Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 70

General Instructions:

1. This Question paper has four sections : Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D
2. In Section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ Type Questions.
3. In Section B question number 18-23 are Short Answer Type Questions (80-100) words. Question 18 & 19 are source based questions.
4. In Section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based Questions (12D-150) words.
5. In Section D question number 29 to 30 are Map based Questions having 5 sub parts.

Section-A

Question 1.
Which of the following school of thoughts is related to the different aspects of social well-being of the people? [1]
(A) Behaviouralistic
(B) Humanistic
(C) Radical
(D) Utopian
Answer:
(B) Humanistic
Explanation: The welfare or humanistic school of thought in human geography was mainly concerned with the different aspects of social well-being of the people. These included aspects such as housing, health and education.

Question 2.
Which of the following Pairs is matched correctly. [1]

Field of Human Geography	Sub-field
(A) Social geography	Military geography
(B) Political geography	Rural Planning
(C) Economic geography	Marketing geography
(D) Settlement geography	Gender geography

Answer:

(C) Economic geography

Marketing geography

Question 3.
Which agency brings out the human development report? [1]
(A) United Nations Development programme
(B) World Bank
(C) United Nations Human Rights Commissioner
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) World Bank
Explanation: The Human Development Report is brought by the United Nations Development Programme.

Question 4.
Which one of the following countries comes under ‘Medium level of Human Development’? [1]
(A) Norway
(B) Canada
(C) India
(D) Singapore
Answer:
(C) India
Explanation: India’s HDI value for 2019 was 0.645 which put it in the medium human development category. India has been positioned at 131 out of 189 countries and territories.

Question 5.
Aircraft and arms industry have a: [1]
(A) local market
(B) defence market
(C) global market
(D) rural market
Answer:
(C) global market
Explanation: The arms industry, is a global industry that manufactures and sells weapons and military technology, and is a major component of the military-industrial complex. Similarly, aircraft industry provides the only rapid worldwide transportation network, which makes it essential for global business. It generates economic growth, creates jobs, and facilitates international trade and tourism.

Question 6.
Which one is the example of tertiary activity? [1]
(A) Transport
(B) Agriculture
(C) Dairy
(D) Iron and steel industry
Answer:
(A) Transport
Explanation: Transport involves connections between businesses and their suppliers, between businesses and other businesses, and between businesses and their markets. For the household sector, transport provides people with access to workplaces, schools and shops.

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? [1]

Class	Population Size
(A) I	1,(X,OOO and more
(B) II	60,0000 – 99,999
(C) III	20,000 – 49,999
(D) IV	10,000- 19,999

Answer:

(B) II

60,0000 – 99,999

Explanation:
Class I – 1,00,000 and more
Class II – 50,000 to 99,999
Class III – 20,000 to 49,999
Class IV -10,000 to 19,999

Question 8.
Identify the correct order of location from West Bengal to Tamil Nadu, for the Oil Refineries of India. [1]
(A) Paradip, Haldia, Vishakhapatnam, Chennai
(B) Chennai, Paradip, Vishakhapatnam, Haldia
(C) Haldia, Paradip, Vishakhapatnam, Chennai
(D) Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Paradip, Haldia
Answer:
(C) Haldia, Paradip, Vishakhapatnam, Chennai

Explanation:
The port of Haldia is in West Bengal, Paradip in Orissa, Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and Chennai in Tamil Nadu

Question 9.
Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the: [1]
(A) peninsular plateau region
(B) Northern Plains
(C) Himalayan Ranges
(D) Deccan range
Answer:
(A) peninsular plateau region

Explanation:
Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks. Over 97 percent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari.

Question 10.
Leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemical industries are the major : [1]
(A) acid rain-producing industries
(B) water polluting industries
(C) pesticides producing industries
(D) Toxin-polluting industries
Answer:
(B) water polluting industries

Explanation:
They are industries that discharge more than 1,00,000 litres of wastewater and/or hazardous chemicals into the rivers.

Question 11.
Arrange the four stages of demographic transition in the correct order:? [1]
(i) Pre-industrial stage
(ii) Urbanizing/industrializing
(iii) Mature industrial
(iv) Post-industrial
Options:
(A) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
(B) (iv),(ii),(iii),(i)
(C) (iii),(iv),(i),(ii)
(D) (ii),(i),(iii),(iv)
Answer:
(A) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)

Question 12.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options: [1]
I. Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India
II. The first foreign trading port in India was established by the British in Goa.
Options:
(A) Only Statement I is correct
(B) Both the statements are true and Statement II correctly presents the reason for Statement I
(C) Only Statement II is correct
(D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Answer:
(A) Only Statement I is correct

Question 13.
Assertion : There is a strong relationship between raw material and type of Industry.
Reason : In modern times industries have become very important part of an economy.
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both statements are correct Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
(D) Both are correct but not related to each other.
Answer:
(D) Both are correct but not related to each other.

Question 14.
Assertion : India Fared Serious Food Shortage during 1920 s and 1930s.
Reason : The major item of import at that time was foodgrain, capital goods, machinery and equipment.
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Answer:
(B) Only Reason is correct.

Explanation:
India faced serious food during 1950s and 1960s.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 that follow:
Land, according to its ownership, can broadly be classified under two broad heads-private land and common
property resources (CPRs). While the former is owned by an individual or a group of individuals, the Latter is owned by the state meant for the use of the community. CrRs provide fodder for the livestock and fuel for the households along with other minor forest products like fruits, nuts, fibre, medicinal plants, etc.

In rural areas, such land is of particular relevance for the livelihood of the landless and marginal farmers and other weaker sections since many of them depend on income from their livestock due to the fact that they have limited access to land. CPRs also are important for women as most of the fodder and fuel collection is done by them in rural areas. They have to devote long hours in collecting fuel and fodder from a degraded area of CPR.

Question 15.
Land can broadly be classified into:
(A) Private and government
(B) Private and CPRs
(C) Government and CPRs
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) Private and CPRs

Question 16.
Common property Resources provide:
(A) Fodder
(B) Fuel
(C) Forest products
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Question 17.
Who is/are dependent on the CPRs?
(A) Landless farmers
(B) Marginal farmers
(C) Other weaker sections
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Section-B

Question 18.
Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:
Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated during the Fourth Five ‘Year Plan with the objectIves of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive asseLs. Initially, this programme laid eniphasis on the construction of labour-intensive civil works. But later on, it emphasised on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation. grassland development and creation of basic rural infrastructure, such as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.

The National Co’rnmittee on Development of backward Areas reviewed the performance of this programme. It
has been observed that this program is largely confined to the development of agriculture and allied sectors with a major focus on the restoration of ecological balance. Since growing population pressure is forcing society to utilise the marginal lands for agriculture, and, thereby causing ecological degradation.

there is a need to create alternative employment opportunities in drought-prone areas. The other strategies of the development of these . areas include the adoption of integrated watershed development approach at the micro-level. The restoration of ecological balance between water, soil, plants, and human and animai population should be a basic consideration in the strategy of development of drought-prone areas.

1. Who launched the Drought Prone Area Programme?
2. What was the objective of this program?
3. Which is the other strategy of development that has been inculcated in these areas?

Answer:
(1) DPAP was the earliest area development program launched by the Central Government

(2) The basic objective of the program was to minimize the adverse effects of drought on the production of crops and livestock and the productivity of land, water and human resources ultimately leading to drought-proofing of the affected areas.

(3) Integrated watershed development approach.

Question 19.
Study the given graph carefully and answer the following questions: [3]
(I) Which class of towns constitutes the minimum share in the distribution of urban population?
(A) Il
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) VI
Answer:
(D) VI

(ii) Which two classes of towns are likely to have a similar distribution of urban population?
(A) I and III ‘
(B) II and III
(C) I and IV
(D) III and V
Answer:
(B) II and III

(iii) If Class I towns have a population size of 1,00,000 and more and Class III towns have a population size of 20,000 to 49,999, which of these is most likely to be the population size of Class V towns?
(A) 2,00,000 and more
(B) 75,000 to 99,999
(C) 50,000 to 74,999
(D) 5,000 to 9,999
Answer:
(D) 5,000 to 9,999

Question 20.
Discuss in detail the alternative view of development given by Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq and Prof. Amartya Sen. [3]
Answer:
For many decades a country’s level of development was measured only in terms of its economic growth. The ideas that the quality of life people enjoy in a country, the opportunities they have and the freedom they enjoy are important aspects of development now and the works of Mahbub-ul-Haq and Amartya Sen are important in this regard.

1. According to Haq, development is people’s choice in order to lead long and healthy lives with dignity. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.
2. Prof. Amartya Sen saw an increase in freedom or a decrease in freedom as the main objective of development.
3. The works of these economists are path-breaking and have succeeded in bringing people to the centre of any discussion on development (1×3=3)

Question 21.
Why Mediterranean agriculture is considered as one of the best and most profitable type of agriculture? [3]
Answer:
Mediterranean agriculture is considered as one of the best and most profitable type of agriculture because:

1. It is highly specialized commercial agriculture.
2. Viticulture is highly specialized commercial agriculture.
3. Best quality wines in the world with distinctive flavors are produced from high-quality grapes. Inferior grapes are dried into raisins and currents.
4. Olives and figs are produced in this region.
5. More valuable crops such as fruits and vegetables are grown in winter when there is a great demand in European and North American markets. (Any three) (1×3=3)

Question 22.
Outsourcing is providing lots of jobs in developing countries. Discuss.  [3]
OR
What do you know about the Silk Route?
Answer:
Outsourcing has resulted in the opening up of a large number of call centers in India, China, Thailand, Israel, the Philippines, etc. Outsourcing is coming to those countries where cheap and skilled workers are available.
Developing countries have a lot of IT-skilled staff with good communication skills and are available at lower wages than those in developed countries. 3
OR
The Silk Route is an early example of long-distance trade connecting Rome to China-along 6000 km route, arid the trade transported Chinese silk, Roman wool and precious metals and many other high-value commodities from intermediate points in India, Persia and Central Asia. The route included a group of trading posts and markets that were used to help in the rough, transport and exchange of goods. 3

Question 23.
Write a short note on the cultivation of sugarcane. [3]
Answer:

1.  Sugarcane is a crop of tropical areas.
2. Under rainfed conditions, it is cultivated in sub-humid and humid climates. But it is largely an irrigated crop in India.
3. In the Indo-Gangetic plain, its cultivation is largely concentrated in Uttar Pradesh. Sugarcane growing area in western India is spread over Maharashtra and Gujarat.
4. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are other leading producers of this crop where yield level of sugarcane is high. Its yield is low in northern India. (Any three)
   (1×3 = 3)

Section-C

Question 24.
Define the term ‘tourism’. Explain any four factors that attract tourists in the world. [5]
Answer:
Tourism is travel undertaken for purpose of recreation rather than business. It has become the world’s single largest tertiary activity with total registered jobs (250 million) and total revenue (40 per cent of the total GDP). Tourism fosters the growth of infrastructure industries, retail trading and craft industries (souvenirs). In some regions, tourism is seasonal because the vacation period is dependent on favourable weather conditions, but many regions attract visitors all round the year.

Factors that attract tourists to a particular place:
(i) Transport:
The opening-up of tourist areas has been aided by improvement in transport facilities. Travel is easier by car, with better road systems. More significant in recent years has been the expansion in air transport.

(ii) Climate:
Most people from colder regions expect to have warm, sunny weather for beach holidays. This is one of the main reasons for the importance of tourism in Southern Europe and the Mediterranean lands. The Mediterranean climate offers almost consistently higher temperatures, than in other parts of Europe, long hours of sunshine and low rainfall throughout the peak holiday season.

(iii) History and Art:
The history and art of an area have potential attractiveness. People visit ancient or picturesque towns and archaeological sites and enjoy exploring castles, palaces and churches.

(iv) Landscape:
Many people like to spend their holidays in an attractive environment, which often means mountains, lakes, spectacular sea coasts and landscapes not completely altered by man.(1+4=5)

Question 25.
Classify mining methods on the basis of mode of occurrence and the nature of the ore into two categories. How are they different from each other? Explain with examples. [5]
Answer:
Classification of mining:

• Surface Mining
• Underground Mining

Differences:

1. Surface mining is known as open-cast mining, whereas underground mining is known as shaft method.
2. Surface mining is the cheapest way of mining, contrary to underground mining, which is expensive.
3. The former occurs close to the surface, whereas, in the latter method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals.
4. Overhead costs for equipment are relatively low in open-cast, but for underground mining the equipment such as lifts, drills, etc. used are expensive.
5. Open-cast mining is less risky than underground mining which has more possibility of people becoming victim of poisonous gases, fire, floods, etc.
   (Any four points of difference to be explained) (CBSE Marking Scheme, 2017) 1 + 4 = 5

Question 26.
“The size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development”. Explain. [5]
OR
What are the modes by which cyberspace will expand the contemporary economic and social space of humans?
Answer:
The size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development:
Often smaller countries have done better than larger ones in human development. Similarly, relatively goorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development. For example, Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the human development index despite having smaller economies. Similarly, within India, Kerala performs much better than Punjab and Gujarat in human development despite having lower per capita income. (CBSE Marking Scheme, 2017)
OR
Cyber Space is very important in today’s life. It enables us to communicate or access any information without physical movement of the sender and the receiver. It has brought the world closer to each other. One can now communicate with any person in any part of the world. It can be used in an office, sailing boat, flying plane and virtually everywhere. Cyber space has expanded the contemporary economic and social space of humans through e-mail, e-commerce, e-leaming and e-governance. It will be accessible to more and more people cutting across space and time under these circumstances. These modern communication systems have made the concept of ‘Global Village’ a reality.

Question 27.
Why is the area under pastures decreasing in India? How do the changes in the economy effect the changes in land use? Explain. [5]
Answer:
The area under pastures is decreasing in India due to the pressure from agricultural land and illegal encroachment due to expansion of cultivation on common pasture land.

Changes in economy effect the change in land use:
(i) Size of economy: Growth of the economy over the period of time result in increasing population, change in income levels, available technology and associated factors. As a result, the pressure on land will increase and marginal lands will come under use.

(ii) Composition of economy: The secondary and the tertiary sectors are growing much faster than the primary sector, specifically the agricultural sector. This type of change is common in developing countries like India. This process would result in gradual shift of land from agricultural uses to non- agricultural uses.

(iii) Declining contribution of agriculture: The contribution of the agricultural activities reduces over time. In developing countries, the share of population dependent on agriculture declined slowly as compared to the decline in the sector’s share in GDP. The number of people that the agricultural sector had to feed is increasing day by day. (CBSE Marking Scheme, 2015) 5

Question 28.
Write a detailed note on the petroleum resources of India. [5]
OR
What do you know about Target Area Planning.
Answer:
Crude petroleum consists of hydrocarbons of liquid and gaseous states varying in chemical composition, colour and specific gravity. Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period.

Petroleum resources of India:
(i) Till 1956, Digboi in Assam was the only oil-producing region in India, but the scenario has changed after 1956.
(ii) In recent years, new deposits have been found at the extreme western and eastern parts of the country. In Assam, Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran are important oil-producing areas.
(iii) The major oilfields of Gujarat are Ankleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba and Lunej.
(iv) Mumbai High which lies 160 km off Mumbai was
discovered in 1973 and production commenced in 1976.
discovered in 1973 and production commenced in 1976.
discovered in 1973 and production commenced in 1976.
discovered in 1973 and production commenced in 1976.
(v) Oil and natural gas have been found in exploratory wells in Krishna, Godavari and Kaveri basin on the East coast. (1×5=5)
OR
The planning process has to take special care of those areas which have remained economically backward.

1. The economic development of a region depends upon its resource base. But sometimes resource-rich region also remains backward.
2.  economic development also requires technology as well as investment besides resource.
3. With the planning experience of about one and half decades, it was realized that regional imbalances in economic development were getting accentuated.
4. In order to arrest the accentuation of regional and social disparities, Planning Commission introduced the ‘target area’ and ‘target group’ approaches to planning.
5. In the 8th Five Year Plan special area programs were designed to develop infrastructure in hill areas, north-eastern states, tribal areas and backward areas.

Section-D

Question 29.
On the given Political map of the world, the following Seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature. [5]

• Name any one area of subsistence farming.
• Name any one area of nomadic herding.
• Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing.
• Name any one area of primitive subsistence agriculture.
• Name any one area of intensive subsistence farming.
• A Major Airport
• A Mega City

Answer:

• Africa
• Eurasia
• Australia
• South Africa
• India
• Jeddah
• Tokyo

Question 30.
On the given Political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols [5]

• A copper mining area of southern Jharkhand.
• The state having lowest density of population.
• The state having the highest HDI.
• The state having the lowest HDI.
• A cotton-producing state.
• An international airport located in Assam.
• The major seaport is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Answer:

• Singham
• Arunachal Pradesh
• Kerala
• Bihar
• Gujarat
• Guwahah
• Vishakapatnarn

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. This Question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D
2. In Section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ Type Questions.
3. In Section B question number 18-23 are Short Answer Type Questions (80-100) words. Question 18 & 19 are source based questions.
4. In Section C question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based Questions (12D-150) words.
5. In Section D question number 29 to 30 are Map based Questions having 5 sub parts.

Section-A

Question 1.
Which of the following pair is correct? [1]
(A) Mediterranean Agriculture – Production of citrus fruits
(B) Mixed Farming – dominated cultivation
(C) Primitive Subsistence Agriculture – Mechanised grain farming
(D) Intensive Subsistence Agriculture – Jhumming farming
Answer:
(A) Mediterranean Agriculture – Production of citrus fruits
Explanation:
The Mediterranean region is an important supplier of citrus fruits. Viticulture or grape cultivation is a speciality of the Mediterranean region(Atlantic coast, southern California, central Chile, south western parts of South Africa and south and south western parts of Australia).

Question 2.
Which of the following pairs is matched correctly? [1]

(A) Very High	Between 0.550 upto 7.00
(B) High	Above 0.800
(C) Medium	Between 0.701 upto 0.799
(D) Low	Below 0.549

Answer:
(C) Medium Between 0.701 up to 0.799

Question 3.
Paper and medicine are industries [1]
(A) mining
(B) extracting
(C) Forest
(D) rain
Answer:
(C) Forest
Explanation:
All industries which derive their raw materials from the forests or plant life are called forests-based industries.

Question 4.
Which one of the following activities comes under ‘Primary Activities’? [1]
(A) Pastoralism
(B) Weaving Basket
(C) Milk Vending
(D) Tailoring
Answer:
(A) Pastoralism
Explanation: Pastoralism comes under the category of the primary activities.

Question 5.
Choose the ‘push factor’ of migration from the followings: [1]
(A) Socio-economic backwardness
(B) Pleasant climate
(C) Security of life and property
(D) Peace and stability
Answer:
(A) Socio-economic backwardness
Explanation:
Socio-economic backwardness is a major push factor of migration as the desire to obtain higher wage rates, improved the standard of living, better job opportunities, and good education system tempts the people to move to better places.

Question 6.
Who among the following has said-‘Asia has many places where people are few and few place where people are very many7? [1]
(A) Prof. Amartya Sen
(B) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq
(C) George B. Cressey
(D) Thomas Malthus
Answer:
(C) George B. Cressey

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? [1]

Industries	Sugar
(A) Agro-based	Plastic
(B) Mineral based	Leather
(C) Chemical based	Raw Material/Inputs
(D) Forest-based	Sugar

Answer:
(C) Chemical based (Raw Material/InputsP)
Explanation: Leather is a raw material by Animal Board Industry. Forest Board Industry requires timber etc.

Question 8.
is an important mode of transport for both passenger and heavy cargo traffic in India. [1]
(A) Waterways
(B) Airways
(C) Roadways
(D) Pipeline
Answer:
(A) Waterways
Explanation:
Waterways has remained one of most important modes of transportation for the cargo traffic as well as the passengers in India.

Question 9.
Identify the land locked harbour from the following: [1]
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Ennor
(D) Both C & D
Answer:
(A) Vishakhapatnam
Explanation: The port of Vishakhapatnam has a landlocked harbor.

Question 10.
In which of the size class of urban centres India has the highest population? [1]
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Answer:
(A) I
Explanation:
Urban Centre with population of more than one lakh is called a city or class I town. Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities and more than five million are mega cities. Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai Bangalore, Hyderabad and Greater Mumbai are the metropolitan dties.

Question 11.
Arrange the following approaches in ascending order on the basis of time and choose the correct option: [1]
I. Areal differentiation
II. Spatial organisation
III. Exploration and description
IV. Regional analysis
(A) I, II, III IV
(B) IV, III, III
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) II, I, IV, III
Answer:
(C) III, IV, I, II
Explanation:
(III) Exploration and description
(IV) Regional Analysis
(I) Areal differentiation
(II) Spatial organisation

Question 12.
Study the following statements I and II and choose the correct option: [1]
I. The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.
II. During this period a rapid fall in the mortality rate and high fertility rate in the country.
Option:
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
(C) I and II both are wrong
(D) I and II both are correct
Answer:
(D) I and II both are correct
Explanation:
The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent.

Question 13.
Assertion: Cotton in the boll has limited use. [1]
Reason: When it is transformed into yarn it becomes more valuable.
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both statements are correct Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
(D) Both are correct but not related to each other.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are correct Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
Explanation: Secondary activities add value to Natural Resources by transforming Raw Materials into Valuable Products. When cotton boll is transformed into yarn, it becomes more valuable and can be used for making clothes.

Question 14.
Assertion: With the invention of the wheel, the use of carts and wagons became important.
Reason: Railways become the most popular and fastest form of transport in the nineteenth century. [1]
Options:
(A) Only Assertion is correct.
(B) Only Reason is correct.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Answer:
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Explanation:
The revolution in transport came about only after the invention of the Steam Engine in the Eighteenth Century.

Read the case study given below and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 that follow:
The use of telecommunications is linked to the development of modern technology. It has revolutionised communications because of the speed with which messages are sent. The time reduced is from weeks to minutes. Besides, the recent advancements like mobile telephony have made communications direct and instantaneous at any time and from anywhere.

The telegraph, morse code and telex have almost become things of the past. Radio and television also help to relay newTs, pictures, and telephone calls to vast audiences around the world and hence they are termed as mass media. They are vital for advertising and entertainment. Newspapers are able to cover events in all corners of the world. Satellite communication relays information of the earth and from space. The internet has truly revolutionised the global communication system.

Question 15.
The means of electronic transmission of information over distances is known as:
(A) Overseas communication
(B) Communication
(C) Telecommunication
(D) Long-distance communication
Answer:
(C) Telecommunication

Question 16.
Fixed-line telephones were first established as telecommunications network in the late:
(A) 1700s
(B) 1800s
(C) 1900s
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) 1800s

Question 17.
State one characteristic of telecommunications.
(A) Tedious task
(B) No exchange of ideas
(C) Time-saving
(D) Only One person is involved
Answer:
(C) Time-saving
Explanation:
There must be a minimum number of two persons because no single individual can have an exchange of ideas with himself. A listener is necessary to receive one’s ideas. Therefore, there must be at least two persons-the sender of information and the receiver.

Section-B

Question 18.
Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow:  [3]
Subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation: This type of agriculture is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population. Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low.

1. Why is wet paddy farming subsistence?
2. State one advantage of wet paddy farming.
3. Why is the use of machinery limited in subsistence agriculture?

Answer:
1. Wet paddy farming is subsistence because historically communities grew rice for themselves and this lead to a way of life that has lasted many years.

2. Water requirement of paddy fields is around 3000 mm. Seepage from irrigation canals and deep percolation from paddy fields raise local groundwater table, and it functions as water source for upland fields surrounding the paddy fields.

3. Use of machinery is limited in subsistence agriculture because farmers grow food crops to meet the needs of themselves and their families on smallholdings. (1×3 = 3)

Question 19.
Study the map given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]

• Identify and name the railway line shown on the map.
• Name the continents linked by this rail route.
• Explain how this railway line is helpful for the promotion of trade in this region.

Answer:

• Trans-Siberian railway
• It connects Asian countries with European countries.
• It helps Asian region to market their products in European region. (1×3 = 3)

Question 20.
“Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India.” Examine. [3]
Answer:

Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India:

• Towns like Harappa & Mohanjodaro were in existence.
• Towns continued to flourish in prehistoric period.
• Prehistoric towns developed along the rivers.
• Any other relevant point? (To be examined by explaining any three points) (Any three)

[CBSE Marking Scheme 2019]

Detailed Answer:
Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India. Even at the time of Indus valley civilisation, towns like Harappa and Mohanjodaro were in existence. The following period has witnessed evolution of towns. It continued with periodic ups and downs until the arrival of Europeans in India in the eighteenth century. On the basis of their evolution in different periods, Indian towns may be classified as:

(a) Ancient Towns:
There are number of towns in India having historical background spanning over 2000 years. Most of them developed as religious and cultural centres. Varanasi is one of the important towns among these. Prayag (AEahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai are some other examples of ancient towns in the country.

(b) Medieval Towns:
Almost 100 existing towns have their roots in the medieval period. Most of them
developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms. These are fort towns which came up on the ruins of andent towns. Important among them are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.

(c) Modem Towns:
The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. Starting their foothold on coastal locations, they first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Pondicherry, etc. The British later consolidated their hold around three prindpal nodes – Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta) -and built them in the British style. 3

Question 21.
“The decades 1951-81 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.” Explain the statement by giving any three reasons. A 1 [3]
Answer:
21. The decades 1951-81 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India due to the following reasons:

• There was rapid fall in mortality rate.
• High fertility rate of the population in the country.
• Improvement in living conditions.
• Improvement in transportation and communication.
• Improvement in health and sanitation.

(Any three) (1×3=3)

Question 22.
Give the meaning of “Net Sown Area.’ Explain any two points of difference between ‘Current Fallow’ and ‘Cultivable wasteland’. [3]
OR
Differentiate between metallic minerals and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area. It represents the total area sown with crops. Area sown with crops more than once in the same year is counted only once.

Difference:

1. Current fallow is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Whereas, cultivable wasteland is the land that is left fallow (uncultivable) for more than five years.
2. Current fallow land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes. Cultivable wasteland can be brought under cultivation after improving it through redamation practices. (1 + 1 + 1 = 3)

OR

No. Metallic Minerals	Non-Metallic
(i) Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form.	(i) Minerals Non-metallic minerals do not contain metals.
(ii) These metals are generally associated with igneous rocks.	(ii) These metals are generally associated with sedimentary rocks.
(iii) They are usually hard and have a shine of their own.	(iii) They are not usually hard and have no shine of their own.
(iv) Examples: Iron, cop per, bauxite and tin.	(iv) Examples: Salt, coal, mica, and day.

Question 23.
Name the programs that were directed towards the development of target areas. [3]
Answer:
Some of the programs directed towards the development of target areas are:

• Command Area Development Programme
• Drought Prone Area Development Programme
• Desert Development Programme
• Hill Area Development Programme
• The Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA)
• Marginal Farmers Development Agency (Any Three) (1×3=3)

Section-C

Question 24.
‘The Suez Canal and the Panama Canal are two vital man-made navigation canals which serve as gateways of commerce for both the eastern and western worlds’. In the light of this statement explain the economic significance of these two canals. [5]
Answer:
Economic importance of the Suez and the Panama- Canals:
The Suez Canal:

• It has given Europe a new gateway to Indian Ocean and Australia.
• It has shortened the distance.
• It saves time and fuel.
• It has become cheaper as compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.
• Suez is sea level canal.

Thus, Suez is very suitable for commerce.

The Panama Canal:

• This canal has linked Eastern America with Western America.
• It also links Europe with Western America.
• It has shortened distance between Europe and Western America.
• It saves time and fuel.
• There are locks in canal even then it is more economical. (Any five of each to be explained.)

(CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016) (2½+2½=5)

Detailed Answer:
The Suez Canal:

• It has shortened the distance: The Suez Canal is considered to be the shortest link between the East and the West due to its unique geographical location.
• It saves time and fuel: The Suez Canal saves distance, time and operating costs for vessels that transit the canal.
• It is an important international navigation canal linking the Mediterranean Sea at Port Said and the Red Sea at Port Suez.
• Suez is very suitable for commerce: The canal is liable to be widened and deepened when required to cope with the development in ship sizes and tonnages.
• The accidents are almost nil compared with other waterways.

The Panama Canal:
(i) It saves time and fuel: Today 10 per cent of the US shipping goes through the canal as it saves the travel time as well as the fuel consumption.

(ii) It has shortened distance between Europe and Western America: The canal has created an ease in the world trade. Therefore, the Canal helps to keep the world, trade running smoothly, keeping in mind America’s large economic importance.

(iii) This canal has linked Eastern America With Western America: The canal has shortened the distance and has opened the trade route between the US west coast and the east coast of South America.

(iv) Job Opportunities: The Panama Canal has created more job opportunities related to the distribution of the cargo.

(v) There are locks in canal even then it is more economical: This is because it cuts down the travel time taken by the cargo to reach the destination port.

Question 25.
Explain how ‘watershed management’ and ‘rainwater harvesting’ are the methods of efficient management and conservation of surface water resources in India. [5]
Answer:

• It prevents runoff, recharges groundwater through percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc.
• Haryali is a watershed development project which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.
• It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources: natural and human within a watershed.
• Neeru-Meeru Programme in Andhra Pradesh and Arvary Pani Sansad in Rajasthan have taken up construction of various water harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, check dams, etc. Rainwater

Harvesting:
(i) Traditional rainwater harvesting mainly in rural areas is done by using surface storage bodies like lakes, ponds, irrigation tanks, etc.

(ii) In Rajasthan rainwater harvesting structures, locally known as kunds or tankas are constructed near or in the house or village to store harvested rainwater.

(iii) It raises water availability, increases the quantity and improves the quality of groundwater by diluting pollutants/ contaminants, prevents soil erosion, reduces the fury of floods and checks salt water intrusion in coastal areas.

NOTE:
At least two points from each method to be explained.

(CBSE Marking Scheme,2018) (1×5 = 5)

Question 26.
Discuss the five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture in order to increase food production. [5]
OR
Explain any five major problems of the rural settlements faced in India.
Answer:
Five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture to increase foodgrains production are:

• Intensification of cropping over cultivated land.
• Increase cultivated area wherever possible.
• To use HYV seeds, i.e., easy availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides.
• Expansion of irrigation facilities. .
• Use modem agricultural technology. (1×5=5)

(CBSE Marking Scheme, 2017)

Detailed Answer:
(i) Intensification of cropping over cultivated land: Foodgrains are the main consumption item of Indian people. Food availability is a necessary condition for food security. Intensification of cropping over cultivated land has helped in increasing the food production.

(ii) Increase cultivated area wherever possible: The government has introduced measures to abolish intermediary rights on land and all state government adopted legislation for the purpose. More and more land was given to farmers in order to increase the production of crops and hence solve the problem of food scarcity.

(iii) To use HYV seeds, and availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides: In several regions, the farmers are not able to get information about the availability of new and improved varieties and some are not having access to quality seeds of these varieties., resulting in lesser yields. Farmers are being educated and encouraged to make use of HYV seeds along with easy availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides.

(iv) Expansion of irrigation facilities: Improved management of water for irrigation is essential in enhancing production and productivity, food security and poverty alleviation. It is necessary that an integrated water use policy is formulated and judiciously implemented. Modern methods of irrigation like sprinklers, drip irrigation, fertigation, among other water efficient tools need to be adopted on larger scale.

(v) User modem agricultural technology: Integrated pest management and integrated weed management has been provided to ensure higher production and sustainability of production base. (1 x5=5)
OR
Problems of rural settlements faced in India are:

1. Rural settlements in India have poor infrastructure facilities.
2. Supply of water to rural settlements is not adequate. People in villages, particularly in mountainous and arid areas have to walk long distances to fetch drinking water.
3. Waterborne diseases such as cholera and jaundice are common problems because of lack of safe drinking water and unhygienic conditions.
4. Villages are adversely affected by the conditions of drought and flood. This in turn affects the crop cultivation.
5. The absence of toilet and garbage disposal facilities cause health-related problems.
6. The houses made up of mud, wood and thatch get damaged during heavy rains and floods.
7. Most of the houses do not have proper ventilation.
8. Unmetalled roads and lack of modern communication
   networks cause difficulties in providing emergency services during floods.
9. It is also difficult to provide adequate health and educational infrastructure for large population. The problem is particularly serious where houses are scattered over a large area. (Any five) 1×5=5

Question 27.
How is the population density closely related to the physical and socio-economic factors? [5]
Answer:
Population density is closely related to physical and socio-economic factors.
(i) Dense population in Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Kerala is due to flat and fertile plains, favourable climate, water availability and socio-economic factors.

(ii) Sparse population of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, North-Eastern States is due to hilly terrain, dense forests and harsh climate.

(iii) Rajasthan has water shortage and its hot and dry climate accounts for low population density.

(iv) Moderate density is seen in Odisha, Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, etc. due to possibilities of agriculture, industrial development and favourable climate to some extent.

(v) Mediterranean regions were inhabited from early periods in history due to their pleasant climate.

(vi) Favourable factors for transport network, industrialization, urbanization in Maharashtra, Goa, Delhi NCR, etc. account for high population density. The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan is thickly populated because of the presence of a number of industries. (Any Five Points) (1 x5=5)

Question 28.
What are the geographical requirements and areas of production of tea and coffee? [5]
OR
What do you know about the groundwater resources of India.
Answer:
Geographical requirements and areas of production:
Tea:

• It is grown over undulating topography of hilly areas.
• It requires well-drained soil.
• It grows in humid and sub-humid tropics and sub -tropics.

Regions:
Brahmaputra Valley of Assam, Sub Himalayan region of West Bengal (Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri and Cooch Behar districts), the lower slopes of Nilgiri and Cardamom Hills in Western Ghats.

Coffee:

• It requires tropical climate.
• It is grown on undulating highlands.

Regions:
Highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016) 5

OR
(i) The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km.

(ii) The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in the north-western region and parts of south India.

(iii) The groundwater utilisation is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. However, there are states like Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc., which utilise only a small proportion of their groundwater potentials.

(iv) States like Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Tripura and Maharashtra are utilising their groundwater resources at a moderate rate.

(v) If the present trend continues demands for water would need the supplies. And such situation, will be detrimental to development, and can cause social upheaval and disruptions. (1×5=5)

Section-D

Question 29.
On the given Political map of the world, the following Seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each features. [5]

• A major area of subsistence gathering
• Name any one area of nomadic herding
• Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing
• A port on the coast of the Red Sea
• The most important port of Pakistan
• The country with largest area in Africa
• The waterway that connects the interior of USA with the gulf of Mexico. (Any five)

Answer:

• Tundra Region of Eurasia/Northern Eurasia
• Mongolia
• Australia
• Egypt
• Karachi
• The Mississippi Waterways
• Algeria

Question 30.
On the given Political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols. [5]

• The state having the highest density of population
• The state having the lowest density of population
• The state with largest number of out migrants
• The leading state in the production of coffee
• The state with the highest proportion of urban population in India
• The headquarters of the ‘East Coast Railway Line’.
• Give the name of the international airport in Tamil Nadu. (Any five)

Answer:

• Bihar
• Arunachal Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh
• Karnataka
• Maharashtra
• Bhubaneshwar
• Chennai

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 3 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section – A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)

Question 1.
The class interval of a given observation is 15 to 20, then the class mark for this interval will be: (1)
(a) 11.5
(b) 17.5
(c) 12
(d) 14
Answer:
(b) 17.5

Explanation:
Class mark = \(\frac{Upper limit + Lower limit}{2}\)
= \(\frac{20+15}{2}\)
= \(\frac{35}{2}\)
= 17.5

Question 2.
A bag contains 5 red, 8 green and 7 white balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. The probability of getting neither a green ball nor a red ball is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{5}{20}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{20}\)
(c) \(\frac{7}{20}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{20}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{7}{20}\)

Explanation:
A ball which is neither a green ball nor a red ball is necessary a white ball.
So, required probability = \(\frac{7}{5+8+7}\) = \(\frac{7}{20}\)

Question 3.
The value of sin 30° cos 60° + sin 60° cos 30° is: (1)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 1

Explanation: sin 60° = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\), sin 30° = \(\frac{1}{2}\),
cos 60° = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and cos 30° = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Therefore,
sin30°cos60° + sin60°cos30°
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) + \(\frac{3}{4}\)
= \(\frac{4}{4}\)
= 1

Question 4.
The outer and inner diameters of a circular ring are 34 cm and 32 cm respectively. The area of the ring is: (1)
(a) 27π cm²
(b) 30π cm²
(c) 33π cm²
(d) 31π cm²
Answer:
(c) 33π cm²

Explanation:
Area of the circlar ring
A = π[17² – 16²] cm² = 33π cm²

Question 5.
If 2 sin 2θ = \(\sqrt{3}\) , then fir 1 the value of θ. (1)
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 45°
Answer:
(a) 30°

Explanation:
⇒ 2 sin 2θ = \(\sqrt{3}\)
sin 2θ = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
= sin 60°
⇒ 2θ = 60°
⇒ θ = 30°

Question 6.
The degree of the polynomial, x⁵ – x⁴ + 2 is: (1)
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer:
(b) 5

Explanation: Degree is the highest power of the variable in any polynomial.

Question 7.
If sin A = y , cos B = 1, 0 < A, B < π, then the value of cot (A + B) is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) 0
(d) \(\sqrt{3}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\sqrt{3}\)

Explanation:

Question 8.
If r = 3 is a root of quadratic equation kr² -kr- 3 = 0, then the value of k is: (1)
(a) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) 2
(d) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Explanation:
As r = 3 is a root of kr² – kr – 3 = 0,
we have:
9k – 3k – 3 = 0 ⇒ 6k – 3 = 0
or k = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9.
The degree of the polynomial (x + 1) (x² – x + x⁴ – 1) is: (1)
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(a) 5

Explanation: Given polynomial can be written as,
x⁵ + x⁴ + x³ – 2x -1
This is a polynomial of degree 5.

Question 10.
Write the exponent of 3 in the prime factorisation of 1944. (1)
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 5

Explanation: Prime factorisation of 1944
=2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3
= 2³ × 3⁵
Hence, the power of 3 is 5.

Question 11.
When placed along a wall, a ladder forms a 60° angle with the ground. If the ladder’s foot is 10 metres from the wall, the length of ladder is: (1)
(a) 4 m
(b) 8 m
(c) \(8 \sqrt{3}\) m
(d) 20 m
Answer:
(d) 20 m

Explanation:
Let AB be the wall AC be the length of the ladder.

In right angled triangle ABC,
cos 60° = \(\frac{BC}{AC}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{10}{AC}\)
AC = 10 × 2 = 20
Therefore, the length of the ladder is 20 m.

Question 12.
The value of fc for which the pair of linear equations kx – 3y = k -2, 12x + ky = k has no solution. (1)
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Explanation:
Given, pair of equations are
kx – 3y = k – 2
and 12x + ky =k
Here, a₁ = k, b₁ = – 3, c₁ = – (k – 2)
and a₂ = 12, b₂ = k, c₂ = – k
For no solution,
\(\frac{a_1}{a_2}\) = \(\frac{b_1}{b_2}\) ↑\(\frac{c_1}{c_2}\)
i.e,
\(\frac{k}{12}\) = \(\frac{-3}{k}\) ≠ latex]\frac{-(k-2)}{-k}[/latex]
Then,
k² = -36(which is not possible)
-3k ≠ k² – 2k
k² ≠ -k
k ≠ – 1
Then, k ≠ – 1

Question 13.
How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 205? (1)
(a) 49
(b) 80
(c) 45
(d) 46
Answer:
(a) 49

Explanation:
Multiples of 4 between 10 and 205 are 12,16, ………, 204
The above series is an A.P. with a = 12, d = 4 and l = 204
Let, the number of terms in this A.P. be ‘n’.
Then, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
204 = 12 + (n – 1) × 4
204 = 12 + 4n – 4
4n = = 204 – 8
4n = 196
n = 49
Hence, number of multiples of 4 between 10 and 205 are 49.

Question 14.
The zeros of the polynomial x² – 3x – m. (m + 3) is: (1)
(a) -2, (m + 1)
(b) (m + 3), 4
(c) (m + 1), 2
(d) – m, (m + 3)
Answer:
(d) -m, (m + 3)

Explanation:
Let, P(x) = x² – 3x – m (m + 3) x² – 3x – m(m + 3)
= x² – [(m + 3) – m] x – m (m + 3)
= x² – (m + 3) x + mx – m (m + 3)
= x[x – (m + 3)] + m [x – (m + 3)]
= (x + m) [x – (m + 3)]
Thus, zeroes of given polynomial are – m, (m + 3).

Question 15.
In the figure ∠ADC = 90°, BC = 38 cm, CD = 28 cm and BP = 25 cm

The radius of the circle is: (1)
(a) 20 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 16 cm
(d) 18 cm
Answer:
(b) 15 cm

Explanation:
Join OR and OS.
In quadrilateral RDSO, all the angles are right angles and adjacent sides are equal as OR = OS. So, RDSO is a square of side equal to the radius of the circle.

DS = DR = OR = OS
Now, BQ = BP gives CQ = BC – BQ
= (38 – 25) cm
= 13 cm
⇒ CR = 13 cm
Also, DR = CD – CR
= (28 – 13) cm
= 15 cm.
Thus, the radius of the circle is 15 cm.

Question 16.
In the figure, ∠D = ∠E and \(\frac{AD}{DB}\) = \(\frac{AE}{EC}\), that ABAC is a/an: (1)

(a) scalene
(b) equilateral
(c) isosceles
(d) right-angled
Answer:
(c) isosceles

Explanation:
Here, ∠E = ∠D
∴ AD = AE ……..(i)
(sides opposite to equal sides are equal)
and \(\frac{AD}{BD}\) = \(\frac{AE}{EC}\)
BD = EC

Adding (i) and (ii), we get
AD + DB = AE + EC
AB = AC
∴ ∆ABC is an isosoceles triangle.

Question 17.
If a line segment AB of length 6 cm is divided internally by a point C in the ratio 3 : 2, then the length of AC is: (1)
(a) 4 cm
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 2.6 cm
(d) 3.6 cm
Answer:
(d) 3.6 cm

Explanation:
Length of AC = \(\frac{3}{3+2}\) × 6
= 3.6 cm

Question 18.
Find the class marks of the class 45 – 60.
(a) 36.4
(b) 7.5
(c) 52.5
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 52.5

Explanation:
Class mark of 45-60 = \(\frac{45+60}{2}\)
= \(\frac{105}{2}\)
= 52.5

DIRECTION: in the question number 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Choose the correct option as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Statement A (Assertion): (cos⁴A – sin⁴ A) is equal to 2cos² A – 1.
Statement R (Reason): The value of cose decreases as 6 increases. (1)
Answer:
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:

cos⁴ A – sin⁴ A = (cos² A – sin² A) (cos² A + sin² A)
= (cos² A – sin² A) .1
= cos² A – (1 – cos² A)

Question 20.
Statement A (Assertion): If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value of median is 68.
Statement R (Reason): Median = \(\frac{1}{3}\) (mode + 2 mean) (1)
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
Median = \(\frac{1}{3}\)(mode + 2 mean)
= \(\frac{1}{3}\)(60 + 2 x 66)
= 64

Section – B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 21.
The x-coordinate of a point P is twice its y-coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q (2, -5) and R (-3,6), find the coordinates of P.
OR
Prove that the points (2, -2), (-2, 1) and (5, 2) are the vertices of a right-angled triangle. (2)
Answer:
Let the coordinates of point P be (2y, y). As P is equidistant from Q and R,
PQ = PR or PQ² = PR²
i.e. (2 – 2y)² + (-5 – y)² = (-3 – 2y)² + (6 – y)²
⇒ 4y² – 8y + 4 + 25 + 10y + y²
⇒ 9 + 4y² + 12y + 36 – 12y + y²
⇒ 2y = 16
⇒ y = 8
Thus, the coordinates of point P are (16, 8).
OR
Let the three given points be A (2, -2), B (-2, 1) and C (5, 2). Then, using distance formula, we have
AB = \(\sqrt{(-2 – 2)^2 + (1 + 2)^2}\) = \(\sqrt{16 + 9}\) = \(\sqrt{5}\)
BC = \(\sqrt{(5 + 2)^2 + (2 – 1)^2}\) = \(\sqrt{49 + 1}\)
= \(\sqrt{50}\) = \(5 \sqrt{2}\)
CA = \(\sqrt{(2 – 5)^2 + (-2 – 2)^2}\) = \(\sqrt{9 + 16}\)
= \(\sqrt{25}\) = 5
AB² + CA² = BC²
Hence, ABC is a right-triangle, right-angled at A.

Question 22.
If the HCF (210, 55) is expressible in the form 210 × 5 – 55y, then find y.
OR
Prove that the number 4n, n being a natural number, can never end with the digit 0. (2)
Answer:
Here,
210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7
55 = 5 × 11
So, HCF (210, 55) = 5
Thus, 5 = 210 × 5 – 55y
gives 55y = 209 × 5
⇒ 55y = 1045
⇒ y = 19
OR
If 4ⁿ ends with digit 0, then it must have 5, 2 as its factors.
But, (4)ⁿ = (2²)ⁿ = 2²ⁿ, i.e„ the only prime factor of 4ⁿ is 2.
Also, we know from the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic that the prime factorisation of each number is unique.
∴ 4ⁿ can never end with digit 0.

Question 23.
α, β are the zeros of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x² – (k + 6)x + 2 (2k – 1). Find the value of k, if α + β = \(\frac{1}{3}\) αβ. (2)
Answer:
Here,
α + β = \(\frac{k+6}{1}\)
and α × β = \(\frac{2(2k-1)}{1}\) = 2(2k – 1)
Since α + β = \(\frac{1}{3}\) αβ
⇒ k + 6= \(\frac{1}{3}\) [2(2k-l)]
⇒ 3k + 18 = 4k – 2
⇒ k = 20

Question 24.
Evaluate:
\(\frac{5 cos^2 60° + 4 sec^2 30° – tan^2 45°}{sin^2 30° + cos^2 30°}\) (2)
Answer:

Question 25.
A heap of rice is in the form of a cone of base diameter 24 m and height 3.5 m. How much canvas cloth is required to just cover the heap? (2)
Answer:
Base diameter of cone = 24 m
Base radius of cone, r = 12 m
Height of cone, h = 3.5 m
Now, slant height, l = \(\sqrt{r^2 + h^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{12^2 + 3.5^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{144 + 12.25}\)
= \(\sqrt{156.25}\)
= 12.5 m
Area of canvas cloth = C.S.A. of cone
= πrl
= 3.14 × 12 × 12.5
= 471
Hence, area of canvas cloth required is 471 m.

Section – C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
Find the greatest number of 6-digits exactly divisible by 15, 24 and 36.
OR
All the black face cards are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. The remaining cards are well shuffled and then a card is drawn at random. Find the probability of getting a: (A) face card (B) red card. (2)
Answer:
The required greatest 6-digit number which is a multiple of 24, 15,36 is a multiple of LCM (24,15, 36).
Now, 24 = 23 × 3 ; 15 = 3 × 5 ; 36 = 22 x 32
So, LCM (24,15, 36) = 23 × 32 × 5 = 360
So, the required number is 2777 × 360, i.e. 999720, because 2778 × 360 is a 7-digit number.
OR
In a pack of 52 cards, black face cards are six.
So, the number of remaining cards in the pack is 46.
Thus, 46 cards consists of 26 red cards + 20 black cards (from 1 to 10 each)
Hence, total number of possible outcomes = 46.
Now,
(A) P (face card) = \(\frac{6}{46}\) = \(\frac{3}{23}\)

(B) P (red card) = \(\frac{26}{46}\) = \(\frac{13}{23}\)

Question 27.
The first term of an AP is 5, the last term is 45 and the sum is 400. Find the number of terms and the common difference. (2)
Answer:
Here, a = 5 , l = 45 and S = 400.
Let the AP contains n terms. Then, nth term is the last term.
⇒ a + (n – 1)d = 45
⇒ 5 + (n – l)d = 45
⇒ (n – l)d = 40 ……..(i)
also, S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d] = 400
\(\frac{n}{2}\) [10 + 40] = 400
⇒ 50n = 800
⇒ n = 16
d = \(\frac{40}{15}\) i.e. \(\frac{8}{3}\)

Question 28.
Points A(x₁, y₁), B(x₂, y₂) and C(x₃, y₃) are the vertices of ∆ABC. Find the coordinates of the Q and R on median BE and CF respectively, such that BQ: QE = 2 :1 (2)
Answer:

The points A(x₁, y₁), B(x₂, y₂) and C(x₃, y₃) are the vertices of ∆ABC.
Median from B meets AC at E.
Coordinates of E are
\((\left(\frac{x_1+x_3}{2}, \frac{y_1+y_3}{2}\right)=\left(x_4, y_4\right))\)

Let, the coordinates of Q be (x, y)

Similarly, finding the coordinates of R dividing CF in the ratio of 2 :1, we get
R(p,q) = \((\left(\frac{x_1+x_3+x_3}{3}, \frac{y_1+y_3+y_3}{3}\right)\)
So, Q and R are the same points and their coordinates are \((\left(\frac{x_1+x_3+x_3}{3}, \frac{y_1+y_3+y_3}{3}\right)\)

Question 29.
In the given figure, DE || OQ and DF || OR, Prove that EF || OQ.

Let s denote the semi-perimeter of a triangle ABC in which BC = a, CA = b, AB = c. If a circle touches the side BC, CA, AB at D, E, F respectively, prove that BD = s – b. (2)
Answer:
In ∆OQP, DE || OQ
\(\frac{PE}{EQ}\) = \(\frac{PD}{DO}\)
In ∆OPR, DF || OR
\(\frac{PD}{DO}\) = \(\frac{PF}{FR}\)
From (i) and (ii), we get
\(\frac{PE}{EQ}\) = \(\frac{PF}{FR}\)
From ∆PQR,
EF || QR

OR

We know, lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
BD = BF, CD = CE, AE = AF.
Now, from the figure, we have
BD = a – CD
= a- CE (∵ CD = CE)
= a – (b – AE)
= a (b – AF) (∵ AE = AF)
= a – b + (c – BF)
= a – b + c – BF
= a- b + c- BD (∵ BD = BF)
Thus, 2BD = a – b + c …(i)
Now, s = \(\frac{a+b+c}{2}\) ……(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have :
s – b = \(\frac{a+b+c}{2}\) – b
= \(\frac{a-b+c}{2}\) = BD.
Hence Proved.

Question 30.
The rain water from a roof of dimensions 22 m × 20 m drains into a cylindrical vessel having the base of diameter 2 m and height 3.5 m. If the rain water collected from the roof just fill the cylindrical vessel, then find the rainfall in cm. (2)
Answer:
Let, the height of rainfall be ‘h’m.
Then, volume of roof = Volume of cylindrical vessel
l × b × h = πr²h
22 × 20 × h = \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 1 × 1 × 3.5
h = \(\frac{22×3.5}{22×7×20}\)
= \(\frac{0.5}{20}\) = \(\frac{5}{200}\) = \(\frac{1}{40}\)
= 0.025 m
= 2.5 cm

Question 31.
The median of the following frequency distribution is 24. Find the missing frequency f₁ and f₂. (2)

Marks	0-5	5-10	10-15	15-20	20-25	25-30	30-35	35-40	Total
Number of Students	4	6	f1	10	25	2	18	5	100

Answer:

Marks	f	c.f.
0-5	4	4
5-10	6	10
10-15	f1	10 + f1
15-20	10	20 + f1
20-25	25	45 + f1
25-30	f2	45 + f1 + f2
30-35	18	63 + f1+ f2
35-40	5	68 + f1 + f2
Total	100

Now, 68 + f₁ + f₂ = 100
f₁ + f₂ = 100 – 68 = 32
Here, median is 24, so median class is 20-25
Then, l = 20, b = 5, c.f. = 20 + f₁
and f = 25, \(\frac{N}{2}\) = 50, Median = 24

Now, f₂ = 32 – 10 = 22
Hence, the values of f₁ and f₂ are 10 and 22 respectively.

Section – D
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)

Question 32.
The tangent at a point C of a circle with centre O and a diameter AB when extended intersect at P. If ∠PCA = 110°., find the measure of ∠CBA.
OR
The lower window of a house is at a height of 2 m above the ground and its upper window is 4 m above the lower window. At certain instant, the angles of elevation of a balloon from these windows are observed to be 60° and 30°, respectively. Find the height of the balloon from the ground. (5)
Answer:

Given, ∠PCA = 110°
A, O, B, P all are on the same line and P and C are points on the tangent.
AB is a diameter of a circle.
∴ ∠BCA = 90°
(∵ Angle inscribed in a semi-circle)
and ∠OCP = 90°
(∵ Tangent at any point on a circle is perpendicular to the radius)
Now, ∠PCA = ∠PCO + ∠OCA
⇒ 110° = 90° + ∠OCA
⇒ ∠OCA = 20°
Now, in ∆AOC
⇒ AO = OC (Radi of circle)
⇒ ∠OCA = ∠CAO = 20°
In ∆ABC,
⇒ ∠CAB + ∠CBA + ∠BCA = 180°
⇒ 20° + ∠CBA + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠CBA = 70°
OR
In the figure, A and B represent two windows and E is the position of the balloon. If balloon is ‘h’ metres above the ground, then
in ∆ACE,

Hence, the height of the balloon above the ground is 8 metres.

Question 33.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P, Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC. If PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, then find the length of AD. (5)
Answer:

Question 34.
Ajay had some bananas and he divided them into two lots A and B. He sold lot A at the rate of f 2 for 3 bananas and lot B at the rate of ₹ 1 per banana and got a total of ₹ 400. If he had sold lot A at the rate of ₹ 1 per banana and lot B at the rate of f 4 for 5 bananas his total collection would have been ₹ 460. Find the total number of bananas he had. (5)
Answer:
Let, the number of bananas in first lot be x and that in second lot be y.
∴ Total number of bananas = x + y
In the first case, price of x bananas at the 2 per 3 bananas = \(\frac{2x}{3}\) and price of y bananas
at the rate of ₹ 1 per banana = y.
According to the given condition,
\(\frac{2x}{3}\) + y =400
⇒ 2x + 3 y = 1200 ……(i)

In second case, price of x bananas at the rate of ₹ 1 per bananas = x and price of y bananas
at the rate of ₹ 4 per 5 bananas = \(\frac{4}{5}\)y
According to given condition,
x + \(\frac{4}{5}\)y = 460
⇒ 5x + 4y = 2300 …….(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 5 are (ii) by 2, and then subtracting them.

7y = 1400
⇒ y = 200
Put y = 200, in equation (i) we get
2x + 3 × 200 = 1200
⇒ x = 300
x + y = 300 + 200 = 500
Thus, Ajay had total of 500 bananas.

Question 35.
Agam received an overall of 30 marks in math and English on a class quiz. The total of his marks in Mathematics and English would have been 210 if he had got 2 more in Mathematics and 3 less in English. Find out what he scored in the two subjects.
OR
There are 12 balls in a box, and x of them are black. What is the probability that one ball will be picked at random from the box , will be a black ball? If there are now six additional black balls in the box, the probability of drawing a black ball is now double of what it was before. Find x. (5)
Answer:
Let Agam’s marks in Mathematics = x
Let Agam’s marks in English = 30 – x
If, he had got 2 marks more in Mathematics, his marks would be = x + 2
If, he had got 3 marks less in English, his marks in English would be = 30 – x – 3
= 27 – x
According to given condition:
(x + 2) (2 7 – x) = 210
⇒ 27x – x² + 54-2x = 210
=> x² – 25x + 156 = 0
Comparing quadratic equation x² – 25x + 156 = 0 with general form ax² + bx + c = 0,
We get a = 1, b = -25 and c = 156

Therefore, Agam’s marks in Mathematics = 13 or 12
Agam’s marks in English = 30 – x
= 30-13
= 17
Or
Agam’s marks in English = 30 – x
= 30 – 12
= 18
Therefore, his marks in Mathematics and English are (13,17) or (12,18).

OR

There are 12 balls in the box.
Therefore, total number offavourable outcomes = 12
The number offavourable outcomes = x
Therefore, Pi = P (getting a black ball) = \(\frac{x}{12}\)
If 6 more balls put in the box, then
Total number offavourable outcomes = 12 + 6 = 18
And number offavourable outcomes = x + 6
P₂ = P (getting a black ball) = \(\frac{x+6}{18}\)
According to question, P₂ = 2P₁
⇒ \(\frac{x+6}{18}\) = 2 × \(\frac{x}{12}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x+6}{18}\) = \(\frac{x}{6}\)
⇒ 6(x + 6) = 18x
⇒ 18x – 6x = 36
⇒ 12x = 36
⇒ x = \(\frac{36}{12}\)
⇒ x = 3

Section – E
(Case Study Based Questions)
(Section E consists of 3 questions. ALL are compulsory.)

Question 36.
The diagram shows a grid of squares. A button is placed on one of the squares. A fair dice is thrown. If 1,2,3 or 4 is thrown, the button is moved one square to the left.
If 5 or 6 is thrown, the button is moved one square to the right.

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) The button is placed on square X. the dice is thrown once. Then find, the probability that the button is moved to the right. (1)
(B) On the other occasion, the button is placed on square Y. The dice is thrown once and the button is moved. The die is thrown a second time and the button is moved again. Find the probability that the button is moved at P and button is moved at Y.
OR
Find the probability that the button is moved at P, Q or Y. (2)
(C) Find the probability that the button is moved at Q. (1)
Answer:
(A) P(right) = \(\frac{2}{6}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

(B) getting (1, 2, 3 or 4 twice) = \(\frac{2}{6}\) × \(\frac{2}{6}\)
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × \(\frac{1}{3}\)
= \(\frac{1}{9}\)
As per the situation given, if the button is at Y and it is moved twice, then it will reach to Y again if it is first move to left then to right or vice-versa.
P(Y) = \(\frac{2}{6} \times \frac{4}{6}+\frac{4}{6} \times \frac{2}{6}=\frac{16}{36}=\frac{4}{9}\)

By adding the probabilities obtained in (B), we get
Probability (P, Q or Y) = \(\frac{1}{9}\) + 0 + \(\frac{4}{9}\)
= \(\frac{5}{9}\)

(C) As per the situation given in part (B), if the button is at Y and it is moved twice, then there is no possibility that it reach to Q.

Question 37.
Earth is excavated to make a railway tunnel. The tunnel is a cylinder of radius 5 m and length 450 m.
A Level surface is Laid inside the tunnel to carry the railway lines. The Diagram 1 shows the circular cross – section of the tunnel. The level surface is represented by AB, the centre of the circle is O and ∠AOB = 90°. The space below AB is filled with rubble (debris from the demolition buildings).

Steel girders are erected above the tracks to strengthen the tunnel. Some of these are shown in Diagram 2. The girders are erected at 6 m intervals along the length of the tunnel, with one at each end.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the volume of earth removed to make the tunnel. (1)
(B) Find the area of AAOB shown in Diagram. (1)
(C) Find the length of each girder.
OR
Find total length of steel required in the 450 m length of tunnel and how many girders are errected? (2)
Answer:
(A) Volume of tunnel= πr²h
= π × 5 × 5 × 450
= 11250π cu cm

(B) Area of ∆AOB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × AO × OB
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 5 × 5
= 12.5 sq. m

(C) As steel girders are in the shape of a circle or a sector of the circle with centra/angle 270°.
So, circumference of the circle with central angle 270°
= \(\frac{270°}{360°}\) × 2πr
= \(\frac{3}{4}\) × 2πr
= 1.5π × 5
= 7.5π cm
OR

Total length = 7.5 π × 76
= 570 π m

No. of girders = \(\frac{450}{6}\)
= 75

Total girder =75 + 1 (one at last)
= 76

Question 38.
A radio mast PQ , of height ‘h’ metres, is standing vertically on the horizontal ground. From A, the angle of elevation of the top of the mast is found to be 45° . On moving 50 m up a slope of 15°, the angle of elevation of P is found to be 75° from B, The horizontal through B is BC.

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the measure of ∠APC. (1)
(B) Find the measure of ∠BPC. (1)
(C) Find the length BP.
OR
Find the length AP and also find the approximate value of h. (2)
Answer:
(A) In ∆APQ
∠A + ∠P + ∠Q = 180°
45° + ∠P + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠P = 180° – 90° – 45°
= 180° – 135°
= 45°

(B) In ∆BPC
∠B + ∠BPC + ∠C = 180°
⇒ 75° + ∠BPC + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠BPC = 180° – 165°
= 15°

(C) In ∆APQ
tan 45° = \(\frac{PQ}{AQ}\)
PQ = AQ = h

QQ’ = AQ – AQ’
= h – 49
BC = QQ’ = h- 49
Now, in ∆PBC

tan 75° = \(\frac{PC}{BC}\)
3.73 = \(\frac{h-13}{h-49}\)
3.73 h – 182.77 = h – 13
2.73 h = 169.77
h = 62.186
sin 75° = \(\frac{PC}{PB}\)
1 = \(\frac{62.2-13}{PB}\)
PB = 49.2 = 50 m

OR

In ∆APQ
sin 45° = \(\frac{h}{AP}\)
AP = \(\frac{h}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}}\) = \(\sqrt{2} h\)
The approximate height h, as calculated in part (C) is 50 m.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 8 with Solutions

अवधिः : होरात्रयम्+56
पूर्णाड़ा: : 80

रवण्ड: – क (अपठित-अवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 15)

प्रश्नपत्रस्वरूपम्:
सैंपल पेपर 1 में दिये गये निर्देशानुसार।

1. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्त प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

सुन्दरराजः राजदेवस्य गृहे उद्योगी आसीत्। सः राजदेवे विशेषविश्वासं प्रदर्शयति स्म। राजदेवः सीमारामनामकम् अन्यं कमपि युवकम् उद्योगे नियोजितवान्। तम् उक्तवान् च-“सीताराम! सुन्दरराजः दशवर्षाणि यावत् मम गृहे उद्योगित्वेन सहायकः आसीत् तथापि सः मयि विश्वासं न स्थापितवान्। अत एव सः अत्र उद्योगं परित्यक्तवान्। उद्योगिनः स्वामिनि विश्वासं न स्थापितवान्। अतः एव सः अत्र उद्योग परित्यक्तवान्। उद्योगिनः स्वामिनि विश्वासं कुर्युः सदा” इति धारणा। एकदा सीतारामः सुन्दराजं मिलित्वा अवदत् यत् “भवान् राजदेवगृह दश वर्षाणि यावत् कार्यं कृतवान् खलु? अतः तत्र कथं व्यवहरणीयम् इति विषये मां किश्चित् सुस्पष्टं वदतु” इति। “राजदेव सज्जनः। तद्विषये मया वक्तव्यं किमपि नास्ति। भवान् तत्र किमपि क्लेशं न अनुभविष्याति” इति उक्तवान् सुन्दरराजः तच्छुत्वा सीतारामः प्रसन्नतया तत्र विश्वस्तः सन् कार्यं कर्तुं प्रारभत। उक्तञ्च “विश्वासः फलदायक: महत्सु” इति।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) सुन्दरराजः कस्य गृहे उद्योगी आसीत्?
(ii) राजदेवः अन्य कम् उद्योगे नियोजितवान् ?
(iii) सुन्दरराजः कति वर्षाणि पर्यन्तं राजदेवस्य गृहे उद्योगित्वेन सहायकः आसीत् ?
उत्तर:
(i) राजदेवस्य
(ii) सीतारामनामकं/युवकं
(iii) दश

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) सीतारामः सुन्दराजं मिलित्वा किं कथितवान् ?
(ii) राजदेवः कीदृशः व्यक्तिः आसीत् ?
(ii) कः कस्योपरि विश्वासं न स्थापितवान् ?
उत्तर:
(i) सीतारामः सुन्दराजं मिलित्वा अवदत् यत् “भवान् राजदेवगृह दश वर्षाणि यावत् कार्यं कृतवान् खलु ?”
(ii) राजदेवः सज्जनः व्यक्ति: आसीत्।
(iii) सुन्दरराजः राजदेवोपरि विश्वासं न स्थापितवान्।

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत।
(द्वित्रिशब्दात्मक-वाक्यम्) (इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।) (दो-तीन शब्द का वाक्य)
उत्तर:
विश्वासपात्रता / विश्वासः फलदायकः / सुन्दरराजः / राजदेव: चा ।…………

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) ‘आसीत्’ इत्यस्याः क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) सीतारामः
(ख) सुन्दरराजः
(ग) राजदेवः
(घ) सहायक:
उत्तर:
(ख) सुन्दरराजः

(ii) ‘राजदेवः सज्जनः’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेषणंकिम्?
(क) दुर्जनः
(ख) परिजनः
(ग) सज्जनः
(घ) उद्योगी
उत्तर:
(ग) सज्जनः

(iii) ‘कष्टम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र आगतः?
(क) क्लेशम्
(ख) करुणम्
(ग) असह्यम्
(घ) प्रसन्नतया
उत्तर:
(क) क्लेशम्

(iv) अनुच्छेदे ‘दुर्जनः’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) परिजनः
(ख) सज्जनः
(ग) विश्वासः
(घ) सीताराम:
उत्तर:
(ख) सज्जनः

रवण्ड: – रव (रचनात्मक-कार्यम्)
(अंक : 15)

2. मातरं प्रति लिखितम् अध: पत्रं मञ्जूषापदसहायतया पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत। (1/2 × 10 = 5)
(माता को लिखे गए निम्नलिखित पत्र को मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।)

(i)……..
शिमलातः,
दिनाङ्कः ……………..
परमपूज्यमातः!
सादरं प्रणामा:।
अहं कुशलः अत्र तत्रापि कामये। भवत्याः पत्रम् प्राप्य मनसि सन्तोष: (ii) ……. | मम भ्राता (iii)……स्वस्थः इति हर्षस्य विषयः। सः मम अध्ययनस्य (iv)…. च विषये चिन्तितः आसीत्। अहं पञ्चवादने (v)…. यथानिर्दिष्टं (vi… करोमि (Vii…… च पठामि। नववादने विद्यालय (viii…… | चतुर्वादने (ix)……. आगच्छामि। सप्तवादने गृहकार्य करोमि। पितृमहाभागानां प्रणामाः कथनीयाः।
भवत्याः आज्ञापालक: (x)………….. |
प्रदीपः
उत्तर:
(i) कावेरी छात्रावास:
(ii) जात:
(iii) इदानीम्
(iv) स्वास्थस्य
(v) उत्थाय
(vi) व्यायामं
(vii) तदनन्तरं
(viii) गच्छामि
(ix) विद्यालयात्
(x) पुत्र:

मञ्जूषा-पुत्रः, विद्यालयात्, व्यायाम, स्वास्थ्यस्य, जातः, कावेरीछात्रावासः, इदानीम्, तदनन्तरं, उत्थाय, गच्छामि

3. अधः प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत (1 × 5 = 5)
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

उत्तर:
(i) इदं मेलकस्य चित्रम् अस्ति।
(ii) अत्र गोलचक्रिका दृश्यते।
(iii) अत्र आनन्दम् अनुभवन्ति।
(iv) द्वे बालकौ इतस्ततः धावतः।
(v) जना: श्वेतवस्त्रम् श्यामवस्त्रं च धारयन्ति।

मञ्जूषा-द्वे, बालिके, बहवः, नीत्वा, लोकाः, इतस्ततः, मेलकम्, श्वेतवस्त्रम्, श्यामवस्त्रम्, गोलचक्रिका, उपविशन्ति, अनुभवन्ति, आनन्दम्, बहिः, दृश्यम्

अथवा
मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां सहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयं अधिकृत्य पञ्चभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।)

“देशभक्ति”
मञ्जूषा-स्वमातृभूमिः, भावनां, सैनिकाः, रक्षायैः, स्वतन्त्रतायाः, राष्ट्रम्, संस्कृतिः, रक्षाम्, कुर्वन्ति, भारतीयाः, विचाराः, वीराः, माता, भूमिः, मानवम्, आत्म बलिदानम्

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य लिखत-(केवलं पञ्चवाक्यम्) (1 × 5 = 5)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का संस्कृत भाषा में अनुवाद लिखिए) (केवल पाँच वाक्य)

(i) गोपाल गीत गाता है।
Gopal sings a song.
(ii) हम सब सिनेमा देखते हैं।
We all watch movies
(iii) रमा कल कोलकाता जायेगी।
Rama will go to Kolkata tomorrow.
(iv) कल श्याम कहाँ था?
Where was Shyam yesterday?
(v) तुम सब कलम से लिखो।
All of you write with pen.
(vi) बच्चा भालू से डरता है।
The child fears from bear.
(vii) क्या वे सब पढ़ें?
May they study?
उत्तर:
(i) गोपाल: गीतं गायति।
(ii) वयं चलचित्रं पश्यामः।
(iii) रमा श्वः कोलकातां/कोलकातानगरं गमिष्यति।
(iv) हयः श्यामः कुत्र आसीत् ?
(v) यूयं कलमेन लिखत।/लिखथ।
(vi) बालः भल्लूकात् विभेति।
(vii) किं ते पठेयु:/पठन्तु।

खण्ड:- ग (अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरणम्)
(अंक : 25)

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखातिपदेष सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत-(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों में संधि अथवा संधि-विच्छेद करके लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) विद्यालये ………. अवकाशः भविष्यति।
(ii) ……….. रविवासरः अस्ति।
(iii) पत्रवाहक: पत्राणि दातुं गच्छति।
(iv) यदि मेघ: गर्जति ……… मयूराः नृत्यन्ति ।
उत्तर:
(i) शिरश्छेदः।
(ii) भासमानम् + निजभवनम्
(iii) आ + छन्न:
(iv) सन्मार्गम् / सद्मार्गम्
(v) योजक: + तत्र

मञ्जूषा- तर्हि, श्वः, अद्य, इदानीम्

(i) शत्रो: अपि शिरः + छेदः न करणीयः।
(ii) भासमानं निजभवनम् अपश्यत्।
(iii) आकाशः मेघै: आच्छत्न: आसीत्।
(iv) हे कल्याणि! सर्वदा सत् + मार्गम् अनुसरतु ।
(v) अयोग्यः पुरुषः नास्ति योजकस्तत्र दुर्लभः।

6. निम्नलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाड्क्तितपदानां समासं विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों का समास अथवा विग्रह दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) सः स्थितप्रजः इति को न जानाति।
(क) स्थिता प्रज्ञा यस्य स:
(ख) स्थितं प्रज्ञं यस्य स:
(ग) स्थितः प्रज्ञ: यस्य स:
(घ) स्थितं प्रज्ञ:
उत्तर:
(ग) स्थितः प्रज्ञ: यस्य स:

(ii) मुनि: राजानं यथेष्टम् अभ्यनन्दत् ।
(क) इंट्टे अनतिक्रम्य
(ख) इषाय अनतिक्रम्य
(ग) इष्टम् अनतिक्रम्य
(घ) इष्टया अनतिक्रम्य
उत्तर:
(ग) इष्टम् अनतिक्रम्य

(iii) कुशलवौ रामम् प्रणमतः।
(क) कुशः च लव: च
(ख) कुशम् लव च
(ग) कुशः लवौ च
(घ) कुशौ च लवौ च
उत्तर:
(क) कुशः च लव: च

(iv) स भारस्य वेदनया क्रन्दति स्म।
(क) भरवेदना:
(ख) वेदनाभारेण
(ग) भारवेदनया
(घ) भारेण वेदनया
उत्तर:
(ग) भारवेदनया

(v) रामः मृगस्य पश्चत् गच्छति।
(क) अनुमृगम्
(ख) मृगपश्चात्
(ग) अनुमृग:
(घ) पश्चात् मृगम्
उत्तर:
(क) अनुमृगम्

7. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रकृतिप्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम् ) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांड्कित पदों के प्रकृति-प्रत्ययों को जोड़कर अथवा अलग करके उचित उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) नृत्यातिरिक्त का तव विशेषता।
(क) विशेष + तमप्
(ख) विशेष + तल्
(ग) विशेष + क्त
(घ) विशेष + वत्त्वा
उत्तर:
(ख) विशेष + तल्

(ii) सर्वेषु जननी वत्सला।
(क) वत्सल + टाप्
(ख) वस्तल + अ
(ग) वत्सला + तल्
(घ) स्थिरम् + टाप्
उत्तर:
(क) वत्सल + टाप्

(iii) स्थिर + त्व लाघवम् मृगा।
(क) स्थिरात्वम्
(ख) स्थिरता
(ग) स्थिरत्वम्
(घ) स्थिरम्
उत्तर:
(ग) स्थिरत्वम्

(iv) बुद्धि: बलवती।
(क) बलवत् + डीप्
(ख) बलवत् + टाप्
(ग) बलवत् + मतुप्
(घ) बलवत् + डीष्
उत्तर:
(घ) बलवत् + डीष्

(v) रामानन्द : एकः श्रेष्ठ धर्म + ठक् अस्ति।
(क) धर्मठिक:
(ख) धार्मिक
(ग) धार्मिक:
(घ) धर्मवान्
उत्तर:
(ग) धार्मिक:

8. वाच्यानुसारम् उचितपदैः रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा अधोलिखितं संवादं पुनः लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम् (1 × 3 = 3)
(वाच्य के अनुसार उचित पदों से रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके नीचे लिखे हुए संवाद को पुन: लिखिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) गणेशः-सुरेश। किं त्वं रामायणं ………….. ?
(क) पठ्यते
(ख) पठसि
(ग) पठति
(घ) पठामि
उत्तर:
(ख) पठसि

(ii) सुरेशः-आम् ………….. रामायणं पठ्यते ।
(क) मया
(ख) अहम्
(ग) त्वम्
(घ) गणेशः
उत्तर:
(क) मया

(iii) मया ………….. अपि स्मर्यन्ते।
(क) श्लोकान्
(ख) श्लोकम्
(ग) श्लोका:
(घ) श्लोक:
उत्तर:
(ग) श्लोका:

(iv) गणेशः-किम् कक्षायाम् आचार्य: कथाम् ……….. ?
(क) पाठयसि
(ख) पाठयति
(ग) पाठयन्ति
(घ) पाठ्यते
उत्तर:
(ख) पाठयति

9. अधोलिखितदिनचर्चायां रिक्तस्थानानि कालबोध कशब्दै: पूरयत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(कालबोधक शब्दों से निम्नलिखित दिनचर्या को पूरा कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) दिव्यांशः प्रातः 8:00 ………. वादने योगं करोति।
(ii) रमेशः सायं 4:30 ………. वादने भ्रमणाय गच्छति।
(iii) रमा प्रातः 7:15 ……….. वादने प्रातराशं करोति।
(iv) चन्द्रशेखर: सायं 6:30 ………. वादने व्यायामं करोति।
(v) कमलेशः रात्रौ 8:45 ………….. वादने पुस्तकं पठति।
उत्तर:
(i) अष्ट-वादने
(ii) सार्ध-चतुर / चतु: वादने
(iii) सपाद-सप्त
(iv) सार्धषट् / षड्
(v) पादोन नव

10. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तै: उचितै: अव्ययपदैः पूरयत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए उचित अव्यय पदों से वाक्यों में रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) विद्यालये …………….. अवकाशः भविष्यति।
(ii) …………. रविवासरः अस्ति।
(iii) पत्रवाहक: ………… पत्राणि दातुं गच्छति।
(iv) यदि मेघः गर्जति ………….. मयूराः नृत्यन्ति।
उत्तर:
(क) श्व:
(ख) अद्य
(ग) इदानीम्
(घ) तर्हि

मख्जूषा- तर्हि, श्वः, अद्य, इदानीम्

11. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कित अशुद्धपदाय उचितपदं चित्वा वाक्यानि पुनः लिखत- (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पद अशुद्ध पद के लिए उचित पद चुनकर वाक्यों को पुनः लिखिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) वृक्षात् फलाः पतन्ति।
(क) फलम्
(ख) फलानि
(ग) फलात्
(घ) फले
उत्तर:
(ख) फलानि

(ii) सुमेधा कन्दुकेन क्रीडिष्यथ।
(क) क्रीडिष्यसि
(ख) क्रीडिष्यन्ति
(ग) क्रीडिष्यथ:
(घ) क्रीडिष्यति
उत्तर:
(घ) क्रीडिष्यति

(iii) बालकाः पुस्तकम् अपठत् ।
(क) सः
(ख) वयम्
(ग) त्वम्
(घ) अहम्
उत्तर:
(क) सः

(iv) प्रकृत्या सन्निधौ वास्तविकं सुखं विद्यते।
(क) प्रकृतिः
(ख) प्रकृत्याः
(ग) प्रकृतयः
(घ) प्रकृती
उत्तर:
(ख) प्रकृत्याः

रदवण्ड: – घ (पठित-अवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 30)

12. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत।(05)
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

अग्रिमे दिने स आरक्षी चौर्याभियोगे तं न्यायालयं नीतवान्। न्यायाधीशो बंकिमचन्द्रः उभाभ्यां पृथक्-पृथक् विवरण श्रुतवान्। सर्व वृत्तमवगत्य स तं निर्दोषम् अमन्यत आरक्षिणं च दोषभाजनम्। किन्तु प्रमाणाभावात् स निर्णतु नाशक्नोत् । ततोऽसौ तौ अग्रिमे दिने उपस्थातुम् आदिष्टवान्। अन्येधु: तौ न्यायालये स्व-स्व पक्षं पुनः स्थापितवन्तौ। तदैव कश्चिद् तत्रत्यः कर्मचारी समागत्य न्यवेदयत् यत् इतः क्रोशद्वयान्तराले कश्चिज्जनः केनापि हतः। तस्य मृतशरीरं राजमार्ग निकषा वर्तते। आदिश्यतां किं करणीयमिति। न्यायाधीशः आरक्षिणम् अभियुक्तं च तं शवं न्यायालये आनेतुमादिष्टवान्।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) न्यायाधीशः कः आसीत् ?
(ii) कस्य अभावात् न्यायाधीशः निर्णेतुं नाशक्नोत्?
(iii) न्यायालये कः समागत्य न्यवेदयत् ?
उत्तर:
(i) बंकिमचन्द्र:
(ii) प्रमाणाभावात् / प्रमाणस्य
(iii) कर्मचारी

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) न्यायाधीशः कयोः शवं न्यायालये आनेतुमादिष्टवान्?
(ii) तत्रत्यः कर्मचारी समागत्य किं न्यवेदयत् ?
(iii) न्यायाधीशः किं श्रुतवान्?
उत्तर:
(i) न्यायाधीशः आरक्षिणम् अभियुक्तं च तं शवं न्यायालये आनेतुमादिष्टवान्।
(ii) तत्रत्यः कर्मचारी समागत्य न्यवेदयत् यत् इतः क्रोशद्वयान्तराले कश्चिज्जनः केनापि हतः।
(iii) न्यायाधीशः बंकिमचन्द्र: उभाभ्यां पृथक-पृथक विवरणं श्रुतवान्।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत।(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) ‘निरापराधम्’ इत्यस्य किं पर्यायपदं गद्यांशे प्रयुक्तम्?
(ii) ‘श्रुतवान्’ इति पदस्य कर्तृपदं किम्?
(iii) ‘दिने’ इति पदस्य किं विशेषणपदं गद्यांशे प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(i) निर्दोषम्
(ii) बंकिमचन्द्र:
(iii) अग्रिमे

13. अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

आचारः प्रथमो धर्मः इत्येतद् विदुषां वचः।
तस्माद् रक्षेत् सदाचारं प्राणेभ्योऽपि विशेषतः॥

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(i) प्रथम: धर्मः कः?
(ii) अस्माकं आचारः सम्यक् भवेत् इति केषां वचनम् अस्ति?
(iii) प्राणेभ्योऽपि विशेषतः कः रक्षणीयः?
उत्तर:
(i) आचार:/सदाचारः
(ii) विदुषाम्
(iii) आचार:/सदाचारः

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) जनः विशेषतः प्राणेभ्यः अपि कं रक्षेत?
(ii) विदुषां वचः किम्?
(iii) प्राणेभ्योऽपि क: रक्षणीयः?
उत्तर:
(i) जनः विशेषतः प्राणेभ्यः अपि आचारं/सदाचारं रक्षेत्।
(ii) विदुषां वच: आचार: प्रथम: धर्म:।
(iii) प्राणेभयोऽपि सदाचारः रक्षणीयः।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) ‘रक्षेत्’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किं भवेत् ?
(ii) ‘प्रथमः धर्मः’ अनयोः पदयोः किं विशेष्यपदम्?
(iii) ‘मूर्खाणां’ इत्यस्य किं विलोमपदं श्लोके प्रयुक्तः?
उत्तर:
(i) जन:
(ii) धर्म:
(iii) विदुषाम्

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

भयाकुलं व्याघ्रं दृष्ट्वा कश्चित् धूर्तः शृगालः हसन्नाह”भवान् कुत: भयात् पलायित:?”
व्याघ्रः- गच्छ, गच्छ जम्बुक! त्वमपि किञ्चिद् गूढप्रदेशम् । यतो व्याघ्रमारीति या शास्त्रे श्रूयते तयाहं हन्तुमारब्धः परं गृहीतकरजीवितो नष्टः शीघ्रं तदग्रतः।
शृगाल: व्याघ्र! त्वया महात्कौतुकम् आवेदितं यन्मानुषादपि बिभेषि?
व्याघ्रः- प्रत्यक्षमेव मया सात्मपुत्रावेककशो मामत्तुं कलहायमानौ चपेटया प्रहरन्ती दृष्टा।
जम्बुक:- स्वामिन् ! यत्रास्ते सा धूर्ता तत्र गम्यताम्। व्याघ्र ! तव पुनः तत्र गतस्य सा सम्मुखमपीक्षते यदि, तर्हि त्वया अहं हन्तव्यः इति।
व्याघ्रः- शृगाल! यदि त्वं मां मुक्त्वा यासि तदा वेलाप्यवेला स्यात्।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) कीदृशं व्याघ्रं दृष्ट्वा हसन् आह?
(ii) गच्छ, गच्छ जम्बुक! इति कः कथयति?
(iii) यत्रास्ते सा धूर्ता तत्र गम्यताम् इति कस्य उक्ति 😕
उत्तर:
(i) भयाकुलं
(ii) व्याघ्र:
(iii) जम्बुकस्य

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) धूर्तः शृगालः हसन् किम् आह?
(ii) बुद्धिमति कया पुत्रौ प्रहतवती?
(iii) ‘यदि त्वं मां मुक्त्वा यासि’ इति कः कम् कथयति?
उत्तर:
(i) धूर्तः शृगालः हसन् आह-“भवान् कुतः भयात् पलायित:?
(ii) बुद्धिमती चपेटया पत्रौ प्रहृतवती।
(iii) ‘यदि त्वं मां मुक्त्वा यासि’ इति व्याघ्रः शृगालं कथयति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) ‘कश्चित् धूर्तः शृगालः उपहसति’ इत्यत्र क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(ii) धूर्तः शृगालः’ इत्यत्र विशेषणपदं किम्?
(iii) आगच्छ जम्बुक! आगच्छ इत्यस्य किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(i) शृगाल:
(ii) धूर्तः
(iii) गच्छ

15. रेखाङ्कितपदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(क) पुरा त्वया मह्यं व्याघ्रत्रयं दत्तम्।
(ख) सिंहः वानराभ्यां स्वरक्षायाम् असमर्थ एवासीत्।
(ग) महानगरेषु वाहनानाम् अनन्ताः पङ्क्तयः धावन्ति।
(घ) धैर्यवान् लोके परिभवं न प्राप्नोति।
(ङ) शिविना विना इदं दुष्करं कार्य कः कुर्यात् ।।
उत्तर:
(क) कस्यै
(ख) कस्याम् / कुत्र
(ग) कुत्र
(घ) कुत्र/कस्मिन्
(ङ) केन

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचित पदानि चित्वा अधोलिखितश्लोकस्य अन्वयं पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत (1 × 4 = 4)
(मञ्जूषा से उचित पदों को चुनकर निम्नलिखित श्लोक के अन्वय को पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए)

पिता यच्छति पुत्राय बाल्ये विद्याधनं महत्।
पिताऽस्य किं तपस्तेपे इत्युक्तिस्तत्कृतज्ञता।।

अन्वयः-पिता पुत्राय (i)……. महत् विद्याधनं (ii)…… | अस्य (पुत्रस्य) पिता किं (iii)……. तेपे इति उक्ति: (iv)…… ।
उत्तर:
(i) बाल्ये
(ii) यच्छति
(iii) तप:
(iv) तत्कृतज्ञा
अथवा
(i) आलस्यम्
(ii) महान्
(iii) उद्यमसम:
(iv) दु:खितः

मञ्जूषा- तत्कृतज्ञता, यच्छति, बाल्ये, तपः,

अथवा
मञ्जूषायाः साहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक के भावार्थ से रिक्तस्थानों को पूरा करके पुन: लिखिए।)

आलस्यं हि मनुष्याणां शरीरस्थो महान् रिपुः।
नास्त्युद्यमसमो बन्धुः कृत्वा यं नावसीदति॥

भावार्थ:-इदं सत्यमेव यत् …….. तु मानवानां शरीरेषु स्थित: (i)…… शत्रुः अस्ति। यतः शरीरे आलस्यकारणात् मानवस्य विकासगतिः स्थिरा भवति। मानवानां कृते जगति (i). कोऽपि बन्धः नास्ति। मानव: उद्यमं कृत्वा एव निरन्तरं विकासं करोति, अनेन कदापि (iv)…….न भवति।

मञ्जूषा-दुःखितः, उद्यमसमः, आलस्यम्, महान्

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचित-क्रमेण लिखत (1/2 × 8 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित कथांश को समुचित क्रम में लिखिए।)

(i) यतो हि अयम् अन्येभ्य: दुर्बलः।
(ii) ‘बहूनि अपत्यानि मे सन्ति’ इति सत्यम्।
(iii) तथापि मम अस्मिन् पुत्रे विशिष्टः स्नेहः।
(iv) अचिरादेव चण्डावातेन मेघरवैः च सह प्रवर्षः समजायत।
(v) सुरभिवचनं श्रुत्वा इन्द्रस्य हृदयम् अद्रवत्।
(vi) स तामेव असान्त्वयत् ‘गच्छ वत्से! सर्व भद्रं जायेत।
(vii) तथापि दुर्बले सुते मातुः अधिका कृपा भवति।
(viii) सर्वेषु सन्तानेषु जननी तुल्यवत्सला एव।
उत्तर:
कथा-क्रमानुसार लेखनम्
(ii) ‘बहूनि अपत्यानि मे सन्ति’ इति सत्यम्।
(iii) तथापि मम अस्मिन् पुत्रे विशिष्टः स्नेहः।
(i) यतो हि अयम् अन्येभ्यः दुर्बलः।।
(vi) सर्वेषु सन्तानेषु जननी तुल्यवत्सला एव।
(vii) तथापि दुर्बले सुते मातुः अधिका कृपा भवति।
(v) सुरभिवचनं श्रुत्वा इन्द्रस्य हृदयम् अद्रवत्।
(vi) स तामेव असान्त्वयत् ‘गच्छ वत्से! सर्वं भद्रं जायेत
(iv) अचिरादेव चण्डावातेन मेघरवैः च सह प्रवर्षः समजायत।

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रसङ्गानु कूलम् उचितार्थं चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के प्रसंगानुकूल उचित अर्थ चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) त्वया दुष्टः हन्तव्यः इति ।
(क) मारणीयः
(ख) पालनीयः
(ग) ध्येयः
(घ) हननीयः
उत्तर:
(क) मारणीयः

(ii) आवयोः वशंस्य कर्ता सहनदीधितिः एव ।
(क) चन्द्रः
(ख) शिवः
(ग) भानुः
(घ) वाल्मीकि:
उत्तर:
(ग) भानुः

(iii) अनृतं वदसि चेत् काक: दशेत्।।
(क) सत्यम्
(ख) मिथ्या
(ग) मन्दम्
(घ) काकुः
उत्तर:
(ख) मिथ्या

(iv) दुर्बल: बलीवर्द: जवेन गन्तुम् अशक्तः।
(क) द्रुतगत्या
(ख) काठिन्येन
(ग) ताडनेन
(घ) सरलतया
उत्तर:
(क) द्रुतगत्या

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 11 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

• This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
• Alt questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
• Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
• Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
• Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
• Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION – A (20 Marks)
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20)

Question 1.
The graph below shows the variation of average pressure exerted bg blood as blood flows in the body. (1)

A student analyzed the above graph and noted the following observations:
(I) The force exerted by blood on walls of arteries is greater than in veins.
(II) The force exerted by blood on walls of veins is greater than in arteries.
(III) Systolic pressure is the pressure of blood in the artery during contraction of ventricles.
(IV) Diastolic pressure is the pressure of blood in the veins during relaxation of ventricles
Select the correct observation(s):
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: The force exerted by blood on walls of arteries is greater than in veins. The pressure of blood in the artery during ventricular systole (contraction) is called systolic pressure and pressure in artery during ventricular diastole (relaxation) is called diastolic pressure. So, the correct observations are statements (I) and (IN).

Question 2.
Student performed the following activity: He took 3 ml of sodium sulphate solution in a conical flask (or test tube) and added 3 ml barium chloride solution. (1)

He noted down the following observations: Identify X, Y and Z ?

	Observation	Chemical equation of reaction taking place
(a)	No visible change observed as both the products formed are soluble in water	Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(aq) + 2NaCl(aq)
(b)	A white precipitate of sodium chloride is formed as barium sulphate is soluble in water	Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(aq) + 2NaCl(s)
(c)	A white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed as sodium chloride is soluble in water	Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
(d)	White precipitates of barium sulphate and sodium chloride formed as both are insoluble in water	Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(s)

Answer:
(b) Observation: A white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed as sodium chloride is soluble in water; Chemical equation of reaction taking place:
Na₂SO_4(aq) + BaCl_2(aq) → BaSO_4(s) + 2NaCl_(aq)

Explanation : The reaction between barium chloride and sodium sulphate is a double displacement reaction in which exchange of ions takes place between the reactants. It is also a precipitation reaction in which a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed, whereas sodium chloride formed is soluble in water.

Question 3.
Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water, but multiply in sugar solution. Identify the reason for this.(1)
(a) Sugar solution provides nutrition
(b) Water provides nutrition
(c) Sugar solution provides moisture
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Sugar solution provides nutrition

Explanation: Energy is required for the growth and other activities of any organism. Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water, but multiply in sugar solution as they get nutrition and hence energy from the sugar solution whereas there is no such food source to provide energy in water.

Question 4.
Human urine smell of ammonia if allowed to stand for sometime because: (1)
(a) it gets decomposed into ammonia by bacteria
(b) ammonia is absorbed
(c) it gets decomposed into area by the action of bacteria
(d) it reacts with ammonia
Answer:
(a) it gets decomposed into ammonia by bacteria

Explanation: Urea is present in human urine which gets decomposed into ammonia by the action of bacteria. So it smells strongly of ammonia if allowed to stand for sometime.

Question 5.
A stduent studied the following graph:

After studying the above graph, a student noted down the following observations:
(I) The serum uric acid level is same for both men and women for risk below 10.
(II) Serum uric acid level should be under 8.0 mg/dl for both men and women for relative risk below 10.
(III) The normal serum uric acid level is more for women and less for men for the same relative risk.
(IV)The normal serum uric acid level is more for men and less for women for the same relative risk.
Select the correct statement(s):
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III) (1)
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: As observed from the graph, the normal level of serum uric acid is higher in women as compared to men for the same relative risk.

Question 6.
Identify the organism exhibits the property of regeneration.
(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Tapeworms
(c) Flukes
(d) Planaria (1)
Answer:
(d) Planaria

Explanation: Regeneration is the ability of many fully differentiated organisms to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts, if the individual is somehow cut or broken up into many pieces.
Planaria is an example of organism that has the ability to regenerate.

Related Theory
Regeneration is carried out by specialized cells. From this mass of cells, different cells undergo changes in an organised sequence referred to as development to become various cell types and tissues. Planarian flatworms are highly adapted with regeneration capabilities because of their asexual reproduction method. Star fishes also have the same ability to regenerate their arm, but unlike tailed amphibians and lizards, lost arms of star fishes could regenerate a complete new organism.

Question 7.
Prism ABC is positioned in various directions with BC serving as its base. As depicted in the figure, a small white light beam is incident on the prism. Which of the following situations, after dispersion, has the third colour from the top match the sky’s colour? (1)

Answer:

Explanation: The base BC of the prism is at the top in the figure (b), violet would be at the top after dispersion, and third colour would be blue. This contrasts with figure (a), in which the base BC of the prism is at the bottom and violet is at the bottom.

Question 8.
Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. (1)

Refractive index of medium B relative to medium A is:
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Explanation : Here, angle of incidence (i) = 60° and angle of refraction (r) = 45°. According to Snell’s law, the refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A
n_BA = \(\frac { sini }{ sinr }\) = \(\frac { sin60° }{ sin45° }\)
= \(\frac{\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}}\) = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 9.
A student arranged the following apparatus for finding the focal length and hence power of a convex lens. (1)

Object distance, u/cm	image dis­tance, v/cm	\(\frac { 1 }{ u }\)/cm-1	\(\frac { 1 }{ v }\)/cm-1	\(\frac { 1 }{ u }\)+\(\frac { 1 }{ v }\)/cm-1
40.0	24.0	0.025	0.042	0.067
35.0	26.3	0.029	0.038	0.067
30.0	30.0	0.033	0.033	0.066
25.0	37.5	0.040	0.027	0.067
20.0	60.0	0.050	0.017	0.067
18.0	90.0	0.056	0.011	0.067

He plotted a graph between 1/u and 1/v:

The approximate value of power of the lens is:
(a) + 15 D
(b) – 15 D
(c) + 6.7 D
(d) – 6.7 D
Answer:
(c) + 6.7 D

Explanation: The value of \(\frac { 1 }{ u }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ v }\) comes out to 0.067 cm-1. According to the lens formula,
\(\frac { 1 }{ f }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ u }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ v }\) = 0.067
As power is the reciprocal of focal length (in m), P = +6.7 D

Question 10.
The graph between power dissipated and current flowing is drawn below:

From the graph, the resistance is calculated and equal to
(a) 10 Ohm
(b) 5 Ohm
(c) 2 Ohm
(d) 1 Ohm (1)
Answer:
(c) 2 Ohm

Explanation: Power P = VI = I₂R, where I is the current flowing through a resistor having resistance R.
From the graph, corresponding to
I = 5 A,
P = 50 W.
P = I₂R
R = \(\frac{P}{1^2}\)
R = \(\frac{50}{5^2}\) Ω
R = \(\frac{50}{25}\) Ω
R = 2Ω

Question 11.
The normal diastolic blood pressure in a normal healthy adult human is:
(a) 80 mm Hg
(b) 60 mm Hg
(c) 90 mm Hg
(d) 120 mm Hg (1)
Answer:
(a) 80 mm Hg

Explanation: The normal diastolic blood pressure in a normal healthy adult human is 80 mm Hg whereas the normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm Hg.

Question 12.
Observe the reaction shown:

Will Y dissolve in an organic solvent or not?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Insufficient information
(d) Soluble sometimes (1)
Answer:
(b) No

Explanation: When a metal combines with a non-metal, the compound formed will be an ionic compound. Ionic compounds are soluble in water but insoluble in organic compounds such as alcohol. Therefore, the compound Y will not dissolve in alcohol.

Related Theory
The general properties of ionic compounds are summarized below:

S.No.	Property name	Property shown by ionic compounds
(1)	Physical nature	Ionic compounds are generally  crystalline solids and hard due to the strong force of attraction between the positive and negative ions. They are generally brittle
(2)	Melting and boiling points	They have high melting and boiling points as a large amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic attraction
(3)	Solubility	These are generally soluble in water but insoluble in organic solvents like           ether, kerosene, petrol etc.
(4)	Conduction of electricity	These conduct electricity in the molten state as the electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions are overcome due to the heat. Moreover, they also conduct electricity when dissolved in water as its solution in water contains ions. However, these do not conduct electricity in the solid state due to their rigid structure.

Question 13.
The oxide formed in the reaction shown below dissolves in dilute hydrochloric acid.

The oxide formed also turns a solution of red litmus blue. What is the element ‘X’?
(a) Metal
(b) Non-metal
(c) Metalloid
(d) None of these (1)
Answer:
(a) Metal

Explanation: As the oxide of the given element dissolves in dilute hydrochloric acid and also turns a solution of red litmus blue, it is basic in nature. It is a metal oxide as oxides of metals are basic in nature.

Question 14.
The thickness of blood capillaries is:
(a) 1 cell thick
(b) 10 cells thick
(c) 100 cells thick
(d) 100,000 cells thick (1)
Answer:
(a) 1 cell thick

Explanation: The blood capillaries are about one cell thick so that exchange of materials between the blood and surrounding cells takes place across this thin wall.

Question 15.
Select the incorrect statement (s):
(I) Arteries carry blood away from the heart to different body organs
(II) Arteries have thin, elastic walls.
(III) Veins collect blood from different body organs and bring it back to heart.
(IV) Veins have thick walls.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III) (1)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Arteries carry blood from the heart to different organs and hence have thick elastic walls. Veins carry blood from different organs to the heart and are thin walled blood vessels.

Question 16.
Which of the following is not an example of abiotic factors of an ecosystem?
(a) Temperature
(b) Rainfall
(c) Wind
(d) Bacteria (1)
Answer:
(d) Bacteria

Explanation: The examples of abiotic factors of an ecosystem are temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals.

Related Theory
An ecosystem is a self-contained unit of living things and their non-living environment. All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents of the environment form an ecosystem. It therefore consists of biotic components and abiotic components.

There are two types of ecosystem:
(1) Terrestrial ecosystem: These are land based ecosystems such as forest, grassland, desert, mountains etc.

(2) Aquatic ecosystem: These are water based ecosystems such as ponds, lakes, river, sea, aquarium etc.
Ecosystems can also be classified as natural ecosystem and artificial ecosystem. Examples of natural ecosystem are forests, ponds etc whereas examples of artificial ecosystem are gardens, aquarium and crop-fields.

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Carbon forms strong bonds with other elements making these compounds exceptionally stable.
Reason (R): The formation of strong bonds by carbon is due to its small size. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Explanation: The atomic number of carbon is 6 and its electronic configuration is 2, 4. It forms covalent compound by sharing 4 valence electrons. Because of small size of carbon, nucleus holds the shared pairs of electrons strongly.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Electrical impulses are used by neurons to transmit messages across the junction.
Reason (R): Synapse refers to the intersection or space between two points. Neurotransmitters are released as chemicals when an electrical signal reaches its terminal. (1)
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true

Explanation: Through chemical signals, neurons transmit information across the junction. Electrical impulses are used to transport messages within neurons.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): Positive phototropism is defined as a movement toward light.
Reason (R): The auxin diffuses toward the sunny side of the shoot when sunlight hits a particular side of the plant. Cells are stimulated to grow longer by auxin concentration, and a stem that is bent toward the sun is produced. (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false

Explanation: Auxin diffuses toward the shaded side of a shoot when a plant receives sunlight on one side only.

Question 20.
Assertion (A): The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Reason (R): Green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 10% of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves. (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional as the energy that is captured by the autotrophs does not go back to the solar input and the energy which passes to the herbivores does not come back to the autotrophs. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.

SECTION – B (12 Marks)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 21.
Every day, Ayush enjoys cold beverages, chocolates, and sweets. He has toothache. After each meal and after indulging in sweets, his science teacher instructed him to brush his teeth.

(A) How are teeth harmed by eating sweets and chocolate?
(B) Brushing your teeth helps to protect against tooth decay. Justify. (2)
Answer:
(A) When eating sweets or chocolate, the pH of the mouth falls below 5.5, which causes tooth enamel to corrode and tooth decay to begin.

(B) By using toothpaste, which is naturally basic, you can stop tooth decay by neutralising the extra acid your mouth produces.

Question 22.
Rahul took the following elements:
C₂H₆,C₂H₂,C₃H₈,C₄H₈.
Which two compounds could belong to the same homologous series? Give reason for your answer. (2)
Answer:
Out of C₂H₆, C₂H₂, C₃H₈, C₄H₈, the compounds C₂H₆ and C₃H₈ belong to the same homologous series as the difference between their molecular formula is – CH₂. Whereas, the difference in the molecular formulae of C₂H₂ and C₄H₈ is neither – CH₂ nor a multiple of – CH₂.

Related Theory
Characteristics of Homologous series:
(1) All the members of a homologous series can be represented by the same general formula.
(2) Any two adjacent homologues differ by 1 carbon atom and 2 hydrogen atoms in their molecular formula.
(3) The difference in the molecular masses of any two adjacent homologues is 14 u.
(4) All the compounds belonging to the same homologous series have similar chemical properties since these are determined solely by the functional group.
(5) The members of a homologous series show a gradual change in their physical properties with increase in molecular mass. This is because the melting and boiling points increase with increasing molecular mass.

Question 23.
(A) Define dispersion of light. How does a prism disperse white light?
(B) Which colour bends the most and the least? (2)
Answer:
(A) Dispersion of light is defined as the splitting of light into its component colours when light passes through a glass prism. A prism disperses white light as light rays of different colours travel with different speeds in a prism as refractive index of glass is different for different colours.

(B) Violet colour bends the most and red colour bends the least as the refractive index of glass is largest for violet colour and least for red colour due to which violet colour is dispersed the maximum and red colour the least.

Question 24.
Define parasitic nutrition. Name two organisms having parasitic mode of nutrition. (2)
Answer:
Parasitic mode of nutrition is defined as the mode of nutrition in which an organism derives its food from the body of another living organism without killing it. Organisms having parasitic mode of nutrition are Plasmodium and roundworms.

Question 25.
How does trait get expressed?
OR
Why do all the gametes formed in human females have an X chromosome? (2)
Answer:
A trait in an organism is the character which is transmitted from parents to offsprings i.e, from one generation to the next generation. Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cell. A section of DNA called gene provides information for one protein. A particular trait depends on the specific protein synthesized as it decides the efficiency of the process for synthesis of particular hormone.
OR
Women have a perfect pair ofsex chromosomes, both called X. Women are XX, while men are XY. All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl. During meiosis, one X chromosome enters each gamete. Hence, all the gametes formed in human females have an X chromosome.

Question 26.
The chromosome number of zygote, embryonal cells and adult of a particular organism is always constant. How is the constancy maintained in these three stages?
OR
justify why the male reproductive system is called “urinogenital system”. (2)
Answer:
Sexual reproduction includes gamete formation through meiosis and fertilization. Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half in male and female gametes. This reduced chromosome number is then restored to normal during fertilization of male and female gametes. This is how constant chromosome number is maintained in sexually reproducing

organisms. Growth and development of zygote into embryonic cell and then into adult one takes place by mitosis (equatorial cell division) which produce the daughter cells carrying same chromosome number as that of parent cell.

OR

The male reproductive system is called “urogenital system” as the urethra forms a common passage for both the sperms and urine. The sperms formed are delivered through the vas deferents which unites with a tube coming from the urinary bladder which stores the urine formed in each kidney.

SECTION – C (21 MARKS)
(Q. no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.)

Question 27.
The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V across the resistor are given below:

1 (Amperes)	0.5	1.0	2.0	3.0	4.0
V (Volts)	1.6	3.4	6.7	10.2	13.2

Plot a graph between V and i and also calculate the resistance of that resistor. (3)
Answer:
The values of the current for different values of the voltage are shown in the given table.

I (Amperes)	0.5	10	20	3.0	4.0
V (volts)	1.6	3.4	6.7	10.2	13.2

The graph between voltage (plotted on X-axis) and current (plotted on Y-axis) is shown below:

Slope of the graph = Resistance
R = \(\frac { V }{ I }\)
= \(\frac { 10.2-6.7 }{ 3-2 }\)
= \(\frac { 3.5 }{ 1 }\)
= 3.5 Ohm

Question 28.
My mom baked a cake but the cake did not rise as she had forgotten to add an important ingredient.
(A) Which ingredient has she forgotten to add that would have made the cake soft and fluffy? Give reason and chemical equation, if any.
(B) Write two other uses of this compound.
OR
Dry pellets of a base ‘X’ when kept in open absorbs moisture and turns sticky. The compound is also formed by chlor- alkali process. Write the chemical name and formula of X. Describe chlor-alkali process with balanced chemical equation. Name the type of reaction that occurs when X is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid. Write the chemical equation. (3)
Answer:
(A) She has forgotten to add baking powder while making the dough for the cake. Sodium hydrogencarbonate present in baking powder releases carbon dioxide on baking. The bubbles of the gas evolved leave behind pores which make the cake soft and fluffy.

(B) Uses of baking powder:
(1) It is used as an ingredient in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralises excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.
(2) It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguisher.
OR
The common base which absorbs moisture and becomes sticky and is also a by-product of chloralkali process is sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. The process is called the chlor- alkali process because of the products formed: chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.

Following is the chemical equation for the process:
2NaCl_(aq) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2NaOH_(aq) + Cl_2(g) +
H_2(g)
When NaOH is treated with HCl, NaCl is formed.
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
It is a type of neutralization reaction.

Question 29.
Mohan had been complaining of frequent weight loss, leg pain, and frequent urination. He went to the doctor right away. The physician determined that Mohan had high blood sugar levels. To keep his blood sugar levels within the normal range, he should watch what he eats and exercise frequently.

(A) Identify the illness he has and the hormone whose shortage is to blame for it.
(B) Name the gland that secretes it and describe this hormone’s purpose.
(C) Describe how the human body controls the amount and timing of this hormone’s secretion. (3)
Answer:
(A) Disease-Diabetes, Hormone: Insulin (deficiency of insulin hormone causes diabetes)
(B) Gland-Pancreas: The blood glucose level is regulated by insulin hormone secreted by the pancreas.
(C) When the blood’s level of blood glucose rises, pancreatic cells secrete the hormone insulin. Blood glucose levels are regulated by insulin, and when levels drop, less insulin is secreted.

Question 30.
In the formation of the compound A₂B, atoms of A lose one electron each while atom of B gained two electrons. Show the formation of the compound A₂B and write the nature of bond present. Predict any two properties of A₂B. (3)
Answer:
Atoms of ‘A’ lose one electron each, so ‘A’ is a metal having valency 1 and forms a positively charged ion A⁺. ‘B’ gains two electrons, so ‘B’ is a non-metal having valency 2 and forms negatively charged ion B^2-.
As the bond between a metal and non-metal is always ionic, so nature of bond is ionic or electrovalent.

Two properties of the ionic compound A₂B are:
(1) It is soluble in water but insoluble in organic solvent such as alcohol.
(2) It does not conduct electricity in solid state but conducts electricity in solution or in molten state.

Question 31.
A person A has only B chromosomes in all its gametes. On the other hand, another person C has chromosome D in half of gametes and chromosome E in another half of gametes. When chromosomes B and D combine during fertilization, a female zygote results. On the other hand, combination of B and E chromosomes produces a male zygote. What are chromosomes B, D and E? Give reason for your answer. (3)
Answer:
(A) As a woman has only X chromosomes in all her gametes and it is given that person A has only B chromosomes in all its gametes, B is ‘X’ chromosome. I t is also given that another person C has chromosome D in half of gametes and chromosome E in another half of gametes. As we know that males have X chromosomes in half gametes and Y chromosomes in another half, person C is a male. When chromosome B and D combine during fertilization, a female zygote results. It means that both B and D are X chromosomes.

When B and E chromosomes combine, a male zygote results which means that while B is X chromosome, E is Y chromosome. Therefore, B is X chromosome, D is X chromosome and E is Y chromosome. Out of A and C, A is a female as it has only X chromosomes in all gametes and C is a male as it has X chromosomes in half of the gametes and Y in the other half.

Question 32.
Answer the following:
(A) Why does a ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror retraces its path?
(B) Draw the given diagram in your answer book and complete it for the path of a ray of light after passing through the lens. (3)

Answer:
(A) A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror retraces its path because when the ray of light passes through centre of curvature of a concave mirror it strikes the mirror at 90° i.e., the incident ray coincides with the normal. Therefore angle of incidence = 0°. We know that according to Laws of reflection angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection; therefore angle of reflection will also be

(B) A ray of light from the object, parallel to the principal axis, after refraction from a convex lens, passes through the principal focus on the other side of the lens, as shown in the figure given below.
A ray of light parallel 0°. Thus ray of light retraces its path.

Question 33.
What do you understand by biological magnification? Which trophic level organisms would have highest concentration of chemicals? Give reasons for your answer. (3)
Answer:
The increase in concentration of harmful chemical substances like pesticides in the body of living organisms at each trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification. The topmost level organisms of trophic level would have highest concentration of chemicals.

The organisms at each higher trophic level will have more concentration of chemicals as the toxic substances move up the food chain and become more concentrated at each trophic level. These chemicals are absorbed from the soil by the plants and from the water bodies by the aquatic plants and animals. As these are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level.

SECTION – D (15 Marks)
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.)

Question 34.
State what happens when:
(A) Gypsum is heated at 373 K
(B) Blue crystals of copper sulphate are heated
(C) Excess of carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water
(D) Zinc granules are heated with sodium hydroxide solution
(E) Dilute HCl is added to sodium hydrogen carbonate.(5)
Answer:
(A) On heating gypsum at 373 K, it loses water molecules and becomes calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO₂. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H₂O).

(B) When we heat the blue crystals of copper sulphate, the molecules of water of crystallization is removed and the salt turns white.
CuSO₄. 5H₂O → CuSO₄ + 5H₂O

(C) When we pass excess carbon dioxide through lime water, then the white precipitate formed first (calcium carbonate) dissolves due to the formation of a soluble salt calcium hydrogencarbonate and the solution becomes clear again.
CaCO_3(s) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l) → Ca(HCO₃)_2(aq)

(D) When zinc granules are heated with sodium hydroxide solution, a salt sodium zincate is formed along with the evolution of hydrogen gas.
2NaOH_(aq) + Zn_(s) → Na₂ZnO_2(aq) + H_2(g)

(E) Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonates to form sodium chloride, water and carbon dioxide gas.
NaHCO_3(s) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l) + CO_2(g)

Question 35.
Sita studied in her class about vegetative propagation in Science class. But she had some doubts which she wanted to clear. What is vegetative propagation? List with brief explanation three advantages of practicing this process for growing some types of plants. Select two plants from the following which are grown by this process: Banana, Wheat, Mustard, Jasmine, Gram.
OR
Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts located? Explain the structure of its female reproductive parts with the help of a labelled diagram. (5)
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is a method of reproduction in some higher plants in which a new plant develops from the vegetative parts of a plant such as root (as in Dahlia, sweet potato), stem (as in ginger, potato, onion) or Leaf (as in Bryophyllum).

Three advantages of practicing this process for growing some types of plants:
(1) Plants raised by this method can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
(2) It is cheaper, easier and more rapid method of propagation in pLants as compared to growing pLants from their seeds.
(3) The traits or characters of the parent plant are preserved. That is, all plants produced are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to have all its characteristics.
(4) Better quality of the plants can be maintained. Two plants out of the given plants that can be grown by this process are banana and jasmine as mustard, wheat and gram can be grown from seeds.

OR

The reproductive parts of angiosperms are stamens and carpeLs and are Located in the flower. Stamen is the maLe reproductive part and produces pollen grains. Carpel is the female reproductive part and contains the ovary, styLe and stigma. Carpel is the femaLe reproductive part of a flower and consists of a swollen ovary at the base, an elongated middle style and a terminal stigma. The ovary contains ovules and each ovule has an egg.

Question 36.
A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board. He places a bar magnet in its centre. He sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet. Then he taps the board gently and observes that the iron filings arrange themselves in a particular pattern.
(A) Why do the iron filings arrange in a pattern?
(B) What do the lines along which the iron filings align represent?
(C) What does the crowding of iron filings at the end of the magnet indicate?
(D) List the properties of magnetic field lines.
OR
AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in figure.

(A) What are the directions of magnetic fields produced by it at points P and Q?
(B) State the rule to find direction of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor.
(C) Draw a diagram showing the pattern of magnetic field.
(D) Given r₁ > r₂, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? Give reasons for your answer. (5)
Answer:
(A) Iron filings arrange in a pattern because a magnetic field exists around a magnet and force is exerted by the magnet within its magnetic field.

(B) The lines represent magnetic field lines.

(C) The crowding of iron filings at the end of the magnet indicates that the strength of magnetic field is maximum near the poles of the magnet.

(D) Properties of magnetic field lines:
(1) Magnetic field lines are closed continuous curves.
(2) The tangent at any point on the magnetic field lines gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
(3) No two magnetic field lines can intersect each other.
(4) They are crowded in a region of strong magnetic field and are far from each other in a region of weak magnetic field.

OR

(A) By applying Right-hand thumb rule, the direction of magnetic field at P will be into the plane of the paper. At point Q, the direction of magnetic field will be out of the plane of the paper.

(B) The rule to find direction of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is right hand thumb rule which states that “Imagine that you are holding a current carrying wire in your right hand such that the thumb is stretched along the direction of the current, then, the direction in which the fingers wrap around the conductor wiLL give the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field.”

(C) Diagram showing the pattern of magnetic field:

(D) The magnitude of magnetic field B is inversely proportional to distance r. Now r₁ > r₂, or point Q is closer than point P, so the magnetic field is stronger at point Q and weaker at point P.

SECTION – E (12 Marks)
(Q.no. 37 to 39 are case – based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub – parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)

Question 37.
During a chemical reaction both the form and composition of matter are changed. Old substances are converted to new substances, which have unique physical and chemical properties of their own. Chemical reactions can be double displacement reactions which have the general form:
AB + CD → AD + CB
Here AB and CD are usually aqueous ionic compounds (or acids) consisting of aqueous ions (A⁺ and B^–, C⁺ and D^–). When a double displacement reaction occurs, the cations and anions switch partners, resulting in the formation of two new ionic compounds AD and CB, one of which is in the solid state. This solid product is an insoluble ionic compound called a precipitate. (4)

(A) When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. What type of reaction is this? Explain.

(B) What happens when reaction occurs between potassium iodide and lead (II) nitrate?

OR

(B) Two metals X and Y form the salts XSO₄ and Y₂SO₄ respectively. The solution of salt XSO₄ is blue in colour whereas that of Y₂SO₄ is colourless. When barium chloride solution is added to XSO₄ solution, then a white precipitate Z is formed along with a salt which turns the solution green. And when barium chloride solution is added to Y₂SO₄ solution, then the same white precipitate Z is formed along with colourless common salt solution. Identify X, Y and Z. (4)
Answer:
The reaction between copper sulphate and hydrogen sulphide gas is a double displacement reaction as the positive and negative ions exchange their places.
CuSO_4(aq) + H₂S_(g) → CuS_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq)
As a black precipitate of copper sulphide is formed, the physical state of CuS is shown as(s).

Related Theory
Any reaction that produces a precipitate (insoluble solid) that separates from the solution can be called a precipitation reaction.

For example, when potassium iodide is added to lead nitrate solution, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed along with potassium nitrate solution.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s) + 2KNO_3(aq)

(B) When potassium iodide is added to Lead nitrate solution, a yellow precipitate of Lead iodide is formed aLongwith potassium nitrate soLution.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s) + 2KNO_3(aq)
This is a double displacement reaction in which an exchange of ions is taking place between the reactants. It is aLso a precipitation reaction as a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. Potassium nitrate remains in the solution.

OR

(B) It is given that the salt solution XSO₄ is blue in colour and as we know solution of copper sulphate is blue in colour, therefore X is copper. On adding barium chloride solution to CuSO₄ solution, a white precipitate of Barium sulphate is formed, which is also formed when barium chloride solution is added to a solution of sodium sulphate. Therefore, Y is sodium and Z is barium.

Question 38.
Total internal reflection is defined as the phenomenon which occurs when the light rays travel from a more optically denser medium to a less optically denser medium. Consider a ray of light passing from a medium of water to that of air. Light ray will be refracted at the junction separating the two media.

Since it passes from a medium of a higher refractive index to that having a lower refractive index, the refracted light ray bends away from the normal. At a specific angle of incidence, the incident ray of light is refracted in such a way that it passes along the surface of the water. This particular angle of incidence is called the critical angle as shown in the figure below

When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the incident ray is reflected back to the medium. We call this phenomenon total internal reflection. An application of this phenomenon is found in optical fibres.

An optical fibre consists of:
(1) Core – Thin glass center of the fiber where the light travels.
(2) Cladding – Outer optical material surrounding the core that reflects the light back into the core
(3) Buffer coating – Plastic coating that protects the fiber from damage and moisture

The core has higher refractive index than the cladding. When the incident ray falls on the cladding, it suffers total internal reflection as the angle formed by the ray is greater than the critical angle.

(A) How will the speed of light change when light is incident on cladding of an optical fibre?
(B) The speed of light in a certain material is 50% of its speed in a vacuum. What is the refractive index of this material?
(C) Whenever light travels from one medium to another, what is the angle of refraction?
OR
(C) What are the two conditions for total internal reflection of light? (4)
Answer:
(A) The refractive index of cladding is less than that of the core. As refractive index of a medium varies inversely as the speed of light in that medium, the speed of light will be less in core than in cladding.

(B) The refractive index of a medium

= \(\frac{c}{\frac{c}{2}}\) = 2
as speed of Light in the medium is 50% of the speed of Light in vacuum.

(C) When Light travels from one medium to another, both having the same refractive index, angle of refraction will be equal to the angle of incidence. Also, when Light is incident along the normal to the refracting surface, angle of refraction will be equal to the angle of incidence, both being equal to zero.

OR

(C) The two conditions for total Internal reflection of Light are that Light must travel from a denser medium to a rarer medium and the angle of incidence in the denser medium must exceed the critical angle for the given pair of media. The critical angle for a given pair of media is the angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of refraction in the rarer medium = 90°.

Question 39.
We alt are aware of the heating effects of electric current. The heat is produced in a conductor due to the collision of electrons in the conductor. Have you ever wondered about the amount of heat generated during the flow of current through a wire and the parameters and conditions it is based upon?

It was the English physicist James Prescott Joule who discovered in 1840 that the amount of heat per second that develops in a wire carrying a current is proportional to the electrical resistance of the wire and the square of the current. He determined that the heat evolved per second is equivalent to the electric power absorbed, or the power loss.

(A) How is the heat produced in a resistor related to T, ‘R’ and ‘t’ according to Joule’s law of heating?
(B) Find the heat energy produced in resistance of 5 Q when 3 A current flows through it for 2 minutes.
(C) Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected in series and then in parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. What is the ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combination?
OR
(C) If the heat produced in each second in a 8 Ohm resistance is 800 J, find the difference across the resistor. (4)
Answer:
(A) H = I² x R x t. According to Joule’s Law of heating, heat produced in a conductor of resistance R is given by H = I²RT, where I is the current flowing in the conductor and t is the time.
That is, H ∝ I², H ∝ R, H ∝ t.

(B) Here,
R = 5Ω,
I = 3A ,
t = 2 minutes = 120 s
H = I² x R x t
= 3 x 3 x 5 x 120
= 5400 J

(C) As the two wires are made of the same material, have the same Lengths and diameters, their resistances will also be equal Let the resistance in each wire be R So in series, R_s = R + R = 2R
\(\frac{1}{R_p}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ R }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ R }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ R }\)
Or,
R_s = \(\frac { 2 }{ R }\)
We know that heat produced is given by:

OR
(C) According to JouIe’s law of heating, heat produced in a wire of resistance R is given by

Putting the values, we get \(\frac{v^2}{8}\)
V² = 6400 or V = 80V

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 11 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:

• This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
• All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30% is provided.
• Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
• Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
• Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
• Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
• Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04 marks each.

Section – A (12 Marks)
(All questions are compulsory)

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a benefit of e-Learning? [1]
(a) Reduced overall cost
(b) Flexibility
(c) Self directed and self placed
(d) Unavailability of network
Answer:
(d) Unavailability of network

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a positive impact of e-Governance ? [1]
(a) Improved efficiency of administration
(b) Reduced waiting time
(c) Increased public participation
(d) Limited number of certified branches for online payment
Answer:
(d) Limited number of certified branches of online payment

Question 3.
To keep yourself safe while working on the Internet you should follow which of the following precautions? [1]
(a) Install antivirus on your computer.
(b) Take the backup of your files regularly.
(c) Do not click on unknown links.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 4.
To display text in bold letters which of the following tag should be added to the following code? [1]
<font face=times new roman size=12>
Hello World
</font>
(a) <B></B>
(b) <Bold></Bold>
(c) <Br>
(d) <U></U>
Answer:
(a) <B></B>

Question 5.
Which element of the definition list contains definition? [1]

(a) <DL> 
(b) <DT>
(c) <DD> 
(d) <LI> 
Answer:
(c) <DD>

Explanation:
The definition List is created using <DL> tag. <DT> tag specifies the definition term and <DD> tag specifies the definition.

Question 6.
To display a list of 50 states which control will be used? [1]
(a) Radio button
(b) Check box
(c) Select list
(d) Command button
Answer:
(c) Select List

Explanation:
The select List or drop down box is used when you have multiple items to display as options and have to choose only one of them.

Question 7.
To make the background colour of the web page ‘grey’ use: [1]
(a) <P bgcolor = “grey”>
(b) <BODY bgcolor = “grey”>
(c) <BODY color = “grey”>
(d) BACKGROUND color = “grey”>
Answer:
(b) <BODY bgcolor = “grey”>

Explanation:
The BGCOLOR attribute of <BODY> tag specifies the background colour of a web page.

Question 8.
A website that provides only specialized information: [1]
(a) web portal
(b) webpage
(c) homepage
(d) weblog
Answer:
(a) Web portal

Caution:
A website is a collection of related web pages whereas a web portal is a website which hosts other websites.

Question 9.
Bcc is used to send a copy of e-mail to multiple recipients. What doe Bcc stand for? [1]
(a) Basic carbon copy
(b) Blind carbon copy
(c) Blind client copy
(d) Basic client copy
Answer:
(b) Blind carbon copy

Question 10.
It is responsible for addressing and sending the data packets over the Internet so that it reaches the correct destination. [1]
(a) TCP
(b) FTP
(c) IP
(d) HTTP
Answer:
(c) IP

Question No. 11 and 12 are Assertion and Reason types. Each question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): <TD> tag is used to add a new cell item.
Reason (R): <TR> is used to create a new row.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (IQ is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (IQ is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation :
The correct reason for asseration (A) is that each row is further divided into ceLLs which needs to be specified individually in HTML.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): In CSS style rule is defined for each selector.
Reason (R): A CSS selector is a tag without angle brackets.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false

Explanation:
A CSS selector is a tag for which style rule is defined.

Section – B (14 Marks)

Question 13.
What is chatting? What are the two ways available to chat? [2]
Answer:
Chatting is a textual conversation over the interest. It is a real-time communication between two users of internet via a computer or an electronic device.
The commen methods of chatting are Instant messaging and ICQ.

Question 14.
Name different types of a website. [2]
OR
What are the different ways by which you can connect to the internet?
Answer:
There are majorly five types of websites available:

• Brochure website
• e-commerce website
• Portal website
• Wiki website
• Social media website

OR

The different ways to connect to the Internet are:

• Dial-up Connection.
• Broadband connection which includes cable modem, digital subscriber line and sateLLite.
• Leased Lines.
• Wireless connection which incLudes- WiFi, WiFi Hotspots, WiMAX and Internet Dongles.

Question 15.
What is the use of the top margin and left margin attribute in HTML? Explain with an example. [2]
Answer:
The top margin attribute is used to set a margin above the body of the document. The Left margin attribute is used to set a margin to the left of the document.

Example:
<BODY TOPMARGIN = “80” LEFTMARGIN = “50”>

Related Theory:
There is no way to specify the right margin or the bottom margin of a document in HTML.

Question 16.
How can websites safeguard user privacy? [2]
OR
What are the factors that lead to plagiarism?
Answer:
To ensure that the user privacy is not compromised the following measures must be taken:

• The merchant or the seLLer must cLearLy state about how the user data will be used, in the terms and conditions of its site.
• The merchant or the seller must ensure that the user has gone through the terms and conditions given on its site prior to making any transactions.
• The merchant must assure the user about data safety by implementing proper data safety and security measures on the site.

OR

The factors that lead to plagiarism are as follows:

• Fear of failure.
• Being lazy.
• Not having enough knowledge.
• Lack of enforcement.
• Lack of management skills.

Question 17.
How are foreground colors specified in CSS? [2]
Answer:
Foreground colors can be specified as hexadecimal codes, or color names can be used like red, blue etc. or as RGB values example RGB(255,0,0).

Question 18.
Differentiate between ordered list and unordered list. [2]
OR
Differentiate between cellpadding and cellspacing.
Answer:

Ordered List	Unordered List
Ordered List displays items tagged with a number or letter.	Unordered Lists are bulleted Lists, i.e.such lists have each item prefixed with a special bullet symbol.
Ordered list is created using <OL>…..</OL>tag.	Unordered list is created using <UL>_ </UL> tags.
The default numbering style is 1,2,3…..	The default bullet is a solid circle.
The numbering style can be changed to A,a,i,l.	The bullet style can be changed to disc, circle and square.

OR

Cell padding	Cellspacing
Cell padding attribute is used to specify the space between the contents of a cell and its border.	Cell spacing attribute is used to specify the space between cells in a table. It is the distance between two cells.
The general. format <Table border = 2 cellpadding = 3>	The general format is: <TabLe border = 2 cellspacing=5>
The default value of cellpadding is 1.	The default value of cellspacing is 2.

Question 19.
Name and explain any two tags that divide table in multiple sections. [2]
Answer:
The elements that separate the head, body, and foot of a table are as follows:
1. <thead>- It is used to create the table header. The tag indicates that the group of rows is a header and will appear in the beginning of the table.

2. <tbody>- It is used to create the main body of the table. This tag may enclose a group of rows in body section of the table.

3. <tfoot>- It is used to create the footer of the table. This tag indicates that the group of rows will be displayed in the end of the table.
Note: Write any two.

Section – C (12 marks)

Question 20.
What are the challenges inherent with digital intellectual property? [3]
Answer:
The digital age has led to new and challenging IP issues.
Following are the challenges inherent with digital intellectual property:
1. Digital assets, can be infinitely, easily and cheaply reproduced. The infringement of digital intellectual property is much easier than reproducing physical work.

2. It is also much easier to distribute it. Thousands of illegal copies of your digital IP can be sent around the world at the click of a button.

3. Business are facing another entity copying or missing a distinctive element of its brand for an example, when a person sends an email, he/she uploads the file and the receiver of the mail downloads the attached file.

Question 21.
(A) Why is uploading and downloading a file required? Explain with an example. [3]
(B) When should quotation marks be used around search items while searching something on a search engine?
Answer:
When we need a file which is located at the server’s end, we have to download the file that means transmission of the file from the server to the user’s computer. Similarly ,if we want to share something like a file or a picture, we have to upload that file or picture onto the Internet that means transmission of file from the user’s computer to the server. Thus, transmission of data from the server to the user is called downloading and transmission of data from the user to the server is called uploading.

OR

Quotation marks should be used around a phrase or search items as it Limits the search results to only those webpages that contain the exact phrase that we have specified. Putting quotation marks around the search items on a search engine ensures that the concept will be searched for as a whole and not picked apart by the search engine. Without the quotation marks, the result will include any page that contains the words we have used to search regardless of what order those words are in

Question 22.
The background properties of CSS are used to enhance the appearance of background of a web page. Define different background properties. [3]
OR
Create an HTML document to display the product’s information i.e. product code, product name and its rate. The heading of this page will be “Product List’’. Link the external CSS file main.css to this document.
Answer:
The various background properties are as follows:
Background color: It sets the colour of background of a web page. The value given to this property is any predefined color name or its hexadecimal equivalent.

Background image: It sets an image as Background: The value provided to this property is URL of the image file.

Background-repeat: This property is used in combination with Background-image property. It controls repetition of the background image. The value given to this property is one of these: Repeat-x, Repeat-y, Repeat, No-repeat.

OR

The code for HTML document is:

<html>
<head>
<link rel="style sheet" type = "text/ css" href="main.css">
</head>
<body>
<h1>Product List</h1> 
<p>Product code : P001 <br> 
Product Name : Lenovo Laptop<br> 
Product Rate : 45000<br> </p> 
</body>
</html>

Question 23.
Discuss the structure of an email message in brief. Write the HTML code (statement only) to send an email to [email protected] from your web page. [3]
Answer:
In an email message, apart from the message text there are other fields which are used for some specific purposes as listed below:

• To: in this field, the email address of the recipient is given.
• CC: in this field, the email addresses of the carbon copy recipients of the email are mentioned.
• BCC: In this field, the email addresses of the blind carbon copy recipients are mentioned.
• Subject: It highlights the purpose of the mail.

Section – D (4 Marks)

Question 24.
Observe the following webpage and write the HTML code to generate it. [4]

Threats to Elephants

1.	Illegal Hunting
2.	Industrialization
3.	Habitat loss
4.	Fragmentation
5.	Diseases

For Further Enquiries and reservation:
Contact Us

Note:

• Link color is black, background color is yellow and visited link color is green
• Title of the page is “Wild Life”
• Heading of the page is in “maroon” color
• Image used is “elephantjpg”
• Caption of the table is “blue” in color.
• Table border is “blue” and of size 2.
• The fair Links are one.html, two.html, three.html, and fbur.html
• The email id for contact us is abc@ xyz.com

OR
Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the given specifications. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Specification 1: Table Border should be 4 and table should appear in the center of the browser window.
Specification 2: The space between cells should be 5 and between cells and data should be 15.
Specification 3: The border colour should be green and the background colour of the table should be grey.
Specification 4: The caption and table header tags should be used wherever required.
Specification 5: The table should contain exactly same number of rows and columns as shown above. The data in each cell should be as shown in the above table
Answer:

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> Wild Life </TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY bgcolor = "yellow" link = "black" vlink = "green">
<H1 Align = "center">
<FONT color = "maroon"> INDIAN ELEPHANT </FONT></H1>
<FONT FACE = "ARIAL">
<P align = "left">
The Indian elephant (Elephasmaximusindicus) is one of the three recognized subspecies of the Asian elephant and native to mainland Asia, since 1986. The Asian elephant has been listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List as the wild population has declined by atleast 50% since the 1940's to 1950's The Asian elephant is threatened by habitat loss, degradation and fragmentation.
</FONT></P>
<IMG SRC = "elephantjpg" align= "right" height = "100" width = "100">
<P>
See also:
<UL type = "disc">
<LI><a href = "one .html"><U> Sri Lankan Elephant</U>
</a></LI>
<LI><a href = "second .html"><U> Sumatran ELephant</U> </a></LI>
<LI><a href= "three.htmL"><U> Borneo Elephant </U></a></LI>
<LI><a href = "four.htmL"><U> African Elephant </U></a> </LI>
</UL>
</P>
<FONT color = "bLue">
<CENTER><B> Threats to Elephants </B></CENTER>
</FONT>
<TABLE BORDER = "2px" width = "200" ALIGN = "CENTER" CELLSPACING = "1" BORDERCOLOR = "BLUE">
<TR>
<TD> 1 </TD>
<TD> ILLegaL Hunting </TD> </TR>
<TR>
<TD> 2 </TD>
<TD> IndustriaLization </TD> </TR>
<TR>
<TD> 3 </TD>
<TD> Habitat Loss < /TD> </TR>
<TR>
<TD>4 </TD>
<TD> Fragmentation </TD> </TR>
<TR>
<TD>5</TD>
<TD> Diseases </TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>
<CENTER> <FONT Size = "4" aLign = "CENTER">
For further enquires and reservation :
<a href = "maiLto: [email protected]"> contact us </a> </FONT>
</CENTER>
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

<htmL>
<head>
<titLe> Product TabLe</titLe>
</head>
<body>
<table cellspacing=5 cellpadding=15 border=4 bordercolor=green align
=center bgcolor=grey>
<caption> Product List</caption> 
<TR>
<TH> Product ID </TH> 
<TH> Product Name </TH> 
<TH> Rate </TH> 
</TR>
<TR>
<TD> 1001</TD> 
<TD>Samsung galaxy </TD> 
<TD> 35000 </TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD> 1002</TD>
<TD> Dell Laptop </TD> 
<TD> 55000 </TD> 
</TR>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Section – E (8 Marks)

Question 25.
A school wants to display the marks of its students on its website. Kusum has been assigned this task. Help her to complete the code with right statements in the blanks. Observe the webpage and attempt any four questions (out of 5) given after the web page.

<html>
<head>
<title> Mark List </title>
</head>
<body>
<Table_______= 2><!—Statement l—>
<_______>Mark list of Class X
</Caption> <!--Statement 2-->
<TR>
<_______> Name<fTH>
<1- - Statement 3 - ->
<TH> Total Marks </TH>
<TH> Percentage</TH>
</TR>
< > <!- -Statement 4 - ->
<TD>Arvind Kumar</TD>
<TD> 456</TD>
<TD>91.5<fTD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>Rishi Sharma</TD> 
<TD>375</TD>
<TD>75</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>Sunaina Singh</TD> 
<TD>396</TD>
<TD>79.2</TD>
</TR>
<_______> </-- Statement5-->
</body>
<html>

(A) Write the correct tag in statement – 1 to achieve the output given in the above web page. [1]
Answer:
body

(B) Write the suitable attribute for the blank given in statement – 2. [1]
Answer:
hi

Explanation:
The <H1> tag is used to specify heading in HTML document. It has six level of heading from <H1> to <H6> where <H1> is the largest and <H6> is the smallest one.

(C) Write the correct tag for the blank given in statement – 3. [1]
Answer:
input

(D) Write an appropriate answer for blank in statement – 4. [1]
Answer:
radio

(E) Write the suitable tag for blank in statement – 5. [1]
Answer:
</html>

Explanation:
The </html> tag is the ending tag of <html>. The <html></html> tag declares the document as HTML type.

Question 26.
Read the case study given below and attempt any four sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Kapoor and Son’s is a LegalAdvisory firm that provides services on Legal matters. They have a large number of clients. Now they want to make a website to approach a larger number of clients.

(A) The domain name of their website is kapoorlegals.com. Write the complete URL for it. [1]
Answer:
http://www.kapoorlegals.com

Explanation:
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator. It is the address or location of a web page on Internet. A URL consists of three parts: type://address/path

(B) The website consists of many pages. The page ‘register.php’ of the same website allows the clients to register themselves for legal advices. Write complete URL for this page. [1]
Answer:
http://www.kapoorlegals.com/register.php

(C) The clients have to pay a membership fees of Rs. 2500/- online at the time of registration. They can use web service to pay fees online. [1]
Answer:
Net banking/ Online banking/ Mobile banking/ E-banking.

Related Theory:
All the given terms refer to the automated delivery of new and traditional banking products and services directly to customers over the Internet. E-banking is an umbrella term used for all types of banking transactions performed online.
Note: Write any one of the given answers.

(D) The firm also runs an online group where people can discuss their legal matters. The group is type of web service. [1]
Answer:
E-group.

Related Theory:
E-group refers to an online environment where users sharing common views and ideas come together to meet and discuss topics of their common interest.

(E) Pratap received a notice from his opponent. He wants to send the copy of notice to Kapoor & Son’s firm. How can he send it along with email? [1]
Answer:
By attaching the document with the e-mail.

Related Theory:
Every E-mail program has an Attach option in form of ‘Paper clip’ icon. You can attach one or more files with email. These attachments can be any picture, document, audio or video file.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 1 with Solutions

समय :3 होराः
सम्पूर्णाङ्काः : 80

सामान्यनिर्देशा:

• कृपया सम्यक्तया परीक्षणं कुर्वन्तु यत् अस्मिन् प्रश्नपत्रे 8 पृष्ठानि मुद्रितानि सन्ति।
• कृपया सम्यक्तया परीक्षणं कुर्वन्तु यत् अस्मिन् प्रश्नपत्रे 18 प्रश्नाः सन्ति।
• अस्मिन् प्रश्नपत्रे चत्वारः खण्डाः सन्ति।
• प्रत्येकं खण्डम् अधिकृत्य उत्तराणि एकस्मिन् स्थाने क्रमेण लेखनीयानि।
• उत्तरलेखनात् पूर्व प्रश्नस्य क्रमाङ्कः अवश्यं लेखनीयः।
• प्रश्नस्य क्रमाङ्कः प्रश्नपत्रानुसारम् एवं लेखनीयः।
• सर्वेषां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लेखनीयानि।
• प्रश्नानां निर्देशा: ध्यानेन अवश्यं पठनीयाः।

(‘क’ खण्डः )
अपठितावबोधनम् (अंक : 10)

1. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
पुरा अस्माकं देशे बहवः प्रसिद्धाः राजानः अभवन्। तेषु दुष्यन्तः नाम एकः नृपः आसीत्। तस्य भार्या शकुन्तला आश्रमे पुत्रम् अजनयत्। तस्य नाम भरतः आसीत्। भरतः शैशवास्थायाम् अपि आश्रमे सिंहशावकैः सह क्रीडति स्म। एकस्य सिंहशावकस्य मुखम् उद्घाटयत् अवदत् च- ‘जम्भस्व सिंह! दन्तान् ते गणयिष्यामि।’ सिंहशावकः अपि जानाति स्म यत् भरतः अपि मया सदृशः शिशुः अस्ति, मया सह च क्रीडति अतः सः भरताय नाक्रुध्यत् न च आक्राम्यत्। तत्र तापसीभ्यां निषिद्धः अपि भरतः कथयति स्म – नाहं सिंहात् बिभेमि। इत्थम् आसीत् सः निर्भयः वीरः भरतः। भरतस्य अभिधानेन एव अस्माकं देशस्य आर्यावर्तस्य नाम ‘भारतम्’ अभवत्।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)

(i) निर्भयः वीरः च कः आसीत्?
उत्तर:
भरतः

(ii) भरतः कैः सह क्रीडति स्म? एकदा सः
उत्तर:
सिंहशावकैः

(iii) भरतस्य मातुः नाम किम् आसीत् ?
उत्तर:
शकुन्तला

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(i) भरतः सिंहशावकं किम् अवदत् ?
उत्तर:
भरत: सिंहशावकम् अवदत् – ‘जृम्भस्व सिंह! दन्तान् ते गणयिष्यामि इति।

(ii) सिंहशावकः भरताय किमर्थं नाक्रुध्यत् न च आक्राम्यत्?
उत्तर:
सिंहशावकः अपि जानाति सम यत् भरतः अपि मया सदृशः शिशुः अस्ति, मया सह च क्रीडति अतः सः भरताय नाक्रुध्यत् न च आक्राम्यत्।

(ii) भरतः तापस्यौ किं कथयति स्म?
उत्तर:
भरतः तापस्यौ कथयति स्म – नाहं सिंहात् बिभेमि इति।

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत।
उत्तर:
वीर: भरतः, भरतेन भारतम्, भरतस्य निर्भयता/ वीरता। छात्रस्य उत्तरं दृष्ट्वा छात्रहिताय समुचितः करणीयः।

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)

1. ‘इत्थम् आसीत् सः निर्भयः वीरः भरतः’ अत्र किं क्रियापदम्?
(क) इत्थम्
(ख) आसीत्
(ग) निर्भयः
(घ) वीरः
उत्तर:
(ख) आसीत्

2. ‘सदृशः’ इति विशेषणपदस्य विशेष्यपदं किम्?
(क) नृपः
(ख) वीरः
(ग) निर्भयः
(घ) शिशुः
उत्तर:
(घ) शिशुः

3. ‘नृपाः’ इति पदस्य किं पर्यायपदं गद्यांशे प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) सिंहशावकः
(ख) दन्तान्
(ग) राजानः
(घ) प्रसिद्धाः
उत्तर:
(ग) राजानः

4. ‘गणयिष्यामि’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किं भवेत्?
(क) अहम्
(ख) ते
(ग) सः
(घ) दन्तान्
उत्तर:
(क) अहम्

(‘रव’ रखण्ड:)
रचनात्मकं-कार्यम् (अंक : 15)

2. भवान् जयपुरवासी राजेन्द्रः अस्ति। स्वमित्रं मुकेशं स्वभगिन्याः विवाहे निमन्त्रयितुं लिखितं पत्रं मञ्जूषायाः पदैः पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत (1/2 × 10 = 5)
जयपुरतः
दिनाङ्कः …………..
प्रियमित्र मुकेश !
सस्नेहं (i) ………..।
अत्र कुशलं तत्रास्तु । भवान् इदं (ii)……………. अत्यधिक: प्रसन्नः भविष्यति यत् मम (iii)……….. दिव्यायाः विवाह: विजयनगरनिवासि-श्रीवेदप्रकाशस्य पुत्रेण (iv)………… सह दिसम्बर-मासस्य एकादशतिथौ निश्चितः जातः। (v) सायं सप्तवादने आगमिष्यति। अस्मिन् मङ्गलावसरे भवान् सपरिवारः सादरं निमन्त्रितः। भवता स्वपरिवारेण सह विवाहतः (vi)………..पूर्वमेव अंत्र आगत्य व्यवस्थायां (vii)………..अपि करणीयम्। भवतः उपस्थिति: (viii)……… उत्साहं विश्वासं च वर्धिष्यते। इतोऽपि भवतः जयपुरदर्शनस्य इच्छासिद्धि: अपि (ix)…………………..। गृहे पितृभ्यां मम प्रणामाः।
भवंतः (×) ……………..
राजेन्द्र:

मख्जूषा-भविष्यति, मम, नमः, वरयात्रा, राकेशेन, सहाय्यम्, भगिन्या:, अभिन्नहृदयः, त्रिदिनानि, ज्ञात्वा
उत्तर:
पत्रलेखनम्
जयपुरतः
दिनाडू: 07/07/2022
प्रियमित्र मुकेश!
सस्नेहं (i) ……….. नम: ………..|
अत्र कुशलं तत्रास्तु। भवान् इदं (ii) ज्ञात्वा अत्यधिकः प्रसन्नः भविष्यति यत् मम (iii) भगिन्याः दिव्यायाः विवाह: विजयनगरनिवासि-श्रीवेदप्रकाशस्य पुत्रेण (iv) राकेशेन सह दिसम्बर-मासस्य एकादशतिथौ निश्चितः जातः। (v) वरयात्रा सायं सप्तवादने आगमिष्यति। अस्मिन् मड्नलावसरे भवान् सपरिवारः सादरं निमन्त्रितः। भवता स्वपरिवारेण सह विवाहतः (vi) त्रिदिनानि पूर्वमेव अत्र आगत्य व्यवस्थायां (vii) सहाय्याम् अपि करणीयम्। भवतः उपस्थितिः (viii) मम उत्साहं विश्वासं च वर्धिष्यति। इतोडपि भवतः जयपुरदर्शनस्य इच्छासिद्धि: अपि (ix) भविष्यति । गृहे पितृभ्यां मम प्रमाण:। भवतः (x)………..
भवतः (×) अभिन्नहृदयः
राजेन्द्रः

3. प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां सहायतया पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत (1 × 5 = 5)

मत्जूषा-क्रीडन्ति, उद्यानस्य, भ्रमन्ति, पुष्पाणि, वृक्षा:, बालाः, चित्रकार्यम्, हरीतिमा, दोलयतः।
उत्तर:
चित्रवर्णनम्
अत्र छात्रेभ्यः संक्षिप्तवाक्यरचना अपेक्षिता वर्तते। केवलं वाक्यशुद्धिः द्रष्टव्या। अस्य प्रश्नस्य प्रमुखम् उद्देशयं वाक्यरचना अस्ति। वाक्यं दीर्घम् अस्ति अथवा लघु इति महत्त्वपूर्णं नास्ति। प्रतिवाक्यम् अर्धः अङू: भावस्य कृते अर्धः अड्ःः च व्याकरणदृष्टया शुद्धतानिमित्तं निर्धारितः अस्तिः मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्ताः शब्दाः सहायतार्थं सन्ति। छात्रः तेषां वाक्येषु प्रयोगं कुर्यादेव इति अनिवार्यं नास्ति। छात्रः स्वमेधया अपि वाक्यानि निर्मातुं शक्नोति। मक्जूषायां प्रदत्तानां शब्दानां विभक्तिं परिवर्तनं कृत्वा अपि वाक्यनिर्माणं कर्तुं शक्यते।
अथवा
मक्जूषाप्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य न्यूनातिन्यूनं पञ्चभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेद लिखत।

“वायुप्रदूषणम्”
मञ्जूषा-स्वास्थ्यम्, पर्यावरणस्य, रक्षका:, उद्योगानाम्, प्राणवायुम्, वृक्षारोपणम्, उपायाः, निर्माणकार्यम्, सहायकाः, वाहनानां धूम्र:, श्वासरोगाः।
उत्तर:
अनुच्छेदलेखनम्
अयं विकल्पः सर्वेभ्यः अस्ति। छात्राः मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तानां शब्दानां विभक्तिं परिवर्तन कृत्वा अपि वाक्यनिर्माणं कर्तुं शक्तुवन्ति। अतः अड़ा देयाः। अस्य मूल्याङुनाप अन्ये नियमा: चित्रवर्णनस्य अनुगुणं पालनीया:।

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य लिखत-(केवलं वाक्यपज्चकम्) (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) उसने संस्कृतपुस्तक पढ़ी।
He read Sanskrit Book.
(ii) मेरे घर के पास विद्यालय है।
The school is near my house.
(iii) बसन्त सभी ऋतुओं में श्रेष्ठ है।
Spring is the best among all seasons.
(iv) बच्चो! तुम सब उधर मत जाओ।
Children! do not go that side.
(v) छात्र कक्षा में भोजन नहीं करेंगे।
Students will not eat in class.
(vi) शिवाजी शक्तिमान् राजा था।
Shivaji was a mighty king.
(vii) भारतीय संस्कृति विश्व में प्रसिद्ध है।
Indian culture is famous in the world.
उत्तर:
अनुवादः (केवलं वाक्यपज्वकम्)
(i) सः/सा संस्कृतपुस्तकम् अपठत्/पठितवान्/पठितवती।
(ii) मम गृहस्य समीपे विद्यालयः अस्ति।
(iii) वसन्तः सर्वेषु ऋतषु श्रेष्ठ: अस्ति।
(iv) भो बाला:/बालका:! यूयं तत्र मा गच्छत।
(v) छात्राः कक्षायां भोजनं न करिष्यन्ति।
(vi) शिवाजी शक्तिमान् राजा/नृपः आसीत्।
(vii) भारतीया संस्कृतिः विश्वे प्रसिद्धा अस्ति।

(‘ग’ रवण्ड:)
अनुप्रयुक्तव्याकरणम्

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाड्कितपदेषु सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) – (1 × 4 =4)
(i) सड्कोचमझ्चति सरः + त्वयि दीनदीनो।
(ii) ते चक्षुर्नामनी मते।
(iii) स: कृच्छ्रेण भारम् उत् + वहति।
(iv) पाषाणी सभ्यता निसर्गे स्यान्न समाविष्टा।
(v) किं नामधेयः + भवतो: गुरुः?
उत्तर:
सन्धि: सन्धिच्छेदश्च (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्म)
(i) सरस्त्वयि
(ii) चक्षु: + नामनी
(iii) उद्वहति
(iv) स्यात् + न
(v) नामधेयो भवतो:

6. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाड्कितपदानां समासं विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) – (1 × 4 =4)
(i) सर्वथा समरूपः कुटुम्बवृतान्तः।
(क) कुटुम्बः वृतान्तः
(ख) कुटुम्बाय वृतान्तः
(ग) कुटुम्बस्य वृतान्त:
(घ) कुटुम्बम् वृतान्तम्
उत्तर:
(ग) कुटुम्बस्य वृतान्त:

(ii) समानं शीलं व्यसनं येषां तेषु सख्यम्।
(क) समानशीलव्यसनेषु
(ख) समानशीलव्यसनम्
(ग) समानशीलव्यसनानि
(घ) समानशीलव्यसनेभ्य:
उत्तर:
(क) समानशीलव्यसनेषु

(iii) न हि निर्मलं जलम्।
(क) मलस्य योग्यम्
(ख) मलस्य अभाव:
(ग) मलं प्रति
(घ) मलम् अनतिक्रम्य
उत्तर:
(ख) मलस्य अभाव:

(iv) व्याघ्रचित्रकौ नदीजलं पातुम् आगतौ।
(क) व्याघ्रौ चित्रकौ च
(ख) व्याघ्र: च चित्रकौ च
(ग) व्याघ्रौ च चित्रक: च
(घ) व्याघ्र: च चित्रक: च
उत्तर:
(घ) व्याघ्र: च चित्रक: च

(v) स: वृषभं च वृषभं च नीत्वा गृहमगात्
(क) वृषभा:
(ख) वृषभान्
(ग) वृषभौ
(घ) वृषभाभ्याम्
उत्तर:
(ग) वृषभौ

7. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाड्कितपदानां प्रकृति-प्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्य: चित्वा लिखत (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 =4)

(i) किं कुपिता एवं भणति ?
(क) कुपिता + टाप्
(ख) कुपित + टाप्
(ग) कुपितः + ङीप्
(घ) कुपित + इक्
उत्तर:
(ख) कुपित + टाप्

(ii) बुद्धि + मतुप् सा भयात् विमुक्ता।
(क) बुद्धिवान्
(ख) बुद्धिमान:
(ग) बुद्धिमान्
(घ) बुद्धिमती
उत्तर:
(घ) बुद्धिमती

(iii) तदेव सम + त्व कथ्यते।
(क) समत्वम्
(ख) समत्व:
(ग) समता
(घ) समत्त्वम्
उत्तर:
(क) समत्वम्

(iv) जनाः प्रातः दिन + ठक् समाचारपत्रं पठन्ति।
(क) दैनिक:
(ख) दैनिकी
(ग) दैनिकम्
(घ) दैनिका:
उत्तर:
(ग) दैनिकम्

(v) सम्पत्तौ विपत्तौ च महताम् एकरूपता।
(क) एकरूप + त्व
(ख) एकरूप + तल्
(ग) एकरूपत + टाप्
(घ) एकरूप + ता
उत्तर:
(ख) एकरूप + तल्

8. वाच्यानुसारम् उचितपदैः रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा अधोलिखितं संवादं पुनः लिखत (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) – (1 × 3 = 3)

(i) मालिका – प्रतिष्ठे! किं त्वं संस्कृतस्य विज्ञानप्रदर्शनीं द्रष्टुंत्र………….. ?
(क) गम्यते
(ख) गच्छति
(ग) गच्छसि
(घ) गच्छामि
उत्तर:
(ग) गच्छसि

(ii) प्रतिष्ठा – न मालिके!…………… तत्र न गम्यते।
(क) मया
(ख) अहम्
(ग) त्वया
(घ) आवाम्
उत्तर:
(क) मया

(iii) मालिका – अधुना त्वया गृहे किं…………..?
(क) क्रियन्ते
(ख) करोषि
(ग) करोति
(घ) क्रियते
उत्तर:
(घ) क्रियते

(iv) प्रतिष्ठा – श्व: मम परीक्षा भविष्यति अतः मया अधुना पठ्यन्ते।
(क) पुस्तकम्
(ख) पुस्तकानि
(ग) पुस्तकै:
(घ) पुस्तके
उत्तर:
(ख) पुस्तकानि

9. कालबोधकशब्दै: अधोलिखित-दिनचर्यां पूरयत (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) – (1 × 4 = 4)

(i) मम माता ………… 4:15 वादने उत्तिष्ठति।
उत्तर:
सपाद-चतुर्वादने

(ii) सा …………. 5: 00 वादने योगाभ्यासं करोति।
उत्तर:
पञ्ववादने

(iii) तदन्तरम् सा स्नात्वा ………… 6:45 वादने भोजनं पचति।
उत्तर:
पादोन-सप्तवादने

(iv) भोजनं गृहीत्वा अहम् ………… 7:30 विद्यालयं गच्छामि।
उत्तर:
सार्ध-सप्तवादने

(v) अहम् …………… 2000 वादने आगत्य पुन: भोजनं करोमि।
उत्तर:
द्विवादने

10.मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तै: उचितै: अव्ययपदैः अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत (केवलं प्रश्रयम्र) – (1 × 3 = 3)
(i) केचिद् अम्भोदा : …………… गौराड्झ:?
उत्तर:
वृथा

(ii) यदि अहं कृष्णवर्ण: ……………. त्वं किं गौराड्झ: ?
उत्तर:
तर्हि

(iii) अयं प्रवास: अतिदीर्घ: दारुण: ……………।
उत्तर:
च

(iv) भवान् ………… भयात् पलायितः ?
उत्तर:
कुतः

11.अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाड्कित-अशुद्धपदाय उचितपदं चित्वा वाक्यानि पुन: लिखत (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्र) – (1 × 3 = 3)
(i) त्वां पितुः नाम किम् अस्ति ?
(क) त्वम्
(ख) तव
(ग) त्वया
(घ) त्वयि
उत्तर:
(ख) तव

(ii) ते श्व: विद्यालयं गच्छन्ति।
(क) अगच्छन्
(ख) गमिष्यति
(ग) गमिष्यन्ति
(घ) अगच्छताम्
उत्तर:
(ग) गमिष्यन्ति

(iii) यत्रास्ते सा धूर्ता: तत्र गम्यताम्।
(क) धूर्ता
(ख) धूर्त:
(ग) धूर्तौ
(घ) धूर्ते
उत्तर:
(क) धूर्ता

(iv) स: बुद्धिमती कानने एकं व्याघ्रं ददर्श।
(क) तत्
(ख) ताः
(ग) ते
(घ) सा
उत्तर:
(घ) सा

(‘घ’ रवण्ड:)
पठितावबोधनम्

12.अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
कश्चित् कृषक: बलीवर्दाभ्याम् क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन्नमस्युत्र तयो: बलीवर्दयो: एकः शरीरेण दुर्बलः जवेन गन्तुमशक्तश्चासीत्। अतः कृषकः तं दुर्बभं वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत। सः वृषभः हलमूढवा गन्तुमशक्तः क्षेत्रे पपात। क्रुद्ध: कृषीवलः तमुत्थापयितुं बहुवारम् यत्नमकरोत्। यथापि वृषभः नोत्थितः। भूमौ पतितं स्वपुत्रं दृष्ट्वा सर्वधेनूनां मातुः सुरभेः नेत्राभ्यामश्रूणि आविरासन्। सुरभेरिमामवस्थां दृष्ट्वा सुराधिपः तामपृच्छत् – “अयि शुभे ! किमेवं रोदिषि? सा च “भो वासव! पुत्रस्य दैन्यं दृष्ट्वा अहं रोदिमि। सः दीन इति जानन्नपि कृषक: तं बहुधा पीडयति। सः कृच्छ्रेण भारमुद्वहति। इतरमिव धुरं वोढुं स: न शक्नोति। एतत् भवान् पश्यति न?” इति प्रत्यवोचत्।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम् ) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(क) क: क्षेत्रे अपतत् ?
(ख) सुरभिः कासां माता आसीत् ?
(ग) कृषकः कं बहुधा पीडयति स्म ?
उत्तर:
(अ) एकपदोन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) वृषभः/दुर्बलवृषभः
(ख) सर्वधेनूनाम्
(ग) वृषभम्/दुर्बलवृषभम्

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) सुरभि: किमर्थ रोदिति स्म ?
(ख) पतितं वृषभम् उत्थापयितुं क: प्रायतत ?
(ग) सुराधिप: काम् अपृच्छत् ?
उत्तर:
(आ)पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) स्वपुत्र्य (वृषभस्य) दैन्यं दृष्टा सुरभिः रोदिति स्म।
(ख) क्रुद्ध: कृषीवल:/कृषक: पतितं वृषभम् उत्थापयितुं प्रायतत।
(ग) सुराधिपः सुरभिम् अपृच्छत्।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) 1 × 2 = 2
(क) ‘मातुः सुरभेः नेत्राभ्याम् आश्रूणि आविरासन्’ इत्यस्मिन् वाक्ये कर्तृपदं किम् ?
(ख) ‘कृषीवलः’ इति पदस्य किं विशेषणपदं प्रयुक्तम् ?
(ग) ‘तीव्रगत्या’ इत्यस्य किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम् ?
उत्तर:
(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) अश्रूणि
(ख) क्रूद्ध:
(ग) जवेन

13.अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत-5

उदीरितोऽर्थ: पशुनापि गृह्यते हयाश्च नागाश्च वहन्ति बोधिताः।
अनुक्तमप्यूहति पण्डतो जनः परेड्भित्ज्ञानफला हि बुद्धयः॥
(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम् ) 1/2 × 2 = 1
(क) कीदृशाः नागाः वहन्ति ?
(ख) पशुना कीदृशः अर्थः गृह्यते ?
(ग) परेड्नित्ज्ञानफलाः काः भवन्ति ?
उत्तर:
(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) बोधिताः
(ख) उदीरितः/उदीरितोऽर्थ:
(ग) बुद्धय:

(आ)पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-( केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) पण्डितः जनः किं करोति ?
(ख) मतयः कीदृश्य: भवन्ति ?
(ग) के के बोधिताः भारं वहन्ति ?
उत्तर:
(आ)पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) पण्डितः जनः अनुक्तमपि ऊहति।
(ख) मतयः परेक्मिज्ञानफलाः भवन्ति।
(ग) हयाः नागाः च बोधिताः भारं वहन्ति।/हया: नागाश्च बोधिता: भारं वहन्ति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम् ) (1 × 2 = 2)

(क) ‘नागाश्च वहन्तिः’ अस्मिन् वाक्ये क्रियापदं किम् ?
(ख) ‘गजा:’ इत्यस्य किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम् ?
(ग) ‘पण्डितः’ इत्यस्य विशेष्यपदं चित्वा लिखत।
उत्तर:
(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) वहन्ति
(ख) नागा:
(ग) जन:

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत- 5

(गजः तं वृक्षमेव स्वशुण्डेन आलोडयितुमिच्छति परं वानरस्तु कूर्दित्वा अन्यं वृक्षमारोहति। एवं गजं वृक्षात् वृक्षं प्रति धावन्तं दृष्ट्वा सिंह: अपि हसति वदति च।)
सिंह: भो गज! मामप्येवमेवातुदन् एते वानराः।

वानर: एतस्मादेव तु कथयामि यदहमेव योग्य: वनराजपदाय येन विशालकायं पराक्रमिणं भयड्करं चापि सिंहं गजं वा पराजेतुं समर्था अस्माकं जातिः। अतः वन्यजन्तूनां रक्षायै वयमेव क्षमाः। (एतत्सर्वं श्रुत्वा नदीमध्यस्थितः एक: बक:)

बक: अरे! अरे! मां विहाय कथमन्यः कोडपि राजा भवितुमर्हति। अहं तु शीतले जले बहुकालपर्यन्तम् अविचलः ध्यानमग्नः स्थितप्रज्ञ इव स्थित्वा सर्वेषां रक्षायाः उपायान् चिन्तयिष्यामि, योजनां निर्मीय च स्व सभायां विविधपदमलड्कुर्वाणै: जन्तुभिश्च मिलित्वा रक्षेपायान् क्रियान्वितान् कारयिष्यामि अतः अहमेव वनराजपदप्राप्तये योग्यः।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम् ) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(क) स्थितप्रज्ञः इव कः स्थितः भवति ?
(ख) वानर: बक: च कस्मै आत्मानं योग्यौ मन्येते ?
(ग) सिंहं गजं वा पराजेतुं केषां जातिः आत्मानं समर्था मन्यते ?
उत्तर:
(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) बक:
(ख) वनराजपदाय
(ग) वानराणाम्

(आ)पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-( केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) सिंह: किं दृष्ट्वा हसति?
(ख) वन्यजन्तूनां रक्षायै के आत्मानं क्षमाः मन्यन्ते ?
(ग) बक: कथं रक्षोपायान् क्रियान्वितान् कारयिष्यति ?
उत्तर:
(आ)पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) सिंह: गजं वृक्षात् वृक्षं प्रति धावन्तं दृष्ट्वा हसति।
(ख) वन्यजन्तूनां रक्षायै वानराः आत्मानं क्षमा: मन्यन्ते।
(ग) बकः स्वसभायां विविधपदमलड्कुर्वाणै: जन्तुभिश्च मिलित्वा रक्षोपायान् क्रियान्वितान् कारयिष्यति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत – ( केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) ‘त्यक्त्वा’ इत्यस्य किं पर्यायपदम् अत्र प्रयुक्तम् ?
(ख) ‘मामप्येवमेवातुदन् एते वानरा:’ अस्मिन् वाक्ये क्रियापदं किम् ?
(ग) ‘शीतले’ इत्यस्य विशेष्यपदं चित्वा लिखत।
उत्तर
(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्)
(क) विहाय
(ख) अतुदन्
(ग) जले

15.रेखाड्कित-पदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) – (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) कालायसचक्रं सदा वक्रं भ्रमति।
(ख) सा निजबुद्ध्या भयाद् विमुक्ता।
(ग) राम: सवाष्पम् अवलोकयति।
(घ) करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(ङ) ललितलतानां माला रमणीया।
उत्तर:
प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम)
(क) किं सदा वक्रं भ्रमति ?
(ख) सा कया भयाद् विमुक्ता ?
(ग) क: सवाष्पम् अवलोकयति?
(घ) करुणापरो गृही कस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत् ?
(ङ) कासां माला रमणीया।

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचितपदानि चित्वा अधोलिखितश्लोकस्य अन्वयं पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत

रे रे चातक ! सावधानमनसा मित्र ! क्षणं श्रूयता
अम्भोदा बहवो हि सन्ति गगने सर्वेडपि नैतादृशाः।
केचिद् वृष्टिभिरार्द्रयन्ति वसुधां गर्जन्ति केचिद् वृथा,
यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतो मा ब्रूहि दीनं वचः॥
अन्वय:
रे रे मित्र चातक ! (i) ………… क्षणं श्रूयताम्। गगने हि बहवः।
(ii) ……….. सन्ति। सर्वे अपि एतादृशाः न (सन्ति)। केचिद् वृष्टिभि:
(iii) ……. आर्द्रयन्ति, केचिद् वृथा गर्जन्ति, (त्वम्) यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतः दीनं
(iv)……. मा ब्रूहि।
उत्तर:
अन्वय:-
रे रे मित्र चातक! (i) सावधानमनसा क्षणं श्रूयताम्। गगने हि बहवः
(ii) अम्भोदाः सन्ति। सर्वे अपि एतादृशा: न (सन्ति)। केचिद् वृष्टिभि:
(iii) वसुधाम् आर्द्रयन्ति, केचिद् वृथा गर्जन्ति, (त्वम्) यं यं पश्यसि तस्य तस्य पुरतः दीनं
(iv) वचः मा ब्रूहि।
अथवा
मञ्जूषाया: साहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुन: लिखत- (1 × 4 = 4)
विद्वांस एव लोकेऽस्मिन् चक्षुष्मन्तः प्रकीर्तिताः।
अन्येषां वदने ये तु ते चक्षुर्नामनी मते ॥
भावार्थ:-अस्य भावः अस्ति यत् अस्मिन् संसारे (i) एव (ii) …………… मन्यन्ते यतोहि ते ज्ञानवन्तः भवन्ति ज्ञानं च मनुष्यस्य वास्तविकं (iii)…………………. अस्ति। अन्येषां जनानां (iv) ……………….. ये नेत्रे भवतः ते तु चक्षुर्नामनी भवतः। ज्ञानं विना ते अन्ध इव भवन्ति।

उत्तर:
अस्य भावः अस्ति यत् अस्मिन् संसारे (i) बुद्धिमन्तः एव
(ii) नेत्रवन्तः मन्यन्ते यतोहि ते ज्ञानवन्तः भवन्ति ज्ञानं च मनुष्यस्य वास्तविकं
(iii) चक्षुः अस्ति। अन्येषां जनानां
(iv) मुखे ये नेत्रे भवतः ते तु चक्षुर्नामनी भवतः। ज्ञां विना ते अन्ध इव भवन्ति।

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचित-क्रमेण लिखत – (1/2 × 8 = 4)

(क) सः पुत्रं द्रष्टुं बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव प्राचलत्।
(ख) न्यायाधींशः तम् अतिथिं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान्।
(ग) तस्मिन् गृहे रात्रौ कश्चन चौरः गृहाभ्यन्तरं प्रविष्टः।
(घ) मार्गे रात्रौ करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(ङ) कश्चन निर्धनः जन: वित्तमुपार्जितवान्।
(च) चौरस्य पदध्वनिना अतिथि: प्रबुद्धः अभवत् तमन्वधावत् च।
(छ) न्यायाधीशेन पुनः तौ घटनायाः विषये वक्तुम् आदिष्टौ।
(ज) पठनकाले छात्रावासे निवसन् तस्य पुत्र: रुग्ण: अभवत् ।
उत्तर:
(क) कश्चन निर्धनः जनः वित्तमुपार्जितवान्।
(ख) पठनकाले छात्रावासे निवसन् तस्य पुत्रः रुग्णः अभवत्।
(ग) सः पुत्रं द्रष्टुं बसयानं विहाय पदातिरेव प्राचलत्।
(घ) मार्गे रात्रौ करुणापरो गृही तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(ङ) तस्मिन् गृहे रात्रौ कश्चन चौरः गृहाभ्यन्तरं प्रविष्टः।
(च) चौरस्य पदध्वनिना अतिथिः प्रबुद्ध अभवत् तमन्वधावत् च।
(छ) न्यायाधीशेन पुनः तौ घटनायाः विषये वक्तुम् आदिष्टौ।
(ज) न्यायाधीशः तम् अतिथिं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान्।

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाड्कित्तपदानां प्रसड़गनुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) – (1 × 3 =3)

(i) तस्य भार्या बुद्धिमती पितुर्गृहं प्रति चलिता।
(क) पत्नी
(ख) भगिनी
(ग) भ्राता
(घ) भार:
उत्तर:
(क) पत्नी

(ii) मा ब्रूहि दीनं वच:।
(क) बाला
(ख) बाल:
(ग) वद
(घ) वाहक:
उत्तर:
(ग) वद

(iii) एतेन आरक्षिणा अध्वनि यदुक्तं तद् वर्णयामि।
(क) धमनम्
(ख) मार्गे
(ग) धनम्
(घ) धारा
उत्तर:
(ख) मार्गे

(iv) शतशकटीयानं धूम मुज्वति।
(क) धावति
(ख) पिबति
(ग) चलति
(घ) त्यजति
उत्तर:
(घ) त्यजति

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:

• This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
• All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30% is provided.
• Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
• Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
• Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
• Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
• Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04 marks each.

Section – A (12 Marks)
(All questions are compulsory)

Question 1.
A two way video phone conversation between multiple participants is called: [1]
(a) Video Chatting
(b) Video Talking
(c) Video Conferencing
(d) Video Watching
Answer:
(c) Video Conferencing

Related Theory:
Video Conferencing has become a very useful tool in diverse areas like business, distance learning, telemedicine etc.

Advantages:

• It saves travel cost and time
• It allows conducting meeting with people at different locations across the globe.

Disadvantages:

• Additional cost of video conferencing specific hardware and software
• Even with a fast connection there might be slight delay between responses.

Question 2.
The benefit of e-learning is: [1]
(a) Class work can be scheduled around work and family.
(b) Reduces travel time and travel cost.
(c) Students can study anywhere they have access to a computer and internet connection.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Related Theory
The e-learning software platform are used by teachers, authors, coaches etc for creating online customizable system of learning for individual students.

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a characteristic of e-health? [1]
(a) It allows methods to access electronic medical records and the ability to access information about alternative approaches to medical treatment.
(b) It cannot provide access to specialist care at distant geographic areas.
(c) It saves time, which is one of the major constraints of conventional healthcare services.
(d) It improves patient safety because it provides a complete overview of clinical and medication history there by helping to avoid potential errors and complications.
Answer:
(b) It cannot provide access to specialist care at distant geographic areas.

Related Theory:
e-health is the electronic management of health information to deliver safer, more efficient and better quality healthcare E-health makes use of wide array of digital technologies. It allows users to communicate with health care professionals by email or other digital means of communication.

Question 4.
Which of the following protocols is used in the internet? [1]
(a) HTTP
(b) FTP
(c) TCP/IP
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation:
HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) is the set of rules for transferring hypertext on World Wide Web.
TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol ) defines rules computer must follow to communicate with each other over the internet.
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a standard network protocol used for the transfer of computer files between client and server on a network.

Question 5.
It is a free software and can be used without restrictions [1]
(a) Proprietary software
(b) Freeware
(c) Copylefted software
(d) Public domain
Answer:
(d) Public domain

Related Theory:
the term public domain software is often used incorrectly to include freeware, free software that is nevertheless copyrighted. Public domain is outside the scope of copyright and licensing.

Question 6.
Websites used to buy and sell something are categorized under: [1]
(a) Social networking sites
(b) E-commerce websites
(c) Search engines
(d) Entertainment sites
Answer:
(b) E-commerce websites

Question 7.
Which of the following attribute is used only in ordered list? [1]
(a) Value
(b) Start
(c) Type
(d) Align
Answer:
(b) Start

Explanation:
The START attribute in ordered list specifies the beginning value of the list

Question 8.
The code <H1 align = “center” color = “blue”> will display the heading as: [1]
(a) First heading.
(b) First heading with text center aligned and blue in colour.
(c) First heading with text blue in colour.
(d) Is a wrong code.
Answer:
(b) First heading with text center aligned and blue in colour

Question 9.
Which of the following attribute of the <HR> tag is used to create a horizontal rule without any shading? [1]
(a) ZEROFILL
(b) NOFILL
(c) NOSHADE
(d) ZEROSHADE
Answer:
(c) NOSHADE

Question 10.
Which of the following is correct to create a radio button for options Yes or no? [1]

(a) <input type = “radiobutton” name = “ans” value = “yes”/>Yes
<input type = “radiobutton” name = “ans” value = “no"/>No
(b) <input type = “radio” name = “ans” value = “yes”/>Yes
<input type = “radio” name = “ans” value = “yes"/>No
(c) <input type = “checkbox" name = “ans” value = “yes”/>Yes
<input type = “checkbox" name = “ans” value = “no”/>No
(d) <input type = “radio” name = “ans” value = “yes”/>Yes
<input type = “radio” name = “ans” value = “no”/>No
Answer:
(d) <input type = “radio” name = “ans” value = “yes”/>Yes
<input type = “radio” name = “ans” value = “no”/>No

Question No. 11 and 12 are Assertion and Reason types. Each question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): An Email link can be created in HTML
Reason (R): An email link is created using mailto attribute.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
The links to email address are created using mailto attribute with HREF in <A> tag. The syntax is as follows:
<A href = “mailto: email address”> Text </A>

Question 12.
Assertion (A): ALT attribute provides a tooltip for an image in HTML document.
Reason (R): ALT attribute is used with <IMG> tag.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
All attribute is used with <JMG> tag to give an alternate text to an image. This alternate text is displayed when the image is unable to download in the web browser.

Section – B (14 marks)

Question 13.
What are the uses of internet? [2]
Answer:
The Uses of internet are as follows:

• Internet helps us to share information from any place in the world.
• Internet enables fast transfer of news or incidents to people.
• Internet is a source of lots of information for educational purposes.
• Internet can be used for communication purpose from one end of the world to the other.
• Internet is used for online shopping and for conducting business activities online.
• Internet is used for downloading and uploading files.

Question 14.
What is e-health? What are the areas which e-health encompasses? [2]
OR
What is e-governance? How has it helped common people?
Answer:
The availability of healthcare resources by electronic means is termed as e-health. The areas in which e-health encompasses are:-

• Health information: The internet and telecommunications play a great role in delivering health information to health professionals and health consumers.
• Education and training: The education and training of health workers to improve public health services using the power of IT and e-commerce.
• Health systems management: Usage of e-commerce and e-business practices in health systems management.

OR

E-governance is the application of ICT for transferring various government services to the citizens of a country. The services are 24 x 7 and are not bounded by topography, e-governance has many benefits for the common people such as:

• The efficiency of the administration and service delivery has drastically improved by e-governance.
• Reduced waiting time is one of the benefits of e-governance.
• Citizens that benefit from a governance do so at a minimal cost or no cost at all.
  (Note: Write any two points)

Question 15.
Explain the <SRC> attribute of IMG tag. [2]
Answer:
SRC attribute of IMG tag is used to display an image on a page. The value of SRC attribute is the URL of the image which one wants to display. It stands for the source of the image.
Syntax:
<IMG SRC = “URL”>
URL is the path of directory where the image is stored.

Question 16.
What is permissive software license? [2]
OR
What is fraud? Explain its types.
Answer:
A permissive software license includes minimal requirements about how the software can be modified or redistributed. It is popular with free open source software.

OR

Fraud is deception intended to result in financial or personal gain of the fraudster and if committed over internet then it is referred to as online fraud. There are two types of fraud:

1. Phishing: It is the process of collecting someone’s personal information through email or website claiming to be legitimate.

2. Fraudulent pop-up window: The window pops up as advertisement that appears suddenly over or under the window you are currently viewing. It is usually to obtain personal information such as your email ID, phone number etc.

Question 17.
State the limitations of CSS. [2]
Answer:
1. It is not the same across different browsers: CSS is very limited in browser compatibility. When you design a webpage, you want it to display exactly as you like it. The problem with CSS is that it displays differently in different browsers.

2. It can easily be overridden: CSS is an open text based system with no security built in, and anyone with read/write access to a website can disrupt the formatting by changing the CSS files or altering the links in the webpages.

Question 18.
What does the term ‘hypertext’ mean in HTML? [2]
OR
How do we create a static webpage and a dynamic webpage?
Answer:
Hypertext is the method by which you move around on the web, that is by clicking on special text, called hyperlinks you will be transferred to another page.

OR

A static webpage is created using HTML technology while in order to create a dynamic webpage you require DHTML technology.

Related Theory:
Static webpages are one that are fixed and display the same content for every user.
A dynamic webpage, on the other hand, can display different content and provide user interaction.

Question 19.
What do you mean by a data cell? Name the table tag in HTML which is used to define a data cell. [2]
Answer:
Data cell is defined as a cell of a table that contains the data of the table. The data of a table cell is coded in HTML with the <TD> tag of the <table> tag. Here, <TD> stands for table data. The content in the table cell is by default normal and left aligned.

Section – C (12 Marks)

Question 20.
What are the limitations of online business? [3]
Answer:
Following are some limitations of online

• One cannot touch or feel the product, business: So it is difficult for the consumers to check the quality of a product. In addition the direct contact with sales person or merchant is also missing. This lacks humanity, credibility and trust with the customer.
• The same day delivery of the products is not possible. It takes few days depending on the distance. This delay time often discourages customers.
• There are some security issues. Credit card fraud and identity theft are two major frauds that are very common in online business.

Question 21.
Dr. Dheeraj a neurosurgeon at King’s Hospital in Cochin is very popular among his patients. Each day he sees almost hundreds of patients, so much so he hardly gets time to relax and sometimes even do not get time to have his lunch. Even though life is difficult, he enjoys his work to the fullest. Recently the Medical Council of India MCI wanted to facilitate him at Delhi by the President of India, for his selfless work and invited him. Being so busy he is unable to go to the airline’s booking office to book a ticket. Neither does he want to depend on a middleman. [3]
(A) Suggest a method by which he will be able to book a ticket without physically standing in a queue.
Answer:
Dr Dheeraj can use the e-reservation system to book an air ticket from the comfort of his own home.

(B) State an advantage and disadvantage of such a method.
Answer:
(1) Advantage: The Reservation is a ‘ real-time process for example, if you book a seat, it will automatically update it so no one else can take that very seat

(2) Disadvantage: Because of the need for exchanging sensitive personal data, such as home addresse and bank and credit card details, the online booking process is an attractive target for cyber criminals looking to steal this information.

OR

As life gets busy, it becomes difficult for everyone to keep track with school and college friends, colleagues, or neighbours and favourite teachers. It is important to keep in touch with all your near and dear ones. At times people sitting miles away doing similar kind of activity or solving similar kind of problems can help you achieve your goals faster by sharing their experiences with you. Similarly, people belonging to different socio-economic background can change your perspective and enhance your understanding of various cultures.
(A) Suggest the real time tools to set a suitable platform for the above mentioned activities.
Answer:
Real-time tools like Facebook, Twitter, WhatsApp, Instagram, etc. may be used for posting messages, chatting and video conferencing with your near and dear ones.

(B) What is the generic name used for such tools.
Answer:
The generic name used for such tools is social networking sites.

Question 22.
(A) Sagar wants to add a link clicking upon which it redirects to send mail to an email address instead of web page. Help him with explaining the code. [3]
Answer:
The [mail to: email address] along with href attribute in <a> tag creates a link that redirects to email address. It opens the default email client to send an email to the specified email address. The general format for creating an email link is as follows:
<a href = “mailto: [email protected]”>Send Email</a>

(B) You plan to create a table whose border thickness is 3 pixels, space between cells is 5 pixels and gap between cell and data is 7 pixels. What will be the code for it?
Answer:
<TABLE border= 3 cellspacing = 5 cellpadding = 7>

Related Theory:
CELLSPACING attribute is used to specify the space between cells in a table i.e., the distance between two cells.
CELLPADDING attribute is used to specify the space between the contents of a cell and its border. Both the values are given in pixels

OR

(A) Write the HTML code to create link for “https:www.britannica.com”.
Answer:
Code is as follows:

<html>
<body>
<a href = “https:\\www.britannica. com “>Encyclopedia</a>
</body>
</html>

(B) Simran has used Font-style property in her code. Name the values that can be provided to this property.
Answer:
Font-style property can have one of the three values: Normal, Italic and Oblique

Related Theory:
Italic and Oblique both refer to a slanted, or angled design but there is a difference between them. Italic forms are generally cursive in nature while oblique faces are typically sloped or slanted versions of the regular face.

Question 23.
What do you mean by E-shopping? Give three advantages of it. [3]
Answer:
E-Shopping is the process of buying goods and services over the internet

Advantages of E-Shopping:

• it is convenient to find a product on an online store as. compared to local market as shopper can search for the required product from the comforts of their homes/offices and that too at their own convenient time.
• Return policies and money back guarantee is available on most of the shopping sites.
• A large variety of product range is available to compare and choose from.
• Some sites also provide the facility of overseas shopping.

Section – D (4 Marks)

Question 24.
Write HTML code to generate a Web Page: [4]

SABKA BAZZAR LTD.
Shopping and fun under one roof!!!
We provide all brands under one roof with the guarantee of
quality & price. We also give free home delivery.
We provide the following categories:
1. Clothing

• Men
• Women
• Kids

2. Accessories
3. Household appliances
4. Grocery
5. Education

Special Note:

• Background color of the page is “green” and font style is “comic sans ms”.
• The font style for the subtitle is “Tahoma” in “maroon” color.
• Link color should be “blue” and visited Unk should be “green”.

OR

Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the specifications as given below. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Specification 1: Table Border should be 1.
Specification 2: The data in cells should be center aligned.
Specification: Attribute colspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 3: Attribute rowspan and colspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 4: The table should exactly contain same number of rows and columns as shown above.
Specification 5: The data in each cell should be as shown in the above table.
Answer:
The HTML code is:

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>SABKA BAZAAR LTD.
</TITLE> .
</HEAD>
<BODY bgcolor = “green” alink = “blue"
vlink = “green”>
<FONT face =“ comic sans ms”>
<H1><center> SABKA BAZAAR LTD. </centerx/Hl>
</FONT>
<FONT color = “maroon” face = “tahoma”>
<h2><center> shopping and fun under one roof !!!</center>
</h2>
</FONT>

We provide all brands under one roof with the guarantee of quality and price we also give free home delivery.
<P>
We provide the following categories:

<OL> type = “1”>
<LI> Clothing </LI>
<UL type = “disc”>
<LI> Men </LI>
<LI> Women </LI>
<LI> Kids </LI>
</UL>
<LI>Accessories </LI>
<LI>Household appliances</LI>
<LI>Grocery </LI>
<LI>Education </LI>
</OL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

<html>
<body>
<table border=”1">
<tr align = “center">
<td rowspan=”2”>Name</ td>
<td colspan="2”>Region</ td>
</tr>
<tr align =”center”> <td>City</td> <td>State</td>
</tr>
<tr align = “center”>
<td>Arun Sharma</td>
<td>lndore</td>
<td>Madhya Pradesh</td>
</tr>
<tr align = “center”>
<td>Jasmine</td>
<td>Jaipur</td>
<td>Rajasthan</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 25.
Saurabh has got a project to create a webpage that shows the most visited places of famous cities of India. Help him to complete the code with right statements in the blanks. Observe the webpage and attempt any four questions (out of 5) given after the web page.

Place to Visit

• Delhi
  (i) India Gate
  (ii) Qutub Minor
• I. Jaipur
  • Jantar Mantar
  • Amer Fort
• II. Agra
  (a) Taj Mahal
  (b) Red Fort

<HTML>
<BODY>
<B>Places to Visit</B>
<UL TYPE= > </- - Statement 1 - ->
<LI><B>DELHI</B> </LI>
<______ TYPE = "I"></- - Statement 2-->
<LI>lndia Gate</LI>
<LI>Qutub Minor</LI>
</OL>
</UL>
<OL______> <!- - Statement 3 - ->
<LI><B>JAIPUR</B></LI>
<UL TYPE=square>
<LI>Jantar Mantar</LI>
<LI>Amer Fort</U>
<______> </- - Statement 4 - ->
<LI><B>AGRA</Bx></LI>
<OL______> </- - Statement 5 - ->
<LI>Taj Mahal</LI>
<LI>Red Fort</LI>
</OL>
</OL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

(A) Write the correct attribute in statement – 1 to achieve the output given in the above web page. [1]
Answer:
disc

Explanation:
The type = “disc” attribute creates a bulleted list with discs as default bullets.

(B) Write the suitable tag for the blank given in statement – 2. [1]
Answer:
OL

Explanation:
The <OL> tag is used to create an ordered or numbered list

(C) Write the correct attribute for the blank given in statement – 3. [1]
Answer:
TYPE=T

Explanation:
The type = “I” attribute will create an ordered list with numbers as I, II, III

(D) Write an appropriate answer for blank in statement – 4. [1]
Answer:
/UL

Explanation:
The </UL> tag is the closing tag of <UL> tag which is used to create an unordered list.

(E) Write the suitable attribute for blank in statement – 5. [1]
Answer:
TYPE= “a”

Explanation:
The type = “a” attribute will create an ordered list with numbers as a, b, c, …….

Question 26.
Read the case study given below and attempt any four sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Sameer Malhotra is a Public Relations Officer in IDB Bank. His job responsibility is to make new customers for his bank. During work from home period, he made contacts with his customers on phone calls and by emails.

(A) Sameer can send email using his ………………………. . [1]
Answer:
Email Id

Explanation:
E-mail ID also known as email address is a unique identifier for an email account It is used to send and receive email messages over the Internet

(B) The customers usually mark such mails as spam. What is spam? [1]
Answer:
Spam is defined as irrelevant or unsolicited e-mails sent typically to a large number of users, for the purpose of advertising, phishing, spreading malware, etc.

(C) If any customer wants to download the mail sent by Sameer then it can be done from ………………………. [1]
Answer:
Mailbox

Explanation:
A mail box or inbox is the main folder that stores your incoming mail

(D) If Sameer wants to send the same promotional mail to multiple customers, then what should he do? [1]
Answer:
He can give multiple email addresses in ‘To’ field separated by comma.

(E) How can Sameer send a copy of same mail to his senior without letting the customers know about it? [1]
Answer:
He can give the email id of his senior in ‘Bcc’ field.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:

• This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
• All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30% is provided.
• Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
• Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
• Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
• Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
• Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04 marks each.

SECTION – A (12 Marks)
(All questions are compulsory)

Question 1.
It allows users to communicate by typing the messages instantly. [1]
(a) Mail room
(b) Message room
(c) Chat room
(d) Buddy room
Answer:
(c) Chat room

Explanation:
A chat room is a site on the internet where people can exchange messages about a particular subject.

Question 2.
An online discussion site where people can hold conversations in the form of posted messages: [1]
(a) Blog
(b) Forum
(c) Message board
(d) Chat room
Answer:
(b) Forum

Explanation:
An internet forum is an online discussion site where people can hold conversations in the form of posted messages. They differ from chat rooms. In forums participants with common interests can exchange open messages.

Question 3.
Which of the following is a demerit of Social media? [1]
(a) Bullying and trolling
(b) Peer pressure
(c) Attention seeking disorder
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation:

• Bullying and trolling: With the growing use of social networking sites the practice of bullying, defamation, harmful commenting and pranks have increased a lot. Such practices cause emotional trauma both for the victim and the ‘bully’.
• Peer pressure: Experts say that a majority of people on social networking sites are actually less than or greater than, but never equal to what they portray. This leads to consequences born out of jealousy and harmful reactions.
• Attention Seeking Disorders: People on social networking sites are getting addicted to seeking attention. Just to get attention these users will resort to any means and even fake serious illnesses.

Question 4.
Which of the following software is neither open nor freely available? [1]
(a) Freeware
(b) FOSS
(c) Proprietary software
(d) OSS
Answer:
(c) Proprietary software

Explanation:
Proprietary software is the software that is neither open nor freely available. Its use is regulated and further distribution and notification is either forbidden or requires special permission by the supplier or vendor. Source code of proprietary software is normally not available.

Question 5.
Which of the following attribute of the body tag is used to specify the amount of space to be left on the top side of the webpage? [1]
(a) TOPMARGIN
(b) TOPM
(c) TMARGIN
(d) MARGINTOP
Answer:
(a) TOPMARGIN

Related Theory:
The other attributes of <BODY> tag to set the margins are: RIGHTMARGIN, LEFTMARGIN and BOTTOMMARGIN.

Caution:
Some of the browsers support MARGINHEIGHT and MARGINWIDTH attributes.

Question 6.
A __________ is a web page that displays different content each time the page is opened. [1]
(a) Static web page
(b) Dynamic web page
(c) Home page
(d) Linked page
Answer:
(b) Dynamic web page

Explanation:
A dynamic web page is a page that may change with the time of day, with the user who accesses the web page or the type of user interaction.

Question 7.
Which of the following tag contains information about title, scripts used, document description etc? [1]
(a) <TITLE >
(b) <HEAD>
(c) <HTML>
(d) <BODY>
Answer:
(b) <HEAD>

Caution
<HEAD> tag is given under <HTML> tags.

Question 8.
Neha will utilise __________ tag in HTML to write 2 in in H2O. [1]
(a) <sub>
(b) <sup>
(c) <i>
(d) <b>
Answer:
(a) <sub>

Question 9.
What property would you use to convert the font from normal to italic? [1]
(a) Font-family
(b) Font-variant
(c) Font-style
(d) Font-weight
Answer:
(c) Font-style

Question 10.
A set of rules communication is: [1]
(a) Information
(b) Protocol
(c) HTML
(d) Email
Answer:
(b) Protocol

Question NO. 11 and 12 are Assertion and Reason types. Each question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason.

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : Text given between <!- -and – -> markup elements are called comments.
Reason (R) : Text given between <!–and – -> markup elements is not rendered by the web browser.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Explanation:
The text given between <! – – and – -> is called comment as it is ignored by the web browser and is not displayed on it.

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : There are three basic types of lists in HTML
Reason (R) : The numbered lists is called unordered list.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
The three types of lists in HTML are called ordered list, unordered list and definition list. Ordered list is the numbered list and unordered list is bulleted list.

SECTION – B (14 Marks)

Question 13.
What does a URL without https:// signify? [2]
Answer:
A URL without https:// or other URLs with only http signifies that you are connected to an insecure site and your private information can be Leaked.

Explanation:
Both HTTP and HTTPS protocols are used to transfer hypertext documents on the World Wide Web (WWW). HTTPS is used for sensitive information shared over the Internet, such as financial data, personaL detaiLs or bank detaiLs, Login id, password etc. For secure connection ensure that the address contains https and a pad lock sign with URL.

Question 14.
Geetika is looking for a new job. She has applied in many companies by sending her resume and application through emaiL She does not use the traditional mailing system. Enlist the advantages of email over traditional mailing system. [2]
OR
Chatting is a way to exchange messages over internet using a software. What are the other advantages of chatting?
Answer:
EmaiL has many advantages over traditionaL maiLing system. Some of them are as foLLows:

• An email is very fast. It is received and delivered within seconds from anywhere in the world.
• Email is very cheap means of communication as compared to other systems.
• Sending and receiving an email is very easy and convenient. Many types of files such as text files, audio, videos and images can be sent as an attachment through an email.
• Multiple copies of a message can be sent to a group of people. (Note: Write any two.)

OR

The advantages of chatting are as follows:

• Online chatting is a real time communication as if one is talking to other person faces to face.
• Multimedia files like audio, video etc. can be sent using instant messaging app.
• People can also chat in a group.
• It is a great tool to stay in contact with friends or family who may live far away or overseas.
• Chatting forums allow to meet new peopLe virtuaLLy whiLe in the comforts of one’s home. (Note: Write any two)

Question 15.
What is the difference between <FONT> and <BASEFONT> tags? [2]
Answer:
The <BASEFONT> tag is used to specify the base font for the document. This base font is appLied to the compLete document. Thus, when the <FONT> tag is not used, the attributes specified by the <BASEFONT> are shown by default. The font specified with the <BASEFONT> tag is applied through-out the page unless superseded by the <FONT> tag.

Question 16.
State two reasons for having security in a Computer System. [2]
OR
Name two types of laws that can help restrict software piracy.
Answer:
The reasons for having computer security are:

• It ensures data protection.
• It ensures that the computer performs well and gives accessibility to only authorised persons at any point of time.

OR

The two laws that can help restrict software piracy are:

• Trademark.
• Patent.

Question 17.
State any two properties related to the appearance of text in CSS. [2]
Answer:
The properties that controL the appearance of text on a webpage in CSS are:

• Text-indent.
• Text-align.
• Text-decoration.
• Word-spacing.
• Letter spacing.
• Text-transformation. (Note: Write any two points)

Question 18.
What are the various kinds of Style Rules available in CSS? [2]
OR
What are Headers? Write the header tag to display a level 2 heading “Computer” which should be center aligned. 2
Answer:
There are three different kinds of Style Rules avaiLabLe in CSS:

• Inline Styles
• Internal Styles
• External Style.

Explanation:

• Inline styles are embedded right within the HTML code they affect.
• Internal styles are placed within the header information of the web page and then affect all corresponding tags on the page.
• External styles are coded in a separate document, which is then referenced from within the header of the actual webpage.

OR
Headers allows us to give a heading to a page or headings to a new section or subsection of a page. The six header elements (H1 through H6) are used to provide headers in varied text sizes based on the header Level eg. <H2 ALIGN= “CENTER”> Computer </H2>

Question 19.
State what are the two types of Unking in HTML. [2]
Answer:
The two types of Linking avaiLabLe in HTML are:

• External Linking.
• Internal Linking.

Explanation: The ExternaL Linking Links two documents i.e. upon clicking a hyperlink, a new document, to which the hyperLink is Linked, gets opened. The Internal Linking Links various sections of the same document i.e. upon clicking a hyperlink, a different section of the same document becomes visible in the browser window.

Related Theory:
Hyperlink to another document can be made with the <A> tag and its href attribute, which defines the URL of the target document e.g. <A href =
“list.html”>. For internal linking you can use the <A> tag with its name or id attribute to identify a fragment and then you can use this value of name or id attribute for setting hyperlinks.

For e.g. the name to a section can be set up by using a statement like
<A name = “section1″> Section 1</A>
Later a link to this named section can be set up by giving a command like
<A href = “#section1″> Go to Section 1</A>

SECTION – C (12 Marks)

Question 20.
Mr Gobind Sharma is a retailer at Thiruvananthapuram. He works as a chemist and does brisk business. The only problem he faces is that when he wants to make payments to the distributors from whom he gets the stock. He usually needs to visit the State Bank of India, ICICI Bank or Axis Bank to make money transfers, as the accounts of his distributors are in these banks. [3]
(A) Suggest a method by which he can make such fund transfers from the comfort of his home.
Answer:
Mr Gobind Sharma may use e-Banking for the transfer of money to different banks from the comfort of his home.

(B) What are the different methods of such money transfers?
Answer:
The different modes of inter-bank money transfers are:

• National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT).
• Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)

(C) State two disadvantages of the method that can be used.
Answer:
Disadvantages of e-Banking:

• e-banking is not always secure. Identity theft is running uncontrolled, and banks are in no way, resistant to it, and once your information is compromised, it can take months or even years to correct the damage.
• There are many fake banking sites which are doing the rounds on the internet which are not affiliated to the Reserve Bank of India and are robbing people of their money.

Question 21.
A URL or a web address is divided into different parts and each part or component is separated by ‘/’ symboL Explain the components of URL by giving an example. [3]
Answer:
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator. It is the address or location of a web page on Internet. A URL consists of three parts:
type://address/path Consider the following URL http://www.myweb.com/homepage.php In the given URL various parts are as follows:

• http is the type of protocol
• www.myweb.com is the domain name or IP address of the server on the Internet.
• homepage.php is the location or path of the file on the server.

Question 22.
Write the HTML code to display an image on the left side of the page. [3]
OR
Write the HTML code to display a table with a border of 5px.
Answer:

<HTML>
<BODY>
<IMG SRC= "image.jpg" ALIGN= "left">
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

<HTML>
<BODY>
<TABLE BORDER= "5">
<TR> <TD> 1 < /TD > < /TR>
<TR><TD>2</TD></TR>
</TABLE>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 23.
What is e-governance? Give one advantage and one disadvantage of the same. [3]
OR
Write a code in HTML to generate the folllowing table. Consider the specifications as given below. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.
Answer:
E-governance is the application of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) for delivering various government services (like G2G, G2B and G2C) to the citizens and also helps in interaction within the entire government framework.

Advantage: e-governance programs have improved the efficiency of administration and service delivery all around the country. Disadvantage: People living in rural and remote areas can not benefit from the e-governance initiatives because of lack of computerization in these areas.

Related Theory:
Full forms of:

• G2G stands for Government to Government service.
• G2B stands for Government to Business service.
• G2C stands for Government to Customer service.

SECTION – D (4 Marks)

Question 24.
Observe the following table and write the HTML code to generate it: [4]

OR
Write a code in HTML to generate the folllowing table. Consider the specifications as given below. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Seasonal Fruits
Summer	Winter
Mango	Orange
Water Melon	Apple

Specification 1: The background colour of the table should be yellow.
Specification 2: The value of the border attribute should be 1.
Specification 3: First two rows should be header rows and their background colour should be cyan.
Specification 4: Rest of the rows should be body rows with grey background. Specification 5: The web page should exactly contain text as shown in the above image.
Answer:

<HTML>
<Head>
<Title>Table Painting</Title>
</Head>
<Body>
<TabLe Border= "3" ALign= "Center" BordercoLor= "BLue"> <Caption>Painting Hub</ Caption>
<Tr>
<Td Rowspan=
"5">A<Br>R<Br> T <Br> I <Br> S<Br>T<Td>
<Td CoLspan=
"3">Painting</Td>
</Tr>
<Tr>
<Th>Name</Th>
<Th>Qty.</Th>
<Th>Price</Th>
</Tr>
<Tr>
<Td>OiL Painting</Td> <Td>5</Td>
<Td>' 5000</Td>
</Tr>
<Tr>
<Td>GLass Painting</Td> <Td>3</Td>
<Td>' 6000</Td>
</Tr>
<Tr>
<Td>Canvas</Td>
<Td>6</Td>
<Td>' 7000</Td>
</Tr>
</TabLe>
</Body>
</HtmL>

(ii)

<htmL>
<head>
<titLe> Fruits </titLe>
</head>
<body>
<tabLe border=1 bgcolor = yelLow> <thead bgcoLor = cyan>
<tr>
<td coLspan ="2" >
SeasonaL Fruits </td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Summer</td>
<td>Winter</td>
</tr>
</thead>
<tbody bgcoLor = grey>
<tr>
<td>Mango</td>
<td>Orange</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Water MeLon</td> <td>AppLe</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Kiwi</td>
<td>Guava</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</tabLe>
</body>
</html>

SECTION – E (8 Marks)

Question 25.
Gaurav has started a cloud kitchen. He wants to create a web page for his new venture to display the food items available in his kitchen. Help him to complete the code with right statements in the blanks. Observe the webpage and attempt any four questions (out of 5) given after the web page.

<HTML>
<……….> <!- -Statement 1 – ->
<TITLE> Food Menu </TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<B>Menu</B>
< …….TYPE=disc> <!- -Statement 2- ->
<LI> <B> Veg. </B> </U>
<OL =i> . <!- -Statement 3- ->
<LI>Yellow Dal</LI>
<LI>Shahi Paneer</LI>
</OL>
<LlxB>Non Veg.</Bx/U>
<OL………..> <!- -Statement 4- ->
<LI>Butter Chicken </U>
<LI>Mutton Korma</U>
</OL >
<………> <!- -Statement 5- ->
</BODY>
</HTML>

(A) Write the correct tag in statement -1 to achieve the output given in the above web page. [1]
Answer:
<head>

Explanation:
HTML document starts with the tag <htmL>. It is the root element and it is a container for whoLe HTML document.

(B) Write the suitable tag for the blank given in statement – 2. [1]
Answer:
<UL>

Explanation:
To create a buLLeted List in HTML <UL> tag is used.

(C) Write the correct attribute for the blank given in statement – 3. [1]
Answer:
TYPE

Explanation:
In an ordered List, the TYPE attribute is used to define the type of number format.

(D) Write an appropriate answer for blank in statement – 4. [1]
Answer:
Type = “a”

Explanation:
The Type = “a” attribute with <OL> tag wiLL dispLay numbered List with Letters a, b, c, …

(E) Write the suitable tag for blank in statement – 5. [1]
Answer:
</UL>

Explanation:
In nested List, the sequence of ending a List is just reverse of their starting. The one which started first wiLL end Latter. </ UL> is the ending tag of <UL> tag which is used to create an unordered List.

Question 26.
Read the case study given below and attempt any four sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Zeenat is a 65 year old retired teacher. Her son Zaid bought a new smart phone for her. He taught her mother how to operate a smart phone and aiso what other internet services she can use from her mobile.
(A) Zaid booked flight tickets online for Zeenat. This is called …………. . [1]
Answer:
E-reservation

Explanation:
E-reservation is a process of booking tickets, hoteL rooms, tourist packages etc.

(B) In her spare time, Zeenat uses online service that provides a place for users to communicate in real time. This is called ……….. . [1]
Answer:
Chat room

Explanation:
Chat rooms are Web sites or programs that aLLow peopLe to send text messages to one another in real time. The chat room works as a virtual room, where groups of people send messages that others can read promptly.

(C) Zeenat wants to online search her old friends. Suggest any three websites that could be helpful for her. [1]
Answer:
Facebook, Pipl, and Yahoo search.

Related Theory:
The web sites that facilitate social networking are known as social sites or social media.The web based social media applications are used to build connections with friends, relatives, clients etc.

(D) Zaid has started an online course. Name any two websites that provide online courses. [1]
Answer:
Udemy and Coursera

Related Theory:
E-learning is conducted on Internet where students can access their study material online. It can be done at any place and at any time.

(E) Zeenat wants to explore more on her new mobile phone by doing online purchasing. Suggest any two sites that she can use for the same. Consider the following webpage and write an HTML code to generate it. [1]
Answer:
amazon.com, flipkart.com

Related Theory:
e-shopping or online shopping is the process of buying goods and services online.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:

• This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
• All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30% is provided.
• Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
• Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
• Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
• Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
• Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04 marks each.

Section – A (12 Marks)
(All questions are compulsory)

Question 1.
Examples like online email account, trademarks, own registered domain etc can be termed as: [1]
(a) Digital identity
(b) Online identity
(c) Private identity
(d) Digital property
Answer:
(d) Digital Property

Explanation:
Digital property refers to any information about you or created by you that exists in digital form, either online or on an electronic storage device

Related Theory:
There are many threats to digital property. The first one is digital software penetration tools. These are created by hackers to penetrate into software’s registration system and enable unauthorized users to freely access the software. Second one is stealing and plagiarizing codes of your digital properties. In other words they steal your software’s source code and use it to build their own version of it and sell it under a different name.

Question 2.
Each computer over a network is identified by: [1]
(a) HTTP
(b) TELNET
(c) IP address
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(c) IP address

Explanation:
An IP (Internet Protocol) address is a special unique number assigned to each device connected to a computer network.

Question 3.
For email communication we use: [1]
(a) HTTP
(b) IP
(c) POP
(d) SMTP and POP
Answer:
(d) SMTP and POP

Explanation:
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is responsible to send and distribute outgoing emails whereas POP (Post Office Protocol) receives incoming emails

Question 4.
The full form of HTTP is: [1]
(a) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
(b) High Text Transfer Protocol
(c) Higher Text Transmission Protocol
(d) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
Answer:
(d) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

Related Theory:
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is a set of rules for transferring hypertext (?.e. text, graphic, image, sound video etc). The http generally works in combination with www.

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a HTML editor? [1]
(a) Apache Beans
(b) Notepad
(c) CoffeeCup
(d) BlueJ
Answer:
(d) BlueJ

Explanation:
An HTML editor is a tool for editing or evaluating code in hypertext markup language.

Question 6.
Consider the following code: [1]
<body bgcolor= “red” text= “white”>
What effect it will be it’s effect on the web page?
(a) The web page’s background will appear in red and text will appear in white colour.
(b) The background of a paragraph will appear in red and text will appear in white colour.
(c) The heading text will appear in red and paragraph text will appear in white colour.
(d) The background of the webpage will appear in white and text will appear
Answer:
(a) The web page’s background will appear in red and text will appear in white colour.

Explanation:
The attribute BGCOLOR defines the colour of the background and TEXT attribute defines the colour of the text of the webpage.

Question 7.
To make the bulLet style as a square in an unordered list the ……………… attribute is given. [1]
(a) TYPE = “square”
(b) START = “square”
(c) BULLET = “square”
(d) MARK = “square”
Answer:
(a) TYPE = “square”

Explanation:
The TYPE attribute of <UL> tag specifies the bullet style. The values for TYPE attribute are: square, disc and circle.

Question 8.
<body>……..</body> is a ………………. type of element. [1]
(a) Formatting
(b) Structural
(c) Empty
(d) None of above
Answer:
(b) Structural

Related Theory:
Structural tags in HTML are used to create a basic structure of web page.

Question 9.
The first page on a website that allows you to navigate to other pages via menu system or links is known as: [1]
(a) First page
(b) Primary page
(c) Front page
(d) Home page
Answer:
(d) Home page

Question 10.
Garvit wants to send an e-mail to his manager. Which of the following is required to send an e-mail? [1]
(a) IP address
(b) E-mail id
(c) Domain name
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) E-mail id

Question No. 11 and 12 are Assertion and Reason types. Each question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Attribute is a special word that specifies additional information for the tag.
Reason (R): Attribute is used inside all the HTML tags.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Attribute is a special word that specifies additional information to tag. These are optional inside the tags. All the tags do not have attributes.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): The colour of the background of a web page cannot be changed.
Reason (R): The attribute BACKGROUND is used to add an image in the background of the webpge.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
The background of a webpage can be changed. The attribute BGCOLOR is used to change the background colour and the attribute BACKGROUND is used to add an image to the background of the webpage. These attributes are given with <BODY> tag.

Section B (14 marks)

Question 13.
What is a web portal? [2]
Answer:
A web portal is a specially designed webpage that provides information from various sources on one platform. It is a personalised and categorised library that helps in search, navigation, personalisation, notifications and information integration.

Related Theory:
A web portal is a type of website but it differs in content and services from a typical website. A website provides only specialized information and links to sites about other related information where as a web portal is linked to many other websites that provide the web services like email, gaming etc It is a gateway for using the offered web services.

Question 14.
Suhana is a reporter in a news agency. Her job demands her to travel to different parts of the country and give information back to the office. What type of internet connection would you suggest to her to send this information in minimum time and why would you suggest the same? [2]
OR
State the significance of an IP address in a network.
Answer:
Suhana should make use of a broadband connection to send the required information back to her office in minimum time. She should make use of a broadband connection because it is the fastest way to connect and communicate over the internet. It commonly reaches to a speed of hundred mbps.

Related Theory:
Broadband connection: It requires a modem, it has a faster internet download speed. They are mostly used at home now. Indian ISP that provides broadband connections are reliance communications, BSNL MTNL

OR

An IP address has a four set of numbers separated by a period that identifies each computer using the internet to communicate over a network. Each of the four numbers can range from 0 to 255 an internet protocol address governs online communication by identifying both initiating devices and various internet destinations, thereby making two¬way communication possible between the two devices.

Question 15.
Write the purpose of name and href attributes of <a> tag. [2]
Answer:
The name tag attribute defines a name of a section or segment in the same document. For example:
<A NAME = <“Segmentl”> Segment 1 </A> and the “href” attribute defines the URL of the target segment or location or page for example:-
<A href = “segment1”> Link to Segment 1</ A>
<A href = “http://www.agrawalgroup.com”> Books </A>

Question 16.
What are the features of intellectual property rights? [2]
OR
What are the guidelines that one should follow in order to avoid plagiarism?
Answer:
Following are the features of intellectual property rights:

• It encourages people to create new softwares as well as help them to improve the existing applications.
• An environment is provided for the innovative thoughts and technologies.
• Provides a surety of return, people and businesses invest in the national economy.

OR

Following are some of the guidelines that one should follow in order to avoid plagiarism:

• Instead of copying the language of the book as it is, try to put it in your own words.
• One should have a clear understanding about plagiarism and its consequences so that no one may perform it unintentionally.
• If copying someone else’s work, word to word is necessary, then do not forget to enclose it within quotes and also mention its source.
• Another way is to credit the author who has written the information that you require and personally not taking any credit for it
  (Note: Write any two points.)

Question 17.
Write correct code to set the background colour of web page as yellow in CSS? [2]
Answer:
{body {background-coloryellow;}

Question 18.
The following code is written to align the image in centre in the browser’s window. However, the desired result is not achieved. Mention the reason for the same. [2]
<img src = “image.jpg” align =“center”>
OR
Why is the align attribute used in HTML?
Answer:
The reason for not getting the desired result is that ‘Centre” is not a value of the ALIGN attribute in the <IMG> tag.

Explanation:
The align attribute in <IMG> tag is used for inline HTML image alignments. The valid attribute values are: left, right, top, middle and bottom

Related Theory:
The <IMG> tag in HTML is used to insert images. Its source is specified using src attribute, alternate text with alt attribute, alignment with align attribute andsize with height and width attributes.
OR
The align attribute specifies the alignment of an <object> element according to the surrounding element where <object> is an inline element

Related Theory:
An inline element such as images are the elements that display in line With the text i.e. the specified element is loaded separately and placed into the text flow as if the element or image were the special character.

Question 19.
What are the limitations of HTML? [2]
Answer:
The limitations of HTML are:

• Complex designing cannot be accomplished through HTML pages.
• Heavy interactive forms and dynamic pages are a challenge to be created using HTML
• It has no programming capabilities. (Note: Write any one point)

Section – C (12 marks)

Question 20.
Privacy is the protection of personal information given online. In e-commerce especially it is related to a company’s policies on the use of user data.
Why is the above given statement important? What is the need to safeguard user privacy? [3]
Answer:
It is important for the safeguard of user privacy online. The online world is an open world and thus the personal information of a user must not be available openly, as it may be misused. Thus, it is very important and highly recommended to safeguard user privacy.

Question 21.
(A) What is a search engine? When using a search engine. [3]
Answer:
Search engine is a website that provides the required data on the specific content that is searched. It allows users to enter keywords related to particular topics and retrieve information.

(B) What does a minus sign used with keywords in the search box mean?
Answer:
The – in front of a word or a phrase , means that the search must include the first term but not the second term.

(C) What are the disadvantages of e-learning?
Answer:
Like everything e-learning also has its pros and cons, few of its disadvantages are as follows:

• It has been seen that learners with low motivation or bad study habits may fall behind.
• Learners who are more used to the traditional teaching methods may get lost or confused about course activities and deadlines.

Question 22.
Write the HTML code to set the image “penjpg” stored in “My Pictures” folder in C:\ as the background of the page. [3]
OR
Write the CSS code to display the quote of the day. The heading “QUOTE OF THE DAY” should be in HI tag form and the actual quote should be in P tag form.
Quote of the Day It is never too late to start over. If you weren’t happy with yesterday, try something different today.
Answer:
The code is:

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> lmage</TITLE> </HEAD>
<B0DY background = “C:\My Pictures\penjpg">
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

The CSS file of the above page is:
HI {color : Red; font-family : “Times New Roman” Serif font-variant: small-caps; font size : 30 px;}
P{ color : Red; font-family : Arial, Verdana, Sans-serif font-style : italic; font weight – Normal; font-size: 1cm;}

Question 23.
What are the hazards associated with social negtworking? [3]
Answer:
The hazards associated with social networking are as follows:
1. Lack of anonymity: social networking usually requires you to input your name, location, age, gender and many other types of personal information that is publicly available.

2. Scams and harassment: being online you are at a risk of facing cases of harassment, cyber stalking, online scams and identity theft.

3. Time consuming: if you are new to social networking, learning the process can be very time-consuming,

4. Illusion of security: The Internet is definitely not as secure as human hackers can hack one’s personal account very easily.
(Note: Write any three points.)

Section – D (4 Marks)

Question 24.
Observe the following web page and write the HTML code to generate it. [4]

National e-Governance Plan

The National e-Govemance Plan of Indian Government seeks to lay the foundation and provide the impetus for long-term growth of e-Governance within the country. The plan seeks to create the right governance and institutional mechanism, set up the core infrastructure and policies and implement a number of Mission Mode Projects at the center, state and integrated service levels to create a citizen-centric and business-centric environment for governance. Visit National e-Governance plan to know more about: 1. Central MMP’s 2. Implementation 3. Components

For enquiries Mail to Us

Note:

• Background color of the page is yellow.
• Link color is black and the visited link color is green.
• Font style for the page is ‘arial’.
• Heading of the page is “maroon”.
• Image used is ‘govjpg’.
• Text color of the paragraph is ‘Red’.
• Link for ‘National e-Governance Plan is ‘nation.html’.
• Email Id for the bottom message is ‘[email protected]’.
• Title of the webpage is “Plan”.

OR

Consider the following webpage and write an HTML code to generate it. Consider the above web page and write a code in HTML to generate it. Consider the specifications as given below. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Useful Links:

• Online shopping with Amazon
• Order your food on Zomato
• Send gifts Ferns on Petals
• Book vour movie ticket Book My Show

Specification 1: Heading of the web page should be “Useful Links”.
Specification 2: The heading “Useful Links” should be first level heading.
Specification 3: The web page should contain text exactly as shown in the above image. The words underlined are supposed to be hyperlinks for their respective websites. Specification 4: All hyperlinks should be marked as bulleted lists as shown in the given image.
Specification 5: The title of the page should be ‘Links in List’.
Answer:
The code is:

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> Plan </TITLE> </HEAD>
<BODY bgcolor = “yellow" link = “black” vlink - “green”2,
<FONT FACE= “ARIAL" COLOR
= “MAROON">
<H2 ALIGN = “CENTER”>
National e-Governance Plan
</H2></FONT>
<HR>
<FONT FACE = “ARIAL COLOR = “RED”>
<IMG SRC = “gov.jpg” height = “100" Width = “100” align = “right”>

The National e-Governance Plan of Indian Government seeks to lay the foundation. and provide the impetus for long – term growth of e-Governance within the country. The plan, seeks to create the right. governance and institutional mechanism, set up the core infrastructure and policies and implement a number of Mission Mode Projects at the center, state and integrated service levels to create a citizen centric and business-centric environment for governance.

</FONT>
<P>
<FONT FACE = “ARIAL” SIZE= “2">
<B> Visit . <A HREF = "nation .html”> National e-Governance Plan
</A> to know more about: </B>
<OL type = “1’>
<LI> Central MM P's = </LI>
<LI> Implementation </LI>
<LI> Components </ Ll>
</OL>
<HR>
<FONT SIZE = “2”>
<CENTER> for enquiries <A HREF = “abc@xyz. com’’>Mail to Us </A></ CENTER>
</FONT>
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

<html>
<head>
<title>Links in Lists</title>
</head>
<body>
<hl> Useful Links</hl>
<ul>
<li>Online shopping with <a
href=”http://www.amazon.
in’’>Amazon</ax/li>
<li>Orderyourfood on <a href=
“http://www.zomato.com”>
Zomato</ax/li>
<li>Send gifts <a href="http:// www.fnp.com”>Ferns n Petals </ax/li>
<li>Book your movie ticket <a
href= “http://www.book my show.com”>Book My Show</
a></li>
</ul>
</body>
</html>

Section – E (8 Marks)

Question 25.
Shikha is a career counselor in an academic institution. She wants to create a form for institute’s website, to collect student’s information. Help her to complete the code with right statements in the blanks. Observe the webpage and attempt any four questions (out of 5) given after the web page.

<html>
<body>
<hl>Admission Form</hl>
<form action = "" ____________ =
“post">
<!- Statement 1 ->
Name: <input ____________ = "text”
id="name">
<!- Statement 2 ->
<br>
Address: < ____________ rows = 5 cols =
25 name = “address"> < ! -
Statement 3 ->
Enter address here</textarea>
<br>
Gender: <input type = ____________ name
= “gen" value = “male"/>Male <!
- Statement 4 ->
<input type = “radio" name = “gen"
value = “female"/>Female
<br>
<____________ type = “submit">Submit</
button> <!- Statement 5 ->
</form>
</body>
</html>

(A) Write the correct tag in statement – 1 to achieve the output given in the above web page. [1]
Answer:
Method

Explanation:
The METHOD attribute specifies how to send form data. The form data can be sent as URL variables with method=”get” or as HTTP post transaction with method=”post”.

(B) Write the suitable attribute for the blank given in statement -2. [1]
Answer:
Type

Explanation:
The TYPE attribute specifies the type of input element used in the form. Type = “text” will create a text box on the webpage.

(C) Write the correct tag for the blank given in statement – 3. [1]
Answer:
Textarea

Explanation:
The <Textarea> element is used to create a multiple-line text input control.

(D) Write an appropriate answer for blank in statement – 4. [1]
Answer:
Radio

Explanation:
The Type = “radio” is used to create radio button. These are used when only one option is required to be selected out of multiple options.

(E) Write the suitable tag for blank in statement – 5. [1]
Answer:
Button

Explanation:
The <Button> element is used to create various buttons. The value of TYPE attribute can be given as “Submit” or “Reset”.

Question 26.
Read the case study given below and attempt any 4 sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Aradhya is a faculty in well known IT college where she teaches Network Engineering. Today’s lecture is on protocols.
(A) Garima, a student in Aradhya’s class wants to know that what does ‘S’ stands for in HTTPS? [1]
Answer:
Secure.

Explanation:
The full form of HTTPS is Hypertext Transfer Protocol secuse. HTTPS works with SSL (secuse soket layer) and ensures the safety of text/ information being transferred on www.

(B) Aradhya is downloading an image from the internet. Which protocol is being used? [1]
Answer:
FTP

Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files from one system to the other.

(C) …………………. protocol establishes communication between browser and the web server. [1]
Answer:
HTTP

Explanation:
HTTP is a communication protocol. It is also called request and response protocol because the communication between browser and server takes place in request and response pairs

(D) Shagun, a student in her class wants to Know the full form of POP. [1]
Answer:
Post Office Protocol

Explanation:
POP is a standard mail protocol used to receive emails from a remote server to a local email client.

(E) Aradhya told her students that ……………………. protocol provides end-to-end communication. [1]
Answer:
TCP/IP

Explanation:
TCP/IP is a set of standard rules that allows different types of computers to communicate with each other. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) specifies how data is exchanged over the internet and how it should be broken into packets. These packets have the information about the source and destination of the message data. The IP (Internet Protocol) ensures that each computer that is connected to the Internet is having a specific serial number called the IP address.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:

• This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
• All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30% is provided.
• Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
• Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
• Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
• Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
• Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04 marks each.

SECTION – A (12 Marks)
(All questions are compulsory)

Question 1.
A service that offers a broad array of resources such as email, forums, search engines etc.: [1]
(a) Web portal
(b) Web browser
(c) Website
(d) Server
Answer:
(a) Web portal

Related Theory:
A web portal is also a type of website but it differs in content and services from a typical website that provides only specialized information and links to sites about them. A web portal is a launch pad to a host of web based services such as email, shopping, gaming, news and so on.

Question 2.
Which of the following are services provided by a server? [1]
(a) Resource sharing
(b) Centralized file saving
(c) Centralized backups
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation:

• Resource Sharing: resources Like printers and photocopiers are often designed to connect directly to a network and all authorized users can share the equipment.
• Centralized backups: high capacity tape devices in the file server backup all users’ work. In case of system failure lost work can be recovered quickly and easily.

Question 3.
Each computer connected to the Internet always has a: [1]
(a) Pentium machine
(b) Unique IP address
(c) Web browser
(d) Modem connection
Answer:
(b) Unique IP address.

Explanation:
An Internet Protocol address or IP address is a numerical label assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the Internet for communication.

Related Theory:
An IP address serves two main functions: It acts as a host or network interface identification and for location addressing of the computer.

Question 4.
The intellectual property cannot be safeguarded by: [1]
(a) Copyright
(b) Trademark
(c) Patent
(d) Lock
Answer:
(d) Lock

Related Theory

• Copyright: If refers ta the LegaL right of the owner of intellectual property. The originaL creators of products and anyone they give authorization to are the only ones with the exclusive right to reproduce the work.
• Trademark: It is a type of intellectual property consisting of a recognizable size, design or expression which identifies products or services of a particular source from those of others.
• Patent: It grants the legal right to exclude anyone else from the manufacturing or marketing your unique tangible things.

Question 5.
______ tag is used to add list item. [1]
(a) <UL>
(b) <OL>
(c) <DT>
(d) <LI>
Answer:
(d) <LI>

Explanation:
The <LI> tag is used to add list item in ordered and unordered lists.

Question 6.
Which one is the correct code to display the title of the web page “MyWebpage”? [1]
(a) <HEAD> My Webpage</HEAD>
(b) <H1> My Webpage</H1>
(c) <TITLE> My Webpage</TITLE>
(d) <HTML> My Webpage</HTML>
Answer:
(c) <TITLE>MyWebpage </TITLE>

Question 7.
Consider the following statements and select the correct code for it. [1]
HTML code to set the left margin of webpage as 50 and top margin as 75
(a) cbody leftmargin = “50” topmargin = “75”>
(b) <body Imargin = “50” tmargin =”75”>
(c) <p leftmargin = “50” topmargin = “75”>
(d) <p Imargin = “50” tmargin = “75”>
Answer:
(a) cbody left margin = “50”> topmargin = “75”>

Related Theory:
<body> is a container element and defines the document’s body.

Caution
Leftmargin and topmargin are obsolete in HTMLS. CSS is used instead.

Question 8.
In URL, http://www.educart.net/pr/main. html, which component identifies the protocol or type of the server [1]
(a) http
(b) www.educart.net
(c) /pr/main.html
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) http

Explanation:
http protocol provides hypertext/ hypermedia files i.e. Multimedia documents that contain links, images, sounds or other multimedia documents on the World Wide Web.

Question 9.
Which of the following is not an example of e-governance? [1]
(a) applying for passport online.
(b) Sending email to your friend.
(c) Enquiring about the status of other applications.
(d) Filing your income tax online.
Answer:
(b) Sending email to your friend.

Related Theory:
E-governance can be defined as an application of electronic means to provide government services to citizens at affordable costs and in least possible time. It includes exchange of information, transactions, integration of previously existing services and information portals.

Question 10.
What is the correct syntax to change the text colour in a paragraph? [1]
(a) {p: color=blue;}
(b) p {color: blue;}
(c) {p; color:black;}
(d) P: color=black
Answer:
(b) p {color: blue;}

Question NO. 11 and 12 are Assertion and Reason types. Each question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason.

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : The attributes are used inside the tag.
Reason (R) : The characteristics of a tag are described by an attribute.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
The attributes are additional information about the tag that are used to define the characteristics or features of the text or object enclosed within the tag.

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : <A> tag is called an anchor tag.
Reason (R) : <A> tag is used to add images into the document.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
<A> tag is called an anchor tag and it is used to create hyperlinks within the web page and to another webpage.

Section – B (14 Marks)

Question 13.
Name and state any two major e-governance projects in India. [3]
Answer:
Following are two of the major e-governance projects in India:

• MCA 21, India’s G2B Services Portal: The MCA 21 project provides stakeholders with convenient and secure online access to all services provided by the Ministry of Company Affairs, along with key services that can be availed through the MCA 21 portaL
• Consular Passport and VISA Division Indian Passport Office: It is a division of the Ministry of External Affairs. It is an executive agency of the Government of India which is responsible for issuing Indian Passports.

Question 14.
State the benefits of e-Learning. [3]
OR
Name and state two application areas of e-learning.
Answer:
The major benefits of e-learning are as follows:

• Reduced overall cost It’s less expensive to produce. It is virtually free once the break-even point is reached.
• e-Learning is self, directed and self-paced- Learners control the amount of time they spend on any particular topic thereby controlling the speed of course coverage.
• e-Learning is interactive and hands-on: The use of a variety of multimedia in e-learning increases student involvement and reinforces the learning experience.
• e-Learning is flexible: Learning can take place anytime and anywhere, as long as all the necessary equipment is accessible. (Note: write any two points.)

OR

Some common application areas of e-learning are as follows:

• e-Learning courseware: This type of e-learning involves courses related to specific syllabus which is part of the formal education system.
• e-classroom: This e-learning setup simulates a classroom by involving class activities like class assignments, class discussions, etc.

Question 15.
What do you mean by inline images in HTML? [3]
Answer:
Inline image means an image that is displayed in line with the text i.e., the specified image is loaded separately and placed into the text flow as a special character.

Question 16.
State the difference between Public Domain Software and Proprietary Software. [3]
OR
State two ways through which one can avoid Plagiarism.
Answer:

Public Domain Software	Proprietary Software
It is a free software and can be used without restrictions. Public Domain Software by its very nature is outside the scope of copyright and licensing.	This software is neither free nor it is available for the public. There is a proper license attached to it. The user has to purchase the license in order to use this software.

OR
In order to avoid Plagiarism one must follow the following points:

• One must give credit whenever we use another person’s idea, opinion or theory.
• One must give credit whenever we use another person’s quotations or actual spoken or written words.

Question 17.
List some advantages of using CSS. [3]
Answer:
Advantages of using CSS are:

• CSS controls the layout of many documents in one single style sheet.
• It applies different layouts to different media types.
• It has numerous advanced and sophisticated techniques to be applied on web pages (Note: Write any two points.)

Question 18.
Explain the width attribute of <table> tag. [3]
OR
What is the structure of an anchor element?
Answer:
The width attribute is used to set the appropriate width of the table. The values in the width attribute can either be in pixels or in percentage of the browser window.
OR
Anchor element is abbreviated as<A>. The <A> tag requires the HREF (Hypertext Reference) attribute. HREF requires a URL to be specified after an equal to (=) sign. The URL is written inside double quotes.
Example:
<A HREF = “URL”> Click me </A>

Question 19.
Describe any two values of rules attributes? [3]
Answer:
The values that can be specified for rules attribute are as follows:

• None: no rules are drawn or hides all interior borders.
• Groups: rules are drawn between row groups and column groups.
• Rows: rules are drawn between rows only.
• Cols: rules are drawn between columns only.
• All rules are drawn between all rows and all columns. (Note: write any two points.)

Section – C (12 Marks)

Question 20.
Define Privacy and Consumer Consent. [3]
Answer:
Privacy means the protection of personal information given online while carrying out some online activity or transaction. In e-commerce especially it is related to a company’s policies on the use of user data. Consumer consent means that the consumer is given a choice to decide what personal information of the consumer can or cannot be used by the company for commercial purposes.

Question 21.
Mrs. Neena is a lawyer at a big company in New York, who is always on the move and hardly gets time to with catch up [3]
(A) Suggest Neena a method by which she would be able to connect to her friends without compromising her work.
Answer:
Mrs Neena may use the Social Networking Websites for connecting with her friends and cousins.

(B) Suggest some examples of such sites.
Answer:
Examples of some social networking sites are: Myspace, Friendwise, Friendfinder, Yahoo! 360, Facebook, Instagram and Classmates.

Question 22.
(A) One of your old friends wants to trade the home page links of his website. How do you put a link to his page at http://www.fashiontoday. com/~stylezhub/on your page? [3]
(B) You plan to create a table whose border thickness is 3 pixels, space between cells is 5 pixels and gap between cell and data is 7 pixels. What will be the code for it?
OR
(A) Shreya wants to define CSS property to change the border. She wants the border to be double lined , 5 pixels thick and red in colour. Give a compiled code for required border settings.
(B) Garvit is creating a website for a writer to showcase his stories and articles. He wants to show complete text in italics and indent the first line of all the paragraphs by 10 pixels. Write the CSS property for him.
Answer:
(A) <a href=” http://www.fashiontoday. com/- stylezhub/ “> Try trendy clothes on Stylez Hub</a>

Related Theory:
The anchor tag <A> is used to create links along with HREF attribute, e.g. <A href = “main.html” > Goto main </A>

(B) <TABLE border = 3 cellspacing = 5 cellpadding = 7>

OR

(A) {border: 5px double red;}

Related Theory:
To change all the border settings you can compile all the properties into one using border property. The syntax is as follows:
{Border: thickness <space> border style <space> predefined_border_colour_name;}

(B) p {font-style: italic; text-indent: 1 Opx;}

Explanation:
Font-style property is used to make the text italic/ oblique/ normal Text- indent property is used to indent the first line.

Question 23.
Means of communication have evolved a lot in the past few years as an increasing number of people today rely on emails to communicate with each other rather than using traditiona’ means such as fox, telephone or post. State any three advantages using e-mail over postal mail. [3]
Answer:
The advantages of using e-mail as over post postal mail are as follows:

• It has the same delivery time anywhere in the world.
• It is free/cheaper to send than paying postage, we can send attachments of files etc at no extra cost
• It has less chance of getting lost.

SECTION – D (4 Marks)

Question 24.
Write HTML code for the following output: [4]

Note: Consider the following points while generating output:

• In the whole web page, the font face is “Arial” and size = 14.
• The second heading text “Reaction of Magnesium with Hydrochloric Acid”.
• The image used in the page is “reaction, jpg” with alternate text “magnesium with hydrochloric acid” width is 500 pixels and height is 200 pixels.

OR
Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the given specifications. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Column 1	Column 2
Cell 1	Cell 3
Cell 3

Specification 1: Table Border should be 1.
Specification 2: The table header tag should be used wherever required.
Specification 3: Attribute colspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 4: Attribute rowspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 5: The table should exactly contain same number of rows and columns as shown above. The data in each cell should be as shown in the above table.
Answer:

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Experiment </TITLE> </HEAD>
<BODY>
<BASEFONT face=“ARIAL”
size=“14”>
<H2>Reaction in Magnesium with Hydrochloric Acid</H2>
<IMG src=“reaction.jpg”
alt=“magnesium with hydrochloric acid” width=“500” height=“200”>
<BRxBR>
<B>The equation for the reaction is</B>
<BR>
Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid = Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen
<BR>
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq.) = MgCl <SUB> 2 </SUB> (aq) + H <SUB> 2
</SUB>(q)
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

The code will be as follows:

<html>
<body>
<table border = 1>
<tr>
<th>Column l</th> <th>Column 2</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Cell l</td>
<td rowspan=”2”>Cell 2</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Cell 3</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

SECTION – E (8 Marks)

Question 25.
Gaytri is creating an online form for the registration of online yoga classes with monthly or yearly subscription facility. Help her to complete the code with right statements in the blanks. Observe the webpage and attempt any four questions (out of 5) given after the web page.

<html>
<body>
<h1>New User Registration</h1>
<...........action = method = "post"> <!- - Statement 1 - ->
Name :< ........ type="text" id=’Name’> <!- - Statement 2 - ->
......... </- - Statement 3 - ->
Address :<input type="text" id="Add">
<br>
Type of Subscription: Select a course of your choice
<...........name= ‘subscription"> <!- - Statement 4 - ->
<option value= “month">Monthly</ option>
<option value ="year">Yearly</ option>
</select>
<br><br>
<input type =..........value ="Submit"> <!- - Statement 5 - ->
</form>
</body>
</html>

(A) Write the correct tag in statement -1 to achieve the output given in the above web page. [1]
Answer:
(A) Form

Explanation:
<Form> tag is used to create an HTML form for user input

(B) Write the suitable tag for the blank given in statement -2. [1]
Answer:
Input

(C) Write the correct tag for the blank given in statement – 3. [1]
Answer:
<br>

Explanation:
The <br> tag is used to give a line break. In this code will give a line break between two form elements to place them on separate lines on the webpage.

(D) Write an appropriate answer for blank in statement -4. [1]
Answer:
Select

Explanation:
The <select> tag is used to create a drop-down list The options of the list are given with <option> tag.

(E) Write the suitable tag for blank in statement – 5. [1]
Answer:
Submit

Explanation:
The type = “submit” is given in <input> tag to create a Submit button. The Submit button is used to finally submit the values given in form to the computer.

Question 26.
Read the case study given below and attempt any four sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Shalini is an undergraduate student. Like many of her friends she too shares her pictures online. She also chats with her friends in online group.
(A) Shalini has an account on different social networking sites. What is social networking? [1]
Answer:
A social networking service is an online platform used by people to build social networks or social relationships with other people.

(B) Shalini shares her pictures from her account. Name any two social networking sites that allow to share pictures and videos. [1]
Answer:
Instagram and Pinterest

(C) Shalini and her friends get together online at same time and send text messages to each other. This is called …………. . [1]
Answer:
Chatting.

Related Theory:
Chat is a real time communication between two or more users via computer or mobile devices. It is a virtual means of communication that not only allows exchange of text messages but also sharing of audios and videos.

(D) The place where Shalini and her friends chat is called ………… . [1]
Answer:
Chat room.

Related Theory:
Chat rooms are actually chat servers or websites that offer their users with common interests to communicate in real time.

(E) Shalini is also member of some virtual groups where she can participate in discussions with them on some specific topics. What are these groups called? [1]
Answer:
E-group.

Explanation:
E-group is an online community of like minded individuals who come together virtually to discuss and share ideas, opinions, experiences and topics of their interests.