CBSE Sample Papers – Page 47

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 4 with Solutions

October 29, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 4 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

इस प्रश्नपत्र में दो खंड हैं-खंड ‘क’ और ‘ख’। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/ वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न दिए गए हैं।
प्रश्नपत्र के दोनों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमानुसार लिखिए।
खंड ‘क’ में कुल 10 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
खंड ‘ख’ में कुल 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार विकल्प का ध्यान रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘क’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के . लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
राष्ट्रभाषा और राजभाषा के रूप में हिंदी की स्थिति समझने के लिए हमें इन दो शब्दों के अर्थों पर विचार करना पड़ेगा। सही संदर्भ में इन शब्दों का प्रयोग न होने के कारण घालमेल की स्थिति पैदा हो जाती है। आज राष्ट्रभाषा शब्द का अर्थ प्रायः दो अर्थों में मिलता है। एक, राष्ट्र की भाषा के रूप में, दूसरा, राष्ट्र की एकमात्र भाषा के रूप में। पहले अर्थ के अनुसार संविधान की आठवीं अनुसूची में पूरे भारत में बोली जाने वाली जो प्रमुख भाषाएँ गिनाई गई हैं, जिनकी संख्या अब 22 है, वे सब भाषाएँ राष्ट्रभाषा हैं, जिन्हें कुछ लोग राष्ट्रीय भाषा कहना अधिक उपयुक्त समझते हैं। दूसरे अर्थ के अनुसार, हिंदी को ही एकमात्र राष्ट्रभाषा होने का सम्मान प्राप्त है, ठीक वैसे ही जैसे एक राष्ट्र गान को, एक ध्वज को और एक संविधान को। स्वतंत्रता भारत के संविधान के लागू होने से पहले हिंदी को इसी अर्थ में राष्ट्रभाषा का दर्जा प्राप्त था।

‘राजभाषा’ शब्द का प्रयोग भी दो अर्थों में किया जाता रहा है। एक तो राज्य की भाषा के अर्थ में-श्री राजगोपालाचारी ने ‘नेशनल-लैंग्वेज’ (राष्ट्रभाषा) के समानांतर राज्यों की भाषा को उससे अलग करते हुए ‘स्टेट-लैंग्वेज’ के अर्थ में राजभाषा शब्द का प्रयोग किया था। दूसरा, राजकाज की भाषा के अर्थ में-सरकारी तौर पर स्वीकृत राजकाज की भाषा ही राजभाषा है। संविधान के अनुच्छेद-343 में लिखा गया है-“संघ की राजभाषा हिंदी और लिपि देवनागरी होगी।” अनुच्छेद 343 से लेकर 351 तक जहाँ-जहाँ भी राजभाषा शब्द का प्रयोग हुआ है, वहाँ उसके अनेक प्रयोजनों में एक प्रयोजन प्रशासकीय प्रयोजन बताया गया है। इसका अर्थ हुआ कि संविधान में प्रयुक्त राजभाषा शब्द का प्रयोग राजकाज की भाषा के अर्थ से कहीं अधिक व्यापक रूप में हुआ है, जिसमें राजकाज की सरकारी स्वीकृत भाषा के साथ-साथ राष्ट्रभाषा वाला अर्थ भी समाहित हो गया है।

हिंदी अपने उद्भव काल-लगभग दसवीं शताब्दी से ही इस अर्थ में भारत की राष्ट्रभाषा रही है कि भारत के अधिकांश लोग उसे समझते और बोलते रहे हैं। यह भारत के संतों, भक्तों, चिंतकों और विचारकों की भाषा रही है। बौद्धों, सिद्धों, नाथों, जैन मुनियों ने इसे अपनी वाणी का प्रसाद दिया है। मुगलकाल में कार्यालयी भाषा भले ही फ़ारसी रही हो और अंग्रेजों के शासन-काल में अंग्रेज़ी किन्तु भारत के अधिक-से-अधिक लोगों तक संदेश पहुँचाने की बात जहाँ कहीं भी उठी, हिंदी को ही उसका माध्यम चुने जाने का गौरव प्राप्त हुआ।

आज भी हिंदी भारत की बहुमत की भाषा है। कश्मीर से लेकर कन्याकुमारी तक और जैसलमेर से लेकर गुवाहाटी तक यह समझी और बोली जाती है।
(क) हिन्दी अपने उद्भव काल से ही भारत की राष्ट्र भाषा रही है क्योंकि-
(i) अधिकांश लोग उसे समझते और बोलते रहे है।
(ii) राज्य का काम इसमें होता रहा है।
(iii) यह भाषा आसान है।
(iv) यह भाषा कठिन है।
उत्तरः
(i) अधिकांश लोग उसे समझते और बोलते रहे है।

(ख) प्रस्तुत गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक होगा
(i) हिंदी
(ii) हिंदी: राष्ट्रभाषा और राजभाषा
(iii) हिंदी: एक राष्ट्रभाषा
(iv) राजभाषा
उत्तरः
(ii) हिंदी: राष्ट्रभाषा और राजभाषा

(ग) राजभाषा को किसकी भाषा माना गया है?
(i) सम्मान की
(ii) राष्ट्र की एकमात्र भाषा
(iii) सरकारी कामकाज की भाषा
(iv) सभी विकल्प सही हैं
उत्तरः
(iii) सरकारी कामकाज की भाषा

(घ) मुगलकाल में कार्यालयी भाषा कौन-सी रही होगी?
(i) अरबी
(ii) उर्दू
(iii) अंग्रेजी
(iv) फारसी
उत्तरः
(iv) फारसी

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए-
कथन (A): आज भी हिंदी भारत में बहुमत की भाषा है।
कारण (R) : मुगलकाल और अंग्रेजों के शासनकाल में भले ही फारसी और अंग्रेजी भाषा रही हो, पर अधिकाधिक लोगों तक सन्देश पहुँचाने का माध्यम हिंदी ही रही।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन
(A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन
(A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तरः
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन
(A) की सही व्याख्या है
व्याख्यात्मक हल:
हिंदी भाषा को बौद्धों, सिद्धों, नाथों, जैन मुनियों ने अपनी वाणी का प्रसाद दिया है। हिंदी जन-जन की भाषा रही है।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-I पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।
मंदिर की दीवारें क्या कहती हैं, सुनो।
मस्जिद की दीवारों पर लिखी इबारतें क्या कहना चाहती हैं, पढ़ो।
न वे हिन्दू को बुलाती हैं, न मुसलमान को पुकारती हैं,
न उन्हें एक मज़हब से प्रेम है, न दूसरे से नफ़रत,
वे सिर्फ इन्सान की इंसानियत को जिंदा रखना चाहती हैं।
ताजमहल शाहजहाँ का बनवाया गया मक़बरा है,
या शिव का शिवालय! क्या फ़र्क पड़ता है?
वह एक सुंदर इमारत है।
भारत की पहचान है, हमारे देश की शान है,
दुनिया में उससे हमारा नाम है।
राम मंदिर पहले बना या बाबरी मस्जिद? क्या फ़र्क पड़ता है?
हाँ, इस सवाल से पैदा होने वाले झगड़ों से,
जब उजड़ते हैं घर, अनाथ होते हैं बच्चे,
तो बहुत फर्क पड़ता है।
शर्म आती है मुझे ऐसी सोच पर,
अंतत: इंसानियत ही कुचली जाती है,
मज़हबी तलवारों की नोक पर।

(क) मन्दिर-मस्जिद के निर्माण का वास्तविक उद्देश्य पद्यांश में क्या बताया गया है?
(i) इंसानियत को जिंदा रखना बताया है।
(ii) ईश्वर को जिंदा रखना बताया है।
(iii) अल्लाह को जिंदा रखना बताया गया है।
(iv) पूजा करना
उत्तरः
(i) इंसानियत को जिंदा रखना बताया है।
व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मंदिर-मस्जिद की दीवारों में जो पवित्रता समायी हुई होती है, वे इन्सान का उचित मार्गदर्शन कर उसके विचारों को शुद्ध बनाते हैं।

(ख) पद्यांश में ‘क्या फर्क पड़ता है’- प्रश्न दोहराने के पीछे क्या उद्देश्य है?
(i) कोई उद्देश्य नहीं है।
(ii) विभिन्न धर्मों को लेकर किए गए झगड़ों का कोई लाभ नहीं।
(iii) उजड़ते घरों को देखने से कोई लाभ नहीं।
(iv) अनाथ होते बच्चों को देखकर कोई फर्क नहीं पड़ता।
उत्तरः
(ii) विभिन्न धर्मों को लेकर किए गए झगड़ों का कोई लाभ नहीं।

(ग) कवयित्री कैसी सोच पर शर्मिंदा हैं?
(i) मंदिर-मस्जिद बनने पर
(ii) विभिन्न धर्मों पर
(iii) धर्म जाति में बंधकर छोटी सोच रखने पर
(iv) पूजा की सोच पर
उत्तरः
(iii) धर्म जाति में बंधकर छोटी सोच रखने पर

(घ) हमारे देश की शान किसे बताया गया है?
(i) विभिन्न धर्मों को
(ii) विभिन्न मजहबों को
(iii) ताजमहल को
(iv) देश को
उत्तरः
(iii) ताजमहल को

(ङ) पद्यांश में ‘मजहबी तलवार’ किसे कहा गया है
(I) मजहब के नाम पर लड़ना झगड़ना
(II) अपने मजहब को सबसे ऊपर मानना
(III) मजहब के नाम पर मिलकर रहना
(IV) दूसरे मजहब को महत्व न देना

विकल्प:
(i) कथन (II) सही है
(ii) कथन (I), (II) व (III) सही हैं
(iii) कथन (I), (II) व (IV) सही हैं
(iv) कथन (I), (II), (III) व (IV) सही हैं
उत्तरः
(iii) कथन (I), (II) व (IV) सही हैं

अथवा

यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-II पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।
नया परत है, नई बात है
नई किरण हैं, ज्योति नई।
नई उमंगें, नई तरंगें।
नई आस है, साँस नई।
युग से मुरझाए सुमनों में नई-नई मुस्कान भरो।
उठो धरा के अमर सपूतों, पुनः नया निर्माण करो॥
डाल-डाल पर बैठे विहग कुछ
नए स्वरों में गाते हैं,
गुन-गुन, गुन-गुन करते भौरें
मस्त उधर मँडराते हैं।
नव युग की नूतन वीणा में नया राग, नव गान भरो।
उठो धरा के अमर सपूतों, पुनः नया निर्माण करो॥

(क) पद्यांश में किस नई वस्तु की ओर ध्यान आकर्षित किया गया है?
(i) नई इमारत
(ii) नई पोशाक
(iii) नई ज्योति
(iv) नई शिक्षा
उत्तरः
(iii) नई ज्योति

(ख) पद्यांश में नए गीत कौन गा रहे हैं?
(i) शिक्षकगण
(ii) मित्रगण
(iii) नेतागण
(iv) विहग
उत्तरः
(iv) विहग

(ग) नव युग के लिए कैसे गान की अपेक्षा की गई है?
(i) नए राग और नए गान की
(ii) नई आस और नई साँस की
(iii) नई मुस्कान की
(iv) नए निर्माण की
उत्तरः
(ii) नई आस और नई साँस की

(घ) ‘नई-नई मुस्कान भरो’- का क्या आशय है?
(i) नए नए ढंग से मुस्कुराना
(ii) नए-नए मुस्कुराने के ढंग बताना
(iii) सब में आशा के दीप जलाकर जीवन जीने की प्रेरणा देना
(iv) निराशापूर्ण जीवन जीने की प्रेरणा देना
उत्तरः
(iii) सब में आशा के दीप जलाकर जीवन जीने की प्रेरणा देना

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए
कथन (A): देश में नई आस और नई साँस जगाना प्रत्येक मनुष्य का कर्तव्य है।
कथन (R): देश के अमर सपूत सबके मन में आशा के दीप जलाकर जीवन जीने की प्रेरणा देते हैं।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही हैं।
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत हैं।
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन
(A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन
(A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तरः
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन
(A) की सही व्याख्या है

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) हम उन सब लोगों से मिले, जो आपको जानते थे। वाक्य का सरल वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) हम आपको जानने वाले सब लोगों से मिले।
(ii) हम उन सब लोगों से मिले जो सब आपको जानते थे।
(iii) जो सब आपको जानते थे हम उन सबसे मिले।
(iv) इनमें से कोई दोनों/कोई नहीं।
उत्तरः
(i) हम आपको जानने वाले सब लोगों से मिले।
व्याख्यात्मक हल: सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य और एक क्रिया होते हैं। अतः यही सही उत्तर है।

(ख) तुम जाते हो या मैं तुम्हारी शिकायत करूँ।
(i) सरल वाक्य
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य
(iii) मिश्र वाक्य
(iv) आश्रित वाक्य
उत्तरः
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य।
व्याख्यात्मक हल: संयुक्त वाक्य में दो सरल वाक्य होते हैं जो अपनेआप में पूर्ण अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

(ग) ‘बसंत की एक सुबह एक कोयल ने कुहू कुहू को सुर दिया था।’ वाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य है
(i) बसंत की एक सुबह कुहू कुहू को सुर दिया था एक कोयल ने।
(ii) कुहू कुहू को सुर दिया था एक कोयल ने बसंत की एक सुबह।
(iii) बसंत की एक सुबह थी और एक कोयल ने सुबह कुहू-कुहू को सुर दिया था।
(iv) कोयल ने सुर बहाया कुहू कुहू का सुबह
उत्तरः
(iii) बसंत की एक सुबह थी और एक कोयल ने सुबह कुहू कुहू को सुर दिया था।
व्याख्यात्मक हल: संयुक्त वाक्य में दो सरल वाक्य होते हैं जो अपनेआप में पूर्ण अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

(घ) ‘वह लड़का गाँव गया। वहाँ वह बीमार हो गया।’ वाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य है-
(i) वह लड़का गाँव गया और बीमार हो गया।
(ii) वह लड़का बीमार था इसलिए गाँव गया।
(iii) जो लड़का बीमार था वह गाँव गया।
(iv) बीमार हो गया वह लड़का गाँव जाकर।
उत्तरः
(iii) जो लड़का बीमार था वह गाँव गया।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
1. यह वही छात्र है जिसने प्रथम स्थान प्राप्त किया था।	(I) सरल वाक्य
2. श्यामा आज नहीं आएगी।	(II) संयुक्त वाक्य
3. गाँधीजी ने सत्य और अहिंसा का सन्देश दिया।	(III) मिश्र वाक्य

विकल्प:
(i) 1-(III), 2-(I), 3-(II)
(ii) 1-(II), 2(III), 3-(I)
(iii) 1-(I), 2-(II), 3-(III)
(iv) 1-(III), 2-(II), 3-(I)
उत्तरः
(i) 1-(III), 2-(I), 3-(II)

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) फुरसत में मैं खूब रियाज करती हूँ-वाक्य का कर्मवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) फुर्सत में मेरे द्वारा खूब रियाज़ किया जाता है।
(ii) मेरे द्वारा खूब रियाज़ किया जाता है फुर्सत में।
(iii) मैंने खूब रियाज़ किया फुर्सत में।
(iv) रियाज़ होता है खूब मेरे द्वारा।
उत्तरः
(i) फुर्सत में मेरे द्वारा खूब रियाज़ किया जाता है।

(ख) गीतकारों द्वारा गीतों को सुर दिया जाता है-वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) गीतकारों से गीतों को सुर दिया जाता है।
(ii) गीतकार गीतों को सुर देते हैं।
(iii) सुर दिया जाता है गीतकारों द्वारा गीतों को।
(iv) सुर देते हैं गीतकार गीतों को।
उत्तरः
(ii) गीतकार गीतों को सुर देते हैं।

(ग) दो-तीन पक्षियों द्वारा अपनी-अपनी लय में एक साथ कूदा जा रहा था-वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) कूदा जा रहा था दो-तीन पक्षियों द्वारा अपनी-अपनी लय में।।
(ii) अपनी-अपनी लय में दो-तीन पक्षियों द्वारा एक साथ कूदा जा रहा था।
(iii) दो-तीन पक्षी अपनी-अपनी लय में एक साथ कूद रहे थे।
(iv) दो-तीन पक्षियों द्वारा एक साथ कूदा जा रहा था अपनी-अपनी लय में।
उत्तरः
(iii) दो-तीन पक्षी अपनी-अपनी लय में एक साथ कूद रहे थे।

(घ) उसने खाना खाया-वाक्य में प्रयुक्त वाच्य है
(i) कर्मवाच्य
(ii) भाववाच्य
(iii) कर्तृवाच्य
(iv) वाच्य
उत्तरः
(iii) कर्तृवाच्य

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
1. उसके द्वारा नौकर को बुलाया गया।	(I) कर्तृवाच्य
2. रमा खाना नहीं खाएगी।	(II) भाववाच्य
3. उससे चला नहीं जाता।	(III) कर्मवाच्य

विकल्प:
(i) 1-(III), 2-(I), 3-(II)
(ii) 1-(II), 2-(III), 3-(1)
(iii) 1-(I), 2-(II), 3-(III)
(iv) 1-(III), 2-(II), 3-(I)
उत्तरः
(i) 1-(III), 2-(I), 3-(II)

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) वह अपने घर गया वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा-
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक।
(ii) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक।
(iii) भाववाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक।
(iv) समूहवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक।
उत्तरः
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक।

(ख) फागुन माह में बसंत ऋतु होती है – वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा-
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
(ii) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
(iii) भाववाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
(iv) समूहवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
उत्तरः
(ii) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।

(ग) घोड़ा तेज़ भागता है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा
(i) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण।
(ii) परिमाणवाचक क्रियाविशेषण।
(iii) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण।
(iv) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
उत्तरः
(iii) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण।

(घ) अरे! वह इतना खुश कैसे है – वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद परिचय होगा-
(i) संबंधबोधक अव्यय।
(ii) समुच्वयबोधक अव्यय।
(iii) क्रियाविशेषण।
(iv) विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय।
उत्तरः
(iv) विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय।

(ङ) वह कहाँ जा रहा है ?
(i) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, पुर्ल्लिग,एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
(ii) सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम, पुर्ल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
(iii) संख्यावाचक सर्वनाम, पुर्ल्लि, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
(iv) निजवाचकवाचक सर्वनाम, पुर्ल्लिग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
उत्तरः
(i) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, पुर्ल्लिग,एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) ‘मंगन को देखि पट देत बार-बार है’- पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है-
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(i) श्लेष
व्याख्यात्मक हल: यहाँ ‘पट’ के दो अर्थ है- पहला वस्त्र और दूसरा दरवाजा।

(ख) ‘मिटा मोदु, मन भए मलीने, विधि निधि दीन लेत जनु छीन्हे’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
व्याख्यात्मक हल : मोद मिट गया, मन मलिन हो गए, ऐसा लगा मानों विधाता ने दी हुई निधि (खजाना) वापस ले लिया हो। अतः यहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार है।

(ग) ‘मुख बाल रवि सम लाल होकर, ज्वाल-सा बोधित हुआ’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है-
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
व्याख्यात्मक हल: मुख का बाल रवि के समान लाल ज्वाला जैसा लगना अतिशयोक्तिपूर्ण वर्णन है, अतः यहाँ अतिशयोक्ति अलंकार है।

(घ) ‘लहरें व्योम चूमती उठर्ती’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
व्याख्यात्मक हल: यहाँ समुद्र की लहरों को आकाश चूमते हुए कहकर उनकी अतिशय ऊँचाई का उल्लेख किया गया है अतः यहाँ अतिशयोक्ति अलंकार है।

(ङ) ‘इस सोते संसार बीच, जगकर सजकर रजनीबाले’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(iii) मानवीकरण
व्याख्यात्मक हल : यहाँ रात को कन्या के रूप में बताया गया, जो सज संवर कर घूम रही है। अतः यहाँ मानवीकरण अलंकार

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
बालगोबिन भगत मँझोले कद के गोरे-चिट्टे आदमी थे। साठ से ऊपर के ही होंगे। बाल पक गए थे। लम्बी दाढ़ी या जटाजूट तो नहीं रखते थे, किंतु हमेशा उनका चेहरा सफेद बालों से ही जगमग किए रहता। कपड़े बिल्कुल कम पहनते। कमर में एक लंगोटी मात्र और सिर पर कबीरपंथियों की-सी कनफटी टोपी। जब जाड़ा आता, एक काली कमली, ऊपर से ओढ़े रहते। मस्तक पर हमेशा चमकता हुआ रामानंदी चंदन, जो नाक के एक छोर से ही, औरतों के टीके की तरह, शुरू होता। गले में तुलसी की जड़ों की एक बेडौल माला बाँधे रहते।
(क) गद्यांश के आधार पर भगत की उम्र क्या रही होगी?
(i) साठ से ऊपर
(ii) साठ से कम
(iii) सत्तर से ऊपर
(iv) सत्तर से कम
उत्तरः
(i) साठ से ऊपर

(ख) भगत के मस्तक पर हमेशा क्या चमकता रहता था?
(i) रामानंदी सोना
(ii) रामानंदी चन्दन
(iii) सोने की माला
(iv) राख का तिलक
उत्तरः
(ii) रामानंदी चन्दन

(ग) भगत सिर पर क्या पहनते थे?
(i) टोपी
(ii) हैट
(iii) कनफटी टोपी
(iv) कैप
उत्तरः
(iii) कनफटी टोपी

(घ) जाड़े में भगत क्या ओढ़े रहते?
(i) लाल कमली
(ii) पीली कमली
(iii) सफ़ेद कमली
(iv) काली कमली
उत्तरः
(iv) काली कमली

(ङ) भगत के गले में क्या रहता था?
(i) तुलसी की बेडौल माला
(ii) सोने की बेडौल माला
(iii) चाँदी की बेडौल माला
(iv) ताँबे की बेडौल माला
उत्तरः
(i) तुलसी की बेडौल माला

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1× 2 = 2)
(क) हालदार साहब किस आदत से मजबूर थे?
(i) हालदार साहब मूर्ति को देखने से मजबूर थे|
(ii) अटेंशन की मुद्रा में खड़े होने पर।
(iii) जीप में बैठने के लिए।
(iv) पान खाने की
उत्तरः
(i) हालदार साहब मूर्ति को देखने से मजबूर थे|

(ख) गृहस्थ होते हुए भी भगत को साधु क्यों कहा जाता
(i) क्योंकि उनका व्यवहार और चरित्र साधु की तरह था।
(ii) क्योंकि वह साधु थे।
(iii) क्योंकि वह खेती करते थे।
(iv) क्योंकि वे उपवास रखते थे।
उत्तरः
(i) क्योंकि उनका व्यवहार और चरित्र साधु की तरह था।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों व लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
अट नहीं रही है
आभा फागुन की तन
सट नहीं रही है।
कहीं साँस लेते हो,
घर-घर भर देते हो।
उड़ने को नभ में तुम
पर-पर कर देते हो,
आँख हटाता हूँ तो
हट नहीं रही है।

(क) पद्यांश में किस माह की शोभा का वर्णन है?
(i) चैत्र माह की
(ii) फागुन माह की
(iii) कार्तिक माह की
(iv) आषाढ़ माह की
उत्तरः
(ii) फागुन माह की

(ख) किसकी शोभा समा नहीं पा रही है?
(i) फागुन की
(ii) फूलों की
(iii) वृक्षों की
(iv) पत्तियों की
उत्तरः
(i) फागुन की

(ग) फागुन में कौन-सी ऋतु होती है? ।
(i) शीत ऋतु
(ii) ग्रीष्म ऋतु
(iii) बसंत ऋतु
(iv) पतझड़ ऋतु
उत्तरः
(iii) बसंत ऋतु

(घ) फागुन का मानव तन पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?
(i) नींद आ जाती है
(ii) मस्ती छा जाती है
(iii) उदासी छा जाती है
(iv) मन दुखी हो जाता है।
उत्तरः
(ii) मस्ती छा जाती है

(ङ) पद्यांश के कवि हैं
(i) नागार्जुन
(ii) ऋतुराज
(iii) निराला
(iv) प्रसाद
उत्तरः
(iii) निराला

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) ‘देखते ही रहोगे अनिमेष’- पंक्ति किसके लिए कही गई है
(i) शिशु के लिए
(ii) कवि के लिए
(iii) शिशु की माँ के लिए
(iv) शिशु के पिता के लिए
उत्तरः
(i) शिशु के लिए

(ख) कवि के अनुसार बादलों के हृदय में क्या छिपा हुआ है?
(i) वर्षा का जल
(ii) विद्युत छवि
(iii) क्रांति
(iv) परिवर्तन
उत्तरः
(ii) विद्युत छवि

खंड ‘ब’
वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) ‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ एक आशावादी कहानी है-सिद्ध कीजिए।
उत्तरः
‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ एक आशावादी कहानी है। इस कहानी को लेखक ने हालदार साहब के माध्यम से आगे बढ़ाया है। कस्बे में लगी नेताजी की मूर्ति पर चश्मा न होना मूर्ति की उपेक्षा का प्रतीक है। उस कमी को ढंकने के लिए केवल कैप्टन ने ही आगे कदम बढ़ाया। पानवाले द्वारा कैप्टन का मजाक उड़ाने पर भी हालदार साहब ने उसकी देशप्रेम की भावना को ही ज्यादा महत्व दिया। कहानी के अंत में लगने वाला सरकंडे का चश्मा भी यह दर्शाता है कि कैप्टन की मृत्यु होने के बाद भी देशभक्ति की भावना अभी समाप्त नहीं हुई है।

(ख) भगत की पुत्रवधू उन्हें अकेला क्यों नहीं छोड़ना चाहती थी?
उत्तरः
भगत के पुत्र की मृत्यु हो गई थी, अतः भगत उसे उसके भाई के साथ भिजवाना चाहते थे, पर पुत्रवधू इसके लिए तैयार न थी। वह अपने बूढ़े ससुर की सेवा करना चाहती थी। वह उन्हें अकेला नहीं छोड़ना चाहती थी।

(ग) ‘संस्कृति’ पाठ के अनुसार लेखक ने सभ्यता किसे कहा है?
उत्तरः
‘संस्कृति’ पाठ के अनुसार संस्कृति से सभ्यता विकसित होती है। सभ्यता, संस्कृति का ही परिणाम है। हमारे खाने-पीने के तरीके, पहनने-ओढ़ने के तरीके, हमारे गमनागमन के साधन, हमारे परस्पर कट-मरने के तरीके आदि सब हमारी सभ्यता ही है। संस्कृति एक आन्तरिक संस्कार है तो सभ्यता बाहरी संस्कार। अतः संस्कृति ही सभ्यता की जननी है।

(घ) नवाब साहब खीरों की फाँकों को खिड़की से
बाहर फेंकने से पहले नाक के पास क्यों ले गए?
उनके इस कार्यकलाप का क्या उद्देश्य था?
उत्तरः
नवाब साहब खीरे की फाँकों को खिड़की से बाहर फेंकने से पहले नाक के पास उसकी सुगंध का आनंद लेने के उद्देश्य से ले गए। उनके इस कार्यकलाप के पीछे यह उद्देश्य था कि वह लेखक को जताना चाहते थे कि खीरे खाकर पेट भरना तो साधारण मनुष्य का काम है, हम जैसे नवाबों के लिए तो खीरे को सँघना ही पर्याप्त है।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) किसी भी क्षेत्र में मुख्य व्यक्ति की भूमिका कब सार्थक होती है और क्यों?
उत्तरः
किसी भी क्षेत्र में मुख्य व्यक्ति की भूमिका तब सार्थक होती है, जब उसकी प्रतिभा, लगन और महत्वाकांक्षा को समर्थन देने वाले लोग उसके साथ होते हैं, क्योंकि हर सफल व्यक्ति की सफलता में अनेक लोगों का योगदान होता है; जैसे-एक गायक बिना संगतकार के सुरों की ऊँचाइयों को छूने में असमर्थ रहता है।

(ख) सूरदास के पदों को पढ़कर आपको गोपियों की किस भावना की प्रतीति होती है और वे किसके प्रति अपना निश्चल प्रेम प्रकट करती हैं?
उत्तरः
सूरदास के पदों को पढ़कर हमें कृष्ण के प्रति गोपियों के एकनिष्ठ और उदात्त प्रेम का परिचय मिलता है। वे मन-कर्म और वचन से कृष्ण के प्रति समर्पित हैं। वे दिन-रात उन्हीं के नाम को रटती रहती हैं। कृष्ण के प्रति उनका प्रेम निश्चल है और कृष्ण से प्रेम करने से उन्हें कोई नहीं रोक सकता। उद्धव के योग संदेश को सुनकर वे उन्हें उलाहने देने से भी पीछे नहीं हटते।

(ग) ‘धनुष को तोड़ने वाला कोई तुम्हारा दास होगा’ के आधार पर राम के स्वभाव पर टिप्पणी कीजिए।
उत्तरः
परशुराम के क्रोधित होने पर राम ने अत्यन्त विनम्रतापूर्वक उत्तर दिया कि शिव-धनुष को तोड़ने वाला आपका कोई दास ही होगा। इससे राम के इस स्वभाव का पता चलता है कि वे अत्यन्त विनम्र एवं कोमल स्वभाव के हैं। राम अत्यन्त धैर्यवान एवं मृदुभाषी हैं। वे बड़ों का सम्मान करते हैं।

(घ) कवि ने अपनी आत्मकथा को भोली क्यों कहा
उत्तरः
कवि ने अपनी आत्मकथा को भोली इसलिए कहा है क्योंकि उसे अपनी गाथा सरल व सीधी सादी लगती है, जिसकी उसने कभी पहले से अभिव्यक्ति नहीं की और साथ ही उसे यह भी लगता है कि उसकी आत्मकथा में ऐसा कुछ कहने को नहीं है जो दसरों का मार्गदर्शन कर सकें या प्रेरणा दे सकें। उसकी भोली कथा में केवल उसके हृदय की मौन व्यथा छिपी हुई है।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में लिखिए। (4 × 2 = 8)
(क) ‘आप चैन की नींद सो सकें इसीलिए तो हम यहाँ पहरा दे रहे हैं।’ एक फौजी के इस कथन पर जीवन-मूल्यों की दृष्टि से विचार कीजिए।
उत्तरः
फौजी के इस कथन में अनेक जीवन-मूल्य निहित हैं। उनके जीवन में त्याग एवं साहस के जीवन-मूल्य निहित हैं। वे कम वेतन पाकर इतना जोखिम भरा जीवन जीते हैं। इसमें परोपकार परिलक्षित होता है। हमें उनकी सेवाओं की सराहना करनी चाहिए। उनका जीवन हमें प्रेरणा देता है।

सीमा पर तैनात फौजियों का जीवन अत्यन्त कठोर होता है। वे अपने लिए नहीं, देश के लिए जीते व मरते हैं। वे विषम परिस्थितियों में हमारे देश की सीमाओं की रक्षा करते हैं। उन्हीं के कारण हम चैन की नींद सो पाते हैं।

उसका यह कथन उसकी कर्त्तव्यनिष्ठा और देशवासियों की सुरक्षा की भावना अभिव्यक्त करता है। देश की सीमा पर बैठे फ़ौजी हमारे राष्ट्र के गौरव हैं। उनके शीश कट जाते हैं, पर झुकते नहीं। वे स्वयं विपरीत परिस्थितियों में कष्ट झेलकर हमें चैन से रहने का अवसर देते हैं। उनके जीवन में त्याग, समर्पण, सेवा, कष्टसहिष्णुता व देश-प्रेम के जो आदर्श मूल्य हैं, वे हमारे लिए भी अनुकरणीय हैं। हमें उनको अपने जीवन में उतारना चाहिए। उनका तो केवल एक ही ध्येय होता है-
जिएँ तो सदा इसी के लिए, यही अभिमान रहे यही हर्ष।
निछावर कर दें हम सर्वस्व, हमारा प्यारा भारतवर्ष॥

(ख) भोलानाथ के माता-पिता में किस बात को लेकर नोंक-झोंक होती थी? क्या आपके माता-पिता में भी नोंक-झोंक होती है? यदि ‘हाँ’ तो किस बात पर? आप उस समय क्या करते हैं?
उत्तरः
भोलानाथ के माता-पिता में उसके खाने के समय नोंक-झोंक होती थी। भोलानाथ चौके में पिता के साथ बैठ जाता था। पिता अपने हाथ से एक कटोरे में गोरस और भात सानकर खिलाते थे। जब वह खाकर उठ जाता तब मैया थोड़ा और खिलाने के लिए जिद करने लगती थी। वह बाबू जी से कहने लगती-“आप तो चार-चार दाने के कौर बच्चे के मुँह में देते जाते हैं, इससे वह थोड़ा खाने पर भी समझ लेता है कि बहुत खा गया है। आप खिलाने का ढंग नहीं जानते, बच्चे को भर-मुँह कौर खिलाना चाहिए।”
जब खाएगा बड़े-बड़े कौर, तब पाएगा दुनिया में ठौर।

यह कह वह थाली में दही-भात सानती और अलग-अलग पक्षियों के कौर लेकर उड़ जाने के बनावटी नाम से कौर बनाकर यह कहते हुए खिलाती जाती कि जल्दी खा लो, नहीं तो उड़ जायेंगे, पर बच्चे उन्हें इतनी जल्दी चट कर जाते थे कि उनके गायन का मौका ही नहीं मिलता था। हमारे माता-पिता में भी प्रायः इसी प्रकार की नोंक-झोंक होती रहती है। यह नोंक-झोंक कभी हमारे खाने को लेकर, तो कभी हमारी पढ़ाई-लिखाई पर होती है। माँ को हमेशा यह शिकायत रहती है कि पिता को बच्चों को पढ़ाने के लिए कुछ समय देना चाहिए, पर पिता देर से दफ्तर से आते हैं और थके हुए होते हैं। वे हमें पर्याप्त समय नहीं दे पाते, कभी-कभी तो परिवार के गम्भीर मामले भी माँ को अकेले ही सुलझाने पड़ते हैं। कभी-कभी घर के खर्चों को लेकर भी उनमें नोंक-झोंक होती है। उस समय मैं तटस्थ ही
बना रहता हूँ।

(ग) अनुभूति के अतिरिक्त बाहरी दबाव भी रचनाकार को लिखने के लिए प्रेरित करते हैं। ‘मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए कि लेखक पर कौन-कौन से दबाव थे?
उत्तरः
रचनाकार के लिए अनुभूति के अतिरिक्त बाहरी दबाव भी लिखने का कारण बनते हैं। ‘मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ’ पाठ में लेखक के मन में भीतरी विवशता से प्रेरित होकर ऐसी अनुभूति जागृत होती है कि वह अभिव्यक्ति के लिए व्याकुल हो उठता है। इस आंतरिक विवशता या प्रेरणा के अतिरिक्त बाहरी दबाव भी लिखने का कारण बनता है। हिरोशिमा पर लिखी लेखक की कविता उसके आंतरिक एवं बाह्य दबाव का परिणाम है। लेखक ने हिरोशिमा में हुए भीषण नर-संहार की पीड़ा को वहाँ जाने से पहले अनुभव किया था। लेकिन जापान यात्रा के दौरान उन्होंने उस विनाशलीला के दुष्प्रभावों का साक्षात्कार भी किया, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप उन्होंने हिरोशिमा पर कविता लिखी। यह अभिव्यक्ति उनकी यात्रा के बाद बाह्य दबावों एवं आंतरिक अनुभूति दोनों के कारण से हुई। अतः आंतरिक अनुभूति के साथ बाह्य दबावों में भी लेखक को लिखने के लिए बाध्य किया।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत बिन्दुओं के आधार पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।
(क) जनसंख्या विस्फोट

अर्थ
कारण
दुष्प्रभाव
उपाय।

उत्तरः
जनसंख्या विस्फोट
जनसंख्या प्रत्येक देश की मानवीय सम्पदा होती है, किन्तु तभी तक जब तक वह नियन्त्रण में हो, अन्य संसाधनों के उचित अनुपात में हो, अन्यथा यही आर्थिक विकास में बाधा बन जाती है, सामाजिक समस्याओं की जड़ बन जाती है व वरदान की जगह अभिशाप-सी लगने लगती है। भारत में जिस तेजी से जनसंख्या में वृद्धि हुई, उसे ‘जनसंख्या विस्फोट’ नाम दिया गया। इसके प्रमुख कारण हैं-छोटी उम्र में विवाह होना, अशिक्षा, अन्धविश्वास, लिंगभेद आदि। इस जनसंख्या विस्फोट के अनगिनत दुष्परिणाम सामने आये, जैसे-बेरोजगारी, प्राकृतिक शोषण, अपराधों में वृद्धि, गरीबी, आर्थिक व सामाजिक क्षेत्र में उथल-पुथल। जनसंख्या वृद्धि की एक समस्या अन्य अनेक समस्याओं को जन्म देती है। अतः इसे नियन्त्रित करने के प्रयास किए जा रहे हैं, जैसे-सरकार द्वारा लोगों में जागरूकता फैलाना, अनेक योजनाएँ बनाकर लिंग-भेद को मिटाना, शिक्षा के प्रति लोगों को सचेत करना, गर्भनिरोध के विभिन्न उपायों का प्रचार आदि। किन्तु दुःख की बात है कि विशेष सुधार देखने में नहीं आया है। शहरों में तो सुधार आया है किन्तु ग्रामीण इलाकों में, पिछड़े वर्गों में आज भी लोग जनसंख्या को नियंत्रित करने के प्रति विचार ही नहीं कर रहे हैं। इसका कारण उनकी अज्ञानता, अन्धविश्वास व रूढ़िवादिता को कहा जा सकता है।

ऐसे में जनसंख्या के तेजी से बढ़ते जाने के दुष्परिणाम तो पूरे देश को भुगतने पड़ते हैं। देश में अन्य आर्थिक व सामाजिक समस्याओं के साथ आपराधिक घटनाओं में वृद्धि होना भी इसी का परिणाम है। अतः जब तक जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण नहीं होगा, तब तक हमारा देश इन विभिन्न समस्याओं से मुक्त नहीं हो पाएगा। देश में विकास के लिए बनने वाली योजनाएँ भी तभी कारगर सिद्ध होंगी जब आबादी नियंत्रित होगी अन्यथा सभी प्रकार के संसाधन बढ़ती जनसंख्या की.जरूरतों को पूरा करने में कम ही पड़ जाते हैं और समाज व देश के उत्थान के सभी प्रयास विफल होते नज़र आते हैं। आशा है, हमारी युवा पीढ़ी इस समस्या के प्रति सचेत हो चुकी है और अगले दशकों में इसके सकारात्मक परिणाम अवश्य देखने को मिलेंगे।

अथवा

(ख) साहित्य समाज का दर्पण

साहित्य व समाज का सम्बन्ध
एक-दूसरे पर प्रभाव
आदर्श स्थिति।

उत्तरः
साहित्य समाज का दर्पण
प्रत्येक देश का अपना साहित्य होता है। वही देश की असली पहचान, संस्कृति को जीवित रखने का माध्यम, देश का गौरव और स्वाभिमान होता है। इस दृष्टि से देखें तो कह सकते हैं कि साहित्य समाज का दर्पण होता है, यानि साहित्यकार वही रचता है जो वह समाज में देखता है। किन्तु इसका दूसरा पहलू यह कहता है कि साहित्य समाज का निर्माता होता है। यानि हम अपने देश व समाज को जैसा देखना चाहते हैं, साहित्य के माध्यम से वह आदर्श रूप प्रस्तुत किया जाता है ताकि लोग उससे प्रेरित व प्रोत्साहित होकर तदनुरूप व्यवहार करें, अपने समाज को वैसा आदर्शवादी रूप देने की, सँवारने की कोशिश करें। यदि साहित्य केवल दर्पण का काम करेगा, तो उसका उद्देश्य पूर्ण नहीं हो पायेगा। कलम में तो बहुत ताकत होती है। व्यक्ति, समाज व देश को जगाने व बदलने की, उचित मार्गदर्शन करने की क्षमता होती है। ईश्वर यदि सृष्टि का निर्माता है तो साहित्यकार अपने सृजन से उस सृष्टि में सुधार लाकर या कुछ नवीन रचना करके ईश्वर का एक अंश ही सिद्ध होता है। साहित्य का उद्देश्य मनोरंजन, मार्गदर्शन, आदर्श प्रस्तुतीकरण व यथार्थ अवलोकन आदि रूपों में अत्यधिक व्यापक है। यह ठीक है कि कोई साहित्यकार केवल मनोरंजक साहित्य का निर्माण करता है तो कोई यथार्थ को प्रस्तुत करता है किन्तु अपने व्यापक रूप में तो साहित्य तभी पूर्ण माना जाएगा जब वह समाज के समक्ष देश व दुनिया की केवल वास्तविक छवि ही प्रस्तुत न करे, अपितु देश व समाज को कैसा होना चाहिए और वह आदर्श रूप कैसे प्राप्त किया जा सकता है, यह भी बताए। इसके लिए साहित्यकार को बहुत ही विवेकशील व अनुभवी होना चाहिए जो अपने अनमोल अनुभवों से प्राप्त ज्ञान को कलमबद्ध करके पाठक के समक्ष प्रस्तुत कर सके, पाठक उसे आत्मसात् करके अपने जीवन में बदलाव ला सके। अतः साहित्य अपने इस उद्देश्य को पूर्ण करे, तभी वह सार्थक हो सकता है।

अथवा

(ग) गुरु-शिष्य सम्बन्ध

प्राचीन भारत में गुरु-शिष्य सम्बन्ध
वर्तमान स्थिति
कारण
निवारण।

उत्तरः
गुरु-शिष्य सम्बन्ध
गुरु गोबिंद दोऊ खड़े, काके लागूं पाय, बलिहारी गुरु आपने, जिन गोबिंद दियो बताय। गुरु को भारत में सदा से ही अत्यधिक सम्माननीय माना गया है। यहाँ तक कि अनेक सन्त-कवियों ने तो गुरु को ईश्वर का या उससे भी श्रेष्ठ दर्जा दे दिया है। किन्तु केवल गुरु का योग्य या शिक्षा देने में इच्छुक होना पर्याप्त नहीं है, शिष्य को भी शिक्षा प्राप्ति के लिए उतना ही उत्सुक व योग्य होना आवश्यक है और इन दोनों से भी ऊपर है गुरु व शिष्य के सम्बन्धों का मधुर, पवित्र व विश्वसनीय होना। गुरु निःस्वार्थ भाव से, दृढ़ता व लगन से शिक्षा दे व शिष्य पूर्ण निष्ठा, विश्वास, मेहनत व लगन से शिक्षा ग्रहण करे, तभी यह प्रक्रिया सफल हो सकती है। वर्तमान स्थिति इस सम्बन्ध में सन्तोषजनक नहीं है। गुरु वेतनभोगी हो गये हैं और शिष्य अनुशासनहीन, हठी व आचरणहीन होते जा रहे हैं। ऐसे में शिक्षा प्रक्रिया अपना उद्देश्य पूर्ण नहीं कर पाती, बल्कि अनेक प्रकार के अपराधों को जन्म देती है। छात्रों व अभिभावकों का अध्यापकों के ऊपर से विश्वास ही उठता जा रहा है। अध्यापकों के निर्देशों व कार्यों पर उँगली उठाई जाती है, संदेह की दृष्टि से देखा जाता है, विभिन्न प्रकार से उन पर नज़र रखी जाती है। ऐसे में शिक्षक के आत्म-सम्मान को ठेस पहुँचती है, वह स्वेच्छा से, विवेकपूर्वक शिक्षण प्रक्रिया को क्रियान्वित नहीं कर पाता।

कदम-कदम पर उसे जवाबदेही करनी पड़ती है, अपने स्वाभिमान को ताक पर रखकर शिक्षा प्रक्रिया को जारी रखना पड़ता है। ऐसे में शिक्षा अपना उद्देश्य कैसे पूर्ण कर सकती है। जिस चिकित्सक के पास हम अपने रोग के उपचार के लिए जाते हैं, जब तक उस पर पूर्ण विश्वास न हो, उसकी दवा काम नहीं कर सकती । उसी प्रकार जब तक छात्र अपने अध्यापकों पर विश्वास नहीं करेंगे, समर्पण का भाव नहीं आएगा, तब तक उनका ज्ञान छात्रों के हृदय तक पहुँच ही नहीं सकता। आवश्यकता इस बात की है कि अध्यापक निःस्वार्थ भाव से, पूरी तन्मयता से अपना ज्ञान व अनुभव छात्रों तक पहुँचायें व छात्र सम्मानपूर्वक ज्ञान ग्रहण करने में आनन्द लें, तभी यह ज्ञानयज्ञ सफल हो पायेगा ।

प्रश्न 15.
प्रधानाचार्या को पत्र लिखकर विद्यालय से आर्थिक सहायता की माँग करते हुए प्रार्थना कीजिए।
अथवा
आपका जन्मदिन धूमधाम से मनाया जा रहा है। इस अवसर पर अपने मित्र को पत्र लिखकर आमन्त्रित कीजिए।
उत्तरः
प्रधानाचार्या महोदया,
क ख ग विद्यालय,
नई दिल्ली।

विषय – आर्थिक सहायता हेतु प्रार्थना |

आदरणीय महोदया,
मैं आपके विद्यालय की कक्षा दसवीं का छात्र हूँ । नर्सरी कक्षा से नियमित रूप से इसी विद्यालय से शिक्षा प्राप्त कर रहा हूँ व प्रतिवर्ष अच्छे अंकों से उत्तीर्ण होता हूँ । समय-समय पर खेल प्रतियोगिताओं में भाग लेकर मैंने विद्यालय का नाम भी रोशन किया है।
महोदया, गत वर्ष से हमारे परिवार की आर्थिक स्थिति ठीक नहीं चल रही है। पिताजी मेरी पढ़ाई व विद्यालय के अन्य शुल्क चुकाने में समर्थ नहीं हो पा रहे हैं । मेरी आपसे विनम्र प्रार्थना है कि इस वर्ष मेरा शुल्क माफ कर दीजिए ताकि मैं आपके ही विद्यालय में शिक्षा जारी रख सकूँ।
मुझे आशा है कि आप मेरी प्रार्थना पर विचार करेंगी व मुझे इस रूप में आर्थिक सहायता देकर अनुग्रहीत करेंगी।
धन्यवाद ।
आपका आज्ञाकारी छात्र,
अ ब स
दिनांक………………….

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन,
नई दिल्ली।

दिनांक…………….

प्रिय मित्र,
सप्रेम नमस्ते।
मैं यहाँ परिवार सहित कुशल हूँ तथा आशा है तुम सपरिवार प्रसन्न व स्वस्थ होगे। तुम्हें यह जानकर हर्ष होगा कि मेरे पिताजी का तबादला वापस दिल्ली हो गया है। इसलिए इस वर्ष मेरा जन्मदिन बड़ी धूमधाम से मनाने का निर्णय किया है। तुम्हें मेरा जन्मदिन तो याद ही होगा। मेरा जन्मदिन 4 अक्टूबर को है। इस अवसर पर तुम अपने माता-पिता, भाई-बहन सहित सादर आमन्त्रित हो।
यह समारोह सायंकाल 7 बजे आरम्भ होगा। समारोह में गीत-संगीत, पार्टी-गेम्स के साथ-साथ सायंकाल के भोजन का भी प्रबन्ध है। आशा है कि तुम इस निमन्त्रण को स्वीकार कर अवश्य आओगे। इस शुभावसर पर पुराने मित्रों से मुलाकात हो जाएगी और कुछ गपशप भी हो जाएगी।

तुम्हारा अभिन्न मित्र,
क ख ग

प्रश्न 16.
आप भरतपुर निवासी श्यामा शर्मा हैं। वहाँ के साकेत कॉलेज में सहायक पद पाने के लिए लगभग 80 शब्दों में स्ववृत्त तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
आप मंगल बाजार, कोटा निवासी सूर्यम हैं। आपके पिता का तबादला जयपुर हो गया है। अतः आपको अलंकार पब्लिक स्कूल की नौकरी छोड़ कर जयपुर जाना होगा। इसके लिए अपने स्कूल के प्रबंधक महोदय को ई मेल लिखिए।
उत्तरः
सेवा में
प्रधानाचार्य महोदय
साकेत कॉलेज,
सिविल लाइन्स, भरतपुर
विषय : सहायक पद के लिए आवेदन पत्र।
महोदय,
मैं आज आपके कॉलेज में एक सहायक के रूप में नौकरी करने के अवसर के बारे में पूछने के लिए लिख रहा हूँ। मुझे आपका नाम डॉ. दिनेश चतुर्वेदी ने दिया था, जो विवेकानंद विश्वविद्यालय में मेरे प्रोफेसर रहे हैं। इस पद हेतु मैं अपना आवेदन प्रस्तुत कर रही हूँ। कॉलेज में इस पद हेतु सभी योग्यताओं को मैं पूरा करती हूँ। मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण इस प्रकार है –
अतः श्रीमान से निवेदन है कि मुझे सहायक के पद पर नियुक्त करने की कृपा करें।
धन्यवाद
निवेदक
श्यामा शर्मा
सुदामा बाजार
भरतपुर
18 अगस्त 20XX
मेरा स्ववृत्त आवेदन-पत्र के साथ संलग्न है।
स्ववृत्त

नाम : श्यामा शर्मा
पिता का नाम : ओंकार शर्मा
माता का नाम : स्नेहलता शर्मा
जन्मतिथि : 06 जुलाई, 1994
वर्तमान पता : 3, सुदामा बाजार, भरतपुर
मोबाइल : 7088XXX927
ईमेल : [email protected]

शैक्षणिक योग्यता

अन्य योग्यताएँ

कंप्यूटर में 1 वर्ष का डिप्लोमा
हिंदी, अंग्रेजी भाषा की जानकारी।

उपलब्धियाँ

विद्यालय स्तर पर लेखन प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार।
राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर विज्ञान खोज प्रतिभा हेतु चयन।
अखिल भारतीय विज्ञान मेला में प्रथम पुरस्कार

कार्येत्तर गतिविधियाँ और अभिरुचियाँ

हिंदी लेखन में विशेष रुचि।
विज्ञान प्रदर्शनी को आयोजन करने का अनुभव तथा रुचि

हस्ताक्षर
श्यामा शर्मा
दिनांक: X/XX/XXXX

अथवा

आप मंगल बाजार, कोटा निवासी सूर्यम हैं। आपके पिता का तबादला जयपुर हो गया है। अतः आपको अलंकार पब्लिक स्कूल की नौकरी छोड़ कर जयपुर जाना होगा। इसके लिए अपने स्कूल के प्रबंधक महोदय को ई मेल लिखिए।

From : [email protected]
To : [email protected]
Cc: …………
Bcc : ………

विषय: इस्तीफा पत्र
महोदय,
निवेदन है कि मेरे पिताजी का तबादला जयपुर हो गया है। अतः मुझे आपके विद्यालय में अपना पद छोड़ना होगा। आपके विद्यालय के नियमानुसार मुझे जाने से पहले एक महीने का नोटिस देना होगा। मुझे पूर्ण विश्वास है कि आप इस समय में इस पद हेतु अन्य उपयुक्त शिक्षक खोज लेंगे।
अतः आपसे अनुरोध है कि आप मेरे इस नोटिस को स्वीकार करें।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय
सूर्यम गुप्ता

प्रश्न 17.
एक आध्यात्मिक संस्था / ध्यान केंद्र के लिए लगभग 60 शब्दों में एक आकर्षक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए ।
अथवा
अपनी माँ के नाम – लगभग 80 शब्दों में सन्देश लिखिए ।
उत्तरः

आध्यात्मिक चर्चा

यदि आप अध्यात्म में रुचि रखते हैं;
यदि आप जीवन-जगत की सच्चाई को जानना चाहते हैं;
यदि आप हमेशा खुश रहना व खुशियाँ बाँटना चाहते हैं;
तो आइए, 26 मई, प्रातः 10 बजे से सायं 5 बजे तक होने वाली इस
आध्यात्मिक कार्यशाला में भाग लीजिए।
अधिक जानकारी के लिए सम्पर्क करें-9810203546

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

October 28, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) Nature is our mother, our first teacher. The greatest lesson that she teaches us is to maintain an equilibrium in life. We learn to maintain composure through our joys, sorrows and fears. In fact there are a thousand lessons that nature can teach us, provided we look for them.

(2) With time, a sapling grows into a full- grown tree: something so tiny and delicate develops into a strong tree capable of supporting others. No matter how tall it grows, how much it may flourish, or how many animats and birds it may support, its roots are firmly buried from where it once rose. That’s a lesson – to keep ourselves grounded, respect and embrace our roots, and give something back to those humble beginnings that nurtured us into who we are.

(3) Then there is the message of peaceful coexistence. 7 am because we are.’Nature provides every creature a chance to exist However, the existence of one creature or being depends on the existence of the other. The tiger eats the antelope; without the antelope, the tiger wouldn’t survive. Likewise, without tigers, the over-abundance of antelopes would cause them to starve to death.

(4) wonder if you have noticed that when birds or squirrels see a predator, they give out an alarm call to their fellow creatures, of the lurking danger. They put themselves in danger to save the lives of others. Many animals, like the salmon, usually die after they spawn, but this doesn’t stop them. Ore life extinguished for the betterment of others is a small price to pay.

(5) The snow melts in the warmth of spring to give birth to fresh green leaves. In autumn these leaves age into shades of gold only to be buried in the cold grave of winter. Change is inevitable: the sooner we embrace this, the better it is for us. We must also understand that even in pain there is growth. If you cut a hole in the tree, it will grow around it No matter what may come in its way, a river will continue to flow. Similarly, no matter what grief may break your heart nature teaches us that life goes on.

(6) Keep in mind life isn’t about making lists and trying to be one step ahead of others. Life is to live. Take a break-stop being a workaholic, and smell the roses, do whatever makes you feel happy and most of all spend some time with nature to pick up invaluable lessons. (419 words)
(So urce.https://mi ssionself.com/ important-lessons-we-can-learn-from- nature).
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) According to the author, what is the greatest lesson being taught by nature? [1]
Answer:
According to the author, the greatest lesson taught by nature is to maintain emotional equilibrium in our life by keeping composure through vivid emotions.

(B) What does the phrase ‘I am because we are’ conveys? [1]
Answer:
The given phrase conveys that everyone is dependent on each other.

(C) List 1 quality that the birds and squirrels display when they warn others of possible danger. [1]
Answer:
The birds and squirrels display selfless assistance to others when they warn them of possible danger.

(D) Select the option with the underlined words that can substitute the word lurking in ONE PHRASE (paragraph 4).
(a) The policeman pulled up the person who was wandering aimlessly through the city.
(b) The thief knew that remaining hidden was the best strategy to avoid being caught.
(c) The policeman was caught on camera while pouncing with force, to grab the fleeing culprit.
(d) The thief was walking boldly into the house thinking it was devoid of residents. [1]
Answer:
(b) The thief knew that remaining hidden was the best strategy to avoid being caught.
Explanation: The meaning of the term ‘Lurking’ is hidden. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(E) A Portmanteau words like smog (smoke + fog), is a blend of words in which parts of multiple words are combined into a new word.

From the options given below, select a Portmanteau word that appears in the para 6.
(a) coexistence
(b) workaholic
(c) full-grown
(d) flourish [1]
Answer:
(b) workaholic (work + alcoholic).

(F) Select the qualities from paragraph 3, that the author wants us to imbibe.
Being:
(1) acceptive
(2) passionate
(3) emotional
(4) resilient
(5) perceptive
(a) (2), (4) and (5)
(b) (1), (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (4) and (5)
(d) (3), (4) and (5) [1]
Answer:
(c) (1), (4) and (5).
Explanation: Paragraph 3 wants us to (1) accept the coexistence of creatures for benefit to oneself. It wants us to be
(4) resilient and (5) perceptive of the fact that a creature requires to be dependent on the other creature for its survival. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(G) The ‘change of season’ in the passage is an example of the fact that nothing lasts forever. (True/false) [1]
Answer:
True

(H) What does the writer advise in the paragraph 6? [1]
Answer:
In paragraph 6, the writer advise us to take a break from our busy schedule and live it to the fullest. He also advise us to spend some time with nature.

(I) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passage.
Survive : vanished :: ……………… : strong [1]
Answer:
Delicate

(J) It is good to be ……………… but never over-indulge yourself into work. [1]
Answer:
workaholic

Question 2.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)

(1) E-learning is the process of acquiring knowledge through electronic technologies and resources. A rise in the number of internet users has increased the market demand for sophisticated online learning courses. According to the Office for National Statistics, nearly all adults in the age group of 10 to 44 years in the UK were recent internet users (99%) in 2019. The availability of enhanced network connectivity coupled with the convenience offered by on-demand courses, will drive the market size.

(2) According to the World Economic Forum, around 1.2 billion children are out of classrooms with schools shut down globally due to COV1D-19 pandemic. Electronic Learning Management Systems such as Google Classroom is helping classes to connect distantly, communicate efficiently and stay organized. Large scale national efforts to leverage technology to the market players in support of distance education, remote, and online learning during the covid-19 pandemic are emerging and evolving rapidly.

(3) The virtual classroom technology in the e-learning market is expected to grow at a CAGR (Compound Annual Growth Rate) of 11% during the forecast timespan. A virtual classroom is a digital environment that enables live interaction between a tutor and a learner.

Videos conferencing and online white-board for real-time collaboration are the most common tools used in a digital teaching space. Synchronous and collaborative virtual classes allows active participation of students, reacting an environment similar to a physical classroom.

(4) The technique is gaining traction with an increasing number of corporate and academic sectors deploying it for enhanced training sessions. Multilateral organizations and world bodies, such as WHO and G20, are also deploying e-learning modes to teach healthcare professionals.

(5) Content providers segment accounted for around 60% e-learning market share in 2019 E-learning providers share content on a varied range of topics by collaborating with domain experts that help them to develop the learning content They focus on offering specific and customized content as per the end-user requirements.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) Select the option that is true for the two statements given below.
(1) According to the World Economic Forum, around 1.2 billion children are out of classrooms.
(2) Schools are shot down due to COVID-19 pandemic.
(a) (1) is the result of (2).
(b) (1) is the reason for (2).
(c) (1) is independent of (2).
(d) (1) contradicts (2). [1]
Answer:
(a) (1) is the result of (2)
Explanation: It is clearly given in paragraph 2 of the passage that according to the World Economic Forum, around 1.2 billion children are out of classroom as schools are shut down due to COVID-19 pandemic. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(B) Multilateral organizations and world bodies are ……………….. to teach healthcare professionals. [1]
Answer:
Deploying e-learning modes

(C) Select the option that lists the INCORRECT statement from the ones given below.
(I) E-learning is the process of acquiring knowledge through electronic technologies and resources.
(II) All adults in the age group of 16 to 14 years in the UK were recent internet users (99%) in 2019.
(III) A rise in the number of internet users has increased the market share physical classroom.
(IV) Content providers segment accounted for around 60% e-learning share in in 2010.
(a) (III)
(b) (IV) and (II)
(c) (II) and (I)
(d) (I) [1]
Answer:
(a) (III)

(D) State the common tool used in digital teaching space. [1]
Answer:
Online whiteboard

(E) What is the process of acquiring knowledge, through electronic technology and resources? [1]
Answer:
E-learning

(F) Select the appropriate option to fill in the blank.
……………….. is gaining attention in the academic sectors.
(a) Paperback
(b) Virtual classrooms
(c) E-books
(d) Offline classes [1]
Answer:
(b) Virtual classrooms

(G) Pick the option that gives the correct meaning of the following statement from the options given below.
The online market of learning is supposed to be maximized by 2026.”
(I) Nearly all adults in the age group of 16 to 44 years in the LK were recent internet users (99%) in 2018.
(II) A virtualclassroom is a sophisticated environment that enables live interaction
(III) The E-Learning market size is expected to reach $357 billion by 2026.
(IV) Video conferencing and online whiteboard are the most common tools used in the World Fxonomic Forum.
(a) (I)
(b) (IV)
(c) CO
(d) (III) [1]
Answer:
(d) (III)

(H) E-commerce providers share content on a varied range of topics. (True/false). [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: E-learners providers share content on a varied range of topics, not e-commerce.

(I) What per cent of e-learning market share was segmented by the content providers in 2019? [1]
Answer:
60%

(J) According to the World Economic Forum, how many students were out of classrooms as an effect of COVID-19? [1]
Answer:
1.2 billion

Section – B
Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Attempt ANY TEN of the given questions:
(A) Choose the correct option to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.
Benjamin was a popular barber. He ………………. and had regular customers.
(a) is skilled
(b) had skilled
(c) was skilled
(d) has skilled [1]
Answer:
(c) was skilled

(B) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct options.
I ……………… working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
(a) have been
(b) had been
(c) shall be
(d) am [1]
Answer:
(a) have been

(C) Complete the given sentence with right option.
Rohan ………………… the movie before he read the review.
(a) watches
(b) have watched
(c) had watched
(d) was watching [1]
Answer:
(c) had watched

(D) Fill in the blank with the correct tense.
He …………………. in the States but he still does not have a command over the English language.
(a) have been living
(b) has been living
(c) have lived
(d) living [1]
Answer:
(b) has been living

(E) Complete the sentence with the correct form of (be).
Every boy and girl ………………… in the class today.
(a) are present
(b) is present
(c) have present
(d) had present [1]
Answer:
(a) are present

(F) Sometimes, he ………………… bring me some gifts.
(a) could
(b) would
(c) any
(d) can [1]
Paper was first make by the Egyptians
for the plant named ‘papyrus’. For
a long time, papyrus were exclusively used
as written material before the Chinese
perfect the processes.
Answer:
(b) would

(G) Anxiety, as well as tension, ………………… the cause of her jitter.
(a) are
(b) is
(c) shall
(d) were [1]
Answer:
(b) is

(H) No one, besides James, ………………… it.
(a) knowing
(b) knowed
(c) knows
(d) known [1]
Answer:
(c) knows.
Explanation: As ‘James’ is a singular noun. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(I) The teacher said that we ………………… read this book as it is important for exams
(a) must
(b) needn’t
(c) shall
(d) were [1]
Answer:
(a) must

(J) I gave ………………… dress to Bunny.
(a) my
(b) mine
(c) their
(d) all [1]
Answer:
(a) my
Explanation: Only a singular pronoun can go with the singular noun ‘dress’. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(K) Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the narration.
(1) You have the latest ‘Cars’
(2) Surprise, Johni
(3) I know how annoyed you were with the c-book, So I went to the store and found you a physical book!
(4) Thanks you Mom [1]
John was annoyed as he couldn’t enjoy the Cars monthly issue digitally. So, his mom surprised him with a physical book. She knew that John was (i) ………… with the digital version, so she went to the store and got it for him. John was elated.
Choose the correct option for (i)
(a) shocked
(b) elated
(c) annoyed
(d) sad [1]
Answer:
(c) annoyed

(L) The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write its correction against the correct blank number. The first one has been done for you.

Example	Error make	Correction mode
(i)	…………………….	…………………….
(ii)	…………………….	…………………….
(iii)	…………………….	…………………….

Answer:

Error	Correction
(i) for	from
(ii) were	was
(iii) written	writing

Explanation: Paper was made ’from’ Papyrus and not ‘for’ Papyrus. So, ‘from’ is the right answer.
Explanation: Papyrus is a singular noun, so ‘was’ will be used. Hence, this is the right answer.
Explanation: ’written’ is the wrong form of the word ‘write’ here. The correct form is ‘writing’. Hence, it is the right answer.

Creative Writing Skills

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
You are Harsh/Harsha of D2, B Block, Pitampura, New Delhi. Some senior citizens living in your neighbourhood are badly neglected and humiliated by their own children. Such incidents have touched your heart. You want to share your concern through a letter to the editor of a reputed national daily of Delhi in 100-120 words.
OR
You are Manjula Raman, Principal of Gita Public School, Baradari, Jalandhar. You come across an advertisement of a landscaping firm specialising in building green houses and also developing golf courses. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the manager of Green With Us, enquiring about their services and other discounts. [5]
Answer:
D2, B Block
Pitampura
New Delhi
20^th March 20XX
The Editor
The Hindustan Times
New Delhi
Subject: Elders abused, neglected and humiliated
Respected sir/madam
It is shocking to hear about the abuse of the elderly, who should be taken care of instead. Each year, thousands of senior citizens are abused, neglected or financially exploited. This is called elder abuse. Elders can be abused emotionally, physically or neglected by their care-giver. In India, stories of elders being mistreated are swept under the carpet However, many older people are ashamed to report mistreatment or fear that their abuser will make the situation worse.

If we sense that someone is being abused, we must talk to them in confidence. We can express that we are worried and offer to give help. Many local, state and national social service agencies can help with emotional, legal, and financial problems.

The administration for community living has a national center on elder abuse where you can learn about reporting abuse, getting help and laws that deal with abuse and neglect.
Yours faithfully,
Harsh / Harsha
OR
Gita Public School
Baradari
Jalandhar
1^st March 20XX
The Manager
Green With Us
Chandigarh
Subject: Enquiry about landscaping services Dear sir/madam
This is with reference to your advertisement in The Tribune, dated 25th February 20XX. We are quite impressed by your services and products. We are a reputed school and are interested in employing your services.

We want to build a mini golf course and are also looking to have greenhouses to develop eco-friendly values in students. Will you be able to take on the contract and provide outstation services? Would it be possible to complete everything within three months. Do you have your own designers or should we provide the same? Kindly also let us know if you use environment-friendly material.

Do let us know your charges and other unique and student-friendly products that you may have. We would also like to know if your company gives additional discounts to educational institutions. Kindly share the details on the school’s mail at the earliest.
Yours sincerely
Manjula Raman
Principal

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100¬120 words.
The callous attitude of people towards the environment has led to a global disaster. Taking help of the visual inputs, write an analytical paragraph in 100-120 words on global warming and the steps that need to be taken to prevent the situation from deteriorating.

Hints: Environmental disasters – earthquakes – storms – cyclones – waiting to happen – global warming – deforestation – increasing vehicles – misuse of energy – role of human beings – save electricity, water, petrol – plant more trees.
OR
Read the following excerpt from an article that appeared in ‘The Times of India’.
“Social media can be termed as a blessing and a curse. Social media has brought the world so close that political and geographical boundaries are crumbling. Time may come when netizenship may surpass citizenship. The more people-to-people communication is, the more is the strengthening of relationships. This is the basic principle of the political concept of nation-building. In an information society, bonds grow stronger. We are now heading towards a world- order of Net-state or states. In between, an ominous development of misuse of social media has cropped up.”

The given pie chart depicts the impact of social media.

As Aditya/Aditi, write an analytical to protect the youth from its evil effects and paragraph in 100-120 words on the impact also how it can be a tool for business and of social media and what needs to be done growth. Hints: Environmental disasters – earthquakes – storms – cyclones – waiting to happen – global warming – deforestation – increasing vehicles – misuse of energy – role of human beings – save electricity, water, petrol – plant more trees.
Answer:
Impact of Global Warming
Global warming refers to an increase in the average temperature of the Earth as a result of the greenhouse effect in which, gases in the upper atmosphere trap solar radiation close to the planet’s surface instead of allowing it to dissipate into space.
The world is reeling in the after effects of global warming, with recurring environmental disasters like earthquakes,

floods and cyclones causing loss of life and property. Increasing numbers of vehicles and mass deforestation have led to a spike in greenhouse gases. Both natural and human- made conditions can be responsible, but humans can reduce it. Using less energy or alternative, non-polluting energy sources like solar and wind powers and afforestation can slow or stop global warming. Decomposing waste in landfills produces methane and other greenhouse gases. Waste also requires energy to manufacture in the first place, which can be reduced.
OR
Social Media – A Boon or a Bane
By Aditya / Aditi
More and more people are now realising that social media can be a useful tool for personal and business growth. Being on sociat media can help generate leads for those seeking jobs and also for companies looking to build an experienced workforce. People can also advertise their products on social media, which gives them the impetus to grow their business, therefore making social media an important tool for growth and increasing income.

However, like everything else, social media has a downside and the target is the adolescents. Youngsters get enticed and trapped by stalkers and predators. They become victims of cyber abuse and are likely to become depressed. The need of the hour is to create awareness that social media can be a powerful tool of information and growth if used wisely.

Section – C
Literature (40 Marks)

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts (1 x 5 = 5)
Tenth May dawned bright and clear. For the past few days, I had been pleasantly besieged by dignitaries and world leaders who were coming to pay their respects before the inauguration. The inauguration would be the largest gathering ever of international leaders on South African soil. The ceremonies would take place in the lovely sandstone amphitheatre formed by the Union Buildings in Pretoria.

For decades this had been the seat of white supremacy, and now, it was the site of a rainbow gathering of different colours and nations for the installation of South Africa’s first democratic, non-racial government.
(A) Identify the emotion of the people of South Africa. [1]
Answer:
independent
Explanation: The day described in the passage is when South Africa won its freedom and first non-racial government was being sworn in. People of Africa were happy and felt confident about their bright future. But all this was because they felt independent.

(B) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to the given extract:
(1) The ceremony took place in grand amphitheatre.
(2) The inauguration was experienced as the largest gathering.
(3) It was the time for the formation of non-racial government
(4) The incident was noticed on Tenth June.
(5) The white men ruled Africa decades back.
(6) It was the installation ceremony.
(7) It was South Africa’s republican day.
(a) (4) and (5)
(b) (1) and (2)
(c) (5) and (6)
(d) (3) and (4) [1]
Answer:
(a) (4) and (5)
Explanation: The writer tells us that the installation ceremony of the first non- racial government of South Africa took place in a grand amphitheatre in front of a large gathering. Hence (1), (2), (3) & (6) are true. This was the day of their independence from white men. so (7) is also true. It was the day of 10th May. Hence (4) and (7) are incorrect. Thus, the correct answer is (a).

(C) Pick the option that correctly classifies fact/s (F) and opinion/s (O) of the statement below:
(1) I think it is the installation ceremony of the first non racial government of South Africa.
(2) It is a moment of pride for all the South Africans.
(3) The is moment in South Africa came after great bloodshed.
(4) South Africa would not be called as a republic and secular country.
(a) F- (2), (3), (4) and O – (1)
(b) F- (3), (2) and O – (4), (1)
(c) F- (2), (4) and O – (3), (1)
(d) F- (1), (2) and O – (3), (4) [1]
Answer:
(d) F – (1), (2) and O – (3), (4)
Explanation: The passage is about the installation ceremony of South Africa. All people felt happy and proud. The way of achieving independence and whether South Africa will be a secular state or not are not given in the passage. Hence (3), (4) are the opinions and (1), (2) are facts. Therefore, the answer is (d).

(D) Which word does ‘lovely’ NOT correspond to?
(a) happy
(b) beautiful
(c) charismatic
(d) ugly [1]
Answer:
(d) ugly
Explanation: The writer has described the morning as lovely because everyone was happy. The day had a charisma of its own as it was the day of the inauguration of the Republic of South Africa, and as it was autumn the atmosphere was beautiful. Hence (a), (b) and (c) all correspond to lovely. Option (d) is therefore, the correct answer.

(E) Which word in the extract means the same as ‘placement of a person in office with ceremony’? [1]
Answer:
inauguration
Explanation: Inauguration (a) marks the beginning of something. Besieged means to surround and international is something that is beyond a nation. Installation means to put something at a particular position. Hence (a) is the correct answer.

OR
I was really worried about Tricki this time. I had pulled up my car when I saw him in the street with his mistress and I was shocked at his appearance. He had become hugely fat, like a heated sausage with a leg at each corner. His eyes, bloodshot and rheumy, stared straight ahead and his tongue lolled from his jaws.

(A) A child should consume which of the following food item so as to be healthy:
(a) burger
(b) sandwich
(c) french fries
(d) balanced diet food [1]
Answer:
(d) balanced diet food
Explanation: The passage brings out the importance of a balanced and regular diet along with exercising. Hence the figures (1, 2 and 3) do not align with the passage. A child should therefore eat a balanced diet so (d) is the correct answer.

(B) Why was ‘he’ worried?
Because ………………….. [1]
Answer:
Tricki was obese and was in a poor physical condition.
Explanation: When the author saw Tricki he was out in the street with his mistress, his tongue lolled out of his jaws, he could barely stand. What worried the author was his poor physical condition. He had become overweight

(C) The statement that is True about the shocking attitude of author relates to:
(a) Tricki’s condition in the street.
(b) Tricki’s eating habit.
(c) Tricki’s immature behavior.
(d) Tricki’s greed. [1]
Answer:
(a) Tricki’s condition in the street
Explanation: Author was shocked to see Tricki’s condition. He could make out that his mistress had fed him a lot he was now become greedy. The answer here is (a)

(D) Tricki was obese as he:
(a) had a huge fat body.
(b) couldn’t walk properly.
(c) had poor physical condition.
(d) was studious by nature. [1]
Answer:
(a) had a huge fat body.
Explanation: Obese is a person who is overweight

(E) The extract uses the phrases “shocked at his appearance”. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘shocked’?
(a) at his looks
(b) at the market
(c) at his surprise
(d) at his behaviour [1]
Answer:
(b) at the market
Explanation: When a person is shocked, most of the time it involves an element of surprise. One can be surprised by someone’s looks or behaviour but not at a place. Hence (a),(c) and (d) cannot be the answers. The answer here is (b).

Question 7.
Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts. (1 x 5 = 5)
Some say the world will end in fire
some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.
(A) In the given line, “I hold with those who favour fire”. The synonym for the word favour’ is:
(a) rejects
(b) service
(c) aligns
(d) end [1]
Answer:
(c) aligns
Explanation: The poet here tells us that he agrees with those people who think ice will be the reason for the world to end. Hence rejects and service are not the answers. The correct answer here is (c) aligns as it refers to being in line or agreement with something.

(B) What is the rhyme scheme for the given stanza? [1]
Answer:
a b a a
Explanation: First, third and fourth lines of the given stanza rhyme with each other.

(C) What is the similarity between fire and ice?
They both ……………….. . [1]
Answer:
cause destruction
Explanation: Fire and ice have been compared with desire and hate. The poet tells us that both these are capable of destroying the world.

(D) What does the stanza is NOT LIKELY to represent?
(a) human emotion
(b) desire
(c) jealousy
(d) happiness [1]
Answer:
(d) happiness
Explanation: The poet in this stanza talks about fire end ice. He has used them as symbols to represent human emotions of desire and hate. Therefore (a), (b) & (c) are not the answers. Both of these represent gloom. The correct answer is (d).

(E) What do fire and ice represent? [1]
Answer:
negative human emotion
Explanation: Poet has used fire and ice to represent human emotions of desire and hate. These represent gloom and destruction.
OR
What is the boy now, who has lost his ball,
What, what is he to do? I saw it go
Merrily bouncing, down the street, and then
Merrily over – there it is in the water!
No use to say ‘O there are other balls’:
An ultimate shaking grief fixes the boy
As he stands rigid, trembling, staring down
All his young days into the harbour where
His ball went. I would not intrude on him;
A dime, another ball, is worthless.
(A) Express the feeling of the boy given in the stanza:
(a) full of adventure.
(b) enjoying carefree days.
(c) having the seriousness to study more.
(d) extremely joyful. [1]
Answer:
(b) enjoying carefree days.
Explanation: Using the boy and his play ball, poet has expressed the feelings of the age when one has no responsibilities. When a boy plays with his ball, he doesn’t feel adventurous, nor he has any seriousness of his studies. He is just enjoying. The age when a boy plays with the ball is the age of being carefree. Hence the answer here is (b).

(B) The poet feels that consoling the boy is of no use because ………………….. . [1]
Answer:
his loss is irreparable.
Explanation: The poet feels that consoling the boy is of no use, not because it will arouse his fade hope but because he knows the wheel of time moves the same for everyone. The boy knows that there is no use of demanding for a new ball as the new ball will not be the same as the old one. That is the time that the future is very much different from the past The loss is irreparable as the time that has gone by cannot return.

(C) The phrase ‘ shaking grief refers to:
(a) Boy is trembling with fear.
(b) The grief of gone by time churns the boy’s emotions.
(c) Boy was in grief due to an earthquake.
(d) Someone shook the boy when he was in grief. [1]
Answer:
(b) The grief of gone by time churns the boy’s emotions.
Explanation: When the ball that represents the carefree days of a person goes into water i.e the carefree days of a person are over, he is not frightened (a). There is no earthquake neither the boy is shaken by anyone (c) & (d) Rather he is shaken by the realisation that now his playful days are over and he has to shoulder the responsibilities of life. The memories of his gone by days fill him with grief. Hence the answer here is (b).

(D) What feeling of the boy, the poet expresses in the lines?
“What is the boy now, who has lost his ball.
What, what is he to do?” [1]
Answer:
helplessness
Explanation: The boy has lost his ball, so he is not happy. He has just lost his ball so he is unable to understand the grief of the loss. The boy is unable to decide what to do. He just stands and watches his ball gone into the water helplessly. Hence the answer is (c).

(E) The word that DOES NOT indicate the true condition of the boy in the poem is:
(a) rigid
(b) trembling
(c) happy
(d) remorseful [1]
Answer:
(c) happy
Explanation: The boy stands rigid(a) i.e. he stands still as if in a shock over what has happened. He is trembling(b) to realize that now he will have no ball to play with i.e. he won’t have such merry time again. He is saddened by the loss of ball. He is in grief (remorseful) (d). So all these are not the answers. He is not at all happy (c).

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR questions in 40-50 words each. (4 x 3 = 12)
(A) What happened when the young seagull dived at the fish picked up by his mother? [3]
Answer:
When the young seagull dived at the fish, he fell outwards and downwards with a scream. A monstrous terror seized him and his heart stood still Soon, his wings spread outwards and he could feel the tips of his wings cutting through the air.

(B) Why does Amanda want to be Rapunzel? [3]
Answer:
Rapunzel lived alone in a tower, with no one to nag her all the time. Amanda thought that Rapunzel’s life must have been very peaceful and wonderful. That is why, she wants to be Rapunzel.

(C) How did the bakers dress during the narrator’s childhood days? [3]
Answer:
During the narrator’s childhood, the bakers would wear a shirt and trousers which were shorter than full-length ones and longer than half-pants. People who wear such pants even today are nicknamed “pader”.

(D) Anne’s creativity saved her from punishment. Explain [3]
Answer:
Anne was a young girl who loved to talk and this often got her into trouble with her teacher, Mr Keesing. He would always give her extra tasks as punishments but when she was asked to write an essay titled ‘Quack, Quack, Quack, Said Mistress Chatterbox’, she wrote a humorous poem which made her teacher realise the futility of the punishment. He also understood that Anne was a bright girl and he did not punish her after that.

(E) What life changing decision has the poet Walt Whitman taken? Why? [3]
Answer:
The poet has decided to leave behind the society of humans because he finds them complicated and false. He wants to live with animals because they still retain the basic aspects of their nature as a living being which humans gave up long ago.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO questions in 40-50 words each. (3 x 2 = 6)
(A) How can you tell that Hari was happy working for Anil? [3]
(B) How does dowry negate a girl’s dignity? Write your answer with reference to Bholi. [3]
(C) What was the impact of Ebright’s study of monarch pupas? [3]
Answer:
(A) Hari liked working for Anil and was happy to do the chores for him. He was also grateful for the education he was receiving. He used to make profit of about a rupee a day as well, which was a decent amount. He was also getting his meals regularly which was a welcome bonus.

(B) Each girl is an individual in her own right. Equal opportunities in life can help her become independent and strong. She is not a burdensome object to be given away with money as compensation. Thus dowry negates a girl’s dignity and self respect.

Bholi is thought to be ugly and dumb by her parents. Therefore, they are willing to pay dowry to an old man with a limp, so that he marries her. Bholi, on the other hand, refuses to marry him. She is educated, assertive and capable of taking care of herself. She dedicates her life to the service of her parents and teaching at school

(C) The scientific community had regarded the bright spots on a monarch pupa as purely ornamental for a very long time. But Dr. Urquhart and Richard did not believe it. Richard started his experiments on the monarch pupa which led to the discovery of a hormone necessary for the growth of the butterfly. It led to another important study. He began working on how cells read their DNA. DNA is the carrier of heredity and is called the blueprint of life. His theory could find answers to many cancers and diseases.

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words:
Instead of boasting, we should do something valuable. Custard, the dragon was considered a coward. The humble dragon proved his bravery in adversity. Analyse that certain qualities like bravery and courage are situational and spontaneous. Express your views with reference to The Tale of Custard the Dragon.
OR
Read the extracts given below and comment on the similarity of tone in both the extracts. Also, analyse the situations in the context.
(A) CHUBOKOV: To court? You can take it to court, and all that! You can! I know you; you’re just on the look-out for a chance to go to court, and all that. You pettifogger! All your people were like that! All of them!

(B) “God! Of the money that I asked for, only seventy pesos reached me. Send me the rest, since I need it very much. But don’t send it to me through the mail because the post office employees are a bunch of crooks. Lencho” [6]
Answer:
People sometimes do not know their strength and underestimate themselves. They do not believe in themselves. They are not aware of their inner strength. They are meek and never confront any situation boldly. But when any kind of calamity befalls them, they are able to face it boldly. On the other hand, some people pose to be very brave but cannot face even the slightest of problems.

We find that in the poem, the dragon is a coward. He wants to live peacefully. However, when actual trouble falls on Belinda and all her associates run away, Custard, the dragon, gobbles up the pirate to save Belinda. Custard, even after saving everyone, does not boast of anything. Such is the brave but humble quality of Custard who saved all his friends. We also learn that circumstances reveal our true character.
OR
(A) The tone in both the dialogues given is accusative. Chubokov accuses Lomov’s family to have cheated them and grabbed the Oxen Meadows when it rightfully belongs to them. In the play, Oxen Meadows becomes a land of dispute because both Natalya and Lomov exercise their right over the land and end up in a heated argument Chubokov’s assertion does not improve the situation as he too resorts to name-calling and accuses Lomov of engaging in such betrayal.

(B) Similarly, Lencho also feels betrayed by the postmaster as he is surprised to find 30 pesos less. Being an ardent believer in god, he cannot expect god sending him 30 pesos less. Thus, he accuses the postmaster to have swindled away the remaining 30 pesos.

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words:
“How would it have been if she had not lost the necklace? Who knows? How singular is life, and how full of changes! How small a thing will ruin or save one!”
If you were placed in a situation like that of Matilda, what would you have done? Write your views in context with the lesson, ‘The Necklace’. Would you have displayed the trait of vanity similar to hers?
OR
“The ones who create chaos in society, dismantle the notion of quietude for their own vested interest, are indeed termed as lawless.” Analyse the character of Griffin in the light of the statement given above. [6]
Answer:
It is true that ‘Necklace’ shows that vanity is an eviL Matilda was vain and always wanted to be appreciated for her beauty. She always thought that she had been meant for a higher society. However, she was married into an ordinary family. The invitation to the party was the beginning of her downfalL She borrowed the diamond necklace for it However, the party and the appreciation brought her joy only for a short period. At the party, Matilda was on cloud nine, but the loss of the counterfeit necklace brought

her ruin. Her vanity did not allow her to tell Madame Forestier of the loss. She had to pay the price of vanity through her nose.

If I were placed in such a situation, I would have told Madame Forestier of the loss. Firstly, I would have never dreamt of materialistic things like Matilda. I would have recognised the realities of life and gone ahead accordingly. Telling Madame Forestier would have brought out the real cost of the necklace, and I would have gladly paid it and saved myself from the drudgery that Matilda had to undergo.
OR
Griffin was the main character of ‘Footprints Without Feet’. He was a mysterious character. His lawlessness brings trouble to him and to those around him. He liked to keep to himself as he could never feel a sense of belonging to the larger community. During his time at the inn, he tried his best to conceal his identity. He hated audience of any kind, and abruptly cut short anyone who tried to talk to him. His strange behaviour gave way to rumours about him. When Mrs. Hall, the innkeeper, demanded an explanation from him, he finally revealed his identity and started a reign of terror.

Griffin was a brilliant scientist. He had discovered a drug, which made his body as transparent as a sheet of glass. This made him invisible. However, Griffin became a lawless person. His greed, overconfidence and inclination to commit crimes made him a homeless wanderer without clothes and money. Griffin was a man who had no conscience. He was self-centered and did not care for the troubles of other people. He seemed to be at war with the entire mankind and only wanted to save himself. He had no sympathy for others. He enjoyed being cruel and lawless.

So although Griffin was a talented scientist, his negative traits and utter disregard for law ruined him.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 2 with Solutions

October 28, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 2 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

इस प्रश्नपत्र में दो खंड हैं-खंड ‘क’ और ‘ख’। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/ वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न दिए गए हैं।
प्रश्नपत्र के दोनों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमानुसार लिखिए।
खंड ‘क’ में कुल 10 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
खंड ‘ख’ में कुल 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार विकल्प का ध्यान रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘क’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
साहित्य और समाज दोनों एक-दूसरे पर आश्रित हैं। साहित्य के बिना समाज निष्प्राण और जड़ है तो समाज के बिना साहित्य की रचना ही असंभव है। यदि साहित्य-रचना किसी प्रकार कर भी ली जाए तो वह केवल अरण्य-रोदन मात्र होगी, उसे सुनने वाला, उससे प्रभावित होने वाला कोई नहीं होगा। स्वयं ‘साहित्य’ शब्द में समाज छिपा हुआ है। यदि ‘स+हित’ शब्द से साहित्य की व्युत्पत्ति स्वीकार करें तो प्रश्न उठेगा कि हित किसका? कहा जा सकता है कि हित तो एक व्यक्ति का भी हो सकता है या केवल रचनाकार का भी हो सकता है। किंतु व्यक्ति के हित अथवा रचनाकार के हित का महत्व भी समाज की सापेक्षता में ही है। यदि ‘सहितस्य भाव साहित्यम्’ वाली व्युत्पत्ति को स्वीकार किया जाए तो वहाँ तो साथ रहने का भाव स्पष्ट ही है। इसी प्रकार शब्द-अर्थ के सहभाव को साहित्य मानें तब भी, रसात्मक वाक्य को साहित्य मानें तब भी और जीवन की व्याख्या को साहित्य मानें तब भी साहित्य समाज का पूरक ही ठहरता है।

आचार्य विश्वनाथ ने साहित्य को धर्म, अर्थ, काम एवं मोक्ष की प्राप्ति का साधन बतलाया है। मम्मट ने काव्य को यश, अर्थ, व्यवहार का ज्ञान, अशिव की क्षति, कांतिसम्मत उपदेश और ‘स्व’, ‘पर’ की भावना से मुक्त करने वाला बतलाया है। तुलसीदास ने लिखा है- कीरति, भणिति भूति भल सोई। सुरसरि सम सब कहँ हित कोई।।

अर्थात्-यश, कविता, ऐश्वर्य वही अच्छा है जो गंगा के समान सबका कल्याण कर सके। तुलसीदास ने ‘रामचरितमानस’ को ‘स्वांतः सुखाय तुलसी रघुनाथ गाथा’ अवश्य कहा था किंतु चार-पाँच सौ वर्षों बाद भी रामचरितमानस आज बहुत सारे लोगों को आनंद दे रहा है, उनका कल्याण कर रहा है। विश्वनाथ और मम्मट द्वारा गिनाए गए प्रयोजनों की सिद्धि भी समाज में रहकर ही संभव है।

कोई भी साहित्यकार शून्य में रचना नहीं करता। शून्य में रचा जाने वाला साहित्य अरण्य रोदन होता है। उसके अनुभव और उसके विचार निविड़ एकांत में जन्म नहीं लेते। जीवन और समाज के व्यापक परिप्रेक्ष्य में ही उनका जन्म होता है और उसी में व्यक्त होकर उन्हें सार्थकता प्राप्त होती है। साहित्य को समाज का दर्पण कहा जाता है। इस कथन में इतना ही सत्य है कि प्रत्येक युग के जीवन की छाप उस युग के साहित्य पर पड़ती है। (क) साहित्य को समाज का दर्पण क्यों कहा जाता है?
(i) क्योंकि किसी भी युग की झलक उस युग के साहित्य से मिल जाती है।
(ii) क्योंकि साहित्य सबसे पुराना होता है।
(iii) क्योंकि साहित्य में प्राचीन परम्पराओं का निवास होता है।
(iv) क्योंकि साहित्य सभी गुणों से युक्त है।
उत्तरः
(i) क्योंकि किसी भी युग की झलक उस युग के साहित्य से मिल जाती है।

(ख) आज रामचरितमानस क्या कार्य कर रहा है?
(i) उन्हें कथा सुना रहा है
(ii) उनका कल्याण कर रहा है
(iii) उन पर आश्रित है
(iv) उनका दर्पण है
उत्तरः
(ii) उनका कल्याण कर रहा है।

(ग) किस प्रकार का साहित्य अरण्य रोदन मात्र कहलाता है?
(i) सच्चा साहित्य
(ii) पुराना साहित्य
(iii) शून्य में रचा हुआ साहित्य
(iv) कविता से मुक्त
उत्तरः
(iii) शून्य में रचा हुआ साहित्य।

(घ) ‘साहित्य’ शब्द में क्या छिपा हुआ है?
(i) समाज
(ii) साहित्य
(iii) कल्याण
(iv) सत्
उत्तरः
(i) समाज।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए-
कथन (A): साहित्यकार के अनुभव और विचार साहित्य को जन्म देते हैं।
कारण (R): किसी भी समाज की छाप उसके साहित्य में मिलती है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही हैं।
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत हैं।
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन हैं। (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तरः
(iii) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-1 पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।
योग कला है योग साधना,
योग मिलन की है आराधना,
जीव को जो उस प्रभु से मिला दे,
ऐसी अद्भुत राह योग है।

मनोरुग्ण है जीव जगत में,
शारीरिक रोगों से ग्रस्त है,
प्रतिरोधक क्षमता जो जगा दे,
ऐसा अमृत कलश योग है।

अंतर्मन व बाह्य जगत में,
धैर्य, विवेक है क्षीण हो रहे,
हर मन में विश्वास जगा दे,
वह अतुल्य सद्ज्ञान योग है।

सुप्त शक्तियों को जो जगा दे,
खुद को खुद से ही जो मिला दे,
समता का मन में भाव जगा दे,
उस दिव्य दृष्टि का नाम योग है।

(क) योग को किससे मिलने की आराधना बताया गया है?
(i) प्रभु से
(ii) स्वयं से
(iii) कवि से
(iv) जग से
उत्तरः
(i) प्रभु से।

(ख) जगत् में जीव कैसा है?
(i) प्रसन्न
(ii) मनोरुग्ण
(iii) अद्भुत
(iv) आनंदित
उत्तरः
(ii) मनोरुग्ण।

(ग) योग हर मन में क्या जगाता है?
(i) अविश्वास
(ii) असत्य
(iii) विश्वास
(iv) नींद
उत्तरः
(iii) विश्वास।

(घ) योग को क्या कहा गया है?
(i) आराधना
(ii) अंतर्मन
(iii) समता
(iv) अमृत कलश
उत्तरः
(iv) अमृत कलश।

(ङ) पद्यांश के अनुसार योग को परिभाषित किया जा सकता है
(I) शारीरिक रोगों को दूर करने के साधन के रूप में
(II) प्रतिरोधक क्षमता को बढ़ाने वाले साधन के रूप में
(III) दूसरों को सुलाने वाले साधन के रूप में
(IV) सुप्त शक्तियों को जगाने वाले साधन के रूप में

विकल्प:
(i) काथन II सही है
(ii) कथन I, II व III सही हैं
(iii) कथन I, II व IV सही हैं
(iv) कथन I, II, III व IV सही हैं
उत्तरः
(ङ) (iv) कथन I, II, III व IV सही हैं।

अथवा

यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-II पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।

भई सूरज
जरा इस आदमी को जगाओ।
भई पवन
जरा इस आदमी को हिलाओ।
यह आदमी जो सोया पड़ा है,
जो सच से बेखबर
सपनों में खोया पड़ा है।
भई पंछी इसके कानों परचिल्लाओ।
भई सूरज, जरा इस आदमी को जगाओ।
वक्त पर जगाओ
नहीं तो जब बेवक्त जगेगा यह
तो जो आगे निकल गए हैं
उन्हें पाने दृश्य
घबरा के भागेगा यह !
घबरा के भागना अलग है,
क्षिप्र गति अलग है,
क्षिप्र तो वह है
जो सही क्षण में सजग है। सूरज इसे जगाओ
पवन इसे हिलाओ
पंछी इसके कानों पर चिल्लाओ !

(क) कवि किसे जगाने की गुहार नहीं कर रहा है?
(i) सूरज
(ii) चाँद
(iii) पवन
(iv) पंछी
उत्तरः
(i) चाँद।

(ख) ‘सोया पड़ा आदमी………………. से बेखबर है।’ रिक्त स्थान के लिए उचित विकल्प होगा
(i) खुद
(ii) घर-परिवार
(iii) सच
(iv) समाचार
उत्तरः
(iii) सच।

(ग) बेवक्त जागने का क्या दुष्परिणाम होगा
(i) व्यक्ति परेशान हो जाएगा।
(ii) इधर-उधर भागेगा
(iii) निराश हो जाएगा
(iv) आगे जाने वालों को पाने के लिए भागेगा
उत्तरः
(iv) आगे जाने वालों को पाने के लिए भागेगा।

(घ) क्षिप्र गति का क्या अर्थ है?
(i) तेज़ दौड़ना
(ii) समय पर सोना
(iii) तुरंत काम करना
(iv) सही समय पर जागरूक होना
उत्तरः
(iv) सही समय पर जागरूक होना।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए-
कथन (A): सच से बेखबर मनुष्य का जागना आवश्यक है।
कारण (R): सच को जानने वाला मनुष्य ही अपने जीवन को सार्थक व उन्नत बना सकता है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही है।
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत है।
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तरः
(ङ) (iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) बादल बिना बरसे ही चले गए। वाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य में रूप होगा-
(i) बादल आए और बिना बरसे ही चले गए।
(ii) बादल बरसे भी नहीं और चले भी गए।
(iii) बिना बरसे ही बादल चले गए।
(iv) बादल चले भी गए और बरसे भी नहीं।
उत्तरः
(i) बादल आए और बिना बरसे ही चले गए।
व्याख्यात्मक हल: संयुक्त वाक्य में दो. सरल वाक्य होते हैं जो अपनेआप में पूर्ण अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

(ख) आप द्वार पर बैठे और उसकी प्रतीक्षा करें। वाक्य का सरल वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) आप उसकी प्रतीक्षा करने के लिए द्वार पर बैठे।
(ii) आप द्वार पर बैठकर उसकी प्रतीक्षा करें।
(iii) आपको उसकी प्रतीक्षा करनी है इसलिए द्वार पर बैठे।
(iv) प्रतीक्षा करो उसकी घर के द्वार पर
उत्तरः
(ii) आप द्वार पर बैठकर उसकी प्रतीक्षा करें।
व्याख्यात्मक हल: सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य और एक क्रिया होते हैं। अतः यही सही उत्तर है।

(ग) कमल आया और उसके मित्र चले गए। वाक्य का मिश्र वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) कमल के आने पर उसके मित्र चले गए।
(ii) कमल के मित्र जैसे ही चले गए वैसे ही कमल आया।
(iii) जैसे ही कमल आया वैसे ही उसके मित्र चले गए।
(iv) कमल के मित्र चले गए और वह घर आया।
उत्तरः
(iii) जैसे ही कमल आया वैसे ही उसके मित्र चले गए।
व्याख्यात्मक हल: मिश्र वाक्य में एक वाक्य दूसरे पर आश्रित होता है। प्रधान उपवाक्य और आश्रित उपवाक्य समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय द्वारा जुड़े हुए होते

(घ) अध्यापक ने कहा कि वह विद्वान है। रेखांकित उपवाक्य का भेद बताइए।
(i) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
(ii) विशेषण उपवाक्य
(iii) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
(iv) प्रधान उपवाक्य
उत्तरः
(i) संज्ञा उपवाक्य।
व्याख्यात्मक हल: संज्ञा उपवाक्य की प्रमुख पहचान है कि ये आश्रित उपवाक्य ‘कि’ योजक से आरंभ होते हैं।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
1. होरी गरीब किसान है और उसके पास बैल नहीं है।	(I) मिश्र वाक्य
2. यह परिधान बहुत सुंदर है परंतु महँगा है।	(II) सरल वाक्य ।
3. पंख वाले चींटे वर्षा के दिनों में निकलते हैं।	(III) संयुक्त वाक्य

विकल्प:
(i) (1) (III), (2) (I), (3) (II)
(ii) (1) (II), (2) (III), (3) (I)
(iii) (1) (I), (2) (II), (3) (III)
(iv) (1) (III), (2) (II), (3) (I)
उत्तरः
(i) 1 (III), 2 (1), 3 (II)

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) माली के द्वारा पौधों में पानी दिया जा रहा है। वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में रूप होगा-
(i) माली पौधों में पानी दे रहा है।
(ii) पौधों में पानी दे रहा है माली।
(iii) माली से पौधों में पानी दिया जा रहा है।
(iv) पौधों में पानी दिया जा रहा है माली के द्वारा।
उत्तरः
(i) माली पौधों में पानी दे रहा है।

(ख) अब चलते हैं। वाक्य का भाववाच्य में रूप होगा-
(i) अब चलो
(ii) अब चला जाए
(iii) चलते हैं अब
(iv) चलो, चलें
उत्तरः
(ii) अब चला जाए।

(ग) मैंने पत्र लिखा। वाक्य का कर्मवाच्य में रूप होगा-
(i) पत्र लिखा है मैंने
(ii) लिखा है पत्र मैंने
(iii) मेरे द्वारा पत्र लिखा गया
(iv) लिख गया पत्र मेरे द्वारा
उत्तरः
(iii) मेरे द्वारा पत्र लिखा गया।

(घ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
1. उसके द्वारा कालीन बुना जाता है।	(I) कर्तृवाच्य
2. वह उठ- बैठ नहीं सकता।	(II) भाववाच्य
3. रातभर कैसे जागा जाएगा?	(III) कर्मवाच्य

विकल्प:
(i) 1 (III), 2 (I), 3 (II)
(ii) 1 (II), 2 (III), 3 (I)
(iii) 1 (1), 2 (II), 3 (III)
(iv) 1 (III), 2 (II), 3 (I)
उत्तरः
(i) 1 (III), 2 (I), 3 (II)

(ङ) उसके द्वारा आज बाज़ार नहीं जाया गया। वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) बाज़ार जाया नहीं गया उससे आज
(ii) नहीं जाया गया उससे आज बाज़ार
(iii) बाज़ार उससे आज नहीं जाया गया
(iv) वह आज बाज़ार नहीं गया
उत्तरः
(ङ) (iv) वह आज बाज़ार नहीं गया।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) इस बालक ने हिंदी में शत-प्रतिशत अंक प्राप्त किए हैं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा-
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।
(ii) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक।
(iii) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, करण कारक।
(iv) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, अपादान कारक।
उत्तरः
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक।

(ख) पिता जी अखबार पढ़ रहे हैं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा-
(i) अकर्मक क्रिया, वर्तमान काल, पुल्लिंग।
(ii) सकर्मक क्रिया, वर्तमान काल, पुल्लिंग।
(iii) द्विकर्मक क्रिया, वर्तमान काल, पुल्लिंग।
(iv) अकर्मक क्रिया,भूतकाल, पुल्लिंग।
उत्तरः
(ii) सकर्मक क्रिया, वर्तमान काल, पुल्लिंग।

(ग) मैच देखने के लिए बच्चे खुशी-खुशी स्टेडियम पहुँचे। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
(ii) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
(iii) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
(iv) परिमाणवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
उत्तरः
(iii) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण

(घ) मौसम बहुत सुहावना है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन ।
(ii) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन।
(iii) संज्ञा, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन।
(iv) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन।
उत्तरः
(i) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन ।

(ङ) कोई आया है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
(ii) अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
(iii) प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
(iv) सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
उत्तरः
(ii) अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) ‘रावण सर सरोज बनचारी’ चलि रघुबीर सिलीमुख धारी’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(i) श्लेष
व्याख्यात्मक हल: यहाँ ‘सिलीमुख’ के दो अर्थ है- पहला बाण और दूसरा-भ्रमर। अतः यहाँ श्लेष अलंकार

(ख) ‘दादुर धुनि चहुँ ओर सुहाई, वेद पढ़त जनु बटु समुदाई’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
व्याख्यात्मक हल: यहाँ मेंढकों की आवाज को वेदपाठियों के वेद पढ़ने की ध्वनि के जैसा होने की संभावना व्यक्त की गई है। अतः यहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार है।

(ग) ‘कलियाँ दरवाजे खोल-खोल जब झुरमुट में मुस्काती हैं’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(iii) मानवीकरण
व्याख्यात्मक हल: यहाँ कलियों को मानव के समान मुस्काते हुए बताया गया है। अतः मानवीकरण अलंकार खंड वर्णनात्मक

(घ) ‘परवल पाक, फाट हिय गोहूँ’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
व्याख्यात्मक हल: यहाँ विरह के कारण परवल का पकना और गेंहू का हृदय फटना अतिशयोक्तिपूर्ण है। अतः यहाँ अतिशयोक्ति अलंकार है।

(ङ) ‘मैं बरजी कैबार तू, इतकत लेती करौंट। पंखुरी लगे गुलाब की, परि है गात खरौंट’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तरः
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
व्याख्यात्मक हल: यहाँ गुलाब की कोमल पंखुरियों से चोट लगाना अतिशयोक्तिपूर्ण है अतः यहाँ अतिशयोक्ति अलंकार है।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5) काशी में संगीत आयोजन की एक प्राचीन एंव अद्भुत परंपरा है। यह आयोजन पिछले कई बरसों से संकटमोचन मंदिर में होता आया है। यह मंदिर शहर के दक्षिण में लंका पर स्थित है व हनुमान जयंती के अवसर पर यहाँ पाँच दिनों तक शास्त्रीय एवं उपशास्त्रीय गायन-वादन की उत्कृष्ट सभा होती है। इसमें बिस्मिल्ला खाँ अवश्य रहते हैं। अपने मजहब के प्रति अत्यधिक समर्पित उस्ताद बिस्मिल्ला खाँ की श्रद्धा काशी विश्वनाथ जी के प्रति भी अपार है। वे जब भी काशी से बाहर रहते हैं तब विश्वनाथ व बालाजी मंदिर की दिशा की ओर मुँह करके बैठते हैं, थोड़ी देर ही सही, मगर उसी ओर शहनाई का प्याला घुमा दिया जाता है और भीतर की आस्था रीड के माध्यम से बजती है। खाँ साहब की एक रीड 15 से 20 मिनट के अंदर गीली हो जाती है तब वे दूसरी रीड का इस्तेमाल कर लिया करते हैं।
(क) काशी में कौनसी परंपरा प्राचीन है?
(i) संगीत आयोजन की
(ii) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ की
(iii) रीड की
(iv) बैठने की
उत्तरः
(i) संगीत आयोजन की

(ख) संकटमोचन मंदिर कहाँ स्थित है?
(i) काशी में
(ii) लंका में
(iii) बनारस में
(iv) दिल्ली में
उत्तरः
(ii) लंका में

(ग) किस अवसर पर संकटमोचन मंदिर में गायन वादन की सभा होती है?
(i) हनुमान जयंती पर
(ii) शिवरात्रि पर
(iii) संकट चतुर्थी पर
(iv) दीवाली पर
उत्तरः
(i) हनुमान जयंती पर

(घ) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ की श्रद्धा किस पर प्रकट होती थी?
(i) काशी के प्रति
(ii) विश्वनाथ व बालाजी मंदिर के प्रति
(iii) केवल विश्वनाथ के प्रति
(iv) केवल बालाजी मंदिर के प्रति
उत्तरः
(ii) विश्वनाथ व बालाजी मंदिर के प्रति

(ङ) गद्यांश किस पाठ से उद्धृत है?
(i) इबादत में नौबतखाना
(ii) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ की शहनाई
(iii) नौबतखाने में इबादत
(iv) मंगलध्वनि के प्रतीक
उत्तरः
(iii) नौबतखाने में इबादत

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) लेखक को डिब्बे में अचानक आया देखकर नवाब साहब के चेहरे पर कौन-से भाव नज़र आए?
(i) असंतोष के
(ii) प्रसन्नता के
(iii) निराशा के
(iv) सुख के
उत्तरः
(i) असंतोष के

(ख) इसी बालसुलभ हँसी में कई यादें बंद हैं- यहाँ किसकी बालसुलभ हँसी की बात कही जा रही है?
(i) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ की
(ii) मन्नू भंडारी की
(iii) नेताजी की
(iv) बालगोबिन भगत की
उत्तरः
(i) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ की

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
छोटे से जीवन की कैसे बड़ी कथाएँ आज कहूँ? क्या यह अच्छा नहीं कि औरों की सुनता मैं मौन रहूँ?
सुनकर क्या तुम भला करोगे मेरी भोली आत्म-कथा?
अभी समय भी नहीं, थकी सोई है मेरी मौन व्यथा।
(क) कवि की नहीं लिखना चाहता?
(i) आत्मकथा
(ii) कविता
(iii) कहानी
(iv) सन्देश
उत्तरः
(i) आत्मकथा

(ख) अपनी आत्मकथा को कवि ने भोली क्यों कहा
(i) क्योंकि उससे किसी का मार्गदर्शन नहीं हो सकता
(ii) क्योंकि वह बहुत छोटी है
(iii) क्योंकि वह दूसरों की बात सुनता है
(iv) क्योंकि वह लक्ष्यहीन है
उत्तरः
(i) क्योंकि उससे किसी का मार्गदर्शन नहीं हो सकता

(ग) कवि अपनी कथा कहने के बजाय क्या करना चाहता है?
(i) कविता लिखना
(ii) दूसरों को प्रेरणा देना
(iii) दूसरों की आत्मकथा सुनना
(iv) अपनी आत्मकथा सुनाना
उत्तरः
(iii) दूसरों की आत्मकथा सुनना

(घ) कवि स्वयं मौन रहना क्यों चाहता है?
(i) क्योंकि उसे बोलना नहीं है
(ii) क्योंकि उसे आत्मकथा नहीं सुनानी है
(iii) क्योंकि वह अपने कष्टों को कुरेदना नहीं चाहता
(iv) क्योंकि लोगों से उसे बोलने को मना किया
उत्तरः
(iii) क्योंकि वह अपने कष्टों को कुरेदना नहीं चाहता

(ङ) यहाँ किस कवि की ओर संकेत किया गया है?
(i) जयशंकर प्रसाद की
(ii) नागार्जुन की
(iii) मंगलेश डबराल की
(iv) ऋतुराज की
उत्तरः
(i) जयशंकर प्रसाद की

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) ‘अट नहीं रही है’ कविता में किसकी शोभा समा नहीं पा रही है?
(i) फागुन की
(ii) फूलों की
(iii) वृक्षों की
(iv) पत्तियों की

(ख) परशुराम का क्रोध बढ़ता हुआ देख लक्ष्मण को किसने संकेत से बोलने को मना किया?
(i) विश्वामित्र ने
(ii) जनक ने।
(iii) राम ने
(iv) सभासद ने

खंड ‘ब’
वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक: 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) मूर्ति पर सरकंडे का चश्मा क्या उम्मीद जगाता है?
उत्तरः
मूर्ति पर सरकंडे का चश्मा यह उम्मीद जगाता है कि भले ही कैप्टन की मृत्यु हो गई हो, पर देशभक्तों के प्रति मन में आदर और सम्मान रखने वाले लोग अभी भी हैं। हो सकता है कि सरकंडे का चश्मा किसी बच्चे के दिमाग की उपज हो, परन्तु इससे यह तो स्पष्ट हो जाता है कि भावी पीढ़ी के मन में भी देशभक्तों के प्रति श्रद्धा के भाव हैं।

(ख) देश के स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन में मन्नू भंडारी की भागीदारी के दो उदाहरण लिखिए।
उत्तरः
देश के स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन में मन्नू भंडारी ने सक्रिय भागीदारी निभाई
(i) जब देश में आजादी से पहले हर स्थान पर प्रभात फेरियाँ निकाली जा रही थीं, हड़तालें हो रही थी और जुलूस निकाले जा रहे थे तो मन्नू भंडारी ने उनमें बढ़-चढ़कर भाग लिया।
(ii) स्कूल, कॉलेज की कक्षाएँ छोड़कर लेखक विद्यार्थियों को इकट्ठा कर देशप्रेम के नारे लगाती। उन्होंने मुख्य बाजार के चौराहे पर जोशीला भाषण दिया, जो सराहनीय है।

(ग) ‘लखनऊ के नवाबी नस्ल के सफेदपोश सज्जन’ में क्या व्यंग्य किया गया है?
उत्तरः
लेखक ने यहाँ लखनऊ के नवाबों के दिखावटी स्वभाव पर व्यंग्य किया है। ये नवाब अत्यंत ही नफासती और शिष्ट होते हैं। अपनी इन विशेषताओं को ये इतना बढ़ा-चढ़ा कर दिखाते हैं कि समाज में उपहास का पात्र बन जाते हैं। उनकी इन्हीं विशेषताओं को प्रदर्शित करने के लिए लेखक ने ‘नस्ल’ शब्द का प्रयोग किया है। उनके अनुसार ये आम मानव प्रजाति के न होकर अन्य मानव प्रजाति के हैं।

(घ) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ को शहनाई की मंगलध्वनि का नायक क्यों कहा जाता है?
उत्तरः
शहनाई एक ऐसा वाद्ययंत्र है जो मांगलिक अवसरों पर बजाया जाता है। शहनाई वादन हमारी एक प्राचीन परंपरा रही है। बिस्मिल्ला खां को शहनाई बजाने में महारत हासिल थी। उनकी जैसी मधुर शहनाई कोई नहीं बजा सकता था। वे संगीत के नायक रहे हैं, यही कारण है कि उन्हें शहनाई की मंगलध्वनि का नायक कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 30-40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) परशुराम के क्रोध का मूल कारण लिखिए।
उत्तरः
परशुराम के क्रोध का मूल कारण शिव-धनुष का टूटना था क्योंकि वह धनुष परशुराम जी ने ही राजा जनक को दिया था। परशुराम जब धनुष तोड़ने वाले का नाम पूछते हैं तो लक्ष्मण उनसे जबानदराजी करने लगते हैं। इस पर उनका क्रोध और अधिक बढ़ जाता है।

(ख) ‘उत्साह’ कविता में कवि बादलों से क्या आग्रह करता है और क्यों?
उत्तरः
‘उत्साह’ कविता में कवि बादलों से जोर से गरजकर बरसने का आग्रह करता है क्योंकि वह बादलों को नवजीवन और क्रान्ति का प्रतीक मानता है। उसके अनुसार बादलों के जोर से बरसने पर लोगों का मन प्रफुल्लित हो जाता है और उनमें नवीन उत्साह का संचार होने लगता है।

(ग) ‘यह दंतुरित मुस्कान’ कविता के आधार पर शिशु की मुस्कान के प्रभाव का वर्णन कीजिए?
उत्तरः
(ग) शिशु की दंतुरित मुस्कान मृतक में भी जान डाल देने वाली होती है। कवि कहता है कि तुम्हारे नए दाँतों से युक्त मुस्कान को देखकर लगता है कि कमल स्वयं मेरी झोपड़ी में आकर खिला है और बाँस तथा बबूल से भी शेफालिका के फूल झड़नेलगे हैं।

(घ) ‘फसल’ कविता में फसल उपजाने के लिए जिन आवश्यक तत्वों की बात कही गई है, वे कौन-कौन से हैं?
उत्तरः
कविता में फसल उपजाने के लिए जिन आवश्यक तत्वों की बात कही गई है, वे निम्नलिखित हैं

विभिन्न नदियों का जल
खेतों की भूरी काली मिट्टी
सूर्य की किरणें
हवा
असंख्य मनुष्यों के हाथों का स्पर्श और परिश्रम

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में लिखिए। (4 × 2 = 8)
(क) लेखक भोलानाथ को उनके पिताजी द्वारा अपने साथ पूजा में बैठाने के पीछे क्या उद्देश्य रहा होगा?
उत्तरः
लेखक के अनुसार भोलानाथ के पिताजी धार्मिक प्रवृत्ति वाले थे। वे अपने बेटे में अच्छे संस्कार डालना चाहते थे। उनके मन में ईश्वर के प्रति आस्था, विश्वास और श्रद्धा के भाव वे बचपन से ही जगाना चाहते थे। इसलिए वह उन्हें नहला-धुलाकर अपने साथ पूजा में बिठा लेते थे और फिर उन्हें साथ लेकर मछलियों को दाना डालने ले जाते थे।

(ख) “एक दिन मैंने हिरोशिमा पर कविता लिखी।” लेखक की अनुभूति अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तरः
लेखक ने हिरोशिमा की सड़क पर घूमते हुए एक पत्थर पर मानवाकार छाया देखी . और अनुभव किया कि यह परमाणु बम की किरणों से झुलसा मानव था, तो लेखक के हृदय में भावनात्मक आकुलता का दबाव बना, उसे संवेदनात्मक प्रत्यक्ष अनुभूति हुई कि मानो वहाँ कोई व्यक्ति खड़ा रहा होगा जो रेडियोधर्मी किरणों का शिकार हुआ। जिसने पत्थर तक को झुलसा दिया और उस व्यक्ति को भाप बनाकर उड़ा दिया और तब उसने सहसा ‘हिरोशिमा’ कविता लिखी।

(ग) लायुंग पहुँचकर लेखिका ने क्या अनुभव किया ?
उत्तरः
लायुंग सिक्किम का एक छोटा सा पहाडी कस्बा है। यहाँ पहुँचकर तीस्ता नदी के किनारे बैठकर लेखिका ने अपूर्व शांति का अनुभव किया। उन्हें लगा कि वह प्रकृति की अखंड सम्पूर्णता के बीच बैठी हैं। पेड़-पौधे, पशु-इन्सान सबमें वे एक लय और गति को अनुभव कर रही हैं। उनका मानना है कि यही लय और गति सबके मूल स्वभाव में बनी रहे, इसी में सबकी भलाई है।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत बिन्दुओं के आधार पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।
(क) पर उपदेश कुशल बहुतेरे

उक्ति का अर्थ
प्रभाव
आदर्श स्थिति।

उत्तरः
पर उपदेश कुशल बहुतेरे
उपदेश देना भी एक कला है और इस उक्ति के अनुसार इस कला में बहुत-से लोग या कहना चाहिए कि अधिकांश लोग कुशल होते हैं। दूसरों को उपदेश देना जितना सरल है उतना ही कठिन है उस पर स्वयं अमल करना। दूसरों को दुविधा में देखकर सभी लोग अपनी-अपनी समझ से उपदेश देने लगते हैं, परन्तु विचारणीय है कि वे स्वयं उसका कितना पालन करते हैं। दूसरों को ज्ञान देना जितना आसान है उतना ही कठिन है उस ज्ञान को व्यवहार में लाना। यदि देखा जाए तो हमारा उपदेश भी तभी काम करता है जब हमने उसे व्यवहार में लिया हो। जिस बात का हम खुद अनुभव नहीं कर सकते, उसे दूसरों को कैसे कह सकते हैं और यदि कह भी दिया तो उस बात का कोई वजन नहीं। उपदेश देने के लिए तो सब तैयार रहते हैं, परन्तु जब तक वह जीवन के अनुभवों से नहीं जुड़ता है तब तक वह प्रभावहीन रहता है। उदाहरण के लिए, मेघनाद वध के समय रावण ने जो कुछ कहा वह निरर्थक था, क्योंकि रावण ने उसे स्वयं अपने जीवन में नहीं उतारा था। ऐसा अक्सर होता है कि किसी को परेशानी में देखकर बजाए उसका दुःख बाँटने के हम उसे उपदेश देने लगते हैं। किसी की छोटी-सी गलती भी हमें अक्षम्य होती है और हमारी बड़ी-से-बड़ी गलती पर कोई हमें कुछ कह दे, तो वह हमें मंजूर नहीं। दूसरों को उपदेश देना हर कोई चाहता है, परन्तु दूसरों की सहायता के लिए कोई आगे नहीं आता। सामान्यतः उपदेशों को नकारात्मक दृष्टिकोण से देखा जाता है, किन्तु मेरा मानना है कि जब हम स्वयं दुविधा में हों या पथभ्रष्ट होते हों तब हमारा विवेक तो नष्ट हो चका होता है। ऐसे में कोई दूसरा हमें समझाता है या उपदेश देकर सही मार्ग दिखाता है, तो इसमें कोई बुराई नहीं है। अतः उपदेश का सम्मान करना चाहिए, किन्तु जो हम नहीं कर सके, दूसरे से वह अपेक्षा नहीं करनी चाहिए।

अथवा

(ख) मेरी कल्पना का भारत

प्राचीन भारत
भारत की काल्पनिक तस्वीर
कल्पना को साकार करने के उपाय।

उत्तरः
मेरी कल्पना का भारत
एक बच्चे की सभी जरूरतें परिवार पूरी करता है, उसे प्यार-दुलार देता है, सारी सुख-सुविधाएँ देने का प्रयत्न करता है तो बच्चे को परिवार से बहुत लगाव हो जाता है और फिर बड़ा होकर वह भी उनके सुख-दुःख में शामिल होता है। इसी प्रकार का सम्बन्ध हमारा देश से भी होता है। देश हमें अनगिनत अधिकार देकर, विकास के अवसर प्रदान करके हमें जीवनयापन में सहयोग देता है तो हमें भी उसके विकास, उसकी गरिमा को देखकर कितनी प्रसन्नता होती है। हम देश को ऊँचाइयों पर देखना चाहते हैं। अन्य विकसित देशों की उपलब्धियों के बारे में जब सुनते हैं तो कामना करते हैं कि हमारा देश भी उन्हें पार करे। आज हमारा देश भारत अनेक चुनौतियों का सामना कर रहा है। एक ओर प्राकृतिक आपदाएँ तो दूसरी ओर आतंकवाद, कहीं राजनैतिक तो कहीं सामाजिक बुराइयाँ देश के विकास में बाधा बनकर खड़ी हैं। मेरा सपना है कि सभी भारतवासी आपसी मतभेदों को भुलाकर, विभिन्न क्षेत्रों में देश को तेजी से विकास की ओर लेकर जाएँ ताकि हम गर्व से एक बार फिर कह सकें-
‘सारे जहाँ से अच्छा, हिन्दोस्तां हमारा।’
भारत की सभ्यता और संस्कृति विश्व में सबसे प्राचीन है। संसार की सभी सभ्यताएँ नष्ट हो चुकी है, परन्तु हमारी संस्कृति अक्षुण्ण है, अखण्ड है। एक ओर हिमालय इसका मुकुट है तो दूसरी ओर गंगा इसके पाँव पखारती है। मेरे सपनों का भारत एक नया ही भारत होगा, जहाँ पर जाति-पाँति को लेकर कोई भेदभाव नहीं होगा। सभी धर्मों के लोग आपस में मिल-जुलकर रहेंगे। यहाँ सबको अपने विचार प्रकट करने की स्वतन्त्रता होगी। भारत विश्वगुरु रहा है। किसी भी प्रकार की ऊँच-नीच को लेकर लोगों में जहाँ मन-मुटाव न हो, ऐसा होगा मेरा भारत। एक समय वह भी आएगा जब मेरा भारत हर क्षेत्र में विश्व में सबसे आगे होगा।

अथवा

(ग) सैनिक की आत्मकथा

सैनिक का जीवन
मुश्किलें
चुनौतियाँ
हमारे लिए संदेश।

उत्तरः
सैनिक की आत्मकथा
जब से मैंने देश की रक्षा की शपथ ली है, मेरी हर साँस देश के लिए धड़कती है। मुझे अपनी जान की परवाह नहीं है, लेकिन देश पर आँच आए, यह मुझे मंजूर नहीं। युद्धभूमि में शत्रु का सामना करते हुए भले ही मेरा सीना छलनी हो जाए, मेरी साँसें रुकने लगें, किन्तु मेरे कदम नहीं रुकते। मैं अन्तिम साँस तक अपनी मातृभूमि की हिफाजत करने का अपना वचन निभाता हूँ। मैं अपना घर, परिवार सब छोड़कर सीमा पर तैनात रहता हूँ, ताकि मेरा देश और देशवासी सुरक्षित रह सकें। मेरी होली, दीवाली, हँसी-खुशी, सुख-दुःख सब देश पर कुर्बान है। जिस धरती ने मुझे अपना अन्न-जल देकर बड़ा किया है, उसकी सुरक्षा मेरा प्रथम दायित्व है। यदि मुझे इसकी खातिर जान भी कुर्बान करनी पड़े तो कुछ गम नहीं, क्योंकि ऐसे जीवन का क्या लाभ जो देश के काम ही न आ सके। मेरा सभी देशवासियों से यही अनुरोध है कि वे किसी भी क्षेत्र में कार्यरत हों, पर अपने देश व समाज विरोधी कोई कार्य न करें, क्योंकि-
जो भरा नहीं है भावों से, बहती जिसमें रसधार नहीं,
वह हृदय नहीं है पत्थर है, जिसमें स्वदेश का प्यार नहीं।
मैं देश के सजग प्रहरी के रूप में अपने कर्तव्य का पालन बड़ी ही निष्ठा और ईमानदारी से करता हूँ। भारत माँ की रक्षा के लिए ईश्वर ने मुझे जो अवसर प्रदान किया है, उसके लिए मैं ईश्वर को सदा धन्यवाद देता हूँ और स्वयं को गौरवान्वित महसूस करता हूँ कि मुझे अपनी धरती माँ की सेवा का अवसर मिला। हम सभी सैनिक मिल-जुलकर धरती माँ की रक्षा करते हैं। काश! सभी देशवासी भी ऐसा ही करें, तो भारत-भूमि एक बार फिर से अपने प्राचीन गौरव को प्राप्त कर सकेगी। हम सभी सैनिकों के अनुभव अलग-अलग हैं, पर लक्ष्य एक है-“देश की
रक्षा के लिए आत्म-समर्पण।”

प्रश्न 15.
प्रधानाचार्या को पत्र लिखकर चार दिन का अवकाश देने की प्रार्थना कीजिए।
अथवा
आपके बड़े भाई को संगीत प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार मिला है। उसके लिए उन्हें बधाई पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तरः
श्रीमती प्रधानाचार्या जी,
क ख ग विद्यालय,
नई दिल्ली।

विषय-अवकाश के लिए प्रार्थना-पत्र।

आदरणीय महोदया,
मैं आपके विद्यालय का कक्षा दसवीं का छात्र आपसे चार दिन का अवकाश देने की प्रार्थना करना चाहता हूँ। मेरे बड़े भाई का जयपुर के मेडिकल कॉलेज में दाखिला हो गया है। हम परिवार सहित उसे जयपुर के छात्रावास में छोड़ने जायेंगे। अतः मैं 22 जुलाई से 25 जुलाई तक विद्यालय नहीं आ पाऊँगा। कृपया मुझे चार दिन के अवकाश की स्वीकृति दीजिए।
धन्यवाद।

आपका आज्ञाकारी छात्र,
क ख ग
दिनांक :……………………

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन,
अ ब स विद्यालय,
उदयपुर।

दिनांक : ………………..

आदरणीय भाई साहब,
सादर चरण स्पर्श।
मैं यहाँ कुशल हूँ और आपकी कुशलता की ईश्वर से कामना करता हूँ। पिताजी के पत्र से ज्ञात हुआ कि जिलास्तरीय संगीत प्रतियोगिता में आपने प्रथम स्थान प्राप्त किया है। पुरस्कारस्वरूप आपको मुख्यमन्त्री द्वारा प्रशस्ति पत्र और ₹ 25,000 नकद प्रदान किए गए हैं। आपके लिए वे पल कितने अमूल्य और आनन्दप्रदायिनी होंगे जब आपको मंच पर माननीय मुख्यमन्त्री द्वारा सम्मानित किया गया होगा। मैं आपकी इस सफलता के लिए आपको हृदय से बधाई देता हूँ।
आपकी यह उपलब्धि मेरे लिए सदैव प्रेरणादायक बनी रहेगी। मैं स्वयं को इस काबिल बनाने का पूरा प्रयास करूँगा। पिताजी, माताजी और भाभीजी को मेरा चरण स्पर्श।

आपका अनुज,
क ख ग।

प्रश्न 16.
भारती एयरटेल में कनिष्ठ लेखा सहायक पद के लिए आवेदन पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
गृह मंत्रालय के सचिव की ओर से मुख्य सचिव, पंजाब राज्य को राज्य की कानून व्यवस्था की बिगड़ती हुई स्थिति के बारे में सूचित करते हुए ई मेल लिखिए।
उत्तरः
सेवा में
महाप्रबंधक महोदय,
टेलीफोन एक्सचेंज,
भारती एयरटेलए नई दिल्ली

विषय-कनिष्ठ लेखा सहायक पद के लिए आवेदन पत्र।

महोदय
दिनांक 16 अप्रैल, 2022 के दैनिक जागरण में प्रकाशित विज्ञापन से ज्ञात हुआ कि आपके कार्यालय में कनिष्ठ लेखा सहायक की आवश्यकता है। इस पद के लिए मैं अपना आवेदन पत्र प्रस्तुत कर रहा हूँ। मेरा स्ववृत्त इस आवेदन पत्र के साथ संलग्न है। आपके विज्ञापन में वर्णित सभी योग्यताओं को मैं पूरा करता हूँ। मैं आपको विश्वास दिलाता हूँ कि मैं अपना कार्य पूर्ण निष्ठा से करूँगा। मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण इस प्रकार है-
नाम : मोहनीश सिंह
पिता का नाम : पी. एस. सिंह
माता का नाम : स्वाति सिंह
जन्मतिथि : 12 नवंबर, 1993
वर्तमान पता : 12, महिंद्रा अपार्टमेंट, नई दिल्ली
मोबाइल : 2XXXX51234
ईमेल : [email protected]

शैक्षणिक योग्यता

अन्य योग्यताएँ व अनुभव:
कम्प्यूटर में द्विवर्षीय डिप्लोमा
हिंदी, अंग्रेजी भाषा की जानकारी।
टंकण की जानकारी

उपलब्धियाँ:
राज्य स्तरीय क्रिकेट प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार
गूगल निबंध प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार

कार्येत्तर गतिविधियाँ और अभिरुचियाँ:
इंटरनेट सर्किंग
आर्थिक गतिविधि से जुड़ी पत्रिकाएँ पढ़ना
आपसे अनुरोध है कि उपर्युक्त तथ्यों को ध्यान में रखते हुए मेरे आवेदन पत्र पर सकारात्मक विचार किया जाए। मैं आपको विश्वास दिलाता हूँ कि मैं ईमानदारी से कार्य करूँगा और अपने कार्य व्यवहार से सभी को संतुष्ट रखूगा।

धन्यवाद
भवदीय
हस्ताक्षर
मोहनीश सिंह
दिनांक : X/XX/XXXX
अथवा

From : [email protected]
To : [email protected]
Cc : ………….
Bcc : ………..

विषय: बिगड़ती कानून व्यवस्था की सूचना हेतु महोदय निवेदन है कि हमारे राज्य में कानून व्यवस्था की बिगड़ती हुई स्थिति से केंद्र सरकार बहुत चिंतित है। इस सन्दर्भ में सूचित किया जाता है कि राज्य में कानून व्यवस्था बनाए रखने के लिए आवश्यक कार्यवाही की जाए। केंद्र सरकार द्वारा इस सम्बन्ध में हरसंभव सहायता की जाएगी।
आशा करता हूँ कि आप उचित समय पर उचित कार्यवाही करेंगे।

धन्यवाद
भवदीय
सूर्यांश गुप्ता

प्रश्न 17.
पुस्तकों की प्रदर्शनी के लिए लगभग 60 शब्दों में एक आकर्षक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
ओलम्पिक में चयन होने पर अपने मित्र को लगभग 80 शब्दों में एक बधाई सन्देश लिखिए।
उत्तरः

अथवा

बधाई संदेश

दिनांक……………………

रात्रि 10 बजे

शाम को टीवी में तुम्हें देखा तो तुम्हारी उपलब्धि के विषय में पता चला। तुमने तैराकी में स्वर्ण पदक प्राप्त किया है और तुम्हारा ओलंपिक में भी चयन हो गया है। तुम्हारी मेहनत सफल हुई। आगे चलकर तुम देश का नाम रोशन करोगे। मेरी शुभकामनाएँ और बधाई स्वीकार करो।
क.ख.ग.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 5 with Solutions

October 28, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 5 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
Alt questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION – A (20 Marks)
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20)

Question 1.
Match the terms of Column (I) with those of Column (II). (1)

S. No.	Column (I)	(i)	Column (II)
(A)	Olfactory receptors	(ii)	Tongue
(B)	Thermo receptors (temperature receptors)	(iii)	Eye
(C)	Gustatoreceptors	(iv)	Nose
(D)	Photoreceptors	(i)	Skin

(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
Answer:
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
Explanation: Correct matches are
Olfactory receptors – Nose
Thermoreceptors – Skin
Gustatoreceptors – Tongue
Photoreceptors – Eye

Question 2.
Packed food items made up of oils and fats are generally flushed with inert gas as shown in the image:

This is done: (1)
(I) To protect them from corrosion.
(II) They protect their flavours.
(III) To protect them from being rancid.
(IV) To protect their taste.
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) (II), (III), (IV)
(b) (III) and (IV)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) (II), (III), (IV)

Explanation: Nitrogen gas is an antioxidant, which prevents food from being oxidised. When fats and oils are oxidised, they become rancid and their smell and taste changes.

Caution
Students should know that the rancidity is retarded when food is kept inside the refrigerator since the low temperature does not promote the oxidation reaction.

Question 3.
The following reactions occurs : Select the correct statements. (1)

(a) It is a displacement reaction.
(b) The white precipitate obtained is BaCO₃.
(c) The correct equation representing the chemical reaction is:
BaCl_2(aq) + CuSO_4(aq) > BaSO_4(s) + CuCl_2(aq)
(d) It is a displacement and precipitation reaction.
Answer:
(c) The correct equation representing the chemical reaction is:
BaCl_2(aq) + CuSO_4(aq) BOSO_4(s) + CuCl_2(aq)

Explanation:
BaCl_2(aq) + CuSO_4(aq) BOSO_4(s) + CuCl_2(aq)
White ppt.
it is a double displacement reaction.

Question 4.
A concave mirror with a 36 cm radius of curvature creates an upright image three times the size of the object. What position does the image occupy?
(a) Behind the mirror
(b) In front of the mirror
(c) Focus of the mirror
(d) Anywhere on the mirror
Answer:
(a) Behind the mirror
Explanation: For an erect image, magnification is positive. Thus, m – 3 for an erect image (three times the size of the object).
Given,
m = 3
R = 36 cm
f = $\frac { R }{ 2 }$ = – $\frac { 36 }{ 2 }$
= – 18
[negative sign because it is a concave mirror]
For a concave mirror,
m = $\frac { -v }{ u }$
3 = $\frac { -v }{ u }$ [m = 3]
3u = -v
v = -3u …………………..(i)
Now, Using mirror formula
$\frac { 1 }{ v }$ + $\frac { 1 }{ u }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ f }$
$\frac { 1 }{ -3u }$ + $\frac { 1 }{ u }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ f }$
[putting the value of v = – 3u]
$\frac { -1+3 }{ 3u }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ -18 }$
[putting the value of f = -18]
$\frac { 2 }{ 3u }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ -18 }$
3u = -36
u = – $\frac { 36 }{ 3 }$
u = -12
Now putting the value of u in equation (i), we get
v = – 3 x (-12)
v = 36 cm
Thus, the image is formed behind the mirror at a distance of 36 cm.

Question 5.
Yogita was observing her mother washing the clothes, she added the detergent and washed the clothes.

Yogita asked her teacher how detergent removes all the stains so easily, her teacher replied that soap solution results in micelle formation that helps in removal of dirt. The micelle formation is shown in the given figure:

Choose the correct reason from the following, which helps in dirt removal:
(a) Ionic ends attract each other to remove dirt.
(b) Mixture of soap molecules and dirt is heavy and gets removed.
(c) Accumulation of the dirt at the centre of micelle and gets washed away with it.
(d) Water molecules collect at the centre of the micelle.
Answer:
(c) Accumulation of the dirt at the centre of micelle and gets washed away with it.

Explanation: The dirt that is present is usually oily in nature that does not dissolve in water. The soap molecule constitutes sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. The carbon chain dissolves in oil and the ionic end dissolves in water in soaps. Therefore, the soap molecules form structures called micelles. Thus, micelles form an emulsion in water in which one end is towards the oil and the other end (ionic) faces outside. This helps in dissolving the dirt when we wash our clothes

Question 6.
Secretion of certain hormones which are referred to as sex hormones, are responsible for physical changes in the body of both boys and girls starting at the age of 10-12 years (puberty). Some common changes include hair growth under armpits, in genital area, oily skin, development of pimples, etc. (1)

These changes are due to secretion of which hormones?
(a) Oestrogen from ovary and testosterone from adrenal gland
(b) Oestrogen from ovary and testosterone from testes
(c) Oestrogen from thyroid gland and testosterone from adrenal gland
(d) Oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from testes
Answer:
(b) Oestrogen from ovary and testosterone from testes.

Explanation: Testes and ovary are the genital organs which secrete sex hormones testosterone and oestrogen respectively. Testosterone helps in regulation of male sex organs and secondary sexual characters like voice, beard, etc. Oestrogen helps in regulation of female sex organs and secondary sexual characters like mammary glands, voice, etc.

Related Theory
Adrenal gland secretes adrenaline hormone that regulates blood pressure, heart, rate, etc Thyroid gland secretes thyroxin hormone that regulates metabolism of carbohydrates, fat and proteins.

Question 7.
What is correct about the following equation? (1)

(a) Oxygen should be replaced by water
(b) Oxygen should be in molecular (O₂) form
(c) Product would be Mg(OH)₂
(d) Product would be MgO₂
Answer:
(b) Oxygen should be in molecular (O₂) form
Explanation: In this equation, oxygen should be in molecule form (O₂).
2Mg + O₂ -> 2MgO

Question 8.
An object is positioned 30 cm away from a concave lens with a 15 cm focal length. Which of the following characteristics of the image created by lens is correct? (1)
(a) Image is virtual
(b) Image is erect
(c) Image is diminished
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: At a distance of less than 15 cm from the lens, the image of the given object created by the given concave lens is virtual, erect, diminished in size, and formed on the same side of the lens.

Question 9.
Given figure shows that the current flowing is 3A. There are four resistors is 3A. There are four resistors. (1)

Find the current flowing through 40Ω resistor.
(a) 3A
(b) 1A
(c) 2A
(d) 4A
Answer:
(a) 3A

Explanation: The current flowing across conductors is constant in a series circuit and voltage is constant in parallel circuit. Therefore, the current flow will be uniform throughout the circuit i.e., 3A. So, current flowing through 40 Q resistor is 3A.

Question 10.
A shining metal ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the black coloured compound formed and identify ‘X’.

	Compound	X
(a)	Cupric oxide	Copper
(b)	Magnesium oxide	Magnesium
(c)	Copper (III) oxide	Copper
(d)	Copper (II) oxide	Magnesium

Answer:
(a) Compound: Cupric oxide; X: Copper
Explanation: The black coloured compound is copper (ii) oxide or cupric oxide. The metal ‘X’ is copper.

Question 11.
In Dilshad’s home, the MCB keeps on tripping again and again. Since it is a domestic circuit, what could be the reason of this phenomenon?
(a) Overloading
(b) Short circuit
(c) Faulty design
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) Alt of these

Explanation: The various reasons for tripping of MCB again and again are:

Overloading
Short circuit
Faulty design

Related Theory
Short circuit occurs when one wire comes in direct contact with another wire due to faulty wiring or due to higher level of current passage through the MCB.

Question 12.
When white light passes through the following structure:

(a) Dispersion takes place at first refracting surface and refraction at second refracting surface.
(b) Refraction takes place at find refracting surface and refraction at second refracting surface.
(c) Dispersion takes place at both refracting surfaces.
(d) Refraction takes place at both refracting surfaces.
Answer:
(a) dispersion takes place at first refracting surface and refraction at second refracting surface

Explanation: Dispersion takes place only at first refracting surface. The second refracting surface merely refracts the colours produced after dispersion.

Question 13.
In which of the following cases will no dispersion take place when sunlight passes through it?

Answer:

Explanation: No splitting of white Light into seven colour is observed on passing through a glass slab.

Question 14.
Raman and Siya thought of playing a game. Raman blindfolded Siya and asked her to perform a lab test to detect the presence of acid in a given solution. Which acid base indicator will be used by Siya?
(a) Vanilla essence
(b) Phenolpthalein
(c) Litmus
(d) Universal indicator
Answer:
(a) Vanilla essence

Explanation: Siya will use an olfactory indicator such as vanilla essence, onion or clove oil. The smell of olfactory indicator depends on whether it is mixed with an acidic or basic solution.

Related Theory
Vanilla essence, onion, clove oil are olfactory indicators. Because these substances give one type of odour in acidic medium and a different odour in basic medium, therefore, it is used by Siya as an acid-base indicator.

Olfactory indicators can be used in the laboratory to test whether a solution is a base or an acid, a process called olfactory titration.

Caution
Students should know that Vanilla essence, onion, clove oil wilt not lose its smell on addition of acid whereas it loses its smell on addition of a base.

Question 15.
Which of the following is the advantage of heating effect of current? (1)
(a) The heating appliances utilize the heating effect of current.
(b) The heating appliances utilize magnetic effect of current.
(c) The solenoid uses the principle of heating effect of the current
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) The heating appliances utilize the heating effect of current.

Explanation: Advantages of heating effect of current are:
(1) The heating appliances such as electric iron, room heaters, geysers utilize the heating effect of current..

(2) The electric fuse uses the principle of heating effect of the current and thus an important application of heating effect of current.

Related Theory
Electric bulbs and electric lamps produce light by using the heating effect of current.

Question 16.
Observe the figures Shown:

Which of the following option represents the complete figure for fig. (a) and (b) ?

Select the correct option:
(a) (I) only
(b) (il) only
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Both figures are wrong
Answer:
(b) (II) only

Explanation: There is no dispersion in a laser ray because it is monochromatic. Sunlight is a composite light made up of various colours. As a result, it disperses. Low wavelength violet is more off than red, which has a longer wavelength. Dispersion is caused by the various colours’ velocities as they move through the prism.

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 17.
Assertion (A): A prism held in the air will show that two angles of incidence have the same magnitude of deviation (aside from the minimum deviation).
Reason (R): In a prism suspended in air, a ray strikes the second surface and exits through the first. (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: In a prism suspended in air, a ray strikes the first surface and exits through the second. Another ray will now emerge from the first surface along the previous incident ray if it incidentally hits the second surface (or prism) along the previous emergent ray. The reversibility of Light principle is the name given to this phenomenon.

Related Theory
The two angles of incidence will exist for the same magnitude of deviation when a prism is kept in air. The reversibility of light principle is to blame for this.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Pungent smelling gas is evolved when sulphur burns in air.
Reason (R): Sulphur trioxide is formed when sulphur reacts with oxygen. (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is formed when Sulphur burns in air.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): Tigers have a shorter small intestine whereas deers have a longer small intestine.
Reason (R): The length of the small intestine depend on the type of food the animals eat. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the A.

Explanation: Tigers have a shorter small intestine as meat is easior to digest. Deers have a longer small intestine to allow cellulose from the plants to be digested. We know that deers are herbivorous whereas tigers are carnivorous animals.

Question 20.
Assertion (A): When a white light beam passes through a hollow prism, it emits a spectrum.
Reason (R): The speed of light inside a glass prism differs from the speed of light outside. (1)
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true

Explanation: A spectrum is an organised division of coloured Light rays from red to violet, similar to the colours of the rainbow. To create a spectrum, white light or visible light must pass through a prism-like object. Light changes in speed as it travels through various objects.

SECTION – B (12 MARKS)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 21.
Identify P and Q in the given figure.

What could be the possible function of the these parts of human nervous system? (2)
Answer:
Pis cranium
Q is vertebral column.

The function are as follows:

Cranium(P): it is the bony box that protects the brain from mechanical injury.
Vertebral column(Q): it protects the spinal cord and also carries the weight of the upper body.

Question 22.
(A) Out of ketonic and aldehydic groups, which is the terminal functional group?
(B) Why is candle flame generally yellow?
OR
(A) An unknown compound has the smell of vinegar, identify it.
(B) What do we get when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid ? (2)
Answer:
(A) Aldehydic group

is the terminal functional group.

(B) Candle flame is generally yellow due to the presence of unburnt carbon particles. When light falls on these particles, they scatter yellow colour. This shows that the combustion of hydrocarbons present in wax or candle is not complete.

(A) The compound is ethanoic acid also called acetic acid.
(B) Ethyl ethanoate (CH₃COOC₂H₅) is formed by esterification reaction. It has fruity smell.

Question 23.
Observe the image given below and explain what is depicted. (2)

Which defect is shown in the given figure? Write its correction method.

Answer:
The image shows the position of Sun with respect to horizon. About two minutes before sunrise, the Sun can be seen because, when it is just below the horizon, light from the Sun is refracted downward as it travels through the atmosphere from less dense to more dense air. The Sun appears to be raised above the horizon when it is actually a little below the horizon as a result of this atmospheric refraction.

The defect shown in the given figure is hypermetropia. Such a person’s glasses can be made with a convex lens of a suitable focal length to treat long sight. The diverging light rays from the nearby object are first brought into convergence by the convex lens when it is placed in front of the hypermetropic eye. As a result, at a location close to the hypermetropic eye, the convex lens creates a virtual image of the object nearby. The convex lens’s image is then easily focused on the retina by the hypermetropic eye.

Question 24.
Study the given date and answer the questions following the data: Parental plants cross fertilised and seeds collected F₁ First generation off springs F₂ of off springs of self-pollination of F₃ Male parents always bare red flowers, Female parent always had white flowers 330 seeds sown and red flowers and 11 seeds gave plants with white flowers.
(A) What is the term for this type of cross?
(B) Express the gene type of the

parents
F₁ progeny and
F₂ progeny. (2)

Answer:
(A) Monohybrid cross
(B)

Parents – (RR) and (rr)
F₁ progeny – Rr
F₂ progeny – RR, Rr and rr

Question 25.
A housewife requested that her home be painted white. In 30 litres of water, she dissolved 10 kg of quick lime that she had purchased from the market.

Even though the water wasn’t being heated, she noticed that it began to boil, explain why she made the observation. Name the product produced and write the corresponding equation. (2)
Answer:
When water is added to quick lime, slaked lime, also known as calcium hydroxide, is created.
CaO_(s) + H₂O_l -> Ca(OH)_2(s) + heat
(Slaked lime)
The solution began to boil despite not being heated because the reaction is highly exothermic. The slaked lime suspension is allowed to cool for a while, ideally overnight. The liquid obtained after decanting is used for white washing.

Question 26.
In an electric heater, which draws a current of 4A from the source, the potential difference between its terminals is 60 V. If the potential difference is increased to 120 V, then what would be the current that the heater will draw from the source? (2)
Answer:
Given,
The potential difference
(V) = 60V
Current (I) = 4A
According to Ohm’s Law,
V = IR
R = $\frac { V }{ I }$
R = $\frac { 60 }{ 4 }$
R = 15 Ω
When potential difference is increased to 120V,
then I = $\frac { V }{ R }$
I = $\frac { 120 }{ 15 }$
I = 8A
The current through the heater will become 8A.

SECTION – C (21 Marks)
(Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.)

Question 27.
Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat colour in dogs. (3)
Answer:
Dogs have a variety of coats. Select a pure-bred male and female dog with a black coat (hair) colour or a pure-bred male and female dog with a brown coat (hair) colour to find dominant coat (hair) colour in dogs. Cross a homozygous male BB with a homozygous female BB, then look at the coat colour of the offspring (offspring). If all of the progeny are black, this indicates that in dogs, black will be the dominant coat colour, and if the progeny has brown coats, brown wilt be the dominant coat colour.

And, if we make the punett square of the F₁ generation, we obtain Bb, Bb, Bb, Bb, i.e., all progeny is black. As a result, the dominant colour is determined to be black.

Question 28.
The flowers are either self-pollinated or cross pollinated. How can a scientist prevent self-pollination? Show it with the help of a diagram. (3)
Answer:
A plant can be prevented from self-pollination by the process of emasculation. Emasculation is defined as the technique in which the male parts of the flowers (stamens or anthers) are carefully removed before the flower matures, to prevent self-pollination.

Question 29.
The following picture shows certain examples of compounds containing carbon such as carbon dioxide, methane, DNA. List any three common physical properties of these carbon compounds. (3)

Answer:
(1) Carbon atoms are bonded by covalent bonds and therefore they do not form ions. As they do not form free ions, they are poor conductors of electricity.

(2) Carbon compounds have low melting and low boiling points.

(3) Carbon compounds are usually insoluble in water but soluble in the organic solvents like ether, carbon- tetrachloride, etc.

Question 30.
In the diagram of the human male reproductive system: (3)

(A) Label A and B.
(B) Name the hormone produced by X. What is the role of this hormone in human male?
(C) Mention the name of substances that are transported by tubes C and D.
OR
(A) Find the parts that are incorrectly labelled on the given diagram.

(B) What is the purpose of the diagram’s labelled components?

Answer:
(A)
A – Seminal vesicle
B – Prostate gland.

(B)
X – Testosterone.
Testosterone controls sperm formation, expression of secondary characters and functioning of accessory glands.

(A) Incorrectly labelled parts in the figure are:

Male germ cell
PoLlen grain
Pollen tube
Ovule.

(B) Plumule: Formation of shoot.
Cotyledon: Storage of food.
Radicle: Formation of root.

Question 31.
While driving car, Sneha saw a lot of cars behind her in the rear-view mirror when she stopped on the red signal. What kind of mirror do you think was used in the car to see the traffic behind and why? Why is it preferred to a plane mirror, explain?
OR
Rahul was moving from infinity towards the pole of the mirror. What position and type of image does it create? (3)
Answer:
In cars and other vehicles, a convex mirror is used as the rear-view mirror because it provides a wider field of vision, enabling the driver to see the majority of the traffic behind him. Convex mirrors always form an erect, virtual, and diminished image of the objects placed in front of it. Convex mirrors always form a virtual, erect, and diminished image of the objects placed in front of it.

A convex mirror’s produced image is always virtual and situated behind the mirror.
The image of the object is upright and situated at the focal point when it is far away from the mirror.
The image formed by convex mirrors are smaller than the object but gets larger as they approach the mirror.

The formed image begins to shift from the mirror’s focus toward infinity as the object is moved from infinity toward the pole of the concave mirror.

The image is created at the focus or in the focal plane when the object is at infinity. As the object is moved, the image first appears between the focus and the centre of the curve, then it appears there, then it appears beyond the centre of the curve, then it appears at infinity, and finally it appears behind the mirror.

Question 32.
(A) Why shouldn’t alkalies like sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide be exposed to the air?
(B) An aqueous solution goes from having a pH of 3 to 2 over time. How will the nature of the solution change?
(C) What happens to washing soda crystals when they are exposed to air. (3)
Answer:
(A) Because of their hygroscopic nature, which allows them to absorb moisture from the air before dissolving.
(B) The solution will become even more acidic, is the correct response.
(C) They undergo efflorescence. Thus, washing soda (Na₂CO₃.10H₂O) transforms into washing powder (Na₂CO₃.H₂O).

Question 33.
(A) How can we magnetize a steel bar using a solenoid?
(B) Why can’t a 5 A fuse be used in wire carrying 15 A current?
(C) A fuse is always connected to a live wire and not to a neutral wire. Why? (3)
Answer:
(A) A uniform magnetic field is produced inside ’’The coils of a solenoid, when an electric current is passed through a solenoid. Therefore, when a ferromagnetic material like steel is exposed to the magnetic field, it will be magnetized. So, we can magnetize the steel bar by placing it inside the coils of a solenoid with sufficient current passing ®v through it.

(B) A 5A fuse cannot be used in carrying 15A current, because it will be ineffective in controlling the amount of current flowing as it can protect up to 5A only. If the level of current exceeds 5A, it will lead to a short circuit and can lead to fire. Thus, fuse will protect the electric appliances in line till 5A.

(C) Fuse is connected to a live wire and not to a neutral wire because if it is connected to neutral wire, then even when the fuse burns out due to excessive flow of current, the appliances remain connected to the live wire and current supplied will not be disrupted and if a person touches the appliance, he will get a shock.

SECTION – D (15 Marks)
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.)

Question 34.
(A) A doctor recommended to a patient to take insulin injections and follow a sugar-free diet. Specify the illness that he has. Why was he given these two pieces of advice?
(B) Describe the reason for the plant’s shoots bending toward the light.
OR
(A) Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary actions of our body.
(B) Reflex arcs in animals have developed for what purpose?
(C) Choose involuntary actions, amongst the following: Reading, Beating of heart, Salivation in the mouth on viewing tasty food, Talking. (5)
Answer:
(A) Disease is diabetes mellitus. The disease , is brought on by insufficient insulin secretion, which prevents glucose from being absorbed by cells and from being converted into glycogen in the liver and muscles. The excess sugar in the blood is partially excreted in the urine. A sugar- free diet will lower the level of blood sugar, insulin injections will assist in helping cells absorb glucose for their metabolic needs.and enable the liver and muscles to turn it into glycogen.

(B) Stems show positive phototropism and bend in the direction of the light. Less auxin fs present on the illuminated side and more is present on the darker side, which causes the movement. As a result, the darker side experiences more growth, which makes the Stem bend in the direction of the light.

(A) Differences between Voluntary and Involuntary actions:

S.No.	Voluntary Actions	Involuntary Actions
1	They are under control of the will.	They are performed without consulting the will.
2	The actions are performed with the help of striated muscles.	The actions are performed with the help of smooth muscles.
3	They are connected with the functioning of external organs.	They are connected with the functioning of internal organs.

(B) Beating of heart, salivation in the mouth on viewing of tasty food.

Question 35.
Roma noticed her mother keeping two dustbins in her kitchen, one blue and the other green as shown in the picture. She asked her mother about it. Her mother explained her that the waste we generate is of two types and it should be segregated, so that it can be disposed of easily. Based on this answer the following questions:

(A) Differentiate between the two types of wastes generated.
(B) Discuss the importance of segregation of wastes.
(C) How decomposers help in cleaning the environment? (5)
Answer:
(A) The two types of wastes are:
(1) Biodegradable wastes: These are organic wastes that can be broken down into simpler forms by microorganisms like bacteria, fungi. These do not cause pollution. Examples: fruits and vegetable peels, flowers, paper, wood, leftover food, etc.

(2) Non-biodegradable wastes: These are the wastes that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by microorganisms. Such type of wastes is responsible for environmental pollution. Examples: plastics, glass, metals,
electronic gadgets.

(B) Importance of waste segregation:

It reduces landfills and thus reduces pollution and transmission of diseases.
Compost of kitchen waste serves as an excellent manure.
Makes waste disposal easy.
Serves as a livelihood for ragpickers as they sell segregated wastes to recycle companies.

(C) Decomposers feed on dead plants and animals and thus act as a cleansing agent. They are regarded as Earth’s cLean-up crew. They help in recycling the nutrients and provide space on earth by decomposing the dead, otherwise dead organisms would pile up everywhere.

Question 36.
(A) An iron knife is kept in blue copper sulphate solution turns the blue solution into light green. Explain.
(B) An athlete won a bronze medal in a race competition. After some days, he found that the medal had lost its lustre due to the formation of a greenish layer on it. Name the metals present in the medal. What is the reason for the appearance of a greenish layer on its surface?

(A) Their relative positions in the ‘reactivity series’ are revealed by how metals like sodium, magnesium, and iron react with air and water. Is this a true statement? Explain your response using example.
(B) On placing a piece of zinc metal in a solution of mercuric chloride, it acquires a silvery surface but when it is placed in a solution of magnesium sulphate, no change is observed. State the reason for the behaviour of zinc metal. (5)
Answer:
(A) Iron lies above copper in the activity series. This means that iron or iron knife will displace copper from copper sulphate solution. As a result of the reaction, ferrous sulphate will be formed and the solution will be light green in colour.

(B) The bronze medal is an alloy and the constituting metals are copper and tin. The loss of lustre by the medal is due to the formation of a coating of green layer. This layer is at basic copper carbonate
OR
(A) It is true. The relative positions of these metals in the reactivity series can be estimated. For instance,

Even with cold water, sodium reacts violently, and it easily combines with air or oxygen.
When heated, magnesium reacts with hot water as well as with oxygen or air.
Iron only reacts with steam, and it reacts slowly with air. This demonstrates that these metals’ respective positions in the activity series are: sodium, magnesium, and iron.

(B) Zinc lies above mercury in the activity series and can easily replace it from mercuric chloride solution. Mercury formed in the reaction gets depositedjHS»p the surface of zinc to give it a silvery U5ok.

Zn_(s) + HgCl_2(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + Hg_(s)

But zinc is placed below magnesium in the activity series. Therefore, nb chemical reaction occurs between feinc and magnesium sulphate solution.

SECTION – E (12 Marks)
(Q.no. 37 to 39 are case – based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub – parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)

Question 37.
There are 118 elements known at present. It is difficult to study and describe all the properties of all these element separately. That is why elements showing similar properties are grouped together.

(A) (i) Some elements show properties of metals as well as non-metals such elements are known as metalloid. Name three metalloids.
(ii) Study the following reactions of aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃) with acid and base.
Al₂O₃ + 6HCI -> 2AICI₃ + 3H₂O
Al₂O₃ + 2NaOH -> 2NaAlO₂ + H₂O
interpret from the types of oxides given, which category will you place Al₂O₃.

(B) A yellow colored powder X burns with a blue flame and produces suffocation smelling gas which turns blue litmus red. This yellow powder ‘X’ is also soluble in carbon disulphide. Identify the nature of ‘X’. Write the chemical reaction of‘X’ with air.

(B) Aluminium metal acts as a good reducing agent. It reduces Fe₂O₃ and MnO₂ as shown in the given reactions.
(i) Fe₂O_3(s) + 2AI_(s) -> Pl_(l) + Al₂O_3(s) + Heat
(ii) 3MnO_2(s) + 4Al_(s) —> 3Mn_(l) + 2Al₂O_3(s) + Heat
What do you know about the reactions?
Answer:
(i) Si, Ge, As are metalloids.
The oxides of metal which reacts with both acids and bases to produce salt and water are called amphoteric oxide.
Thus, Al₂O₃ is an amphoteric oxide.

(B) Nature of‘X’: non-metal, chemical reaction of’X’ with air S + O₂ —> SO₂.
Sulphur burns in air and forms sulphur dioxide gas. This gas when dissolving in water forms sulphurous acid which turns most blue litmus red.
S + O₂ —> SO₂
SO₂ + H₂O —> H₂SO₃

(B)The reaction of Iron (111) oxide (Fe₂O₃) is highly exothermic. The amount of heat evolved is so large that the metals are produced in the molten state. This reaction is also known as thermite reaction. In these reaction aluminium is used as a reducing agent as it can displace metals of lower reactivity from this compounds.

Question 38.
Almost all metals and alloys are unstable in the Earth’s atmosphere and will always be susceptible to corrosion. For example, Statue of Liberty looks strong and permanent. Like nearly all metal objects, however, it can become unstable as it reacts with substances in its environment and deteriorates.

(A) The process of corrosion is a characterstic of all metals. Which metals do not undergo corrosion?
(B) Which metals do not corrode easily ?
(C) Define corrosion?
OR
(C) Corrosion is enhanced by dents on metallic surface. Why ? What is the chemical formula of rust?
Answer:
(A) Corrosion is not shown by and noble metals, such as gold, platinum.
(B) Noble metals like gold and platinum do not corrode easily.
(C) The process of slow conversion of metal into their undesirable compounds (sulphides, carbonates, oxides, etc.) by interaction with atmospheric gases and moisture is known as corrosion. It is an oxidation reaction.
(C) Corrosion is enhanced by dents on metallic surface because water is accumulated on dents, scratches and bends etc.
Chemically rust is hydrated ferric oxide or hydrated iron (III) oxide (Fe₂O₃.2H₂O)

Question 39.
Rohit is having toothache. She told about his problem to his mother. She told that he should brush his teeth twice a day and he started doing it but without any relief. Finally he was taken to a dentist. The doctor diagnosed a cavity in the molars. Dental cavity or dental caries or tooth decay causes gradual softening of enamel and dentin. It starts with bacteria acting on sugars produce acids that softens the enamel. Bacterial cells to gather with food particles stick to the teeth to form dental plaque. Saliva does not reach the tooth surface to neutralist the acid produced by bacteria. Brushing the teeth after eating removes the plague before the bacteria produce acids.

(A) Our stomach is a muscular organ located on the left side of the upper abdomen. It is a J-shaped organ. The stomach expands when food enters into it. How does the exit of waste occurs?

(B) Tooth enamel is made up of calcium hydroxyapatic. Rohit wants to know what type of tooth paste should be used to prevent tooth decay.

(C) We eat various types of food which has to pass through the same digestive tract. Firstly the whole food is taken (ingestion) in the mouth. Then the food is processed to generate small particles. What is the function of Salivary Amylase and HCl?

(C) Nutrition is the method of obtaining nutrients from the environment. This process involves the various steps in heterotrophs. Write the correct order of steps?
Answer:
(A) The waste material is removed from the body via the anus. The exitjofwaste material from anus is regulated blranal sphincter.

(B) Basic toothpaste should be usJd by Rohit for clearing the teeth. This yoothpaste neutralise the excess acid produced by bacteria and prevent toothpasteldecay.

(C) Salivary glands not only sectete saliva but also salivary amylase which converts starch into sugar. Hydrochlorid acid is present in the stomach which is secreted by gastric glands.

Ingestion – Intake of food.
Break down of complex material into simpler materials.
Absorption – Movement of digested food for absorption.
Assimilation – Utilization of food.
Egestion – Removal of undigested food material.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 2 with Solutions

October 28, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) In thisjet age, everyone is interested in making easy money. Thanks to the advancement in science and technology, these days life has become easier and more comfortable than earlier with a lot of domestic gadgets as well as instantaneous food recipes available in the market This has resulted in making the people develop a mind-set to have anything immediately without waiting for-even at the traffic signals.

(2) Most of us want results quickly. We want to reach the top immediately and get worked up when things go wrong. Perseverance and patience are forgotten words. We get upset frustrated and angry when a skill or activity requires us to put in a lot of effort and time. We get dejected and want to give it up. Things should be easy.

(3) Life is too short and there is not enough time to do all the things we want to. We tend to compare with others and get upset when they seem to be doing well and start believing God is being too kind to them and not to us. And so, we give up. But such thinking serves no purpose. For it doesn’t solve the problem.

(4) Success, real success and happiness come to those who have a ‘bread-making’ attitude. I am taking for those who are willing to knead the dough, wait for hours for it to rise only to punch it down and knead some more, wait for another couple of hours for it to rise again, then bake it before it is ready to be eaten. Nothing is instantaneous. For every endeavor-whether in the area of career, academics, music, sports, relationships, physical fitness or even in spirituality-it is a long arduous journey.

(5) We can get results only if we are willing to spend time, put in painstaking effort and have faith. If we don’t accept this difficult but true fact of life, our lives will be far from being happy and fulfilling. For we may not make that extra effort which can change the course of life dramatically for our benefit

(6) However, if we just pause to analyse what we are doing, we will realise how much time we are wasting searching for such magical solutions which simply do not exist. We actually save time when we stop this futile search and accept the proven methods of treading the straight and narrow path however difficult it may seem initially..
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions.
(A) What has been credited in the passage for our easier and more comfortable life? [1]
Answer:
Advancement in science and technology have made our lives easier and more comfortable.

(B) According to the passage, choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) Advancement in science and technology has resulted in the mind set to have things at their pace.
(b) Advancement in science and technology has resulted in the mind set to have things instantly and fast.
(c) Advancement in science and technology has resulted in the mind set to have things slowly and patiently.
(d) Advancement in science and technology has resulted in a give-up attitude. [1]
Answer:
Advancement in science and technology has resulted in the mind set to have things instantly and fast.

(C) List 1 way in which we can save our time as advised by the author.
(1) ………………………. [1]
Answer:
We can save our time by stop searching for magical solutions to our problems.

(D) Choose the prerequisites to get the desired results in life as per the passage:
(a) With perseverance and painstaking efforts.
(b) With utmost faith in mutual understanding.
(c) With deviated mind and fluctuations.
(d) By greasing the palms of others. [1]
Answer:
(a) With perseverance and painstaking efforts.

(E) “Success, real success and happiness come to those who have a “bread-making attitude.” The ‘bread-making attitude’ tells that:
(a) We should be absolutely inactive.
(b) It requires a skill in household chores.
(c) We should remain idle in order to taste success.
(d) We should be a man of patience in order to taste success. [1]
Answer:
(d) We should be a man of patience in order to taste success
Explanation: The ‘bread-making attitude’ tells us that a person waits for achieving the true success. A baker waits for hours for the dough to rise, only to punch it again & then wait to bake it. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(F) Nothing in life is instantaneous. The underlined word can be replaced by the word ………………… in the passage. [1]
Answer:
immediate

(G) Select the best option from the following that can help us reach the top in life.
(a) Perseverance and patience
(b) Science and technology
(c) Dejection and frustration
(d) Analysis and magical solution [1]
Answer:
(a) Perseverance and patience

(H) The author has stated the example of ‘bread-making attitude’ to make us ………………. [1]
Answer:
Patient

(I) We can only get the desired results if we do not waste time trying for the same thing again and again. True/false. [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: As per the passage, we can only get results when we put in the painstaking effort and have perseverance to keep trying for the same thing again and again.

(J) Most of us want results quickly. This shows that we are …………………. [1]
Answer:
Impatient

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.
India’s SDG Scores
India has crossed the halfway mark in achieving the UN’s sustainable development goals (SDGs) adopted in 2015 and to be achieved by 2030, according to the SDG India Index released on Friday by think tank NITI Aayog and the UN Here are the 10 best-performing states and Union territories according to the index.

(1) Himachal Pradesh. Kerala and Tamil Nadu have emceed as the front runners in the race to achieve key sustainable development goals (SDG) like removal of poverty inequality, while Assam, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh are the laggards in ranking of states.

(2) According to the SDG India Index, the nation as a whole has a store of 57, showing the country has reached a little beyond the halfway mark in meeting the sustainable development goats adopted by India and 192 other nations in 2015. The index covers 13 of the 17 sustainable development goals, including healthcare, gender equality, clean energy, infrastructure, education, peace and building strong, accountable institution.

(3) For goals, including climate action and sustainable use of marine resources, were left out because of lack of data at the state level. Kerala’s overall top rank (69) is attributed to its strong performance in providing good health, reducing hunger, achieving gender equality and providing quality education. The rank shows the distance each state has to cover to reach 100 – the point at which it fully meets the sustainable development goal.

(4) Himachal Pradesh ranks high with a similar overall score in providing clean water and sanitation, reducing inequalities and preserving the mountain ecosystem. Tamil Nadu has a score of 66. Among Union territories, Chandigarh takes the lead with a score of 68 on account of its track record in providing clean water and sanitation. Performance in providing quality education has also helped Chandigarh achieve high score.

(5) Tamil Nadu topped the states in poverty reduction, while Kerala topped in providing quality education, closely followed by Chandigarh and Himachal Pradesh.

(6) Kerala and Tamil Nadu also topped in facilitating good health and well-being. Gender equality, however, is an area all states and the nation as a whole need to improve upon. The toppers in gender equality, Sikkim and Union territories .Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Chandigarh, have crossed the hallway mark in reaching the goals.

(7) The scores represent the current status of achievement in meeting the goals.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) The other remaining goals left out from SDG India Index because:
(a) of lack of data of the state level
(b) they have already crossed halfway mark in reaching the goals.
(c) countries have not taken care of the remaining goals
(d) those goals have not yet officially accepted by the companies [1]
Answer:
(a) of lack of data of the state level

(B) Among Union Territories ………………… takes the lead with a score of 68 on account of its track record in providing clean water and sanitation. [1]
Answer:
Chandigarh

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option.
According to the survey …………….. tapped in providing quality education.
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Andhra Pradesh [1]
Answer:
(a) Kerala

(D) How many sustainable goals does index cover? [1]
Answer:
13

(E) What do 100 points mean as per SDG Index?
(a) It means the index has covered 13 goals including healthcare, gender equality clean energy, infrastructure, education, peace and building strong, accountable institutions.
(b) It means the point at which it fully meets the sustainable development goal.
(c) It means the removal of poverty and equality.
(d) It means India has reached a little beyond the halfway mark to meet sustainable development goals. [1]
Answer:
(b) It means the point at which it fully meets the sustainable development goal.

(F) Which state has the least SDG score according to the graph? [1]
Answer:
Maharashtra

(G) The SDG score represents the current status of achievements by the states in meeting the goals. True/false. [1]
Answer:
True

(H) Which state ranks the best in total SDG scores? [1]
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh

(I) Select the option that is true for the two statements g.t/en below.
(1) Tamil Nadu topped the states in poverty reduction.
(2) Kerala topped the states in providing amenities.
(a) (1) is the result of (2).
(b) (1) is true and (2) is false.
(c) (1) is independent of (2).
(d) (1) contradicts (2). [1]
Answer:
(b) (1) is true and (2) is false.
Explanation: It is clearly given in paragraph 5 of the passage that Tamil Nadu topped the states in poverty reduction while Kerala topped the states in providing quality education. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(J) The index covers ……………….. sustainable development goals out of ……………….. [1]
Answer:
13,17.

Section – B
Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Attempt ANY TEN of the given questions.
(A) Choose the correct option to fill in the blank to complete the passage:
Climate change in ………………. region of Ladakh has shrunk glaciers.
(a) an Indian
(b) the Indian
(c) a Indian
(d) near an Indian [1]
Answer:
(b) the Indian

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option:
You …………… your admit card in the examination hall.
(a) have to make
(b) must carry
(c) should see
(d) might read [1]
Answer:
(b) must carry

(C) Complete the given sentence with correct article.
Have you ever seen ……….. ostrich in ………… house?
(a) a; the
(b) an; the
(c) an; a
(d) the; a [1]
Answer:
(c) an; a

(D) Fill in the blank with the correct quantifier.
Riya felt lonely as she had …………… friends than her peers.
(a) fewer
(b) little
(c) less
(d) few [1]
Answer:
(d) few [1]

(E) Select the correct from of the verb (be) to complete the sentence.
Nobody ………………. heard anything from her in a long time.
(a) have
(b) is
(c) had
(d) were [1]
Answer:
(c) had

(F) The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the correction. The first one has been done for you. [1]

	Example	Error childrens	Correction children
Childrens are fond of orange. It is a	Example	Error childrens	Correction children
juicy and citrous fruit, filled of vitamin C.	(i)	…………………..	…………………..
Oranges grow on	(ii)	…………………..	…………………..
tropical or temperate climate	(iii)	…………………..	…………………..
One of the best city to have good oranges is Nagpur.

Answer:

Error	Correction
(i) of	with
(ii) on	in
(iii) or	and

(i) Explanation: ‘of’ is the wrong preposition used in the sentence. The right preposition to be used here is ‘with’. So, ‘with’ is the right answer.

(ii) Explanation: The preposition ‘on’ is used to identify the location while ‘in’ is used to identify time of happening. Hence, ‘in’ is the right answer.

(iii) Explanation: ‘or’ is used to define a choice between two things while ‘and’ is used to define two things collectively. The correct conjunction to be used here is ‘and’. Hence, it is the right answer.

(G) Sometimes, he ………….. bring me some gifts.
(a) could
(b) would
(c) any
(d) can [1]
Answer:
(b) would

(H) Anxiety, as well as tension, ………………. the cause of her jitter.
(a) are
(b) is
(c) shall
(d) were [1]
Answer:
(b) is

(J) No one, besides James,………… it.
(a) knowing
(b) knowed
(c) knows
(d) known [1]
Answer:
(c) knows

(J) The teacher said that we ………………. this book as it is important for exams.
(a) must
(b) needn’t
(c) shall
(d) were [1]
Answer:
(a) must

(K) I gave ……………… dress to Bunny.
(a) my
(b) mine
(c) their
(d) all [1]
Answer:
(a) my
Explanation: Only a singular pronoun can go with the singular noun ‘dress’. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(L) Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the narration.
Seema was angry as she couldn’t enjoy the fashion monthly issue digitally. So, her mom surprised her with a physical book. She knew that Seema was ……. (i) …….. with the digital version, so she went to the store and got it for her. Seema was elated.
Choose the correct option for (i)
(a) shocked
(b) elated
(c) angry
(d) sad [1]
Answer:
(c) angry

Creative Writing Skills

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
You are Keerti/Krishna of 56, Indrapuram, Bangalore. You bought a new VIP Washing Machine from M/S Rama Electronic, Commercial Street, Bangalore last week.

Later, you found that the machine makes an unbearable noise and the motor tears away delicate fabrics. Write a letter to the dealer complaining about the same and requesting him to change the machine as early as possible.
OR
You are distressed to see the number of young children begging at traffic signals and working at construction sites. You feel that more needs to be done to help them and laws to protect their rights must be enforced strictly by the authorities. Write a letter in 100- 120 words to the editor of ‘The Tribune’, highlighting the seriousness of the situation and the need to create awareness on the issue. You are Astha/Ashton, 56 Malaprabha, Sector 5, Chandigarh. [5]
Answer:
56, Indrapurom.
Bangalore
5th January, 20XX
M/S Rama Electronic
Commercial Street,
Bangalore
Subject : Complaint about the VIP Automatic Washing Machine
Respected sir/madam
I am sorry to inform you that the VIP Automatic Washing Machine which I bought from your shop against cash memo No. 200, dated 28th December 20XX with a two-year warranty period has stopped working just after a week of the purchase. The machine makes an unbearable noise and the motor tears delicate fabrics. It gets heated up in no time. Moreover, the dryer is not working properly.

Due to all these issues, I feel cheated. Therefore, I request you to repair the machine so that I can use it. It will be highly appreciated if you replace it with a new one as it is within the guarantee period. I am also sending a copy of this letter to the company’s higher officials so that they take care of these manufacturing defects. I hope you will take a quick action and oblige.
Thank you.
Yours faithfully
Keerti / Krishna
OR
56, Malaprabha
Sector 5
Chandigarh
26th May 20XX
The Editor
The Tribune
Chandigarh
Subject: Child labour must be stopped
Respected sir/madam
Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper, I wish to draw the public’s attention towards child labour. Everyday, I witness children at the traffic signals and I wonder why they are not at school?

Each day, the number seems to increase with no one taking note of the crisis. These children are being forced to beg, sell, work at shops and carry heavy weights. We all know that education is the right of every Indian. Then why are they not provided that right? If it is illegal to employ children below 14 then, why is there no check on those breaking the law?

The concerned authorities must take action against such people and ensure that these children attend school. Their parents must be made aware of education’s importance. I hope that the concerned authorities will take the necessary steps to improve the condition of these children.
Yours sincerely
Astha / Ashton

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
The recent pandemic has had an adverse effect on every facet of life. The bar graph shows how the mental health of young people has been affected during this time. Write an interpretation in 100-120 words on how lockdown in the times of COVID-19 has affected the mental health of young people and what can be done to prevent this.

World Economic Forum carried out a survey to identify the cause for the poor economic growth of our country.
Read the following excerpt taken from an article published by them online:
“A holistic approach in higher education based on knowledge, skill and value is required for our nation to become a global talent leader.”
Write a paragraph in 100-120 words on your interpretation of the data and what steps must be taken to help change India’s economic growth and make it a developed country. [5]

Use of Talent in India
1.4%	8.7%	3.3%	36%
enrolment rate in vocation training	gap in mean years of schooling between rich and poor	share of GDP invested in education	female labour force participation

Answer:
Mental Health & Lockdown
A recent survey conducted by Young Minds highlights the adverse effects of the 2020 lockdown. The 2,111 young people took part in the survey which shows how the lockdown is not only impacting jobs and economy but also mental health. The study concludes that more than 25% of the people included in the survey felt depressed, which is indeed an alarming number.

Adding to that, a large number of people admitted to feeling worse than before. A very small percentage claimed that the lockdown made no difference in their well-being. The only ray of hope comes from the few who claimed to feel better with more relaxation and rejuvenation. In contrast to the large number of people who feel worse, those who claim to feel much better are negligible. The survey is an indication that more needs to be done to ensure that the mental health of people stays strong.
OR
India – The Reason of Lagging Behind
The World Economic Forum conducted a survey to analyse the reasons behind India being a developing nation. The results reveal its reason and also of the inability to tap available talent. The leading cause could be the very low enrolment rate i.e., 1.4% of the students in vocational courses, possibly due to dismal interest in this area.

The burgeoning gap in the education between the rich and the poor is also a deterrent in cultivating talent which can be used to boost the economy. With only 3.3% of the share of GDP being invested in education, India also does not invest enough in developing means to harness talent. Gender bias too comes into play with only 36% of the female participation in the labour force.

It is time that the education policy is to be refined and reforms are to be introduced to ensure that talent is identified and honed to elevate India’s position as a developed country.

Section – C (40 Marks)
Literature

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE of the two given exracts.
The moon was coming up in the east, behind me, and stars were shining in the clear sky above me. There wasn’t a cloud in the sky. I was happy to be alone high up above the sleeping countryside.
(A) How did the speaker feel when he found himself above the countryside?
The speaker felt fairly ………………… [1]
Answer:
Cheerful.
Explanation: The author was above the sleeping countryside, but no signs are there to indicate that he himself is drowsy. He says he was happy alone. The author was happy means that he was cheerful.

(B) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to the given extract.
(1) The speaker was out in the morning.
(2) The speaker was happy to be alone.
(3) There were no stars in the sky.
(4) It was a cloudy night.
(5) He was in the countryside.
(6) The moon could be seen in the east.
(a) (1), (2), (3) (b) (1), (2), (5)
(c) (1), (3), (4) (d) (1), (3), (4) [1]
Answer:
(d) (1), (3). (4)
Explanation: From the lines we can make out that it wasn’t day time as the moon was out. So 1, is incorrect. The author tells us that he was happy to be alone so 2 is true. It was a starry night, so 3. is not true. There wasn’t a single cloud in the sky, so 4 is also not true. Author was above the sleeping countryside, so 5 is true. The moon could be seen in the east, so 6 is true. Hence the answer is (d).

(C) Pick the option that correctly classifies fact/s(F) and opinion/s(0) of the statements given below.
(1) I think the speaker was mesmerized by the beauty of the countryside.
(2) But he was alone of night and there was no one around.
(3) I have a feeling that the speaker was enjoying the silence and dark sky.
(4) The sky wasn’t dark as there were star that were shining.
(a) F – (2), (3) and O – (1), (4)
(b) F – (2), (4) and O – (1), (3)
(c) F – (1), (2) and O – (3), (4)
(d) F – (3), (4) and O – (1), (2) [1]
Answer:
(b) F – (2), (4) and O – (1), (3)
Explanation:

is an opinion as it is not evident from the speaker’s description, which merely describes the physical appearance of the night sky.
is a fact as the author himself write that he was alone.
is an opinion as the author doesn;’t tell this but as he says he was happy, we can think that he was enjoying the night’s beauty.
is a fact since the author tells that the moon and stars were shining in the sky. Hence the answer here is b).

(D) Which word does ‘shining4 NOT correspond to?
(a) gloomy
(b) glitter
(c) lustrous
(d) radiant [1]
Answer:
(a) gloomy
Explanation: Shining means to glitter or to have lustre. An article that has luster sends out Light that means it is radiant. Hence (b), (c) and (d) are not the correct answer. Here the answer is (a) as it means dark or poorly lit.

(E) The term ‘the sleeping countryside’ denotes. [1]
Answer:
Peace and calm everywhere
Explanation: The author has used these words to portray the peaceful environment that he witnessed at night.
OR
At about the age of twenty five, the Prince, heretofore shielded from the sufferings of the world, while out hunting changed upon a sick man, then an aged man, then a funeral procession, and finally a monk begging for chanced alms. These sights so moved him that he at once became a beggar and went out into the world to seek enlightenment concerning the sorrows he had witnessed.

He wandered for seven years and finally sat down under a peepal tree, where he vowed to stay until enlightenment came. Enlightened after seven days, he renamed the tree the Bodhi Tree (Tree of Wisdom) and began to teach and to share his new understandings. At that point he became known as the Buddha (the Awakened or the Enlightened).
(A) Choose the picture that expresses the true emotions of the Prince when he sees the outside world:

(a) Option (1), (b) Option (2), (c) Option (3), (d) Option (4) [1]
Answer:
(b) Option (2)
Explanation: The prince saw the sick man, old man funeral,and a monk. He was neither amused or hurt by the sights. He wasn’t angry at all, rather he was shocked and was Left in deep thoughts about these realities of life. Hence the answer here is (b).

(B) Seeing the stages and plight of humans, Buddha understood that life is full of ……………….. [1]
Answer:
sorrows, misery and death which is inevitable.
Explanation: What led the prince to the path of enlightenment was the realisation that life is full of sorrow, misery, and that death is inevitable.

(C) The statement that is TRUE about the Prince, according to the passage is:
(a) The Prince taught others to help them awaken.
(b) The Prince left the life of comforts in order to seek enlightenment.
(c) The Prince did not live a protected life.
(d) The Prince and Buddha were close friends. [1]
Answer:
(b) The Prince left the life of comforts in order to seek enlightenment.
Explanation: The prince only shared his new understanding with the people, (a) is not true. As a prince his life was completely protected, so (c) is also not the answer. Prince after enlightenment, came to be known as Buddha. Hence (d) is also not true. As a prince he was leading a life of comfort, but he chose the path of enlightenment. Hence (d) is the correct answer.

(D) The Prince came to be known as Buddha as he was:
(a) always found around the Bodhi Tree
(b) fought for the Bodhi Tree
(c) awakened
(d) a teacher of enlightenment [1]
Answer:
(c) awakened
Explanation: Buddha means the one who is enlightened or awakened. Hence the answer is (c).

(E) The extract uses the phrase, ‘stay until enlightenment came*. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘enlightenment’?
(a) intelligence
(b) Knowledgeable
(c) Erudite
(d) Erudition [1]
Answer:
(b) Knowledgeable

Question 7.
Attempt ANY ONE of the two given extracts. (5 x 1 = 5)
I think I could turn and live with animals,
they are so placid and self-contain’d
I stand and look at them long and long.
(A) The word “placid” in the line “they are so placid and self-contained” means the same as
(a) Calm
(b) Aggressive
(c) Vigilant
(d) Horrifying [1]
Answer:
(a) Calm
Explanation: Aggressive means to be ready to attack. Vigilant refers to someone who keeps a close watch over something. Horrifying is something that produces a sense of fear. All these qualities are there in animals. But the author finds them placid i.e one who is not agitated easily by someone. So here the answer will be (a) calm.

(B) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanza? [1]
Answer:
abc

(C) The stanza suggests a contrast between ………………… and ……………. .
(a) life and chaos
(b) anger and peace
(c) forest and city life
(d) humans and animals [1]
Answer:
(d) humans; animals
Explanation: In this poem, the poet has described the qualities of animals by telling the negative qualities of humans that are not present in animals.

(D) What is the poet NOT likely to say to the animals?
(a) “Get lost!”
(b) “Can I join you?”
(c) “Let me be a part of you.”
(d) “How peaceful!” [1]
Answer:
(a) “Get lost!”
Explanation: The poet is fascinated by the animal world and their mannerism. He wants to live with them. So (b) & (c) can not be the answer. The poet is moved by the placid nature of animals, so he most probably will say (d) to them. He can never say “Get lost” to the animals, hence (a) is the correct answer.

(E) Which word can be an appropriate synonym for ‘placid’? [1]
Answer:
Serene
OR
But presently up spoke little dog Mustard,
I’d have been twice as brave if I hadn’t been flustered.
And up spoke Ink and up spoke Blink,
We’d have been three times as brave, we
think, And Custard said, I quite agree
That everybody is braver than me
(A) The animals belong to __________
(a) Matilda
(b) Melinda
(c) Belinda
(d) Bettie [1]
Answer:
(c) Belinda

(B) Mustard heard everyone speak till the end because
(a) He knew that he was not braver than any one of them.
(b) He was the bravest of them all.
(c) He was too scared to speak.
(d) He was overconfident. [1]
Answer:
(a) He knew that he was not braver than any one of them
Explanation: All the animals were scared and hid themselves in the house when they saw the pirate entering the house. After Custard ate up the pirate, all of them gathered around and started telling their tales. None of them were brave. So (b), (c) & (d) are not the answers. The correct answer is (a).

(C) The word ‘flustered’ DOES NOT have a meaning similar to
(a) Discomfited
(b) Discomforted
(c) Unperturbed
(d) Bothered [1]
Answer:
(c) Unperturbed
Explanation: Mustard, the dog, spoke this word to makeup for his cowardice. He wanted to tell everyone how agitated (discomfit), uneasy (b) and bothered (d) he was at the sight of the pirate. Here the answer is unperturbed (c) which means not to be concerned.

(D) ‘I’d have been twice as brave if I hadn’t been flustered.’ This line implies that Mustard was brave but __________. [1]
Answer:
easily disturbed

(E) The word that DOES NOT indicate the idea of being timid in Mustard, is:
(a) Courageous
(b) Cowardly
(c) Gutless
(d) Fearful [1]
Answer:
(a) Courageous
Explanation: Mustard was a coward dog. He was so frightened at the sight of the pirate that he hid himself. All these are indicated by the options (b), (c) & (d). Hence (a) is the correct answer.

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR questions in 40-50 words each. (4 x 3 = 12)
(A) How did Valli behave with other passengers in the bus? What does this tell you about her? [3]
Answer:
Valli did not consider herself to be a child. When an elderly man asked her to sit, she was annoyed. She was prompt in her reply and acted haughtily. She also showed dislike for the elderly woman chewing betel nuts. We can say that she is witty, naughty, and adventurous.

(B) Would you agree with Lencho calling the post office employees “a bunch of crooks”? [3]
Answer:
Lencho was not justified in calling them “a bunch of crooks” because the postal officials were actually trying their best to keep his faith in God alive. All of them did their best to help him by collecting money for him and sending it to him in place of God.

(C) How does the poet show that the tiger is unhappy in the zoo? [3]
Answer:
The poet Leslie Norris draws a contrast between a tiger in captivity and a tiger roaming freely in the wild. The poet describes the tiger moving in silent rage as it is trapped in a small cage, while the tiger in the wild roams around freely stalking and hunting prey. The poet also conveys the tiger’s disillusionment with humans as it ignores them to convey its sadness that they did not do anything to help him. It looks at the brilliant stars with its brilliant eyes.

(D) What according to Mandela has been the impact of decades of oppression? [3]
Answer:
Decades of oppression helped people gain an insight into their own strengths. Wisdom and courage of many people emerged in this period of oppression, and Mandela learned the true meaning of courage from these people. This helped South Africa become free from the inhuman practice of Apartheid.

(E) Anne’s teachers expressed his annoyance differently. What did he ask her to do? [3]
Answer:
Anne’s continuous chatter annoyed Mr Keesing. He reprimanded her repeatedly but to no avail. He wanted her to understand her mistake, so he punished her by giving her extra homework to write essays to keep her silent and keeping the topics always related to her nature.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO questions in 40-50 words each. (2 x 3 = 6)
(A) What is the reason for Dr. Herriot’s claim that Tricki will be in hospital soon? [3]
Answer:
Dr. Herriot was shocked to see an overweight Tricki. He could not believe that Tricki had become huge, like a bloated sausage and his tongue lolled out from his jaws. He was unable to move owing to his weight. This strengthened the doctor’s belief that Tricki would require hospitalisation soon.

(B) Bholi’s heart was throbbing with a new hope and a new life. What does the phrase “a new hope and a new life” mean in this context? [3]
Answer:
For Bholi, ‘a new ray of hope and life’ was her decision to look after her parents in their old age and also to devote her whole life in teaching the children in her old school. After all that she had gone through and averting the fate of marrying an old man, she feels a renewed spirit within her to achieve something greater in life.

(C) How is Ebright exposed to the idea of real science? [3]
Answer:
Ebright is exposed to the idea while viewing the X-ray of the hormone chemical structure. He held it with his findings connected to insect hormones, and was able to find the answer to one of the biggest mysteries of biology, which was how the cell could read the blueprint of its DNA.

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
“Nelson Mandela exhibits the spirit of strength and resilience in a society that is struggling to live the values of basic humanity.”
Taking cue from the statement given above along with your understanding of Nelson Mandela’s character traits, comment on how ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is not only Mandela’s appeal to his own brethren but also an appeal for peace and justice to the entire humanity.
OR
Read the extracts given below and comment on the difference of help in the two extracts.
(A) In her grief she carried the dead child to all her neighbours, asking them for medicine, and the people said, “She has lost her senses. The boy is dead.” [The Sermon at Benaras]

(B) “Won’t your mother be looking for you?” the conductor asked when he gave the girl her ticket. “No, no one will be looking for me,” she said. [Madam Rides the Bus] [6]
Answer:
Nelson Mandela exhibited values that focused on commonality and universal brotherhood. His struggle was not against the white throne of supremacy alone but against the system of oppression. As depicted in the story, his struggle was against any form of oppression.

His appeal to universal brotherhood is portrayed by the emphasis he lays on the equal opportunities which need to be provided to both whites and blacks without any discrimination. Mandela thinks that even the oppressor is not free as an oppressor is a victim of hatred. Thus, even the oppressor is caged in the bars of prejudice and narrow-mindedness. He realises that both the oppressor and the oppressed are robbed of their humanity and peace. Thus, his struggle to release both the oppressor and the oppressed from the shackles of inhumanity puts a strong case forward to depict his resilience and courage.
OR
(A) In the first extract, Kisa Gotami after the death of her only son, was overcome with grief. She carried the dead body of her son in her arms and went from door to door seeking medicine to revive her dead child but nobody could provide such a medicine to her as it doesn’t exist. The search of something unattainable signified her inability to deal with the grief of losing her child. Only through Gautama Buddha’s wisdom was she able to learn the important lesson.

(B) In the second extract, Valli, in her quest to take the bus ride alone is prepared for all the situations. Valli, owing to her confidence does not seek any help from the conductor. It is this grace that makes the conductor refer to her as ‘madam.’ Thus, there is no request for help that is made in the context.

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
Matilda says- “I am vexed not to have a jewel, nothing to adorn myself with. I shall have such a poverty-stricken look. I would prefer not to go to this party.”
Although Matilda aspired for more in life, but the absence of round realities made her perpetually dissatisfied. Elaborate based on the chapter ‘The Necklace’.
OR
“The strangeness of our encounters is also an insight into new experiences.”
Based on the quote given above, comment on how Mrs. Hall and her husband had an unusual encounter with the stranger. [6]
Answer:
A life of luxury may appeal to the eyes, but in the long run it does not help the heart. We should always live a contented life with a belief in simple living and high thinking. We should not run after materialistic pleasures. If we fail to accept the situation in which we are placed and keep on complaining, we become frustrated and want to change our lives.

As we read in the story ‘The Necklace’, we find that Matilda is not at all happy being married to a clerk. She had dreamt her life to be luxurious. It is this frustration of hers which puts her in a fix and spoils the rest of her Life. She does not look for a solution but rather complicates the situation for herself.

We agree that one should be ambitious but trying to show off what you don’t have is mere foolishness and to attain success in a short span of time would always get you in trouble. We must always act sensibly and review the situation properly before we take any decision. It is her unrestrained ambition that brings trouble in her happy life.
OR
Mrs. Hall and her husband were surprised to find the scientist’s room’s door open because it was always locked. So they peeped in but found nobody there. The clothes and bandages that always covered him were strewn about the room. Suddenly, Mrs. Hall heard a sniff close to her ear and the hat on the bedpost leapt up and dashed itself into her face. Then the bedroom chair sprang into the air, pushed them both out of the room and then appeared to slam and lock the door after them.

Mrs. Hall became hysterical and almost fell down the stairs. She thought that her furniture was haunted. They decided to confront Griffin, the scientist, when they met him next. A strange encounter that they had with Griffin led them to experience something extraordinary indeed.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 3 with Solutions

October 28, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 3 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

इस प्रश्नपत्र में दो खंड हैं-खंड ‘क’ और ‘ख’। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/ वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न दिए गए हैं।
प्रश्नपत्र के दोनों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमानुसार लिखिए।
खंड ‘क’ में कुल 10 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
खंड ‘ख’ में कुल 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार विकल्प का ध्यान रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘क’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
सब सुखी हों, सब स्वस्थ हों, सबका कल्याण हो, किसी को कोई भी दुःख न हो। ऐसी पुनीत भावनाएँ भारतवर्ष में सदैव प्रवाहित होती रही हैं। वास्तव में दया और परोपकार के समान न कोई दूसरा धर्म है और न पुण्य। मानव का उद्देश्य और मानव-जीवन की सार्थकता इसी में है कि वह दूसरों पर दया करे, उनका कल्याण करे। उसका कर्तव्य है कि वह स्वयं भी उठे और दूसरों को भी उठाए। दीनों की करुणा भरी पुकार और असहाय की याचनापूर्ण करुणा दृष्टि से उसका हृदय द्रवीभूत हो जाए। यदि विद्या है तो वाद-विवाद न करें, विद्या को अशिक्षितों में वितरित करें। तभी वे सच्चे मनुष्य कहलाने के अधिकारी हो सकेंगे। आज आवश्यकता इस बात की है कि हम दूसरों के आँसुओं का आदर करना सीखें, दीन और असहायों की करुण पुकार सुनकर उनके दु:ख दूर करें। सैकड़ों भूखे लोगों को अन्न देना, तन ढकने के लिए वस्त्र देना, भूख से तड़पते हुए और सर्दी से ठिठुरते हुए बालकों को संरक्षण देना, ऐसे बच्चे जो अनाथ हैं, उन्हें गोद में उठाना, अपने पापी पेट के लिए नारी का सम्मान नीलाम न हो इसके लिए चौकस रहना, रोगी को औषधि देना, अशिक्षितों के लिए शिक्षा की व्यवस्था करना, प्यासे को पानी पिलाना, अंधे को मार्ग दिखाना, भयभीत की रक्षा करना आदि कार्य दया के रूप ही हैं। सबको जीने का समान अधिकार है। ईश्वर ने सबको एक-सा बनाया है। शक्तिशाली का कर्तव्य निर्बलों की सहायता करना है न कि उनको सताना। हमारे पौराणिक इतिहास में भी दयालु व्यक्तियों को ही महापुरुष माना गया है। राजा शिवि को देखिए बाज़ के आक्रमण से भयभीत कबूतर को उन्होंने अपनी गोद में बिठा लिया। बाज़ वहाँ भी आ पहुँचा और उनके सामने दो शर्ते रखीं। पहली आप मेरे शिकार को वापस कर दीजिए, दूसरी, नहीं तो उसके बराबर मुझे अपना माँस दे दीजिए। तब शिवि ने तराजू में कबूतर के बराबर अपने शरीर का माँस दे दिया। धर्म का दूसरा रूप दया ही है। भारतवर्ष में चिरकाल से दया की भावना प्रवाहित होती चली आ रही है। यदि समाज से दया की भावना का लोप हो जाता है तो मानवता रसातल में चली जाएगी।
(क) आँसुओं के बारे में क्या कहा गया है?
(i) दूसरों के आँसुओं की परवाह नहीं करनी चाहिए।
(ii) दूसरों के आँसुओं का आदर करना चाहिए
(iii) दूसरों के आँसुओं को बहने देना चाहिए
(iv) आँसू न निकलें तो सही है
उत्तर:
(ii) दूसरों के आँसुओं का आदर करना चाहिए।

(ख) किसके समान कोई और धर्म नहीं है?
(i) दया और हिंसा
(ii) परोपकार और हिंसा
(iii) पाप और दया
(iv) दया और परोपकार
उत्तर:
(iv) दया और परोपकार।

(ग) राजा शिवि ने कबूतर की रक्षा के लिए अपने शरीर का माँस क्यों दे दिया था?
(i) क्योंकि वे धर्मपरायण व्यक्ति थे।
(ii) क्योंकि वे परोपकारी थे।
(iii) क्योंकि वे हिंसावादी थे।
(iv) क्योंकि वे अपने शरीर को महत्व नहीं देते थे।
उत्तर:
(ii) क्योंकि वे परोपकारी थे।

(घ) संसार में दया की भावना न होने पर क्या होगा?
(i) लोग परोपकारी हो जाएँगे
(ii) लोग अहिंसावादी हो जाएँगे।
(iii) मानवता का अंत हो जाएगा
(iv) लोग दयालु हो जायेंगे।
उत्तर:
(iii) मानवता का अंत हो जाएगा।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए
कथन (A): शक्तिशाली का कर्तव्य निर्बलों की सहायता करना है।
कथन (R): मानव जीवन की सार्थकता तभी है जब वह दूसरों की करुण पुकार सुनकर उनकी सहायता करे।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तर:
(iii) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है

मधुर-मधुर मेरे दीपक जल!
युग-युग प्रतिदिन प्रतिक्षण प्रतिपल
प्रियतम का पथ आलोकित कर!
सौरभ फैला विपुल धूप बन
मृदुल मोम-सा घुल रे, मृदु-तन!
दे प्रकाश का सिन्धु अपरिमित,
तेरे जीवन का अणु गल-गल
पुलक-पुलक मेरे दीपक जल!
सारे शीतल कोमल नूतन
माँग रहे तुझसे ज्वाला कण;
विश्व-शलभ सिर धुन कहता मैं
हाय, न जल पाया तुझमें मिल!
सिहर-सिहर मेरे दीपक जल!

(क) उपर्युक्त पद्यांश में कवयित्री की कौन-सी भावना प्रकट हो रही है?
(i) प्रियतम के प्रति अपार प्रेम
(ii) प्रियतम के प्रति घृणा
(iii) प्रियतम के प्रति वियोग की भावना
(iv) ज्वाला की
उत्तर:
(i) प्रियतम के प्रति अपार प्रेम।

(ख) कवयित्री किसका पथ आलोकित करने को कह रही है?
(i) स्वयं का
(ii) प्रियतम का
(iii) दोनों का
(iv) दीपक का ।
उत्तर:
(ii) प्रियतम का।

(ग) पद्यांश में कौन-से रस की अभिव्यक्ति हो रही है?
(i) भक्ति रस
(ii) करुण रस
(iii) शृंगार रस
(iv) शांत रस
उत्तर:
(iii) शृंगार रस।

(घ) कवयित्री मोम के समान किसे घुलने को कह रही
(i) मोमबत्ती को
(ii) ज्वाला कण को
(iii) दीपक को
(iv) मृदु तन को
उत्तर:
(iv) मृदु तन को।

(ङ) पद्यांश में कवयित्री ने क्या करने की सलाह दी है ?
(I) अच्छे कर्मों से जग को सुगंधित करने की
(II) अहंकार को नष्ट करने की
(III) अपने बारे में सोचने की
(IV) आस्था को बनाए रखने की
विकल्प:
(i) कथन II सही है
(ii) कथन I, II व III सही हैं
(iii) कथन I, II व IV सही हैं
(iv) कथन I, II, III व IV सही हैं
उत्तर:
(iii) कथन I, II व IV सही हैं।

अथवा

यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-II पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।
जिस राम के गुण आप गाते हैं
जिस अर्जुन पर आप मुग्ध हैं
बताओ तो दोस्तों !
उनके जो-जो चित्र
आपकी आस्था और विश्वास के हैं
वे राजमहलों के हैं
या वनवास के हैं ?
मित्रों ! जब स्वयं रामचंद्र
राजमहलों की रेशमी जूतियाँ उतारकर
नंगे पाँव वन में पधारे थे
तभी से वे महिमावान हो गए।
राजकुमार तो थे ही
अब वे भगवान हो गए द्य
जटाधारी राम हों
या वन-वन भटकते पांडव
सबके गौरवशाली चरित्र वन के हैं
ताड़का का वध हो
या जटायु का संस्कार
केवट का मिलन हो
या शबरी से प्यार
भरत से मिलन का हेतु हो
या लंका का सेतु हो
सब वन के ही श्रृंगार हैं
राम के चौदह वर्ष हों
या पांडवों के तेरह वर्ष
दोनों ने महिमा की पूँजी
वन से ही उगाही थी
सोने की लंका वनवासी राम ने ही ढहाई थी
जुए की खाई में गिरे पांडवों ने
दुर्योधन की जंघा तोड़ने की शक्ति
वनवास से ही पाई थी

(क) काव्यांश में ‘रेशमी जूतियाँ’ और ‘नंगे पाँव’ किन स्थितियों का परिचायक हैं ?
(i) राजा और रंक के
(ii) सुख और खुशी के
(iii) अमीरी और आशा के
(iv) सुख और अमीरी के
उत्तर:
(i) राजा और रंक के।

(ख) किस घटना ने रामचंद्र को भगवान बना दिया ?
(i) लंका पर सेतु निर्माण
(ii) सोने की लंका ढहाना
(iii) राजपाट त्यागकर वन गमन
(iv) वन में नंगे पाँव चलना
उत्तर:
(iii) राजपाट त्यागकर वन गमन।

(ग) रामचंद्र के द्वारा वनवास के समय में कौनसा कार्य नहीं किया गया ?
(i) शबरी प्रेम
(ii) ताड़का वध
(iii) केवट मिलन
(iv) वशिष्ठ के आश्रम में अध्ययन
उत्तर:
(iv) वशिष्ठ के आश्रम में अध्ययन।

(घ) पांडवों ने वनवास से कौनसी शक्ति पाई थी ?
(i) जुए को खेलने की
(ii) जुए को हारने की
(iii) दुर्योधन की जंघा तोड़ने की
(iv) भरत मिलन की
उत्तर:
(ii) दुर्योधन की जंघा तोड़ने की।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए
कथन (A): बड़ी कठिनाइयों का सामना करके ही मनुष्य महान बनता है ।
कथन (R) : वन प्रवास के दौरान ही रामचंद्र ने अनेक महँ कर्म किए। पांडवों ने भी कौरवों से जीतने की ताकत वन प्रवास के दौरान ही प्राप्त की।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है।
उत्तर:
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) सचिन ने ईश्वर का नाम लेकर खेलना शुरू किया। वाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) सचिन ने ईश्वर का नाम लिया और खेलना शुरू किया।
(ii) ईश्वर का नाम लेकर सचिन ने खेलना शुरू किया।
(iii) जब सचिन ने ईश्वर का नाम लिया तब खेलना शुरू किया।
(iv) ईश्वर का नाम लेते ही सचिन ने खेलना शुरू किया।
उत्तर:
(i) सचिन ने ईश्वर का नाम लिया और खेलना शुरू किया।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
संयुक्त वाक्य में दो सरल वाक्य होते हैं जो अपनेआप में पूर्ण अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।

(ख) जो ईमानदार है वही सम्मान का सच्चा अधिकारी है। वाक्य का सरल वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) जो सम्मान का सच्चा अधिकारी है, वही ईमानदारी में भी सबसे आगे है।
(ii) ईमानदार ही सच्चे सम्मान का अधिकारी
(iii) यदि व्यक्ति ईमानदार है तो उसे सच्चा सम्मान मिलता है।
(iv) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(ii) ईमानदार ही सच्चे सम्मान का अधिकारी है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य और एक क्रिया होते हैं। अतः यही सही उत्तर है।

(ग) वर्षा शुरू होते ही बिजली चली गई। वाक्य का मिश्र वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) वर्षा शुरू हुई और बिजली चली गई।
(ii) बिजली चली गई वर्षा शुरू होते ही।
(iii) जैसे ही वर्षा शुरू हुई वैसे ही बिजली चली गई।
(iv) वर्षा शुरू हुई क्योंकि बिजली चली गई।
उत्तर:
(iii) जैसे ही वर्षा शुरू हुई वैसे ही बिजली चली गई।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मिश्र वाक्य में एक वाक्य दूसरे पर आश्रित होता है। प्रधान उपवाक्य और आश्रित उपवाक्य समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय द्वारा जुड़े हुए होते हैं।

(घ) उसने कहा कि आज वह नहीं जाएगा। रेखांकित उपवाक्य का भेद होगा
(i) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
(ii) विशेषण उपवाक्य
(iii) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
(iv) आश्रित उपवाक्य
उत्तर:
(i) संज्ञा उपवाक्य।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
संज्ञा उपवाक्य की प्रमुख पहचान है कि ये आश्रित उपवाक्य ‘कि’ योजक से आरंभ होते हैं।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
(1) मूर्तिकार ने सुना और जवाब दिया	(i) मिश्र वाक्य
(2) जब तुम जाओगे तभी मैं जाऊँगा	(ii) सरल उपवाक्य
(3) वह खाना खाते ही खेलने चला गया	(iii) संयुक्त वाक्य

विकल्प :
(i) (1) (III) (2) (I), (3) (II)
(ii) (1) (II), (2) (III), (3) (I)
(iii) (1) (I), (2) (II), (3) (III)
(iv) (1) (III), (2) (II), (3) (I)
उत्तर:
(i) (1) (III) (2) (1), (3) (II)

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) उससे रोया नहीं जाता। वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) वह नहीं रोता है।
(ii) रोता नहीं है वह।
(iii) रोया नहीं जाता उससे।
(iv) रोता है वह
उत्तर:
(i) वह नहीं रोता है।

(ख) वह धीरे बोलती है। वाक्य का भाववाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) धीरे बोलती है वह।
(ii) उससे धीरे बोला जाता है।
(iii) क्योंकि वह धीरे बोलती है।
(iv) इसलिए उससे धीरे बोला जाता है।
उत्तर:
(ii) उससे धीरे बोला जाता है।

(ग) भारत ने आज उपग्रह छोड़ा। वाक्य का कर्मवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) उपग्रह छोड़ा भारत ने आज।
(ii) भारत आज उपग्रह छोड़ता है।
(iii) भारत के द्वारा आज उपग्रह छोड़ा गया।
(iv) उपग्रह छोड़ा गया भारत से आज।
उत्तर:
(iii) भारत के द्वारा आज उपग्रह छोड़ा गया।

(घ) मुझसे अब चला नहीं जाता। वाक्य का वाच्य बताइए
(i) कर्तृवाच्य
(ii) कर्मवाच्य
(iii) भाववाच्य
(iv) वाच्य
उत्तर:
(i) कर्तृवाच्य।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
1. तुम्हारे द्वारा फूल तोड़ा जाएगा	(i) कर्तृवाच्य
2. हालदार साहब ने पान खाया	(ii) भाववाच्य
3. बच्चों से लिखा नहीं जाता	(iii) कर्मवाच्य

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) वह भावुक व्यक्ति है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन।
(ii) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन।
(iii) संज्ञा, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन।
(iv) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन।
उत्तर:
(i) विशेषण, गुणवाचक, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन।

(ख) द्वार पर कोई भिखारी खड़ा है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
(ii) अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
(iii) प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
(iv) सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।
उत्तर:
(ii) अनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, अन्य पुरुष, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग।

(ग) रमेश यहाँ रहता है। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
(ii) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
(iii) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
(iv) परिमाणवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
उत्तर:
(iii) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण।

(घ) वे घर पहुंच चुके हैं। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) गुणवाचक सर्वनाम, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन।
(ii) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, स्त्रीलिंग, बहुवचन।
(iii) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन।
(iv) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन।
उत्तर:
(iv) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन।

(ङ) वह आज विद्यालय नहीं गया क्योंकि वह बीमार था। वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का परिचय होगा
(i) क्रियाविशेषण अव्यय।
(ii) विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय।
(iii) समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय।
(iv) सम्बन्धबोधक अव्यय ।
उत्तर:
(iii) समुच्चयबोधक अव्यय।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) ‘दे रहा हो कोकिल सानंद, सुमन को ज्यों मधुमय सन्देश’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(i) श्लेष

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ ‘सुमन’ के दो अर्थ हैं-पहला सुंदर मन और दूसरा-पुष्प। इसी प्रकार मधुमय के अर्थ हैं-मधुर और वसंत ऋतु।

(ख) ‘पद्मावती सब सखी बुलाई, मनु फुलवारी सबै चलि आई’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ पद्मावती ने अपनी सखियों को बुलाया और वे सब आईं तो ऐसा लगा, जैसे फुलवारी चली आई हो। अतः यहाँ उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार है।

(ग) ‘धीरे-धीरे उतर क्षितिज से आ बसंत-रजनी’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(ii) मानवीकरण

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
बसंत ऋतु की रात को उतर कर अपने पास आने के लिए कहा है अर्थात यहाँ मानव का संबंध स्थापित किया गया है। अतः मानवीकरण अलंकार है।

(घ) ‘अपनी एक टांग पर खड़ा है यह शहर, अपनी दूसरी टांग से बिलकुल बेखबर’ पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(ii) मानवीकरण

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ शहर को मनुष्य के रूप में बताया है जो अपनी एक टांग पर खड़ा है। अतः यहाँ मानवीकरण अलंकार

(ङ) ‘बाण नहीं पहुँचे शरीर तक, शत्रु गिरे पहले ही भू। पर’-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ बाण लगने से पहले ही शत्रु का धरती पर गिरना अतिशयोक्तिपूर्ण है अतः यहाँ अतिशयोक्ति अलंकार है।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
पंद्रह दिन बाद फिर कस्बे से गुज़रे। कस्बे में घुसने से पहले ही ख्याल आया कि कस्बे की हृदयस्थली में सुभाष की प्रतिमा अवश्य ही प्रतिष्ठापित होगी, लेकिन सुभाष की आँखों पर चश्मा नहीं होगा। …………क्योंकि मास्टर बनाना भूल गया।………….और कैप्टन मर गया। सोचा, आज वहाँ रुकेंगे नहीं, पान भी नहीं खाएँगे, मूर्ति की तरफ देखेंगे भी नहीं, सीधे निकल जाएँगे। ड्राइवर से कह दिया, चौराहे पर रुकना नहीं, आज बहुत काम है, पान आगे ही खा लेंगे। लेकिन आदत से मजबूर आँखें चौराहा आते ही मूर्ति की तरफ उठ गईं। कुछ ऐसा देखा कि चीखे, रोको ! जीप स्पीड में थी, ड्राइवर ने जोर से ब्रेक मारे। रास्ता चलते लोग देखने लगे। जीप रुकते-न-रुकते हालदार साहब जीप से कूदकर तेज़-तेज़ कदमों से मूर्ति की तरफ लपके और उसके ठीक सामने जाकर अटेंशन में खड़े हो गए। मूर्ति की आँखों पर सरकंडे से बना छोटा-सा चश्मा रखा हुआ था, जैसा बच्चे बना लेते हैं। हालदार साहब भावुक हैं। इतनी-सी बात पर उनकी आँखें भर आईं।

(क) हालदार साहब कितने दिन बाद कस्बे से गुज़रे?
(i) दस दिन बाद
(ii) पंद्रह दिन बाद
(iii) आठ दिन बाद
(iv) ग्यारह दिन बाद
उत्तर:
(ii) पंद्रह दिन बाद।

(ख) कस्बे में घुसने से पहले हालदार साहब के मन में क्या विचार आया?
(i) सुभाष की मूर्ति तो होगी पर उसकी आँखों पर चश्मा नहीं होगा।
(ii) सुभाष की मूर्ति तो होगी और आँखों पर चश्मा भी होगा।
(iii) सुभाष की मूर्ति कस्बे के हृदयस्थली पर नहीं होगी।
(iv) कैप्टन मर गया।
उत्तर:
(i) सुभाष की मूर्ति तो होगी पर उसकी आँखों पर चश्मा नहीं होगा।

(ग) हालदार साहब ने ड्राइवर से क्या कहा?
(i) आज वहाँ रुकना है।
(ii) आज वहाँ पान नहीं खाएंगे।
(iii) आज वहाँ अटेंशन में खड़े हो जाएंगे।
(iv) पान के लिए रुकना।
उत्तर:
(ii) आज वहाँ पान नहीं खाएंगे।

(घ) हालदार साहब किसे देखकर भावुक हो गए?
(i) पानवाले को
(ii) जीप को
(iii) ड्राइवर को
(iv) सरकंडे के चश्मे को
उत्तर:
(iv) सरकंडे के चश्मे को।

(ङ) नेताजी की मूर्ति कहाँ पर लगी हुई थी?
(i) कस्बे की हृदयस्थली पर
(ii) हालदार साहब के शहर में
(iii) पानवाले के पास
(iv) चौक में
उत्तर:
(i) कस्बे की हृदयस्थली पर।

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) बालगोबिन भगत का बेटा कैसा था?
(i) सुस्त और बोदा
(ii) परिश्रमी
(iii) आलसी
(iv) कामचोर
उत्तर:
(i) सुस्त और बोदा।

(ख) नवाब साहब ने कितने खीरे खरीदे थे?
(i) एक
(ii) दो
(iii) तीन
(iv) चार
उत्तर:
(ii) दो।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
बादल, गरजो! विकल विकल, उन्मन थे उन्मन विश्व के निदाघ के सकल जन, आए अज्ञात दिशा से अनंत के घन। तप्त धरा, जल से फिर शीतल कर दो। बादल, गरजो!
(क) पद्यांश में किसे विकल बताया गया है?
(i) बादलों को
(ii) लोगों को
(iii) आकाश को
(iv) वर्षा को
उत्तर:
(i) लोगों को।

(ख) गर्मी से लोग कैसे हो उठे थे?
(i) अनमने
(ii) प्रसन्न
(iii) उत्साहित
(iv) सभी विकल्प सही हैं
उत्तर:
(i) अनमने।

(ग) पद्यांश में ‘निदाघ’ का क्या अर्थ है?
(i) कक
(ii) विकल
(iii) उन्मन
(iv) गर्मी
उत्तर:
(iv) गर्मी।

(घ) कवि बादलों को कैसे स्वर में गरजने के लिए कह रहा है?
(i) शीतल स्वर में
(ii) विनम्र स्वर में
(iii) शक्तिशाली स्वर में
(iv) मधुर स्वर में
उत्तर:
(iii) शक्तिशाली स्वर में।

(ङ) पद्यांश में प्रयुक्त रस है
(i) रौद्र रस
(ii) शांत रस
(iii) वीर रस
(iv) अद्भुत रस
उत्तर:
(iii) वीर रस।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए (1 × 2 =2)
(क) अपना स्वर भूलने के पश्चात् संगतकार किसे अपना बचपन याद दिलाना चाहता है ?
(i) मुख्य गायक को
(ii) स्वयं को
(iii) कवि को
(iv) श्रोताओं को
उत्तर:
(i) मुख्य गायक को।

(ख) कवि के अनुसार नूतन कविता कैसी होनी चाहिए?
(i) अच्छी लगने वाली
(ii) सुंदरता लाने वाली
(iii) नवजीवन लाने वाली
(iv) कठोर स्वर वाली
उत्तर:
(iii) नवजीवन लाने वाली।

खंड ‘ब’
वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) बालगोबिन भगत की पुत्रवधू उन्हें अकेले क्यों नहीं छोड़ना चाहती थी?
उत्तर:
बालगोबिन भगत की पुत्रवधू उन्हें अकेले नहीं छोड़ना चाहती थी, क्योंकि वह जानती थी कि वे किसी के सामने कभी हाथ नहीं फैलाते। उसे चिन्ता थी कि उसके जाने के बाद कौन उनकी देखभाल करेगा, कौन उन्हें खाना देगा और कौन बीमारी में उनकी सेवा करेगा।

(ख) ‘लखनवी अंदाज’ पाठ में नवाब साहब के माध्यम से नवाबी परम्परा पर व्यंग्य है। स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
‘लखनवी अंदाज’ पाठ के द्वारा लेखक ने पतनशील सामंती वर्ग पर व्यंग्य किया है। ऐसे लोगों के लिए जीवन की वास्तविकता से दूर रहकर कृत्रिमता को अपनाना बड़े ही गर्व की बात होती है। वास्तव में यह अनुचित है। खीरे की सुगन्ध मात्र से तृप्ति होना दिखावा ही है। इससे उनका सामंती होना नहीं, बल्कि पतनशीलता की ओर अग्रसर होना झलकता है।

(ग) हालदार साहब को पानवाले की कौन-सी बात अच्छी नहीं लगी और क्यों?
उत्तर:
हालदार साहब को पानवाले के द्वारा चश्मेवाले का मजाक उड़ाना अच्छा नहीं लगा, क्योंकि चश्मेवाला सम्मान का पात्र था। उसके मन में देशभक्तों के प्रति आदर और सम्मान का भाव था और इसी कारण वह नेताजी की मूर्ति पर चश्मा लगा देता था। शारीरिक रूप से अक्षम होते हुए भी वह देशभक्ति की भावना से ओत-प्रोत था, जबकि पानवाला सक्षम होते हुए भी इससे वंचित था।

(घ) वर्तमान समाज को ‘संस्कृत’ कहा जा सकता है या ‘सभ्य’? तर्क सहित बताइए।
उत्तर:
वर्तमान समाज को सभ्य कहा जा सकता है क्योंकि हमारे समाज में जो भी उन्नति हुई या हो रही है वे संब हमारे पूर्वजों के द्वारा किए गए आविष्कार और अनुसन्धान के कारण ही संभव हुई है। प्राचीन काल में आग या सुई धागे की खोज या गुरत्वाकर्षण के नियमों का ज्ञान आदि सब आविष्कार का ही परिणाम हैं। उसी के कारण आज हम नई-नई चीजें बना पाए हैं और लगातार उन्नति की ओर अग्रसर हो रहे हैं। अतः हम ‘सभ्य’ हैं ‘संस्कृत’ नहीं।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) ‘उत्साह’ कविता में कौन विकल और उन्मन थे और क्यों?
उत्तर:
‘उत्साह’ कविता में अधिक गर्मी से धरती तप्त थी। यहाँ के लोग गर्मी से विकल और अनमने थे क्योंकि यहाँ पर वर्षा नहीं हुई थी। उनका किसी काम में मन नहीं लग रहा था। वे शीतलता चाहते थे। ताप व गर्मी के कारण तप्त प्यासे जनमानस को बादलों का ही सहारा था।

(ख) जयशंकर प्रसाद के जीवन के कौनसे अनुभव उन्हें आत्मकथा लिखने से रोक रहे हैं?
उत्तर:
जयशंकर प्रसाद का मानना है कि अपने जीवन में उन्होंने कोई भी ऐसा महान कार्य नहीं किया जिसके बारे में पढ़कर लोग उनसे प्रेरणा ले सकें। अपने जीवन में घटित छल और कपट से भरे हुए व्यवहार के बारे में वे किसी को भी बताना नहीं चाहते। उन्हें लगता है कि उनके खाली जीवन को पढ़कर लोग उनकी हंसी उड़ायेंगे। उनके जीवन के ये अनुभव ही उन्हें आत्मकथा लिखने से रोक रहे हैं

(ग) गोपियों द्वारा उद्धव को भाग्यवान कहने में क्या व्यंग्य निहित है?
उत्तर:
गोपियों के अनुसार श्रीकृष्ण के समीप रहकर भी प्रेम के महत्त्व को न समझना उद्धव का दुर्भाग्य है, परन्तु वे अपने यहाँ पर आए हुए अतिथि के सम्मानवश उसे कटु वचन नहीं कहती हैं और व्यंग्यपूर्वक वे उसे उलाहना देती हैं। इस प्रकार भाग्यवान कहकर वे उद्धव को अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से भाग्यहीन कह रही हैं। गोपियों द्वारा उद्धव को भाग्यहीन कहने में यही व्यंग्य निहित है।

(घ) कवि नागार्जुन ने छोटे बच्चे की मुस्कान को देखकर क्या कल्पना की है?
उत्तर:
कवि ने छोटे बच्चे की मुस्कान को देखकर कल्पना की है कि उसकी मुस्कान मृतक प्राणी में भी जीवन का संचालन कर देती है। उसे देखकर पाषाण हृदय वाला व्यक्ति भी कठोरता का त्याग कर जल के समान कोमल और निर्मल बन जाता है

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में लिखिए। (4 × 2 = 8)
(क) जापान में अज्ञेय ने एक जले हुए पत्थर पर एक उजली छाया देखकर क्या सोचा?
उत्तर:
लेखक सच्चिदानन्दजी जापान यात्रा के समय हिरोशिमा भी गए थे। जहाँ पर विश्व युद्ध में अणु बम बरसाए गए थे। लेखक ने वहाँ के लोगों की त्रासदी को देखा। उसे अनुभव भी हुआ कि लोग रेडियम पदार्थ से किस प्रकार प्रभावित थे। पर अनुभव पर्याप्त नहीं होता, अनुभूति कहीं गहरी संवेदना होती है जो कल्पना के सहारे सत्य का भोग लेती है। तब लेखक ने अनुमान लगाया कि विस्फोट के समय कोई आदमी वहाँ खड़ा होगा और विस्फोट से बिखरे हुए रेडियमधर्मी पदार्थ की किरणें उसमें रुद्ध गयी होंगी, जिन्होंने आगे बढ़कर पत्थर को झुलसा दिया और आदमी को भाप बनाकर उड़ा दिया होगा।

(ख) गंतोक को ‘मेहनतकश बादशाहों का शहर’ क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर:
गंतोक एक ऐसा पर्वतीय प्रदेश है जिसे मेहनतकश लोगों ने अपनी मेहनत से अधिक सुन्दर और सुरम्य बना दिया है। वहाँ के निवासी बहुत ही परिश्रमी हैं। पुरुषों और महिलाओं के साथ-साथ वहाँ के बच्चे भी मेहनती हैं। विद्यालय से आकर वे भी अपनी माँ के साथ काम करते हैं इसलिए गंतोक को ‘मेहनतकश बादशाहों का शहर’ कहा गया है।

(ग) बच्चों द्वारा की गई कौन-सी शरारत उन्हें महँगी पड़ी? ‘माता का अंचल’ पाठ के आधार परलिखिए।
उत्तर:
एक दिन वर्षा के बाद भोलानाथ और उसके सभी साथी खेतों में खेलने के लिए चले गए। वहाँ उन्होंने चूहों के बिलों में पानी उलीचना शुरू कर दिया। चूहों को पानी के डर से बाहर आते देखकर वे सब बड़े ही खुश हो रहे थे। अचानक एक बिल में से चूहे के स्थान पर सांप निकल आता है। उसे देखकर सभी डर जाते हैं और वहाँ से सर पर पैर रखकर भागने लगते हैं। भागते-भागते कोई काँटेदार झाड़ियों में गिर रहा था तो किसी के सर पर चोट लगी, पर वे तो बस बेतहाशा भागने में लगे हुए थे। सबने घर पहुँचकर ही चैन की साँस ली।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत बिन्दुओं के आधार पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (6)
(क) बेरोजगारी

प्रस्तावना
बेरोजगारी का अर्थ
बेरोजगारी के कारण
दूर करने के उपाय

अथवा

(ख) दैव-दैव आलसी पुकारा

प्रस्तावना
आलस्य के दुष्प्रभाव
कर्म का महत्त्व

अथवा

(ग) दहेज प्रथा-समाज पर एक कलंक

प्रस्तावना
दहेज प्रथा का अर्थ
वृद्धि के कारण और समाधान

उत्तर:
(क) बेरोज़गारी
बेरोज़मारी का शाब्दिक अर्थ है-रोजगार न मिलना। जब कोई व्यक्ति अपनी क्षमतानुसार कार्य न मिलने पर कम वेतन पर अपनी क्षमता से अलग कार्य करने को तैयार हो और उसे तब भी कार्य नहीं मिले तो वह बेरोजगारी कहलाती है। बेरोजगारी समाज के लिए एक बहुत बड़े अभिशाप के समान है जिसे आसानी से दूर नहीं किया जा सकता। इसके कारण समाज में अपराध प्रवृत्ति को बढ़ावा मिलता है। जीविकोपार्जन हेतु लोग अनैतिक कृत्य करने से भी पीछे नहीं हटते। इससे समाज में अशान्ति फैलती है। बेरोज़गारी का प्रमुख कारण है-जनसंख्या में वृद्धि। जिस हिसाब से जनसंख्या बढ़ रही है, उस हिसाब से संसाधनों में वृद्धि नहीं हो रही है
और लोगों को पर्याप्त रोजगार उपलब्ध नहीं हो पा रहा है। हमारी शिक्षा प्रणाली भी इसके लिए जिम्मेदार है, क्योंकि इसमें व्यावहारिक ज्ञान की अपेक्षा सैद्धान्तिक ज्ञान पर अधिक बल दिया गया है, जिसके कारण व्यक्ति किताबी कीड़ा बनकर रह गया है। प्रशिक्षण के अभाव में व्यक्ति को उचित काम नहीं मिल पाता। इसके अतिरिक्त मशीनीकरण, आर्थिक मन्दी भी बेरोजगारी में वृद्धि के प्रमुख कारण हैं। बेरोज़गारी को दूर करने के लिए सबसे पहले जनसंख्या पर नियंत्रण करना होगा और इसके लिए लोगों को जागरूक करना होगा। लघु उद्योगों का विकास करके भी इस समस्या से काफी हद तक निजात पा सकते हैं। युवकों को प्रशिक्षित किया जाए और उन्हें रोजगार के अवसर प्रदान किए जायें।

अथवा

(ख) दैव-दैव आलसी पुकारा
‘दैव-दैव आलसी पुकारा’ अर्थात् आलसी व्यक्ति ही भाग्य को पुकारता रहता है और संघर्ष करना नहीं चाहता, उसकी सारी इच्छाएँ दिवास्वप्न की भाँति होती हैं, जिन्हें पाने के लिए वह बिल्कुल भी प्रयास नहीं करता। इसके विपरीत कर्मशील व्यक्ति अपना भाग्य स्वयं लिखते हैं। अजगर करे न चाकरी, पंछी करे न काम। दास मलूका कह गए, सबके दाता राम।। सन्त मलूका ने भी आलस्य का उपहास किया है।

आलसी व्यक्ति को समाज में कहीं भी सम्मान नहीं मिलता, क्योंकि वह अपने सभी काम भाग्य के भरोसे छोड़ देता है। आलस्य अवगुणों की खान है। आलसी व्यक्ति के अन्दर ईर्ष्या, उदासीनता और निराशा घर कर जाती है और वह विद्या तथा ज्ञान से कोसों दूर हो जाता है। भाग्यवादी मनुष्य शेखचिल्ली की भाँति कल्पनाएँ करता रहता है। इस प्रकार के मनुष्य सदैव भाग्य का रोना ही रोते रहते हैं और समय को खो देते हैं। कर्मवीर लाख कठिनाइयों के वाबजूद कभी संघर्ष के मार्ग को नहीं छोड़ते हैं। उनका एकमात्र लक्ष्य जीवन-पथ पर सतत् चलते रहना है। सच्चा कर्मवीर तो फल की चिन्ता किए बिना अपने कर्त्तव्य-पथ पर सदा आगे बढ़ने का प्रयास करता रहता है। ऐसे व्यक्ति के जीवन में आलस्य, निराशा आदि के लिए कोई स्थान नहीं होता। नेपोलियन, महाराजा रणजीतसिंह, रानी लक्ष्मीबाई, वीर शिवाजी आदि अपने पुरुषार्थ के ही कारण विश्व-प्रसिद्ध हैं। सारांशतः पुरुषार्थ की दिशा जितनी सही होगी, पुरुष उतना ही उन्नत होगा। भाग्यवादी मनुष्य केवल कायरता का ही प्रदर्शन करता है। इस प्रकार का मनुष्य निष्क्रिय रहता हुआ पतन के गर्त में चला जाता है। आलस्य जीवित व्यक्ति की कब्र है इसलिए कर्मशील बनो।

अथवा

(ग) दहेज प्रथा-समाज पर एक कलंक
एक समय था जब दहेज प्रथा एक सात्विक प्रथा थी और इसे शुभ-शगुन के रूप में माना जाता था, परन्तु समय के बदलाव के साथ आज यही परम्परा समाज के लिए किसी अभिशाप से कम नहीं है। आज दहेज के कारण ऐसी-ऐसी अप्रत्याशित घटनाएँ प्रतिदिन अखबार में पढ़ने को मिलती हैं, जिनसे सम्पूर्ण मानवता का सिर शर्म से झुक जाता है। दहेज का अर्थ उस वस्तु या सम्पत्ति से है जो विवाह के समय वर-पक्ष को वधू-पक्ष की ओर से स्वेच्छा से दिया जाता है, परन्तु आज इसका अर्थ नितान्त भिन्न है। आज वर-पक्ष के लोग दहेज से अपने रहन-सहन का स्तर नापते हैं। आज हमारे समाज में दहेज एक ऐसी झूठी प्रतिष्ठा का प्रतीक बन गयी है जिसे बनाए रखने के लिए वधू-पक्ष वाले विवाह से पूर्व वर-पक्ष की शर्तों के शिकंजे में फंसे रहते हैं। प्रत्येक परिवार यही चाहता है कि उसकी बेटी का सम्बन्ध सम्पन्न परिवार में हो, इसलिए धीरे-धीरे दहेज की माँग बढ़ने लगी। अधिकांश वर-पक्ष वाले वधू-पक्ष की इस कमजोरी का फायदा उठाते हैं। इस प्रकार दहेज प्रथा सुरसा के समान मुँह खोले खड़ी हुई है। दहेज प्रथा को दूर करने के लिए आज के युवा वर्ग को आगे आना होगा और लोगों को जागरूक करना होगा। नारी को जागरूक कर इस समस्या से निजात पायी जा सकती है। आज ज़रूरी है कि इस कुप्रथा को हटाने के लिए युवा वर्ग आगे आए। स्त्रियों को शिक्षित किया जाए, जिससे वे अपने साथ होने वाले अत्याचारों का सामना करने में सफल हो सकें और दहेज जैसी
कुप्रथा को रोक सकें।

प्रश्न 15.
चरित्र प्रमाण-पत्र लेने हेतु प्रधानाचार्य को प्रार्थना पत्र लिखिए। (5)
अथवा
अपने क्षेत्र के विद्युत अधिकारी को अपने मोहल्ले में हो रही बिजली की परेशानी से अवगत कराते हुए प्रार्थना पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर:
प्रधानाचार्य महोदय,
क ख ग विद्यालय
शास्त्रीनगर, नई दिल्ली।
विषय-चरित्र प्रमाण-पत्र लेने हेतु प्रार्थना-पत्र।
महोदय,
नम्र निवेदन है कि मैंने इस वर्ष आपके विद्यालय से दसर्वी की परीक्षा उत्तीर्ण की है। मेरे पिताजी का स्थानान्तरण अजमेर शहर में हो गया है। मेरा पूरा परिवार वहीं जा रहा है। वहाँ ग्यारहवीं कक्षा में प्रवेश लेने के लिए मुझे चरित्र प्रमाण-पत्र की आवश्यकता है। अतः आपसे निवेदन है कि आप मुझे चरित्र प्रमाण-पत्र देने की कृपा करें। इसमें मेरी शैक्षिक उपलब्धियों के साथ-साथ खेल सह-शैक्षिक गतिविधियों का भी उल्लेख करने की कृपा करें। धन्यवाद सहित।
आपका आज्ञाकारी शिष्य
अ ब स
दिनांक……………
अथवा
ब 4, महेश नगर
जोधपुर।
दिनांक…………….
विद्युत अधिकारी,
आर. एस. ई. बी.
महेश नगर, जोधपुर।
विषय-बिजली की समस्या से अवगत कराने हेतु पत्र।
महोदय,
मैं आपके क्षेत्र का निवासी हूँ। इस पत्र के माध्यम से मैं आपका ध्यान अपने क्षेत्र में होने वाली बिजली की अनियमितता की ओर दिलाना चाहता हूँ। हमारे यहाँ बिजली कई-कई घण्टे गायब रहती है, इसलिए रात में अधिकतर लोगों को अनेक कठिनाइयों का सामना करना पड़ता है। गर्मी के बढ़ने के कारण हालात और भी खराब हो रहे हैं। इसका सबसे बुरा असर विद्यार्थियों की पढ़ाई पर पड़ रहा है और मरीजों की तकलीफ़ बढ़ रही है।
आशा है आप इस ओर उचित कदम उठायेंगे।
धन्यवाद सहित।
भवदीय,
अ ब स।

प्रश्न 16.
बिजली विभाग में इंजीनियर का पद रिक्त है। इस हेतु लगभग 80 शब्दों में एक स्ववृत्त तैयार कीजिये। (5)
अथवा
आपके विद्यालय में पर्यावरण सुरक्षा सप्ताह मनाया जा रहा है। इस अवसर पर पर्यावरण मंत्री को आमंत्रित करने हेतु ई मेल लिखिए।
उत्तर:
सेवा में
प्रबंधक महोदय
बिजली विभाग,
जयपुर।
विषय-इंजीनियर पद के लिए आवेदन पत्र।
महोदय
दिनांक 3 जनवरी 20XX के नवभारत टाइम्स में प्रकाशित विज्ञापन के माध्यम से ज्ञात हुआ कि आपके बिजली विभाग में इंजीनियर का पद रिक्त है। इस पद हेतु मैं अपना आवेदन प्रस्तुत कर रहा हूँ। इस पद हेतु सभी योग्यताओं को मैं पूरा करता हूँ। मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण इस प्रकार है
अतः श्रीमान से निवेदन है कि मुझे उचित पद पर नियुक्त करने की कृपा करें।
धन्यवाद
निवेदक
सौम्य कुमार
बड़ा बाजार
कुरुक्षेत्र
5 जनवरी 20XX
मेरा स्ववृत्त आवेदन पत्र के साथ संलग्न है।

स्ववृत्त
नाम : सौम्य कुमार
पिता का नाम : ओजस्व कुमार
माता का नाम : सुगंधा कुमार
जन्मतिथि : 06 अगस्त, 1994
वर्तमान पता : 3, गांधीनगर
मोबाइल : 23X0000546
ईमेल : [email protected]

शैक्षणिक योग्यता

अन्य योग्यताएँ व अनुभव

कंप्यूटर में 1 वर्ष का डिप्लोमा
हिंदी, अंग्रेजी भाषा की जानकारी।

उपलब्धियाँ

विद्यालय स्तर पर लेखन प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार।
राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर निबंध प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम पुरस्कार

कार्येत्तर गतिविधियाँ और अभिरुचियाँ :
हिंदी लेखन में विशेष रुचि।
हस्ताक्षर
सौम्य कुमार
दिनांक : X/XX/XXXX
अथवा
आपके विद्यालय में पर्यावरण सुरक्षा सप्ताह मनाया जा रहा है। इस अवसर पर पर्यावरण मंत्री को आमंत्रित करने हेतु ई मेल लिखिए।

From : [email protected]
To : [email protected]
Cc: ……
Bcc : ….
विषय-मंत्री जी को आमंत्रित करने हेतु
महोदय
निवेदन है कि हमारे विद्यालय में पर्यावरण सुरक्षा सप्ताह मनाया जा रहा है। इस अवसर पर विद्यालय की एक टीम सड़क के किनारे-किनारे हरे-भरे पेड़ लगा रही है। मैं आपसे निवेदन करता हूँ कि आप इस सुअवसर पर पधार कर हमें कृतार्थ करें।
आशा करता हूँ कि आप उचित समय पर विद्यालय में पधार कर विद्यार्थियों का उत्साह वर्धन करेंगे।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय
सूर्यांश गुप्ता

प्रश्न 17.
अपने विद्यालय में होने वाले सांस्कृतिक कार्यक्रम के लिए लगभग 60 शब्दों में एक आकर्षक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (4)
अथवा
आपकी कंपनी के मैनेजर की माताजी की मृत्यु के अवसर पर लगभग 80 शब्दों में एक शोक सन्देश लिखिए।
उत्तर:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 6 with Solutions

October 28, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 6 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
Alt questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION – A (20 Marks)
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20)

Question 1.
The chambers are shown to have contracted using arrows in the figure.

Identify the phase of circulation that is depicted in the following heart diagram.
(a) Blood is pumped into several organs at once and transferred to the lungs for oxygenation.
(b) Various body organs receive blood from the lungs after it has been oxygenated.
(c) Blood flowed simultaneously to the left and right auricles.
(d) Blood is simultaneously pumped into the right and left ventricles. (1)
Answer:
(a) Blood is pumped into several organs at once and transferred to the lungs for oxygenation.

Explanation: In the figure, ventricular systole is visible. Blood is simultaneously pumped into numerous organs and transported to the lungs to be oxygenated through ventricular contraction.

Question 2.
The lactic acid concentration in blood of a student during a sport’s day race, with point D showing the peak is depicted in the graph.

While competing in the race during sport’s day, the student started producing lactic acid. Which of the subsequent processes best describes this incident?
(a) Breathing
(b) Aerobic respiration
(c) Anaerobic respiration
(d) Fermentation (1)
Answer:
(c) Anaerobic respiration

Explanation: Our muscle cells’ ability to break down pyruvate occasionally shifts to another pathway when there is insufficient oxygen present. Here, the pyruvate is changed into the three-carbon molecule lactic acid. Cramps are brought on by the accumulation of lactic acid in our muscles during intense exercise. When we perform challenging tasks, such as long distance running or intense exercise, this anaerobic respiration frequently occurs in our muscle cells.

Question 3.
Take 4g of Ba(OH)₂, add 3g of NH₄Cl, and stir the mixture with a glass rod in a test tube. Now reach out and touch the test tube. When you touch the test tube, how do you feel?
(a) The bottom of test tube is found to be cooler.
(b) The bottom of test tube is found to be hotter.
(c) The bottom of test tube is neither cool nor hot.
(d) The bottom of test tube is found to be cooler for some time and then it becomes extremely hot.
Answer:
(a) The bottom of test tube is found to be cooler

Explanation: The bottom of the test tube is found to be cooler when barium hydroxide is added to ammonium chloride because this reaction is endothermic.

Question 4.
Prism ABC is positioned in various directions with BC serving as its base. As depicted in the figures provided below, a narrow beam of white light is incident on the prism. Which of the following situations, after dispersion, has the third colour from the top match the sky’s colour? (1)

Answer:

Explanation: The third colour from the top in the prism, when it is positioned with angle A upward, is yellow. However, the third colour from the top that we were given is blue (colour of the sky). As a result, base BC must be on top, meaning the prism must be turned upside down.

Question 5.
The path of a light beam passing through a glass prism is depicted in the diagram below:

In this diagram, the angles of incidence, emergence, and deviation are, respectively: (1)
(a) X, Q and P
(b) Y, Q and T
(c) X, R and T
(d) Y, Q and P
Answer:
(d) Y, Q and P

Explanation: Incident angle or angle Y in this case, is the angle formed by the incident ray with the normal to the first face of the prism. Emergent angle or angle Q in this case, is the angle that the emergent ray makes with the normal to the surface when it exits the prism following refraction. Angle of deviation, or angle P in this case, is the angle formed by the incident and emergent rays.

Question 6.
A student compiled formulae and common names for various substances, but he neglected to record which formula corresponds to which compound. Some formulae were correct but some were incorrect as in the following table: (1)

S. No.	Compound	Formula
(I)	Slaked lime	NaOH
(II)	Caustic soda	Ca(OH)₂
(III)	Lime	CaO
(IV)	Baking soda	NaHCO₃

Identify the option which shows incorrect matches:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) (I) and (II)

Explanation: The correct formula of the compounds are:
Slaked lime- Ca(OH)₂
Caustic soda-NaOH
Baking soda- NaHCO₃
Lime-CaO.

Question 7.
Consider the following cross between peas plants showing self-pollination in F₁ generation:

The seeds produced in F₁ generation are:(1)
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
Answer:
(a) round and yellow

Explanation: Round and Yellow seeds (RrYy) are produced in FI offspring as a result of the cross between round green seeded pea plants (RRyy) and wrinkled yellow seeded pea plants (rrYY).

Related Theory
This demonstrates that round seeds and yellow cotyledons are dominant traits over wrinkled and green, respectively.

Question 8.
Which of the following figure is correctly drawn? (1)

Select the correct option:
(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are incorrect
Answer:
(b)(ll)

Explanation: The correct figure showing the different colours on the white screen is:

Question 9.
Identify the correct labelling for part labelled ‘R’ and ‘S’. (1)

	R	S
(a)	Ovary	Pollen
(b)	Ovary	Female germ cell
(c)	Ovule	Male germ cell
(d)	Ovule	Pollen

Answer:
(b) R: Ovary; S: Female germ cell

Explanation: The part labelled as ‘R’ and ‘S’ is ovary and female germ cell respectively. Once the pollen begins to grow, it travels through the cells of the style to the ovary, where it fertilises the female gamete.

Question 10.
Identify X and Y in the given reaction: (1)

	X	Y
(a)	6	6
(b)	3	6
(c)	6	3
(d)	3	3

Answer:
(c) X:6; Y:3

Explanation: X = 6, Y = 3. Glucose is a 6-carbon molecule and pyruvate is a 3-carbon molecule.

Question 11.
Refrigeration of food materials is done to prevent a phenomenon. Identify the change which can be observed during this phenomenon. (1)
(a) Flavour changes
(b) Aroma changes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) No change occurs
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation: Refrigeration of food materials is done to prevent rancidity. Rancidity is a process that causes food materials that contain fats and oils to alter their flavour and odour. Air, fats and oils interact to produce rancidity, which alters the flavour and aroma of food.

Question 12.
Take a look at the figures below.

Which of the above figure is correct? (1)
(a) Figure A
(b) Figure B
(c) Figure A and B
(d) Both are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Figure A

Explanation: The greatest number of people exist at the producer level in an ecosystem. Each level after that sees a decrease in this number. As a result, it has a pyramidal shape with a wider base and a tapered peak. 10% of the food is typically converted into body mass and made available to the following tier of consumers.

Question 13.
Examine the illustration of the pollen-pistil interaction provided below:

The name and number of the structure produced by Part ‘Q’: (1)
(a) Male gamete, two
(b) Female gamete, one
(c) Male gamete, one
(d) Female gamete, two
Answer:
(a) Male gamete, two

Explanation: Part labelled as ‘Q’ is pollen grain. Two male gametes are produced from each pollen grain.

Question 14.
Calcium reacts with water and begin to float. Identify the balanced chemical equation of the reaction. (1)
(a) Ca + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂
(b) Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂
(c) 2Ca + 2H₂O → 2Ca(OH)₂ + 2H₂
(d) 2Ca + H₂O → 2Ca(OH)₂ + H₂
Answer:
(b) Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂

Explanation: Cold water and calcium react to produce calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The balanced chemical equation of the reaction is:

Question 15.
The most likely cause of pollen grain ‘A”s failure to germinate in the given diagram of the carpel of an insect pollinated flower is: (1)

(a) Pollen grains ‘B’ and ‘C’ were carried to the flower by insects, whereas pollen grain ‘A’ was carried to the flower by the wind.
(b) A flower of an incompatible species produced pollen grain ‘A’.
(c) Pollen grain ‘A’ lacks protrusions necessary for proper adhesion to the stigma surface.
(d) Because pollen grains ‘B’ and ‘C’ arrived at the stigma first, their germination prevented pollen grain A from germinating.
Answer:
(b) A flower of an incompatible species produced pollen grain A’.

Explanation: Only when the pollen grain and stigma are compatible, that is, belong to the same or close relatives of species, can pollen grains begin to develop. A compatible species must have produced pollen grains ‘B’ and ‘C’. Pollen tubes are created when only compatible pollen grains germinate.

Question 16.
Two elements and are given. Which of them is a non-metal? (1)
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) Both P and Q
(d) Both are metals
Answer:
(b) Q

Explanation: Based on the atomic number, the electronic configurations of the elements P and Q are:

Non-metals usually have 5 to 7 electrons in their outermost shell. Therefore, element 919Q is a non-metal.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): C_nH_2n+2 corresponds to general formula of alkanes.
Reason (R): Alkenes are unsaturated but this series is saturated series. (1)
Answer:
(c) A true but R is false

Explanation: C_nH_2n+2 corresponds to general formula of alkanes. Since, alkenes are unsaturated so this series is saturated series. A series of compounds with the same functional group is called a homologous series. Both their physical and chemical characteristics are similar. The general formula for compounds in the same homologous series is the same.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Tigers have a shorter small intestine whereas deers hows a longer small intestine.
Reason (R): The length of the small intestine depends on the type of food the animals eat. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: Tigers have a shorter small intestine as meat is easier to digest. Dears hane a longer small intestine to allow cellulose from the plants to be digested. We know that deers are herbivorous whereas tigers are carnivorous animals.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): Electrons move when current flows in the same direction to that of the current flow.
Reason (R): When electrons collide while travelling, heat is produced. (1)
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true

Explanation: Electrons move when current flows in the opposite direction to that of the current flow. When electrons collide while travelling, heat is produced. The resistance of each determines how much heat is produced. In the case of a series connection, the current had the same magnitude entering and leaving the resistors.

Question 20.
Assertion (A): Pollen Grain begins to shrink and develop in to a pollen tube.
Reason (R): Pollen tube reaches the ovule through the micropyle. (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false
Explanation: The pollen grain begins to swell and develop into a pollen tube. The pollen tube develops into the style before passing through the micropyle to reach the ovule.The two male gametes that were locked inside the embryo sac are released when the pollen tube reaches it. The male gamete then fuses with the female game embryo sac.

SECTION – B (12 Marks)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 21.
In a specific area, what kind of magnetic field lines are found. Create a diagram to symbolise. (2)
Answer:
The parallel, equally spaced, lines of equal length are used to represent the uniform magnetic field as follows:

Question 22.
Aluminum, magnesium, and sodium oxides cannot be converted to their corresponding metals by carbon. Why? In the reactivity series, where are these metals located? How do these metals get their ores into metals? (2)
Answer:
As these elements are positioned above carbon in the reactivity series, sodium, magnesium, and aluminium are all considered to be more reactive than carbon.

As a result of its lower natural reactivity, carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium, and aluminium.
The electroLytic reduction (Electrolysis) method is used to remove highly reactive metals from their ores, including sodium, magnesium, and aluminium.

Question 23.
A student held a mirror in his hand and pointed the mirror’s reflective surface towards the sun. Then, holding a piece of paper close to the mirror, he directed the reflected light there. Will this activity enable him to calculate the mirror’s approximate focal length? Give an explanation and a ray diagram to support your response in this situation.
OR
To illustrate refraction through a rectangular glass slab, create a ray diagram. How are incident and emergent rays related? (2)
Answer:
By measuring the distance between the paper and the mirror, the student can determine the approximate focal length

The adjacent figure displays a ray diagram illustrating refraction through a rectangular glass slab.

According to figure, parallel sunrays are focused on the paper at point A’ in the mirror’s focal plane so that PB’ = f.

Question 24.
(A) When a mature Spirogyra filament reaches a significant length, what happens?
(B) What are the names of the organisms that have both sex organs in the same individual? Name one such organism as an example.
OR
(A) Give an explanation of why a more complex organism cannot produce new life through the process of regeneration.
(B) What distinguishes a unisexual flower from a bisexual flower? (2)
Answer:
(A) Spirogyra’s mature, elongated filament breaks into smaller pieces or fragments. The fragments develop into fully developed filaments.
(B) Hermaphrodites or bisexuals, such as Mustard and Hydra.
OR
(A) Complex organisms like humans, birds, lizards, and others do not experience it. Regeneration in this case is restricted to minor part repair or regeneration. It’s because complex animals have highly differentiated tissues and organs.
(B) A bisexual flower has both types of reproductive organs, whereas a unisexual flower only has one type, either stamens (the staminate or male flower) or pistils (the pistillate or female flower).

Question 25.
The electron arrangement in a compound made up of element “R” and fluorine is depicted in the figure.

(A) Write chemical formula of this compound.
(B) Is this an ionic or covalent compound? Give reason. (2)
Answer:
(A) RF₄
(B) It is a covalent compound. The molecule RF₄ is formed when an atom ‘R’ shares four pairs of electrons with four fluorine atoms, as depicted in the figure. Covalent compounds have the property of sharing electrons.

Question 26.
Find the resistance between points A and B in the circuit diagram given below: (2)

Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four resistors shown in the figure.

Answer:

R₂, R₃, R₄ are in series and have resultant resistance R’
R₁ = 6Ω
R’ is in parallel combination with Ri. Resultant resistance of the circuit (R)

Resistance R = 3Ω.

Resultant resistance of R₁, R₂ and R₃: R’ = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30Ω.
Resultant resistance of the circuit R:

SECTION – C (21Marks)
(Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.)

Question 27.
Without muscle cells, how do plant cells demonstrate movement? Name the movement that plant cells exhibit under these circumstances as well. (3)
Answer:
Plants move either statically or tidally in the absence of muscle cells. Changes in the water content of a plant’s cells allow for nastic movement. The nastic movement is carried out by the petiole of the Leaves. The action of various hormones in the plants causes the tropic movement.

(i) The hormone auxin causes phototropism.
(ii) The abscisic acid hormone causes leaves to wilt.
(iii) By using cytokinin, the fruits and seeds grow.

The movement that plant cells exhibit under these circumstances is termed as nastic movement

Question 28.
Explain the following:
(A) NaCl does not conduct electricity when it is solid, but it does so when it is molten or in an aqueous solution. Explain.
(B) When dipped in HNO₃, reactivity of aluminium decreases.
(C) In nature, metals like Na, Ca, and Mg are never found in their free state.
Answer:
(A) An ionic compound with sodium and chloride ions in its structure is sodium chloride. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity when they are solid, but they do so when they are dissolved in water or molten. So, sodium chloride exhibits this property.

(B) Nitric acid is used to coat aluminium, causing aluminium oxide to form on the metal. Nitric acid is a potent oxidising agent, which causes this to occur. Aluminum’s further reaction is stopped by the layer of aluminium oxide. The result is a decrease in aluminum’s reactivity.

(C) Metals like sodium, calcium, and magnesium are extremely reactive and never occur in nature in their free state because they react with oxygen even at room temperature.

Question 29.
According to the instructions, help Riya to fill out the following flow chart. (3)

Answer:
P – Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
Q – Protein digesting enzyme pepsin R- Mucus
S – HCl makes medium acidic for the activation of an enzyme pepsin.
T – Pepsin acts in acidic medium which breaks down proteins into peptones.
U – Mucus protects the inner lining of stomach from corroding action of HCl.

Question 30.
Define spectrum. Why do various coloured rays diverge in different ways when they pass through a glass prism?
OR
(A) Create a diagram to demonstrate how a myopic eye forms an image of a distant object. How can such an eye defect be remedied?
(B) It is suggested that one wears glasses with convex lenses. What kind of vision impairment does he have? (3)
Answer:
Spectrum: A band of seven colours is created on a white screen when a beam of white light passes through a prism. This is referred to as the white light spectrum. When white light passes through a glass prism, different components of it are refracted or bent at different angles, which causes the white light to disperse. The seven-colored band, or spectrum, is created when white light is made up of seven colours and falls on a prism. Each colour is refracted or deviated by a different angle as a result.

By using a concave lens with the right focal length, myopia can be treated.
(B) Hypermetropia.

Question 31.
Sunita wrote the chemical formula for an organic acid, ‘X,’ as C₂H₄O₂. It is a liquid that frequently freezes during the winter in cold countries. When she warmed it with ethanol while adding a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid results in the formation of the sweet-smelling compound ‘Y’.
(A) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Draw their structure.
(B) Create a chemical equation to describe the reaction.
OR
(A) Why the methane-chlorine reaction is deemed a substitution reaction when sunlight is present?
(B) Give reason for the following observations:
(i) The use of synthetic detergents contaminates the water.
(ii) When the heated vessels turn black from the flame, the air holes of a gas burner must be adjusted. (3)
Answer:
(A) The organic acid, X, which often freezes in the winters in cold countries, is ethanoic acid.
The structural formula is given below:

When ethanoic acid is warmed with methanol in the presence of a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid, the compound Y with sweet fragrance is formed. This compound is called methyl ethanoate,
The structural formula is given below:

(B) The chemical equation of the reaction is given below:

(A) Chloromethane and hydrogen chloride are form when methane and chlorine react in the presence of sunlight. Here, a chlorine atom replaces one of the hydrogen atoms in methane. Thus it is a substitution reaction.

(B)
(i) In general, synthetic detergents are not biodegradable, meaning that bacteria cannot break them down. Consequently, the use of synthetic detergents pollutes Lakes and rivers.

(ii) Gas burner air holes need to be adjusted because blackening of the vessel indicates that the gas stove’s air holes are becoming blocked, which prevents the fuel from burning completely due to lack of oxygen

Question 32.
Illustrate four possible circuit connections for four resistors with r ohm each. When is the combination’s equivalent resistance: (3)
(A) maximum
(B) minimum
Answer:
Four possible circuit connections for four resistors with r ohm each are as following:

Resultant resistance, R =r+r+r+r, R

Resistance (AB) = R₁ = r + r = 2r
Resistance (PQ) = R₂ = r + r = 2r
Resultant, R = ?

(A) Maximum resistance = Case (i) where all the resistors are combined in series.
(B) Minimum resistance = Case (ii) where all the resistors are combined in parallel combination.

Question 33.
Identify part P, Q, R and S in the figure given below: (3)

What name is given to the series of events depicted in the figure? Explain.
Answer:

The name given to the series of events depicted in the figure is reflex action. The reflex arc is the path taken by the nerve impulses involved in a reflex action. A stimulus is first detected by skin-based receptors, which then send an impulse carrying the stimulus to the spinal cord. The motor neurons receive the impulse from the spinal cord after it has processed the stimulus. The effectors, or muscles, are stimulated by the motor neurons to react to the stimulus.

SECTION – D (15 Marks)
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.)

Question 34.
(A) A species variations do not all have the same chances of surviving. Why?
(B) Breeding pea plants with violet flowers and pea plants with white flowers was done as a Mendelian experiment. What will happen to the F₁ progeny?
(C) When a tall pea plant crosses with a short pea plant, why are the offspring always tall? Also show its cross. (5)
Anwer:
(A) The chances of each variation surviving in their natural environment are not equal. Different people would benefit in different ways depending on the types of variations. The organisms that are best suited to their surroundings will endure.

(B) According to the Mendelian experiment, violet colour (W) is dominant and white colour (WW) is recessive trait. Consequently, the F₁ progeny’s flower will be violet in colour (Vw).

(C) Only tall plants are produced in the F₁ progeny when a tall plant (TT) crosses with a short pea plant (tt). This is due to the fact that only one of two contrasting traits is present in the first generation’s offspring. Accordingly, the trait that manifests in the Fi generation is dominant, whereas the trait that does not manifest is recessive. All of the plants are tall because the character TT for tall plant is dominant.

Question 35.
Draw lines encircling a magnet (as shown in the figure) in the magnetic field.

Indicate one point where the uniform and non-uniform magnetic fields differ.
(B) The uniform magnetic field is perpendicular to a current-carrying conductor. What happens to the conductor’s displacement:
(i) if the current becomes stronger
(ii) a weak horseshoe magnet is used in its place ?
(C) Think about a wire loop that is lying in a circle on the table. Allow the current to move clockwise around the loop. To determine the magnetic field’s direction both inside and outside the loop, use the right-hand rule.
OR
(A) How often do electrical short circuits happen?
(B) Why are live and neutral pins thinner and shorter than earth pins?
(C) In the east-west direction, a straight conductor carrying current is positioned. What will be the direction of the force this conductor feels from the magnetic field of the earth? What effects will this force have when:
(i) changing the flow of the current’s direction
(ii) increasing the current’s strength? (5)
Answer:

The term “uniform magnetic field” refers to an area or space with a consistent magnetic field throughout. Non-uniform magnetic field is the term used to describe the magnetic field that is different in strength and direction at every location in space.

(B) When the current is increased, the displacement of the conductor (i) will rise, and (ii) wilL fall when a weak horse shoe magnet is used.

(C) According to the right-hand rule, we discover that the magnetic field lines are pointed inward and perpendicular to the plane of the paper inside the loop. Magnetic field lines that are directed away from the loop are coming from the paper’s plane.

(A) Live wire and neutral wire may come into direct contact if either the insulation of the wires used in an electric circuit is damaged or if there is a problem with the appliances. As a result, the circuit experiences short circuiting and an abrupt rise in current.

(B) Earth pin is thicker to prevent insertion into the live or neutral sockets. It is lengthened so that it can make contact with the earth terminal before the live and neutral pins do. This guarantees the user’s security.

(C) The earth’s magnetic field is oriented from 0-north to U-south. Suppose the current is going east to west. Force is therefore directed vertically upward.
(i) The direction of will be reversed – vertically downwards – by changing the direction of the current.
(ii) The force’s strength is doubled.

Question 36.
Rakesh performed an experiment to produce HCl gas.
(A) Make a labelled diagram to demonstrate how hydrogen chloride gas is made in a laboratory.
(B) Use dry and then wet litmus paper to test the gas that has evolved. Which of the two scenarios results in a colour change on the litmus paper?
(C) Explain why dry HCl gas or HCl solution exhibits an acidic character.
OR
(A) What happens to the egg shells when nitric acid is added? Write the chemical equation involved.
(B) In two different beakers, a student made solutions of
(i) an acid and
(ii) a base.
She neglected to label the solutions, and the lab was lacking in litmus paper. How will she tell one solution from the other when they are both colourless? (5)
Answer:

(B) Blue litmus paper that is “dry” stays the same coLour, but blue litmus paper that is “moist” turns red when it comes in contact with the test tube mouth. This demonstrates that HCl gas behaves acidically in the presence of water but not in the absence of water.

(C) Hydrochloric acid solution, or HCl_+(aq), is created when HCl gas dissolves in water. This solution then produces H⁺_(aq) or H₃O_+(aq) ions.
HCl + H₂O → H₃O⁺ + Cl⁺
The H⁺ or H₃O⁺ present causes it to behave acidically.
OR
(A) Calcium carbonate is present in egg shells. Nitric acid and calcium carbonate react to produce calcium nitrate and carbon dioxide gas.
CaCO_3(s) + HNO_3(aq) —> CaNO_3(aq) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l)

(B) To determine which beaker contain acid and which contains base, we can use phenolphthalein. In basic solutions,
phenolphthalein turns pink instead of colourless.

In addition, we can use other organic indicators like turmeric or China rose. An organic indicator is turmeric. It is coloured yellow.

While turmeric paper does not change colour when exposed to acid, it does turn red when submerged in a basic solution. Another natural indicator is the China rose. With acid, China rose solution produces a dark pink (magenta) colour, and with base, a green colour.

SECTION – E (12 Marks)
(Q.no. 37 to 39 are case – based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub – parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)

Question 37.
To survive, yeast requires three things: food, warmth, and moisture. In the presence of warmth and moisture, yeast ferments the sugar and starch in its food to produce carbon dioxide and ethanol. The bread rises due to carbon dioxide. In this recipe, the ingredients that dry yeast loves the most – flour, milk, sugar, and melted butter – are actively mixed together. The process of kneading is crucial to making bread. It helps the dough develop gluten, which is essential for the elastic texture of bread. But this dish is unique. Because of how much the proteins are broken down, even small actions can produce gluten. (4)
(A) Energy is released as heat during the baking of bread. Exothermic reactions are what are known as such reactions. What happens in an exothermic reaction?
(B) ‘Exothermic reactions occur much faster than endothermic ones.’ Justify the statement.
OR
(B) Which of the following reactions is exothermic?

Answer:
(A) Exothermic refers to chemical reactions that release energy. When bonds are formed in the products of exothermic reactions, more energy is released than is required to break the bonds between the reactants. The temperature of the reaction mixture rises as a result of exothermic reactions.

(B) Exothermic, reactions are regarded as being more rapid than endothermic ones. This is primarily due to the instantaneous or spontaneous nature of the reactions in the exothermic process. In this case, no energy input is necessary to get past any significant energy obstacles. Contrarily, in the case of endothermic reactions, we need some kind of energy (typically heat) to get past an energy barrier even before the process itself begins. Exothermic reactions therefore happen much more quickly than endothermic ones.

(B) Reaction (I) and (III) are exothermic. Reaction (I): Heat is produced as a result, of the reaction, as evidenced by the heat symbol (A) at the side of the products. As a result, the reaction is exothermic because heat is being released.

Reaction (III): Three products are formed during the decomposition of 2Pb(NO₃)₂– Decomposition reactions always occur by gaining energy. Thus it is exothermic reaction.

Caution
Students should note that decomposition reactions almost always move forward by gaining energy. This is due to the fact that bond breaking requires some energy. Therefore, any illustration of a decomposition reaction also constitutes an exothermic reaction.

Question 38.
For the majority of species to survive, food chains are crucial. In some cases, the extinction of a species can happen when just one component of the food chain is eliminated. (4)

(A) What limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(B) If Ravi is consuming curd and yogurt for lunch, which trophic level in a food chain he should be considered as occupying?
(C) The decomposers are not included in the food chain. What is the reason for the same ?
If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?
OR
(C) Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. How is the movement of energy and matter ? Give reason.
Answer:
(A) Decrease in energy at higher trophic level limits the number of trophic Levels in a food chain Related Theory As per the 10% law of energy transfer, only 10% of energy assimilated by an organism of a particular trophic is transferred to the next trophic level. Therefore, energy keeps on decreasing from primary to secondary level.

(B) Ravi is a primary consumers and primary consumer occupy, the second trophic level.

(C) Decomposers are not included in the food chain because they do not directly interact with any organisms.
Green plants in a terestical ecosystem convert 1% of the total solar energy falling on it into food = 1% of 10,000 = 100 J.

(C) Movement of energy is unidirectional and of matter is repeatedly circulating. The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional because the energy lost as heat from the living orgasim of food chain cannot be used by plants in photosynthesis.

Question 39.
The path of light is altered when it moves from one transparent medium to another. This phenomenon is known as light refraction. The optical density of the medium that the light passes through determines how the light will bend.

From medium to medium, light travels at varying speeds. A medium with a higher speed of light is optically rarer, whereas a medium with a lower speed of light is optically denser. When light travels from one medium to another, its frequency does not alter; instead, its speed and wavelength do. It came to the conclusion that the primary cause of refraction is a change in light speed. (4)
(A) How do light rays bend in one of the following ways when they pass through glass from air ?
(B) What happens to the frequency of light when light travels from one medium to another ?
(C) At what angle the ray of light hits the boundary of medium B so that no bending as light occurs?
OR
(C) What is the effect on speed when light travels through glass and into water? How do the bottom of a pool filled with water appears due to light refraction ?
Answer:
(A) A light ray bends toward the normal as it passes through glass from air.
(B) When Light travels from one medium to another, its frequency remains constant.
(C) When Light is incident normally or perpendicularly on a boundary between two media, it does not bend because the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction are both zero.
OR
(C) Because water is an optically rarer medium than glass, light travels faster when it passes through water. Refraction causes a pool’s bottom to appear shallower than it actually is.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

October 28, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section – A
(Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.)

Question 1.
If the sum of the zeros of the polynomial 2x² + 3kx + 3 is 6, then the value of k is: (1)
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) – 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(c) -4

Explanation:
Here, p(x) = 2x² + 3kx + 3
On comparing it with ax² + fax + c = 0, we get
a = 2, b = 3k and c = 3 .
sum of zeros = $\frac{-b}{a}$
= $\frac{-3}{2}$
And, sum of zeros = 6
∴ $\frac{-3k}{2}$ = 6
⇒ k = – 4

Question 2.
The roots of the quadratic equation (3x – 5) (x + 3) = 0 is: (1)
(a) -3 , $\frac{5}{3}$
(b) 3 , $\frac{-5}{3}$
(c) -2 , $\frac{5}{3}$
(d) 1 ,$\frac{3}{5}$
Answer:
(a) -3 , $\frac{5}{3}$

Explanation:
The two roots of the given equation (3x – 5) (x + 3) = 0 are – 3 and -3 , $\frac{5}{3}$.

Question 3.
The sum of natural numbers from 51 to 100 is: (1)
(a) 3005
(b) 2895
(c) 375
(d) 3775
Answer:
(d) 3775

Explanation:
Sum of numbers from 51 to 100
= $\frac{50}{2}$ [2 × 51 + 49(1)]
= 25 [102 + 49]
= 25 × 151 = 3775

Question 4.
If A(6,2), B(4,2) and C(6,4) are the vertices of ∆ABC, then the length of the median through C is: (1)
(a) $\sqrt{2}$ units
(b) $\sqrt{3}$ units
(c) 5 units
(d) $\sqrt{5}$ units
Answer:
(d) $\sqrt{5}$ units

Explanation:
The coordinates of Z (the mid-point of AB) are ($\frac{6+4}{2}$ , $\frac{2+2}{2}$) (5, 2)
So, length of CZ = $\sqrt{(5-6)^{2}+(2-4)^{2}}$
= $\sqrt{1+4}$ = $\sqrt{5}$ units

Question 5.
The base PQ of two equilateral triangles PQR and PQR’ with side ‘2a’ lies along g – axis such that the mid – point of PQ is at the origin. The coordinates of the vertices R and R’ of the triangles is: (1)
(a) ($\sqrt{3}$a, 0)($\sqrt{3}$a, 0)
(b) (1, 0)(- 1, 0)
(c) (2, 0) (- 2, 0)
(d) ($\sqrt{3}$a, 0)(-$\sqrt{3}$a, 0)
Answer:
(d) ($\sqrt{3}$a, 0)(-$\sqrt{3}$a, 0)

Explanation:
Since, the mid-point of PQ is the origin and PQ = 2a.
∴ OP = OQ = a
Hence, the coordinates of P and Q are (0, a) and (0, – a) respecively.
Since, ∆PQRand PQR’ are equilateral triangle
∴ Their third vertices R and R’ lie on the ⊥r bisector of base PQ.
X’ OX is the perpendicular bisector of base PQ.
Thus, R and R’ lies on X-axis.
∴ Their Y – coordinates are 0.
In ∆ROP, OR² + OP² = PR²

⇒ OR² + a² = (2a)²
⇒ OR² = 3a²
⇒ OR = $\sqrt{3}$a
Similarly, OR’ = $\sqrt{3}$a
Thus, the coordinates of vertices R and R’ are ($\sqrt{3}$a , 0) an (- $\sqrt{3}$a , 0) respectively.

Question 6.
In a ∆ABC, if DE is parallel to BC, $\frac{AD}{DB}$ = $\frac{3}{4}$ and AC = 15 cm, then the length AE is: (1)
(a) 45
(b) $\frac{23}{7}$
(c) 1
(d) $\frac{45}{7}$
Answer:
(d) $\frac{45}{7}$

Explanation:
Since, DE || BC,

By thales theorem
$\frac{AD}{DB}$ = $\frac{AE}{EC}$
$\frac{AE}{EC}$ = $\frac{3}{4}$
⇒ $\frac{AE}{AC – AE}$ = $\frac{3}{4}$
⇒ $\frac{AE}{15 – AE}$ = $\frac{3}{4}$
⇒ 7AE = 45
AE = $\frac{45}{7}$ cm

Question 7.
If a right circular cylinder with a height of 7 cm has a volume of 448π cm³, then the radius is: (1)
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 11 cm
(d) 15 cm
Answer:
(a) 8 cm

Explanation:
Let the radius be r cm.
We know that,
Volume of cylinder = πr²h
448π = πr²h
$\frac{448π}{π}$ = r² × 7
448 = r² × 7
$\frac{448}{7}$ = r²
64 = r²
$\sqrt{64}$= r²
8 = r

Question 8.
If the bisector of an angle of a triangle bisects the opposite side, the triangles is: (1)
(a) isosceles
(b) scalene
(c) equilateral
(d) right angled triangle
Answer:
(a) isosceles

Explanation:
Given, ∆ABC, AD bisects ∠A and BC.

In ∆ABD and ∆ACD.
∠DAB = ∠DAC (AD bisects ∠A)
AD = AD (common)
BD = CD (AD bisects BC)
Thus, ∆ABD ~ ∆ACD (by SAS rule)
Thus, AB = AC (by cpct)
Hence, ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle.

Question 9.
Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. The length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle is: (1)
(a) 5 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 4 cm
Answer:
(c) 8 cm

Explanation:
Here, radius of circles are 3 cm and 5 cm i.e., OA = 3 cm and OB = 5 cm

Now, OA is ⊥r on BC and bisects BC
As, tangent is ⊥r to the radius and ⊥r from the centre bisects the chord.
∴ In ∆OAB, by pythagoras theorem
OB² = AB² + OA²
⇒ 5² = AB² + 3²
⇒ AB² = 25 – 9 = 16
⇒ AB = 4 cm
and BC = 2AB
= 2 × 4
= 8 cm

Question 10.
The area of a sector of angle θ (in degrees) of a circle with radius ‘r’ is: (1)
(a) $\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^2$
(b) πr²
(c) 2πr²
(d) $\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times 2 \pi r$
Answer:
(a) $\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^2$

Explanation:
Area of sector of angle (θ) with radius (r) is = $\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^2$

Question 11.
The perimeter of a semi – circular protractor is 36 cm. Find its diameter.
(a) $\frac{72}{2+π}$
(b) $\frac{72}{π}$
(c) $\frac{36}{2+π}$
(d) 0
Answer:
(a) $\frac{72}{2+π}$

Explanation:
Let the radius of protactor be V Then, its perimeter is = 2r + nr

and 36 = 2r + πr
⇒ r = $\frac{36}{2+π}$
∴ Diameter = 2r = $\frac{2×36}{2+π}$
= $\frac{72}{2+π}$

Question 12.
The modal class for the frequency distribution given below is: (1)

Class interval	0-20	20-40	40-60	60-80	80-100
Number of workers	15	18	21	29	17

(a) 20 – 40
(b) 0 – 20
(c) 60 – 80
(d) 80 – 100
Answer:
(c) 60-80

Explanation:
Since, the frequency of class 60-80 is maximum as 29.
Then, 60 – 80 is the modal class.

Question 13.
If P(E) = 0.005, then the probability of “not E” is: (1)
(a) 0.002
(b) 0.95
(c) 0.995
(d) 0.095
Answer:
(c) 0.995

Explanation:
P (not E) = 1 – P (E)
P (not E) = 1 – 0.005 = 0.995

Question 14.
The upper limit of the median class of the following frequency distribution is: (1)

Class	0-5	6-11	12-17	18-23	24-29
Frequency	13	10	15	8	11

(a) 17.5
(b) 18.5
(c) 19
(d) 19.5
Answer:
(a) 17.5

Explanation:
The classes in exclusive form are:
(-0.5)-5.5; 5.5-11.5 11.5-17.5; 17.5-23.5; 23.5 – 24.5 with cumulative frequencies of 13, 23, 38, 46 and 57.
Here, N = 57. So, $\frac{N}{2}$ = 28.5
Cumulative frequency just greater than 28.5 is 38, which belongs to class 11.5 – 17.5.
Thus, median class is 11.5 – 17.5 whose upper limit is 17.5.

Question 15.
An unbiased die is rolled once. The probability of getting an even prime number is: (1)
(a) $\frac{6}{5}$
(b) $\frac{1}{5}$
(c) $\frac{1}{6}$
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) $\frac{1}{6}$

Explanation:
Possible outcomes on rolling a die are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
Out of these six numbers, only 2 is the even prime number.
So, the required probability is $\frac{1}{6}$.

Question 16.
If sin B = 0.5, the value of 3 cos B – 4 cos³ B is: (1)
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) -3
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) 0

Explanation: Here, sin B = 0.5 = $\frac{1}{2}$

Question 17.
When two hemispheres with the same radius are connected at their bases, then we get a: (1)
(a) cone
(b) cylinder
(c) sphere
(d) cuboid
Answer:
(c) Sphere

Explanation:
If we join two hemispheres of same radius along their bases, then we get a sphere.

Question 18.
The value 60° is: of cosec² 30° sin² 45° – sec² 60° is: (1)
(a) -2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) -2

Explanation:
Here, cosec² 30° sin² 45° – sec² 60°
= (2)² × ($\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$)² – 2²
= 4 × $\frac{1}{2}$ – 4 = 2 – 4 = – 2

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Choose the correct option as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Statement A (Assertion): In the figure, if BC = 20 m, then height AB is 11.56 m.

Statement R (Reason): tan θ = $\frac{AB}{BC}$ = $\frac{Perpendicular}{base}$ where θ is angie ∠ACB. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
tan30° = $\frac{AB}{BC}$ = $\frac{AB}{20}$
AB = $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ × 20
= $\frac{20}{1.732}$ = 11.56 m

Question 20.
Statement A (Assertion): Total surface area of the cylinder having radius of the base 14 cm and height 30 cm is 3872 cm².
Statement R (Reason): If r be the radius and h be the height of the cylinder, then total surface area = (2πrh + 2πr²). (1)
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
Total surface area = 2πrh + 2πr²
= 2πr(h + r)
= 2 × $\frac{22}{7}$ × 14(30 + 1 4)
= 88(44)
= 3872 cm²

Section – B
(Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 21.
Using prime factorisation, find the HCF and LCM of 150 and 240.
OR
Show that 3 + $\sqrt{5}$ is an irrational number, assuming that $\sqrt{5}$ is an irrational number. (2)
Answer:
Prime factorisation of 150 and 240.

Then, 150 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5
240 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
HCF = 2 × 3 × 5 = 30
LCM = 2 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 2 × 2 × 2
= 1200

If possible, let us assume that 3 + $\sqrt{5}$ be a rational number. So, there exist positive integers a and b such that, 3 + $\sqrt{5}$ = y where a and b are integers having no common factor other than 1.
⇒ $\sqrt{5}$ = $\frac{a}{b}$ – 3
⇒ $\sqrt{5}$ = $\frac{a – 3b}{b}$
Since, $\frac{a – 3b}{b}$ is a rational number, so $\sqrt{5}$ must a rational number (LH.S. = R.H.S.) which is a contradiction to the fact that $\sqrt{5}$ is irrational”.
Hence, 3 + $\sqrt{5}$ is an irrational number.

Question 22.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, -8) is divided by (-1, 6).
OR
Using distance formula, show that the points A(1, -1), B(5, 2) and C( 9, 5) are collinear. (2)
Answer:
Let P(-1, 6) divide the join of A(-3, 10) and B(6, -8) in the ratio K : 1.

Then
P(-1, 6) = $\left(\frac{6 K-3}{K+1}, \frac{-8 K+10}{K+1}\right)$
⇒ $\frac{6 K-3}{K+1}$ = -1 ; $\frac{-8 K+10}{K+1}$ = 6
⇒ 6K – 3 = -K – 1 ; -8K + 10 = 6K + 6
⇒ 7K = 2 ; 14K = 4
⇒ K = $\frac{2}{7}$
Thus, the required ratio is 2 : 7.

Given, points are A(l, – 1), B(5, 2) and C(9, 5)
Distance between AB = $\sqrt{(5 – 1)^2+(2 + 1)^2}$
= $\sqrt{4^2+3^2}$
= $\sqrt{25}$
= 5 units

Distance between BC = $\sqrt{(9 – 5)^2+(5 – 1)^2}$
= $\sqrt{4^2+3^2}$
= $\sqrt{25}$
= 5 units

Distance between AC = $\sqrt{(9 – 1)^2 + (5 + 1)^2}$
= $\sqrt{8^2+6^2}$
= $\sqrt{64+36}$
= $\sqrt{100}$
= 10 units
Then, AC = AB + BC = 10 units
Hence, the point A, B and C are collinear.

Question 23.
If $\frac{\cos \theta-\sin \theta}{\cos \theta+\sin \theta}=\frac{1-\sqrt{3}}{1+\sqrt{3}}$ , then find the value of θ. (2)
Answer:
We have,
$\frac{\cos \theta-\sin \theta}{\cos \theta+\sin \theta}=\frac{1-\sqrt{3}}{1+\sqrt{3}}$
Dividing numerator and denominator of LH.S. by cos θ,
⇒ $\frac{1-\tan \theta}{1+\tan \theta}=\frac{1-\sqrt{3}}{1+\sqrt{3}}$
On comparing, we get tan θ = $\sqrt{3}$
⇒ θ = 60°

Question 24.
Raju got a playing lattu as his birthday present but it has surprisingly no colour on it. He wants to colour it with his crayons in a smart way . It is shaped like a cone surmounted by a hemi-sphere as shown. The entire lotto is 5 cm in height and the diameter of the hemi-sphere base is 3.5 cm.

Find:
(A) the surface area of the hemi-sphere.
(B) the area that he has to colour. (2)
Answer:
(A) Hemisphere is of radius 1.75 cm (i.e., 3.5/2)

So, its curved surface area = 2πr²
= (2 × $\frac{22}{7}$ × 1.75 × 1.75) cm²
= 19.25 cm².

(B) For Cone r = 1.75 cm
h = 5 – 1.75 = 3.25 cm
and l = $\sqrt{r^2+h^2}$
Area of the whole lattu = curved surface area of cone + curved surface area of hemisphere
= [π(1.75)$\sqrt{(1.75)^2 + (3.25)^2}$ + 19.25] cm²
= [$\frac{22}{7}$ × 1.75 × 3.691 + 19.25] cm²
= (20.30 + 19.25) cm²
= 39.55 cm²

Question 25.
For the following frequency distribution, determine the mean: (2)

Class	100-120	120-140	140-160	160-180	180-200
Frequency	12	14	8	6	10

Answer:

Class	Frequency (f_i)	Mid Point (x_i)	x_if_i
100-120	12	110	1320
120-140	14	130	1820
140-160	8	150	1200
160-180	6	170	1020
180-200	10	190	1900
Total	50		7260

Then, Mean, $\bar{x}=\frac{\Sigma f_i x_i}{\Sigma f_i}=\frac{7260}{50}=145.2$

SECTION – C
(Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
In an A.P., the last term is 28 and the sum of all the 9 terms of the A.P. is 144. Find the first term. (3)
Answer:
Let ‘a’ be the first term of AP and ‘d be the common difference. Here, total number of terms of AP is 9, i.e. n = 9
nth term = last term = a_n = a + 8d = 28 …(i)
Also,
S_n = S₉= $\frac{9}{2}$ [2a+(9-l)d] = 144
⇒ 9(a + 4d) = 144
⇒ 9a + 36d = 144 or a + 4d = 16 …..(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
(a + 8d) – (a + 4d) = 28 – 16
⇒ 4d =12
⇒ d = 3
Putting value of d in (i).
a + 8 × 3 = 28
⇒ a = 28 – 24 = 4
So, a = 4 and d = 3
Thus, the required first term is 4.

Question 27.
In what ratio does the x-axis is divide the line segment showing the points (-4, -6) and (-1, 7)? Find the coordinates of the point of division.
OR
Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus. (3)
Answer:
Let the join of (-4, -6) and (-1, 7) be divided by a point P on x-axis in the ratio K : 1.

Then,
p(x,0) = p$\left(\frac{-K-3}{K+1}, \frac{7 K-6}{K+1}\right)$

⇒ $\frac{7 K-6}{K+1}$ = 0
⇒ K = $\frac{6}{7}$
Hence, the required ratio is 6 : 7.

With K = $\frac{6}{7}$, the point P is P($\frac{-\frac{6}{7}-4}{\frac{6}{7}+1}$,0) or P($\frac{-34}{13}$,0)
OR
Let ABCD be a parallelogram circumscribing a circle.

Let P, Q, R, S be the points where the circle touches the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
Now,
AB = DC and AB || DC
Also,
AD = BC and AD || BC (∴ ABCD is a parallelogram) …(i)
From the figure, we have:
AP = AS; BP = BQ; CR = CQ and DR = DS.
∵ AP + PB + CR + RD = AS + DS + CQ + BQ
⇒ AB + DC = AD + CB
⇒ 2 AB = 2 AD
⇒ AB = AD
Using (i), we have:
AB = BC = CD = DA
Thus, ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 28.
In ∆ABC right angles at B, if tan A = $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$, find value of: sin A cos C + cos A sin C (3)
Answer:
Consider a triangle ABC in which ∠B = 90°.

Question 29.
In the centre of a circle with a radius of 10 cm, a chord subtends a right angle. Find The area of the corresponding minor and major segment.
OR
A hollow cone is cut by a plane parallel to the base and upper portion is removed. If the curved surface area of the remainder is 0 $\frac{8}{9}$ of the curved surface area of the whole cone, find the ratio of the line segments into which the cone’s altitude is divided by the plane. (3)

Answer:
In the mentioned circle,
O is the centre and AO = BO = Radius = 10 cm
AB is a chord which subtents 90° at centre 0, i.e., ∠AOB = 90°
Area of minor segment APB (Shaded region) = Area of sector ∆AOB – Area of ∆AOB
$\left(\frac{\pi \times 10 \times 10}{4}\right)-(0.5 \times 10 \times 10)$
= 78.5 – 50
= 28.5 cm²

Area of major sector = Area of circle – Area of sector AOB
= (π × 10 × 10) + $\left(\frac{\pi \times 10 \times 10}{4}\right)$
= 314 – 78.5
= 235.5 cm²

In the figure, the smaller cone APQ has been cut off through the plane PQ || BC. Let r and R be the radii of the smaller and bigger cones and l and L be their slant heights respectively.

Here,
OQ = r, MC = R, AQ = l and AC = L
Now, ∆AOQ ~ ∆AMC
⇒ $\frac{OQ}{MC}$ = $\frac{AQ}{AC}$
⇒ $\frac{r}{R}$ = $\frac{l}{L}$
⇒ r = $\frac{Rl}{L}$ ……..(i)
Since, curved surface area of the remainder = $\frac{8}{9}$ of the curved surface area of the whole cone therefore, we get
CSA of smaller cone = $\frac{1}{9}$ of the CSA of the whole cone
πrl = $\frac{1}{9}$ πRL
⇒ π($\frac{Rl}{L}$)l = $\frac{1}{9}$ (πRL)
⇒ l² = $\frac{L^2}{9}$
⇒ $\frac{l}{L}$ = $\frac{1}{3}$

Now, again in similar triangles, AOQ and AMC, we have
$\frac{AO}{AM}$ = $\frac{AQ}{AC}$
$\frac{AO}{AM}$ = $\frac{1}{L}$ = $\frac{1}{3}$
AO = $\frac{AM}{3}$
OM = AM – OA = AM – $\frac{AM}{3}$ = $\frac{2}{3}$ AM
$\frac{AO}{OM}$ = $\frac{\frac{AM}{3}}{\frac{2AM}{3}}$ = $\frac{1}{2}$
Hence, the required ratio of the heights =1 : 2

Question 30.
A number ‘x’ is selected from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and then second number ‘y’ is selected from the numbers 1, 4, 9. Rnd the probability that the product ‘xy’ of the two numbers is less than 9. (3)
Answer:
Number Y can be selected in 3 ways and corresponding to each, such way there are 3 ways of selecting ‘y.
Therefore, 2 numbers can be selected in 9 ways as listed below:
(1, 1) (1, 4) (1, 9) (2, 1) (2, 4) (2, 9) (3, 1) (3, 4) (3, 9)
Total numbers of outcomes = 9
The product xy will be less than 9, if x and y are chosen in one of the following ways.
(1, 1) (1, 4) (2, 1) (2, 4) (3, 1)
Number of favourable outcomes = 5
P(product less than 9) = $\frac{5}{9}$

Question 31.
If the median of the following data is 32.5, find the missing frequencies. (3)_i

Class interval	0-10	10-20	20-30	30-40	40-50	50-60	60-70	Total
Frequency	fi	5	9	12	fi	3	2	40

Answer:
Median of data = 32-5
sum of frequency = 40
i.e., f₁ + 31 + f₂ = 40
∴ f₁ + f₂ = 9
Then, median class is 30-40

Class Interval	f_i	c.f.
0-10	f₁
10-20	5	5 + f₁
20-30	9	14 + f₁
30-40	12	26 + f₁
40-50	f₂	26 + f₁ + f₂
50-60	3	29 + f₁ + f₂
60-70	2	31 + f₁+ f₂
Total	40

Then,
$\mathrm{M}_e=\frac{1+\left(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}-c f\right) \times h}{f}$
⇒ $32.5=30+\frac{\left(20-14-f_1\right)}{12} \times 10$
⇒ 2.5 × 6 = (6 – f₁) × 5
⇒ 15.0 = 30 – 5f₁
⇒ 5f₁ = 15
⇒ f₁ = 3
and f₂ = 6
Hence, the values of f₁ and f₂ are 3 and 6 respectively.

Section – D (20 Marks)
(Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)

Question 32.
Two pipes together can start to fill a tank in $9 \frac{3}{8}$ hours. The larger diameter pipe fills the tank separately in 10 hours less time than the smaller one. Determine the time at which each pipe can fill the tank on its own.
OR
A 2- digit number is four times the sum and three times the product of its digits. Find the number. (5)
Answer:
Let time taken by pipe of smaller diameter to fill the tan k = x hours
Let time taken by pipe of larger diameter to fill the tank = (x – 10) hours
In 1 hour, the pipe with a smaller diameter can fill $\frac{1}{x}$ part of the tank.
In 1 hour, the pipe with larger diameter can fill $\frac{1}{(x-10)}$ part of the tank.
The tank is filled up in $\frac{75}{8}$ hours.

Thus, in 1 hour the pipe fill $\frac{8}{75}$ part of the tank.
$\frac{1}{x}$ + $\frac{1}{(x-10)}$ = $\frac{8}{75}$
$\frac{(x-10)+x}{x(x+10)}$ = $\frac{8}{75}$
$\frac{2x-10}{x^2-10x}$ = $\frac{8}{75}$
75(2x – 10) = 8(x² – 10x) by cross multiplication
150x – 750 = 8x² – 80x
8x² – 230x + 750 = 0
4x² – 115x+ 375 = 0
4×2 – 100x -15x + 375 = 0
4x(x – 25) – 15(x – 25) = 0
(4x – 15)(x – 25) = 0
4x – 15 = 0 or x – 25 = 0
x = $\frac{15}{4}$ or x = 25

Case 1:
When
x = $\frac{15}{4}$
Then x – 10 = $\frac{15}{4}$ – 10
x = $\frac{15-40}{4}$
x = –$\frac{25}{4}$
Time can never be negative so x = 15/4 is not possible.

Case 2:
When x = 25 then
x – 10 = 25 – 10 = 15
∴ The pipe of smaller diameter can separately fill the tank in 25 hours, and the time taken by the larger pipe to fill the tank = (25 – 10) = 15 hours.

Let, the number be 10x + y i.e., digit at units’s place is ‘y’ and digit at ten’s place is ’x’.
According to the question,
10x + y = 4(x + y)
⇒ 10x + y = 4x + 4y
⇒ 6x – 3y = 0
⇒ 2 x = y …(i)
and 10x + y = 3xy
From (i)
10x + 2x = 3 xy
⇒ 12x = 3 xy
⇒ y = 4
and x = 2
then, the numbers is 24.

Question 33.
In the given figure, ∆FEC is congruent to ∆GDB and ∠1 = ∠2. Prove that ∆ADE ~ ∆ABC. (5)

Answer:
Given : ∆FEC ≅ ∆GDB

and ∠1 = ∠2
To prove: ∆ADE – ∆ABC
Proof Since, ∆FEC = ∆GDB
Then, EC = BD (by cpct) …(i)
and ∠1 = ∠2
AE = AD
Then, AE _ AD EC ” BD (from equation (i) & (ii)]
∴ DE || BC (by converse of thales theorem)
∴ ∠1 = ∠ABC and ∠2 = ∠ACB
(corresponding pair of angles)

In ∆ADE and ∆ABC,
∠A = ∠A (common)
∠1 = ∠ABC (proved above)
∠2 = ∠ACB (proved above)
∴ ∆ADE ~ ∆ABC [by AA similarity]

Question 34.
If an isosceles triangle ABC in which AB = AC = 6 cm is inscribed in a circle of radius 9 cm, find the area of the triangle. (5)
Answer:
Let O be the centre of the circle and P be the mid-point of BC. Then, OP ⊥ BC.

Since, AABC is isosceles and P is the mid-point of BC.
Therefore, AP ⊥ BC as median from the vertex in an isosceles triangle is perpendicular to the base.
Let, AP = x and PB = CP = y
Applying pythagoras theorem in As APB and OPB, we have
AB² = BP² + AP² and OB² = OP² + BP²
⇒ 36 = y² + x² …(i)
and 81 = (9 – x)² + y² …(ii)
⇒ 81 – 36 = (9 – x)² + y² – y² + x²
(subtracting (i) from (ii))
⇒ 45 = 81 – 18x
⇒ x = 2 cm
Put x = 2 in equation (i), we get
36 = y² + 4
⇒ y² = 32
⇒ y = 4$\sqrt{2}$ cm
BC = 2BP = 2y = 8$\sqrt{3}$ cm
Hence, area of AABC = $\frac{1}{2}$ BC × AP
= $\frac{1}{2}$ × 8$\sqrt{3}$ × 2 cm²
= 8$\sqrt{3}$ cm²

Question 35.
Prove that $\sqrt{a}$ is not a rational number, if ‘a’ is not perfect square.
OR
From an aeroplane vertically above a horizontal plane, the angles of depression of two consecutive kilometre stones on the opposite sides of the aeroplane are found to be α and β. Show that the height of the aeroplane is $\frac{\tan \alpha \cdot \tan \beta}{\tan \alpha+\tan \beta}$.(5)
Answer:
Let $\sqrt{a}$ be a rational number
$\sqrt{a}$ = $\frac{p}{q}$ where P and q are co-prime integers.
On squaring both side, we get q ≠ 0.
a = $\frac{p^2}{q^2}$
⇒ P² = aq² …(i)
⇒ a divides p²
⇒ a divides p
Let p be a prime number. If p divides n2, then p divides n, where n is a positive integer.
Let p = am, where m is any integer.
p² = a²m²
⇒ aq² = a²m² [Using (i)]
⇒ q² = am²
⇒ a divides g²
⇒ a divides q …(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), a is a common factor of both p and q which contradicts the assumption that p and q are co-prime integers.
So, our supposition is wrong.
Hence, $\sqrt{a}$ is an irrational number.

Let P be the position of plane, A and B be the positions of two stones one kilometre apart. Angles of depression of stones A and B are a and p respectively.

Let PC = h
In right-angled ∆ACP, we have

Section – E (12 marks)
(Case Study Based Questions)
(Section E consists of 3 questions. All are compulsory.)

Question 36.
Mr. Naik is a paramilitary Intelligence Corps officer who is tasked with planning a coup on the enemy at a certain date. Currently he is inspecting the area standing on top of the cliff. Agent Vinod is on a hot air balloon in the sky. When Mr. Naik looks down below the cliff towards the sea, he has Ajay and Maran in boats positioned to get a good vantage point.

The main goal is to scope out the range and angles at which they should train their soldiers.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Write one pair of ‘angle of elevation’ and one pair of’angle of depression’. (1)
(B) If the vertical height of the balloon
from the top of the cliff is 12 m and ∠b = 30°, then find the distance between the Naik and vinod. (1)
(C) Ajay’s boat is 25 m away from the base of the cliff. If ∠d = 30° . What is the height of the cliff? (use $\sqrt{3}$ = 1.73)
OR
If the height of the cliff is 30 m , ∠c = 45° and ∠d = 30°, then find the horizontal distance between the two boats (use $\sqrt{3}$ = 1.73) (2)
Answer:
(A) One pair of angle of elevation is ∠b° and ∠e° and one pair of angle of depression is and ∠c° and ∠d°

(B) Then, sin 30° = $\frac{Vertical height}{Distance between Naik and Vinod}$
⇒ $\frac{1}{2}$ = $\frac{12}{D_NandV}$
⇒ Distance = 24 m

(C) Here, ∠d° = ∠f° = 30°
Then, $\frac{Height of cliff.}{Distance of Ajay’s boat from the base of cliff}$ = tan 30°
⇒ $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = $\frac{h}{25}$
⇒ $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = $\frac{25}{\sqrt{3}}$ × $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}$
= $\frac{25}{\sqrt{3}}$ × ${\sqrt{3}}$
= 14.45 m

Here, height of cliff = 30 m
Then, ∠c = ∠e = 45°
∴ tan 450 = $\frac{height of cliff}{Distance of Maran’s boat}$
⇒ 1 = $\frac{30}{Distance of Maran’s boat}$
⇒ Distance of maran’s boat = 30 m
And ∠d = ∠f= 30°
∴ tan 3o° = $\frac{height of cliff}{Distance of Ajay’s boat}$
⇒ $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ = $\frac{30}{D_A}$
⇒ D_A = 30$\sqrt{3}$

∴ Distance between boats = 30$\sqrt{3}$ – 30
= 30 (1.73 – 1)
= 21.9 m

Question 37.
Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF) was established to help the families of earthquake affected village. The allotment officer is trying to come up with a method to calculate fair division of funds across various affected families so that the fund amount and amount received per family can be easily adjusted based on daily revised numbers.

The total fund allotted is formulated by the officer as: x³ -5x² -2x- 6
The officer has also divided the fund equally among families of the village and each family receives an amount of x² + 2x + 1. After distribution, an amount of 11x + 1 should be left to have some buffer for future disbursements.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) If an amount of ₹ 540 is left after distribution, what is value of x? ?(1)
(B) How much amount (In rupees) does each family receive? (1)
(C) What is the amount of fund (In rupees) allocated ?
OR
If the sum of squares of zeroes of the polynomial x² – 8x + k is 40, then find the value of k. ? (2)
Answer:
(A) Amount lift = 11x + 1
∴ 11x + 1 = 540
x = $\frac{539}{11}$ = 49

(B) Since, x = 49
Amount received by each family is
x² + 2x + 1 = (49)² + 2(49) + 1
= 2401 + 98 + 1
= 2500

If α and β are the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial p(x) = ax² + bx + c,
a ≠ 0, then α + β = $\frac{-b}{a}$ and αβ = $\frac{c}{a}$

Here,α + β = 8; αβ = k
It is given that
α² + β² = 40
α² + β² = (α + β)² – 2αβ
40 = (8)² – 2k
40 = 64 – 2k
2k = 24
k= 12

Question 38.
To celebrate Diwali festival among senior citizens of an old age home, four friends of a society, Rohan, Amar, Saran and Madhukar decided to pool some money to gift packs to every old man/woman staying in the neighbouring old-age home. They pooled money in the ratio 2:3:4:5. With the pooled money of ? 3500, they start preparing gift packs. In the preparation of one gift pack, Rohan, Amar, Saran and Madhukar spend 7, 6, 8 and 9 minutes respectively.

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) How much time (in minutes) was spent on one gift? (1)
(B) If each gift costs to them ₹ 70, how many senior citizens were given the cards? (1)
(C) How much amount was pooled by Rohan and Madhukar together for giving the gifts and how much time (in hours) was spent in preparing all the gift packs?
OR
How much amount was pooled by Saran? (2)
(A) Total time spent = 7 + 6 + 8 + 9
= 30 minutes

(B) Total money pooled = ₹ 3500
Cost of 1 gift = ₹ 70
N. of gifts = $\frac{3500}{70}$ = 50

(C) Total money pooled = ₹ 3500
Money given by Rohan and Madhukar = $\frac{2x + 5x}{14x}$ ×3500
= $\frac{7}{14}$ × 3500
= ₹ 1750
No. of gifts are 50
Time taken for one gift = 30 minutes
.’. Total time taken = 50 × 30
= 1500 minutes
= $\frac{1500}{60}$ = 25 h

Total money polled = ₹ 3500
Let, the money contributed be 2x, 3x, 4x, 5x
2x + 3x + 4x + 5x = 3500
14x = 3500
x = $\frac{500}{2}$ = 250
Then, contribution of saran = 4 × 250 = 1000

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 9 with Solutions

October 27, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 9 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D, and E.
Section A has 20 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) carrying 1 mark each.
Section B has 5 Short Answer-I (SA-I) type questions carrying 2 marks each.
Section C has 6 Short Answer-ll (SA-II) type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Section E has 3 Case Based integrated units of assessment (4 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 2 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 5 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section
Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π = 22/7 wherever required if not stated.

SECTION – A (20 marks)
(Section – A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each)

Question 1.
Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. The length of the chord of the largest circle which touches the smaller circle is: [1]
(a) 4 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 8 cm
Answer:
(d) 8 cm

Explanation:
Here, AB is a chord of Larger circle which touches the smaller circle at P.
So, AB is tangent to the smaller circle at P.
So, AB is perpendicular to P and perpendicular from the centre to the chord, bisects the chord.
Now,
OP = 3 cm; OA = 5 cm
So, AP = $\sqrt{5^2-3^2}$ = $\sqrt{25-9}$
= √16 = 4 cm

⇒ AB = 2 × AP = 2 × 4 cm = 8 cm.

Question 2.
In the figure, P (2, 3) is the mid-point of the line segment AB. The coordinates of A and B are, respectively: [1]

(a) (0, 6), (4, 0)
(b) (0, 5), (0, 5)
(c) (6, 0), (0, 4)
(d) (3, 0), (0,2)
Answer:
(a) (0, 6), (4, 0)

Explanation:
Let A (0, y) and B (x, 0). Then, P is the mid-point of $\overline{A B}$
So, P(2, 3) = P$\left(\frac{0+x}{2}, \frac{y+0}{2}\right)$
2 = $\frac{x}{2}$ and 3 = $\frac{y}{2}$
x = 4 and y = 6
So, A (0, 6) and B (4, 0).

Question 3.
The smallest 4-digit number, which can be divided exactly by 24 and 36 is: [1]
(a) 1008
(b) 1004
(c) 1009
(d) 996
Answer:
(a) 1008

Explanation:
The smallest number, exactly divisible by 24 and 36, is the LCM (24, 36).
24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3, or 2³ × 3¹
36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3, or 2² × 3²
So, LCM (24, 36) = 2³ × 3², i.e. 72
The smallest 4-digit number which is the multiple of 72 is the required number.
So, the required number is 1008.

Question 4.
If P is the point (- cos θ, sin θ), then the length of OP, where O is the origin, is: [1]
(a) $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$
(b) $\frac{1}{2}$
(c) $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Explanation:
OP = $\sqrt{(-\cos \theta-0)^2+(\sin \theta-0)^2}$
= $\sqrt{\cos ^2 \theta+\sin ^2 \theta}$
= 1.

Question 5.
If a metalic cube of edge 1 cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 3.5 mm, then the length of the wire is: [1]
(a) 10 cm
(b) 9.5 cm
(c) 10.4 cm
(d) 5 cm
Answer:
(c) 10.4 cm

Explanation:
Length of wire
= $\frac{\text { Volume of cube }}{\pi\left(\frac{3.5}{2}\right)^2}$
= $\frac{4000}{\pi(3.5)^2}$ = $\frac{4000 \times 7}{22(3.5)^2}$
= 104 mm or 10.4 cm.

Question 6.
For the following frequency distribution, [1]

1 – 10	13
10 – 20	16
20 – 30	28
30 – 40	23
40 – 50	20

(a) 23.2
(b) 27.5
(c) 28.4
(d) 29.3
Answer:
(b) 27.5

Explanation:

x_i	f_i
35	5
38	9
40	10
42	7
44	2

Here $\frac{N}{2}=\frac{100}{2}$ = 50
Cumulative frequency just greater than 50 is 57, which belongs to class 20-30.
∴ Median class = 20-30
∴ l = 20, f = 28, c.f = 29 and h = 10
we know
Median = l + $\left(\frac{\frac{N}{2}-c . f}{f}\right)$ × 10
= 20 + $\left(\frac{50-29}{28}\right)$ × 10
= 20 + 7.5
= 27.5

Question 7.
If a cubical block of side 7 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere, then the greatest diameter that a hemisphere can have is: [1]
(a) 7 cm
(b) 3.5 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 5 cm
Answer:
(a) 7 cm

Explanation:
The greatest diameter of the hemisphere is equal to the edges Length of the cubical box.
Hence, diameter = 7 cm.

Question 8.
If the n^th term of an A.P. is $\frac{3+n}{4}$, then the common difference of A.P is: [1]
(a) $\frac{1}{5}$
(b) $\frac{2}{3}$
(c) 1
(d) $\frac{1}{4}$
Answer:
(d) $\frac{1}{4}$

Explanation:
Given,

Question 9.
In the given figure, if $\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{AC}}=\frac{\mathrm{BD}}{\mathrm{CD}}$, then the ∠ABD is: [1]

(a) 20°
(b) 30 °
(c) 40°
(d) 60°
Answer:
(c) 40°

Explanation:
Since $\frac{A B}{A C}=\frac{B D}{C D}$, so by angle-bisector theorem, AD is the bisector of A.
So, A = 60°
⇒ ABD = 180° – (60° + 80°) = 40°

Question 10.
The mode of the following data is: [1]

Class	Frequency	Cumulative frequency
0-10	13	13
10-20	16	29
20-30	28	57
30-40	23	80
40-50	20	100
	N = 100

(a) 38
(b) 40
(c) 42
(d) 44
Answer:
(b) 40

Explanation:
Since the observation 40 has maximum frequency of 10.
∴ Mode of the data = 40

Question 11.
The perimeter of a rectangle is 82 m and its area is 400 sq m. The breadth of the rectangle is: [1]
(a) 16 or 25
(b) 16 or 19
(c) 23
(d) 25 or 13
Answer:
(a) 16 or 25

Explanation:
Let, the breadth of rectangle be ‘b’ cm.
Then, length, l = 41 – b
And, Area = l × b
400 = (41 – b) b
⇒ 400 = 41b – b²
⇒ b<sup2 – 41b + 400 = 0
⇒ b² – 25b – 16b + 400 = 0
⇒ b(b – 25) – 16 (b – 25) = 0
⇒ (b – 16) (b – 25) = 0
⇒ b = 16 cm or b = 25 cm
Then, l = 41 – 16 or l = 41 – 25
= 25 cm = 16 cm
Hence, breadth of the rectangle is either 16 cm or 25 cm.

Question 12.
The value of ‘k’ for which the pair of equations x + 2y = 3, 5x + ky = – 7 have no solution is: [1]
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 9
Answer:
(b) 10

Explanation:
Given, equations are,
x + 2y = 3
5x + ky = – 7
For the given pair of equations to have no solution, we have
$\frac{a_1}{a_2}=\frac{b_1}{b_2} \neq \frac{c_1}{c_2}$
⇒ $\frac{1}{5}=\frac{2}{k} \neq \frac{3}{-7}$
⇒ k = 10.

Question 13.
The value of x : y√2 x² + 7x + 5√2 = 0 is: [1]
(a) – 4, 3
(b) 2, $\frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}$
(c) – 2,
(d) – 2, $\frac{-5}{\sqrt{2}}$
Answer:
(d) – 2, $\frac{-5}{\sqrt{2}}$

Explanation:
Given,
√2x² + 7x + 5√2 = 0
⇒ √2x² + 5x + 2x + 5√2 = 0
⇒ x(√2 + 5) + 2 (√2x + 5) = 0
⇒ (x + 2) (√2x + 5) = 0
x = – 2 or x = $\frac{-5}{\sqrt{2}}$

Question 14.
The coordinates of point A, where AB is a diameter of a circle whose centre is (2, -3) and B is the point (1, 4) is: [1]
(a) (0, 1)
(b) (5, 7)
(c) (2, 8)
(d) (3, -10)
Answer:
(d) (3, -10)

Explanation:
Let, the coordinates c (x, y)
Since, O is the centre of the circle,
Then, O is the mid-point of AB.

∴ $\frac{x+1}{2}$ = 2, $\frac{y+4}{2}$ = – 3
⇒ x = 3, y = – 10

Question 15.
The distance between the points (0, 5) and (- 5, 0) is: [1]
(a) 5
(b) 3√2
(c) 5√2
(d) √2
Answer:
(c) 5√2

Explanation:
By distance formula

Question 16.
What is the distance between two parallel tangents to a circle of radius 5 cm? [1]
(a) 8 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 10 cm
Answer:
(d) 10 cm

Explanation:
Distance between two parallel tangents = Diameter of circle
= 2 × 5 = 10 cm

Question 17.
Which term of the A.P. 21, 42, 63, 84,… is 210? [1]
(a) 15^th
(b) 10^th
(c) 9^th
(d) 3^rd
Answer:
(b) 10^th

Explanation:
Given, A.P is 21, 42, 63, 84
Here, a = 21
d = 42 – 21 = 63 – 42 = 21
Let a_n = 210
∴ a_n = a + (n – 1) d
⇒ 210 = 21 + (n – 1) × 21
⇒ 210 – 21 = (n – 1) × 21
⇒ n – 1 = $\frac{189}{21}$
⇒ n – 1 = 9
⇒ n = 10
Hence, 10^th term of given A.P. is 210.

Question 18.
The values x and y; x – y = 3 and x + 2y = 6 is: [1]
(a) 2, 3
(b) 4, 1
(c) 4, 2
(d) 3, 5
Answer:
(b) 4, 1

Explanation:
Given equations are:
x – y = 3 …….. (i)
and x + 2y = 6 …….. (ii)
Subtract equation (ii) from (i), we get

⇒ y = 1
∴ x = 3 + y = 4.
Thus, x = 4, y = 1.

Direction for questions 19 and 20: In question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (IQ is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): In the graph shown below the number of zeros of the polynomial 2. [1]

Reason (R) : The number of zeroes of a polynomial f(x) is the number of points at which f(x) intersects the x-axis.
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
Here, group intersects x-axis at 3 points so the number of zeroes 3.

Question 20.
Assertion (A): A wire is in the shape of a circle of radius 21 cm. It is bent to form a square. The side of the square is 30 cm.
Reason (R): Circumference of circle = perimeter of the square. [1]
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
Circumference of circle = Perimeter of the square.
So, 2πr = 4a
4a = 2 × $\frac{22}{7}$ × 21
4a = 132
a = 33 cm

Section – B (10 marks)
(Section – B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 21.
In the adjoining factor tree, find the numbers m and n. [2]

OR
In the figure, if AB = AC, prove that: BE = ECT

Answer:

Thus, m = 160 and n = 40.

We know that the Lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
So, AD = AF, BE = BD, CE = CF.
Now,
⇒ AB = AC (Given)
⇒ AD + DB = AF + CF
⇒ DB = CF (∵ AD = AF)
⇒ BE = EC (∵ BD = BE and CF = EC)
Hence Proved

Question 22.
If sin θ = $\frac{12}{13}$, find the value of : [2]
$\frac{\sin ^2 \theta-\cos ^2 \theta}{2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}-\frac{1}{\tan ^2 \theta}$
Answer:
sin θ = $\frac{12}{13}$ gives tan θ = $\frac{12}{5}$ and cos θ = $\frac{5}{13}$

Question 23.
Find the area and perimeter of a sheet of a paper which is a sector of a circle of radius 21 cm central angle 45°. [2]
Answer:

Question 24.
If the perimeter of a circle is equal to area of a square, then find the ratio of the area of the circle to the area of the square. [2]
Answer:
Let, the radius of circle be ‘r’ and side of the square be ‘a’.
Given: 2πr = a² …… (i)
$\frac{\text { Area of circle }}{\text { Area of square }}=\frac{\pi r^2}{a^2}$
= $\frac{\pi r^2}{2 \pi r}$
= $\frac{r}{2}$, which is required ratio

Question 25.
The two opposite verticles of a square (- 1, 2) and (3, 2). Find the coordinates of the other two vertices.
OR
Find a relationship between x and y such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (2, 5) and (-1, 4). [2]
Answer:
Let ABCD be a square and Let A(-1, 2) and C(3, 2) be the given two vertices.
Also, Let B(X, y) be the unknown vertex.

Then, AB = BC
⇒ (x + 1)² + (y – 2)² = (3 – x)² + (2 – y)²
⇒ x² + 2x + 1 + y² – 4y + 4 = 9 – 6x + x² + 4 + y² – 4y
⇒ 2x + 1 – 4y + 4 = – 6x + 9 – 4y + 4
⇒ 8x = 8
⇒ x = 1
Further, in ▢ABC,
⇒ AC² = AB² + BC²
⇒ (3 + 1)² + (2 – 2)² = (x + 1)² + ( y – 2)² + (3 – x)² + (2 – y)²
⇒ 16 = 2x² + 2y² + 2x + 1 – 4y + 4 – 6x + 9 – 4y + 4
Using x = 1, we get:
16 = 2 + 2y² + 2 + 1 – 4y + 4 – 6 + 9 – 4y + 4
⇒ 2y² – 8y = 0
⇒ 2y(y – 4) = 0
⇒ y = 0 or y = 4
Thus, the other two vertices are (1, 0) and (1, 4).

Given, points P (2, 5) and Q (- 1, 4) are equidistant from point O (x, y)
PO = OQ or
∴ PO² = OQ²
⇒ (2 – x)² + (5 – y)² = (- 1 – x)² + (4 – y)²
⇒ 4 + x² – 4x + 25 + y² – 10y = 1 + x² + 2x + 16 + y² – 8y
⇒ 29 – 4x – 10y = 2x – 8y + 17
⇒ – 6x – 2y + 12 = 0
⇒ 3x + y – 6 = 0, is the required relation.

Section – C (18 marks)
(Section – C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
Find the greatest number which when divides 245 and 1029 leaves remainder 5 in each case. [3]
Answer:
The required number is H.C.F. (245 – 5, 1029 – 5), i.e. HCF (240, 1024)
Now, 240 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5,
i.e. 2⁴ × 3¹ × 5¹
and 1024 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2, i.e. 210
So, HCF (240, 1024) = 2⁴, i.e. 16.
Thus, the required greatest number is 16.

Question 27.
Solve for x: x⁴ – 20x² + 64 = 0. [3]
Answer:
Put x² = y.
Then given equation becomes:
y² – 20y + 64 = 0
⇒ y² – 16y – 4y + 64 = 0
⇒ y(y – 16) – 4( y – 16) = 0
⇒ (y – 16)( y – 4) = 0
⇒ y = 16 or y = 4
For y = 16, x² = 16 ⇒ x = ± 4
For y = 4, x² = 4 ⇒ x = ± 2
Thus, x = ± 4, ± 2.

Question 28.
Prove that the area of an equilateral triangle described on a side of a right- angle isosceles triangle is half the area of the equilateral triangle, described on the hypotenuse.
OR
In the figure, two tangents PT and PS are drawn to a circle with centre O and radius r, from an external point P.
(A) If OP = 2r, show that ∠OTS = ∠OST = 30°
(B) if ∠TPS = 60°, find the length of OP. [3]

Answer:

Given: ∆ABC, in which ∠ABC = 90° and
AB = BC. Also, ∆ABD and ACE are equilateral.
To Prove: ar (∆ABC = $\frac{1}{2}$ ar (∆ CAE)
Proof: Let AB = BC = x units
∴ CA = x√2 units
Now, ∆ABD and ∆CAE being equilateral has each angle equal to 60°
∴ ∆ABD ∆DAE
But ratio of of similar As is equal to the ratio of their corresponding sides

Hence, ar (∆ABD) = $\frac{1}{2}$ × (∆CAE)
Hence Proved.

(A) ∆ OTS, OT = OS = radii of the circle
∴ OTS = TPQ
In right ∆ OTP
∴ $\frac{O T}{O P}$ = sin TPO
⇒ $\frac{r}{2 r}$ = sin TPO
⇒ TPO = 30°
⇒ TPS = 2 × TPO = 2 × 30° = 60°
And POT = 90° – 30° = 60°
Now, In triangle PTS,
PT = PS (tangents from same external point P)
∴ PST = PTS = x (say)
⇒ PTS + PST + SPT = 180°
⇒ x + x + 60° = 180°
⇒ 2x = 180° – 60° = 120°
⇒ x = 60°
Also, OTP = 90°. so, OTS = 90° – 60°
= 30°
Thus, OTS = OST = 30°

(B) Here TPO = ∆∆ TPS = 30°
In right ∆ OTP,
$\frac{O T}{O P}$ = sin 30°
⇒ $\frac{r}{Q P}=\frac{1}{2}$
⇒ OP = 2r

Question 29.
If α and β are zeros of a quadratic polynomial 4x² + 4x + 1, then find the quadratic polynomial whose zeros are α² + β² and 2αβ. [3]
Answer:
Given, are the zeroes of polynomial 4x² + 4x + 1.
α + β = – $\frac{b}{a}$ = – $\frac{4}{4}$ = – 1
αβ = $\frac{c}{a}$ = $\frac{1}{4}$
Now, (α + β)² = α² + β² + 2αβ
(- 1)² = α² + β² + 2 × $\frac{1}{4}$
⇒ α² + β² = 1 – $\frac{1}{2}$ = $\frac{1}{2}$
And 2αβ = $\frac{1}{2}$
∴ Sum of roots = $\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}$ = 1
Product of roots = $\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2}$ = $\frac{1}{4}$
Quadratic Equation is
x² – (1)x + $\frac{1}{4}$ = 0
⇒ 4x² – 4x + 1 = 0, is the required equation.

Question 30.
A farmer connects a pipe of internal diameter 20 cm from a canal into cylindrical tank which is 10 m in diameter and 2 m deep. If the water flows through the pipe at the rate of 3 km per hour, in how much time will the tank be filled completely ? [3]
OR
Find the mean and modal marks of students from the following frequency distribution:

Answer:
Water speed = 3 km/h = 50 m
Diameter of pipe = 20 cm = $\frac{1}{5}$ m
Water tank has 2m depth with radius 5 m
Let the time required to fill the tank be ‘n’ minutes.
Then, water flowing through the pipe in ‘n’ minutes = volume of water in the tank
⇒ π$\left(\frac{1}{10}\right)^2$ × n × 50
= π × (5)² × 2
⇒ n = 100
Hence, the required time is 100 minutes.

Here, the modal class is 50-60 [class with max. frequency]
For this class,
l = 50, h = 10, f₁ = 15, f0 = 12, f₂ = 12

Calculation of Mean:

Question 31.
How many terms of the A.P.: 9, 17, 25, ……….. must be taken to give a sum of 636? [3]
Answer:
Let ‘n terms of A.P. gives sum of 636.
In the given A.P., a = 9 and d = 8
So, 636 = $\frac{n}{2}$ [2 × 9 + (n – 1) (8)]
⇒ n(18 + 8n – 8) = 1272
⇒ 8n² + 10n – 1272 = 0
⇒ 4n² + 5n – 636 = 0
⇒ 4n² + 53n – 48n – 636 = 0
⇒ n(4n + 53) – 12 (4n + 53) = 0
⇒ (n – 12) (4n – 53) = 0
⇒ n – 12 = 0
⇒ n = 12
⇒ [∵ (4n + 53) cannot be zero]
Thus, 12 terms of A.P. gives sum of 636.

Section – D (20 marks)
(Section – D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)

Question 32.
Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove that: [5]

(A) TP = TQ
(B) ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ
Answer:
(A) Join OT.
Consider ∆s OPT and OQT.
Here, P = Q = 90° (each)
OP = OQ (radii)
OT = OT (common)

So, by RHS congruence criterion,
∆OPT ≅ AOQT
⇒ TP = TQ

(B) In ∆OPQ,
OQP = OPQ (∵ OP = OQ)
= $\frac{1}{2}$ [180° – POQ]
= $\frac{1}{2}$ [PTQ]
[∵ In quad. OPTQ, P = Q = 90°
So, POQ + PTQ = 180°]
⇒ PTQ = 2 OPQ

Question 33.
5 books and 7 pens together cost ? 434, whereas 7 books and 5 pens together cost ₹ 550. Find the total cost of 1 book and 2 pens.
OR
The length of a rectangular plot is greater than thrice its breadth by 2 m. If the area of the plot is 120 m², find the dimensions of the plot. [5]
Answer:
Let, the cost of 1 book be ₹ x and cost of 1 pen be ₹ y.
∴ 5x + 7y = 434 …(i)
7x + 5y = 550 …(ii)
Add equations (i) and (ii) we get 12x + 12y = 984
x + y = 82 …(iii)
Subtract equation (ii) from (i), we get 2x – 2y = 116
x – y = 58 …(iv)
Now, add equations (iii) and (iv), we get
2x = 140
x = 70
∴ y = 70 – 58 = 12
Hence, the cost of 1 book is ₹ 70 and the cost of 2 pens is ₹ 24.

Let ‘l’ m and ‘b’ m be the Length and breadth of the plot respectively.
As per the question,
l = 3b + 2 and l × b = 120
Solving the two equations, we get
(3b + 2) b = 120
⇒ 3b² + 2b – 120 = 0
3b² + 20b – 18b – 120 = 0
b (3b + 20) – 6 (3b + 20) = 0
(3b + 20) (b – 6) = 0
3b + 20 = 0 or b – 6 = 0 20
b = – $\frac{20}{3}$ or b = 6
Thus, breadth (b) = 6m
From the equation l = 3b + 2,
we have l = (3 × 6 + 2) m
i.e. l = 20m
Hence, 20m × 6m are the dimensions of the plot.

Question 34.
A tower is 50 m high. Its shadow is x metres shorter, when the sun’s altitude is 45° than when it is 30°. Find x correct to the nearest cm. [5]
Answer:
PA and QA represent shadows Lengths at sun’s altitude of 30° and 45° respectively.
It is given that:
PA – QA = PQ = x metres
We need to find the value of x.

In right angle triangle PAB,
$\frac{A B}{P A}$ = tan30° = $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$
PA = 5o√3 metres
In right angle triangle QAB,
$\frac{A B}{P A}$ = tan 45° = 1
⇒ QA = 50 metres
So, x = PQ = PA – QA
x = (50√3 – 50) m
= 50(√3 – 1) m
= [50 × (1.732 – 1)] m
= (50 × 0.732) m
= (50 × 0.732 × 100) cm
x = 3660 cm

Question 35.
If sin A = m sin B and tan A = n tan B then show that (n² – 1) cos² A = m² – 1.
OR
The length and breadth of a rectangle are (3x + 1) cm and (2x – 1) cm respectively. If the area of the rectangle is 144 sq. cm, then find the value of x. [5]
Answer:
Given: tan A = n tan B
and sin A = m sin B
To Prove:(n² – 1) cos2A = m² – 1
Proof: sin A = m sin B (given) …….. (i)
tan A = n tan B
$\frac{\sin A}{\cos A}=n \frac{\sin B}{\cos B}$ ………. (ii)
on substituting sin B from eq. (i),
we get
⇒ cos B = $\frac{n}{m}$ cos A …….. (iii)
and sin²A = m² sin²B
⇒ (1 – cos²A) = m² (1 – cos²B)
substituting eq. (iii), we get

1 – cos²A = m² – n² cos²A
n² cos² A – cos²A = m² – 1
cos²A (n² – 1) = m² – 1
Hence, Proved

Given, Length of a rectangle = (3x + 1) cm
Breadth of a rectangle = (2x – 1) cm
Area of a rectangle = 144 sq. cm
ATQ.,
Area of rectangle = l × b
⇒ (3x + 1) (2x – 1) = 144
⇒ 6x² + 2x – 3x – 1 = 144
⇒ 6x² – x – 1 = 144
6x² – x – 145 = 0
Solving by using quadratic formula,
x = $\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{(-1)^2-4 \times 6 \times(-145)}}{2 \times 6}$
Here, a = 6, b = -1, c = -145

Hence the value of x is 5.

Section – E (12 marks)
(Case Study-Based Questions)
(Section – E consists of 3 questions. All are compulsory.)

Question 36.
NITI aayog has tasked their statistical officer to create a model for farmers to be able to predict their produce output based on various factors.
To test the model out, the officer picked a local farmer who sells apples to check various factors like weight, bad apples, half-cooked, green vs red etc.
A box containing 250 apples was opened and each apple was weighed.

The distribution of the masses of the apples is given in the following table:

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the value of p. [1]
(B) Find the lower limit of the modal class. [1]
(C) Find the mean mass of the apples.
OR
Find the upper limit of the median. [2]
Answer:
(A) Since, total apples are 250.
Then
20 + 60 + 70 + p + 60 = 250
p = 250 – 210 = 40

(B) Here, modal class is 120-140, with maximum frequency 70. Then, lower limit of modal class is 120.

Marks	Frequency	c.f.
80-100	20	20
100-120	60	80
120-140	70	150
140-160	40	190
160-180	60	250
	N = 250

Then, $\frac{N}{2}=\frac{250}{2}$ = 125
So, cumulative frequency just greater than 125 is 150, which belong to class 120-140.
So. median class is 120-140.
Hence, upper limit of median class is 140.

Question 37.
A ticket machine in a car park takes ₹ 1 coin and ₹ 2 coin. A ticket cost ₹ 3. The probability that the machine will accept a particular ₹ 1 coin is 0.9 and that it will accept a particular ₹ 2 coin is 0.8.

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the probability that the machine will not accept a particular ₹ 1 coin. [1]
(B) Urmila put one ₹ 1 coin and one ₹ 2 coin into the machine. Find The probability that the machine will not accept either of these coins.
OR
Jayant only has three ₹ 1 coins. Find the probability that the machine accept all these coins, and find the probability that Jayant will not get a ticket. [2]
(C) Pritam has one ₹ 1 coins and two ₹ 2 coins. Find the probability that pritam will get a ticket. [1]
Answer:
(A) P(will not accept ₹ 1 coin)
= 1 – P( will accept ₹ 1 coin)
= 1 – 0.9
= 0.1

(B) P(it will not accept either coin)
= P( will not accept ₹ 1 coin) × P( will not accept ₹ 2 coin)
= [1 – P( will accept ₹ 1 coin)] × [1 – P( will accept ₹ 2 coin)]
= (1 – 0.9) × (1 – 0.8)
= 0.1 × 0.2 = 0.02

P(All three coins will be accepted)
= 0.9 × 0.9 × 0.9
= 0.729
P(He will not get ticket)
= 1 – 0.729
= 0.271

Question 38.
On either side of a mountain are two hotels that are situated at street level. Two cottages are located as shown in the figure after travelling a certain distance towards the mountain’s peak. The ratio of the distances from Hotel B to Hut 2 to the mountain peak is 3:7.

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) What is the ratio of the perimeters of the triangle formed by both hotels and mountain top to the triangle formed by both huts and mountain top?
OR
Find the distance between the hotel A and hut-1 and if the horizontal distance between the hut-1 and hut- 2 is 8 miles, then find the distance between the two hotels. [2]
(B) If the distance from mountain top to hut-1 is 5 miles more than that of distance from hotel B to mountain top, then what is the distance between hut-2 and mountain top? [1]
(C) What is the ratio of areas of two parts formed in the complete figure? [1]
Answer:
(A) Let ∆ABC is the triangle formed by both hotels and mountain top. ∆CDE is the triangle formed by both huts and mountain top.
Clearly, DE || AB and so
∆ABC ~ ∆DEC
[By AA-similarity criterion]

Now, required ratio = Ratio of their
corresponding sides = $\frac{B C}{E C}=\frac{10}{7}$ i.e., 10 : 7

Since, DE || AB, therefore

= 4.29 miles
since ∆ABC ~ ∆DEC
∴ $\frac{B C}{E C}=\frac{A B}{D E}$
[∵ Corresponding sides of similar triangles are proportional]
⇒ $\frac{10}{7}=\frac{A B}{8}$
⇒ AB = $\frac{80}{7}$ = 11.43 miles

(B) Given, DC = 5 + BC
Clearly, BC = 10 – 5 = 5 miles
Now, CE = $\frac{7}{10}$ × BC = $\frac{7}{10}$ × 5 = 3.5 miles

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 10 with Solutions

October 27, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D, and E.
Section A has 20 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) carrying 1 mark each.
Section B has 5 Short Answer-I (SA-I) type questions carrying 2 marks each.
Section C has 6 Short Answer-ll (SA-II) type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Section D has 4 Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Section E has 3 Case Based integrated units of assessment (4 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 2 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 5 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section
Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π = 22/7 wherever required if not stated.

SECTION – A (20 marks)
(Section – A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each)

Question 1.
The value of x so that the distance between the points (- 3,4) and (x, – 4) is 10 units is: [1]
(a) -6, 4
(b) -9, 3
(c) 2, 5
(d) 5, 7
Answer:
(b) -9, 3

Explanation:
Using distance formula, we have
(x + 3)² + ( – 4 – 4)² = 100
⇒ (x + 3)² = 100 – 64 = 36
⇒ x + 3 = ± 6
⇒ x = – 9, 3.

Question 2.
The mode of a frequency distribution and give the formula used in computing the mode of a grouped frequency distribution. [1]

Answer:
(d) Mode = l + $\frac{f_1-f_0}{2 f_1-f_0-f_2}$ × h

Explanation:
The mode of a frequency distribution is the value of the highest frequency.
Formula:
Mode = l + $\frac{f_1-f_0}{2 f_1-f_0-f_2}$ × h
Where, l = lower limit of the modal class
h = size of the class-interval
f₁ = frequency of the modal class
f₀ = frequency of the class preceding the modal class
f₂ = frequency of the class succeeding the modal class

Question 3.
The vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC are (0, 0), (0, y) and (3, √3), then the value of y is: [1]
(a) $\sqrt{12}$
(b) $\sqrt{13}$
(c) $\sqrt{14}$
(d) $\sqrt{15}$
Answer:
(a) $\sqrt{12}$

Explanation:
Let the three given points be
O(0, 0), A (0, y) and B (3, 43).
Then OA = AB = OB [∵ AABC is equilateral]
So, using distance formula,
OA = OB
⇒ y = $\sqrt{3^2+(\sqrt{3})^2}$
y = $\sqrt{12}$

Question 4.
if a hexagon ABCDEF circumscribes a circle, then AB + CD + EF is equal to: [1]
(a) AB + CD + EF
(b) AF + BC + DE
(c) AF + BD + CE
(d) AC + FB + DE
Answer:
(b) AF + BC + DE

Explanation:
We know, lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Now, AB + CD + EF = (AP + BP) + (CR + DR) + (ET + FT)

= (AU + BQ) + (CQ + DS) + (ES + FU)
= (AU + FU) + (BQ + CQ) + (DS + ES)
= AF + BC + DE or BC + DE + FA.

Question 5.
Three identical cubes each of volume 27 cu cm are joined together end to end. What are the dimensions of the resulting cuboid ? [1]
(a) 9 cm × 4 cm × 3 cm
(b) 3 cm × 3 cm × 3 cm
(c) 9 cm × 3 cm × 3 cm
(d) 3 cm × 9 cm × 6 cm
Answer:
(c) 9 cm × 3 cm × 3 cm

Explanation:
Since, volume of each cube is 27 cu. cm, so each cube is of edge 3 cm.
So, dimensions of the resulting cuboid are 9 cm × 3 cm × 3 cm.

Question 6.
If a chord of a circle of radius ‘r’ subtends a right angle at the centre of the circle, then the area of the corresponding segment is: [1]
(a) $\frac{\pi r^2}{4}-\frac{1}{2}$r²
(b) $\frac{1}{2}$r²
(c) $\frac{\pi}{4}$r²
(d) $\frac{\pi}{2}$r² – $\frac{1}{4}$r²
Answer:
(a) $\frac{\pi r^2}{4}-\frac{1}{2}$r²

Explanation: Area of segment APB
= Area of sector OAPB – Area of AOAB

Question 7.
What is the volume of tire material in a spherical shell with inner radius ‘r’ and outer radius ‘R’ ? [1]
(a) $\frac{4}{3}$π(R³ – r³)
(b) π(R³ – r³)
(c) $\frac{1}{2}$(R³ – r³)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) $\frac{4}{3}$π(R³ – r³)

Explanation:
Volume of material in a spherical shell
= $\frac{4}{3}$π(R³ – r³)

Question 8.
If tan θ = 1, then the value of sec θ + cosec θ is: [1]
(a) 3√2
(b) 4√2
(c) 2√2
(d) √2
Answer:
(c) 2√2

Explanation:
Given, tan θ = 1, we have θ = 45°
So, sec θ + cosec θ = √2 + √2 = 2√2.

Question 9.
If 3 tan²x = 1 (0° < x < 90°), then what is the value of x. [1]
(a) 60°
(b) 90°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
Answer:
(c) 30°

Explanation:
Given: 3 tan²x = 1
⇒ tan²x = $\frac{1}{3}$
⇒ tan x = $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$
⇒ x = 30°.

Question 10.
What is the positive real root of 64x² – 1 = 0? [1]
(a) $\frac{1}{8},-\frac{1}{8}$
(b) $\frac{1}{4},-\frac{1}{4}$
(c) $\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}$
(d) $\frac{1}{6}, \frac{-1}{7}$
Answer:
(a) $\frac{1}{8},-\frac{1}{8}$

Explanation:
Given,
⇒ 64x² – 1 = 0
⇒ (8x + 1) (8x – 1) = 0
⇒ 8x = – 1, 8x = 1
⇒ x = $\frac{1}{8},-\frac{1}{8}$
Thus, positive root is $\frac{1}{8}$

Question 11.
The radii of 2 cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 3. Then, the ratio of their volumes is: [1]
(a) 19 : 20
(b) 20 : 27
(c) 18:25
(d) 17:23
Answer:
(b) 20 : 27

Explanation:
Let r₁ and r₂ be the two radii and hi and h2 be the corresponding two heights of the two cylinders. Then
$\frac{r_1}{r_2}=\frac{2}{3}$ (Given)
and $\frac{h_1}{h_2}=\frac{5}{3}$ (Given)
So, $\frac{V_1}{V_2}=\frac{\pi r_1^2 h_1}{\pi r_2^2 h_2}=\frac{4}{9} \times \frac{5}{3}=\frac{20}{27}$
Thus, V₁ : V₂ = 20 : 27.

Question 12.
If a and p be the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 2x² + 5x + 1, then the value of α + β + αβ is: [1]
(a) -2
(b) 2
(c) -3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) -2

Explanation:
Here, α + β = $-\frac{5}{2}$; αβ = $\frac{1}{2}$
So, α + β + αβ = $-\frac{5}{2}+\frac{1}{2}$ = – 2.

Question 13.
An integer is chosen at random between 1 and 100. The probability that chosen number is divisible by 10 is: [1]
(a) $\frac{2}{9}$
(b) $\frac{1}{100}$
(c) $\frac{1}{5}$
(d) $\frac{1}{50}$
Answer:
(b) $\frac{1}{100}$

Explanation:
Required probability = $\frac{\text { Favourable cases }}{\text { Total no. of cases }}$
= $\frac{10}{100}=\frac{1}{10}$

Question 14
In the figure, if $\frac{O A}{O D}=\frac{O C}{O B}$, then

which pair of angles are equal? [1]
(a) ∠A = ∠C
∠B = ∠D
(b) ∠A = ∠B
∠C = ∠D
(c) ∠C = ∠B
∠A = ∠D
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) ∠A = ∠C
∠B = ∠D

Explanation:
In given figure, $\frac{O A}{O D}=\frac{O C}{O B}$ or $\frac{O A}{O C}=\frac{O D}{O B}$
Then, in ΔAOD and ΔCOB
$\frac{O A}{O C}=\frac{O D}{O B}$
and ∠AOD = ∠COB
(vertically opposite angles)
ΔAOD ~ ΔCOB
∠A = ∠C and ∠B = ∠D.

Question 15.
Root of the equation x² – 0.04 = 0 is: [1]
(a) 2
(b) 0.02
(c) 4
(d) ±0.2 1
Answer:
(d) ±0.2 1

Explanation:
A root of x² – 0.04 = 0
x² = 0.04
x = $\sqrt{0.04}$
x = ± 0.2

Question 16.
If 6 times the 6th term of an A.P., is equal to 9 times the 9th term, find its 15th term is: [1]
(a) 65
(b) 0
(c) 46
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 0

Explanation:
Let, the first term of A.P. be ‘a’ and its common difference be ‘d’
Given, 6a₆ = 9a₉
⇒ 6(a + 5d) = 9(a + 8d)
⇒ 6a + 30d = 9a + 72d
⇒ -3a = 42d
⇒ a = -14d …(i)
Then, 15th term i.e. a₁₅ = a + 14d
= -14d + 14d [from (i)]
= 0
Hence, 15th term of A.P. is 0.

Question 17.
The solution of the following pair of equation is: [1]
x – 3y = 2, 3x – y = 14
(a) x = 5, y = 1
(b) x = 2, y = 3
(c) x = 1, y = 2
(d) x = 1, y = 4
Answer:
(a) x = 5, y = 1

Explanation:
Given, equations are:
x – 3y = 2 …(i)
and 3x – y = 14 …(ii)
Multiplying equation (i) by 3 and then subtracting equation (ii) from it, we get

⇒ y = 1
x = 2 + 3y
= 2 + 3 × 1 = 5
Hence, x = 5 and y = 1

Question 18.
The chord of a circle of radius 8 cm subtends a right angle at its centre. The length of the chord is: [1]
(a) 8 cm
(b) 8√2 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 7√2 cm
Answer:
(b) 8√2 cm

Explanation:
Since, ∠AOB = 90°

∴ By Pythagoras theorem
AB² = OA² + OB²
= 8² + 8²
= 64 + 64 = 128
AB = $\sqrt{128}$
= 8√2 cm

Direction for questions 19 and 20: In question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): The HCF of two numbers is 9 and their LCM is 2016. If the one number is 54, then the other number is 336.
Reason (R) : Relation between numbers and their HCF and LCM is product of two numbers a, b = HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b). [1]
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
Let the other number be x.
9 × 2016 = 54 × x
⇒ x = 336

Question 20.
Assertion (A): A 28 cm-diameter semicircle of paper is bent into a conical cup shape that is open at the top. The cup’s radius is 7cm.
Reason (R) : Circumference of base of conical cup = 1/2x circumference of arc of semi-circular sheet. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A)

Explanation:
Let the radius of the conical cup be R.
Then, circumference of base of conical cup
= $\frac{1}{2}$ × Circumference of arc of semi-circular sheet
⇒ 2πR = $\frac{1}{2}$ × 2πr
⇒ 2R = $\frac{28}{2}$
⇒ R = $\frac{28}{4}$ = 7 cm

SECTION – B (10 marks)
(Section – B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 21.
Find the HCF of 72 and 120, using prime factorisation method. [2]
OR
Write a pair of equations in variables x and y which is consistent with:
(A) unique solution
(B) infinitely many solutions.
Answer:
Here,
72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3, or 2³ × 3²
120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5, or 2³ × 3¹ × 5¹
So, HCF(72, 120) = 2³ × 3¹ , i.e. 24
OR
(A) x + 3y – 5 = 0; 3x + 6y – 2 = 0
Here, $\frac{1}{3} \neq \frac{3}{6} \neq \frac{-5}{-2}$

(B) x + 3y – 5 = 0; 2x + 6y – 10 = 0
Here, $\frac{1}{3} \neq \frac{3}{6} \neq \frac{-5}{-2}$

Question 22.
Determine the value(s) of k for which the quadratic equation 4x² – 3kx + 9 = 0 has no real roots. [2]
Answer:
For the given equation, we have Discriminant,
D = (-3k)² – 4(4)(9)
= 9k² – 144
Equation will have no real roots, when D < 0
i.e. 9k² – 144 < 0
or k² < 16
⇒ – 4 < k < 4.

Question 23.
In a school, students thought of planting 250 trees in and around the school to reduce air pollution. It was decided that the number of trees, that each section of each class will plant, will be the same as the class in which they are studying, e.g., a section of Class I will plant 1 tree, a section of Class II will plant 2 trees and so on till class XII (there are three sections of each class). The remaining number of trees will be planted by teachers of the school. [2]

(School Tree Plantations)
(A) Determine the number of trees that will be planted by Class VII and by Class X.
(B) Determine the number of trees that will be planted by students of the school.
Answer:
Class 1 ↑
Class 2 ↑ ↑
.
.
Class 12↑ × 12 ↑ × 12 ↑ × 12
Obtained series, 3, 6, 9, ……….. 36
The above series is an A.P. with a = 3 and d = 3.
(A) The number of trees planted by class VII
a + 6d = 3 + 6(3) = 21
The number of trees planted by class X
a + 9d = 3 + 9(3) = 30

(B) The number of trees planted by students
= $\frac{n}{2}$ [2a + (n – 1) d]
= $\frac{12}{2}$ [2 x 3 + (12 – 1) x 3]
= 6 [6 + 33]
= 6 (39)
= 234

Question 24.
With his friends, Siddharth visited a park where he sat behind a tree next to a lovely lamp post AB. His friends estimated that the approximate distance between the lamp post’s foot and the tree’s foot was 7 metres. If AC + AB = 49 m , then find the value of sec C.

OR
The vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC are (0, 0) (0, y) and (3, √3), then find the value of y. [2]
Answer:
It is given that, BC = 7 m and AC + AB = 49 m,
which can be written as AB = (49 – AC)
As ΔABC is a right triangle, right angled at B, we will apply Pythagoras theorem to find the measures of unknown sides.
According to Pythagoras theorem,
AC² = AB² + BC² = (49 – AC)² + 49
= 2401 – 98 AC + AC² + 49

Solving, we get, 98AC = 2450
AC = 25 m
Therefore, AB = 49 – 25 = 24 m.
We know that sec C = $\frac{\text { hypotenuse }}{\text { base }}=\frac{25}{7}$
OR
Since, A ABC is an equilateral triangle,
∴ AB = BC = AC
or AB² = BC² = AC²
or AB² = AC²

∴ By distance formula
⇒ (0 – 0)² + (0 – y)² = (0 – 3)² + (0 – 43 )²
⇒ y² = 9 + 3
⇒ y² = 12
⇒ y = $\sqrt{12}$ = ± 2√3 .

Question 25.
A dice is thrown twice. What is the probability of getting a doublet? [2]
Answer:
When a dice is thrown twice, the total number of probable cases are 36 and favourable cases of getting a doublet are (1, 1) (2, 2) (3, 3) (4, 4) (5, 5) (6, 6) i.e., number of favourable cases is 6.
∴ Required probability = $\frac{6}{36}$
= $\frac{1}{6}$

SECTION – C (18 marks)
(Section – C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each)

Question 26.
Prove that
$\frac{\cos ^2 \theta}{1-\tan \theta}+\frac{\sin ^2 \theta}{1-\cot \theta}$ = 1 + sin θ + cos θ
OR
If cos θ + sin θ = √2 cos θ, show that cos θ – sin θ = √2 sin θ. [3]
Answer:

OR

Given, cos θ + sin θ = √2 cos θ
Squaring both sides, we get
(cos θ + sin θ)² = (√2 cos θ)²
⇒ cos²θ + sin²θ + 2sin θ cos θ
⇒ 2sin θ cos θ = cos²θ – sin²θ
⇒ 2sin θ cos θ = (cos θ – sin θ)(cos θ + sin θ)
⇒ 2sin θ cos θ = (cos θ – sin θ) (√2 cos θ)
⇒ √2 sin θ = cos θ – sin θ
or cos θ – sin θ = √2 sin θ
Hence Proved.

Question 27.
In the figure, chord AB subtends an angle of 60° at the centre O of the circle of radius 3.5 cm. Find the:
(A) length of the arc APB
(B) the area of the sector AOB
(C) area of the minor segment (Shaded region) (Use √3 = 1.73) [3]

OR
In the figure, ABC is an isosceles triangle with BC = 8 cm and AB = AC = 5 cm.

Find:
(A) sin B
(B) tan C
(C) sin²B + cos²C
Answer:
(A) Length of arc APB = $\frac{60^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}$ × 2π × (3.5) cm = $\frac{11}{3}$ cm

(B) Here, area of the sector AOB
= $\frac{60^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}$ × π × (3.5)²
= $\frac{77}{12}$ sq.cm

(C) Area of the minor segment
= Area of sector AOB – Area of ΔAOB
= [$\frac{77}{12}$sq.cm – $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}$(3.5)²sq. cm]
= $\left(\frac{77}{12}-\frac{53}{10}\right)$ sq.cm
= $\frac{67}{60}$ sq.cm

ΔABC is isoscel.es. So, altitude AD bisects side BC.
Thus, BD = DC = 4cm

In right ΔADB,
AD = $\sqrt{A B^2-B D^2}=\sqrt{5^2-4^2}$
= $\sqrt{25-16}=\sqrt{9}$ = 3 cm.
So,
(A) sin B = $\frac{A D}{B A}=\frac{3}{5}$
(B) tan C = $\frac{A D}{D C}=\frac{3}{4}$
(C) sin²B + cos²C = $\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)^2+\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^2$
= $\frac{9}{25}+\frac{16}{25}=\frac{25}{25}$ = 1

Question 28.
If sin A + cos A = p and sec A + cosec A = q, then prove that q(p² -1) = 2p. [3]
Answer:
Here, p = sin A + cos A; q = sec A + cosec A So, q (p² – 1)
= (sec A + cosec A) [(sin A + cos A)² – 1]
= (sec A + cosec A) [(sin² A + cos² A + 2 sin A cos A) – 1]
= (sec A + cosec A) [ 1 + 2 sin A cos A – 1] {since sin² A + cos² A = 1}
= (sec A + cosec A) (2 sin A cos A)
= 2 sin A cos A sec A + 2 sin A cos A cosec A
= 2 sin A + 2 cos A
= 2 (sin A + cos A)
= 2p.
Hence Proved.

Question 29.
Let A(4, 2), B(6, 5) and C(1, 4) be the vertices of ΔABC. The median AD from A meets BC in D. Find the coordinates of the point P on AD such that AP: PD = 2 :1. [3]
Answer:
Here, D is D$\left(\frac{6+1}{2}, \frac{5+4}{2}\right)$ i.e, D$\left(\frac{7}{2}, \frac{9}{2}\right)$

The Point P divides AD in the ratio 2 : 1

Question 30.
The fifth, sixth, and seventh-grade kids at the school will participate in a webinar about cgbercrime awareness. He requested that the teachers incharge of these classes join all the students in one room. 84 kids are enrolled in fifth grade, 63 in sixth grade, and 42 in seventh grade. What is minimum number of rows in which the students can be seated so that students of same class sit in a same row?
Answer:
Here, numbers are 84, 63 and 42
So, we need to find their HCF.
∴ 84 = 2² × 3 × 7
63 = 3² × 7
42 = 2 × 3 × 7
∴ HCF = 3 × 7
= 21
∴ Number of rows for class fifth = $\frac{84}{21}$ = 4
∴ Number of rows for class sixth = $\frac{63}{21}$ = 3
∴ Number of rows for class seventh = $\frac{42}{21}$ = 2
∴ Total number of rows = 4 + 3 + 2 = 9

Question 31.
One card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards, each of which is equally likely to be Draw. Find the probability that the card drawn is: [3]
(A) either black or a queen
(B) black and a queen
(C) neither a jack nor a king.
Answer:
(A) P(either black or a queen card) $\frac{28}{52}$ i.e $\frac{7}{13}$
[There are 26 black cards and two queens of red colour]

(B) P(black and a queen) = $\frac{2}{52}$ i.e. $\frac{1}{26}$
[There are only 2 black queens]

(C) P(neither a jack nor a king) = $\frac{44}{52}$ i.e. $\frac{11}{13}$
[There are 4 jacks and 4 kings in the pack of 52 cards. So, neither jack nor king cards = 52 – 4 – 4 = 44]

SECTION – D (20 marks)
(Section – D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.)

Question 32.
In the figure, ABC and DBC are two triangles on the same base BC. If AD intersects BC at O,

Show that: $\frac{{ar}(\triangle A B C)}{{ar}(\triangle D B C)}=\frac{A O}{D O}$
OR
Prove that the line segments joining the mid-points of the sides of a triangle form four triangles, each of which is similar to the original triangle. [5]
Answer:
Draw AM ± BC and DN ± BC
In Δs AOM and DON, we have:
∠M = ∠N [Each 90°]
∠AOM = ∠DON
[Vertically opposite angles]

So, by AA similarity criterion,
ΔAOM ~ ΔDON

OR
Consider a triangle ABC in which D, E, F are respectively the mid-points of sides BC, CA, AB.
Now, since E and F are mid-points of AB and AC respectively.
So, by mid-point theorem, we have
FE ∥ BC
∠AFE = ∠B
[Corresponding angles]

Thus, in ΔAFE and ΔABC. we have:
∠AFE = ∠B [Proved abovel
and ∠A = ∠A [Common angLe]
So, ΔAFE ~ ΔABC
Similarly,
ΔFBD ~ ΔABC
and ΔEDC ~ ΔABC
Now, we shall show that ΔDEF ~ ΔABC
Clearly, ED ∥ AF and DF ∥ EA
AFDE is a parallelogram.
⇒ ∠EDF = ∠A
Similarly, BDEF is a parallelogram.
∴ ∠DEF = ∠B
Thus, in As DEF and ABC, we have:
∠EDF = ∠A, ∠DEF = ∠B
So, by AA similarity criterion, ΔDEF ~ ΔABC
Thus, each one of the triangles AFE, FBD, EDC and DEF is similar to ΔABC.
Hence Proved.

Question 33.
From the top of a house, which is at a height of 25 m from the level ground, a man observes the top of a building at an angle of elevation of 30° and angle of depression of the base of the ^ building to be 60°. Calculate the height of building. [5]
Answer:
Here, EC be a building and AB be a house.

Question 34.
PQ and QR are tangents to the circle in the given figure, with centre O, at P and R respectively. Find the value of x. [5]

Answer:
∠OPQ = ∠ORQ = 90°
(As tangent is 1 to the radius)
∴ In quad. OPQR
∠ROP = 360° – (50° + 90° + 90°) = 360° – 230°
= 130°
reflex ∠ROP = 360° – 130°
= 230°

In DROS, OR = OS (radii of the circle)
∴ ∠RSO = ∠ORS = 20°
Now, ∠ROS = 180° – (20° + 20°)
= 140°
[By angle sum property]
∠POS = reflex ∠ROP – ∠ROS
= 230 – 140 = 90°
In DPOS (PO = OS, radii of circle)
∠OPS = ∠OSP = 45°
∠OPT = 90°
(as tangent is ⊥ to the radius)
∴ x = 90° – 45 = 45°

Question 35.
Three kg of wheat and one kg of pulse cost ₹ 96 last year. Pulse prices have grown by 15% this year, while wheat prices have gone up by 10%. The same quantity of wheat and pulse therefore cost ₹ 108.60. Find the wheat and pulse per kg prices from the last year.
OR
After calculating the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = abx² + (b² – ac)x – be, verify the relationship between them and its coefficients. [5]
Answer:
Let, the rate of pulse last year be ₹ x/kg and rate of wheat last year be ₹ y/kg
ATQ,
x + 3y = 96 ……..(i)
⇒ $\frac{115}{2}$x + $\frac{3 \times 110}{100}$y = 108.60
⇒ $\frac{23 x}{20}+\frac{3 \times 22 y}{20}$ = 108.60
⇒ 23x + 66y = 108.60 × 20
⇒ 23x + 66y = 2172 …(ii)

Multiply eqn. (i) by 22 subtract (i) from (ii)

Put the value of x in eqn. (i)
60 + 3y = 96
3y = 36
y = 12
Hence, the rate of mixed pulse last year was ₹ 60/kg and that of wheat was ₹ 12/kg.
OR
Given, quadratic polynomial is: p(x) = abx² + (b² – ac)x – bc
Let a and b be the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x).
∴ Sum of zeroes, α + β = $\frac{-\left(b^2-a c\right)}{a b}$
= $\frac{a c-b^2}{a b}$
Product of zeroes, αβ = $\frac{-b c}{a b}=\frac{-c}{a}$
By equation;
p(x) = abx² + b²x – acx – bc
= bx (ax + b) – c(ax + b)
= (bx – c) (ax + b)

For finding zeroes, put p(x) = 0
(bx – c) (ax + b) = 0

From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), the relation is verified.

SECTION – E (12 marks)
(Case Study-Based Questions)
(Section – E consists of 3 questions. All are compulsory.)

Question 36.
One very useful application of Integration is finding the area and volume of “curved” figures, that we couldn’t typically get without using Calculus. Although there is no need to know anything about that topic, Mrs Meena wanted to use the concept to help students figure out how area of an enclosed surface, that could be easily calculated using parabolic curve.
The diagram shows a sketch of the curve y = 36 – x². The curve crosses the axes at H, K and L. O is the origin.

The point P be P(x, y) and A be the area of the rectangle PQRS.
On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the area of the triangle OHK.
OR
The area A of the rectangle PQRS and find the value of A at x = 3. [2]
(B) Find the non – zero value of x for which A = 0. [1]
(C) Find the length of line segment HK. [1]
Answer:
(A) For the curve y = x² – 36.
Since the point H lies on the curve as well as on the x-axis,
So, for the point H,
y = 0
⇒ 36 – x² = 0
⇒ x² = 36
⇒ x = ± 6
Since point H lies on positive side of x-axis
H = (6, 0)
Similarly for the point K,
x = 0
y = 36 – (0)²
y = 36
K = (0, 36)
ΔOHK = $\frac{1}{2}$ × OH × QK
= $\frac{1}{2}$ × 6 × 36
So, area of ΔOHK = 108 sq. units

A = PQ × PS
= 2y × x
= 2(36 – x²)x
= 72x – 2x³
At x = 3,
A = 72 × 3 – 2(3)³
= 216 – 54 = 162

(B) When A = 0,
72x – 2x³ =0
2x³ = 72x
= 36
x=±6

(C) Using distance formula,
HK = $\sqrt{(O H)^2+(O K)^2}$
= $\sqrt{(6-0)^2+(36-0)^2}$
= $\sqrt{36+1296}$
= $\sqrt{1332}$
= 36.49 36.5 units

Question 37.
Google maps cartography team is working on improving the scalability quality of maps when you use the app on your phones to zoom in using 4 fingers. They are using a proprietary tool called ‘MapMaker’ to figure out scalability factors. A mathematical model is created for a type of object (below cross-section) to test its scalability on maps app.

In the diagram, AC = 8 cm, CE = 4 cm and the area of the triangle BEC is 4.2 sq cm.
Another enlargement with centre E, maps

On the basis of the above information, answer of the following questions:
(A) An enlargement , with centre A, maps ΔABC onto ΔADE, then find the scale factor of the enlargement. [1]
(B) Find the length of AF. [1]
(C) Find the area of ΔEFA.
OR
Find the area of ΔBAF. [2]
Answer:
(A) Scale factor = $\frac{A C}{A E}$
= $\frac{A C}{A C+C E}=\frac{8}{8+4}$
= $\frac{8}{12}=\frac{2}{3}$

(B) Since, ΔEBC ~ ΔEAF
$\frac{E C}{E A}=\frac{B C}{A F}$
$\frac{4}{12}=\frac{3.6}{A F}$
⇒ AF = 3.6 × 3
= 10.8 cm

area of ΔBAF = $\frac{1}{2}$ × AF × AB
= $\frac{1}{2}$ × 10.8 × 7.15
= 38.61 sq. cm

Question 38.
The best way to determine a loaf’s freshness is to see how it responds to a sharp serrated knife. Freshly baked loaves will be difficult to slice because they’re full of moisture. When bread dries out, it becomes easier to slice since it keeps its shape better—up to a point. When bread becomes truly stale, it will be so hard that it’s difficult to slice. A bread manufacturer wants to know the lifetime of the product. For this, he tested the life time of 400 packets of bread. The following tables gives the distribution of the life time of 400 packets.

Lifetime (in hours)	Number of packets (Cumulative frequency)
150-200	14
200-250	70
250-300	130
300-350	216
350-400	290
400-450	352
450-500	400

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) If m be the class mark and b be the upper limit of a class in a continuous frequency distribution, then find the lower limit of the class. [1]
(B) Find the average life time of a packet.
OR
Find the median life time of a packet. [2]
(C) If empirical formula is used, then find the modal life time of a packet. [1]
Answer:
(A) Class mark = $\frac{\text { Lower limit }+\text { Upper limit }}{2}$
⇒ m = $\frac{\text { Lower limit }+b}{2}$
⇒ Lower limit = 2m – b

(B)

∴ Average Lifetime of a packet
= A + $\frac{\Sigma f_i d_i}{\Sigma f_i}$ = 325 + $\frac{6400}{400}$ = 341 hrs

OR
Also, cumulative frequency for the given distribution are 14, 70, 130, 216, 290, 352, 400
∴ c.f just greater than 200 is 216, which is corresponding to the intervaL 300-350.
l = 300, f = 86, cf = 130, h = 50

∴Median =
l + $\left(\frac{\frac{N}{2}-c . f}{f}\right)$ × h = 300 + $\left(\frac{\frac{N}{2}-c . f}{f}\right)$ × 50
= 300 + 40.697 = 340.697 ≈ 340 hrs (approx.)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 7 with Solutions

October 27, 2022

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 7 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
Alt questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION – A (20 Marks)
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20)

Question 1.
Risha went to her grandfather’s village, where she saw food cooking on a wooden challah as shown in the picture. (1)

She noticed that the base of the cooking pot has sooty deposits. The reason for the utensils getting black at the bottom:
(a) Unsaturated hydrocarbons due to complete combustion
(b) Unsaturated hydrocarbons, as sooty deposits represent unburnt hydrocarbons
(c) Saturated hydrocarbons due to complete combustion
(d) Saturated hydrocarbons, as sooty deposits represent unburnt hydrocarbons
Answer:
(b) Unsaturated hydrocarbons, as sooty deposits represent unburnt hydrocarbons

Explanation: The utensils have black sooty deposits due to unburnt hydrocarbons. Saturated hydrocarbons burn completely and leave no residue whereas unsaturated hydrocarbons burn partially and thus leave residues.

Question 2.
A student put some pieces of lead metal in the green coloured solution of copper chloride and observed the reaction that took place as shown in the figure. The colour of the solution changes. (1)

identify the type of reaction that took place in the test tube and the colour change.
(a) Decomposition reaction, colour changes to blue
(b) Displacement reaction, solution becomes colourless
(c) Double displacement reaction, colour changes to white
(d) Displacement reaction, colour changes to blue
Answer:
(b) Displacement reaction, solution becomes colourless

Explanation: When lead metal is placed in a solution of copper chloride, the green colour of copper chloride solution fades and becomes colourless due to formation of lead chloride. The lead metal is more reactive than copper, therefore, lead displaces copper from copper chloride solution. This is called displacement reaction.
Pb + CuCl₂ → PbCl₂ + Cu

Question 3.
Ashima went to Canada with her father in winters, where they found that in car radiator, a mixture of the compounds shown in the image below is used instead of water only. She was curious to know the reason for this. (1)

The reason for using a mixture of ethanol and water in car radiator is:
(a) Ethanol is added to water to lower the freezing point of water.
(b) Ethanol is added to water to increase the freezing point of water.
(c) The mixture is cheaper than other products
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Ethanol is added to water to lower the freezing point of water.

Explanation: A mixture of alcohol and water is used instead of water in car radiators in cold climate because in winters, in countries like Canada, temperature goes below 0°C, and at this temperature water freezes. Therefore, ethanol is added to water to lower the freezing point of water.

Question 4.
Raju used to believe that when we eat food, it goes to stomach and there the digestion starts. But his teacher told him that digestion of food starts in the mouth. Which of the following enzyme-substrate combination is present in the mouth? (1)
(a) Salivary amylase-proteins
(b) Lipase-carbohydrates
(c) Salivary amylase-carbohydrates
(d) Salivary amylase-lipids
Answer:
(c) Salivary amylase-carbohydrates

Explanation: The process of digestion starts in the mouth, when we start chewing the food. The salivary gland produces saliva that moistens the food and allow it to easily pass through the oesophagus. Saliva also contains the enzyme salivary amylase (ptyalin) which digests carbohydrates present in the food.

Question 5.
Riya marked a structure as ‘P’ in the figure of stomata as shown in the following figure: (1)

Which of the following processes cannot occur if the structure ‘P’ is blocked?
(a) Transpiration and photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration and respiration
(c) Transpiration, respiration and photosynthesis
(d) Transportation and photosynthesis
Answer:
(c) Transpiration, respiration and photosynthesis

Explanation: Structure marked as ‘P’ is stamatal pore. Once the guard cell is fully inflated, the pressure inside creates a pore that lets gas and water move back and forth. It aids in respiration and transpiration in this way. To carry out photosynthesis, a plant needs carbon dioxide from the surrounding atmosphere to enter the leaf By diffusing through tiny pores called stomata, this is accomplished. Therefore, if stomata are blocked, transpiration, photosynthesis, and respiration will not take place.

Question 6.
The following picture shows a medical condition known as cataract. (1)

The possible cause of cataract is:
(a) excessive curvature of eye lens
(b) elongated eyeball
(c) weakened ciliary muscles
(d) opaque eye lens
Answer:
(d) Opaque eye lens

Explanation: During old age, the crystalline lens of some people become hazy or even opaque due to formation of a membrane over the eye lens.

Related Theory
The defect cataract, can be corrected by surgically removing the opaque membrane present over the eye lens.

Question 7.
Sonal’s mother went to a jeweller with a 20g bar of 24 carat gold and asked him to make jewellery out of it for Sonam’s marriage. But the jeweller refused and said that pure gold cannot be used to make jewellery. He said that 18 carat or 22 carat gold is used for making jewellery. Why can’t 24 carat gold be used for making jewellery? (1)
(a) It is very soft
(b) It does not bend easily
(c) It is very hard
(d) It retain its shape
Answer:
(a) It is very soft

Explanation: 24 carat gold cannot be used for making ornaments as it is very soft and easily bendable, in order to make jewellery, the metal should retain its shape and should not bend easily. Therefore, pure gold is mixed with other metals like copper and silver to strengthen it to make ornaments.

Caution
Students should know that gold is an alloy or combination of metals which we buy. The carat number indicates the purity or fineness of gold in jewellery. 18 or 22 carat gold is an alloy of gold with copper or silver.

Question 8.
Reema’s mother bought some pickles from the market and asked Reema to store it in the kitchen. Reema stored the pickles in a copper container. (1)

Pickles are usually destroyed by fungal effects. How can this be reduced?
(a) By storing them in glass containers and placing them in sunlight.
(b) By keeping them in air tight containers.
(c) By storing them in iron jars.
(d) By keeping them in moist and cold conditions.
Answer:
(a) By storing them in glass containers and placing them in sunlight

Explanation: Sunlight increases the temperature of stored pickles and thus fungal- effect can be minimized. Iron jars will react with the acid present in pickles and destroy it. Moist and cold conditions will favour fungal growth.

Caution
Students should know that the toxic compounds produced by reaction between acids and copper can cause food poisoning. Acids also reacts with metals to produce hydrogen gas. which spoils the food. The metals like copper get corroded by acetic acid, formic acid present in pickles.

Question 9.
Identify the structures ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ in the figure.

Answer:
(a) X: Sch wann cell; Y: Nucleus; Z: Dendrite
Explanation: Structure ‘X’ is Schwann cell.
Structure Y is Nucleus.
Structure ‘Z’ is Dendrite.

Question 10.
Human males have 23 pairs of chromosomes in their cells and females also have 23 pairs of chromosomes. But when these combine or after fusion, why don’t an offspring have 46 pairs of chromosomes? (1)
(a) Mitosis occurs during gamete formation which halves the chromosome.
(b) Mitosis occurs in zygote which reduces chromosome number.
(c) Mitosis occurs during gamete formation.
(d) Mitosis in zygote reduceds chromosome number.
Answer:
(a) Meiosis occurs during gamete which halves the humber of chromosomes. Explanation: Males as well as females have 23 pairs of chromosomes in every cell but the gamete (sperm and ovum), is formed by meiotic cell division (reductional division) and thus contain only half the number of chromosomes i.e., 23 chromosomes in male sperm and 23 chromosomes in female egg. Therefore, after fusion the zygote will have 46 chromosomes i.e., 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Related Theory
Fertilization is the fusion of haploid sperm and egg which leads to an offspring with 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Caution
Students should remember that meiosis or reduction division is the process of cell division in which the chromosome number is halved. It occurs only in gametes in humans. While mitosis occurs in somatic cells and the chromosome number remain same after division.

Question 11.
Dentist uses mirror to see inside patient’s mouth which is different from the one used at homes. Which mirror was used by dentist? (1)
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Plano-convex
(d) Diverging
Answer:
(a) Concave

Explanation: The dentist used a concave mirror to look inside the mouth of Gungun. Concave mirrors are used by dentist to see clear and enlarged images of the teeth, so that any damage or infection can be seen clearly.

Related Theory
Concave mirrors are converging mirrors that form a virtual, erect and enlarged image.

Question 12.
A student is performing an experiment in a chemistry lab. He takes an element ‘X’ and allow its reaction with oxygen. The compound formed has a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water as shown in the following image: (1)

The element ‘X’ is likely to be:
(a) Calcium
(b) Carbon
(c) Iron
(d) Silicon
Answer:
(a) Calcium

Explanation: Oxygen and calcium react to form calcium oxide.

An ionic compound is calcium oxide. Due to the potent electrostatic attraction between ions, it has a high melting point. In water, calcium oxide dissolves and transforms into calcium hydroxide, as illustrated below.

Related Theory
Carbon and oxygen react to create a gas that is unable to have a high melting point.

Monoxide and dioxide, which have a high melting point but are insoluble in water, are created when silicon reacts with oxygen.

Iron (II) oxide, which is insoluble in water, is created when iron and oxygen react.

Question 13.
In a house hold connection, two bulbs of 80w and 40w are connected in series. If the current flowing through 80w bulb is 1A, then find out the current that flows through 40w bulb. (1)
(a) 1 mA
(b) 1A
(c) 10 A
(d) 100 mA
Answer:
(b) 1 A

Explanation: The current that flows through 40W bulb will be 1 Ampere. This is because the bulbs are connected in a series combination, and in a series combination the current is the same in every part of the circuit as current does not change in series combination, therefore, both the bulbs get equal amount of current.

Question 14.
Ravi saw her mother dumping the kitchen wastes in the soil, which disappeared after some days. So, he also placed his old plastic bottle and a broken cup inside the soil, thinking that it will also disappear. But he saw that it remained there only even after a week. What is the reason for this? (1)
(a) They were non-recyclable
(b) They were biodegradable
(c) They were non-biodegradable
(d) They were a mix of biodegradable and non-biodegradable
Answer:
(c) They were non-biodegradable.

Explanation: The kitchen waste includes fruits and vegetable peels, tea bags, paper, etc. which are biodegradable substances and are decomposed by microorganisms, whereas plastic and glass which Ravi kept, were non- biodegradable substances and cannot be acted upon by microorganisms.

Related Theory
Biodegradable wastes are those that are degraded and decomposed by microbes and thus do not accumulate in the environment and cause pollution. For example: paper, wood, fruit and vegetable peels, etc.

Non-biodegradable wastes are those that are not degraded and decomposed by microbes and they accumulate in the environment and cause pollution. For example: plastic, metals, glass, etc.

Question 15.
The diagram shows how a light beam strikes a concave or convex mirror. (1)

Which of the folLowing shows the path of this ray, after refLection?

Answer:

Explanation: The correct path of the ray is shown in figure.

Question 16.
Rakhi used to store curd in a brass jar as shown in the image, but it corroides the metal and produced toxins. (1)

Which acid is present in curd?
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Formic acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Citric acid
Answer:
(c) Lactic acid

Explanation: The curd contains bacteria – Lactobacillus that produces lactic acid.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): A blue-green solution is obtained from a reaction between copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R): This happens due to formation of copper (II) chloride. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: The reaction between copper chloride and dilute hydrochloric acid produces a blue-green solution due to formation of copper chloride which is blue green in colour.
CuO_(s) + HCl_(aq) → CuCl_2(s) + H₂O_(l)

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Nerve conduction is the oneway conduction.
Reason (R): Nerve impulse is transmitted from dendrite terminals to axon terminals. (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Nerve impulse only travels in one direction. Nerve impulse is always transmitted across a synapse, i.e., from axon terminals of one neuron to dendrites of the next neuron, but it never occurs in reverse direction. Neurotransmitter is only released at the axon terminal and not at the dendrite terminal.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): The centre of curvature is not a part of the mirror and it lies outside the reflecting surface of mirror.
Reason (R): The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is not a part of a sphere having a centre. (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: The centre of curvature does not lie on the reflecting surface of the mirror because it lies on the principal axis outside the mirror. The mirror is obtained by cutting a part of a sphere. Therefore, the reflecting surface is actually a part of that sphere. The sphere has a centre and this centre corresponds to the centre of curvature of the mirror.

Question 20.
Assertion (A): Lemon pickle can be stored in Aluminium vessel.
Reason (R): Aluminium metal reacts with acid present in lemon to produce hydrogen gas which cause food spoilage. (1)
Answer:
(d) A is false but. R is true.
Explanation: Since aluminium being a metal reacts with citric acid present in Lemon, it produces hydrogen gas which spoils food and can cause food poisoning. Therefore, Lemon pickle should not be stored in aluminium vessel.

SECTION – B (12 MARKS)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 21.
Aaliya felt painful contraction of muscles in her legs while sleeping. As the frequency of these painful muscular contractions increased, she consulted a doctor. Doctor told her that these are muscular cramps and can be cured. What could be the reason of these cramps? (2)
Answer:
Muscular cramps are caused due to lack of oxygen in our muscle cells. In the absence of oxygen, the pyruvate gets converted into lactic acid. This lactic acid gets accumulated in the muscles and cause muscular cramps.

Related Theory
Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate gets converted into carbon dioxide and water. Whereas in anaerobic conditions pyruvic acid gets converted into lactic acid.

Question 22.
A student takes some syrupy liquid in a test tube and dilute it with water. But by mistake, she added water quickly to the tube and the tube immediately cracked and the liquid which spilled, produced blisters on her skin. What could be the reason for this?
OR
For testing a liquid “X,” a cloth strip dipped in onion juice is used. The odour of the liquid “X” changes. Onion juice is a type of what kind of indicator? Blue litmus turns the liquid X red. What will the liquid X observe when it reacts with the granulated zinc? Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved. (2)
Answer:
The syrupy liquid in the test tube could be cone. H₂SO₄(sulphuric acid) or cone. HCl, having great affinity for water and addition of water to an acid is a highly exothermic reaction, that results in excessive local heating of test tube and thus, cracking of the tube and spilling of acid that produced blisters.

Related Theory
The process of mixing an acid or base with water is called dilution, that results in decrease in the concentration of ions (H₃O⁺ /OH^–) per unit volume.
OR
Onion juice is olfactory indicator. One type of odour is produced by olfactory indicators in acidic media while a different odour is produced in basic media. It is an acidic solution because the liquid “X” turns litmus red instead of blue.
Acids create hydrogen gas when they react with active metals like zinc, magnesium, etc. An example of this reaction is:
Zn_(s) + dil.H₂SO_4(aq) → ZnSO₄ + H_2(g)

Question 23.
A teacher told students that “A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed”, this statement confused the students as they believed that inherited traits are always expressed. Justify the statement of teacher with reason. (2)
Answer:
In experiments conducted by Mendel with pea plants, he cross bred a tall pea plant with dwarf pea pLant, he found that in first (F₁) generation all plants were tall. No dwarf plants were obtained in F₁ generation. However, in second (F₂) generation, both tall,and dwarf plants were obtained in the ratio of 3 : 1. in F₂ generation, both traits of tallness and dwarfness were inherited where tallness is dominant and dwarfness is recessive. Reappearance of dwarf character in F₂ generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in the F₁ generation.

Question 24.
Give reasons for the following:
(A) Ammeter is connected in series to the electric circuit and not in parallel.
(B) The ends of the connecting wires are cleaned before connecting them in a circuit.

(A) How should two resistors with resistances R₁Ω and R₂Ω be connected to an emf V volts battery to ensure that the least amount of power is used?
(B) You have four resistors, each measuring 8Ω. Describe the connection you would make for these resistors to have an effective resistance of 8Ω. (2)
Answer:
(A) Ammeter is not connected in parallel to the electric circuit, because connecting it in paraLlel the net resistance of the circuit decreases. As a result, more current will be drawn from the battery which can damage the ammeter. Also, ammeter itself has very low internal resistance.

(B) The ends of the connecting wires are cleaned before connecting them in a circuit, in order to remove the insulating layer, if present, otherwise current will not flow properly.

Related Theory
Ammeter is the instrument to measure the electric current in a circuit and is always connected in series in a circuit through which the current is to be measured. Following figure shows a typical electric circuit, comprising of a battery, an electric bulb and ammeter connected in series.

(A) The two resistors are connected in series because power consumption is at its lowest when the circuit’s current is at its lowest.

(B) If you have four 8Ω resistors and their combined effective resistance is also 8Ω, you should connect the two 8Ω resistors in series. Right now, you have pair of two 16 resistors (8Ω + 8Ω). You will have a net resistance of 8Ω if you connect these resistors in parallel.

Question 25.
The following figure shows refraction through a glass prism:

Label angle of deviation, angle of emergence, emergent ray, incident ray, refracted ray and normal in the given figure. (2)
Answer:
The labeLing are as following:

Question 26.
Give one word for the following: (2)

Phenomenon where individuals of a species exhibit differences in characteristics.
Part of DNA providing information for a protein.
Formation of new species due to gradual change over long period of time.
Recessive genes are expressed only in

Answer:

Variations
Gene
Speciation
Homozygous

SECTION – C (21 Marks)
(Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.)

Question 27.
Addition of pure ghee in food items like parantha, laddoo, halwa, etc. make them more tempting. People usually get attracted to foods mainly due to smell of pure ghee. When Vanaspati oil reacts with hydrogen, it gets converted to Vanaspati ghee.
(A) What do we call this reaction? Which catalyst is used in this reaction?
(B) Write chemical equation for the above- mentioned reaction.
(C) Why this reaction of vegetable oil said to be an addition reaction? (3)
Answer:
(A) The reaction in which Vanaspati oil reacts with hydrogen and gets converted to Vanaspati ghee is called as Hydrogenation. Nickel or palladium is used as a catalyst in this reaction.

(C) Hydrogenation is termed as an addition reaction because hydrogen is added to unsaturated hydrocarbons in the presence of catalysts such as nickel or palladium to form saturated hydrocarbons.

Question 28.
Given below is the diagram of a nephron.

Identify the parts A, B and C and also write what happens in these parts during urine formation. (3)
Answer:
The parts of the nephron are:

Parts	Name	Role in urine formation
A	Bowman’s capsule	Nitrogenous wastes, glucose, water, amino acid filter from blood into bowman’s capsule
B	Tubular part of nephron	Useful substances from the filtrate are reabsorbed back by capillaries from the tubular part
C	Collecting duct	Urea, extra water and salts are secreted into the tubule which opens up into the collecting duct

Question 29.
The given picture shows the uses of a white powder by artist and doctors, which can be use be as plaster for supporting fractured bones, making statues, etc.

Answer the following questions:
(A) Name the white powder used in the above given picture and also write its chemical formula.
(B) How does this white powder get . hardened and what it is called?
(C) Write the balanced chemical equation for the formation of this white powder. 3
Answer:
(A) The white powder is plaster of Paris or calcium sulphate hemihydrate,
(B) Plaster of Paris on mixing with water, changes to a hard solid mass known as gypsum.

(C) Formation of plaster of Paris: By heating gypsum at 373K –

Question 30.
Draw a well labelled diagram of female reproductive system. Identify and label the following more previous page:
(A) Part producing female gamete or ovum
(B) Funnel shaped structures serving as the site of fertilization
(C) Part where embryo develops
OR
Identify and explain the method through which Planaria reproduces. When compared to reproduction, how is this process different? (3)
Answer:
(A) Ovary
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Uterus

OR
Planaria has a strong capacity for regeneration. Each body part of a Planaria can regenerate into a complete Planaria by growing all the missing parts if the Planaria is ever cut into several pieces. This is depicted in the following figure:

A new organism is created during the reproduction process from the full parent organism. However, a piece of the original parent body grows into a new individual during fragmentation.

Question 31.
Rajni was travelling to Kanpur via train. On her way, on a railway station, she saw some men joining the railway tracks as shown in the image: (3)

Answer the following questions:
(A) Identify the compounds used for joining the railway tracks.
(B) What is the name of this reaction?
(C) Write the chemical equation for the above chemical reaction.
Answer:
(A) The compound used for joining railway tracks is aluminium and iron (III) oxide (Fe₂O₃).

(B) The reaction is called as thermite reaction. It is a highly exothermic reaction between a metal and metal oxide. In this, the aluminium acts as a reducing agent, that reduces iron oxide to produce molten iron and aluminium oxide, which is used to weld railway track.

Question 32.
An electric egg boiler of 100Ω, an electric heater of resistance 150Ω and an iron of resistance 450Ω are connected in parallel to a 220V source. What is the resistance of an electric toaster connected to the same source that consumes as much as current as all three appliances? Also calculate the current flowing through it.
OR
(A) Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 4 m and area of cross section 1.5 x 10^-7 m², if the resistivity of the metal is 2.6 x 10^-5Ω – m.

(B) Calculate the resistivity of the material of a wire of length 2 m, radius 0.01 cm and resistance 30 ohms. (3)
Answer:
Let the resistance of the electric egg boiler, electric heater and an iron be R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively.
So,
R₁ = 100Ω
R₂ = 150Ω
R₃ = 450Ω
Since the three appliances are connected in parallel, the resistance of an electric toaster connected to the same source should be equal to the equivalent resistance of the three appliances in parallel.
Therefore, equivalent resistance is given by:

Therefore, the resistance of an electric toaster connected to the same source is 34.62 Ohm. Current through the toaster is calculated using Ohm’s Law,
V = IR
Or, I = $\frac { V }{ R }$ = $\frac { 220 }{ 34.62 }$ = 6.35A

(A) For the given metal wire,
length, l = 4 m
area of cross-section, A = 1.5 x 10^-7m²
resistivity of the metal, p = 2.6 x 10^-5Ωm
Since, resistance,
R = p $\frac { l }{ A }$
So R = 2.6 x 10^-5 x $\frac{4}{1.5 \times 10^{-7}}$
= 6.9 x 10²Ω

(B) We are given,
the length of wire, l = 1m
radius of wire, r = 0.01 cm = 1 x 10^-4m
resistance, R= 20Ω.
As we know,
R = p $\frac { l }{ A }$
where is resistivity of the material of the wire

Question 33.
Enlist the properties of magnetic field lines. (3)
Answer:
The characteristics of magnetic field lines are:
(1) Two magnetic lines never intersect each other.

(2) Magnetic field lines are always arranged in the form of closed concentric circles outside the magnet and their direction is from North to South pole.

(3) Inside the magnet, they are uniform, straight and move from South to North pole. Near the poles, they are denser and stronger, whereas weaker when wider apart.

SECTION – D (15 Marks)
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.)

Question 34.
An experimental set-up was placed in the laboratory by the teacher for class X students as shown in figure
(a) in which iron nails are placed in the copper sulphate solution, to record the observations. After few hours, the students noticed the changes as shown in figure
(b). The teacher guided them to write the observations.

Answer the following questions based on the observations:
(A) Students noticed the change in colour of copper sulphate solution. What is the change and why it happened?
(B) Which type of chemical reaction is taking place in the given figure and why?
(C) If copper nails are placed in ferrous sulphate solution, will the same reaction take place?
OR
‘P’ and ‘Q’ ore samples were taken. Ore ‘P’ releases CO₂ when heated, whereas ore ‘Q’ releases SO₂. What procedures will you follow to transform them into the appropriate metals? Also define the first step used during extraction of ore ‘Q’. (5)
Answer:
(A) The colour of the copper sulphate solution changes from blue to light green or colourless, because iron being more reactive than copper displaces copper from copper sulphate solution and forms ferrous sulphate solution (green). Copper gets deposited on iron nail.
Fe_(s) + CuSO_4(aq) → FeSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)

(B) It is a single displacement reaction because iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

(C) No reaction will take place in this case, as copper is less reactive than iron so it is unable to displace it from ferrous sulphate solution. Therefore, there will not be any change in the test tube.

Ore ‘P’ gives CO₂ on heating hence it is a carbonate ore.
Steps involved in extraction of ore ‘P’:

(i) Calcination: The ore is heated below its melting point either in absence of air or in limited supply to obtain a metal oxide
PCO₃ -> PO + CO₂

(ii) Reduction
The metal oxide is reduced with coke to obtain metal.
PO + C -> P + CO
Ore ‘Q’ is a sulphide ore.

Steps involved in the extraction of element ‘Q’:
(i) Roasting: Roasting is a process of metallurgy where ore is converted into its oxide by heating it below its melting point in the presence of excess air.

(ii) Reduction: The metal oxide is reduced to metal by carbon
QO + C -> Q + CO

The first step used during the extraction of ore ‘Q’ is roasting. Ore is heated below its melting point in the presence of extra air during a metallurgical process that turns it into its oxide. Moisture and non- metallic impurities are released as volatile gases during roasting. Roasting is a solid-gas thermal reaction that includes pyrohydrolysis, oxidation, reduction, sulfation, and chlorination.

Question 35.
(A) Reeta was curious to know about solar furnaces. She asked the following questions to her teacher – Which type of mirrors are used in the design of solar furnaces? How high temperature is achieved by this device? Help to answer these questions.

(B) What are the characteristics of the images formed by convex mirrors? Draw ray diagram in support of your answer.

For each possible position of an object in the case of a concave mirror, draw ray diagrams. (5)
Answer:
(A) The type of mirrors that are used in the designing of solar furnaces are concave mirrors. High temperature is achieved by this device by placing a solar furnace at the focus of a large concave mirror, it focuses a parallel beam of light on the furnace. Therefore, a high temperature is attained at the point after some time.

(B) Convex mirrors always form diminished, virtual and erect images.

Question 36.
(A) Different hormones and secreted by different glands. Which hormones are secreted by thyroid, parathyroid and pancreas? Also mention functions of each hormone.

(B) Write the functions of a part of the hind brain – cerebellum. (5)
Answer:
(A) Thyroid secretes thyroxin.
Function: It plays an important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic rate. Parathyroid secretes Parathyroid hormone (PTH, also known as parathormone).

Function: The maintenance of the parathyroid hormone is necessary for the proper operation of the nervous and muscular systems. It regulates the levels of calcium and potassium in the blood. Pancreas secrete insulin and glucagon.

Function of insulin: Insulin is essential for maintaining the homeostasis of blood glucose levels.
Function of glucagon: it aids in keeping blood sugar levels normal.

(B) One of the important parts of hind brain is cerebellum that controls and coordinates the movements of our body and helps in adjusting the posture, it functions even when the person is asleep.

SECTION – E (12 MARKS)
(Qno. 37 to 39 are case – based/data -based questions with 2 co 3 short sub – parts. internai choice is provided in one of these sub-parts)

Question 37.
The following image shows the earth’s atmosphere and its lagers, and how it is protected from harmful UV radiations. Based on this answer the following questions: (4)

(A) One of the most serious issues is depletion of ozone layer in today’s world. Which is the most important chemical responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

(B) The surface of the earth is protected from ultraviolet radiations by the ozone layer present high up in the atmosphere. Justify the statement.

(B) Depletion of ozone layer results in many side effects. Write the effects of ozone layer depletion.
Answer:
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) is the most important chemical responsible for depletion of ozone layer. The ozone gets depleted by gaseous CFCs when they slowly rise into the stratosphere, they get broken down by strong ultraviolet radiation, release chlorine atoms, and then react with ozone molecules.

(B) The formation of ozone takes place when high energy UV radiations act on oxygen . molecules (O₂) and split it into oxygen atoms (O), that combines with the oxygen molecules to form ozone (O₃). Therefore, ozone protects earth from harmful UV radiations.

(B) The environment is negatively impacted by the ozone layer’s depletion. As the ozone layer thins, people will be directly exposed to the sun’s harmful ultraviolet radiation. Humans may experience severe – health problems as a result, including skin conditions, cancer, sunburns, cataracts, rapid ageing, and weakened immune systems.

Caution
Students usually don’t know that depletion of ozone layer causes harm to plants also. Strong ultraviolet rays may prevent plants from growing, flowering, or performing photosynthesis. The harmful effects of the ultraviolet rays must also be endured by the forests

Question 38.
The eye of a person is a remarkable organ. Our vision is a complex system with many intricate parts that all work together to produce a final product that almost everyone uses heavily on a daily basis. Despite the fact that we value our vision the most among all of our senses, surprisingly few people are aware of how our eyes function. When we look in the mirror, we can distinguish between the parts of the eye that are on the outside and those that are on the inside or farther away. The given picture is of a human eye. Based on the diagram given below answer the following questions: (4)

(A) Name the part labetted as A and B in the figure given above.
(B) Which part of the eye is responsible for the colour of the eye?
(C) Identity and write the function of part ‘D’.
OR
(C) Name the part of eye that contrails the amount of light entering the eye. The front transparent part of the sclera is labelled by which part ?
Answer:
(A) Part labelled A’ and ‘B’ is vitreous humour and crystalline lens respectively.

Caution
Students usually get confused with the structure of human eye and mark wrong answer. Structure of human eye is as shown below:

(B) The part labelled ‘C i.e., Iris is responsible for the colour of the eye.

(C) The part labelled ‘D’ is retina. It is a light sensitive screen which captures the light rays focused by the lens and sends impulses to the brain via the optic nerue.

(C) The part labelled ‘E’ is pupil. It opens and closes to control and regulate the amount of light. The part labelled ‘F’ i.e. cornea covers the front transparent part of the sclera. This membrane is quite thin. It refracts the Light entering the eye like a lens.

Question 39.
Sohan was studying about human male reproductive system and came across the following diagram. This system consists of Ureter Seminal vesicle different parts. (4)

Human-male reproductive system
(A) Name the male hormone responsible for male characteristics.
(B) The male reproductive system consists of a prostate, a pair of bulbourethral glands, a pair of seminal vesicles, accessory ducts, a pair of testes, and penis-shaped external genitalia. Where is this system located?
(C) What is the reason for location of Testes outside the abdominal cavity?
OR
(C) Sperms or spermatozoa are contained in sperm or seminal fluid, which is an organic fluid. What is the nature of semen?
Answer:
(A) The sex hormone testosterone has vital functions in the body. It is believed to control a man’s libido, bone mass, fat distribution, muscle mass and strength, as well as the creation of sperm and red blood cells.

Caution
Students usually don’t know that testosterone is also produced in females. Although small amounts are also produced by the adrenal glands in both sexes, testosterone is primarily produced by the gonads (by the Leydig cells in the testes in men and by the ovaries in women). Men have much higher levels of it than women do.

(B) The male reproductive system is located in the pelvis region, it includes a pair of testes along with accessory ducts, glands and the accessory or external genitalia,

(C) Testes (the site of spermatogenesis) are located outside the abdominal cavity because the process of spermatogenesis requires a lower temperature (2°C to 2.5°C) than the body. The scrotum or scrotal sac is the name of the pouch.

(C) Human zygote is a diploid cell having 2n number of chromosomes, formed by the fusion of human sperm and human egg. Thus, human zygote has 46 chromosomes, whereas human sperm (male gamete) formed by reduction division/meiosis, have only 23 chromosomes. Therefore, the ratio will be 2 :1.

Category: CBSE Sample Papers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 4 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 2 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 5 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 2 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 3 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 6 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Set 6 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Set 9 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Set 10 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 7 with Solutions