Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hrs.
Max. Marks: 40

General Instructions :

• This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Ail questions are compulsory.
• Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
• Part- B has two options i. e. (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one of the given options.
• Question nos. 1 to 3 and 10 are short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Question nos. 4 to 6 and 11 are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each.
• Question nos. 7 to 9 and 12 are long answer-type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organizations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
Following information has been provided by M/s Achyut Health Care. You are required to calculate the amount of medicines consumed during the year 2020-21:

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Stock of medicines as on April 1, 2020	15,00,000
Creditors for medicines as on April 1, 2020	3,50,000
Stock of medicines as on March 31, 2021	10,00,000
Creditors for medicines as on March 31, 2021	4,20,000
Cash purchases of medicines during the year 2020 21	2,00,000
Credit purchases of medicines during the year 2020 21	6,00,000

Answer:

Question 2.
Distinguish between ‘Dissolution of Partnership’ and ‘Dissolution of Partnership Firm’ based on:
(i) Settlement of assets and liabilities
(ii) Economic relationship [2]
Answer:

Basis of Distinction	Dissolution of Partnership	Dissolution of Partnership Firm
(i) Settlement of Assets and Liabilities	Assets are revalued and liabilities are reassessed.	Assets are sold and liabilities are paid off.
(ii) Economic relationship	Economic relationship between the partners continue, though in a changed form.	Economic relationship between the partners comes to an end.

Question 3.
Suresh, Ramesh and Tushar were partners of a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 6: 5 :4. Ramesh retired and his capital after making adjustments on account of reserves, revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities stood at ₹ 2,50,400. Suresh and Tushar agreed to pay him ₹ 2,90,000 in full settlement of his claim.
Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill. Show workings clearly. [2]
Answer:
Journal Entry

Working Notes:
Ramesh’s share of Goodwill – ₹ 2,90,000 – ₹ 2,50,400 – ₹ 39,600

Question 4.
From the following information given by Modern Dance Academy, calculate the amount of Subscription received during the year 2020-21.
(i) Subscription credited to Income & Expenditure A/c for the year ending 31st March, 2021 amounted to ₹ 3,00,000 and each member is required to pay an annual subscription of ₹ 3,000.
(ii) Subscription in arrears as on lsl April 2020 amounted to ₹ 16,000.
(iii) During the year 2020-21, 10 members made partial payment of ₹ 26,000 towards subscription, 8 members failed to pay the subscription amount and 5 members paid the subscription amount for the year 2021-22.
(iv) During the year 2019-20,12 members paid the subscription amount for the year 2020-21.
OR
Following information is given by Alchemy Medical College, Library department for the year 2020-21:

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Books and Journals Fund as on 1.4.2020	4,50,000
7% Books and Journals Fund Investments as on 1.4.2020	4,00,000
Interest on Books and Journals Fund Investments	13,000
Donations for Books and Journals	20,000
Books Purchased	70,000
General Fund as on 1.4.2020	10,00,000

Answer:

OR

Working Notes:
Interest on Books and Journals Investments = 4,00,000 × \(\frac{7}{100}\) = ₹ 28,000
Accrued Interest = 88,000 – 13,000 = 15,000

Question 5.
Harihar, Hemang and Harit were partners with fixed capitals of ₹ 3,00,000, ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹ 1,00,000 respectively. They shared profits in the ratio of their fixed capitals. Harit died on 31st May, 2020, whereas the firm closes its books of accounts on 31st March every year. According to their partnership deed, Harit’s representatives would be entitled to get share in the interim profits of the firm on the basis of sales. Sales and profit for the year 2019-20 amounted to ₹ 8,00,000 and ₹ 2,40,000 respectively and sales from 1st April, 2020 to 31st May, 2020 amounted to ₹ 1,50,000. The rate of profit to sales remained constant during these two years. You are required to:
(i) Calculate Harit’s share in profit.
Answer:
Ratio of Profit to Sales = \(\frac{2,40,000}{3,00,000}\) × 100 = 30%
Profit upto the date of death = 1,50,000 × 30% = ₹ 45,000
Profit-sharing ratio = 3 : 2 : 1
Harit’s share of profit = 45,000 × \(\frac{1}{6}\) = 7,500

(ii) Pass journal entry to record Harit’s share in profit. [3]
Answer:

(Being Harit’s share in profit transferred to his current Account)

Question 6.
Vedesh Ltd. purchased a running business of Vibhu Enterprises for a sum of ₹ 12,00,000. Vedesh Ltd. paid ₹ 60,000 by drawing a promissory note in favour of Vibhu Enterprises., ₹ 1,90,000 through bank draft and balance by issue of 8% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5%. The assets and liabilities of Vibhu Enterprises consisted of Fixed Assets valued at ₹ 17,30,000 and Trade Payables at ₹ 3,20,000.
You are required to pass necessary journal entries in the books of Vedesh Ltd.
OR
Youth Ltd. took a loan of ₹ 15,00,000 from State Bank of India against the security of tangible assets. In addition to principal security, it issued 10,000 11% debentures of ₹ 100 each as collateral security.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions, if the company decided to record the issue of 11% debentures as collateral security and show the presentation in the Balance Sheet of Youth Ltd. [3]
Answer:
In the Books of Vedesh Ltd.

Working Notes:
Number of debentures issued = \(\frac{9,50,000}{95}\) = 10,000

OR

Balance Sheet of Youth Ltd. (An extract)

Notes to Accounts:

Question 7.
Madhav, Madhusudan and Mukund were partners in Jaganath Associates. They decided to dissolve the firm on 31st March, 2021. Pass necessary journal entries for the following transactions after various assets (other than cash) and third-party liabilities have been transferred to realisation account:
(i) Old machine fully written off was sold for ₹ 42,000 while a payment of ₹ 6,000 is made to bank for a bill discounted being dishonoured.
(ii) Madhusudan accepted an unrecorded asset of ₹ 80,000 at ₹ 75,000 and the balance through cheque. Against the payment of his loan to the firm of ₹ 1,00,000.
(iii) Stock of book value of ₹ 30,000 was taken by Madhav, Madhusudan and Mukund in their profit sharing ratio.
(iv) The firm had paid realisation expenses amounting to ₹ 5,000 on behalf of Mukund.
(v) There was a vehicle loan of ₹ 2,00,000 which was paid by surrender of asset to the bank at an agreed value of ₹ 1,40,000 and the shortfall was met from firm’s bank account.
OR
Gini, Bini and Mini were in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 2. Their Balance
Sheet as at 31st March, 2021 was as follows:

On 31st March, 2021, Gini retired from the firm. All the partners agreed to revalue the assets and liabilities
on the following basis:
(i) Bad debts amounted to ₹ 5,000. A provision for doubtful debts was to be maintained at 10% on debtors.
(ii) Partners have decided to write off existing goodwill.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 54,000 and be adjusted into the Capital Accounts of Bini and Mini, who will share profits in future in the ratio of 5:4.
(iv) The assets and liabilities valued as: Inventories ₹ 30,000; Machinery ₹ 82,000; Furniture ₹ 1,95,000 and Building ₹ 6,00,000.
(v) Liability of ₹ 23,000 is to be created on account of Claim for Workmen Compensation.
(vi) There was an unrecorded investment in shares of ₹ 25,000. It was decided to pay off Gini by giving her unrecorded investment in full settlement of her part payment of ₹ 28,000 and remaining amount after two months.
Prepare Revaluation Account and Partners’ Capital Accounts as on 31st March, 2021.
Answer:

Working Notes:

OR

Working Notes:
Total goodwill of the firm valued at ₹ 54,000.
The retiring partner Ginni’s share 54,000 × \(\frac{5}{9}\) = ₹ 30,000
∴ ₹ 30,000 to be distributed or shared by remaining partner’s Binni & Mini in gain ratio, which is calculated as follows:
Gain ratio = New Ratio – Old Ratio
Bini’s share = \(\frac{5}{9}-\frac{2}{9}=\frac{3}{9}\)
Mini’s share = \(\frac{4}{9}-\frac{2}{9}=\frac{2}{9}\)
∴ Gain ratio between Bini & Mini is 3 : 2
As as a result,goodwill of 3O,000 is to be distributed among Bini and Mini in 3 : 2.
Bini = 30,000 × 3/5 = ₹ 18,000
Mini = 30,000 × 2/5 = ₹ 12,000

Question 8.
Yogadatra Ltd. (pharmaceutical company) appointed marketing expert, Mr. Kartikay as the CEO of the company, with a target to penetrate their roots in the rural regions. Mr. Kartikay discussed the ways and means to achieve target of the company with financial, production and marketing departmental heads and asked the finance manager to prepare the budget. After reviewing the suggestions given by all the departmental heads, the finance manager proposed requirement of an additional fund of ₹ 52,50,000. Yogadatra Ltd. is a zero-debt company. To avail the benefits of financial leverage, the finance manager proposed to include debt in the capital structure. After deliberations, on Aprill,2020, the board of directors had decided to issue 6% Debentures of ?100 each to the public at a premium of 5%, redeemable after 5 years at ₹ 110 per share.
You are required to answer the following questions:
(i) Calculate the number of debentures to be issued to raise additional funds.
Answer:
Number of debentures to be issued = \(\frac{52,50,000}{105}\) = 50,000

(ii) Pass Journal entry for the allotment of debentures.
Answer:

(iii) Pass Journal entry to write off loss on issue of debentures.
Answer:

(iv) Calculate the amount of annual fixed obligation associated with debentures. [5]
Answer:
Interest on 6% Debentures = 50,00,000 × \(\frac{6}{100}\) = ₹ 3,00,000

(v) Prepare Loss on Issue of Debentures Account.
Answer:
Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c

Question 9.
From the following Receipts and Payments Account and additional information provided by Ramanath Club, Prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ending on 31st March, 2021.

Receipts and Payments Account

Additional Information:
(i) Subscription received during the year includes ₹ 25,000 as donation for Building.
(ii) Telephone bill unpaid as on March 31, 2020 was ₹ 4,000 and on March 31, 2021 ₹ 2,600.
(iii) Value of 8% Government Securities on March 31, 2020 was ₹ 80,000.
(iv) Additional Government Securities worth ₹ 30,000 were purchased on March 31, 2021. [5]
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account

Part B
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
State whether the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash while preparing cash flow statement:
(i) Decrease in outstanding employees benefits by ₹ 3,000
(ii) Increase in Current Investment by ₹ 6,000. [2]
Answer:
(i) Out flow
(ii) Increase in Current Investments may result in decrease in cash flow or you can say, it results in outflow of cash or negative cash flow. When an asset increases during the year, it may mean that cash must have been used to purchase the new assets.
∴ It will result in outflow of cash.

Question 11.
From the following details provided by Kumud Ltd., prepare Comparative Statement of Profit & Loss for the year ended 31st March, 2021

OR
From the following Balance Sheets of Vinayak Ltd. as at 31st March, 2021, Prepare a Common-size Balance Sheet. [3]
Vinayak Ltd.
Balance Sheet
(as on 31st March, 2021)

Answer:
Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss
(for the year ended 31s1 March, 2021)

OR

Question 12.
On the basis of information given by Aradhana Ltd., prepare Cash Flow Statement for the year ending 31st March, 2021:
Aradhana Ltd.
Balance Sheet
(as on 31stMarch, 2021)

Note to Accounts:

Additional Information:
1. Debentures were redeemed on 1st April,2020.
2. Tax paid during the year ₹ 2,80,000. [5]
Answer:
Cash Flow Statement
(for the year ending 31st March, 2021)

3. Calculation of Interest on Debentures:
₹ 2,00,000 x 10% = ₹ 20,000

4. Provision for Depreciation Account

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper contains 37 questions.
• Questions 1-20 in Section A are objective type-very short answer type questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Questions 21 – 27 in Section B are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Questions 28 – 34 in Section C are long-answer 1 type questions carrying 3 marks each.
• Questions 35 – 37 in Section D are long-answer 11 type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in six questions of one mark, two questions of two marks, two questions of three marks and two questions of five marks. You must attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
• Use log tables, if necessary. Use of calculator is not allowed.

Section – A

Question 1.
What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide? [1]
(A) 0.034%
(B) 27.27%
(C) 3.4%
(D) 28.7%

OR

The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH₂O and 180 g respectively. What will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(A) C₉H₁₈O₉
(B) CH₂O
(C) C₆H₁₂O₆
(D) C₂H₄O₂
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Molecular mass of CO₂ = 12 + 2(16)
= 12 + 32 = 44 g
44 g of CO₂ contains 12 g atoms of carbon. Mass percent of carbon
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of carbon in } \mathrm{CO}_2}{\text { Molar mass of } \mathrm{CO}_2}\) × 100s
= \(\frac{12}{44}\) × 100
= 27.27%
OR
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Empirical formula mass (CH₂O)
= 12 + 2(1) + 16 = 30g
Molecular mass = 180g
n = \(\frac{\text { Molecular mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}\)
= \(\frac{180}{30}\) = 6

Molecular formula= n × empirical formula
= 6 × CH₂O
= C₆H₁₂O₆

Question 2.
On the basis of thermochemical equations (i), (ii) and (iii), find out which of the algebraic relationship given in options (A) to (D) is correct. [1]
(i) C (graphite) + O₂(g) → C0₂(g); Δ_fH = x kj mol^-1
(ii) C (graphite) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂ (g) → CO(g); Δ_rH = y kj mol^-1
(iii) CO (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂ (g) → C0₂ (g) ;ΔH = z kj mol^-1
(A) z = x + y
(B) x = y – z
(C) x = y + z
(D) y = 2z – x
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: The algebric relationships of the given reaction is Eq.(i) – Eq.(ii) = Eq.(iii)
(i) C_(graphite) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g) ; Δ_rH = x kJ mol^-1
(ii) C_(graphite) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂(g) → CO(g) ; Δ_rH = V kJ
(iii) CO_(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂(g) → CO₂(g) ; Δ_rH = z kJ mol^-1
Hence, x – y = z or x = y + z

Question 3.
Dipole-dipole forces act between the molecules possessing permanent dipole. Ends of dipoles possess ‘partial charges’. The partial charge is : [1]
(A) more than unit electronic charge.
(B) equal to unit electronic charge.
(C) less than unit electronic charge.
(D) double the unit electronic charge.
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
Partial charge is the small charge developed by displacement of electrons.

Question 4.
The first ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order : [1]
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(C) Na < Mg < Al < Si (D) Na > Mg > Al < Si OR Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species: (A) I > I^– > I⁺
(B) I⁺ > I^– > I
(C) I > I⁺ > I^–
(D) I^– > I > I⁺
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
On moving from left to right in a period first ionisation enthalpy increases normally. But, in Mg, as an electron needs to be removed from fully filled s orbital therefore, first ionisation enthalpy of Mg is more than Al.

OR

Option (D) is correct.

Explanation :
Size of cation is smaller while that of anion is bigger than its parent atom.

Question 5.
What will be correct order of vapour pressure of water, acetone and ether at 30°C. Given that among these compounds, water has maximum boiling point and ether has minimum boiling point? [1]
(A) Water < ether <acetone
(B) Water < acetone < ether
(C) Ether < acetone < water
(D) Acetone < ether < water
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Greater is the boiling point, less is the vapour pressure.

Question 6.
Which of the following carbocation is most stable?

(B) (CH₃)₃C⁺
(C) CH₃CH₂⁺CH₂
(D) CH₃⁺CHCH₂CH₃
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Tertiary carbocation is most stable.

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The variables Pressure, Volume, Concentration and Temperature may change the State of Equilibrium. The change is governed by the Le-Chatelier’s principle. The decomposition of NH3(g) can be made spontaneous by increasing the temperature and lowering pressure. In the reaction, removal of any product from the reaction mixture makes the reversible reaction irreversible and therefore, reaction proceeds to completion.
Answer the questions (7) to (10) given below:

Question 7.
The equilibrium Solid → Liquid → Gas will shift in forward direction when:
(A) temperature is increased
(B) temperature is lowered
(C) pressure is increased
(D) pressure is lowered
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Increase in temperature will favour the forward reaction which is endothermic.

Question 8.
Change in free energy for the equilibrium, gaseous reaction, PCl₅ → PCl₃ + Cl₂ on addition of an inert gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is respectively:
(A) decrease, no change
(B) increase, no change
(C) no change, no change
(D) no change, decrease
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Addition of inert gas at constant volume has no effect on any equilibrium reaction. When inert gas is added at constant pressure in the given reaction, it proceeds in forward direction. DG° remains constant, but DG decreases as the reaction proceeds spontaneously in forward direction to attain equilibrium.

Question 9.
At 25°C, the equilibrium constant K1 and I(z are for the reactions:

Which of the following shows the relation between two equilibrium constants?
(A) K₂ = K₂
(B) K₂ = 1/(K)
(D) K₁ = 1/(K)
(D) K₁ = 1/K₂
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

Question 10.
A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its boiling point. On an average, the molecules in the two phases have equal:
(A) Intermolecular forces
(B) Potential energy
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) None of these
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
At boiling point, liquid and vapour phases both are present. So, the molecules in the two phases have equal kinetic energy.

Question 11.
The addition of HCl to an alkene proceeds in two steps. The first step is the attack of W ion to >C =C< portion which can be shown as A I

Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Since double bond is a source of electrons and the charge flows from source of more electron density, therefore, electrons of the double bond attack the proton.

Question 12.
How will you convert: ethyne to but-2-yne. [1]
Answer:

Commonly Made Error
Students directly write the products and forget to mention side products and reaction conditions.

Answering Tip
Make a list of important conversions and learn them.
Understand each step and conditions involved during conversion reactions.

Question 13.
The structure of triphenylmethyl cation is given here. This is very stable and some of its salts can be stored for months. Explain the cause of high stability of this cation.

Answer:
Triphenylmethyl cation is a tertiary carbocation which can show nine possible canonical structures and hence is very stable. The three canonical forms for one benzene ring are shown below.

Question 14.
Can we separate two liquids A (b.p. 353 K) and B (b.p. 365 K) present in a mixture by simple distillation? [1]
Answer:
No, because in simple distillation, vapours of both the liquids will be formed simultaneously and will condense together in receiver as the difference between the boiling points is very less. They can be separated by fractional distillation.

Commonly Made Error
Students sometimes answer in yes or no without giving legit explanation.

Answering Tip:
The alternate method of separation also must be mentioned.

Question 15.
What do you mean by cracking? [1]
Answer:
The thermal decomposition of higher hydrocarbons into lower hydrocarbons in the presence or absence of a catalyst is called cracking.

Question 16.
Assign the oxidation number to Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇.
Answer:
Let the oxidation number of Cr be x
2 × (+1) + 2x + 7 × (- 2) = 0
2 + 2x – 14 = 0
2x – 12 = 0
x = \(\frac{12}{2}\) = +6
Oxidation number of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇ = +6

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Toluene on Friedal-Crafts methylation gives o- and p-xylene.
Reason (R): CH₃-group bonded to benzene ring increases electron density at o- and p- position.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): Benzene on heating with cone. H₂SO₄ gives benzene sulphonic acid which when heated with superheated steam under pressure gives benzene. [1]
Reason (R): Sulphonation is a reversible process.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:
Sulphonation of benzene is an electrophilic substitution reaction in which SO₃ acts as the electrophile.

Question 19.
Why there is large number of lines in hydrogen spectrum? [1]
Answer:
Large number of lines are there in hydrogen spec¬trum because different possible transitions can be observed which leads to large number of spectral lines.

Question 20.
Pressure is determined as force per unit area of the surface. The SI unit of pressure, pascal is as shown below:
1 Pa = 1 Nm^-2
If mass of air at sea level is 1034 g cm^-2, calculate the pressure in pascal. [1]
Answer:
Mass of air at sea level = 1034 g cm^-2
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 ms^-2
Pressure is the force or weight per unit area.

Section – B

Question 21.
What does the following prefixes stand for
(a) pico
(b) nano
(c) micro
(d) deci
OR
Write main points of Dalton’s atomic theory. [2]
Answer:

Prefixe	Stand for
(a) pico (p)	10-12
(b) nano (n)	10-9
(c) micro (μ)	10-6
(d) deci (d)	10-1

OR
The main points of Dalton’s atomic theory are:
(i) All matters are made of atoms. Atoms are indivisible and indestructible.
(ii) All atoms of a given element are identical in mass and properties. Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
(iii) Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in a fixed ratio.
(iv) Chemical reactions involve reorganisation of atoms. These are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

Question 22.
Chlorophyll present in green leaves of plants absorbs light at 4.620 × 10¹⁴Hz. Calculate the wavelength of radiation in nanometer. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does it belong to? [2]
Answer:
Given, v = 4.620 × 10¹⁴ Hz
λ = ?
Wavelength λ = \(\frac{c}{v}\)
= 0.6494 × 10^-6 m
= 649.4 × 10^-9 m
= 649.4 nm
It belongs to visible region.

Question 23.
In both water and diethyl ether, the central atom viz. O-atom has same hybridisation. Why do they have different bond angles? Which one has greater bond angle? [2]
Answer:
Both water and diethyl ether have the central atom O in sp³ hybrid state with two lone pairs of electrons

But due to the greater repulsion between two ethyl (C₂H₅) groups in diethyl ether than between two H-atoms in H₂O result in greater bond angle (110°) in diethyl ether than 104.5° in that of water (H₂O).

Question 24.
(a) Why is an organic compound fused with sodium for testing nitrogen, halogens and sulphur?
(b) Under what conditions can the process of steam distillation used? [2]
Answer:
(i) On fusing with sodium metal, the elements present in an organic compound are converted from covalent form into the ionic form.
(ii) Steam distillation is used to purify the substances which are steam volatile and water and the liquid are not miscible with each other.

Question 25.
Write the name of the isomerism shown by the following pairs:
(i) Buta-1,3-diene and But-l-yne (C⁴H⁶)
(ii) Ethoxy butane and Propoxy propane (C⁶H¹⁴O). [2]
OR
Which bond is more polar in the following pairs of molecules.
(i) H³C-H, H³C-Br
(ii) H³C-NH², H²C-OH
Answer:
(i) Functional isomerism
H₂C=CH – CH = CH₂ and HC = C-CH₂CH₃

(ii) Metamerism
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – O- CH₂CH₃ and C₃H₇OC₃H₇

Commonly Made Error
Students get confuse and give wrong answers.

Answering Tip
Understand different type of isomerism with examples, different functional groups too.
OR
(i) C-Br because Br is more electronegative than H.
(ii) C-O because O is more electronegative than N.

Question 26.
An alkane C⁸H¹⁸ is obtained as the only product on subjecting a primary alkyl halide to Wurtz reaction. On
monobromination this alkane yields a single isomer of a tertiary bromide. Write the structure of alkane and the tertiary bromide. [2]
Answer:

Question 27.
What are relative stabilities of different conformations of ethane? Is is possible to isolate these at room temperature? [2]
Answer:
Staggered form of ethane is more stable than the eclipsed form because the force of repulsion between hydrogen atoms on adjacent C atom is minimum. The energy difference between the staggered form and the eclipsed form of ethane is just 12.55 kJ mol- 1. Therefore, it is not possible for these two forms of ethane to isolate at room temperature.

Section – C

Question 28.
What are (a) representative elements (b) transition elements (c) Lanthanoid and actinoids. Give their position in modern periodic table. [3]
Answer:
(a) Representative Elements : Group 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 exhibit the main groups of the periodic table and so, the elements of these groups are collectively called representative elements.
These elements belong to s-block and p-block in modern periodic table.

(b) Transition Elements : d-block transition metals form a bridge between the chemically active metals of s-block elements and the less active elements of Groups 13 and 14 are known as transition elements.

(c) Lanthanoids and Actinoids : The elements of 4f series [i.e., from Ce (Z = 58) to Lu (Z = 71)] are called lanthanoids and the elements of 5f series [i.e., from Th (Z = 90) to Lr (Z = 103)] are called actinoids. These elements belong to /-block elements in the modern periodic table which lie at the bottom of the periodic table.

Question 29.
The Mn³⁺ ion is unstable in solution and undergoes disproportionation to give Mn²⁺, MnO₂ and H⁺ ion. Write a balanced ionic equation for the reaction. [3]
Answer:
The skeletal ionic equation is,
Mn³⁺(aq) → Mn²⁺(aq) + MnO₂(s) + H⁺(aq)

Reduction half reaction
Mn³⁺(aq) + e^– → Mn²⁺

Oxidation half reaction
Mn³⁺(aq)→ MnO₂ + e^–

Balance charge by adding 4H+ to right side and then balance O atoms by adding 2H₂O to left side in oxidation half reaction
Mn³⁺(aq) + 2H₂O(l) → MnO₂(s) + e^– + 4H⁺(aq)
By adding both equations, we get
2Mn³⁺(aq) + 2H₂O(l) → Mn²⁺ + MnO₂(s) + 4H⁺(aq)
This represents the balanced redox reaction (disproportionation reaction).

Question 30.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the following data :
(i) CH₃OH(l) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)0₂(g) → C0₂(g)+ 2H₂O(l) Δ_rH° = – 726 kj/mol
(ii) C(s) + 0₂(g) → C0₂(g); Δ_cH° = – 393 kj/mol
(iii) H₂(g) + ½O₂(g) → H₂O(l); Δ_fH° = – 286 kj/mol. [3]
Answer:
The required equation is
C(s) + 2H₂(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O₂(g) → CH₃OHO);
Δ_fH° = ± ?
To get the above required equation :
Step 1 : Multiply eq. (iii) by 2 and add to eq. (ii)
C(s) + 2H₂(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l) ……………(iv)
Δ_fH° = (2 x – 286) + (- 393)
= – 572 – 393
= – 965 kJ/mol

Step 2 : Subtract eq. (i) from eq. (iv)
C(s) + 2H₂(g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂(g) → CH₃OH(l);
ΔH = – 965 – (- 726)
= – 239 kJ/mol
Δ_fH° = – 239 kJ/mol

Question 31.
(i) State the formula and name of the conjugate base of each of the following acids :
(a) H₃O⁺
(b) HSO₄^–
(c) NH₄⁺
(d) HF
(e) CH₃COOH
(f) CH₃NH₃⁺
(g) H₃PO₄
(h) H₂PO₄^–

(ii) The ionic product of water is 0.11 × 10^-14 at 273 K, 1 × 10^-14 at 298 K and 7.5 × 10^-14 at 373K. Deduce from this data whether the ionization of water to hydrogen and hydroxide ion is exothermic or endothermic. [3]
Answer:
(i) The formula and name of the conjugate base are:
(a) H₃O⁺: Water
(b) SO₄^2- : Sulphate ion
(c) NH₃ : Ammonia
(d) F^– : Fluoride ion
(e) CH₃COO^– : Acetate ion
(f) CH₃NH₂ : Methylamine
(g) H₂PO₄ : Dihydrogen phosphate
(h)H₂PO₄^2- : Mono hydrogen phosphate

(ii) K_w = [H₃O⁺] [OH^–]
According to the data, the value of K, is increasing with temperature. Therefore, according to Le- Chateliebs principle, the ionisation of water is endothermic.

Question 32.
Explain:
(i) Tea or coffee is sipped from the saucer, when it is quite hot.
(ii) Liquids possess fluidity. [3]
Answer:
(i) Tea or coffee is sipped from the saucer, when it is quite hot because it has larger surface area than the cup. In larger surface area, the rate of evaporation is faster due to which tea or coffee cools rapidly.
(ii) Liquids have indefinite shape. They take the shape of the container in which they are placed. This is due to the fact that the molecules of liquids are in a state of constant random motion and therefore they can move freely. So, the liquids possess fluidity.

Question 33.
(a) The effect of uncertainty principle is significant only for motion of microscopic particles and is negligible for the macroscopic particles. Justify the statement with the help of a suitable example.
(b) What is the difference between the terms orbit and orbital ? [3]
Answer:
If mass of an object = 1 mg = 10^-6 kg
Then, according to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle,

Since, the value of Δx.Δv obtained is very small and is insignificant. So, effect of uncertainty principle is significant only for motion of microscopic particles and is negligible for the macroscopic particles.
(b)

Orbit	Orbital
1. An orbit is well defined circular path around the nucleus in which the electrons revolve.	1. An orbital is the three­dimensional space around the nucleus within which the prob­ability of finding an electron is maximum (upto 90%).
2. It represents the planar motion of an electron around the nucleus.	2. It represents the three dimensional motion of an electron around the nucleus.

Question 34.
Calculate the number of moles:
(i) 5.0 L of 0.75 M Na₂CO₃
(ii) 7.85 g of Fe
(iii) 34.2 g of sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) [3]
OR
A compound made up of two elements A and B has A = 70%, B= 30%. Their relative number of moles in the compound is 1.25 and 1.88, calculate:
(i) Atomic masses of the elements A and B.
(ii) Molecular formula of the compound, if its molecular mass is found to be 160.
Answer:
(i) Number of moles of Na2 CO3 = Molarity × Volume of solution in litre
= 0.75 × 5
= 3.75 mol

(ii) Number of moles of Fe
= \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Molecular mass }}\)
= \(\frac{34.2}{342}\)
= 0.14

(iii) Number of moles of sucrose
= \(\frac{\text { Mass }}{\text { Molecular mass }}\)
= \(\frac{34.2}{342}\)
= 0.1

OR

(i) Atomic mass of element A
= \(\frac{\% \text { of element } \mathrm{A}}{\text { Relative number of moles }}\)
= \(\frac{70}{1.25}\)
= 56

Atomic mass of element B
= \(\frac{\% \text { of element } \mathrm{B}}{\text { Relative number of moles }}\)
= \(\frac{30}{1.88}\)
= 15.957 ≈ 16
(ii)

Compound	Simplest molar ratio	Simplest whole-number ratio
A	\( \frac{1.25}{1.25} \)= 1	2
B	\( \frac{1.88}{1.25} \)= 15	3

Empirical formula of compound = A₂B₃
Molecular mass = 160
Empirical formula mass
= 2(56) + 3(16)
= 112 + 48 = 160

n = \(\frac{\text { Molecular mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}\)
= \(\frac{160}{160}\) = 1

Molecular formula
= n × Empirical formula
= 1 × A₂B₃
= A₂B₃

Commonly Made Error:
Sometimes students forget to multiply by n while finding molecular formula and do mistakes.

Answering Tip:
Understand the problem and check for the necessary data, which are available in the problem. Follow steps and ensure no steps are missed.

Section – D

Question 35.
(i) For each of the following compounds, write a more condensed formula and also their bond-line formulae.

(ii) Write the I.U.RA.C. name of

OR
(a) A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0.5 M H₂SO₄. The residual acid required 60 mL of 0.5 M solution of NaOH for neutralisation. Find the percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound.
(b) In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 0.468 g of an organic sulphur compound afforded 0.668 g of barium sulphate. Find out the percentage of sulphur in the given compound.
Answer:
(i) Condensed formulae
(a) (CH₃)₂CHCH₂OH
(b) CH₃(CH₂)₅CHBrCH₂CHO
(c) HO(CH₂)₃CH(CH₃)CH(CH₃)₂
(d) HOCH(CN)₂

Bond-line formulae-

Commonly Made Error
Sometimes students ignore the triple bond in (ii) question.

Answering Tip
While writing bond-line formula, observe carefully. It is similar to structural formula.

OR

Given that, total mass of organic compound = 0.50 g 60 mL of 0.5 M solution of NaOH was required by residual acid for neutralisation.
60 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution = \(\frac{60}{2}\)mL of 0.5 M
H₂SO₄ = 30 mL of 0.5 M H₂SO₄
Acid consumed in absorption of evolved ammonia is (50-30) mL = 20 mL
Again, 20 mL of 0.5 M
H₂SO₄ = 40 mL of 0.5 M NH₃
Also, since 1000 mL of 1 M NH₃ contains 14 g of nitrogen,
40 mL of 0.5 M NH₃ will contains = \(\frac{14 \times 40}{1000}\) × 0.5
= 0.28 g of N
Therefore, percentage of nitrogen in 0.50 g of organic compound = \(\frac{0.28}{0.50}\) × 100
= 5.6%

Commonly Made Error
Students forget steps and end up with mistakes.

Answering Tip
Understand the problem and practice steps wise and do calculations carefully.

(b) Given, total mass of organic compound = 0.468 g Mass of barium sulphate formed = 0.668 g
1 mol of BaSO₄ = 233 g of BaSO₄ = 32 g of sulphur
Thus, 0.668 g of BaSO₄ contains \(\frac{32 \times 0.668}{233}\) g of
sulphur = 0.0917 g of sulphur

Therefore, percentage of sulphur = \(\frac{0.0917}{0.468}\) × 100
= 19.59 %
Hence, the percentage of sulphur in the given compound is 19.59 %.

Question 36.
Give mechanism of addition of HBr to Propene. [5]
Answer:
Addition of HBr to propene (unsymmetrical alkene) follows Markovnikov’s rule according to which the negative part of the addendum gets attached to that C atom which possesses lesser number of hydrogen atoms.

Mechanism: Hydrogen bromide provides an electrophile, H⁺, which attacks the double bond to form carbocation as:

Secondary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations. Therefore, the former predominates as it will form at a faster rate. Thus, in the next step, Br^– attacks the carbocation to form 2-bromopropane as the major product.

Addition of HBr to unsymmetrical alkenes like propene in the presence of light or peroxide takes place contrary to the Markovnikov’s rule. This so happens only with HBr but not with HCl and HI. This addition of HBr to propene in the presence of benzoyl peroxide follows anti-Markovnikov’s rule or peroxide effect or Kharasch effect.

Secondary free radicals are more stable than primary radicals. Therefore, the former predominates since it forms at a faster rate. Thus, 1-bromopropane is obtained as the major product.

Commonly Made Errors

• Some students write the reaction, but forget to explain the mechanism.
• Some students forget to explain the attack of Br- on carbocation.

Answering Tip
Students must explain addition using Markovnikov’s rule as well as anti – Markovnikov’s rule.

Question 37.
Derive the relationship between AH and AU for an ideal gas. Explain each term involved in the equation. [5]
OR
Graphically show the total work done in an expansion when the state of an ideal gas is changed reversibly and isothermally from (p_i, V_i to (p_f V_f). With the help of a pV plot, compare the work done in the above case with that carried out against a constant external pressure p_f.
Answer:
According to first law of thermodynamics,
q = ∆U + W
= ∆U + p∆V
At constant volume, ∆V = 0
qv = ∆U
where qv = Heat absorbed at constant volume
∆U = Change in internal energy
Similarly qp = DH
where qp = Heat absorbed at constant pressure
DH = Enthalpy change of the system
Since, the enthalpy change of a system is equal to heat absorbed or heat evolved by the system at constant pressure.
Now, at constant pressure
∆H = ∆U + p∆V
∆V = change in volume
∆H = ∆U + p(V_f – V_i)
∆H = ∆U + (pV_f – pV_i) …(i)
V_i = initial volume of the system
V_f = Final volume of the system

For ideal gases,
pV = nRT
pV_i = nRT
and pV_f = n_pRT
where n_r = number of moles of the gaseous reactants
n_p = number of moles of the gaseous products

Equation (i) becomes,
∆H = ∆U + (n_pRT – n_rRT)
= ∆U + (n_p – n_r) RT
or ∆H = ∆U + ∆_ngRT
where ∆_ng = Difference between the number of moles of the gaseous products and reactants.

Commonly Made Error
Students miss steps and explanations and thus lose marks.

Answering Tip
Understand the derivation step by step and practice thoroughly. Explain all the terms involved in the equations.

OR

(i) Reversible work is represented by the combined areas ABC and BCV_iV_f.
(ii) Work against constant pressure, p_f is represented by the area BCV_iV_f .
Work (i) > Work (ii)

Commonly Made Error
Students make mistakes while drawing the graph.

Answering Tip
Understand and practice the graph thoroughly.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths with Solutions Set 4 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths Set 4 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper consists of 36 questions divided into 4 Sections A, B, C and D.
• Section A comprises of 20 questions of 1 mark each, Section B comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C comprises of 6 questions of 4 marks each and Section D comprises of 4 questions of 6 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However internal choice has been provided in 6 questions of 1 mark, 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 4 marks and 2 questions of 6 marks. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
• Write the serial number of questions before attempting.
• Use of a calculator is not permitted.

Section – A
Question numbers 1 to 10 carries 1 mark each. For each of these questions, four alternative choices have been provided of which only one is correct. Select the correct choice :

Section – A
Question numbers 1 to 10 carries 1 mark each. For each of these questions, four alternative choices have been provided of which only one choice is correct. Select the correct choice :

Question 1.
If x, 2y, 3z are in A.E where the distinct numbers x, y, z are in G.E then the common ratio of the G.P is
(A) 3
(B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(C) 2
(D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
Given that, x, 2y, 3z are in AP and x, y, z are in GP
So y² = xz
⇒ 4y = x + 3z
From these equations we get,

Common ratio of GP as \(\frac{y}{x}=\frac{z}{y}=\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 2.
One vertex of the equilateral triangle with centroid at the origin and one side asx + y- 2 = 0is
(A) (-1,-1)
(B) (2,2)
(C) (-2,-2)
(D) (2,-2)

OR

For specifying a straight line, how many geometrical parameters should be known?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
We know that,
One side of triangle is x + y- 2 = 0
and Centroid is 0rigin(0,0,0)
The required vertex of equilateral triangle is (-2, -2).

OR

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:
We know that,
For specifying a straight line we have to know only 2 parameters one vertex and slope.

Question 3.
If y = \(\frac{\sin (x+9)}{\cos x}\) then \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at x = 0 is equal to :
(A) cos 9
(B) sin 9
(C) 0
(D) 1

OR

If f(x) = x – [x], ∈ R, then f'(\(\frac{1}{2}\)) is equal to :
(A) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) -1
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
We have
y = \(\frac{\sin (x+9)}{\cos x}\)

\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at x = 0

\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cos 9

OR

Option (B) is correct

Explanation: Given that,
f(x) = x – [x]
f'(x) at x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ f'(\(\frac{1}{2}\)) = 1

Question 4.
L is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from a point P(3,4,5) on the XY-plane. The coordinates of point L are
(A) (3,0,0)
(B) (0,4,3)
(C) (3,0,5)
(D) None of these
OR
What is the length of foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P (3, 4, 5) on Y-axis?
(A) \(\sqrt{41}\)
(B) \(\sqrt{34}\)
(C) 5
(D) None of these
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:
We have,
Perpendicular drawn from point P(3, 4, 5) to XY plane have coordinates as (3,4,0)

OR

Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
Length of foot of perpendicular drawn from point P(3,4,5) on Y-axis
⇒ Distance between points P(3,4,5) and (0,4,0)
So Distance = \(\sqrt{9+0+25}\)
= \(\sqrt{34}\)

Question 5.
The following information relate to a sample of size 60, Σx² = 18000, and Σx = 960. Then, the variance is
(A) 6.63
(B) 16
(C) 22
(D) 44
Answer:
Option (D) is correct

Explanation:
We have,
n = 60, Σx = 960, Σx² = 18000
Using the formula for variance,
Variance = 44

Question 6.
If a single letter is selected at random from the word ‘PROBABILITY’. Then find the probability if is a vowel.
(A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(B) \(\frac{4}{11}\)
(C) \(\frac{2}{11}\)
(D) \(\frac{3}{11}\)
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
We know that, letter “PROBABILITY” has vowels = 4 consonants = 7
Probability of getting vowel = \(\frac{4}{11}\)

Question 7.
If |x + 2| ≤ 9, then
(A) x ∈ 6 (-7,11)
(B) x ∈ 6 (-11,7)
(C) x ∈ (-∞, -7) ∪ (11, ∞)
(D) x ∈ (-∞,-7) ∪ (-11, ∞)
Answer:
Option (B) is correct

Explanation:
Given that,
⇒ |x + 2| ≤ 9
So we have ⇒ x ≥ = -11 and x ≤ 7
x ∈ [-11, 7]

Question 8.
The eccentricity of the hyperbola whose latus rectum between the foci is is 8 and conjugate axis is equal to half of the distance
(A) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
(B) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(C) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(D) None of these
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
We have,
Latus rectum = 8
Length of conjugate axis is half of the distance . between the foci
⇒ Eccentricity, e = \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 9.
Equation of Y-axis is considered as
(A) x = 0, y = 0
(B) y = 0, z = 0
(C) z = 0, x = 0
(D) None of these
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:
We know that,
Equation of Y-axis is z = 0 and x = 0.

Question 10.
If a, b, c, d and e be the observation of the mean m and standard deviation s, then find the standard deviation of the observations a + k, b + k, c + k, d + k and e + k is
(A) s
(B) ks
(C) s + k
(D) \(\frac{s}{k}\)
Answer:
Option (A) is correct

Explanation:
We have,
Mean = m
SD = s
For the observations a+k, b+k, c+k, d+k and c+k
The SD remains unaffected of addition of any constant value
So, Required SD = s

Question numbers 11 to 15 carry 1 mark each. Write whether the statement is true/false.

Question 11.
The last two digits of the numbers 3400 are 01.
OR
If the expansion of \(\left(x-\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^{2 \pi}\) contains a term independent of x, then n is a multiple of 2.
Answer:
True

Explanation:
The last two digits of the number (3)⁴⁰⁰ will be equal to 3⁽⁰⁰⁾ = 01

OR

False

Explanation:
If a term in expansion of (x – 1/x²)²ⁿ is independent of x then it is not compulsory that n is a multiple of 2.
Hence given statement is False.

Question 12.
If x < -5 and x > -2, then x e (- ∞, -5).
Answer:
True

Explanation:
It is true that if x ≤ 5 then x belongs to . (-∞, -5)

Question 13.
Equation of the line passing through the point (a cos³ θ, a sin³ θ) and perpendicular to the line x sec θ + y cosec θ = a is x cos θ – y sin θ = a sin 2θ.
Answer:
False

Explanation:
Equation of the line passing through the point (a cos³θ, a sin³θ) and perpendicular to the line x sec θ + y cosec θ = a is x cos θ – y sin θ = a sin 3θ. Hence given statement is False.

Question 14.
The point (1,2) lies inside the circle x² + y² – 2x + 6y + 1 = 0
Answer:
False

Explanation:
Given Circle x² + y² – 2x + 6y + 1 = 0 For Point (1, 2)
We have,
⇒ 1 + 4 – 2 + 12 + 1 = 16 > 0
Hence given point lies outside the circle.

Question 15.
The probability that a person visiting a zoo will see the giraffe is 0.72, the probability that he will see the bears is 0.84 and the probability that he will see both is 0.52.
Answer:
False

Explanation:
The probability that the person will see both cannot be 0.52 so the given statement is FALSE.

Question 16.
If R = {x, y) : x, y ∈ z, x² + y² = 64}, then, write R in roster form.
OR
Let A = {1, 2}, B – {2, 3,4}, C = {4,5}, find A × (B ∩ C).
Answer:
Given, R = {x, y): x, y ∈ z, x² + y² = 64}
∵ x² + y² = 64 ⇒ y² = 64 – x²
R = {(0,8), (0, -8), (8,0), (-8,0)}
OR
B ∩ C = {2, 3, 4} ∩ {4, 5} = {4}
A × (B ∩ C) = {1, 2} × {4}
= {(1, 4), (2, 4)}

Question 17.
Let A, B and C be the sets such that A ∪ B = A ∩ B = A ∩ C. Show that B = C.
Answer:
Let x ∈ B …(i)
⇒ x ∈ A ∪ B
[Since B c A ∪ B, all elements of B are in A ∪ B]
⇒ x ∈ A ∪ C
(Given, A ∪ B = A ∪ Q
⇒ x ∈ A or x ∈ C ,..(ii)
Taking x ∈ A
∵ x ∈ A
Also, x ∈ B [From (i)]
∵ x ∈ A ∩ B
So, x ∈ A ∩ C
∵ (Given, A ∩ B = A ∩ C)
i.e., x ∈ A and x ∈ C
i.e., X ∈ C
∵ If x ∈ B, then X ∈ C
i.e., If an element belongs to set B, than it must belong to set C also,
∵ B ∈ C
Similarly, we can prove C ∈ B
Since, B ∈ C and C ∈ B
⇒ B = C
Hence proved

Question 18.
Write the maximum value of cos(cos x).
OR
Find the coordinates of a point on the parabola y² = 8x, whose focal distance is 4.
Answer:
The maximum and minimum value of cos x is 1 and -1.
Hence, cos (cos x) has maximum value at x = 90°
i.e. cos(cos 90°) = cos (0°) = 1
OR
Given parabola is y² = 8x (i)
8x = 4ax ⇒ a = 2
Focal distance = |x + a| = 4
⇒ |x + 2| = 4
⇒ x + 2 = ±4 ⇒ x = 2,-6
But x ≠ -6 For x = 2, y² = 8 × 2
y² = 16 ⇒ y = ±4
So, the points are (2,4) and (2,-4).

Question 19.
Find the solution of equation x² + x + 1 = 0.
Answer:
x² + x + 1 = 0

Question 20.
In how many ways 7 pictures can be hanged on 9 pegs?
Answer:
7 pictures have options of 9 pegs. So they can be selected in ⁹C₇ ways.
Now, these pictures can arrange themselves in 7! ways.
∴ Number of ways by which 7 pictures can be hanged on 9 pegs = ⁹C₇ × 7!
= \(\frac{9 !}{7 ! 2 !}\) × 7! = \(\frac{9 !}{2 !}\)

Section – B
Question numbers 21 to 26 carry 2 marks each.

Question 21.
Find the angles between the lines √3x + y = 1 and x + √3y = 1
OR
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin x-2 \sin 3 x+\sin 5 x}{x}\)
Answer:
The given lines are
√3x + y = 1 ⇒ y = -√3x +1, m₁ = -√3
and x + √3y = 1 ⇒ y = \(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), m₂ = \(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Let θ be the angle between the lines,
tan θ = \(\left|\frac{m_1-m_2}{1+m_1 m_2}\right|\)
= \(\left|\frac{-\sqrt{3}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}}{1+(-\sqrt{3})\left(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)}\right|\)

Question 22.
If tan x = \(\frac{b}{a}\), then find the value of \(\sqrt{\frac{a+b}{a-b}}+\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}\)
Answer:

Question 23.
Given L = {1, 2, 3, 4}, M = {3, 4, 5, 6} and N = {1, 3, 5}.
Verify that L – (M ∪ N) = (L – M) ∩ (L – N)
Answer:
Given,
L = {1,2, 3, 4}, M = {3, 4, 5, 6} and N = {1,3,5}
∴ M ∪ N = {l, 3,4,5,6}
L – (M ∪ N)={ 2}
Now, L – M = {1, 2}, L – N = {2,4}
(L – M) ∩ (L – N) = {2}
Hence, L – (M ∪ N) = (L – M) ∪ (L – N)

Question 24.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sqrt{1+x^3}-\sqrt{1-x^3}}{x^2}\)
Answer:

Question 25.
Find the angle in radians between the hands of a clock at 7 : 20 p.m.
Answer:
We know that the hour hand completes one rotation in 12 hours while the minute hand completes one rotation in 60 minutes.
Angle traced by the hour hand in 12 hours = 360r

∴ Angle traced by the hour hand in 7 hours 20 minutes i.e., \(\frac{22}{3}\) hours
= \(\left(\frac{360}{12} \times \frac{22}{3}\right)^0\) = 220°

Also, the angle traced by the minute hand in 60 minutes = 360Y
The angle traced by the minute hand in 20 minutes
= (\(\frac{360}{60}\) × 20) = 120°

Hence, the required angle between two hands
= 220°-120°
= 100°

Question 26.
From a group of 2 boys and 3 girls, two children are selected. Find the sample space of this experiment.
OR
If A and B are mutually exclusive events, P(A) = 0.35 and P(B) = 0.45, then find P(A’ ∩ B’)
Answer:
Let B₁, B₂ be the boys and G₁, G₂ G₃ be the girls then, the sample space is
S = {B₁B₂, B₁G₁, B₁G₂, B₁G₃, B₂G₁, B₂G₂, B₂G₃, G₁G₂ G₁G₃, G₂G₃}
OR
A and B are mutually exclusive events.
∴ Then P(A ∩ B) = 0
and P(A) = 0.35, P(B) = 0.45
P(A’ ∩ B’) = P(A ∪ B)’ = 1 – P (A ∪ B) = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2

Section – C
Question numbers 27 to 32 carry 4 marks each.

Question 27.
If sin (θ + α) = a and sin (θ + β) = b, then prove that cos2(α – β) – 4ab cos (α – β) = 1 – 2a² – 2b².
OR
If a cos 2θ + b sin 2θ = c has α and β as its roots, then prove that tan α + tan β = \(\frac{2 b}{a+c}\)
Answer:
Given, sin(θ + α) = a and sin(θ + β) = b
cos(α – β) = cos[θ + α – θ – β]
= cos[(θ + α) – (θ + β)]
= cos(θ + α) cos (θ + β) + sin(θ + α) sin (θ + β)

⇒ a(1 – tan²θ) + b(2tanθ) = (1+ tan²θ)c
⇒ a – atan²θ + 2btanθ – ctan²θ – c = 0
⇒ -(a + c)tan²θ + 2btanθ + (a – c) = 0
⇒ (a + c)tan²θ – 2btanθ + (c – a) = 0
Since, α and P are the roots of this equation
⇒ tan α + tan β = \(\)
⇒ tan α + tan β = \(\frac{2 b}{a+c}\)
Hence proved.

Question 28.
If \(\left|\frac{z-5 i}{z+5 i}\right|\) = 1 show that z is a real number:
Answer:
Given, \(\left|\frac{z-5 i}{z+5 i}\right|\) = 1
\(\left|\frac{z-5 i}{z+5 i}\right|\) = 1
|z – 5i| = |z + 5i|
|x + iy – 5i| = |x + iy + 5i| where z = x + iy
|x + i(y – 5)| = |x + i(y + 5)|
Now, \(\)
x² + (y – 5)² = x² + (y + 5)²
(y – 5)² = (y + 5)²
y² + 25 – 10y = y² + 25 + 10y
20y = 0
y = o
z = x + i0 = x:, which is a real number.

Commonly Made Error
Students make simplification errors while simplifying the modulus of complex numbers. ;

Answering Tip
Zero is purely real as well as purely imaginary but not imaginary.

Question 29.
Find the mean deviation about the median for the following data :

Answer:
Let us find cumulative frequencies and Σf_i|x_i – M| as follows:

Now, f = 14, class corresponding to cumulative frequency 28 is 20-30.
∴ I = 20, f = 14, h = 10
Median = l + \(\frac{\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}-\mathrm{C}_f}{f}\) × h
= 20 + \(\frac{25-14}{14}\) × 10
= 20 + \(\frac{11}{14}\) × 10 = 27.86
Σf_i|x_i – M| = 517.16

∴ Mean deviation about median (M) i.e.,
M.D (M) = \(\frac{\sum f_i\left|x_i-\mathrm{M}\right|}{\sum f_i}\)
= \(\frac{517.16}{50}\) = 10.34

Question 30.
Prove that: cos² x+cos² (x + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)) + cos²(x – \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)) = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
OR
Find the equation of the circle passing through the points (4, 1) and (6, 5) and whose centre is on the line 4 x + y = 16.
Answer:

OR
Let the equation of the circle be
(x – h)² + (y – k)² = r² ………….(i)
(1), with centre (h, k) and radius V.
Since (1) passes through (4, 1) and (6, 5).
∴ (4 – h)² + (1 – k)² = r² …(2)
and (6 – h)² + (5 – k)² = r …(3)
(2) and (3) => (4 – h)² + (1 – k)² = (6 – h)² + (5 – k)²
⇒ 16 – 8h + h² + 1 – 2k + k² = 36 – 12h + h² + 25 – 10k + k²
⇒ -8h-2k + 17 + 12h + 10k – 61 = 0
⇒ 4h – 8k – 44 =0
⇒ h + 2k -11 = 0
Centre lies on the line 4x + y = 16
∴ 4h + k – 16 = 0
from equation (4) & (5) h = 3 and k = 4 from equ. (2)
(4 – h)² + (1 – k)² = r²
(4 -3)² +(1 -4)² = r²
1 + 9 = 10 = r²
from equ. (1)
(x – h)² + (y – k)² = r²
(x – 3)² +(y – 4)² =10
x² + y² – 6x – 8y + 15 = 0

Question 31.
Show that the set of all points such that the difference of their distance from (4,0) and (-4,0) is always equal to 2 and it represent a hyperbola.
Answer:
According to the problems
\(\sqrt{(x+4)^2+y^2}-\sqrt{(x-4)^2+y^2}\) = 2
\(\sqrt{(x+4)^2+y^2}=2+\sqrt{(x-4)^2+y^2}\)

On squaring both sides, we get
x² + 8x + 16 + y² = 4 + x² – 8x + 16 + y² + 4\(\sqrt{(x-4)^2+y^2}\)
⇒ 16x – 4 = 4\(\sqrt{(x-4)^2+y^2}\)
⇒ 4(4x -1) = 4\(\sqrt{(x-4)^2+y^2}\)
⇒ 16x² – 8x + 1 = x² + 16 – 8x + y²
⇒ 15x² – y² = 15 which is a Hyperbola.

Question 32.
Find the term independent ofxin the expansion of (1 + x + 2x³)\(\left(\frac{3}{2} x^2-\frac{1}{3 x}\right)^9\)
Answer:

For term independent of x, putting 18 – 3r = 0,19 – 3r = 0 and 21 – 3r = 0, we get
r = 6,r = \(\frac{19}{3}\),r = 7
Since, the possible value of r are 6 and 7.
Hence, second term is not independent of x.
The term independent of x is

Section – D
Question numbers 33 to 36 carry 6 marks each.

Question 33.
In a group of students, 225 students know French, 100 know Spanish and 45 know both. Each student know either French or Spanish. How many students are there in the groups.
Answer:
Let F and S denote the no. of students who know French and Spanish, respectively.
Given, n(F) – 225, w(S) = 100, n(F ∩ S) = 45
Using identity,
n(F ∪ S) = n(F) + n(S) – n(F ∩ S)
= 225 + 100-45 = 325-45
= 280.

Question 34.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sqrt{2}-\sqrt{1+\cos x}}{\sin ^2 x}\)
OR
\(\lim _{y \rightarrow 0} \frac{(x+y) \sec (x+y)-x \sec x}{y}\)
Answer:

OR

Question 35.
Solve the following system of inequalities graphically
3x + 2y ≤ 150, x + 4y ≤ 80, x ≤ 15, y ≥ 0.
Answer:
The inequalities are
3x + 2y ≤ 150, x + 4y ≤ 80, x ≤ 15, y ≥ 0.
(a) The line 3x + 2y ≤ 150 passes through the points (50,0), and (0, 75). AB represented this line.
Putting x = 0, y = 0 in 3x + 2y ≤ 150 ⇒ 0 ≤ 150 This shows that origin lies in this region.

The region lying below AB and the points lying on AB represent the inequality 3x – 2y ≤ 150.
(b) The equation x + 4y = 80 passes through the points (80, 0), (0,20).
This is represented by CD.
Since 0 ≤ 80, a region lying below CD and the points of CD, represents the inequality x + 4y ≤ 80.
(c) x ≤ 15 is the region lying on the left of EF whose equation is x = 15 and the points lying on EF.
(d) y ≥ 0 is the region above x-axis and points lying on y = 0.
Thus, the multi-shaded region is the solution to the given inequalities.

Question 36.
If a is the A.M of b and c and a is one AM and G₁, and G₂ are two geometric means of two numbers b and c means are G₁, and G₂ then prove that (G₁)³ + (G₂)³ = 2abc.
OR
The diameter of circles (in mm) drawn in a design are given below :

Calculate the standard deviation and mean diameter of the circles.
[Hint: First make the data continuous by making the classes as 32.5 – 36.5, 36.5 – 40.5, 40.5 – 44.5, 44.5 – 48.5, 48.5- 52.5 and then proceed].
Answer:
It is given that a is the A.M. of b and c.
∴ a = \(\frac{b+c}{2}\) ⇒ b + c = 2a ……………… (i)
Since G₁ and G₂ are two geometric means between b and c. Therefore, b, G₁ G₂, c is a G.P with common
ratio r = \(\left(\frac{c}{b}\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}\)
G₁ = br = b\(\left(\frac{c}{b}\right)^{\frac{1}{3}}=c^{\frac{1}{3}} b^{\frac{2}{3}}\) and
G₂ = br² = b\(\left(\frac{c}{b}\right)^{\frac{2}{3}}=b^{\frac{1}{3}} c^{\frac{2}{3}}\)
⇒ G₁³ = b²c and G₂³ = bc²
⇒ G₁³ + G₂³ = b²c + bc² => G₁³ + G₂³ = bc(b + c)
⇒ G₁ + G₂ = 2 abc [using (i)]
Hence proved

OR

After making the classes continuous, we have :

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions Set 3 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Set 3 with Solutions

समय : 3 घंटे
पूर्णांक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

1. इस प्रश्न पत्र में दो खंड हैं- खंड ‘अ’ और ‘ब’। कुल प्रश्न 13 हैं।
2. खंड ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं, जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
3. खंड ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों के उचित आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं।
4. प्रश्नों के उत्तर दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए दीजिए।
5. दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
6. यथासंभव दोनों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमशः लिखिए।

रखण्ड ‘अ’: वस्तुपरक-प्रश्न
अपठित गद्यांश

1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनकर लिखिए- (1 × 10 = 10)

दबाव में काम करना व्यक्ति के लिए अच्छा है या नहीं, इस बात पर प्रायः बहस होती है। कहा जाता है कि व्यक्ति अत्यधिक दबाव में नकारात्मक भावों को अपने ऊपर हावी कर लेता है, जिससे उसे अक्सर कार्य में असफ़लता प्राप्त होती है। वह अपना मानसिक और शारीरिक स्वास्थ्य भी खो बैठता है। दबाव को यदि ताकत बना लिया जाए, तो न सिर्फ सफ़लता प्राप्त होती है, बल्कि व्यक्ति कामयाबी के नए मापदंड रचता है। ऐसे बहुत सारे उदाहरण हैं जब लोगों ने अपने काम के दबाव को अवरोध नहीं, बल्कि ताकत बना लिया। ‘सुख-दुःख, सफलता-असफलता, शान्ति-क्रोध और क्रिया-कर्म हमारे दृष्टिकोण पर ही निर्भर करता है।’ जोससिल्वा इस बात से सहमत होते हुए अपनी पुस्तक यू द हीलर में लिखते हैं कि मन-मस्तिष्क को चलाता है और मस्तिष्क शरीर को। इस तरह शरीर मन के आदेश का पालन करता हुआ काम करता है। दबाव में व्यक्ति यदि सकारात्मक होकर काम करे, तो वह अपना सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रदर्शन करने में कामयाब होता है। दबाव के समय मौजूद समस्या पर ध्यान केंद्रित करने और बोझ महसूस करने की बजाय यदि यह सोचा जाए कि हम अत्यंत सौभाग्यशाली हैं, जो एक कठिन चुनौती को पूरा करने के लिए तत्पर हैं, तो हमारी बेहतरीन क्षमताएँ स्वयं जागृत हो उठती हैं। हमारा दिमाग जिस चीज़ पर भी अपना ध्यान केंद्रित करने लगता है, वह हमें बढ़ती प्रतीत होती है। यदि हम अपनी समस्याओं के बारे में सोचेंगे, तो वे और बड़ी होती महसूस होंगी। अगर अपनी शक्तियों पर ध्यान केंद्रित करेंगे, तो वे भी बड़ी महसूस होंगी। इस बात को हमेशा ध्यान में रखना चाहिए कि ‘जीतना एक आदत है, पर अफ़सोस ! हारना भी आदत ही है।’

(i) दबाव में कार्य करने पर व्यक्ति ………… हो जाता है।
(क) आलसी।
(ख) सक्रिय।
(ग) नकारात्मक।
(घ) मूर्ख।
उत्तर:
(ग) नकारात्मक।

(ii) अपनी कमज़ोरी को अपनी ताक़त बना लेने का क्या परिणाम होता है?
(क) सफलता प्राप्त होती है।
(ख) शरीर में ताक़त आ जाती है।
(ग) नकारात्मकता आती है।
(घ) कमजोरी और बढ़ जाती है।
उत्तर:
(क) सफलता प्राप्त होती है।

व्याख्या : दबाव को यदि ताक़त बना लिया जाए तो न सिर्फ सफ़लता प्राप्त होती है बल्कि व्यक्ति कामयाबी के नए मापदंड को भी रचता है।

(iii) हमें समस्याओं के बजाय कहाँ ध्यान केंद्रित करना चाहिए?
(क) अपनी कमजोरियों पर।
(ख) शक्तियों पर।
(ग) वातावरण पर।
(घ) पुस्तकों पर।
उत्तर:
(ख) शक्तियों पर।

(iv) ‘लोगों ने अपने कार्य के दबाव को अवरोध की जगह ताकत बना लिया।’ रचना के आधार पर वाक्य है-
(क) इच्छा वाचक।
(ख) संदेह वाचक।
(ग) मिश्र वाक्य।
(घ) सरल वाक्य।
उत्तर:
(घ) सरल वाक्य।

(v) ‘सफ़लता’ में प्रत्यय है
(क) ता।
(ख) फल।
(ग) स।
(घ) सफ़ल।
उत्तर:
(क) ता।

(vi) सुख-दुःख, शांति-क्रोध और क्रिया-कर्म किस पर निर्भर करते हैं ?
(क) वातावरण पर।
(ख) दृष्टिकोण पर।
(ग) आर्थिक स्थिति पर।
(घ) दबाव पर।
उत्तर:
(ख) दृष्टिकोण पर।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) ‘यू द हीलर’ पुस्तक के लेखक जोस सिल्वा हैं।
(II) ‘यू द हीलर’ पुस्तक के लेखक हेनरी केनरी हैं।
(III) ‘यू द हीलर’ पुस्तक के लेखक हेनरी सिल्वा हैं।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है। हैं?
(क) I और II
(ख) केवल III
(ग) केवल II
(घ) केवल I
उत्तर:
(घ) केवल I

(viii) दबाव में………होकर ही व्यक्ति अपना सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रदर्शन करने में कामयाब होता है।
(क) सकारात्मक।
(ख) स्वावलंबी।
(ग) कार्यरत।
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(क) सकारात्मक।

व्याख्या : दबाव में व्यक्ति यदि सकारात्मक होकर काम करे, तो वह अपना सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रदर्शन करने में कामयाब होता है।

(ix) लेखक के अनुसार हारना क्या है ?
(क) कोशिश।
(ख) आदत।
(ग) चुनौती।
(घ) प्रक्रिया।
उत्तर:
(ख) आदत।

(x) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): समस्याओं के बारे में लगातार सोचने का यह परिणाम होता है।
कारण (R): कि वह और बढ़ जाती हैं।
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
(ग) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) गलत है।
(घ) कथन (A) गलत है तथा कारण (R) सही है।
उत्तर:
(क) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों सही हैं तथा कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या करता है।

2. निम्नलिखित पद्यांशों में से किसी एक पद्यांश से संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प-चयन द्वारा दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

यादें होती हैं गहरी नदी में उठी भँवर की तरह
नसों में उतरती कड़वी दवा की तरह
या खुद के भीतर छिपे बैठे साँप की तरह

जो औचक्के में देख लिया करता है
यादें होती हैं जानलेवा खुशबू की तरह
प्राणों के स्थान पर बैठे जानी दुश्मन की तरह
शरीर में फँसे उस काँच की तरह
जो कभी नहीं दिखता

पर जब-तब अपनी सत्ता का
भरपूर एहसास दिलाता रहता है
यादों पर कुछ भी कहना
खुद को कठघरे में खड़ा करना है
पर कहना मेरी मजबूरी है।

(i) कवि ने किसे जानी दुश्मन की तरह माना है ?
(क) मित्रों को
(ख) यादों को
(ग) नदी को
(घ) खुशबू को
उत्तर:
(ख) यादों को

(ii) खुद पर कुछ भी कहना खुद को ………. समान है।
(क) कठघरे में खड़ा करने के।
(ख) सम्मानित करने के।
(ग) नेता समझने के।
(घ) दीन-हीन दिखाने के।
उत्तर:
(क) कठघरे में खड़ा करने के।

(iii) यादों को मन में हलचल पैदा कर अतीत की गहराइयों में ले जाने के कारण कवि ने उन्हें क्या कहा है ?
(क) जानी दुश्मन की तरह।
(ख) भीतर छिपे बैठे साँप की तरह।
(ग) नदी में उठे भँवर की तरह।
(घ) कड़वी दवा की तरह।
उत्तर:
(ग) नदी में उठे भँवर की तरह।

(iv) कवि ने यादों के लिए किन-किन विशेषणों का प्रयोग किया है?
(क) शरीर में से काँच की तरह।
(ख) नदी में उठी भँवर की तरह।
(ग) जानलेवा खुशबू की तरह।
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी।

(v) यादों के बारे में कुछ भी कहना कवि की …. है।
(क) इच्छा।
(ख) कर्त्तव्य।
(ग) मज़बूरी।
(घ) आदेश।
उत्तर:
(ग) मज़बूरी।

अथवा

स्वार्थ का ज़हर
जब तक आवृत रखेगा
मानवता की आकृति को
और
स्वार्थ की नींव जब तक
जुड़ी रहेगी धन के गारे से
तब तक
आत्मसंतोष केवल
कल्पना की वस्तु होगी।
कितने ही त्याग और
धर्म के उपदेश करें
अभावों की यह रात
सूनी-सी अन्धी रहेगी
सोचने से कार्य नहीं हो जाता
कल्पना से यथार्थ मेल नहीं खाता
आदर्श और धर्म को
कागज़ पर उतारने से फायदा क्या,
उत्तरदायित्व और संवेदनाहीन
इन थोथी डिग्रियों से
जीवन के दुःख का रहस्य
सुलझ नहीं पाता।

(i) किस स्थिति में आत्मसंतोष कल्पना की वस्तु है?
(क) स्वार्थ का ज़हर
(ख) धन रूपी कीचड़
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ख) धन रूपी कीचड़

व्याख्या : कवि की यादें कड़वी हैं, उसे डराने और रुलाने वाली हैं। इसलिए उसे वे जानी दुश्मन की तरह मानता है।

(ii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) अभावों की रात से कवि का तात्पर्य मानवीय मूल्यों के अभाव से है।
(II) अभावों की रात से कवि का तात्पर्य नैतिक मूल्यों के अभाव से है।
(III) अभावों की रात से कवि का तात्पर्य धन के अभाव से है।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) केवल I
(ख) I और II
(ग) केवल III
(घ) केवल II
उत्तर:
(क) केवल I

(iii) थोथी डिग्रियाँ कौन-सी हैं?
(क) आदर्श
(ख) धर्म
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)

(iv) जीवन में दुःख का रहस्य कब सुलझ पाता है?
(क) स्वार्थ त्यागकर
(ख) धन लालसा त्यागकर
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं

(v) मानवता को किसके आवरण ने ढक रखा है?
(क) स्वार्थ रूपी ज़हर
(ख) प्रेम रूपी अमृत
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ग) विकल्प (क) और (ख)

व्याख्या : यादों के बारे में बताना भी कवि मज़बूरी मानता है।

3. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए उपयुक्त विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

(i) समाचार माध्यमों के लिए पत्रकारों द्वारा किया गया लेखन कहलाता है-
(क) साहित्य लेखन
(ख) पत्रकारीय लेखन
(ग) विज्ञापन लेखन
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(ख) पत्रकारीय लेखन

व्याख्या : पत्रकार लेखन के विभिन्न रूपों के इस्तेमाल से, समाचार माध्यमों द्वारा पाठकों या श्रोताओं तक सूचनाएँ पहुँचाते है।

(ii) मुदित माध्यम की भाषा की विशेषता है
(क) बोलचाल की भाषा का प्रयोग
(ख) लोकोक्तियों और मुहावरों का प्रयोग
(ग) लिखित भाषा का विस्तार
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

व्याख्या : मुद्रित माध्यम को प्रिंट माध्यम भी कहते हैं। इसके अन्तर्गत समाचार -पत्र, पत्रिकाएँ तथा पुस्तकें आदि आती हैं। इनमें उपर्युक्त सभी विकल्पों का प्रयोग होता है।

(iii) इंटरनेट की बढ़ती लोकप्रियता की क्या वजह है ?
(क) पत्रकारिता का तीव्रगामी माध्यम
(ख) तत्काल अपडेशन की सुविधा
(ग) तकनीक के साथ सामंजस्य
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

व्याख्या-इंटरनेट पर समाचार पढ़ने, सुनने और देखने की सुविधाएँ उपलब्ध होती हैं। इंटरनेट पत्रकारिता को ऑनलाइन पत्रकारिका, साइबर पत्रकारिता तथा वेब पत्रकारिता आदि नामों से भी जाना जाता है।

(iv) कॉलम ‘क’ का कॉलम ‘ख’ से उचित मिलान कीजिए-

कॉलम ‘क’	कॉलम ‘ख’
(i) रेडियो	(i) श्रव्य माध्यम
(ii) टी.वी.	(ii) दृश्य माध्यम
(iii) मुद्रित माध्यम	(iii) पत्र-पत्रिकाएँ
(iv) स्टिंग ऑपरेशन	(iv) छिपे कैमरे द्वारा रिकॉर्ड करना

(क) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(ख) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(ग) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(घ) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
उत्तर:
(ख) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(v) समेकित माध्यम किसे कहते हैं ?
(क) इंटरनेट
(ख) टेलीविज़न
(ग) रेडियो
(घ) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(क) इंटरनेट

व्याख्या : रेडियो श्रव्य माध्यम है। इसमें सब कुछ ध्वनि, स्वर और शब्दों का खेल है तथा टेलीविज़न देखने व सुनने का माध्यम है जबकि इंटरनेट दृश्य-श्रव्य माध्यम के साथ-साथ दर्शकों को अंत:क्रिया करने का विकल्प भी देता है अतः इंटरनेट को समेकित माध्यम कहते हैं।

4. निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

मैं जग-जीवन का भार लिए फिरता हूँ,
फिर भी जीवन में प्यार लिए फिरता हूँ,
कर दिया किसी ने झंकृत जिनको छूकर
मैं साँसों के दो तार लिए फिरता हूँ।
मैं स्नेह-सुरा का पान किया करता हूँ
मैं कभी न जग का ध्यान किया करता हूँ
जग पूछ रहा उनको, जो जग की गाते,
मैं अपने मन का गान किया करता हूँ

(i) प्रस्तुत कविता के कवि का नाम व कविता का नाम है-
(क) कवि – हरिवंशराय बच्चन
कविता – आत्म परिचय

(ख) कवि – आलोक धन्वा
कविता – पतंग

(ग) कवि – तुलसीदास
कविता – कवितावली

(घ) कवि – फ़िराक गोरखपुरी
कविता – गज़ल
उत्तर:
(क) कवि – हरिवंशराय बच्चन
कविता – आत्म परिचय

व्याख्या : यह कविता कवि हरिवंशराय बच्चन द्वारा लिखी गई है। इस कविता का नाम है-‘आत्म परिचय’।

(ii) ‘मैं जग जीवन का भार लिए फिरता हूँ’ पंक्ति में ‘जग जीवन का भार’ शब्दों से कवि का आशय है-
(क) जीवन का उपयोगी सामान
(ख) जीवन की समस्याएँ
(ग) सांसारिक रिश्ते नाते व दायित्व
(घ) विकल्प (ख) व (ग) दोनों
उत्तर:
(घ) विकल्प (ख) व (ग) दोनों

व्याख्या : कवि के जीवन में अनेक समस्याएँ आती हैं। जिनका वह सामना करता है। साथ ही अपने सांसारिक रिश्तों को व उनके प्रति दायित्वों को भी निभाता है।

(iii) कवि हरिवंशराय बच्चन के सांसों के तार को किसने छूकर झंकृत कर दिया।
(क) बहन ने
(ख) पत्नी ने
(ग) प्रेयसी ने
(घ) माता ने
उत्तर:
(ग) प्रेयसी ने

व्याख्या : कवि ने अपने जीवन में निजी प्रेम को उपयुक्त महत्त्व दिया है।

(iv) अलंकार की दृष्टि से कौन-सा विकल्प सही है?
(क) जग-जीवन – अनुप्रास अलंकार
(ख) साँसों के दो तार – उत्प्रेक्षा अलंकार
(ग) जग पूछ रहा – उपमा अलंकार
(घ) मैं अपने मन का – अनुप्रास अलंकार
उत्तर:
(क) जग-जीवन – अनुप्रास अलंकार

(v) यह संसार किसको पूछता है?
(क) विरोधियों को
(ख) नि:स्वार्थ भाव से परिपूर्ण लोगों को
(ग) चापलूसी करने वालों को
(घ) परिश्रमी लोगों को
उत्तर:
(ग) चापलूसी करने वालों को

व्याख्या : यह संसार बहुत स्वार्थी है। यह उन्हीं लोगों को महत्त्व देता है जो इसका गुणगान करते हैं अर्थात् चापलूसी करते हैं और इस संसार के अनुसार ही व्यवहार करते हैं।

5. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए- (1 × 5 = 5)

एक-एक बार मुझे मालूम होता है कि यह शिरीष एक अद्भुत अवधूत है। दुःख हो या सुख, वह हार नहीं मानता। न ऊधो का लेना, न माधो का देना। जब धरती और आसमान जलते रहते हैं, तब भी यह हज़रत न जाने कहाँ से अपना रस खींचते रहते हैं। मौज में आठों याम मस्त रहते हैं। एक वनस्पतिशास्त्री ने मुझे बताया है कि यह उस श्रेणी का पेड़ है जो वायुमंडल से अपना रस खींचता है। ज़रूर खींचता होगा। नहीं तो भयंकर लू के समय इतने कोमल तंतुजाल और ऐसे सुकुमार केसर को कैसे उगा सकता था? अवधूतों के मुँह से ही संसार की सबसे सरस रचनाएँ निकली हैं। कबीर बहुत-कुछ इस शिरीष के समान ही थे, मस्त और बेपरवा, पर सरस और मादक। कालिदास भी ज़रूर अनासक्त योगी रहे होंगे। शिरीष के फूल फक्कड़ाना मस्ती से ही उपज सकते हैं और ‘मेघदूत’ का काव्य उसी प्रकार के अनासक्त अनाविल उन्मुक्त हृदय में उमड़ सकता है। जो कवि अनासक्त नहीं रह सका, जो फक्कड़ नहीं बन सका, जो किए-कराए का लेखा-जोखा मिलाने में उलझ गया, वह भी क्या कवि है? कहते हैं कर्णाट-राज की प्रिया विज्जिका देवी ने गर्वपूर्वक कहा था कि एक कवि ब्रह्मा थे, दूसरे वाल्मीकि और तीसरे व्यास। एक ने वेदों को दिया, दूसरे ने रामायण को और तीसरे ने महाभारत को।

(i) लेखक ने शिरीष के लिए ‘अवधूत’ शब्द का प्रयोग क्यों किया है?
(क) विषय-वासनाओं से युक्त व्यक्ति के लिए
(ख) श्मशान में रहने वाले साधु के लिए
(ग) गरीब व दु:खी व्यक्ति के लिए
(घ) शिरीष को एक संन्यासी के समान बताने के लिए
उत्तर:
(घ) शिरीष को एक संन्यासी के समान बताने के लिए

व्याख्या : सांसारिक बंधनों व विषय-वासनाओं से ऊपर उठा हुआ संन्यासी अवधूत कहलाता है। शिरीष भी इसी तरह एक फूल के रूप में अवधूत और अवधूत जो दुःख-सुख में, भंयकर लू में एक समान रहते हैं, मस्त रहते हैं और विपरीत परिस्थितियों से हार न मानते हुए तप्त वायुमंडल से भी अपने लिए रस खींच लेते हैं।

(ii) कबीर किस प्रकार के कवि थे?
(क) मस्त और बेपरवाह
(ख) सरस और मादक
(ग) क्रोधी और क्रूर
(घ) विकल्प (क) और (ख) दोनों
उत्तर:
(घ) विकल्प (क) और (ख) दोनों

व्याख्या : कबीर शिरीष के समान एक अवधूत के समान थे समदर्शी मस्त और बेपरवाह, सुख-दुःख को समान रूप से सहने वाले, लेकिन सरस और मादक काव्य के रचयिता।

(iii) लेखक ने अनासक्त योगी किसे कहा है?
(क) तुलसीदास को
(ख) कालिदास को
(ग) मीराबाई
(घ) वाल्मीकि को
उत्तर:
(ख) कालिदास को

व्याख्या : कालिदास फक्कड़ मस्ती के कवि थे। उन्होंने सभी विषय-भोगों का त्याग किया हुआ था। उनका हृदय स्वच्छ और अनासक्त था यानि आसक्तियों से दूर निर्लिप्त। इसीलिए उन्हें अनासक्त योगी कहा गया है।

(iv) निम्नलिखित कथन कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए उसके बाद दिए गए विकल्पों में से कोई एक सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-
कथन (A): कर्णाट-राज की रानी ने ब्रह्मा, वाल्मीकि व व्यास को कवि माना।
कारण (R): क्योंकि इन्होंने क्रमशः वेदों की, रामायण की व महाभारत की रचना की है।
(क) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या करता है।
(ख) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) गलत है।
(ग) कथन (A) गलत है तथा कारण (R) सही है।
(घ) कथन (A) तथा कारण (R) दोनों गलत हैं।
उत्तर:
(क) कथन (A) सही है तथा कारण (R) कथन (A) की सही व्याख्या करता है।

व्याख्या : ब्रह्मा, वाल्मीकि व व्यास कालजयी काव्य-ग्रथों की रचना की। इन्होंने क्रमशः वेदों की, रामायण की व महाभारत की रचना की। कर्णाट-राज की रानी ने इसीलिए इन्हें कवि माना।

(v) गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए-
(I) कवि को उस श्रेणी में नहीं रखा जा सकता जो अनासक्त न रह सके।
(II) लेखक के अनुसार कवि को उस श्रेणी में नहीं रखा जा सकता जो कार्य का लेखा-जोखा मिलाने में उलझा हो।
(III) कवि को उस श्रेणी में नहीं रखा जा सकता जो फक्कड़ न बन सके।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है। हैं?
(क) I और II
(ख) केवल III
(ग) केवल II
(घ) केवल I
उत्तर:
(ग) केवल II

व्याख्या : कवि वही हो सकता है जो स्वभाव से फक्कड़ और हृदय से स्वच्छ हो, जो संसार की विषय-वस्तु में लिप्त न हो। लेकिन जिनमें ये विशेषताएँ न हों, वे कवि की श्रेणी में नहीं आ सकते।

6. निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर हेतु निर्देशानुसार सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 6 = 6)

(i) शरारती बच्चे ने लेखक का गमछा कहाँ रख दिया ?
(क) मास्टर की टेबल पर
(ख) पेड़ की डाल पर
(ग) पानी की टंकी पर
(घ) कक्षा के दरवाज़े पर
उत्तर:
(क) मास्टर की टेबल पर

व्याख्या : शरारती बच्चे ने लेखक से उसका गमछा लेकर पहले तो अपने सिर पर पहना, फिर मास्टर जी की नकल करते हुए, गमछा उतारकर मास्टर की टेबल पर रख दिया।

(ii) लेखक ने पाठशाला जाने के लिए माँ से क्या सामान मँगवाया ?
(क) नया बस्ता
(ख) जूते
(ग) दो नाड़ेवाली चड्डी
(घ) कमीज़
उत्तर:
(ग) दो नाड़ेवाली चड्डी

व्याख्या : पाठशाला में बच्चों की धोती खींचने के डर से लेखक ने पाठशाला जाने के लिए माँ से दो नाड़े वाली चड्डी मँगवाई।

(iii) किस अध्यापक से कक्षा के बच्चे डरते थे ?
(क) रणनवरे
(ख) मंत्री
(ग) चह्वाण
(घ) देसाई
उत्तर:
(ख) मंत्री

व्याख्या : मन्त्री नामक अध्यापक गणित पढ़ाते थे और वे छड़ी का प्रयोग न कर हाथ से गरदन पकड़ पीठ पर जोर से चूंसा लगाते थे। पीठ पर घुसा पड़ते ही कोई भी लड़का हूक भरने लगता। कक्षा के सभी बच्चे उनसे डरते थे।

(iv) चड्ढा ने यशोधर बाबू से वैडिंग एनिवर्सरी की पार्टी के लिए कितने रुपए देने को कहा ?
(क) ₹ 30
(ख) ₹ 50
(ग) ₹ 75
(घ) ₹ 100
उत्तर:
(क) ₹ 30

व्याख्या : चड्ढ़ा ने यशोधर बाबू से वैडिंग एनिवर्सरी की पार्टी के लिए ₹ 30 देने को कहा।

(v) यशोधर बाबू घर से ऑफिस कैसे आते थे ?
(क) साइकिल से
(ख) स्कूटर से
(ग) कार से
(घ) पैदल
उत्तर:
(घ) पैदल

व्याख्या : यशोधर बाबू के आधुनिक बच्चे उन्हें साइकिल न चलाकर स्कूटर चलाने को कहते थे क्योंकि उन्हें लगता था कि साइकिल तो चपरासी चलाते हैं परन्तु यशोधर बाबू को स्कूटर निहायत बेहूदा सवारी मालूम होती थी अतः उन्हें पैदल चलना ही सही लगा।

(vi) यशोधर बाबू दफ्तर में दी गई चाय पार्टी में शामिल क्यों नहीं हुए?
(क) उन्हें देर हो रही थी।
(ख) उन्हें भूख नहीं थी।
(ग) किशन दा की परंपरा के विरुद्ध था
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(ग) किशन दा की परंपरा के विरुद्ध था

व्याख्या : किशनदा की परम्परा के अनुसार मातहत लोगों के साथ चाय-पानी पीना और गप्पें लगाकर वक्त बर्बाद करना गलत है।

(vii) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए
(I) नगर-नियोजन शैली का प्रयोग काबूजिए ने न्यूयॉर्क में किया।
(II) नगर-नियोजन शैली का प्रयोग काबूजिए ने कराची में किया।
(III) नगर-नियोजन शैली का प्रयोग का—जिए ने पेरिस में किया।
(IV) नगर-नियोजन शैली का प्रयोग काबूजिए ने चंडीगढ़ में किया।
उपरिलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा / कौन-से सही है/ हैं?
(क) I और II
(ख) III और II
(ग) केवल II
(घ) केवल IV
उत्तर:
(घ) केवल IV

व्याख्या : मुअनजो-दड़ो में बने घरों के दरवाज़े मुख्य सड़कों की तरफ नहीं खुलते इसलिए माना जाता है कि 50 साल पहले काबुर्जिए ने ‘नगर-नियोजन’ की यही शैली चंड़ीगढ के लिए इस्तेमाल की। यहाँ भी किसी घर का दरवाज़ा मुख्य सड़क पर न खुलकर गलियों में ही खुलता है।

(viii) सिंधु सभ्यता …….. पोषित थी
(क) राज पोषित
(ख) धर्म पोषित
(ग) समाज पोषित
(घ) श्रमिक पोषित
उत्तर:
(ग) समाज पोषित

व्याख्या : खुदाई में मिले तत्त्वों के आधार पर कहा गया है कि सिंधु-सभ्यता समाज प्रधान थी। यहाँ किसी राजा या धर्म का प्रभाव नहीं था। इसके व्यक्तिगत न होकर सामूहिक होने के कारण सिंधु-सभ्यता को समाज पोषित कहा गया है।

(ix) सिंधु सभ्यता तकनीक-सिद्ध से ज़्यादा कला-सिद्ध थी। इस बात का प्रमाण है-
(क) धातु और पत्थर की मूर्तियाँ
(ख) सुनिर्मित मोहरें व उन पर बनी आकृतियाँ
(ग) सुघड़ अक्षरों का लिपि रूप
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी
उत्तर:
(घ) उपर्युक्त सभी

व्याख्या : सिंधु-घाटी के लोगों में कला का महत्त्व ज़्यादा था। वास्तुकला या नगर-नियोजन ही नहीं, धातु और पत्थर की मूर्तियाँ, भांड़े-बर्तनों पर चित्रित मनुष्य, वनस्पति और पशु-पक्षियों की छवियाँ, सुनिर्मित मुहरें, उन पर बारीकी से उत्कीर्ण आकृतियाँ, खिलौने, आभूषण और सुघड़ अक्षरों का लिपिरूप सिंधु-सभ्यता को तकनीक-सिद्ध से ज़्यादा कला-सिद्ध होने का दावा करता है।

(x) मुअनजो-दड़ो के अज़ायब घर की क्या खासियत है?
(क) सोने के गहनों का मिलना
(ख) पत्थर के औज़ार मिलना
(ग) माप-तौल के पत्थर मिलना
(घ) हथियारों का न मिलना
उत्तर:
(घ) हथियारों का न मिलना

व्याख्या : कई कलात्मक वस्तुओं के साथ अजायबघर की प्रदर्शित चीज़ों में कुछ औज़ार देखने को मिले परंतु यहाँ एक भी हथियार नहीं पाया जाना इसकी खास बात है।

रखण्ड ‘ब’ : वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न

7. दिए गए चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए- (6 × 1 = 6)

(क) जब मैं फेल हो गया
(ख) मदर टेरेसा
(ग) अनोखा पालतू जानवर कुत्ता
(घ) खिड़की से बाहर का दृश्य
उत्तर:

(क) जब मैं फेल हो गया

उस समय मैं कक्षा 8 में पढ़ता था। मुझे अचानक ही पढ़ाई से अरुचि हो गई। मैं स्कूल से आता, खाना खाता और दोस्तों के पास खेलने के लिए भाग जाता। मैं अपनी पढ़ाई पर बिल्कुल ध्यान नहीं दे रहा था। धीरे-धीरे स्कूल में मेरे अध्यापक मुझसे नाराज़ रहने लगे। घर पर माँ ने भी मुझसे परेशान होकर पिताजी से शिकायत कर दी। मेरी पिटाई भी हुई पर मैं फिर भी नहीं सुधरा। जब परीक्षाएँ पास आने लगी तो मुझे डर सताने लगा, किन्तु पढ़ाई कहाँ से और कैसे शुरू करूँ, मुझे कुछ समझ में नहीं आ रहा था। मैंने बहुत समय से किताबों को खोला तक नहीं था। किसी भी नोट-बुक में मेरा काम पूरा नहीं था। जो भी पाठ खोलता नया-सा लगता। मैं घबराकर अपने मित्रों के पास गया, किंतु सबने परीक्षा निकट होने के कारण साथ और समय न दे पाने के लिए क्षमा माँग ली।

पहाड़ जैसा पाठ्यक्रम परीक्षा समय में तैयार कर पाना मुश्किल था। घबराकर मैं कभी कोई विषय उठाता, कभी कोई।

धीरे-धीरे परीक्षा का दिन आ गया। मैं रात भर नहीं सो सका था, मन दुःखी और परेशान था। मैं धड़कते दिल से परीक्षा देने गया। परीक्षा भवन में प्रश्न-पत्र देखते ही मेरा सिर चकरा गया, मुझे किसी प्रश्न का उत्तर याद न था, जो थोड़ा-बहुत पढ़ा था वह भी घबराहट के कारण याद नहीं आ रहा था। सभी साथी प्रश्न-पत्र हल कर रहे थे, मैं चुपचाप इधर-उधर देख रहा था, जिस कारण कक्ष निरीक्षक महोदय की डाँट भी खानी पड़ी।

धीरे-धीरे सभी पेपर हो गए, घर पर गुस्से के कारण किसी ने भी यह भी नहीं पूछा कि पेपर कैसा हुआ। कारण मैं जानता था कि मैंने पेपर में कुछ भी सही नहीं लिखा था। मुझे स्वयं पर शर्म आ रही थी। रह-रह कर क्रोध आ रहा था पर ‘अब पछताए होत का, जब चिड़ियाँ चुग गईं खेत।’ परीक्षा परिणाम आया, मैं सभी विषयों में फेल था। बहुत हिम्मत जुटाकर मैंने अपने माता-पिता और अध्यापकों से क्षमा मांगी और आगे से ऐसी लापरवाही न करने का वादा किया। यह मेरी ज़िन्दगी का अत्यंत महत्त्वपूर्ण सबक था जो मैंने उम्र-भर के लिए सीख लिया था।

मदर टेरेसा

दीनों पर दया करने वाला वास्तव में दीनबंधु हो जाता है। एक छोटी-सी साधनहीन महिला ने अपने आत्मविश्वास के बल पर असम्भव को भी सम्भव कर दिखाया।

उनका जन्म अलबानिया के स्कोरचे नामक स्थान पर 26 अगस्त, 1910 को हुआ, नाम रखा गया ‘एग्नेस गोजा’। उस धर्मपरायण कैथोलिक परिवार में एग्नेस ने जीवन के सभी पहलुओं का सूक्ष्मता से निरीक्षण कर, निष्कर्ष निकाला कि मानवता की सेवा ही सच्चा धर्म है। उन्होंने नन बनने का संकल्प ले लिया।

नन बनकर उन्होंने अपना नाम टेरेसा रखा। भारत आकर उन्होंने कलकत्ता की झोपड़-पट्टियों का वास्तविक रूप देखा। उन्होंने दु:खी व असहाय जन की पीड़ा हरने का निश्चय कर लिया। कुछ ही समय में वे नीले किनारे की धोती वाली महिला के रूप में प्रसिद्ध हो गईं।

उन्होंने अपने धर्म संघ का नाम रखा ‘मिशनरीज ऑफ चैरिटी’। उन्होंने खुले आकाश के नीचे गरीब बच्चों के लिए स्कूल खोला जो कुछ ही दिनों में चल निकला। माइकल नामक सहृदय व्यक्ति ने उन्हें रहने के लिए जगह दी। उसी घर में सिस्टर टेरेसा की सहयोगी सिस्टर्स की संख्या बढ़ी और वे स्वयं मदर टेरेसा कहलाने लगीं। जब सिस्टर्स की संख्या अधिक हो गई तो वे एक बड़े घर में चले गए जिसे ‘मदर हाऊस’ का नाम दिया गया।

मदर ने कुष्ठ रोगियों की सेवा का बीड़ा उठाया व टीटागढ़ में उनके लिए संस्थान बनवाया। ‘निर्मल हृदय’ नामक संस्था में भी रोगियों की सेवा होती थी। मानवता की सेवा के लिए उन्हें अनेक राष्ट्रीय व अंतर्राष्ट्रीय पुरस्कारों से सम्मानित किया गया। मदर टेरेसा को ‘नोबेल पुरस्कार’ भी मिला, परंतु उन्होंने पुरस्कारों से प्राप्त धनराशि की एक पाई भी अपने ऊपर व्यय नहीं की। उनके द्वारा देश-विदेश में अनेक स्थानों पर मिशनरीज ऑफ चैरिटी की शाखाएँ खोली गईं।।

अनोखा पालतू जानवर कुत्ता

मुझे अपने अनुभव से ऐसा महसूस होता है कि कुत्ता सबसे अनोखा और प्यारा पालतू पशु है। घर में रहकर उसकी भूमिका एक सदस्य की तरह हो जाती है। प्रत्येक पशु की आदतें, स्वभाव, क्रिया-कलाप सब एक-दूसरे से अलग होता है। मेरे पास एक जर्मन शेफर्ड जाति का छोटा-सा कुत्ता था। हमने उसका नाम ‘ब्लैसिंग’ रखा था। काले रंग और घने बालों वाला वह कुत्ता बहुत ज़्यादा सक्रिय (एक्टिव) था। घर के सदस्य जो खाते वह भी वही खाता, कहीं बाहर जाना होता तो आगे-आगे चलता, कार का दरवाज़ा खुलते ही उछल कर बैठ जाता, इसका तात्पर्य यह होता था कि मैं भी साथ चलूंगा।

कितनी भी सर्दी या गर्मी होती, कोई भी गेट के बाहर जाता तो वह वहाँ तक छोड़ने ज़रूर जाता। बच्चों के साथ खेलता और पूरे घर की रखवाली के प्रति पूरी तरह सक्रिय रहता। उसके कारण हमारा गार्डन पूरी तरह सुरक्षित था, कोई भी दूसरा जानवर वहाँ फटकने तक न पाता, यहाँ तक कि गिरगिट, गिलहरी, तितली, बिल्ली, चूहों को देखते ही दौड़ लगाता। बंदरों की तो ऐसी शामत आई कि बंदरों ने हमारे घर की तरफ़ देखना तक बंद कर दिया था। घर में आए हुए मेहमानों, मित्रों को उसने कभी नहीं काटा और न ही परेशान किया। एक बार सड़क के बड़े-बड़े कुत्तों ने उसे घेर लिया और सबने मिलकर, आक्रमण कर लहू-लुहान कर दिया। डाक्टर को दिखाने के बाद भी वह पुनः ठीक न हो सका और उसकी मृत्यु हो गई। हम सब बहुत दुःखी हुए।

खिड़की से बाहर का दृश्य

मेरी खिड़की के बाहर एक नींबू का पेड़ है, वह पेड़ बहुत घना है। उस पेड़ पर हमेशा नीबू (फल) लदे रहते हैं। कभी हरे नीबू, छोटे-छोटे नीबू या फिर बड़े-बड़े पीले-पीले नींबू। मेरे परिवार के अतिरिक्त पूरे मोहल्ले के लोग उस पेड़ के नीबू प्रयोग करते हैं, किंतु फिर भी उस पर नीबू लगे ही रहते हैं। मुझे यह सोचकर बहुत अच्छा लगता है कि मेरे जन्मोत्सव पर मेरे पूज्य दादाजी ने वह पेड़ लगाया था।

गर्मियों के दिनों में कोई बाहर नहीं निकलता। गर्मी, धूप और गर्म हवाओं के कारण जब लोग घर के अंदर ए.सी., कूलर में बैठे रहते हैं, नीबू के पेड़ पर सैकड़ों चिड़ियों का मेला लगा होता है। जब से मैंने पेड़ के नीचे एक बर्तन में दाना और दूसरे बर्तन में पानी रखना शुरू किया है तब से चिड़ियों की संख्या और अधिक बढ़ गई है।

एक दिन मैं अपने कमरे की खिड़की बंद करना भूल गया और स्कूल चला गया, मैंने स्कूल से लौटकर देखा कि अनेक चिड़ियाँ मेरे कमरे में घुस आई थीं मुझे देखते ही सब फुर्र से उड़ गई और नीबू के पेड़ पर जा बैठीं। लेकिन उस दिन के बाद से चिड़ियाँ मेरे होते हुए भी मेरे कक्ष में आने लगी, उनका मेरे पास आना, मुझसे न डरना, मुझे अच्छा लगता है मेरी खिड़की के बाहर का दृश्य बहुत मनोरम है।

8. किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में दीजिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) स्थान और समय को ध्यान में रखते हुए ‘दोपहर का भोजन’ कहानी को विभिन्न दृश्यों में विभाजित करें।
उत्तर:
‘दोपहर का भोजन’ कहानी में पहला दृश्य है- सिद्धेश्वरी के घर की दयनीश दशा और टूटी खाट पर लेटा उसका सबसे छोटा बेटा। दूसरे दृश्य में सिद्धेश्वरी का बेटा बार-बार दरवाजे से गली में आते-जाते लोगों को देखता है। तीसरे दृश्य में थके-हारे रामचन्द्र का आकर हताश-सा बैठना और खाना खाना और मोहन के सम्बन्ध में बात करना है। अगला दृश्य रामचन्द्र का भोजन करके चले जाना और मोहन का खाना खाने के लिए आना है।

माँ-बेटी की बातचीत होती है। मोहन भोजन करके जाता है। अगला दृश्य चन्द्रिका प्रसाद का परेशान मुद्रा में अपना भोजन करना है। पति-पत्नी में वार्तालाप होता है। अगले दृश्य में सिद्धेश्वरी का खाना खाने बैठना और सोते हुए पुत्र को देखते हुए आधी रोटी उसके लिए रखना है। अन्तिम दृश्य आँसू बहाते हुए सिद्धेश्वरी का भोजन करना, घर में मक्खियों का भिन-भिनाना और चन्द्रिका प्रसाद का निश्चितता पूर्वक सोना है।

(ख) अप्रत्याशित विषय पर लेखन करते समय किन बातों का ध्यान रखना आवश्यक है?
उत्तर:
अप्रत्याशित विषयों पर लेखन करते समय निम्नलिखित बातों का ध्यान रखना आवश्यक है-
(i) लेखक को उस विषय की पूरी जानकरी होनी चाहिए जिस पर वह लिखना चाहता हो।
(ii) लिखे जाने वाले विषय के बारे में सभी तथ्यों को सटीकता से लिखना चाहिए।
(iii) लेखक को अपने मन-मस्तिष्क में, विषय के बारे में उचित रूप रेखा बनानी चाहिए।
(iv) तर्कसंगत विचारों का समावेश होना चाहिए।
(v) लेखक को यह लेखन ‘मैं’ शैली में करना चाहिए।
(vi) लेखक को अप्रत्याशित विषय पर लिखते समय अपने पांडित्य का प्रदर्शन नहीं करना चाहिए।

(ग) कहानी को नाटक में किस प्रकार रूपान्तरित कर सकते हैं?
उत्तर:
कहानी को नाटक में रूपान्तरित करते समय अनेक महत्त्वपूर्ण बातों को ध्यान में रखना चाहिए, जो इस प्रकार हैं-
(i) कहानी की कथावस्तु को समय और स्थान के आधार पर विभाजित करके।
(ii) कहानी में घटित घटनाओं के आधार पर दृश्यों का निर्माण करके।
(iii) कथावस्तु से सम्बन्धित वातावरण की व्यवस्था करके।
(iv) ध्वनि और प्रकाश की व्यवस्था करके।
(v) कथावस्तु के अनुरूप मंच सज्जा और संगीत का निर्माण करके।
(vi) पात्रों एवं संवादों को अभिनय के अनुरूप स्वरूप प्रदान करके।

9. निम्नलिखित तीन में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 80 शब्दों में लिखिए- (4 × 2 = 8)

(क) इलेक्ट्रॉनिक मीडिया का क्या अर्थ है? इसकी लोकप्रियता के क्या कारण हैं?
उत्तर:
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक मीडिया का अर्थ विद्युत द्वारा संचार से है। अर्थात् जिस जनसंचार में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक उपकरणों का सहारा लिया जाता है, उसे इलेक्ट्रॉनिक मीडिया या माध्यम कहते हैं; जैसे-रेडियो, दूरदर्शन, सिनेमा तथा इंटरनेट आदि। इलेक्ट्रॉनिक मीडिया की लोकप्रियता के कारण
(i) इलेक्ट्रॉनिक मीडिया की लोकप्रियता इसलिए है, क्योंकि इसके द्वारा शब्द, ध्वनि और दृश्य तीनों के सम्मिलित प्रभाव का आनंद लिया जा सकता है।
(ii) इलेक्ट्रॉनिक मीडिया सूचनाओं के संप्रेषण का वितरण ही नहीं करता, बल्कि इसके माध्यम से नई पीढ़ी स्वयं को एक-दूसरे से जोड़ने में सक्षम हुई है तथा इसके द्वारा मनोरंजन, ज्ञान तथा व्यक्तिगत संवादों का प्रसारण भी होता है।

(ख) एडवोकेसी पत्रकारिता क्या है? इसका क्या कार्य है?
उत्तर:
जब कोई समाचार संगठन या टी.वी. चैनल किसी खास मुद्दे पर जनमत बनाने और सरकार को उसके अनुकूल प्रतिक्रिया करने के लिए अभियान चलाता है तो इस तरह की पत्रकारिता को पक्षधर या एडवोकेसी पत्रकारिता कहा जाता है। ऐसी पत्रकारिता में किसी खास उद्देश्य या मुद्दे को उठाकर उसके पक्ष में जनमत बनाने के लिए जोर-शोर से अभियान चलाया जाता है। इससे सरकार पर दबाव बनता है और वह लोगों की भलाई हेतु तेजी से कार्य करने को प्रेरित होती है।

(ग) संपादन के सिद्धान्तों में ‘तथ्यपरकता’ (एक्यूरेसी) का क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
संपादन में तथ्यपरकता (एक्यूरेसी) अच्छे संपादकीय का एक विशेष गुण होता है। एक अच्छा संपादकीय किसी विषय या मुद्दे पर संवाद द्वारा प्रस्तुत उसके अपने विचारों की सजग एवं ईमानदार प्रस्तुति है। तथ्यपरकता का गुण ही किसी भी संपादकीय में संवाददाताओं द्वारा प्राप्त लिखित सामग्री को शुद्ध कर प्रस्तुति के योग्य बनाता है तथा समाचार-पत्र की नीति, आचार-संहिता तथा जनकल्याण का ध्यान रखता है। ‘तथ्यपरकता’ के अनुसार किसी भी लिखित सामग्री या घटना में अपने विचार, मत या अपना कोई तथ्य जोड़ना नहीं चाहिए बल्कि उसे नैसर्गिक रूप में ही देना चाहिए।

10. काव्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘कैमरे में बंद अपाहिज’ नामक कविता का प्रतिपाद्य स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत कविता श्री रघुवीर सहाय द्वारा रचित है। इसमें शारीरिक विकलांगता को झेलते व्यक्ति की मार्मिक पीड़ा प्रदर्शित की गई है कि किस प्रकार शारीरिक चुनौती को सहन करते एक अपाहिज व्यक्ति को टेलीविज़न-कैमरे के सामने कई तरह के सवालों का सामना करना पड़ता है और कैमरे के सामने उससे कैसी भंगिमा की अपेक्षा की जाती है? कवि ने एक तरह से पीड़ा के साथ दृश्य-संचार माध्यम का संबंध रेखांकित किया है।

कविता की कथावस्तु के अनुसार दूरदर्शन वालों की एक टीम कमज़ोर (शारीरिक रूप से अपाहिज) व्यक्ति का साक्षात्कार लेने के लिए पहुँचती है। वह उससे तरह-तरह की भाव भंगिमाएँ बनाने की अपेक्षा करती है। वे लोग उस अपाहिज की पीड़ा को ध्यान में न रखकर अपने व्यावसायिक साक्षात्कार की सफलता के लिए अपने अनुसार उसे कष्ट, (पीड़ा) पहुँचा कर रुला देने का प्रयास करते हैं। वे उस व्यक्ति को बड़े परदे पर दिखाकर उसके साथ-साथ दर्शकों को भी रुलाने की कोशिश करते हैं जबकि उनके कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य जनता को सामाजिक उद्देश्य से युक्त कार्यक्रम दिखाना है। कवि टीवी वालों की संवेदनहीनता को उजागर करता है।

(ख) ‘बादल राग’ जीवन निर्माण के नए राग का सूचक है। स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
‘बादल राग’ कविता में कवि ने लघु मानव की खुशहाली का राग गाया है। वह आम व्यक्ति के लिए बादल का आह्वान क्रान्ति के रूप में करता है। किसानों तथा मजदूरों की आकांक्षाएँ बादल को नव-निर्माण के राग के रूप में पुकार रही हैं। क्रान्ति हमेशा वंचितों का प्रतिनिधित्व करती है। धरती के भीतर सोए अंकुर नवजीवन की आशा में सिर ऊँचा करके बादल की ओर देख रहे हैं।

(ग) ‘दिन जल्दी-जल्दी ढलता है’ गीत के माध्यम से वस्तुतः कवि क्या कहना चाहता है ? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
जीवन के अकेलेपन की पीड़ा की अभिव्यक्ति कर्मरत् पथिक की थकान इस विचार से दूर हो जाती है कि उसके परिजन उसकी प्रतीक्षा में हैं अकेलेपन का बोध लौटते कदमों को शिथिल एवं मन को विह्वल करता हैं।

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
‘निशा-निमंत्रण’ से उद्धृत इस गीत के माध्यम से कवि ने रात्रि के निमंत्रण को प्रस्तुत किया है। दिन और रात के माध्यम से कवि ने जीवन और मृत्यु को प्रतीक मानकर वर्णन किया है। दिन समाप्त हो रहा है, यह मानकर पथिक जल्दी-जल्दी अपनी मंज़िल पर पहुँचना चाहता है। वहाँ उसके बच्चे अपने आत्मीयजनों से मिलने को व्याकुल हो रहे हैं। कवि का मन बेचैनी से युक्त होकर प्रश्नों को जन्म दे रहा है। दिन जल्दी-जल्दी ढल रहा है अर्थात् जैसे व्यक्ति का जीवन धीरे-धीरे मृत्यु की ओर अग्रसर हो रहा है। जीवन के अकेलेपन की पीड़ा असहनीय है। लेकिन अकेलेपन का बोध लौटते कदमों को शिथिल एवं मन को विह्वल करता है। कार्य में लगे उस पथिक की थकान इस विचार से ही दूर हो जाती है कि उसके परिजन उसकी प्रतीक्षा कर रहे होंगे।

11. काव्य खंड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए- (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) आसमान में रंग-बिरंगी पतंगों को देखकर आपके मन में कैसे ख्याल आते हैं? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
आसमान में रंग-बिरंगी पतंगों को देखकर मन में पंछी बनने की इच्छा जाग्रत होती है कि पंछी बनकर स्वच्छन्द नभ में उड़ता फिरूँ और उड़ कर क्षितिज तक पहुँच जाऊँ।

(ख) आत्मपरिचय कविता के कथ्य को अपने शब्दों में प्रस्तुत कीजिए।
उत्तर:
‘आत्मपरिचय’ कविता में कवि कहता है कि यद्यपि वह सांसारिक कठिनाईयों से जूझ रहा है, फिर भी वह इस जीवन से प्यार करता है। वह अपनी आशाओं और निराशाओं से सन्तुष्ट है। वह संसार को अपने गीतों, द्वंद्वों के माध्यम से प्रसन्न करने का प्रयास करता है।

(ग) प्रश्नकर्ता अपाहिज व्यक्ति को उसके अपाहिजपन का एहसास क्यों दिलाना चाहता है ?
उत्तर:
प्रश्नकर्ता चाहता है कि वह अपने अपाहिजपन का एहसास होने पर रो दे ताकि उसे रोता देख लोगों की करुणा जाग्रत हो जाए। ऐसा होने पर कार्यक्रम निश्चित रूप से सफल माना जाएगा और उनका चैनल खूब तरक्की करेगा और उनको बहुत फायदा पहुँचेगा।

12. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 60 शब्दों में लिखिए- (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘पहलवान की ढोलक’ कहानी पारंपरिक रूप से लोकप्रिय कुश्ती जैसे खेलों के प्रति नई पीढ़ी की सोच में आए परिवर्तन को व्यक्त है,” टिप्पणी कीजिए।
उत्तर:
(i) पुराने समय का लोकप्रिय खेल, बल, साहस एवं कौशल का समन्वय ‘कुश्ती को जनता और शासन का समर्थन।
(ii) कुश्ती का खेल ग्रामीण संस्कृति की पहचान थी न कि शहरी संस्कृति की।
(iii) नई पीढ़ी का समय के साथ तकनीकी-मनोरंजन तथा अर्थोपार्जन में सहायक खेलों की ओर झुकाव और कुश्ती की उपेक्षा।

व्याख्यात्मक हल :
पुराने समय में कुश्ती एक लोकप्रिय खेल था। इसमें बल, साहस के साथ कौशल का प्रदर्शन होता था। इन खेलों को जनता और शासन का समर्थन प्राप्त था। पहलवान गाँव की शान हुआ करते थे। लुट्टन पहलवान को राजदरबार द्वारा संरक्षण प्रदान था लेकिन उसके पुत्र ने इसे व्यर्थ का बोझ समझ संरक्षण समाप्त कर दिया तब लुट्टन की स्थिति खराब हो गई। इसी प्रकार वर्तमान पीढ़ी का तकनीकी-मनोरंजन तथा अर्थोपार्जन में सहायक खेलों की ओर झुकाव अधिक होने से कुश्ती जैसे खेलों की उपेक्षा की जाती है।

(ख) ‘बाज़ार दर्शन’ निबन्ध उपभोक्तावाद एवं बाज़ारवाद की अन्तर्वस्तु को समझाने में बेजोड़ है’ उदाहरण देकर इस कथन पर प्रकाश डालिए।
उत्तर:
‘बाज़ार दर्शन’ निबन्ध उपभोक्तावाद एवं बाज़ारवाद की अन्तर्वस्तु को समझने में बेजोड़ है। बाज़ार का जादू वास्तव में ‘रूप का जादू है’। बाज़ार का जादू चढ़ने पर उपभोक्ता बाज़ार के आर्कषण पर मोहित होकर गैर जरूरी चीज़ों को खरीदने के लिए विवश हो जाता है। परन्तु घर आकर वे वस्तुएँ व्यर्थ की लगने लगती हैं। ‘बाज़ार दर्शन’ की सार्थकता वही समझता है जो आवश्यकता की वस्तुएँ ही खरीदता है। बाज़ार में जाकर योग्य उपभोक्ता को बाज़ारवाद के चक्कर में नहीं फँसना चाहिए, उपभोक्ता और बाज़ारवाद में एक प्रकार का द्वन्द्व होता है जो उस द्वन्द्व से बचने के लिए बुद्धि का प्रयोग करके चलता है वही मनुष्य जीत को प्राप्त होता है।

(ग) पुत्र की चाह में परिवार के लोग ही कन्या को जन्म देने वाली माँ के दुश्मन हो जाते हैं। इस प्रवृत्ति पर ‘भक्तिन’ पाठ के आधार पर टिप्पणी कीजिए।
उत्तर:
भक्तिन के परिवार में उसकी सास के तीन पुत्र हुए, जेठानियों के भी पुत्र ही पैदा हुए थे, परन्तु भक्तिन ने दो कन्याओं को जन्म दिया। जेठानियाँ मानती थीं कि छोटी बहू खानदान ही लीक छोड़कर चली है इसलिए उसे दण्ड मिलना आवश्यक है। आज भी समाज में लड़का-लड़की में भेद किया जाता है, आज भी समाज में पुत्र को ही वंश चलाने वाला माना जाता है। यह भेद-भाव पुरुषों से अधिक स्त्रियाँ करती हैं जैसा भक्तिन की जेठानियों ने किया। इससे स्पष्ट होता है कि स्त्रियाँ ही स्त्रियों की सबसे बड़ी दुश्मन होती हैं।

13. गद्य खंड पर आधारित निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 × 2 = 4)

(क) डॉ. आंबेडकर ने राजनीतिज्ञ को व्यवहार में किस व्यवहार्य सिद्धांत की आवश्यकता बताई है ?
उत्तर:
(i) समाज के सभी वर्गों तथा मनुष्यों के साथ समान व्यवहार

व्याख्यात्मक हल : डॉ आंबेडकर ने राजनीतिज्ञ को अपने व्यवहार में समाज के सभी वर्गों तथा मनुष्यों के साथ बिना किसी भेदभाव के समान व्यवहार्य सिद्धांत की आवश्यता बताई है। उनके अनुसार, मानवता के दृष्टिकोण से समाज को वर्गों में या श्रेणियों में नहीं बाँटा जा सकता अतः सब मनुष्यों के साथ समान व्यवहार ही किया जाना चाहिए।

(ख) जाति-प्रथा के दूषित सिद्धांत से आप क्या समझते हैं ?
उत्तर:
किसी व्यक्ति के प्रशिक्षण अथवा उसकी क्षमता पर विचार किए बिना माता-पिता के सामाजिक स्तर के अनुसार जन्म से पूर्व ही उसका पेशा निर्धारित करना जातिप्रथा का दूषित सिद्धान्त है। यह प्रथा मनुष्य को एक ही पेशे से बाँध देती है फिर चाहे वह पेशा किसी के लिए उपयुक्त हो या न हो, किसी की उसमें रूचि हो या न हो या फिर वह चाहें पर्याप्त न हो।

(ग) शिरीष के पुष्प को शीतपुष्प भी कहा जाता है। ज्येष्ठ माह की प्रचंड गरमी में फूलने वाले फूल को शीतपुष्प संज्ञा किस आधार पर दी गई होगी?
उत्तर:
शिरीष का फूल प्रचंड गर्मी में भी खिला रहता है। वह लू और उमस में भी मस्ती से खिलता है गर्मी की मार झेलने के बाद भी ठंडक देता है अर्थात् विषम परिस्थितियों में भी वह सहनशील रहता है व समता का भाव रखता है। इस प्रकार वह प्रत्येक मौसम में आए परिवर्तन को स्वीकार कर अपना संतुलन बनाए रखता है। इसीलिए इसे शीतपुष्प की संज्ञा दी गई है।

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies with Solutions Set 11 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Legal Studies Set 11 For Practice

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1.  This question paper contains 4 sections- A, B, C, and D
   (a) Section A- Multiple choice questions
   (b) Section B- 2 marks
   (c) Section C- 3 marks
   (d) Section D- 5 marks
2.  Internal choice is given in the paper, there is no overall choice.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Tushar is a Delhi Government employee working as a research analyst at Krishi Anusandhan Kendra (Institute), Delhi. He was given rent-free accommodation having five rooms. Tushar sublet two rooms to the students studying in the institute at a nominal rent. The matter was reported to the State Administrative Tribunal. He was suspended for a month and was asked to vacate the accommodation. Tushar wants to appeal against the decision of the State Administrative Tribunal. Where should he appeal? [1].
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal.
(b) Division Bench of Supreme Court of India.
(c) Division Bench of High Court of Delhi.
(d) No appeal is allowed in Alternate Dispute Resolution Mechanisms.
Answer:
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal.

Question 2.
There was a dispute between Ms. Shreya and Ms. Piyali regarding the title and possession of a plot of land. The parties to the dispute appointed a neutral third party Ms. Sharma who suggested potential solutions. Identify the role of Ms. Sharma in this situation. [1].
(a) Arbitrator.
(b) Negotiator.
(c) Mediator.
(d) Conciliator.
Answer:
(a) Arbitrator.

Question 3.
Sudhir, a college student, follows Kriti, his classmate. He sends her unwanted messages and ‘friend request’ on different social media portals. Although there is no violence or threat of violence, is Sudhir still guilty of any wrong? [1].
(a) Yes, because he is invading Kriti’s privacy.
(b) Yes, because he is unlawfully harassing Kriti.
(c) No, because he is not causing any physical harm or injury to Kriti.
(d)Yes, because he is being negligent towards his duties as a good student.
Answer:
(a) Corporate Law.

Question 4.
Raveena is working with a reputed law firm. Her areas of specialization typically involve practicing commercial and economic laws and advising on issues pertaining to commercial transactions between two parties. She also advises on the laws applicable to the transactions, drafts contracts and other documents, and helps clients with commercial negotiations. Raveena is specialized in [1].
(a) Corporate Law.
(b) Taxation Law.
(c) Transactional Law.
(d) Legal Process Outsourcing.
Answer:
(c) Transactional Law.

Question 5.
Michael Browne has an undergraduate degree in Anthropology and aspires to become a lawyer in the UK. Which of the following will enable him to do so? [1].
(a) Pupillage.
(b) Common Professional Examination.
(c) Bar Vocational Course.
(d) Legal Practice Course.
Answer:
(d) Legal Practice Course.

Question 6.
Situation I A man after the commission of a crime wrote a letter to his relative or friend expressing his grief over the matter. Situation II A dishonestly puts bait for dogs in his pocket, and thus induces Z’s dog to follow it. [1].
(a) It amounts to a confession in the situation I and theft in situation II.
(b) It amounts to theft in both situations.
(c) It amounts to a confession in both situations.
(d) There is no wrong in both case.
Answer:
(a) It amounts to a confession in the situation I and theft in situation II.

Question 7.
Match the following freedoms with appropriate restrictions.

	Column 1		Column II
A.	Freedom to practice any profession.	(i)	Protection of interest of scheduled tribes.
B.	Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India	(ii)	State-prescribed professional or technical qualification
C.	Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms.	(iii)	Public order.
D.	Freedom of speech and. expression.	(iv)	Defamation.

Codes

	A	B	C	D
(a)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
(b)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
(c)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
(d)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)

Answer:
(a)(ii)(i)(iii)(iv).

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the death penalty? [1].
(a) the Death penalty is awarded only in the rarest of rarest cases.
(b) There should not be a delay in executing the prisoner waiting on death row.
(c) Indian Penal Code allows for appeal where the waiting period is longer than five years.
(d) Death penalty is not allowed in India.
Answer:
(d) Death penalty is not allowed in India.

Question 9.
The Criminal Law in India does not take into account liability in determining criminal culpability. [1].
(a) intention (Mens Rea).
(b) commission of an act (Actus Reus).
(c) motive.
(d) attempt in affixing criminal.
Answer:
(d) attempt in affixing criminal.

Question 10.
Assertion (A) The Model Code of Professional Responsibility, 1969, and the newer Model Rules of Professional Conduct, 1983 have been adopted in 49 states, DC, and in the Virgin Islands. Reason (R) The only exception is the state of California. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is. false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Question 11.
Assertion (A) For qualified lawyers coming from outside England and Wales, it is still possible to practice. Reason (R) The Solicitors Regulation Authority (SRA) does not impose any formal experience requirements in order to re-qualify as solicitors in England and Wales. [1].
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Question 12.
The Chairman of the District Legal Services Authority is. [1].
(a) Judge of High Court.
(b) Chief Justice of concerned High Court.
(c) District Judge.
(d) Advocate General.
Answer:
(c) District Judge.

Question 13.
In which of the following cases was it held that in the matter of confiscation of passports, a hearing should have been given to the petitioner in the interest of the principles of natural justice? Consequently, a hearing was given and the passport was returned to her. [1].
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
(b) Kharak Singh case.
(c) Three judge’s cases.
(d) Kesavananda Bharati Case.
Answer:
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.

Question 14.
In which of the following cases has the court held that if a treaty or international agreement restricts the rights of the citizens or modifies the laws of the state, it would be required to have a legislative measure? [1].
(a) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India.
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI.
(c) Sheela Barse v. Union of India.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Magan Bhai Patel v. Union of India.

Question 15.
Ankush was caught red-handed while traveling without a ticket in an outstation bus by the concerned officer. [1].
(a) Ankush has to pay a fine as the officer is compounding the offense.
(b) Ankush has to be imprisoned as this is a non-compoundable offense.
(c) Ankush can’t pay a fine at all but has to be imprisoned by the officer.
(d) The concerned officer can allow Ankush to travel without a ticket.
Answer:
(a) Ankush has to pay a fine as the officer is compounding the offense.

Direction Read the following principles carefully and answer questions 16 to 20.
Legal Principles
1 . An attempt is an act committed in part execution of a criminal design or intent, more than mere preparation, but falling
short of actual commission.

2. Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or. intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to cheat.

3. Preparation is the second stage in the commission of a crime. It means arranging the necessary measures for the commission of the intended criminal act.
4. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that his act is likely to cause death, commits the offense of murder.
5. Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act shall be guilty of negligence.
Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and choose the most appropriate answer.

Question 16.
In which of the following cases is X guilty of attempting to commit an offense? [1].
(a) X, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Y, sends his servant to buy a stamp paper in the name of Y. As the servant reaches the shop, he is arrested.
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.
(c) X pours half a pint of substance from a bottle marked ‘poison’ into the drink of Y. Y is not aware of it. Later, it turns out that the bottle did not contain any poison.
(d) X administers some noxious substance to Ria so that an abortion results. The woman was not pregnant.
Answer:
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.

Question 17.
Amar applied for the post of PG teacher in a government school and submitted his application along with his degrees. He was called for the interview on 10th June 2018. But the school authorities on 10th May 2018, discovered that the copy of the degrees attached to Amar’s application was forged and so the application was rejected. Has any offense been committed by Amar? [1].
(a) Yes, Amar is guilty of cheating.
(b) Yes, Amar is guilty of preparing to cheat.
(c) Yes, Amar is guilty of attempting to cheat.
(d) No, Amar is not guilty of any offense as he is not called for the interview.
Answer:
(c) Yes, Amar is guilty of attempting to cheat.

Question 18.
X tries to pickpocket Z. Z has a loaded pistol in his pocket. X’s hand touches the pistol and triggers it, resulting in the death of Z. Which of the following offenses has been committed by X? [1].
(a)X is guilty of causing Z’s murder.
(b) X is guilty of culpable homicide by negligence.
(c) X is guilty of causing grievous hurt.
(d)X is guilty of pickpocketing.
Answer:
(d)X is guilty of pickpocketing.

Question 19.
Which of the following is the first stage of any crime?[1].
(a) Intention.
(b) Preparation.
(c) Commission.
(d) Omission.
Answer:
(a) Intention.

Question 20.
A jumps into a swimming pool to save a boy from drowning. While pulling the boy from the water, A was hit by C. A left the boy in the water and attacked C. The boy died in the water. Choose the appropriate option.[1].
(a) A has not committed the offense of killing the boy.
(b) A has committed the offense of killing the boy.
(c) The boy has committed the offense of suicide.
(d) The boy has committed the offense of drowning.
Answer:
(a) A has not committed the offense of killing the boy.

Section-B (16 Marks)

Question 21.
What happened to the old categories of legal practitioners after the enactment of the Advocates’ Act, of 1961? [2].

Question 22.
(i) How has the Supreme Court diluted the provision of ‘locus standi’? [2].
(ii) Give an example of a situation where the principle of proportionality was used by the Court

Question 23.
(i) How can an immovable property of a value more than ₹100 be transferred?
(ii) What is the objective of Lis Pendens? [2].

Question 24.
“This source of Public International Law is described as evidence of general practice accepted as law.” Identify and explain this provision of the source of International Law. [2].

Question 25.
(i) State the composition of NLSA. [2].
(ii) State the composition of SCLC.

Question 26.
(i) What is conciliation?
(ii) In what ways does the role of a conciliator go beyond that of a mediator? [2].

Question 27.
Michael Kruger and James MacDonald are fighting a court case against each other. In the legal system of their country, the judge decides the manner in which evidence must be presented in court. Identify the legal system and state one of its advantages. [2].
Or
What is the difference between the role of a mediator and a conciliator-?

Question 28.
Ms. Celine D’Souza was working as a teller at Bharat Bank. She was charged with misappropriation of funds and without any grounds, she was suspended for 15 days. She applied for revocation of the suspension and the General Manager of the branch accepted her request as there was no proof against her. But she was transferred to a remote area branch and was paid a salary for 15 days only. She alleged that she has been discriminated against as she is a Christian. Identify the body she can approach for relief and give any two powers of this body. [2].
Or
Write any four powers of the National Commission for Women, which are similar to that of a civil court.

Section -C (24 Marks)

Question 29.
Article 21 states “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.” [3].
(i) What is meant by the term ‘right to life and personal liberty’?
(ii) How can one’s life and personal liberty be taken away?

Question 30.
(i) Name the body responsible for regulating the minimum legal standards to be maintained by institutions that impart legal education in India.
(ii) State any two categories of legal practitioners that existed under British rule in India. [3].

Question 31.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations [3].
(i) Two disputing parties who are located in different cities want to engage a mediator who is located in yet another city. The parties to the dispute and the mediator are unable to meet each other due to geographic distance and the situation arising out of Covid 19. Which type of mediation should they resort to?
(ii) A labor dispute arose between the migrant labor’s union and the management of a construction company. The disputing parties agreed to engage the services of Mr. Kulkarni, a neutral third party in resolving the dispute. Mr. Kulkarni suggested possible solutions to resolve disputes and claims.
(iii) A dispute arose between Medico Care Pharmaceutical Company, India and Health will Incorporation, China over the supply of faulty PPE and testing kits. Both companies want to resolve the dispute as per the guidelines of UNCITRAL

Question 32.
Comment with reasons on the type of ADR that can be most effective in resolving the following situations [3].
(i) A dispute arose between Euro Space Consulting Co. and XYZ Hero Ltd. with respect to some technical issues relating to their technical design. They wanted to resolve their dispute but also had to keep matters confidential and their business secrets protected.
(ii) Sudha buys a TV and realizes it isn’t cooling as it is defective. She tries to return it or have the company fix it, but doesn’t succeed. She
talks with the salesperson, speaks with the manager, and writes emails to the company, and still, she is not satisfied with the company’s response. The disputing parties agree to refer the dispute to a neutral third party, Mr.Ranganathan who evaluates their case and directs them toward settlement.
(iii) Ritika and Rohan face marital discord but owing to the well-being of their daughter, they refer the dispute to an Institution that gives a binding decision without being bound by any procedural formality. This institution uses a social worker in its panel.

Question 33.
(i) What are the three kinds of trial procedures under CrPC? [3].
(ii) A man after the commission of a crime wrote a letter to his relative or friend expressing his grief over the matter. Will this amount to a confession?

Question 34.
List down the advantages of the separation of powers. [3].
Or
Define the division of powers in the context of the Indian Constitution.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the concept of the lease. Can sub-lessee sue the original lessor for damages for violation of quiet enjoyment of the property? [3].

Question 36.
International Human Rights have gained prominence in recent years. In this context, define international human rights. Also, a state is one of the most influential documents in this regard. [3].

Section-D (20 Marks)

Question 37.
Jerbo Mustafa was indicted on charges of committing ‘crimes of aggression’ in Aleppo. In this context. [5].
(i) Identify the international organization that can initiate action against him.
(ii) State the categories of crimes that can be dealt with by this organization.
(iii) Discuss the manner in which this organization takes up cases.

Question 38.
Explain the role of the following enactments in the history of the Legal Profession in India. [5].
(i) The Legal Practitioners Act of 1846.
(ii) Indian Bar Councils Act, 1926.
Or
Explain the categories of legal practitioners in India after the Advocates Act, of 1961.

Question 39.
What is the sale? What are the rights and liabilities of the seller and buyer? [5].
Or
Write a short note on the lease and determine the rights of the lessor.

Question 40.
What are ‘fundamental duties’? State their salient features. How are fundamental duties different from fundamental rights?
Or
What was the status of the right to education before it became a fundamental right under Article 21 A? [5].

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 8 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. 15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) Listening is the ability to accurately receive and interpret message in the communication process. One of the greatest gifts any of us can ever receive is the gift of listening. It is also one of the greatest gifts we can ever give. Unfortunately, it appears to be a lost art. We live in a world where everyone is talking but few are listening. What often passes for listening is simply one person pausing to collect their thoughts for their next soliloquy.

(2) Hearing refers to the sounds that you hear, whereas listening requires more than that it requires focus. Listening means paying attention not only to the story, but how it is told, the use of language and voice, and how the other person uses his or her body. In other words, it means being aware of both verbal and non-verbal messages. Your ability to listen effectively depends on the degree to which you perceive and understand these messages.

(3) Listening is a difficult task. Like every skill the more you do it, the better you get up. Listening can be developed through practice, or lost if not used regularly. Good listeners focus on what they are hearing. They pause to think about what they’ve heard before responding. They ask questions because they want to know the answers. Not just to keep the conversation going.

(4) So often, we are distracted with other things. We try to listen while continuing to work on the computer or watch television. To be fully present means we eliminate these distractions and focus exclusively on the other person. It takes great effort to be fully in the moment, leaning forward, eyes and heart open. Words are only the part of communication.

Sometimes we need to experience the other person’s feelings to really understand. We need to listen with our heart as well as our mind. We must repeat back what the other person has said. When we do this-and do it accurately-we communicate that we understand. It also gives us an opportunity to re-calibrate our understanding if we have misunderstood something. Plenty of people are good talkers, few are good listeners. If you develop the latter skill, you will find yourself invited into amazing conversations that wouldn’t otherwise happen.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) According to the passage, listening appear to be a lost art because we live in a world where …………………. [1]
Answer:
Everyone is talking but few are listening.

(B) Choose the options with the sentences that are NOT TRUE according to the passage.
(I) Words are only the part of communication.
(II) Lots of people are good listeners.
(III) Listening refers to the voice that you heat.
(IV) Good listeners focus on what they hear.
(V) Listening is a tough task.
(VI) Hearing requires no focus.
(a) II, III, VI
(b) III, V, VI
(c) I, III, IV
(d) I, IV, VI [1]
Answer:
(a) II, III, VI
Explanation: The context shows (i) negligence as the person will ‘ignore’ the limits and (iv) recklessness as the person knows that ‘he has reached his limit but still chooses to see how long can he get by with it”. It doesn’t show any of (ii), (iii) or (v) options. Hence, option (a ) is the right answer.

(C) Fill in the blank with the correct option.
……………….. focus on what they are hearing.
(a) good listeners
(b) good orators
(c) good understanding
(d) good speakers [1]
Answer:
(a) good listeners

(D) Select the option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the following.
(a) Do more listening than talking
(b) Never stop listening
(c) Learn by talking
(d) Listening is talking [1]
Answer:
(a) Do more listening than talking

(E) We need to experience the other person’s feelings:
(a) to really understand
(b) to be the part of the communication
(c) to recalibrate our understanding
(d) to keep the conversation going [1]
Answer:
(a) to really understand
Explanation: In order to understand the other person completely, we need to listen to him through both our heart and mind. Hence (a) is the right answer.

(F) What our ability to listen effectively depends on?
(a) how the other person uses his or her body
(b) use of language and voice
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) degree to which we perceive and understand the messages [1]
Answer:
(d) degree to which we perceive and understand the messages

(G) We need to ………………… with our heart as well as our mind. [1]
Answer:
listen

(H) ‘hearing’, different from ‘listening’ as:
(a) Hearing eliminates distraction; Listening gives us an opportunity to re-calibra our understanding
(b) Hearing is the ability to receive message; Listening is the ability to interpret message
(c) Hearing refers to the sounds that you hear; Listening means paying attention not only to the story, but how is it told
(d) Option (a), (b) and (c) [1]
Answer:
(c) Hearing refers to the sounds that you hear; Listening means paying attention not only to the story, but how is it told

(I) Listening refers to observing the sounds you hear. True/False [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: Listening refers to paying attention not only to the sounds you hear but also on the language, tone, voice, style, etc.

(J) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passage.
Accurately : perfectly :: ……………… : unfocussed [1]
Answer:
Distracted

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.
(1) Millions of tons of small waste from plastic bags, bottles and clothes in the world’s ocean present a serious threat to human health and marine environment. This is a warming issued by the U.N. in a report on the most dangerous environmental problem facing the world today. Global plastic production has increased considerably in years nearly by 38%.

(2) A poor waste management means when we have finished with our takeaways contains cigarette butts and party balloons, they are worn down into trillions of even small particles by the waves. Therefore, there is a growing presence of these micro plastic the world’s oceans.

(3) It was estimated in 2010 that millions of tons of plastic was washed into the season have since shown up in the stomachs of whales, plankton and other marine life. Richard Thompson, professor of marine biology said that in laboratory experiments the proof that micro plastic an cause harm to organisms.

(4) More than a quarter of all fish now contained plastic, according to a recent study why analysed the guts of fish sold in California. Scientist fear that chemical sin plastician also chemicals which attach themselves to plastic in natural environment could each poisoning and many disorders in marine lie if consumed in huge quantities.

(5) Even human could be adversely affected by the plastic. People could even be brething in plastic micro-particles suspended in the air with the risk of harmful effect on the lungs similar to air fumes.

(6) Volunteers around the world collect trash and tally up what they find on the fall in Ocean’s Conservancy’s Annual International Coastal Cleanup. The result item-by-item, location-by-location Ocean Trash Index provides the only snapshot of marine debris littering coasts and waterways around the world, according to Ocean Conservancy.

(7) Boyance Slat, a Dutch student has developed a technology that could sift dangerous plastic particle out of the ocean and sell them for profit or re-cycling. Richard Thompson recommended that people avoid using products with micro beads and to make sure they dispose of all plastic products in a appropriate way by, if possible.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) Select the option that is true for the two statements given below.
(1) More than a quarter of all fish now have plastics present in them.
(2) Millions of tons of plastic waste is present in the world’s oceans.
(a) (1) is the result of (2)
(b) (1) is the reason for (2)
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) (1) contradicts (2) [1]
Answer:
(a) (1) is the result of (2).
Explanation: It is clearLy given in passage that due to the plastic waste amalgamating in the waters of the oceans, the marine life is risked and contaminated with micro-plastics in them. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(B) According to the passage, Richard Thompson is a …………………. [1]
Answer:
Professor in marine biology

(C) ……………… provides the only snapshot of marine debris littering coasts and waterways. [1]
Answer:
Ocean Trash Index

(D) Through what does the cigarette butts and party balloons worn down into smaller particles? [1]
Answer:
Waves

(E) We can find out that more than a quarter of all fish contained plastics in them by:
(a) the stark warming issued by the UN in a report on the most dangerous environmental problems facing the world today.
(b) collecting trash and tallying up what they find each day
(c) laboratory experiments performed by Richard Thompson a profession marine biology.
(d) analysing the fish sold in California [1]
Answer:
(d) analysing the fish sold in California.

(F) Choose the correct set of statement which is NOT TRUE.
(I) Plastic could have similar effects like car fumes.
(II) Chemicals which attach themselves to plastic in natural environment could cause poisoning in marine life.
(III) Humans will never be adversely affected by the plastic.
(IV) In 2001, Millions of tons of plastic was washed into the sea.
(V) There is a growing presence of micro plastics in the world’s oceans.
(a) (II), (V)
(b) (I), (V)
(c) (I), (II)
(d) (III), (IV) [1]
Answer:
(d) (III), (IV)

(G) What amount of paper bags in the index are diffused into the oceans? [1]
Answer:
298,332

(H) Fill in the blank with with the correct option.
There are …………………. beverage cans found in the index.
(a) 337,865
(b) 339,875
(c) 339,445
(d) 333,347 [1]
Answer:
(b) 339,875

(I) Richard Thompson has recommended to use product that has no micro-beads of plastic into them. True/False. [1]
Answer:
True

(J) How can the technology developed by Beyonce Slat help to curb the plastic issue? [1]
Answer:
Beyonce Slat has developed a technology that can shift the dangerous plastic particles out of the ocean and recycle it.

Section – B
Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Attempt ANY TEN of the given questions.
(A) Choose the correct option to fill in the blank to complete the note about the Wangala Festival of Meghalaya.
The Wangala ……………. festival for the Garo in Meghalaya, Assam and Nagaland. It is a post-harvest festival celebrated to mark the end of the agricultural year. It is popularly known as ‘The Hundred Drums’ festival.
(a) is important
(b) are an important
(c) was the important
(d) is an important [1]
Answer:
(d) is an important

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option.
You ………………. consult the Thesaurus if you need groups of synonyms for those words.
(a) had to
(b) need to
(c) used to
(d) might [1]
Answer:
(b) need to

(C) Complete the given sentence with the correct form of (be).
Everybody …………………. keen to participate in the upcoming nukkad natak.
(a) are
(b) has
(c) is
(d) were [1]
Answer:
(c) is

(D) Rll in the gap with the right quantifier.
The good news is that …………………. volunteers dropped out this month than the last two.
(a) fewer
(b) less
(c) few
(d) a little [1]
Answer:
(a) fewer

(E) Complete the given sentence with the correct articles.
It was …………………. historic day for the organisation when …………………. honour was bestowed upon its employees.
(a) a; an
(b) an; the
(c) the; a
(d) an; a [1]
Answer:
(a) a; an

(F) The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the correction. The first one has been done for you.

		Error of	Correction of
Chess is called the game off kings.	Example
It has being around for a long time.	(i)	…………………….	…………………….
People have been played it for over 500 years.	(ii)	…………………….	…………………….
Chess was based on an even older game from India.	(iii)	…………………….	…………………….
The chess we play today is from Europe.

Answer:

Error	Correction
(i) being	Been
(ii) played	Playing
(iii) was	is

(G) I ……………… not budge an inch from the righteous path.
(a) shall
(b) might
(c) can
(d) will [1]
Answer:
(d) will

(H) It ……………….. no tress, building or billboards.
(a) have
(b) will have
(c) has
(d) would have [1]
Answer:
(c) has

(I) A number of people ………………. reported to be missing in the car accident at Pune.
(a) is
(b) are
(c) were
(d) was [1]
Answer:
(c) were

(J) We don’t think there will be a severe shortage of drinkable water because there was rainfall yesterday.
(a) a lot of
(b) few
(c) many
(d) lots [1]
Answer:
(a) a lot of

(K) Change the narration of the following sentence by choosing the correct option Ram said to me, “Why did you not complete your assigment?”
(a) Ram asked me why I did not complete my assigment.
(b) Ram told me why I has not completed my assigment.
(c) Ram asked me why I had not completed my assigment.
(d) Ram informed me why I had not completed my assigment. [1]
Answer:
(b) Ram told me why I has not completed my assigment.

(L) Change the narration of the following sentence by choosing the correct option.
He said to his maid, “Why are you so lazy today?”
(a) He asked his maid why he had been so lazy that day.
(b) He asked his maid why he was so lazy that day.
(c) He asked his maid why was he so lazy that day.
(d) He asked his maid why he was being so lazy that day. [1]
Answer:
(b) He asked his maid why he was so lazy that day.

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
You are Tabassum/Tarun, a resident of Satya Nagar Colony, Bhubaneshwar, Orissa. You have noticed that some residents of your colony are repeatedly flouting quarantine rules laid out during the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic.

Write a letter to the SHO of the local Police Station, drawing attention towards the same.

Explain how such acts impact the health of the community and request immediate intervention and strict action.
OR
You are Vaijanthi/Vijay from Prakasham Nagar, Secunderabad, Andhra Pradesh. Write a letter to Book Haven Store, requesting home delivery of the books, stationery and art materials you had ordered telephonically. Share the reason for being unable to pick up the goods in person. Confirm your address details and a convenient time slot. [5]
Answer:
25-Satya Nagar Colony
Bhubaneshwar Orissa
14^th October 2020
SHO, Satya Nagar
Police Station
Bhubaneshwar Orissa
Subject: Concern over flouting of quarantine rules.
Sir
This is to draw your attention to the constant flouting of quarantine norms by the residents. Despite the repeated requests by the RWA and reminders residents are showing a complete disregard of the rules.

People are moving around the complex in groups without wearing masks, showing complete disregard for the guidelines. This casual attitude is not only harmful for them but reflects a complete disregard for the well-being of others. The RWA has also not made any efforts to check this behavior. The elderly are stressed that this will further aggravate an already serious situation. As a concerned resident this is an urgent appeal that you look into the matter and take stringent action against those breaking the norms. Kindly instruct the RWA to strictly enforce the guidelines. I hope that your interference in this regard will go a long way in controlling the spread of the virus.
Thanking you
Yours sincerely
Tabassum/Tarun
OR
25, Prakasham Nagar
Secunderabad
Andhra Pradesh
12^th March 20XX
The Manager
Book Haven Store
Secunderabad
Subject: Request for Home Delivery of Order.
This is with reference to the order of books, stationary and art materials which I had placed telephonically on 11th March 20XX at 5:00 pm. I was to collect the order on 13th March 20XX but due to an emergency in the family I will not be able to collect the order in person.

I need the ordered material urgently and I humbly request you to kindly have the order delivered at the address mentioned above. I would be grateful if the order could be delivered between 2:00 pm to 5:00 pm tomorrow. The payment for the same will be made in cash to the delivery executive.

I would be grateful if you would look into the matter and expedite the delivery at my home address. In case of any difficulty in locating the address, the delivery executive can call at the 89765XXXXX.
Thanking you
Yours sincerely
Vijay

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
The chart below displays data about the number of digital devices purchased in Rishunagar across the years 2015-2019. Write a paragraph analyzing the given data.
Digital devices purchased across years in Rishunagar.

OR
Read the following excerpt from an article that appeared in the magazine section of a local daily:
The ban on single-use plastic is impractical. The purpose of articles like bags and packaging is ultimately to make human life easier. Plastic articles do this well, so they shouldn’t be banned.

Write a paragraph to analyse the given argument.

You could think about what alternative explanations might weaken the given conclusion and include rationale/evidence that would strengthen / counter the given argument. [5]
Answer:
Technology governs every facet of our life and the given data shows how the staggering figures of digital device sales. The given data clearly shows how from being a luxury computers and smartphones have become a necessity. In 2015, about 3500 computers and 42000 smartphones were purchased. However, the sales of digital devices have shown a gradual increase over the past four years.

There is a very clear indication that people prefer buying smartphones over computers. The sales of smartphones have always been more than computers barring the year 2017 when in contrast to 81000 computers 78000 smartphones were sold. Preference of smartphones also indicates that people find it easier to work with smartphones and since they offer much of the same features as computers and are easy to carry.

The year 2019 shows a sharp spike crossing the 100,000 mark in a year which is a clear indicator of our dependence on this digital device. Given the present situation the sales are bound to continue with this upward trend.

Single use plastic epitomizes the present day culture and this has devastating connotations for the environment. Taking note of this governments’ world over are joining hands to ban plastic. Bit is that really a solution, when everything is plastic-from medical equipment to furniture to household equipment We are yet to come up with an alternative to plastic and think of how plastic gas made life convenient for us.

Affordable packs and sachets have made things affordable and accessible for the poor. The ban is also impractical as this has only made us replace one form of plastic with another, we are buying plastic garbage bags to dispose of garbage. We are yet to find a replacement for plastic and single use plastic is only serving the purpose of adding more plastic to the landfills which does not portent well for the environment. There needs to be a better thought our plan before this blanket ban is enforced.

Section – C
Literature (40 Marks)

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE of the given extracts. (5 x 1 = 5)
Suddenly she was startled by a voice. “Listen, child,” said the voice, “you shouldn’t stand like that Sit down.”
Sitting down, she looked to see who had spoken. It was an elderly man who had honestly been concerned for her, but she was annoyed by his attention.
“There’s nobody here who’s a child,” she said haughtily. “I’ve paid my thirty paise like everyone else.”
The conductor chimed in. “Oh, sir, but this is a very grown-up madam. Do you think a mere girl could pay her own fare and travel to the city all alone?”
Valli shot an angry glance at the conductor and said, “I am not a madam. Please remember that. And you’ve not yet given me my ticket.”
“I’ll remember,” the conductor said, mimicking her tone. Everyone laughed, and gradually Valli too joined in the laughter.
(A) How did Valli feel when the elder man expressed concern that she was standing?
Valli felt fairly ………………… [1]
Answer:
displeased
Explanation: Startled means to show sudden shock but Valli’s conversation with the elderly man and the conductor shows that she was annoyed by the way she was treated it the right answer.

(B) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to the given extract:
(1) Valli was travelling without a guardian.
(2) The conductor was bullying Valli.
(3) Valli was nervous in her interactions.
(4) Valli was a child passenger.
(5) Valli followed the elderly man’s advice.
(6) Valli’s response to the elderly man was respectful.
(7) It took Valli some time to participate in the jocular conversations.
(a) (2), (3), (4)
(b) (5), (6), (7)
(c) (3). (5), (7)
(d) (2), (3), (6) [1]
Answer:
(d) (2), (3), (6)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is true as Valli had paid for the ticket herself.
Statement 2 is not true as the conductor joyfully corrected the elderly man.
Statement 3 is true as Valli confidently argued with the elderly man and the bus conductor.
Statement 4 is also true as we can see that the co-passengers were amused by her pretendence of being a grown up.
Statement 5 is also true as Valli sac at the seat offered by the elderly man.
Statement 6 is not true as she was annoyed by the old man’s address and haughtily talked to him.
Statement 7 is also true as in the last line of the paragraph author tells us that she also joined the laughter.
Hence statement 2, 3 and 6 are not true. Therefore (d) is the correct answer.

(C) Pick the option that correctly classifies fact/s (F) and opinion/s (O) of the students below:
(1) I think the conductor shouldn’t have allowed Valli to board.
(2) I feel that Valli was being irresponsible
(3) Let’s not forget that Valli was a paying passenger like other.
Answer:
(3) Let’s not forget that Valli was a paying passenger like other.

(D) Oh, come on! She was just out for on adventure. Wasn’t she?
(a) F – 1, 2 and O – 3, 4
(b) F – 2, 3, 4 and O – 1
(c) F – 2, 4 and O – 1, 3
(d) F – 3 and O – 1, 2, 4 [1]
Answer:
(d) F-3 and O – 1, 2,4
Explanation: Student 3 here is stating a fact as we know that Valli paid for her ticket and statements by students 1, 2 and 4 are their own opinions as there is no evidence to support them. Hence the correct answer is (d).

(D) Which word does ‘chimed in’ NOT correspond to?
(a) Intervened
(b) Interrupted
(c) Intersected
(d) Interjected [1]
Answer:
(c) Intersected
Explanation: The conductor chimed in to stop the haughty conversation between Valli and the old passenger. Option (a), (b) and (d) all correspond to the meaning that is to stop or break some conversation. So the correct answer is (c) intersected which means to divide something.

(E) Choose the characteristic displayed by the conductor when he addressed Valli and declared that she couldn’t be ‘a mere girl’:
(a) encouragement
(b) indulgence
(c) embarrassment
(d) authority [1]
Answer:
(b) indulgence
Explanation: This statement by the
conductor shows his tolerance toward the haughty behaviour of a child hence indulgence (b) is the correct answer. He in no way wanted to encourage, embarrass Valli. Neither he intended to show his authority. So all other options are ruled out.
OR
The baker or bread-seLLer of those days had a peculiar dress known as the kabai. It was a single piece long frock reaching down to the knees. In our childhood we saw bakers wearing shirt and trousers which were shorter than full-length ones and longer than half pants. Even today, anyone who wears a half pant which reaches just below the knees invites the comment that he is dressed like a pader!
(A) Choose the answer that lists the correct option about the recording of the baker’s monthly accounts.

(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4) [1]
Answer:
(c) Option (3)
Explanation: As the author recalls that the baker used to write his monthly accounts on a wall so option (c) i.e picture 3 which shows numbers written on a wall is the correct answer.

(B) When the writer says, ‘Baking was indeed a profitable profession in the old days.’, he means that. [1]
Answer:
Baking, as a job, isn’t as gainful as it used to be, as in the very beginning of the passage the author tells us that the eaters of the Portugese bread have reduced in numbers clearly indicating that baking as a profession is now no longer that flourishing.

(C) The statement that is TRUE about payment collection, according to the passage is:
(a) The baker received payment on a daily basis.
(b) The baker was paid for his services at the end of the month.
(c) The baker insisted that customers pay before the month-end.
(d) The baker chose to receive payment any day of the month. [1]
Answer:
(b) The baker was paid for his services at the end of the month.
Explanation: Author tells us that the baker used to record his monthly accounts on some wall and collect his bills at the end of the month so option (b) is the correct choice.

(D) The kabai was a ‘peculiar’ outfit as it was ………………. [1]
Answer:
a dress-like attire
Explanation: Author tells us that the kabai was a single piece long frock.

(E) The extract uses the phrase, ‘invites (the) comments’. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘invites’?

(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(b) Option (2)
Explanation: Invites comment here means to prompt or invoke someone to make a comment. In this context one can always invite (1) trouble (3) guests (4) applications but we can never prompt prayers so (b) is the correct answer.

Question 7.
Attempt ANY ONE of the given extracts. (5 x 1 = 5)
But he’s locked in a concrete cell,
His strength behind bars,
Stalking the length of his cage,
Ignoring visitors.
He hears the last voice at night,
The patrolling cars,
And stares with his brilliant eyes
At the brilliant stars
(A) The fact that the tiger is ‘stalking the length of his cage’ tells us that he is ………….. [1]
Answer:
restless
Explanation: The fact that the tiger ignores his visitors and continuously walks through the length and breadth of his cage shows that he is restless.

(B) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanzas?
Answer:
abed; abeb
Explanation: Last word of every line in the first stanza does not rhyme with each other. So its scheme is abed. In the second stanza only the second and fourth lines have rhyming words so its scheme is abeb.

(C) These stanzas bring out the contrast between:
(a) zoos and cities
(b) strength and weakness
(c) freedom and captivity
(d) visitors and patrolling cars [1]
Answer:
(c) freedom and captivity
Explanation: These stanzas depict tigers feeling in captivity. He doesn’t know about the city life as he is closed in his cage so (a) is not the answer. The tiger’s strength is locked behind the bars. He in no way is weak so (b) also can’t be the answer. The tiger ignores his visitors and just hears the patrolling cars so (d) is also not the answer. All he thinks about is his free life. He is restless in captivity. So (c) is the correct answer.

(D) What is the caged tiger NOT likely to say to the visitors?
(a) “Stop staring”
(b) “Set me free”
(c) “Join me”
(d) “Go away” [1]
Answer:
(c) “Join me”.
Explanation: The caged tiger doesn’t like the staring people so he can say “stop staring” (a) and “go away” (d). As he doesnt like captivity so can say: “set me free” (b). So (c) is the only correct answer.

(E) The tiger’s ‘brilliant eyes’ reveal that he:
(a) hopes to be free and in the wild, someday
(b) is looked after well and is nourished and healthy
(c) enjoys staring at the bright stars each night
(d) is well-rested and hence, wide-awake [1]
Answer:
(a) hopes to be free and in the wild, someday.
Explanation: The captive tiger looks at the shining stars with his brilliant eyes with (a) hope that someday he would be free like them. So (a) is the correct answer.
OR
I saw it go
Merrily bouncing, down the street and then
Merrily over – there it is in the water!
No use to say ‘O there are other balls’
An ultimate shaking grief fixes the boy
As he stands rigid, trembling, staring down
All his young days into the harbour where
His ball went

(A) The poet uses the ball as a symbol of the boy’s:
(a) sense of adventure
(b) carefree childhood days
(c) ability to bounce back
(d) extended family [1]
Answer:
(b) carefree childhood days.
Explanation: The boy stands rigid as he watches his ball go into the water so there is no adventure involved. The ball cannot bounce back in water and in no way the ball can refer to his extended family. The ball here is compared to his carefree childhood days (option b) as that time he could roam freely and do whatever he liked just as the ball rolls and bounces everywhere.

(B) The poet feels that there is no point consoling the boy as ………………. [1]
Answer:
whatever he has lost is irretrievable Explanation: The ball here has been compared to the child’s carefree days and the ball in water indicates the age when the child has grown up and now there is no way to bounce back. The boy misses those past days but whatever is gone past has gone.

(C) The word ‘harbour’ DOES NOT have a meaning similar to:
(a) port
(b) pier
(c) dock
(d) cargo [1]
Answer:
(d) cargo
Explanation: Harbour, Port, Pier and dock refer to some sort of place near the sea shore but cargo means the goods that are carried on a ship. So (d) is the answer.

(D) ‘Merrily over – there it is in the water!’ The dash here is meant to convey ……………… [1]
Answer:
a sense of unexpected interruption. Explanation: Whenever we play with a ball and suddenly see that it is going to a place from where we cannot get it back we stand there astonished we have to put brake on our play. Similarly when the boy realises that his life has entered a phase from where there is no returning back, he feels that all his merry times are over and his carefree life has been interrupted.

(E) The word that DOES NOT indicate a physical manifestation of sorrow in the boy, is:
(a) worthless
(b) shaking
(c) trembling
(d) rigid [1]
Answer:
(a) worthless
Explanation: Feelings (b), (c) & (d) are shown physically. Only the feeling of worthlessness cannot be expressed physically. Hence (a) is the correct answer.

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR questions in 40-50 words each. (4 x 3 = 12)
(A) Describe how Custard’s reaction was different from that of others, on seeing the pirate? [3]
(B) Who, according to Nelson Mandela, is a courageous man? [3]
(c) Anne writes that it was fortunate that Mr. Keesing took the joke the right way. Why does she feel so? [3]
(D) The use of symbolism in the poem ‘Fire and Ice’ conveys the poet’s message effectively. Expand with reference to the poem. [3]
(E) Justify the poet’s allusion to Rapunzel in ‘Amanda’. [3]
Answer:
(A) Belinda’s other pets always teased Custard and called him a coward, but Custard was the only one who stood up to fight the pirate. The others ran away to save themselves.

(B) Mandela believes that a person who hasn’t experienced fear is not necessarily courageous. He firmly believed that a person who does not give in and is able to overcome all fears is truly courageous.

(C) When the previous attempts at making Anne write about talking did not work Mr. Keesing asked her to write an unusual essay on Quack, Quack, Quack,” said Mrs. Chatterbox. Anne wrote that, in the form of a verse, telling the story of a father swan who had bitten his ducklings for talking too much. Mr. Keesing took the joke the right way and stopped punishing her.

(D) Robert Frost’s employs symbolism where fire represents desire and ice hatred. Fire and ice being the two vices in which the speaker discusses could possibly lead to the end of our existence. The speaker is able to generalize that the world will end in either desire or hatred and still be accurate as desire and hatred are expansive emotions, with many acts committed under them can have devastating result

(E) The poet uses allusion to depict that Amanda knows of the trouble that came Rapunzel’s way because she let her hair down. She wishes to live alone without any disturbance and unlike Rapunzel she doesn’t want to escape. She feels just as Rapunzel was kept Licked her mother’s constant nagging also holds captive.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO questions in 40-50 words each. (2 x 3 = 6)
(A) Griffin’s brilliance as a man of science fades before his darker traits. Comment. [3]
(B) Why do you think Mr. Weiherer was pleased that Richard Ebright not only put in the nightly research hours towards butterflies, but also his other interests? [3]
(C) What madame Forestier exclaim in astonishment, when she saw Matilda, years after the Minister’s ball? [3]
Answer:
(A) Though a brilliant scientist, Griffin was a lawless person. He was disliked by most people, his quick temper did nothing to endear him to people. Instead of using science for the betterment of humanity he wanted to use it for his nefarious plan. He burnt down the landlord’s horse to seek revenge. His petty and mean conduct always stood out and overshadowed the brilliant scientist.

(B) Mr. Weiheree was pleased that Richard was able to balance his academics along with his hobbies. He was impressed with his commitment to work. He would spend hours researching for debates, along with his research on butterflies. He took pride in the fact that Richard was growing to be successful and a well-rounded personality.

(C) Matilda was a beautiful so when Madame Forestier met her years after the ball she was astonished to see the change in her appearance. Years of toil and struggle had changed her into a haggard woman who looked nothing like the charming and beautiful woman who had been the toast of the ball.

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE the following in 100-120 words.
Not every air hostess is as kind as the one the author met. In the light of this statement, develop a conversation between Maxwell and another air hostess.
You may begin as:
Air hostess: Oh no. I can’t allow you to keep the pet open.
Maxwell: Please help me. This is my first time ………………….
Read the extracts given below and comment on the difference in the nature of help both the characters, of these two stories, received.
(A) Suddenly I came out of the clouds and saw two straight lines of lights in front of me. it was a runway! An airport! I was safe! I turned to look for my friend in the black aeroplane but the sky was empty. [The Black Aeroplane]

(B) All through the night Lencho thought only of his one hope: the help of God…The following Sunday, at daybreak he began to write a letter.Jt was nothing less than a letter to God…The following Sunday Lencho came a bit earlier than usual to ask if there was a letter for him„. Lencho showed not the slightest surprise on seeing the money, such was his confidence.
[A Letter to God] [6]
Answer:
Air hostess : Oh no. I can’t allow you to keep the pet open.
Maxwell : Please help me. This is my first time carrying an otter as a pet in the flight
Air hostess : Sorry sir. I can’t help you in this. You are not allowed to keep an animal in the flight, except packed inside a box.
Maxwell : Try to understand miss. I promise it won’t create any mess here.
Air hostess : Sir please follow the flight rules.
OR
(A) Both the stories bring out the symbiotic relation between man and nature and how help can come in mysterious ways. When the narrator’s plane is caught in the storm and he is unable to see in the dark cloud. The black airplane appears miraculously to guide him to safety. The pilot guides him and helps him land safely. The narrator finds out later that there was no other plane. He is grateful for the h ‘Ip given by the mysterious stranger. He thinks that some mysterious force of nature guided him to safety and he feels indebted.

(B) Lencho a poor farmer receives help from unexpected quarters. When the fury of nature destroys his crops and he seeks help from God. The post-office employees under the guidance of the postmaster collect money in order to help Lencho. While the pilot is helped in landing safely, Lencho is provided material help in the form of seventy pesos.

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
Hari Singh says- MHe knew it but neither his lips nor his eyes showed anything.”
Anil successfully addressed the situation by not addressing it at all. Elaborate based on your reading of The Thief’s Story.
OR
Read the following quote by an American author, E. E. Hale.
“I am only one but, I am one. I cannot do everything but I can do something. And I will not let what I cannot do interfere with what I do.”
Bholi’s evolution from a ‘dumb cow’ to a ‘masterpiece’ supports the given quote. Justify. [6]
Answer:
Hari Singh was a petty thief who was provided shelter by Anil out of kindness. Hari Singh lied about being able to cook but Anil still kept him. He wanted to help Hari become a better person. He decided to teach Hari.

Hari, who stole the money and decided to leave, but returns when he realizes his mistake. He feels that he is cheating the only man who has been kind to him. He returns and puts the money back, even though Anil knows what has transpired he does not question Hari. Anil knew that reprimanding Hari was not the right way to resolve the problem. He felt imposing faith in Hari would do the trick. His silence transforms Hari who decides to study and work honestly and change his life.
OR
Bholi was considered a simpleton and people compared her to a dumb cow. Bholi could not speak till she was five, and when at last she learnt to speak, she stammered. Children made fun of her which had an adverse effect on her self-confidence.

She was sent to school late and as she lacked confidence she was hesitant to mingle with other children. Her teacher understood her need for love and gently guided her. Her teacher’s tender love and care gave Bholi the confidence to believe in herself. Linder her teacher’s gentle guidance Bholi blossomed into a confident young girl who believed in her own self-worth. She was able to stand up and raise her voice against the social evil of dowry and said no to the proposal of the greedy Bishambhar.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit Set 5 with Solutions

अवधिः : होरात्रयम्
पूर्णाड्काः : 80

प्रश्नपत्रस्वरुपम्:
सैंपल पेपर 1 में दिये गये निर्देशानुसार।

खण्ड: क (अपठित-अवबोधनम्)
(अंक : 10)

1. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

कालिदासः मेघदूतं रचितवान्। मेघदूते मानसूनविज्ञानस्य अदभुतं वर्णनम् अस्ति। मानसनसमयः आषाढ़मासात् प्रारभ्यते। श्याममेघान् दृष्ट्वा सर्वे जनाः प्रसन्नाः भवन्ति । मयूराः नृत्यन्ति। मानसूनमेघाः सर्वेषां जीवानां कष्टम् अपहरन्ति। मेघानां जलं वनस्पतिभ्यः पशुपक्षिभ्यः किं वा सर्वेभ्यः प्राणिभ्यः जीवनं प्रयच्छति। मेघजलैः भूमेः उर्वराशक्ति: वर्धते । क्षेत्राणां सिञ्चनं भवति। गगने यदा कदा इन्द्रधनुः अपि दृश्यते। वायुः शीतलः भवति। शुष्कभूमौ वर्षायाः बिन्दवः पतन्ति। भूमेः सुगन्धितं वाष्पं निर्गच्छति। कदम्बपुष्पाणि विकसन्ति। तेषु भ्रमरा: गुञ्जन्ति। हरिण : प्रसन्नाः भूत्वा इतस्ततः धावन्ति। चातकाः जलबिन्दून् पिबन्ति। बलाकाः पंक्तिं बद्ध्वा आकाशं उड्डीयन्ते। मेघदूते मेघः यक्षस्य सन्देशं नयत् इति प्रार्थितः। अतः कालिदासः वायुमार्गस्य ज्ञानवर्धकं वर्णनं करोति ।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्न-द्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2 )
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) भ्रमराः कुत्र गुञ्जन्ति?
(ii) मेघानां जलं प्राणिभ्यः किम् प्रयच्छति?
(iii) कैः क्षेत्राणां सिञ्चनं भवति?
उत्तर:
(i) कदम्बपुष्पेषु
(ii) जीवनं
(iii) मेघजलै:

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्न-द्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 4)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) मेघदूतं कः रचितवान्?
(ii) बलाकाः कथम् आकाशे उड्डीयन्ते?
(iii) मेघदूते किम् प्रार्थित:?
उत्तर:
(i) मेघदूतं कालिदास: रचितवान्।
(ii) बलाका: पंक्तिं बद्ध्वा आकाशे उड्डीयन्ते।
(iii) मेघदूते मेघ: यक्षंस्य सन्देशं नयतु इति प्रार्थितः।

(इ) अस्य अनुच्छेदस्य कृते उपयुक्तं शीर्षकं संस्कृतेन लिखत। (द्वित्रिशब्दात्मक-वाक्यम्) (1)
(इस अनुच्छेद के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक संस्कृत में लिखिए।) (दो-तीन शब्द का वाक्य)
उत्तर:
महकावि कालिदासः। कालिदासस्य रचना।

(ई) यथानिर्देशम् उत्तरत-(कैवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) मेघदूतम् कः रचितवान्? रचितवान् इति क्रियापदस्य किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) कालिदासः
(ख) भारविः
(ग) भर्तृहरिः
(घ) हर्षः
उत्तर:
(क) कालिदासः

(ii) श्याममेघान् दृष्ट्वा के नृत्यन्ति? ‘मयूराः’ इति पदस्य किं क्रियापदम्?
(क) पक्षिणः
(ख) नृत्यन्ति
(ग) अस्ति
(घ) मयूराः
उत्तर:
(ख) नृत्यन्ति

(iii) मेघानां जलं केभ्यः जीवनं प्रयच्छति?
(क) वनस्पतिभ्यः
(ख) पशुपक्षिभ्यः
(ग) सर्वेभ्यः
(घ) कृषकेभ्यः
उत्तर:
(ग) सर्वेभ्यः

(iv) ‘मृगाः‘ इति पदस्य किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तम् अत्र?
(क) मेघः
(ख)नगरं प्रति
(ग) हरिणाः
(घ) शशकाः
उत्तर:
(ग) हरिणाः

रवण्ड : रव रचनात्मक-कार्यम्
(अंक : 15)

2. सुकन्या कोलकातानगरे छात्रावासे निवसति। सा विद्यालयतः शैक्षिकभ्रमणाय भुवनेश्वरं गन्तुम् इच्छति। एतदर्थम् अनुमतिं राशिंच प्राप्तुं सा नव दिल्लीस्थं पितरं प्रतिपत्रं एकं लिखति। मञ्जूषातः पदानि विचित्य पत्रे रिक्त स्थानानि पूरयन्तु। (1/2 × 10 = 5)
(सुकन्या कोलकाता नगर के छात्रावास में रहती है। वह विद्यालय से शैक्षिक भ्रमण के लिए भुवनेश्वर जाना चाहती है। इसके लिए अनुमति तथा राशि प्राप्त हेतु वह नई दिल्ली स्थित पिताजी को एक पत्र लिखती है। मञ्जूषा से पदों को चुनकर पत्र में रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करें।)
छात्रावासः
राजकीयः विद्यालयः
(i) …………
तिथि: 06.07.20xx
माननीयाः
(ii)……….
सादरं प्रणमामि।
भवतः पत्रं प्राप्तम्। मम (iii)…… परीक्षा समाप्ता। परीक्षा पत्राणि अतिशोभनानि जातानि। यावत् परीक्षा परिणामः न आगच्छति तावत् आगामिमासस्य प्रथम सप्ताहे (iv)….. विद्यालयस्य अध्यापिका अस्मान् शैक्षिक भ्रमणाय (v)……. नेष्यन्ति। अहम् अपि ताभिः (vi…गन्तुम् इच्छामि। एतदर्थम् मया कक्षाध्यापिकायै (vi)……. रूप्यकाणि दातव्यानि सन्ति। अत: यदि अनुमतिः (vi….. तर्हि अहम् अपि गच्छेयम्। अतः कृपया उपर्युक्तां राशिं प्रेषयित्वा माम् अनुगृहीतां कुर्वन्तु । सर्वेभ्यः मम (ix)…..निवेदनीयाः। भवतां प्रिया (×)…सुकन्या।
उत्तर:
(i) कोलकातानगरम्
(ii) पितृवर्या:
(iii) प्रथमसत्रीया
(iv) मम
(v) भुवनेश्वरम्
(vi) सह
(vii) पञ्चशतम्
(viii) स्यात्
(ix) प्रणामो:
(x) पुत्री

मञ्जूषा-प्रणामाः, सह, कोलकातानगरम्, स्यात्, पञ्चशतम्, पितृवर्याः, भुवनेश्वरम्, प्रथमसत्रीया, मम, पुत्री

3. अधः प्रदत्तं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन पञ्च वाक्यानि संस्कृतेन लिखत (1 × 5 = 5)
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

उत्तर:
(i) चित्रे एक: छात्र: दृश्यते।
(ii) अत्र एकं घटिकायन्त्रम् अस्ति।
(iii) अस्मिन् चित्रे श्यामपट्टम् मञ्चे अपि अस्ति।
(iv) परीक्षा दिवसे छात्र: छात्रा च अनुशासितरूपेण परीक्षा कुरुतः।
(v) अत्र पुष्पं पात्रं अपि दृश्यते।

मञ्जूषा-छात्रः, परीक्षादिवसः, पुष्पपात्रम्, छात्रा, मञ्चे, श्यामपट्टे घटिकायन्त्रम्, तिष्ठतः, कुरुतः, परीक्षाः, दृश्यते

अथवा
(i) वयं सर्वदा यातायातनियमानां पालनं करणीयम्।
(ii) सर्वदा मार्गस्य वामतः गमनीयः।
(iii) यदा रक्त-पीत-विद्युत्-संकेतं भवति तदा स्थातव्यम् ।
(iv) यदा हरित-विद्युत् संकेतम् भवति तदा गन्तव्यम्।
(v) मार्गे अवधानेन गमनीयम्।

मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां साहाय्येन निम्नलिखितं विषयम् अधिकृत्य पञ्चभिः संस्कृतवाक्यैः एकम् अनुच्छेदं लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से निम्नलिखित विषय पर पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।)

“मार्ग-सुरक्षा”
मञ्जूषा-यातायातनियमाः, रक्त, पीत, हरित, विद्युत् संकेतान्, अवधानेन, वाहनचालन समये, पदयात्री, जीवनघातकाः, वामतः, दक्षिणतः

4. अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि संस्कृतभाषया अनूद्य लिखत-(केवलं पञ्चवाक्यम्) (1 × 5 = 5)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का संस्कृत भाषा में अनुवाद लिखिए) (केवल पाँच वाक्य)

(i) सीता पत्र लिखती है।
Seeta writes a letter.
(ii) हम सब विद्यालय जाते हैं।
All of us go to school
(iii) कल विद्यालय में अवकाश था।
It was holiday in the school yesterday.
(iv) हम दोनों गेंद से खेलेंगे।
Both of us will play with ball.
(v) तुम लोग पाठ याद करो।
You learn the lesson.
(vi) अत्र अध्यापक से डरते हैं।
Students fear from the teachers.
(vii) क्या वे लोग जायें?
May they go?
उत्तर:
(i) सीता पत्रं लिखति।
(ii) वयम् विद्यालयं गच्छामः।
(iii) हृय: विद्यालये अवकाशः आसीत्।
(iv) आवाम् कन्दुकेन क्रीडिष्यावः।
(v) यूयं पाठं स्मरथ।
(vi) छात्रा: अध्यापकात् बिभ्यन्ति।
(vii) किम् ते गच्छन्तु ?

खण्ड: ग (अनुप्रयुक्त-व्याकरणम्)
(अंक : 25)

5. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदेषु सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत- (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्ट्यम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के संधि अथवा संधि-विच्छेद करके लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) सधे शक्तिः भवति।
(i) तत् + शरेण कपोतः विद्धः।
(iii) प्रात:काले पूर्वादिशायाम् रविरुदेति।
(iv) न कर्तव्यो अति सञ्चयः।
(v) कोऽनर्थफल:? मानः।
उत्तर:
(i) सम् + घे
(ii) तच्छरेण
(iii) रवि + उदेति
(iv) सम् + चय:
(v) कः + अनर्थफलः

6. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां समास विग्रहं वा प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्न चतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों का समास अथवा विग्रह दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) कुमारस्य सम्भव: हर्षवर्धक: जायते।
(क) कुमारसंभव
(ख) कुमारसंभवम्
(ग) कुमारसंभवः
(घ) कुमारोसम्भवः
उत्तर:
(ग) कुमारसंभवः

(ii) यथासमयं विद्यालयं गच्छ।
(क) समयेन अनतिक्रम्य
(ख) समयम् अतिक्रम्य
(ग) समयम् अनतिक्रम्य
(घ) समयानुसारम्
उत्तर:
(ग) समयम् अनतिक्रम्य

(iii) नीलकण्ठः शिवः कथ्यते।
(क) नील: कण्ठः यस्य सः
(ख) नीलः कण्ठः
(ग) नीलम् कण्ठम् यस्य सः
(घ) कण्ठे नीलः यस्य सः
उत्तर:
(क) नील: कण्ठः यस्य सः

(iv) ‘अधुना मम माता च पिता च आगच्छतः।
(क) मातापितौ
(ख) मातापितरौ
(ग) मातपितरौ
(घ) पितामातरौ
उत्तर:
(ख) मातापितरौ

(v) उपग्रामम् नदी वहति।।
(क) ग्रामस्य समीपम्
(ख) ग्रामस्य प्रति
(ग) ग्रामस्य पश्चात्
(घ) ग्राम प्रति
उत्तर:
(क) ग्रामस्य समीपम्

7. अधोलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रकृति प्रत्ययौ संयोज्य विभज्य वा उचितम् उत्तरं विकल्पेभ्यः चित्वा लिखत(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदों के प्रकृति-प्रत्ययों को जोड़कर अथवा अलग करके उचित उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) जीवने विद्यायाः अपि महत्त्वं वर्तते।
(क) महत् + त्वं
(ख) महत् + त्व
(ग) महत्त + त्व
(घ) महत् + तल्
उत्तर:
(ख) महत् + त्व

(ii) गङ्गानदी हिमालयात् उद्भवति।
(क) नद् + छीप्
(ख) नद + इन
(ग) नद + ङीप्
(घ) नद् + ङीन्
उत्तर:
(क) नद् + छीप्

(iii) प्रकृतः रमणीय + तल् दर्शनीया अस्ति।
(क) रमणीये
(ख) रमणीयतां
(ग) रमणीयता
(घ) रमणत्तम्
उत्तर:
(ग) रमणीयता

(iv) मन देशः शक्ति + मतुप् भवेत्।
(क) शक्तिमान्
(ख) शक्तिमतः
(ग) शक्तिमत्
(घ) यथाशक्ति
उत्तर:
(क) शक्तिमान्

(v) मनुष्यः समाज + ठक् प्राणी अस्ति।
(क) सामाजिकम्
(ख) सामाजिकी
(ग) सामाजिकः
(घ) सामाजिको
उत्तर:
(ग) सामाजिकः

8. वाच्यानुसारम् उचितपदैः रिक्त स्थानानानि पूरयित्वा अधोलिखितं संवादं पुनः लिखत(केवल प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(वाच्य के अनुसार उचित पदों से रिक्त स्थानों को पूरा करके नीचे लिखे हुए संवाद को पुनः लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) स: गीतम् गायति।
(क) तान् गीतं गायति।
(ख) तेन गीतं गीयते।
(ग) तानि गीतं गीयते।
(घ) तया गीतं गीयते
उत्तर:
(ख) तेन गीतं गीयते।

(ii) मया गम्यते।
(क) अहं गच्छामि
(ख) आवां गच्छामि
(ग) अहं गच्छमः
(घ) अहं गच्छति
उत्तर:
(ग) अहं गच्छमः

(iii) त्वया फलम् खाद्यते।
(क) आवाम् फलं खादसि
(ख) अहं फलं खादामि
(ग) त्वं फलं खादसि
(घ) तेन फलं खाद्यते
उत्तर:
(ग) त्वं फलं खादसि

(iv) अहम् पुस्तकं पठामि।
(क) मया पुस्तकं पठ्यते
(ख) मया पुस्तकं पठामि
(ग) आवाम् पुस्तकं पठामि
(घ) यूयम् पुस्तकं पठति
उत्तर:
(क) मया पुस्तकं पठ्यते

9. काल बोधकशब्दैः अधोलिखितः दिनचर्या पूरयत-(केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(कालबोधक शब्दों से निम्नलिखित दिनचर्या को पूरा कीजिए।) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(i) मोहितः 5:15……….वादने देवालयं गच्छति।
(ii) स: 6:30………..वादने कीर्तनं करोति।
(iii) स: 6:45………वादने देवालयात् आगच्छति।
(iv) स: 9.00……….वादने कार्यालयं गच्छति।
(v) तत: 3:15………..वादने गृहम् आगच्छति।
उत्तर:
(i) सपाद-पर्च
(ii) सार्ध-षट्
(iii) पादोन-सप्त
(iv) नव
(v) सपादत्रि

10. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तैः उचितैः अव्ययपदैः अधोलिखि तेषु वाक्येषु रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत- (केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्). (1 × 3 = 3)
(मञ्जूषा में दिये गये उचित अव्ययपदों से वाक्यों में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिये) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) अपराधिनः ……….. असत्यं वदन्ति।
(ii) हे ईश्वर ! ……… मम बन्धुः ।
(iii) ………. भारतम् अतिसमृद्धम् आसीत् ।
(iv) दीने कृते दया ……….. न भवति।
उत्तर:
(i) नूनम्
(ii) एव
(iii) पुरा
(iv) वृथा

मञ्जूषा-एव, वृथा, नूनम्, पुरा

11. अधोलिखित वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कित अशुद्धपदाय उचितं पदं चित्वा वाक्यानि पुनः लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्) (1 × 3 = 3)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित अशुद्ध पद के लिए उचित पद चुनकर वाक्यों को पुनः लिखिए) (केवल तीन प्रश्न)

(i) वयं देशभक्ताः सन्ति।
(क) सः
(ख) स्मः
(ग) आसीत्
(घ) अस्मि
उत्तर:
(ख) स्मः

(ii) भवन्तः किं करोति?
(क) अकरोत्
(ख) कुर्वन्ति
(ग) करोषि
(घ) कुरुथ
उत्तर:
(ख) कुर्वन्ति

(iii) मम मने करुणा अस्ति।
(क) मनसा
(ख) मनः
(ग) मनसि
(घ) मनौ
उत्तर:
(ग) मनसि

(iv) तत्र चत्वारि बालिकाः सन्ति।
(क) चत्वारः
(ख) चतस्रः
(ग) चतस्रम्
(घ) चतुर्णाम्
उत्तर:
(ख) चतस्रः

रवण्ड: (घ) पठित-अवबोधनम्
(अंक : 30)

12. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (5)
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

कश्चित् कृषक: बलीवर्दाभ्यां क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन्नासीत्। तयोः बलीवर्दयोः एकः शरीरेण दुर्बलः। जवेन गन्तुमशक्तश्चासीत्। अतः कृषकः तं दुर्बलं वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत। सः ऋषभः हलमूदवा गन्तुमशक्तः क्षेत्रे पपात। क्रुद्धः कृषीवलः तमुत्थापयितुं बहुवारम् यत्नमकरोत् । तथापि वृष: नोन्थितः।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) कृषक: काभ्यां क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन्नासीत् ?
(ii) एकः केन दुर्बल: आसीत?
(iii) कृषीबल: किम् अकरोत् ?
उत्तर:
(i) बलीवर्दाभ्यां
(ii) शरीरेण
(iii) यत्नम्

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) कृषकः किं करोति स्म?
(ii) गन्तुम् अशक्तः कः आसीत?
(iii) कृषक: कं तोदनेन नुद्यमानः अवर्तत?
उत्तर:
(i) कृषक: क्षेत्रकर्षणं कुर्वन आसीत्
(ii) एक: दुर्बलः बलीवर्द: गन्तुम् अशक्तः आसीत्।
(iii) कृषक: तं दुर्बल वृषभं तोदनेन नुद्यमान: अवर्तत।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलम् प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) तमुत्थापयितु बहुवारम् यत्नमकरोत्’ इत्यस्मिन् वाक्ये किं क्रियापदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ii) ‘क्रुद्धः कृषीबलः अनयोः पदयोः किं विशेषणपदम् अस्ति?
(iii) ‘वृषभाभ्याम् इत्यस्य पदस्य स्थाने किं पर्यायपदम् अत्र प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(i) अकरोत्
(ii) क्रुद्ध
(iii) बलीवर्दाभ्याम्

13. अधोलिखितं पद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत
(निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।)

सम्पत्तौ च विपत्तौ च महतामेकरूपता।
उदये सविता रक्तो रक्तश्चास्तमये तथा॥

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्नदेयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) उदये सविता कीदृशः भवति?
(ii) अस्तसमये सविता कीदृशः भवति?
(iii) ‘संपत्ती’ अत्र का विभक्ति?
उत्तर:
(i) रक्तः
(ii) रक्तः
(iii) सप्तमी

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (1 × 2 =2)
(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) महताम् एकरूपता कदा भवति?
(ii) ‘विपत्तौ’ पदस्य पदपरिचयं लिखत?
(iii) ‘उदये सविता’ विलोम पदं लिखत।
उत्तर:
(i) महताम् संपत्तौ च विपत्तौ च एकरूपता भवति।
(ii) विपतौ-विपति, सप्तमी, एकवचन, स्त्री।
(iii) ‘अस्ते सविता’ इति विलोम शब्दः।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) महताम् सम्पत्तौ विपत्तौ च एकरूपता भवति इत्यत्र किं क्रियापदं प्रयुक्तम?
(ii) ‘सविता उदये रक्तः भवति’ इत्यत्र किं कर्तृपदं प्रयुक्तम?
(iii) ‘सूर्यः’ इत्यर्थे किं पयार्यपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(i) भवति
(ii) सविता
(iii) सविता

14. अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रदत्त प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतेन लिखत (05)
(निम्नलिखित नाट्यांश को पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत में लिखिए।) (एतस्मिन्नेव काले व्याघ्रचित्रकौ अपि नदीजलं पातुमागतौ एवं विवादं शृणुतः वदतः च)

व्याघ्रचित्रको – अरे किं वनराजपदाय सुपात्रं चीयते? एतदर्थं तु आवामेव योग्यौ। यस्य कस्यापि चयनं कुर्वन्तु सर्वसम्मत्या।
सिंहः – तूष्णी भव भोः। युवामपि मत्सदृशौ भक्षकौ न तु रक्षकौ । एते वन्यजीवाः भक्षकं रक्षकपदयोग्यं न मन्यन्ते, अतएव विचार विर्मश: प्रचलति
बकः – सर्वथा सम्यगुक्तम् सिंहमहोदयेन। वस्तुतः एव सिंहेन बहु-कालपर्यन्तं शासनं कृतं परमधुना तु कोऽपि पक्षी एव राजेति निश्चेतव्यम् अत्र तु संशीतिलेशस्यापि अवकाशः एव नास्ति।

(अ) एकपदेन उत्तरत (केवलं प्रश्न द्वयम्) (1/2 × 2 = 1)
(एक शब्द में उत्तर लिखिए) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) व्याघ्रचित्रको कथं आगतौ ?
(ii) सुपात्रं कस्मै चीयते?
(iii) ‘तूष्णी’ भव भो!’ इति कः कथ्यते?
उत्तर:
(i) नदीजल-पातुं
(ii) वनराजपदाय
(iii) सिंह:

(आ) पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(पूर्णवाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) बक: किं कथयति?
(ii) सर्वसम्मत्या कस्मै चयनं भवति?
(iii) क: वन्यजीवाः मन्यन्ते?
उत्तर:
(i) बकः कथयति, “सर्वथा सिंहमहोदयेन एव नास्ति।”
(ii) सर्वसम्मत्या सुपात्रस्य शासकस्य चयनं भवति।
(iii) वन्यजीवाः रक्षकं भक्षकं पद्योग्यं न मन्यते।

(इ) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत। (केवलं प्रश्नद्वयम्) (1 × 2 = 2)
(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर लिखिए।) (केवल दो प्रश्न)

(i) ‘व्याघ्रचित्रको अपि नदीजलं पातुमागतौ’ इति कः कथयति?
(ii) “सर्वथा सम्यमुक्ताम् सिंह महोदयेन” इति कः कथयति?
(i) ‘सन्देहमात्रस्य’ इत्यस्य पदस्य स्थाने किं पर्यायपदं प्रयुक्तचर?
उत्तर:
(i) आगतौ
(ii) बक:
(iii) संशीतिलेशस्य

15. रेखाङ्कितपदानि आधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत। (केवलं प्रश्नचतुष्टयम्) (1 × 4 = 4)
(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए) (केवल चार प्रश्न)

(क) उद्याने पक्षिणां कलखं चेतः प्रसादयति।
(ख) बुद्धिमती चपेटया पुत्रौ प्रहृतवती।
(ग) सः कृच्छ्रेण भारम् उद्वहति।
(घ) धैर्यवान् लोके परिभवं न प्राप्नोति।
(ङ) राजा तु रक्षकः भवति।।
उत्तर:
(क) केषाम
(ख) कया
(ग) केन
(घ) क:
(ङ) क:

16. मञ्जूषातः समुचित पदानि चित्वा अधोलिखित श्लोकस्यः अन्वयं पूरयित्वा लिखत (1 × 4 = 4)
(मञ्जूषा से उचित पदों को चुनकर निम्नलिखित श्लोकों के अन्वय को पूरा कीजिए।)

मृगा मृगैः सङ्गमनुव्रजन्ति,
गावश्च गोभिः तुरगास्तुरङ्गः।
मूर्खाश्च मूर्खः सुधियः सुधीभिः
समान-शील-व्यसनेषु सख्यम् ॥

अन्वयः-मृगाः (i)……. सह, गावश्च गोभिः (ii)…….तुरगा: तुरङ्गः सह, मूर्खाः (iii)….. सह, सुधियः सुधीभिः सह (iv)……. समानशील व्यसनेषु सख्यम् (भवति) ।
उत्तर:
(i) मृगै:
(ii) सह
(iii) मुर्खे:
(iv) अनुब्रजन्ति

मञ्जूषा-सह, मूखैः, मृगैः, अनुव्रजन्ति
अथवा
मञ्जूषायाः साहाय्येन श्लोकस्य भावार्थे रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयित्वा पुनः लिखत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से श्लोक के भावार्थ से रिक्तस्थानों को पूरा करके पुनः लिखिए।)

अपत्येषु तु सर्वेषु जननी तुल्यवत्सला।
पुत्रे दीने तु सा माता कृपा दहंदया भवेत् ॥

भावार्थ:-अस्य भावोऽस्ति यत् माता तु स्व (i)…….. सन्तानेषु समान प्रेमवती भवति तथापि स्व (ii)…… पुत्रे तु (iii)…. हृदयम् अतीव (iv)…. भवति।
उत्तर:
(i) सर्वेषु
(ii) दीने
(iii) तस्या:
(iv) दयायुक्तं

मञ्जूषा-दीने, तस्याः, दयायुक्त, सर्वेषु |

17. अधोलिखित-कथांशं समुचितक्रमेण लिखत (1/2 × 8 = 4)
(निम्नलिखित कथांशं को समुचित क्रम में लिखिए।)

(i) वनस्य समीपे एका नदी वहति।
(ii) अपर: वानरः सिंहस्य कर्णमाकृष्यति।
(iii) सिंहः क्रुद्धः भवति।
(iv) एवमेव वानराः वारं-वारं सिंहम् तुदन्ति।
(v) एकः सिंहः सुखेन विश्राम करोति।
(vi) सः तं प्रहर्तुमिच्छति।
(vii) एकः वानरः तस्य पुच्छं धुनोति।
(viii) वानर: कूर्दित्वा वृक्षमारोहति।
उत्तर:
(i) वनस्य समीपे एका नदी वहति।।
(v) एक: सिंह सुखेन विश्रामं करोति।
(vii) एक: वानरः तस्य पुच्छं धुनोति। ।
(iii) सिंह: क्रुद्ध: भवति।
(vi) सः तं प्रहर्तुमिच्छति।
(viii) वानरः कूर्दित्वा वृक्षमारोहति।
(ii) अपरः वानर : सिंहस्य कर्णमाकृष्यतिं।
(iv) एवमेव वानराः वारं-वारं सिंहं तुदन्ति।

18. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदानां प्रसङ्गानुकूलम् उचितार्थ चित्वा लिखत-(केवलं प्रश्नत्रयम्)
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के प्रसंगानुकूल उचित अर्थ चुनकर लिखिए।) (केवल तीन प्रश्न) (1 × 3 = 3)

(i) अत्र जीवनं दुर्लभं जातम्।
(क) सरलतम्
(ख) कठिनम्
(ग) जटिलम्
(घ) सौविध्यम्
उत्तर:
(ख) कठिनम्

(ii) संव्यवहाराणां बुद्धिलाभाः प्रचीयन्ते।
(क) संस्काराणाम्
(ख) संलापानाम्
(ग) व्यापाराणाम्
(घ) विचाराः
उत्तर:
(क) संस्काराणाम्

(iii) तोयैः अल्पः अपि तरो: पुष्टिः भवति।
(क) जलैः
(ख) दुग्धैः
(ग) अग्निना
(घ) वाष्प
उत्तर:
(क) जलैः

(iv) ‘सुलभः’ पदस्य विलोमपदं लिखतः।
(क) निर्बलः
(ख) दुर्लभः
(ग) उदये
(घ) सरलम्
उत्तर:
(ख) दुर्लभः

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions Set 8 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.

1. Section A consists of Questions 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section B consists of Questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
3. Section C consists of Questions 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Section D consists of Questions 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal choice available.
5. Section E consists of Questions 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.

Section – A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
Which one is not an objective of planning? [1]
(a) To coordinate successfully
(b) To avoid mistakes
(c) Innovation
(d) To efficiently observe all activities
Answer:
(d) To efficiently observe all activities

Explanation: Planning needs hard work and effective efforts to make any event successful An event cannot be successfulby just observing things.

Question 2.
Seeding is a procedure by which good teams are placed in fixtures in such a way that stronger teams do not meet each other at the ________of a tournament. [1]
(a) start
(b) middle
(c) end
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) start

Explanation: Seeding is an advantage given to strong teams of the previous tournament. The tournament remains interesting until the end. So that they don’t meet in the first round and the tournament remains interesting until the end.

Question 3.
Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin? [1]
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin K
(d) All ofthese
Answer:
(d) All ofthese

Explanation: Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat soluble and Vitamin B complex and C are water soluble vitamins.

Question 4.
Deficiency of which micro-nutrient causes weakening of the muscles? [1]
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Iodine
(d) Fluorine
Answer:
(b) Potassium

Explanation: A low potassium level can make muscles feel weak, cramp, twitch, or even become paralyzed, and abnormal heart rhythms may develop.

Question 5.
Match the following: [1]

	List I (Type of Endurance)		List II Examples
(A)	Short-term Endurance	(i)	Marathon
(B)	Speed Endurance	(ii)	400 m sprint race
(C)	Medium-term Endurance	(iii)	800 m race
(D)	Long-term Endurance	(iv)	1500 m race

Codes: (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer:
(c) (A) (iii) (B) (ii) (iv) (D) (i)

Question 6.
Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). [1]
Assertion (A): The general social environment inhibits women participation in sports.
Reason (R): Schools do not provide good sports facilities for female players.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) ore true and (R) is the correct explanation of(A).

Question 7.
Which is not a type of physical disability? [1]
(a) Voice impairment
(b) Partial blindness
(c) Cerebral palsy (paralysis)
(d) Hearing impairment
Answer:
(a) Voice impairment

Explanation: Physical disability means having one or more of the following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an individual’s major life activities, including self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction. On the other hand, voice impairment is a type of communication disorder in which an individual has a problem in speaking, while the other body parts work properly.

Question 8.
Repeating a sentence again and again comes under which type of disorder? [1]
(a) ASD
(b) SPD
(c) ODD
(d) ADHD
Answer:
(a) ASD

Explanation: Many children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) use echolalia, which means they repeat others’ words or sentences. They might repeat the words of familiar people (parents or teachers), or they might repeat sentences from their favorite video.

Question 9.
Match List I and List II: [1]

List I	List II
(A) Abrasion	(1) Joint Injury
(B) Greenstick fracture	(2) Soft tissue injury
(C) Shoulder Dislocation	(3) Cause of sports injury
(D) Lack of fitness	(4) Bone injury

Codes: (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer:
(a) (A) (ii) (B) (iv) (C) (i) (D) (iii)

Question 10.
Which of the following helps to correct the flat foot? [1]
(a) Walking barefoot on sand
(b) Walking barefoot on rough ground
(c) Tadasana
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: Flat feet is a postural deformity, in which the arches of the foot collapse, with the entire sole of generic term. Muscular training of the feet is helpful and will often result in increased arch height, regardless of age.

Question 11.
Which type of pushups are good to test the strength of girls? [1]
(a) Regular Pushups
(b) Modified Pushups
(c) Pushups and Pullups
(d) Regular and Modified Pushups
Answer:
(b) Modified Pushups

Explanation: Girl push-up. It is used to refer to a modified push-up where you’re propped up on your knees, instead of your toes.

Question 12.
In order to test endurance of young boys and girls of 9-17 age group, teachers often use: [1]
(a) 600 m run/walk test
(b) Cooper’s 12-minute run and walk test
(c) 1500 m race
(d) Halfmarathon race
Answer:
(a) 600 m run/walk test

Explanation: This test is a part of motor fitness test and is used to access the endurance capability of school children, whereas Cooper’s test is used for college going students. Others are long distance races.

Question 13.
Sports physiology goes hand in hand with: [1]
(a) Speed of body
(b) Strength of body
(c) Human anatomy
(d) Flexibility of body
Answer:
(c) Human anatomy

Explanation: Sport physiology is the study of how the body works and functions during athletic activities. Sport physiology developed its principles from exercise physiology.

Question 14.
In first aid the 3Ps are expressed as: [1]
(a) Prepare, Pretend and Preserve
(b) Prevent, Prescribe and Prepare
(c) Progress, Promotion and Preservation
(d) Preserve, Prevent and Promote
Answer:
(d) Preserve, Prevent and Promote

Explanation: First responders have a number of responsibilities during emergencies, but remembering these three P’s of first aid will help them to prioritize things that are important for the victim. Preserve life. Prevent deterioration and Promote recovery.

Question 15.
If one straightens one’s legs, the knees undergo: [1]
(a) Flexion
(b) Extension
(c) Abduction
(d) Adduction
Answer:
(b) Extension

Explanation: Extension refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts. Extension at the elbow is increasing the angLe between the ulna and the humerus. Extension of the knee straightens the lower limb.

Question 16.
Which of the following is a personality trait not included in the ‘big five theory’? [1]
(a) Neuroticism
(b) Introversion
(c) Conscientiousness
(d) Agreeableness
Answer:
(b) Introversion

Explanation: The Big Five theory is captured by five core dimensions: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness and neuroticism.

Question 17.
The ability of the body to release maximum muscle contraction in the shortest possible time is known as: [1]
(a) Speed
(b) Agility
(c) Power
(d) Flexibility
Answer:
(c) Power

Explanation: Power is the ability to produce or generate force quickly, which is a function of time and/or speed of movement.

Question 18.
Endurance is the ability to resist: [1]
(a) Speed
(b) Walking
(c) Fatigue
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Fatigue

Explanation: Endurance is the ability to perform under a condition of fatigue because players have to run for longer duration with the help of oxygen. In walking or speed workout, we don’t feel fatigued as the activity finishes from a few seconds to minutes and oxygen requirement is also less.

Section – B (10 Marks)

Question 19.
Draw a fixture of 10 football teams participating in a tournament on the basis of Knock out tournament. [2]
Answer:
Number of teams (N) = 11
No of matches: N – 1 = 10 – 1 = 9 matches
No of rounds: 2 *2 * 2 * 2=(2)⁴= 4 rounds

Teams in upper half: \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}=\frac{10}{2}=5 \text { teams }\)

Teams in lower half: \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}=\frac{10}{2}=5 \text { teams }\)

Total byes: Highest power of two- No. of teams = 16 – 10 = 6 byes

Byes in upper half: \(\frac{\mathrm{Nb}}{2}=\frac{6}{2}=3 \text { byes }\)

Byes in upper half: \(\frac{\mathrm{Nb}}{2}=\frac{6}{2}=3 \text { byes }\)

Question 20.
Write the difference between nutritive and non nutritive components of diet. [2]
Answer:

Nutritive component	Non-nutritive component
They contribute or provide energy or calories.	They don’t provide any type of calorie/ energy.
They are designed to make our diet nutritive and balanced.	They are designed to make the food smell and taste better, last long and look better.
Carbohydrate, protein, fat, vitamin and minerals are nutritive components.	Roughage, water, colour compound, flavor agent and preservatives are part of this.
They are required in regular diet	Most of them are not required daily

Question 21.
Mention the causes of ADHD. [2]
Answer:
Following are the causes of ADHD:
(1) Use of cigarettes and alcohol during pregnancy.
(2) Due to disorder and brain injury in childhood.
(3) Food additives and sugar.
(4) Due to low weight at the time of birth.
(5) Genetics.

Question 22.
Write about any two deformities of spinal curvature. [2]
Answer:
Kyphosis: It is an abnormal increase in the flexion of spine. In this deformity the muscles of the chest contract. The term Kyphosis usually refers to an exaggerated rounding, more than 50 degrees. It is also called humpback or round back.

Lordosis: It is a problem of the lumbar spine. It is a postural deformity in which the spine bends from the stomach and leans forward. Thus, the abdomen is ahead of the body and the shoulders come outward and sideward. This problem is also called hollow back.

Question 23.
What do you mean by round shoulders? Suggest any two physical activities for correcting round shoulders. [2]
Answer:
In this postural deformity, the ears and shoulders of an individual are not in a line. The shoulders become round and sometimes they seem to be bent forward. Exercises related to round shoulders:
(1) Exercise for lengthening the chest muscles.
(2) Keep the tips of fingers on your shoulders and rotate the elbows in clockwise and anticlockwise direction.
(3) Hold the horizontal bar for some time.
(4) Do not allow your shoulders to drop while sitting and standing.

Question 24.
Discuss about 600m Run/walk test in detail. [2]
Answer:
Procedure: This run can be organized on a track, on a football field or an open area marked for this purpose. In this test item, a subject runs a distance of 600 meters. The subject takes a standing start from the start line. At the signal “Ready and “Go”, the subject starts running the 600 meter distance. The subject may walk in between. However, the objective is to cover the distance in the shortest time. Score: The time taken to run the distance is recorded in minutes and seconds.

Section – C (15 Marks)

Question 25.
Write about Physiological Factors Determining Endurance. [3]
Answer:
Endurance is another significant component of physical fitness which is determined by the following two physiological factors:
Oxygen Intake: It is the amount of oxygen which can be taken by the lungs from atmosphere. If the amount is more then it is better for achieving higher V02 max, which helps to improve aerobic capacity.

Oxygen Transport: Amount of oxygen taken into the blood from lungs has to be transported to the working muscles. This transportation depends on the amount of oxygen and the circulatory system to carry this quickly to the working muscles. The transportation of oxygenated blood depends on the capacity of the heart.

Oxygen Uptake: The amount of oxygen which can be absorbed and consumed by the working muscles from the blood is called oxygen uptake. The speed and amount of O2 consumption also depends on the number. Size and metabolic capacity of the mitochondria and fortunately these can be improved up to some extent through training.

Lactic Acid Tolerance: The ability to take to higher concentration of lactic acid is a significant factor in determining aerobic capacity. Lactic acid tolerance is important for the activities that last for 40 sec or more.

Muscle Composition: These are two types of muscle fibers such as red muscle and white muscle fiber we can call it slow muscle fiber and white muscle fiber. Slow muscle fibers are best used for aerobic activities or endurance activities. In fact the elite marathoners have been reported to have greater than 90% slow twitch fibers in muscles of the leg.

Question 26.
Discuss the effects of exercise over Muscular system. [3]
Answer:
Effects of exercise on muscular system:
Healthy and sound body: Our body becomes balanced and flexible by doing regular exercise and looks beautiful.

Proper blood circulation: The heart pumps blood easily with exercise. As a result of exercise, blood reaches every part of the body properly and adequately and the muscles of the heart begin to function orderly.

Aerobic and anaerobic endurance increases: By doing exercise, the capacity of muscles to work for longer durations without fatigue is improved.

Increase in muscle mass: Regular exercise increases the muscle mass, i.e., increase in myoglobin content of muscles, thus, controlling the weight of an individual.

Number of capillaries increases: By doing exercise, the number of functioning capillaries per muscle increases and the blood supply to the muscles, too, increases.

Question 27.
Write the types of movements in detail. [3]
Answer:
Types of Movements: There are several “types” of movement in joints that are described in anatomical terms. These are:
(1) Gliding Movement
(2) Angular Movement
(3) Rotation
(4) Circumduction

(1) Gliding Movement: It is the type of movement in which one surface moves or glides over another surface. It is the type of movement in which there is no rotation or angular movement involved. It is Common in all of the joints but it occurs in combination with the angular movements. However, in smaller joints such as hand and feet (carpal and tarsal joints), these are the only movements.

(2) Angular Movement: This type of movement occurs between the long bones causing a change.in the angle between the two bones. The angle either increases or decreases. Various angular movements are flexion, extension, abduction and adduction.

(3) Rotation: Rotation of the body parts can be towards or away from the centre of the body. It is a form of movement in which the movement of bone is around a central axis without any displacement from the axis. Internal rotation (or media rotation) refers to rotation towards the axis of the body. External rotation (or lateral rotation) refers to rotation away from the centre of the body.

(4) Circumduction: Circumduction can be described as the movement of joints in a circular motion. It is the movement which takes place between the articular cavity and the head of a bone. It can also be visualized as a circular motion of the part being moved. It is a combination of Flexion, Extension, Abduction and Adduction. It is most prominently seen at shoulder and hip joints.

Question 28.
Define Motivation with its types. [3]
Answer:
Motivation: Motivation is the life force which gives reason to an individual to act or behave in a particular way. It keeps us standing strong in the unfavourable conditions of life, fill in the energy to tackle the hardships boldly and reaching to the goal.
Types of Motivation: It is of two types:

(1) Intrinsic Motivation: The desire, will, eagerness or enthusiasm of an individual from self or within is known as intrinsic motivation. In this type of motivation, an individual gets energy or reason to do any work from himself. This motivation may be fired by goals or simple joy of enthusiasm or needs of the body. It is a natural motivation. For example, someone wish to become like Donald Bradman (World record holder in international cricket), passion for horseriding or simple needs like thirst and hunger.

(2) Extrinsic Motivation: This is external or product of surrounding or environment. This type of motivation takes its rise outside the individual It has a great impact on any individual Here, the motivational factors are external. For example, reward, appreciation, punishment, opportunity, etc Extrinsic motivation plays a significant role in sports. Trainers and instructors of physical education improve the performance of the players by this type of motivation. It is a good tool to excel.

Question 29.
Define strength and explain the types of strength. [3]
Answer:
Strength: It is an ability of the muscles to overcome resistance. Strength can be defined as the amount, of force a muscle can exert. It is an essential component of games and sports.
Types of strength: The types of strength are given below:

Static strength: It is also known as isometric strength. It is the ability to act against resistance from single or one position. Ex., powerlifting, pushing a wall, etc.

Dynamic strength: It is also known as isotonic strength. It is required for movement. It is of three types:
(i) Maximum strength: It is the ability of an individual to overcome maximum resistance. It can be dynamic or static. It is required for the sports in which heavy resistance is needed. Ex., weight lifting and throwing events, etc.
(ii) Explosive strength: It is the ability of an individual to overcome resistance with greater speed. It is used in games where resistances have to be overcome quickly. Ex., sprint starts, long jump, etc.
(iii) Strength endurance: It is the ability of an individual to act against resistance for long duration. It is required in combative sports. Ex. cycling, swimming, etc.

Question 30.
Describe Fartlek training method. [3]
Answer:
Fartlek training means speed play:
In this method, the heart rate fluctuates between 140-180 beats per minute. It is a training of athletes to help them perform in natural surroundings. It is an endurance training that consists of many repetitions. The route is generally free from polluted areas in this training. No coach supervision is required. Mass participation is possible. The athlete can change pace from high running to jogging. Fartlek training is normally performed in countryside. Every athlete is free to run at whatever speed he/she prefers. lt is usually practiced during transitional period or off-season.

Section – D (12 Marks)

Question 31.
Observe the tournament fixture procedure of a CBSE Football National competition given below: [4]

(A) What is the number of seeded teams in the above tournament?
(B) What is a seeding method?
(C) When can seeding be done?
(D) Why is seeding done?
OR
What is special seeding method?
Answer:
(A) 9.
(B) Seeding is a procedure by which good teams are placed in fixtures in such a way that stronger teams do not meet each other at the very start of a tournament.
(C) Seeding can be done only if the standards of the teams are known before the start of the tournament.
(D) Seeding is done to overcome the drawbacks of a single knock out tournament.

OR

It is a method in which the players or teams participate directly in the quarter final or semi final matches.

Question 32.
Rima and Sakshi are state level badminton players of St. Paul’s school. They practice meticulously everyday, including holidays. On a Sunday, Rima injured her elbow, and Sakshi sprained here ankle joint. Both were taken to the hospital by their coach after being given first aid. [4]

(A) Which areas of the body are most vulnerable to sprain?
(B) Which type of injury is sprain?
(C) What is fracture?
(D) How could have Rima avoided the fracture?
OR
What are the common symptoms when fracture takes place along with sprain?
Answer:
(A) The areas of body that are most vulnerable to sprain are the ankles, knees and wrists.
(B) Sprain is a soft tissue injury.
(C) ‘Fracture’ is a hard tissue injury, defined as Toss of continuity in the substance of a bone.
(D) Rima could have avoided the fracture by being very careful and alert during the practice.

OR

Pain, bruising, swelling and inflammation.

Question 33.
Kabir is a successful football player of Indira Gandhi university. He is known for his aggressive play on the field. He scores a lot of goals, owing to his aggression. However, he has been punished a number of times for his aggressive behavior. [4]

(A) What is aggression?
(B) Why does a person show aggression?
(C) When is aggression in sports considered to be positive?
(D) When does aggression become negative in sports?
Answer:
(A) Aggression means the intention to cause mental or physical harm to oneself, others, or objects in the environment
(B) A person shows aggression due to stress, anger or insecurity.
(C) Aggression is considered as positive when players play within the rules of the game with high intensity and without harming other players.
(D) Aggression becomes negative when players have an intention to harm other players, use abusive language or do actions out of the laws of the game.

Section – E (15 Marks)

Question 34.
Explain the pre and post tournament work for organizing sports tournament. [5]
Answer:
Pre tournament: These preparations are done before the start of the tournament. It is done in coordination with the authorities and physical education teachers.
(1) To arrange and plan the schedule of the program of the tournament, finalizing the dates, venue of the tournament, etc
(2) To plan the budget in consultation with the authorities.
(3) Giving training to various staff committees and briefing them about their jobs.
(4) To arrange medals, trophies and certificates for the prize winners, guests, etc. To plan for ceremonial function etc.

Post tournament: These are mostly the winding up duties or tasks of tournament.
(1) To ensure press notes an overall report of the tournament and sends it to the concerned media.
(2) To check the departing teams, their security refund, etc.
(3) List of returnable items to be checked and returned.
(4) To generate the exact expenditure report.
(5) Officials and miscellaneous payments to be made.

Question 35.
Explain the corrective exercises for spinal deformities. [5]
Answer:

Kyphosis	Lordosis	Scoliosis
Sit properly in a chair. Look upward. Hold your hands behind the back of chair. Stretch your hands backward. Remain in this position for 2-5 minutes as per your capacity. Keep on repeating.	Stretch frequently at your desk. Place your arms over your head and press your upper back against your chair. Squeeze your buttocks together hard to bring your hips forward and straighten your legs. Repeat 10­15 times.	Pelvic Tilt Back laying with Knee bent: Keep your shoulder flat on the floor and breathe regularly. Tighten the buttocks. Force the lumber spine towards the bars by tightening and pushing backward with the abdominal muscles. Repeat 5-10 times.
Perform Dhanurasana and Chakrasanas regularly.	Exercise to strengthen your buttocks (glutes): Lie on the floor and practice squeezing your glutes as hard as you can to raise them off the floor. Do Halasana.	Deep Breathing Exercise: Divide your chest into three parts — abdomen, lower rib cage and upper ribcage. Inhale deeply and then exhale completely in each part.

Question 36.
Define first aid with its aims and objectives. [5]
Answer:
First Aid: First-aid is the assistance given to a person suffering a sudden injury before the final treatment. In other words it can be said that the help given by a trained or untrained person with available resources is called First Aid. Aims and objectives of first aid:

(1) To preserve life: The first aim of first aid is to preserve the life of an injured person. But there are some limitations which are necessary to understand, such as rebandage on the injury is not in the range of first aid.

(2) To reduce pain: Reducing the pain of an injured person is also an important objective of first aid. Pain is a common phenomenon in any accident This pain can be reduced with the help of first aid.

(3) Helpful in improving plight: It is necessary to keep the patient out of pain before any medical help. If there is a strong blood flow, the condition may worsen. The speed of blood flow can be reduced by keeping the person in stationary position.

(4) Prevent injury from becoming worse: First aid is helpful in the prevention of further worsening of an existing injury. If this prevention is not ensured on time, it may get more severe and complicated.

(5) Immediate medical help: Medical help is necessary in severe injury. The injured person should be taken to the hospital as soon as possible. But if the person helping him is alone, or the injured person is not in a condition to be taken to it a hospital during injury, first aid should be provided immediately, and then he/she should be taken to hospital at the earliest.

Question 37.
What do you mean by ASD? What are its causes? [5]
Answer:
Physiology: Physiology is the scientific study of functioning of living organisms. It includes how any organism, organ system, cell, organ and bio-molecule perform the chemical or physical functions. It focuses on various functions and activities of the living organisms.

Physiological factors determining strength: The various physiological factors which determine the strength of an individual are stated below:

Size of muscles: The strength is determined by the size of the muscle. Bigger and Larger muscles can produce more force. With the help of different methods of strength training, such as weight training, the size of the muscle can be increased and as a result of that, strength is improved.

Body weight: The individuals who are heavier are stronger than the individuals who are lighter. The heavier weightlifters lift heavier weight. Thus, body weight also determines the strength of an individual.

Muscle Composition: Each muscle consists of two types of muscle fibers i.e., fast twitch fibers (white fibers) and slow twitch fibers (red fibers). The percentage of fast twitch fibers and slow twitch fibers is genetically determined and cannot be changed through training. The muscle having more percentage of fast twitch fibers can produce more strength.

Intensity of the nerve impulse: A muscle is composed of a number of motor units. The total force of the muscle depends on the number of contracting motor units. The stronger nerve impulse from central nervous system excites more number of motor units. The muscle will contract more strongly, or it can be said that the muscle will produce more force or strength. So, the intensity of the nerve impulse also determines the amount of strength.

Age and gender: Gender and age also determine strength. Males tend to be more powerful than females. It is also trainable. It can be enhanced with the help of weight training, isometric and isotonic exercises, etc.

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 Computer Science 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 Computer Science board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 12 Computer Science Sample Papers 2023.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 12 Computer Science
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper Class 12 Computer Science 2022-2023 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 12 Computer Science Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 12 Computer Science Sample Paper 2023 Solved.

CBSE Class 12 Computer Science Sample Papers 2023 with Solutions

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 1 (CBSE Sample Paper released on 16th Sep 2022)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 4
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 5
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 6
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 7
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 8
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 9
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Set 10

Computer Science Sample Paper Class 12 Question Paper Design 2022-23

Divisions	Typologies of Questions	No. of Questions	Marks	Total
Section A	MCQs	16	1 × 16 = 16	18 Marks
	Assertion & Reasons	2	1 × 2 = 2
Section B	Very Short Answer Questions	7	2 × 7 = 14	14 Marks
Section C	Short Answer Questions	5	3 × 5 = 15	15 Marks
Section D	Long Answer Questions	3	5 × 3 = 15	15 Marks
Section E	Case-based Questions	2	4 × 2 = 8	8 Marks
Total		35 Questions		70 Marks

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions 2022-2023 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of Computer Science Class 12 2023 for their exam preparation.

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi B Set 5 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश :

• इस प्रश्नपत्र में दो खंड हैं-खंड ‘क’ और ‘ख’। खंड-क में वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय और खंड-ख में वस्तुनिष्ठ/ वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न दिए गए हैं।
• प्रश्नपत्र के दोनों खंडों में प्रश्नों की संख्या 17 है और सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं।
• यथासंभव सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर क्रमानुसार लिखिए।
• खंड ‘क’ में कुल 10 प्रश्न हैं, जिनमें उपप्रश्नों की संख्या 49 है। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए 40 उपप्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
• खंड ‘ख’ में कुल 7 प्रश्न हैं, सभी प्रश्नों के साथ उनके विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार विकल्प का ध्यान रखते हुए सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘क’
वस्तुपरक/बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 1.
नीचे दिए गए गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (1 × 5 = 5)
अनुशासन शब्द का अर्थ है ‘शासन अनुकूल होना’ अथवा शासन के पीछे यानी जिसमें कोई-न-कोई नियंत्रण शक्ति विद्यमान हो। इस दृष्टि से जीवन भी अनुशासन में बंधा है। जीव पैदा होता है, कुछ वर्ष संसार में जीता है और मृत्यु को प्राप्त हो जाता है। जीवन के साथ-साथ संपूर्ण प्रकृति भी अनुशासन में बंधी है। प्रतिदिन प्रातः काल सूर्य उदित होता है और शाम को अस्त हो जाता है। चंद्रमा प्रत्येक मास के 15 दिन नहीं दिखलाई पड़ता है, तारे रात में दिखाई पड़ते हैं दिन में नहीं। दूर, सघन वनों में पेड़-पौधे बिना माली के भी फलते-फूलते रहते हैं। मौसम एक नियम से लगातार बदलते रहते हैं। इस जीवन में व्यक्तिगत और सामूहिक दोनों स्तरों पर अनुशासन की अपेक्षा की जाती है। व्यक्तिगत स्तर पर मन, वाणी और कर्म का अनुशासन व्यक्ति के जीवन को सार्थक बनाता है। मन का स्वभाव है, चंचलता। जिसने इस चंचलता पर काबू पा लिया समझ लो उसने संसार पर काबू पा लिया। जिसने मन जीत लिया, उसने जग जीत लिया। वाणी का अनुशासन सफल जीवन के लिए नितांत आवश्यक है। जो लोग अपनी वाणी पर अंकुश नहीं रख पाते वे लोग संसार में न तो कभी यश प्राप्त कर पाते हैं और न लोकप्रियता। भारतीय चिंतन में कर्म के अनुशासन को भी बहुत महत्व दिया गया है। श्री कृष्ण ने गीता में कर्मों की कुशलता को ही योग का नाम दिया है। संसार उन्हीं लोगों को याद रखता है जिन्होंने अपने कर्मों को अनुशासित ढंग से पूरा किया है। संसार के महान योद्धाओं, महान राजनेताओं, चिंतकों, साहित्यकारों और वैज्ञानिकों के विषय में यह कथन शत-प्रतिशत सही है-‘कर्म के अनुशासन के बिना कोई महान नहीं बनता।

(क) अनुशासन का शाब्दिक अर्थ है-
(i) शब्दों के अनुकूल
(ii) शासन के अनुकूल
(iii) नियंत्रण के अनुकूल
(iv) अनुशासन के पीछे
उत्तरः
(ii) शासन के अनुकूल

(ख) व्यक्ति के जीवन को कौन सार्थक बनाता है?
(i) प्रकृति का अनुशासन
(ii) वाणी का अनुशासन
(iii) मन का अनुशासन
(iv) मन, वाणी और कर्म का अनुशासन
उत्तरः
(iv) मन, वाणी और कर्म का अनुशासन

(ग) भगवत गीता में कृष्ण ने अनुशासन की कुशलता को क्या नाम दिया है?
(i) अनुशासन
(ii) भोग
(iii) योग
(iv) रोग
उत्तरः
(iii) योग

(घ) कर्म के अनुशासन के बिना कौन महान नहीं बन सकता?
(i) राजनेता
(ii) चिंतक
(iii) योद्धा
(iv) यह सभी
उत्तरः
(i) राजनेता, चिंतक एवं योद्धा

(ङ) निम्नलिखित कथन और कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए तत्पश्चात् दिए गए विकल्पों में से उचित विकल्प छांट कर उत्तर दीजिए।
कथन (A) : नैतिक शिक्षा के दो पहलू हैं।
कारण (R) :परहित को तुलसीदास जी ने परम धर्म कहा है।
(i) कथन (A) सही है कारण (R) गलत है।
(ii) कथन (A) सही नहीं है, कारण (R) सही
(iii) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) उसकी व्याख्या नहीं करता।
(iv) कथन (A) गलत है कारण (R) सही है।
उत्तरः
(iii) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) उसकी व्याख्या नहीं करता।

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे दिए गए गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।(1 × 5 = 5)
पुरुष और स्त्री एक-दूसरे के पूरक हैं। नर के बिना नारी का जीवन अधूरा है तथा नारी के बिना नर के अस्तित्व की कल्पना नहीं की जा सकती। इसमें संदेह नहीं है कि सृष्टि के अस्तित्व के लिए दोनों का ही होना अनिवार्य है।
प्राचीन भारत के इतिहास में नारियों की गौरवमयी गाथाएँ भरी पड़ी हैं। हमारे प्राचीन ग्रंथों का कथन है ‘यत्र नार्यस्तु पूज्यंते रमते तत्र देवता।’ यहाँ पूजा से तात्पर्य नारी की मान-मर्यादा. और अधिकारों की रक्षा करने से है। प्राचीन काल में नारी को लक्ष्मी और गृह-देवी के नाम से संबोधित किया जाता था। पुरुष के समान ही उन्हें भी शिक्षा मिलती थी। जीवन के बड़े-से-बड़े धार्मिक अनुष्ठान उनके बिना पूरे नहीं होते थे। देवासुर संग्राम में कैकेयी के अद्वितीय कौशल को देखकर दशरथ भी चकित रह गए थे। मैत्रेयी, शकुंतला, अनुसूया, दमयंती, सावित्री आदि स्त्रियाँ भी अपने आप में स्वयंसिद्ध उदाहरण हैं। समय परिवर्तनशील है। आज के समय में भारतीय समाज लड़की की अपेक्षा लड़के को अधिक महत्त्व देता है। ईश्वर ने पुरुष को नारी की अपेक्षा अधिक शक्ति प्रदान की है। वह स्वयं को नारी का संरक्षक मानता है। पुरुष प्रायः धन का अर्जन करता है तथा नारी घर का दायित्व संभालती है। वर्तमान युग में भी पुरुष को नारी की अपेक्षा अधिक स्वतंत्रता प्राप्त है। भारत में ही नहीं अपितु विश्व के विकसित देशों में भी नारी की स्थिति दयनीय है। उन्हें उचित सम्मान नहीं मिलता। जो देश जितना अधिक विकसित है वहाँ नारी की स्थिति उतनी ही दयनीय है। इसके पीछे कारण यह है कि उन देशों में नारी धन कमाने के लिए घर से बाहर निकलती है। बाहर निकलने का परिणाम यह होता है कि उसको पुरुषों के अहम् से पग-पग पर जूझना पड़ता है। हमारा समाज पुरुष प्रधान है। यहाँ जो भी नियम बनाए जाते हैं वे पुरुषों के द्वारा बनाए जाते हैं। अतः यह कैसे संभव होगा कि वे अपने विरुद्ध नियम बनाएँ। नारी उत्थान और पतन के पीछे भी पुरुष का ही हाथ होता है। नारी से संबंधित जो भी प्रश्न उठाए जाते हैं वे प्रायः पुरुष वर्ग से ही उठते हैं। अतः नारी की हमारे समाज में क्या स्थिति है यह स्वयं ही परिभाषित है। भारत के गाँवों में आज भी स्त्रियों को पिता, पति अथवा पुत्र के अधीन रहना पड़ता है। ग्रामीण स्त्रियाँ प्रायः तंगी का शिकार होती हैं। उनके स्वास्थ्य और शिक्षा के विषयों पर भी अधिक ध्यान नहीं दिया जाता।

(क) स्त्री और पुरुष दोनों का होना किसके लिए जरूरी है?
(i) मान-मर्यादा
(ii) गौरवमई गाथाएँ
(iii) सृष्टि का अस्तित्व
(iv) समाज कल्याण
उत्तरः
(iii) सृष्टि का अस्तित्व

(ख) स्वयं को नारी का संरक्षक कौन मानता है?
(i) ईश्वर
(ii) समाज
(iii) स्त्री वर्ग
(iv) पुरुष
उत्तरः
(iv) पुरुष

(ग) घर से बाहर निकलने पर स्त्री के समक्ष सबसे बड़ी समस्या क्या आती है?
(i) अपनी सुरक्षा
(ii) पुरुष के अहम से जूझना
(iii) कठिनाइयों से जूझना
(iv) घर की जिम्मेदारियों को न निभा पाना
उत्तरः
(ii) पुरुष के अहम से जूझना

(घ) भारतीय ग्रंथों में नारी के विषय में क्या नहीं कहा – गया है?
(i) नारी पूजनीय है
(ii) उसकी-मान-मर्यादा की रक्षा होनी चाहिए
(iii) उसके विचारों को महत्व नहीं मिलना चाहिए
(iv) नारी के अधिकारों की रक्षक होनी चाहिए
उत्तरः
(iii) उसके विचारों को महत्व नहीं मिलना चाहिए

(ङ) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए।
(I) मुगल काल में हिंदी कार्यालयी भाषा थी।
(II) भारत के संतों चिंतकों और विचारकों की भाषा हिंदी ही रही है।
(III) भारत में हिंदी ही बहुमत की भाषा है।
(IV) कश्मीर से कन्याकुमारी तक अंग्रेजी बहुमत की भाषा है।
गद्यांश के आधार पर कौन सा कथन/से कथन सही है।
(i) केवल II
(ii) केवल III
(iii) II और III
(iv) I और II
उत्तरः
(iii) II और III

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार वाक्यों में रेखांकित पदबंधों के भेद पहचानिए और सही विकल्प छाँटकर उत्तर दीजिए (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) दिन रात मेहनत करने वाले किसान सुखपूर्वक जीवन व्यतीत नहीं कर पाते।
(i) विशेषण पदबंध
(ii) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंद
(iii) संज्ञा पदबंध
(iv) सर्वनाम पद बंद
उत्तरः
(i) विशेषण पदबंध

(ख) हमारा देश भारत कभी विश्व गुरु कहलाता था।
(i) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ii) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(iii) क्रिया पदबंध
(iv) विशेषण पद बंद
उत्तरः
(i) संज्ञा पदबंध

(ग) सभी यात्री धीरे-धीरे चलकर मंजिल तक पहुँच ही गए।
(i) क्रिया पदबंध
(ii) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंध
(iii) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(iv) संज्ञा पदबंध
उत्तरः
(ii) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंध

(घ) उसने प्रतीक्षा नहीं की और शीघ्र ही लौट गया।
(i) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ii) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(iii) क्रिया विशेषण पदबंध
(iv) क्रिया पदबंध
उत्तरः
(iv) क्रिया पदबंध

(ङ) आदेश मिलते ही वह बाहर जाकर खड़ा हो गया।
(i) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ii) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(iii) विशेषण पदबंध
(iv) क्रिया पदबंध
उत्तरः
(ii) सर्वनाम पदबंध

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए- (1 × 4 = 4)
(क) प्रश्न-पत्र सामने आने पर छात्रों ने राहत की सांस ली। इस वाक्य का मिश्र वाक्य होगा
(i) प्रश्न-पत्र सामने आते ही छात्रों ने राहत की सांस ली।
(ii) प्रश्न-पत्र सामने आया और छात्रों ने राहत की सांस ली।
(iii) क्योंकि प्रश्न-पत्र सामने आया इसलिए छात्रों ने राहत की सांस ली।
(iv) जैसे ही प्रश्न-पत्र सामने आया वैसे ही छात्रों ने राहत की सांस ली।
उत्तरः
(iv) जैसे ही प्रश्न-पत्र सामने आया वैसे ही छात्रों ने राहत की सांस ली।

(ख) जैसे ही राम गया वैसे ही राधा आ गई। इस वाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य होगा
(i) राम के जाते ही राधा आ गई।
(ii) राम और राधा आ गए।
(iii) जब राम गया तब राधा आ गई।
(iv) राम गया और राधा आ गई।
उत्तरः
(iv) राम गया और राधा आ गई।

(ग) मैं भी घूमने जाना चाहता था लेकिन अस्वस्थता के कारण नहीं जा सका। वाक्य का सरल वाक्य होगा
(i) मैं अस्वस्थता के कारण चाह कर भी घूमने नहीं जा सका।
(ii) मैं घूमने जाना चाहता था लेकिन अस्वस्थता के कारण नहीं गया।
(iii) यद्यपि मैं घूमने जाना चाहता था तथापि अस्वस्थता के कारण नहीं जा सका।
(iv) चाह कर भी घूमने नहीं जा सका मैं अस्वस्थता के कारण।
उत्तरः
(i) मैं अस्वस्थता के कारण चाह कर भी घूमने नहीं जा सका।

(घ) किसानों ने दिन-रात मेहनत की। खेतों में फसल लहलहाने लगी। इन दोनों वाक्यों को मिलाकर सरल वाक्य बनेगा
(i) जब किसानों ने दिन-रात मेहनत की तब खेतों में फसल लहलहाने लगी।
(ii) किसानों के दिन-रात मेहनत करने पर खेतों में फसल लहलहाने लगी।
(iii) खेतों में फसल लहलहाने लगी क्योंकि किसानों ने मेहनत की।
(iv) किसानों ने मेहनत की और खेतों में फसल लहलहाने लगी।
उत्तरः
(ii) किसानों के दिन-रात मेहनत करने पर खेतों में फसल लहलहाने लगी।

(ङ) यदि तुम उचित अभ्यास करते तो अवश्य सफल हो जाते। रचना के आधार पर इस वाक्य का भेद है-
(i) सरल वाक्य
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य
(iii) मिश्र वाक्य
(iv) उपवाक्य
उत्तरः
(iii) मिश्र वाक्य

प्रश्न 5.
समास विषय पर आधारित निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए (1 है 4 = 4)
(क) ‘नवरत्न’ का समास विग्रह व भेद होगा-
(i) नवरत्न है जिसके-कर्मधारय समास
(ii) नौ रत्नों का समूह-द्विगु समास
(iii) नव रत्न-अव्ययीभाव समास
(iv) नव है रत्न जो-बहुव्रीहि समास
उत्तरः
(ii) नौ रत्नों का समूह-द्विगु समास

(ख) पूजा-अर्चना’ सामासिक शब्द का विग्रह और भेद है
(i) पूजा और अर्चना-द्विगु समास
(ii) पूजा और अर्चना-द्वंद्व समास
(iii) पूजा या अर्चना-द्विगु समास
(iv) पूजा की अर्चना-तत्पुरुष समास
उत्तरः
(ii) पूजा और अर्चना-द्वंद्व समास

(ग) ‘नीला है जो गगन’ का समस्त पद और समास का भेद होगा
(i) नीलगगन-बहुव्रीहि समास
(ii) नीला गगन-तत्पुरुष समास
(iii) नीलगगन-कर्मधारय समास
(iv) नीला गगन-द्वंद्व समास
उत्तरः
(iii) नीलगगन-कर्मधारय समास

(घ) ‘तीन रंगों का समाहार’। इसका समस्त पद और सामासिक भेद है
(i) तीन रंगों-तत्पुरुष समास
(ii) तिरंगा-द्विगु समास
(iii) तिरंगा-बहुव्रीहि समास
(iv) तिरंगा-कर्मधारय समास
उत्तरः
(ii) तिरंगा-द्विगु समास

(ङ) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए।
(I) राजा-प्रजा – द्वंद्व समास
(II) महापुरुष – अव्ययीभाव समास
(III) दशानन – बहुव्रीहि समास
(IV) चतुर्भुज – द्वंद्व समास
इनमें से कौन सा/कौन से युग्म नहीं हैं
(i) केवल I
(ii) केवल III
(iii) III और IV
(iv) I और III
उत्तरः
(iv) I और III

प्रश्न 6.
मुहावरों पर आधारित निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर लिखिए(1 × 4 = 4)
(क) शास्त्रार्थ में उसे कोई नहीं हरा सकता उसने …………….. पानी पिया हुआ है।
(i) घाट-घाट का
(ii) जमीन आसमान का
(iii) कुएं और तालाब का
(iv) घट-घट का
उत्तरः
(i) घाट-घाट का

(ख) बेटे के इलाज के लिए रामलाल ने …………….. एक कर दिया, किंतु कुछ हाथ नहीं आया।
(i) धरती गगन
(ii) आकाश पाताल
(iii) पानी पसीना
(iv) सच झूठ
उत्तरः
(ii) आकाश पाताल

(ग) हमें यह बात समझ लेनी चाहिए कि किसी भी कार्य में सफलता प्राप्त कर लेना नहीं होता।
(i) हंसी खेल
(ii) आसान काम
(iii) मुश्किल काम
(iv) बेहद सरल
उत्तरः
(i) हंसी खेल

(घ) जो बच्चे माता-पिता की आंखों में …………….. रहे हैं, अपना ही भारी नुकसान कर रहे हैं।
(i) तारा बन
(ii) धूल झोंक
(iii) विरोध कर
(iv) दांत पीस
उत्तरः
(ii) धूल झोंक

(ङ) मुहावरे और अर्थ के उचित मेल वाले विकल्प का चयन करे।
(i) गाढ़ी कमाई-मेहनत से कमाया हुआ धन
(ii) ऊँट के मुंह में जीरा-अयोग्य को सफलता प्राप्त होना
(iii) हाथ पांव फूल जाना- अत्यधिक खुशी से फूल जाना
(iv) सुध बुध खोना-बेहोश हो जाना
उत्तरः
(i) गाढ़ी कमाई-मेहनत से कमाया हुआ धन

(च) “दिल को गहरी चोट पहुँचना’ अर्थ के लिए उपयुक्त मुहावरा है।
(i) जिगर के टुकड़े-टुकड़े होना
(ii) लोहे के चने चबाना
(iii) बाट जोहना
(iv) घाट-घाट का पानी पीना
उत्तरः
(i) जिगर के टुकड़े-टुकड़े होना

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर सही विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए (1 × 5 = 5)
द्रौपदी की लाज राखी, आप बढ़ायो चीर,
भगत कारण रूप नरहरि, धर्यो आप शरीर ।
बूढ़तो गजराज राख्यो, काटी कुंजर पीर,
दासी मीरा लाल गिरधर, हरो म्हारी भीर।

(क) श्री कृष्ण ने द्रौपदी की लाज कैसे बचाई थी?
(i) उसे महल में शरण देकर
(ii) उसके वस्त्रों को बढ़ाकर
(iii) उसे भोजन देकर
(iv) उसे जागीर देकर
उत्तरः
(ii) उसके वस्त्रों को बढ़ाकर

(ख) मीरा कृष्ण से क्या प्रार्थना कर रही है?
(i) द्रौपदी की भांति मेरे वस्त्रों को बढ़ा दीजिए
(ii) मुझे डूबने से बचाइए
(iii) मेरे कष्टों को दूर कीजिए
(iv) मेरे लिए नरहरी का रूप धारण कीजिए
उत्तरः
(iii) मेरे कष्टों को दूर कीजिए

(ग) मीरा किस रूप में कृष्ण की भक्ति करना चाहती हैं?
(i) दासी के रूप में
(ii) सखी के रूप में
(iii) प्रेमिका के रूप में
(iv) नायिका के रूप में
उत्तरः
(i) दासी के रूप में

(घ) विभिन्न उदाहरण देकर मीरा श्री कृष्ण से
(i) शिकायत कर रही है
(ii) प्रार्थना कर रही हैं
(iii) उलाहना दे रही हैं
(iv) आश्वासन दे रही हैं
उत्तरः
(ii) प्रार्थना कर रही हैं

(ङ) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए।
(I) प्रस्तुत दोहा संत रहीम द्वारा रचित है।
(II) शास्त्र पढ़ने से अधिक महत्व प्रेम को दिया गया है।
(III) शास्त्र विद्या को हानिकारक बताया है।
(IV) पंडित कहलाने योग्य संसार में कोई नहीं है।
दोहे मेल खाते हुए वाक्यों के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
(i) II, III
(ii) I, II
(iii) I, III
(iv) II
उत्तरः
(iv) II

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का उत्तर देने के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) ‘उड़ गया अचानक लोग उधर’ ऐसा कहने का भाव
(i) पहाड़ टूट कर बिखर गए।
(ii) झरनों ने पहाड़ों को ढक लिया।
(iii) घने बादलों के कारण पहाड़ अदृश्य हो गए।
(iv) पहाड़ धरती में जाकर छुप गए।
उत्तरः
(iii) घने बादलों के कारण पहाड़ अदृश्य हो गए।

(ख) ‘कोई कहीं सहायक न मिले, तो अपना बल पौरुष न हिले’ इस पंक्ति का संदेश यह है कि
(i) हमें दूसरों से मदद मांग देनी चाहिए।
(ii) अपनी मेहनत पर विश्वास रखना चाहिए।
(iii) हमें भाग्यवादी नहीं पुरुषार्थी होना चाहिए।
(iv) सदा दूसरों के काम आना चाहिए।
उत्तरः
(ii) अपनी मेहनत पर विश्वास रखना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर उचित विकल्प छाँटकर दीजिए- (1 × 5 = 5)
बढ़ती हुई आबादी ने समंदर को पीछे सरकाना शुरू कर दिया है, पेड़ों को रास्ते से हटाना शुरू कर दिया है। फैलते हुए प्रदूषण ने पंछियों को बस्तियों से भगाना शुरू कर दिया है। बारूदों की विनाशलीलाओं ने वातावरण को सताना शुरू कर दिया। अब गर्मी में ज्यादा गर्मी, बेवक्त की बरसातें, जलजले, सैलाब, तूफान और नित नए रोग मानव और प्रकृति के इसी असंतुलन के परिणाम हैं। नेचर की सहनशीलता की एक सीमा होती है। नेचर के गुस्से का एक नमूना कुछ साल पहले मुंबई में देखने को मिला था और यह नमूना इतना डरावना था कि मुंबई निवासी डरकर अपने-अपने पूजा स्थल में अपने खुदाओं से प्रार्थना करने लगे थे।
(क) बदलता हुआ पर्यावरण किसका परिणाम है?
(i) प्राकृतिक असंतुलन का
(ii) विनाशलीलाओं का
(iii) बढ़ती आबादी का
(iv) जंगलों को काटने का
उत्तरः
(iii) बढ़ती आबादी का

(ख) बढ़ते प्रदूषण की देन क्या नहीं है?
(i) नित नए रोग
(ii) प्राकृतिक असंतुलन
(iii) जलजले, तूफान, बाढ़
(iv) प्राकृतिक संतुलन
उत्तरः
(iv) प्राकृतिक संतुलन

(ग) इस गद्यांश के पाठ व लेखक का नाम है
(i) ततारा वामीरो कथा-लीलाधर मंडलोई
(ii) पतझड़ में टूटी पत्तियाँ – निदा फ़ाज़ली
(iii) अब कहाँ दूसरे के दुःख से दुःखी होने वाले-निदा फ़ाज़ली
(iv) अब कहाँ दूसरों की खुशी में शामिल होने वाले-रवींद्र केलेकर
उत्तरः
(iii) अब कहाँ दूसरे के दुःख से दुःखी होने वाले-निदा फ़ाज़ली

(घ) मुंबई में किस बात का उदाहरण देखने को मिला था?
(i) प्रकृति की सहनशीलता का
(ii) प्रकृति की सहनशीलता समाप्त होने का
(iii) प्रकृति की सहानुभूति का
(iv) प्रकृति के अहंकार का
उत्तरः
(ii) प्रकृति की सहनशीलता समाप्त होने का

(ङ) निम्नलिखित कथन और कारण को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए तत्पश्चात् दिए गए विकल्पों में से उचित विकल्प छांट कर उत्तर दीजिए।
कथन (A) : दोनों के हृदय व्यथित थे।
कारण (R) : ततारा अचंभित था, साथ ही रोमांचित भी।
(i) कथन (A) सही है कारण (R) उसका समर्थन करता है।
(ii) कथन (A) सही नहीं है, कारण (R) सही
(iii) कथन (A) सही है किन्तु कारण (R) उसकी व्याख्या नहीं करता।
(iv) कथन (A) गलत है कारण (R) भी सही है।
उत्तरः
(i) कथन (A) सही है कारण (R) उसका समर्थन करता है।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का उत्तर देने के लिए उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए- (1 × 2 = 2)
(क) बड़े भाई के स्वभाव में कब नरमी दिखाई दी?
(i) जब लेखक अच्छे अंकों से पास हो गए
(ii) जब भाई साहब फेल हो गए
(iii) जब लेखक की स्वच्छंदता बढ़ गई
(iv) जब लेखक ने टाइम टेबल बनाया

(ख) मौन्यूमैट को भोर से ही पुलिस ने क्यों घेर लिया था?
(i) ताकि स्वतंत्रता का आयोजन सफल हो सके
(ii) ताकि स्वतंत्रता का आयोजन सफल न हो सके.
(iii) ताकि झंडा फहराया जा सके
(iv) ताकि स्वतंत्रता प्राप्त हो सके

खंड ‘ब’
दर्णनाल्कक प्रश्न (अंक : 40)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो के उत्तर 60 शब्दों में दीजिए (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) निकोबारी ततांरा को क्यों पसन्द करते थे?
उत्तरः
ततांरा निकोबार के एक द्वीप के ‘पासा’ गाँव का रहने वाला बलिष्ठ, आकर्षक व शक्ति सम्पन्न नवयुवक था। वह एक नेक व मददगार व्यक्ति था। केवल अपने गाँव की नहीं, अपितु समूचे द्वीपवासियों की सेवा करना अपना परम कर्त्तव्य समझता था। उसके आत्मीय स्वभाव के कारण सभी लोग उसे बेहद पसन्द करते थे।

(ख) बड़े भाई साहब ने रावण का उदाहरण देकर लेखक को क्या समझाने का प्रयत्न किया?
उत्तरः
लेखक के बड़े भाई साहब लेखक को सही राह पर बनाए रखना व उन्हें समय-समय पर समझाते रहना अपना परम कर्त्तव्य ही नहीं, जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार भी समझते थे। जब लेखक बिना मेहनत किए ही दो बार उत्तीर्ण हो गए तो भाई साहब को लगा कि लेखक को अहंकार हो गया है। तब उन्होंने रावण का उदाहरण देकर समझाया कि महान ज्ञानी होने पर भी रावण का सर्वनाश होने का एकमात्र कारण उसका अहंकार ही था। अतः घमण्ड से दूर रहना चाहिए और सफल होने के लिए लगातार मेहनत करनी चाहिए।

(ग) लेखक ‘निदा फाजली’ की माँ उन्हें क्या सीख देती थी?
उत्तरः
लेखक ‘निदा फाजली’ की माँ उन्हें प्रकृति का और सभी छोटे-बड़े जीव-जन्तुओं का आदर व उनकी सुरक्षा करने की सीख देती थीं। उन्हें स्वयं प्रकृति से बेहद लगाव था और वे चाहती थीं कि लेखक भी प्रकृति व अन्य जीवधारियों का आदर करे तथा उन्हें कभी कष्ट न पहुँचाए।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर 60 शब्दों में दीजिए (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) कबीर के अनुसार निंदक किस प्रकार हमारे स्वभाव को सुधारने में सहायक होता है? वह निंदक के साथ कैसा व्यवहार करने का सुझाव देते हैं?
उत्तरः
संत कबीर ने हमें अपने दोहों के माध्यम से करणीय तथा अकरणीय की सीख दी है। उनका एक दोहा हमें अपने स्वभाव को निर्मल करने का एक विचित्र उपाय बता रहा है। उसके अनुसार हमें निंदक व्यक्ति को सदा अपने पास रखना चाहिए। जब-जब वह हमारी कमियाँ, हमारी बुराइयाँ हमारे सामने रखेगा तब-तब हमें उन्हें दूर करने का या अपनी बुराइयों को अच्छाइयों में रूपांतरित करने का अवसर मिलेगा और इस प्रकार स्वतः हमारा स्वभाव निर्मल हो जाएगा। इस प्रकार निंदा करने वाले व्यक्ति का संग स्वभाव को निर्मल बनाने का एक सरल उपाय है।

(ख) कवि सुमित्रानंदन पंत ने ऐसा क्यों कहा है कि पर्वत बादलों के पंख लगाकर उड़ गए हैं?
उत्तरः
बादल घिरने और वर्षा शुरू होने से पहले जो बड़े-बड़े पहाड़ दूर तक गोल आकार में फैले हुए दिखाई दे रहे थे, वह अचानक अदृश्य हो गए। उन्हें बादलों ने पूरी तरह ढक लिया। प्रकृतिक दृश्य के इस परिवर्तन को कवि की कल्पना ने इस प्रकार प्रस्तुत किया है की पर्वत मानो कोई विशाल पक्षी है जो बादलों के पंख लगा कर उड़ गया है। वह बिल्कुल भी नज़र नहीं आ रहे हैं इसलिए अपार शब्द का प्रयोग किया है कि वह उड़ते हुए बहुत दूर चले गए हैं इसलिए बिल्कुल नज़र नहीं आ रहे।

(ग) ‘कर चले हम फिदा’ कविता में धरती को दुल्हन क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तरः
दुल्हन शब्द सुनते ही हमारी आंखों के सामने लाल जोड़े में सजी सुंदर युवती आ जाती है। कवि ‘कैफ़ी आज़मी’ ने धरती को दुल्हन कहा है, क्योंकि वह सैनिक जो देश की रक्षा करते करते अपना खून बहा देता है और धरती उसके खून से लाल रंग जाती है, उसे लगता है मानो वह एक नई नवेली दुल्हन को छोड़ कर जा रहा है। जाते-जाते वह उस दुल्हन की जिम्मेदारी हमें अथवा अन्य देशवासियों को सौंप देना चाहता है। ऐसा कहकर कवि हमारे हृदय में देशभक्ति की भावना भर देना चाहते हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर 60 ‘ शब्दों में दीजिए (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) पाठ ‘सपनों के से दिन’ के आधार पर बताइए कि आप पी. टी. सर व हैडमास्टर शर्मा जी में से किससे प्रभावित हैं और क्यों?
उत्तरः
हमारे बचपन की कुछ यादें हमेशा हमारे साथ रहती हैं और समय-समय पर खट्टे-मीठे अनुभव देती रहती हैं। पाठ ‘सपनों के से दिन’ में लेखक ने भी अपने बचपन की कुछ यादों को हमारे समक्ष प्रस्तुत किया है, जिसमें उन्होंने अपने विद्यालय के दो अध्यापकों का विशेष जिक्र किया है। उनमें से एक हैं-पी. टी. सर, मास्टर प्रीतमचन्द, जो कि बहुत ही सख्त स्वभाव के हैं। छात्रों को अनुशासन में रखने के लिए वे किसी भी हद तक जा सकते हैं, यहाँ तक कि खाल खींचने के मुहावरे को प्रत्यक्ष करके दिखा देते हैं। दूसरे हैं-हैडमास्टर शर्मा जी, जो बहुत नम्र स्वभाव के हैं। छात्रों को शारीरिक दण्ड देना उनके उसूलों के खिलाफ है। पी. टी. सर का खौफ इस कदर है कि उनके मुअत्तल हो जाने पर भी उनके कालांश में छात्र घबराते रहते हैं। उनके मुँह से बमुश्किल निकलने वाली ‘शाबाश’ बच्चों को फौज के तमगों जैसी मूल्यवान लगती है। मेरे विचार से दोनों के ही चरित्र में अति है। एक शिक्षक को न तो इतना कठोर होना चाहिए कि छात्र उनका सम्मान करने की बजाए उनसे डरते रहें और न इतना नम्र कि छात्र अनुशासनहीन हो जाएँ।

(ख) अम्मी शब्द सुनकर टोपी के घरवालों की क्या प्रतिक्रिया हुई?
उत्तरः
पाठ ‘टोपी शुक्ला’ दो ऐसे मित्रों की कहानी है जिनकी परवरिश बिल्कुल भिन्न परिस्थितियों में हुई, अलग पारिवारिक वातावरण, मान्यताएँ भी अलग, फिर भी दोनों में घनिष्ठ सम्बन्ध बन गए। टोपी हिन्दू परिवार से था जबकि इफ्फन कट्टर मुसलमान परिवार से। टोपी ने इफ्फन के घर से एक नया शब्द सीखा ‘अम्मी’ और अपने घर पर जब उसके मुँह से अपनी माँ के लिए यह शब्द निकला तब उसके परिवार वालों की तीखी नजरें उस पर उठी, खाने की मेज़ पर सभी हाथ अचानक रुक गए, उसकी दादी टोपी की माँ पर बरस पड़ीं कि वह उसे ऐसे लड़के से मित्रता करने से रोकती क्यों नहीं है। माँ ने टोपी को बहुत मारा किन्तु फिर भी टोपी ने इफ्फन से दोस्ती तोड़ना स्वीकार नहीं किया।

(ग) लेखक के साथ हरिहर काका के संबंधों पर प्रकाश डालिए।
उत्तरः
हरिहर काका एक सीधे-सादे किसान थे। खेतीबाड़ी से समय मिलने पर वे गाँव की ठाकुरबाड़ी में जाकर धार्मिक चर्चा में समय व्यतीत करते थे। लेखक को हरिहर के प्रति गहरी आसक्ति थी जिसके बहुत से वैचारिक और व्यावहारिक कारण थे। एक तो यह कि हरिहर उनके पड़ोस में रहते थे, दसरा लेखक जब छोटे थे तब हरिहर काका उन्हें एक पिता से भी अधिक दुलार करते थे। लेखक बचपन में हरिहर काका के कंधे पर बैठकर घूमा करते थे। लेखक जब सयाने हुए तो उनकी पहली दोस्ती हरिहर काका से ही हुई और हरिहर काका अपने मन की सभी बातें लेखक के साथ किया करते थे। लेखक को
उनके साथ समय बिताना बहुत अच्छा लगता था।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग : 100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए-
(क) पर उपदेश कुशल बहुतेरे संकेत बिन्दु

• लोकोक्ति का अर्थ
• उदाहरण
• आदर्श स्थिति।

उत्तरः
पर उपदेश कुशल बहुतेरे
यह एक सर्वविदित सत्य है कि दूसरों को उपदेश देना, समझाना, दोषारोपण करना तो बहुत आसान है, किन्तु स्वयं उन बातों पर अमल करना या उन दोषों से दूर रहना कठिन है। वास्तव में हमारे उपदेश तभी प्रभावशाली सिद्ध हो सकते हैं जब हम स्वयं उस पर अमल करते हों। जो शिक्षक स्वयं समय बर्बाद करता हो या काम से जी चुराता हो, वह छात्रों को समय के सदुपयोग की सीख कैसे दे पाएगा; जो माता-पिता स्वयं झूठ बोलते हों वे अपने बच्चे को सच बोलना कदापि नहीं सिखा सकते। अतः यदि हम किसी को कुछ सिखाना चाहते हैं तो सर्वप्रथम उस उपदेश को स्वयं पर लागू करना आना चाहिए। किन्तु इसी का दूसरा पहलू भी है कि जब कोई दुविधा में होता है तो उसका विवेक उससे छिन जाता है, ऐसे में उसे उपदेश देकर, समझाकर सही मार्ग पर चलने या उचित निर्णय लेने में मदद की जा सकती है। अतः लोकोक्ति को सर्वथा नकारात्मक रूप से नहीं लेना चाहिए। यदि उचित समय पर, उचित भावना से उपदेश दिया जा रहा है, तो सकारात्मकता के साथ स्वीकार करने में ही भलाई है|

अथवा

(ख) मेरी कल्पना का भारत संकेत बिन्दु

• प्राचीन भारत
• वर्तमान की समस्याएँ
• सुधार के उपाय।

उत्तरः
मेरी कल्पना का भारत
प्रत्येक व्यक्ति के लिए उसके अपने देश का एक विशेष महत्व होता है। जिस धरती पर हम जन्म लेते हैं, पलते-बढ़ते हैं, उसके साथ हमारी भावनायें जुड़ जाती हैं। मैं भारत का निवासी हूँ और अपने देश को ऊँचाइयों पर देखना चाहता हूँ। कभी हमारा देश भारत सोने की चिड़िया कहलाता था, संस्कृति व प्राकृतिक सम्पदा का धनी था, किन्तु समय के साथ-साथ प्रत्येक दृष्टि से यह कमज़ोर होता गया। अनगिनत समस्याएँ-सामाजिक, आर्थिक, नैतिक व राजनैतिक आदि चुनौती बनकर हमारे सामने खड़ी हैं। इन समस्याओं को तब तक दूर नहीं किया जा सकता जब तक छोटे से बड़े, हर स्तर पर काम करने वाले अपने निजी स्वार्थ से ऊपर न उठ जाएँ। मैं चाहता हूँ कि पूरे आत्मविश्वास व साहस के साथ हम मिलकर अपने देश को इन समस्याओं से उबारें एवं एक ऐसे मुकाम पर ला खड़ा करें कि हर भारतवासी फिर से, गर्व से कह सके कि’सारे जहाँ से अच्छा, हिन्दोस्तां हमारा।’

अथवा

(ग) मेरा जीवन लक्ष्य संकेत बिन्दु

• लक्ष्य निर्धारण की आवश्यकता
• अपना लक्ष्य
• पूर्ति के लिए प्रयास।

उत्तरः
मेरा जीवन लक्ष्य
जीवन में प्रत्येक कार्य का कोई-न-कोई उद्देश्य होता है या होना चाहिए, तो फिर सम्पूर्ण जीवन का कोई निश्चित लक्ष्य या उद्देश्य होना तो बहुत ही आवश्यक है। लक्ष्यविहीन नाव कभी अपनी मंजिल पर नहीं पहुँच पाती। इसी प्रकार, यदि हम बिना लक्ष्य निर्धारित किए ही जीवन जीते जायेंगे तो अपने मनुष्य जीवन को सार्थक नहीं कर पायेंगे। जितना जल्दी हम लक्ष्य निर्धारित कर लें, उतनी ही उसकी प्राप्ति निश्चित हो जाती है, क्योंकि हमें उस दिशा में प्रयास करने के लिए पर्याप्त समय व अवसर मिल जाते हैं। मुझे बचपन से ही कहानियाँ पढ़ने का, पुस्तकें पढ़ने का बहुत शौक था, धीरे-धीरे लिखने में भी रुचि होने लगी और मुझे यह समझने में देर नहीं लगी कि एक कवि व लेखक बनना एवं देश व समाज को सही दिशा देते रहना ही मेरे जीवन का लक्ष्य है। अब मैं इसी दिशा में कार्यरत हूँ। देश व दुनिया से सम्बन्धित विषयों पर लिखकर मानव जाति का मार्गदर्शन करते हुए अपने लक्ष्य की ओर अग्रसर होते रहने का प्रयत्न कर रही हूँ।

प्रश्न 15.
अपने क्षेत्र के थानाध्यक्ष को पत्र लिखकर बढ़ते अपराधों की सूचना दीजिए।
अथवा
प्रधानाचार्या को शुल्क माफी के लिए प्रार्थना पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तरः
दिनांक…………….
श्रीमान् थानाध्यक्ष,
विकासपुरी थाना,
नई दिल्ली-110018

विषय-बढ़ते अपराधों की सूचना।

आदरणीय महोदय,

सविनय निवेदन यह है कि मैं विकासपुरी की निवासी आपको अपने क्षेत्र में दिन-पर-दिन बढ़ते जा रहे .. अपराधों की सूचना देना चाहती हूँ व उनसे होने वाले दुष्परिणामों से भी अवगत कराना चाहती हूँ।
महोदय, हमारा क्षेत्र अब बिल्कुल भी सुरक्षित नहीं रह गया है। किसी भी समय घर से निकलना, बाज़ार जाना मुश्किल हो गया है। दिन-दहाड़े चेन खींच ली जाती है। हाथ से सामान, पर्स छीन लिया जाता है, यहाँ तक कि चाकू या बन्दूक की नोंक पर कीमती सामान देने के लिए बाध्य कर दिया जाता है। चोर-लुटेरे खुले घूम रहे हैं। ऐसा लगता है कि कानून-व्यवस्था बिल्कुल खत्म हो चुकी है या कहना पड़ेगा कि हमारे रक्षक स्वयं इन अपराधियों के साथ मिले हुए हैं। यदि यही हाल रहा तो लोगों का आप लोगों पर से विश्वास ही उठ जाएगा व अपने देश व समाज के प्रति सहयोग व सम्मान की भावना बिल्कुल समाप्त हो जाएगी।
आपसे अनुरोध है कि आप जल्द ही उचित कदम उठायें व समाज को सुरक्षा प्रदान करें ताकि सभी नागरिक निश्चिन्त व सुरक्षित महसूस करते हुए जीवन निर्वाह कर सकें।
धन्यवाद।
भवदीय,
क ख ग

अथवा

प्रधानाचार्या महोदया,
अ ब स विद्यालय,
नई दिल्ली 110018

विषय-शुल्क माफी हेतु प्रार्थना।

आदरणीया महोदया,

सविनय निवेदन यह है कि मैं आपके विद्यालय में कक्षा दसवीं का छात्र हूँ। गत 10 वर्ष से मैं इसी विद्यालय में शिक्षा प्राप्त कर रहा हूँ। प्रत्येक कक्षा में मैं अच्छे अंकों से उत्तीर्ण होता आया हूँ व विभिन्न प्रतियोगिताओं में पुरस्कृत होकर मैंने अपने विद्यालय का नाम रोशन किया है। इसके अतिरिक्त मेरी ओर से कभी किसी अध्यापक को शिकायत का मौका नहीं मिला तथा मेरा शुल्क भी सदा समय पर भरा जाता था, किन्तु महोदया, पिछले कुछ दिनों से घर की आर्थिक स्थिति ठीक नहीं है। मेरे पिताजी इस वर्ष मेरा शुल्क अदा करने में समर्थ नहीं हो पायेंगे।
अतः आपसे अनुरोध है कि इस वर्ष के लिए मेरा शुल्क माफ करने की कृपा करें। मैं आपको आश्वासन देता हूँ कि हमेशा की तरह आगे भी अपनी मेहनत व लगन से विद्यालय का नाम रोशन करता रहूँगा।
धन्यवाद।
आपका आज्ञाकारी छात्र,
क ख ग
दिनांक…………………..

प्रश्न 16.
‘आसरा’ सोसायटी के लोगों को जल आपूर्ति कम होने की सूचना देने हेतु 80 शब्दों में सूचना तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
विद्यालय में होनेजारहेवार्षिकोत्सव में भागलेने के लिए छात्रों को प्रोत्साहित करने हेतु 80 शब्दों में सूचना तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तरः

आसरा सोसायटी

सूचना दिनांक……………. अपर्याप्त जल आपूर्ति सोसायटी के सभी सदस्यों को सूचित किया जाता है कि आगामी एक सप्ताह जल आपूर्ति कम रहेगी, अतः सभी | | से अनुरोध है कि जल का दुरुपयोग न करें। याद रखें-‘जल ही जीवन है।’ धन्यवाद। विपिन गर्ग सचिव

अथवा

रामकृष्ण उच्चतर माध्यमिक विद्यालय

सूचना दिनांक……………. वार्षिकोत्सव का आयोजन नवम्बर माह में विद्यालय में वार्षिकोत्सव का आयोजन किया जाएगा। इस बार का विषय होगा-‘गुरु-शिष्य सम्बन्ध’। वार्षिकोत्सव में भाग लेने के इच्छुक छात्र 15 सितम्बर से पहले अपनी कक्षाध्यापिका को अपना नाम दे | दें। सभी भाग लेने वालों को प्रमाण-पत्र व बेहतरीन भूमिका निभाने वालों को विशेष पुरस्कारों से सम्मानित किया जाएगा। अधिक जानकारी के लिए हस्ताक्षरकर्ता से सम्पर्क करें। धन्यवाद। राहुल चोपड़ा हेड बॉय

प्रश्न 17.
‘प्रथम’ कोचिंग संस्थान के लिए 60 शब्दों में विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
नाम बदलवाने के लिए 60 शब्दों में विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तरः

प्रथम कोचिंग संस्थान

कक्षा छठी से बारहवीं तक के छात्रों को सभी विषयों की बेहतरीन शिक्षा दिलवाना चाहते हैं, तो जल्द आइए-प्रथम | कोचिंग संस्थान, A.1ए जनकपुरी, नई दिल्ली। दूरभाष-9810102010, सत्र 2018-19 की कक्षाएँ अप्रैल से शुरू होंगी। नामांकन की अन्तिम तिथि 25 मार्च, 2018, प्रथम 50 छात्रों को शुल्क में 30% की छूट।

अथवा

मैं नवीन मित्तल, जनकपुरी, ए.1ए 284 का निवासी दिनांक 20 अप्रैल, 2018 से अपना नाम बदलकर, स्वेच्छा से ‘नीरज मित्तल’ कर रहा हूँ। प्रत्येक निजी व व्यावसायिक स्थान पर मेरा नया नाम ही प्रयोग होगा व इसी नाम से | मेरे हस्ताक्षर होंगे।

प्रश्न 18.
दिए गए प्रस्थान बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 100 शब्दों में लघु कथा का निर्माण कीजिए

• चाय
• नाम
• सार्थक

अथवा
आप विपुल/विनीता हैं। विद्यालय में कक्षा ग्यारहवीं के छात्रों के लिए अधिक विकल्प रखने हेतु लगभग 50 शब्दों में प्रधानाचार्य को ई-मेल लिखिए।
उत्तरः
ब्रह्मानंद चाय
स्कूल में चाय के लिए लोगों का बेसब्री से आवाजें लगाना कुछ अच्छा नहीं लगता था। पर कुछ दिनों से चाय के साथ जो नाम मैं सुन रही थी उसने मुझे अपनी ओर अनायास ही आकर्षित कर लिया। कितना प्यारा और गहरा नाम था ‘ब्रह्मानंद’। पर शायद ही कोई उसका पूरा नाम पुकारता था। ब्रह्मानंद को कोई ब्रह्मा, कोई नंदू तो यहां तक कि कोई-कोई तो उसे बी ए कहकर ही पुकारते थे और वह हर पुकार पर मुस्कराता हुआ आता और सबके पसंद की चाय झटपट बना कर ले आता। जब-जब उसे आवाज लगाई जाती, मेरा ध्यान उस ओर जाने लगा और मैं उसके चेहरे की ओर देखने लगी। कितनी गहराई है, उसके नाम में? वैसी ही गहराई कहीं-न-कहीं मुझे उसके चेहरे पर भी नजर आती। वह हर किसी के मुताबिक चाय बना कर लाता, बिना किसी संकोच, बिना किसी परेशानी के।

एक दिन मेरा भी मन हुआ कि मैं ब्रह्मानंद के हाथ की चाय पी कर देखू। मैंने उसे बुलाया ‘ब्रह्मानंद, मुझे भी एक कप चाय दे दो’। उसने पूछा कैसी चाय पसंद है आपको? मैंने बोला जैसी तुम चाहो वैसी बना दो। उसने मुझे जो चाय बना कर पिलाई उसमें मुझे बिल्कुल घर की चाय का स्वाद आया।

एक दिन मैंने उससे पूछ लिया कि ब्रह्मानंद, क्या तुम्हें अपने नाम का मतलब मालूम है? इतना प्यारा नाम तुम्हें किसने दिया? वह बोला पता नहीं। जब से होश संभाला है लोग इसी नाम से पुकारते हैं।

बस इसके आगे कुछ पूछने की मेरी हिम्मत नहीं हुई। इतना साफ था कि उसकी चाय, उसकी मुस्कराहट सबको ब्रह्म सा आनंद देकर तृप्त कर देती थी और उसके नाम को साकार कर देती थी।

अथवा

मेलकर्ता[email protected]
प्राप्तकर्ता[email protected]
भेजने वाला[email protected]

विषय:
20 सितंबर, 2022
सायं 6 बजे
आदरणीय प्रधानाचार्य जी,
मैं विपुल, आपके विद्यालय की कक्षा ग्यारहवीं का छात्र हूँ। मैंने 80% अंकों के साथ दसवीं कक्षा की परीक्षा उत्तीर्ण की है। 11वीं कक्षा में मैं विज्ञान विषय के साथ मनोविज्ञान विषय लेना चाहता हूँ। हमारी कक्षा के और भी छात्र हैं, जो कुछ अन्य विषय लेने में इच्छुक हैं, किंतु विद्यालय में उसका प्रावधान नहीं है। मेरी आपसे प्रार्थना है, कि कक्षा ग्यारहवीं के लिए अधिकाधिक विषयों का प्रावधान रखें ताकि छात्रों को विद्यालय छोड़कर न जाना पड़े।
आशा है, आप मेरी प्रार्थना को गंभीरता से लेंगे।
धन्यवाद
आपका आज्ञाकारी छात्र
विपुल
कक्षा ग्यारहवीं

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions Set 6 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 6 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. 15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie’s amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the

(2) Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics. At an early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master’s degree and doctorate in physics.

(3) Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently, she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress.

(4) Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world- famous university. In 1911, she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium.

Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her work Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) According to the author, what made Marie Curie the ever-existing name in the world of science? [1]
Answer:
Despite suffering from the fatal illness while working with radium, Marie Curie continued working for science regardless of the consequence and this made her an ever-existing name in the world of science.

(B) What message does the phrase ‘she never became disillusioned about her work’ convey? [1]
Answer:
The term ‘disillusioned’ means to be heavily disappointed by something. Marie was never disappointed by the risks involved in her work even after it gave her a fatal illness.

(C) What qualities did Perrie and Marie show when they worked together? Choose one option from the following:
(a) incompatibility
(b) envy
(c) camaraderie
(d) Jealousy [1]
Answer:
(c) camaraderie
Explanation: The term ‘camaraderie’ means to get along well together. In the passage, it is given that ‘Pierre and Marie’s amicable collaboration later helped r0 unlock the secrets of the atom.’ Amicable collaboration means friendliness and getting well together. Options (a), (b) and (d) do not reveal the same meaning. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(D) Select the option with the underlined words that can suitably replace ‘desolation’ (paragraph IV).
(a) She was in aloom when her father left her all alone.
(b) Riya was so elated to know that she passed the test.
(c) The teacher was so strict while invigilating in the exam halL
(d) Mohan is a destitute bou who keeps worrying about his future all the time. [1]
Answer:
(a) She was in gloom when her father left her all alone.
Explanation: The term ’desolation’ means to be very sad. Here, (a) gloom means to be sad, (b) elated means to be happy, (c) strict means to be stern, (c) destitute means to be poor. Hence, (a) is the correct answer.

(E) Marie had a ‘blithe’ personality.
Substitute the word ‘blithe’ in ONE WORD. [1]
Answer:
callous

(F) Identify the qualities of Marie Curie, according to the given passage.
(1) determined
(2) brilliant
(3) carefree
(4) quarrelsome
(5) immoral
(a) (1), (2), (3)
(b) (4) and (5)
(c) (1), (4) and (5)
(d) (2) and (3) [1]
Answer:
(a) 1.2, 3
Explanation: According to the passage, Marie was (1) determined, (2) brilliant and (3) callous or carefree. She was not (4) quarrelsome or (5) immoral as it is nowhere mentioned in the passage. Also, she had an amicable relation with Pierre that means she was rather friendly. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(G) Identify the tone in the given phrase-‘Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune’. [1]
Answer:
shocked
Explanation: Pierre was dead in the horse-wagon accident. This news stunned Marie. She was in a shock.

(H) Choose the option that lists the quote best expressing the central idea of the given passage.
(a) The backbone of success is hard work, determination and perseverance.
(b) Do not stop working; work is the only key to success.
(c) Nothing grows but honesty and hard work.
(d) Hard work pays off. [1]
Answer:
(a) The backbone of success is hard work, determination and perseverance.
Explanation: In the given passage, it is clear that Marie was determined and worked hard even after the damage that the radium has done to her. She had also shown the perseverance by working even after hardships in her life. These qualities made her name ever-existing in the world of science. Here, (a) talks about hard work, determination and perseverance, (b) talks about only work, (c) talks about honesty and hard work while (d) talks about only hard work. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(I) Marie and Pierre were married in 1897 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. (True/false) [1]
Answer:
False.
Explanation: Marie and Pierre were married in 1895, not in 1897.

(J) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passage.
Productive : unproductive:: grouped : ………….. [1]
Answer:
isolated

Question 2.
Read the passage given below: (1 x 20 = 10)
The Measles Resurgence
(1) Autism spectrum disorders (ASD) are a range of psychological conditions characterised by abnormalities in social interaction, behaviour, interests, and communication. The five forms of ASD include Classical autism, Asperger syndrome, Pervasive Developmental Disorder, Rett syndrome, and Childhood Disintegrative Disorder.

Although the number of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years, the majority of doctors agree that this increase is due to changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health.

(2) While there is no general consensus among medical professionals about the underlying causes of ASD, theories range from genetic inheritance to environmental factors. One of the most controversial theories to have emerged in recent times is the hypothesis that ASD could be caused by the MMR vaccine, which is an immunization against measles, mumps, and rubella that was first developed in the 1960’s.

The vaccine is a mixture of three live viruses and is administered via injection to children when they are one year old. By the late 1990’s, this vaccination had led to the near-eradication of measles in countries that employed widespread inoculation. However, a combination of spurious scientific data and alarmist media attention led to an entirely preventable resurgence in measles cases in the early 21st century.

(3) The first claims of a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism were made in 1998, when an article in The Lancet a respected British medical journal reported on eight cases of autism that could possibly be traced back to the administration of an MMR vaccine.

The parents of the children in this study contended that the symptoms of autism in their children developed within days of vaccination. During a press conference, Andrew Wakefield, one of the authors of the article, called on British doctors to stop giving combined MMR vaccines, instead advocating for individual inoculations against measles, mumps, and rubella.

(4) Following the publication of this article, Wakefield published several follow-up papers that further questioned the safety of the MMR vaccine. An onslaught of media coverage then began. Parents appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence linking their child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD.

The popular press quickly seized upon this story; in 2002, over 1200 articles were written about the link between MMR vaccines and ASD. Less than 30% of these articles mentioned that an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the given questions:
(A) The purpose of parents appearing on the television sharing anecdotal evidence was ……………… [1]
Answer:
to support the claim of a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism

(B) Select the option that is true for the two statements given below.
(1) According to a study, it is found that the cause behind ASD in children is increasing stress and anxiety at a tender age.

(2) The advancement in diagnostic techniques by doctors had proven great to decrease the number of ASD cases.
(a) (1) is the result of (2).
(b) (1) is the reason for (2).
(c) (1) is true and (2) is false
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false [1]
Answer:
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false
Explanation: It is clearly given in the passage that the medical professionals have not’ found the underlying causes of ASD. And due to changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health, there had been a big ‘increase’ in the number of cases of ASD. So, both (1) and (2) are false. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(C) State the meaning of the statement “The popular press quickly seized upon this story.” [1]
Answer:
The statement conveys that the famous media publishers covered the story in all aspects.

(D) According to the doctors, the number of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years. It was because of ………………. [1]
Answer:
the changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health.

(E) Select the option listing what the given sentence refers to.
The symptoms of ASD did NOT include:
(1) abnormalities in social interaction
(2) high fever
(3) bipolar behavior
(4) unusual interests
(5) Abnormal communication
(a) (1), (2) and (5)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (4) and (5)
(d) (1), (3) and (5) [1]
Answer:
(b) (2) and (3)
Explanation: While symptoms like (1), (4) and (5) are stated in the passage, (2) high fever and (3) bipolar behavior are nowhere mentioned in the passage. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(F) The MMR vaccine contained three live viruses. (True/false) [1]
Answer:
True
Explanation: It is given in the passage that The vaccine was a mixture of three live viruses and is administered via injection to children when they are one year old.’ Hence, it is true.

(G) The story of MMR vaccines and ASD relation got attention proving the power of ………………… [1]
Answer:
media

(H) Which of the following options suggest that the safety of the vaccines had no great evidence as such?
(a) The parents of the children in this study contended that the symptoms of autism in their children developed within days of vaccination.
(b) Wakefield published several follow¬up papers that further questioned the safety of the MMR vaccine.
(c) Parents appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence linking their child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD.
(d) Less than 30% of these articles mentioned that an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe. [1]
Answer:
(d) Less than 30% of these articles mentioned that an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe.

Explanation: It is mentioned that only 30% of the published articles had an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence that suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe. Whereas this means that 70% supported the claim of vaccines being unsafe. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(I) The MMR vaccine was first developed in the 1950’s. (True/false) [1]
Answer:
False.
Explanation: The MMR vaccine was first developed in the 1960s.

(J) Complete the given analogy correctly with a word from the passege
Dangerous : safe :: retreat: …………………. [1]
Answer:
resurgence

Section – B
Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Attempt ANY TEN of the given questions. (10 Marks)
(A) The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line.
Identify the error and write its correction against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the correction. The first one has been done for you.

		Error that	Correction who
The students that were fighting for	Example
The flowers or fruits that they plucked	(i)	…………………….	…………………….
all both the things were in plenty, the	(ii)	…………………….	…………………….
Teacher called the student and asked him to	(iii)	…………………….	…………………….
distribute them.

Answer:

Error	Correction
(i) or	And
(ii) all	As
(iii) the	a

(i) Explanation: The students plucked both the flowers and the fruits, not any one of them. Hence, this is the right answer.

(ii) Explanation: ‘As’ both the things were in plenty, the students were fighting to get them. All makes no sense here. Hence, this is the right answer.

(iii) Explanation: The teacher didn’t call any specific student. It could be any random person. Hence, this is the right answer.

(B) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option for the given sentence.
Unfortunately, I have ……………….. talent for music although I have always wanted to be a famous singer.
(a) a few
(b) little
(c) plenty of
(d) few [1]
Answer:
(b) little

(C) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option for the given sentence.
The report concludes sadly that ………………. students have ………………. knowledge of nuclear physics.
(a) very few / some
(b) both / whole
(c) every / no
(d) none / any [1]
Answer:
(a) very few / some

(D) Complete the given sentence by choosing the right option.
Although ………………. species of fox are reddish in colour, ………………… Arctic fox is often pure white.
(a) most / the
(b) any / the
(c) a great amount of/an
(d) None [1]
Answer:
(a) most/the

(E) The hospital board clearly mentioned that you …………………… smoke in the hospital as it is a health hazard for all.
(a) cannot
(b) must not
(c) need not
(d) might not [1]
Answer:
(b) must not.
Explanation: “Must” is a modal verb that is used to describe something which is necessary and morally correct. Here, a person ‘must’ not smoke in the hospital as it is injurious for patients. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(F) There’s never ………………… petrol left after Rahul uses the car.
(a) much
(b) little
(c) many
(d) a little [1]
Answer:
(a) much.
Explanation: As ‘petrol’ is an uncountable noun, {a) is the right quantifier for it. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(G) I am taking driving lessons now. Hopefully, I ………………….. my driving test by November.
(a) will take
(b) would pass
(c) will have taken
(d) will be taking [1]
Answer:
(c) will have taken.
Explanation: The speaker shows a possibility of an event to happen by November. He says that he will have already taken the test by that month. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(H) Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
Sunitha asked Venkat, “How much is the rent for your flat?”
(a) Sunitha asked Venkat how much was his rent for flat.
(b) Sunitha asked Venkat how much the rent for his flat was.
(c) Sunita enquires from Venkat that how much rent he pays.
(d) Sunita told Venkat how much the rent for his flat was. [1]
Answer:
(b) Sunitha asked Venkat how much the rent for his flat was.
Explanation: Option (b) has the correct phrasing of the reported speech. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(I) Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
She said, “I told Damanjit to send you an e-mail three days ago.”
(a) She told that Damanjit had mailed you three days then.
(b) She informed me that Damanjit has mailed me three days before.
(c) She says that she has told Damanjit to send me an E-mail three days then.
(d) She said that she had told Damanjit to send an e-mail to me three days before. [1]
Answer:
(d) She said that she had told Damanjit to send an E-mail to me three days before.
Explanation: Here, in reported speech, ‘told’ will be changed to ‘had told’ and ‘ago’ will be changed to ‘before’. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(J) The dog …………………. under the chair before the children arrived.
(a) has been hiding
(b) was hid
(c) have hid
(d) had hidden [1]
Answer:
(d) had hidden.
Explanation: As the sentence is in the past tense, (d) is the right answer.

(K) The Amazon in Brazil is ……………….. longest river in ……………….. South America.
(a) the/an
(b) an/the
(c) the/the
(d) None of these [1]
Answer:
(c) the / the

(L) We could barely get any information at the airport. ………………… people seemed to have ……………….. idea about the flights.
(a) only a few / some
(b) a lot of / any
(c) many / any
(d) few / no
Answer:
(a) only a few / some.

Creative Writing Skills (5×2=10 Marks)

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
Taking help from the information given below, write a letter to the editor of a national daily showing your concern at the outdated education system which has not helped in creating more jobs in India. Also suggest some measures to make the education system more meaningful and job-oriented. You are Mohan/Mohini. (100-120 words)
Hints: Influence of western education due to colonisation-More theoretical; than practical-Not job-oriented- Vocational training required.
OR
The recent cyclone in the states of West Bengal and Odisha highlight the need for India to have dedicated funds which can be used to rebuild areas destroyed during national calamities. As Devesh/Devika, write a letter in 100-120 words to the editor of a national daily drawing attention of the authorities towards the need for a Natural Calamity Fund. Give suggestions on how funds for the same must be collected and how they must be utilised during natural calamities. [5]
Answer:
12, Kamla Lotia College Kanpur
20^th March, 20XX
The Editor
The Hindustan Times New Delhi
Subject : Importance of Job-oriented Education
Respected Sir/Madam
Through the columns of your prestigious newspaper, I want to highlight that the education system in India needs to be revised. Our education system is not job- oriented as it contains more theoretical knowledge than practical. It needs to be revised according to today’s requirements. Also, more emphasis should be paid on the practice of the given theory for proper implementation of the knowledge learned. Most of the educational institutions are failing to fulfill the anthem of education.

Our present education system is merely a continuation of the western system introduced during the colonial era. It is highly in favour of academics. The old practices and traditions of the British era continue till today. School education provides a little or no vocational and technical training. The results are quite unproductive. Our educated young men and women do not get meaningful employment. Hence, their frustration finds outlets in oppositions and violence towards the government. It doesn’t augur well for the nation and its youth.

We have to wake up in order to catch up with the rest of the world. For this, it is necessary to maintain a desirable education system that would mould and equip the students to catch up with the changes of this modern world.The Government and the concerned educationists must revise the education system from new and meaningful angles. Vocational and technical education and training should be made an essential part of high-school education.

I hope the government and the educationists will rise up to the occasion and give a new definition and direction to our outdated education system, for ensuring jobs for the students.
Yours sincerely Mohan/Mohini
OR
25, xyz Enclave
Kolkata
22^nd May 20XX
The Editor Times of India Kolkata
Subject: Need for National Calamity Fund
Dear Sir
Through the columns of your esteemed daily, I wish to draw the attention of the Government and the authorities towards the urgent need for a National Calamity Fund.

The recent cyclone has proven that if the country has ready funds available, the same can be used to help people immediately rather than waiting for a ministerial visit for help. The government must have a separate minister who should be responsible for managing funds and also immediate disbursement of funds to the people directly. Most of the times, money does not reach the people as it is taken by middlemen.

The NCF ministry must frame a plan so that money can be transferred into the account of the people. The minister must oversee the rebuilding work and ensure that there is no misappropriation of funds. It must be made compulsory for all business houses to put a certain percentage of their income into this fund. Record of such contributions must be maintained and action must be taken against those who fail to contribute.

The PM must oversee the rebuilding work personally to ensure that there is no misappropriation of funds. I hope the concerned authorities will take note and do the needful to ensure that people get immediate help in times of calamities without being left at the mercy of the unscrupulous officials.
Yours sincerely
Devesh/Devika

Question 5.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words.
You are a teacher at a reputed school in the city. The following bar graph shows a comparative analysis of students’ performance in different subjects in the terminal exam. Write an analytical paragraph on the variation in the performances of students in about 100¬120 words to be presented at the Annual teachers meet
Scale:

OR
The following excerpt is taken from ‘The Times’ on the ill-treatment of animals and steps to prevent it.
“It is distressing to see the attitude of people towards animals and find that cases of cruelty towards animals is increasing. The following pie chart represents the attitude of people towards animals.”

• 50% of people blieve that animals are meant to be used to provide them help.
• to help them earn more.
• exploit animals for selfish interest
• 35% of people feel they do not used to do naything to change the scenario.
• they are worse than criminals.
• witness the crul acts, say nothing
• 15% of people believe themselve to be superior
• Feel they need to keep animals as slaves.
• have no empathy towards animals.

As Simran/Dhruv, write the analysis of the above statement in 100-120 words.
Answer:
Students Performance Analysis
Analysing the performance of students not only provides an insight into how their score vary through the year but also helps identify areas that need more work. The survey shows that the performance of students showed some improvement in the second term with most students scoring higher marks in Maths and Science in the second term.

The scores in Maths and Science were above 80 in the first term. However in, Maths, most students scored above 90 marks in the second term. Students scored between 60¬70 marks in Hindi and English, which means more effort is required in the two subjects, especially in Hindi as the students scored less in the second term. There was marginal improvement in the second term marks in English and Social Science. However, efforts must be made to ensure that the overall scores improve in the next academic session, hence teachers must plan accordingly in order to help students score higher marks.

Students must be given additional practice so that more students score 100 marks in Maths and Science. This will help improve the school’s performance in the board examination.
OR
The Pain of Animals
There has been an alarming increase in the cases of cruelty against animals. Each day one reads about the heartless treatment meted out to the poor animals who have no voice to speak up for themselves.

A recent study undertaken to analyse the reason behind the callous treatment of animals showed that almost 50% of people believe that animals are meant to be used to provide them help and earn more money hence, they exploit animals for their selfish interest. To earn more, they kill animals, conduct experiments on them, use their skin to make leather and fur products. The worst culprits are those 35% of people who have an indifferent attitude and feel that they do not need to do anything to change the situation. These people are worse than criminals as they witness the cruel acts of people and do nothing to stop or prevent it.

Added to this, 15% of people believe that they are the superior species and animals are meant to be kept as slaves who will work for them. This callous attitude needs to be replaced with one of empathy and we must understand that we are not the sole owners of the Earth, we share the bounties of mother nature with all the other animals and they have the same right to live a life of freedom as we do. Strict laws need to be enforced to prevent cruelty against animals and any individual found guilty must be dealt with severity.

Section – C
Literature (40 Marks)

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. (1 x 5 = 5)
The foliowing Sunday Lencho came a bit earlier than usual to ask if there was a letter for him. It was the postman himself who handed the letter to him while the postmaster, experiencing the contentment of a man who has performed a good deed, looked on from his office. Lencho showed not the slightest surprise on seeing the money; such was his confidence – but he became angry when he counted the money.

God could not have made a mistake, nor could he have denied Lencho what he had requested. Immediately, Lencho went up to the window to ask for paper and ink. On the public writing-table, he started to write, with much winkling of his brow, caused by the effort he had to make to express his ideas.
(A) How did Lencho feel when he counted the money?
(a) He was astonished.
(b) He was pleased.
(c) He was enraged.
(d) He was not bothered. [1]
Answer:
(c) He was enraged.
Explanation: Lencho was not shocked to see the money as he knew that God will definitely help him. Neither was he pleased as he found the amount less than what he requested for. So a & b can not be the answer. He was enraged with God (c) for not sending the requested amount.

(B) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are not true according to the given extract:
(1) Lencho was very casual in his duties.
(2) Lencho was a simple pure heart
(3) Lencho was extremely happy to see the amount
(4) Lencho was not a hard working farmer.
(5) Lencho was angry on the amount being sent by God.
(6) Lencho had requested God to send him some amount
(7) Lencho wrote a letter to God.
(a) (1), (3), (4)
(b) (2), (3), (4)
(c) (5), (6), (7)
(d) (1), (2), (3) [1]
Answer:
(a) (1), (3), (4)
Explanation: Lencho was a pure heart who believed that God will definitely respond to his request to send him money . He had written a letter to God for this. Hence sentences 2, 6 & 7 are True. Lencho got angry when he saw the amount sent by God, so 5 is True and 3 is Not True. Lencho was a hard working farmer who performed his duties diligently. Hence 1 & 4 are Not True. So the answer here is (a).

(C) Pick the option that correctly classifies fact/s (F) and opinion/s (O) of the statements below:
(1) Lencho firmly believed that Go would help him.
(2) Lencho was not a wise farmer.
(3) Lencho wrote a letter to God, requesting him to send him seventy
(4) Post master was a mature and kind hearted person as we could understand the problems of Lencho.
(a) F – (1), (2), (3) and O – (4)
(b) F – (1), (3), (4) and O – (2)
(c) F – (1), (2) and O – (3), (4)
(d) F – (1), (2) and O – (1), (3) [1]
Answer:
(b) F – (1), (3), (4) and O – (2)
Explanation: From the reading of the story we get to know that Lencho had a firm belief in God and that he had written a letter to God requesting him money. We also know that the postmaster collected money for Lencho and gave it to him pretending as if God had sent the money. So 1, 3 & 4 are proven facts. Only 2 can be considered as an opinion about Lencho as we do not have any evidence for it in the story. Hence the answer here is (b).

(D) Which word does ‘contentment’ NOT correspond to?
(a) Relaxed
(b) Happy
(c) Satisfied
(d) Sad [1]
Answer:
(d)Sad
Explanation: A person who is contented is satisfied, happy and feels reLaxed. So a, b & c are not the answers. Here the answer is (d).

(E) How much money Lencho had asked God for? [1]
Answer:
The story tells us that Lencho asked God 100 pesos and received only 70 pesos.

OR
When the train had gone, I found myself standing alone on the deserted platform. I had no idea where to spend the night. I had no friends, believing that friends were more trouble than help. And I did not want to make anyone curious by staying at one of the small hotels near the station. The only person I knew really well was the man I had robbed. Leaving the station, I walked slowly through the bazaar. In my short career as a thief I had made a study of men’s faces when they had lost their goods.

The greedy man showed fear; the rich man showed anger; the poor man showed acceptance. But I knew that Anil’s face, when he discovered the theft, would show only a touch of sadness. Not for the loss of money, but for the loss of trust. I found myself in the maidan and sat down on a bench. The night was chilly – it was early November – and a light drizzle added to my discomfort. Soon it was raining quite heavily. My shirt and pyjamas stuck to my skin, and a cold wind blew the rain across my face.
(A) Choose the incorrect option that does not aligns with the thoughts of the writer.

(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4) [1]
Answer:
(c) Option (3)
Explanation: Option (1) shows a greedy person, which the author was, as he robbed his friend. He had enough money to live like a rich person (b). As he had robbed his friend, so he was a thief (d). He wasn’t poor now. So (c) is the correct answer.

(B) Why was the speaker standing at the platform?
Answer:
The speaker had robbed his friend Anil, who had trusted him and he now wanted to escape.

(C) The statement that is TRUE about the passage is:
(a) The speaker of the given passage is Max.
(b) The thought of loneliness plagues the speaker.
(c) The speaker is happg to be without friends.
(d) The speaker did not want to leave the town. [1]
Answer:
(b) The thought of Loneliness plagues the speaker.
Explanation: From the reading of the passage we can make out that the speaker is feeling lonely so (c) cannot be true. He was afraid of being caught after the robbery, so (d) is also not the answer. The speaker’s name we know is Hari so (a) is also not the answer. Here the answer is (b).

(D) ‘It was early November’. What added to the discomfort of the speaker?
(1) The weather was chilly.
(2) It was drizzling.
(3) Cold wind blew the rain across the speaker’s face.
(4) He had misssed the train.
(a) (1 and 2)
(b) (2 and 3)
(c) (1 and 4)
(d) (3 and 4) [1]
Answer:
(b) (2) and (3)
Explanation: As it was the month of November the weather had to be chilly so (1) is not the answer. Hari Singh had deliberately missed the train so (4) is also not true. As it was drizzling (2) and the cold wind blew the rain across his face (3), due to which he felt some discomfort. So the answer here is (b).

(E) The extract uses the phrase “but for the loss of trust”. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to “Loss” of: [1]

Answer:
(d) Intelligence
Explanation: We loose happiness (a), money (b), funds (c) but we never at a loss of intelligence (d). So this is the right answer.

Question 7.
Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given. (1 x 5 = 5)
The way a crow
Shook down on me
The dust of snow
From a hemlock tree
(A) Find the synonyms of the word “shook” from the given options with respect to the poem.
(a) to surprise
(b) to distort
(c) to shift
(d) to throw [1]
Answer:
(d) to throw
Explanation: Here in this stanza the word shook tells us that some snow was shed over the poet by the crow. So there is no feeling of surprise (a), nor was anything distorted (b) or shifted (c). Rather the crow’s movement threw some snow on the poet. So the answer here is (d).

(B) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanza? [1]
Answer:
In this stanza 1st and 3rd lines are rhyming. And the 2nd and 4th lines have the same rhyme. So the scheme here is a b a b. Thus, (c) is the right answer.

(C) This stanza brings out the contrast between …………………. and ……………….. [1]
Answer:
bad omen; joy

(D) What is the poet not likely to say to the readers?
(a) The crow threw snow over the poet.
(b) The crow was sitting over the hemlock tree.
(c) The crow represented despair.
(d) The hemlock tree represented bad omen. [1]
Answer:
(b) The crow was sitting over the hemlock tree.
Explanation: The poem as we have read is about how a crow who is considered a symbol of’despair’ sheds snow on the poet. The crow was sitting on a Hemlock tree which is a bad omen. So a, c & d are not the answers. Here the answer is (b)

(E) How did the dust of snow affect the poet? [1]
Answer:
The poet was already sad so, the setting of the poem depicts a gloomy mood. In the poem, the poet has contrasted the feelings of despair and joy. So, though the snow was shed from a Hemlock tree by a crow but still it changed his mood and he felt happy.

OR

What is the boy now, who has lost his ball,
What, what is he to do? I saw it go
Merrily bouncing, down the street, and then
Merrily over – there it is in the water!
No use to say – ‘O there are other balls’:
(A) What does the expression ‘what, what is he to do?’ denotes? [1]
Answer:
The line here portrays the central idea of the poem that tells us that the time gone by never returns. Here, loss of ball or further action of play is not at all the idea. Nor does a loss ever brings happiness. Here the line shows grief about the time lost by means of the loss of the ball.

(B) What does the ball gone into the water symbolises?
(a) The ball will become wet
(b) The boy will have to buy a new ball
(c) The time that has gone by.
(d) The boy will be scolded by his parents. [1]
Answer:
(c) The time that has gone by. Explanation: The ball in this poem is used to show the time that is rolling away quickly. Hence the ball is not meant
in its real sense but as a poetic symbol so a, b & d can not be the answer. The ball gone into water can not be brought back the same as the time gone by. So the correct answer is (c).

(C) The word ‘merrily’ does not have a meaning similar to:
(a) Happily
(b) Joyfully
(c) Cheerfully
(d) Sadly [1]
Answer:
(d) Sadly
Explanation: Merrily is always used in the sense of joy and happiness so (a), (b) and (c) are not the answer, (d) is the correct answer here.

(D) It is no use to say- ‘O there are other balls’ because …………………… [1]
Answer:
there are special memories attached that this ball.

(E) ‘What is the boy now, who has lost his ball’. Which feeling is expressed in this line?
(a) regret
(b) cheerful
(c) despair
(d) no feelings [1]
Answer:
(a) regret
Explanation: In these lines the feelings of a person are expressed who can just watch the time flying away and can do nothing. These feelings are expressed through a boy who is standing and watching his ball rolling into the water and can do nothing. The boy is not at all cheerful (b) on the loss.

Every moment of our lives generates some feelings so (d) is not the answer. The boy may have a feeling of despair (c) but he still has some hope. The boy stands there and regrets having not been able to catch the ball. Same is our feeling when we see the time flying away. So (a) is the correct answer.

Question 8.
Answer ANY FOUR questions in 40-50 words each. (4 x 3 = 12)
(A) What were Valli’s emotions when the elderly man expressed concern that she was standing on the bus seat? [3]
(B) Custard’s reaction was different from that of others, on seeing the pirate. Using evidence from the poem, explain how this difference is represented in ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’. [3]
(C) Justify the poet’s allusion to Rapunzel in the poem ‘Amanda’. [3]
(D) What does the poet Walt Whitman suggest by saying that ‘they do not sweat and whine about their condition’ in the poem ‘Animals’? [3]
(E) When the writer says, ‘Baking was indeed a profitable profession in the olden days’, what did he mean? [3]
Answer:
(A) Valli was fairly displeased when the elderly man expressed concern that she was standing on the bus seat She was annoyed by the way she was treated like a little child in the bus.

(B) Belinda’s other pets always teased Custard and called him a coward, but Custard was the only one who stood up to fight the pirate when he broke in. The others ran away to save themselves.

(C) The poet in the poem ’Amanda’, uses allusion to depict that Amanda knows that as Rapunzel let her hair down, she was freed from the confines of the castle. However, Amanda wishes to live alone without any disturbance so unlike Rapunzel, she doesn’t want to escape.

(D) In the poem, the poet Walt Whitman said this phrase with reference to the animals. By this, he suggests that animals are satisfied and content with whatever they have in their lives. They do not cry about the situation they deal with.

(E) Through the given statement, the writer wants us to know that the eaters of the Portuguese bread have reduced in numbers today. This indicates that baking as a profession is now no longer that profitable which it used to be in the olden days.

Question 9.
Answer ANY TWO questions in 40-50 words each. (2 x 3 = 6)
(A) What was Tricki’s big flaw? [3]
(B) What was the reason behind Matilda’s incessant suffering? [3]
(C) How did Travels of Monarch X’ change Ebright’s life? [3]
Answer:
(A) Tricki could never say no to food and he could eat at any time of the day, whenever he had the desire to eat. This was the only flaw that Tricki had. Because of this reason, he became overweight and started to have physical issues.

(B) Matilda was simple but unhappy and filled with discontent. She believed that she deserved a better life and because of this, she suffered incessantly, feeling herself born for all delicacies and luxuries. She suffered from poverty and lived in a house with shabby walls and worn chairs that made her angry.

(C) The book ‘The Travels of Monarch X’ opened the world of science for Richard. After reading it, he became interested in tracking the migration of butterflies and learning more about them. This interest led him to his other projects and experiments. Finally, he became a great scientist.

Question 10.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words.
In ‘A Letter to God’, Lencho asks for remaining 30 pesos from God distrusting the postmaster.
Based on your understanding of the story and the characters, showcase an imaginary situation wherein both characters discuss the issue.
OR
Natalya and Ivan argued about the ownership of Oxen Meadows and the superiority of their respective dogs in the play, The Proposal. Based on your understanding of the personality traits reflected through the given points of arguments of Natalya and Ivan, develop a conversation, showcasing another argument between them.
You may begin like this:
Natalya: Hello, Ivan. I wasn’t expecting you to be here.
Ivan: Hello, I am equally surprised to see you here.
Natalya: Why are you surprised? ………………… [6]
Answer:
The characteristic faith of Lencho ensured that he believed in God and subsequently feel cheated by the postmaster and other post office employees.

• Lencho : What a bunch of crooks you all are!
• Postmaster : And you accuse us, so! Where would your remaining money go if God had sent it as well?
• Lencho : I feel that you have embezzled my money!
• Postmaster : Oh, embezzled your money? Why would we keep the remaining pesos with us?
• Lencho : You were afraid of God. You shared some portion with me and the rest you shared amongst yourselves!
• Postmaster : But why would we contribute the money if we had to take a share from it secretly?
• Lencho : What do you mean by that? How did you contribute the money?
• Postmaster : Although we value your devotion, but it was only the post office employees who contributed a share of their money and collected 70 pesos.
• Lencho : What are you saying now? Do you mean God gave me no money?
• Postmaster : I’m afraid. God gave you strength to bear the situation but the money was shared with you by the post office employees.
• Lencho : Oh, all my devotion! How would I have known? I am really regretful about the entire situation.
• Postmaster : We would like you to place the same faith in God and keep striding out through your difficulties.
  OR
• Natalya: Hello, Ivan. 1 wasn’t expecting you to be here.
• Ivan : Hello, 1 am equally surprised to see you here.
• Natalya: Why are you surprised? 1 come here often, rather 1 thought this wasn’t something a person like you would like.
• Ivan : Well, if you come here often then you shouLd have known that 1 am a member of the book club here. How much you do like to lie! What else can one expect from someone who likes to stake claim to things belonging to others.
• Natalya: Are you sure you are not talking about yourself? After all, you lay false claim to own Oxen Meadows which have been in our family for generations. And 1 don’t believe you come here often, as they have a policy against allowing drunks in here.
• Ivan : That’s it. 1 am going to take this matter to court now.
• Natalya: Yes and then the truth will come out!

Question 11.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100¬120 words.
“But I knew that Anil’s face, when he discovered the theft, would show only a touch of sadness. Not for the loss of money, but for the loss of trust.”
All this while, Hari Singh was conscious about the seriousness of his act. Elaborate.
OR
“Life isn’t about finding yourself. Life is about creating yourself.”
Reflecting on George Bernard Shaw’s message as given above, elaborate on how the story of ‘Bholi’ highlights the condition of girls across the country and gives out a strong message. Elucidate. [6]
Answer:
Hari Singh was only fifteen years old therefore, he had a short career as a thief. He had become experienced and was fairly successful at his work. As a thief Hari Singh had made a study of faces and felt that it was easy to rob a greedy man because the greedy man could afford it, yet the greedy man showed fear on the loss of his goods, the rich man showed anger; and the poor man showed acceptance.

Hari Singh, however, thought that it was difficult to rob a careless man as sometimes this kind of person doesn’t even notice that he/she has been robbed and this takes away all the pleasure out of the work. Hari Singh found it a pleasure to work for Anil as he found him to be a simple man. Anil was not rich but still he was not greedy or desperate for money.

Hari Singh knew that when Anil would come to know about the loss of his money, he would be sad, not for the loss of the money but for the Loss of trust. Hari Singh felt tortured by the remorse Anil would feel on noticing that his trust had been betrayed by Hari.
OR
Bholi is a shy and timid girl who faces ridicule on account of her looks. Her parents consider her a burden as they feel her looks will make it difficult for them to find a suitable match for her. Her parents don’t send her to school as they think she is dumb. Hence, call her Bholi, which means stupid.

However, Bholi proves everyone wrong and blossoms under the nurturing of her teacher. Her parents still follow the old traditions and fix her marriage with a lame old man. True to the hypocritical practice of the society, the old man asks for dowry as Bholi is not pretty. The same is seen in our society on a regular basis.

Girls are married off without consent or tortured for not bringing desired dowry. Bholi stands up for herself and refuses to marry the old man giving the strong message that girls must become independent and self- reliant. Thus, she rises above the material and social conditions of the society she inhabited and created a unique identity for herself by believing in the value of self-reliance.