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ICSE Class 10 English Language Previous Year Question Papers: Students can download these ICSE Class 10 English Language Practice Papers With Answers Pdf to know the exact exam pattern and to check the types of questions asked along with their marking system and time allotted for each question. Check out the ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 to help in the self-assessment of students. Students are advised to practice the below-mentioned Class 10 ICSE English Language Paper to ace their exam with good marks.

ICSE English Language Paper Solved | ICSE Class 10 English Language Practice Papers With Answers

Students can access the Previous Year Question Paper Class 10 ICSE English Language along with the detailed solution and marking scheme by clicking on the link below.

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Last 10 Years ICSE English Language Paper | ICSE Class 10 English Language Paper

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This English Language Class 10 ICSE Previous Year Question Paper is designed in such a way that it helps a student to focus on the subject concepts that are mentioned in the syllabus. Students can practice the Class 10 ICSE English Language Question Paper to get an idea of the type of questions asked in the board English Language paper. We hope students must have found these 10 Years Question Paper ICSE English Language will be useful for their exam preparation.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Computer Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Computer Applications Question Paper 2021 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Computer Applications Question Paper 2021 Solved Semester 1

Maximum Marks: 50
Time allowed: 1 hour

General Instructions:

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
• The marks intended for each question are given in brackets [ ].

Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:
(i) The blueprint that defines the variables and the methods common to all of a certain kind is termed as: [1]
(a) class
(b) object
(c) package
(d) method
Answer:
(a) class

(ii) A data type which contains integer as well as fractional part and occupies 32 bits space is: [ 1 ]
(a) float
(b) char
(c) double
(d) byte
Answer:
(a) float

(iii) What is the final value stored in variable x? double x = Math, ceil (Math.abs(-7.3)); [1]
(a) 7.0
(b) 8.0
(c) 6.0
(d) 9.0
Answer:
(b) 8.0

(iv) Which of the following keyword is used to create symbolic constants in Java ? [1]
(a) final
(b) Final
(c) Constant
(d) Const
Answer:
(a) final

(v) Name the type of error in the statement given below: [ 1 ]
double x;y;z;
(a) Logical error
(b) Syntax error
(c) Runtime error
(d) No error
Answer:
(b) Syntax error

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with the correct options :
(i) The keyword to create an object of a class is ………………… . [ 1 ]
(a) create
(b) new
(c) New
(d) NEW
Answer:
(b) new

(ii) The operator which acts on one operand is known as ………………… . [1]
(a) binary
(b) ternary
(c) unary
(d) relational
Answer:
(c) unary

(iii) The ASCII code of ‘B’ is ………………… . [1]
(a) 67
(b) 66
(c) 98
(d) 99
Answer:
(b) 66

(iv) A ………………….. method needs to be called with help of an object. [1]
(a) void
(b) class
(c) non-static
(d) static
Answer:
(c) non-static

(v) Parameters used in the method call statement are ………………… [1]
(a) Actual parameters
(b) Informal parameters
(c) Formal parameters
(d) Void parameters
Answer:
(a) Actual parameters

Question 3.
Name the following:
(i) The concept of having more than one constructor with different types of parameters: [ 1 ]
(a) Copy constructor
(b) Method overloading
(c) Constructor overloading
(d) Overloaded methods
Answer:
(c) Constructor overloading

(ii) The keyword which indicates that the method returns no value: [1].
(a) public
(b) static
(c) void
(d) abstract
Answer:
(c) void

(iii) The process of binding the data and method together as one unit is called as : [1]
(a) Encapsulation
(b) Inheritance
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Dynamic binding
Answer:
(a) Encapsulation

(iv) The jump statement that is used inside a switch case construct to terminate a statement sequence: [ 1 ]
(a) continue
(b) break
(c) return
(d) goto
Answer:
(b) break

(v) The program code written in any high-level language to solve a problem is: [ 1 ]
(a) object code
(b) source code
(c) machine code
(d) bytecode
Answer:
(b) source code

Question 4.
State whether the statement is True or False:
(i) char is a non-primitive data type. [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(b) False

(ii) Multi line comments in Java start with /* and end with */. [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

(iii) == is an assignment operator. [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(b) False

(iv) Java compiler automatically creates a default constructor in case no constructor is present in the java class. [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

(v) System.exit(0) terminates the program from any point. [1]
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 5.
Choose the odd one: [1]
(i) (a) >=
(b) %
(c) /
(d) *
Answer:
(d) *

(ii) (a) double [1]
(b) int
(c) char
(d) String
Answer:
(d) String

(iii) (a) if else [1]
(b) if
(c) switch case
(d) while()
Answer:
(d) while()

(iv) (a) nextInt() [1]
(b) nextDouble()
(c) nextString
(d) next()
Answer:
(c) nextString

(v) (a) Robust [1]
(b) Platform Independent
(c) Inheritance
(d) Multihreading
Answer:
(c) Inheritance

Question 6.
Give the output of the following:
(i) int x = 2, y = 4,z = 1; [1]
int result =(++z) + 7 + (++x) + (Z++)i
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 9
Answer:
(a) 11

(ii) intx; [1]
for (x = 1; x < = 3; x + +);
System. out.print(x);
(a) 123
(b) 123 4
(c) 4
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) 4

(iii) intf=10,m=9;
Stringe=(m%f==9) ? “YES”: “NO”;
System.out.print (e);
(a) YES
(b) NO
(c) YESNO
(d) NOYES
Answer:
(a) YES

(iv) switch(x){
case M’:
System. out.print(”Microsoft Teams “);
break;
case ‘G’;
System.out.print(“Google Meet”);
default:
System.out.print(“Any software”); }
break;
case W:
System.out.print(“Web Ex”);
break;
}
When x = ‘g’
(a) Google Meet
(b) Any software
(c) Google Meet
Any software
(d) WebEx
Answer:
(b) Any software

(v) int v = 5;
while (- v >= 0) {
System.out.prmt(v);
)
(a) 43210
(b) 54321
(c) 543210
(d) 4321
Answer:
(a) 43210

Question 7.
Given below is a class with following spec ijications:
class name : Number
void Display(int n) – To extract and print each digit of given number from last digit of the first digit on separate lines.
Example: n = 674
Output
4
7
6
void Display() – To print numbers from 0.5 to 5.0 with updation of 0.5.
Fill in the blanks of the given program with appropriate statements.

class (i) __________
{
void Display (int n) {
while ((ii) __________ )
{
int rem=(iii)
System.out.println(rem);
n=(iv) __________
}
void Display() {
for(v)__________;x <= (vi)__________;x + = 0.5)
System.out.println(x);
}
}

(i) (a) Number [1]
(b) number
(c) NUMBER
(d) NUM
Answer:
(a) Number

(ii) (a) n < 0 [1]
(b) n > 0
(c) n == 0
(d) n = 0
Answer:
(b) n > 0

(iii) (a) n %100 [1]
(b) n/10;
(e) n%10;
(d) n/100
Answer:
(c) n%10;

(iv) (a) n%10; [1]
(b) n/10;
(c) n/100;
(d) n%100
Answer:
(b) n/10;

(v) (a) double x = 0.5
(b) Double x = 0.5
(c) double x = 0.0
(d) Double x = 0.0
Answer:
(a) double x = 0.5

(vi) (a) x >= 5.0 [1]
(b) x <= 5.0
(c) x == 5.0
(d) x = 5.0
Answer:
(b) x <= 5.0

Question 8.
A school is giving away merit certificates for the students who have scored 90 percentage and above in class 10.
The following program is based on the specification given below. Fill in the blanks with appropriate Java statements.
class name : Student
Member variables:
String name: To enter name of a student
double per: To enter perentage obtained by the student
String cer: To store the message
Member method
void input (): To accept the detail
void merit (): To check the percentage and award the merit
void display (): To display the detail
void main (): To create an object of the class and invoke the methods

import java.(i) __________. *;
class Student {
String name; double per;
String cer; void inputQ {
Scanner obj=new Scanner (System.in);
System.out.printlh(”Enter name, Percentage”);
name = obj.next();
per=(ii) __________
}
void merit()
{
if ((iii) __________ )
{
cer="AWARDED";
}
else
cer=(iv) __________
}
void(v) __________
{
System, out.println(name);
System.out.println(per);
System.out.println(cer);
}
void main(){
Student s = new (vi) __________
s.input();
s.merit();
s.display();
}
}

(i) (a) utility [1]
(b) Util
(c) util
(d) UTILITY
Answer:
(c) util

(ii) (a) obj.nextDouble(); [1]
(b) nextDouble();
(c) obj.nextFloat();
(d) nextFloat()
Answer:
(a) obj.nextDouble();

(iii) (a) per>=90 [1]
(b) per<=90
(c) per>90
(d) per==90
Answer:
(a) per>=90

(iv) (a) NOT AWARDED; [1]
(b) “NOT AWARDED”
(c) “AWARDED”;
(d) “NOT AWARDED”
Answer:
(b) “NOT AWARDED”;

(v) (a) display() [1]
(b) Display()
(c) Print()
(d) DISPLAY()
Answer.
(a) display()

(vi) (a) Student(); [1]
(b) STUDENT()
(c) student()
(d) Student()
Answer:
(a) Student();

Question 9.
The following program segment checks whether number is an Abundant number or not. A number is said to be an Abundant number when the sum of its factors (excluding the number itself) is greater than the number.
Example:
Factors of number 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
Sum of factors is 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 = 16
Fill in the blanks with appropriate java statements void abundantfint n)
{int s = 0;
for((i) ________ ; (ii) ________ ; i++)
{ if((iii) _________)
s=s+i;}
if((iv)_________)
System.out.println(“Abundant Number”);
else
System.out.println(“Not Abundant Number”);
}
(i) (a) int i = 1 [1]
(b) int i = 0
(c) int i = 2
(d) Int i = 1
Answer:
(a) int i = 1

(ii) (a) i <= n [1]
(b) i < n
(c) i > n
(d) i >= n
Answer.
(b) i < n

(iii) (a) n%i == 0 [1]
(b) n%i == 1
(c) n%2 == 0
(d) n/2 == 0
Answer.
(a) n%i == 0

(iv) (a) s < n
(b) s > n
(c) s == n
(d) s = n
Answer:
(b) s > n

Question 10.
Read the following case study and answer the questions given below by choosing the correct option:
Java compilation is different from the compilation of other high-level languages. Other high-level languages use interpreter or compiler but in Java, the source code is first compiled to produce an intermediate code called the byte code, this byte code is platform independent and is a highly optimized set of instructions designed to be executed by Java in the run time system called JVM (Java Virtual Machine), JVM is a Java interpreter loaded in the computer memory as soon as Java is loaded JVM is different for different platforms.
(i) Full form of JVM is: [1]
(a) Java Visual Machine
(b) Joint Vision Mechanism
(c) Java Virtual Machine
(d) Java virtual mechanism
Answer:
(c) Java Virtual Machine

(ii) JAVA code is: [1]
(a) Compiled and interpreted
(b) Only compiled
(c) Only Interpreted
(d) Translated
Answer:
(a) Compiled and interpreted

(iii) JAVA source code is compiled to produce: [ 1 ]
(a) Object code
(b) Byte code
(c) Final code
(d) Machine code
Answer:
(b) Byte code

(iv) JVM is an/a __________ . [1]
(a) Interpreter
(b) Compiler
(c) Intermediate-code
(d) High level language
Answer:
(a) Interpreter

Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2022 Semester 2 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Maximum Marks: 40
Time Allowed: 1½ hours

General Instructions:

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to Write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section-A and any three questions from Section-B.
• The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following: [10]
(i) Vindhya mountain
(ii) River Yamuna
(iii) Kolkata
(iv) Kanchenjunga
(v)Lake Chilka
(vi) Konkan coastal plain
(vii)Thar desert
(viii) Gulf of Khambhat
(ix) Mark with arrows the direction of N.E. Monsoon wind
(x) Mumbai High
(This map, (fused, must be fastened with all other answers).

Answer:

Section – B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Give any one use of Copper. [2]
(b) Names two Indian states in which iron ore is found in abundance.
Answer:
(a)

• Copper is a good conductor of electricity so it is used in electrical industry.
• Copper is also a good conductor of heat so it is used for making cooking utensils.
• As it is ductile, therefore, it is used to make electric cables.

(b) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) With reference to Hirakud project answer the following: [2]
(a) On which river is it based ?
(b) Name an Indian State benefitted by Hirakud project.
Answer:
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Odisha

(iii) Give three disadvantages of using coal. [3]
Answer:

• Coal is a non-renewable source of energy. It took millions of years to form, and a finite amount of it exists on our planet.
• Burning coal for energy releases toxins and greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide. These have an immediate impact on the local air quality, and contribute to global warming.
• Surface mining permanently alters the landscape and the ecosystem.

(iv) (a) Mention two advantages of nuclear power. [3]
(b) What is the advantage of using solar energy in place of the conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
(a)

• Cost of production is less.
• Less pollution in comparison to thermal power plants.

(b)

• Renewable source of energy.
• No cost for the raw material.
• No pollution.
• Reduce the use of fossil fuels.

Question 3.
(i) Mention two problems faced by the agriculture sector of India. [2]
Answer:
(a) Overdependent on nature: Indian agriculture is mainly dependent on monsoons. If there is heavy rain it leads to floods and if there is less rain it leads to famine.

(b) Old technology and more pressure on land : Our farmers still use old implements. They are very poor and cannot afford modern technology and implements. Secondly 67% of our population is directly or indirectly dependent on agriculture.

(ii) (a) Mention any one climatic condition found suitable for growing cotton. [2]
(b) Name the State that is the leading producer ofcotton in India.
Answer:
(a) Temperature: More than 21°C of temperature.
Rainfall: 50-100 cm of annual rainfall.

(b) Gujarat.

(iii) With reference to Rice cultivation answer the following: [3]
(a) Name the soil found suitable for its growth.
(b) Name the State that is the largest producer of this crop in India.
(c) In which cropping season is it generally grown in India ?
Answer:
(a) Loamy and alluvial soil.
(b) West Bengal.
(c) Rainy season.

(iv) (a) Name the State that is the largest producer of sugarcane in India. [3]
(b) Why more than two ratoon crops are not advisable for sugarcane farmers ?
(c) What is Zayad cropping season ?
Answer:
(a) Uttar Pradesh.

(b)

1. Ratoons produce low quality crop as the canes are thinner with lower sucrose.
2. There is also high risk of pests and diseases.

(c) Besides rabi and kharif crops, the farmers also grow an extra crop in the summer months of April, May and June just after the rabi crops have been harvested. This is known as ‘Zaid’. The season of the crop is very short and mainly fruits and vegetables are grown.

Question 4.
(i) Differentiate between mineral based and agro based industry giving suitable example for each from India. [2]
Answer:

(ii) Give two ways in which petro chemical industry is important for India. [2]
Answer:
(a) Petro chemicals are cost effective, economically stable, cheaper as these are produced on mass scale.
(b) Its raw material is easily available.

(iii) With reference to Tata steel plant answer the following: [3]
(a) Where is it located?
(b) From where does it get its coal requirements?
(c) From where does it get its iron ore requirements ?
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand.
(b) Jharia.
(c) Singhbhum.

(iv) (a) Name any two byproducts of the sugar industry. [3]
(b) Why are the cotton textile industries mostly located in the coastal areas?
Answer:
(a) Molasses and Bagasse.

(b)

• Humid climatic condition is best for the weaving of cotton.
• India imports long staple cotton and exports cotton products. So, coastal location is best for export and import.
• High humid climatic condition of coastal areas offers high demand for cotton products throughout the year.

Question 5.
(i) Mention two advantages of using roadways. [2]
Answer:

1. Needs less investment.
2. Maintenance cost is low.
3. Door to door service.

(ii) What is the purpose of developing the Golden Quadrilateral in India? [2]
Answer:

• It will help in expanding the market.
• It will help in transporting men and material in a short period of time.

(iii) Mention three disadvantages of waterways. [3]
Answer:

• Water transport as a whole is much slower than its foad, rails or air competitors.
• It provides access to limited areas.
• Many a time rivers are not perennial.

(iv) Give a reason for the following: [3]
(a) Railways are not well developed in the North Eastern States of India.
Answer:

• Because the large number of rivers needs the construction of bridges, which requires heavy expenditure.
• There are few railways in the flood plains, in the Himalayan region because of its ruggedness.

(b) Air transport has gained popularity in recent time in India.
Answer:

• Air transport is the fastest mode of transport and, therefore, suitable carriage of goods over a long distance requiring less time.
• Air transport is regarded as the only means of transport in those areas which are not easily accessible to other modes of transport.

(c) NSEW is helpful for India.
Answer:

• It will help in expanding the market.
• It will help in transporting men and material in a short period of time.

Question 6.
(i) Why is there a need for waste management in large metropolitan cities? [2]
Answer:
The amount of waste is increasing in the tune with the rapidly growing industrialisation and urbanisation.
(a) New kinds of wastes are growing every year as a result of new packing materials. Domestic waste is increasing in volume.
(b) E-waste is growing at alarming rates and there is no proper method to handle this waste.

(ii) Why is composting considered a safe method of waste disposal? [2]
Answer:

• It supplies essential elements needed by the plants.
• It helps reduce the adverse effects of excessive alkalinity, acidity or the excessive use of chemical fertilizer.

(iii) (a) Why should we reuse waste? [3]
(b) How can farm waste be made useful?
(c) How is dumping of waste harmful?
Answer:
(iii) (a)

• Waste can be reused by recycling. For example, old newspapers, magazines can be recycled and the paper produced can be reused.
• Reuse reduces the generation of waste.

(b)

• Farm waste can be converted into manure to increase the fertility of the soil.
• They can be used for the generation of biogas.

(c) Waste accumulation causes foul smell, increase in the temperature and increase in the number of rodents and flies.

(iv) Mention three ways to reduce waste generation at home. [3]
Answer:

1. Practice reduce, reuse and recycle (selling old products to reduce waste).
2. Convert biodegradable waste to manure.
3. Create biogas plant to reduce kitchen waste.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Physics Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Paper 2014 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Paper 2014 Solved

Time: 2 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

• Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
• The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION – I (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this section)

Question 1.
(a) A force is applied on (i) a non-rigid body and (ii) a rigid body. How does the effect of the force differ in the above two cases? [2]
Answer:
A force when applied on a non-rigid body can change the dimensions of the body as well as can bring motion in the body while force applied on rigid body cannot change the dimensions as it cannot change the interspacing between the constituent particles but can cause motion in the body.

(b) A metallic ball is hanging by a string from a fixed support. Draw a neat labelled diagram showing the forces acting on the ball and the string. [2]
Answer:

(c) (i) What is the weight of a body placed at the centre of the earth?
(ii) What is the principle of an ideal machine? [2]
Answer:
(i) Weight of a body placed at the centre of earth will be zero.
(ii) Work done on machine = Work done by machine
Or Work input = Work output is the principle of an ideal machine where there is no dissipation of energy and efficiency of machine is 100%.

(d) Is it possible to have an accelerated motion with a constant speed? Explain. [2]
Answer:
Yes, when a body is moving in a circular motion, its direction keeps on changing but speed remains same. The continuous change in direction of motion means that the velocity is not uniform or body moving with variable velocity, so motion is called accelerated.

(e) (i) When does a force do work?
(ii) What is the work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth? [2]
Answer:
(i) When a force is able to cause displacement in the body work is done. But when force and displacement make an angle of 90° with each other, then no work is done.

(ii) Work done is zero when moon revolves around the earth, the force is the centripetal force and displacement at all instants is along the tangent to the circular path i. e., normal to the direction of force.

Question 2.
(a) Calculate the change in the Kinetic energy of a moving body if its velocity is reduced to 1/3rd of the initial velocity. [2]
Answer:
Let a body of mass ‘m’ is moving with ‘u’ m/s. So, initial K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mu². If velocity is reduced to \(\frac{1}{3}\) rd. Final K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m \(\left(\frac{u}{3}\right)^2=\frac{1}{2} \frac{m u^2}{9}\)

So K.E. becomes \(\frac{1}{9}\) th of its initial K.E.

(b) State the energy changes in the following devices while in use :
(i) A loud speaker.
(ii) A glowing electric bulb. [2]
Answer:
(i) A loud speaker converts electrical energy into sound energy.
(ii) A glowing electric bulb converts electrical energy into light energy and heat energy.

(c) (i) What is nuclear energy?
(ii) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclear energy. [2]
Answer:
(i) Nuclear energy is the energy released by nuclear fission and nuclear fusion processes in which mass of products is less than mass of reactants, so loss of mass gets converted into energy by Einstein formula E = Δmc², where E is energy released, Δm is loss in mass and c is speed of light which is 3 ×10⁸ ms^-1.

(ii) Nuclear fission in a nuclear power plant.

(d) State one important advantage and disadvantage each of using nuclear energy for producing electricity. [2]
Answer:
A very small amount of nuclear fuel can produce a tremendous amount of energy. But its disadvantage is that along with energy it produces highly energetic and penetrating harmful nuclear radiations which are very harmful to human body and also causes environmental pollution.

(e) (i) The conversion of part of the energy into an undesirable form is called
(ii) For a given height h, the length 1 of the inclined plane, lesser will be the effort required. [2]
Answer:
(i) Dissipation of energy.
(ii) More.

Question 3.
(a) Draw the diagram given below and clearly show the path taken by the emergent ray. [2]

Answer:

(b) (i) What is consumed using different electrical appliances, for which electricity bills are paid?
(ii) Name a common device that uses electromagnets.
Answer:
(i) Energy.
(ii) Electric bell, motor of fan, grinder etc.

(c) (i) A ray of light passes from water to air. How does the speed of light change?
(ii) Which colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air?
Answer:
(i) Speed of light increases when it goes from water to air.
(ii) Red colour.

(d) Name the factors affecting the critical angle for the pair of media.
Answer:
Critical angle for a given pair of media depends on the refractive index of that pair and it is affected by

1. colour or wavelength of light – critical angle is least for violet light and most for red light
2. temperature – critical angle increases with increase in temperature.

(e) (i) Name a prism required for obtaining a spectrum of Ultraviolet light.
(ii) Name the radiations which can be detected by a thermopile.
Answer:
(i) Quartz prism.
(ii) Infrared radiation.

Question 4.
(a) Why is the colour red used as a sign of danger? [2]
Answer:
Red colour has longest wavelength so scatters least and can penetrate to a longer distance. Thus, can be seen from large distance.

(b) (i) What are mechanical waves?
(ii) Name one property of waves that do no change when the wave passes from one medium to another. [2]
Answer:
(i) Mechanical waves require a material medium to travel. These waves travel in the medium through the vibrations of the medium particles about their mean positions.

(ii) Frequency of wave remains same.

(c) Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B. [2]

Answer:
Resistance 3 Ω, 3 Ω, and 3 Ω are parallel to each other (in CD).

So, \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{3}{3}\) ; R = 1 Ω
So, resistance from A to E = 1 + 5 = 6
Resistance across EB
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{3+2}{12}=\frac{5}{12}\) ;
R = \(\frac{12}{5}\) = 2.4 Ω
∴ Total resistance across AB = 6 + 2.4 = 8.4 Ω

(d) 50 g of metal piece at 27 °C requires 2400 J of heat energy so as to attain a temperature of 327 °C. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. [2]
Answer:
Mass of metal = 50 g
t₁ = 27°C
t₂ = 327°C
∴ Δt = 327 – 27 = 300°C
Q = 2400 J (Heat energy)
C = ?
Q = mCΔt
C = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{m \Delta t}=\frac{2400}{50 \times 300}\)
= 0.16 J/g/°C

(e) An electron emitter must have work function and melting point. [2]
Answer:
Low work function and high melting point.

SECTION – II (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)

Question 5.
(a) (i) A man having a box on his head, climbs up a slope and another man having an identical box walks the same distance on a levelled road. Who does more work against the force of gravity and why?
(ii) Two forces each of 5N act vertically upwards and downwards respectively on the two ends of a uniform metre rule which is placed at its mid-point as shown in the diagram. Determine the magnitude of the resultant moment of these forces about the midpoint. [4]

Answer:
(i) Work done by a man having a box on his head and climbing a rope is more as moving on the level road does no work (f × d cos 90° = 0).

(ii) Magnitude of resultant moment of forces about the mid-point
= 5 N × \(\frac{50}{100}\) m + 5 N × \(\frac{50}{100}\) m
= 2.5 Nm + 2.5 Nm
= 5 Nm (anticlockwise)

(b) (i) A body is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity keeps on decreasing. What happens to its kinetic energy as its velocity becomes zero?
(ii) Draw a diagram to show how a single pulley can be used so as to have its ideal M.A. = 2. [3]
Answer:
(i) Its kinetic energy keeps on getting converted into potential energy when the body is thrown vertically upwards as it gains height.

(ii) L = T + T = 2T
E = T
∴ M.A. = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~T}}{\mathrm{~T}}\) = 2
So it acts as a force multiplier.

(c) Derive a relationship between mechanical advantages, velocity ratio and efficiency of a machine. [3]
Answer:
M.A., V.R. and η
Efficiency η = \(\frac{\text { Work output }}{\text { Work input }}\)
Work output = Load × Load Arm
Work input = Effort × Effort Arm
η = \(\frac{L \times \text { L.A. }}{E \times \text { E.A }}\), But \(\frac{\text { E.A. }}{\text { L.A. }}\) = V.R. and \(\frac{L}{E}\) = M.A.
η = M.A. × \(\frac{1}{\text { V.R. }}\) or M.A. = V.R. × η

Question 6.
(a) (i) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. In what way does the direction of the two emergent beams differ and why?
(ii) Ranbir claims to have obtained an image twice the size of the object with a concave lens. Is he correct? Give a reason for your Answer. [4]
Answer:
(i)

Light when passes through a rectangular glass slab suffers refraction at two surfaces Q and R as it goes from rarer to denser and from denser to rarer. The same bending takes place at Q and R of glass prism also. But ray of light while passing through a glass prism always deviates towards its base i.e., towards surface BC only which is not in case of glass slab. In each refraction through glass prism the ray always bends towards the bases of prism.

(ii) No, a concave lens can always form a virtual, erect, diminished image as it has a virtual focus.

(b) A lens forms an erect, magnified and virtual image of an object.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation. [3]
Answer:
(i) Convex lens.
(ii) When object is between O and/of a convex lens. A’

(c) (i) Define the power of a lens.
(ii) The lens mentioned in 6(b) above is of focal length 25 cm. Calculate the power of the lens. [3]
Answer:
(i) Power of a lens is a measure of deviation produced by it in the path of rays refracted through it and is measured in Dioptres.
P (in D) = \(\frac{1}{f(m)}\) or \(\frac{100}{f(cm)}\)

(ii) Focal length of convex lens is taken positive.
f = +25 cm
P (in D) = 100/25 = +4 D

Question 7.
(a) The adjacent diagram shows three different modes of vibrations P, Q and R of the same string.
(i) Which vibrations will produce a louder sound and why?
(ii) The sound of which string will have maximum shrillness?
(iii) State the ratio of wavelengths of P and R. [4]

Answer:
(i) R, because its amplitude is more.
(ii) P, as frequency is more.
(iii) Ratio of wavelengths of P and R is 1 : 3.

(b) A type of electromagnetic wave has wavelength 50 A.
(i) Name the wave.
(ii) What is the speed of the wave in vacuum?
(iii) State one use of this type of wave. [3]
Answer:
(i) X – rays.
(ii) 3 × 10⁸ ms-¹.
(iii) They can penetrate through human flesh but are stopped by bones, hence used for detection of fracture and for diagnostic purpose.

(c) (i) State one important property of waves used for echo depth sounding.
(ii) A radar sends a signal to an aircraft at a distance of 30 km away and receives it back after 2 × 10^-4 second. What is the speed of the signal? [4]
Answer:
(i) They (ultrasonic waves) can travel undeviated through long distances and can be confined to a narrow beam. They are not absorbed easily.

(ii) Distance = 30 km = 30000 m
Time = 2 × 10^-4 s (for echo to be heard)
Speed = 2 d/t
= \(\) = 30000 × 10⁴
= 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Question 8.
(a) Two resistors of 4 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel to a cell to draw 0.5 A current from the cell.
(i) Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing the above arrangement.
(ii) Calculate the current in each resistor. [3]
Answer:
(i)

(ii) Resistance in parallel
\(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{R}\) ; \(\frac{3+2}{12}=\frac{5}{12}=\frac{1}{R}\) ; R = 2.4 Ω
So, PD in parallel = Total I × R (only in parallel)
= 0.5 × 2.4 = 1.2 V
I₁ = \(\frac{3+2}{12}=\frac{5}{12}=\frac{1}{R}\) = 0.3 A ;
I₂ = \(\frac{3+2}{12}=\frac{5}{12}=\frac{1}{R}\) = 0.2 A

(b) (i) What is an Ohmic resistor?
(ii) Two copper wires are of the same length, but one is thicker than the other.
(1) Which wire will have more resistance?
(2) Which wire will have more specific resistance? [3]
Answer:
(i) Ohmic resistor obeys Ohm’s law i.e., PD is directly proportional to current keeping resistance constant in that conductor i.e., at constant temperature, e.g., all metallic conductors are Ohmic.

(ii)

1. Resistance is inversely proportional to thickness, so thick wire will have less resistance and thin wire more resistance when lengths are same.
2. Specific resistance does not depend on length and area of wire so it will be same for both as only depends on material and temperature of wire.

(c) (i) Two sets A and B, of the three bulbs each, are glowing in two separate rooms. When
one of the bulbs in set A is fused, the other two bulbs, alos cease to glow. But in set B, when one bulb fuses, the other two bulbs continue to glow. Explain why this phenomenon occurs.
(ii) Why do we prefer arrangement of Set B for house circuiting? [3]
Answer:
(i) In Set A, the bulbs are arranged in series while in Set B, the bulbs are arranged in parallel. In parallel, even if one bulb fuses other paths are working.

(ii)

1. In parallel, all appliances work independently at same voltage so glow of bulb (or any other appliance) is not affected.
2. In parallel, resistance so current does not decrease, so current does not decrease.
3. All appliances work independently and do not depend on other so each has a separate switch

Question 9.
(a) Heat energy is supplied at a constant rate to lOOg of ice at 0 °C. The ice is converted into
water at 0 °C in 2 minutes. How much time will be required to raise the temperature of water from 0 °C to 20 °C? [Given : sp. heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g^-1 °C^-1, sp. latent heat of ice = 336 J g^-1]. [4]
Answer:
Mass of ice = 100 g
L of ice = 336 J/g
mL (of ice) = P × time
100 × 336 = P × 2 × 60
P = 280 W
mCQ (of water) = P × time
As same appliance with same power is used
100 × 4.2 × 20 = P × time
8400 = 280 × time
time = 30 s
So, time required to raise the temperature of water from 0°C to 20°C is 30 s.

(b) Specific heat capacity of substance A is 3.8 J g^-1 K^-1 whereas the Specific heat capacity of substance B is 0.4 J g^-1 K^-1.
(i) Which of the two is a good conductor of heat?
(ii) How is one led to the above conclusion?
(iii) If substances A and B are liquids then which one would be more useful in car radiators? [3]
Answer:
(i) B is a good conductor of heat.

(ii) Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of unit mass of a substance by 1 K. So the one which uses less amount of heat energy is a good conductor.

(iii) A would be useful in car radiators as it can extract large amount of heat energy without raising its own temperature much.

(c) (i) State any two measures to minimize the impact of global warming.
(ii) What is the Greenhouse effect? [3]
Answer:
(i)

1. Cutting of trees must be banned and plantation should be increased.
2. Burning of fossil fuels should be for limited purposes only. We should find and use some alternative sources of energy.

(ii) Trapping of infrared radiations which causes global heating is known as greenhouse effect. It can be done by mainly carbon dioxide and methane gases.

Question 10.
(a) (i) Name two factors on which the magnitude of an induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil depends.
(ii) In the following diagram an arrow shows the motion of the coil towards the bar magnet.
(1) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?
(2) Name the law used to come to the conclusion.

Answer:
(i) Change in magnetic flux : More the change in magnetic flux in a given time, more is the e.m.f. induced.
Time in which the magnetic flux changes: More rapid the flux changes, more is the e.m.f. induced.

(ii)

1. Induced current is always opposite to the cause which produces it, so current will flow from B to A.
2. Lenz’s law and Faraday’s laws.

(b) A nucleus ₁₁Na²⁴ emits a beta particle to change into Magnesium (Mg)
(i) Write the symbolic equation for the process.
(ii) What are numbers 24 and 11 called?
(iii) What is the general name of ₁₂²⁴ Mg with respect to ₁₁²⁴Na? [3]
Answer:
(i) \({ }_{11}^{24} \mathrm{Na}\) → \({ }_{11}^{24} \mathrm{Mg}\) + \({ }_{-1}^0 e\) + (where, \({ }_{-1}^0 e\) is β)

(ii) 24 is mass number, where 11 is atomic number.

(iii) Isobars.

(c) In a cathode ray tube state :
(i) The purpose of covering cathode by thorium and carbon.
(ii) The purpose of the fluorescent screen.
(iii) How is it possible to increase the rate of emission of electrons. [3]
Answer:
(i) As a good electron emitter because thorium and carbon lower work function.

(ii) Electrical signal applied on the deflecting plates change into visual patterns on the screen.

(iii) By increasing temperature and surface area of metal and by using metal with a low work function – rate of emission of electrons can be increased.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Maths Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Maths Question Paper 2012 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Maths Question Paper 2012 Solved

Time Allowed: 2 1/2 hours
Max. Marks: 80

Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown and must be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. Omission of essential working will result in loss of marks. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]

Mathematical tables are provided.

Section – A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
(a) If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and I = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), find A² – 5A + 7I
(b) The monthly pocket money of Ravi and Sanjeev are in the ratio 5 :7. The expenditures are in the ratio 3 : 5. If each save Rs. 80 every month, find their monthly pocket money. [3]
(c) Using a Remainder Theorem factorise completely the following polynomial.
3x² + 2x² – 19x + 6 [4]
Solution :
(a)

(b) Given monthly pocket money of Ravi and Sanjeev are in the ratio of 5 : 7
Let Ravi’s pocket money be 5x and Sanjeev’s pocket money be 7 x
Given Ravi’s and Sanjeev’s expenditures are in the ratio of 3 : 5
Let Ravi’s expenditure be 3y and Sanjeev’s expenditure be 5y
According to Question
Monthly savings of Ravi = Monthly savings of Sanjeev = ₹ 80
Saving = Monthly Pocket money – Monthly expenditure Ravi’s monthly savings = 5x – 3y
Sanjeev’s monthly savings = 7x – 5y
By the question
5x – 3y = 80 …(1)
7x – 5y = 80 …(2)
Multiply (1) by 7 and (2) by 5, we get
35x – 21y = 560 …(3)
35x – 25y = 400 …(4)
Subtract (4) from (3)
4y = 160
or y = 40
Putting the value of y in (1), we get
5x – 3 × 40 = 80
or 5x – 120 = 80
or 5x = 120 + 80
or 5x = 200
∴ x = 40
Ravi’s monthly pocket money = 5 × 40 = ₹ 200 and Sanjeev’s monthly pocket money = 7 × 40 = ₹ 280

(c) Given f(x) = 3x³ + 2x² – 19x + 6
Put x = 2
∴ f(2) = 3(2)³ + 2(2)² – 19(2) + 6
= 24 + 8 – 38 + 6 = 0
∴ By Remainder Theorem (x – 2) is a factor off (x) Now, (x – 2) is a factor of 3x³ + 2x² – 19x + 6

∴ 3x³ + 2x² – 19x + 6 = (x – 2) (3x² + 8x – 3) … (1)
= (x – 2) (3x² + 9x – x – 3)
= (x – 2) {3x(x + 3) – 1(x + 3)}
= (x – 2) (x + 3) (3x – 1)

Question 2.
(a) On what sum of money will the difference between the compound interest and simple interest for 2 years be equal to Rs. 25, if the rate of interest charged for both is 5% p.a. ? [3]
(b) ABC is an isosceles right angled triangle with ∠ABC = 90°. A semi-circle is drawn with AC as the diameter. If AB = BC = 7 cm, find the area of the shaded region. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\)) [3]

(c) Given a line segment AB joining the points A (-4, 6) and B (8, -3). Find : [4]
(i) the ratio in which AB is divided by the y- axis.
(ii) the coordinates of the point of intersection.
(iii) the length of AB.
Solution :
(a) Given
CI. – Si. = ₹ 25 for 2
Rate of interest = 5% p.a.
Let Principal be ₹ x, Time = 2 years,
Rate of interest 5% p.a.

(b) Given ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = 7cm and BC = 7cm
∠ABC = 90°
Area of shaded portion = Area of semi circle – Area of ∆ABC
In ∆ABC, ∠ABC = 90°
∴ By Pythagoras Theorem
AC² = AB² + BC² = 7² + 7²
or AB = \(\sqrt{49+49}\)
= \(\sqrt{98}\) = 7\(\sqrt{2}\) cm
∴ Radius of semicircle = \(\frac{1}{2}\)AC
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 7\(\sqrt{2}\)
Now, Area of semicircle = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(Area of Circle)

Area of ∆ABC = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × base × height
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 7 × 7 = \(\frac{49}{2}\) cm²

(c) Here, line segment AB is joining the points IA(-4, 6) and B(8, -3).
Let C(0, y) be the point of intersection of y-axis and the line segment AB.

Let the required ratio be k : 1
∴ c(\(\frac{8 k-4}{k+1}, \frac{-3+6}{k+1}\)) = C(0, y)
⇒ \(\frac{8 k-4}{k+1}\) = 0
⇒ 8k – 4 = 0
⇒ k = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Thus, the required ratio is 1: 2
Also, y = \(\frac{-3 \times \frac{1}{2}+6}{\frac{1}{2}+1}\) = \(\frac{-3+12}{1+2}\) = \(\frac{9}{3}\) = 3
Thus, the coordinates of the point of intersection is C(0, 3)
Now, AB = \(\sqrt{(8+4)^2+(-3-6)^2}\)

Question 3.
(a) In the given figure O is the centre of the circle and AB is a tangent at B. If AB = 15 cm and AC = 7.5 cm, calculate the radius of the circle. [3]

(b) Evaluate without using trigonometric tables
cos² 26° + cos 64°sin 26° + \(\frac{\tan 36^{\circ}}{\cot 54^{\circ}}\) [3]
(c) Marks obtained by 40 students in a short assessment are given below, where a and b are two missing data.

If the mean of the distribution is 7.2, find a and b. [4]
Solution :
(a) In the given figure AB is a tangent at B
AB = 15 cm and AC = 7.5cm

O is the centre of the circle
We know that
AB² = AC × AD
∴ 15 × 15 = 7.5 × AD
∴ AD = \(\frac{15 \times 15}{7.5}\) 30 cm
Now, CD = AD – AC = 30 cm – 7.5 cm
= 22.5 cm
∴ Radius of circle = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(diameter of the circle)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 22.5 cm = 11.25 cm

(b) cos² 26° + cos 64° sin 26° + \(\frac{\tan 36^{\circ}}{\cot 54^{\circ}}\)
= cos² 26° + cos(90° – 26°)sin 26° + \(\frac{\tan \left(90^{\circ}-54^{\circ}\right)}{\cot 54^{\circ}}\)
= cos² 26° + sin 26° sin 26° + \(\frac{\cot 54^{\circ}}{\cot 54^{\circ}}\)
[∵ cos(90° – 26°) = sin 26°
tan (90° – 54°) = cot 54°]
= cos² 26° + sin² 26° + 1 [∵ sin²A + cos²A = 1]
= 1 + 1 = 2

(c)

Given mean of distribution = 7.2

Σf = 35 + a + b = 40(given)
⇒ a + b = 5
Mean

= 7.2 (given)
⇒ 246 + 6a + 9b = 40 × 7.2 = 288
∴ 6a + 9b = 42
Multiply (1) by 6 and subtract from (2), we have

or b = 4
From(1) a + 4 = 5 ⇒ a = 1
∴ a = 1, b = 4

Question 4.
(a) Kiran deposited Rs. 200 per month for 36 months in a bank’s recurring deposit account. If the bank pays interest at the rate of 11% per annum, find the amount she gets on maturity. [3]
(b) Two coins are tossed once. Find the probability of getting:

(i) 2 heads
(ii) at least 1 tail.

(c) Using graph paper and taking 1 cm = 1 unit along both x-axis and y-axis :

(i) Plot the points A (-4, 4) and B (2, 2)
(ii) Reflect A and B in the origin to get the images A’ and B’ respectively.
(iii) Write down the co-ordinates of A’ and B’.
(iv) Give the geometrical name for the figure ABA’B’.
(v) Draw and name its lines of symmetry.

Solution :
(a) Monthly deposit = ₹ 200
Rate of interest = 11% p.a
Period of deposit (n) = 36 months
∴ Total deposited Amount = ₹ (200 × 36)
= ₹ 7200
Equivalent principal for 1 month
= \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2^{\prime}}\) × monthly deposit
= ₹\(\left(\frac{36 \times 37}{2} \times 200\right)\) = ₹(3600 × 37)
= ₹ 133200
Interest paid by the bank = ₹\(\frac{133200 \times 11}{100 \times 12}\)
= ₹111 × 11
= ₹ 1221
∴ Amount on maturity = Total Deposited Amount + Interest Amount
= ₹ (7200 – 1221)
= ₹ 8421

(b) The sample space of tossing 2 coins is (HH, HT, TH, T’T)
No. of outcomes in sample space = 4
(i) Probability of getting 2 heads = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
(ii) Probability of getting at least 1 tail. = \(\frac{3}{4}\)

(c) (i) and (ii)
(iii) Coordinates of A’ and B’ are A’( 4, -4) and B’(-2, -2)
(iv) AB A’B’ is a parallelogram
(v) AA’ and BB’ are the lines of symmetry.

Section-B (40 Marks)
(Answer any four questions from this Section)

Question 5.
(a) In the given figure, AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O.
∠BCD = 130°. Find:
(i) ∠DAB
(ii) ∠DRA

(b) Given \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 1 \\
-3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
7 \\
6
\end{array}\right]\). Write:
(i) the order of the matrix X
(ii) the matrix X.

(c) A page from the Savings Bank Account of Mr. Prateek is given below :

If he receives Rs. 198 as interest on 1st January, 2007, find the rate of interest paid by the bank.
Solution :
(a) (i) Given AB = diameter of the circle, ∠BCD = 130°

Join BD
As ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
∴ ∠DCB + ∠DAB = 180°
or ∠DAB + 130° = 180°
or ∠DAB = 180° – 130° = 50°
Now, ∠ADB = 90° [angle in a semicircle]
(ii) ∴ In Δ ADB
∠DAB + ∠ADB + ∠DBA = 180°
∴ 50° + 90° + ∠DBA = 180°
or ∠DBA = 180° – 140° = 40°

(b) Given \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 1 \\
-3 & 4
\end{array}\right]_{2 \times 2}\) X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
7 \\
6
\end{array}\right]_{2 \times 1}\) … (1)
(i) As \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 1 \\
-3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) is a matrix of order 2 × 2 and \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
7 \\
6
\end{array}\right]\) is a matrix of order 2 × 1
∴ X must have 2 rows and 1 column, the order of the Matrix X is 2 × 1

(ii)

∴ 2a + b = 7 … (3)
-3a + 4b = 6 …. (4)
Multiply (3) by 4 and subtract from (4), we have

⇒ a = 2
From (3), 2 × 2 + b = 7
⇒ b = 3
Thus, X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
2 \\
3
\end{array}\right]\)

(c)

Interest for one year = ₹ 198
Let rate of interest be r% p.a.
198 = \(\frac{52800 \times r}{100 \times 12}\) [I = \(\frac{\mathrm{P} \times \mathrm{R} \times \mathrm{T}}{100}\)]
⇒ r = \(\frac{198 \times 100 \times 12}{52800}\) = 4.5% p.a.

Question 6.
(a) The printed price of an article is Rs. 60,000. The wholesaler allows a discount of 20% to the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper sells the article to the customer at the printed price. Sales tax (under VAT) is charged at the rate of 6% at every stage. Find:
(i) the cost to the shopkeeper inclusive of tax.
(ii) VAT paid by the shopkeeper to the Government.
(iii) the cost to the customer inclusive of tax. [3]

(b) Solve the following inequation and represent the solution set on the number line:
4x – 19 < \(\frac{3 x}{5}\) – 2 ≤ \(\frac{-2}{5}\) + x ∈ R [3]

(c) Without solving the following quadratic equation, find the value of m for which the given equation has real and equal roots.
x² + 2(m – 1)x + (m + 5) = 0 [4]
Solution :
(a) (i) Printed Price = ₹ 60,000
Discount given by wholesaler to shopkeeper = ₹ 20%
= ₹ \(\frac{60000 \times 20}{1000}\)
= ₹ 12000
∴ Net cost to shopkeeper
= ₹ (60000 – 12000)
= ₹ 4800
Sales Tax (VAT) changed by wholesaler
= ₹ \(\frac{48000 \times 6}{100}\)
= ₹ 2880
∴ Cost to shopkeeper inclusive of Tax
= ₹ (48000 + 2880)
= ₹ 50880

(ii) ∴ Sales Tax (VAT) charged by shopkeeper
= ₹ 60000 × \(\frac{6}{100}\)
= ₹ 3600
VAT Paid by shopkeeper to Government
= ₹ (3600 – 2880)
= ₹ 720

(iii) ∴ Cost to customer inclusive of Tax
= ₹ (60000 + 3600)
= ₹ 63600

(b)
4x – 19 < \(\frac{3 x}{5}\) – 2 ≤ \(\frac{-2}{5}\) + x
4x – 19 < \(\frac{3 x}{5}\) – 2
20x – 95 < 3x – 10
20x – 3x < 95 – 10
17x < 85
-4 ≤ x
\(\frac{3 x}{5}\) – 2 ≤ \(\frac{-2}{5}\) + x
3x – 10 ≤ -2 + 5x
-10 + 2 ≤ 5x – 3x
-8 ≤ 2x
x < 5
∴ Solution is -4 ≤ x < 5, x ∈ R
Representation

(c) Give equation is
x² + 2(m – 1)x + (m + 5) = 0
For the given equation to have real and equal roots
Discriminant =0
⇒ b² – 4ac = 0
Here, a = 1, b = 2(m – 1) = 2m – 2 and c = m + 5
∴ b² – 4ac = (2m – 2)² – 4 × 1 × (m + 5)
= 4m² + 4 – 8m – 4m – 20
= 4m² – 12m – 16
Now, b² – 4ac = 4m² – 12m – 16 = 0
⇒ m² – 3m – 4 = 0
⇒ (m – 4)(m + 1) = 0
⇒ m = 4 and m = -1

Question 7.
(a) A hollow sphere of internal and external radii 6 cm and 8 cm respectively is melted and recast into small cones of base radius 2 cm and height 8 cm. Find the number of cones. [3]
(b) Solve the following equation and give your answer correct to 3 significant figures :
5x² – 3x – 4 = 0 [3]
(c) As observed from the top of a 80 m tall lighthouse, the angles of depression of two ships on the same side of the lighthouse in horizontal line with its base are 30° and 40° respectively. Find the distance between the two ships. Give your answer correct to the nearest metre. [4]
Solution :
(a) External radius of hollow sphere = 8 cm
Internal radius of hollow sphere = 6 cm
∴ Volume of hollow sphere = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)[R³ – r³]
= \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)[8³ – 6³]
= \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)[512 – 216]
= \(\frac{4}{3} \pi\)(296) cm³
A.T.Q. Volume of sphere = Volume of all small cones
Fora small cone r = 2 cm and h = 8 cm
∴ Volume of one small cone = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 h\)
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 2 × 2 × 8
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 32 × π cm³

= \(\frac{\frac{4}{3} \times \pi \times 296}{\frac{1}{3} \times 32 \times \pi}\) = \(\frac{296}{8}\) = 37

(b) Given equation is 5x² – 3x -4 = 0
Compare with ax² + bx + c = 0
Here, a = 5, b = 3 and c = -4

(c) Let A and B be the position of two ships
∴ Height of lighthouse OP = 80 m
Let distance between two ships, AB be x
Let OB be y
In Δ OAP ; tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{OP}}{\mathrm{OA}}\) = \(\frac{80}{x+y}\)
∴ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = \(\frac{80}{x+y}\)

or x + y = 80\(\sqrt{3}\)
= 80 × 1.732
= 138.56m
In Δ OBP
we have, tan 40° = \(\frac{\mathrm{OP}}{\mathrm{OB}}\) = \(\frac{80}{y}\)
∴ y = \(\frac{80}{\tan 40^{\circ}}\) = \(\frac{80}{0.8391}\)
= 95.34 m
Now, distance between two ships
= 138.56 m – 95.34 m = 43.22 m

Question 8.
(a) A man invests Rs. 9600 on Rs. 100 shares at Rs. 80. If the company pays him 18% dividend, find:
(i) the number of shares he buys.
(ii) his total dividend.
(iii) his percentage return on the shares. [3]
(b) In the given figure ΔABC and ΔAMP are right angled at B and M respectively.
Given AC = 10 cm, AP = 15 cm and PM = 12 cm.

(i) Prove ΔABC – ΔAMP
(ii) Find AB and BC. [3]
(c) If x = \(\frac{\sqrt{a+1}+\sqrt{a-1}}{\sqrt{a+1}-\sqrt{a-1}}\), using properties of proportion, show that x² – 2ax + I = 0.
Solution :
(a) (i) Amount invested = ₹ 9600
M.V. of each share = ₹ 80
∴ No. of shares held = \(\frac{₹ 9600}{₹ 80}\) = 120
(ii) Dividend on 1 share = 18% of N.V.
= 18% of ₹ 100 = ₹ 18
Total Dividend = No. of shares × Dividend on 1 share = ₹ 120 × 18 = ₹ 2160
(iii) Percentage return on shares
= \(\frac{₹ 21600}{₹ 9600}\) × 100 = 22.5%

(b)

(i) In the given figure,
∠AMP = 90° and ∠ABC = 90°
In ΔABC and ΔAMP
∴ ∠ABC = ∠AMP = 90°
∠A = ∠A [common]
∴ ΔABC \(\sim\) ΔAMP, [by AA similarity axiom]

(ii) Since ΔABC \(\sim\) ΔAMP, therefore their sides are proportional
\(\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{AP}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{MP}}\)
∴ BC = \(\frac{10 \times 12}{15}\) = 8 cm
Now, in rt. ∠d ΔABC
AC² = AB² + BC² (By Pythagoras Theorem)
or AB² = AC² – BC²
or AB² = 10² – 8² = 100 – 64 = 36
∴ AB = 6 cm

(c)

Question 9.
(a) The line through A (-2, 3) and B (4, b) is perpendicular to the line 2x – 4y = 5. Find the value of b. [3]
(b) Prove that \(\frac{\tan ^2 \theta}{(\sec \theta-1)^2}\) = \(\frac{1+\cos \theta}{1-\cos \theta}\)
(c) A car covers a distance of 400 km at a certain speed. Had the speed been 12 km/h more, the time taken for the journey would have been 1 hour 40 minutes less. Find the original speed of the car. [4]
Solution :
(a) Points A(-2, 3) and B(4, b)
Since the line through A and B is perpendicular to the line 2x – 4y = 5
∴ Product of their slopes = -1
\(\left(\frac{b-3}{4+1}\right)\left(\frac{2}{4}\right)\) = -1
\(\frac{b-3}{12}\) = -1
b – 3 = -12
b = -9

(b)

(c)
Case I
Distance = 400 km
Let speed of the car be x km/h

Case II
When speed of the car is increased by 12 km/h, then
New speed = (x + 12)km/h
Distañce = 400 km
Now, time taken (t₂) = \(\frac{400}{x+12}\) hours …. (2)
According to question
t₁ – t₂ = 1 hour 40 minutes = 1\(\frac{40}{60}\) hours
= 1\(\frac{2}{3}\) hours = \(\frac{5}{3}\) hours.
∴ From (1) and (2)
\(\frac{400}{x}\) – \(\frac{400}{x+12}\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
or 400\(\left[\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+12}\right]\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
or 400\(\left[\frac{x+12-x}{x(x+12)}\right]\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
or \(\frac{12 \times 400}{x^2+12 x s}\) = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
or x² + 12x = 12 × 400 × \(\frac{3}{5}\) = 2880
⇒ x² + 60x – 48x – 2880 = 0
(x + 60) (x – 48) = 0
⇒ x – 48 = 0
or x + 60 = 0
⇒ x = 48
or x = -60
But x cannot be -ve
Hence,
x = 48 km/h

Question 10.
(a) Construct a triangle ABC in which base BC = 6 cm, AB = 5.5 cm and ∠ABC = 120°.
(i) Construct a circle circumscribing the triangle ABC.
(ii) Draw a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD so that D is equidistant from B and C.
(b) The following distribution represents the height of 160 students of a school.

Draw an ogive for the given distribution taking 2 cm = 5 cm of height on one axis and 2 cm = 20 students on the other axis. Using the graph, determine:
(i) The median height.
(ii) The inter quartile range.
(iii) The number of students whose height is above 172 cm.
Solution :

(a) Steps of Construction:
1. Take BC = 6 cm
2. Construct ∠ABC = 120° at point B, such that AB = 5.5 cm. Join AC.
3. Then, ABC is the required triangle.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisectors of sides BC and AB.
Let the perpendicular bisectors of AB and BC meet at point O.
5. Taking O as centre and radius equal to OA (or OB or OC), draw a circle
The circle so obtained is the required circle.
6. Let perpendicular bisector of BC intersect the circumference in D.
7. Join CD and DA, then ABCD is the required cyclic quadrilateral.

(b) The cumulative frequency table for the given continuous distribution is

Take 2 cm = 5 cm of height on x-axis & 2 cm = 20 students on y-axis
Plot the points (140, 0), (145, 12), (150, 32), (155, 62), (160, 100),(165, 124),(170, 140),(175, 152), (180, 160)
Join these points by a free hand drawing. The required ogive is shown in the graph.
Here n (no. of students) = 160, which is even

(i) To find median
Let A be a point on y-axis representing frequency =
\(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{n}{2}+\left(\frac{n}{2}+1\right)\right)\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(80 + 81) = 80.5
Through A, draw a horizontal line to meet the ogive at A.
Through P, draw a vertical line to meet the x-axis at M. The abscissa of the point M represents 157.4
∴ Required median = 157.4

(ii) To find lower quartile
Let B represent the point on y-axis representing frequency = \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{4}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{160}}{4}\) = 40
Through B, draw a horizontal line to meet the ogive at R. Through R, draw a vertical line to meet the x-axis at N. The abscissa of the point N represents 151.3
∴ Q₁ = lowerquartile = 151.3

To Find upper quartile

Let C be a point on y-axis representing frequency = \(\frac{3 \mathrm{~N}}{4}\) = 3 × \(\frac{160}{4}\) = 120
Through C, draw a horizontal line to meet the ogive at S. Through S, draw a vertical line to meet the x-axis at T. The abscissa of the point T represents 164.2
∴ Q₃ = Upper quartile = 164.2
∴ Interquartile Range = Q₃ – Q₁
= 164.2 – 151.3 = 12.9

(iii) Let D be a point on x-axis represent 172 cm. Through D, draw a vertical line to meet the ogive at the point E. Through E, draw a horizontal line to meet the y-axis at F. The ordinate of the point F represent 142
∴ No. of students whose height is above 172 cm = 160 – 142 = 18

Question 11.
(a) In triangle PQR, PQ = 24 cm, QR = 7 cm and ∠PQR = 90°. Find the radius of the inscribed circle.

(b) Find the mode and median of the following frequency distribution:

(c) The line through P (5, 3) intersects y axis at Q.

(i) Write the slope of the line.
(ii) Write the equation of the line.
(iii) Find the co-ordinates of Q.

Solution :
(a)

let the radius of the inscribed circle be x cm.
In rt. ∠d ΔPQR
PR² = PQ² + QR² = 24² + 7² = 576 + 49 = 625
∴ PR = 25 cm
Join OA, OC and OB
Now, from the figure AOCQ, AQ = x = QC = OC = AO
[∵ QC and QA are tangents to the circle from Q]
Now, CR = QR – QC = 7 – x
[Tangents to the circle]
Also, CR = RB = 7 – x
[Tangents to the circle]
Now, PA = PQ – AQ = 24 – x
Also, PA = PB = 24 – x … (2)
[Tangents to the circle]
From (1) and (2)
PR = PB + RB
25 = 24 – x + 7 – x
2x = 24 + 7 – 25
2x = 6
∴ x = 3 cm
Hence, radius of inscribed circle = 3 cm

(b)

Now

∴ Σf = 29
∴ N = 29 (odd)
∴ Median = \(\left(\frac{n+1}{2}\right)\)th term = \(\left(\frac{29+1}{2}\right)\)2th term = 15^th term = 13
In the given distribution, the variate 14 has the maximum frequency i.e., 9.
∴ Mode = 14

(c)

(i) We know that slope of a line tan θ
[where θ is the angle made by the line with the positive direction of x-axis]
∴ slope of PQ = tan 45° = 1
⇒ m = 1

(ii) Equation of a line passing through P(5, 3) and slope
m = 1 is given by
y – 3 = 1(x – 5)
[y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)]
y – 3 = x – 5
or x – y = + 5 – 3 = 2
or x – y = 2

(iii) Since the line PQ meets y-axis at Q
∴ Coordinates of Q can be found by putting x = 0 in x – y = 2
y = -2
∴ Coordinates of Q are (0, -2)

Solving ICSE Class 10 English Language Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 English Language Question Paper 2012 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 English Language Question Paper 2012 Solved

Question 1.
(Do not spend more than 35 minutes on this question.) [25]
Write a composition (350 – 400 words) on any one of the
following:
(a) Write an original short story that begins with the words: It wasn’t going to be easy she knew….. but somehow she had to confront him. She took a deep breath, and walked into the room.
(b) “Money causes more harm than good. ” Express your view either for or against this statement.
(c) People play a very important role in our lives. Describe in vivid detail, any one person and show how he/she has been a very special influence in your life.
(d) Modes of Communication are continually changing. What are some of these changes? Say which one change you like best and why?
(e) Study the picture given below. Write a story or a description or an account of what it suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the picture or you may take suggestions from it; however, there must be a clear connection between the picture and your composition.
Answers:

(a) It wasn’t going to be easy she knew but somehow she had to confront him. She took a deep breath, and walked into the room. Her boss was in a very angry mood. No sooner did she take her seat than he showered a volley of questions on her. “Where had you been these two days? Why didn’t you inform the office where you were ? Why didn’t you send even a message ?” She remained silent, trying to think of the words in which she should explain her predicament. When her boss calmed down a little, she took courage to open her mouth. She told her boss very politely that she had gone, with her mother to Chandigarh and she intended to return the next morning, but her mother had a stroke early that morning. She was taken to the P. G. I. The doctors said that it was a massive heart attack and she was to be kept in I. C. U.

She was so upset that she could not decide what to do. She informed her father who was away to Mumbai. The doctors said that her mother was to be operated and that very day she must deposit rupee one lakh. She was utterly non-plused. From where was she to bring the money ? Her father, who was to arrange the money was not likely to arrive in one day. In the meantime the nurses were asking her to bring one medicine or another. She was running literally from the medicine counter to the I. C. U. After twenty hours the doctors declared that her mother was out of danger. Yesterday, her father, too, had arrived. Her mother was still in P. G. I. Giving this information in one breath she looked at the face of her boss. She heaved a sigh of relief when she observed that her boss seemed to be convinced. She finally added that she had been so busy and upset that she could not attend the office.

(b) Some persons erroneously think that money is the root cause of all evils and it causes more harm than good, but I do not agree with it. I strongly believe that it is money which makes the mare go. In the absence of money all our plans come to a standstill. Not to speak of meeting the basic needs of life like food, clothing and shelter, can we think of getting our children admitted in good schools in the absence of money ? Is it possible to bring up the family, to educate the children, to give them the facilities of life, to entertain them without money ? Certainly not. Moreover who amongst us is without aspirations ? Can we think of the fulfilment of our aspirations if we have no money. Man has four objectives in life, namely to taste the pleasures of senses i.e. to enjoy the comforts of life, to earn money and fame, to do acts of charity and finally to get liberation. The fulfilment of all these depends on money, so money is all important.

Money, in fact is the be all and end all of life. It is the means of material progress. Even mental and spiritual advancement can’t be thought of in the absence of money. All the good things of life can be achieved only through money. It is wrong to think that money in any way causes harm to anyone. It does not cause harm, it is only the misuse of money which causes harm. It is said that excess of money drags one into all sorts of evils which bring ruin to oneself and one’s family. But we must remember that money should be used in a sensible way. If money is judiciously spent and shared with others it can bring prosperity in life. It can make our life comfortable and happy.

(c) Man is a social animal. He cannot live without society. Instinctively, he is attracted towards others and wherever he finds someone who leaves an undeliable impression on his mind, he likes to imitate him. In fact the desire to imitate is instinctive. Little girls, observing their mothers, like to bathe, dress and comb their baby dolls and little boys like to imitate their elders in their dress, their manner of walking and their style of talking. When they grow up, they make the person who impresses them their role model and try to be like him or her.

I am highly impressed by my uncle, Dr. Pawan Sharma. He is a doctor by profession but I appreciate him as a man. Of all the persons in the family, he is the only person who has left an undeliable impression on me.

My uncle is a man of strong will power and firm determination. In his boyhood he saw a poor sick man, the head of a family, suffering from tuberculosis and dying by inches because he could not afford to get treatment in a hospital. After his death, poverty drove the whole family to ruin. My uncle resolved that he would become a doctor and give free treatment to those sick persons who can’t afford to take costly treatment in big hospitals. Once he had determined no obstacle could stand in his way. Shortage of funds was one problem but my uncle worked hard and won a scholarship.

He passed the examinations with distinction and became a doctor. Once he became a doctor he did not forget his aim in life. He opened his clinic and started his practice. Offers came to him to work in big hospitals but he declined. He fiimly believes that the service of the suffering humanity is the service of God.
I have observed him very closely and never have I seen him swerving from his duty. He is sincere to his patients, to his friends and all around him.
I too have a desire to be like him, sincere, strong and firm.

(d) Communication is the process of meaningful interaction among human beings. More specifically, it is the process by which meanings are perceived and understanding is reached among human beings. Modes of communication refer to vehicles or channels through which communication is delivered. Numerous communication modes are used when we want to convey something, for example face to face conversation, telephones, email, fax, etc. Ever since human beings started communicating, the modes of communication have ever been changing.

The most common mode is face to face communication. It may be between two persons or between two groups. It may also assume the form of a speech or address by one person to the audience.

A substitute for face to face communication is teleconferencing. It is used when two persons are hundreds of miles away from each other. Through teleconferencing, they can hear and see and talk to each other.

Another mode of communication is telephone. It is the most frequently used means of oral communication. Most of the urgent matters are dealt on phone these days. Through audio conferencing group communication is also possible.

Another mode of communication is Paging system. Under this system the sender dials the Pager Number and conveys the message through human voice. The Paging Service provider forwards the message that gets printed on the pager of the Pager holder. Thus the message is received without actual dialogue.

The most important mode of communication is mobile phone. Mobile phones provide an edge over fixed telephony. The person holding mobile can be contacted at anytime, anywhere. Because of the advantages of this mode of communication, mobile phones are becoming more and more popular.
Apart from these modes of oral communication, there are also modes of written communication like FAX and E-mail.
Undoubtedly the best mode of communication is mobile phone. The possessor of mobile phone can talk and transact even while driving a car or a motorbike. Moreover it is very handy and convenient. It also provides Internet access anytime. No wonder it has found a place in every heart and every pocket.

(e) India is the land of festivals. Not a month goes by when one or the other festival does not fall. They speak of traditions and culture of the country. One such festival is ‘Lohri.’ It is celebrated in north India especially in Punjab. It falls on the thirteenth of January every year when it is extremely cold. Children are very happy. They move in groups from one house to another singing songs of ‘Lohri’ and asking for money and gifts. They are given groundnuts, ‘rewaris’ and especially, popcorns. Shops are decorated and furnaces are set to roast popcorns. The picture too shows a young girl roasting corns. She has packed them and they are ready for sale.

At night people get together and make bon-fire. They worship the god of fire and offer him groundnuts, ‘rewaris’ and pop-corns. Some families celebrate it on a very large scale. They hold feasts and invite their friends and relatives. They also give very costly gifts to their newly married daughters. They wish their friends and relatives ‘Happy Lohri’. Like all big festivals it is the festival of enjoyment and fellow feeling. It brings together people of all communities.

Question 2.
(Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.)
Select ONE of the following: [10]
(а) Many areas near your school have been affected by floods. You are President of your school social service club. Write a letter to the Mayor of your town/city telling him/her what you plan to do for the relief of the victims, suggest ways in which you can combine with other organisations to bring about better distribution of relief items.
(b) You were taken by your school to visit a place of historical interest. Write a letter to your classmate who was unable to go on the trip telling him/her about the trip, why it was important and what you gained from the experience.
Answer:
(a) 27, Lajpat Nagar
Amritsar
The Mayor
Municipal Corporation Amritsar

Sub : The problems of the Flood Victims Sir

As is known to every resident of Amritsar, the recent floods have caused indescribable harm to the people especially those living in rural areas. It is encouraging that many welfare organisations are coming forward to help the victims of floods. Many areas near our school have also been affected. As a result of it our school has been closed. As president of the school social service club. I feel that the relief items that people contribute are not evenly distributed to all the victims. If the relief work is done with proper planning and some volunteers from the school are also taken, we can expedite the relief work. The people who are affected by the floods are leading a very miserable life and they need individual attention. Myself and some of my friends are ready to work day and night for it.

Yours faithfully
Suman

(b) 36, Model Town Ludhiana
My dear Sunil
You will be glad to know that we have come back from the tour to Agra. It was indeed a very enjoyable and educative trip. I wish you had been with us.

As planned we started from Delhi at 9 a.m. and reached hotel Sartaj at 11.30 a.m. where we had scheduled to take our breakfast. In the beautiful spacious lawn, where tables were especially laid for us, we had our breakfast and started the journey again.

In half an hour we reached Agra and went straight to see the Taj. I had read a lot about its matchless beauty but all descriptions paled into insignificance when I actually saw it. Its beauty and splendour is indescribable. It stands on the right bank of river Jamuna. It is built of snow- white transparent marble. It is an immortal momment of love — a dream in marble.

The guide we had taken, was very helpful. He showed us the tombs where the king and the queen lie buried side by side. The walls of the ceiling of the tomb are inlaid with precious stones.
Dear Sunil, had you been with us, we would have enjoyed much more. I feel, I have learnt many facts of history from this trip. More when we meet.

Yours sincerely
Raman

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the ques-tions that follow:

It was a dull autumn day and Jill Pole was crying behind the gym.

She was crying because they had been bullying her. This is not going to be a school story, so I shall say as little as possi-ble about Jill’s school, which is not a pleasant subject. It was Co-educational, a school for both boys and girls, what used to be called a “mixed” school; some said it was not nearly so mixed as the minds of the people who ran it. These people had the idea that boys and girls should be allowed to do what they liked. And unfortunately what ten or fifteen of the biggest boys and girls liked best was bullying the others.

All sorts of things, horrid things, went on which at an ordinary school would have been found out and stopped in half a term, but at this school they weren’t. Or even if they were, the people who did them were not expelled or punished. The Head said they were interesting psychological cases and sent for them and talked to them for hours. And if you knew the right sort of things to say to the Head, the main result was that you became rather a favourite than otherwise.

That was why Jill Pole was crying on that dull autumn day on the damp little path which runs between the back of the gym and the shrubbery. And she hadn’t nearly finished her cry when a boy came round the comer of the gym whistling, with his hands in his pockets. He nearly ran into her.
“Can’t you look where you’re going?” said Jill Pole.

“All right,” said the boy, “you needn’t start—” and then he noticed her face, “I say, Jill,” he said, “what’s up?”
Jill only made faces; the sort you make when you’re trying to say something but find that if you speak you’ll start crying again. “It’s Them, I suppose — as usual,” said the boy grimly, digging his hands further into his pockets. Jill nodded. There was no need for her to say anything, even if she could have said it. They both knew.

“Now, look here,” said the boy, “its no use..”
He meant well, but he did talk rather like someone beginning a lecture. Jill suddenly flew into a temper (which is quite a likely thing to happen if you have been interrupted in a cry). “Oh, go away and mind you own business,” she said. “Nobody asked you to come barging in. did they? And you’re a nice person to start telling us what we all ought to do, aren’t you? I suppose you mean we ought to spend all our time sucking up to Them, and currying favour, and dancing attendance on Them like you do.”

“Oh, Lord!” said the boy, sitting down on the grassy bank at the edge of the shrubbery and very quickly getting up again because the grass was soaking wet. His name unfortunately was Eustace Scmbb, but he wasn’t a bad sort.
“Jill!” he said. “Is that fair?”

“I d-don’t know and I don’t care,” sobbed Jill.
Eustace saw that she wasn’t quite herself yet and very sensibly offered her a peppermint. He had one too. Presently Jill began to see things in a clearer light.
“I’m sorry, Eustace,” she said presently.

(a) Give the meaning of each of the following words as used in the passage. One word answers or short phrases will be accepted. .
(i) bullying (line 3)
(ii) expelled (line 17)
(iii) barging in (line 47) [3]

(b) Answer the following questions briefly in your own words.
(i) Why was Jill crying ? [2]
(ii) Why do you think she was crying behind the gym? [2]
(iii) Who is the ‘Them ’referred to in line 24? [2]
(iv) Why did Jill fly into a temper ? [2]
(v) Which sentences tell us that both Jill and Eustace Scrubb had suffered similarly? [2]
(vi) When did Jill begin to see things differently? [2]

(c) (i) What kind of school did the children go to? Write
your answer in not more than 60 words. [8]
(ii) Give a title to your summary in 3 (c). Give a reason to justify your choice. [2]
Answers :
(a) (i) intimidating weaker persons
(ii) to force someone to leave the school
(iii) burst into someone rudely, awkwardly

(b) (i) Jill was crying because senior students had been bullying her.
(ii) She was crying behind the gym because it was a lonely place where she was not observed and mocked at by others.
(iii) The word ‘Them’ refers to senior students who move in groups and bully others.
(iv) Jill flew into temper because she was interrupted in a cry.
(v) The following sentences tell us that both Eustace Scrubb and Jill, had suffered similarly, z. “Its them I suppose as usual.” ii. “Now look here” said the boy, “Its no use ……”
(vi) Jill began to see things differently when Eustace Scrubb offered her peppermint.

(c) (i) The children attended a co-educational school or a mixed school. Here the administrators felt that the boys and girls should be allowed to do what they liked. Groups of the biggest boys and girls liked to bully others. All sorts of horrid things went on here. The students who indulged in such things were neither punished nor expelled. Even the head of the school approved of their actions.

(ii) “Maltreatment of younger students by the Bigger ones” (3.c) Since the passage is about an incident of bullying of junior students by senior students the title is appropriate.

Question 4.
(a) Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage, but write in correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to the blank space.
Example :
(0) My guide _______ (tell) me if I wanted to meet these people I would have to walk two miles.
Answer: told.
We finally (1) ____ (reach) a village where I (2) ____ (meet) a lady whose age I (3) ___ (can) not immediately make out. My translator (4) ____ (find) it difficult to interpret the lady’s words because her dialect was quite different. She (5) ____ (is) a dark-skinned and dark-haired lady. She must have been around seventy years old but there was no grey in her hair. She obviously could not afford to dye her hair. So what was her secret? Nobody (6) ____ (know). It must have been a ‘secret ’ common to allfor not one person in that whole village (7) ____ (has) a trace of grey hair! I (8) ___ (think) about it for a long time. [4]

(b) Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word:
(i) He was touched ___ pity when he heard the tale.
(ii) There is always a demand ___ good tailors.
(iii) The mother prevented her child ____ going out in the rain.
(iv) The baby crawled ___ the table and hid there.
(v) Once upon a time the great King ruled ___ all these villages and towns.
(vi) She is the smarter ____ the two.
(vii) Sheila insists ____ wearing that dress, although her mother thinks it is too short for her.
(viii) The teacher complained _____ him when she met his mother in the market. [4]

(c) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using and, but or so.
(i) He lived in the city for many years. He could notfind his way about.
(ii) She complained that her brother did not know anything. Her brother claimed he knew everything.
(iii) The coffee isn’t strong. It won’t keep us awake.
(iv) I finished my homework. I switched on the TV. [4]

(d) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the meaning of each sentence.
(i) My mother left a month ago.
(Begin : It has ………)
(ii) Anil was wrong to lose his temper.
(Begin : Anil ought ……)
(iii) As soon as the Chief Guest had seated himself the play began.
(Begin : No sooner )
(iv) Rajiv said to Aijun, “Is this the book you were reading yesterday?”
(Begin : Rajiv asked Arjun if…….)
(v) Only a foolish person would be taken in by this trick.
(Begin : None ……)
(vi) Everybody has heard of Gandhiji.
(Begin : Who …..)
(vii) He will issue the cheque only when he hears from the head office.
(Begin : On …….)
(viii) Father will send you a message if his flight is cancelled.
(Begin : Should……..) [8]
Answers :
(a) (1) reached
(2) met
(3) could
(4) found
(5) was
(6) knew
(7) had
(8) thought

(b) (i) with
(ii) for
(iii) from
(iv) under
(v) over
(vi) of
(vii) on
(viii) against

(c) (i) Despite having lived in the city for many years he could not find his way out.
(ii) Contrary to his claim that he knew everything she complained that her brother did not know anything.
(iii) The coffee, not being strong, won’t keep us awake.
(iv) Having finished my work, I switched on the T.V.

(d) (i) It has been one month since my mother left.
(ii) Anil ought not have lost his temper.
(iii) No sooner did the chief guest take his seat than the play began.
(iv) Rajiv asked Aijun if that was the book he had been reading the previous day.
(v) None but a fool would be taken in by this trick.
(vi) Who has not heard of Gandhiji ?
(vii) On hearing from the head office the cheque will be issued by him.
(viii) Should his flight be cancelled, father will send you a message.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Previous Year Question Papers: Students can download these Economic Applications Class 10 ICSE Previous Year Question Papers to know the exact exam pattern and to check the types of questions asked along with their marking system and time allotted for each question. Check out the ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 to help in the self-assessment of students. Students are advised to practice the below-mentioned ICSE Economic Applications Previous Year Question Paper to ace their exam with good marks.

ICSE Economic Applications Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers

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This ICSE Economic Applications Class 10 Question Paper is designed in such a way that it helps a student to focus on the subject concepts that are mentioned in the syllabus. Students can practice the Class 10 ICSE Economic Applications Previous Year Question Paper to get an idea of the type of questions asked in the board Economic Applications paper. We hope students must have found these Last 10 Years ICSE Economic Applications Question Papers Solved will be useful for their exam preparation.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Question Paper 2022 Semester 2 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Time : 1 1/2 hour
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions :

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) Which of these is the primary function of money?
(a) Store of value
(b) Standard of deferred payment
(c) Measure of value
(d) Transfer of value
Answer:
(c) Measure of value

Explanation :
Measurement of value of a commodity is the primary function of money.

(ii) Overdraft facility is usually availed by:
(a) Savings deposit holders
(b) Current account holders
(c) Fixed deposit holders
(d) Recurring deposit holders
Answer:
(b) Current account holders

Explanation :
Overdraft facility is generally provided to the current account holders.

(iii) “A policy under which the government uses its expenditure and revenue programmes to produce desirable effect and avoid undesirable effects on the national income production and employment” – This defines’.
(a) Monetary Policy
(b) Wage Policy
(c) Price Policy
(d) Fiscal Policy
Answer:
(d) Fiscal policy

Explanation:
Fiscal policy refers to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government to carry out her responsibilities.

(iv) Identify the tax which is most likely to foster civic consciousness:
(a) Property tax
(b) Entertainment tax
(c) Goods and Services tax
(d) Customs duty
Answer:
(a) Property tax
Explanation :
Property tax is a direct tax and direct taxes are considered to develop civic sense among the taxpayers.

(v) When money is used to settle debts or make payment in future, it is said to perform the function of:
(a) Standard of deferred payment
(b) Medium of exchange
(c) Transfer of value
(d) Store of value
Answer:
(a) Standard of deferred payments

Explanation :
When money is used to settle debts or make payments in future, it is said to perform the function of Standard of deferred payments.

(vi) Which of the following sections of the society is most adversely affected by inflation?
(a) Government
(b) Producers
(c) High income group
(d) Fixed income groups
Answer:
(d) Fixed income groups

Explanation :
Fixed income group people are the most adversely affected group in the case of inflation because their real income or the purchasing power gets eroded due to inflation.

(vii) Which of these are known as term/ time deposits?
(a) Fixed deposits and current accounts
(b) Current account and savings account
(c) Recurring deposits and fixed deposits
(d) Recurring deposits and savings account
Answer:
(c) Recurring deposits and fixed deposits

Explanation :
Recurring deposits and fixed deposits are considered to be term/ time deposits.

(viii) Purchasing power of money falls when:
(a) Prices decrease
(b) Prices increase
(c) Income increases
(d) Supply of money falls
Answer:
(A) Prices increase

Explanation :
Purchasing power of money falls when the prices increase. Sustained rise in prices is known as inflation.

(ix) The following table indicates:

(a) Progressive taxation
(b) Regressive taxation
(c) Proportional taxation
(d) Degressive taxation
Answer:
(c) Proportional taxation

Explanation :
Taxes in which the rate of tax remains constant, though the tax base changes, are called proportional taxes.

(x) Which of these banks formulates the credit control tools?
(a) Canara Bank
(b) Industrial Development Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation :
Reserve Bank of India is the Central Bank of the country which formulates the credit control policies.

Section – B
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Why do producers gain in the short run during inflation? [2]
Answer:
During inflation, the producers and businessmen gain in the short-period. This happens because the cost of production, generally, does not match the pace with the rise in the price of the product during inflationary period. So, the producers earn an artificial margin of profit in the short period.

(ii) Give two reasons why the Government imposes tax. [2]
Answer:
Following are the two reasons of why government imposes taxes:

1. Government carries out many types of welfare activities for which it has to incur huge expenditure. The government raises fund through taxes for such expenditure.
2. There are many types of goods and services which are not desirable from the social point of view such as liquor, cigarettes, gambling etc. The government intends to discourage the consumption of such goods and services by imposing huge tax on them.

(iii) Explain the transfer of value function of money. [3]
Answer:
Money also acts as a means to transfer of value. As the money has the quality of general acceptability as a medium of exchange, it can be used in any purpose and at any place. Hence, value can be transferred from one person to another with the help of money. For example, when we pay the price of any commodity to its seller, we transfer the value to the seller.

Similarly, money is a quick and efficient means of transferring value from one place to another. For example, when we pay to online sellers from Chennai for any good or service, wre transfer the value from one place to another place. Similarly, money can be transferred from one use to another. Suppose a businessman has kept some fund for buying raw material but his machine breaks down. He may use that money for the repairing of the machine.

(iv) Explain how banks can advance loans through cash credit. [3]
Answer:
Cash credit is a loan arrangement in which a bank advances a ‘cash loan’ up to a specified limit to the customer against some security. The borrower needs to open a current account and the bank allows the borrower,to withdraw up to the full amount of the loan. The interest is chaiged only on the amount actually utilised by the borrower and not on the loan sanctioned. The bank takes into consideration the credit score of the borrower before extending cash credit to him.

Question 3.
(i) Define privatisation.   [2]
Answer:
Privatisation also known as disinvestment. It refers to the process of transferring the ownership of a public sector or government enterprise to the private individual or enterprise by the way of sale of shares or the asset.

(ii) State one important difference between fiscal and monetary policy. [2]
Answer:
The most important difference between the fiscal policy and monetary policy is that the fiscal policy are exercised by the government directly while the monetary policy is exercised by a country’s Central Bank on behalf of the government.

(iii) Explain how indirect taxes can be inflationary. [3]
Answer:
Indirect taxes tend to be highly inflationary. The imposition of indirect taxes on commodities increases their market price, this further tends to raise the cost of living, which leads to demand for rise in the wages of the workers. This increase in the cost of production compels the producer to raise the prices in the market. Thus indirect taxes generate a spiral of higher price, higher costs, higher wages and again higher price.

(iv) Why is the Central Bank called the ‘lender of the last resort”? [3]
Answer:
The Central Bank is the apex bank of the country. Alongwith being the banker to the bankers, the Central Bank also acts as the lender of the last resort for the banks. Hence, the Central Bank provides financial help to the Commercial Banks in times of emergency.

This financial emergency may emerge when due to shortage of funds with the commercial bank it is not able to arrange funds from other sources. Under such circumstances, the ‘Central Bank’ either grants loan or purchases the securities of that commercial bank to help it out. Thus, the ‘Central Bank’ of the country acts as a ‘lender of the last resort’ for the commercial banks.

Question 4.
(i) State any two differences between current deposits and fixed deposits. [2]
Answer:
Following are the differences between current deposit and fixed deposit:

(ii) What is the impact of an increase in Cash Reserve Ratio on loanable funds? [2]
Answer:
Cash Reserve Ratio refers to a certain percentage of the total deposits of a commercial bank which it has to keep as reserve with the Central Bank. All the commercial banks have to maintain statutory cash reserve with the Central Bank.

The loanable capacity of a commercial bank gets reduced by the amount of cash reserve ratio. By increasing the cash reserve ratio, the excess reserve of the commercial bank is reduced which restricts the credit granting capacity of the commercial bank.

(iii) What do you understand by shifting of tax burden? Under which type of tax is this possible? [3]
Answer:
Shifting of tax burden refers to the transferring of final burden of paying the tax on someone else. It means that shifting of the tax burden involves impact of the tax on one person but the incidence of the tax on someone else. Under indirect tax system such as Goods and Services Tax, the shifting of tax burden can takes place.

For example, when a customer buys some commodity from a seller, the seller has to pay GST. The impact of GST is upon the seller of goods. But the seller does not pay the amount of the tax from his own pocket. He easily shifts the tax on to the customer, therefore, the incidence is upon the ultimate consumer.

(iv) What is creeping inflation? Explain its impact on the economy. [3]
Answer:
Creeping inflation occurs when there is a sustained rise in prices at a mild rate over a period of time, say around 2 to 3 percent per year. It is also known as ‘mild inflation’. This type of inflation is not much of a problem. This rate of inflation is considered to be conducive to economic progress and growth as it provides a kind of motivation to producers to expand their production which helps in creating the employment and raising the income further. In this form the prices rise gradually over a long period.

Question 5.
(i) Explain how Public Sector Enterprises can remove regional imbalance. [2]
Answer:
One of the objectives of establishing public sector undertakings was to remove the regional disparities. While some of the regions in India are highly developed, others are still backward. Private entrepreneurs are not generally interested in establishing industries in the backward regions as they are guided by profit motive and not by any societal motive. The public undertakings are therefore set up in the backward regions to have balanced development of the country.

(ii) Identify the following Credit Control measures undertaken by the Central Bank during inflation: [2]
(a) The Central Bank sells government approved securities to the public.
(b) The Central Bank increases the rate at which it lends to the Commercial bank.
Answer:
(a) This refers to the Open Market Operations of the Central Bank. Open market Operations involve the purchases or sale of government securities in an open market by the Central Bank for credit control.

(b) This action refers to the Bank Rate. The bank rate is the rate at which the Central Bank gives loans to the commercial banks or re-discounts the approved bills of exchange and securities held by the commercial banks.

(iii) What are progressive and regressive taxation? Which one is better and why? [3]
Answer:
Progressive tax refers to a tax system in which the rate of tax increases with the rise in tax payer’s income. Thus, in a progressive tax, the amount of tax will increase at a higher rate than the increase in tax base or income while the regressive tax refers to a tax system in which the rate of tax decreases as the payer’s income rise.

Progressive tax system is a better system because it is equitable, as a larger part of tax is on higher incomes. It is just as the law of diminishing marginal utility operates in the case of money. Hence, the disutility of paying a high tax by rich is not as much as that of poor in paying even a low tax.

(iv) Mention three arguments against privatisation. [3]
Answer:
Following are the three arguments against privatisation:

1. Public sector was established by the government with the objective of the general welfare. The private sector operates with the sole objective of profits and not general welfare.
2. Privatisation increases the economic inequality in the society. Privatisation creates big business conglomerates in the society which may spoil the businesses of small firms. This encourages economic concentration.
3. The social resources are utilised for the personal wealth creation and for this purpose they resort to false reporting which is harmful for the economy.

Question 6.
(i) Who normally keep their deposits in the Central bank? [2]
Answer:
The Central Bank acts as the banker to the government and the commercial banks of the country. As a banker to the government, the Central Bank makes and receives payments on behalf of the government and provides loans to the government. Similarly, as banker’s bank, the Central Bank accepts the reserves from the banks and provides loans to them in case of need.

(ii) State two drawbacks of direct taxes.  [2]
Answer:
Following are the two drawbacks of direct taxes:

1. Inconvenient: The greatest drawback of direct taxes is that they put the tax-payer to a lot of botheration and inconvenience. For example, the taxpayers have to maintain elaborate accounts for the enumeration of tax liability.
2. Disincentive: Direct taxes reduce the desire to work and save. As a part of hard earned income is taken away by the tax authorities without any corresponding benefits, it discourages the people to go on higher levels of income.

(iii) Mention any three features of a savings bank account. [3]
Answer:
Following are the three features of savings bank account:

1. This account provides the features of both the current account and the fixed deposit account. For example, it provides the withdrawal facility as available in current account and also provides the interest on deposits as is available with fixed deposit account.
2. This kind of account is opened by banks with the objective of collecting small savings from the people and households. Commercial organisations are not allowed to open this account.
3. The cheque facility is also available with this account.

(iv) Name the three types of Public Sector in India. |3]
Answer:
Following are the three types of public sector in India:
1. Departmental undertaking:
This type of public enterprises is formed as a department under some ministry of the government. It is generally formed to provide some essential goods or services to the public. Examples of departmental undertakings are Indian railways, postal department etc.

2. Statutory corporation:
Also known as public corporation, such kind of corporations are formed by the special acts passed by Parliament or assemblies. Examples of such organisations are Life Insurance Corporation of India, State Trading Corporation etc.

3. Government companies:
Government Company refers to an organisation registered under the Companies Act. The majority shares, i.e., 51 percent or more of the total shares are owned by the government.

Question 7.
(i) Why is money called legal tender? [2]
Answer:
A currency is considered to be a legal tender when it receives the government recognition and approval to be accepted as a medium of exchange in expediting the sale, purchase and debt transactions.

(ii) An indirect tax can be made progressive by imposing higher tax rates on luxuries. Justify the above statement. [2]
Answer:
The statement is absolutely true. The higher indirect tax such as Goods and Services Tax can be imposed on the luxury goods. It acts as progressive tax because the marginal utility of money for the rich people is very low in comparison to that of the low income people. Hence, higher indirect tax on luxuries gives rich people less disutility.

(iii) List three ways in which the Government can undertake privatisation. [3|
Answer:
Following are the three ways in which government can undertake privatisation:

1. Sale of shares: The majority of the shares of public sector enterprises are sold to the private sector entities. This gives them the ownership and management rights to carry out the activities of the organisation.
2. Sale of assets: The government sell the assets of the public sector to private sector to promote privatisation.
3. Displacement: Under displacement, the private enterprises are allowed to enter the market which was earlier reserved for public sector.

(iv) What do you understand by qualitative methods of credit control? Name two qualitative tools of credit control. [3]
Answer:
The qualitative measures include those actions which are concerned with the regulation, allocation and distribution of credit in the economy or make available concessional credit to specified classes of people. The two qualitative credit control measures are :
1. Moral Suasion : Suasion means to persuade, so it is a method of request and advice to the commercial banks by the Central Bank. Under certain circumstances, the Central Bank requests and persuades the commercial banks to grant or not to grant credits to certain sectors. Since, the Central Bank is the symbol of financial authority and sovereignty, the commercial banks honor such requests.

2. Direct Action: The method of direct action is used, sometimes, by Central Bank to implement its credit policies. Direct action refers to the actions involving punishment against the erring banks which do not follow the Central Bank’s directions.