ICSE 2022 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2022 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Maximum Marks: 40
Time Allowed: 1½ hour

General Instructions:

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B.
  • The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

[Section – A]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) According to the popular principles ofwaste segregation, a green coloured bin should contain :
(a) Biodegradable waste
(b) Non-biodegradable waste
(c) Hazardous waste
(d) Liquid waste
Answer:
(a) Biodegradable waste

ICSE 2022 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

(ii) Advantage of hydroelectricity is :
(a) People have to be relocated
(b) Construction cost of building the dam is high
(c) Running water has tremendous energy
(d) There is loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
(c) Running water has tremendous energy

(iii) The industrialized world has threatened our:
(a) Population
(b) Biodiversity
(c) Pollution
(d) Recreation activity
Answer:
(b) Biodiversity

(iv) The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty de-signed to protect the ………………… .
(a) Climate change
(b) Greenhouse Gas Emission
(c) To protect the biodiversity
(d) Ozone layer.
Answer:
(d) Ozone layer.

(v) Project Tiger was started in 1973 with the aim to :
(a) Hunt tigers all over the country
(b) Hunt tigers only in specific regions
(c) To protect the tigers from hunting
(d) To only take a count of the tigers.
Answer:
(c) To protect the tigers from hunting

(vi) Application of Remote Sensing Satellite data:
(a) Images are analyzed in the laboratory
(b) Environmental damage
(c) Cheap and rapid method of constructing base maps
(d) Reduces the amount of field work.
Answer:
(b) Environmental damage

ICSE 2022 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

(vii) Energy obtained from organic matter:
(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal energy
(c) Hydrogen gas
(d) Biomass
Answer:
(d) Biomass

(viii) The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and conditions in a specific furnace is called
(a) Landfill
(b) Incineration
(c) Recycling
(d) Vermicomposting
Answer:
(b) Incineration

(ix) A company becomes a MNC when :
(a) It only exports goods.
(b) It only hires local staff.
(c) The business is large with huge financial assets.
(d) It is in a position to over use resources.
Answer:
(c) The business is large with huge financial assets.

(x) A pandemic is :
(a) A widespread endemic disease
(b) A contagious disease
(c) A communicable disease
(d) A vector borne disease.
Answer:
(a) A widespread endemic disease

[Section – B|
(Answer any three questions from this Section.)

Question 2.
(i) Discuss any two advantages of in-situ conservation. [2]
Answer:
(a) It conserves the species and its habitat.
(b) Useful in conserving large populations of a species.
(c) It is a cost-efficient conservation method.

(ii) State any two harms caused by nuclear disasters. [2]
Answer:

  1. Nuclear disasters can cause severe health problems due to nuclear radiation.
  2. Nuclear disasters can adversely affect the vegetation and eco-system of the environment.

(iii) Give three steps how one can decompose organic waste at home. [3]
Answer:
(a) Segregate your household waste into diy and wet in your home. Fruit peels, teabags and leftovers of food are wet waste, while paper, plastic and packaging are dry waste.
(b) Put the wet waste into the first compost pot. Add dried leaves of the same quantity as the waste.
(c) Add semi-composted material or cow dung to start off the decomposition process.
(d) Leave the pot open for 30-45 days for the composting to happen. Move this semi-composted matter into a larger container or bin.
(e) After two months, the waste will turn into rich compost that can be used or sold as manure.

(iv) List any three characteristics of multinational company at global level. [3]
Answer:
(a) MNCs have large base of assets and enjoy high turnover.
(b) They have large network of branches globally.
(c) They rely on latest technology.

ICSE 2022 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 3.
(i) Define sustainable development. [2]
Answer:
Sustainable development can be defined as an approach to the economic development of a country without compromising with the quality of the environment for future generations.

(ii) State any two causes for loss of wildlife habitat. [2]
Answer:
(a) Damage to natural resources.
(b) Decreasing space for wildlife due to urbanisation.

(iii) State any three advantages of using gasohol. [3]
Answer:
(a) It can be used in standard gasoline engines without any modifications.
(b) It also has the potential to reduce carbon monoxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
(c) Its use reduces the pressure on consumption of fossil fuels.

(iv) Mention any three important tips for the management of waste. [3]
Answer:
(a) Make use of reusable grocery bags and containers.
(b) Make use of online resources. Avoid wastage of papers.
(c) Make use of the things which could be recycled.
(d) Dispose off waste like metals, papers, newspapers wisely.

Question 4.
(i) State any two reasons for growth of MNCs. [2]
Answer:
(a) MNCs have huge financial resources. They can expand rapidly with available financial resources.
(b) They have easy access to foreign capital markets.
(c) They use latest technology in production and services.

(ii) What is the aim of the Kyoto Protocol ? [2]
Answer:
The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty adopted in 1997 that aimed to reduce the emission of gases that contribute to global warming.

(iii) What are vulnerable species ? Give two examples. [3]
Answer:
A vulnerable species is one in which the species is susceptible to endangerment. The species is likely to become endangered when the population of that species declines. Examples: Barasingha, Blackbuck, Nilgiri Langur, Yak.

(iv) Name any three effective methods of conserving energy [3]
Answer:
(a) Turn off your electronic devices when not in use.
(b) Use energy-efficient light bulbs like LED bulbs and tube lights.
(c) Use pressure cooker for cooking of food. Cook using the right-sized burner.
(d) Get serviced your vehicle at regular intervals.

Question 5.
(i) Give any two precautions that we must take while transporting waste from hospitals. [2]
Answer:
(a) Always carry/transport the waste in closed containers from the source of generation to final disposal.
(b) Use dedicated waste collection bins for transporting waste.

(ii) State any two works of the Global Environmental Facility. [2]
Answer:
Works of Global Environmental Facility are: Mitigation and adaptation of climate change, sustainable forest management.

ICSE 2022 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

(iii) Mention any three man-made causes that lead to the loss of biodiversity. [3]
Answer:
Biodiversity loss is caused by these factors: habitat loss, overexploitation (extreme hunting and fishing pressure), pollution, climate change associated with global warming. In each case, human beings and their activities are playing direct roles.

(iv) List any three principles of sustainable development. [3]
Answer:
(a) Conservation of the ecosystem or the environment.
(b) Conservation of biodiversity of the planet.
(c) Sustainable development of the society.
(d) Population control and management.

Question 6.
(i) How is wind energy useful to farmers in rural areas ? [2]
Answer:
(a) Farmers can use wind pump for irrigation.
(b) Power generated by wind turbines is the cheapest.
(c) Each turbine uses less than half an acre, therefore, farmers can plant crops and graze livestock right to the turbine’s base.

(ii) Why is the practice of recycle and reuse important in modem times ? [2]
Answer:
Reuse refers to using items more than once. It reduces the burden on resources for creating a new item. Recycling is the method of turning used and waste materials into new products. Recycling is one of the most effective ways that we can do to preserve our planet. This process uses less energy and resources than making a new one. A lot of our household waste can be broken down and reprocessed to make new things.

(iii) Mention any three ways how multinational companies cause environmental degradation. [3]
Answer:
MNCs cause environmental degradation due to the following reasons:
(a) transferring outdated technology and using latest technology rapidly
(b) disregarding local laws
(c) extracting host countries resources
(d) following poor local environmental practice

(iv) List three advantages of captive breeding with reference to wildlife. [3]
Answer:
(a) Captive breeding helps to protect endangered species of animals and also have breeding programs to enrich the populations of animal species.
(b) It helps introduce a healthy generation of the species to the world.
(c) Captive animals are used for research institutions and are also placed in zoos as well aquariums.

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2021 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2021 Solved Semester 1

Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: 1 hour

General Instructions:

  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • All Questions are Compulsory
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
  • Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1
Method of reducing vehicular air pollution : [1]
(a) Use of catalytic convx, lers
(b) Meteorological controls.
(c) Use of electrostatic precipitator.
(d) Use of cyclone separator.
Answer
(a) Use of catalytic converters

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 2.
We could achieve the low projection of population : [1]
(a) If we placed high priority on trade.
(b) If we give high priority to women centred education.
(c) If we advance in technology.
(d) If we reduce family planning methods.
Answer
(b) If we give high priority to women centred education.

Question 3.
Integrated Pest Management reduces the application of: [ 1 ]
(a) Acids.
(b) Fertilizers.
(c) Pesticides.
(d) Salts.
Answer:
(c) Pesticides.

Question 4.
The global food system is spectacularly bad at tackling [1]
(a) Poverty.
(b) Hunger.
(c) Water.
(d) Air
Answer:
(b) Hunger.

Question 5.
Alternative to timber in making paper is : [1]
(a) Metal.
(b) Plastic.
(c) Bagasse.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Bagasse.

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 6.
India s staple food grains are ……………………. . [1]
(a) Wheat and rice.
(b) Wheat and jowar.
(c) Rice and jowar.
(d) Jowar and bajra.
Answer:
(a) Wheat and rice.

Question 7.
Non timber forest products are : [1]
(a) Nuts, Seeds, Berries.
(b) Sandal wood, bamboo, Honey.
(c) Charcoal, Wood oil, Resins.
(d) Leaves, Flowers, Weeds.
Answer:
(a) Nuts, Seeds, Berries.

Question 8.
This is a characteristic of organic fertilizers : [1]
(a) They help plants to grow but do nothing for the soil.
(h) They supply three to five nutrien ts only.
(c) They leave the soil depleted and devoid of life.
(d) They release their nutrients over a long period of time.
Answer:
(d) They release their nutrients over a long period of time.

Question 9.
Planning of an urban environment must include : [1]
(a) Narrow roads.
(b) Proper drainage and disposal waste system.
(c) No waste water treatment plants.
(d) Conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
(b) Proper drainage and disposal waste system.

Question 10.
Which of the following is an advantage of zoning strategy? [1]
(a) Can increase the cost of building new structures in some areas.
(b) The government and private enterprises can lose control over its land use.
(c) Can discourage some development in some areas.
(d) Can conserve environmentally sensitive areas.
Answer:
(d) Can conserve environmentally sensitive areas.

Question 11.
Swatch Bharat program was initiated by : [1]
(a) Anna Hazare.
(b) Vijay Jardhari.
(c) Narendra Modi,
(d) Indira Gandhi.
Answer:
(c) Narendra Modi

Question 12.
The disadvantages of recycled timber. [1]
(a) Affordable.
(b) Moisture content practically nil.
(c) Stigma attached with using used or cheap wood.
(d) Eco-friendly.
Answer:
(c) Stigma attached with using used or cheap wood.

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 13.
Kerosene as a desirable cooking fuel is : [1]
(a) Inefficient.
(b) Unsafe.
(c) Is not More environmentally friendly than fossil fuel.
(d) It can be bought in smaller quantities.
Answer:
(d) It can be bought in smaller quantities.

Question 14.
The equipment that removes particles more than 50 micrometres in diameter : [1]
(a) Wet Scrubber.
(b) Electrostatic Precipitator.
(c) Fabric Filter.
(d) Cyclone Separator.
Answer:
(d) Cyclone Separator.

Question 15.
Van Mahotsava means : [1]
(a) Using alternative for fuel wood.
(b) Stop cutting trees.
(c) Tree planting festival.
(d) Banning the practice of slash and bum.
Answer:
(c) Tree planting festival.

Question 16.
Which is the country with the highest population in the world? [1]
(a) China.
(b) Canada.
(c) India.
(d) Australia.
Answer:
(a) China

Question 17.
Trees can help soil conservation on land by : [1]
(a) Increasing wind speed.
(b) Increasing speed of water flow.
(c) Decreasing soil organic matter.
(d) Holding soil together and reducing soil erosion.
Answer:
(d) Holding soil together and reducing soil erosion.

Question 18.
Human activity that causes soil erosion is : [1]
(a) Afforestation.
(b) Use of labour on land instead of machinery.
(c) Overuse of land for growing crops.
(d) Multi cropping.
Answer:
(c) Overuse of land for growing crops.

Question 19.
Social forestry is ……………………… of all lands other than crop land [1]
(a) Deforestation.
(b) Deserted.
(c) Afforestation.
(d) Barren.
Answer:
(c) Afforestation

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 20.
An example of particulate pollutant is : [1]
(a) Soot.
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Plastic.
(d) Oxides of nitrogen.
Answer:
(a) Soot.

Question 21.
Vegetative method of soil conservation is : [1]
(a) Terrace farming.
(b) Crop Rotation.
(c) Bunds.
(d) Contour farming.
Answer:
(b) Crop Rotation.

Question 22.
Factor responsible for decrease in population in developing countries are : [1]
(a) Religious belief,
(b) Preference for a male child.
(c) Poverty.
(d) Education.
Answer
(id) Education.

Question 23.
The aim of Integrated Plant Nutrient Management is : [1]
(a) To ensure productive and sustainable agriculture.
(b) Difficulty in growing green manure.
(c) Non availability of water.
(d) Lack of nutrient.
Answer:
(a) To ensure productive and sustainable agriculture.

Question 24.
An alternative to fuel wood is : [1]
(a) Wet scrubber.
(b) Cyclone filter.
(c) Solar cookers.
(d) Electrostatic precipitator.
Answer:
(c) Solar cookers.

Question 25.
The rapid increase in the city population results in the growth of ……………………… [1]
(a) Slums.
(b) Employment.
(c) Unstable land.
(d) Forest.
Answer:
(a) Slums.

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 26.
Secondary cities are : [1]
(a) On the outskirts of villages.
(b) in the centre of metropolitan cities.
(c) On the outskirts of main cities.
(d) In the centre of towns.
Answer:
(c) On the outskirts of main cities.

Question 27.
Four stroke engines are used in : [1]
(a) Garden equipment,
(b) Jet skis.
(c) Motorcycles.
(d) Cars.
Answer
(d) Cars.

Question 28.
Deforestation generally decreases : [1]
(a) Soil erosion
(b) Global warming
(c) Drought
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(d) Rainfall

Question 29.
Terracing is an effective method of soil conservation in : [1]
(a) Deserts
(b) Hills
(c) Plains
(d) Riverine
Answer:
(b) Hills

Question 30.
Among the following which is the major cause of crop failure in India ? [1]
(a) Monsoon failure
(b) Inadequate supply of fertilizer
(c) inadequate supply of pesticide
(d) Pest attack
Answer:
(a) Monsoon failure

Question 31.
Change in fuel technique involves the use of less polluting fuel to reduce air pollution : [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer
(a) True

Question 32.
Education to women opens up opportunities to work and achieve their goals : [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 33.
Migration can lead to congestion and pollution in rural areas: [1]
(a) True (b) False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 34.
Cover crops are particularly helpful in retaining moisture in the soil: [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 35.
To strengthen rural-ruban linkage consolidation of farm to market roadways is very important: [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 36.
The main objective of Integrated Rural Development Programme is to improve the economic conditions of the rural poor: [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 37.
Plant genetic resources are a crucial component of global food security. [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 38
Traffic management measures are aimed to improve traffic by increasing the cost of leaded and free-lead petrol: [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(b) False

Question 39.
Most of the urban and rural poor have no access to safe drinking water and health care services : [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

ICSE 2021 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 40.
Baranaja is a practice to grow a single crop on a single plot of land: [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(b) False

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2020 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2020 Solved

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions:

  • Answer to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head
    of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]

Section – A (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section.

Question 1
(a) What are bio pesticides? Give one example of a bio pesticide. (2)
Answer:
Bio pesticides are certain types of pesticides obtained from natural materials such as animals, plants, bacteria, and certain minerals.
For example, canola oil and baking soda have pesticidal applications and are considered bio pesticides.

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) What are biosphere reserves? (2)
Answer:
A biosphere reserve is a ecosystem with plants and animals of unusual scientific and natural interest. Biosphere reserves help ensure the environmental, economic, and social sustainability of the region, by encouraging wise use of natural and human resources.

(c) List any two problems that waste can cause to our environment. (2)
Answer:
Disposing of waste has huge environmental impacts and can cause serious problems. Some waste will eventually rot, but not all, and in the process it may smell, or generate methane gas, which is explosive and contributes to the greenhouse effect.
Generally waste cause Pollution and loss of biodiversity.

(d) Explain the working of Remote Sensing Satellites. (2)
Answer:
Remote sensors collect data by detecting the energy that is reflected from Earth. These sensors can be on satellites or mounted on aircraft. They record natural energy that is reflected or emitted from the Earth’s surface. The most common source of radiation detected by passive sensors is reflected sunlight.

(e) What is the impact of increasing population on the land? (2)
Answer:
It is estimated that growth in human population affect the global land use pattern available for agriculture, forest land cover, nearby area of different type of water bodies. The rapid increase of human population is putting huge pressure on our natural resources available e g., land, water, ecosystem services etc.

Question 2.
(a) List two aims of MNC s. (2)
Answer:
The aims/goals of any company whether it is multinational or local are :

  • Increase penetration.
  • Enhance Market share
  • Double the Profit every year by selling more and more every year
  • Reduce the cost
  • By achieving all of above, multiply share holders value i.e., share price, which is the ultimate goal of creating wealth for the promoters.

(b) How has LPG benefited the rural areas of India? (2)
Answer:
LPG substitutes the polluting and toxic cooking fuels. This is not only good for their health as LPG bums clean with practically negligible toxic gases, but it would also free up the time they spend accumulating the firewood etc, and time spend in cooking, as LPG has significantly higher calorific value compared to other available fuels.

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) What are organic fertilizers? Give any one disadvantage of organic fertilizers. (2)
Answer:
Organic fertilizers are fertilizers derived from animal matter, animal excreta (manure), human excreta, and vegetable matter (e.g., compost and crop residues). Naturally occurring organic fertilizers include animal wastes from meat processing, peat, manure, slurry, and guano.

Disadvantages of organic manure:
The biggest disadvantage of using an organic fertilizer is that it may not contain primary nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous or potassium, also known as NPK.

(d) Name any two clean fuels. (2)
Answer:
Clean fuels are fuels that have a lower carbon intensity than the standard for the fuel it replaces. Examples of clean fuels include most types of ethanol, bio dies.el, natural gas, bio gas, electricity, propane and hydrogen.

(e) How can the government encourage child education? (2)
Answer:
The government has brought about various schemes that ensure equitable education for all.
1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA): This program was introduced in 2001 and is one of the biggest projects in India. This program covers the entire country and works in partnership with local and state governments.

2. National Program for Education of Girls at Elementary Education (NPEGEL): The program has been initiated by the Government of India to reach girls, especially the girls that are not enrolled in a school.

3. Midday Meal Scheme: The main objective of creating this scheme was to eliminate classroom hunger of children and to increase attendance and enrollment of children at schools.

4. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao: This scheme ensures the protection of girls and their survival and makes sure that girls participate in educational activities alongside boys.

Question 3.
(a) State any two reasons forfossil fiiel depletion. (2)
Answer:
Following are the reasons for fuel depletion:

  • Over consumption and waste
  • Deforestation and the Destruction of Ecosystems leading to loss of biodiversity
  • Mining of Minerals and Oil
  • Technological and Industrial Development
  • Erosion

(b) Why is it important for hospitals to reduce their solid waste? (2)
Answer:
Hospital generates waste and the overall product is waste of different kinds; healthcare, household and administrative waste. Healthcare waste includes infectious, chemical, expired pharmaceutical and radioactive items and sharps. These items can be pathogenic and environmentally adverse. The management of hospital generated waste is not only the responsibility of the hospital administration but also of every department and every health care providing personnel in the hospital.

The medical waste has to be properly collected and segregated from other non-hazardous waste in specific color-coded receptacles. There are reports of programs directed at the reduction of hazardous healthcare waste and the control of the cost of disposal. Evaluating the individual hospital profile of generation and flow of hazardous healthcare waste is a necessary primary step required for initiating effective management of hospital generated waste.

(c) What do you understand by the term ‘debt trap’? (2)
Answer:
A debt trap is a situation in which a borrower is led into a cycle of re-borrowing, or rolling over, their loan payments because they are unable to afford the scheduled payments on the principal of a loan. These traps are usually caused by high-interest rates and short terms.

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) What is the need for biotechnology in agriculture? (2)
Answer:
The scope of bio – technological applications in Agriculture and Animal Husbandry is concerned with- the development of disease and pest resistant varieties of plants and animals; the production of food containing high nutrient value; the production of vaccines and the development of drought resistant crop varieties.

(e) Define reforestation. (2)
Answer:
Reforestation is the process of regenerating or replanting forest areas that have been destroyed or damaged for the benefits of mankind. Reforestation and afforestation share the same meaning i.e. afforestation is another name given to reforestation.

Question 4.
(a) State the difference of a core and buffer zone in a tiger reserved area. (2)
Answer:
Core Zone: Core zone includes protected areas, as they act as reference points on the natural state of the ecosystems represented by the biosphere reserves. Core zone is where the actual forest exists and there are no villages inside this core zone. The core zone is basically an important area where the conservation of wildlife and natural resources is strictly protected by the forest department.

Buffer Zone: The area that surrounds or adjoins the core areas where nature is conserved alongside compatible human uses of the land or water. These might include activities such as ecotourism, recreation, sustainable agriculture, and forestry plus others. The buffer zone is mainly where both villagers and animals (mainly tigers) co-exist.

(b) What is the link between growing population and environment degradation? (2)
Answer:
Population impacts on the environment primarily through the use of natural resources and production of wastes and is associated with environmental stresses like loss of biodiversity, air and water pollution and increased pressure on arable land. Poverty is said to be both cause and effect of environmental degradation. The analysis reveals that outcomes of high population growth rates are increasing population density and number of people below poverty line. Population pressure contributes to land degradation and soil erosion, thus affecting productive resource base of the economy.

(c) What are bunds? How do they reduce soil erosion? (2)
Answer:
The word bund means an embankment. Bunds are small barriers to runoff coming from external catchments. The stone bunds form a barrier that slows down water runoff, allowing rainwater to seep into the soil and spread more evenly over the land. This slowing down of water runoff helps with building-up a layer of fine soil and manure particles, rich in nutrients.

(d) How has construction work contributed to degradation of the environment? (2)
Answer:
Construction’s Impact on the Environment: Construction projects around the world have a significant impact on our environment, both on a local and a global scale. Every stage of the construction process has a measurable environmental impact: the mining processes used to source materials, the transportation of these materials to the building site from sources around the world, the construction process itself and the waste removal and disposal process that follows the completion of the project.

Climate change scientists believe that the Earth is rapidly getting warmer and that human activity is playing a significant role in accelerating this process. The biggest way in which construction firms are doing this is by contributing to carbon dioxide emissions. Every construction project results in the emission of carbon dioxide, methane, and other waste products that pollute the air and are believed to contribute to global climate change.

(e) Mention any two ways by which industrial pollution can be controlled. (2)
Answer:
The implementation of control measures should be based on the principle of recovery or recycling of the pollutants and must be taken as an integral part of production i.e. never as a liability but always an asset.
Some important control measures are:

  1. The industrial wastes should be subjected to proper treatment before their discharge.
  2. Intensive plantation in the region, considerably reduces the dust, smoke and other pollutants.

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

[Section – B (40 Marks)]
Answer any four questions from this Section.

Question 5
(a) Define soil erosion. Explain any two man made and any two natural causes for soil erosion. (5)
Answer:
The loss of soil cover due to natural agents like wind and running water is called soil erosion.

Causes of Soil Erosion:
Natural causes:
(i) Rainfall and Flooding : Higher intensity of rainstorm is the main cause of soil erosion.

(ii) Logging and Mining : A large number of trees are cut down to carry out the logging process. Trees hold . the soil firmly. The canopy of the trees protects the . . soil from heavy rainfall. The leaf litter that protects
the soil from erosion, is also lost during logging.

Man made causes:

  • Construction: The construction of roads and buildings exposes the soil to erosion.
  • Agriculture: The farming practices are the major cause of soil erosion. The agricultural activities disturb the ground.

(b) What is biodiversity? Explain four reasons for loss of it in recent times. (5)
Answer:
Biodiversity can be defined as a community of all the living organisms on the earth and the diversity among them from all the ecosystems. Biodiversity holds ecological and economic significance. It provides us with nourishment, housing, fuel, clothing and several other resources. It also extracts monetary benefits through tourism. Therefore, it is very important to have a good knowledge of biodiversity for a sustainable livelihood.

Causes of Loss of Biodiversity: Some of the major causes that have resulted in the loss of biodiversity are mentioned below:
1. The natural habitat of the ecosystem plays a major role in maintaining the ecological balance. Several trees are cut down every year for the construction of industries, highways, settlement and so on to fulfill the human demands. As a result, the species become the target to predation and eventually die.

2. Hunting of the wild animals for commercialization of their products has been a major reason for the loss of biodiversity.

3. The exploitation of the medicinal plants for several laboratory purposes has resulted in the extinction of these species. Also, several animals are sacrificed for the purpose of various research in science and medicine.

4. Natural calamities like floods, earthquakes, forest fires also lead to the loss of biodiversity.

5. Air pollution has a major role in the loss of biodiversity. Rapid cutting down of the trees has resulted in the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere leading to climate change. As a result, there has been an increase in the land and ocean temperature leaving an inimical impact on species.

Question 6.
(a) Define incineration. Write any two advantages and any two disadvantages of incineration. (5)
Answer:
Incineration is a waste treatment process that involves the combustion of organic substances contained in waste materials. Incineration and other high-temperature waste treatment systems are described as “thermal treatment”. Incineration of waste materials converts the waste into ash, flue gas and heat.

Advantages of Incineration:
1. Better Waste Management : The first major advantage of incineration is waste management. The approach certainly makes waste management easier and more efficient. Incineration can bum up to 90% of the total waste generated in a chosen area.

2. Less Dependence on Landfills : Incineration reduces the need for landfills. Since up to 90% and at times 95% of the landfills is vacated after the waste in incinerated, it can be an ongoing cycle.

Disadvantages of Incineration:
1. Not that Affordable : Incineration is not an inexpensive process, far from it in reality. The costs of building the infrastructure are substantial. The cost of running incineration plants is substantial too. One also needs trained manpower and dedicated staff to keep the incinerators running. All this adds to the cost.

2. Bad for the Environment: Incinerators generate smoke. The smoke from the chimneys includes nitrogen oxide, particulates, heavy metals, acid gases and the carcinogen dioxin.

3. Long Term Challenges : Incineration discourages . recycling and waste reduction. That is not a wise approach for any society. The focus should be on how to reduce waste and to make the most of recycling. Simply burning everything we waste and no matter how more we waste will only cause further environmental damage.

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) What do you understand by international trade? List four benefits from international trade. (5)
Answer:
International trade refers to the exchange of goods and services between the countries. In simple words, it means the export and import of goods and services. International trade supports the world economy, where prices or demand and supply are affected by global events.

Advantages of International Trade
1. Comparative advantage : It allows countries to specialize in producing only those goods and services, which it is good at.

2. Economies of scale: If a country wants to sell its goods in the international market, it will have to produce more than what is needed to meet the domestic demand. So, producing higher volume leads to economies of scale, meaning the cost of producing each item is reduced.

3. Competition: Selling goods and services in the foreign market also boosts the competition in that market. In a way, it is good for local suppliers and consumers as well. Suppliers will have to ensure that their prices and quality is competitive enough to meet the foreign competition.

4. Transfer of technology : International trade often leads to the transfer of technology from a developed nation to the developing nation. Govt, in the developing nation often lay terms for foreign companies that involve developing local manufacturing capacities.

5. More job creation : Increase in international trade also creates job opportunities in both countries. That’s a major reason why big trading nations like the US, Japa, and South Korea have lower unemployment rates.

Question 7.
(a) What is urbanization? (5)
How can the government help to facilitate a better lifestyle to urban areas ?
Answer:
Urbanization is an increase in the number of people living in towns and cities. It occurs mainly because people move from rural areas to urban areas and it results in growth in the size of the urban population and the extent of urban areas.

According to the Ministry of Urban Development, ‘Urban Infrastructure’ should be equipped with all the necessary facilities. It should give a decent quality of life to its residents, promising clean and sustainable environment by applying smart solutions in the domain of sanitation, waste management, public transport and governance. The government of India has launched various urban development schemes, such as:

I. SMART CITIES MISSION:
It is an urban renewal and retrofitting program by the Government of India with a mission to develop 100 cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens, a clean and sustainable environment and application of ‘smart’ solutions.
The core infrastructure elements in a Smart City would include:

  • Adequate water supply and Assured electricity supply,
  • Sanitation, including solid waste management,
  • Efficient urban mobility and public transport,
  • Safety and security of citizens, particularly women, children and the elderly, and Health and education.

II. ATAL MISSION FOR REJUVENATION AND URBAN TRANSFORMATION (AMRUT):
The purpose of (AMRUT) is to:

  • Ensure that every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a sewerage connection
  • Reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized transport (e.g. walking and cycling)

III. PRADHAN MANTRIAWAS YOJANA- HOUSING FOR ALL (URBAN):
The Mission is being implemented during 2015-2022 and provides central assistance to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and other implementing agencies through States/ UTs for:

  • In-situ rehabilitation of existing slum dwellers using land as a resource through private participation
  • Credit-Linked Subsidy
  • Affordable housing in partnership
  • Subsidy for beneficiary-led individual house construction/enhancement.

IV. SWACHH BHARAT MISSION (SBM) URBAN :

  • Modern and scientific Municipal Solid Waste Management
  • To effect behavioural change regarding healthy sanitation practices
  • Generate awareness about sanitation and its linkage with Public Health Capacity
  • Augmentation for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs)

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Mention any two threats faced by Taj Mahal monument. (5)
State any three steps that can be taken to reduce its degradation.
Answer:
A new Indian government survey has revealed that the Taj Mahal, the nation’s best-known monument, is again facing a major threat from pollution. The survey, commissioned by the Ministry of Environment, found that pollution levels in the city of Agra, where the Taj Mahal is located, had risen significantly over recent years as a result of growth in industry, traffic and population. Recently, the issues of pollution harming the marble surface of the Taj Mahal have arisen. In Agra, today, pollution levels are high. Although the Taj is cleaned approximately every one to two years with a resin compound, the marble is beginning to be discolored with a yellow hue from pollution. There is more than one cause contributing to the pollution around the Taj Mahal. There are factories in Agra that emit dangerous sulphur and smoke. Exhaust from vehicles also harms the Taj.

Preventive Measures:
Both the Government and non-government bodies are trying to make Agra a pollution-free city but their objectives include reducing lead and sulphur emissions, and they are initiating sales of low-lead or lead-free gasoline in the area.

Steps are being taken to reduce the pollution levels around the Taj. Several strategies are now in place to help protect the Taj Mahal. For example, all nearby transport must run only on electric battery power and may not come within a third of a mile (500 meters) of the monument. Investment in urban infrastructure has been used to reduce both water and air pollution.

Local and regional governments in India have tried in their own way to watch over the Taj Mahal. So too, has the national government’s Ministry of Petroleum and National Gas, via the introduction of a 10-point plan to clean up Agra’s air.

Question 8.
(a) Write a note on women centered human development as a strategy for controlling the population growth. (5)
Answer:
Women play an important role in the determination of family size. Participation in social and economic activities may help to promote small family size by meeting the necessary conditions of emotional and social fulfillment of women outside the family context. Adequate education for women in rural as well as urban areas can elucidate alternatives to childbearing and enable women to appreciate the need for and use of contraception. Employment opportunities enhance women’s familial decision making power through the’ acquisition of an alternative social and economic role, which may help them to adopt birth control practices, space their children, and limit family size. Motivational schemes may change the attitudes of a small number of families, however, greater gains could be achieved through an investment in women’s education and employment.

Women empowerment can control population growth by:
1. Education: Education is one of the major part of women empowerment. When women are educated, they are aware of risks of multiple pregnancy. They can also adopt birth control measures in order to control their family. Individual act will thus add on to global population control.

2. Self-sufficiency: Women who are employed and no longer at the mercy of other family members is better equipped to avoid multiple pregnancy. Since they generate their own income, there is no need to follow husband’s orders.

3. Independent decision making: Empowered women have the courage to go against family pressure and take own decisions. They are treated equally and their decision on pregnancy is ultimate.

(b) When and where was the UN’s International conference on Population and Development held? Explain any three objectives. (5)
Answer:
The United Nations coordinated an International Conference on Population and Development (ICPD) in Cairo, Egypt, on 5-13 September 1994. Its resulting Programme of Action is the steering document for the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA). Some 20,000 delegates from various governments, UN agencies, NGOs, and the media gathered for a discussion of a variety of population issues, including immigration, infant mortality, birth control, family planning, the education of women, and protection for women from unsafe abortion services.

According to the official ICPD release, the conference delegates achieved consensus on the following four qualitative and quantitative goals:
1. Universal education : Universal primary education in all countries by 2015. Urge countries to provide wider access to women for secondary and higher level education as well as vocational and technical training.

2. Reduction of infant and child mortality: Countries should strive to reduce infant and under-5 child mortality rates by one-third or to 50-70 deaths per 1000 by the year 2000. By 2015 all countries should aim to achieve a rate below 35 per 1,000 live births and under-five mortality rate below 45 per 1,000.

3. Reduction of maternal mortality : A reduction by 12 the 1990 levels by 2000 and 12 of that by 2015. Disparities in maternal mortality within countries and between geographical regions, socio-economic and ethnic groups should be narrowed.

4. Access to reproductive and sexual health services including family planning : Family¬planning counseling, pre-natal care, safe delivery and post-natal care, prevention and appropriate treatment of infertility, prevention of abortion and the management of the consequences of abortion, treatment of reproductive tract infections, sexually transmitted diseases and other reproductive health conditions; and education, counseling, as appropriate, on human sexuality, reproductive health and responsible parenthood. Services regarding HIV/ AIDS, breast cancer, infertility, and delivery should be made available. Active discouragement of female genital mutilation (FGM).

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 9.
(a) What is Agro forestry? Discuss any four objectives of Agro forestry. (5)
Answer:
Agroforestry : The practice of growing crops between rows of trees is called as Agro- forestry. Tea and coffee farms are important examples of this practice in which tea and coffee bushes are grown between rows of trees having less canopy areas. The practice of agro-forestry has been traditionally adopted in India in the form of Jhum cultivation.

The benefits from agro-forestry are listed below:

  • This practice provides additional benefits to farmers by increasing their income,
  • Trees provide shelter to numerous birds that eat away insect pests of crops,
  • This practice is important as it is helpful in checking soil erosion and increasing moisture content of air over the crop fields.
  • Agro forestry is helpful in improving soil fertility as leaves of trees falling on the ground decompose and increase soil fertility.

(b) What is sustainable agriculture? Explain any four regenerative farming techniques. (5)
Answer:
Sustainable agriculture is a type of agriculture that focuses on producing long-term crops and livestock while having minimal effects on the environment. This type of agriculture tries to find a good balance between the need for food production and the preservation of the ecological system within the environment. Sustainable agriculture also focuses on maintaining economic stability of farms and helping farmers improve their techniques and quality of life.

Regenerative Agriculture is a system of farming principles and practices that increases biodiversity, enriches soils, improves watersheds, and enhances ecosystem services. Regenerative Agriculture aims to capture carbon in soil and above ground biomass, reversing current global trends of atmospheric accumulation. At the same time, it offers increased yields, resilience to climate instability, and higher health and vitality for farming and ranching communities.

Regenerative Agriculture Techniques:
The Regenerative Agriculture Practices that can progressively improve whole agro-ecosystems are:

  • No-Till Farming & Pasture Cropping
  • Organic Annual Cropping
  • Compost & Compost Tea
  • Biochar & Terra Preta
  • Holistically Managed Grazing
  • Animal Integration
  • Ecological Aquaculture
  • Perennial Crops
  • Silvopasture
  • Agroforestry

Question 10.
(a) Define Trickle Drip Irrigation . State any two merits and two demerits of it. (5)
Answer:
Drip irrigation, also known as trickle irrigation, is an irrigation method which saves water and fertilizer by allowing water to trip slowly to the roots of plants, either onto the soil surface or directly onto the root zone, through a network of valves, pipes, tubing, and emitters. It is done with the help of tubes which deliver water directly to the bottom of the plant.

Advantages of using drip irrigation are:

  • Minimized fertilizer/nutrient loss due to localized application and reducing leaching
  • Moisture within the root zone can be maintained at field capacity
  • Minimized soil erosion and weed growth

The disadvantages of drip irrigation are:

  • Initial cost can be more than overhead systems.
  • The sun can affect the tubes used for drip irrigation, shortening their lifespan.
  • The risks of degrading plastic affecting the soil content and food crops.
  • If the water is not properly filtered and the equipment not properly maintained, it can result in clogging or bio clogging.
  • Drip irrigation systems cannot be used for damage control by night frosts

ICSE 2020 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) What are the conservation strategies for wildlife at national and international levels? Explain any one in detail. (5)
Answer:
Wildlife conservation is an activity in which humans make conscious efforts to protect plants and other animal species and their habitats. Wildlife conservation is very important because wildlife and wilderness play an important role in maintaining the ecological balance and contribute to human quality of life. India has a rich heritage of wildlife. It has a long history and tradition of conservation of plants and animals. Principles of conservation are mixed in religious texts and practices in this country. National Level Conservation Strategies:

On the National Level we have different laws that are in force to check poaching and hunting of animals and also to check trade in their body parts.

I. National Parks : A National Park is an area protected and preserved by law for the protection and preservation of flora and fauna within its boundary. Grazing of cattle, removal of any wildlife from its habitat is strictly prohibited in a national park and all rights are reserved with the government. The law defines a national park as an area which is of ecological, faunal, floral and geo- morphologic importance.

II. Wildlife Sanctuary: A Sanctuary is a protected area where wild animals and birds are kept and encouraged to increase their population. Presently, there are more than 490 sanctuaries in India covering a total area of 1,48,848 sq km.
In wildlife sanctuaries, rare and endangered species are encouraged to breed in human controlled environments with restricted settings. This is called as captive breeding. This is a successful technique to increase the populations of rare and endangered species of animals. When the populations of such animals are increased through captive breeding in the captivity the animals are safely released into the wild.

International Level Conservation Strategies:
On international level, the IUCN and the WWF established Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in International Commerce (TRAFFIC) in 1976. The secretariat of the TRAFFIC has strengthened the efforts of the International Community to monitor and control illegal trade in wildlife and in their body parts. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) of wild flora and fauna, the Interpol, World Custom Organizations and a large number of organizations on global level, are establishing networks to check the international trade in animals and in their body parts or in their products derived by killing them mercilessly.

CITES or Convention on International Trade in Endangered species have framed International Laws to be applicable world wide. These laws protect endangered species and limit the illicit trade in wildlife, in their body parts and in the products derived by killing them across the world. The CITES is concerned with the international co-operation to control only the illegal trade in endangered species where as the TRAFFIC is concerned with the monitoring of both the legal as well as the illegal trade in wildlife across the world.

ICSE 2019 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2019 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2019 Solved

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions:

  • Answer to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head
    of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]

Section – A (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section.

Question 1.
(a) What are secondary cities ? (2)
Answer:
Secondary City : Many cities typically develop at the intersections of major highways and in other important areas near cities. Such cities often feature amenities that serve large sub-urban populations. Such cities are called secondary cities.

ICSE 2019 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Define zoning. State one benefit of zoning. (2)
Answer:
The process of partitioning a city, town, or borough into zones reserved for different purposes (such as residence or business) is known as Zoning.

  • Zoning keeps buildings from being built too close to each other.
  • Zoning provides systematic lot arrangement.
  • Zoning protects recreational areas and allows for more open spaces in the neighbourhood.
  • Zoning protects residential properties from commercial development.

(c) What are tree crops ? (2)
Answer:
These are groves or orchards of trees that are grown for either an economic or environmental benefit. The most common tree crops produce fruit or nuts; however, tree crops’can also be grown for timber production.

(d) Give two disadvantages of mixed cropping. (2)
Answer:
Disadvantages of Mixed Cropping :

  1. Seeds of two crops are mixed before sowing and there is no definite pattern for sowing the seeds.
  2. Products of different crops are harvested, threshing, and consumed in mixed form.

(e) State two advantages of using public transport system. (2)
Answer:
Two advantages of using public transport system :

  1. It helps in conserving fuel.
  2. It also helps in reducing the air pollution.

Questions 2.
(a) What are genetically modified organisms? (2)
Answer:
The organisms produced by altering genetic make up through DNA recombinant technology or through genetic engineering are called as Genetically Modified Organisms or GMOs.

(b) List any two strategies for promoting women-centered development. (2)
Answer:

  1. Skill development programmes should be arrange for uneducated women.
  2. Many educational and employment programmes should be arranged.

(c) State any two advantages of crop rotation. (2)
Answer:

  • Increases soil fertility: Prolonged planting of the same crop type leads to depletion of specific nutrients in the soil.
  • Increases crop yield : Crop rotation increases the harvest obtained from a single seasonal harvest.
  • Increase in soil nutrients : As earlier stated, crop rotation allows the land to regenerate.
  • Reduces soil erosion : Soil erosion is the carrying away of the most important top soil layer by wind .

(d) Define nuclear energy. State any one use of nuclear energy. (2)
Answer:
Nuclear energy is the energy released during nuclear fission or fusion, especially when used to generate electricity.

Uses of Nuclear Energy:

  • Nuclear Transport – There are a number of transport modes like Ships.
  • Medical Applications – Nuclear Energy finds wide applications in Medical Science.

(e) What is meant by the term ‘global food security? (2)
Answer:
Global food security is when all people at all times have access to sufficient, safe, nutritious food to maintain a healthy and active life. Its aim is to end hunger in the world.

ICSE 2019 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 3.
(a) State two features of a National Park. (2)
Answer:
Following are the features of National Park :
1. National park is an area set aside by a national government for the preservation of the natural environment. It is made to protect the animals that live inside them which is officially recognised, maintained and monitored by a nation’s government.

2. Activities like cultivation, forestry, hunting, etc. are strictly prohibited in national parks.

(b) Give two examples of non-biodegradable materials. (2)
Answer:
Two examples of non-biodegradable materials are: Metals, Plastics, Synthetic Rubber etc.

(c) Define international trade. (2)
Answer:
International trade is the exchange of capital, goods, and services across international borders or territories because there is a need of goods or services.

(d) Mention two benefits of recycling paper. (2)
Answer:
Benefits of recycling paper are:

  1. reduces environmental hazards like global warming and pollution.
  2. reduces deforestation.

(e) Why was the Montreal Protocol designed ? (2)
Answer:
The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. It was agreed on 16th September 1987, and entered into force on 1st January 1989.

Question 4.
(a) Explain the concept of alternate technology. Give a suitable example. (2)
Answer:
Alternative technology is a term used to refer to technologies that are more environment friendly than the functionally equivalent technologies dominant in current practice. For example, the use of wind turbines to produce electricity.

(b) Define the term composting. (2)
Answer:
Composting is an aerobic method (meaning that it requires the presence of air) of decomposing organic solid wastes. It can therefore be used to recycle organic material. The process involves decomposition of organic material into a humus-like material, known as compost, which is a good fertilizer for plants. Composting requires the following three components: human management, aerobic conditions, and development of internal biological heat.

(c) Name any two fuels that can reduce air pollution due to domestic cooking. (2)
Answer:
Two fuels that can reduce the air pollution due to domestic cooking are Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG) and electricity since they do not cause pollution. Solar cookers can also be used.

(d) Education in necessary for controlling overpopulation.
Justify this statement with two reasons. (2)
Answer:
The education is the only effective key that can help to control the expanded population. A complete awareness revolution can aware the people against the population. Because a strict government rule can be dangerous for some people. It also keeps a negative impact internationally.

  • The decision to limit family largely depends on a couple’s cultural background and education.
  • Through education people should be made aware as to how they themselves and whole human race will be affected with such an enormous growing population.

(e) Give two advantages of using CNG as a fuel. (2)
Answer:

  • It is easy to transport and is economical
  • It is less polluting.

ICSE 2019 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Section – B (40 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section.

Question 5.
(a) List any five measures for reducing air pollution from vehicles. (5)
Answer:
Measures to control air pollution from vehicles:
1. Use of alternative sources of energy like electricity, solar, LPG etc. should be used as fuels to run the vehicles. These sources of energy are less polluting.

2. Strict actions have to be taken to control the rate of traffic growth. Public awareness and participation in traffic management is a must. Every citizen is equally responsible and accountable for traffic management along with the government.

3. Catalytic converters: It is an exhaust emission control device that converts toxic gases and pollutants in exhaust gas from an internal combustion engine to less toxic pollutants by catalysing a redox reaction. Installation of catalytic converters can reduce the release of pollutants into the air.

4. Using public transports or car-pooling whenever possible can considerably help in reducing pollution. Engines of vehicles can be switched off when we are waiting at the traffic signal. Vehicles should be properly maintained Since ill maintained vehicles emit lots of pollutants.

5. Four stroke engines: Four stroke engines facilitate complete combustion of fuel, hence less pollutants are generated.

(b) What is solid waste ? List four suitable options to produce less solid waste in our surroundings. (5)
Answer:
A solid waste is any material that is discarded by human being. It is generated through different means like residential, industrial or commercial activities.
It may not be possible to eliminate waste disposal, but we can make a significant contribution to cut waste generation down to help preserve our environment. Waste management involves putting into action the 3r’s waste management actions.

1. Reduce: The first R in the 3r’s of waste management stands for Reduce. It means taking measures that help cut down wastes. If we decline to buy items that we don’t need or purchase multi-purpose items, then we can help reduce the waste products that go into the trash bin. The primary step towards lowering wastage is doing a thorough examination of what one needs and its purpose. Some of the practical actions that can be done to reduce wastes at home and in the workplace include:

  • Printing papers on both sides to reduce paper wastage.
  • Using electronic mail to reach out to people instead of sending paper mails.
  • Using cloth napkins instead of kitchen towels or paper napkins.

2. Reuse : The second R in the 3r’s of waste management is Reuse. It means putting an item into use again or for another purpose. It is when we can use an object again or differently compared to what it is intended to do. It also means passing on things to others instead of throwing them away.
Some practical actions of reusing include:

  • Using old tins and pots to store items in the kitchen or store loose items together such as computer wires.
  • Using cloth sacks instead of plastic bags.
  • Using re-usable lunch bags in place of disposable ones.
  • Writing on paper can be done on both sides.

3. Recycling: The third r in the waste hierarchy stands for Recycle. To recycle means to change or transform waste and non-useable items into raw materials that can be used to create new objects. There is a need for recycling stations to help with the process of recycling. Recycling reduces the use of energy and consumption of raw materials. It also reduces air and water pollution. Usage of recyclable materials can help conserve the environment and make it green again.

ICSE 2019 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 6.
(a) Discuss the ecological reasons for conserving biodiversity. (5)
Answer:
Reasons for Conserving biodiversity:

  • Biodiversity is essential for the smooth functioning of cycles of ecosystems.
  • Wide number of variety of trees maintains the air, water and soil quality.
  • Biodiversity is essential for proper propagation of food chains and food webs.
  • The forests produce more than 20 per cent of total Oxygen produced in the Earth through the process of photosynthesis.

(b) List any three advantages and two disadvantages of using solar energy. (5)
Answer:
Advantages :
1. The first and foremost advantage of solar energy is that, beyond panel production, it does not emit any green house gases.

2. Another advantage of using solar energy is that beyond initial installation and maintenance, solar energy is free. Solar doesn’t require expensive and ongoing raw materials like oil or coal, and requires significantly lower operational labor than conventional power production.

3. Solar energy offers decentralization in most (sunny) locations, meaning self-reliant societies.

Disadvantages of Solar Energy

  1. The biggest disadvantage of solar energy is that it’s not constant. To produce solar electricity there must be sunlight. So energy must be stored or sourced elsewhere at night.
  2. A very common criticism is that solar energy production is relatively inefficient.
  3. Solar electricity storage technology has not reached its potential yet.

Question 7.
(a) Explain any three suitable measures to regulate the activities of multinational companies which pollute the environment. (5)
Answer:

  1. Use of eco-friendly and renewable source of energy like wind energy, solar energy, etc. should be encouraged and care must be taken that factories or industries are not built and run near the residential areas.
  2. The raw materials should be eco-friendly, non-polluting or less polluting materials.
  3. Industries must have waste management plants to deal with their wastes produced.

(b) What is Integrated Pest Management ? List any four aims of IPM. (5)
Answer:
Integrated pest management (IPM), also known as integrated pest control (IPC) is a broad-based approach that integrates practices for economic control of pests.

The objectives of IPM are:
IPM aims to suppress pest populations below the economic injury level (EIL). IPM emphasizes the growth of a healthy crop with the least possible disruption to agro-ecosystems and encourages natural pest control mechanisms. IPM allows for safer pest control IPM control methods include

Cultural methods: they change the conditions to make them less favourable for pests, such as adjusting planting location or timing or crop rotation and cultivation techniques which expose pests to predation or destroy their food, shelter and breeding habitats

Physical methods: they prevent pests from entering the area using methods such as barriers and traps, or physically remove them.

ICSE 2019 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 8.
(a) What is sustainable development ? Discuss any three strategies by which developing countries can achieve sustainable growth. (5)
Answer:
Sustainable development is defined as an approach to developing or growing by using resources in a way that allows for them to renew or continue to exist for others. Using recycled materials or renewable resources when building is an example of sustainable development.

Strategies:
1. Non-governmental organizations have many programs, functions and roles which assist community to become empowered, and eventually attain sustainable development. these are engaged in multi-dimensional efforts that have been acknowledged globally in a number of development sectors, i.e. education, health, environment etc. NGOs, through capacity building, develop community capacities i.e. ability, skill and knowledge of mobilizing resources, planning and solving problems to gain the mastery over their lives.

2. Opting for alternative technology is a good step towards building a sustainable society. Renewable energy sources, such as wind turbines, solar panels, or bio-gas created from sewage can be used instead of fossil fuels. This step reduces pollution as well conserves natural resources. Replacing better technologies and practices with the current ones is essential to ensure sustainable development.

3. Sustainable architecture encompasses all phases of building including the planning, building, and restructuring.

(b) Write any five effects of climate change on the global environment. (5)
Answer:
Climate change destabilises the Earth’s temperature equilibrium and has far-reaching effects on human beings and the environment. During the course of global warming, the energy balance and thus the temperature of the earth change, due to the increased concentration of greenhouse gases, which has a significant impact on humans and the environment.
The direct consequences of man-made climate change include:

  • rising maximum temperatures
  • rising minimum temperatures
  • rising sea levels
  • higher ocean temperatures
  • an increase in heavy precipitation (heavy rain and hail)
  • shrinking glaciers
  • thawing permafrost

The indirect consequences of climate change, which directly affect us humans and our environment, include:

  • an increase in hunger and water crises, especially in developing countries
  • health risks through rising air temperatures and heatwaves
  • economic implications of dealing with secondary damage related to climate change
  • increasing spread of pests and pathogens
  • loss of biodiversity due to limited adaptability afid adaptability speed of flora and fauna
  • ocean acidification due to increased HCO3 concentrations in the water as a consequence of increased CO2 concentrations
  • the need for adaptation in all areas (e.g. agriculture, forestry, energy, infrastructure, tourism, etc.)

Question 9.
(a) Community participation plays an important role in conserving our environment. Justify this statement with suitable reasons. (5)
Answer:
The general public is involved in environmental law and decision making through a number of different ways. There can be direct participation in the form of local consultations on individual planning or pollution control applications, or through seeking judicial review remedies. Environmental issues are best handled with the participation of all concerned citizens, at the relevant level. In Community forestry, the local community plays a significant role in forest management and land use decision-making by themselves in the facilitating support of government as well as change agents. It involves the participation and collaboration of various participants including community, government and non¬government organisations (NGOs). These innovative methods of forestry have lot of benefits. Involvement of local people makes such programmes successful.

Community participation calls for the local community to actively plan, implement and manage the local environmental programme. It recognizes the role of the government and the community in managing the environment and assigns the responsibility to both. The community voluntarily helps with resource, knowledge and skill. In order to enhance the level of participation of the community, there has to be several measures that need to be taken up. These include providing locals with informational access for empowering them to make informed and rationale decisions. The government also needs to device an effective mechanism for the process interaction between policy makers and local communities for it only when both the government and the people come together then can only our dream for a sustainable healthy environment along with a good development rate will rather most definitely truly come true then.

ICSE 2019 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Give any five reasons as to why organic fertilizers are preferred over chemical fertilizers. (5)
Answer:
Organic fertilizers are carbon-based compounds that increase the productivity and growth quality of plants. They have various benefits over chemical fertilizers, which include the following:

1. Non-toxic Food : Use of these organic fertilizers ensures that the food items produced are free of harmful chemicals. As a result, the end consumers who eat these organic products are less prone to diseases such as cancer, strokes, and skin disorders, as compared to those who consume food items produced using chemical fertilizers.

2. On-Farm Production : The majority of organic fertilizers can be prepared locally or on the farm itself. Hence, the cost of these fertilizers is much lower than the cost of chemical fertilizers.

3. Low Capital Investment: In addition to the on-farm production possibilities of organic fertilizers, organic fertilizers help in maintaining the soil structure and increasing its nutrient-holding capacity. Therefore, a farmer who has practiced organic farming for many years will require far less fertilizer, because his soil is already rich in essential nutrients.

4. Fertile Soil : Organic fertilizers ensure that the farms remain fertile for hundreds of years. Land located at the site of ancient civilizations, such as India and China, are still fertile, even though agriculture has been practiced there for thousands of years. Fertility is maintained because organic fertilizers were always used in the past. However, with the increased use of chemical fertilizers today, the land is rapidly becoming infertile, forcing many farmers to further increase their use of chemical fertilizers or even leave the farming industry entirely.

Question 10.
(a) Suggest five measure to help increase development in villages and thus reduce rural migration to cities. (5)
Answer:
Following are the measures that can be taken to increase the development in villages and to prevent migration to cities are:

  • In our country, every village must be provided with basic requirements like clean drinking water, irrigation facilities for crops, uninterrupted power supply, modem communication network.
  • Quality educational institutes should come up in village areas.
  • Multispeciality hospitals with qualified medical professionals should come up in villages, so that, there is no need for villagers to visit or relocate to cities for treatment. Clinics, dispensaries and hospitals in rural areas are not well equipped to treat all types of diseases.
  • Good public transport facilities should be provided Rural areas.
  • Employment opportunities should be provided to reduce the youth migration.

(b) What is overgrazing ? State any four ill effects of overgrazing in forests. (5)
Answer:
Overgrazing means the excessive grazing by animals which causes damage to grassland. It can be caused by either livestock in poorly managed agricultural applications, game reserves, or nature reserves. It can also be caused by immobile, travel restricted populations of native or non-native wild animals. Cows are the main things that causes overgrazing and “overgrazing”.

The consequences of forest overgrazing are as follows:
1. Soil erosion: The first and the most troublesome effect of overgrazing is soil erosion. If an area is allowed to be overgrazed, the vegetation is repeatedly being trampled and the native plants will be unable to grow and start dying.

2. Land degradation: It is a process that happens when no protective measures to address soil erosion are taken. The top layer of soil contains the highest amount of nutrients and when this layer and the nutrients are removed, it is very difficult to recover the soil quality.

3. Loss of valuable species: Overgrazing also affects how native species are distributed in the environment and how they are able to regenerate. For example, after a pasture is overgrazed, the root system of native plants is damaged which makes regrowth difficult and slow.

ICSE 2018 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2018 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Environmental Science Question Paper 2018 Solved

Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions:

  • Answer to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head
    of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]

Section – A (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section.

Question 1.
(a) What is biogas ? State any one advantage of using biogas. (2)
Answer:
It is the mixture of gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen (anaerobically), primarily consisting of methane and carbon dioxide. Biogas can be produced from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste or food waste. The advantage of Biogas is that it is a renewable energy source. In India, it is also known as “Gobar Gas”.

ICSE 2018 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Give the full form of CITES. (2)
Answer:
CITES means Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.

(c) Define silviculture. (2)
Answer:
It is the practice of controlling the growth, composition/ structure, and quality of forests to meet values and needs, specifically timber production.

(d) How is waste water useful to mankind ? (2)
Answer:
The uses of waste water are :

  • By anaerobic microbial digestion, the sludge can also be used to produce energy;
  • For increasing the fertility of the soil, the sludge obtained from the waste water can also be used as the manure.

(e) List any two factors responsible for population growth. (2)
Answer:
Factors that cause population growth include increased food production, improved health care services, immigration and high birth rate. These factors have led to overpopulation, which has more negative effects than positive impacts.

Question 2.
(a) What is vermiculture ? State any one benefit of vermiculture to a farmer. (2)
Answer:
Vermiculture is a process of utilization of some species of earthworms to create some kind of vermicompost. It is also termed as worm farming. In simple vermicast is obtained by the breakdown of organic matter by an earthworm.

Benefits:
1. It does not contain chemical elements, vermicompost being prepared from organic wastes (biodegradable) is a natural fertilizer and eco-friendly too.

2. Does not impact the environment, soil, and plants adversely.

(b) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using sewage sludge in agriculture. (2)
Answer:
Advantage: It is rich in organic matter and therefore, can serve as a manure to improve soil fertility.
Disadvantage: It contain considerable amounts of harmful substances like hydrocarbons, heavy metals, dioxins, aromatic compounds, etc.

(c) Mention any two man made factors that have led to loss of biodiversity. (2)
Answer:
The main cause of the loss of biodiversity can be attributed to the influence of human beings on the world’s ecosystem, In fact human beings have deeply altered the environment, and have modified the territory, exploiting the species directly, for example by Overexploitation of resources, habitat destruction, fishing and hunting, changing the biogeochemical cycles and transferring species from one area to another of the Planet.

(d) How does GEF complement of Montreal Protocol ? (2)
Answer:
The GEF aims at combating environmental issues like loss of biodiversity, climate change, pollution, land degradation, ozone depletion and forest management while the Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect ozone layer by prohibiting the use of various substances that cause ozone layer depletion. The complementing factor between the GEF and the Montreal Protocol is that both are working for protecting the ozone layer.

(e) Name the Multi National Corporation that was responsible for the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. Name the gas that was leaked. (2)
Answer:
The MNC was Union Carbide India Limited. The Methyl isocyanate gas was leaked.

ICSE 2018 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 3.
(a) State any two ways as to how women play an important role in protecting the environment. (2)
Answer:
Women have an integral relation with the environment. Therefore, women are essential for any measure aimed at environmental protection and sustainable development. The best example is the Chipko movement.

Women have always played a critical role in meeting household and community energy needs. With adequate environmental education and awareness women can conserve energy resources far more efficiently as compared to men.

(b) Name any two wet land sites in India protected under Ramsar Convention (1971). (2)
Answer:
The wetlands in India protected under Ramsar Convention are:

  1. Ashtamudi wetland in Kerela.
  2. Chandertal wetland in Himachal Pradesh

(c) Give two examples of any material containing natural cellulose fiber (other than wood), for the production of paper. (2)
Answer:

  1. Rice husk
  2. Bagasse

(d) How has trade helped to reduce global inequality ? (2)
Answer:
Trade links firms and individuals with ideas and technology, helping drive innovation, which supports productivity growth. Trade can facilitate the transfer of technology through the knowledge embodied in products and services. Trade also supports growth by giving firms access to inputs that can help boost productivity. Trade has enabled social mobility within the nations. Transparent and safe trade policies enable nations to progress economically.

(e) Mention any two benefits of Green Manure. (2)
Answer:
Increasing organic matter and soil humus, Increased Nitrogen fixation, Prevention of erosion, Maintaining or improving soil structure, Reduced susceptibility to leaching are the benefits of green manure.

Question 4.
(a) State any two measures taken to control industrial pollution in and around the Taj Trapezium. (2)
Answer:
Both the Government and non-government bodies are trying to make Agra a pollution-free city but their objectives include reducing lead and sulphur emissions, and they are ihitiating sales of low-lead or lead-free gasoline in the area.

Steps are being taken to reduce the pollution levels around the Taj. Several strategies are now in place to help protect the Taj Mahal. For example, all nearby transport must run only on electric battery power and may not come within a third of a mile (500 meters) of the monument. Investment in urban infrastructure has been used to reduce both water and air pollution.

(b) Mention any two ways by which small scale industries help to reduce poverty. (2)
Answer:
Small scale industries are important because it helps in increasing employment and economic development of India. It improves the growth of the country by increasing urban and rural growth. Role of Small and medium scale enterprises are to help the government in increasing infrastructures and manufacturing industries, reducing issues like pollution, slums, poverty, and many development acts. Small scale manufacturing industries and cottage industries play a very important role in the economic development of India. If any amount of capital is invested in small scale industries it will help in reducing unemployment in India and increasing self-employment. The industry is a sector in which the production of goods is a segment of the economy.

ICSE 2018 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) What do you understand by Gene banks? (2)
Answer:
Gene banks are reservoirs or store houses which preserve genetic materials of useful plants, animals and microbe species under suitable conditions.

(d) How is community participation an important part of every society ? (2)
Answer:
Community participation is important in social development and upliftment of the society. Involvement and participation of more people gives various perspectives and suggestions to the issue.
Importance of participation in development:

  • People organize best around problems they consider most important.
  • Local people tend to make better economic decisions and judgments in the context of their own environment and circumstances
  • Voluntary provision of labor, time, money and materials to a project is a necessary condition for breaking patterns of dependency and passivity
  • The local control over the amount, quality and benefits of development activities helps make the process self- sustaining.

(e) List two conditions put forward by the government of developing countries to MNCs that should be fulfilled before entering into the markets. (2)
Answer:
1. To take certain responsibilities towards society and unprivileged class of people. The companies in collaboration with government and NGOs put their efforts to uplift the unprivileged people.

2. To ensure the operations and functioning of the company in a way that is least harming to the environment and the society.

Section – B (40 MARKS)
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)

Question 5.
(a) What do you understand by ex-situ conservation of biodiversity ? Give two advantages and two disadvantages of ex-situ conservation. (5)
Answer:
Ex-situ conservation of biodiversity involves the breeding and maintenance of endangered species in artificial ecosystems such as zoos, nurseries, botanical gardens, gene banks, etc. There is less competition for food, water and space among the organisms.
Advantages:

  • The animals are provided with a longer time and breeding activity.
  • The species bred in captivity can be reintroduced in the wild.
  • Genetic techniques can be used for the preservation of endangered species.

Disadvantages:

  • Captive population have limited genetic diversity
  • Animals can be exposed to a wide range of different diseases
  • The organisms are living outside their natural habitat.

(b) Define waste management. Why is segregation of waste important before disposal ? (5)
Answer:
Waste management (or waste disposal) include the activities and actions required to manage waste from its inception to its final disposal. This includes the collection, transport, treatment and disposal of waste, together with monitoring and regulation of the waste management process.

Segregating waste helps reduce use of raw materials, keeps recyclable material out of landfills and keeps incompatible garbage separate from each other. Waste segregation involves separating wastes according to how it’s handled or processed. Segregation of waste is important because:

  • Some waste also contains harmful or hazardous materials which should not get mixed with soil, water or air.
  • When the waste is not separated properly, it leads to less recycling because it is not easy to remove materials for recycling. This means many resources are wasted.

ICSE 2018 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 6.
(a) What is hydropower ? State any two advantages and any two disadvantages of hydropower. (5)
Answer:
Hydropower is energy that comes from moving water. Hydropower can harness the energy in water that is already moving – for instance in rivers and waterfalls, or the waves of the sea.

Advantages of Hydropower:
1. Environmentally friendly : Most forms of hydropower are very environment- friendly. They do not release the large amounts of CO2 into the atmosphere that fossil fuels do when they are burned.

2. Recyclable waste products : The water that runs off from a hydroelectric dam can, once it has been harnessed for its energy, be used for other useful purposes such as irrigation of farmland. Hence, hydropower is a renewable form of energy i.e., using hydropower does not deplete the earth’s natural resources.

Disadvantages of Hydropower:
1. High installation & Maintenance costs: Building a hydroelectric dam is very expensive, as specialized equipment and high levels of engineering skill are needed.

2. Environmental damage : The systems used to harness hydropower (particularly dams) can disrupt the habitats of fish, crustaceans, and other water-dwelling life.

(b) State five measures that can be taken to encourage people to move to satellite cities. (5)
Answer:

  1. In our country, every satellite city must be provided with basic requirements like clean drinking water, irrigation facilities for crops, uninterrupted power supply, modem communication network.
  2. Quality educational institutes should come up in satellite areas.
  3. Multispeciality hospitals with qualified medical professionals should come up in satellite cities, so that, there is no need for villagers to visit or relocate to cities for treatment. Clinics, dispensaries and hospitals in rural areas are not well equipped to treat all types of diseases.
  4. Good public transport facilities should be provided in satellite cities.

Question 7.
(a) What is baranaja ? List four benefits of this agricultural practice. (5)
Answer:
Baranaja (literally meaning twelve grains) is a traditional mixed farming system widespread across the rain fed Garhwali agricultural regions in Uttarakhand. In the baranaja system, there is intercropping of twelve, or sometimes more crops. Cereals, lentils, vegetables, creepers and root vegetables are grown in this companion planting system. All crops are planted together on the same terraced fields in the kharif / chau masa or monsoon season. The benefits of this agricultural practice include:

  • This system enhances immunity of crops.
  • This system helps maintain ecological balance and enables farmers to benefit from certain varieties, even if some crops are damaged.
  • Since the field is always covered by the crops or plants, thus the soil erosion is significantly controlled.
  • When different types of plantation are done on the land, root systems of different plants reach different depths in the soil and capture nutrients and moisture efficiently and minimize the need for fertilizer and irrigation.

(b) Explain the farming techniques used to reduce soil erosion. (5)
Answer:
The following techniques can help in controlling soil erosion:
1. Contour Farming: In contour farming, the land is ploughed perpendicular to the slopes and along the contour lines. The slopes length shortens which slows down the flow of water thus giving it enough time to soak into the soil. Contour ploughing not only controls soil erosion but also improves soil profile by creating a water break.

2. Strip Cropping: On land with a decided slope, planting crops on contour strips will be an effective erosion determent. For effective control the width of the contour strip should vary inversely with the length of the slope. Strip cropping should be combined with crop rotation, so that a strip planted to a soil depleting, erosion-facilitating com crop one year will be sown to a soil enriching and protecting strip of legumes the next.

3. Terracing: The practice of terracing has been common in ancient China. The flat, step-like bench terraces are now not useful. The modem terrace is an embankment of earth constructed across a slope in such a way as to control water run-off and minimise erosion. To be effective, terrace must check water flow before it attains sufficient velocity to loosen and transport soil.

4. Gully Reclamation: Gullies are danger signals that indicate land is eroding rapidly and may become a wasteland as in the case of vast areas along the rivers Chambal and Yamuna. If a gully is small it may be ploughed in and then seeded to quick-growing crops like barley, maize, jo war, wheat in order to check erosion.

5. Shelter Belts: These are the ‘green belts’ of trees which help to break the force of strong winds and thus, prevent or cut to a minimum the blowing away of the loose top-soil.

ICSE 2018 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 8.
(a) State five aims of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. (5)
Answer:
The aims of Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 are:

  • Prohibition on hunting of specified wild animals and birds.
  • Prohibition on exploitation of specified wild plant species.
  • Setting up and management of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
  • Control of trade and commerce of wildlife and its products.
  • Maintenance of data and records of wildlife being exploited, so that effective consequences can be levied or measures can be taken.

(b) What do you understand by land reforms? List four measures enforced by the Government of India to give land to the landless. (5)
Answer:
Land reform refers to an improvement in agro-economic institutions. It includes measures and policies relating to redistribution of land, regulation of rent, improving the conditions of tenancy, cooperative organisation, agricultural education, and so on. Land reform is a policy that aimed at ensuring social justice and harmony. Land reform involves the changing of laws, regulations or customs regarding land ownership.

The measures taken by the government to give land to the landless are:

  • Attempts to merge unequal landholdings were made and clear documentation showing the ownership of land was made mandatory Abolition of the intermediaries zamindars, who do the trading of the products grown by the labourers or peasants.
  • Land ceiling is one of the measures to take away the surplus land from those who cross the limit of land possession beyond a certain point.
  • Tenancy regulation was done to improve the contractual terms including security of occupancy.

Question 9.
(a) What is traffic management ? What measures has the traffic management department taken to save fuel and reduce emission ? (5)
Answer:
Traffic management is the organisation, arrangement, guidance and control of both stationary and moving traffic, including pedestrians, bicyclists and all types of vehicles. Its aim is to provide for the safe, orderly and efficient movement of persons and goods, and to protect and, where possible, enhance the quality of the local environment on and adjacent to traffic facilities.

Measures taken by traffic management department to save fuel and reduce emission are:
Traffic management measures are intended to reduce total vehicle emissions by creating situations where vehicle engines operate efficiently (e.g. fuel consumption is reduced by eliminating congestion and smoothing traffic flows) and/or by reducing transport demand such that the use of private vehicles is reduced (e.g. measures to encourage a modal switch from private cars to public transport, walking and cycling; land-use planning measures which minimise distances between home, work, shops and leisure facilities and so reduce dependency on cars). Traffic management measures can be adopted long-term and/or short-term (during smogs).

(b) State measures that could be taken to use land efficiently and improve the urban environment. (5)
Answer:
Land-use planning is the process of regulating the use of land in an effort to promote more desirable social and environmental outcomes as well as a more efficient use of resources. Goals of land use planning may include environmental conservation, restraint of urban sprawl, minimization of transport costs, prevention of land use conflicts, and a reduction in exposure to pollutants.
Following are the measures that could be taken to use land efficiently:

  • Land use planning often leads to land use regulation, which typically encompasses zoning. Zoning regulates the types of activities that can be accommodated on a given piece of land, as well as the amount of space devoted to those activities, and the ways that buildings may be situated and shaped.
  • Geographical mapping: It is important to understand the surrounding and characteristics of the city before the land is being used. Types of soil, availability of natural water resources, presence of agricultural lands in the vicinity, etc., should be known and mapped.
  • Environmental protocols should be strictly adhered. The construction of only green buildings or eco-friendly buildings should be permitted.

ICSE 2018 Environmental Science Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 10.
(a) What are the trade restrictions imposed by developed countries on the developing countries ? (5)
Answer:
Developing countries were not equal players in the competitive trade game and had been weakened by the discriminatory international trading policies that kept the prices of commodities low and the developed nations have exploited a huge amount of natural resources in the process of achieving the current economic and technological status. As the development progressed, rich countries got even richer while poor nations did not show much progress. There were no mechanisms to stabilize the commodity price which became one of the major reasons for the fall in the trade and export earnings of most of the developing countries. High import costs weaken the productivity and exports. The least developed countries often produce goods like textiles and agricultural products to which high tariffs are levied.

(b) How does biotechnology play an important role in achieving global food security ? (5)
Answer:
Biotechnology research and development have already produced significant products on the market, and will further have a pivotal role to play in encouraging and enhancing food production, considering the safety and environmental quality. Although the major concern being the safety and potential impact of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) on human health, the future of biotech crops looks encouraging as the global area of biotech crops continue to increase yearly and commercialization of drought tolerant maize and Golden Rice. Thus, biotech crops could possibly contribute in accomplishing the Development Goal particularly in reducing poverty by half through maximizing crop productivity.

The role of biotechnology in achieving food security is:
Modem agricultural biotechnology is one of the most promising developments in modern science. Used in collaboration with traditional or conventional breeding methods, it can raise crop productivity, increase resistance to pests and diseases, develop tolerance to adverse weather conditions, improve the nutritional value of some foods and enhance the durability of products during harvesting or shipping.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2014 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2014 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Name two causes of heart attack. (2)
Answer:
Causes of Heart Attack:

  • It is caused by the blocking of coronary arteries or veins by cholesterol deposition in them.
  • Sometimes it is also caused by abnormal pattern of heartbeats.
  • Sometimes the heart disease ‘cardio-myopathy’ increases the risk of heart attack.

(b) State two factors to ensure personal hygiene and cleanliness. (2)
Answer:
Personal hygiene and cleanliness:

  • Care of Skin
  • Care of Hands and Nails
  • Care of Hair
  • Care of Teeth and Gums
  • Care of Eyes

(c) State any three advantages of health education. (3)
Answer:
(i) Provide opportunity for proper growth and development: Health education programmes provide full opportunity for proper growth and development. It educates us regarding health problems, health hazards, etc.

(ii) Promotes Community and Individual Health: It guides us to promote safe, clean and hygienic environment. It promotes and develops healthy hygienic habits. It helps society by checking diseases at early stages.

(iii) Guides Preventive Steps against Diseases: It guides us regarding the preventive and treatment steps to be taken against various communicable diseases.

(iv) It promotes and develops healthy hygienic habits.

(v) It helps society by checking diseases at early stages.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) Define the term Drugs. (3)
Answer:
Drugs are chemical substances which alter the body and its functions, also known as medicines. When they are taken inside the body, they bring change in the biochemical system of the body. Drugs are designed to improve the chemical imbalance in the body. Drugs reduce the effects of disease, sickness, etc., by covering the chemical imbalance (caused by disease), thus helping to bring improvement.

Question 2.
(a) Define the term Immunity. (2)
Answer:
Immunity is the ability of the body to resist against disease. There are two types of defence mechanisms against all types of infections or diseases. It involves the blocking of entry of pathogens or destroying the pathogens in two ways:

  1. Internal defence or Natural Immunity or Innate Immunity (developed by body itself).
  2. External agent defence or Acquired Immunity or Adoptive Immunity (developed by medicines, drugs, creams and medical aids).

(b) State any two harmful effects of chewing tobacco. (2)
Answer:
Harmful effects of tobacco:
1. Tobacco as Poison : Nicotine is a brain poison found in tobacco. It is one of the most deadly poisons known to man. Half a drop of pure nicotine can be lethal to kill a person. There is no antidote for this poison.

2. Wrong Habit : Usually people start this habit to relieve tension (wrong concept). A small amount of nicotine with the first puff subdues tension. Soon after, it again stimulates the person for another puff. Thus, a smoker is caught in its vicious circle and becomes a slave to this habit.

3. Causes of Lung and Jaw Cancer : Intake of tobacco brings ‘tar’ (carbon compound) along with the smoke. This tar has a strong sticking effect, thus it gets attached to the lining of trachea and lungs, causing great risk of lung cancer. Chewing of tobacco also has similar carcinogenic effect and causes jaw cancer.

4. Increases Blood Pressure : Medical researches reveal that a single puff of cigarette can contract the smallest capillary. It increases the heart rate up to 20 beats per minute, thus extra pressure is exerted over heart and blood vessels. Therefore, the chances of heart problem increase.

5. Decrease in Body Temperature : When nicotine enters the body, it reduces the blood flow. This reduces the skin temperature by 3 to 4 degree.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) State the full form of AIDS and HIV. (3)
Answer:
Full form of AIDS is Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome; HIV is Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

(d) Write the caloric requirement of the following age groups:
(i) A child aged 14 years.
(ii) An adult Female (50 kg).
(iii) An adult Male (60kg). (3)
Answer:
Caloric requirement of:
(i) Child of 14 years requires = 1800 Calories per day
(ii) Adult female (50 kg) requires = 2400 Calories per day
(iii) Adult male (60 kg) requires = 2800 Calories per day

Question 3.
(a) Briefly explain the importance of sleep in our daily routine. (2)
Answer:
The main points regarding the importance of Sleep are:

  • It gives relaxation to various systems of the body so that they should work efficiently.
  • It helps us to refresh ourselves and carry out the work as before.
  • It removes waste products from our body.
  • It rejuvenates our body from the effect of fatigue.
  • It refreshes our mind for the next day.

(b) What is arteriosclerosis ? (2)
Answer:
Arteriosclerosis: Hardening and thickening of the walls of the arteries. Arteriosclerosis can occur because of fatty deposits on the inner lining of arteries. Causes : Smoking, High blood pressure.

(c) Define posture. What is the correct posture while standing? (3)
Answer:
Posture: Posture is the body position. It may be static or dynamic such as sitting, standing, lying, walking, running, reading, etc. There are different views about posture.

According to Physical Educationists: ‘Posture is a tool of mechanical efficiency of body which causes minimum stress to muscles. Moreover, maximum output of physical efficiency can be attained.

Correct Standing Posture: In correct standing posture, feet apart about 8 to 12 inches (roughly shoulder width). Feet should be parallel to each other and balanced evenly on both feet. Hold the head straight, chin parallel to floor, keep shoulder, hips and knees in straight line. From side view ear, shoulder, hip, knee and ankle should be centered along an imaginary straight line. The Centre of Gravity (C.G.) should be with the centre of feet.

(d) State any three symptoms of tuberculosis. (3)
Answer:

  • Coughing that lasts three or more weeks.
  • Coughing up blood.
  • Chest pain or pain with breathing or coughing.
  • Weight loss.
  • Fatigue.
  • Fever.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 4.
(a) Why are Antiseptics used ? (2)
Answer:
Antiseptics: Antiseptics are the chemicals which destroy or inhibit the growth of microbes. Antiseptics are suitable for external application to living tissues. These chemicals are used in such a low concentration that they cause no harm to the body and skin. Some commonly used antiseptics usually contain lysol, carbolic acid, iodine, benzoic acid, boric acid, etc.

(b) What precautions must be taken to prevent Athlete’s foot? (2)
Answer:
Athlete’s Foot: The spores of mould attack the skin of foot particularly between the toes. The fungi pathogen of this disease grows in damp spots. It is mostly found on those parts of body which remain damp with sweat. It is usually caused-by walking barefoot in moist places. The skin between the fingers of feet becomes soft and inflamed and there is intense itching. The affected parts appear whitish. It can be prevented by personal cleanliness.

(c) What form of first aid would be given to a person suffering from skin bum injuries ? (3)
Answer:
First Aid for Burn Injury:

  • For reducing the pain at the site of bums, cold water should be poured for 15 to 20 minutes or ice should be applied on that spot.
  • In cold climate, the victim should be kept warm.
  • If he feels thirsty, the salty and alkaline water should be given to the victim.
  • If an individual is burnt with chemical substances, the burnt part should be cleaned with water repeatedly.

(d) State the treatment for patient who has suffered an electric shock. (3)
Answer:
First aid and Treatment Steps :

  • If the victim is still under the effect of electric current, the electric current supply must be switched off.
  • When the injured person has been freed from the contact with the current, Artificial Respiration (AR) should be given immediately.
  • If necessary external Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) should be performed.
  • If he comes to his senses, he should be taken immediately to the hospital.

Question 5.
(a) Mention any two causes of Ringworm. (2)
Answer:
Causes of Ringworm : It is a contagious fungal disease of skin, hair and nails. On infection, ring-like discoloured patches appear on the skin which are covered by scales and vesicles. It is caused by contact with the infected persons or using the articles like comb, towel, soap, of the patients.

(b) What is meant by Immunization? (2)
Answer:
Immunization : Immunization is the introduction of any kind of dead, attenuated or weakened pathogens for the artificial development of immunity (resistance) against specific diseases.

(c) Mention three symptoms of Malaria. (3)
Answer:
Symptoms of Malaria:

  1. Headache and shivering with high temperature up to 104°-106° F (Fahrenheit).
  2. There is a lot of perspiration (sweating) when fever subsides.
  3. Body ache and body becomes weak.
  4. Body colour becomes pale.

(d) State any three factors that the influence diet requirement of a person. (3)
Answer:
Factors Affecting diet:
1. Age: Age plays an important role in diet preparation, like in growing age the children need more proteins (to meet growth patterns). In old age the people should avoid proteins and fats but take more minerals and vitamins.

2. Gender: Gender (sex) difference causes variation in diet. Males need more calories as compared to females (due to physiological and activity needs of body).

3. Workout Difference: Persons with heavy physical workout need more calories than those with less physical activity.

4. Body Weight: The weight also brings difference of diet. Overweight or obese person should take fibrous food whereas slim or lean (underweight) person needs more proteins and fats.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Section – B (50 Marks)
(Attempt any two questions from this section)
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.
Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Briefly explain the following terms: (8)
(i) An LBW
(ii) A Hit Wicket
(iii) A Run Out
(iv) A Stump Out
Answer:
(i) LBW : It means Leg-Before-Wicket. When the batsman’s leg or any part of his body prevents the ball from touching the wicket, he is out LBW.
(ii) Hit Wicket : A type of out, if the batsman in an attempt to hit ball breaks the wicket by hitting bat.
(iii) Run out: If the batsman runs towards wicket but does not get there in time to place his bat between the edge of the popping crease and an opponent breaks the wicket.
(iv) Stump out : If a batsman misses the ball and the wicketkeeper breaks the wicket when he outside the crease.

(b) (i) Enumerate any three duties of a Leg Umpire. (9)
(ii) State any three variations of Pace bowling.
(iii) What is meant by the term ‘Bad-Light’?
Answer:
(i) Duties of Leg a Umpire :

  • To check the Run-out
  • To check Stump-out
  • To check Short-run
  • To check Hit-wicket
  • To check High bounce ball

(ii) Pace Bowler Variation :

  • Out Swing
  • In Swing
  • Leg Cutter
  • Medium Pace
  • Bouncer

(iii) Bad-Light: When light is not sufficient to play and it causes danger to player. There is low intensity of light which creates problem to batsman, as they are not able to see the coming ball properly. In this condition Umpire can declare bad-light. Then match is supposed to stop.

(c) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (8)
(i) Hitting the ball twice
(ii) A Runner
(iii) The Toss
(iv) The Danger Area
Answer:
(i) Hitting the bail twice : If the batsman hits the ball intentionally for the second time (can stop but not to hit) then batsman can be declared out on an appeal (double-hit).
(ii) A Runner: A supplement player to the batsman who runs for the batsman, in case of injury, illness while playing.
(iii) The Toss : It is the procedure before the match to decide which team will perform the batting or fielding.
(iv) The Danger Area : An area between the wickets and close to batsman where ball can cause accident if player is not active or without guard. This area is generally known as silly-point.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 7.
(a) Briefly explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Wide-Ball
(ii) A Duck
(iii) An Appeal
(iv) A No-ball
Answer:
(i) A Wide-Ball: When the bowler bowls the ball out side the wide line of the batsman’s reach. An extra ball is bowled for a wide. It gives an extra run.
(ii) A Duck : The batsman gets ‘out’ without a single score.
(iii) An Appeal: It is request or shout by fielding players in anticipation of batsman to be given out by the Umpire.
(iv) No-Ball: When the bowler commits some non-legal action to bowl like overstepping of the bowling crease.

(b) (i) State the difference between a Dot-ball and a Dead-ball. (9)
(ii) What is the importance of Thirty yard Circle?
(iii) Explain the term Bump-ball.
Answer:
(i) Dot-Ball : A ball on which batsman cannot score run.
Dead-Ball: When ball is in the hands of the bowler after throw.

(ii) 30-Yard-Circle : An inner circle marked at 30 yard around the stumps. This circle is used during power play to restrain 9 fielders inside the 30 yard circle.

(iii) Bump-Ball : It is a hard hit to the ball over the ground by which the ball raises above the ground. When this ball is fielded it seems like a catch. Ball is played just under the lower edge of bat which gives appearance as the ball is hit in air.

(c) (i) List any four protective equipments used in a game of Cricket. (8)
(ii) Mention any four fielding positions on the Onside of the field.
(iii) State the full form of ICC and BCCI.
(iv) Explain the term Sweep-shot.
Answer:
(i) Protective Equipments used in Cricket:

  • Helmet
  • Leg Protector
  • Batsman Gloves
  • Chest Guard
  • Thy Guard
  • Abdominal Guard
  • Elbow Guard

(ii) On-side Fielding positions : Long-on, Mid-on, Mid-wicket, Squareleg, Fine-leg, Short-leg

(iii) The full form of ICC is International Cricket Council.
The full form of BCCI is Board of Control for Cricket in India.

(iv) Sweep Shot: In this shot the batsman hits the ball towards the leg side deep angle while kneeling down.

Football

Question 8.
(a) Explain the following terms in football: (8)
(i) An Expulsion
(ii) A Warning
(iii) Injury time
(iv) A Throw in
Answer:
(i) Expulsion or Red-card : Player is expelled if he commits a serious foul; is violent; strikes, charges; kicks or attempts to kick; trips on opponent, holds opponent; handles the ball intentionally; language abusive; offensive or insulting language; receives a second yellow-card during the game.

(ii) Warning or Yellow-card : The players receive a warning if they regularly break the rules; do not respect the Referee’s decision; delay the start of play; are argumentative or show unsportsman conduct; goalkeeper keeps the possession of the ball for more than six seconds, etc.

(iii) Injury Time : The time for which game has been stopped temporarily due to injury of the player. This stopped duration of game is added in regular time after each half.

(iv) Throwing-In : It is given opponent if ball passes over the sideline on ground or in air. This is taken by the player from the side line. The player throws the ball over the head to give the pass to his player. Both the feet are in contact with ground. A goal cannot be scored directly from throw in.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) What is the procedure of resuming the game from: (9)
(i) A Penalty kick
(ii) A Goal kick
(iii) An Indirect free kick
Answer:
(i) Resuming from Penalty Kick Procedure : Ball is kept stationary at penalty spot and opponent player kicks the ball forward; if goal is scored then game resumes by Kick-off; if the goal is not scored then it is restarted by goal-kick.

(ii) Goal Kick: The ball is kicked from any point within the goal area by a player of the defending team. Opponents remain outside the penalty area until the ball is in play. The kicker must not play the ball again until it has touched another player. The ball is in play when it is kicked directly out of the penalty area.

(iii) For indirect free kicks, the ball must be stationary when the kick is taken and the kicker must not touch the ball again until it has touched another player.

(c) Write the following: (8)
(i) Length and breadth of the field.
(ii) Duration of the match and duration of extra time.
(iii) Breadth and the height of the Goal Post.
(iv) Radius of Centre circle and Corner arc.
Answer:
(i) The length of the Touch line must be greater than the length of the goal line.
Length (touch line): minimum 90 m (100 yds.) and maximum 120 m (130 yds.)
Width (goal line): minimum 45 m (50 yds.) and maximum 90 m (100 yds.)
All lines must be of the same width, which must not be more than 12 cm (5 ins).

(ii) Duration of match = 2 halves of 45 minutes (M) and 40 minutes (W)
Extra time = 2 halves of 15 minutes

(iii) The distance between the posts is 7.32 m (8 yds.) and the distance from the lower edge of the crossbar to the ground is 2.44 m (8 ft.). Both goalposts and the crossbar have the same width and depth, which do not exceed 12 cm (5 ins).

(iv) The centre mark is indicated at the midpoint of the halfway line. A circle with a radius of 9.15 m (10 yds.) is marked around it.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 9.
(a) Write the following:
(i) Weight and circumference of the ball.
(ii) Minimum and maximum number of players to begin the match.
(iii) State the full form of ‘FIFA’.
(iv) (1) The distance of the Penalty Point from the Goal line.
(2) The height of the Corner flags. (8)
Answer:
(i) The football is spherical made of leather or other suitable material of a circumference of not more than 70 cm (28 ins) and not less than 68 cm (27 ins). Weight is not more than 450 g (16 oz) and not less than 410 g(14 oz) at the start of the match of a pressure equal to 0.6 – 1.1 atmosphere (600 – 1,100 g/cm2).

(ii) Number of Players : A match is played by two teams, each consisting of not more than eleven players, one of whom is the goalkeeper. A match may not start if either team consists of fewer than seven players.

(iii) The full form of FIFA is Federation International Football Association.

(iv) 1. Penalty point is 12 yds. (11m) from goal line
2. Height of flags is 5 feet (1 . 5 m) at corners

(b) (i) Under what three situations is a player not considered off-side?
(ii) State the position of the following during the execution of a penalty kick in a game of football:
(1) The ball
(2) The defending goalkeeper
(3) The players
(iii) State any three duties of an Assistant Referee. (9)
Answer:
(i) A player is in an off-side position if: He is nearer to his opponents’ goal-line than both the ball and the secondlast opponent.
A player is not in an offside position if : He is in his own half of the field of play. He is level with the second last opponent. He is level with the last two opponents.

(ii) Position during the execution of a Penalty kick in a game of football:
(1) The ball: At Penalty spot
(2) The defending goalkeeper : In front of goal line, in own goal area.
(3) The players : All other players in centre circle.

(iii) Duties of an Assistant Referee : There are two Assistant Referees or lines-men. They assist or help the Match Referee during the game. They are equipped with flags. Their duties are to indicate Match Referee by various signals like :

  • Ball is out of play
  • Which team to get corner-kick
  • Throw-in
  • Goal-kick
  • Off-side.

(c) Explain the following:
(i) A Goal scored
(ii) A tie breaker
(iii) Sudden death
(iv) Any four fundamental skills of football (8)
Answer:
(i) Goal-Scored : The Referee will signal goal when the ball completely crosses the goal- line between the goal post and under the cross bar of goal post. It must be scored in a fair manner.

(ii) Tie rule: (i) In case of tie in normal time then extra time of 15 minutes of two halves. If there is still tie then Penalty Shoots are taken in which 5 penalty kicks are taken alternately by both teams.

(iii) Sudden Death : If there is a tie after the Extra/ Overtime period and then in Penalty shoot-out; followed by Sudden-death. The teams keep taking Penalty kicks until one team wins.

(iv) (a) Trapping : It is controlling the lifted ball before it could bounce or control the ball in air, so that it should fall near the body range. It is trapped by chest, thigh (upper leg), under the foot, etc.

(b) Tackling : It is taking the ball possession from the opponent with sliding. Many times trapping the ball with head, chest, foot is also done for the possession of the ball.

(c) Dribbling : It is faking to the opponent in such a way that the control of ball is kept. Player controls the movement of the ball with the feet whereas upper body gives the dodging movement.

(d) Kicking: It is the most common skill used to hit the ball with power. It reaches long and away to the desired position. It is performed in various ways like kicking with inside; outside of foot; instep-kick; punt-kick; scissor kick;
banana or chip-kick; roll back-kick, etc. It can be used during free-kick, goal-kick, corner-kick, penalty-kick or when situation suits.

(e) Heading: Usually an attacker heads the ball to re-direct it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this, forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

(f) Passing: In this, the ball is passed to own teammate who is close. The ball is slightly pushed so that it should reach to the desired point. There are lots of variation of passing like push pass (ball is pushed with inner-edge of foot); out step push (with the outer edge of the foot), through-pass (between the opponents).

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Handball

Question 10.
(a) (i) When is a Throw-in awarded?
(ii) Mention any two situations when the 7-metre throw is awarded.
(iii) Mention any four duties of timekeeper. (8)
Answer:
(i) Throw-In or Referee-Throw : During play if ball goes out from the side line, then opponent gets the chance for ball possession by Referee’s consent and giving the ball first to referee and then is the ball pass by cutting side line.

(ii) 7-meter throw: It is also known as penalty throw. It is given when defending player intentionally obstruct the opponent while he is going for throw towards goal post.

(iii) Duties of Timekeeper: Timekeeper sits by side of Recorder on the official table.

  • He starts the game clock and stops the game when the playing time ends, after each half.
  • He stops the game clock during time-out and inform the end of time-out to Referee.
  • He stops or starts the game clock in between (by the indication of Referee).
  • He notes the duration of 2-minute suspended player and sends him for play accordingly.
  • He assists Recorder by telling the chest number of the player scoring the goal.

(b) (i) Mention any three instances when a two-minute suspension is given.
(ii) State any three violations for which the opposition is awarded a free throw.
(iii) What is the procedure for a substitution during a match? (9)
Answer:
(i) A 2-minute suspension is given when:

  • For a faulty substitution, if an additional player enters the court, or if a player interferes in the game from the substitution area.
  • Already received the maximum number of warnings.
  • For unsportsmanlike conduct by a player if the player and/or his team has already received the maximum number of warnings.
  • For unsportsmanlike conduct by a team official, if one of the officials on the team has already received a warning.

(ii) Violations for which the opposition is awarded a free throw.

  • For Passive play or wasting time
  • For wrong entry or exit of player
  • For serious or repeated foul.

(iii) Substitutes may enter the court, at any time and repeatedly, without notifying the timekeeper/ scorekeeper, as long as the players they are replacing have already left the court. The players involved in the substitution shall always leave and enter the court over their own team’s substitution line.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) State any four duties of the Referee.
(ii) List any four fundamental skills of Handball. (8)
Answer:
(i) Duties of Referee : Two referees are there, both standing diagonally opposite to each other. They assist one another for better coordination among them. They judge the fair play in their half and give decision accordingly.

  • They start the game by throw off and end the game by blowing whistle.
  • They signal fouls, time out, enforce foul and penalties.
  • They regulate Throw-in, Free-throw and penalty-throw;
  • Referee suspends the player, warning to player.
  • They indicate the beginning of the passive play and control the game under rules.
  • They give decision when goal has been scored.
  • They check players’ equipments, ball, ground dimensions; ground safety area etc.

(ii) Fundamental Skills of Handball:

  • Pass: A pass, basic element of play, is an essential move in handball. The ball may be passed or thrown to a teammate in various ways, such as overhead pass, under arm pass, bounce pass, hook pass, jump pass etc.
  • Jump-Throw: The shooter jumps up to throw at the goal. To be effective, the jump throw should be preceded by a run up (maximum of three steps).
  • Fall away-Throw: The shooter jumps up and just before he throws, he twists laterally so that he is almost horizontal in the air and then throws.
  • Dribble: It is a skill of controlling the ball from opponents, to keep the possession of the ball by bouncing.
  • Fake: It is a skill to deceive opponent in wrong direction. This provides free area to move in other direction.

Question 11.
(а) Explain the following terms in Handball: (8)
(i) A Fast-Break
(ii) A Referee’s throw
(iii) The duration of play
(iv) A Double-Dribble
Answer:
(i) Fast-Break : A ball is quickly passed from one end to another end, to own team make for scoring goal, whereas opponents’ defence cannot setup.
(ii) Referee-Throw or Throw-in : During play if ball goes out from the side line, then opponent gets the chance for ball possession by Referee’s consent and giving the ball first to referee and then is the ball passed by cutting side line.
(iii) Duration of game is 2 halves of 30 minutes (M) and 25 minutes (W) with 5 to 10 min. break in each half.
(iv) Double-Dribble : If player uses both hands simultaneously while dribbling, it is a fault.

(b) Briefly explain the following: (9)
(i) Passive-play
(ii) Shuffling
(iii) A Tie-Rule
Answer:
(i) Passive-Play : It is a method of intentionally delaying for attempting goal and keeping the possession of the ball for more than 20 seconds.
(ii) Shuffling: It is again a strategic move during attack when man-to-man check by defenders are done. In this player moves or changes his position to break the defence of defenders.
(iii) Tie-rule : If there is tie in regular time then extra-time of 5 min. of two halves is given. If tie still exists then five penalty throws are taken alternatively by each team to break the tie.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Answer the following :
(i) The length and breadth of the field.
(ii) The weight and the circumference of the ball for Male and Female Players.
(iii) The Duration of the game and the Duration of the extra time.
(iv) The number of players and officials required for a match. (8)
Answer:
(i) Playfield has a rectangular shape with 40 m length and 20 m breadth. It has safety zone of 1 m on sides and 2 m behind goal line.
(ii) Weight of handball for men is 450 gm ± 25 gm (425 gm to 475 gm.)
Weight of handball for women is 350 gm ± 25 gm (325 gm to 375 gm.)
(iii) Duration of extra time is 2 halves of 5 minutes each with 1 min breaks in between.
(iv) A team consists of up to 14 players. Not more than 7 players may be present on the court at the same time. The remaining players are substitutes.
Officials for handball match consists of: 2 Referees, 1 Scorer, 1 Timekeeper, 1 Recorder

Hockey

Question 12.
(a) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Field-Goal
(ii) Sudden death
(iii) A Warning
(iv) A 16-yard hit
Answer:
(i) Field-Goal : It is a goal scored by dribbling or passing within the shooting circle in a strategicall move by the attacking players.
(ii) Sudden-death: After tie of score in extra time period of 10 min. (in two halves) then sudden death is followed. In this, five players of both teams take penalty strokes in an alternate to break the tie. If the tie still exists, then one to one sudden death is followed to break the tie to decide the winning team.
(iii) Warning : A player is warned by green card by Umpire, in this the player has committed foul unintentionally. It can also be given if player indulges himself in foul play or wasting time.
(iv) 16 – Yard Hit: It is a method of restarting play by defender, when the ball crosses the goal line, last being touched by the player of the attacking team. In this, free hit is permitted from the outside of the shooting circle.

(b) (i) List any three fundamental skills of Hockey.
(ii) Explain the term Corner Push.
(iii) Explain the execution of Dribbling in Hockey. (9)
Answer:
(i)

  1. Dribble : It is tackling the ball with stick work.
    The movement of ball is controlled by rolling the stick around it, while maintaining constant control of ball with the stick.
  2. Push : This stroke is used to send the ball to shorter distance.
  3. Hit: This is a powerful stroke for long passes or to score goal.
  4. Flick : This technique is used for penalty strokes. It is similar to push but the ball is lifted at a low height.
  5. Dodge : It is the technique of dribble, in which the coming opponent is deceived in other direction by fake body movement.

(ii) Corner-Push: This is a kind of push used in penalty corner (short-corner) or from long corner. In this skill player pushes the ball with power so that it should quickly reach to own teammate. Right hand is placed low on the stick and pushes the stick forward while the left hand holds the top of handle. This skill is mostly used to pass the ball to own team player.

(iii) Dribbling : It is tackling the ball with stick work. The movement of ball is controlled by rolling the stick around it, while maintaining constant control of ball with the stick. This prevents opponents to get possession of the ball. The player adjusts his body accordingly.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Suspension
(ii) A Free hit
(iii) Astro Turf
(iv) A Goal scored
Answer:
(i) Suspension : A player is suspended if he commits serious foul (intentionally or unintentionally), like dangerous play, misconduct, argument to Umpire. Second yellow card is also suspension of player from the match. Player cannot continue playing match; moreover team will play without filling of suspended player.

(ii) Free-Hit : It is hit performed by player without interruption (before 5 yards). It is given to opponent team, when some foul or violation has been committed outside their own shooting circle/ D.

(in) Astro Turf : It is the artificially made surface (synthetic surface) proving the feeling of grass surface (artificial grass surface), water is also sprinkled over it for reducing the roughness. This AstroTurf surface is used to conduct all international matches.

(iv) A Goal Scored : A goal is scored when the ball is played within the circle by an attacker and does not travel outside the circle before passing completely over the goal line and under the crossbar.

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following terms:
(i) A Manufactured foul
(ii) A Side line hit
(ii) A Corner hit
(iv) A Free hit (8)
Answer:
(i) Manufactured Foul : It is given when player or players are found that they are not using the specified stick as per mles. In this stage penalty corner is awarded to opposing team.

(ii) Side line Hit: If ball goes out from side line then opposite team gets side line hit from the point where it has gone outside.

(iii) A Corner Hit: When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players then long corner pass is permitted to attacking team in that case.

(iv) Free-Hit: It is hit performed by player without interruption (before 5 yard). It is given to opponent team, when some foul or violation has been committed outside their own shooting circle D).

(b) (i) State any six responsibilities of an umpire in a game of hockey.
(ii) Mention three situations when a penalty stroke is awarded. (9)
Answer:
(i) Duties of Umpires : Two Umpires are there (one in each half).

  1. They judge fair play in their half and give decisions.
  2. They ensure the time of play (start and end of each half).
  3. They signal fouls and enforce penalties;
  4. They conduct Long corner, Penalty corner, Penalty stroke.
  5. They signal goal; restart game after a goal or restart after the suspension of play
  6. They check the equipments of players.

(ii) A Penalty stroke is awarded:

  • For an offence by a defender in the circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a goal.
  • For an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who does not have possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball
  • For an intentional offence by a defender outside the circle but within the 23 meters area they are defending.
  • For intentionally playing the ball over the back-line by a defender.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Answer the following :
(i) The length and breadth of the playfield.
(ii) The duration of the game for men and women players of hockey.
(iii) (1) The weight of the ball. (2) The distance of the Penalty mark from the goal line.
(iv) The dimension of the Goal Post and the Shooting Circle. (8)
Answer:
(i) The field of play is rectangular, 91.40 meters (100 yds.) long and 55.00 meters (60 yds.) wide.
(ii) A match consists of two periods of 35 minutes and a halftime interval of 5 minutes.

(iii) 1. The weight of hockey ball is between 156 grams and 163 grams.
2. The distance of the penalty mark from the goal-line is 6.40 m (7 yds.)

(iv) 1. Dimension of goal post is 3 -66 m (12 feet) long and 2 -14 m (7 feet) high with 5 cm thick cross block placed over goal line.
2. ‘D’ or Shooting circle is 14-63 m (16 yds.) semicircle.

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Explain the following time : (8)
(i) A ‘24’ Seconds Rule
(ii) A ‘8’ Seconds Rule
(iii) A ‘5’ Seconds Rule
(iv) A ‘3’ Seconds Rule
Answer:
(i) ‘24’ Seconds Rule : Whenever team gains possession of ball, it is supposed to attempt the basket within 24 seconds.

(ii) ‘8’ Seconds Rule : After the score or due to foul or any other reason if team gets the possession of ball it is supposed to move the ball in the front of court (from the rear half of court) within ‘8’ seconds.

(iii) ‘5’ Second Rule : A player cannot hold the ball (without bounce) for more than ‘5’ seconds.

(iv) ‘3’ Second Rule : Any offensive player cannot stay inside the opponent’s restricted area consecutively for more than ‘3’ seconds, (apart from attempts, rebounds or tries for making basket).

(b) (i) Differentiate between a ‘Zone- Defence’ and a ‘Man-to-Man Defence’. (9)
(ii) Differentiate between a ‘Technical Foul’ and a ‘Multiple Foul’.
(iii) State three violations that may occur during the course of the game.
Answer:
(i) Zone-Defence : It is defence in own half, where player covers particular area for defence. Man-to-Man Defence : It is defencive tactics where each player checks or guards or screens the opponent player (dining opponent ball possession).

(ii) Technical Foul: When a player or coach performs unsportsman act or misconduct or violent act deliberately. In this foul opponent gets two free throws along with throw-in from centre.
Multiple Foul: When many players are involved in the foul at the same time.

(iii) Violation: It is an infraction of rules of game i.e., illegal actions for controlling or dribbling the ball during the game (without obstructing opponent).

  • Travelling : Illegal movement of the ball like running without bounce or passing while running.
  • Charging: A player with ball dribbles the ball with the shifting palm rather than the fingers.
  • Double-Dribble: A player while dribbling the ball cannot use both hands simultaneously for dribble. He can use both hands only while receiving or while passing the ball.
  • Out of Bound: Ball hits the boundary line or it bounces out of playfield.
  • Back Court: If ball is passed from the front court to the rear court to own team-mate.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms in Basketball: (8)
(i) Team Foul Indicators
(ii) A 24 Second device
(iii) Charging
(iv) A held ball
Answer:
(i) Team Foul Indicators : It is a red colour indicator or red flag with 35 cm height and 20 cm width. It is raised up when team foul reaches four.

(ii) ‘24’ Second Device : It is the apparatus used to count 24 seconds which raises its alarm after 24 seconds. It starts with the possession of ball to each team.

(iii) Charging : It is personal contact, with or without ball, by pushing, illegally guarding the opponent. It is preventing defence from rear of player or back side of player.

(iv) Held-Ball: It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw-in (by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line.

Question 15.
(a) Write the following : (8)
(i) The length and breadth of the Court.
(ii) The weight and the circumference of the ball.
(iii) The duration of the game and that of extra time.
(iv) The dimension of the restricted area.
Answer:
(i) The Length of Court is 28 m. and Breadth is 15 m (including lines of 5 cm width). Safety zone is 2 m on all sides.

(ii) Basketball Specification:
For Men : The circumference of the ball shall be no less than 749 mm to 780 mm (size 7) and the ball shall weigh no less than 567 g to 650 g.
For Women : The circumference of the ball shall be no less than 724 mm to 737 mm (size 6) and the ball shall weigh no less than 510 g to 567 g

(iii) Duration of game is 40 min. in four quarters (10 minutes each), extra time is 5 min. Rest time in- between each quarter is 2 min. (between I to II and III to IV) and in half time it is 5 to 10 min.

(iv) Restricted Area : It is a rectangular shaped with length of 5.80 m and breadth of 4.90 m.

(b) (i) Mention any three occasions when the ball is considered dead. (9)
(ii) Differentiate between a Cut-in and a Throw-in.
(iii) Differentiate between a Foul and a Violation.
Answer:
(i) The ball becomes dead when:

  • Any field goal or free throw is made.
  • An official blows his whistle while the ball is live.
  • It is apparent that the ball will not enter the basket on a free throw which is to be followed by another free throw(s). A further penalty (free throw(s) and/or possession).
  • The game clock signal sounds for the end of the period.
  • The shot clock signal sounds while a team is in control of the ball.

(ii) Cut-In : The fast movement of the player towards the basket through two or more opponents to receive the ball.
Throw-In : It is passing the ball from sideline or end line (after the dead-ball) to restart the continuity of game.

(iii) Foul: It is an infraction of rules involving personal contact with the opponent or un-sportsmanlike behaviour. These obstructions are committed to the opponent to get the possession of the ball or overpower the opponent or misconducts or misbehave with the officials in the playing field. Fouls are noted over score sheet by the table official. In case of fouls, the opponents are awarded throw-in or free-throw (as per attempt for scoring).

Violation : It is an infraction of rules of game i.e., illegal actions for controlling or dribbling the ball during the game (without obstructing opponent). These violations are not noted over the score sheet but opponent gains the possession of the ball.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Substitution
(ii) A Fake
(iii) A Chest pass
(iv) A Bounce-Pass
Answer:
(i) Substitution : It is replacing player by reserve player. It is given on demand to officials, moreover, ball is in dead (not alive). The player to be substituted should be entered only when the other player has moved out of the court boundaries.

(ii) Fake : It is dodging or deflects to opponent in other direction. It is deceiving opponent in other direction.

(iii) Chest Pass : It is a direct pass to own teammate at chest level. Ball is passed with initial momentum depending upon the distance to pass. It is passed with both the hands which are flexed initially and later extended towards passing.

(iv) Bounce-Pass : Player passes the ball with a bounce to his teammates after faking defender. It should reach normal height.

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) What is meant by the following terms in Volleyball ? (8)
(i) Physical contact
(ii) A Service
(iii) A Setter
(iv) Blocking fault
Answer:
(i) Physical contact: When a player touches the ball it is considered as physical contact.
(ii) Service : The service is the act of putting the ball into play, by the back-right player, placed in the service zone.
(iii) Setter : A player specialized to lift the ball for the smash. It is performed over the coming ball from own teammates. This player is also known as booster.
(iv) Blocking Fault: The blocker touches the ball in the opponent’s space either before or simultaneously with the opponent’s attack hit. A back-row player or a Libero completes a block or participates in a completed block.

(b) (i) Draw a diagram showing the Rotation Position of players on the court. (9)
(ii) Difference between an Attack-Line and a Back- Line.
(iii) Explain the difference between an Ace and a Floating-Service.
Answer:
(i) Rotation Position of Players :
ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1

(ii) Attack-Line: An extended line behind the centre line which restricts libro to smash from front area of court. It is 3 m away from the net.
Back-Line: A line at the back of court at 9 m from net. It is also known as service-line.

(iii) Ace : A point scored over service which is unreturned.
Floating-Service : A technique of performing service in which ball is hit hard and it makes steep landing in opponent’s court.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following terms :
(i) A Rotation
(ii) A Side-out
(iii) A Penalty
(iv) Carrying the ball (8)
Answer:
(i) Rotation : After every change of service; the players of serving side rotate in clockwise otherwise it may be foul.
(ii) Side-Out: When the active ball touches or contacts the floor outside the boundary line.
(iii) Penalty : After the first warning the second misconduct is penalty. In this, team is penalized with the loss of a point or a rally.
(iv) Carrying the Ball: If ball rests momentarily in the hands of the player i.e., it is held for short duration in the action, it is illegal.

Question 17.
(a) State the following:
(i) The length and the breadth of the playfield.
(ii) The height of the net for (men) and for (women).
(iii) The weight and the circumference of the ball.
(iv) The dimension of the ‘Free Zone Area’ and the ‘Service Line’. (8)
Answer:
(i) Playing Court : The playing court is a rectangle measuring 18 m length and 9 m wide, surrounded by a free zone which is a minimum of 3 m wide on all sides.
The free playing space is the space above the playing area which is free from any obstructions. The free playing space shall measure a minimum of 7 m in height from the playing surface.

(ii) Height of net is 2-43 m for Men and 2-24 m for Women.

(iii) Its circumference is 65-67 cm and its weight is 260-280 g.

(iv)

  • Free zone area is 3 to 5 m on all sides of court.
  • Service line is 9 m

(b) (i) State any three duties of a coach.
(ii) List any six service faults. (9)
Answer:
(i) Duties of Coach :

  • Throughout the match, the coach conducts the play of his/her team from outside the playing court.
  • He/She selects the starting line-ups, the substitutes, and takes timeouts.
  • The coach records or checks the names and numbers of his/her players on the score sheet, and then signs it.
  • Prior to each set, gives the 2nd referee or the scorer the line-up sheet(s) duly filled in and signed.
  • Requests for timeouts and substitutions.

(ii) Service Fault:

  • Violates the service order.
  • Does not execute the service properly.
  • Faults after the service hit.
  • Ball goes out
  • Passes over a screen

(c) Explain the following terms :
(i) Change of Court
(ii) A Penetration-Fault
(iii) A Misconduct
(iv) A Blocking (8)
Answer:
(i) Change of Court : After each set the ends are changed. In the final set it is changed at 8th point.

(ii) Penetration-Fault: A fault given when the opponent player enters into the opponent area in air; by crossing centre line by foot or by hands over the net during smash, block or lift.

(iii) Misconduct : It is illegal action or offence or behaviour by the player or by the team member including coach; warning at first instance and recorded over score sheet.

(iv) Blocking : It is preventing the coming smash or ball over the net so that it lands in opponent court.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 18.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A Double play
(ii) A Pivot foot
(iii) Sacrifice Fly
(iv) Called game.
Answer:
(i) A double play: A play used by the defence in which two offensive players are legally put out as a result of continuous action.
(ii) A Pivot foot : The front foot of pitcher remain stationary while pitching is called pivot foot.
(iii) Sacrifice fly : A sacrifice fly in soft ball is when the batter sacrifice themselves to score the runner into the scoring position.
(iv) Called game : Five full innings have been played umpire called game. It is a ending procedure.

(b) (i) Mention any three circumstances where a put out is credited to the catcher. [9]
(ii) State any three circumstances under which a Base Hit shall not be declared as a score.
(iii) Mention any three situations when a ball is called Fair in softball.
Answer:
(i)

  • If there is a runner on first base and less then three out.
  • The most common ways batter or runner are put out are strike outs.
  • He bunts foul with two strikes.

(ii)

  • If the foul tip is strike three the batter is out and ball remain live.
  • When the ball is not legal or fair.
  • When a player fielding a batted ball retires a preceeding runner with ordinary effort.

(iii) Ball is fair in soft ball in following situations :

  • When a throw ball goes post a fielder remain playable territory.
  • When a runner must return in reverse while the ball is in play.
  • When the ball is legal ball.

(c) Explain the following: [8]
(i) A Foul tip
(ii) An Infield Fly
(iii) Leaping
(iv) Stealing.
Answer:
(i) A Foul tip : A foul tip is a batted ball which goes directly from the bat to the catcher’s hands or goes not higher than the batter’s head, and is legally caught by the catcher.

(ii) An infield fly : Once infield fly is called the batter is out regardless of the result of the play and whether the ball is caught or not.

(iii) Leaping : The leap is an illegal act that results in the pitcher becoming airborne on the initial push off from the pitcher plate.

(iv) Stealing : If the catcher catches the ball or the ball is missed and lands behind the plate the ball is considered live and the base is taken is called stealing.

ICSE 2014 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 19.
(a) Explain the following : [8]
(i) A suspended game
(ii) A protested game
(iii) Quick Return Pitch
(iv) Triple play
Answer:
(i) Suspended game: To indicate suspension of play the umpire shall call time end and at the same time extends both arms above the head. It is called when game stops due to any reason in the beginning of mid game.

(ii) A protested game: It is the action of a defensive or offensive team objecting to the interpretation or application of a playing rule by an umpire or the eligibility of a team roster member.

(iii) Quick Return Pitch: A pitch made by the pitcher before the batter is ready.

(iv) Triple play: A Triple play is a continuous play by the defence on which three offensive players are put out.

(b) (i) When is the ball legally put into play by the Umpire?
(ii) What is meant by a run Batted In ?
(iii) Under what circumstances should base runners return to their base ? [9]
Answer:
(i) Each pitch ball which does not enter the strike zone and each illegally pitched ball.
(ii) A run batted in is a run scored because of following reasons :
(a) A safe hit
(b) A foul fly caught.
(iii) The ball is dead, the batter is out and the runner must return to their previous base.

(c) (i) An Overthrow [8]
(ii) Scoring a Run
(iii) Base-Running
(iv) Catching.
Answer:
(i) An over throw: When a ball is over thrown the ball is live and runners will only be stopped when the defensive team retrieves and field the ball.

(ii) Scoring a run: One run shall be scored each time a runner legally touches first, second, third base and have plate before the third out of the inning.

(iii) Base running: When the batter exchange their bases after hitting the ball is known as base running.

(iv) Catching: The most important role of catcher is handling the pitcher. He should stand as close to the batter as possible his feet spread.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2015 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2015 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Mention two steps that may be taken to maintain personal cleanliness. (2)
Answer:

  • Bath daily, clean your clothes and utensils thoroughly and dry them in sunlight.
  • Wash hands and eatables properly (like fruits, vegetables) before eating and cover the eatables properly.
  • Do not share your personal items like undergarments, clothes, towel, shoes, safety razor, comb, handkerchief, etc.
  • Care of teeth and gums (Oral hygiene).
  • Care of eyes, care of hair; care of ears.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) State two causes of obesity in children. (2)
Answer:
The causes of obesity are :

  • Wrong dietary habits and less physical activity like overeating.
  • Taking lots of fats and fried food.
  • Taking lots of animal flesh; eating lots of sweets; eating junk food.
  • Drinking alcohol.

(c) Give three precautions an athlete should take while exercising. (3)
Answer:
Precautions an athlete should take while exercising.

  1. Avoid exercise just after meal.
  2. Proper rest and relaxation should be done after exercise.
  3. Do not do exercise when injured.

(d) Define the term Organic Disease. Give two examples. (3)
Answer:
Organic Disease: An organic disease is one caused by a physical or physiological change to some tissue or organ of the body. It is commonly used in contrast with mental disorders. It includes emotional and behavioural disorders if they are due to changes to the physical structures or functioning of the body, such as Brain Tumours, Facial Paralysis, Spinal cord damage and tumours to more complex problems.

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by ‘hereditary disease’? (2)
Answer:
Hereditary Diseases: These are also named as Congenital diseases. These diseases are present right from the birth. They are caused either due to genetic disorder or environmental factors during development, e.g. haemophilia, colour-blindness, sickle-cell anaemia, albinism, etc. They are passed on from generation to generation.

(b) Name any two types of heart diseases. (2)
Answer:
Heart diseases such as hypertensive heart disease, rheumatic heart disease, cardiomyopathy, heart arrhythmia, congenital heart disease, valvular heart disease, carditis, aortic aneurysms, peripheral artery disease and venous thrombosis.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) What are prescribed drugs? How is it different from a non-prescribed drugs ? (3)
Answer:
Prescribed Drugs: These are the drugs recommended by physician/ doctor for curing certain disease. It is different from non-prescribed drugs as they are not recommended by physician/doctor; they are self-taken and may cause serious health problems or side effects.

(d) Differentiate between innate immunity and acquired immunity. (3)
Answer:
Innate Immunity or Internal defence or Natural Immunity : It is developed by body itself to resist against disease.
Acquired Immunity or Adoptive Immunity or External agent defence : It is developed by medicines, drugs, creams and medical aids to resist against diseases.

Question 3.
(a) Write the full form of WHO and CPR. (2)
Answer:
WHO stands for World Health Organization; WHO came into force on 7 April 1948.
CPR stands for Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation. It is a method of CPR, is an emergency procedure that combines chest compression often with artificial ventilation in an effort to manually preserve intact brain function until further measures are taken to restore spontaneous blood circulation and breathing in a person who is in cardiac.

(b) State two symptoms of insomnia. (2)
Answer:
Insomnia is the health problem in which a person cannot sleep properly. The symptoms of insomnia are:

  • Emotional excitement
  • Restlessness
  • Irritated easily
  • Overstressfulness
  • Eye pain

(c) Suggest three measures to avoid accidents caused by a fire. (3)
Answer:

  • Matchstick should be properly extinguished before throwing.
  • Electric switches should not be switched on when there is leakage.
  • Matchstick should be ignited before switching on the gas stove.
  • Person who is working on gas stove should not wear synthetic clothes.

(d) State any three causes of a bad posture. (3)
Answer:
Causes of bad posture:

  1. Accident: Sometimes bad posture arises due to accidents. It may cause postural deformity.
  2. Disease: Many kinds of diseases and illnesses, chronic sickness cause bad posture.
  3. Lack of Nutritional Diet: Sometimes bad posture arises due to unbalanced diet, over-diet, under-diet and lack of nutritional diet.
  4. Wrong Postural Habits : The wrong sitting posture or wrong postural habits during sitting, standing, lying, working, etc., cause bad posture.
  5. Improper Treatment: Sometimes the improper treatment or wrong treatment for curing injury causes bad posture or postural deformity.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 4.
(a) What is understood by the term ‘cramp’ ? (2)
Answer:
Cramp: Cramp is inability of muscles to contract properly causing severe pain over affected part. In other words, this is unbalance contraction of muscles. The causes of the cramps are due to overtraining (without rest); loss of body water by sweating; physical activity during sickness; loss or lack of body salts or minerals; physical activity dining extreme bad weather or climate; not performing proper warming-up, etc.

(b) What is meant by the term ‘sprain’ ? (2)
Answer:
Sprain: It is the injury of ligament or tendon around the joints. It occurs due to overstretching of ligament or twisting of joints. In sprain injury, there is rupture of ligament or tendons. Sprain is very painful and it restricts the movement of joints. There is swelling as there is a lot of internal bleeding. Sprain injury is common to knee, ankle, wrist or elbow joints. It can be prevented by proper warming-up and avoiding jerky movements.

(c) Differentiate between a defect and an injury. (3)
Answer:
Defect: It is a fault, inability of body or mind in an individual. It is also considered as postural problem. It causes hindrance in proper functioning of individual and also affects social activity.

Injury: Injury is damage caused to any part of the body externally or internally. It causes inability to perform physical ability. Injuries are usually found over skin, muscles and bones during sports activities. Injuries can be classified into two groups: (i) Minor Injuries (//’) Serious Injuries.

(d) What is meant by the term ‘RICER’ ? (3)
Answer:
The treatment and management steps of strain, sprain injury is referred as ‘RICER’, i.e., Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation and Rehabilitation.

  • Rest to player and completely restrict the movement of joint immediately.
  • Immediately apply cold compression or ice over the affected part to stop internal bleeding. Repeat this process several times after some intervals and put compression bandage over the affected part.
  • Compression bandage should be applied over the affected part to reduce the swelling.
  • Elevate the affected part above the level of heart by splint or support.
  • After two days, apply inflammatory cream to reduce swelling and give gentle massage to the affected joint or perform contrast bath (hot and cold bath) to reduce swelling.
  • After the treatment is over, the complete recovery is gained by Rehabilitation. Perform rehabilitation exercises or physiotherapy to regain strength of the joints and muscles. This should be performed in progressive manner.

Question 5.
(a) State any four steps to treat bone injury. (2)
Answer:
First aid and Management of Bone Injuries:

  • Do not move the joint or bone. The victim should be kept at a comfortable position.
  • Apply cold compression or ice packs to reduce pain swelling and internal bleeding.
  • Provide support by using string or splint bandage sling to prevent further movement; moreover, it gives relief to victim.
  • Patient should be handled by an expert doctor and X-ray and other diagnosis should be done properly. The expert should manage immobility by applying plaster so as to enable the joint to take its real position.
  • This immobility should be for 3 to 6 weeks as per expert advice.
  • After full treatment of the dislocated joint or bone, fracture follows the progressive rehabilitation exercises or physiotherapy to regain strength of the joint or bone under the observation of an expert.

(b) Name any two diseases spread by viruses. (2)
Answer:
Viruses Spread Diseases: Common cold, influenza, measles, mumps, poliomyelitis, rabies, smallpox, chickenpox, yellow fever, AIDS, etc.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) State three causes of accidents that occur due to an electric shock. (3)
Answer:
Causes of accident due to an electric shock :

  1. Short circuit, defective wiring, damaged wiring, etc.
  2. Damp or moisture on the switches.
  3. Lack of knowledge while doing electric work.
  4. Handling electrical gadgets barefooted.

(d) What first aid must be administered to an athlete suffering from cramps? (3)
Answer:
First aid and Treatment steps for Cramps :

  • Complete rest to the affected individual.
  • Drink sufficient water (preferably salty or juices) during prolonged activity.
  • Massage over affected part after some time.
  • If pain is more apply ice or cold compression for some duration.
  • Preventing overexertion of muscles in excessive hot or cold climate.

Section – B (50 Marks)
Attempt two questions from this Section.
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.
Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Briefly explain the following terms: (8)
(i) An overthrow
(ii) A boundary for six
(iii) A yorker
(iv) Popping crease
Answer:
(i) Over throw: If a fielder throws the ball and no other fielder is able to stop the throwing ball, thus batsman is able to score runs or a boundary is scored; such runs are termed as over-throw.

(ii) Boundary for Six: A ball hit by batsman in the air which lands outside the boundary line, is given with six runs.

(iii) Yorker: When ball is just bounced under the bat and is difficult for batsman to play.

(iv) Popping Crease: The crease, which is the back edge of the crease marking, shall be in front of and parallel with the bowling crease. It shall have the back edge of the crease marking 4 ft/1.22 m from the centre of the stumps and shall extend to a minimum of 6 ft/1.83 m on either side of the line of the wicket.

(b) (i) When is a ball deemed Tost’ during play? What procedures are then adopted in case the ball is declared Tost’ ?
(ii) State three instances when the ball is considered a ‘dead ball’.
(iii) Mention three situations when a team’s innings is said to be complete. (9)
Answer:
(i) Lost Ball: If a ball in play cannot be found or recovered, any fielder may call lost ball. The Umpires replace the ball with one which had comparable wear to the previous ball.

(ii) Dead Ball: Dead ball is a particular state of play in which the players may not perform any of the active aspects of the game. In other words, batsmen may not score runs and fielders may not attempt to get batsmen out.

  • The Umpire is satisfied that, with adequate reason, the batsman is not ready for the delivery of the ball.
  • The ball passes the batsman, is gathered by the wicketkeeper, and the batsmen obviously decline to attempt to take runs.
  • The ball is finally settled in the hands of the wicketkeeper or the bowler, and the batsmen obviously decline to attempt to take any more runs.
  • The umpire feels that both the fielding team and the batsmen consider the ball no longer to be in play.
  • The ball reaches the boundary and four runs or six runs are scored.

(iii) An innings is closed when:

  • Ten of the eleven batsmen are out (have been dismissed); in this case, the team is said to be “all out”.
  • The team has only one batsman left who can bat, one or more of the remaining players being unavailable owing to injury, illness or absence; again, the team is said to be “all out”.
  • The team batting last reaches the score required to win the match.
  • The predetermined number of overs has been bowled (in a one-day match only, commonly 50 overs; or 20 in Twenty20).
  • A captain declares his team’s innings closed while at least two of his batsmen are not out (this does not apply in one-day limited over matches).

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) Identify the colour of the cricket ball used in test and one day matches. What is the reason behind using coloured balls?
(ii) When is a ‘follow on’ implemented during the course of a test match?
(iii) What is the umpire’s decision in the following cases?
(a) When a batsman obstructs a fielder trying to catch the ball.
(b) When a batsman hits the ball intentionally twice in succession. (8)
Answer:
(i) Red balls are used in test matches while white balls are used in limited overs matches, especially those involving flood-lights (day/night games). This is because a red ball under yellow floodlights takes on a brownish colour which is very similar to the colour of the pitch. Pink balls are also being tried for cricket matches.

(ii) Follow-On: It is given in a test match when batting team cannot score sufficient runs and the lead is more than 200 runs, it may be given follow-on or to bat again.

(iii) (a) If the batsman gets in the way of an opponent trying to catch the ball, then the Umpire will give him out intentional disturbance.
(b) If the batsman hits the ball intentionally for the second time (can stop but not to hit) then batsman can be declared out on an appeal (double-hit).

Question 7.
(a) Briefly explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Bouncer
(ii) The Third Umpire
(iii) Scorer
(iv) A hattrick
Answer:
(i) A Bouncer: When the bowler bowls the ball above the shoulder level.

(ii) Third Umpire : (or TV Umpire) is an off-field umpire who makes the final decision in questions referred to him by the two on-field umpires. Television replays are available to the third umpire to assist him in coming to a decision. An on-field umpire can, at his own discretion, use a radio link to refer any close decision concerning dismissals (catches, run outs or stumpings) or boundaries to the third umpire.

(iii) Scorer: The scorer is someone appointed to record all runs scored, all wickets taken and, where appropriate, the number of overs bowled. In professional games, in compliance with the Laws of Cricket, two scorers are appointed, most often one provided by each team.

(iv) Hat-Trick: When a bowler gets three wickets in three successive balls, i.e., the bowler dismisses three batsmen on three consecutive balls, it is called hat-trick.

(b) (i) Mention any three instances when a bowler does not get credit for wickets being taken.
(ii) State any three situations where a batsman can be declared out even when a ‘No ball’ has been bowled.
(iii) What is meant by ‘extra runs’? Give two examples of extra runs. (9)
Answer:
(i) The bowler is not credited with having taken a wicket if the batsman is:

  • Run out
  • Handles the ball
  • Hits the ball twice
  • Obstructs the field
  • Hit wicket

(ii) Batsman can be declared out even when a ‘No ball’ has been bowled:

  • If the batsman breaks the wicket by hitting it (Hit-wicket).
  • If the batsman touches the ball with his hand (Handling the ball).
  • If the batsman gets in the way of an opponent trying to catch the ball (Intentional disturbance).
  • If the batsman runs towards wicket but does not get there in time to place his bat between the edge of the popping crease and an opponent breaks the wicket (Run-out).

(iii) Extra runs: All extra runs are credited to the team total, rather than individual batsmen. They are also referred to as sundries.

  • No ball
  • Leg Bye
  • Bye
  • Wide ball
  • Overthrow

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) State any two conditions due to which a pitch may be changed.
(ii) Mention the length of the cricket pitch.
(iii) What will be the Umpire’s decision in the following cases ?
1. If the ball becomes unfit for play during the course of the game.
2. If a batsman touches the ball with his hands. (8)
Answer:
(i) Conditions due to which a pitch may be changed: The pitch shall not be changed during the match unless the umpires decide that it is dangerous or unreasonable for play to continue on it and then only with the consent of both the captains.

  • If pitch provides uneven bounce, like high bounce.
  • Pitch condition is dangerous for players.

(ii) Length of the Pitch/ Distance between stumps is 66 feet (22 yd.) or 20-12 m.

(iii) 1. If ball becomes unfit for play during the course of the game then new ball (almost of similar condition) will be replaced.
2. If a batsman touches the ball with his hands then he will be declared out by handling the ball.

Football

Question 8.
(i) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) The Technical area
(ii) The optional mark
(iii) Centre circle
(iv) A corner kick.
Answer:
(i) Technical Area: It is an area which a manager, other coaching personnel, and substitutes are allowed to occupy during the match. The technical area includes the dugout, bench and a marked zone adjacent to the pitch. It is 1 metre away extending towards Touch line.

(ii) Optional Mark: Optional mark is a type of marker on the field. It is used to mark where the ball should be for a free kick in the game. It is marked on goal line which is 10 yds away from corner point towards goal post.

(iii) Center Circle: The center circle is marked at 9.15 metres (10 yd.) from the center mark.

(iv) Corner-Kick: It is also known as flag kick. Corner kick is awarded when a player of the defending team puts the ball out of the play behind his team’s goal line. An attacking player then tries to send the ball in front of the goal for another attacker to head or make a short pass to a teammate to convert it into goal. It is taken from corner-arc or quarter-yard circle.

(b) (i) What is a ‘kick-off’? Give any two instances when it is initiated. (9)
(ii) What is the procedure adopted to restart a match when there is a situation of a Dropped ball?
(iii) Mention any three circumstances where the referee awards an indirect free kick against the goalkeeper.
Answer:
(i) Kick-off : It is starting the game (in beginning or after half-time or after the goal has been scored or in extra-time). During kick-off players remain in their own half. Opponent team player does not enter 10 yard circle until ball is pushed or kicked forward. Kick-off player should not touch the ball consecutively second time until played by another player.

(ii) Dropped Ball Procedure: In case of struggle for ball possession when both players commit foul simultaneously, in that case the Referee stops the game for sometime and afterwards drops the common ball to get the possession of the ball. Game restarts when the ball touches the ground.

(iii) An indirect free kick is awarded to the opponent if a goalkeeper commits any of the following offences inside his own penalty area:

  • Takes more than four steps while controlling the ball with his hands, before releasing it from his possession.
  • Touches the ball again with his hands after it has been released from his possession without touching another player.
  • Touches the ball with his hands after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a teammate.
  • Touches the ball with his hand after he has received it directly from a throw-in by a teammate.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) State any two conditions when the ball is called ‘out of play’. (8)
(ii) What should be the width of goal line, touchline and goal post?
(iii) Define a Direct Free kick.
(iv) How many substitutions may be permitted in an official competition organized under the auspices of FIFA?
Answer:
(i) Ball out of play:

  • The ball leaves the field by entirely crossing a goal line or touch line (this includes when a goal is scored).
  • Play is stopped by the Referee (for example, when a foul has been committed)
  • A player is seriously injured, or the ball becomes defective.

(ii)

  • Width of Goal line = 50 to 100 yards.
  • Width of Touch line = 100 to 130 yards.
  • Width of Goalpost = 8 yards.

(iii) Direct Free-Kick: It is given when Referee shows the warning card to the player. In this foul has been committed outside the penalty area like intentional delay, intentional hit to the player, intentional handling the ball, charging, dangerous play, holding opponent from behind, violent play, kicking the opponent. While taking direct-kick the opposing player should be at least 10 yards away from the ball (unless same member is nearby). Goal can be scored from this direct kick.

(iv) Up to maximum of three substitutions permitted in an official competition organized under auspices of FIFA.

Question 9.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) Corner arc
(ii) Ball in play
(iii) Penalty mark
(iv) A goal kick.
Answer:
(i) Corner arc is 1 yard (91 cm) at corners. It is a quarter circle at a junction of Touch line and Goal line.

(ii) The ball remains in play from the beginning of each period to the end of that period, except
1. The ball leaves the field by entirely crossing a goal line or touch line (this includes when a goal is scored.
2. Play is stopped by the referee (for example, when a foul has been committed, a player is seriously injured, or the ball becomes defective).

(iii) Penalty mark is 12 yds. (11 m) from goal line within goal area, used to take penalty kick at this mark.

(iv) Goal Kick: When ball passes over the goal line without goal scoring by the attacking player, then ball is kicked by placing from the penalty area.

(b) (i) State the three methods of restarting a game in football. (9)
(ii) Mention three instances for which a direct free-kick is awarded. ?
(iii) State any three types of fouls committed by a player that may invite a red card from the referee.
Answer:
(i) The restarts in football are:

  • Throw-in
  • Indirect Free kick
  • Direct Free kick
  • Kick-off
  • Goal kick
  • Penalty kicks
  • Corner kick

(ii) Awarding Direct Free Kick instances:

  • Intentional delay
  • Intentional hit to the player
  • Intentional handling the ball
  • Charging
  • Dangerous play
  • Holding opponent from behind

(iii) Fouls that may invite a Red card from the Referee: Player is expelled if he

  • Commits a Serious foul
  • Is violent
  • Strikes, charges, kicks or attempts to kick
  • Trips on opponent
  • Holds opponent
  • Handles the ball intentionally
  • Uses abusive, offensive or insulting language
  • Receives a second yellow-card during the game.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) What procedure may be adopted if the ball is damaged or becomes defective during the course of play ?
(ii) Mention three circumstances when time is lost or wasted during the course of play and that is added at the end of each playing session.
(iii) Define an Indirect Free kick.
(iv) What colour warning cards are shown by a referee during the course of playing in a football match ? What does the colour of a warning card indicate ? (8)
Answer:
(i) Procedure may be adopted if the ball is damaged or becomes defective during the course of play:

  • The match is stopped.
  • The match is restarted by dropping the replacement at the place where the original ball became defective.
  • Inside the goal area, in this case Referee drops . the replacement ball on the goal area at the nearest point where the original ball was located when play was stopped.

(ii) Wastage of time during play :

  • Substitution
  • Assessment of injury to players
  • Removal of injured player from the field for treatment Fouls

(iii) Indirect Free Kick: It is given when some foul or injury to player has occurred outside the penalty area. A goal cannot be scored unless touched by another player. These fouls are like illegal pushing, dangerous kick, charging, using abusive language to opponent etc.

(iv) Yellow-card/ Warning : The players receive a warning if they regularly break the rules; do not respect the referee’s decision; delay the start of play; are argumentative or show unsportsman conduct; goalkeeper keeps the possession of the ball for more than six seconds, etc.

Handball

Question 10.
(a) Explain the following: (8)
(i) 4-metre line.
(ii) 9-metre Line
(iii) IHF
(iv) Goalposts
Answer:
(i) 4-metre line: It is also named as Goalkeeper Restraining line, it restricts goalkeeper not to come ahead of this line during Penalty throw. This line is marked in front of goal post at a distance of 4 metres from outer goal line.

(ii) 9-metre line: It is a semi-circle dotted marked from outer goal line and it is parallel to goal line. Free throw is taken from this line. If defensive team commits fault or violation then opponent is awarded with 9 m free-throw.

(iii) IHF: International Handball Federation formed in 1928.

(iv) Goalpost: It is wooden made with inner dimensions of 2 m high and 3 m length. The wooden log must be 8 cm thick in cubical shape log. It should be painted in black and white with dimension of 20 cm × 8 cm with alternate colour.

(b) (i) Mention three situations of unsportsmanlike conduct during the game. (9)
(ii) State any three advantages a handball goalkeeper enjoys.
(iii) List any three goal shooting techniques used by players in handball game.
Answer:
(i) Unsportsmanlike conduct during the game is like :

  • To pull or hit the ball.
  • To block the opponent with arms, hand, legs or pushes him away, dangerous use of elbow.
  • To hold an opponent (body or uniform)
  • Run into or jump into an opponent.

(ii) Advantages to goalkeeper :

  • Only goalkeeper is permitted inside the own goal area.
  • Goalkeeper can touch the ball with any body part inside the goal area.
  • Only goalkeeper is permitted to leave the goal area without permission.

(iii) Techniques for goal shooting used by players:

  • Jump-Throw: The shooter jumps up to throw at the goal.
  • Fall away-Throw: The fall away throw is a spectacular variation of the jump throw. It is used for throws over goal post from the wings.
  • Lob-Shot: This skill of throw is often used when goalkeeper is ahead (near goal-line) providing narrow area for throw.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) When is a time out necessary ? (8)
(ii) State any two occasions when a goalkeeper may be disqualified by the referee.
(iii) What will the referee’s decision be when a player enters his own goal area and in trying to stop the ball with his foot deflects it into his own goal ?
(iv) What is the maximum time a player can hold on to a ball in a match ?
Answer:
(i) Time out is necessary:

  • When injury takes place.
  • 2-minute suspension
  • Disqualification
  • Expulsion

(ii) Disqualification of goalkeeper:

  • For serious unsportsman conduct on or outside the court.
  • Receive warning and 2-minute suspension already received.
  • Foul for endangering opponents health.
  • Assault by goalkeeper.

(iii) Referee decision when a player enters his own goal area and trying to stop the ball with his foot deflects it into his own goal then goal will be counted for score.

(iv) The maximum time a player can hold on to a ball in a match is three seconds.

Question 11.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) 7-metre line
(ii) Substitution line
(iii) Safety zone
(iv) Scorekeeper
Answer:
(i) 7-metre line: It is also known as penalty throw line used during penalty throw. It is 1 metre line parallel to goal line at a 7 metres distance.

(ii) Substitution Line: It is segment of side line marked 15 centimetre, for each team extends from the center line to a point at a distance of 4.50 metre from the center line.

(iii) Safety Zone: It is an area around the handball court 3 metre on all sides of the court.

(iv) Scorekeeper: Scorekeeper is an official responsible for all data on the score sheet like score, fouls of players, time outs, player in, player out, etc.

(b) (i) Mention any three restrictions imposed on a handball goalkeeper. (9)
(ii) List any three situations when a goalkeeper throw is awarded.
(iii) State any three types of passes used by players in the game of handball.
Answer:
(i) Restrictions imposed on handball goalkeeper are:

  • To re-enter the goal area with the ball from the playing area.
  • To touch the ball when it is stationary or rolling on the floor outside the goal area, while he is inside goal area.
  • To endanger the opponent while in the act of defence.
  • To take the ball into the goal area when it is stationary or rolling on the floor outside the goal area.

(ii) Situations when goalkeeper throw is awarded are :

  • Player of opposing team enters the goal area.
  • Goalkeeper has controlled the ball.
  • Player of opposing team has trounced the ball and it is stationary in the goal area.

(iii) Passes used in handball: The ball may be passed or thrown to a teammate in various ways, such as

  • Over-head pass
  • Under arm pass
  • Bounce pass
  • Hook pass
  • Jump pass

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) How many timeouts are permitted and of what duration ? (8)
(ii) What is meant by ‘running’ in the game of handball?
(iii) What will the referee’s decision be if ball is in the defending team’s goal area and picked by the opposition team’s player who then scores a goal ?
(iv) What is the width of the marking lines of a playing field in a game of handball ?
Answer:
(i) Timeout: Each team has the right to receive one time out of 1 minute duration in each half of regular playing time, and one time out in extra time.

(ii) Running: A player with ball is not allowed to run or move more than 3 steps without dribbling the ball otherwise fault of running is given to opponent.

(iii) Referee decision : If ball is in the defending team’s goal area and picked by the opposing team’s player who then scores a goal is counted.

(iv) All lines on handball court are 5 centimetre wide except 8 centimetre under the goal post.

Hockey

Question 12.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Stroke
(ii) A Scoop
(iii) Backline
(iv) A Hit
Answer:
(i) Stroke : It is the stick work over the ball to make reach to the desired point. There is lot of variation of strokes like push-pass, hit, flick, scoop, etc.

(ii) Scoop: It is similar like flick but ball is lifted more high. This skill is generally used for penalty stroke from 7 yard point.

(iii) Backline : 55.00 metres (60 yds.) long perimeter lines. It is shorter perimeter line and shorter than side line, it touches both the touch lines of the field.

(iv) Hit: This is a powerful stroke for long passes or to score goal. Player raises the stick at back and then hits the ball with full swing of stick whereas; hands hold the stick from top.

(b) (i) What is meant by a ‘centre-pass’ ?
(ii) Briefly explain the warning cards used in a game of hockey. (9)
(iii) What is understood by a ‘manufactured foul’ ?
Answer:
(i) Centre-Pass : It is termed as back pass. It is a push or hit in any direction behind the centre line from the centre of the field, while all players stay in their own half of the field. It is used for starting the game in the beginning or after the goal scoring.

(ii) Warning/ Green Card: A player is warned by green card by Umpire, if the player has committed foul unintentionally. It can also be given if player indulges himself in foul play or wasting time. Temporarily suspended for 2 minutes.
Warning/ Yellow Card: It is temporarily suspended for a minimum of 5 minutes of playing time indicated by a yellow card.
Suspension/ Red Card: It is permanently suspended from the current match (indicated by a red card).

(iii) Manufactured Foul: It is given when player or players are found that they are not using the specified stick as per rules. In this stage, penalty corner is awarded to opposing team.

(c) (i) What is meant by a ‘Long Corner’ ?
(ii) What is an ‘Advantage’ in a game of hockey ? (8)
(iii) What will the referee’s decision be if a player enters the field before completion of a 5 minute suspension and a goal is scored by his/her team simultaneously dining that duration of play ?
(iv) Give two instances when the ball is declared out of play in a game of hockey.
Answer:
(i) Long-Corner: It is awarded to the attacking team after the ball goes over the end line (not between the goal post) from the stick of the defender. The ball is placed five yard away from the side line over the end line.

(ii) Advantage: A penalty is awarded only when a player or team has been disadvantaged by an opponent breaking the Rules. Referee extends one arm high from the shoulder in the direction in which the benefiting team is playing.

(iii) Referee’s decision if a player enters the field before completion of a 5 minute suspension and a goal is scored by his/her team simultaneously during that duration of play; the goal will not be counted and again he will be suspended for 5 minutes (Yellow Card).

(iv) (a) When the ball crosses the back line.
(b) When the ball crosses the side line.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Push
(ii) A Raised ball
(iii) Sideline
(iv) A Flick
Answer:
(i) A Push: This stroke is used to send the ball to shorter distance. Right hand is placed low on the stick and pushes the stick forward while the left hand holds the top of handle. This skill is mostly used to pass the ball to own team player when he is close.

(ii) Raised ball: The ball should not be raised in penalty area. Referee hold palms facing each other horizontally in front of the body, with one palm approximately 150 mm above the other.

(iii) Sideline: The straight line marked parallel to each other touching back line. The length is 91.40 metres (100 yds.) long.

(iv) Flick: This technique is used for penalty stroke. It is similar to push but the ball is lifted at a low height.

(b) (i) What is meant by a side line hit ? (9)
(ii) State any three situations when a penalty corner is said to be complete.
(iii) List any six basic equipments worn by a hockey goalkeeper.
Answer:
(i) Side line hit: If ball goes out from side line then opposite team gets side line hit from the point where it has gone outside.

(ii) The penalty corner is completed when :

  • A goal is scored.
  • A Free hit is awarded to the defending team.
  • The ball travels more than 5 metres outside the circle.
  • The ball is played over the back-line and a penalty corner is not awarded.
  • Defender commits an offence which does not result in another penalty corner.

(iii) Basic equipment worn by a hockey goalkeeper :

  • Elbow pads
  • Gloves
  • Pads
  • Kicker
  • Body Protector
  • Blocker
  • Helmet
  • Neck guard
  • Thigh guard
  • Abdominal guard

(c) (i) What is the height of the flag posts placed on the hockey field ? (8)
(ii) State the full form of FIH.
(iii) What decision will the referee take if the ball is hit outside the backline intentionally by the defender ?
(iv) What is meant by the term ‘back-stick’ in a game of hockey ?
Answer:
(i) Height of the flag posts placed on the hockey field: Flag-posts are between 1.20 and 1.50 metre. 4 flags are placed at four corners.
(ii) FIH means ‘The Federation of International Hockey’, it was founded in 1924.
(iii) If the ball is hit outside the backline intentionally by the defender then long corner will be given by the Referee.
(iv) Back-Stick: A player when uses back-side of stick while dribbling. It is also a violation.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Jump Ball
(ii) Travelling
(iii) A Foul
(iv) A Free throw
Answer:
(i) Jump Ball : A jump ball is a technique of starting the game in the beginning, from the circles. It takes place when official tosses the ball between the two opposing players with new rales only one time the jump ball is done and next time it is done with throw in.

(ii) Travelling: It is a violation in which illegal movement of ball by dribbling i.e., player moves without the bounce; passes or collects ball while running.

(iii) Fouls: It is an infraction of rales involving personal contact with the opponent or un-sportsmanlike behaviour. These obstructions are committed to the opponent to get the possession of the ball or overpower the opponent or misconducts or misbehave with the officials in the playfield. Fouls are noted over score sheet by the table official.

(iv) Free throw: It is attempting for unhindered shot (basket scoring) from the position behind the free throw line, it is without the interruption by opponent player. It may be one, two or three free throws according to officials.

(b) (i) Mention three situations when the ball is considered ‘live’ in a game of basketball. (9)
(ii) Mention any three duties of a scorer in a basketball match.
(iii) Explain in brief the term ‘jump shot’.
Answer:
(i) The ball becomes live when :

  • During the Jump ball, the ball leaves the hand(s) of the Referee on the toss.
  • During a Free throw, the ball is at the disposal of the Free-throw shooter.
  • During a Throw-in, the ball is at the disposal of the player taking the Throw-in.

(ii) Duties of Scorer :

  • He shall make chronological running summary of points scored and shall record the field goals or basket scored made along with free-throws.
  • He shall record the personal and technical fouls of each player.
  • He shall indicate the number of fouls committed by each player by using number marker.
  • He shall record the team fouls and raise free- throw flag in case of more than four fouls in each quarter.

(iii) Jump Shot: This is the most common shot for 3 points. In this one hand is used to push the ball and other directs the ball towards the basket with the jump. Hand extends over the head with full accuracy.

(c) (i) How many time-outs can a team avail during a basketball match? (8)
(ii) What is understood by the term ‘dunk’ in basketball?
(iii) Differentiate between unsportsmanlike foul and disqualifying fouls?
(iv) State any two types of shooting baskets.
Answer:
(i) Charged Timeout : It is an interruption of game requested by coach. It lasts not more than one minute. It can be taken one time in I, II and III quarter; and two times in IV quarter.

(ii) Dunk: After faking opponent, the player reaches near the ring and pushes the ball inside the ring with hand.

(iii) An Unsportsmanlike foul: It is a foul of player contact foul, in the judgment of an official.

  • Not a legitimate attempt to directly play the ball within the spirit and intent of the rales.
  • Excessive, hard contact caused by a player in an effort to play the ball.
  • Contact by the defensive player from behind or laterally on an opponent in an attempt to stop the fast break and there is no defensive player between the offensive player and the opponent’s basket.
  • Contact by the defensive player on an opponent on the court during the last 2 minutes in the fourth period and in each extra period, when the ball is out-of-bounds for a throw-in and still in the hands of the official or at the disposal of the player taking the throw-in.

Disqualifying foul: A disqualifying foul is any flagrant unsportsmanlike action by a player or team bench personnel.

  • A coach who has received a disqualifying foul shall be replaced by the assistant coach as entered on the score sheet. If no assistant coach is entered on the score sheet, he shall be replaced by the captain (CAP).
  • A disqualifying foul shall be charged against the offender.
  • Whenever the offender is disqualified according to the respective articles of these rules, he shall go to and remain in his team’s dressing room for the duration of the game or, if he so chooses, he shall leave the building.

(iv) Types of shooting baskets :

  1. Jump Shot
  2. Dunk Shot
  3. Lay-up Shot.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 15.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) Alternating possession
(ii) Double dribble
(iii) Player out of bounds
(iv) A throw in
Answer:
(i) Alternate Possession : Alternating possession is a method of causing the ball to become live with a throw-in rather than a jump ball. Begins when the ball is at the disposal of the player taking the throw in or when ends.

(ii) Double Dribble: It is a violation. In this, a player shall not dribble for a second time after his first dribble has ended unless between the 2 dribbles he has lost control of a live ball on the playing court.

(iii) Player out of bound: A player is out of bounds when any part of his body is in contact with the floor, or any object other than a player above, on or outside the boundary line.

(iv) Throw in: It is passing the ball from side line or end line (after the dead-ball) to restart the continuity of game.

(b) (i) State three passing techniques used by players in basketball match. (9)
(ii) Mention the three types of baskets that are scored from different areas of a court and state the point awarded for each type.
(iii) Explain the term ‘low dribble’.
Answer:
(i) Passing Techniques :

  • Chest-pass
  • Bounce-pass
  • Long-pass
  • One hand pass
  • One hand side-pass
  • Under hand pass.

(ii) Points for Free Throw:- One point score Points for Lay-up Shot:- Two points score Points for Dunk:- Two points score Beyond 3-point line:- Three points score

(iii) Low-Dribble : It is a defensive dribble, when opponent is close and attempts to snatch the ball. The ball is bounced at low height up to knee and body shields the opponent while body is slightly crouched.

(c) (i) What is the penalty imposed on a team for a team foul committed ? (8)
(ii) What are player foul makers ?
(iii) When is a ball out of bounds ?
(iv) Explain the term ‘double foul’ in a game of basketball.
Answer:
(i) Penalties on team foul: If team fouls exceed more than four fouls in each quarter then opponent team is awarded with two free throws on each foul.

(ii) Player foul makers : They are 1 to 5 numbered plate/play card, where 1 to 4 numbers are written in black and number 5 in red colour on each plate/ play card.

(iii) Ball Out of bound : When ball hits the boundary line or it bounces out of court/ playfield.

(iv) Double-Foul : A situation in which opposing player commits contact fouls against each other simultaneously.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) Change of courts
(ii) The penalty area
(iii) Side bands
(iv) Libero replacement zone
Answer:
(i) Change of Court : After each set the ends are changed. In the final set it is changed at 8th point.

(ii) Penalty area : A penalty area, sized approximately 1 × 1 m and equipped with two chairs, is located in the control area, outside the prolongation of each end line. They may be limited by a 5 cm wide red line.

(iii) Side Band : Two white bands are fastened vertically to the net and placed directly above each side line. They are 5 cm wide and 1 m long and are considered as part of the net.

(iv) Libero Replacement Zone : The Libero Replacement zone is part of the free zone on the side of the team benches, limited by the extension of the attack line up to the end line.

(b) (i) What is understood by the term ‘attack hit’? (9)
(ii) What is meant by the term ‘Libero’?
(iii) Define the term ‘Setter’ and ‘Ace’ in a game of volleyball.
Answer:
(i) Attack Hit : All actions which direct the ball towards the opponent, with the exception of service and lock, are considered as attack hits. During an attack hit, tipping is permitted only if the ball is cleanly hit, and not caught or thrown.

(ii) Libero: A specialized defensive player (wears different colour kit) who plays in rear half to provide rest to certain player. He can be substituted any time during match from rear row player. He cannot serve, block and smash (he can smash behind the attack line).

(iii) Setter : A player specialized to lift the ball for the smash. It is performed over the coming ball from own teammates. This player is also known as booster.
Ace : A point scored over service which is unreturned or an unreturned service which gains point.

(c) (i) List any two faults that players commit while playing the balls. (8)
(ii) State the full form of FIVB.
(iii) State the maximum number of Libero players a team can include in the team list?
(iv) What is the duration of a timeout ?
Answer:
(i) Faults while playing ball: A team hits the ball four times before returning it.

  • Assisted Hit: A player takes support from a teammate or any structure/ object in order to hit the ball within the playing area.
  • Catch: The ball is caught and/or thrown; it does not rebound from the hit.
  • Double Contact: A player hits the ball twice in succession or the ball contacts various parts of his/her body in succession.

(ii) FIVB stands for Federation International de Volleyball, it was founded in 1949.

(iii) Libro is a team. Each team has the right to designate from the list of players on the score sheet up to two specialist defensive players.

(iv) Timeout: Each team may request a maximum of two timeouts. All requested time-outs last for 30 seconds.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 17.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Spiker
(ii) Warm-up area
(iii) Aball “in”
(iv) An Assisted hit.
Answer:
(i) Spiker: A player specialized to hit the ball down towards the opponent court. He is also known as smasher.
(ii) Warm-up area: For FIVB, World and Official Competitions, the warm-up areas, sized approximately 3 × 3 m is located in both of the bench side corners, outside the free zone.
(iii) A ball ‘in’: The ball is ‘in’ if at any moment of its contact with the floor, some part of the ball touches the court, including the boundary lines.
(iv) Assisted Hit: A player when takes the support from teammate or any other structure or object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.

(b) (i) State any three specific rules related to libero player. (9)
(ii) List the various sanction cards used by the referee along with the offence for which they are used.
(iii) List three types of service techniques used by the volleyball players.
Answer:
(i) Rules related to Libero player:

  • The Libero is allowed to replace any player in a back row position.
  • He/she is restricted to perform as a back row player and is not allowed to complete an attack hit from anywhere (including playing court and free zone) if at the moment of the contact the ball is entirely higher than the top of the net.
  • He/she may not serve, block or attempt to block.

(ii) Sanctions imposed by Referee: According to the judgment of the 1st referee and depending on the seriousness of the offence, the sanctions to be applied and recorded on the score sheet are:
Warning: no sanction – Stage 1: verbal warning, Stage 2: symbol Yellow card
Penalty: sanction – symbol Red card
Expulsion: sanction – symbol Red + Yellow cards jointly
Disqualification: sanction – symbol Red + Yellow card separately

(iii) Variations of Services:

  • Under arm Service
  • Overhead Service
  • Tennis or Jump Service
  • Top spin Service
  • Reverse spin Service
  • Floating Service

(c) (i) When is the ball considered “out” ? (8)
(ii) What is the maximum number of timeouts and substitutions per set for a team ?
(iii) Explain the term ‘four hits’.
(iv) List two conditions when a team is compelled to substitute a player.
Answer:
(i) The ball is “out” when :

  • The part of the ball which contacts the floor is completely outside the boundary lines.
  • It touches an object outside the court, the ceiling or a person out of play.
  • It touches the antennae, ropes, posts or the net itself outside the side bands.
  • It crosses the vertical plane of the net either partially or totally outside the crossing space.
  • It crosses completely the lower space under the net.

(ii) Timeout : Each team may request a maximum of two timeouts. All requested time-outs last for 30 seconds.
Substitutions : Each team may request a maximum of six substitutions per set.

(iii) Four Hits: The team is entitled to a maximum of three hits (in addition to blocking), for returning the ball. If more are used, the team commits the fault of “Four Hits”.

(iv) Conditions when a team is compelled to substitute a player:

  • If player is injured and cannot continue to play; can be substituted legally.
  • An expelled player must be substituted legally.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Softball

Question 18.
(a) Explain the following in Softball: [8]
(i) Bunt
(ii) Over slide
(iii) The dug out
(iv) A Fly ball.
Answer:
(i) Bunt: A bunt is a batted ball that is not hit with full force and swing.
(ii) Over slide : The base is disloged and moved from its position after a runner slide. If the runner is outside the reach of the basic orginal position and is touched legally, he/she is retired ?
(iii) The dugout: The dug out is a designated area for coaches, players, subsitution and other officials.
(iv) A fly ball: A fly ball caught in the field, hold the runner on base. Runners advancing on fly ball can be thrown out returning to base.

(b) (i) Mention any three circumstances when the batter is out.
(ii) List three situations when an umpire calls a ball.
(iii) State three situations when an umpire can suspend play. [9]
Answer:
(i) Three circumstances when the batter is out:
(a) When the third strike is caught by the catcher.
(b) When the ball is caught by any player.
(c) When he/she bunts foul, after the second strike.

(ii) When umpire calls a ball:
(a) For each legally pitched ball that does not enter the strike zone.
(b) Touches the ground before reaching home plate . and is not swung at.
(c) Touches home plate and at which the batter does not swing.

(iii) When umpire suspends a play:
(a) Whenever the plate umpire leaves his position to burst the plate or any such activity.
(b) Whenever the plate umpire leaves his position to brush the plate.
(c) Whenever a batter or pitcher stops out of position for a legitimate reason.

(c) (i) When is a pitcher credited with a loss ? [8]
(ii) List two situations when a base hit shall not be recorded.
(iii) What will the decision of the referee be when the ball in play is over thrown or is blocked ?
(iv) List two instances when the umpire declares no pitch.
Answer:
(i) A pitcher shall be charged with a loss, when his team is left behind in score and his team thereafter fails to tie the score.

(ii) When base hit shall not be recorded:
(a) When a runner is forced out by a batted ball, except for a fielding area.
(b) When a player fielding a batted ball retires a preceding runner with ordinary effort.

(iii) When the ball in the play is overthrown, as is blocked, the referee gives the runner to next base if he runs.

(iv) The umpire declares no pitch when :
(a) The pitcher pitches during a suspension of play.
(b) The pitcher pitches before a runner has retouched his base after a foul ball has been declared and the ball is dead.

ICSE 2015 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 19.
(a) Explain the following terms: [8]
(i) Appeal play
(ii) A batted ball
(iii) Fair territory
(iv) Base path
Answer:
(i) Appeal play : A play upon which an umpire cannot make a decision until requested by a player. The appeal must be done (made) before the next ball is delivered.

(ii) A batted ball: Any ball that hits the bat and lands either on fair or foul territory.

(iii) Fair territory : That part of the playing field within the first and third base foul lines from home base to the bottom of the extreme playing field fence

(iv) Base Path : An imaginary line three feet to either side or direct line between the bases.

(b) (i) State three situations when a ball is declared a ‘blocked ball’ ? (9)
(ii) List three situations when an umpire calls a strike.
(iii) Write three instances when an umpire calls a delayed- dead ball.
Answer:
(i) Three Situations when a ball is declared a ‘blocked ball’:
(a) A thrown ball which touches any object which is not a part of the official equipment or official playing area.
(b) A thrown ball that is touched or handled by a person not engaged in the game.
(c) When a ball is blocked due to any hindrance.

(ii) An umpire calls a strike when :
(a) For each legally pitched ball struck at and missed by the batter.
(b) When any part of a legally pitched ball enters the strike zone before touching the ground and at which batter does not swing.
(c) For each foul ball when the batter has less than two strikes.

(iii) Umpire calls a delayed dead ball when there is :
(a) An illegal pitch
(b) Catcher’s obstruction
(c) Plate umpire interference.

(c) (i) When are stolen bases credited to a runner? (8)
(ii) List two situations when a runner is declared ‘not out’.
(iii) What will the decision of the referee be when the ball gets lodged in the clothing of an opponent player ?
(iv) When does the pitch start ?
Answer:
(i) Stolen bases are credited to a runner whenever he advances one base unaided by a hit, a put out, an error or force out, a fielder’s choice, a passed ball, a wild pitch or an illegal pitch.

(ii) Runner is declared not out:
(a) When a fielder makes a play on a runner while using an illegal glove.
(b) Having the entire play nullified with runner returning to the last base held at the time of the play.

(iii) When the ball gets lodged in the clothing of an opponent player, the referee gives the throw in again.

(iv) The pitch start : A pitch starts when the pitcher holds the ball in both hands in front of the body and both feet must be on the ground and touching the pitcher’s palate. Only one forward step is allowed to start the pitch as the ball is simultaneously released from the hand.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2016 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2016 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) Write any two advantages of Health Education. (2)
Answer:
Advantages of Health Education :
1. Provide opportunity for proper growth and development: Health education programmes provide full opportunity for proper growth and development. It educates us regarding health problems, health hazards, etc.

2. Promotes Community and Individual Health: It guides us to promote safe, clean and hygienic environment. It promotes and develops healthy hygienic habits. It helps society by checking diseases at early stages.

3. Guides Preventive Steps against Diseases: It guides us regarding the preventive and treatment steps to be taken against various communicable diseases.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Name any two diseases caused due to lack of Oral Hygiene. (2)
Answer:
Diseases caused due to lack of Oral Hygiene:

  • Abscess: It is decay of teeth.
  • Pyorrhea: It is bad smell from mouth.
  • Stomach Ache: Swear stomach ache and gastric problem.

(c) State any three Anti-mosquito measures. (3)
Answer:
Anti-mosquito measures : The preventive steps revolve around the breeding and growth of mosquitoes. Therefore, ditches, pits, etc., must be filled up before the onset of rainy season. Dirty water should not be allowed to stand near localities; spraying of DDT or BHC or malathion at dirty places; using of mosquito net, anti-mosquito repellant, oil, cream, coil, fluid, fixing mosquito screen on windows and doors, etc. In high risk areas of malaria, people should take one tablet of chloroquine (every week) during rainy season. Blood should be examined for malaria parasite to prevent its spread.

(d) Mention any three causes of Tuberculosis. (3)
Answer:
Tuberculosis is chronic and dangerous in which there is infection in the lungs. It affects lungs initially, later it also affects joints, bones, intestine and brain. This disease spreads by micro-organisms (rod shaped) called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Symptoms are like continuous fever (during night) and feeling of tiredness. Other symptoms are chronic cough, breathlessness, pain in chest, weight loss, loss of appetite, spitting of blood with sputum, etc.

Causes of Tuberculosis are :

  • Droplets Infection, generally the sputum or saliva of infected person spreads this disease.
  • Smoking, Alcoholism
  • Unhygienic conditions help to spread this infection like not washing utensils, etc.
  • Poor Hygiene Habits, not washing hands etc.

Question 2.
(a) Name any four common sports injuries. (2)
Answer:
The common sports injuries are:

  • Contusion
  • Abrasion
  • Laceration or Wound
  • Strain
  • Sprain
  • Dislocation
  • Bone fracture.

(b) What is Nutrition ? (2)
Answer:
Nutrition is the food which provides energy for workout along with growth and development of body. Our body grows, develops and functions properly with the help of nutrients in the food. The food contains various types of nutrients in it like Carbohydrates, Fats, Proteins, Vitamins, Minerals and Water.

(c) Mention any three factors to have healthy hair. (3)
Answer:
Care of Hair:

  • Regular washing of hair with soap or shampoo or conditioner.
  • Regular combing of hair with proper comb.
  • Gentle massage with hair oil improves the hair growth.
  • Hair should be kept clean and free from parasites, such as lice. The lice can be killed by washing the hair with shampoo containing linden. Dandruff can be removed by regular washing and combing. The best treatment for dandruff is regular washing with a shampoo containing selenium compounds or coal tar extracts.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) What is Pneumonia ? Write any two symptoms of pneumonia. (3)
Answer:
Pneumonia is a disease of Lungs.

  • It is caused by various types of germs such as Diplococcic pneumonia, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcal which enter into lungs and affect its functioning.
  • It is caused due to exposure to cold or dry places.
  • It is caused by the infected sputum of the patient.

Symptoms: In most cases:

  • Common cold (running nose) and frequent coughing.
  • Pain in chest, throat and difficulty in eating food.
  • Inflammation in the lungs, often patient feels shaking chills.
  • Cough along with sputum.
  • The high fever continues up to 105°F. Pulse is faster, about 150 beats per minute.
  • Restlessness.

Question 3.
(а) State any four advantages of Correct Posture. (2)
Answer:
Advantages of Correct Posture are :
1. Attractive Physical Appearance: The first image of personality comes through good posture. A good posture makes individual appear smart, good looking, charming and attractive.

2. Health Status: Correct posture of body reflects positive health status of an individual. Good posture is an image of good health and sound body.

3. Psychological Balance: A good posture improves the psychological balance of the body and mind. It improves the activeness of mind and leads to its optimum development.

4. Lesser Strain and Pain over Joints: Good posture causes less strain and pain over joints, as it distributes the body weight equally over the joints.

5. Improves Social Status: A good physique reflects positive social qualities. Good posture is an image of happy lifestyle and social well-being of an individual.

(b) State any four advantages of Recreation. (2)
Answer:
Advantages of Recreation are:

  • Develops Creativity: These activities guide our enquiring mind into creativity and adventure. It is very helpful for child growth.
  • Optimum Health: These activities develop optimum level of wellness along with good health and lot of physical fitness ability.
  • Utilization of Time: They provide good utilization of free time. They help to leam various life skills.
  • Outlet to Emotions: They provide easy outlet to emotions. They regulate and control our emotions and expressions.
  • Cheerful Life: These activities are very funny, enjoyable and pleasurable. Thus, they make the life cheerful and happy.

(c) Name the microorganism which causes Malaria. Mention any two symptoms. (3)
Answer:
It is caused by biting of female Anopheles mosquito. The growth of these mosquitoes takes place in dirty places, garbage, standing water, etc. When this mosquito bites a healthy person, it injects the germs via the blood inside the body. The incubation period of malaria is 7-20 days. It is the most fatal disease in the world.

Symptoms:

  • Headache and shivering with high temperature up to 104°-106° F (Fahrenheit).
  • There is a lot of perspiration (sweating) when fever subsides.
  • Body becomes weak and skin with pale colour.
  • Nausea feeling.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) What is Immunity ? Name the types of Immunity. (3)
Answer:
Immunity is the ability of the body to resist against disease. There are two types of defence mechanism against all types of infections or diseases. It involves the blocking of entry of pathogens or destroying the pathogens in two ways :
(A) Internal defence or Natural Immunity or Innate Immunity (developed by body itself)
(B) External agent defence or Acquired Immunity or Adoptive Immunity (developed by medicines, drugs, creams and medical aids).

Question 4.
(а) Define Disinfectants. (2)
Answer:
Disinfection is the killing of various pathogenic microbes which may otherwise find their entry in the body and may cause diseases. It is a preventive measure against communicable diseases. Disinfectants or germicides are chemical substances which destroy harmful microbes. They are suitable for application to inanimate objects only, where the microbes thrive and multiply. The commonly used disinfectants are Cresol, Phenol, Lysol, Formalin; Lime Bordeaux mixture, DDT, BHC, etc.

(b) What is meant by the term Vector Infection? (2)
Answer:
Vector Infection is a type of infection in which disease spreads through insects or animals by their bites like malaria, rabies, etc. In this infection the pathogens are transmitted from infected person by bite of insects, parasites, animals, etc.

(c) What is the full form of HIV ? Mention any two symptoms. (3)
Answer:
HIV means Human Immunodeficiency Virus. This disease also referred as AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) is a disorder of T-cells in blood (which stimulates antibody production) and affects the immune system of body. This results in the loss of natural defence against viral infections.
The symptoms are the rapid weight loss and chronic fatigue.

(d) State the sleep requirement for the following age groups: (3)
(i) Infants and children from 6 months to 2 years.
(ii) 2 years to 12 years.
(iii) Adults with normal routine.
Answer:
The body obtains adequate rest by means of sleep. One feels fresh and full of vigour after having a sound sleep. Sleep requirement for the following age groups are :
(i) Infants and children from 6 months to 2 years: 14-16 hours.
(ii) 2 years to 12 years : 10-12 hours.
(iii) Adults with normal routine : 7- 8 hours.

Question 5.
(a) Name any two diseases spread by Fungi. (2)
Answer:
Fungi grows in damp spots with sweat. Diseases spread by Fungi are:
(i) Ringworm.
(ii) Athlete’s foot.

(b) Write the full form of ABC and BMI. (2)
Answer:

  • Full form of ABC is: Airway, Breathing and Circulation.
  • Full form of BMI is: Body Mass Index.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Suggest three precautions that should be taken to avoid accidents caused by cooking gas. (3)
Answer:
Precautions that should be taken to avoid accidents caused by cooking gas are:

  • Rubber tube of gas cylinder should be checked up regularly for gas leakage.
  • Matchstick should be properly extinguished before throwing.
  • Electric switches should not be switched on when there is leakage.
  • Matchstick should be ignited before switching on the gas stove.
  • Door and windows should be opened for cross ventilation.

(d) State any three ill-effects of drugs. (3)
Answer:
Ill-effects of drugs are :
(i) Addictive Effects: Most of these substances have addictive effects, thus create physical and psychological dependence. Its regular use becomes the need of athletes to perform well in physical activity.

(ii) Cardiac Problems: Doping has adverse effect over heart and causes many types of cardiac problems like varied heartbeat, high blood pressure, hypertension, cardiac arrest, heart attack, etc.

(iii) Affects Kidney and Liver: Doping substance is strong chemicals, thus it adversely affects, like Cancer of kidney and liver. It leads to non-functioning or partial damage or failure of these important organs.

(iv) Unbalanced Psychological Behaviour: These substances usually lead to unbalanced psychological behaviour like aggression, loss of concentration, dizziness, headache, loss of neuromuscular responses, nausea feeling, nervousness, high anxiety, insomnia, depression etc.

(v) Musculature Body: Anabolic steroid causes strong muscles, thus affects the feminine look of females like musculature body of females, loss of hair (baldness), male voice, causes beard or moustaches on face, etc., thus personality is affected.

Section – B (50 Marks)
Attempt two questions from this Section.
You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.
Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) Timed Out
(ii) Catch Out
(iii) Intentional Disturbance
(iv) Double Hit
Answer:
(i) Timed out: If the batsman does not report to face the bowler or unduly delays the match or if the new batsman takes longer than two minutes, from the previous wicket fall.

(ii) Catch out: When a ball is caught by a fielder before it touches the ground or if a fielder catches the ball hit by bat by the batsman.

(iii) Intentional Disturbance: If the batsman gets in the way of an opponent trying to catch the ball or when any player creates disturbance knowingly and hinders the batsman/bowler/fielder during the play of the game.

(iv) Double hit: If the batsman hits the ball intentionally for the second time (can stop but not to hit) then batsman can be declared out on an appeal. Or if a batsman hits the delivery with his bat and deliberately hits the ball again for any reason other than to defend his wicket.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) List any three Protective Equipments used by the batsman. (9)
(ii) Write down any three Fielding Positions of ‘On Side’.
(iii) What is the importance of 30 Yard Circle in the game of Cricket ?
Answer:
(i) Protective equipments used in cricket:

  • Helmet
  • Leg Protector/ Pads
  • Batsman/Batting Gloves
  • Chest Guard
  • Abdomen Guard

(ii) Fielding Positions of ‘On Side’:

  • Mid-on
  • Long on
  • Square leg
  • Fine Leg
  • Mid-wicket

(iii) 30 Yard Circle : An inner circle marked at 30 yard around the stumps. This circle is used during power play to restrain 9 fielders inside the 30 yard circle.

(c) Write the following : (8)
(i) Weight and circumference of a cricket ball.
(ii) Length and widest part of a cricket bat.
(iii) Height and breadth of cricket stumps.
(iv) Distance between stumps and distance of inner circle from the wickets.
Answer:
(i) Weight of the cricket ball = 5‘/2 ounce (156 gm.).
Circumference of the ball = 9 inches (22-5 cm).

(ii) Length of the cricket bat = 38 Inch (96-5 cm).
Widest part of bat = 4‘/4 inch (10 -8 cm).

(iii) Height of stumps = 28 inches (71-1 cm)
Breadth of stumps = 9 inches (22-8 cm)

(iv) Distance between stumps = 66 feet (22 yd.) or 20-12 m
Distance of Inner circle from wickets = 30 yards (27-4 m)

Question 7.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Sight Screen
(ii) How’s That
(iii) A Googly
(iv) A China-man
Answer:
(i) Sight Screen: It is a specified white or colour screen kept behind the stumps (especially behind bowling stump) over the boundary line, to provide visibility of approaching bowler towards batsman. It is with the dimension of 6 meter in length and 3 meter high.

(ii) How’s That: An appeal by the fielding-players to Umpire to consider the delivery of ball carefully. This appeal pressurizes the Umpire to consider them.

(iii) Googly: A ball bowled in such a way that it turns opposite than what it seems to be.

(iv) China-man: When a left arm spinner delivers an off-break bowling, it is termed as China-man.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) Draw a diagram of a Cricket Pitch and mark the following: (9)
1. The Bowling Crease
2. The Popping Crease
3. The Return Crease
(ii) What do you mean by Ball Tampering ?
(iii) What do you mean by the term Substitute?
Answer:
(i) 1. Bowling Crease
2. The Popping Crease
3. The Return Crease

(ii) Ball Tampering: It is the intentional damage to the ball by the fielding players to get undue advantage in the swing of the ball during bowling.

(iii) Substitute: A player from batting, fielding side is replaced with a new player. In super substitute, this replaced player can bat or field or bowl (with certain conditions). This is on trial basis. This is also referred as twelveth man.

(c) Explain the following: (8)
(i) A Stance
(ii) A Full Toss
(iii) A Run-up
(iv) A Sweep Shot
Answer:
(i) Stance : It is a position or posture of a batsman at the crease before facing a delivery.
(ii) Full Toss: A ball delivered by bowler above the ankles of the batsman without the bounce.
(iii) Run-Up : An approach run taken by bowler during bowling.
(iv) Sweep Shot: In this the batsman hits the ball to deep angle while kneeling down.

Football

Question 8.
(a) Draw a diagram of football field showing the entire dimensions. (8)
Answer:
ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1

(b) (i) State three procedures that will be followed during a Kick-off. (9)
(ii) State any three duties of an Assistant Referee.
(iii) What is the procedure of taking a Throw-in?
Answer:
(i) Touch line (100 to 130 yds)

  1. It is starting the game (in beginning or after half-time or after the goal has been scored or in extra-time).
  2. During kick-off players remain in their own half.
  3. Opponent team player does not enter 10 yard circle until ball is pushed or kicked forward.
  4. Kick-off player should not touch the ball consecutively second time until played by another player.

(ii) Duties of Assistant Referee:

  • There are two Assistant Referees or lines-men. They assist or help the Match Referee during the game. They are equipped with flags.
  • Their duties are to indicate Match Referee by various signals like ball is out of play.
  • Which team to get corner-kick or throw-in or goal-kick or off side?

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) When is corner kick awarded and from where is it taken ? (8)
(ii) Explain the following:
1. A Substitution
2. A Through-Pass
Answer:
(i) Corner-Kick: It is also known as flag kick. Corner kick is awarded when a defender puts the ball out of the play behind his team’s goal line. An attacking player then tries to send the ball in front of the goal for another attacker to head or make a short pass to a teammate to convert it into goal. It is taken from corner-arc or quarter-yard circle.

(ii) 1. Substitution: Though there are five reserve players but only two substitutes are permitted during match that too with permission from Referee.

2. Through-Pass: In this, the ball is passed between two or more defenders and the own teammate collects the ball and moves further.

Question 9.
(a) (i) State any four offences committed by a player within his own penalty area, which warrant the award of Penalty-kick.
(ii) What is the circumference and weight of a standard football ? State its minimum and maximum size.(8)
Answer:
(i) Penalty-Kick: A penalty kick is awarded when a foul is committed by a defender in the penalty area or technical area. The ball is placed on the penalty spot and the attacking player tries to kick it directly into the goal and goalkeeper only defends it. The offences are like :

  • Intentional hit to the player
  • Intentional handling the ball
  • Charging opponent
  • Holding opponent from behind.

(ii) Weight of the football = 14 ounce (400 gm) Minimum. 16 ounce (450 gm) Maximum Circumference of football = 27 inches (68 cm) Minimum. 28 inches (711 cm) Maximum

(b) (i) How is a goal scored in the game of football ?
(ii) As a Referee what decisions would you take if the following incidents occur during a match ?
1. A player intentionally pushes an opponent.
2. A defending player intentionally handles the ball in the penalty area.
3. A player indulges in misconduct even after receiving a Yellow card.
(iii) In a Knock-out tournament if the match ends in a draw, what will be the procedures followed to determine the winner of the match ? (9)
Answer:
(i) When the live ball crosses the goal line under the cross bar and in between the goal post.

(ii) Referee’s decision
1. When a player intentionally pushes an opponent then Direct Free Kick should be given.
2. When a defending player intentionally handles the ball in the penalty area then Penalty Kick should be given.
3. When a player indulges in misconduct even after receiving a Yellow Card then Red Card should be given (player should be sent off the game).

(iii) 1. During a knock-out tournament, if there is a tie at the end of regulation time, then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15-minutes each overtime period. In this duration if any team makes the goal, it wins the match. Earlier there was golden goal period in which the team who scores the goal first wins the game but now it is known as silver goal period.

2. If there is still a tie after the overtime period, a penalty shoot-out takes place (sudden death). The referee decides which goal will be used for the penalty kicks; the team to kick first is determined by a toss. Each team chooses 5 players to take the kick in turns. The team that has the most goals after 5 kicks wins the game.

3. If the teams are still tied after 5 kicks each, the teams keep taking penalty kicks until one team wins. The goal is scored when ball crosses the goal line (may be on surface or in air).

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Explain the following : (8)
1. An Off-side
2. A Free-kick
3. Heading
4. Passing
Answer:
1. Off-Side: A player is off side when he is close to the opposing goal line without the ball, unless two defenders are between the attacker and the goal line. This off-side is also considered as a defensive tactic (the entire defensive line moves rapidly in a wave to put the attackers off side). Off-side is given by linesman by raising red flag. Goal is not considered in that case and opponent is awarded indirect kick.

2. Free-Kick: A free-kick is awarded when a player has been fouled. In the direct free-kick, the ball can be kicked directly at the goal. In the indirect free-kick, the ball must be passed to a teammate before being directed at the goal. Opponent players must be 10 yards away from where it is to be taken.

3. Heading : Usually an attacker heads the ball to re-direct it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this, forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

4. Passing: In this, the ball is passed to own teammate who is close. The ball is slightly pushed so that it should reach to the desired point. There are lots of variation of passing like push pass (ball is pushed with inner-edge of foot); out step push (with the outer edge of the foot), through-pass (between the opponents).

Handball

Question 10.
(a) Explain the following : (8)
(i) Goal Area
(ii) Free Throw Line
(iii) Duration of Extra Time
(iv) Free Space Area
Answer:
(i) Goal Area: The arc around the goal post at 6 mt, which is restricted for all players except goalkeeper.
(ii) Free Throw Line: The dotted arc line marked around the goal area at 9 mt away from goal post. Free throw is awarded from this line.
(iii) Duration of Extra Time = 2 halves of 5 minutes each. (1 min break in between).
(iv) Free Space Area: The area where suspended player remains sitting till suspension time is over.

(b) (i) Mention any three duties of Timekeeper. (9)
(ii) Mention any three instances when a Referee gives a Two-minute suspension to a player.
(iii) Write any three privileges of the Goalkeeper.
Answer:
(i) Duties of Timekeeper: Timekeeper sits by side of Recorder on the official table.

  • He starts the game clock and stops the game when the playing time ends, after each half.
  • He stops the game clock during time-out and informs the end of time-out to Referee.
  • He stops or starts the game clock in between (by the indication of Referee).
  • He notes the duration of 2-minute suspended player and sends him for play accordingly.
  • He assists Recorder by telling the chest number of the player scoring the goal.

(ii) Two-Minute Suspension is given:

  • When player misbehaves with Referee.
  • Performs unsportsman act to opponent; manhandling the opponent.
  • Intentional obstruction from behind.
  • Repeatedly obstruction in spite of warning or yellow card.
  • Attempts to endanger the opponent’s health while attacking.

(iii) Privilege to Goalkeeper:

  • Only Goalkeeper is permitted inside the own Goal area.
  • Goalkeeper can touch the ball with any body part inside the Goal area.
  • Only Goalkeeper is permitted to leave the Goal area without permission.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) (i) Write six situations where Penalty Throw is awarded. (8)
(ii) Write any two situations where Warning is given.
Answer:
(i) Penalty Throw (7m-throw) is awarded from 7 Meter line. This is given

  • When defending player intentionally obstructs the opponent from behind.
  • Blocking dangerously while player is throwing ball towards goal.
  • Jumps on the opponent without the ball.
  • Pushes the opponent.
  • Trips on the opponent when he has clear chance of scoring.

(ii) Warning is given when :

  • Pulls or hits the ball from opponents.
  • Blocks opponent with arms or legs.
  • Restrain, hold, pass, run or jump into opponent.
  • Endangers opponent.

Question 11.
(a) (i) Mention the two throws for which the Referee must
always blow the whistle to restart the game. (8)
(ii) What is the Restraining Line meant for?
(iii) Explain the term ‘throw of T.
(iv) Explain the term ‘free throw’ in handball.
Answer:
(i) Throws for which Referee whistles for restart of the game:

  • When goal has been scored.
  • After the end of first half.
  • After the 7 meter-throw or after the penalty throw.

(ii) Restraining Line is meant for goalkeeper. It restrains goalkeeper to come (ahead of goal line) up to this mark.

(iii) Throw-off : To start (after the goal scored or in beginning of each half) the game, a player passes the ball by cutting centre line whereas players of both teams remain in their own halves.

(iv) Free-Throw: It is also known as 9-mt throw. If defensive team commits fault or violation then opponent is awarded with 9 meter free-throw. Defensive player must be 3 meters away from the opponent players.

(b) (i) What is the meant by a Referee throw? (9)
(ii) When is a player excluded from the game?
(iii) What is the purpose of the Substitute line?
Answer:
(i) Referee Throw or Throw In: During play if ball goes out from the side line, then opponent gets the chance for ball possession by Referee’s consent and giving the ball first to referee and then is the ball pass by cutting side line.

(ii) Player is excluded from the game when Red Card or disqualification of a player who is repeatedly committing obstruction in spite of warning. He is not allowed to play further.

(iii) Substitution Line: The player to be substituted has to come out of playfield first and then the substitute has to enter from the substitute restraining line near the official table. It is marked 4.50 meters on side line, at centre line on both sides.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Define the following terms: (8)
(i) A suspension
(ii) An exclusion
(ii) A goal scored
(iv) A fast-break
Answer:
(i) A Suspension: If player intentionally obstructs the opponent, he remains out for two minutes. The team has to play with less number of player till he gains comes-in.

(ii) An Exclusion: It means disqualification of a player who is repeatedly committing obstruction in spite of warnings. He is not allowed to play further.

(iii) A Goal Scored: When the entire ball has completely crossed the goal line under the goal post, without violations of rules. Referee signals this by raising one hand, followed by restart from centre line.

(iv) Fast-Break: Ball is quickly passed to own teammate for scoring goal, which is placed close to opponent ring. It is moving the ball quickly down the court in order to score before defence can setup.

Hockey

Question 12.
(a) Explain the following terms: (8)
(i) A Goal Line
(ii) A Playing Distance
(iii) Dribbling
(iv) An Obstruction
Answer:
(i) Goal lines: The parts of the back lines between the goal-posts.

(ii) Playing Distance has:
(a) Side lines: 91.40 meters long perimeter lines
(b) Back lines: 55.00 meters long perimeter lines.

(iii) Dribbling : It is tackling the ball with stick work. The movement of ball is controlled by rolling the stick around it, while maintaining constant control of ball with the stick. This prevents opponents to get possession of the ball. The player adjusts his body accordingly.

(iv) An Obstruction: It is hindrance to opponent against the rules. It prevents opponent player to play with ball by hindrance through body or stick.

(b) In the event of the ball going over a back line, how does the game resume : (9)
(i) When an attacker knocks the ball out of play ?
(ii) When a defender unintentionally knocks the ball out of play ?
(iii) When a defender intentionally knocks the ball out of play ?
Answer:
(i) When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players then Free hit from back line is permitted to attacking team in that case.

(ii) When a defender unintentionally knocks the ball out of play, then opposite team gets long corner from 5 meter mark.

(iii) When a defender intentionally knocks the ball out of play then penalty corner is given to opponent team.

(c) (i) Write any four occasions when the Umpire blows the whistle dining the game. (8)
(ii) Explain the following:
(A) A Penalty Corner
(B) Dangerous Play
Answer:
(i) The Umpire blows the whistle during the game when

  • Start and end of each half.
  • Fouls committed by players.
  • Goal has been scored.
  • Penalty corner.
  • Penalty stroke.

(ii) (A) A penalty corner : An attacker pushes a ball from a mark which is 10 yards away from the goal post on side the team prefers. Five defenders including a goalkeeper are allowed to stand behind the goal line to depend their goal.
(B) Dangerous play : When a player intentionally does something that can hurt another play or the player can be accidental.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following: (8)
(i) Carried
(ii) A Rolling Substitution
(iii) A Bully
(iv) A Corner
Answer:
(i) Carried: When a ball touches the leg or feet of the player, it is violation.

(ii) Rolling-Substitution: According to new rules any player can be changed from reserve players or substitutes without intimation to Referee. No extra time or stopping of game is given. There can be any number of rolling substitution from the substitute players, except during penalty corner.

(iii) Bully: This method is used to start or restart the game after interruption. In this method, two opponent players try to gain the control over ball by dribbling between them under Referee’s signal.

(iv) Corner: When a ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players then long corner pass is permitted to attacking team.

(b) (i) Mention three procedures to be followed while taking a Penalty Stroke. (9)
(ii) List three instances wherein Penalty Corner is awarded.
(iii) State the importance of the Shooting Circle.
Answer:
(i) Penalty stroke: It is also known as 7 yard push. This is awarded when some serious offence is committed by team in their shooting circle. Time stops during penalty stroke. Only goalkeeper and the player taking stroke permitted inside shooting circle. At the whistle player pushes or scoops or flicks the ball towards the goal for scoring a goal whereas goalkeeper defends it. It is done from the penalty spot 7 yards in front of goal post.

(ii) Penalty corner is awarded when a player

  • commits serious foul (intentionally or unintentionally)
  • indulges in dangerous play
  • for misconduct
  • enters into argument with Umpire.

(iii) Importance of Shooting Circle are:

  • Goal can only by scored from within the Shooting circle.
  • Intentional foul committed by defensive team in Shooting circle leads to Penalty corner.
  • Penalty corner is taken within Shooting circle.

(c) Explain the following : (8)
1. A Corner Push
2. A Dodge
3. A Tapping
4. A Shin Guard
Answer:
1. Corner-Push: This is a kind of push used in penalty corner (short-corner) or from long corner. In this skill player pushes the ball with power so that it should quickly reach to own teammate.

2. Dodge: It is the technique of dribble, in which the coming opponent is deceived in other direction by fake body movement. It prevents opponent to interfere or get possession of the ball.

3. Tapping: This skill is used to stop the fast coming ball by carefully stopping with stick. In this skill the stick is kept in between the fast coming ball so that it stops close to stick. There is lot of variation of tapping, like lying stick tapping, blade tapping, reverse stick tapping, etc.

4. Shin-Guard: It is the protective equipment used by a player to protect the shine-bone and ankle. Shin is the area between ankle and the knee. It is fiber made guard which is worn under the long stocking to protect lower leg and ankle.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Explain the following: (8)
(i) An Alternating possession indicator
(ii) A Double Foul
(iii) A Violation
(iv) Three Point Successful Shot
Answer:
(i) An Alternating Possession indicator: It is an instrument with arrow/indicator which shows the direction of the possession of ball to a team.
(ii) Double-Foul: A situation in which opposing player commits contact foul against each other simultaneously.
(iii) Violation: An infringement of rules, where opponent is awarded with throw-in from side line or end line closest to infraction.
(iv) Three Point Successful Shot: The basket or goal scoring which gives addition of three points in the score, thrown behind the three point line or arc. Referee signals this by raising both hands showing three fingers of palm.

(b) (i) Explain the following terms: (9)
1. A Ten Second Rule
2. A Cut in
3. A Clean Shot
(ii) What do you mean by Man-to-Man marking?
(iii) Define the term Zone-Defence.
Answer:
(i) 1. 10-Seconds Rule: After the score or due to foul or any other reason if team gets the possession of ball they are supposed to move the ball in the front of court (from the rear half of court) within ‘10’ seconds. (Now 8-second rule).
2. Cut-In: The fast movement of the player towards the basket through two or more opponents to receive the ball.
3. A Clean Shot : A shot in which ball does not touch the board and goal is scored.

(ii) Man-to-Man Marking: It is defensive stactics where each player checks or guards or screens the opponent player (during opponent ball possession).

(iii) Zone-Defence: It is defence in own half, where player covers particular area for defence.

(c) Write the following: (8)
(i) An Illegal Screening
(ii) A Live-Ball
(iii) A Dead-Ball
(iv) A Lay-up-Shot
Answer:
(i) Illegal Screening: It is illegal attempt to delay or prevent opponent player who does not control the ball from reaching desired position.
(ii) Live-Ball: During jump-ball if ball is legally tapped or officials place the ball for play or at the disposal of free throw or throw-in.
(iii) Dead-Ball: Ball lands out of bounds, official blows the whistle, in case of violation, fouls etc. It is temporarily stopping of game.
(iv) Lay-Up-Shot : A shot executed by a player while moving two steps with the ball and attempting a shot.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 15.
(a) Explain the following: (8)
(i) A Time-out.
(ii) A Disqualifying Foul
(iii) Rebounding
(iv) A Closely Guarded Player
Answer:
(i) Time-out: It is an interruption of game requested by coach. It lasts not more than one min. It can be taken one time in I, II and III quarter; and two times in IV quarter.

(ii) A Disqualifying Foul or Unsportsmanlike Foul: This is an intentional foul. It is a personal foul of a player, with or without the ball. It is deliberately committed against opponent. Player knowingly hits the opponent player who is going for scoring basket. This is a serious foul in which opponent gets two free throws along with side pass from centre line.

(iii) Rebounding: It is attempt to recollect the ball if it fails to score basket. It is bounce back of the ball after striking ring or backboard (in un-converted shot) which comes for play.

(iv) Closely Guarded Player: When a player is checked or guarded closely providing less chance to move in any direction.

(b) What do you understand by following terms: (9)
(i) Blocking
(ii) Holding
(iii) A Held Ball
Answer:
(i) Blocking : It is illegal personal contact which impedes the progress of opponent player with or without the ball.
(ii) Holding: It is personal contact to opponent player that infers the freedom of movement (by body contact).
(iii) Held-Ball: It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw-in (by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line (earlier jump-ball was performed under this condition).

(c) Write the following terms: (8)
(i) Dribbling
(ii) A Board Shot
(iii) A Three Point-Shot
(iv) Team Fouls
Answer:
(i) Dribbling : It is pumping of ball with hands so that it bounces back by which the movement of ball takes place by a player.
(ii) Board-Shot: It is an attempt to goal (score basket) by bounce from the ring board i.e., ball to hit the board first for scoring basket.
(iii) Three Point Shot: The basket or goal scoring which gives addition of three points in the score. It should be thrown behind the three point line or arc.
(iv) Team Fouls: These are total fouls of team. If team fouls exceed more than four fouls in each quarter then opponent team is awarded with two free throws on each foul.

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) Explain the following : (8)
(i) A Blocking
(ii) A Misconduct
(iii) An Assisted hit
(iv) A Consecutive contact
Answer:
(i) Blocking: It is preventing the coming smash or ball over the net so that it lands in opponent court.
(ii) Misconduct: It is illegal action or offence or behaviour by the player or by the team member including coach; warning at first instance and recorded over score sheet.
(iii) Assisted-Hit: A player when takes the support from teammate or any other structure or object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.
(iv) Consecutive-Contact: A player may not contact the ball two times consecutively, it is a foul.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) Enumerate any three duties of each of the following : (9)
(i) A First referee
(ii) An Assistant referee
(iii) A Captain on the court
Answer:
(i) Duties of First Referee :

  • He is responsible for the conduct of match under rales and regulations from the start until the end.
  • He is final authority as far decision of match.
  • He can replace other officials who are not performing duty properly.
  • Referee controls all the situations of the match under rales.
  • Referee performs toss before the start of match,

(ii) Duties of Assistant Referee:

  • To provide assistance and help to first Referee.
  • He looks after rotation fault, positional fault, line cut, etc.
  • Helps match referee for substitution, time out.
  • He checks scorer and other officials.
  • He checks the fouls and faults at the net.

(iii) A Captain of the court:

  • Performs the toss.
  • Signs the Score sheet.
  • Authorized for conduct of team.
  • A captain of the court requests the referee to reconsider/check the decision.
  • Can verify the score sheet.

(c) Briefly explain the following: (8)
(i) A Rotation
(ii) A Collective block
(iii) A Screening
(iv) A Technical time out
Answer:
(i) Rotation : After every change of service; the players of serving-side rotate in clockwise otherwise it may be foul.

(ii) Collective-block: A block executed by two or more players in an attempt to block the coming ball.

(iii) Screening: A player of servicing team must not prevent the visibility of service player. The collective screening, from seeing the server or the flight path of the ball is illegal.

(iv) Technical Time-Out: It is given for 60 seconds in the final set when leading team reaches at the 8th and 16th points. It may be requested by each team.

Question 17.
(a) (i) List the officials appointed to conduct the match. (8)
(ii) What is a Rally point?
(iii) Who requests the referee for a substitution?
(iv) When is the service changed during a match?
Answer:
(i) Officials = 1 Referee, 1 Assistant Referee, 1 Scorer, 1 Table Official, 1 Commissioner of match, 4 Line Judges
(ii) Rally point: It is a point gained by exchange of strokes across the net.
(iii) The coach of the team requests for substitution to the assistant referee.
(iv) Service is changed when foul/violation is committed by the serving team or opponent gains the point or opponent team wins the rally.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) List three services faults which lead to a change of service. (9)
(ii) Mention three types of delays which prolong the games.
(iii) Explain the procedure of substitution during play.
Answer:
(i) Service Faults:

  • Unable to serve properly over the net.
  • Cutting of Service line during service.
  • Service lands outside the court.
  • Ball stuck in net during service.
  • Service is delivered from side of Antenna.

(ii) Delays in game:

  • During Substitution.
  • Timeout.
  • Ball goes away.
  • Injury to player.
  • Improper request to Umpire.

(iii) Substitution is done with the permission of Referee. An area 3 m away towards side line (substitution area) is allowed to move for substitution. When Referee signals for substitution the player should move out and substitute player should enter.

(c) Draw a neat diagram of a volleyball court and mark the following: (8)
(i) Side line
(ii) Service line
(iii) Attack line
(iv) Front zone
(v) Back zone
(vi) Rotation position
(vii) Height of the net (men) from the ground
(viii) Size of the net
Answer:
ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 2

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Softball

Question 18.
(a) Explain the following terms : (9)
(i) A chopped ball
(ii) A batter
(iii) A tagging
(iv) An illegally caught ball
Answer:
(i) A chopped ball: An illegal shot in which the ball is deliberately hit hard downward so that it bounces into the air in an attempt to avoid being caught.
(ii) A batter : A player comes on the base to face the delivery bowls by the pitcher is called batter.
(iii) A tagging : When less than two out and a ball is hit in the air and caught runners who have the base must return and tag before they can legally advance.
(iv) An illegally caught ball: An illegally caught ball occurs when a fielder catches a batted or thrown ball with his cap, glove or any part of his uniform while it is detached from its proper place.

(b) (i) List three instances of a Trapped Ball. (8)
(ii) State three duties of a plate umpire.
(iii) Mention three instances when the ball is dead and not in play ?
Answer:
Three instances of a Trapped ball:
(i) To make the batter out.
(ii) To make base runner not able to reach the base.
(iii) To make the base runner out.
Plate umpire:

  • He will call all balls and strikes.
  • He will determine when a game is forfeited.
  • He will assume all duties when assigned as a single umpire to a game.

Ball is dead and not in play :
(a) When the ball is batted illegally.
(b) When ‘No pitch’ is declared.
(c) When a foul ball is not caught.

(c) (i) What is the procedure of scoring in the soft ball ? (8)
(ii) What is the procedure of substitution in the game of softball ?
(iii) List any three conditions when a batter becomes a batter runner.
Answer:
(i) Procedure of scoring: One run shall be scored each time when a runner legally touches first, second third bases and home plate before the third out of the inning.

(ii) The coach or team representive of the team making the substitution shall immediatly notify the plate umpire at the time the substitute enters. The plate umpire shall report the change to the scorer. A substitute is not officially in the game until a pitch has been thrown or a play made.

(iii) Batter become a runner: Three conditions when a batter becomes a batter (base) runner:

  • As soon as he hits a fair ball.
  • When four balls have been called by umpire.
  • When the catcher interferes with or prevents line from striking at a pitched ball.

Question 19.
(a) (i) Name any two miscellaneous playing equipment. [8]
(ii) What is the distance between the bases ?
(iii) What is the length and breadth of the catcher’s boxes?
(iv) Which team is called a defensive team ?
Answer:
(i) (1) Helmet (2) Gloves
(ii) Distance between the bases – 60 feet.
(iii) Catcher’s box length – 10 feet
Catcher’s box breadth – 8 feet 5 inches
(iv) Defensive Team : The team which pitching the ball and trying makes out the batting team an low score is called defensive team.

ICSE 2016 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) Under what circumstances is the base runner entitled
for more than one base ? [9]
(ii) What do you mean by an interference ?
(iii) What is a foul tip ?
Answer:
(i) When a player hits the ball out of bound is entitled for more than one base.
(ii) Interference : In soft ball interference occurs in a situation in which a person illegally changes the course of play from what is expected.
(iii) Foul tip : In softball a foul tip is defined as a batted ball that goes sharp directly from the bat to the catcher’s hand and is legally caught. A foul tip is considered a strike and the ball remains in play.

(c) Explain: [8]
(i) A stealing
(ii) An altered bat
(iii) An innings
(iv) Circumference and weight of the ball
Answer:
(i) A stealing : If the catcher catches the ball or the ball is missed and lands behind the plate the ball is considered live and the base is taken is called stealing.
(ii) Altered bat : A bat is altered when the physical structure of a leg bat has been changed.
(iii) Inning: An inning in softball consists of two haves. In each half one team bats until three out are made with the other defence team.
(iv) Circumference of ball – 65 to 67 cm.
Weight of ball – 260 to 280 gms.

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2022 Semester 2 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Maximum Marks : 40
Time allowed: One and a half hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section-A and any three questions from Section-B.
  • The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [].

Section – A
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) …….. is a financial statement which sets out assets and liabilities as on a certain date.
(a) Trading account
(b) Profit and Loss account
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Cash Budget
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

(ii) A …….. is an estimate of probable events that can be made by anybody.
(a) Budget
(b) Forecast
(c) Efficiency
(d) Liquidity
Answer:
(b) Forecast

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

(iii) When vacancies at higher levels are filled by shifting people from lower levels to higher levels with increase in status and salary it is called ……..
(a) Promotion
(b) Transfer
(c) Employment Exchange
(d) Placement Agency
Answer:
(a) Promotion

(iv) The …….. is the Central bank of our country which has the authority to print currency notes.
(a) ICICI
(b) RBI
(c) PNB
(d) HDFC
Answer:
(b) RBI

(v) ……. is a contract which the insurance company undertakes to indemnify the insured for loss or damage caused due to accidental fire.
(a) Life insurance
(b) Marine insurance
(c) Fire insurance
(d) Health insurance
Answer:
(c) Fire insurance

(vi) The ……. budget is a summary of all the budgets.
(a) Cash
(b) Sales
(c) Master
(d) Production
Answer:
(c) Master

(vii) The process of preparing budgets is known as ………..
(a) Budgeting
(b) Banking
(c) Marketing
(d) Pricing
Answer:
(a) Budgeting

(viii) Falsification of records, alteration of figures and keeping two sets of accounts are examples of ……… fraud.
(a) Insurance
(b) Internet and Cyber
(c) False accounting
(d) Intellectual property
Answer:
(c) False accounting

(ix) Advertisements, Labour contractors, Placement Agencies etc. are examples of ……… recruitment.
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) In house
(d) Selection
Answer:
(b) External

(x) ……… shareholders are the real risk bearers who enjoy voting rights.
(a) Equity
(b) Preference
(c) Debenture
(d) Bond
Answer:
(a) Equity

Section – B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 2.
(i) Name any four types of Selection tests. [2]
(ii) What is a Cash Budget ? [2]
(iii) State three differences between Central and Commercial banks. [5]
(iv) Write short notes on the following steps of selection : [3]
(a) Medical /Physical examination
(b) Group discussion
Answer:
(i) Aptitude test, Achievement test, Situational test, Personality test.

(ii) A cash budget is a document produced to help a business manage their cash flow. A cash budget is prepared in advance and shows all the planned monthly cash incomings (receipts) and any planned cash outgoings (payments).

(iii)

Central Bank

Commercial Bank

The bank which looks after the monetary system of the country is known as Central Bank. The organization which provides banking services to the public is known as Commercial Bank.
It is a banker to the banks and the Govern- ment of the country. It is the banker to the citizens of the nation.
It has powers to print currency notes. No power to print currency notes.

(iv) (a) A physical examination conducted by a physician can have a number of purposes as given below:

1. To check whether the candidate is physically fit to do the job. Those candidates who are successful at the interview will be ultimately rejected if they are found physically unfit.

2. Another aim is to recruit the candidates with sound health for efficient working of the organi-zation.
Medical examination aims to prevent injury or damage to the health of employees by placing them in proper job situations.

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

(b) Group discussion is used as an examination for many organizations. It tests the personality skills, communi-cation skills, teamwork, confidence, problem-solving skills, social skills, behaviour, and leadership abilities of a candidate. It is also an essential part of short-listing candidates for a job.

Question 3.
(i) What is an Overdraft ? [2]
(ii) What is Life Insurance ? [2]
(iii) Explain any three sources of external recruitment. [3]
(iv) State three differences between Budget and Forecast. [3]
Answer:
(i) Overdraft facility is a financial facility or instrument that enables you to withdraw money from your bank account (savings or current), even if you do not have any account balance. Like any other credit facility, the bank levies an interest rate when you avail the overdraft facility. You have to pay a fixed interest rate to avail an overdraft limit.

(ii) Life Insurance can be defined as a contract between an insurance policy holder and an insurance company, where the insurer promises to pay a sum of money in exchange for a premium, upon the death of an insured person or after a set period.

(iii) (a) People joining an organization, speci-fically through recommendations.
(b) Employment agencies or employment exchanges.
(c) Advertising.
(d) Institutes like colleges and universities (campus selection)

(iv)

Basis For Comparison

Budget

Forecast

Meaning A budget is a financial plan expressed in quantitative terms, prepared by the management in advance for a future period. Forecast means estimation of future trends and outcomes, based on the past and present data.
Target Budget sets target. There are no targets.
Updation On annual basis. At regular intervals.

Question 4.
(i) What is Selection ?
(ii) Give the full forms of:
(a) RTGS
(b) IMPS
(iii) State three differences between Equity and Preference shares. [3]
(iv) State three advantages of Internal Recruitment. [3]
Answer:
(i) Employee Selection is the process of interviewing and evaluating the candidates for a specific job and selecting an individual for employment based on certain criteria (qualifications, skills and experience). Employee selection can range from a very simple process to a very complicated process depending on the firm hiring and the position.

(ii) (a) Real Time Gross Settlement.
(b) Immediate Payment Service.

(iii)

Basis For Comparison

Equity Shares

Preference Shares

Meaning Equity shares are the ordinary shares of the company representing the part ownership of the shareholder in the company. Preference shares are the shares that carry preferential rights on the matters of payment of dividend and repayment of capital.
Repayment of capital In the event of winding up of the company, equity shares are repaid at the end. In the event of winding up of the company, preference shares are repaid before equity shares.
Rate of dividend Fluctuating. Fixed.
Redemption Redemption not allowed. Redemption allowed.

(iv) (a) Reduces time to hire the employees.
(b) It is economical.
(c) The candidate already knows about the company.
(d) Internal candidate are easier to find

Question 5.
(i) What are Debentures? [2]
(ii) What are Bonded Warehouses? [2]
(iii State three Precautions that must be taken while using Credit or Debit cards. [3]
(iv) Write short notes oh the following. [3]
(a) Utmost Good Faith (Principle of Insurance)
(b) ATM
Answer:
(i) A debenture is a marketable security (a type of investment) issued by a business or other organization to raise money for long-term activities and growth. It is a form of debt capital so it is accounted for as debt on the balance sheet of the issuing company.

(ii) A bonded warehouse is a building or other secured area in which dutiable goods may be stored, worked on or undergo light assembly operations without payment of duty. It may be managed by the state or by private enterprises. The importers can store cargo and effect partial releases, thereby deferring duty payment to Customs and at the same time, releasing the international (ISO) container in which the cargo is imported.

(iii) (a) Keep your debit or credit card in a safe place.
(b) Never disclose PIN of your debit or credit card.
(c) Use the cards on trustworthy websites.
(d) Never disclose CVV or credentials to anyone, even to the telephone caller.

(iv) (a) ‘Utmost good faith’ is one of the first principles of an insurance contract. This means that both the parties have to be transparent with each other and material facts have to be disclosed both before the policy is issued and after.

(b) ATM is an Automated Teller Machine. This machine can manage a deposit account of the customer (Savings/Current).
It allows a person to check account balances, withdraw money, print a statement of account activities or transactions. These machines can also deposit money.

Question 6.
(i) Write a brief note on NEFT. [2]
(ii) Name any four types of Selection tests. [2]
(iii) Use the following Trial Balance to fill in the missing details (entry and amount) to complete the Accounts of Ms. N. Razdan as on 31st March, 2021. [6]

Particulars Amount
(Dr) ₹

Amount
(Cr) ₹

Capital 60,000
Drawings 4,500
Cash at Bank 4,200
Purchase 66,000
Sales 1,35,000
Purchase Returns 3,000
Sales Returns 6,000
Discount 1,200
Carriage Outwards 1,800
Salaries 18,000
Trade expenses 3,600
Opening Stock 15,000
Bad debts 1,800
Rent 4,500
Machinery 1,08,000
Furniture 15,000
Debtors 15,000
Creditors 330
Stationery 7,500
Commission received 900
Loan 43,200
2,72,100 2,72,100

Closing Stock on 31st March, 2021 was valued at ₹ 78,000.
Note : Do not copy the final accounts. Only fill in the blanks with entry and amount.

Trading Account of Ms. N. Razdan for the year ending 31st March, 2021
ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10 1
Profit and Loss Account of Ms. N. Razdan for the year ending 31st March, 2021
ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10 2
Balance Sheet of Ms. N. Razdan as on 31st March, 2021
ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10 3
Only fill the table:

S.No.

Entry Amount
(i) To Gross Profit
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) To Net Profit
(v)
(vi)

Answer:
(i) NEFT stands for National Electronic Fund Transfer. A customer of the bank can use this facility from his bank branch or using online banking mode. Bank can transfer funds through NEFT on a nominal fee. Amount from ₹ 1 to any upper limit can be transferred from one bank to another bank. Banks provide free NEFT facility using Online banking.

ICSE 2022 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 2 for Class 10

(ii) Aptitude tests, Achievement tests, Situational tests, Personality tests.

(iii)

S.No. Entry Amount
(i) To Gross Profit 1,29,000
(ii) Carriage Outwards 1,800
(iii) Commission Received 900
(iv) No Net Profit 91,500
(v) Debtors 15,000
(vi) Loan 43,200

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2018 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Paper 2018 Solved

Maximum Marks: 100
Time allowed: Two Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (50 Marks)
(Attempt All questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) What is meant by Personal Hygiene? (2)
Answer:
Personal Hygiene : Personal health is also termed as Hygiene. The word ‘Hygiene’ comes from Greek word ‘Hygiea’ — the Greek goddess of beauty. She was the symbol of cleanliness, healthy habits, good structural figure and in all, a symbol of good health. For this the importance of personal health must be realised as taking care of one’s own body is called personal hygiene. It includes :
A. Personal cleanliness (a) Care of Skin (b) Care of Hands and Nails (c) Care of Hair (d) Care of Teeth and Gums (e) Care of Eyes (f) Care of Ears (g) Care of Feet
B. Rest, sleep and relaxation
C. Healthy habits

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) What is a Cramp? (2)
Answer:
Cramp: Cramp is inability of muscles to contract properly causing severe pain over affected part. In other words, this is unbalance contraction of muscles.

(c) State any three main causes of Cramp. (3)
Answer:
The causes of the cramps are:

  • Due to overtraining (without rest)
  • Loss of body water by sweating
  • Physical activity during sickness
  • Loss or lack of body salts or minerals
  • Physical activity during extreme bad weather or climate
  • Not performing proper warming-up

(d) Name the organism which causes Malaria. Mention any two symptoms of Malaria. (3)
Answer:
Malaria Cause: It is caused by biting of female Anopheles mosquito. The growth of these mosquitoes takes place in dirty places, garbage, standing water, etc. When this mosquito bites a healthy person, it injects the germs via the blood inside the body. The incubation period of malaria is 7-20 days. It is the most fatal disease in the world.

Symptoms:

  • Headache and shivering with high temperature up to 104°-106° F (Fahrenheit).
  • There is a lot of perspiration (sweating) when fever subsides.
  • Body becomes weak and skin with pale colour.
  • Nausea feeling.

Question 2.
(а) Define First -aid (2)
Answer:
First-aid: First aid is the immediate and temporary care given to the victim. The first objective is to save life. Knowing what to do and what not to do can help to avoid further injury, ease pain and possibly prevent disability and death. First aid can be a life-saving skill. In simple words, it is the first help to the victim.

(b) State any two ways to maintain Oral Hygiene. (2)
Answer:
Oral Hygiene or Dental care:

  • Cleaning the teeth and gums thoroughly after every meal.
  • Brushing the teeth with fluoride toothpaste, at least twice a day.
  • Reducing intake of sugar and sugary items (during, dinner).
  • Tooth decay can be prevented on large scale by adding fluorine in water supplies.
  • Dentist must be consulted twice a year.

(c) List any three ways of maintaining Personal Cleanliness. (3)
Answer:
Maintaining Personal Cleanliness :

  • Bath daily, clean your clothes and utensils thoroughly and dry them in sunlight.
  • Wash hands and eatables properly (like fruits, vegetables) before eating and cover the eatables properly.
  • Do not share your personal items like undergarments, clothes, towel, shoes, safety razor, comb, handkerchief, etc.
  • Care of teeth and gums (Oral hygiene).
  • Care of eyes, care of hair; care of ears.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) Suggest any three measures to avoid accidents caused by fire. (3)
Answer:
Prevention from Fire Accidents :

  • Always keep fire extinguisher ready or water filled bucket.
  • Wear cotton clothes while working near the fire
  • Matchstick should be properly extinguished before throwing.
  • Electric switches should not be switched on when there is leakage of LPG.
  • Rubber tube of gas stove should be checked regularly for leakage.

Question 3.
(a) What is meant by Immunization? (2)
Answer:
Immunization: Immunization is the introduction of any kind of dead, attenuated or weakened pathogens for the artificial development of immunity (resistance) against specific diseases. Immunization against some common infectious diseases has been taken up in India on a mass scale with an attempt to eradicate or minimize these diseases.

(b) Define Posture. (2)
Answer:
Posture : Posture is the body position. It may be static or dynamic such as sitting, standing, lying, walking, running, reading, etc. There are different views about posture. According to Physical Educationists: ‘Posture is a tool of mechanical efficiency of body which causes minimum stress to muscles. Moreover, maximum output of physical efficiency can be attained.’
According to Doctors, ‘Posture is soundness of physiological balance of body’.

(c) Write the full form of RICE. (3)
Answer:
RICE Means: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

  • Rest to player and completely restrict the movement of joint immediately.
  • Immediately apply cold compression or ice over the affected part to stop internal bleeding. Repeat this process several times after some intervals and put compression bandage over the affected part.
  • Compression bandage should be applied over the affected part to reduce the swelling.
  • Elevate the affected part above the level of heart by splint or support.

(d) State any three symptoms of Rheumatic Fever. (3)
Answer:
Rheumatic Fever : It is a serious disease which mainly affects children and young people in teens. It is an allergic condition that attacks the connective tissues of the body.

Symptoms:

  • Child develops sore throat,
  • Aching in joints, redness over joints
  • Irritation over skin, rashes over skin,
  • Continuous fever and body aching,
  • Soreness in muscles and joints,

Question 4.
(a) Define Antibiotics. (2)
Answer:
Antibiotics: Antibiotics are the chemical substances produced by certain microorganisms that kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms. The first antibiotic – the Penicillin – was discovered by chance by Alexander Fleming in 1928. Some of the antibiotics act on a variety of pathogenic microbes and are called broad spectrum antibiotics e.g., chloromyelin, aureomycin, declomycin, tetramycin, etc.

(b) State any two causes of Obesity. (2)
Answer:
The causes of obesity are :

  • Wrong dietary habits and less physical activity like overeating.
  • Taking lots of fats and fried food.
  • Taking lots of animal flesh; eating lots of sweets; eating junk food.
  • Drinking alcohol.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) State any three harmful effects of consuming alcohol. (3)
Answer:
Harmful effects of Alcohol:
(i) Economic Loss: Alcohol is a costly product in all its forms. It causes great loss of money, once a person is addicted to. Thus, it brings poverty to many homes. It causes many health problems and to cure all these health-related problems, extra money for medical treatment is required.

(ii) Physical Efficiency Loss: Regular drinking of alcohol makes body sick, weak and diseased. Body loses physical efficiency and health is affected to a great extent. Various systems of the body lose their efficiency. Thus, it results in an open invitation to many health problems. Alcohol has very adverse effect on sportspersons; it declines their physical efficiency to a great extent. Thus, performance is very poor for many days.

(iii) Loss of Senses : When we drink alcohol, it affects our senses. The sense of judgment is lost, so a person cannot think properly. It reduces self-control and a person commits many mistakes. An alcoholic person cannot control his emotions. Sometimes these emotions become aggressive and violent. Alcoholic sportsperson loses perfection in skill; thus performance is poor in games and sports.

(iv) Loss of Memory: It affects the CNS (Central Nervous System) and produces slow and continuous depression. In an alcoholic person, the brain’s activities get reduced. Brain cannot remember the immediate happening or occurrence, i.e., short term memory gets lost.

(v) Crime: Alcohol has direct relation with crime. Most of the crimes are committed when a person is drunk. It may result in suicide, road accidents, injuries, death and violence. Drunkards are more involved in sex crimes.

(d) List any three transmission modes of Venereal diseases. (3)
Answer:
Venereal diseases transmission :

  • Sexual intercourse contact is the main mode of transmission.
  • Unhygienic habits like sharing of clothes, towels, undergarments,
  • Contaminated toilet seats and even bath water.
  • Infected mother transfers this to baby.
  • Dampness and slump area are the root place of VD.

Question 5.
(a) Write the foil form of ABC and CPR. (2)
Answer:
Full form of ABC: Airway, Breathing and Circulation.
Full form of CPR: Cardio-pulmonary Resuscitation

(b) Name any two diseases spread by Virus. (2)
Answer:
Viruses Spread Diseases : Common cold, influenza, measles, mumps, poliomyelitis, rabies, smallpox, chickenpox, yellow fever, AIDS, etc.

(c) Mention any three causes of Sports Injuries. (3)
Answer:
Causes of Sports Injuries :
(i) Proper Warming-up: Proper- warming-up (general and specific) is a must for player before participating in any physical activity. It tones-up body muscles and prepares the player psychologically for the coming activity. Thus, it prevents them from accidents or injuries.

(ii) Medical Check before Activity: Player should be properly medically checked up before physical activity related to previous injury disease, physical fitness level, etc. They must be fit to participate in the activity.

(iii) Proper Concentration: Player should play with full alertness and proper concentration over the activity. Player should not have any stress or tension; moreover, must be mentally ready for the activity.

(iv) Safety Guards and Check Equipments: Player should check his equipments and their condition. Player should use good quality equipments along with safety guards. Player should wear proper dress or kit along with proper shoes (according to surface as per activity needs).

(v) Regular Conditioning and Proper Skill: Regular conditioning improves various abilities of player like proper skill action, develops specific physical components, strengthens weak muscles and joints, etc.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(d) Write the calories required for the following age groups: (3)
(i) A child aged 10 years.
(ii) An adult female (50 Kg)
(iii) An adult male with heavy sports activity.
Answer:
Caloric requirement of:
Child of 10 years requires = 1500 Calories per day
Adult female (50 kg) requires = 2400 Calories per day
Adult male with heavy sports activity requires = 3500 Calories per day

Cricket

Question 6.
(a) Explain the following terms : (8)
(i) A Bouncer
(ii) A Duck
(iii) A Yorker
(iv) A Century
Answer:
(i) A Bouncer : When the bowler bowls the ball fast and short so as to rise above the shoulder level after pitching.
(ii) A Duck : The batsman gets ‘out’ without scoring a single run.
(iii) A Yorker: When ball is just bounced under the bat.
(iv) A Century : A batsman scoring ton or one hundred runs.

(b) (i) Explain the term Overthrow. (9)
(ii) Enumerate any three duties of a Leg Umpire.
(iii) Under which condition can an umpire declare Bad Light.
Answer:
(i) Overthrow: If a fielder throws the ball and no other fielder is able to stop the throwing ball, the batsman is able to score runs or a boundary. Such runs are termed as overthrow.

(ii) Duties of Leg Umpire :

  • To check the Run-out,
  • To check Stump-out,
  • To check Hit-wicket,
  • To check High bounce ball,
  • To check Stumped -out.

(iii) Bad-Light: When light is not sufficient to play and it causes danger to player. There is low intensity of light which creates problem to batsman, as they are not able to see the coming ball properly. In this condition Umpire can declare bad-light. Then match is supposed to stop.

(c) (i) State the foil form of ICC and BCCI. (8)
(ii) When is a batsman considered to be Out bowled ?
(iii) Explain the term Hat- trick.
(iv) What is the importance of the 30 yard circle ?
Answer:
(i) Full form of ICC is International Cricket Council
Full form of BCCI is Board of Control for Cricket in India

(ii) Bowled out : If the ball partially or completely destroys the wicket even if it touches the bat.

(iii) Hat-Trick : A bowler gets three wickets in three successive balls, i.e., the bowler dismisses three batsmen on three consecutive balls.

(iv) 30-Yard Circle: An inner circle marked at 30 yards around the stumps. This circle is used during power play to restrain 9 fielders inside the 30 yard circle.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 7.
(a) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (8)
(i) Intentional Disturbance
(ii) Timed- out
(iii) A Stance
(iv) A Maiden Over
Answer:
(i) Intentional Disturbance: If the batsman gets in the way of an opponent trying to catch the ball.
(ii) Timed-Out: If the batsman does not report to face the bowler or unduly delays the match.
(iii) Stance: It is a position or posture of a batsman at the crease before facing a delivery.
(iv) Maiden-Over: The over in which not even a single run is scored.

(b) (i) What is the rule of Follow-On in a five days test match? (9)
(ii) State any three ways by which Runs are scored.
(iii) Write down any three fielding positions of On-side in Cricket ?
Answer:
(i) Follow-On : It is given in a test match when batting team cannot score sufficient runs and the lead is more than 200 runs, it may be given follow-on or to bat again.

(ii) Scoring Runs : In addition to the batsman running, runs cain be scored in
1. Bye : When a run is made without the ball touching the bat or any other part of the batsman’s body, this is called a Bye.

2. Leg-Bye : When the ball is touched by any part of the batsman’s body except his hands, this is called a Leg- Bye

3. No-Ball :Aball is declared No-Ball if it is bowled with a bent arm or if the bowler crosses over the line; the batting team is awarded one run. Apart from this, he can score runs by hitting the ball for running. Batsman is not given ‘out’ on no-ball (except Run-Out). The bowler has to bowl an extra ball for a no-ball.

4. Boundary : If the batted ball touches or crosses the boundary line after touching the ground, 4-runs are awarded.

5. Sixer : If the batted ball lands outside the boundary line without touching the ground, the batsman is awarded 6 runs.

(iii) Fielding positions of On-side : Mid-on, Long-on, Cover- drive, Mid-wicket, Square leg,

(c) (i) What is the difference between a Bye and a Leg Bye in Cricket ? (8)
(ii) Answer the following :
1. The length of the bat.
2. The weight of the ball.
3. Size of the bails’
4. The height of the Stumps.
Answer:
(i) Bye : when a run is made without the ball touching the bat or any other part of the batsman’s body, this is called a Bye.
Leg-Bye : When the ball is touched by any part of the batsman’s body except his hands, this is called a Leg- Bye.

(ii) 1. Length of Bat = 38 Inch (96-5 cm)
2. Weight of Cricket Ball = 5.5 Ounce
3. Bails Overall Length 4’A Inches (11 cm)
4. Height of Stumps = 28 Inches (71.1 cm)

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Football

Question 8.
(a) Answer the following :
(i) A free kick
(ii) Heading
(iii) Passing
(iv) Weight and circumference of football.
Answer:
(i) A Free Kick : Free-Kick : It is given when Referee shows the warning card to the player. In this foul has been committed outside the penalty area like intentional delay, intentional hit to the player, intentional handling the ball, charging, dangerous play, holding opponent from behind, violent play, kicking the opponent. While taking direct-kick the opposing player should be at least 10 yards away from the ball. Goal can be scored from direct kick.

(ii) Heading : Usually an attacker heads the ball to redirect it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

(iii) Passing : In this the ball is passed to own teammate who is close. The ball is slightly pushed so that it should reach to the desired point. There are lots of variation of passing like push pass (ball is pushed with inner-edge of foot); out-step push (with the outer edge of the foot), through-pass (between the opponents)

(iv) Weight of the Football = 14 to 16 ounce (425 g ± 25 g)
Circumference of Football = 27 to 28 inch (68 cm to 71 1 cm)

(b) (i) Explain the term Off side. [9]
(ii) Give the proper procedure to replace a field player with a substitute player.
(iii) Mention any three instances for which a direct free kick is awarded.
Answer:
(i) Off-side : A player is in an Off-side position, if: he/she is nearer to opponents ’ goal line than both the ball and the second-last opponent. A player is not in an offside position if: He is in his own half of the field of play. He is level with the second-last opponent. He is level with the last two opponents. This offside is also considered as a defensive tactic (the entire defensive line moves rapidly in a wave to put the attackers offside). Offside is given by linesman by raising red flag. Goal is not considered in that case and opponent is awarded with indirect kick.

(ii) Substitution Procedure : To replace a player with a substitute, the following conditions must be observed:

  • the referee must be informed before any proposed substitution is made
  • the substitute only enters the field of play after the player being replaced has left and after receiving a signal from the referee
  • the substitute only enters the field of play at the halfway line and during a stoppage in the match
  • the substitution is completed when a substitute enters the field of play
  • from that moment, the substitute becomes a player and the player he has replaced becomes a substituted player
  • the substituted player takes no further part in the match, except where return substitutions are permitted

(iii) A Direct Free Kick is awarded to the opposing team if a player commits

  • kicks or attempts to kick an opponent
  • trips or attempts to trip an opponent
  • jumps at an opponent
  • charges an opponent
  • strikes or attempts to strike an opponent
  • pushes an opponent
  • tackles an opponent

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(c) Draw a diagram of a football field showing all its dimensions. [9]
Answer:
Football Playfield and its dimensions :
ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10 1

Question 9.
(a) Explain the following terms in Football: [8]
(i) Kick- off
(ii) Dropped ball
(iii) Injury time
(iv) Extra time
Answer:
(i) Kick-off: A kick-off is a way of starting or restarting play, at the start of the match, after a goal has been scored, at the start of the second half of the match, at the start of each period of extra time, where applicable. A goal may be scored directly from the kick-off.

(ii) Dropped ball: In case of struggle for ball possession when both players commit simultaneous foul, in that case the Referee stops the game for some time and afterwards drops the common ball to get the possession of the ball. Play restarts when ball touches the ground.

(iii) Injury Time : The time for which game has been stopped temporarily due to injury of the player. This stopped duration of game is added in regular time after each half.

(iv) Extra time : The time allotted to decide the match in case of draw. This time is awarded after expiry of normal duration.

(b) (i) How is a goal scored in the game of Football ? [9]
(ii) Give any three situations when a Kick- off is applied.
(iii) Under which three situations is a player not considered Off- side ?
Answer:
(i) Goal Scored : A goal is scored when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, between the goalposts and under the crossbar, provided that no infringement of the Laws of the Game has been committed previously by the team scoring the goal.

(ii) Kick- off : A kick-off is a way of starting or restarting play:

  • At the start of the match
  • After a goal has been scored
  • At the start of the second half of the match
  • At the start of each period of extra time, where applicable
  • A goal may be scored directly from the kick-off.

(iii) Off-side not considered: A player is not in an offside position if:

  • He is in his own half of the field of play or
  • He is level with the second-last opponent or
  • He is level with the last two opponents

(c) (i) Under which four situations can a Referee show a red card to a player ? (8)
(ii) Differentiate between Goal Kick and Comer Kick.
Answer:
(i) Red Card(Expulsion):

  • Serious foul play
  • Violent conduct
  • Spitting at an opponent or any other person
  • Denying the opposing team a goal or an obvious goalscoring opportunity by deliberately handling the ball (this does not apply to a goalkeeper within his own penalty area)
  • Denying an obvious goal scoring opportunity to an opponent moving towards the player’s goal by an offence punishable by a free kick or a penalty kick.

(ii) Goal Kick : A goal kick is a method of restarting play. A goal kick is awarded when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, either on the ground or in the air, having last touched a player of the attacking team, and a goal is not scored. A goal may be scored directly from a goal kick, but only against the opposing team.

Corner Kick: A comer kick is a method of restarting play. A comer kick is awarded when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, either on the ground or in the air, having last touched a player of the defending team, and a goal is not scored. A goal may be scored directly from a comer kick, but only against the opposing team.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Handball

Question 10.
(a) Explain the following terms in Handball: [8]
(i) Free Throw Line
(ii) A Fast Break
(iii) Screen
(iv) Safety zone.
Answer:
(i) Free Throw Line: The free-throw line (9-meter line) is a broken line, drawn 3 meters outside the goal-area line. Both the segments of the line and the spaces between them measure 15cm.

(ii) A Fast Break : A ball is quickly passed from one end to another end, to own teammate for scoring goal whereas opponent’s defense cannot be set-up.

(iii) Screen : 1. It is allowed with the body to block (screen) an opponent, whether she is in possession of the ball or not. 2. It is not allowed to block (screen) an opponent with arms, hands or legs.

(iv) Safety zone : It is an area around the handball court 3 metre on all sides of the court.

(b) (i) State any three duties of timekeeper. [9]
(ii) When is a seven meter throw awarded in the game of Handball ?
(iii) What is the purpose of the substitution line ?
Answer:
(i) Duties of Timekeeper : Timekeeper sits by side of Recorder on the official table.

  • He starts the game clock and stops the game when the playing time ends, after each half.
  • He stops the game clock during timeout and informs the end of timeout to Referee.
  • He stops or starts the game clock in-between (by the indication of Referee).
  • He notes the duration of 2-minute suspended player and sends him for play accordingly.
  • He assists Recorder by telling the chest number of the player scoring the goal.

(ii) A 7-meter throw is awarded when :

  • A clear chance of scoring is illegally destroyed anywhere on the court by a player or a team official of the opposing team;
  • There is an unwarranted whistle signal at the time of a clear chance of scoring;
  • A clear chance of scoring is destroyed through the interference of someone not participating in the game.

(iii) Substitution Line : The player to be substituted has to come out of playfield first and then the substitute has to enter from the substitute restraining line near the official table. It is marked 4.50 metres on sideline, at centre line on both sides.

(c) (i) Explain the Tie- rule in handball. [8]
(ii) Which parts of the body are allowed to be involved during the play ?
(iii) Explain the term passive play.
(iv) When is a throw in awarded ?
Answer:
(i) Tie- rule:
1. Overtime is played, following a 5-minute break, if a game is tied at the end of the regular playing time and a winner has to be determined. The overtime period consists of 2 halves of 5 minutes, with a 1-minute half-time break.

2. If the game is again tied after a first overtime period, a second period is played after a 5-minute break. This overtime period also has 2 halves of 5 minutes, with a 1-minute half-time break.

3. If the game is still tied, the winner will be determined in accordance with the rules for the particular competition. In the case that the decision is to use 7-meter-throwing as tie-breaker to decide a winner, the procedures indicated below shall be followed.

(ii) Players with possession of ball may throw or pass or dribble or hit or move with the ball or catch the ball with their hands or arms but never with their feet. Both hands (simultaneously) can only be used while catching or while throwing the ball.

(iii) Passive Play: It is not permitted to keep the ball in the team’s possession without making any recognizable attempt to attack or to shoot on goal. Similarly, it is not allowed to delay repeatedly the execution of a throw-off, free-throw, throw-in, or goalkeeper-throw for one’s own team. This is regarded as passive play, which is to be penalized with a free-throw against the team in possession of the ball unless the passive tendency ceases

(iv) Throw-in : A throw-in is awarded when the ball has completely crossed the side line, or when a court player on the defending team was the last one to touch the ball before it crossed his teams outer goal line.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 11.
(a) Explain the following term in Handball: [8]
(i) Shuffling
(ii) Goal area
(iii) A Throw off
(iv) An Exclusion
Answer:
(i) Shuffling : It is again a strategic move during attack when man to man check by defenders is done. In this, player moves or changes his position to break the defense of defenders.

(ii) Goal area : Only the goalkeeper is allowed to enter the goal area. The goal area, which includes the goal- area line, is considered entered when a court player touches it with any part of the body.

(iii) A Throw off: At the start of the game, the throw-off is taken by the team that wins the coin toss and elects to start with the ball in its possession. The opponents then have the right to choose ends. Alternatively, if the team that wins the coin toss prefers to choose ends, then the opponents take the throw-off.

(iv) An Exclusion : Temporal effects on the scoring performance for the team that suffered the exclusion of a player. As was argued, the exclusion of a player constitutes a critical moment in a handball game that leads to a 2-minute numerical superiority for the opponent, from which is expected to take an important advantage.

(b) (i) State any three basic skills used in the game of Handball. [9]
(ii) How many team time-outs is a team entitled to take in a match ? What is its duration ?
(iii) What is meant by Running in a game of Handball ?
Answer:
(i) Basic skills of Handball:
1. Pass : A pass, basic element of play, is an essential move in handball. The ball may be passed or thrown to a teammate in various ways, such as overhead pass, underarm pass, bounce pass, hook pass, jump pass, etc. The speed and accuracy of passes is often the gauge of a team’s skill level.

2. Jump-Throw : The shooter jumps up to throw at the goal. To be effective, the jump throw should be preceded by a run up (maximum of three steps). It is nothing less powerful than the standing throw. Jump-throw is more accurate and allows the player to have direct shot at the goal, as player jumps above the defender, who might otherwise block the ball.

3. Fall Away-Throw : The fall away-throw is a spectacular variation of the jump-throw. It is used for throws over goalpost from the wings (at the edge of the goal area). The shooter jumps up and just before he throws, he twists laterally so that he is almost horizontal in the air and then throws.

4. Dribble: It is a skill of controlling the ball from opponents, to keep the possession of the ball by bouncing. A good dribbling skill often dodges or fakes to approaching opponent.

(ii) Time-outs: A time-out is obligatory when: Each team has the right to receive one 1-minute team time-out in each half of the regular playing time, but not in overtime

  • a 2-minute suspension or disqualification is given;
  • a team time-out is granted;
  • there is a whistle signal from the timekeeper or the delegate;
  • consultations between the referees are necessary.

(iii) Running : A player with ball is not allowed to run or move more than 3 steps without dribbling the ball otherwise fault of running is given to opponent.

(c) (i) State any four duties of the referee in Handball. [8]
(ii) List any four situations when a referee gives a two-minute suspension to a player.
Answer:
(i) Duties of Referee : Two referees are there, both standing diagonally opposite to each other. They assist one another for better coordination among them.

  • They judge the fair play in their halves and give decision accordingly.
  • They start the game by throw-off and end the game by blowing whistle.
  • They signal fouls, timeout, enforce foul and penalties, side-pass, suspend player, warning to player.
  • They indicate the beginning of the passive play and control the game under rules.
  • They give decision when goal has been scored. They check player’s equipments, ball, ground dimensions; ground safety area, etc.

(ii) 2- Minute suspension :
(a) fouls that are committed with high intensity or against an opponent who is running fast;
(b) holding on to the opponent for a long time, or pulling him down;
(c) fouls against the head, throat or neck;
(d) hard hitting against the torso or throwing arm;
(e) attempting to make the opponent lose body control (e.g., grabbing the leg/foot of an opponent who is jumping.)
(f) running or jumping with great speed into an opponent.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Hockey

Question 12.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A long comer
(ii) A raised ball
(iii) Astro turf
(iv) Sudden death
Answer:
(i) A Long corner : Long-Comer : When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players. It is awarded to the attacking team after the ball goes over the end line (not between the goalposts) from the stick of the defender. The ball is placed five yards away from the sideline over the end line.

(ii) A Raised ball: Raised ball: The ball should not be raised in penalty area. Referee hold palms facing each other horizontally in front of the body, with one palm approximately 150 mm above the other.

(iii) Astro turf : It is the artificially made surface (synthetic surface) proving the feeling of grass surface (artificial grass surface), water is also sprinkled over it for reducing the roughness. This AstroTurf is used to conduct all international matches.

(iv) Sudden death : If there is Tie during regular time, then two halves of 10 min each are played as extended time. If there is still Tie, then ‘Sudden-Death’ is followed, in which five players of each team attempt to push the ball while opponent goalkeeper defends the ball. This is performed alternatively by each team, afterward one-to-one attempt is followed to break Tie.

(b) (i) Explain the term comer push. [9]
(ii) Mention any three situations when a penalty stroke is awarded.
(iii) What are the basic compulsory equipment required by a player in Hockey ?
Answer:
(i) Corner push : This is a kind of push used in penalty comer (short-comer) or from long comer. In this skill player pushes the ball with power so that it should quickly reach to own teammate.

(ii) Penalty stroke : A penalty stroke is awarded :

  • for an offence by a defender in the circle which prevents the probable scoring of a goal
  • for an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who has possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball

(iii) Proper kit, hockey shoes, long stocking, skin guard and stick. Field players of the same team must wear uniform clothing. Players must not wear anything which is dangerous to other players.

(c) (i) What is the procedure to resume the game when the ball is played over the back line unintentionally by a defender ? [8]
(ii) Name any four playing positions in the game of Hockey.
Answer:
(i) If played unintentionally by a defender or deflected by a goalkeeper or player with goalkeeping privileges, play is re-started with the ball on the 23 metres line and in line with where it crossed the back-line and the procedures for taking a free hit apply. With the ball being placed on the line, the re-start is effectively within the 23 metres area and the provisions for taking a free hit are applicable.

(ii)

  • Striker,
  • Center forward,
  • Leftwinger,
  • Rightwinger,
  • Midfielder,
  • Full backer,
  • Swipper

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 13.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) Side line hit
(ii) Rolling substitutions
(iii) A comer
(iv) A goal line
Answer:
(i) Side Line hit: If ball goes out from sideline, then opposite team gets sideline hit from the point where it has gone outside.

(ii) Rolling Substitutions : Any player can be changed from reserve players or substitutes without intimation to Referee. No extra time or stopping of game is given. There can be any number of rolling substitution from the substitute player, except during penalty corner.

(iii) A Corner: When ball goes outside from the end line (intentional) by the defending players. It is awarded to the attacking team after the ball goes over the end line (not between the goalposts) from the stick of the defender. The ball is placed five yards away from the sideline over the end line.

(iv) A Goal line : The back-line between the goal-posts.

(b) (i) State the importance of the shooting circle in the Hockey. [9]
(ii) Explain the term Dribbling.
(iii) Write any three duties of a captain.
Answer:
(i) Shooting Circle : A goal is scored when the ball is played within the circle by an attacker and does not travel outside the circle before passing completely over the goal-line and under the crossbar. The ball may be played by a defender or touch their body before or after being played in the circle by an attacker.

(ii) Dribbling: It is tackling the ball with the stick work. The movement of ball is controlled by rolling stick around it, while maintaining constant control of it with the stick.

(iii) Duties of Captain :

  • To toss for choice of start or side.
  • To nominate a player as captain ifhe is substituted or suspended from the game and informs the Referee of the change made.
  • He will be responsible for the conduct of his players on the field.

(c) Explain the following : [8]
(i) A ball out of play
(ii) Advantage
(iii) Yellow card
(iv) Flick
Answer:
(i) A ball out of play : The ball is out of play when it passes completely over the side-line or back-line.

(ii) Advantage: A penalty is awarded only when a player or team has been disadvantaged by an opponent breaking the Rules. Referee extends one arm high from the shoulder in the direction in which the benefiting team is playing.

(iii) Yellow card : It is temporary suspension to a player for a minimum of 5 minutes of playing time indicated by a yellow card or warning.

(iv) Flick: This technique is used for penalty strokes. It is similar to push but the ball which is lifted at a low height.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Basketball

Question 14.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A substitution
(ii) A chest pass
(iii) A held ball
(iv) A jump ball
Answer:
(i) A Substitution : A substitution is an interruption of the game requested by the substitute to become a player.

(ii) A Chest Pass : It is a direct pass to own teammate at chest level. Ball is passed with initial momentum depending upon the distance to pass. It is passed with both hands which are flexed initially and later extended towards passing.

(iii) A Held Ball : It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw-in (by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line (earlier jump-ball was performed under this condition).

(iv) A Jump Ball: A jump ball is a technique of starting the game in the beginning, from the circles. It takes place when official tosses the ball between the two opposing players – with new rules only one time the jump-ball is done and next time it is done with throw- in.

(b) (i) Explain the term low dribble. [9]
(ii) What do you mean by man to man marking?
(iii) Mention any three duties of the scorer in a basketball match.
Answer:
(i) Low dribble : It is a defensive dribble to keep the control over the ball (when opponent is close). The ball is bounced at low height up to knee and body shields the opponent, body is slightly crouched.

(ii) Man to man marking : It is defensive skill where each player checks or guards or screens the opponent player (during opponent ball possession).

(iii) Duties of Scorer:

  • He shall make chronological running summary of points scored and shall record the field goals or basket scored made along with free-throws.
  • He shall record the personal and technical fouls of each player.
  • He shall indicate the number of fouls committed by each player by using number marker.
  • He shall record the team fouls and raise free- throw flag in case of more than four fouls in each quarter.

(c) (i) State any four Occasions when a ball becomes dead during the match. [8]
(ii) Write the dimensions of:
1. The length of the Basketball court.
2. The breadth of the Basketball court.
3. The radius of center circle.
4. The diameter of the ring.
Answer:
(i) The ball becomes dead when :

  • Any field goal or free throw is made.
  • An official blows his whistle while the ball is live.
  • The game clock signal sounds for the end of the period.
  • The shot clock signal sounds while a team is in control of the ball.

(ii) Write the dimensions of:
1. The length of the Basketball court: 28 meters
2. The breadth of the Basketball court: 15 meters
3. The radius of center circle : 1.80 meters
4. The diameter of the ring : 45 centimeters

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Question 15.
(а) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A direct shot
(ii) Charging
(iii) A technical foul
(iv) A team foul
Answer:
(i) A Direct Shot: This is the most common shot for 3 points also known as Jump Shot. In this one hand is used to push the ball and other directs the ball towards the basket with the jump. Hand extends over the head with full accuracy.

(ii) Charging: It is personal contact, with or without ball, by pushing illegal guarding. It is preventing defence from rear of player or backside of player.

(iii) A Technical Foul: When a player or coach performs unsportsmanlike act or misconduct or violent act deliberately. In this foul opponent gets two free- throws along with throw-in from centre.

(iv) A Team Foul: These are total fouls of team. If the team fouls exceed more than four fouls in each quarter then opponent team is awarded with two free-throws on each foul.

(b) (i) Name any three time-rule fouls in Basketball. [9]
(ii) Name any three fouls which involve personal contact with the opponent.
(iii) Name any three violations which are done without obstructing an opponent.
Answer:
(i) (1) Playing Time: The playing time period is of 40 min duration which is extended into four quarters. The rest period in-between I to II and III to IV quarters is 2 min whereas, in half (between II to III quarter) it is 5 min to 10 min, i.e., 10-2; 10-5/10; 10 – 2 ; 10. The game clock starts when the ball reaches the highest point on a toss, during a jump ball is tapped by the first player.

(2) Extra Time : In case of tie during normal time period of 40 min the game is extended for 5 min play. It can further be extended up to break of tie.

(3) ‘24’-Seconds Rule : Whenever team gains possession of ball, they are supposed to attempt the basket within 24 seconds.

(4) ‘8’-Seconds Rule: After the score or due to foul or any other reason if team gets the possession of ball they are supposed to move the ball in the front of court (from the rear half of court) within ‘8’ seconds. (Earlier it was 10 second rule).

(ii) Illegal contact with the opposing player. These fouls are charging, illegal blocking, guarding from behind, holding or pushing opponent, illegal-screening.

(iii) It is an infraction of rules of game :

  • Travelling : Illegal movement of the ball like running without bounce or passing while running.
  • Caring: A player with ball dribbles the ball with the shifting palm rather than the finger.
  • Double-Dribble : A player while dribbling the ball cannot use both hands simultaneously for dribble. He can use both hands only while receiving or while passing the ball.
  • Out of Bound : Ball hits the boundary line or it bounces out of play-field.
  • Back-Court: If ball is passed from the front court to the rear court to own teammate.

(c) (i) What is intentional foul ? What is the penalty for it? [8]
(ii) What is the procedure applied to start the game ?
Answer:
(i) Intentional foul /Technical Foul: If a technical foul is committed: By a player, a technical foul shall be charged against him as a player foul and shall count as one of the team fouls. By team bench personnel, a technical foul shall be charged against the coach and shall not count as one of the team fouls.
Penalty for Intentional foul / Technical Foul

  • The opponents shall be awarded 1 free throw, followed by:
  • A throw-in at the centre line extended, opposite the scorer’s table.
  • A jump ball in the centre circle to start the first period.

(ii) Jump-Ball : A jump ball is a technique of starting the game in the beginning, from the circles. It takes place when official tosses the ball between the two opposing players only one time the jump-ball is done and next time it is done with throw-in.
Jump ball procedure
1. Each jumper shall stand with both feet inside the half of the centre circle nearest to his own basket with one foot close to the centre line.

2. Team-mates may not occupy adjacent positions around the circle if an opponent wishes to occupy one of those positions.

3. The official shall then toss the ball vertically upwards between the 2 opponents, higher than either of them can reach by jumping.

4. The ball must be tapped with the hand(s) of at least one of the jumpers after it reaches its highest point.

5. Neither jumper shall leave his position until the ball has been legally tapped.

6. Neither jumper may catch the ball or tap it more than twice until it has touched one of the non¬jumpers or the floor.

7. If the ball is not tapped by at least one of the jumpers, the jump ball shall be repeated.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

Volleyball

Question 16.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) Free zone
(ii) Back line
(iii) Antenna
(iv) A catch
Answer:
(i) Free zone : An area by the sides of court which can be used during game. It is 3 to 5 meters on all sides of court.
(ii) Back line : A line at the back of court at 9 m from net. It is also known as service line.
(iii) Antenna : An extended upright over the net which gives the idea of sideline. It is 80 cm in length whereas 80 cm is above the net.
(iv) A catch : The ball is caught and/or thrown; it does not rebound from the hit.

(b) (i) How many contacts are permitted in returning the ball over the net ? Explain the procedure. [9]
(ii) What is meant by the term libero ?
(iii) What do you mean by expulsion ?
Answer:
(i) Four Hits : The team is entitled to a maximum of three hits (in addition to blocking), for returning the ball. If more are used, the team commits the fault of “Four Hits”.

(ii) Libero: A specialized defensive player (wears different colour kit) who plays in rear half to provide rest to certain player. He can be substituted anytime during match from rear row player. He cannot serve, block and smash (he can smash behind the attack line).

(iii) Expulsion: A player or coach is expelled and not allowed to play further, if he repeatedly performs misconduct. He is not even allowed to sit over team bench.

(c) (i) Explain the procedure of substitution during the game. [8]
(ii) Enumerate any four duties of the first referee.
Answer:
(i) Substitution Procedure : Replacement of one or more players from the listed substitution apart from libero. The coach of the team requests for substitution to the assistant Referee. An area 3 meters away towards sideline (substitution area) is allowed to move for substitution. When Referee signals for substitution the player should move out and substitute player should enter.

(ii) Duties of First Referee :

  • He is responsible for the conduct of match under rules and regulations from the start until the end.
  • He is the final authority as far as the decision of match is concerned.
  • He can replace other officials who are not performing duty properly.
  • Referee controls all the situations of the match under rules. Referee performs toss before the start of match.
  • He whistles for service.
  • He can overrule the decisions of other officials if required.
  • He gives fault, warning,

Question 17.
(a) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A collective block
(ii) Assisted hit
(iii) Dead ball
(iv) Time out
Answer:
(i) A Collective Block : A block executed by two or more players in an attempt to block the coming ball.
(ii) Assisted hit: A player when takes the support from teammate or any other structure or object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.
(iii) Dead ball: The ball is out of play at the moment of the fault which is whistled by one of the referees; in the absence of a fault, at the moment of the whistle.
(iv) Time out : It is temporarily interruption asked by the coach during game. Each team may request a maximum of two timeouts. All requested timeouts last for 30 seconds.

ICSE 2018 Physical Education Question Paper Solved for Class 10

(b) (i) What is meant by ball in play ? [9]
(ii) What is ‘screening’?
(iii) List any three faults that a player is likely to commit while playing the ball.
Answer:
(i) Ball in Play : The ball is in play from the moment of the hit of the service authorized by the 1 st referee.
(ii) Screening: A player of servicing team must not prevent the visibility of service player. The collective screening, from seeing the server or the flight path of the ball is illegal.
(iii) Faults during Playing Ball : A team hits the ball four times before returning it, Assisted Hit, Catch, Double Contact.

(c) Explain the following terms : [8]
(i) A side out
(ii) A penalty
(iii) Carrying the ball
(iv) A penetration- Fault
Answer:
(i) A Side Out: When the active ball touches or contacts the floor outside the boundary line.
(ii) A Penalty : After the first warning the second misconduct is penalty. In this, team is penalized with the loss of a point or a rally.
(iii) Carrying the ball: If ball rests momentarily in the hands of the player, i.e., it is held for short duration in the action, it is illegal.
(iv) A Penetration Fault : A fault given when the opponent player enters into the opponent area in air; by crossing centre line by foot or by hands over the net during smash, block or lift.

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Solving ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2021 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Paper 2021 Solved Semester 1

Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: One hour

General Instructions

  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
  • The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [].
  • Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1.
The ………. expects the organization to follow the laws of the country, pay taxes honestly etc. [1]
(a) Suppliers
(b) Employees
(c) Government
(d) Competitors
Answer:
(c) Government

Question 2.
Which of the following has these three features : tangible, durable and transferable ? [ 1 ]
(a) Trade
(b) Service
(c) Selling
(d) Product
Answer:
(d) Product

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 3.
Rent received and commission received are examples of: [1]
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Capital Receipts
(d) Revenue Receipts
Answer:
(d) Revenue Receipts

Question 4.
Any paid form of non-personal presentation or promotion of ideas, goods or services by an identified sponsor is termed as: [1]
(a) Advertising
(b) Publicity
(c) Sales Promotion
(d) Personal Selling
Answer:
(a) Advertising

Question 5.
A misleading label on a product is a violation of which consumer right ? [1]
(a) The Right to Safety
(b) The Right to Choose
(c) The Right to Consumer Education
(d) The Right to be informed
Answer:
(d) The Right to be informed

Question 6.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of E-Commerce over Traditional Commerce ? [1]
(a) Global market place
(b) Tailor-made product and services
(c) Reduction in cycle time of a transaction
(d) High operating cost
Answer:
(d) High operating cost

Question 7.
Stakeholders who contribute to the business enterprise from outside the organization are known as : [ 1 ]
(a) External Stakeholder
(b) Internal Stakeholder
(c) General Public
(d) Creditors
Answer:
(a) External Stakeholder

Question 8.
……… are people who provide money as loans to a commercial organization. [1]
(a) Suppliers
(b) Creditors
(c) Government
(d) Employees
Answer:
(b) Creditors

Question 9.
……… involves creation of liability and is shown on the liabilities side of the Balance Sheet. [ 1 ]
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Capital Receipts
(d) Revenue Receipts
Answer:
(c) Capital Receipts

Question 10.
Cost of sugarcane in making sugar is an example of …….. cost. [1]
(a) Direct
(b) Variable
(c) Indirect
(d) Semi-variable
Answer:
(a) Direct

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 11.
……….. is non-repetitive one-time communication that helps to increase immediate sales. [ 1 ]
(a) Advertising
(b) Publicity
(c) E-tailing
(d) Sales Promotion
Answer:
(d) Sales Promotion

Question 12.
……….. means exchanging goods for money and is production oriented. [1]
(a) Sales
(b) Marketing
(c) Pricing
(d) Advertising
Answer:
(a) Sales

Question 13.
……… expenditure is incurred for meeting day to day expenses of business and its benefit is exhausted within the current accounting year. [ 1 ]
(a) Capital
(b) Revenue
(c) Deferred Revenue
(d) Capital Receipts
Answer:
(b) Revenue

Question 14.
CRM in E-commerce stands for: [ 1 ]
(a) Convenient Relationship Management
(b) Customer Relationship Management
(c) Consumer Related Marketing
(d) Chain Related Management
Answer:
(b) Customer Relationship Management

Question 15.
The accounting treatment for Revenue expenditure like rent paid, insurance etc. is : [1]
(a) Income in Trading and Profit and loss account
(b) Expense in Trading and Profit and loss account
(c) Asset in the Balance Sheet
(d) Liability in the Balance Sheet
Answer:
(b) Expense in Trading and Profit and loss account

Question 16.
‘Horse dung is mixed in dhania powder ’ – Which type of Consumer Exploitation is it ? [1]
(a) Overcharging
(b) Under weighing
(c) Adulteration
(d) Misleading Advertising
Answer:
(c) Adulteration

Question 17.
Electronic Retailing represents …………. side of e-commerce. [1]
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) C2C
(d) C2G
Answer:
(b) B2C

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 18.
Which module of the ERP system helps to manage employee information, salaries and staff payment records etc. ? [ 1 ]
(a) Human Resource Module
(b) Inventory Module
(c) Sales Module
(d) Production Module
Answer:
(a) Human Resource Module

Question 19.
‘Telephone cost’ is an example of ………. cost. [1]
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Semi-Variable
(d) Direct
Answer:
(c) Semi-Variable

Question 20.
Individuals who provide physical and mental effort for an organization are known as : [1]
(a) Employers
(b) Employees
(c) Suppliers
(d) Creditors
Answer:
(b) Employees

Question 21.
………. is an expectation of employers. [1]
(a) Safety of loans given by them to the enterprise
(b) Fair and regular return on their capital
(c) Avoid monopoly and concentration of economic power
(d) Respect for intellectual property rights
Answer:
(b) Fair and regular return on their capital

Question 22.
Salary paid to a mill manager is an example of ………. cost. [1]
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Fixed
(d) Semi-Variable
Answer:
(b) Indirect

Question 23.
Which of the following is a technique used for Sales Promotion ? [1]
(a) Marketing
(b) Publicity
(c) Exchange Offers
(d) Personal Selling
Answer:
(c) Exchange Offers

Question 24.
……….. is a computer software system used to manage all the resources of an organization. [1]
(a) E-Tailing
(b) E-Marketing
(c) E-advertising
(d) ERP
Answer:
(d) ERP

Question 25.
……….. is an example of Capital Expenditure. [1]
(a) Purchase of a machine
(b) Cleaning and greasing office fans
(c) Goods purchased for resale
(d) Money paid as taxes Answer:
Answer:
(a) Purchase of a machine

Question 26.
…….. is a consumer right. [ 1 ]
(a) Right to Legislation
(b) Right to Trade Practices
(c) Right to Seek Redressal
(d) Right to Equality
Answer:
(c) Right to Seek Redressal

Question 27.
……… is a demerit of advertising. [ 1 ]
(a) Incentive to progress
(b) Introduction of a new product
(c) Misleading the consumer
(d) Generation of employment Answer:
Answer:
(c) Misleading the consumer

Question 28.
…….. cost is activity based. It increases with increase in output. [1]
(a) Fixed
(b) Variable
(c) Semi-Variable
(d) Direct
Answer:
(b) Variable

Question 29.
………. is a meaningful mark for measuring market success or position of the firm in relation to those of the competitors. [1]
(a) Target Rate of Return
(b) Profit Maximization
(c) Market Share
(d) Price Stability
Answer:
(c) Market Share

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 30.
Setting up measures and rules against attacks on the internet, protection of data and information stored on computers is
known as ……….[ 1 ]
(a) E-Marketing
(b) E-Advertising
(c) E-Tailing
(d) E-Security
Answer :
(d) E-Security

Question 31.
An institution which is an expert at designing advertisements and releasing them through appropriate media is known as ……. [1]
(a) Bank
(b) Stock Exchange
(c) Advertising Agency
(d) Insurance Company
Answer:
(c) Advertising Agency

Question 32.
Heavy advertising expenses, heavy repairs, expenditure to move the business to a more convenient location are examples of …….. [1]
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital receipts
Answer:
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure

Question 33.
……. begins before production and continues even after sale. [1]
(a) Marketing
(b) Selling
(c) Consumption
(d) Distribution
Answer:
(a) Marketing

Question 34.
Insurance, banking, beauty parlour etc. are examples of ……. [1]
(a) Services
(b) Products
(c) Pricing
(d) Technology
Answer:
(a) Services

Question 35.
The ……… module of ERP can be used to track the stock of items using unique serial numbers to trace their current location within the organization. [1]
(a) Sales
(b) Purchase
(c) Human Resource
(d) Inventory
Answer:
(d) Inventory

Question 36.
Costs like Rent, Insurance etc. which do not change in spite of changes in the volume of output are …….. costs. [1]
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Fixed
(d) Variable
Answer:
(c) Fixed

Question 37.
To help the weaker sections of society by giving them preference in employment, to respect human rights including rights of women and children etc. are expectations of ………..
(a) Employers
(b) Employees
(c) Society
(d) Suppliers
Answer:
(c) Society

Question 38.
Creation of demand, Improving the standard of living, Customer satisfaction are objectives of … [ 1 ]
(a) Selling
(b) Pricing
(c) Marketing
(d) Publicity
Answer:
(c) Marketing

Question 39.
……… refers to advertising about socially relevant issues like Swachch Bharat Abhiyan, Do Gaj Doori Mask Hai Jaroori, Blood Donation etc. [1]
(a) Selling
(b) Sales Promotion
(c) Marketing
(d) Social Advertising
Answer:
(d) Social Advertising

ICSE 2021 Commercial Studies Question Paper Solved Semester 1 for Class 10

Question 40.
The consumer has the right to be protected against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and property.
This comes under the Right to ……… [1]
(a) Safety
(b) Choose
(c) Be Heard
(d) Be Informed
Answer:
(a) Safety