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Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2013 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2013 Solved

Part – I (30 Marks)
(Attempt All Questions from this part)

Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey ofIndia Map sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference of:
(i) Triangulated height 217
(ii) A lined well near Chekhla. [2]
Answer:
(i) 387909
(ii) 373932

(b) (i) Name the left bank tributary of the main river.
(ii) State the direction in which this left bank tributary is flowing. [2]
Answer:
(i) Balaram Nadi
(ii) SE to NW

(c) (i) Mention a special feature associated with the streams in grid square 4391.
(ii) Name the types of drainage pattern found in grid square 3894. [2]
Answer:
(i) Dendritic
(ii) Parallel

(d) Give the four grid reference of each of the following:
(i) Open scrub
(ii) Bantawada. [2]
Answer:
(i) 4588, 4192,4085
(ii) 4490

(e) Name two relief features that can be seen in grid square 4294 and 4086. [2]
Answer:

• Spot height .542
• Contours
• Stream 4086
  • Triangulated height ∆ 364
  • Streams

(f) Why do you find limited cultivation in the map extract ?
Give two reasons for your answer. [2]
Answer:

• Lack of source of irrigation
• Region has sandy soil largely covered by open scrubs

(g) What is the compass direction of Antroli (3985) and Chekhla (3793) from Sangla ? [2]
Answer:
Compass direction of Antroli from Sangla-NE Compass direction of Chekhla from Sangla – North

(h) What type of rainfall is experienced in the region shown in the map extract ? Justify your answer giving one reason. [2]
Answer:
Scanty

• Little Vegetation
• Large area covered by open scrubs

(i) Calculate the distance in kilometres along with cart track between Chitrasani (4486) and Pirojpura (4286). [2]
Answer:
2.5 km

(j) (i) What is the geographical name that you would give to the general pattern of settlements in the region shown on the map?
(ii) Name one region shown on the map which is unsuitable for the cultivation of crops. [2]
Answer:
(i) Nucleated
(ii) Region enclosed by grid 3985 to 4185

Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Mark and name Chennai [1]
(b) Label the river Godavari [1]
(c) Shade and label the Chhota Nagpur Plateau [1]
(d) Shade and name the Gulf of Kachchh [1]
(e) Mark and name the Gangetic Plains [1]
(f) Shade and label an area with Red Soil [1]
(g) Mark and name the winds which bring rain to Mumbai in July and August [ 1 ]
(h) Mark and name the Satpura Range [1]
(i) Mark and name the Jharia Coal Field [1]
(j) Shade and label the Northern drear coastal region [1]
Answer:

Part-II (50 Marks)
(Attempt any FIVE questions from this Part)

Question 3.
(a) Name two types of cyclonic systems that affect India and two areas that receive rainfall from these systems. [2]
Answer:

Cyclone	Region
1. Temperate	Punjab
2. Tropical	Coastal areas of Orissa and Tamil Nadu

(b) Give two important characteristics of the South West Monsoon rainfall. [2]
Answer:

• They blow during the months of June, July, August and September.
• These cause heavy rainfall almost throughout India.
• These monsoons travel from sea to land.
• These are characterised by oppressive heat and humidity known as ‘October Heat’.

(c) Give reasons for the following:
(i) When the Malabar coast is receiving heavy rainfall . in July, the Tamil Nadu coast is comparatively dry.
(ii) The Northern Plains of India have a Continental type of climate.
(iii) Central Maharashtra receives little rainfall. [3]
Answer:
(i) Tamil Nadu lies on the Eastern Coast. In the month of July South-West monsoons originate in the Arabian Sea, strike against the Western Ghats (Malabar Coast) and cause heavy rain (250 cm). When these leave the Western Ghats they have very little moisture in them as they have covered a long distance. So Tamil Nadu gets less rainfall in summer.

(ii) Because northern plains are located away from the influence of sea.

(iii)

• Central Maharashtra has equable climate so it does not attract South West Monsoon winds.
• It is not a hilly region which can trap the South West Monsoon.

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Calculate the annual rainfall experienced by the station.
(ii) Suggest a name of this station, giving a reason for your answer.
(iii) Name the season during which the rainfall is heaviest. [3]
Answer:
(i) 114.3 cm

(ii) Chennai

• Range of temperature is very low.
• The station is receiving October rainfall.

(iii) Winter

Question 4.
(a) Differentiate between Transported soil and In Situ soil, quoting a suitable example of each. [3]
Answer:

Transported Soil	In Situ Soil
1. Transported soil is very fertile as it is rich in mineral nutrients like potash and lime.	1. It is less fertile as it is deficient in phosphorus, nitrogen, lime and humus.
2. Transported soil is derived from die sediments deposited by rivers.	2. In situ soils are formed due to weathering of ancient crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
3. It is found in river valleys.	3. It is found in Deccan trap.

(b) State two differences between Bhangar and Khadar: [2]
Answer:

Khadar Soil	Bangar Soil
1. It belongs to new alluvium.	1. It belongs to old alluvium.
2. It is more fertile.	2. It contains kankars, nodules, with calcium carbonate in sub soil it is less fertile.
3. It is found in the lower levels in the plains near the river.	3. It is found in the plains at river terraces.

(c) Name the process by which Laterite soil is formed. Mention one disadvantage of this soil. [2]
Answer:
Laterite soil is formed as a result of intense leaching.

Disadvantage:
Laterite soil becomes hard like a brick when it dries up. Thus, it is not useful for agriculture.

(d) With reference to Red soils in India, answer the following questions:
(i) Name two states where it is found.
(ii) State two advantages of this type of soil.
(iii) Mention two important crops grown in this soil. [3]
Answer:
(i) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

(ii) (a) Red soil is used for the production of wheat and rice.
(b) Soils are loamy.

(iii) Wheat and rice.

Question 5.
(a) Mention two main characteristics of Tropical Rain Forests. [2]
Answer:

1. These are Evergreen Forests found in warm and wet regions.
2. These are found where the rainfall is more than 200 cm, with a short dry season.

(b) Name the tree, the timber of which could be used for the following:
(i) A soft and white timber used for making toys and match boxes.
(ii) A hard durable timber used for ship building and furniture making.
(iii) A sweet smelling timber which yields an oil, used for making handicrafts. [3]
Answer:
(i) Semal
(ii) Mahogany
(iii) Sandal wood

(c) (i) Name one region in India for each of the following:
1. Tidal forests.
2. Thom and Scrub.
(ii) Explain why Thorn and Scrub forests are found in the above mentioned region. [3]
Answer:
(i)

• Ganga Brahmaputra region
• Rajasthan

(ii) Due to scanty rainfall

(d) Briefly explain two reasons for forests being an important natural resource. [2]
Answer:

1. Forests play a significant role in the prevention and control of soil erosion by water and wind.
2. Forests have a far reaching effect on climate.

Question 6.
(a) Name two states in which tube wells are extensively used.
Give a reason to explain its importance as a source of irrigation. [2]
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

1. They are reliable source of irrigation.
2. They can be easily dug.

(b) Give two main reasons why water scarcity occurs in India. [2]
Answer:

1. Overexploitation of water sources.
2. Improper management

(c) (i) Name two states where perennial canals are widely used.
(ii) Briefly explain two reasons for perennial canals being a popularform of irrigation in the named states. [3]
Answer:
(i) Punjab and Haryana

(ii)

• Perennial rivers
• The perennial canals draw water throughout the year and irrigate large areas.

(d) (i) Name two methods of water harvesting in India.
(ii) Mention any two objectives of rain water harvesting. [3]
Answer:
(i) Surface runoff and Rooftop rainwater harvesting

(ii)

• To overcome the inadequacy of surface water to meet our demands.
• To improve ground water quality by dilution.

Question 7.
(a) Name the ore of aluminium. Describe two main uses of aluminium. [2]
Answer:
Bauxite

• It is used for making pots, pans and parts of automobile.
• It is used to make electrical wires.

(b) Name any two industrial products for which limestone is used as a source of raw meterial. [2]
Answer:
Cement industry and purification of molten glass.

(c) (i) Name two industries that use a high quantity of coal,
(ii) Name one important area that has large coal deposits in the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal. [3]
Answer:
(i) Iron and steel industry and cement industry
(ii) Jharia and Raniganj

(d) (i) Which state is the largest producer of mineral oil ?
(ii) Name two coastal and two inland oil-refineries in India. [3]
Answer:
(i) (Mumbai high) Maharashtra

(ii) Coastal – Mumbai and Kochi
Inland – Barauni and Bongaigon

Question 8.
(a) Distinguish between Intensive commercial farming and Extensive commercial farming. [2]
Answer:

Intensive farming	Extensive farming
1. Production is increased by using higher inputs and new techniques.	1. Production is increased by bringing more and mote area under cultivation.
2. This is done in thickly populated areas, where no more land is available.	2. This is done in thinly populated areas.

(b) With reference to rice cultivation, answer the following:
(i) Name two leading states in the production of rice,
(ii) Give two advantages of growing rice in nurseries. [2]
Answer:
(i) West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh

(ii)

• The process of transplantation allows better penetration (deeper penetration) of the roots in the soil.
• The process of transplantation greatly increases the yield of the crop.

(c) (i) Name two states where coffee plantations are found,
(ii) What conditions of soil and climate are favourable for the cultivation of coffee ? [3]
Answer:
(i) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

(ii) Temperature – 14°C to 26°C
Rainfall – 125 cm to 250 cm
Soil – Red and laterite soil

(d) Explain in brief the following:
(i) Retting
(ii) Ginning
(iii) Broadcasting [3]
Answer:
(i) Retting: It is a processing technique of jute under which the bundles of jute are immersed in soft running water for 2 to 3 weeks to remove fibre.
(ii) Ginning: It is associated with cotton. Ginning is a process by which seeds are separated from the fibre.
(iii) Broadcasting : It is a method of sowing rice seeds under which seeds are scattered in the field by hand.

Question 9.
(a) Name any two large sugar producing states, one each in north and south India. [2]
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka

(b) Name an agro-based industry based in the following industrial centres:
(i) Ahmedabad
(ii) Mysore [2]
Answer:
(i) Cotton
(ii) Silk

(c) State three favourable conditions responsible for the growth of the jute industry in West Bengal. [3]
Answer:

• West Bengal is the home of jute. It produces the highest number of bales of jute fibre.
• The industry consumes huge quantity of water which is easily available from the Hoogli river.
• Iron and coal needed for the installation and running of this industry are easily available from the nearby mines of Raniganj.
• Cheap labour is available from adjoining states of Bihar and Orissa.

(d) Give geographical reasons for the following:
(i) The woollen industry is a localized industry in India.
(ii) It is necessary to crush sugar cane within 24 hours of harvesting.
(iii) Sericulture flourished in Karnataka. [3]
Answer:
(i) Punjab is one of the major producer of wool products because:

• Raw material, i.e., wool is available from Jammu and Kashmir.
• Due to extreme type of climate, demand is high.
• Due to high density of population, cheap labour is available.
• The industry enjoys the benefit of hydroelectricity from Bhakhra Nangal dam.

(ii) Because the sucrose content of the sugarcane starts decreasing.

(iii)

• Because the temperature ranges from 16°C to 31°C
• Enjoys favourable climatic conditions for rearing the silkworm.

Question 10.
(a) (i) What is the significance of the Electronics Industry in recent times?
(ii) Name two cities that have leading Software Companies. [2]
Answer:
(i) The television and audio industry has boomed as a result of the progress made by electronic industry.
(ii) Hyderabad and Bengaluru

(b) Name the steel plants that were set up with Russian collaboration. [2]
Answer:
Bhilai

(c) Explain three reasons as to why there is a large concentration of iron and steel plants in the Chhota Nagpur Region. [3]
Answer:

1. Chhota Nagpur plateau is famous for iron ores. Bihar, Bengal and Jharkhand provide raw material.
2. Coal which is used as a fuel is another important input and is available in this region in plenty.
3. Because of more population in this region cheap labour is also available.

(d) What industrial product are the following centres noted for?
(i) Gurgaon
(ii)Perambur
(iii) Chittaranjan [3]
Answer:
(i) Cars
(ii) Manufacture rail coach
(iii) Locomotive works

Question 11.
(a) Give one disadvantage of air transport. Why is it still a popular means of transportation in India ? [2]
Answer:
Disadvantage It is very costly.
(i) Air transport is the fastest mode of transport and therefore suitable carriage of goods over a long distance requiring less time.
(ii) Air transport is regarded as the only means of transport in those areas which are not easily accessible to other modes of transport.

(b) (i) Give two reasons why peninsular rivers are not ideal for navigation.
(ii) Name a port on the east coast which is often hit by cyclones during the months of October and November. [3]
Answer:
(i) These are not perennial.
(ii) They flow swiftly over the plateaus and highlands.
(ii) Chennai

(c) (i) State the main objective of the treatment of gaseous waste. [1]
(ii) Name two common diseases caused as a result of gaseous pollution. [1]
Answer:
(i) To minimize the generation of gaseous waste.
(ii) Asthma and bronchitis

(d) What was the cause of the following ?
(i) The Bhopal Tragedy.
(ii) The Minamata Disease.
(iii) The Chernobyl Disaster. [3]

Solving ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Question Paper 2019 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Question Paper 2019 Solved

Time allowed : Two Hours

General Instructions:

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Part I and any four questions from Part II.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part – I (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Part)

Question 1.
(a) State the Law of Supply. [2]
(b) “Entrepreneurs are innovators. ” Briefly explain. [2]
(c) What do you understand by hyperinflation? [2]
(d) Mining operations can destroy the ecosystem. Give two reasons to support the statement. [2]
(e) Highlight the importance of selling costs in a monopolistically competitive market. [2]
Answer:
(a) The law of supply states that other things being equal, the quantity of a good supplied increases with an increase in price level and decreases with a decrease in price level of the good. The supply schedule and supply curve show the positive relationship between price and quantity supplied.

(b) When entrepreneurs adopt new invertions in the production process it is called innovation. Through innovation an entrepreneur can bring about appropriate alteration in his production methods. Product variation is possible through this innovation according to consumer’s choice. Hence according to Schumpeter “the entrepreneurs are innovators”.

(c) When prices rise very fast at double or triple digit rates from more than 20 to 100 per cent per annum or more, it is usually called hyperinflation or galloping inflation.

(d) (i) Physical effects : Soil compaction is one of the most severe effects of mining on the ecosystem. It is a result of large machinery moving across the landscape. Compaction minimises the potential for plant establishment, lowering overall fertility of the soil and increasing water movement through the soil and landscape.
(ii) Chemical effects : Mining operations often contaminate the soil with toxic heavy metals and acids. Acids can lower the pH of the soil, preventing plants and soil micro-organisms from thriving.

(e) Under monopolistic competition, products are differentiated and these differences are made known to the buyers through selling costs. Selling costs refer to the expenses incurred on marketing, sales promotion and advertisement of the product. Such costs are incurred to persuade the buyers to buy a particular brand of the product in preference to competitor’s brand. Due to this reason, selling costs constitute a substantial part of the total cost under monopolistic competition.

Question 2.
(a) Land is heterogeneous in nature. Explain.  [2]
(b) How does the presence of banks in a country help in capital formation?   [2]
(c) Which of the following is considered as labour in Economics? [2]
(i) Acting done by a film star.
(ii) The judgement given by a judge in the court.
(iii) Washing of clothes by a washer man.
(iv) Preparation of tea by a housewife.
(d) Why is money referred to as legal tender money?  [2]
(e) What is meant by product differentiation ? In which market form is it prevalent?  [2]
Answer:
(a) Land like other factors of production differs from another in respect of location, fertility, nature and productivity. Two prices of land are not exactly the same.

(b) Public sector collects savings of the people and helps in capital formation. The nationalised as well as private banks have played an important role in collecting savings and mobilisation of resources.

(c)

1. Yes – Productive
2. Yes – Service
3. Yes – Service
4. No – Non Productive

(d) Legal tender money means that money which individuals are bound to accept it in the payment of goods and services. It cannot be refused in settlement of payments. e.g., coins and currency notes.

(e) Product differentiation means slightly different products of each seller. It prevails in monopolistic competition.

Question 3.
(a) State the formula for calculating the Price Elasticity of demand using the Percentage method. [2]
(b) Explain the impact of inflation on the fixed income group of people. [2]
(c) Give two examples of a pair of commodities that are substitutes of each other. [2]
(d) Explain how an improper price policy results in the poor performance of public sector enterprises. [2]
(e) Differentiate between capital and capital formation. [2]
Answer:
(a) According to this method, price elasticity of demand is measured as the ratio of percentage change in the quantity demanded to percentage change in the price.
E_d = – \(\frac{\text { Percentage Change in } Q_d}{\text { Percentage Change in Price }}\)
E_d = – \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Q}}{\Delta \mathrm{P}} \times \frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{Q}}\)
Where, ∆Q = Change in Q_d
∆P = Change in Price
P = Initial Price
Q = Initial Quantity

(b) Inflation adversely affects fixed income groups like salaried people and pension earners as the real income falls.

(c)

1. Tea and Coffee
2. Computer and Laptop

(d)

1. The basic aim of the Public Sector is public welfare and economic development.
2. Due to this Public Sector keep the prices of their products low. Some time lowers than the cost of production.
3. This lowers the profit margin.
4. Lower profit margin leads to lower capital formation and ultimately still lower profits.

(e)

• Capital: It includes all man-made productive assets such as buildings, machinery, materials, fuels etc.
• Capital formation : By capital formation we mean the increase in the stock of capital goods (e.g., machines, equipments, buildings, means of transport, factories, etc.) which are used for more production.

Question 4.
(a) How does direct tax reduce income inequality? [2]
(b) What are Public Sector Enterprises? Give two examples of Public Sector Enterprises in India. [2]
(c) Distinguish between sunk capital and floating capital. [2]
(d) Briefly explain the following credit control methods adopted by the Central bank: [2]
(i) Publicity
(ii) Moral persuasion
(e) Name any two instruments of Fiscal Policy. [2]
Answer:
(a) Direct taxes reduce income inequality, because they are charged according to the income of person. Higher incomes are charged at higher rates than lower incomes.

(b) Public sector enterprises are those enterprises which are owned and managed by the government.
Example: State Trading Corporation (S.T.C.), Hindustan Steel Limited.

(c)

• Sunk Capital: Capital is said to be sunk when it is put to some special use and it cannot be shifted to any other use. It always remains at the place where it is fixed. Factory, machine or roads can be described as sunk capital.
• Floating capital : Floating capital is the capital which can be used in alternative lines of production. It is also called free capital. Examples: Steel, wood, raw materials etc.

(d)

1. Publicity:
   • The Central Bank undertakes publicity to educate and influence the commercial banks and the public opinion about the money market trends and banking conditions in the country. It publishes statements of its assets, policies, plans and programmes to be adopted in the country.
   • During inflation it advice the banks and people to avoid non-productive loans.
2. Moral persuasion : Under this method, the Central Bank applies the policy of persuasion and pressure on the commercial banks in order to get them to fall in line with its policy.

(e) Taxes, subsidies, public debt etc.

Part – II (60 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this part)

Question 5.
(a) (i) Prepare an individual supply schedule. [7]
(ii) Draw a supply curve based on the schedule prepared above.
(iii) State three assumptions of the law of supply.
(b) Explain four reasons as to why land is considered to be an important factor of production. [8]
Answers:
(a) (i) Individual supply schedule : Individual supply schedule shows the different quantities of a commodity that an individual firm or producer is prepared to sell at various prices.

The law of supply can be explained with the help of individual supply schedule :
Table
Hypothetical Individual Supply Schedule for Commodity X

Price per unit of X(in ₹)	Quantity supplied of X per month (Units)
2	20
3	40
4	60
5	80
6	100

A hypothetical individual supply schedule of commodity X is given in Table. It is clear from the above individual supply schedule that more and more quantity of commodity X is being offered for sale by the firm as the price of the commodity increases. The firm is willing to supply 20 units of product X per month when the product price is ₹ 2 per unit. When the price rises to ₹ 3 per unit, it is now willing to sell 40 units of the commodity.

(ii) Supply curve is a graphical representation of a supply schedule. Individual supply curve reflects an individual supply schedule and market supply curve represents a market supply schedule.

Figure has been graphed according to Table. Thus, curve SS reflects the individual supply curve. Supply curve (as shown in Fig.) has a positive slope, i.e., it moves upward from left to right. It shows that more quantity will be supplied at higher prices and vice- versa. The various points on the supply curve (such as a, b, c, d & e) represent different possible price- quantity combinations. The positively sloping supply curve SS shows the direct relationship between price and quantity supplied.

Fig.: Individual Supply Curve
(iii) The phrase ‘other things being equal’ as used in the law of supply indicates its assumptions. The main assumptions of the law are as follows :

• Price of other related goods should not change.
• Technology of production should not change.
• Cost of factors of production should remain the same.

(b) Land is an important factor of production inspite of the factor that land is a passive factor of production, no production can start without it. The importance of land . becomes evident from the following facts :

(i) Agricultural Development : The agricultural development of a country largely depends upon the quantity and the quality of land. About 43 per cent of land area of India is plain and suitable for crop farming. Some parts of India have good climate, good rainfall and fertile lands and therefore then help in prosperous farming. The development of primary industries such as fishing, mining, forestry, etc., is determined by the quality of land found in the country. About 27 per cent of land area in India is mountainous which provides natural resources in form of forests and mineral resources.

(ii) Industrial Development: The development of industries is also dependent upon land, because the raw materials for these industries are ultimately obtained from land. What is more, the power (i.e., electricity, coal, etc.) to run such industries is also provided by land.

(iii) Development of the Means of Transport and Communication : Land facilitates the development of the means of transport and communication in country. Sea coast and rivers provide navigation facilities for transportation. However, the construction of roads and railway tracks turns out to be very costly and expensive in hilly regions.

(iv) Importance to Man : Much of our requirements of food, clothing, etc., are directly or indirectly met from land. Our food consists of rice, wheat, other cereals and pulses, fish, meat, eggs, milk, etc. – all our food comes from plants and animals which nature supports. Not only food, even clothing comes from nature. Cotton cloth, woollen cloth and silk are products of plants and animals. Land is the main source of our agricultural activities. Residential houses are constructed on land. Not only this, houses are made of bricks, stone, wood and steel, all of which in their raw form come from nature:

Question 6.
(a) Does a demand curve always have a negative slope ? Give three reasons to justify your answer. [7]
(b) Point out the differences between perfect competition and monopoly on the basis of: [8]
(i) Number of sellers
(ii) Market price
(iii) Entry of Firms
(iv) Type of products produced
Answer:
(a) (i) The Giffen’s Paradox: A fall in the price of inferior goods (Giffen Goods) tends to reduce its demand and a rise in its price tends to extend its demand. This phenomenon was first observed by SIR ROBERT GIFFEN, popularly known as Giffen’s paradox. He observed that the working class families of U.K. were compelled to curtail their consumption of meat in order to be able to spend more on bread.

Mr. Giffen, British economist, observed that rise in the price of bread caused the low paid British workers to buy more bread. These workers lived mainly on the diet of bread, when price rose, as they had to spend more for a given quantity of bread, they could not buy as much meat as before. Bread still being comparatively cheaper was substituted for meat even at its high price.

(ii) Fear of Shortage : The people may buy more of a commodity even at higher prices when they fear of a shortage of that commodity in near future. This is contrary to the law of demand. It may happen during times of war and inflation and mostly in the case of goods which fall in the category of necessities of life like sugar, kerosene oil etc.

(iii) Conspicuous Necessities: Another exception occurs in use of such commodities as due to their constant use, have become necessities of life. For example, inspite of the fact that the prices of television sets, refrigerators, washing machines, cooking gas, scoot¬ers etc., have been continuously rising, their demand does not show any tendency to fall. More or less same tendency can be observed in case of most of other commodities that can be termed as ‘Upper-Sector Goods’.

Basis	Perfect Competition	Monopoly
(i) Number of Sellers	There are very large number of sellers.	There is a single seller.
(ii) Market price	Firm is a price-taker.	Firm is a price-maker.
(iii) Entry of Firms	There is freedom of entry and exit. So there is no possibility of abnormal profits and losses in the long run.	There is restriction on entry and exit. So, a firm can earn abnormal profits and losses in the long run.
(iv) Type of products produced	The product is homogeneous, i.e., it is identical in all respects.	There are no close substitutes of the product.

Question 7.
(a) Why is labour an important factor of production? Explain the following characteristics of labour:
(i) Labour cannot be separated from the labourer.  [7]
(ii) Labour can improve its efficiency.
(iii) Labour is perishable.
(b) Discuss four ways in which an entrepreneur contributes to Economic development.  [8]
Answer:
(a) (i) Labour cannot be separated from Labourer: Land and capital can be separated from their owners but labour cannot be separated from a labourer. Labour and labourer are inseparable from each other. The labourer will have to present himself at a place where work is going on. For example, it is not possible for a teacher to teach in the school, while staying away at home. Therefore, the worker and his service go together. He cannot sell his labour like land and capital.

(ii) Labour can improve its efficiency : The supply of labour is inelastic in a country at a particular time. It means its supply can neither be increased nor decreased. For example, if a country has scarcity of a particular type of workers, its supply cannot be increased within a day, month or year. The supply of labour depends upon the size of population. Population cannot be increased or decreased quickly. Children take time to become workers.

(iii) Labour is perishable : If a worker does not work on a particular day, his labour for that day is wasted. Labour is, thus, perishable. Labour cannot be stored. The labourer has to sell his labour immediately irrespective of the prices (i.e., wages) paid to him. It is because of this feature that labour has a weak bargaining power.

(b) Entrepreneurs play an important role in production. In every type of production, element of risk always exists. It is only the entrepreneur who bears risks involved in business. It is due to this fact that entrepreneurship is regarded as an indispensable factor of production.

As the risk element in the business (due to operation of several unforeseen factors such as change in demand, technology, etc.) has gone up in modem production, the importance of entrepreneurship has increased considerably. In fact, greater the element of risk, greater is the importance of entrepreneurship in production.

The truth is that the economic development of a country is determined by the number and quality of its entrepreneurs.
(i) The size of national income which is considered the indicator of economic development of a nation is largely determined by the amount and quality of entrepreneurial resources. What is produced, how much is produced and how efficiently is produced, all depend upon the class of entrepreneurs. A country will be able to produce a large amount of output and generate a large national income if it possesses a large number of entrepreneurs with a modem outlook.

(ii) Secondly, entrepreneurs mobilise idle savings of the public through the issues of shares and debentures. Investment of these public savings in industry results in capital formation which is regarded crucial for economic development.

(iii) Thirdly, entrepreneurs generate employment opportunities and thus help to reduce unemployment problem in the country.

(iv) Fourthly, they also set up industries in the backward areas of the country to avail various concessions and subsidies provided by the government. In this way, they help to reduce regional disparities in the country.

Question 8.
(a) Define Money. Explain the secondary functions of money. [7]
(b) Explain the methods adopted by Commercial Banks to mobilize funds from the public.  [8]
Answer:
(a) Money is anything which is universally accepted as a medium of exchange, measure of value, store of value and standard of deferred payments and has divisibility and transferability. Money is the means of valuation and of payment; as both the unit of account and the generally accepted medium of exchange.

(i) Standard of deferred payment : Most of the business transactions are done on credit basis, which call for future payments. Borrowing and lending is generally carried in terms of money whose value remain fairly stable.
(ii) Store of Value: Money enables a person to preserve value without fear of loss. Money can be stored easily in banks without loosing its value, risk and uncertainty.
(iii) Transfer of Value : Money serves as a transfer of value from place to place and from time to time. It can be transferred from one place to another through cheques, money orders and drafts.

(b) Commercial Banks play an important role in mobilizing savings from the individual savers. They provide the households, the most important agency where they may deposit their savings, to earn income based on interest assuring a high degree of security of their funds.

There qre various kinds of deposits through which Commercial Banks mobilize funds :
1. Fixed Deposit Account : In such deposits, the deposited amount can be withdrawn only after the period of time agreed upon by the bank and the depositor. The interest rates are higher in case of such deposits. The longer the period, higher is the interest rate. However, in practice banks allow the depositors to withdraw funds from such deposits even before the maturity period, but at a low interest.

2. Current Account: A depositor can withdraw their money from such accounts at any time. Usually no interest is paid by the bank on such deposits, but in fact, the bank charges some amount for the services rendered on maintaining such deposits. In some cases, the bank provides overdraft facility also to the depositor against certain securities or personal guarantee. Such deposits are mainly kept by traders and industrialists who are required to make regular deposits and payments through banks.

3. Savings Account: This kind of account is opened by banks with the objective of collecting small savings from the people who have small earnings, and deposit, in small amounts as they like, but the withdrawals are allowed, thrice a week only. However, the rate of interest is less than that on fixed deposits.

4. Recurring Account : In case of such deposits, an account holder has to deposit certain fixed amount every month for a specified period. The amount accumulated along with interest is paid to the depositor after the specified period. Rate of interest paid by the bank is higher than the savings account but less than the fixed deposit account.

Question 9.
(a) What is meant by urbanisation ? Explain three negative impacts of urbanisation on the eco-system. [7]
(b) State two merits and two demerits of direct taxes. [8]
Answers:
(a) Development of cities and towns is known as urbanisation. Adverse impact of urbanisation on the ecosystem : Temperature : Temperature increases severely due to factors such as paving over formerly vegetated land, increasing the number of residences and giant apartments and industries.

Air pollution : There is enormous growth of factories and automobiles due to urbanisation. Harmful emissions of gases and smoke from factories and vehicles cause air pollution. It contributes to allergies and respiratory problems, thereby becoming a huge health hazard. Water issues : The water cycle changes as cities have more precipitation than surrounding areas. Dumping of sewage can lead to outbreaks of epidemics.

(b) Two merits of Direct Tax are :

1. Economical: Direct taxes are economical because the cost of collecting these taxes is relatively low as they are collected at source and paid to the government by the tax payers.
2. Certainty : Direct tax satisfy tax payers as they have the knowledge of correct assessment of tax and the government is fully aware of the amount of tax revenue they will receive.

Two demerits of Direct Tax are :

1. Possibility of evasion: The collection of direct tax is dependent on the honesty and good intentions of the tax-payers. Hence, there is a great possibility of tax-evasion.
2. Inconvenience: Direct taxes are considered highly inconvenient by the tax-payers. The tax-payers have to maintain accounts and submit statements of their income with other relevant details. This creates inconvenience to the tax-payers.

Question 10.
(a) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Economic Times, April 12,2018, New Delhi
NEW DELHI: The Tata Group remains in the race for Air India, the debt-laden national carrier on which IndiGo, Jet Airways and Emirates are no longer keen. Other airlines still interested in participating in the privatisation of Air India include Lufthansa and Singapore Airlines. Reuters on Wednesday reported that the Tata Group is not interested in bidding for Air India. But sources told ET that the Tatas have not pulled out, and are still interested in acquiring Air India along with a foreign partner.

Meanwhile, in another move that will allow bidders to change members between the initial and final bidding stages, likely suitorsfor Air India have sought a relaxation in the norms for consortia participating in the debt-laden carrier’s privatisation.

(i) Explain any two ways in which the government can undertake privatisation of public sector units. [4]
(ii) State three reasons for the need for privatisation. [8]

(b) Discuss four ways in which the State plays an important role in Economic Development. [8]
Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Contraction of Public Sector : Number of industries reserved for the public sector has been reduced from 17 to 8. And now only 3 industries (namely, atomic minerals, atomic energy and rail transport) are reserved for the public sector. Hence, even core industries like iron and steel, electricity, air transport, shipbuilding, heavy machines and strategic industries like defence productions have been opened for the private sector.

2. Policy of Disinvestment : Selling off a part of the equity of public sector undertakings is called disinvestment. According to the government, the purpose of disinvestments of shares of PSUs was to raise resources for the budget to reduce fiscal deficit and to provide funds for the modernisation of PSUs. The government has adopted two methods of disinvestments- (i) selling of shares in select PSUs and (ii) strategic sale of a PSU.

Disinvestment was primarily through sale of minority shares in small lots. Under the latter method, the government started selling major part of its stake one or another a private sector company. It resorted to strategic sales of a number of companies. Modern Foods India, Bharat Aluminium Company (BALCO), Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. (VSNL), Maruti Udyog Ltd. (MUL) etc. are examples of strategic sales. At present, . the emphasis is to list large profitable PSUs on domestic stock exchanges and to sell their equity in small portions.

(ii) (a) Poor performance of Public Enterprises : In view of the poor performance of public sector undertakings, public sector has become an economic burden on the national economy.

(b) Rising Budgetary Deficits : The budgetary deficits in India are increasing considerably and further contribute to rising prices. To reduce budgetary deficits, the scope of public sector should be contracted and that of private sector be expanded.

(c) High Capital Output Ratio : The capital output ratio in the economy has been increasing particularly for the public sector. It is likely to increase further. High capital output ratio in the public sector demands privatisation. In short, as private enterprises are motivated by profits, they take right economic decisions. This will avoid the wastage of resources. Hence, the economy is expected to show greater efficiency and productivity under privatisation.

(b) (I) Promotion of welfare : In India, ‘socialistic pattern of society’ has been regarded as the national goal. This goal calls for state participation in industrial and commercial enterprises to promote social welfare. In our economy, public sector enterprises are being used as an instrument to promote economic growth with social justice.

(ii) Infrastructure : Without the development of infrastructural facilities (such as transport, communication, power, irrigation, education, basic industries, etc.) economic development is not possible. These infrastructural facilities are developed only by the public sector of the country because private sector does not take interest in their development due to lack of resources and less profitability. Public sector investment in infrastructure has paved the way for agricultural and industrial development.

(iii) Strong Industrial Base : There is no denying the fact that rapid industrialisation during the first three decades after independence was mainly due to the public sector. Thus, by developing a strong industrial base, the public sector has now opened the path of rapid industrialisation of the country.

(iv) Export Promotion and Import Substitution : Public sector enterprises have been contributing a lot for the promotion of India’s exports. This has resulted in foreign exchange earning.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2014 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2014 Solved

Part – I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all Questions from this part)

Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) (i) Give the four figure grid reference of the settlement of Hamirpura.
(ii) Give the six figure grid reference of the temple in the settlement of Jolpur. [2]
Answer:
(i) 4735
(ii) 535303

(b) (i) What does the blue coloured circle in the grid square 5230 represent ?
(ii) What is the compass direction of Dantrai from Jolpur? [2]
Answer:
(i) Well
(ii) NW

(c) What is the difference between the :
(i) pattern of settlements in 5336 and the settlement of Idarla ?
(ii) drainage pattern of the streams in 5235 and those in 5435 ? [2]
Answer:
(i) Pattern of settlement in 5336 is scattered and the settlement of Idarla is nucleated or clustered.
(ii) Trellis pattern (5235) and Dendritic pattern (5435).

(d) What is the value of the contour line in square 4838 ?
What is the contour interval in the map? [2]
Answer:
The value of the line in square 4838 is 300. Contour interval = 500 – 280 = 220.

(e) Mention any two factors which provide evidence that the region in the map extract is a rural region. [2]
Answer:
(i) Presence of agricultural land is shown by yellow colour.
(ii) Scattered settlement in most of the parts.

(f) (i) How does the feature, indicated by the black curves in 5332, show that rainfall in this region is seasonal?
(ii) Mention one man-made feature in the map which also provides evidence that the rainfall is seasonal. [2]
Answer:
(i) Caused by weathering due to alternate wet and dry periods.
(ii) Tank.

(g) (i) Name two natural features in 5138.
(ii) Name two manmade features in 4936. [2]
Answer:
(i) Dry stream and grass.
(ii) Permanent huts and Linedwell

(h) Name two features which make Dantrai a more important settlement than the other settlements in the map extract. [2]
Answer:
It has a police chauki and post office.

(i) Calculate the area of the region which lies to the south of northing 21 in square kilometres. [2]
Answer:
No. of complete squares = 27 × 1 = 27
No. of \(\frac{2}{3}\) squares = \(\frac{2}{3}\) = 2.0
Area = 29.0 sq.km

(j) What are the following ?
(i) The black vertical line between eastings 55 and 56.
(ii) 302 in grid square 4937. [2]
Answer:
(i) It represents degree of longitude,
(ii) Spot height.

Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Draw, name and number the Standard Meridian. [1]
(b) Label the river Yamuna. [1]
(c) Shade and name the Gulf of Khambhat. [1]
(d) Mark and name the Nathu-La Pass. [1]
(e) Mark and name the Karakoram Range. [1]
(f) Shade and name a sparsely populated State in Northeast India ? [1]
(g) Shade a region with laterite soil in Eastern India. [1]
(h) Mark with a dot and name Vishakhapatnam. [1]
(I) Mark and name the winds that bring rain to West Bengal in summer. [1]
(j) Print S on the iron mines in Singhbhum. [1]
Answer:

Part – II (50 marks)
(Attempt any FIVE questions from this part)

Question 3.
(a) Mention the different sources of rain in Punjab and Tamil Nadu during the winter season. [2]
Answer:
Source of rainfall in Punjab is the Western disturbances whereas in Tamil Nadu it is the North-east trade winds.

(b) State the benefits that are derived from the local winds that blow in summer in the following states: [2]
(i) Kerala
(ii) West Bengal
Answer:
(i) Kerala- Mango shower – These occur in South India during April-May. They bring little rain which is important for mango, tea and coffee plant.

(ii) West Bengal-Kal Baisakhi – These local winds are accompanied by thunderstorms and bring rainfall. This rain in the month of Apirl-May is good for jute and rice.

(c) Mention a geographical reason for each of thefollowing:
(i) Patna receives heavier rain than Delhi.
(ii) Western Rajasthan receives no rain from the Arabian Sea branch of the South West Monsoon winds.
(iii) Mangalore is not cold even in the month of December. [3]
Answer:
(i) The monsoon winds in Indo-Gangetic plain move from east to west. As they move further and further the moisture content of these winds is reduced.

(ii)

• Western Rajasthan (Jodhpur) receives scanty rainfall from the Arabian Sea branch of monsoons because there are no physical barriers (like Himalayas) to obstruct the winds.
• The Aravalli hills lie parallel to the direction of the monsoons as such they pass without any obstacles.
• During the summer, the temperature of the place is so high that the monsoon winds get dry and do not cause any rain.

(iii) Due to equable influence of the sea.

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Calculate the annual temperature range.
(ii) What is the total annual rainfall ?
(iii) Presuming that the station is located in India, give a reason for its location being on the east coast or the west coast of India. [3]
Answer:
(i) 36.2-24.6 = 11.6
(ii) 140.9 cm
(iii) East coast. Because the region receives winter rainfall.

Question 4
(a) State any two methods of controlling soil erosion. [2]
Answer:

• Constructing bunds.
• Contour ploughing.

(b) Mention two differences between alluvial soil and red soil. [2]
Answer:

Alluvial Soil	Red Soil
1. Alluvial soil is very fertile as it is rich in mineral nutrients like potash and lime.	1. It is less fertile as it is deficient in phosphorus, nitrogen, lime and humus.
2. Most of alluvial soil is derived from the sediments deposited by rivers.	2. Most of the red soil has been formed due to weathering of ancient crystalline and meta morphic rocks.

(c) Give a geographical reason for:
(i) different regions in India having different kinds of soil.
(ii) black soil being suitable for growth of cotton.
(iii) the conservation of soil as a natural resource. [3]
Answer:
(i) Due to different relief and climate.

(ii)

• The soil has the ability to retain moisture.
• The black soils are made of extremely fine material i.e., clayey material.

(iii)

• Soil is the most precious asset of India. More than 60% of the population is dependent on agriculture.
• Protective soil alone ensures progress of agriculture, forests and industrial development.

(d) Name the soil which :
(i) is good for the cultivation of cashew nuts.
(ii) covers almost all of West Bengal.
(iii) is a result of leaching. [3]
Answer:
(i) Laterite soil
(ii) Alluvial soil
(iii) Laterite soil

Question 5.
(a) Write two reasons why monsoon deciduous forests are commercially more valuable than other types of forests. [2]
Answer:

1. The tropical forests yield sandalwood, Semal, Teak, Sal, etc. trees which are used for making furniture as well as other products.
2. These forests yield bamboo which is used for construction work, furniture, fibre and paper.

(b) How do forests :
(i) have a favourable effect on the climate of the region?
(ii) act as a flood control measure ? [2]
Answer:
(i)

• Forests play an important role in regulating the earth’s temperature and weather patterns by storing large quantities of carbon and water.
• They cool the air through a process called evapotranspiration.

(ii) Roots of trees absorb much of the rain water and use it slowly during the dry season. They also regulate flow of water and help in controlling the floods.

(c) Give one important use of each of the following types of trees:
(i) Sundri
(ii) Sandalwood
(iii) Rosewood [3]
Answer:
(i) Medicinal product
(ii) Handicrafts
(iii) Furniture

(d) Name the natural vegetation largely found in the following regions:
(i) The delta of the Ganga river
(ii) The windward side of the Western Ghats
(iii) The Deccan Plateau. [3]
Answer:
(i) Littoral or swampy forests
(ii) Tropical evergreen forests
(iii) Tropical deciduous forests

Question 6.
(a) State two reasons why tank irrigation is popular in South India. [2]
Answer:
Tank irrigation is widely prevalent in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Odisha. The tank irrigation is more important in the Deccan Plateau because :

1. The terrain of Deccan Plateau is undulating and is made-up of hard rocks which makes it difficult to dig canals and wells.
2. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large quantity.

(b) Mention two advantages that surface wells have over inundation canals. [2]
Answer:

1. They are the simplest and cheapest source of irrigation whereas inundation canals needs lot of investment.
2. Wells provide irrigation throughout the year whereas inundation canals provide irrigation only during the rainy season.

(c) Give one geographical reason for each of the following statements :
(i) Irrigation is necessary despite the monsoon.
(ii) The drip method of irrigation is the best among all modern methods of irrigation.
(iii) Canal irrigation leads to the ground around it becoming unproductive. [3]
Answer:
(i) Due to uncertainty and unequal distribution of rainfall.

(ii)

• Fertiliser and nutrient loss is minimised due to localised application and reduced leaching.
• Water application efficiency is high.
• Field levelling is not necessary.

(iii) This is due to water-logging.

(d) Give three reasons for conservation of water resources. [3]
Answer:
1. Water is necessary for life on earth. It is believed that life first originated in water before it invaded land. Water is in fact a pre-condition of life.

2. Cultivation of crops depends on the availability of water. Water dissolves minerals and other nutrients in the ground. The roots of the plants draw this nutritious water from the soil. India is an agricultural country, so availability of water is a must.

3. Water is also important for industry. Its main function is for cooling.

Question 7.
(a) Mention any two uses of managanese. [2]
Answer:

1. It is used for making iron and steel and its alloy.
2. It is used for making paints, glass, chemical, etc.

(b) Which of the different varieties of coal is used for domestic purposes and why ? [2]
Answer:
Anthracite and Bituminous. Because both these varieties contain high percentage of carbon with high calorific value.

(c) Name the mineral used in the manufacture of:
(i) Cement
(ii) Aluminium
(iii) Synthetics [3]
Answer:
(i) Limestone
(ii) Bauxite
(iii) Petroleum

(d) Which State is the leading producer of the following minerals ?
(i) Coal
(ii) Oil
(iii) Manganese [3]
Answer:
(i) Jharkhand
(ii) Assam
(iii) Odisha

Question 8.
(a) How has poverty and fragmentation of land become problems of agricultural India ? [2]
Answer:
(i) Due to fragmentation of land and poverty farmers are unable to purchase modem inputs like fertilisers, HYV seeds, pesticides, etc.

(ii) Due to poverty farmers are unable to purchase new and modem machinery like tractors, harvesters, combines, etc. So per hectare productivity remains low.

(b) Mention any two features of plantation farming stating two examples. [2]
Answer:

1. It is a commercial type of agriculture.
2. Under this, cultivators don’t move from one place to another.
   Examples : Tea and coffee.

(c) Mention three differences in the geographical conditions and cultivation of rice and wheat. [3]
Answer:

Rice	Wheat
1. It requires average temperature of 25 °C. During early growing stages temp, between 16°C to 20°C is required. During ripening stage temperature between 18°C to 32°C is required.	1. It requires different climate during sowing and harvesting. During early stage: 10°C to 15 °C. During ripening : 25 °C to 28°C.
2. It requires rainfall between 150 cm to 300 cm.	2. Rainfall of 50 cm to  75 cm is sufficient.
3. It requires loamy and alluvial soil.	3. Loamy dumat and black soil is required. The soil should be well drained, textured and should contain humus and small amount of lime.

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following :
(i) Cotton grows widely in Maharashtra.
(ii) Clonal planting is the best methodfor tea propagation.
(iii) Oilseeds are an important commercial crop grown in India. [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. Temperature : Cotton needs a warm climate. Summer temperature 21°C to 27°C and 200 frost-free days.
2. Rainfall: Moderate to light rainfall is adequate for cotton cultivation. Ranging rainfall between 50 cm to 80 cm is adequate.

(ii) It gives more production.

(iii) Due to variety of uses of oilseeds are an important export item.

Question 9.
(a) Name any two textile industries using any animal fibres. Name an important State where these industries are located. [2]
Answer:
Wool and silk industry. Punjab and Karnataka.

(b) Give two reasons for each of the following:
(i) Kolkata is an important cotton manufacturing centre even though West Bengal is not a leading producer of cotton.
(ii) The wool industry is not as well developed as compared to the cotton industry in India. [2]
Answer:
(i)

• Climate: Kolkata enjoys humid climate which is essential for this industry because thread does not break so frequently.
• Transportation: Kolkata is a major port city of India. The port helps in the import of machinery and raw material. It also helps in the export of finished products i.e., cloth.

(ii)

• Shortage of raw wool: India does not produce sufficient quantity of fine quality raw wool.
• Lack of market : Most parts of India have tropical and sub-tropical climate which restricts the demand for woollen clothes.

(c) Mention three problems of the jute textile industry in India. [3]
Answer:
The challenges faced by jute industry are :

• The invention of synthetic as a substitute for the jute is giving tough competition to jute goods.
• Because of old technology the cost of production is high due to which demand of jute goods has declined.
• International competition, especially from Bangladesh, has also led to the decline of the industry.

(d) Mention three factors that have helped the sugar industry flourish in the peninsular region rather than in the northern regions of India. [3]
Answer:

1. Tropical climate of the south is best suited for the cultivation of sugarcane. Sugarcane produced here is thicker and sweeter and has more sugar content in it.
2. Sugarcane is a soil exhausting crop. In south, fertilisers are more commonly used. This results in higher sugar content in sugarcane as compared to the north.
3. Sugar mills in the south are in the cooperative sector. Thus, people do more work and get better dividends.

Question 10.
(a) Name one integrated iron and steel plant in the private sector.
Where does it obtain its iron and coal from ? [2]
Answer:
Tata iron and steel plant Iron – Singhbhum Coal – Jharia

(b) Name two raw materials used in the petrochemical industry and state two advantages of petrochemical products. [2]
Answer:
Petrol and coal.

Advantages:

• These products are cost effective.
• Its raw material is easily available.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following :
(i) Vishakhapatnam is a leading centre for ship-building.
(ii) Mini steel plants cause less pollution than integrated steel plants.
(iii) The electronic industry has made an impact on both entertainment and education. [3]
Answer:
(i) Vishakhapatnam is a port city so raw materials and finished products can be imported and exported easily.

(ii) Mini steel plants causes less pollution because they uses electric and induction furnace for processing.

(iii) 1. Electronic industry given us various products like television, computers, laptops, tabs, radio, DTH, etc. All these electronic products have become the major source of entertainment as well as education.
2. With the help of these products information is readily available and can be shared through the use of internet.

(d) Name a manufacturing centre for each of the following industries:
(i) Engines for MIG aircraft
(ii) Diesel locomotives
(iii) Software. [3]
Answer:
(i) Koraput
(ii) Varanasi
(iii) Bengaluru

Question 11.
(a) Why is road transport in India considered more useful than rail transport ? State two reasons in support of your answer. [2]
Answer:

• Roads require less investment as compared to the railways.
• These can be built at higher altitudes and at any place.
• Road transportation is easy and is within the reach of the common man. Moreover, it is available for 24 hours.

(b) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage each of inland waterways. [2]
Answer:

• Advantage : It is the most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
• Disadvantage: Water transport as a whole is much slower than its roads, rail and air competitors.

(c) How does waste accumulation affect the environment ? [3]
Answer:

• When the waste is dumped in an improper way, the landscape of the area gives unpleasant look.
• The uncontrolled dumping of urban waste damages the beauty of the countryside.

(d) What is acid rain ? Mention two of its effects. [3]
Answer:
Acid rain is a corrosive type of air pollution which occurs when oxides of sulphur and nitrogen combine with the moisture of atmosphere.
Effects:

• Acid rain severely damages the various ecosystems in many parts of the world. Many forests and lakes have been damaged by it.
• When acid rain pours on soil, it destroys the nutrients of the soil and reduces its fertility.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2015 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2015 Solved

Part – I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all Questions from this part)

Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the four figure grid reference for a figure similar to the one given below. Identify the figure: [2]

Answer:
6322, Dry Tank with embankment

(b) How is the drainage pattern in grid square 1606 different from that in grid square 1608 ? [2]
Answer:
6217 – Radial, 6219 – Trellis

(c) Identify the correct six figure grid reference for each of the following:
(i) Gautam Maharishi Mandir 655182
(ii) 443
634164 ? [2]
Answer:
(i) 655182,
(ii) 634164

(d) Name the most prominent settlement other than ABU.
Give two reasons to support your answer. [2]
Answer:
Hetamji
(i) The settlement has a school.
(ii) The settlement has telecommunication facilities.

(e) (i) What is the general slope of the land in the north-west corner of the map extract ?
(ii) What is the compass direction of Chandela (6415) from Hanumanji ka Mandir (6719)? [2]
Answer:
(i) East to West
(ii) South West.

(f) What do you understand by the following terms as used on the map extract:
(i) Causeway (6213)
(ii) Falls 25m (6818). [2]
Answer:
(i) It is a raised metalled road across a minor stream.
(ii) Water plunge over a steep slope of 25 meters.

(g) (i) If you were to cycle at 10 km an hour, how much time would it take to cover the north-south distance depicted on this map extract?
(ii) Calculate the area enclosed by Eastings 65 to 68 and Northings 15 to 20. [2]
Answer:
(i) Speed = 10 km/h
Scale = 2 cm to 1 km
Total complete grids = 10
Distance of 1 Grid = 1 km
Distance of 10 Grid = 1 × 10 = 10 km
Time = \(\frac{D}{S}=\frac{10}{10}\) = 1 h

(ii) Total Grids = 24
Area of 1 grid = 1 sqkm
Area of 24 grids = 1 × 24 = 24 sqkm

(h) (i) Identify one natural feature in grid square 6221.
(ii) Identify one man made feature in grid square 6514. [2]
Answer:
(i) Water Stream 6221
(ii) Water tank with embankment.

(i) Give two probable reasons, other than dry water features, to indicate that the region depicted on the map extract receives seasonal rainfall. [2]
Answer:
(i) There are certains roads which are motor- able only in dry season. (6213)
(ii) The presence of open scrub indicates semi desert conditions.

(j) Calculate, in metres, the difference in height between the highest point on the map extract and the contour height given in grid square 7013. [2]
Answer:
Highest point = 1401 (grid 6619)
Contour height (7013) = 280
Difference = 1401 – 280 = 1121

Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Mark and name the Nilgiris. [1]
(b) **Shade and label the Malwa Plateau. [1]
(c) Shade and label the Malabar Coastal Plains. [1]
(d) Mark and name the river Gomti. [1]
(e) Shade and name the Andaman Sea. [1]
(f) Mark and name Allahabad. [1]
(g) Mark with a single arrow and name the winds that bring winter rain to north- west India. [ 1 ]
(h) Mark and name Digboi. [1]
(i) Mark an area with laterite soil below the Tropic of Cancer. [1]
(j) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass. [1]
Answer:

Part-II (50 Marks)
(Attempt any FIVE questions from this Part)

Question 3.
(a) Explain two factors that affect the climate ofIndia giving a suitable example for each. [2]
Answer:
(i) Mountain range : The Himalayan range acts as a barriers to protect the country from cold winds of Central Asia. It also creates barriers for the S-W Monsoon and causes rainfall.
(ii) Long coastline : South India is a Peninsula and has a long coastline. Peninsula situation has helped it to enjoy maritime climate.

(b) State two differences between the rainfalls that occur from June to September and that from December to February in North India. [2]
Answer:

December to February Rainfall	June to September Rainfall
(i) It is caused by North East monsoon.	(i) It is caused by South-West monsoon.
(ii) There is very less rainfall that too in limited areas, for e.g. Tamilnadu coast.	(ii) There is heavy rainfall almost throughout India.

(c) Give a geographic reason for each of the following:
(i) Kerala has the longest rainy season.
(ii) The Konkan coast experiences orographic rainfall.
(iii) The city of Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh has a higher range of temperature than that of Chennai in Tamil Nadu. [3]
Answer:
(i)

• Kerala is the state where South West monsoon strikes the first.
• Kerala also receives rainfall from retreating monsoon.

(ii) Orographic rainfall is a rain which occurs due to uplift of air caused by relief features such as mountains. The Western Ghats rise abruptly like a wall from Western Coastal plains more or less parallel to the coastline. This wall like mountain range forces the moist laden South-West monsoons from the Arabian Sea to ascent the slope thereby giving heavy rainfall in the West Coastal Plain and the Konkan coast.

(iii) Kanpur is located away from the sea-coast whereas chennai is located on the coast.

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Identify the hottest month.
(ii) Calculate the annual rainfall.
(iii) Name the winds that bring the maximum rainfall to this city. [3]
Answer:
(i) May with temperature of 28°C.
(ii) Annual rainfall 131.9.
(iii) North – East trade winds.

Question 4.
(a) State the characteristic of each of the soils named below that makes them most suitable for crop cultivation:
(i) Black soil
(ii) Red soil [2]
Answer:
(i)

• The black soil has the ability to retain moisture which is due to its clay contents.
• The soil is rich in calcium, carbonate, magnesium, potash, etc.

(ii)

• Red soil is light in texture.
• Soil is loamy in deep depressions and in uplands it consists of loose gravel a highly coarse material.

(b) State the geographic term for each of the following processes
(i) The process by which soluble minerals dissolve in rain water and percolate to the bottom, leaving the top soil infertile.
(ii) The process by which rain water, flowing in definite paths, removes the top soil, thus causing deep cuts to the surface of the land. [2]
Answer:
(i) Leaching
(ii) Gully erosion

(c) Define the following:
(i) Pedogenesis
(ii) Humus
(iii) Bhangar [3]
Answer:
(i) Pedogenesis is the science and study of the processes that lead to the formation of soil.

(ii) Humus : It is the organic matter present in the soil formed by the decomposition of plants and animals.

(iii)

• It belongs to old alluvium.
• It contains kankars, nodules, with calcium carbonate in subsoil so it is less fertile.

(d) Give a geographic reason for each of the following :
(i) Alluvial soil is extremely fertile.
(ii) Need for Soil conservation.
(iii) Reafforestation should be practised extensively. [3]
Answer:
(i) The alluvial soil is made up of very fine particles known as silt. It is brought down by the rivers.

(ii) Soil is the most precious and natural asset of any nation.
It takes millions of years to form soil upto a few cm in depth.

(iii) To Check Soil Erosion : The roots of trees and plants anchor and hold the soil together and so it is not easily removed by running water and wind. Trees, plants, shrubs and grasses reduce the speed of flowing water and allow the water to be absorbed by the soil.

Ecological balance : Trees play very importance role in ecological balance as they absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

Question 5.
(a) State two characteristics of Tropical Deciduous forests. [2]
Answer:

• These forests are found in areas receiving 200 cm-70 cm of rainfall.
• These are the most widespread forests of India.

(b) State two reasons why Tropical Evergreen forests are difficult to exploit. [2]
Answer:

• Due to dense undergrowth.
• A large number of species is found together. It creates difficulty in the commercial use of any particular variety.
• Lack of transport facilities.

(c) Identify the tree as per its characteristics mentioned below:
(i) It yields wood that is hard and scented and is usually found in high altitudes.
(ii) It is generally found in deltaic regions and is used to make boats.
(iii) The furniture made from the wood of this tree is generally the most expensive. [3]
Answer:
(i) Sandalwood
(ii) Sundari
(iii) Teak

(d) Differentiate between afforestation and deforestation. State a disadvantage of deforestation. [3]
Answer:

Afforestation	Deforestation
Planting of trees for commercial purposes is known as afforestation.	Clearing or cutting of trees is known as deforestation.

Disadvantage of deforestation:

• Deforestation leads to ecological imbalance and soil erosion.

Question 6.
(a) State two reasons why irrigation is important to a country like India. [2]
Answer:

• Rainfall in India is very uncertain and seasonal.
• There is unequal distribution of rainfall.
• Different varieties of crops are grown which require different quantities of water supply.

(b) Name two modern methods of irrigation. State one important reason for their growing popularity. [2]
Answer:
Drip irrigation and sprinkler system. These are water saving techniques.

(c) (i) Why is well irrigation still a popular means of irrigation ? Give two reasons to support your answer,
(ii) State the significance of rainwater harvesting. [3]
Answer:
(i)

• They are the simplest and cheapest source of irrigation.
• They can be dug at any convient place.

(ii)

• To overcome the inadequacy of surface water to meet our demands.
• To check a fall in groundwater levels and to enhance availability at specific place and time.

(d) (i) Why is the world in danger of facing a severe water shortage in the coming future? Give two reasons to support your answer.
(ii) State one measure the Government should adopt to handle the present water crisis. [3]
Answer:
(i) Water tables are falling in several of the world’s key farming regions, including under the North China Plain, which produces nearly one third of China’s grain harvest; in the Punjab, which is India’s breadbasket; and in the U.S. southern Great Plains, a leading grain producing region.

Population expansion is the single biggest reason for increasing pressure on water resources. Water consumption has almost doubled in the last fifty years and naturally per capita availability of water has steadily decreased.

(ii) Government should promote rainwater harvesting. Drip, sprinkle and other water saving techniques for irrigation should be promoted.

Question 7.
(a) ** State two reasons why limestone is a valuable mineral. [2]

(b) State the most important use of the following:
(i) Iron ore
(ii) Bauxite [2]
Answer:
(i) Iron ore – Iron Extraction.
(ii) Bauxite – Aluminium Extraction.

(c) Name the:
(i) Largest oil refinery in the Public sector.
(ii) State that is the largest producer of coal.
(iii) Best variety of iron ore. [3]
Answer:
(i) Guwahati Refinery (Assam)
(ii) Jharkhand
(iii) Magnetite

(d) Give a geographic reason for each of the following:
(i) Many port cities have their own oil refineries.
(ii) Petroleum is called a fossil fuel ’.
(iii) Coal is called a versatile mineral. [3]
Answer:
(i) Most of the oil fields are found in the ocean beds.
(ii) Because it has been formed from the prehistoric organic remains of plants and animals.
(iii) Because of its multiple uses as a major source of energy as well as a major raw material.

Question 8.
(a) Differentiate between a Rabi crop and a Kharif crop. [2]
Answer:
(i) Kharif crops are grown during the onset of monsoon during the months of June or early July. By the end of the monsoons i.e., early November, these are ready for harvest. Rice, maize, millets, cotton are important crops.

(ii) Rabi crops are grown during the month of November and are harvested in April-May. Wheat, tobacco, gram, mustard are important crops.

(b) State an important difference between the climatic requirements for growing cotton and jute. [2]
Answer:
table – 3

(c) Give the geographic term for each of the following:
(i) Cultivation of sugarcane from the root stock of the cane which has been cut.
(ii) The residue left behind after the crushing of oilseeds.
(iii) The process by which latex is converted into a thick, spongy mass by adding acetic acid or formic acid [3]
Answer:
(i) Ratoon
(ii) Oil Cake
(iii) Vulcinisation

(d) Give a geographic reason for each of the following:
(i) Tea is cultivated on hill slopes.
(ii) The yield per hectare of sugarcane is higher in the Southern states.
(iii) Pulses are important food crops. [3]
Answer:
(i) Tea is grown on hill slopes because stagnant water is harmful to the roots of the plant and on the hill slopes water drains away easily hence, water logging does not take place.

(ii) Due to favourable climatic condition the sucrose content is higher so yield per hectare is high in southern India as compared to Northern India.

(iii) They are a very good source of protein in a vegetarian diet.

Question 9.
(a) (i) Why is the cotton textile industry called an agro-based industry ?
(ii) Give an important reason for it being more widespread than the jute industry. [2]
Answer:
(i) Cotton the basic input is obtained from agriculture.
(ii) Availability of jute is limited to some states only whereas cotton is grown in many states.

(b) (i) State one important point of similarity between the woollen industry and the silk industry.
(ii) Name the state that produces the most woollen and silk products respectively. [2]
Answer:
(i) Both are agro based industries.
(ii) Woollen – Punjab, Silk – Karnataka

(c) (i) State two major problems faced by the sugar industry,
(ii) Name two by-products of the sugar industry. [3]
Answer:
(i)

• The sugarcane is of low quality with low sugar content.
• Transportation facilities are not adequate.
• The factories are small and uneconomical to operate.

(ii) Molasses and Bagasse

(d) (i) State one of the main problems of the silk industry.
(ii) Name two products of the jute industry, other than rope and gunny bags.
(iii) Why are synthetic fibres popular? [3]
Answer:
(i) Synthetic fibers are providing tough competition.
(ii) Jute bags and carpets.
(iii) They are cheap and durable.

Question 10.
(a) (i) Why is the iron and steel industry called a basic industry?
(ii) Define a mini steel plant. [2]
Answer:
(i) Iron and steel industry is a key or basic industry as lays the foundation of other industries. Most of the other industries such as automobiles, locomotive, rail tracks, ship building, machine building, bridges, dams and many other industries and commercial activities depend upon iron and steel industry.

(ii) The steel plants that do not do all the processing at one place are called mini- steel plants. These plants are small in size and use less capital investments. They use steel scrap in electric furnace and hence help in recycling iron and reduce the consumption of coal.

(b) With which large scale industry would you identify the following manufacturing centres? [2]
(i) Kanpur
(ii) Rourkela
(iii) Pune
(iv) Mangalore
Answer:
(i) Cotton textile
(ii) Iron and Steel Industry
(iii) Automobile
(iv) Chemical and Fertiliser

(c) (i) State two reasons for the growing importance in the status of petrochemical industries.
(ii) Name two products of the petroleum industry. [3]
Answer:
(i) Petrochemicals are those chemicals and compounds which are derived from petroleum resources. These chemicals are used for manufacturing a large variety of articles such as synthetic rubber, ferrous and non- ferrous metals, plastics, dye-stuffs, insecticides, drugs and pharmaceuticals.

(ii) Petrochemical products are cost effective

(d) (i) State two conditions necessary for the setting up of a heavy engineering industry.
(ii) Name a ship building yard on the east coast and a centre for making electric locomotives. [3]
Answer:
(i)

• Availability of cheap raw material.
• Large amount of capital.

(ii) Kolkata

Question 11.
(a) (i) Why is the Railways an important means of transport as compared to Airways?
(ii) State one economic benefit of the Golden Quadrilateral Project. [2]
Answer:
(i)

• Railway is cheap mode of transportation.
• Railway can cany bulky raw material.

(ii) It will help in expanding the market.

(b) (i) State one important difference between an expressway and a highway.
(ii) Name thefirst expressway constructed in the country.
(iii) State a reason why the Northern Rivers ate more suitable for navigation than the Deccan Rivers. [3]
Answer:
(i)

• Expressway: These have been constructed for high speed movement of vehicles.
• Highway: These provide link between one state to another.

(ii) Mumbai to Pune

(iii) Deccan rivers forms gorges and rapids whereas northern rivers don’t form major gorges or rapids.

(c) (i) “Waste segregation is important”. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Why is nuclear waste harmful?
(iii) Explain briefly how as a student, you can help in the reduction of waste generation. [3]
Answer:
(i) Waste segregation is important because under this waste is segregated into different categories like biodegrdable and non-biodegrdable. It increases recycling process.

(ii)

• The iodine may affect the White Blood Cells, bone marrow, spleen, lymph, skin cancer, sterility, eye and damage to the lung.
• The strontium has the ability to aggregate in the bones and form a bone cancer and leads to tissue degeneration.

(iii)

• We should follow the principle of simple living.
• We should prefer the use of natural energy resources such as solar cooker and minimise the use of cooking gas.
• We should close all the taps when not in use.
• We should switch off electric appliances when not in use.
• We should make minimum use of auto vehicles and maximum use of the public transport vehicles

(d) (i) What is understood by biodegradable waste?
(ii) State one source of gaseous waste. [2]
Answer:
(i) Biodegradable waste includes that material which breakdown or decompose in the soil, e.g., fruits and vegetables.

(ii) Factories and vehicles

Solving ICSE Class 10 Economics Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2022 Semester 2 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2022 Solved Semester 2

Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: One and a half hours

General Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B.
• The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A
(Attempt all questions)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question. Write the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) The debt that does not yield income to the government is called as:
(a) Productive
(b) Unproductive
(c) Lateral
(d) Standard
Answer:
(b) Unproductive

(ii) WPI stands for:
(a) Wholesale Print Index
(b) Wholesale Point Index
(c) Wholesale Price Index
(d) Whole Point Index
Answer:
(c) Wholesale Price Index

(iii) Revenue expenditure is in nature.
(a) Non-recurring
(b) Recurring
(c) Simple
(d) Complex
Answer:
(b) Recurring

(iv) Income tax is an example of:
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Social tax
(d) Goods and service tax
Answer:
(a) Direct tax

(v) When the rate of inflation is between 10% – 20% per annum then it is ………. stage of inflation.
(a) Running
(b) Hyper
(c) Creeping
(d) Slow
Answer:
(a) Running

(vi) The sum total of all debt is called as …….
(a) Redeemable debt
(b) Irredeemable debt
(c) Net debt
(d) Gross debt
Answer:
(d) Gross debt

(vii) The revenue derived by the government from public enterprises is also known as :
(a) Commercial revenue
(b) Administrative revenue
(c) Socially desired tax
(d) Local tax
Answer:
(b) Administrative revenue

(viii) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is a ……. of the government to protect the consumers from exploitation by retailers or producers.
(a) Commercial measure
(b) Administrative measure
(c) Technical measure
(d) Welfare measure
Answer:
(c) Technical measure

(ix) The other name for demand deposit is
(a) Saving deposit
(b) Current deposit
(c) Posting account
(d) Time deposit
Answer:
(a) Saving deposit

(x) ……… is also called as the Lender of Last Resort.
(a) Commercial bank
(b) Central bank
(c) Canara bank
(d) Federal bank
Answer:
(b) Central bank

Section – B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 2.
(i) Define the term public finance. [2]
(ii) What does consumer awareness mean? [2]
(iii) Write three differences between commercial and central bank. [3]
(iv) (a) What is food adulteration? [3]
(b) Mention any two harmful effects of food adulteration.
Answers :
(i) Public finance is a study of income and expenditure of the government at the central, state and local levels.
(ii) Consumer awareness is the knowledge that a consumer should have about his/her legal rights and duties. It is a must for a consumer to follow these rights. It is implemented for the protection of the consumer, so that the consumer is not exploited by the seller of the products.
(iii)

Central Bank	Commercial Bank
(i) Central Bank functions as the apex bank of the country. It is a bank of all the banks	(i) Commercial banks functions according to the rule and regulations stipulated by the central bank.
(ii) The central Bank designs and controls all instruments of monetary policy of the country.	(ii) Commercial banks functions according to the rule and regulations stipulated by the central bank.
(iii) Central Bank is the sole authority of note issuing.	(iii)  Commercial banks contribute to the flow of money only by a way of credit creation.

(iv) (a) Food adulteration refers to lowering of the quality of food by adding cheap, inferior substances to it. It also means removing an important part of the food item.
(b) Adulterated foods can cause health problems such as stomach ache, vomiting and diarrhea. If pregnant mothers consume adulterated food, foetus abnormalities take place. Kidney stones and levions in liver are caused by consuming adulterated food.

Question 3.
(i) Mention the two sources of public revenue. [2]
(ii) Explain the meaning of savings deposits. [2]
(iii) Discuss any three causes of cost push inflation. [3]
(iv) Explain any three duties of a consumer. [3]
Answers:
(i) Non-Tax Revenue and Tax Revenue.

(ii) The kind of account is opened by banks with the objective of collecting small savings from the people who have small earnings, and deposit, in small amounts as they like, but the withdrawals are allowed, thrice a week only. However, the rate of interest is less than that on fixed deposits.

(iii)
1. Fluctuations in Output and Supply: The wide fluctuations in production of food grains has been mainly responsible for price rise. There was a remarkable increase in production of food grains during first two plans and supply of food grains was good. But fluctuation in food grain production, support prices administered by Government, the tactics of hoarding, adopted by the middlemen and subsequently by the farmers too (utilizing the credit facilities available from co-operatives and commercial banks), resulted in an increase in price. The power breakdowns, strikes and lockouts result in lower production of manufactured goods. As such both, the primary and secondary sectors recorded a price rise almost during all the plan periods.

2. Public Distribution System: The defective working of the public distribution system results in an uneven supply of various goods, ultimately affecting the prices of essential commodities by way of artificial scarcity.

3. Rise in Wages: The rise in the general price level raises the cost of living which, in turn, leads to demand for higher wages by workers. When the demand for higher wages is met, it will lead to further rise in costs or prices. The fresh rise in prices will again be compensated by giving still higher wages to the workers. This is termed as ‘wage push inflation’.

(iv) Following are the three duties of a consumer:

1. To check the Maximum Retail Price of the product. A consumer must not pay a price more than MRP.
2. Take a proper bill of the purchase.
3. If the product is found defective or non-performing then take up the matter first with the manufacturer and then with the courts if not resolved by the manufacturer.

Question 4.
(i) Mention any two examples of administrative revenue. [2]
(ii) What does COPRA stand for? [2]
(iii) Why has the public expenditure increased in recent times? Give any three reasons. [3]
(iv) Explain any three rights of a consumer. [3]
Answers :
(i)
(a) Fee
(b) Fine

(ii) Consumer Protection Act – 1986.

(iii) 1. Developmental Work: Modem State has also taken up developmental work in addition to their primary functions of administration and defense. For example, the Central and State Governments in India perform a large variety of developmental functions. In fact, sustained efforts are being made to bring about the all-round development of the economy under the Five Year Plans.

2. Rise in Price Level: As a result of the rise in price- level, the public expenditure has gone up everywhere. The reason is that the private individuals and also the Government have to buy goods and services from the market at higher prices.

3. Increase in Population: As a result, the Government has to incur great expenditure to meet the requirements of increasing population. In fact, the public expenditure increases in the same ratio in which the population increases.

(iv)

• The right to be protected against marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and property.
• The right to be informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity standard and price of goods to protect the consumers against unfair trade practices.
• The right to be assured wherever possible, of access to a variety of goods at competitive prices.

Question 5.
(i) Explain the term proportional tax. [2]
(ii) What does food basket mean with reference to inflation? [2]
(iii) Explain any three ways how consumers are exploited by the retailers? [3]
(iv) (a) Define the term demand pull inflation. [3]
(b) Explain any two causes of demand-pull inflation.
Answers:
(i) Taxes in which the rate of tax remains constant. Though the tax base changes, are called proportional taxes. Here, the tax base may income, money value of property, wealth, or goods, etc. Income is, however, regarded as the main tax base, because it is the determinant of taxable capacity of a person. Tax amount is calculated by multiplying tax rate with tax rate with tax base.
In a proportional tax system, thus, taxes vary in direct proportion to the change in income. If income is doubled, the tax amount is also double.

(ii) A basket of goods refers to a fixed set of consumer products and services valued on an annual basis. The basket is used to track inflation in a specific market or country. The goods in the basket are often adjusted periodically to account for changes in consumer habits.

(iii)

1. Underweight and Under measurements: The goods being sold in the market are sometimes not measured or weighed correctly.
2. Sub-standard Quality: The goods sold are sometimes of sub-standard quality. Selling of consumables beyond their expiry dates and supply of deficient or defective home appliances are generally the regular grievances of consumers. This also includes the sales of medicines after expiry date, and selling spurious drugs (sub-standard drags).
3. High Prices: Very often the traders charge a price higher than the prescribed retail price.

(iv) (a) Demand-pull inflation occurs when the demand for goods and services exceeds the supply available at existing prices, i.e., when there is excess demand for goods and services.

(b)

• Increase in Public Expenditure or increase in Government Deficit: Government deficit increases when the public expenditure increases and the government falls to mobilize sufficient funds to meet its expenditure.
• Increase in Income: With the increased income of people, rises the demand for their goods, and services and hence their prices.

Question 6.
(i) Explain the term consumer price index. [2]
(ii) What is the impact of inflation on wages and salaried class people? [2]
(iii) Give any three points of difference between direct and indirect tax. [3]
(iv) (a) Define inflation. [3]
(b) What does creeping inflation mean?
Answers:
(i) Consumer price index is referred to as that index that is used in calculating the retail inflation in the economy by tracking the changes in prices of most commonly used goods and services.
In other words, the consumer price index calculates the changes in price of a common basket of goods and services. It is also called a market basket and is used for calculating the price variations in fixed items.

(ii) Labour is the lowest paid class. This class is badly affected by inflation, especially if the prices of the basic necessities of life rise steeply, thus adversely affecting the family budget of the working class. Their consumption level goes down tolling upon their health and lowering their efficiency. It may also create unrest. No doubt, through trade unions, workers may manage to get increased dearness allowance but this does not provide them with desired relief. For price hike generally precedes any increase in dearness allowance. In turn, the increased wages further push up the price level owing to an increased demand. A vicious circle is formed, resulting in wage-push or cost push inflation.

(iii)

Direct Tax	Indirect Tax
1. The burden of direct tax falls on the person who makes the payment to the government.	1. Indirect taxes are those which are paid to the government by one person but their burden is borne by another person’s.
2. Direct taxes cannot be shifted.	2. Indirect taxes can be shifted to other persons.
3. Direct taxes are generally progressive. Their real burden is more on the rich.	3. Indirect taxes are generally regressive. Their real burden is more on the poor.

(iv) (a) Inflation means an increase in the cost of living as the price of goods and services rise.
(b) Creeping inflation occurs when there is a sustained rise in prices over time at a mild rate, say around 2 to 3 percent year. It is also known as ‘mild inflation’. This type of inflation is not much of a problem. It is generally known as conducive to economic progress and growth. In this form the prices rise imperceptibly over a long period.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Economics Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2021 Semester 1 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2021 Solved Semester 1

Maximum Marks: 40
Time Allowed: One hour

General Instructions

• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
• The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].
• Select the correct option for each of the following questions.

Question 1.
“If a labourer does not work for a day, his labour for that one day’s work will be lost forever. ” Which characteristic of a labour is expressed in this statement ? [1]
(a) Labour is mobile.
(b) Labour is an active factor.
(c) Labour is perishable.
(d) Labour supply varies over time.
Answer.
(c) Labour is perishable

Question 2.
Which of the following market types has a large number of firms that sell similar but slightly different products ? [1]
(a) Perfect competition.
(b) Oligopoly.
(c) Monopolistic competition.
(d) Monopoly.
Answer:
(c) Monopolistic competition

Question 3.
The system of direct exchange between different commodities and service is known as : [1]
(a) Barter system.
(b) Monetary system.
(c) Banking system.
(d) Market system.
Answer.
(a) Barter system

Question 4.
A substitute good is a good: [1]
(a) Of higher quality than another good.
(b) That is not used in place of one another.
(c) That can be used in place of one another.
(d) Of lower quality than another good.
Answer:
(c) That can be used in place of one another.

Question 5.
The price of cloth can be expressed in terms of money just as it can be expressed in terms of rice. Which function of money is expressed in this statement ? [1]
(a) Medium of exchange.
(b) Measure of value.
(c) Store of value.
(d) Transfer of value.
Answer:
(b) Measure of value

Question 6.
Credit transaction requiring future payments cannot take place smoothly under: [I]
(a) Lack of standard of deferred payment.
(b) Deferred payments.
(c) Bank trading.
(d) Money market.
Answer.
(a) Lack of standard of deferred payment

Question 7.
Firms under …….. are free to enter or leave the industry at any time. [1]
(a) Perfect competition.
(b) Pure oligopoly.
(c) Oligopoly.
(d) Monopoly.
Answer.
(a) Perfect competition

Question 8.
Creation of savings is the ……. stage of capital formation. [1]
(a) First
(b) Second.
(c) Third
(d) Fourth.
Answer:
(a) First.

Question 9.
………. is subject to depreciation. [1]
(a) Land.
(b) Labour.
(c) Capital.
(d) Entrepreneur.
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 10.
What is meant by derived demand? [1]
(a) The demand is derived from income tastes, etc. of sellers.
(b) The demand is derived from the price elasticity of demand.
(c) If a thing is needed for producing some other goods, which we actually need.
(d) The demand is derived in beginning economics classes.
Answer:
(c) If a thing is needed for producing some other goods, which we actually need.

Question 11.
Which function of an entrepreneur allows him to decide the reward that each factor of production should get? [1]
(a) Innovative function
(b) Distributive junction.
(c) Risk-Bearing.
(d) Decision-Making Function.
Answer:
(c) Risk-Bearing

Question 12.
If the number of firms producing a particular commodity, increases, the market supply of that commodity will …….. [1]
(a) Increase.
(b) Decrease.
(c) Remain constant.
(d) Become negative.
Answer:
(a) Increase

Question 13.
Which of the following is considered as legal tender money?
(a) Currency notes & coins
(b) Drafts & cheques
(c) Credit cards
(d) Debit cards
Answer:
(b) Drafts & cheques

Question 14.
Price of the commodity and quantity supplied of that commodity is ….. related. [1]
(a) Inversely.
(b) Cross.
(c) Negative.
(d) Directly.
Answer:
(d) Directly

Question 15.
The productivity of land is not affected by: [1]
(a) Fertility of land.
(b) Proper use of land.
(c) Government policy
(d) Gender of the worker.
Answer:
(d) Gender of the worker

Question 16.
Increase in the tax on a commodity will lead to ……….. in the supply of the commodity. [1]
(a) Fixing
(b) No change
(c) Increase
(d) Decrease.
Answer:
(d) Decrease

Question 17.
Capital is ………. a means of production. [1]
(a) Income.
(b) Durable.
(c) Produced.
(d) Processed.
Answer.
(d) Produced

Question 18.
In which market form is the firm a price taker? [1]
(a) Money market.
(b) Monopoly.
(c) Perfect competition
(d) Capital Market.
Answer.
(c) Perfect competition

Question 19.
Labour is the only ………. factor of production. [1]
(a) Active.
(b) Passive.
(c) Temporary.
(d) Immobile.
Answer.
(a) Active

Question 20.
Milk can be put to several uses; therefore, it is called as a ……… good. [1]
(a) Composite.
(b) Autonomous.
(c) Direct.
(d) Indirect.
Answer.
(a) Composite.

Question 21.
A differentiated product has: [1]
(a) Many perfect substitutes.
(b) No close substitutes.
(c) Close but not perfect substitute.
(d) No substitute of any kind.
Answer:
(c) Close but not perfect substitute

Question 22.
Barter system is also called as a ……..[1]
(a) D-D economy.
(b) D-C economy.
(c) C-C economy.
(d) C-D economy.
Answer.
(c) C-C economy

Question 23.
……… goods refer to those products which are identical in quality, shape, size, colour etc. [1]
(a) Heterogeneous
(b) Homogeneous.
(c) Differentiated.
(d) Slightly differentiated.
Answer:
(b) Homogeneous

Question 24.
Land is a ……… factor of production. [1]
(a) Temporary.
(b) Permanent.
(c) Active.
(d) Mobile.
Answer:
(b) Permanent

Question 25.
……….. means selling the same product at different prices to different buyers. [1]
(a) Selling
(b) Price making.
(c) Price discrimination
(d) Price taking.
Answer:
(c) Price discrimination

Question 26.
Land as a factor ofproduction, can earn income in the form ……..
(a) Rent
(b) Wages
(c) Capital
(d) Interest
Answer:
(a) Rent

Question 27.
………. of labour is advantageous to workers as it increases their efficiency, mobility and saves their time and tools: [1]
(a) Division.
(b) Addition.
(c) Elasticity.
(d) Inelasticity.
Answer.
(a) Division

Question 28.
Which of the following describes a monopoly firm ? [1]
(a) Single seller.
(b) No barrier to entry.
(c) Many substitutes.
(d) Many sellers.
Answer:
(a) Single seller

Question 29.
The demand for ……… goods will increase with an increase in the consumers income. [1]
(a) Inferior goods.
(b) Substitute goods.
(c) Normal good.
(d) Complementary goods.
Answer:
(c) Normal good

Question 30.
In monopolistic competitive market, the buyers have ……… [1]
(a) Access to several brands.
(b) Liberty to compare various brands.
(c) Imperfect knowledge.
(d) Imperfect choice.
Answer.
(c) Imperfect knowledge

Question 31.
The evolution of money started with this stage ……….. [1]
(a) Commodity money.
(b) Metallic money.
(c) Bank Money.
(d) Animal money.
Answer.
(a) Commodity money

Question 32.
When producers expect price rise in the future, they would like to …….. the present supply of their commodities. [1]
(a) Increase.
(b) Reduce.
(c) Keep constant.
(d) Stop.
Answer.
(b) Reduce

Question 33.
Capital formation cannot occur unless there is …………. [1]
(a) Investment.
(b) Production.
(c) Saving.
(d) Money.
Answer:
(c) Saving

Question 34.
Labourers get …….. for the task they perform whereas an entrepreneur hopes to get ……… for the risk they take in a business. [1]
(a) Rent and profit.
(b) Wage and profit.
(c) Profit and wage.
(d) Wage and interest.
Answer.
(b) Wage and profit

Question 35.
A network of good entrepreneurs will help to generate ….. [1]
(a) Employment opportunities.
(b) Public debt.
(c) Expenditure.
(d) Public expenditure.
Answer:
(a) Employment opportunities

Question 36.
………. is essential for a market to be called as perfect competition. [1]
(a) Large Number of buyers and sellers.
(b) Restricted entry and exit.
(c) No substitutes.
(d) Differentiated goods.
Answer:
(a) Large Number of buyers and sellers

Question 37.
The concentration of textiles in Gujarat and sugar industry in UP are good examples of ……… [1]
(a) Geographical division of labour.
(b) International division of labour.
(c) Simple division of labour.
(d) Horizontal division of labour.
Answer:
(a) Geographical division of labour

Question 38.
As land cannot produce anything by itself, therefore, it is called a ………. factor of production.
(a) Active
(b) Mobile
(c) Durable
(d) Passive
Answer:
(d) Passive

Question 39.
Printing machine is an example of ………. [1]
(a) Circulating capital
(b) Physical capital.
(c) Financial capital.
(d) Production capital.
Answer:
(a) Circulating capital

Question 40.
The wide gap between the rich and poor with reference to income highlights ……… determinant of the market demand. [1]
(a) Population.
(b) Distribution of income.
(c) Income of Consumer
(d) State Policy.
Answer.
(b) Distribution of income

Solving ICSE Class 10 Economics Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2019 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2019 Solved

General Instructions:

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section-A and any four questions from Section-B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section

Question 1.
(a) What are normal goods ? Give two examples. [2]
(b) State any two features of the Consumer Protection Act. [2]
(c) A businessman stocks potatoes in the cold storage during the winter and releases that stock during summer. Will this be considered as production ? Give a reason for your answer. [2]
(d) Mention two ways by which a worker benefits from division of labour. [2]
(e) Give two assumptions of the law of supply. [2]
Answer:
(a) Normal goods are those goods, the demand for which increases with the increase in income of the consumers. For example, a consumer increases his demand for milk, clothes, furniture, refrigerators and TV sets as his income increases. A consumer purchases 2 litres of milk daily when his monthly income is ₹ 10,000 and purchases 3 litres of milk when his income rises to ₹ 12,000 per month.

(b)

1. The Consumer Protection Act provides for six rights of consumers.
2. The Consumer Protection Councils set up under the Act are intended to promote and protect the various rights of consumers.

(c) Yes, the product was produced in the same financial year.

(d)

1. Right Man at the Right Job: Since work is divided into a number of parts or sub-parts, each worker can be given a job according to his taste and preference.
2. Increase in Efficiency of Labour: When a worker does the same work again and again, he gets specialisation in it. In this way, the division of labour leads to a great increase in efficiency and hence production,

(e)

1. Price of related goods should not change.
2. Cost of factors of production should remain the same.

Question 2.
(a) Briefly explain any two merits of direct taxes. [2]
(b) Expand the term RTI. How does this help a citizen of India? [2]
(c) Define price elasticity of demand. [2]
(d) What is food adulteration ? Mention any one harmful effect of food adulteration. [2]
(e) What is degressive tax ? [2]
Answer.
(a)

1. Equitable : A direct tax is an equitable tax as it is levied according to the tax paying capacity of the people. Under progressive taxation system, tax rate increase as the income increases.
2. Economical: Direct taxes are economical in the sense that cost of collecting them is low. They are usually collected ‘ at the source.

(b) RTI is Right Information Act which empower citizens to find out what is happening in government. The citizens have the right to seek any information from any public office.

(c) Price elasticity of demand means the change in the quantity demanded of a commodity in response to change in its price. In other words, it measures the degree of change of demand in response to change in price.

(d) Food adulteration is the act of intentionally debasing the quality of food offered for sale either by substitution of inferior substances or by the removal of some valuable ingredients.
Example : Addition of melamine into milk, addition of Vanaspati into Ghee. Honey is adulterated with sugar, brick powder in chilly powder.

Harmful effects of food adulteration are :

1. Food adulteration reduces the quality of the food and this weakens the health of the one who consumes them, thereby increasing the cost of health care.
2. It can also cause heart diseases, loss of eye-sight or tumour.

(e) Under the system rate of tax increases upto a certain limit but after that a uniform rate is charged.

Question 3.
(a) If a buyer buys less of a commodity when his income falls, how will his demand curve change ? Illustrate your answer with a diagram. [2]
(b) State two factors which affect productivity of land. [2]
(c) Give two differences between recurring deposits and fixed deposits. [2]
(d) What is overdraft facility ? [2]
(e) State any two reasons for the growth of public expenditure in a country like India in recent times. [2]
Answer:
(a) A buyer will buy less commodity with fall in income for a normal good.
Such a situation is known as decrease in demand. The given figure represents the situation of decrease in demand. In the figure, OP is the original price at which quantity demanded is OQ. With a fall in income demand decreases to D₁ D₁.

(b)

1. Natural Factors : Productivity of land is largely determined by its natural qualities, such as fertility, slope of land, climate, chemical and biological properties of the soil.
2. Human Factors : Land cannot produce anything by itself. Man has to apply labour on it to produce for himself. Therefore, productivity of land also depends upon the knowledge and training of workers. A wise farmer can take more produce from the same land than an untrained farmer.

(c)

1. Fixed or time deposit account: Cash is deposited in this account for a fixed time period. They are not payable on demand and do not enjoy chequing facilities.
2. Recurring deposit account : Under this account a specialised amount is deposited every month for specified period say 12, 24, 36 or 60 months.

(d) Under this borrower is allowed to over draw the current account balance.

(e)

(i) Defence : An important factor responsible for increase in public expenditure is the large defence expenditure. The political situation all over the world is uncertain and insecure. The arms race between countries and development of sophisticated armaments and nuclear weapons have resulted in massive defence expenditure. In India, the defence expenditure has increased substantially in view of continued aggression by Pakistan and urgency of national security.

(ii) Population Growth : Another factor responsible for the increase in public expenditure is the growth in population. In India, the population has increased at an alarming rate. Growth in population on this scale has increased the demand for various government services like education, public health, transport, administration and maintenance of law and order. It has also increased the demand for various development activities of the government.

Question 4.
(a) Draw a well labelled diagram showing the price elasticity of supply of a commodity starting from the origin. [2]
(b) What is land in Economics ? [2]
(c) Define supply. [2]
(d) Indirect taxes are regressive in nature. How can they be made progressive ? [2]
(e) The income earned by an entrepreneur is residual in nature. Explain. [2]
Answer:
(a) E_s = 1

This gives us a general property of a straight line curve starting from origin. A straight line supply curve straight from origin has price elasticity equal to one on all points.

(b) Land is defined to include not only the surface of the earth but also all other free gifts of nature (for example, mineral resources, forest resources and indeed anything that helps us to carry out the production of goods and services, but is provided by nature, free of cost).

(c) The supply of a commodity is defined as the quantity of the commodity which the producers desire to sell to consumers. Thus, the supply is a desired flow. It indicates how much firms are willing to sell per period of time and not how much they actually sell.

(d) Indirect taxes or taxes on necessaries are regressive in nature because they take away a larger proportion of lower income as compared to higher income. Therefore, regressive taxes are unjust in nature.
They can be made progressive by reducing the rate of indirect taxes on necessary items like food, clothes, shelter etc.

(e) Income of an entrepreneur is residual in nature as entrepreneur bear risk and reward of risk is profit. Profit is income remaining after deducting all the direct and indirect expenses.

Section – B (40 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section

Question 5.
(a) (i) State the law of demand. [5]
(ii) Briefly explain any two reasons for its occurrence.
(b) Define inflation. Explain its impact on the producers and salaried class. [5]
Answer:
(a) (i) Law of demand states that there is inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded, keeping other factors constant i.e., price of substitutes goods, taste of the consumer, income of the consumer etc.

(ii) • Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility : Law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a consumer consumes more and more units of a commodity, the utility derived from each successive unit goes on decreasing. So demand for a commodity depends on its utility. If the consumer gets more satisfaction, he will pay more. As a result, consumer will not be prepared to pay the same price for additional units of the commodity. The consumer will buy more units of the commodity only when the price falls.

• Income Effect : Income effect refers to effect on demand when real income of the consumer changes due to change in price of the given commodity. When price of the given commodity falls, the purchasing power (real income) of the consumer increases. As a result, he can purchase more of the given commodity with the same money income.

(b) It is a situation in which prices of goods and services persistently rise at a fast face.

(i) Impact on Producers : Businessmen (i.e., entrepreneurs, traders, producers, etc.) tend to gain during inflation, because

• prices of their inventories (stock of goods and raw material) go up and thereby-increasing their profits.
• prices rise at a faster rate than the cost of production.
• they are generally borrowers of money for business purposes.
  Thus, inflation makes the rich (i.e., the business community) richer.

(ii) Impact on Wage and salary earners during inflation : It is due to the reason that wages and salaries do not increase in the same proportion in which the prices or the cost of living rises. But those workers and employees who have formed strong trade unions stand to lose less in comparison to those who are not organised. Due to inflation, purchasing power of money falls. As a result of it, fixed income earners tend to buy less amount of goods and services than before even when there is a little rise in their wages. In this way, inflation increases the economic burden of those persons who are not in a position to bear it. Therefore, it is rightly called unjust.

Question 6.
(a) (i) Define Public debt. [5]
(ii) What are Redeemable debts ?
(iii) Mention two examples of unproductive debt.
(b) Briefly explain the following with reference to the barter system of exchange : [5]
(i) Lack of common measure of value.
(ii) Lack of standard of deferred payments.
Answer.
(a) (i) When planned expenditure of the Government exceeds the total revenue of the Government then the Government needs to borrow money from individuals and organisations. This is called public debt.

(ii) Redeemable public debt is the debt that the government promises to pay off at some predetermined future date. The government regularly pays interest on this debt. The principal amount is paid back on the expiry of the due date. Therefore, in case of redeemable debt, the government has to make some arrangement for its repayment. Public debts are normally redeemable.

(iii)

• Loan raised for war.
• Loan raised for floods.

(b) (i) Lack of Common Measure of Value : Even if the two persons who want each other’s goods meet by coincidence, the problem arises as to the proportion in which the two goods should be exchanged. The value of a commodity or service means the amount of other goods and services it can be exchanged for in the market. It would have to be expressed not just as one in terms of one commodity but in terms of many commodities and services in the market. If there were 1000 goods and services in the market then the value of each would have to be expressed in terms of 999 others.

There being no common measure of value, the rate of exchange will be arbitrarily fixed according to the intensity of demand for each other’s goods. Consequently, one party is at a disadvantage in the terms of trade between the two goods.

(ii) Lack of Standard of Deferred (Future) Payments: Another drawback of barter system is that it lacks a standard of deferred payments. So credit transactions requiring future payments cannot take place smoothly under barter trading. For example, if a person borrows a cow for a year or two, he cannot return the same because by that time, it would have become old, it may or may not be of the same quality as the original one.

There are three main problems in this context. These are:

• It may create controversy regarding the quality of goods or services to be repaid in future.
• The two parties may be unable to agree on the specific good to be used for repayment.
• Both parties run the risk that the value of goods to be repaid may increase or decrease in future.

Question 7.
(a) Explain the following junctions of the Central Bank : [5]
(i) Fiscal agent of the government.
(ii) Advisor to the government.
(b) Explain any five characteristics of land. [5]
Answer.
(a)

(i) As a fiscal agent, the Central Bank performs the following functions:

1. It manages the public borrowings for the government.
2. It collects taxes and other payments on behalf of the government.
3. It acts as the government agent to enforce foreign exchange control.

(ii) The central bank also acts as the financial adviser to the government. It gives advice to the government on all financial and economic matters such as deficit financing, devaluation of currency, trade policy, foreign exchange policy, etc.

(b) Land is defined to include not only the surface of the Earth but also all the other gifts of nature.

Four characteristics of land :

1. Land is limited in supply : Supply of land is fixed as it is given by nature.
2. Gifts of nature: Land is a gift of nature which does not have any cost of production. Land is readily available for any use. However, other agents of production are available at a cost.
3. Primary factor of production: Land is a basic factor of production because it cannot produce anything by itself.
4. Land has alternative uses : Land can be used for alternative uses such as cultivation, dairy or poultry farming, rearing of livestock, building of houses, playground etc.

Question 8.
(a) Discuss the risk bearing and decision-making functions of an entrepreneur. [5]
(b) What is Cost Push inflation ? Briefly explain three causes of cost push inflation. [5]
Answer:
(a) (i) Risk-Bearing Function : It is the most important and specific function of an entrepreneur. Every business involves risk. There is no other factor of production except the entrepreneur, who bears risk of the business. The risk is caused by uncertainities attached to production, investment and profits. Another big risk is of technological obsolescence and frequent changes in Government policies. The entrepreneur has to calculate all these risks and then plan the organisation of various factors of production in different proportions.

(ii) Decision-making function: All the vital decisions of business are taken by the entrepreneur. He conceives the idea of a particular business after making an intensive study of the market conditions, business projects and economic viability. He takes all the vital decisions with regard to ‘what to produce’, ‘how much to produce’ how to produce and in what proportion to combine the factors of production.

(b) Cost-push inflation refers to inflationary rise in prices which arises due to increase in costs.

1. Fluctuations in Output and Supply: The wide fluctuations in production of foodgrains has been mainly responsible for price rise. There was a remarkable increase in production of foodgrains during first two plans and supply of foodgrains was good. But fluctuation in foodgrain production, support prices administered by Government, the tactics of hoarding, adopted by the middlemen and subsequently by the farmers too (utilizing the credit facilities — available from co-operatives and commercial banks), resulted in an increase in price. The power breakdowns, strikes and lockouts result in lower production of manufactured goods. As such both, the primary and secondary sectors recorded a price rise almost during all the plan periods.

2. Public Distribution System: The defective working of the public distribution system results in an uneven supply of various goods, ultimately affecting the prices of essential commodities by way of artificial scarcity.

3. Rise in Wages : The rise in the general price level raises the cost of living which in turn, leads to demand for higher wages by workers. When the demand for higher wages is met, it will lead to further rise in costs or prices. The fresh rise in prices will again be compensated by giving still higher wages to the workers. This is termed as ‘wage push inflation’.

Question 9.
(a) (i) Define Tax. [5]
(ii) Give three differences between direct taxes and indirect taxes.
(b) (i) Define capital formation. [5]
(ii) Briefly discuss the process of capital formation.
Answer.
(a) (i) A tax is a legally compulsory payment imposed by the government. The main differences between direct tax and indirect tax are given below :
(ii)

Direct Tax	Indirect Tax
1. Final Burden 1. The burden of direct tax falls on the person who makes the payment to the government.	1. Indirect taxes are those which are paid to the govt. by one person but their burden is borne by another persons.
2. Shifting of a Tax 2. Direct taxes cannot be shifted.	2. Indirect taxes can be shifted to other persons.
3. Progressiveness 3. Direct taxes are generally progressive. Their real burden is more on the rich.	3. Indirect taxes are generally regressive. Their real burden is more on the poor.
4. Example 4. Income tax and Corporate Profit tax.	4. Sale tax, VAT, (value added tax).

(b) (i) Capital formation refers to net additions of capital stock such as equipment, buildings and other intermediate goods. A nation uses capital stock in combination with labour to provide services and produce goods; an increase in this capital stock known as capital formation.

(ii) There are mainly three stages in the process of capital formation. These are :

(i) Creation of savings
(ii) Mobilisation of savings and
(iii) Investment of savings.

(i) Creation of Savings : Saving is the first stage in the process of capital formation. Savings in a country are made by different individuals. These depends upon several factors like (a) ability to save (b) desire to save and (c) opportunity to save. Ability to save directly depends upon the level of income. The higher the income of people, the more will be their ability to save. Besides income, taxation policy of the government also affect the ability to save. When the rates of income tax and sales tax are high, people will be able to save only less amount than before. Opportunity to save refers to the conditions of peace and security in the country and favourable attitude of the government to motivate people to save.

(ii) Mobilisation of Savings : Capital formation cannot occur unless savings made by people are mobilised for investment purposes. Savings are done by millions of households and firms. It is very important that these savings are mobilised and used for productive and investment purposes. This requires a network of banks and other financial intermediaries who collect these savings and make them available to the producers or investors. Without banks and other financial intermediaries, these savings would remain idle and might not be utilised for productive and investment purposes.

(iii) Investment of Savings : The third and last stage of capital formation is the investment of mobilised savings. Unless mobilised savings are not utilised or invested, there cannot be any capital formation. It is, therefore, necessary that the economy should have an entrepreneurial class which is prepared to bear the risk of business and invest savings in productive channels. The entrepreneurs will, however, get motivated only when

(a) rate of interest is not very high and
(b) there are good expectations of profit.

Question 10.
(a) Define and draw the following: [5]
(i) Relatively elastic supply
(ii) Relatively inelastic demand.
(b) Briefly discuss any two quantitative measures adopted by the Reserve Bank of India to control credit. [5]
Answer.
(a) (i) Relatively Elastic : Supply of a commodity will be said to be elastic, if the percentage change in quantity supplied exceeds the percentage change in price. Consider the following supply schedule relating to a producer’s supply of commodity Y.

Table
Supply Schedule of commodity Y

Price Per kg.(₹)	Quantity Supplied (kg)
30	100
40	150

If we calculate elasticity of supply in the above example, we will find that it is more than one. Let us work it out.
e_s = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Q}}{\Delta \mathrm{P}} \times \frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{Q}}\) = \(\frac{50}{10} \times \frac{30}{100}\) = 1.5

It implies that one per cent change in price leads to 1.5 per cent change in supply. In such a case, supply curve meets Y-axis above the point of origin as shown in Fig. At all points on the supply curve price elasticity will be greater/ than one but its value will be different from point to point.

(ii) Relatively Inelastic or Less than Unit Elastic :
Supply of a commodity will said to be inelastic if the percentage change in quantity supplied is less than the percentage change in price. Consider the following supply schedule.

Table
Supply Schedule

Price Per kg.(₹)	Quantity Supplied (units)
1,000	20
2,000	30

Here, percentage change in supply is 50 \(\left(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{Q}} \times 100=\frac{10}{20} \times 100\right)\) which is less than the percentage change in price, i.e., 100\(\left(\frac{1000}{1000} \times 100\right)\)
Elasticity of supply comes to 0.5 \(\left(\frac{50}{1000}\right)\)
It implies that one per cent change in price will result in 0.5 per cent change in supply.

Fig. shows inelastic supply. The supply curve S is an inelastic supply curve which meets X-axis when extended to the right of origin point. At all points of such a straight line supply curve, elasticity of supply will be less than one, but its value will be different from point to point.

(b) 1. Open Market Operation :

1. Buying and selling of government securities in the market is known as open market operations.
2. Open market operations have an impact on the lending capacity of the banks.
3. It is an important mean of controlling the money supply.
4. During inflation or excess demand situation, the main motive of the Central Bank is to reduce the money supply. To suck excess liquidity from the market the Central Bank sells bonds, government securities and treasury bills.
5. Due to low money supply, there is fall in the volume of investment, income and employment resulting in-lower demand.
6. During deflation the main motive of the Central Bank is to increase the money supply and to increase the money supply the Central Bank buys bonds, government securities and treasury bills.

2. Bank Rate Policy :

1. It refers to the rate at which the Central Bank lends money to commercial banks as the lender of the last resort.
2. The Central Bank advances loans against approved securities or eligible bills of exchange.
3. An increase in bank rate increases the costs of borrowing from the Central Bank. It forces the commercial banks to increase their lending rates, which discourage borrowers from taking loans.
4. It reduces the ability of commercial banks to reduce credit.
5. On the other hand, a decrease in bank rate decreases the cost of borrowing from the Central Bank. It also forces the commercial banks to decrease the lending rates.
6. A reduction in lending rate increases the money supply.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2016 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2016 Solved

Part – I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all Questions from this part)

Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D / 7 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference for: [2]
(i) Surveyed tree 219 north east ofPirojpura settlement.
(ii) Triangulated height 364 in the southern part of the map extract.
Answer:
(i) 426873
(ii) 403861

(b) What is the direction of flow of Banas river ? Give one evidence for your answer. [2]
Answer:
North East – South West
Evidence – Relative height of river embankment decreases (13r to 8r)

(c) What do you understand by: [2]
(i) 12r in the grid square 4390 and
(ii) 180 in the grid square 3694.
Answer:
(i) Sand dime of height 12r.
(ii) A contour height above sea level 180m.

(d) Calculate the area in kilometre of the region between 38 and. 44 eastings and 88 and 93 northings. [2]
Answer:
Total complete Grids = 42
Area of 1 grid = 1 sq km
Area of 42 grids = 1 × 42 = 42 sq km.

(e) (i) What is the compass direction of settlement Juvol from settlement Amivada ? [2]
(ii) Give the difference in altitude between the highest point on the map to the altitude of Mod Bhatamal.
Answer:
(i) North West to South East
(ii) 542 in Grid (4294) – 198 in Grid (3687)
542-198 = 344

(f) Name the feature depicted by : [2]
(i) Blue line in Balaram nadi
(ii) Brown patch in 4089
Answer:
(i) It is a perennial nadi
(ii) Sand dunes

(g) Name the drainage pattern found in: [2]
(i) 4294
(ii) 3990
Answer:
(i) 4294-Radial
(ii) 3990-Dentric

(h) What do you infer about the climate of the region by the information provided on the map? Give an evidence in support of your answer. [2]
Answer:
Arid – Lack of vegetation

(i) Name two man made and two natural features in 4092. [2]
Answer:

1. Manmade – Temple, Well
2. Natural – Broken ground

(j) What do the following denote: [2]
(i) Black vertical line running along with 93 easting.
(ii) RS near Chitrasani settlement.
Answer:
(i) Longitude line
(ii) Rest House

Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Draw and number the Standard Meridian of India. [1]
(b) Label the river Mahanadi. [1]
(c) Mark and name Lake Chilka. [1]
(d) Shade and name the Gulf of Mannar. [1]
(e) Mark and name the Vindhya Mountains. [1]
(f) Shade and name a sparsely populated region in western India. [1]
(g) Shade a region with alluvial soil in South India. [1]
(h) Mark and name Kolkata. [1]
(i) Mark with arrows and South West Monsoon winds over the Bay of Bengal. [1]
(j) Mark and name Mumbai High. [1]
Answer:

[Part-II (50 Marks)]
(Attempt any FIVE questions from this Part)

Question 3.
(a) What is the name given to the climate of India? Mention any two factors responsible for such a type of climate. [2]
Answer:
Monsoon climate.

1. Surface winds
2. Variation in temperature

(b) Name the following: [2]
(i) The winds that bring heavy rain to Cherrapunji.
(ii) The local wind that bring a light rainfall to South India and is good for tea and coffee crops.
Answer:
(i) South-West monsoon
(ii) Mango shower

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) Kanpur has extreme temperature conditions.
(ii) Kochi is wanner than Mumbai even though both lie on the western coast of India.
(iii) The Ganga Plain gets the monsoon rain much later than the west coast of India.
Answer:
(i) Because Kanpur is far away from the moderating in uence of the sea.

(ii)

• Kochi is closer to Equator therefore receives more heat from sun as compared to Mumbai.
• Kochi receives lesser rainfall as compared to Mumbai as Mumbai receives heavy rainfall throughout the South-West monsoon which mild the temperature at Mumbai.

(iii) The Arabian Sea Branch if the South-West monsoon strikes the western coast on 1st June and whereas they reach the Ganga plains after two weeks.

(d) Study the climatic data of station x given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]

(i) Calculate the total annual rainfall experienced by the station.
(ii) What is the annual range of temperature?
(iii) On which coast of India does the station lie ? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:
(i) 128.7
(ii) Highest – Lowest 32.5°C – 24:5°C = 8°C
(iii) Coromandal Coast

Question 4.
(a) What is soil erosion ? Mention two steps that could be taken to prevent soil erosion. [2]
Answer:
Soil erosion is the removal of soil by the forces of nature like wind and water, more rapidly than the various soil forming process can replace it.

Prevent soil erosion:

1. Afforestation or planting of trees saves the soil from erosion.
2. Construction of check-dams is an important method of checking soil erosion in the upper course of the rivers.

(b) Mention two similarities between red soil and laterite soil. [2]
Answer:

1. Both these soils are found in southern part of India.
2. Both these lack organic elements nitrogen etc.

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:
(i) Alluvial soil differs in texture.
(ii) Black soil does get leached.
(iii) Khaddar is more fertile than bhangar.
Answer:
(i) Because it is transported soil and in the upper course of the river it is coarse where as in the lower coarse it is fine grained.
(ii) Because it become sticky after rain.
(iii) The Khaddar soils are more found as these are found in the low areas of valley bottom which are flooded almost every year.

(d) Define the following: [3]
(i) Sheet erosion
(ii) Soil conservation
(iii) In situ soil
Answer:
(i) Sheet erosion : Sheet erosion is caused by running water when a layer of soil on the surface is removed over a large area.
(ii) Soil conservation : Conservation of soil means various techniques and methods used to save soil from degrading.
(iii) In situ soil : The soil which are found where they are formed. They are also called residual soil, e.g.; Black soil.

Question 5.
(a) (i) Name the forest which is commercially most important in India. [2]
(ii) Name two trees which grow in this forest.
Answer:
(i) Tropical deciduous
(ii) Sandal wood, Teak

(b) (i) Name the forests which grow on the wind ward slope of the Western Ghats. [2]
(ii) Why do such forests grow in this region ?
Answer:
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(ii) Due to heavy rainfall

(c) To which type offorest do the following trees belong ? [3]
(i) Hintal and Sundari.
(ii) Rosewood and Ebony.
(iii) Deodar and Chir Pine.
Answer:
(i) Littoral or mangrove forests
(ii) Tropical evergreen or Tropical rain forests.
(iii) Mountain vegetation

(d) Give three reasons for rapid depletion of forest resources in India in the past. [3]
Answer:
1. Overutilisation of forests: In the earlier days, man’s needs were limited. He was dependent on forests only for a few things, although a lot of things can be obtained from forests. Forests are being used to fulfil man’s needs directly and indirectly. We are obtaining wood, barks, leaves, rubber, medicine, dyes, food, fuel, fodder, etc., from forests.

2. Colonial Plans: The greatest damage in icted on Indian forests was during the colonial period due to the expansion of the railways, agriculture, commercial and scientific forestry and mining activities.

3. Agricultural expansion: Even after independence, agricultural expansion continues to be one of the major causes of depletion. Between 1951 and 1980, according to the Forest Survey of India, over 26,200 sq. km. of forest areas were converted into agricultural lands all over India.

Question 6.
(a) “Without irrigation, development of agriculture is difficult in India.” Clarify the statement by giving two reasons. [2]
Answer:

1. Rainfall is very uncertain.
2. There is unequal distribution of rainfall.

(b) Mention two factors which are essential for the development of tube well irrigation. [2]
Answer:

• The water table should be high.
• For lifting the water cheap power should be available.

(c) Give one reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) The Northern Plain of India isfound suitablefor canal irrigation.
(ii) Tank irrigation is an important method of irrigation in Karnataka.
(iii) Although expensive, yet, sprinkler irrigation is gaining popularity in recent times.
Answer:
(i) Canal irrigation is suitable for Northern India because

• Low relief area
• Even surface so digging is easy
• Deep fertile soil which helps in recovering the cost of construction of canals.

(ii) Tank irrigation is widely prevalent in Karnataka because :

• The terrain of Deccan Plateau is undulating and is made up of hard rocks which makes it difficult to dig canals and wells.
• There is little percolation of rainwater due to hard rock structure and groundwate is not available in large quantity.

(iii)

• Fertiliser and nutrient loss is minimisd due to localised application and reduced leading.
• Water application efficiency is high.
• Field levelling is not necessary.

(d) (i) What is rainwater harvesting ? [3]
(ii) Mention two objectives of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
(i) “It is the technique of increasing the reharge of groundwater by capturing and storing raiwater by constructing structures such aspercolatingnts, check dams, etc.”

(ii)

• To overcome the inadequacy of suface water to meet our demands.
• To check decline in groundwater levels.

Question 7.
(a) (i) Name any three types of coal found in Inca. [2]
(ii) Which type of coal is mostly used in Iron and Steel Industries ?
Answer:
(i) Anthracite, Bituminous and Lignite
(ii) Anthracite coal is mostly used in Iron and Steel Industries.

(b) Name the following: [2]
(i) An off-shore oilfield of India.
(ii) An iron ore mine of Karnataka.
Answer:
(i) Mumbai High
(ii) Kemmangundi

(c) Name the following: [3]
(i) Largest coal field of India.
(ii) Oldest oil-field of India.
(iii) Best variety of iron ore.
Answer:
(i) Jharia in Jharkhand.

(ii) The Digboi field.

(iii) Magnetite.

• It contains more than 70% of iron.
• It has excellent magnetic qualities.

(d) (i) Name the metal extracted from Bauxite [3]
(ii) Mention two uses of this metal.
Answer:
(i) Aluminium

(ii)

• It is used for making pots, pans ad parts of automobiles.
• It is used to make electrical wires.

Question 8.
(а) Mention any two reasons for the importance c agriculture in India. [2]
Answer:

• agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy because about 67% of our population depends directly indirectly on agriculture.
• The provides raw materials to the industries.

(b) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following: [2]
(i) Why does rice grow well in a soil wii a clay like subsoil ?
(ii) What is the advantage of growing ricdn nurseries before it is transplanted ?
Answer:
(i) Ice requires stagnant water in the field. The previous subsoil layer prevents water from draining way and allows the water to stagnate in the fields.

(ii) The process of transplantation allows better penetration (deeper penetration) of the roots in the soil.
The process of transplantation greatly increases the yield of the crop.

(c) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]

(i) Name one State where this crop grows well.
(ii) They are mostly women employed to harvest it ?
(iii) Mention two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of this crop.
Answer:
(i) Assam

(ii) Tea plucking is a skillful job, requiring patience and judgment. It is usually done by women who are better pickers.

(iii) Temperature: Tea plant can grow in temperature ranging between 20 °C and 35 °C but 25°C is the ideal temperature. Frost damages the plant.
Rainfall: Tea plant needs heavy rainfall ranging / between 150 cm to 250 cm. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year.

(d) Explain briefly the following terms : [3]
(i) shifting cultivation
(ii) Bud grafting
(iii) oil cake
Answer:
(i) Sifting cultivation: A method of fanning in which watch of ground is cultivated for a period of few years until the soil is partly exhausted.

(ii) Bd grafting: Under grafting a bud of a high yielding plant is attached to another plant. When the seedlings are about 5cm high, buds from high yielding clones are grafted on to the seedlings. The new plant combines the best qualities of both.

(iii) Oilcake: A by-product, obtained after the extraction of oil from oilseeds.

Question 9.
(a) Give two reasons for the importance of the jute industry in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region. [2]
Answer:

• West Bengal is the home of jute. It produces the highest number of bales of jute fibre.
• The industry consumes huge quantity of water which is easily available from the Hoogli river.

(b) Mention two problems of the Cotton Textile industry in India. [2]
Answer:

1. Problem of raw material: ‘Long staple’ fibre is best fibre but most of the cotton grown in India is the ‘short staple’ fibre.
2. International competition: Countries like Taiwan, South Korea and Japan are giving a stiff competition.

(c) (i) Give two reasons why the woollen industry is not a flourishing industry in India. [3]
(ii) Name two centres for this industry.
Answer:
(i)

• Shortage of raw wool: India does not produce sufficient quantity of fine quality raw wool.
• Lack of market: Most parts of India have tropical and sub-tropical climate which restricts the demand for woollen clothes.

(ii) Dhariwal (Punjab), Mumbai (Maharashtra), Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh), Jamnagar (Gujarat).

(d) With reference to the silk industry, answer the following: [3]
(i) Why is Karnataka the largest producer of mulberry silk?
(ii) Mention two varieties of non-mulberry silk produced in India.
(iii) Name one silk weaving centre each in U.P. and in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i)

• The temperature ranges from 16°C. – 31 °C, enjoys favourable climatic conditions for rearing the silkworms.
• Karnataka is the hub of skilled workers which are required for production of silk.

(ii) Tasar and Eri

(iii) UP – Gorakhpur
Tamil Nadu – Chennai

Question 10.
(a) Mention two advantage that a mini steel plant has over an integrated iron and steel plant. [2]
Answer:

• Most of the mini steel plants are located in areas far away from the integrated steel plants so they meet the local demands.
• They utilize scrap/sponge iron from large steel plants as raw materials. So these help in recycling of iron and making the scrap useful and profitable.
• They need less investment so they suit Indian economy.

(b) (i) Name an iron and steel plant which was established with British collaboration. [2]
(ii) From where does it get its supply of:
1. Iron ore
2. Manganese
3. Coal
Answer:
(i) Durgapur

(ii) 1. Iron ore : Iron ore is obtained from Singbhum (Jharkhand) and Keonjhar (Odisha).
2. Manganese: Manganese comes from Joda mines of Keonjhar district in Odisha.
3. Coal: Coal is obtained from Raniganj and Jharia.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following : [3]
(i) Products made from petrochemicals are growing in popularity.
(ii) A heavy engineering industry requires huge capital investment.
(iii) The electronics industry contributes to the development of the country.
Answer:
(i)

• Petrochemicals are cost effective.
• Its raw material is easily available.

(ii)

• Because it needs research and development facility.
• Raw material and other inputs are very costly.

(iii)

• Indian electronics industry is contributing a lot to space technology. India has launched several indigenously built satellites including APPLE, INSAT-1 series and INSAT-2 series.
• It has played a major role in the development of telecom sector.
• It brings foreign exchange as it is an export industry.

(d) Name the industrial product for which the following centres are well known: [3]
(i) Bhilai
(ii) Chittaranjan
(iii) Koraput.
Answer:
(i) Bhilai – Steel plant
(ii) Chittaranjan – Locomotive works
(iii) Koraput – Air craft

Question 11.
(a) Mention two advantages and one disadvantage of waterways. [3]
Answer:
Advantages of Waterways :

• Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
• They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
• It is a fuel-efficient and environment-friendly mode of transport.

Disadvantage of Waterways :

• Water transport as a whole is much slower than its road, rails or air competitors.
• It provides access to limited areas.

(b) Roadways are always considered more important than any other means of transportation. Give two reasons in support of the statement. [2]
Answer:

• Roads require less investment as compared to railway.
• These can be built at higher altitudes and at any place.
• Maintenance cost is also low.

(c) (i) Mention any two sources of waste. [2]
(ii) What are Biodegradable waste ?
Answer:
(i) Source of waste: Domestic Waste and Industrial Waste.
(ii) Biodegradable waste: Biodegradable waste includes that material which breakdown or decompose in the soil, e.g., fruits and vegetables.

(d) Explain briefly the meaning of the following terms: [3]
(i) Composting
(ii) Incineration
(iii) Segregation.
Answer:
(i) Composting: Composting is a biological process in which micro-organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria, convert degradable organic waste into humus-like substance.

(ii) Incineration: Reduction in weight and volume of solid waste disposal is called incineration.

(iii) Segregation: Segregation refers to the separation of waste into different categories of waste. Segregation depends upon the waste disposal technique. The most popular segregation is biodegradable and non- biodegradable.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2017 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2017 Solved

Part – I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all Questions from this part)

Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference for:
(i) The highest point in this map extract.
(ii) Surveyed tree north ofRampura Khera. [2]
Answer:
(i) 542179
(ii) 526188

(b) On which bank of Sukli Nadi lies: [2]
(i) Butri
(ii) Padrugarh
Answer:
(i) North-West
(ii) North-East

(c) Differentiate between the drainage pattern shown in grid square: [2]
(i) 5315
(ii) 5316
Answer:
Grid 5315 has Trellis pattern whereas 5316 has radial drainage pattern.

(d) The region in this map extract receives seasonal rainfall.
Give two reasons for your answer. [2]
Answer:
(i) River, wells and tanks are dry.
(ii) Vegetation – fairly dense scrub.

(e) Calculate the distance in km between settlement Bhatana and Makawal along the cart track. [2]
Answer:
Indirect distance = 12 cm
1 cm on the map represents = 500
12 cm on the map represent = 500 × 12 = 6000 cm = 6 kms.

(f) State the Compass direction of the following: [2]
(i) Dattani from Marol.
(ii) Dhavli from Makawal.
Answer:
(i) South-East
(ii) North-East

(g) (i) Mention a social activity of people living in Marol.
(ii) What is the main occupation of the people living in this region? [2]
Answer:
(i) Monthly Fair
(ii) Agriculture – Yellow wash

(h) What do you understand by: [2]
(i) The black broken line in 5418
(ii) The vertical black line close to Easting 10
Answer:
(i) Disappearing drainage
(ii) Longitude line 35°

(i) What is the main source of water supply to Bhatana? Give a reason for your answer. [2]
Answer:
Tank

(j) (i) Name one natural feature in the grid square 5516. [2]
(ii) Identify one man made feature in the grid square 5515.
Answer:
(i) Causeway
(ii) Post office

Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Draw and name the Tropic of Cancer. [1]
(b) Label the river Godavari. [1]
(c) Mark and name the Garo Hills. [1]
(d) Mark Con the coalfields in Jharia. [1]
(e) Mark with an arrow and name the NE monsoon over the Bay of Bengal. [1]
(f) Shade and name the Gulf of Kutch. [1]
(g) Shade and name the coastal plain that receives rainfall in October-November. [1]
(h) Mark with a dot and name Delhi. [ 1 ]
(i) Shade a region with Black Cotton Soil. [1]
(j) Use an arrow to point at a densely populated state in South India. [1]
Answer:

Part-II (50 Marks)
(Attempt any FIVE questions from this Part)

Question 3.
(a) Mention the four seasons that prevail in India stating the months for each. [2]
Answer:

1. The cold weather season starts in November and continues till March.
2. The hot weather season start in March and ends in May.
3. The season of the advancing monsoon starts in June and lasts until September.
4. The season of the retreating monsoon starts in October and November.

(b) State the agricultural benefits derived from: [2]
(i) The Westerly Depressions in Punjab.
(ii) The Kalbaisakhi in Assam.
Answer:
(i) These depressions are very useful for wheat, a major crop of Punjab.
(ii) These local winds are accompanied by thunderstorms and bring rainfall. This rain is good for jute and rice.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) Kolkata receives heavier rain than Lucknow.
(ii) The Summer Monsoon winds blow over the Arabian Sea from the Southwest.
(iii) Thar is a desert.
Answer:
(i) Kolkata is located near the coast whereas Lucknow is far from coast. Monsoon winds get dry as the distance from the sea increases.

(ii) The South-East Trades are attracted towards India due to low pressure prevailing on the land mass. After crossing the Equator, they are deflected towards the right due to Coriolis Effect and blow into India as South -West Monsoon.

(iii) Thar is a desert because of scanty rainfall. The region receives scanty rainfall because the Aravali range is parallel to the direction of the prevailing winds, so it does not offer any obstacles in the way of winds.

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]

(i) What is the annual range temperature of the station?
(ii) What is the total annual rainfall experienced by the station?
(iii) Why would it be correct to presume that the station lies in the interior and not on the coast?
Answer:
(i) 36.2 °C – 12 °C = 24.2 °C

(ii) 1.5 + 0.1 + 0:0 + 1.4 + 1.1 + 21.0 + 25.3 + 27.2 + 24.0 + 9.4 + 1.5 + 0.4 = 112.9 cm

(iii) Temperature range is very high so we can conclude the station is away from the equable effect.

Question 4.
(a) Mention two differences between Alluvial Soil and Black Cotton Soil. [2]
Answer:

Alluvial Soil	Black Soil              .
1. Alluvial soil is very fertile as it is rich in mineral nutrients like potash and lime.	1. The black soils are made of extremely fine material, i.e., clayey material.
2. Most of alluvial soil is derived from the sediments deposited by rivers.	2. The soil is well known for its capacity to hold moisture.

(b) Name an area in India in which each of the following processes take place: [2]
(i) Sheet erosion
(ii) Gully erosion
Answer:
(i) Hilly areas ofUttrakhand and Himachal Pradesh
(ii) Madhya Pradesh

(c) What is soil conservation? State a method of soil conservation in the: [3]
(i) Arid and Semi-Arid region.
(ii) River valleys prone to flood.
Answer:
Soil erosion is the removal of soil by the forces of nature, particularly wind and water. Soil erosion mainly takes place due to man’s activities such as deforestation, overgrazing of cattle, faulty methods of cultivation.
(i) Aforestation, Restricting grazing of animals
(ii) Constructing dams

(d) Name the soil which: [3]
(i) is good for cultivation of sugarcane.
(ii) is acidic in nature.
(iii) occurs exsitu.
Answer:
(i) Alluvial and Black soil
(ii) Laterite
(iii) Alluvial

Question 5.
(a) How do trees in the Tropical desert forests adapt’ themselves to the dry climate? [2]
Answer:
Trees remain small, it saves surface through which water evaporates.

• Get round and develop a green cylindrical stems which helps to perform photosynthesis.
• Develop an extended root system close to the surface and still collect a lot of water during scanty rainfall.

(b) Name the tree as per its characteristics given below :[2]
(i) The wood is hard and suitable for ship building.
(ii) The stilt roots are Underwater during high tide.
Answer:
(i) Rosewood
(ii) Mangroves trees

(c) Explain why the forest cover in India is shrinking. [3]
Answer:
1. Overutilisation of forests: In the earlier days, man’s needs were limited. He was dependent on forests only for a few things, although a lot of things can be obtained from forests. Forests are being used to fulfil man’s needs directly and indirectly. We are obtaining wood, barks, leaves, rubber, medicine, dyes, food, fuel, fodder, etc., from forests.

2. Colonial Plans: The greatest damage inflicted on Indian forests was during the colonial period due to the expansion of the railways, agriculture, commercial and scientific forestry and mining activities.

3. Agricultural expansion: Even after independence, agricultural expansion continues to be one of the major causes of depletion. Between 1951 and 1980, according to the Forest Survey of India, over 26,200 sq. km. of forest areas were converted into agricultural lands all over India.

(d) Name the natural vegetation found in the following regions: [3]
(i) The western slopes of the Western Ghats.
(ii) The Nilgiris.
(iii) Western Rajasthan.
Answer:
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(ii) Tropical Evergreen Forests and Tropical Desert
(iii) Tropical Desert

Question 6.
(a) Give a reason for the significance of irrigation in : [2]
(i) Punjab.
(ii) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(i) Punjab is an agriculture state so lot of water is required for irrigation.
(ii) Rajasthan is a dry state so irrigation is required to cultivate the crop and drinking.

(b) Name a state where: [2]
(i) Tube wells are common.
(ii) Tank irrigation is popular.
Answer:
(i) Maharashtra
(ii) Tamil Nadu

(c) Give one geographical reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) Sprinkler irrigation is practiced in arid and semi-arid regions.
(ii) A tube well should be installed in a fertile and productive region.
(iii) Canal irrigation is more suitable in the Northern Plains.
Answer:
(i) To minimize the loss of water.

(ii) So that there is demand for irrigation and the cost involved in the construction and operation of the tube well can be recovered by the increased farm production.

(iii) Canal irrigation is suitable for Northern India because

• Low relief area
• Even surface so digging is easy
• Deep fertile soil which helps in recovering the cost of construction of canals.

(d) Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow: [3]

(i) Name the activity shown in the diagram.
(ii) Give two objectives of the activity named in (d) (i).
Answer:
(i) Rain water harvesting

(ii)

• To overcome the inadequacy of surface water to meet our demands.
• To check decline in groundwater levels.

Question 7.
(a) Give the names of four important types of iron ore found in India. [2]
Answer:
Magnetite, Hematite, Limonite and Siderite.

(b) Name the following: [2]
(i) An offshore oil field in the Gulf of Cambay.
(ii) An oil refinery in Bihar.
Answer:
(i) Mumbai High
(ii) IOC

(c) (i) Name the state that produces the largest amount of limestone. [3]
(ii) State two uses of limestone.
Answer:
(i) Madhya Pradesh

(ii)

• It is a basic input in the cement industry.
• It is used in the production of Portland cement.

(d) State an important industrial use of: [3]
(i) Manganese
(ii) Coal
(iii) Aluminum
Answer:
(i) Iron and Steel manufacturing
(ii) Iron and Steel manufacturing
(iii) Use to making pots and pans because good conductor of heat.

Question 8.
(a) What is Mixedfarming? Mention any one benefit of Mixed farming. [2]
Answer:
Mixed farming is a technique of farming under which equal importance is given to rearing of animals along with cultivation of crops.
Advantage: Farmers remain busy in their work throughout the year.

(b) Give the Geographical requirements for the cultivation of Sugarcane. [2]
Answer:
Temperature : 20°C to 30°C, hot and moist climate.
Rainfall: 75 cm to 150 cm and grows best on irrigated land.
Soil: Well drained fertile soil. It also requires plenty of manure and fertilizers.

(c) Explain the following terms and name the crop with which each is associated: [3]
(i) Retting
(ii) Ratooning
(iii) Ginning
Answer:
(i) Retting is associated with jute. Retting is a microbiological process which loosens the outer bark and makes it easier to remove fibres from the stalk. Plant is dipped in stagnant water for 2-3 weeks in order to soften the outer bark.

(ii) Ratooning is a method of sugarcane cultivation. In this method the cane is cut close to the ground. After sometime the stem begins to grow again and produces a second crop called ratoon.

(iii) It is associated with cotton. Ginning is a process by which seeds are separated from the fibre.

(d) Give geographical reasons for the following: [3]
(i) Regular pruning is essential for tea bushes.
(ii) Coffee beans are roasted.
(iii) Millets are known as dry crops.
Answer:
(i) Pruning is done to keep the shrub at a convenient height of about 40 to 50 cm. It encourages the growth of new shoots with softer leaves.

(ii) Roasting is done to improve the flavour and taste of coffee. Roasting gives brown colour and pleasing aroma.

(iii) Millets need rainfall ranging between 50 cm – 120 cm, that is, they do not need much rainfall. Because of this feature, millets are called ‘DRY’ crops.

Question 9.
(a) Differentiate between Mineral-based Industry and Agro- based industry giving one example for each. [2]
Answer:

Agro-based Industries	Mineral-based Industries
1. These industries derive raw material from agriculture.	1. These industries derive their raw material from minerals.
2. They provide employment in rural areas.	2. They provide employment both in rural and urban area.
3. They mostly produce consumer goods.	3. These industries produce both consumer and value based goods.
4. Example : Sugar, jute, textile, vegetable oil.	4. Example : Iron and steel, engineering industry, ship building, machine tools.

(b) ‘Though Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of sugar mills yet [2]
Maharashtra is the largest producer of sugar ’. Give any two reasons to justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) Climate: Sugarcane is a tropical crop. Peninsular India has tropical climate which gives higher yield per unit area as compared to north India,

(ii) Higher sucrose: Due to favourable climatic conditions, the sucrose content is also higher in tropical variety of sugarcane in the south.

(iii) Long crushing period: The crushing season is also much longer in the south than in the north. For example, crushing season is of nearly four months in the north. Whereas it is of nearly 7-8 months in the south.

(c) Give the geographic term for each of the following: [3]
(i) Non-mulberry silk produced in Madhya Pradesh.
(ii) Rejected cane after crushing.
(iii) The rearing of silk worms to obtain silk.
Answer:
(i) Tussar Silk
(ii) Bagasse
(iii) Sericulture

(d) With reference to the cotton textile industry answer the following questions: [3]
(i) Give two reasons why Mumbai is an important cotton textile industry.
(ii) Mention two more important centres of cotton textile industry in India.
Answer:
(i) (a) Raw material is grown in Maharashtra itself and is also easily available from neighbouring states of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
(b) Humid climatic condition in Mumbai favours spinning of yam.
(c) Cheap hydroelectric power is available.

(ii) Ahmadabad and Jamnagar

Question 10.
(a) ‘The Iron and Steel industry constitutes the backbone of modem industrial economy. Give two reasons to justify the statement. [2]
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is called the basic industry because:

1. It is the industry which lays the foundation of rapid development of other industries such as heavy engineering, defence equipment, automobiles, aeroplanes, etc.
2. It is also helpful in providing employment.

(b) (i) Name an Iron and Steel Industry set up in Orissa with the help of a famous German firm. [2]
(ii) From where does the industry named in b (i) get its iron ore and manganese?
Answer:
(i) Rourkela
(ii) Iron ore – Bonaigarh, Mayurbhanj, Manganese – Barajamda

(c) Name a manufacturing centre for each of the following industries: [3]
(i) Aircraft
(ii) HMT
(iiii) Railway coaches
Answer:
(i) Koraput
(ii) Bengaluru
(iii) Kapurthala

(d) Name two products each of the following industries: [3]
(i) petrochemical industry
(ii) heavy engineering industry.
(iii) electronic industry.
Answer:
(i) Synthetic fibers, plastics
(ii) Wrist watch, drilling machines
(iii) Computers, Television

Question 11.
(a) Mention two reasons why more people use railways rather than airways. [2]
Answer:

• Railway is cheap mode of transportation.
• Railway can carry bulky raw material.

(b) Why is inland waterways declining in its importance? Give two reasons for your answer. [2]
Answer:

• Water transport as a whole is much slower than its roads, rail or air competitors.
• It provides access to limited areas.

(c) What do you mean by the following: [3]
(i) Sewage
(ii) Eutrophication
(iii) Recycling
Answer:
(i) The waste water discharged from domestic premises like residences, institutions and commercial establishments is known as sewage.
(ii) The process by which a body of water acquires a high concentration of nutrients, especially phosphates and nitrates is known as eutrophication.
(iii) Recycling involves the collection of used and discarded materials, processing these materials and making them into new products. It reduces the amount of waste that is thrown into the community and the air fresher to breathe.

(d) ‘Methane is an air pollutant that causes Greenhouse effect. ’Name three sources of this gas. [3]
Answer:

• Mining
• Landfills
• Wet lands

Solving ICSE Class 10 Economics Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2018 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Paper 2018 Solved

Section – A (40 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Section

Question 1.
(a) Give two reasons as to why the division of labour is an advantage to the producer? [2]
(b) Define the term consumer awareness. [2]
(c) Why do small farmers suffer during inflation? [2]
(d) Which are the two sources of public revenue? [2]
(e) Define the term labour as a factor of production. [2]
Answer:
(a)

1. It leads to specialisation, which increases productivity.
2. It improves quality of the product.

(b) Consumer awareness means awareness of consumer in different aspects of consumption activities. A consumer should be aware about his rights, duties, price of the product or service, quality, expiry date, harmful effects etc.

(c)

1. Inflation increases prices of input.
2. Price they receive for their output do not increase at the same pace.

(d)

1. Taxes
2. Public borrowings

(e) It is described as any human work which is performed with the help of mind or physique with a view to earn income.

Question 2.
(a) Explain any one factor that affects the supply of a commodity. [2]
(b) What do you understand by the term ‘near money’? [2]
(c) A list of goods are given below [2]
State whether it is fixed capital or circulating capital.
(i) Machines
(ii) Raw material
(iii) Fuel
(iv) Office furniture
(d) With the help of an example explain the term productive debt. [2]
(e) Explain any two characteristics of capital. [2)
Answer.
(a) Price of factor input:
Price of the factors of production forms a major part of the cost of producing a commodity. With a change (increase or decrease) in the amount payable to factor inputs, supply curve of the commodity also changes.
(i) Increase in price of factors of production : Rise in price of factors of production increases the cost of production and reduces the profit margin. As a result, supply falls from OQ to OQ₁ at the same price OP. It leads to a leftward shift in the supply curve from SS to S₁S₁.

(ii) Decrease in price of factors of production : When price of factors of production falls, cost of production falls and profit margin rises. It increases the supply from OQ to 0Q₁ at the same price OP. It leads to a rightward shift in the supply curve from SS to S₁S₁.

(b) Non—cash liquid assets such as cheques, bonds, equity, bills of exchange are called near money.

(c) (i) Fixed
(ii) Circulating
(iii) Circulating
(iv) Fixed

(d) Productive Debts : The public debts which are used by the Government for productive purposes known as productive debts. These debts are used to generate income. i.e., for productive purposes. These debts are taken to finance several Government projects like irrigation, roadways, railways, power plants, installation of new industries etc. The long term debts are repaid by the Government from the revenues generated from the said projects.

(e)

1. It is a passive factor of production and cannot produce without the help of active factor.
2. It is highly mobile factor of production.

Question 3.
(a) How is land different from labour ? [2]
(b) Draw a diagram showing a perfectly elastic demand curve. [2]
(c) With help of an example explain the term complementary goods. [2]
(d) Name any two sources of external debt for India. [2]
(e) Differentiate between creeping and running inflation. [2]
Answer:
(a)

1. Land is a passive factor of production whereas labour is active factor of production.
2. Land is fixed whereas labour is a variable factor of production.

(b)

(c) Complementary Goods

1. These goods are those which are jointly used to satisfy a want. For example, Car and Petrol.
2. The demand for complementary goods is joint demand.
3. The demand for a commodity varies indirectly (inversely) with the price of its complementary goods.
4. The demand curve for a commodity shifts to the left (right) with the rise (fall) in the price of complementary goods.

(d)

1. Borrowings from international institutions like World Bank.
2. Borrowings from other foreign countries like USA, Japan etc.

(e) Creeping Inflation: When the rise in prices is very slow (less than 3% per annum) like that of a snail or creeper, it is called creeping inflation. Such an increase in prices is regarded safe and essential for economic growth.

Running Inflation : When prides rise rapidly like the running of a horse at a rate of speed of 10% – 20% per annum, it is called running inflation. Its control requires strong monetary and fiscal measures, otherwise it leads to hyperinflation.

Question 4.
(a) Mention two ways by which efficiency of labour can be improved. [2]
(b) What does the term ‘nationalisation of banks ’mean ? [2]
(c) Why is India considered to be in a virtual debt trap ? [2]
(d) Give any two reasons for giving the monopoly right of note issue to the Central Bank. [2]
(e) Mention any two duties of a consumer. [2]
Answer:
(a)

1. Training
2. By using technology

(b) Nationalisation is a process whereby a national government or state takes over the private sector. Government of India decided to nationalise 14 major commercial banks in 1969.

(c) Virtual debt trap is a situation under which a borrower is led into a cycle of re-borrowing, or rolling over, their loan payments because they are unable to afford the schedule payments on the principal of loan.

(d)

1. This brings uniformity to the monetary system.
2. The currency issued by the Central Bank is its monetary liability. It ensures public faith in the currency system.

(e)

1. He/She should be aware of his rights.
2. He/She should be aware of his duties.

Section – B (40 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section

Question 5.
(a) Give any five differences between product and process based division of labour. [5]
(b) Explain any five rights of the consumers as accepted by the Indian law. [5]
Answer:
(a)

Product based division of labour

Process based division of labour

If a worker specializes in the production of a single good or service, it is called product based division of labour. In case of small farmers, a potter, a cobbler or a carpenter in a village we see that there is the use of product based division of labour. It is very common in household enterprises of developing countries like India. When the production is made for self consumption or on a small scale there is the use of product based division of labour. For example, most of the farmers in our country make production of food grains mainly for self consumption. All of them make use of product based division of labour.

In big production units like corporations and government enterprises where the production is made on a very large scale, there is the use of process based division of labour. In case of process based division of labour, the production of a commodity is divided into many processes and a worker specializes in one or two processes, that is called process based division of labour. For example, Britannia Bread Company manufactures bread. Raw material for bread is wheat flour. Conversion of wheat flour into bread requires three or four processes. The flour has to be converted into dough and dough has to be kept into containers for baking. Containers are kept in ovens for baking. The baked bread is cut into appropriate size and packed. All processes required in manufacturing of bread are undertaken by different workers and nobody can claim that he has manufactured the bread. He can say that he has performed one or two processes in the preparation of the bread.

(b)

(i) Right to safety: The consumers have the right to be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.

(ii) Right to be informed: The consumers have the right to know about the quality, quantity and price of goods and services, batch number, date of manufacture, expiry date, and the address of the manufacturer. This right has been provided to the consumer so that consumer can approach the courts if cheated.
In recent times, the Right to Information has been expanded through Right to Information Act. In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law, popularly known as RTI Act, which ensures the citizens all the information about the functioning of government departments.

(iii) Right to choose: Consumers have the right to assess the variety of goods and services at competitive price. In case of a single supplier, the consumers have the right of be assured of satisfactory quality and service at a fair price. This right gives the consumer a surety that no producer can force him/her to purchase a particular brand or product.

(iv) Right to seek redressal: This is the most important right. The consumer has the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and exploitation. If any damage has been done to the consumer, he/she has the right to get compensation depending upon degree of damage. You might be interested to know how an aggrieved person gets his/her compensation.

(v) Right to be heard : Means consumer’s interest will receive due consideration at appropriate forums. It also include right to represent in various forums.

Question 6.
(а) How do the manufacturers and traders exploit the consumers ? [5]
(b) Explain the role of an entrepreneur in the economic development of the country. [5]
Answer:
(a) Consumers are cheated by the manufacturers and the traders commonly by the following ways :

1. High prices: There can be some articles in the market without MRP (Market Retail Price). In this case, the traders can charge a price higher than the price prevailing in the market because of the ignorance and urgency of the customer.
2. Underweight and under-measurement : By their cleverness, some traders stoop so low that they cheat the customers by resorting to underweight and under¬measurement tactics.
3. Substandard quality : Some traders or sellers sell substandard quality products to the consumer. Now- a-days markets are full of duplicate products.
4. Adulterated and impure products: In edible items such as oil, ghee and spices adulteration is made in order to earn higher profits. This causes financial and health loss to the consumer. You may have heard people dying because of adulterated wine.
5. Improper information : Companies spend a considerable amount on advertisements alone to attract consumers and feed information that they want the consumers to know but not the information the consumers need about the products.
6. Lack of safety devices : In order to increase the sale of their products, some producers, especially of electrical goods, electronic devices and such other appliances, try to produce things of poor quality without following safety measures.

(b)

1. Development of managerial capabilities :
The biggest significance of entrepreneurship lies in the fact that it helps in identifying and developing managerial capabilities of entrepreneurs. An entre¬preneur studies a problem, identifies its alternatives, compares the alternatives in terms of cost and benefits implications, and finally chooses the best alternative. This exercise helps in sharpening the decision making skills of an entrepreneur. Besides, these managerial capabilities are used by entrepreneurs in creating new technologies and products in place of older technologies and products resulting in higher performance.

2. Creation of organisations:
Entrepreneurship results into creation of organisations when entrepreneurs as-semble and coordinate physical, human and financial resources and direct them towards achievement of objectives through managerial skills.

3. Improving standards of living : By creating productive organisations, entrepreneurship helps in making a wide variety of goods and services available to the society which results into higher standards of living for the people.

Possession of luxury cars, computers, mobile phones, rapid growth of shopping malls, etc. are pointers to the rising living standards of people, and all this is due to the efforts of entrepreneurs.

Question 7.
(a) How is a commercial bank different from a central bank? [5]
(b) What are the merits of an indirect tax ? [5]
Answer:
(a)

Central Bank	Commercial Bank
(i) Central bank functions as the apex bank of the country. It is a bank of all the banks. (ii) The Central bank designs and controls all instruments of monetary policy of the country. (iii) Central bank is the sole authority of note issuing. (iv) Central bank does not deal directly with the general public. (v) Central bank does not accept any deposits or advance loans.	(i) Commercial banks functions according to the rules and regulations stipulated by the central bank. (ii) Commercial banks only executes the monetary policy as directed by the central bank. (iii) Commercial banks contribute to the flow of money only by a way of credit creation. (iv) Commercial banks deal directly with the public. (v) Commercial banks accept deposits and advance loans.

(b)

1. Broad Coverage : All the consumers, whether they are rich or poor, have to pay indirect taxes. For this reason, it is said that indirect taxes can cover more area than direct taxes.
2. Popular: Indirect taxes are more popular than direct taxes. When a common man purchases a commodity, then he or she can hardly understand whether he or she is actually paying the tax or not. Hence it is not unpopular.
3. Productivity not Violated : The common people are not always conscious while paying an indirect tax. Hence it doesn’t affect the willingness to work or propensity to work among the common people.
4. Social Reforms : Indirect taxes sometimes help to reform the society also. The Government imposes indirect taxes on those commodities which are socially harmful.

Question 8.
(a) With the help of a graph explain relatively inelastic demand for a commodity. [5]
(b) Discuss any five advantages of having a bank account. [5]
Answer:
(a) Inelastic demand (|∈| < 1) : As a result of a rise (fall) in price the total expenditure on the commodity rises (falls), the commodity is said to have inelastic demand. This type of price elasticity of demand can be illustrated by the demand schedule (Table) and graphically (Fig).
Table : Demand Schedule Showing Inelastic Demand

Price(₹)	Quantity Demanded	Total Expenditure or Total outlay
5	20	100
4	22	88

From table, it is clear that as price falls quantity demanded increases; but total expenditure falls. Here, the price and total expenditure are moving in the same direction. This means that the price elasticity of demand is less than one. In Fig., the total expenditure at price OP₂ is □OP₂AQ₁, and when price falls to OP₁ the total expenditure made on it is equal to □]OP₁BQ₂. Now, by comparing the two total expenditures, it is evident that
□OP₂AQ₁ > □]OP₁BQ₂. This means that |∈| < 1

(b) Advantages of Bank Account:

1. Bank account helps us in safe transfer of funds from one person to another.
2. Customers can get interest on their deposits.
3. Surplus funds of the people are used by banks to advance loans which helps in economic development.
4. Through bank account we can pay our bills, fees etc.
5. We can also get locker facility.

Question 9.
(a) Explain any five characteristics of tax. [5]
(b) (i) What is meant by the term demand pull inflation ?
(ii) Discuss any three causes of demand pull inflation. [5]
Answer.
(a)

1. They are the compulsory payments given by the citizens to the Government without any quid pro quo.
2. Taxes are the most important source of revenue for the Government.
3. There are various types of taxes, for example, income tax, wealth tax, estate duty, sales tax, customs duty etc.
4. Taxes helps in economic equality.
5. There are basically two types of taxes i.e., direct and indirect.

(b) Demand pull inflation is a situation when AD outpaces aggregate supply corresponding to full employment level of output in the economy. The causes of demand pull inflation are as follows :

1. A depreciation of the exchange rate increases the price of imports and reduces the foreign price of a country’s exports. If consumers buy fewer imports, while exports grow, AD will rise and there may be a multiplier effect on the level of demand and output.

2. Higher demand from a fiscal stimulus e.g., lower direct or indirect taxes or higher government spending. If direct taxes are reduced, consumers have more disposable income causing demand to rise. Higher government spending and increased borrowing creates extra demand in the circular flow.

3. Monetary stimulus to the economy : A fall in interest rates may stimulate too much demand — for example in raising demand for loans or in leading to house price inflation.

4. Fast growth in other countries — provide a boost to exports overseas. Export sales provide an extra flow of income and spending into the circular flow.

Question 10.
(a) (i) Define the term demand. [5]
(ii) Explain any three factors that affect the demand for a commodity.
(iii) Why are articles of distinction or the Veblen effect an exception to the law of demand ?
(b) Discuss any five reasons for growth of public expenditure in India. [5]
Answer.
(a)

(i) Demand : Demand is the quantity of a commodity that a consumer is willing and able to buy, at each possible price during a given period of time.

(ii)

1. Price of Commodity: Other things being equal, with a rise in own price of the commodity, its demand contracts, and with a fall in price, its demand extends. This inverse relationship between own price if the commodity and its demands is called Law of Demand.
2. Price of related goods : Demand for a commodity is also influenced by change in price of related goods. The related goods are of two kinds :
   • Substitute goods
   • Complementary goods
3. Income : Demand for a commodity is also affected by income. Change in income may have a positive or negative effect on demand of the product depending upon type of good.

(iii) Articles of distinction such as diamonds, gems, costly carpets, etc. are in more demand when their prices are high. The reason is that rich people measure the desirability of these articles in terms of their prices alone and consider these goods as honour possession. Therefore, rich people demand more of articles of distinction when their prices are high.

(b)

(i) Development of Interior Areas : To solve the problem of inequality of income and regional dis-parities in India, the Government has to take several programmes to develop the backward areas through the policy of industrialisation. This requires a huge expenditure.

(ii) Defence Expenses : To protect India from external invasion from the hand of foreign countries, the Government has to allot a huge amount of money in every five-year plan for national defence. On the other hand, the Government has to spend a lot to maintain law and order situation within the country.

(iii) Infrastructural Base : In order to maintain the pace of economic development, each government has to spend money on infrastructural facilities, e.g., irrigation, transport and communications, electricity and power generation etc.

(iv) Welfare Activities : According to Prof. Sen, the development of a country (specially LDC) depends on the amount of expenditure the particular Government is willing to spend on the welfare activities within a country. For instance, improvement of drinking water facilities, sanitation facilities, medical and public health etc. On the other hand, the Government has to spend huge amount for alleviating income inequalities, poverty in a less developed country like India.

(v) Prevention of Monopoly : In India, most of the big private industries show a tendency towards concentration of economic power, i. e., monopolisation. Hence, the Government has to spend huge amount of money to set up public industries which will curb the monopoly power of these private industries. This requires a huge expenditure.

Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Question Papers ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2018 is the best way to boost your preparation for the board exams.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Paper 2018 Solved

Part – I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all Questions from this part)

Question 1.
Study the extract of the Survey ofIndia Map sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following questions:
(a) Give the six figure grid reference for:
(i) Δ 268
(ii) Temple south east of Khara [2]
Answer:
(i) 398951
(ii) 413977

(b) Name the following :
(i) The drainage pattern seen in 3697.
(ii) The pattern of settlement seen in 4299. [2]
Answer:
(i) Radial
(ii) Dispersed or scattered

(c) What do the following symbols mean ?
(i) 3r in 3501 (ii) 200 in 3895 [2]
Answer:
(i) Relative depth of dry tank is 3 meter.
(ii) Difference between two contour lines 200 contour interval.

(d) Name two types of vegetation found in the region east of easting 38. [2]
Answer:
Open mixed forest and dense mixed forest.

(e) Give two evidences which suggest that the rainfall received in the region shown on the map extract is seasonal. [2]
Answer:
(i) Rivers and streams are non-perennial.
(ii) Presence of dry tanks.

(f) Calculate the area of the region between 97 – 02 northing and 35- 40 easting. Give your answer in kilometer. [2]
Answer:
Each square measures equal to = 2 cm × 2 cm
Since 2 cm on map = 1 km on the ground
Area of 1 square km = 1 sq km
Area of 25 square = 1 × 25
= 25 sq km

(g) Mention any two man made features and two natural features in grid square 3592. [2]
Answer:
Manmade: Temple, Well
Natural: Vegetation, Disappearing stream

(h) What is the direct distance in kilometers between the surveyed tree west of Rampura (4092) to the chhatri in
Juvol (3794) ? [2]
Answer:
Direct distance 6.8 cm
1 cm on the map represent 500 m on the ground 5 cm on the map represents
= 500 × 6.8 = 3400 m or 3.4 km

(i) Mention: [2]
(i) The most commonly Used means of transport in the area shown on the map extract.
(ii) The main occupation of the people of the region in the south eastern part of the map extract.
Answer:
(i) Cart track
(ii) Agriculture

(j) (i) What is the compass direction of Rampura (4092) from Karja (4193)? [2]
(ii) Identify the landform marked by contours in 4294.
Answer:
(i) SW
(ii) Mountain

Question 2.
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Shade and label Thar desert. [1 ]
(b) Label the river Narmada. [1]
(c) Shade and name the Wular lake. [1]
(d) Shade and label Kanara coast. [1]
(e) Mark and name Mount Kanchenjunga. [1]
(f) Shade and label a densely-populated region in India. [1]
(g) Shade and label a region with Red soil in India. [1]
(h) Mark with a dot and name Chennai. [1]
(i) Mark and label the Arabian Sea branch of S. W. Monsoon. [1]
(j) Mark with a dot and name Singhbhum. [1]
Answer:

Part-II (50 Marks)
(Attempt any FIVE questions from this Part)

Question 3.
(a) How is the winter rainfall of the northwest part of India different from the winter rainfall of the southeast part of India ? [2]
Answer:

Winter rainfall in Northwest part	Winter rainfall in Southeast part
1. The rainfall is caused by Western disturbances.	1. The rainfall is caused due to retreating monsoons.
2. The cyclones originate from Mediterranean sea.	2. These winds pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal.
3. These causes rainfall in Punjab, Delhi etc.	3. These cause rainfall in Tamil Nadu and adjoining parts of South Andhra Pradesh.

(b) (i) Name a state that is the first to experience the onset of the monsoon. [2]
(ii) How does the “Mango shower” influence the state of Karnataka ?
Answer:
(i) Kerala

(ii)

• Mango showers are pre-monsoon showers.
• Mango showers are also called cherry blossom as they help in coffee cultivation.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) Kanyakumari experiences equable climate.
(ii) Central Maharashtra gets less rainfall than the coastal area of Maharashtra.
(iii) Jaipur has a higher annual range of temperature than Mumbai.
Answer:
(i) Kanyakumari is located on the sea coast so it enjoys equable influence of the sea.
(ii) The amount of rainfall show a declining trend as the monsoon wind move westward. The Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon get drier and drier as the distance from the sea increases.
(iii) Jaipur is located away from the coast so it has high range of temperature whereas Mumbai is a coastal city and enjoys equable influence of the sea.

(d) Write three differences between summer monsoon season and retreating monsoon season. [3]
Answer:

Summer Monsoon Season	Retreating Monsoon
1. These winds blow during the months of June, July, August and September.	1. These winds blow during the months of October and November.
2. These cause heavy rainfall almost throughout India.	2. These cause very less rainfall.
3. These monsoons travel from sea to land.	3. The retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature.

Question 4.
(a) (i) Why does alluvial soil differ in texture ? [2]
(ii) State two cash crops that grow well in alluvial soil.
Answer:
(i) It is the transported soil and in the upper course of the river it is coarse where as in the lower coarse it is finally grained.
(ii) Wheat and Rice.

(b) With reference to black soil answer the following : [2]
(i) Name one important crop which grows in this soil,
(ii) Give one chemical property of this soil.
Answer:
(i) Cotton.
(ii) Soil is rich in soil nutrients such as calcium, carbonate, potash, lime etc.

(c) Give one geographical reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) Red soil requires irrigation.
(ii) Afforestation prevents soil from getting eroded.
(iii) Laterite soil is red in colour.
Answer:
(i) Soil lacks organic matter.
(ii) Trees and plants anchor and hold the soil together.
(iii) Due to wide diffusion.

(d) (i) What is soil erosion ? [3]
(ii) Mention two causes of soil erosion in India.
Answer:
(i) Soil erosion is the removal of soil by the forces of nature, particularly wind and water.

(ii) Soil erosion mainly takes place due to man’s activities such as:

• Deforestation
• Overgrazing of cattle.

Question 5.
(a) (i) Name an area in India where Tropical Monsoon forest is found. [2]
(ii) How is this forest of great commercial value to India?
Answer:
(i) Eastern slopes of Western Ghats.
(ii) These forests provide teak, sal, sandalwood etc. which are used for furniture and other wood work.

(b) With reference to Littoral forest, answer the following questions: [2]
(i) Why do the trees in this forest grow aerial roots ?
(ii) Name one area in India where this forest is found.
Answer:
(i) Mangroves can live in the most inundated areas, prop themselves up above the water level with stilt roots and can then take in air through pores in their bark. Prop root systems allow mangroves to take up gases directly from the atmosphere, and various other nutrients, like iron from the inhospitable soil. Gases are quite often stored directly inside the roots and processed even when the roots are submerged during high tide.

(ii) Littoral forests occur at several places along the coast and confined deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Cauveri.

(c) (i) Name a state in India where thorn and scrub forest is found. [3]
(ii) Give two ways by which the trees that are found here have adapted to the climate.
Answer:
(i) Punjab plains, Northern Madhya Pradesh, South-West Uttar Pradesh, (Bundelkhand plateau).

(ii)

• Trees remain small, it saves surface through which water evaporates.
• Develop an extended root system close to the surface and still collect a lot of water during scanty rainfall.

(d) (i) Give two ways in which forests are important. [3]
(ii) Mention one forest conservation method followed in India.
Answer:
(i)

• They play a significant role in the prevention and control of soil erosion.
• Forests play an important role in regulating the earth’s temperature and weather patterns by storing large quantities of carbon and water.

(ii) Social Forestry

Question 6.
(a) There is plenty of rain in India during the rainy season, yet we need irrigation. Give two reasons to support this statement. [2]
Answer:
(i) Variability in Rainfall : Rainfall in India is very uncertain, which increases the element of risk and makes crop production rather difficult.

(ii) Unequal Distribution of Rainfall : In most parts of the country, 80% of the annual rainfall is received from June to September from the south-west monsoon. Saurashtra-Kutch region of Gujarat, western half of Rajasthan and parts of Punjab and Haryana are in the arid zone, where there is a constant deficiency of water.

(b) (i) Name three traditional means of irrigation. [2]
(ii) Give a reason why traditional means of irrigation are still important in most parts of India.
Answer:
(i)

• Wells
• Canals
• Tanks

(ii) Traditional means of irrigation like wells, canals and tanks are still important in most parts of India as these are cost effective methods whereas the modem methods like drip irrigation, sprinkle irrigation though save water but are very expensive.

(c) (i) Differentiate between Surface water and Ground water. [3]
(ii) Mention two reasons to explain as to why we are facing water scarcity in recent times.
Answer:
(i)

Surface water	Ground water
(i) Water found on the surface of the earth is known as surface water.	(i) Water located below the earth’s surface is known as ground water.
(ii) Streams, rivers, lakes etc. are major sources of surface water.	(ii) It is stored in porous soil and rocks.
(iii) It can be directly used for irrigation.	(iii) In most of cases it is needed to be pumped out.

(ii) 1. Overpopulation or large and growing population can lead to water scarcity as more population means more demand for water.
2. To facilitate higher foodgrain production, water resources are being over exploited to expand the irrigated areas and the dry season agriculture.

(d) (i) What is rain water harvesting ? [3]
(ii) What are the advantages of rain water harvesting ?
(iii) Name two water Harvesting systems practised in India.
Answer:
(i) It is the technique of increasing the recharge of ground water by capturing and storing rain water by constructing structures such as percolating pits, check dams, etc.

(ii) (a) To overcome the inadequacy of surface water to meet our demands.
(b) To check decline in ground water levels.
(c) To enhance availability of ground water at specific place and time and utilize rain water for sustainable development.

(iii) Surface runoff and Rooftop rain water harvesting.

Question 7.
(a) Give two advantages that non-conventional energy sources have over conventional energy sources. [2]
Answer:
(i) These are renewable sources of energy, e.g., solar energy, wind energy.
(ii) These do not cause any pollution.

(b) (i) Mention one advantage of the use of natural gas over coal or petroleum. [2]
(ii) Name one off shore oil field of India.
Answer:
(i)

• It is a clean energy resource.
• It is easy to transport through pipelines.

(ii) Bombay-High and Bassein.

(c) Answer the following:
(i) State one industrial use of copper. [3]
(ii) Mention one advantage of generating power from bio-gas.
(iii) Name the mineral that toughens steel and makes it rust-proof.
Answer:
(i) It is used in power cables.

(ii)

• It does not cause any pollution.
• It is a cheap source of energy.
• It prevents the loss of trees and manure due to burning of fuel wood and cow dung cakes.

(iii) Manganese

(d) (i) Name the metal obtained from Bauxite. [3]
Give any one use of the metal mentioned by you.
(ii) Which multi-purpose project provides power to both Punjab and Himachal Pradesh ?
Answer:
(i) Aluminium
It is used for making pots, pans and parts of automobiles.

(ii) BhakraNangal

Question 8.
(a) With reference to the cultivation of tea answer the following: [2]
(i) Why is tea grown on hill slopes ?
(ii) Why tea bushes have to be pruned at regular intervals?
Answer:
(i) Because roots cannot tolerate stagnant water.
(ii) Pruning is done to keep the shrub at a convenient height of about 40 to 50 cm. It encourages the growth of new shoots with softer leaves.

(b) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following: [2]
(i) Why does the cultivation of rice require a lot of manual labour ?
(ii) Mention two geographical conditions which suit the cultivation of rice.
Answer:
(i) Plants are planted and harvested manually.
(ii) Temperature – 24°C
Rainfall – Between 150 cm to 300 cm.
Soil-Alluvial

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) Cotton is a labour intensive crop.
(ii) Jute is retted after it has been harvested.
(iii) The growing of pulses is important in India.
Answer:
(i) Cotton balls are picked manually.

(ii) Fibre can be easily removed.

(iii)

• These are the major source of protein for most of the people.
• These plants help in restoring the fertility of the soil.

(d) (i) Why is agriculture important in India ? [3]
(ii) Name the two main agricultural seasons of India.
(iii) What is mixed farming ?
Answer:
(i) Agriculture is the main stay of Indian economy because 67% of our population depends directly or indirectly on agriculture.
It provides raw-material to the industries.

(ii) Kharif and Rabi.

(iii) Mixed farming is a technique of farming under which equal importance is given to rearing of animals along with cultivation of crops.

Question 9.
(a) (i) Name the private sector iron and steel plant of India. [2]
(ii) From where does it get its supply of:
1. Iron ore
2. Manganese
3. Coal ?
Answer:
(i) Tata Iron and Steel Industry, Jamshedpur.

(ii) 1. Iron Ore : Singhbhum, Mayurbhanj.
2. Manganese: Noamundi.
3. Coal: Jharia.

(b) Mention any two problems faced by the cotton textile industry of India. [2]
Answer:

• Problem of raw material: ‘Long staple’ fibre is best fibre but most of the cotton grown in India is the ‘short staple’ fibre.
• International competition: Countries like Taiwan, South Korea and Japan are giving a stiff competition.

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3]
(i) Silk industry is doing particularly well in Karnataka.
(ii) Petrochemical products are gaining popularity in modem times.
(iii) The electronics industry is proving to be an asset for our country in the field of education.
Answer:
(i)

• It enjoys favourable climatic conditions for rearing the silkworms.
• Karnataka is the hub of skilled workers which are required for production of silk.

(ii)

• These products are cost effective.
• These are cheaper as compared to traditional products.
• Its raw material is easily available.

(iii)

• Electronics industry has given us various products like television, computers, laptops, tabs, radio, DTH, etc. All these electronic products have become the major source of entertainment as well as education.
• With the help of these products information is readily available and can be shared through the use of internet.

(d) Name the following: [3]
(i) A city most famous for electronics and hence called
“The Electronics Capital of India ”
(ii) The location of an iron and steel industry set up with German collaboration.
(iii) A by-product of sugar industry which is used in the manufacture of wax and shoe polish.
Answer:
(i) Bengaluru
(ii) Rourkela Steel Plant; Krupp and Demag Companies of Germany.
(iii) Press Mud: It is used for making shoe polish, carbon paper and wax.

Question 10.
(a) Give two reasons for the “means of transport ” being called the lifelines of a nation’s economy. [2]
Answer:
Radio, television, e-mail, telegraph, etc., are the main means of communication whereas the railways, airways, buses, trucks, cars, etc., are the main means of transportation.

(i) To provide link : Transportation is the lifeline of a country. This connects one part of the country with another part, and helps in providing essential products to all the places and the people.

(ii) Development of Economy: The means of transport and communication help the industries to get raw materials, and its finished products are transported by the railways and roadways. Agriculture also depends greatly on transportation.

(b) Give two ways in which rail transport is useful for the people of India. [2]
Answer:
1. Indian Railways carry most of the long distance passengers traffic and 80% of the total freight of the country.

2. Railway is cheap mode of transportation. It can carry bulky raw material.

(c) (i) State one advantage of inland waterways. [3]
(ii) State one advantage of roadways.
(iii) State one disadvantage of water transport.
Answer:
(i) It is the most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
(ii) Road transportation is easy and is within the reach of the common man. Moreover, it is available for 24 hours.
(iii) Water transport as a whole is much slower than its roads, rail and air competitors.

(d) Give three reasons as to why airways are becoming a popular means of transport in modem India. [3]
Answer:
(i) Air transport is the fastest mode of transport and therefore suitable carriage of goods over a long distance requiring less time.
(ii) Air transport is regarded as the only means of transport in those areas which are not easily accessible to other modes of transport.

Question 11.
(a) Give two reasons as to why there is a need for safe waste disposal. [2]
Answer:

• All type of waste pose a challenge to the environment.
• Untreated waste materials discharged into stream cause depletion of aquatic life.

(b) How can waste be reused ? Explain with the help of an example. [2]
Answer:
Waste can be reused by recycling. For example, old paper can be recycled and used again.

(c) Mention one way in which waste accumulation has an effect on the following: [3]
(i) Aquatic life
(ii) Terrestrial life
(iii) Landscape
Answer:
(i) Plastics dumped into ocean can affect the marine life seriously. Plastic items such as bottles and bags could choke and suffocate the sea animals, as they eat them thinking that they are food. Plastics are known to be a major cause for the death of turtles, as they swallow the floating bags, mistaking them for jelly fish.

(ii) Pollutants of waste enter the environment and become a part of food chain which accumulates in the bodies of organisms at different levels. For example, insecticides and pesticides used by the farmer mix with the water. Animals drinking that water may get infected. Plants growing in that area may absorb these chemicals and get infected. Humans consuming these plants may also get infected.

(iii)

• When the waste is dumped in an improper way, the landscape of the area gives unpleasant look.
• The uncontrolled dumping of urban waste damages the beauty of the countryside.

(d) What do you mean by the following terms ? [3]
(i) Segregation.
(ii) Composting.
(iii) Dumping.
Answer:
(i) Segregation refers to the separation of waste into different categories of waste. Segregation depends upon the waste disposal technique. The most popular segregation is biodegradable and non-biodegradable.

(ii) Composting is a biological process in which micro-organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria, convert degradable organic waste into humus-like substance.

(iii) Dumping is an activity of depositing waste in an area.