Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper contains 37 questions.
• Questions 1-20 in Section A are objective type-very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Questions 21 – 27 in Section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Questions 28 – 34 in Section C are long-answer 1 type questions carrying 3 marks each.
• Questions 35 – 37 in Section D are long-answer 11 type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in six questions of one mark, two questions of two marks, two questions of three marks and two questions of five marks. You must attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
• Use log tables, if necessary. Use of calculator is not allowed.

Section – A

Question 1.
The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro number. Which of the following element contains the greatest number of atoms ? [1]
(A) 4 g He
(B) 46 g Na
(C) 0.40 gCa
(D) 12 g He
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation :
Greater the number of moles, greater will be the number of atoms in an element.
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Given Mass }}{\text { Molecular Mass }}\)
Number of moles of 4 g He = \(\frac{4}{4}\) = 1 mol
Number of moles of46gNa = \(\frac{46}{23}\) = 2 mol
Number of moles of 0.40 g Ca = \(\frac{0.40}{40}\) = 0.01 mol
Number of moles of 12 g He = \(\frac{12}{4}\) = 3 mol
As, number of moles is highest in 12 g He. So it contains greatest number of atoms which is equal to no. of moles × avogadros number.

Commonly Made Error
Students usually do wrong calculations and : do mistake in writing the atomic mass of the elements in the calculation.

Answering Tips
Learn the atomic mass of elements and do not get confused with atomic number values of elements. Take care while doing calculations.

Question 2.
Number of n bonds and a bonds in the following structure is [1]

(A) 6,19
(B) 4,20
(C) 5,19
(D) 5,20
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation :
The given compound is naphthalene. Each double bond in a molecule consists of a sigma bond and a pl bond, therefore in naphthalene there are total 19 sigma bonds (6 c-c single bonds, 8 C-H single bonds and 5 from C=C bonds) and 5 pi bonds.

Commonly Mad. Error
Students make mistake in counting sigma bonds. They miss the sigma bond included in the pi bonds, which involve in the double bonds.

Answering Tip
Remember each double bond in a molecule consists of a sigma bond and a pi bond and all single bonds are sigma bonds.

Question 3.
The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is [1]
(A) [Xe] 4/3 5d⁵ 6s²
(B) [Xe] 4/7 5d² 6s¹
(C) [Xe] 4/7 5d¹ 6s²
(D) [Xe] 4/8 5d⁶ 6s²
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation :
Gadolinium (Gd, Z = 64), belongs to 6th period, / block. The expected electronic configuration of Gadolinium [Xe]4/86s, but the observed electronic configuration is [Xe]4f 5dl6s2. This is because half filled orbital is more stable than the partially filled orbital. As 5d and 6/ orbitals are close with less energy difference, 1 electron from 4/ orbital (expected to have 8e) jumps to 5d orbital making it 5d1 making 4/ orbital half filled with high stability (as per Hund’s rule exactly of maximum multiplicity).

Commonly Made Error
Students usually select wrong choice having in mind Gadolinium’s expected configuration.

Answering Tips
Some elements deviate from their expected electronic configuration to attain stable configuration as per Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. Please make a list of such elements and study them to avoid such mistakes.

Question 4.
Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect ? [1]
(A) It is a negatively charged particle.
(B) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
(C) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
(D) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
OR
Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or trajectories of electrons?
(A) Pauli’s exclusion Principle.
(B) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
(C) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
(D) Aufbau principle.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation :
The mass of electron is very small in comparison to the mass of neutron.

OR

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, the position and velocity of an electron cannot be determined simultaneously with accuracy which rules out the existence of fixed paths.

Question 5.
The oxidation state of elements Cl₂, O₃, P₄, S₈, Na, Mg, Al is [1]
(A) +2
(B) +3
(C) 0
(D) -1
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Elements in free or uncombine state has oxidation state “0”.

Question 6.
In the reaction, when H₂ combines with O₂ to form water, there is an electron transfer from: [1]
(A) Oz to H₂O
(B) H to O
(C) O to H
(D) No electron transfer
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
The H atom goes from a neutral (zero) state in H2 to a positive state in H₂O.

Read the passage given below and answer the questions given below it: (1 × 4 = 4)
The branch of science dealing with the relations between energy, heat, work and accompanying changes in the nature and behaviour of various substances around us is called thermodynamics. The main aim of the study of chemical thermodynamics is to learn (i) transformation of energy from one form into another form, (ii) utilization of various forms of energy and (iii) changes in the properties of systems produced by chemical or physical effects. Laws of thermodynamics apply only when a system is in equilibrium or moves from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state. Macroscopic properties like pressure and temperature do not change with time for a system in equilibrium state.
Answer the questions from (7) to (10):

Question 7.
A system which can neither exchange matter nor energy with the surroundings is called : [1]
(A) Open system
(B) Isolated system
(C) Closed system
(D) Ideal system
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
In an isolated system, there is no exchange of energy or matter between the system and the surroundings.

Question 8.
Which of the following is intensive property? [1]
(A) Molarity
(B) Temperature
(C) Density
(D) All of these
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation :
An intensive property, is a physical property of a system that does not depend on the system size or the amount of material in the system.

Question 9.
Temperature and heat are: [1]
(A) Extensive properties
(B) Intensive properties
(C) Intensive and extensive properties respectively
(D) Extensive and intensive properties respectively
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
An extensive property is a property that depends on the amount of matter in a sample, e.g., Mass, volume and heat are examples of extensive properties. An intensive property is a property of matter that depends only on the type of matter in a sample and not on the amount, e.g., Pressure and temperature.

Question 10.
In adiabatic process: [1]
(A) q > 0
(B) q = 1
(C) q = 0
(D) q < 0
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Adiabatic process is the change occurring within a system as a result of transfer of energy to or from the system in the form of work only, i.e., no heat is transferred.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate maintains a constant value of pH on addition of small amounts of acid or alkali.
Reason (R): A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate acts as a buffer solution around pH 4.75. [1]
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group.
Reason (R): Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the added electron would be farther from the nucleus. [1]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we move down a group except that of O and F. This is because when an electron is added to O or F₁ the added electron goes to the smaller n = 2 quantum level and suffers significant repulsion from the other electrons present in this level.

Question 13.
Arrange the following in increasing order of stability; [1]
(CH₃)₃C+, CH₃CH₂CH₂C⁺H , CH₃CH₂C⁺HCH₃, CH₃C⁺H₂, CH₃CH₂C⁺H₂
Answer:
CH₃C⁺H₂ < CH₃CH₂C⁺H₂ < CH₃CH₂H₂C⁺H₂ < CH₃CH₂C⁺HCH₃ < (CH₃)₃C⁺

Question 14.
Electronegativity of F > Cl > Br > I, why? [1]
Answer:
F, Cl, Br and I exist in a group. As we know that electronegativity decreases from top to bottom in a group because the force of attraction between the outermost electron and the nucleus decreases. So, relative order of electronegativity is Cl > F > Br > I.

Commonly Made Error
Students generally confuse with the order of electronegativity and do mistakes.

Answering Tip
Learn and understand thoroughly the periodic properties and trends to avoid mistakes.

Question 15.
Arrange the following in increasing order of -1 effect.
—NO₂, —COOH, —F, —CN, —I.
Answer:
—I < —F < —COOH < —CN < —NO₂.

Question 16.
Give different isomers of C₄H₁₀ with their IUPAC names. [1]
Answer:
The isomers of C4H10 with their IUPAC names are written below.

Question 17.
Write IUPAC names of the products obtained the ozonolysis of 3,4-dimethyl hept-3-ene. [1]
OR
Complete the following equation:
CaC₂ + 2H₂O → ________ + ________
Answer:
The products obtained by the ozonolysis of 3,4-dimethyl hept-3-ene are butanone and pentan- 2-one.

OR
CaC₂ + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + C₂H₂

Question 18.
SO₃^2- is Bronsted base or acid and why ?
Answer:
SO₃^2- is a Bronsted base because it can accept proton (H⁺).

Question 19.
Why is cyclopropane more reactive than propane ? [1]
Answer:
In cyclopropane, the three carbon ring forms an equilateral triangle, with bond angle 60° which is much less compared to the normal tetrahedral bond angle of 109.5° for sp3 hybridised carbon. Therefore, the cyclopropane molecule is very much strained and compressed and hence more reactive.

Question 20.
Write balanced equations for : 1
(i) BF₃ + LiH →
OR
Write balanced equations for :
(ii) B₂H₆ + H₂O →
Answer:
(i) 2BF₃ + 6LiH → B₂H₆ + 6LiF
OR
(ii) B₂H₆ + 6H₂O → 2B(OH)₃(aq) + 6H₂(g)

Commonly Made Error
Usually students forget to balance the equation or make errors while balancing.

Answering Tip
Make a list of important reactions, learn and practice balancing these reactions. Remember to always balance a chemical reaction.

Section – B

Question 21.
How did Bohr’s model of an atom explains:
(i) the stability of the atom
(ii) origin of the spectral lines in H-atom? [2]
Answer:
(i) The electron in the atom can move around the nucleus in a circular path of fixed radius and energy. These paths are called orbits, stationary states or allowed energy states. These orbits are arranged concentrically around the nucleus. Radiation can occur only when the electron jump from one orbit to another. The atom will be completely stable in the state with the smallest orbit, since there is no orbit of lower energy into which the electron can jump.
(ii) According to Bohr’s model, radiation (energy) is absorbed if the electron moves from the orbit of smaller Principal quantum number to the orbit of higher Principal quantum number, whereas the radiation (energy) is emitted if the electron moves from higher orbit to lower orbit. It explains the origin of spectral lines in H-atom.

Question 22.
Arrange benzene, n-hexane and ethyne in decreasing order of acidic behaviour. Also give reason for this behaviour. [2]
Answer:
Acidic character of a species is defined on the basis of ease with which it can lose its H- atoms. The hybridisation state of carbon in the given compound is :

As the s-character increases, the electronegativity of carbon increases and the electrons of C-H bond pair lie closer to the carbon atom. As a result, partial positive charge of H- atom increases and H+ ions ^are set free. The s-character increases in the order :
sp³ < sp² < sp Hence, the decreasing order of acidic behaviour is Ethyne > Benzene > n-Hexane.

Commonly Made Error
Students confuses themselves and write the decreasing order of acidic behaviour wrongly.

Answering Tip
Understand the concept of s-character in the compound with the help of hybridization carbon atom, which contains acidic hydrogen and then correlate with acidic behaviour.

Question 23.
Give the IUPAC name of :
(a) (CH₃)₂(C₂H₅)C-(CH₂)₃-C(CH₃)₃
(b) ortho-chloro anisole
OR
Write structural formulae for compounds named as: [2]
(a) 1-Bromoheptane
(b) 5-Bromoheptanoic acid
Answer:
(a) 2,2,6, 6 – tetramethyl octane (C₂H₅)C—(CH₂)₃—C(CH₃)₃
Or

Question 24.
Write any two chemical similarities between lithium and magnesium.
OR
What is diagonal relationship? What are its main causes? [2]
Answer:
(i) Both lithium and magnesium react slowly with water. Their oxides and hydroxides are less soluble in water.
(ii) Both are harder and lighter than other elements in the group.
OR
In addition to horizontal and vertical trends in a periodic table; there is a diagonal relationship between certain sets of elements (Li and Mg, Be and Al, B and Si) that have upper left/lower right relative location in the periodic table. These pairs of elements share similar size and electronegativity, resulting in similar properties.
Diagonal relationship is due to the increase in the charge in the ion and decrease in the size of ion as we move along the period.

Question 25.
How many significant figures are present in the answer of the following calculations: [2]
(i) 0.0125 + 0.8250 + 0.025
(ii) \(\frac{0.025 \times 298.15 \times 0.1155}{0.5785}\)
Answer:
(i) 0.0125 + 0.8250 + 0.025 = 0.8625 = 0.863
∵ 0.025 has three digits including zero after the decimal point so, the result should be reported only upto three digits after the decimal point. Therefore, there are three significant figures in the answer.

(ii) \(\frac{0.025 \times 298.15 \times 0.1155}{0.5785}\)
= \(\frac{0.860908125}{0.5785}\)
= 1.48817
= 1.49
∵298.15 has two digits after the decimal point so, the result should be reported only upto two digits after the decimal point.
So, there are three significant figures.

Question 26.
The species H₂O, HCO₃, HSO₄ and NH₃ can act both as Bronsted acid and bases. For each case give the corresponding conjugate acid and base. [2]
Answer:

Commonly Made Error
Students confuse and make mistake in writing the corresponding conjugate base and conjugate acid for the species.

Answering Tip
Be clear that addition of H⁺ ion from the species gives conjugate acids and subtraction of H⁺ ion from the species gives conjugate bases.

Question 27.
Illustrate by taking examples of transition elements and non-transition elements that oxidation states of elements are largely based on electronic configuration. [2]
Answer:
Oxidation state of an element depends upon the number of electrons present in the outermost shell of (8 – no. of valence shell electrons).

Examples:
Alkali metals (Group-1):
General electronic configuration = ns¹
Oxidation state = +1

Alkaline Earth metals (Group-2):
General electronic configuration = ns²
Oxidation state = + 2

Group 13 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns²np³
Oxidation state = + 3 and + 1

Group 14 elements :
General electronic configuration = ns²np²
Oxidation state = + 4, + 2

Group 15 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns²np³
Oxidation states = -3, + 3 and + 5
Nitrogen (N) also shows +1, +2 and +4 oxidation states.

Group 16 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns²np⁴
Oxidation states = -2, +2, + 4 and + 6

Group 17 Elements:
General electronic configuration = ns2np5 Oxidation state = -1
Cl, Br and I also show +1, +3, +5 and + 7 oxidation states.

Group 18 elements:
General electronic configuration = ns2np6 Oxidation state = 0
Transition elements (d-block elements)
General electronic configuration = (n- 1 )d^1-10 ns^1-2
The elements show variable oxidation states.
Most common oxidation states are +2 and +3.

Commonly Made Error
Students get confuse and do mistake in writing the oxidation states.

Answering Tip
Learn thoroughly the electronic configuration of each group and from which it is easy to find the oxidation states. Make a list of some elements which show exceptional oxidation states.

Section – C

Question 28.
Give one example which has the following geometry on the basis of VSEPR theory :
(a) Linear
(b) Trigonal planar
(c) Tetrahedral
(d) Pyramidal
(e) T-shape
(f) Square planar
OR
(a) Discuss the shapes of PH, and AsFs using VSEPR theory.
(b) Define antibonding molecular orbital.
Answer:

Commonly Made Error:
Students give wrong examples for the shape and make mistakes.

Answering Tip
Make a list of types of molecules with their hybridization, shape and their examples in this chapter and learn them.

OR

(a) PH₃ : sp³ hybridisation,
Pyramidal shape.

AsF₅: sp³d Hybridisation
Trigonal bipyramidal shape.

(b) The molecular orbital formed by the subtractive effect of the electron waves of the combining atomic orbitals is called antibonding molecular orbital.

Question 29.
How were cathode rays discovered ? With the help of suitable experiments show that:
(i) Cathode rays travel in straight lines,
(ii) Cathode rays consists of material particles,
(iii) Cathode rays consists of negatively charged particles.
Answer:
Faraday began to study electrical discharge in partially evacuated tubes, known as cathode ray discharge tubes. A cathode ray tube is made of glass containing two thin pieces of metal, called electrodes, sealed in it. The electrical discharge through the gases could be observed only at very low pressures and at very high voltages. When sufficiently high voltage is applied across the electrodes, current starts flowing through a stream of particles moving in the tube from the negative electrode (cathode) to the positive electrode (anode). These were called cathode rays or cathode ray particles.

The results of these experiments are summarised below:
(i) In the absence of electrical or magnetic field, cathode rays travel in straight lines.
(ii) The characteristics of cathode rays (electrons) do not depend upon the material of electrodes and the nature of the gas present in the cathode ray tube.
(iii) In the presence of electrical or magnetic field, the behaviour of cathode rays are similar to that expected from negatively charged particles, suggesting that the cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles, called electrons.

Question 30.
The combustion of one mole of benzene takes place at 298 K and 1 atm. After combustion, C0₂(g) and H₂O(1) are produced and 3267.0 kj of heat is liberated. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation, Δ_fH° of benzene. Standard enthalpies of formation of C0₂(g) and H₂O(1) are – 393.5 kJ mol^-1 and – 285.83 kj mol^-1 respectively.
(a) Name the hybridisation involved in –
(b) Why dipole moment of CO₂ is zero while H₂0 is a polar though both have similar formula?
(c) Calculate the bond order for N₂ molecule.
Answer:
Reaction for the formation of benzene,
6C(graphites) + 3H₂(g) > C₆H₆(1), Δ_fH° = ? …………(i)

The enthalpy of combustion of 1 mol of benzene is :
C₆H₆(l) + \(\frac{15}{2}\)0₂(g) → 6C0₂(g) + 3H₂O(l); Δ_CH° = -3267 kj mol^-1 … (ii)

The enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of C0₂(g)
C(graphite,s) + 0₂(g) → CO₂(g);
Δ_fH° = – 393.5 kj mol^-1 …(iii)

The enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of H20(1) is :
H₂(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂(g) → H₂O(l);
Δ_fH° = – 285.83 kj mol^-1 …(iv)

Multiplying eq. (iii) by 6 and eq. (iv) by 3, we get
6C(graphite,s) + 6O₂(g) → 6CO₂(g), ΔfH° = -2361 kj mol^-1
3H₂(g) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)O₂(g) → 3H₂O(l); Δ_fH° = – 857.49 kj mol^-1

On adding above equations,
6C(graphite,s) + 3H₂(g) + \(\frac{15}{2}\)O₂(g) → 6CO₂(g) + 3H₂O(l); Δ_fH° = – 3218.49 kj mol^-1 ……(v)

On reversing eq. (ii)
6C0₂(g) + 3H₂O(l) → C₆H₆(1) + \(\frac{15}{2}\) O₂(g); Δ_fH° = 3267kj mol^-1 …(vi)

On adding equation (v) and (vi), we get
6C(graphite,s) + 3H2(g) → C6H6(1); Δ_fH° = 48.51 kj mol^-1

Standard enthalpy of formation of benzene
(Δ_fH°) = 48.51 kj mol^-1

Commonly Made Error
Students make mistake in writing the equations for formation of benzene, enthalpy of combustion of benzene, carbon dioxide and water.

Answering Tip
Understand the problem and practice writing the necessary equations required for the problem with enthalpy values. It is very important. Then practice further steps for the calculation.

Question 31.
(a) Name the hybdisation involved in –
(i) C₂H₂
(ii) SF₆
(b) Why dipole moment of CO₂ is zero while H₂O is a polar though both have similar formula?
(c) Calculate the bond order for N molecule.
Answer:
(a) (i) C₂H₂ – sp hybridisation
(ii) SF₆ – sp³d² hybridisation

(b) Due to sp hybridisation, geometry of CO₂ molecule is linear. So, the resultant dipole moment becomes zero.

But H₂O has sp³ hybridisation and possesses bent structure due to which the dipole moment adds up. Hence, H₂O is polar molecule.

(c) Bond order on N₂⁺:
NN₂⁺: No. of electrons = 14 – 1 = 13
Molecular orbital configuration:

Question 32.
If two elements can combine to form more than one compound, the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element, are in whole number ratio.
(a) Is this statement true?
(b) If yes, according to which law?
(c) Given one example related to this law.
Answer:
(a) Yes, this statement is true.
(b) This statement is according to the law of multiple proportions.
(c) Hydrogen combines with oxygen to form two compounds, namely, water and hydrogen peroxide.

Hydrogen + Oxygen → Water

Hydrogen + Oxygen → Hydrogen peroxide

Here, the masses of oxygen (i.e., 16 g and 32 g) which combine with a fixed mass of hydrogen (2g) bear a simple ratio, i.e. 16 : 32 or 1: 2.

Commonly Made Error:
Students many times do mistake in giving correct examples.

Answering Tip
Understand the basic concept of law of multiple proportions with examples. This will help them to write better.

Question 33.
(i) What is the main difference between electromagnetic wave theory and Planck’s quantum theory ?
(ii) Which mle is violated in the following orbital diagram :

OR
(a) Which has more energy of electron:
(i) Last electron of Cl^– or last electron of O^2-.
(ii) n = 4, l = 3 or n = 5, l = 2.
(b) Write the electronic configuration for:
(i) Mn²⁺
(ii) S^2-
Answer:
(i) Electromagnetic wave theory : Energy is radiated or absorbed continuously.
Planck’s quantum theory: Energy is radiated or absorbed not continuously but discontinuously in the form of small packets called quanta or photons.

(ii) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity is being violated.

OR

(a) (i) Electronic Configuration :
Cl^– = 2,8, 8 = 1s²,2s²2p⁶, 3s²3p⁶
O^2- = 2,8 = 1s², 2s²sp⁶
The last electron of Cl^– occurs in 3p sub-shell and last electron of O^2- occurs in 2p sub-shell. As we know that, according to Aufbau principle, 3p sub-shell has more energy than 2p sub-shell. Therefore, last electron of Cl^– has more energy of electron.

(ii) n = 4, l = 3 represent 4f
n = 5, l = 2 represent 5 p
According to Aufbau principle, the energy of 4/ is more than 5p. So, n = 4, l = 3 has more energy

(b) (i) Mn²⁺ = 1s²,2s²2p⁶,3s²3p⁶3d⁵
(ii) S^2- = 1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s²3I⁶

Question 34.
Calculate the pH of a solution which is 0.1 M in HA and 0.5 M in NaA. Kfl for HA is 1.8 × 10^-6 ?
Answer:

Question 35.
Define the following:
(a) Standard enthalpy of formation (Δ_fH°).
(b) Standard enthalpy of combustion (Δ_cH°).
The reaction 2C + O₂ → 2CO is carried out by taking 24.0 g of carbon and 96.0 of 02.
Find out
(a) Which reactant is left in excess?
(b) How much of it is left?
(c) How many grams of the other reactant should be taken so that nothing is left at the end of the reaction?
OR
Define the following:
(a) Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
(b) First law of thermodynamics.
Find out whether it is possible to reduce MgO using carbon at 298 K. If not, at what temperature it becomes spontaneous. For reaction
MgO(s) + C(s) > Mg(s) + CO(g)
Δ_rH° = 91-18 kj/mol,
Δ_rS° = 197.67 JK^-1 mol^-1.
Answer:
(i) (a) Enthalpy change accompanying the formation of 1 mole of a compound from its constituent elements, all substances being in their standard states (1 bar pressure and 298 K).
(b) It is the enthalpy change accompanying the complete combustion of one mole of a substance in excess of oxygen or air.

(ii) (a)

24 g of carbon will react with 32 g of 0₂ to from 56 g of CO.
So, oxygen is left in excess. (1)
(b) Amount of oxygen left = 96 – 32 = 64 g
(c) Mass of other reactant = 96 – 24 = 72 g
OR
(i) (a) Hess’s law of constant heat summation :
According to Hess’s law, If a reaction takes place in several steps then its standard reaction enthalpy is the . sum of the standard enthalpies of the intermediate reactions into which the overall reaction may be divided at the same temperature.
(b) According to first law of thermodynamics, energy can neither be created nor be destroyed although it may be changed from one form to another.

(ii) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
= 91.18 × 10³ – 298 × 197.67
= 91180 – 58905.66
= 32274.34 J/mol
For reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG should be negative. Temperature should be greater than 298 K for reaction to be spontaneous.

Question 36.
(i) Why 3° carbocation are more stable than 1° carbocation ?
(ii) Compare inductive and electromeric effects.
(iii) Why CCl₃COOH is a stronger acid than (CH₃)₃CCOOH ?
(iv) Define the term nucleophile.
(v) Draw the resonance structure of aniline, using curved arrow for electronic movements. [5]
Answer:
(i) Tertiary carbocation has three electron repelling alkyl groups. This increases +1 effect on carbon and reduces the positive charge making it more stable.

(ii) Inductive effect describes the transmission of electrical charges between atoms in a molecule whereas electromeric effect describes the transmission of electron pairs between atoms in a molecule. Inductive effect is affected by electronegativity values of atoms whereas electromeric effect is caused by the number of double bonds and their arrangement.

(iii) CCl₃COOH is a stronger acid than (CH₃)₃CCOOH due to presence of three -I effect causing group (-Cl) which increases the acidic strength. Whereas (CH₃)₃COOH contains three +1 effect causing group (-CH₃) which decreases the acidic strength.

(iv) Nucleophile: A reagent that brings an electron pair to the reactive site is called a nucleophile (Nu:), i.e., nucleus seeking.
Negatively charged nucleophile- hydroxide (OH”), cyanide (CN”), etc. Neutral nucleophile-

Section – D

Question 37.
(a) Propanal and pentan-3-one are the ozonolysis products of an alkene? What is the structural formula of the alkene ?
(b) Draw the cis and trans structures of hex-2-ene. Which isomer will have higher b.p. and why ? [5]
OR
(a) Write down the products of ozonolysis of 1, 2-dimethylbenzene (o-xylene). How does the result support Kekule structure for benzene ?
(b) Which of the following compounds will show cis-trans isomerism ?
(i) (CH₃)₂C = CH-C₂H₅
(ii) H₂C = CBr₂
(iii) C₆H₅CH = CHCH₃
(iv) H₃C – CH = (CClCH₃)
Answer:
(a) As per the given information, propanal and pentan-3-one are the ozonolysis products of an alkene. Let the given alkene be ‘A’. Writing the reverse of the ozonolysis reaction, we get:

The products are obtained on the cleavage of ozonide ‘X’. Hence, ‘X’ contains both products in the cyclic form. The possible structure of ozonide can be represented as:

Now, ‘X’ is an addition product of alkene ‘A’ with ozone. Therefore, the possible structure of alkene ‘A’ is:

Commonly Made Error
Some students do not understand the concept and write wrong structure for ozonide.

Answering Tip
Students must understand the concept of Ozonolysis and reverse of Ozonolysis.

(b) Geometrical isomers of hex-2-ene are :
im-23
The dipole moment of ds-compound is a sum of the dipole moments of C-CH₃ and C- CH₂ CH₂CH₂ bonds acting in the same direction. The dipole moment of frans-compound is the resultant of the dipole moments of C-CH₃ and C-CH₂CH₂CH₃ bonds acting in opposite directions. Hence, cis- isomer is more polar than trans-isomer. The higher the polarity, the greater is the intermolecular dipole-dipole interaction and the higher will be the boiling point. Hence, ds-isomer will have a higher boiling point than fraws-isomer.

Commonly Made Error
Some students draw incorrect isomer structures.

Answering Tip
Understand how the dipole moment is affected when the substituents are on the same side and on the different sides.

OR
(a) o-xylene has two resonance structures :
im-24
All three products, i.e., methyl glyoxal, 1, 2-dimethylglyoxal and glyoxal are obtained from two Kekule structures. Since, all three products cannot be obtained from any one of the two structures, this proves that o-xylene is a resonance hybrid of two Kekule structures.

(b) The compounds which show cis-trans isomerism are (iii) and (iv).
im-25
Alkenes (i) and (ii) have identical atoms or groups on one of the carbon atoms of the double bond and hence do not show geometrical isomerism. In contrast, alkenes (iii) and (iv) have different atoms or groups on each carbon atom of the double bond and hence, exhibit geometrical isomerism.

Commonly Made Error
Students get confused and select incorrect choice.

Answering Tip
In cis -trans isomerism different groups are ! attached on carbon atom.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.

1. Section A consists of Questions 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section B consists of Questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
3. Section C consists of Questions 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Section D consists of Questions 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is an internal choice available.
5. Section E consists of Questions 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

Section – A (18 marks)

Question 1.
Identify the asana: [1]

(a) Paschimottanasana
(b) Halasana
(c) Vajrasana
(d) Dhanurasana
Answer:
(d) Dhanurasana

Explanation: It is a back-bending asana in hatha yoga.

Question 2.
A person who likes to learn new things, new concepts, and new experiences is categorized as [1]
(a) Agreeableness
(b) Extroversion
(c) Conscientiousness
(d) Openness
Answer:
(d) Openness

Explanation: People who tend to be high in the trait of openness are open-minded and approach new things with curiosity and tend to seek out novelty.

Question 3.
Cartwheel in gymnastics is an example of_______. [1]
(a) Static Equilibrium
(b) Dynamic Equilibrium
(c) Active Equilibrium
(d) Passive Equilibrium
Answer:
(b) Dynamic Equilibrium

Explanation: Cartwheels are commonly performed in gymnastics in the floor exercise and on the balance beam.

Question 4.
Slowtwitch fibers are_______in color. [1]
(a) White
(b) Red
(c) Transparent
(d) Brown
Answer:
(b) Red

Explanation: Slow twitch fibers are also called red fibers because they contain more blood carrying myoglobin.

Question 5.
Jumping on the spot is an example of_______. [1]
(a) Iso-metric
(b) Iso-tonic
(c) Iso-kinetic
(d) Iso-kinesthetic
Answer:
(b) Iso-tonic

Explanation: It is a type of muscle contraction in exercise physiology.

Question 6.
Take-off in a Long jump is an example of_______strength. [1]
(a) Explosive strength
(b) Maximum strength
(c) Strength endurance
(d) Static strength
Answer:
(a) Explosive strength

Explanation: Explosive strength is the speed at which you can use your strength.

Question 7.
The amount of oxygen that can be absorbed and consumed by the working muscles from the blood is called_______. [1]
(a) Oxygen Uptake
(b) Oxygen Intake
(c) Oxygen Transport
(d) Vital capacity
Answer:
(a) Oxygen Uptake

Explanation: It is a measure of a person’s ability to take in oxygen through the respiratory system and deliver it to the working tissues via the cardiovascular system and the ability to work tissues to use oxygen.

Question 8.
In the Law of Acceleration, the acceleration of an object is inversely proportionate to its_______. [1]
(a) Force
(b) Mass
(c) Speed
(d) Size
Answer:
(b) Mass

Explanation: According to the law of force and acceleration, a force upon an object causes it to accelerate according to the formula i.e., net force = mass x acceleration.

Question 9.
Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Intrinsic motivation has long-term benefits.
Reason (R): As factors behind it are naturally pursuing actions that provide fun, pleasure, fulfillment, or challenge In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? [1]
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Intrinsic motivation gives a positive emotional return, because it’s fun or because it’s something you take pride in.

Question 10.
Carbohydrates are soluble in water and crystalline in structure. [1]
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(d) Complicated
Answer:
(a) Simple

Explanation: Simple carbohydrates are broken down quickly by the body to be used as energy.

Question 11.
Which among these is not a micromineral? [1]
(a) Iodine
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) Magnesium

Explanation: Magnesium is a macro mineral Macro minerals are present at larger levels in the animal body.

Question 12.
Which asana is helpful in increasing height? [1]
(a) Sukhasana
(b) Tadasana
(c) Bhujangasana
(d) Vajrasana
Answer:
(b) Tadasana

Explanation: Tadasana is one of the simplest yoga poses that can help you increase your height.

Question 13.
How many byes will be given if there are 17 teams? [1]
(a) 1
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 12
Answer:
(c) 15

Explanation: No. of teams = 17 = N
No. of matches = N -1 = 16
Total no. of Byes = 2N- 17 = 32- 17 = 15.

Question 14.
How many matches will be played in the knockout tournament’s first round if there are 15 teams? [1]
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 7

Explanation: The number of knockout matches is always one less than a number of participating teams.

Question 15.
Watching others play and enjoy which in turn motivates the child with special needs to participate is a part of which kind of strategy? [1]
(a) Menta
(b) Physical
(c) Psychological
(d) Social
Answer:
(d) Social

Explanation: Watching others play and enjoy is one of the most effective ways to motivate a child to participate.

Question 16.
Match the following: [1]

	Column (A)		Column (B)
(I)	Garudasana	(1)	Round shoulder
(II)	Gomukhasana	(2)	Lordosis
(III)	Chakrasana	(3)	Bow legs
(IV)	Naukasana	(4)	Knock knees

(a) (l)-(3), (ll)-(4), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(2)
(b) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(2)
(c) (l)-(4), (ll)-(2), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(3)
(d) (l)-(2), (II)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(1)
Answer:
(a) (l)-(3), (ll)-(4), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(2)

Question 17.
Match the following: [1]

	Column (A)		Column (B)
(I)	Chair stand test	(1)	Lower Body Strength
(II)	Arm curl test	(2)	Aerobic Endurance
(III)	Back scratch test	(3)	Upper body strength
(IV)	Six-minute walk test	(4)	Upper body flexibility

(a) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(2)
(b) (l)-(2), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(1), (IV)-(4)
(c) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(2), (IV)-(4)
(d) (l)-(2), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(1)
Answer:
(a) (l)-(1), (ll)-(3), (lll)-(4), (IV)-(2)

Question 18.
Weakening of bones due to loss of bone density and improper bone formation is known as_______. [1]
(a) Amenorrhea
(b) Anorexia Nervosa
(c) Osteoporosis
(d) Lordosis
Answer:
(c) Osteoporosis

Explanation: Osteoporosis is a condition in which bones become weak and brittle. New bone creation doesn’t keep up with old bone removal.

Section – B (10 marks)

Question 19.
List down any four effects of exercise on the muscular system. [2]
Answer:

Explanation: Four effects of exercise on the muscular system are:
(1) Exercise builds and strengthens muscles, which protect the bones from injury.
(2) It improves blood supply to the muscles and increases their capacity to use oxygen.
(3) Exercise lubricates joint D and reduces stiffness.
(4) It increases muscular endurance and cardiovascular health.

Question 20.
List down any four benefits of self-talk by athletes in sports. [2]
Answer:
The benefits of self-talk by athletes in sports are as follows:
(1) Building and developing self-efficacy
(2) Skill acquisition
(3) Creating and changing mood
(4) Controlling efforts
(5) Focusing attention

Question 21.
List down any four advantages of the fartlek training method. [2]
Answer:
The following are the advantages of the Fartlek training method:
(1) Develops strength and endurance.
(2) Appropriate form of training for most sports.
(3) Can be adjusted to suit age, fitness and health of the athlete.
(4) Exercises are simple enough to make each athlete feel a sense of achievement in completing them.
(5) A wide range of exercises to select from which will maintain the athlete’s enthusiasm.
(6) Can be done in a group.

The following are the Disadvantages fartlek training method:
(1) Many exercises require specialized equipment e.g., gym equipment.
(2) Ample space required to set up the circuit exercises and equipment.
(3) In general can only be conducted where appropriate facilities/equipment are available.
(4) Use of additional equipment requires appropriate health and safety monitoring.

Question 22.
Explain any two types of soft tissue injuries with the help of examples. [2]
Answer:
A soft tissue injury is the damage of muscles, ligaments, and tendons throughout the body.

Explanation:
(1) Abrasion: Abrasions are superficial injuries of the skin and visceral linings in the body, resulting in a break in the continuity of tissue. These are the simplest of injuries in terms of heating, with most injuries being confined to the epidermis and resulting in minial bleeding at the most. Examples include scrapednee, road rash, and injuries that a cheese grater or sandpaper could create.
(2) Contrusion: Also called bruise, in caused by a direct blow to the body that can cause damage to the surface of the skin and to deeper tissues as well depending on the severity of the blow. Examples include blunt trauma, injury, recent IV use or drawing blood.

Question 23.
Write down the objectives and administration of the flamingo test. [2]

Question 24.
What should be the basic nutrient in a weightlifter’s diet and why? [2]

Proteins

Proteins build and repair body cells Proteins form part of various  enzymes, hormones, and antibodies  Also provide energy (4 Kcal/g)

Milk and milk product fish, eggs, poultry, meat, legumes and grains

Explanation: Protein is an important nutrient that helps in rebuilding muscle strength and accelerates recovery. This is the reason why weight lifters need it to heal their muscles so that they don’t suffer micro tears. Protein is found in animal products, such as beef, chicken, eggs, dairy, fish and seafood, and some plant sources, like beans, lentils, whole grains, and soya. The main role of protein is to build and repair muscle. Proteins give a constant supply of nutrients to the muscles and also keeps energy level on an even keel.

Section – C (15 marks)

Question 25.
Create a mind map including any six advantages of physical activities for children with special needs. [3]
Answer:
Six advantages of physical activities for children with special needs

Explanation: Six advantages of physical activities for children with special needs are:
(1) It strengthens the heart muscle thereby improving cardiovascular efficiency.
(2) Physical activity develops social relationships with other children, teammates, and teachers.
(3) It improves the stamina of children.
(4) It increases stability.
(5) It improves bone health.
(6) It also improves strength.

Question 26.
What are carbohydrates? Differentiate between its types. [3]
Answer:
Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen. Carbohydrates are a major source of energy.
Type of Carbohydrates:
(1) Monosaccharide,
(2) Disaccharides
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) Simple sugars
(Mono and disaccharides) are found in fruits (sucrose, glucose and fructose), milk (lactose) and sweets that are produced commercially and added to foods to sweeten, prevent spoilage or improve structure and texture. Polysaccharides are more than two units of monosaccharide joined together. These are starches and fibre (cellulose). These are also called complex sugars and are found in whole grain cereals, rice, oats, potatoes, bread, legumes, corn and flour.

Question 27.
Define bye. Explain the rules of giving bye with help of an example. [3]
Answer:
Bye is the position of a participant in a tournament who is not paired with an opponent, usually in the first round, and advanced to the next round without playing The right to proceed to the next round of a competition without contesting the present round, often through non-appearance of an opponent. Allotment of byes in the fixture should be given in following order:

• First byes will be given to last team of Lower Half,
• Second byes will be given to first team of Upper Half,
• Third byes will be given to first team of lower Half,
• Fourth byes will be given to last team of Upper Half

Same pattern will be followed after fourth bye till the remaining byes have been given.

Question 28.
Make a table explaining any three personalities from Big five theory and their characteristics. [3]
Answer:

Trait	Description
Openness	Being curious, original, intellectual, creative and open to new ideas.
Conscientiousness	Being organized, systematic, punctual achievement oriented, and dependable
Extraversion	Being outgoing, talkative, sociable and enjoying social situations.
Agreeableness	Fleeing affable, tolerant, sensitive, trusting, kind
Neuroticism	Being anxious, irritable, temperamental and moody.

Question 29.
Explain any three physiological factors determining strength. [3]
Answer:
Strength: Strength component has varied subtypes like maximum strength, Explosive strength, Strength, Endurance etc. Each has different types of exercise, intensity and duration so physiological factors vary. In games like weightlifting, jumps, sprint or power, agility and strength-dominating sports where force production is high, fatigue is quick, and fast twitch fibre percentage must be high in muscles. ATP-CP system or anaerobic system works to produce energy for strength training. Stroke volume (the volume of blood pumped out of the Left ventricle of the heart during each systolic cardiac contraction) is a vital parameter as far as cardiovascular system is concerned.

Explanation: Three physiological factors for determining strength are:

(1) Muscle composition: There are two types of fibres in muscles i.e., fast-twitch fibres and slow-twitch fibres.
(2) Size of the muscle: The strength of an individual depends on the size of muscle.
(3) Body weight: There is a positive relation between body weight and strength.

Question 30.
What is the meaning of female athletes Triad? Explain any two in brief. [3]
Answer:
Female Athlete Triad

(A) disordered eating
(B) amenorrhea and
(C) osteoporosis

Explanation: The female athlete triad is an interrelationship of menstrual dysfunction low energy availability and decreased bone mineral density. It is common among young women participating in sports.

(1) Disordered Eating: It includes a range of irregular eating behaviours that do not necessarily meet criterion for severe disorders, such as anorexia nervasa and bulimin nervosa is also fairly common in the athletic community.

(2) Menstrual Dysfuction: Menstrual dysfunction in the female athlete includes a wide spectrum of disorders. The most common menstrual at normality is amenorrhea.

Section – D (12 marks)

Question 31.

On the basis of above given fixture answer the following questions: [4]
(A) Total number of matches in 2nd round are _____.
(B) What is the formula for calculating the total number of matches?
(C) The fourth round in this case can also be called as _____.
(D) What is the formula for calculating the number of byes?
OR
The formula for calculating number of round is _____.
Answer:
(A) 8
(B) N-1
(C) Semi final
(D) 2ⁿ-N

OR

\(\frac{N(N-1)}{2}\)

Question 32.
The teachers as well as coaches always make their best efforts to improve the performance of their students in various competitive games and sports. They can help to improve the performance of students if they have adequate knowledge of biomechanics. [4]

(A) The more force one exerts on the downward bounce, the higher the ball bounces into the air. Which law is this statement being referred to?
(B) Among the above given pictures, Newton’s 3rd law is depicted in _____.
(C) Newton’s second law is also known as _____.
(D) The study of human body and various forces acting on it is _____.
Answer:
(A) Third law of motion-Action reaction
(B) 1st picture
(C) Law of Acceleration
(D) Kinesiology

OR

A high jumper can jump higher off a solid surface because it opposes his or her body with as much force as he or she is able to generate. This example refers to which law of motion?

Third law of motion-Action reaction

Question 33.
In relation to the pictures, answer the following questions. [4]

(A) What is the mission of the first organization?
(B) What is the Motto of the first organization?
(C) Until 1965 the games in the second picture were known as _____.
(D) Second picture games are conducted after every _____ years.
Answer:
(A) The mission of Special Olympics is to provide year-round sports training and athletic competition in a variety of Olympic-type sports for children and adults with intellectual disabilities, giving them continuing opportunities to develop physical fitness, demonstrate courage, experience joy and participate in events.
(B) The motto of special Olympics is “Let me win. But if I cannot win, let me be brave in the attempt.”
(C) International Games for the Deaf International Silent Games”.
(D) 4yrs

Section – E (15 marks)

Question 34.
List down any four asanas used for prevention of asthma. Explain the procedure for administration of any one of them with help of a stick diagram. [5]
Answer:
Asthma: Sukhasana, Chakrasana, Gomukhasana, Parvatasana, Bhujangasana, Paschimottanasana, Matsyasana, Anulom Vilom

Explanation: Four asanas used for prevention of asthma are:

(1) Sukhasana
Procedure:

1. It is done in sitting position.
2. Sit cross Legged on the floor or any other fiat surface.
3. Bend your knees and cross your right shin in front of your left shin.
4. Move the knees closer until your feet is directly underneath them.
5. Place both the palms on your knees an close your eyes.
6. Breathe slowly and concentrate on the breathing pattern.
7. Continue breathing in the same way for five minutes.

(2) Bhujangasana

(3) Chakasana

(4) Gomukhasana

Question 35.
Make a table of test items listed under fitness test by SAI (Age group 9-18 yrs) along with the objectives of conducting them. Explain the administration of any one of them. [5]
Answer:
Age group 9-18yrs/ class 4-12: BMI, 50mt Speed test, 600mt Run/Walk, Sit & Reach flexibility test, Strength Test (Abdominal Partial Curl Up, Push-Ups for boys, Modified Push-Ups for girls).

Explanation: Test items listed under fitness test by SAI (Age group 9-18 years) are:
(1) Body Mass Index (BMI)
(2) Plate Tapping Test
(3) Flamingo Balance Test
(4) Partial Curl up (30 sec.)
(5) Sit and reach flexibility test
(6) 600 meter Run/walk
(7) Computing Basal Metabolic Rate
(8) Motor fitness test and measurement
(9) Measurement of cardiovascular fitness
(10) 50 mt. speech test

Test and measurement is the instrument for getting essential details regarding the needs, capacities, abilities and attitudes of students. Evaluation is based upon tests and measurements, which is very important to check the progress of an individual. A test helps to collect data which can be evaluated for further improvement.

Plate Tapping Test: This tests speed and coordination of limb movement.

How to Perform: If possible, the table height should be adjusted so that the subject is standing comfortably in front of the discs.
(1) The two yellow discs are placed with their centers 60 cm apart on the table.
(2) The rectangle is placed equidistant between both discs.
(3) The non-preferred hand is placed on the rectangle.
(4) The subject moves the preferred hand back and forth between the discs over the hand in the middle as quickly as possible.
(5) This action is repeated for 25 full cycles (50 tops).

Question 36.
Define flexibility along with its types. Explain any two methods used to develop flexibility. [5]
Answer:

Explanation: Flexibility is the ability of a joint or series of joints to move through an unrestricted, pain-free range of motion.

(1) Active flexibility: The ability of an individual to do the joint movement for a longer range without any external help. E.g., doing any stretching exercise without external help. It is of two kinds:

Static Flexibility: It is usually required by a sports person when he remains in static position e.g., diving setting lying.
Dynamic flexibility: It is needed for walking and running.

(2) Passive flexibility: The ability to do joint movement with a greater range with an external help of partner. This flexibility is mainly determined by joint structure, stretchability of muscle and legoment. It helps in the development of active flexibility.

Method to improve flexibility:

(1) Ballistic Stretching: The individual performs these stretching exercises while in motion. This dynamic method uses the momentum generated from repeated bouncing movements to stretch the muscles. This method includes various exercises like swinging the trunk sidewards forwards, backward, swinging the legs etc.

(2) Static Stretching: It is an extremely popular and effective technique. Which involves gently and slowly moving into the stretch position and holding it for a certain period of time. Movement should take place through the full range of motion until a little tension or tightness is felt in the muscles or group of muscles. As the muscle releases, the stretch should be extended and held again. Stretching should be held from 10 to 30 seconds and a maximum of give repetitions for each exercise.

Question 37.
Define Projectile and explain any two factors affecting projectile with the help of examples from sports. [5]
Answer:
Factors Affecting Projectile Trajectory:
• Initial velocity
• Angle of projection
• Projection height relevant to the landing surface
• Air resistance
• Surface area of the projectile
• Surface-to-volume ratio
• Mass
• Velocity
• Gravity
• Spin

Explanation: An object thrown into space either horizontally or an acute angle under the action under gravity is called a projectile. There are forces which act on a projectile gravitational force and air resistance. The factors affecting projectile trajectory are:

(1) The angle of projection: An object which is projected at different angles covers different distances. When it is projected or released at an angle of 30, making it a parabolic path and covers lesser distance. When it is projected at 60, it covers a distance of less than 30. When it is released at an angle of 45, makes a parabolic path and covers maximum distance. So, the distance covered by an object (shot, put, hammer, javelin, discuss etc. depends on the angle of release of projectile.)

(2) Gravity: Gravity acts on a body or object to give it mass. The greater the weight of an object, the greater the influence of gravity upon it. Gravity will effect a projectile as well as it will decrease the height, the projectile can obtain. For example, a cricket ball can be thrown at a greater distance in comparison to shot put.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Set 7 with Solutions

Time : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

1. The Question paper is divided into three sections: Section A: Reading 26 marks, Section B: Writing Skills and Grammar 23 marks, Section C: Literature 31 marks.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. Allquestions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section-A
Reading (26 marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (10 marks)
1. There are times when everyone has to face grief. When someone dear to oneself dies, one is left in a state in which shock and grief overcome the ordinary life. One is left in a situation when one feels there is nothing one can do. Grief and mourning are not always associated with only death. It also happens with other types of losses. It could be the loss of one’s job, loss of one’s house or the loss of a close friend or a partner.

2. The best people who are able to cope with these are those, who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning rituals. In India, we have diverse rituals which nowadays are being discarded. But these help in the crisis. The near and dear ones come to share the grief and apply balm with their words of solace.

In mourning, it is an essential part of coming to terms with loss. There comes a time when one has to give up one’s grief and rejoin the mainstream of life. Mourning in itself passes through these phases. Firstly, it is in the nature of shock and disbelief. A feeling of numbness overtakes. The brain is not in a position to accept, it so happens that one expects the arrival of a loss thinking that nothing will change and he will be with the lost one. In second phase, one realises the truth that the loss has actually happened, and was not a dream. It is now that one feels the pain. Now one recollects the old moments and the memory of guilt creeps in.

3. Here, the affected person displays odd behaviour and has difficulty in eating and is unable to sleep. One may remain in this stage for weeks, months and sometimes for years. In the next phase, reflection from pain and negative feelings creep in. This leads to the positive side. Now one feels one must make alternative arrangements or replacements. Here, one is ready to cope with the situation. One knows that one cannot recover what he or she has lost but is conscious of the future accepting the loss and is ready for the alternative.

4. On passing through all the stages of grief, it seems that time has passed like a river under the bridge. This shows that mourning has been successful. One cannot forget the loss but comes to terms with reality.

5. Grieve with the person who is bereaved. This shows that you too value the mourning person. This gives a helping support and the bereaved person starts believing you. Your support to the bereaved should not stop after a few days. It may be needed for months. Assure the affected person that the feelings of grief will diminish and will not be the same always.

6. You will see, there comes a time when he or she has to be distracted from grief. Take him or her out for an outing especially away from the current situation. If he or she agrees, take the opportunity and let him or her join the leisurely ventures.

7. It is therefore, the duty of close relatives and friends to take the bereaved out of the depressing climate and give a fresh air of life and happy thoughts. [KVS 2017 Silchar Region]

On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
Question 1.
In the last phase of grief:
(A) there is a relief from pain and negative feelings.
(B) there is still pain and grief.
(C) the person is ready to cope with the situations, ready to face reality.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Question 2.
One must grieve with the person who is bereaved to show:
(A) that you too value the mourned person.
(B) that you can distract him/her.
(C) you understand what your duty is.
(D) you are his/her well wisher.
Answer:
(A) that you too value the mourned person.

Question 3.
The person in grief displays:
(A) sleeplessness.
(B) enjoys eating.
(C) difficulty in eating.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Question 4.
What can be done to distract him/her from grief?
(A) eat good food
(B) sleep for long hours
(C) go for an outing
(D) talk loudly
Answer:
(C) go for an outing

Question 5.
The duty of close relatives and friends is to:
(A) help the bereaved financially.
(B) create difficulty for the bereaved
(C) take the bereaved out of difficulty.
(D) mourn with the bereaved.
Answer:
(C) take the bereaved out of difficulty.

Question 6.
The best people who are able to cope with loss and grief are:
(A) Those who are helped by their doctors
(B) Those who have a lot of relatives
(C) Those who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning rituals
(D) Those who come from the Indian background
Answer:
(C) Those who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning rituals
Explanation: After the closing date, a team of judges carefully select 10 finalists, who gather in Dubai for an exciting event where the award is presented.

Question 7.
Which words in the passage mean the same as the following?
(i) overcome (Para 2)
(ii) shows (Para 3)
Answer:
(i) overtakes
(ii) displays

Question 8.
According to the passage, all of these are reasons for grief, except:
(A) loss of a job
(B) loss of one’s house
(C) loss of a close friend or a partner
(D) loss of confidence
Answer:
(D) loss of confidence

Question 9.
When does mourning become successful?
(A) When you go for an outing
(B) When you have come to terms with reality
(C) When you have negative thoughts
(D) When someone supports you
Answer:
(B) When you have come to terms with reality

Question 10.
What does the phrase ‘apply balm’ mean in context of the passage?
(A) apply ointment on the injury
(B) apply liquid to the burn
(C) show anger or disrespect
(D) speak softly and consolingly
Answer:
(D) speak softly and consolingly

Question 2.
Look at the graph showing the changes in the population of some wild animals and answer the questions that follow. (8 x 1 = 8 marks)

It is surprising that the population of bears is increasing in spite of the dangerous changes in the global climate. Many attribute it to the captive breeding programmes conducted in many countries. On the other hand, it is sad to notice that dolphins have almost become extinct.

Much of it is due to the extensive water pollution especially in areas that are their natural habitats. Unlike whales, who are able to change their habitat and venture into deeper parts of the oceans, dolphins are unable to adapt to changing habitats at short notices. No wonder, the whale population has seen many ups and downs over the last few years.
Question 1.
The given diagram can be described as:
(A) A simple line graph
(B) A vertical line graph
(C) A straight line graph
(D) A multiple line graph
Answer:
(D) A multiple line graph
Explanation: It is clear from the given figure.

Question 2.
How many years are covered in the graph?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
Answer:
(B) Five
Explanation: 2017 to 2022.

Question 3.
What can you say about the population of bears?
(A) It was the lowest in 2017 and highest in 2019.
(B) It has been increasing at the rate of 40 points per year.
(C) It will rise more in the year 2020-2021 than in the year 2021-2022.
(D) It was almost equal to the population of whales in the year 2019.
Answer:
(D) It was almost equal to the population of whales in the year 2019.
Explanation: Bear and Dolphin population is approx, the same, 90-100.

Question 4.
Based on the graph, which of these statements is definitely false about dolphins?
(A) Their population has been steadily declining in the last few years.
(B) They have sadly become extinct now.
(C) They have a lower rate of survival than whales.
(D) They are dying out very fast.
Answer:
(B) They have sadly become extinct now.
Explanation: It is sad to notice that dolphins have almost become extinct.

Question 5.
The whales are:
(A) More in population than the bears.
(B) Less in population than the dolphins.
(C) Equal in population compared to both bears and dolphins.
(D) Almost equal in population in 2017 and 2022.
Answer:
(D) Almost equal in population in 2017 and 2022.
Explanation: The population is almost equal to 80.

Question 6.
Why are whales not extinct yet?
(A) Because they are too big to be harmed
(B) Because they move to deeper oceans in times of danger
(C) Because their population keeps fluctuating as per the climatic changes
(D) Because they are able to fight for themselves unlike dolphins
Answer:
(B) Because they move to deeper oceans in times of danger
Explanation: Whales are able to change their habitat and venture in deeper parts of the oceans.

Question 7.
What is common between the three animals?
(A) They are all land animals.
(B) They are all water animals.
(C) They are all mammals.
(D) They are all about to become extinct.
Answer:
(C) They are all mammals.

Question 8.
Which animal population has fluctuated over the last few years?
(A) Bears
(B) Dolphins
(C) Whales
(D) All of these.
Answer:
(C) Whales
Explanation: It is clear from the graph.

Commonly Made Errors:

• While answering questions related to Unseen Passages/Comprehensions, most students do not read the passages properly. Reading the passages properly is very essential.
• Students need to keep in mind that the answers should be brief, relevant and be in their own words, while following the words in the passages carefully.
• While answering, the students should verify the spellings of the difficult words from the passages themselves, if they are not sure of them in the first place.
• Before answering multiple-choice questions, students should read the questions thoroughly and then the given options. Some options can be tricky and need careful attention.
• Lastly, before moving on to the next question and just before the final submission of the answer-script, revise the answers carefully. This will help you to find out and eliminate any errors that you have overlooked earlier.

Answering Tips:

• The passages should be read silently and with full concentration.
• Grasping the context of the passages is important.
• New or difficult words should be deciphered in the context of their use in the passages.
• Answers should be in complete sentences.
• All answers should be written sequentially.
• If a student cannot answer a question, or a part of a question, then it is unwise to continue spending time on it. It is advisable to leave the question for the time being, answer the rest of the questions and then go back to the unanswered question.
• While answering an unseen passage or comprehension, you might be aware of the source as you might have read it earlier. In that case, please do not get carried away in writing things beyond the scope of the passage. That will not fetch you extra marks. Please stick to the passage!
• All spellings and answers related to seen/unseen passages or comprehensions are found within the scope of the passages; so, it is important to concentrate in them.
• Lastly, there is no need to panic. Answering questions correctly is more important than answering all questions. So, adequate time should be given to answer each question properly.

Question 3.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. When Lai Bahadur Shastri took over charge as the Prime Minister of the most populous democracy in the world in June, 1964, he started with many initial disadvantages. The most obvious one was that he had stepped into the shoes of a colossus like Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, who, in spite of the fact that his policies were not always popular, commanded the spontaneous affection of the masses of India and was also a front-ranking world statesman.

Another handicap from which Mr. Shastri suffered was that even though he had been active in the political life of the country for nearly four decades, he had never visited any foreign country and was, therefore, not a well-known figure in important world capitals. In addition, he succeeded to the Prime Minister ship of the country at a time when it was plagued by many serious problems, the foremost among which were rising prices and food shortage. Fissiparous tendencies were in evidence not only in the ranks of the ruling party (accentuated after the passing away of Pt. Nehru) but also in several parts of the country like Nagaland, Punjab and Kashmir.

Memories of the humiliation suffered by India at the hands of Chinese were still fresh in the popular mind and the nation was passing through a crisis of confidence. It appeared that the people’s faith in the country’s future had been badly shaken. Because of the military and political reverses it had suffered, India’s international prestige had gone very low and its relations with its neighbours were not of the best. This was the India which Mr. Shastri inherited from his illustrious predecessor and he was in many aspects the exact opposite of the latter.

A simple Indian rustic had been asked to step into the shoes of a world citizen. A modest, self-effacing man who had hitherto been content to operate from the wings had been pushed on to the centre of the stage to replace a glamorous popular hero who had the aura of long-established leadership about him. The problems he was expected to grapple with were enough to break the back of the most tenacious and determined man but Mr. Shastri weathered the storm with his abundant rugged commonsense and almost impartible calmness.
(a) On the basis of your reading the passage, make notes using recognisable abbreviations wherever necessary. Use a format you consider suitable, supply a suitable title. (5 marks)
(b) Make a short summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 marks)
Answer:
(a) LAL BAHADUR SHASTRI
1. As Prime Minister

• Took charge after Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru.
• In June 1964.

2. Faced many disadvantages :

• Stepped into the shoes of colossus like Pt. Nehru.
• Had never visited any forgn, country.
• Not a well-known fig. in world capitals.

3. Indian situation:

• Facing food shortage
• Rising prices
• Fissiparous tendencies in various states
• Nation passing crisis of confidence
• Int’nal prestige low

4. Expectation from Lai Bahadur Shastri:

• • To replace a glamorous pplr hero
  • To grapple with the problems

Key to Abbreviations
S. No.	Abbreviation	Word
1	forgn	foreign
2	fig.	figure
3	Int’nal	International
4	pplr	popular

(b) Summary
Lai Bahadur Shastri took charge as the Prime Minister of India after Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru in 1964. It was not a very easy situation. He had stepped into the shoes of a colossus and popular leader like Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru. He was not a well known figure in world capitals nor he had visited any foreign countries.

The Indian situation was also not good. It was plagued with many serious problems like food shortage, rising prices, low prestige in international arena, etc. The nation was passing through a crisis of confidence. People’s faith in the country’s future had been broken.

It was a difficult situation to be faced by Lai Bahadur Shastri but people expected that he would be able to grapple with all the problems. Lai Bahadur Shastri weathered the storm with his commonsense and calmness and came out successfully to overcome these problems.

Commonly Made Errors:

• The most commonly made mistakes include ‘ not reading the passage thoroughly and not paying attention to details. This leads to unclear understanding of the context.
• The next big mistake is not noting the ‘key-words’ in the passage. Identification of key-words is important to decide the main thrust of the passage and bring out the summary.
• While substituting words for phrases and clauses, the appropriate form of the word should be used. For example, if the substitution requires the adjectival form of a word, then using the noun or the verb form can be fatal.
• Punctuations are very important in summarisation or precis writing. They should be used prudently.
  Spellings and grammar should be checked for during the note-making stage so that no corrections need be implemented during the summary or precis writing.
• While providing a Title for the summary/precis, students should relate it to the context of the passage. Too much emphasis on making it catchy might lead to making the blunder of it being not related to the context.

Answering Tips:

• While answering questions related to Note-making and Summary (Precis Writing), it is important to read the passages properly and grasp their meanings. If need be, the passage should be read and re-read a number of times to ensure that every part of it is clear to the student.
• Next, it is important to underline the important points in the passage. With practice1 this can be done at the same time as the passage is being read.
• The underlined portions should be summed up as separate bufleted points.
• Thereafter, the students should read the bulleted points so that they are sure that those points are adequate in providing the gist of the passage. There should not be any ambiguity or lack of clarity in meaning anywhere.
• While summarizing the bullets, one should be mindful to shorten the sentences as much as possible by substituting clauses and phrases with words conveying similar meanings.
• Beginners are also advised to calculate the average number of words written by them in each line and then to calculate the number of lines required to write the precis or summary based on the average words per line.
• The average word-limit per sentence should be between five to ten words.
• Students are advised to draw columns with pencil such that the total number of cells in the table so formed exactly match the maximum permissible words in the sununary. Then they should write one per cell to achieve the maximum word limit.
• Lastly, students should ensure correctness of spellings, contextual use of substituting words and grammatical correctness.

Section – B
Writing Skills and Grammar (23 marks)

Question 4.
You are the General manager of a leading company. You need a Chartered Accountant for your office. Draft an advertisement in not more than 50 words to be published in the Times of India, New Delhi, under the classified columns. (3 marks)
OR
You are Saran Gupta. You wish to let out your flat that is situated in the hub of Bangalore. Draft an advertisement for a well circulated daily giving necessary details. (Word limit, 50). [KVS Silchar, 2017]
Answer:
Situation Vacant:
Required an experienced chartered Accountant, male/female, minimum qualification Master’s degree in commerce, computer savvy, salary no bar for the deserving candidate. Interested candidates may contact the General Manager at 9453xxxxxx

Commonly Made:

• Spellings and grammar errors lead to communication of incorrect messages.
• While trying to make the title catchy, students end up stitching together words used in the wrong context and thereby making up a meaningless title.
• Also, spellings are tweaked sometimes to emphasise upon an idea or to attract the attention of the reader However, often students fail to achieve the desired effect and end up simply making a spelling mistake!

Answering Tips:

• While preparing an advertisement, it is important to keep in mind the requirement: whether the advertisement should be a Classified or a Display Advertisement. The message should be prepared accordingly.
• The word-limit of 50 should be strictly adhered to.
• Next, it is important to design the advertisement properly. So, one needs to experiment with the font size, style and colour, as well as the layout.
• The language and approach should be direct yet attract the attention of the targeted readers.
• Listly, students should ensure correctness of spellings, contextual use of substituting words and grammatical correctness. The Contact address as well as the email ids and phone numbers should be accurate.

OR
TO-LET:
Available in the hub of Bangalore, a 3 BHK flat on rent, fully furnished, modular kitchen, East facing, 24 x 7 electricity and water facility, round the clock security, lift facility. Rent negotiable. Interested persons may contact: Saran Gupta at 7346xxxxx

Commonly Made Errors:

• Missing out one or more of the value points.
• Spellings and grammar errors lead to communication of incorrect messages.
• While trying to make the title catchy, students end up stitching together words used in the wrong context and thereby making up a meaningless title.
• Also, spellings are tweaked sometimes to emphasise upon an idea or to attract the attention of the reader. However, often students fail to achieve the desired effect and end up simply making a spelling mistake!

Answering Tips:

• While making a poster, it is important to keep in mind what it is all about and whether the created poster gets across the idea clearly or not.
• Next, it is important to design the poster properly. So, one needs to experiment with the font size style and colour, as well as the layout.
• Venue, date and time should be mentioned in such a manner that they do not escape peoples’ attention.
• Lastly, students should ensure correctness of spellings, contextual use of substituting words and grammatical correctness.

Question 5.
Your school is going to organise a Diwali Mela. Design a poster to inform the students about it. (50 words) (3 marks)
OR
Imagine that a career counselling session is being organised by Mr. P K. Puri in Hotel Ashoka, New Delhi. Draft a poster in 50 words for the same.
Answer:

Question 6.
The Government has banned the Use of Animals in the Laboratories for the purpose of dissection. Write a debate in about 120-150 words either for or against this decision. (5 marks)
OR
The policy of ‘No detention till class VIII’ is not in the interest of students. Write a debate in 120-150 words either in favour or against the motion.
Answer:
The Government has banned the dissection of animals in laboratories
Good morning everyone, I am Navtej and I am going to speak in favour of the motion ‘Animal testing should be banned’.

In our laboratories, animals are dissected, despite the fact that their dissection is cruel and unpleasant. It is absolutely unethical. At the same time, it teaches children to abuse animals. On one hand, Organisations like PETA are fighting for the protection from cruelty on these speechless beings, and on the other hand, they are being killed mercilessly in the name of experiments. It is not only cruel but also unwise to use them for this purpose.

Before reaching the laboratories, the animals are stockpiled on the top of one another. Then they are shipped in crowded containers without any regulation of temperature. No food or water is provided to them. Then they die in such condition due to starvation.

In such a situation, it is not difficult to imagine that these piled animals create negative impact on biodiversity. They’ll definitely spread disease. Can you think the drugs that pass tests, alone, will be safe?
Definitely not: Moreover, killing them disturbs ecological balance.
Therefore, it is wise to replace animal dissection by the use of virtual labs and models.
Thank you.
OR
The Policy of ‘No detention till class VIII is not in the interest of Students
Honourable Chairperson, respected judges and my dear friends. Today, I am standing before you to express my arguments against the viewpoint that the policy of no detention till class VIII is not in the interest of students. Perhaps, the main culprits behind all this propaganda are the ones who want to cash in on this idea by making the students to go for more and more tuition classes.

The fact is that education is not a thing that should be bound up in the trap of examination, where students are made to sit for exams all the time in order to get the tag of ‘Pass’ or ‘Fail’. As one of my friends presented his point that such a policy of no detention is making students careless, I’d like to tell my dear friend that it is better to be careless rather than to adopt unfair means to pass the exams – as we read about such incidents in the newspapers every day.

The tension of exams is making students mentally sick. I am afraid that the period/time that should be used in gaining pure knowledge without any pressure of detention may be lost in the tension about failing exams. There is also another advantage of this ‘no detention policy’ that more and more students without any such fear of failure will attend the school with full enthusiasm and will make themselves ready automatically for the period of maturity. There they will benefit from their feelings of confidence and eagerness to go ahead, without any tension of passing or failing that will lead them towards a healthy and bright future.
Thank you.

Question 7.
The progress of a nation depends on empowering the women. Obsessed with this idea, write a speech for the Touth Conclave on the topic, ‘Empowering the women’. (5 marks)
Answer:
Empowering the Women
Respected Chairperson, participants and my dear audience, good morning to all. Today, I, Anita Verma, am here in this Youth Conclave to present my views on the topic, Empowering the Women.

Women are the foundation of a society. They are the ones on whom the progress of a nation depends. But the women are not given their rightful place in the society. Many of them still suffer under family violence and face inferior status in the society. They are denied the basic rights—Right to education and freedom of speech. The growth and development of a nation depends on the status of equality given to the citizens. Women are not treated as equal to men.

Many efforts are being made to empower the Indian women. Still much is left to be achieved. We must realise that women too have the right to education, right to gender equality and the freedom of speech. Education will make the women self-reliant and will boost their confidence. They will become financially independent, thus leading them to the path of development.

It is the need of the hour that we stop exploiting women and give them their rights. People must show supportive attitude towards women so that they get equal opportunities to move ahead towards a better society. ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ is one scheme started by the government to educate the girl child. People must change their attitude towards women and give them their due place in the society.
Thank you.

Question 8.
Fill in blanks with the appropriate option given below. (Do any 4) (1 x 4 = 4)
Yesterday, as I (a) ………. along the mall, a taxi (b) ………. near me. A man (c) ………. me by my first name.
I (d) ………. as I failed to recognize the man, who (e) ………. and repeating my name. [1 mark each]
(a) (i) walks (ii) is walking (iii) was walking (iv) had been walking
(b) (i) stopped (ii) stops (iii) to stop (iv) will stop
(c) (i) addressing (ii) addressed (iii) to address (iv) has addressed
(d) (i) is surprised (ii) was surprised (iii) surprising (iv) to surprise
(e) (i) smiles (ii) to smile (iii) was smiling (iv) has been smiling
Answer:
(a) (iii) was walking
(b) (i) stopped
(c) (ii) addressed
(d) (ii) was surprised
(e) (iii) was smiling

Question 9.
Rearrange the following words or phrases to make meaningful sentences:
(a) the / on / forests / the / industry / oil / depends
Answer:
The oil industry depends on the forests.

(b) do / get / the / forests / from / what / we / products /?
Answer:
What products do we get from the forests?

(c) had / winning a medal / he / my /1 told him / until / about / known / not [1 x 3 = 3]
Answer:
He had not known about my winning a medal until I told him.

Section – C 
Literature (31 marks)

Question 10.
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: (1 x 3 = 3)
And forever, by day and night, I give back life to my own
origin, and make pure and beautify it;
(a) Who ‘give back life’ in the poem? (1)
(i) Earth
(ii) Living Organisms
(iii) Poet
(iv) Rain
Answer:
(iv) Rain

(b) What is the origin of ‘I’ in the poem? (1)
(i) Pond
(ii) Rivers
(iii) Oceans
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

(c) Who is ‘it’ in the above lines? (1)
Answer:
It is referred to the earth.
OR
When did my childhood go?
Was it the time I realised that adults were not
All they seemed to be,
(a) How do adults behave according to the poet? (1)
(i) Adults around him practice what they preached.
(ii) Adults around him did not practice what they preached
(iii) Adults around him were totally indifferent
(iv) Adults around him are not understandable
Answer:
(iii) Adults around him were totally indifferent

(b) The poet found adults
(i) Unpredictable
(ii) Vulnerable
(iii) Hypocrite
(iv) All of the above (1)
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

(c) Name the poet. (1)
Answer:
Markus Natten

Question 11.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. (1 x 3 = 3)
A. “The mummy is in very bad condition because of what Carter did in the 1920s,” said Zahi Hawass, Secretary General of Egypt7 s Supreme Council of Antiquities, as he leaned over the body for a long first look.
Question 1.
Who was Carter?
(A) American scientist
(B) British archaeologist
(C) Egyptian historian
(D) Former Secretary General of Supreme Council of Antiquities
Answer:
(B) British archaeologist

Question 2.
What did Carter do in 1920s?
(A) Revived King Tut
(B) Discovered King Tut’s tomb
(C) Wrote a book on King Tut
(D) Stole antiquities from King Tut’s tomb
Answer:
(B) Discovered King Tut’s tomb

Question 3.
Which of these was found in King Tut’s tomb?
(A) Razor
(B) Smartphone
(C) Audio player
(D) Temple
Answer:
(A) Razor
OR
B. He thanked the girl politely and came out. It was characteristic of him not to worry about where he would stay. His main concern was to make his way to the library of the Asiatic Society to solve the riddle of history. Grabbing a quick lunch at a restaurant, he made his way to the Town Hall. Yes, to his relief, the Town Hall was there and it did house the library. He entered the reading room and asked for a list of history books including his own.
Question 1.
Who is ‘he’ here and who is the ‘girl’ he thanked?
(A) ‘He’ here is Rajendra Deshpande. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the Indian receptionist at Forbes Building.
(B) ‘He’ here is Professor Gangadharpant Gaitonde. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the Indian receptionist at Times Square Building.
(C) ‘He’ here is Rajendra Deshpande. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the English receptionist at Times Square Building.
(D) ‘He’ here is Professor Gangadharpant Gaitonde. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the English receptionist at Forbes Building.
Answer:
(D) ‘He’ here is Professor Gangadharpant Gaitonde. The ‘girl’ he thanked is the English receptionist at Forbes Building.

Question 2.
What was his main concern?
(A) His main concern was to make his way to the library of European Society to solve the riddle of history
(B) His main concern was to make his way to the library of Asiatic Society to solve the riddle of history.
(C) His main concern was to make his way to the library of Indian Society to solve the riddle of history.
(D) His main concern was to make his way to the library of African Society to solve the riddle of history.
Answer:
(B) His main concern was to make his way to the library of Asiatic Society to solve the riddle of history.

Question 3.
What does it show about the subject through his characteristic trait mentioned here?
(A) That instead of his personal worth, he cared more about his physical comforts.
(B) That he cared more about his physical comforts only.
(C) That instead of his personal physical comforts, he cared more about his worth.
(D) That instead of his personal physical comforts, he cared more about others’ thoughts.
Answer:
(C) That instead of his personal physical comforts, he cared more about his worth.

Question 12.
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. (1 x 4 = 4)
A. No doubt about it at all. Who’s the better for being spoilt-grown man, lad or girl ? Nobody. You think it does ’em good when you run after them all the time, take their orders as if you were the servant in the house, stay at home every night while they go out enjoying themselves? Never in all your life.

It’s the ruin of them as well as you. Husbands, sons, daughters should be taking notice of wives an’ mothers, not giving’em orders an’ treating ’em like dirt. An’ don’t tell me you don’t know what I mean, for I know more than you’ve told me.
Question 1.
Who spoke these words?
(A) Mrs. Pearson
(B) Mrs. Fitzgerald
(C) Doris
(D) Cyril
Answer:
(B) Mrs. Fitzgerald

Question 2.
What was other person’s complaint against her family members?
(A) They did not let her overeat.
(B) They were too emotional.
(C) They were thoughtless and selfish.
(D) They were thoughtless and selfish.
Answer:
(D) They were thoughtless and selfish.

Question 3.
What did the speaker want the other person to do?
(A) To tell the family to respect her
(B) To tell the family to take her for a vacation
(C) To tell the family to take her to a museum
(D) To tell the family to pay her dues on time
Answer:
(A) To tell the family to respect her

Question 4.
What did the other person reply to this?
(A) Pride
(B) Honesty
(A) She had given an advertisement for this.
(B) She had dropped a hint about this.
(C) She had already started looking for another job.
(D) She had openly confronted everyone.
Answer:
(B) She had dropped a hint about this.
OR
B. His face, heated with his own exertions, chilled suddenly. He hesitated, torn between his desire to attempt to resuscitate the child, and his obligation towards the mother, who was herself in a desperate state. The dilemma was so urgent he did not solve it consciously.

Question 1.
Why was the situation so tense?
(A) The mother had died.
(B) The child was born lifeless.
(C) The doctor was too confused.
(D) None of these
Answer:
(B) The child was born lifeless.

Question 2.
How many lives did the doctor save that night ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer:
(D) Four

Question 3.
Whom did the doctor first attend to?
(A) Mother
(B) Child
(C) Midwife
(D) Father
Answer:
(A) Mother

Question 4.
What was the name of the mother?
(A) Joe
(B) Susan
(C) Christine
(D) Edward Page
Answer:
(B) Susan

Commonly Made Errors:

• The most commonly made errors pertain to grammar and spellings
• The second most commonly made errors pertain to the wrong perception and expression of the poetic devices. One must first explain what a poetic device is, such as simile, metaphor, allusion and so on, and then explain their usage in the context of the poem.

Answering Tips:

• Read the poem thoroughly-more than once, if necessary-to grasp the gist of each stanza
• Do not rely on paraphrases
• Note the use of words and expressions
• Find out the context of the poem
• Try to understand meanings of words in context. Remember, poetic meaning of a word may be different from the actual meaning. Also, sometimes certain words may undergo such poetic modifications for the sake of rhythm, which is not generally seen in prose.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in 40 to 50 words each.
(a) Describe the conversation between Professor Gaitonde and Khan Sahib about the place they had to go.
OR
Why did the author take the short cut in spite of high mountain passes?
(b) How does the laburnum tree appear in September?
OR
What do you learn about the poetess’ mother from ‘A Photograph’? fapl
(c) What, according to Doris could be the reason for mother’s strange behaviour? Does Cyril agree with her?
OR
What was Andrew’s view of marriage? Why was he resentful and confused?
Answer:
(a) It was at Sarhad that Khan Sahib told Gaitonde that the British Raj began from that place. He asked the professor where he was going. As for himself, he was going to Peshawar. For this purpose, Khan Sahib will go from Bombay to Delhi, then to Lahore and then Peshawar.
OR
(b) The short cut would take them south west, almost directly towards Mount Kailash. Crossing high mountains passes posed breathing problems. Absence of snow meant a fairly good ride.

(c) In the afternoon of September sunlight, the laburnum top appears silent and quite still. A few leaves of the tree are turning yellow. All the seeds of the tree have fallen.
OR
(d) The poetess’s mother was a big girl at the age of twelve. She had a sweet face and enjoyed swimming as well as wading in sea water with her cousins. Years later she would have laughed at the clothes they had put on for the sea holiday.

(e) According to Doris, mother has hit her head or something that could have been the cause of her strange behaviour. Cyril agrees that his mother’s behaviour was rather odd but Doris’ idea seems too farfetched to him.
OR
(f) As Andrew sat dozing by the kitchen fire his thoughts wandered over the subject of marriage. He thought of Bramwell who was foolishly devoted to a woman who deceived him meanly. Then he thought of Edward Page who was married to the ill-natured Blodwen and was now living unhappily, apart from his wife. This led him to the conclusion that all marriages are dismal failures. Then he thought of his girlfriend, Christine and wished to consider marriage as a pleasant state.

Question 14.
Answer any one of the following questions in about 120-150 words: (6 marks)
What damage did ‘Wavewalker’ suffer as a result of bad weather?
OR
Draw a character sketch of Khushwant Singh’s grandmother as portrayed by him in the lesson ‘The Portrait of a Lady’.
Answer:
Mighty waves struck ‘Wavewalker’. The decks were smashed. Water was gushing in through holes and openings. The whole starboard side had bulged inwards. Clothes, crockery, charts, tins and toys moved round noisily in deep water. Their hand pumps got blocked up with the debris floating around the cabins. The electric pump, short circuited. Water level rose high.

The two spare hand pumps had been wrenched overboard. Waves had also swept off the forestry soil, jib, dinghies and main anchor. There was tremendous leak somewhere below the water line. The boat’s main rib frames were smashed down to the kneel. A whole section of the starboard bull was being held up by a few cupboard partitions only. The hull of the ship had been damaged so badly that the pressure of rigging could simply pull the damaged section of the hull apart. ‘Wavewalker’ was so damaged that it could not hold together long enough to reach Australia.
OR
The narrator’s grandmother was a true picture of love, affection and care. She had all those virtues which grandmother’s generally have for their grandsons. She was highly religious but a conservative lady.

The grandmother presented a picture of peace and contentment. Her spotless white dress and her silver white hair gave her spiritual beauty. The grandmother was not physically very attractive. She had deep love and affection for her grandson. She got him ready for school. She accompanied him to his school and came back home with him.

She was a very religious lady. She was always telling the beads of her rosary. She had compassion even for animals and birds. She fed the village dogs. She took to feeding the sparrows in the city. But the grandmother was a conservative lady. She didn’t like the English language and Science. She hated music. She associated music with prostitutes and beggars.

Question 15.
Answer the question in about 120-150 words: (6 marks)
Compare and contrast uncle Khosrove and cousin Mourad.
OR
Describe the narrator’s second visit to Mrs. Dorling’s house.
Answer:
Uncle Khosrove and cousin Mourad have one very important point in common-their craziness. Mourad was considered the natural descendant of uncle Khosrove in this respect. They both are dominating in nature. Both use pet words and phrases and roar aloud to quieten the hearer. While unde Khosrove says, “It is no harm, pay no attention to it.”

Mourad boasts, “I have a way with birds/dogs/farmers.” Khosrove shouts at his son Aram, the barber and farmer John Byro. The narrator is a patient listener to Mourad’s assertions. They are different in their age and physical build up. Unde Khosrove, a middle-aged person, is an enormous man with a powerful head of black hair and very large moustache. Mourad is an athletic young chap of thirteen. Khosrove is irritable impatient and furious in temper. Mourad is reasonable in conversation.
OR
The narrator’s first visit to Mrs. Dorling’s house was in vain. She dedded to try for a second time. This time a girl of about fifteen opened the door to her. Her mother was not at home. The narrator said that she would wait for her. Following the girl along the passage, the narrator saw their old fashioned iron candle-holder hanging next to a mirror.

The girl made her sit in the living room and went inside. The narrator was horrified to find herself in a room she knew and did not know. She found herself in the midst of familiar things which she longed to see again but which oppressed her in the strange atmosphere. She dared not look around her.

The woollen table cloth, the cups, the white tea-pot, the spoons, the pewter plate, everything was full of memories of her former life. Suddenly the objects linked with her former life lost their value in strange surroundings. They too appeared strange to her. She no longer had desire to possess them. She got up, walked to the door and came out of the house.

Commonly Made Errors:

• The most commonly made errors pertain to grammar and spellings
• The second most commonly made errors pertain to the wrong interpretation of the plot-structure and the character sketches.
• Mixing up the names of the different places, i.e., mentioning the wrong place in the context of the wrong event.

Answering Tips:

• Read the story thoroughly-more than once, if necessary-to grasp the gist
• Do not rely on paraphrases
• Note the character traits of both the major and the minor characters
• Find out the context of the story. This will help to understand the sub-themes
• Focus on the narrative style of the story.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

• This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
• Alt questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
• Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
• Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
• Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
• Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION – A (20 Marks)
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20)

Question 1.
How does the metallic character vary across the period?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) First decreases then increases (1)
Answer:
(b) Decreases

Explanation: Metallic character decreases as we move across a period in the periodic table from left to right. This occurs because as we move across a period, the nuclear charge increase and the tendency of the element to lose electrons decreases.

Questin 2.
A yellow powder X gives a pungent smell if left open in air. It is prepared by the reaction of dry compound Y with chlorine gas. It is used for disinfecting drinking water. Identify X and Y.
(a) X – Ca (OH)₂, Y – CaO
(b) X – CaOCl₂, Y – Ca(OH)₂
(c) X – Ca(OH)₂, Y – CaOCl₂
(d) X – Ca(OH)₂, Y – Ca(OCl)₂ (1)
Answer:
(b) X – CaOCl₂, Y – Ca(OH)₂

Explanation: The yellow powder X is bleaching powder which is prepared by the reaction of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)₂]. Y is dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)₂]

Question 3.
The ray diagram below for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure.

Which of the following represents the complete ray diagram?

Answer:

Explanation: A ray of light going parallel to the principal axis towards the mirror after reflection from the mirror will pass through the focus.

Question 4.
A man stands in front of a large plane mirror as shown in the figure. How far must he walk before he is 5 m away from his image?

(a) 7.5 m
(b) 8.5 m
(c) 7.5 cm
(d) 7 m
Answer:
(a) 7.5 m
Explanation: As the distance between the man and the mirror is 10 m, the distance between man and his image is 10 + 10 or 20 m, as image distance and object distance are equal. Distance between the man and his image is 5 m when the man is 2.5 m away from the mirror. Therefore, the man has to walk 10 m – 2.5 m = 7.5 m towards the mirror.

Question 5.
A light ray striking a glass prism is depicted in the figure.

The image has labels indicating the different angles. Which angle, in turn, displays the angles of incidence and refraction?
(a) A and D
(b) B and E
(c) C and F
(d) D and F (1)
Answer:
(a) A and D

Explanation: ‘A’ represents angle of incidence and ‘D’ represents angle of refraction.

Question 6.
Identify the method in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various organisms.
(a) Anaerobic respiration
(b) Fermentation
(c) Aerobic respiration
(d) All of these (1)
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: The two ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various organisms are aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration. Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration.

Question 7.
Observe the figure given below:

Why does the lime water turn milky?
(a) CO₂ is released
(b) CO₂ is consumed
(c) H₂ is released
(d) H₂ is consumed (1)
Answer:
(a) CO₂ is released

Explanation: Since the exhaled air is carbon dioxide rich, when air is blown from mouth into test tube, the lime water turns milky as carbon dioxide gas turns lime water milky.

Question 8.
How is the opening and closing of stomatal pore regulated in plants?
(a) It is a function of guard cells.
(b) It is a function of cytoplasm.
(c) It is a function of chloroplast.
(d) it depends on sunlight. (1)
Answer:
(a) It is a function of guard cells.

Explanation: The opening and closing of stomatal pores is a function of guard cells. When water flows into guard cells, they swell up causing the stomatal pore to open. When the guard cells shrink, the pore closes.

Question 9.
Electrical resistivity of a material is defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor having:

	Cross sectional area	Length
(a)	m2	1cm
(b)	1m2	1m
(c)	1cm2	1m
(d)	100m2	1m

Answer:
(b) 1 m², 1m

Explanation: Electrical resistivity is defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor having cross- sectional area 1 m² and length 1 m.

Related Theory
Resistivity is the characteristic of the material of a conductor and its SI unit is Ohm-m.

Question 10.
Identify A and B:

Answer:

Explanation: When ethanol reacts with chromic anhydride(CrO₃), only partial oxidation occurs and ethanal is formed.

On the other hand, when ethanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate (KMnO₄), it produces ethanoic acid due to complete oxidation.

Caution
Students usually make mistakes as they confused whether partial or complete oxidation occurs. In the presence of CrO₃, CH₃COOH partial oxidation of ethanol occurs. While complete oxidation of ethanol occurs in the presence ofalk. KMnO₄.

Question 11.
Many people in a village had growing swollen necks, which was a problem for the hilly area’s inhabitants.

A doctor came to the village, carefully listened to the residents’ problems, and gave them the advice to substitute iodized salt for regular salt in their food. The issue was largely resolved within a few months. What was the cause of the swollen neck of people in the village?
(a) Efficiency of p arathyroid h ormone.
(b) Deficiency of thyroxine hormone.
(c) Increased concentration of thyroxine hormone.
(d) Deficiency of parathyroid hormone. (1)
Answer:
(b) Deficiency of thyroxine hormone.

Explanation: Goitre is a condition that causes the swollen neck. Thyroxine hormone deficiency is the cause of goitre. Because iodine aids in the production of the hormone thyroxine, which helps to prevent goitre, using iodized salt was advised.

Question 12.
What kind of substances are introduced in the food chain by biological magnification?
(a) Harmful
(b) Non-toxic
(c) Harmless
(d) Harmful and toxic (1)
Answer:
(d) Harmful and toxic

Explanation: Biological Magnification is the process by which the harmful and toxic substances enter the food chain and get concentrated in the body of living organisms at each successive level in food chain.

Question 13.
Study the VI graph of two resistors Ri and R2 given below and answer the questions below:

After studying the graph, a student writes the following statements:
(I) Resistance of a conductor is the slope of VI graph.
(II) Resistance of a conductor does not depend on slope of VI graph.
(III) R₁ > R₂, as slope of VI graph is greater for R₁.
(IV) R₂ > R₁ as slope of VI graph is greater for R₂.
Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct statements),
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV) (1)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (III)
Explanation: The slope of the VI graph gives the resistance of the conductor as Ohm’s law can be mathematically expressed as V = IR, or R = V/l = slope of VI graph. As slope of graph for R₁ is steeper than that of R₂, resistance R₁ > R₂.

Question 14.
An old person complained of acute pain in stomach. Doctor gave a medicine as shown in the following image and he got immediate relief.

Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Antacid is basic in nature.
(b) Antacid neutralities acid in stomach.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Antacid is acidic in nature. (1)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: As the old person was suffering from acidity, the antacid tablet, which is basic in nature, neutralize the excess acid in his stomach due to which he got immediate relief.
Ca(OH)_2(s) + Cl_2(g) -> Ca_xOCl_2(s) + H₂O_(l)

Question 15.
An unknown resistor has 5 mA current flowing through it when 10 volts are applied to it. For the same resistor, the application of 20 volts will result in the current flow of:
(a) 2 mA
(b) 5 mA
(c) 10 mA
(d) 50 mA (1)
Answer:
(c) 10 mA
Explanation: From Ohm’s law,
V = IR.
Therefore, R. = V /l
I = 5m A or 5 x 10^-3A
Here R = 10 volts / 5 mA = 2 kΩ.
When V = 20 volts,
I = 20 volts/ 2 kΩ = 10 mA

Question 16.
A student connected a simple circuit for verifying Ohm’s law.

(I) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes half when resistance is doubled.
(II) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes double when resistance is halved.
(III) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes half when voltage is doubled.
(IV) Reading of an ammeter connected in the circuit becomes half when voltage is halved.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III) (1)
Answer:
(c) Only (III)
Explanation: As per Ohm’s law, V = IR. Or, I = V/R
Therefore, when R is halved, I becomes double and I becomes half when R is doubled. As V is proportional to I, current becomes half when voltage is halved. Therefore, statement III is the only incorrect statement.

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 17.
Assertion (A) : Adrenaline hormone secreted by adrenal gland is called an emergency hormone.
Reason (R) : Adrenaline hormone is secreted in response to fear, anger joy, cold and emotional stress. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Emergency hormone – designated adrenaline hormone, also known as triple F hormone (FFF-Fight, Fright, Flight). Some of the neurons in the central nervous system and the medulla of the adrenal glands both produce it. It is quickly released into the blood during a stressful situation, sending signals to the organs to trigger a particular response, within a few minutes.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): New combination of traits are observed in F2 offspring when tall plants with round seeds are crossed with short plants with wrinkled seeds.
Reason (R): Tallness and round seed are both dominant traits. (1)
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.

Explanation: All offsprings of F₁ generation were tall with round seeds which shows that both tallness and round seed are dominant traits. However, new combinations were seen in F₂ generation which showed that the tall/ short trait and the round/wrinkled seed trait are independently inherited.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): Food chain is a part of food web.
Reason (R): Food chain helps in stabilising the populations of endangered species (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false.

Explanation: Food chain is a sequence of eating and being eaten among the living organisms to transfer food energy so it stabilises the population of endangered species

Question 20.
Assertion (A): If the length of the conductor is doubled, the area of cross-section becomes half.
Reason (R): The resistance will be doubled (1)
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false Explanation: The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor (l) and inversely proportional to the area of cross section (A).

SECTION – B (12 MARKS)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 21.
Answer the following:
(A) Show the formation of Na20 and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(B) What are the ions present in these compounds? (2)
Answer:
(A) Formation of Sodium oxide Na₂O:
Atomic number of sodium (Na) = 11
Its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 1
Atomic number of oxygen (O) = 8
Its electronic configuration = 2, 6
Each sodium atom can lose only one electron and attain stable configuration like that of Neon (2, 8)
Na —> Na⁺ + e^–
Sodium ion
But each oxygen atom requires two electrons to attain stable configuration of neon (2, 8).

So two sodium atoms will lose two electrons (i.e. one each)

Formation of Magnesium oxide:
Atomic number of magnesium (Mg) = 12
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
It Loses two electronsfrom its valence shell and acquires electronic configuration of neon (2, 8) and form Mg²+ ion.

Atomic number of oxygen = 8
Its electronic configuration = 2, 6

It gains two electrons to acquire the stable configuration of neon (2, 8) and becomes oxide ion (O²-)

(B) The ions present in sodium oxide compound (Na²0) are sodium ions (2N^a+) and oxide ions (O^2-).
Ions present in Magnesium oxide compound (MgO) are magnesium ions Mg²⁺ and oxide ions (O^2-).

Question 22.
What are covalent bonds? Write the type of bond present in N₂ molecule.
Answer:
A covalent bond, also called a molecular bond is a chemical bond that involves the sharing of electrons between atoms. The shared electrons belong to the outermost shells of both the atoms and both the atoms need electrons to attain the noble gas configuration.

Type of bond present in N₂ molecule:
The electronic configuration of nitrogen atoms is 2, 5. Hence, nitrogen atom has 5 electrons in ‘L’. Shell and it requires three more electrons to fill the ‘L’ shell so two nitrogen atoms share their electrons to form a molecule of N₂. It will form triple covalent bond.

Question 23.
What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
OR
Major amount of water is selectively reabsorbed by the tubular part of nephron in humans. What are the factors on which the amount of water reabsorbed depends? (2)
Answer:
The various methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products are:
(1) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are the waste products generated in plants during photosynthesis, and respiration
respectively. The plants get rid of these gaseous waste products through stomata in leaves and lenticels in stems.

(2) Many plant waste products are stored in cellular vacuoles. Plants get rid of stored solid and liquid wastes by shedding of leaves, peeling of bark and felling of fruits

OR

The amount of water re-absorbed depends on:
(1) How much excess water there is in the body.
(2) How much of dissolved waste there is to be excreted

Question 24.
Compare the following structures marked as ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown in figure with respect to their structure.


Answer:
Comparison of the structure of alveoli in the lungs (A) and nephrons in the kidneys (B) is given below:

s.No.	Alveoli	Nephron
(1)	These are thin walled balloon-like structure found in the lungs.	This is a cluster of very thin-walled blood capillaries present in the kidney.
(2) L	These are supplied with extensive network of thin- walled blood vessels i.e., capillaries for gaseous exchange.	Bowman’s capsule is supplied with a cluster of capillaries called glomerulus for filtration. A network of blood vessels are present around the tubular part of nephron for reabsorption of useful substances and water

Question 25.
A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located? (2)
Answer:
Distance of the object from the concave mirror u = – 10 cm. and magnification of the real image, m = – 3.
To find position of image, we use the formula for magnification of mirrors,
m = – \(\frac { v }{ u }\)
=> v = – mu = – (-3) x (-10) = – 30 cm
Thus the image is situated infront of the mirror at a distance of 30 cm from it.

Question 26.
Two resistors with resistance 5 Ohm and 10 Ohm respectively are to be connected to a battery of 6 V so as to obtain:
(A) Minimum current flowing
(B) Maximum current flowing
(i) How will you connect the resistors in each case?
(ii) Calculate the strength of total current in the circuit in the two cases.
OR
A piece of wire of resistance 20 Ohms is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice of its original length. Calculate the resistance of the wire in the new situation. (2)
Answer:
(A) If we want minimum current, we will connect the resistors in series.If we want maximum current we will connect them in parallel.

(B) R₁ = 5 Ohms: R₂ = 10 Ohms
When connected in series
R= 10 + 5=15 Ohms
V=6V
Therefore, 1 = \(\frac { V }{ R }\) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 15 }\) = 0.4 A
When the resistors are connected in parallel.

OR
Given R = 20 Ohm
Let length of wire is l and when it is drawn out its new length will become 2l. The volume of wire in both the situations remains constant. The area of cross section of wire becomes half.
So, the new resistance of the wire,

SECTION – C (21 MARKS)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 27.
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and balance them (if needed): (3)

Answer:

Question 28.
(A) Rahul used to eat lot of sweets. As a result his teeth started damaging so early. How is tooth decay related to pH? 3
(B) What is the change in colour of pH paper dipped in a solution having a pH = 13?
OR
How can tooth decay be prevented ? (3)
Answer:
(A) When we eat food containing sugar, then the bacteria present in our mouth break down the sugar to form acids such as lactic acid, This acid lowers the pH in the mouth making it acidicTooth decay starts when the pH of acid formed in the mouth falls below 5.5. This is because then the acid becomes strong enough to attack the enamel of our teeth and corrode it. This sets in tooth decay.

(B) The solution with highest pH (13) will have minimum hydrogen ion concentration i.e. alkaline solution and so will change colour of pH paper to light violet colour.

OR

The best way to prevent tooth decay is to clean the mouth thoroughly after eating food by rinsing it with lots of clean water. Many tooth pastes contain bases to neutralise the mouth acid. The pH of tooth paste is about 8.0. Therefore, using the tooth paste, which is generally basic, for cleaning the tooth can neutralise the excess acid in mouth and prevent tooth decay

Question 29.
An alkali metal A gives a compound B (molecular mass = 40) on reacting with water. The compound B gives a soluble compound C on treatment with aluminium oxide, identify A, B and C and give the reactions involved. (3)
Answer:
A is Na, B is NaOH and C is NaAlO₂ Reactions involved are:

Let the atomic mass of alkali metal ‘A’ be a. When it reacts with water, it forms a compound
‘B’ having molecular mass 40.
Therefore, a + 16 + 1 = 40
a = 40 – 17 = 23
We know that the atomic mass of Na (sodium) is 23.

Therefore, the alkali metal (A) is Na. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide. So,
compound B is sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

Sodium hydroxide reacts with aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) to give sodium aluminate (NaAlO₂).
Thus, ‘C’ is sodium aluminate (NaAlO₂).

Question 30.
Answer the following:
(A) Mention the adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis.
(B) Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in small intestine? (3)
Answer:
(A) The adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis are as follows:
(1) Leaves have chlorophyll i.e. the main site for photosynthesis.

(2) The shape of the leaves enables to absorb maximum sunlight for photosynthesis.

(3) Leaves have stomata which help in gas exchange and transpiration. Stomata help the leaves in taking in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

(B) Maximum absorption of digested food occurs in small intestine due to following reasons
(1) Digestion process gets completed in small intestine.

(2) Inner lining of small intestine is provided with millions of tiny, finger like projections called villi. Each villus has a network of fine blood capillaries close to the surface. The presence of villi gives the inner walls of small intestine greater surface area which helps in rapid absorption of food.

(3) Wall of intestine are richly supplied with blood vessels through which the absorbed food istaken to each and every cell of the body.

Question 31.
Explain how DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction? What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
OR
Answer the following:
(A) How will you differentiate between pollination and fertilization?
(B) Neha’s doctor suggested her to use copper-T as she do not want to have a child. If she is using a copper T, will it help her in protecting from sexually transmitted diseases.
Answer:
DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction because it makes possible the transmission of genetic information from parents to offspring in the next generation. DNA contains information for the inheritance of characteristics from the parents to the next generation. Advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction:
(1) In sexual reproduction, more variations are produced. Thus, it ensures survival of species in a population.
(2) Variations favour evolution and play an important role in origin of new species.
(3) It maintains chromosome number in future generation.
(4) The new formed individual has characteristics of both the parents.

OR

(A)

S.No.	Process (i) (Pollination)	Process (ii) (Fertilization)
(1)	It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel of a flower.	It is the fusion of male gamete with female gamete.
(2)	It is a physical process  brought by the pollinating agents like water, air, insects.	It is a physio- chemical process.
(3)	It precedes fertilization.	It follows fertilization

(B) No, the copper T will not protect her from sexually transmitted diseases Copper T is used to keep a gap between the children. It is used by females only. Condom on the other hand prevents the deposition of sperm into the vagina and also protect both males and females from sexually transmitted diseases.

Question 32.
(A) What is the focal length of the given lens ?

(B) An object is kept at a distance of 100 cm from the above lens. Calculate the image distance and the magnification.(3)
Answer:
(A) Focal length is the reciprocal of the power in metres.
P= \(\frac { 1 }{ f }\)
f = \(\frac { 1 }{ P }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ -4 }\)
= – 0.25 m
= – 25 cm
A negative power gives negative focal length and is a property of a diverging lens (concave lens).

(B) f = – 25 cm, u = – 100 cm Using lens formula,

Since v is (-) ve, therefore image is virtual, and erect
Magnification,
m = \(\frac { v }{ u }\) = \(\frac { -20 }{ -100 }\)
m = 0.2

Question 33.
Ozone therapy is a controversial alternative medical practice that uses ozone gas to fight disease. Aditya asked his mother whether this ozone therapy is legal to be used. His mother explained that in 2019, the Food and Drug Administation (FDA) warned against using this therapy because there is not enough evidence to conclude that it is safe for medical use. They say that it has no known useful application in supportive or preventive medicine. It is a toxic and harmful air pollution on ground level. Why is damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
Answer:
Damage to the ozone layer is a cause of concern for the following reason:
(1) Ozone layer depletion causes increased UV radiation levels at the Earth’s surface, which is damaging to human health as it causes certain types of skin cancers, eye cataracts and immune deficiency disorders.

Synthetic chemicals such as Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) are mainly responsible for drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere.

Steps being taken to minimize its damage are:

• Freezing CFC production at 1986 levels as per the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) agreement.
• Replacing CFCs with environment friendly apliances.
• Minimizing the leakage of CFCs from refrigerators and air conditioners.

SECTION – D (15 Marks)
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are tong answer questions.)

Question 34.
A given organic solid’s melting point was to be ascertained by Ritesh. He did this by putting H2S04 in a bath. He lost focus and started to act a little carelessly as he glanced at the thermometer. He was covered in sulfuric acid after the boiling beaker fell. He had hand and clothing burns that were very bad.
(A) What caused Ritesh to have an accident?
(B) Why did he suffer from severe burns to his hands?
(C) What precautions must be followed while working in a lab? (5)
Answer:
(A) The tripod stand, the bath or beaker containing the concentrated H2S04 was not properly positioned. The acid spilled over him when it lost its balance.
(B) A very effective dehydrating agent is sulfuric acid. It eliminated the water content of the skin, which became burned and charred.
(C) A student must take the following safety precautions while working in the.
chemistry Lab:
(i) In the laboratory, you must always wear an apron.
(ii) Always maintain a safe distance from the table where the experiment is being conducted.
(iii) Must maintain alertness at alL times in the lab and maintain focus. Keep a safe distance at all times from the table where the experiment is being conducted.
(iv) Must maintain constant alertness and concentration in the Lab.

Question 35.
Answer the following:
(A) Draw a diagram of its longitudinal section showing the process of germination of pollen on stigma and label the following on it:
(i) Male germ cell
(ii) Female germ cell
(iii) Ovary
(iv) Pollen tube

(B) Observe the given figures :

Process (i) may occur without process (ii) but process (ii) will not take place without Process (i). Give reasons.

OR

(A) Give an example of bisexual flower. What is its female reproductive part known as?
(B) Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower. (5)
Answer:
(A) Diagram of longitudinal section of flower showing the process of germination of pollen on stigma:

(B) Pollination (i) is just the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of stamen to the stigma of pistil. It is carried out by agents like wind, insect etc. For pollination to happen there is no need of fertilization of gametes i.e. their union. Fertilization (ii) is fusion of male and female gamete and this process is facilitated by pollination. By pollination pollens are brought to eggs so that they can fuse and fertilisation can take place. Therefore, pollination may occur without fertilisation but fertilisation will not take place without pollination.

OR

(A) A flower that contains both the male and female reproductive structures (stamen and pistil) is called a bisexual flower. Example: rose, hibiscus. Its female reproductive part is known as carpel or pistil.

Question 36.
What is a solenoid? How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Cars you determine the north and south poles of a currentcarrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.

OR

(A) When is the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
(B) Name two devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic fields.
(C) State the rule to determine the direction of a:
(i) magnetic field produced around a straight conductor carrying current.
(ii) Force experienced by a current carrying straight conductor placed in a field, which is perpendicular to it. (5)
Answer:
A solenoid is a coil of many circular turns of wire wrapped in the shape of a cylinder. When current passes through the solenoid it creates a magnetic field around it. The magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid. Thus, the solenoid behaves like a magnet. One end of the solenoid behaves as a magnetic north pole, while the other behaves as the south pole. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. This indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform inside the solenoid.

The north and south poles of the solenoid can be determined by bringing one pole of a bar magnet next to the solenoid and checking whether it is attracted to or repelled by the solenoid. If it is repelled, they are like poles and unlike poles in the vice versa case.

OR

(A) The force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic fields is largest, when direction of current is at right angles to the direction of magnetic field.

(B) The devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic field are: Loudspeakers, microphones, measuring instruments, etc

(C) (i) Right Hand Thumb Rule: Imagine holding a current carrying straight conductor in your right hand such that the thumb of right hand points along the direction of current. Then, the fingers of the hand will wrap around the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field.

(ii) Fleming’s Left Hand Rule: Stretch the thumb, forefinger and the central finger of your left hand so that they are mutually perpendicular to one another. If the fore finger points in the direction of a magnetic field B and the central finger points in the direction of current T. through the conductor, then the thumb will point in the direction of force F (direction of motion of conductor) acting on the conductor

SECTION – E (12 MARKS)
(Q.no. 37 to 39 are case – based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub – parts. Internal
choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)

Question 37.
The following chart explains the dihybrid cross in detail between one pea plant with yellow and round seeds and the other pea plant having green and wrinkled seeds. Analyse it and answer the following. (4)

(A) After studying the above cross, a student noted down the following observations regarding progeny of F₂ generation. What is the ratio obtained in F₂ generation ?

(B) in the F₂ generation of a cross, it was observed that the phenotypic ratio of progeny having different traits is 485 : 165 out of 650 observations. What type of cross is this? Explain.

OR

(B) A cross between the purple flowers of pea plant. (PP) and white flowers (pp) resulted in all F₁ progeny that had purple flowers. Why ?
Answer:
(A) When yellow, round seeds were crossed with green, wrinkled seeds, the phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny was:
Yellow, round : Yellow wrinkled (new combination) : Green, round (new combination) : Green, wrinkled = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(B) It is a monohybrid cross: The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of the given cross is 485 : 165 or approximately 3 : 1, which shows that it is a monohybrid cross. The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross is 9 : 3 : 3 :1.

OR

(B) Purple colour is the dominant trait. As all progeny of Fi generation had purple flowers, this is an example of monohybrid cross as Mendel used a pair of pea plants with two contrasting traits (purple flower/ white flower).

Question 38.
Whenever a chemical reaction takes place, the bonds present in the reactions break and new bonds are formed in the products. Energy is needed to break the bonds in the reactants. While it is released when new bonds are formed resulting in the formation of products. The two values of energies are normally not equal. Hence, an energy change takes place in a chemical reaction. The graph below shows the energy changes taking place in exothermic and endothermic reactions: (4)

(A) What is the name given to chemical reactions where more energy is needed to break the bonds as compared to energy released during bond formation?
(B) When an exothermic reaction takes place, the reaction mixture gives out heat. Why?
(C) Which of the following are exothermic processes?
Explain.
(I) Reaction of water with quick lime
(II) Dilution of an acid
(III) Evaporation of water
(IV) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
OR
(C) A student analyzed the observations given in the table below and wrote the following statements

Set	Mixture	Initial temperature (°c)	Highest/lowest ternperature (°c)
(I)	Solid sodi­um hydrogen carbonate + hydrochloric acid	29.0	27.5
(II)	Solid sodium hydroxide + hydrochloric acid	29.0	35.0
(III)	Solid sodium hydroxide + water	29.0	33.0
(IV)	Solid ammoni­um chloride + water	29.0	26.0

What type of reaction (exothermic/ endothermic) is each set ?
Answer:
(A) The name given to a chemical reaction where energy is needed to break the bonds is endothermic reaction.

(B) More energy is released when new bonds are formed than is taken in when existing bonds in the reactants are broken.

(C) Both (I) and (II) When water is added to quicklime, a lot of heat is produced:
CaO_(s) + H₂O_(l) → Ca(OH)_2(aq) + Heat
Similarly, the dilution of acids is a highly , exothermic process. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out, cause burns and may break the glass container.

OR

(C) Reaction at set I and IV are endothermic reactions as final temperatures are lower than initial temperatures showing that heat is absorbed during the reaction.Reaction at set il and III are exothermic reactions as final temperatures are higher than initial temperatures showing that heat is evolved during the reaction.

39. Ankit remarked that he has seen wavering of objects when seen through a stream of hot air rising above a tandoor or a fire. He said that the air just above the fire becomes hotter than the air further higher up. He further said that this wavering can also be seen in the earth’s atmosphere as the earth’s atmosphere is not evenly distributed and several observations can be explained on the basis of this phenomenon. To explain his point further, he plotted the variation of refractive index of the atmosphere with altitude

(A) Name the phenomenon about which Ankit remarked.
(B) Write any two observations which can be explained by the above phenomenon.
(C) What is the total time difference on duration of day on Earth? Explain.
OR
(C) What do you analyse from the graph given above ? After analysing the graph a student writes the following statements. (4)
Answer:
(A) The phenomenon is “Atmospheric refraction” which is the refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to the decrease of refractive index with decreasing density or increasing temperature of air.

Related Theory
Dispersion of light is the separation of visible light into its different colors. Scattering of light is the phenomenon in which light rags get deviated from its straight path on striking an obstacle like dust or gas molecules, water vapours etc. Diffusion occurs when a ray of light strikes a surface and the light is scattered.

(B) The two observations which can be explained by atmospheric refraction are: Twinkling of stars and advance sunrise.

Related Theory
Formation of rainbow is due to refraction of light, dispersion, total internal reflection and again refraction.

(C) The total time difference on the duration of day on earth = 4 minutes = 2 minutes (due to advanced sunrise) + 2 minutes (due to delayed sunset).

OR

(C) The refractive index of the atmosphere decreases with altitude, that is, the air in the upper atmosphere is rarer as compared to the air below. As the starlight travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it will be bent towards the normal.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

समय : 3 घंटे
पूर्णांक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

1. इस प्रश्न पत्र में दो खंड हैं- खंड ‘अ’ और ‘ब’। कुल प्रश्न 13 हैं।
2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों के उचित आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं।
4. प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए दीजिए।
5. दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
6. यथासंभव दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमशः लिखिए।

रखण्ड’अ’ : वस्तुपरक-प्रश्न
अपठित गद्यांश

1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनकर लिखिए- (1x 10 = 10)

उपवास और संयम ये आत्महत्या के साधन नहीं हैं। भोजन का असली स्वाद उसी को मिलता है जो कुछ दिन बिना खाए भी रह सकता है। ‘त्यक्तेन भुंजीथाः’ जीवन का भोग त्याग के साथ करो, यह केवल परमार्थ का ही उपदेश नहीं है, क्योंकि संयम से भोग करने पर जीवन में जो आनंद प्राप्त होता है, वह निरा भोगी बनकर भोगने से नहीं मिल पाता जिंदगी की दो सूरतें हैं। एक तो यह कि आदमी बड़े-से-बड़े मकसद के लिए कोशिश करे, जगमगाती हुई जीत पर पंजा डालने के लिए हाथ बढ़ाए, और अगर असफलताएँ कदम-कदम पर जोश की रोशनी के साथ अंधियाली का जाल बुन रही हों, तब भी वह पीछे को पाँव न हटाए। दूसरी सूरत यह है कि उन गरीब आत्माओं का हमजोली बन जाए जो न तो बहुत अधिक सुख पाती हैं और न जिन्हें बहुत अधिक दुःख पाने का ही संयोग है, क्योंकि वे आत्माएँ ऐसी गोधूलि में बसती हैं जहाँ न तो जीत हँसती है और न कभी हार के रोने की आवाज़ सुनाई पड़ती है। इस गोधूलि वाली दुनिया के लोग बंधे हुए घाट का पानी पीते हैं, वे ज़िंदगी के साथ जुआ नहीं खेल सकते और कौन कहता है कि पूरी जिंदगी को दाँव पर लगा देने में कोई आनंद नहीं है?

जनमत की उपेक्षा करके जीने वाला आदमी दुनिया की असली ताक़त होता है और मनुष्यता को प्रकाश भी उसी आदमी से मिलता है। जिंदगी से, अंत में, हम उतना ही पाते हैं जितनी कि उसमें पूँजी लगाते हैं। यह पूँजी लगाना जिंदगी के संकटों का सामना करना है, उसके उस पन्ने को उलट कर पढ़ना है जिसके सभी अक्षर फूलों से ही नहीं, कुछ अंगारों से भी लिखे गए हैं। जिंदगी का भेद कुछ उसे ही मालूम है जो यह जानकर चलता है कि जिंदगी कभी भी खत्म न होने वाली चीज़ है। अरे ! ओ जीवन के साधकों ! अगर किनारे की मरी सीपियों से ही तुम्हें संतोष हो जाए तो समुद्र के अंतराल में छिपे हुए मौक्तिक-कोष को कौन बाहर लाएगा?

दनिया में जितने भी मजे बिखेरे गए हैं उनमें तुम्हारा भी हिस्सा है। वह चीज भी तुम्हारी हो सकती है जिसे तुम अपनी पहँच के परे मान कर लौटे जा रहे हो। कामना का अंचल छोटा मत करो, जिंदगी के फल को दोनों हाथों से दबाकर निचोड़ो, रस की निर्झरी तुम्हारे बहाए भी बह सकती है।

(i) ‘त्यक्तेन भुंजीथाः’ कथन से लेखक के व्यक्तित्व की किस विशेषता का बोध होता है?
(क) परिवर्जन
(ख) परिवर्तन
(ग) परावर्तन
(घ) प्रत्यावर्तन
उत्तर:
(क) परिवर्जन

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
लेखक के अनुसार व्यक्ति को निरा भोगी बनकर नहीं बल्कि त्याग व संयम के साथ जीवन का भोग करना चाहिए, तभी आनंद प्राप्त हो सकता है।

(ii) मंज़िल पर पहुँचने का सच्चा आनंद उसे मिलता है, जिसने उसे
(क) आन की आन में प्राप्त कर लिया हो
(ख) पाने के लिए भरसक प्रयास किया हो
(ग) हाथ बढ़ा कर मुट्ठी में कर लिया हो
(घ) सच्चाई से अपने सपनों में बसा लिया हो
उत्तर:
(ख) पाने के लिए भरसक प्रयास किया हो

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जीवन में अपनी मंज़िल अर्थात् उद्देश्य प्राप्ति के लिए, असफलताओं और मुसीबतों का धैर्यपूर्वक सामना करते हुए अपने भरसक प्रयास करने चाहिए, तभी सच्चा आनंद प्राप्त हो सकता है।

(iii) ‘गोधूलि’ शब्द का तात्पर्य है-
(क) गोधेनु
(ख) संध्यावेला
(ग) गगन धूलि
(घ) गोद ली कन्या
उत्तर:
(ख) संध्यावेला

व्याख्यात्मक हल: सूर्यास्त से ठीक पहले के समय को, जब आसमान में सूर्य की किरणें पीले रंग की दिखाई पड़ती हैं और सभी पशु-पक्षी अपने घरों व घोंसलों में लौटने लगते हैं, गोधूलि कहते हैं।

(iv) ‘गोधूलि’ वाली दुनिया के लोगों से अभिप्राय है
(क) विवशता और अभाव में जीने वाले
(ख) जीवन को दाँव पर लगाने वाले
(ग) गायों के खुरों से धूलि उड़ाने वाले
(घ) क्षितिज में लालिमा फैलाने वाले
उत्तर:
(क) विवशता और अभाव में जीने वाले

व्याख्यात्मक हल: ऐसे गरीब लोग जो विवशता और अभाव में जीते हैं, जिनके जीवन का सूर्य हमेशा अस्त ही रहता है क्योंकि उन्हें सुखों का आभास नहीं हो पाता और दुःख उनके जीवन का ही हिस्सा होते हैं।

(v) जीवन में असफलताएँ मिलने पर भी साहसी मनुष्य क्या करता है?
(क) बिना डरे आगे बढ़ता है क्योंकि डर के आगे जीत है
(ख) पराजय से निबटने के लिए फूंक-फूंककर कदम आगे रखता है
(ग) अपने मित्र बँधुओं से सलाह और मदद के विषय में विचार करता है।
(घ) असफ़लता का कारण ढूँढकर पुनः आगे बढ़ने का प्रयास करता है।
उत्तर:
(घ) असफ़लता का कारण ढूँढकर पुनः आगे बढ़ने का प्रयास करता है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: साहसी मनुष्य जीवन के संघर्ष में मिलने वाली असफलताओं, समस्याओं से घबराता नहीं है बल्कि उनका कारण ढूँढकर, फिर से संघर्ष करने को तत्पर हो जाता है।

(vi) आप कैसे पहचानेंगे कि कोई व्यक्ति साहस की जिंदगी जी रहा है?
(क) जनमत की परवाह करने वाला
(ख) निडर और निशंक जीने वाला
(ग) शत्रु के छक्के छुड़ाने वाला
(घ) भागीरथी प्रयत्न करने वाला
उत्तर:
(ख) निडर और निशंक जीने वाला

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जब कोई व्यक्ति जनमत की परवाह न करते हुए, जिंदगी के संकटों का सामना करते हुए भी निडरता से, बेधड़क होकर अपना जीवन जीता है तो वह निश्चित ही साहसी होता है।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) प्रत्येक परिस्थिति का सामना करने के लिए सदैव तैयार रहना चाहिए।
(II) मनुष्य अपने दृढ़ मंतव्य व कठिन परिश्रम से सर्वोच्च प्राप्ति की ओर अग्रसर रहता है।
(III) विपत्ति सदैव समर्थ के समक्ष ही आती है, जिससे वह पार उतर सके।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल II
(ग) I और II
(घ) II और III
उत्तर:
(ग) I और II

(viii) ‘जिंदगी को दाँव पर लगा देने में कोई आनंद नहीं है? लेखक इससे सिद्ध करना चाहते हैं कि जिंदगी
(क) रंगमंच के कलाकारों के समान व्यतीत करनी चाहिए।
(ख) में सकारात्मक परिस्थितियाँ ही आनंद प्रदान करती हैं।
(ग) में प्रतिकूलता का अनुभव जीवनोपयोगी होता है।
(घ) केवल दुःखद स्थितियों का सामना करवाती है।
उत्तर:
(ग) में प्रतिकूलता का अनुभव जीवनोपयोगी होता है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जीवन में प्रतिकूलता को बुरा समय समझकर निराश नहीं होना चाहिए बल्कि इसका अनुभव करने से हमें जीवन का वास्तविक रूप पता चलता है। यह जीवन में सफलता प्राप्त करने हेतु एक प्रेरक शक्ति के रूप में मनुष्य को प्रेरणा देती है।

(ix) किन व्यक्तियों को सुख का स्वाद अधिक मिलता है?
(क) जो अत्यधिक सुख प्राप्त करते हैं
(ख) जो सुख-दुःख से दूर होते हैं
(ग) जो पहले दुःख झेलते हैं
(घ) जो सुख को अन्य लोगों से साझा करते हैं।
उत्तर:
(ग) जो पहले दुःख झेलते हैं

व्याख्यात्मक हल: दुःख के बिना सुख का अनुभव नहीं हो सकता। दुःख को साहस से झेलने के बाद ही कोई व्यक्ति सबल बनकर सुख प्राप्त करता है क्योंकि दुःख ही विपरीत परिस्थितियों से व्यक्ति की संघर्ष करने की क्षमता का विकास कर; उसे ऊर्जावान बनाकर सुख का स्वाद चखने योग्य बनाता है।

(x) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): ‘जिंदगी के फल को दोनों हाथों से दबाकर निचोड़ो, रस की निर्झरी तुम्हारे बहाए भी बह सकती है’।
कारण (R): जिंदगी रूपी फल का रसास्वादन करने के लिए दोनों हाथों से श्रम करना होगा।
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) गलत है लेकिन कारण (R) सही है।
(ग) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
(घ) कथन (A) सही है लेकिन कारण (R) उसकी गलत व्याख्या करता है।
उत्तर:
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।

2. निम्नलिखित पद्यांशों में से किसी एक पद्यांश से संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प-चयन द्वारा दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

चिड़िया को लाख समझाओ
कि पिंजड़े के बाहर
धरती बड़ी है, निर्मम है,
वहाँ हवा में उसे
बाहर जाने का टोटा है
यहाँ चुग्गा मोटा है।
बाहर बहेलिये का डर है
यहाँ निर्भय कंठ स्वर है।
फिर भी चिड़िया मुक्ति का गाना गाएगी,
अपने जिस्म की गंध तक नहीं मिलेगी।
यूँ तो बाहर समुद्र है, नदी है,
झरना है, पर पानी के लिए भटकना है,
यहाँ कटोरी में भरा जल गटकना है।
मारे जाने की आशंका से भरे होने पर भी
पिंजड़े से जितना अंग निकल सकेगा निकालेगी,
हर सू ज़ोर लगाएगी
और पिंजरा टूट जाने या खुल जाने पर उड़ जाएगी।

(i) पिंजड़े के भीतर चिड़िया को क्या-क्या सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध हैं?
(क) खाने की स्वतंत्रता, सम्मान और स्नेह
(ख) नीर, कनक, आवास और सुरक्षा
(ग) प्यार, पुरस्कार, भोजन और हवा
(घ) निश्चितता, निर्भयता, नियम और नीरसता
उत्तर:
(ख) नीर, कनक, आवास और सुरक्षा

व्याख्यात्मक हल: पिंजड़े के भीतर चिड़िया को जल, भोजन, आवास व सुरक्षा की सभी सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध हैं। उसे इन आधारभूत वस्तुओं के लिए कोई परिश्रम नहीं करना पड़ता।

(ii) बाहर सुखों का अभाव और प्राणों का संकट होने पर भी चिड़िया मुक्ति ही क्यों चाहती है?
(क) वह अपने परिवार से मिलना चाहती है।
(ख) वह आज़ाद जीवन जीना पसंद करती है।
(ग) वह जीवन से मुक्ति चाहती है।
(घ) वह लंबी उड़ान भरना चाहती है।
उत्तर:
(ख) वह आज़ाद जीवन जीना पसंद करती है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: चिड़िया पराधीन होकर पिंजड़े के अन्दर का सुख नहीं चाहती क्योंकि पराधीनता से बड़ा कोई अभिशाप नहीं। पिंजड़े से बाहर बेशक उसे सुखों का अभाव व प्राणों का संकट महसूस हो, किन्तु वह आज़ाद जीवन जीना ही पसंद करती है जहाँ वह केवल अपने ही आधीन रहती है।

(iii) चिड़िया के समक्ष धरती को निर्मम बताने का मंतव्य है
(क) भयावह स्थिति उत्पन्न करना
(ख) छोटे जीव के प्रति दया भाव
(ग) बहेलिये से बचाव की प्रेरणा
(घ) जीवनोपयोगी वस्तुएँ जुटाने का संघर्ष दर्शाना
उत्तर:
(क) भयावह स्थिति उत्पन्न करना

व्याख्यात्मक हल: धरती पर चिड़िया के लिए अनेक कठिनाईयाँ हैं। उसे दूसरे जानवरों द्वारा मारे जाने का भय है, उसे भोजन-पानी के लिए अत्यधिक श्रम करना पड़ेगा, उसे जीवन में सुखों का अभाव झेलना पड़ेगा।

(iv) पद्यांश का मूल प्रतिपाद्य क्या है?
(क) पिंजरे में पक्षी रखने वालों को सही राह दिखाना
(ख) पिंजरे के भीतर और बाहर की दुनिया दिखाना
(ग) पिंजरे के पक्षी की उड़ान और दर्द से परिचित कराना
(घ) पिंजरे के पक्षी के माध्यम से स्वतंत्रता का महत्त्व बताना
उत्तर:
(घ) पिंजरे के पक्षी के माध्यम से स्वतंत्रता का महत्त्व बताना

व्याख्यात्मक हल: स्वतंत्र व्यक्ति अपनी इच्छा से कहीं आ-जा सकता है, अपने विचारों की अभिव्यक्ति कर सकता है, अपने दायित्वों की पूर्ति कर सकता है जबकि पराधीनता या परतंत्रता में केवल कष्टमय जीवन ही प्राप्त होता है। हमें गुलाम बनकर रहना पड़ता है।

(v) कवि के संबंध में इनमें से सही है कि वह
(क) प्रकृति के प्रति सचेत हैं
(ख) चिड़िया की सुरक्षा चाहते हैं
(ग) आज़ादी के समर्थक हैं
(घ) अन्न-जल की उपयोगिता बताते हैं
उत्तर:
(ग) आज़ादी के समर्थक हैं

व्याख्यात्मक हल: कवि को मालूम है कि परतंत्रता कितनी दु:खद स्थिति होती है। भारत जब अंग्रेज़ों के आधीन था तब स्वयं को स्वतंत्र कराने के लिए भारत की जनता ने अनेकों बलिदान दिए, तब जाकर वह स्वतंत्र हो सका, आज़ाद हो सका। वह जानता है कि स्वतंत्रता हमारा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है।

अथवा

हैं जन्म लेते जगह में एक ही,
एक ही पौधा उन्हें है पालता
रात में उन पर चमकता चाँद भी,
एक ही-सी चाँदनी है डालता।
मेह उन पर है बरसता एक-सा,
एक सी उन पर हवाएँ है बही
पर सदा ही यह दिखाता है हमें
ढंग उनके एक से होते नहीं।

छेदकर काँटा किसी की अँगुलियाँ,
फाड़ देता है किसी का वर वसन
प्यार-डूबी तितलियों का पर कतर,
भँवर का है भेद देता श्यान तन।

फूल लेकर तितलियों को गोद में
भँवर को अपना अनूठा रस पिला,
निज सुगंधों और निराले ढंग से
है सदा देता कली का जी खिला।

है खटकता एक सबकी आँख में
दूसरा है सोहता सुर शीश पर,
किस तरह कुल की बड़ाई काम दे
जो किसी में हो बड़प्पन की कसर ।

(i) प्रस्तुत काव्यांश किससे संबंधित है?
(क) फूल और तितलियों से
(ख) फूल और पौधे से
(ग) पौधे और चाँदनी से
(घ) बड़प्पन की पहचान से
उत्तर:
(घ) बड़प्पन की पहचान से

व्याख्यात्मक हल: प्रस्तुत काव्यांश प्रकृति-प्रदत्त वस्तुओं द्वारा बिना किसी भेदभाव के अपना कार्य कर, बड़प्पन प्रस्तुत करने से संबंधित है।

(ii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) सद्गुणों के कारण ही मानुस प्रेम का पात्र बनता है।
(II) परिवेशगत समानता सदैव अव्यवस्था को जन्म देती है।
(III) भौगोलिक परिस्थितियाँ प्राकृतिक भिन्नता का कारण हैं।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल II
(ग) I और II
(घ) II और III
उत्तर:
(क) केवल I

(iii) इस काव्यांश से हमें क्या सीख मिलती है?
(क) मनुष्य के कर्म उसे प्रसिद्धि दिलाते हैं।
(ख) समान परिवेश में रहते हुए मनुष्य समान आदर पाते हैं।
(ग) किसी भी कुल में जन्म लेने से ही मनुष्य बड़ा हो सकता है।
(घ) समान पालन-पोषण होने पर अलग व्यक्तियों के स्वभाव समान होते हैं।
उत्तर:
(क) मनुष्य के कर्म उसे प्रसिद्धि दिलाते हैं।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: जिस प्रकार चंद्रमा, बादल, हवाएँ अपने कर्म से प्रसिद्धि पाते हैं, फूल, तितली, भँवरा भी अपना कार्य करते हैं, उसी प्रकार मनुष्य भी अपने अच्छे कर्मों से ही प्रसिद्धि पा सकता है।

(iv) ‘फाड़ देता है किसी का पर वसन’ में ‘वसन’ शब्द का अर्थ है
(क) व्यसन
(ख) वस्त्र
(ग) वास
(घ) वासना
उत्तर:
(ख) वस्त्र

(v) कवितानुसार फूल निम्न में से कौन-सा कार्य नहीं करता?
(क) भँवरों को अपना रस पिलाता है।
(ख) तितलियों को अपनी गोद में खिलाता है।
(ग) फल बनकर पशु-पक्षियों और मनुष्यों का पेट भरता है।
(घ) सुरों के शीश पर सोहता है।
उत्तर:
(ग) फल बनकर पशु-पक्षियों और मनुष्यों का पेट भरता है।

3. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) मुद्रित माध्यमों के लेखन में सहज प्रवाह के लिए ज़रूरी है
(क) तारतम्यता
(ख) उपलब्धता
(ग) एकरेखीयता
(घ) साध्यता
उत्तर:
(क) तारतम्यता

व्याख्यात्मक हल-मुद्रित माध्यमों में सहज प्रवाह में लेखन के लिए आवश्यक तत्त्व है तारतम्यता अर्थात् एक निरंतरता जिससे कि पाठक की लेख में रूचि बनी रहे।

(ii) संबंधित घटना के दृश्य बाइट व ग्राफिक द्वारा खबर को संपूर्णता से पेश करना कहलाता है
(क) एंकर विजुअल
(ख) एंकर बाइट
(ग) एंकर पैकेज
(घ) ड्राई एंकर
उत्तर:
(ग) एंकर पैकेज

(iii) छह ककार के लिए उचित क्रम का चयन कीजिए
(क) क्या, कौन, कहाँ, कब, क्यों, कैसे
(ख) किसने, कब, क्यों, कैसे, कहाँ, किधर
(ग) कैसे, किससे, कब, क्यों, कितना, कौन
(घ) क्यों, कैसे, कब, कहाँ, किससे, किसने
उत्तर:
(क) क्या, कौन, कहाँ, कब, क्यों, कैसे

(iv) कॉलम ‘क’ का कॉलम ‘ख’ से उचित मिलान कीजिए-

कॉलम ‘क’	कॉलम ‘ख’
(i) बीट रिपोर्टर	(i) निवेशक
(ii) फीचर	(ii) संवाददाता
(iii) कारोबार	(iii) घुटने टेकना
(iv) खेल	(iv) कथात्मक

(क) (i)-(iii), (ii)-(iv), (iii)-(i), (iv)-(ii)
(ख) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(iv), (iii)-(i), (iv)-(iii)
(ग) (i)-(iv), (ii)-(iii), (iii)-(ii), (iv)-(i)
(घ) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(i), (iii)-(iv), (iv)-(iii)
उत्तर:
(ख) (i)-(ii), (ii)-(iv), (iii)-(i), (iv)-(iii)

(v) विशेष लेखन के लिए सबसे ज़रूरी बात है
(क) चील-उड़ान और शब्द-विवेक
(ख) गिद्ध-दृष्टि और पक्का इरादा
(ग) शब्दावली और उपलब्धियाँ
(घ) प्रभावशीलता और बुद्धिमत्ता
उत्तर:
(ख) गिद्ध-दृष्टि और पक्का इरादा

व्याख्यात्मक हल: विशेष लेखन करते समय समाचार पर गिद्ध की तरह की तीखी दृष्टि रखनी चाहिए और साथ ही लेखन पूर्ण करने का पक्का इरादा।

4. निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रात नभ था बहुत नीला शंख जैसे
भोर का नभ
राख से लीपा हुआ चौका
(अभी गीला पड़ा है)
बहुत काली सिल ज़रा से लाल केसर से
कि जैसे धुल गई हो
स्लेट पर या लाल खड़िया चाक़
मल दी हो किसी ने
नील जल में या किसी की
गौर झिलमिल देह
जैसे हिल रही हो
और…….
जादू टूटता है इस उषा का अब
सूर्योदय हो रहा है।

(i) नील जल में किसी की गौर, झिलमिल देह जैसे हिल रही हो’ में कौन-सा भाव है?
(क) तरलता का
(ख) निर्मलता का
(ग) उज्जवलता का
(घ) सहजता का
उत्तर:
(ख) निर्मलता का

(ii) नीले नभ में उदय होता हुआ सूर्य किसके जैसा प्रतीत हो रहा है?
(क) शंख जैसा
(ख) गौरवर्णीय सुंदरी जैसा
(ग) सिंदूर जैसा
(घ) नीले जल जैसा
उत्तर:
(ख) गौरवर्णीय सुंदरी जैसा

(iii) इस काव्यांश में कवि ने उषा का कौन-सा चित्र उपस्थित किया है?
(क) छायाचित्र
(ख) रेखाचित्र
(ग) शब्दचित्र
(घ) भित्तिचित्र
उत्तर:
(ग) शब्दचित्र

(iv) अलंकार की दृष्टि से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है?
(क) बहुत नीला शंख जैसे – उपमा अलंकार
(ख) जादू टूटता है इस उषा का अब – उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार
(ग) सूर्योदय हो रहा है – रूपक अलंकार
(घ) गौर झिलमिल देह जैसे हिल रही हो – अन्योक्ति अलंकार
उत्तर:
(क) बहुत नीला शंख जैसे – उपमा अलंकार

(v) कवि द्वारा भोर को राख का लीपा हुआ चौंका कहना प्रतिपादित करता है कि भोर का नभ-
(क) अपनी आभा से चमत्कृत कर रहा है।
(ख) रात के समान गर्म हवा फैला रहा है।
(ग) सफ़ेद व नीले वर्णों का अद्भुत मिश्रण है।
(घ) नए परिवर्तन व आयामों का प्रतीक है।
उत्तर:
(ग) सफ़ेद व नीले वर्णों का अद्भुत मिश्रण है।

5. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

कालिदास सौंदर्य के बाह्य आवरण को भेदकर उसके भीतर तक पहुँच सकते थे, दुःख हो कि सुख, वे अपना भाव-रस उस अनासक्त कृषिवल की भाँति खींच लेते थे, जो निर्दलित ईक्षुदंड से रस निकाल लेता है। कालिदास महान् थे, क्योंकि वे अनासक्त रह सकते थे। कुछ इसी श्रेणी की अनासक्ति आधुनिक हिंदी कवि सुमित्रानंदन पंत में है। कविवर रवींद्रनाथ में यह अनासक्ति थी। एक जगह उन्होंने लिखा-‘राजोद्यान का सिंहद्वार कितना ही अभ्रभेदी क्यों न हो’ उसकी शिल्पकला कितनी ही सुंदर क्यों न हो, वह यह नहीं कहता कि हम में आकर ही सारा रास्ता समाप्त हो गया। असल गंतव्य स्थान उसे अतिक्रम करने के बाद ही है, यही बताना उसका कर्तव्य है।’ फूल हो या पेड़, वह अपने-आप में समाप्त नहीं है। वह किसी अन्य वस्तु को दिखाने के लिए उठी हुई अँगुली है। वह इशारा है।

(i) कालिदास की सौंदर्य-दृष्टि कैसी थी?
(क) स्थूल और बाहरी
(ख) सूक्ष्म और संपूर्ण
(ग) आसक्ति और आडंबरों
(घ) अतिक्रम और अभ्रभेदी
उत्तर:
(ख) सूक्ष्म और संपूर्ण

(ii) कौन-से गुण के कारण कालिदास, सुमित्रानंदन पंत और रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर कविताओं के साथ न्याय कर पाए ?
(क) गंतव्यता
(ख) निर्दलीयता
(ग) कृषिबलता
(घ) तटस्थता
उत्तर:
(घ) तटस्थता

(iii) फूलों और पेड़ों से हमें जीवन की …………. की प्रेरणा मिलती है
(क) निरंतरता
(ख) भावपूर्णता
(ग) समापनता
(घ) अतिक्रमणता
उत्तर:
(क) निरंतरता

(iv) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): पुष्प या पेड़ अपने सौंदर्य से यह बताते हैं कि यह सौंदर्य अंतिम नहीं है।
कारण (R): भारतीय शिल्पकला विशेष रूप से प्रसिद्ध है। विभिन्न कवियों ने इस बात की पुष्टि की है।
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) गलत है लेकिन कारण (R) सही है।
(ग) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
(घ) कथन (A) सही है लेकिन कारण (R) उसकी गलत व्याख्या करता है।
उत्तर:
(घ) कथन (A) सही है लेकिन कारण (R) उसकी गलत व्याख्या करता है।

(v) गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए-
(I) कला की कोई सीमा नहीं होती।
(II) शिरीष के वृक्ष को कालजयी अवधूत के समान कहा गया है।
(III) कालिदास की समानता आधुनिक काल के कवियों के साथ दिखाई गई है।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल III
(ग) I और II
(घ) I और III
उत्तर:
(घ) I और III

6. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर हेतु निर्देशानुसार सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

(i) ‘सिल्वर वेडिंग’ कहानी की मूल संवेदना आप किसे मानेंगे?
(क) पाश्चात्य संस्कृति का प्रभाव
(ख) हाशिए पर धकेले जाते मानवीय मूल्य
(ग) पीढ़ी अंतराल
(घ) सिल्वर वेडिंग के परिणाम
उत्तर:
(ग) पीढ़ी अंतराल

(ii) ‘सिल्वर वेडिंग’ पाठ में ‘जो हुआ होगा’ वाक्य का अर्थ है
(क) पाश्चात्य विचारधारा के संदर्भ में
(ख) परिवार की संरचना के संदर्भ में
(ग) किशन दा की मृत्यु के संदर्भ में
(घ) यशोधर बाबू की नियुक्ति के संदर्भ में
उत्तर:
(ग) किशन दा की मृत्यु के संदर्भ में

(iii) दादा कोल्हू जल्दी क्यों लगाना चाहते थे?
(क) काम जल्दी समाप्त करने के लिए
(ख) दूसरी फ़सल के लिए
(ग) गुड़ की ज़्यादा कीमत के लिए
(घ) खेत में पानी देने के लिए
उत्तर:
(ग) गुड़ की ज़्यादा कीमत के लिए

(iv) ‘जूझ’ उपन्यास मूलतः किस भाषा में लिखा गया है?
(क) हिंदी
(ख) अंग्रेजी
(ग) मराठी
(घ) गुजराती
उत्तर:
(ग) मराठी

(v) लेखक आनंद यादव की माँ के अनुसार पढ़ाई की बात करने पर लेखक का पिता कैसे गुर्राता है?
(क) कुत्ते के समान
(ख) शेर के समान
(ग) जंगली सूअर के समान
(घ) चीते के समान
उत्तर:
(ग) जंगली सूअर के समान

(vi) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता के संबंध में कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(क) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता प्राचीनतम् सभ्यता थी।
(ख) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता आडंबरहीन सभ्यता थी।
(ग) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता छोटी होते हुए भी महान थी।
(घ) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता में राजतंत्र स्थापित नहीं था।
उत्तर:
(घ) सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता में राजतंत्र स्थापित नहीं था।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) महाकुंड स्तूप में उत्तर और दक्षिण से सीढ़ियाँ उतरती हैं।
(II) मोहनजोदड़ो सभ्यता में सूत की कताई, बुनाई और रंगाई भी होती थी।
(III) सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता में जल निकासी की व्यवस्था अत्यंत बुरी थी।
(IV) मोहनजोदड़ो से मिला नरेश के सिर का मुकुट बहुत छोटा था।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) केवल III
(ग) I, II और III
(घ) I, II और IV
उत्तर:
(घ) I, II और IV

(viii) राखालदास बनर्जी कौन थे?
(क) शिक्षक
(ख) भिक्षुक
(ग) पुरातत्त्ववेत्ता
(घ) व्यापारी
उत्तर:
(ग) पुरातत्त्ववेत्ता

(ix) ‘जूझ’ कहानी लेखक की किस प्रवृत्ति को उद्घाटित करती है?
(क) कविता करने की प्रवृत्ति
(ख) पढ़ने की प्रवृत्ति
(ग) लेखन की प्रवृत्ति
(घ) संघर्षमयी प्रवृत्ति
उत्तर:
(घ) संघर्षमयी प्रवृत्ति

(x) किशोर दा के रिटायर होने पर यशोधर बाबू उनकी सहायता क्यों नहीं कर पाए थे?
(क) यशोधर बाबू की पत्नी किशन दा से नाराज़ थी।
(ख) यशोधर बाबू का अपना परिवार था, जिससे वह नाराज़ नहीं करना चाहते थे।
(ग) यशोधर बाबू के घर में किशन दा के लिए स्थान का अभाव था।
(घ) किशन दा को यशोधर बाबू ने अपने घर में स्थान देना चाहा था, जिसे किशन दा ने स्वीकार नहीं किया।
उत्तर:
(ख) यशोधर बाबू का अपना परिवार था, जिससे वह नाराज़ नहीं करना चाहते थे।

रखण्ड ‘ब’: वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

7. दिए गए चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए- (6 × 1 = 6)

(क) लोकतंत्र में मीडिया की भूमिका
(ख) दिया और तूफ़ान : मानव जीवन का सत्य
(ग) झरोखे से बाहर
(घ) आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सवःस्वर्णिम 75 साल
उत्तर:
(क) लोकतंत्र में मीडिया की भूमिका

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मीडिया लोकतंत्र का चौथा स्तंभ है। लोकतांत्रिक व्यवस्था में इसकी भूमिका और महत्त्वपूर्ण हो जाती है। मीडिया की विश्वसनीयता जनता के सरोकारों और जन विश्वास पर ही टिकी होती है। मीडिया राष्ट्रीय संसाधन है जिसे पत्रकार बंधु जन विश्वास या ट्रस्ट में प्रयोग करते हैं। मीडिया की आवश्यकता इसलिए भी होती है कि वे जनसरोकारों के प्रति सत्यनिष्ठ रहें। महात्मा गांधी ने कहा था कि “पत्रकार का कर्तव्य है कि वह देश के जनमानस को पढ़े और निर्भीक हो कर उसे मुखर अभिव्यक्ति दे। पत्रकारिता का मुख्य उद्देश्य मात्र समाज सेवा ही होनी चाहिए। संसद और मीडिया एक-दूसरे के सहयोगी हैं। दोनों ही संस्थान जनभावनाओं को अभिव्यक्ति देते हैं। आज जब हम बढ़ती और बदलती जन अपेक्षाओं के युग में रह रहे हैं तब आवश्यक है कि हम अपने स्थापित पूर्वाग्रहों को त्यागें और जन अपेक्षाओं की स्वर दें। मीडिया को भी विकासवादी सकारात्मक राजनीति का वाहक बनना होगा।

(ख) दिया और तूफान : मानव जीवन का सत्य

व्याख्यात्मक हल-मानव जीवन का सत्य है कि उसके जीवन में सुख और दुःख का चक्र निरन्तर चलता रहता है। दिया से तात्पर्य रोशनी देने से है अर्थात् दिया रोशनी और नई आशा का प्रतीक है जो मानव जीवन के अन्धकार को नष्ट करता है। इसके विपरीत ही तूफ़ान है। यह मानव जीवन में विपत्तियों का सूचक है। जब भी मानव जीवन में तूफ़ान आता है तब दिया ही मानव का पथ प्रदर्शन करता है। तूफ़ान सब कुछ नष्ट कर देता है अर्थात् इसके कारण मानव जीवन नष्ट होने की कगार पर आ जाता है, इसलिए मनुष्य को अपने भीतर के आलोक को कभी नष्ट नहीं होने देना चाहिए। धैर्य और समझदारी से काम लेना चाहिए। सुख-दुःख जीवन का चक्र है जो निरन्तर चलता रहेगा, अतः कहा जा सकता है कि दिया और तूफान मानव जीवन का सत्य है।

(ग) झरोखे से बाहर

व्याख्यात्मक हल-झरोखा है- भीतर से बाहर की ओर झाँकने का माध्यम और बाहर से भीतर देखने का रास्ता। हमारी आँखें भी तो झरोखा ही हैं-मन-मस्तिष्क को संसार से और संसार को मन-मस्तिष्क से जोड़ने का। मन रूपी झरोखे से किसी भक्त को संसार के कण-कण में बसने वाले ईश्वर के दर्शन होते हैं तो मन रूपी झरोखे से ही किसी डाकू-लुटेरे को किसी धनी-सेठ की धन-संपत्ति दिखाई देती है जिसे लूटने के प्रयत्न में वह हत्या जैसा जघन्य कोई कार्य करने में तनिक नहीं झिझकता। झरोखा स्वयं कितना छोटा-सा होता है पर उसके पार बसने वाला संसार कितना व्यापक है जिसे देख तन-मन की भूख जाग जाती है और कभी-कभी शांत भी हो जाती है। किसी पर्वतीय स्थल पर किसी घर के झरोखे से गगन चुंबी पर्वतमालाएँ, ऊँचे-ऊँचे पेड़, डरावनी खाइयाँ यदि पर्यटकों को अपनी ओर खींचती हैं तो दूर-दूर तक घास चरती भेड़ -बकरियाँ भी मन मोह लेती हैं। झरोखे तो छोटे-बड़े कई होते हैं पर उनके बाहर के दृश्य तो बहुत बड़े होते हैं जो कभी-कभी आत्मा तक को झकझोर देते हैं।

(घ) आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव : स्वर्णिम 75 साल

व्याख्यात्मक हल-आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव एक बड़ा ही लम्बा त्योहार है जिसे 12 मार्च 2021 में प्रधानमंत्री ने ऐलान किया था जिसके बाद 12 मार्च से ही आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव भारत के कुछ क्षेत्रों में मनाया जा रहा है जिसे 15 अगस्त को अति उत्साह के साथ आने वाले 15 अगस्त 2023 तक मनाया जाएगा। आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव मनाने से सभी भारतवासियों के दिल में देश के प्रति सम्मान और गौरव को प्रचलित करना है। इस योजना से भारत की सैन्य शक्ति की भी प्रदर्शनी करवायी जाएगी। आज़ादी का अमृत महोत्सव विभिन्न जगहों पर अलग-अलग तरह के कार्यक्रम और बड़े पैमाने पर भारतीय हथियार के प्रदर्शनी के साथ मनाया जा रहा है। साथ ही भारत के सभी नागरिकों के मन में भारत के लिए एक अलग ही सम्मान प्रकट हो पाएगा। इस अमृत महोत्सव में उन वीर सुपूतों को याद करना है जिन्होंने अपना परिवार और अपना समस्त जीवन केवल देश को समर्पित कर दिया। कवि प्रदीप ने कहा है
“ऐ मेरे वतन के लोगो जरा आँख में भर लो पानी।
जो शहीद हुए हैं उनकी ज़रा याद करो कुर्बानी।।”

8. किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘कहानीकार द्वारा कहानी के प्रसंगों या पात्रों के मानसिक द्वंद्वों के विवरण के दृश्यों की नाटकीय प्रस्तुति में काफ़ी समस्या आती है।’ इस कथन के संदर्भ में नाटय रूपांतरण की किन्हीं तीन चुनौतियों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
नाट्य रूपांतरण की चुनौतियाँ

• पात्रों के मनोभावों की
• मानसिक द्वंद्व के दृश्यों की
• पात्रों की सोच के प्रस्तुतीकरण की उदाहरण के लिए ईदगाह कहानी का वह हिस्सा जहाँ हामिद इस द्वंद्व में है कि क्या खरीदे, क्या ना खरीदे।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
कहानियों में भाव बोध को अपनी भाव भंगिमा के साथ प्रस्तुत करना उसका नाट्य रूपांतरण है। विभिन्न प्रकार से घटना, कथा अथवा कहानी कहने की शैली रूपांतरण की जननी है। कहानी और नाटक का फ़िल्मों में रूपांतरण तेजी से हो रहा है। अभिव्यक्ति और कथानक को नए रूप में परिवर्तित कर के मंच पर लाया जा रहा है।

(ख) रेडियो श्रव्य माध्यम है। यह ध्वनि के माध्यम से ही संप्रेषण करता है इसलिए नाटक में ध्वनि संकेतों का विशिष्ट महत्त्व है। रेडियो नाटक में ध्वनि संकेतों की महत्ता स्पष्ट करते हुए कोई तीन बिंदु अवश्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
रेडियो नाटक में ध्वनि संकेतों की महत्ता-

1. मंच नाटक लेखन, फ़िल्म की पटकथा और रेडियो नाटक लेखन में काफी समानता
2. रेडियो में ध्वनि प्रभावों व संवादों के ज़रिये ही दृश्य का माहौल पैदा किया जाना।
3. इसलिए संवाद व ध्वनि सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण होना
4. दृश्य की जगह कट/हिस्सा लिखा जाना
5. दृश्यों को ध्वनि-संकेतों से दिखाया जाना।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: रेडियो नाटक में केवल आवाज़ का ही महत्त्व है, अतः अधिक पात्र एक साथ उपस्थित न किए जाएँ तो अच्छा ही होता है। साथ ही पात्रों के व्यक्तित्व को शब्दों द्वारा उखाड़ना चाहिए क्योंकि इसमें ध्वनि का अधिक महत्त्व है।

(ग) रटंत या कुटेव को बुरी लत क्यों कहा गया है? नए और अप्रत्याशित विषयों पर लेखन द्वारा इस लत से कैसे बचा जा सकता है?
उत्तर:
रटंत का अर्थ है-दूसरों के द्वारा तैयार सामग्री को याद करके ज्यों-का त्यों प्रस्तुत कर देने की आदत।
लत कहे जाने के कारण-

1. असली अभ्यास का मौका ना मिलना
2. भावों की मौलिकता समाप्त हो जाना
3. चिंतन-शक्ति क्षीण होना
4. सोचने की क्षमता में कमी होना
5. दूसरों के लिखे पर आश्रित होना

अप्रत्याशित विषयों पर लेखन द्वारा इस लत से बचा जा सकता है क्योंकि इससे अभिव्यक्ति की क्षमता विकसित होती है। नए विषयों पर विचार अभिव्यक्ति से मानसिक और आत्मिक विकास होता है।

9. निम्नलिखित तीन में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 80 शब्दों में लिखिए- (4 × 2 = 8)

(क) समाचार लेखन की एक विशेष शैली होती है। इस शैली का नाम बताते हुए समाचार लेखन की इस शैली को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
(क) समाचार लेखन की एक विशेष शैली का नाम ‘उलटा पिरामिड शैली’ है, जिसमें क्लाइमैक्स बिल्कुल आखिर में आता है। इसे उल्टा पिरामिड इसलिए कहा जाता है क्योंकि इसमें सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण तथ्य या सूचना सबसे पहले दी जाती है और तत्पश्चात् उससे कम महत्त्वपूर्ण और फिर सबसे कम महत्त्वपूर्ण समाचार लिए जाते हैं। इसमें इंट्रो, बॉडी और समापन समाचार प्रस्तुति के तीन चरण होते हैं।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: उल्टा पिरामिड शैली से हमारा तात्पर्य समाचार लेखन से है। समाचार को पढ़ते समय समाचार के आरम्भ में ही उसकी पूरी जानकारी दे दी जाती है। यह समाचार का मुख्य भाग है।

(ख) बीट रिपोर्टिंग और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग के अंतर को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:

1. बीट रिपोर्टर को संवाददाता और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टर को विशेष संवाददाता कहते हैं।
2. बीट रिपोर्टर को अपने क्षेत्र की जानकारी और उसमें दिलचस्पी होना ही पर्याप्त है। उसे केवल सामान्य खबरें ही लिखनी पड़ती हैं जबकि विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टर को अपने विषय-क्षेत्र की घटनाओं, मुद्दों व समस्याओं का बारीक विश्लेषण करके उसका अर्थ भी स्पष्ट करना होता है।
3. बीट की रिपोर्टिंग के लिए संवाददाता में उस क्षेत्र के बारे में जानकारी और दिलचस्पी का होना पर्याप्त है लेकिन विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग में सामान्य खबरों से आगे बढ़कर उस विशेष क्षेत्र या विषय से जुड़ी घटनाओं, मुद्दों व समस्याओं का बारीकी विश्लेषण करना आवश्यक है।
4. बीट रिपोर्टिंग और विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग से संबंधित उदाहरण भी दिए जा सकते हैं।

(ग) फीचर क्या है? फीचर को परिभाषित करते हुए अच्छे फीचर की किन्हीं तीन विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:
फीचर एक सुव्यवस्थित सृजनात्मक और आत्मिक लेखन है जिसका उद्देश्य पाठकों को सूचना देने, शिक्षित करने के साथ-साथ मुख्य रूप से उनका मनोरंजन करना होता है। फीचर समाचार की तरह पाठकों को तात्कालिक घटनाक्रम से अवगत नहीं कराता। समाचारों से विपरीत फीचर में लेखक के पास अपनी राय या दृष्टिकोण और भावनाएँ जाहिर करने का अवसर होता है। फीचर लेखन कथात्मक शैली में किया जाता है।

10. काव्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘आत्मपरिचय’ कविता में कवि ने अपने जीवन में किन परस्पर विरोधी बातों का सामंजस्य बिठाने की बात कही है?
उत्तर:

• कवि का सांसारिक कठिनाइयों से जूझने पर भी इस जीवन से प्यार करना।
• संसार और विपरीत परिस्थितियों की परवाह ना करना।
• उसे संसार का अपूर्ण लगना।
• अपने सपनों का अलग ही संसार लिए फिरना।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: इस कविता में, कवि ने अपने जीवन की अनेक विरोधी बातों का सामंजस्य बिठाने की बात की है। कवि सांसारिक कठिनाइयों से जूझ रहा है, फिर भी वह इस जीवन से प्यार करता है। वह संसार की परवाह नहीं करता। उसे यह संसार अपूर्ण लगता है।

(ख) ‘रस का अक्षयपात्र’ से कवि ने रचनाकर्म की किन विशेषताओं की ओर इंगित किया है?
उत्तर:

• रचना कर्म का अक्षयपात्र कभी खाली नहीं होता।
• रचना कर्म अविनाशी और कालजयी।
• कवि की रचनाएँ हमेशा अमर रहती हैं। पाठकों को अच्छा संदेश और जीवन में सही मार्ग दिखाती हैं।
• बार-बार पढ़े जाने पर भी कविता का रस समाप्त ना होना।
• इन्हीं विशेषताओं के कारण रचना कर्म को रस का अक्षयपात्र कहना।

(ग) ‘विप्लव-रव से छोटे ही हैं शोभा पाते’ पंक्ति में ‘विप्लव’ से क्या तात्पर्य है? ‘छोटे ही हैं शोभा पाते’ ऐसा क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर:

• ‘विप्लव-रव’ से कवि का तात्पर्य क्रांति से है।
• क्रांति गरीब लोगों या आम जनता में जोश भर देती है।
• गरीब और आम जनता ही शोषण का शिकार होती है।
• समाज में क्रांति इन्हीं से आरंभ होती है, इसीलिए यही क्रांति के जनक होते हैं।
• क्रांति का आगाज़ होते ही ये नए और सुनहरे भविष्य के सपने संजोने लगते हैं, जिसकी चमक इनके चेहरे पर स्पष्ट दृष्टिगोचर होती है।
• इसीलिए छोटे ही क्रांति (विप्लव-रव) के समय शोभा पाते हैं।

11. काव्य खंड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) ‘पतंगों के साथ-साथ वे भी उड़ रहे हैं’- बच्चों का उड़ान से कैसा संबंध है?
उत्तर:

1. बच्चों को पतंग का बहुत प्रिय होना।
2. आकाश में उड़ती पतंग देखकर बच्चों के मन का उड़ान भरना।
3. पतंग की भाँति बालमन का ऊँचाइयों को छूने की चाह।
4. आसमान से पार जाने की चाह।
5. पतंग की उड़ान का बच्चों के रंग-बिरंगे सपने के समान होना ।
6. बालकों का मन चंचल होना।

(ख) बात और भाषा परस्पर जुड़े होते हैं किंतु कभी-कभी भाषा के चक्कर में सीधी बात भी टेढ़ी हो जाती है कैसे?
उत्तर:

1. बात भाव है और भाषा उसे प्रकट करने का माध्यम।
2. बात और भाषा में चोली-दामन का साथ होता है।
3. कभी-कभी भाषा के चक्कर में सीधी बात भी टेढ़ी हो जाती है।
4. मनुष्य का शब्दों के चमत्कार में उलझकर इस गलतफहमी का शिकार होना कि कठिन और नए शब्दों के प्रयोग से अधिक प्रभावशाली ढंग से बात कही जाती है।
5. भाव को भाषा का साधन बना लेना
6. भाव की अपेक्षा भाषा पर अधिक ध्यान दिए जाने के कारण भाव की गहराई समाप्त होना।

(ग) कवितावली के छंदों के आधार पर स्पष्ट करें कि तुलसीदास को अपने युग की आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ है।
उत्तर:
तुलसीदास को अपने युग की आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ थी क्योंकि ‘कवितावली’ में उनके द्वारा-

1. समकालीन समाज का यथार्थ चित्रण
2. समाज के विभिन्न वर्गों का चित्रण
3. गरीबी के कारण लोगों द्वारा अपनी संतान तक बेच देने का वर्णन
4. दरिद्रता रूपी रावण का हाहाकार दिखाना
5. किसानों की हीन दशा का मार्मिक वर्णन

12. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) बाज़ार किसी का लिंग, जाति, धर्म, क्षेत्र नहीं देखता, बस देखता है सिर्फ़ उसकी क्रय शक्ति को, और इस रूप में वह एक प्रकार से सामाजिक समता की भी रचना कर रहा है। आप इस कथन से कहाँ तक सहमत हैं? स्पष्ट करके लिखिए।
उत्तर:
हम इस कथन से पूर्णतः सहमत हैं क्योंकि

• बाज़ार किसी का लिंग, जाति, धर्म और क्षेत्र नहीं देखता। सिर्फ ग्राहक की क्रय-शक्ति देखता है।
• उसे इस बात से कोई मतलब नहीं कि खरीदार औरत है या मर्द, हिंदू है या मुसलमान, उसकी जाति क्या है या वह किस क्षेत्र-विशेष से है।
• यहाँ हर व्यक्ति ग्राहक है।
• आज जबकि जीवन के हर क्षेत्र में भेदभाव है ऐसे में बाज़ार हर एक को समान मानता है।
• बाज़ार का काम है वस्तुओं का विक्रय, उसे तो ग्राहक चाहिए फिर चाहे वह कोई भी हो। इस प्रकार यह सामाजिक समता की भी रचना कर रहा है।

(ख) कहानी के किस-किस मोड़ पर लुट्टन के जीवन में क्या-क्या परिवर्तन आए?
उत्तर:
कहानी के आरंभ में लुट्टन के माता-पिता का चल बसना और सास द्वारा पालन-पोषण किया जाना।
कहानी के मध्य में दंगल जीतकर उसका मशहूर पहलवान बन जाना, सुख-सुविधा के सब सामान पास होना, दो जवान बेटों का पिता बन जाना पर पत्नी का स्वर्ग सिधारना। कहानी के अंत में हैजे से दोनों बेटों की मृत्यु और स्वयं भी हैजे का शिकार होकर संसार से चले जाना।

व्याख्यात्मक हल: लुट्टन जब नौ वर्ष का था तभी उसके पिता चल बसे थे। सौभाग्यवश उसकी शादी हो चुकी थी। गाँव के लोग उसकी सास को तकलीफ़ दिया करते थे। उन लोगों से बदला लेने के लिए वह कसरत की ओर मुड़ा ताकि शरीर को मज़बूत बना सके। गाँव में उसे पहलवान समझा जाने लगा।

(ग) जाति-प्रथा भारतीय समाज में बेरोज़गारी और भुखमरी का भी एक कारण कैसे बनती जा रही है? क्या यह स्थिति आज भी है? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:

• जाति-प्रथा के बंधन के कारण मनुष्य को अपना पेशा बदलने की स्वतंत्रता नहीं होती।
• इसी कारण उसे भूखों मरने तक की नौबत आ जाती है।
• जाति-प्रथा पैतृक पेशा अपनाने पर जोर देती है, भले ही वह इस पेशे से पारंगत ना हो।
• जाति-प्रथा व्यक्ति को पेशे विशेष से बाँधकर रखती है, जो समाज में बेरोज़गारी और भुखमरी का कारण बनता है।
  आज समाज की स्थिति में परिवर्तन आ रहा है। आज व्यक्ति को अपना पेशा चुनने और बदलने का अधिकार है।

13. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) लेखक ने शिरीष को कालजयी अवधूत (संन्यासी) की तरह क्यों माना है?
उत्तर:

• संन्यासी की तरह ही सुख-दुःख की परवाह ना करना।
• जीवन की अजेयता के मंत्र की घोषणा करना।
• बाहर गर्मी, धूप, बारिश से प्रभावित ना होना।
• धैर्य के साथ प्रतिकूल परिस्थितियों में अजेय जीवन व्यतीत करना।
• भावनाओं की भीषण गर्मी में भी अजेय रहना।

(ख) लोगों ने लड़कों की टोली को मेंढक-मंडली नाम किस आधार पर दिया? यह टोली अपने आप को इंद्रसेना कहकर क्यों बुलाती थी?
उत्तर:

• गाँव के लोगों का किशोर लड़कों की उछल-कूद से चिढ़ना
• उनकी वजह से होने वाले सड़क के कीचड़ से चिढ़ना
• इंद्रसेना कहे जाने के कारण
• भगवान इंद्र से वर्षा की विनती करना
• स्वयं को इंद्र की सेना के सैनिक मानना

व्याख्यात्मक हल: लड़कों की टोली घर-घर जाकर पानी की माँग किया करती थी। लोग अपने घरों से पानी निकालकर इनके ऊपर डाला करते थे। इनके कारण बादलों के राजा इंद्र प्रसन्न होते थे। लोगों से जा-जाकर यह इंद्र से प्रार्थना करने के लिए उन्हें विवश करते थे।

(ग) भक्तिन अच्छी है, यह कहना कठिन होगा, क्योंकि उसमें दुर्गुणों का अभाव नहीं। लेखिका ने ऐसा क्यों कहा होगा?
उत्तर:
भक्तिन भोली-भाली, बुद्धिमान, सेवाभाव वाली थी किंतु उसकी भक्ति में कुछ दुर्गुण भी थे, जैसे-

• पैसों को भंडार घर की मटकी में छुपाकर रखना।
• लेखिका से बेवज़ह तर्क-वितर्क करना।
• लेखिका से झूठ बोलना।
• शास्त्रों में लिखी बातों की व्याख्या अपने अनुसार करना।

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 4 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. 15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) The choices we make on a daily basis-wearing a seatbelt, lifting heavy objects correctly or purposely staying out of any dangerous situation-can either ensure our safety or bring about potentially harmful circumstances.

(2) You and I need to make a decision that we are going to get our lives in order. Exercising self-control, self-discipline and establishing boundaries and borders in our lives are some of the most important things we can do. A life without discipline is one that’s filled with carelessness.

(3) We can think it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge. We like the image of “Yeah! That’s me! Living on the edge! Woo-hoo!” It’s become a popular way to look at life. But if you see, even highways have lines, which provide margins for our safety while we’re driving. If we go over one side, we’ll go into the ditch. If we cross over the line in the middle, we could get killed. And we like those lines because they help to keep us safe. Sometimes we don’t even realise how lines help to keep us safe.

(4) I’m not proud of this, but for the first 20 years of my life at work, I ignored my limits. I felt horrible, physically, most of the time.
I used to tell myself. “I know I have Limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it.” I ran to doctors, trying to make myself feel better through pills, vitamins, natural stuff and anything I could get my hands on. Some of the doctors would tell me, “It’s just stress.” That just made me mad. I thought stress meant you don’t like what you do or can’t handle life, and I love what I do. But I kept pushing myself, traveling, speaking engagements and so on- simply exhausting myself.

(5) Finally, I understood I was living an unsustainable life and needed to make some changes in my outlook and lifestyle.

(6) You and I don’t have to be like everyone else or keep up with anyone else. Each of us needs to be exactly the way we are, and we don’t have to apologize for it We’re not all alike and we need to find a comfort zone in which we can enjoy our lives instead of making ourselves sick with an overload of stress and pressure.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) According to the author, list 1 reason that ‘living on the edge’ has become popular.
(1) ………………… [1]
Answer:
According to the author, the person “thinks it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge”, so he constantly wants to find excitement in life.

(B) What qualities can be identified from the context: “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it”
(1) negligent
(2) indecisive
(3) spontaneous
(4) reckless
(5) patient
(a) 2 and 5
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 [1]
Answer:
(c) 1 and 4
Explanation: The context shows (1) negligence as the person will ’ignore’ the limits and (4) recklessness as the person knows that ‘he has reached his limit but still chooses to see how long can he get by with it”. It doesn’t show any of (2), (3) or (5) options. Hence, option (c) is the right answer.

(C) The phrase “potentially harmful circumstances” refers to circumstances that can be ………………. [1]
Answer:
possibly dangerous

(D) Fill in the blank with the correct option.
The author attempts to ……………… the readers through this passage.
(a) advice
(b) warn
(c) stop
(d) prove [1]
Answer:
(a) advice

(E) The author uses colloquial words such as “yeah” and “Woo-hooi”. Which of the following is NOT a colloquial word?
(a) hooked
(b) guy
(c) stuff
(d) stress [1]
Answer:
(d) stress
Explanation: The term ‘stress’ is not a colloquial word or any slang. It is a proper English term. Options (a), (b) and (c) are all slangs that are informal Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(F) Select the option that makes the correct use of “unsustainable”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space.
(a) In the long run, the ………………. government will do nothing for the people.
(b) The cabinet is filled with ………………. officials.
(c) The conservationists reported an ………………. set of event.
(d) Plastic will turn the world …………….. in future. [1]
Answer:
(d) Plastic will turn the world in future.
Explanation: The term ‘unsustainable’ means a thing that cannot be sustained or lived. Here, (a), (b) and (c) are not the correct statement for the term to fit in while (d) is the correct choice. Hence, (d) is the right answer

(G) The author said, “to get our lives in order”. What does this mean?
This means to ……………… [1]
Answer:
organise our lives
Explanation: To get something ‘in order’ means to ‘organise’ it.

(H) State the most appropriate title for the passage. [1]
Answer:
The most appropriate title for the passage can be The need to limit ourselves’.

(I) The author was living a disciplined life. True/false. [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: According to the author, he needed to organise his life in a proper way as he was living an unsustainable life.

(J) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passage.
Overburden : overload :: tiring : ………………… [1]
Answer:
Exhausting

Question 2.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(I) Research from the Publishers Association has shown that films based on books take 44% more at the box office revenue in the UK and 53% more worldwide than original screenplays. The report explores what impact a book has when adapted for film and TV.

(2) The report reads: “Published material is the basis of 52% of top UK films in the last 10 years, and accounts for an even higher share of revenue from these leading performers, at 61% of UK box office gross and 65% of worldwide gross.” The Hollywood adaptation of ‘My Cousin Rachel” was shown to have a significant impact on the sales of the Daphne Du Maurier thriller. The sales of the book in 2017 alone accounted for 23% of all sales since 1992.

(3) The research suggests that adapted films tend to perform better, because films can “leverage the popularity” of well-known books through an existing audience. Films adapted from books also tend to have a richer, more fully-developed story to draw on.

In terms of TV adaptation, it was revealed that a quarter of dramas were based on literary sources and attracted a 56% larger share of the audience than those based on original scripts. Fourteen of the 35 high end series produced in the UK in the period between January and September 2017 were based on books, compared to seven based on true stories or historical events and five based on pre-existing films or TV stories.

(4) In the case of the 2016 BBC broadcast of “The Night Manager” research revealed that while the novel was in circulation for over 25 years, 82% of the copies it sold were in 2016 and 2017. Sales of the paperback edition remained strong in 2017 even after the series went off the air.

(5) In conclusion, the report states that “there is a strong two-way relationship between publishing and the wider creative economy, wherein a successful adaptation often has spill-over effects and gives a substantial boost to the sales of the original book.” (338 words)
(Source: https://www.thebookseller com/ news /films-based-books-take-more-91m- more-globally-originalscripts-825036)
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) According to the research, the films based on books have greater success because
(a) people like to see the characters from the books on screen
(b) the films get the advantage of the fame of the books
(c) it takes less effort for people to watch films than read books
(d) the films get a ready-made script from the books [1]
Answer:
(b) the films get advantage of the fame of books.
Explanation: The passage tells that the research suggests that adapted films tend to perform better, because films can “leverage the popularity” of well-known books through an existing audience. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(B) The purpose of the researchers by Publishers Association was to study the ……………….. [1]
Answer:
connection between books and films

(C) Why, according to the research, the films based on books have greater success? [1]
Answer:
According to the research, the films based on books have greater success because they get the advantage of the fame of the books.

(D) Select the correct option to complete the given sentence.
In the year 2017, the maximum serials in
UK were based on ………………..
(a) books
(b) film stars
(c) writers
(d) public [1]
Answer:
(a) books

(E) Select the option listing what the given sentence refers to:
‘Rims adapted from books also tend to have a richer, more fully-developed story to draw on.’
(1) The plot and the storyline of such films are better.
(2) The characters are likely to be more vivid.
(3) The production of such films is meant for the rich and famous.
(4) The settings and costumes are adapted from the book.
(5) The making of such films require the author to write a sequel.
(a) (1), (3) and (4)
(b) (2), (3) and (5)
(c) (1), (2) and (5)
(d) (1), (2) and (4) [1]
Answer:
(d) (1). (2) and (4)
Explanation: Explanation: It is clear that the production of such films is not (3) meant for the rich and famous. It also not (5) require the author to write a sequel. However, (1) The plot and the storyline of such films are better (2) The characters are likely to be more vivid and (4) The settings and costumes are adapted from the book. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(F) There is a strong two-way relationship between films and the wider creative economy. (True/false). [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: It is given in the passage that there is a two-way connection between wider creative economy and publishing, not films.

(G) Films adapted from books have a ……………….. content. [1]
Answer:
rich

(H) This passage lists an example proving that TV dramas based on literary works have ………………
Select the correct option.
(a) increased the immediate sales of the book
(b) increased the sales of the book during the first screening
(c) had no immediate impact on the sales of the book
(d) had very little impact on the sales of the book [1]
Answer:
(a) increased the immediate sales of the book
Explanation: It is stated in the passage that in terms of TV adaptation, it was revealed that a quarter of dramas were based on literary sources and attracted a 56% larger share of the audience than those based on original scripts. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(I) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passage:
Suggests : recommends :: ………………. : important [1]
Answer:
Significant

(J) Films can leverage the popularity of well-known books. State the meaning of the underlined word. [1]
Answer:
Increase

Section – B
Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Attempt ANY TEN of the given questions.
(A) Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the passage.
Kashmir valley (i) be heaven on Earth. It has 00 as a valley of violence today with consant terror and other unlawful activities.
(i) (a) is called
(b) was considered to
(c) was termed to
(d) was defined to [1]
Answer:
(b) was considered to

(ii) (a) come to be known
(b) been
(c) always been
(d) never been [1]
Answer:
(a) come to be known

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct options.
The swimming pool ………………. at 9o’ clock and …………………. at 18:30 everyday.
(a) is opening / is closing
(b) opens / closes
(c) has opened / has closed
(d) opened / closed [1]
Answer:
(b) opens / closes

(C) Complete the given sentence with correct option.
The Olympic games ………………. place every four years.
(a) are taking
(b) take
(c) have taken
(d) took [1]
Answer:
(b) take

(D) Fill in the blank with the correct tense.
Look! The man ……………….. to open the door of your car.
(a) has been trying
(b) tried
(c) tries
(d) is trying [1]
Answer:
(d) is trying

(E) Complete the sentence correctly.
We usually …………….. vegetables in our garden but this year we any.
(a) grow / aren’t growing
(b) grow / aren’t growing
(c) grew / had not grown
(d) grow / don’t grow [1]
Answer:
(a) grow / aren’t growing

(F) The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write its correction against the correct blank number. The first one has been done for you. [1]

		Error shall	Correction would
My father shall insist on taking greens everyday	Example
Children may consume it regularly	(i)	…………………….	…………………….
otherwise they should suffer from	(ii)	…………………….	…………………….
iron deficiency. Elders will also take it every day	(iii)	…………………….	…………………….
but there are some individuals who do not like it.

Answer:

Error	Correction
(i) may	must
(ii) should	will
(iii) will	should

(i) Explanation: ‘may’ represents choice while here, the father suggests that children should definitely take the greens. So, ‘must’ is the right answer.

(ii) Explanation: As the statement is a future expectation, ‘will’ will be used. Hence, this is the right answer.

(iii) Explanation: As for elders, it is only a recommendation; ‘should’ is the right answer.

(G) He took ………………. side in the argument two of his best friends between the two brothers.
(a) neither
(b) every
(c) either
(d) none [1]
Answer:
(a) neither
Explanation: There were too sides to be chosen to support but ‘he’ didn’t take any. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(H) I would like to purchase …………….. salt, please.
(a) many
(b) some
(c) more
(d) many [1]
Answer:
(b) some

(I) The police ………………. the matter.
(a) is investigating
(b) were investigating
(c) had investigating
(d) will investigated [1]
Answer:
(a) is investigating
Explanation: As the ‘crime bureau’ is one identity. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(J) I don’t know why he hasn’t called me back. He ………………..
(a) might have forgetting my number
(b) might forget my number
(c) must have forgot my number
(d) might have forgotten my number [1]
Answer:
(d) might have forgotten my number

(K) Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
Rahul asked me, “Did you see the football match on television last night?”
(a) Rahul asked me whether I had seen the football match on television the last night.
(b) Rahul asked me did I see the football match on television the last night.
(c) Rahul asked me whether I had seen the football match on television the earlier night.
(d) Rahul asked me whether I saw the football match on television the earlier night. [1]
Answer:
(c) Rahul asked me whether I had seen the football match on television the earlier night.

(L) Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
He said to her, “What a warm day”
(a) He told her that it was a warm day.
(b) He exclaimed that it was a warm day.
(c) He said sorrowfully that it was a warm day.
(d) He exclaimed that it was a very warm day. [1]
Answer:
(a) He told her that it was a warm day.

Creative Writing Skills
(2 x 5 = 10 Marks)

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
Recently, you have come across many articles on the topic, ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’. In spite of these articles, girls are not given due respect and female foeticide in the society is rampant. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the editor of The Times of India, expressing your concern over the problem. Give some suggestions on the role of the people and the government in curbing it. You are Vaibhavi/ Vaibhav, 12 Vasant Kunj, New Delhi.
OR
John had employed the services of Decent Packers, 1424, Ramanujam Street Chennai to pack and transport household goods and a car to Borivali, Mumbai. He is dissatisfied with the services and decides to lodge a complaint with the manager of the company. Write a letter in 100-120 words as John voicing your displeasure. [5]
Answer:
12, Vasant Kunj
New Delhi
20^th March, 20XX
The Editor
The Times of India New Delhi
Subject: Role of the government and people in curbing female foeticide
Respected sir/madam
Through the columns of your prestigious newspaper, I want to highlight the role of the government and people in curbing female foeticide. At the core of it is the notion that girls are ‘paraya dhan’, which means that the financial expenditure incurred on a girl child, including her education, health, clothing, and food will not bring any returns. In fact, these would need to be topped up with a substantial one-time dowry.

The other aspect is the notion that the male child is the bread earner. Although it is difficult to get exact data of how many sons and daughters support their parents, it is true that with changing lifestyles, families are becoming more and more nuclear.

In this context, government intervention at the central and state levels would help. Annual tax benefits could be given to the parents of a girl child, and we should abolish dowry once and for all. The government can also bring in legislation so that a part of a girl’s income gets transferred to her parents’ account, with the government as the mediator. In case the girl is not working, the onus can shift onto her husband.

Governments at the centre and state levels have been running campaigns to stop female foeticide and they are indeed commendable. However, we have a long way to go before we are able to change the way our society operates.
Yours faithfully
Vaibhavi/Vaibhav
OR
1657, Borivali Mumbai
26^th April 20XX
The Manager
Decent Packers
Chennai
Subject: Complaint against poor service Respected sir/madam
This is with reference to the pack and transport services provided by your company. I had booked the package to pack and transfer my household goods and car to Mumbai, but I am dissatisfied with the service provided by your company.

I had listed out the delicate objects that needed to be handled with care, but all my fine crockery and decorative items were so horribly packed that most of them were received broken. The furniture and car had scratch marks. The contract clearly stated that your workers would unpack and set the house. However, all the packets were simply dumped in the flat.

I am very disheartened by the services and would like to be compensated for the damage. I would be compelled to take matters to the consumer court if the issue is not resolved at the earliest. I hope you look into the matter as this kind of service is not expected from a reputed company like yours.
Yours truly
John

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
The given data shows the sales of various electronic gadgets by different brands. These are purchased for use by middle class people. The survey was conducted in Ghaziabad.

Write a paragraph interpreting the data as to why people prefer a certain brand and why these gadgets are used.

SONY hold the most hare in the market. Gets most customers	LG offers quality products issue products at affordable rates.
SAMSUNG good reach electronics Stands below Sony & LG in market share	WHIRLPOOL least market shares proves that people are getting aware of brands & purchases.

OR
The BDO of the Kanpur region conducted a survey in the government and private schools and Kendriya Vidyalayas to see the preferred language. Students of classes X -XII were a part of the survey.

The following excerpt was taken from the analysis report that appeared in a local daily newspaper:
“It is quite clear from the data collected that in government schools English language is not spoken by them at alL Only a few students are speaking English in government schools which is below average but Hindi is spoken by maximum of the students. In private schools English is spoken by maximum number of the students. Only few students speak Hindi as compared to government schools. In the KV’s (Kendriya Vidyalayas) there are approximately equal speakers of English and Hindi.”

Write a paragraph to analyse the given argument.

You could think about what alternative explanations might weaken the given conclusion and include rationale/evidence that would strengthen / counter the given argument making comparison wherever necessary in 100-120 words. [5]
Answer:
Gadgets – Friends for Life
With more and more choices and the desire to lead comfortable lives, people spend heavily on electronic gadgets. A survey conducted in Ghaziabad shows the spending behaviour and preferred brands (Sony, LG, Samsung and Whirlpool) of consumers.

To lead a comfortable life, people are increasingly buying televisions, refrigerators and washing machines. With a growing number of nuclear families and everyone working, microwaves come as their saviours, saving precious cooking time. In a time where the world is connected, possessing a computer, laptop or a mobile phone is unavoidable.

People, of course, have their preferences, with most people purchasing Sony products, which seem to have the lion’s share of the market LG has also maintained its hold by offering quality products at affordable prices. This also shows that products that seemed out of reach of the middle class are now within their reach, thus indicating their improved economic condition.
OR
Language Not a Barrier
Language not only enhances personality but also makes us confident. The BDO of Kanpur conducted a survey in the government and private schools and Kendriya Vidyalayas to understand the preferred language of classes X-XII.

The survey also highlighted the need to pay more attention to developing English-speaking skills in government schools as most students preferred Hindi to English. Though choice of language is personal but the world demands a better grasp of English. Students of Kendriya Vidyalayas showed inclination towards English but here the gap between the two languages was remarkably less. Private school students preferred English to Hindi.

Efforts must be made to ensure that students of government schools also have the same access to quality education as private schools and Kendriya Vidyalayas. Efforts must be made to ensure that all schools give equal importance to both languages to build confidence in students.

Section – C
Literature (40 Marks)

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE of the extracts given. (5 x 1 = 5)
The house – the only one in the entire valley – sat on the crest of a low hill. From this height one could see the river and the field of ripe corn dotted with the flowers that always promised a good harvest. The only thing the earth needed was a downpour or at least a shower. Throughout the morning Lencho – who knew his fields intimately – had done nothing else but see the sky towards the north-east.

“Now we’re really going to get some water, woman.”
(A) How did Lencho feel while looking at the sky?
Lencho felt ……………… [1]
Answer:
optimistic
Explanation: As the corn in the fields were ripened and to ensure a good harvest a downpour was needed. He was hoping for a good harvest.

(B) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to given extract.
(1) Lencho knew his fields intimately.
(2) Lencho was a lazy farmer.
(3) Lencho grew corns in the fields.
(4) Lencho was optimistic for the rainfalL
(5) Lencho lived with his wife and four daughters.
(6) Lencho grew lomalies in his field.
(7) Lench was a dedicated farmer.
Options:
(a) (1), (2), (4) (b) (1), (4), (7)
(c) (2), (3), (5) (d) (2), (5), (6) [1]
Answer:
(d) (2), (5), (6)
Explanation: As given in the passage Lencho knew his fields intimately (1). This implies that he was hard working and a dedicated farmer (4). He had fields of corns (3) and he lived with his wife and sons. Hence (d) is not true.

(C) Pick the option that correctly classifies facts / (F) and opinion / (O) of the students below:
(1) I think Lencho is desperate about the rainfalL
(2) Lencho was a hard working farmer.
(3) Lencho should have grow another crop for better harvest.
(4) Lencho had firm belief in God.
Options:
(a) F – (1), (2) and O-(4), (3)
(b) F – (4), (3) and O – (2), (1)
(c) F – (3), (2) and O – (4), (1)
(d) F – (2), (4) and O – (3), (1) [1]
Answer:
(d) F – (2), (4), and O – (3), (1)
Explanation: We know from the reading of the passage that Lencho was hoping for a good harvest that means he was a hard working man and had firm belief in God. (2) and (4) are hence the facts. (1) can be somebody’s opinion on reading that he sat all day watching the sky. As the crops failed due to hailstorm he could have grown another crop. So (1) and (3) are the opinions. Hence the answer here is (d).

(D) Which word does “intimately” NOT correspond to?
(a) friendly
(b) antisocial
(c) closely
(d) familiar [1]
Answer:
(b) antisocial
Explanation: Intimately refers to knowing someone very closely. So here(a),(c) & (d) can not be the answers. The answer here is (b) anti social

(E) Where was Lencho’s house situated? [1]
OR
Kisa Gotami became weary and hopeless and sat down at the wayside watching the lights of the city, as they flickered up and were extinguished again. At last the darkness of the night reigned everywhere. And she considered the fate of men, that their lives flicker up and are extinguished again. And she thought to herself, “How selfish am I in my grief! Death is common to all, yet in this valley of desolation there is a path that leads him to immortality who has surrendered all selfishness.” The Buddha said, “The life of mortals in this world is troubled and brief and combined with pain.
Answer:
At the top of a hill
Explanation: It is written in the passage that the house was situated on top of a hill from where fields and river were visible.

(A) Choose the option that doesn’t align with the philosophy of Gautam Buddha?

(a) option (1) (b) option (2) (c) option (3) (d) option (4)
Answer:
(c) option (3)
Explanation: Gautam Buddha was moved by the miseries of the world he wanted to get over all these, so (1), (2) & (4) are not the answers as all these depict the miseries of the world. Materialistic he wanted to rise above the worldly pleasures and did not agree with the worldly pleasures, hence (3) is the answer as the image shows a guy thinking about pleasures of life.

(B) What lesson did she receive from the lights?
(a) The lights keep on altering.
(b) The life has its pros and cons.
(c) The lights are more or less similar to the life of men.
(d) The light is essential. [1]
Answer:
(c) The lights are more or less similar to the life of men.
Explanation: Gotami saw lights of the village flickering up and then extinguishing, giving way to the darkness of night. She is remorsing the death of her beloved one, then she realises that life also-goes on like this, like flickering lights. The lines have a deep spiritual meaning where the life of men is compared to the lights. Hence here the answer is (c).

(C) The statement that is TRUE about Kisa’s tiredness according to passage is :
(a) She haa searched a lot for mustard seeds to sow them in her backyard.
(b) She had been walking throughout day and night.
(c) She had insulted many people.
(d) She had a long and tiring day. [1]
Answer:
(d) She had a long and tiring day.
Explanation: Kisa Gotami had searched whole day for the mustard seeds to get back the life of her beloved son, so (a) is not the answer, (b) & (c) are not correct answers as she sat down weary watching the lights in the village flickering up. So, she had been walking during the day only. She did not insult people for the mustard seeds. As she had been going door to door to get back her beloved son’s life, (d) is the right answer.

(D) What according to the passage leads to immortality? [1]
Answer:
leaving behind the greed and becoming selfless
Explanation: In the last lines of the given paragraph, Kisa realises that remorsing and repenting cannot bring her son back. Everyone had denied her any medicine to revive her dead son. Even the mustard seeds were of no use. She realised that what can lead anyone to the path of immortality is giving up selfishness.

(E) The extract uses the phrase, “considered the fate of men”. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘fate’?

(a) option (1)
(b) option (2)
(c) option (3)
(d) option (4) [1]
Answer:
(b) option (2)
Explanation: It is our fate what we get in love, friendship or relationship (1, 4, 3). Luck (2) means fate itself Hence (b) is the correct option.

Question 7.
Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. (5 x 1 = 5)
“heard an oLd religious man
But yesternight declare
That he had found a text to prove
That only God, my dear,
Could love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair”
(A) Identify the option that suits the best to the phrase “love you for yourself alone”
(a) to love someone and not anyone else
(b) to show love in solitude
(c) to love someone for the sake of that person only and not because of his appearance
(d) to love that person only [1]
Answer:
(c) to love someone for the sake of that person only and not because of his appearance.
Explanation: Here the poet is talking about God’s love and he loves everyone so (a), (b) and (c) are not the answers. God’s love is pure. He loves everyone irrespective of their caste, creed, colour or physical appearance. Hence (c) is the correct answer.

(B) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanza? [1]
Answer:
abcdeb
Explanation: Only the 2^nd and last line of the poem rhymes with each other.

(C) This stanza brings out the contrast between:
(a) love and hate
(b) man and woman
(c) A man’s love and God’s love
(d) yellow hair and black hair [1]
Answer:
(c) A man’s love and God’s love
Explanation: The poet here is talking about love. So (b) and (d) are not the answers. He had heard a religious man telling that only God loves you for yourself and not for who you are. There is no mention of hate. Hence (a) is also not the answer. As the poet talks about God’s love she is intending to tell the difference between love of a human and that of God.

(D) What is the poet NOT likely saying to the readers?
(a) Religious man has text in support of what he says.
(b) Yellow hair is good.
(c) God loves everyone for themselves.
(d) Appearance of a person doesn’t matter to the God. [1]
Answer:
(b) Yellow hair is good
Explanation: This stanza tells the reader that a religious man has told after reading text that the color of hair doesn’t matter to God. He loves everyone equally and as they are. Hence (a), (c) & (d) are opted out and (b) is the correct answer.

(E) What evidence does the old man has in favour of his declaration?
He has ………………… [1]
Answer:
some written material
Explanation: The poet tells that the old religious man has found text to prove what he says.

OR
Not one is dissatisfied, not one is demented
with the mania of owning things,
Not one kneels to another, nor to his kind that
lived thousands of years ago,
Not one is respectable or unhappy over the whole earth.
(A) What mania is the poet talking about? [1]
Answer:
Mania of having materialistic things.

(B) What idea can be drawn from the given passage?
(a) An ideal being is contended and satisfied with what he has.
(b) An ideal being asks for more.
(c) An ideal being is curious about life pattern.
(d) An ideal being is always dissatisfied. [1]
Answer:
(a) An ideal being is contended and satisfied with.
Explanation: The poet likes animals because they are satisfied and contented beings whereas human beings are not. According to the poet, a person who is simple and satisfied like animals who has overcome the mania of owning things is an ideal being. Hence (b, c and d) cannot be the answer. The answer is (a).

(C) The word “kneels” DOES NOT have a meaning similar to:
(a) To bow
(b) To sit
(c) To bend
(d) To lie down [1]
Answer:
(d) To lie down
Explanation: The word kneels down means to sit on knees. We generally sit on knees to bend or to bow before someone. Hence (a), (b) & (c) are not the answers. The answer here is (d).

(D) Why are the animals not dissatisfied?
Because ………………. [1]
Answer:
Animals don’t have desire to own anything.
Explanation: Animals do not have human desires. They only need food and a safe shelter, which they get enough in mother nature’s lap. Desire is the main cause of dissatisfaction.

(E) The word that does not indicate the habit of owning things by humans:
(a) mania
(b) desire
(c) demand
(d) success [1]
Answer:
(d) success
Explanation: Human beings have a habit of owning things. They desire for these things and demand God to provide these. This desire sometimes takes the form of madness. Hence (a, b and c) are not the answers. The answer here is (d).

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR questions in 40-50 words each. (4 x 3 = 12)
(A) What legends are associated with the origin of tea? [3]
(B) Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter as God? [3]
(C) How has Robert Frost cautioned the common man in the poem ‘Fire and lce’? [3]
(D) What promise does Mandela make in the opening of his oath-taking speech? [3]
(E) What does the seagull’s reaction to food tell us and what was the result of his response? [3]
Answer:
(A) According to a Chinese legend, there was a Chinese emperor who always boiled water before drinking it. One day, a few leaves of the twigs burning under the pot fell into the water, giving it a delicious flavour. It is said they were tea leaves. According to an Indian legend, Bodhidharma cut off his eyelids because he felt sleepy during meditation. Ten tea plants grew out of the eyelids. The leaves of these plants when put in hot water and drunk, banished sleep.

(B) The postmaster is impressed by Lencho’s faith in God. He decides to give a part of his salary to Lencho. He also collects money by asking for donations from his colleagues. He feels contended by doing this. He signs the letter as ‘God’ because he wants Lencho to retain his utmost faith in God.

(C) Man is selfish, greedy, Lustful, indifferent and hateful. Robert Frost cautions the common man and says that he should not forget the bitter reality that everything in this world is transitory and death is undeniable. He says that all these will lead to the end of humanity and the world.

(D) Mandela thanks all the international leaders and guests and calls it an occasion of joy and victory for justice. He promises that the country shall not experience oppression of one by another again and that they will do everything in their power to help their brothers who are facing similar oppression. He further promised that they will do every effort to let the humanity and freedom reign their beautiful land forever.

(E) The seagull had not eaten for twenty-four hours and the sight of food maddened him. He was famished and his mother knew that he would do anything for food. She taunted and enticed him with food, and the seagull leapt to catch the morsel fish from his mother’s beak, he felt and soon his wings opened, and he began flying.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO questions in 40-50 words each. (2 x 3 = 6)
(A) Why did Mrs. Pumphrey start giving Tricki extras? [3]
(B) Why was it difficult for Hari to rob Anil? [3]
(C) Why were the two boys in London surprised and fascinated? [3]
Answer:
(A) Mrs. Pumphrey thought that Tricki was suffering from malnutrition, as he was weak and restless. He had no energy. So, she started giving him extra snacks, like cod-liver oil and malt, between meals and Horlicks after dinner to make him stronger. She also continued his cream cakes and chocolates

(B) It was difficult for Hari to rob Anil because Anil was the most trusting person Hari had ever met. He was really simple and kind. Hari knew that the loss of money would not affect Anil but the loss of trust would make him sad.

(C) The two boys in London were surprised and fascinated when they saw fresh muddy footprints of a human being on the steps of a house, when they had seen no one making them! As they looked, a fresh footprint appeared from nowhere. It was Griffin who took them by surprise!

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE the following in 100-120 words.
Natalya was called a lovesick cat by her father, Chubukov. Critically examine the reason behind Natalya’s father’s statement even after Natalya being quite quarrelsome in nature.
OR
Read the extracts given below and comment on the similarity of the character traits of the two protagonists.
(A) “Yes, I simply have to go to town,” said Valli, still standing outside the bus, “and here’s my money.”
She showed him some coins.
“Okay, okay, but first you must get on the bus,” said the conductor, and he stretched out a hand to help her up.
“Never mind,” she said, “I can get on by myself. You don’t have to help me.”

(B) Mr Keesing was trying to play a joke on me with this ridiculous subject, but I’d make sure the joke was on him. [6]
Answer:
Natalaya was a twenty-five-year-old young unmarried girl Her father Chubukov, had a huge responsibility on his shoulders to get her daughter married. When Lomov came to Chubukov with a proposal of marriage for Natalya, Chubukov agreed at once. He wanted to get rid of his responsibility as soon as possible. He didn’t want to take any chance. So, to reflect Natalya as a loving girl, he called her a ‘lovesick cat’.

However, Natalya was very c arrelsome and abusive by nature. She argument with Lomov over a piece of land that had little value and even on the superiority of her dog breed over his.
OR
(A) Valli was insightful and meticulous while making the plan for the bus ride. Two characteristics which made Valli to plan her bus ride was her courage and her ability to plan. These are the traits which need to be consciously developed so that a person can undertake what he/she wants to do. As observed in the excerpt, Valli is daunting and courageous.

(B) Even Anne is relentless with her pursuits and continues ahead with humour. Anne is neither disappointed nor rebellious with Mr. Keesing’s behaviour. Rather she tries to avert the situation with her humour and dauntingly faces the punishment that Mr. Keesing gives to her. Thus both Valli and Anne are courageous and fearless in the face of adversities and problems.

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
Ausable was very different from other secret agents. Critically examine the given statement with reference to ‘The Midnight Visitor’.
OR
“No legacy is so rich as honesty.” (William Shakespeare)
Matilda lost her friend’s necklace and ruined her life in the process. Justify the given quote in the context of the lesson, The Necklace. How do you think the lesson reflects the importance of honesty? [6]
Answer:
Ausable was indeed very different from other secret agents in many ways. Instead of being a muscular man, he was extremely fat and sloppy. In spite of living in Paris for over twenty years, he could only spoke French and German moderately and still had an American accent.

In place of a suspense-filled mysterious hotel room, Ausable had a small room in the musty corridor of a gloomy French hotel. Instead of getting messages slipped into his hands by dark-eyed beauties, he got only a telephone call making an appointment. Hence, he was different from the conventional notion of a spy.
OR
Honesty is an important trait to possess. The story, The Necklace also exemplifies the idea. I think Matilda could have led a peaceful and uncomplicated life had she controlled her social ambition, which prompted her to borrow the necklace that she could ill-afford. The author Maupassant warns us against the dangers of greed and criticizes those who ascribe undue value to material possessions.

Matilda’s happiness was dependent on objects she could not afford. She distressed herself with unfulfilled desires and wanted to be accepted among the higher class. She was filled with wild joy at the party where she could show off her diamond necklace, borrowed from her rich friend, Mrs. Forestier.

After losing the necklace, she is once again unhappy, suggesting that material possessions cannot guarantee long-lasting happiness, and that greed can lead to ruin. The purchase of the dress for the ball was also somewhat frivolous which showed Matilda’s vanity and social ambition.

Matilda’s inability to separate price from value led to her ruin, as she could not assess that the necklace was an artificial one. Had Matilda not been greedy and ambitious, she could have worked hard for making her own standard of living better which she always desired for. She became greedy and had to be dishonest to Mrs. Forestier about the necklace, which eventually ruined her entire life.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi Set 1 with Solutions

समय :3 घण्टे
पूर्णाक: 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

1. प्रश्न-पत्र दो खण्डों में विभाजित किया गया है- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे जाएँगें, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के ही उत्तर देने होंगे।
3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए जाएँगें। प्रश्नों में उचित आन्तरिक विकल्प दिए जाएंगे।
4. उत्तर लिखते समय प्रश्न का क्रमांक अवश्य लिखें।
5. एक प्रश्न के सभी भाग एक साथ हल करें।
6. उत्तर स्पष्ट एवं तर्कसंगत हों।

रखण्ड’अ’ : अपठित बोध

I. अपठित बोध- (15 अंक)

(अ) अपठित गद्यांश

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

जहाँ भी दो नदियाँ आकर मिल जाती हैं, उस स्थान को अपने देश में तीर्थ कहने का रिवाज़ है और यह केवल रिवाज़ की बात नहीं है, हम सचमुच मानते हैं कि अलग-अलग नदियों में स्नान करने से जितना पुण्य होता है, उससे कहीं अधिक पुण्य संगम स्नान में है । किन्तु भारत आज जिस दौर से गुज़र रहा है, उसमें संगम वे स्थान, वे सभाएँ तथा वे मंच हैं, जिन पर एक से अधिक भाषाएँ एकत्र होती हैं। नदियों की विशेषता यह है कि वे अपनी धाराओं में अनेक जनपदों का सौरभ, अनेक जनपदों के आँसू और उल्लास लिए चलती हैं और उनका पारस्परिक मिलन वास्तव में नाना जनपदों के मिलन का ही प्रतीक है।

यही हाल भाषाओं का भी है। उनके भीतर भी नाना जनपदों में बसने वाली जनता के आँसू और उमंगें, भाव और विचार, आशाएँ और आशंकाएँ समाहित होती हैं, अतः जहाँ भाषाओं का मिलन होता है, वहाँ वास्तव में, विभिन्न जनपदों के हृदय ही मिलते हैं, उनके भावों और विचारों का ही मिलन होता है तथा भिन्नताओं में छिपी हुई एकता वहाँ कुछ अधिक प्रत्यक्ष हो उठती है । इस दृष्टि से भाषाओं के संगम आज सबसे बड़े तीर्थ हैं और इन तीर्थों में जो भी भारतवासी श्रद्धा से स्नान करता है, वह भारतीय एकता का सबसे बड़ा सिपाही और संत है।

हमारी भाषाएँ जितनी ही तेज़ी से जागेंगी, हमारे विभिन्न प्रदेशों का पारस्परिक ज्ञान उतना ही बढ़ता जाएगा। भारतीय लेखकों की बहुत दिनों से यह आकांक्षा रही थी कि वे केवल अपनी ही भाषा में प्रसिद्ध होकर न रह जाएँ बल्कि भारत की अन्य भाषाओं में भी उनके नाम पहुँचें और उनकी कृतियों की चर्चा हो । भाषाओं के जागरण के आरंभ होते ही एक प्रकार का अखिल भारतीय मंच आप-से-आप प्रकट होने लगा है। आज प्रत्येक भाषा के भीतर यह जानने की इच्छा उत्पन्न हो गई है कि भारत की अन्य भाषाओं में क्या हो रहा है? उनमें कौन-कौन ऐसे लेखक हैं जिनकी कृतियाँ उल्लेखनीय हैं तथा कौन-सी विचारधारा वहाँ प्रभुसत्ता प्राप्त कर रही है।

1. दो नदियों के संगम स्थान को क्या कहा जाता है ?
(क) तीर्थ
(ख) मंच
(ग) धारा
(घ) सागर
उत्तर:
(क) तीर्थ

व्याख्या – दो नदियों के संगम को तीर्थ मानकर उस स्थान को पूजनीय और सम्माननीय मानना भारतीय संस्कृति माना जाता है।

2. आज संगम स्थान पर क्या एकत्रित होता है ? 1
(क) लोग
(ख) भाषाएँ
(ग) पंडित
(घ) साधु
उत्तर:
(ख) भाषाएँ

3. जनपदों के आँसू और उल्लास लिए कौन चलता है ? 1
(क) सागर
(ख) लोग
(ग) नदियाँ
(घ) भीड़
उत्तर:
(ग) नदियाँ

4. भाषाओं के मिलन पर किस के हृदय मिलते हैं? 1
(क) हिंदुओं के
(ख) विभिन्न धर्मों के
(ग) समाज के
(घ) जनपदों के
उत्तर:
(घ) जनपदों के

5. भाषाओं के तीर्थों पर स्नान करने वालों को क्या कहा गया है? 1
(क) संत
(ख) जनपद
(ग) तीर्थयात्री
(घ) भारतीय एकता के सिपाही
उत्तर:
(घ) भारतीय एकता के सिपाही

व्याख्या – भाषाओं के तीर्थों पर स्नान करने वालों को भारतीय एकता के सिपाही कहा जाता है।

6. हमारे प्रदेशों का ज्ञान किस के जागने से बढ़ता है ? 1
(क) भाषाओं के
(ख) लोगों के
(ग) बच्चों के
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) भाषाओं के

7. किस की आकांक्षा है कि उनके नाम अन्य भाषाओं तक पहुँचें ? 1
(क) विदेशियों की
(ख) कंपनियों की
(ग) भारतीय लेखकों की
(घ) लोगों की
उत्तर:
(ग) भारतीय लेखकों के
व्याख्या – भारतीय लेखकों की यह आकांक्षा रही कि अपनी भाषा के साथ ही अन्य भाषाओं में भी उनका नाम हो तथा उनकी कृतियों की चर्चा हो। जिससे उन्हें अन्य भाषाओं में होने वाली गतिविधियों की जानकारी रहे।

8. भाषाओं के जागरण से क्या प्रकट होने लगा है ? 1
(क) अखिल भारतीय मंच
(ख) जोश
(ग) प्रेम
(घ) अपराध
उत्तर:
(क) अखिल भारतीय मंच

9. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक दीजिए । 1
(क) दो नदियाँ
(ख) जनपदों का हृदय
(ग) भारतीय भाषाओं का समन्वय
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं ।
उत्तर:
(ग) भारतीय भाषाओं का समन्वय

व्याख्या – इस गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक ‘भारतीय भाषाओं का समन्वय’ है ।

10. ‘पारस्परिक’ में प्रत्यय लगाइए- 1
(क) पा
(ख) पार
(ग) स्परिक
(घ) इक
उत्तर:
(घ) इक

(ब) अपठित पद्यांश-

निम्नलिखित पद्यांशों में से किसी एक पद्यांश से संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

कुछ लिख के सो, कुछ पढ़के सो
तू जिस जगह जागा सवेरे उस जगह से बढ़ के सो ।
जैसा उठा वैसा गिरा जाकर बिछौने पर,
बिना समझे बिना बूझे खेलते जाना,
गलत है बेसुध है,
कुछ रचके सो, कुछ गढ़के सो
तू जिस जगह जागा सवेरे उस जगह से बढ़ के सो ।
दिन भर इबारत पेड़, पत्ती और पानी की
बंद घर की, खुले फैले खेत धानी की
हवा की, बरसात की हर खुश्क की, तर की
गुज़रती दिनभर जो रही जो आपकी, पर की
उस इबारत को सुनहरे वर्क से मन मढ़के सो ।

1. कवि ने किसे बेसुध कहा है? 1
उत्तर:
कवि ने उस व्यक्ति को बेसुध कहा है जो कुछ कार्य किए समय बिताता है या बिना सोचे-समझे निरर्थक कार्य करता है।

2. ‘मन मढ़के सो’ में निहित अलंकार है- 1
(क) अनुप्रास अलंकार
(ख) रूपक
(ग) यमक
(घ) श्लेष
उत्तर:
(क) अनुप्रास अलंकार

3. ‘जैसा उठा वैसा गिरा’ का क्या अर्थ है ? 1
उत्तर:
कवि ने मनुष्य की अकर्मण्यता के विषय में कहा है। अकर्मण्य व्यक्ति जैसे निष्क्रिय भाव से जागता है वैसे दिनभर कोई प्रयास किए बिना शाम को सो जाता है।

4. इबारत को किससे मढ़ना है? 1
(क) लकड़ी से
(ख) शीशे से
(ग) सुनहरी वर्क से
(घ) ताँबे से
उत्तर:
(ग) सुनहरी वर्क से

5. पद्यांश का शीर्षक लिखिए। 1
उत्तर:
इस पद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक ‘परिश्रम का महत्व’ है।

अथवा

एक तेरी ही नहीं सुनसान राहें और भी हैं,
कल सुबह के इंतज़ार में निगाहें और भी हैं ।
और भी हैं ओठ जिन पर वेदना मुस्कान बनती,
नींद तेरी ही न केवल स्वप्न की पहचान बनती।
पूजना पत्थर अकेले एक तुझको ही नहीं
‘वाह बनने के लिए मजबूर आहें और भी हैं।
तू अकेला ही नहीं है जो अकेला चल रहा है।
और तलुवों के तले भी यह धरातल जल रहा है।
और हैं साथी जिन्हें तूने न देखा न जाना
सामने है एक ही, लेकिन दिशाएँ और भी हैं।

1. कवि किससे अपनी बात कह रहा है?
उत्तर:
कवि प्रसिद्धि चाहने वालों से अपनी बात कह रहा है।

2. ‘पत्थर पूजना’ से कवि का क्या आशय है? 1
(क) पूजा करना
(ख) चापलूसी करना
(ग) फूल चढ़ाना
(घ) बहलाना
उत्तर:
(ख) रूपक

3. पद्यांश में ‘नींद’ का स्वप्न की पहचान ‘बनना’ क्या दर्शाता है?
उत्तर:
स्वप्न की पहचान बनना प्रसिद्धि प्राप्ति के लिए सपने देखने जैसा है।

4. धरातल कहाँ जल रहा है?
(क) आकाश में
(ख) पाताल में
(ग) तलुवों के नीचे
(घ) गिरि पर
उत्तर:
(ग) सुनहरी वर्क से

5. पद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
पद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक ‘प्रसिद्धि की चाह है ।

II. पाठ्यपुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम की इकाई एक से पाठ संख्या 1 तथा 2 पर आधारित बहुविकल्पात्मक प्रश्न। (1 × 5 = 5)

निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए ।

1. खबर व घटना को सम्बन्धित चित्रों के बिना संवाददाता द्वारा सूचना देना क्या कहलाता है ? 1
(क) फोटो इन
(ग) ड्राई एंकर
(ख) फोन इन
(घ) कार्टून कोना
उत्तर:
(ग) ड्राई एंकर

व्याख्या – खबर के दृश्य न आने तक एंकर, दर्शकों को रिपोर्टरों से मिली जानकारियों के आधार पर सूचनाएँ पहुँचाता है।

2. दृश्यों के आधार पर घटना की जानकारी देने वाला एंकर क्या कहलाता है ? 1
(क) ड्राई एंकर
(ख) एंकर विजुअल
(ग) बीट एंकर
(घ) फ्लैश एंकर
उत्तर:
(ख) एंकर विजुअल

3. भारत में पहला छापाखाना कहाँ शुरू हुआ ? 1
(क) बनारस
(ग) गोवा
(ख) दिल्ली
(घ) मुम्बई
उत्तर:
(ग) गोवा

4. कागज़ व मुद्रण के आविष्कार के मेल से हुई क्रांति को क्या कहते हैं ? 1
(क) श्वेत क्रांति
(ख) सूचना क्रांति
(ग) संयुक्त क्रांति
(घ) पेपर क्रांति
उत्तर:
(ग) संयुक्त क्रांति

5. रेडियो किस प्रकार का संचार है ? 1
(क) श्रव्य
(ख) दृश्य
(ग) श्रव्य व दृश्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) श्रव्य

व्याख्या – रेडियो श्रव्य संचार माध्यम है। इसमें ध्वनि तथा तरंगों के माध्यम से ही संदेश भेजे जाते हैं।

III. पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-1 (10 अंक)

(अ) निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

हे भूख ! मत मचल
प्यास, तड़प मत
हे नींद ! मत सता
क्रोध, मचा मत उथल-पुथल
हे मोह ! पाश अपने ढील
लोभ, मत ललचा
हे मद! मत कर मदहोश
ईर्ष्या, जलात
ओ चराचर! मत चूक अवसर
आई हूँ सन्देश लेकर चन्न मल्लिकार्जुन का

1. इस पद्यांश की कवयित्री का क्या नाम है ?
(क) महादेवी
(ख) सुभद्रा कुमारी
(ग) अक्कमहादेवी
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) अक्कमहादेवी

2. कवयित्री भूख-प्यास से क्या प्रार्थना करती है ?
(क) सांसारिक कष्ट न दें
(ख) दैहिक कष्ट न दें
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) सांसारिक कष्ट न दें

व्याख्या – कवयित्री भूख-प्यास, क्रोध मोह आदि से प्रार्थना करती है कि उसे सांसारिक कष्ट न दें।

3. कवयित्री किसके प्रति समर्पित है?
(क) चन्नमल्लिकार्जुन
(ख) भगवान शिव
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ग) चन्नमल्लिकार्जुन

व्याख्या – कवयित्री चन्नमल्लिकार्जुन और भगवान शिव के प्रति समर्पित है।

4. क्रोध का अर्थ है-
(क) गुस्सा
(ख) प्रेम
(ग) निंदा
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) गुस्सा

5. मोह का विलोम है-
(क) निर्मोह
(ख) लालच
(ग) ईर्ष्या
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) निर्मोह

(ब) दिए गए गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

इस बार मास्टर त्रिलोक सिंह ने उसके लाए हुए बेंत का उपयोग करने की बजाय जुबान की चाबुक लगा दी थी, ‘तेरे दिमाग में तो लोहा भरा है रे ! विद्या का ताप कहाँ लगेगा इसमें ?’ अपने थैले से पाँच-छ: दराँतियाँ निकालकर उन्होंने धनराम को धार लगा लाने के लिए पकड़ा दी थीं। किताबों की विद्या का ताप लगाने की सामर्थ्य धनराम के पिता की नहीं थी । धनराम हाथ-पैर चलाने लायक हुआ ही था कि बाप ने उसे धौंकनी फूँकने या सान लगाने के कामों में उलझाना शुरू कर दिया और फिर धीरे-धीरे हथौड़े से लेकर घन चलाने की विद्या सिखाने लगा । फर्क इतना ही था कि जहाँ मास्टर त्रिलोक सिंह उसे अपनी पसन्द का बेंत चुनने की छूट दे देते थे वहाँ गंगाराम इसका चुनाव स्वयं करते थे और ज़रा-सी गलती होने पर छड़, बेंत या हत्था जो भी हाथ लग जाता उसी से अपना प्रसाद दे देते। एक दिन गंगाराम अचानक चल बसे तो धनराम ने सहज भाव से उनकी विरासत सँभाल ली और पास- -पड़ोस के गाँव वालों को याद नहीं रहा कि वे कब गंगाराम के ऑफर को धनराम का ऑफर कहने लगे थे ।

1. ‘जुबान की चाबुक’ से क्या आशय है? 1
(क) व्यंग्य वचन
(ख) प्रेम वचन
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) व्यंग्य वचन

2. त्रिलोक ने किसको व्यंग्य वचन कहे ?
(क) मोहन
(ख) वंशीधर
(ग) धनराम
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) धनराम

व्याख्या – मास्टर त्रिलोक ने धनराम को व्यंग्य वचन कहे थे क्योंकि वह तेरह का पहाड़ा याद नहीं कर सकता था।

3. धनराम की रुचि किसमें अधिक थी ?
(क) पढ़ाई
(ख) लोहा पीटने
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ख) लोहा पीटने

4. त्रिलोक सिंह, धनराम को पीटने के लिए क्या चुनते थे? 1
(क) बेंत
(ख) हथौड़ा
(ग) तीर
(घ) तलवार
उत्तर:
(क) बेंत

व्याख्या – मास्टर त्रिलोक सिंह ने धनराम को पी. टने हेतु बेंत को चुना था।

5. धनराम के पिता का क्या नाम है? 1
(क) वंशीधर
(ख) त्रिलोक
(ग) मोहन
(घ) गंगाराम
उत्तर:
(घ) गंगाराम

IV. पूरक पाठ्य पुस्तक वितान भाग – 1 (10 अंक)

निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

1. कुंई के पानी को साफ़ रखने के लिए उसे किस धातु के वने ढक्कन से ढका जाता है ?
(क) पत्थर
(ग) लकड़ी
(ख) लोहा
(घ) मिट्टी
उत्तर:
(ग) लकड़ी

व्याख्या – कुंई के पानी को साफ रखने हेतु उस पर लकड़ी से बने ढक्कन को रखा जाता है।

2. गहरी कुंई से पानी खींचने की सुविधा के लिए ऊपर लगी चकरी को क्या कहते हैं?
(क) चरखी
(ग) फरेड़ी
(ख) गरेड़ी
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपरोक्त सभी

3. जैसलमेर जिले के एक गॉव खड़ेरों की ढाणी को लोग किस नाम से जानते थे ?
(क) तीन – बीसी
(ख) छः – बीसी
(ग) पांच – बीसी
(घ) सात – बीसी
उत्तर:
(ख) छ: बीसी

4. लेखक के अनुसार लता जी ने किस प्रकार के गानों के साथ न्याय नहीं किया है?
(क) करूण रस
(ख) शृंगार रस
(ग) भक्ति रस
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) करूण रस

व्याख्या – लेखक ने अनुसार लता जी ने करूण रस के गानों के साथ न्याय नहीं किया।

5. लता जी किस संगीत की अनभिषिक्त सम्रागी हैं? 1
(क) लोक संगीत
(ख) पाश्चात्य संगीत
(ग) चित्रपट संगीत
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) चित्रपत्र संगीत

6. लेखक के अनुसार गाने की सारी मिठास किसके कारण आती है?
(क) सही धुन
(ख) रंजकता
(ग) सही उच्चारण
(घ) सही शब्दावली
उत्तर:
(ख) रंजकतस

7. बेबी हालदार की तुलना किससे की गई है ?
(क) आशापूर्णा देवी
(ख) तातुश
(ग) जेठू
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(क) आशापूर्णा देवी

8. कला के लिए अब तक प्राप्त सबसे महत्वपूर्ण शास्त्र कौन-सा है ? 1
(क) सामदेव
(ख) नैतिकशास्त्र
(ग) लोकशास्त्र
(घ) नाट्यशास्त्र
उत्तर:
(घ) नाट्यशास्त्र

व्याख्या – कला के लिए अब तक का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण शास्त्र भरतमुनि का नाट्यशास्त्र है।

9. कलाओं का स्वर्णयुग किस युग को कहा जाता है ? 1
(क) गुप्त युग
(ख) मुगल युग
(ग) मौर्य युग
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(क) गुप्त युग

10. अस्थायी कलाएँ कौन-सी हैं ? 1
(क) ऐपण
(ख) अल्पना
(ग) रंगोली
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपरोक्त सभी

व्याख्या – ऐपण, अल्पना तथा रंगोली आदि अस्थायी कलाएँ हैं।

खण्ड ‘ब’ : वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

V. पाठ्य-पुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम से सृजनात्मक लेखन और व्यावहारिक लेखन । (20 अंक)

1. दिए गए अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेखन लिखिए-

(क) देश में बढ़ती कन्या भ्रूण हत्या पर अपने विचार लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
भ्रूण हत्या :
एक जघन्य अपराध आज हमारे देश में अनेक समस्याएँ हैं-जैसे दहेज प्रथा, बाल विवाह, जनसंख्या वृद्धि, कन्या भ्रूण हत्या आदि। जिनमें कन्या भ्रूण हत्या एक भयंकर समस्या है। यह ऐसा जघन्य अपराध हैं, जो देश की महानता और गौरव गरिमा को धूमिल कर रहा है। वैज्ञानिक उन्नति ने इस अपराध को बढ़ावा देने का काम किया है। जिन आधुनिक मशीनों का प्रयोग जनकल्याणकारी कामों के लिए किया जाना चाहिए, आज मेडीकल क्षेत्र के कुछ स्वार्थी लोग अपनी स्वार्थपूर्ति हेतु उनका गलत कामों में उपयोग कर रहें हैं वे जन्म से पूर्व ही माता-पिता को अल्ट्रासाउण्ड मशीन के ज़रिए यह बता देते हैं कि गर्भ में पल रहा भ्रूण बेटा है या बेटी।

हालांकि ऐसा करना हमारे देश में कानूनी अपराध है किन्तु फिर भी कुछ लालची लोग ऐसा कर रहे हैं, जिससे माता-पिता एक बेटे की चाह में, उस कन्या को जन्म से पूर्व ही गर्भ में मरवा देते हैं। इसका दुष्परिणाम यह है कि देश में लड़कियों की संख्या दिन-प्रतिदिन घट रही है। कन्या भ्रूण हत्या रोकने हेतु सरकार को कठोर कानून बनाने और सख्ती से उसका पालन करते रहना चाहिए। ताकि कोई कन्या भ्रूण हत्या जैसा अपराध न कर सके।

(ख) ‘अपना घर’ विषय पर एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
अपना घर कहा जाता है कि घरों में घर अपना घर । सच ही अपना घर अपना ही होता है। चाहे अपने घर में सभी सुख- सुविधाएँ न हों तब भी वह अच्छा लगता है जो आज़ादी हमें अपने घर में होती है, वह किसी भी आलीशान घर में प्राप्त नहीं होती है। अपने घर में व्यक्ति अपनी मन मर्जी का मालिक होता है। दूसरे के घर में, उस घर के स्वामी की इच्छानुसार या उस घर के नियमों के तहत रहना पड़ता है। अपने घर में आप जो चाहें करें, खाएँ, जहाँ चाहें बैठे, उठे, लेटें पर दूसरे के घर में ऐसा मुनासिब नहीं होता है। इसीलिए तो कहा जाता है कि ‘जो सुख छज्जू दे चौबारे वह न बलख न बुखारे’ शायद यही वजह है कि मीलों दूर नौकरी करने जाने वाले भी रात को अपने घर वापस आ जाते हैं।

मनुष्य ही नहीं पशु-पक्षी भी अपने घर के महत्व को समझते हैं। सारा दिन जंगल में चरने वाली भैंस, गाएँ, भेड़ें, बकरियाँ आदि शाम होते ही अपने-अपने घरों को लौट आते है। पक्षी भी दिनभर दानादुनका चुगकर शाम होते ही अपने- अपने घोंसलों को वापस आ जाते हैं। घर का मोह सबको लौट आने के लिए विवश करता है। सच ही कहा जाता है कि घरों में घर, अपना घर सबसे अच्छा होता है।

(ग) अपने जीवन के लक्ष्य पर विस्तारपूर्वक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
मेरे जीवन का लक्ष्य-संसार में प्रत्येक मनुष्य के जीवन का कोई न कोई लक्ष्य ज़रूर होता है एक मनुष्य एवं सामाजिक प्राणी होने के नाते मैंने भी अपने जीवन का लक्ष्य निर्धारित किया है। मैं बड़ा होकर एक आदर्श अध्यापक बनना चाहता हूँ और अध्यापक के रूप में अपने कर्तव्यों को निभाता हुआ अपने राष्ट्र की सेवा करना चाहता हूँ। मैं आदर्श शिक्षक बनकर अपने राष्ट्र की भावी पीढ़ी के बौद्धिक स्तर को उच्च स्तर पर पहुँचाना चाहता हूँ ताकि मेरे देश की युवा पीढ़ी कुशल, विवेकशील, कर्मनिष्ठ और ईमानदार बन सके और मेरा देश फिर से शिक्षा का सिरमौर बन सके।

हम फिर से विश्वगुरू की उपाधि को ग्रहण कर सकें। विद्यार्थी होने के कारण मैं भली-भाँति जानता हूँ कि किसी अध्यापक का विद्यार्थियों पर कैसा प्रभाव पड़ता है। कोई अच्छा अध्यापक उनको अच्छी दिशा अथवा सही मार्ग दिखा सकता है। मैं भी ऐसा करके देश के युवाओं को नया मार्ग अथवा नई दिशा देना चाहता हूँ, जिससे हमारे देश का विकास हो और हम फिर से विश्व गुरु की उपाधि पा सकें।

(घ) ‘दीया और तूफान’ विषय पर एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
दीया और तूफान मिट्टी का बना हुआ एक नन्हीं- सा दीया भी जलता है तो रात्रि अन्धकार से लड़ता हुआ उसे दूर भगा देता है अपने आस-पास रोशनी फैला देता है। जिस अन्धेरे में हाथ से हाथ नहीं सूझता उसे भी अपने मंद रोशनी से काम करने योग्य मार्ग प्रशस्त कर देता है। हवा का झोंका जब दीये को कँपा देता है तब ऐसा लगता है कि मानो अन्धकार फिर छा जाएगा। दीया छोटा ही क्यूँ न हो पर वह अन्धकार से अकेला सामना कर सकता है तो हम मानव जीवन की राह में आने वाली कठिनाइयों का उसी तरह मुकाबला क्यों नहीं कर सकते, यदि वह तूफान का सामना करके अपनी टिमटिमाती लौ से प्रकाश फैला सकता है तो हम भी हर कठिनाई में मज़बूत बनकर संकटों के घेरे से निकल सकते हैं महाराणा प्रताप ने सब कुछ खोकर अपना लक्ष्य प्राप्त करने की ठानी थी हमारे पूर्व राष्ट्रपति स्वर्गीय ए.पी.जे. अब्दुल कलाम ने नन्हें से दीये के समान जीवन की कठोरता का सामना किया और विश्व के सबसे बड़े गणतन्त्र भारत का राष्ट्रपति पद प्राप्त किया और यही हमारे देश को मिसाइलें प्रदान कर मिसाइल मैन कहलाए जाते हैं।

2. विद्यालय में खेल-कूद की सामग्री की ओर ध्यान दिलाते हुए प्रधानाचार्य को एक प्रार्थना पत्र लिखिए ।
अथवा
‘निरमा’ वाशिंग पाउडर कम्पनी को घर-घर जाकर प्रचार करने वाले युवाओं की आवश्यकता है, जो दसवीं पास हों और प्रभावशाली ढंग से बातचीत कर सकते हों। इसके लिए अपनी योग्यताओं का विवरण देते हुए निरमा लिमिटेड, निरमा हाउस, अहमदाबाद – 580009 के प्रबन्धक महोदय को एक पत्र लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
सेवा में,
प्रधानाचार्य महोदय,
केन्द्रीय विद्यालय,
एम. ई. एस. बंगलुरू।
विषय: खेलकूद सामग्री की व्यवस्था हेतु पत्र ।
महोदय,
सविनय निवेदन है कि इस वर्ष हमारे विद्यालय ने क्षेत्रीय खेल प्रतियोगिताओं में बहुत नाम कमाया है। इस सफलता से उत्साहित होकर विद्यालय के अनेक छात्र विभिन्न टीमों में अपने नाम देने के इच्छुक हैं।

इससे पहले कि आगामी खेल प्रतियोगिताओं के लिए टीमों का चुनाव किया जाये, यह आवश्यक हो जाता है कि अपने विद्यालय के खेल के मैदान की समुचित सफा. ई, ऊँचे-नीचे गड्ढ़ों की भराई, माप के अनुसार मैदान की निशानदेही और यथास्थान पोल गड़वाने की समुचित व्यवस्था की जाये। इन सबके अतिरिक्त सभी खेलों की आवश्यक सामग्री- गेंद-वल्ले, हॉकी स्टिक, फुटबॉल, वॉलीबॉल, नैट, शटल कॉक आदि का यथोचित प्रबंध करना भी आवश्यक है।

खेल प्रतियोगिता में भाग लेने हेतु हमारे विद्यालय के अनेक छात्रों में काफी उत्साह है। हमारे मुख्य व्यायाम शिक्षक अभी से खेलों का अभ्यास कराना चाहते हैं।
आशा है, ऊपर दिये गये विवरण के अनुसार आवश्यक प्रबन्ध करने और सामग्री जुटाने की दिशा में आप शीघ्र ही यथोचित कदम उठाने की कृपा करेंगे।
आपका आज्ञाकारी शिष्य
संतोष कुमार
खेल सचिव, ग्यारहवीं ‘अ’
दिनांक 10.7. ……

अथवा

सेवा में,
प्रबन्धक महोदय,
निरमा लिमिटेड, निरमा हाउस,
आश्रम रोड, अहमदाबाद-580009

विषय – प्रचार कर्मी के लिए आवेदन पत्र ।
महोदय,
आपकी कम्पनी द्वारा ‘नवभारत टाइम्स’ के पिछले अंक में दिये गये विज्ञापन से ज्ञात हुआ कि कम्पनी को दसवीं पास युवकों की आवश्यकता है जो घर-घर जाकर कम्पनी के उत्पादों का प्रचार कर सकें। इस कार्य के लिए मैं स्वयं को एक प्रत्याशी के रूप में प्रस्तुत करता हूँ। मेरा वैयक्तिक विवरण निम्न प्रकार है-
प्रार्थी का नाम – विष्णु कुमार जैन
पिता का नाम – श्री मोती लाल जैन
पत्र व्यवहार का पता – 8091, मीर गली, नवाब गंज, दिल्ली।
आयु – 18 वर्ष
शिक्षा – इण्टरमीडिएट प्रथम श्रेणी ।
अन्य योग्यता – हिन्दी तथा अंग्रेज़ी में प्रभावशाली ढंग से बातचीत में निपुण। मैं आपको विश्वास दिलाता हूँ कि यदि मुझे कार्य करने का अवसर दिया गया तो मैं कम्पनी के उत्पादों के प्रचार द्वारा उसकी बिक्री में वृद्धि का पूर्ण प्रयास करूंगा।
संलग्न – सभी अंकतालिकाओं की छाया प्रतियाँ |
धन्यवाद सहित
प्रार्थी
विष्णु कुमार जैन
मो. 94235981xx
दिनांक 18.08. ……

3. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए-

(क) “परीक्षा में आपको सर्वोत्तम अंक मिले हैं।” इस अवसर पर डायरी प्रविष्टि लिखें ।
उत्तर:
11 अप्रैल, 20xx – आज मेरी खुशी का उस समय कोई ठिकाना न रहा जब मुझे अपने परीक्षा परिणाम का पता चला मुझे परीक्षा में सर्वोत्तम अंक मिले थे मेरे पिताजी की हार्दिक इच्छा थी कि मैं सर्वोत्तम अंक हासिल करूँ। वे मुझे प्रायः ऐसे कई उदाहरण दिया करते थे। मैंने भी निश्चय किया हुआ था कि अब की बार तो परीक्षा में सर्वोत्तम अंक लाकर दिखाऊँगा। आखिरकार आज मुझे यह मौका मिल ही गया जब मैं अपने पिताजी से कह सकूँ कि मैं ही आपका लायक बेटा हूँ परीक्षा में सर्वोत्तम अंक प्राप्त करने के बाद मुझे मित्रों और सम्बन्धियों के खूब फोन आए। अपनी इस उपलब्धि पर मुझे आज बहुत खुशी हो रही है।

(ख) एक संगीत कार्यक्रम के अपने अनुभव के विषय में एक डायरी प्रविष्टि लिखें ।
उत्तर:

शनिवार
10 अगस्त 20xx
रात्रि 11:00 बजे
प्रिय डायरी,
मेरा यह पूरी तरह से बिल्कुल भिन्न और दुनिया से अलग अनुभव था मुझे मेरे दोस्त राजेश ने कैलाश खेर द्वारा एक संगीत कार्यक्रम में भाग लेने के लिए आमंत्रित किया था। वह संगीत कार्यक्रम के लिए देर से पहुँचे, लेकिन फिर कुछ ऐसी चीजें होती हैं जब आपके पास प्रशंसकों की कतार लगी होती है।

महालक्ष्मी रेसकोर्स ग्राउण्ड में मौजूद सभी दर्शक गुलजार थे, हर कोई उसे देखने एवं उसके गाने सुनने का बेसब्री से इंतज़ार कर रहा था। वहाँ ज़बरदस्त सुरक्षा थी। हमें प्रवेश करने में लगभग आधा घण्टा लगा जब वह मंच पर उतरे तो पूरी भीड़ उत्साहित हो गई। हम सब उसके साथ गाने लगे। उन्होंने अपने नये एलबम से मेरा पसंदीदा गाना भी गाया। मेरा यह यादगार पल था। रात में इसे मैं कभी नहीं भूलूँगा। चारों ओर बहुत ताली, टूटिंग और जयकारे चल रहे थे। अन्त में उन्होंने अपने प्रशंसकों को ऑटोग्राफ दिए. यहाँ तक कि मुझे भी उनका ऑटोग्राफ मिला और वह वहाँ से चले गए। बहुत खूब! मेरे लिए यह दिन सिर्फ एक सपना सच होने जैसा है।
शुभ रात्रि डायरी
राहुल

(ग) नाटक और फ़िल्म की पटकथा के किन्हीं पाँच अन्तरों का वर्णन कीजिए ।
उत्तर:
नाटक और फ़िल्म की पटकथा में कुछ मूलभूत अन्तर होते हैं। ये अन्तर निम्नलिखित हैं-
1. नाटक के दृश्य बहुत लम्बे-लम्बे होते हैं जबकि फिल्म के दृश्य छोटे-छोटे होते हैं।
2. नाटक में घटनास्थल प्रायः सीमित होता है जबकि फिल्म में इसकी कोई सीमा नहीं होती।
3. नाटक एक सजीव कला माध्यम है, जिसमें अभिनेता अपने ही जैसे जीवन्त दर्शकों के सामने अपनी कला का प्रदर्शन करते हैं जबकि सिनेमा में यह पूर्व रिकॉ डंग छवियाँ एवं दृश्य होते हैं।
4. नाटक में कार्य व्यापार, दृश्यों की संरचना और चरित्रों की संख्या सीमित रखनी होती है, जबकि सिनेमा में ऐसा कोई बन्धन नहीं होता।
5. नाटक की कथा का विकास एकरेखीय होता है, जो एक ही दिशा में आगे बढ़ता है, जबकि सिनेमा में कथा का विकास कई प्रकार से होता है।

4. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए-

(क) पारिभाषित शब्द किसे कहते हैं ? पारिभाषिक शब्दकोष का विश्लेषण कीजिए ।
उत्तर:
विशिष्ट अर्थ में प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्दों को पारिभाषिक शब्द कहते हैं। किसी भाषा के पारिभाषिक शब्दों का सीधा सम्बन्ध उस भाषा के सांस्कृतिक एवं वैचारिक विकास से होता है। शास्त्रों और विज्ञान शाखाओं के पारिभाषिक शब्दकोषों की रचना एक भाषा में भी होती है और दो या अनेक भाषाओं में भी। कुछ में केवल पयार्य शब्द रहते हैं और कुछ में व्याख्याएँ अथवा परिभाषाएँ भी दी जाती हैं। विज्ञान और तकनीकी या प्राविधिक विषयों से सम्बन्ध नाना पारिभाषिक शब्द कोषों में व्याख्यात्मक परिभाषाओं तथा कभी-कभी अन्य साधनों की सहायता से भी बिल्कुल सही अर्थ का बोध कराया जाता है। प्राचीन शास्त्रों और दर्शनों आदि के विशिष्ट एवं पारिभाषिक शब्दों के कोष भी बनाए गए हैं।

(ख) शब्द विधि से आप क्या समझते हैं ?
उत्तर:
शब्द कोश में शब्द विधि के अर्थ को स्पष्ट करते हुए लिखा है- “शब्द विधि पठन शिक्षण की विधि है, जिसमें प्रथमतः शब्दों को पूर्ण रूप में प्रस्तुत किया जाता है और बाद में खण्डों में विश्लेषित किया जाता है।

यह विधि सर्वप्रथम यूरोप में कामेनियस द्वारा 1648 ई. में अपनी पुस्तक The Orbis Pictus में प्रतिपाि दत की गई थी जो 1846 ई. में संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में रसेल वेब द्वारा प्रस्तावित हुई थी यह पठन शिक्षण की विधि है, जो सम्पूर्ण शब्द से प्रारम्भ होती है, परन्तु इसमें ध्वनियों पर विशेष बल दिया जाता है। इस विधि में बालकों को सर्वप्रथम वर्णों के स्थान पर शब्दों का ज्ञान कराया जाता है। बालक को शब्दों का पठन पहले सिखाया जाता है। शब्द पठन में कुशल हो जाने पर छात्रों को वाक्य पढ़ना सिखाया जाता है, अन्त में वर्णों के उच्चारण । ध्वनि साम्य विधि, अनुध्वनि विधि तथा साहचर्य विधि आदि शब्द विधि के ही प्रकार मात्र हैं।

(ग) स्ववृत्त प्रारूप में कितने विभाग होते हैं ? स्पष्ट कीजिए ।
उत्तर:
स्ववृत्त के विभाग स्ववृत्त प्रारूप में चार विभाग होते हैं जैसे-
1. पहला भाग भूमिका का होता है, जिसमें उम्मीदवार विज्ञापन से तथा विज्ञापित पद का हवाला देते हुए अपनी उम्मीदवारी की इच्छा प्रकट करता है।
2. दूसरे भाग में उम्मीदवार बताता है कि वह विज्ञापन में वर्णित आवश्यकताओं ओर योग्यताओं को पूरा करने में किस प्रकार सक्षम है।
3. तीसरे विभाग में उम्मीदवार उस पद और संस्था के प्रति अपनी गम्भीरता और अभिरुचि को व्यक्त करता है।
4. चौथा विभाग औपचारिक समापन या उपसंहार का होता है जिसमें आपने (किसी भी पद के लिए) आवेदन किया है।

VI. पाठ्य-पुस्तक आरोह भाग-1 (20 अंक)

1. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 60 शब्दों में) दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘न हो कमीज़ तो पाँवों से पेट ढँक लेंगे’ पंक्ति का अर्थ स्पष्ट कीजिए ।
उत्तर:

कवि आम व्यक्ति के बारे में बात कर रहा है। आम व्यक्ति गरीबी व शोषण युक्त जीवन जीता है क्योंकि भ्रष्ट शासन तंत्र द्वारा वह शोषित होता है और निराशापूर्ण स्थिति में पहुँच जाता है। वह इतना हताश हो जाता है कि उसमें शासन-तंत्र का विरोध करने की क्षमता भी समाप्त हो जाती है। वह इतना शक्तिहीन अथवा अशक्त हो जाता है कि जो आधारभूत न्यूनतम सुविधाएँ उसको जीवन निर्वाह के लिए चाहिए, वे उसे नहीं भी मिलतीं तो भी वह विरोध में अपनी आवाज़ नहीं उठाता बल्कि उसी में परम संतोषी और साधु प्रवृत्ति वाले स्वभाव के कारण खुश रहता है। जैसे कमीज़ बदन पर न हो तो गरीब व्यक्ति अशक्त होने के कारण अपने पाँवों से ही अपना पेट ढकने की कोशिश करता है। उसी प्रकार से वह तंत्र के खिलाफ भी अपनी आवाज़ नहीं उठ ता। अपने अधिकार प्राप्त करने की कोशिश नहीं करता।

कवि ने उसकी इसी प्रवृत्ति पर व्यंग्य किया है। बेशक परम संतोषी व साधु प्रवृत्ति जीवन जीने में व उसकी समस्याओं को दूर करने में सहायक होती है, परन्तु भ्रष्ट व्यवस्था के आगे इस प्रवृत्ति के कारण अगर हम समर्पण कर देते हैं तो इस प्रवृत्ति का कोई लाभ नहीं आवश्यक है कि पत्थर दिल भ्रष्ट व्यक्तियों की समाप्ति के लिए आम आदमी संगठित होकर, क्रांति का स्वर पैदा करे, न कि अशक्त होकर बैठ जाए।

(ख) कवि ने चंपा की किन विशेषताओं का उल्लेख किया है ?
उत्तर:
कवि ने चंपा के भोलेपन, शरारती स्वभाव, मन की बात को बिना छिपाए सीधे मुँह पर कहने, परिवार के साथ मिलकर रहने की भावना, कष्ट देने वाले के प्रति खुला विद्रोह, आदि विशेषताओं का उल्लेख किया है।

(ग) आदिवासी समाज की वर्तमान स्थिति पर टिप्पणी कीजिए ।
उत्तर:
आदिवासी समाज की स्थिति में वर्तमान समय में काफी सुधार आने लगा है। इनके समाज में भी अब शिक्षा का प्रसार होने लगा है। आरक्षण की सुविधा के द्वारा सरकार इनके लिए नौकरियों में स्थान सुरक्षित कर उन्हें समाज की मुख्य धारा में सम्मिलित करने हेतु प्रयासरत है। यातायात व संचार के साधनों के कारण ये आधुनिक परिवेश में स्वयं को ढालने में समर्थ हो रहे हैं। आदिवासी समाज की उन्नति के लिए अनेक स्वयं सेवी संस्थाएँ भी प्रयासरत हैं जिनके परिणाम स्वरूप ये नशे आदि की लत से बाहर आकर आगे बढ़ रहे हैं।

2. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों दीजिए। (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) पिता कवि को ‘सोने पर सुहागा’ क्यों कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
कवि के पिता यद्यपि अपनी सभी संतानों से प्रेम करते थे लेकिन कवि ने पिता के दिखाए देशभक्ति के मार्ग का अनुकरण करते हुए देश सेवा के लिए स्वयं को समर्पित कर दिया था जिससे वे स्वयं को ऐसी संतान का पिता होने में गौरवान्वित महसूस करते थे और उसे ‘सोने पर सुहागा’ मानते थे।

(ख) ‘साये में धूप’ गजल का प्रतिपाद्य स्पष्ट कीजिए ।
उत्तर:
इन कविता का प्रतिपाद्य है-लोगों को समाज में क्रांति के लिए प्रेरित करना। कवि राजनीतिक व्यवस्था से पूरी तरह निराश हो चुका है। सत्ताधारियों के शासन में पूरा शहर अँधेरे में डूब चुका है। खुद शासन ही कष्टकारी बन चुका है। यहाँ के लोग इतने दबे-कुचले हैं कि वे मजबूरी की आखिरी हद तक भी चले जाते हैं वे तो खुदा के नाम पर हसीन सपने मन में पाले हुए हैं। उनके मन में यह बात पक्की हो चुकी है कि शासन में बदलाव नहीं हो सकता। जबकि कवि इन शोषित लोगों के मन में क्रांति की ज्वाला सुलगाना चाहता है। कवि का पक्का विश्वास है कि वह अधिकारों के लिए, सच्ची स्वतन्त्रता के लिए संघर्ष करता रहेगा।

(ग) तुम कागद ही गोदा करते हो दिनभर’ चम्पा का क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
चंपा जब भी कवि के पास जाती उसे कागज-कलम लिए कुछ लिखता हुआ पाती। चंपा को कवि को लिखते देखना अच्छा नहीं लगता। वह इस प्रकार पढ़ने-लिखने को कागज गोदना कहती क्योंकि चंपा निरक्षर थी उसकी दृष्टि मैं पढ़ाई-लिखाई का कोई महत्व नहीं था बल्कि बेकार के काम में समय नष्ट करना था।

3. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों दीजिए । (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) मियाँ नसीरुद्दीन की कौन-सी बातें आपको अच्छी लगीं ?
उत्तर:
मियाँ नसीरुद्दीन की निम्नलिखित बातें हमें अच्छी लगीं-
(1) मियाँ नसीरुद्दीन को अपने काम से बहुत प्यार है। वे अपने काम को इतना महत्व देते हैं कि बातचीत के समय भी उनका ध्यान उसी में रहता है।
(2) उनका आत्मविश्वास प्रशंसनीय है, वे महिला पत्रकार के सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर पूरे आत्मविश्वास से देते हैं।
(3) अपने पिता और दादा के नानबाई के रूप में प्रसिद्ध होने का वर्णन करते हुए भाव-विभोर हो जाना।
(4) नानबाई की कला सीखने के लिए बर्तन धोने, भट्टी बनाने और सुलगाने तथा आटा गूंथने आदि को सीखना आवश्यक मानना ।
(5) शागिर्दों का शोषण करने के स्थान पर उनका सम्मान करना व वेतन भी देना।

(ख) वंशीधर को रमेश में साक्षात् भगवान के दर्शन क्यों हुए ?
उत्तर:
वंशीधर तिवारी अपने पुत्र मोहन को पढ़ाना-लिखाना चा. हते थे परन्तु वे स्वयं साधनहीन थे न तो वे मोहन को गाँव से चार मील दूर स्थित स्कूल में पढ़ने के लिए भेजना चाहते थे और न ही लखनऊ भेज सकते थे। अत: जब उनकी बिरादरी के एक युवक ने मोहन की पढ़ाई-लिखाई के लिए अपने साथ लखनऊ भेजने के लिए कहा तो उनके मन की इच्छा पूरी हो गई। इसलिए उन्हें रमेश में भगवान के दर्शन हुए।

(ग) रजनी द्वारा भेजा प्रस्ताव बोर्ड द्वारा स्वीकृत होना क्या प्रमाणित करता है ?
उत्तर:
रजनी ने बोर्ड के सामने यह प्रस्ताव रखा कि कोई भी अध्यापक अपने विद्यालय के छात्रों को ट्यूशन नहीं पढ़ायेगा। इस प्रस्ताव को बोर्ड द्वारा वैसा का वैसा स्वीकार कर लिया गया। इससे यह प्रमाणित होता है कि यदि लोग जागरूक रहकर अन्याय का डटकर विरोध करें तो हर अन्याय को समाप्त किया जा सकता है। हमें अपने ऊपर हो रहे अत्याचार के लिए दूसरों का मुँह ताकने की आवश्यकता नहीं है। चूँकि रजनी का प्रस्ताव व्यावहारिक था तथा इससे कमजोर छात्रों द्वारा ट्यूशन पढ़ाकर धन कमाने की स्वतन्त्रता भी बनी रहती है अतः ऐसे प्र ताव को बोर्ड ने स्वीकार कर लिया। हमें रजनी के समान सरकार की कार्य प्रणाली पर भरोसा रखते हुए न अन्याय सहना चाहिए और न ही कानून को अपने हाथ में लेना चाहिए।

4. निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में दीजिए । (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) वर्तमान समय में किसानों की स्थिति किस सीमा तक बदली है? अपने विचार लिखिए।
उत्तर:
वर्तमान समय में किसानों की स्थिति में काफी सुधार हुआ है। सूदखोरों व महाजनों के चंगुल से मुक्ति के लिए उन्हें सहकारी व ग्रामीण बैंकों से कम व्याज पर ऋण उपलब्ध कराया जाता है। बाढ़ व सूखा की स्थिति में किसानों को फसल के बर्बाद होने पर उचित मुआवजा दिया जाता है। बीज, खाद, कृषि उपकरणों की खरीद पर सरकार द्वारा पर्याप्त छूट दी जाती है। फसलों की खरीद व अनुसंधान के लिए केन्द्रों की स्थापना करती है लेकिन इतना होने के बावजूद किसानों की दशा में सुधार हेतु अभी और प्रयास करने की आवश्यकता है।

(ख) बेचारा जामुन का पेड़ । कितना फलदार था और इसकी जामुनें कितनी रसीली होती थीं।
(i) ये संवाद कहानी के किस प्रसंग में आए हैं ?
(ii) इससे लोगों की कैसी मानसिकता का पता चलता है ?
उत्तर:
(i) सचिवालय के लॉन में लगा जामुन का पेड़ रात को आँधी में गिर गया। उसके नीचे एक आदमी दब गया। सुबह होने पर सचिवालय के माली ने उसे देखा। उसने क्लकों को सूचना दी। सभी क्लर्क इकट्ठे हुए वे जामुन का पेड़ गिरा देखकर उपर्युक्त बातें करने लगे।
(ii) इससे पता चलता है कि लोग संवेदना शून्य हो चुके हैं। उन्हें मरता हुआ आदमी भी द्रवित नहीं करता। वे इतने स्वार्थांध हैं कि मरते हुए आदमी को अनदेखा करके वे अपना हित पूरा करना चाहते हैं उन्हें जामुन न मिलने की पीड़ा व्यथित करती है। ऐसे लोग लाश पर बैठकर भी रोटियाँ खा सकते हैं।

(ग) गाँव और शहर दोनों जगहों पर चलने वाले मोहन के जीवन-संघर्ष में क्या फ़र्क है ? बताइए ।
उत्तर:
मोहन को गाँव व शहर दोनों जगह संघर्ष करना पड़ा। गाँव मैं प्राकृतिक व आर्थिक संघर्ष था। परिवार की आर्थिक स्थिति ठीक न होने के कारण उसे आधा पेट ही खाना मिल पाता था वहीं चार मील दूर स्थित विद्यालय जाने के लिए उसे दो मील चढ़ाई के अलावा बरसात के मौसम में रास्ते में पड़ने वाली नदी को झेलना पड़ता था। उधर शहर में उसे रमेश बाबू के घर में नौकर का कार्य करना पड़ता जिससे गाँव का मेधावी छात्र मोहन शहर में घरेलू कार्यों में दबे रहकर सामान्य छात्र बन गया और उसका उज्ज्वल भविष्य अंधकारमय हो गया।

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hrs.
Max. Marks: 40

General Instructions :

• This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Ail questions are compulsory.
• Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
• Part- B has two options i. e. (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one of the given options.
• Question nos. 1 to 3 and 10 are short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Question nos. 4 to 6 and 11 are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each.
• Question nos. 7 to 9 and 12 are long answer-type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
From the following information, calculate the amount to be charged to Income and Expenditure Account for ‘Sports material consumed for the year 2019-20.

Particulars	Amount
Stock of Sports Material (01-04-2019)	60,000
Amount paid to creditors (during 2019-20)	3,00,000
Creditors for Sports Materials (01-04-2019)	1,00,000
Creditors for Sports Materials (31-03-2020)	80,000
Sports Material sold During the year (Book Value ₹ 35,000)	15,000
Cash Purchases of Sports Material (During the Year 2019-20)	1,30,000

There was zero stock at the end of financial year 2019-20.
Answer:

Question 2.
Distinguish between ‘Dissolution of Partnership’ and ‘Dissolution of Partnership Firm’ based on:
(i) Continuation of the Business
(ii) Books of Accounts
Answer:

Basis	Dissolution of Partnership	Dissolution of Partnership Firm
Continuation of the Business	In the case of dissolution of partnership, the firm continues its business.	In the case of dissolution of firm, the firm does not continue its business.
Books of Accounts	In the case of dissolution of partnership, books of accounts may not he closed.	In the case of dissolution of firm, books of accounts have to be closed.

Question 3.
Vikas, Vishal and Vaibhav were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. The firm closes its books on 31st March every year. On 31-12-2015 Vaibhav died. On that date his capital account showed a credit balance of ₹ 3,80,000 and Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 1,20,000. There was a debit balance of ₹ 50,000 in the profit and loss account. Vaibhav’s share of profit in the year of his death was to be calculated on the basis of the average profit of last five years. The average profit of last five years was ₹ 75,000.
Pass necessary journal entries in the books of the firm on Vaibhav’s death.
Answer:

Working Note:
Vaibhav’s share in profit = 75,000 × \(\frac{1}{5}\) × \(\frac{9}{12}\) = ₹ 11,250

Question 4.
Receipts and Payments Account of Jay Entertainment Club showed that ₹68,500 were received by way of subscriptions for the year ended on March 31,2018. The additional information was as under:
(i) Subscription Outstanding as on March 31, 2017 were ₹6,500.
(ii) Subscription received in advance as on March 31, 2017 were ₹4,100.
(iii) Subscription Outstanding as on March 31,2018 were ₹5,400.
(iv) Subscription received in advance as on March 31, 2018 were ₹2,500.
Show how the above information would appear in the Income and Expenditure for the year ended on March 31, 2018 of Jay Entertainment Club.
OR
Following is the information given in respect of certain items of a sports club. You are required to show them in the Income and Expenditure Account and the Balance Sheet of the club as at 31st March, 2021:

	₹
Sports Fund as at 1st April, 2020	2,000
Sports Fund Investments	2,000
Interest on Sports Fund Investments	200
Donations for Sports Fund	800
Sports prizes awarded	600
Expenses on sports events	200
General Fund	4,000
General Fund Investments	4,000
Interest on General fund Investments	400

Answer:

OR

Question 5.
Karim, Saleem and Raheem were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 3. The firm closes its books on 31st March every year. On 1-10-2019 Karim died. On Karim’s death the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹3,50,000. Karim’s share in the profits of the firm in the year of his death was to be calculated on the basis of average profits of last four years. The profits for the last four years were 2015-16 n,70,000; 2016-17 ₹1,30,000; 2017-18 ₹1,90,000 and 2018-19 ₹1,10,000. The total amount payable to Karim’s executors on his death was ₹7,35,000. It was paid on 15-10-2019.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of the firm.
Answer:

Working Note:
Average Profit = \(\frac{1,70,000+1,30,000+1,90,000+1,10,000}{4}\)
= ₹ 1,50,000
Karim’s share pf profit = ₹1,50,000 × \(\frac{3}{10}\) × \(\frac{6}{12}\)
= ₹22, 500

Question 6.
BGP Ltd. invited applications for issuing 15,000, 11% debentures of ₹100 each at a premium of T50 per debenture. The full amount was payable on application. Applications were received for 25,000 debentures. Application for 5,000 debentures were rejected and the application money was refunded. Debentures were allotted to the remaining application on pro-rata basis.
Pass the necessary journal entries for the above transaction in the books of BGP Ltd.
OR
X Limited issued 10,000, 12% debentures of ₹100 each payable ₹40 on application and ₹60 on allotment. The public applied for 14,000 debentures. Applications for 9,000 debentures were accepted in full; applications for 2,000 debentures were allotted 1,000 debentures and the remaining applications, were rejected. All money was duly received. Journalise the transactions.
Answer:

OR

Question 7.
A and B are partners sharing profits and losses equally. They decided to dissolve their firm. Assets and Liabilities have been transferred to Realisation Account. Pass necessary Journal entries for the following:
(i) A was to bear all the expenses of Realisation for which he was given a commission of ₹4,000.
(ii) Advertisement suspense account appeared on the asset side of the Balance Sheet amounting to ₹28,000
(iii) Creditors of ₹40,000 agreed to take over the stock of ₹30,000 at a discount of 10% and the balance in cash.
(iv) B agreed to take over Investments of ₹5,000 at ₹4,900
(v) A loan of T15,000 advanced by A to the firm was paid off.
(vi) A bank loan of 2,000 was paid off.
OR
Rahul, Rohit and Ramesh were partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1, respectively. The Balance Sheet as on 31st March 2012 was as follows:

The firm was dissolved on the above date:
(i) The assets realised as follows:
Debtors ₹9,000, Plant and Machinery ₹26,000, Stock ₹14,000 and Furniture ₹3,000.
(ii) The creditors were paid ₹18,000 in full settlement, and the bills payable were paid in full.
(iii) The realisation expenses amounted to ₹3,000.
(iv) Ramesh became insolvent and was able to bring in only ₹1,800 from his private estate.

Prepare:
(1) Realisation A/c
(2) Bank A/c, and
(3) Partner’s Capital A/c
Answer:

OR

Working Notes:

Capital Deficiency of ₹4,000 to be distributed between Rahul and Rohit (Solvent Partners) in the ratio 2:2.

Question 8.
Kamakhaya Limited engaged in infrastructure business with registered office in Mumbai was incorporated on 1st April, 2015. With an aim to penetrate their roots in other cities, Kamakhaya Limited purchased the running business of Karishma Builders Limited having business in Pune, Bhiwandi and Shirwal for a sum of ₹60,00,000.
The assets and liabilities of Karishma Builders consisted of the following:

Land	₹28,00,000
Buildings	₹24,00,000
Stock-in-Trade	₹8,00,000
Sundry Debtors	₹12,00,000
Sundry Creditors	₹8,00,000

Kamakhaya Limited issued a cheque of ₹12,00,000 and for the balance amount issued 9% Debentures of ₹100 each at par, redeemable after 6 years at par for the sum due to Karishma Builders Limited.
You are required to answer the following questions:
(i) Calculate the amount to be transferred to Capital Reserve Account.
Answer:
Calculate the amount to be transferred to Capital Reserve Account.

(ii) Pass journal entry to be passed at the time of purchase of business of Karishma Builders Limited.
Answer:

(iii) Calculate the number of debentures issued to Karishma Builders Limited.
Answer:
Amount paid through Cheque = ₹12,00,000
Amount paid through Debentures = ₹60,00,000 – ₹12,00,000 = ₹48,00,000
Amount Due 48,00,000
Number of Debentures Issued to Karishma Builders Limited = \(\frac{\text { Amount Due }}{\text { Issue Price }}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{₹} 48,00,000}{\mathrm{₹} 100}\) = 48,000

(iv) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures.
Answer:

(v) Calculate the amount of annual fixed obligation associated with debentures issued to Karishma Builders Limited.
Answer:
Interest on 9% Debentures = ₹48,00,000 × \(\frac{9}{100}\) = ₹4,32,000

Question 9.
Following is the Receipts and Payments Account of Rotary Club for the year ended 31.3.2018:

Additional Information:
(i) Subscriptions outstanding as on 31.3.2017 were ₹2,000 and on 31.3.2018 ₹2,500.
(ii) On 31.3.2018, salary outstanding was ₹600 and rent outstanding was ₹1,200.
(iii) The club owned furniture ₹15,000 and books ₹7,000 on 1.4.2017.
Prepare Income and Expenditure Account of the Club for the year ended 31.3.2018 and ascertain ‘Capital Fund’ on 31.3.2017. Also prepare a balance sheet as at 31st March, 2018.
Answer:

* Subscription outstanding on 31.3.2018 is ₹2,500 w rich includes the subscription outstanc ing for the year 2016-2017 ₹800 (i.e., ₹2,000 – ₹1,200 received during 2017-2018). Hence, the subscription outstanding for 2017-18 is ₹1,700 (i.e., ₹2,500 – ₹800). It should be noted that there is a difference between subscription outstanding on 31.3.2018 and subscription outstanding for 2017-18 (which indicates subscription outstanding only for 2017-18).

Working Note:
Subscription outstanding to be shown in Balance Sheet

2,000-1,200 (received)	for 2016-2017
800 + 1,700	for 2017-2018

2,500 to be shown in Balance Sheet.

Part-B
(Analysis of Financial Statement)

Question 10.
State whether the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash while preparing cash flow statement:
(i) Decrease in Public Deposits ₹20,000
Answer:
Decrease in public deposits is an outflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.

(ii) Sale of Fixed Assets ₹1,00,000
Answer:
Sale of Fixed Assets is an inflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.

Question 11.
Following is the Statement of Profit and Loss of Sun India Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2018:

Prepare a Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss.
OR
Balance Sheets of the Blue Bell Ltd., as at 31st March, 2018 and 2017 are given below:

Prepare a Comparative Balance Sheet showing % changes from 31st March, 2017.
Answer:

OR

Question 12.
From the following information of Mannat Ltd., prepare a Cash Flow Statement.

Note to Account:

Additional Information:
(i) During the year a machine costing ₹1,20,000 was purchased and another machine of the book value of ₹30,000 was sold at a loss of ₹3,000.
Answer:

OR

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 11 for Practice

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.

1. Section A consists of Questions 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section B consists of Questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
3. Section C consists of Questions 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Section D consists of Questions 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal choice available.
5. Section E consists of Questions 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

Section – A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
How many byes are given in a knockout tournament when 13 teams are participating? [1]
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 8

Question 2.
In knockout tournament, if 31 teams are participating, then how many teams will be in 4th quarter? [1]
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Question 3.
Full form of BMI is: [1]
(a) Body measurement index
(b) Body mass indication
(c) Body mass index
(d) None of the above

Question 4.
Which of these is not pitfall of dieting? [1]
(a) Starvation
(b) Generates stress
(c) Insomnia
(d) Reduce intake of calories

Question 5.
Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Circuit training gives maximum results in minimum time.
Reason (R): Circuit training is the perfect workout for the time-crunched fitness freak. [1]
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 6.
Hypertension is known as: [1]
(a) Systolic B.P
(b) Diastolic B.P
(c) Normal B.P.
(d) None of the above

Question 7.
Match the following: [1]

	List I (components)		List II (factors)
(A)	Strength	(i)	Aerobic capacity
(B)	Speed	(ii)	Muscle size
(C)	Flexibility	(iii)	Explosive strength
(D)	Endurance	(iv)	Stretchability of muscles

Codes: (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Question 8.
Match the following: [1]

	List I		List II
(A)	Personality Type A	(i)	Cautious and Reserved
(B)	Personality Type B	(ii)	Competitive and high achievers
(C)	Personality Type C	(iii)	Extrovert and Achievers
(D)	Personality Type D	(iv)	Pessimistic

Codes: (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Question 9.
Lordosis is caused by: [1]
(a) Forward exaggeration in lumber region
(b) Forward exaggeration in the cervical region
(c) Forward exaggeration in thoracic region
(d) None of the above

Question 10.
Knock knee is known as: [1]
(a) Pes Planes
(b) Genu Valgus
(c) Flat arch
(d) None of the above

Question 11.
Senior citizen fitness test was developed by: [1]
(a) Dr. Harold M. Barrow
(b) Lucien Brouha and his associates
(c) Dr. Hans Kraus and Dr. Sonja Weber
(d) Dr. Roberta Rikli and Dr. Jessie Jones

Question 12.
In Harvard step test for short form, the heart rate is counted from: [1]
(a) 1 to 1.5 min
(b) 1.5 to 2 min
(c) 2 to 2.5 min.
(d) 2.5 to 3 min.

Question 13.
The numbers of fitness components are: [1]
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7

Question 14.
The value of vital capacity of normal adult is: [1]
(a) 1-3 L
(b) 3-5 L
(c) 5-8 L
(d) 10-12 L

Question 15.
Which law of motion is applied when you dribble the basketball on the court? [1]
(a) 1st Law
(b) 2nd Law
(c) 3rd Law
(d) none of the above

Question 16.
Biomechanics is the study of _____ and their effects on living system. [1]
(a) Movement
(b) Forces
(c) Friction
(d) Joints

Question 17.
The term motivation is derived from: [1]
(a) Move
(b) Movement
(c) Moti
(d) Movere

Question 18.
An important benefit of endurance training is that the body gradually is trained to: [1]
(a) Tackle emergency situations too well
(b) slow down the ageing process
(c) remain fit in a fighting condition
(d) store and burn fuel more efficiently

Section – B (10 Marks)

Question 19.
Explain the advantages & disadvantages of Round robin tournament. [2]

Question 20.
Draw a fixture of 5 teams with cyclic method in league tournament. [2]

Question 21.
How water is useful for us. Explain in brief. [2]

Question 22.
Explain the procedure of Parvatasana with its benefits. [2]

Question 23.
Write four strategies to make physical education assessable for children with special need. [2]

Question 24.
Explain the exercise guidelines at different stage of child development. [2]

Section – C (15 marks)

Question 25.
Explain development characteristics during childhood. [3]

Question 26.
What do you mean by Motor fitness test? Enlist the activities of this test. [3]

Question 27.
How you will prevent injuries in sports? [3]

Question 28.
With the help of suitable examples, discuss the application of Newton’s Law of Motion in sports. [3]

Question 29.
Describe the psychological benefits of exercise.

Question 30.
Name the methods of flexibility development, explain any one of them. [3]

Section – D (15 Marks)

Question 31.
Jai was the bast tower in the city. He joined a new training camp, where he noted that some athletes were running on uneven surfaced such as tushes rocks, pits etc. He got very confused and asked his coach about it. The coach explained him about this training in great detail.

(A) Which training method is being used in the above case? What plays a vital role in this method of training?
(B) Explain this training method very briefly?
(C) What is required for best results from this training?
(D) Write any two advantages of the above mentioned training OR method?

OR

Write one disadvantage of the above shown training method. [4]

Question 32.
Shagun is 9 years old, studying in class six. Her mother is worried about her because she dislikes eating vegetables and prefers eating chocolates and other junk food.

(A) Due to her unhealthy food habits, Shagun is most likely to suffer from _____ deficiency diseases.
(B) Name the two micro nutrients.
(C) Why are micro nutrients essential for us?
(D) Name the two groups of vitamins.

OR

Write the formula for calculating Body Mass Index. [4]

Question 33.
Yogesh, the physical education instructor of Sharda public school noticed an outward curve of vertebral column at thoracic region in Gaurav, a student of class VII. Yogesh contacted Gaurav’s parents to discuss about the deformity he noticed in Gaurav.

(A) Which deformity is Gaurav suffering from? What is this deformity commonly known as?
(B) Write any two causes of this deformity.
(C) Mention any two precautions for this deformity.
(D) Suggest a corrective exercise for this deformity. [4]

Section – E (20 Marks)

Question 34.
What do you understand by the fixture? Draw a league cum knockout fixture of 23 teams. [5]

Question 35.
Explain Disability Etiquettes in detail. [5]

Question 36.
Explain the meaning and Importance of Biomechanics in Sports. [5]

Question 37.
How endurance of a person can be developed? [5]

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 History 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 11 History board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 11 History Sample Papers 2023.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 11 History
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 History 2022-2023 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 11 History Sample Paper 2023 Solved.

CBSE Class 11 History Sample Papers 2023 with Solutions

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 1
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 4
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 5
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 6
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 7
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 8
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 9
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 10

History Sample Paper Class 11 Question Paper Design 2022-23

Class – XI
History (Code No. 027)
One Theory Paper
Marks: 80 Marks
Time: 3 Hours

Themes	No. of Periods	Marks
1. Introduction to World History	10
Section A: Early Societies
2. Introduction	5
3. Writing and City Life	20	10
Section B: Empires
4. Introduction	5
5. An empire across three continents	20	10
6. Nomadic Empires	20	10
Section C: Changing Traditions
7. Introduction	5
8. The Three orders	20	10
9. Changing Cultural Traditions	20	10
Section D: Paths to Modernization
10. Introduction	5
11. Displacing Indigenous People	20	10
12. Paths to Modernization	20	15
13. Map Work of the Related Themes	15	5
Total		80
Project work	25	20
Total	210	100 Marks

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions 2022-2023 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of History Class 11 2023 for their exam preparation.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Max. Marks: 40
Time: 2 Hours

General Instructions:

• This question paper comprises two Parts – A and S. There are 12 questions in the question paper All
  questions are compulsory.
• Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
• Part- S has two options i.e (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting.
  Students must attempt only one of the given options.
• Question nos. I to 3 and 10 are short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Question nos. 4 to 6 and 11 are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each
• Question nos. 7 to 9 and 12 are long answer-type questions carrying 5 marks each. :;
• There is Rio’s overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms, and Companies)

Question 1.
Show how will you deal with the following items in the final accounts of a club:

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Sports Fund	35,000
Sports Fund Investment	35,000
Income from Sports Fund Investment	4,000
Donations for Sports Fund	15,000
Sports Prizes Awarded	10,000
Expenses on Sports Events	4,000

Answer:

Question 2.
Distinction between ‘Dissolution of Partnership’ and ‘Dissolution of Partnership Firm’ based on:
(i) Preparation of Balance Sheet
(ii) Closure of Business.
Answer:

Basis	Dissolution of Partnership	Dissolution of a Partnership Firm
Preparation of Balance Sheet	In Dissolution of Partnership, a new balance sheet is prepared soon after the Dissolution.	In Dissolution of a Partnership Firm, a new balance sheet is not prepared.
Closure of Business	The business is not closed.	The business of the firm is closed.

Question 3.
A, B, C & D are partners in the profit-sharing ratio of 3 : 3: 2: 2. On the retirement of D, A, B & C decided to share future profits in the ratio of 3: 2 :1. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹6,00,000. Goodwill already appears in the books at ₹4,50,000.
The profits for the first year after D’s retirement amount ₹ 12,00,000. Fill in the missing figures in the following journal entry using the information provided.

Answer:

Question 4.
Following is the Receipts and Payments Account of a Sports Club for the year ended 31st March 2017:

Additional Information:
(i) Subscriptions outstanding as on 31-3-16 were ₹5,500 and on 31-3-17 ₹8,500.
(ii) Stock of stationery on 1-4-16 ₹1,500 Stock of stationery on 31-3-17 ₹500 Creditors for stationery on 1-4-16 n,800 Creditors for stationery on 31-3-17 ₹1,200
(iii) The club owned furniture ₹30,000 on 1-4-2016. Depreciation charged on furniture (including purchase) was 10% p.a.
Prepare Income and Expenditure Account and Balance Sheet.
OR
On the basis of the following information, calculate the amount of consumable goods to be shown in the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st December 2017:
Stock of goods on 1-1-2017 ₹ 50,000
Stock of goods on 31-12-2017 ₹ 40,000
Amount paid for goods purchased ₹ 2,00,000
Creditors of goods on 1-1-2017 ₹ 20,000
Creditors for the goods on 31-12-2017 ₹ 10,000
Answer:

OR
Calculation of cost of consumable goods
= Opening stock + Purchases – Closing stock
= ₹ 50,000 + ₹ 1,90,000* – ₹ 40,000 = ₹ 2,00,000
*Purchases = Amount paid to creditors for goods + Closing balance of creditors
= ₹ 2,00,000 + ₹ 10, 000 – ₹ 20,000 = ₹ 1,90,000

Question 5.
Mohit, Ali and John are partners in a firm, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 :1 :1. Their Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2019 was as follows:

Mohit retired on 1st April 2019, subject to the following adjustments:
(i) Goodwill of the firm to be valued at ₹ 20,000.
(ii) Mohit to take over investments at market value.
(iii) 25% of the General Reserve to be transferred to Provision for doubtful debts and the balance to be distributed amongst all the partners.
(iv) Creditors to be paid ₹ 3,000 less.
(v) Investment Fluctuation Reserve not to be distributed. For this, it was decided that the remaining partners would compensate the retiring partner through their capital accounts.
(vi) Mohit to be paid ₹ 20,000 immediately on retirement and the balance to be transferred to his loan account.
You are required to:
Pass journal entries on the date of Mohit’s Retirement.
Answer:

Question 6.
Kati Ltd. issued 8,000, 9% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 10%. The full amount was payable on application. Applications were received for 9,000 debentures and allotment was made on pro-rata basis.
Pass the necessary journal entries for above transactions in the books of BGP Ltd.
OR
On 1st April 2018, Sakshi Ltd. issued 1,000,11% Debentures of ₹100 each at a discount of 6% redeemable at a premium of 5% after three years. Pass the necessary journal entries for the issue of debentures in the books of Sakshi Ltd.
Answer:

Question 7.
Pass necessary journal entries on the dissolution of a partnership firm in the following cases:
(i) Geeta, a partner was appointed to look after the dissolution work for which she was allowed a remuneration of ₹ 10,000. Geeta agreed to bear the dissolution expenses. Actual dissolution expenses ₹9,500 were paid by Geeta.
(ii) Janki, a partner, agreed to look after the dissolution work for a commission of ₹5,000. Janki agreed to bear the dissolution expenses. Actual dissolution expenses ₹5,500 were paid by Mohan, another partner, on behalf of Janki.
(iii) A partner, Kavita agreed to look after the dissolution process for a commission of ₹9,000. She also agreed to bear the dissolution expenses. Kavita took over the furniture of ₹9,000 for her commission.
Furniture had already been transferred to Realisation Account.
(iv) A debtor, Ravinder, for ₹ 19,000 agreed to pay the dissolution expenses which were ₹ 18,000 in full settlement of his debt.
OR
Following is the Balance Sheet of X and Y, who share profits in the ratio of 4 :1
Balance Sheet
(as on 31st March 2020)

The firm was dissolved on the above date, and the following was decided:
(i) X agreed to pay off his brother’s loan
(ii) Debtors of ₹5,000 proved bad.
(iii) Other assets realized as follows -Investments 20% less, and Goodwill at 60%.
(iv) One of the creditors for ₹5,000 was paid only ₹3,000.
(v) The building was auctioned for ₹30,000, and the auctioneer’s commission amounted to ₹1,000.
(vi) Y took over part of the stock at ₹4,000 (20% less than the book value). Balance stock realized 50%
(vii) Realisation expenses amounted to ₹2,000.
Prepare Realisation Account, Partner’s Capital Accounts and Bank Account.
Answer:

Question 8.
Sultana Traders Limited was incorporated on 1st April, 2016 with registered office in Pune. The company’s profit grows year after year, and it begins to expand its operations throughout India. To expand their business in Madhya Pradesh, CEO of the company decided to purchase the business of Guana Foods Limited, a well-known firm of FMCG in Madhya Pradesh.

On 1st April, 2020 Sultana Traders Limited bought the business of Guana Foods Limited consisting sundry assets of ₹72,00,000 and sundry creditors of ₹20,00,000 for a consideration of ₹61,44,000. Sultana Traders Limited issued 12% Debentures of ₹100 each fully paid, at a discount of 4% in satisfaction of purchase consideration to Guana Foods Limited.

On 18th May 2020, the company also issued 100,10% Debentures of ₹100 each credited as fully paid-up to the underwriters towards their commission.
You are required to answer the following questions:
(i) Calculate the amount of Goodwill purchased by Sultana Traders Limited of Guana Foods Limited.
(ii) Pass journal entry for the purchase of business of Guana Foods Limited.
(iii) Calculate the number of debentures issued to Guana Foods Limited.
(iv) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to Guana Foods Limited
(v) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to the under-writers.
Answer:
Amount of Goodwill = Purchase Consideration – (Value of Assets – Value of Liabilities)
= ₹61,44,000 – (₹72,00,000 – 20,00,000)
= ₹ 9,44,000
In the Books of Sultana Traders Limited

(iii) Number of Debentures Issued = \(\frac{\text { Purchase Consideration }}{\text { Issue Price }} \) 
= ₹ 64,000
In the Books of Sultana Traders Limited

Question 9.
The following is the Receipts and Payments Account of Star’s Club for the year ended 31st March 2018:

Receipts	Amount (₹)	Payments	Amount (₹)
To Balance b/d (Cash)	1,82,000	By Salaries	1,66,000
To Subscriptions	1,80,000	By Stationery	32,000
To Tournament Fund	1,64,000	By Rent	48,000
To Interest on Investment	65,000	By Telephone Expenses	8,000
To Donation	1,12,000	By Sports Material	78,000
To Sale of Concert Tickets	2,47,000	By 6% p.a. Investment	5,00,000
		By Miscellaneous Expenses	24,000
		By Concert Expenses	58,000
		By Balance c/d	36,000
	9,50,000		9,50,000

Prepare Income & Expenditure Account when the following additional information is provided:
(i) Subscriptions include ₹22,000 for 2016-17 and ₹ 8,000 for 2018-19.
(ii) Stock of stationery on 31sl March 2017 and 2018 was ₹4,200 and ₹ 6,400 respectively.
(iii) Stock of sports material at the beginning and end of the year was ₹ 18,000 and ₹ 31,000 respectively.
(iv) The value of investment on 1st April 2017 was ₹10,00,000 and the club made additional investment during the year on l5tOctober 2017.
Answer:

Note: Sports Material Consumed = 18,000 + 78,000- 31,000 = ₹ 65,000

Part B
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
State whether the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow, no flow of cash while preparing Cash Flow Statement:
(i) Sale of land and building ₹5,00,000 and ₹15,00,000
(ii) Purchase of equipment ₹1,00,000
Answer:
(i) Sale of land and building ₹ 5,00,000 and ₹ 15,00,000 will result in inflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.
(ii) Purchase of equipment ₹ 1,00,000 will result in outflow of cash in Cash Flow Statement.

Question 11.
From the following Statement of Profit and Loss of VK Ltd., for the years ended 31st March 2017 and 2018, prepare a Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss.

Particulars	Note No.	2017 (₹)	2018 (₹)
Revenue from Operations.		6,00,000	7,00,000
Other Income		50,000	80,000
Purchase of Stock-in-Trade		1,80,000	2,00,000
Employees Benefits Expenses		90,000	1,00,000
Other Expenses		80,000	80,000
Tax Rate		30%	40%

OR
Prepare a Common Size Balance Sheet of the Xerox Ltd. Their Balance Sheet as at 31-03-2017 and 31-03-2018 was as follows:

Answer:

Question 12.
Prepare Cash Flow Statement for the following Balance Sheet of Vinod Limited.


Additional Information:
(i) An old machinery having book value of ₹42,000 was sold for ₹ 56,000. Depreciation provided on machinery during the year was ₹ 28,000.
(ii) Tax paid during the year ₹18,000.
(iii) Interest received on Non-current Investments ₹2,000.
(iv) Dividend paid by the company during the year ₹ 60,000.
(v) Interest on Bank Overdraft was ₹4,000.
Answer: