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Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 2022-2023 Solutions & Marking Scheme PDF Download

April 24, 2023

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 2022-2023 Pdf with Solutions: Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) Sample Question Papers for Class 11 are given below as per the latest CBSE syllabus. The CBSE Sample Papers provided here for class 11 serves as an important study resource for all students who will be appearing in the exams. The class 11 sample papers are created as per the latest CBSE syllabus and curriculum keeping in mind the latest marking schemes.

Also Read: Estimation and Costing Notes PDF

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education
Class – CBSE Class 11
Subjects – Science, Commerce & Arts Group Subjects

CBSE Sample Papers Class 11 2022 2023 with Solutions

The pattern in which the question papers are being set for the cbse.nic.in class 11 Course curriculum is predefined, but there are certainly some gaps between the question paper formed and the content of the course. Students need to identify these gaps and catch up where the textbooks left off, if they want to get acquainted with the examination pattern. And, they can do it easily by solving CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 which will help build their strong foundation. This not only helps them prepare for exams in a better manner but also leads them to the depth with which the topic should be studied for class 11 exams.

CBSE Sample Papers Class 12 2022 2023 with Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry
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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi
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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Business Studies
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Computer Science
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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education
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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Home Science

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 2 with Solutions

April 24, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 2 with Solutions

अवधिः : होरात्रयम्
पूर्णाड्काः : 80

सामान्य निर्देशः
सैंपल पेपर 1 में दिये गये निर्देशानुसार।

रवण्ड: ‘क’ – अपठित-अवबोधनम्
(अंक : 10)

1. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

गङ्गाम् उभयत: विविधैः वृक्षैः सुशोभिताः ग्रामाः आसन्। तत्र एकस्मात् ग्रामात् बहिः वृक्षस्य अध: एक जीर्णः कूपः आसीत्। तस्मिन् कूपे मण्डूकानाम् अधिपतिः गङ्गदत्त परिजनैः सह निवसति स्म। सः गङ्गदत्तः परिश्र. मं विनैव प्रभुत्वं प्राप्नोत् । अतः गर्वितः अभवत्। तस्य दुर्व्यवहारेण केचन प्रमुखाः मण्डूकाः, रुष्टाः जाताः। ते गङ्गदत्तम् अधिकारेण हीनं कृत्वा कूपात् बहिः कर्तुम् उद्यताः अभवन्। तद् ज्ञात्वा गङ्गदत्तः विषादम् अनुभवति स्म। ‘शत्रूणां नाशः कथं भवेत्’ इति एकान्ते चाटुकारैः सह मन्त्रणाम् अकरोत्। एकः नष्टबुद्धिः नाम मण्डूकः नत्वा अकथयत् – ‘नीतिं विना किमपि न सिद्धयति, शत्रुः शत्रुणाः नाशयित्यः इति नीतिः। एतेषां शत्रूणां नाशाय सर्पः सहायकः भविष्यति। सः वृक्षस्य कोटरे निवसति एवं संघर्ष: विनैव शत्रुनाशः भविष्यति।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत । (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) जीर्ण: कूपः कस्य अधः आसीत्?
(ii) मण्डूकानाम् अधिपति कः आसीत् ?
(iii) सर्पः कुत्र निवसति स्म?
उत्तर:
(i) वृक्षस्य
(ii) गङ्रदत्तः
(iii) वृक्षस्यकोटरे

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत । (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)
(i) ग्रामाः कुत्र आसन्?
(ii) गंगदत्तः किमर्थं गर्वितः आसीत् ?
(iii) गंगदत्त चटुकारैः सह किमर्थ मन्त्रणाम् अक.रोत्?
उत्तर:
(i) ग्रामाः गङ्भाम् उभयतः आसन् ।
(ii) गंगदत्तः परिश्रमं विनैव प्रभुत्वं प्राप्नोत् इति गर्वितः अभवत्।
(iii) गड्नदत्तः शत्रुणां नाशं कथं भवेत् इति, मन्त्रणाम् अकरोत् ।

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते कृते उयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत। (द्वित्रिशब्दात्मक-वाक्यम्) (1)
(इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।) (दो-तीन शब्द का वाक्य)
उत्तर:
शीर्षक:-गड्नदत्त्त्य मंत्रिणा

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) ‘प्रसन्नाः’ इति पदस्य किं विलोमपदम् अत्र प्रयुक्तम् ?
(क) अप्रसन्नाः
(ख) रुष्टाः
(ग) जाताः
(घ) प्रमुखाः
उत्तर:
(ख) रुष्टाः

(ii) ‘जीर्णः कूपः‘ इति अनयोः पदयोः किं विशेष्यपदम् ?
(क) जीर्णः
(ख) एक:
(ग) कूपः
(घ) आसीत्
उत्तर:
(ग) कूपः

(iii) ‘निवसति स्म’ इति क्रियापदस्य किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम् ?
(क) परिजनैः
(ख) गङ्गदत्तः
(ग) सह
(घ) मण्डूकः
उत्तर:
(ख) गङ्गदत्तः

(iv) ‘स्वामी’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कि पर्यायपदम् प्रयुक्तम् ?
(क) अधिपतिः
(ख) गङ्गदत्तः
(ग) परिजनैः
(घ) प्रभुत्वम्
उत्तर:
(क) अधिपतिः

रवण्ड: ‘रव’ – रचनात्मक कार्यम्
(अंक : 15)

2. भवान् गोविन्दराजः दिल्ली नगरे निवसति। भवतः मित्रम् वरदराजः परीक्षायां सफलतायै वर्धापनं प्रदानाय मित्रं प्रतिलिखित मञ्जूषापदैः रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा उत्तर पुस्तिकायां पत्रं पुनः लिखत (1/2 × 10 = 5)
(आप गोविन्दराज दिल्ली शहर में रहते हैं। आपके मित्र वरदराज ने परीक्षा में सफलता के लिए बधाई देने हेतु मित्र को लिखे गये पत्र मञ्जूषा के पदों से रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके उत्तर पुस्तिका में पत्र को पुनः लिखिए।)
कावेरी छात्रावासः
प्रिय (ii)……… (i)…………
(iii)……….. तिथि ………..
अत्र कुशलं तत्रास्तु। विद्यालये नवम कक्षायाः (iv)……….. समुद्घोषितः। मया इण्टरनेट इति माध्यमेन तव परीक्षा परिणामः (v)……।अस्यां परीक्षायाम् त्वम् पञ्चनवतिः प्रतिशतम् (vi)….. प्राप्य समुत्तीर्णः। (vii)……….. कठोरः परिश्रमः सफलः जातः। त्वया न केवलम् आत्मनः अपि स्वकुटुम्बस्य अपि (viii)………. वधितम् । अहं उच्च-सफलतायै तुभ्यं हार्दिकं (ix)…… यच्छामि।
मातृ – पितृ चरणयोः प्रणामाः।
तव अभिन्न सुहृद्
(x)……।
उत्तर:
(i) दिल्ली
(ii) वरदराज
(iii) नमस्ते
(iv) परीक्षा परिणाम:
(v) विदितः
(vi) अङ्कान्
(vii) तव
(viii) यश:
(ix) वर्धापनम्
(x) गोविन्दराजः

मञ्जूषा-विदितः, गोविन्दराजः, वरदाज, दिल्ली, तव, अङ्कान्, यशः, नमस्ते, वर्धापनम्, परीक्षा परिणाम:

3. अधः प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दाना साहाय्येन पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत (1 × 5 = 5)
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

उत्तर:
(i) अस्मिन् चित्रे देवालस्य भव्यं दृश्यम् अस्ति।
(ii) अस्मिन् चित्रे एक साधु: एकः शिखाधारी च जन : अपि दृश्यतः।
(iii) चित्रे फलानि खाद्यानि जलपात्रं अपि च दृश्यन्ते।
(iv) चित्रे अनेका आपणानि अपि सन्ति।
(v) चित्रस्य दृश्यम् अति रमणीयम् अस्ति।

मञ्जूषा-वृक्षः, शिखाधारी जनः, खाद्यानि, फलानि, जलपात्रम्, देवालयः, आपणम्, दृश्यम्।

अथवा
मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य पञ्चभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत। (मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।
उत्तर:
(i) जनाः निद्रां परित्यक्त्य, आलस्यं विहाय प्रातः काले भ्रमणाय गच्छन्ति।
(ii) प्रातः काले भ्रमणं, व्यायामं च अति महत्त्वपूर्णं स्वास्थ्यलाभदायकं भवति।
(iii) प्रातः काले भ्रमणे सर्वदा शुद्धवायु: प्राप्नोति।
(iv) प्रातः भ्रमण़ं कारणेन वयं ‘अर्हनिशं’ न रुरणः भवामः।
(v) प्रातं भ्रमणं सर्वदा स्वास्थ्यवर्द्धक:, ऊर्जादायक: भवति।

“प्रातः भ्रमणम्” मञ्जूषा-आलस्य, निद्रा, अतिमहत्वम्, शुद्धवायुः, व्यायामः, रुग्णः, ऊर्जादायकः, स्वास्थ्य दृष्ट्या।

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य लिखत-(केवलं पञ्चवाक्यम्) (1 × 5 = 5)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का संस्कृत भाषा में अनुवाद लिखिए) (केवल पाँच वाक्य)

(i) संस्कृत देवभाषा है।
Sanskrit is a dev language.
(ii) यह भाषा सभी भाषाओं की जननी है।
This language is the mother of all languages.
(iii) इस भाषा में अनेक ग्रंथ हैं।
There are many texts in this language
(iv) कल मैं मुम्बई जाऊँगा।
Tomorrow I will go to Mumbai.
(v) तुम सब पत्र लिखो।
All of write your letters.
(vi) क्या हम लोगों को संस्कृत पढ़ना चाहिए ?
Should we read Sanskrit?
(vi) तुम किससे डरते हो?
What are you afraid of ?
उत्तर:
(i) संस्कृत देवभाषा अस्ति।
(ii) इयं भाषा सर्वासां भाषाणां जननी अस्ति
(iii) अस्याम् भाषायाम् अनेके ग्रंथा: सन्ति।
(iv) श्व: अहम् मुम्बई नगरम् गमिष्यामि।
(v) यूयम् पत्रम् लिखत।
(vi) किम् वयम् संस्कृतं पठेम ?
(vii) त्वम् कस्मात् त्रस्यसि?

रवण्ड: ‘ग’ – अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरण
(अंक : 25)

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत-(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के संधि अथवा संधि-विच्छेद कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) हे प्रभो ! मह्यम् सत् + मति देहि।
(ii) अधुना त्वम् शान्तः भव।
(iii) राज्ञा चौर: दम् + डित भवितव्य एव।
(iv) अधुना बालिका गच्छन्ति।
(v) तत्र पश्य, एक: नकुलः सर्पश्च गच्छतः।
उत्तर:
(i) सन्मति
(ii) शाम् + त
(iii) दण्डितः
(iv) बालिका: + गच्छन्ति
(v) सर्प: + च

6. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां समास विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्य म्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों का समास अथवा विग्रह दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न) )

(i) अस्मिन् विद्यालये प्रत्येकं छात्रः परिश्रमी अस्ति।
(क) एकम् एकम् प्रति
(ख) एके-एके इति
(ग) एकस्मिन्-एकस्मिन्
(घ) एक: एक: छात्रः
उत्तर:
(क) एकम् एकम् प्रति

(ii) पश्यतु इद सचित्रं पुस्तकम्।
(क) चित्रेण सहितम्
(ख) चित्रेण सह
(ग) चित्रस्य सह
(घ) चित्रसहितम्
उत्तर:
(क) चित्रेण सहितम्

(iii) भोजन समये तो पाणै च पादौच प्रक्षालयतः।
(क) पाणीपादौ
(ख) पाणिपादं
(ग) पाणिपादौ
(घ) पाणौपादौ
उत्तर:
(ग) पाणिपादौ

(iv) तौ पतिः च पत्नी चः परस्परम् अवलोकयतः।
(क) पतिपल्यौ
(ख) दम्पते
(ग) दम्पति
(घ) दम्पती
उत्तर:
(घ) दम्पती

(v) वाक्यपटुः धैर्यवान् मंत्री सभाया: शोभा भवति।
(क) वाचिपटुः
(ख) वाच: पटुः
(ग) वाकपटुः
(घ) वाचापटुः
उत्तर:
(क) वाचिपटुः

7. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रकृतिप्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के प्रकृति-प्रत्ययों को जोड़कर अथवा अलग करके उचित उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) अध्ययनं बुद्धि + ठक् स्यात्।
(क) बौद्धिक
(ख) बौद्धिकम्
(ग) बौद्धीकम्
(घ) बौद्धिक:
उत्तर:
(ख) बौद्धिकम्

(ii) चरित्र + मतुप् च जनः एव सर्वोत्तमः भवति।
(क) चरित्रवान्
(ख) चरित्रवान
(ग) चरित्रमानः
(घ) चरित्रसहितम्
उत्तर:
(क) चरित्रवान्

(iii) ते वायोः शीतल + तल् अनुभवन्ति।
(क) शीतलताः
(ख) शीतलतां
(ग) शीतलता
(घ) शैल्यम्
उत्तर:
(ख) शीतलतां

(iv) बालका: बालिकाः च कन्दुकेन क्रीडन्ति।
(क) बालक + टाप्
(ख) बालिका + टाप्
(ग) बालिकाः + टाप्
(घ) बाला + टाप्
उत्तर:
(ख) बालिका + टाप्

(v) अहो विज्ञानमय + ङीप् एषा कल्पना।
(क) विज्ञानमापी
(ख) विज्ञानमानी
(ग) विज्ञानमयी
(घ) विज्ञानमय
उत्तर:
(ग) विज्ञानमयी

8. अधोलिखितानां वाक्यानां वाच्य परिवर्तनं कृत्वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का वाच्य परिवर्तन करके विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) धावकाः धावन्ति।
(क) धावकै: धाव्यते
(ख) धावक: धाव्यते
(ग) धावके धाव्यते
(घ) धावका: धावत्ये
उत्तर:
(क) धावकै: धाव्यते

(ii) सेवकः नृपम् रक्षति।
(क) सेवकः नृपः रक्ष्यते
(ख) सेवकः नृपं रक्ष्यते
(ग) सेवकेन नृपः रक्ष्यते
(घ) सेवकैः नृपः रक्ष्यते
उत्तर:
(ग) सेवकेन नृपः रक्ष्यते

(iii) तेन दुर्वचनं कथ्यते।
(क) सा दुर्वचन कथयसि
(ख) तौ दुर्वचन कथयतः
(ग) स: दुर्वचनं कथयति
(घ) तथा कथ्यते
उत्तर:
(ग) स: दुर्वचनं कथयति

(iv) जना: व्यायाम कुर्वन्ति।
(क) जन: व्यायामः क्रियते
(ख) जना: व्यायामः क्रियते
(ग) जनै: व्यायामः क्रियते।
(घ) जनाः कुर्वन्ति
उत्तर:
(ग) जनै: व्यायामः क्रियते।

9. अधोलिखितदिनचर्चायां रिक्तस्थानानि कालबोधकीशब्दैः। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(कालबोधक शब्दों से निम्नलिखित दिनचर्या को पूरा कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) रमेशः प्रात: 5.00……….. वादने अतिष्ठति।
(ii) सः प्रात: 7:15………वादने प्रात:राशं करोति।
(iii) संः प्रात: 7:45……….वादने विद्यालयं गच्छति।
(iv) सः मध्याहे 2:30……….. वादने विद्यालयात् आगच्छत्।
(v) सीता 9:00……….वादने मन्दिरं प्रतिदिनं गच्छति।
उत्तर:
(i) पर्च्व
(ii) सपाद सप्त
(iii) पादोन अष्ट
(iv) सार्ध द्वि
(v) नव

10. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तैः उचितैः अव्ययपदैः अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत। (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्)।
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए उचित अव्यय पदों से वाक्यों में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न) (1 × 3 = 3)

(i) ………. वर्षा तत्र जलम्। (ii) दर्प ……. कुरु। (ii) मम गृहे ……. विद्युत् नासीत्। (iv) परीक्षा ………. भवति ?
उत्तर:
(i) यत्र
(ii) मा
(iii) हय:
(iv) कदा

11. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदम् अशुद्धम् अस्ति, शुद्धं पदं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पद अशुद्ध हैं, शुद्ध पद को विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) सर्वां बालकाः क्रीडन्ति।
(क) सर्वे:
(ख) सर्वे
(ग) सर्वो.
(घ) सर्वाणि
उत्तर:
(ख) सर्वे

(ii) सः मम मित्रम् न अस्मि।
(क) अस्ति
(ख) स्वः
(ग) सन्ति
(घ) भविष्यति
उत्तर:
(क) अस्ति

(iii) ते धनं लभन्ति।
(क) लभते
(ख) लभेते
(ग) लभन्ते
(घ) लभध्ये
उत्तर:
(ग) लभन्ते

(iv) चत्रः कन्याः अत्र पठन्ति ।
(क) तिसत्ररः
(ख) त्रीणि
(ग) तिस्रः
(घ) त्रयः
उत्तर:
(ग) तिस्रः

खण्ड: – ‘घ’ पठित-अवबोधनम्
(अंक : 30)

12. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

न्यायाधीशेन पुनस्तौ घटनायाः विषये वक्तुमादिष्टौ। आरक्षिणि निजपक्षं प्रस्तुतवति आश्चर्यमघटत् सः शवः प्रावारकमपसार्य न्यायाधीशमभिवाद्य निवेदितवान्मान्यवर! एतेन आरक्षिणा अध्वनि यदुक्तं तद् वर्णयामि “त्वयाऽहं चोरितायाः मञ्जूषायाः ग्रहणाद् वारितः अतः निजकृतत्यस्य फलं भुक्ष्व। अस्मिन् चौर्याभियोगे त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य कारादण्डं लप्स्यसे” इति। न्यायाधीश: आरक्षिणे कारादण्डमादिश्य तं जनं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान्।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) न्यायाधीशेन पुनः तौ कस्याः विषये वक्तुमादिष्टौ?
(ख) निजपक्षं कः प्रस्तुतवति?
(ग) आरक्षिणा कुत्र (शवं) उक्तं ?
उत्तर:
(क) घटनाया:
(ख) आरक्षिणि
(ग) अध्वनि

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) तत्र किम् आश्चर्यम् अघटत्?
(ख) न्यायाधीशः किम् निर्णयम् श्रुतवान् ?
(ग) त्वं कति वर्षस्य कारादण्डं लपस्यसे?
उत्तर:
(क) तत्र स शवः प्रावारकमपसार्य न्यायाधीशमभिवाद्य निवेदितवान् ।
(ख) न्यायाधीशः आरक्षिणे कारादण्डम् आदिश्य तं जनं सम्मानं मुक्तवान।
(ग) त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य कारादण्डं लफ्यसे।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) ‘भोगं कुरु’ इत्यर्थे अत्र किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ख) न्यायाधीशः तं जनं ससम्मानं मुक्तवान् इत्यत्र किं कर्तृपदम् अस्ति?
(ग) त्वं वर्षत्रयस्य कारादण्डं लप्स्यसे इत्यत्र किं क्रियापदम् प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) भुङ्क्ष्व
(ख) न्यायाधीशः
(ग) लफ्स्यसे

13. अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

कञ्चित् कालं नय मामस्मान्नगराद् बहूदूरम्।
प्रपश्यामि नामान्ते निर्झर-नदी-पयः पूरम्।।
एकान्ते कान्तारे क्षणमपि मे स्यात् सञ्चरणम्।
शुचिपर्यावरणम्………..

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) कविः कस्मात् दूरं गच्छति?
(ख) कुत्र सः क्षणमपि संचरणम् कर्तुम् इच्छति।
(ग) कान्तारे शब्दस्य अर्थः किमस्ति?
उत्तर:
(क) नगरात्
(ख) एकान्ते
(ग) वने/कानने

(क) नामान्ते सः किं द्रष्टुमिच्छति ?
(ख) कीदृशं पर्यावरणे कविः संचरणं कर्तुम् इच्छति?
(ग) प्रदूषणकारणे कवि कुत्र गच्छन् इच्छति ?
उत्तर:
(क) ग्रामान्ते निईरं द्रष्टुम् इच्छति।
(ख) शुद्धे पर्यावरणे कवि संचरणं कर्तुम् इच्छति।
(ग) प्रदूषणकारणे कवि ग्रामे, सरोवरे, निझरे च गन्तुम् इच्छति।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) ‘अस्मात् नगरात्’ अनयोः पदयो कि विशेष्यपदम् अस्ति?
(ख) ‘प्रपश्यामि ग्रामन्ते निर्झर-नदी-पयःपूरम्’ इत्यत्र कि क्रियापदम्?
(ग) ‘वने’ इत्यर्थे कि पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम् ?
उत्तर:
(क) नगरात्।
(ख) पयश्यामि।
(ग) कान्तारे।

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्त प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।

काकः – आम् सत्यं कथितं त्वया-वस्तुतः वनराजः भवितुं तु अहमेव योग्यः।
पिकः – (उपहसन्) कथं त्वं योग्यः वनराज: भवितुं, यत्र-तत्र का-का इति कर्कश ध्वनिना वातावरणमाकुलीकरोषि। न रूपं न वनिरस्ति। कृष्णवर्ण, मेध्यामध्यभक्षकं त्वां कथं वनराजं मन्यामहे वयम् ?
काकः – अरे! अरे! कि जल्पसि? यदि अहं कृष्णवर्णः तहिं त्वं किं गौरागः? अपि च विस्मर्यते किं यत् मम सत्यप्रियता तु जनानां कृते उदाहरणस्वरूपा-‘अनृतं वदसि चेत् काकः दशेत्’- इति प्रकारेण। अस्माकं परिश्रमः ऐक्यं च विश्वप्रथितम् अपि च काकचेष्टः विद्यार्थी एव आदर्शच्छात्रः मन्यते॥
पिकः – अलम् अलम् अतिविकत्थनेन कि विस्मर्यते यत्। काकः कृष्णः पिकः कृष्णः को भेदः पिककाकयोः। वसन्तसमये प्राप्ते काकः काकः पिक: पिकः॥

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(क) वस्तुत: वनराजः भवितुं तु अहममेव योग्य: इति क: कथितः?
(ख) कस्य न रूपं न ध्वनिम् अस्ति?
(ग) कः उपहसन् वदति?
उत्तर:
(क) काक:
(ख) काकस्य
(ग) पिक:।

(क) काकस्य सत्यप्रियता जनानां कृते उदाहरण स्विरूपम् किम् अस्ति?
(ख) काकः स्वविषये किं कथयति?
(ग) कस्मिन् समये काकः काकः पिक: पिकः भेदं भवति ?
उत्तर:
(क) उदाहरणस्वरूपं अनृतं वदसि चेत् काक: दशेत्।
(ख) काकः स्वविषये कथयति अस्माकम् परिश्रम: ऐक्यं च विश्वप्रथितम् अपि च काकचेष्ट: विद्यार्थी एव आदर्शः छात्र: मन्यते।
(ग) वसन्त समये काकः काकः पिकः पिकः, भेदं भवति।

(क) ‘अरे’! अरे! किं जल्पसि इत्यत्र किं क्रियापदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ख) वस्तुत: वनराजः भवितुं तु अहमेव योग्य: इत्यत्र कः कथयति?
(ग) ‘श्वेतः इत्यस्य किं विलोमपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(क) जल्पसि
(ख) काकः
(ग) कृष्णः।

15. रेखाङ्कितपदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत। (केवलं प्रश्न चतुष्ट्य म्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(क) पुरा त्वया मह्यम् व्याघ्रत्रयं दत्तम्।
(ख) महानगरेषु वाहनानाम् अनन्ताः पङ्कत्यः भवन्ति।
(ग) लव: कुश: च भ्रातरौ आस्ताम्।
(घ) अपूर्व खलु नामधेयम्।
(ङ) जीर्ण: कूप: ग्रामे आसीत्।
उत्तर:
(क) कस्मै
(ख) कुत्र
(ग) कौ
(घ) कीदृशं
(ङ) कुत्र

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचित पदानि चित्वा अधोलिखित श्लोकयोः अन्वयं पूरयत- (1 × 4 = 4)
(मञ्जूषा से उचित पदों को चुनकर निम्नलिखित श्लोक के अन्वय को पूरा कीजिए।)

इत्युक्त्वा धाविता तूर्णं व्याघ्रमारी भयङ्करा।
व्याघ्रोऽपि सहसा नष्टः गलबद्धशृगालकः॥

अन्वयः-इति (i)…..भयङ्करा व्याघ्रमारी (ii)…….. धाविता। गलबद्धः शृगालक: (iii) …… अपि (iv)……. नष्टः। मञ्जूषा-व्याघ्रः, तूर्णं, सहसा, उक्त्वा।
उत्तर:
(i) उक्त्वा
(ii) तूर्णं
(iii) व्याघ्र:
(iv) सहसा

अथवा
मञ्जूषायाः सहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक के भावार्थ से रिक्तस्थानों को पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।)

निजबुद्ध्या विमुक्ता सा भयाद् व्याघ्रस्य भामिनी।
अन्योऽपि बुद्धिमौल्लोके मुच्यते महतो भयात् ॥

भावार्थ:- यथा सा रूपवती (स्त्री) निज (i)….. प्रयोगे व्याघ्रस्य (ii)……. विमुक्ता तथा अस्मिन् संसारे या (iii)… भवति। अर्थात् यः बुद्धः (iv)…..करोति सः अपि महतो भयात् मुच्यते मुक्त भवति।
उत्तर:
(i) बुद्धे:
(ii) भयात्
(iii) बुद्धिमान्
(iv) उपयोग:

मञ्जूषा-बुद्धेः, भयात्, उपयोगः, बुद्धिमान्

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचितक्रमेण लिखत (1/2 × 8 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित कथांश को समुचित क्रम में लिखिए।)

(i) सः अर्थकायेन पदातिरेव प्राचलत्।
(ii) आरक्षी एवं चौरः आसीत् परं अतिथिं चौरं मत्वा सर्वे अभयिन्।
(iii) एक: निर्धन; जन: किञ्चिद् धनम् अर्जितवान्।
(iv) न्यायाधीश: शवम् आनेतुम् आदिष्टवान्।
(v) न्यायाधीशः उभाभ्यां विवरणं श्रुतवान्।
(vi) तस्य पुत्रः रुग्णः अभवत् ।
(vii) मार्गे रात्रिः अभवत् गृही च तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(viii) न्यायाधीशः आरक्षिणे कारादण्डम् आदिशति।
उत्तर:
(iii) एक: निर्धन: जन: किक्चित् धनम् अर्जितवान्।
(vi) तस्य पुत्र रुग्णः अभवत्।
(i) स: अर्थकार्श्येन पदातिरेव प्राचलत्।
(vii) मार्गे रात्रि: अभवत् गृही च तस्मै आश्रयं प्रायच्छत्।
(ii) आरक्षी एव चौर: आसीत् परं अतिथिं चौरं मत्वा सर्वे अभर्त्सयन्।
(v) न्यायाधीशः उभाम्यां विवरणं श्रुतवान् ।
(iv) न्यायाधीशः शवम् आनेतुम् आदिष्टवान्।
(viii) न्यायाधीशः आऱक्षिपो कारादण्डम् आदिशति।

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थं चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के प्रसंगानुकूल उचित अर्थ चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न) (1 × 3 = 3)

(i) अत्र जीवितं दुर्वहम् जातम्।
(क) सुकरं
(ख) दुष्करम्
(ग) सुखकरं
(घ) काठिन्यम्
उत्तर:
(ख) दुष्करम्

(ii) ‘तुरगाः’ तत्र गच्छन्ति।
(क) अगजाः
(ख) गजाः
(ग) अश्वाः
(घ) शशका:
उत्तर:
(ग) अश्वाः

(iii) ‘वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत।
(क) कष्टप्रदानेन
(ख) बलेन
(ग) हलेन
(घ) क्षेत्रेण
उत्तर:
(क) कष्टप्रदानेन

(iv) घोटक: पर्यायवाची चित्वा लिखत
(क) अम्बुः
(ख) अश्वः
(ग) शशि
(घ) कुक्कुरः
उत्तर:
(ख) अश्वः

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 7 with Solutions

April 23, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:

This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30% is provided.
Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04 marks each.

Section – A (12 Marks)
(All questions are compulsory)

Question 1.
Which of the following is the protocol that helps you to communicate between a Web server and a Web browser? [1]
(a) HTTPS
(b) TCP/IP
(c) HTTP
(d) FTP
Answer:
(c) HTTP

Explanation:
HTTP handles the communication in between a web server and a web browser. HTTP is used for sending requests from a browser to a web server and then returning web content (web pages) from the server back to the client.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a valid URL? [1]
(a) http://www.eduworld.com
(b) ftp://ftp.prenhall.com
(c) [email protected]
(d) http://www.yahoo.com
Answer:
(c) [email protected]

Explanation:
[email protected] is not a URL. It is an email address. An email address has two parts separated by @ symbol. On the left side of @ is the username and at the right side of @ is the domain name for the host server.

Question 3.
HTML is an acronym for: [1]
(a) Hyper text Markup Language
(b) Hyper Text Mail Language
(c) High Tech Mail Language
(d) Hyper Tech Mail Language
Answer:
(a) Hyper text Markup Language

Related Theory:
HTML is a markup language, used to display information on a web browser page. It is used to design a layout of a document and to specify the hyperlinks.

Question 4.
The first page which you normally view at a website is called: [1]
(a) Master page
(b) Home page
(c) First page
(d) Web page
Answer:
(b) Home Page

Explanation:
A homepage is the main or introductory page of a website. It is served as a starting point of the website. It generally contains hyperlinks to other pages on the site.

Question 5.
A seller selling goods clearly stating how the user data will be used in his/her website’s terms and conditions is a way of safeguarding his/her: [1]
(a) Information
(b) Privacy
(c) Digital Rights
(d) Intellectual Property Rights
Answer:
(b) Privacy

Explanation:
To respect the privacy of a buyer, the seller must clearly state how the user’s data will be used in the terms and conditions of it’s website for the safety of the data provided by the user.

Question 6.
Which of the following attributes is used to specify the source of an image? [1]
(a) HREF
(b) SOURCE
(c) IMG
(d) SRC
Answer:
(d) SRC

Explanation:
The <IMG>tag in HTML has an attribute SRC which is used to specify the source/ location of the image to be inserted into the webpage.

Question 7.
<Title>………</Title> is a type of [1]
(a) Tag
(b) Attribute
(c) Container Element
(d) Code
Answer:
(c) Container Element

Explanation:
HTML elements that are used as a set of opening as well as closing tag are called container elements.

Question 8.
The justified alignment can be applied using tag. [1]
(a) 
(b) 
(c) <ALIGN>
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b)

Explanation:
The aligns the enclosed text or paragraph in justified format.

Question 9.
Consider the following code:
<CENTER> Educart </FONTx/CENTER>
The output of this code will be: [1]
(a) ‘Educart’ is printed in black colour and horizontally at center of the webpage.
(b) ‘Educart’ is printed in black colour and vertically at center of the page.
(c) ‘Educart’ is printed in grey colour and horizontally at center of the webpage.
(d) ‘Educart’ is printed in grey colour and vertically at center of the webpage.
Answer:
(c) ‘Educart’ is printed in grey colour and horizontally at center of the webpage.

Explanation:
The <CENTER> tag sets the center alignment #808080 is the code for grey colour.

Question 10.
A two way video conversation among two or more participants is called [1]
(a) video chatting
(b) video talking
(c) video watching
(d) video conferencing
Answer:
(d) Video conferencing

Question No. 11 and 12 are Assertion and Reason types. Each question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): is an empty tag.
Reason (R): Container elements requires starting as well as ending tag.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Explanation:
HTML has two types of tags – Container tags and Empty tags. Container tags require both starting and ending tags whereas empty tags have only starting tag.
<Title></Title> is a container tag and is an example of empty tag.

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : In HTML document and tag is used to define paragraph.
Reason (R): The browser does not recognize returns, tabs or more than one spaces.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and l^ason (R) are true and Reason (R) is n6f a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
The browser does not recognize returns, tabs or more than one spaces between letters. So, you must tell the browser when to change the line. and tags are used to organize text in paragraphs or to display text in separate lines.

Section – B (14 Marks)

Question 13.
What is chatting? Is it necessary to be online while chatting? [2]
Answer:
Chatting is a textual or multimedia conversation over the Internet. It is a real time communication between two users over communication channels using internet and computers.
Yes, it is necessary to be online, while chatting.

Question 14.
Explain the following terms: [2]
(A) Client
(B) Server
OR
Explain the following terms:
(A) Webpage
(B) Web Site
Answer:
(a) Client: It is a computer on a computer network that requests services from another computer on the internet.
(B) Server: It is a computer that receives requests from the client computers. It processes and sends the output.
OR
(A) Webpage: It is a digital page or document hosted on the internet.
(B) Web Site: It is a collection of interconnected web pages, designed with a certain goal in mind.

Question 15.
Lava software solution company has used different tags in its website, some are empty while the majority are container tags. Give the detailed difference between container and empty elements. [2]
Answer:

Container elements	Empty elements
contain starting as well only contain a as closing/ending tag. 1 starting tag and For example: <HTML>… </HTML>, <HEAD>….</HEAD>, <BODY>….</BODY> etc..	only contain a starting tag and not an ending tag for example <IMG>, <BR>, <HR> etc.

Question 16.
How are Digital software penetration tools a threat to digital properties? [2]
OR
What are the rules to be followed for good netiquette?
Answer:
Although one needs to buy usage rights or license to use a digital property, there are many software penetration tools such as cracks and keygens created by hackers to penetrate and freely access a software without actually paying for it.
OR
The rules to be followed for good netiquettes are as follows:

Never spam others by sending large amounts of unsolicited emails.
Avoid posting offensive or inflammatory comments online.
Do not trust others when you are new.
Don’t troll people in web forums or website comments by repeatedly nagging or annoying them.
Respect others privacy by not sharing personal information, photos or videos that another person may not want to publish online.
(Note: write any two points.)

Question 17.
What is a CSS Rule/Style? [2]
Answer:
A CSS Rule/Style is a single statement in a style sheet that identifies what should be styled (the selector) and how those styles should be applied (the declaration).

Question 18.
What is the difference between <THEAD> and <TFOOT> tags? [2]
OR
State the use of <HTML> tag and <BODY> tag.
Answer:

<THEAD>	<TFOOT>
<THEAD> Table header tag is used to add a header in a table.	<TFOOT> Table footer tag is used to add a footer in a table.

OR
<HTML>- It is a structural tag used to mark the beginning and end of an HTML document.
<BODY>- It is a structural tag that encloses all the visible content of a webpage.

Question 19.
What do you understand by the attribute “alink” used with the <BODY> tag? Also write its default colour. [2]
Answer:
alink stands for active link, this attribute changes the default colour of the active link. The default colour of alink is red.

Related Theory:
The <BODY> VLINK attribute is used to specify the color of a visited link in a document.

Section – C (12 Marks)

Question 20.
What is Online Fraud? State some measures to stop these frauds. [3]
Answer:
Frauds committed using the internet are called Online Frauds. The measures that can be taken to stop these include:

A monitoring official body should ensure the sanctity of an e-Commerce company and delivery of the goods as promised.
Strong security mechanisms should be put up at the e-commerce site and payment gateway.
Official guidelines should be given while selling user’s data to third parties.

Question 21.
(A) State advantages of video conferencing. [3]
Answer:
Advantages of video conferencing are as follows:

It saves travel cost and travel time.
It allows us to conduct meetings with people at different locations across the globe.
It allows you to see people as well as hear them.
It allows to view a document on the screen in real time.

(B) State the difference between Web Portal and Website.
Answer:

Web Portal	Website
(1) It is a collection of web pages of an array of web services like email, search engine, gaming, etc.	(1) It is a collection of webpages offering specialized content pertaining to the need and goal of the organisation owning the website.
(2) It is normally an entry point or gateway for using the offered web services.	(2) It is often the final destination to access and use the provided specific information.
(3) Generally linked to many other website that provide these web services.	(3) A website is generally linked to its own webpages

Question 22.
Write a HTML code to write the following chemical expression: [3]
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
Answer:
Code:

<HTML>
<BODY>
6CO<SUB>2</SUB> + 6H<SUB>2</
SUB>O...............> C<Sub>
6</SUB>H<SUB>12</SUB>O
<SUB>6</SUB> + 6O<SUB>2</
SUB>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Related Theory
The tag defines the superscript text, which appears half a character above the normal line. Such as A² + B².
The tag defines the subscript text, which appears half a character below the normal line. Such as CO₂.

(A) Write the correct syntax of <Textarea> tag.
Answer:
<TEXTAREA name = “name” rows =number cols=numbers Text </TEXTAREA>

(B) Siddhant wants to add an image “design.jpg” to background of the web page without repeating it?
Answer:
Body { background-image: url(“design. jpg”); background-repeat: no repeat; }

Question 23.
Discuss the role of web server and web clients briefly. [3]
Answer:
Web server is a computer program that serves the requested FITML pages or files from the web client. Every web server that is connected to the internet is associated with a unique address, i. e. an IP address.
Web client is a computing term which describes a special program designed as a user interface, through which messages can be sent to a web server.

Section – D (4 Marks)

Question 24.
Write the HTML code to generate the following web page: [4]

Note: Consider the following points while generating the web page:

Link colour is red, active link colour is green and visited link colour is blue.
Title of the page is “Eat healthg, Live healthy”.
Image used is “abclogo.jpg”.
The links are one.html, two.html, three, html and four.html
The email id for contact us is contact© abcchain.com.

OR
Write the HTML code to design the web page as shown below, considering the given specifications. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 4 specifications.

Observe the following table carefully.
Specification 1: The value of table border should be 3 pixels, and border colour should be blue.
Specification 2: The image named “googlelogo.png” should be added in front of Google.
Specification 3: The image named “Firefox.png” should be added in front of Firefox.
Specification 4: The attribute colspan should be used wherever required.
Specification 5: Use Table header tags wherever required.
Answer:
HTML code:

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Eat healthy, live healthyc/ TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY link=“red" alink=“green”
vlink=“blue”>
<CENTER>
<H1>ABC CHAINS....</H1>
</CENTER>
<IMG src=“abclogo.jpg'' align=“right"
height=“250” width=“250’’>
Collect Information for
<UL type=“circle”>
<LlxA href=“one.
html”>Menus</Ax/LI>
<Ll><A href=“two.
html">Reservation</A></U>
< LI >< Ahref=“three.
htmr>Catering</A></LI>
<Ll><Ahref=“four.
html">Parties</A></LI>
</UL>
<CENTER>
<TABLE>
<CAPTION>
Menus are...</CAPTION>
<TR>
<TD>1</TD>
<TD>lndian</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>2</TD>
<TD>Thai</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>3</TD>
<TD>Italian</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>4</TD>
<TD>Continental</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TD>5</TD>
<TD>Sea Food</TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>
</CENTER>
<BR>
For any queries:
<A href=“maiLto:contact@abcchain. com”>Contact us</A>
</BODY>
</HTML>

<html>
<body>
<table border=’’3px” bordercolor=“blue”>
<tr>
<th colspan=“2”>Search
Engine</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Google</td>
<tdximg src=”google.png” height =”50px" width=”50px"alt=”Sorry Image could not be displayed”>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Mozila Firefox</td>
<td><img src=”firefox.jpg”
height=”50px” width=”50px” alt=
“Sorry Image could not be
displayed”> </td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Section – E (8 Marks)

Question 25.
Shalini is creating a webpage for a library to showcase all the names of books available in the library and their author names. Help her to complete the code with right statements in the blanks. Observe the webpage and attempt any four questions (out of 5) given after the web page.

<HTML>
<HEAD><TITLE> My Webpage </TITLE></
HEAD>
<BODY = “yellow”>
<!- - Statement 1 - ->
<H1><______color = “maroon"> Indian
Tiger</FONT></H1><!- -Statement 2-
->
<FONT face = “times new roman">
<_________ src = “tiger.jpg">
</- - Statement 3 - ->
<_________> </- - Statement 4 - ->
<LI>Bengal tigers</LI>
<LI>lndochinese tigers</LI>
<LI> Malayan tigers</U>
<LI>South China tigers</LI>
</UL>
</FONT>
_________ <!- - Statement 5 - ->
</HTML>

(A) Write the correct tag in statement – 1 to achieve the output given in the above web page. [1]
Answer:
bgcolor

Explanation:
The BGCOLOR attribute is used to change the background colour of the webpage.

(B) Write the suitable attribute for the blank given in statement – 2. [1]
Answer:
FONT

Explanation:
The tag is used to change the font settings of the text enclosed within the tag. It has attributes like FACE. SIZE, COLOR to change the font face, size and colour of the text

Explanation: The <IMG> tag is used to insert a picture in the webpage. The SRC attribute in this tag specifies the name and path of the image file.

(D) Write an appropriate answer for blank in statement -4. [1]
Answer:
UL

Explanation:
The <UL> tag is used to create an unordered list. It is also known as bulleted list. The default bullet style is “disc”.

(E) Write the suitable tag for blank in statement – 5. [1]
Answer:
</BODY>

Explanation:
</BODY> tag is the ending tag of <BODY> tag. It specifies end of the main document or the part which is to be displayed on the webpage.

Question 26.
Read the case study given below and attempt any four sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark.
Sameer Malhotra is a Pubjr Relations Officer in IDB Bank. His job responsibility is to make new customers for his bank\During work from home period, he made contacts with his customers on phone calls and by emails.

(A) Sameer can send email using his …………………….. . [1]
Answer:
Email Id

Explanation:
E-mail ID also known as email address is a unique identifier for an email account It is used to send and receive email messages over the Internet.

(B) The customers usually mark such mails as spam. What is spam? [1]
Answer:
Spam is defined as irrelevant or unsolicited e-mails sent typically to a large number of users, for the purpose of advertising, phishing, spreading malware, etc.

Explanation:
A mail box or inbox is the main folder that stores your incoming mail.

(D) If Sameer wants to send the same promotional mail to multiple customers, then what should he do? [1]
Answer:
He can give multiple email addresses in ‘To’ field separated by comma.

(E) How can Sameer send a copy of same mail to his senior without letting the customers know about it? [1]
Answer:
He can give the email id of his senior in ‘Bcc’ field.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

April 19, 2023

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

General Instructions :

There are three sections in the Question paper namely Section A, Section B and Section C.
Section A consists of 9 questions amongst which 7 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 2 marks and should have 30-50 words.
Section B consists of 5 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 3 marks and should have 80-100 words.
Section C consists of 4 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted. Each question carries 4 marks and should have 100-150 words.

Time : 2 Hrs.
Max. Marks : 35

Section A

Question 1.
Explain any two benefits of Ardha matsyendrasana. [1 + 1]
Answer:
Benefits of Ardha Matsyendrasana are:

It loses extra fat and makes the body beautiful and strong.
It stimulates the liver, spleen and pancreas.
It is beneficial for the respiratory system.
It strengthens the spinal column and back muscles.
It glorifies the face and keeps the menstrual cycle in women in control.
It rejuvenates the nerves around.
It heals back pain, stress, and headache.
It is helpful for people suffering from diabetes.

Question 2.
Define explosive strength with help of example. [1 +1]
Answer:
Explosive strength is the ability to overcome resistance with high speed. It is used in take-off jumping events like long jump, high jump, triple jump, jumping in volleyball for smashing or spiking, jumping for rebound in basketball.

Question 3.
Define personality and motivation. [1 +1]
Answer:
Personality:

According to Begge and Hunt, “Personality refers to the whole behavioral pattern of an individual to the totality of its characteristics.”
According to Valentine, “Personality is the sum-total of inherited and acquired abilities. ”
According to Guild Ford, “Personality is an individual’s unique pattern of traits.”
According to Sigmund Freud, “Personality is an individual’s unique thought, feeling and behavior that persist over time and different situations.”
According to Young, “Personality is the totality of behavior of an individual with a given tendency system interacting with a sequence of situations.”
According to R.B. Cattel, “Personality is that which permits a prediction of what a person will do in a given situation.”
On the basis of these definitions, a brief definition would be that, “Personality is the sum total of inner and outer capabilities of an individual.”

Motivation:

According to Sage, “The drive to strive is called motivation.”
According to Crooks and Stein, “Any condition that might energize and direct our actions is called motivation.”
According to Morgan and King, “Motivation refers to a state within a person or animal that drives behavior towards some goal.”
According to P.T. Yong, “Motivation is the process of arousing , action, sustaining the activities in progress, and regulating the patterns of activity.”
According to Johnson, “Motivation is the influence of a general pattern of activities indicating and directing the behavior of the organism.”

Question 4.
Write the full form of SPD and ASD. [1 + 1]
Answer:

Sensory Processing Disorder (SPD)
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

Question 5.
List any four changes happening in the muscular system due to exercising. [0.5 x 4]
Answer:
Changes happening in the muscular system due to exercising are:

Change in Size and Shape of Muscle: Regular exercise helps in enlarging cells of muscles which in turn helps in changing size and shape of muscles.
Increase in the Strength of Muscles: A person who does exercise daily has stronger muscles and such muscles work more. These become stronger by getting more nutritious food in the form of oxygen.
Increase in Coordination: Regular exercise increases coordination in the muscles. These become stronger by doing exercise. As a result a person does not feel fatigued even by working for a long time. If the muscles do not have co-ordination or have incomplete co-ordination then the working becomes impossible.
Entrance of Greater Quantity of Oxygen in the Body: Muscles have to do more work during exercise. The consumption of oxygen increases in the person who exercises. Thus blood reaches quickly in the muscles.
Increase in Supply of Blood: Muscles get chemical substances like glycogenephoscoratine, potassium etc. by doing regular exercise. These chemical substances increase the flow of blood.
Proper Blood Circulation: During rest, the blood completes a round of the body in 21 seconds, but it completes the round in just 15,10 or 8 seconds while exercising. The heart muscles work faster during exercise.
Effects on Bones and Joints: By doing exercise our bones become hard and they can work for more time. It also has effects on our joints. Thus the bones and muscles become strong by doing exercise.
Children’s bones happen to be very soft and fragile. Activities of muscles affect these a lot. By the lack of these the bones remain soft and deformity takes place in them.
Effective Respiration: Regular exercise increases the capacity of chest muscles. As a result, the respiratory system gets effective.
Increase in the Resistance Power of Body: Regular exercise develops the lungs in an equal way. By this the volume of lungs starts increasing.
Thus develops the chest skeleton and by doing exercise the condition of breathing improves. Thus, as a result of this improved breathing capacity the resistance capacity of the body increases.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of the Isotonic method and it is used for developing which ability? [1 + 1]
Answer:
Isotonic Method: Isotonic exercises were introduced by De Lorene in 1954. This term comes from the Greek word ‘iso’ which means ‘same or equal’ maintaining equal (muscle) tone or ‘tension’. In this one muscle group contracts while the opposite relaxes during which the muscle changes its length.

These are those exercises in which direct movements are visible to the 3rd person. In this case, personal muscular efforts are evidenced by visible movements. In isotonic exercises rapid movements are accomplished by reflex alteration of contraction and relaxation of antagonistic flexors and extensors of the joints concerned.

Type of contraction where we notice the movements of objects is called isotonic contraction e.g. doing exercise with light weight or dumbbells etc. Most of the exercises fall under this category. Isotonic method is used to develop strength.

Question 7.
Mention any two symptoms and causes of ADHD.
Answer:
Symptoms and causes of ADHD are:
Symptoms of ADHD in children are:

They could not perform daily life activities.
They tend to forget routine work.
They indulge in daydreaming.
They do not like performing activities that require sitting still.
They get easily distracted.
They are weak in sports activities.
They do not take rest and usually roam around.
They could not have any control on their emotions.
They lack concentration and work carelessly.

Symptoms in adults are:

They always remain worried.
They remain impulsive.
They have an inferiority complex.
They are always disorganized.
They easily get irritated.
They find difficulty in remembering things.
Mood swings and depression are common in such adults.
They cannot control their anger.
They have problems with concentration.

Causes of ADHD are:

Heredity: If any parent is suffering from ADHD, there remains a high probability of occurrence of this disorder in their children.
Premature Birth: If a child is delivered prematurely the nervous system is not fully developed which increases chances of occurrence of ADHD.
Less Efficiency of Brain and Deformity: If there is a deformity of brain shape that causes neural- imbalance which can cause ADHD.
Less Birth Body Weight: If a child on birth has less body weight, ADHD, disorder remains a possibility.
Consumption of Alcohol and Drugs: Consumption of alcohol and drugs always adversely affects our brain cells and nervous system.
Exposure to Toxic Substance: Exposure to some toxic substances like lead can cause ADHD.
Diet: Few researches have proved that a particular type of food substance plays a role in causing ADHD.

Question 8.
What is Laceration and how can it be managed? [1 +1]
Answer:
A laceration is an injury that results in an irregular break in the skin, more commonly referred to as a cut, but defined as a tom and ragged wound. Lacerations are caused when an object strikes the skin and causes a wound to open.

Depending on a variety of characteristics (angle, force, depth, object), some lacerations can be more serious than others, reaching as far as deep tissue and leading to serious bleeding. The predominant symptoms of lacerations are mild to serious breaking of the epidermis, tears in the first layer of skin that can range from small slices to deep gashes.

Depending on the depth of the laceration, there can be bleeding of different levels of severity. Mild lacerations may experience less bleeding accompanied by mild pain. Deeper lacerations will experience greater bleeding and more intense pain.

Treatment of laceration can be done through the following steps:

Stop bleeding at the earliest by compression or by pressing.
Clean the surface of the affected part using water and soap.
Cover the affected part with medicinal cotton bandage or apply band aid.
Repeat dressing or padding over the wound. If bleeding continues then apply further pads or dressing.
Apply ice or cold for compression.
If the injury is deep go for stitches at the earliest.

Question 9.
List down any two strategies to make physical activities accessible for CWSN. [1 + 1]
Answer:
Strategies to make physical activities accessible for CWSN are:

Interest: Physical activities must be based on interests, abilities and limitations of children with special needs to ensure maximum participation.
Ability: The physical and mental state of children with special needs shall be considered.
Medical Check-up: First, it is mandatory to have a medical check-up of all children with special needs. This is because without that we cannot know about the disability the child is having.
Pre-experiences: Before deciding physical strategies, we shall know the children with their, past experiences and convince them.
Equipment: The equipment used should be according to capability and level of children. It may vary in size, shape, colour and weight.
Specific Environment: A healthy and democratic environment shall be created so that CWSN can perform freely.
Modified Rules: According to CWSN, the rules shall be diluted and modified according to their nature of the disability.
Easy to Difficult: The exercise shall be in progression from easy to difficult.
Use of All Body Parts: Physical strategies shall involve whole body parts and ensure whole-body movement.
Extra Care of Concern: While deciding upon physical strategies for CWSN, extra care and concern shall be given like extra time, and to avoid stress light music.

Section B

Question 10.
List down and briefly explain any four techniques of motivation. [1 + (0.5 x 4)]
Answer:
Techniques of motivation are:
(i) Goal Setting: Goal setting is one of the most powerful techniques of motivation. The athlete should be very specific and clear about his goal. In other words, an athlete should be very clear what he has to do, how, and why. If these three things are clear in the mind of the athlete then there will be no problem in motivation and one will do the things accordingly. One should be prepared mentally to do the activity and work to achieve the goal. The goal should not be impossible to achieve, it should be in the reach of the individual. One should know the advantages of attaining the goal.

(ii) Reinforcement: Reinforcement is the use of rewards and punishments that will work to either encourage a certain action or decrease it in the future. There are two ways of using reinforcement – a positive and a negative approach. The positive approach focuses on reward for appropriate behavior this increases the likelihood of this behavior happening again. The negative approach focuses on punishing undesirable behaviors and should lead to decrease of these behaviors in the future. Most coaches and instructors combine positive and negative approaches.

(iii) Knowledge of Progress: The athlete should know fully about himself, his capacity, quality, behavior, etc. Periodic positive results act as a strong motivational force. One should be made aware about his progress from time to time. Knowledge of progress is must because progress is also a reward in itself.

(iv) Rewards: They can be effective for further progress and to achieve goal. This can be very effective to motivate the players. Various rewards and cash prizes act as a strong motivational force to perform.

(v) Jobs: Outstanding sports persons can be offered good jobs according to their achievement and educational qualifications. There are various departments which provide jobs to good sports persons i.e. Police departments in various states, Indian railways, Banks, Air India, etc.

(vi) Social Awards: The Government of India every year announces awards for outstanding sports persons who bring laurels for the country in various games and sports. They are honored with Arjuna Awards, Padama Shri, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, Dronacharya Award, Major Dhyan Chand Award, Padma Bhushan etc. Some special awards are also given for international achievements.

(vi) Positive Talks: Positive talk by the teachers or coaches is one of the best methods to motivate an individual. It can help the athlete to change his thinking and behaviour. It is most important even for players and athletes at international level. At lower stages it works as a most successful tool for motivation.

(vii) To Provide Best Quality Equipment: The players and athletes should be provided the best possible equipment, which will help the athlete to avoid sports injuries, best and easy practice without any tension in mind. Good quality equipment urges the participants to participate in the activity whereas old and sub-standard equipment may turn off the interest of the individual.

Question 11.
Explain cognitive disability along with its symptoms. [1 + 2]
Answer:
Cognitive Disability: This disorder comes in the mental disorder category. Due to cognitive disorder, a person’s ability to learn, speak, memorize, and problem-solving skills are disrupted. Due to cognitive disorder, the person suffers from dementia, and delirium disease. In addition, it adversely affects the memorizing power and reasoning power.

Symptoms of cognitive disability are:

Memory Disorder: The person who has a problem in listening and then recalling things.
Hyper Activity: The person tends to hyper during sitting, standing phase. The person remains in undue hurry.
Dyslexia: The person who faces problems in reading, writing and memorizing.

Cause of Cognitive Disability are:
Cognitive disability normally occurs due to problems of the brain like tumour, head injury, shock, infection, harmful brain neurotoxins, heredity or any other brain related disease. It affects a person’s memorizing power, learning skills and ability to do routine activities like, in case of tumour or head injury on part of the brain which controls speech control, can affect the speaking skills of that person. In same way, if brain tumour or head injury on that part of the brain which can hamper the physical movement or delving other physical activities.

Question 12.
Create a flowchart to explain the classification of sports injuries. [1 + 1 + 1]
Answer:

Question 13.
List down any three asanas used for preventing Asthma and write two benefits of each. [1 + 2]
Answer:
Asthma disease is associated with the swelling of respiratory tracts, which makes the tracts very sensitive and makes this process pungent with the touch of any effective things. These reactions cause contractions in the tubes, this reduces the amount of air in the lungs due to which it becomes difficult to breathe.

Common symptoms of asthma are coughing, heavy breathing, chest tightness, fatigue, pain in hands, feet, shoulders and back. Reasons are dust, smoke, pollen grains, animal skin, hair and feather etc. Asthma can be controlled by Matsyasana, Gomukhasana etc.

(i) Matsyasana: This asana is performed in water body, hence it is called as Matsyasana.
Pre-Stage: Sit in Padmasana pose.

Method:

Take support of your elbow and lie on your back, bend your neck with support of your hands and try to touch your head to the ground.
Hold toes of the feet firmly with both hands and touch ground with the elbows.
Stretch the stomach as up as possible.

Benefits:

This asana is very useful for asthama patient, it provides relief from indigestion and other digestive problems, keeps the blood clean.
Helps in cough and respiratory problems. It makes body and face attractive by bringing natural glow on it.

Contraindications:

Abnormal blood pressure: Individuals suffering from high or low blood pressure should avoid this posture.
Neck injury: Neck injuries or injuries in any part of the lower back or middle back can make it difficult to practice this Fish pose and hence should be avoided.

(ii) Gomukhasana: This asana gets its name because while doing this asana, body resembles a cow face pose.

Pre-stage: Sit in Sukhasana pose.

Method:

Sit in sukhasana pose.
Place the ankle of left leg near the right butt.
Place the right leg over the left thigh, so that knees should place over each other.
Sweep your left hand behind your back, facing palms upwards.
Now interlock fingers of both hands behind your back.
Stretch both the hands in their respective direction, look straight.
Repeat with changing leg position:

Benefits: Helps in curing Asthma, reduces weight, makes body flexible.

Contraindications:

People with very stiff shoulder may have to take it slow and easy.
If you have sciatica, then crossing the knee may not be too good as there will be pressure at the sciatic nerve.

Question 14.
What are the salient features of the Fartlek training method? [1 x 3]
Answer:
Fartlek Training Method: The Fartlek method of training was introduced and practiced in Sweden. ‘Fartlek’ is a Swedish term which means ‘speed play’ (playing with speed). This training method was first introduced by Gosta Holmer. It is a type of cross-country running. Fartlek is usually conducted over a hilly region track, and it allows variation in pace.

It is one of the best methods of conditioning for most of the sports in which endurance is the basic requirement. This training can be performed at hilly path, river bed, forest, muddy road or sandy path etc. Self-discipline is most important and vital in this type of training.

In Fartlek, the change of pace or speed is not pre-planned so some exercises can also be included in this method. These exercises may be performed by stopping and running temporarily at different intervals. The type of exercises that can be included along with running are hopping, jumping, squat jump, double-hop jump etc.

Advantages of Fartlek Training are:

It is an off-season training method but is very useful in developing endurance in athletes.
It has a psychological advantage over the other training methods because the changing scenes help in delaying fatigue.
It is the best method to improve endurance in sports where endurance is a basic requirement e.g. cross-country running.
Balancing adjustments of ankles, knees and thighs improve due to the uneven surface.

Section C

Question 15.
Explain any three personality types of Big Five Theory.
Answer:

Question 16.
Discuss physiological factors determining speed.
Answer:
Physiological Factors determining speed are:
(i) Fast Twitch Muscle Fibre: The muscle composition is genetically determined and cannot be changed by training. There are three main types of muscle fibers. These are slow-twitch (type I), fast-twitch (type la) and fast-twitch (type lb). Fast-twitch fibres are much better at generating short bursts of strength or speed than slow-twitch fibre muscles. Thus, the greater the percentage of fast-twitch muscle fibre one has, the faster he is at speed.

(ii) Body Fat: Fat acts as excess baggage when trying to run. Body fat of 6 to 10 percent of body weight for men and 12 to 17 percent of body weight for women is desirable for sprinting short distances. Lower range of body fat is unhealthy whereas higher range of body fat negatively affects speed.

(iii) Anaerobic Capacity: Speed is dependent on the anaerobic energy systems. Anaerobic capacity is the ability to produce energy without the use of oxygen. Short bursts of speed are anaerobic and are very intensive. Our body can only perform a certain number of quick bursts of speed before we experience the physiological response of pain and fatigue. Thus, an athlete having a better anaerobic capacity will have a better speed.

(iv) Neuromuscular Responses: Neuromuscular responses affect speed. Faster responses lead to faster muscle contraction thus leading to faster speed.

(v) Flexibility: Another important factor contributing to optimum speed is joint flexibility. Good flexibility will help an athlete in maximum range of movement without much effort and resistance. Proper flexibility of the involved joints contributes to movements that are more fluid and coordinated, resulting in longer and faster strides and greater speed. Thus, flexibility plays an important role in determining speed.

Question 17.
Define flexibility and explain methods to develop flexibility. [1 + 3]
Answer:
Flexibility can be defined as the maximum range of motion at a joint that is the extent of movement possible about a joint without undue strain. Flexibility is not a general quality it is specific to a particular joint, such as the knee or to a series of joints. This means that an individual can have a better range of motion in some joints than in others.

Methods to improve Flexibility are:

(i) Ballistic Stretching: The individual performs these stretching exercises while in motion. This dynamic method uses the momentum generated from repeated bouncing movements to stretch the muscles. Although it is very effective, most experts do not recommend this method because it may overstretch the muscles and can cause muscle soreness or injury. This method includes various exercises like swinging the trunk sidewards, forward, backward, swinging the legs etc.

(ii) Static Stretching: It is an extremely popular and effective technique. Static stretching involves gently and slowly moving into the stretch position and holding it for a certain period of time. Movement should take place through the full range of motion until a little tension or tightness is felt in the muscles or group of muscles.

As the muscle relaxes, the stretch should be extended and held again. Stretching should not be painful. Care must be taken not to force the joint to move too far, which may cause an injury. Stretching should be held from 10 to 30 seconds and a maximum of five repetitions for each exercise.

(iii) Passive stretching: Passive stretching techniques are usually performed with a partner who applies a stretch to a relaxed joint. Partner stretching requires closer communication between partners and the slow application of the stretch in order to prevent injuries due to forceful manipulation of the body segment.

(iv) Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) or Contract: PNF technique is the most appropriate method for increasing or developing flexibility in the shortest possible time. This method is used by sportsmen for gaining flexibility. It involves use of muscle contraction before stretching to achieve maximum muscle relaxation.

The following procedure is used for PNF technique:

Move into the stretch position so that the stretch sensation can be felt.
The partner holds the limb in this stretched position.
Push against your partner for 6 to 10 seconds by contracting the antagonistic muscles and then relax.
During contraction, the partner tries to resist any movement of the limb.
The partner then moves the limb further into the stretch until the stretch sensation is felt.
Repeat the whole procedure for 4 to 5 times.

Question 18.
Briefly explain the administration of Pawanmuktasana along with its contraindications and draw stick diagram. [2 + 1 + 1]
Answer:
Procedure and contraindications of Pawanmuktasana are:

The procedure of the Pawanmuktasana are:

Lie on your back with your feet together and arms besides your body and relax, breathing deeply.
With a deep inhalation raise your legs to 90° and completely exhale.
Now with another inhalation bring both the knees close to your chest and press on the lower abdomen, holding the knees with your hands. Exhale completely.
Remain with bent knees for a few breaths. With every exhalation press the thighs and knees on the abdomen and hold them with your hands.
With a deep breath raise your head, neck and chest and bring them close to your knees. If possible, bring your chin in between your knees.
Ensure the head moves less and the knees come closer to the face. That way the pressure on the abdominal muscles will help in releasing the unwanted gas/ wind around the abdominal organs.
Remain in this posture for a few breaths focusing on maintaining the position of the head and neck in place. With every exhalation press the thighs closer and deeper into the chest and face deeper into the knees.
Try to maintain the balance while breathing slowly and keeping the body relaxed.
Now with an inhalation, release the neck and head and exhale completely. With another inhalation straighten the legs and bring them back to 90° and as you exhale release the leg from 90° to the relaxed posture.
With complete exhalation, bring the legs stretched out on the floor and relax the neck.
Take a few breaths, and then continue with the next round. The longer you hold in this posture the faster the muscles around the abdomen loosen.

Contraindications of the Pawanmuktasana are:

To be avoided or performed under guidance by those suffering from:

severe migraine
high or low blood pressure
asthma
slip disc
advanced stages of spondylitis
Girls/Women should avoid this asana or take the guidance of the teacher while practicing it during the menstrual cycle.

Posture for Pawanmuktasana

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics Set 8 with Solutions

April 19, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 70

General Instructions:

All questions are compulsory. There are 40 questions.
This Question paper has four sections : Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D
Section A contains twenty five questions of one mark each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D contains three question of five marks each.
There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in seven questions of one mark, two questions of two marks, two questions of three marks and two questions of five marks weightage. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary:
c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s,
h = 6.63 × 10^-34 Js
e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C,
Radius of Earth, R_e = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
Universal Gravitational constant. G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm2kg-2
mass of electron, m_e = 9.1 × 10^-31 kg,
mass of neutron, m_n = 1.675 × 10^-27 kg
mass of proton, m_p = 1.673 × 10^-27 kg
Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 10²³ atom per gram
Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10^-23 JK^-1

Section – A

Question numbers 1 to 25 carry 1 mark each.

Question 1.
The mass and volume of a body are 4.237 g and 2.5 cm, respectively. The density of the material of the body in correct significant figures is : [1]
(A) 1.6048 g cm^-3
(B) 1.69 g cm^-3
(C) 1.7 g cm^-3
(D) 1.695 g cm^-3
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
∴ ρ = $\begin{gathered}
\text { mass } \\
\hline \text { volume }
\end{gathered}$ = $\frac{4.237 \mathrm{~g}}{2.5 \mathrm{~cm}^3}$ = 1.6948 gcm^-3
So the density in correct significant figure will be 1.7 g cm^-3

Question 2.
Among the four graphs, there is only one graph for which average velocity over the time interval (0, t) can vanish for a suitably chosen t. Which one is it? [1]

A lift is coming from 8^th floor and is just about to reach 4^th floor. Taking ground floor as origin and positive direction upwards for all quantities, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) x < 0, υ < 0, a > 0
(B) x > 0, υ < 0, a < 0 (C) x > 0, υ < 0, a > 0
(D) x > 0, v > 0, a < 0 Answer: Option (B) is correct Explanation: In (B) for the value of displacement, two timings are there. Therefore for one time, the average velocity is positive and for other time is equal but negative. Due to this average velocity can vanish. Commonly Made Error Most of the students are not able to understand this type problem. Answering Tip Practice is required for different graphs between different questions. OR Option (A) is correct Explanation: Lift is coming downwards. Thus, a is acting downwards, so a > 0 and the value of x becomes less, hence negative, i.e., x < 0, velocity is downwards (i.e., negative) so υ < 0.

Question 3.
A cricket ball of mass 150 g has an initial velocity ($\vec{u}$) = ($3 \hat{i}$ + $4 \hat{j}$) ms^-1 after being hit. The change in momentum (final momentum – initial momentum) is (in kg ms^-1): [1]
(A) Zero
(B) -(0.45$\hat{i}$ + 0.6$\hat{j}$)
(C) -(0.9$\hat{i}$ + 1.2$\hat{j}$)
(D) -5($\hat{i}$ + $\hat{j}$)
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: Here, m = 150 g = 0.15 kg
$\vec{u}$ = $(3 \hat{i}+4 \hat{j})$m/s
$\vec{v}$ = –$(3 \hat{i}+4 \hat{j})$ m/s
Initial momentum, p_i = mu
$\vec{p}_i$ = (0.15 kg)$(3 \hat{i}+4 \hat{j})$m/s
= $(0.45 \hat{i}+0.6 \hat{j})$ kg-m/s
Final momentum,

Question 4.
A man squatting on the ground gets straight up and stand. The force of reaction of ground on the man during the process is :
(A) constant and equal to mg in magnitude.
(B) constant and greater than mg in magnitude.
(C) variable but always greater than mg.
(D) at first greater than mg, and later becomes equal to mg. [1]
Answer:
Option (D) is correct
Explanation: In the whole process, the man exerts a variable force (F) on the ground to set his body in motion. This force is in addition to the force required to support his weight (mg). Once the man is in standing position, F becomes, zero.

Question 5.
A uniform square plate has a small piece Q of an irregular shape removed and glued to the centre of the plate leaving a hole behind show in figure. The moment of inertia about the z-axis is then

(A) increased
(B) decreased
(C) the same
(D) changed in unpredictable manner
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Question 6.
Different points in earth are at slightly different distances from the sun and hence experience different forces due to gravitation. For a rigid body, we know that if various forces act at various points in it, the resultant motion is as if a net force acts on the c.m. (centre of mass) causing translation and a net torque at the c.m. causing rotation around an axis through the c.m. For the earth-sun system (approximating the earth as a uniform density sphere) [1]
(A) the torque is zero.
(B) the torque causes the earth to spin.
(C) the rigid body result is not applicable since the earth is not even approximately a rigid body.
(D) the torque causes the earth to move around the sun.
OR
Satellites orbiting the earth have finite life and sometimes debris of satellites fall to the earth. This is because,
(A) the solar cells and batteries in satellites run out.
(B) the laws of gravitation predict a trajectory spiralling inwards.
(C) of viscous forces causing the speed of satellite and hence height to gradually decrease.
(D) of collisions with other satellites.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct
OR
Option (C) is correct

Question 7.
The temperature of a wire is doubled. The Young’s modulus of elasticity
(A) will also double.
(B) will become four times.
(C) will remain same.
(D) will decrease. [1]
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Question 8.
Consider P-V diagram for an ideal gas shown in figure

Out of the following diagrams which represents the T-P diagram ? [1]

OR
An ideal gas undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in given P-V diagram. The amount of the work done by the gas is

(A) 6P₀V₀
(B) -2P₀V₀
(C) +2P₀V₀
(D) +4P₀V₀
Answer:
Option (C) is correct
OR
Option (B) is correct
Explanation: Work done = ΔP × ΔV
= (2P₀ – P₀)(3V₀ – V₀) = 2P₀V₀
∴ Cyclic process is anticlockwise,
∴ Work done by the gas is negative.

Question 9.
A cylinder containing an ideal gas is in vertical position and has a piston of mass M that is able to move up or down without friction. If the temperature is increased

(A) both P and V of the gas will change.
(B) only P will increase according to Charles’s law.
(C) V will change but not P.
(D) P will change but not V. [1]
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: P = $\frac{F}{A}$ = $\frac{m g}{A}$ = constant
∴ V ∝ T (at constant pressure)

Question 10.
The relation between acceleration and displacement of four particles are given below :
(A) a_x = + 2x.
(B) a_x = + 2x²
(C) a_x = – 2x²
(D) a_x = – 2x.
Which one of the particles is executing simple harmonic motion ? [1]
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: Because for SHM,
a_x ∝ (-x)

Question 11.
What is the sign of work done by a frictional force ? [1]
Answer:
The frictional force act opposite to direction of motion, hence the work done by a frictional force is a negative

Question 12.
Find the angle between $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ = $\hat{i}$ + $\hat{j}$ – 2$\hat{k}$ and $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$ = $\hat{i}$ + $\hat{j}$ – $\hat{k}$. [1]
Answer:
We have

Question 13.
Can a rocket operate in free space ?
OR
Why is it easier to roll than to pull a barrel along a road ? [1]
Answer:
yes.
OR
It is due to the fact that rolling friction is less than sliding friction.

Question 14.
Convert 1 kWh in Joule.
OR
A spring is stretched. Is the work done by the stretching force positive or negative ? [1]
Answer:
1 kWh = 1000 × 3600 Ws = 3.6 × 10⁶ J.
OR
Positive, because the force and the displacement are in the same direction.

Question 15.
Name at least two quantities each whose dimensions are:
(a) [ML^-1T²],
(b) [ML²T^-1]. [1]
Answer:
(a) Pressure and stress.
(b) Planck’s constant and angular momentum.

Question 16.
Where does a body weight more at the pole or at the equator ? [1]
Answer:
A body weighs more at the pole.

Question 17.
Name the parameter which is measure of the degree of elasticity of a body. [1]
OR
What is Van der Waals force ?
Answer:
Coefficient of restitution.
OR
It is force of attraction between molecules. The origin of this force is electrical.

Question 18.
What is Mayer’s relation ? [1]
Answer:
Mayer’s relation is C_P – C_V = R.

Question 19.
Why a point on a rotating wheel cannot be considered as executing S.H.M. ? [1]
Answer:
The motion of rotating points on wheel is not oscillatory but is only periodic.

Question 20.
What is the distance between a compression and its nearest rarefaction in a longitudinal wave ? [1]
Answer:
Distance between a compression and adjoining rerefaction is λ/2.

Read the following text and answer any 4 of the following questions on the basis of the same:

Large distances such as the distance of a planet or a star from the earth cannot be measured directly with a metre scale. An important method in such cases is the parallax method.

When you hold a pencil in front of you against some specific point on the background (a wall) and look at the pencil first through your left eye A (closing the right eye) and then look at the pencil through your right eye B (closing the left eye), you would notice that the position of the pencil seems to change with respect to the point on the wall. This is called parallax. The distance between the two points of observation is called the basis. In this example, the basis is the distance between the eyes.

To measure the distance D of a far away planet S by the parallax method, we observe it from two different positions (observatories) A and B on the Earth, separated by distance AB = b at the same time as shown in Fig.
We measure the angle between the two directions along which the planet is viewed at these two points. The ∠ASB in figure represented by symbol θ is called the parallax angle or parallactic angle.

As the planet is very far away, $\frac{b}{D}$ < < 1 and therefore, θ is very small. Then we approximately take AB as an arc of length b of a circle with centre at S and the distance D as the radius AS = BS so that AB = b = DG where θ is in radians, then
D = $\frac{b}{\mathrm{q}}$
Answer:

Question 21.
In parallax method the distance between two observation points is called [1]
(A) Base
(B) Basis
(C) Distance
(D) Basic
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: The distance between the two observatories is the “basis”.

Question 22.
A star at a distance 8 × 10⁸ km is being observed from Vainu Bappu Observatory, Kavalur and ARIES Observatory, Nainital is being observed. The distance between the observatories is 2500 km. What is the “basis” of this measurement? [1]
(A) 2500 km
(B) 1250 km
(C) 5000 km
(D) Data is insufficient to calculate
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Question 23.
A star at a distance 2.5 × 10⁸ km is being observed from Vainu Bappu Observatory, Kavalur and ARIES Observatory, Nainital. The distance between the observatories is 2500 km. What is the value of parallax angle? [1]
(A) 625 × 10⁸ radian
(B) 10^-5 radian
(C) 10⁵ radian
(D) 10^-5 degree
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: b = Dθ
b = 2500 km, D = 2.5 × 10⁸ km
So, θ = $\frac{b}{D}$ = $\frac{2500}{2.5 \times 10^8}$ = 10^-5 radian

Question 24.
Under which condition D = $\frac{b}{q}$ relation is valid? [1]
(A) $\frac{b}{D}$ << 1 (B) $\frac{b}{D}$ >> 1
(C) $\frac{D}{b}$ << 1
(D) $\frac{D}{b}$ = 1
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Question 25.
When you hold an ice-cream cone in front of you against some specific point on the background (a wall) and look at it first through your left eye (closing the right eye), it seems to be at position B. Now if you look at it through your right eye (closing the left eye), you will notice that now it is at position A.
What is the “basis” of this observation?

(A) AB
(B) LR
(C) $\frac{(\mathrm{LR}+\mathrm{AB})}{2}$
(D) LR + AB [1]
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Section – B

Question numbers 26 to 30 carry 2 marks each.

Question 26.
Why automobiles tyres have generally irregular projections over their surface ? [2]
OR
Explain how lubricants reduce friction.
Answer:
The automobile tyres have generally irregular projections over their surface so as to :

Increase friction,
Increase the grip with the ground and thus avoiding their skidding.

The lubricants spread as a thin layer between the two surfaces. Lubricants like oil, grease fill up the irregularities of the surfaces, making them smoother.

Question 27.
In given figure a block is placed at height of 5m, find its speed at the bottom. [2]

A silica glass rod has a diameter of 1 cm and is 10 cm long. Estimate the largest mass that can be hung from it without breaking it. (breaking stress of glass = 50 × 10⁶ Nm^-2)
Answer:
Here, υ = $\sqrt{2 g h}$
where, g = 10 m/s² and h = 5m
∴ v = $\sqrt{2 \times 10 \times 5}$ ms
= 10 ms^-1

Breaking strength of glass is 50 × 10⁶ Nm^-2.
Using, Stress = $\frac{F}{A}$,
we get, F = stress × A

Question 28.
Why is mercury preferred as a thermo-metric fluid ? [2]
Answer:

Mercury is a shining bright fluid so it is easily visible in the glass tube.
It is good thermal conductor.

Question 29.
When a pendulum clock gains time, what adjustments should be made ? [2]
Answer:
When a pendulum clock gains time, it means it has gone fast, i.e., it makes more vibrations per day than required.

This shows that the time period of oscillations has decreased. Therefore, to correct it, the length of pendulum should be properly increased.

Commonly Made Error
Mostly students are confused to solve this problem.

Answering Tip
Students should learn about concept of simple pendulum.

Question 30.
At what distance from the mean position is the K.E. in simple harmonic oscillator equal to EE. ? [2]
Answer:
When the displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. is y, then its
K.E. = $\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2\left(A^2-y^2\right)$
and P.E. = $\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2$
If K.E. = P.E.
then, $\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2\left(A^2-y^2\right)$
= $\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 y^2$
or 2y² = A²
∴ y = $\frac{A}{\sqrt{2}}$

Section – C

Question numbers 31 to 37 carry 3 marks each.

Question 31.
On a 60 km straight road, a bus travels the first 30 km with a uniform speed of 30 kmh^-1. How fast must the bust travel the next 30 km so as to have average speed of 40 kmh^-1 for the entire trip? [3]
Answer:

Question 32.
Define centripetal acceleration. Find the expression for it. Give one example of centripetal force. [3]
Answer:
Acceleration acting on the object undergoing uniform circular motion is called centripetal acceleration.
Expression : Consider a particle of mass m, moving with a constant speed υ and uniform angular velocity ω, on a circular path of radius r with centre at O.

when Δt → 0 then $\frac{|\Delta \vec{v}|}{\Delta t}$ represents the magnitude of centripetal acceleration at B, which is given by

Example of centripetal acceleration is a stone moved around tied to the string.

Question 33.
Prove that instantaneous power is given by the dot product of force and velocity, i.e., P = $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \vec{v}$ [3]
Answer:
Suppose, ΔW be the amount of work done in a small time interval Δt, when P_av be the average power, then
P_aυ = $\frac{\Delta W}{\Delta t}$ ….. (i)
When P be the instantaneous power, then

where, $\vec{F}$ = constant force producing a displacement
∴ From equations (ii) and (iii),
P = $\frac{d}{d t}(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \vec{s})$
= $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \frac{\overrightarrow{d s}}{d t}$ = $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}} \cdot \vec{v}$

Question 34.
What are the conditions under which a rocket fired from the earth, launches an artificial satellite of earth ?
OR
Why does moon has no atmosphere ? [3]
Answer:
Following are the basic conditions :

The rocket must take the satellite to a suitable height above surface of earth.
From the desired height, the satellite must be projected with a suitable velocity, called the orbital velocity.
In the orbital path of satellite, the air resistance should be negligible so that its velocity does not decrease and it does not burn due to the heat produced.

Moon has no atmosphere because the value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on surface of moon is small. Therefore, the value of escape velocity on the surface of the moon is small (only 2-5 km.s^-1). The molecules of the atmospheric gases on the surface of the moon have thermal velocities greater than the escape velocity. That is why all the molecules of gases have escaped and there is no atmosphere on moon.

Question 35.
An air bubble of radius r rises steadily through a liquid of density ρ at the rate of υ. Neglecting density of air, find the coefficient of viscosity of liquid.
OR
What is column pressure ? Derive a relation for the same. [3]
Answer:
Buoyant force = weight of liquid displaced

Pressure exerted by a liquid due to its height is called column pressure.
Consider two points X and Y to be lying on the top and bottom circular faces of an imaginary cylinder of liquid. Let area of the circular faces be a each and height of the cylinder be h. If pressure exerted at point X is P_x and at Y is P_y, then

F_x = P_xa acting downward. Weight of this cylinder, W = mg = Vρg = ahρg is also acting downward. So total downward force = F_x + W = P_xa + ahρg
The lower face of the cylinder experiences upward force given by
F_y = P_ya.
In equilibrium, F_y = F_x + W
or P_ya = P_xa + ahρg
or (P_y – P_x) = hρg
or P = hρg

Question 36.
Calculate the average kinetic energy for one molecule of gas at constant volume. [3]
Answer:
Pressure exerted by one mole of gas

∴ Total random K.E. for one mole = $\frac{3}{2}$ RT
and average K.E. per molecule = $\frac{3}{2}$K_BT

Question 37.
Velocity and displacement of a body executing S.H.M. are out of phase by π/2. Why ? [3]
Answer:
Let displacement on y-axis is given by
y = asin ωt,
where a is the amplitude, ω is the angular velocity and t is the instantaneous time.
Then velocity is given by
υ = $\frac{d y}{d x}$ = aωcos ωt = aωsin $\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+\omega t\right)$

The above equation clearly shows that displacement and velocity of a body executing S.H.M. are out of phase by $\frac{\pi}{2}$

Section – D

Question numbers 38 to 40 carry 5 marks each.

Question 38.
Define null vector. What are its properties ? What is its physical significance ? [5]
OR
What do you understand by rectangular resolution of a vector ? Resolve it into its two rectangular components.
Answer:
It is defined as a vector having zero magnitude and acting in the arbitrary direction. It is denoted by $\overrightarrow{0}$.

Properties of null vector:

(i) The addition or subtraction of zero vector from a given vector is again the same vector.
i.e., $\overrightarrow{A}$ – $\overrightarrow{0}$ = $\overrightarrow{A}$

(ii) The multiplication of null vector by a non-zero real number is again the zero vector.
i.e., n.$\overrightarrow{0}$ = $\overrightarrow{0}$

(iii) If n₁ $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ = n₂ $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$, where n₁ and n₂ are non-zero real numbers. Then the relation will hold good.
if $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ = $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$ = $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{0}}$
i.e., both $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ and $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$ are null vectors.

Physical significance of null vector: It is useful in describing the physical situation involving vector quantities.
e.g., $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ – $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ = $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{0}}$
$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{0}}$ × $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ = $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{0}}$

It is defined as the factors of splitting a given vector in two or three component vectors at right angles to each other. The components vectors are called rectangular component of the given vector.

Let $\vec{R}$ be the given vector acting in X-Y plane at an angle θ with X-axis. Draw CA and CB on X and Y axes respectively. If $\vec{P}$ and $\vec{Q}$ be the rectangular components of $\vec{R}$ along X and Y axes respectively, then

Now in right angled ΔOAC,

Also according to Δ law of vector addition,

Thus if $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}_x}$ and $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}_y}$ be the two rectangular components of $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ along X and Y axes respectively,
then $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$ = $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}_x \hat{i}$ + $\vec{A}_y \hat{j}$

Question 39.
A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface inclined to horizontal at an angle of 30° by a force of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface (Fig). The coefficient of friction between block and the in line is 0.1. If the block is pushed up by 10 m along the incline, calculate

(A) work done against gravity
(B) work done against force of friction
(C) increase in potential energy
(D) increase in kinetic energy
(E) work done by applied force.
OR
A curved surface is shown in Fig. The portion BCD is free of friction. There are three spherical balls of identical radii and masses. Balls are released from rest one by one from A which is at a slightly greater height than C.

With the surface AB, ball 1 has large enough friction to cause rolling down without slipping; ball 2 has a small friction and ball 3 has a negligible friction.
(A) For which ball is total mechanical energy conserved ?
(B) Which ball (s) can reach D ?
(C) For balls which do not reach D, which of the balls can reach back A ? [5]
Answer:
m = 1 kg, θ = 30°, cos 30° = 0.866, sin 30° = 0.5
F = 10 N, μ = 0.1
Distance d = 10 m
(A) W_g = mg sin θ = 1 × 10 × 0.5 × 10 = 50J
(B) W₁ = μmg cos θ = 0.1 × 1 × 10 × 0.866 × 10
= 8.66J
(C) ΔU = mgh = 1 × 10 × 5 = 50J
(D) a = {F – (mgsin 30° + μmgcos 30°)}
or, a = 10 – (1 × 10 × 0.5 + 0.1 × 1 × 10 × 0.87)
= 4.13 m/s²
Apply 3rd Kinematic equation of motion,
υ² – u² = 2ad
Change in KE,
ΔK = $\frac{1}{2} m v^2$ – $\frac{1}{2} m v^2$ = mad = 41.3J

(E) Work done = Force × displacement
= 10 × 10 J
= 100 J

(A) Force of friction is zero and negligible for ball 1 & 3 respectively, so energy is conserved for balls 1 and 3.
(B) Ball 1 acquires rotational energy, ball 2 loses energy by friction. They cannot cross at C. Ball 3 can cross over.
(C) Ball 3 have negligible friction & crosses C so ball can not reach at A.
Ball 1, 2 turn back before reaching C. Because of loss of energy, ball 2 cannot reach back to A. Ball 1 has a rotational motion in “wrong” sense when it reaches B. It cannot roll back to A, because of kinetic friction.

Question 40.
State and explain Gay Lussac’s law. [5]
Answer:
It states that if the volume remains constant, the pressure of a given mass of a gas increases or decreases by its pressure at 0°C for each 1°C rise or fall in temperature.
If P₀ and P_t are the pressure of a given mass of gas at 0°C and t°C respectively, then according to Gay Lussac’s law
P_t = P₀$\left(1+\frac{t}{273.15}\right)$
or P_t = P₀$\left(\frac{273.15+t}{273.15}\right)$
or P_t = P₀$\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{T}_0}$
where T₀ (K) = 273.15
and T(K) = 273.15 + t
$\frac{P_t}{P_0}$ = $\frac{\mathrm{T}}{\mathrm{T}_0}$
$\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{T}}$ = constant
or P ∝ T

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Set 3 with Solutions

April 18, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Set 3 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) “Who doesn’t know how to cook rice? Cooking rice hardly takes time.” said my father. So, I challenged myself I switched from news to YouTube and typed, ‘How to cook rice?’ I took one and a half cup of rice. Since I didn’t have access to a rice cooker, I put the rice in a big pot. Firstly, the rice has to be washed to get rid of dust and starch.

I thought I won’t be able to drain the rice and that it will fall out of the pot. I observed the chef as I swirled the rice around and used my dexterous hands to drain it not once, not twice, but three times. I looked down at the sink and saw less than 50 grains that made their way out of the pot. Suffice to say, I was up to the mark.

(2) The video stated that the key to perfect rice is equal amounts of rice and water. I have heard that professionals don’t need to measure everything: they just know what the right amount is. But as this was my first time in the kitchen, I decided to experiment by not measuring the water needed for boiling the rice.

I wanted the rice to be firm when bitten, just like pasta. I don’t enjoy the texture of mushy rice. It has to have that chutzpah: it has to resist my biting power just for a bit before disinte grating.

(3) After what seemed like 10 minutes, all the water disappeared. I went in to give it a good stir. To my surprise, some of the rice got stuck to the pot I tried to scrape it off but to no avail At the same time, there was a burning smell coming from it. I quickly turned the stove off ‘What have you done to the kitchen?” shouted Mother, while coming towards the kitchen. I managed to ward her off.

(4) Finally, when the time came to taste my creation, I was surprised! It wasn’t bad at all. The rice had the desired consistency. Sure, a little more salt would’ve been better, but I just added that while eating. The experience was fairly rewarding and memorable.

It taught me a new sense of respect for those who cook food on a regular basis at home or engage in gourmet creations professionally. Based on your reading of the passage, answer the questions by choosing correct option.
(A) Father’s question to the narrator, about knowing how to cook rice, was intended to ………………… [1]
Answer:
make the process sound simple.

(B) “I switched from news to YouTube …”Pick the option in which the meaning of ‘switched)’ is NOT the same as it is in the passage.
(a) He switched on the radio to listen to the news while having dinner.
(b) “Forget these diet supplements and switch to yoga, if you want a true sense of well-being.”
(c) Mom switched to reading fiction recently because she was bored with cook-books.
(d) The company will switch the trucks to other routes to bring down city pollution. [1]
Answer:
(a) He switched on the radio to listen to the news while having dinner.
Explanation: In the passage, ‘switched’ is used t0 mean a in interest or choice. Options b, c, and d all show the same

(C) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the process.
(1) Use water to wash the rice.
(2) Repeat the process three times.
(3) Drain the water off.
(4) Put rice in a utensil.
(5) Swirl the water in and around the rice.
(a) (4), (2), (1), (3), (5)
(b) (1), (3), (2), (5), (4)
(c) (4), (1), (5), (3), (2)
(d) (5), (1), (2), (4), (3) [1]
Answer:
(c) (4), (1), (5). (3), (2)
Explanation: As given in the passage, first we need to put the rice in a utensil (point 4). Therefore, options b and d are not correct. Rice is washed in the second step (point 1). Hence, option a is also ruled out. Therefore, option c is the correct answer.

(D) The narrator says that he has dexterous hands. He would have had a problem had it been the opposite. NOT BEING dexterous means, being …………………. [1]
Answer:
clumsy
Explanation: One who is dextrous is good with his/her hands. If the author had not been dexterous he would have been clumsy, which refers to someone who is awkward in handling things.

(E) How did Mother react to the burning smell? [1]
Answer:
The mother enquired about it.

(F) According to the passage, the fact that the narrator risked experimentation, on his maiden attempt in the kitchen, shows that he was ……………….. [1]
Answer:
presumptuous
Explanation: The narrator was conscientious (aware of one’s duties). She was not at all courteous as she didn’t ask anyone for help. We can definitely say she was presumptuous as she took the risk of experimenting during his very first attempt at cooking.

(G) Pick the option showing the CORRECT use of the word ‘chutzpah’.
(a) It is the court’s duty to dispense chutzpah to everyone irrespective of caste or creed.
(b) The speaker may not have much of a stage presence, but you’ve got to ad¬mit she’s got chutzpah.
(c) I could crack the code easily which proved me to be a chutzpah and I was the only one who could do so.
(d) After his father’s demise, the daughter took over the family’s chutzpah to save it from disaster. [1]
Answer:
(b) The speaker may not have much of a stage presence, but you’ve got to admit she’s got chutzpah.
Explanation: Chutzpah means self confidence. A court of law cannot dispense self-confidence to anyone so (a) is not the answer. Expertise in something is not chutzpah, so (c) is not the correct answer. No one can take over someone’s confidence to help them emotionally/financially, so (d) is incorrect. Option (b) is the correct answer because it shows the self-confidence of the speaker.

(H) Which option represents the correct ratio of water to rice for cooking ‘perfect rice’?

(a) Image 1
(b) Image 2
(c) Image 3
(d) Image 4 [1]
Answer:
(a) Image 1
Explanation: The narrator tells us that there should be equal amounts office and water. This is shown in image 1. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

(I) Pick the option that correctly states what DID NOT happen after the writer checked on the rice.
(a) Turning the stove off.
(b) Being taken aback at the condition of rice.
(c) Forgetting to scrape the stuck rice.
(d) SmelLing the delicious aroma of cooked rice. [1]
Answer:
(d) Smelling the delicious aroma of cooked rice
Explanation: When the narrator checked on the rice, he turned off the stove option (a). He was shocked to see the rice sticking to the bottom of the pan (option b). As he found that some of the rice was stuck, he scraped them off (option c). As the rice was a little burnt, he couldn’t smell the aroma of the cooked rice, so (d) is the answer.

(J) Does the following statement agree with the information given in the passage. The narrator’s creation was almost perfect to taste.
True: if the statement agrees with the information.
False: if the statement contradicts with the information.
Not Given: if then is no information on this. [1]
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below. 1 x 10=10
(1) The present generation is well updated in the use of internet and computers. The rapid development in computer technology and increase in accessibility of the internet for academic purposes has changed the face of education for everyone associated with it Let’s look at the data arising out of a recent survey that was done to ascertain the time spent on utilisation of the computer and internet:

(2) At present, many schools and universities have been implementing internet-based learning, as it supplements the conventional teaching methods. The internet provides a wide variety of references and information to academics as well as scientific researchers. Students often turn to it to do their academic assignments and projects.

(3) However, research on the Net is very different from traditional library research, and the differences can cause problems. The Net is a tremendous resource, but it must be used carefully and critically.

(4) According to a 2018 Academic Student e-book Experience Survey, conducted by LJ’s research department and sponsored by EBSCO, when reading for pleasure, almost 74% of the respondents said they preferred print books for leisure, whereas, 45% of respond ents chose e-books rather than the printed versions, for research or. assignments.

(5) When asked what e-book features make them a favourite for research, the respondents were clear. Having page numbers to use in citations, topped the list (75%); followed by the ability to resize text to fit a device’s screen (67%); the ability to bookmark pages, highlight text, or take notes for later reference (60%); downloading the entire e-book (57%); and allowing content to be transferred between devices (43%) were the varied responses.
On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions.
(A) According to the passage, one of the reasons for the recent transformation of education is ………………. [1]
Answer:
The easy availability of the Internet

(B) Pick the option that list statements that are NOT TRUE according to the passage.
(1) Internet-based education can only complement familiar methods of education.
(2) Net-based learning will replace face- to-face education.
(3) The resources that the net provides are a danger to the education system.
(4) The current times have seen a rise in the convenience of using the internet for academic purposes.
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (3) and (4)
(c) (2) and (3)
(d) (1) and (4) [1]
Answer:
(c) (2) and (3)
Explanation: Point 1 is true as given in para 2. Point 2 is not true as the author has not given any citations to support this. As the author says that the students use the Internet to do their assignments and projects, point 3 is also not true. Point 4 is true as we can see from the survey data. Hence (c) is the correct answer.

(C) The word ‘tremendous’, as used in paragraph 3, can be SUBSTITUTED with ………………. [1]
Answer:
incredible
Explanation: Tremendous means very huge and in para 3 it refers to the vast source of information that is available on the Internet which is incredible.

(D) Arrange the given e-book features preferred for research from the least favourite to the most favourite, from the following:
(1) downloading the entire e-book.
(2) choosing page numbers in citations.
(3) highlighting text.
(4) resizing text to fit screen.
(a) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(b) (3), (2), (1), (4)
(c) (2), (4), (3), (1)
(d) (4), (1), (2), (3) [1]
Answer:
(a) (1), (3), (4), (2)
Explanation: According to the survey Point 1 is preferred by 57% of the respondents. Point 2 is the preference of 75% of the respondents.
Point 3 has 60% preference.
Point 4 is preferred by 67% of the respondents.
So, the order will be 1,3,4,2. Hence, (a) is the answer.

(E) “… but it must be used carefully and critically.” The idea of being careful and critical while using the internet, is mainly a reference to plagiarism. True/False. [1]
Answer:
True.
Explanation: Plagiarism means to present someone else’s work as one’s own creation. In the passage, the given line is used in context of the research done by students, so here it is used to mean plagiarism.

(F) Based on the given graphical representation of data in the passage, choose the option that lists the statements that are TRUE with respect to the usage of email.
(1) The everyday usage of email is more than the everyday usage of computer for personal use.
(2) About 18% people use email once a week.
(3) There are a smaller number of email users using it 2-3 times a week than the ones using it once a month.
(4) Less than 5% of people never use the email.
(a) (1) and (3)
(b) (2) and (4)
(c) (1) and (2)
(d) (3) and (4) [1]
Answer:
(b)(2) and (4)
Explanation: Everyday usage of computers for personal use is more than that of email so 1 is not true. Statement 2 is true. Statement 3 is not true as more people use email 2-3 times a week than those using it once a month. Statement 4 is true. Hence (b) is the answer.

(G) Based on the given graphical chart, which is the area of zero response from respondents. [1]
Answer:
Never using the internet for work and leisure

(H) In the cartoon, the student’s reaction reveals that he is ………………… [1]
Answer:
annoyed

(I) Which of the following statements is NOT substantiated by information in paragraph 4?
(a) About three-quarters of the respondents preferred print books for recreational reading.
(b) A little less than a 50% of the respondents voted for e-books for research or assignments.
(c) More than 50% respondents stated enjoying both versions of books for leisure reading.
(d) The survey was intended for understanding the e-book experience among students. [1]
Answer:
(c) More than 50% stated enjoying both versions of books for leisure reading.
Explanation: The survey was conducted to understand the e-book usage experience so (d) is true, (a) is true as 74% of the respondents preferred printed books for leisure reading, (b) is also true as 45% preferred using e-books for research or assignments. Hence, (c) is the correct answer.

(J) According to the 2018 survey, which is the option that correctly displays the features of:
(A) page numbers for use in citation and
(B) content transfer between devices respectively.

(a) Graph (1)
(b) Graph (2)
(c) Graph (3)
(d) Graph (4) [1]
Answer:
(b) Graph (2)
Explanation: According to the respondents, page number citation is a favourite at 75% and content transfer preference is 43%, so (b) is the correct answer.

Section – B
Creative Writing Skills (20 marks)

Question 3.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following
You are Nidhi/Naveen Garg, Sports Captain, St. Teresa High School. There is an upcoming basketball tournament in the city. The school decides to keep a meeting to discuss the plans and strategies for the tournament. Draft a notice in not more than 50 words to inform the basketball teams and the members of Sports Club to attend the same.
OR
You are Rachael/Rueben, President of the Wellness Cell of your school. You decide to organise a workshop, to raise awareness of the importance of mental health. This workshop would be conducted by the school counsellor. Write a notice in about 50 words, informing the students of class XI-XII about the workshop. [5]
Answer:
St. Teresa High School
NOTICE
25th October, 20XX
Meeting regarding the City Basketball Tournament
All the members of the school basketball team and the Sports Club are invited to j attend a meeting that has been organized j to discuss the plans and strategies for j the Coming City Basketball Tournament! The members shall report at 10:30 a.m. in the sports room on 26th October, 20XX. For further details, please contact the undersigned. Nidhi/Naveen Garg (Sports Captain)
OR
Notice
(format Name of issuing organisation, the word NOTICE in capitals, date, Title/heading + sign and name of issuing authority/person with designation)

For whom?
What? – a-mental health workshop to be conducted by the school counsellor.
When – date, month, year (accept all formats of writing date)
Where – (any plausible venue)
Benefits of the workshop-help us increase our understanding about mental health, deal with our problems better, etc (accept relevant inclusions)
Request to attend the same

Any other relevant detail/point shall be accepted.
No marks to be deducted for exceeding word limit

A.V. INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL NOTICE
24 OCT, 20XX
A HEALTHY MIND MATTERS
Given the unprecedented times and the need to create awareness about the importance of mental health, a special workshop for the students of Classes XI – XII will be conducted by the school counsellor.
On: Monday, 27th October 20XX
At: 9:00 am
In: AV room 1
Students must carry a notepad and pen and be seated by 8:45 am. For further queries, contact the undersigned.
Rueben/Rachael
President
Wellness Club

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following:
You are Dr. Stanzin, a certified art therapist from Leh. You have been invited by G. D Public School, Jammu, to conduct a seminar for students on ‘Art Therapy the Way Forward”. This seminar is to introduce students to the usefulness of art in analysis, using appropriate format and fluency, appropriacy of style and tone analysis, using appropriate format and fluency, appropriacy of style and tone dealing with personal and social problems. Write your reply, in about 50 words accepting the invitation.
OR
You are Rukmini/ Raja of R-201, Fort Road, Chennai. You have just purchased a new house. You decide to have a house-warming ceremony and invite your cousin Balajr. Write the invitation in 50 words giving all necessary details. [5]
Answer:
XYZ, Smile Zone
Leh
5th November 20XX
The Principal
G.D. Public School
Jammu
Subject: Accepting invitation to conduct seminar
Ma’am
I am grateful for the kind invitation to conduct a seminar on “Art Therapy—the Way Forward” on 15th November 20XX at 9:00 am.
The school is to be commended for the initiative and the effort will help in creating awareness into the therapeutic use of art.
Looking forward to a wonderful interactive session.
Yours sincerely Dr. Stanzin (Art Therapist)
OR
R-201, Fort Road
Chennai
15th December 20XX
Dear Balaji,
Hope you are doing welL I wanted you to be the first one to know that I have bought the house I told you about. We plan to move into the new house soon.
This is to invite you to the house-warming ceremony on 25th December 20XX at 9:00 am, followed by lunch. You must bring your parents with you to attend the ceremony and be a part of the celebrations.
Looking forward to meet
you soon.
Yours lovingly Rukmani/Raja

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following:
You are Shubha/Krushna Mohanty, residing in Subhadra Apartments, Bhuvneshwar, Orissa. You have observed, with increasing concern, that garbage collection continues to be done without segregation in your neighbourhood. Write a letter to the editor of The Real Times, Bhuvneshwar, in about 120-150 words, explaining your concern along with the rationale behind the importance of garbage segregation. Suggest ways in which the RWAs can participate in this program.

OR
You are Aami/ Ajoy Sarkar of 83, Model Town, Guwahati, Assam. You are a sports enthusiast. Rangshala School, Guwahati, has advertised the requirement of a Sports teacher, in the local newspaper. You are excited and decide to apply for the post. Write a letter in 100-120 words, responding to the given advertisement, submitting your candidature with a detailed bio-data.
Rangshala School, Guwahati
SPORTS TEACHER NEEDED
A P.T.I needed (B.P.Ed); national level player; coaching experience preferred. Specialisation In volleyball/ hockey – a pre-requisite. Salary inclusive of PF. Apply with bio-data, addressed to the principal at 108, Model Town, Guwahati. [5]
Answer:
Subhadra Apartments
Bhuvneshwar
Orissa
20th October 20XX
The Editor
The Real Times
Bhuvneshwar
SUBJECT: LACK OF WASTE SEGREGATION
Sir,
Through the column of your esteemed newspaper, I wish to draw the attention of the general public and the concerned authorities towards the inept method of garbage disposal. The garbage collectors do not insist on waste segregation and if waste is segregated, they mix it up. People do not bother to segregate waste before handing it to the garbage collectors.

Non-segregation of waste means that more and more waste goes to the landfill, adding to the danger for the environment. Given the importance of waste segregation for the health of the public as well as the environment, strict measures need to be enforced. The municipal department must ” work in tandem with the RWAs to create awareness about the issue. Strict guidelines must be shared and the segregation and disposal must be monitored. Your widely circulated daily must carry out campaigns to create awareness. I hope that all concerned work as a united force to achieve this aim.
Yours sincerely
Krushna Mohanty
OR
83, Model Town
Guwahati
Assam
3rd March 20XX
The Director
Rangshala School
Guwahati
SUBJECT: APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF SPORTS TEACHER
Dear Madam,
This is with the reference to the advertisement published in The Times of India, dated 1st March 20XX, for the post of Sports Teacher. I wish to apply for the same.

My qualifications are as per your requirement. I have done my D.P.Ed from NIS Patialaand I am presently working with DPS Shillong. I am willing to relocate as I am aware that your prestigious institution will provide me with an opportunity to train students using the latest methods.

If I am given the opportunity to serve your reputed organization, I assure you that I would prove to be an asset. My bio-data is attached for your kind perusal.
Yours sincerely
Aami Sarkar

Bio-Data
Name : Aami Sarkar
Father’s Name : Niranjan Sarkar
Date of Birth : 02-12-19XX
Contact Address : 183, Modern Town, Shillong
Email : [email protected]
Educational qualification :

S.No.	Class/degree	Board/university	Institution	Year	% scored
1	Class X	CBSE	SDA School	19XX	84
2.	Class XII	CBSE	SDA School	20XX	94
3	MA Phy. Edn	Assam University	Mt Carmel College	20XX	88
4	D.P.Ed	Sports Authority of India	NIS Patiala	20XX	80

Prior Work Experience : PGT Physical Education at DPS Shillong, from March 2015 to present.
References : Mr K Ali, Addtl Director, DPS Shillong 9925XXXXXX
Ms Kavya, Tennis Coach, Ace Academy 7654XXXXXX

TESTIMONIALS ENCLOSED HEREWITH
The information given above is true to the best of my knowledge.
Aami Sarkar
3rd March 20XX

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following:
While reading about new places and searching for them online has its merits, the advantages of actually travelling to various destinations far exceed them. Write an article in 120-150 words for the magazine Travel Times, evaluating both these options. You may use the cues given below along with your own ideas. You are Amrit/ Amrita.

Builds confidence
Make friends and memories
Experience new cultures
Expands knowledge

OR
Ranikhet district, Uttarakhand, on the occasion of Basant Panchami celebrations had organized a three-day cultural festival. You are Bhupinder/ Priyanka Bhisht. Your newspaper had deputed you to cover the inaugural event of this festival. As a newspaper reporter, use the given cues along with your own ideas to write a report about the same in 120-150 words.

Big crowds -main grounds of the marketplace
Colourful decorations
Inauguration-local panchayat member to inaugurate.
Folk dance and songs
Speeches [5]

Answer:
Travel to Understand the World
By Amrita Class XII D
“Travel makes one modest, you see what a tiny place you occupy in the world.”
Gustave Flaubert
If school builds and expands our academic horizons, then travel teaches us about people and life. We learn from the people we meet, things we see and experience. Reading about a place or seeing pictures cannot match the . real-life experiences.

When we start to travel and see new places, we realize that there is much more in this world than our comfort zones. In our daily routines, it is not always possible to appreciate the nature surrounding us or the richness of cultures in different countries. Travelling teaches us how to manage time and also manage within the . resources available to us, thus making us more independent and more confident.

In addition to this, we also learn about new ” cultures and languages. People should try to ledrn at least some important’ foreign words in order to communicate! It also helps us to develop people skills and enhance our communication skills. When we come back home from our travels, we are not tired or spent, rather we come back enriched with memories of wonderful people and places.
OR
Ushering In Spring
Priyanka Bhisht, Reporter.
Ranikhet district was decorated in vibrant colours to usher in spring and celebrate Basant Panchami. The annual festival draws large crowd each year and this year was no different.

The ground was overflowing with large crowd dressed in the state costume and the sky was filled with beautiful kites. The market and the entire district was decorated and the people waited eagerly for the festivities to begin. At 9:00 am the chief guest arrived and the inauguration ceremony began with the lighting of the lamp. This was followed by a special prayer seeking the blessings of Goddess Saraswati. Roul, a tourist from Spain, spoke to us, “I am so glad that I decided to come here. This is India at her best. The amazing colours and dances are spectacular.”

The folk dancers and singers from the neighbouring districts kept the spectators enthralled. Gayathri, a folk dancer from Nainital said, “The interest of the crowd and their applause keeps us motivated and we come here every year to entertain them.” Festivals like this serve a reminder of our rich heritage. More such festivals should be organized in the cities to showcase the vibrant culture of our country.

Section – C
Literature (40 marks)

Question 7.
Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY ONE of the two given by answering the questions that follow. (1 x 6 = 6)
“Aunt Jennifer’s tigers prance across a screen,
Bright topaz denizens of a world of green.
They do not fear the men beneath the tree;
They pace in sleek chivalric certainty.
(A) ‘Aunt Jennifer’s tigers prance across a screen’. The ‘screen’ here indicates:
(a) window
(b) television screen
(c) computer screen
(d) embroidery panel [1]
Answer:
(d) embroidery panel
Explanation: The ‘screen’ refers to the embroidery panel or a piece of cloth on which Aunt is embroidering the tigers. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(B) List the poetic device used in the line ‘Bright topaz denizens’. [1]
Answer:
metaphor
Explanation: The given phrase is a metaphor with the help of which, the poet compares the bright colors of the tigers to a yellowish-orange stone called ‘topaz’. The term ‘denizens’ means citizens of the forest.

(D) ‘The tigers do not fear men beneath the tree’. Identify the characteristics of the tigers in the given phrase.
(a) ferocious
(b) sharp
(c) witty
(d) courageous [1]
Answer:
(d) courageous

(E) The given extract represents a …………………. between the Aunt and her tigers.
(a) similarity
(b) discrepancy
(c) contrast
(d) reflection [1]
Answer:
(c) contrast
Explanation: In the extract, there is a huge contrast between the aunt and the tiger as the former is timid and dominated by her husband while the latter is brave and independently fierce. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(F) Pick the correct rhyme scheme of the extract.
(a) aabc
(b) abab
(c) aabb
(d) abca [1]
Answer:
(a) aabc
OR
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read;
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink.
(A) The phrase ‘immortal drink’ refers to:
(a) the blessings of our ancestors
(b) the teachings of nature
(c) a life-giving force
(d) the beauty of heaven [1]
Answer:
(c) a life-giving force
Explanation: This poem is about nature’s blessing to we, humans. Immortal drink here refers to the nature’s teachings that we get when we hear or read the stories of our mighty forefathers. So (c) is the answer here.

(B) ‘All lovely tales’ evoke the feeling of:
(a) sadness and nostalgia
(b) only nostalgia
(c) inspiration and pride
(d) only pride [1]
Answer:
(a) sadness and nostalgia
Explanation: When we hear or read about the mighty tales of our forefathers, we are reminded about our mighty past, but at the same time we feel sad because we learn how they tried to tame the natural resources and in due course disturbed the natural balance. So here, (a) is the right answer.

(C) The rhyme scheme of the above extract is ………………… [1]
Answer:
aabb
Explanation: The last words of the first two lines of the paragraph rhyme. The last words of the next two lines rhyme. Thus, the rhyme scheme is aabb.

(D) The literary device used by the poet in the following lines is ………………
An endless fountain of immortal drink, Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink.
(a) personification
(b) allegory
(c) imagery
(d) synecdoche [1]
Answer:
(c) imagery
Explanation: Personification is when some non-human object is compared to a human being. So (a) this is not the answer. Option b is also incorrect as an allegory has a hidden meaning which is not present here. There is no representation of a part as a whole here so the expression is also not synecdoche. Hence, (d) is also incorrect In these lines the poet has drawn an image of a fountain that is flowing continuously from the edge of heaven. This fountain has a constant flow of nature’s teachings which is helping us humans to grow Thus, (c) imagery is the correct answer.

(E) We have imagined for the mighty dead. The underlined word means:
(a) angry
(b) peaceful
(c) great
(d) timid [1]
Answer:
(c) great

(F) ‘Pouring unto us’.
Who are ‘Us’ here? [1]
Answer:
‘Us’ here refre to the humankind

Question 8.
Read the extracts given below and attempt * ANY ONE of the two given by answering the questions that follow. (1 x 4 = 4)
MR LAMB : Mind the apples!
DERRY : What? Who’s that? Who’s there?
MR LAMB: Lamb’s my name. Mind the apples. Crab apples those are. Windfalls in the long grass. You could trip.
DERRY : I….there….I thought this was an empty place. I didn’t know there was anybody here…
MR LAMB : That’s all right. I’m here. What are you afraid of, boy? That’s all right.
DERRY : I thought it was empty…an empty house.
MR LAMB : So it is. Since I’m out here in the garden, it is empty. Until I go back inside. In the meantime, I’m out here and likely to stop. A day like this. Beautiful day. Not a day to be indoors.
DERRY : [Panic] I’ve got to go.
(A) “What? Who’s that? Who’s there?” What is Derry’s emotion in the given line? [1]
Answer:
(b) shocked
Explanation: The given line shows that Derry was ‘shocked’ to hear someone as he thought that the place was deserted.

(B) Why did Derry think that the place was empty?
Because the gates of the house were ………………..
(a) old and tarnished
(b) always closed
(c) always opened
(d) rusty and webbed [1]
Answer:
(c) always opened

(C) Mr. Lamb’s reaction to Derry suggests that he was a person. [1]
Answer:
welcoming
Explanation: Mr. Lamb’s reaction to Derry suggests us that he was a welcoming person who didn’t mind any one entering his home.

(D) From the given extract, you can say that Mr. Lamb was a:
(a) nature-loving person
(b) introvert
(c) reckless man
(d) freedom lover [1]
Answer:
(a) nature-loving person
OR
The man moaned with pain in his stupor but he did not awaken. “The best thing that we could do would be to put him back in the sea,” Sadao said, answering himself Now that the bleeding was stopped for the moment he stood up and dusted the sand from his handsTYes, undoubtedly that would be best,” Hana said steadily. But she continued to stare down at the motionless man. “If we sheltered a white man in our house we should be arrested and if we turned him over as a prisoner, he would certainly die,” Sadao said.

“The kindest thing would be to put him back into the sea,” Hana said. But neither of them moved. They were staring with curious repulsion upon the inert figure.
(A) Th man moaned with pain. Who is the ‘man’ referred to here?
(a) Sadao Hoki
(b) General
(c) An American soldier
(d) A Japanse intruder [1]
Answer:
(c) An American soldier

(B) List one characterstic that best describes Sadao in the passage. [1]
Answer:
wary

(C) “If we sheltered a white man in our house we should be arrested”. Why would they be ‘arrested’?
(a) As the man was not a Japanese national.
(b) As the man was an American enemy at the moment for them due to the war.
(c) As the man was a criminal
(d) As they weren’t allowed to treat any soldier. [1]
Answer:
(b) As the man was an American enemy at the moment for them due to the war.

(D) Choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
Statement 1: Sadao and Hana cared about the soldier but were worried about the consequences of being considerate.
Statement 2: Sadao and Hana wanted to shirk their responsibilities of looking after an injured soldier, who could be an American.
(a) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
(d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false. [1]
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
Explanation: According to the given extract, statement 1 is true and 2 is false. Hence a is the correct answer.

Question 9.
Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY ONE of the two given by answering the questions that follow. (1 x 6 = 6)
Food is more important for survival than an . identity. “If at the end of the day we can feed our families and go to bed without an aching stomach, we would rather live here than in the fields that gave us no grain,” say a group of women in tattered saris when I ask them why they left their beautiful land of green fields and rivers. Wherever they find food, they pitch their tents that become transit homes. Children grow up in them, becoming partners in survival. And survival in Seemapuri means rag-picking. Through the years, it has acquired the proportions of a fine apt Garbage to them is gold. It is their daily bread, a roof over their heads, even if it is a leaking roof. But for a child 1 it is even more.
(A) The phrase ‘transit homes’ refer to the dwellings that are.
(a) unhygienic
(b) inadequate
(c) fragile
(d) temporary [1]
Answer:
(d) temporary
Explanation: Transit means to carry things from one place to another. Here “transit homes” mean dwellings that are temporary.

(B) Identify the figure of speech used in the sentence “Garbage to them is gold”. [1]
Answer:
hyperbole

(C) Choose the term which best matches the statement “Food is more important for survival than an identity.”
(a) immorality
(b) necessity
(c) obligation
(d) ambition [1]
Answer:
(b) necessity
Explanation: Immorality, means wickedness which is not connected to survival or food. Option (c) obligation is to which a person is morally bound. Food requirement is not an obligation, Option (d) ambition is a strong desire to achieve something. Food is not an ambition, for survivaL Food is a necessity for survival Hence, (b) is the answer.

(D) What does ‘acquired the proportions of a fine art’ mean?
(a) Rag-picking has regained its lost status.
(b) A segment of ragpickers are skilled in fine arts.
(c) Rag-picking has attained the position of a skill.
(d) Only a few people are experts in rag-picking. [1]
Answer:
(c) Rag picking has attained the position of a skilL
Explanation: Fine art is something that requires some sort of skills. Here rag picking has been compared to fine art, that is, it is a skill So (c) is the correct answer.

(E) ‘And survival in Seemapuri means rag-picking.’ This shows that ………………… the people used to rag-pick in Seemapuri. [1]
Answer:
most of

(F) Choose the correct option based on the given statements.
(1) Children of Seemapuri consider garbage as gold as they would sometimes find some valuable item in it.
(2) Children of Seemapuri consider garbage as gold as they would sell it for the rates of gold.
(a) Statement (1) is true but (2) is false
(b) Statement (2) is true but (1) is false
(c) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
(a) Both statements (1) and (2) are false
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is true but 2 is false
OR
They had merely heard that a Mahatma who wanted to help them was in trouble with the authorities. Their spontaneous demonstration, in thousands, around the courthouse was the beginning of their liberation from fear of the British. The officials felt powerless without Gandhi’s cooperation.

He helped them regulate the crowd. He was polite and friendly. He was giving them concrete proof that their might, hitherto dreaded and unquestioned, could be challenged by Indians. The government was baffled. The prosecutor requested the judge to postpone the trial. Apparently, the authorities wished to consult their superiors.
(A) The officials felt powerless because:
(a) of Gandhi’s refusal to cooperate with them.
(b) of Gandhi’s polite and friendly behaviour.
(c) the crowd was listening only to Gandhi.
(d) the crowd was getting violent. [1]
Answer:
(c) the crowd was listening only to Gandhi.
Explanation: As the paragraph states, Gandhiji helped officials control the crowd. Hence (c) is the correct answer.

(B) The demonstration proved that the:
(a) policies of the British had failed
(b) dread instilled in the hearts of Indians had begun to lessen
(c) dealings with the Indian citizens had been unsuccessful
(d) might of the British had not been understood by Indians [1]
Answer:
(b) dread instilled in the hearts of Indians had begun to lessen
Explanation: The paragraph states that the demonstrations were proof that the might of the Britishers challenged. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

(C) Which style, from those given below, is being used by the author when he says,
“Apparently, the authorities wished to consult their superiors”? [1]
Answer:
sarcastic

(D) Gandhiji’s behaviour towards the British prior to the proposal of postponement of the trial was that of;
(a) indifference.
(b) calm acceptance.
(c) ignorance of consequences.
(d) polite helpfulness. [1]
Answer:
(b) calm acceptance
Explanation: Gandhiji was concerned about the happenings of the country. He was moved by the sequence of events going on in the country. So a, c, and d are ruled out He calmly accepted the events, hence (b) is the dnswer.

(E) The Government was baffled. This means that they were. [1]
Answer:
confused

(F) The Prosecutors requested the Judge to postpone the trial as they were unable to …………………
(a) control the huge angry crowd
(b) pacify the angry authorities
(c) arrest Gandhi
(d) make their mind to take a decision [1]
Answer:
(a) control the huge angry crowd

Question 10.
Attempt ANY FIVE out of the six questions given below, in 40-50 words each. (5 x 2 = 10)
(A) What does Neruda mean by ‘an exotic moment without rush’ in his poem, ‘Keeping Quiet’? [2]
(B) Explain the metaphor of the rattrap in context of the story by Selma Lagerlof. [2]
(C) Kamala Das speaks of ‘an old familiar ache…’ What do you think is the reason for this feeling? [2]
(D) Comment on the significance of the villagers sitting at the back in M. Hamel’s classroom. [2]
(E) ‘Little has moved with time, it seems, in Firozabad.’ State any one reason why the writer says this. [2]
(F) How does the poet use the image of ‘fingers fluttering through the wool’ to highlight Aunt Jennifer’s victimisation? [2]
Answer:
(A) According to Neruda, that moment when people would stop speaking any Language would be an exotic moment as it would mean that the differences have been resolved and peace can prevaiL The moment of silence would forge strong bonds of love.

(B) The rattrap serves as a metaphor for the world. The peddler believed that the world is like a rat trap where man gets lured by the bait and is then trapped in the vicious cycle of desires. The peddler also gets trapped when he gives in to the temptation of stealing the crofter’s money.

(C) Kamala Das had always feared of losing her mother and seeing her mother appear old and pale like a corpse. This old fear returned to haunt her. She was also filled with remorse that she hadn’t done enough for her mother and that she might lose her mother forever.

(D) The villagers sat at the back of the class as a mark of respect for M. Hamel and also to show how much they regretted their attitude towards learning. They realized their mistake of taking things for granted and not making an effort to learn their language and doing the same with their children.

(E) The author wants to convey that despite the leaps of progress and development across the country, no sign of progress can be seen in Firozabad. People are still caught in a vortex of poverty, illiteracy, and exploitation. There is no visible change in the condition of the bangle makers as no steps have been taken to improve their condition.

(F) The fluttering fingers convey the timidity of Aunt Jennifer, who is burdened by the responsibilities of marriage. She represents the women of a time who were bound by strict gender codes and had no rights. The extent of oppression is evident in the fact that the simple task of pilling the needle is onerous one for her.

Question 11.
Attempt ANY TWO out of the three questions given below, in 40-50 words each. (2 x 2 = 4)
(A) In his letter to Charley, Sam writes, ‘… then I got to believe you were right.’ What could have made Sam begin to believe? [2]
(B) When he was only ten days old, a prediction was made about the future of the Tiger King. What was ironic about it? [2]
(C) Sadao’s acceptance of the General’s plan to assassinate Tom was counterproductive to having put him on the path of recovery. Substantiate with reason/s. [2]
Answer:
(A) Sam always scoffed off Charley’s claims of having been to the third level He was however, taken in by the description of the third level and life of that period. In all probability he decided to look for the elusive third level and had been successful in finding it

(B) There was a weird prediction made when the crown prince Jung Jung Bahadur was ten days old. It was that he would die one day. The irony in the prediction was that it was not a miraculous prediction as everyone who is born has to die some day or the other.

(C) Sadao was caught in the middle. The doctor in him wanted to save the American and the call of humanity dictated that he protect the American from further torture and sure death. On the other hand his loyalty to his country prompted his acceptance of the General’s plan of killing Tom.

Question 12.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following questions in 120-150 words.
The story Deep Water talks about Douglas’ attempts to overcome his fear of water. The story can also be viewed as a figurative manifestation of life’s many challenges. Elaborate with reference to the text.
OR
How does the story, ‘Rattrap’ highlight the importance of community over isolation? Support your rationale with textual evidence. [5]
Answer:
“Deep Water” provides an insight into the paralyzing fear of water that held Douglas captive. The fear was the result of two near – drowning experiences he had as a child.

First at a beach when he was engulfed under a large wave and was knocked breathless. His father merely laughed without realizing the impact of the experience on the psyche of a five-year-old. This goes to show how other people cannot understand our battles. In life, the person who is undergoing the trauma knows the pain, while others might just brush it ofF as something trivial

Dougla’s fear was further aggravated when he nearly drowned in the YMCA pool The fear of water took control of his life. Douglas decided to overcome that fear and worked hard with his instructor. He challenged his fear and finally succeeded in overcoming it Similarly, life throws many challenges at us, but we must try and face the challenges bravely and defeat them.
OR
The peddler is a lonely man who struggles to make ends meet by selling rattraps and indulging in petty thievery. He is always turned away by people so he derives pleasure by thinking of the world as a trap and people losing their minds in trying to attain material goods.

He is taken by surprise when the old crofter welcomes him warm-heartedly and for the first time in his life he experiences human kindness and companionship. He realizes that human companionship is an integral part of life.

He meets the ironmaster who takes him for a comrade and invites him home. Edla is able to see through the peddler, yet she welcomes him into their home. The ironmaster realizes his mistake and wants to turn him out but Edla reminds him of Christmas being a time for sharing and helping. Her kindness brings about a change in the peddler and he gives up his old ways and decides to lead a reformed life. This goes on to show that human interaction and companionship is more important than isolation.

Question 13.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following questions in 120-150 words.
Mr. Lamb calls Derek his friend while Derek refuses his affirmatio. Would you consider their relationship with each other as friendship? Support your answer with refer¬ence to the instance(s) from the text.
OR
Charley saw a mind-blowing exotic scene at the Grand Central Station. Critically examine the things that Charley saw at the Grand Central Station. 5
meaning. Hence, (a) is the answer as here “switched” means to turn on. [5]
Answer:
The play “On The Face Of It” is about two people who face alienation from the society because of their challenges. Mr. Lamb has an artificial leg while Derry’s face is disfigured. Despite the common challenge, both handle their challenge? differently.

Mr. Lamb does not allow his impairment to cloud his view of people or the world. He is a positive person who welcomes everyone. He speaks plainly and tells Derry that he is a complete person, only a part of his face is burnt He accepts Derry the way he is and calls him a friend because for an optimist everyone is a friend.

Derry, on the other hand, is embittered and has allowed that to cloud his judgment. He believes that like everyone else, Mr. Lamb is also afraid of him or feels sorry for him. He refuses to believe that Mr. Lamb thinks of him as a friend. He also feels that other people might treat Mr. Lamb differently. Despite all his arguments he does come back to help Mr. Lamb, which makes us believe that friendship hod developed, between the two.
OR
When Charley entered the third level of the Grand Central Station, he saw a scenario that was completely different from the real-life modern things. Everything seemed to be of the old era. At the wooden ticket booth, there sat a man with green eyeshades and a long black sleeve protectors. When Charley looked around, he saw things like brass spittoons, men keeping pocket watches, wearing black button suits with small lapels, derby hats with a big handlebar moustache.

The fashion sense of people belonged to the 1890s. Men seemed to flaunt their big sideburns, moustache and beards. Women too seemed to follow the old era fashion as they wore leg-of-a-mutton sleeves and skirts. The train on the track was a steam engine and a newspaper named as The World’ was being sold, which stopped publishing long time ago in the present time.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 8 with Solutions

April 17, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Set 8 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hr.
Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions:

This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
Alt questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

SECTION – A (20 Marks)
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1-20)

Question 1.
On heating ferrous sulphate (green in colour), Bhawna observed that it turns into a brown coloured substance which also releases foul smelling gases as shown in the figure given below. (1)

Help her to identify the type of reaction that occurred on heating ferrous sulphate:
(a) Decomposition reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Combination reaction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Decomposition reaction
ExpLanation: A decomposition reaction is a reaction in which a single compound breaks

Question 2.
Which diagram dispLays the electrical, circuit for a home? (1)

Answer:

ExpLanation: Domestic electric give an idea of how power is supplied to homes using various types of switches. wires and circuits.

Question 3.
The following figure shows a type of movement in plants. (1)

(a) Hydrotropism
(b) Geotrapism
(c) Thigmotropism
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Thigmotropism
Explanation: Thigmotropism or curvature movement is a plant movement in response to touch/contact. The region of contact has less auxin and the other side have more auxin, thus, shows more growth. This unequal distribution of auxin causes the tendril to coil over the support.

Question 4.
Given below is the picture of tiny pores present on the green parts of the plants that help in gaseous exchange, identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram: (1)

(a) A – Subsidiary cell, B – Epidermal cell, C – Stomatal pore, D – Guard cell
(b) A – Epidermal cell, B – Subsidiary cell, C – Stomatal pore, D – Guard cell
(c) A – Guard cell, B – Subsidiary cell, C – Stomatal pore, D – Epidermal cell
(d) A – Epidermal cell, B – Guard cell, C – Stomatal pore, D – Subsidiary cell
Answer:
(b) A-Epidermal cell, B-Subsidiary cell, $C$ Stomatal pore, D-Guard cell
Explanation: Structure of Stomata

Related Theory
Stomatal pore: These are tiny pores present on leaf surface and green parts of plants, that help in gaseous exchange, transpiration and photosynthesis.

Guard cell: Helps in opening and closing of srom atol aperture.

Subsidiary cells: These are the cells that surround guard cells and may provide mechanical support to guard cell that facilitates guard cell movements. They can also act as a reservoir for water and ions. down into two or more substances (elements or compounds). Most decomposition reactions required an input of energj in the form of heat, light or electricity.

Epidermal cell: Forms the outermost layer of plants. The epidermis and its waxy cuticle provide protection against mechanical injury, water loss, and infection.

Question 5.
Gulshan wants to write a balanced chemical equation for the following chemical reaction. (1)

Help him to choose the correct option:
(a) 3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 3BaSO₄ + 2AICl₃
(b) BaCU + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → BaSO₄ + 2AICl₃
(c) 3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 3BaSO₄ + AlCl₃
(d) BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → BaSO₄ + AlCl₃
Answer:
(a) 3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 3BaSO₄ + 2AICl₃

Explanation: We can depict the number of atoms of elements in reactant side and product side in the equation:
3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 3BaSO₄ + 2AlCl₃, as:

Question 6.
The following picture of on experimental set-up shows the response of roots towards water: (1)

This response of plant or plant parts towards water is known as:
(a) thigmotropism
(b) geotropism
(c) phototropism
(d) hydrotropism
Answer:
(d) Hydrotropism

Explanation: The movement of pI.ant in response to concentration of water is termed as hydrotropism.

Related Theory

Thigmotropism: response to touch.
Geotropism: response to gravity.
Phototropism: response to light.

Question 7.
The following diagram shows the process of reproduction that occur in Plasmodium. (1)

Identify the type of reproduction:
(a) Budding
(b) Binary fission
(c) Spore formation
(d) Multiple fission
Answer:
(d) Multiple fission

ExpLanation: Multiple fission involves the ability of a cell to divide into several, cells during reproduction. Plasmodium divides by repeated division of cell to produce many daughter cells simuftaneously.

Related Theory

Budding: A mode of asexual reproduction in which a new organism develops from a small port of the parent’s body, which is termed as a bud. The bud which is formed, detaches from the parent’s body to develop into a new organism.

Binary fission: A type of asexual reproduction. usually found in prokaryotes like bacteria and a few single-celled eukaryotes. In this, there is a division of the parent cell into two new daughter cells.

Spore formation: Ir is a method of asexual reproduction, which involves formation of spores stored in sacs coiled sporangia. When these sporangia burst; minute single-celled. thin or thick walled structures called spores are dispersed and these develop into a new plant under suitable conditions.

Question 8.
Which of the following statements about magnetic lines of magnetic field is incorrect? (1)
(a) The north pole of a magnetic compass is assumed to point in the direction of the magnetic field at a point.
(b) Magnetic field lines are curled, closed lines.
(c) Zero field strength is represented by parallel and evenly spaced magnetic fteld lines.
(d) The degree of closeness of the field lines indicates the relative strength of the magnetic field.
Answer:
(c) Zero field strength ¡s represented by parallel and evenly spaced magnetic field lines.

Explanation: If magnetic field lines are parallel. in a given area of space, then that area has a homogeneous field strength.

Question 9.
The following picture shows a leaf which is tested with iodine solution, in an experiment – “Light is essential for photosynthesis”. (1)

Why does the uncovered part of the leaf turn blue black after addition of iodine solution?
(a) Starch reacts with iodine
(b) Chlorophyll reacts with iodine
(c) Sunlight causes colour change
(d) Chlorophyll reacts with starch
Answer:
(a) Starch reacts with iodine

Explanation: In the experiment – light is essential for photosynthesis”, a part of leaf was covered with black paper and the plant was then kept in sunlight. The uncovered part of the leaf performed photosynthesis in the presence of sunlight and produced starch. Therefore, when iodine is added, starch reacts with it to give a blue-black colour.

Caution
Students should know that the covered portion of the leaf could not get the sunlight as a result could not accumulate starch. Therefore, on addition of iodine, it does not turn blue-black.

Question 10.
Which of the following does not show how the environment may be harmed by the indiscriminate use of pesticides? (1)
(a) Overuse of DDT reduced the number of fish-eating bird species.
(b) Fish eating birds accumulated DDT as they moved down in the food chain.
(c) The formation of the egg shell was hampered.
(d) Due to the thinness of the shell it broke.
Answer:
(b) Fish eating birds accumulated DOT as they moved down in the food chain.

Explanation: Overuse of DDT reduced the number of fisheating bird species. Such birds accumulated DDT as they moved up the food chain. The formation of the egg shell was hampered. Due to the thinness of the shell and the weight of the bird during incubation, it broke. Consequently, their population declined.

Related Theory
The chemicals used to kill plant and animaL pests are known as pesticides. They ore toxic arid non-biodegradable.

Question 11.
Choose the hormone which is responsible for bending of plant shoot towards sunlight: (1)
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(a) Auxin

Exptanation:The plant shoot bends towards sunlight, as, auxin is produced in the stem and it diffuses towards the shady area and accumulates there leading to elongation of cells in that part. This differential elongation causes bending of shoot. This is also termed as phototropism.

Question 12.
Although the sex of an organism is genetically determined, there are some organisms whose sex is not genetically determined. Example of this is: (1)
(a) Lizard
(b) Human
(c) Dog
(d) Snail
Answer:
(d) Snail

Explanation: In some organisms, sex is not genetically determined i.e., it is not determined by the genes inherited from the parents. The organisms in which sex ¡s not genetically determined are snails, turtles.

Related Theory
In snails, the sex determination occurs by using physical contact, the larva develops into male if it is in association with the female, whereas if alone it forms female.

In some other organisms, the sex of an individual is temperature-dependent. The temperature which the fertilised eggs ore kept will determine the sex of new-born. The temperature of the developing eggs decides whether the offspring will be mole or female. In turrles temperature above 33°C produces females and below 28°C produces males.

Question 13.
Light refraction on a mirror is depicted in the figure. (1)

What conclusion can be drawn from the figure?
(a) Angle of incidence and reflection at the point of reflection all lie on the same plane.
(b) Angle of incidence and normal at the point of reflection all lie on the same plane.
(c) Angle of incidence and reflection at the point of refraction all lie on the same plane.
(d) Angle of incidence, reflection and normal at the point of reflection all lie on the same plane.
Answer:
(d) Angle of incidence, reflection and normal at the point of reflection all lie on the same plane.

Explanation: The figure shows that angle of incidence, reflection, and normal at the point of reflection all lie on the same plane.

Question 14.
Seeta studied in her biology lecture that plants produce oxygen during the process of photosynthesis as a by-product and gives out oxygen during the day, whereas plants produce carbon dioxide during respiration and give out carbon dioxide during the night. Do you agree with this that all plants give out O₂ during the day and CO₂ during the night? (1)
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) May be yes
(d) Data is insufficient
Answer:
(a) Yes

ExpLanation: No, don’t agree with this statement because all plants carry out respiration throughout the day and night i.e., 24 hours and thus, gives out CO₂ during day as well as night. But during day, since sunlight is essential to carry out the process of photosynthesis, therefore, oxygen is released during daytime only.

Caution
Students should know that the process of gaseous exchange in plants takes place by diffusion depending on environmental conditions and plant requirements.

During day. rote of photosynthesis is more than that of respiration, CO₂ generated during respiration is used in the process of photosynthesis.

Therefore. O₂ release is the major event During night, photosynthesis does nor rake place due to absence of sunlight. therefore, CO₂ is released.

Question 15.
Calculate the amount of charge passed through any area of cross section of the conductor when a current of 20 A flows through it for three minutes. (1)
(a) 36 C
(b) 1800 C
(b) 3600 C
(d) 180 C
Answer:
(b) 1800 C
ExpLanation: Given that
l = 20 A,
t = 3min = 3 x 60s = 180s
So,
Amount of charge Q passed through any area of cross-section is given by
or Q = l x t
Q = (20 x 180)As = 3600C

Caution
Students usually make mistake during calculations. They do not convert minutes into seconds which results ¡n wrong answer.

Question 16.
Which of the following defines the electric current?
(a) The amount of charge flowing through a particular area in unit time.
(b) One coulomb of charge flowing per second.
(c) The amount of current through a particular area in unit time.
(d) One coulomb of charge flowing per minute. (1)
Answer:
(a) The amount of charge flowing through a particular area munit time

Explanation: Electric current is defined as the amount of charge flowing through a particular area in unit time.

Caution
Students may get confused between option (a) and (b). Option (a) defines electric current and option (b) defines 1 ampere which is the unit of electric current.

Related Theory
One ampere ¡s constituted by the flow of one coulomb of charge per second
IA = 1 Cs¹

Question Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Hydrogen is not included in the activity series of metals.
Reason (R): Like other metals hydrogen can lose electrons to form positive ions. (1)
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true.

Explanation: Hydrogen is included in the activity series of metals like other metals as hydrogen can also lose electrons to form positive ions.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): A reaction between a metal and nitric acid does not evolve hydrogen gas.
Reason (R): Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R ore true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: A metal reacts with nitric acid. to form a metal nitrate, oxides of nitrogen and water and hydrogen gas is not formed, because nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent and it oxidises the hydrogen gas to water and nitric acid itself gets reduced to oxides to nitrogen like NO₂, NO, etc.
M + 2HNO₃ → MNO₃ + NO₂ + H₂O (M = metaL)

Question 19.
Assertion (A): A geneticist crossed two plants and got 50% plants with white flowers and 50% with red flowers.
Reason (R): One plant is heterozygous for the trait and the other is homozygous recessive. (1)
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R ¡s the correct explanation of A.

ExpLanation:
In the given cross, geneticists found 50% plants were with white flowers and 50% with red flowers. Let’s assume the red character to be recessive which can onlj be expressed in homozygous condition. Plant with white flowers is dominant. Because 50% population of the plant are with red flowers, so, it can be concluded that one of the parent plants must be heterozygous.

Let, the genotype of the heterozygous plant be Ww (W – white, w – red). W is dominant over w it appears phenotypically. The genotype of plant with red flowers is ww.
The cross can be shown as:

Related Theory
According to Mendel. when an allele passes from parent to offspring it segregates independently during the formation of gamete and expresses its phenotypic expression in the offspring without mixing with other alleles.

Question 20.
Assertion (A): The drooping of leaves in ‘touch me not’ plants occur due to smelling.
Reason (R): By changing the amount of water (turgor changes) in leaves, the plant cells change their shape. (1)
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true.

Exptcincition: The leaves of Mimosa pudica (touch me not plant) shows movements when touched. When (eaves are touched, the stimulus reaches the base of leaf and the vacuoles of leaf cells toses water, which causes the Leaf to become flaccid. As a result, the leaf closes. This occurs due to changes in turgor pressure.

SECTION – B (12 Marks)
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.)

Question 21.
Reema went to the market with her mother where she saw pickles kept in either glass or plastic jars and not in metal containers. She asked her mother why is it so. What could be the reason given by her mother? (2)
Answer:
Glass or plastic containers are far Less reactive to the contents inside them than metal containers. Pickles Contains some acids, oils. etc that reacts with metals and corrode them to produce toxic substonces.

Question 22.
How can you say that the difference in the molecular mass of any two adjacent homologues is 14 amu?
OR
Draw the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide. Identify the pair of electrons which forms covalent bond. Also state the number of double bonds in the structure. (2)
Answer:
The difference between the two successive homologues is of one carbon atom and two hydrogen atoms in terms of atoms in their molecules and differ by 14 amu in terms of molecular mass. This can be explained by an
example:
C₄H₈ and C₅H₁₀ are successive compounds and these two differ by – CH₂
Atomic mass of carbon = 12µ
Atomic mass of hydrogen = 1µ
Molecular mass of – CH₂ = (1 x 12) + (2 x 1)
= 14 µ

The shared pair of electrons is said to constitute o single covalent bond. So, there are 2 double bonds in CO₂. The two oxygen atoms are bonded on either side with carbon atom by double bonds.

Related Theory
The shored pair of electrons is said to constitute a single covalent bond So. there are 2 double bands in CO₂ The two oxygen atoms are bonded on either side with carbon atom by double bonds.

Question 23.
A student performed o cross between plants with purple flowers and plants with white flowers. Help him to complete the figure by finding ‘P’, ‘Q’, ‘R’ and ‘S’. Also write the genotypic ratio obtained in F₂ generation. (2)

Answer:
The compIete figure is:

Question 24.
Saloni was stung by a wasp while playing in the garden and she started crying due to pain and irritation. Her mother immediately applied a coating of toothpaste on the affected area, which gave her an instant relief and then took her to a doctor. What does wasp sting contain and why did her mother apply toothpaste on the affected area?
OR
Sushma’s mother baked a coke, but to her surprise she found that the cake is hard and small in size. She thought and remembered that she forgot to add one important ingredient in her cake that wouLd have made the cake fluffy. Which is the ingredient that she forgot to add? Also write the chemical reaction. (2)
Answer:
Wasp sting contains formic acid (HCOOH) which cause pain and irritation. Because of the presence of mild base in the toothpaste which neutralises the effect of formic acid, it provides immediate relief to her. That is why her mother applied toothpaste.

Related Theory
Reaction between an acid and a base is catted as rieutrotization reaction which leads ro the formation of salt and water. Other examples include production of methanaic acid by stinging hair of nettle teaves that cause burning pain.
OR
Sushmo’s mother has forgotten to add baking powder (a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate and tortoric acid. While preparing the dough for the cake. The sodium hydrogen carbonate present in baking powder releases carbon dioxide on baking os depicted in the following reaction.

The carbon dioxide bubbles that evolve leave behind pores which make the cake soft and fluffy.

Question 25.
Neha was given some syrupy Liquid in a test tube by her teacher and she was told to dilute it with water. But by mistake, she added water quickly to the tube and the tube immediately cracked and the Liquid which spitted, produced busters on her skin. What could be the reason for this? (2)
Answer:
The syrupy liquid in the test tube could be conc. H₂SO₄ (sulphuric acid) or conc. HCl having great affinity for water and addition of water to an acid is a highly exothermic reaction, that results in excessive local heating of test tube and thus, cracking of the tube and spitting of acid that produced blisters.

Related Theory
The process of mixing on acid or base with water is coiled diLution, that resuLts in decrease in the concentration of ions (H₃O⁺/OH^–) per unit volume.

Question 26.
(A) A potential source is connected in parallel V by two wires of the same Length and area made of materials with resistivities of 1 and 2, respectively. What would the equivalent resistivity be if the length and area were the same?

(B) A source of potential V is connected in series with two wires that are of the same Length and oreo but made of different resistivity materials (1 and 2). What would the equivalent resistivity be if the area were the same? (2)
Answer:
Weknowthat, R = p $\frac { l }{ A }$
For the same Length and area of cross-section, resistance is directly proportional, to resistivity (p).
i.e., R ∝ p

(A) EquivaLent resistance is parallel connection of resistance is

(B) For series combination equivatent resistance is:
R_s = R₁ + R₂
As R ∝ p
So, P_s = P₁ + P₂

SECTION – C (21 Marks)
(Q.no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.)

Question 27.
Sunita and Rajesh shifted to their new house and decided to get it white-washed. Sunita observed that the workers dissolved some white powdery material into water and the mixing resulted in a vigorous reaction and then they left it for some time. They then applied the white suspension obtained to the walls. In the beginning the wall looked pale white and watery but after two-three days the walls become shiny bright white in colour.
Answer the following questions:
(A) Name the white powdery substance and write its chemical reaction with water.
(B) Is it an endothermic or exothermic reaction?
(C) Why the walls turned shiny bright white • colour after two-three days?
OR
Reshma heated green coloured crystals of ferrous sulphate in a test tube, that resulted in the formation of brownish black coloured residue accompanied with a characteristic odour of burning sulphur as shown in the picture given below.

Answer the following questions:
(A) Name the brown coloured substance formed on heating and the gases that evolved along with it.
(B) Write the type of reaction that occurred above and why it is called so?
(C) Give reason for the change in the colour of the green crystals. (3)
Answer:
(A) The white powdery substance is calcium oxide (quicklime) – CaO. Quicklime reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide (slaked lime):
CaO_(s) + H₂O_(l) —> Ca(OH)_2(aq)

(B) The above reaction is an exothermic reaction as during this reaction a lot of heat is produced.

(C) During whitewash, Calcium hydroxide is applied to the walls and it reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Calcium carbonate is formed after two to three days of white washing and gives a shiny finish to the walls.
Ca(OH)_2(aq) + CO_2(g) -> CaCO_3(s) + H₂O_(l)

(A) The brown coloured substance formed on heating ferrous sulphate is ferric chloride (Fe₂O₃) and the gases that evolved are sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and sulphur trioxide (SO₃).

(B) This is a type of decomposition reaction because in this reaction a single reactant breaks down to give simpler products.

(C) Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO₄, 7H₂O) lose water (water of crystallization) when heated and the green colour of the crystal changes to brownish black. It then decomposes to ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃), sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and sulphur trioxide (SO₃).

Question 28.
Siya was amazed to know that in plants, there are tiny pores called stomata present on the epidermis of leaves and other green parts of the plant. These stomatal pores help in gaseous exchange and this opening is in turn guarded by specialized kidney shaped cells called guard cells. But she was unable to understand how these guard cells open and close. Help Siya by explaining her how the guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata. (3)
Answer:
The stomatal aperture is guarded by two bean-shaped/kidney-shaped guard cells. These guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata by the osmosis process. When water enters inside the guard cells, they swell up and due to their curved surface, stomata open. Whereas, when water moves out, and it Leads to shrinking of the guard cells to become flaccid, this causes the stomata to close

Question 29.
(A) Teacher explained in the class that metals loose electrons to form cations and non-metals gain electrons to form anions. But carbon can neither form C⁴⁺ cations nor C^4- anions, and forms covalent bonds. Why?
(B) Give reason why covalent compounds are bad conductors of electricity. (3)
Answer:
(A) Carbon atom is tetravalent, but it cannot gain or loose electrons because of the following reasons:

(i) If it gains 4 electrons, it will have negative charge (C^4-), and it becomes difficult for 6 protons to hold on to 10 electrons and eventually the atom becomes unstable.

(ii) If it loses 4 electrons, it will require a lot of energy to lose them, which it can’t afford and as a result it becomes unstable again.

(B) Covalent bonds are formed by sharing of electrons and there is no transfer of electrons or involvement of ions. Because ions are responsible for conducting electricity and covalent compounds do not have free ions. Therefore, they are bad conductors of electricity. For example: CCl₄, CH₄.

Question 30.
In a country like India, the rate of female foeticide is quite high and always female is held responsible for giving birth to a female child. Reema was against this thought and practice, she raised her voice and started a campaign to create awareness among people. Help her to explain this. (3)
Answer:
The females are homogametic and produces only one type of gamete carrying only X chromosome, whereas males are heterogametic producing two types of gametes – half carrying X chromosome and the other carrying Y chromosome. Therefore, if a sperm carrying X chromosome fuses with the egg, it results in a female offspring, and if a sperm carrying a Y chromosome fuses with the egg, it results in a male offspring. Therefore, a father will be responsible for the sex of a child.
Sex determination in Human beings

Question 31.
Draw a neat and well labelled diagram of human alimentary canal. Name and label the following:
(A) Part carrying the food to the stomach through peristaltic movements.
(B) Organ producing a substance responsible for emulsification of fats.
(C) Organ secreting trypsin enzyme. (3)
Answer:
(A) Oesophagus
(B) Gall bladder
(C) Pancreas

Question 32.
A convex mirror is used in a car having a focal length of 300 cm. If a cycle is located at 100 cm from this mirror, find the position, nature and magnification of the image formed in the mirror. (3)
Answer:
We know,
Focal length ‘f’ = 300cm
So, object distance (u) = -100cm
Since the object (cycle) is placed to the left of the mirror, it is always taken with a negative sign.
$\frac { 1 }{ f }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ v }$ + $\frac { 1 }{ u }$
$\frac { 1 }{ v }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ f }$ – $\frac { 1 }{ u }$
$\frac { 1 }{ v }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ 300 }$ – (-$\frac { 1 }{ 100 }$)
$\frac { 1 }{ v }$ = $\frac { 1 }{ 300 }$ + ($\frac { 1 }{ 100 }$)
$\frac { 1 }{ v }$ = $\frac { 4 }{ 300 }$
v = $\frac { 300 }{ 4 }$
v = 75cm
magnification ‘m’ = – $\frac { v }{ u }$ = $\frac { -75 }{ -100 }$
m = 0.75
Therefore, the position of the image is 75cm behind the mirror and its nature is virtual and erect as it is formed behind convex mirror.

Question 33.
Draw a ray diagram for the following cases:
(A) When a ray of light passing through centre of curvature of a convex mirror is incident on it.
(B) A ray of light parallel to principal axis is incident on concave mirror.
(C) A ray of light passing through focus of convex mirror is incident on it.
OR
The picture demonstrates how the prism disperses the white light.

What colour will the letters P, Q, and R have? Also state the reason. (3)
Answer:

P represents violet.
Q represents green.
R represents red.
We are aware that waves with longer wavelengths deviate less, and vice versa. Therefore, the red wilL deviate the most while the violet colour the least. As a result, the upper part of the spectrum will be red, green in the middle and the lower part will be violet.

SECTION – D (15 MARKS)
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are tong answer questions.)

Question 34.
(A) Pratyush was studying about extractions of metals. He came to know about different new scientific terms. Help him to define the following: (3)

Minerals
Ores
Gangue

(B) Write any two properties of titanium that makes it useful.

(A) Iron is removed from the iron sulphate aqueous solution by an element “X.” If the element “X” is treated with aqueous solutions of copper sulphate, zinc sulphate, and silver nitrate, list your observations.

(B) Rapid effervescence is produced when hydrochloric acid is used to treat ore. Name the type of ore with one example.

(C)

Aluminum, magnesium, and sodium oxides cannot be converted to their corresponding metals by carbon. Why?
In the reactivity series, where are these metals located? How do these metals get their ores into metals?
Use an illustration to describe the extraction process and the associated chemical equations. (5)

Answer:
(A)
(i) Minerals: These are the elements or compounds which occur naturally in the earth crust. These are combined state of metals with non-metals.

(ii) Ores: Minerals at some places, contain a very high percentage of a particular metal and the metal can be profitably and conveniently extracted from it. These minerals are called ores.

(iii) Gangue: The ores that are mined from the earth are usually contaminated with large amounts of impurities such as soil, sand, etc., called gangue.

(B) Two properties that makes titanium so useful are:

It is stronger and light in weight. It is used to make war equipment.
It remains unaffected by corrosion even if kept open for a very longer period of time.

(A) X is more reactive than iron because it ousts iron from its salt solution. As both are less reactive than iron, it will also replace copper from copper sulphate and silver from silver nitrate. X may be more or less reactive than zinc because zinc is more reactive than iron.

(B) The ore produces rapid effervescence when treated with diluted hydrochloric acid; therefore, it must be a carbonate ore. A significant zinc carbonate (ZnCO₃) ore is calamine.

(C)
(i) Sodium, magnesium, and aluminium highly reactive metals and have a higher affinity for oxygen than carbon does. Therefore, carbon cannot convert sodium, magnesium, or aluminium oxides to their corresponding metals.

(ii) The reactivity series places these metals at the top. Electrolytic reduction of their molten chlorides or oxides is used to extract the highly reactive metals like Na, Mg, Al, and others.

(iii) Electric current runs through the molten state to produce electrolytic reduction. At the cathode, metal is deposited.
NaCl ⇌ Na⁺ + Cl^–
At cathode: Na⁺ + e^–
Na At anode: 2CI^– -> CI₂ + 2e^–

Question 35.
(A) When from earth we see sky, it appears
in different colours like blue, white, yellow, grey, etc. but for astronauts in space sky only appear to be dark. Explain the reason for this.

(B) Illustrate with three examples how colloidal particles show Tyndall effect.

(A) How did Newton demonstrate the presence of seven colours in the sun’s white light?

(B) He used two identical glass prisms. Create a ray diagram to depict the path of light when two identical glass prisms are placed next to each other in an inverted position and a narrow white light beam is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the first prism’s focus.

(C) List two pre-requisites for seeing a rainbow. (5)
Answer:
(A) in space, there is no atmosphere, as a result there are no particles to disperse light coming from the Sun. Therefore, the light coming from the sky does not scatter. The light has to scatter for the sky to appear bright, so that we can see the sky clearly.

(B) Colloidal particles show Tyndall effect as they scatter light.
The examples are as follows:

When a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke-filled room, smoke particles become visible due to scattering of light by these particles.
When a ray of sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest, tiny water droplets in the air scatter light.
Milk is a colloid containing globules of fat and proteins. The light gets scattered when a beam of light is projected towards it.

(A) The first person to obtain the spectrum of white light using a glass prism was Newton. The step was to align a second, identical prism with the first prism inverted. As a result, all the colours of the white light were able to pass through the second prism and combine to form a white light that emerged from its opposite side. This Led him to think that white light was made up of various colours.

(B)

The Sun must be behind the observer.
A rainbow should be visible through a waterfall or water feature or after it has rained.

Question 36.
(A) In a horse-shoe magnet, a current carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field.

The conductor is displaced upward. What will happen to the displacement of the conductor if:

current in the conductor is increased.
a horse-shoe magnet is replaced by another stronger horse-shoe magnet.
the length of the conductor is increased.

(B) Which device can be used to maintain a potential difference between the ends of a conductor? Explain the process by which this device does so. (5)

Answer:
(A)
(i) The force acting on a current carrying conductor placed perpendicular to a magnetic field increases with the increase in the current flowing through a conductor. Thus, the displacement of the conductor will increase the current in the conductor is incread.

(ii) When a horse-shoe magnet is rei laced by a stronger magnet, then magnetic field increases. Since, force acting a conductor increases with the increase in the magnetic field, therefore, the displacement of the conductor will increase.

(iii) Since, the force acting on the conductor increases with the increase in the length of the conductor, therefore, the displacement of the conductor will increase.

(B) The device that can be used to maintain a potential difference between the ends of a conductor is a cell or a battery. The chemical reaction within a cell generates the potential difference across the terminals of the cell, even when no current is drawn from it. When it is connected to a conductor, it produces electric current and, maintain the potential difference across the ends of the conductor.

(A) The magnetic force that a current-carrying wire feels when it is exposed to a magnetic field depends on the conductor’s

current flow,
magnetic field strength,
length, and
angle between the element of Length and the magnetic field.

(B) When the direction of the current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field, the force experienced by a conductor carrying current when it is in a magnetic field is greatest.

(D)

When the magnetic field’s direction is changed, the force acting on the conductor will now move from left to right.
If the current is flowing in the opposite direction, the force acting on the conductor will move from left to right.

SECTION – E (12 Marks)
(Q.no. 37 to 39 are case – based/’data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub – parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)

Question 37.
Reha connected two or more resistances in such a way that the same potential difference gets applied to each of them. This kind of connection is said to be parallel. When she joined two or more resistances in parallel to one another, then the same current gets additional paths to flow and the overall resistance decreases. The equivalent resistance is given by (4)

(A) As shown, three resistances are connected.

Calculate the equivalent resistance between points A and B.

(B) When a 12m wire is divided into three equal pieces and its ends are then twisted together, find the resulting equivalent resistance.

(B) If three resistances, 3Ω, 7Ω and 9Ω are connected in parallel, then what will be the equivalent resistance.
Answer:
(A) The equivalent resistance in the parallel combination is lower than the individual resistance’s lowest value.
All the three resistors (6Ω, 3Ω and 1Ω) are connected in parallel.

(B) Resistance of each piece = $\frac { 12 }{ 3 }$ = 4Ω
When the end pieces of the three pieces are twisted together, the connection becomes parallel. And the equivalent resistance is calculated as:

(B) Given that:
R₁ = 3Ω
R₂ = 7Ω
R₃ = 9Ω
All the three resistors are in parallel arrangement,
So,

Question 38.
Neha visited Mughal Garden as shown in the picture, she felt so happy and amazed to see different types of flowers having different colours and fragrances. She told her teacher that flowers beautify our environment and refreshes our mood and we should plant more and more flowering plants to enjoy this beauty.

Her teacher told her that flowering plants are called angiosperms and they not only beautify our surroundings, but also form an important part of our ecosystem. (4)
(A) Where is the male and female gamete formed in flowering plant?
(B) Which part of the flower becomes seed after fertilization?
(C) Identify the parts Labelled as A, B, and C.

What do they constitute ?
(C) In which of the following category would you classify a Hibiscus flower? Explain. Give one example of unisexual flower. Explain sterile flowers.
Answer:
(A) Male gamete is found in anther and female gamete is found in ovary
(B) After fertilization, the ovules become the seeds, and the ovary wall becomes the fruit.
(C) A – Stigma, B – Style, C – Ovary Stigma, style and ovary constitute the female reproductive part of the flower – carpel/pistil.

Related Theory
Stigma – Sticky pollen-receptive part ofpistil
Style – The stalk of the pistil through which the pollen tube grows.
Ovary – Contains the ovules and it later develops into fruit.

(C) Hibiscus has both male and female reproductive organs as stamens and pistil, therefore classified as bisexual flower. Unisexual flowers are those which have either male or female reproductive organ, such as in Papaya.
When both sexes i.e., male and female reproductive parts are absent in a flower or are non-functional, such flowers are called sterile.

Question 39.
On a site visit, Raj saw the poor condition of a river due to plastic pollution and overuse of pesticides and fertilizers as shown in the picture given below. India, is facing the problem of contamination of water, overuse of resources and plastic pollution. Nowadays a campaign has also started to avoid single use plastics. Efforts should be made to develop environmental-friendly substitutes and effective methods of safe plastic disposal. In agricultural practices also, there is excessive use of pesticides and fertilizers. These pesticides are absorbed by plants from the soil and from the water bodies, these pesticides are taken up by aquatic animals and plants, which severely affects them. These chemicals get accumulated in the bodies of plants, animals and even human beings. (4)

(A) If a river is found to be contaminated with coliform bacteria. Mixing of which pollutant in water is responsible for this?

(B) In comparison to biopesticides, chemical pesticides are more dangerous. Why?

(C) What is the term used for accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level? Explain.

(C) Single use plastics should be avoided. Why? Name one environment friendly substitute for plastics.
Answer:
(A) Human faecal matter is responsiblee. If contains coliform bacteria which are present in small intestine, whereas bacteria is not present in industrial wastes, pesticides and fertilizers.

(B) Chemical pesticides are non-specific, hazardous, expensive and cause pollution.

(C) Biomagnification it is the accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides such as DDT, industrial chemicals, radioactive substances in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level. Humans are at the top of the food chain; therefore, maximum concentration of these chemicals occur in them.

(C) Non-biodegradable substances are those that cannot be broken down into simpler compounds by micro-organisms. So, these substances accumulate in the environment and cause pollution and severe health hazards. Resusable cloth bag is an environment friendly substitute for plastics.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 6 with Solutions

April 15, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

The Question paper is divided into five sections: Section A: MCQs 10 marks, Section B: Short Answer Type Questions 9 marks, Section C: Source based questions 15 marks, Section D: Long Answer Type Questions 32 marks, Section E: Map based 4 marks.
All questions are compulsory.
You may attempt any section at a time.
All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section-A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions

(i) The Clay tablet depicts picture of: [1]
(A) A Poetry written by Mesopotamians
(B) A mathematical exercise with triangles and lines
(C) A science experiment
(D) A secret document with codes
Answer:
(B) A mathematical exercise with triangles and lines

(ii) What is the name given to the economic, political and social relations that existed in Medieval Europe? [1]
(A) Feudalism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Communism
(D) Socialism
Answer:
(A) Feudalism

(iii) Who were Tupinambas? [1]
(A) The tribe who had plentiful diamond supplies
(B) The tribe that was given to the king, strictly subjected to kings orders
(C) The name was given to the king’s army
(D) The tribe who lived on the east coast of South America
Answer:
(D) The tribe who lived on the east coast of South America

(iv) Who were the Mongols? [1]
(A) Fierce nomadic tribes of Central Asian Steppes
(B) A ruling class
(C) Labours
(D) Settled tribes
Answer:
(A) Fierce nomadic tribes of Central Asian Steppes

(v) Genghis Khan was born some time around : [1]
(A) 1362
(B) 1262
(C) 1622
(D) 1162
Answer:
(D) 1162

(vi) What was the area of interest of Leonardo da Vinci? [1]
(A) He took interest in botany, anatomy, mathematics and art
(B) He took interest in European paintings
(C) He took interest in politics
(D) He took interest in religious transformation
Answer:
(A) He took interest in botany, anatomy, mathematics and art.

(vii) Which of these was the oldest Mesopotamian town? [1]
(A) Ur
(B) Raur
(C) Sumeria
(D) Urr
Answer:
(A) Ur

(viii) Copernicus was a devout Christian. [1]
(A) The statement is True
(B) The statement is False
(C) The statement is partially True
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) The statement is True

(ix) The Meiji constitution was enacted in: [1]
(A) 1883
(B) 1885
(C) 1887
(D) 1889
Answer:
(D) 1889

(x) When did the ‘Trail of Tears’ incident occur? [1]
(A) 1830-40
(B) 1810-20
(C) 1850-60
(D) 1780-90
Answer:
(A) 1830-40

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks

(i) _______percent of Canada is covered with forests. [1]
Answer:
40

(ii) Mesopotamia is the modern_______. [1]
Answer:
Iraq

(iii) By the beginning of first century BCE, the Romans had conquered_______and _______. [1]
Answer:
Greece and Asia Minor

(iv) Guomindang’s political philosophy was based on ________ideas. [1]
Answer:
Sun Yat Sen’s

(v) Official policy of Australia that gave equal respect to native cultures and those of the immigrants is called _______ and _________. [1]
Answer:
Multiculturalism

Question 3.
State whether true or false.

(i) Merchants, landlords, artisans’ belonged to the upper class in Mesopotamian society. [1]
Answer:
False

(ii) Achaemenids of Iran conquered and won the city of Babylon in 539 BCE. [1]
Answer:
True

(iii) Very few people in Mesopotamia could read or write. [1]
Answer:
True

(iv) Joachim Rheticus was a follower of Copernicus. [1]
Answer:
True

(v) Humans who could walk erect on their legs were known as Australopithecus. [1]
Answer:
False

Section – B (9 Marks)

Question 4.
Briefly discuss the sources which helped to reconstruct Roman history. [3]
Answer:
The sources for the reconstruction of Roman history can be divided into three categories:
(1) Texts: These include the details of the period written by contemporaries. E.g. Annals, letters, speeches, sermons, laws, etc.
(2) Documentary sources: These include many inscriptions and papyr(i) Large number of inscriptions in Greek and Latin have survived as they were inscribed on rocks. Papyri too have survived in thousands. These mostly relate to contracts, accounts, letters and official documents.
(3) Material remains: These include assortment of items unearthed by archaeologists. E.g. buildings, monuments, other kinds of structures, pottery, coins, mosaics, etc.

Question 5.
Why did the Mongol-Chinese relations become tense? [3]
Answer:
Due to scarcity of resources it was imperative for the Mongols to trade and barter with their sedentary neighbours in China. The nomads would exchange agricultural produce and iron utensils from China for horses, furs and game trapped in the Steppe. The Barter system often caused tensions in trading activities as both parties desired to earn enhanced profits, it often caused military pressures.

For example, when the Mongols traded unitedly, the Chinese had to trade with them on better conditions. These frontier conflicts proved disastrous for the settled societies as it dislocated their agriculture and destroyed cities. China suffered considerably under different regimes. It forced the Chinese rulers to build fortifications to protect their subjects.

Question 6.
How were the geographical discoveries of the 16th century responsible for bringing the Modern Age? [3]
Answer:
The geographical discoveries led to the establishment of trading companies among sailors and traders. The Europeans – Portuguese, English, French and the Dutch established their companies to trade with India and America. They encouraged the slave trade as civilisation spread to other countries which till now had remained hidden. These voyages of discoveries promoted trade and made many countries prosperous. The new discoveries enlightened people and they were encouraged to give up their superstitions and hollow beliefs.

Section – C (15 Marks)

Question 7.
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: [5]
‘Each of the great houses of Rome contained within itself everything which a medium-sized city could hold, a hippodrome, fora, temples, fountains and different kinds of baths. Many of the Roman households received an income of four thousand pounds of gold per year from their properties, not including grain, wine and other produce which, if sold, would have amounted to one-third of the income in gold. The income of the households in Rome of the second class was one thousand or fifteen hundred pounds of gold.’
(i) Why do you think households received income in gold?
(ii) Describe the social structure of the Late antiquity.
(iii) Give three features of the Late Roman aristocracy.
Answer:
(i) Households received income in gold because the monetary system based on silver was exhausted and a new monetary system based on gold was established by Constantine.
(ii) By the time of late antiquity, the senators and “equites” had merged into a unified expanded aristocracy. The middle class now consisted of many people connected with the imperial bureaucracy, army and prosperous merchants. While the labour workforce ‘humiliores’ now also comprised of the migrant workers, rural labour force, workers in industrial mining establishments, etc.
(iii) The Three features of Late Roman aristocracy are:
(a) It was enormously wealthy with a lavish lifestyle.
(b) It was however less powerful than the new military elites who came from non-aristocratic background.
(c) The landed aristocracy attempted to increase the volume of surplus through debt bondage.

Question 8.
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: [5]
This woman’s head was sculpted in white marble at Uruk before 3000 BCE. The eyes and eyebrows would probably have taken lapis lazuli (blue) and shell (white) and bitumen (black) inlays, respectively. There is a groove along the top of the head, perhaps for an ornament. This is a world-famous piece of sculpture, admired for the delicate modelling of the woman’s mouth, chin and cheeks. And it was modelled in a hard stone that would have been imported from a distance.
(i) Where was the woman’s head sculpture discovered? What was it called? How old was this?
(ii) What were its unique characteristics?
(iii) Why is it a world-famous sculpture? Which qualities of this sculpture made it so famous?
Answer:
(i) This woman’s head was sculpted in white marble at Uruk. It was called the Warka Head. It was 3000 BCE old.
(ii) Warka Head had some unique characteristics. These were:
(a)The eyes and eyebrows would probably have taken lapis lazuli (blue) and shell (white) and bitumen (black) inlays.
(b)There is a groove along the top of the head, perhaps for an ornament.
(iii) The Warka Head was admired for the delicate modelling of the woman’s mouth, chin and cheeks

Question 9.
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: [5]
It is interesting to note that another writer, Washington Irving, much younger than Wordsworth and who had actually met native people, described them quite differently. ‘The Indians I have had an opportunity of seeing in real life are quite different from those described in poetry. Taciturn theyare, it is true, when in company with white men, whose goodwill they distrust and whose language they do not understand; but the white man is equally taciturn under like circumstances.

When the Indians are among themselves, they are great mimics, and entertain themselves excessively at the expense of the whites who have supposed them impressed with profound respect for their grandeur and dignity. The white men (as I have witnessed) are prone to treat the poor Indians as little better than animals’.
(i) Why were the Indians referred to as Taciturn?
(ii) What impressed the native people?
(iii) Natives and Europeans viewed each other differently.
Answer:
(i) Indians were referred to as taciturn because they remained aloof in the company of whites.
(ii) The natives were impressed by the grandeur and dignity of whites.
(iii) (a)Europeans: They considered the natives uncivilised and the goods they exchanged with natives -they regarded as commodities.
(b)The Natives were puzzled and saddened by the greed of Europeans for native goods. They viewed their exchange with Europeans as ‘gifts’ given in friendship.

Section – D (32 Marks)

Question 10.
Describe the steps taken by Genghis Khan to reorganise the people into a more effective and disciplined military force. [8]
Answer:
The factors that facilitated their control over the vast empire were:
(1) Alteration of the old steppe social order, integration of different lineages and clans and new identity of the Mongols derived from its progenitor Genghis Khan.
(2) Replacement of old chieftains by the new aristocracy that derived its status, not by virtue of being clan chieftain but based on a close relationship with the Great Khan. This ensured commitment and subordination.
(3) Division of the empire into four ‘Ulus’ with flexible frontiers each under his sons. He envisaged that his sons would rule over the Mongolian empire collectively.
(4) For effective and collective governance, military contingents ‘tama’ of each prince were placed in each ‘ulus’. To avoid any wars of succession, he even indicated that his third son Ogodei would succeed him as the Great Khan.
(5) All decision pertaining to the state was taken collectively at the assembly of chieftains called the ‘quriltais’.
(6) A rapid courier system ‘Yam’ was established that connected distant areas of the empire and enabled the Khans to keep a check on the developments at the farthest end of the empire.
(7) From the reign of Genghis Khan itself, the Mongols recruited civil administrators from the conquered territories who were sometimes moved around. E.g. Chinese secretaries were deployed in Iran and Persians in China. This helped in the integration of the conquered territories and blunting the harsher edges of the nomadic predation on sedentary life.
(8) By referring to the ‘Yasa’ as Genghis Khan’s code of law, the Mongol people sought to lay claim to a lawgiver like Moses and Solomon, whose authoritative code could be imposed on the subjects. The ‘Yasa’ enabled to keep the Mongol people together and enabled the Mongols to retain their ethnic identity while imposing their ‘laws’ upon the defeated subjects.

Question 11.
How did the achievements of Renaissance scientists contribute to a revolution in science? [8]
Answer:
Renaissance scientists represented a new trend with a focus on questioning, observation and experimentation.
(1) Copernicus (1473-1543): Represented the turning point in European science. He was the first to put forth the theory that the earth rotates on its axis and revolves around the sun. This was a complete break from the traditional system of thought which believed that the earth was the centre of the world. It was a sinful place and the heavy burden of sin made it immobile.
(2) Galileo (1564-1642): He invented the telescope and used it to observe heavenly bodies. On the basis of his observations, he confirmed Copernicus’ theory.
(3) Kepler (1571-1630): Kepler popularised the theory that the earth was a part of a sun centred system and demonstrated that the planets moved around the sun in elliptical orbits and not circles.
(4) Isaac Newton (1642-1726): He put forth the theory of gravitation which proved that all heavenly bodies move according to their gravitational force.
(5) Harvey: Proved that the heart pumps the blood in our body and gave a complete understanding of the circulation of blood in our body.
(6) Vesalius (1514-1564): Based on his study of dissection of the human body, he provided the complete description of the human body. This marked the beginning of modern anatomy.

The Renaissance scientists began learning by observation and experimentation popularly termed as the scientific method. It emphasised knowledge as distinct from belief. This method is to date applied to various fields and is termed as the Scientific Revolution. Increasingly nature rather than God was seen as the source of all creation. This thought was popularised by scientific societies such as Paris Academy (1670) and The Royal Society in London (1662).

Question 12.
How did Japan escape colonisation? [8]
Answer:
After the news of China’s defeat, fear gripped Japan that it too might be made into a colony. To escape a similar fate as China and India, the government launched a policy with a slogan, “Fukoku Kyohei” (rich country, strong army). They realised that they needed to develop their economy and build a strong army. To this, they needed to create a sense of nationhood among the people and to transform subjects into citizens. To achieve these ideals, the government took the following measures:
(1) It built the ‘emperor system’.
(2) New system of education was introduced based on the European model with special emphasis on ‘moral culture’ and an attitude of extreme nationalism and chauvinism. By 1910, schooling was almost universal.
(3) To integrate the nation, a new administrative structure altering the old village boundaries was imposed.
(4) A modern military force was developed. Conscription was introduced for all young men over 20 years.
(5) Civil liberties and open political struggles were curbed and a legal system was set up to regulate the formation of political groups, control holding of meetings and imposed strict censorship.
(6) The Diet and the military were put under the direct command of the emperor. The state was controlled by an oligarchy and the military and the police were given wide powers.
(7) The economy was modernised in less than four decades. State capitalism was undertaken with the help of Daimyos and big merchant houses. State industries were sold to ‘Zaibatsu’. Companies like Mitsubishi and Sumitomo were helped by subsidies and tax benefits.
(8) Initially, the stress was on strategic industries but was soon followed by others like textiles and cement

Question 13.
What is the legacy of Mesopotamia to the world? [8]
Answer:
The scholarly tradition of mathematics and time reckoning are the legacy of the Mesopotamian civilisation to the world.
(1) Tablets dating back to 1800 BCE have been found.
(2) These tablets have tables of multiplication and division, of squares and square root.
(3) There are also tables of compound interest.
(4) Mesopotamians had divided the year into 12 months according to the revolution of the moon around the earth.
(5) The month was divided into four weeks, a day into 24 hours and an hour into 60 minutes. This is their greatest contribution to the world that is used till date.
(6) They had also noted the occurrence of solar and lunar eclipses and recorded the position of stars and constellations in the night sky.
(7) Urbanization, writing, astronomy, wind power, irrigation, trade notation, agricultural developments, animal husbandry, the wheel, etc. are some of the other legacy.
(8) Their greatest legacy though was the foundation and standard for civilizations to come and the basic ideas which combined with ideas of freedom that led to present western civilization.

Section – E (4 Marks)

Question 14.
On the given map, identify the given points 1, 2, 3, and 4. [4]

Answer:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Set 3 with Solutions

April 13, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Set 3 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

This question paper contains two sections:
Section A – Macro Economics
Section B – Indian Economic Development
This paper contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions type questions of 1 mark each.
This paper contains 4 Short Answer Questions type questions of 3 marks each to be answered in 60 80 words.
This paper contains 6 Short Answer Questions type questions of 4 marks each to be answered in 80 100 words.
This paper contains 4 Long Answer Questions type questions of 6 marks each to be answered in 100 150 words.

Section – A (40 Marks)
Macro Economics

Question 1.
Who regulates money supply in India? [1]
(a) Government of India
(b) Commercial banks
(c) Regional rural banks
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation:
Money supply refers to the total stock of money of all types held by the people of a country at a given point of time. In India, money supply is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India, through various fiscal and monetary policies of the government.

Related Theory
The tools used by Reserve Bank of India to regulate money supply include:

Bank rate
Open market operations
Repo rate etc

Question 2.
From the given statements in Column I and II, choose the correct pair of statements. [1]
(Choose the correct alternative)

Column I	Column II
(1) Aggregate demand	(A) C + 1 + G + (X – M)
(II) Average propensity to save	(B) $\frac{\mathrm{C}}{\mathrm{Y}}$
(III) Marginal propensity to consume	(C) $\frac{\mathrm{S}}{\mathrm{Y}}$
(IV) Average propensity to consume	(D) $\frac{\Delta C}{\Delta Y}$

(a) (I)-A
(b) (II) – B
(c) (III) – C
(d) (IV) – D
OR
What type of relationship exists between the value of marginal propensity to save and investment multiplier?
(a) Direct
(b) Positive
(c) Inverse
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) (I) – A

Explanation:
(1) Components of aggregate demand are: household consumption expenditure (C), investment expenditure (I), government consumption expenditure (G) and net exports (X – M).
(2) Average propensity to save is total savings (S) divided by income level (Y)
(3) Marginal propensity to consume is the change in consumption (AC). divided by change in income (AY)
(4) Average propensity to consume is total consumption expenditure (C) divided by income level (Y)

Related Theory
Aggregate demand: It is the total demand by domestic and foreign households and firms for an economy’s scarce resources, (ess the demand by domestic households and firms for resources from abroad.
Average propensity to save: Average propensity to save (APS) refers to the ratio of saving to the corresponding level of saving income.

Marginal propensity of consume: It is the proportion of change in consumption due to change in income.

Average propensity to consume: It is the amount of income the average consumer spends on goods and services.

(c) Inverse
Explanation:
The value of multiplier and MPS are inversely related as multiplier is the reciprocal of MPS.
Multiplier (k) = $\frac{1}{\text { MPS }}$

Related Theory
There exists a direct relationship between MPC and the value of multiplier. Higher the MPC more will be the value of multiplier, and vice-versa.

Question 3.
In which year the Reserve bank of India was established? [1]
(a) 1936
(b) 1945
(c) 1935
(d) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1935

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the RBI Act, 1934. The head office of Reserve bank is permanently situated in Mumbai since 1937.

Related Theory
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central bank, which controls the issue and supply of Indian rupee. RBI is the regulator of entire banking system in India.

Question 4.
The current account of Balance of Payment includes trade balance and ………………. [1]
(a) settlement account
(b) capital account
(c) invisibles
(d) error and omissions
Answer:
(c) invisibles

Explanation:
The current account of balance of payment include visible items (/.e. balance of trade), invisible items (i.e. export and imports of services) and unilateral transfers.

Related Theory
Capital account of balance of payments records all those transactions, between the residents of a country and the rest of world, which cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the residents of the country. It is related to claims and liabilities of financial nature.

Question 5.
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below: [1]
Assertion (A): Wages received by an Indian working in the British Embassy in India will not be included while estimating Gross Domestic Product.
Reason (R): Wages received by an Indian working in British embassy in India is not a part of economic territory of India
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
OR
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Financial aids received from abroad after “Fani cyclone” is not included while estimating the value of GDP.
Reason (R): Financial aid is a factor income.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Wages received by an Indian working in British embassy in India is not a part of economic territory of India, as British Embassy is a part of Economic territory of Britain.

(c) Assertion (A) is true, But Reason (R) is false.
Explanation:
Financial aid is a transfer income as no factor service is provided in return. Hence, it is not included while estimating the value of GDP.

Question 6.
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below: [1]
Assertion (A): If an Indian buys a UK Car Company, it enters into a capital account as a debit item.
Reason (R): The sale of assets like the sale of shares of an Indian company to a Chinese customer is a credit item in the capital account.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
Purchasing of share of a foreign company results in outflow of foreign exchange and will be recorded at the debit side of capital account. When foreign company purchases the shares of an Indian company it results in inflow of foreign exchange and recorded at credit side of Capital account. Purchasing and selling the shares results in the change of financial assets of a country thus transactions is of a capital nature.

Question 7.
The given diagram shows which economic theory concept? [1]

(a) Inflationary concept theory
(b) Deflationary concept theory
(c) Paradox of thrift theory
(d) None of the above
OR
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: MPS varies between 0 and infinity.
Statement II: Incremental income is either spent on consumption or saved for future use.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.
Answer:
(c) Paradox of thrift theory

Explanation:
The paradox of thrift is an economic theory that argues that personal savings can be detrimental to overall economic growth. It is based on a circular flow of the economy in which current spending drives future spending.

(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false

Question 8.
From the following data, identify the value of investment expenditure [1]

National income	1000
Marginal propensity to consume	0.20
Autonomous consumption expenditure	100

(a) 0.80
(b) 0.95
(c) 0.85
(d) 0.0085

National Income	2000
Autonomous Consumption Expenditure	200
Investment Expenditure	100

Identify from the following data, the value of marginal propensity to consume will be ………………
(a) 0.80
(b) 0.95
(c) 0.85
(d) 0.0085
Answer:
(a) 100

Explanation:
Given,
Y= Rs. 1,000,
MPS = 0.20, C = Rs. 100, I = ? b or MPC = 1 – MPS
= 1 – 0.20 = 0.80
Y = C + I
or Y = C + bY + I
1.0 = 100 + 0.80 ×, 1,000 + I
I = 1,000 – 900
I = 100

(c) 0.85
Explanation:
Given,
Y = Rs. 2,000, C = Rs.200, I = 100
We know, Y = C + I, C = C + bY
Y = C + bY + I
For calculating MPC, we use following equation
Y = C + bY + I
b = MPC
2.0 = 200 + 2,000b + 100
b = 2000-300/2000
= 1700/2000 = 0.85
Thus, MPC = 0.85

Related Theory
When the demand in an economy is less than the aggregate demand, the situation is called deficient demand leading to deflation.

Question 9.
Read the following statements carefully: [1]
Statement I: Consumption curve makes an intercept on the Y-axis, some point above the origin. Statement II: People need certain basic goods and services to sustain themselves, even if income is zero.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are true.

Question 10.
Read the following statements carefully: [1]
Statement I: At the Break-Even point, consumption is equal to National Income.
Statement II: APC falls continuously with an increase in income as the proportion of income spent on consumption keeps on decreasing.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false
Answer:
(b) Both the statements are false.

Question 11.
“National income at constant prices presents a better view of the economic growth in comparison to national income at current prices”. Why? [3]
Answer:
National income at constant prices is the money value of final goods and services produced by normal residents of a country in a financial year, measured on the basis of base year price. It is also known as real national income and is affected by only one factor, namely, change in physical output whereas national income at current prices measure the value of goods and services at the prevailing prices in that particular year. It is also called nominal national income and is affected by two factors, namely, change in prices and change in output.

National income at current prices may show rise even without any change in output due to inflation or some other reasons and as such there is no actual economic growth. Hence, national income at constant prices presents a better view of economic growth as there is actual change in output.

Question 12.
In an economy, C = 200 + 0.5Y and I = ₹ 800 (where C = consumption expenditure, Y = income). Compute the following: [3]
(A) The equilibrium level of income
(B) Consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of income
OR
Suppose the consumption equals C = 40 + 0. 75Y, Investment (I) = ₹ 60 and Y = C + I Find:
(A) Equilibrium level of income
(B) The level of consumption at equilibrium
Answer:
(A) Given, I = ₹.800 and C = 200 + 0.5Y
Y = C + I
Y = (200 + 0.5Y) + 800
Y = 1000 + 0.5Y 0.5Y = 1000
Y = $\frac{1000}{0.5}$
Income (Y) = ₹ 2000

(B) Y = C + I
2000 = C + 800
– C = – 2000 + 800
Consumption Expenditure (C) is = ₹ 1200

(A) Income(Y) = Consumption(C) + Investment(I)
We have C = 40 + 0.75Y and Investment (I) = ₹ 60
Substituting the value of C and I we get,
Y = 40 + 0.75Y + 60
Y – 0.75Y = 100
0.25Y = 100
Y = $\frac{100}{0.25}$
Y = ₹ 400

(B) The level of consumption at equilibrium:
Given, C = 40 + 0.75Y and Y = 400
C = 40 + 0.75 (400)
C = 40 + 300
C = ₹ 340

Question 13.
In what ways does the Reserve bank of India supervise the functioning of commercial banks? [4]
OR
“Reserve Bank of India recently reduced the repo rate to give a boost to the economy.” Explain the function performed by Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
RBI supervises the functioning of commercial banks in the following manner:

The commercial banks are required to maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive.
The RBI monitors that the banks are actually maintaining the cash balance or not.
The RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small borrowers and small-scale industries etc.
Periodically, bank have to submit information to the RBI about how much they are lending, to whom , at what interest rate etc.

OR
Repo rate is the rate at which central bank i.e. Reserve Bank of India, lends money to commercial banks. A reduction in repo rate is aimed at bringing growth and improving economic development in the country. This is the controller of credit function performed by the Reserve Bank of India.

Central bank adopts bank rate policy as a quantitative technique to control credit in an economy. Repo rate is the rate at which commercial banks can borrow funds from central bank. This increases the liquidity available with the commercial banks and it can provide more credit in the form of loans and advances to the people. This increase the money supply in the economy resulting in higher aggregate demand. The increased demand increases the GDP and boost the economy.

Question 14.
Distinguish between devaluation and depreciation of domestic currency. [4]
Answer:
When Government or authorities reduce the price of domestic currency in terms of all foreign currencies, it is called devaluation. Devaluation occurs when a country makes a conscious decision to lower its exchange rate in a fixed or semi-fixed exchange rate. Technically, devaluation is only possible if a country is a member of some fixed exchange rate policy. Depreciation is when there is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate. This is not due to a government’s decision, but due to supply and demand-side factors.

Question 15.
In an economy, planned savings exceed planned investment. How will equality between the two be achieved? Explain. [4]
Answer:
The equilibrium level of income in an economy can be established by the equality between planned savings and planned investment. When planned savings is more than planned investment, then the planned inventory would fall below the desired level. To bring back the inventory at the desired level, the producers expand the output. More output means more income. This is derived by the AD – AS approach itself
AD = AS
C + I = C + S
(Planned) I = S (Planned)
The equilibrium can better be understood by the following diagram: .

From the diagram below, If S > I i.e., level of National income is at OY₂. But increase in savings as compared to investment will result in decrease in production, income and employment in the economy. This will bring the income at equilibrium level i.e. where AD = (C+ I) i.e. at OY level of income.

Moreover, if S < I i.e., level of National income is at OY₁. This will result in increase in income, output level is reached i.e. OY level of income where AS = Y

Question 16.
“Proportional income tax act as an automatic stabiliser in the economy”. Discuss. [6]
Answer:
A cut in taxes increases disposable income at each level of income. A realistic assumption is that the government collects a constant fraction of income in the form of taxes. Proportional taxes not only lower consumption at each level of income but also lower the slope of the consumption function.

Automatic stabilisers are any part of the government budget that offsets fluctuations in aggregate demand. They offset fluctuations in demand by reducing taxes and increasing government spending during a recession, and they do the opposite in expansion. The best known automatic stabilisers are Proportional income taxes. Automatic stabilisers are so called because they act to stabilise economic cycles and are automatically trigerred without additional government action.

The progressive income tax acts as an automatic stabiliser, a shock absorber, because it makes disposable income and thus, consumer spending less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP. When GDP rises, disposable income also rises but by less than the rise in GDP because a part of it is siphoned off as taxes. This helps limit the upward fluctuation in consumption spending. During a recession when GDP falls, disposable income falls less sharply, and consumption does not drop as much as it otherwise would have fallen had the tax liability been fixed.

This reduces the fall in aggregate demand and stabilises the economy.

Fiscal policy instruments can be varied to offset the effects of undesirable shifts in investment demand i.e. if investment falls, government spending can be raised so that autonomous expenditure and equilibrium income remain the same. This deliberate action to stabilise the economy is referred to as discretionary fiscal policy to distinguish it from the inherent automatic stabilising proportional of the fiscal system. Hence, proportional income taxes help to stabilise the economy against upward and downward movements.

Question 17.
Calculate (A) Net National Product at factor Cost and (B) Gross national disposable income from the following data:

S. No	Particulars	₹ (in crores)
0)	Personal tax	100
(ii)	Savings of Non-departmental enterprises	80
(iii)	National debt interest	20
(iv)	Corporation tax	40
(v)	Income from property and entrepreneurship accruing to the Government Administrative Departments	70
(Vi)	Retained earnings of private sector	10
(vii)	Current transfer payments by government	40
(viii)	Depreciation	60
(ix)	NIT	100
(x)	Net current transfers from rest of the world	(-)10
(xi)	Personal disposable income	500
(xii)	Net factor income to abroad	(-)10

Answer:
A) For calculating NNP_FC
First we have to calculate income accruing to private sector
So, Income accruing to private sector = Personal disposable income + Personal Tax + Retained earnings of private sector + Corporation tax – National Debt interest – Current transfer payments by Government – Net current transfers from rest of the world + Net factor income to abroad
= 500 + 100 + 10 + 40 – 20 – 40 – (-10) + (-10)
= ₹ 590 Crores
Now,
NDPFC = Income accruing to private sector + Savings of Non-departmental enterprises + Income from property and entrepreneurship accruing to the Government administrative departments
= 590 + 80 + 70
= ₹ 740 Crores
NNP_FC = NDP_FC – Net factor income to abroad
= 740 – (-10)
= ₹ 750 Crores

(B) Gross national disposable income = NNP_FC + Net indirect Tax + Net current transfers from rest of the world + Depreciation
= 750 + 100 + (-10) + 60
= ₹ 900 Crores

Section – B (40 Marks)
Indian Economic Development

Question 18.
…………….. policy has been adopted by India for economic development since 1991. [1]
(Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Liberal
(b) Restrictive
(c) Strict
(d) Normal
OR
Uncertainty of income for farmers in India is majorly caused by ………………..
(Fill in the blank with correct alternative)
(a) irregular rainfall
(b) unavailability of loans
(c) smallholdings
(d) high rate of interest on loans
Answer:
(a) Liberal

Explanation:
India’s New Economic Policy was announced on July 24, 1991 known as the LPG or Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation model.

Related Theory
The new Economic Policy (NEP), 1991 of India consisted of wide ranging economic reforms. The thrust of the policies was towards creating a more competitive environment in the economy and removing the barriers to entry and growth of firms.

(a) irregular rainfall
Explanation:
Due to lack of irrigation facilities, the farmers in India are mostly dependent on rainfalL The irregular rainfall causes uncertainly of income.

Question 19.
The reason behind implementing the economic reforms in India in 1991 was ………………. [1]
(a) directions from the World Bank
(b) failure of the economic policies of the existing government
(c) declining foreign exchange reserves
(d) none of the above
OR
In …………… the Karve committee noted the possibility of using small scale industries for promoting rural development.
(a) 1944
(b) 1951
(c) 1955
(d) 1953
Answer:
(c) declining foreign exchange reserves

Explanation:
India’s foreign exchange reserves were at $1.2 billion in January 1991 and ‘ depleted by half by June, barely enough to last for roughly 3 weeks of essential imports.

(c)1955
Explanation:
Karve committee was constituted in 1955 by the Planning commission for the growth and development of small scale industries and rural development. It was also called village and small scale industries committee.

Related Theory
Industrial Policy Resolution was adopted in 1956 in accordance with the goal of the state controlling the economy and this formed the basis of second five year plan.

Question 20.
Read the following statement – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Choose one of the correct alternatives given below: [1]
Assertion (A): In India, the service sector has shown significant growth in participation of work force from 1972-73 to 2011-12.
Reason (R): Service sector is the only organised sector in the economy so the government spends a lot of money for creating jobs in service sector.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
There are several reasons for increased production in service sector such as increase in demand for education, health, communication and transporation, development for information and technology sector.

Question 21.
Read the following statement – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Choose one of the correct alternatives given below: [1]
Assertion (A): World Trade Organisation (WTO) was founded in 1995 as the successor organisation to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT).
Reason (R): There was a need to establish a rule based trading regime in which nations cannot place arbitrary restrictions on trade.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
World Trade Organisation (WTO) was established to administer all multi lateral trade agreements by providing equal opportunities to all countries in international market for trading purposes.

Question 22.
Arrange the following events of China in chronological order and choose the correct alternative. [1]
(I) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
(II) One child norm
(III) China’s rapid industrial growth
(IV) Great leap forward Alternatives:
(a) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
(b) (II), (III), (IV), (I)
(c) (IV), (I), (III), (II)
(d) (IV), (III), (II), (I)
Answer:
(c) (IV), (I), (III), (II)

Explanation:
In China, the Great Leap Forward movement started in 1958. The Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution was started in 1966. The China’s rapid industrial growth was started in 1978 followed by One child norm or policy in 1979.

Question 23.
Which country has the highest per capita income? [1]
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(a) China

Explanation:
According to 2017 database, China has the highest per capita income compared to Pakistan, India, and Nepal.

Related Theory
China has the second largest GDP in the world. India’s GDP is about 40 percent of China’s GDP and Pakistan’s GDP is about 12 percent of India’s GDP.

Question 24.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternatives given below: [1]
Statement 1: Economists identify the poor on the basis of their occupation and ownership of assets.
Statement 2: The poor people possess few assets and reside in kutcha hutments.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are true.

Question 25.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following: [1]
Statement 1: Liberalization was introduced to put an end to the restrictions and open various sectors of the economy.
Statement 2: The only industries which are now reserved for the public sector are a part of atomic energy generation and some core activities in railway transport.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 m is false.
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.
Answer:
(b) Both the statements are false.

Question 26.
Green revolution increased the use of: [1]
(a) Improved seeds
(b) Irrigation
(c) Chemical fertilizers
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 27.
What kind of Tax is GST? [1]
(a) Direct Tax
(b) Indirect Tax
(c) Depends on the type of goods and services
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Indirect tax

Question 28.
“Privatisation in its purest sense and lexically means de-nationalization i.e., transfer of the state ownership of the assets to the private sector to the tune of 100%”. Comment. [3]
OR
“Economic reforms were mainly intended to remove the bottlenecks which acted as obstacles to industrial growth”. In light of the above statement, discuss the impact of economic reforms introduced in 1991.
Answer:
Privatisation implies shedding of the management or ownership of a government owned enterprise. Privatisation of the public sector enterprises by selling off the equity is known as disinvestment. Privatisation means de-nationalisation as the transfer of ownership of assets reduces the control of government over these assets and the same are transferred from public sector to private sector. Disinvestment is the 100% transfer of the state owned enterprises to the private sector.

Theindustrialgrowthin India was not satisfactory after the independence. Before the introduction of economic reforms in 1991, the growth was far below the target and not even equal to the performance of 1980s. The economic reforms of 1991 aimed at rapid industrialisation. The policy sought substantially to deregulate industry so as to promote growth of a more efficient and competitive industrial economy.

Industrial licensing was abolished for all industries except in 18 industries. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act was repealed to eliminate the need for prior approval for capacity expansion and diversification. Areas reserved for the public sector were narrowed down and greater participation by private sector was permitted. The policy encouraged disinvestment of government holdings.

Question 29.
Interpret the given picture and state its three advantages. [3]

Answer:
The benefits of organic farming are many but three of them are as follows:

Environment-friendly: The farming of organic products is free ofchemicals and fertilisers, so it does not harm the environment.
Economical: In organic, farming, no expensive fertilisers, pesticides, orHYV seeds are required for the plantation of crops. Therefore, there is no extra expense.
High demand: There is a huge demand for organic products in India and across the globe, which generates more income through export.

Question 30.
“Self-Help Groups have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system”. In light of the above statement, discuss the importance of Self-Help Groups in rural areas. [4]
Answer:
Self-Help Groups have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system because the formal credit delivery system has not only proven inadequate but also not been fully integrated into the rural and community development. Due to the demand of some kind of collateral, vast proportion of poor rural households were automatically out of this credit regime.

SHGs promote thrift in small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member. Out of this pooled money, credit is given to the deprived members repayable in small installments at reasonable interest rates. Such credit provisions are referred to as micro-credit programmes. SHGs have also helped in the empowerment of women.

Question 31.
Compare and contrast India and China’s sectoral contribution towards GDP in 2003. What does it indicate? [4]

Sectors	Contribution to GDP (in %) (2003)
	India	China
Primary (Agriculture)	23	15
Secondary (Industry)	26	53
Tertiary (Service)	51	32

Answer:
The comparison of India’s and China’s sectoral contribution towards their respective GDP can be done with the help of the given data:

Contribution of primary sector to GDP: The data above reveals that the contribution of the primary sector to India’s GDP is 23% compared to 15% of China’s GDP. This confirms the agrarian nature of Indian economy.
Contribution of secondary sector to GDP: The data also reveals that China has comparatively a strong industrial base as compared to India. The contribution of secondary sector to China’s GDP is 53% against the contribution of mere 26% to India’s GDP. From this, we can infer that India’s industrial sector is far behind that of China.
Contribution of tertiary sector to GDP: We can also analyse that although India’s industrial sector is’ not as strong as that of China yet the contribution of India’s service sector is much stronger than that of China.

Thus, after analysing the above data helps us to conclude that a significant portion of India’s GDP is contributed by tertiary sector followed by its agriculture sector. On the contrary, the major contributor to China’s GDP is the secondary sector followed by its tertiary sector.

Question 32.
You and your friends are making a project on the topic of “Key issues in Rural development.” Your findings indicate that rural development is necessary not only for the development of a nation but also for livelihood of rural people. Discuss the objectives and key issues in rural development. [4]
OR
Bring out the differences between human capital and human development.
Answer:
The objective of rural development are:

Increasing productivity of agricultural sector.
Generating alternative means of livelihood in rural sector.
Promoting education and health facilities in the rural areas.

There are some key issues in rural development

A system of marketing that ensures remunerative price to the farmer for his produce.
Diversification of production activity with a view to find alternative means of sustainable living other than crop-cultivation.
Honest system of land reforms.
Development of human resources like health, addressing both sanitation and public health.
Development of infrastructure like electricity, irrigation, transport facility etc.

(1) Human capital and human development are interrelated concepts but they are not identical. Human capital states education and health as a means to increase labour productivity whereas human development is the overall process of widening human’s skills and giving them the opportunity to grow, whether in an organisation or at a personal level

(2) Human capital considers education and health as a means (skills and expertise) to enhance productive capacity, whereas on the other hand human development considers human beings as end in itself.

(3) Human capital is a narrow concept whereas human development is a broader concept.

(4) Human capital considers that investment in education and health is unproductive if It does not increase the output of goods and services, whereas human development occurs when majority of people in the economy are educated and healthy.

Question 33.
Explain the benefits of Goods and Services Tax (GST). [6]
Answer:
The benefits are Goods and Services Tax (GST) are as follows:
(1) Uniformity of tax rates and structures: GST will ensure that indirect tax rates and structures are common across the country, thereby increasing certainty and ease of doing business.

(2) Removal of cascading effect: A system of seamless tax-credits throughout the value- chain, and across boundaries of states, would ensure that there is minimal cascading of taxes. This would reduce hidden costs of doing business.

(3) Improved competitiveness: Reduction in transaction costs of doing business would eventually lead to an improved competitiveness for the trade and industry.

(4) Higher revenue efficiency: GST is expected to decrease the cost of collection of tax revenues of the Government, and will therefore, lead to higher revenue efficiency.

(5) Gain to manufacturers and exporters: The subsuming of major Central and State taxes in GST, complete and comprehensive set off of input goods and services and phasing out of Central Sales Tax (CST) would reduce the cost of locally manufactured goods and services.

(6) Relief in overall tax burden: Because of efficiency gains and prevention of leakages, the overall tax burden on most of the commodities will come down, which will benefit consumers.

Question 34.
Read the following case carefully given below: [6]
Triple Wins for Sustainable Development
Sustainable development is the synonymous in the minds of many with the colour green and for good reasons. Twenty years ago, at the First Earth Summit at Rio de Janerio, in Brazil, world leaders set out what today is conventional wisdom: SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC HUMAN PROGRESS – cannot be divorced from environmental protection unless both are advanced together, both will flounder together.

Sustainable development is as much about health, education and jobs, as it is about the ecosystems. It is about ever widening inclusion and movement away from decisions that erode democratic space and do not address social inequality, intolerance, and violence.

Sustainable Development is about changes that transform impoverished people, communities, and countries into informed, educated healthy and productive societies. It is about wealth creation that generates equality and opportunity. Sustainable Development is about consumption and production patterns that respect planetary boundaries; it is also about increasing tolerance and respect for human rights at all levels.

Building on human development legacy that oriented with Economists like Amartya Sen and MahbubUlHaq and was captured by the first Human Development Report in 1990. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has long promoted alternative approaches to measure human progress, along with the Human Development Index (HDI).

Today, we are building on this legacy by exploring how to adjust the index to reflect environmental sustainability, so that governments and citizens might better track real progress towards truly sustainable development This must be our collective objective.
(A) “Sustainable development is all about ecosystem only.” Defend or refute the statement with valid argument.
(B) As per the above text, which must be our collective objective?
Answer:
(A) The statement is refuted as sustainable development is as much about health, education and jobs, as it is about the ecosystems. Sustainable Development is about changes that transform impoverished people, communities, and countries into informed, educated healthy and productive societies. It is about wealth creation that generates equality and opportunity. Sustainable Development is about consumption and production patterns that respect planetary boundaries; it is also about increasing tolerance and respect for human rights at all levels.

(B) Today, we are building on this Legacy by exploring how to adjust the index to reflect environmental sustainability, so that governments and citizens might better track real progress towards truly sustainable development. This must be our collective objective.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi B Set 2 with Solutions

April 11, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi B Set 2 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश:

इस प्रश्न पत्र में दो खंड हैं- खंड ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
खंड ‘अ’ में उपप्रश्नों सहित 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए कुल 40 प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं, आंतरिक विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं।
निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका पालन कीजिए।
दोनों खंडों के कुल 18 प्रश्न हैं। दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
यथासंभव दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमशः लिखिए। महान

खंड ‘अ’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
नीचे दिए गए गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।(1 × 5 = 5)
नैतिक शिक्षा के दो पहलू हैं-सकारात्मक एवं नकारात्मक। पहले पक्ष के अन्तर्गत आते हैं-सत्य, अहिंसा, परोपकार और करुणा। ये ही गुण परहित के कारण हैं और परहित को गोस्वामी तुलसीदास ने परम धर्म कहा है। इसके विपरीत नकारात्मक पहलू के अन्तर्गत आते हैं-काम, क्रोध, मोह, लोभ, दुर्वचन आदि। इन्हीं अवगुणों से दूसरों को पीड़ा पहुँचती है और पीड़ा को तुलसीदास ने अधर्म या पाप कहा है। यदि छात्रों को नैतिक शिक्षा दी जायेगी तो वे सन्मार्ग पर चलेंगे, अपनी आत्मा को शुद्ध बनाकर अपना और देश दोनों का हित करेंगे। इसके विपरीत आचरण करने पर छल-कपट कर, अनुशासन भंग कर स्वयं अपना जीवन भी नष्ट करेंगे और समाज में अराजकता फैलाकर देश को दुर्बल बनायेंगे। यदि विद्यार्थी जीवन से ही छात्रों को सही मार्गदर्शन मिले तो निश्चित रूप से सभ्यता और संस्कृति का बीजारोपण हो जाता है। यह वही अवस्था है जिसमें अच्छे नागरिकों का निर्माण होता है। इसलिए नैतिकता की शिक्षा हम शिक्षण संस्थाओं में पाठ्यक्रम का अंग बनाकर दे सकते हैं।
(क) परहित को गोस्वामी तुलसीदास ने क्या कहा है?
(i) परम धर्म
(ii) परम सत्य
(iii) परम करुणा
(iv) परम अवतार
उत्तर:
(i) परम धर्म

(ख) तुलसीदास ने अधर्म या पाप किसे कहा है?
(i) अहिंसा को
(ii) पीड़ा को
(iii) करुणा को
(iv) परोपकार को
उत्तर:
(ii) पीड़ा को

(ग) छात्रों को नैतिक शिक्षा देने से क्या लाभ है?
(i) वे अपना जीवन नष्ट करेंगे।
(ii) वे अनुशासन भंग करेंगे।
(iii) वे सन्मार्ग पर चलेंगे।
(iv) वे अपना समय नष्ट करेंगे।
उत्तर:
(iii) वे सन्मार्ग पर चलेंगे।

(घ) विद्यार्थी जीवन से ही छात्रों को सही मार्गदर्शन मिलने पर क्या होगा?
(i) वे अपने मार्ग पर चल सकते हैं।
(ii) वे नए स्थानों पर जा सकते हैं।
(iii) वे एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर जा सकेंगे।
(iv) उनमें सभ्यता और संस्कृति का बीजारोपण होगा।
उत्तर:
(iv) उनमें सभ्यता और संस्कृति का बीजारोपण होगा।

(ङ) नैतिक शिक्षा के कितने पहलू बताए गए हैं? .
(i) एक
(ii) दो
(iii) तीन
(iv) चार
उत्तर:
(ii) दो

नैतिक शिक्षा के दो पहलू बताए गए हैं सकारात्मक एवं नकारात्मक।

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे दिए गए गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।(1 × 5 = 5)
राष्ट्रभाषा और राजभाषा के रूप में हिंदी की स्थिति समझने के लिए हमें इन दो शब्दों के अर्थों पर विचार करना पड़ेगा। सही संदर्भ में इन शब्दों का प्रयोग न होने के कारण घालमेल की स्थिति पैदा हो जाती है। आज राष्ट्रभाषा शब्द का अर्थ प्रायः दो अर्थों में मिलता है। एक, राष्ट्र की भाषा के रूप में, दूसरा, राष्ट्र की एकमात्रा भाषा के रूप में। पहले अर्थ के अनुसार संविध पान की आठवीं अनुसूची में पूरे भारत में बोली जाने वाली जो प्रमुख भाषाएँ गिनाई गई हैं, जिनकी संख्या अब 22 है, वे सब भाषाएँ राष्ट्रभाषा हैं, जिन्हें कुछ लोग राष्ट्रीय भाषा कहना अधिक उपयुक्त समझते हैं। दूसरे अर्थ के अनुसार, हिंदी को ही एकमात्रा राष्ट्रभाषा होने का सम्मान प्राप्त है, ठीक वैसे ही जैसे एक राष्ट्र गान को, एक ध्वज को और एक संविधान को। स्वतंत्र भारत के संविधान के लागू होने से पहले हिंदी को इसी अर्थ में राष्ट्रभाषा का दर्जा प्राप्त था।

‘राजभाषा’ शब्द का प्रयोग भी दो अर्थों में किया जाता रहा है। एक तो राज्य की भाषा के अर्थ में-श्री राजगोपालाचारी ने ‘नेशनल-लैंग्वेज’ (राष्ट्रभाषा) के समानांतर राज्यों की भाषा को उससे अलग करते हुए ‘स्टेट-लैंग्वेज’ के अर्थ में राजभाषा शब्द का प्रयोग किया था। दूसरा, राजकाज की भाषा के अर्थ में-सरकारी तौर पर स्वीकृत राजकाज की भाषा ही राजभाषा है। संविधान के अनुच्छेद-343 में लिखा गया है-“संघ की राजभाषा हिंदी और लिपि देवनागरी होगी।” अनुच्छेद 343 से लेकर 351 तक जहाँ-जहाँ भी राजभाषा शब्द का प्रयोग हुआ है, वहाँ उसके अनेक प्रयोजनों में एक प्रयोजन प्रशासकीय प्रयोजन बताया गया है। इसका अर्थ हुआ कि संविधान में प्रयुक्त राजभाषा शब्द का प्रयोग राजकाज की भाषा के अर्थ से कहीं अधिक व्यापक रूप में हुआ है, जिसमें राजकाज की सरकारी स्वीकृत भाषा के साथ-साथ राष्ट्रभाषा वाला अर्थ भी समाहित हो गया

हिंदी अपने उद्भव काल-लगभग दसवीं शताब्दी से ही इस अर्थ में भारत की राष्ट्रभाषा रही है कि भारत के अधिकांश लोग उसे समझते और बोलते रहे हैं। यह भारत के संतों, भक्तों, चिंतकों और विचारकों की भाषा रही है। बौद्ध, सिद्धों, नाथों, जैन मुनियों ने इसे अपनी वाणी का प्रसाद दिया है। मुगलकाल में कार्यालयी भाषा भले ही फ़ारसी रही हो और अंग्रेजों के शासन-काल में अंग्रेजी किंतु भारत के अधिक-से-अधिक लोगों तक संदेश पहुँचाने की बात जहाँ कहीं भी उठी, हिंदी को ही उसका माध्यम चुने जाने का गौरव प्राप्त हुआ। आज भी हिंदी भारत की बहुमत की भाषा है। कश्मीर से लेकर कन्याकुमारी तक और जैसलमेर से लेकर गुवाहाटी तक यह समझी और बोली जाती है।
(क) हिन्दी अपने उद्भव काल से ही भारत की राष्ट्र भाषा क्यों रही है?
(i) अधिकांश लोग उसे समझते और बोलते रहे है।
(ii) राज्य का काम इसमें होता रहा है।
(iii) यह भाषा आसान है।
(iv) यह भाषा कठिन है।
उत्तर:
(i) अधिकांश लोग उसे समझते और बोलते रहे है।

(ख) प्रस्तुत गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक क्या होगा?
(i) हिंदी
(ii) हिंदी : राष्ट्रभाषा और राजभाषा
(iii) हिंदी : एक राष्ट्रभाषा
(iv) हिंदी : मातृभाषा
उत्तर:
(ii) हिंदी : राष्ट्रभाषा और राजभाषा

(ग) राजभाषा को किसकी भाषा माना गया है?
(i) सम्मान की
(ii) राष्ट्र की एकमात्र भाषा
(iii) सरकारी कामकाज की भाषा
(iv) सभी विकल्प सही हैं
उत्तर:
(iii) सरकारी कामकाज की भाषा

(घ) मुगलकाल में कार्यालयी भाषा कौन-सी रही होगी
(i) अरबी
(ii) उर्दू
(iii) अंग्रेजी
(iv) फ़ारसी
उत्तर:
(iii) अंग्रेजी

मुगल काल में भले ही कार्यालयी भाषा फारसी रही हो, अंग्रेजों के काल में अंग्रेजी, किंतु हिन्दी को ही अधिकांश लोगों द्वारा प्रयोग किए जाने के कारण गौरव प्राप्त हुआ।

(ङ) ‘राष्ट्रभाषा’ शब्द में कौन-सा समास होगा?
(i) अव्ययीभाव समास
(ii) तत्पुरुष समास
(iii) द्विगु समास
(iv) कर्मधारय समास
उत्तर:
(ii) तत्पुरुष समास

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदबंधों के भेद पहचानिए और सही विकल्प छाँटकर उत्तर दीजिए (1 × 4 =4)
(क) राष्ट्रप्रेम की कविताएँ लिखने वाला वह कवि सभी के अंदर जोश भर देता है।
(i) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ii) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(iii) क्रिया पदबंध
(iv) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंध
उत्तर:
(ii) सर्वनाम पदबंध

(ख) भयंकर अपराध करने वाले उस अपराधी को सजा तो मिलनी ही चाहिए थी।
(i) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(ii) संज्ञा पदबंध
(iii) विशेषण पदबंध
(iv) क्रिया पदबंध
उत्तर:
(iii) विशेषण पदबंध

(ग) चाजीन ने चाय तैयार करके उनके सामने रख दी।
(i) विशेषण पदबंध
(ii) क्रिया पदबंध
(iii) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंध
(iv) सर्वनाम पदबंध
उत्तर:
(iii) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंध

(घ) एक झूठ बोलने पर उसे कठोर सजा दी गई।
(i) विशेषण पदबंध
(ii) क्रिया पदबंध
(iii) संज्ञा पदबंध
(iv) सर्वनाम पदबंध
उत्तर:
(ii) क्रिया पदबंध

(ङ) उसकी जीवन भर की ईमानदारी का फल उसे अब मिल रहा है।
(i) क्रिया पदबंध
(ii) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(iii) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंध
(iv) संज्ञा पदबंध
उत्तर:
(iv) संज्ञा पदबंध

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए- (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) वामीरो तेज कदमों से चलती हुई आई। वह ततांरा के सामने आकर ठिठक गई। इन दो वाक्यों से बना हुआ सरल वाक्य होगा
(i) जब वामीरो तेज कदमों से जलती हुई आई तब ततांरा के सामने आकर ठिठक गई।
(ii) तेज कदमों से चलके आती हुई वामीरो ततांरा के सामने आकर ठिठक गई।
(iii) वामीरो तेज कदमों से चलती हुई आई और ततांरा के सामने आकर ठिठक गई।
(iv) तेज कदमों से चलती हुई आई वामीरो किंतु ततांरा के सामने आकर ठिठक गई।
उत्तर:
(ii) तेज कदमों से चलके आती हुई वामीरो ततांरा के सामने आकर ठिठक गई।

(ख) ‘यहाँ दूर तक पहले जंगल था और अब बस्तियाँ बन गई हैं।’ रचना के आधार पर इस वाक्य के भेद हैं
(i) मिश्र वाक्य
(ii) सरल वाक्य
(iii) संयुक्त वाक्य
(iv) उपवाक्य
उत्तर:
(iii) संयुक्त वाक्य

(ग) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से मिश्र वाक्य छाँटिए
(i) वह चाहता है कि इस बार खेल प्रतियोगिता में भाग ले।
(ii) इस बार वह भी खेल प्रतियोगिता में भाग लेना चाहता है।
(iii) खेल प्रतियोगिता होने वाली है और वह उसमें भाग लेना चाहता है।
(iv) जब खेल प्रतियोगिता होगी तब वह उसमें भाग लेगा।
उत्तर:
(i) वह चाहता है कि इस बार खेल प्रतियोगिता में भाग ले।

(घ) बड़े भाई साहब घंटों किताबें लेकर बैठे रहते थे किंतु पढ़ने में उनका मन नहीं लगता था। वाक्य का भेद है
(i) सरल वाक्य
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य
(iii) मिश्र वाक्य
(iv) प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य
उत्तर:
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य

(ङ) उसने अपने आप को संयत करते हुए बेरुखी से जवाब दिया। वाक्य का भेद है
(i) सरल वाक्य
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य
(iii) मिश्र वाक्य
(iv) प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य
उत्तर:
(i) सरल वाक्य

प्रश्न 5.
समास विषय पर आधारित निम्नलिखित किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) ‘सेनानायक’ का समास विग्रह व भेद होगा
(i) नायक है जो सेना-कर्मधारय समास
(ii) सेना का नायक-तत्पुरुष समास
(iii) नायक है जिसकी सेना-बहुव्रीहि समास
(iv) सेना और नायक-द्वंद्व समास
उत्तर:
(ii) सेना का नायक-तत्पुरुष समास

(ख) “विचारमग्न’ सामासिक शब्द का विग्रह और भेद
(i) विचार और मग्न-द्वंद्व समास
(ii) विचार है जो मग्न-कर्मधारय समास
(iii) विचारों में मग्न-तत्पुरुष समास
(iv) विचारों का समूह-द्विगु समास
उत्तर:
(iii) विचारों में मग्न-तत्पुरुष समास

(ग) ‘तीन वाणियों का समूह’ का समस्त पद और समास का भेद होगा
(i) तीन वाणी हैं जिसकी-बहुव्रीहि समास
(ii) तीन हैं जिसकी वेणियाँ-तत्पुरुष समास
(iii) तीन वेणियों के समान-कर्मधारय समास
(iv) तीन वाणियों का समूह-द्विगु समास
उत्तर:
(iv) तीन वाणियों का समूह-द्विगु समास

(घ) ‘न पढ़ा लिखा’ समस्त पद और समास का भेद है
(i) अनपढ़ – नत्र तत्पुरुष समास
(ii) अन-पढ़-द्वंद्व समास
(iii) अनपढ़-अव्ययीभाव समास
(iv) नापढ़-कर्मधारय समास
उत्तर:
(i) अनपढ़ – नत्र तत्पुरुष समास

(ङ) ‘भीमार्जुन’ का समास विग्रह और भेद है
(i) भीम और अर्जुन-द्वंद्व समास
(ii) भीम का अर्जुन-तत्पुरुष समास
(iii) भीम रूपी अर्जुन- कर्मधारय समास
(iv) भीम है जिसका अर्जुन-बहुव्रीहि समास
उत्तर:
(i) भीम और अर्जुन-द्वंद्व समास

प्रश्न 6.
मुहावरों पर आधारित निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर लिखिए (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) पुलिस जब थोड़ी …………..”गई तब मौका देखते ही चोर फरार हो गए।
(i) काम तमाम करना
(ii) लोहे के चने चबाना
(iii) ठंडा पड़ना
(iv) आग बबूला होना
उत्तर:
(iii) ठंडा पड़ना

(ख) वह देर रात ……….. घर में आया था फिर भी माँ को भनक लग ही गई।
(i) आड़े हाथों लेना
(ii) काम तमाम करना ।
(iii) आँखें फेरना
(iv) दबे पाँव आना
उत्तर:
(iv) दबे पाँव आना

(ग) कक्षा में उत्तीर्ण होने पर उसके साथ-साथ पूरे परिवार की …………”नहीं रहा।
(i) हवा में उड़ना
(ii) खुशी का ठिकाना न रहना
(iii) गाँठ बाँध लेना
(iv) सुध बुध खोना
उत्तर:
(ii) खुशी का ठिकाना न रहना

(घ) दादाजी पोते का अभद्र व्यवहार देखकर गए।
(i) आग बबूला हो
(ii) किस्सा खत्म होना
(iii) सातवें आसमान पर हो
(iv) सिर धुनना
उत्तर:
(i) आग बबूला हो

(ङ) जब वह किसी काम का न रहा तो लोगों ने उसे …………. की तरह घर से बाहर कर दिया।
(i) दूध की मक्खी
(ii) आस्तीन का सांप
(iii) रंगा सियार
(iv) तलवार खींचना
उत्तर:
(i) दूध की मक्खी

(च) यदि तुम स्व-रोजगार स्थापित करना चाहते हो तो ………… के लिए तैयार हो जाओ।
(i) लोहे के चने चबाना
(ii) सुध बुध खोना
(iii) सातवें आसमान पर होना
(iv) चेहरा मुरझाना
उत्तर:
(i) लोहे के चने चबाना

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए (1 × 5 = 5)
पोथी पढ़ि-पढ़ि जग मुआ, पंडित भया न कोई।
एकै आशिर पीव का, पढ़े सो पंडित होय।।
(क) पंडित होने का अर्थ है
(i) पूजा पाठ में कुशल हो जाना
(ii) साधना में पारंगत हो जाना
(iii) पुस्तकों का ज्ञान हो जाना
(iv) वास्तविक ज्ञानी होना
उत्तर:
(iv) वास्तविक ज्ञानी होना

(ख) सच्चे अर्थों में ज्ञानी किसे कहा जा सकता है?
(i) जिसे शास्त्रों का ज्ञान हो गया हो
(ii) जो सबको शिक्षा देने में समर्थ हो
(iii) जिसके हृदय में सभी के प्रति प्रेम हो
(iv) जिसे प्रेम शब्द लिखना आ गया हो
उत्तर:
(iii) जिसके हृदय में सभी के प्रति प्रेम हो

(ग) इस पद्यांश में किसका महत्व बताया गया है?
(i) शास्त्र पढ़ने का
(ii) प्रेम भाव जगाने का
(iii) अपने को सबसे श्रेष्ठ साबित करने का
(iv) ज्ञानी बनने का
उत्तर:
(ii) प्रेम भाव जगाने का

(घ) यह दोहा किस पाठ से लिया गया है और कवि का नाम है
(i) रहीम के दोहे-संत रहीम
(ii) कबीर के दोहे-संत कबीर
(iii) कबीर की साखियाँ-कबीर दास
(iv) साखी-कबीर
उत्तर:
(iv) साखी-कबीर

(ङ) प्रस्तुत दोहे का संदेश है कि हमें
(i) शास्त्र नहीं पढ़ने चाहिए
(ii) केवल शास्त्र पढ़ने चाहिए
(iii) प्रेम का अक्षर पढ़ना चाहिए
(iv) सबके प्रति प्रेम की भावना रखनी चाहिए
उत्तर:
(iv) सबके प्रति प्रेम की भावना रखनी चाहिए

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर उचित विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) कवि ‘कैफ़ी आज़मी’ ने रावण शब्द का प्रयोग किसके लिए किया है
(i) सैनिकों के लिए
(ii) शत्रु देश के लिए
(iii) मातृभूमि के लिए
(iv) संकट के लिए
उत्तर:
(ii) शत्रु देश के लिए

(ख) पर्वतों के लिए दर्पण की भूमिका कौन निभा रहा था
(i) विशाल तालाब
(ii) सहस्र सुमन
(iii) ऊँचे-ऊँचे वृक्ष
(iv) पावस ऋतु
उत्तर:
(i) विशाल तालाब

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर उचित विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)
दोनों के हृदय व्यथित थे। किसी तरह आंचरहित एक ठंडा और उबाऊ दिन गुजरने लगा। शाम की प्रतीक्षा थी। ततांरा के लिए मानो पूरे जीवन की अकेली प्रतीक्षा थी। उसके गंभीर और शांत जीवन में ऐसा पहली बार हुआ था। वह अचंभित था, साथ ही रोमांचित भी। दिन ढलने के काफी पहले वह लपाती की उस समुद्री चट्टान पर पहुँच गया। वामीरो की प्रतीक्षा में एक-एक पल पहाड़ की तरह भारी था। उसके भीतर एक आशंका भी दौड़ रही थी। अगर वामीरो न आई तो। वह कुछ निर्णय नहीं कर पा रहा था। सिर्फ प्रतीक्षारत था बस आस की एक किरण थी जो समुद्र की देह पर डूबती किरणों की तरह कभी भी डूब सकती थी। वह बार-बार लपाती के रास्ते पर नजर दौड़ा रहा था। सहसा नारियल के झुरमुट में से उसे एक आकृति कुछ साफ हुई.. कुछ और…कुछ और। उसकी खुशी का ठिकाना न रहा। (क) ततांरा को शाम की प्रतीक्षा क्यों थी?
(i) समुद्र तट पर टहलने के लिए
(ii) वामीरो का गीत सुनने के लिए।
(iii) वामीरो से मुलाकात करने के लिए
(iv) ढलता सूरज देखने के लिए
उत्तर:
(iii) वामीरो से मुलाकात करने के लिए

(ख) ततांरा के हृदय में किस बात की आशंका थी?
(i) वामीरो आएगी या नहीं।
(ii) वामीरो उससे विवाह करेगी या नहीं
(iii) सभी गाँव वाले उनके बारे में क्या कहेंगे
(iv) वह फिर से वामीरो का गीत सुन पाएगा या नहीं
उत्तर:
(i) वामीरो आएगी या नहीं।

(ग) ‘खुशी का ठिकाना न रहना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है
(i) कहीं खुशी न मिलना
(ii) बहुत अधिक खुश होना
(iii) खुशी के ठिकाने पर न पहुँच पाना
(iv) खुशियों का जल्दी चले जाना
उत्तर:
(ii) बहुत अधिक खुश होना

(घ) ततारा को किसके डूबने का भय था?
(i) अपने डूबने का ।
(ii) वामीरो के डूबने का
(iii) अपनी उम्मीद के डूबने का
(iv) सूरज की किरणों के डूबने
उत्तर:
(iii) अपनी उम्मीद के डूबने का

(ङ) प्रस्तुत गद्यांश के पाठ व लेखक का नाम है
(i) अंडमान निकोबार द्वीप समूह-निदा फ़ाजली
(ii) गिन्नी का सोना-रवींद्र केलेकर
(iii) ततारा वामीरो कथा-लीलाधर मंडलोई
(iv) ततांरा वामीरो कथा-निदा फ़ाज़ली
उत्तर:
(iii) ततारा वामीरो कथा-लीलाधर मंडलोई

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का उत्तर देने के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) राजकपूर ने शैलेंद्र को किस बात से आगाह किया?
(i) फिल्म की सफलता के खतरों से
(ii) फिल्म की असफलता के खतरों से
(iii) एक निर्देशक के रूप में असफल होने के खतरों से
(iv) उसमें अभिनय न करने के खतरों से
उत्तर:
(ii) फिल्म की असफलता के खतरों से

(ख) गाँधी जी के व्यक्तित्व को कैसा माना जाता है?
(i) आदर्शवादी
(ii) व्यवहारवादी
(iii) प्रैक्टिकल आइडियलिस्ट
(iv) आशावादी
उत्तर:
(iii) प्रैक्टिकल आइडियलिस्ट

खंड ‘ब’
वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो के उत्तर 60 शब्दों में दीजिए (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) बड़े भाई साहब के अनुसार ज़िन्दगी की असली समझ कैसे आती है?
उत्तर:
लेखक के बड़े भाई साहब लेखक से पाँच साल बड़े थे, किन्तु कई बार फेल हो जाने के कारण उनमें व लेखक में केवल एक कक्षा का अन्तर रह गया था, फिर भी वे लेखक को डाँटने, उपदेश देने का अवसर जाने नहीं देते थे. क्योंकि उनका मानना था कि बड़े होने के नाते वे जीवन की अधिक समझ रखते हैं। समझदारी केवल पुस्तकें पढ़ने से नहीं, जीवन के अनुभवों से आती है। जिसे ज़िन्दगी का तजुर्बा ज्यादा होता है, वह हर परिस्थिति का सामना करने में सक्षम होता है, क्योंकि असली समझ का सम्बन्ध व्यावहारिक अनुभव से है।

(ख) लेखक ‘निदा फ़ाजली’ को अपनी माँ से क्या सीखने को मिला?
उत्तर:
लेखक निदा फाजली की माँ को प्रकृति से, जीव-जन्तुओं से विशेष लगाव था। वे बचपन से ही लेखक को भी यही समझाती थीं कि हमें पशु-पक्षियों को सताना नहीं चाहिए, दरिया को सलाम करना चाहिए, फूलों को नहीं तोड़ना चाहिए। उन्हीं की शिक्षा का परिणाम था कि लेखक भी पर्यावरण के प्रति अत्यधिक संवेदनशील थे। मानव द्वारा अपनी असीमित इच्छाओं की पूर्ति के लिए प्रकृति का शोषण करना उन्हें बहुत तकलीफ देता था। उन्हें इस बात का अफसोस है कि अब लोग प्रकृति व पर्यावरण के प्रति बहुत निष्ठुर हो गए हैं।

(ग) कवि ‘कैफी आज़मी’ ने धरती को दुल्हन क्यों कहा है?
उत्तर:
कविता ‘कर चले हम फिदा’ के अन्तर्गत कवि कैफ़ी आज़मी ने सैनिक की भावनाओं को शब्द दिए हैं। सैनिक जब धरती की रक्षा करते हुए उसे अपने खून से रंग देते हैं, तब धरती लाल जोड़े में सजी दुल्हन-सी प्रतीत होती है। जिस प्रकार अपनी दुल्हन की रक्षा के लिए युवक प्रण लेता है और उसे निभाता है उसी प्रकार सैनिक अपनी धरती की रक्षा करने के लिए वचनबद्ध है, जो . उसके खून से रंगकर दुल्हन-सी प्रतीत हो रही है।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर 60 शब्दों में दीजिए (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) असीम दुःख की स्थिति में कवि रवींद्रनाथ ठाकुर ईश्वर से क्या प्रार्थना कर रहे हैं?
उत्तर:
जीवन में कभी ऐसा भी समय आ जाता है जब जीवन दुःख की रात्रि बन जाता है। चारों ओर दुःखों और निराशा के बादल घिर जाते हैं। कहीं से कोई आशा की किरण दिखाई नहीं देती। ऐसे में ईश्वर के अस्तित्व और उनके न्याय पर विश्वास नहीं करता रहता। इसलिए असीम दुःख की स्थिति में कवि ईश्वर से यही प्रार्थना कर रहे हैं कि उनके मन में ईश्वर के प्रति किसी प्रकार का कोई संदेह पैदा न हो। कैसी भी परिस्थितियाँ क्यों न आ जाएँ प्रभु के अस्तित्व और उनके निर्णय पर उनका विश्वास सदा बना रहे। ऐहतियात- द:ख के समय में ही ईश्वर के प्रति हमारे विश्वास की परख होती है।

(ख) ‘कर चले हम फिदा, गीत में कवि ने वीरों के प्राण छोड़ते समय का मार्मिक वर्णन किस प्रकार किया है? अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
कवि ‘कैफी आज़मी’ ने उस स्थिति का मार्मिक चित्रण किया है। सैनिक देश की हिफाजत के लिए सीमा पर तैनात रहता है और शत्रु देश का आक्रमण होने पर घायल भी हो जाता है। उसकी साँसें थमने लगती हैं, नब्ज जमने लगती है, किंतु बढ़ते हुए कदमों को वह रुकने नहीं देता। अंतिम सांस तक आगे बढ़कर शत्रु देश को हराने और अपने देश के मान सम्मान की रक्षा करने का प्रयत्न करता है।

(ग) ‘तोप’ कविता में तोप को विरासत क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर:
विरासत या धरोहर में मिली वस्तुएँ हमें अपने गौरवशाली इतिहास की याद दिलाती हैं या हमें भविष्य के लिए सचेत करती हैं। जिस तोप का वर्णन कवि ‘वीरेन डंगवाल’ ने किया है, वह अंग्रेजों की निशानी है। उसे विरासत कहा गया है क्योंकि वह हमेशा हमें याद दिलाती रहेगी कि हमारे पूर्वजों की गलतियों के कारण पूरे देश को दारुण दुःख झेलने पड़े थे। हमें किसी भी कीमत पर उस इतिहास को दोहराना नहीं है।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर 60 शब्दों में दीजिए (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) ‘हरिहर काका’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए कि हमारे समाज में रिश्तों का क्या महत्व है?
उत्तर:
भारत एक ऐसा देश है जहाँ सदा से मानवीय सम्बन्धों को, पारिवारिक सम्बन्धों को, संस्कारों व संस्कृति को सर्वोपरि माना गया है। संयुक्त परिवार व्यवस्था भी यहाँ सदा से ही प्रचलन में रही है, किन्तु अत्यधिक आधुनिकीकरण व भौतिकवादी मानसिकता ने वातावरण को बहुत बदल दिया है। मानवीय मूल्यों का स्थान स्वार्थ, लालच, छल-कपट ने ले लिया है। रिश्ते कमज़ोर पड़ने लगे व स्वार्थ उन पर हावी होता गया है। पाठ ‘हरिहर काका’ में हरिहर की व्यथा हमारे समाज के हर चौथे वृद्ध की व्यथा है। प्रेम, भाईचारा केवल किताबी बातें रह गयी हैं। जब तक अपना मतलब निकलता है, तभी तक लोग एक-दूसरे से सम्बन्ध रखते हैं, स्वार्थ सधते ही दूध में से मक्खी की तरह दूर कर देते हैं। पिछले कई दशकों से यही स्थिति बनी हुई है, जिसका प्रभाव समाज में बढ़ते अपराधों व असुरक्षा के रूप में सामने आ रहा है। मेरा मानना है कि धन कम भी हो तो खुश रहा जा सकता है, किन्तु रिश्ते मधुर न हों या दोस्तों से सम्बन्धों में मधुरता न हो तो जीवन बोझ लगने लगता है।

(ख) इफ्फन की दादी का मन पीहर जाने को क्यों मचलता रहता था?
उत्तर:
इफ्फन की दादी पूरब की रहने वाली थी। एक ज़मींदार परिवार में, दूध-दही-घी खाते हुए उनका बचपन बीता था। केवल दस बरस की थीं जब ब्याह कर लखनऊ आ गई थीं। ससुराल का वातावरण, रहन-सहन बिल्कुल विपरीत था। जहाँ मायके में किसी भी अवसर पर खूब गाना-बजाना होता था, इधर ससुराल में उसे बुरा समझा जाता था। इस मौलवी परिवार में वह दूध-घी को भी तरस गई। यहाँ तक कि इफ्फन के जन्म के अवसर पर भी वह गाने-बजाने का शौक पूरा नहीं कर सकी। उसे अपने गाँव का बीजू पेड़, खुला वातावरण बहुत याद आता था और उसका जी वहीं जाने के लिए तरसता रहता था।

(ग) लेखक ग्रीष्मावकाश कार्य के लिए क्या योजनाएँ बनाया करते थे? आप अपना ग्रीष्मावकाश कार्य किस प्रकार करते हैं?
उत्तर:
लेखक जब छोटे थे, उनका पढ़ने में मन बिल्कुल नहीं लगता था। जब ग्रीष्मावकाश होता तो शुरू के कुछ दिन तो खेलने-कूदने में बीत जाते। फिर योजना बनानी शुरू करते कि रोज कितना काम करेंगे और कितने दिन में खत्म हो जाएगा। ग्रीष्मावकाश खत्म हो जाता किंतु उनका कार्य पूरा नहीं हो पाता था। तब भी छात्रों के नेता ओमा से प्रोत्साहित होते थे जो काम करने से अधिक सस्ता सौदा अध्यापकों की डांट या मार खाने को समझता था। मैं अपना ग्रीष्मावकाश कार्य बहुत मन से करती हूँ क्योंकि वह बहुत कुछ सिखाता है और ग्रीष्म अवकाश का समय भी कार्य करते हुए बहुत ही मनोरंजक और ज्ञानवर्धक बन जाता है।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए (5)
(क) समय अमूल्य धन है
संकेत बिन्दु

समय का महत्व
दुरुपयोग से हानियाँ
सदुपयोग से लाभ व उपाय।

अथवा

(ख) मेरा जीवन लक्ष्य
संकेत बिन्दु

लक्ष्य निर्धारण की आवश्यकता
आदर्श या लक्ष्य पर एकाग्रता
लक्ष्य प्राप्ति के उपाय।

अथवा

(ग) भारतीय नारी
संकेत बिन्दु

प्राचीन भारत में नारी की स्थिति
बदलती तस्वीर
आदर्श स्थिति।

उत्तर:
(क) समय अमूल्य धन है अपना कीमती समय लगाकर हम धन तो कमा सकते हैं, किन्तु कितना ही धन लगा दें, बीता हुआ समय पुनः वापस नहीं कमा सकते। अतः यह कथन सर्वथा सत्य है कि समय अमूल्य धन है। यह मुट्ठी में रेत की भाँति होता है जो निकलता चला जाता है। एक-एक पल जो हमें मिल रहा है, यदि हम उसका सही इस्तेमाल कर लें तो हमें जीवन में सफल होने से कोई नहीं रोक सकता। विश्व में जितने भी महापुरुष हुए हैं, उन्होंने समय का सदुपयोग करके ही सफलता प्राप्त की, अपने लक्ष्यों को प्राप्त किया। जो व्यक्ति समय को बर्बाद करता है, समय उसे बर्बाद कर देता है। इस बात में गहरी सीख है कि ‘काल करे सो आज कर, आज करे सो अब’ यानि काम को आलस्यवश कल पर कभी नहीं टालना चाहिए। सही वक्त पर किये गये कार्य का ही मोल होता है वरना का बरखा जब कृषि सुखाने’ अर्थात् समय हाथ से निकल जाने पर पछताने से कोई लाभ नहीं होता। याद रखिए समय व लहरें किसी की प्रतीक्षा नहीं करतीं। अतः जो समय रूपी लहर आपके सामने है, उसमें गहरे डूब जाइए, तभी अनमोल खज़ाना हाथ लगेगा।

अथवा

(ख) मेरा जीवन लक्ष्य धरती पर जितने भी जड़-चेतन हैं, उनके जीवन का, उनके होने का कोई निश्चित उद्देश्य है। फिर मानव जीवन तो अनमोल है, उसका कोई महान उद्देश्य अवश्य होता है और जितना जल्दी हम अपने जीवन का लक्ष्य निर्धारित कर लेते हैं, उतना ही अपने उद्देश्य को पूर्ण करने की सम्भावना बढ़ जाती है। लक्ष्यविहीन व्यक्ति का जीवन मँझधार में भटकती उस नाव की भाँति होता है, जो कभी अपनी मंजिल पर नहीं पहुँच पाती। अतः अपनी योग्यताओं व रुचि के अनुसार लक्ष्य निर्धारित करके एक निश्चित दिशा में हमें प्रयास करना चाहिए, तब स्वतः मार्ग खुलते जाते हैं। मैंने जान लिया है कि मुझमें लेखन व पठन की अद्भुत क्षमता व कौशल है, इसलिए एक लेखक व कवि के रूप में समाज, देश व दुनिया को सत्य से परिचित कराना, सबका उचित मार्गदर्शन करना व सृष्टि को सुन्दर व स्वस्थ बनाने के विचारों को विस्तृत करना ही मैंने अपने जीवन का लक्ष्य बना लिया है। इसके लिए मैं विभिन्न लेखकों, कवियों की रचनाओं को, महापुरुषों की जीवनियों व आत्मकथाओं को पढ़ता रहता हूँ व साथ ही लेखों, कहानियों व कविताओं के माध्यम से अपने भावों व विचारों को प्रकट करता रहता हूँ। मुझे विश्वास है कि मैं जल्दी ही अपने लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करता हुआ आगे बढूँगा।

अथवा

(ग) भारतीय नारी भारत का अतीत नारी को देवी, लक्ष्मी, जननी आदि रूपों में पूजता नजर आता है। हिंदी साहित्य के अनेक महान कवियों ने नारी की प्रशंसा में, सम्मान में बहुत कुछ लिखा है। प्रसाद जी ने कहा-‘नारी तुम केवल श्रद्धा हो।’ मनुस्मृति में तो यहाँ तक लिखा है-‘यत्र नार्यस्तु पूज्यन्ते, रमन्ते तत्र देवता’ यानि जहाँ नारी का सम्मान होता है वहीं देवता निवास करते हैं। किन्तु धीरे-धीरे स्थिति बदलती गयी। आज हम भारत के समाज को ‘पुरुष-प्रधान समाज’ नाम देते हैं, क्योंकि कई दशकों से यहाँ नारी का मानसिक व शारीरिक शोषण होता आया है। एक समय तो ऐसा आया था कि उसे ‘पैरों की जूती’ तक कहा गया। नारी से जुड़ी कई कुप्रथायें प्रचलित हुईं, किन्तु आज स्थिति में काफी सुधार है। महिलाओं को समान अधिकार दिये जा रहे हैं, कन्या के जन्म व शिक्षा को बहुत बढ़ावा दिया जा रहा है। आज नारी अपने पैरों पर खड़ी है, अपने निर्णय स्वयं ले सकती है। हर क्षेत्र में सफल हो रही है। इतना कुछ होते हुए भी महिलाओं के साथ होने वाले कुकर्म कम नहीं हो रहे, यह एक चिन्ता का विषय है। इस समस्या का निवारण भी केवल महिलाओं के ही हाथ में है। उन्हें अपनी शक्ति को पहचानना होगा व उचित स्थान व समय पर उस शक्ति का सदुपयोग करके अपने साहस का परिचय देना होगा ताकि उसके साथ होने वाला अधर्म इतिहास के पन्नों में दफन होकर रह जाए।

प्रश्न 15.
नगर निगम अधिकारी को अपने क्षेत्र की सड़कों की दुरावस्था से परिचित कराने के लिए पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
अपने विद्यालय की प्रधानाचार्या को पत्र लिखकर अन्तर्विद्यालयी प्रतियोगिताओं का आयोजन करने की प्रार्थना कीजिए। (5)
उत्तर:
परीक्षा भवन,
नई दिल्ली।
दिनांक……………..
नगर निगम अधिकारी,
दिल्ली नगर निगम,
नई दिल्ली………
विषय-सड़कों की दुरावस्था का विवरण।
आदरणीय महोदय,
सविनय निवेदन यह है कि मैं विकासपुरी क्षेत्र की एक जिम्मेदार नागरिक आपको अपने क्षेत्र की सड़कों की दुरावस्था से व उससे होने वाली परेशानियों से अवगत कराना चाहती हैं।

महोदय, हमारे क्षेत्र की सड़कें जगह-जगह से टूट चुकी हैं, कहीं-कहीं तो गहरे गड्ढे बन गये हैं जो कि हर समय दुर्घटनाओं को बुलावा देते नज़र आते हैं। वाहन तो क्या, वहाँ पैदल चलना भी मुश्किल होता जा रहा है। यदि आप एक बार इस क्षेत्र का दौरा करके स्वयं यहाँ का हाल देख लें, तो आप हमारी परेशानियों का अन्दाजा स्वयं लगा सकेंगे।

मुझे आशा है कि आप जल्द ही सड़कों की मरम्मत का काम शुरू करवायेंगे ताकि मानसून आने से पहले यह समस्या सुलझ सके।
धन्यवाद।
भवदीया,
क ख ग

अथवा

प्रधानाचार्या महोदया,
रामकृष्ण विद्यालय,
विकासपुरी, नई दिल्ली।
विषय-अन्तर्विद्यालयी प्रतियोगिताओं के आयोजन का अनुरोध।
आदरणीया महोदया,
मैं आपके प्रतिष्ठित विद्यालय की कक्षा दसवीं की छात्रा हूँ और आपसे प्रार्थना करना चाहती हूँ कि आप विद्यालय में अन्तर्विद्यालयी प्रतियोगिताओं का आयोजन करवायें। हमारे विद्यालय के छात्र विभिन्न क्षेत्रों में पर्याप्त योग्य व कुशल हैं। बहुत बार हमें अन्य विद्यालयों में जाकर अपनी योग्यतायें साबित करने का अवसर भी मिला है। इस बार हम छात्रों की इच्छा है कि हमारे विद्यालय में भी ऐसा आयोजन हो, ताकि प्रतियोगिता में भाग लेने के साथ-साथ हमें अन्य विद्यालय के छात्रों व अध्यापकों को जानने का, उनका सम्मान करने व कार्यक्रम को आयोजित करने का अवसर व अनुभव मिल सके।
आशा है आप हमारी प्रार्थना पर ध्यान देंगी व शीघ्र ही ऐसा आयोजन करवायेंगी।
धन्यवाद
आपकी आज्ञाकारिणी शिष्या,
क, ख, ग
दिनांक……

प्रश्न 16.
विद्यालय के हैड बॉय/गर्ल होने के नाते विद्यालय में आयोजित होने वाले वार्षिक मेले की जानकारी देने हेतु सूचना लगभग 80 शब्दों में तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
आपकी सोसायटी ‘गुलिस्तान’ में दीवाली मेले का आयोजन होने जा रहा है। सचिव होने के नाते सूचना 80 शब्दों में तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तर:

रामकृष्ण विद्यालय

सूचना

दिनांक……………

वार्षिक मेले का आयोजन

भव्य स्तर पर विद्यालय के प्रांगण में वार्षिक मेले का आयोजन होने जा रहा है। विभिन्न आकर्षक खेलों के स्टॉल के अतिरिक्त नृत्य व गायन की प्रतियोगितायें भी होंगी। अधिक-से-अधिक संख्या में भाग लें व अपने मित्रों-सम्बन्धियों को आमन्त्रित करें।
दिनांक : 24 दिसम्बर,
समय : प्रातः 10 बजे से सायं 5 बजे तक
शिवानी भटनागर
हैड गर्ल

अथवा

गुलिस्तान अपार्टमेण्ट

सूचना

दिनांक……………..

दीवाली मेले का आयोजन

अत्यधिक हर्ष का विषय है कि सभी सदस्यों के सहयोग से इस वर्ष भी हमारी सोसायटी में दीवाली मेले का आयोजन हो रहा है। कृपया अधिक-से-अधिक संख्या में पधारें। मित्रों व परिवार सहित आप सबका हार्दिक स्वागत है।

दिनांक : 20 अक्टूबर, समय : सायं 4 बजे से 10 बजे तक।
धन्यवाद।
अनिल गुप्ता
सचिव

प्रश्न 17.
घरों के रद्दी सामानों को एकत्रित करके प्राप्त होने वाली धनराशि को दिव्यांगजनों की सेवा में लगाने वाली एक संस्था के लिए 60 शब्दों में विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
‘रामकृष्ण’ विद्यालय में गणित अध्यापक का पद खाली है। रिक्त पद; वेतन व विद्यालय का संक्षिप्त विवरण देते हुए 60 शब्दों में विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (3)
उत्तर:

दिव्यांग सेवा संस्थान

पिछले 35 वर्षों से समाज के दिव्यांगजनों की सेवा व उत्थान में लगी इस संस्था को सहयोग दें।
जो है आपके लिए बेकार,
वह बनेगा किसी के लिए उपहार।जी हाँ, अपने घर का ऐसा सामान जो आपके लिए किसी काम का नहीं, आप हमें दे सकते हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त अन्य सेवा व दान के लिए भी सम्पर्क करें-बी-ब्लॉक, जनकपुरी, दूरभाष-8150636964आपके सहयोग से दिव्यांगजनों को प्रशिक्षण व विशेष उपकरण प्रदान किये जायेंगे। जल्दी करें, किसी को आपकी जरूरत है…….

अथवा

रामकृष्ण विद्यालय, विकासपुरी, दिल्ली

(कक्षा 8 से 12 तक के लिए) गणित अध्यापक की आवश्यकता है।
योग्य व इच्छुक उम्मीदवार सम्पर्क करें-9155294750
न्यूनतम अनिवार्य योग्यता-गणित विषय में स्नातक व परास्नातक,
लगभग तीन वर्ष का कार्य-अनुभव आवश्यक।

प्रश्न 18.
दिए गए प्रस्थान बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 100 शब्दों में लघु कथा का निर्माण कीजिए

जन्मदिन का उपहार
यादगार
सार्थक

अथवा
विद्यालय की ओर से उन अभिभावकों को आगाह करने हेतु ई-मेल तैयार कीजिए जिनके बच्चों की विद्यालय में उपस्थिति 70 प्रतिशत से कम है। (5)
उत्तर:
जन्मदिन का उपहार
राघव 13 वर्ष का होने वाला था। इस बार उसके माता-पिता ने सोचा था कि उसका जन्मदिन धूमधाम से मनाएंगे पर समझ नहीं पा रहे थे कि किस-किस को बुलाएं, कौन-कौन उसके दोस्त हैं। अतः उन्होंने राघव से ही पूछा कि वह अपना जन्मदिन कैसे मनाना चाहता है, किन-किन दोस्तों को बुलाना चाहता है? राघव ने जो कहा वह तो माँ ने कभी सोचा भी नहीं था। उसने बोला “माँ, हम तो हर साल अपना जन्मदिन मनाते हैं किंतु कितने सारे ऐसे बच्चे हैं जिन्हें जन्मदिन मनाना तो दूर अपने जन्म का दिन तक नहीं मालूम। यहीं पास में जो अनाथ आश्रम है वहाँ से वह जब भी गुजरता है, मासूम बच्चों को वहाँ देखकर उसका मन बहुत उदास हो जाता है। वह अपने जन्मदिन पर उनके पास जाकर उनके चेहरे पर मुस्कान देखना चाहता है। माता-पिता तुरंत ही इस बात के लिए राजी हो गए। राघव का जन्मदिन आया। वे सब खूब सारी मिठाइयाँ, उपहार और जरूरत का अन्य सामान लेकर अनाथालय पहुंचे। वहाँ सब बच्चों को एकत्रित किया गया, सबके बीच राघव ने केक काटा और सबको बाँटा। साथ ही सब को उपहार भी दिए, सब ने मिलकर राघव को जन्मदिन की बधाई दी और डांस भी किया। आज का दिन राघव के लिए यादगार और सार्थक बन गया। उन बच्चों के चेहरे पर जो खुशी थी वह राघव के लिए जन्मदिन का सबसे कीमती उपहार था।

अथवा

प्राप्त कर्ता : [email protected]
भेजने वाला : rkschool-gmail.com
विषयः विद्यालय में कम उपस्थिति की सूचना।
श्रीमान/श्रीमती जी,
आपका बच्चा नियमित रूप से विद्यालय नहीं आता है जिसके कारण उसकी उपस्थिति आवश्यक 70 प्रतिशत से भी कम है। उसे नियमित रूप से विद्यालय में उपस्थित रहना होगा अन्यथा विद्यालय के नियमानुसार, आगामी परीक्षाएँ देने की अनुमति नहीं मिलेगी।
धन्यवाद
प्रधानाध्यापक
कखग

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 1 with Solutions

April 11, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) Mountains have always been held in great awe by mankind. They have been a challenge to humAnswer: Those brave among us have always wanted to conquer them. You see, the more incredible the mountains, the greater the thrill – a challenge to the bravery of the human race.

Climbing mountains is an experience that is hard to put into words. You are in a beautiful environment and, when you reach the top, you feel incredible. But you also have to climb down, which is when most accidents happen – people are tired, it gets dark, it’s harder. So, mountain climbing is undoubtedly one of the most popular adventure sports along with being challenging and risky for the climber.

(2) Without any perceived risk, there can’t be a feeling that any significant challenge has been surmounted. Fair, but we have to bear in mind that mountaineering is not a sport that can be embraced without preparation. The enthusiasts must develop in themselves the spirit of adventure, willingness to undertake hardships and risks, extraordinary powers of perseverance, endurance, and keenness of purpose before climbing a mountain. They should also know how to handle the mountaineering equipment.

Then comes the penance of the rigorous training. This could very well be the lifeline up there. It helps inculcate and hone survival instincts that allow the climber to negotiate perilous situations. There are numerous institutes in India and abroad that offer such training.

(3) Mountain climbers are unanimous in agreeing that the unpredictable weather is what they fear the most. There may be sunshine one moment and a snowstorm the other. At higher altitudes, snow is a regular feature and being decisive about setting up camps or proceeding further is crucial.

The icy sheets after ice storms make walking treacherous, while the powdery snow makes a mountaineer sink deep into the snow. Up there, where the intention is to embrace Nature’s wonder, one realises that it cannot be done without facing its formidable glory. A true mountaineer may challenge the mountain, yet is always respectful to the powerful forces of nature.

(4) Summiting mountains carries its own health risks such as oxygen and altitude sickness problems, frost bites, swelling of hands and feet, fluid collection in brain or lungs and exhaustion. Yet, the gratification mountaineers feel from mastering something that is so frightening, urges them to undertake these endeavours.

We may think that the mountaineers are fearless, experts say, “Not at all. It’s fear that keeps them so intrigued with such arduous journeys.” Impulse and brazenness can be deadly foes. In the words of the Indian mountaineer, Bachendri Pal, “The biggest risk… is to not to take the risk at all. Remember that.”.. (444 words)
(Source:https://evirtualguru.com/essay-on- mountaineering https://fairgaze.com/fgnews/mountaineering- origin-and-its-benefits_71549.html https://www.aplustopper.com/essay-on- mountain-climbing/

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below:
(A) Why does the writer say that mountains inspire ‘awe’ in humans? (Paragraph 1)
(a) They present us with opportunities for exciting sports.
(b) They evoke the wish in us to master them.
(c) They inspire in us deeds of valour.
(d) They represent peace and calm to us. [1]
Answer:
(b) They evoke the wish in us to master them.
Explanation: It is given in paragraph 1 that the author says that ‘mountains have been the challenge that the brave men always want to conquer’. This shows how they evoke the wish in us to master them. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(B) Select the option that corresponds to the following relation below:
The more incredible the mountains-the greater the thrill (Paragraph 1)
(a) The higher the stamina-the lower the food intake.
(b) The more you laugh-the lesser your illness.
(c) The smaller the car-the bigger the advantage.
(d) The heavier the luggage-the higher the penalty. [1]
Answer:
(d) The heavier the luggage-the higher the penalty.
Explanation: In the given sentence, the relation between the underlined words is similar in the degree of comparison. Here, in option (a), (b) and (c) the underlined words are opposite in nature.
Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(C) Select the option that displays what the writer projects, with reference to the following:
So, mountain climbing is undoubtedly one of the most popular adventure sports (Paragraph 1)
(a) doubt
(b) caution
(c) conviction
(d) denial [1]
Answer:
(c) conviction
Explanation: The writer, in the given line, uses the word ‘undoubtedly’ which states that he is sure of what he is saying. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(D) Complete the following with a phrase from paragraph 1. [1]

Opinion	Reason
……………………………	Best experienced rather than described

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m	Look for a similar meaning ‘phrase’ for given reason (1m)

Answer:
Hard to put in words

(E) The writer compares training to penance in the line-Then comes the penance of the rigorous training. (Paragraph 2)
State 1 point of similarity between training and penance. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Identify common process (traits from both words) that one goes through (1 m)

Answer:
Very difficult / requires perseverance (Any other relevant)
Explanation: The writer calls training a penance’ as it is like a expiation which is very difficult for a person to go through.

(F) Based on your reading of the text, list 2 reasons why the writer says that “mountaineering is not a sport that can be embraced without preparation”. (Paragraph 2)
(1) …………………
(2) ………………… [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Write two points on difficulty mountaneer face (0.5m + 0.5m) 0.5m for any of these keywords: accompllsed, managed, hazards, experience

Answer:
(Any 2)
(1) Because mountaineering includes difficulties like having to walk on icy sheets that cannot be accomplished without proper preparation of equipment.

(2) Because mountaineering includes dealing with several Health hazards that cannot be managed without preparation.

(3) Because managing unpredictable weather is essential in mountaineering and cannot be accomplished without being prepared with specific training.

(4) Because mountaineering presents the risk of fatality due to faulty decision-making and cannot be addressed without being prepared by accompanying/ engaging experienced climbers. (Any other relevant/ correct from text)

Explanation:
(1) Because mountaineering includes difficulties like having to walk on icy sheets that cannot be accomplished
without proper preparation of equipment.

(2) Because managing unpredictable weather is essential in mountaineering and cannot be accomplished without being prepared with a specific training.

(G) What connect does the writer draw out between unpredictable weather and setting up of camps? (Paragraph 3)

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Identify the impact of unpredictable weather w.r.t favorable conditions. (1m) 0.5m given for some of these keywords: difficult, sunny, climb, snowing

Answer:
If the weather is unpredictable, it makes it difficult to decide when to set up camp as mountaineers would prefer to climb when its sunny and camp when it’s snowing.

Unpredictable weather makes it difficult for the mountaineers to decide whether they want to climb further or set up a camp to rest as they always climb in sunny weather and rest or stop when it snows.

(H) The writer says, “A true mountaineer may challenge the mountain, yet is always respectful to the powerful forces of nature.” (Paragraph 3)
Select the reason the mountaineer is respectful to the forces of nature, up in the mountains.
(a) survival
(b) experience
(c) tradition
(d) directive [1]
Answer:
(a) survival
Explanation: A mountaineer is always respectful towards the natural forces for the sake of its survival as the force of nature is so glorious that it can destroy the man in seconds. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(I) Supply 1 point to justify the following:
While mountain climbing, an impulsive mountaineer is either disaster-prone or as good as dead. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Provide relevant justification by writing outcome of both sides (1m) A Keyword for full marks: survival meticulous planning, rash decision, death

Answer:
Survival is key in mountain climbing and it can be done with meticulously planning/careful decision-making/ careful application of training (any one or more)

It has no room for rash or impulsive decisions/actions-these would lead to accidents or fatalities.
Explanation: The key to successful mountain climbing lies only in the proper and meticulous planning and training for the same. Taking rash decisions by the impulsive mountaineers always Lead to accidents and fatalities.

(J) Evaluate the INAPPROPRIATE reason for the feeling of exhilaration on reaching a summit, that the mountain- climbers experience.
(a) Achievement of a seemingly impossible feat
(b) Spectacular panoramic view
(c) Application of the inculcated survival instincts
(d) Opportunity to use sophisticated mountaineering equipment [1]
Answer:
(d) Opportunity to use sophisticated mountaineering equipment

Question 2.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) The North-East of India is a melting pot of variegated cultural mosaic of people and races, an ethnic tapestry of many hues and shades. Yet, these states are lesser explored as compared to the rest of the country. The new generations of travellers who are ‘money rich and time poor’ are increasingly looking for unique experiences-a phenomenon being called the emergence of the ‘experience economy’. For this new and growing breed of tourists, the North-East with its variety and uniqueness holds immense attraction.

(2) A study conducted in 2020 by Dr. Sherap Bhutia, revealed that the foreign tourist arrival in the North-East increased from 37,380 persons in 2005 to 118,552 in 2014. The overall growth rate of tourist (both domestic and foreign) in the North-East was as high as 26.44% during 2005-06.

A high and positive growth of 12.53% was registered in foreign tourist visits to North-East States of India during 2012 from 2011, which further rose to register a growth of 27.93% during 2013 from 2012. Foreign tourist arrivals in the North-East witnessed a growth of 39.77% during 2014 from 2013, according to data provided from the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India.

(3) The study recommendations for tourism planners included the need to concentrate on some key areas like enhancement of tourist facilities, tourism financing, focus on community involvement and others for the formulation of a sustainable tourism strategy in the North-East States of India. (234 words)
(Adapted – https://socialscienceresearch. org/index.php/GJHSS/article/view/3162)
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the question given below :
(A) Infer one reason for the following, based on information in paragraph 1.
The rate of tourism in the North-East of India puzzles tourism officials. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m (VSA)	Provide one relevent opinion about the given information. (1m)

Answer:
This is so because these states are lesser explored as compared to the rest of the country, in spite of having lots to offer.

Explanation: The reason behind it is that North-East states have a lot to offer to tourists, as compared to the other states of the nation but even then, the rate of tourism is very less.

(B) Select the appropriate option to fill in the blanks.
From paragraph 1, we can infer that the …………………. and ……………… of the North-Eastern states aid attracting the ‘money rich and time poor’ tourists.
(1) distinctiveness
(2) conventionality
(3) diversity
(4) uniformity
(5) modernity
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 1 and 4 [1]
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

(C) Complete the following analogy correctly with a word/ phrase from paragraph 1:
aroma: cooking:: ………………. : painting
(Clue: Just like aroma is integral to cooking, similarly is/ are integral to painting) [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Identify the connection (relation) between words (1m) Only 1 correct word answer here. No room for identifying wrong relation

Answer:
hues and shades

(D) Select the correct option to complete the following sentence:
Travellers advocating the ‘experience economy’ seek a holiday package with (Paragraph 1)
(a) grand facilities, expensive hotels and excellent services to pamper them.
(b) a wholesome experience within the budget they have planned for
(c) places and cities to buy things from and opportunities spend money.
(d) cost-effective services, affordable accommodation and many days of touring. [1]
Answer:
(b) a wholesome experience within the budget they have planned for.

(E) Select the chart that appropriately represents the trend of foreign tourist travels in the North-East, from 2011-2014, as per paragraph 2.

(a) Option 1
(b) Option 2
(c) Option 3
(d) Option 4 [1]
Answer:
(b) Option 2
Explanation: As it is clearly given in paragraph 2 that there is a constant increment in the foreign tourist travel trend for North-East states. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(F) Fill in the blank by selecting the correct option.
The study of tourist travel statistics in the North-East, from 2005 to 2014 ……………… showed results.
(a) expected
(b) encouraging
(c) inconsistent
(d) questionable [1]
Answer:
(b) encouraging
Explanation: As the tourism in North-East states did not use to be positive, this increasing trend from 2005-2014 seems to be (b) encouraging. Its none of (a), (c) or (d) Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(G) Substitute the word ‘witnessed’ with ONE WORD similar in meaning, in the following, sentence from paragraph 2:
Foreign tourist arrivals in the North-East witnessed a growth of. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Write a synonym (1m) A Many substitute words are possible. Write the easiest you can think of.

Answer:
observed/ recorded/ showed/ displayed

(H) List any 2 examples of‘tourist facilities’ as referred to, in Paragraph 3. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	2 Examples (0.5m+0.5m)

Answer:

Accommodation-hotels, hostels, camps Recreation-Parks, Gardens, Museums, Shopping areas
Essential- eating outlets, toilets, water points, kiosks for maps / currency exchange (if needed), certified travel guide availability
Transport-dedicated shuttle service, sight-seeing buses, cards or passes, car hiring stations
Digital upgrades-WiFi availability, websites, ticketing, forums (Any two) (Any other relevant)

Explanation:

easy accommodation in hotels, PGs, camps, etc.
recreational activities like swimming, dining out, shopping, etc.

(I) List one reason why the researchers recommend that the formulation of a tourism strategy in the North-Eastern States of India be sustainable.

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Write a reason on sustainable strategy in North-Eastern States in India (1m)

Answer:

To create socio-economic benefits for the local community.
To reduce the negative impacts caused on the destination/s.
To ensure protection of culture and heritage/ To ensure minimal intervention in the cultural aspects.
To protect natural wildlife and resources. (Any two)

(J) Select the option that titles paragraphs 1-3 appropriately, with reference to information in the text.
(a)

Full Speed Ahead!
Ups and Downs
Cause for Concern

(b)

Winds of Change
Numbers Don’t Lie
Time for Action

(c)

Inspecting Trends
Statistically Speaking
Let’s Investigate

(d)

Cause and Effect
Dynamic Data
Dependable Facts

Answer:
(b)

Winds of Change
Numbers Don’t Lie
Time for Action

Section – B
Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Answer ANY TEN of the following questions:
(A) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete an online update. The climate control comment by an activist ………………… on social media yesterday.
(a) blow up
(b) blew up
(c) is blown
(d) will be blown [1]
Answer:
(b) blew up
Explanation: The given line is about ‘yesterday’ which means that it is in the past tense, (b) is the right answer.

(B) Read the conversation between a doctor and his patient. Complete the sentence by reporting the patient’s reply correctly.
Doctor: Do you feel down from time-to- time Mr. Gopalan?
Patient: Yes, I do not stay in a good mood.
The doctor, while trying to figure out his patient’s ailment, asked about his well-being, to which, the patient affirmed ………………… [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	that he does not stay in a good mood (1m)

Answer:
that he does not stay in a good mood. (Addition of sometimes/time to time acceptable)

(C) Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line from a health magazine.
The advertisement read, ‘If you smoke, statistically your story …………….. end 15% before it should’.
(a) must
(b) should
(c) will
(d) ought to [1]
Answer:
(c) will
Explanation: The warning in the given advertisement, warns about the health hazard cause by smoking in the ‘future’. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(D) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following line, from a news report:
Last week a child was not allowed to board the plane at Ranchi airport.

Option no.	error	correction
(a)	child	children
(b)	last	previous
(c)	the	a
(d)	at	in

Answer:
(c) the/a

(E) Complete the given narrative, by filling in the blank with the correct option: As I was standing on the dock, looking out at the lake ……………….. for the last time, a feeling of emptiness over me like darkness.
(a) will wash
(b) had washed
(c) will have washed
(d) washed [1]
Answer:
(d) washed
Explanation: As the given sentence is in the simple past tense, (d) is the right answer.

(F) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given portion of a letter:
Subject: Request for Approval
Dear Sir
This is to respectfully submit that I ………………. (seek) approval for organising a tree plantation drive to be undertaken by the club. [1]
Answer:
seek
Explanation: As the letter is written in the present tense, seek is the right answer.

(G) Report the dialogue between a grandson and his grandfather, by completing the sentence:
Grandson: Grandpa, who are your superheroes?
Grandpa: Anyone who shows kindness and compassion to others.
In response to the question about his superheroes, grandfather says that …………….. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	It is anyone who shows kindness and compassion to others. (1m)

Answer:
it is anyone who shows kindness and compassion to others

(H) Identify the error in the given sentence, from a school magazine report and supply the correction.
In order to balancing the sentiments of the Eagles and the Hawks, the Student Council suggested a rematch between the teams.
Use the given format for your response.

error	correction

Answer:

error	correction
Balancing	Balance

(I) Sunil shared some information, with Tariq, about a holiday at sea. Report Tariq’s question.
Did you enjoy travelling by sea? [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Tarig asked Sunil if/whether he had enjoyed travelling by sea. (1m)

Answer:
Tariq asked Sunil if/whether he had enjoyed travelling by sea.

(J) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option, to complete the slogan by the Ministry for Child Welfare.
……………………. WE AFFORD TO NEGLECT CHILDREN? THINK TWICE!!
(a) WILL
(b) MAY
(c) NEED
(d) CAN [1]
Answer:
(d) CAN

(K) Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between Latha and her father.
Father: Why ask so many questions, Latha?
Latha: I believe that if you don’t know the answer, keep asking till you do!
Father asked Latha the reason for the many questions she was asking. Latha exclaimed good-humouredly that in event of not knowing the answer one should ……………..
(a) keep asking till one does
(b) kept asking till one does
(c) keep asking till one do
(d) kept on to ask till one do [1]
Answer:
(a) keep asking tilL one does.

(L) Identify the error on a shop’s hoarding and supply the correction, for the following sales offer:
Gumnaam & Daughters Pvt. Ltd. Bindapur, Jharkhand
Massive discount for all senior citizen vaccinated with the precautionary dose.
Use the given format for your response.

error	correction

Answer:

error	correction
all	each

Creative Writing Skills (10 Marks)

Question 4.
Answer ANY ONE given below:
You are Sunidhi Prakash, the Vice Captain of Brilliant Vidyalaya, Barra, Kanpur. You have recently noticed several posters around your school premises conveying a hazardous message:
Lose weight in just a month!
“A WONDER DIET comes to your rescue _
A privilege available for only a few!”
Write a letter to the Editor of The DWA, in not more than 120 words, drawing attention towards harm caused by such advertising. Propose the implementation of ‘Wholesome Lunch Month’ in schools as an idea to address such practices, mention the advantages and share suggestions to foster healthy eating routines and develop positive body image among youngsters.
OR
You are Zac Skaria, a resident of # 412, Magna Greens Apartments, Gandhi Marg, Jonpara, Mumbai. Three students of grade 10 from your residential complex have rescued and rehabilitated a few old beggars from the neighbourhood. You think that their work deserves appreciation and recognition. Write a letter to the President of the RWA, seeking recommendation for these youth, to be nominated for ‘Serving Citizens’ Award’. Suggest other ways such acts of kindness could be recognised and awarded in the future. [5]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Ill-effects
Share your ideas
Provide merits

Expression: (2m)

Organisation of Ideas + Accuracy
Correct use of words
Cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring, accurate grammar + punctuations

Format: (1m)
Correct structure like address, subject line, salutation, introductory sentences, body, concluding sentences and complimentary close

Answer:
Brilliant Vidyalaya,
Barra Kanpur
29 August 2022
The Editor
The DWA
K-21, Anjana Pura
Kanpur
Subject: Need for Promoting Healthy Eating Routines Dear Madam,
This is with reference to posters bearing the message of ‘crash diet’ being posted around our school premises. Such posters impact the youngsters negatively and can be hazardous for their self-esteem.

I would like to propose the idea of implementing ‘Wholesome Lunch Month’ for all school students to counter the implications of such misleading advertisements. This initiative will surely encourage all students to bring nutritious and healthy lunch daily and develop healthy eating routines. To ensure that this project gains strength, schools may organize puppet shows, street plays, Ted Talks (by Nutritionist/ Psychologist), encompassing the theme, to foster healthy eating routines and a positive body image.

I hope that the publishing of my letter in the columns of your renowned Daily, helps spread awareness and promotes a healthy lifestyle among students.
Yours truly
Sunidhi Prakash
Vice-Captain
(Content-132 words)
OR

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Share 1-2 details
Request letter of recommend-dation
Suggest ways to enhance social work

Expression: Organisation of Ideas + Accuracy (2m)

Correct use of words
Continity in flow, accurate grammar + punctuations

Format: (1m)
Accurate structure like address, subject heading, salutation, introductory sentences, body, concluding the letter and complimentary close

421, Magna Greens Apartments
Gandhi Marg, Jonpara
Mumbai
19July 2022
The President
RWA,Magna Greens Apartments
42, Gandhi Marg, Jonpara
Mumbai
Subject: Seeking Recommendation for ‘Serving Citizens’ Award’ Nominations.
Dear Sir
This is with reference to the empathetic social service done by Miss Jiya, Mas Adwait and Master Pranit (residents of our complex), in rescuing and rehabilitating a few old beggars from our neighbourhood. These students ensured that the beggars were rehabilitated at ‘Seva Sadan’- an NGO which takes care of the needy of our city.

This selfless initiative carried out with dedication and responsibility, deserves due recognition. I, therefore, request you to issue a letter of recommendation for these students to be nominated for ‘Serving Citizens’ Award’ organised by the local Municipal Corporation.

I would also like to submit that the RWA set up a special committee that looks into such acts in the future. This would aid dedicated attention and appropriate screening of nominations. Arrangement of academic sponsorships for such children would also be an encouraging gesture.

I entreat you address this at your earliest convenience and issue the recommendation letters.
Yours sincerely
Zac Skaria
(Content-152 words)

Question 5.
Answer ANY ONE given below:
Gurmeet Kaur is an aspiring candidate for a public-funded engineering college in the suburbs.
She belongs to a nearby village, has minimal technological skills and exposure, has the required cut-off percentage and is looking for a complete or partial scholarship.
Write a paragraph in about 100-120 words, analysing her SWOT notes to support your stand on whether she should join/not join the college.

STRENGTH
Strong Curriculum
Quality faculty
Vibrant Activity Clubs
Green location
Close proximity to residential areas

WEAKNESS
Lack of diversity
Students’ behavioural problems
No hostel facility
Slow repair and maintenance work
Underutilization of IT Services
Lack of targeted advertisements to out-state students

OPPORTUNITIES
Practice based research
Partnership with professional organisations
Strong alumni
Acclaimed Student Exchange Programme with European countries

THREAT
Lack of publicity in areas of excellence
Public perception towards funded colleges
Declining students’ interest towards technical subjects
Low employee morale due to budget cuts
OR
Read the following excerpt from an online post of a website on educational practices.
Kids who appreciate how much effort, time and care goes into growing food witl understand how important farmers are, and why it’s important to take care of our Earth. In the world of today, gardening needs to be given more importance than sports, music and dance in all schools because it creates environmental stewards and outdoor learning laboratories that help the child and community for years to come.

Write a paragraph in 100-120 words to analyse the given argument.
You could think about what alternative explanations might weaken the given conclusion and include rationale / evidence that would strengthen / counter the given argument. [5]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content (2m)

Introduction: About ‘points to weigh’ and ‘Gurmeet’s decision-making’
Analysis: SWOTs in either ‘positive’ or ‘negative’ way
Conclusion: Final result and decision Gurmeet should take

Expression: Organisation of Ideas (2m) + Accuracy (1m) (3m)

Correct use of words, cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring,
Accurate grammar + punctuations

Answer:
In Favour
The given information illustrates the options Gurmeet would weigh in order to take the right decision about her admission in a public-funded engineering college. With availability of strong curriculum, quality faculty and vibrant Activity Clubs, she will be assured of an enriching educational journey.

Though hostel facility is unavailable, she may take up accommodation in the suburbs or choose to travel daily from her village. Good opportunities of practice-based research, partnership with professional companies and international students exchange program will enhance her professional and interpersonal skills.

Hard work, responsible behaviour and prudent decision-making could help Gurmeet thrive in the college even though it has a rigid and conventional culture. The strengths and opportunities work in favour of Gurmeet. Taking this opportunity will allow her to mend the incorrect public perception towards public- funded colleges and students’ outlook towards technical subjects. (129 words)

In Against:
The given information indicates Gurmeet’s dilemma about seeking admission in a public- funded college. Though equipped with a strong curriculum, engaging activity clubs and an able faculty, the college lacks diversity and good conduct among the students, giving rise to concerns of safe environment for a novice like Gurmeet.

Underutilization of IT services will be further detrimental to the progress of Gurmeet’s educationaljourney and add to extra costs related to research work. If she does not qualify for a complete or partial scholarship, arrangement of own accommodation and additional expense of students exchange programme will increase her expenditure, too. Such a college environment may dampen her endeavouring spirit. The weakness and threats outweigh the strengths, in case of Gurmeet So, it is recommended that Gurmeet does not apply for admission to the said college. (139 words)
OR

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Introduction: About importance of gardening
Analysis: ‘Strength’ or ‘weakness’ about gardening in school
Conclusion: Effects of gardening

Expression: Organisation of ideas (2m) + Accuracy (1m) (3m)

Correct use of words, cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring,
Accurate grammar + punctuations

Answer:
In Favour:
In the world of today, gardening needs to be given more importance than sports, music and dance in all schools. While sports, music and dance contribute towards personal growth, the current times mandate attention towards an issue that is global-nature and natural processes.

With growing food wastage in many homes today and the urban young believing that vegetables are grown, harvested at the super markets, the efforts of the farmers are discredited. Gardening at school will open a world of first hand learning experiences of sowing, watering and harvesting processes.

Waiting for the saplings to grow will inculcate sensitivity, patience, empathy, gratitude and value for one’s hard work. They will feel accountable for their piece of Mother Earth, resulting in making them efficient and enterprising environmental stewards. UnLike sports, music or dance, gardening goes beyond just enjoyment to create aware and responsible citizens of the future. (148 words)

In against:
Gardening, certainly, should not be given precedence over sports, music and dance in all schools. Gardening at school requires good planning with hands-on guidance and continued supervision by the teachers. Students tend to lose interest due to the slow and natural growth progress of plants as well as the investment of continuous hard work. Small targets or goals would be missing whereas the danger of destruction of their work due to rains, intrusion of grazing animals or a pest attack is like to set in a feeling of defeat.

It may be noted that sports, music and dance are uplifting activities which display faster results, are enjoyable and inculcate team spirit, collaboration and confidence. Unlike gardening, setbacks in these activities can be addressed with some sense of personal control These activities help students express and de-stress successfully. So, maintaining their due importance in the school’s co¬curriculum is imperative. (148 words)

Section – C
Literature (40 Marks)

Question 6.
Read the given extract to attempt questions that follow : (5 x 1 = 5)
“Hey, a tea garden!” Rajvir cried excitedly. Pranjol, who had been born and brought up on a plantation, didn’t share Rajvir’s excitement.
“Oh, this is tea country now,” he said. “Assam has the largest concentration of plantations in the world.
You will see enough gardens to last you a lifetime!”
“I have been reading as much as I could about tea,” Rajvir said. “No one really knows who discovered tea but there are many legends.” (Glimpses of India)
(A) Why was Pranjol not as excited as Rajvir about the tea gardens?
(a) He disliked looking at tea gardens.
(b) He had worked in tea gardens himself.
(c) He had grown up in and around tea gardens.
(d) He was bored with tea gardens. [1]
Answer:
(c) He had grown up in and around tea gardens.
Explanation: Unlike Rajvir, Pranjol wasn’t excited as it wasn’t for the first time that he was witnessing tea gardens. He had been brought up in Assam as it was his home city. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(B) What does Pranjol mean by saying that Assam has the largest concentration of plantations in the world? [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	2 lines reason Use cues as ‘harvesting’ and ‘cultivations’ to answer. (1m)

Answer:
… that the cultivation/harvesting (or any similar suitable word) (of tea) is the highest at one place namely Assam.

(C) Fill in the blank with ONE WORD only.
Pranjol’s …………….. comes through clearly when he exclaims, “You will see enough gardens to last you a lifetime!” [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	1 word answer (multiple words possible) Use ‘exclamation mark’ as a cue to deduct mood. (1m)

Answer:
frustration / irritation/ exasperation (or any suitable word) compatible with the exclamation mark in the sentence.

Explanation: Pranjol wasn’t as enticed as Rajvir as he seemed to be fed up by seeing such big tea plants all around him since growing up, so he aid it in an exasperation.

(D) How according to Rajvir does the world know about the discovery of tea?
(a) Historical places
(b) Traditional tales
(c) Authentic anecdotes
(d) Popular publications [1]
Answer:
(b) Traditional tales

(E) Select the option that correctly captures the application of the word ‘cried’ as used in line 1 of the extract.
(a) Jaspreet cried a lot in spite of winning second place in a competition.
(b) Jaspreet cried out loud when she saw a white tiger in the sanctuary.
(c) Jaspreet cried for hours when the police were unable to find her lost pet.
(d) Jaspreet has barely cried since she was three years of age. [1]
Answer:
(b) Jaspreet cried out loud when she saw a white tiger in the sanctuary.

Explanation: In line 1, it is clearly given that Rajvir cried in ‘excitement’. Here, in options (a), (c) and (d), there can be no ‘excitement’ cry that can happen while in (b) it can be. Hence, (b) is the right answer.
OR
OMEGA: It shall be done, Sir. Remove vitamins. (Crew takes vitamins from boxes on their belts.) Present vitamins.
(They hold vitamins out in front of them, stiffly.) Swallow vitamins. (They pop the vitamins into their mouths and gulp simultaneously. They open their eyes wide, their heads shake, and they put their hands to their foreheads.)

THINK-TANK: Excellent Now, decipher that code.

ALL: It shall be done, Sir. (They frown over the book, turning pages.)

OMEGA: (brightly) Aha!

IOTA: (brightly) Oho!

OOP: (bursting into laughter) Ha, ha, ha.

THINK-TANK: What does it say? Tell me this instant. Transcribe, Omega. (The Book that Saved the Earth)

(A) Select the option that correctly captures the usage of the word ‘present’ from line 1 of the extract.
(a) Oops received a nice present from Think Tank.
(b) lota needs to present his opinion firmly.
(c) Omega must focus on the present and leave the past behind.
(d) Oops didn’t know anyone even though a crowd was present. [1]
Answer:
(b) lota needs to present his opinion firmly.
Explanation: In line 1, the word ‘present’ means to give. Similarly, in option (b) it means to give an opinion. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(B) Complete the analogy by selecting the suitable word from the text
Frown : smile:: gloomily : ……………….. :: [1]
Answer:
Frown : smile :: gloomily : brightly

(C) Select the option that displays the reason why all crew members were asked to have vitamins. In order to:
(a) boost their physical energies.
(b) adapt to their circumstances.
(c) quickly turn all the pages.
(d) accomplish a specific task. [1]
Answer:
(d) accomplish a specific task.

(D) According to the extract, what did THINK-TANK most likely want OMEGA to do when he said ‘Transcribe…’?
(1) read aloud
(2) translate
(3) make notes
(4) interpret
(5) record reactions Select the correct option.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) 1,4 and 5 1
Answer:
(b) 2 and 4

(E) The playwright places certain words and sentences in brackets in the given extract.
List any ways these benefit both the director and actors.
(1) ……………….
(2) ………………. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Write two advantages of sentences in the brackets Use words like clarity, gestures, emotions.

Answer:

Help actors and director gain clarity about the emotions and gestures required while performing/directing
Helps with understanding stage setting and movements (Or any other suitable explanations)

Explanation: Helps them know the actions of the scenes better.

Question 7.
Read the given extract to attempt questions that follow : (5 x 1 = 5)
The trees inside are moving out into the forest,
the forest that was empty all these days
where no bird could sit
no insect hide
no sun bury its feet in shadow
the forest that was empty all these
nights
will be full of trees by morning. (The Trees)
(A) Complete the sentence appropriately. It is clear that Personification is the poetic device used for ‘No sun bury its feet….’
Because …………… (Clue: explain how personification applies here) ……………….

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Give suitable synonyms with similar/ correct meaning Use cues as ‘bury’ or ‘feet’. (1m)

Answer:
…the sun, which is non-human, is attributed the human feature of having feet
(Accept any synonyms giving the similar/ correct meaning)
Explanation: The sun has been presented as a human by attributing it with ‘feet’.

(B) The poet has used a poetic device in the given lines. What effect does she wish to create by its use?
… no bird could sit
no insect hide
no sun
(a) emphasis
(b) comparison
(c) rhyme
(d) humour [1]
Answer:
(a) emphasis

(C) State whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE:
The extract uses trees as a symbol for conservative people. [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Read the statement and choose the correct option (true/false). (1m)

Answer:
False

(D) Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence, according to the extract.
The idea of a forest that has been ‘empty all these days’ is ……………….. .
(a) unnatural
(b) scary
(c) magical
(d) legendary [1]
Answer:
(a) unnatural

Explanation: It is surely unnatural’ for a forest to be empty of trees for days. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(E) How does the use of enjambment impact this extract?
(a) It forces frequent pauses.
(b) It simplifies the meaning.
(c) It builds momentum.
(d) It makes the lines lyrical. [1]
Answer:
(c) It builds momentum.
OR
But I can get a hair-dye
And set such colour there,
Brown, or black, or carrot,
That young men in despair
May love me for myself alone
And not my yellow hair.
(For Anne Gregory)

(A) What is the poet’s tone in the extract?
(1) thoughtful
(2) authoritative
(3) agitated
(4) insulting
(5) argumentative
Select the appropriate option.
(a) 1, 4
(b) 3, 5
(c) 2, 4
(d) 1, 5 1
Answer:
(b) 3, 5 (agitated and argumentative)
Explanation: Clearly, the speaker here is agitated by men loving her only for her ‘hair’ and she gets argumentative by saying that she can ‘dye’ her hair if that’s the case. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(B) What causes the young men to ‘despair’, according to the extract? [1]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Write the cause of the word ‘despair’ w.r.t the given context (1m)

Answer:
Being hopelessly in love/the uncertainty in love/ Unsurity of the return of their affections

(C) Identify the reason for the speaker’s need to colour her hair, as per the extract.
(a) Her control over what makes her look beautiful.
(b) Her desire to be loved for inner beauty.
(c) Her need to change people’s perception about beauty.
(d) Her conviction that she is beautiful inside. [1]
Answer:
(d) Her conviction that she is beautiful inside.
Explanation: The speaker wants to convict that even if. she changes her outer appearance, she’ll remain beautiful from, inside and her physical appearance wont change that. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(D) Complete the analogy about the speaker’s hair.

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(VSA)	Recognize the connection (relation) between words. Only 1 correct word answer here. No room for any wrong relation (1m)

Answer:
yellow: blonde:: orange /red: carrot Orange

(E) Select the sentence in which the word ‘set’ is used in the similar manner as line 2 of the extract.
(a) I want to set him up and get my work done this time.
(b) Do you have another set of the books that I can read?
(c) The dessert needs to set for two hours before being served.
(d) The set for the school play looked quite grand. [1]
Answer:
(c) The dessert needs to set for two hours before being served.

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR of the following in about 40-50 words each. (4 x 3 = 12)
(A) Validate the given statement with reference to baby seagull’s fear.
‘Fear doesn’t exist anywhere else other than one’s mind.’
(His First Flight -Two Stories about Flying) [3]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Content: (2m)

Reasons for fear (atleast 2) (1m)
Outcome of fear (1m)

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively (0.5m)
Usage of connecting words like ’due to, ’owing to’ etc. (0.5m)
0.5m will be deducted for spelling/ grammatical mistakes

Answer:

The baby seagull could not take his first flight as he was scared that his wings will not support his body weight
Saw his family fly -Yet, the fear of falling down gripped his mind-it overpowered any sense of assurance or example
Result-was too scared to even try

Explanation: Baby Seagull proves the given statement as he believed that his wings were too weak to carry his weight even without giving his wings a try. He saw his siblings fly but still that couldn’t take out the fear from his mind to give a try to his first flight.

(B) Explain why the poet personally holds the conviction that the world will primarily end in fire? (Fire and Ice) [3]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Content: (2m)

Desire of the poet (with reference) (1m)
Experience from his wife (1m)

Expression: (1m)

Presentable explanation(1m)
Usage of connecting words like ‘for instance’, ‘indeed’ etc.. (0.5m)
0.5m will be deducted for spelling/ grammatical mistakes

He was a victim of the fiery aspect of desire.
By his own admission, (From what I’ve tasted _) he had experienced its destructive effects in his life.

Explanation: The poet comes to a conviction that ‘fire’ or the feelings like desire, jealousy and greed will end the world. He says so as he himself had ‘tasted’ it He may have personally experienced the heat of the ‘fiery’ desire and greediness in men.

(C) Valli’s unique maiden bus ride experience could be possible because she belonged to a small village. Do you agree? Why? /Why not?
(2 reasons) (Madam Rides a Bus) [3]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Content: (2m)

Agree or disagree by the action
Possible experience of her bus ride ( 2 valid points) (1m)

Expression:

Connection between the experience (0.5m)
Usage of words like ‘adventure’, ‘facination’ etc. (0.5m)
0.5 will be deducted for spelling/ grammatical mistakes

Answer:
Agree:

A bus ride seemed like a fascinating means of recreation and adventure-unlike cities and bigger towns
She could travel alone safely unfortunately, not recommended in larger townships or cities
There was only one bus that Valli observed several times – cities have varied means of transport that might seem more adventurous

Disagree:

Fascination for riding a bus or an automobile can exist in children of Valli’s age even in big cities.
Travelling unnoticed is easier in large cities than in small towns or villages due to familiarity
Cities would offer more opportunities for a bus ride due to availability and frequency of several buses on the same route.

Explanation:
I agree that Valli’s first bus ride was possible only because she lives in the village as has she been in a city, full of multiple buses travelling at different times through different routes, she would have never been able to plan a soLo trip. It was the only bus in her village and this made it easier for her to escape alone.

(D) Give one reason why ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’ is more a fable than a ballad.

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Content: (2m)

State the difference between ‘fable’ and ‘ballad’ (1m)
Give reason w.r.t the textual evidence (1 reason) (1m)

Expression: (1m)

Organise answer effectively (0.5m)
Usage of words like ‘fictitious’, ‘narrative’ etc. (0.5m)
0.5m will be deducted for spelling/ grammatical mistakes

Answer:

Fable is fictitious narrative usually with animals, birds etc as charac¬ters and shares a strong message whereas a ballad is narrative verse that can be silly or heroic.
The Tale of Custard the Dragon in¬cludes animals, is surely fictitious and shares a meaningful message. Hence, better qualifies as a fable.

Explanation: The Tale of Custard the Dragon’ is more of a fable than a ballad because a fable is one that has animals in it. giving a crucial message while a ballad is a narrative that reflects heroism or stupidity. The poem is more of a message¬giving. It promotes ‘to not to judge a book by its cover’ through Custard, the dragon.

(E) How can we say that Natalya was continuously successful in maintaining an upper hand during her arguments with Lomov? (Any one example) (The Proposal.)

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
3m(SA)	Upper Hand: what was it? (1m) Argument: Provide 1 event based argument with inference (2m) 0.5m will be deducted if either aspect is missing.

Answer:
Upper hand: She was able to answer every query and present an argument defeating the one presented by Lomov.

Arguments:

Argument about ownership of Oxen meadows – Natalya argued that it is a matter of principle and not greed.
She showed conviction and belief while arguing.

Argument about dogs-Natalya argued that her dog was cheaper, was of better breed and could run faster.
Never lost cool while presenting her arguments.

Natalya was continuously successful in defeating Lomov in the arguments as she was quite confident and sure of what she was stating. For instance, her argument for the ownership of oxen meadows was really strong and full of confidence.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 40-50 words each. (3 x 2 = 6)
(A) Dr. Herriot knew his patients as well as their owners really welL Discuss. [3]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Content: (2m)

1 point on Patients, in detail (1m)
1 point on Owners, in detail (1m)

Expression: (1m)

Organise effectively (0.5m)
Usage of inference based words like ‘based on’, ‘shows that’ etc. (0.5m)

Keywords:

understanding, observing, problems, condition
0.5m will be deducted for spelling/ grammatical mistakes

Answer:

Patients -Dr. Herriot could under stand the problems of his patients (dogs) just be observing- saw Tricki in the market and understood that the dog requires help.
Owners-He understood the owner (Mrs. Pumphrey) well and never spoke any harsh and advising words on the seriously obese dog- knowing fully well that she was responsible for this condition.

Explanation: It is true that Dr. Herriot knew both his patients and their owners pretty well When he saw Tricki, he knew that he had a serious problem and immediately needs to control his overweight On the other hand, he also knew that Tricki’s owner Mrs. Pumphrey would not be able to cut her pet’s diet short or make him exercise as she loved him.

(B) State one likely reason the writer of the Midnight Visitor, chose to characterise Ausable as short and fat. [3]

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
3m(SA)	Support the point with a strong anecdotal reason (2m) Expression should have ‘based on’, ‘far more’ types inference words (1m) 0.5m will be deducted for missing relevant aspects in explantion

Answer:
1. Ausable-characterised as short and fat as the writer wants to draw attention to and emphasise his wits and mental ability to handle any grave situation
[Ausable was able to successfully plant a story of a non-existent balcony and also made the agile and smart Max believe it -didn’t require an attractive physique to do this.]

2. The writer, perhaps, wanted to give a strong message that the brain is what counts more than brawn/ muscle power
OR
brain power is far more potent/ effective than any other type of power muscle/arms etc.
Explanation: The writer might have characterized Ausable as a short and fat spy because he may want to emphasize that for a spy, the quality that counts is not the physical strength or fitness but mental ability. Ausable was short and fat but was really intelligent and quick with his wits.

(C) Validate the importance of small, fun learning tasks towards successful careers, in the context of Richard Ebright in The Making of a Scientist. [3]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Think about Chapter-specific events to develop a conversation between both.

Explanations: Atleast 3-4 points, with clear textual evidence (2m)
Expression: Use of connecting words like therefore, hence etc. (1m)

Answer:

Started the collection and breeding of butterflies as a fun activity.
Got curious about the gold spots and the secretion from them.
Was able to develop a theory of cell structure and later DNA because of it.
Fun learning resulted in a career as a renowned successful scientist.

Explanation:
Indeed, a small fun learning task can lead to great careers later. In the chapter ‘Making of a Scientist’, Ebright started taking curiosity in butterflies after he had a task to collect and tag them as a young student. Later, his curiosity developed into interest and led to the discovery of’importance of DNA and celt structure’ in giving the Monarch Pupa its color. This made Ebright one of the most celebrated scientist ever.

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 100-120 words.
Mijbil and the Tiger, both were looked after by humAnswer: Assume they both meet each other in the zoo and have a conversation about their lifestyle and feelings.
Write this conversation as per your understanding of Mijbil the Otter and A Tiger in the Zoo.
You may begin like this
Tiger: Thanks for visiting me, though I don’t usually like visitors.
Mijbil: Oh? I would love visitors, I think.

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Think about Chapter-specific events to develop a conversation between both.

Mijbil- Atleast 3 characteritics points should come out in the conversation (1m + 1m + 1m)
Tiger – Atleast 3 characteristic points should come out in the conversation (1m + 1m + 1m)

Tip : Conversation should be based on their preference and likes/dislikes

Answer:
Mijbil

Happy about his life with his owner as a pet-perhaps would be scared to be out in the wild -wouldn’t know how to survive
Gets to play/go for walks
Enjoys meals and company of the owner-exists peacefully in the company of his owner

Tiger

Unhappy in captivity- blames humans for caging him-wished they’d know the value of peaceful co-existence
Longing to be free and in natural habitat-perhaps wouldn’t wish to be tamed as a pet
Gets disturbed by the human activity

Explanation: Tiger: Thanks for visiting me, though I don’t usually like visitors. Mijbil: Oh? I would love visitors, I think. Tiger: But I don’t. You see, I have always been there in the wild. Cage is not where I belong.

MijbiL Is your owner not as good as mine? Well, mine takes me out for meals, walks, etc. I really enjoy his peaceful company.

Tiger: My owners do not even feed me on time. Keep me in captivity and use me to attract visitors that disturb me all the time. I like no man.

Mijbil: I hope you find peace in your life soon my friend.

Tiger: That will only happen the day I will be free from this cage.
OR
“Not from weeping nor from grieving will anyone obtain peace of mind’.
If you had to use the message of the given quote from the Buddha’s sermon (The Sermon at Benares) to help the boy cope with the loss of his ball and what it signifies (The Ball Poem), what would you include in your advice?
Also, evaluate why it might be difficult for him to understand the notion. [6]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Learnings (2 points) in reference to Buddha’s Quote (2m)
Inferences (2 points) from learnings, on how the boy can cope with the loss (1m)
Atleast 3 reasons on why the boy cannot undertsand the notion (3m)

Keywords: Young, requires time, disheartened

Answer:
The learning from the referenced quote of Buddha –

the loss of irreplaceable things brings grief and sorrows.
learning to stay calm and understanding the perishable/ mortal nature of things helps in living life normally and forgetting loss

To help the boy cope with the loss-that loss is an important part of life
– important to learn from experience -adapt and move on.
Difficult for the boy to understand the notion-
The boy is too young to understand the depth of these words-is alone in his loss-has no one to explain and must learn from his experience painstakingly-requires time to cope-easy to feel disheartened at that age.

Explanation: The message from The Sermon at Benaras’ that I would include in my advice to the boy who lost his ball in The Ball Poem’ would be that whining or lamenting over the loss of an irreplaceable thing will only bring gloom and despair into the life of an already grieving person. Acceptance of the loss is the only thing that can diminish the feeling of sorrow from heart and bring contentment.

However, for the boy who lost his prized possession as a ball, it would be so difficult to understand these lessons because of his young age. The boy is quite young and immature. He can’t understand these mature meanings of life. He is a child who lost his lovely ball and no other ball can bring his memories attached to the lost ball back.

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 100-120 words.
Fiction writers prefer creating grey characters rather than black and white. Analyse this in detail, with reference to both the characters of ‘The Thief’s Story’.

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Introduction (1m)
Explain the reference of grey/ black/white w.r.t characters qualitiesCharacter Sketch (4m)

Talk about Character 1 (3-4 points) (2m)
Talk about Character 2 (3-4 points) (2m)

Focus on good and bad tarits of charaters

Concluding statement (1m)
Talk about what those events led to, which defied the code.

Answer:
Introductory
Both characters in the story-neither completely black (negative) or white (ideal)-have redeeming qualities as well as those that need improvement- story reveals both their personas as grey.

Hari Singh:

Thief-artful – too smart for his age – fooled his victims and police -Wasn’t ashamed in lying and stealing -made no efforts to confess that he had given in to the temptation of stealing the notes However,
Changed due to love, affection and Anil’s trust
The character of Hari Singh-not a flat character who is either black or white.

Anil:

While we can admire Anil for his qualities -helpful and simple -easily trusting -forgave the thief -never uttered a word despite knowledge of the theft However,
Not perfect-casual about money -ignored Hari Singh’s pilfering The character of Hari Singh-not a flat character who is either black or white.

Conclusion-Grey characters present a challenge to the readers, allow a sense of unpredictability and present a moral challenge. Hari Singh and Anil are created as grey characters.

Explanation: In The Thief’s Story’ the writer created both the characters of Hari Singh and Anil as grey characters. None of them were completely black (negative) or white (positive). Hari Singh was portrayed as a grey character as he initially wanted to rob Anil, tried stealing his money but later, succumbed to Anil’s goodness and returns to him.

On the other hand, Anil was also a grey character as having a lot of great qualities in him like being helpful, trusting, kind, etc., he was a spendthrift, not serious about earning money, ignored Hari’s casual money stealing, etc. The reason for portraying grey characters is to create a sense of unpredictability of the characters and a lesson to learn for the readers.
OR
‘Honour among thieves’ is considered a popular code.

Examine-A Question of Trust, as a story woven around this code. [6]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

3m(SA)

Introduction (1m)
Explain the statement w.r.t the chapter learningsCharacter Sketch (4m)

Talk about two important characters (2m + 2m)
Write events (in above) in reference to the question

Concluding statement (1m)
Talk about what those events led to, which defied the code.

Answer:
Honour among thieves-It is believed that thieves never double cross each other/ commit crimes against each other-would be inclined to help rather than betray each other.

The protagonist, Horace Danby

was careful and meticulous in his theft which he conducted once a year
didn’t anticipate the role of the lady in red

The Lady in red
made a fool of him – in spite of being a thief herself, she did not follow the code of honour normally existing between two thieves

This resulted in Horace Danby going to prison for the first time in his life-he felt betrayed.

Explanation: Honour among thieves’ is a code popular among thieves. This code means that the thieves never betray each other and that they never may come in the way of the other thieves or commit crimes around them. However, in the story ‘A Question of Trust’. Horace Danby meticulously planned his theft for over a year at the Shotover Grange.

However, he didn’t have any idea about the presen another thief the lady in the red. She made Horace of fool by pretending to be the owner of the house and made him open the safe with his own bare hands. Horace’s imprints let him to the jail for the first time ever. This way, being herself a thief the lady broke the code of ‘honour among thieves’ by betraying Horace.

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