CBSE Sample Papers – Page 10

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi with Solutions 2022-2023

February 27, 2023

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 Hindi 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 11 Hindi board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 11 Hindi Sample Papers 2023.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 11 Hindi
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 Hindi 2022-2023 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 11 Hindi Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 11 Hindi Sample Paper 2023 Solved.

CBSE Class 11 Hindi Sample Papers 2023 with Solutions

Hindi Sample Paper Class 11 Question Paper Design 2022-23

कक्षा – 11वीं
भारांक – 100
निर्धारित समय – 3 घण्टे

खंड – ‘अ’ में 45 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे जाएँगे जिनमें से केवल 40 प्रश्नों के ही उत्तर देने होंगे।
खंड – ‘ब’ में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे जाएंगे। प्रश्नों में उचित आंतरिक विकल्प दिए जाएंगे।

खंड-अ (वस्तुपरक प्रश्न)	भार
1. अपठित अंश	15
अ. एक अपठित गद्यांश (अधिकतम 300 शब्दों का) (1 अंक × 10 प्रश्न)	10
ब. दो अपठित पद्यांशों में से कोई एक पद्यांश (अधिकतम 150 शब्दों का) (1 अंक × 5 प्रश्न)	5
2. पाठ्यपुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम की इकाई एक से पाठ संख्या 1 तथा 2 पर आधारित	5
बहुविकल्पात्मक प्रश्न (1 अंक × 5 प्रश्न)	5
3. पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-1 से बहुविकल्पात्मक प्रश्न	10
अ. पठित काव्यांश पर पाँच बहुविकल्पी प्रश्न (1 अंक × 5 प्रश्न)	5
ब. पठित गद्यांश पर पाँच बहुविकल्पी प्रश्न (1 अंक × 5 प्रश्न)	5
4. पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-1 से बहुविकल्पात्मक प्रश्न	10
अ. पठित पाठों पर दस बहुविकल्पी प्रश्न (1 अंक × 10 प्रश्न)	10
खंड-ब (वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न)
5. पाठ्यपुस्तक अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम से सृजनात्मक लेखन और व्यावहारिक लेखन पाठ संख्या 1, 2, 9, 10, 14, 15 तथा 16 पर आधारित	20
1. दिए गए चार अप्रत्याशित विषयों में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 120 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेखन (6 अंक × 1 प्रश्न)	5
2. औपचारिक पत्र लेखन। (5 अंक × 1 प्रश्न) (विकल्प सहित)	5
3. डायरी लेखन, कथा-पटकथा विषयों पर लेखन पर आधारित दो प्रश्न (3 अंक × 2 प्रश्न) (विकल्प सहित) (लगभग 60 शब्दों में)	6
4. स्ववृत्त लेखन और रोजगार सम्बन्धी आवेदन पत्र तथा शब्दकोश, संदर्भ ग्रन्थों की उपयोगी विधि और परिचय पर आधारित तीन में से दो प्रश्न (2 अंक × 2 प्रश्न) (विकल्प सहित) (लगभग 40 शब्दों में)	4
6. पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-1	20
1. काव्य खण्ड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 60 शब्दों में) (3 अंक × 2 प्रश्न)	6
2. काव्य खण्ड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 40 शब्दों में) (2 अंक × 2 प्रश्न)	4
3. गद्य खण्ड पर आधारित तीन 4प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 60 शब्दों में) (3 अंक × 2 प्रश्न)	6
4. गद्य खण्ड पर आधारित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर (लगभग 40 शब्दों में) (2 अंक × 2 प्रश्न)	4
7. अ. श्रवण तथा वाचन	10
ब. परियोजना कार्य	10
कुल अंक	100

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi with Solutions 2022-2023 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of Hindi Class 11 2023 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics with Solutions 2022-2023

February 25, 2023

Solved CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 Applied Mathematics 2022-2023 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download helps to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 11 Applied Mathematics board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 11 Applied Mathematics Sample Papers 2023.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 11 Applied Mathematics
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper Class 11 Applied Mathematics 2022-2023 with Solutions

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 11 Applied Mathematics Carry 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 11 Applied Mathematics Sample Paper 2023 Solved.

CBSE Class 11 Applied Mathematics Sample Papers 2023 with Solutions

Applied Maths Sample Paper Class 11 Question Paper Design 2022-23

Class – XI
Number of Papers: 1
Total number of Periods: 240 (35 Minutes Each)
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

Units	No. of Periods	Marks
I. Numbers, Quantification and Numerical Applications	25	9
II. Algebra	45	15
III. Mathematical Reasoning	15	6
IV. Calculus	35	10
V. Probability	25	8
VI. Descriptive Statistics	35	12
VII. Basics of Financial Mathematics	45	15
VIII. Coordinate Geometry	15	5
Total	240	80
Internal Assessment		20

We hope these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics with Solutions 2022-2023 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on the CBSE Sample Paper of Applied Mathematics Class 11 2023 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions 2022-2023

February 25, 2023

Solved CBSE Sample Paper 2022-2023 Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 10 Maths board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Papers.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

CBSE Sample Paper 2022 Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions

According to new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Carry 20 Marks.

CBSE Sample Paper 2022 Class 10 Maths Standard with Solutions

CBSE Sample Paper 2022-2023 Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions

Maths Standard and Basic Sample Paper Class 10 Question Paper Design 2022-23

	Section A (1 mark)	Section B (2 marks)	Section C (3 marks)	Section D (5 marks)	Section E (4 marks)	Total Marks
MCQ	18Q	–	–	–	–	18 marks
Assertion/Reason	2Q	–	–	–	–	2 marks
Very Short Answer	–	5Q (2 internal choices)	–	–	–	10 marks
Short Answer	–	–	6Q (2 internal choices)	–	–	18 marks
Long Answer	–	–	–	4Q (2 internal choices)	–	20 marks
Case/Data-based	–	–	–	–	3Q (1 internal choice) per case-study	12 marks
Total	20Q	5Q	6Q	4Q	3Q	80 marks

Note: The paper contains competency-based questions in the form of Standalone, Assertion/Reason, Table-based, and Case-based questions in all Sections

CBSE Class 10 Maths Standard Syllabus for 2022-2023 Exams

Unit Name	Marks
I. Number Systems	6
II. Algebra	20
III. Coordinate Geometry	6
IV. Geometry	15
V. Trigonometry	12
VI. Mensuration	10
VII. Statistics & Probability	11
Internal Assessment Pen Paper Test & Multiple Assessments (10) + Portfolio (5) + Lab Practical (5)	20
Total	80 + 20

Deleted Chapters & Topics

Chapter 1 Real Numbers
Euclid’s division lemma, Decimal representation of rational numbers in terms of terminating/non-terminating recurring decimals.
Chapter 2 Polynomials
Statement and simple problems on division algorithms for polynomials with real coefficients.
Chapter 3 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables
Cross multiplication method, Simple problems on equations reducible to linear equations
Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations
Problems on equations reducible to quadratic equations are excluded
Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions
Applications based on the sum to n terms of an A.P. are excluded
Chapter 6 Coordinate Geometry
Area of a triangle
Chapter 7 Triangles
(Motivate) If a perpendicular is drawn from the vertex of the right angle of…, (Prove) The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio…, (Prove) in a right triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of… is a right angle, (Prove) in a triangle, if the square on one side is equal to the sum of the squares…
Chapter 8 Circles
(Motivate) Alternate Segment theorem: If a chord is drawn through the point of…
Chapter 9 Constructions
Chapter 11 Trigonometric Identities
Trigonometric ratios of complementary angles
Chapter 13 Areas Related to Circles
Motivate the area of a circle, Plane figures involving triangles, Simple quadrilaterals and circles should be taken
Chapter 14 Surface Areas and Volumes
Frustum of a cone, Problems involving converting one type of metallic solid into another and other…, (Problems with combinations of not more than two different solids must be taken)
Chapter 15 Statistics
Step Deviation Method for finding the mean, Cumulative frequency graph

How To Take CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Papers?

Step 1 – Download the CBSE Class 10 Sample Question Papers, Pre Board Model Papers, or Previous year question papers you want to take.
Step 2 – Take the exam seriously just like you would take the real exam.
Step 3 – Evaluate your paper – mark the questions you couldn’t answer or get incorrect.
Step 4 – Revise the related concepts and topics.

Importance of Solving CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Papers

By solving the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths, students will get an idea of exam pattern, the types of questions asked and weightage of each section.
Solving CBSE Class 10 sample paper will be good practice for students.
These CBSE Maths Sample Papers covers all the important topics and also the questions which are repeated every year.
CBSE Class 10 Maths sample question paper will help the students to analyze their performance. This will also help with time management.
This will boost up the students’ confidence level.
After this much of practice, students will have a good idea about what to expect in exams.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions 2022-2023 will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Sample Paper of Maths Class 10 2022, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

February 24, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choices.
Section A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
Section B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
Section C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Section D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
Section E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
Use of log tables and calculators are not allowed.

SECTION – A (18 Marks)
(The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mart There is no internal choice in this section.)

Question 1.
The ionic compounds are good conductors of heat and electricity. NaCl is an ionic compound. Ionic compound is a chemical compound of ions held together by electrostatic forces of attractions which are termed as ionic bonding.

On the basis of this, state the reason behind the conductivity of molten NaCl: [1]
(a) Free ions
(b) Free electrons
(c) Free molecules
(d) Atoms of Na and Cl
Answer:
(a) Free ions

Explanation:
In molten sodium chloride, ions of NaCl are free to move and conduct electric current.

Question 2.
Boiling of egg is an example of: [1]
(a) breaking of peptide linkage
(b) hydrolysis of lactose
(c) breaking of protein into amino acids
(d) denaturation of protein
Answer:
(d) denaturation of protein

Explanation:
During denaturation, hydrogen bonds are disturbed due to this globules unfold and helix gets uncoiled and protein loses its biological activity.

Question 3.
The molarity of pure water is: [1]
(a) 55.5
(b) 50.5
(c) 60.5
(d) 18
Answer:
(a) 55.5

Explanation:
Density of water = 1g/cm³ and its molecular weight = 18 g mol^-1. Therefore, 1000 cm3 of water will weigh 1000g of water.

Let us find the mass of one litre of water:
Mass of 1 litre = Density of water × Volume Mass of 1 litre = 1000 grams
Moles of 1 kg of water = Mass/Molar Mass =1000/18
Moles of 1 kg of water = 55.56
Molarity = Moles of solute/Volume of the
solution
Molarity = 55.56/1
Molarity of water = 55.56 M.

Question 4.
Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii because: [1]
(a) of diagonal relationship
(b) of lanthanoid contraction
(c) of actinoid contraction
(d) both belong to f-block of elements
Answer:
(b) oflanthanoid contraction

Explanation:
This is because of poor screening effect by 4f-electrons which leads to the lanthanoid contraction.

Question 5.
Which of the following reaction does not produce amine? [1]
(a) Gabriel’s Synthesis
(b) Hoffmann Bromamide Reaction
(c) Carbylamine Reaction
(d) Ammonolysis Reaction
Answer:
(c) Carbylamine Reaction

Explanation:
Carbylamine reaction: Aliphatic/ aromatic primary amines are heated with chloroform/alcoholic KOH to form foul smelling alkyl isocyanides or carbylamines.

Question 6.
The oxidation state of nickel in Ni(CO)₄ is +4 state: [1]
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Anomalous
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) False

Explanation:
Let x be the oxidation number of Ni in Ni(CO)₄.
Since the overall charge on the complex is 0, the sum of oxidation states of all elements in neutral species, it should be equal to 0.
Therefore, x + 4(0) = 0
Hence, x = 0.
Thus, the oxidation number of Ni in Ni(CO)₄ is 0.

Question 7.
All Cu(II) halides are known except iodide. The reason for this is: [1]
(a) iodide ion is a bulky ion.
(b) Cu²⁺ oxidizes iodide to iodine.
(c) Cu²⁺_(aq) has much more negative hydration enthalpy.
(d) Cu²⁺ ion has smaller size.
Answer:
(b) Cu²⁺ oxidizes iodide to iodine

Explanation:
2Cu²⁺ + 4I^– → 2Cul₂
The Cul2 immediately decomposes to liberate I₂ and insoluble copper(l) iodide.
2Cul₂ → 2CuI + I₂

Question 8.
A reaction in which reactants (R) are converted into products (P) follows second order kinetics.

If concentration of R is increased by four times, what wilt be the increase in the rate of formation of P? [1]
(a) 9 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 16 times
(d) 8 times
Answer:
(c) 16 times

Explanation: R → P
For a second order reaction, rate = k[R]²
If cone, of R is increased by four times, rate = k [4R]²
Hence, the rate of formation of P increases by 16 times,

Question 9.
Complete the following analogy: [1]
Benzene to Chlorobenzene: A:: R-Cl to R-F: B
(a) A: Nucleophilic substitution, B: Electrophilic substitution
(b) A: Electrophilic substitution, B: Halogen exchange
(c) A: Halogen exchange, B: Electrophilic substitution
(d) A: Electrophilic addition, B: Nucleophilic addition
Answer:
(b) A: Electrophilic substitution, B: Halogen exchange

Explanation:
Benzene can be converted to chlorobenzene by electrophilic substitution reaction and RCl can be converted to R-F by halogen exchange method (Swarts reaction).

Question 10.
An example of ambidentate ligand is: [1]
(a) Ammine
(b) Aquo
(c) Oxalato
(d) Thiocyanato
Answer:
(d) Thiocyanato

Explanation:
A ligand is an ion or molecule, which donates a pair of electrons to the central metal atom or ion to form a coordination complex. Ambidentate ligand is a type of ligands which have the ability to bind to the central atom via the atoms of two different elements.

Examples: Thiocyanate ion(NCS^–) which can bind to the central metal atom or ion with either nitrogen or sulphur atoms.

Question 11.
Which of the following is a secondary ally lie alcohol? [1]
(a) But-3-en-2-ol
(b) But-2-en-2-ol
(c) Prop-2-enol
(d) Butan-2-ol
Answer:
(a) But-3-en-2-ol

Explanation:
The allyl alcohol is an organic compound with the structural formula CH₂ = CHCH₂OH structure of But-3-en-2-ol shown alongside is an allylic alcohol.

Question 12.
The carbonyl compound formed when ethanol gets oxidised using this copper- based catalyst can also be obtained by the ozonolysis of: [1]
(a) But-l-ene
(b) But-2-ene
(c) Ethene
(d) Pent-l-ene
Answer:
(b) But-2-ene

Explanation:
The oxidation of ethanol based on the copper catalyst is carried out by the ozonolysis and the following product is obtained:

Question 13.
Cr₂O₇^2- + X → Cr³⁺ + H₂O + Oxidised product of X. X in the above reaction cannot be: [1]
(a) Fe²⁺
(b) S^2-
(c) Cr²⁺
(d) Cr₂O^4-
Answer:
(a) Fe²⁺

Explanation:
In electrochemical series, Fe is placed above hydrogen so it acts as the strong reducing agents and have negative values of standard reduction potentials.

Question 14.
Electrical conductance through metals is called metallic or electronic conductance and is due to the movement of electrons. The electronic conductance depends on: [1]
(a) the nature and structure of the metal
(b) the number of valence electrons per atom
(c) change in temperature
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Explanation:
The electronic conductance depends on:

the nature and structure of the metal,
the number of valence electrons per atom
temperature (it decreases with increase of temperature).

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 15.
Assertion: D-(+)-Glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.
Reason: ‘D’ represents its dextrorotatory nature. [1]
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation:
‘ D(+)’ glucose is dextrorotatory because it rotates the plane polarised light to right. Here, D represents relative configuration of glucose with respect to glyceraldehyde

Question 16.
Assertion: The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in the presence of a catalyst.
Reason: A catalyst participating in the reaction, forms a different activated complex and lowers down the activation energy but the difference in energy of reactant and product remains the same. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
It is assumed that the catalyst provides an alternate pathway or reaction mechanism by reducing the activation energy between reactants and products and hence lowering the potential energy barrier but the enthalpy of reaction remains constant.

Question 17.
Assertion: Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason: The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Volume of solution is a function of temperature which varies with temperature. Hence, molarity of solution in liquid state changes with temperature.

Question 18.
Assertion: Compounds containing -CHO group are easily oxidized to corresponding carboxylic acids.
Reason: Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH₄. [1]
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Compounds containing —CHO group do easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic acids, but the reason behind it is that aldehydes get easily oxidised even with mild oxidising agents as the H atom(which is more acidic) on carboxyl carbon(-CHO) changes easily to hydroxyl group (-OH) without any cleavage of any other bond.

SECTION – B (14 Marks)
(The following questions are very short answer type with internal choice in two questions and carry 2 marks each.)

Question 19.
Aryl chlorides and bromides can be easily prepared by electrophilic substitution of arenes with chlorine and bromine respectively in the presence of Lewis acid catalysts. But why does preparation of aryl iodides require presence of an oxidizing agent?
OR
Carryout the following conversions in not more than 2 steps: [2]
(A) Aniline to bromobenzene
(B) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
Answer:
In the case of electrophillic substitution reaction of aryl iodide, HI is produced which is a reducing agent. It reduces aryl iodide back to aromatic hydrocarbon and iodine. This reaction is reversible. Hence, oxidising agents such as HgO, HNO3 are used to remove HI produced in the reaction as follows:
4HI + 2HNO₃ → 2N₂O₂ + 2I₂
OR

Question 20.
(A) Name the base that is found in nucleotide of RNA only.
(B) Glucose on reaction with HI gives n-hexane. What does it suggest about the structure of glucose? [2]
Answer:
(A) Uracil is found in nucleotide of RNA only.

(B) On prolonged heating with HI, it forms n-hexane, shows that all the six carbon atoms are linked in a straight chain :

Question 21.
(A) The spin-only magnetic moment of [MnBr₄]^2- is 5.9 BM. Predict the geometry of the complex ion?
(B) Write the IUPAC name of the coordination complex: [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl(N0₂)] [2]
Answer:
(A) Magnetic moment = yjn (n + 2) = 5.9 (given)
∴ 35 = n(n + 2) or n = 5
Magnetic moment is 5.9BM means unpaired electrons are 5.
Bromine is a type of weak field ligand, so back pairing will not occur.
So, the geometry of the compound is tetrahedral and hybridisation is sp3.

(B) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum(II)
Pt(NH₃)₂Cl(N0₂)]
O. N. of Pt: m – 2 = 0 or m = + 2
(NH₃)₂ → Diammine,
Cl → Chlorido,
NO₂ → Nitrito-N.

Question 22.
Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of half-life (t_½) of the reaction.
OR
For the reaction: 2A + B → C+ D
Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction. [2]

Answer:
For first order reaction:

OR
Rate Law: Rate = k[A]^x[B]^y
Rate₁ = 6.0 × 10^-3 = k [0.1]^x [0.1]^y …(1)
Rate₂ = 7.2 × 10^-2 = k [0.3]^x [0.2]^y -(2)
Rate₃ = 2.88 × 10^-1 = k [0.3]^x [0.4]^y …(3)
Rate₄ = 2.40 × 10^-2 = k [0.4]^x [0.1]^y ,..(4)

Question 23.

(A) State two functions of the salt bridge used in above figure.
(B) Give the cell representation of the above cell. [2]
Answer:
(A) Two functions of the salt bridge are:
(1) It connects the solutions in two half¬cells and completes the cell circuit.
(2) It maintains the electrical neutrality of solutions in the two half-cells by diffusion of ions through it.

(B) Daniel Cell Representation
Zn | Zn²⁺_(aq) || Cu²⁺_(aq) | Cu
The symbol double vertical lines (||) represents the salt bridge. The left part is oxidation half cell and the right part is reduction half cell.

Question 24.
What happens when (write the reaction involved):
(A) N-ethylethanamine reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride.
(B) aniline reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic potassium hydroxide. [2]
Answer:
(A) N-ethylethanamine (Diethylamine) reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride

(B) Aniline reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic .potassium hydroxide. NH2

Question 25.
Give reasons to support the answer:
(A) Presence of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes and ketones is essential for aldol condensation.
(B) Ketones cannot be oxidised by Tollen’s reagent. [2]
Answer:
(A) Presence of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes and ketones is essential for aldol condensation. The alpha hydrogen atoms are acidic in nature due to the presence of electron withdrawing carbonyl group. These can be easily removed by a base and the carbanion formed is resonance stabilised.

(B) Ketones cannat be oxidised by Tollen’s reagent because ketones do not have that particular hydrogen atom. They are resistant to oxidation and only very strong oxidation agents able to oxidise ketones.

SECTION – C (15 Marks)
(The following questions are short answer type with internal choice in two questions and carry 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
(A) What is name given to reactions used to prepare dyes? Which linkage or group joins the two aromatic rings in the dyes?
(B) Draw the structure of any azo dye.
(C) State two applications of diazonium salts.
OR
Account for the following:
(A) Aniline cannot be prepared by the ammonolysis of chlorobenzene under normal conditions.
(B) N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3K and butanamine boils at 350.8K, although both are isomeric in nature.
(C) Acylation of aniline is carried out in the presence of pyridine. [3]
Answer:
(A) Diazotization reaction is the reaction of primary aromatic amines with nitrous acid to form diazonium salt. This reaction is used to make dyes.
The azo products obtained when diazonium salts react with aromatic compounds have an extended conjugated system through N = N bond, known as azo group. This reaction is called a coupling reaction.

(B) Orange dye: p-hydroxy azo benzene

(C) (i) They find application in the dye and pigment industries and are used to produce dyed fabrics.
(ii) They are used as intermediates for introducing -F, -Br, -Cl, -I, -NO2, -OH and -CN groups into the aromatic ring.

(A) In case of chlorobenzene, the C—Cl bond is quite difficult to break as it acquires a partial double bond character due to conjugation. So under the normal conditions, ammonolysis of chlorobenzene does not yield aniline.

(B) Primary and secondary amines are engaged in intermolecular association due to hydrogen bonding between nitrogen of one and hydrogen of another molecule. Due to the presence of three hydrogen atoms, the intermolecular association is more in primary amines than in secondary amines as there are two hydrogen atoms available for hydrogen bond formation in it.

(C) During the acylation of aniline, stronger base pyridine is added. This is done in order to remove the HCl so formed during the reaction and to shift the equilibrium to the right hand side.

Question 27.
For a decomposition reaction the values of rate constant k at two different temperatures are given below:
k₁ = 2.15 × 10^-8 L mol^-1 s^-1 at 650 K
k₂ = 2.39 × 10^-7 L mol^-1 s^-1 at 700 K
Calculate the value of activation energy for this reaction. (R= 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1) [3]
Answer:
Given: kx = 2.15 x 1CT8 L mol”1 s”1, Tx = 650 K
k2 = 2.39 x 10~7 L moP1 s“\ T2 = 700 K
R = 8.314 J K71 mol”1 Ea = ?

According to formula

Question 28.
Answer any three questions:
(A) Represent Glycine in the zwitter ionic form.
(B) Name four types of intermolecular forces which stabilize 2° and 3° structure of proteins.
(C) Vitamins like A, D, E, and K are fat soluble. Where are these vitamins stored in our body?
(D) Write a reaction which shows that all the carbon atoms in glucose are linked in a straight chain. [3]
Answer:
(A)

(B) The main forces which stabilize the secondary and tertiary structures of proteins are hydrogen bonds, disulphide linkages, van der waals and electrostatic forces of attraction.
(C) Fat soluble vitamins are stored in liver and adipose (fat storing) tissues in our body.
(D) On prolonged heating with HI, it forms n-hexane, shows that all the six carbon atoms are linked.

Question 29.
(A) Explain the following:
(i) Low spin octahedral complexes of nickel are not known.
(ii) The n-complexes are known for transition elements only.
(B) Give the formula of the following coordination entity and write its IUPAC name: Ni2+ ion is bound to two ammonia molecules and two oxalate ions. [3]
Answer:
(A) (i) The electronic configuration of Ni is [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s² which shows that it can only form two types of complexes i.e. square planar (dsp²) in presence of strong ligand and tetrahedral (sp³) in presence of weak ligand. There are four empty orbitaLs in Ni while octahedral complexes require six empty orbitals.
(ii) Due to presence of empty d-orbitals in transition metals, they can accept electron pairs from ligands containing π electrons and hence can form π -bonding complexes.

Question 30.
(A) Amongst the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula CsH^, identify the one that on photochemical chlorination yields a single monochloride.
(B) Draw the structure of 4-tertbutyl-3- iodoheptane.
(C) Give a simple test to distinguish among
CH₃ – CH = CHCl, CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl and CH₂ = CH – CH₂Cl. [3]
Answer:

SECTION – D (8 Marks)
(The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries
4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.)

Question 31.
Alcohols play very important role in our daily life. Ordinary spiritused as an antiseptic contains methanol. Ethanol is present in coughsyrups, tonics, wine, beer and whisky, sugar, starch, cellulose are carbohydrates which also contain large number of —OH groups. Phenol is also an antiseptic in low concentration (0.2%) whereas 2% solution of phenol is used as disinfectant. The fragrance of roseisdue to citronellol (unsaturated alcohol). Phenol is used for preparation of many useful compounds like aspirin, methyl salicylate (lodex) and phenyl salicylate (salol) used as intestinal antiseptic.
(A) Phenol is prepared from cumene. What is advantage of this method? [1]
(B) Why does phenol turn pink after long standing? [1]
(C) (i) Distinguish between phenol and benzyl alcohol?
(ii) How to convert phenol to picric acid?
OR
(i) How is phenol converted into salicylic acid?
(ii) Name the reagents used in the following reactions:
(a) CH₃ – CO – CH₃ → (CH₃)₂CH-OH
(b) CH₂ = CH-CH₂O → CH₂ = CH-CHO. [2]
Answer:
(A) Acetone is obtained which is a useful by-product.
Explanation:

(B) On standing for a long time phenol gets oxidized in the presence of air and turns pink in colour. During oxidation, phenol gets oxidised to quinone and then quinone combines with the phenol to give phenoquinone, which is pink in colour.

Explanation:
Ferric chloride can be used to distinguish between phenol and benzyl alcohol because, phenols react with neutral ferric chloride solution to give blue, violet or green colouration whereas alcohols do not react.

(ii) By nitration
Explanation:

(i) Kolbe’s reaction
Explanation:

(ii) (a) LiAlH₄ (Lithium Aluminium Hydride)
(b) PCC (Pyridinium chlorochromate)

Question 32.
The potential of each electrode is know as electrode potentialv Standard electrode potential is the potential when concentration of each species taking part in electrode reaction is unity and the reaction is taking place at 298 K. By convention, the standard electrode potential of hydrogen (SHE) is 0.0 V.

The electrode potential value for each electrode process is a measure of relative tendency of the active species in the process to remain in the oxidised/reduced form. The negative electrode potential means that the m . x couple is stronger reducing agent than H⁺/H₂ couple. A positive electrode potential means that the redox couple is a weaker reducing agent than the H⁺/H₂ couple. Metals which have higher positive value of standard reduction potential form the oxides of greater thermal stability.
(A) Why it is not possible to determine the potential of single electrode? [1]
(B) Write the Nernst equation for the electrode involving the process of oxidation. [1]
(C) Define the following:
(i) SEP
(ii) Reference electrode potential
OR
Calculate the electrode potentials of the following half cells at 298 K:
(i) Fe²⁺(0.1 M)/Fe
(ii) Pt, H2 (2 atm)/H⁺ (0.02 M)
Given that E°_Fe²⁺/Fe = – 0.44 V and E_H⁺/½H₂ = 0.0 V. [2]
Answer:
(A) Due to the fact that a half cell containing a single electrode cannot function independently and that charge cannot flow through a single electrode on its own, measuring the potential of a single eLectrode is not feasible.

(B) E_oxi = E°_oxi – \(\frac{\text { RT }}{n F}\) log \(\frac{\text { [Oxidized state] }}{[\text { Reduced state] }}\)

(C) (i) A measurement of the potential for equilibrium is the standard electrode potential. The potential of the electrode is the difference in potential between the electrode and the electrolyte. The electrode potential is referred to as the standard electrode potential when unity represents the concentrations of all the species involved in a semi-cell.
(ii) An electrode with a consistent and well- known electrode potential is referred to as a reference electrode. Typically, a redox system with consistent (buffered or saturated) concentrations of each redox reaction participant is used to achieve the high stability of the electrode potential.

(i) The half cell reaction corresponding to the given half cell is:
Fe²⁺ (0.1 M) + 2e^– → Fe(s)
Thus, n = 2, [Fe²⁺] = 0.1 M
According to the Nernst equation, at 298 K
E_Fe²⁺/Fe = E°_Fe²⁺/Fe – \(\frac{0.059}{n}\) log₁₀ \(\frac{1}{\left[\mathrm{Fe}^{2+}\right]}\)

Substituting the values, we have
E_Fe²⁺/Fe = 0.44 – \(\frac{0.059}{n}\) log₁₀ \(\frac{1}{(0.1)}\)
= -0.44 – (0.0295)
= -0.4695 V.

(ii) The electrode reaction is:
H⁺ (0.02 M) + e^– → \(\frac{1}{2}\)H₂ (2 atm)

According to the Nernst equation at 298 k

SECTION – E (15 Marks)
(The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each Two questions have an internal choice.)

Question 33.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ (Molecular formula C₈H₈O) gives positive 2, 4-DNP test. It gives a yellow precipitate of compound ‘B’ on treatment with iodine and sodium hydroxide solution. Compound ‘A’ does not give Tollen’s or Fehling’s test. On drastic oxidation with potassium permanganate it forms a carboxylic acid ‘C’(Molecular formula C₇H₆O₂), which is also formed along with the yellow compound in the above reaction. Identify A, B and C and write all there actions involved. [5]
Answer:
Molecular formula of the compound is C8H80. It is given that A’ does not give Tollens’ or Fehling’s test, making it a ketone. Since we get positive test with 2, 4-DNP and iodoform test, it means it is methyl ketone.

Question 34.
(A) Give reason for the following:
(i) Osmotic pressure is considered to be the best colligative property for determining the molar masses of biomolecules and polymers.
(ii) Oxygen is mixed with helium for use by deep sea divers?
(B) Define isotonic solution.
(C) Calculate the mass percentage of carbon tetrachloride (CCl₄) if 122 g of carbon tetrachloride is mixed with 22g of benzene.
OR
(A) Give reason for the following:
(i) Patients having sore throat are ad¬vised saline gargles.
(ii) Salt is added to water to get hard boiled eggs.
(B) Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 30% by mass of it in Carbon tetrachloride.
(Given molar mass of benzene = 78gmol^-1 and that of carbon tetrachloride is 154gmol^-1)
(C) The molar mass of a solute is 120 g/mol and it’s van’t hoff factor is 4. What is its abnormal molar mass? [5]
Answer:
(A) (i) Because macromolecules such as proteins and polymers are generally not stable at higher temperature and osmotic pressure is measured at room temperature.
(ii) The main reason for adding helium with oxygen to the breathing mix is to reduce the proportions of nitrogen and oxygen to allow the gas mix to be breathed safely on deep dives.

(B) Two solutions having the same osmotic pressure across a semipermeable membrane is referred to as isotonic solution. It has the same osmolarity (solute concentration), as another solution. A solution is isotonic when its effective mole concentration is the same as that of another solution.

(A) (i) The salt solution (saline water) is hypertonic when we gargle with it, comes in contact of infection causing bacteria in the throat. The water present in bacterial cells comes out due to osmosis and they get killed giving us relief from infection.
(ii) NaCl or salt is added to the water when boiLing eggs as the addition of salt or other non-volatile solid help in reducing the vapour pressure of the liquid. Which in turn increases, the boiling point i.e the temperature at which the vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure.

(B) Mass percent of benzene

(C) Normal Molar mass = 120 g mol 1 (Given)
Van t off factor (i) = \(\frac{\text { Normal molar mass }}{\text { Abnormal molar mass }}\)
i = 4
So, Abnormal molar mass + 4 Normal molar mass
= \(\frac{120}{4}\)

Question 35.
(A) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Most of transition elements are coloured.
(ii) Silver atom has completely filled d orbitals (4 d¹⁰) in its ground state. How can you say that it is a transition element?
(iii) In the series Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest, i.e., 126 kJ mol^-1.
(B) Complete the following chemical equations:
(i) MnO_4(aq) + S₂O₃^2-_(aq) + H₂O_(l) →
(ii) Cr₂O₇^2- _(aq) + Fe²⁺_(aq) + H⁺ _(aq) →
OR
(A) Why do the transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation?
(B) Which of the 3d series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number u oxidation states and why?
(C) Why is Cr²⁺ reducing and Mn³⁺ oxidising when both have d⁴ configuration?
(D) Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate. [5]
Answer:
(A) (i) Transition metal ions generally possess one or more unpaired electrons. When visible light falls on a transition metal compound or ion, the unpaired electrons present in the lower energy d-orbital get promoted to high energy d-orbitals, called d-d transition, due to the absorption of visible light. Since, the energy involved in d-d transition is quantised, only a definite wavelength gets absorbed, remaining wavelengths present in the visible region got transmitted. Therefore, transmitted light shows some colour complementary to the absorbed colour.

(ii) Silver (Ag) belongs to group 11 of d-block and its ground state electronic configuration is 4d¹⁰ 5s¹. it shows an oxidation state of +2 in its compounds like AgO and AgF2 in which its electronic configuration is d9 so it is a tran¬sition element.

(iii) Zinc (4d¹⁰ 5s²) has completely filled d-orbital and has no unpaired electron to take part in the formation of metal¬lic bonds.

(B) To write balanced reactions is mandatory.
(i) 8MnO_4(aq) + 3S₂O₃^2-_(aq) + H₂O_(l) → 8MnO_2(s) + 6SO_4(aq) + 20H^–_(aq)
(ii) Cr₂O^2-_(aq) + 14H⁺_(aq) + 6Fe²⁺_(aq) → 2Cr³⁺_(aq) + 6Fe³⁺_(aq) + 7H₂O_(l)

(A) Transition metals have large number of unpaired electrons, due to which strong interatomic interactions are possible and bonding becomes stronger and hence, these have higher enthalpies of atomisation.

(B) Manganese (Z = 25) exhibits largest number of oxidation states. This is because its electronic configuration is 3d⁵4s² and it has maximum number of electrons (five d-electrons and two s electrons) to lose or share. Thus, it can exhibit an oxidation state of +2 to +7 which is the maximum number.

(C) Cr²⁺ is reducing agent as its configuration changes from d⁴ to d³, when it is oxidized to Cr³⁺. The d³ configuration have a half- filled t_2g level which is very stable. On the other hand, the reduction of Mn³⁺ to Mn²⁺ results in the half-filled (ds) configuration which has extra stability hence Mn³⁺ acts as oxidizing agent.

(D) Preparation of potassium permanganate, KMnO₄ from pyrolusite ore MnO₂.
(i) Pyrolusite ore is fused with KOH (or K₂CO₃) in presence of air (or oxidising agents such as KNO₃ or KClO₃) to give potassium manganate K₂MnO₄ (green mass).

(ii) Extraction of green mass with water followed by oxidation with chlorine (or ozone or CO₂) gives potassium per-manganate.
2K₂MnO₄ + Cl₂ → 2KCl + 2KMnO₄
On concentrating the solution, dark purple crystals of potassium perman¬ganate separate out.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Information Technology IT with Solutions 2022-2023

February 24, 2023

Solved IT Sample Paper Class 10 CBSE 2022-2023 Code 402 with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 IT with Solutions Answers 2022-2023 Pdf Download to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 10 board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given IT Sample Paper Class 10th CBSE Code 402 with Solutions.

IT Sample Paper Class 10 | Computer Question Paper with Answers 2022-2023

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Subject – CBSE Class 10 Information Technology IT
Year of Examination – 2022-2023

Sample Paper of IT Class 10 with Solutions

Information Technology Sample Paper Class 10 Question Paper Design 2022-23

Question Type	Part A Employability Skills	Part B Subject Specific Skills	Total Marks
1 Mark Questions	4MCQ (out of 5)	4Q (5 MCQ each out of 6)	24 marks
2 Marks Questions	3Q (out of 5)	4Q (out of 6)	14 marks
4 Marks Questions	–	3Q (out of 5)	12 marks
Total	7Q	27Q	50 marks

Note: The 2022-23 paper contains competency-based questions in the form of Standalone, Fill Ups and Case-based questions.

CBSE Class 10 Information Technology Syllabus for 2022-2023 Exams

Unit Name	Marks
Part-A Employability Skills
2. Self-Management Skills-II	3
3. ICT Skills-II	3
4. Entrepreneurial Skills-II	4
Part-B Subject-Specific Skills
1. Digital Documentation (Advanced)	8
2. Electronic Spreadsheet (Advanced)	10
3. Database Management System	12
4. Web Applications and Security	10
Practical + Project Work Advanced Documentation (5) + Advanced Spreadsheets (5) + Databases (10) + Viva Voce (10) + Project (20)	50
Total	50 + 50

Deleted Chapters & Topics
1. Communication Skills-II
5. Green Skills-ll

1. Digital Documentation (Advanced)
Using the Styles and Formatting window, Using Fill Format, Creating a new style using drag-and-drop, Creating a template, Updating a Document, Editing individual documents

2. Electronic Spreadsheet (Advanced)
Creating references to another document by using a keyboard and mouse, Setting up a spreadsheet for sharing

3. Database Management System
Steps to create a table using table wizard, Query creation using wizard, Creation of query using design view, Creating a form using wizard, Steps to create form using Form Wizard -Creating Report using wizard, Steps to create a Report using Wizard

4. Web Applications and Security
Launching Google Talk, Signing in to your Google Talk Account, Creation of a blog with the help of some blog providers

We hope that these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10th IT Information Technology with Solutions 2022-2023 will help you. If you have any queries regarding NCERT IT 402 Sample Paper Class 10 CBSE 2022-23, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Recommended Reading On: Computer MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Set 1 with Solutions

February 23, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

15 Minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
The Question Paper contains THREE Sectians-Reading, Grammar & Writing and Literature.
Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading Skills (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) Ghost nets aren’t supernatural, but they are legitimately scary. A ghost net is a fishing net that’s been lost or abandoned in the ocean. They are one particularly appalling part of the global ghost fishing problem, which includes fishing gear abandoned in the water.

Any net or line left in the ocean can pose a threat to marine life. Just because a net is no longer used by fishers doesn’t mean it stops working. These nets continue to trap everything in their path, presenting a major problem for the health of our oceans and marine life.

(2) Ghost nets entangle sea turtles, dolphins and porpoises, birds, sharks, seals and more, apart from catching fish. The nets keep animals from moving freely, cause injuries and keep mammals and birds from rising to the surface for air. Since hundreds of animals can be caught in a single net, this threat is monumental. The ghost nets harm coral reefs too-breaking corals, exposing them to disease and even blocking the reefs from needed sunlight.

(3) Ghost nets are also a major contributor to the ocean plastics’ crisis. Most modern nets are made of nylon or other plastic compounds that can last for centuries. According to a 2018 study in Scientific Reports, ghost nets make up at least 46 percent of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch.

Those abandoned fishing lines and nets that do breakdown never go away: they just become smaller pieces of plastic. Marine animals mistake this microplastic for food and eat it, which can harm internal organs, keep them from eating and expose them to toxic chemicals.

(4) Exorcising ghost nets from our oceans will require commitment, cooperation and innovation. Many groups are working to remove ghost nets from the sea and are collaborating with local fishers and governments around the world to identify target areas and remove as many nets as possible. In 2015, a single World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF)-led mission in the Baltic Sea hauled up 268 tons of nets, ropes and other material.

(5) To stop these nets from becoming ghosts in the first place, conservation organisations advocate for fishing gear that can be traced to its owner so anyone dumping nets can be fined and refundable deposits on nets to encourage returning or recycling rather than littering.

Tools like sonar reflectors that can make ghost nets easier to find and working with small-scale fisheries to develop more sustainable fishing gear and practices are other suggestions. It is only by attacking this problem from all sides, together with conservation partners, fishers and supporters, can we banish ghost nets and protect our oceAnswer:
(437 words)
Adapted-https://www.worldwildlife.org/ stories/our-oceans-are-haunted-by-ghost- nets-why-that-s-scary-andwhat-we-can- do-24
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. Complete the sentence by choosing an appropriate option.
(A) Ghost nets have been named so because they
(a) cause much harm to the marine life.
(b) are functional though not in use by fishers.
(c) are not owned by anyone.
(d) act as a snare for all animals in oceans. [1]
Answer:
(c) are not owned by anyone.
Explanation: Ghost nets are so caLled because they are unidentified fish nets which do not belong to any fishermen as they are lost in the ocean. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

(B) Comment on the writer’s reference to the ghost nets in paragraph one, as a health problem for the oceans. [1]
Answer:
The ghost nets are the reason the marine life is frequently sick. If not addressed, this ‘health issue’ would soon be chronic.
Explanation: Ghost nets are the main reason for’ the sickness and ill-health of the marine animals. They trap the animals, restrict them from food and getting air, which leads to the bad health of marine Life.

(C) List the two ways being entangled in a ghost net is likely to impact a walrus. (Clue: Think about the type of animal a walrus is) [1]
Answer:
[walrus is a mammal]
1. entangle and cause injuries
3. entangle and prevent resurfacing, leading to death by drowning
Explanation: A walrus is a mammal who needs to come to the surface for air. Ghost nets trap walrus and prevent them to come to the surface. They drown them and severely injure them by entangling.

(D) Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘negligible’, from words used in paragraph two.
(a) unimpressive
(b) monumental
(c) exposing
(d) threat [1]
Answer:
(b) monumental
Explanation: The term ‘negligible’ means to be unnoticeable. However, monumental is the opposite as it means to be extraordinary. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(E) The writer would agree with the given statements based on paragraph three, EXCEPT:
(a) Most ghost nets take a few years to completely disintegrate.
(b) Ghost nets contribute to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch.
(c) Most ghost nets provide nutrition to marine animals, upon disintegration.
(d) Ghost nets can curtail freedom of marine animals. [1]
Answer:
(c) Most ghost nets provide nutrition to marine animals, upon disintegration.
Explanation: Options (a), (b) and (d) are true as per the given passage while (c) is not as ghost nets are in no way good for marine life and it cant provide any nutrition to the marine animals. Hence, (c) is the right option.

(F) Some records share that fishing nets used to be made of common rope using natural fibres, prior to the 1960s. Based on your understanding of paragraph three, list one major advantage that these had over the fishing nets being used in present times. [1]
Answer:
Used to be bio-degradable/ easily disintegrated, as compared to artificial fibre nets that do not disintegrate.
Explanation: The rope-made natural fish nets were bio-degradable and used to disintegrate easily and quickly whereas the plastic fish nets takes so long to disintegrate.

(G) Why is it fair to say that commitment and innovation have to go hand-in-hand to rid the oceans of ghost nets? [1]
Answer:
Commitment-This task will require perseverance/a long time to accomplish.
Innovation-Creative ideas and strategies would be needed to address this problem.
Explanation: There has to be a commitment of long trials to get rid of ghost nets in the oceans by being innovative and replacing the old fish . nets which cause harm to the marine life with something beneficial.

(H) Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following: [1]
The writer quotes the example of the WWF-led mission in the Baltic Sea (Paragraph 4), in order to ………………………
Answer:
draw attention to the magnitude of the problem indicate that Governments need to collaborate with such groups for addressing the problem of ghost nets share evidence of human apathy/ carelessness towards natural resources
Explanation: Highlight the effort done by some human groups to tackle this problem and save the oceans and its animals.

(I) How can the solutions, suggested in paragraph five, best be described?
(a) practical
(b) presentable
(c) popular
(d) prejudiced [1]
Answer:
(a) practical

(J) Select the most suitable title for the above passage.
(a) The Scary Side of Ghost Nets
(b) Ghost Nets – A Result of Human Dominance
(c) Ghost Nets – A Menace to Marine Life
(d) Ways to Tackle the Problem of Ghost Nets [1]
Answer:
(c) Ghost Nets – A Menace to Marine Life
Explanation: The passage revolves around ghost nets which is a menace to the marine life as it creates havoc for marine animals and ocean health. Hence, (c) is the right answer.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below. (1 x 10 = 10)
(1) It is generally accepted that leadership development should be a part of the education system’s responsibility for preparing individuals to participate in a democratic and progressive society. Many schools, colleges and universities, across nations, provide their students with leadership courses, curricular programs and co-curricular programs that are designed to develop students’ formal knowledge about leadership as well as opportunities and experiences to develop students as leaders and actually practise leadership. Yet, only a handful of studies have sought to understand leader development from the students’ point of view, with students describing their own experiences and what they learned from them in their own words.

(2) A 2014 descriptive study sought to understand student leadership with research through key events via the following research questions:
Research Question 1: What key events do student leaders in college, report as significantly impacting their development as a leader?

Research Question 2: What lessons do student leaders in college, report learning as a result of the key events they have experienced?

Research Question 3: Are certain key events more likely to be linked to particular lessons?
Approximately 130 students were contacted and the 72 interested, were interviewed. Two members of the research team were present for each 15-45-minute interview. One member served as the primary interviewer while the second ran the audio equipment.
The results for lessons learned (Table 1), were varied, but there were a few that were frequently quoted.

Lessons learned	Responses
Identity
Self Identity	58
Leadership Identity	54
Professionalism	30
Balancing Roles	19
Individual Competencies
Delegation	17
Decision Making	15
Adaptability/Flexibility	38
ResiLience/Persistance/Hard
Work	18
Taking Initiative	36
Accountability/Responsibility	29
Big Picture	27
Learning to Teach/Learn	18
Support Systems
Developing and Using Support Systems	36
Being a Support System	28
Working with Others
Communication	59
Teamwork	26
Conflict	21
Diversity	32
Inspiring and motivating others	17
Other working with others	30
Getting the job done
Task skills	55
Environment	34

(3) This study described the rich array of leadership lessons that students are learning through their experiences. It revealed that student leaders are learning foundational leadership skills and competencies that have positively impacted how to accomplish work, how to work with others and how to be both supported by and support others.
(295 words)
Adaptedhttps://
www.researchgate.net/ publication/26469 6744_K.ey_Events_in_ Student_Leaders’_Lives^and_Lessons_ Learn ed_from_Them
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
(A) Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph 1?
The researcher believes that educational institutions have ideal resources to study impact of leadership skills on young adults. Select from the following:
True: if the statement agrees with the information
False: if the statement contradicts the f information
Not Given: if there is no information on this [1]
Answer:
False
Explanation: It is given in the passage that the researchers believe thateducationalinstitutions have opportunities and programmes, not ideal resources to study the impact of leadership skills on young adults.

(B) Do you think the researchers of the study aimed to change the students’ outlook towards the development of leadership skills, directly or indirectly? Support your answer with reference to the text. [1]
Answer:
No
The aim of seeking students’ perspectives was to enable a better designing/ creation/ of the leadership programmes in educational institutions.
OR
promote higher efficacy / betterment of leadership programmes
Explanation: NO, the researchers’ aim behind seeking their opinion was to come up with better leadership programmes and opportunities in educational institutions.

(C) Select the option that displays the most likely reason for including Research Question 3 in the 2014 study.
In order to find out if…
(a) learning opportunities shape students’ overall personality.
(b) leadership lessons are the result of the designed learning opportunities.
(c) all learning opportunities cater to a specific lesson.
(d) certain lessons are common in more than one learning opportunity. [1]
Answer:
(d) certain Lessons are common in more than one-learning opportunity.
Explanation: The research question 3 aims to know if there are some lessons which are common or linked to more than one learning opportunity.

(D) Complete the sentence based on the following statement.
More than 50% of the identified student respondents were keen to participate in the 2014 study.
We can say this because ………………… [1]
Answer:
72 of 130 students consented and were interviewed
Note-72 out of 130 is more than half/ 50%.
Explanation: The number of students that were interviewed were more than 50%, i.e., 72 out of 130.

(E) Select the option that displays the key event designed with “Balancing Roles” (Table 1) as the objective.
(a) Students will be able to debate the issue at hand, with different teams.
(b) Students will be able to manage the responsibilities of a mentor, planner researcher and presenter.
(c) Students will be able to surmount minor problems and focus on the final goal.
(d) Students will be able to explain concepts and clarify them for peers. [1]
Answer:
(b) Students will be able to manage the responsibilities of a mentor, planner researcher and presenter.

(F) Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
The 2014 study attempts to understand student leadership by focussing on ……………..
(a) experiences that shaped students’ overall personality.
(b) lessons gained by students as they grew up.
(c) relationship of key events with particular lessons.
(d) students in leadership roles. [1]
Answer:
(c) relationship of key events with particular lessons.
Explanation: It is given in the passage that the 2014 study sought to understand student leadership with research through key events.

(G) The lessons for ‘Individual competencies’ had a range of responses. Give one reason why having the least number of responses for ‘Decision Making’, is a matter that needs attention. [1]
Answer:
This needs attention because it clearly indicates that the lessons created / student experiences do not allow sufficient opportunity for development of this crucial skill.
Explanation: The crucial skill of ‘decision making’ needs attention as the least responses towards it indicates the students’ experience
that shows the lack of sufficient opportunities to build the skill.

(H) Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
The concluding sentence of the text makes a clear case for ………………. by listing it as a core competency for student leadership.
(a) collaboration
(b) flexibility
(c) hard work
(d) observation [1]
Answer:
(a) collaboration
Explanation: The concluding sentence shows that student leaders are learning how to support others and get supported by them which shows a ‘collaboration’ between them. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(I) Complete the sentence appropriately with one/ two words.
In the context of “Working with Others” in Table 1, the lesson of ‘Conflict’ refers to ………………….. [1]
Answer:
Being able of amicably and effectively resolve matters/conflict resolution.

(J) Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement. When theoretical knowledge about leadership suffices, it is a waste of funds by educational organisations, to organise leadership camps and programmes. [1]
Answer:
disagree because no amount of theoretical knowledge can aid students to actually apply their learning about leadership and develop various skills.
Explanation: I do not agree to the given statement as I think that no theoretical knowledge can be sufficient to develop such crucial skills in students. There is always a need of practical knowledge to develop it.

Section – B
Creative Writing Skills (20 Marks)

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely coincidental.

Question 3.
Attempt ANY ONE from given below.
You are Josely Mathew, the President of the school bookclub. The club is organising a drive for promoting reuse of study materials and books. Draft a notice in about 50 words, for the school notice board, addressing students of classes X-XII, informing them about this drive and urging them to contribute to the endeavour. Mention how the donated books would benefit a charitable cause.

Total
Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

follow the formal format/structure/ layout of notice
provide details of what, when, where and why
provide closing statement to contact the issuer of notice

Expression: Organisation of Ideas + Accuracy (2m)

correct use of words
cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring, accurate grammar + punctuations

Format:
Correct structure like box, school name, the word ‘Notice’, date, topic, content, undersign. (1m)

Answer:

Correct format ( as Listed above)
Drawing attention-students of X-XII
Mentioning the event
Giving details -D,T,V
Sharing how donated books would benefit a charitable cause + urging them to contribute
Line with reference to the undersigned

Explanation:
ABC School
NOTICE
22nd September, 20XX
Books Donation Drive
This is to inform the students of classes X-XII that the school’s book club is organizing a book donation drive where you are requested to donate used books and study materials to those who are in need. The donated books will be given in charity to the under-privileged students. You may do the contribution as per the following details:
Date: 25th September, 20XX
Venue: School auditorium
Time: 10:00am to 1:00pm
For any further query, please contact the undersigned.
Josely Mathew
President
School Book Club
OR
As the House Captain of A.B.M Public School, Telangana, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for the school notice board, informing House members from X-XII about the change in topic and submission dates for Round 1 of‘Discovery’ – the upcoming Inter¬House Reasearch-based Paper Presentation Competition. Do not forget to issue an apology for the above. You are Kruthika Reddy. [5]

Total
Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content:

Acknowlede the invitation
express gratitude (2m)
accept and provide details of joining the event

Expression: (3m)

Organisation of Ideas (2m)
+ Accuracy
correct use of words (1m)
cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring, accurate grammar + punctuations

Format:
Correct structure like box, school name, the word ‘Notice’, date, topic, content, undersign. (1m)

Answer:

Correct format (as listed above)
Drawing attention-House members of X-XII
Sharing the changes-giving context
Giving details – D,T,V
Line of polite apology/ inconvenience regretted etc
Line with reference to the undersigned

Explanation:
A.B.M Public School, Telangana
NOTICE
12th October, 20XX
Change in topic/submission dates for ‘Discovery’-Round 1
This is to inform all the house members of classes X-XII that there is an urgent change j in the topic and submission dates for the Inter-House competition of ‘Discovery’ for Round 1. The new competition details are as follows:
Round 1 Topic: Future colonization on Mars
Submission dates: 15th October, 20XX –
17th October, 20XX
Inconvenience is extremely regretted for the changes. For any further query, please contact the undersigned. .
Kruthika Reddy
House Captain

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from given below.
You are Dr. Suchitra Mukherjee. You have received an invitation from the Director, Health Services, Kharagpur, W.B, to preside over a gathering of leading medical practitioners attending a workshop on mental wellness on 09 November, 2023 at 11 a.m. in the Public Hospital, Jammu, J & K.
Respond to accept the invitation in about 50 words.

Total
Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Acknowlede the invitation
Express gratitude
Accept and provide detaiLs of joining the event

Expression: (3m)

Organisation of Ideas (2m)
+ Accuracy (1m)
Correct use of words, cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring,
Accurate grammar + punctuations

Answer:

Reference to invitation
Acceptance of invitation
Confirmation of date, time and venue
Comment on looking forward to attending . (if at all)

Explanation:
123, Colony
Kharagpur,
West Bengal
22nd September, 20XX
The Director
Health Services,
Khragpur,
West Bengal
Subject: Accepting the invitation to the workshop on mental wellness
Dear Sir/ma’am
I am extremely grateful to receive the invitation from you to attend the upcoming workshop on mental wellness in Public hospital, Jammu, J&K, aLong with the leading medical practitioners. This is to accept the same. I will be reaching Jammu on 9th November, 20XX at 8:00 am. Thanking you Yours Faithfully , Dr, Suchitra Mukherjee
OR
Draft an invitation in about 50 words, on behalf of your aunt, Meghna Menon, which she has to share to invite prior work colleagues to the inaugural event of her own investment consultancy firm, in the Acer mall, Kozhikode, Kerala. [5]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Provide a card format
Invite in third person
Give date, time and venue of the event
Include R.S.V.P

Expression: (3m)

Organisation of Ideas (2m)
+ Accuracy (1m)
Correct use of words, cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring,
Accurate grammar + punctuations

Answer:
Refer to Features, Listed above.
Explanation:
Meghna Menon
Solicits your benign presence at the
Inaugural Ceremony
Of her
Investment Consultancy Firm
MEGHNA INVESTMENT CO.
On Sunday, 2nd November, 20XX, at
10:00am
At
Acer Mall, Kozhikode, Kerala
RSVP:
Meghna Menon
Mob: 98976xxxxxx

Question 5.
Attempt ANY ONE from given below.
You are Minu Sen, an intern in a software company in Hyderabad. You feel that the growing relationship of companies with non-profit organisations have made Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) the buzzword today. Your own involvement in one such project for your company has convinced you that CSR looks beyond the company profits and focuses on benefiting the greater community.

Write a letter to the editor of a national daily in about 120-150 words, sharing your opinion about CSR and its advantages and provide suggestions to make it an integral part of every organisation. Use the given cues along with your own ideas to compose this letter.

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Opinion and advantages of CSR for company and community
Importance of including CSR by all companies
Reference to first-hand experience
Suggesting the companies and students to take up CSR and asking for rebates and recognition for the same.

Expression: (3m)

Organisation of Ideas + Accuracy
Correct use of words
Cohesion in flow from showing interest. to enquiring, accurate grammar + punctuations

Format: (1m)
Correct structure like address, subject line, salutation, introductory sentences, body, concluding sentences and complimentary close.

Opinion – CSR looks beyond company profits & benefits community – reference to first- hand experience + CSR efforts(cues)

Advantages (reference-cues)
Importance of making it an integral part of every organisation
Suggestions-awareness, laws to mandate companies include CSR, privileges or offers of some kind to companies that show some positive change in society via CSR, special rebates for students who take up CSR projects in collaboration with such companies etc.

Explanation:
12/B, Lodhi Nagar
Hyderabad
25th May, 20XX
The Editor
The Times of India
Hyderabad
Subject: Need to make CSR an integral part of companies
Dear Sir/Ma’am
Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper, I would like to share my opinions on the importance of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) for the companies and the community.

Although CSR looks beyond the company profits to benefit the greater community, but it gets a lot of advantages in return. Any of the CSR project that includes environmental initiatives, charity, ethical labour practices or volunteering leads to an increased brand value and salesforthe company. On the other hand, it benefits the community by alleviating poverty or enhancing environment. CSR brings in positive public attention towards the company.

I experienced the great effects that CSR has on both while I led ‘Serve the Community’ project wherein we distributed free blankets to those in need. This heLped them and the company too as it created a great positive response on the same.

I would like to suggest such CSR projects to be made mandatory for companies and some recognition given to the one who bring some positive change in the society. Students taking part in such CSR projects shall also be given rebates and stipends. I am sure this letter will highlight the importance of CSR among people of the society.
Yours truly
Minu Sen
OR
You are Minu Sen, employed as an Asst. Manager for Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in your current company in Hyderabad. You saw the given advertisement in the newspaper and wish to apply forthe position advertised.

Write a a letter to Credit Sage Pvt. Ltd. along with your bio-data, expressing your interest in the situation vacant. [5]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Covering letter including reference to the advertisement
Conveying suitability to be the perfect choice for the position
Including bio-data

Expression: (3m)

Organisation of Ideas + Accuracy
Correct use of words
Cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring, accurate grammar + punctuations

Format: (1m)
Correct structure like address, subject line, salutation, introductory sentences, body, concluding sentences and complimentary close.

Answer:
Content:

Covering Letter
Reference to the advertisement
Conveying suitability for the position-CSR t (Head) / CSR Manager (as advertised)
Submission of application

Bio data as separate enclosure

Profile of self
Educational Qualifications (include advertised requirements)
Work experience/s (if relevant)- include as it is a senior post
References

Any other relevant information
Explanation:
12/B, Lodhi Road
Hyderabad
……………………..
7th September, 20XX
The HR Head
Credit Sage Ovt. Ltd,
Nashik
Subject: Application for the post of a CSR Head
Sir/Ma’am,
In response to your advertisement in the Hyderbad Times, dated 5th September, 20XX for the post of a CSR Head, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. I believe that my skills and qualifications match your requirements.

I have been working for Telenox Software, Hyderabad from last five years as a CSR Manager. I have worked with many NGOs and led many CSR projects in the company with the ‘Plantable Stationary’ being my latest initiative for the company. I believe if given the opportunity, I will be able to prove my capabilities to you practically.

For your reference, I am enclosing my detailed resume along with the Letter.
Sincerely,
Minu Sen
Enel.: Bio-data

Bio-Data:

Name: Minu Sen
Father’s Name: Mr. Akash Sen
Date of Birth: 17th October, 19XX
Address: 12/B, Lodhi Road, Hyderabad
Hobbies: Reading, Music, and Sports
Languages Known: Hindi, English, and German
Nationality: Indian
Educational
Qualifications: Masters in Sociology, St. Hopkins, Hyderabad Certificate in effective communication skills
Experience: Worked as a CSR Manager – Telenox Software, Hyderabad for five years.
Expected Salary: Negotiable
References: (1) Mr. Sunit Pandit (HOD), St. Hopkins, Hyderabad
(2) Mrs. Tanya Roy, HRM, Telenox Software, Hyderabad

Question 6.
Attempt ANY ONE from given below.
The construction sector is believed to be quite hazardous and has the maximum number of fatal work injuries because apart from other causes, stakeholders in this sector tend to ignore safety regulations.

As a columnist for an e-zine, draft an article in about 120-150 words, on the theme of the importance of worker safety in construction zones. Explore possible reasons for the prevailing situation and include suggestions for addressing it. Support your ideas with cues given below.

Headlines:

Construction Workers: Risk of accident due to fatigue
Construction workforce heaLth challenges in extreme weather conditions
Construction worker fatality: Buried under soil heap
Are construction managers from Mars and workers from Venus?
Will training programmes revamp the safety standards?

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Follow correct structure – title, byline.
Introductory para: provide relevant topic statements and expansion
Middle para: development of topic w.r.t causes, effects, opinions, etc.
Concluding para: Final comments + call for action/warning

Expression: (3m)

Organisation of Ideas (2m)
+ Accuracy (1m)
Correct use of words, cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring.
Accurate grammar + punctuations.

Answer:

Explain the hazardous nature of the construction sector and write why -refer to the importance of worker safety
Examine the issue with Reasons (any 2)
Stakeholders ignore safety regulations-exploitation
Fatigue of workers (cues) -overworked
Extreme weather conditions (cues) -work doesn’t stop-accidents/ health problems
Provide Suggestions (any 2) –
Awareness
Stricter laws and penalties
Bridge gap between managers and workers (cues)
Frequent training programmes for workers

Explanation:
Importance of Worker Safety in Constructions Zones
By Tanmay/Tanya, Columnist, E-Eespoire Construction workers in the nation have always been in a great risk to their health and life. The construction sector is quite hazardous for workers as a number of fatal risks and injuries are involved with it due to the ignorance of the proper safety regulations. There are a plethora of issues that a worker has to go through in his work environment.

Workers are made to physical work for extremely long hours which lead to ill-health due to fatigue. On top of it, they aren’t even paid that well for their extra hard work. No matter what the weather conditions are in the area, workers are always asked to continue working, leading them to affect their health and cause other on-site accidents. Further, at majority of construction sites, workers are not provided with safety tools and dresses, which lead to fatal injuries.

The Government should keep a check on construction zones safety measures and should ensure if the site managers and engineers are keeping up with the safety rules laid. Government shall also provide mandatory safety training for workers working in this hazardous zone. These changes will hopefully make workers life safer.
OR
The construction sector is believed to be quite hazardous and has the maximum number of fatal work injuries. A safety fair was organised by ‘Building Safely’, an NGO in Mysuru, Karnataka with the overarching theme pertaining to the importance of worker safety in construction zones. You were asked to cover this event as the junior correspondent of a local daily. Write a report covering this event in about 120-150 words. Support your ideas with outline cues given below, to craft your newspaper report. [5]

Safety Fairs: Programmes

Toolbox talks
Video dedication for the deceased
Speeches
Safety games
Safety demonstrations
Inaugurating special insurance programme
Emergency response drill
Vote of thanks
Picnic lunch with the bosses

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (2m)

Follow correct structure – Headline, byline, place and date of reporting
Who? – name of the sponsor/ organizer of event
Where & when? – date, time , city and venue
What & how? – details of the event
Concluding comments and opinions about the event

Expression: (3m)

Organisation of Ideas (2m)

+ Accuracy (1m)

Correct use of words, cohesion in flow from showing interest to enquiring.
Accurate grammar + punctuations.

Answer:
Reason why the safety fair was organised- by whom? When? Who attended?
Event details -(refer to cues)
Conclude including witness/ participant account/s

Explanation:
A Safety Fair Conducted by ‘Building Safely’ By Adit/Aditi Shah, Junior Correspondent, The Times Network
25th March, 20XX, Thursday, Mysuru: A safety fair was organized by ‘Building Safely’, an NGO in Mysuru on the theme ‘Worker Safety Needs to be a Priority in Construction Zones’. The aim of the event was to create awareness about the safety measures that needs to be taken by and for the workers in the construction sector. The fair was filled with a lot of information in the form of toolbox talks, safety demonstrations, speeches and safety games.

Workers were taught to act in the real time through emergency response drill. Mr. Sahil Gupta, the MD of the NGO also inaugurated special insurance programme for workers. Picnic lunch with the bosses was also an initiative taken at the event. Workers looked extremely happy to participate in the safety fair and they learned a lot of things to keep them safe and sound. The event marked an end with a vote of thanks by Swati Gandhi, Manager of Building Safely.

Section – C
Literature (40 marks)

Question 7.
Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context. (1 x 6 = 6)
Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given.

It is in the news that ail these pitiful kin
Are to be bought out and mercifully gathered in
To live in villages, next to the theatre and the store,
Where they won’t have to think for themselves anymore,
While greedy good-doers, beneficent beasts of prey,
Swarm over their lives enforcing benefits That are calculated to soothe them out of their wits, .
And by teaching them how to sleep they sleep all day,
Destroy their sleeping at night the ancient way. (A Roadside Stand)

(A) What is the tone of the poet in the above lines?
(i) aggressive
(ii) tolerant
(iii) sarcastic
(iv) resigned
(v) sentimental
Choose the most appropriate option.
(a) Only (i)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iv) and (v)
(d) Only (iii) [1]
Answer:
(d) Only (iii)
Explanation: The tone of the speaker in the given extract is (iii) sarcastic as he is commenting ironically on the city people by calling them ‘greedy good-doers’, ‘beneficent beasts of prey’, etc. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(B) Identify the phrase from the extract, that suggests the following:
No one bothers to take ‘their’ consent before pushing the promise of a better life, their way. 1
Answer:
Enforcing benefits

(C) What quality of the villagers can be inferred through these lines?
(a) gullible
(b) futuristic
(c) hypocritical
(d) ambitious [1]
Answer:
(a) Gullible
Explanation: The poet calls the people of village as ‘pitiful kin’. This shows that they are ‘gullible’. Hence (a) is the right answer.

(D) Complete the following analogy correctly. DO NOT repeat from used example.
greedy good doers: alliteration :: …………….. oxymoron [1]
Answer:
Beneficent beasts of prey
Explanation: Oxymoron is a literary device that pair two contradictory terms together. In the extract, beneficent beasts of prey is contradictory in nature.

(E) On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to (1) and (2) given below.
(1) The city dwellers make promises for the betterment of the villagers.
(2) The city dwellers have ulterior motives.
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.
(b) (2) is true but (1) is false.
(c) (2) is the reason for (1).
(d) Both (1) and (2) cannot be inferred from the extract. [1]
Answer:
(c) (2) is the reason for (1)

(F) Fill the blank with an appropriate word, with reference to the extract.
‘…………. calculated to soothe them out of their wits’ implies that ‘them’ are being’ [1]
Answer:
Fooled
OR
A thing of beauty is a joy forever
Its loveliness increases, it will never
Pass into nothingness; but will keep
A bower quiet for us, and a sleep
Full of sweet dreams, and health, and quiet breathing.
Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing
A flowery band to bind us to the earth (A Thing of Beauty)

(A) Choose the option that displays the same poetic device as used in the first line of the extract.
(a) I’m as happy as I can be.
(b) Life is a roller coaster ride.
(c) Nature is God’s gift to us.
(d) The dazzling divas enchanted all. [1]
Answer:
(b) Life is a roller coaster ride.

(B) What does the phrase ‘a bower quiet’ indicate?
(a) serenity
(b) morality
(c) superiority
(d) diversity [1]
Answer:
(a) serenity
Explanation: A ‘bower’ refers to a calming shady place. Here, it is quiet and serene. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(C) The benefits of a thing of beauty for humans include ……………….
(i) healthy body
(ii) calm mind
(iii) struggle-free life
(iv) better relationships
(v) hope to carry on
Choose the most appropriate option.
(a) Only (v)
(b) (i), (ii) and (v)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv) [1]
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer in ONE word.
(D) When the poet says that ‘a thing of beauty’ will never pass into nothingness, he means that it is
Answer:
Everlasting

(E) On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) We are surrounded by beautiful things.
(2) Beautiful things provide us joy.
(a) (1) can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.
(b) (2) can be inferred from the extract but (1) cannot.
(c) Both (1) and (2) can be inferred from the extract.
(d) (2) is the reason for (1) and can be inferred from the extract. [1]
Answer:
(b) (2) can be inferred from the extract but (1) cannot

(F) Which of the following is an apt title for the extract?
(a) Full to the Brim with Joy
(b) Beauty Galore
(c) Live Life King Size
(d) Hope Floats [1]
Answer:
(d) Hope floats
Explanation: The given extract tells us that every beautiful thing brings joy into our lives and removes the darkness. It gives us hope for a better life and calms us down. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

Question 8.
Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. (1 x 4 = 4)
DERRY: You’re … peculiar. You say peculiar things. You ask questions I don’t understand. MR LAMB: I like to talk. Have company. You don’t have to answer questions. You don’t have to stop here at all. The gate’s open.
DERRY: Yes, but…
MR LAMB: I’ve a hive of bees behind those trees over there. Some hear bees and they say, bees buzz. But when you listen to bees for a long while, they humm. … and hum means ‘sing’. I hear them singing, my bees.
DERRY: But….l like it here. I came in because I
liked it when I looked over the wall.
MR LAMB: If you’d seen me, you’d not have come in.
DERRY: No. (On the Face of It)
(A) List the playwright’s purpose of using ellipses (…) in this extract. [1]
Answer:
To indicate to the character to pause for thought/ to act showing gathering of thoughts
Explanation: The playwright has used the ellipses (…) to show a ‘pause’ taken to gather some thoughts while speaking.

(B) Select the option that best describes Derry and Mr. Lamb in the extract.
(a) Derry: introvert; Mr. Lamb: friendly
(b) Derry: fearful; Mr. Lamb: domineering
(c) Derry: friendly; Mr. Lamb: weird
(d) Derry: open minded; Mr. Lamb: charming [1]
Answer:
(a) Derry:introvert; Mr Lambfriendly

(C) Which of the following best summarises Mr. Lamb’s attitude towards the bees?
(a) Beauty is being true to yourself.
(b) There is a kind of beauty in imperfection.
(c) Beauty is the promise of happiness.
(d) The beauty of the world lies in the details. [1]
Answer:
(d) The beauty of the world lies in the details.
Explanation: The way Mr. Lamb praises the buzzing sound of the bees by calling it a song, it shows that he admires the beauty of the world in the details. Hence, (d) is the right answer.

(D) Derry says, “I came in here because I liked it…” What was the one significant thing Derry might have liked about the place, as per the extract? 1
Answer:
Away from prying eyes/ people
Explanation: The place was desolate. There was seemingly no one and Derry always wanted to hide himself from prying eyes. So, he was attracted to the place.
OR
Students on Ice, the programme I was working with on the Shokalskiy, aims to do exactly this by taking high school students to the ends of the world and providing them with inspiring educational opportunities which will help them foster a new understanding and respect for our planet.

It’s been in operation for six years now, headed by Canadian Geoff Green, who got tired of carting celebrities and retired, rich, curiosity-seekers who could only ‘give’ back in a limited way. With Students on Ice, he offers the future generation of policy-makers a life-changing experience at an age when they’re ready to absorb, learn, and most importantly, act. (Journey to the End of the Earth)

Total Marks	Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)
1m(MCQ)	state a reason (1m) (c) playing a video game (a) Adventure with a Mission state a reason behind (1m)

(A) Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract. The writer refers to the educational opportunities as ‘inspiring’ because …………… [1]
Answer:
These educational opportunities would motivate them to work towards the good of the planet / allow them to observe first hand that the planet needs to be respected / nurtured rather than abused
Explanation: They would allow students to observe the reality of the planet in person and so, peopLe would take measures for its betterment.

(B) Which of the following would NOT be ‘a life changing experience’?
(a) Being given the lead role in a play.
(b) Going on an adventure trip.
(c) Playing a video game.
(d) Meeting a great leader, you admire. [1]
Answer:
(c) Playing a video game

(C) Select the most suitable title for the given extract.
(a) Adventure with a Mission
(b) Adventure – The Spice of Life
(c) The Wanderlust
(d) Students of the Future [1]
Answer:
(a) Adventure with a Mission
Explanation: ‘Students on Ice’ program is a great adventure for students but it also has a mission to aware students about the deterioration that the planet is experiencing. Hence, (a) is the right answer.

(D) Why does the writer refer to ‘act’ as more important than ‘absorb’ or ‘learn’? [1]
Answer:
Because having the right knowledge or inclination/understanding is just half the job done. It fails to have an impact till it is applied/ practised/ put to use in our actions.
Explanation: The writer says that to act is more important than to just learn things because learning without implementing is of no use. Alone learning can help in no way unless one acts upon it.

Question 9.
Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. (1 x 6 = 6)
A girl from the countryside, she hadn’t gone through all the stages of worldly experience that generally precede a position of importance and sophistication that she had found herself catapulted into. She never quite recovered from the terror she felt that day.

That was the end of a brief and brilliant acting career – the legal adviser, who was also a member of the Story Department, had. unwittingly brought about that sad end. While every other member of the Department wore a kind of uniform – khadi dhoti with a slightly oversized and clumsily tailored white khadi shirt – the legal adviser wore pants and a tie and sometimes a coat that looked like a coat of mail. Often, he looked alone and helpless…
(Poets and Pancakes)
(A) Select the option that completes the given sentence appropriately.
‘Stages of worldly experience’ in the given context would refer to.
(a) good education to gain knowledge.
(b) situations that require one to be street smart.
(c) smaller, not so important roles in acting.
(d) training in soft skills. [1]
Answer:
(b) situations that require one to be street smart.

(B) Select the suitable word from the extract to complete the following analogy:
sealed: closed :: propelled: ……………….. [1]
Answer:
Catapulted
Explanation: The analogy has similar meaning words together where sealed means closed and propelled means catapulted as it refers to being ‘trapped’.

(C) Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
The harm done to the actress was a/an
(a) welL-planned act.
(b) unintentional act.
(c) act of jealousy.
(d) act of male dominance. [1]
Answer:
(b) unintentional act
Explanation: The speaker says that the legal adviser had ‘unwittingly brought’ that sad end to the actress’s career which means it was unintentionally done. Hence, (b) is the right answer.

(D) Based on the above extract, choose the statement that is TRUE for the legal adviser.
(a) He disliked the actress from the countryside.
(b) He acted after thinking through things carefully.
(c) He did not gel well with others in the Department.
(d) He was always dressed smartly. [1]
Answer:
(d) He did not get well with others in the Department.

(E) Identify the textual clue that allows the reader to infer that the writer is sympathetic towards the professional fate of the actor. (Clue: a phrase) [1]
Answer:
sad end.

(F) Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
The writer uses the word ‘uniform’ to refer to the outfits of the Department members because just like a uniform …………
Answer:
is a common dress code for all, similarly, their apparel/dress was nearly the same – loose khadi shirt and khadi dhoti.
Explanation: That shares a common dress code with all, the department members used to wear the similar khadi dhoti and Loose khadi shirt.
OR
Some might make quite extravagant claims for it as being, in its highest form, a source of truth, and, in its practice, an art. Others, usually celebrities who see themselves as its victims, might despise the interview as an unwarranted intrusion into their lives, or feel that it somehow diminishes them, just as in some primitive cultures it is believed that if one takes a photographic portrait of somebody then one is stealing that person’s soul. (The Interview)
(A) What is the most likely reason some people consider the practice of interview to be an art?
This could be because it requires:
(a) fluency of words.
(b) sensitive and careful handling.
(c) creativity and imagination.
(d) probing and focusing on details. [1]
Answer:
(c) creativity and imagination

(B) Rewrite the sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with its inference. Celebrities feel that an interview diminishes them. [1]
Answer:
Celebrities feel that an interview lessens their value.

(C) On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) Celebrities don’t consent to be interviewed.
(2) Interviews intrude the privacy of celebrities.
(a) (1) can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.
(b) (1) cannot be inferred from the extract but (2) can.
(c) (1) is true but (2) is false.
(d) (2) is the reason for (1). [1]
Answer:
(d) (2) is the reason for (1)
Explanation: Clearly, as per the extract, celebrities see themselves as victims whose privacy gets intruded. Hence, they do not consent to be interviewed. Thus, (d) is the right answer.

(D) Rationalise, to support the given opinion:
To say that an interview, in its highest form, is a source of truth, is an extravagant claim. [1]
Answer:
It is an extravagant claim as an interview cannot be a source of truth due to the f owing-interview may be scripted OR People may make false statements OR Certain questions may be left unanswered.
Explanation: The given statement is an extravagant claim as people may tell lies in their interviews or manipulate their answers later.

(E) Replace the underlined word with its antonym from the extract.
Some celebrities hate the idea of having to give an interview because it makes them feel like supporters. [1]
Answer:
Victims

(F) The author’s views on interview, in the extract, can best be described as statements based on ………………….
(a) facts
(b) hypothesis
(c) beliefs
(d) superstitions [1]
Answer:
(a) facts

Question 10.
Answer ANY FIVE of the following in about 40-50 words each. (5 x 2 = 10)
(A) “You realise the true value of a thing only on losing it.” Comment on this statement in the light of the story, The Last Lesson. [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

2m(MCQ)

Content: (1m)

Give opinion on the statement w.r.t the event of banning of French language in the states of Alsace and Lorraine

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (‘earlier’, ‘however’)

Answer:
Prussians put a ban on the French language – People realized the importance of holding onto their mother tongue.
OR
M Hamel was considered strict and the classes / work given by him were not taken seriously – After he was ordered to leave the country, villagers realized the importance of his contribution to the society.

Explanation: In the chapter The Last Lesson’, people of the village and students in the school did not use to pay attention towards their mother tongue, i.e., French earlier. However, when the Prussians had put a ban on the use of the language and replaced it with German, people realized the importance of their own language. It was then the people knew the value of their mother tongue.

(B) State the common issue faced by most of the aged in the current times, with reference to the poem My Mother at Sixty-six. [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Characteristic of the author (atleast 1)
Visible gestures supporting her features

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (‘and’)

Answer:
Common issue: absence of supporting presence/loneliness/alone when children move away.
Explanation: The poet lived away from her mother.
Elderly today faces a lot of issues. They are left alone to survive in their decreasing age, rely solely on their own self for curing ailments, etc., when their children move away to build their career. Just as in ‘My Mother at Sixty-six’, the poet’s mother was left behind to look after her ownself in her diminishing age as the poet left for another city, old people go through a lot of lonliness in their lives.

(C) What do we come to know about the author of Lost Spring, Anees Jung, through her interactions with Saheb and Mukesh? [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Characteristic of the author (atleast 1)
Visible gestures supporting her features

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (‘and’)

Answer:
[have to be relevant with respect to BOTH boys]

Observed in detail – observant
Is moved by their plight – sensitive / empathetic
Feels helpless about her inability to do anything for them. (Any other relevant)

Explanation: The author of the story ‘Lost Spring’ Anees Jung is a well-observant person. She observes Mukesh and Saheb in such detail and connect with them through her empathy. She realizes the plight of poverty of both the boys and their eroded childhood in order to get them a living for bare survival in the world. The way Anees describes their situations and be poLite with them throughout, she seems to be really a kind-hearted and compassionate lady.

(D) Give two reasons why, according to Pablo Neruda, is ‘keeping quiet’ essential to attaining a better, more peaceful world. (Keeping Quiet) [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Reasons to keep quiet ( atleast 2)

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words

Answer:

Makes us introspect and reflect upon our actions.
Helps us better understand ourselves and what we want.
Enables us to realise that many of our mindless actions are only harming us and not giving us happiness.

Explanation: According to Pablo Neruda, ‘Keeping quiet’ is crucial to attain a better and peaceful world as it gives us time to introspect ourselves deeply. It gives us the opportunity to have a check upon our deeds and understand that those deeds aren’t helping us, but rather harming us.

(E) If the Christmas spirit is about selflessness, forgiveness and becoming ‘better’ versions of ourselves amongst other things, Edla Willmansson is the epitome of this spirit. Justify with two points of evidence from The Rattrap. [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Evidences of justification (atleast 2)

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (even ‘also’)

Answer:
Edla-
Despite knowing the truth about the peddler-

gave him shelter and treated him with full respect, (forgiveness)
even invited him for Christmas next year, (better version of herself)

Explanation: Edla Willmansson is surely an epitome of selflessness, forgiveness and becoming a better version of ourselves. In the chapter, The Rattrap’, even after knowing that the peddler had lied about his identity, she forgives him and serves him with all respect. She also invites him for the Christmas next year which shows her trait of becoming a better version of her ownself.

(F) How can we say that marriage was a compromise for Aunt Jennifer? Support your response with two justifications. (Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers) [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Evidences of justification (atleast 2)

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (that’, ‘as’)

Answer:

Couldn’t live the way she wanted to or do what she wanted to.
Burdened by responsibilities.
Oppressed by her husband.

Explanation: It is evident from the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’ that Aunt Jennifer’s marriage was a compromise for her. Her husband used to supress her and she was burdened with all the responsibilities of a married life which she didn’t enjoy. She led her life in the fear of her husband’s anger and she couldn’t do things according to her will as everything she did was uncle’s command.

Question 11.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 40-50 words each. (2 x 2 = 4)
(A) ‘It’s easy to judge others and give advice, but much more difficult to apply it to ourselves.’ Elaborate with reference to the character of Sam in The Third Level. [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Provide opinion on the statement (0.5m)
Give reference to Sam in light of the statement (0.5m)

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (‘but’ ‘later’)

Answer:
Told Charley that he was dissatisfied and looking for an escape – the Third level was his imagination.
At the end, the same is revealed as true for Sam – he went in search of the Third level himself.
Explanation:
Its definitely easy to judge and advise others but when it comes to our own self, it becomes quite difficult to do the same. In the chapter, The Third Level’, Sam was Charley’s friend and a psychiatrist. When Charley told him about his finding of the third level, Sam told him that it was just his escape from the real world problem but later on he himself went in search of the same third level.

(B) Comment on any one aspect of the writing style of the author, Kalki in The Tiger King. [2]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Elaborate Kalki’s writing style (atleast 1)

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (such as’, ‘and’)

Answer:

A satire on those in power – use of humour, exaggeration and harmony to criticize
Conversational, narrative style

Explanation: The author of the story ‘The Tiger King’, Kalki, is extremely good at her work. The way she has narrated the story of the tiger king with elements such as exaggeration, humour, conversation, irony, etc., is commendable. She has set up a satire on the powerful people and described their might humorously.

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Content: (1m)

Explain Dr. Sadao’s conscience (0.5m)
Explain his loyalty (0.5m)

Expression: (1m)

Organised effectively
Usage of connecting words (‘and;’that’)

Answer:

True to his profession (conscientious) – attended to the wounded soldier and saved his life.
Informed the General about the prisoner and agreed to the plan of assassination, (loyal-to his country)

Explanation: Dr. Sadao was indeed both conscientious and loyal. He proved his conscientiousness when he treated the wounded soldier and saved his life. Later, he proved his loyalty to his country by informing the General about the soldier that was the prisoner of war and agreed to the plan of his assassination.

Question 12.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words.
The prose selections, Deep Water and Indigo, bring out the importance of overcoming fear, in order to be able to lead our lives successfully.
Imagine yourself to be a motivational speaker who has to address high school students. Write this address in 120 – 150 words elaborating on occurrences from the two texts to inspire your audience and to convince them about the importance of overcoming fear.
You may begin like this …
Good morning, students!
We all know what it’s like to be afraid. Fear is our body’s natural response to a perceived threat or danger.
But when …

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Introduction: (1m)

Write statement w.r.t the given cue

Content: (3m)

Talk about the incidents that Douglas and sharecroppers went through before overcoming fear
Share how bothe of them fought with their fears and finally overcame it

Concluding statement: (1m)

Re-specify the importance of fighting fears to live life to the fullest

Answer:
1. Fear immobilizes us and prevents us from progressing – as in the case of William Douglas – due to his fear of water he could not lead a normal life – could not . go fishing, canoeing, etc. Similarly, due to their fear of the Britishers, the peasants of Champaran could not take a stand for their rights.

2. Need to face our fear, devise a plan and work through it – William Douglas worked through his fear rather than giving into it. When the peasants gathered around the courthouse in Motihari, it was a step towards overcoming their fear.

3. Require determination – persistence – it took Douglas months to overcome his fear of water and learn swimming, it took nearly a year to get justice for the peasants in Champaran.

4. strength in unity when fighting a common fear – only when the people in Champaran were they able to overcome their fear and fight for justice.

5. But once overcome, one is free to live his / her life to the fullest.
(Any 4 points to be included) (Accept associated relevant points)

Explanation: Good Morning, students!
We all know what its like to be afraid. Fear is our body’s natural response to a perceived threat or danger. But when once and for all, we decide to face it, it eradicates. It disappears. In the story, ‘Deep Water’, William Douglas tells how terrified he was with water after a dreadful incident of drowning. Flowever, he trained himself under a veteran to get rid of his fear and finally, he became a great diver and a swimmer.

In the similar way, the Indian sharecroppers were petrified of the British. So much so that they couldn’t even take stand for their rights. However, one day, after getting the support of Gandhiji, the peasants gathered in Motihari to protest against the British. That day marked the start of their liberation from oppression and fear.

We all must learn from these two instances that the day we take a step towards facing our fear, we eventually get over it. Hence, we should always try to fight our fears and stop it from preventing our growth.
OR
Their mother sighed.
Sophie watched her back stooped over the sink and wondered at the incongruity of the delicate bow which fastened her apron strings.’
The prose selection, Going Places includes this telling comment about Sophie’s mother. In Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers, we are told that – ‘The massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer’s Hand.’ Imagine a conversation between Sophie’s mother and Aunt Jennifer. Create this exchange with reference to the two extracts given above.
You may begin the conversation like this …
Sophie’s mother: Your embroidery is so beautiful. Do you love tigers? [5]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Introduction: (1m)

Execute the given hint by developing it further

Content: (3m)

Talk about the ‘similarities’ that both aunt jennifer and Sophie’s Mother had in their family status
State their hopes and desires w.r.t their stories

Concluding statement: (1m)

End the conversation on desirous note

Answer:

Aunt Jennifer shares about her loss of identity; use of art as a means to express her deep-down desires and feelings.
Sophie’s mother shares information about her servile role – all her time is spent in meeting the needs of the family; has no life of her own. Sophie’s mother stays home while all others go to witness Danny Casey’s football match.
Both feel burdened with responsibilities.
Both have domineering husbands; They do not have a say in the family matters.
There seems to be no likelihood of any change in their status. (Any 4 points to be included)

Explanation:

Sophie’s mother: Your embroidery is so beautiful. Do you love tigers?
Aunt Jennifer: Yes. Tigers are so fierce and fearless. I wish to be as free and wild as them one day.
Sophie’s mother: I too wish to be as independent as them. Hunt for my own food, live my own life and forget about the homely responsibilities.
Aunt Jennifer: Are you too in an unhappy marriage?
Sophie’s mother: What should I say? I barely get anytime for myself. I have to only look after ..my family and their needs. I didn’t even go to watch Danny Casey’s football match while my whole family is there currently.
Aunt Jennifer: Oh! Seems like we share a similar status. There is a huge burden of ordeals. My only escape to freedom are these embroidery tigers!

Question 13.
Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words.
On returning home, Tishani Doshi writes her thoughts reflecting on how her decision to enrol for the Students on Ice programme has been the single most important decision of her life that has completely transformed her. Imagine yourself to be Tishani and express these thoughts.
You may begin like this:
I can’t thank my stars enough for having cashed in on the opportunity of ……………

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Introduction: (1m)

Elaborate the starting line w.r.t the emotions of Tishani Doshi

Content: (3m)

Talk about the merits, effects and learnings that Tishani had on her excursion (atleast 2)
Share Tishani’s hopes and plans for the programmes’ contribution in saving the planet

Concluding statement: (1m)

Talk about what effect it can have on young students

Answer:

An experience completely different than any other – to visit a landscape that is not inhabited by humans and so still relatively pristine.
Provided an insight into the earth’s past, present and the future.
Made her delve deep into the threat faced by the environment and the earth itself due to human activities.
Realised how little changes can have a major impact on the environment and therefore the need to take care of the small things.
An eye opening experience – realised how everything on this earth is interlinked.
The trip indeed had a life changing impact. (Any 4 points to be included.)

Explanation: I can’t thank my stars enough for having cashed in on the opportunity of visiting the white continent through ‘Students on Ice’ programme. The experience was out of this world. To see Antarctica, a landscape with no humans inhabited and still so pristine, in person, is beyond mesmerising.

The land provides an insight into the planets’ past, present and future. It also leads a person to ponder upon the ill-effects on the planet due to human’s reckless activities. One realizes how small things can lead to major differences in the environment and how important it is to take care of our planet.

The programme is an eye-opener which gives a strong reality check on the condition of our planet.
OR
Both Bama and Zitkala Sa experienced the harsh reality of discrimination in their childhood. Instead of letting it pull them down, they both found a way to overcome it. You wish to include a cameo* of both in your upcoming blog post. As a part of the research, compare and contrast the experiences faced by the two and their response/s to these experiences, in 120-150 words.
[due: include the similarities and differences in the discrimination they faced – their feelings – determination to overcome – success]
a short description that neatly encapsulates someone or something. [5]

Total Marks

Breakdown (As per CBSE Marking Scheme)

Introduction: (1m)

Start with statements on ‘discrimination’ and ‘oppression’.

Content: (3m)

Talk about the ‘discrimination’ and ‘issues’ faced by the characters
State their emotions and way outs to fight for the same

Concluding statement: (1m)

Talk about how one can fight

Answer:

Both of them faced discrimination; ZitkaLa Sa was discriminated against because of cultural differences while Bama faced discrimination due to her caste.
Zitkala sa rebelled and refused to get her hair cut. She put up a strong fight, though had to give in finally. Bama was enraged and wanted to go and touch the packet of vadai to teach a lesson to the landlord. But was guided by her elder brother to calm down. He showed her the path overcome discrimination.
Both of them worked hard to excel in education.
Both succeeded as writers among other things; They have written much against discrimination and evils of oppression, thus continuing the fight for justice for their communities.

Explanation: Discrimination and oppression damage a part of people. But one should always remember that there is always a way to get free of such vices. If we are determinant to find a way out, we will surely succeed. For instance, Bama and Zitkala-Sa both went through severe discrimination. Bama was a prey of casteism while Zitkala-Sa was discriminated due to cultural difference.

When Bama saw the elder man holding the packet of Vadai from its string as he wasn’t allowed to touch it, she decided to go and touch it to teach people a lesson. However, her brother taught her the right approach to end the oppression and that was education’. Similarly, Zitkala-Sa rebelled against cutting of her long hair but later, she too excelled in education and proved herself.

Hence, we all should learn from such characters that any oppression is carried out only until we take a way out to end it. The way should be correct and everlasting. It should prove our status and identity as a human being.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology Set 7 with Solutions

February 23, 2023

Students must start practising the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology with Solutions Set 7 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

All questions are compulsory except where internal choice has been given.

Question Nos 1 -18 in Section A carry 1 mark each.
Question Nos 19-23 in Section B are Very Short Answer Type – I questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
Question Nos 24-27 in Section C are Short Answer Questions Type – II carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
Question Nos 28 – 31 in Section D are Long Answer Type – I questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
Question No. 32 in Section E is a Long Answer Type – II question carrying 6 marks. Answer to this question should not exceed 200 words
Question Nos 33- 36 in Section F is based on two cases given. Each case has two questions carrying two marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.

Section – A (18 Marks)

Question 1.
_______ is a subjective experience that uses imagery and imagination. [1]
(a) Biofeedback
(b) Art therapy
(c) Creative visualisation
(d) Meditation
Answer:
(c) Creative visualisation

Explanation: It is an effective technique for dealing with stress. Creative visualisation is a subjective experience that uses imagery and imagination.

Question 2.
Hippocrates, Socrates and Plato developed which approach? [1]
(a) Organismic approach
(b) Type A
(c) Psychological approach
(d) Organic approach
Answer:
(a) Organismic approach

Explanation: Physicians of ancient Greece such as Hippocrates, Socrates, and in particular Plato developed the organismic approach and viewed disturbed behaviour as arising out of conflicts between emotion and reason.

Question 3.
Ayra did not get admission to the college of her choice. She told her friends that she never really wanted to go there. She is using a defence mechanism called_______ [1]
(a) Rationalisation
(b) Reaction formation
(c) Denial
(d) Repression
Answer:
(a) Rationalisation

Explanation: In rationalisation, a person tries to justify what he did. In denial and repression, there is conscious/ unconscious suppression whereas in reaction formation there is an opposite attitude and behaviour.

Question 4.
Schizophrenia is linked with the excessive activity of the neurotransmitter called. [1]
(a) Serotonin
(b) Dopamine
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Gamma-Aminobutyric acid
Answer:
(b) Dopamine

Explanation: Excess dopamine has been linked to schizophrenia.

Question 5.
According to the trigonal theory of personality which guna characterizes laziness, anger, arrogance, depression and helplessness? [1]
(a) Tamas
(b) Rajas
(c) Sattva
(d) Kapha
Answer:
(a) Tamas

Explanation: Sattva guna includes attributes like cleanliness, truthfulness, dutifulness, detachment, discipline, etc. Rajas guna includes intensive activity, a desire for a sense of gratification, dissatisfaction, envy for others, and a materialistic mentality, etc. Tamas guna characterises anger, arrogance, depression, laziness, and feeling of helplessness.

Question 6.
Often stereotypes consist of _______characteristics about the target group. [1]
(a) Negative
(b) Undesirable
(c) Desirable
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Undesirable

Explanation: Due to undesirable characteristics stereotype develops.

Question 7.
Hardiness consists of 3C’s, named challenge,_______and_______ [1]
(a) Creativity, commitment
(b) Commitment, control
(c) Control, creativity
(d) Creativity, capable
Answer:
(b) Commitment, control

Explanation: Hardiness is a set of traits that were developed by Kobasa. It has 3 characteristics commitment, challenge and control.

Question 8.
Johann Weyer emphasized psychological conflicts as causes of psychological disorders. [1]
(a) frustration
(b) disturbed interpersonal relationship
(c) disturbed intrapersonal relation
(d) conflicts
Answer:
(b) Disturbed interpersonal relationship

Explanation: The Renaissance Period was marked by increased humanism and curiosity about behaviour. Johann Weyer emphasised psychological conflict and disturbed interpersonal relationships as causes of psychological disorders.

Question 9.
When the majority group places the blame on a minority group, it is referred to as: [1]
(a) Prejudice
(b) Negative attitude
(c) Stereotype
(d) Scapegoating
Answer:
(d) Scapegoating

Explanation: This is a phenomenon by which the majority group places the blame on a minority outgroup for its own social, economic or political problems

Question 10.
Long and Mehta have prepared a handbook listing 103 tests of intelligence in India available in various languages. [1]
(a) True
(b) False
(c) C.H Rice
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) True

Explanation: Long and Mehta prepared a handbook of 103 intelligence tests.

Question 11.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice.
Assertion (A): Teams are special kinds of groups.
Reason (R): Members of teams often have complementary skills and are committed to a common goal or purpose. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Explanation: teams are special kinds of groups and their members have complementary skills which help them in achieving their goals.

Question 12.
Ria is constantly scanning the environment for dangers and this is accompanied by extreme motor tension. She is experiencing_______. [1]
(a) Generalised anxiety disorder
(b) Panic disorder
(c) Delusion of persecution
(d) Phobia
Answer:
(a) Generalised anxiety disorder

Explanation: In GAD, a person is always on the verge of looking out for some danger and has motor tension.

Question 13.
_______tendency of a person to react to a given situation in a particular way. [1]
(a) Temperament
(b) Disposition
(c) Personality
(d) Values
Answer:
(b) Disposition

Explanation: Temperament: Biologically based characteristic way of reacting. Trait: Stable, persistent and specific way of behaving. Disposition: Tendency of a person to react to a given situation in a particular way. Character: The overall pattern of regularly occurring behaviour. Habit: Over-learned modes of behaving. Values: Goals and ideals that are considered important and worthwhile to achieve.

Question 14.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice.
Assertion (A): person develops maladaptive behaviour due to a discrepancy between the ideal and real self.
Reason (R): according to the humanistic approach, people want to have a sense of ideal and real self and they should be congruent. When they are not, it results in abnormal behaviour. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Explanation: Non-verbal tests and performance tests require objects to be moved around and not something verbal or written which requires a minimum intellect level.

Question 15.
Which type of white blood cells are attacked by HIV? [1]
(a) T-cells
(b) B-cells
(c) Natural killer cells
(d) T helper cells
Answer:
(a) T-cells

Explanation: It is these T-helper cells that are attacked by the Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV), the virus causing Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

Question 16.
The process of placed emphasis on providing community care to the recovered mentally ill individuals is: [1]
(a) Rehabilitation
(b) Deinsutionalisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Deinstuitionalisation

Explanation: Deinstitutionalisation placed emphasis on providing community care for recovered mentally ill individuals.

Question 17.
Intelligence is not so valued in many Asian and African societies. The society is: [1]
(a) Integra
(b) Emotional
(c) Technological
(d) Experientia
Answer:
(c) technological

Explanation: These societies put more emphasis on emotions and integral and experiential intelligence.

Question 18.
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice.
Assertion (A): stress inoculation is a cognitive behavioural technique
Reason (R): it helps replace negative thoughts with rational ones and focuses on both cognition and behaviour. [1]
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Explanation: Obedience is the most direct and explicit form of social influence as the person asks the other to directly obey

Section – B (10 Marks)

Question 19.
With the help of an example illustrate how 21. How did Erich Fromm describe personality? target characteristics play an important role in bringing about attitude change. [2]
Answer:
Qualities of the target, such as persuasibility, strong prejudices, self-esteem, and intelligence influence the likelihood and extent of attitude change. People, who have a more open and flexible personality, change more easily. Advertisers benefit most from such people. People with strong prejudices are less prone to any attitude change than those who do not hold strong prejudices.

Persons who have low self-esteem, and do not have sufficient confidence in themselves, change their attitudes more easily than those who are high self-esteem. More intelligent people may change their attitudes less easily than those with lower intelligence. However, sometimes more intelligent persons change their attitudes more willingly than less intelligent ones, because they base their attitudes on more information and thinking.

Question 20.
List the symptoms of Separation Anxiety Disorder.
OR
What is Obsessive Compulsive Disorder? [2]
Answer:
Separation anxiety disorder (SAD) is another type of anxiety disorder. Individuals with separation anxiety disorder are fearful and anxious about separation from attachment figures to an extent that is developmentally not appropriate. Children with SAD may have difficulty being in a room by themselves, going to school alone, are fearful of entering new situations, and clinging to and shadowing their parents’ every move. To avoid separation, children with SAD may fuss, scream, throw severe tantrums, or make suicidal gestures.

People affected by the obsessive-compulsive disorder are unable to control their preoccupation with specific ideas or are unable to prevent themselves from repeatedly carrying out a particular act or series of acts that affect their ability to carry out normal activities. Obsessive behaviour is the inability to stop thinking about a particular idea or topic. The person involved, often finds these thoughts to be unpleasant and shameful. Compulsive behaviour is the need to perform certain behaviours over and over again. Many compulsions deal with counting, ordering, checking, touching and washing.

Question 21.
How did Erich Fromm describe personality? [2]
Answer:
From developed his theory from a social orientation. He viewed human beings as basically social beings who could be understood in terms of their relationship with others. He argued that psychological qualities such as growth and realisation of potential resulted from a desire for freedom, and striving for justice and truth. Fromm holds that character traits (personality) develop from our experiences with other individuals.

While culture is shaped by the mode of existence of a given society, people’s dominant character traits in a given society work as forces in shaping the social processes and the culture itself. His work recognises the value of positive qualities, such as tenderness and love in personality development.

Question 22.
Describe any 3 factors that contribute to healing in Psychotherapy. [2]
Answer:
There are several factors which contribute to the healing process. Some of these factors are as follows:
A major factor in healing is the techniques adopted by the therapist and the implementation of the same with the patient/client. The therapeutic alliance, which is formed between the therapist and the patient/ client, has healing properties, because of the regular availability of the therapist, and the warmth and empathy provided by the therapist.

At the outset of therapy, while the patient/ client is being interviewed in the initial sessions to understand the nature of the problem, she/he unburdens the emotional problems being faced. This process of emotional unburdening is known as catharsis, and it has healing properties.

Question 23.
What do you understand by the delay of gratification? Explain the techniques used for the same. [2]
Answer:
Learning to delay or defer the gratification of needs is called self-control. Self-control plays a key role in the fulfilment of long-term goals. Techniques that can be used for self-control are: Observation own behaviour is one of them. This provides us with the necessary information that may be used to change, modify, or strengthen certain aspects of self. Self-instruction is another important technique. We often instruct ourselves to do something and behave the way we want to. Such instructions are quite effective in self-regulation. Self-reinforcement is the third technique. This involves rewarding behaviours that have pleasant outcomes.

Section – C (12 Marks)

Question 24.
Elaborate on the emotional and cognitive effects of stress. [3]
Answer:
Stress can affect every aspect of our life. The effects of stress can range from physiological to emotional to social.

(1) Emotional effect: Those who suffer from stress are far more likely to experience mood swings, and show erratic behaviour that may alienate them from family and friends. In some cases this can start a vicious circle of decreasing confidence, leading to more serious emotional problems. Some examples are feelings of anxiety and depression, increased physical tension, increased psychological tension and mood swings.

(2) Cognitive Effects: If pressure due to stress continues, one may suffer from mental overload. This suffering from high levels of stress can rapidly cause individuals to lose their ability to make sound decisions. Faulty decisions made at home, in a career, or at the workplace may lead to arguments, failure, financial loss or even loss of job. The cognitive effects of stress are poor concentration and reduced short-term memory capacity.

Question 25.
Elaborate on any 2 theories of intelligence based on the Psychometric approach. [3]
Answer:
The psychometric approach considers intelligence as an aggregate of abilities. It expresses the individual’s performance in terms of a single index of cognitive abilities. Some of the theories of the psychometric approach are:

Available in different cultural traditions. Binet’s theory of intelligence was rather simple as it arose from his interest in differentiating more intelligent from less intelligent individuals. He, therefore, conceptualised intelligence as consisting of one similar set of abilities which can be used for solving any or every problem in an individual’s environment.

His theory of intelligence is called Uni or the one-factor theory of intelligence. Arthur Jensen proposed a hierarchical model of intelligence consisting of abilities operating at two levels, called Level I and Level II. Level I is associative learning in which the output is more or less similar to the input (e.g., rote learning and memory). Level II, called cognitive competence, involves higher-order skills as they transform the input to produce an effective output.

Question 26.
Is there a consistency between attitude and behaviour? Explain.
OR
Elaborate on the two-step model of attitude change with the help of an example. [3]
Answer:
An individual’s attitudes may not always be exhibited through behaviour. Likewise, one’s actual behaviour may be contrary to one’s attitude towards a particular topic. Psychologists have found that there would be consistency between attitudes and behaviour when :

The attitude is strong, and occupies a central place in the attitude system,
The person is aware of her/his attitude,
There is very little or no external pressure for the person to behave in a particular way. For example, when there is no group pressure to follow a particular norm.
The person’s behaviour is not being watched or evaluated by others, and
The person thinks that the behaviour would have a positive consequence, and therefore, intends to engage in that behaviour.

The two-step concept was proposed by S.M. Mohsin, an Indian psychologist. According to him, attitude change takes place in the form of two steps. In the first step, the target of change identifies with the source. The ‘target’ is the person whose attitude is to be changed. The ’source’ is the person through whose influence the change is to take place. Identification means that the target has liking and regard for the source. She/he puts herself/himself in the place of the target and tries to feel like her/him.

The source must also have a positive attitude towards the target, and the regard and attraction become mutual. In the second step, the source herself/himself shows an attitude change, by actually changing her/ him behaviour towards the attitude object. Observing the source’s changed attitude and behaviour, the target also shows an attitude change through behaviour.

Question 27.
Explain any 3 bits of intelligence of Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence. [3]
Answer:
Howard Gardner proposed the theory of multiple intelligences. According to him, intelligence is not a single entity; rather distinct types of intelligence exist. Each of this intelligence is independent of the other. He gave 8 types of intelligence that are independent. The three bits of intelligence that Howard described are; Bodily-Kinaesthetic (an ability to use whole or portions of the body flexibly and creatively):

This consists of the use of the whole body or portions of it for the display or construction of products and problem-solving. Athletes, dancers, actors, sportspersons, gymnasts, and surgeons are likely to have such kind of intelligence. Interpersonal (an ability to understand subtle aspects of others’ behaviours): This is the ability to understand the motives, feelings and behaviours of other people so as to bond into a comfortable relationship with others.

Psychologists, counsellors, politicians, social workers, and religious leaders are likely to possess high interpersonal intelligence. Intrapersonal (an ability to understand one’s own feelings, motives, and desires): This refers to the knowledge of one’s internal strengths and limitations and using that knowledge to effectively relate to others. Persons high on this ability have finer sensibilities regarding their identity, human existence, and meaning of life. Philosophers and spiritual leaders present examples of this type of intelligence. Other intelligence: spatial, linguistic, mathematical, musical, and naturalistic to be also included.

Section – D (16 Marks)

Question 28.
Elaborate on the important elements of the group structure.
OR
Explain the determinants of Competition and Cooperation. [4]
Answer:
During the process of group formation, groups also develop a structure. We should remember that group structure develops as members interact. Four important elements of group structure are :

Roles are socially defined expectations that individuals in a given situation are expected to fulfil. Roles refer to the typical behaviour that depicts a person in a given social context. Norms are expected standards of behaviour and beliefs established, agreed upon, and enforced by group members. They may be considered as a group’s ‘unspoken rules. In your family, there are norms that guide the behaviour of family members. Status refers to the relative social position given to group members by others.

This relative position or status may be either ascribed (given may be because of one’s seniority) or achieved (the person has achieved status because of expertise or hard work). Cohesiveness refers to togetherness, binding, or mutual attraction among group members. As the group becomes more cohesive, group members start to think, feel and act as a social unit, and Less like isolated individuals. Members of a highly cohesive group have a greater desire to remain in the group in comparison to those who belong to low cohesive groups.

The determinants of competition and cooperation are:

(1) Reward structure: Psychologists believe that whether people will cooperate or compete will depend on the reward structure. A cooperative reward structure is one in which there is promotive interdependence. Each is a beneficiary of the reward and the reward is possible only if all contribute. A competitive reward structure is one in which one can get a reward only if others do not get it.

(2) Interpersonal communication: When there is good interpersonal communication, then cooperation is the likely consequence. Communication facilitates interaction and discussion. As a result, group members can convince each other and learn about each other.

(3) Reciprocity: Reciprocity means that people feel obliged to return what they get. Initial cooperation may encourage more cooperation. Competition may provoke more competition. If someone helps, you feel Like helping that person; on the other hand, if someone refuses to help you when you need help, you would not like to help that person also.

Question 29.
Describe any four Behaviour techniques used by therapists. [4]
Answer:
A range of techniques is available for changing behaviour. The principles of these techniques are to reduce the arousal level of the client and alter behaviour through classical conditioning or operant conditioning with different contingencies of reinforcements. These techniques are: Persons with behavioural problems can be given a token as a reward every time a wanted behaviour occurs. The tokens are collected and exchanged for a reward such as an outing for the patient or a treat for the child.

This is known as the token economy. The principle of reciprocal inhibition operates here. This principle states that the presence of two mutually opposing forces at the same time inhibits the weaker force. Thus, the relaxation response is first built up and a mildly anxiety-provoking scene is imagined, and the anxiety is overcome by the relaxation. The client is able to tolerate progressively greater Levels of anxiety because of her/ his relaxed state.

Modelling is the procedure wherein the client learns to behave in a certain way by observing the behaviour of a role model or the therapist who initially acts as the role model. Vicarious learning, i.e. learning by observing others, Positive reinforcement is given to increase the deficit. For example, if a child does not do homework regularly, positive reinforcement may be used by the child’s mother by preparing the child’s favourite dish whenever she/he does homework at the appointed time. The positive reinforcement of food will increase the behaviour of doing homework at the appointed time.

Question 30.
With the help of examples, explain the different types of stress. [4]
Answer:
The three major types of stress, viz. physical and environmental, psychological, and social are as follows:

(1) Physical and Environmental Stress: Physical stresses are demands that change the state of our body. We feel strained when we overexert ourselves physically, lack a nutritious diet, suffer an injury, or fail to get enough sleep. Environmental stresses are aspects of our surroundings that are often unavoidable such as air pollution, crowding, noise, the heat of the summer, winter cold, etc. Another group of environmental stresses are catastrophic events or disasters such as fire, earthquake, floods, etc.

(2) Psychological Stress: These are stresses that we generate ourselves in our minds. These are personal and unique to the person experiencing them and are internal sources of stress. Some of the important sources of psychological stress are frustration, conflicts, internal and social pressures, etc. Frustration results from the blocking of needs and motives by something or someone that hinders us from achieving the desired goal. Conflicts may occur between two or more incompatible needs or motives, Social pressures may be brought about by people who make excessive demands on us.

(3) Social events like death or illness in the family, strained relationships, and trouble with neighbours are some examples of social stresses. These social stresses vary widely from person to person. Attending parties may be stressful for a person who likes to spend quiet evenings at home while an outgoing person may find staying at home in the evenings stressful.

Question 31.
Explain the socio-cultural model of abnormality.
OR
Discuss the various types of Conduct disorders. [4]
Answer:
Socio-cultural factors such as war and violence, group prejudice and discrimination, economic and employment problems, and rapid social change, put stress on most of us and can also lead to psychological problems in some individuals. According to the socio-cultural model, abnormal behaviour is best understood in light of the social and cultural forces that influence an individual. As behaviour is shaped by societal forces, factors such as family structure and communication, social networks, societal conditions, and societal Labels and roles become more important.

It has been found that certain family systems are likely to produce abnormal functioning in individual members. Some families have an enmeshed structure in which the members are overinvolved in each other’s activities, thoughts, and feelings. Children from this kind of family may have difficulty becoming independent in life. The broader social networks in which people operate include their social and professional relationships.

Studies have shown that people who are isolated and lack social support, i.e. strong and fulfilling interpersonal relationships in their lives are likely to become more depressed and remain depressed longer than those who have good friendships. Socio-cultural theorists also believe that abnormal functioning is influenced by the societal Labels and roles assigned to troubled people. When people break the norms of their society, they are called deviant and ‘mentally ill. Such labels tend to stick so that the person may be viewed as ‘crazy’ and encouraged to act sick.

The disorders included under this category are Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Conduct Disorder and others. Children with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) display age-inappropriate amounts of stubbornness, are irritable, defiant, disobedient, and behave in a hostile manner. Individuals with ODD do not see themselves as angry, oppositional, or defiant and often justify their behaviour as a reaction to circumstances/demands.

Thus, the symptoms of the disorder become entangled with problematic interactions with others. Terres conduct disorder and antisocial behaviour refer to inappropriate actions and attitudes that violate family expectations, societal norms, and the personal or property rights of others. The behaviours typical of conduct disorder include aggressive actions that cause or threaten harm to people or animals, nonaggressive conduct that causes property damage, major deceitfulness or theft, and serious rule violations.

Children show many different types of aggressive behaviour, such as verbal aggression (i.e. name-calling, swearing), physical aggression (i.e. hitting, fighting), hostile aggression (i.e. directed at inflicting injury to others), and proactive aggression (i.e. dominating and bullying others without provocation).

Section – E (6 Marks)

Question 32.
How does the trait approach conceptualise the notion of personality? Discuss any two theories in detail
OR
Explain any 4 methods of Behavioural analysis. [6]
Answer:
The trait approach focuses on the specific psychological attributes along which individuals tend to differ in consistent and stable ways. A trait is considered a relatively enduring attribute or quality on which one individual differs from another. They include a range of possible behaviours that are activated according to the demands of the situation. Thus,

traits are relatively stable over time.
they are generally consistent across situations, and
their strengths and combinations vary across individuals leading to individual differences in personality.

The trait theories are:

AUport’s Trait Theory: Gordon Allport is considered the pioneer of the trait approach. He proposed that individuals possess a number of traits, which are dynamic in nature. They determine behaviour in such a manner that an individual approaches different situations with similar plans. The traits integrate stimuli and responses which otherwise look dissimilar. Allport argued that the words people use to describe themselves and others provide a basis for understanding human personality.

Allport, based on this, categorised traits into cardinal, central, and secondary. Cardinal traits are highly generalised dispositions. They indicate the goal around which a person’s entire life seems to revolve. Mahatma Gandhi’s non-violence and Hitler’s Nazism are examples of cardinal traits. Such traits often get associated with the name of the person so strongly that they derive such identities as the ‘Gandhian’ or ‘Hitlerian’ trait. Less pervasive in effect, but still quite generalised dispositions, are called central traits.

These traits (e.g., warmth, sincerity, diligence, etc.) are often used in writing a testimonial or job recommendation for a person. The least generalised characteristics of a person are called secondary traits. Traits such as Tikes mangoes’ or ‘prefers ethnic clothes’ are examples of secondary traits. While Allport acknowledged the influence of situations on behaviour, he held that the way a person reacts to given situations depends on her/his traits, although people sharing the same traits might express them in different ways.

Allport considered traits more like intervening variables that occur between the stimulus situation and the response of the person. This meant that any variation in traits would elicit a different response to the same situation Cattell Personality Factors: Raymond Cattell believed that there is a common structure on which people differ from each other. This structure could be determined empirically. He tried to identify the primary traits from a huge array of descriptive adjectives found in language.

He applied a statistical technique, called factor analysis, to discover the common structures. He found 16 primary or source traits. The source traits are stable and are considered the building blocks of personality. Besides these, there are also a number of surface traits that result from the interaction of source traits. Cattell described the source traits in terms of opposing tendencies. He developed a test, called the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), for the assessment of personality. This test is widely used by psychologists.

A person’s behaviour in a variety of situations can provide us with meaningful information about her/his personality. Observation of behaviour serves as the basis of behavioural analysis. An observer’s report may contain data obtained from interviews, observations, ratings, nominations and situational tests.

(1) Observation: Behavioural observation is another method which is very commonly used for the assessment of personality, use of observation for personality assessment is a sophisticated procedure that cannot be carried out by untrained people. It requires careful training of the observer and a fairly detailed guideline about the analysis of behaviours in order to assess the personality of a given person. In spite of their frequent and widespread use, observation and interview methods are characterised by the following Limitations:

Professional training required for the collection of useful data through these methods is quite demanding and time-consuming.
The maturity of the psychologist is a pre¬ condition for obtaining valid data through these techniques.
The mere presence of the observer may contaminate the results. As a stranger, the observer may influence the behaviour of the person being observed and thus not obtain good data.

(2) Situational Tests: A variety of situational tests have been devised for the assessment of personality. The most commonly used test of this kind is the situational stress test. It provides us with information about how a person behaves in stressful situations. The test requires a person to perform a given task with other persons who are instructed to be non-cooperative and interfering. The test involves a kind of role-playing. The person is instructed to play a role for which she/he is observed. A verbal report is also obtained on what she/he was asked to do. The situation may be a realistic one, or it may be created through a video play.

(3) Behavioural Ratings: Behavioural ratings are frequently used for the assessment of personality in educational and industrial settings. They attempt to put individuals into certain categories in terms of their behavioural qualities. The categories may involve different numbers or descriptive terms. It has been found that use of numbers or general descriptive adjectives in rating scales always creates confusion for the rater. In order to use ratings effectively, the traits should be clearly defined in terms of carefully stated behavioural anchors. The method of rating suffers from the following major limitations:

Raters often display certain biases that colour their judgments of different traits. For example, most of us are greatly influenced by a single favourable or unfavourable trait. This often forms the basis of a rater’s overall judgment of a person. This tendency is known as the halo effect.
Raters have a tendency to place individuals either in the middle of the scale (called middle category bias) by avoiding extreme positions, or in the extreme positions (called extreme response bias) by avoiding middle categories on the scale.

(4) Nomination: This method is often used in obtaining peer assessment. It can be used with persons who have been in long-term interaction and who know each other very well. In using nomination, each person is asked to choose one or more persons of the group with whom she/he would like to work, study, play or participate in any other activity. The person may also be asked to specify the reason for her/ his choices. Nominations thus received may be analysed to understand the personality and behavioural qualities of the person. This technique has been found to be highly dependable, although it may also be affected by personal biases.

Section -F (8 Marks)

Case study 1

The psychological notion of intelligence is quite different from the commonsensical notion of intelligence. explains intelligence as the power of perceiving, learning, understanding, and knowing. Early intelligence theorists also used these attributes in defining intelligence.

Question 33.
How did Alfred Binet describe intelligence? Explain his theory. [2]
Answer:
Available in different cultural traditions. Binet’s theory of intelligence was rather simple as it arose from his interest in differentiating more intelligent from less intelligent individuals. He, therefore, conceptualised intelligence as consisting of one similar set of abilities which can be used for solving any or every problem in an individual’s environment. His theory of intelligence is called Uni or the one-factor theory of intelligence.

Question 34.
What is the most accepted definition of intelligence? [2]
Answer:
Wechsler, whose intelligence tests are most widely used, understood intelligence in terms of its functionality, i.e. its value for adaptation
to environment. He defined it as the global and aggregate capacity of an individual to think rationally, act purposefully, and to deal effectively with her/his environment.

Case study 2

Gordon Allport is considered the pioneer of the trait approach. He proposed that individuals possess a number of traits, which are dynamic in nature. They determine behaviour in such a manner that an individual approaches different situations with similar plans. The traits integrate stimuli and responses which otherwise look dissimilar. Allport argued that the words people use to describe themselves and others provide a basis for understanding human personality.

Question 35.
Describe Allport’s theory of personality. [2]
Answer:
Gordon Allport is considered the pioneer of the trait approach. He proposed that individuals possess a number of traits, which are dynamic in nature. Gordon Allport is considered the pioneer of the trait approach. He proposed that individuals possess a number of traits, which are dynamic in nature. Lesspervasive in effect, but still quite generalised dispositions, are called central traits. The least generalised characteristics of a person are called secondary traits.

Question 36.
“Any variation in traits would elicit a different response to the same situation”. Explain. [2]
Answer:
While Allport acknowledged the influence of situations on behaviour, he held that the way a person reacts to given situations depends on her/his traits, although people sharing the same traits might express them in different ways. Allport considered traits more like intervening variables that occur between the stimulus situation and the response of the person. This meant that any variation in traits would elicit a different response to the same situation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Set 10 with Solutions

February 23, 2023

students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions :

All questions are compulsory.
The question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D. There are 27 questions in the question paper.
Sedion-A has 5 questions ofl mark each. Section-B has 7 questions of 2 marks each. Section-C has 12 questions of 3 marks each and Section-D has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Systematics is the branch of biology that deals with the identification, naming and classification of
organisms into groups.
Reason (R): The aim of classification is to group organisms.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Systematics is the branch of biology that deals with identification, naming and classification of the organisms into groups. The aim of classification is to group the organisms.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Meiosis is also known as ‘Reduction Division’.
Reason (R): The chromosomes replicate and get equally distributed both quantitatively and qualitatively into two daughter cells.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(D) A is false but R is true.
Explanation: Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis in plants and animals, This results in the production of haploid gametes. Meiosis I results in the number of chromosomes and crossing over during pachytene and Meiosis I results in the introduction of variation.

Question 3.
Modern classification is based on:
(A) Fossils
(B) Phycology
(C) Phylogeny
(D) Morphology
Answer:
(C) Phylogeny

Question 4.
Pyruvic acid gets reduced to lactic acid by enzyme/enzymes
(A) alcohol dehydrogenase.
(B) pyruvate dehydrogenase.
(C) lactate and pyruvate dehydrogenase.
(D) alcohol and pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Answer:
(D) alcohol and pyruvate dehydrogenase.

Question 5.
The part of the pancreas that secretes insulin is:
(A) Glomerulus
(B) Bowman’s capsule
(C) Islets of Langerhans
(D) Loop of Henle
Answer:
(C) Islets of Langerhans

Section – B

Question 6.
“There exists a clear division of labour within the chloroplast”. Comment.
Answer:
There is a clear division of labour within the chloroplast. The membrane system is responsible for the light reaction (trapping light energy and synthesis of ATP and (NADPH) while the dark reaction i.e., enzymatic reactions for the reduction of carbon dioxide into sugars using ATP and NADPH takes place in the stroma region of chloroplast.

Question 7.
What are the unique features of sponges?
Answer:
The sponges have pores all over the body, cellular level of organisation, a canal system for the passage of water current, choanocytes lining the main cavity (spongocoel) or certain canal (radial canal), skeleton made up of spicules and spongin fibres and they are devoid of mouth and digestive cavity.

Question 8.
Explain the process of ATP formation during aerobic respiration (in mitochondria).
Answer:
The synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate using energy from proton gradient is called oxidative phosphorylation. This takes place in elementary particles present on the inner membrane of cristae of mitochondria. The process in mitochondria is catalysed by ATP synthase. This complex has two major components-F0 and Fr F0 acts as channel for proton and F( acts as an ATP synthase.

Question 9.
From which cells do platelets originate? What is their life span? How do they act when blood vessels get injured?
Answer:
Platelets are produced from megakaryocytes present in the bone marrow. The life span of platelets is 3 to 7 days only. When an injury is caused, the blood platelets disintegrate and release certain chemicals called the platelet factors which help in the clotting of blood.

Question 10.
How are secondary vascular tissues formed in dicot roots?
Answer:

The primary dicot roots lack cambium,
The vascular cambium appears later as a secondary meristem, which develops partially from conjunctive parenchyma and partially from pericycle.
The parenchyma cells lying beneath the phloem bundles become meristematic to form cambium strips,
The cells of the pericycle just outside the protoxylem also become meristematic and joins with the cambium strips to form a wavy band of cambium ring
This cambium ring form secondary xylem on the inner side and secondary phloem on the outer side.
The cambium is always more active towards the inner side during the formation of secondary vascular tissues.

Question 11.
What is a fruit? Describe various zones of fruit by taking an example of succulent fruit.
Answer:
Various zones of fruit:

A succulent fruit like mango consists of pericarp and the seed.
The pericarp is divided into three zones: epicarp, mesocarp and the endocarp.
In mango, the outer skin is epicarp.
The sweet, pulpy and edible portion is mesocarp.
Endocarp is the innermost hard zone which encloses the seed

Question 12.
Mention the bones which form limbs.
Answer:
The bones Which make up arm are: 1 humerus, 1 radius, 1 ulna, 8 carpal bones, 5 metacarpal, 5 digits (14 phalanges). The bones which make up leg are: 1 femur, 1 tibia, 1 fibula, 1 patella (knee cap), 7 tarsal bones, 5 metatarsals, 5 digits (14 phalanges).

Section – C

Question 13.
What are hormogonia? Give one example of cyanobacteria which reproduce by binary fission.
Answer:

Hormogonia are motile filaments of cells formed by some cyanobacteria.
They are formed during asexual reproduction in unicellular, filamentous cyanobacteria.
The thick-walled hormogonium is referred to as hormocysts. Hormocysts are helpful in reproduction.
Unicellular cyanobacteria which reproduce by binary fission is Chroococcus.

Question 14.
Explain different types of venations.
Answer:
Venation: The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of a leaf is called venation. The veins are not only the conducting channels for water, minerals and organic food, they also provide firmness to the lamina and keep it expanded. They give rise to lateral veins, which traverse the entire lamina. Venation is of two types: Reticulate and parallel.

Reticulate Venation: When the veinlets form a network, the venation is termed as reticulate venation, for e.g, leaves of dicot plants.
Parallel Venation: When the veins arising from mid rib or main veins, run parallel to each other towards the margin or the apex of the lamina, venation is termed as parallel venation,. pPresent in the leaves of monocot

plants. Parallel venation is of two sub-types:
(a) Pinnate or Unicostate parallel venation: The lamina has a single prominent vein or midrib running from the base to the apex of lamina, e.g., Banana, Canna, etc.

(b) Palmate or multicostate parallel venation: The lamina has several principal veins arising from the base and running towards the apex or margin of the lamina.

Question 15.
Describe the gametophytic phase exhibited by moss.
Answer:
The predominant stage in the life cycle of moss is the gametophyte which consists of two stages:
(a) The first stage is the protonema stage, which develops directly from a spore; it is a creeping, green, branched and filamentous stage.

(b) The second stage is the leafy stage, which develops from the secondary protonema as a lateral bud. The leafy stage consists of upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves and bears the sex organs.

Question 16.
What is the significance of the juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) in kidney function?
Answer:
Significance of juxta glomerular apparatus:

The aldosterone is a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland. It controls the level of sodium in the blood.
Reabsorption is controlled by a hormone, renin produced in the kidneys. The function of the renin is the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin II, which is produced in the liver.
This angiotensin stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone. Aldosterone induces the distal nephron to reabsorb more water and Na⁺.

Question 17.
Name the three types of respiration in the frog. How does a frog respire during hibernation?
Answer:
The three types of respiration in a frog are:

Cutaneous respiration,
Buccal respiration,
Pulmonary respiration.

The skin of the frog is moist, slimy and highly vascularised which is especially useful for respiration in hibernation and aestivation. The oxygen of the atmosphere enters the thin film of skin moisture where it goes to the blood capillaries of the skin. The oxygen mixes with the blood and passes to the different organs of the body. The carbon dioxide formed in the body organs is taken up by the blood capillaries to the skin from where it diffuses out into the air.

Question 18.
What are the characteristics of enzymes?
Answer:
Enzymes-characteristics:
(i) Approximately all the enzymes are proteinaceous in nature. An enzyme/protein has a primary structure (amino add sequence of protein). Enzymes like protein has secondary and tertiary structure.

(ii) The backbone of protein chain folds upon itself, chain criss-crosses itself and so several crevices or pockets are made out. One pocket is known as ‘active site’. So, the enzymes, through their active site, catalyse reactions at a high rate.

(iii) The enzymes get denatured at a high temperature (above 40°C). The enzymes isolated from organisms who live under extremely high temperatures e.g., hot vents and sulphur springs, are stable and retain their catalytic power at high temperatures (up to 80°-90°C).

Question 19.
(a) What is meant by cytokinesis?
(b) How cytokinesis in plants differ from that in animals?
(c) With reference to the cell types undergoing mitosis, differentiate between animal cells and plant cells.
Answer:
(a) Cytokinesis is the cytoplasmic division of a cell at the end of mitosis or meiosis, which bring about the separation into two daughter cells.

(b) In animal cell, division of cytoplasm takes place by deavage while in plant cell, division of cytoplasm takes place by cell-plate formation.

(c) In plants, a new cell wall is fashioned between the new daughter cells, while in animal cells, the cell membrane constricts to pinch the parent cell into daughter cells.

Question 20.
Mention the similarities between mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Answer:
Similarities between mitochondria and chloroplasts:

Presence of double membrane envelope.
Formation of involutions from the inner membrane.
Both are semi-autonomous.
DNA is naked in both and both possess 70S ribosomes.
Take part in energy transduction.
Both of them produce ATE

Question 21.
Why is ABA known as ‘stress hormone’? Mention any two functions of this hormone. How are they antagonistic to
gibberellins?
Answer:
Absdsic add is also called as stress hormone because the synthesis of absdsic add is stimulated by drought, water logging and other adverse environmental conditions. It is produced in many parts of the plants but more abundantly inside the chloroplast of green cells. Absdsic add owes its name to its role in the absdssion of plant leaves. In preparation for winter, ABA is produced in terminal buds. This slows plant growth and directs leaf primordia to develop scales to protect the dormant buds during the cold season. They are antagonistic to gibberellins as gibberellins promotes stem elongation while absdsic acid acts as growth inhibitor.

Question 22.
Describe briefly the regulation of kidney function by the following:
(i) ADH
(ii) ANF
Answer:
Regulation of Kidney:
(i) ADH: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by hypothalamus of the brain and released into the blood from the posterior Jobe of the pituitary gland. The release of ADH is triggered when osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in the osmolarity of the blood above a set point of 300 osmo mL^-1 In this situation, the osmoreceptor cells also promote thirst. It increases the reabsorption of water in the DCT and collecting duct.

(ii) ANF: Atrial natriuretic factor is another hormone which opposes the regulation by RAAS. The walls of the artety of the heart release ANF in response to an increase in blood volume and pressure. ANF inhibits the release of renin from the 1G cells and thereby inhibits NaC1 reabsorption by the collecting duct and reduces aldosterone release from the adrenal gland. Thus, ADH, RAAS and ANF regulate the function of the kidneys. As a result, they control body fluid osinolatit salt concentration, blood pressure and blood volume.

Question 23.
Why do we call our heart myogenic?
Answer:
The human heart is myogenic as the contraction is initiated by a specially modified heart muscle known as the sino- atrial node (SA node). It is located in the right atrium. The SA node has the inherent power of generating a wave of contraction and controlling the heartbeat. Hence, it is known as the pacemaker.

Question 24.
Describe the role of red blood cells in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by blood.
Answer:
Role of red blood cells in the transport of oxygen:
(i) Red blood cells are known as erythrocytes. They carry oxygen in the form of an unstable, easily dissociable chemical combination with the haemoglobin.

(ii) O2 diffuse into RBCs and combines usually with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin.
Hb₄ + O2 ⇔ Hb₄O₈

(iii) In tissues oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and deoxyhemoglobin at low partial pressure.

(iv) The blood carries its full load to O₂ until it enters the capillaries in tissues to the lungs.

Role of red blood cells in the transport of CO₂:
(i) Carbon dioxide is carried by RBCs. About 30% of CO₂ is carried by RBC’s from tissues to the lungs.

(ii) COz on entering the red blood cell loosely combines with the amino group of reduced Hb and forms carbaminohaemoglobin.

CO₂ + Hb ⇔ HbCO₂
(Carbaminohaemoglobin)

Section – D

Question 25.
Read the following to answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: 5×1 = 5
In pteridophytes, the sporophyte produces spores through meiosis. The spores are produced by the sporangia in the spore mother ceEs. These spores germinate to give rise to gametophytes. The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs. Water is required for transfer of antherozoids – the male gametes released from the male sex organ to the mouth of the female sex organ. Fusion of male gamete with the egg results in the formation of zygote. Zygote thereafter produces a multicellular well-differentiated sporophyte.

In majority of the pteridophytes, all the spores are of similar kinds. However, some genera also produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small) spores. The megaspores and microspores germinate and give rise to female and male gametophytes, respectively. In these plants, the female gametophytes are retained on the parent sporophytes for variable periods. The development of zygote develops into young embryos within the female gametophytes. This event is a precursor to the seed habit considered an important step in evolution.

(i) The gametophytes are called
(A) thalli
(B) prothallus
(C) strobilus
(D) liverworts
Answer:
(B) prothallus
Explanation:
It bears sex-organs and represents the gametophyte phase in the life cycle of pteridophytes.

(ii) In pteridophytes, the dominant form of life ¡s the.
(A) gametophyte
(B) haploid
(C) sporophyte
(D) triploid
Answer:
(C) sporophyte
Explanation:
In pteridophytes, the dominant phase is sporophyte which represents main plant body differentiated into root, stem and leaves. Gametophyte is small and short-lived. Life cycle is diplohaplontic type.

(iii) Pteridophytes are …………….. plants.
(A) homosporous
(B) heterosporous
(C) hornosporous and heterosporous
(D) megasporous.
Answer:
(C) hornosporous and heterosporous
Explanation:
If all the spores are of similar kind, the condition is homosporous whereas if they are of two types it is called heterosporous.

(iv) In ptendophytes, the male and female sex organs of the gametophytes are called respectively.
(A) anthers and archegonia
(B) archegonia and antheridia
(C) archegonia and anthers
(D) antheridia and archegonia
Answer:
(D) antheridia and archegonia
Explanation:
Antheridia produces male gamete and archegonia produces egg or female gametes.

(v) In all type of pteridophytes, all the spores are of similar kinds. (True/False)
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Some genera also produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small) spores.

Question 26.
Describe the structure of cell wall.
OR
Describe the sub-phases of prophase I of meiosis I.
Answer:
The cell wall is differentiated into three parts i.e., middle lamella, primary wall and secondary wall.

(i) Middle lamella:
(a) It is a thin amorphous cementing layer between two adjacent cells.
(b) It is the first Layer, which is deposited at the time of cytokinesis.
(c) It is composed of calcium and magnesium pectate.

(ii) Primary wall:
(a) It is thin, elastic and extensible in growing cells.
(b) It grows by addition of wall material within the existing one. Such growth is termed as intussusception.
(c) This wall consist consists of a loose network of cellulose microfibrils.
(d) These microfibrils in fungi are made up of a polymer of acetyl glucosamine. (y) The matrix of wall is chiefly composed of water, hemicellulose, pectins and glycoproteins.

(iii) Secondary wall:
(a) After maturity, a thick secondary wall is laid inner to the primary wall by accretion or deposition of materials. It is found in many layers.
(b) A number of different materials may be deposited in the secondary wall, e.g., lignin and suberin.

OR
Prophase I of meiosis I:
It is more complicated and prolonged as compared to the similar stage of mitosis. It may be divided into the five sub-phases.
(i) Leptotene or leptonema:
(a) It is the first stage of meiotic division following the interphase.
(b) The chromatin fibres of interphase nucleus gets shortened and elongated, chromosomes become clear.

(ii) Zygotenc or zygonema:
The homologous chromosomes come to Lie side by side and get attadwd laterally due to the development of nudeoprotein between them. This pairing of homologous chromosomes is called synapsis or synthesis. On account of synapsis, chromosomes form pairs or bivalent. The number of bivalents is half the
number of the total chromosomes.

(iii) Pachytene or pachynema:
(a) The paired chromosomes or bivalent become short and thick. The chromatids of each paired chromosome slightly separate and become visible. Thus, each bivalent or chromosome pair is made up of actually four chromatids, two of each chromosome,

(b) Each group of four chromatids is referred to as tetrad. During pachytene, the exchange of the corresponding segments of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, occurs. This process is called crossing over,

(iv) Diplotene or Diplonema:
(a) The nucleoprotein fusion complex of the synapsed chromosomes dissolves.
(b) The homologous chromosomes start separating except in the region of crossing over.
(c) The points of attachment between the homologous chromosomes are called chiasmata.

(v) Diakinesis: This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. During this phase, the chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation. The nucleolus/ nucleoli disappear and nudear envelope breaks down into vesicles.

Question 27.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: 5×1=5
The current and projected changes in abiotic stresses such as heat, cold, drought and salinity adversely affect the plant growth that ultimately limits productivity and is the leading cause of crop losses worldwide. During stress conditions, plants reduce the growth and development process, which ultimately affects the yield. In stress conditions, plants develop various stress mechanisms to face the magnitude of stress challenges.

Therefore, many strategies have been used to produce abiotic stress tolerance crop plants, among them, absdsic acid (ABA) phytohormone engineering could be one of the methods of choice. ABA regulates various physiological processes ranging from stomatal opening to protein storage and provides adaptation to many stresses like drought, salt, and cold stresses. ABA acts as the signalling mediator for regulating the adaptive response of plants to different environmental stress conditions.

(i) In the given paragraph which phytohormone is a derivative of carotenoids?
Answer:

(ii) Why Abscisic acid is called stress hormone of tree?
Answer:
Absrisic add helps the plant to survive during unfavourable conditions of the environment. It is observed that when there is a defitiency of water in leaves, ABA concentration increases and it promotes closure of stomata hence it is called stress hormone.

(iii) How ABA is antagonistic to Gibberellic acid?
Answer:
ABA is a plant growth inhibitor. It induces dormancy and promotes senescence. These effects are opposite to that of gibberellins, hence ABA acts as an antagonist to gibberellins.

(iv) State some factors for development of stress in plant.
Answer:
Drought, salt, heat and cold weather are some factors of plant stress.

(v) State some effects of ABA.
Answer:
Absdsic acid stimulates the growth and development of the root system including adventitious roots of the hypocotyl, the formation and growth of the lateral shoots of the cotyledonary node etc.

OR
Under high concentration of O₂, RuBP binds with O₂ and forms one molecule of phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate. 1+2+2

(i) What is this process called?
Answer:
Photorespiration

(ii) Why is this process called a wasteful process?
Answer:
Photorespiration is called wasteful process because :
(a) No energy is produced in this process.
(b) Oxygen is consumed for nothing.
(c) H₂O₂ is produced which is highly toxic.
(d) The yield of photosynthesis is reduced to 50%.

(iii) Briefly explain the pathway by which some plants ensure that the RuBisCO functions as a carboxylase, minimizing the oxygenase activity?
Answer:
In C₄ plants e.g., maize, sugar cane, grasses etc. light reaction occurs in mesophyll cells and RuBisCO is found in bundle sheath cells in which CO₂ fixation occurs. Thus, in C₄ plants RuBisCO remains protected from sunlight and is also protected from oxygenation, because in bundle sheath cells only dark reactions occurs. In these plants the phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP), a 3-carbon compound acts as CO₂ acceptor. The PEP combines with CO₂ to form a 4-carbon compound oxaloacetric acid (OAA) which is soon converted into malic acid, a 4-carbon compound. The malic acid releases CO₂ which is transferred to bundle sheath cells where it is fixed through Calvin cycle. The C₄ plants have a characteristic Kranz anatomy of leaf. There is no photorespiration in these plants.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 1 with Solutions

February 22, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions Set 1 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises five Sections- A, B, C, D, and E. There are 34 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.

Section A – Questions no. 1 to 21 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
Section B – Questions no. 22 to 27 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 60-80 words.
Section C – Questions no. 28 to 30 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 8 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 300-350 words.
Section D – Questions no. 31 to 33 are Source-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
Section E – Question no. 34 is based, carrying 5 marks that include the identification and location of significant test items. Attach the map with the answer book.

Section- A (21 Marks)

Question 1.
Identify the ruler of the Satvahana dynasty with the help of the following information: [1]
He claimed to be both a unique Brahmana and a destroyer of the pride of Kshatriyas.
He also claimed to have ensured that there was no intermarriage amongst members of the four varnas.
(A) Gotami-puta Siri-Vijaya-Satakani
(B) Gotami-puta Siri Satakani
(C) Gotami-puta sami-Siri-Yana-Satakani
(D) Vasithi-puta (sami-)Siri Pulumayi
Answer:
(B) Gotami-puta Siri Satakani

Explanation: The best-known ruler of the Satavahana dynasty, Gotami-puta Siri-Satakani, claimed to be both a unique Brahmana (eka bamhana) and a destroyer of the pride of Kshatriyas. He also claimed to have ensured that there was no intermarriage amongst members of the four vamas. At the same time, he entered into a marriage alliance with the kin of Rudradaman.

Question 2.
Who among the following had issued the first gold coins in the first century CE? [1]
(A) The Yaudheyas
(B) The Parthians
(C) The Guptas
(D) The Kushanas
Answer:
(D) The Kushanas

Explanation: The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent c. second century BCE. The kushanas, however, issued the largest hoards of gold coins first gold coins c. first century CE. These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman emperors and the Parthian rulers of Iran, and have been found from several sites in north India and Central Asia.

Question 3.
Match the following and select the correct option [1]

List – I Harappan Site	List – II Famous for
1. Lothal	a. Specialised centres for making shell objects
2. Kalibangan	b. Near sources of camelian
3. Dholavira	c. Evidence of ploughed field found
4. Nageshwar	d. Water reservoirs found.

(A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d , 4-a
(B) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c , 4-b
(C) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d , 4-a
(D) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b , 4-c
Answer:
(A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d , 4-a

Explanation:

Lothal was dockyard of the Indus Valley Civilization and presentlylocated inthe state of Gujarat near sources of carnelian (from Bharuch in Gujarat).
Archaeologists have also found evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan (Rajasthan), associated with Early Harappan levels. The field had two sets of furrows at right angles to each other, suggesting that two different crops were grown together.
Dholavira (presently in Gujarat) have yielded the evidences of water reservoirs that may have been used to store water for agriculture.
Nageshwar and Balakot were settlements located near the coast and were specialised centres for making shell objects.

Question 4.
Which one of the following statements is the correct explanation of ‘Endogamy’? [1]
(A) Marriage outside a kin group.
(B) Marriage within a kin group.
(C) A woman having several husbands.
(D) A man having several wives.
Answer:
(B) Marriage within a kin group.

Explanation: Endogamy refers to marriage within a unit, say a kin, a caste or a group living together in same locality.

Question 5.
Identify the given image from the following options: [1]

(A) Sculpture of a Gupta king
(B) Sculpture of a Maurya king
(C) Sculpture of a Kushana king
(D) Sculpture of a Chola king
Answer:
(C) Sculpture of a Kushana king

Question 6.
“Be lamps unto yourselves as all of you must work out your own liberation.”
Identify the essence of the words of Buddha from the options given below: [1]
(A) One should connect to inner being
(B) One should live life of brahmacharya
(C) One should focus and express feelings
(D) One should spread religion everywhere.
Answer:
(A) One should connect to inner being

Explanation: The given statement was, according to the Buddhist scriptures, were the last words of the Lord Buddha to his followers emphasizing the importance of the inner connect.

Question 7.
Which one among the following dynasties built the Hiriya canal? [1]
(A) Sangama dynasty
(B) Tuluva dynasty
(C) Saluva dynasty
(D) Aravidu dynasty
Answer:
(A) Sangama dynasty

Explanation: Hiriya canal drew water from a dam across the Tungabhadra and irrigated the cultivated valley that separated the “sacred centre” from the “urban core”. This was apparently built by kings of the Sangama dynasty.

Question 8.
Fill in the blank :
The local merchants of the Vijayanagara empire who participated in the trade of horses were called ______. [1]
(A) Gajapati
(B) Mahanayakas
(C) Kudirai Chettis
(D) Narapati
Answer:
(C) Kudirai Chettis

Explanation: As warfare during these times depended upon effective cavalry, the import of horses from Arabia and Central Asia was very important for rival kingdoms. This trade was initially controlled by Arab traders. Local communities of merchants known as kudirai chettis or horse merchants also participated in these exchanges.

Question 9.
Find out the correct chronological order of ‘the Chishti Silsila’ from the following options : [1]
(I) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(II) Shaikh Fariduddin Ganj – Shakar
(III) Shaikh Nasiruddin Chiragh-i Delhi
(IV) Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi
(A) I, II, III & IV
(B) II, III, IV & I
(C) III, II, I & IV
(D) IV, II, I & III
Answer:
(A) I, II, III & IV

MAJOR TEACHERS OF THE CHISHTI SILSILA
SURI TEACHERS	YEAR OF DEATH	LOCATION OF DARGAH
Shailk Muinuddin Sijzi	1235	Ajmer (Rajasthan)
Khwaja Qutbuddin bakhtiyar kaki	1235	Delhi
Shaikh Fariduddin Ganj-i Shakar	1265	Ajodhan (Pakistan)
Shaikh Zizamuddin Auliya	1325	Delhi
Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirgah-I Delhi	1356	Delhi

Question 10.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Archaeologists and historians find Harappan script enigmatic.
Reason (R): The Harrapan script remains undeciphered till date. [1]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct
Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 11.
Complete the following with the correct option
Kitab ul Hind : Al-Biruni , Rihla ______ : [1]
(A) IbnHawqal
(B) Ibn Jubayr
(C) Ibn Qalaqis
(D) Ibn Battuta
Answer:
(D) Ibn Battuta

Explanation: Ibn Battuta’s book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, provides extremely rich and interesting details about the social and cultural life in the subcontinent in the fourteenth century.

Question 12.
Who was the political Guru of Mahatma Gandhi? [1]

List-I CENTRE	List-II LEADER
(A) Delhi	Nana Saheb
(B) Kanpur	Kunwar Singh
(C) Arrah	Bahadur Shah
(D) Lucknow	Birjis Qadr

(A) M.G. Ranade
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Pherozeshah Mehta
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Question 13.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Santhals were given land and persuaded to settle in the rocky upper part of Rajmahal Hills.
Reason (R): The British perceived Paharias and Santhals as ideal settlers [1]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct
Answer:
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct

Explanation: The British did not perceived Paharias as the ideal settlers.

Question 14.
Consider the following statements and select the correct from the following option: [1]
I. Francois Bernier was closely associated with the Prince Dara Shukoh.
II. Bernier travelled to several parts of the country, and wrote accounts
III. He dedicated his major writing to the king of France and Aurangzeb.
(A) II & III
(B) II & III
(C) I & II
(D) I & III
Answer:
(C) I & II

Explanation: Francois Bernier, a Frenchman, was a doctor, political philosopher and historian. Like many others, he came to the Mughal Empire in search of opportunities. He was in India for twelve years, from 1656 to 1668, and was closely associated with the Mughal court, as a physician to Prince Dara Shukoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan, and later as an intellectual and scientist, with Danishmand Khan, an Armenian noble at the Mughal court.

Question 15.
From which of the following regions Ahom rulers belonged to? [1]
(A) Delhi
(B) Orissa
(C) Ajmer
(D) Assam
Answer:
(D) Assam

Question 16.
Which one of the following metallic coins was more prevalent during the Mughal Empire.? [1]
(A) Gold
(B) Copper
(C) Bronze
(D) Silver
Answer:
(D) Silver

Explanation: The period between the sixteenth and eighteenth centuries was also marked by are markable stability in the availability of metal currency, particularly the silver rupya in India. This facilitated an unprecedented of minting of coins and die circulation of money in the economy as well as the ability of the Mughal state to extract taxes and revenue in cash.

Question 17.
Who among the following Introduced Permanent Settlement in Bengal? [1]
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Irwin
(D) Lord Bentinck
Answer:
(A) Lord Cornwallis

Explanation: Charles Cornwallis was the commander of the British forces during the American War of Independence and the Governor General of Bengal when the Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793.

Question 18.
Which of the following options is correct? [1]
(A) Gandhi ji started Quit India Mission in 1930.
(B) Gandhiji gave his first speech in Champaran
(C) Gandhiji worked as radical nationalist leader
(D) Gandhi considered G.K. Gokhale as his political mentor
Answer:
(D) Gandhi considered G.K. Gokhale as his political mentor

Explanation: Quit India Mission was started by Gandhi ji in 1942. Gandhi Ji was a nationalist who believed in principles of non-violence and satyagraha.

Question 19.
Find out from the following pairs which one is NOT correctly matched: [1]
(A) Lord Wellesley: Subsidiary Alliance
(B) Lord Dalhousie: Doctrine of Lapse
(C) Lord Henry Hardinge: Introduced the Enfield rifles
(D) Lord Canning: Religious Disabilities Act
Answer:
(D) Lord Canning: Religious Disabilities Act

Explanation: Religious Disabilities Act was passed 1850 during the reign Lord Dalhousie to stop forced conversion in order to inherit property of ancestors.

Question 20.
Who among the following was the President of Constituent Assembly? [1]
(A) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) VallabhBhai Patel
Answer:
(C) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly, where he had to steer the discussion along constructive lines while making sure all members had a chance to speak.

Question 21.
Which one of the following languages was favored by Gandhiji as the national language? [1]
(A) Hindi
(B) Urdu
(C) Hindustani
(D) English
Answer:
(C) Hindustani

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi felt that everyone should speak in a language that common people could easily understand. Hindustani- a blend of Hindi and Urdu- was a popular language of a large section of the people of India, and it was a composite language enriched by the interaction of diverse cultures.

Section- B (18 Marks)

Question 22.
Describe any three sources to know about Harrapan civilization.
OR
Describe any three features of Harrapan drainage system. [3]
Answer:

The Harappan seal
Distinctive Artefact
Beads, Weights, Blades
Terracotta Bull
Copper Tools
Reservoir At Dholavira
Faience Pots
A Terracotta Figurine
“Priest-King” Stone Statue
Any other relevant point

Harappan cities had the carefully planned drainage system. Roads and streets were laid out along an approximate “grid” pattern, intersecting at right angles. Streets with drains were laid out first and then houses were built along them. Drainages were made with burned bricks. The drains were made of mortar, lime and gypsum. They were covered with big bricks and stones which could be lifted easily to dean the drains. Lime stones were used as cesspits. Any other relevant point

Question 23.
“Magadha was the most powerful Mahajanpada ‘. Examine the statement [3]
Answer:
Magadha was a region where agriculture was productive. The Ganga and its tributaries provided a means of cheap and convenient communication. Iron mines were accessible and provided resources for tools and weapons. Elephants, an important of the army, were found in forests in the region. Ambitious kings, of whom Bimbisara, Ajatasattu and Mahapadma Nanda are the best known, and their ministers, who helped implement their polides vi. Any other relevant point.

Question 24.
Analyze the concept of the Asiatic mode of production as stated by Karl Marx. [3]
Answer:
The idea of Bernier based on differences between Mughal India and Europe on the lack of private property was further developed by Karl Marx as the concept of the Asiatic mode of production . Marx argued that in India (and other Asian countries), before colonialism, surplus was appropriated by the state.

This led to the emergence of a sodety that was composed of a large number of autonomous and egalitarian village communities. The imperial court presided over these village communities, respecting their autonomy as long as the flow of surplus was unimpeded. This was regarded as a stagnant system. Any other relevant point

Question 25.
Describe the features of water resources of Vijayanagar empire. [3]
Answer:
The natural basin of Vijayanagar was formed by the river Tungabhadra. A number of streams flow down to the river from these rocky outcrops. Embankments were built along the streams to create reservoirs. Elaborate arrangements were made to store rainwater. The most important tank was Kamalapuram tank.

One of the most prominent waterworks was the Hiriya canal. The canal drew water from a dam across the Tungabhadra. Water resources irrigated the cultivated valley that separated the “Sacred Centre” from the “Urban Core”. Any other relevant point.

Question 26.
“The power of the Jotedars was more effective than that of the zamindars. Justify the statement with suitable arguments. [3]
Answer:
Jotedars were located in the villages unlike zamindars. Jotedars exercised direct control over a considerable section of poor villagers. They fiercely resisted efforts by zamindars to increase the jama of the village. They prevented zamindari officials from executing their duties. They mobilised ryots who were dependent on them. They deliberately delayed payments of revenue to the zamindar. Jotedars were often amongst the purchasers in the auction of land. Any other relevant point

Question 27.
“Art and literature helped in keeping alive the memory of 1857.” Explain with examples from Indian perspective.
OR
Rumours and prophesies played an important role in the Revolt of 1857/ Explain the statement with example [3]
Answer:
The leaders of the revolt were presented as heroic figures leading the country into battle. It helped in rousing the people to righteous indignation against oppressive imperial rule. Heroic poems were written about the velour of Lakshmi Bai Rani fought for the freedom of her motherland. Rani of Jhansi was represented as a masculine figure chasing the enemy, slaying British soldiers and valiantly fighting till her last.

In popular prints Rani Lakshmi Bai is usually portrayed in battle armor, with a sword in hand and riding a horse – a symbol of the determination to resist injustice and alien rule. Subhadra Kumari Chauhan wrote: “Khoob lari mardani woh to Jhansi wali rani thi”. Any other relevant point.

Cartridges of the Enfield rifles -Bullets coated with the fat of cows and pigs and that biting those bullets would corrupt their caste and religion. Flour-According to rumors the British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour that was sold in the market. Chapattis -Reports came from various parts of North India that chapattis were being distributed from village to village.

Lota and khalasi issue- khalasi from a lower caste asked a Brahmin sepoy to give him some water from his container of water. The sepoy refused to give him his container saying that touch by a lower caste would pollute the water. Any other relevant point Any three points to be explained with example

Section – C (24 Marks)

Question 28.
Describe the familial relationship observed during Mahabharat era.
OR
Describe the Social implications of access to Resources during Mahabharat period. [8]
Answer:
Families are usually parts of larger networks of people defined as relatives/ kinfolk. People belonging to the same family share food, resources, work, and live together and perform rituals together. Familial ties were often regarded as “natural” and based on blood. Rules about patriliny-The Mahabharata shows patriliny. It describes a feud over land and power between the Kauravas and the Pandavas. Most ruling dynasties followed patrilineal with little variations.

In very exceptional circumstances, women such as Prabhavati Gupta exercised power. Rules of marriage- There were two systems of marriageEndogamy and Exogamy. Marriages-Girls were married at the “right” time and to the “right” person, ix. Kanyadana or the gift of a daughter in marriage was an important religious duty of the father.

There are three types of marriage- Monogamy, polygamy or Polyandry. Marriage norms were compiled in Dharmasutras, Dharmashastras and Manusmriti. These texts recognized as many as eight forms of marriage. The Gotra rules for women- Each gotra was named after a Vedic seer, and all those who belonged to the same gotra were regarded as his descendants.

Two rules about gotra were particularly important:
(a) women were expected to give up their father’s gotra and adopt that of their husband on marriage and
(b) members of the same gotra could not marry. Some of the Satavahana rulers were polygynous. Importance to mothers. Any other relevant point.

Gendered access to property: According to the Dharmashastras the paternal estate was to be divided equally amongst sons after the death of the Father, with a special share for the eldest. Women could not claim a share of these resources. Women were allowed to retain stridhana. This could be inherited by their children, without the husband having any claim on it. Wealthy women such as the Vakataka queen Prabhavati Gupta had property including lands.

Epigraphic and textual evidences suggest that upper-class women had access to resources, land, cattle and money. Varna and access to property-There were criterion for regulating access to wealth was vama. While a variety of occupations were listed for varnas. Poems included in the Tamil Sangam anthologies often illuminate social and economic relationships, while there were differences between rich and poor, those who controlled resources were also expected to share them. Any other relevant point.

Question 29.
Analyze the importance and limitations of A-i-Akbari as a source of Akbar’s reign.
OR
Examine the ways in which panchayats and village headmen regulated Mughal rural society. [8]
Answer:
IMPORTANCE

The Ain gives detailed accounts of the organization of the Mughals
It included court, administration and army, the sources of revenue and the physical layout of the provinces of Akbar’s empire.
It included the literary, cultural and religious traditions of the people
It mentioned descriptions of provinces (subas) of the empire
Ain gives us intricate quantitative information of Mughal provinces.
Description of diverse customs and practices prevailing across extensive territories.
The Ain is therefore a mine of information about Akbar’s reign.
Any other relevant point

LIMITATIONS

Numerous errors in totaling have been detected
Ain is the somewhat skewed nature of the quantitative data
While the fiscal data from the subas is remarkable for its richness, some equally vital parameters such as prices and wages from these same areas are not as well documented.
The detailed list of prices and wages is mainly derived from data pertaining to areas in or around the imperial capital of Agra.
Ain is therefore of limited relevance
Any other relevant point Any four points from each section.

The village panchayat was an assembly of elders with hereditary rights over their property. The panchayat was usually a heterogeneous body. An oligarchy, the panchayat represented various castes and communities iv. The decisions made by panchayats were binding on the members. The panchayat was headed by a headman known as muqaddam or mandal vi.

The headman was chosen through the consensus of the village elders, and this choice had to be ratified by the zamindar. Headmen held office as long as they enjoyed the confidence of the village elders, failing which they could be dismissed by them. The chief function of the headman was to supervise the preparation of village accounts, assisted by the accountant or patwari of the panchayat.

The panchayat derived its funds from contributions made by individuals to a common financial pool. Panchayat ensured that caste boundaries among the various communities inhabiting the village were upheld. Panchayats also had the authority to levy fines and inflict more serious forms of punishment like expulsion from the community. Any other relevant point.

Question 30.
Explain the importance of Non-Cooperation Movement.
OR
Explain the significance of Civil Disobedience Movement [8]
Answer:
Gandhiji coupled non-cooperation with Khilafat and adjoined Hindus and Muslims to end colonial rule. These movements unleashed a surge of popular action that was altogether unprecedented in colonial India. Indians did not cooperate with government at any level. Boycott of schools, college and law courts. National schools, colleges were opened Nonpayment of taxes.

Renunciation of titles and voluntary association with the government viii. This movement changed the course of Indian history. poor peasants, workers, students, lawyers and industrialists joined movement. Hindus, Muslims, Parsees and Sikhs were told to unite. Thousands of Volunteers joined for the cause. Many officials resigned from their posts. Meetings were attended by all sections of people. Women participated in large number. It was training for self-rule. Any other relevant point.

Gandhiji organized Civil Disobedience Movement against Salt Law. Salt law gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt. The state monopoly on salt was deeply unpopular as in every Indian household salt was indispensable and the people were forbidden for making salt even for domestic use. Gandhiji hoped to mobilize a wider discontent against British rule and started Dandi March.

At Dandi he broke the salt law. Parallel Salt Marches were organized in other parts of the country. Peasants breached the colonial forest laws which restricted their access to forests. Factory owners went on strike. Lawyers boycotted British courts. Students refused to attend educational Institutions and schools run by government. Indians were arrested. Gandhiji made a plea to the upper caste to serve untouchables.

Flindus, Muslims, Parsees and Sikhs were told to unite. Thousands of Volunteers joined for the cause. Many officials resigned from their posts. Gandhiji’s meetings were attended by all sections of people. Women participated in large number. Dandi March brought Gandhi to world attention. The March was covered by European and American press. Salt march made British realized that they would have to devolve some powers to Indians. Any other relevant point.

Section- D (12 Marks)

Question 31.
Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Sanchi in the nineteenth century
The most wonderful ancient buildings in the state of Bhopal are at Sanchi Kanakhera, a small village under the brow of a hill some 20 miles north-east of Bhopal which we visited yesterday. We inspected the stone sculptures and statues of the Buddha and an ancient gateway. The ruins appear to be the object of great interest to European gentlemen.

Major Alexander Cunningham .stayed several weeks in this neighborhood and examined these ruins most carefully. He took drawings of the place, deciphered the inscription, and bored shafts down these domes. The results of this investigations were described by him an English work. FROM SHAHJAHAN BEGUM, NAWAB OF BHOPAL, (rules 1868-1901), Taj-ul Iqbal Tarikh Bhopal (A History of Bhopal), translated by H.D. Barstow, 1876.
(i) Why was Sanchi an interest to Alexander Cunningham?
(ii) How was Sanchi related with the Buddhism?
(iii) How did Shahjahan Begum conserve Sanchi stupa? [4]
Answer:
(i) Cunningham Was supposed to prepare illustrated reports on the stupa. Sanchi draw lies both in it being a center of Buddhist heritage and an important part in the history and archaeology of India. Any other relevant point.

(ii) Sanchi is one of the oldest Buddhist monuments contain the relics of the Buddha. The domed shape of the stupa represent Buddha seated in meditation. Any other relevant point.

(iii) The rulers of Bhopal, Shahjahan Begum andSultan Jehan Begum, provided money for the preservation of the ancient site. John Marshall dedicated his important volumes on Sanchi to Sultan Jehan. She funded the museum that was built there as well as the guesthouse where John Marshall lived. She also funded the publication of the volumes written by John Marshall. Any other relevant point.

Question 32.
Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow:
This is part of a song attributed to Mirabai:
I will build a funeral pyre of sandalwood and aloe;
Light it by your own hand
When I am burned away to cinders;
Smear this ash upon your limbs.
let flame be lost in flame.
In another verse, she sings:
What can Mewar’s ruler do to me?
If God is angry, all is lost,
But what can the Rana do?
(i) Examine the reason of calling Meera Bai as an ascetic figure.
(ii) Analyze Meera Bai’s relation with Mewar.
(iii) How was Mirabai unique among the poet-saints of the Bhakti movement. [4]
Answer:
(i) Meera Bai led the life of asceticism and became a devotional and mystic poet. She stood against the conventions of her times. She showed her spiritual devotion for Krishna. Any other relevant point.

(ii) Mira Bai was married to crown prince of Mewar but after few years Rana of Mewar died.

(iii) Mirabai was unique among the poet-saints of the Bhakti movement owing to her socio-economic background as well as her gender. Bom a princess, she opted for the life of a saint. She lived a life of austerity. She showed absolute devotion to her beloved Krishna. Any other relevant point.

Question 33.
Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow:

We say that it is our firm and solemn resolve to have an independent sovereign republic. India is bound to be sovereign, it is bound to be independent and it is bound to be a republic Now, some friends have raised the question: ‘Why have you not put in the word ‘democratic’ here.?” Well, I told them that is conceivable, of course, that a republic may not be democratic but the whole of our past is witness to this fact that we stand for democratic institutions.

Obviously we are aiming at democracy and nothing less than a democracy. What form of democracy, what shape it might take is another matter. The democracies of the present day, many of them in Europe and elsewhere, have played a great part in the world’s progress. Yet it may be doubtful if those democracies may not have to change their shape somewhat before long if they have to remain completely democratic. We are not going just to copy, I hope, a certain completely democratic.

We are not going just to copy, I hope, a certain in democratic procedure or an institution of a so-called of government we amy establish here must fit in with any event whatever system of government we may establish here must fit in with the temper of our people and be acceptable to them. We stand for democracy. It will be for this House to determine what shape to give to that democracy, the fullest democracy.

I hope, The House will notice that in this Resolution, although we have not used the word ” democratic” because we though it is obvious that the word “republic” contains that word and we did not want to use unnecessary words and redundant words, but we have done, something much more than using the word. We have given the content of democracy in this Resolution and not only the content of democracy but the content, if I may say so, of economic democracy in the content, if I may so, of economic democracy in this Resolution.

Others might take objection to this Resolution on the ground that we have not said that is should be a Socialist State. Well, I stand for Socialism and, I hope, India will stand for Socialism and that India will go towards the constitution of a Socialist State and I do believe that the whole world will have to go that way.
(i) Explain the term sovereignty
(ii) How has democracy been related with sovereignty in the passage?
(iii) How did the Constitutional framers highlighted the need of economic democracy? [4]
Answer:
(i) Sovereign: It means people have the supreme right to take decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the government of India.

(ii) It showed that India going to be a sovereign state, not under dominion of another country. Not being subject to the control of any other State or external power. It was related to “Republic” indicating a government by the people and for the people. Any other relevant point.

(iii) Indian Constitutional framers strived to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order in which social, economic and political justice should be provided to all. They wanted India to be a socialist state. They tried to frame policies through which inequalities to be minimized in income and status. Any other relevant point.

Section – E (5 Marks)

Question 34.
(i) On the given political map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols:
(a) Amravati- A Stupa
(b) Rakhigarhi- Indus Valley Site
(c) Agra-Territory Under the Control of Mughals
OR
Vijayanagar- Capital of Vijayanagar empire.
(ii) On the same outline map, two places have been marked as ‘A and B,as the centres of the Revolt of 1857 Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [5]

Answer:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 10 with Solutions

February 22, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education with Solutions Set 10 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

All questions in both the sections are compulsory. However, there is an internal choice in some questions.
Marks for questions are indicated against each question.
Question Nos. 1-20 are Objective Type Questions carrying 1 mark each.
Question Nos. 21-30 are Short Answer Questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
Question Nos. 31-34 are Long Answer Questions carrying 5 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

Section – A (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Patanjali described _________ elements of yoga in yogasutras. [1]
Answer:
Eight

Question 2.
_________ is referred to the permanent deduction in the physical or mental capacity of an individual. [1]
Answer:
Disability

Question 3.
Intellectual and Physical are the _________ of disability. [1]
Answer:
4 types

Question 4.
Exercising helps _________ stress. [1]
Answer:
reduces

Question 5.
In _________, we have to concentrate on any object or spot continuously for some time. [1]
Answer:
Meditation

Immovable joints are also called _________ joints. [1]
Answer:
fibrous

Question 6.
Adolescent stage begins from _________ years and remains till 19 years. [1]
Answer:
Thirteen

Question 7.
_________ to the demands of training occur gradually over long periods of time. [1]
Answer:
Adaptations

Question 8.
_________ chips are used to time individual contestants in an event. [1]
(A) QFID
(B) SFID
(C) RFID
(D) WFID
Answer:
(C) RFID

Question 9.
The _________ work with fine motor skills, sensory processing, visual skills and self-care. [1]
(A) Occupational therapists
(B) Sportswriters
(C) Physiotherapist
(D) Speech instructors
Answer:
(A) Occupational therapists

Question 10.
Which of the following is a part of Summer Olympics? [1]
(A) Badminton
(B) Basketball
(C) Baseball
(D) All of these
Answer:
(D) All of these

Team Cohesion is: [1]
(A) Social Process
(B) Fundamental Process
(C) Dynamic Process
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Dynamic Process

Explanation: It is a dynamic process which is reflected in the tendency for group to stick together and remain united in the persuit of goals and objectives.

Question 11.
_________ respiration is the exchange of gases between the blood in capillaries and tissues in the body. [1]
(A) Internal
(B) External
(C) Inspiration
(D) Expiration
Answer:
(A) Internal

Question 12.
The main objective of Special Olympic Bharat is to organise tournaments for. [1]
(A) Girls only
(B) Boys only
(C) Physically challenged children
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Physically challenged children

Question 13.
A regular training stimulus is required for _________ to occur and to be maintained. [1]
(A) Wellness
(B) Adaptation
(C) Fitness
(D) Strength
Answer:
(B) Adaptation

Question 14.
_________ is the expression of technique of individual in motor action. [1]
(A) Style
(B) Strength
(C) Adaptation
(D) Endurance
Answer:
(A) Style

Question 15.
WADA updates the list of banned substances and methods on a _________ basis. [1]
(A) Daily
(B) Weekly
(B) Weekly
(D) Annually
Answer:
(D) Annually

The aim of health-related Fitness is to prevent the _________. [1]
(A) Power
(B) Obesity
(C) Diabetes
(D) Diseases
Answer:
(D) Diseases

Question 16.
Biathlon is part of Winter Olympics. (True/False) [1]
Answer:
True

OR
IOA stands for Indian Olympic Associate. (True/False) [1]
Answer:
False

Question 17.
Kabaddi is a traditional Indian game. (True/False) [1]
Answer:
True

Question 18.
Biomechanics plays a vital role in the enhancement of performance of an athlete. (True/False) [1]
Answer:
True

Question 19.
Test is the process of education that involves collection of data from the products which can be used for comparison with preconceived criteria to make judgment. (True/False) [1]
Answer:
False

Explanation: Evaluation is the process of education that involves collection of data from the products which can be used for comparison with preconceived criteria to make judgment.

Question 20.
Vertebral column has 35 bones in case of children. (True/False) [1]
Answer:
False

Section – B (30 Marks)

Question 21.
How neuro-muscular coordination is developed by physical education? [3]
OR
Briefly describe any three objectives of physical education.
Answer:
Physical education develops neuro-muscular coordination as:
(i) Develops better coordination between nervous system and muscular system.
(ii) Physical activities provide ample opportunities for a better neuro-muscular system.
(iii) Reaction time becomes less through participation in physical activities.
(iv) Accurate and smooth functions of the body.

The following are the objectives of physical education:
(i) Physical development
(a) Proper growth and development.
(b) Proper functioning of various systems of the body.
(c) Development of skills through better neuromuscular coordination.
(d) Development of strength and endurance.

(ii) Emotional development
(a) Development of healthy interests and attitudes.
(b) Satisfaction and channelising of emotions.
(c) Removing worry, tension, etc., through participation in sports.

(iii) Social development
(a) Developing qualities of sympathy and cooperation with others.
(b) Becoming a worthy member of home and society.

(iv) Social development
(a) Development of social traits which are essential for better adjustment in life.
(b) Development of sportsmanship.
(c) Developing leadership qualities.
(d) Development of personality.

Question 22.
Write the importance of meditation. [3]
Answer:
Importance of Meditation:
(i) Meditation is called Dhyana. It is very useful to improve concentration and mental relaxation.
(ii) It helps in the treatment of depression.
(iii) Heights of meditation can be achieved through Pranayama.
(iv) It helps in improving concentration of the people towards their goal.
(v) The person becomes psychologically strong by meditating for high achievement.
(vi) It improves memory and mental sharpness.
(vii) It relaxes the body, stabilises the mind and increases concentration.
(viii) It reduces stress, tension and worries.

Question 23.
Name six disciplines for which under-17 athletes are invited under the Khelo India program.
OR
Name any three areas in which modifications can be made by an APE teacher. [3]
Answer:
(i) Football
(ii) Badminton
(iii) Judo
(iv) Kabaddi
(v) Wrestling
(vi) Volleyball

Modifications can be made in these three areas by an APE teacher:
(i) Instruction: Lesson plans, strategies, etc. can be modified or included to help the child to be successful in physical education. For example, a Down syndrome child may respond to one-word signs as reminders for doing a somersault correctly.
(ii) Rules: A rule can be adapted or changed if it allows the special needs child to be successful. For example, if the students are working on volleyball skills, a wheelchair-bound student is allowed to serve the volleyball from four feet ahead of the serving line.
(iii) Equipment: Standard gym equipment can be replaced with other objects that vary in shape, colour, size, etc. For example, when playing kickball, provide a large bright orange ball for a visually impaired child to kick.

Question 24.
Describe the features of Emotional Development. [3]
Answer:
Emotional Development:
1. Emotions are vital for every individual but excess is always bad.
2. One of the major objectives is that it helps to develop/control various emotions like fear, pleasure, hope, anger, jealousy, etc.
3. By participating in various physical education programmes, an individual starts having control over his/her emotions.

Question 25.
Explain the structure of the heart with the help of a diagram. [3]
Answer:
The human heart is a four-chambered muscular organ, shaped and sized roughly like a man’s closed fist with two-thirds of the mass to the left of midline. The heart is enclosed in a pericardial sac that is lined with the parietal layers of a serous membrane. The visceral layer of the serous membrane forms the epicardium.

Question 26.
Name the four main stages of team cohesion. [3]
Answer:
Tuckman, B.W. (1965) discusses the four main stages of team cohesion: (i) Forming, (ii) Storming, (iii) Norming and (iv) Performing

Question 27.
Define Biomechanics. [3]
OR
Principles of training have an important part to play in the development of a sportsperson. Why?
Answer:
Biomechanics is derived from Greek words. Bio means living things and mechanics is field of physics. Thus, it is a branch of science, which deals with the forces related to body movements. Biomechanics is defined as the systematic study of the mechanics of body joints.

The principles of sports training guide the coaches and trainees to train and prepare good quality sportspersons. These principles also make the coaches understand different needs and capabilities of different athletes and develop a training program according to each athlete’s individual abilities.

Question 28.
What do you mean by Dhyana? How is it practiced? [3]
Answer:
According to Patanjali, “The concentration of Chitta (mind) on an impulse (vritti) without any divergence, is called dhyana”. The stage, when perception starts directly, is called real Dhyanavastha. Dhyana is not a practice but it is a stage in which there is a continuous dynamic consciousness without any obstruction. So, dhyana is not practiced but its stage is attained and experienced.

Question 29.
Write the importance of Kinesiology. [3]
Answer:
Importance of Kinesiology:
(i) The main focus of Kinesiology is the study of the mechanical concepts related to human movement which is beneficial for every individual even in their daily activities.
(ii) Kinesiology applies sciences like biomechanics, anatomy, physiology and psychology to better understand how the human body responds to physical activity and various stimuli.
(iii) Kinesiology and physical education study the role of exercise, physical movement and sports in the development of human health and happiness.

Question 30.
What is the purpose of training programmes? [3]
Answer:
Training programmes are designed to improve performance by developing the appropriate energy sources, increasing muscular structures and improving neuro-muscular skill patterns. Sports medicine professionals must be familiar with the basic principles and processes of training, so that they can evaluate training programmes and determine their adequacy in maintaining an athlete’s health and preventing injury.

Section – C (20 Marks)

Question 31.
Read the hypothetical text given below and answer the following questions: [5]
Anita is suffering from a disorder which is characterised by difficulties with social interactions and communication. The professional has suggested that through early intervention, the child’s quality of life can be significantly improved. The services of that professional focus on building positive interactions where language and social goals are targeted and the child’s unique needs are taken into consideration. On the basis of the above figure, answer the following questions:

(i) Which disorder is Anita suffering from?
(A) ADHD
(B) ASD
(C) ODD
(D) OCD
Answer:
(B) ASD

Explanation: Anita is suffering from Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD). It is characterised by difficulties with social interactions, communication, restricted or repetitive behaviours and sensory sensitivities.

(ii) Which professional’s services are the most useful for child suffering from this disorder?
(A) Speech therapist
(B) Physiotherapist
(C) Special educator
(D) Occupational therapist
Answer:
(A) Speech therapist

Explanation: Speech therapist focus on building positive interactions where language and social goals are targeted and the children’s unique needs are taken into consideration.

(iii) The child suffering from this disorder shows
(A) sensory sensitivities
(B) difficulty in vision
(C) shortness of breath
(D) hyperventilating
Answer:
(A) sensory sensitivities

(iv) The disorder from which Anita is suffering is characterised by
(A) social interactions
(B) communication
(C) sensory sensitivities
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

(v) The services of _________ focus on building positive interactions where language and social goals are targeted and the child’s unique needs are taken into consideration.
(A) Speech Therapists
(B) Counsellor
(C) Student
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Speech Therapists

Question 32.
What is the eight-fold path explained in yogasutras?
OR
Write some of the benefits of Dhouti and Basti. [5]
Answer:
Patanjali, the first teacher of Yoga, described eight elements of yoga in yogasutras. These are called eight-fold paths or eight steps through which ultimate goal of yoga can be achieved i.e., union of our soul to the supreme soul.

These eight elements of yoga are:
(i) Yama
(ii) Niyama
(iii) Asana
(iv) Pratyahara
(v) Dharana
(vi) Dhyana
(vii) Pranayama
(viii) Samadhi

These are explained below:
Yama and Niyama: These are initial sets of principles that are concerned with our conduct in personal and social life. These are related to ethics and values.

Asana: The term asana means sitting in a particular posture, which is comfortable and which could be maintained steadily for a long time. Asana gives stability and comfort, both at the physical and mental levels.

Pratyahara: Yogic practice of Pratyahara means the withdrawal of senses from sense organs in order to control mind. In pratyahara, the awareness about the external surrounding is withdrawn and is taken to inside. Introspection, and studying good books are some practices which can help in pratyahara.

Dharana: Dharana is the concentration of the mind. If the scattered mind is brought under control and set to the focal point, concentration is said to be achieved. The focal point can be in the centre of the forehead on level with a pointed soothing light at a distance.

Dhyana: Dhyana is one of the eight limbs of classical yoga. It is the penultimate limb, which leads to self absorption. Dhyana is a relaxation practice which induces relaxation in the body and mind. In Dhyana, concentration is focused for a long time on a single object like, breath, tip of the nose, etc. Dhyana is a relaxing practice; it develops a sense of well-being in the person.

Pranayama: Pranayama consists of breathing techniques which are related to the control of breath or respiratory process. Pranayama, also known as yogic breathing, involves the conscious manipulation of our breathing pattern. The health of the respiratory system depends upon the quality as well as the quantity of air inhaled by the person.

It also depends on the rhythm and completeness of the breathing. Through pranayama, a practitioner advantageously works with the respiratory, cardiovascular and nervous systems which bring about emotional stability and peace of mind. Pranayama has three phases known as puraka, rechaka and kumbhaka. Puraka is the controlled inhalation; rechaka is controlled exhalation and kumbhaka is controlled retention of breath.

Samadhi: When the mind is completely absorbed in one object of meditation, it is termed as samadhi. The mind identifies itself with the object of meditation.

Dhouti Benefits:
(i) Dhoutis are particularly beneficial in case of constipation, gastritis, dyspepsia, indispositions of the stomach and spleen, phlegm and bile disorders.
(ii) Dhoutis also increase digestive fire, improve kidney functioning and invigorate the liver by extricating parasites from within the system.
(iii) People suffering from obesity and those of a flabby and phlegmatic constitution will find these kriyas especially beneficial.

Basti Benefits:
(i) It cures pleeha, urinary disorders, gulma, myalga, dropsy, disorders of digestion, diseases of the spleen and bowels, diseases arising from the excess of wind, bile and phlegm.
(ii) By practicing Basti with water, the Dhatus, the Indriyas and the mind become calm.
(iii) It gives glow and tone to the body and increases the appetite. All the disorders disappear

Question 33.
Write a detailed note on some organisations promoting adaptive sports. [5]
Answer:
Some organisations promoting adaptive sports are:

Special Olympics Bharat: Special Olympics Bharat is a National Sports Federation registered in 2001 under the Indian Trust Act, 1882. It is accredited by Special Olympics International to conduct Special Olympics Programs in India. The Government of India has accredited it as a National Sports Federation in the Priority Category, for development of Sports for persons with special needs intellectually. It is the Nodal Agency for the purpose due to national presence and experience, particularly in rural areas that account for around 75% of the population with special needs in India.

The mission of Special Olympics is to provide year-round sports training and athletic competition in a variety of Olympic-type sports for children and adults with special needs intellectually, giving them continuing opportunities to develop physical fitness, demonstrate courage, experience joy and participate in sharing of gifts, skills and friendship with their families, other Special Olympics athletes and the community.

Paralympics: The Paralympic Games are the world’s largest sporting event for people with special needs physically, visually and intellectually. The Paralympic Movement was started by Sir Luding Guttmann and the movement finally developed into Paralympic Games. Guttmann was a firm believer that sports were the most appropriate method of therapy for those who have special needs physically to help them in building physical strength and self-esteem.

In 1948, he organised a sports competition for British World War II veterans, patients with spinal cord injuries. These games were known as the Stoke Mandeville Games and were recognised by International Olympics Association. In 1960, these games were held in Rome after the Rome Olympics. However, they were still known as the Mandeville Games. These games were the first official Paralympic Games. In these games, 400 athletes participated from 23 countries.

After 1960 Paralympic Games, things began to improve and the Paralympic movement continued to grow, modernise and include more and more sports for other differently abled groups also. In 1976 Paralympic Games, events for amputees and visually impaired athletes were organised for the first time. After a gap of a few years, the events for the athletes with cerebral palsy were included in 1980 Paralympic Games. In spite of these improvements, the Paralympic Games were still not considered equal or parallel to the Olympic Games.

There was rapid growth in the Paralympic Movement. In 1980, the first governing body for the Paralympic Movement was formed. It was known as International Coordination Committee of World Sports Organisations for the Disabled (ICC). In 1989, ICC was replaced by International Paralympic Committee (IPC). These games were a great success and boosted the movement’s momentum.

Deaflympics: The Deaflympics (previously called World Games for the Deaf and International Games for the Deaf) are an International Olympic Committee (IOC)-sanctioned event at which deaf athletes compete at an elite level. Unlike the athletes in other IOC-sanctioned events (the Olympics, the Paralympics and the Special Olympics), the Deaflympics cannot be guided by sounds (e.g., the starter’s guns, bullhorn commands or referee whistles).

Question 34.
Write briefly about the principles for development of physical fitness.
OR
Name some warm-up exercises. [5]
Answer:
Principles of physical fitness: Regular physical fitness exercise is required for an individual to develop and maintain physical fitness and proper growth of the body.

Principles for development of physical fitness:
Specificity: The chosen programme must meet the specific needs of the individual. For example, if speed is desired, speed exercises should be chosen.

Tolerance: Exercise should not be too easy or too difficult to achieve. It should be within the individual’s tolerance capacity. Total body involvement: Exercise programme should be designed in such a way that exercise of every part of the body is done to ensure proportionate body development.

Progressive over-loading: The load of exercise should be increased step by step for the improvement of physical fitness level of an individual. It should be progressively increased from simple to complex keeping in mind the individual’s tolerance capacity.

Age and sex: Physical fitness level varies according to the age and sex. The intensity and volume of fitness work should be planned separately for boys and girls and according to their growth patterns.

Regularity: One has to maintain regularity in order to achieve and maintain physical fitness.

Proper rest and sleep: Insufficient rest and sleep results in fatigue and has a negative effect on regularity and progression. It is suggested that a minimum of 6-8 hours comfortable sleep must be taken in a day.

Warming up: A session of thorough warming up is necessary for participating in any training programme. Warming up prepares muscles and heart for the workout. Warming up generally increases the body temperature before the strenuous workout and prevents muscle injury.

Limbering down: It is also known as ‘cooling down’. Limbering down promotes quicker recovery from fatigue and the individual feels fresh for the next day’s training session.

Warm Up Exercises:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Set 5 with Solutions

February 22, 2023

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choices.
Section A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
Section B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
Section C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Section D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
Section E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
Use of log tables and calculators are not allowed.

SECTION – A (18 Marks)
(The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mart There is no internal choice in this section.)

Question 1.
If limiting molar conductivity of Ca²⁺ and Cl^– are 119.0 and 76.3 S cm² mol^-1, then the value of limiting molar conductivity of CaCl₂ will be: [1]
(a) 195.3 S cm² mol^-1
(b) 271.6 S cm² mol^-1
(c) 43.3 S cm² mol^-1
(d) 314.3 S cm² mol^-1
Answer:
(b) 271.6 S cm² mol^-1

Explanation:
From Kohlrausch’s Law,
∧caCl₂ = ∧_Ca²⁺ + 2∧_cl^–
⇒ ∧cacl₂ = 119 + 2 × 76.3
= 119 + 152.6
= 271.6 cm² mol^-1
The limiting molar conductivity of CaCl₂ is 271.6 cm² mol^-1

Question 2.
Curdling of milk is an example of: [1]
(a) breaking of peptide linkage
(b) hydrolysis of lactose
(c) breaking of protein into amino acids
(d) denaturation of protein
Answer:
(d) denaturatior, of protein

Explanation:
Curdling of milk is an example of denaturation of proteins where the formation of lactic acid by microbial action results in denaturation.

Question 3.
Complete the following analogy:

(a) X: Catechol, Y: Hydroquinone
(b) X: Catechol, Y: Resorcinol
(c) X: Resorcinol, Y: Catechol
(d) X: Hydroquinone, Y: Catechol
Answer:
(a) X: Catechol, Y: Hydroquinone

Explanation:
When -OH group is attached at the oetho position of phenol, then the compound formed is called catechol when – OH group is attached at the para position, then the compound is called hydroquinone.

Question 4.
Diamagnetic species is weakly repelled by external magnetic field. Which of the following is not a diamagnetic ion: (Atomic numbers of Sc, Co, Mn and Cu are 21, 27, 25 and 29 respectively)?
(a) Co²⁺
(b) Sc³⁺
(c) Cu²⁺
(d) Mn²⁺
Answer:
(b) Sc³⁺

Explanation:
Co²⁺ (Z = 27): [Ar]₁₈3d⁷
(3 unpaired electrons)
Cu²⁺ (Z = 29): [Ar]₁₈3d⁹ (1 unpaired electrons)
Mn²⁺ (Z = 25): [Ar]₁₈3d⁵ (5 unpaired electrons)
Sc³⁺ (Z = 21): [Ar]₁₈3d⁰ (No unpaired electro
Sc³⁺ with no unpaired electron will be diamagnetic

Question 5.
Order of a chemical reaction can be fractional also. Which of the following, is an example of a fractional order reaction?
(a) NH₄NO₂ → N₂ + 2H₂O
(b) NO + O₃ → NO₂ + O₂
(c) 2NO + Br₂ → 2NOBr
(d) CH₃CHO → CH₄ + CO
Answer:
(d) CH₃CHO → CH₄ + CO

Explanation:
CH₃CHO → CH₄ + CO
Rate = k[CH₃CHO]^3/2

Question 6.
When CH₃CHBrCH₂CH₃ is reacted with alcoholic KOH, the major product is:
(a) CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃
(b) CH₂ = CH – CH₂ – CH₃
(c) CH₃ – CH(OH) – CH₂ – CH₃
(d) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(a) CH₃-CH = CH-CH₃

Explanation:
If the dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide can yield more than one alkene, then according to the Saytzeff rule, the main product is the most highly substituted alkene.

Question 7.
IUPAC name of [Pt(NH₃)₃ Br(NO₂)Cl] Cl is: [1]
(a) Triamminechloridobromidonitraplatinum (IV)chloride
(b) Triamminebromidonitrochloridoplatinum (IV)chloride
(c) Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV)chloride
(d) Triamminenitrochloridobromiodoplatinum (IV)chloride
Answer:
(c) Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV)chioride

Question 8.
The correct acidic strength order of the following is: [1]

(a) (I) > (II) > (III)
(b) (III) > (I) > (II)
(c) (II) > (III) > (I)
(d) (I) > (III) > (II)
Answer:
(b) (III) > (I) > (II)

Explanation:
Presence of EWG increases the acidic character.

Question 9.
Aniline is less basic than ethylamine. This is due to: [1]
(a) conjugation of lone pair of nitrogen with the ring
(b) the insoluble nature of aniline
(c) more Kb value of aniline
(d) hydrogen bonding
Answer:
(a) conjugation of lone pair of nitrogen with the ring

Explanation:
Lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom of aniline is involved in resonance and is not easily available for donation to protons. So, aniline is less basic than ethylamine.

Question 10.
Which of the following alcohol is most soluble in water? [1]
(a) Propanol
(b) Butanol
(c) Pentanol
(d) Hexanol
Answer:
(a) Propanol

Explanation:
Propanol is most soluble in water because the lower alcohols are highly soluble in water due to the presence of -OH group in the alcohols it forms H-bond with itself and molecular association takes place which causes the increase in the boiling point of the corresponding alcohols due to the increase in the number of carbon atoms and thus high temperature is required to break this association of bonds and thus the solubility in water increases. The extent of the hydrogen bonding in alcohols depends on the number of the carbon atoms attached in the chain and takes place as shown below:

Question 11.
Which of the ligands has largest CFSE value? [1]
(a) CO
(b) NH₃
(c) P
(d) H₂O
Answer:
(a) CO

Explanation:
CO is the strongest field ligand causes the highest CFSE, ∆₀ as a ligand.

Question 12.
What is the coordination number of Pt in [Pt(NH₃)₄Br₂]²⁺? [1]
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 4

Explanation:
Let the coordination number of Pt in [Pt(NH₃)₄Br₂]²⁺ be x
x + (0 × 4) – 2 = 2
x – 2 = 2
× = 2 + 2
x = 4

Question 13.
What do you conclude about the order of the reaction? [1]
(a) It is a first order reaction.
(b) It is a second order reaction.
(c) It is a third order reaction.
(d) It is a pseudo unimolecular reaction.
Answer:
(a) It is a first order reaction.

Explanation:
The plot of in [R] vs time is a straight line with negative slope. It is characteristic of first order reaction.

Question 14.
What is the unit of the order of the reaction depicted in the graph? [1]

(a) mol^-1 sec^-1
(b) sec^-1
(c) mol^-1
(d) mol^-2 Ls^-1
Answer:
(b) sec^-1

Explanation:
For first order reaction, the unit of the rate constant is sec^-1.

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 15.
Assertion (A): Fructose reduces Fehling’s solution and Tollens’ reagent.
Reason (R): Fructose does not contain any aldehyde group. [1]
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
Fructose on warming with dilute alkali, gives rise to an equilibrium mixture of glucose, fructose and mannose. The ability of fructose to reduce Fehling solution and Tollen’s reagent is probably due to the isomerisation of fructose to glucose and mannose (this is called Lobry de Bruyn and Elkenstein rearrangement).

Question 16.
Assertion (A): It is possible to make a cell with a pair of same type of half cells.
Reason (R): Change in concentration varies the electrode potential. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
It is possible to make a cell with a pair of same type of half cells as change in concentration varies the electrode potential.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product formation.
Reason (R): Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient kinetic energy lead to the compound formation. [1]
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation:
Correct assertion is “only effective collision lead to formation of product.” Reason defines correct meaning of effective collision, and criterion of collision theory for completion of reaction. Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient energy lead to formation of product.

Question 18.
Assertion (A): [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is coloured while [SC(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is colourless.
Reason (R): d-d transition is not possible in [SC(H₂O)₆]³⁺. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:
[Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is coloured while [Sc(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is colourless because [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ has unpaired election for d-d transition. So, it is coloured.

Section – B (14 Marks)
(The following questions are very short answer type with internal choice in two questions and carry 2 marks each.)

Question 19.
(A) Give one example of coordination isomerism.
(B) Calculate the number of unpaired electeon in Cr³⁺, Ti³⁺ and V³⁺ and identify the most stable ion in aqueous solution. [2]
Answer:
(A) Coordination isomerism arises when both (B) No. of unpaired e , the cation and anion are complexes and the ligands are exchanged. For example, [Co(NH₃)₆] [Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(NH₃)₆] [Co(CN)₆]

(B) No.of unpaired e^–
Cr³⁺ : 3
Ti³⁺ : 1
V³⁺ : 2
Among them, Cr³⁺ is the most stable as it has stable configuration i.e., t³_2g.

Question 20.
Give simple tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds: [2]
(A) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(B) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
Answer:
(A) Iodoform test: Pentan-2-one contains CH₃CO- group and as such it will give iodoform test with NaOl [NaOH + I₂] while no such group is there in pentan -3- one and so it will not give iodoform test.
CH₃COCH₂CH₂CH₃ + 2NaOl → CH₃CH₂CH₂COONa + CHI₃ + 2 NaOH Iodoform (yellow ppt)

(B) Benzaldehyde is an aromatic aldehyde while acetophenone is a methyl ketone. These may be distinguished as follows. Iodoform test: Acetophenone, due to the presence of CH₃CO^– group, will give iodoform test with NaOl (NaOH + l₂), while benzaldehyde will not give this test.

C₆H₅CHO + NaOl → No yellow ppt

Question 21.
What is meant by the following terms? [2]
(A) Cyanohydrin
(B) Acetal
OR
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated:
(A) CH₃COCH₃, C₆H₅ – CO – C₆H₅, CH₃CHO (reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reactions)
(B)

Answer:
(A) -OH group and cyano group are present on same carbon atom. Addition of HCN to carbonyl group in weakly acidic medium forms cyanohydrin.

(B) Acetal:
Terminal C atom has two alkoxy groups. Two equivalents of monohydric alcohol add to 1 equivalent of aldehyde in presence of dry HCl gas.

(A) C₆H₅-CO-C₆H₆ < CH₃COCH₃ < CH₃CHO
Explanation:
Ketones are less reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions due to more steric hinderance.

(B)

Explanation:
More the number of electron with drawing groups (Cl^–), more the acidic character.

Question 22.
(A) Differentiate between hormones and vitamins.
(B) Give the chemical name of the following:
(i) Vitamin E
(ii) Vitamin C [2]
Answer:
(A) Hormones:

Hormones are produced in the endo-crine or ductless glands.
Hormones are not stored in the body. These are produced as and when re-quired.
Example: Insulin

Vitamins:

Vitamins are stored in the body upto certain extent. 3. They are needed in small quantity.
Excess vitamins are excreted.
Example: Vitamin A, B, C, D, E and K

(B) (i) Tocopherol
(ii) Ascorbic acid

Question 23.
On the basis of electrochemical series, elaborate the following:
(A) Compound AU₂O₃ decomposes on hearing.
(B) Zn can displace hydrogen from dil HCl but Cu cannot. [2]
Answer:
(A) Oxide gold (III) on thermal breakdown to create gold and oxygen. The temperature range for this reaction is 160 – 290°C.

(B) In electrochemical series, Zn is placed above hydrogen but Cu is placed below hydrogen. Therefore, Zn can displace hydrogen from dil. HCl but Cu cannot.

Question 24.
(A) Draw the plot of In [R] vs t for a first order reaction. What is the slope?
(B) A first order reaction takes 30 minutes for 90% decomposition. Calculate k.
Given: log₁₀ = 1 [2]
Answer:
(A)

(B) For first order reaction,
k = \(\frac{2.303}{t}\) log \(\frac{\left[R_0\right]}{[R]}\)
Given, t = 30 min
[R₁] = 100
[R] = 10
So, k = \(\frac{2.303}{30}\) log \(\frac{100}{10}\)
= 0.076 × log 10
= 0.076 min^-1

Question 25.
(A) Give any two differences between double salts and complexes?
(B) Explain how [FeF₆]^3- is paramagnetic and outer orbital complex.
OR
(A) On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration for d⁴ ion if ∆₀ < P.
(B) Write the hybridization and shape of [Ni(CN)₄]^2-. (Atomic number of Ni = 28) [2]
Answer:
(A) The difference between Double salt and Complex salt are:

Double Salt	Complex Salt
(1) These exist only in solid state and dissociate into constituent species in their solution.	They retain their identity in solid as well as in solution state.
(2) They lose their identity in dissolved state.	They do not lose their identity in dissolved state.

(B) In [FeF₆]^3- complex
Oxidation number of Fe = + 3
Coordination Number Fe = 6
Coordination orbitals = 6
Fe → Fe³⁺ + 3e^–
Fe³⁺ → (26 – 3) – [Ar]₁₈
[FeF₆]^3- (Strongly Paramagnetic)

Here F^– is a weak field ligand and it obeys. Hund’s rule of leaving maximum number of unpaired electron (n = 5) and it uses one 40, three 4p and two 4d orbitals which are sp³d² hybridised. So it is an outer orbital complex.

(A) t³_2g e_g ∆_o < P, the configuration will be t_2g, e_g and it is in the case of weak field ligands and high spin complex will be formed.

(B) dsp², square planar.

Section – C (15 Marks)
(The following questions are short answer type with internal choice in two questions and carry 3 marks each.)

Question 26.
Write the mechanism for the formation of ethoxy ethane from ethanol. [3]
Answer:

Mechanism: Formation of ether follows S_N² mechanism.

Question 27.
How would you account for the following? [3]
(A) Many of the transition elements are known to form interstitial compounds.
(B) With the same d-orbital configuration (d⁴) Cr²⁺ is a reducing agent while Mn³⁺ is an oxidizing agent.
(C) The enthalpies of atomization of transition elements are quite high.
Answer:
(A) Many of the transition elements are known to form interstitial compounds because of unpaired electrons in the d-orbital. Transition elements have vacant interstitial sites and are able to trap small atoms like H, C or N to form such compound.

(B) As Cr³⁺ has stable t³_2g configuration so Cr²⁺ has a tendency to change to Cr³⁺ hence it is a reducing agent. Mn³⁺ changes to Mn²⁺ (3d)⁵ which is half filled state configuration. Hence, Mn³⁺ acts as oxidising agent.

(C) The enthalpies of atomization of a transition metal are high because they have a large number of unpaired electrons and hence have strong metallic bonding.

Question 28.
Answer the following questions: [3]
(A) Write the formula of an oxo-anion of chromium (Cr) in which it shows the oxidation state equal to its group number.
(B) Write one similarity and one difference between the chemistry of lanthanoids and that of actinoids.
(C) Name the element showing the maximum number of oxidation states among the first series of transition metals from Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30).
OR
The standard electrode potential for the M³⁺/M²⁺ half-cell gives the relative stability between M³⁺ and M²⁺. The reduction potential values are tabulated as below.

Reaction	Standard reduction potential (V)
Ti³⁺ + e^– → Ti²⁺	– 0.37
V³⁺ + e^–→ V²⁺	– 0.26
Cr³⁺ + e^– → Cr²⁺	– 0.41
Mn³⁺ + e^–→ Mn²⁺	+ 1.51
Fe³⁺ + e^–→ Fe²⁺	+ 0.77
Co³⁺ + e^–→ Co²⁺	+ 1.81

(A) What does the negative values for titanium, vanadium and chromium indicate?
(B) What does reduction potential of Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ indicate about the stability of these oxidation states?
(C) The E° value of the Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ couple is much more positive than that for Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺ couple or Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ couple.
Answer:
(A) An oxo-anion of chromium (Cr) in which it shows the oxidation state equal to its group number is Cr2 O^2-₇. Here, oxidation number of Cr is + 6 which is equal to its group number.

(B) Similarity: Both lanthanoids and actinoids show contraction in size and irregularity in their electronic configuration.
Difference: Actinoids show wide range of oxidation states but lanthanoids do not.

(C) Mn (Z = 25) has the maximum number of unpaired electrons present in the d-subshell so it shows maximum oxidation states (+ 2 to + 7)

(A) The negative values for titanium, vanadium and chromium indicate that the higher oxidation state is preferred.

(B) The high reduction potential of Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ indicates Mn²⁺ is more stable than Mn³⁺. Mn³⁺ has a 3d⁴ configuration while that of Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵. The extra stability associated with a half filled d-sub shell makes the reduction of Mn³⁺ very feasible
(E° = + 1.51V).

(C) Because Mn³⁺ has the outer electronic configuration of 3d⁴ and Mn²⁺ has the outer electronic configuration of 3d⁵. Thus, the conversion of Mn³⁺ to Mn²⁺ will be a favourable reaction since 3d⁵ is a very stable configuration as it is half filled configuration. Hence, E° value for Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ couple is positive.
Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺ undergoes a change in outer electronic configuration from 3d⁵ to 3d⁶. The configuration of the resultant are not stable and hence have a lower E° value.

Question 29.
Answer any three questions: [3]
(A) What type of linkage is present in disaccharides?
(B) Write one source and deficiency disease of vitamin B₁₂.
(C) Write the difference between DNA and RNA.
(D) What are the expected products of hydrolysis of lactose?
Answer:
(A) Glycosidic linkage, an oxide linkage, is present in disaccharides and polysaccharides to connect monosaccharides units.

(B) Vitamin B₁₂ is present in animal tissues, eggs, curd and almonds.

(D) On hydrolysis, lactose gives D-galactose and β-D-glucose

Question 30.
A solution containing 15 g urea (molar mass = 60 g mol^-1) per litre of solution in water has the same osmotic pressure (isotonic) as a solution of glucose (motar mass = 180 g mol^-1) in water. Calculate the mass of glucose present in one litre of its solution. [3]
Answer:
For isotonic solutions,
π(urea) = π(glucose)

Section – D (8 Marks)
(The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.)

Question 31.
The various classes of organic compounds containing carbonyl groups are aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids and their derivatives. The carbonyl carbon of the simplest aldehyde, formaldehyde is bonded to two hydrogen atoms. All other aldehydes contain the carbonyl carbon bonded to a hydrogen atom and to an alkyl group. The carbonyl carbon of a ketone is bonded to two alkyl groups. Carboxylic acids are obtained by the oxidation of primary alcohols or aldehydes. They are also obtained by the hydrolysis of nitriles, acid chlorides, esters, anhydrides and amides.
(A) Why carboxylic acids contain a carbonyl group but do not give characteristic reactions of the carbonyl group? [1]
(B) State the geometry of formaldehyde. [1]
(C) How will you differentiate the following compound.
(i) Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde
(ii) Formic acid and acetic acid.
OR
Explain the feature of following:
(i) Iodoform
(ii) Schiff s test [2]
Answer:
(A) Carboxylic acids contain a carbonyl group but do not give characteristic reaction of the carbonyl group because of resonance, the electrophilic nature of the carboxyl carbon is greatly reduced as compared to the carbonyl carbon is aldehyde and Vetones.

(B) Formaldehyde is planar molecule due to sp2 hybridized carbon atom.

(C) (i) Fehling’s solution can be used to distinguish benzaldehyde from acetaldehyde as benzaldehyde (aromatic aldehyde) does not reduce Fehling’s solution, but acetldehyde (aliphatic aldehyde) reduces Fehling’s solution.
(ii) Formic acid gives silver mirror with Tollen’s reagent wile acetic acid does not.
OR
(i) Iodoform test is used to check the presence of carbonyl compounds with the structure R-CO-CH₃ or alcohols with the structure R-CH(OH)-CH₃ in a given unknown substance.
(ii) Schiffs reagent is the aqueous solution of Rosaniline hydrochloride decolorised by SO₂.

Question 32.
An ideal solution may be defined as the solution which obeys Raoult’s law exactly over the entire range of concentration. The solutions for which vapour pressure is either higher or lower than that predicted by Raoult’s law are called non-ideal solutions.

Non-ideal solutions can show either positive or negative deviations from Raoult’s law depending on whether the A-B interactions in solution are stronger or weaker than A – A and B – B interactions.
(A) Name any two examples of ideal solution(s)? [1]
(B) If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, then what is the Gibbs free energy of mixing? [1]
(C) (i) Draw a graph for water and nitric acid mixture.
(ii) Water-HCl mixture shows maximum or minimum boiling azeotropes?
OR
A 2 litre flask contains 4g of hydrogen and 128 g of hydrogen iodide. Find out their active masses. [2]
Answer:
(A) (1) Bromoethane and iodoethane
(2) n-Heptane and n-hexane

Explanation:
A solution where the interaction of component molecules does not vary from the interactions of each component’s molecules. The ideal solutions are those at all concentrations and temperatures that obey Raoult’s law.

(B) For ideal solutions, the value of the Gibbs free energy is always negative as mixing of ideal solutions is a spontaneous process.

Explanation:
Two liquids HNO₃ (A) and water (B) form a maximum boiling azeotrope when mixed in the ratio of 68% and 32% respectively because the forces between the particles in the mixture are stronger than the mean of the forces between the particles in the pure liquids.

(ii) This mixture shows maximum boiling azeoteopes.
Explanation: Negative deviations from Raoult’s Law: New stronger forces must exist in the mixture than in the original liquids. These are cases where the molecules break away from the mixture less easily than they do from the pure liquids.

Mass of hydrogen = 4 g
Mol. mass of hydrogen = 2
Volume of the flask = 2 litre
Active mass of hydrogen = 422 × = 1 mol L^-1
Mass of HI = 128 g
Mol. mass of HI = 128
Volume of the flask = 2 litre
Active mass of hydrogen iodide
= \(\frac{128}{128 \times 2}\) = 0.5 mol L^-1

Section – E (15 Marks)
(The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an internal choice.)

Question 33.
(A) Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solutions:
CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N and NH₃ (B) Give the chemical tests to distinguish sh between the following pair of compounds: Methylamine and Dimethylamine
(C) How will you convert Benzene to Aniline?
(D) Write reactions of the final alkylation product of aniline with excess of methyl iodide in the presence of sodium carbonate solution.
OR
(A) Account for the following:
(i) N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3K and butanamine boils at 350.8K, although both are isomeric in nature.
(ii) Acylation of aniline is carried out in the presence of pyridine.
(B) What is the best reagent to convert nitrile to primary amine?
(C) Why does acetylation of -NH₂ group of aniline reduce its activating effect?
(D) Under what reaction conditions (acidic/basic) the coupling reaction of aryl diazonium chloride with aniline is carried out? [5]
Answer:
(A) Correct order is (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N > NH₃

Explanation:
+1 group, like R—groups, increases the electron density on nitrogen which increases the basicity (electron rich is basic) of amine. Of the given amines, more the number of R—groups on nitrogen more is the basic nature of amine. Basicity also depends on the steric hindrance. More is the steric hindrance less is the basicity.

(B) Methylamine and dimethylamine can be distinguished by the carbylamine test. Carbylamine test: Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide form foul-smelling isocyanides or carbylamines.

(D) Aniline reacts with methyl iodide to produce N, N-dimethylaniline.

With excess methyl iodide, in the presence of Na₂C0₃ solution, N, N-dimethylaniline produces N, N, N-trimethylanilinium carbonate.

(A) (i) Due to the presence of three hydrogen atoms, the intermolecular association is more in primary amines than in secondary amines as there are two hydrogen atoms available for hydrogen bond formation in it. Thus, butanamine boils at 350.8K while N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3K.
(ii) During the acylation of aniline, stronger base pyridine is added. This done in order to remove the HCl so formed during the reaction and to shift the equilibrium to the right hand side.

(B) LiAlH₄ and sodium/alcohol are the best reagents for converting nitrile to a primary amine. The nitriles are transformed into a corresponding primary amine through reduction.

(C) The acetylation of -NH₂ group of aniline reduces its activating effect because the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen of acetanilide interacts with oxygen atom due to resonance.

(D) Coupling reaction of aryl diazonium chloride with aniline is carried out in mildly acidic conditions, i.e. pH = 4-5.

Question 34.
(A) Identify the compound that on hydrogenation produces an optically active compound from the following compounds, giving reason.

(B) Out of chlorobenzene and benzyl chloride, identify the compound which gets hydrolysed by aqueous NaOH and why?
(C) Give the IUPAC name of the product formed when:
(i) 1- methyl cyclohexene is treated with HI.
(ii) chloroethane is treated with silver nitrite
OR
(A) Distinguish enantiomer from racemic mixture.
(B) The following compounds are given to you:
2-Bromopentane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane
(i) Write the compound which is most reactive towards S_N¹ reaction.
(ii) Write the compound which is optically active
(iii) Write the compound which is most reactive towards (3-elimination reaction.
(C) Arrange the following in decreasing order of reactivity:
R-Cl, R-Br, R-l [5]
Answer:
(A) Any compound is said to be optically inactive when:

It can show enantiomerism-lt forms non-super impossible mirror images of each other.
It has a chiral carbon-A chiral carbon is one which is bonded to four different molecules.

Hydrogenation of (I):

The product formed by the hydrogenation of compound (I) does not have a chiral carbon. Therefore, it is not optically active. Hydrogenation of (II):

The product formed by the hydrogenation of compound (II) has a chiral carbon. Therefore, it is optically active.

(B) Benzyl chloride gets easily hydrolysed by aqueous NaOH as chlorobenzene has partial double bond character in the Cl-C bond. The lone pairs delocalised in the ring strengthens Cl-C bond reducing its reactivity. Whereas benzyl chloride undergoes S_N¹ reaction to form stable benzyl carbocation.

(A) A racemic mixture is a 50:50 mixture of two enantiomers. Because they are mirror images, each enantiomer rotates plane-polarized light in an equal but opposite direction and is optically inactive. If the enantiomers are separated, the mixture is said to have been resolved.

(B) (i) 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane will be most reactive towards SJF due to maximum hindrance and formation of stable carbocation. Tertiary alkyl halides are most reactive for reaction.
(ii) 2-Bromopentane has a chiral carbon in it. So, this compound is optically active.

(iii) 2-Bromo-2-methyl pentane give a stable elimination product Most stable alkene i.e.. more substituted)

(C) R-l > R-Br > R-Cl
Explanation: The reactivity of alkyl halides mostly corresponds to bond energy and electro negativity of the halide, if we consider R-F here the bond energy is very high and the F atom is highly electronegative thus proving to be a weak leaving group, on the other hand R-l has a relatively less bond energy thus proving to be a good leaving group, that’s why it is highly reactive.

Question 35.
(A) The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001M KCl solution at 298K is 1500 Ohm. What is the cell constant if conductivity of 0.001M KCl solution at 298K is 0.146 × 10^-3 S cm^-1.
(B) The cell in which the following reaction occurs:
2Fe³⁺_(aq) + 2l^–_(aq) → 2Fe²⁺ (aq) + I₂(s) has
E°_cell = 0.236 Volt at 298 K
Calculate the standard Gibbs energy and the equilibrium constant of the cell reaction. [5]
Answer:
(A) k = \(\frac{1}{R}\) cell constant
k = 0.146 × 10^-3 s cm^-1
R = 1500 Ohm
0.146 × 10^-3 = \(\frac{1}{1500}\) ×
cell constant = 0.146 × 10^-3 × 1500
= 219 × 10^-3 = 0.219 cm^-1

(B) ∆_rG⁰ = – nFE⁰_cell
= – 2 × 96500 × 0.236
= – 45.548 kl/mol

or k_c = + antilog 8.0
k_c = 10⁸

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