Category: CBSE Sample Papers

students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions :

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D. There are 27 questions in the question paper.
3. Sedion-A has 5 questions ofl mark each. Section-B has 7 questions of 2 marks each. Section-C has 12 questions of 3 marks each and Section-D has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A

Question 1.
is the most important gibberellins.
(A) GA1
(B) GA2
(C) GA3
(D) GA4
Answer:
(C) GA3

Question 2.
Which antibody factor is responsible for this type of arthritis?
(A) IgE
(B) IgM
(C) Both (A) and (C)
(D) IgA
Answer:
(B) IgM

Question 3.
The tertiary structure of a protein contains
(A) Hydrogen bonds
(B) Peptide bonds
(C) Ionic bonds and S-linkage
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Explanation:
Tertiary Structure of protein is maintained by several types of bonds such as hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, sulphide bonds and hydrophilic and hydrophobic bonds formed between are part of polypeptide and another.

Direction (Qs. 4 & 5): In the above questions the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R) have been put forward. Read both the statements and choose the correct option from the following:

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Moss protonema resemble green alga.
Reason (R): It develops unicellular sex-organs.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Elaioplast is a kind of leucoplast.
Reason (R): It is involved in storage of oils and fats.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:

Section – B

Question 6.
Distinguish between a dicot and a monocot leaf.
Answer:

Dicot leaf	Monocot leaf
(i) It is a dorsoventral leaf.	It is an isobilateral leaf
(ii) Stomata are found only the on lower epidermis.	Stomata are found both on the lower and upper epidermis.
(iii) Reticulate leaf venation.	Parallel leaf venation.
(iv) Mesophyll is differentiated into spongy and palisade tissues.	The mesophyll is not divided into spongy and palisade tissues.
e.g., Dicot plants.	e.g., Monocot plants.

Question 7.
What is Glycolysis? Where does it occur?
Answer:
Glycolysis is also called as EMP (Embden Meyerhof Parnas) pathway. Glycolysis is the process of breakdown of glucose or similar hexose sugar into two molecules of pyruvic add through a series of enzyme-mediated reactions releasing some energy (ATP) and reducing power (NADH). It occurs in cytosol or cytoplasm.

Question 8.
What are the assumptions made during the calculation of net gain of ATP?
Answer:
Assumption:

1. There is a sequential, orderly pathway functioning with one substrate forming the next via glycolysis, Krebs’s cycle and ETS.
2. NADH synthesized in glycolysis is transferred into mitochondria and undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.
3. None of the intermediates in the pathway are used to make any other compound.
4. Only glucose is being respired. No other alternative substrate enters the pathway at any intermediate stage.

Question 9.
Write a short note on chitin.
OR
What are waxes and how they differ from paraffin waxes?
Answer:

1. Chitin is the second most abundant organic compound in nature.
2. It is a fibrous homopolysaccharide of high tensile strength.
3. Its basic unit is a nitrogen-containing glucose derivative known as N-acetyl glucosamine.
4. Chitin is soft and leathery, it provides both strength and elasticity. It becomes hard when impregnated with calcium carbonate

OR
Waxes are the fatty acid esters of long-chain monohydric alcohols like cetyl, ceryl or myricyl. However, paraffin wax is obtained from petroleum. Plant waxes occur in cuticles whereas animals have cutaneous glands which are known to secrete wax

Question 10.
What is stroke volume? How is it related to cardiac output?
Answer:
During cardiac cycle or one heartbeat, the volume of blood pumped by the heart is called stroke volume. This is normally 70 ml. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute is called the cardiac output. It is the product of stroke volume and the number of heart beats.

Question 11.
What are the functions of Hypothalamus?
Answer:

1. Hypothalamus integrates and controls the visceral activities.
2. It maintains homeostasis.
3. It provides anatomical connection between the nervous and endocrine systems by its relationship to the pituitary gland.
4. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre. Hence it is called “thermostat” of the body. It keeps body temperature at roughly 37°C by means of a complex thermostat system.
5. It is also associated with behavioural activities.
6. Appetite and thirst centres are located in the hypothalamus.

Question 12.
Why colchicine is called as the mitotic poison?
Answer:

1. Colchicine is an alkaloid obtained from the corms of Colchicum autumnale. The alkaloid inhibits the formation of spindle by preventing assembly of microtubules.
2. The chromosomes duplicate but they remain within the same cell, increasing the number of chromosomes. As a result, the colchicine treated meristematic cells show doubling of chromosome.

Section – C

Question 13.
How monerans utilize different strategies to get their food? Explain.
Answer:
Monerans utilise different strategies to get their food:
(i) Some of the monerans (bacteria) are autotrophic that is, they synthesize their own food from inorganic substrates. They may be photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic autotrophic.

(ii) Chemosynthetic bacteria oxidise various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the released energy for ATP production.

(iii) Bacteria that derive their nutrients from dead remains of plants and animals £re called saprophytes.

(iv) Bacteria that draw nutrients from the body of other living organisms are called parasites.
Bacteria that live in association with other living organisms and derive nutrients from them without causing them harm are called symbionts. During this association, both the organisms are mutually benefitted from each other.

Question 14.
Briefly explain the Tricarboxylic Add Cycle.
OR
Define in brief the Cyclic and Non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation. one type to another.
Answer:
(i) TCA cycle was discovered by Hans Krebs in 1940. This cycle is called TCA cycle because initial product is citric add.

(ii) Acetyl CoA combine with OAA (Oxaloacetic add) and water to yield citric add in presence of enzyme dtrate synthase to release CoA.

(iii) A molecule of glucose produces two molecules of NADH, 2ATP and two pyruvate while undergoing glycolysis. The two molecules of pyruvate are completely degraded in Kreb’s cycle to form two molecules of ATP 8NADH and 2FADH₂
Pyruvic add + 4NAD+ + FAD+ + 2H₂O + ADP + Pi 3COH₂ + 4NADH+ 4H+ +FADH₂ + ATP
OR

1. The process of synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in the presence of light is known as photophosphorylation.
2. When the two photosystems work in a series first PS II and then PS I, a process called non-cyclic photophosphorylation occurs. The two photosystems are connected through an eledron transport chain.
3. When only PS I is functional, the electron is circulated within the photosystem and the phosphorylation occurs due to the cyclic flow of electrons.
4. Cyclic photophosphorylation also occurs when only light of wavelength beyond 680 nm is available for education.

Question 15.
Are the different types of plastids interchangeable? If yes, give examples where they are getting converted from one type of another.
Answer:
Yes, plastids are interchangeable in their form. Generally, three types of plastids are present in plant cells, i.e.,
leucoplasts, chromoplast and chloroplasts. Depending upon the condition and maturity stage, one type of plastid can get converted into another plastid.
For example:

1. In Capsicum, the cells of the ovary consist of leucoplasts. When ovary changes into fruit, leucoplasts are
   transformed into chioroplasts. When the fruit ripens, chioroplast is converted into chromoplast.
2. In stem tubers of potato, the leucoplast, on exposure to sunlight transform into chioroplasts.
3. In some cases, the chioroplast gets converted into chromoplast during ripening of fruits, e.g., change of colour from green to red during ripening of tomato and chili.

Question 16.
Enlist four steps involved in catalytic action of an enzyme.
Answer:
Steps of catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are:

1. The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.
2. This binding of the substrate induces the enzymes to alter its shape and fit more dosely around the substrate.
3. The active site of the enzyme, now is in close proximity to the substrate breaks the chemical bonds of the
   substrate and an enzyme-product complex is formed.
4. The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the free enzyme is ready to take up another molecule of the substrate.

Question 17.
Differentiate between Pectoral and pelvic girdle.
Answer:

Pectoral girdle	Pelvic girdle
(i) It is found in the shoulder region, hence also known as shoulder girdle.	It occurs in the hip region, hence also known as hip girdle
(ii) It is a skeletal support from where the fore limbs of vertebrates are attached.	It is a skeletal support from where the hind limbs of vertebrates are attached.
(iii) It is composed of two bones namely, clavicle or collar bones and scapula or shoulder bone.	It is composed of three bones, upper ileum, inner pubic, and ischium.
(iv) Each pectoral girdle has a glenoid cavity into which the head of the humerus is articulated.	Each pelvic girdle has a deep depression called acetabulum to which the head of the femur is articulated.

Question 18.
How nerve impulses are conducted in non-myelinated nerves.
Answer:
Conduction of nerve impulse through non-myelinated nerves:

1. in resting stage, the Na ions are pumped out from the axoplasm. It needs energy to work normally.
2. Thus axon membrane is electronegative inside and electropositive outside, this is called resting potential. In this state, the nerve is said to be in polarised state.
3. When the nerve fibre is stimulated, it causes electrochemical disturbance in the nerve fiber, a change in potential. This change is called an action potential.
4. Thus, Na + migrate into the axoplasm and Cl- ions diffuse out. Thus, negativity is increased outside and positivity is increased inside. This is called depolarisation
5. Depolarisation progresses along the nerve fiber in both directions from the point of stimulus.

Question 19.
How can you distinguish hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?
OR
Name the source gland of luteinising hormone (LH). Mention the other hormone along with which it acts on its target cells/ organ. Give their two functions.
Answer:

1. Hyperthyroidism is increased levels of thyroid hormones whereas hypothyroidism is decreased levels of thyroid hormones.
2. Hyperthyroidism can lead to Grave’s disease whereas hypothyroidism does not produce this disease.
3. There is faster metabolism in hyperthyroidism while there is a slow metabolism in hypothyroidism.
4. Hypothyroidism is treated by supplements of thyroid hormones and hyperthyroidism is treated by anti-thyroid drugs.
5. Hypothyroidism shows decreased levels of T, and T4 and increased levels of TSH whereas in hyperthyroidism, there is an increased level of T3 and T4 and a decreased level of TSH.

OR
LH is secreted by the adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland. FSH is the other hormone (gonadotropin) along with which its target cell.

Functions of LH:

• In males, it stimulates spermatogenesis.
• In females, it stimulates ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum.

Functions of FSH: In females, it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles.

Question 20.
For completion of respiration process, write the given steps in a sequential manner

1. Diffusion of gases (O₂ and CO₂) across the alveolar membrane.
2. Transport of gases by blood.
3. Utilisation of O₂ by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO₂.
4. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO₂ rich alveolar air is released out.
5. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues.

Answer:
The correct sequence is: (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (v) – (iii)

1. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO₂ rich alveolar air is released out.
2. Diffusion of gases (O₂ and CO₂) across the alveolar membrane.
3. Transport of gases by blood.
4. Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues.
5. Utilisation of O₂ by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO₂

Question 21.
State the rules for Writing Sdentific Names.
Answer:
Rules for Writing Scientific Names:

1. Biological names are generally in Latin or Latinised.
2. The first word in a scientific name denotes the generic name while the second word represents the specific epithet.
3. The first word representing the generic name starts with a capital letter while the specific name is written with a small letter. It can be illustrated with the example of Mangifera indica.
4. Both the words in a scientific name when handwritten are separately underlined or printed in italics.
5. At the end of the biological name, i.e., after the specific epithet, the name of the author is written in an abbreviated form, e.g., Mangifera indica Linn.

Question 22.
Distinguish between taxonomy and systematics.
OR
Compare between the Chordates and Non-chordates.
Answer:
Difference between Taxonomy and systematics:

Taxonomy	Systematics
(i) It is the study of organisms on the basis of their characteristics.	It is the study of diversity of organisms and all their comparative and evolutionary relationships.
(ii) ft includes morphological and anatomical features for identification.	It deals with comparative anatomy, ecology, physiology, phylogenetics and biochemistry.
(iii) Taxonomy is limited.	Systematics is the broad field of biology.

OR
Chordates vs. Non-chordates

Chordates	Non-chordates
(i) Notochord is present and the heart is ventral.	The notochord is absent and heart is dorsal.
(ii) CNS is dorsal, hollow and single.	CNS is ventral, solid and double.
(iii) Pharynx perforated by gill slits.	Gill slits are absent.
A post-anal part is present.	Post anal tail is absent.

Question 23.
Give the possible reason for the following statements.

1. A transparent nictitating membrane is present in the eyes of a frog.
2. The first finger of the male frog is swollen.
3. Webs are present between the toes of frog.

Answer:

1. The nictitating membrane protects the eyes of the frog when it goes into mud during hibernation, aestivation and swimming.
2. The first finger in the male frog is swollen in the form of a copulatory pad to hold up the female frog firmly during copulation.
3. The webs are present between the toes because these act as paddles when the frog is swimming.

Question 24.
Briefly describe Gl-phase of cell cyde.
Answer:
G₁ Phase: (Post-Mitotic Gap 1)
(a) It includes synthesis and organisation of the substrate and enzyme necessary for DNA synthesis.
(b) It is marked by the transcription of r-RNA, t-RNA, m-RNA and synthesis of different proteins.
(c) Enlargement of the nucleus.
(d) Pooling of nucleotide and protein from the neighbouring cell into dividing cell.
(e) The chromosomes lie in the form of more or less loosely coiled thread.

Section – D

Question 25.
Read the following to answer any four questions from (i) to (iii) given below:
Xylem functions as a conducting tissue for water and minerals from roots to the stem and leaves. It also provides mechanical strength to the plant parts. It is composed of four different kinds of elements, namely, tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma. Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem. Tracheids are elongated or tube-like cells with thick and lignified walls and tapering ends. These are dead and are without protoplasm.

The inner layers of the cell walls have thickenings which vary in form. In flowering plants, tracheids and vessels are the main water transporting elements. Vessel is a long cylindrical tube-like structure made up of many cells called vessel members, each with lignified walls and a large central cavity. The vessel cells are also devoid of protoplasm. Vessel members are interconnected through perforations in their common walls. The presence of vessels is a characteristic feature of angiosperms. Xylem fibers have highly thickened walls and obliterated central lumens. These may either be septate or aseptate.

Xylem parenchyma cells are living and thin-walled, and their cell walls are made up of cellulose. They store food materials in the form of starch or fat, and other substances like tannins. The radial conduction of water takes place by the ray parenchymatous cells. Primary xylem is of two types – protoxylem and metaxylem. The first formed primary xylem elements are called protoxylem and the later formed primary xylem is called metaxylem. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the center (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the organ. This type of primary xylem is called endarch. In roots, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the center. Such arrangement of primary xylem is called exarch. (5×1=5)

1. Which part of the xylem is not present in Gymnosperms.
2. What are the different types of primary xylems.
3. What is the difference between protoxylem in stem and protoxylem roots?
4. Why xylem is called a dead tissue?
5. Briefly describe the structure of vessels?

Answer:

1. Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem.
2. Primary xylem is of two types – protoxylem and metaxylem.
3. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and in roots, the protoxylem lies towards the periphery.
4. Except for Xylem parenchyma, all other parts are dead in Xylem tissue so it is called dead tissue.
5. Vessel is a long cylindrical tube-like structure made up of many cells called vessel members, each with lignified walls and a large central cavity. The vessel cells are also devoid of protoplasm. Vessel members are interconnected through perforations in their common walls.

Question 26.
What are the external and internal factors affecting photosynthesis?
OR
(a) What is differentiation? How can you distinguish between dedifferentiation and redifferentiation?( 3+2)
(b) Distinguish between plant and animal growth.
Answer:
The external and internal factors affecting photosynthesis are :
(i) External factors:
(a) Light : The quality, intensity and duration of light received by plants greatly influences the rate of photosynthesis. The quality of light influences the photosynthesis as blue and red regions of the visible spectrum are most effective. The green light has a minimum effect. When the sufficient intensity of light is available, they start performing photosynthesis. Rate of photosynthesis increase proportionately with in increase in light intensity till plants achieve light saturation point. Beyond this point photosynthesis does show any change. Longer exposure to continuous light favours good photosynthesis.

(b) Carbon dioxide: CO₂ concentration in atmosphere act as a limiting factor. An increase in CO₂ cone, upto 0.1 % shows an increase in photosynthesis. Higher cone, becomes toxic and inhibit the rate of photosynthesis.

(c) Oxygen: High concentration of oxygen has an inhibitory effect on photosynthesis in C₃ plants, because RuBP oxygenase becomes more active resulting in photorespiration.

(d) Water: Its photooxidation supplies H+ for the reduction of NADR The reduced NADPH is used in the reduction of CO₂ in Calvin cycle. It also donates the electrons to P680 in non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

(e) Temperature: Rate of photosynthesis doubles with every 10°C rise in temperature till the optimum value is achieved. An increase in temperature above 30°C results in a fall in the rate of photosynthesis. The optimum temperature for photosynthesis in C₃ plants is 10-25°C and in C4 plants it is 30-45°C.

(ii) Internal factors:
(a) Chlorophyll content: Chlorophyll is essential for cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation and reduction of NADR the assimilatory power, used to fix and reduce CO₂ in Calvin cycle.

(b) Leaf anatomy: The important anatomical features that influence photosynthesis include thickness of cuticle, stomatal index, distribution of stomata, degree of opening of stomata, size and distribution of intercellular spaces, and number and distribution of vascular strands. Kranz anatomy of C₄ plants increases the efficiency of photosynthesis.

(c) Age of leaf: As leaf develops, the rate of its photosynthesis increases gradually reaching maximum when the leaf becomes fully matured. Rate of photosynthesis decreases with age of leaf.
OR
(a) The cells which are derived from root apical meristem and shoot apical meristem differentiate and mature to
perform specific functions. This act leading to maturation is termed as differentiation. During this, the cells
undergo a few major structural changes both in their cell walls and protoplasm.
(i) In plants, the living differentiated cells can regain the capacity to divide mitotically under certain conditions. The sum of events are termed as dedifferentiation. A dedifferentiated tissue can act as meristem. e.g. interfascicular vascular cambium, cork cambium and wound meristem.

(ii) The product of dedifferentiated cells or tissues which lose the ability to divide are called redifferentiated ceEs and the term is known as redifferentiation. Secondary xylem and secondary phloem that form interfascicular vascular cambium, secondary cortex and cork are examples of redifferentiated tissues
(b)

Plant growth	Animal growth
(i) Plant growth occurs only in meristematic zones.	In animal growth, almost all the cells increase in size.
(ii) Plant growth is constructed in a modular fashion. Development is open-ended and their structure are never complete.	Embryonic growth is completed quite early, but mature size may be reached at specific periods.
(iii) Firstly, growth is uniform but later it becomes irregular.	Animals grow in a synchronous and well-defined way.
(iv) The growth is unrestricted ed and diffused.	The growth is restricted ed and not diffused.
(v) The freshly formed seedling cannot be called a miniature plant	The young animal looks like a miniature version of the adult

Question 27.
Read the following to answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: (5×1=5)
Amphibians are the first tetrapods to invade the land. The juvenile phase of the life cycle is dependent on water, where gas exchange occurs through gills. Amphibians have aquatic larval life and terrestrial adult life. Respiration is by gills, lungs and skin. Their body is divisible into head and trunk and skin is moist without scales. The two pairs of limbs are used for locomotion except for caecilians.

They are cold- blooded animals. Respiration is by gills (in larva); lungs and skin (in adults). Amphibians have a three-chambered heart. Fertilisation is external. However, in Salamander and Ichtyophis fertilisation is internal. They are mostly oviparous, except for Salamander, which is viviparous. Development is indirect. (1+2+2)

(i) Amphibians are cold- blooded animals hence, they are called animals.
(A) Homeothermic
(B) Homoiothermic
(C) Poikilotherms
(D) Homothermic
Answer:
(C) Poikilotherms
Explanation:
They are cold-blooded animals. Their body temperature vary with the varying environment.

(ii) All amphibians use two pairs of limbs for locomotion, however, is a limbless amphibia.
(A) Bufa
(B) Salamandra (Salamander)
(C) Hyla
(D) Ichthyophis
Answer:
(D) Ichthyophis
Explanation:
It is an unusual amphibian. They have worm like body without legs. Limbless amphibians are also named as caecilians.

(iii) In some amphibians even after attaining sexual maturity, larval characters are retained. It is known as
(A) Phylogenesis
(B) Neoteny
(C) Parthenogenesis
(D) Ontogenesis
Answer:
(B) Neoteny
Explanation:
It is the retention of juvenile features in the adult animal, or the sexual maturity of an animal while it is still is a larval state.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains five sections, Section A to E.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A have 18 questions carrying 01 mark each.
4. Section B has 07 Very Short Answer type questions carrying 02 marks each.
5. Section C has 05 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each.
6. Section D has 03 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each.
7. Section E has 02 questions carrying 04 marks each. One internal choice is given in Q35 against part c only,
8. All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

Section – A

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Write the output of the following SQL command, select substr(“COMPUTER”,3,4);
(A) MPUT
(B) PUTE
(C) PU
(D) MP [1]
Answer:
(A) MPUT
Explanation: The SUBSTR( ) function extracts some characters from a string.
Syntax
SUBSTR(string, start, length) [1]

Question 2.
Given a Pandas series called sequences, the command which will display the first 4 rows is _____.
(A) print (sequences.head(4))
(B) print (sequences.Head(4))
(C) print (sequences.heads(4))
(D) print (sequences.Heads(4)) [1]
Answer:
(A) print (sequences.head(4))
Explanation: A sequence is a group of items with a deterministic ordering. Pandas head( ) method is used to return top n (5 by default) rows of a data frame or series. [1]

Commonly Made Error:
Some students get confused between head( ) and tail( ) functions.

Answering Tip:
Students should learn all concepts individual ! i with their syntax and examples.

Question 3.
Identify the correct option to select first four rows and second to fourth columns from a DataFrame ‘Data’:
(A) display(Data.iloc[l: 4,2: 4])
(B) display(Data.iloc[l: 5,2: 5])
(C) print(Data.iloc[0: 4,1: 4])
(D) print(Data.iloc[l: 4,2: 4]) [1]
Answer:
(C) print(Data.iloc[0: 4,1: 4])
Explanation: The syntax for iloc is: dataframe. iloc[<start row index>:<end row index>,<start column index >: < end column index > ] Here start and end index for rows and columns act as slicing and the end index is excluded. So, for first 4 rows indexes will be 0:4 and second to fourth columns it will be 1:4. [1]

Question 4.
To change the width of bars in a bar chart, which of the following arguments with a float value is used?
(A) hwidth
(B) width
(C) breath
(D) barwidth [1]
Answer:
(B) width
Explanation: To specify common width for all bars width argument having a scalar float value in the bar( ) function as:
<matplotlib.pyplt>.bar(<x-sequence>, < ysequence >, width = < float value >) [1]

Question 5.
The avg( ) function in MySql is an example of …………
(A) Math function
(B) Text function
(C) Date function
(D) Aggregate function [1]
Answer:
(D) Aggregate function
Explanation: SQL aggregation is the task of collecting a set of values to return a single value. It is done with the help of aggregate functions, such as SUM, COUNT, and AVG. For example, in a database of products, you might want to calculate the average price of the whole inventory. [1]

Question 6.
Only ______ functions are used with GROUP BY clause.
(A) Text
(B) Math
(C) Date/time
(D) AGGREGATE [1]
Answer:
(D) AGGREGATE
Explanation: SQL aggregation is the task of collecting a set of values to return a single value. It is done with the help of aggregate functions, such as SUM, COUNT, and AVG. Aggregate functions are used only with GROUP BY clause. [1]

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a network device?
(A) Hub
(B) Switch
(C) Mesh
(D) Router [1]
Answer:
(C) Mesh
Explanation: In a mesh topology there is no central connection point. Instead, each node is connected to at least one other node and usually to more than one. Each node is capable of sending messages and receiving messages from other nodes. The nodes act as relays, passing on a message towards its final destination. [1]

Question 8.
The two basic parts of URLs are
(A) TCP and FTP
(B) The protocal and the domain name
(C) TCP/IP and ISP
(D) Destination and device
Answer:
(B) The protocal and the domain name
Explanation: URL is an acronym for Uniform Resource Locator and is a reference (an address) to a resource on the Internet. A URL has two main components: Protocol identifier: For the URL http:// example.com, the protocol identifier is http. Domain name: For the URL http://example.com, the domain name is example.com. [1]

Question 9.
One limitation of antivirus programs is that they:
(A) Sometimes start behaving like virus
(B) Are very expensive
(C) Harm the computer
(D) Can detect only those viruses for which they are programmed [1]
Answer:
(D) Can detect only those viruses for which they are programmed
Explanation: An antivirus is software that protects against computer viruses, a type of malware that self- replicates by inserting its code into other software programs. [1]

Question 10.
With the outset of Covid-19 schools started online classes but due to continuous online classes students health issues also started. Health practitioner advised the parents to follow a few health tips. Which of the following health tips should not be suggested?
(A) The sitting posture should be correct.
(B) Breaks should be taken in between the online classes.
(C) To protect the eyes the gadgets be placed above eye level.
(D) Wash the eyes regularly [1]
Answer:
(C) To protect the eyes the gadgets be placed above eye level.
Explanation: Any screen or book should be placed at eye level for comfortable viewing and reading. [1]

Question 11.
Which of the following is not covered under IPR ?
(A) Music
(B) Insurance
(C) Logo designed
(D) Invention [1]
Answer:
(B) Insurance
Explanation: Intellectual property rights include patents, copyright, industrial design rights, trademarks, plant variety rights, trade dress, geographical indications, and in some jurisdictions trade secrets. [1]

Question 12.
Which of the following is a/an open-source software?
(A) Microsoft Windows
(B) Adobe Photoshop
(C) MySQL
(D) MS Powerpoint [1]
Answer:
(C) MySQL
Explanation: MySQL is an open-source relational database management system [1]

Question 13.
Priya is a student of class 10 and she is a very frequent user of internet applications. One day she got an unpleasant message on her instant messenger. What do you think she should do?
(A) Start chatting with an unknown person.
(B) Talk to her parents/teacher or other trusted adult and let them know that she is feeling uncomfortable.
(C) Ignore the conversation.
(D) She should delete the chat so that no one comes to know [1]
Answer:
(B) Talk to her parents/teacher or other trusted adult and let them know that she is feeling uncomfortable.
Explanation: We should never talk to unknown person over the internet. Ignoring any cyber bully will provoke him to do more such things, deleting the chat will be no solution as that person may again send similar messages. The best way is to tell her parents / teacher or some other trusted adults so that they can help her. [1]

Question 14.
Which of the following option is correct output for below statement?
SELECT LEFT (‘Wonders World’, 3);
(A) Won
(B) Wor
(C) Won Wor
(D) None [1]
Answer:
(A) Won
Explanation: LEFT( ): It is used to return a specified number of characters from the left of the string. The number of characters returned is determined by the second argument. [1]

Question 15.
If column “Grade” contains the data set (5,8,7,5,8), what will be the output after the execution of the given query?
SELECT SUM (DISTINCT Grade) FROM Exam;
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 20 [1]
Answer:
(D) 20
Explanation: DISTINCT statement is used to return only distinct (different) values. [1]

Question 16.
To sort a result set in ascending order, we can use _____ keyword with ORDER BY clause
(A) AASC
(B) ASC
(C) DESC
(D) ASCEND [1]
Answer:
(B) ASC
Explanation: ORDER BY clause is used to sort a result set returned by a SELECT statement. To sort a result set in ascending order, use ASC Keyword and in descending order, use DESC Keyword. The ORDER BY clause sorts the result set in ascending order by default. [1]

Assertion & Reason

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Iteration is a general term for taking each item of something one after another.
Reason (R): itertuplesQreturns the iterator yielding each index value along with a series containing the data in each row. [1]
Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Explanation: Iteration is the repetition of a process in order to generate an outcome. The sequence will approach some end point or end value. Each repetition of the process is a single iteration, and the outcome of each iteration is then the starting point of the next iteration. iterrows( ) returns the iterator yielding each index value along with a series containing the data in each row. [1]

Question 18.
Assertion (A): A router is more powerful and intelligent than hub or switch.
Reason (R): It has advanced capabilities as it can analyze the data and decide the data is packed and send it to the other network. [1]
Answer:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
Explanation: A router is more powerful and intelligent than hub or switch. It has advanced capabilities as it can analyze the data and decide the data is packed and send it to the other network. It can handle huge packets. It can be wired or wireless, both. A wireless router can provides access to many devices like smartphones, and connected devices. [1]

Section – B

Question 19.
Differentiate between internet and intranet. [2]
OR
Navya has just created a website for her company and now need to host it. Briefly discuss the role of a web server in hosting a website.
Answer:

Internet	Intranet
(i) It is used to connect different net work of computer simultaneously.	(i) It is the type of internet which is used privately.
(ii) There are multiple users and it provides unlimited number of information to the users.	(ii) There are limited number of users and it provide limited number of information to its user.

[2]
OR
A web Serves is the main centralized computer system that hosts and runs websites it has a computer program that distributes web pages as they are requisitioned the basic role of the web serves is to store, process and delivery the web pages to the users as and when required

Question 20.
What is the use of the functions LCASE () and UCASE ()? [2]
Answer:
LCASE ( ) function converts the argument string to the lowercase and UCASE ( ) function converts the argument string to the uppercase. mysql>SELECT LCASE (‘COMPUTER Science ‘) ;
Output
computer science
mysql>SELECT UCASE(‘COMPUTER Science’);
Output

Question 21.
Consider the following SQL string: “Environment”
Write commands to display:
(a) “ronment”
(b) “ment” [2]
Answer:
(a) SELECT SUBSTR(//Environment”,5);
(b) SELECT MID (“Environment”, 8,4); [2]

Question 22.
What are the benefits of Pandas?
Answer:
(i) Data representation: It can easily represent data in a form naturally suited for data analysis via its DataFrame and series data structures in a concise manner.
(ii) Data sub setting and filtering: It provides for easy sub setting and filtering of data, procedures that are a staple of doing data analysis. [2]

Question 23.
What is Cyber Crime?
OR
How is cultural change induced by technology?
Answer:
Cyber crime refers to the use of a computer to commit a crime. As a criminal activity, it began when hackers started illegally accessing high-level computer networks. Some examples of cyber crime include credit card and identity theft, network intrusions and software piracy. [2]
OR
Culture defines the integrated behaviour of patterns of members living in a society. The term technology is the study of designing, development, implementation, management of computer systems. Technology and culture are interrelated with each other. As technology increases, it will create either a positive or a negative impact on the culture and society. Consequently, as cultures changes the demand for development of new technology increases.

Question 24.
Give the output of the code
import pandas as pd
a = pd.DataFrame ([1,1,1, None], index = [‘a’,’b’, ‘c’, ‘d’], columns = [‘one’])
print(a) [[2]
Answer:
Output one
Table

Question 25.
What is histogram?
Answer:
Histogram is a type of graph that is widely used in mathematics, especially in statistics. The histogram represents the frequency of occurrence of a specific phenomenon which lies within a specific range of values, which are arranged in consecutive and fixed intervals. [2]

Section – C

Question 26.
Table Emp is shown below. Write commands in SQL

ID	Name	Age	Address	Salary	Phone
1	Siddarth	25	A-4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi	62000	9811076663
2	Chavi	23	B-21, Model Town, Mumbai	71000	9911342398
3	Karan	26	KC-24, North Avenue, Bhopal	65000	9810539357
4	Raunaq	22	A-152, Gomti Nagar, Lucknow	89000	9910139357
5	Kunal	27	B-5/45, Uday Park, Delhi	80000	9765345565

(i) To list names and respective salaries in descending order of SALARY.
(ii) To count the number of employees with names starting with ‘K’.
(iii) To display the name and address of employees whose age is greater than 25. [3]
Answer:
(i) SELECT NAME, SALARY FROM Emp ORDER BY SALARY DESC;
(ii) SELECT COUNTS) FROM Emp WHERE NAME LIKE “K%”;
(iii) SELECT NAME, ADDRESS FROM Emp WHERE AGE > 25; [3]

Commonly Made Error:
Some students do not use semicolon at the end of the query.

Answering Tip:
Use semicolon at the end of the query and write ! i query in proper manner.

Question 27.
Consider two objects x and y. x is a list whereas y is a Series. Both have values 10, 30, 70,120.
What will be the output of the following two statements considering that the above objects have been created already?
(a) print (x*3)
(b) print(y*3)
Justify your answer. [3]
Answer:
(a) will give the output as:
[10,30,70,120,10,30,70,120,10,30, 70,120]

(b) will give the output as

0	30
1	90
2	210
3	360

Justification: In the first statement x represents a list so when a list is multiplied by a number, it is replicated that many number of times.
The second y represents a series. When a series is multiplied by a value, then each element of the series . is multiplied by that number. [3]

Question 28.
What will be the output of the following code?
fnom matplotlib import pyplot as pit
x=[4, 8, 3]
y=[l, 6, 9]
pit.plot(x, y)
pit.title (‘Details’)
pit.ylabel(‘Y axis’)
plt.xlabel (‘X axis’)
pit. show ( ) [3]
Answer:
Details

Question 29.
Explain Privacy Laws. [3]
OR
How open data is useful?
Answer:

The Constitution of India does not patently grant the fundamental right to privacy. India presently does not have any express legislation governing data protection or privacy. Privacy law refers to the laws that deal with the regulating, storing, and using of personally identifiable information of individuals, which can be collected by governments, public or private organizations, or other individuals.
The four most common types of invasion of privacy torts are as follows:

• Appropriation of name or likeness
• Intrusion upon seclusion
• False Light
• Public Disclosure of Private Facts [3]

Commonly Made Error:
Privacy law refers to the laws that deal with the regulating, storing, and using of personally identifiable information of individuals.

Answering Tip:
Privacy laws are based on fair information Practice.
OR
Open data is data that can be freely used, re-used and redistributed by anyone-subject only, at most, to the requirement to attribute and share alike.

(1) Availability and Access: The data must be available as a whole as and at no more than a reasonable reproduction cost, preferably by downloading over the internet. The data must also be available in a convenient and modifiable form.

(2) Re-use and Redistribution: The data must be provided under terms that permit re-use and redistribution including the intermixing with other data sets.

(3) Universal Participation: Everyone must be able to use, re-use and redistribute, there should be no discrimination against fields of endeavour or against a person or groups. For example, ‘non-commercial’ restrictions that would prevent ‘commercial’ use or restrictions of use for certain purpose (e.g., only in education,) are not allowed.

Question 30.
Write the output of the following SQL queries:
(i) SELECT MID (‘Board Examination’, 2,4);
(ii) SELECT INSTR (‘INFORMATION FROM’, ‘FOR’);
(iii) SELECT LENGTH (‘Board Examination’); [3]
OR
Considering the same string “Environment”
Write SQL commands to display:
(i) The position of the substring ‘ment’ in the given string.
(ii) The first 3 letters of the string.
(iii) The length of given string.
Answer:
(i) oard
(ii) 3
(iii) 17 [3]
OR
(i) SELECT INSTRfEnvironment”, “ment”);
(ii) SELECT LEFT(“Environment”,3);
(iii) SELECT LENGTH(“Environment”);

Section – D

Question 31.
What are SQL group functions?
OR
A Departmental store ‘Iconic’ is planning to automate its system so that they can store all the records on computer. They contacted a Software Company to make the software for the same. The company suggested that there is need of a front end and back-end software. The major challenge was to keep the record of all the items available in the store. To overcome the problem, the software company has shown the glimpses of the database and table required to resolve their problem:
Database Name: Iconic
Table Name: Garment
Attributes of the table: Geode – Numeric, Gname – Character 25, Size – Character 5, Colour – Character 10, Price – Numeric
Consider the following records in ‘Garment’ table and answer the given questions:

Table: GARMENT

GCODE	GNAME	SIZE	COLOUR	PRICE
111	Tshirt	XL	Red	1,400.00
112	Jeans	L	Blue	1,600.00
113	Skirt	M	Black	1,100.00
114	Jacket	XL	Blue	4,000.00
115	Trousers	L	Brown	1,500.00
116	Ladies Top	L	Pink	1,200.00

(i) Write the command that will give the output as

COLOUR

BLU

BLA

BLU

(ii) Write SQL statement to delete the record with GCode as 116.
(iii) Give the output of :
Select GName, Price from GARMENT order by Price Desc;
(iv) The correct command to change the colour of GARMENT with code as 116 to “Orange”.
(v) What is the degree and cardinality of ‘GARMENT’ table? [5]
Answer:

Group functions are also known as aggregate functions. These functions are as follows:

(i) COUNT ( ): This function returns the number of rows in the table that satisfies the condition specified in WHERE clause. If the where clause condition is not specified then the query returns the total number of rows in the table. For example: If you want the number of employees in a particular department, the query would be
SELECT COUNT (*) FROM Employee WHERE Dept = ‘Electronics’;
If you want the total number of employees in all departments, the query would take the form: SELECT COUNT (*) FROM Employee;

(ii) MAX ( ): This function is used to get the maximum value from a column.
To get the maximum salary drawn by an employee, the query would be SELECT MAX (Salary) FROM Employee;

(iii) MIN ( ): This function is used to get the minimum value from a column.
To get the minimum salary drawn by an employee, the query would be SELECT MIN (Salary) FROM Employee;

(iv) AVG ( ): This function is used to get the average value of a numeric column.
To get the average salary, the query would be SELECT AVG (salary) FROM Employee;

(v) Sum ( ): This function is used to get the sum of a numeric value in column.
To get the total salary given out to the employees
SELECT SUM (Salary) FROM Employee;
OR
(i) Select left(COLOUR,3) from GARMENT where COLOUR like “B%”;
(ii) Delete from GARMENT where GCode =116;
(iii)

GNAME	PRICE
Jacket	4,000.00
Jeans	1,600.00
Trousers	1,500.00
Tshirt	1,400.00
Ladies Top	1,200.00
Skirt	1,100.00

(iv) Update GARMENT set COLOUR = “Orange” where Gcode=116;
(v) Degree=5 & Cardinality=6

Question 32.
Rovenza Communications International (RCI) is an online corporate training provider company for IT related courses. The company is setting up their new campus in Kolkata. You as a network expert have to study the physical locations of various blocks and the number of computers to be installed. In the planning phase, provide the best possible answers for the queries (i) to (v) raised by them.
Block to block distances (in meters)

From	To	Distance
Administrative	Finance	60
Administrative	Faculty Studio	120
Finance	Faculty Studio	70

Expected Computers to be installed in each block

Buildings	Computers
Administrative	20
Finance	40
Faculty studio	120

(i) Suggest the most appropriate block, where RCI should plan to install the server.
(ii) Suggest the most appropriate block to block cable layout to connect all three blocks for efficient communication.
(iii) Which type of network out of the following is formed by connecting the computers of these three blocks?
• LAN
• MAN
• WAN
(iv) Which wireless channel out of the following should be opted by RCI to connect to students from all over the world?
• Infrared
• Microwave
• Satellite
(v) RCI is planning to link its another block in the city located in the hilly region where cable connection is not feasible. Suggest an economic way to connect it with reasonably high speed. Justify your answer. [5]
Answer:
(i) Faculty Studio
(ii)
(iii) LAN (Local Area Network)
(iv) Satellite connection
(v) Radio Wave would be an economic way to
connect it with reasonably high speed. It offers mobility & freedom from land acquisition rights that are required for laying, repairing cables. [5]

Question 33.
Explain the data structure in Pandas. [5]
OR
Write the code to draw following graph:

Answer:
Data structure is defined as the storage and management of the data for its efficient and easy access in the future where the data is collected, modified and the various types of operations are performed on the data respectively. Pandas provide two data structures for processing the data, which are described below:

(i) Series: It is a one dimensional object similar to an array, list or column in a table. It will assign a labelled index to each item in the series. By default, each item will receive an index label from 0 to N, where N is the length of the series minus one.

(ii) Data Frame: It is a tabular data structure comprised of rows and columns. Data frame is ‘defined as a standard way to store data and has two different indexes i.e., row index and column index. [5]
OR
import numpy as np
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
objects = (‘Python’, ‘C++’, ‘Java’, ‘Perl’)

y_pos = np.arange(len(objects))
performance = [10,8,6,4]
plt.bar(y_pos, performance, align=’center’, alpha=0.5)
plt.xticks(y_pos, objects)
plt.ylabel(‘Usage’)
plt.title(Trogramming language’)
plt.show( )

Commonly Made Error:
Some students get confused in different types j of graph and they mistake in coding while ; generating graph.

Answering Tip:
Students should practice all graphs on > ; computers so that they could not make mistake in exam.

Section – E

Case based Subjective Questions

Question 34.
Consider the following table and answer the given questions.

Table Name: STUD

Admno	S_Name	Adm_Date	Maks
501	Arup	2000-11-01	98
502	Raj	1999-10-02	65.8
503	Aman	2000-05-01	99
504	Saroj	1998-10-02	69.8

(i) What will be the output of the following query? [1]
SELECT MIN(Admno) FROM STUD;

(ii) What will be the output of the following query? [1]
SELECT COUNTS) FROM STUD;

(iii) What will be the output of the following query? Also, define the round( ) function. [2]
SELECT ROUND(SUM(marks)) FROM STUD;
OR (Option for part iii only)
What will be the output of the following query? Also, define the MAXQ function.
SELECT MAX(Adm_date) FROM STUD;
Answer:
501 [1]
4 [1]
Output
333
The ROUND( ) function in MySQL is used to round a number to a specified number of decimal places. If no specified number of decimal places is provided for round off, it rounds off the number to the nearest integer. [2]
OR
Output
2000-11-01
The MySQL MAX( ) function is used to return the maximum value in a set of values of an expression. This aggregate function is useful when we need to find the maximum number, selecting the most expensive product, or getting the largest payment to the customer from your table.

Question 35.
Consider the below code
import pandas as pd
list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8]
list2= [‘swimming’,’tt’,’skating’,’kho kho’, ‘bb’, ‘chess’, ‘football’,”cricket”]
school=pd. Series(listl,mdex=list2)
school.name=(“little”)
print (school *2)
#statement 1
print (school.tail(3))
# statement 2
print (school[“tt”])
# statement 3
print (school[2:4])
# statement 4
(a) (i) Choose the correct name of the series object given above [1]
(ii) Choose the correct output for the statement: [1]
print (school[“tt”]) # statement 3
(b) The correct output of the statement: [2]
print (school*2) # statement 1

OR (Option for part iii only)

Identify the correct output for:
print (school[2:4]) # statement 4
Answer:
(a) (i) little
(ii) 2 [1]
(b)

swimming	2
tt	4
skating	6
kho kho	8
bb	10
chess	12
football	14
cricket	16

OR

skating	3
kho kho	4

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each question.
• Q. No. 1 to 10 and 18 to 27 are Objective Type Questions / Multiple Choice Questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Q. No. 11 to 12 and 28 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions 1 carrying 3 marks each.
• Q. No. 13 to 15 and 30 to 32 are Short Answer Type Questions II carrying 4 marks each.
• Q. No. 16 to 17 and 33 to 34 are Long Answer Type Questions carrying 6 marks each.

Section – A

Question 1.
Economics is very useful for: [1]
(A) Consumers
(B) Producers
(C) Workers
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not an essential element of sample: [1]
(A) Representativeness
(B) Adequacy
(C) Dependence
(D) None of the above
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
The sample so collected need not be dependent on each other.

Question 3.
When the units of investigation are taken into account, it is called ___________ method. [1]
(A) Sample
(B) Census
(C) Investigation
(D) Transfer
Answer:
(B) Census

Explanation:
Census investigation or complete count, in which information is collected about every unit of the universe relating to the problem under investigation.

Question 4.
Histogram is represented in the form of ___________ . [1]
(A) Circles
(B) Triangles
(C) Rectangles
(D) Pyramids
Answer:
(C) Rectangles

Explanation:
A histogram consists of tabular frequencies, shown as adjacent rectangles, erected over discrete intervals (bins), with size equal to the frequency of the observations in the interval.

Question 5.
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct alternative: [1]
Assertion (A): Ogives can only be made with less than cumulative frequency distribution.
Reason (R): Ogive is a frequency distribution graph by plotting cumulative frequency distribution in a form of smooth curve.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
OR
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct alternative:
Assertion (A): False Base line is that portion of the scale which lies between zero and the smallest value of the variable is omitted.
Reason (R): One important rule in drawing the graph is that the vertical axis must start from zero.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Explanation:
Ogive can also be made with more than cumulative frequency distribution.

OR

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
They are just the names given but are not explanation why that names are given.

Question 6.
Which out of the following is a positional average? [1]
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Median
(C) Geometric Mean
(D) Harmonic Mean
Answer:
(B) Median

Explanation:
Arithmetic Mean, Geometric Mean and Harmonic Mean are all mathematical average.

Read the following article and answer questions 7 to 10 that follows:

The law of demand is an economic principle that explains the negative correlation between the price of a good or service and its demand. If all other factors remain the same, when the price of a good or service increases, the quantity of demand decreases, and vice versa. When all other things remain constant, there is an inverse relationship, or negative correlation, between price and the demand for goods and services.

For example, suppose all factors remain constant and the price of oil is rising significantly. When the price of oil increases, the price of a plane ticket increases as well. This will cause a fall in the demand for plane tickets, because ticket prices may be too expensive for average consumers.

Suppose an individual wants to travel to a city 500 miles away, and the price of one plane ticket is $500 as opposed to $200 last year. She may be less likely to travel by air due to the increase in price. This causes her quantity demanded for an airplane ticket to decrease to zero. She is more likely to choose a more cost-effective way to travel, such as taking a bus or a train.

Similarly, when the price of a product decreases, the quantity demanded increases. For example, suppose the price of oil significantly decreases instead. This cuts the costs for airline companies and causes a decrease in the prices of airplane tickets. If airline companies are now only charging $100 as opposed to $500 in the previous example, the quantity demanded will increase. An individual may demand five tickets now, as opposed to zero before, because the price of one airplane ticket to travel 500 miles was cut by 80%.
– Why is there a negative correlation between quantity demanded and price? – Investopedia – October 15,2020

Question 7.
Negative correlation shows relation between the two variables. [1]
(A) Direct
(B) Indirect
(C) Inverse
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Inverse

Explanation:
As in the article Demand and Price are related inversely and thus, have negative correlation.

Question 8.
If the correlation ranges from -1 to – 0.75 what degree of negative correlation will it have? [1]
(A) High
(B) Moderate
(C) Low
(D) No
Answer:
(A) High

Explanation:
High correlation ranges from -1 to -0.75, Moderate ranges from -0.75 to -0.25, Low ranges from -0.25 to 0.

Question 9.
What type of correlation exists between demand and price as per the above article? [1]
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(B) Negative

Question 10.
What does the negative correlation between the demand and price imply? [1]
(A) The consumers search for substitutes
(B) The consumers buy less if prices increase
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 11.
What is the difference between simple index number and weighted index number? [3]
Answer:
Simple index number is based on the assumption that all the commodities are of equal importance. While constructing index numbers each and every commodity is given weight with its related importance. This is known as Weighted Index Numbers.

Question 12.
Find unknown frequency in the table given below: [3]

X	Frequency (f)
5	5
10	7
15	?
20	10
25	8
30	6
	Σf=50

OR
The monthly per capita expenditure incurred by workers for an industrial centre during 1980 and 2005 on the following items are given below. The weights of these items are 75, 10, 5, 6 and 4 respectively. Prepare a weighted index number for cost of living for 2005 with 1980 as the base.

Items	Price in 1980	Price in 2005
Food	100	200
Clothing	20	25
Fuel & light	15	20
House Rent	30	40
Miscellaneous	35	65

Answer:
To find unknown frequency subtract the sum of known frequencies from sum of total frequencies.
Σf = 50
Sum of known frequency = 5 + 7 + 10 + 8 + 6 = 36
Unknown frequency = Total frequency – Sum of known frequencies = 50 – 36 = 14

OR

CPI = \(\frac{\sum W R}{\sum W}\) = \(\frac{18,459.50}{100}\)
= 184.60 (Approximately 184)

Question 13.
What do you understand by Circular or Pie Diagram ?
OR
Present the data given in the table below in a histogram:

Marks	Frequency
0-10	4
10-20	10
20-30	16
30-40	22
40-50	20
50-60	18
60-70	8
70-80	2

Answer:
Pie diagram represents the total magnitude and its various components and in simple term, we can say, it is a circle that may be divided into various sectors representing the respective components. The circle comprises 360°.
For example, Pie diagram showing amount spent on expenditure:

OR

Question 14.
The annual salaries of four men were ₹5,000, ₹6,000, ₹6,500, ₹3,000 [4]
(i) Find the Arithmetic Mean of their salaries.
(ii) Is this average typical to their salaries?
Answer:
(i) A.M. = \(\frac{₹ 5,000+₹ 6,000+₹ 6,500+₹ 3,000}{4}\)
∴ X̄ = \(\frac{\sum X}{N}\) = \(\frac{₹ 20,500}{4}\) = ₹5,125

(ii) This mean can be said as the representative value of the series since the values of items are neither too high nor too low, therefore, this average is typical of their salaries.

Question 15.
Recast the following cumulative table into the form of an ordinary frequency distribution and determine value of the median. [4]

Number of Days Absent	Number of Students
Less than 5	29
Less than 10	224
Less than 15	465
Less than 20	582
Less than 25	634
Less than 30	644
Less than 35	650
Less than 40	653
Less than 45	655

Answer:

Question 16.
(i) Define Mode and write its three demerits. [3]
(ii) Mode is the best representative value of all items of the series because it is that value which occurs most frequently in the series. State four advantages of Mode in the context of above statement. [3]
Answer:
(i) Mode: “The value occurring most frequently in series (or group) of items and around which the other items are distributed most densely”.

Demerits of the Mode
(a) Incapable of Algebraic treatment: Unlike mean, mode is not capable of further algebraic treatment.
(b) Uncertain and vague: Mode is an uncertain and vague measure of central tendency.
(c) Restricted use: If the frequency of each item of the series is same than mode cannot be calculated. In this way, the use of mode is restricted.

(ii) Mode is the best representative value of all items of the series because:
(a) It is easy to calculate and can be easily understood. It can be located by inspection only.
(b) It is not affected by the extreme values in a series.
(c) It can be calculated even in case of open-end classes.
(d) Mode helps in describing the qualitative aspects of phenomenon.

Question 17.
Calculate rank correlation between A and C ranks given below: [6]

OR
Calculate the Mean from the following data: [6]

X	No. of Students
0-10	2
10-20	3
20-30	4
30-40	1

Answer:

OR

Mean(X̄) = A + \(\frac{\sum f d^{\prime}}{N}\) × i
= 15 + \(\frac{4}{10}\) × 10
= 15 + 4 = 19

Commonly Made Error:
Some students don’t write the correct formula of standard deviation.

Answering Tip:
Students should practice a lot.

Section – B

Question 18.
Identify the correct pair of terms and definitions from the following Columns I and II

Column I	Column 11
A. Production Function	1. Shows the functional relation between physical inputs and physical output of a good.
B. Short Run Production Function	2. All the factors of production are variable.
C. Long Run production Function	3. One factor of production is variable and all others are fixed.
D. Long Run Production Function	4. Addition to utility

(A) A – 1
(B) B – 2
(C) C – 3
(D) D – 4
OR

Column I	Column II
(A) Total Fixed Cost	1. The cost incurred in labour.
(B) Total Variable Cost	2. The cost incurred in buying machinery.
(C) Total Cost	3. The cost incurred in the selling of items.
(D) Average Cost	4. The cost incurred per unit of output produced.

(A) A – 1
(B) B – 2
(C) C – 3
(D) D – 4
Answer:
(A) A – 1

OR

(D) D – 4

Question 19.
When MU is zero TU is ________ . [1]
Answer:
Maximum

Question 20.
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option: [1]
Assertion (A): MP increases in stage I as per law of variable proportion.
Reason (R): Fuller use of the variable factor.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
There can never be a fuller use of the variable factor.

Question 21.
There is a sudden change in climatic conditions resulting in hot weather. Assuming no change in the price of cold drinks, it will lead to: [1]
(A) Upward movement along the same market demand curve
(B) Downward movement along the same market demand curve
(C) Rightward shift in market demand curve
(D) Leftward shift in market demand curve
Answer:
(C) Rightward shift in market demand curve

Explanation:
As the weather has changed and the prices remained the same, so even at the same prices due to the hot weather, the demand for cold drinks will increase leading to the rightward shift in the demand curve.

Question 22.
What happens to AP when MP is more than AP? [1]
(A) AP rises
(B) AP falls
(C) AP remains constant
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) AP rises

Question 23.
The expenses incurred in production of a commodity towards payment of services outside the firm are called __________ . [1]
(A) Explicit Cost
(B) Implicit Cost
(C) Opportunity Cost
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(A) Explicit Cost

Read the following passage and answer Questions 24 to 27 that follows on the basis of the same:

In a market survey it was found that the price of the commodity does not only affect the demand of the commodity. It was ascertained that even though the negative relationship between price and commodity holds, the other factors play an important role as well. Demand for a commodity is affected by the following factors:
(i) Income of the consumer: Market demand for a commodity is directly related to income of the consumer. Increase in income of consumer causes increase in market demand for the commodity.
(ii) Prices of related goods: In case of substitute goods, demand for a commodity falls with fall in price of the substitute commodity. In case of complementary goods, market demand for the commodity rises with a fall in the price of complementary commodity.
(iii) Tastes and Preferences: If consumer’s tastes and preferences change, quantity demanded of the commodity will also change.
(iv) Income Distribution: when the income of the consumers increases in the market the demand for the commodity increases and the consumers start demanding more or otherwise when the income decreases the demand decreases.

Question 24.
When the price of the commodity rises, the demand of the commodity ___________. [1]
(A) Rises
(B) Falls
(C) Remains the same
(D) Cannot be said.
Answer:
(B) Falls

Explanation:
As there is a negative relationship between the demand and price of the commodity the price rise will lead to the fall in the demand.

Question 25.
Increase in the ___________ of the consumer, increases the ___________ of the commodity. [1]
(A) Income, Price
(B) Price, Demand
(C) Income, Market Demand
(D) Market Demand, Price
Answer:
(C) Income, Market Demand

Explanation:
The increase in the income of the consumer leads to an increase in the demand as the purchasing power of the consumers increases in the market and the price of the commodity becomes relatively cheaper.

Question 26.
With change in the taste and preference of the consumers, the market demand ____________ . [1]
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Changes accordingly
(D) Remains the same.
Answer:
(C) Changes accordingly

Explanation:
With change in the taste and preference of the consumers, the demand changes as per the change in the taste and preference. If the consumer prefers another good the demand of the particular good decreases and vice versa.

Question 27.
The demand is not affected by which of the following factors: [1]
(A) Price of the commodity
(B) Income of the consumers
(C) Price of related goods
(D) None of the above
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
As all the factors affect the demand of the commodity, thus none of the above is the correct option.

Question 28.
(i) What is Price Line ? [2]
(ii) What is the relation between market price and average revenue of a price taking firm ? [2]
OR
The equilibrium market wage rate is ₹ 14,000 per month. The government finding it low fixes minimum wage rate at ₹ 18,000 per month. Examine the implications of this decision. Use diagram. [4]
Answer:
(i) Price Line or firm’s demand curve is the same as firm’s AR curve, because AR means price, and demand curve (or AR curve) shows the relationship between price and quantity demanded of firm’s output.

(ii) Market price and average revenue of a price taking firm are equal. Both are indicated by a horizontal straight line, because market price is constant for a price taking firm.

OR

Payment of wage rate (₹ 18,000) higher than equilibrium wage rate (₹ 14,000) leads to excess supply of labour as shown in the diagram, equal to AB. Since supply is greater than demand, it may lead to unemployment equal to AB.

Question 29.
What is maximum price ceiling? Explain its implications. [3]
Answer:
Price Ceiling or Maximum Price: It refers to fixing of the maximum price of a commodity at a level lower than the equilibrium price. Government imposes price ceiling in case of essential commodities (Wheat, Sugar, Kerosene, etc.) when the equilibrium price determined by free market forces of demand and supply is high.

Implications of price ceiling:
1. Shortage (excess demand): At this controlled price, quantity demanded is more than quantity supplied. It creates a shortage and to overcome this shortage government may enforce the rationing system.

2. Black marketing: If rationing is not administered by the government effectively it results in black marketing. Due to excess demand buyers will compete and they would be willing to buy a commodity at a higher price than the price fixed by the government.

Commonly Made Error:
Some students misunderstood the term Price Ceiling and Price floor.

Answering Tip:
Students must do ample practice for clearing the concept.

Question 30.
A 5 percent fall in the price of a good raises its demand from 300 units to 318 units. Calculate its price elasticity of demand. [4]
Answer:
Given, percentage change in price = – 5%
Q = 300 units
Q₁ = 318 units
ΔQ = Q₁ – Q
= 318 – 300 = 18 units
Percentage change in quantity demanded
= \(\frac{18}{300}\) × 100 = 6 %
Price elasticity of demand (Ed)
= \(\frac{\% \text { Change in Quantity Demanded }}{\% \text { Change in Price }}\)
= \(\frac{6 \%}{(-) 5 \%}\)
= – 1.2

Question 31.
Complete the following table: [4]

Answer:

Question 32.
(i) Why does an economic problem arise? [2]
(ii) State any two assumptions on which a Production Possibility Curve is based. [2]
OR
Giving reason, comment on the shape of Production Possibility Curve based on the following schedule [3]

Goods X (Units)	Goods Y (Units)
0	8
1	6
2	4
3	2
4	0

Answer:
(i) The reasons why economic problem arise are:
(a) Wants of people are unlimited: It is due to unending circle of wants. After the satisfaction of one want, another want arises.
(b) Resources are limited: Problem of allocation of resources arises because resources are not enough to satisfy wants of every individual.
(c) Resources have alternative uses: Scarce resources have alternative uses. When an individual chooses to use a given resources for something, he/she is unable to use that resources for anything else.

(ii) PPC is based on the following assumptions:
(a) Only two goods can be produced with the help of given resources.
(b) The resources are fully and efficiently utilised and there is no change in technology.
(c) The amount of resources in an economy is fixed but these resources can be transferred from one use to another.

OR

Goods X (Units)	Goods Y (Units)
0	8
1	6
2	4
3	2
4	0

When we draw the data given in the table, we find that when we increase X by one unit we have to sacrifice 2 units of Y. This shows that where Marginal Opportunity Cost or MRS is constant, PPC will be a straight line curve sloping downwards.

Question 33.
Explain the law of variable proportions with the help of a numerical example. [6]
OR
Explain the effect of the following on market supply of a good:
(i) Increase in input prices
(ii) Reduction in per unit tax. [6]
Answer:
The law of variable proportions is explained with the help of following Table and Fig.

Increasing MP implying increasing returns to a factor. Diminishing MP implying diminishing returns to a factor [Note: Where MP stops increasing, from that very point it starts diminishing. Thus, overlapping is indicated in the above table when MP = 4.] The table shows that as more and more units of labour are combined with fixed amount of land, MP (marginal product) tends to rise till 3 units of labour are employed. In this situation, TP (total product) increases at the increasing rate. This is a situation of increasing returns to the factor. But, with the application of 4th unit of labour, situation of diminishing returns sets in: MP starts decreasing and TP increases only at the decreasing rate. Diminishing MP reduces to zero when 7th unit of labour is added, and MP becomes negative (-1) when 8th unit of labour is also employed. Total output is maximum (= 15), when marginal output is zero and it starts declining (from 15 to 14) when marginal output = – 1 (negative).

Diagram shows that:
1. MP tends to rise till OL units of labour are used with the constant application of land. This corresponds to point E on the MP curve. This is a situation of increasing returns to a factor.

2. When MP is rising, TP tends to rise at an increasing rate. This occurs till point K on the TP curve. This corresponds to the situation of increasing returns to a factor.

3. Beyond OL units of labour, MP tends to decline and TP increases only at diminishing rate. This occurs between E and S on MP curve and between K and T on TP curve. This corresponds to a situation of diminishing returns to a factor.

4. Beyond OS units of labour, MP becomes negative. Now, TP starts declining. Economics sometimes refers to this situation as a situation of negative returns.

OR

1. Increase in input prices: Change in price of raw material and remuneration of factors, (rent, wages, interest and profit) influences the cost of production of a commodity and thereby its supply. An increase in price of inputs, will increase the cost of production leading to a reduction in profit. This will make the producer reduce the supply of the commodity, shifting the supply curve to the left.

2. Reduction in per unit tax: Government levies taxes on production of goods, etc. Such taxes influence supply because it adds to the cost of production. Reduction in per unit tax levied by the government will decrease the cost of production and increase supply by the firms due to higher profit margins. In this case the supply curve will shift towards the right.

Question 34.
Define consumer’s equilibrium. Explain its condition under indifference curve analysis. [6]
Answer:
Given income of the consumer and the prices of the goods he buys, the consumer is said to be in equilibrium when he spends income in such a way that he gets maximum satisfaction.
(i) Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) = Px / Py
(ii) MRS falls as more is consumed of X.

Explanation:
1. Suppose MRS > Px/Py. It means that consumer is willing to pay more for goods X, than the prevailing market price. Consumer buys more of X and less of Y till MRS = Px/Py again.

2. Unless MRS has a tendency to fall as more is purchased the consumer will never reach equilibrium again.
(Note: Explanation MRS < Px / Py is also correct)

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each question.
• Q. No. 1 to 10 and 18 to 27 are Objective Type Questions / Multiple Choice Questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Q. No. 11 to 12 and 28 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions I carrying 3 marks each.
• Q. No. 13 to 15 and 30 to 32 are Short Answer Type Questions II carrying 4 marks each.
• Q. No. 16 to 17 and 33 to 34 are Long Answer Type Questions carrying 6 marks each.

Section – A

Question 1.
After every 10 years, information regarding population of India is collected through: [1]
(A) Census method
(B) Sample method
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
Census of India provides most complete and continuous demographic record of population. The first census after independence was held in 1951.

Question 2.
When each and every unit of universe is not studied, then it is called: [1]
(A) Census investigation
(B) Sample investigation
(C) Practical investigation
(D) None of these
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
As the investigation is being done of the data collected from a particular sample, it is called Sample Investigation.

Question 3.
Variables can be classified into two types, and . [1]
(A) Discrete, Continuous
(B) Parallel, Simple
(C) Simple, Complex
(D) Single, Double
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Question 4.
A teacher of a school wants to represent the marks obtained by a student in 5 subjects. Suggest him a simple presentation tool to present the marks of the students. [1]
(A) Bar diagram
(B) Pie Chart
(C) Histogram
(D) Time series graph
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
The most simplest way to diagrammatically represent data is through bar graph

Question 5.
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct alternative: [Spy [l]
Assertion (A): Census Investigation method is a very costly method.
Reason (R): Census method involves surveying a large number of people and so it requires a lot of labour and manpower.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assert
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
As census method involves surveying a large number of people requiring a lot of manpower, it is a very expensive method.

Question 6.
Mode is not affected by the values.
(A) Extreme
(B) Central Value
(C) First Value
(D) Lat Value
OR
Correlation coefficient is always ____________
(A) + 0 to – 0
(B) + 1 to – 1
(C) + 2 to – 2
(D) + 1 to 0
Answer:
Option (A) is correct
OR
Option (B) is correct

Read the following Article and answer questions 7 to 10 that follows:
Index Numbers methods are among the most commonly used statistical techniques in the area of economic statistics. Index Numbers are commonly used to combine large amounts of data about a given variable into a single number; the variable is then (usually) allowed to vary over either a spatial or temporal dimension. Statistics measured using some type of index number include, inflation, stock market performance, volumes of production and human development. Despite the widespread applied use of tools which fall under the heading of index numbers, the area is typically taught to economics undergraduates within a first-year statistics course in which a few formulae are introduced and then little emphasis is given to the subject area in other modules or in later years.

In this article, I will attempt to describe an alternative approach to the teaching of index numbers. It is argued that it is beneficial to move beyond the application of a small set of formulae to artificial data and consider that a deeper appreciation of index numbers can provide Economics students with a better understanding of the link between theory and application in the area of economic statistics. The proposed approach will enhance students’ understanding of both the strengths and weaknesses inherent in the statistics produced by National Statistical Institutions such as the Office for National Statistics (ONS) in the UK. A better understanding of this environment will then potentially fuel their understanding of applied work in other areas of economics and make them better placed to analyse and make use of other economic statistics. Source: Teaching Index Number to Economist – Robert O’Neill – tandfonline.com

Question 7.
Which of the following is not the use of index number in Economics? [1]
(A) Inflation
(B) Stock Market
(C) Human Development
(D) Growth in Salary
Answer:
Option (D) is correct

Explanation:
Growth in salary is measured by percentage of the previous salary and not through index number.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a measure of index number? [1]
(A) Simple Index Number
(B) Weighted Index Number
(c) Consumer Price Index
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
Option (D) is correct

Explanation:
All the options, i.e; Simple Index Number, Weighted Index Number and Consumer Price Index are different index numbers.

Question 9.
Which of the following statement is true regarding index number? [1]
(A) Index Numbers explain average change
(B) Index numbers are generally not true.
(C) Index Numbers are not based on samples
(D) Neglect of quantity of a commodity.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
Index Numbers explain average change.

Rest are false as:
Index numbers are generally true
Index Numbers are based on samples
Neglect of quality of a commodity

Question 10.
Why is there a need to have a proper understanding of index numbers? [1]
(A) We can understand the environment properly
(B) It helps in a better economic analysis
(C) It makes us use statistics
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
A better understanding of this environment will then potentially fuel their understanding of applied work in other areas of economics and make them better placed to analyse and make use of other economic statistics.

Question 11.
How are index numbers useful for statistical calculations? [3]
Answer:
Utility/Uses of Index Numbers:

• Index Numbers make easy the difficult facts: Index Numbers presents the complex facts into simple and understandable form. So many times index number measures such changes which may not be measured directly.
• Index numbers make comparative study easy: Index Numbers show the facts represented in different units comparatively.
• Helpful in measuring irregular changes: For example changes in prices are helpful in different circumstances.
• Index Numbers studies the changes in general price level: Most important use of index number is that it measures the value of money during different periods of time.

Question 12.
Calculate Arithmetic Mean from the following data: [3]

Marks	No. of students
0-10	2
10-20	7
20-30	10
30-40	15
40-50	20
50-60	16
60-70	6
70-80	4

OR
Locate the Mode graphically:

Marks	No. of students
0-10	5
10-20	10
20-30	20
30-40	25
40-50	20
50-60	10
60-70	5

Answer:

A.M = \(\frac{\sum f x}{N}=\frac{3360}{80}\) = 42
OR
Firstly, we draw the histogram of the given data. Here, maximum height of rectangle is 25.00 modal class is 30 – 40.

It is clear from the histogram that the value of mode is 35.

Question 13.
Show the annual profit figures of a firm with the help of a time series graph:

Year	Profit (₹ in ’000)
2006	60
2007	72
2008	75
2009	65
2010	80
2011	95

OR
Construct frequency polygon without histogram using following data: [4]

Weekly Wages (₹)	Number of Workers
0-10	10
10-20	18
20-30	35
30-40	30
40-50	20
50-60	12
60-80	8
70-80	3

Answer:
As per the question, years 2006 to 2011 and their respective profits are given. Before plotting the graph a false base line should be prepared in order to make profit scale equal.

A time series graph of given annual profit figures is shown below:

OR
Frequency polygon without histogram using given data is shown below:

Question 14.
The mean of 200 items was 50. Later it was discovered that two items were misread as 92 and 8 instead of 192 and 88. Find the correct mean. [4]
Answer:
Incorrect Mean, X = 50
ΣX = X̄ × N
∴ ΣX = 50 x 200 = 10,000
Correct Mean = ΣX – Sum of Incorrect Values + Sum of Correct Value
= \(\frac{10,000-(92+8)+(192+88)}{200}\)
= \(\frac{10,000-100+280}{200}=\frac{10,180}{200}\)
Correct Mean = 50.9

Question 15.
The following series relates to the daily income of workers employed in a firm. Compute the (i) highest income of lowest 50% workers, (ii) minimum income earned by the top 25%, and (iii) maximum income earned by lowest 25% workers. [4]

Answer:
Since inclusive class intervals are given, firstly we convert them into exclusive class interval.

(i) To find the highest income of lowest 50% workers, we calculate
Median (M) = \(\frac{N}{2}=\frac{65}{2}\)
= Value of 32.5th item Median class is 24.5 – 29.5
M = l1 + \(\frac{\frac{N}{2}-c . f}{f}\) × f
= 24.5 + \(\frac{32.5-30}{20}\) × 5
= 24.5 + \(\frac{2.5}{20}\) × 5 = 24.5 + 0.62 = 25.11

(ii) To find the minimum income earned by the top 25% workers, we calculate Upper Quartile (Q₃)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)N = \(\frac{3 \times 65}{4}\) = 48.75 th item. Upper Quartile class is 24.5 – 29.5.
Q₃ = l₁ + \(\frac{\frac{3}{4} N-c . f}{f}\) × f
= 24.5 + \(\frac{48.75-30}{20}\) × 5 = 29.19 20

(iii) To find the minimum income earned by the lowest 25% workers, we calculate
Lower Quartile (Q₁) = \(\frac{N}{4}=\frac{65}{4}\) = 16.25 th item, 4 4
Lower Quartile class is 19.5-24.5.
Q₁ = l₁ + \(\frac{\frac{N}{4}-c . f}{f}\) x f
= 19.5 + \(\frac{16.25-15}{15}\) x 5
= 19.92

Question 16.
Calculate the Coefficient of Correlation of the following data by Spearman’s Rank Correlation method: [6]

X	Y
19	9
24	22
12	20
23	14
19	22
16	18

Answer:

Question 17.
Construct Index Number of prices from the data given below by applying Fisher’s Method. [6]

OR
What are the desirable properties of the base period? [6]
Answer:
Fisher’s Method:

OR
The base period should have the following desirable properties:
(i) Base year should not be either too short or too long: It should not be either less than a month or more than a year for calculation purpose.

(ii) Base year should not belong to too near or too far: Statisticians compare the current year’s conditions with the conditions in the base year. So, if the base year is too far from the current year, then the comparison becomes meaningless. Similarly, if the base year is too near to the current year, then comparison fails to capture the change in the taste, preferences, fashion, etc. Thus, in order to conduct a meaningful comparison, the base year should not be either too far or too near to the current year.

(iii) Base year should be so selected that the data for the same should be available: The data for a year should be available in order to regard that particular year to be the base year. This enables one to draw conclusions, inferences and for making comparisons.

(iv) Base period should be constantly updated: The base year should be constantly updated due to the changes in taste, preferences and fashion; otherwise the comparison becomes misleading or inconclusive.

Section – B

Question 18.
Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct alternative: [1]
Assertion (A): Law of diminishing marginal utility states that as more and more units of a commodity are consumed, marginal utility derived from every additional unit must decline.
Reason (R): When MU is negative, TU will be decreasing.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
OR
Identify the correct pair of items from the following Columns I and II: [1]

Column I	Column II
A. Assumption of Law of diminishing marginal utility	1. Homogeneous units of commodity
B. Assumption of Law of equi-marginal utility	2. Continuous consumption without any time lag
C. Assumption of Law of diminishing total utility	3. Standard units of commodity
D. Assumptions of Law of diminishing utility	4. No change in tastes, preferences, or income of the consumer

(A) A – 1
(B) B – 2
(C) C – 3
(D) D – 4
Answer:
Option (B) is correct
OR
Option (A) is correct

Question 19.
The slope of price line in case of commodities x and y is given by: [1]
(A) Taste and preferences of consumer
(B) Prices of both the commodities
(C) Price of commodity x alone
(D) Price of commodity y alone
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
The Price line joins the prices of both the commodities.

Question 20.
Which of the following is not the property of Indifference Curve. [1]
(A) It is concave to the origin.
(B) It is downward sloping.
(C) Higher the indifference curve higher is the satisfaction.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
Indifference Curve is convex to the origin.

Question 21.
Read the statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct alternative: [1]
Assertion (A): Demand for antiques is perfectly inelastic.
Reason (R): The perfectly inelastic demand have the elasticity equal to zero.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
Demand for antiques is perfectly inelastic as the demand for the antiques will not be effected by the change in the price levels.

Question 22.
Which curve is not affected by fixed costs? [1]
(A) MC curve
(B) TC curve
(C) AC curve
(D) AFC curve
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
MC curve is dependent on the change in the Total Cost by the production of one more unit, which is not affected by Average Cost.

Question 23.
Read the following Statement 1 and Statement 2 and choose the correct alternative: [1]
Statement 1: Law of diminishing marginal utility states that as more and more units of a commodity are consumed, marginal utility derived from every additional unit must decline.
Statement 2: The law of equi marginal utility states that the consumer will distribute his money income between the goods in such a way that the utility derived from the last rupee spent on each good is equal.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.
(C) Only Statement 1 is true.
(D) Only Statement 2 is true.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Read the following passage and answer questions 24 to 27 that follows:
Jordan Cement Factories Company was set up in December 1951 as a share holding company. In March 1954, the company commenced business with the first bag of cement.
In order to ascertain the cost of products for a particular period of time, the company prepares cost sheet. The cost sheet data are collected from various statements of accounts which have been written in cost accounts either on day to day or regular records. The main elements of cost sheet are prime cost,work cost and cost of production.
The main principle that underlines the cost classifications of main elements of the cost is fixed and variable cost basis. The company does not consider any other basis like direct and indirect costs or revenue and capital cost or functional classification for cost classification. Fixed and variable cost is based on the changes in activity or volume. Fixed cost or period cost remain unchanged in spite of changes in volume or activity.
Variable cost or product cost vary in complete proportion to the volume of output. Capital and revenue basis depends on the purpose of expenditure. Any cost incurred in purchasing assets either to earn income or increasing the earning capacity of the business is known as capital cost. But any cost incurred for the purpose of maintaining the earning capacity of the business is revenue expenditure.

Question 24.
The cost sheet is prepared by the company to ascertain ____________ (revenue/cost/demand/production) of the product at a particular time. [1]
Answer:
Cost

Question 25.
The main principle underlying the cost classification is the main element of the cost in ____________ and ____________ cost basis. [1]
(A) fixed, opportunity
(B) fixed, implicit
(C) implicit, explicit
(D) fixed, variable
Answer:
Option (D) is correct

Question 26.
State whether the given statement is true or false: [1]
Variable cost or product cost vary in complete proportion to the volume of output.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Read the following statements – Statement 1 and Statement 2: [1]
Statement 1: Revenue expenditure is incurred for the purpose of increasing the earning capacity of the business. Statement 2: Revenue expenditure can be easily defined as money spent for purchase or creating of long-term assets. Select the correct alternative from the following:
(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.
(C) Only Statement 1 is true.
(D) Only Statement 2 is true.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Question 28.
Explain the implication of “freedom of entry and exit” feature of perfect competition. [3]
OR
Giving reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) When equilibrium price of a good is less than the market price, there will be competition among the sellers.
(ii) Excess supply of a commodity exists when its market price is greater than its equilibrium price. [3]
Answer:
Under perfect competition, there will be no restriction on the entry and exit of both buyers and sellers. If the existing sellers start making abnormal profits, new sellers should be able to enter the market freely. This will bring down the abnormal profits to the normal level. Similarly, when losses will occur existing sellers may leave the market. However, such free entry or free exit is possible only in the long run, but not in the short-run.

OR

(i) True.
Because when the prevailing, market price is higher than the equilibrium price there will be excess supply, and since the sellers will not be able to sell all they want to sell, there will be competition among sellers.
(ii) True. Excess supply occurs when the market price is greater than the equilibrium price. This leads competition among sellers as a result of which price starts falling and again market price becomes equal to equilibrium price.

Question 29.
Explain the chain effects, if the prevailing market price is below the equilibrium price. [3]
Answer:
When market price is less than the equilibrium price excess demand is created, i.e., quantity demanded is more than the quantity supplied at the prevailing market price. If the prevailing market price, say OP₁, is less than equilibrium price OP then market demand of OP₁, will be greater than market supply of OP₂.

(i) The excess demand of results in competition amongst the buyers as each buyer wants to have the commodity. It leads to increase in market price.
(ii) Increase in price results in contraction along the demand curve and expansion along the supply curve.
(lii) The market price will continue to rise till excess demand is wiped out.
Conclusion: Eventually price will increase to a level where market demand is equal to market supply at OQ and equilibrium price of OP will be attained.

Commonly Made Error:
Though the students are aware of the conclusion, many of them are not able to list the chain of events correctly.

Answering Tip
Students must prepare derivation of different curves and situations thoroughly.

Question 30.
The price elasticity of demand for a good is (-) 0.4. If its price increases by 5 percent, by what percentage will its demand fall? Calculate. [4]
Answer:

Question 31.
Calculate Marginal Cost at each level of output: [4]

Output (Units)	Average Variable Cost (AVC) (₹)
1	13
2	11
3	10
4	10
5	11
6	12 –

Answer:

Question 32.
Discuss the central problems of an economy. [4]
OR
What do you understand by:
(i) Positive Economic Analysis
(ii) Normative Economic Analysis [4]
Answer:
At the micro level, every economy faces three central problems, i.e., what to produce, how to produce and for whom to produce.
What to Produce:
The problem of ‘what to produce arises as the producers have limited resources. In an economy because of scarcity of resources, producers are unable to produce everything in bulk but they will have to make a choice as to which one is important as a whole so that limited resources can be rationally managed. Problem of ‘what to produce’ involves two-fold decisions: kind of goods to be produced and quantum of goods to be produced. How to Produce: It is concerned with how to organise production. This problem is related to the choice of technique of production. It arises due to the availability of various techniques for the production of a commodity such as Labour -Intensive Technique and Capital -Intensive Technique.

For Whom to Produce:
The problem of ‘for whom to produce’ is the problem of distribution of produced goods and services. At the micro level, the decision relates to different sets of buyers in the economy. In an economy, producers would obviously be inclined to produce more for the rich buyers to maximise their profits but, government also intervenes to regulate the use of resources, so that enough production is done for the poorer sections of the society also.
OR
(i) Positive economics is the branch of economics that concerns the description and explanation of economic phenomena. It focuses on facts and cause and effect behavioural relationships and includes the development and testing of economic theories. Positive economics is objective and fact based. For example, the statement, “government-provided healthcare increases public expenditures” is a positive economic statement. [2]
(ii) Normative economics is a part of economics that expresses„yajue or normative judgments about economic” fairness or what the outcome of the economy or goals of public policy ought to be. Normative economics is subjective and value based. For example, the statement, “government should provide basic healthcare to all citizens” is a normative economic statement.
Yes, it is true for output decision also.

Question 33.
Examine the effect of
(i) fall in the own price of good X, and
(ii) rise in tax rate on good X, on the supply curve. Use diagrams. [6]
OR
Market for a good is in equilibrium. The supply of the good ‘increases’. Explain the chain of effects of this change. [6]
Answer:
(i) When there is a fall in the own price of good X, it will lead to contraction in supply. Contraction in supply occurs when other things being equal, quantity supplied of a commodity decreases due to fall in its own price. Following diagram illustrates this:

(ii) Increase in taxes raises the cost of production and thus, reduces the supply, due to lower profit margin. The supply curve shifts towards the left from SS to S₁S₁ as shown in the following figure: Y

OR
Market equilibrium is a situation where market demand is equal to market supply. Effect of increase in supply of a good on equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity is discussed with reference to figure:

In figure, S₁S₁ is the initial supply curve crossing demand curve DD at point E, which is the point of initial equilibrium. Now, owing to an increase in supply, supply curve shifts to the right, from S₁ S₁ to S₂S₂. As an immediate impact of increase in supply, there is excess supply, equal to EF (at the existing price). Due to the excess supply (and sluggish demand), price of the commodity tends to be lower than the equilibrium price. At lower price, quantity demanded tends to extend. Extension of demand occurs from point E towards point K. However, at lower price, quantity supplied tends to contract. The contraction of supply occurs from point F towards point K. The process of extension of demand and contraction of supply (triggered by the lowering price) continues till the excess supply is fully exhausted. K is the point of new equilibrium where the market clears itself once again. Corresponding to the new equilibrium, quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied, i.e., OQ₂ and equilibrium price is OP₂.

Thus, the net effect of increase in supply is:

• Equilibrium price reduces from OP₁ to OP₂, and
• Equilibrium quantity rises from OQ₁ to OQ₂.

Question 34.
Explain the difference between Cardinal and Ordinal Utility. Give example. [6]
Answer:
Difference between Cardinal Utility and Ordinal Utility:

Basis	Cardinal Utility	Ordinal Utility
Meaning	It means satisfaction that can be measured in numbers such as 1,2,3, etc.	It refers to satisfaction that cannot be measured in numbers.
Concept	This concept was given by Marshall.	This concept was given by J.R. Hicks.
Realistic	It is less realistic.	It is more realistic.
Analysis	This theory is explained with the marginal utility.	This theory is explained through indifference curve.
Measurement of Satisfaction	Cardinal utility measures satisfaction in terms of units.	Ordinal utility measures satisfaction in terms of ranks.
Example	Cup of tea offers you 4 units of utility.	Cup of tea offers you greater satisfaction than a cup of coffee.

Commonly Made Error:
Some students get confused between the concepts of cardinal and ordinal utility.

Answering Tip:
Cardinal means measurable and ordinal means qualitative comparison.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two sections:
   Section A – Macro Economics
   Section B – Indian Economic Development
2. This paper contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions type questions of 1 mark each.
3. This paper contains 4 Short Answer Questions type questions of 3 marks each to be answered in 60 80 words.
4. This paper contains 6 Short Answer Questions type questions of 4 marks each to be answered in 80 100 words.
5. This paper contains 4 Long Answer Questions type questions of 6 marks each to be answered in 100 150 words.

SECTION-A (40 Marks)
(Macro Economics)

Question 1.
“CRR cut will improve bottom line, says Karnataka Bank CEO” Private lender Karnataka Bank MD and CEO Mahabaleshwara MS on Friday said the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) slashing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points (BPS) from 4% to 3% will improve the bottom line of banks.
Identify the quantitative function of Central bank among the given options.
(a) Repo rate
(b) Margin requirement
(c) Cash reserve ratio
(d) Option (a) and (c) [1]
Answer:
(d) option (a) and (c)
Explanation: A Repo rate is a rate at which commercial banks borrow money by selling their securities to the RBI to maintain liquidity. CRR refers to a certain percentage of commercial bank’s net demand and time liability that commercial banks have to maintain with the RBI at all times.

Related Theory
Also, there are some qualitative functions of central bank that includes, margin requirement rationing of credit moral suasion.

Question 2.
If the value of Average Propensity to Save (APS) is 0.2 and National Income is ₹4,000 crore, then consumption will be………..
(a) 4,000 crores
(b) ₹ 3,200 crores
(c) 3,800 crores
(d) ₹ 2,600 crores [1]
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3200 Crores
Explanation: APS = Saving/Income
0.2 = Saving/4000,
Saving = 0.2 × 4,000 = ₹ 800
Consumption = Income – Saving
C = Y – S
= 4,000- 800
C = ₹3,2000

Question 3.
According to adjustable peg system (or Bretton woods System) of exchange rate:
(a) US dollar was assigned gold value at fixed price
(b) Different currencies were pegged to one currency
(c) Parity between two currencies was determined by the quantity of gold contained in them
(d) All of the above
OR
In case of an underemployment equilibrium, which of the following alternative is not true?
(a) Aggregate demand is equal to Aggregate supply.
(b) There exist excess production capacity in the economy.
(c) Resources are not fully and efficiently utilised.
(d) Resources are fully and efficiently utilised. [1]
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Bretton woods system, even when it was a fixed system of exchange rate. allowed some adjustments. So it was called ‘adjustable peg system of exchange rate. According to this system, Different currencies were pegged to one currency, US dollar was assigned gold value at a fixed price, gold continues to be the ultimate unit of parity between any two currencies.

Related Theory
Exchange systems are a way for people to trade goods and services without using money. In an exchange system, each participant lists the goods or services they can provide, and then everyone tries to find someone who will trade them something they need in return

OR

(d) Resources are fully and efficiently utilise.
Explanation: Underemployment equilibrium occurs when aggregate demand equals aggregate supply at a rote less than full employment.

Related Theory
An MPC equal to one means that a change in income (ΔY) led to the same proportionate change in consumption (ΔC). That is, a person spent 100% of the additional income an goods and services and saved none of it An MPC less than one means that a change in income produced a proportionally smaller change in consumption.

Question 4.
On the basis of following schedule, what is the value of MPS?

Income (in ₹ crores)	0	50	100	150	200
Saving (in ₹ crores)	-2	-10	0	30	60

From the following given sets of statements in column I and II, choose the correct pair of statements.

	Column I		Column II
A	Exports of goods and services	(I)	Excess of Exports of goods over the imports of goods
B	Trade surplus	(II)	An element of invisible items
C	Current Transfers to rest of the world	(III)	Recorded as a positive item in the BOP account
D	Portfolio investments	(IV)	Foreign institutional investors

Alternatives:
(a) A -(I)
(b) B – (II)
(c) C – (III)
(d) D – (IV)
Answer:
(b) 0.2
Explanation: MPS at 150 crores level, of income.

OR

(d) D-(IV)
Explanation: Foreign Portfolio Investments refers to the purchase of securities and other financial assets by investors from other country.

Question 5.
Read the following statement -Assertion
(A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Demand Deposits are considered as a convenient mode of payment for execution of even the high value transactions.
Reason (R): Demand Deposits are non withdrawable in nature and cannot be withdrawn against issue of cheques and other similar instruments of payment. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

Explanation: Demand deposits are payable by the bank on demand from the account holder. Term deposits, also known as time deposits, are investment deposits.

Related Theory
Term deposits, also known as time deposits, are investment deposits made for a predetermined period, ranging from a few months to several years.

Question 6.
Read the following statement -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Trade of invisible items between two nations is a part of capital account of Balance of Payment.
Reason (R): Transactions that affect the asset liability status of a country in relation to the rest of the world are known as capital account transaction.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation: Trade of invisible items between two nations is a part of Current Account of Balance of Payment.

Related Theory
There is huge difference between visible and invisible items of BOP’s. Trade of visible items between the countries is known as Balance of Trade

Question 7.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternatives given below:
Statement 1: Subsidies do not add any burden on the financial health of a nation.
Statement 2: Complete removal of subsidies may violate the aim of equitable distribution of income.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false [1]
Answer:
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false

Explanation: Subsidies add additional burden on the financial health of the nation by-charging the cost of things to the nation’s cash reserves instead of promoting the circulation of money within the economy through trade and commerce. When people use subsidies to pay for goods and services, their own money doesn’t get circulated back into the economy, thus putting additional strain on the nation’s already limited budget

Question 8.
Goods sold to a business organisation for further production is:
(a) Intermediate goods
(b) Final goods
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above [1]
Answer:
(a) Intermediate goods
Explanation: These goods are used for further processing or resale in the same year.

Question 9.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
Statement 1: Demonetization was the step taken by the Government of India in order to tackle the problems of corruption, black money, terrorism and circulation of fake currency in the Indian Economy.
Statement 2: Demonetization has ensured improved tax compliance in India over the period of time.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false [1]
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are true
Explanation: Demonetization refers to the act of stripping a currency as legal tender. De-monetization significantly reduces corruption from taking place. The advantages of Demonetization are:

1. To control black money and corruption by stopping hoarding of money;
2. To prevent from duplication of currency notes;
3. To fight against terrorism by ripping off money funding or money laundering to the terrorist associations operating in India,
4. reduced tax avoidance.

Question 10.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
Statement 1: Public goods are those goods and services that are collectively consumed by the public.
Statement 2: Public goods are excludable and rivalries in nature.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false.

OR

Read the above figure carefully and identify the concept given in the figure.
(a) Public goods
(b) Income expenditure
(c) Two-sector dosed economy
(d) None of the above. [1]
Answer:
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
Explanation: Public goods are commodities or services that benefit all members of society. Typically, these services are administered by the government. Public goods are non excludable, it means that they are either costly or impossible to exclude someone from using these goods. It means that it is available to all the citizens. Public goods are non rivalrous, it means that as one person uses the good and another can also use it.

OR

(c) Two sector closed economy
Explanation: The above model is an example of two-sector closed economic model as it only involves household and firms. Exclusion of tertiary sector makes it a closed economic model.

Question 11.
“Circular flow principle is based on the assumption that one’s expenditure will become other’s income.” Explain the given statement.
OR
Which among the following are final goods and which are Intermediate goods? Given reašons.
(A) Milk purchased by a tea stall
(B) Bus purchased by a school
(C) Juice purchased by a student from the school canteen [3]
Answer:
In a two-sector economy, households and firms exist to run the economy. Households render factor services to the firms and earn factor incomes from them. Whereas; firms produce and sell goods and services to households and earn their income by an equal magnitude. Thus, in a circular income mode, the axiom that one’s expenditure is other’s income holds true.

OR

(A) It is an intermediate good because it is used by producer during production process that is making tea and not for final consumption
(B) It is a final good as, it is purchased by school for final consumption.
(C) It is a final good as, it is purchased by a student for final consumption

Question 12.
‘All producer goods are not capital goods’. Do you agree? [3]
Answer:
Yes, I agree that all producer goods are not capital goods because producer goods include:)

1. Goods which are used as raw materials like wood that is used to make furniture.
2. Goods which are used as fixed assets such as plant and machinery. Capital goods include only,fixed assets of the producers which are durable goods while goods used as raw materials are not repeatedly used in the process of production and used on onetime basis unlike durable goods. Thus, all producer goods are not capital goods.

Question 13.
Explain any one type of unemployment, which exists during full employment.
OR
Is fiscal deficit necessarily inflationary? Explain. [4]
Answer:
Full employment refers to a situation in which everyone is willing to work, at the existing wage rate gets work. However, structural unemployment may exist even during full employment. It is the position of unemployment, which originates for some time because of the change in the structural system of an economy. Structural unemployment occurs when there is a lack of other production factors, change in production technique or lack of training of labourers.

OR

Fiscal deficit may or may not be inflationary depending on the possibility of the adjustment of output by the firms. If the firms are able to produce more output against the rise in AD (caused by fiscal deficit), then it need not to be inflationary. But, if the firms are not able to increase the output, it will lead to inflation.

Question 14.
Using a hypothetical numerical example, explain the process of credit creation by a commercial bank. [4]
Answer:
Credit multiplier measures the amount of money that the banks are able to create in the form of deposits with every initial deposit. The credit creation is inversely related to LRR. Higher the credit multiplier, higher will be the total credit created and vice – versa. The credit creation by commercial banks is determined by:

1. The amount of the initial deposit.
2. The Legal Reserve Ratio (LRR).

Suppose the initial deposits are ₹ 1000 and LRR is 10%, the banks will keep 10% of the deposits i. e. ₹ 100 as reserves and will lend the remaining amount of ₹ 900. Those who borrow will spend the money for making payments.

It is assumed that the entire ₹ 900 comes back as secondary deposits to the banking system. Now the banks will again keep 10% of ₹ 900 i. e. ₹ 90 as reserve and lend out ₹ 810. This process continues till total reserves become equal to initial reserves. Total money creation

Initial Deposit = \(\frac{1}{10 \%}\) = 1000\(\left(\frac{1}{10 \%}\right)\)
= ₹ 10,000
Hence, the initial deposit of ₹ 1000 has led to the total money supply of ₹ 10,000.

Question 15.
In the context of balance of payments account, state whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(A) Profits received from investments abroad is recorded in capital account.
Answer:
False, profit received from investments abroad affect neither the assets not the liabilities of a country or its residents. Therefore, it is recorded in current account.

(B) Import of machines is recorded in current account. [4]
Answer:
True, machines is a visible item. Therefore, it’s import is recorded in the current account.

Question 16.
“Tax rates on higher income group have been increased.” Identify and explain the objective of budget stated in the above line. [6]
Answer:
Reduction in inequalities : Even distribution of wealth and social welfare remains the main objective of budgetary policy. The government uses progressive taxation policy to reduce the inequalities of income and wealth in the country. Government imposed high tax rates on higher income group and low tax rate on lower income group. People with income below a certain level are not levied any direct tax altogether.

On the other hand, the government spent these tax receipts on granting subsidies and providing other public services such as health and education, to people with lower income groups, the wealth gets redistributed and reduction in inequalities is achieved.

Question 17.
(A) Answer the following questions on the basis of given figure:

(i) What does the shaded area AOB indicated?
Answer:
The shaded area AOB indicates negative savings or dissavings. Dis-savings is the other name of negative savings i.e. using the past savings or expenses met by borrowing. Dis-savings are done when the consumption expenditure is greater than the income (C > Y). This consumption is called autonomous consumption which is income inelastic

(ii) What is the significance of point B?
Answer:
Point B is the point of equilibrium. At point B, savings are zero and level of aggregate demand is equal to the level of aggregate supply in the economy. At this point the value of APS = Zero
(APS = S/Y)

(B) Justify the statement

1. MPC and MPS are related to multiplier.
2. Economy cannot be at equilibrium, when ex-ante savings are greater than ex-ante investments
3. Investment increases with the increase in income [6]

Answer:
Justify the statement

1. MPC is directly related to the multiplier and MPS is inversely related to the multiplier.
2. Economy cannot be at equilibrium, when ex-ante savings are greater than ex-ante investments implies that the fall in aggregate demand and increase in stock will induce the producer to stop the production and hence, income levels will reduce. It will continue till ex-ante savings are equal to ex-ante investment
3. There is a positive relationship between income and induced investment which is done for profit motive. But, autonomous investment does not change with the change in income.

SECTION – B
(Indian Economic Development)

Question 18.
You are a factory owner and have given employment to 400 workers. If 10 workers are dismissed by you without loss of production then this situation will be described as:
(a) Casual unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Structural unemployment
(d) Seasonal unemployment
OR
The Government can achieve its budget objective of ‘Redistribution of Income’ by _____
(Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
(a) managing the General Price Level in the economy to the desired level
(b) increasing the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of the economy.
(c) bringing the production of goods and services under its direct and absolute control.
(d) rationalisation of taxes in pro-poor direction. [1]
Answer:
(c) Structural unemployment
Explanation: Structural unemployment is a category of unemployment caused by differences between the skills possessed by the unemployed population and the jobs available in the market Structural unemployment is a long-lasting condition that is caused by fundamental changes in the economy. Thus dismissal of workers doesn’t cause loss of production.

Related Theory
Disguised employment is such an employment that does not contribute to the output of an economy and is thus akin to a form of unemployment

Caution
There is a difference between frictional unemployment and structural unemployment do not confuse between these two terms.

OR

(d) rationalisation of taxes in pro-poor direction
Explanation: The total national income of the country goes either to the private sector, or the Government in form of taxes. The government affects the personal disposable income of households by making transfers and collecting taxes. It is redistribution function, which is one of the objective of government budget Through this, that the government can change distribution by rationalising the taxes in pro poor direction.

Question 19.
Arrange the following government policy in chronological order and choose the correct alternatives.
(I) Study group formed by planning commission for poverty
(II) Task force on projections of the Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand
(III) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(IV) Jan Dhan Yojana
Choose the correct alternative:
(a) (II), (III), (IV), (I)
(b) (III), (II), (I), (IV)
(c) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
(d) (II), (IV), (I), (III)
Answer:
(d) (II), (IV), (I), (III)

Question 20.
State any one area in which Pakistan has an edge over India.
(a) Pakistan has achieved better results with regard to migration of work force from agriculture to industry
(b) Pakistan ranks high in human development index
(c) Pakistan has low death rate
(d) None of the above
OR
Identify the incorrect statement from the following: (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Diversification in agriculture sector provides sustainable livelihood rural population.
(b) Diversification includes – change in cropping pattern, shift of workforce from agriculture to other allied activities and non-agriculture sector.
(c) Objective of investment in new agricultural avenues (non-farm activities) increases financial risks for the rural population.
(d) Diversification reduces the proportion of unemployed population in the rural areas to considerable limits. [1]
Answer:
(a) Pakistan has achieved better results with regard to migration of work force from agriculture to industry.
Explanation: Pakistan has a part over India due to success in few areas which include reducing population residing underneath the poverty line and migration of the staff from
the agricultural zone to the commercial area.

OR

(c) Objective of investment in new agricultural avenues (non-farm activities) increases financial risks for the rural population. . Explanation: The need for diversification arises from the fact that there is greater risk in depending exclusively on farming for livelihood. Diversification towards new areas is necessary not only to reduce the risk from agriculture sector but also to provide productive sustainable livelihood options to rural people. Thus, objective of investment in new agricultural avenues (non-farm activities) increases financial risks for the rural population.

Related Theory
Diversification is essential to provide supplementary gainful employment and in releasing higher level of income far rural people to overcome poverty.

Question 21.
From the set of events/systems given in column I and corresponding relevant fact given in column II, about China, choose the correct pair of statement:
(a) (II), (III), (IV), (I)
(b) (III), (II), (I), (IV)
(c) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
(d) (II), (IV), (I), (III)
Answer:
(c) (C) – (iii)

Question 22.
Read the following statement -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Frictional unemployment is considered as voluntary unemployment.
Reason (R): Frictional unemployment does not occur due to a shortage of jobs.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
OR
Read the following statement -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Green revolution led to changes in rural credit system.
Reason (R): Green revolution led to diversification of the portfolio of rural credit towards production oriented lending. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Explanation: Frictional unemployment is considered as voluntary unemployment because the reason for unemployment is not a shortage of jobs, but in fact, the workers themselves quit their jobs in search of better opportunities.

Caution
Structural unemployment is a category of unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers in the market Hence, both are different terms.

OR

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). ‘
Explanation: The Green Revolution was a harbinger of major changes in the credit system as it led to the diversification of the portfolio of rural credit towards production oriented lending. ’Kudumbashree’ is a women-oriented community-based poverty reduction programme being implemented in Kerala.

Related Theory
Rapid expansion of the banking system had a. positive effect on rural farm and non-farm output, income and employment, especially after the Green revolution it helped farmers to avail services and credit facilities and a variety of loans for meeting their production needs.

Question 23.
Read the following statement -Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): There is no evidence to prove that increase in human capital causes economic growth.
Reason (R): Quality of health and educational services is difficult to measure.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. [1]
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true

Explanation: Quality of health and educational” services is a difficult thing to measure in terms of quantity. Hence Reason is true.

India’s Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector is poised for a mega transformation in 2020, with the launch of an Alibaba-like e- marketplace, trendy yet affordable khadi products to appeal to the masses and digital data-based credit ratings to help entrepreneurs avail loans. However, the MSME sector, often considered the bulwark of the economy as it contributes around 29% to the GDP and 48% to the Indian exports.

There is an urgent need of major reforms and policy interventions towards ensuring timely availability of low cost credit, improving ease of doing business and technological up gradation, to take on the formidable challenge of creating millions of jobs, ensure equitable distribution of national income and achieving largescale import substitution. The World Bank has recently approved loan worth $750 million to address the immediate liquidity and credit needs of India’s MSME sector that has been severely impacted by the Covid-19 crisis. This will give a push to the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision of the government

Question 24.
Identify which of the following is not an advantage of the MSME sector? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) It is suited for the utilisation of local resources.
(b) It is helpful in creation of employment opportunities.
(c) It requires more capital than labour.
(d) It ensures equitable distribution of income in the country. [1]
Answer:
(c) It requires more capital than labour.
Explanation: Advantages of MSME sector includes – It utlised the local resources fully, creates employment opportunities and ensure equal distribution of income in the country.

Question 25.
MSME sector suffered to a large extent in COVID-19 pandemic situation due to ______
(fill up the blank with correct answer) [1]
Answer:
liquidity crunch

Explanation: Survey reports of various newspapers have shown that disruptions caused by the Covid-19 pandemic have impacted MSMEs earnings by 20-50%, micro and small enterprises faced the maximum heat, mainly due to liquidity crunch.

Question 26.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternatives given below:
Statement 1: The emergence of Self-Help- Groups (SHG’s) ensured the reduction in the fissures of the formal credit system.
Statement 2: The borrowings from SHGs mainly confined to consumption purposes by its members.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are true.
Explanation: The emergence of Self-Help Groups ensured the reduction in the fissures of the formal credit system because the formal credit system has not been able to dispense adequate credit at cheaper rates to the rural poor. Thus, the micro-credit offered by the Self-Help Groups fills gap in the formal credit system. The borrowings from SHGs mainly confined to consumption purposes by its members and a very small proportion of the borrowings ever goes into productive purposes.

Question 27.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternatives given below:
Statement 1: Government of India adopted’ Trickle Down Approach’ to alleviate poverty to benefit the last man at the bottom of the pyramid.
Statement 2: Empirical data over the years have shown that trickle-down theory did not yield desired results in India.
Alternatives:
(a) Both the statements are true.
(b) Both the statements are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false [1]
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are true.

Explanation: The trickle-down theory states that tax breaks and benefits for corporations and the wealthy will trickle down to everyone else. Trickle-down economics involves less regulation and tax cuts for those in high-incometax brackets as well as corporations. However, critics argue that the theory has not yielded the desired results in India because the added benefits the wealthy receive adds to the growing income inequality in the country because.the benefits given to the rich are not transferred down to the middle and lower- classes of the society.

Question 28.
“India has failed to implement the recommendations of Education Commission of 1964 -66.” Give valid arguments in support of the given statement.
OR
Explain the meaning of human capital formation with the help of an example. [3]
Answer:
The given statement is appropriate. Over the years India has not been able to raise the educational standards to the desired level. Education Commission of 1964-66 had recommended that at least 6 % of GDP should be spent on education so as to make a noticeable rate of growth in educational achievements. However, the current expenditure level has been quite inadequate. Thus, necessary steps must be taken by the government in this direction.

OR

Human capital formation is a process which converts human resources into human capital. It is the process of acquiring and increasing the number of people with skills, education and experience which is necessary for economic development of the country. For example, if in the year 2014, the number of doctors and engineers in our country were 4,50,000 and in the year 2015 their number grew to 5,00,000 then it can be said that there is human capital formation to the extent of 50000 doctors and engineers.

Question 29.
‘The objectives of Jan Dhan Yojana is two fold, one is to raise the saving habit of the economy and second is to remove corruption’. Do you agree with the given statement. Support your answer with the valid reason. [3]
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that the objectives of Jan Dhan Yojana is two fold, one is to raise the saving habit of the economy and second is to remove corruption. Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on 15 August, 2014. The aim of this program is to connect the population with the banking system. Under this program, most the rural population and population working in an unorganised sector had opened their accounts in the banks and therefore, with the access to the banking service they all started doing saving in their bank accounts and this is how the saving habits of the nation increases. Also, all the aids and subsidies of the various government programs are now directly being transferred into the accounts to the people and therefore the corruption caused by the intermediaries is now abolished.

Therefore, this program benefited the economy in two ways, with the rise in savings, financial sector of the economy get a boost and with no corruption people have more money to spend and the government is also able to achieve its objective of social welfare.

Question 30.

Interpret the given picture and explain the process involved in this. [3]
Answer:
The given picture shows the process of “Outsourcing”. In outsourcing, a company hires regular service from external sources, mostly from other countries, which was previously provided internally or from within the country (like legal advice, computer service, advertisement, security—each provided by respective departments of the company). As a form of economic activity, outsourcing has intensified, in recent times, because of the growth of fast modes of communication, particularly the growth of Information Technology (IT).

Question 31.
What do you mean by rural development? Bring out the key issues in rural development.
OR
There are various schemes launched by the Indian Government to eradicate poverty directly or indirectly. Mention any four anti-poverty programmes launched by the government to eradicate poverty. How can the effectiveness of these schemes can be improved? [4]
Answer:
Rural development is a comprehensive term which focuses on action for the development of areas which are lagging behind in overall development of village economy. It can be defined as a process leading to sustainable improvement in the quality of life of rural people. Key issues in rural development are as follows (any four):

1. Development of Infrastructure like electricity, irrigation, transport facility, etc. for agricultural research and information expansions.
2. Development of a robust system of rural credit.
3. Development of human resources like health, addressing both sanitation and public health.
4. Development of human resources including literacy, education and skill development.
5. Honest implementation of land reforms.

OR

(1) Various schemes run by the Indian government to eradicate poverty directly or indirectly are:

(a) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana
(b) Rural Employment Generation Programme
(c) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
(d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

The effectiveness of these schemes can be improved with the help of following measures

(a) Population control
(b) Create new employment opportunities
(c) Education
(d) Proper implementation and right targeting

Question 32.
Critically appraise the New Economic Policy of 1991. [4]
Answer:
The economic reforms initiated through NEP had benefitted the country in many ways. They helped the country to become a vibrant economy, have stimulated industrial production, helped to check fiscal deficit and inflation.

They also led to a substantial increase of foreign exchange reserves and foreign investment.

However, these reforms have led to an increase in the income of those who were already rich. Quality of consumption of only high-income groups has increased and economic growth has not trickled down to the poorer sections of the society.

Growth has been concentrated only in some selected area in the service sector such as telecommunication, IT, finance, entertainment, travel, hospitality services, real estate and trade. Vital sectors, such as agriculture and industry, which provide livelihood to millions of people in the country have not benefitted much from reforms thereby increasing income disparities. So we can conclude that economic reforms in India have not promoted social justice and welfare.

Question 33.
Write short-notes on:
(A) Global Warming
Answer:
Global Warming: Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of the increase in greenhouse gases since the Industrial Revolution. Factors that contribute to global warming are the burning of coal and petroleum products; deforestation, which increases the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere; methane gas released in animal waste; use of fossil fuels etc.

It has resulted in melting of polar ice with a resulting rise in sea level and coastal flooding; disruption of drinking water supplies dependent on snow melts; extinction of species as ecological niches disappear; more frequent tropical storms; and an increased incidence of tropical diseases.

(B) Opportunity Cost of Negative environmental impact
OR
Write a short note on Human Development Index (HDI). [6]
Answer:
Opportunity Cost of Negative environmental impact: The past development has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good. Besides, the intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non- renewable resources we exhausted some of these vital resources and are compelled to spend huge amounts on technology and research to explore new resources.

Added to these are the health costs of degraded environmental quality, decline in air and water quality (seventy percent of water in India is polluted) have resulted in increased incidence of respiratory and water-borne diseases. Hence the expenditure on health is also rising. To make matters worse, global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increased financial commitments for the government. Thus, it is clear that the opportunity costs of negative environmental impacts are high.

OR

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistical tool used to measure a country’s overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions. The social and economic dimensions of a country are based on the health of people, their level of education attainment and their standard of living. Pakistani economist, Mahbub ul Haq created HDI in 1990 which was further used to measure the country’s development by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).

Calculation of the index combines four major indicators: Life expectancy for health, expected years of schooling, mean of years of schooling for education and Gross National Income per capita for standard of living. HDI uses this to create an overall score between 0 and 1, wherein 1 indicates a high level of economic development and 0 a very low level. India ranks 3.30 on 2018 Human Development Index with HDI value for 2017 is 0.640 placing the country in the medium human development category. Between 1990 and 2017, India’s HDI value increased from 0.427 to 0.640, an increase of nearly 50 percent – and an indicator of . the country’s remarkable achievement in lifting millions of people out of poverty.

Read the following text carefully and answer question number given below:

India vs Pakistan: A tale of two economies NEW DELHI: India and Pakistan — two of the biggest South Asian nations — started their economic journey around the same time after gaining Independence. Not many know that there was a point in the 1960s when Pakistan’s per capita GDP used to be higher than that of India’s. However, over the years, India has not only surpassed Pakistan’s per capita GDP but taken a commanding lead on almost every economic front.

Pakistan today is facing global criticism for failing to rein in homegrown terror groups even as it grapples with an ailing economy and mounting global debt. India, on the other hand, has become a global frontrunner which recently surpassed the UK to become the fifth largest economy in the world. The stark economic contrast between the two neighbours shows that Pakistan’s unstable government, conflicting power centres, covert support to terror groups, and involvement in global terror strikes such as the 26/11 Mumbai attacks, have bled its economy.

From a higher per capita GDP of $83.33 in 1960, Pakistan’s today lags much behind India which witnessed multi-fold rise its per capita GDP over the years. From 2007, India’s per capita GDP has consistently stayed higher than that of Pakistan’s. India is today the fastest growing trillion-dollar economy in the world and the fifth largest overall, according to data compiled by IMF’s World Economic Outlook. It jumped from the 9th spot in 2010 to the 5th spot in a span of just 9 years. The GDP of India is almost 10 times that of Pakistan, which is placed at the 45th position.

India’s rise has been even more dramatic across the past couple of years. Since 2008, India’s GDP has risen almost 140 per cent as against an increase of about 63 per cent for Pakistan.
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/india-vs-pakistan-a-tale-of-two-economies/articleshow/79450051.cms

Question 34.
(A) “India and Pakistan started their economic journey at the same time but now India is far ahead of Pakistan.” In the light of above statement, give any two reasons.
Answer:
India is ahead of Pakistan as following have affected Pakistan’s economy:

(1) Unstable Government: In 1950, Pakistan’s per person GDP was US$1268, which was almost 50 percent greater than India that year. However, in the backdrop of sustained political uncertainty and upheaval, Pakistan stagnated throughout the 1950s while a politically stable India grew. As a result, by 1960, India had almost caught up with Pakistan in per capita GDP terms with the per capita income gap having shrunk to 15 percent.

(2) Homegrown Terror Groups or Ailing Economy: Pakistan’s economy has suffered a direct and indirect cost linked to terrorist activities of almost $126.79 billion, which is equal to $10762.14 billion. Pakistan today is facing global criticism for failing to rein in homegrown terror groups even as it grapples with an ailing economy and mounting global debt.

(B) Compare and analyze India and Pakistan economy in the terms of GDP growth. [6]
Answer:
India has surpassed Pakistan’s per capita GDP over the years. From 2007, India’s per capita GDP has consistently stayed higher than that of Pakistan’s. India is today the fastest growing trillion-dollar economy in the world and the fifth largest overall, according to data compiled by IMF’s World Economic Outlook. It jumped from the 9th spot in 2010 to the 5th spot in a span of just 9 years. The GDP of India is almost 10 times that of Pakistan, which is placed at the 45th position. Since 2008, India’s GDP has risen almost 140 percent as against an increase of about 63 percent for Pakistan.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications Set 3 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 50

General Instructions:

• This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.
• All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 30% is provided.
• Section A has 12 questions carrying 01 mark each.
• Section B has 7 Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
• Section C has 4 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
• Section D has 1 Long Answer (LA) type question carrying 04 marks.
• Section E has 2 Source based /Case-based /Passage based Questions carrying 04 marks each.

Section – A (12 Marks)
(All questions are compulsory)

Question 1.
Purchasing only one licensed copy of a software and distributing and loading it onto multiple systems is: [1]
(a) Software counterfeiting
(b) Renting
(c) Hard disk loading
(d) Softlifting
Answer:
(d) Softlifting

Related Theory:
Copying of data or computer software without the owner’s permission is called software piracy. Softlifting is one of its form.

Question 2.
Example of Web Services are: [1]
(a) Chat
(b) E-mail
(c) Video Conferencing
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation:
Web services are the software- based services provided when two electronic devices connected through a network, communicate over WWW is HTTP. The types of services available on the internet are email, searching desired information, video conferencing, storing or retrieving files, participating in discussion forums, etc.

Question 3.
Digital information is converted into analog information by the modem at: [1]
(a) Destination computer
(b) Source computer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) Source computer

Question 4.
A collection of the pages linked together in a random order is: [1]
(a) A website
(b) A web server
(c) A search engine
(d) A web browser
Answer:
(a) A website

Question 5.
Which protocol is used to download a file? [1]
(a) TCP
(b) FTP
(c) IP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(b) FTP

Question 6.
Which one of the following is not a search engine? [1]
(a) Google
(b) Yahoo
(c) Bing
(d) RedifFmail
Answer:
(d) RedifFmail

Question 7.
<HR> stands for: [1]
(a) High Row
(b) Horizontal Rule
(c) Horizontal Row
(d) High Rule
Answer:
(b) Horizontal Rule

Related Theory:
The HR tag produces a horizontal line spread across the width of the browser window. Horizontal rules give you a way to separate sections of your document visually.

Question 8.
<A> tag is used to: [1]
(a) Insert an image
(b) Give a heading
(c) Create linking
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Create linking

Explanation:
The <A> anchor tag in HTML helps the user to incorporate a hyperlink into the web browser which helps to link a hyper text file to another document, file or location within the web browser.

Related Theory:
A hyperlink is typically activated by clicking on a highlighted word.

Question 9.
Tag (s) required to create Description lists in HTML: [1]
(a) <DL>
(b) <DT>
(c) <DD>
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of the these

Explanation:
Definition lists are defined using <DL> tag. <DT> tag defines the definition term and the definition description is given with <DD> tag.

Question 10.
In HTTP, H stands for: [1]
(a) HYDRO
(b) HYPER
(c) HYPO
(d) HIGHER
Answer:
(b) HYPER

Question No. 11 and 12 are Assertion and Reason types. Each question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): The <BODY> tag encloses all the tags attributes and information.
Reason (R): The information given in <BODY>section is displayed in the web page.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation:
The <BODY></BODY> tag contains all the information to be displayed in the web page. Thus, all the tags and attributes are given in this section of the HTML document.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): </TITLE> is the ending tag of <TITLE> tag.
Reason (R): All HTML tags are container types of tags.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

Explanation:
The <TITLE ></TITLE> tag is a container tag. i.e., it has both starting and ending tags. HTML consists of two types of tags – Container tags and Empty tags.

Section – B (14 marks)

Question 13.
Write any one application each of e-Governance and e-commerce. [2]
Answer:
e-Governance

• It enables to fill a visa application form or an application to renew the passport online.
• It also enables one to fill and track PAN Card applications and fill income tax returns and TDS returns online.
• It allows the general public to get hold of any court judgements, case studies, news etc. over the internet

e-Commerce

• It enables the user to make payments or transfer funds over the internet
• It’s enables users to buy or sell goods or services over the internet i.e., online shopping.
  (Note: Write any one point for each.)

Question 14.
Kuhu has just learnt how to do online banking. Name any two precautions that she should take to prevent online fraud.
OR
Define plagiarism. [2]
Answer:

• Never do financial transactions using a public internet facility such as Wi-Fi as hackers or fraudsters can easily intrude into a public Wi-Fi networks and steal your login details.
• Keep your bank and personal details to yourself never share these details with anyone. Don’t forget to log out every time you login.
• Before for making online payments, make sure the merchant is reputed and trusted. If you think the merchant is not trustworthy, don’t pay online opt for cash on delivery.
  Note: Write any two.

Related Theory:
e-banking or electronic banking is an umbrella term that is used for the process in which a customer may perform banking transactions electronically without visiting an actual bank.
OR
Plagiarism means stealing someone else’s intellectual work and representing it or passing it as your own work without citing the source of information for the same.

Question 15.
Name the following with respect to HTML: [2]
(A) Attribute for changing bullet type of list tag.
(B) Element to create a hyperlink
Answer:
(A) type attribute.
(B) <a> tag or anchor tag

Question 16.
Write any two importance of Anti-virus software briefly. [2]
OR
Vani has just started learning about Internet and its advantages. Explain to her the term e-Learning briefly.
Answer:
Anti-virus software protects you from becoming a victim of identity theft and consequently cyber crimes. The software does this by blocking computer viruses with their antivirus protection features.
It keeps your data from being corrupted, which will save you a lot of time and effort Not to mention protection from losing important files and documents.

OR

e-learning is the type of learning that takes place in an electronically simulated environment. e-Learning, web-based training, internet-based training and computer-based training are the next-generation instruction methods being developed today.

e-Learning can be done using an internet connection, a network, and internet, or a storage disk. It offers many benefits to both the teachers, schools and learners such as

• It is less expensive to provide e-Learning as it is virtually free once the breakeven point is reached.
• Learners control the amount of time they spent on any particular topic thereby controlling the speed of course coverage.

Question 17.
A CSS declaration includes a property name. Define property. [2]
Answer:
A CSS property is a type of attribute of HTML tag. In short all the HTML attributes are converted into CSS properties. They could be color, border etc.

Related Theory:
You can include any number of properties for each selector, but they must be separated by semicolons. The property name and its value should be separated by a colon. Each declaration should be terminated by a semicolon (;).

Question 18.
Mr. Gaurav, a web designer jn Global Designer Pvt. Ltd., needs to create a web page. Suggest him suitable HTML tag along with required attribute to draw a horizontal line of red colour. [2]
OR
Observe the screenshot of the web page given below and identify any two main tags of HTML being used to create the list:
FLOWER
(1) ROSE
(2) LILY
(3) LOTUS
Answer:
If we want to draw a horizontal line of red colour we need:
<HR> tag with color attribute.
e.g.;
<HR COLOR = “RED”>
OR
Two main tags are as follows:
(1) <ol> tag with <li> tag.
(2) <H> tag for heading.

Question 19.
Rita has just started learning web page designing. Help her in understanding the purpose of <TITLE> tag in web page designing. [2]
Answer:
The <title> tag contains documents title and identifies its content in a global context The title is typically displayed in the title bar at the top of the browser window, but not inside the window itself. It helps the programmer to give a title to his or her document or web page.

Section – C (4 Marks)

Question 20.
Mention any three benefits of ICT in education. [3]
Answer:
Benefits of ICT in education:

• It is a cost-efficient method of providing education.
• It is accessible anywhere with a proper internet connection.
• It provides independent learning platforms for students.

Question 21.
Saloni, a student of Class X, is not able to understand the difference between Web address and e-mail address. Help her in understanding the same with the help of suitable example of each. [3]
Answer:
The difference between web address and email is-
Any email must have the ‘@’ symbol such as [email protected], here abc represents the unique ID of the sender and xyz.com represents the service provider.
Whereas, a web address looks like www.abc. com in which www represents the World Wide Web http:, // denote domain name.

Question 22.
Write HTML code to display the unordered list (with square bullets) of two cities “DELHI” and “MUMBAI”. The web page should have a yellow background and the title of the page should be ‘My Cities’
OR
Write HTML code to display an ordered list (with uppercase roman numbers) listing any three subjects being taught in your schooL The web page should have a red background and the title of the page should be ‘My Subjects’ [3]
Answer:

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> My Cities</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY bgcolor = "yellow”>
<UL type = “square">
<LI> DELHI </LI>
<LI> MUMBAI </LI>
</UL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE> My Subjects</TITLE> </HEAD>
<BODY bgcolor = “red">
<OL type = T>
<LI> Science</LI>
<LI> Maths</LI>
<LI> Computers</LI>
</OL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 23.
Saheb Singh is an accountant in a private company. For office correspondence he still relies on traditional mailing system. Enlist some disadvantages of email. [3]
Answer:
Although Email is the most easiest and fastest way of communication over internet, it has some disadvantages too. Some of them are listed below:

• Both the sender and receiver should have email account
• Internet is required to send or receive email
• The attachments with e-mail can be a source of viruses.
• Limited size of data file can be sent as attachment
• Email lacks in personal touch therefore it is a hasty medium to convey emotions.
• No guarantee that the mail will be read until the user logs on and checks E-mail. (Note : Write any three.)

Section D (4 marks)

Question 24.
Observe the following HTML output and write HTML code to generate it: [4]

NATIONAL BIRD OF INDIA

The Indian peacock, Pavo cristatus, the national bird of India, is a colourful, swan-sized bird,
with a fan-shaped crest of feathers, a white patch under the eye and long, slender neck.
The male of the species is more colourful than the female,
with a glistening blue breast and neck and a spectacular bronze-green tail of around 200 elongated feathers.
The female is brownish, slightly smaller than the male and lacks the taiL The elaborate courtship dance of the male, fanning out the tail and preening its feathers is a gorgeous sight.
Click here to know more….

Write the HTML code to design the above shown web page considering the specifications as given below:

• Background colour of the page should be yellow.
• Image named peacock.jpg should be placed in the centre of the web page.
• Heading “NATIONAL BIRD OF INDIA” should be first level of the heading and underlined.
• Paragraph should have following formatting styles applicable:
  Colour – RED
  Size – 5
  Font style – Times New Roman
• At the bottom of the page, “Click” test should be linked with next.html web page.

OR

Write a code in HTML to generate the following table considering the specifications as given below. Students can write code for any 4 specifications out of the given 5 specifications.

Specification-1: The HTML code structure should be proper. Heading ‘St. Mary’s School’ should be title of the table and given as second level heading.Table header tag should be used wherever required.
Specification-2: The value of the table border attribute should be 2. The value of space between cells should be 3 and the distance of text from the cell edges should be 3.
Specification-3: The table should contain exactly same number of rows and columns as shown above. The data in each cell should be as shown in the above table.
Specification-4: Attribute rowspan and colspan should be used wherever required Specification-5 : The data should be in the center of the cells.
Answer:

<HEAD>
<TITLE>lndian Birds</TITLE> </HEAD>
<BODY BGCOLOR= “yellow”>
<CENTREximg src= “peacock.jpg”>
<HlxU>NATIONAL BIRD OF INDIA</Ux/H1>
</CENTRE>
<FONT FACE= “Times New Roman” COLOR= “red” SIZE= "5”>
<P>

The Indian peacock, Pavo cristatus, the national bird of India, is a colourful, swan-sized bird, with a fan-shaped crest of feathers, a white patch under the eye and long, slender neck. The male of the species is more colorful than the female, with a glistening blue breast and neck and a spectacular bronze-green tail of around 200 elongated feathers.
The female is brownish, slightly smaller than the male and lacks the tail. The elaborate courtship dance of the male, fanning out the tail and preening its feathers is a gorgeous sight

</P>
</FONT>
<A HREF = “nexthtml”>Click</A>
here to know more
</BODY>
</HTML>

OR

<html>
<body>
<table border=2 cellspacing=3 cellpadding =5>
<caption><h2><u>St Mary’s School</
u></h2></caption>
<tr>
<th colspan=”6”> Class IX Time
Table </th>
</tr>
<tr>
<th rowspan=”4” align= center> Subjects </td>
<th> Monday </th>
<th> Tuesday </th>
<th> Wednesday </th>
<th> Thursday </th>
<th> Friday </th>
</tr>
<tr align= center>
<td> English </td>
<td> Computer</td>
<td> Science</td>
<td> Maths </td>
<td> P.T.</td>
</tr>
<tr align= center>
<th colspan=”5"> Recess </th> </tr>
<tr align= center>
<td> Science </td>
<td> English </td>
<td> Maths </td>
<td> Computer </td>
<td> Arts </td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Section – E (8 marks)

Question 25.
Shalini is creating a webpage for a library to showcase all the names of books available in the library and their author names. Help her to complete the code with right statements in the blanks. Observe the webpage and attempt any four questions (out of 5) given after the web page.

<HTML>
<BODY ________ = “Lightblue"> <!- Statement 1 ->
_________ Books and Authors</B> <!- Statement 2 ->
_______ <!- Statement 3 ->
<DT>Harry Potter </DT>
________ J. K. Rowling</DD> <!- Statement 4 ->
<DT>War and Peace</DT>
<DD>Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru</DD>
<DT>Percy Jackson</DT>
<DD>Rick Riordan</DD>
________ <!- Statement 5 ->
</BODY>
</HTML>

(A) Write the correct attribute in statement – 1 to achieve the output given in the above web page. [1]
Answer:
bgcolor

Explanation:
The attribute bgcolor is used to give color to the background of the web page.

(B) Write the suitable attribute for the blank given in statement – 2. [1]
Answer:
<B>

Explanation:
The text enclosed in <B> and </B> tags is displayed in bold letters.

(C) Write the correct tag for the blank given in statement – 3. [1]
Answer:
<DL>

Explanation:
<DL> tag is used to create description list

(D) Write an appropriate answer for blank in statement – 4. [1]
Answer:
<DD>

Explanation:
<DD></DD> is used to display the description or definition of the term given with <DTx/DT> tags.

(E) Write the suitable tag for blank in statement – 5. [1]
Answer:
</DL>

Explanation:
It is the dosing tag of <DL> tag and is used to end the description list.

Question 26.
Read the case study given below and attempt any four sub-questions (out of 5). Each sub-question carries 1 mark. Aditya is a student of class 10 in St. Joseph’s School. He has been assigned projects for all subjects. In order to search content related to all topics he is making use of Internet.
(A) Name any two web browsers Aditya can use to work on Internet. [1]
Answer:
Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox.

Related Theory
A web browser or a browser is an application or software used to access and view websites.

(B) In order to search a topic Aditya should use …………………… web application. [1]
Answer:
Search Engine

Related Theory:
A search engine is a service that allows Internet users to search for content via the World Wide Web (WWW). A user enters keywords or key phrases into a search engine and receives a list of Web content results in the form of websites, images, videos or other online data that are matched with the search query.

(C) Among DSL and Broadband which one is the faster internet connection that Aditya can use? [1]
Answer:
Broadband

Explanation: Broadband is a wide bandwidth transmission that can transmit multiple signals and data over a very high-speed internet connection.

(D) In order to use Internet he has to use a web browser. Web browser is a program stored on a …………………… computer. [1]
Answer:
Client

Explanation:
A web browser is a client side program that retrieves information from the web.

(E) Aditya and his friend Sushant are confused between Broadband and WiFi, help them by giving one difference between two. [1]
Answer:

Broadband	WIFi
It is a high speed Internet access  that is always ON	It is a universal wireless networking technology
It uses several high speed transmission technologies.	It is one of the methods to connect to the internet wirelessly.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
3. Section-A has 16 questions of 1 mark each: Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section- C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section- D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each: and Section-E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internat choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt onty one of the alternatives ¡n such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly Labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A (16 Marks)

Question 1.
What phenomenon do the flowers shown in the figure exhibit?

(a) Incomplete dominance
(b) Multiple allelism
(c) Co-dominance
(d) Polygenic inheritance 1
Answer:
(a)Incomplete dominance
Explanation:
ncomp1ete dominance is illustrated by the inheritance of flower color in the dog flower (snapdragon or Antirthinum sp. shown in the image). It was discovered that occasionally the F1 had a phenotype that was in between the two parents when experiments on pecs were repeated using the flower colour trait.
Caution:
Students should remember that incomplete dominance in Snapdragon is a result of a monohybrid cross in which one allele is only partially dominant over the other allele in the plant Snapdragon.

Question 2.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(I) Few oral contraceptives used are Mala D, Saheli, etc.
(II) Oral administration of small doses of either progestagens or progestagen-estrogen combinations is another contraceptive method used by males.
(III) Oral contraceptives are used in the form of tablets and hence are popularly called ‘pills’.
(IV) Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 22 days Select the correct option:
(a) (I), (II)
(b) (I), (III)
(c) (I), (II). (Ill)
(d) (I), (II), (III). (IV)
Answer:
(a)(I), (II)
Explanation:
New oral contraceptives in use include Mala D and Saheli. Another method of female contraception is the oral administration of small doses of progestagens Ora! contraceptives prevent or delay sperm entry by inhibiting ovulation and implantation as well as changing the cervical mucus quality.
Caution:
Students should know that pills are widely used by females because they are highly effective and have few side effects.

Question 3.
Which of the following is correct for the parts labeled as (i) and (ii)?

(I)	(II)
(a) Cotton balL destroyed by bollworms	A fully mature cotton ball
(b) A fuLLy mature cotton ball	Cotton ball destroyed by bollworms
(c) Cotton ball destroyed by bollworms	A fully immature cotton ball
(d) A fully immature cotton boll	Cotton ball destroyed by bollworms

Answer:
(I): Cotton ball destroyed by bollworms:
(II): A fully mature cotton ball

Explanation:
From Bacillus thuringiensis, specific Bt toxin genes were isolated and inserted into a variety of crop plants, including cotton as shown in the figure [Cotton balk (i) destroyed by bollworms: (ii) a fully mature cotton ball]. Since the majority of Bt toxins are insect-group specific, the choice of genes depends on the crop and the targeted pest. A gene called crylAc encodes the toxin. There are several of them: for instance, the proteins controlled by the genes crylAc and cryllAb and crylAb control the

Question 4.
Rakesh is a farmer. He is suggested to use biofertilizers instead of chemicals. Why are biological fertilizers and pesticides preferred over chemical ones?
(a) They are safe to use and are non-biological in origin.
(b) They do not spoil the quality of the soil and are target non-specific.
(c) They do not pollute the atmosphere and are non-poisonous.
(d) They are less expensive and are non-biodegradable.
Answer:
(c) They do not pollute the atmosphere and are non-poisonous.
ExpLanation:
Because they are safe to use and’ have a biotogicat origin, biofertilizers and biopesticides are preferred over chemical fertilisers and pesticides. They are target- specific and do not degrade soiL quality. They are not poisonous and do not poLlute the environment. They are biodegradable and less expensive. Related Theory In the case of secondary sewage treatment methane, H₂S and CO₂ are produced during the microbial digestion of organic compounds. In biogas plants, methane gas ¡s produced from cattle dung.

Question 5.
Which Darwin’s finch-eating behavior resulted in the evolution of numerous other varieties?
(a) Fruit eater
(b) Cactus eater
(c) insect eater
(d) Seed eater
Answer:
(d) Seed eater
Explanation:
Many other modified forms of beak emerged from the seed-eating finches, aLlowing them to eat insects, cacti, or fruit As a result, adaptive radiation was found. One of the best illustrations of this process is found in Darwin’s finches.

Question 6.
The figure given below represents a part of plant Michelia.

What part is it?
(a) A dissected flower showing pistil
(b) A multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil
(c) A multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium
(d) A typical anatropous ovule
Answer:
(c) A multicarpeiLary, apocarpous gynoecium

ExpLanation:
The given figure represents a multicarpeLtary. apocarpous gynoecium of Michetia. The female reproductive portion of the flower is represented by the gynoecium. A single pistil (monocarpellary) or multiple pistils may be present in the gynoecium (multicarpettary). The pistils may fuse together if there are multiple (syncarpous) or may be free, (apocarpous).

Related Theory:
A dissected flower of Hibiscus showing pistil (other floral parts have been removed):

Question 7.
Which statement is true regarding the process shown in the following figure?

(a) Two short polypeptide chains, chain A and chain C, make up insulin.
(b) Conversion of pro-insulin after removal of C-peptide is shown in the figure.
(c) Insulin is synthesized as active hormone
(d) C-peptide is usually removed much before the maturation of insulin
Answer:
(b) Conversion of pro-insulin after removal of C-peptide is shown in the figure.
Explanation:
Chain A and Chain B, the two brief polypeptide chains that make up insulin, are connected by disulfide bridges. The extra stretch known as C-peptide that is present in pro-hormone insulin, or hormone that needs to be processed before becoming functional, is typically removed during the maturation of insulin.

Question 8.
A complaint was filed against the offspring being exchanged at the hospital. To solve the case, the doctors used blood types. The parents’ genotypes for the blood groups lAi and lAlB. What was the blood type of the child who was mistakenly identified as their child?
(a) A
(b)B
(c) AB
(d) O
Answer:
(d) O
Explanation:
The progeny of these parents can have blood group lAlA, lAlB, lAi, and lBi. The offspring can therefore have blood groups A, B, or AB. The only case that can be resolved solely on the basis of blood groups is the progeny with blood group O.

Question 9.
What is the missing level of the organization? Tertiary consumer→ Secondary consumer→? Primary producer
(a) Carnivore
(b) Primary consumer
(c) Decomposer
(d) Secondary producer
Answer:
(b) Primary consumer
Explanation:
The missing Level of the organization is the primary consumer. These are the organisms that depend on primary producers for their energy requirements. For example cow, goat, deer, buffalo feeding on grass.

Question 10.
Match the columns that fills the missing boxes for the levels in the transformation of mother germ cells into a mature follicle in the given flowchart.

Column (I)	Column (II)
(A) P	Graffan follicle
(B) Q	Primary follicle
(C) R	Antrum

(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i)
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)
Answer:
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i) .
Explanation:
The following are the various steps that lead to the development of the mature follicle:

Question 11.

Identity (I) and (II) in the above flow chart.

(I)	(II)
(a) Producers	Chemical evolution
(b) Chemical evolution	Producers
(c) Consumers	Oxygen Evolution
(d) Autotrophs	Chemical evolution

Answer:
(a) (I): Producers: (II): Chemical evolution
Explanation:
in the history of evolution on earth, chemical evolution is done after organics evolution. Evolution of primary producers in the Sea reference examines how photosynthesis evolved on Earth.

Question 12.
Enzyme used to digest the cell wall of bacteria is.
(a) celtutose
(b) Lysozyme
(c) chitinase
(d) zymase
Answer:
(b) lysozyme
Explanation: Lysozyme is used to digest the cell wall so that recombinant DNA can be easily pass through the bacterial cell wall.

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:

Question 13.
Through the bites of female Anopheles mosquitoes carrying the parasites that cause malaria, people can contract this potentially fatal illness. It can be avoided and treated. nearly half of the world’s population would be at risk from malaria in 2020.

Assertion (A): Plasmodium vi vox has two hosts-femaLe anopheles while the secondary host is man.
Reason (B): Primary host Is where the parasite maintains an amoeboid stage in RBCs.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false
Explanation:
Plasmodium vivax is the cause of malaria. It has two hosts: the primary host, man, where the parasite maintains an amoeboid stage in R.BCS and later produces gametophyte, and the vector of the plasmodium, female anopheles.

Question 14.
Assertion (A): Many varieties were available with observable alternative forms for a trait or a characteristic.
Reason (B): Peas normally cross-pollinate: as their corona does not completely enclose the reproductive organs until pollination is complete.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R. is false
Explanation:
Mendel selected pea plant (Pisum sativum) for his experiments because:
(i) Many varieties were available with observable alternative forms for a trait or a characteristic.
(ii) Peas normally self-pollinate: as their corolla completely encloses the reproductive organs until pollination is complete.
(iii) it was easily available. It has pure lines for experimental purposes, i.e. they always breed true.

Question 15.
Assertion (A): The female gametophyte is formed from the contents of megaspore.
Reason (B): However it always remains embedded within the membrane of the microspore.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false
Explanation:
From the megaspore’s contents, the female gametophyte develops. But it consistently stays encased in the megaspore membrane. The mature female gametophyte is 7-celled (an egg, two synergids, three antipodals, and a central cell).

Question 16.
Assertion (A): The bacterial cells must be made competent to take up DNA.
Reason (B): This is done by treating them with a specific concentration of magnesium.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false
Explanation:
The bacterial cells must be trained to be able to absorb DNA. This is accomplished by giving them a specific caLcium concentration, which improves the efficiency with which DNA enters the cell through the cell wall pores. Then by first incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them at 42°C, and then putting them back on ice, recombinant DNA can be forced into such cells (heat shock treatment).

Related Theory:
Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the animal ‘ cell’s nucleus using micro-needles or micro-pipettes in the microinjection technique.

Section – B (10 Marks)

Question 17.
From the following table, identify the empty spaces marked (A), (B), (C), and (D):

Type of microbe	Scientific name	Product	Medical application
Fungus	Monascus	Cyclo sporin	(B)
(C)	Purpureus	Stotin	(D)

Answer:
(A) Trichoderma polysporum
(B) Organ transplantation (Immunosuppres-sant)
(C) Yeast
(D) Blood cholesterol-lowering agent

Question 18.
Draw simple diagrams to represent the major plant and invertebrate that make up the world’s biodiversity.
Answer:

Question 19.
Look at the given image. This device is implanted in the female reproductive system by doctors.

Give examples of such more devices used. Explain how this device works.
Answer:
The given image represents copper-releasing lUDs (CuT). The Intra Uterine Devices (lUDs) are currently available as hormone-releasing lUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20), copper-releasing lUDs (Cu 7, Multiload 375), as well as non-medicated lUDs (such as Lippes loop). As a result of the Cu2+ ions released and the increased phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus caused by lUDs, sperm motility and fertility are reduced.

Question 20.
Rashi and her husband wanted to have a child. But their doctor told them that Rashi had a blockage in the fallopian tube. What methods of assisted reproductive techniques will help this couple to have children?

OR
“One way to achieve this goal is by offering sex education in schools.” Give four reasons for why you think this statement is true.
Answer:
Since the female partner’s fallopian tube is blocked, in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer (ET) will help her become pregnant. In this scenario, sperm from the male partner will be gathered and injected into the female partner’s ovum to create a zygote in a lab under simulated conditions, and an embryo with more than 8 blastomeres wilL be transferred into the uterus (LUT – intrauterine transfer) to complete its further development.

OR
The importance of sex education in schools is as follows:

• to give the correct information regarding common myths and misconceptions.
• to increase public awareness of reproduction.
• to educate people about sexually transmitted diseases and the development of reproductive organs (STDs)
• educate the students on social vices like sexual assault, sex-related crimes, etc.

Section – C (21 Marks)

Question 21.
(A) Can you determine whether (i) or (ii) have larger molecules based on what you have learned? How did you know?
Substrate

(B) Give the name of the first transgenic cow created and explain how the product quality improved as a result.

(C) Shikha bought some oranges from market to extract juice at home. When she squeezed an orange many embryos of different shapes and sizes were seen. But normally one embryo develops in one seed. Mention how it has happened.
Answer:
(A) (i) is enzymes and (ii) is DNA In comparison to enzyme molecules, the size of DNA molecules is larger. Proteins are enzymes. Genes, a small section of DNA, are used to make proteins.

(B) Human protein-enriched milk (2.4 grammes per liter) was produced by the transgenic cow Rosie.

(C) Several of the nuceLLar cells surrounding the embryo sac in many citrus varieties begin to divide, protrude into the embryo sac, and eventually develop into embryos. Each ovule in these species houses numerous embryos. Polyembryony is the term for when a seed contains multiple embryos.

Question 22.
Differentiate between the functions of floes and anaerobic sludge digesters in the treatment of sewage.
Answer:
Floes are collections of bacteria linked to fungus filaments to create structures resembling meshes. These microbes break down a large amount of organic matter, creating microbial biomass in the process and liberating a large amount of minerals. In a sizable tank known as an anaerobic sludge digester, anaerobic microbes break down the sludge’s aerobic and anaerobic microbes. Methanogens are the producers of biogas. It provides energy and is flammable.

Question 23.
(A) A farmer who lives in village Palampur is advised by his friends to use apomictic seeds. He was told that apomictic seeds are beneficial for farmers. Is that true? Explain your answer.
(B) Do you think apomixis and asexual reproduction are comparable? Give one reason to support your response.
Answer:
(A) It is expensive to produce hybrid seeds, but if desirable hybrids can be transformed into apomicts, there won’t be any character segregation in the hybrid offspring. The farmer doesn’t have to buy new seeds each year if they want to keep using hybrid seeds.

(B) Only a small percentage of flowering plants, including some Asteraceae species and grasses, have developed a unique mechanism to produce seeds without fertilisation. We refer to this as apomixis. Asexual reproduction is what apomixis is, then.

Question 24.
How have transgenic animals proved to be beneficial in production of biological products and chemical safety testing?
Answer:
Production of biological products:

• Medicines required for treating human diseases are obtained by genetic engineering.
• a-l-antitrypsin used to treat emphysema.
• Transgenic cow ‘Rosie’ produces human-protein enriched milk.

Chemical safety (Toxicity/safety testing): Transgenic animals are made that carry genes that make these more sensitive toxic substances than non-transgenic animals.

Question 25.
(A) The principle shown below states that an individual population’s allele frequency never changes. How should you interpret a population’s shift in allele frequency?

p2: frequency of homozygous dominant genotype

2pq: frequency of heterozygous genotype

q2: frequency of homozygous recessive genotype

(B) Explain how human activities affect organic evolution using appropriate examples.
Answer:
(A) As a result of changes in the frequency of alleles in a population brought on by disturbances in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium or genetic equilibrium, evolution occurs.
(B) The impact of human behavior on organic evolution are:

1. Artificial or selective breeding programs used to create new breeds.
2. Rapid selection of resistant varieties has been facilitated by excessive use of pesticides, herbicides, etc., and the selection of bacteria with drug resistance.
3. The persistence of dark-winged (melanized) moths in England after industrialization.

Question 26.
(A) The biotechnologist label is allegedly shared by the winemaker and a molecular biologist who created a recombinant vaccine. Which person is right, in your opinion?
(B) List three important biotechnology research areas.
OR
(A) What are the two fundamental methods that made biotechnology possible?
(B) Name two GMO characteristics.
Answer:
(A) They both qualify as biotechnologists, to be sure. A yeast strain is used in winemakers to ferment grape juice to make wine. A cloned gene is used by the molecular biologist as the antigen. Utilizing the antigen as a vaccine. Antigen can form in significant amounts thanks to this. Both use living things to produce goods and f services that benefit people.

(B) (1) Supplying the best catalyst in the form of a better organism, typically a ” microbe or pure enzyme.
(2) Engineering the best conditions for a catalyst to function
(3) Purifying the protein or organic compound using downstream processing techniques.

OR
(A) The two main methods that made modern biotechnology possible are as follows:
(1) The chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA) can be changed using genetic engineering techniques, which can then be introduced into hosts to ‘ change the phenotype of the host organism.

(2) in chemical engineering processes, maintaining sterile (microbial contamination-free) environments allows for the large-scale growth of only the desired microbe/eukaryotic cell for the production of biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes, etc

(B) (1) They are able to produce proteins with medicinal value.
(2) They have the capacity to create enhanced, altered, or novel metabolites.

Question 27.
(A) Comment on the phrase “Migration may increase or lessen the impact of selection.”
(B) What are the factors responsible for the evolution of synthetic theory? 3
Answer:
(A) Migration is the act of people moving from one location to another. Either a different group or a specific population may accept the individuals. When people transfer to another population some alleles that provide better adaptations may be lost Movement into a population may introduce specific alleles that distort the results of selection. Therefore, we might conclude that migration can alter the results of selection.

(B) The factors are:

• Changes in chromosome number and the structure.
• Gene mutations.
• Reproductive isolation
• Genetic recombination
• Natural selection

Question 28.
The following graph shows the species-area relationship. Answer the following questions as directed.

(A) Name the naturalist who studied the relationship shown in the graph. What were his observations?
(B) Write the situations as discovered by the ecologists when the value of‘Z’ (slope of the line) lies between

• 0.1 and 0.2
• 0.6 and 1.2

What does ‘Z’ stand for?
(C) When would the slope of the line ‘(b)’ become steeper?
Answer:
(A) German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt He observed that within a region species richness increased with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit. In fact, the relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa (angiosperm plants, birds, bats, freshwater fishes) turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.

(B) (i) When the value of Z is between 0.1 and 0.2 the slope of regression is similar when unaffected distribution in an areas is analyzed.
(ii) When the value of Z is between 0.6 and 1.2 the slope of regression is steeper when we analyze the species-area relationship among very large areas like entire continent. Z stands for the regression coefficient, icient.

(C) The slope will become steeper when species richness increases.
Related Theory:

On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation
log S = log C+Z log A

where
S = Species richness, A = Area, Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient), C = Y-intercept

Section – D (8 Marks)

(Q. No. 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one subpart.)

Question 29.
in her kitchen garden, Preksha had a pea plant with purple flowers that she was trying to identify the genotype of. She crossed a purple-flowered plant with a white-flowered plant to achieve this. As a result, the only flower found on every plant that was produced was purple. These plants selfed, producing 25 white flower plants and 75 purple flower plants. She can now cross a purple flowering plant with a white flowering plant to determine its genotype.

(A) Which law of inheritance cannot be derived from the crosses done by Preksha? 1
(B) What do we call the character, i.e., purple colour of the flowers that appeared in the first filial generation?
(C) To determine the genotype of a purple-flowered plant, Preksha crossed this plant with a white-flowered plant. Which cross is represented by this?
OR
(C) What do we call a pair of genes that is unable to express its effect in the presence of its contrasting component in a heterozygote?
Answer:
(A) Mendel’s law of independent assortment Although Praksha has only used monohybrid cross, or one pair of traits, this law can also be derived from dihybrid crosses.

(B) Dominant character: The heterozygous person does not experience the effects of the other factor or allele because it is a recessive trait.

(C) Test cross: Instead of self-crossing, a test cross is made between an organism (in this case, a pea plant) exhibiting a dominant phenotype whose genotype needs to be determined and the recessive parent. It is simple to analyse the offspring of such a cross and determine the genotype of the test organism. For a monohybrid cross, the normal test cross ratio is 1, and for a dihybrid cross, it is 1:1:1:1.
OR
(C) Recessive factor or allele refers to the component of an allelic or allelomorphic , pair that is unable to express its effect in the presence of its contrasting component in a heterozygote, such as the allele in the hybrid tall pea plant it. Only when a recessive factor is pure or homozygous, as in the case of the tt gene in dwarf pea plants, is its effect known.

Question 30.
During a lesson on various environmental factors, a teacher draws a diagram that shows the historical strategies for three plant species (X, Y, and Z) along three axes: the intensity of interspecies competition, the degree of habitat disturbance, and the intensity of environmental stress. In habitats with high interspecies competition but low disturbance and stress, species X thrives. In environments with high environmental stress but low intraspecies competition, species Y thrives. In environments with little environmental stress, species Z can grow.

(A) What are the environmental stresses that restrict production?
(B) Comment on the plant growth rate of different areas.
(C) In what kind of environment plant ‘X’ can be found?
OR
identify what type plants are ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’.
Answer:
(A) External factors that restrict production, such as shakiness, drought, nutrient scarcity, or extremely low temperatures, cause environmental stress.

(B) In areas with high stress and high disturbance, plant growth is slow. High levels of stress and disturbance cannot help plants reproduce.

(C) ‘X’ type of plants are competitors that thrive in low-stress and low-disturbance environments and have strong competitive ability at high population densities close to the carrying capacity. Such plants grow slowly and are common in non-seasonal tropical regions with little chance of drastic environmental changes.
OR
‘X’ type of plants are likely to be trees. Y type of plants could be desert plants. ‘Z’ type of plants could be herbaceous plant

Section – E (15 Marks)

Question 31.
A virus that uses RNA as its genomic material is referred to as a retrovirus. When a cell becomes infected with a retrovirus, the retroviral RNA is converted to retroviral DNA, which is then inserted into the DNA of the host cell. More retroviruses are then produced by the cell, infecting additional cells. Many diseases, including AIDS and some types of cancer, are linked to retroviruses. The figure given below shows replication of retrovirus.

(A) Step ‘Y’ occurs in presence of which enzyme? What happens with the viral DNA formed in this step?
(B) What happens during the step ‘Z’?
(C) What kind of infections can develop due to decrease in number of T-lymphocytes?
(D) A specialist made the diagnosis that the patient’s immune system had been suppressed. Name the infection.
OR
Look at the given figure and answer the following questions:

(A) What is the role of parts labelled in the following figure?
(B) What kind of lymphoid organ is thymus?
(C) What kind of lymphoid is lymph node?
(D) Name one secondary lymphoid organ
which is not mentioned in the figure. State its role.
Answer:
(A) After entering the host’s body, the virus enters macrophages where, with the aid of the enzyme reverse transcriptase, its RNA genome replicates to produce viral DNA. This viral DNA is incorporated into the DNA of the host cell, instructing it to produce virus particles. In this way, the ‘ macrophages function like an HIV factory as they continue to produce virus.

(B) Viral DNA incorporates in to the host genome during step Z.

(C) The person experiences episodes of fever, diarrhoea, and weight loss during this time. The person begins to develop infections that could have been treated otherwise, including those caused by viruses, fungi, bacteria, notably Mycobacterium, and even parasites Like Toxoplasma, as a result of a decrease in the number of helper T lymphocytes.

(D) The patient is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) if his immune system is found to be suppressed. Helper T cells allow the HIV virus to replicate and produce offspring viruses.

OR
(A) Lymph nodes are small, solid structures that are positioned along the lymphatic system at various locations. It serves to capture antigen that accidentally enters lymph and tissue fluid. The activation of lymphocytes is caused by antigen trapped in lymph nodes. Thymus is situated close to the heart beneath the collar bone. It offers a micro-environment for the T-lymphocytes’ growth and maturation.

(B) It is a primary lymphoid organ where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.

(C) It is a secondary lymphoid organ that serves as the site of lymphocyte-antigen interaction before effector cells are produced.

(D) Spleen: It is a large organ with a bean-like shape and primarily contains lymphocytes and phagocytes. By capturing blood¬hound microorganisms, it serves as a filter for blood.

Question 32.
The following figure shows diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule:

(A) Name and define the process by which structure ‘X’ produces sperms in the testis.
(B) How the structure ‘Y’ do produces the structure ‘Z’?
(C) Name and define the process by which structure ‘Z’ develops into spermatids.
(D) Name and explain the process by which structure ‘Q’ is released from the seminiferous tubules.

OR
(A) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

• Identify the human embryonic stage that the illustration represents.
• Mention the fate of the inner cell mass after implantation in the uter¬us,
• Where are the stem cells located in this embryo?
• Point out the function of ‘a’ in the figure and identify it.

(B) Chromosome number (2n) in the gametes is reduced to half (n) during reproduction, and it is restored to its original number (2n) in the progeny. What are the procedures that these events go through?
Answer:
(A) Spermatogenesis, which starts at puberty, is a process by which the immature maLe germ cells (spermatogonia) i.e. structure labelled as ‘X’ in the testis produce sperms.

(B) Periodically, meiosis occurs in a subset of spermatogonia called primary spermatocytes. A primary spermatocyte (structure Y) completes the first meiotic division (reduction division), which produces secondary spermatocytes (structure ‘Z’), which are two identical, hapLoid cells with only 23 chromosomes each.

(C) To create four identical, haploid spermatids, the secondary spermatocytes (structure ‘Z’) go through a second meiotic division. Spermiogenesis is the process by which the spermatids develop into spermatozoa (sperms).

(D) After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in Sertoli cells (structure ‘Q’) and undergo a process known as spermiation in which they are eventually freed from the seminiferous tubules.
OR
(A) (i) Blastocyst (Blastula).
(ii) inner cell mass gets differentiated as embryo after implantation.
(iii) Stem cells are located in the inner cell mass.
(iv) ‘a’ is trophoblast: The blastocyst’s tro- phoblast serves as its outer Layer. Thus, their primary function is to nourish the growing embryo. They also aid in the implantation of the embryo.

(B) During gametogenesis, the number of chromosomes is cut in half or to (n). During fertilisation, the number of chromosomes is restored to the diploid (2n) stage.

Question 33.
(A) Why does replication take place in small replication forks rather than entire lengths?
(B) Why does DNA replication in a replication fork occur both continuously and discontinuously?
(C) What are the exceptions to the generalization that DNA is the genetic material in all organisms? Give evidence that supports these exceptions.

OR
(A) Name the parts ‘P’ and !Q’ of the transcription unit given below.

(B) What does this diagram illustrate? Name the components P, Q, and R.

(C) DNA molecules are arranged in the nucleus of eukaryotes, in the absence of a nucleus, how is the DNA molecule arranged in a bacterial cell?
(D) What will happen to a eukaryotic cell if DNA replication is not followed by cell division?
Answer:
(A) For extremely Long DNA molecules, replication takes place in a small opening of a DNA helix called a replication fork. The two strands of DNA cannot be completely separated along the length of long DNA molecules because doing so would require an enormous amount of energy.

(B) DNA-deperident DNA polymerase only catalyses DNA polymerization in the 5′ →3′ direction. The polarity and anti-parallel orientation of DNA strands are the opposite. Thus, DNA replication is continuous on the template strand with polarity 3’→ 5′ while it is discontinuous on the template strand with polarity 5’→ 3

(C) All plant viruses and some animal viruses have RNA as their genetic makeup.
OR
(A) P-Promoter Q-Coding strand
(B) Nucleosome

(C) DNA is not scattered in prokaryotes, such as bacteria, which lack a nucleus, in a region known as a nucleoid, negatively charged DNA binds with positively charged proteins.

(D) Chromosomes (DNA) that have undergone replication would not be distributed to daughter nuclei if cell division was not carried out afterward. The accumulation of DNA inside the celL is the result of repeated DNA replication without cell division. The cell would expand as a result of the nucleus’ volume being increased. Additionally, it will cause polyploidy.

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 Physical Education 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 11 Physical Education board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 11 Physical Education Sample Papers 2023.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 11 Physical Education
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 Physical Education 2022-2023 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physical Education Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 11 Physical Education Sample Paper 2023 Solved.

CBSE Class 11 Physical Education Sample Papers 2023 with Solutions

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 1
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 4
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 5
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 6
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 7
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 8
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 9
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 10

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education with Solutions 2022-2023 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of Physical Education Class 11 2023 for their exam preparation.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi A Set 5 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

• इस प्रश्नपत्र में दो खंड हैं-खंड ‘क’ और ‘ख’। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/ वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न दिए गए हैं।
• प्रश्नपत्र के दोनों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
• यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमानुसार लिखिए।
• खंड ‘क’ में कुल 10 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
• खंड ‘ख’ में कुल 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार विकल्प का ध्यान रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘क’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
नीचे दिए गए गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
सुबुद्ध वक्ता अपार जनसमूह का मन मोह लेता है, मित्रों के बीच सम्मान और प्रेम का केन्द्रबिन्दु बन जाता है। बोलने का विवेक, बोलने की कला और पटुता व्यक्ति की शोभा है, उसका आकर्षण है। जो लोग अपनी बात को राई का पहाड़ बनाकर उपस्थित करते हैं, वे एक
ओर जहाँ सुनने वाले के धैर्य की परीक्षा लिया करते हैं, वहीं अपना और दूसरे का समय भी अकारण नष्ट किया करते हैं। विषय से हटकर बोलने वालों से, अपनी बात को अकारण खींचते चले जाने वालों से तथा ऐसे मुहावरों और कहावतों का प्रयोग करने वालों से, जो उस प्रसंग में ठीक ही न बैठ रहे हों, लोग ऊब जाते हैं। वाणी का अनुशासन, वाणी का संयम और संतुलन तथा वाणी की मिठास ऐसी शक्ति है जो हर कठिन स्थिति में हमारे अनुकूल ही रहती है, तो मरने के पश्चात् भी लोगों को स्मृतियों में हमें अमर बनाए रहती है। हाँ, बहुत कम बोलना या सदैव चुप लगाकर बैठे रहना भी बुरा है। यह हमारी प्रतिभा और तेज को कुंद कर देता है। अतएव कम बोलो, सार्थक और हितकर बोलो। यही वाणी का तप है।
(क) व्यक्ति की शोभा और आकर्षण किसे बताया गया है?
(i) बोलने की पटुता
(ii) सुनने की पटुता
(iii) पढ़ने की पटुता
(iv) कहने की पटुता
उत्तर:
(i) बोलने की पटुता।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
बोलने की पटुता को व्यक्ति की शोभा और आकर्षण बताया गया है क्योंकि ऐसा व्यक्ति ही अपनी विशेषताओं से लोगों का मन मोह लेता है।

(ख) किस प्रकार के व्यक्तियों से लोग ऊब जाते हैं?
(i) अपनी बात अकारण खींचने वाले से
(ii) विषय से हटकर बोलने वाले से
(iii) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं
(iv) अपनी बात अकारण न खींचने वाले से
उत्तर:
(iii) दोनों विकल्प सही हैं।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
अपनी बात अकारण खींचने वाले और विषय से हटकर बोलने वाले व्यक्तियों के प्रति लोगों के मन में कोई उत्साह नहीं रहता इसलिए इस प्रकार के व्यक्तियों से लोग ऊब जाते हैं।

(ग) वाणी में अनुशासन और संयम बनाए रखने को क्या कहा गया है?
(i) वाणी का संतुलन
(ii) वाणी की मिठास
(iii) वाणी की सार्थकता
(iv) वाणी का तप
उत्तर:
(iv) वाणी का तप।

(घ) बहुत कम बोलने का क्या दुष्परिणाम होता है?
(i) हमारी प्रतिभा और तेज़ कुंद हो जाता है।
(ii) हमारी वाणी असंतुलित हो जाती है।
(iii) वाणी की मिठास अधिक हो जाती है।
(iv) व्यक्ति वाचाल हो जाता है।
उत्तर:
(i) हमारी प्रतिभा और तेज कुंद हो जाता है।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए
कथन (A) : बोलने की कला और बोलने का विवेक व्यक्ति की शोभा है।
कारण (R) : जो व्यक्ति सुबुद्ध वक्ता होता है, वही सम्मानित होता है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तर:
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
जो व्यक्ति सुबुद्ध वक्ता होगा वह बोलने की कला में निपुण होगा। ऐसा व्यक्ति बोलते समय अपने विवेक का पूर्ण प्रयोग करेगा, अतः वह समाज में सम्मानित होता है।

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे 2 पद्यांश दिए गए हैं। किसी 1 पद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-1 पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं। क्या रोकेंगे प्रलय मेघ ये, क्या विद्युत घन-नर्तन, मुझे न साथी रोक सकेंगे, सागर के गर्जन-तर्जन। मैं अविराम पथिक अलबेला, रुके न मेरे कभी चरण, शूलों के बदले फूलों का, किया न मैंने मित्र चयन। मैं विपदाओं में मुस्काता, नव आशा के दीप लिए, फिर मुझको क्या रोक सकेंगे, जीवन के उत्थान-पतन। मैं अटका कब-कब विचलित मैं, सतत डगर मेरी संबल, रोक सकी पगले कब मुझको, यह युग की प्राचीर निबल। आंधी हो, ओले वर्षा हो, राह सुपरिचित है मेरी, फिर मुझको क्या डरा सकेंगे, ये जग के खंडन मंडन। मुझे डरा पाए कब अंधड़, ज्वालामुखियों के कंपन, मुझे पथिक कब रोक सके हैं, अग्निशिखाओं के नर्तन। मैं बढ़ता अविराम निरंतर, तन-मन में उन्माद लिए, फिर मुझको क्या डरा सकेंगे, ये बादल-विद्युत नर्तन।
(क) ‘क्या रोकेंगे प्रलय मेघ ये’ पंक्ति में मेघ किसका प्रतीक हैं ?
(I) जीवन में आने वाली बाधाओं का
(II) जीवन के विघ्नों का
(III) पथ से डिगाने वाली कठिनाइयों का
(IV) सागर की गर्जना का
विकल्प
(i) कथन (II) सही है
(ii) कथन (I), (II) व (III) सही हैं
(iii) कथन (I), (II) व (IV) सही हैं
(iv) कथन (I), (II), (III) व (IV) सही हैं
उत्तर:
(ii) कथन (1), (II) व (III) सही हैं।

(ख) पद्यांश के अनुसार कवि ने हमेशा कौन-से रास्ते को चुना?
(i) आसान रास्ते को
(ii) संघर्षशील रास्ते को
(iii) पर्वतीय रास्ते को
(iv) रेतीले रास्ते को
उत्तर:
(ii) संघर्षशील रास्ते को।

(ग) युग की प्राचीर किसे कहा गया है?
(i) युग की दीवारों को
(ii) सागर की गर्जना को
(iii) संसार की बाधाओं को
(iv) सांसारिक सुखों को
उत्तर:
(iii) संसार की बाधाओं को।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
जिस प्रकार दीवार मार्ग में रुकावट बन जाती है उसी प्रकार संसार की बाधाएँ व्यक्ति को आगे बढ़ने से रोकती हैं।

(घ) पद्यांश में कवि की कौन-सी विशेषता पता चलती
(i) कवि साहसी और संघर्षशील है।
(ii) कवि बाधाओं से घबरा जाता है।
(iii) कवि मुसीबत से भागता है।
(iv) कवि लक्ष्य से भटक जाता है।
उत्तर:
(i) कवि साहसी और संघर्षशील है।

(ङ) ‘उत्थान-पतन’ में कौन-सा समास है?
(i) द्विगु समास
(ii) द्वंद्व समास
(iii) अव्ययीभाव समास
(iv) तत्पुरुष समास
उत्तर:
(ii) द्वंद्व समास

अथवा
यदि आप इस पद्यांश का चयन करते हैं तो कृपया उत्तर-पुस्तिका में लिखें कि आप प्रश्न संख्या 2 में दिए गए पद्यांश-II पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिख रहे हैं।
क्या करोगे अब?
समय का
जब प्यार नहीं रहा
सर्वसहा पृथ्वी का
आधार नहीं रहा
न वाणी साथ है
न पानी साथ है
न कही प्रकाश है स्वच्छ
जब सब कुछ मैला है आसमान
गंदगी बरसाने वाले
एक अछोर फैला है
कही चले जाओ
विनती नहीं है
वायु प्राणप्रद
आदमकद आदमी
सब जग से गायब है

(क) कवि ने धरती को कैसा बताया है?
(i) रत्नगर्भा
(ii) आधारशिला
(iii) सर्वसहा
(iv) माँ
उत्तर:
(ii) सर्वसहा।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
धरती अत्यंत सहनशील है। वह बिना कुछ कहे सब कुछ सहती रहती है इसलिए उसे सर्वसहा कहा गया है।

(ख) ‘आदमकद आदमी’ से क्या तात्पर्य है?
(i) मानवीयता से भरपूर आदमी
(ii) ऊँचे कद का आदमी
(iii) सम्पूर्ण मनुष्य
(iv) सामान्य आदमी
उत्तर:
(i) मानवीयता से भरपूर आदमी।

(ग) आसमान की तुलना किससे की गयी है?
(i) समुद्र से
(ii) नीली झील से
(iii) पतंग से
(iv) गंदगी बरसाने वाले थैले से
उत्तर:
(iv) गंदगी बरसाने वाले थैले से।

(घ) प्राणदान का क्या तात्पर्य है?
(i) प्राणों को पूर्ण करने वाला
(ii) प्राण प्रदान करने वाला
(iii) प्राणों को प्रणाम करने वाला
(iv) प्राणों को छीन लेने वाला
उत्तर:
(ii) प्राण प्रदान करने वाला।

(ङ) कथन (A) और कारण (R) को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनिए
कथन (A): आज किसी को प्यार का समय नहीं है।
कथन (R): ऐसे में व्यक्ति समय से कतराने लगता है।
(i) कथन (A) गलत है किन्तु कारण (R) सही
(ii) कथन (A) और कारण (R) दोनों ही गलत
(iii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है
(iv) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
उत्तर:
(ii) कथन (A) सही है और कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या है।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) अध्यापिका ने छात्रा की प्रशंसा की तथा उसका उत्साह बढ़ाया-वाक्य का मिश्र वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) जब अध्यापिका ने छात्रा की प्रशंसा की तब उसका उत्साह बढ़ गया।
(ii) अध्यापिका के प्रशंसा करने पर छात्रा का उत्साह बढ़ गया।
(iii) अध्यापिका ने छात्रा की प्रशंसा की इसलिए उसका उत्साह बढ़ गया।
(iv) अध्यापिका के द्वारा छात्रा की प्रशंसा करने पर उसका उत्साह बढ़ गया।
उत्तर:
(i) जब अध्यापिका ने छात्रा की प्रशंसा की तब उसका उत्साह बढ़ गया।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मिश्र वाक्य में एक वाक्य प्रधान और दूसरा आश्रित उपवाक्य होता है। इस वाक्य में ‘उसका उत्साह बढ़ गया’ प्रधान वाक्य है।

(ख) जो ईमानदार है वही सम्मान का सच्चा अधिकारी है-रचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद बताइए।
(i) सरल वाक्य
(ii) मिश्र वाक्य
(iii) संयुक्त वाक्य
(iv) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
उत्तर:
(ii) मिश्र वाक्य।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
मिश्र वाक्य में एक वाक्य प्रधान और दूसरा आश्रित उपवाक्य होता है। इस वाक्य में ‘जो ईमानदार है’ उपवाक्य है।

(ग) ज्यों ही घंटी बजी छात्र अंदर चले गए-वाक्य का सरल वाक्य में रूप होगा
(i) घंटी बजी और छात्र अंदर चले गए।
(ii) छात्र अंदर चले गए और घंटी बज गई।
(iii) घंटी बजते ही छात्र अंदर चले गए।
(iv) जैसे ही घंटी बजी वैसे ही छात्र अंदर चले गए।
उत्तर:
(iii) घंटी बजते ही छात्र अंदर चले गए।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य और एक क्रिया होते हैं। अतः यही सही उत्तर है।

(घ) आश्रित उपवाक्य के कितने भेद हैं?
(i) एक
(ii) दो
(iii) तीन
(iv) चार
उत्तर:
(iii) तीन।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
आश्रित उपवाक्य के तीन भेद होते हैं-संज्ञा उपवाक्य, विशेषण उपवाक्य और क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
1. जैसा कर्म करोगे वैसा ही फल पाओगे।	(I) संज्ञा आश्रित उपवाक्य
2. उसने कहा कि वह कल नहीं आएगा।	(II) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
3. जल्दी चलो अन्यथा ट्रेन	(III) विशेषण उपवाक्य छूट जाएगी।

विकल्प :
(i) 1.(III), 2.(I), 3.(II)
(ii) 1.(II), 2.(III), 3.(1)
(iii) 1.(I), 2.(II), 3.(III)
(iv) 1.(III), 2.(II), 3.(I)
उत्तर:
(i) 1.(III), 2.(I), 3.(II)

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) हम रातभर कैसे जागेंगे? वाक्य का भाववाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) हमसे रातभर कैसे जागा जाएगा?
(ii) हम रातभर किस प्रकार जागेंगे?
(iii) रातभर जागेंगे हम कैसे?
(iv) रातभर कैसे जागेंगे हम?
उत्तर:
(i) हमसे रातभर कैसे जागा जाएगा?

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
भाववाच्य में परिवर्तित करते समय क्रिया को एकवचन, पुल्लिंग में परिवर्तित कर दिया जाता है और भाव की प्रधानता रखी जाती है।

(ख) निम्नलिखित में से कर्तृवाच्य का वाक्य होगा
(i) तानसेन संगीत सम्राट कहे जाते हैं।
(ii) तानसेन संगीत सम्राट कहलाते हैं।
(iii) संगीत सम्राट तानसेन कहे जाते हैं।
(iv) संगीत सम्राट तानसेन कहलाये जाते हैं।
उत्तर:
(ii) तानसेन संगीत सम्राट कहलाते हैं।

(ग) उनके द्वारा कैप्टन की देशभक्ति का सम्मान किया गया-वाक्य का कर्तृवाच्य में उचित रूप होगा।
(i) उनके द्वारा कैप्टन की देशभक्ति का सम्मान किया।
(ii) उनसे कैप्टन की देशभक्ति का सम्मान किया।
(iii) उन्होंने कैप्टन की देशभक्ति का सम्मान किया।
(iv) उन्होंने सम्मान किया कैप्टन की देशभक्ति का।
उत्तर:
(iii) उन्होंने कैप्टन की देशभक्ति का सम्मान किया।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
कृतवाच्य में वाक्य की क्रिया कर्ता के अनुसार परिवर्तित होती है और यहाँ कर्ता के साथ लगे हुए ‘द्वारा’ को हटा दिया जाता है।

(घ) माँ ने अवनि को पढ़ाया-वाक्य का कर्मवाच्य में रूप होगा
(i) माँ अवनि को पढ़ाती हैं।
(ii) अवनि माँ द्वारा पढ़ती है।
(iii) माँ द्वारा अवनि को पढ़ाया गया।
(iv) पढ़ाया माँ ने अवनि को।
उत्तर:
(iii) माँ द्वारा अवनि को पढ़ाया गया।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
कर्मवाच्य में परिवर्तन करते समय कर्ता के साथ ‘से’ या ‘द्वारा’ लगाया जाता है और क्रिया को कर्म के अनुसार परिवर्तित किया जाता है।

(ङ) कॉलम 1 को कॉलम 2 के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

कॉलम 1	कॉलम 2
1. उसके द्वारा नीतिवचन कहे गए।	(I) कर्तृवाच्य
2. मैंने पौधों को पानी दिया।	(II) भाववाच्य
3. उससे चला नहीं जा सकता।	(III) कर्मवाच्य

विकल्प :
(i) 1.(III), 2.(I), 3.(II)
(ii) 1.(II), 2.(III), 3.(I)
(iii) 1.(I), 2.(II), 3.(III)
(iv) 1.(III), 2.(II), 3.(I)
उत्तर:
(i) 1.(III), 2.(I), 3.(II)

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) आज समाज में विभीषणों की कमी नहीं है-वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद-परिचय होगा
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंधकारक।
(ii) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंधकारक।
(iii) भाववाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंधकारक।
(iv) समूहवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंधकारक।
उत्तर:
(i) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, संबंधकारक।

(ख) रात में देर तक बारिश होती रही- वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद-परिचय होगा
(i) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होती रही’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(ii) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होती रही’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(iii) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होती रही’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
(iv) परिमाणवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होती रही’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।
उत्तर:
(ii) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘होती रही’ क्रिया की विशेषता बता रहा है।

(ग) हर्षिता निबंध लिख रही है-वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद-परिचय होगा
(i) अकर्मक क्रिया, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, वर्तमान काल।
(ii) द्विकर्मक क्रिया, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, वर्तमान काल।
(iii) सकर्मक क्रिया, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, वर्तमान काल।
(iv) प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, वर्तमान काल।
उत्तर:
(iii) सकर्मक क्रिया, स्त्रीलिंग, एकवचन, वर्तमान काल।

(घ) इस पुस्तक में अनेक चित्र हैं – वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद-परिचय होगा
(i) निश्चित संख्यावाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन, ‘चित्र’-विशेष्य का विशेषण।
(ii) निश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन, ‘चित्र’-विशेष्य का विशेषण।
(iii) अनिश्चित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन, ‘चित्र’-विशेष्य का विशेषण।
(iv) अनिश्चित संख्यावाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन, ‘चित्र’-विशेष्य का विशेषण।
उत्तर:
(iv) अनिश्चित संख्यावाचक विशेषण, पुल्लिंग, बहुवचन, ‘चित्र’-विशेष्य का विशेषण।

(ङ) उसने कहा कि वह कल जाएगा – वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का उचित पद-परिचय होगा
(i) सर्वनाम, प्रथमपुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक।
(ii) सर्वनाम, मध्यमपुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक।
(iii) सर्वनाम, निजवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक।
(iv) सर्वनाम, अन्यपुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक।
उत्तर:
(i) सर्वनाम, प्रथमपुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) “रो-रो कर सिसक-सिसक कर कहता मैं करुण कहानी। तुम सुमन नोचते, सुनते, करते, जानी अनजानी।” इन काव्य पंक्तियों में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा ।
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(i) श्लेष।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ ‘सुमन’ शब्द का एक अर्थ है ‘फूल’ और दूसरा अर्थ है ‘सुंदर मन’, ‘सुमन’ का खंडन सु + मन करने पर ‘सुंदर + मन’ अर्थ होने के कारण श्लेष अलंकार है।

(ख) “सोहत ओढ़े पीत पट,स्याम सलौने गात। मानहुँ नीलमणि सैल पर, आतप पर्यो प्रभात ॥” -इन काव्य पंक्तियों में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा

(ग) “हनुमान की पूँछ में, लगन न पाई आग। सारी लंका जरि गई, गए निशाचर भाग।” -इन काव्य पंक्तियों में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
यहाँ हनुमान की पूंछ में आग लगने के पहले ही सारी लंका का जलना और राक्षसों के भागने का बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर वर्णन होने से अतिशयोक्ति अलंकार है।

(घ) “पट-पीत मानहुँ तड़ित रुचि, सुचि नौमि जनक सुतावरं।” -पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा।

(ङ) “फूल हँसे, कलियाँ मुसकाई” -पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है
(i) श्लेष
(ii) उत्प्रेक्षा
(iii) मानवीकरण
(iv) अतिशयोक्ति
उत्तर:
(iii) मानवीकरण।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
पाँच भाई-बहिनों में सबसे छोटी मैं। सबसे बड़ी बहिन की शादी के समय मैं शायद सात साल की थी और उसकी एक धुंधली-सी याद ही मेरे मन में है, लेकिन अपने से दो साल बड़ी बहिन सुशीला और मैंने घर के बड़े से आँगन में बचपन के सारे खेल खेले-सतोलिया, लँगड़ी-टाँग, पकड़म-पकड़ाई, काली-टीलो…. तो कमरों में गुड्डे-गुड़ियों के ब्याह भी रचाए, पास-पड़ोस की सहेलियों के साथ। यों खेलने को हमने भाइयों के साथ गिल्ली-डंडा भी खेला और पतंग उड़ाने, काँच पीसकर माँजा सूतने का काम भी किया, लेकिन उनकी गतिविधियों का दायरा घर के बाहर ही अधिक रहता था और हमारी सीमा थी घर। हाँ, इतना ज़रूर था कि उस ज़माने में घर की दीवारें घर तक ही समाप्त नहीं हो जाती थीं बल्कि पूरे मोहल्ले तक फैली रहती थीं इसलिए मोहल्ले के किसी भी घर में जाने पर कोई पाबंदी नहीं थी, बल्कि कुछ घर तो परिवार का हिस्सा ही थे। आज तो मुझे बड़ी शिद्दत के साथ यह महसूस होता है कि अपनी ज़िदगी खुद जीने के इस आधुनिक दबाव ने महानगरों के फ्लैट में रहने वालों को हमारे इस परंपरागत ‘पड़ोस-कल्चर’ से विच्छिन्न करके हमें कितना संकुचित, असहाय और असुरक्षित बना दिया है। मेरी कम-से-कम एक दर्जन आरंभिक कहानियों के पात्र इसी मोहल्ले के हैं जहाँ मैंने अपनी किशोरावस्था गुज़ार अपनी युवावस्था का आरंभ किया था। एक-दो को छोड़कर उनमें से कोई भी पात्र मेरे परिवार का नहीं
(क) पाँच भाई-बहनों में सबसे छोटी मैं-यहाँ ‘मैं’ शब्द का प्रयोग किसके लिए हुआ है?
(i) लेखिका मन्नू भंडारी के लिए
(ii) लेखिका की बड़ी बहिन के लिए
(iii) सुशीला के लिए
(iv) पड़ोस के लोगों के लिए
उत्तर:
(i) लेखिका मन्नू भंडारी के लिए।

(ख) लेखिका और सुशीला के मध्य कितने वर्ष का अन्तराल था ?
(i) एक वर्ष का
(ii) दो वर्ष का
(iii) तीन वर्ष का
(iv) चार वर्ष का
उत्तर:
(ii) दो वर्ष का

(ग) हमारी सीमा थी घर-यहाँ घर की सीमा को किस प्रकार परिभाषित किया गया है?
(i) पूरा मोहल्ला एक ही परिवार था
(ii) घर के अंदर ही रहना
(iii) अपने परिवार के साथ रहना
(iv) दूसरे परिवार को अपना न मानना
उत्तर:
(i) पूरा मोहल्ला एक ही परिवार था।

(घ) महानगरीय संस्कृति ने आज व्यक्ति को कैसा बना दिया है?
(i) संकुचित, असुरक्षित और असहाय
(ii) संकुचित, परोपकारी और असहाय
(iii) विस्तृत, विच्छिन्न और असहाय
(iv) विस्तृत, समर्थवान और विच्छिन्न
उत्तर:
(i) संकुचित, असुरक्षित और असहाय।

(ङ) किसकी गतिविधियों का दायरा घर के बाहर ही अधिक रहता था-गद्यांश के आधार पर उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए
(i) लेखिका का
(ii) सुशीला का
(iii) लेखिका के भाइयों का
(iv) लेखिका की बड़ी बहिन का
उत्तर:
(iii) लेखिका के भाइयों का।

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) पानवाले के द्वारा कैप्टन को लंगड़ा कहना हालदार साहब को बुरा क्यों लगा?
(i) क्योंकि अपंग होते हुए भी वह देशभक्ति की भावना रखता था।
(ii) क्योंकि उन्हें मजाक पसंद था।
(iii) क्योंकि उसे मूर्ति पर चश्मा लगाना अच्छा नहीं लगता था।
(iv) क्योंकि उन्हें मजाक पसंद था।
उत्तर:
(i) क्योंकि अपंग होते हुए भी वह देशभक्ति की भावना रखता था।

(ख) नवाब साहब ने खीरा क्यों खरीदा होगा?
(i) खाने के लिए
(ii) अपनी रईसी दिखाने के लिए
(iii) सफ़र काटने के लिए
(iv) लेखक को खिलाने के लिए
उत्तर:
(iii) सफ़र काटने के लिए।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
बिहसि लखनु बोले मृदु बानी। अहो मुनीसु महाभट मानी॥
पुनि-पुनि मोहि देखाव कुठारू। चहत उड़ावन फूकि पहारू॥

इहाँ कुम्हड़बतिया कोउ नाहीं। जे तरजनी देखि मरि जाहीं॥
देखि कुठारू सरासन बाना मैं कछु कहा सहित अभिमाना।
भृगुसुत समुझि जनेउ बिलोकी। जो कछु कहहु सहौं रिस रोकी॥

सुर महिसुर हरिजन अरु गाई। हमरे कुल इन्ह पर न सुराई॥
बधे पापु अपकीरति हारें। मारतहू पा परिअ तुम्हारें।
कोटि कुलिस सम बचनु तुम्हारा। ब्यर्थ धरहु धनु बान कुठारा॥

(क) काव्यांश के रचयिता कौन हैं?
(i) सूरदास
(ii) तुलसीदास
(iii) नरहरिदास
(iv) यशपाल
उत्तर:
(ii) तुलसीदास।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
काव्यांश तुलसीदास जी द्वारा रचित रामचरितमानस से लिया गया है।

(ख) लक्ष्मण हँसते हुए किस पर व्यंग्य बाण कस रहे हैं?
(i) राजाओं पर
(ii) स्वयं पर
(iii) परशुराम पर
(iv) जनक पर
उत्तर:
(iii) परशुराम पर।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
श्रीराम द्वारा शिवधनुष टूटने पर परशुराम अत्यंत क्रोधित होते हैं उन्हें देखकर लक्ष्मण उन पर व्यंग्य बाण कस रहे हैं।

(ग) काव्यांश में ‘कुम्हड़बतिया’ शब्द का प्रयोग किसके लिए हुआ है?
(i) लक्ष्मण के लिए
(ii) राम के लिए
(iii) परशुराम के लिए
(iv) निर्बल के लिए
उत्तर:
(iv) निर्बल के लिए।

(घ) परशुराम बार-बार लक्ष्मण को क्या दिखा कर डरा रहे थे?
(i) धनुष
(ii) फरसा
(iii) क्रोध
(iv) रौद्र
उत्तर:
(ii) फरसा।

(ङ) ‘अहो मुनीसु महाभट मानी’-पंक्ति में महाभट का प्रयोग किस सन्दर्भ में किया गया है?
(i) व्यंग्य के
(ii) हास्य के
(iii) क्रोध के
(iv) दुःख के
उत्तर:
(i) व्यंग्य के।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए। (1 x 2 = 2)
(क) ‘कन्यादान’ कविता में किसके दान की बात हो रही है?
(i) कन्या के
(ii) माता के
(iii) धन के
(iv) आभूषण के
उत्तर:
(i) कन्या के।

(ख) ‘थकी सोई है मेरी मौन व्यथा’-पंक्ति का आशय
(i) वेदना का अतीत बन जाना
(ii) वेदना का मुखर हो जाना
(iii) वेदना का सो जाना
(iv) वेदना का थक जाना
उत्तर:
(i) वेदना का अतीत बन जाना।

व्याख्यात्मक हल:
कवि की वेदना अब अतीत बन गई है जिसे कुरेद कर वह दुखी नहीं होना चाहता।

खंड ‘ब’
वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 4 = 8)
(क) काशी के इतिहास में किसे विशेष महत्व दिया गया और क्यों?
उत्तर:
काशी के इतिहास में प्रसिद्ध शहनाई वादक बिस्मिल्ला खां, पंडित कंठे महाराज विद्याधरी, बड़े रामदास जी तथा मौजरीन खान को विशेष महत्व दिया गया था। इन विशिष्ट लोगों द्वारा काशी अपनी सांस्कृतिक विरासत को अक्षुण्ण ‘ रखने में सफल हुई है। काशी की इसी सांस्कृतिक विरासत ने विश्व भर में उसे पहचान दिलाई है।

(ख) ‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ पाठ के माध्यम से लेखक ने क्या संदेश देने का प्रयास किया है?
उत्तर:
‘नेताजी का चश्मा’ नामक पाठ के माध्यम से लेखक ने देशवासियों विशेषकर युवा पीढ़ी को राष्ट्र प्रेम एवं देशभक्ति की भावना मजबूत बनाए रखने के साथ-साथ शहीदों का सम्मान करने का भी संदेश दिया है। देशभक्ति का प्रदर्शन देश के सभी नागरिक अपने-अपने ढंग से कार्य-व्यवहार से कर सकते हैं।

(ग) बालगोंबिन भगत की पुत्रवधू की ऐसी कौन-सी इच्छा थी जिसे वे पूरा न कर सके? कारण स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
बालगोबिन भगत की पुत्रवधू की इच्छा थी कि वह अपने पति की मृत्यु के बाद बालगोबिन भगत के पास ही रहे, क्योंकि वह बुढ़ापे में उनकी सेवा करना चाहती थी, किन्तु भगत स्वार्थी नहीं थे कि पुत्रवधू को अपनी सेवा के लिए अपने पास रोके रखते। वे अपनी पुत्रवधू का पुनर्विवाह कराने के पक्ष में थे। उन्हें पुत्रवधू के भविष्य की चिंता थी।

(घ) नवाब साहब द्वारा लेखक से बातचीत की उत्सुकता न दिखाने पर लेखक ने क्या किया?
उत्तर:
नवाब साहब ने लेखक से बातचीत की उत्सुकता उस समय नहीं दिखायी जब वह डिब्बे में आया। लेखक ने इस उपेक्षा का बदला उपेक्षा से दिया। उसने भी नवाब साहब से बातचीत की उत्सुकता नहीं दिखाई और नवाब साहब की ओर से आँखें फेर ली। यह लेखक के स्वाभिमान का प्रश्न था, जिसे वह बनाए रखना चाहता था।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए- (2 × 3 = 6)
(क) ‘संगतकार’ कविता में चित्रित संगतकार को क्या एक आदर्श मित्र कहा जा सकता है? कविता के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
संगतकार को एक आदर्श मित्र कहा जा सकता है, क्योंकि वह उसी की भाँति सदैव साथ देता है। जब कभी मुख्य गायक का स्वर ऊँचे सुर लगाते हुए बिखरने लगता है, तो संगतकार उसका साथ देकर उसके बिखराव को सँभालता है। आदर्श मित्र का भी यह एक गुण है कि वह अपने मित्र को भटकने से बचाता है। संगतकार मुख्य गायक का आत्मविश्वास भी ठीक एक आदर्श मित्र की भाँति जगाता है। कभी-कभी व्यक्ति में आत्मविश्वास की कमी होने लगती है, तो उसका मित्र ही उसकी प्रेरणा बनता है। अतः सहयोग, निश्छलता, मानवता एवं प्रेरणा जैसी विशेषताएँ समान होने के कारण संगतकार एक आदर्श मित्र का समानार्थी सिद्ध होता है।

(ख) ‘सूर्यकान्त त्रिपाठी निराला’ द्वारा रचित कविता ‘उत्साह’ के शीर्षक की सार्थकता स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
कवि निराला ने कविता का शीर्षक ‘उत्साह’ इसलिए रखा है क्योंकि यह शीर्षक बादलों की गर्जना से मेल खाता है। यह हमारे मन में उत्साह का संचार करता है। ‘उत्साह’ शीर्षक के माध्यम से नई कविता का सृजन करने की प्रेरणा दी गई है। बादलों का आह्वान किया गया है कि वे उत्साहपूर्वक बरसकर जन-जन की व्याकुलता को हर लें। लोक कल्याण की भावना को प्रस्तुत किया गया है। अतः यह शीर्षक पूर्णतः सार्थक है।

(ग) स्मृति को पाथेय बनाने से कवि का क्या आशय है? ‘आत्मकथ्य’ कविता के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
‘कन्यादान’ कविता में वस्त्र और आभूषणों को शाब्दिक भ्रम इसलिए कहा गया है क्योंकि इन्हीं के बल पर स्त्री को भ्रमित किया जाता है। इनका आकर्षण ही स्त्री का शोषण करवाता है। स्त्री को इनके आकर्षण से बचना चाहिए। कवि का मानना है कि शब्दों के भ्रम की तरह नारी जीवन भर वस्त्र और आभूषणों के मोह में बँधी रहती है। इसलिए कवि ने वस्त्राभूषण को ‘शाब्दिक भ्रम’ कहकर उन्हें नारी जीवन का बंधन माना है।

(घ) ‘यह दंतुरित मुसकान’ के आधार पर बच्चे की मुसकान के सौन्दर्य को अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
‘यह दंतुरित मुसकान’ कविता के आधार पर बच्चे की मुसकान प्रफुल्लता से परिपूर्ण है। उसकी मुसकान इतनी मधुर है कि मृतक में भी जान डाल देती है। उसकी मुसकान का सौंदर्य अनुपम है जिसे देखकर ऐसा लगता है जैसे कमल-पुष्प तालाब छोड़कर झोंपड़ी में खिल गए हों। पाषाण पिघलकर जल बन गया हो तथा बबूल और बाँस से भी शेफालिका के फूल झरने लगे हों।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 50-60 शब्दों में लिखिए। (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) ‘साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि’ पाठ में कहा गया है कि कटाओ पर किसी दुकान का न होना वरदान है। ऐसा क्यों? भारत के अन्य प्राकृतिक स्थानों को वरदान बनाने में नवयुवकों की क्या भूमिका हो सकती है? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
‘साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि’ पाठ में बताया गया है कि ‘कटाओ’ पर किसी दुकान का न होना एक वरदान ही है। वहाँ दुकान खुलने पर गन्दगी बढ़ती और कटाओ का प्राकृतिक सौन्दर्य नष्ट हो जाता। कटाओ को हिंदुस्तान का स्विट्जरलैण्ड कहा जाता है, बल्कि यह दो मायनों में उससे भी बढ़कर है। कटाओ स्विट्जरलैण्ड से अधिक ऊँचाई पर है और उससे अधिक सुन्दर है। यह स्थान अभी तक ‘पर्यटन स्थल’ नहीं बन पाया है। अतः यहाँ दुकानें नहीं खुली हैं। यह स्थिति कटाओ के लिए वरदान से कम नहीं है। भारत के अन्य प्राकृतिक स्थानों को वरदान बनाने में नवयुवकों की काफी महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका हो सकती है- नवयुवक प्राकृतिक स्थलों की स्वच्छता के लिए जन-चेतना को जागरूक कर सकते हैं। – इन स्थलों पर खाने-पीने की चीजें ले जाने से स्वयं बचें तथा अन्य पर्यटकों को भी ऐसा करने से रोकें, गन्दगी न फैलायें। हमें ‘कटाओ’ जैसे प्राकृतिक स्थलों के महत्त्व को समझना चाहिए तथा उनके सौन्दर्य को हानि नहीं पहुँचानी चाहिए।

(ख) ‘माता का अंचल’ पाठ में वर्णित तत्कालीन विद्यालयों के अनुशासन से वर्तमान युग के विद्यालयों के अनुशासन की तुलना करते हुए बताइए कि आप किस अनुशासन व्यवस्था को अच्छा मानते हैं और क्यों?
उत्तर:
माता का अंचल’ पाठ में जिस विद्यालय का वर्णन है वहाँ अध्यापक बच्चों की पिटाई करके, उन्हें शारीरिक दण्ड देकर अनुशासन में रखते थे। आज की शिक्षा व्यवस्था के अनुसार शारीरिक दण्ड देना वर्जित है। आजकल विद्यार्थियों को समझा-बुझाकर अनुशासन में रखने का प्रयास किया जाता है। विद्यालय में सलाहकार की नियुक्ति की जाती है। सलाहकार या बाल मनोवैज्ञानिक शैक्षिक मार्गदर्शन देकर छात्रों को आत्म-समायोजन तथा सामाजिक समायोजन में सहायता प्रदान करते हैं। आज के विद्यालयों में जो अनुशासन व्यवस्था है वह पुराने तरीके से बेहतर है। हम आज की अनुशासन व्यवस्था को अच्छा मानते हैं। इसमें बच्चे को डराया नहीं जाता, बल्कि बच्चा आत्मानुशासन सीखता है। डण्डे के जोर से स्थापित किए गए अनुशासन में बच्चे का पूर्ण विकास नहीं हो पाता। बच्चे को अपने मन से नियमों का पालन करना आना चाहिए, नियमों का आदर करना आना चाहिए।

(ग) ‘मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ’ इस प्रश्न के उत्तर में अज्ञेय ने क्या तर्क दिए हैं?
उत्तर:
लेखक ‘अज्ञेय’ जी ने ‘मैं क्यों लिखता हूँ? के उत्तर में कहा है कि वह अपने मन की विवशता को पहचानते हैं। अत: वह लिखकर उससे मुक्ति पाना चाहते हैं। वह इसलिए भी लिखना चाहते हैं, ताकि स्वयं को जान और पहचान सकें। उनके मन में जो विचारों की छटपटाहट व बेचैनी होती है। उससे मुक्ति पाने के लिए वे लिखना चाहते हैं। वे यह भी जानते हैं कि कई बार व्यक्ति प्रसिद्धि पाने, धन अर्जन करने व संपादक की विवशता या दवाब के कारण भी लिखता है। पर वे स्वयं की पहचान करके व अपने विचारों को तटस्थ रखकर सबके समक्ष प्रस्तुत करने व आत्मसंतुष्टि के लिए लिखते हैं।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत बिन्दुओं के आधार पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (6)
(क) स्वच्छ भारत-एक कदम स्वच्छता की ओर

• प्रस्तावना
• स्वच्छता का महत्व
• भारत.की स्थिति
• उपसंहार

अथवा

(ख) ऊर्जा की बढ़ती माँग-समस्या और समाधान

• प्रस्तावना
• ऊर्जा के पारम्परिक स्रोतों का समाप्त होना
• ऊर्जा पर निर्भरता
• उपसंहार

अथवा

(ग) सामाजिक संजाल (सोशल नेटवर्किंग)-वरदान या अभिशाप

• प्रस्तावना
• नेटवर्किंग के लाभ
• नेटवर्किंग की हानि
• उपसंहार

उत्तर:
(क) स्वच्छ भारत:
एक कदम स्वच्छता की ओर स्वच्छता स्वास्थ्य की जननी है। स्वच्छ भारत अभियान गत कुछ वर्षों से चलाया गया है। भारत में सर्वत्र गंदगी ही देखने को मिलती थी। अब उसे साफ किया जा रहा है। अनेक प्रमुख व्यक्तियों व संस्थाओं को स्वच्छ भारत अभियान को क्रियान्वित करने की जिम्मेदारी दी गई है। अब इस दिशा में तेजी से काम हो रहा है। अधिकांश गांवों में शौचालय बनाए गए हैं, देश में बनाए जा रहे हैं और स्कूलों में भी शौचालयों की व्यवस्था अंतिम चरण में है। स्वच्छता का सीधा संबंध हमारे स्वास्थ्य से है। यदि हम स्वच्छता के नियमों का पालन करेंगे तो हमारा जीवन स्वस्थ बनेगा। जहाँ गंदगी होगी वहाँ बीमारी होगी। स्वस्थ पर्यावरण निर्माण के लिए स्वच्छता को जीवन का अनिवार्य अंग बनाना होगा। इस दिशा में अपर्याप्त चेतना तो जाग्रत हो गई है पर आवश्यकता है अपनी आदतों को बदलने की। बच्चों तक को इसकी पूरी समझ है। वे बड़ों को स्वच्छ करने के लिए प्रेरित कर रहे हैं। हमारी एक गंदी आदत है कि हम अपना घर तो साफ रखते हैं पर घर के बाहर गली सड़क पर गंदगी फैला देते हैं। हमें अपने आसपास के वातावरण को भी स्वच्छ रखना होगा। स्वच्छ रहकर हम स्वच्छता का पालन शरीर से लेकर पर्यावरण के सभी स्तरों पर कर सकते हैं। हमें भारत को स्वच्छ बनाकर विश्व में इसकी छवि को सुधारना है। इसके लिए लोगों में जनचेतना जगानी होगी तभी ‘स्वच्छ भारत स्वस्थ भारत’ का संकल्प पूरा हो सकेगा। हमारे दृढ़ निश्चय से अवश्य पूरा होकर रहेगा। भारत सरकार देश के प्रत्येक भाग को स्वच्छ बनाने की दिशा में तेजी से कदम बढ़ा रही है। हमारा कर्तव्य है कि हम गंदगी को दूर करें और अधिक मात्रा में पेड़ लगाएँ व प्रदूषण मुक्ति की ओर बढ़ते जाएँ।

अथवा

(ख) ऊर्जा की बढ़ती माँग:
समस्या और समाधान आज जीवन के प्रत्येक क्षेत्र में ऊर्जा की माँग बढ़ रही है। ऊर्जा काम करने की क्षमता है और यह जीवन प्रक्रियाओं के लिए अत्यंत आवश्यक है। ऊर्जा संसाधन कुछ ऐसा होता है जो गर्म शक्ति जीवन वस्तुओं को स्थानांतरित कर सकता है या बिजली उत्पन्न कर सकता है। ऊर्जा भंडार को ईंधन भी कहा जाता है। एक ओर संसाधनों के रूप में ऊर्जा की खपत बढ़ रही है तो दूसरी ओर मानवीय ऊर्जा भी बहुतायत में इस्तेमाल हो रही है। मानव इतिहास के प्रारंभिक दौर में इंसानों की ऊर्जा संबंधी आवश्यकताएँ खाना पकाने तक ही सीमित थी। आज के समाज में मनुष्य 110 गुना ज्यादा ऊर्जा खर्च करता है। आज की अधिकांश ऊर्जा जीवाश्म ईंधन से आती है लेकिन जीवाश्म ईंधन में इसका नुकसान होता है कि वे मानव समय के पैमाने पर अपरिवर्तनीय होते हैं और पर्यावरण पर अन्य हानिकारक प्रभाव डालते हैं। किसी घटना में सभी ऊर्जा स्रोतों के शोषण के लिए इस्तेमाल की जाने वाली प्रत्येक सौर ऊर्जा के संभावित अपवाद के साथ सामग्रियों पर भरोसा करते हैं। अनवीकरणीय संसाधन की बात करें तो पहले हम विभिन्न संसाधनों के भंडार को देखते हैं। पूरा ध्यान दें कि यूरेनियम और कोयला प्रचुर मात्रा में दिखाई देते हैं। पूर्ण वर्तमान काल में ज्ञात तेल भंडार की संभावना 2050 और 2150 के बीच कभी भी खत्म हो सकती है। भविष्य में ऊर्जा संसाधनों में विशाल पर्यावरण राजनीतिक और आर्थिक प्रभाव हैं, जो विश्व व्यवस्था को बदल सकते हैं, फिर भी ऊर्जा संसाधनों के भूगर्भिक पहलू एक बड़ी भूमिका निभाएंगे। ऊर्जा के साधन सीमित नहीं हैं। इसलिए इनका प्रयोग विवेकपूर्ण होना अति आवश्यक है।

अथवा

(ग) सामाजिक संजाल (सोशल नेटवर्किंग):
वरदान या अभिशाप व्यक्तियों अथवा संगठनों को जोड़ने वाली संरचना ‘सामाजिक संजाल या सोशल नेटवर्किंग कहलाती है। सोशल नेटवर्किंग एक सामाजिक ढांचा है जिसके नोट व्यक्ति या संगठन होते हैं। यह नोट आपस में एक या अनेक प्रकार के संबंधों से जुड़े. होते हैं। आज सामाजिक संजाल से संपूर्ण मानव जाति प्रभावित है। मित्र बनाना, मित्रता वापस लेना, पसंद करना, ना पसंद करना, अनुसरण करना, अनुसरण बंद करना, समूह बनाना, आर्थिक लेन-देन और खरीदारी जैसे अनेक कार्य हैं जो सामाजिक नेटवर्क पर अधिकतर किए जाते हैं। अनेक क्षेत्रों में हुए अनुसंधान से यह बात सिद्ध हो गई है कि सामाजिक नेटवर्क परिवार से लेकर आज तक के अनेक स्तरों पर काम करता है। जिन समस्याओं को हल करना है, संस्थाएँ चलानी हैं, अपने लक्ष्यों को पाने की दिशा में आगे बढ़ना है आदि में सामाजिक नेटवर्किंग का बहुत महत्वपूर्ण स्थान है। अपने सरलतम रूप में सामाजिक नेटवर्किंग अध्ययन की जा रही सभी नोडों के बीच उपस्थित सभी संबंधों का प्रति चित्रण है। इसमें ज्ञान बंधन के सारे कार्य आते हैं जो संस्थाओं द्वारा ज्ञान को पहचानने, उसे एक रूप से प्रदर्शित करने तथा उसके वितरण से संबंध रखते हैं। सोशल नेटवर्किंग के जहाँ अनेक लाभ हैं वहीं कुछ खामियाँ भी हैं। हमारा समाज उन्हें महसूस कर ही रहा है। किसी व्यक्ति को धमकाना, पोस्ट करना, पीड़ित व्यक्तियों की व्यक्तिगत जानकारी सार्वजनिक करने आदि की घटनाएं हो रही हैं। हर सिक्के के दो पहलू होते हैं। सामाजिक संजाल अपने आप में जितना खूबसूरत है उतना ही हानिकारक है इसलिए हमें इसका विवेकपूर्ण प्रयोग करना चाहिए

प्रश्न 15.
आपकी कक्षा के कुछ छात्र छोटी कक्षाओं के विद्यार्थियों को सताते हैं। इस समस्या के बारे में प्रधानाचार्य जी को पत्र लिखकर बताइए और कोई उपाय भी सुझाइए।
अथवा
आज दिन-प्रतिदिन सूचना और संचार माध्यम लोगों के बीच लोकप्रिय होते जा रहे हैं। ऐसे में पत्र-लेखन पीछे छूटता जा रहा है। पत्र-लेखन का महत्त्व बताते हुए अपने मित्र को पत्र लिखिए। (5)
उत्तर:
प्रधानाचार्य महोदय,
क ख ग विद्यालय
नई दिल्ली।
विषय-छात्रों के आपत्तिजनक व्यवहार की सूचना।
मान्यवर,
सविनय निवेदन यह है कि मैं आपका ध्यान छोटी कक्षाओं के विद्यार्थियों की प्रमुख समस्या की ओर आकर्षित कराना चाहता हूँ। हमारे विद्यालय की बड़ी कक्षाओं (नवीं से बारहवीं) के कुछ विद्यार्थी छोटी कक्षाओं के विद्यार्थियों को प्रायः सताते रहते हैं। ये छोटे बच्चे उनके अन्याय एवं गलत व्यवहार का विरोध नहीं कर पाते हैं। स्वयं को बड़ा कहने वाले ये विद्यार्थी छोटे बच्चों से उनके पैसे छीन लेते हैं, उनका खाना खा जाते हैं तथा उनसे मनमाना व्यवहार करवाते हैं। अधिकांश शिक्षक उनके विरुद्ध कोई दण्डात्मक कार्यवाही भी नहीं करते। इससे उनके हौंसले बढ़े हुए हैं। मुझे यह बात बहुत कचोटती है। आपसे विनम्र प्रार्थना है कि आप ऐसे उद्दण्ड विद्यार्थियों का पता लगायें तथा उन्हें पहले समझाने का प्रयास करें अन्यथा सख्ती से पेश आयें। अभिभावकों को भी विद्यालय में बलवाया जाये. ताकि उन्हें इनकी हरकतों से अवगत कराया जा सके। आशा है आप इस दिशा में उचित कदम उठायेंगे।
आपका आज्ञाकारी शिष्य
क, ख, ग
कक्षा-दसवीं
(सचिव, छात्रसंघ)
दिनांक……………

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन,
नई दिल्ली।
दिनांक……………
प्रिय मित्र,
सप्रेम नमस्ते।
तुम्हारा पत्र मिला। समाचार ज्ञात हुए। जानकर खुशी हुई कि तुम सपरिवार कुशल हो। ये बातें पत्र में पढ़कर अलग ही अहसास हुआ। अब तो पत्र लिखने की बात पुरानी होती चली जा रही है। अब नित्य नये-नये सूचना और संचार माध्यम लोगों के बीच लोकप्रिय होते चले जा रहे हैं और पत्र लिखना पीछे छूटता जा रहा है। एक छोटा-सा मैसेज या ई-मेल भेजकर काम चला लिया जाता है। पर यह भावनाशून्य लगता है, व्यावसायिक प्रतीत होता है। इसमें सिर्फ मतलब की कामकाजी भाषा का प्रयोग होता है। इन माध्यमों में पत्र-लेखन जैसी सन्तुष्टि की अनुभूति नहीं होती। पत्र लिखने में आत्मीयता झलकती है। पत्र पाकर जो सुखानुभूति होती है वह किसी अन्य साधन से नहीं हो सकती। पत्र-लेखन एक स्थायी माध्यम भी है। अनेक महापुरुषों के पत्र अभी तक सुरक्षित हैं तथा वे प्रेरणादायक भी हैं। मुझे तो पत्र लिखना ही अच्छा लगता है। मैं तुम्हें बराबर पत्र लिखता रहूँगा और आशा करता हूँ कि तुम भी पत्र लिखकर जवाब दोगे।
तुम्हारा शुभचिंतक
क ख ग।

प्रश्न 16.
विद्युत विभाग में लिपिक के पद के लिए लगभग 80 शब्दों में स्ववृत्त तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
आप पिछले दो दिनों से विद्यालय नहीं गए हैं। अपनी अनुपस्थिति का कारण बताते हुए प्रधानाचार्य को ई मेल लिखिए।
उत्तर:
सेवा में
जयपुर विद्युत् वितरण निगम,
जे.वी.वी.ई.एल. कार्यालय,
जे.एल.एन.मार्ग, जयपुर
विषय-लिपिक पद के लिए आवेदन पत्र।

महोदय
आज दिनांक 13 जून, 2022 के दैनिक नवज्योति के प्रातः संस्करण में प्रकाशित विज्ञापन से पता चला कि विद्यत विभाग में लिपिक की आवश्यकता है। इस पद के लिए मैं अपना आवेदन पत्र प्रस्तुत कर रहा हूँ। मेरा स्ववृत्त इस आवेदन पत्र के साथ संलग्न है। आपके विज्ञापन में वर्णित सभी अभिलषित योग्यताओं और अहर्ताओं को मैं पूरा करता हूँ। मैं आपको विश्वास दिलाता हूँ कि मैं अपना कार्य पूर्ण निष्ठा से करूँगा। मेरा संक्षिप्त विवरण इस प्रकार है

नाम : मनीष गुप्ता
पिता का नाम : रवि गुप्ता
माता का नाम : कनिका गुप्ता
जन्मतिथि : 14 जुलाई 1992
वर्तमान पता : 130, दुर्गापुरा, जयपुर
मोबाइल : 200005XXXX
ईमेल : [email protected]

शैक्षणिक योग्यता

अन्य योग्यताएँ

• कंप्यूटर में द्विवर्षीय डिप्लोमा
• हिंदी अंग्रेजी भाषा की जानकारी।

कार्येत्तर गतिविधियाँ और अभिरुचियाँ

• तीन माह तक शिक्षा विभाग में अवकाशकालीन अस्थाई लिपिक पद पर कार्य का अनुभव
• पाँच माह तक नगर निगम में अस्थाई लिपिक पद पर कार्य का अनुभव

आपसे अनुरोध है कि उपर्युक्त तथ्यों को ध्यान में रखते हुए मेरे आवेदन पत्र पर सकारात्मक विचार किया जाए। यदि मेरी अस्थाई लिपिक के पद पर नियुक्ति की जाती है तो मैं आपको विश्वास दिलाता हूँ कि मैं ईमानदारी से कार्य करूँगा और अपने कार्य व्यवहार से सभी को संतुष्ट रखूगा।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय

हस्ताक्षर
मनीष गुप्ता
दिनांक: X/XX/XXXX

अथवा

From : suraj-gupta@rediffmail-com
To : [email protected]
Cc : ——–
Bcc : ——-
विषयः विद्यालय में अनुपस्थिति से संबंधित
महोदय
मैं कक्षा दस ‘अ’ का छात्र हूँ। दिनांक 16 व 17 सितम्बर को मैं विद्यालय में अनुपस्थित था क्योंकि मुझे अचानक शहर से बाहर जाना पड़ गया था क्योंकि मेरे दादाजी का स्वास्थ्य अचानक बिगड़ गया था। मैं पहले सूचना देने की स्थिति में नहीं था। इन दो दिनों में हुई पढ़ाई को मैं स्वयं पूरी कर लूँगा।
आशा है कि आप इस कार्य में मेरा उचित मार्गदर्शन करेंगे।
धन्यवाद
भवदीय
क.ख.ग.

प्रश्न 17.
किसी राज्य के पर्यटन विभाग की ओर से पर्यटन को बढ़ावा देने के लिए लगभग 60 शब्दों में एक आकर्षक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
स्वतंत्रता दिवस पर देशवासियों के नाम लगभग 60 शब्दों में शुभकामना सन्देश लिखिए।
उत्तर:

अथवा

स्वतंत्रता दिवस हेतु शुभकामना संदेश दिनांक ………… समय ………….. सभी देशवासियों को स्वतंत्रता दिवस की हर्दिक शुभकामनाएँ। आओ इस स्वतंत्रता दिवस पर हम सभी देशवासी भारत कोउन्नत और समृद्धिशाली बनाने का प्रण लें और देश के प्रति अपने कर्तव्यों का निर्वाह करने का दायित्व उठाएँ। शुभकामनाओं सहित महापौर जनता पार्टी

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper consists of 36 questions divided into 4 Sections A, B, C and D.
• Section A comprises of 20 questions of 1 mark each, Section B comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C comprises of 6 questions of 4 marks each and Section D comprises of 4 questions of 6 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However internal choice has been provided in 6 questions of 1 mark, 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 4 marks and 2 questions of 6 marks. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
• Write the serial number of questions before attempting.
• Use of a calculator is not permitted.

Section – A
Question numbers 1 to 10 carries 1 mark each. For each of these questions, four alternative choices have been provided of which only one is correct. Select the correct choice:

Question 1.
The mean deviation of the data 3, 10, 4, 7, 10, 5 from the mean is
(A) 2
(B) 2.57
(C) 3
(D) 3.75
Answer:
(B) 2.57

Explanation:
Mean deviation about the mean of the data:
3, 10, 4, 7, 10, 5
Mean deviation = 15.42/6 = 2.57

Question 2.
If seven persons are to be seated in a row. Then, the probability that two particular persons sit next to each other is m
(A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
(C) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
OR
The number of different four digit numbers that can be formed with the digits 2, 3, 4, 7 and using each digit only once is
(A) 120
(B) 96
(C) 24
(D) 100
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Explanation:
Given that,
Total number of persons = 7
Probability that two persons sit next to each other
= 7

OR

(C) 24

Explanation:
We know that,
Number of 4 digit numbers that can be formed = 4! = 24

Question 3.
The standard deviation of data 6, 5, 9, 13, 12, 8 and 10 is
(A) \(\sqrt{\frac{52}{7}}\)
(B) \(\frac{52}{7}\)
(C) √6
(D) 2
Answer:
(A) \(\sqrt{\frac{52}{7}}\)

Explanation:
We know that,
For data 6, 5, 9, 13, 12, 8, 10
The standard deviation is \(\sqrt{\frac{52}{7}}\)

Question 4.
Find f'(0) if f(x) = sin x.
(A) 10
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer:
(B) 1

Explanation:
Given that,
f(x) = sin x
f ‘(x) = cos x
⇒ f ‘(0) = cos 0 = 1

Question 5.
If x < 5, then
(A) – x < – 5
(B) – x < – 5 (C) – x > – 5
(D) – x > – 5
Answer:
(C) – x > – 5

Explanation:
We know that,
If x < 5 then – x > – 5

Question 6.
Let S = {x | x is a positive multiple of 3 less than 100} P = {x | x is a prime number less than 20}. Then n(S) + n(P) is
(A) 41
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 30
Answer:
(A) 41

Explanation:
We have,
n(S) = 33
n(P) = 8
So n(S) + n(P) = 41

Question 7.
The total number of terms in the expansion of (x + a)¹⁰⁰ + (x – a)¹⁰⁰ after simplification is
(A) 50
(B) 202
(C) 51
(D) None of these
OR
The number of ways in which a team of eleven players can be selected from 22 players always including 2 of them and excluding 4 of them is
(A) ¹⁶C_n
(B) ¹⁶C₅
(C) ¹⁶C₉
(D) ²⁰C₉
Answer:
(C) 51

Explanation:
The total number of terms after simplification will be 51.

OR

(C) ¹⁶C₉

Explanation:
The number of ways in which a team of eleven players can be selected from 22 players always including 2 of them and excluding 4 of them is C(16, 9).

Question 8.
If the line \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}\) = 1 passes through the points (21, – 3) and (4, – 5), then (a, b) is.
(A) (1, 1)
(B) (- 1, 1)
(C) (1, -1)
(D) (- 1, – 1)
OR
A point equidistant from the lines 4x + 3y +10 = 0, 5x – 12y + 26 = 0 and 7x + 24y – 50 = 0 is
(A) (1, -1)
(B) (1, 1)
(C) (0, 0)
(D) (0, 1)
Answer:
(D) (- 1, – 1)

Explanation:
Given that,
Line \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}\) = 1 = 1 passes through the point (21, – 3) a b and (4, -5) then on comparing from equations we get,
⇒ (a, b) = (-1, -1)

OR

(C) (0, 0)

Explanation:
A point equidistant from the lines
⇒ 4x + 3y + 10 = 0,
⇒ 5x – 12y + 26 = 0 and
7x + 24y – 50 = 0
is (0, 0)

Question 9.

(A) 2
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(C) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
(D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
(B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Explanation:
On simplifying the limits

Question 10.
L is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from a point (3,4, 5) on X-axis. The coordinates of L are
(A) (3,0,0)
(B) (0,4,0)
(C) (0,0, 5)
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) (3,0,0)

Explanation:
We have,
Foot of perpendicular drawn from point (3, 4, 5) on X-axis will be (3, 0, 0).

Question numbers 11 to 15 carry 1 mark each. State True or False.

Question 11.
The sum of probabilities of two students getting the distinction in their final examination is 1.2.
Answer:
True

Explanation:
The sum of probabilities of two students getting distinction is 1.2 It is true as the sum of probabilities can be greater than 1.

Question 12.
The locus of the point of intersection of lines √3x – y – 4√3k = 0 and √3kx + ky — 4√3 = 0 for different value of k is a hyperbola whose eccentricity is 2.
Answer:
True

Explanation:
It is true that for different values of k we get a hyperbola with eccentricity 2.

Question 13.
The vertex of an equilateral triangle is (2, 3) and the equation of the opposite side is x + y = 2. Then, the other two sides are y – 3 = (x – 2).
Answer:
True

Explanation:
It is true that the equation of two other sides are (y – 3) =± (x – 2).

Question 14.
If (x – 2, y + 5) = \(\left(-2, \frac{1}{3}\right)\) are two equal ordered pairs, then x = 4, y = \(\frac{-14}{3}\)
Answer:
False

Explanation:
Given that,
(x – 2, y + 5) = (-2, 1/3)
⇒ On comparing,
⇒ x = 0 and y = -14/3
So the given statement is False.

Question 15.
If x < y and b < 0, then \(\frac{x}{y}<\frac{y}{b}\)
OR
Solution set of x + y ≥ 0 is

Answer:
False

Explanation:
x < y and b < 0, So, \(\frac{x}{y}>\frac{y}{b}\)
So the given statement is False.

OR

True

Explanation:
From the given graph
The solution set is x + y ≥ 1
So the given statement is true.

Question numbers 16 to 20 carry 1 marks each.

Question 16.
If ⁿP₄ : ⁿP₂ = 12, find n.
OR
How many ways are there to arrange the letters of the word “GARDEN” with the vowels in alphabetical order?
Answer:
Given, \(\frac{{ }^n P_4}{{ }^n p_2}\) = 12
⇒ ⁿp₄ = ¹²ⁿp₂

⇒ n² – 5n + 6 = 12
⇒ n² – 5n – 6 = 0
⇒ n² – 6n + n – 6 = 0
⇒ n(n – 6) + 1(n – 6) = 0
⇒ (n – 6)(n + 1) = 0
⇒ n = -1 or n = 6
∵ n cannot be negative
∴ n = 6

OR

Total number of ways in which all letters of the word GARDEN can be arranged = 6! =720
There are only two vowels in the word, A and E.
First place A at the first place, E can be occupy any of the remaining 5 places . Total arrangements 5 × 24.
When A in the second place, E can occupy any of 4 places
So Total arrangements 4 × 24.
Repeat this process until A occupies the last but one place. A cannot occupy the last place.
∴ The Total number of total arrangement is
(5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1) × 24
= 15 × 24 = 360

Question 17.
If in a A.E 7th term is 9 and 9th term is 7, then find 16th term.
OR
If S_n = 3n² + 2n, then write a₂.
Answer:
Let first term and common difference of A.E is a and d, respectively.
Given,
T₇ = 9 = a + (7 – 1)d ………. (i)
⇒ 9 = a + 6d
and T = 7 = a + (9 – 1)d
⇒ 7 = a + 8d
On solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
a = 15 and d = 1
Now, T₁₆ = a + (16 – 1)d
= 15 + 15(- 1)
= 0

Commonly Made Errors:
Students do not simplify the complex number before finding the conjugate which leads to incorrect result.

Answering Tips:
Learn and revise the formula for n^th term and practice more such problems based on it.

OR

We know that, a_n = S_n – S_{n – 1}
Given, S_n = 3n² + 2n
∴ S_{n – 1} = 3(n – 1)² + 2(n – 1) (∵ a_n = S_n – S_{n – 1})
∴ a_n = 3n² + 2n – {3(n – 1)² + 2(n -1)}
= 3n² + 2n – {3(n² – 2n + 1) + 2n – 2}
= 3n² + 2n – {3n² – 6n + 3 + 2n – 2}
= 3n² + 2n – {3n² – 4n + 1}
= 6n – 1
Hence, a₂ = 6(2) – 1 = 11

Question 18.
Write the conjugate of \(\frac{2-i}{(1-2 i)^2}\)
Answer:

Commonly Made Errors:
Students do not simplify the complex number before finding the conjugate which leads to incorrect result.

Answering Tips:
Write the conjugate of z after simplifying the polynomial equation in the form of complex number.

Question 19.
Write the value of 2 sin 75° sin 15° ?
Answer:
We know that,
2 sin A sin B = cos(A – B) – cos( A + B)
∴ 2 sin 75° sin 15° = cos (75° -15°) – cos (75° +15°)
= cos 60° + cos 90°
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 0
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 20.
Solve for x (x is a real number), 4x + 3 < 5x + 7.
Answer:
Given, 4x + 3 < 5x +7
Transposing 5x to LHS and 3 to RHS, we get
4x – 5x < 7 – 3
or – x < 4 or x > – 4
∴ When x is real, the solution is (- 4, ∞)

Section – B
Question numbers 21 to 26 carry 2 marks each.

Question 21.
If tan A = \(\frac{1-\cos B}{\sin B}\), then tan 2A = ______________
OR
If tan A = \(\frac{a}{a+1}\) and tanB = \(\frac{1}{2 a+1}\), then find the value of A + B.
Answer:

2A = B
∴ tan 2A = tan B

OR

We know that,

Question 22.
Evaluate

Answer:

Commonly Made Error:
Some students have difficulty in eliminating (x – 1) from denominator due to the calculation

Answering Tip:
Students must be careful while doing calculation and recheck their solution.

Question 23.
Find all pairs of consecutive odd positive integers, both of which are smaller than 10 such that their sum is more than 11.
OR
Find all pairs of consecutive even positive integers, both of which are larger than 5 such that their sum is less than 23.
Answer:
Let x be the smaller of the two odd +ve integers. So, that the other integer is x + 2.
∴ x < 10
x + 2 <10
x < 10 – 2
⇒ x < 8 (i) Also, the sum of the two integers is more than 11. ∴ x + (x + 2) > 11
2x + 2 > 11
2x >11 – 2
2x > 9 or x > \(\frac{9}{2}\)
∴ If one number is 5 (odd number), then other is seven and if the one number is 7, the other number is 9.
∴ The possible pairs are (5, 7) and (7, 9).

OR

Let x be the smaller of the two +ve consecutive even integers, then the other one is x + 2.
Given, x > 5
And x + x + 2 < 23
2x + 2 < 23
If the sum is less than 23, it is also less than 24.
∴ 2x + 2 < 24
2x < 22 or x < 11
∴ Value of x may be 6, 8, 10 (even integers)
∴ The pairs may be (6, 8), (8, 10), (10, 12).

Question 24.
From a class of 40 students, in how many ways can five students be chosen for an excursion party.
Answer:
From a class of 40 students, five students can be chosen for an excursion party in ⁴⁰C₅ ways = 40!

= 658,008

Question 25.
If V = {x | x is positive factor of the number 2^{p – 1} (2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}. Write Y in the roaster form.
Answer:
Given,
y = {x | x is a positive factor of the number 2^{P – 1} (2^P – 1), where 2^P – 1 is a prime number}
So, the factor of 2^{P – 1} are 1, 2, 2², 2³, . . ., 2^{P – 1}.
∴ y = {1, 2, 2², 2³, . . . , 2^{P – 1}}

Question 26.
In a large metropolitan area, the probabilities are 0.87, 0.36, 0.30 that a family (randomly chosen for a sample survey) owns a colour television set, a black and white television set or both kinds of sets. What is the probability that a family owns either anyone or both kinds of sets ?
Answer:
Let E₁ be the event that family own colour television set and E₂ be the event that family own Black and White Television.
P(E₁) = 0.87
P(E₂) = 0.36
and P(E₁ ∩ E₂) = 0.30
We have to find the probability that a family owns either anyone or both kind of sets i.e, p(E₁ ∪ E₂).
Now, P(E₁ ∪ E₂) = P(E₁) + P(E₂) – P(E₁ ∩ E₂)
[by addition theorem]
= 0.87 + 0.36 – 0.30 = 0.93

Section – C
Question numbers 27 to 32 carry 4 marks each.

Question 27.
Find sets A, B and C such that A ∩ B, B ∩ C and A ∩ C are non-empty sets and A ∩ B ∩ C = Φ
OR
For any sets A and B show that (A ∩ B) ∪ (A-B) =A
Answer:
Let take three sets A = {1, 2}, B = {2, 3} and C = {3, 1}; A ∈ B, B ∩ C and A ∩ C should be non empty sets. A ∩ B = {2}, B ∩ C = {3} and A ∩ C = {1}
Therefore, A ∩ B, B ∩ C and A ∩ C are non-empty. Intersection of all three sets is null set, A ∩ B ∩ C = Φ

OR

(A ∩ B) ∪ (A – B) = A
L. H. S. = (A ∩ B) ∪ (A – B)
= (A ∩ B) ∩ (A ∩ B’) [∴ (A – B) = A ∩ B’]
= A ∩ (B ∪ B’) [By distributive law]
= A ∩ U [( B ∪ B’) = U = Universal set]
= A
= R. H. S.

Question 28.
The coefficients of the (r – 1)^th, r^th and (r + 1)^th terms in the expansion of (x + 1)ⁿ are in the ratio 1:3:5. Find n and r.
OR
Find the term independent of x in the expansion of \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{3}}+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2 x^2}\right)^{10}\)
Answer:
In the expansion of (x + 1)ⁿ, the general term is
T_R+1 = ⁿC_Rx^n-R (1)^R or T_R+1 = ⁿC_Rx^{n – R}
For coefficient of (r – 1)^th term, put R = r – 2
T_R+1 = T_{(r – 2)+1} = ⁿC_{r – 2}x^{n – (r – 2)}
T_{(r – 1)} = ⁿC_{r – 2}x^{n – r + 2}
⇒ Coefficient of (r – 1)^th term = ⁿC_{r – 1}
For coefficient of rth term, put R = r – 1
⇒ T_r = T_r-1+1 = ⁿC_{r – 1}x^{n – (r – 1)}
⇒ T_r = ⁿC_{r – 1}x^{n – r + 1}
Coefficient of r^th term = ⁿC_r-1
For coefficient of (r + 1)^th term, put R = r
⇒ T_{r + 1} = ⁿC_rx^{n – r}
⇒ Coefficient of (r + 1)^th term = ⁿC_r
Now, according to question it is given that
ⁿC_r-2 : ⁿC_r-1 : ⁿC_r = 1 : 3 : 5
Taking first two parts

⇒ 5r = 3n – 3r + 3
⇒ 3n – 8r + 3 = 0 …… (ii)
Multiplying Eq. (i) by 2 and then subtracting from
Eq. (ii), we get
n – 7 = 0
n = 7
Putting the value of n in Eq. (i), we get
7 – 4r + 5 = 0
⇒ 4r = 12
r = 3

OR

Let (r + 1 )^th term be independent of x which is given by

Question 29.
Find all non-zero complex number z satisfying z conjugate = iz².
Answer:
Let z = x + iy
Given, z̄ = iz²
⇒ x – iy = i(x² – y² + 2ixy)
⇒ x – iy = i(x² – y²) – 2xy
⇒ (x + 2xy) – i(x² – y² + y) = 0 + 0i
⇒ x + 2xy = 0 ……….. (i)
and x² – y² + y = 0 …… (ii)
Now, x + 2 yx = 0
⇒ x(1 + y) = 0 ⇒ x = 0 or 1 + 2y = 0 ⇒ x = 0 or y = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
Putting x = 0 in (ii), we get
⇒ – y² + y = 0 ⇒ y(y -1) = 0 ⇒ y = 0, y =1
Thus, we have the following pairs of values of x and y
x = 0, y = 0; x = 0, y = 1
∴ z = 0 + 0i = 0; z = 0 + 1i = i
Putting y = \(\frac{-1}{2}\) in (ii), we get
x² – y² + y = 0
⇒ x² – \(\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{2}\) = 0
⇒ x² – \(\frac{3}{4}\) = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{\pm \sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Thus, we have the following pairs of values of x and y

Question 30.
Find the equation of circle concentric with circle 4x² + 4y² – 12x – 16y – 21 = 0 and half its area.
Answer:
The given equation of the circle is
4x² + 4y² – 12x – 16y – 21 = 0

Commonly Made Error:
Some students don’t have an understanding of that concentric circles have same centre and different radius.

Answering Tip:
Students need to emphasise on the conditions and properties of circle.

Question 31.
Find the equation of a circle whose centre is (3, -1) and which cuts off a chord of length 6 units on the line 2x – 5y + 18 = 0
Answer:
Given centre of the circle is (3, – 1),

Now, OM = \(\left|\frac{6+5+18}{\sqrt{4+25}}\right|=\frac{29}{\sqrt{29}}\) = √29
In ∆OMB , OB² = OM² + MB²
∵ AB = 6 ⇒ AM = MB = \(\frac{1}{2}\), AB = 3
⇒ OB² = 29 + 9 ⇒ OB² = 38
So, the radius of circle is √38,
∴ Equation of the circle with radius r = √38 and centre (3, – 1) is
⇒ (x – 3)² +(y + 1)² = 38
⇒ x² – 6x + 9 + y² + 2y + 1 = 38
x² + y² – 6x + 2y = 28
x² + y² – 6x + 2y – 28 = 0 is the required equation of circle.

Commonly Made Error:
Some students don’t make the correct figure for the problem which leads to wrong assumptions.

Answering Tip:
Students must make a well labelled figure for making question easier.

Question 32.
Mean and standard deviation of 100 observation was found to be 40 and 10, respectively. If at the time of
calculation two observation was wrongly taken as 30 and 70 in place of 3 and 27 respectively, then find the correct standard deviation. Answer:

Section – D
Question numbers 33 to 36 carry 6 marks each.

Question 33.
In a survey of 200 students of a school, it was found that 120 study Mathematics, 90 study physics and 70 study Chemistry 40 study Mathematics and Physics, 30 study Physics and Chemistry, 50 study Chemistry and Mathematics and 20 none of these subjects. Find the number of students who study all the three subjects.
Answer:
Let M, P and C denote the students studying Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
Also, n(U) =200, n(M) = 120, n(P) = 90, n(C) = 70, n(M ∩ P) = 40,
∩n(P ∩ C) =30, n(M ∩ C) = 50, n(M ∪P ∪ C)’ = 20
Now, the number of students who study all the three subjects i.e., n (P ∩ C ∩ M)
Now, we have
n(M ∪ P ∪ C)’ = 20
n(M ∪P ∪ C)’ = n(U) – n(M ∪P ∪ C)
20 = 200 – n(M ∪ P ∪ C)
n(M ∪ P ∪ C) = 200 – 20 = 180
n(M ∪ P ∪ C) = n(M) + n(P) + n(C) – n(M ∩ P) – n(P ∩ C)
– n(C ∩ M) + n(C ∩ M ∩ P)
180 = 120 + 90 + 70 – 40 – 30 – 50 + n(C ∩ M ∩ P)
180 = 280 – 120 + n(C ∩ M ∩ P)
180 + 120 – 280 = n(P ∩ C ∩ M)
n(P ∩ C ∩ M) = 300 – 280 = 20
So the number of students who study all the three subjects is 20.

Question 34.
How many words, with or without meaning can be made from the letters of the word ‘MONDAY/ assuming that no letter is repeated, if
(i) 4’ letters are used at a time.
(ii) all letters are used at a time.
(iii) all letters are used but first letter is a vowel.
OR
In how many ways can the letters of the word PERMUTATIONS be arranged if the :
(i) Words start with P and end with S,
(ii) Vowels are all together,
(iii) There are always 4 letters between P and S ?
Answer:
In the word MONDAY, all letters are different.
(i) Out of 6 different letters 4 letters can be selected in ⁶P₄, ways.
∴ Required number of words = ⁶P₄
= \(\frac{6 !}{(6-6) !}\) = \(\frac{6 !}{2 !}=\frac{6 \times 5 \times 4 \times 3 \times 2 !}{2 !}\) = 360

(ii) The word ‘MONDAY’ has 6 different letters.
Number of ways taking 6 letters at a time = ⁶P₆
∴ Required number of words = ⁶P₆
= \(\frac{6 !}{(6-6) !}\) = \(\frac{6 \times 5 \times 4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 1}{0 !}\) = 720

(iii) First, we will fix the vowel.
In the word MONDAY, there are two vowels O and A.
∴ First letter can be chosen by 2 ways.
Number of ways taking 5 different letters from remaining 5 letters = ⁵ P₅
∴ Required number of words 5! 5!
= ⁵P₅ = \(\frac{5 !}{(5-5) !}=\frac{5 !}{0 !}\) = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120
Hence, total number of ways = 2 × 120 = 240

OR

(i) Letters between P and S are ERMUTATION. These 10 letters having T two times. These letters can be arranged in \(\frac{10 !}{2 !}\) = 1814400 ways.

(ii) There are 12 letters in the word PERMUTATIONS which have T two times.
Now the vowels a, e, i, o, u are taken together.
Let it be considered in one block.
The letters of vowels can be arranged in 5! Ways.
Thus there are 7 letters and 1 block of vowels with T two times.
∴ Required number of arrangements = \(\frac{8 !}{2 !}\) × 5!

(iii) There are 12 letters to be arranged in 12 places

These 12 letters are to filled in 12 places shown above. P may be filled up at place No. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and consequently S may be filled up at place No. 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 leaving four places in between. Now P and S may be filled up in 7 ways. Similarly, S and P may be filled in 7 ways.
Remaining ten letters having two T’s
∴ These can be arrange \(\frac{10 !}{2 !}\)
hence word PERMUTATIONS arrange when 4 letters between P and S
= 2 × 7 × \(\frac{10 !}{2 !}\)
= 14 × 1814400
= 25401600

Question 35.
Find the linear inequalities for which the shaded region in the given figure is the solution set.

Answer:
Consider the line 3x + 2y = 48, we observe that the shaded region and the origin are on the same side of the line 3x + 2y = 48 and (0, 0) satisfy the linear constraint 3x + 2y ≤ 48. So, we must have one inequation as 3x + 2y ≤ 48.

Now, consider the line x + y = 20. We find that the shaded region and the origin are on the same side of the line x + y = 20 and (0, 0) satisfy the constraints x + y < 20. So, the second inequation is x + y ≤ 20.

We also notice that the shaded region is above X-axis and is on the right side of Y-axis, so we must have x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.

Thus, the linear inequations corresponding to the given solution set are 3x + 2y ≤ 48, x + y ≤ 20 and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.

Question 36.
If pth, qh and rth terms of an A.E and G.E are both a, b and c respectively, then show that a^{b – c}. b^{c – a}. c^{a – b} = 1.
OR
If A is the arithmetic mean and G₁, G₂ be two geometric mean between any two numbers, then prove that 2A = \(\frac{G_1^2}{G_2}+\frac{G_2^2}{G_1}\)
Answer:
Let A, d are the first term and common difference between A.P and x, R are the first term and common ratio of G.P, respectively.
According to the given condition,
A + (p – 1)d = a ……… (i)
A + (q – 1)d = b ……… (ii)
A + (r – 1)d = c ……… (iii)
and
a = xR^{p – 1} ……… (iv)
b = xR^{q – 1} ……… (v)
c = xR^{r – 1} ………. (vi)
On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i). we get
d(p – 1 – q + 1) = a – b
⇒ a – b = d(p – q) ………. (vii)
On subtracting Eq. (iii) from Eq. (ii). we get
d(q – 1 – r + 1) = b – c
b – c = d(q – r) ………. (viii)
On subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (iii). we get
d(r – 1 – p + 1) = c – a
⇒ c – a = d(r – p) …….. (ix)
Now, we have to prove a^{b – c} b^{c – a} c^{a – b} = 1
Taking LHS = a^{b – c} b^{c – a} c^{a – b}
Using Eqs. (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii), (viii), (ix),
LHS = (xR^{p – 1})d^{(q – r)} (xR^{q – 1})d^{(r – p)} (xR^{r – 1})^d(p-q)
= x^{d(q – r) + d(r – p) + d(p – q)} R^{(p – 1)d(q – r) + (q – 1)d(r – p) + (r – 1)d(p – q)}
= x^{d(q – r + r – p + p – q)}
= R^{d(pq – pr – q + r + qr – pq – r + p + rp – rq – p + q)} = x⁰R⁰ = 1
– RHS

OR

Let the number be a and b
Then, A = \(\frac{a+b}{2}\)
⇒ 2A = a + b ………. (i)
and G₁, G₂ be geometric mean between a and b, then a, G₁, G₂, b are in G.P.
Let r be the common ratio.
Then, b = ar_{4 – 1} [∵ a_n = ar_{n – 1}]

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Sociology Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours.
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper is divided into four sections.
2. There are 38 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A includes question No. 1 -20. These are MCQ type questions. As per the question, there can be one answer.
4. Section B includes question No.21-29. These are very short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
5. Section C includes question No. 30-35. They are short answer type questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
6. Section D includes question No. 36-38. They are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words each. Question no 38 is to be answered with the help of the passage given.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a critique of Malthusian theory? [1]
(A) Food production continued to rise despite rapid population growth
(B) Standard of living continued to rise despite rapid population growth
(C) Poverty and starvation were caused by the unequal distribution of economic resources rather than by population growth
(D) Humanity is condemned to live in poverty forever because the growth of agricultural production will always be overtaken by population growth
Answer:
(D) Humanity is condemned to live in poverty forever because the growth of agricultural production will always be overtaken by population growth

Explanation: The statement is Malthus’s argument rather than his critique. Malthus was critiqued by scholars who argued that economic growth could outstrip population growth. The other three statements are examples of the critique of Malthusian theory.

Question 2.
The tribal communities were mainly dependent on the ______ for their living. [1]
(A) forests
(B) factories
(C) agriculture
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) forests

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement. [1]
(A) Language and religion have provided the most powerful instrument for the formation of ethno-national identity in India.
(B) Language and tribal identity have provided the most powerful instrument for the formation of ethno-national identity in India.
(C) Religion and tribal identity have provided the most powerful instrument for the formation of ethno-national identity in India.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(B) Language and tribal identity have provided the most powerful instrument for the formation of ethno-national identity in India.

Explanation: Language coupled with regional and tribal identity – and not religion – has provided the most powerful instrument for the formation of ethnonational identity in India.

Question 4.
Stereotypes fix whole groups into single, ______ categories; they refuse to recognise the ______ across individuals and across contexts or across time. [1]
(A) homogenous, variation
(B) heterogenous, similarities
(C) broad, similarities
(D) diverse, similarities
Answer:
(A) homogenous, variation

Explanation: Stereotypes treat an entire community as though it were a single person with a single all encompassing trait or characteristic.

Question 5.
The National Planning Committee started by Indian National Congress was started in the year ______. [1]
(A) 1919
(B) 1924
(C) 1939
(D) 1946
Answer:
(C) 1939

Question 6.
Who wrote about navya-nyayalogic in ‘The Sources of Knowledge’? [1]
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
(C) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan
(D) Pandita Ramabai
Answer:
(B) Kandukuri Veeresalingam

Question 7.
______ organised sector consists of all units employing ten or more people throughout the year. These have to be registered with the government to ensure that their employees get proper salaries or wages, pensions, and other benefits. [1]
(A) Primary sector
(B) Service sector
(C) Organised sector
(D) Public sector
Answer:
(C) Organised sector

Question 8.
Santhals, Hos, Oraons, Mundas in Chota Nagpur and the Santhal Parganas are tribes of: [1]
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Karnataka
Answer:
(C) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The ______can be divided into three forms of capital- economic capital in the form of material assets and income; cultural capital such as educational qualifications and status; and social capital in the form of networks of contacts and social associations (Bourdieu 1986).[1]
(A) economic resources
(B) social resources
(C) material wealth
(D) political resources
Answer:
(B) social resources

Explanation: Social resources refer to the valued resources – money, property, education, health, and power – that people in a society have. Some people have more social resources than others in the society.

Question 10.
______ implied that the people of India or of any colonised society have an equal right to be sovereign. [1]
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Nationalism
Answer:
(D) Nationalism

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): The problem of selective abortions is not due to poverty or ignorance or lack of resources.
Reason (R): We find the sex ratio to be the lowest in the most prosperous regions. [1]
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: The regional pattern of low child sex ratios seems to support this argument. It is striking that the lowest child sex ratios are found in the most prosperous regions of India. According to the Economic Survey 2018-19, Maharashtra, Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, and Delhi are having high per capita incomes and the child sex ratio of these states is still low.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): A significant yet paradoxical change in the caste system in the contemporary period is that it has tended to become ‘invisible’ for the upper caste, urban middle, and upper classes.
Reason (R): Caste plays no part in their private lives. [1]
Answer:
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Explanation: For the upper caste, caste plays no part in their public lives, being limited to the personal sphere of religious practice or marriage and kinship

Question 13.
Assertion (A): Gender identities can be chosen willingly.
Reason (R): By using surgical procedures male body can be converted into a female body or a female body into a male body. [1]
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: In general, ‘male body’ and ‘female body’ as a social unit are unchanging identities, but due to so much research in the field of physiology, the notion of the body is now linked with ‘choice structure’. Transgender as a concept, thus, refers to conversions of gender status of the body into opposite gender by using choice or certain compulsions.

Question 14.
Assertion (A): In Indian nationalism, the dominant trend was marked by an inclusive and democratic vision.
Reason (R): It was democratic because it recognised diversity and plurality. [1]
Answer:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Explanation: Inclusive because it recognised diversity and plurality. Democratic because it sought to do away with discrimination and exclusion and bring forth a just and equitable society.

Question 15.
Assertion (A): There is a correlation between disability and poverty.
Reason (R): Public perception of disability is based on cultural conception. [1]
Answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Question 16.
What are the laws that allow citizens of a particular state to also-simultaneously- be citizens of another state called? [1]
(A) Cross-border citizenship laws
(B) Multiple citizenship laws
(C) Dual-citizenship laws
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Dual-citizenship laws

Explanation: These laws are known as ‘dual-citizenship’ laws. For instance, Jewish Americans may be citizens of Israel as well as the USA; they can even serve in the armed forces of one country without losing their citizenship in the other country.

Question 17.
Considering from an urban point of view, the rapid growth in urbanisation shows that the town or city has been acting as a magnet for the rural population. Choose the incorrect statement about urbanisation in India. [1]
(A) Rural-to-urban migration has increased due to a decline in common property resources.
(B) Cities offer anonymity to the poor and the oppressed castes.
(C) People go to cities in search of work.
(D) Urban areas are a decisive force in terms of political power dynamics.
Answer:
(D) Urban areas are a decisive force in terms of political power dynamics.

Explanation: Option (d) is an incorrect statement (and the correct answer) because it is the rural areas that remain a decisive force in terms of political power dynamics, even when the public face of India is increasingly becoming urban. This is due to the fact that India’s majority population continues to live in rural areas.

Question 18.
Land reforms took away rights from the claimants, the upper caste who were played no part in the agricultural economy other than claiming. [1]
(A) Tenants
(B) Absentee landlords
(C) Dominant caste
(D) Political Leaders
Answer:
(C) Dominant caste

Question 19.
A state is “a body that successfully claims a monopoly of legitimate force in a particular territory”, according to [1]
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Auguste Comte
(C) Max Weber
(D) Jacques Rousseau
Answer:
(C) Max Weber

Question 20.
“Compared to the ancient past, we know a lot more about caste in our recent history. If modern history is taken to begin with the nineteenth century, then Indian Independence in 1947 offers a natural dividing line between the colonial period (roughly 150 years from around 1800 to 1947) and the post-Independence or post-colonial period (the six decades from 1947 to the present day). The present form of caste as a social institution has been shaped very strongly by both the colonial period as well as the rapid changes that have come about in independent India.” [1]
Choose the incorrect statement about position of caste and caste-based issues in the nationalist movement:
(A) Anti-untouchability programmes became a significant part of the Congress agenda.
(B) There was an initiative taken to organise “depressed classes” from both ends of the caste spectrum.
(C) The dominant view was to treat caste as a social evil and as a colonial ploy to divide Indians.
(D) Efforts to organise the “depressed classes” and particularly the untouchable castes began during the nationalist movement.
Answer:
(D) Efforts to organise the “depressed classes” and particularly the untouchable castes began during the nationalist movement.

Explanation: Efforts to organise the “depressed classes” and particularly the untouchable castes predated the nationalist movement, having begun in the second half of the nineteenth century.

Section – B (18 Marks)

Question 21.
Explain regionalism in the Indian context. [2]
Answer:
Giving preference to one’s region and neglecting all other regions for decision making, availing benefits of utilizing natural and economic resources is known as regionalism. Encouraging one’s region is also a form of regionalism. People from other regions are considered foreigners. For example, migrants from one state are differentiated from other states.

Question 22.
Why is the rising dependency ratio a cause for worry in countries that are facing an aging population? [2]
Answer:
A rising dependency ratio is a cause for worry in countries that are facing an aging population, since it becomes difficult for a relatively smaller proportion of working-age people to carry the burden of providing resources, for a somewhat more significant proportion of dependents.

Question 23.
Express the correlation between agricultural productivity and agrarian structure. [2]
Answer:
Agrarian structure refers to the sustaining divide between landowners and peasants. If there is an unequal distribution of lands among people, only a few will get profit from the cultivation. Peasants will get wages, while land owners will get profit. It increases class inequality. The rich become richer and the poor become poorer.

Question 24.
State the main concerns of social reformers of the 19th century.
OR
Discuss the concept of ‘foot loose labor’. [2]
Answer:
Main concerns of social reformers of the nineteenth century: Removal of the prevailing social evils. Education for the deprived, backward, and weaker sections. Widow remarriage. Child marriage. Against caste and gender discrimination. Religious discrimination. (Any two)

OR

This term was coined by Jan Breman in 1985. He used this concept to describe the situation of migrating labours. Since the migrating labours have no job security, they have the compulsion of migrating from one place to another based on the demand.

Question 25.
Provide examples of women’s participation in agrarian struggles and revolts.
OR
Express the correlation between agricultural productivity and agrarian structure. [2]
Answer:
Tebhaga movement in Bengal. Telangana arms struggle from the erstwhile Nizam’s rule. Warli tribal’s revolt against bondage in Maharashtra.

OR
Agrarian structure refers to the sustaining divide between landowners and peasants. If there is an unequal distribution of lands among
people, only a few will get profit from the cultivation. Peasants will get wages, while land owners get profit. It increases class inequality. The rich become richer and the poor become poorer

Question 26.
What are the features of caste? [2]
Answer:

1. Ascription: It is determined by birth.
2. Endogamy: Marriage is restricted to members of the group.
3. Restriction on food sharing: It prescribes rules about food and food-sharing.
4. Hierarchal Ordering: It is arranged in a hierarchy of rank and status.
5. Segmental Division: A caste has sub-divisions within itself.
6. Rigidity: It is traditionally linked to an occupation wherein a person born to one caste can have the occupation of his/her caste only

Question 27.
Adivasi experiences of marginalisation and their sense of injustice were mobilised to create shared Jharkhandi identity.’ Mention the issues against which leaders of Jharkhand agitated. [2]
Answer:
The issues against which the leaders of the movement in Jharkand agitated were:

• Acquisition of land for large irrigation projects and firing ranges.
• Survey and settlement operations, which were held up, camps closed down, etc.
• Collection of loans, rent, and cooperative dues, which were resisted.
• Nationalisation of forest produce which they boycotted.

Question 28.
How do people find jobs? [2]
Answer:
Through advertisements and employment exchanges. Through personal contacts for those who are self employed, e.g., plumbers, private tuitions, and freelance photographers. Through Contractors/Jobbers (who are called mistris in the Kanpur textile mills). As Badli workerS/ who substitute for regular permanent workers who are on leave.

Question 29.
How did de-industrialisation take place in colonial India?
OR
Federal system has worked fairly well, though there remain many contentious issues.’ Mention any two issues. [2]
Answer:
British industrialization led to de-industrialization in some sectors Decline of old urban centres Manufacturing boomed in Britain, but traditional exports of cotton and silk manufacture from India declined in the face of Manchester competition. This period also saw the further decline of cities such as Surat and Masulipatnam, while Bombay and Madras grew.

When the British took over Indian states, towns like Thanjavur, Dhaka and Murshidabad lost their courts and their artisans and court gentry; Many village artisans abandoned their hereditary craft and moved to agriculture. (Any Two)

OR

Respecting regional sentiments is done by Constitutional provisions defining the powers of the States and the Centre. Since the era of liberalization (i.e., since the 1990s) there is concern among policymakers, politicians, and scholars about increasing inter-regional economic and infrastructural inequalities. Private investors generally want to invest in already developed States where the infrastructure and other facilities are better.

The government can give some consideration to regional equity and other social goals rather than just seeking to maximize profits. The market economy tends to increase the gap between developed and backward regions. The Centre States disputes: river water, linguistic and regional disparity, etc.

Section – C (24 Marks)

Question 30.
How have social reformers helped in the emancipation of women in India? [4]
Answer:
Emancipation of women by the social reformers:

Raja Ram Mohan Roy campaigned against the practice of Sati in nineteenth-century Bengal. He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828. M.G.Ranade led the movement of widow remarriage efforts. His writings are titled The Texts of the Hindu Law on the Lawfulness of the Remarriage of Widows and Vedic Authorities for Widow Marriage.

Jyotiba Phule attacked both caste and gender discrimination. He founded the Satyashodak Samaj. Phule’s first practical social reform efforts were to aid the two groups considered lowest in traditional Brahmin culture: women and untouchables.

Sir Syed Ahmed Khan wanted Muslim girls to be educated, however, within the vicinity of their homes. Dayanand Saraswati stood for women’s education. Tarabai Shinde through her writings attacked the double standards of a male-dominated society. Her book is called Stree Purush Tulana.

Question 31.
Nation-state became the dominant political form during the colonial period. Explain.
OR
Write a short note on the Bhoodan movement. [4]
Answer:
Nation-state became the dominant political form: Initially, the use of passports was not common for international travel. Pertains to a particular state, characteristic of the modern world. Associated closely with the rise of nationalism; the rise of democratic ideas; Sovereign. A community of communities sharing a desire to be a part of the same political collectivity.

OR

The Bhoodan movement refers to the land gifting movement. It is a voluntary land reform movement. The movement persuaded landowners to voluntarily donate the land to the landless people. The movement was started by Vinoba Bhave in 1951.

Question 32.
Briefly mention Gandhiji’s take on machinery.
OR
The Indian people had a brief experience of authoritarian rule during an emergency.’ Justify. [4]
Answer:
Gandhiji was not against machinery but, against the craze for machinery. Machinery saves time and labour. However, it deprives people of their jobs and leads to starvation. Therefore, Gandhiji opined that machinery should save time and labour for all and accumulate wealth for all and not in the hands of a few. He suggested the use of the spinning wheel to end exploitation and unemployment. Both Marx and Mahatma Gandhi saw mechanization as a danger to employees.

OR

The Indian people had a brief experience of authoritarian rule during the ‘Emergency’.
During the Emergency period:

1. The Parliament was suspended and new laws were made directly by the government.
2. Civil liberties were revoked and a large number of politically active people were arrested and sent to jail without trial.
3. Censorship was imposed on the media and government officials could be dismissed without normal procedures.
4. The government coerced lower-level officials to implement its programs and produce instant results.
5. An example of this is the forced sterilization campaign in which large numbers of people died due to surgical complications.

Question 33.
Encouraging cultural diversity is a good policy from both the practical and the principled point of view. Justify the statement using India’s case as a Nation-State. [4]
Answer:
The Indian Nation-state is socially and culturally one of the most diverse countries in the world. It has one of the largest populations speaking multiple languages or dialects. It consists of multiple religions, plural in beliefs and practices. In terms of the Nation-state’s relationship with community identities, the Indian case fits neither the “assimilationist” nor the “integrationist” model.

The Constitution declares the Indian state to be a secular state, but religion, language, and other such factors are not banished from the public sphere. By international standards, very strong constitutional protection is offered to minority religions. India’s problems have been more in the sphere of implementation and practice rather than Laws or principles.

Question 34.
How has colonialism impacted our lives? [4]
Answer:
British colonialism which was based on capitalism directly interfered to ensure the greatest profit and benefit for British capitalism.

(i) Every policy was geared towards the strengthening and expansion of British capitalism.
(ii) It changed the law of land as:

• • It changed not just land ownership laws but decided even what crops would be grown and what ought not to be.
  • It altered the way the production and distribution of goods take place.
  • It started interfering with the manufacturing sector.
  • It started occupying forests and clearing trees and starting plantations.
  • Colonialism introduced the forest acts that changed the lives of tribals/pastoralists.
  • It also led to the. movement of people from one part to another in India which ultimately led to the growth of nationalist and anticolonial awareness in the Indian masses.
  • Colonialism affected our lives culturally, politically, and more or less combined the two.
  • Due to mobility and exposure to modern western thoughts people started thinking about freedom, liberty, and human rights which provided the basis for India’s freedom movement. Colonialism also had significant social influences, e.g., Indian society particularly the emerging middle class was gradually changed, i.e., their lifestyle, eating habits, languages, and clothing.

(iii) Political impact of colonialism on Indian society was significant. Our national movement, the political system, the parliamentary and legal system, Constitution, the education system, and the police traffic rules, by and large, the whole political structure changed due to the colonial impact.

Question 35.
Tribes have been classified according to their “permanent” and “original” traits. Explain. [4]
Answer:
Classification of Tribes based on “Permanent” and “Original” traits

Permanent traits:

Exploitation at the hands of the non-tribals. Tribes in India are widely dispersed across regions, stretching from Gujarat and Rajasthan in the West-to-West Bengal and Odisha in the east. In physical-racial terms, tribes can be classified under the Negrito, Australoid, Mongoloid, Dravidian, and Aryan categories.

Based on language, tribes can be classified into four categories: Indo-Aryan, Dravidian, Austric, and Tibeto-Burman. Tribes can also be classified based on the ecological habitats they occupy- hills, forests, rural plains, etc. Size is another criterion for the classification of tribal groups- the biggest are Gonds, Bhils, Oraons, etc; the smallest are Andamanese. (Any three)

Original traits:

Tribes can be categorized based on livelihood into fishermen, food gatherers and hunters, shifting cultivators, peasants, and plantation and industrial workers.

Assimilation into Hindu society: Tribes with the high status accorded to them by the mainstream society and tribes with low status accorded to them by the mainstream society. Attitude towards Hindu Society: Those who are positively inclined towards Hinduism and those who oppose or resist it.

Section – D (18 Marks)

Question 36.
What are the social implications of the small size of the organised sector in India? [6]
Answer:

Very few people have the experience of employment in large firms where they get to meet people from other regions and backgrounds. For example, the Urban settings of your neighbours in a city may be from a different place. Personal relationships determine many aspects of work.

For example, If the employer likes you, you may get a salary raise and if you fight with him or her, you may lose your job. This is different from an organized sector, which has well-defined rules, transparent recruitment, mechanisms for complaints, and redressal in case of disagreement with superiors.

Second, very few Indians have access to secure jobs with benefits. Of those who do, two-thirds work for the government. The rest are forced to depend on their children in their old age. Government employment in India has played a major role in overcoming boundaries of caste religion and region.

Third, since very few people are members of unions, a feature of the organized sector, the unorganised or informal sector workers do not have the experience of collectively fighting for proper wages and safe working conditions. The government has laws to monitor conditions in the unorganised sector, but in practice, they are left to the whims and fancies of the employer or contractor.

Question 37.
What is the meaning of Secularisation? Explain its different elements. [6]
Answer:
According to M.N. Srinivas, secularisation implies that what was previously regarded as religious is now ceasing to be such and it also implies a process of differentiation that results in the various aspects of society, economic, political, legal, and moral becoming increasingly discrete concerning each other.”

In this way, based on the given definition, we can say that secularisation is that process in which the explanation of human behaviour is not done based on religion, but is based upon rationalism. Phenomena are understood based on their reason with function. The effect of religion is decreasing in our daily life. Now, the impact of science and objectivity has increased. M.N. Srinivas gave three essential elements of secularisation which are given below:

Lack of religiousness: First and the important element of secularisation is the decline in the importance of religion. An increase in secularisation will automatically bring change in religious beliefs. A person starts to feel that those religious beliefs or traditions in which he believes, are unable to fulfill any one of his needs. In this way, religious views start to decline.

Rationality: Through rationality, humans start to examine every type of superstition, belief, etc., based on rationality. According to Srinivas, “In rationality, with other things, traditional beliefs and views were changed into modern knowledge.” In this way, rationality increased in humans with the development of modern ideas and values.

Process of differentiation: The process of differentiation is also related to the process of secularisation. Every sector of society, i.e., social, moral, political, etc., is different from each other. Occupation of the person, in modern society.

Question 38.
In your opinion has the Linguistic reorganisation of states helped or harmed India’s unity?
OR
Name any two modern social organisations formed in the nineteenth or early twentieth century. [6]
Answer:
In the 1920s the Indian National Congress was reconstituted on linguistic lines. Its provincial units also followed the logic of language.

• Gandhi and other leaders promised that the new nation would be based on a new set of provinces on the principle of language.
• Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru feared that states based on language might hasten a further subdivision of India. Far from undermining Indian unity, linguistic states have helped strengthen it.
• In 1947, the year when India became independent, there were also movements by Marathi, Kannada, and Telugu speakers.
• The death of Potti Sriramulu in 1953 lead to the formation of the state of Andhra Pradesh, leading further to the formation of the State Reorganisation Commission in 1956.
• In 1956, the map of India was redrawn on linguistic lines, unlike Ceylon where failure to do so led to civil strife.
• It has proved to be perfectly consistent to be Kannadiga and Indian, Bengali and Indian, Tamil and Indian, Gujarati and Indian.

OR

(i) Brahmo Samaj (ii) Arya Samaj III.

New ideas of liberalism and freedom, new ideas of homemaking and marriage, new roles for mothers and daughters, and new ideas of self-conscious pride in culture and tradition emerged. The value of education became very important. It was seen as very crucial for a nation to become modern but also retain its ancient heritage. The idea of female education was debated intensely.

Significantly, it was the social reformer Jyotiba Phule who opened the first school for women in Pune. Reformers argued that for a society to progress women have to be educated. Some of them believed that in pre-modern India, women were educated. Others contested this because this was so only for a privileged few.

Thus attempts to justify female education were made by recourse to both modern and traditional ideas. They actively debated the meanings of tradition and modernity. Jyotiba Phule thus recalled the glory of the pre-Aryan age while others like Bal Gangadhar Tilak emphasized the glory of the Aryan period. In other words, nineteenth-century reform initiated a period of questioning, reinterpretations, and both intellectual and social growth.