use such foods in routine because such food are heavily processed and lost their nutritional value.

(e) Mention any two characteristics of a pay-in-slip. [2]
Answer:
Characteristics of Pay-in-slip :
1. Pay-in-slip is a type of slip or form which is used by a person to deposit his money/cash or cheque in the bank.

2. It contains some useful information which should be filled by the person. These are :

• Date
• Account Number
• Name of the Account holder
• Branch name/Bank
• Signature

Question 4.
(a) What are detergents ? How do they help in laundry ? [2]
Answer:
Detergents: Detergents are manufactured in a laboratory. These are derived from the mineral oils. These are the cleaning agents which are made-up of the chemicals.
In laundry these are helpful in :

• Hard and soft water.
• Less water and less effort for cleaning clothes.
• Detergents are cheaper.
• These lower the surface tension of water and are effective in removing dirt and grease easily.

(b) Mention two types of Food adulterants. [2]
Answer:
Two main food adulterant are Kesari dal and Argemone seeds.

(c) State two advantages of including seasonal fruits and vegetables in meal. [2]
Answer:
Seasonal fruits and vegetables are necessary in the meal. Because these fruits and vegetables have the nutritional value in their particular season. They provide us those nutrients which we need in that particular season. Secondly, such foods and vegetables are cheaper and easily available.

(d) Define a balanced diet. [2]
Answer:
Balanced diet: Balanced diet is a diet which contains all the nutrients which our body needs for growth and development.

(e) Mention any two problems faced by consumers. [2]
Answer:
Variation in price of the commodity and adulteration are the two problems which the consumer face. There are many other problems too which the consumer face such as quality of product, misleading advertisement, defective weights.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
Meal planning is an art which develops through inspiration and thought. In this context answer the following questions:
(a) Write five major food groups classified on the basic of nutrients. [5]
Answer:
Classification of food groups on the basis of Nutrients.

Food Group	Nutrients Supplied
Cereals, Grains and Products Rice, Wheat, Ragi, Bajra, Maize, Jowar, Barley, Riceflakes, Wheat flour	Energy, Protein, Invisible fat, Vitamin-B1, Vitamin-B2, Folic acid, Iron, Fibre
Pulses and Legumes Bengalgram, Blackgram, Green gram, Redgram, Lentil, Cowpea, Peas, Rajmah, Soyabeans, Beans ets.	Energy, Protein, Invisible fat, Vitamin-B1, Vitamin-B2, Folic acid, Calcium, Iron, Fibre
Milk and Meat Products Milk: Milk, Curd, Skimmed Milk, Cheese Meat: Chicken, Liver, Fish, Egg, Meat	Protein, Fat, Vitamin-B2, Calcium Protein, Fat, Vitamin-B2

(b) Discuss any five characteristics of a well planned meal. [5]
Answer:

Food Group	Nutrients Supplied
Fruits and Vegetables Fruits: Mango, Guava, Tomato, Papaya, Orange, Sweet lime, Watermelon	Carotenoids, VitaminC, Fibre
Vegetables (Green Leafy): Amaranth, Spinach, Gogu, Drumstick leaves, Coriander leaves, Mustard leaves, Fenugreek leaves	Invisible Fats, Carotenoids, Vitamin-B2, Folic acid, Calcium, Iron, Fibre
Other Vegetables: Carrots, Brinjal, Capsicum, Beans, Onion, Drumstick, Potatoes, Cauliflower.	Carotenoids, Folic acid, Calcium, Fibre
Fats and Sugars Fats: Butter, Ghee, Hydrogenated oils, Cooking oils like Groundnut, Mustard, Coconut	Energy, Fat, Essential fatty acids
Sugars: Sugar, Jaggery	Energy

Characteristics of a well planned meal: Meal planning is basically done to satisfy the nutritional needs of the family members according to the age and occupation.

• Meal planning firstly determines the adequency of the diet.
• Better choice of food.
• Helps to maintain a healthy life.
• Beneficial for the old age persons.
• Good exercise for the house wife.
• Fulfill the nutritional need of the family.

(c) Mention any five methods adopted while planning and organizing meals to save time and energy. [5]
Answer:

• Planning keeps individual’s like and dislikes in mind.
• Meal planning saves time, energy, money and fuel too.
• With a little effort, cheap and nutritious food can be prepare.
• For saving time you should plan a meal for a week. Buy out the things you need once for the weeks, this saves your time for thinking what should made today.
• Prepare a menu card for a week. This will also save your time.

Question 6.
Money Management is the key to financial security. In this context answer the following questions:
(a) List five advantages of budget. [5]
Answer:
Advantages of Budget:
The following are the advantages of making a budget:

• The budget helps in saving money for unforeseen emergencies.
• It helps in distribution and proper allocation of income for expenditure or different items, according to their requirements.
• It helps the family in spending the money carefully so that the expenditure does not exceed the income.
• It acts as a financial guide.
• Since all the members in a family work together for the planning of a budget, it induces a sense of cooperation among them.

(b) Briefly explain the following : [5]
(i) Fixed deposit account.
(ii) Recurring deposit account.
Answer:
(i) Fixed Deposit Account: Deposits which are made for a specified period and whose amount cannot be withdrawn before the expiry. These deposits are repayable, but only after the expiry of a fixed period. Such as one year, 5 year etc. Fixed deposits are also known as Long-Term Deposits. For such long-term investment higher rate of interest is offered. Larger the time period of the deposit higher will be the rate of interest.

Importance:

• These are very flexible in nature.
• Fixed deposits offers guaranteed returns. The interest rate is also higher.

(ii) Recurring Deposit Account : Started for those persons who cannot make large deposits. It is started to encourage such people. Such type of accounts can be open with a small amount for a specified period. When the time period ends the depositor gets his money with an interest. A passbook is also issued to the person who deposits his money time to time. He can check how much he deposits in the bank by checking his passbook.

(c) What is an ATM card and how is it utilized ? [5]
Answer:
ATM Card: ATM means Automated Teller Machine. It is a computer device or we can say a computerized Tele-Communication device which provides cash or money to the customers. Here, a plastic card is issued to that person who have an account with a bank. When the person or customer enter that card in the ATM, the person get identified because in the card there is a unique card number which is given by the bank. For security, a pin code is also given with the card to the customer. After inserting the card the customer have to fill that pin code in the ATM machine. This card is called ATM card. By this card customer can access his bank account and make transactions, check his balance etc.

Question 7.
(a) What are related colour schemes ? Explain the schemes falling under this category. [5]
Answer:
Related colour schemes are made-up of one or many hues which provide an effect of unity and harmony. These colour schemes provide greater variety and also a balance between warm and cool colours.
It includes two other schemes which are given below :
(i) Monochromatic colour scheme
(ii) Analogous colour scheme

• Monochromatic colour scheme is done by using one colour. But this colour varies both in intensity and value. It makes an attractive colour scheme for homes.
• Analogous colour scheme is made by mixing same or neighbouring colours. 3 to 5 colours are used in this scheme.

(b) What are warm colours ? How do they change the mood of any interior ? [5]
Answer:
Warm colours : Those colours which have large amount of yellow and red colours. Such colours have the element of fire. These colours are mainly associated with a bright, rich and energetic look. These colours create a small size and length visual impact.

These colours give a sense of warmth and comfort to the space. These are often used in the rooms which admit little or no natural light (daylight).

(c) Discuss the advantages of physical exercise in maintaining fitness of the body. [5]
Answer:
Physical exercise is very important for us to remain healthy and fit. Exercise play a very important role in our life. It keeps us fresh and active.
Advantages of Physical exercise :

• It keeps us fresh and active throughout the day.
• Also helps in growth and development.
• Improve our working ability.
• Activate our immune system.
• Helps in proper blood circulation throughout the body.
• Also improves our digestive system.
• Provide us energy.
• Protect us from diseases.

Question 8.
Food is considered spoilt when it has undergone undesirable changes. In this context answer the following questions :
(a) Explain the procedure for preserving food by dehydration. [5]
Answer:
Dehydration of food is a very common method. This method is used for drying the moisture content in the food products. Because this moisture content helps the microorganisms to grow. Such microorganisms spoil the food. Sun drying is a very basic method of dehydration. But there are also many artificial methods of drying. Hot air is also used to dry the food products. Dehydration
process is commonly used for fruits, salad, vegetable, in pickle preparation etc.

(b) How does sugar help in food preservation? Give any two examples of foods being preserved by this method. [5]
Answer:
Sugar also act as a preservative. It is used as a preservative in many food items. Basically, sugar absorb the excess amount of water from the food product and we know that the microorganisms generally grow in the moisture. There are many such items which contain sugar in them as a preservative. Actually, sugar act as a preservative by osmosis process.
Few examples of such preserved foods are jellies and jams.

(c) How should eggs and milk be stored at home to maintain their freshness for a longer period of time ? [5]
Answer:

Storage of eggs	1. Select eggs that are clean, fresh and large. Check freshness of eggs by rough shell no sound when shaken	Never wash eggs before storing. Store eggs with pointed ends downwards. Store in a cool place or in a basket in an airy room.
Storage of milk	Select milk accord-ing to quality needed Toned milk (no cream) Full cream (buffalo milk) Check colour and taste. Milk has a slightly sweet taste. Stale milk has sour taste and an unpleasant smell.	Boil milk and keep in a cool place. If there is no refrigerator, boil milk after every 5-6 hours to keep it free from germs. Never mix old milk with fresh milk.

Question 9.
(a) ‘A wise consumer uses sensible buying method’. Justify this statement with five suitable examples. [5]
Answer:

• A wise consumer should know what to buy, when to buy, where to buy, how to buy, how much to buy.
• Good planning helps to avoid buying unnecessary items.
• Decide the quantity of the item. It helps to avoid the wastage.
• Decide what you need.
• Evaluate the products by looking their price, brand, quality.

(b) List five consumer responsibilities. [5]
Answer:
Responsibilities of consumers :

• After any purchase consumer should get the bill.
• While buying goods always check the ISI mark.
• Always read the instructions carefully.
• Use rights of the consumers.
• Always buy qualify things and goods. Never buy a good whose brand name gets same with those brand which already exist in the market. So a consumer should be aware.

(c) What is the significance of ‘consumer aids ?’ Explain the role of any two of these aids. [5]
Answer:
Consumer aids : Anything that helps and guides a consumer in selecting the product he wants to buy, is called a consumer aid.
These aids help the consumer in wise selection of goods/ services and also safeguards oneself against exploitation by sellers/manufacturers.

Different Consumer aids:
1. Labels: Information about the product may be given in the form of labels. These are supplied by the manufacturer of the product. These labels are printed on the packages. Sometimes these are pasted on the container.
For example, label on jam bottles.
Requisites of a good label are being listed below :

• Name of the product
• Brand name
• Trade mark
• Manufacturer’s name and address
• Standardization mark (FPO, ISI, AGMARK etc.) Variety and quality
• Ingredients
• Preservatives used in case of processed food
• Manufacture and Expiry date
• Batch number

2. Standard marks: Standardization marks indicate to a buyer that the product has been tested and found to be of good quality.
Keeping the interest of consumers in mind, the government has undertaken various initiatives for keeping and upgrading the quality of the products. The Government operates certification schemes under which the standard marks are provided to the items. ISI – Mineral water, LPG cylinder, Pressure cooker, Biscuits etc.

• AGMARK – wheat flour, ground spices etc.
• FPO – fruit juices, jams etc.
• Woolmark – woollen clothes.

Question 10.
Explain the:
(a) procedure of laundering a woollen cardigan. [5]
Answer:
Laundry procedure of all clothes are approximately same. These are the steps which we use in laundering a woollen cardigan.
1. Preparation : Firstly, examine the cardigan for tears, holes and stains and treat accordingly. Trace the outline on a brown paper to ensure it shape after washing.

2. Steeping: In case of very dirty cardigan, it should not be soaked for more than 5-10 minutes in cold water. Luke warm water will harm the cardigan.

3. Washing: Wash the cardigan with a very gentle hand with tender kneading and squeezing method.

4. Rinsing : Remove the extra soap by pressing it between flat palms and then rinse off several times in a plenty of water.

5. Drying: Roll it tightly in a towel to remove the extra water. Spread flat within the outline marked for its original shape. Dry it in shade.

6. Ironing/Press : Cardigan should not be ironed. If required, it must be pressed.

(b) importance of starching and blueing. [5]
Answer:

• Starching: It is done to make the fabric stiffen and give a feel which makes it attractive. This is mostly done by the textile manufacturers. It is an effort to regain the original finish of the fabric.
• Blueing: It is applied on the white fabrics. Both these process are done in a single step to save time and starch.

(c) procedure of storage of clothes. [5]
Answer:
Storage of clothes :

• Cotton Clothes
• Do not store moist clothes, they invite fungus.
• Put some deodorant among the stored clothing to avoid the smell (musty).
• Silk Clothes:
• Store dry clothing only.
• Avoid use of moth-balls because they reduce the lustre of zari.
• Wool Clothes:
• Store totally dry woollens.
• Use neem leaves, nephtha balls to prevent the damage by moths.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Home Science Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Paper 2015 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Paper 2015 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) What are cool colours ? Give any two examples. [2]
Answer:
Cool colours : Blue, green, purple are basically known as cool colours. These colours bring in freshness and a much relaxed feeling because these are peaceful colours. These colours also create a visual impact having enhanced size and length. Cool colours also provide a balance to the warm colours.

(b) Briefly explain the term home furnishing. [2]
Answer:
Home furnishing : Home is the place where we are relaxed, fear free and protected/safe. A home provide us shelter. Home furnishing includes systematical furniture, curtains, good art work and other decorations. A home has to be beautiful from outside as well as from the inside. The interior decoration of a home mainly expresses the personality of that person who hold that home or who is the house holder. The exterior of a home should fit its surrounding. Creativity and art is other ability of the home-maker to sound it good from the outside and inside. Mainly home furnishing include the three objectives on which it is based.

• Beauty
• Expressiveness
• Functionalism

(c) Mention two disadvantages of direct lighting. [2]
Answer:

• Direct lighting interferes with the vision.
• It create harshness of shadow causing the eye discomfort and fatigue.

(d) List two uses of a sink in the kitchen. [2]
Answer:

• A sink is mainly used in the kitchen for washing the utensils.
• Sink is also used for washing vegetables.
• A kitchen sink can also be used for hand washing.

(e) Name any two agencies that help in voluntary savings. [2]
Answer:
Post office, Bank, Life Insurance Schemes and Public Provident Funds are some agencies which help in voluntary savings.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by endorsement of a cheque ? (2)
Answer:
Endorsement of a cheque: Endorsement means transferring your ownership to another person by signing on the back of a negotiable instrument (say a cheque).

(b) List two social behaviour patterns developed in early childhood. (2)
Answer:
In early childhood, the social behaviour patterns developed by a child include quarrelling, co-operation, teasing, sympathy, dependency, friendliness and social approval.

(c) State two reasons for using warm colours in the house. (2)
Answer:
Warm colours are mainly associated with rich, bright and energetic look. These colours have an element of sun or fire. These colour make a visual impact of small size and length, hence these are more often used in the rooms. These colours also give warmth and comfort.

(d) Mention two ways to prevent body odour during adolescence. (2)
Answer:

• Take a bath regularly twice in a day.
• Clean the area around your private parts, armpits etc. with an anti-bacterial soap.

(e) Differentiate between secondary and tertiary colours. (2)
Answer:
1. Secondary colours: When we combine two primary colours we get the secondary colour.
e.g., Orange (Red + Yellow), Purple (Blue + Red),
Green (Yellow + Blue).

2. Tertiary colours: On combining primary and secondary colours we get tertiary colours. e.g., Yellow + Orange = Yellow orange.

Question 3.
(a) What is Binge eating disorder ? [2]
Answer:
Binge eating disorder also called obesity. While we consume huge/large amount of food or when we overeat, we generally feel out of the control and powerless. This disorder generally happend in early childhood or late adolescence.

Symptoms:

• No satisfaction, even when you eat too much.
• Having tension and stress which is only removed by eating.
• Unable to control eating habits and weight.

(b) State two reasons why breakfast is the most important meal of the day. [2]
Answer:
Breakfast is considered as the most essential part of our diet. In a breakfast, we should include some protein food like as milk, eggs, bread etc. For the children and teenager milk is very much essential. Breakfast provide us one- fourth of daily calories and proteins which are required by our body and it is very much essential for maintaining a better performance and a better efficiency. In general, we can say that breakfast provide us the capacity or the energy to start our day with a smiling face.

(c) Mention two precautions to be followed while refrigerating food at home. [2]
Answer:
Following are the precautions which should be followed while refrigerating food at home :

• Only fresh food should be kept in the fridge.
• Frequently defrost and clean the refrigerator.
• Fruits and vegetables always be kept in the plastic bag to prevent the loss of moisture.
• Consume the refrigerated food as soon as possible.

(d) How does pickling help to preserve fruits, vegetables and meat ? [2]
Answer:
Pickling is a popular method of preservation of fruits, vegetables and meat. In this method vinegar is used as a preservative. The salt and spices in the pickle also used for flavour as well as a preservative. Oil is also added in the pickle to check the entry of air by forming an oil layer. This layer also reduced the action of microorganisms on the food.

(e) List any two conditions under which Prevention of Food Adulteration Act categorizes food as adulterated. [2]
Answer:
The PFA Act (Prevention of Food Adulteration) is an act formulated by the Govt, in 1954. It prescribe the minimum requirements for all categorizes of food.

Conditions:

• If the food contain added inferior and cheaper substances.
• If it does not satisfy all the standards prescribed by the authorities.
• If the food is prepared, packed and stored under unsanitary conditions.
  These are some conditions which are used by PFA to categorizes food as adulterated.

Question 4.
(a) Mention two reasons of price variation of a product in the market. [2]
Answer:

• The shopkeeper vary the price for his own profit.
• Price also vary depending upon the quality of the product.
• Also, the purchasing power because it varies in different areas.

(b) How do advertisements mislead and cheat a consumer ? [2]
Answer:
Advertisement mislead the consumer is true because nowadays there are many advertisements which play with the psyche of the consumer like as an add of cosmetic cream which say smooth or make one slim. Consumer buy that product because of that advertisement. We also hear that a company is saying or offering “free” gifts with their product. But who knows whether they add its price with the product we buy.
“Sale” is also an advertisement which make fool of consumers.

(c) What is the advantage of soaking clothes before washing? [2]
Answer:
Basically, clothes should be soaked in water mainly in soap water, before washing. This is because by doing this the fixed dirt with the cloth becomes loose and easily get washed away. To remove the hard dirt particles or stains we soak the clothes in the soap water.

(d) What are the two major causes of food spoilage? [2]
Answer:
Food spoilage is the change in the normal state of food. We can detect such changes by smell, taste and sight. Food gets spoiled by a number of factors and reasons. Food spoilage mainly caused by microorganisms, enzymes, climatic variations etc.

(e) What are the two psychological changes observed during adolescence ? [2]
Answer:
During the stage of adolescence, an adolescent have faced many psychological changes. These changes make him angry, moody and self-retained.
1. In this stage the adolescent find his identity, want to prove himself.

2. Want to be independent. Think that whatever he do is right. Self-decision ability arose. These are few psychological changes which occurs at the adolescence period.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
“It is always desirable that the kitchen should be well planned.” In this context discuss the following :
(a) Characteristics of a good kitchen. (5)
Answer:
We all know that kitchen is the main and essential part of a home, without kitchen we cannot imagine a home being full. This is the kitchen where a women or any home maker spend most of the time. It cannot be wrong if we call kitchen as a “heart of home”. So a kitchen should be well planned, cheerful, well ventilated and properly lighted. Cross-ventilation is very much essential and for removing the odours there should be an exhaust fan. The paint colour of the kitchen should be light which help in electing the light.

(b) Five important considerations in kitchen planning. (5)
Answer:
While you are planning for a kitchen following consideration should be there :
1. Aspect: It means in which direction a kitchen should be. Mainly we should have to plan a kitchen in east or north east because by doing so we can get the early morning rays of the sun.

2. Size: This is an important consideration which should always be in your mind while planning for a kitchen. A kitchen should always be large such that at a time two or three person can work. Size of the kitchen should be such enough that you can put all your accessories in the kitchen like as refrigerator, oven and other storage.

3. Windows and Doors : For proper ventilation and proper circulation of air windows are necessory in the kitchen.

4. Storage : Proper storage in a kitchen is very much essential. Shelves in the cupboards should be properly designed. Drawer should have movable dividers.

(c) Colour scheme suitable for a kitchen. (5)
Answer:
Colour scheme for a kitchen : Colour scheme for a kitchen should be attractive and calm. Light colours should be used in the kitchen. Warm colour or dark colour should be avoided. White and light coloured walls generally are best for visibility. A well designed and well coloured kitchen provides a comfortable working. Wrong colour in the kitchen may create a bad feeling.

Question 6.
“Budgeting is the first step in Money management.” In this context explain the following :
(a) Steps in preparing a family budget. [5]
Answer:
Steps in preparing a family budget:
It includes the following steps :

• Prepare a list of commodities and other services which are needed by the family members.
• After preparing the list now estimate the cost of the desired items.
• Now, bring your expected income and expenditure in balance.
• Always check your plans to see if these are realistic. Means whether the needs of the members have been met or not.

(b) Importance of saving deposits. [5]
Answer:
Importance of saving deposits :
The main and useful importances of saving deposits are given below:

• It becomes a source of income.
• Such deposits are important during an emergency such as natural calamity, loss.
• These are also useful for marriage, child education.
• Also used in the future.
• Reduced insecurity especially when you get old.

(c) The two most important functions of a bank. [5]
Answer:
Functions of a Bank:
Bank is an institution which accepts deposits from the public and in return advances loans by creating credit. Banks perform so many functions and provide varieties of services to the present society.

• A bank receive deposits from the public for the purpose of making investments and granting loans.
• The bank also lends out the money which it gets from the deposits of the public.
• Bank also grant loans for a specific time period. There are many other functions which a bank do. These were few of them.

Question 7.
“Adolescence is an emotionally trying period with an adolescent coping with rapid physiological changes.” In this context answer the following :
(a) Any five common emotional problems faced by a adolescent. [5]
Answer:
Adolescent mainly have a number of emotional problems. Adolescents must have learn to control and express their emotions in a very systematic and socially approved manner. If these emotions cannot be controlled they lead some major problems.

• Experiment with sex and drugs, (sexual abuse)
• Feelings of helplessness and low self-esteem.
• Eating disorders – Fear of becoming over weight.
• Jealously.
• Social acceptance – Adolescents do a lot of things out of the desire for the acceptance and approval of their friends and society. If we neglect a child the child feel frustrated, dejected and neglected. This is a problem for the adolescent. Hence, we should take care of it.

(b) Ways of dealing with emotions. [5]
Answer:

• Be honest with yourself.
• We should find ways (positive) to express anger.
• Be aware of one’s emotional level.
• Be able to distinguish others emotions.

(c) Role of peer group. [5]
Answer:
Role of Peer Groups : In the adolescence stage, adolescent want somebody with whom he can share his feelings. So at this stage groups are formed. Adolescent give more importance to the peers than any other in his life. A peer group can give a stabilise influence to the adolescent.

Peers can mobilize the energy of the adolescent, motivate him for success and also encourage the adolescent to adopt a healthy behaviour.
Peers often listen, accept and undertand the frustrations, challenges associated with an adolescent.

Question 8.
“Meal planning includes food purchase, storage and meal preparation.” In this context explain the following :
(a) Importance of meal planning. [5]
Answer:
Importance of Meal Planning:
Meal planning is basically done to satisfy the nutritional needs of the family members according to their age and occupation.

• Meal planning firstly determines the adequancy of the diet.
• Better choice of food.
• Helps to maintain a healthy life.
• Beneficial for the old age persons.
• Good exercise for the house wife.
• Fulfill the nutritional value of the family.

(b) Classification of food on the basis of moisture content for the purpose of storage. Give two examples for each. [5]
Answer:
Higher the moisture content greater the chances of food spoilage. On the basis of the moisture content food are classified into three categories:
1. Perishable foods: These cannot be stored for more than 2-3 days under normal conditions. For example, Milk and milk products, meat etc.

2. Semi perishable foods: Foods which do not require refrigeration, still have a limited shelf life. It can be stored for couple of weeks. For example, Cooking oil, butter, nuts, cheese etc.

3. Non-perishable foods: These can be stored for a longer time as compared to perishable and semi-perishable foods. For example, cereals, pulses, sugar, coffee and salt constitute this group.

(c) Personal hygiene and food handling a major aspect to prevent contamination of food. [5]
Answer:
We know that food hygiene implies cleanliness in production and storage.
The safe handling of food should be in a way that it will remains safe and free from contamination. If we handle food in a incorrect way, the bacteria and other toxic material finds entry into the system and make us sick.
If we handle and prepare food with correct food handling practices and personal hygiene we can prevent us from being sick.

Some tips for safe handling of food are given:

• Wash your hand while preparing or eating food.
• Keep you nails short.
• Cover the food with lid.
• Use clean utensils for storage of food.

Question 9.
(a) Explain any five consumer rights as recognized by the Consumer Protection Act. [5]
Answer:
Consumer Rights:
1. Right to choose : It means right to be assured, wherever possible the access to variety of goods and services at competitive price, satisfactory quality and service at a fair price.

2. Right to safety: It means right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services, which are hazardous to life and the product not only meets their immediate needs but also fulfills long term interests.

3. Right to be informed or information: It means right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods so as the consumer should insist on getting all the information about the product or services before making a choice.

4. Right to Redress : It means right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or unscrupluous exploitation of consumers.

5. Right to be Heard: It means that consumer interests will receive due consideration at appropriate forums. It also includes consumer welfare.

(b) What are the objectives of consumer education? [5]
Answer:
Objective of Consumer Education : Consumer education mainly aims at making consumers aware about what, where, when, how and how much to buy. It develops critical awareness and living skills which are oriented towards building a better future for all. Consumer education assists the buyer in wise selection of goods to meet family requirements.

Consumer education is extremely important for every individual. This awareness safeguards the consumer interests for better living.
Consumer education enables an individual to:

• Have proper knowledge and information as regards the items/services needed in day-to-day life.
• Make better use of their money thus improving the standard of living.
• Make intelligent choices and be better prepared for everyday living.
• Derive maximum satisfaction from the product or item or service used.

(c) How are argemone seeds used as an adulterant? What are the health hazards of consuming it? [5]
Answer:
Argemone seeds are the most common adulterant used in the present days. These seeds are obtained from Argemone maxicans. These seeds are closely resembles with the mustard seeds. Little tail at one end is the difference between the both. Regular consumption of its oil results in the epidemic dropsy. Collection of watery fluid in the tissue of the body mainly causes swelling. Other effects are gastrointestinal disturbance, irregular fever with rashes and many others.

Question 10.
Explain the following:
(a) Methods of applying friction in laundering of clothes. [5]
Answer:
In laundering of clothes, friction is applied by hands only. In laundering, we apply friction on the clothes by rubbing them with brushes and scrub the clothes in one direction. With the help of a stick we can also apply friction. The clothes are soaped and soaked and after that friction is applied to remove the dirt particles and the stains. Water is sprinkled by time to time during the application of friction.

(b) Household method of laundering a silk garment. [5]
Answer:
Steps followed for laundering a silk garment are as follows:

• Preparation: Firstly examine the garments for holes, tears and stains.
• Steeping: If the garments are much soiled it can be done in luke warm or cold water for a short time (10-15 minutes).
• Washing: Should be washed with gentle handling using kneading and squeezing method. Use neutral soaps for washing.
• Rinsing: Should be done in clear tap water. Last rinse with vinegar increases lusture of silk garment.
• Stiffening: It requires a treatment of gum water for stiffness, proper shape and shine.
• Drying and Ironing: Coloured silk should be dried in shade while white silk in sunlight. Silk should be properly ironed before they are completely dry.

(c) Hoarding and black marketing as a major problem faced by consumers. [5]
Answer:
Both of these are the biggest problems that are faced by the consumers. When a dealer stock an essential commodity and create its artificial scarcity it is known as hoarding. Black marketing is buying or selling hoarded goods secretly at a higher price. Such practices create problems for the consumers. Because consumers have to pay a very high price to buy those commodities whose price are relatively less.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2015 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2015 Solved

Section – A
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Distinguish between:
(a) Advertising and Publicity (2)
(b) Stakeholders and Customers. (2)
(c) Marketing and Sales. (2)
(d) Controllable Costs and Uncontrollable Costs. (2)
(e) The Central Bank and a Commercial Bank. (2)
Answer:
(a) Advertising

1. It is done by an identified sponsor.
2. It is always impersonal.

Publicity

1. In it the sponsor may not be identified.
2. It may be both personal or impersonal.

(b) Stakeholders

1. Stakeholders like shareholders and employee have a financial stake in a business firm.
2. They take risks of the organisation.

Customers

1. Customers do not have a financial state in a business firm.
2. Customers do not take risks of the organisation.

(c) Marketing

1. Identifying and satisfying wants.
2. Customer oriented, let the seller beware.

Selling

1. Exchanging goods for money.
2. Production oriented, let the buyer beware.

(d) Controllable cost

1. Controllable costs are those costs which can be controlled or regulated by an organisation and its management.
2. e.g., invertary cost

Uncontrollable cost

1. These costs are beyond the administrative control of an enterprise.
2. e.g., cost of obsolescence.

(e) Central Bank

1. It is owned by the government.
2. It is a banker to the government.

Commercial Bank

1. It is owned by shareholders.
2. It is the banker to the general public.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by “Recruitment”? (2)
(b) Give any two advantages of advertising by Television. (2)
(c) Briefly explain the term ‘Insurance’. (2)
(d) Give two advantages of Marketing Research. (2)
(e) What is meant by Environmental Ethics? (2)
Answer:
(a) Recruitment is the process of selecting the sources of required staff and stimulating the candidates to offer themselves for employment.

(b)

1. On, television, products can be demonstrated and their uses can be explained.
2. It is appropriate for illiterate people.

(c) Insurance is a contract in which a sum of money is paid by the assured in consideration of insures incurring the risks of paying a large sum upon a given contingency.

(d)

1. Marketing research helps to measure market potential, characteristics of the market and share of the market for a particular firm or brand.
2. Marketing research is a tool for enhancing the marketing plants, policies and programmes.

(e) Environmental ethics is a set of moral standards that require people to be aware of environmental degradation and participate in protecting and promoting the environment.

Question 3.
(a) What is a Trade Union ? (2)
(b) Enumerate two types of Warehouses found in India. (2)
(c) Explain the term “Budget”. (2)
(d) Give two advantages of Rail Transport over Road Transport. (2)
(e) Name any two forms of Non-Verbal Communication. (2)
Answer:
(a) Under the Trade Unions Act 1926, “a trade union is any combination of persons, whether temporal or permanent, formed primarily for the purpose of regulating the relations between workmen and employers, or between workmen and workmen or between employers and employers for imposing restrictive conditions on the conduct of any trade or business and includes the federation of two or more trade unions.

(b)

1. Food Corporation of India
2. Central Warehousing Corporation.

(c) A budget is a detailed plan of operations for some specific future period.

(d)

1. Road transport, provides door-to-door service which is not available in case of rail transport.
2. Road transport can reach hilly and rocky areas which is not possible in case of rail transport.

(e)

1. Berely Language
2. Parci Language

Question 4.
(a) Write a short note on Recurring Deposits. (2)
(b) Briefly explain the term “Pension”. (2)
(c) Mention any two factors to be kept in mind while determining the price of a product. (2)
(d) Give two measures to ensure the sustainable of resources. (2)
(e) State any two demerits of Advertising. (2)
Answer:
(a) In this type of account, a customer is allowed to deposit a certain amount of money every month for a specified period of time. At the end of the period, he gives the total deposit amount along with interest at the prescribed rate.

(b) Pension means providing long term recurring assistance to the employees after retirement and to his family in case of pre-mature death while in service.

(c)

1. Degree of competition
2. Government regulations
3. Cost of the product
4. Market demand

(d)

1. Respect and care for all forms of life
2. Improve the quality of human life

(e)

1. Creates monopoly
2. Misleads the consumer

Section – B (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this section)

Question 5.
(a) Briefly explain the five main objectives of Marketing. (5)
(b) Explain any two methods of On-the-Job Training. (5)
Answer:
(a) Five objectives of marketing are as follows :

1. Creation of Demand: A business firm can sell goods and services only when there are customers willing to buy them. Therefore, the first purpose of marketing is to create demand for goods and services. For this purpose marketing finds out the needs and preferences of customers.
2. Customer Satisfaction : Modem marketing is customer oriented. Today, all marketing activities begin and end with the customers.
3. Market Share: Every business firm seeks to have a reasonable share of the total demand. Good quality goods are offered at reasonable prices to capture a large share in the market.
4. Goodwill: Marketing aims at building the reputation of the enterprise over a time. The enterprise attempts to earn a name for itself and builds its position in the market by selling quality products at reasonable prices and through efficient after sales services.
5. Standard of Living : Marketing aims at improving the living standards of people by :

(a) providing a wide variety of products and services.
(b) supplying new and better quality products.
(c) creating more employment opportunities.

(b) Two methods of On-the-Job training are as follows :

1. Job Instruction Training (JIT) : This is the most popular form of On-the-Job training. It is also known as step-by-step training. It consists of the following steps.

(a) Preparing the trainees by telling them about the job and overcoming their initial nervousness.
(b) Letting the trainees try out the job to show their understanding.

2. Apprenticeship training: In this method, the trainees leam by working with those who are already skilled in their jobs. People who want to enter skilled trades (such as welder, plumber, electrician) are required to undergo appreticeship training. Classroom training is given first and then the trainees try out the job under the guidance of a master worker. In the job try out the trainees gradually leam the skilled craft.

Question 6.
(a) Distinguish between Capital Expenditure and Revenue Expenditure. (5)
(b) Explain any two principles of Insurance. (5)
Answer:
(a)

1. Capital expenditure is incurred for acquisition or erection of fixed assets to be used in the business. Revenue expenditure is incurred for the day-to-day conduct of business.
2. Capital expenditure increases the earning capacity of the business whereas revenue expenditure does not increase the earning capacity as it is incurred for maintaining the existing capacity.
3. The benefit of capital expenditure extends to more than one year but the benefit of revenue expenditure extends only to the current year.
4. Capital expenditure is of a non-recurring nature because such expenditure is not incurred every day, but revenue expenditure is recurring in nature as it is incurred on day to day operations.
5. Capital expenditure leads to increase in the value of fixed assets. But revenue expenditure does not result in increase in the value of these assets.

(b) Two principles of insurance are as follows :

1. Indemnity : Indemnity implies compen-sation. According to this principle, the insurer shall compensate the insured in case of a loss against which the policy was issued. The purpose is to place the insured financially in the same position in which he was before the loss. The principle of indemnity is not applicable to life insurance.
2. Subrogation : The principle is a corollary to the principle of indemnity. According to the principle of subrogation, the insurer becomes owner of the damaged property after compensating the insured for loss.

Question 7.
(a) Explain any two Internal sources of Recruitment. (5)
(b) Explain any two functions of the Central Bank of the country. (5)
Answer:
(a)

1. Promotions: Vacancies at higher levels may be filled up by promoting persons working at lower levels. For example, when the present sales manager of a company retires, one of the branch managers may be promoted as the new sales manager. Promotion involves shifting an employee to a higher part carrying a higher status and more salary.
2. Transfers : Transfers means shifting an employee from one factory, branch or office to fill vacancy in another factory, branch or office of the company. For example, shortage of sales persons in one branch may be met by transferring sales persons from another branch. Transfer involves shifting an employee to a similar job without change in status and salary.

(b) Two functions of a central bank are :

1. Monopoly of Note issue : Generally, the Central Bank of a country has the monopoly to issue currency notes. Government grants the exclusive right to the Central Bank to issue notes on its behalf. In India, one rupee notes are issued by the Ministry of Finance. All other currency notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. Government’s Bank : The central bank acts as a banker, fiscal agent and advisor to the Government. It makes and receives payments on behalf of the government. It floats and manages public debts for the government. As a fiscal agent the central bank advises the government on matters covering monetary and banking policies. It also serves as a representative of the government in international conferences as monetary and economic matters.

Question 8.
(a) Give any five expectations of Creditors from a Business Enterprise. (5)
(b) State any five codes of conduct adopted in the field of Advertising. (5)
Answer:
(a) Creditors expectations :

1. Safety of capital contributed by them.
2. A fair and regular return (in the form of dividend or interest) on their capital.
3. Capital appreciation in the value of their investment.
4. Return of loans in time in case of creditors.
5. Equal participation in policy decisions of the company.
6. A public image of the company for which they can feel proud.

(b) Rules of code of conduct in Advertising :

1. Advertising should be so designed as to conform to the laws of the country and should not offend against morality, decency and religious susceptibilities of the people.
2. In all other respects, the Director General Doordarshan will be guided for purposes of commercial telecasting in Doordarshan by the code of Ethics for Advertising in India as modified from time to time.
3. Not with standing anything contained herein this code is subject to such modifications as may be made/ issued by the government, of India from time to time.
4. No advertisement should be permitted
   1. which is against any of the objectives, principles or provision of the constitution of India.
   2. which would adversely affect friendly relations with foreign states.
   3. which will tend to incite people to crime or to promote disorder, violence or branch of law.

Question 9.
(a) What is meant by “Barriers to effective Communication “? Explain any four barriers. (5)
(b) Explain five main rights of consumers as provided in the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. (5)
Answer:
(a) The difficulties that may arise in the process of communication is known as barriers to communication. Four barriers are as follows :

1. Physical Barriers : Physical distance between the sender and the receiver of the message is an important barrier to communication. Noise and environmental factors also obstruct communication.
2. Personal Barriers : Differences in levels of understanding, judgement, values, etc. of sender and receivers restrict communication.
3. Organisational Barriers : When the organisation structure of a firm is complex consisting of several levels of authority, there are greater chances of distortion or breakdown in communication which tends to be slow and rigid.
4. Semantic Barriers : The same words and symbols may carry different meanings to different people. Communication breaks down when the sender and the receiver of the message use words or symbols in different senses.

(b)

1. Right to Safety : The consumer have the right to be protected against marketing of goods and services, which are hazardous to life and property.
2. Right to be Informed : All the consumers have the right to be informed about the particulars of goods and services that they purchase. They have the right to be informed about the quality, quantity potency, purity, standard and price of goods.
3. Right to be Heard: The consumers interests should receive due consideration at appropriate forums relating to consumer welfare.
4. Right to Consumer Education : This includes knowledge about goods and issues relating to consumer welfare.
5. Right to Choose: It means assurance of access to the variety of goods and services at competitive price.

Question 10.
Prepare a Trading, Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet of M/s Jindal Enterprises for the year ended 31st March, 2011 from the following Trial Balance, (10)
The Closing Stock on 31st March was valued at ₹ 26,000.

Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31st March, 2011

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2014 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Applications Question Paper 2014 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt ALL Questions)

Question 1.
Give one difference between each of the following:
(a) Recruitment and Selection. [2]
(b) Receipt and Income. [2]
(c) Cash Credit and Loan. [2]
(d) Apprenticeship and Internship. [2]
(e) Capital Market and Money Market. [2]
Answer:

(a)	Basis	Recruitment	Selection
	Nature of Process	It is said to be a positive process because it seeks to attract a large number of candidates from which choice can be made.	It is said to be a negative process because it is indulged in eliminating less qualified candidates to select the most suitable candidates.
(b)	Basis	Receipt	Income
	Accrued/Outstanding Items	It contains only cash items and does not include accrued income, which is received in advance, outstanding or prepaid expenses.	It is prepared on accrual basis and therefore includes all accrued and outstanding items.
(c)	Basis	Cash Credit	Loan
	Meaning	It is a primary method in which banks lend money against the security of com­modities and debt.	Loans are the counterparts of fixed deposits in the bank. Banks lend money in this mode when the repayment is sought to be made in fixed, predetermined instalments.
(d)	Basis	Apprenticeship	Internship
	Meaning	This method is used in technical trades and crafts in which along period is required to become proficient in work.	This is a joint programme of training in which business houses collaborate with technical institutions.
(e)	Basis	Capital Market	Money Market
	Meaning	This is a specialised market for providing long term finance to business enterprises. It consists of stock, investment trusts, etc.	Money market is a specialised market for providing short terms finance to business enterprises. It consists of various types of banks.

Question 2.
(a) Briefly explain how tourism can also lead to destruction of the ecosystem. [2]
(b) Describe any two qualities that a salesman selling LCD Televisions should possess. [2]
(c) Mention any four methods of sales promotion. [2]
(d) What are fictitious assets? Give an example. [2]
(e) Mention any two agency functions/services of a Commercial Bank. [2]
Answer:
(a) Negative impacts from tourism occur when the level of visitor use is greater than the environment’s ability to cope with this use within the acceptable limits of change. Uncontrolled conventional tourism poses potential threats to many natural areas around the World. It can put enormous pressure on an area and lead to impacts such as soil erosion, increased pollution, discharges into the sex, natural habitat loss, increased pressure on endangered species. It also forces local people to compete for the use of critical resources.

(b) The two qualities that a salesman selling LCD Televisions should possess are:

1. The salesman should describe the LCD Television well. He should tactfully demonstrate the television and explain its quality, performance, utility, etc. to the buyer.
2. The salesman should be good at his convincing quality. He should understand the causes of objections and should try to convince the customer. For a good sales, the salesman should control his anger and should not argue with the customers.

(c) The four methods of sales promotions are :

1. Samples : Many business firms distribute free samples of their product to selected consumers in order to make the products awareness.
2. Trading Stamps : Trading stamps are issued to customers through the retailers in proportion to the amount of purchase.
3. Coupons : Coupon is a certificate that entitles its holder to a specified saving on the purchase of a specified product.
4. Premium or Bonus Offer: It implies an offer of a certain quantity of the product, free of cost, on the purchase of a specified quantity of the product.

(d) Fictitious Assets: Assets created by an accounting entry (and included under assets in the balance sheet) that has no tangible existence or realization value but represents actual cash expenditure.
Example : Preliminary Expenses, discount on issue of debentures not written off.

(e) The two agency functions/services of a commercial bank are:

1. Collecting Receipts : Banks collect amount of cheques, bills, promissory notes and hundies on behalf of their customers.
2. Trustees and Executors : Commercial banks act as trustees and executors for their customers.

Question 3.
(a) Briefly explain the term ‘Marketing Oriented Stage’. [2]
(b) Mention any two effects of crossing a cheque. [2]
(c) Explain in brief Moral Suasion as a tool of credit control. [2]
(d) What is meant by concept advertising? [2]
(e) State one advantage and one drawback each of using nuclear power as a form of energy. [2]
Answer:
(a) ‘Marketing-Oriented Stage’ : A company philosophy focused on discovering and meeting the needs and desires of its customers through its product mix. Market-oriented stage works in reverse, attempting to tailor products to meet the demands of customers. In essence, market- orientation can be thought of as a coordinated marketing campaign.

(b) The two effects of crossing a cheque are :

1. Crossing cheques provides a protection or safeguard against loss to the drawee by securing payment through a bank.
2. It prevents fraudulent encashment.

(c) Moral Suasion: Often termed simply ‘ suasion’ it has been used to persuade banks and other financial institutions to keep to official guidelines. Under this method, Central Bank requests and persuades the commercial banks not to grant credit for speculative and non-essential activities. It is an informal and non-statutory method.

(d) Advertising : Advertising consists of all the activities involved in presenting to a group a non-personal, oral, visual, openly sponsored message regarding a product, service or idea; this message called an advertisement, is disseminated through one or more media and is paid for by the identified sponsor. It is a non-personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods or services.

(e) Nuclear power as a form of energy:
Advantage: The great advantage of using nuclear energy is the ratio of the amount of fuel used and the energy obtained. This also translates into savings in transport, water, etc.
Disadvantage : One of the main drawbacks is the generation of nuclear waste and the difficulty to manage them as they take many years to lose its radioactivity and dangerous.

Question 4.
Justify either for or against by giving two reasons for each of the following:
(a) Vestibule training is better than on-the-job training. [2]
(b) Skimming pricing policy is ideal for introducing a product in the FMCG sector. [2]
(c) Closing stock is always valued at market price. [2]
(d) All membership fees collected by a non-trading concern must be entered in the assets side of the Balance Sheet. [2]
(e) Abnormal costs are not recorded as part of production costs. [2]
Answer:
(a) For : Yes, vestibule training is better than on-the-job training, because:
(i) This training method helps the trainees to overcome initial nervousness before working on the actual job. Trainees get accustomed to the work routine whereas, on-the-job training method gets difficult for the trainees because in the course of training, employees may cause damage to expensive equipments and rate of accidents may increase.

(ii) Vestibule training helps the trainees to get specialised in their skills under expert trainers and special instructors.

(b) Against : Skimming pricing policy is not ideal for introducing a product in the FMCG sector, because :

1. In FMCG sector, the goods are sold at a low price for quick sales, but in skimming pricing, the initial price of the goods are very high.
2. In FMCG sector, the aim is not to ‘sell to classes’ who don’t care how much they pay for a novel product, but the price strategy, skimming pricing strategy follows this aim which is not ideal for any product to be introduced in FMCG sector.

(c) Against: Rather closing stock is valued at market price or at cost, whichever is less. This rule is based on the principle of conservatism which states that probably losses are taken into account, but not the probable gains. It is also necessary to be careful while valuing closing stock correctly. Otherwise gross profit, thus ascertained, would not be correct one.

(d) For: Yes, all membership fees collected by a non-trading concern should not be entered in the asset side of the Balance Sheet because:

1. This is an income reported in the income and expenditure account.
2. This is a revenue income but not a capital income.

(e) For : Yes, abnormal costs are not recorded as a part of production costs, because :

1. It is cost which is not normally incurred at a given level of output in the conditions in which that level of output is normally attained.
2. Abnormal cost is charged to profit and loss account.

Section – B (60 Marks)
(Attempt any FOUR Questions)

Question 5.
(a) What is meant by the term ‘services ’? Explain its main characteristics. [5]
(b) Explain the role of branding in the Indian Industry. [5]
(c) What is ‘Cost Plus ’Pricing Policy? State two advantages and two disadvantages of it. [5]
Answer:
(a) Service means an intangible act or performance that can satisfy some human needs and can be offered for sale. Beauty parlour, dry cleaning, nursing home, courier firm, cinema theatre, auto repair shop all provide services. It can be classified into the following categories:
(a) Financial services,
(b) Insurance service,
(c) Transport service,
(d) Warehousing service,
(e) Communication services,
(f) Food and Lodging service,
(g) Entertainment service,
(h) Personal services,
(i) Repair services.

The main characteristics of service are :

1. Intangibility: Services are intangible as they cannot be seen or touched. They have no physical shape. They are invisible.
2. Perishability: Services cannot be stored for future use. For example, if a bus having 40 seats is carrying 30 passengers, the 10 vacant seats cannot be utilized in future.
3. Inseparability: Services are produced and consumed at the same time. The service cannot be separated from the service provider. For example, the driver and conductor of the bus have to be in the bus whenever the bus provides service to passengers.
4. Variability : Services can rarely be standardized or made uniform. For example, the quality of service which a waiter provides in a hotel or restaurant may differ from customer to customer or from one time period to another.

(b) Brand means any identification mark (such as trade name, mark, symbol, picture, design, colour, etc.) used to identify the product of a seller and to differentiate it from the products of competitors. A registered brand is known as a ‘trademark’. Branding is the process of assigning a distinctive name to the product by which it is to be known and remembered. It is the process by which a product is branded.

Brand India is a phrase used to describe the campaign India is using to attract business. Basically the campaign is to project the attractiveness of India as an emerging destination for business in the fields of service sector, manufacturing, information technology, infrastructures, information technology, etc. The campaign uses both India as a huge market for products and services as well as a lucrative destination for investment.

Branding helps consumers to identify and recognise the product. It is a means of differentiating the product from the competitor’s product. It is a basis of advertising and other techniques of mass selling. Branding helps to minimise selling costs by reducing dependence on middlemen. It tends to widen the market as need for inspection and sample is eliminated.

Therefore, branding is very important in the Indian industry.

(c) The basic idea underlying this approach is that the selling price of a product must cover its full cost and yield a reasonable margin of profit. The margin may be a fixed amount per unit or a percentage of cost. The margin is known as ‘Mark-up’ and therefore, cost plus pricing is also known as ‘mark up pricing’. The following formula is generally used to fix prices under this approach :
Selling Price = Total cost per unit + Desired profit per unit
Advantages

1. Cost plus pricing ensures full coverage of costs and helps in achieving a reasonable return or capital employed.
2. The method is logical and can be defended on moral grounds. It discourages cut-throat competition in the market.

Disadvantages

1. It is very often difficult to determine accurately the cost per unit due to common overhead and joint products. The method involves arbitrary allocation of costs in such areas.
2. The mark-up on the cost of the product is not fixed but may change with changes in demand. In practice, the rule of thumb methods are used to determine the mark-up.

Question 6.
(a) What does GAAP standfor? Explain ‘Matching concept ’ of GAAP. [5]
(b) Explain the following :
(i) Material costs.
(ii) Semifixed costs. [5]
(c) Explain any five functions of the RBI in context with the Indian economy. [5]
Answer:
(a) GAAP stands for ‘Generally Accepted Accounting Principles’. Accordingly, Accounting Principles refer to the concepts, conventions, and standards which are widely accepted and adopted by accounting formation. According to Robert Anthony, “the rales and conventions of accounting are commonly referred to as principles”. Accounting is the language of business.

In order to make this language precise, accounting authorities have developed certain basic rales. These man-made rales of accounting are called Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. The Principles are accepted and used by accountants all over the world so that financial statements become comparable and useful to the users.

‘Matching Concept’ of GAAP : Revenue must be ascertained first for a period and then the cost of that period should be charged to it. When cost is associated with a particular product or service, revenue earned from-that product or service should be matched to its cost. This principle provides the guidelines as to how the expenses are to be matched with revenue. It requires that in determining the net profit, all costs which are applicable to revenue of that period should be charged against that revenue.

While matching, costs with revenues, the following points must be considered :
(i) When an item of revenue is included in the profit and loss account, all expenses incurred on it whether paid or not, should be included in the profit and loss account. Outstanding expenses are debited in the profit and loss account on this basis.

(ii) If an amount is spent, but revenue from it will be earned in the next year, the amount should be carried down as an asset and should be shown as an expense next year. Prepaid expenses, are shown as assets in the Balance Sheet on this basis.

(iii) Cost of goods remaining unsold at the end of the year together with expenses incurred on them must be carried forward to the next year. Therefore, closing stock is carried over to the next year as opening stock.

(iv) Incomes received in advance must be treated as a liability, while income earned but not received should be recognised as revenue.

(b) (i) Material Costs :
The amount of money invested in the production of a product. The ingredients of a meal or the parts of a machine would be things that incur material costs.

This cost is apart from the cost of labour to produce the product. The material cost together with the cost of labour helps to determine the total cost of a product and its eventual sale price.

The manufacture of products or goods required material as the prime element. In general, these materials are divided into two categories. These categories are direct materials and indirect materials.
(a) Direct Material: All materials which become an integral part of the finished product and which can be easily measured and directly charged to the product are called direct material.
(b) Indirect Material: Indirect materials are those materials which cannot be directly assigned to the specific product but which can be apportioned.

(ii) Semi-fixed Costs :
Semi-fixed costs are those costs which vary but not in direct proportion to changes in the volume of production. They are the combination of fixed and variable costs. In other words, semi-fixed costs are partly variable and partly fixed. Such costs are neither perfectly fixed nor absolutely variable. The fixed component of such costs represents the cost of providing capacity and the variable component is carried by using the capacity. For example, the rent of a telephone is a fixed cost whereas the charges for calls made during a month are a variable cost.

(c) The five functions of the RBI in context with the Indian economy are:
(i) Issue of Currency Notes :
In order to inspire public confidence in paper currency, the central bank keeps reserves of gold, silver, etc. for issuing currency notes. Central bank is given monopoly of note issuing in order to maintain uniformity in currency, to avoid over-issue and to lend prestige to the currency system.

(ii) Banker, Agent and Advisor to the Government:
The central bank acts as a banker, agent and advisor to the Government. As a banker, it receives and makes payments on behalf of the government. The central bank serves as a Government’s agent in financial matters. It advises the Government in matters relating to monetary and banking policies. It manages the national debt and issue of Government securities.

(iii) Credit Control :
The central bank exercises both qualitative and quantitative control over credit gaining capacity of commercial banks in order to maintain stability in prices and foreign exchange. In the absence of such control, commercial banks may lend too much or too little.

(iv) Custodian of Foreign Currency Reserves :
The central bank is the sole custodian of gold, foreign exchange and all other reserves judiciously so as to overcome difficulties in balance of payments and to stabilize the exchange rates.

(v) Banker to the Banks :
When a commercial bank needs funds it can obtain loans and rediscount its bills with the central bank. Commercial banks are required to keep a cash reserve with the central bank so as to control credit in the country. The central bank advises commercial banks on matters relating to their business.

Question 7.
(a) Explain the compensation function of Human Resource Management. [5]
(b) Explain ‘Empathy’and‘Dialogue’as elements of Public Relations. [5]
(c) Explain the two types of ‘Employment Tests ’ conducted to select employees. [5]
Answer:
(a) Compensation management is more than just the means to attract and retain talented employees. In today’s competitive labour market, organizations need to fully leverage their human capital to sustain a competitive position. This requires integrating employee processes, information and programs with organizational processes and strategies to achieve optimal organizational results. It consists of the following activities :

1. Job Evaluation: It is the process of determining the relative worth of a job.
2. Wage and Salary Administration: It implies developing and operating a suitable wage and salary programme. Surveys are conducted to determine wage and salary structure for various jobs in the organization.
3. Bonus : It involves payment of bonus under the payment of Bonus Act 1965, as well as non-statutory bonus and other incentives.

(b) ‘Empathy’ :
Empathy means looking at things and events from the other’s point of view. It requires that the communicator be in tune with the communicatee. The former should understand the attitude of the latter. For example, a good speaker should know the emotions and sentiments of his audience. Put yourself in the shoes of the listener before you speak.

Empathy involves seeing and feeling matters as others see and feel. It enables an executive to be sensitive with problems of his workers and clients. A person with empathy can be receptive and appreciative of the ideas and opinions of others. Public relations managers and executive must acquire and master the art of empathy. This requires planned practice, experience and experimentation. Empathy is different from sympathy.

‘Dialogue’: Dialogue means a conversation between two persons with a purpose. If a person goes on talking without allowing other to participate in the discussion or talk, then it is a monologue. In a civilised society, dialogue is the only weapon of reasoning and understanding. Democracy and freedom cannot survive without discussion and debate. In a dialogue each person presents facts and views and considers the fact and views presented by others. It is a reasonable exchange of ideas and opinions.

Dialogue reveals the true personality of a person. It helps to reduce prejudice and builds up mutual confidence. Effective dialogue requires impartial listening and understanding. A good way to start a dialogue is by asking questions and listening to the answer. Dialogue requires a topic about which the participants are informed and to which all can make a contribution by original thinking and discussion.

(c) The two types of ‘employment tests’ are :
(i) Proficiency Tests :
(1) Achievement Tests:
Achievement tests measure the skills and knowledge which the candidate already possesses at the time of testing. These tests help to determine whether the claims made by the candidate about his knowledge and skills are correct or not. The candidate is asked to perform the job and his actual test performance indicates his proficiency.

(2) Dexterity Tests :
These tests are designed to ascertain how swiftly and efficiently a candidate uses his hands, fingers, eyes and other parts of the body. These tests are useful for judging candidates for a job which requires use of different parts of the body in a coordinated manner.

(3) Intelligence Tests:
These tests measure a person’s capacity for listening and comprehension in terms of his vocabulary, mental alertness, memory, reasoning, etc. An applicant’s intelligence quotient (IQ) can be judged through intelligence tests.

(ii) Aptitude Tests : Aptitude means an individual’s potential for learning the skills required for a job. Aptitude tests measure a candidate’s capacity and his potential for development.
(1) Personality Tests:
Personality tests are designed to judge the emotional balance, temperament and maturity of a candidate. They reveal the ability of an applicant to adjust to new situations and new persons. They are helpful for selecting persons for managerial jobs.

(2) Interest Tests:
These tests are aimed at assessing the type of work in which a candidate shows special interest and involvement. The type of jobs which will be satisfying to the employees can be identified with the help of interest tests.

Question 8.
(a) In order to exercise their rights, consumers must make correct choice and fulfil certain duties. Enumerate five such responsibilities. [5]
(b) With the help of examples, explain how consumption can be reduced by using the 5 ‘R’s. [5]
(c) Write short notes on the:
(i) Business Entity Concept of Accounting.
(ii) Maturity stage of a ‘Product Life Cycle’. [5]
Answer:
(a) The five responsibilities of a consumer are :

1. The responsibility to be aware of the quality and safety of goods and services before purchasing.
2. The responsibility to gather all the information and facts available about a product or service as well as to keep abreast of changes and innovations in the market place.
3. The responsibility to complain and inform business and other consumers of dissatisfaction with a product or service in a fair and honest manner.
4. The responsibility to be an ethical consumer and to be fair by not engaging in dishonest practices which cost all consumers today.
5. The responsibility to speak, to inform manufacturers and governments of needs and wants.

(b) The waste hierarchy is a classification of waste manage-ment. The waste we create have to be carefully managed to minimize its effects on our personal health and the health of our planet. Here is a quick review of the 5R’s of managing waste, including simple steps you can take:

(i) Reuse:
Reusing means getting the most out of things in their original form before you toss or recycle them. Reusing is a pretty simple once you get into the habit, like waiting a shopping list or an opened envelope or the back of office paper rather than on a brand new sheet. Plastic bags can be reused several times before they are recycled.

(ii) Recycle :
Recycling is the ‘R’ that has caught on the best. However recycling is not as easy as one would like or even available in some Montana location. Recycling, like using cans to make new cans, is better than throwing them into the landfill, but it still takes energy to collect, crush and remake them.

(iii) Reject :
Rejecting is the one of the newer. Some people also call it precycling. In terms of smart waste management, this is the simple act of rejecting excessive or unnecessary packaging. You can reject-choose to not buy-foods, beverages, or other products in fancy, multilayer packaging that you will just have to throw into the trash as soon as you open them.

(iv) Respond/React/Reward :
This R goes by several different names, but still they all come down to one thing : letting manufactures and businesses know what you think about their waste management. Using the grocery bag example, you would thank your grocery store manager for selling inexpensive cloth bags and/or providing a way to recycle plastic bags.

(v) Reduce :
Reducing means producing less waste so that you throw away less trash and garbage into landfills. It is the most effective way to manage waste. For example, bring your own bags, cloth or mesh bags, so you don’t take either paper or plastic.

(c) Business Entity Concept :
In accounting, we treat a business or an organisation and its owners, as two separately identifiable parties. This concept is called business entity concept. It means that personal transactions of owners are treated separately from those of the business. Business are organised either as a proprietorship, a partnership, or a company. They differ on the level of control the ultimate owners exercise on the business, but in all forms the personal transactions and accounts of the business.

Maturity stage of a ‘Product Life Cycle’ : After the introduction and growth stages, a product life cycle stages can be quite a challenging time for manufacturers. In the first two stages, companies try to establish a market and then grow sales of their product to achieve as large share of that market as possible. However, during the maturity stage, the primary focus for most companies will be maintaining their market share in the face of a number of different challenges.

Challenges of the Maturity Stage :

1. Sales Volume Peak.
2. Decreasing market share.
3. Profits start to Decrease.

Benefits:

1. Continued Reduction in Costs.
2. Increased Market share through differentiation.

Question 9.
CASE STUDY
Harish Sharma and Surendra Doshi have decided to start a Private Limited Company to carry out repairs and renovation of buildings. They call their company ‘S D Renovators (P) Ltd. Company’. For their investment in tools, equipments and office space they have decided to take a loan for 8 years. They also approach a bank to open an account in the name of the company.
They need a manager to oversee their operations efficiently. They place an advertisement in the newspaper for this purpose. They also need to hire a labourforce for execution of repair work.

With reference to the above:
(a) What type of account should be opened? Explain any four features of that Account. [5]
(b) Explain any two external sources of recruitment that are required to hire labour. [5]
(c) On receiving applications for the manager’s post, describe the procedure to select the right candidate. [5]
Answer:
(a) The type of account should be opened is current A/c. Current A/c is one into which money may be deposited and out of which it may be withdrawn at any time. Current A/c is basically operated by the business houses.
Features of Current A/c :

1. Deposits in current account are payable on demand. Money from these deposits can be withdrawn by cheques without any restriction on the amount and number of withdrawals made.
2. Generally, banks do not provide interest on these accounts.
3. Overdraft facilities are available only on this type of account.
4. Banks provide various services to the current account holders, such as making payment through cheques, collection of cheque payments, issuing drafts on behalf of the account holders, etc. For providing these Services, bank charged services charges.

(b) The two external sources of recruitment that are required to hire labour are :
(i) Gate Hiring :
Small firms make recruitment at the factory gate. Workers gather at the factory gate after reading the notice of vacancies. The suitable candidates are selected. This method is used to fill temporary and casual vacancies.

(ii) Unsolicited Applicants :
Persons in search of employment visit offices of companies.
They carry their resume and certificates. These persons may be considered if there is a vacancy. Unsolicited applicants are also known as casual callers.

(c) After receiving application for the manager’s post, the procedure to select the right candidate is as follows:
(i) Preliminary Interview:
Preliminary interview is the first occasion when candidates come into the contact with the company’s officials. The list of job-seekers is received by the receptionist or some other official who conducts a brief interview of the candidates to determine whether it is worthwhile for the candidate to fill up the application form. The candidates who are unfit for the job are rejected.

(ii) Application form :
The candidates who succeed in preliminary interview are asked to fill in the prescribed application form. The application form provides a written record of the name, address, age, qualifications, work, experience, etc. of a candidate.

(iii) Employment Tests :
These tests are based on the assumption that work behaviour of a person can be practised by sampling it. Tests are more useful for identifying unsuitable candidates than for selecting appropriate candidates.

(iv) Selection Interview :
Interview serves as a means of checking the information obtained through application form and tests. It also provides an opportunity to the candidate to get information about the job and the company.

(v) Checking References :
Candidates are generally required to give names and addresses of two or three persons from whom information about the candidate may be obtained. These persons are called ‘references’.

(vi) Medical Examination :
A physical examination of the candidates is necessary to ensure that they are physically fit for the job. Such an examination also helps to protect the employer against the risk of claims for compensation from individuals who already suffer from disabilities and disease.

(vi) Final Approval:
The candidates who are short listed after medical examination are finally approved by the head of the department in which they are to work. They are issued appointment letters and/or service agreements are made with them.

Question 10.
CASE STUDY
Beauty Solutions Ltd., a reputed firm producing cosmetics chose the simplest channel of distribution. It opened its own retail shops throughout the country to sell a wide range of cosmetics and beauty products.
This channel of distribution has become very popular today as producers experience several benefits.
With reference to the above:
(a) State the type of distribution channel used by Beauty Solutions Ltd. and explain why this channel has become increasingly popular? [5]
(b) Discuss any three methods that can be used as channels of distribution other than retail outlets. [5]
(c) Mention five factors that Beauty Solutions Ltd. must consider while deciding its channel of distribution. [5]
Answer:
(a) The type of distribution channel used by Beauty Solutions Ltd. is Direct Selling i.e., short-channel. Direct selling means the producer directly sells goods to ultimate consumers and there is no middleman or intermediary. Short channel of distribution has become increasingly popular because this provides an ease base to the manufacturers to promote their goods to a large bunch of customers.

This channel helps them to get direct contact with their customers through their address and telephones and through this they get a proper and an appropriate feedback. The maximization of profit also becomes possible because no other handling or transportation costs are included. Therefore, short channel distribution is good for the market-competition as well and helps the customers to find their perfect choice.

(b) The other three methods that can be used as channels of distribution other than retail outlets are :
(i) Door-to-Door Salespersons :
The producer employs sales force who approach customers at their residences/offices, book orders and deliver the goods. Sales call is the original and the oldest form of direct marketing. Many companies such as Avon, Amway are also using this method.

(ii) Tele marketing :
The product is heavily advertised on T.V. The customers who watch the advertisements and feel interested can place their orders by telephone, mail or fax. It has become a major direct marketing tool.

(iii) Catalogue Selling :
In this method, the seller mails one or more product catalogues to selected persons who are likely to place an order. Direct mail is a popular medium because it permits high degree of selectivity.

(c) The five factors are :
(i) Perishability :
The cosmetics are of perishable nature, that is they get destroyed soon and cannot handle repeated handling. So for this, the Beauty Solution Ltd. should choose short channels i.e., selling channel of distribution.

(ii) Bulk and Weight :
Beauty Solution Ltd. will choose short channel for distribution, because cosmetic goods are bulky and weighted because they are manufactured on large stock basis. This also minimized handling costs.

(iii) Promotion :
Beauty Solution Ltd. can promote its products well among the customers. With the short channel of distribution, promotion of cosmetics becomes easier.

(iv) Maximizing the Profit:
Short channel of distribution i.e., direct selling helps to maximize the profit by not including any expenses.

(v) Financial Resources :
A large and reputed firm like Beauty Solution Ltd. with sufficient funds can establish its own retail shops to sell directly to consumers. But a small or weak enterprise which cannot invest money in distribution has to depend on middlemen for marketing its products.